Aits-24 Jee Main 18.07.2021
Aits-24 Jee Main 18.07.2021
Aits-24 Jee Main 18.07.2021
JEE (Main)-2021
TEST DATE: 18-07-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-FT-XV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2021 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
2 2 V
(A) 2
2 B 2 B1
4 2 V
(B) 2
2 B 2 B1
8 2 V
(C) 2
2 B 2 B1
8 2 V
(D) 2
2 B 2 B1
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4. A uniform rope of linear mass density and length is coiled on a
v
smooth horizontal surface. One end is pulled up with a constant velocity
v. Then the average power delivered by the external agent in pulling the
entire rope just off the horizontal surface is
1 2 g
(A) v 2
2 2
(B) gv
vg
(C) v 3
2
1 3
(D) vg v
2
5. A capillary tube with inner cross-section in the form of a square of side ‘a’ is dipped vertically in a
liquid of density and surface tension which wet the surface of capillary tube with angle of
contact . The approximate height to which liquid will be raised in the tube is (Neglect the effect of
surface Tension at the corners of capillary tube)
2 cos
(A)
ag
4 cos
(B)
ag
8 cos
(C)
ag
(D) None of these
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2 v12
(C) y = Kx4 where K
ga
2 v12
(D) y = Kx4 where K
ga2
7. A pipe of length 1, closed at one end is kept in a chamber of gas of density 1. A second pipe
open at both ends is placed in a second chamber of gas of density 2. The compressibility of both
the gases are equal. Calculate the length of the second pipe if frequency of first overtone in both
the cases are equal.
4
(A) 1 2
3 1
4
(B) 1 1
3 2
2
(C) 1
1
1
(D) 1
2
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10. The voltage of AC source is E = 220 sin (t + /6) and the AC in the circuit is I = 10 sin (t /6).
The average power dissipated is
(A) 150 W
(B) 550 W
(C) 250 W
(D) 50 W
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2mg
(B) tan 1 1
kh
mg
(C) cot 1 1
kh
mg
(D) tan 1 1
kh
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m
(C) 2
K
m
(D) 2
K g2 a 2
2
20. Five identical bricks each of length L are piled with one
on the top of the other on a table as shown in the
figure. The maximum distance S the top brick can
overhang the table with the system still balanced is
7
(A) L
8
2
(B) L
3 S
21L
(C)
32
137L
(D)
120
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AITS-FT-XV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2021 8
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
21. The binding energy of deuteron H is 1.15 MeV per nucleon and an alpha particle
2
1
4
2 He has
a binding energy of 7.1 MeV per nucleon. Then in the reaction.
2 2 4
1 H 1 H 2He Q
What is the energy released Q (in MeV)?
the value of k.
1
23. In a series LCR circuit, the difference of the frequencies at which current amplitude falls to
2
kR
times the current amplitude at resonance is . Find the value of k.
L
24. The relation between internal energy U, pressure P and volume V of an ideal gas in an adiabatic
process is U = 2 + 3PV. If CP C V kR . Find the value of k.
25. A monoatomic ideal gas is taken through a process whose equation is given by:
P = KV–1/2
Where P is the pressure and V is the volume of the gas. The molar heat capacity of the gas in the
above process is (CV + R). Find the value of .
27. In a resonance tube with tuning fork of frequency 512Hz, first resonance occurs at a length of
30.3 cm and second resonance occurs at a length of 63.7cm. The maximum possible error in the
measurement of the speed of the sound is (in cm/s)
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28. A uniform rope of length 12m and mass 6kg hangs from a rigid support. A block of mass 2kg is
attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 0.06m is produced at the
lower end of the rope. What is the wavelength (in m) of the pulse when it reaches the top of the
rope?
29. One end of a uniform rod of length 4.5m is placed in boiling water while its other end is placed in
melting ice. A point P on the rod is maintained at a constant temperature of 800 °C. The mass of
the steam produced per second is equal to the mass of ice melted per second. If latent heat of
steam is seven times the latent heat of ice, the distance (in m) of the point P from the steam
chamber must be equal to
30. A beam of light of wavelength 600nm from a distant source falls normally on a single slit 1mm
wide and a resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2m away. The distance between
the first dark fringes on the either side of the central bright fringe is (in mm)
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Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
2 6
1. B H 1 eq.
2. DIBAL H/ 78o C
3. H3 O
CN
(A) CH2OH
CH2OH
(B) CH2OH
COOH
(C) CH2OH
CHO
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(D) COOH
CHO
1. Na /liq. NH3
H3CO CH2 CH2 C C CH3
2. H O
3
3. Br2 /h mono bro min ation
(A)
H
H3CO CH2 CH
C C
Br
H CH3
(B)
CH3
H3CO CH 2 CH
C C
Br
H H
(C)
H
H3CO CH CH2
C C
Br
H CH3
(D)
CH3
H3CO CH CH2 CH2
C C
Br
H H
35. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between naphthol and adipic
acid?
(A) Aqueous NaOH
(B) Tollen’s reagent
(C) Molish reagent
(D) Neutral FeCl3
36. A solution containing 0.5 g of CrCl3 .6H2O was passed through a cation exchange resin and acid
coming out of the cation exchange resin required 30.02 ml of 0.125 M NaOH. The correct formula
of the complex [Molecular weight of the complex = 226.6 g mol -1].
(A) Cr H2 O 6 Cl3
(B) Cr H2 O 5 Cl Cl2 .H2 O
(C) Cr H2 O 4 Cl2 Cl.2H2 O
(D) Cr H2 O 3 Cl3 .3H2 O
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39. If the ionization potential of Mg 9.48 eV, the ionization of calcium will be
(A) 18.96 eV
(B) 9.90 eV
(C) 6.42 eV
(D) same as that of Mg
40. Which of the following reactions will not give aniline as major product?
(A) NO 2
Sn HCl
(B) NO 2
LiAlH4
(C) CONH2
Br2 KOH
(D) NC
H /H2O
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44. Among the following which does not have planar structure?
(A) N SiH3 3
(B) N CH3 3
(C) CO32
(D) NO23
45. When H2S gas passed through the HCl containing aqueous solution of
CuCl2 ,HgCl2 ,BiCl3 and CoCl2 . It does not precipitate out
(A) CuS
(B) HgS
(C) Bi2 S3
(D) CoS
47. To 25 ml H2O2 solution, excess of acidified solution of KI was added. The iodine liberated
required 20 ml of 0.3 M Na 2S2O3 solution. The volume strength of H2O2 solution is
(A) 3.244 V
(B) 1.344 V
(C) 5.4 V
(D) 4.08 V
48. Threshold frequency of a metal is 5 1014 s1 upon which 1 1015 s 1 frequency light is focused.
The maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron is [Given h 6.6 10 34 J s ]
(A) 3.3 10 19 J
(B) 3.3 10 21 J
(C) 6.6 10 21 J
(D) 6.6 10 20 J
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SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
51. A current of 96.5 A is passed for 18 minutes between copper electrodes in 500 ml aqueous
solution of CuSO 4 having 1 moles of CuSO 4 . The molarity of solution after electrolysis would be
52. The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is 119.5 kJ mol1. If resonance energy of benzene
is 150.4 kJ mol1, its enthalpy of hydrogenation would be
A2
53. The value of n would be if the rate of reactions whose rate constants, activation energies
A1
and Arrhenius constants are k1 and k 2 , Ea1 and Ea2 , A1 and A 2 respectively at 300 K, are equal
at 300 K. Given that activation energy Ea2 is 2RT more than activation energy Ea1 .
MB
55. The value of would be [MB and MA are molar masses of gas B and gas A respectively] if 2g of
MA
gas ‘B’ is added to a container having 1 g of gas A at 4 bar pressure at T K so that total pressure
becomes 6 bar at same temperature T K. Assume gases behave an ideal gas.
57. The percentage of oxygen in compound ‘P’ formed in the following sequence of reaction is
1. Cr2 O3 / Al2 O3 773 K, 10 20 atm
CH3 CH2 5 CH3 2. Br2 / h
P Major
3. Mg/ ether
4. H2O
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Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
62. If 1, , 2 are three cube roots of unity, then (a b c2 )3 + (a b2 c)3 is equal to, if
abc 0
(A) 27abc
(B) 0
(C) 3 abc
(D) none of these
63. Given that the equation z2 (p iq)z r is 0, where p,q,r,s are real and non-zero has a real
root, then
(A) pqr r 2 p2 s
(B) prs q2 r 2p
(C) qrs p2 s2 q
(D) pqs s2 q2r
1 2
64. The maximum sum of the series 20 19 18 ......... is
3 3
(A) 310
(B) 300
(C) 320
(D) none of these
66. In a certain test there are n questions. In the test 2ni students gave wrong answers to at least i
questions, where i 1, 2, ......n . If the total number of wrong answers given is 2047, then n is
equal to
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
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xa b c
68. One of the roots of the given equation b xc a 0 is
c a x b
(A) (a b)
(B) (b c)
(C) a
(D) (a b c)
x sin y sin x
69. If tan and tan , then is equal to
1 x cos 1 y cos y
sin
(A)
sin
sin
(B)
sin
sin
(C)
1 cos
sin
(D)
1 cos
71. If a b c 0 , a, b, c are distinct non-zero real number and p 0, the lines ax (b c)y p,
bx (c a)y p and cx (a b)y p
(A) do not intersect
(B) intersect
(C) are concurrent
(D) none of these
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72. Tangents are drawn from the point (4, 3) to the circle x 2 y2 9 . The area of the triangle formed
by them and the line joining their points of contact is
24
(A)
25
64
(B)
25
192
(C)
25
192
(D)
5
73. The centre of an ellipse is C and PN is any ordinate and A, A’ are the end points of major axis,
PN2
then the value of is
AN . A 'N
b2
(A)
a2
a2
(B)
b2
(C) a2 b2
(D) 1
74. The vector equation of the plane through the point (2, 1, –1) and passing through the line of
intersection of the plane r.(i 3j k) 0 and r.( j 2k) 0 is
(A) r.(i 9j 11k) 0
(B) r.(i 9j 11k) 6
(C) r.(i 3j 13k) 0
(D) none of these
75. The moment about the point M( 2, 4, 6) of the force represented in magnitude and position by
AB where the points A and B have the co-ordinates (1, 2, 3) and (3, 4, 2) respectively, is
(A) 8i – 9j – 14k
(B) 2i – 6j + 5k
(C) – 3i + 2j – 3k
(D) – 5i + 8j – 8k
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78. For a biased die, the probabilities for different faces to turn up are
Face : 1 2 3 4 5 6
Probability : 0.2 0.22 0.11 0.25 0.05 0.17
The die is tossed and you are told that either face 4 or face 5 has turned up. The probability that it
is face 4 is
1
(A)
6
1
(B)
4
5
(C)
6
(D) none of these
x2 y2
80. A tangent to a hyperbola 1 intercepts a length of unity from each of the co-ordinate axes,
a2 b2
then the point (a, b) lies on the rectangular hyperbola
(A) x2 y2 2
(B) x2 y2 1
(C) x 2 y 2 1
(D) none of these
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
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82. If (a 3b)(3a b) 4h2 , and the angle between the lines represented by ax2 2hxy by2 0 is
2
, then k is equal to
k
cos2 x sin4 x
83. If f(x) for x R , then f ' is equal to
sin2 x cos 4 x 3
sin x 6cos x
85. If function f(x) is monotonically increasing, then minimum value of is equal
2 sin x 3cos x
to (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)
dx x
87. If sin x cos x 2
is
2
cot c , then the value of is equal to
8
x dx
88. If 0 2
(1 x)(1 x )
k
, then k is equal to
89. Area bounded by y x sin x and x-axis between x 0 and x 2, is equal to
90. A coin is tossed three times in succession. If E is the event that there are at least two heads and
E
F is the event in which first throw is a head, then 12P is equal to
F
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