SSRN 3438704
SSRN 3438704
SSRN 3438704
Tim Xiao1
ABSTRACT
This article presents a generic model for pricing financial derivatives subject to counterparty credit risk.
Both unilateral and bilateral types of credit risks are considered. Our study shows that credit risk should
be modeled as American style options in most cases, which require a backward induction valuation. To
correct a common mistake in the literature, we emphasize that the market value of a defaultable derivative
is actually a risky value rather than a risk-free value. Credit value adjustment (CVA) is also elaborated. A
practical framework is developed for pricing defaultable derivatives and calculating their CVAs at a
portfolio level.
Key Words: credit value adjustment (CVA), credit risk modeling, financial derivative valuation,
1
Address correspondence to Tim Xiao, Risk Quant, Capital Markets, CIBC, 161 Bay Street, Toronto, ON M5J 2S8;
email: tim_yxiao@yahoo.com Url: https://finpricing.com/
derivatives such as, debt instruments (e.g., loans, bills, notes, bonds, etc), by nature contain only
unilateral credit risk because only the default risk of one party appears to be relevant. Whereas some other
derivatives, such as, over the counter (OTC) derivatives and securities financing transactions (SFT), bear
bilateral credit risk because both parties are susceptible to default risk.
In the market, risk-free values are quoted for most financial derivatives. In other words, credit
risk is not captured. Historical experience shows that credit risk often leads to significant losses.
Therefore, it is obvious to all market participants that credit risk should be taken into account when
reporting the fair value of any defaultable derivative. The adjustment to the risk-free value is known as
the credit value adjustment (CVA). CVA offers an opportunity for banks to dynamically price credit risk
into new trades and has become a common practice in the financial industry, especially for trading books.
By definition, CVA is the difference between the risk-free value and the true (or risky or defaultable)
value that takes into account the possibility of default. The risk-free value is what brokers quote or what
trading systems or models normally report. The risky value, however, is a relatively less explored and less
transparent area, which is the main challenge and core theme for credit risk measurement and
management.
There are two primary types of models that attempt to describe default processes in the literature:
structural models and reduced-form (or intensity) models. The structural models, studied by Merton
(1974) and Longstaff and Schwartz (1995), regard default as an endogenous event, focusing on the capital
structure of a firm. The reduced-form models introduced by Jarrow and Turnbull (1995) and Duffie and
Singleton (1999) do not explain the event of default endogenously, but instead characterize it
exogenously as a jump process. For pricing and hedging, reduced-form models are the preferred
methodology.
Three different recovery models exist in the literature. The default payoff is either 1) a fraction of
par (Madan and Unal (1998)), 2) a fraction of an equivalent default-free bond (Jarrow and Turnbull
used in the market. In their paper, Duffie and Singleton (1999) do not clearly state whether the market
value of a defaultable derivative is a risky value or a risk-free value. Instead, the authors implicitly treat
the market value as a risky value because the market price therein evolves in a defaultable manner.
Otherwise, they cannot obtain the desired result. However, most of the later papers in the literature
mistakenly think that the market value of a defaultable derivative is a risk-free value. Consequently, the
results are incorrect. For instance, the current most popular CVA model described by Pykhtin and Zhu
(2007), and Gregory (2009) is inappropriate in theory because the authors do not distinguish risky value
and risk-free value when they conduct a risky valuation (i.e. valuing a defaultable derivative). In fact, the
In this paper, we present generic models for valuing defaultable financial derivatives. For
completeness, our study covers various cases: unilateral and bilateral, single payment and multiple
payments, positive and negative payoffs. Although a couple of simple cases have been studied before by
other authors, e.g. Duffie and Singleton (1999), Duffie and Huang (1996), who only provide heuristic
derivations in a non-rigorous manner; analytic work on the other cases is novel. In contrast with the
current recursive integral solution (see Duffie and Huang (1996)), our theory shows that the valuation of
There is an intuitive way of understanding these backward induction behaviours: We can think
that any defaultable derivative with bilateral credit risk embeds two default options. In other words, when
entering a defaultable financial transaction, one party grants the other party an option to default and, at the
same time, also receives an option to default itself. In theory, default may occur at any time. Therefore,
default options are American style options that normally require a backward induction valuation.
We explicitly indicate that, within the context of risky valuation, the market value of a defaultable
derivative is actually a risky value rather than a risk-free value, because a firm may default at any future
time even if it survives today. An intuitive explanation is that after charging the upfront CVA, one already
converted the market value of a defaultable derivative from the risk-free value to the risky value.
valuation and calculate the bilateral CVA at a portfolio level, which incorporates netting and margin (or
The rest of this paper is organized as follows: Basic setup is provided in Section 1; pricing
unilateral defaultable derivatives and their unilateral CVAs is discussed in Section 2; valuing bilateral
asymmetric defaultable derivatives and their bilateral CVAs is elaborated on in Section 3; a practical
framework that embraces netting agreements, margining agreements, and wrong/right way risk is
proposed in Section 4, and the numerical results are presented in Section 5. The conclusions are given in
Section 6.
1. Basic Setup
where denotes a sample space, F denotes a -algebra, P denotes a probability measure, and
The default model is based on the reduced-form approach proposed by Duffie and Singleton
(1999) and Jarrow and Turnbell (1994), which does not explain the event of default endogenously, but
characterizes it exogenously by a jump process. The stopping (or default) time is modeled as a Cox
arrival process (also known as a doubly stochastic Poisson process) whose first jump occurs at default
It is well-known that the survival probability, conditional on a realization path, from time t to s in
where Z is the firm-specific state process that helps forecast that firm’s default. The default probability,
conditional on the realization path, for the period (t, s) in this framework is defined by
Applying the law of iterated expectations, we express the expected survival probability for the
period (t, s) as
S (t , s ) E exp h(u ) du F t
s
(2a)
t
where E F t is the expectation conditional on the Ft . The expected default probability for the period
(t, s) is expressed as
Q (t , s ) 1 S (t , s ) 1 E exp h(u )du F t
s
(2b)
t
There are three different recovery models in the literature. The default payoff is either 1) a
fraction of par, 2) a fraction of an equivalent default-free bond, or 3) a fraction of market value. We use
The binomial default rule considers only two possible states: default or survival. For a discrete
one-period (t, s) economy, at the end of the period a defaultable derivative either defaults with the default
probability Q(t , s) or survives with the survival probability S (t , s) . Assume that the market value of the
defaultable derivative at time s is V D (s) . The default payoff is a fraction of the market value given by
(s)V D (s) , where (s) is the default recovery rate at time s, whereas the survival payoff is equal to the
market value V D (s) itself. Therefore, the risky value of the derivative, conditional on the realization path,
V D (t ) D(t, s) Q(t, s)(s)V D (s) S (t, s)V D (s) (3a)
where
D (t , s ) exp r (u )du
s
t (3b)
where D(t , s) denotes the stochastic risk-free discount factor at t for the maturity s and r (u ) denotes the
derivative may default at any time after s. Therefore, the present survival value or the market value at
time s is a risky value. In other words, for risk-free valuations, the market value is a risk-free value, but
for risky valuations, the market value is actually a risky value. An intuitive explanation is that one already
converted the market value from the risk-free value to the risky value after charging the upfront CVA.
Unilateral risky valuation can be applied to two cases. By nature, the derivatives in case 1 involve
only unilateral credit risk. In case 2, the derivatives actually bear bilateral credit risk, but people
sometimes may treat bilateral defaultable derivatives as unilateral ones for simplicity.
Two parties are denoted as A and B. The unilateral credit risk assumes that only one party is
defaultable and the other one is default-free. In this section, we assume that party A is default-free,
whereas party B is defaultable. All calculations are from the perspective of party A. Let the valuation date
Consider a defaultable derivative that promises to pay a X T from party B to party A at maturity
date T, and nothing before date T. The payoff X T may be positive or negative, i.e. the derivative may be
either an asset or a liability to each party. The risk-free value of the derivative at valuation date t is given
by
V F (t ) ED(t , T ) X T F t (4)
We divide the time period (t, T) into n very small time intervals ( t ) and assume that a default
Proposition 1: The unilateral risky value of the single payment derivative is given by
where
CB (t , T ) exp i0 cB (t it )t
n1
(5b)
where Y is an indicator function that is equal to one if Y is true and zero otherwise.
We may think of C B (t , T ) as the risk-adjusted discount factor and cB (u ) as the risk-adjusted short
rate. Here B (u ) represents the default recovery rate of party B, and hB (u ) represents the hazard rate of
party B. s B (u) hB (u)1 B (u) is called the credit spread or the short credit spread.
Compared to the risk-free valuation (4), the risky valuation (5) is substantially complex. The
intermediate values are vital to determine the final price. For a small time interval, the current risky value
has a dependence on the future risky value. Only on the final payment date T, the value of the derivative
and the maximum amount of information needed to determine the risk-adjusted discount factor are
revealed. This type of problem can be best solved by working backwards in time, with the later risky
value feeding into the earlier ones, so that the process builds on itself in a recursive fashion, which is
referred to as backward induction. The most popular backward induction valuation algorithms are
For an intuitive explanation, we can posit that a defaultable derivative under the unilateral credit
risk assumption has an embedded default option. In other words, one party entering a defaultable financial
transaction actually grants the other party an option to default. If we assume that a default may occur at
any time, the default option is an American style option. American options normally have backward
simply the Continuous-Time Model (CTM), assumes that a defaultable derivative is continuously
defaultable. Proposition 1 can be further expressed in the form of the CTM as:
Corollary 1.1: The unilateral risky value of the single payment derivative under the CTM is given by
V D (t ) E C B (t , T ) X T F t (6a)
where
C B (t , T ) exp c B (u ) du
T
t (6b)
The proof of this corollary becomes straightforward, according to Proposition 1, by taking the
Proposition 1 provides a general form for pricing a unilateral defaultable single payment
derivative. Applying it to a particular situation in which we assume that the payoff X T is non-negative,
Corollary 1.2: If the payoff X T is non-negative, the risky value of the single payment derivative under the
CTM is given by
V D (t ) E C B (t , T ) X T F t (7a)
where
T
C B (t , T ) exp c B (u ) du (7b)
t
c B (u ) r (u ) hB (u)(1 B (u )) (7c)
The proof of this corollary is easily obtained according to (6) by setting V (u) 0 . Since the
D
D
payoff X T is non-negative, the intermediate value V (u) is also non-negative.
derivation, the authors implicitly treat the market value of a defaultable derivative as a risky value
because the market price therein evolves in a defaultable manner. Otherwise, they would not have been
The risky valuation becomes quite simple when the payoff is non-negative. This corollary says
that a single non-negative payment defaultable derivative can be priced using the present value of the
promised payoff X T discounted by the risk-adjusted discount rate c B (u ) instead of the risk-free rate
r (u ) .
By definition, the corresponding CVA of the single non-negative payment derivative can be
expressed as
CVA U (t ) V F (t ) V D (t ) E D(t , T ) X T F t E C B (t , T ) X T F t (8)
Since C B (t, T ) is always smaller than D(t , T ) , the CVA is, in this case, a credit charge. The
credit charge covering party A’s potential loss comes from the scenario of party B’s default when party A
Under the CTM, a unilateral defaultable derivative has an embedded American style default
option, which is continuously defaultable. Since American options are difficult to hedge, a common
practice in the market is to use Bermudan options to approximate American ones. Consequently, we
assume that a default may only happen at some discrete times. A natural selection is to assume that a
default may occur only on the payment dates. The Discrete-Time Risky Valuation Model, or simply the
Discrete-Time Model (DTM), assumes that a defaultable derivative may only default on payment dates.
Proposition 2: The unilateral risky value of the single payment derivative under the DTM is given by
V D (t ) E G B (t , T ) X T Ft (9a)
where
GB (t , T ) D(t , T ) 1 1 X T 0 QB (t , T )1 B (T ) (9b)
Here we may consider G B (t , T ) as the risk-adjusted discount factor. Proposition 2 states that the
unilateral risky valuation of the single payoff derivative has a dependence on the sign of the payoff. If the
payoff is positive, the risky value is equal to the risk-free value minus the discounted potential loss.
The corresponding unilateral CVA of the single payment derivative under the DTM can be
expressed as
CVA U (t ) V F (t ) V D (t ) E D(t , T ) X T F t E G B (t , T ) X T F t
E 1 X T 0 D(t , T )1 B (T ) QB (t , T ) X T F t (10)
Equation (10) shows that if the payoff is in the money, the CVA is a credit charge equal to the
discounted potential loss. If the payoff is out of the money, the CVA is zero.
Proposition 2 has a general form that applies in a particular situation in which we assume that the
payoff X T is non-negative.
Corollary 2.1: If the payoff X T is non-negative, the risky value of the single payment derivative under the
DTM is given by
V D (t ) E G B (t , T ) X T Ft (11a)
where
GB (t, T ) D(t, T )1 QB (t, T )1 B (T ) D(t, T )S B (t, T ) B (T )QB (t, T ) (11b)
Suppose that a defaultable derivative has m cash flows. Any of these cash flows may be positive
or negative. Let the m cash flows be represented as X 1 ,…, X m with payment dates T1 ,…, Tm . The risk-
We divide any payment date period ( Ti 1 , Ti ) into n i very small time intervals ( t ) and
assume that a default may occur only at the end of each very small period.
Proposition 3: The unilateral risky value of the multiple payments derivative is given by
V D (t ) i 1 E C B (t , Ti ) X i F t
m
(13a)
where
(13b)
Proposition 3 says that the pricing process of a multiple payments derivative has a backward
nature since there is no way of knowing which risk-adjusted discounting rate should be used without
knowledge of the future value. In other words, the present value takes into account the results of all future
decisions. On the final payment date, the value of a derivative and the decision strategy are clear.
Therefore, the evaluation must be done in a backward fashion, working from the final payment date
towards the present. This type of valuation process is referred to as backward induction.
follows.
Corollary 3.1: The unilateral risky value of the multiple payments derivative under the CTM is given by
V D (t ) i 1 E C B (t , Ti ) X i F t
m
(14)
where
C B (t , Ti ) exp c B (u ) du
Ti
t (14b)
10
t approaches zero.
Proposition 3 has a general form that applies in a particular situation in which we assume that all
Corollary 3.2: If all the payoffs are non-negative, the risky value of the multiple payments derivative
m
V D (t ) i 1 E C B (t , Ti ) X i F t (15a)
where
Ti
C B (t , Ti ) exp c B (u ) du (15b)
t
c B (u ) r (u ) hB (u)(1 B (u )) (15c)
This is the formula for pricing defaultable bonds in the market. Corollary 3.2 says that if all the
payoffs are positive, we can evaluate each payoff separately and sum the corresponding results. In other
If we assume that a default may occur only on the payment dates, the result is the following
Proposition 4: The unilateral risky value of the multiple payments derivative under the DTM is given by
V D (t ) i 1 E
m
i 1
j 0
G B (T j , T j 1 ) X i F t (16a)
where t T0 and
j 1 j 1
GB (T j , T j 1 ) D(T j , T j 1 )1 1( X V D (T ))0 QB (T j , T j 1 ) 1 B (T j 1 )
(16b)
11
separately. The current risky value depends on the future risky value. This type of problem is usually
Proposition 4 has a general form that applies in a particular situation where we assume that all
Corollary 4.1: If all the payoffs are non-negative, the risky value of the multiple payments derivative
V D (t ) i 1 E
m
i 1
j 0
G B (T j , T j 1 ) X i F t (17a)
Where t T0 and
G B (T j , T j 1 ) D(T j , T j 1 ) 1 Q B (T j , T j 1 ) 1 B (T j 1 ) (17b)
X j 1
V D (T j 1 ) 0 .
A critical ingredient of the pricing of a bilateral defaultable derivative is the rules for settlement
in default. There are two rules in the market. The one-way payment rule was specified by the early
International Swap Dealers Association (ISDA) master agreement. The non-defaulting party is not
obligated to compensate the defaulting party if the remaining market value of the derivative is positive for
the defaulting party. The two-way payment rule is based on current ISDA documentation. In the event of
default, if the contract has positive value to the non-defaulting party, the defaulting party pays a fraction
of the market value of the derivative to the non-defaulting party. If the contract has positive value to the
defaulting party, the non-defaulting party will pay the full market value of the derivative to the defaulting
party. Within the context of risky valuation, one should consider the market value of a defaultable
12
which takes value 1 with default probability Q j , and value 0 with survival probability S j . Consider a
pair of random variables ( A , B ) that has a bivariate Bernoulli distribution as summarized in Table 1.
value 1 with default probability Q j and value 0 with survival probability Sj . QA S AQB S B where is
the correlation coefficient of A and B .
Joint Distribution
Marginal Distribution
A 1 A0
B 1 QB Q A QB S A QB
Joint Distribution
B0 S B QA SB S A SB
Marginal Distribution QA SA
Consider a defaultable derivative that promises to pay a X T from party B to party A at maturity
date T and nothing before date T. The payoff may be either an asset or a liability to each party.
We divide the time period (t, T) into n very small time intervals ( t ) and assume that a default
Proposition 5: The bilateral risky value of the single payment derivative is given by
V D (t ) E O(t , T ) X T F t (18a)
where
13
o(t it ) r (t it ) 1V (t (i1) t )0 pB (t it ) 1V (t (i1) t )0 p A (t it ) (18c)
We may think of O(t, T ) as the bilateral risk-adjusted discount factor and o(u) as the bilateral
risk-adjusted short rate; j (j=A, B) represents the default recovery rate of party j, i.e. the fraction of the
market value paid by the defaulting party j when the market value is negative for j; h j represents the
hazard rate of party j; j represents the non-default recovery rate of party j, i.e. the fraction of the market
value paid by non-defaulting party j when the market value is negative for j. j =0 represents the one-
way settlement rule, while j =1 represents the two-way settlement rule. denotes the default
correlation coefficient of A and B. AB denotes the joint recovery rate when both parties A and B default
simultaneously.
For any time interval ( u , u t ), the bilateral risk-adjusted short rate o(u) has a switching-type
dependence on the sign of future value V (u t ) . Similar to Proposition 1, the valuation process given
D
by Proposition 5 builds on itself in a backward recursive fashion and requires a backward induction
valuation.
14
Applying it to a particular situation in which we assume that parties A and B do not default
simultaneously and have independent default risks, i.e. =0 and AB =0, we derive the following
corollary.
Corollary 5.1: If parties A and B do not default simultaneously and have independent default risks, the
bilateral risky value of the single payment derivative under the CTM is given by
V D (t ) E O (t , T ) X T F t (19a)
where
O (t , T ) exp o (u )du
T
t (19b)
and AB =0, taking the limit as t approaches zero, and having hB (u)hA (u)t 0 for very small t .
2
Corollary 5.1 is the same as equation (2.5’) in Duffie and Huang (1996), but their derivation is
The corresponding bilateral CVA of the single payment derivative in this case can be expressed
as
CVA B (t ) V F (t ) V D (t ) E D(t , T ) X T F t E O (t , T ) X T F t (20)
Since O (t , T ) is always smaller than D(t,T ) , the bilateral CVA may be positive or negative
depending on the sign of the payoff. In other words, the CVA may be either a credit charge or a credit
benefit. A credit charge that is the value of a default loss comes from the scenario of one’s counterparty
15
If we assume that a default may occur only on the payment dates, the default options become
Proposition 6: The bilateral risky value of the single payment derivative under the DTM is given by
V D (t ) E Y (t , T ) X T Ft (21a)
where
Y (t , T ) D(t , T ) 1XT 0 yB (t , T ) 1XT 0 y A (t , T ) (21b)
yB (t , T ) S B (t , T ) S A (t , T ) B (T )QB (t , T ) S A (t , T ) B (T ) S B (t , T )QA (t ,T )
AB (T )QB (t ,T )QA (t ,T ) (t , T ) 1 B (T ) B (T ) AB (T ) (21c)
y A (t , T ) S B (t , T ) S A (t , T ) A (T )QA (t ,T ) S B (t , T ) A (T ) S A (t , T )QB (t , T )
AB (T )QB (t , T )QA (t ,T ) (t , T ) 1 B (T ) B (T ) AB (T ) (21d)
We may think of Y (t , T ) as the risk-adjusted discount factor. Proposition 6 tells us that the
bilateral risky price of a single payment derivative can be expressed as the present value of the payoff
discounted by a risk-adjusted discount factor that has a switching-type dependence on the sign of the
payoff.
Proposition 6 has a general form that applies in a particular situation where we assume that
parties A and B do not default simultaneously and have independent default risks, i.e. =0 and AB =0.
Corollary 6.1: If parties A and B do not default simultaneously and have independent default risks, the
bilateral risky value of the single payment derivative under the DTM is given by
V D (t ) E Y (t , T ) X T Ft (22a)
where
16
The proof of this corollary is easily obtained according to Proposition 6 by setting =0 and
AB =0.
Suppose that a defaultable derivative has m cash flows. Let the m cash flows be represented as
X 1 ,…, X m with payment dates T1 ,…, Tm . Each cash flow may be positive or negative.
We divide any payment date period ( Ti 1 , Ti ) into n i very small time intervals ( t ) and
assume that a default may occur only at the end of each very small period.
Proposition 7: The bilateral risky value of the multiple payments derivative is given by
V D (t ) i 1 E O(t , Ti ) X i F t
m
(23a)
where
(23b)
o(t jt ) r (t jt ) 1V (t ( j 1) t )0 pB (t jt ) 1V (t ( j 1) t )0 p A (t jt ) (23c)
17
Proposition 7 provides a general form for pricing a bilateral multiple payment derivative.
Applying it to a particular situation in which we assume that parties A and B do not default
simultaneously and have independent default risks, i.e. =0 and AB =0, we derive the following
corollary.
Corollary 7.1: If parties A and B do not default simultaneously and have independent default risks, the
bilateral risky value of the single payment derivative under the CTM is given by
V D (t ) i 1 E O (t , Ti ) X i F t
m
(24)
and AB =0, taking the limit as t approaches zero, and having hB (u)hA (u)t 0 for very small t .
2
The default options of a defaultable derivative under the CTM are American style options, while
the default options under the DTM are Bermudan style ones.
Proposition 8: The bilateral risky value of the multiple payments derivative under the DTM is given by
V D (t ) i 1 E
m
i 1
j 0
Y (T j , T j 1 ) X i F t (25a)
where t T0 and
yB (T j ,T j 1 ) S B (T j ,T j 1 ) S A (T j ,T j 1 ) B (T j 1 )QB (T j ,T j 1 ) S A (T j ,T j 1 ) B (T j 1 ) S B (T j ,T j 1 )QA (T j ,T j 1 )
AB (T j 1 )QB (T j ,T j 1 )QA (T j ,T j 1 ) (T j ,T j 1 ) 1 B (T j 1 ) B (T j 1 ) AB (T j 1 ) (25c)
y A (T j ,T j 1 ) S B (T j ,T j 1 ) S A (T j ,T j 1 ) A (T j 1 )QA (T j ,T j 1 ) S B (T j ,T j 1 ) A (T j 1 ) S A (T j ,T j 1 )QB (T j ,T j 1 )
AB (T j 1 )QB (T j ,T j 1 )QA (T j ,T j 1 ) (T j ,T j 1 ) 1 B (T j 1 ) B (T j 1 ) AB (T j 1 ) (25d)
18
The individual payoffs under Proposition 8 are coupled and cannot be evaluated separately. The
present value takes into account the results of all future decisions. The valuation proceeds via backward
induction.
Proposition 8 has a general form that applies in a particular situation where we assume that
parties A and B do not default simultaneously and have independent default risks, i.e. =0 and AB =0.
Corollary 8.1: If parties A and B do not default simultaneously and have independent default risks, the
bilateral risky value of the single payment derivative under the DTM is given by
V D (t ) i 1 E
m
i 1
j 0
Y (T j , T j 1 ) X i F t (26)
The proof of this corollary is easily obtained according to Proposition 8 by setting =0 and
AB =0.
This work was sponsored by FinPricing (2019). The risky valuation theory described above can
demonstrate how to perform the risky valuation and how to calculate the bilateral CVA at a portfolio
level. The framework incorporates netting and margin agreements and captures right/wrong way risk. We
use the DTM as an example. Switching to the CTM is quite straightforward, but requires more granular
Two parties are denoted as A and B. All calculations are from the perspective of party A. Let the
valuation date be t. The risky valuation and CVA computation procedure consists of the following steps.
19
generation (market evolution). This must be able to run a large number of scenarios for each risk factor
with flexibility over parameterization of processes and treatment of correlation between underlying
factors. Credit exposure may be calculated under a real probability measure, while CVA may be
Due to the extensive computational intensity of pricing counterparty credit risk, there will
inevitably be some compromise regarding limiting the number of market scenarios (paths) and the
number of simulation dates (also called “time buckets” or “time nodes”). The time buckets are normally
designed as fine-granularity at the short end and coarse-granularity at the far end. The details of scenario
For ease of illustration, we choose a vanilla interest rate swap as an example. For most banks,
interest rate swaps account for more than half of their derivative business.
Assume that party A pays a fixed rate, while party B pays a floating-rate. We are considering that
fixed rate payments and floating-rate payments occur at the same payment dates and with the same day-
count conventions, and ignoring the swap funding spread. Though the generalization to different payment
dates, day-count conventions and swap funding spreads is straightforward, we prefer to present a
Assume that there are M time buckets ( T0 , T1 ,..., TM ) in each scenario, and N cash flows in the
For swaplet i, there are four important dates: the fixing date ti , f , the starting date t i , s , the ending
date t i ,e and the payment date t i , p . In general, these dates are not coincidently at the simulation time
buckets. The time relationship between swaplet i and the simulation time buckets is shown in Figure 1.
The cash flow generation consists of two procedures: cash flow determination and cash flow
allocation.
20
Tj ti , f T j 1 ti,s Tk ti,e ti , p Tk 1
Terms
Figure 1: Time Relationship between the Swaplet and the Simulation Time Buckets
The floating leg of the interest rate swaplet is reset at the fixing date ti , f with the starting date ti ,s , the
ending date ti ,e , and the payment date ti , p . The simulation time buckets are Ti , Ti 1 ,...,Tk 1 . The simulated
The cash flow of swaplet i is determined at the fixing date ti , f , which is assumed to be between
the simulation time buckets T j and T j 1 . First, we need to create an interest rate curve, observed at ti , f ,
by interpolating the interest rate curves simulated at T j and T j 1 via either Brownian Bridge or linear
j , i N F (ti , f ; ti , s , ti , e ) R (ti , s , ti , e ) (27)
where N denotes the notional, F (ti, f ; ti ,s , ti,e ) denotes the simply compounded forward rate reset at ti , f
for the forward period ( ti,s , ti,e ), (ti , s , ti ,e ) denotes the accrual factor or day count fraction for the period
21
~ j ,k ,i j ,i D(Tk , ti , p ) (28)
where D(Tk , ti , p ) denotes the risk-free discount factor based on the interest rate curve simulated at T k .
Cash flow generation for products without early-exercise provision is quite straightforward. For
early-exercise products, one can use the approach proposed by Longstaff and Schwartz (2001) to obtain
After generating cash flows for each deal, we need to aggregate them at the counterparty portfolio
level for each scenario and at each time bucket. The cash flows are aggregated by either netting or non-
netting based on the netting agreements. A netting agreement is a provision that allows the offset of
settlement payments and receipts on all contracts between two counterparties. Another important use of
For netting, we add all cash flows together in the same scenario and at the same time bucket to
recognize offsetting. The aggregated cash flow under netting at scenario j and time bucket k is given by
~ j ,k ~ j ,k ,i (29a)
i
For non-netting, we divide cash flows into positive and negative groups and add them separately.
In other words, offsetting is not recognized. The aggregated cash flows under non-netting at scenario j
~ j ,k ,l if j ,k ,l 0
l
~ j ,k
~ (29b)
if j ,k ,m 0
m j ,k ,m
22
above the given collateral threshold H , or more precisely, above the threshold (TH) plus minimum
transferable amount (MTA). This would result in a reduction of exposure by the collateral amount held .
Consequently, there would be no exposure above the threshold H if there were no time lags between
collateral calling, posting, liquidating, and closing out. However, these lags, which are actually the
margin period of risk, do exist in practice. The collateral can depreciate or appreciate in value during this
period. These lags expose the bank to additional exposure above the threshold, which is normally referred
to as collateralized exposure. Clearly, the longer the margin period of risk, the larger the collateralized
exposure.
Assume that the collateral margin period of risk is . The collateral methodology consists of the
following procedures:
First, for any time bucket Tk , we introduce an additional collateral time node Tk . Second, we
compute the portfolio value V jF (Tk ) at scenario j and collateral time node ( Tk ). Then, we calculate
V jF (Tk ) H B , if V jF (Tk ) H B
j (Tk ) 0, if H A V jF (Tk ) H B
V F (T ) H (30)
j k A if V jF (Tk ) H A
where H B TH B MTAB is the collateral threshold of party B and H A (TH A MTAA ) is the negative
Each bank has its own collateral simulation methodology that simulates the collateral value
evolving from j (Tk ) to j (Tk ) over the margin period of risk . The details of collateral simulation
are beyond the scope of this paper. Assume that the collateral value j (Tk ) has already been calculated.
23
j ,k ~ j ,k j ,k (32)
Wrong way risk occurs when exposure to a counterparty is adversely correlated with the credit
quality of that counterparty, while right way risk occurs when exposure to a counterparty is positively
correlated with the credit quality of that counterparty. For example, in wrong way risk, exposure tends to
increase when counterparty credit quality worsens, while in right way risk, exposure tends to decrease
when counterparty credit quality declines. Wrong/right way risk, as an additional source of risk, is rightly
To capture wrong/right way risk, we need to correlate the credit quality (credit spreads or hazard
rates) with other market risk factors, e.g. equities, commodities, etc., in the scenario generation.
After aggregating all cash flows via netting and margin agreements, one can price a portfolio in
the same manner as pricing a single deal. We assume that the reader is familiar with the regression-based
Monte Carlo valuation model proposed by Longstaff and Schwartz (2001) and thus do not repeat some
We first calculate the risk-free present value of a counterparty portfolio. The risk-free value at
scenario j is given by
V jF (t ) k 1 j ,k D(t , Tk )
m
(33a)
The final risk-free portfolio value is the average (expectation) of all scenarios given by
V F (t ) E V jF (t ) E k 1 j ,k D(t , Tk )
m
(33b)
24
T m , and then working backwards towards the present. We know the value of the portfolio at the final
effective time bucket, which is equal to the last cash flow, i.e. V j (Tm ) j ,m .
D
Based on the sign of V jD (Tm ) and Proposition 8, we can choose a proper risk-adjusted discount
where
Let us go to the penultimate effective time bucket Tm 1 . The risk-adjusted discount factor has a
switching type, depending on the sign of V j (Tm1 ) j ,m1 , where V j (Tm1 ) is the value of the portfolio
D D
excluding the current cash flow j ,m1 at scenario j and time bucket Tm 1 . Note that V j (Tm 1 ) is not the
D
discounted cash flow, but rather the expectation of the discounted cash flow conditional on the market
states. We can use the well-known regression approach proposed by Longstaff and Schwartz (2001) to
D
estimate V j (Tm 1 ) from cross-sectional information in the simulation by using least squares. After
D
estimating V j (Tm 1 ) , we can express the discounted cash flow at Tm2 as
where
Y j (Tm2 , Tm1 ) D j (Tm2 , Tm1 )1( V D (T )) 0 y j , B (Tm2 , Tm1 ) 1 V D (T )) 0 y j , A (Tm2 , Tm1 ) (35b)
j , m1 j m1 j , m 1 j m 1
25
to Ti 1 . The discounting switch-type depends on the sign of V j (Ti ) j ,i . The discounted cash flow at
D
Ti 1 is given by
j ,i1 k i
m
k 1
Y (Tl , Tl 1 ) j ,k
l i 1 j (36)
We conduct the backward induction process, performed by iteratively rolling back a series of
long jumps from the final effective time bucket T m across time nodes until we reach the valuation date.
k 1
j ,0 k 1 i 0 Y j (Ti , Ti 1 ) j , k
m
(37a)
The final true/risky portfolio value is the average (expectation) of all scenarios, given by
m k 1
V D (t ) E j ,0 E k 1 i 0 Y j (Ti , Ti 1 ) j ,k (37b)
CVA is by definition the difference between the risk-free portfolio value and the true (or risky or
CVA B (t ) V F (t ) V D (t ) E k 1
m k 1
i 0
D j (Ti , Ti 1 ) j ,k k 1
i 0
Y j (Ti , Ti 1 ) j ,k (38)
5. Numerical Results
In this section, we present some numerical results for risky valuations and CVA calculations
The theoretical study of this article is conducted under both the CTM and the DTM. The CTM
assumes that a default may occur at any time, while the DTM assumes that a default may only happen at
26
constant default recovery rate of 70%. Party A is default-free. All calculations are from the perspective of
party A.
Let us consider single payment derivatives first. We use a 6-month zero-coupon bond and a 1-
year zero-coupon bond to analog single payment instruments. Under the CTM, the derivatives are
continuously defaultable, whereas under the DTM, the derivatives may default only at 6 months or 1 year.
The principals are a unit, and the hazard rates are bootstrapped from CDS spreads. The risk-free and risky
values and the CVAs are calculated according to Corollary 1.2 and Corollary 2.1, shown in Table 2 and
Table 3. The results demonstrate that the CVAs under both the CTM and the DTM are very close (relative
Then, we use a 10-year semi-annual fixed rate coupon bond to analog a multiple payments
instrument. Assume that the principal is a unit and that the annual coupon rate of the fixed-rate coupon
bond is 4%. The risk-free and risky values and the CVAs are calculated according to Corollary 3.2 and
Corollary 4.1, shown in Table 4. The results confirm that the DTM and the CTM produce very close
results.
CTM DTM
Risk-Free Value Difference of CVA
Risky Value CVA Risky Value CVA
27
CTM DTM
Risk-Free Value Difference of CVA
Risky Value CVA Risky Value CVA
CTM DTM
Risk-Free Value Difference of CVA
Risky Value CVA Risky Value CVA
In this section, we use a portfolio to study the impact of margin agreements. The portfolio
consists of a number of derivatives on interest rate, equity, and foreign exchange. In the real world, it is
very rare that a portfolio is positive all the time and in all scenarios. The number of simulation scenarios
(or paths) is 20,000. The time buckets are set weekly. If the computational requirements exceed the
system limit, one can reduce both the number of scenarios and the number of time buckets. The time
buckets can be designed as fine-granularity at the short end, and coarse-granularity at the far end, e.g.
daily, weekly, monthly and yearly, etc. The rationale is that calculations become less accurate due to
accumulated errors from simulation discretization and inherited errors from the calibration of the
underlying models, such as those due to a change in macro-economic climate. The collateral margin
28
generations, the modified GBM (Geometric Brownian Motion) models for equity and collateral
evolutions, and the BK (Black Karasinski) models for foreign exchange dynamics. Table 5 illustrates that
if party A has an infinite collateral threshold H A i.e. no collateral requirement on A, the bilateral
CVA value increases, while the threshold H B increases. Table 6 shows that if party B has an infinite
collateral threshold H B , the bilateral CVA value actually decreases, while the threshold H A
increases. This reflects the bilateral impact of the collaterals on the bilateral CVA. The impact is mixed in
H B denotes the collateral threshold of party B and H A denotes the collateral threshold of party A. We
H B denotes the collateral threshold of party B and H A denotes the collateral threshold of party A. We
29
We use an equity swap as an example. Assume the correlation between the underlying equity
price and the credit quality (hazard rate) of party B is . The impact of the correlation on the CVA is
show in Table 8. The results state that the CVA increases when the absolute value of the negative
correlation increases.
6. Conclusion
This article presents a theory for pricing defaultable financial derivatives and their CVAs. First,
we want to indicate that the market value of a defaultable derivative is actually a risky value rather than a
risk-free value. In fact, in applying the upfront CVA, we already converted the market value of a
For completeness, our theoretical study covers various cases. We find that the valuation of
defaultable derivatives and their CVAs, in most situations, has a backward recursive nature and requires a
backward induction valuation. An intuitive explanation is that two counterparties implicitly sell each
other an option to default when entering into a defaultable transaction. If we assume that a default may
occur at any time, the default options are American style options. If we assume that a default may only
happen on the payment dates, the default options are either European options or Bermudan options. Both
30
bilateral risky value and bilateral CVA at the counterparty portfolio level. This framework can easily
incorporate various credit mitigation techniques, such as netting agreements and margin agreements, and
can capture wrong/right way risk. Numerical results show that these credit mitigation techniques and
Appendix
Proof of Proposition 1: Under the unilateral credit risk assumption, only the default risk of one party
appears to be relevant, i.e., we only consider the default risk when the derivative is in the money. We
divide the time period (t, T) into n very small intervals ( t ) and use the approximation exp y 1 y for
very small y. Assume that a default may occur only at the end of each small period. The survival and the
At time t t the derivative either defaults or survives. The risky value of the derivative at t is
given by
V D (t ) E exp r (t )t 1V D (t t )0 S B (t ) B (t )Q B (t ) 1V D (t t )0 V D (t t ) F t
E exp r (t )t 1 V D ( t t ) 0
1 hB (t )t B (t )hB (t )t 1V D
( t t ) 0
V D
(t t ) F t (A2a)
E exp c B (t )t V D (t t ) F t
where Y is an indicator function that is equal to one if Y is true and zero otherwise; and
Similarly, we have
31
Note that expc B (t )t is Ft t -measurable. By definition, an Ft t -measurable random
variable is a random variable whose value is known at time t t . Based on the taking out what is
V D (t ) E exp c B (t )t V D (t t ) F t
E exp c
(t )t E exp c B (t t )t V D (t 2t ) F t t F t
B
1
E E exp i 0 c B (t it )t ) V D (t 2t ) F t t F t (A4)
E exp
c B (t it )t ) V D (t 2t ) F t
1
i 0
By recursively deriving from t forward over T, where V (T ) X T , the price can be expressed as
D
n 1
V D (t ) E exp i 0 c B (t it )t X T F t E C B (t , T ) X T F t (A5a)
where
Proof of Proposition 2: Under the unilateral credit risk assumption, we only consider the default
risk when the derivative is in the money. Assume that a default may only occur on the payment date.
V D (t ) E D(t , T ) 1 X T 0 S B (t , T ) B (T )QB (t , T ) 1 X T 0 X T Ft
ED(t , T )1 1 1 B (T )QB (t , T )X T EG (A6a)
X T 0 Ft B (t , T ) X T Ft
where
S B (t , T ) 1 QB (t , T ) (A6c)
GB (t , T ) D(t , T ) 1 1X T 0 QB (t , T )1 B (T ) (A6d)
Proof of Proposition 3: We divide any payment date period ( Ti 1 , Ti ) into n i very small time
intervals ( t ). On the first cash flow payment date T1 , let V D (T1 ) denote the value of the risky
32
V D (t ) E C B (t , T1 ) X 1 V D (T1 ) F t (A7)
Similarly, we have
V D (T1 ) E C B (T1 , T2 ) X 2 V D (T2 ) F T 1 (A8)
Note that C B (t , T1 ) is F T -measurable. According to the taking out what is known and tower
1
V D (t ) E C B (t , T1 ) X 1 V D (T1 ) Ft E C B (t , T1 ) X 1 Ft
E C B (t , T1 ) E C B (T1 , T2 ) X 2 F T 1 E C B (T1 , T2 )V D (T2 ) F T 1 Ft (A9a)
i 1 E C B (t , Ti ) X i Ft E C B (t , T2 )V (T2 ) Ft
2 D
where
C B (t , T2 ) C B (t , T1 )C B (T1 , T2 ) exp j 1 0
n n2 1
c B (t jt )t (A9b)
V D (t ) i 1 E C B (t , Ti ) X i F t
m
(A10)
Proof of Proposition 4: Let t T0 . Assume that a default may only occur on the payment dates.
On the first payment date T1 , let V D (T1 ) denote the risky value of the derivative excluding the current
cash flow X 1 . According to Proposition 2, the risky value of the derivative at t is given by
V D (t ) E G B (T0 , T1 ) X 1 V D (T1 ) Ft (A11a)
where
33
V D (T1 ) E G B (T1 , T2 ) X 2 V D (T2 ) F T 1 (A12)
Note that GB (T0 , T1 ) is F T 1 -measurable. According to the taking out what is known and tower
V D (t ) E GB (T0 , T1 ) X 1 V D (T1 ) Ft E GB (T0 , T1 ) X 1 Ft
E GB (T0 , T1 ) E GB (T1 , T2 ) X 2 F T 1 E GB (T1 , T2 )V D (T2 ) F T 1 F
t (A13)
i 1 E
2
i 1
j 0
GB (T j , T j 1 ) X F E
i t
1
j 0
GB (T j , T j 1 ) V (T ) F
D
2 t
V D (t ) i 1 E
m
i 1
j 0
G B (T j , T j 1 ) X i F t (A14)
Proof of Proposition 5: We divide the time period (t, T) into n very small intervals ( t ) and use the
approximation exp y 1 y for very small y. The survival and the default probabilities of party j (j=A,
S j (t ) : S j (t , t t ) exp h j (t )t 1 h j (t )t
Q j (t ) : Q j (t , t t ) 1 exp h j (t )t h j (t )t
At time t t , there are four possible states: 1) both A and B survive, 2) A defaults but B
survives, 3) A survives but B defaults, and 4) both A and B default. The joint distribution of A and B is
shown in Table 1. Depending on whether the market value of the derivative is an asset or a liability at
t t , we have
34
1 B (t ) B (t ) AB (t ) (t ) h B (t )h A (t )t 2 V D (t t ) F t (A15a)
1V D (t t ) 0 1 h A (t )(1 A (t ))t h B (t )(1 A (t ))t
1 A (t ) A (t ) AB (t ) (t ) h B (t )h A (t )t 2 V D (t t ) F t
E exp o(t )t V D (t t ) F t
where
p B (t ) 1 B (t ) hB (t ) 1 B (t ) h A (t ) 1 B (t ) B (t ) AB (t )
h A (t )hB (t ) 1 hB (t )t 1 h A (t )t hB (t )h A (t )t (A15c)
p A (t ) 1 A (t ) h A (t ) 1 A (t ) hB (t ) 1 B (t ) B (t ) AB (t )
h A (t )hB (t ) 1 hB (t )t 1 h A (t )t hB (t )h A (t )t (A15d)
where j (j=A, B) represents the default recovery rate of party j; h j represents the hazard rate of party j;
j represents the non-default recovery rate of party j. j =0 represents the one-way settlement rule,
while j =1 represents two-way settlement rule. denotes the default correlation of A and B. AB
Similarly, we have
V D (t t ) E exp o(t t )t V D (t 2t ) F t t (A16)
Note that expo(t )t is Ft t -measurable. Based on the taking out what is known and tower
35
By recursively deriving from t forward over T, where V (T ) X T , the price can be expressed as:
D
n 1
V D (t ) E exp i 0 o(t it )t X T F t E O(t , T ) X T F t (A18)
Proof of Proposition 6: We assume that a default may only occur on the payment date. At time T, there
are four possible states: 1) both A and B survive, 2) A defaults but B survives, 3) A survives but B
defaults, and 4) both A and B default. The joint distribution of A and B is shown in Table 1. Depending on
V D (t ) E D(t , T ) 1 X T 0 S B (t , T ) S A (t , T ) (T ) B (T )QB (t , T ) S A (t , T ) (T )
B (T )S B (t , T )Q A (t , T ) (T ) AB (T )QB (t , T )Q A (t , T ) (T ) X T F t
1 X T 0 S B (t , T ) S A (t , T ) (T ) A (T )QB (t , T ) S A (t , T ) (T )
(A19a)
A (T )S B (t , T )Q A (t , T ) (T ) AB (T )QB (t , T )Q A (t , T ) (T ) X T F t
E Y (t , T ) X T F t
where
yB (t , T ) S B (t , T ) S A (t , T ) B (T )QB (t ,T ) S A (t , T ) B (T ) S B (t , T )QA (t , T )
AB (T )QB (t , T )QA (t ,T ) (t , T )1 B (T ) B (T ) AB (T ) (A19c)
y A (t , T ) S B (t , T ) S A (t , T ) A (T )QA (t ,T ) S B (t , T ) A (T ) S A (t , T )QB (t , T )
AB (T )QB (t , T )QA (t ,T ) (t , T )1 B (T ) B (T ) AB (T ) (A19d)
(t , T ) S B (t , T )Q B (t , T ) S A (t , T )Q A (t , T ) (A19e)
Proof of Proposition 7. On the first cash flow payment date T1 , let V D (T1 ) denote the risky
value of the derivative excluding the current cash flow X 1 . According to Proposition 5, we have
V D (t ) E O(t , T1 ) X 1 V D (T1 ) Ft (A20a)
36
V D (T1 ) E O(T1 , T2 ) X 2 V D (T2 ) F T 1 (A21)
Note that O(t , T1 ) is F T 1 -measurable. According to the taking out what is known and tower
V D (t ) E O(t , T1 ) X 1 V D (T1 ) F t E O(t , T1 ) X 1 F t
E O(t , T1 ) E (O(T1 , T2 ) X 2 F T 1 ) E (O (T1 , T2 )V D (T2 ) F T 1 ) F t (A22a)
i 1 E O(t , Ti ) X i F t E O (t , T2 )V (T2 ) F t
2 D
where
V D (t ) i 1 E O(t , Ti ) X i F t
m
(A23)
Proof of Proposition 8. We assume that a default may only occur on the payment dates. Let
t T0 . On the first cash flow payment date T1 , let V D (T1 ) denote the risky value of the derivative
V D (t ) E Y (T0 , T1 ) X 1 V D (T1 ) Ft (A24a)
where
Y (T0 , T1 ) D(T0 , T1 ) 1( X
1 V
D
(T1 )) 0
y B (T0 , T1 ) 1( X
1 V
D
(T1 )) 0
y A (T0 , T1 ) (A24b)
Similarly, we have
V D (T1 ) E Y (T1 , T2 ) X 2 V D (T2 ) F T 1 (A25)
Note that Y (T0 , T1 ) is FT -measurable. According to taking out what is known and tower
1
37
j 0
Y (T j , T j 1 ) X 2 Ft E 1
j 0
Y (T j , T j 1 ) V D (T2 ) Ft
By recursively deriving from T2 forward over Tm , where V (Tm ) X m , we have
D
V D (t ) i 1 E
m
i 1
j 0
Y (T j , T j 1 ) X i F t (A27)
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