TCS/IBPS पॅटर्न

Analytical Chemist & Senior Technical Assistant

प्रश्न संख्या : 1000+ भाषा : English

Chemistry
1. Which of the following quantum numbers determines the shape of an orbital?
a) Principal quantum number (n) b) Azimuthal quantum number (l)
c) Magnetic quantum number (m) d) Spin quantum number (s)
Answer: b) Azimuthal quantum number (l)
Explanation: The azimuthal quantum number (l) determines the shape of the orbital, with
l = 0 representing an s orbital, l = 1 representing a p orbital, and so on.

2. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles when the temperature is increased by 10°C.
This phenomenon is best explained by:
a) Le Chatelier’s principle b) Arrhenius equation
c) Boyle’s law d) Dalton’s law
Answer: b) Arrhenius equation
Explanation: According to the Arrhenius equation, the rate of a reaction increases with an
increase in temperature due to an increase in the number of molecules with sufficient
energy to overcome the activation energy barrier.
3. In which of the following compounds does sulfur exhibit an oxidation state of +6?

a) H₂S b) SO₂ c) SO₃ d) S₈

Answer: c) SO₃

Explanation: In sulfur trioxide (SO₃), sulfur has an oxidation state of +6. Each oxygen has
an oxidation state of -2, and since there are three oxygens, sulfur must be +6 to balance the
charge.

4. The hybridization of carbon in ethylene (C₂H₄) is:

a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) sp⁴
Answer: b) sp²

Explanation: In ethylene (C₂H₄), each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds and one pi
bond, which corresponds to sp² hybridization.

5. Which of the following molecules is non-polar?

a) HCl b) CO₂ c) NH₃ d) H₂O

Answer: b) CO₂

Explanation: CO₂ is a linear molecule, and the dipoles of the two C=O bonds cancel each
other out, making the molecule non-polar.
6. The shape of a molecule with sp³ hybridization and no lone pairs on the central atom is:
a) Trigonal planar b) Linear
c) Tetrahedral d) Octahedral
Answer: c) Tetrahedral
Explanation: sp³ hybridization leads to a tetrahedral shape when there are no lone pairs
on the central atom.

7. Which of the following is the correct expression for the equilibrium constant (K) of the
reaction N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃?
a) [N₂][H₂]³ / [NH₃]² b) [NH₃]² / [N₂][H₂]³

c) [N₂][H₂] / [NH₃] d) [NH₃] / [N₂][H₂]³

Answer: b) [NH₃]² / [N₂][H₂]³

Explanation: The equilibrium constant is the ratio of the products to the reactants, each
raised to the power of their stoichiometric coefficients.

8. Which of the following compounds contains both ionic and covalent bonds?

a) NaCl b) H₂O c) KNO₃ d) CCl₄

Answer: c) KNO₃

Explanation: KNO₃ contains an ionic bond between K⁺ and NO₃⁻, and covalent bonds
within the NO₃⁻ group.
9. What is the oxidation state of chromium in potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇)?
a) +2 b) +3 c) +6 d) +7
Answer: c) +6

Explanation: In K₂Cr₂O₇, each oxygen has an oxidation state of -2, and potassium has +1.
For the total compound to be neutral, chromium must be in the +6 oxidation state.

10. Which of the following is an example of a colligative property?

a) Boiling point elevation b) Density
c) Viscosity d) Molarity
Answer: a) Boiling point elevation
Explanation: Colligative properties depend on the number of particles in a solution and
not the type. Boiling point elevation is one such property.

11. The number of stereoisomers possible for a molecule with two chiral centers is:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 8
Answer: c) 4
Explanation: The number of stereoisomers is given by 2ⁿ, where n is the number of chiral
centers. Therefore, with two chiral centers, there are 2² = 4 stereoisomers.

12. In which of the following solvents is NaCl most likely to dissolve?

a) CCl₄ b) CH₃OH c) CH₄ d) Benzene

Answer: b) CH₃OH
Explanation: NaCl is ionic and dissolves well in polar solvents like methanol (CH₃OH) due
to ion-dipole interactions.

13. The standard enthalpy change of formation of a compound is the enthalpy change
when:
a) 1 mole of the compound is formed from its elements in their standard states
b) 1 mole of the compound is burned completely in oxygen
c) The compound is dissolved in water
d) The compound is decomposed into its elements
Answer: a) 1 mole of the compound is formed from its elements in their standard states
Explanation: Standard enthalpy of formation refers to the enthalpy change when 1 mole of
a compound is formed from its constituent elements in their most stable forms under
standard conditions.

14. What is the product of the reaction between an aldehyde and a Grignard reagent
followed by hydrolysis?
a) Primary alcohol b) Secondary alcohol
c) Tertiary alcohol d) Carboxylic acid
Answer: b) Secondary alcohol
Explanation: When a Grignard reagent reacts with an aldehyde and is then hydrolyzed,
the result is a secondary alcohol.
15. Which one of the following gases is the least soluble in water?

a) NH₃ b) CO₂ c) H₂ d) SO₂

Answer: c) H₂

Explanation: Hydrogen (H₂) is non-polar and thus has very low solubility in water, a polar
solvent.

16. What is the function of a salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

a) To prevent the flow of electrons b) To maintain electrical neutrality
c) To increase the potential difference
d) To separate the anode and cathode compartments
Answer: b) To maintain electrical neutrality
Explanation: The salt bridge allows the flow of ions between the two half-cells to maintain
electrical neutrality during the redox reaction.

17. Which of the following ions will have the largest radius?
a) Na⁺ b) K⁺ c) Li⁺ d) Cs⁺

Answer: d) Cs⁺
Explanation: In a group, the ionic radius increases as you move down because of the
addition of electron shells.

18. The type of hybridization found in the carbon atoms of benzene is:
a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) dsp²
Answer: b) sp²
Explanation: The carbon atoms in benzene are sp² hybridized, forming a planar ring
structure with delocalized π-electrons.
19. Which of the following molecules has a dipole moment?

a) BF₃ b) CO₂ c) CH₄ d) H₂O

Answer: d) H₂O

Explanation: Water (H₂O) has a bent shape with an unequal distribution of electron
density, giving it a dipole moment.

20. The pH of a solution is a measure of its:

a) Concentration of hydroxide ions
b) Concentration of hydrogen ions
c) Concentration of salts d) Oxidation potential
Answer: b) Concentration of hydrogen ions
Explanation: pH is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution.

21. Which of the following elements is the most electronegative?

a) Fluorine b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Chlorine
Answer: a) Fluorine
Explanation: Fluorine is the most electronegative element on the periodic table, meaning it
has the greatest ability to attract electrons in a chemical bond.
22. What is the bond angle in a molecule of methane (CH₄)?
a) 90° b) 109.5° c) 120° d) 180°
Answer: b) 109.5°
Explanation: Methane has a tetrahedral geometry with sp³ hybridization, and the bond
angle between the hydrogen atoms is 109.5°.

23. Which of the following is an example of an extensive property?

a) Density b) Volume c) Boiling point d) Pressure
Answer: b) Volume
Explanation: Extensive properties depend on the amount of matter in a sample. Volume is
an extensive property, while others are intensive properties.

24. Which gas is used in the Haber process for the production of ammonia?
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Hydrogen d) Helium
Answer: c) Hydrogen
Explanation: The Haber process synthesizes ammonia by reacting nitrogen with hydrogen
over an iron catalyst at high temperature and pressure.

25. Which of the following acids is the strongest?

a) H₂SO₄ b) HCl c) HNO₃ d) HF

Answer: a) H₂SO₄
Explanation: Sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) is a strong acid and dissociates completely in water. It
is stronger than HCl, HNO₃, and HF.

26. Which of the following substances is paramagnetic?

a) N₂ b) O₂ c) CO₂ d) CCl₄

Answer: b) O₂

Explanation: O₂ is paramagnetic due to the presence of unpaired electrons in its

molecular orbital configuration.

27. What is the coordination number of the central atom in [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
Answer: b) 4
Explanation: The coordination number is determined by the number of ligands attached
to the central atom. In this complex, there are four cyanide ligands around the nickel ion.

28. Which of the following has the largest ionization energy?

a) Na b) Mg c) Al d) Cl
Answer: d) Cl
Explanation: Ionization energy increases across a period. Chlorine has the highest
ionization energy among the options given because it is the farthest right in the period.
29. Which one of the following is a thermoplastic polymer?
a) Bakelite b) Polyvinyl chloride
c) Vulcanized rubber d) Melamine
Answer: b) Polyvinyl chloride
Explanation: Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a thermoplastic polymer, meaning it can be
melted and reshaped multiple times. Bakelite and vulcanized rubber are thermosetting
polymers.

30. Which of the following compounds can exhibit resonance?

a) CH₄ b) CO₂ c) O₃ d) NaCl

Answer: c) O₃

Explanation: Ozone (O₃) exhibits resonance as the double bond can be delocalized
between different oxygen atoms, creating multiple resonance structures.

31. What is the molarity of a solution containing 58.5 g of NaCl in 500 mL of solution?
(Molar mass of NaCl = 58.5 g/mol)
a) 1 M b) 2 M c) 3 M d) 0.5 M
Answer: a) 1 M
Explanation: Molarity (M) = moles of solute / liters of solution. Here, 58.5 g NaCl is 1
mole, and the volume is 0.5 L, so molarity = 1/0.5 = 1 M.
32. Which of the following is a characteristic of an exothermic reaction?
a) Absorbs heat from surroundings
b) Releases heat to surroundings
c) Requires constant heating
d) Has a positive enthalpy change
Answer: b) Releases heat to surroundings
Explanation: Exothermic reactions release heat, causing the surroundings to warm up,
and they have a negative enthalpy change.

33. The principal quantum number (n) defines which of the following properties of an
electron in an atom?
a) Shape of the orbital b) Orientation of the orbital
c) Size of the orbital d) Spin of the electron
Answer: c) Size of the orbital
Explanation: The principal quantum number (n) defines the energy level and size of the
orbital. As n increases, the electron's average distance from the nucleus also increases.

34. Which type of bond is present in N₂?

a) Single bond b) Double bond
c) Triple bond d) Quadruple bond
Answer: c) Triple bond
Explanation: Nitrogen (N₂) has a triple bond between the two nitrogen atoms, making it a
very stable diatomic molecule.

35. Which of the following has the smallest atomic radius?

a) Li b) Na c) K d) Rb

Answer: a) Li
Explanation: Atomic radius increases as you move down a group, so lithium, being at the
top of its group, has the smallest atomic radius.

36. Which compound is an example of an alcohol?

a) CH₃COOH b) CH₃OH

c) CH₄ d) C₂H₄

Answer: b) CH₃OH

Explanation: Methanol (CH₃OH) is an alcohol, characterized by the presence of a

hydroxyl (-OH) group attached to a carbon atom.

37. What is the main product when propene reacts with HBr in the absence of peroxides?
a) 1-bromopropane b) 2-bromopropane
c) Propanol d) Propene
Answer: b) 2-bromopropane
Explanation: In the absence of peroxides, HBr adds to the more substituted carbon of the
double bond (Markovnikov's rule), resulting in 2-bromopropane.

38. Which of the following solutions will have the lowest freezing point?
a) 1 M NaCl b) 1 M glucose

c) 1 M BaCl₂ d) 1 M urea

Answer: c) 1 M BaCl₂

Explanation: BaCl₂ dissociates into three ions (Ba²⁺ and two Cl⁻), lowering the freezing
point more than NaCl (2 ions) or the non-electrolytes glucose and urea.

39. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a catalyst?

a) It speeds up the reaction
b) It is consumed in the reaction
c) It lowers the activation energy
d) It provides an alternative reaction pathway
Answer: b) It is consumed in the reaction
Explanation: A catalyst is not consumed in the reaction; it speeds up the reaction by
providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy.

40. Which of the following compounds will show cis-trans isomerism?

a) CH₄ b) C₂H₂ c) C₂H₄ d) C₂H₂Cl₂

Answer: d) C₂H₂Cl₂
Explanation: Cis-trans isomerism occurs in alkenes or similar compounds where two
different groups are attached to each carbon of a double bond. C₂H₂Cl₂ has such a
structure.

41. The functional group in aldehydes is:

a) -COOH b) -OH c) -CHO d) -COOR
Answer: c) -CHO
Explanation: Aldehydes contain the -CHO functional group, where the carbonyl group
(C=O) is bonded to at least one hydrogen atom.

42. Which of the following is the most basic compound?

a) NaOH b) NH₃ c) HCl d) CH₄

Answer: a) NaOH
Explanation: Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a strong base, dissociating completely in water
to produce hydroxide ions (OH⁻).

43. What is the hybridization of the central atom in SF₆?

a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) sp³d²
Answer: d) sp³d²

Explanation: In SF₆, sulfur is surrounded by six fluorine atoms, indicating sp³d²

hybridization, forming an octahedral geometry.
44. Which one of the following is an aromatic compound?
a) Benzene b) Cyclohexane
c) Ethane d) Propane
Answer: a) Benzene

Explanation: Benzene is an aromatic compound due to its delocalized π-electrons in a

conjugated ring system, which follows Huckel's rule.

45. Which of the following reactions is a redox reaction?

a) Neutralization of HCl with NaOH

b) Precipitation of AgCl from AgNO₃ and NaCl

c) Combustion of methane
d) Dissolution of sugar in water
Answer: c) Combustion of methane
Explanation: Combustion is a redox reaction, where methane is oxidized, and oxygen is
reduced, resulting in the formation of CO₂ and H₂O.

46. Which of the following is a nucleophile?

a) BF₃ b) NH₃ c) SO₃ d) Cl₂

Answer: b) NH₃

Explanation: A nucleophile is a species that donates an electron pair. NH₃ (ammonia) has
a lone pair of electrons and acts as a nucleophile.
47. Which of the following exhibits hydrogen bonding?

a) CH₄ b) H₂O c) CO₂ d) CCl₄

Answer: b) H₂O

Explanation: Water (H₂O) forms hydrogen bonds due to the presence of highly
electronegative oxygen and the polarity of the O-H bonds.

48. Which type of intermolecular force is the strongest?

a) Dipole-dipole interaction b) London dispersion forces
c) Hydrogen bonding d) Van der Waals forces
Answer: c) Hydrogen bonding
Explanation: Hydrogen bonds are stronger than dipole-dipole interactions and dispersion
forces, making them the strongest intermolecular force among the options.

49. Which of the following is a coordination complex?

a) NaCl b) [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ c) H₂O d) CO₂

Answer: b) [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻
Explanation: A coordination complex consists of a central metal atom or ion surrounded
by ligands. [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ is an example of such a complex.

50. Which of the following elements forms pπ-pπ multiple bonds?

a) Carbon b) Sodium c) Potassium d) Magnesium
Answer: a) Carbon

Explanation: Carbon can form pπ-pπ bonds in multiple bonds like double and triple
bonds due to its small size and the ability to form strong covalent bonds.

51.Which of the following is a property of metals?

a) High electronegativity b) High ionization energy
c) Good conductor of electricity d) Low density
Answer: c) Good conductor of electricity
Explanation: Metals have free-moving electrons, allowing them to conduct electricity
efficiently.

52. Which of the following is not a colligative property?

a) Osmotic pressure b) Boiling point elevation
c) Freezing point depression d) Density
Answer: d) Density
Explanation: Colligative properties depend on the number of solute particles in a solution,
while density is a property related to mass and volume.

53. The electron affinity of chlorine is:

a) Negative b) Positive c) Zero d) Very large
Answer: a) Negative
Explanation: Electron affinity is the energy released when an atom gains an electron. For
chlorine, this value is negative because energy is released when it gains an electron.

54. In a galvanic cell, the cathode is where:

a) Oxidation occurs b) Reduction occurs
c) Electrons are lost d) The reaction stops
Answer: b) Reduction occurs
Explanation: In a galvanic cell, reduction occurs at the cathode, which is where electrons
are gained.

55. Which of the following has the highest bond energy?

a) H₂ b) O₂ c) N₂ d) Cl₂

Answer: c) N₂

Explanation: Nitrogen (N₂) has a triple bond between the two nitrogen atoms, making its
bond energy very high.

56. What is the coordination number of the central metal atom in [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺?
a) 4 b) 6 c) 2 d) 8
Answer: b) 6
Explanation: The coordination number is determined by the number of ligands attached
to the central metal atom. In [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺, six ammonia molecules are attached to the
chromium atom.
57. Which of the following is a Lewis base?

a) NH₃ b) BF₃ c) AlCl₃ d) H⁺

Answer: a) NH₃

Explanation: NH₃ (ammonia) has a lone pair of electrons, allowing it to donate electrons,
making it a Lewis base.

58. Which of the following species is not paramagnetic?

a) O₂ b) NO c) CO d) O₂⁻
Answer: c) CO
Explanation: CO is diamagnetic because all its electrons are paired, unlike O₂, NO, and
O₂⁻, which have unpaired electrons.

59. The van der Waals equation for real gases accounts for:
a) The ideal behavior of gases
b) Attractive and repulsive forces between gas molecules
c) The kinetic energy of gas molecules
d) The conservation of energy
Answer: b) Attractive and repulsive forces between gas molecules
Explanation: The van der Waals equation modifies the ideal gas law to account for
intermolecular forces (attraction and repulsion) in real gases.
60. What is the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
a) To increase the amount of product formed
b) To lower the activation energy of the reaction
c) To change the equilibrium position
d) To slow down the reaction
Answer: b) To lower the activation energy of the reaction
Explanation: A catalyst speeds up a reaction by lowering the activation energy without
being consumed in the process.

61. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺?

a) Geometrical isomerism b) Optical isomerism
c) Linkage isomerism d) Coordination isomerism
Answer: a) Geometrical isomerism

Explanation: In complexes like [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺, the spatial arrangement of ligands can

lead to geometrical isomerism (cis-trans isomerism).

62. Which of the following compounds is aromatic?

a) Cyclohexane b) Benzene
c) Cyclooctatetraene d) Ethylene
Answer: b) Benzene
Explanation: Benzene is an aromatic compound because it has a planar ring structure
with conjugated π-electrons that follow Hückel's rule (4n+2 π-electrons).
63. Which of the following processes is endothermic?
a) Combustion of methane
b) Dissolution of ammonium nitrate in water
c) Freezing of water
d) Condensation of steam
Answer: b) Dissolution of ammonium nitrate in water
Explanation: The dissolution of ammonium nitrate in water absorbs heat from the
surroundings, making it an endothermic process.

64. Which of the following solutions will have the lowest freezing point?

a) 1 M NaCl b) 1 M glucose c) 1 M BaCl₂ d) 1 M urea

Answer: c) 1 M BaCl₂

Explanation: BaCl₂ dissociates into three ions (Ba²⁺ and 2Cl⁻), creating more particles in
solution and thus a greater freezing point depression compared to NaCl, glucose, and urea.

65. Which of the following functional groups is present in acetic acid?

a) Aldehyde b) Ketone c) Carboxyl d) Amine
Answer: c) Carboxyl

Explanation: Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) contains a carboxyl group (-COOH), which is

characteristic of carboxylic acids.
66. The enthalpy change for the following reaction is +285.8 kJ/mol. What type of reaction
is this? H₂O(l) → H₂(g) + ½O₂(g)
a) Exothermic b) Endothermic
c) Redox d) Neutralization
Answer: b) Endothermic
Explanation: Since the enthalpy change is positive, energy is absorbed, making this an
endothermic reaction.

67. The compound [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] exhibits which type of isomerism?

a) Optical b) Geometrical c) Structural d) Linkage
Answer: b) Geometrical

Explanation: The complex [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] can exist in two geometrical forms: cis and
trans, making it an example of geometrical isomerism.

68. Which of the following ions has the smallest ionic radius?

a) Na⁺m b) Mg²⁺ c) Al³⁺ d) F⁻

Answer: c) Al³⁺
Explanation: As the charge on the ion increases, the ionic radius decreases due to a greater
effective nuclear charge. Al³⁺ has the highest charge and thus the smallest radius.

69. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?

a) Lithium b) Fluorine c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen
Answer: b) Fluorine
Explanation: Fluorine is the most electronegative element in the periodic table.

70. The principle of Le Chatelier’s is used to:

a) Predict the direction of a chemical reaction b) Calculate the rate of a reaction
c) Determine the pH of a solution d) Balance a chemical equation
Answer: a) Predict the direction of a chemical reaction
Explanation: Le Chatelier’s principle predicts how a system at equilibrium responds to
changes in concentration, temperature, or pressure.

71. The boiling point of water is higher than expected due to:
a) Dipole-dipole forces b) London dispersion forces
c) Hydrogen bonding d) Covalent bonding
Answer: c) Hydrogen bonding
Explanation: Water molecules form strong hydrogen bonds, which require additional
energy to break, leading to a higher boiling point.

72. Which of the following is the strongest acid?

a) H₂O b) NH₃ c) HCl d) HF

Answer: c) HCl
Explanation: HCl is a strong acid that completely dissociates in water, unlike HF and
NH₃, which are weaker acids or bases.
73. What is the main product of the reaction between ethene and bromine?
a) 1,2-dibromoethane b) Ethane
c) Bromoethane d) Acetylene
Answer: a) 1,2-dibromoethane
Explanation: Ethene undergoes an addition reaction with bromine to form 1,2-
dibromoethane.

74.Which of the following has the highest first ionization energy?

a) Na b) K c) Rb d) Li
Answer: d) Li
Explanation: First ionization energy decreases down a group in the periodic table. Since Li
is at the top of Group 1, it has the highest first ionization energy.

75. The mass of one mole of carbon-12 atoms is exactly:

a) 6.02 g b) 12 g c) 14 g d) 24 g
Answer: b) 12 g
Explanation: By definition, the mass of one mole of carbon-12 atoms is exactly 12 g.

76. The bond angle in a water molecule (H₂O) is approximately:

a) 90° b) 104.5° c) 120° d) 180°
Answer: b) 104.5°
Explanation: The bond angle in water is reduced from the ideal tetrahedral angle (109.5°)
due to the repulsion between the two lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom.

77. Which of the following is the strongest acid?

a) H₂SO₄ b) HNO₃ c) HClO₄ d) HF

Answer: c) HClO₄

Explanation: Perchloric acid (HClO₄) is one of the strongest acids, stronger than H₂SO₄
and HNO₃.

78. Which gas is used as a standard for comparing the densities of other gases?
a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Helium
Answer: a) Hydrogen
Explanation: Hydrogen is the lightest gas and is often used as a reference for comparing
the densities of other gases.

79. What is the product of the reaction between ethene (C₂H₄) and Br₂ in the presence of
CCl₄?
a) Dibromoethane b) Bromoethane
c) Tetrabromoethane d) Bromobenzene
Answer: a) Dibromoethane
Explanation: Ethene undergoes an addition reaction with Br₂, resulting in the formation
of 1,2-dibromoethane (C₂H₄Br₂).
80. Which of the following best describes the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
a) Increases the equilibrium constant
b) Increases the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy
c) Increases the activation energy of the reaction
d) Decreases the energy of the products
Answer: b) Increases the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy
Explanation: A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation
energy, thus speeding up the reaction.

81. Which element has the highest electronegativity?

a) Oxygen b) Fluorine c) Nitrogen d) Chlorine
Answer: b) Fluorine
Explanation: Fluorine is the most electronegative element on the periodic table.

82. The energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous atom in its ground state is
known as:
a) Ionization energy b) Electron affinity
c) Electronegativity d) Lattice energy
Answer: a) Ionization energy
Explanation: Ionization energy is the amount of energy required to remove an electron
from a neutral atom in the gas phase.
83. The color of transition metal complexes is due to:
a) Ligand to metal charge transfer
b) d-d electron transitions
c) f-f electron transitions
d) Ionization
Answer: b) d-d electron transitions
Explanation: The color in transition metal complexes arises from electronic transitions
between different d-orbitals within the metal ion, often in the visible region of the
spectrum.

84. What type of bonding is found in solid sodium chloride (NaCl)?

a) Covalent b) Ionic c) Metallic d) Hydrogen bonding
Answer: b) Ionic

Explanation: Sodium chloride consists of ions (Na⁺ and Cl⁻) held together by strong
electrostatic forces, typical of ionic bonding.

85. Which of the following is a conjugate acid-base pair?

a) HCl and Cl⁻ b) NH₃ and NH₄⁺

c) H₂O and H₃O⁺ d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: All of these are examples of conjugate acid-base pairs, where the acid
donates a proton to form the conjugate base, and the base accepts a proton to form the
conjugate acid.

86. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its:

a) Wavelength b) Frequency c) Amplitude d) Speed
Answer: b) Frequency

Explanation: According to the equation E = hν, the energy of a photon is directly

proportional to its frequency (ν), where h is Planck's constant.

87. The ideal gas law is expressed as:

a) PV = nRT b) PV = nR/T c) PV² = nR/T d) P/T = nR/V
Answer: a) PV = nRT
Explanation: The ideal gas law relates pressure (P), volume (V), moles of gas (n), the ideal
gas constant (R), and temperature (T) through the equation PV = nRT.

88. Which of the following is an example of a network covalent solid?

a) NaCl b) Diamond c) CO₂ d) O₂
Answer: b) Diamond
Explanation: Diamond is a network covalent solid, where each carbon atom is covalently
bonded to four other carbon atoms, forming a very hard and strong lattice.
89. Which process is endothermic?
a) Condensation of steam b) Freezing of water
c) Sublimation of dry ice d) Deposition of iodine
Answer: c) Sublimation of dry ice
Explanation: Sublimation is an endothermic process where solid carbon dioxide (dry ice)
absorbs heat to change directly into a gas.

90. Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction?

a) Neutralization b) Combustion of methane
c) Dissolution of NaCl in water d) Mixing of sand and iron filings
Answer: b) Combustion of methane
Explanation: Combustion involves the transfer of electrons, making it a redox reaction
where methane is oxidized and oxygen is reduced.

91. What is the hybridization of carbon in methane (CH₄)?

a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) sp⁴
Answer: c) sp³

Explanation: The carbon atom in methane (CH₄) forms four sigma bonds, corresponding
to sp³ hybridization.

92. Which of the following describes the process of chromatography?

a) Separation of components based on differences in solubility
b) Combustion of organic substances
c) Formation of colored complexes
d) Electrolytic reduction of metals
Answer: a) Separation of components based on differences in solubility
Explanation: Chromatography is a technique used to separate mixtures based on
differences in the components' solubility or affinity for the stationary and mobile phases.

93. The solubility of gases in water typically:

a) Increases with increasing temperature
b) Decreases with increasing temperature
c) Remains constant with temperature
d) Is independent of temperature
Answer: b) Decreases with increasing temperature
Explanation: The solubility of gases in water decreases as temperature increases because
higher temperatures give gas molecules more energy to escape from the solvent.

94. Which of the following metals can displace hydrogen from dilute acids?
a) Copper b) Silver c) Gold d) Zinc
Answer: d) Zinc
Explanation: Zinc is more reactive than hydrogen and can displace it from dilute acids,
releasing hydrogen gas.
95. The molecular geometry of SF₆ (sulfur hexafluoride) is:
a) Octahedral b) Trigonal planar
c) Tetrahedral d) Linear
Answer: a) Octahedral

Explanation: SF₆ has six fluorine atoms arranged symmetrically around a central sulfur
atom, resulting in an octahedral geometry.

96. What is the coordination number of the central metal ion in [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
Answer: c) 6
Explanation: The coordination number is the number of ligands attached to the central
metal ion. In [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻, six cyanide ions are bonded to the central iron ion.

Analytcal Chemistry

1. Which of the following is the principle of chromatography?

a) Selective precipitation b) Selective absorption
c) Differential partitioning between a mobile phase and a stationary phase
d) Differential sublimation
Answer: c) Differential partitioning between a mobile phase and a stationary phase
Explanation: Chromatography separates compounds based on their differential
partitioning between a mobile phase and a stationary phase.
2. What is the purpose of a buffer solution in analytical chemistry?
a) To neutralize acids b) To maintain a stable pH
c) To precipitate proteins d) To catalyze reactions
Answer: b) To maintain a stable pH
Explanation: Buffers are used to keep the pH constant during reactions, making them
crucial in titrations and biochemical analyses.

3. Which of the following compounds is used as a primary standard in titration?

a) NaCl b) NaOH c) KHP (Potassium hydrogen phthalate)
d) HCl
Answer: c) KHP (Potassium hydrogen phthalate)
Explanation: KHP is a common primary standard because it is stable, pure, and easy to
weigh accurately.

4. What is the molarity of a solution containing 49 grams of H2SO4 (molar mass = 98

g/mol) dissolved in 1 liter of water?
a) 0.25 M b) 0.5 M c) 1 M d) 2 M
Answer: b) 0.5 M
Explanation: Molarity = moles of solute/volume of solution in liters. Moles of H2SO4 =
49/98 = 0.5, so M = 0.5 M.
5. In UV-Vis spectroscopy, what does Beer-Lambert Law relate?
a) pH and concentration b) Absorbance and concentration
c) Wavelength and energy d) Absorbance and time
Answer: b) Absorbance and concentration
Explanation: According to Beer-Lambert Law, absorbance is directly proportional to the
concentration of the absorbing species.

6. Which of the following is a common detector in gas chromatography?

a) Flame Ionization Detector (FID)
b) Thermal Conductivity Detector (TCD)
c) Mass Spectrometer d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: FID, TCD, and mass spectrometers are all commonly used detectors in gas
chromatography.

7. What is the pH of a 0.01 M HCl solution?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Answer: b) 2
Explanation: HCl is a strong acid that completely dissociates. pH = -log[H+]; for 0.01 M
HCl, pH = -log(0.01) = 2.
8. The end point in a titration is detected by:
a) A change in pH b) A color change
c) Precipitation d) Both a and b
Answer: d) Both a and b
Explanation: The endpoint is often detected by either a pH change (using a pH meter) or a
color change (using indicators).

9. What technique is used for the separation of proteins based on size?

a) Thin-layer chromatography
b) Ion-exchange chromatography
c) Gel filtration chromatography
d) Paper chromatography
Answer: c) Gel filtration chromatography
Explanation: Gel filtration (or size exclusion) chromatography separates proteins based on
their size.

10. Which of the following compounds is commonly used in chemical oxygen demand
(COD) testing?
a) Potassium permanganate b) Silver nitrate
c) Potassium dichromate d) Sodium hydroxide
Answer: c) Potassium dichromate
Explanation: Potassium dichromate is used as an oxidizing agent in COD tests to measure
the organic matter in water samples.

11. Which is the best method to determine the molecular weight of a volatile liquid?
a) Mass spectrometry b) Gas chromatography
c) Victor Meyer method d) Distillation
Answer: c) Victor Meyer method
Explanation: The Victor Meyer method is specifically designed to determine the molecular
weight of volatile substances.

12. Which of the following methods is used for water hardness determination?
a) Potentiometry b) EDTA titration
c) Flame photometry d) UV-Vis spectroscopy
Answer: b) EDTA titration
Explanation: EDTA titration is commonly used to determine the hardness of water by
complexing with calcium and magnesium ions.

13. In potentiometric titrations, which type of electrode is commonly used?

a) Reference electrode b) Indicator electrode
c) Glass electrode d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Potentiometric titrations require a reference electrode (e.g., Ag/AgCl), an
indicator electrode, and often a glass electrode for pH measurement.

14. A standard hydrogen electrode is used as a reference electrode because:

a) It is stable and provides a reproducible reference point
b) It has a standard reduction potential of 1V
c) It reacts with all other substances
d) It generates electricity
Answer: a) It is stable and provides a reproducible reference point
Explanation: The standard hydrogen electrode is used as a reference due to its stability
and a well-defined potential of 0V.

15. In infrared (IR) spectroscopy, what is measured?

a) Absorption of X-rays
b) Absorption of visible light
c) Absorption of infrared light
d) Absorption of microwaves
Answer: c) Absorption of infrared light
Explanation: IR spectroscopy measures the absorption of infrared light, which causes
molecular vibrations.
16. The stationary phase in gas chromatography can be:
a) Liquid on a solid support b) Solid c) A gel d) Either a or b
Answer: d) Either a or b
Explanation: The stationary phase in gas chromatography can be a liquid (as in gas-liquid
chromatography) or a solid (as in gas-solid chromatography).

17. In atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS), what is the primary source of light?
a) Xenon lamp b) Tungsten lamp
c) Hollow cathode lamp d) UV-Vis lamp
Answer: c) Hollow cathode lamp
Explanation: A hollow cathode lamp is used in AAS because it emits the specific
wavelengths of light required for the analysis of elements.

18. Which solvent is commonly used in Karl Fischer titration to determine water content?
a) Methanol b) Ethanol c) Acetone d) Water
Answer: a) Methanol
Explanation: Methanol is commonly used in Karl Fischer titration because it efficiently
dissolves both the sample and the reagents.

19. What is the role of an internal standard in chromatography?

a) To react with the analyte
b) To calibrate the equipment
c) To correct for variations in sample injection and analysis
d) To enhance the detector signal
Answer: c) To correct for variations in sample injection and analysis
Explanation: Internal standards help ensure accuracy by compensating for any variations
in the sample's analysis process.

20. In mass spectrometry, the molecular ion peak represents:

a) The highest intensity ion
b) The ion with the lowest mass
c) The ion with the greatest number of electrons
d) The ion that corresponds to the molecular weight of the compound
Answer: d) The ion that corresponds to the molecular weight of the compound
Explanation: The molecular ion peak represents the ion that retains the molecular weight
of the original analyte.

21. Which of the following is a strong acid?

a) Acetic acid b) Citric acid
c) Hydrochloric acid d) Ammonia
Answer: c) Hydrochloric acid
Explanation: Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid that completely dissociates in water.
22. In gravimetric analysis, what is determined?
a) The concentration of a solution
b) The weight of a substance
c) The color of a compound
d) The boiling point of a liquid
Answer: b) The weight of a substance
Explanation: Gravimetric analysis involves isolating and weighing a substance to
determine its quantity.

23. Which of the following compounds is typically used as a drying agent?

a) Sodium sulfate b) Sodium chloride
c) Potassium chloride d) Water
Answer: a) Sodium sulfate
Explanation: Sodium sulfate is often used as a drying agent to remove water from organic
compounds.

24. In polarography, the working electrode is typically made of:

a) Platinum b) Mercury c) Silver d) Copper
Answer: b) Mercury
Explanation: A dropping mercury electrode is used in polarography because it provides a
reproducible surface.
25. What is the role of ion-selective electrodes in potentiometry?
a) They selectively react with one ion
b) They change color upon reaction
c) They generate a constant voltage
d) They selectively respond to a specific ion and generate a potential
Answer: d) They selectively respond to a specific ion and generate a potential
Explanation: Ion-selective electrodes respond specifically to certain ions and are used to
measure the ion concentration in solutions.

26. What type of bond vibration is primarily observed in infrared (IR) spectroscopy?
a) Rotational b) Vibrational c) Translational d) Nuclear
Answer: b) Vibrational
Explanation: IR spectroscopy measures the vibrational transitions in molecules, primarily
focusing on the stretching and bending of chemical bonds.

27. The unit of absorbance in UV-Vis spectroscopy is:

a) Mole per liter b) Grams per liter
c) Absorbance has no unit d) Joules per mole
Answer: c) Absorbance has no unit
Explanation: Absorbance is a logarithmic measure and hence is unitless, calculated as the
log of the ratio of incident to transmitted light.
28. Which of the following factors affects the retention time in gas chromatography?
a) The length of the column b) The temperature of the oven
c) The nature of the stationary phase d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: The retention time in gas chromatography depends on factors like the
column length, oven temperature, and the interaction between the analytes and the
stationary phase.

29. What is the characteristic wavelength range for ultraviolet (UV) spectroscopy?
a) 100-200 nm b) 200-400 nm c) 400-600 nm d) 600-800 nm
Answer: b) 200-400 nm
Explanation: The UV region of the electromagnetic spectrum ranges from about 200 to
400 nm, where electronic transitions in molecules are typically observed.

30. In potentiometry, the Nernst equation is used to calculate:

a) The concentration of a titrant
b) The electric potential of an electrochemical cell
c) The pH of a solution
d) The temperature of a solution
Answer: b) The electric potential of an electrochemical cell
Explanation: The Nernst equation relates the electrode potential of a half-cell to the
standard electrode potential, temperature, and activities (or concentrations) of the ions
involved.
31. In ion-exchange chromatography, the mobile phase is typically:
a) Non-polar b) Gaseous
c) Aqueous solution containing ions
d) A mixture of organic solvents
Answer: c) Aqueous solution containing ions
Explanation: In ion-exchange chromatography, the mobile phase is an aqueous solution
containing ions, which compete with the ions of the analyte for binding sites on the ion-
exchange resin.

32. In HPLC, what does the acronym "RP-HPLC" stand for?

a) Rapid Pressure High-Performance Liquid Chromatography
b) Reverse-Phase High-Performance Liquid Chromatography
c) Radiological Pressure High-Performance Liquid Chromatography
d) Reduced-Pressure High-Performance Liquid Chromatography
Answer: b) Reverse-Phase High-Performance Liquid Chromatography
Explanation: In RP-HPLC, the stationary phase is nonpolar (e.g., C18 column), and the
mobile phase is polar, causing nonpolar analytes to have longer retention times.

33. The separation of enantiomers can be effectively carried out using:

a) Normal-phase chromatography b) Gas chromatography
c) Chiral chromatography d) Gel electrophoresis
Answer: c) Chiral chromatography
Explanation: Chiral chromatography uses a chiral stationary phase to differentiate
between enantiomers, which have identical physical and chemical properties except for
their optical activity.

34. Which of the following ions is typically detected using a flame photometer?
a) Calcium b) Sodium c) Potassium d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Flame photometry is used to detect alkali and alkaline earth metals like
sodium, potassium, and calcium, as they emit characteristic wavelengths of light when
heated in a flame.

35. Which method can be used to determine the structure of organic compounds based on
the interaction of nuclei with an external magnetic field?
a) UV-Vis spectroscopy
b) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
c) Infrared spectroscopy
d) Mass spectrometry
Answer: b) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
Explanation: NMR spectroscopy is a technique that provides information about the
structure of organic compounds by observing the interaction of atomic nuclei (especially
hydrogen) with a magnetic field.
36. In a redox titration, the equivalence point is determined using:
a) A pH meter b) A color indicator
c) An oxidation-reduction potential (ORP) electrode
d) A refractometer
Answer: c) An oxidation-reduction potential (ORP) electrode
Explanation: In redox titrations, the ORP electrode detects changes in the electrical
potential as the titration progresses, marking the equivalence point.

37. What does the term “isocratic elution” refer to in liquid chromatography?
a) A method where the mobile phase composition is constant
b) A method where the mobile phase composition changes
c) A method with a constant flow rate
d) A method with variable column temperature
Answer: a) A method where the mobile phase composition is constant
Explanation: Isocratic elution refers to using a mobile phase with a constant composition
throughout the chromatographic run.

38. The detector used in High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) that

measures light absorption is:
a) Refractive index detector b) UV-Visible detector
c) Mass spectrometer d) Fluorescence detector
Answer: b) UV-Visible detector
Explanation: The UV-Visible detector is widely used in HPLC to measure the absorbance
of the analytes as they elute from the column.

39. Which chemical is commonly used as a primary standard in acid-base titrations?

a) Sodium chloride b) Potassium permanganate
c) Sodium carbonate d) Potassium bromide
Answer: c) Sodium carbonate
Explanation: Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) is used as a primary standard in acid-base
titrations because it is stable, pure, and its molarity can be accurately known.

40. Which of the following statements is true for atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS)?
a) It measures emission of light
b) It measures absorption of light
c) It can be used for molecular analysis
d) It is used for gas analysis
Answer: b) It measures absorption of light
Explanation: AAS measures the absorption of specific wavelengths of light by free atoms,
typically metals, in a gaseous state.

41. The elution order in gas chromatography is primarily determined by:

a) Molecular weight of analytes
b) Polarity of analytes
c) Both molecular weight and polarity
d) Concentration of the analytes
Answer: c) Both molecular weight and polarity
Explanation: The elution order in gas chromatography is influenced by both the molecular
weight and polarity of the analytes as they interact with the stationary phase and the
mobile phase.

42. A thermocouple is a common detector used in:

a) Infrared spectroscopy b) Potentiometry
c) Thermal conductivity detectors (TCD) in gas chromatography
d) Polarography
Answer: c) Thermal conductivity detectors (TCD) in gas chromatography
Explanation: TCD uses thermocouples to measure changes in the thermal conductivity of
the eluent compared to a reference gas.

43. Which of the following compounds is used as an internal standard in NMR

spectroscopy?
a) Tetramethylsilane (TMS) b) Chloroform
c) Ethanol d) Benzene
Answer: a) Tetramethylsilane (TMS)
Explanation: TMS is commonly used as an internal standard in NMR spectroscopy
because it provides a sharp, well-defined signal at a chemical shift of 0 ppm.
44. Which of the following is not a common carrier gas used in gas chromatography?
a) Helium b) Nitrogen c) Hydrogen d) Oxygen
Answer: d) Oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen is typically not used as a carrier gas in gas chromatography because
it can react with some compounds, potentially causing oxidation or other side reactions.

45. What type of compounds can be analyzed by flame emission spectroscopy?

a) Non-metals b) Metals c) Organic compounds d) Gases
Answer: b) Metals
Explanation: Flame emission spectroscopy is used to analyze metal ions, as they emit
characteristic wavelengths of light when excited by a flame.

46. In electrogravimetry, what is the function of the working electrode?

a) To absorb light
b) To measure the concentration of ions
c) To deposit the analyte by electrochemical reduction or oxidation
d) To generate heat
Answer: c) To deposit the analyte by electrochemical reduction or oxidation
Explanation: In electrogravimetry, the analyte is deposited onto the working electrode via
electrochemical reactions, allowing for its quantification by weight.
47. Which of the following is commonly used as a masking agent in complexometric
titrations?
a) EDTA b) Ammonium chloride
c) Cyanide d) Dimethylglyoxime
Answer: c) Cyanide
Explanation: Cyanide is used as a masking agent because it forms stable complexes with
metals, preventing them from reacting with EDTA in complexometric titrations.

48. What does "Rf" value in Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC) refer to?
a) The ratio of solute to solvent used
b) The rate of flow of the solvent
c) The distance traveled by the compound divided by the distance traveled by the solvent
d) The retention factor of the mobile phase
Answer: c) The distance traveled by the compound divided by the distance traveled by the
solvent
Explanation: The Rf value is a ratio that compares how far a substance travels in relation
to the solvent front in TLC.

49. Which ion is often used as an indicator in redox titrations involving potassium
permanganate?

a) Ferric ion (Fe³⁺) b) Iodide ion (I⁻)

c) Hydrogen ion (H⁺) d) Permanganate ion (MnO₄⁻) itself
Answer: d) Permanganate ion (MnO₄⁻) itself

Explanation: In permanganate titrations, MnO₄⁻ acts as its own indicator, changing from
purple to colorless (or faint pink) when reduced, signaling the end point.

50. Which of the following techniques is used to measure the heat of chemical reactions?
a) Calorimetry b) Potentiometry
c) Polarimetry d) Voltammetry
Answer: a) Calorimetry
Explanation: Calorimetry is a technique used to measure the amount of heat involved in
chemical reactions or physical changes.

51. Which gas is typically used in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS) to produce the
flame?
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Acetylene d) Argon
Answer: c) Acetylene
Explanation: Acetylene, when combined with air or oxygen, produces the high-
temperature flame necessary for the excitation of atoms in AAS.

52. In reversed-phase HPLC, which of the following would elute first?

a) A polar compound b) A non-polar compound
c) An ionic compound d) A complex mixture
Answer: a) A polar compound
Explanation: In reversed-phase HPLC, the stationary phase is non-polar, so polar
compounds interact less and elute faster than non-polar compounds.

53. Which of the following factors primarily affects the resolution in chromatography?
a) Flow rate of the mobile phase
b) Column length
c) Particle size of the stationary phase
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Resolution in chromatography is affected by the flow rate, column length,
and particle size of the stationary phase, among other factors.

54. What is the primary function of a mass analyzer in mass spectrometry?

a) To ionize the sample
b) To detect the sample’s absorption of light
c) To separate ions based on their mass-to-charge (m/z) ratio
d) To fragment the molecule into smaller pieces
Answer: c) To separate ions based on their mass-to-charge (m/z) ratio
Explanation: The mass analyzer separates ions based on their m/z ratio, allowing the
identification of compounds and their isotopes.
55. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used technique in determining the
structure of an organic molecule?
a) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
b) X-ray crystallography
c) Gas chromatography (GC)
d) Infrared (IR) spectroscopy
Answer: c) Gas chromatography (GC)
Explanation: While GC is useful for separating volatile compounds, it does not provide
direct structural information like NMR, IR, or X-ray crystallography.

56. The chemical shift in NMR spectroscopy is expressed in:

a) Parts per million (ppm) b) Hertz (Hz)
c) Joules (J) d) Meters per second (m/s)
Answer: a) Parts per million (ppm)
Explanation: Chemical shifts in NMR are expressed in ppm to indicate the difference in
resonance frequency of nuclei compared to a reference standard.

57. Which method is commonly used for the quantitative analysis of metals in
environmental samples?
a) UV-Vis spectroscopy b) Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS)
c) Potentiometry d) Polarimetry
Answer: b) Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS)
Explanation: AAS is widely used for the quantitative determination of metals in various
environmental, biological, and industrial samples.

58. Which of the following detectors is used in liquid chromatography for detecting
fluorescence in the analyte?
a) Mass spectrometer b) UV detector
c) Fluorescence detector d) Thermal conductivity detector
Answer: c) Fluorescence detector
Explanation: Fluorescence detectors are used to measure the fluorescence emitted by some
analytes after they are excited by a specific wavelength of light.

59. In potentiometric titration, the equivalence point is determined by:

a) A sharp increase or decrease in pH
b) A sharp change in voltage or potential
c) A change in color
d) The formation of a precipitate
Answer: b) A sharp change in voltage or potential
Explanation: Potentiometric titrations involve measuring the potential difference (voltage)
between two electrodes, and the equivalence point is indicated by a sharp change in this
voltage.
60. Which of the following is a characteristic of a primary standard?
a) It is hygroscopic b) It has low purity
c) It is stable and pure d) It is volatile
Answer: c) It is stable and pure
Explanation: A primary standard must be stable, highly pure, and non-hygroscopic so that
it can be accurately weighed and used in standardization.

61. The term "partition coefficient" in chromatography refers to:

a) The rate at which the mobile phase moves
b) The ratio of concentrations of a solute between two phases
c) The retention time of a solute
d) The efficiency of the separation
Answer: b) The ratio of concentrations of a solute between two phases
Explanation: The partition coefficient is the ratio of the concentration of a solute in the
stationary phase to its concentration in the mobile phase.

62. Which of the following techniques is most suitable for the separation of thermally
unstable compounds?
a) Gas chromatography b) Liquid chromatography
c) Capillary electrophoresis d) Sublimation
Answer: b) Liquid chromatography
Explanation: Liquid chromatography is suitable for separating thermally unstable
compounds because it operates at lower temperatures compared to gas chromatography.
63. Which of the following statements about spectrophotometry is true?
a) It measures the amount of light absorbed by a sample
b) It measures the amount of light emitted by a sample
c) It is used only for visible light
d) It requires the sample to be in a solid state
Answer: a) It measures the amount of light absorbed by a sample
Explanation: Spectrophotometry measures how much light a sample absorbs at specific
wavelengths, which can be in the UV, visible, or infrared regions of the spectrum.

64. Which type of detector is most commonly used in High-Performance Liquid

Chromatography (HPLC) for detecting non-UV-absorbing compounds?
a) Fluorescence detector b) Refractive index detector
c) UV-Vis detector d) Flame ionization detector
Answer: b) Refractive index detector
Explanation: The refractive index detector is used in HPLC to detect compounds that do
not absorb UV light by measuring changes in the refractive index of the eluent.

65. Which of the following is used to detect the equivalence point in a precipitation
titration?
a) pH meter b) Potentiometer
c) Conductivity meter d) Spectrophotometer
Answer: c) Conductivity meter
Explanation: In precipitation titrations, a conductivity meter is often used to detect the
equivalence point by measuring changes in the conductivity of the solution as the
precipitate forms.

66. Which of the following methods is used to determine the molecular weight of a
compound in mass spectrometry?
a) Electron ionization b) Chemical ionization
c) Isotope ratio analysis d) Molecular ion peak
Answer: d) Molecular ion peak

Explanation: The molecular ion peak (M⁺) in a mass spectrum corresponds to the
molecular weight of the compound. It represents the ionized molecule without
fragmentation.

67. Which of the following is a common stationary phase used in Gas Chromatography
(GC)?
a) Silica gel b) Diatomaceous earth coated with a liquid
c) Sodium chloride d) Magnesium oxide
Answer: b) Diatomaceous earth coated with a liquid
Explanation: In gas chromatography, the stationary phase often consists of a liquid or
polymer coating on a solid support such as diatomaceous earth, which interacts with the
analytes during separation.
68. Which ionization technique in mass spectrometry is most suitable for analyzing large
biomolecules like proteins?
a) Electron Ionization (EI) b) Electrospray Ionization (ESI)
c) Chemical Ionization (CI)
d) Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption/Ionization (MALDI)
Answer: d) Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption/Ionization (MALDI)
Explanation: MALDI is widely used for analyzing large biomolecules, such as proteins and
peptides, by ionizing them with minimal fragmentation.

69. Which of the following statements is true regarding capillary electrophoresis?

a) It separates molecules based on their molecular mass
b) It uses a stationary phase and a mobile phase
c) It separates molecules based on their charge-to-mass ratio
d) It is used exclusively for organic molecules
Answer: c) It separates molecules based on their charge-to-mass ratio
Explanation: Capillary electrophoresis separates molecules based on their charge-to-mass
ratio, making it suitable for ions and charged molecules like proteins, nucleotides, and
small ions.

70. Which of the following indicators is used in acid-base titrations?

a) Potassium permanganate b) Bromothymol blue
c) Starch d) Methylene blue
Answer: b) Bromothymol blue
Explanation: Bromothymol blue is an acid-base indicator that changes color depending on
the pH of the solution. It is commonly used in titrations to indicate the end point.

71. Which of the following is an application of differential scanning calorimetry (DSC)?

a) Measuring melting points
b) Determining bond energies
c) Measuring the absorbance of UV light
d) Determining molecular structure
Answer: a) Measuring melting points
Explanation: DSC measures heat flow associated with phase transitions, such as melting,
crystallization, or glass transition, and is used to determine melting points and other
thermal properties.

72. Which of the following techniques is used to measure the concentration of a colored
solution?
a) Spectrophotometry b) NMR spectroscopy
c) Capillary electrophoresis d) Polarimetry
Answer: a) Spectrophotometry
Explanation: Spectrophotometry is used to measure the concentration of colored solutions
by analyzing the amount of light absorbed at specific wavelengths.
73. What is the purpose of using a buffer solution in a pH measurement?
a) To neutralize the solution
b) To maintain a constant pH during the measurement
c) To increase the conductivity of the solution
d) To decrease the ion concentration
Answer: b) To maintain a constant pH during the measurement
Explanation: A buffer solution resists changes in pH when small amounts of acids or bases
are added, ensuring accurate and stable pH measurements.

74. In polarography, the term "half-wave potential" refers to:

a) The potential at which the current is zero
b) The potential at which half of the analyte has been reduced or oxidized
c) The potential at which the electrolyte decomposes
d) The potential at which the current reaches its maximum value
Answer: b) The potential at which half of the analyte has been reduced or oxidized
Explanation: The half-wave potential is characteristic of a particular analyte in
polarography and occurs when half of the analyte has undergone a reduction or oxidation
reaction.

75. The Beer-Lambert law relates absorbance to:

a) The square of the concentration of the solution
b) The wavelength of light and molecular weight of the compound
c) The concentration of the solution and the path length
d) The temperature of the solution
Answer: c) The concentration of the solution and the path length
Explanation: The Beer-Lambert law states that absorbance is directly proportional to the
concentration of the absorbing species and the path length through which light passes.

76. What is the mobile phase in gel filtration chromatography?

a) A gas b) An organic solvent
c) Water or aqueous buffer d) A mixture of gases
Answer: c) Water or aqueous buffer
Explanation: In gel filtration chromatography (also known as size exclusion
chromatography), the mobile phase is usually water or an aqueous buffer, which helps to
separate molecules based on their size.

77. Which of the following is an application of coulometry?

a) Determining the molecular structure of organic compounds
b) Measuring the total amount of electricity used in a reaction
c) Identifying different isotopes of an element
d) Analyzing the wavelength of absorbed light
Answer: b) Measuring the total amount of electricity used in a reaction
Explanation: Coulometry is used to measure the quantity of electricity (in coulombs)
required to drive a chemical reaction to completion, which is directly related to the
amount of substance undergoing the reaction.
78. Which of the following is a property of primary standards used in titrations?
a) Low purity b) Volatile and reactive
c) Hygroscopic d) High purity and stability
Answer: d) High purity and stability
Explanation: Primary standards are substances of high purity, stability, and accurate
composition, used to calibrate solutions in titrations.

79. What is the main principle behind thin-layer chromatography (TLC)?

a) Separation based on molecular weight
b) Separation based on charge
c) Separation based on polarity
d) Separation based on refractive index
Answer: c) Separation based on polarity
Explanation: In TLC, compounds are separated based on their polarity as they travel
along the stationary phase (usually silica or alumina) with a solvent. Non-polar compounds
travel farther, while polar compounds move more slowly.

80. What is the purpose of the mobile phase in chromatography?

a) To provide a medium for light absorption
b) To dissolve the sample and carry it through the stationary phase
c) To ionize the sample
d) To precipitate the analyte
Answer: b) To dissolve the sample and carry it through the stationary phase
Explanation: The mobile phase in chromatography carries the sample through the
stationary phase, allowing separation based on interactions with the stationary phase.

81. Which of the following statements is true for ion-exchange chromatography?

a) It separates molecules based on their size
b) It separates molecules based on their charge
c) It uses gas as the mobile phase
d) It is not suitable for separating ions
Answer: b) It separates molecules based on their charge
Explanation: Ion-exchange chromatography separates molecules based on their charge by
using a stationary phase that interacts with ions of opposite charge.

82. Which of the following components of an NMR spectrum indicates the environment of
protons?
a) Signal splitting (multiplicity) b) Signal integration
c) Chemical shift d) Spin-spin coupling constant
Answer: c) Chemical shift
Explanation: The chemical shift in an NMR spectrum provides information about the
electronic environment of protons, indicating the types of chemical groups surrounding
them.
83. Which of the following is a commonly used support material in column
chromatography?
a) Copper sulfate b) Magnesium oxide
c) Silica gel d) Sodium chloride
Answer: c) Silica gel
Explanation: Silica gel is commonly used as the stationary phase in column
chromatography due to its high surface area and ability to interact with various analytes,
especially polar compounds.

84. What is the principle behind conductometric titration?

a) Monitoring the change in light absorbance
b) Monitoring the change in the concentration of ions by measuring conductivity
c) Monitoring the change in color
d) Monitoring the temperature of the solution
Answer: b) Monitoring the change in the concentration of ions by measuring conductivity
Explanation: In conductometric titration, the conductivity of the solution is measured as
the titrant is added, allowing the determination of the equivalence point based on changes
in ion concentration.

85. Which technique is used for the separation of volatile organic compounds?
a) Thin-layer chromatography b) Gas chromatography
c) Gel filtration chromatography d) Paper chromatography
Answer: b) Gas chromatography
Explanation: Gas chromatography (GC) is the preferred technique for separating and
analyzing volatile organic compounds due to its ability to handle samples in the gas phase.

86. In ion-exchange chromatography, the stationary phase is typically:

a) A non-polar liquid b) An ionically charged resin
c) A silica gel d) A volatile gas
Answer: b) An ionically charged resin
Explanation: The stationary phase in ion-exchange chromatography is typically a resin
with fixed charges (either positive or negative), which attracts ions of the opposite charge
in the mobile phase.

87. Which of the following detectors is used in Gas Chromatography (GC) to detect
organic compounds based on their ionization by a flame?
a) Flame ionization detector (FID) b) UV-Vis detector
c) Refractive index detector d) Thermal conductivity detector
Answer: a) Flame ionization detector (FID)
Explanation: FID detects organic compounds in GC by ionizing them in a hydrogen flame
and measuring the resulting ions, which generate a measurable current.

88. Which technique is used for elemental analysis to determine the concentration of metal
ions in a solution?
a) Infrared (IR) spectroscopy b) Mass spectrometry (MS)
c) Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS) d) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR)
Answer: c) Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS)
Explanation: AAS is widely used to determine the concentration of metal ions in solutions
by measuring the absorption of light at specific wavelengths corresponding to each
element.

89. In a UV-Vis spectrophotometer, the absorbance of a sample is measured as a function

of:
a) Frequency b) Voltage c) Wavelength d) Current
Answer: c) Wavelength
Explanation: UV-Vis spectrophotometry measures absorbance as a function of
wavelength, with the absorbance indicating how much light is absorbed by the sample at
each wavelength.

90. Which of the following techniques is suitable for analyzing the thermal stability of a
material?
a) X-ray diffraction (XRD) b) Gas chromatography (GC)
c) Thermogravimetric analysis (TGA) d) Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR)
Answer: c) Thermogravimetric analysis (TGA)
Explanation: TGA is a technique that measures changes in the weight of a sample as it is
heated, providing information about its thermal stability and decomposition.
91. Which of the following is an application of High-Performance Liquid Chromatography
(HPLC)?
a) Determining molecular structure
b) Measuring the heat of a reaction
c) Separating and quantifying components of a mixture
d) Measuring the solubility of gases
Answer: c) Separating and quantifying components of a mixture
Explanation: HPLC is widely used for the separation, identification, and quantification of
components in mixtures, particularly in pharmaceuticals and environmental samples.

92. What is the primary function of the detector in a chromatography system?

a) To separate the components of the mixture
b) To ionize the sample
c) To measure the concentration of separated components
d) To introduce the sample into the system
Answer: c) To measure the concentration of separated components
Explanation: The detector in a chromatography system measures the concentration of the
analytes as they elute from the column, producing a signal corresponding to each
component.

93. Which of the following is a disadvantage of paper chromatography?

a) It requires sophisticated instruments
b) It is not suitable for separating non-polar compounds
c) It cannot separate colored compounds
d) It is expensive and time-consuming
Answer: b) It is not suitable for separating non-polar compounds
Explanation: Paper chromatography uses water or aqueous solutions as the mobile phase,
making it less suitable for separating non-polar compounds that do not dissolve well in
water.

94. In flame photometry, which of the following is detected to determine the concentration
of elements?
a) Absorption of light b) Emission of light
c) Conductivity d) Fluorescence
Answer: b) Emission of light
Explanation: Flame photometry measures the concentration of certain elements (e.g., Na,
K, Li) by detecting the intensity of light emitted by atoms excited in a flame.

95. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the retention time in Gas
Chromatography (GC)?
a) Column temperature b) Carrier gas flow rate
c) Type of stationary phase d) Sample injection volume
Answer: d) Sample injection volume
Explanation: Retention time in GC is primarily affected by the temperature, flow rate of
the carrier gas, and the stationary phase. Sample injection volume mainly affects the peak
size but not retention time.

96. The term "enantiomers" refers to:

a) Isomers with the same connectivity but different spatial arrangements
b) Isomers with different molecular formulas
c) Molecules that are non-superimposable mirror images
d) Molecules that have the same properties in all respects
Answer: c) Molecules that are non-superimposable mirror images
Explanation: Enantiomers are a type of stereoisomer that are mirror images of each other
and cannot be superimposed, even though they have the same molecular formula and
connectivity.

97. Which method is typically used to measure the concentration of ions in solution using
electrochemical principles?
a) Gravimetry b) Potentiometry
c) Spectrophotometry d) Conductometry
Answer: b) Potentiometry
Explanation: Potentiometry measures the potential difference between two electrodes in a
solution to determine the concentration of specific ions.
98. The retention factor (Rf) in chromatography is defined as:
a) The ratio of the distance traveled by the analyte to the distance traveled by the solvent
b) The ratio of the solvent's molecular weight to the analyte's molecular weight
c) The time taken for the analyte to pass through the stationary phase
d) The fraction of analyte retained in the stationary phase
Answer: a) The ratio of the distance traveled by the analyte to the distance traveled by the
solvent
Explanation: The Rf value is a measure of how far a substance travels on the
chromatography plate relative to the solvent front, providing information about its
polarity.

99. Which of the following techniques is best suited for separating proteins based on their
size?
a) Gas chromatography b) Gel filtration chromatography
c) Ion-exchange chromatography d) Thin-layer chromatography
Answer: b) Gel filtration chromatography
Explanation: Gel filtration chromatography, also known as size-exclusion
chromatography, separates proteins and other macromolecules based on their size, with
larger molecules eluting first.

100. In X-ray diffraction (XRD), what is the primary purpose of analyzing the diffraction
pattern?
a) To measure the thermal stability of a compound
b) To determine the molecular mass of the compound
c) To determine the atomic structure or crystallinity of a material
d) To separate the components of a mixture
Answer: c) To determine the atomic structure or crystallinity of a material
Explanation: X-ray diffraction is used to determine the arrangement of atoms within a
crystal by analyzing the diffraction pattern of X-rays passed through the crystal.

101. In High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC), what is the role of the mobile
phase?
a) To ionize the analyte b) To carry the analyte through the column
c) To immobilize the analyte on the stationary phase
d) To increase the pressure in the system
Answer: b) To carry the analyte through the column
Explanation: The mobile phase in HPLC acts as a solvent to carry the analyte through the
stationary phase, facilitating its separation based on interactions with the stationary phase.

102. Which of the following compounds is commonly used as an internal standard in gas
chromatography?
a) Methane b) Octane c) Toluene d) Benzene
Answer: c) Toluene
Explanation: Toluene is often used as an internal standard in gas chromatography to help
quantify the amount of analyte in the sample by comparing its response to that of the
analyte.
103. What is the primary principle behind potentiometric titrations?
a) The measurement of the pH of the solution
b) The measurement of the change in electrical potential
c) The measurement of the absorbance of light
d) The measurement of the change in temperature
Answer: b) The measurement of the change in electrical potential
Explanation: Potentiometric titrations involve measuring the change in electrical potential
between two electrodes to determine the end point of the titration.

104. Which of the following factors is most important when selecting a solvent for use in
liquid-liquid extraction?
a) The solvent should be miscible with water
b) The solvent should have a high boiling point
c) The solvent should have a low density
d) The solvent should have a high partition coefficient for the analyte
Answer: d) The solvent should have a high partition coefficient for the analyte
Explanation: In liquid-liquid extraction, the solvent should efficiently separate the analyte
from the aqueous phase, which is ensured by selecting a solvent with a high partition
coefficient for the analyte.

105. Which of the following parameters is directly related to the energy of electromagnetic
radiation?
a) Wavelength b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Intensity
Answer: c) Frequency
Explanation: The energy of electromagnetic radiation is directly proportional to its
frequency and inversely proportional to its wavelength. The relationship is given by the
equation

106. Which of the following detectors is most commonly used in High-Performance Liquid
Chromatography (HPLC) for UV-absorbing compounds?
a) Refractive index detector b) Mass spectrometer
c) UV-Vis detector d) Fluorescence detector
Answer: c) UV-Vis detector
Explanation: The UV-Vis detector is one of the most common detectors used in HPLC for
detecting compounds that absorb ultraviolet (UV) or visible light. It measures the
absorbance of light at specific wavelengths.

107. In Infrared (IR) spectroscopy, which type of molecular motion corresponds to

absorption in the IR region?
a) Electronic transitions b) Nuclear spin transitions
c) Vibrational transitions d) Rotational transitions
Answer: c) Vibrational transitions
Explanation: In IR spectroscopy, absorption of IR radiation causes vibrational transitions
in molecules, where bonds between atoms stretch, bend, or twist, corresponding to specific
frequencies of IR light.
108. Which of the following is true for isocratic elution in liquid chromatography?
a) The mobile phase composition changes during the separation
b) The mobile phase composition remains constant throughout the separation
c) The flow rate changes during the separation
d) The temperature changes during the separation
Answer: b) The mobile phase composition remains constant throughout the separation
Explanation: In isocratic elution, the composition of the mobile phase remains constant
during the entire chromatographic run, which is useful for separating components with
similar polarities.

109. In a titration curve, the equivalence point is the point at which:

a) The pH of the solution is neutral
b) The amount of titrant added is equal to the amount of analyte present
c) The color change occurs in the indicator
d) The conductivity of the solution reaches its maximum
Answer: b) The amount of titrant added is equal to the amount of analyte present
Explanation: The equivalence point in a titration is when the moles of titrant added equal
the moles of the analyte in the solution, resulting in the complete reaction of the analyte.

110. What type of bond vibration is responsible for the absorption of infrared radiation by
molecules?
a) Translational motion b) Stretching and bending of chemical bonds
c) Rotational motion d) Electron transitions
Answer: b) Stretching and bending of chemical bonds
Explanation: Infrared radiation is absorbed by molecules causing vibrations such as
stretching and bending of chemical bonds. These vibrations occur at characteristic
frequencies depending on the bond types and molecular structure.

111. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the retention time in liquid
chromatography?
a) The polarity of the stationary phase
b) The composition of the mobile phase
c) The flow rate of the mobile phase
d) The concentration of the detector
Answer: d) The concentration of the detector
Explanation: The retention time in liquid chromatography is affected by factors like the
polarity of the stationary phase, the composition of the mobile phase, and the flow rate.
The concentration of the detector does not influence retention time but impacts detection
sensitivity.

112. What is the main purpose of using an internal standard in chromatography?

a) To enhance the separation of analytes
b) To calibrate the retention time of the analytes
c) To correct for variations in injection volume and instrument performance
d) To increase the sensitivity of the detector
Answer: c) To correct for variations in injection volume and instrument performance
Explanation: Internal standards are used to correct for any variations in sample injection
and instrument performance, allowing for more accurate quantification of analytes.

113. What is the principle behind capillary electrophoresis (CE)?

a) Separation of molecules based on molecular weight
b) Separation of molecules based on charge-to-mass ratio
c) Separation of molecules based on boiling points
d) Separation of molecules based on their solubility
Answer: b) Separation of molecules based on charge-to-mass ratio
Explanation: In capillary electrophoresis, molecules are separated based on their charge-
to-mass ratio as they move through a capillary tube under the influence of an electric field.

114. In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS), what is the role of the hollow cathode
lamp?
a) To ionize the sample b) To excite electrons in the sample
c) To emit light of specific wavelengths absorbed by the analyte
d) To measure the intensity of light emitted by the sample
Answer: c) To emit light of specific wavelengths absorbed by the analyte
Explanation: The hollow cathode lamp in AAS emits light at specific wavelengths that
correspond to the absorption lines of the element being analyzed, allowing for the
measurement of its concentration.
115. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of High-Performance Liquid
Chromatography (HPLC)?
a) High resolution and sensitivity
b) Ability to separate non-volatile compounds
c) Fast analysis time
d) Suitable for the separation of gases
Answer: d) Suitable for the separation of gases
Explanation: HPLC is used primarily for separating liquid samples or dissolved solids, not
gases. Gas chromatography (GC) is more suitable for the separation of volatile and
gaseous compounds.

116. In potentiometric titrations, which type of electrode is used to measure the change in
potential?
a) Glass electrode b) Reference electrode
c) Indicator electrode d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Potentiometric titrations typically involve a combination of a reference
electrode, such as a silver-silver chloride electrode, and an indicator electrode, such as a
glass electrode, to measure the potential changes during the titration.

117. What is the principle of thermogravimetric analysis (TGA)?

a) Measuring the change in weight of a sample as it is heated
b) Measuring the heat absorbed during phase transitions
c) Measuring the light absorbed by the sample
d) Measuring the change in conductivity of the sample
Answer: a) Measuring the change in weight of a sample as it is heated
Explanation: TGA monitors the weight change of a sample as it is heated in a controlled
environment, providing information about its thermal stability and composition.

118. In UV-Vis spectroscopy, the molar absorptivity (ε) is related to:

a) The concentration of the solution
b) The intensity of the incident light
c) The wavelength of the absorbed light
d) The amount of light absorbed by the solution
Answer: d) The amount of light absorbed by the solution

Explanation: Molar absorptivity (ε) is a measure of how strongly a chemical species

absorbs light at a given wavelength. It relates to the amount of light absorbed by a solution
at a specific concentration and path length according to Beer-Lambert law.

119. What is the purpose of using a pH buffer in an electrochemical cell?

a) To maintain the ionic strength of the solution
b) To prevent precipitation of analytes
c) To maintain a constant pH during the experiment
d) To improve the solubility of the analyte
Answer: c) To maintain a constant pH during the experiment
Explanation: A pH buffer helps to maintain a constant pH in an electrochemical cell,
ensuring accurate and consistent measurements by resisting changes in pH when acids or
bases are added.

120. Which of the following methods is best suited for the analysis of trace elements in
complex matrices?
a) Gravimetric analysis b) UV-Vis spectroscopy
c) Inductively Coupled Plasma Mass Spectrometry (ICP-MS)
d) Thin-layer chromatography
Answer: c) Inductively Coupled Plasma Mass Spectrometry (ICP-MS)
Explanation: ICP-MS is highly sensitive and capable of detecting trace elements in
complex matrices with low detection limits, making it ideal for trace element analysis in
environmental, biological, and industrial samples.

Instrumental Chemistry

1. Which of the following is NOT a component of a UV-Visible spectrophotometer?

a) Light source b) Monochromator
c) Detector d) Electrodes
Answer: d) Electrodes
Explanation: UV-Visible spectrophotometers are used to measure absorbance of light by a
sample, which does not involve electrodes. Key components include a light source, a
monochromator to isolate specific wavelengths, and a detector to measure the intensity of
transmitted light.
2. In mass spectrometry, the ion that gives the highest peak is called the:
a) Base peak b) Molecular ion peak
c) Fragment ion peak d) Parent ion peak
Answer: a) Base peak
Explanation: The base peak is the most intense peak in a mass spectrum and represents
the ion with the greatest relative abundance. The molecular ion peak corresponds to the
intact ion of the sample, but it may not always be the most intense.

3. Which of the following detectors is commonly used in Gas Chromatography (GC)?

a) Flame Ionization Detector (FID) b) Photomultiplier tube
c) Refractive index detector d) UV detector
Answer: a) Flame Ionization Detector (FID)
Explanation: The FID is one of the most common detectors in GC, especially for organic
compounds. It detects ions formed during combustion of the sample in a flame.

4. The primary role of the monochromator in a spectrophotometer is to:

a) Measure the intensity of light
b) Separate light into its component wavelengths
c) Amplify the light signal
d) Convert light into an electrical signal
Answer: b) Separate light into its component wavelengths
Explanation: A monochromator is responsible for dispersing light into different
wavelengths and selecting a specific wavelength to pass through the sample.
5. Which of the following techniques is NOT an example of chromatography?
a) Gel electrophoresis
b) High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)
c) Thin-layer chromatography (TLC)
d) Gas chromatography (GC)
Answer: a) Gel electrophoresis
Explanation: Gel electrophoresis separates molecules based on charge and size, not using a
chromatographic process. Chromatography involves separating compounds based on their
interactions with a stationary phase and a mobile phase.

6. In NMR spectroscopy, the term 'chemical shift' refers to:

a) The frequency of the electromagnetic radiation absorbed
b) The change in magnetic field strength
c) The difference in resonance frequency due to different electronic environments
d) The splitting of spectral lines
Answer: c) The difference in resonance frequency due to different electronic environments
Explanation: Chemical shift in NMR refers to the change in the resonance frequency of a
nucleus due to the electronic environment around it, usually measured in parts per million
(ppm).
7. Which of the following techniques is used for structural determination of organic
compounds by measuring the mass-to-charge ratio of ions?
a) Infrared spectroscopy b) X-ray diffraction
c) Mass spectrometry d) Atomic absorption spectroscopy
Answer: c) Mass spectrometry
Explanation: Mass spectrometry (MS) is used to determine the molecular structure of a
compound by analyzing the mass-to-charge ratio (m/z) of ions generated from the sample.

8. In FTIR spectroscopy, the term FT refers to:

a) Fourier Transformation b) Frequency Tuning
c) Frequency Time d) Fluorescence Transfer
Answer: a) Fourier Transformation
Explanation: FTIR stands for Fourier Transform Infrared Spectroscopy. The Fourier
Transform is used to convert the raw data into a spectrum by breaking down a complex
signal into its frequency components.

9. Which of the following is a common ionization technique used in mass spectrometry?

a) UV-Vis absorbance
b) Electrospray ionization (ESI)
c) Potentiometric titration
d) Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR)
Answer: b) Electrospray ionization (ESI)
Explanation: Electrospray ionization (ESI) is a popular ionization technique in MS,
particularly for large biomolecules, as it produces multiply charged ions and works at
atmospheric pressure.

10. The Beer-Lambert law relates absorbance to which parameters?

a) Frequency, wavelength, and transmittance
b) Absorbance, path length, and molar absorptivity
c) Concentration, pressure, and wavelength
d) Temperature, concentration, and absorbance
Answer: b) Absorbance, path length, and molar absorptivity
Explanation: The Beer-Lambert law states that absorbance (A) is directly proportional to
the concentration (c) of the solution, the path length (l) of the light through the sample,
and the molar absorptivity (ε) of the absorbing species.

11. Which of the following techniques is used to measure the thermal stability of a
material?
a) X-ray diffraction b) Differential scanning calorimetry (DSC)
c) UV-Vis spectroscopy d) Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR)
Answer: b) Differential scanning calorimetry (DSC)
Explanation: DSC measures the heat flow associated with phase transitions of a material,
such as melting or crystallization, and is widely used to assess thermal stability.
12. Which of the following detectors is used in High-Performance Liquid Chromatography
(HPLC)?
a) Photodiode array detector b) Scintillation counter
c) Electron capture detector d) Photoelectric sensor
Answer: a) Photodiode array detector
Explanation: A photodiode array detector in HPLC allows for the simultaneous detection
of multiple wavelengths, providing valuable spectral information about the analytes.

13. In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS), the atomization process typically takes
place in a:
a) Graphite furnace b) Gas chromatograph
c) Electrochemical cell d) UV-Vis spectrophotometer
Answer: a) Graphite furnace
Explanation: In AAS, atomization is achieved by using a graphite furnace or a flame,
which provides the energy to break the sample down into individual atoms for analysis.

14. Which of the following statements about fluorescence is true?

a) It involves the absorption and subsequent emission of light
b) It only occurs in solid samples
c) It results in the emission of infrared radiation
d) It is identical to phosphorescence
Answer: a) It involves the absorption and subsequent emission of light
Explanation: Fluorescence is the process by which a molecule absorbs light at one
wavelength and re-emits it at a longer wavelength. It is a rapid process, occurring in
nanoseconds.

15. Which of the following spectroscopic methods is most suitable for detecting vibrational
modes of molecules?
a) Mass spectrometry b) Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
c) Infrared (IR) spectroscopy d) UV-Visible spectroscopy
Answer: c) Infrared (IR) spectroscopy
Explanation: IR spectroscopy detects vibrational modes in molecules by measuring the
absorption of infrared light, which causes bond vibrations such as stretching and bending.

16. The stationary phase in Gas Chromatography (GC) is typically:

a) A solid adsorbent b) A liquid coated on a solid support
c) An inert gas d) A magnetic field
Answer: b) A liquid coated on a solid support
Explanation: In GC, the stationary phase is usually a liquid film coated on the surface of a
solid support. The mobile phase is an inert gas, which carries the analytes through the
column.

17. What does a quadrupole filter in mass spectrometry do?

a) Separates ions based on their m/z ratio
b) Increases the sensitivity of the detector
c) Enhances ion fragmentation
d) Measures the ion current
Answer: a) Separates ions based on their m/z ratio
Explanation: The quadrupole filter uses an oscillating electric field to selectively stabilize
ions of a particular mass-to-charge (m/z) ratio, allowing only those ions to pass through to
the detector.

18. In which technique would you encounter the term 'retention time'?
a) Infrared spectroscopy b) Chromatography
c) Nuclear magnetic resonance d) Atomic absorption spectroscopy
Answer: b) Chromatography
Explanation: Retention time is the time taken for an analyte to pass through the
chromatography column and reach the detector.

19. Which of the following techniques is primarily used for elemental analysis?
a) Mass spectrometry b) Atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS)
c) Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
d) X-ray diffraction (XRD)
Answer: b) Atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS)
Explanation: AAS is primarily used for determining the concentration of specific elements
in a sample by measuring the absorption of light.
20. In UV-Visible spectroscopy, which of the following transitions are most commonly
observed?

a) n → π* and π → π* b) σ → σ* and π → π*

c) d → d* transitions d) f → f* transitions
Answer: a) n → π* and π → π*
Explanation: In UV-Visible spectroscopy, the most common electronic transitions
observed are from nonbonding electrons (n) to antibonding π* orbitals and from bonding
π electrons to antibonding π* orbitals.

21. In X-ray diffraction (XRD), Bragg's Law is used to relate which two parameters?
a) Wavelength and atomic mass
b) Diffraction angle and atomic number
c) Wavelength and diffraction angle
d) Diffraction angle and molecular weight
Answer: c) Wavelength and diffraction angle
Explanation: Bragg's Law (nλ = 2d sinθ) relates the wavelength (λ) of X-rays to the
diffraction angle (θ) and the distance between atomic planes (d) in a crystal.

22. Which technique is most commonly used for the separation and identification of metal
ions in solution?
a) Gel electrophoresis
b) Ion-exchange chromatography
c) Gas chromatography
d) Thin-layer chromatography
Answer: b) Ion-exchange chromatography
Explanation: Ion-exchange chromatography is widely used for separating ions and polar
molecules, making it ideal for the separation of metal ions in solution based on their
charge.

23. Which of the following is a common carrier gas in gas chromatography (GC)?
a) Nitrogen b) Argon c) Oxygen d) Hydrogen
Answer: a) Nitrogen
Explanation: Nitrogen is commonly used as a carrier gas in GC because it is inert, has a
high diffusivity, and does not react with analytes.
24. The main advantage of fluorescence spectroscopy over UV-Visible absorption
spectroscopy is:
a) Higher sensitivity b) Better resolution
c) Wider wavelength range d) No sample preparation required
Answer: a) Higher sensitivity
Explanation: Fluorescence spectroscopy is significantly more sensitive than UV-Vis
absorption spectroscopy because it detects emitted light rather than absorbed light,
leading to greater signal amplification.

25. Which detector is typically used for measuring the intensity of light in a UV-Vis
spectrophotometer?
a) Photomultiplier tube b) Electrochemical cell
c) Refractive index detector d) Flame ionization detector
Answer: a) Photomultiplier tube
Explanation: Photomultiplier tubes are highly sensitive detectors that convert light into an
electrical signal, commonly used in UV-Vis spectrophotometers for detecting very low light
intensities.

26. In atomic emission spectroscopy (AES), which energy source is commonly used to
excite atoms?
a) Electric current b) X-rays c) Plasma d) Laser beam
Answer: c) Plasma
Explanation: In AES, plasma is typically used to excite atoms by providing a high-energy
environment, causing them to emit characteristic wavelengths of light.

27. Which of the following is the primary function of the mobile phase in liquid
chromatography?
a) Retain analytes on the column
b) Dissolve the stationary phase
c) Carry analytes through the column
d) Provide a source of electrons for detection
Answer: c) Carry analytes through the column
Explanation: The mobile phase in liquid chromatography is responsible for carrying the
analytes through the stationary phase, facilitating their separation based on interactions
with both phases.

28. The ‘fingerprint region’ in an IR spectrum typically occurs in which range?

a) 500-1500 cm⁻¹ b) 1500-2000 cm⁻¹

c) 2000-3000 cm⁻¹ d) 3000-4000 cm⁻¹

Answer: a) 500-1500 cm⁻¹

Explanation: The fingerprint region (500-1500 cm⁻¹) in an IR spectrum is unique to each

molecule, containing complex vibrations that are specific to its structure, making it useful
for identification purposes.

29. Which type of spectroscopy is most suitable for the determination of molecular
structure via rotational transitions?
a) UV-Visible spectroscopy
b) Raman spectroscopy
c) Infrared spectroscopy
d) Microwave spectroscopy
Answer: d) Microwave spectroscopy
Explanation: Microwave spectroscopy is used to study the rotational transitions of
molecules, providing detailed information about molecular structure and bond lengths.
30. The function of the nebulizer in an Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer (AAS) is to:
a) Atomize the sample
b) Convert the sample into a fine aerosol
c) Detect the intensity of absorbed light
d) Measure the sample temperature
Answer: b) Convert the sample into a fine aerosol
Explanation: The nebulizer converts liquid samples into a fine aerosol, which is then
carried into the flame or graphite furnace for atomization in Atomic Absorption
Spectroscopy.

31. Which of the following techniques measures the energy differences between electronic
states by observing photon absorption?
a) Raman spectroscopy b) UV-Visible spectroscopy
c) Electron Spin Resonance (ESR) spectroscopy
d) Mass spectrometry
Answer: b) UV-Visible spectroscopy
Explanation: UV-Visible spectroscopy measures the energy differences between electronic
states by detecting the absorption of ultraviolet and visible light photons.

32. Which of the following analytical techniques utilizes an external magnetic field to
determine the chemical environment of nuclei in a sample?
a) Mass spectrometry
b) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
c) UV-Visible spectroscopy
d) X-ray diffraction
Answer: b) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
Explanation: NMR spectroscopy applies an external magnetic field to induce the
resonance of specific nuclei, providing detailed information about the chemical
environment and structure of molecules.

33. In gas chromatography, the retention time of a compound is influenced by:

a) Temperature of the column b) Type of detector used
c) Wavelength of light used d) Pressure of the mobile phase
Answer: a) Temperature of the column
Explanation: The retention time in GC is significantly affected by the temperature of the
column. Higher temperatures can decrease retention times by increasing the volatility of
the analytes.

34. Which of the following ions is typically used as the internal standard in mass
spectrometry?
a) Sodium ion b) Argon ion
c) Deuterium-labeled compounds
d) Oxygen ion
Answer: c) Deuterium-labeled compounds
Explanation: Deuterium-labeled compounds are often used as internal standards in mass
spectrometry to correct for variations in ionization and detection efficiencies, as their mass
difference makes them easy to distinguish from the analyte.

35. In an HPLC system, the stationary phase is usually:

a) A liquid b) A solid or a liquid-coated support
c) A gas d) An ion-exchange resin
Answer: b) A solid or a liquid-coated support
Explanation: In HPLC, the stationary phase is typically a solid or a liquid-coated support,
such as silica particles coated with a non-polar or polar substance, which interacts with the
analytes.

36. Which of the following properties of light is primarily responsible for its ability to
resolve molecular details in microscopy?
a) Wavelength b) Intensity
c) Frequency d) Polarization
Answer: a) Wavelength

Explanation: The resolving power of microscopy is dependent on the wavelength of light

used; shorter wavelengths (like UV light) allow for better resolution of molecular details.

37. Which of the following is a common solvent used in Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
(NMR) spectroscopy to avoid interference with the sample signal?
a) Deuterated chloroform b) Methanol
c) Ethanol d) Acetone
Answer: a) Deuterated chloroform

Explanation: Deuterated solvents, such as deuterated chloroform (CDCl₃), are commonly

used in NMR because deuterium does not produce significant signals in the proton NMR
spectrum, reducing interference with the sample's signals.

38. Which of the following interactions is responsible for the separation of components in
reverse-phase HPLC?
a) Hydrogen bonding
b) Van der Waals interactions
c) Ionic bonding
d) Hydrophobic interactions
Answer: d) Hydrophobic interactions
Explanation: Reverse-phase HPLC involves hydrophobic interactions between the non-
polar stationary phase (often silica coated with non-polar alkyl chains) and non-polar
analytes.

39. In flame atomic absorption spectroscopy, which element's presence is indicated by a

characteristic green flame?
a) Sodium b) Barium c) Potassium d) Copper
Answer: b) Barium
Explanation: Barium imparts a characteristic green color to a flame, which is used in
qualitative flame tests and flame atomic absorption spectroscopy to identify its presence.

40. Which type of spectroscopy is used to measure the vibrational modes of molecular
bonds by scattering light?
a) Infrared (IR) spectroscopy b) Raman spectroscopy
c) UV-Visible spectroscopy d) Mass spectrometry
Answer: b) Raman spectroscopy
Explanation: Raman spectroscopy measures vibrational modes by observing the inelastic
scattering of light, providing complementary information to infrared spectroscopy about
molecular bonds.

41. Which of the following is the principle of Thermogravimetric Analysis (TGA)?

a) Measurement of heat flow
b) Measurement of weight loss with increasing temperature
c) Measurement of thermal conductivity
d) Measurement of molecular mass
Answer: b) Measurement of weight loss with increasing temperature
Explanation: TGA measures changes in the mass of a sample as it is heated over time. This
technique is often used to study thermal stability, decomposition, and compositional
analysis.
42. Which of the following instruments can be used for molecular weight determination of
polymers?
a) Mass spectrometer b) Gel permeation chromatography (GPC)
c) UV-Vis spectrophotometer d) Atomic absorption spectrometer
Answer: b) Gel permeation chromatography (GPC)
Explanation: GPC is a type of size-exclusion chromatography used to determine the
molecular weight distribution of polymers by separating them based on their size in
solution.

43. Which of the following is a key feature of Inductively Coupled Plasma Mass
Spectrometry (ICP-MS)?
a) High-resolution separation of isomers
b) Detection of trace elements at ppb levels
c) Measurement of molecular vibrations
d) Identification of organic compounds
Answer: b) Detection of trace elements at ppb levels
Explanation: ICP-MS is a highly sensitive technique that detects trace elements and
isotopes at parts-per-billion (ppb) or even parts-per-trillion (ppt) concentrations, making it
ideal for elemental analysis.

44. Which of the following factors affects the resolution in Gas Chromatography (GC)?
a) Column length b) Injection volume
c) Carrier gas flow rate d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: The resolution in GC is influenced by multiple factors, including the length
of the column, the volume of sample injected, and the flow rate of the carrier gas, all of
which impact how well analytes are separated.

45. Which of the following does NOT occur during the fragmentation process in mass
spectrometry?
a) Ionization of molecules b) Breaking of chemical bonds
c) Formation of radical ions d) Molecular rearrangement
Answer: d) Molecular rearrangement
Explanation: Fragmentation in mass spectrometry involves ionization and the breaking of
chemical bonds, forming radical ions. Molecular rearrangement is uncommon as the
process is rapid and typically leads to bond breaking.

46. Which detector is typically used in Infrared (IR) spectroscopy?

a) Thermocouple b) Diode array
c) Photomultiplier tube d) Flame ionization detector
Answer: a) Thermocouple
Explanation: Thermocouples are used in IR spectroscopy to detect changes in heat caused
by the absorption of infrared radiation, as different molecular vibrations absorb IR light
at specific wavelengths.
47. Which of the following is a function of the slit in a UV-Visible spectrophotometer?
a) Increase resolution by narrowing the light beam
b) Protect the detector from excess light
c) Filter out unwanted wavelengths
d) Align the sample in the light path
Answer: a) Increase resolution by narrowing the light beam
Explanation: The slit in a UV-Visible spectrophotometer controls the width of the light
beam entering the monochromator, increasing resolution by allowing only a narrow band
of wavelengths to pass through.

48. In fluorescence spectroscopy, the Stokes shift refers to:

a) The shift from higher to lower energy states
b) The shift in emission wavelength relative to the excitation wavelength
c) The splitting of spectral lines
d) The increase in absorption intensity
Answer: b) The shift in emission wavelength relative to the excitation wavelength
Explanation: Stokes shift is the difference in wavelength between the absorbed excitation
light and the emitted fluorescence light, usually shifting toward longer wavelengths (lower
energy).

49. In which of the following spectroscopic techniques is the sample placed in a magnetic
field?
a) IR spectroscopy b) UV-Visible spectroscopy
c) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
d) X-ray diffraction (XRD)
Answer: c) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
Explanation: In NMR spectroscopy, samples are placed in a strong magnetic field to
induce resonance in certain nuclei, which provides detailed information about the
chemical environment of atoms in a molecule.

50. Which of the following is the best choice for analyzing non-volatile and thermally
unstable compounds?
a) Gas chromatography (GC)
b) High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)
c) Flame photometry
d) Atomic emission spectroscopy
Answer: b) High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)
Explanation: HPLC is preferred for non-volatile and thermally unstable compounds
because it operates at lower temperatures and uses a liquid mobile phase, making it
suitable for a wide range of analytes.

51. Which of the following spectroscopy techniques is primarily based on the interaction of
light with molecular vibrations?
a) Mass spectrometry b) Infrared spectroscopy
c) Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) d) UV-Visible spectroscopy
Answer: b) Infrared spectroscopy
Explanation: Infrared (IR) spectroscopy is based on the interaction of IR light with
molecular vibrations, including stretching and bending of bonds within molecules,
allowing for functional group identification.

52. In X-ray fluorescence (XRF), the characteristic radiation emitted from a sample is a
result of:
a) Electrons transitioning between energy levels
b) Vibrational modes of molecules
c) Absorption of visible light
d) Ionization of the sample by high-energy UV radiation
Answer: a) Electrons transitioning between energy levels
Explanation: XRF involves the emission of characteristic X-rays from a sample after it has
been excited by high-energy X-rays, which cause inner-shell electrons to be ejected,
followed by electron transitions to fill the vacancies.

53. Which of the following is used as a standard in Proton NMR spectroscopy?

a) Tetramethylsilane (TMS) b) Acetone
c) Deuterium oxide d) Ethanol
Answer: a) Tetramethylsilane (TMS)
Explanation: TMS is used as the internal standard in proton NMR spectroscopy due to its
chemically inert nature and the fact that it provides a sharp signal at 0 ppm, which is used
as a reference point.
54. What is the primary purpose of a monochromator in a spectrophotometer?
a) Focus light on the sample
b) Split light into its component wavelengths
c) Detect the amount of light absorbed
d) Generate photons for excitation
Answer: b) Split light into its component wavelengths
Explanation: The monochromator in a spectrophotometer separates light into its
individual wavelengths, allowing the user to select a specific wavelength to measure its
interaction with the sample.

55. In Raman spectroscopy, which type of scattering leads to the observation of vibrational
information?
a) Rayleigh scattering b) Compton scattering
c) Stokes scattering d) Bremsstrahlung scattering
Answer: c) Stokes scattering
Explanation: Stokes scattering in Raman spectroscopy involves the inelastic scattering of
light, where the photon loses energy, corresponding to the vibrational modes of the
molecule being studied.

56. Which type of mass analyzer uses a magnetic field to separate ions based on their mass-
to-charge ratio?
a) Quadrupole b) Time-of-flight (TOF)
c) Ion trap d) Magnetic sector
Answer: d) Magnetic sector
Explanation: A magnetic sector analyzer separates ions based on their mass-to-charge
ratio by bending the path of the ions in a magnetic field. Heavier ions are deflected less
than lighter ions.

57. In gel electrophoresis, the migration of DNA through a gel is primarily influenced by:
a) The charge-to-mass ratio
b) The wavelength of light used
c) The concentration of the buffer
d) The molecular weight of the agarose gel
Answer: a) The charge-to-mass ratio
Explanation: The movement of DNA through the gel matrix in electrophoresis is governed
by its charge-to-mass ratio, with smaller, more charged molecules migrating faster
through the gel.

58. Which of the following techniques is based on the absorption of ultraviolet or visible
light by electrons?
a) Mass spectrometry b) Nuclear magnetic resonance
c) UV-Visible spectroscopy d) Infrared spectroscopy
Answer: c) UV-Visible spectroscopy
Explanation: UV-Visible spectroscopy measures the absorption of ultraviolet or visible
light by electrons in a molecule, typically involving π → π* and n → π* electronic
transitions.
59. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Atomic Emission Spectroscopy
(AES)?
a) It relies on the absorption of light by atoms
b) It requires a source of external light
c) It measures the light emitted by atoms after excitation
d) It detects molecular vibrations
Answer: c) It measures the light emitted by atoms after excitation
Explanation: In AES, atoms are excited (typically by a flame or plasma), and the
technique measures the light emitted when they return to a lower energy state. The
wavelengths of the emitted light are characteristic of specific elements.

60. The Beer-Lambert Law is valid for which of the following conditions?
a) High concentrations of absorbing species
b) Homogeneous and dilute solutions
c) Strongly scattering samples
d) Complex mixtures of analytes
Answer: b) Homogeneous and dilute solutions
Explanation: The Beer-Lambert Law applies to homogeneous and dilute solutions where
the absorbance of light is directly proportional to the concentration of the absorbing
species and the path length of the light through the sample.
61. In gas chromatography, which of the following factors will result in an increased
retention time?
a) Increasing the column temperature
b) Decreasing the column temperature
c) Increasing the carrier gas flow rate
d) Reducing the length of the column
Answer: b) Decreasing the column temperature
Explanation: Lowering the column temperature decreases the volatility of the analytes,
causing them to interact more with the stationary phase and increasing their retention
time.

62. Which of the following techniques is based on the measurement of atomic or molecular
ions generated by a high-energy plasma source?
a) Infrared spectroscopy b) X-ray diffraction
c) Inductively coupled plasma-mass spectrometry (ICP-MS)
d) Gas chromatography
Answer: c) Inductively coupled plasma-mass spectrometry (ICP-MS)
Explanation: ICP-MS is used to measure atomic or molecular ions generated by a high-
energy plasma source, providing precise elemental analysis, often at trace levels.

63. Which type of chromatography involves the use of a non-polar stationary phase and a
polar mobile phase?
a) Normal-phase chromatography b) Reverse-phase chromatography
c) Ion-exchange chromatography d) Size-exclusion chromatography
Answer: b) Reverse-phase chromatography

Explanation: Reverse-phase chromatography uses a non-polar stationary phase and a

polar mobile phase, making it ideal for separating compounds based on hydrophobic
interactions.

64. In NMR spectroscopy, what does the term "chemical shift" refer to?
a) The splitting of spectral lines
b) The difference in energy levels of nuclei
c) The relative position of NMR signals compared to a reference
d) The absorption of ultraviolet light
Answer: c) The relative position of NMR signals compared to a reference
Explanation: Chemical shift refers to the relative position of NMR signals, measured in
parts per million (ppm), compared to a reference compound like tetramethylsilane (TMS).
It indicates the electronic environment around the nucleus.

65. In atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS), which component is used to atomize the
sample?
a) Monochromator b) Hollow cathode lamp
c) Nebulizer d) Flame or graphite furnace
Answer: d) Flame or graphite furnace
Explanation: The sample in AAS is atomized using a flame or a graphite furnace, where
the sample is vaporized into free atoms for subsequent absorption of radiation from a
hollow cathode lamp.

66. Which technique uses the principle of inelastic scattering of light to provide
information about molecular vibrations?
a) UV-Visible spectroscopy b) Raman spectroscopy
c) Atomic absorption spectroscopy d) Fluorescence spectroscopy
Answer: b) Raman spectroscopy
Explanation: Raman spectroscopy is based on the inelastic scattering of light, where the
energy of the scattered photons provides information about the vibrational modes of the
molecules being studied.

67. In X-ray diffraction (XRD), which of the following is the primary factor determining
the angle at which diffraction occurs?
a) Wavelength of the X-rays b) Temperature of the sample
c) Molecular weight of the compound d) Refractive index of the sample
Answer: a) Wavelength of the X-rays
Explanation: The diffraction angle in XRD is determined by the wavelength of the X-rays
and the spacing between atomic planes in the crystalline sample, according to Bragg’s
Law.

68. Which type of spectroscopy is primarily used to study the interaction of molecules with
high-energy gamma rays?
a) Electron spin resonance (ESR) spectroscopy
b) X-ray fluorescence spectroscopy
c) Mössbauer spectroscopy
d) Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
Answer: c) Mössbauer spectroscopy
Explanation: Mössbauer spectroscopy involves the interaction of gamma rays with atomic
nuclei, providing detailed information about the chemical and physical environment of
specific isotopes, particularly iron.

69. In which technique is a flame used to excite atoms, leading to the emission of
characteristic wavelengths of light?
a) UV-Visible spectroscopy
b) Atomic emission spectroscopy (AES)
c) Raman spectroscopy
d) Gas chromatography
Answer: b) Atomic emission spectroscopy (AES)
Explanation: In AES, atoms are excited by a flame or plasma, and the technique measures
the characteristic wavelengths of light emitted as the atoms return to lower energy states.

70. What is the purpose of the detector in a mass spectrometer?

a) To ionize the sample
b) To measure the intensity of absorbed light
c) To separate ions based on mass-to-charge ratio
d) To detect and measure the abundance of ions
Answer: d) To detect and measure the abundance of ions
Explanation: The detector in a mass spectrometer measures the abundance of ions that
have been separated based on their mass-to-charge ratio by the mass analyzer.

71. Which of the following techniques would be most suitable for the identification of a
volatile organic compound?
a) Atomic absorption spectroscopy
b) Mass spectrometry coupled with gas chromatography
c) Flame photometry d) X-ray diffraction
Answer: b) Mass spectrometry coupled with gas chromatography
Explanation: Gas chromatography coupled with mass spectrometry (GC-MS) is the ideal
technique for identifying volatile organic compounds, combining separation by GC with
molecular identification by MS.

72. Which of the following is a key application of differential scanning calorimetry (DSC)?
a) Determining the boiling point of a liquid
b) Measuring heat flow associated with phase transitions
c) Analyzing molecular weight
d) Measuring electrical conductivity
Answer: b) Measuring heat flow associated with phase transitions
Explanation: DSC is used to measure heat flow associated with phase transitions such as
melting, crystallization, and glass transitions, providing insights into the thermal
properties of materials.

73. In liquid chromatography, which type of detector is typically used for compounds with
conjugated double bonds?
a) Refractive index detector b) Ultraviolet-visible (UV-Vis) detector
c) Flame ionization detector d) Mass spectrometer
Answer: b) Ultraviolet-visible (UV-Vis) detector
Explanation: A UV-Vis detector is commonly used in liquid chromatography for detecting
compounds with conjugated double bonds because these compounds absorb ultraviolet or
visible light.

74. Which of the following principles is used in polarography to analyze electroactive

substances?
a) Current produced during a redox reaction
b) Light absorption by molecules
c) Emission of light from atoms
d) Molecular vibrations
Answer: a) Current produced during a redox reaction
Explanation: Polarography measures the current produced as a result of a redox reaction
at a working electrode in an electrochemical cell, allowing for the quantitative analysis of
electroactive substances.
75. Which of the following techniques can provide molecular weight information of large
biomolecules, such as proteins?
a) UV-Visible spectroscopy b) Mass spectrometry
c) IR spectroscopy d) Atomic absorption spectroscopy
Answer: b) Mass spectrometry
Explanation: Mass spectrometry, particularly when coupled with techniques like MALDI-
TOF or ESI, is capable of determining the molecular weight of large biomolecules like
proteins and nucleic acids.

76. Which of the following techniques is used to determine the structure of crystalline
materials?
a) Gas chromatography b) X-ray diffraction (XRD)
c) UV-Visible spectroscopy d) Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR)
Answer: b) X-ray diffraction (XRD)
Explanation: XRD is used to determine the three-dimensional structure of crystalline
materials by analyzing the diffraction pattern of X-rays as they interact with the atomic
planes of the crystal.

77. In fluorescence spectroscopy, the quantum yield is defined as:

a) The ratio of absorbed to emitted photons
b) The ratio of emitted photons to absorbed photons
c) The energy difference between absorption and emission
d) The time taken for fluorescence decay
Answer: b) The ratio of emitted photons to absorbed photons
Explanation: Quantum yield is the ratio of the number of photons emitted to the number
of photons absorbed. It represents the efficiency of the fluorescence process.

78. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using inductively coupled plasma (ICP)
as a source in atomic spectroscopy?
a) High resolution for molecular analysis
b) High sensitivity for trace element detection
c) Low temperature, preventing sample decomposition
d) Ability to separate complex mixtures
Answer: b) High sensitivity for trace element detection
Explanation: ICP provides a very high-energy environment that enables the detection of
trace elements with great sensitivity and precision, often at parts-per-billion (ppb) levels.

79. Which of the following compounds would likely be analyzed using infrared (IR)
spectroscopy?
a) Sodium chloride b) Benzene
c) Helium gas d) Iron (III) oxide
Answer: b) Benzene
Explanation: Benzene contains covalent bonds with specific vibrational modes that absorb
infrared radiation, making it suitable for IR spectroscopy analysis. Ionic and simple
atomic species like NaCl and He do not exhibit IR activity.
80. Which of the following is NOT a type of ionization technique used in mass
spectrometry?
a) Electron ionization (EI)
b) Matrix-assisted laser desorption/ionization (MALDI)
c) Inductively coupled ionization (ICI)
d) Electrospray ionization (ESI)
Answer: c) Inductively coupled ionization (ICI)
Explanation: Inductively coupled ionization is not a mass spectrometry ionization
technique. EI, MALDI, and ESI are commonly used ionization techniques in mass
spectrometry for analyzing various types of samples.

81. Which of the following detectors is used in gas chromatography (GC) to detect
compounds with functional groups like alcohols and acids?
a) Thermal conductivity detector (TCD)
b) Flame ionization detector (FID)
c) Electron capture detector (ECD)
d) Mass spectrometry detector (MSD)
Answer: b) Flame ionization detector (FID)
Explanation: FID is sensitive to compounds with carbon-hydrogen bonds, such as alcohols
and acids. It works by detecting ions formed during the combustion of organic compounds
in a hydrogen flame.
82. Which of the following describes a feature of the quadrupole mass analyzer?
a) It uses a magnetic field to separate ions
b) It separates ions based on their mass-to-charge ratio by oscillating electric fields
c) It measures the time it takes for ions to reach the detector
d) It separates ions based on their size
Answer: b) It separates ions based on their mass-to-charge ratio by oscillating electric
fields
Explanation: A quadrupole mass analyzer uses oscillating electric fields to selectively filter
ions of different mass-to-charge ratios, allowing only ions of a specific m/z to pass through
to the detector.

83. In differential thermal analysis (DTA), the temperature difference between a sample
and a reference is measured during:
a) Absorption of light b) Temperature increase
c) Electromagnetic field application d) Chromatographic separation
Answer: b) Temperature increase
Explanation: DTA measures the temperature difference between a sample and an inert
reference material as both are heated at the same rate, providing information on thermal
events such as melting, crystallization, and decomposition.

84. In UV-Visible spectroscopy, which rule governs the allowed electronic transitions in a
molecule?
a) Hund's rule b) Franck-Condon principle
c) Aufbau principle d) Lambert-Beer law
Answer: b) Franck-Condon principle
Explanation: The Franck-Condon principle explains the intensity of vibronic transitions in
UV-Visible spectroscopy, stating that electronic transitions occur much faster than nuclear
motion, leading to transitions between vibrational states of different energy levels.

85. Which of the following is NOT a major advantage of Fourier-transform infrared

(FTIR) spectroscopy compared to dispersive IR spectroscopy?
a) Higher resolution b) Faster data acquisition
c) Ability to measure solid, liquid, and gaseous samples
d) Better separation of isomers

Answer: d) Better separation of isomers

Explanation: FTIR provides faster and more accurate data with higher resolution, but it
does not offer better separation of isomers compared to dispersive IR techniques. The
separation of isomers typically relies on chromatography, not infrared spectroscopy.

86. Which of the following techniques is based on the use of ions to bombard a surface and
analyze the emitted particles?
a) Scanning electron microscopy (SEM)
b) Time-of-flight secondary ion mass spectrometry (TOF-SIMS)
c) Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) d) Flame photometry
Answer: b) Time-of-flight secondary ion mass spectrometry (TOF-SIMS)
Explanation: TOF-SIMS is a surface analysis technique in which a primary ion beam
bombards a sample, causing secondary ions to be emitted. These ions are analyzed to
provide information about the sample's surface composition.

87. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of capillary electrophoresis (CE)?

a) Separation is based on molecular size
b) Separation is based on charge and size
c) Separation is based on molecular polarity
d) Separation is based on refractive index
Answer: b) Separation is based on charge and size
Explanation: In capillary electrophoresis (CE), analytes are separated based on their
charge-to-size ratio under the influence of an electric field, with smaller or more charged
species moving faster through the capillary.

88. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a graphite furnace in atomic
absorption spectroscopy (AAS)?
a) It allows for the analysis of volatile samples
b) It requires a smaller sample size than a flame
c) It provides higher sensitivity for organic compounds
d) It increases the ionization of metal ions
Answer: b) It requires a smaller sample size than a flame
Explanation: Graphite furnace AAS allows for higher sensitivity and requires smaller
sample volumes compared to flame AAS, making it ideal for trace metal analysis in small
samples.

89. Which technique is commonly used to determine the molecular mass of a volatile
compound?
a) Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GC-MS)
b) Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
c) Atomic emission spectroscopy (AES)
d) Infrared (IR) spectroscopy
Answer: a) Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GC-MS)
Explanation: GC-MS is commonly used for volatile compounds as it separates them by gas
chromatography and identifies them through mass spectrometry, determining molecular
mass and structure.

90. Which of the following interactions forms the basis of size-exclusion chromatography
(SEC)?
a) Ionic interactions b) Hydrophobic interactions
c) Van der Waals forces d) Physical size of molecules
Answer: d) Physical size of molecules
Explanation: Size-exclusion chromatography (SEC) separates molecules based on their
physical size, with larger molecules eluting first because they are unable to enter the pores
of the stationary phase.
91. Which of the following is a key application of flame photometry?
a) Detection of trace metals
b) Determination of molecular weight
c) Separation of enantiomers
d) Measurement of functional groups
Answer: a) Detection of trace metals
Explanation: Flame photometry is widely used to detect and quantify alkali and alkaline
earth metals (e.g., sodium, potassium, calcium) in samples by measuring the light emitted
when the sample is introduced into a flame.

92. Which of the following factors influences the retention time in high-performance liquid
chromatography (HPLC)?
a) Detector sensitivity
b) Composition of the mobile phase
c) Intensity of the light source
d) Injection temperature
Answer: b) Composition of the mobile phase
Explanation: The retention time in HPLC is influenced by the polarity of the mobile phase
relative to the stationary phase. The interaction of the analytes with the mobile and
stationary phases determines how long they are retained in the column.

93. In electrochemical analysis, the reference electrode is used to:

a) Measure current b) Control the temperature
c) Provide a constant potential d) Detect ions
Answer: c) Provide a constant potential
Explanation: The reference electrode provides a stable and known potential against which
the potential of the working electrode is measured, ensuring accurate electrochemical
measurements.

94. Which of the following types of spectroscopy involves the direct measurement of the
time-dependent decay of excited states?
a) Steady-state fluorescence spectroscopy
b) Time-resolved fluorescence spectroscopy
c) Atomic absorption spectroscopy
d) Infrared spectroscopy
Answer: b) Time-resolved fluorescence spectroscopy
Explanation: Time-resolved fluorescence spectroscopy measures the fluorescence decay
over time, providing information about the lifetime of excited states and the dynamics of
molecular processes.

95. Which of the following phenomena is responsible for the separation of analytes in ion-
exchange chromatography?
a) Size differences of molecules
b) Charge differences of molecules
c) Differences in molecular polarity
d) Differences in hydrophobicity
Answer: b) Charge differences of molecules
Explanation: Ion-exchange chromatography separates molecules based on their charge.
Anions or cations are retained on a charged stationary phase and eluted by altering the
ionic strength or pH of the mobile phase.

96. Which of the following describes the function of the nebulizer in an atomic absorption
spectrometer?
a) Detects the intensity of light emitted by atoms
b) Breaks the sample into small droplets for atomization
c) Provides a source of high-energy electrons
d) Monitors the temperature of the flame
Answer: b) Breaks the sample into small droplets for atomization
Explanation: The nebulizer converts the liquid sample into a fine mist (aerosol), which is
then introduced into the flame or furnace for atomization in atomic absorption
spectroscopy.

97. In inductively coupled plasma-optical emission spectroscopy (ICP-OES), the emission

lines of an element are used to:
a) Measure the mass of the element
b) Identify the element and determine its concentration
c) Determine the molecular structure
d) Separate isotopes of the element
Answer: b) Identify the element and determine its concentration
Explanation: In ICP-OES, each element emits characteristic light at specific wavelengths
when excited by the plasma. The intensity of the emission is used to quantify the
concentration of the element in the sample.

98. Which of the following techniques is suitable for analyzing thermally unstable
compounds?
a) Gas chromatography (GC)
b) High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)
c) X-ray diffraction (XRD)
d) Atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS)
Answer: b) High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)
Explanation: HPLC is ideal for analyzing thermally unstable compounds because it
operates at lower temperatures and uses a liquid mobile phase, reducing the risk of
decomposition during analysis.

99. What type of detector is commonly used in UV-Vis spectrophotometers?

a) Thermocouple b) Flame ionization detector
c) Photodiode array (PDA) d) Mass spectrometer
Answer: c) Photodiode array (PDA)
Explanation: A photodiode array (PDA) is commonly used in UV-Vis spectrophotometers
to simultaneously detect light at multiple wavelengths, allowing for faster and more
detailed spectral analysis.
100. Which of the following methods can be used to separate proteins based on their
charge at a specific pH?
a) Gel filtration chromatography b) Affinity chromatography
c) Ion-exchange chromatography d) Paper chromatography
Answer: c) Ion-exchange chromatography
Explanation: Ion-exchange chromatography separates proteins based on their charge by
exploiting the interactions between charged protein groups and a charged stationary
phase. The pH of the mobile phase determines the charge of the proteins.

BIOLOGY
Which organelle is responsible for protein synthesis?
a) Nucleus b) Ribosome c) Golgi apparatus d) Lysosome
Answer: b) Ribosome
Explanation: Ribosomes are the cellular organelles responsible for translating mRNA into
proteins, an essential process known as protein synthesis.

What is the primary function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?

a) Protein synthesis b) Lipid synthesis
c) DNA replication d) Cellular respiration
Answer: b) Lipid synthesis
Explanation: The smooth ER is involved in lipid and steroid hormone synthesis and is also
responsible for detoxification of drugs and poisons.
In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
a) G1 phase b) S phase
c) G2 phase d) M phase
Answer: b) S phase
Explanation: The S (synthesis) phase is the part of the cell cycle during which DNA
replication takes place, ensuring that each daughter cell receives an identical set of
chromosomes.

Which of the following is NOT a function of lysosomes?

a) Autophagy b) Intracellular digestion
c) Protein synthesis d) Breakdown of macromolecules
Answer: c) Protein synthesis
Explanation: Lysosomes are involved in digesting cellular waste and macromolecules, but
protein synthesis is carried out by ribosomes.
The powerhouse of the cell, responsible for ATP production, is:
a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria
c) Ribosome d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: b) Mitochondria
Explanation: Mitochondria generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation, providing
energy for cellular activities.
Which of the following is an example of a sex-linked disorder?
a) Down syndrome b) Cystic fibrosis
c) Hemophilia d) Sickle cell anemia
Answer: c) Hemophilia
Explanation: Hemophilia is a sex-linked disorder caused by a mutation on the X
chromosome, affecting blood clotting.

What is the principle of independent assortment?

a) Genes for different traits segregate together
b) Genes for different traits assort independently during gamete formation
c) Genes are linked together on the same chromosome
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Genes for different traits assort independently during gamete formation
Explanation: Mendel’s law of independent assortment states that alleles of different genes
are distributed to gametes independently, provided they are on different chromosomes.

What is the function of a Punnett square?

a) Predict the outcome of DNA mutations
b) Predict the likelihood of inheriting traits
c) Analyze protein synthesis
d) Determine chromosomal abnormalities
Answer: b) Predict the likelihood of inheriting traits
Explanation: A Punnett square is a diagram used to predict the genotypic and phenotypic
ratios of offspring based on the genetic makeup of the parents.

In which type of inheritance do both alleles in a heterozygous individual fully express

themselves?
a) Codominance b) Incomplete dominance
c) Recessive inheritance d) Multiple alleles
Answer: a) Codominance
Explanation: In codominance, both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype, as seen in
the AB blood group.

What is the phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross in Mendelian genetics?

a) 9:3:3:1 b) 1:2:1 c) 3:1 d) 2:1
Answer: a) 9:3:3:1
Explanation: A dihybrid cross between two heterozygotes results in a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic
ratio, reflecting dominant and recessive trait combinations.

What is the primary structure of a protein?

a) The sequence of amino acids
b) The folding of the protein into a 3D structure
c) The interaction between multiple protein subunits
d) The formation of hydrogen bonds
Answer: a) The sequence of amino acids
Explanation: The primary structure of a protein is its unique sequence of amino acids,
which ultimately determines its final shape and function.

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down lactose in the human digestive system?
a) Amylase b) Lipase c) Lactase d) Protease
Answer: c) Lactase
Explanation: Lactase breaks down lactose, the sugar found in milk, into glucose and
galactose for absorption in the small intestine.

What is the role of ATP in the cell?

a) Structural component of membranes
b) Source of genetic information
c) Energy currency of the cell
d) Enzyme activator
Answer: c) Energy currency of the cell
Explanation: ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the energy-carrying molecule used by cells
to power biochemical reactions.

Which of the following vitamins is water-soluble?

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin K
Answer: b) Vitamin C
Explanation: Vitamin C is water-soluble, while vitamins A, D, and K are fat-soluble and
stored in the body’s fatty tissues.

Glycolysis occurs in which part of the cell?

a) Mitochondria b) Nucleus c) Cytoplasm d) Golgi apparatus
Answer: c) Cytoplasm
Explanation: Glycolysis is the first step of cellular respiration, where glucose is broken
down in the cytoplasm to form pyruvate and ATP.

Which of the following organisms are prokaryotic?

a) Fungi b) Protozoa c) Bacteria d) Plants
Answer: c) Bacteria
Explanation: Bacteria are prokaryotic organisms, meaning they lack a true nucleus and
membrane-bound organelles, unlike eukaryotic cells like fungi and plants.

What is the primary function of bacterial endospores?

a) Reproduction b) Defense against viruses
c) Survival in harsh conditions d) Nutrient absorption
Answer: c) Survival in harsh conditions
Explanation: Endospores allow bacteria to survive extreme conditions such as high
temperature, desiccation, and UV radiation by entering a dormant state.
Which of the following is a gram-positive bacterium?
a) Escherichia coli b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Salmonella typhi d) Vibrio cholerae
Answer: b) Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation: Gram-positive bacteria have thick peptidoglycan layers in their cell walls
and stain purple in the Gram stain test, while gram-negative bacteria stain pink.

What is the shape of a bacillus bacterium?

a) Spherical b) Rod-shaped
c) Spiral d) Comma-shaped
Answer: b) Rod-shaped
Explanation: Bacillus refers to rod-shaped bacteria, whereas spherical bacteria are called
cocci and spiral-shaped are spirilla.

What role do pili play in bacterial cells?

a) Motility b) Protein synthesis
c) DNA replication d) Attachment to surfaces
Answer: d) Attachment to surfaces
Explanation: Pili are hair-like structures on the surface of bacteria that allow them to
attach to host cells or surfaces and also play a role in gene transfer between bacteria.
Which of the following cells is responsible for producing antibodies?
a) T-cells b) B-cells c) Macrophages d) Neutrophils
Answer: b) B-cells
Explanation: B-cells are a type of lymphocyte that produce antibodies in response to
pathogens. They are a crucial part of the adaptive immune system.

What is the role of helper T-cells in the immune system?

a) Produce antibodies b) Directly kill infected cells
c) Activate other immune cells d) Act as antigen-presenting cells
Answer: c) Activate other immune cells
Explanation: Helper T-cells (CD4+ T-cells) do not directly attack pathogens but instead
help activate and coordinate the immune response by signaling other immune cells.

Which class of antibodies is primarily involved in allergic reactions?

a) IgA b) IgG c) IgM d) IgE
Answer: d) IgE
Explanation: IgE antibodies are involved in allergic responses by binding to allergens and
triggering histamine release from mast cells and basophils.

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

a) Tuberculosis b) Diabetes mellitus type 1
c) Malaria d) Hepatitis B
Answer: b) Diabetes mellitus type 1
Explanation: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease where the immune system
mistakenly attacks and destroys insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas.

Which component of the immune system forms the first line of defense against infections?
a) Antibodies b) Cytotoxic T-cells
c) Skin and mucous membranes d) Complement proteins
Answer: c) Skin and mucous membranes
Explanation: The skin and mucous membranes act as physical barriers and form the first
line of defense, preventing pathogens from entering the body.

Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem?

a) Bacteria b) Plants c) Water d) Animals
Answer: c) Water
Explanation: Abiotic components are non-living parts of an ecosystem, such as sunlight,
temperature, and water, whereas living components like bacteria, plants, and animals are
biotic.

What is a keystone species?

a) A species that is the most abundant in an ecosystem
b) A species that preys on others
c) A species that has a disproportionately large impact on its ecosystem
d) A species that is threatened with extinction
Answer: c) A species that has a disproportionately large impact on its ecosystem
Explanation: A keystone species plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure of an
ecosystem. Its removal can lead to significant changes in the ecosystem's composition.

Which of the following best defines mutualism?

a) Both organisms benefit from the relationship
b) One organism benefits, and the other is harmed
c) One organism benefits, and the other is unaffected
d) Both organisms are harmed
Answer: a) Both organisms benefit from the relationship
Explanation: Mutualism is a type of symbiotic relationship where both species involved
benefit, such as bees and flowering plants.

What is the carrying capacity of an ecosystem?

a) The maximum number of individuals an environment can support
b) The number of species in an ecosystem
c) The rate at which organisms reproduce
d) The energy flow between trophic levels
Answer: a) The maximum number of individuals an environment can support
Explanation: Carrying capacity refers to the maximum population size that an ecosystem
can sustain indefinitely, based on available resources.
Which type of biome is characterized by very low precipitation and extreme
temperatures?
a) Tropical rainforest b) Desert c) Tundra d) Temperate forest
Answer: b) Desert
Explanation: Deserts are characterized by low precipitation, extreme temperatures, and
sparse vegetation. The organisms in deserts are specially adapted to survive in these harsh
conditions.

Which part of the brain controls voluntary muscle movements?

a) Medulla oblongata b) Cerebellum
c) Cerebrum d) Hypothalamus
Answer: c) Cerebrum
Explanation: The cerebrum, specifically the motor cortex, is responsible for controlling
voluntary movements of skeletal muscles.

Which hormone regulates the sleep-wake cycle in humans?

a) Cortisol b) Insulin c) Melatonin d) Adrenaline
Answer: c) Melatonin
Explanation: Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland and plays a key role in regulating
circadian rhythms, including the sleep-wake cycle.

What is the main function of hemoglobin in the human body?

a) Transports oxygen b) Fights infections
c) Regulates blood pressure d) Controls blood sugar levels
Answer: a) Transports oxygen
Explanation: Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that binds to oxygen in the
lungs and transports it to tissues throughout the body.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

a) Detoxification of drugs b) Storage of glycogen
c) Production of bile d) Filtration of blood
Answer: d) Filtration of blood
Explanation: While the liver performs many functions, including detoxification and bile
production, blood filtration is primarily the function of the kidneys.

Which of the following blood vessels carries deoxygenated blood?

a) Pulmonary artery b) Aorta
c) Pulmonary vein d) Carotid artery
Answer: a) Pulmonary artery
Explanation: The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of
the heart to the lungs for oxygenation, while most other arteries carry oxygenated blood.

What does the theory of natural selection suggest?

a) All species are unrelated
b) Individuals with traits better suited to the environment are more likely to survive and
reproduce
c) Evolution occurs by sudden, large-scale changes
d) Organisms acquire traits during their lifetime and pass them on
Answer: b) Individuals with traits better suited to the environment are more likely to
survive and reproduce
Explanation: Natural selection is the process where individuals with advantageous traits
are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing those traits to the next generation.

Which of the following is a vestigial structure in humans?

a) Lungs b) Appendix c) Heart d) Kidneys
Answer: b) Appendix
Explanation: The appendix is considered a vestigial structure in humans, meaning it has
lost much of its original function through evolution.

What is speciation?
a) The extinction of a species b) The formation of new species
c) The migration of a species d) The mutation of a gene
Answer: b) The formation of new species
Explanation: Speciation is the evolutionary process by which new biological species arise,
often due to genetic divergence and reproductive isolation.
Which of the following scientists is most closely associated with the theory of evolution?
a) Gregor Mendel b) Louis Pasteur
c) Charles Darwin d) Alexander Fleming
Answer: c) Charles Darwin
Explanation: Charles Darwin developed the theory of evolution by natural selection,
outlined in his famous book "On the Origin of Species."

The term "adaptive radiation" refers to:

a) The development of similar traits in unrelated species
b) The process by which a single species evolves into multiple species
c) The extinction of multiple species at once
d) The random change in allele frequencies in a population
Answer: b) The process by which a single species evolves into multiple species
Explanation: Adaptive radiation occurs when a species rapidly diversifies into several new
species, typically following the colonization of new environments.

What is the primary function of stomata in plants?

a) Photosynthesis b) Gas exchange
c) Translocation of nutrients d) Absorption of water
Answer: b) Gas exchange
Explanation: Stomata are small openings primarily located on the underside of leaves,
allowing for the exchange of gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide, and the release of
water vapor (transpiration).

Which plant hormone is responsible for promoting fruit ripening?

a) Auxin b) Cytokinin c) Ethylene d) Gibberellin
Answer: c) Ethylene
Explanation: Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone that promotes the ripening of fruits and
is also involved in responses to stress.

What is the name of the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical
energy?
a) Respiration b) Photosynthesis c) Fermentation d) Transpiration
Answer: b) Photosynthesis
Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria use
sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen, storing energy in
chemical bonds.

What is the main pigment involved in photosynthesis?

a) Chlorophyll b) Carotene c) Anthocyanin d) Xanthophyll
Answer: a) Chlorophyll
Explanation: Chlorophyll is the green pigment found in chloroplasts that plays a critical
role in capturing light energy for photosynthesis.
Which part of the plant is responsible for absorbing most of the water and minerals from
the soil?
a) Stem b) Leaves c) Roots d) Flowers
Answer: c) Roots
Explanation: The roots, especially root hairs, absorb water and minerals from the soil,
which are then transported through the xylem to other parts of the plant.

What is the name of the vascular tissue that transports water and nutrients from the roots
to the rest of the plant?
a) Phloem b) Xylem c) Cambium d) Cortex
Answer: b) Xylem
Explanation: Xylem is the tissue responsible for transporting water and dissolved minerals
from the roots to the leaves, while phloem transports sugars from the leaves to the rest of
the plant.

What is phototropism in plants?

a) Growth in response to gravity b) Growth in response to light
c) Growth in response to water d) Growth in response to chemicals
Answer: b) Growth in response to light
Explanation: Phototropism is the directional growth of plants in response to light. Plants
grow towards light to maximize the process of photosynthesis.
Which of the following is a macronutrient required by plants?
a) Zinc b) Iron c) Nitrogen d) Copper
Answer: c) Nitrogen
Explanation: Nitrogen is an essential macronutrient required by plants for protein
synthesis and growth. Micronutrients such as zinc and copper are needed in smaller
quantities.

Which part of the plant is responsible for primary growth (elongation)?

a) Apical meristem b) Lateral meristem
c) Vascular cambium d) Endodermis
Answer: a) Apical meristem
Explanation: The apical meristem is located at the tips of roots and shoots and is
responsible for the elongation and primary growth of plants.

What is the function of the phloem in plants?

a) Transports water and minerals
b) Conducts photosynthesis
c) Transports sugars and nutrients
d) Provides structural support
Answer: c) Transports sugars and nutrients
Explanation: The phloem is responsible for transporting the products of photosynthesis
(mainly sugars) from the leaves to other parts of the plant where they are needed or
stored.
Which technique is used to amplify small segments of DNA?
a) Gel electrophoresis b) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
c) Southern blotting d) DNA sequencing
Answer: b) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Explanation: PCR is a technique used to make millions of copies of a specific DNA
segment, which is useful in genetic analysis, forensic investigations, and molecular biology
research.

Which of the following is used as a vector in gene cloning?

a) Ribosome b) Plasmid
c) Mitochondria d) Lysosome
Answer: b) Plasmid
Explanation: Plasmids are small, circular pieces of DNA that are used as vectors to
introduce foreign DNA into host cells for gene cloning and genetic engineering.

What is the role of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering?

a) Amplify DNA b) Cut DNA at specific sequences
c) Join DNA fragments d) Transfer DNA between species
Answer: b) Cut DNA at specific sequences
Explanation: Restriction enzymes recognize and cut DNA at specific nucleotide sequences,
allowing scientists to manipulate and study genetic material in biotechnology.
Which of the following is an application of CRISPR-Cas9 technology?
a) DNA replication b) Genome editing
c) Protein synthesis d) Cell respiration
Answer: b) Genome editing
Explanation: CRISPR-Cas9 is a powerful tool for genome editing, allowing scientists to
precisely alter DNA sequences and modify gene function in various organisms.

What is recombinant DNA?

a) DNA from viruses b) DNA that has been damaged
c) DNA that is artificially created by combining DNA from different sources
d) DNA that has mutated naturally
Answer: c) DNA that is artificially created by combining DNA from different sources
Explanation: Recombinant DNA technology involves combining genetic material from
different organisms to produce new genetic combinations, often used in biotechnology to
produce insulin, vaccines, and other products.

What is genetic drift?

a) The change in allele frequencies due to random chance
b) The movement of individuals between populations
c) The development of new species
d) The mutation of genes over time
Answer: a) The change in allele frequencies due to random chance
Explanation: Genetic drift is a random process that can cause changes in allele frequencies
in a population, particularly in small populations, leading to evolution over time.

Which of the following is an example of homologous structures?

a) Wings of birds and bats
b) Fins of fish and flippers of whales
c) Wings of insects and birds
d) Eyes of humans and octopuses
Answer: b) Fins of fish and flippers of whales
Explanation: Homologous structures are those that have a common evolutionary origin
but may serve different functions in different species, such as the fins of fish and the
flippers of whales.

What is the founder effect?

a) A type of genetic drift where a new population is established by a small number of
individuals
b) The development of new species through natural selection
c) The gradual accumulation of mutations over time
d) The reduction of genetic diversity in a population due to environmental changes
Answer: a) A type of genetic drift where a new population is established by a small
number of individuals
Explanation: The founder effect occurs when a small group of individuals breaks away
from a larger population to establish a new one, leading to reduced genetic variation.
Which type of selection favors individuals with intermediate traits over those with extreme
traits?
a) Directional selection b) Disruptive selection
c) Stabilizing selection d) Artificial selection
Answer: c) Stabilizing selection
Explanation: Stabilizing selection favors individuals with average or intermediate traits,
reducing variation and maintaining the status quo within a population.

What is convergent evolution?

a) The process where two unrelated species evolve similar traits
b) The formation of new species from a common ancestor
c) The gradual evolution of a species over time
d) The random changes in allele frequencies within a population
Answer: a) The process where two unrelated species evolve similar traits
Explanation: Convergent evolution occurs when unrelated species independently evolve
similar traits due to similar environmental pressures, as seen in the wings of birds and
bats.

Which of the following organelles is responsible for energy production in cells?

a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria
c) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Golgi apparatus
Answer: b) Mitochondria
Explanation: Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouses" of the cell because they
generate ATP, the energy currency of the cell, through cellular respiration.

What is the function of ribosomes in a cell?

a) Produce energy b) Synthesize proteins
c) Detoxify harmful substances d) Store genetic material
Answer: b) Synthesize proteins
Explanation: Ribosomes are the cellular structures responsible for synthesizing proteins
by translating messenger RNA (mRNA) into amino acid chains.

Which of the following is a component of the cytoskeleton?

a) Microtubules b) Lysosomes
c) Chloroplasts d) Mitochondria
Answer: a) Microtubules
Explanation: The cytoskeleton is a network of protein filaments that help maintain the
cell's shape, organize its contents, and facilitate movement. Microtubules, actin filaments,
and intermediate filaments make up the cytoskeleton.

Where does transcription occur in eukaryotic cells?

a) Cytoplasm b) Nucleus c) Mitochondria d) Ribosomes
Answer: b) Nucleus
Explanation: Transcription is the process of converting DNA into RNA, and it takes place
in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, where DNA is housed.
What is the main function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?
a) Protein synthesis b) Lipid synthesis and detoxification
c) ATP production d) Cell division
Answer: b) Lipid synthesis and detoxification
Explanation: The smooth ER is involved in the synthesis of lipids and the detoxification of
harmful substances in the cell, unlike the rough ER, which is involved in protein synthesis.

What is the genetic material in all living organisms?

a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) RNA d) DNA
Answer: d) DNA
Explanation: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is the genetic material found in all living
organisms. It carries the instructions needed for growth, development, functioning, and
reproduction.

Which of the following is NOT a form of RNA?

a) mRNA b) rRNA c) tRNA d) cDNA
Answer: d) cDNA
Explanation: cDNA (complementary DNA) is synthesized from an mRNA template and is
used in molecular biology experiments. It is not a form of naturally occurring RNA.

What is the term for the physical expression of a genetic trait?

a) Genotype b) Phenotype c) Allele d) Locus
Answer: b) Phenotype
Explanation: Phenotype refers to the observable characteristics or traits of an organism,
such as eye color, height, or blood type, which result from the interaction of its genotype
with the environment.

What does Mendel’s Law of Segregation state?

a) Genes are always inherited in pairs
b) Alleles segregate independently of each other during gamete formation
c) Two alleles for a gene separate during gamete formation, and each gamete receives one
allele
d) Alleles for different traits are inherited together
Answer: c) Two alleles for a gene separate during gamete formation, and each gamete
receives one allele
Explanation: Mendel’s Law of Segregation states that during the formation of gametes, the
two alleles for each gene separate, so that each gamete carries only one allele for each gene.

Which of the following refers to a condition where an individual has two identical alleles
for a trait?
a) Heterozygous b) Homozygous c) Dominant d) Recessive
Answer: b) Homozygous
Explanation: An individual is homozygous for a trait when they possess two identical
alleles for that gene, whether dominant or recessive.
Which of the following structures is found in all bacterial cells?
a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Plasma membrane d) Chloroplasts
Answer: c) Plasma membrane
Explanation: All bacterial cells have a plasma membrane that regulates the movement of
substances in and out of the cell. Unlike eukaryotes, bacteria do not have membrane-
bound organelles like nuclei or mitochondria.

What is the function of bacterial endospores?

a) Facilitate reproduction b) Store energy
c) Provide resistance to extreme environmental conditions
d) Enhance motility
Answer: c) Provide resistance to extreme environmental conditions
Explanation: Endospores are highly resistant structures formed by some bacteria,
allowing them to survive harsh environmental conditions such as heat, desiccation, and
chemicals.

Which of the following is an example of a eukaryotic microorganism?

a) E. coli b) Bacillus subtilis
c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Answer: c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Explanation: Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a species of yeast, which is a eukaryotic
microorganism. The other options are prokaryotic bacteria.
Which of the following is the causative agent of tuberculosis?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Escherichia coli
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis d) Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the bacterium responsible for causing
tuberculosis, a serious infectious disease that primarily affects the lungs.

What is the primary mode of transmission for the HIV virus?

a) Airborne droplets b) Contaminated water
c) Sexual contact d) Insect bites
Answer: c) Sexual contact
Explanation: HIV is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, blood-to-blood contact,
or from mother to child during childbirth or breastfeeding.

Which of the following hormones triggers ovulation in females?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone
c) Luteinizing hormone (LH) d) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Answer: c) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Explanation: A surge in LH levels triggers ovulation, the release of an egg from the ovary.
FSH is involved in the development of the follicles prior to ovulation.
Which structure in the male reproductive system is responsible for producing sperm?
a) Epididymis b) Seminal vesicles
c) Prostate gland d) Testes
Answer: d) Testes
Explanation: The testes produce sperm through a process called spermatogenesis. The
testes also produce the male hormone testosterone.

What is the name of the process where the sperm fertilizes the egg?
a) Ovulation b) Fertilization c) Implantation d) Menstruation
Answer: b) Fertilization
Explanation: Fertilization is the process in which a sperm cell merges with an egg cell,
resulting in the formation of a zygote, the first stage of embryonic development.

Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for maintaining pregnancy?

a) Estrogen b) Prolactin c) Progesterone d) Oxytocin
Answer: c) Progesterone
Explanation: Progesterone is critical for maintaining the uterine lining during pregnancy
and preventing uterine contractions until childbirth.

Where does fertilization typically occur in humans?

a) Uterus b) Ovaries c) Fallopian tubes d) Cervix
Answer: c) Fallopian tubes
Explanation: Fertilization usually occurs in the fallopian tubes, where the sperm meets
and fertilizes the egg as it travels from the ovary to the uterus.

Which of the following structures forms first during embryonic development?

a) Heart b) Brain c) Spinal cord d) Notochord
Answer: d) Notochord
Explanation: The notochord is one of the earliest structures to form during embryonic
development, playing a key role in the development of the nervous system and vertebral
column.

What is the primary function of hemoglobin in the human body?

a) To carry oxygen from the lungs to tissues
b) To digest food in the stomach
c) To produce white blood cells
d) To regulate blood pressure
Answer: a) To carry oxygen from the lungs to tissues
Explanation: Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that binds oxygen in the lungs and
transports it to tissues throughout the body, while also carrying carbon dioxide back to the
lungs for exhalation.

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

a) Cerebrum b) Medulla oblongata
c) Cerebellum d) Hypothalamus
Answer: c) Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum, located at the base of the brain, is responsible for controlling
balance, coordination, and fine motor movements.

Which of the following is a function of the liver?

a) Producing digestive enzymes b) Filtering toxins from the blood
c) Storing oxygen d) Absorbing nutrients
Answer: b) Filtering toxins from the blood
Explanation: The liver plays a key role in detoxifying harmful substances from the blood,
producing bile, and regulating metabolism.

Which of the following hormones regulates blood sugar levels?

a) Adrenaline b) Thyroxine c) Insulin d) Estrogen
Answer: c) Insulin
Explanation: Insulin, produced by the pancreas, regulates blood sugar levels by
facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells and reducing blood sugar concentrations.

Which of the following is the primary site of gas exchange in the human lungs?
a) Bronchi b) Alveoli c) Trachea d) Diaphragm
Answer: b) Alveoli
Explanation: The alveoli are small air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs
between the air and the blood. Oxygen is absorbed into the blood, and carbon dioxide is
expelled.
What is the function of the nephron in the kidney?
a) Absorption of nutrients b) Filtration of blood
c) Regulation of body temperature d) Production of red blood cells
Answer: b) Filtration of blood
Explanation: The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney, responsible for filtering
blood, removing waste products, and producing urine.

Which part of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body?
a) Right atrium b) Left atrium
c) Right ventricle d) Left ventricle
Answer: a) Right atrium
Explanation: The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body through the
superior and inferior vena cava and then pumps it into the right ventricle for transport to
the lungs.

Which hormone is responsible for regulating the sleep-wake cycle?

a) Melatonin b) Serotonin c) Cortisol d) Oxytocin
Answer: a) Melatonin
Explanation: Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland in response to darkness and helps
regulate the body’s circadian rhythms, including the sleep-wake cycle.
Which of the following is NOT a component of the immune system?
a) Lymphocytes b) Red blood cells
c) Antibodies d) Phagocytes
Answer: b) Red blood cells
Explanation: Red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body and
are not directly involved in the immune response. The immune system involves
lymphocytes, antibodies, and phagocytes in fighting infections.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication?
a) DNA polymerase b) Helicase
c) Ligase d) RNA polymerase
Answer: b) Helicase
Explanation: Helicase is the enzyme that unwinds the DNA double helix to allow the
replication machinery to access the strands for replication.

In which part of the cell does translation occur?

a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Ribosomes d) Golgi apparatus
Answer: c) Ribosomes
Explanation: Translation, the process of synthesizing proteins from mRNA, occurs on
ribosomes, which can be free in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough endoplasmic
reticulum.
Which molecule carries amino acids to the ribosome during translation?
a) mRNA b) tRNA c) rRNA d) DNA
Answer: b) tRNA
Explanation: Transfer RNA (tRNA) carries amino acids to the ribosome, where they are
matched with the corresponding codons on the mRNA to build a protein chain.

What is the role of DNA polymerase in DNA replication?

a) Synthesizing RNA
b) Unzipping the DNA strands
c) Synthesizing new DNA strands
d) Sealing gaps between Okazaki fragments
Answer: c) Synthesizing new DNA strands
Explanation: DNA polymerase is responsible for adding nucleotides to a growing DNA
strand during replication, following the base-pairing rules to ensure accuracy.
Which of the following processes is involved in producing mRNA from a DNA template?
a) Transcription b) Translation c) Replication d) Splicing
Answer: a) Transcription
Explanation: Transcription is the process by which an RNA copy of a gene is made from
the DNA template. This mRNA then serves as the template for protein synthesis during
translation.
What is the name of the region where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription?
a) Terminator b) Promoter c) Enhancer d) Intron
Answer: b) Promoter
Explanation: The promoter is a DNA sequence where RNA polymerase binds to initiate
the process of transcription. It is located upstream of the coding region of the gene.

What is a codon?
a) A sequence of three nucleotides on mRNA that codes for an amino acid
b) A protein that binds to DNA
c) A molecule that carries amino acids to the ribosome
d) A section of DNA that does not code for proteins
Answer: a) A sequence of three nucleotides on mRNA that codes for an amino acid
Explanation: A codon is a triplet of nucleotides on mRNA that specifies a particular amino
acid in a protein or signals the end of translation.

Which process removes introns from a pre-mRNA transcript?

a) Transcription b) Translation c) Splicing d) Replication
Answer: c) Splicing
Explanation: Splicing is the process by which introns (non-coding regions) are removed
from pre-mRNA, leaving the exons (coding regions) to be joined together, forming mature
mRNA ready for translation.
What is the function of telomerase in DNA replication?
a) Synthesizes RNA primers b) Elongates telomeres
c) Replaces damaged DNA d) Proofreads DNA sequences
Answer: b) Elongates telomeres
Explanation: Telomerase is an enzyme that adds repetitive sequences to the ends of
chromosomes (telomeres), preventing their shortening during replication, particularly in
germ cells and stem cells.

Which of the following best describes a point mutation?

a) A large segment of DNA is deleted
b) One nucleotide is substituted for another
c) DNA is duplicated d) Chromosomes are rearranged
Answer: b) One nucleotide is substituted for another
Explanation: A point mutation involves the substitution of one nucleotide for another,
which can lead to changes in a single amino acid in a protein, potentially affecting its
function.

Who is considered the father of evolutionary theory?

a) Gregor Mendel b) Charles Darwin
c) Alfred Russel Wallace d) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
Answer: b) Charles Darwin
Explanation: Charles Darwin is known for his theory of evolution by natural selection,
which he detailed in his book On the Origin of Species.
What is the main driving force of evolution?
a) Genetic drift b) Mutation
c) Natural selection d) Gene flow
Answer: c) Natural selection
Explanation: Natural selection is the process by which individuals with favorable traits are
more likely to survive and reproduce, leading to evolutionary changes over time.

Which term describes the variety of species in a given ecosystem?

a) Population b) Speciation
c) Biodiversity d) Evolution
Answer: c) Biodiversity
Explanation: Biodiversity refers to the variety of different species, genetic variability, and
ecosystem variety in a given region or ecosystem.

Which of the following is an example of mutualism?

a) A bird eats ticks off a buffalo
b) A parasite feeds on a host
c) A lion hunts a gazelle
d) A plant gets pollinated by a bee
Answer: d) A plant gets pollinated by a bee
Explanation: Mutualism is a relationship where both species benefit. In this case, the bee
gains food (nectar) and the plant gets pollinated.
Which of the following best describes an ecological niche?
a) The physical area a species inhabits
b) The specific role or function of a species within an ecosystem
c) The variety of habitats in an ecosystem
d) The evolutionary history of a species
Answer: b) The specific role or function of a species within an ecosystem
Explanation: An ecological niche is the role a species plays in its environment, including its
behavior, interactions with other species, and resource use.

Which type of selection favors individuals with extreme traits over average traits?
a) Stabilizing selection
b) Disruptive selection
c) Directional selection
d) Artificial selection
Answer: b) Disruptive selection
Explanation: Disruptive selection favors individuals with extreme traits, which can lead to
the formation of two distinct phenotypes within a population.

What is the ultimate source of genetic variation in a population?

a) Gene flow
b) Natural selection
c) Mutation
d) Genetic drift
Answer: c) Mutation
Explanation: Mutations are changes in the DNA sequence that introduce new genetic
variation, which can be acted upon by evolutionary forces like natural selection.

What is the term for when one species evolves in response to changes in another species?
a) Convergent evolution
b) Divergent evolution
c) Coevolution
d) Adaptive radiation
Answer: c) Coevolution
Explanation: Coevolution occurs when two or more species reciprocally affect each other’s
evolution. For example, predator and prey species can coevolve in response to each other’s
adaptations.

What type of symbiosis harms one organism while benefiting the other?
a) Commensalism
b) Mutualism
c) Parasitism
d) Amensalism
Answer: c) Parasitism
Explanation: In parasitism, the parasite benefits at the expense of the host, often causing
harm to the host without killing it immediately.

What is the term for the pattern of species colonizing an uninhabited area and developing
into a stable community?
a) Primary succession
b) Secondary succession
c) Climax community
d) Pioneer species
Answer: a) Primary succession
Explanation: Primary succession occurs when organisms colonize a barren, uninhabited
area, such as after a volcanic eruption, and develop into a stable community over time.

Which pigment is primarily responsible for capturing light energy in plants?

a) Carotenoids
b) Chlorophyll
c) Anthocyanins
d) Phycobilins
Answer: b) Chlorophyll
Explanation: Chlorophyll is the primary pigment in plants responsible for capturing light
energy during photosynthesis, giving plants their green color.
Which part of the plant is responsible for absorbing water and minerals from the soil?
a) Stems
b) Leaves
c) Roots
d) Flowers
Answer: c) Roots
Explanation: Roots anchor the plant in the soil and absorb water and minerals, which are
essential for the plant’s growth and development.

What is the main function of xylem in plants?

a) Transport of water and minerals
b) Transport of food
c) Reproduction
d) Gas exchange
Answer: a) Transport of water and minerals
Explanation: Xylem is the vascular tissue in plants that transports water and dissolved
minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant.

What term describes the process of water loss from plant leaves through evaporation?
a) Transpiration
b) Photosynthesis
c) Respiration
d) Germination
Answer: a) Transpiration
Explanation: Transpiration is the process by which water evaporates from plant leaves,
which helps to cool the plant and allows the movement of water and nutrients from the
roots.

Which of the following is an example of a gymnosperm?

a) Oak tree
b) Pine tree
c) Rose
d) Fern
Answer: b) Pine tree
Explanation: Gymnosperms are seed-producing plants, such as pine trees, where seeds are
exposed on cones rather than enclosed in fruits like angiosperms.

Which plant hormone is responsible for cell elongation and growth?

a) Auxin
b) Ethylene
c) Abscisic acid
d) Gibberellin
Answer: a) Auxin
Explanation: Auxins are plant hormones that promote cell elongation and are involved in
regulating plant growth responses, such as phototropism and gravitropism.

What is the role of stomata in plant leaves?

a) Nutrient absorption
b) Gas exchange
c) Seed production
d) Support
Answer: b) Gas exchange
Explanation: Stomata are small openings in plant leaves that allow for gas exchange,
including the intake of carbon dioxide and release of oxygen during photosynthesis.

Which part of the plant is primarily involved in photosynthesis?

a) Roots
b) Stems
c) Leaves
d) Flowers
Answer: c) Leaves
Explanation: Leaves contain chloroplasts, which house chlorophyll, the pigment
responsible for capturing light energy and driving the process of photosynthesis.

What term describes the growth response of a plant to light?

a) Gravitropism
b) Thigmotropism
c) Phototropism
d) Hydrotropism
Answer: c) Phototropism
Explanation: Phototropism is the growth response of a plant toward light. Stems tend to
grow toward light sources to maximize photosynthesis.

Which part of the flower produces pollen?

a) Stigma
b) Ovary
c) Anther
d) Petal
Answer: c) Anther
Explanation: The anther is part of the stamen in a flower and is responsible for producing
and releasing pollen, which is necessary for fertilization.

MICRO-BIOLOGY
1. Which of the following is a gram-negative bacterium?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Clostridium tetani
Answer: B. Escherichia coli
Explanation: Escherichia coli is a gram-negative bacterium. Gram-negative bacteria have
a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane, making them resistant to some
antibiotics.

2. Which of the following staining techniques is used to identify Mycobacterium species?

A. Gram staining
B. Acid-fast staining
C. Capsule staining
D. Endospore staining
Answer: B. Acid-fast staining
Explanation: Acid-fast staining (Ziehl-Neelsen stain) is used to identify Mycobacterium
species, which have waxy cell walls that retain the stain even after acid treatment.

3. What is the role of peptidoglycan in bacterial cells?

A. ATP production
B. Structural support
C. DNA replication
D. Protein synthesis
Answer: B. Structural support
Explanation: Peptidoglycan is a critical component of the bacterial cell wall, providing
structural support and determining the shape of the bacterium.

4. Which of the following is a halophile?

A. Escherichia coli
B. Halobacterium
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Lactobacillus acidophilus
Answer: B. Halobacterium
Explanation: Halophiles, such as Halobacterium, are microorganisms that thrive in high
salt concentrations.

5. The enzyme lysozyme breaks down which component of the bacterial cell wall?
A. DNA B. RNA
C. Peptidoglycan D. Lipopolysaccharides
Answer: C. Peptidoglycan
Explanation: Lysozyme targets and hydrolyzes the bonds in peptidoglycan, weakening the
bacterial cell wall and leading to cell lysis.

6. The term 'antigenic shift' is primarily associated with which group of viruses?
A. Retroviruses
B. Influenza viruses
C. Hepatitis viruses
D. Rhinoviruses
Answer: B. Influenza viruses
Explanation: Antigenic shift refers to a major change in the influenza virus’s surface
proteins, leading to new strains that can cause pandemics.

7. Which of the following microorganisms is a common cause of urinary tract infections?

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Escherichia coli
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer: C. Escherichia coli
Explanation: Escherichia coli is a frequent causative agent of urinary tract infections due
to its ability to adhere to the urinary tract.

8. What is the primary function of the bacterial flagellum?

A. Respiration
B. Locomotion
C. DNA replication
D. Protein synthesis
Answer: B. Locomotion
Explanation: The flagellum is a long, whip-like appendage that provides motility to
bacteria, allowing them to move toward or away from stimuli (chemotaxis).

9. Which of the following is used to sterilize heat-sensitive materials?

A. Autoclaving
B. Pasteurization
C. UV radiation
D. Ethylene oxide gas
Answer: D. Ethylene oxide gas
Explanation: Ethylene oxide gas is used to sterilize heat-sensitive materials, such as
plastics, as it kills microbes without the need for high temperatures.

10. Which bacterium is responsible for tuberculosis?

A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Bacillus anthracis
Answer: C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the causative agent of tuberculosis, a severe
respiratory disease.

11. Transformation in bacteria refers to:

A. Transfer of plasmids
B. Uptake of foreign DNA from the environment
C. Transfer of genetic material by a virus
D. Binary fission
Answer: B. Uptake of foreign DNA from the environment
Explanation: Transformation is a process in which bacteria take up extracellular DNA
from their environment, which can result in genetic changes.

12. What type of organism is a saprophyte?

A. Lives on living organisms
B. Obtains nutrients from non-living organic matter
C. Causes disease in plants
D. Produces antibiotics
Answer: B. Obtains nutrients from non-living organic matter
Explanation: Saprophytes are organisms that obtain nutrients by decomposing dead
organic matter.

13. Which of the following is an example of an obligate anaerobe?

A. Escherichia coli
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Answer: B. Clostridium tetani
Explanation: Clostridium tetani is an obligate anaerobe, meaning it can only survive in
environments devoid of oxygen.

14. The term 'endospore' refers to:

A. A sexual spore produced by fungi
B. A resistant, dormant structure formed by some bacteria
C. A reproductive structure found in algae
D. A type of virus that infects bacteria
Answer: B. A resistant, dormant structure formed by some bacteria
Explanation: Endospores are highly resistant, dormant structures produced by certain
bacteria, allowing them to survive in harsh conditions.

15. Which of the following enzymes is involved in the replication of bacterial DNA?
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. DNA polymerase
C. RNA polymerase
D. Ligase
Answer: B. DNA polymerase
Explanation: DNA polymerase is responsible for synthesizing new strands of DNA during
the replication process.
16. Which of the following statements best describes a plasmid?
A. A small, circular piece of DNA found in bacteria
B. A linear segment of DNA found in viruses
C. The main chromosome of a bacterium
D. A component of the bacterial cell wall
Answer: A. A small, circular piece of DNA found in bacteria
Explanation: Plasmids are small, circular, extrachromosomal DNA molecules found in
bacteria, which often carry genes for antibiotic resistance and other traits.

17. What is the main function of ribosomes in bacterial cells?

A. Replication of DNA
B. Protein synthesis
C. ATP production
D. Photosynthesis
Answer: B. Protein synthesis
Explanation: Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis, translating mRNA into
polypeptide chains.

18. In which phase of bacterial growth does the population size increase exponentially?
A. Lag phase B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase D. Death phase
Answer: B. Log phase
Explanation: During the log phase (exponential phase), bacterial cells divide at a constant
rate, leading to exponential population growth.

19. Which of the following microorganisms is most associated with dental cavities?
A. Lactobacillus B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Escherichia coli D. Clostridium difficile
Answer: B. Streptococcus mutans
Explanation: Streptococcus mutans plays a key role in the formation of dental cavities by
metabolizing sugars and producing acids that erode tooth enamel.

20. What is the causative agent of malaria?

A. A bacterium B. A virus C. A protozoan D. A fungus
Answer: C. A protozoan
Explanation: Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium,
transmitted by mosquitoes.

21. Which of the following is a mechanism of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria?

A. Mitosis B. Binary fission C. Conjugation D. Transcription
Answer: C. Conjugation
Explanation: Conjugation is a form of horizontal gene transfer where genetic material is
exchanged between bacteria through a pilus.
22. The bacterial cell membrane contains which of the following components?
A. Peptidoglycan B. Phospholipids and proteins
C. DNA and RNA D. Lignin
Answer: B. Phospholipids and proteins
Explanation: The bacterial cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer with embedded
proteins, involved in transport and energy production.

23. What type of organism is used as a model system for understanding basic molecular
biology processes?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Plasmodium falciparum
Answer: C. Escherichia coli
Explanation: Escherichia coli is widely used as a model organism in molecular biology due
to its rapid growth and well-understood genetics.

24. Which of the following organisms has chitin in its cell wall?
A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Algae D. Protozoa
Answer: B. Fungi
Explanation: Fungi have cell walls composed of chitin, a long-chain polymer that provides
structural support.

25. What is the primary characteristic of facultative anaerobes?

A. They can only grow in the presence of oxygen.
B. They can only grow in the absence of oxygen.
C. They can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen.
D. They do not require any external electron acceptors for growth.
Answer: C. They can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen.
Explanation: Facultative anaerobes can switch between aerobic respiration when oxygen is
available and anaerobic processes when it is not.

26. The process by which bacteria communicate and coordinate group behavior is known
as:
A. Signal transduction B. Gene regulation
C. Quorum sensing D. Horizontal gene transfer
Answer: C. Quorum sensing
Explanation: Quorum sensing is the process by which bacteria detect their population
density through signaling molecules and regulate gene expression accordingly.

27. In bacteria, the genetic material is organized in:

A. A membrane-bound nucleus
B. Linear chromosomes
C. A single circular chromosome
D. Chromatin-bound structures
Answer: C. A single circular chromosome
Explanation: Bacterial genetic material is usually organized in a single circular
chromosome located in the nucleoid region of the cell.

28. The function of pili (fimbriae) in bacteria includes:

A. ATP production B. Locomotion
C. Adherence to surfaces D. DNA replication
Answer: C. Adherence to surfaces
Explanation: Pili or fimbriae are hair-like structures that allow bacteria to adhere to
surfaces and host cells, playing a crucial role in colonization and infection.

29. Which of the following microorganisms produces antibiotics?

A. Streptomyces B. Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella D. Vibrio cholerae
Answer: A. Streptomyces
Explanation: Streptomyces species are well-known producers of antibiotics, such as
streptomycin, used to inhibit the growth of other microorganisms.

30. What is the term for bacteria that can survive and grow at high temperatures?
A. Psychrophiles B. Mesophiles
C. Thermophiles D. Halophiles
Answer: C. Thermophiles
Explanation: Thermophiles are microorganisms that thrive at high temperatures, typically
above 45°C, found in environments like hot springs.

31. The lac operon in Escherichia coli is involved in the metabolism of:
A. Glucose B. Sucrose C. Lactose D. Galactose
Answer: C. Lactose
Explanation: The lac operon is a cluster of genes in E. coli that enable the bacterium to
metabolize lactose when glucose is not available.
32. What is the purpose of the enzyme catalase in bacteria?
A. DNA replication
B. ATP synthesis
C. Breaking down hydrogen peroxide
D. Protein synthesis
Answer: C. Breaking down hydrogen peroxide

Explanation: Catalase breaks down hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) into water and oxygen,
protecting the bacterial cell from oxidative damage.

33. Which of the following is a common foodborne pathogen?

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Answer: B. Listeria monocytogenes
Explanation: Listeria monocytogenes is a common foodborne pathogen that can cause
listeriosis, particularly in pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals.

34. What is the function of restriction enzymes in bacteria?

A. DNA replication
B. Transcription regulation
C. Defense against viruses
D. Protein synthesis
Answer: C. Defense against viruses
Explanation: Restriction enzymes cut foreign DNA at specific sequences, protecting
bacteria from bacteriophages and other invading genetic material.

35. Which type of microorganism can perform photosynthesis?

A. Fungi B. Protozoa C. Algae D. Viruses
Answer: C. Algae
Explanation: Algae are photosynthetic microorganisms that convert sunlight into chemical
energy through the process of photosynthesis.
36. Which bacterial structure is responsible for motility?
A. Pili
B. Flagella
C. Ribosomes
D. Plasmid
Answer: B. Flagella
Explanation: Flagella are long, whip-like structures that help bacteria move toward or
away from stimuli through chemotaxis.

37. What is the role of bacteriophages in microbiology?

A. They are antibiotics that kill bacteria.
B. They are bacteria that cause diseases in humans.
C. They are viruses that infect bacteria.
D. They are fungi that help in bacterial growth.
Answer: C. They are viruses that infect bacteria.
Explanation: Bacteriophages, or phages, are viruses that specifically infect and replicate
within bacteria, often used in research and phage therapy.

38. Which of the following is considered a zoonotic disease?

A. Cholera
B. Tuberculosis
C. Rabies
D. Malaria
Answer: C. Rabies
Explanation: Zoonotic diseases are infections transmitted from animals to humans. Rabies
is a viral disease primarily spread through the bite of infected animals.

39. Which of the following microorganisms is responsible for causing Lyme disease?
A. Plasmodium
B. Borrelia burgdorferi
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Helicobacter pylori
Answer: B. Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation: Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi, transmitted
to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks.

40. The process of converting nitrogen gas into a form that plants can absorb is known as:
A. Photosynthesis
B. Nitrification
C. Nitrogen fixation
D. Denitrification
Answer: C. Nitrogen fixation
Explanation: Nitrogen fixation is the process by which certain bacteria convert
atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) into ammonia (NH₃), a form that plants can use for growth.
41. The primary target of penicillin in bacterial cells is:
A. The cell membrane
B. DNA replication machinery
C. The ribosome
D. Peptidoglycan synthesis
Answer: D. Peptidoglycan synthesis
Explanation: Penicillin interferes with the synthesis of peptidoglycan, a key component of
the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell lysis and death in susceptible bacteria.

42. Which of the following is a characteristic of prions?

A. They are viral particles.
B. They are misfolded proteins that cause neurodegenerative diseases.
C. They are a type of fungus.
D. They contain both DNA and RNA.
Answer: B. They are misfolded proteins that cause neurodegenerative diseases.
Explanation: Prions are infectious proteins that cause diseases like Creutzfeldt-Jakob
disease and mad cow disease by inducing normal proteins to misfold, affecting brain
function.

43. In microbiology, what does the term 'biofilm' refer to?

A. A single-celled microorganism
B. A layer of dead bacterial cells
C. A complex community of microorganisms attached to a surface
D. A type of virus that infects bacteria
Answer: C. A complex community of microorganisms attached to a surface
Explanation: Biofilms are communities of microorganisms that adhere to surfaces and are
embedded in a self-produced matrix of extracellular polymeric substances, providing
resistance to antibiotics.

44. Which microorganism is responsible for peptic ulcers in humans?

A. Clostridium difficile
B. Escherichia coli
C. Helicobacter pylori
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: C. Helicobacter pylori
Explanation: Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium that infects the stomach lining and is the
primary cause of peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis.

45. Which of the following bacteria can fix nitrogen in the soil?
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Rhizobium
C. Escherichia coli
D. Salmonella
Answer: B. Rhizobium
Explanation: Rhizobium is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium that forms symbiotic relationships
with leguminous plants, converting atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form for the plant.

46. What is the term used for microorganisms that require high concentrations of carbon
dioxide for growth?
A. Halophiles B. Acidophiles
C. Capnophiles D. Thermophiles
Answer: C. Capnophiles
Explanation: Capnophiles are microorganisms that thrive in environments with high levels
of carbon dioxide, often requiring it for optimal growth.

47. Which type of microorganism can survive and grow in highly acidic environments?
A. Psychrophiles B. Acidophiles
C. Mesophiles D. Halophiles
Answer: B. Acidophiles
Explanation: Acidophiles are microorganisms that thrive in acidic environments, often
with a pH of 3 or lower.
48. In the process of fermentation, what is the main product formed by yeast cells?
A. Lactic acid
B. Oxygen
C. Ethanol
D. Acetic acid
Answer: C. Ethanol
Explanation: In anaerobic conditions, yeast cells convert sugars into ethanol and carbon
dioxide through the process of fermentation.

49. Which of the following microorganisms is used in the production of antibiotics?

A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Escherichia coli
C. Penicillium notatum
D. Vibrio cholerae
Answer: C. Penicillium notatum
Explanation: Penicillium notatum is a mold that produces the antibiotic penicillin, which is
used to treat bacterial infections.

50. In which of the following habitats would you most likely find methanogenic archaea?
A. Oxygen-rich environments
B. The human gut
C. Acidic hot springs
D. Salt flats
Answer: B. The human gut
Explanation: Methanogenic archaea are found in anaerobic environments like the human
gut, where they produce methane as a byproduct of organic material degradation.
51. What is the primary function of the bacterial capsule?
A. Protein synthesis
B. Protection from phagocytosis
C. DNA replication
D. ATP production
Answer: B. Protection from phagocytosis
Explanation: The bacterial capsule is a thick, gel-like layer that surrounds some bacteria,
protecting them from phagocytosis by host immune cells.

52. Which microorganism is used in the production of yogurt?

A. Escherichia coli
B. Streptococcus thermophilus
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: B. Streptococcus thermophilus
Explanation: Streptococcus thermophilus is a bacterium used in the fermentation of milk
to produce yogurt, along with Lactobacillus bulgaricus.

53. What is the main difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?
A. Gram-positive bacteria have a thicker cell membrane.
B. Gram-negative bacteria have a thicker peptidoglycan layer.
C. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane.
D. Gram-positive bacteria contain lipopolysaccharides.
Answer: C. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane.
Explanation: Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer
membrane containing lipopolysaccharides, while Gram-positive bacteria lack an outer
membrane but have a thicker peptidoglycan layer.

54. Which microorganism is responsible for causing syphilis?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Mycobacterium leprae
Answer: B. Treponema pallidum
Explanation: Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium
Treponema pallidum, a spirochete.

55. Which of the following is an example of an opportunistic pathogen?

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Treponema pallidum
Answer: B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Explanation: Staphylococcus epidermidis is normally a harmless skin bacterium but can
become pathogenic in immunocompromised individuals or when introduced into the body
via medical devices.

56. Which of the following microorganisms causes whooping cough?

A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Legionella pneumophila
Answer: A. Bordetella pertussis
Explanation: Bordetella pertussis is the causative agent of whooping cough, a highly
contagious respiratory disease characterized by severe coughing fits.

57. What is the primary function of endospores in bacteria?

A. DNA replication
B. Survival under harsh conditions
C. Protein synthesis
D. Cell division
Answer: B. Survival under harsh conditions
Explanation: Endospores are highly resistant structures formed by certain bacteria, such
as Bacillus and Clostridium species, allowing them to survive extreme environmental
conditions.
58. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan parasite?
A. Tuberculosis B. Malaria C. Influenza D. Tetanus
Answer: B. Malaria
Explanation: Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium,
transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes.

59. The Gram stain differentiates bacteria based on the composition of their:
A. DNA B. Ribosomes C. Cell wall D. Flagella
Answer: C. Cell wall
Explanation: The Gram stain is used to differentiate bacteria based on the structure of
their cell wall. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer, while Gram-
negative bacteria have a thinner peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane.

60. Which type of bacteria is commonly used in biotechnology for gene cloning?
A. Clostridium botulinum B. Escherichia coli
C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Answer: B. Escherichia coli
Explanation: Escherichia coli is frequently used in biotechnology and molecular biology
for gene cloning because of its well-known genetics, ease of cultivation, and rapid growth
rate.

61. Which of the following is an example of a viral hemorrhagic fever?

A. Hepatitis C B. Zika virus
C. Ebola virus D. Rabies
Answer: C. Ebola virus
Explanation: Ebola is a viral hemorrhagic fever caused by the Ebola virus, leading to
severe bleeding, organ failure, and, in many cases, death.

62. What is the function of the enzyme reverse transcriptase?

A. DNA replication B. RNA synthesis
C. Conversion of RNA into DNA D. Protein synthesis
Answer: C. Conversion of RNA into DNA
Explanation: Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme used by retroviruses, such as HIV, to
convert their RNA genome into DNA, which can then integrate into the host cell's genome.

63. Which microorganism is responsible for causing tuberculosis in humans?

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Vibrio cholerae
Answer: B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a bacterium
that primarily affects the lungs but can also infect other parts of the body.

64. Which of the following methods is used for sterilization in microbiology labs?
A. Pasteurization B. Autoclaving
C. Filtration D. Refrigeration
Answer: B. Autoclaving
Explanation: Autoclaving uses steam under pressure to sterilize equipment and materials
in microbiology labs by killing all forms of microbial life, including spores.

65. What is the primary role of macrophages in the immune system?

A. To produce antibodies
B. To destroy pathogens through phagocytosis
C. To activate T-cells
D. To produce antigens
Answer: B. To destroy pathogens through phagocytosis
Explanation: Macrophages are immune cells that engulf and digest pathogens through
phagocytosis, playing a crucial role in the body's defense against infection.

66. Which of the following microorganisms is associated with the production of botulinum
toxin?
A. Clostridium perfringens B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Bacillus anthracis D. Streptococcus pyogenes
Answer: B. Clostridium botulinum
Explanation: Clostridium botulinum produces botulinum toxin, one of the most potent
neurotoxins, causing botulism, a serious illness characterized by muscle paralysis.

67. Which bacterial species is commonly found in the human colon and is used as an
indicator of fecal contamination in water?
A. Salmonella enterica B. Escherichia coli
C. Vibrio cholerae D. Listeria monocytogenes
Answer: B. Escherichia coli
Explanation: Escherichia coli is commonly found in the human gut and is used as an
indicator of fecal contamination in water, as its presence suggests possible contamination
with other harmful pathogens.

68. What is the main mode of transmission of the Zika virus?

A. Respiratory droplets B. Sexual contact
C. Mosquito bites D. Contaminated food
Answer: C. Mosquito bites
Explanation: The Zika virus is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected Aedes
mosquitoes, though it can also be spread through sexual contact.

69. Which bacterial species is responsible for causing strep throat?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Neisseria meningitidis
Answer: C. Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation: Streptococcus pyogenes is the bacterium that causes strep throat, a common
bacterial infection characterized by a sore throat and fever.

70. Which of the following is an obligate intracellular parasite?

A. Escherichia coli B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Chlamydia trachomatis
Answer: D. Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation: Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular parasite, meaning it must
live and reproduce inside the host cell.

71. Which of the following microorganisms is a common cause of urinary tract infections
(UTIs)?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Escherichia coli
C. Vibrio cholerae D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Answer: B. Escherichia coli
Explanation: Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs),
often originating from the colon and entering the urinary tract.

72. What is the structure of a viral capsid composed of?

A. Lipids B. Proteins
C. Nucleic acids D. Polysaccharides
Answer: B. Proteins
Explanation: The viral capsid is made of proteins that protect the viral genetic material
and help the virus attach to host cells.

73. Which microorganism is used in the production of beer and bread?

A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae B. Lactobacillus acidophilus
C. Clostridium tetani D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer: A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Explanation: Saccharomyces cerevisiae, also known as brewer's yeast, is used in the
fermentation process to produce alcohol in beer and to make bread rise.
74. What is the purpose of using a Gram stain in microbiology?
A. To determine the size of bacteria
B. To identify bacterial species based on their cell wall structure
C. To measure bacterial growth
D. To quantify bacterial DNA
Answer: B. To identify bacterial species based on their cell wall structure
Explanation: The Gram stain differentiates bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-
negative groups based on the structure of their cell walls, helping in the identification and
classification of bacteria.

75. Which microorganism is responsible for causing leprosy?

A. Mycobacterium leprae B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Bacillus anthracis D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Answer: A. Mycobacterium leprae
Explanation: Mycobacterium leprae is the causative agent of leprosy, a chronic infectious
disease that affects the skin, peripheral nerves, and mucous membranes.
76. What type of microorganism is Candida albicans?
A. Bacterium
B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Protozoan
Answer: C. Fungus
Explanation: Candida albicans is a type of yeast (fungus) that is part of the normal flora of
the human body but can cause opportunistic infections, particularly in
immunocompromised individuals.

77. The primary mechanism of action of antiviral drugs is to:

A. Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
B. Block viral replication
C. Disrupt protein synthesis in bacteria
D. Inactivate toxins
Answer: B. Block viral replication
Explanation: Antiviral drugs primarily work by inhibiting the replication of viruses,
preventing them from multiplying and spreading.

78. Which of the following statements is true about endotoxins?

A. They are produced by Gram-positive bacteria.
B. They are released upon bacterial cell lysis.
C. They are proteins that can be neutralized by antitoxins.
D. They cause immediate immune response.
Answer: B. They are released upon bacterial cell lysis.
Explanation: Endotoxins are components of the outer membrane of Gram-negative
bacteria that are released when the bacteria die or are lysed, triggering immune responses.

79. What is the primary role of plasmids in bacteria?

A. Energy production
B. Antibiotic resistance
C. Protein synthesis
D. Cellular respiration
Answer: B. Antibiotic resistance
Explanation: Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that can carry genes for
antibiotic resistance and can be transferred between bacteria, contributing to the spread of
resistance.

80. Which microorganism is known for its role in the nitrogen cycle?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Azotobacter
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: B. Azotobacter
Explanation: Azotobacter is a free-living nitrogen-fixing bacterium that converts
atmospheric nitrogen into forms that plants can use, playing a key role in the nitrogen
cycle.

81. The main function of the bacterial flagellum is:

A. Genetic material exchange
B. Nutrient absorption
C. Movement
D. Biofilm formation
Answer: C. Movement
Explanation: The flagellum is a long, whip-like structure that enables bacteria to move
toward or away from environmental stimuli, a process known as taxis.

82. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses?

A. They are acellular.
B. They contain DNA or RNA.
C. They can reproduce independently.
D. They require a host cell to replicate.
Answer: C. They can reproduce independently.
Explanation: Viruses cannot reproduce independently; they must infect a host cell and
hijack its machinery to replicate.
83. What is a primary component of the bacterial cell wall?
A. Lipids
B. Cellulose
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Protein
Answer: C. Peptidoglycan
Explanation: Peptidoglycan is the primary structural component of bacterial cell walls,
providing rigidity and shape to the cells.
84. Which of the following diseases is transmitted through contaminated water?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Cholera
C. HIV/AIDS
D. Influenza
Answer: B. Cholera
Explanation: Cholera is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae,
primarily transmitted through contaminated water supplies.

85. The process by which bacteria acquire genetic material from their environment is
known as:
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation
D. Replication
Answer: A. Transformation
Explanation: Transformation is the process by which bacteria take up free-floating DNA
from their environment, allowing for genetic changes.

86. Which type of immunity is developed after vaccination?

A. Innate immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Active immunity
D. Natural immunity
Answer: C. Active immunity
Explanation: Active immunity is developed when exposure to a disease triggers the
immune system to produce antibodies, which can occur through vaccination.

87. Which bacterial structure helps in adherence to surfaces?

A. Flagella
B. Capsule
C. Endospore
D. Pili
Answer: D. Pili
Explanation: Pili are hair-like structures that enable bacteria to adhere to surfaces and to
each other, facilitating colonization and biofilm formation.

88. Which microorganism is known for causing food poisoning associated with improperly
canned food?
A. Salmonella
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Escherichia coli
Answer: B. Clostridium botulinum
Explanation: Clostridium botulinum produces botulinum toxin, which can cause severe
food poisoning, particularly from improperly canned or preserved foods.
89. Which type of microscopy uses a beam of electrons to visualize specimens?
A. Light microscopy
B. Scanning electron microscopy
C. Phase-contrast microscopy
D. Fluorescence microscopy
Answer: B. Scanning electron microscopy
Explanation: Scanning electron microscopy (SEM) uses a focused beam of electrons to
create high-resolution images of the surface of specimens.

90. What is the primary mode of action of penicillin?

A. Inhibiting protein synthesis
B. Disrupting DNA replication
C. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
D. Blocking metabolic pathways
Answer: C. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
Explanation: Penicillin works by inhibiting the synthesis of peptidoglycan, a vital
component of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell lysis and death.

91. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of fungi?

A. Photosynthetic
B. Prokaryotic
C. Eukaryotic with cell walls made of chitin
D. Obligate anaerobes
Answer: C. Eukaryotic with cell walls made of chitin
Explanation: Fungi are eukaryotic organisms that have cell walls composed of chitin,
distinguishing them from plants and bacteria.

92. What type of bacteria are known for their ability to thrive in high salt concentrations?
A. Psychrophiles
B. Thermophiles
C. Halophiles
D. Acidophiles
Answer: C. Halophiles
Explanation: Halophiles are microorganisms that thrive in environments with high salt
concentrations, such as salt lakes or salt flats.

93. Which of the following best describes an antibiotic?

A. A virus that infects bacteria
B. A substance produced by microorganisms that inhibits the growth of other
microorganisms
C. A toxin produced by bacteria
D. A type of enzyme
Answer: B. A substance produced by microorganisms that inhibits the growth of other
microorganisms
Explanation: Antibiotics are natural or synthetic substances that can kill or inhibit the
growth of bacteria and are used to treat infections.

94. What type of infection does Clostridium difficile cause?

A. Respiratory infection
B. Gastrointestinal infection
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Skin infection
Answer: B. Gastrointestinal infection
Explanation: Clostridium difficile is responsible for gastrointestinal infections,
particularly antibiotic-associated diarrhea, often following antibiotic use.
95. Which of the following methods is used to sterilize heat-sensitive materials?
A. Autoclaving
B. Incineration
C. Ethylene oxide gas sterilization
D. Boiling
Answer: C. Ethylene oxide gas sterilization
Explanation: Ethylene oxide gas sterilization is used for heat-sensitive materials,
effectively killing microorganisms without damaging the items being sterilized.

96. Which type of cell mediates the adaptive immune response?

A. Macrophages
B. B cells and T cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophils
Answer: B. B cells and T cells
Explanation: B cells and T cells are key components of the adaptive immune system,
providing targeted responses to specific pathogens.

97. Which of the following diseases is caused by a helminth?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Malaria
C. Schistosomiasis
D. Influenza
Answer: C. Schistosomiasis
Explanation: Schistosomiasis is caused by parasitic worms (helminths) of the genus
Schistosoma, leading to various health issues in infected individuals.

98. What is the primary mode of action of tetracycline antibiotics?

A. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
B. Inhibiting protein synthesis
C. Disrupting DNA replication
D. Inhibiting metabolic pathways
Answer: B. Inhibiting protein synthesis
Explanation: Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the bacterial ribosome,
preventing the growth and replication of bacteria.

99. What is a biofilm?

A. A type of bacterial colony
B. A layer of bacteria that adheres to a surface
C. A viral infection
D. A fungal infection
Answer: B. A layer of bacteria that adheres to a surface
Explanation: A biofilm is a structured community of bacteria that adhere to surfaces and
are embedded in a self-produced extracellular matrix, often leading to increased resistance
to antibiotics.

100. Which of the following is a method of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria?

A. Binary fission
B. Mutation
C. Conjugation
D. Cloning
Answer: C. Conjugation
Explanation: Conjugation is a process in which bacteria transfer genetic material through
direct contact, often involving plasmids, facilitating genetic diversity.

101. Which type of immunity is provided by maternal antibodies?

A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Natural immunity
D. Acquired immunity
Answer: B. Passive immunity
Explanation: Passive immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred from one
individual to another, such as from mother to infant through the placenta or breast milk.
102. Which bacteria are commonly used as indicators of water quality?
A. Coliforms B. Clostridia
C. Streptococci D. Staphylococci
Answer: A. Coliforms
Explanation: Coliform bacteria, particularly Escherichia coli, are used as indicators of
fecal contamination in water, signaling the potential presence of harmful pathogens.

103. The primary role of interferons in the immune response is to:

A. Enhance antibody production
B. Inhibit viral replication
C. Activate macrophages
D. Promote inflammation
Answer: B. Inhibit viral replication
Explanation: Interferons are signaling proteins produced by cells in response to viral
infections that help inhibit viral replication and activate immune responses.

104. What is the function of a bacterial capsule?

A. Energy production B. Protection against phagocytosis
C. DNA replication D. Protein synthesis
Answer: B. Protection against phagocytosis
Explanation: The bacterial capsule serves as a protective layer that helps bacteria evade
the immune system by preventing phagocytosis by immune cells.
105. Which organism is primarily responsible for the production of lactic acid during
fermentation?
A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae B. Lactobacillus
C. Escherichia coli D. Clostridium acetobutylicum
Answer: B. Lactobacillus
Explanation: Lactobacillus species are known for converting sugars into lactic acid during
fermentation, playing a crucial role in the production of yogurt and other fermented foods.

106. Which of the following is a common method of preserving food?

A. Pasteurization B. Fermentation
C. Both A and B D. Freezing
Answer: C. Both A and B
Explanation: Both pasteurization and fermentation are common methods used to preserve
food, extending its shelf life and enhancing safety.

107. The process of converting glucose into lactic acid in the absence of oxygen is called:
A. Aerobic respiration B. Anaerobic respiration
C. Fermentation D. Oxidation
Answer: C. Fermentation
Explanation: Fermentation is the metabolic process that converts glucose into lactic acid
(or other byproducts) without the use of oxygen.
108. Which of the following best describes a virus?
A. A single-celled organism
B. A prokaryotic cell
C. An acellular infectious agent
D. A type of fungus
Answer: C. An acellular infectious agent
Explanation: Viruses are acellular entities that cannot replicate independently and require
a host cell to reproduce.

109. What type of infection is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms and often
resolves quickly?
A. Chronic infection B. Acute infection
C. Latent infection D. Recurrent infection
Answer: B. Acute infection
Explanation: Acute infections have a rapid onset of symptoms and typically resolve within
a short time frame, often without long-term effects.

110. Which bacterial structure is primarily responsible for genetic exchange during
conjugation?
A. Flagellum B. Pili C. Capsule D. Endospore
Answer: B. Pili
Explanation: Pili are appendages that facilitate the transfer of genetic material between
bacteria during the process of conjugation.

111. Which of the following pathogens is commonly associated with nosocomial infections?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Influenza virus
Answer: C. Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus, particularly methicillin-resistant strains (MRSA), is
a common cause of nosocomial infections acquired in healthcare settings.

112. What is the main purpose of pasteurization?

A. To sterilize food
B. To kill pathogenic microorganisms
C. To enhance flavor
D. To promote fermentation
Answer: B. To kill pathogenic microorganisms
Explanation: Pasteurization is a heat treatment process aimed at killing pathogenic
microorganisms in food and beverages to ensure safety without affecting quality.
113. Which of the following is an example of a zoonotic disease?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Rabies
C. Influenza
D. Hepatitis
Answer: B. Rabies
Explanation: Rabies is a zoonotic disease transmitted from animals to humans, primarily
through bites from infected animals, such as bats and dogs.

114. What is the primary function of B cells in the immune system?

A. Phagocytosis
B. Antibody production
C. Cytotoxic activity
D. Antigen presentation
Answer: B. Antibody production
Explanation: B cells are responsible for producing antibodies that specifically target
antigens on pathogens, helping to neutralize or eliminate them.

115. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?

A. Lack of a nucleus
B. Presence of membrane-bound organelles
C. Small size
D. Unicellular organization
Answer: B. Presence of membrane-bound organelles
Explanation: Prokaryotic cells do not have membrane-bound organelles, which is a key
distinction from eukaryotic cells.

116. Which type of bacteria can be found in extreme environments, such as hot springs?
A. Mesophiles
B. Psychrophiles
C. Thermophiles
D. Halophiles
Answer: C. Thermophiles
Explanation: Thermophiles are bacteria that thrive in high-temperature environments,
such as hot springs and geothermal areas.

117. What is the role of the immune system's T helper cells?

A. To kill infected cells
B. To enhance the activity of other immune cells
C. To produce antibodies
D. To engulf pathogens
Answer: B. To enhance the activity of other immune cells
Explanation: T helper cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by
activating other immune cells, including B cells and cytotoxic T cells.
118. Which of the following is a characteristic of a virus?
A. Can reproduce independently
B. Contains both DNA and RNA
C. Lacks cellular structure
D. Has a cell wall
Answer: C. Lacks cellular structure
Explanation: Viruses are acellular and do not possess the cellular structure found in living
organisms; they consist of genetic material enclosed in a protein coat.

119. What is the function of the bacterial ribosome?

A. DNA replication
B. Protein synthesis
C. Cell division
D. Energy production
Answer: B. Protein synthesis
Explanation: Bacterial ribosomes are responsible for translating mRNA into proteins, a
critical process for cell function and growth.

120. Which of the following infections is characterized by the formation of a

pseudomembrane in the throat?
A. Strep throat
B. Diphtheria
C. Whooping cough
D. Tuberculosis
Answer: B. Diphtheria
Explanation: Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae and is characterized
by the formation of a pseudomembrane in the throat, leading to difficulty breathing.

121. What type of medium is used to isolate and grow fungi in the laboratory?
A. Blood agar
B. Sabouraud dextrose agar
C. MacConkey agar
D. Nutrient agar
Answer: B. Sabouraud dextrose agar
Explanation: Sabouraud dextrose agar is a selective medium used for the isolation and
cultivation of fungi, providing the necessary nutrients for their growth.

122. Which of the following is a method of measuring microbial growth?

A. Staining
B. Gram staining
C. Turbidity measurement
D. Microscopy
Answer: C. Turbidity measurement
Explanation: Turbidity measurement quantifies microbial growth by assessing the
cloudiness of a liquid culture, which correlates with cell density.

123. Which of the following best describes a "prion"?

A. A bacterial cell
B. A type of virus
C. An infectious protein
D. A eukaryotic pathogen
Answer: C. An infectious protein
Explanation: Prions are misfolded proteins that can induce abnormal folding of normal
proteins in the brain, leading to neurodegenerative diseases.

124. What is the primary benefit of using vaccines?

A. Immediate immunity
B. Long-term immunity
C. Prevention of all infections
D. Treatment of diseases
Answer: B. Long-term immunity
Explanation: Vaccines stimulate the immune system to develop long-term immunity
against specific pathogens, reducing the risk of infection.
125. Which of the following organisms is commonly used in biotechnology for recombinant
DNA technology?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Clostridium botulinum
Answer: A. Escherichia coli
Explanation: Escherichia coli is frequently used as a host for recombinant DNA
technology due to its rapid growth and well-understood genetics.

126. What is the role of macrophages in the immune response?

A. Producing antibodies
B. Engulfing and destroying pathogens
C. Activating T cells
D. Producing cytokines
Answer: B. Engulfing and destroying pathogens
Explanation: Macrophages are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens and
debris, playing a key role in the innate immune response.

127. Which of the following microorganisms can form endospores?

A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Vibrio cholerae
Answer: B. Bacillus cereus
Explanation: Bacillus cereus is a spore-forming bacterium that can produce endospores,
allowing it to survive extreme environmental conditions.

128. Which of the following statements is true regarding archaea?

A. They are prokaryotic organisms.
B. They contain peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
C. They are only found in extreme environments.
D. They are more closely related to bacteria than to eukaryotes.
Answer: A. They are prokaryotic organisms.
Explanation: Archaea are a distinct group of prokaryotic microorganisms that have
unique genetic and biochemical characteristics, differing from bacteria and eukaryotes.

129. What type of virus is HIV?

A. Double-stranded DNA virus
B. Single-stranded RNA virus
C. Double-stranded RNA virus
D. Retrovirus
Answer: D. Retrovirus
Explanation: HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is a retrovirus that uses reverse
transcription to convert its RNA genome into DNA within a host cell.

130. Which of the following is a key factor in the emergence of antibiotic resistance?
A. Proper use of antibiotics
B. Overuse and misuse of antibiotics
C. Improved sanitation
D. Increased vaccination rates
Answer: B. Overuse and misuse of antibiotics
Explanation: The overuse and misuse of antibiotics in medicine and agriculture contribute
significantly to the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.

131. Which type of bacteria is primarily involved in nitrogen fixation?

A. Enteric bacteria
B. Nitrifying bacteria
C. Denitrifying bacteria
D. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
Answer: D. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
Explanation: Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, such as Rhizobium, convert atmospheric nitrogen
into forms usable by plants, playing a critical role in the nitrogen cycle.

132. What is the role of the immune system's natural killer (NK) cells?
A. To produce antibodies
B. To destroy virus-infected cells
C. To enhance B cell activity
D. To phagocytose bacteria
Answer: B. To destroy virus-infected cells
Explanation: Natural killer (NK) cells are a type of lymphocyte that play a critical role in
the innate immune response by identifying and destroying infected or cancerous cells.

133. What type of virus is responsible for the common cold?

A. Influenza virus
B. Rhinovirus
C. Coronaviruses
D. Adenovirus
Answer: B. Rhinovirus
Explanation: Rhinoviruses are the most common causative agents of the common cold,
leading to upper respiratory tract infections.

134. Which of the following is a characteristic of a eukaryotic cell?

A. Lacks a nucleus
B. Contains membrane-bound organelles
C. Generally smaller than prokaryotic cells
D. Unicellular only
Answer: B. Contains membrane-bound organelles
Explanation: Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles, including a nucleus,
which distinguishes them from prokaryotic cells.

135. The primary target of antifungal medications is:

A. Bacterial cell walls
B. Fungal cell membranes
C. Viral capsids
D. Protozoan nuclei
Answer: B. Fungal cell membranes
Explanation: Antifungal medications primarily target components of fungal cell
membranes, such as ergosterol, disrupting the integrity and function of the cell.

136. What type of test is used to determine the sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics?
A. Gram stain
B. Culture test
C. Antibiotic susceptibility test
D. Biochemical test
Answer: C. Antibiotic susceptibility test
Explanation: An antibiotic susceptibility test determines the effectiveness of specific
antibiotics against particular bacterial strains, guiding treatment choices.
137. Which organism is responsible for the fermentation of bread dough?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Clostridium botulinum
Answer: B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Explanation: Saccharomyces cerevisiae, commonly known as baker's yeast, ferments
sugars in bread dough, producing carbon dioxide that causes the dough to rise.

138. Which type of immunity involves the production of memory cells?

A. Innate immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Active immunity
D. Acquired immunity
Answer: C. Active immunity
Explanation: Active immunity involves the production of memory cells after exposure to
an antigen, allowing for a faster and more effective response upon subsequent exposures.

139. Which type of microorganism is most commonly associated with food spoilage?
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Protozoa
D. Fungi
Answer: D. Fungi
Explanation: Fungi, including molds and yeasts, are frequently responsible for food
spoilage, contributing to changes in texture, flavor, and appearance.

140. What is the function of lysozyme in the immune system?

A. To destroy bacteria
B. To stimulate antibody production
C. To enhance phagocytosis
D. To activate T cells
Answer: A. To destroy bacteria
Explanation: Lysozyme is an enzyme that breaks down peptidoglycan in bacterial cell
walls, leading to bacterial lysis and destruction.

141. What is the main role of the microbiome in human health?

A. Producing toxins
B. Competing with pathogens
C. Causing diseases
D. All of the above
Answer: B. Competing with pathogens
Explanation: The microbiome plays a crucial role in maintaining health by competing with
pathogenic microorganisms, thereby helping to prevent infections.

142. Which of the following methods is used to identify bacteria based on their metabolic
properties?
A. Gram staining
B. Biochemical testing
C. PCR
D. Gel electrophoresis
Answer: B. Biochemical testing
Explanation: Biochemical testing assesses the metabolic properties of bacteria, such as
fermentation and enzyme production, to aid in their identification.

143. What is a plasmid?

A. A type of virus
B. A circular piece of DNA
C. A bacterial ribosome
D. A cell membrane structure
Answer: B. A circular piece of DNA
Explanation: Plasmids are small, circular pieces of DNA found in bacteria that can
replicate independently and often carry genes for antibiotic resistance or other traits.
144. Which of the following viruses is known to cause gastroenteritis?
A. Influenza virus
B. Norovirus
C. HIV
D. Hepatitis B virus
Answer: B. Norovirus
Explanation: Norovirus is a leading cause of viral gastroenteritis, resulting in
inflammation of the stomach and intestines, leading to diarrhea and vomiting.

145. What is the main characteristic of a "lysogenic cycle" in bacteriophages?

A. Immediate lysis of the host cell
B. Integration of viral DNA into the host genome
C. Production of new viral particles
D. Cell death
Answer: B. Integration of viral DNA into the host genome
Explanation: In the lysogenic cycle, the bacteriophage integrates its DNA into the bacterial
host's genome, remaining dormant until triggered to enter the lytic cycle.

146. Which of the following is a common cause of hospital-acquired infections?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Clostridium difficile
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: All of these bacteria are known to cause hospital-acquired infections, often
due to the use of invasive devices and antibiotic exposure.

147. What is the primary function of dendritic cells in the immune system?
A. Antibody production
B. Antigen presentation
C. Killing infected cells
D. Phagocytosis
Answer: B. Antigen presentation
Explanation: Dendritic cells capture antigens and present them to T cells, initiating and
regulating the adaptive immune response.

148. Which antibiotic is classified as a beta-lactam?

A. Tetracycline
B. Penicillin
C. Macrolide
D. Aminoglycoside
Answer: B. Penicillin
Explanation: Penicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis,
leading to cell lysis and death.

149. What is the term for the process by which bacteria acquire genetic material from
their environment?
A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction
D. Binary fission
Answer: B. Transformation
Explanation: Transformation is the process by which bacteria take up free DNA from
their environment, leading to genetic changes.

150. Which of the following is a common method used to sterilize surgical instruments?
A. Boiling
B. Ethylene oxide gas
C. UV radiation
D. Refrigeration
Answer: B. Ethylene oxide gas
Explanation: Ethylene oxide gas is a common sterilization method used for heat-sensitive
surgical instruments, effectively killing bacteria and spores.
151. Which of the following organisms is a common model organism in microbiology?
A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Drosophila melanogaster
D. Both A and B
Answer: D. Both A and B
Explanation: Both Saccharomyces cerevisiae (baker's yeast) and Escherichia coli
(bacterium) are widely used as model organisms in microbiology and genetics research.

152. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE antibodies?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: A. Type I
Explanation: Type I hypersensitivity reactions are immediate allergic reactions mediated
by IgE antibodies, leading to symptoms such as anaphylaxis and asthma.

153. Which of the following statements about biofilms is true?

A. They consist of a single species of bacteria.
B. They are resistant to antimicrobial agents.
C. They are easily removed from surfaces.
D. They do not play a role in chronic infections.
Answer: B. They are resistant to antimicrobial agents.
Explanation: Biofilms are structured communities of microorganisms that adhere to
surfaces and are embedded in a protective matrix, making them resistant to antibiotics
and the immune system.

154. What is the function of a vaccine?

A. To treat an existing infection
B. To prevent infection by stimulating the immune response
C. To kill pathogens in the body
D. To provide immediate immunity
Answer: B. To prevent infection by stimulating the immune response
Explanation: Vaccines work by introducing an antigen to the immune system, prompting
it to generate an immune response that can protect against future infections.

155. Which of the following organisms is classified as a protozoan?

A. Aspergillus
B. Amoeba
C. Escherichia coli
D. Penicillium
Answer: B. Amoeba
Explanation: Amoeba is a genus of protozoa, which are single-celled eukaryotic organisms
distinct from fungi and bacteria.

156. Which type of test is used to identify bacterial species based on their ability to ferment
different sugars?
A. Gram staining
B. API test
C. Biochemical test
D. PCR
Answer: C. Biochemical test
Explanation: Biochemical tests can determine bacterial species by assessing their
fermentation capabilities and other metabolic activities.

157. What is the primary cause of antibiotic resistance?

A. Natural selection
B. Proper use of antibiotics
C. Increased sanitation
D. Vaccination
Answer: A. Natural selection
Explanation: Antibiotic resistance arises primarily due to natural selection, where bacteria
that possess resistance genes survive and proliferate in the presence of antibiotics.
158. Which of the following is a common viral vector used in gene therapy?
A. Adenovirus
B. Plasmid
C. Bacteriophage
D. Yeast
Answer: A. Adenovirus
Explanation: Adenoviruses are commonly used as vectors in gene therapy to deliver
therapeutic genes into target cells.

159. What is the role of the complement system in the immune response?
A. To produce antibodies
B. To lyse pathogens
C. To enhance phagocytosis
D. Both B and C
Answer: D. Both B and C
Explanation: The complement system plays a crucial role in the immune response by
lysing pathogens and enhancing the opsonization process, which aids in phagocytosis.

160. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of yeast?

A. Multicellular
B. Prokaryotic
C. Eukaryotic
D. Non-fungal
Answer: C. Eukaryotic
Explanation: Yeasts are unicellular eukaryotic organisms belonging to the kingdom Fungi,
and they have a complex cellular structure.

Bio-Chemstry
1. Which of the following is the most abundant biomolecule on Earth?
a) Lipids
b) Carbohydrates
c) Proteins
d) Nucleic acids
Answer: b) Carbohydrates
Explanation: Carbohydrates, particularly cellulose, are the most abundant organic
molecules found on Earth, primarily in plant cell walls.

2. The primary structure of a protein is determined by:

a) Hydrogen bonds
b) Peptide bonds
c) Disulfide bonds
d) Ionic bonds
Answer: b) Peptide bonds
Explanation: The primary structure of a protein is its sequence of amino acids, which are
linked by peptide bonds.
3. Which vitamin is a coenzyme for carboxylation reactions?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B6
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin D
Answer: c) Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin K is essential for the carboxylation of certain proteins involved in
blood clotting.

4. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine base in nucleic acids?

a) Cytosine
b) Thymine
c) Adenine
d) Uracil
Answer: c) Adenine
Explanation: Adenine is a purine base, whereas cytosine, thymine (in DNA), and uracil (in
RNA) are pyrimidines.

5. The enzyme hexokinase catalyzes the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate. This

reaction is an example of:
a) Hydrolysis
b) Phosphorylation
c) Oxidation
d) Dehydration
Answer: b) Phosphorylation
Explanation: Hexokinase transfers a phosphate group from ATP to glucose, a process
known as phosphorylation.

6. In glycolysis, the step involving the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to

pyruvate is catalyzed by:
a) Hexokinase
b) Pyruvate kinase
c) Phosphofructokinase
d) Aldolase
Answer: b) Pyruvate kinase
Explanation: Pyruvate kinase catalyzes the final step of glycolysis, converting PEP into
pyruvate and generating ATP.

7. Which molecule serves as the primary energy currency of the cell?

a) Glucose
b) ATP
c) NADH
d) FADH2
Answer: b) ATP
Explanation: ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the primary molecule used by cells to store
and transfer energy.
8. In the citric acid cycle, citrate is converted into which compound in the first step?
a) Oxaloacetate
b) Succinyl-CoA
c) Isocitrate
d) Fumarate
Answer: c) Isocitrate
Explanation: Citrate is converted to isocitrate via aconitase in the citric acid cycle.

9. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?

a) Electron donor
b) Electron acceptor
c) ATP producer
d) Glucose oxidizer
Answer: b) Electron acceptor
Explanation: NAD+ acts as an electron acceptor during glycolysis and the citric acid cycle,
becoming reduced to NADH.

10. Which of the following amino acids contains sulfur?

a) Glycine b) Valine
c) Methionine d) Proline
Answer: c) Methionine
Explanation: Methionine is one of the two sulfur-containing amino acids, the other being
cysteine.
11. The main function of ribosomes in the cell is to:
a) Synthesize lipids
b) Synthesize proteins
c) Replicate DNA
d) Degrade proteins
Answer: b) Synthesize proteins
Explanation: Ribosomes are the molecular machines responsible for translating mRNA
into polypeptide chains during protein synthesis.

12. Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA helix during replication?
a) DNA polymerase
b) Helicase
c) Ligase
d) Primase
Answer: b) Helicase
Explanation: Helicase unwinds the double-stranded DNA to create the single-stranded
template needed for replication.
13. In enzyme kinetics, the Michaelis constant (Km) represents:
a) The maximum reaction velocity
b) The substrate concentration at half-maximal velocity
c) The amount of enzyme available
d) The turnover number
Answer: b) The substrate concentration at half-maximal velocity
Explanation: Km is the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of its
maximum value.

14. The basic structure of a phospholipid includes:

a) One glycerol and three fatty acids
b) One glycerol, two fatty acids, and a phosphate group
c) One glycerol and two phosphate groups
d) Two glycerols and one fatty acid
Answer: b) One glycerol, two fatty acids, and a phosphate group
Explanation: Phospholipids consist of a glycerol backbone, two fatty acids, and a
phosphate group, making them a key component of cell membranes.

15. Which of the following is an essential amino acid for humans?

a) Leucine
b) Glycine
c) Proline
d) Tyrosine
Answer: a) Leucine
Explanation: Leucine is one of the essential amino acids that must be obtained from the
diet, while glycine, proline, and tyrosine can be synthesized by the body.

16. During oxidative phosphorylation, the electron transport chain pumps protons into
which part of the mitochondria?
a) Matrix
b) Intermembrane space
c) Outer membrane
d) Cytosol
Answer: b) Intermembrane space
Explanation: Protons are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane
space, creating a proton gradient that drives ATP synthesis.

17. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the splitting of water molecules during
photosynthesis?
a) ATP synthase
b) Rubisco
c) Photosystem II
d) Cytochrome c
Answer: c) Photosystem II
Explanation: Photosystem II uses light energy to split water molecules, producing oxygen,
protons, and electrons.

18. Which molecule is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain of aerobic
respiration?
a) NAD+
b) Oxygen
c) Water
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: b) Oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain,
combining with electrons and protons to form water.

19. The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is catalyzed by:

a) Pyruvate kinase
b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
c) Citrate synthase
d) Malate dehydrogenase
Answer: b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Explanation: Pyruvate dehydrogenase converts pyruvate into acetyl-CoA, which enters the
citric acid cycle.
20. What type of bond is formed between two nucleotides in a DNA strand?
a) Peptide bond
b) Phosphodiester bond
c) Hydrogen bond
d) Ionic bond
Answer: b) Phosphodiester bond
Explanation: Nucleotides in a DNA strand are linked by phosphodiester bonds between
the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the sugar of the next.
21. Which metabolic pathway generates both NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate for
nucleotide synthesis?
a) Glycolysis
b) Pentose phosphate pathway
c) Citric acid cycle
d) Beta-oxidation
Answer: b) Pentose phosphate pathway
Explanation: The pentose phosphate pathway produces NADPH for biosynthetic reactions
and ribose-5-phosphate for nucleotide synthesis.

22. Which of the following molecules is reduced during the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis?
a) NADP+ b) ADP c) Oxygen d) ATP
Answer: a) NADP+
Explanation: In the Calvin cycle, NADP+ is reduced to NADPH, which is used in the
biosynthesis of carbohydrates.

23. The major storage form of carbohydrates in animals is:

a) Starch b) Cellulose c) Glycogen d) Glucose
Answer: c) Glycogen
Explanation: Glycogen is the main polysaccharide used to store glucose in animal cells,
particularly in the liver and muscles.

24. What is the pH of a solution when [H+] concentration is 1 × 10⁻⁷ M?

a) 7 b) 6 c) 8 d) 14
Answer: a) 7
Explanation: The pH is calculated as the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion
concentration. For [H+] = 1 × 10⁻⁷ M, pH = 7.

25. The essential fatty acid that cannot be synthesized by the human body is:
a) Oleic acid b) Linoleic acid
c) Palmitic acid d) Stearic acid
Answer: b) Linoleic acid
Explanation: Linoleic acid is an omega-6 fatty acid that is essential for humans and must
be obtained from the diet.
26. Which process is involved in the breakdown of fatty acids into acetyl-CoA?
a) Glycolysis b) Beta-oxidation
c) Lipogenesis d) Transamination
Answer: b) Beta-oxidation
Explanation: Beta-oxidation is the metabolic process in which fatty acids are broken down
in the mitochondria to generate acetyl-CoA.

27. Which of the following amino acids is considered ketogenic?

a) Glutamine b) Lysine
c) Alanine d) Aspartate
Answer: b) Lysine
Explanation: Lysine is a ketogenic amino acid, meaning it can be converted into ketone
bodies rather than glucose.

28. The enzyme involved in the conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP) is:
a) Adenylate cyclase b) Phosphodiesterase
c) Protein kinase A d) Glycogen phosphorylase
Answer: a) Adenylate cyclase
Explanation: Adenylate cyclase catalyzes the conversion of ATP to cAMP, a second
messenger involved in signal transduction.
29. Which coenzyme is commonly involved in carboxylation reactions?
a) NAD+ b) Biotin c) FAD d) Thiamine
Answer: b) Biotin
Explanation: Biotin acts as a coenzyme in carboxylation reactions, which involve the
addition of a carboxyl group to a substrate.

30. The major product of the urea cycle is:

a) Ammonia b) Urea c) Nitrogen d) Alanine
Answer: b) Urea
Explanation: The urea cycle converts ammonia, a toxic byproduct of protein catabolism,
into urea, which is safely excreted in urine.

31. Which of the following bonds stabilizes the alpha-helix structure in proteins?
a) Peptide bonds b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Disulfide bonds d) Ionic bonds
Answer: b) Hydrogen bonds
Explanation: The alpha-helix structure is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between the
carbonyl oxygen and the amide hydrogen of the backbone.

32. The Bohr effect refers to the:

a) Binding of oxygen to hemoglobin
b) Decrease in oxygen affinity of hemoglobin due to lower pH
c) Increase in CO2 binding to hemoglobin
d) Increase in oxygen affinity due to higher pH
Answer: b) Decrease in oxygen affinity of hemoglobin due to lower pH
Explanation: The Bohr effect describes how a decrease in pH (more acidic conditions)
lowers the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen, facilitating oxygen release in tissues.

33. Which metabolic pathway occurs in the mitochondria?

a) Glycolysis b) Pentose phosphate pathway
c) Citric acid cycle d) Gluconeogenesis
Answer: c) Citric acid cycle
Explanation: The citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) takes place in the mitochondria,
generating high-energy molecules such as NADH and FADH2.

34. The bond between the nitrogenous base and the sugar in a nucleotide is called a:
a) Phosphodiester bond b) Glycosidic bond
c) Hydrogen bond d) Peptide bond
Answer: b) Glycosidic bond
Explanation: A glycosidic bond connects the nitrogenous base to the sugar in a nucleotide,
forming part of the nucleic acid structure.

35. Which of the following is the primary function of cholesterol in cell membranes?
a) Acts as a structural protein
b) Increases membrane fluidity
c) Decreases membrane fluidity
d) Facilitates the transport of glucose
Answer: c) Decreases membrane fluidity
Explanation: Cholesterol modulates membrane fluidity by decreasing it at high
temperatures and preventing the membrane from becoming too rigid at low temperatures.

36. Hemoglobin is classified as what type of protein?

a) Fibrous protein b) Enzyme
c) Structural protein d) Transport protein
Answer: d) Transport protein
Explanation: Hemoglobin is a transport protein that carries oxygen from the lungs to
tissues and returns carbon dioxide from tissues to the lungs.

37. In the process of DNA replication, the enzyme responsible for adding nucleotides to the
growing DNA strand is:
a) DNA ligase b) RNA polymerase
c) DNA polymerase d) Topoisomerase
Answer: c) DNA polymerase
Explanation: DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand
during replication.
38. The TCA cycle intermediate that condenses with acetyl-CoA to form citrate is:
a) Malate b) Oxaloacetate
c) Succinyl-CoA d) Fumarate
Answer: b) Oxaloacetate
Explanation: Oxaloacetate combines with acetyl-CoA to form citrate in the first step of the
citric acid cycle.

39. Which vitamin is necessary for the synthesis of coenzyme A (CoA)?

a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin B2
c) Vitamin B5 d) Vitamin B6
Answer: c) Vitamin B5
Explanation: Vitamin B5 (pantothenic acid) is a precursor to coenzyme A, which is
essential for the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.

40. The main function of the enzyme catalase is to:

a) Break down lipids
b) Convert hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen
c) Synthesize ATP
d) Detoxify ammonia
Answer: b) Convert hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen
Explanation: Catalase breaks down hydrogen peroxide, a harmful byproduct of metabolic
processes, into water and oxygen.

41. Which of the following is a prosthetic group found in hemoglobin?

a) FAD b) NAD+ c) Heme d) CoA

Answer: c) Heme
Explanation: Hemoglobin contains a heme prosthetic group, which binds oxygen through
its central iron atom.

42. What type of enzyme inhibitor binds only to the enzyme-substrate complex, decreasing
both Vmax and Km?
a) Competitive inhibitor
b) Non-competitive inhibitor
c) Uncompetitive inhibitor
d) Allosteric inhibitor

Answer: c) Uncompetitive inhibitor

Explanation: Uncompetitive inhibitors bind to the enzyme-substrate complex, reducing
both the maximum reaction velocity (Vmax) and the Michaelis constant (Km).

43. The role of cytochrome c in the electron transport chain is to:

a) Pump protons across the mitochondrial membrane
b) Transfer electrons between complexes III and IV
c) Generate ATP directly
d) Oxidize NADH

Answer: b) Transfer electrons between complexes III and IV

Explanation: Cytochrome c acts as an electron carrier, transferring electrons from
complex III (cytochrome bc1 complex) to complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase).

44. Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of lactate to pyruvate in the liver during
gluconeogenesis?
a) Lactate dehydrogenase
b) Pyruvate kinase
c) Glucose-6-phosphatase
d) Hexokinase
Answer: a) Lactate dehydrogenase
Explanation: Lactate dehydrogenase converts lactate into pyruvate, which can then be
used in gluconeogenesis to produce glucose.
45. The process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors is called:
a) Glycolysis
b) Gluconeogenesis
c) Glycogenesis
d) Glycogenolysis
Answer: b) Gluconeogenesis
Explanation: Gluconeogenesis is the metabolic pathway that generates glucose from non-
carbohydrate substrates, such as lactate, amino acids, and glycerol.

46. Which of the following is a saturated fatty acid?

a) Linolenic acid
b) Palmitic acid
c) Oleic acid
d) Arachidonic acid
Answer: b) Palmitic acid
Explanation: Palmitic acid is a saturated fatty acid with no double bonds between the
carbon atoms, whereas the others contain one or more double bonds.

47. The process of protein degradation via ubiquitin tagging is known as:
a) Autophagy b) Ubiquitination
c) Proteolysis d) Endocytosis
Answer: b) Ubiquitination
Explanation: Ubiquitination is the process by which proteins are tagged with ubiquitin
molecules, marking them for degradation by the proteasome.

48. Which molecule acts as the final electron acceptor in photosynthesis?

a) Water b) Carbon dioxide c) NADP+ d) Oxygen
Answer: c) NADP+
Explanation: In the light reactions of photosynthesis, NADP+ is the final electron acceptor,
becoming reduced to NADPH, which is used in the Calvin cycle.

49. What is the main product of beta-oxidation of fatty acids?

a) Glucose b) Acetyl-CoA c) Glycerol d) Pyruvate
Answer: b) Acetyl-CoA
Explanation: Beta-oxidation breaks down fatty acids to generate acetyl-CoA, which enters
the citric acid cycle for energy production.

50. Which enzyme is responsible for the degradation of cyclic AMP (cAMP) to AMP?
a) Adenylate cyclase b) Protein kinase A
c) Phosphodiesterase d) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Answer: c) Phosphodiesterase
Explanation: Phosphodiesterase catalyzes the hydrolysis of cyclic AMP (cAMP) into AMP,
thus terminating the signal transduction pathway.

51. Which of the following amino acids is aromatic?

a) Leucine b) Phenylalanine c) Alanine d) Glutamine
Answer: b) Phenylalanine
Explanation: Phenylalanine is an aromatic amino acid with a benzyl side chain, while
leucine, alanine, and glutamine are non-aromatic.

52. Which enzyme is involved in the final step of the electron transport chain, catalyzing
the reduction of oxygen?
a) NADH dehydrogenase
b) Cytochrome c oxidase
c) Succinate dehydrogenase
d) ATP synthase
Answer: b) Cytochrome c oxidase
Explanation: Cytochrome c oxidase catalyzes the transfer of electrons to oxygen, the final
electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, forming water.

53. The synthesis of RNA from a DNA template is called:

a) Translation b) Replication c) Transcription d) Splicing
Answer: c) Transcription
Explanation: Transcription is the process of synthesizing RNA from a DNA template using
RNA polymerase.

54. The disaccharide lactose is composed of which two monosaccharides?

a) Glucose and fructose
b) Glucose and galactose
c) Glucose and glucose
d) Fructose and galactose
Answer: b) Glucose and galactose
Explanation: Lactose, the sugar found in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule and
one galactose molecule.

55. The Cori cycle involves the conversion of lactate to glucose in which organ?
a) Muscle b) Brain c) Kidney d) Liver
Answer: d) Liver
Explanation: The Cori cycle allows lactate produced in the muscles during anaerobic
respiration to be transported to the liver, where it is converted back into glucose.

56. Which enzyme catalyzes the first step in glycolysis?

a) Hexokinase b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase d) Glucose-6-phosphatase
Answer: a) Hexokinase
Explanation: Hexokinase catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate,
the first step in glycolysis.

57. What is the main function of bile salts in digestion?

a) Hydrolyze proteins
b) Emulsify fats
c) Digest carbohydrates
d) Neutralize stomach acid
Answer: b) Emulsify fats
Explanation: Bile salts aid in the digestion and absorption of dietary fats by emulsifying
large fat droplets into smaller ones, increasing their surface area for enzyme action.

58. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

a) Sucrose b) Lactose c) Starch d) Cellulose
Answer: b) Lactose
Explanation: Lactose is a reducing sugar because its glucose unit has a free aldehyde
group that can act as a reducing agent.

59. The enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cAMP from ATP is:
a) Guanylate cyclase b) Phosphodiesterase
c) Adenylate cyclase d) Hexokinase
Answer: c) Adenylate cyclase
Explanation: Adenylate cyclase converts ATP into cyclic AMP (cAMP), a second
messenger involved in many cellular signaling pathways.
60. Which vitamin is required for the synthesis of collagen?
a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin K

Answer: b) Vitamin C
Explanation: Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is essential for the hydroxylation of proline and
lysine residues in collagen, promoting the stabilization of its triple helix structure.

61. What is the main product of the oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway?
a) ATP b) NADPH c) FADH2 d) Pyruvate
Answer: b) NADPH
Explanation: The oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway generates NADPH,
which is used in biosynthetic reactions and antioxidant defense.

62. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA?

a) Pyruvate carboxylase b) Pyruvate kinase
c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase d) Lactate dehydrogenase
Answer: c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Explanation: Pyruvate dehydrogenase catalyzes the irreversible conversion of pyruvate to
acetyl-CoA, linking glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
63. Which molecule is required for the carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to form malonyl-CoA
in fatty acid synthesis?
a) Biotin b) Thiamine c) FAD d) NAD+
Answer: a) Biotin
Explanation: Biotin acts as a coenzyme for acetyl-CoA carboxylase, which catalyzes the
first committed step of fatty acid synthesis, forming malonyl-CoA.

64. Which enzyme removes RNA primers during DNA replication?

a) DNA polymerase I b) DNA polymerase III
c) Helicase d) Ligase
Answer: a) DNA polymerase I
Explanation: DNA polymerase I removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA
during DNA replication in prokaryotes.

65. The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-

phosphate in glycolysis is:
a) Phosphoglucose isomerase b) Hexokinase
c) Phosphofructokinase d) Glucose-6-phosphatase
Answer: a) Phosphoglucose isomerase
Explanation: Phosphoglucose isomerase converts glucose-6-phosphate into fructose-6-
phosphate, an important step in glycolysis.

66. In the TCA cycle, which compound is formed by the decarboxylation of isocitrate?
a) Citrate b) Oxaloacetate c) Alpha-ketoglutarate d) Succinate
Answer: c) Alpha-ketoglutarate
Explanation: Isocitrate is decarboxylated to form alpha-ketoglutarate in a reaction
catalyzed by isocitrate dehydrogenase, releasing CO2 and producing NADH.

67. What is the role of ribosomes in the cell?

a) ATP production b) Protein synthesis
c) DNA replication d) Lipid degradation
Answer: b) Protein synthesis
Explanation: Ribosomes are responsible for translating mRNA into proteins, facilitating
the assembly of amino acids into polypeptide chains.

68. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

a) Tyrosine b) Cysteine c) Tryptophan d) Glutamate
Answer: c) Tryptophan
Explanation: Tryptophan is an essential amino acid that cannot be synthesized by the
body and must be obtained through the diet.

69. Which organelle is primarily responsible for the detoxification of drugs and harmful
substances?
a) Mitochondria b) Golgi apparatus
c) Peroxisomes d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum plays a key role in detoxifying drugs and
harmful substances, especially in liver cells.
70. The enzyme that breaks down starch into maltose and dextrins is:
a) Amylase b) Lipase c) Trypsin d) Pepsin
Answer: a) Amylase
Explanation: Amylase, secreted by the salivary glands and pancreas, breaks down starch
into smaller sugars like maltose and dextrins.

71. The enzyme responsible for the final step in the synthesis of urea in the urea cycle is:
a) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase b) Arginase
c) Ornithine transcarbamylase d) Citrulline
Answer: b) Arginase
Explanation: Arginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of arginine to form urea and ornithine, the
final step in the urea cycle.

72. Which molecule acts as a second messenger in many hormone signaling pathways?
a) ATP b) cAMP c) Glucose d) Pyruvate
Answer: b) cAMP
Explanation: Cyclic AMP (cAMP) is a second messenger involved in signal transduction
pathways, relaying signals from hormones like adrenaline.
73. Which vitamin acts as a cofactor for carboxylation reactions in blood clotting?
a) Vitamin B12 b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D
Answer: b) Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin K is necessary for the carboxylation of glutamate residues in
clotting factors, which allows them to bind calcium and participate in the coagulation
cascade.

74. The process by which a non-competitive inhibitor affects enzyme activity is by:
a) Binding to the active site
b) Binding to a different site, causing a conformational change
c) Increasing substrate concentration
d) Reducing enzyme production
Answer: b) Binding to a different site, causing a conformational change
Explanation: Non-competitive inhibitors bind to an allosteric site on the enzyme, changing
its shape and reducing its activity without competing for the active site.

75. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to:

a) Sequence DNA b) Replicate RNA
c) Amplify DNA d) Transcribe genes
Answer: c) Amplify DNA
Explanation: PCR is a technique used to amplify specific DNA sequences, generating
millions of copies of a particular DNA fragment.
76. Which of the following sugars is a component of RNA?
a) Deoxyribose b) Ribose c) Fructose d) Galactose
Answer: b) Ribose
Explanation: Ribose is the sugar found in the backbone of RNA molecules, whereas
deoxyribose is found in DNA.

77. Which of the following molecules inhibits the enzyme phosphofructokinase in

glycolysis?
a) AMP b) Citrate c) ADP d) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
Answer: b) Citrate
Explanation: Citrate acts as an allosteric inhibitor of phosphofructokinase, signaling a
high energy state in the cell and slowing down glycolysis.

78. Which of the following enzymes is required for the elongation phase of transcription?
a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase
c) Topoisomerase d) Ligase
Answer: b) RNA polymerase
Explanation: RNA polymerase is the enzyme responsible for synthesizing RNA from a
DNA template during the elongation phase of transcription.

79. The process of converting glucose to pyruvate in the absence of oxygen is called:
a) Aerobic respiration b) Fermentation
c) Anaerobic glycolysis d) Oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: c) Anaerobic glycolysis
Explanation: Anaerobic glycolysis is the breakdown of glucose into pyruvate without
oxygen, producing a small amount of ATP and lactate as a byproduct.

80. The energy produced by the electron transport chain is used to drive the synthesis of
ATP through:
a) Substrate-level phosphorylation
b) Oxidative phosphorylation
c) Photophosphorylation
d) Glycolysis
Answer: b) Oxidative phosphorylation
Explanation: The electron transport chain generates a proton gradient across the inner
mitochondrial membrane, driving ATP synthesis via oxidative phosphorylation.

81. Which of the following cofactors is essential for the function of pyruvate carboxylase in
gluconeogenesis?
a) Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) b) Biotin
c) FAD d) NADP+
Answer: b) Biotin
Explanation: Biotin serves as a cofactor for pyruvate carboxylase, an enzyme that
catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis.
82. In glycogen metabolism, which enzyme is responsible for breaking alpha-1,6 glycosidic
bonds during glycogenolysis?
a) Glycogen phosphorylase b) Debranching enzyme
c) Phosphoglucomutase d) Glucokinase
Answer: b) Debranching enzyme
Explanation: The debranching enzyme cleaves alpha-1,6 glycosidic bonds, releasing free
glucose molecules from glycogen during glycogenolysis.

83. The primary function of lipoprotein lipase is to:

a) Hydrolyze cholesterol esters
b) Hydrolyze triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol
c) Transport lipids in the bloodstream
d) Synthesize triglycerides
Answer: b) Hydrolyze triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol
Explanation: Lipoprotein lipase breaks down triglycerides in lipoproteins, releasing free
fatty acids and glycerol, which can be taken up by cells.

84. Which molecule is considered the "universal energy currency" of the cell?
a) NADH b) FADH2 c) ATP d) GTP
Answer: c) ATP
Explanation: ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the primary molecule used by cells to store
and transfer energy for various metabolic processes.

85. Which enzyme catalyzes the first committed step of the citric acid cycle?
a) Citrate synthase b) Aconitase
c) Isocitrate dehydrogenase d) Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Answer: a) Citrate synthase
Explanation: Citrate synthase catalyzes the condensation of oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA
to form citrate, marking the first committed step of the citric acid cycle.

86. The enzyme ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (RuBisCO) is involved

in:
a) Nitrogen fixation b) Glycolysis
c) The Calvin cycle d) The Krebs cycle
Answer: c) The Calvin cycle
Explanation: RuBisCO catalyzes the fixation of carbon dioxide into organic molecules in
the Calvin cycle during photosynthesis.

87. In protein translation, what is the function of the anticodon found on tRNA molecules?
a) It binds to the ribosome
b) It catalyzes peptide bond formation
c) It base-pairs with the corresponding codon on mRNA
d) It initiates transcription
Answer: c) It base-pairs with the corresponding codon on mRNA
Explanation: The anticodon of a tRNA molecule is complementary to a specific mRNA
codon, ensuring that the correct amino acid is added to the growing polypeptide chain.

88. Which enzyme catalyzes the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP in the mitochondria?
a) Hexokinase b) ATP synthase
c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase d) Phosphofructokinase
Answer: b) ATP synthase
Explanation: ATP synthase catalyzes the formation of ATP from ADP and inorganic
phosphate, using the energy from the proton gradient generated by the electron transport
chain.

89. In the pentose phosphate pathway, which enzyme catalyzes the oxidative
decarboxylation of 6-phosphogluconate to ribulose-5-phosphate?
a) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
b) 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
c) Transketolase d) Ribose-5-phosphate isomerase
Answer: b) 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
Explanation: 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation
of 6-phosphogluconate, forming ribulose-5-phosphate and releasing NADPH and CO2.
90. Which molecule serves as the primary donor of one-carbon units in biosynthetic
reactions?
a) Tetrahydrofolate b) Coenzyme A
c) Biotin d) Thiamine pyrophosphate
Answer: a) Tetrahydrofolate
Explanation: Tetrahydrofolate (THF) is a cofactor that transfers one-carbon units in
various biosynthetic reactions, including the synthesis of purines and thymidylate.

91. In the case of hypoxia, which metabolic pathway becomes more active in cells?
a) Beta-oxidation b) Anaerobic glycolysis
c) Oxidative phosphorylation d) Gluconeogenesis
Answer: b) Anaerobic glycolysis
Explanation: Under hypoxic conditions (low oxygen), cells rely more on anaerobic
glycolysis for ATP production, leading to the formation of lactate.

92. Which of the following is a ketogenic amino acid?

a) Alanine b) Leucine c) Glutamine d) Serine
Answer: b) Leucine
Explanation: Leucine is classified as a ketogenic amino acid because its degradation results
in the formation of acetyl-CoA, which can be used to produce ketone bodies.

93. The zymogen form of pepsin is called:

a) Pepsinogen b) Trypsinogen
c) Chymotrypsinogen d) Proelastase
Answer: a) Pepsinogen
Explanation: Pepsinogen is the inactive precursor (zymogen) of pepsin, which is activated
in the acidic environment of the stomach to digest proteins.

94. Which nucleotide is used as a cofactor in many biosynthetic processes, including

protein synthesis and gluconeogenesis?
a) ATP b) UTP c) GTP d) CTP
Answer: c) GTP
Explanation: GTP (guanosine triphosphate) is used as a cofactor in various biosynthetic
pathways, including protein synthesis and gluconeogenesis.
95. The bond that links two monosaccharides in a disaccharide is called a:
a) Hydrogen bond
b) Peptide bond
c) Glycosidic bond
d) Ester bond
Answer: c) Glycosidic bond
Explanation: A glycosidic bond is formed between the anomeric carbon of one
monosaccharide and a hydroxyl group of another, linking two sugars together.

96. The enzyme responsible for the reduction of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate is:
a) Folate hydrolase b) Dihydrofolate reductase
c) Transaminase d) Methionine synthase
Answer: b) Dihydrofolate reductase
Explanation: Dihydrofolate reductase catalyzes the reduction of dihydrofolate to
tetrahydrofolate, which is crucial for DNA synthesis and repair.

97. Which of the following hormones stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver?
a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Aldosterone d) Thyroxine
Answer: b) Glucagon
Explanation: Glucagon signals the liver to break down glycogen into glucose when blood
sugar levels are low, promoting glycogenolysis.

98. What is the main purpose of the urea cycle?

a) To produce energy
b) To synthesize amino acids
c) To detoxify ammonia by converting it to urea
d) To store nitrogen
Answer: c) To detoxify ammonia by converting it to urea
Explanation: The urea cycle converts toxic ammonia, a byproduct of amino acid
metabolism, into urea, which can be safely excreted in the urine.
99. Which cofactor is required for transamination reactions, where amino groups are
transferred between amino acids and alpha-keto acids?
a) Thiamine
b) Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)
c) Biotin
d) NADP+
Answer: b) Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)
Explanation: Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), derived from vitamin B6, is the cofactor
required for transaminase enzymes in transamination reactions.

100. The major storage form of glucose in animals is:

a) Starch b) Cellulose c) Glycogen d) Sucrose
Answer: c) Glycogen
Explanation: Glycogen is the primary storage form of glucose in animals, particularly in
the liver and muscles, where it can be mobilized to maintain blood glucose levels.

101. Which of the following is a primary role of coenzyme A (CoA) in metabolism?

a) Oxidation of fatty acids
b) Transfer of acyl groups
c) Hydrolysis of ATP
d) Formation of amino acids
Answer: b) Transfer of acyl groups
Explanation: Coenzyme A acts as a carrier of acyl groups in various biochemical
reactions, including the synthesis and oxidation of fatty acids.

102. The major product of beta-oxidation of fatty acids is:

a) Acetyl-CoA b) Pyruvate
c) Oxaloacetate d) Lactate
Answer: a) Acetyl-CoA
Explanation: Beta-oxidation of fatty acids breaks down long fatty acid chains into acetyl-
CoA molecules, which can then enter the citric acid cycle for further energy production.

103. Which enzyme is responsible for adding a poly-A tail to mRNA molecules in
eukaryotes?
a) RNA polymerase II b) Poly-A polymerase
c) Helicase d) DNA ligase
Answer: b) Poly-A polymerase
Explanation: Poly-A polymerase adds a string of adenine nucleotides (poly-A tail) to the 3'
end of eukaryotic mRNA molecules, which is important for mRNA stability and export
from the nucleus.

104. The enzyme telomerase is important for:

a) DNA replication b) DNA repair
c) Extending telomeres at the ends of chromosomes
d) Gene expression
Answer: c) Extending telomeres at the ends of chromosomes
Explanation: Telomerase extends the telomeres at the ends of chromosomes, preventing
their shortening during DNA replication and protecting the chromosome's integrity.

105. What is the role of chaperone proteins in the cell?

a) Catalyzing chemical reactions
b) Assisting in protein folding
c) Degrading misfolded proteins
d) Synthesizing nucleotides
Answer: b) Assisting in protein folding
Explanation: Chaperone proteins help newly synthesized polypeptides fold into their
correct three-dimensional structures, preventing aggregation and misfolding.

106. Which enzyme is involved in the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate

(PIP2) to produce two second messengers?
a) Phospholipase C
b) Adenylyl cyclase
c) Protein kinase A
d) Tyrosine kinase
Answer: a) Phospholipase C
Explanation: Phospholipase C hydrolyzes PIP2 to produce two important second
messengers, diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol trisphosphate (IP3), which regulate cellular
signaling pathways.

107. Which type of enzyme catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to a
substrate?
a) Hydrolase b) Kinase c) Phosphatase d) Ligase
Answer: b) Kinase
Explanation: Kinases catalyze the transfer of phosphate groups from ATP to specific
substrates, playing a key role in regulating cellular activities like signal transduction and
metabolism.

108. The major role of hemoglobin in the blood is to:

a) Transport oxygen from the lungs to tissues
b) Convert carbon dioxide into bicarbonate
c) Carry fatty acids to muscle cells
d) Produce ATP
Answer: a) Transport oxygen from the lungs to tissues
Explanation: Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that binds oxygen in the lungs and
releases it to tissues, facilitating oxygen transport.

109. Which of the following hormones is derived from cholesterol?

a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Cortisol d) Thyroxine
Answer: c) Cortisol
Explanation: Cortisol is a steroid hormone derived from cholesterol and is involved in
regulating metabolism and the immune response.

110. What is the main function of cytochrome c in the electron transport chain?
a) Proton pumping
b) Electron transfer between complexes III and IV
c) ATP synthesis
d) Glucose transport
Answer: b) Electron transfer between complexes III and IV
Explanation: Cytochrome c acts as a mobile electron carrier, transferring electrons from
complex III to complex IV in the mitochondrial electron transport chain.

111. Which vitamin is a precursor to NAD+ and NADP+?

a) Vitamin B6 b) Niacin (Vitamin B3)
c) Riboflavin (Vitamin B2) d) Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
Answer: b) Niacin (Vitamin B3)
Explanation: Niacin (Vitamin B3) is a precursor to the cofactors NAD+ and NADP+,
which play critical roles in oxidation-reduction reactions in metabolism.

112. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in

glycolysis?
a) Hexokinase b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase d) Glucose-6-phosphatase
Answer: a) Hexokinase
Explanation: Hexokinase catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate,
the first step in the glycolytic pathway.

113. Which cofactor is required by pyruvate dehydrogenase for the conversion of pyruvate
to acetyl-CoA?
a) FAD b) Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)
c) Biotin d) NADP+
Answer: b) Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)
Explanation: Pyruvate dehydrogenase requires thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) as a
cofactor for the decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl-CoA.

114. Which molecule is the main storage form of energy in adipose tissue?
a) Glycogen b) Triglycerides c) ATP d) Cholesterol
Answer: b) Triglycerides
Explanation: Triglycerides are the primary form of stored energy in adipose tissue,
providing fatty acids for energy production when needed.
115. The major function of NADPH in cells is to:
a) Generate ATP b) Act as a reducing agent in biosynthetic reactions
c) Participate in the electron transport chain
d) Transport fatty acids
Answer: b) Act as a reducing agent in biosynthetic reactions
Explanation: NADPH is used as a reducing agent in anabolic processes, such as fatty acid
and nucleotide synthesis, as well as in detoxification reactions.

116. What is the role of RNA polymerase in the cell?

a) Replication of DNA b) Synthesis of RNA from a DNA template
c) Translation of mRNA into protein d) Modification of proteins
Answer: b) Synthesis of RNA from a DNA template
Explanation: RNA polymerase synthesizes RNA from a DNA template during
transcription, producing mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA.

117. The main product of the Calvin cycle in photosynthesis is:

a) Glucose b) Oxygen c) NADPH
d) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)
Answer: d) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)
Explanation: The Calvin cycle produces glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P), a three-
carbon sugar that can be used to form glucose and other carbohydrates.

118. Which enzyme catalyzes the production of cAMP from ATP?

a) Adenylyl cyclase b) Guanylyl cyclase
c) Phosphodiesterase d) Protein kinase A
Answer: a) Adenylyl cyclase
Explanation: Adenylyl cyclase catalyzes the conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP), an
important second messenger in many signaling pathways.

119. In eukaryotic cells, the citric acid cycle occurs in the:

a) Cytoplasm b) Nucleus
c) Mitochondrial matrix d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: c) Mitochondrial matrix
Explanation: The citric acid cycle takes place in the mitochondrial matrix, where acetyl-
CoA is oxidized to produce ATP, NADH, and FADH2.

120. Which of the following processes directly produces the most ATP per glucose
molecule?
a) Glycolysis b) Citric acid cycle
c) Oxidative phosphorylation d) Fermentation
Answer: c) Oxidative phosphorylation
Explanation: Oxidative phosphorylation generates the most ATP per glucose molecule,
utilizing the proton gradient created by the electron transport chain in mitochondria.

121. Which of the following amino acids can form disulfide bonds?
a) Methionine b) Serine c) Cysteine d) Alanine
Answer: c) Cysteine
Explanation: Cysteine contains a thiol (-SH) group that can form disulfide bonds with
another cysteine, stabilizing protein structure.

122. In DNA replication, which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing the RNA primer?
a) DNA polymerase b) Primase
c) Helicase d) Ligase
Answer: b) Primase
Explanation: Primase synthesizes short RNA primers that provide a starting point for
DNA polymerase to begin DNA synthesis.

123. Which molecule is the main precursor for the synthesis of eicosanoids like
prostaglandins?
a) Linoleic acid b) Arachidonic acid
c) Acetyl-CoA d) Palmitic acid
Answer: b) Arachidonic acid
Explanation: Arachidonic acid is a polyunsaturated fatty acid that serves as the precursor
for the synthesis of eicosanoids, including prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes.

124. Which enzyme in the citric acid cycle catalyzes the substrate-level phosphorylation of
GDP to GTP?
a) Citrate synthase
b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
c) Succinyl-CoA synthetase
d) Malate dehydrogenase
Answer: c) Succinyl-CoA synthetase
Explanation: Succinyl-CoA synthetase catalyzes the conversion of succinyl-CoA to
succinate, generating GTP in the process via substrate-level phosphorylation.

125. The primary function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is to:

a) Synthesize lipids and detoxify drugs
b) Produce ATP c) Replicate DNA
d) Degrade proteins
Answer: a) Synthesize lipids and detoxify drugs
Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in lipid synthesis, steroid
hormone production, and detoxification of drugs and harmful substances in cells.

126. The TATA box is important for:

a) Initiation of transcription b) Splicing of RNA
c) DNA replication d) Translation
Answer: a) Initiation of transcription
Explanation: The TATA box is a DNA sequence found in many eukaryotic promoters that
helps position RNA polymerase II for the initiation of transcription.
127. Which molecule is the major carrier of reducing equivalents in the pentose phosphate
pathway?
a) NADH b) FADH2 c) NADPH d) ATP
Answer: c) NADPH
Explanation: NADPH is generated in the pentose phosphate pathway and is used in
reductive biosynthetic reactions, such as fatty acid and nucleotide synthesis.

128. In which organ does gluconeogenesis primarily occur?

a) Muscle b) Liver c) Kidney d) Brain
Answer: b) Liver
Explanation: The liver is the main site of gluconeogenesis, where glucose is synthesized
from non-carbohydrate precursors, such as lactate, glycerol, and amino acids.

129. What is the end product of anaerobic glycolysis in muscle cells?

a) Acetyl-CoA b) Ethanol c) Lactic acid d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: c) Lactic acid
Explanation: Under anaerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted to lactic acid in muscle
cells to regenerate NAD+, allowing glycolysis to continue in the absence of oxygen.

130. Which molecule is required for the activation of fatty acids for beta-oxidation?
a) Acetyl-CoA b) Malonyl-CoA c) Carnitine d) Coenzyme A
Answer: d) Coenzyme A
Explanation: Fatty acids are activated by conjugation with Coenzyme A (forming acyl-
CoA) before being transported into the mitochondria for beta-oxidation.
131. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of pyruvate to lactate under
anaerobic conditions?
a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
b) Lactate dehydrogenase
c) Pyruvate carboxylase
d) Pyruvate kinase
Answer: b) Lactate dehydrogenase
Explanation: Lactate dehydrogenase catalyzes the reduction of pyruvate to lactate under
anaerobic conditions, regenerating NAD+ for glycolysis.

132. Which of the following vitamins is required for the proper functioning of the blood
clotting cascade?
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin E
Answer: b) Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin K is necessary for the carboxylation of specific glutamate residues in
clotting factors, which is essential for their activation and proper function in blood
clotting.

133. The enzyme reverse transcriptase is typically found in:

a) DNA viruses b) Bacteria
c) Retroviruses d) Mitochondria
Answer: c) Retroviruses
Explanation: Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme found in retroviruses, such as HIV, that
converts their RNA genome into DNA, allowing it to be integrated into the host genome.
134. Which of the following processes occurs in the mitochondrial matrix?
a) Glycolysis
b) Citric acid cycle
c) Oxidative phosphorylation
d) Fatty acid synthesis
Answer: b) Citric acid cycle
Explanation: The citric acid cycle takes place in the mitochondrial matrix, where acetyl-
CoA is oxidized to produce NADH, FADH2, and GTP.

135. What is the function of ubiquitin in the cell?

a) Signal transduction
b) Protein degradation
c) RNA synthesis
d) DNA replication
Answer: b) Protein degradation
Explanation: Ubiquitin tags proteins for degradation by the proteasome, helping regulate
protein turnover and remove damaged or misfolded proteins.

136. The enzyme that catalyzes the first step of fatty acid synthesis is:
a) Fatty acid synthase
b) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
c) Malonyl-CoA synthase
d) HMG-CoA reductase
Answer: b) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Explanation: Acetyl-CoA carboxylase catalyzes the carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to form
malonyl-CoA, the first committed step in fatty acid biosynthesis.

137. In hemoglobin, the binding of oxygen to one subunit increases the affinity of the
remaining subunits for oxygen. This phenomenon is known as:
a) Cooperativity
b) Allosteric inhibition
c) Feedback inhibition
d) Noncompetitive inhibition
Answer: a) Cooperativity
Explanation: Cooperativity refers to the increased binding affinity of hemoglobin subunits
for oxygen after the first oxygen molecule binds, facilitating oxygen loading in the lungs.

138. The polymerization of actin monomers into filaments is driven by:

a) ATP hydrolysis b) GTP hydrolysis
c) Phosphorylation d) Oxidation
Answer: a) ATP hydrolysis
Explanation: Actin monomers polymerize into filaments in an ATP-dependent manner,
with ATP hydrolysis providing the energy required for filament assembly and dynamics.

139. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-

1,6-bisphosphate in glycolysis?
a) Phosphoglycerate kinase
b) Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
c) Aldolase d) Hexokinase
Answer: b) Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
Explanation: PFK-1 is a key regulatory enzyme in glycolysis, catalyzing the
phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate, a committed step in
the pathway.

140. The pentose phosphate pathway primarily serves to:

a) Generate ATP
b) Provide ribose-5-phosphate for nucleotide synthesis and NADPH for reductive
biosynthesis
c) Synthesize fatty acids d) Produce pyruvate
Answer: b) Provide ribose-5-phosphate for nucleotide synthesis and NADPH for reductive
biosynthesis
Explanation: The pentose phosphate pathway produces ribose-5-phosphate, which is
essential for nucleotide synthesis, and NADPH, which is required for anabolic reactions
like fatty acid and cholesterol synthesis.
 PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION
Section : Graduation in Chemistry
Q.1 What will be the pH value, in case of a strong acid and a strong base?

1. pH=7✔
2. pH cannot be determined
3. pH >7
4. pH<7

Q.2 The average of the sum of the absolute values of deviation from any arbitrary value
viz. mean, median, mode is called______

1. Mean deviation✔
2. Precision
3. Standard deviation
4. Variance

Q.3 What is the absorption of radiation in ultraviolet regions of electromagnetic

spectrum?
1. (50-75)nm

2. (200-400)nm✔
3. (400-750)nm
4. (100-200)nm
Q.4 Which of the following is the organic precipitating agent?
1. CO3
2. PO4

3. Dimethglyoxime✔
4.s2

Q.5 The process in which a solution containing a metallic salt/metallic compound is

aspirated into a flame, is called
1. Emission spectroscopy
2. Atomic absorption spectroscopy

3.Flame emission spectroscopy✔

4. Scanning electron microscopy

Q7. In the determination of the hardness of water which metal ion is used?
1. Bromothymol Blue

2. Solochrome Black✔
3. Phenolphthalein
4. Litmus paper
Q.8 In NMR spectrum of benzyl alcohol if the value of 5 = 2.4, what kind of peak will be
obtained?

1. Single Sharp peak✔

2. Triplet
3. Doublet
4. Quartet

Q.9 _______are isolated unsaturated groups present in a compound which impart colour
to the molecules of the compound by absorbing characteristic wavelength in UW-V is
region.

1. Chromophores✔
2. Hyperchromic
3. Auxochores
4. Hypsochromic

Q.10 The molecules coming off the HPLC column are detected by which of the following?
1. Mass spectrometer

2. Ultraviolet spectrophotometer✔
3. NMR spectrometer
4. Optical spectrometer
Q.11 When a large distribution ratio is readily obtainable for a solute, i.e. it is very high
for the solute (or compound) to be separated from a mixture or from the impurities, then
simple extraction be called as
1. Fractional extraction

2. Batch extraction✔
3. Continuous extraction
4. Counter current extraction

Q.12 Which method uses ion-exchange materials to separate mixture depending on their
acid-base properties and electric charge?
1. Gas chromatography

2. Ion-Exchange Chromatography✔
3. Adsorption chromatography
4. Molecular chromatography

Q.13 Which of the following is NOT the correct Example of Amperometric Titration?

1. Ethanoic acid and sodium hydroxide titration✔

2. Determination of SO; with Lead (II) nitrate solution.
3. Determination of lead with standard dichromate solution.
4. Determination of Zinc with EDTA
Q.14 Rf / this formula used for which chromatography technique?
1. Gas chromatography

2. Paper chromatography✔
3. Molecular chromatography
4. High pressure liquid chromatography

Q.15 ‘Raman shift’ in Raman spectroscopy is defined by which of the following

expression?

1. A=v,-¥,✔
2. A=v,-—v,
3. A=v,+V1,
4 A=v,-Vv

Q.16 is used for tracing metal analysis of alloys, ultra-pure metals, minerals/metallurgy,
environmental analysis, foodstuffs, beverages and body-fluids, toxicology and clinical
analysis.
1. Voltammetry

2. Polarography✔
3. Flame photometry
4. MRI
Q17. Which of the following is NOT the part of a Stripping voltammetry?
1. Anodic stripping voltammetry
2. Adsorptive stripping voltammetry
3. Cathodic stripping voltammetry

4. Absorptive stripping voltammetry✔

Q.19 Name the device used to detect the emerging components by the means of their
thermal conductivity.
1. Flame Ionization Detector
2. Thermal Conductivity Detector

3. Katharometer✔
4. Ultraviolet Detectors

Q.20 Initial velocity of precipitation, where “28 is the concentration of a species at an

instant and S is equilibrium solubility. Q-S represents which of the following?
1. Degree of dispersion at the moment precipitation begins.

2.Degree of super saturation at the moment precipitation begins.✔

3. Degree of saturation at the moment precipitation begins.
4. Degree of dissolution at the moment precipitation begins.
Q.21 = The separation between the peak of the reference standard (TMS) and any other
peak in an NMR spectrum is called

1. Chemical shift✔
2. Up field shift
3. Sideline shift
4. Downfield shift

Q.22 The number of moles of the solute dissolved in | L of the solution is called
1. Formality
2. Molality
3. Normality

4. Molarity✔

Q.23 is used to study topography, composition and morphology of surface of the biological
specimens. It also provides three-dimensional image of cell surface.
1. NMR spectroscopy
2. Transmission Electron Microscopy

3. Scanning Electron Microscopy✔

4. Atomic absorption spectroscopy
Q.24 Adsorption chromatography is also known as
1. Liquid chromatography
2. Paper chromatography
3. Gas chromatography

4. Partition Column chromatography✔

Q25.The difference between a true value and its approximate value (estimated or
observed) is called
1. Indeterminate error

2. Absolute Error✔
3. Determinate error
4. Percentage Error

Q.26 Which of the following spectroscopic technique is used to determine the presence of
metals in liquid samples?

1. Atomic absorption spectroscopy✔

2. Mass spectroscopy
3. IR spectroscopy
4. Raman spectroscopy
Q.27 Which of the following is the correct expression for Molality?

1. Molality = (number of moles of solute)/(mass of solvent in kg)✔

2.Molality = (number of moles of solute)/(volume of solution in 1)
3. Molality = (grams of equivalents of solute)/(volume of solution in 1)
4. Molality = (grams of equivalents of solute)/(mass of solvent in kg)

Q.28 is the general name given to a group of electroanalytical methods in which the
current is measured as a function of applied potential.
1. Spectrometry

2. Voltammetry✔
3. Flame photometry
4. Emission spectrometry

Q.29 In which spectroscopy technique organic molecules are vaporized and bombarded
with the beam of very high energy electrons?
1. IR
2. NMR

3. Mass✔
4. FITR