AMDA-Nepal

AMDA Institute of Health Science, Damak

Written Examination

Time: One hour

Name

Roll Number

Signature

For Office Use

Notice Number 009909/11/2080/81

Vacancy Number 01/9909

Position Officer (Nursing Instructor)

Written Test Date 2081.02.05 (18 May 2024)

DECODE
 Full marks 50

Total correct answer

Total score obtained

Invigilators Name/Signature

1.

2.

3.

Multiple Choice Question (MCQ). Encircle the best answer of the given
questions. There is no negative marking. Each question carries equal 1
mark. 1x50=50

1. A 25-year-old male is admitted in sickle cell crisis. Which of the following interventions would be of
highest priority for this client?
a) Taking hourly blood pressures with mechanical cuff
b) Encouraging fluid intake of at least 200mL per hour
c) Position in high Fowler’s with knee gatch raised
d) Administering Tylenol as ordered

2. Which of the following foods would the nurse encourage the client in sickle cell crisis to eat?
a) Steak
b) Cottage cheese
c) Popsicle
d) Lima beans
3. The body part that would most likely display jaundice in the dark- skinned individual is the:
a) Conjunctiva of the eye
b) Soles of the feet
c) Roof of the mouth
d) Shins

4. The client with a history of diabetes insipidus is admitted with polyuria, polydipsia, and mental
confusion. The priority intervention for this client is:
a) Measure the urinary output.
b) Check the vital signs.
c) Encourage increased fluid intake.
d) Weigh the client.

5. A client has had a unilateral adrenalectomy to remove a tumor. The most important measurement in
the immediate post-operative period for the nurse to take is:
a) The blood pressure
b) The temperature
c) The urinary output
d) The specific gravity of the urine

6. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor.During examination, the nurse notes
a papular lesion on the perineum. Which initial action is most appropriate?
a) Document the finding.
b) Report the finding to the doctor.
c) Prepare the client for a C-section.
d) Continue primary care as prescribed.

7. A client with a diagnosis of HPV is at risk for which of the following?

a) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b) Cervical cancer
c) Multiple myeloma
d) Ovarian cancer

8. A 15-year-old primigravida is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of HELLP syndrome. Which

laboratory finding is associated with HELLP syndrome?
a) Elevated blood glucose
b) Elevated platelet count
c) Elevated creatinine clearance
d) Elevated hepatic enzymes
9. A primigravida with diabetes is admitted to the labor and delivery unit at 34 weeks gestation. Which
doctor’s order should the nurse question?

A. Magnesium sulfate 4gm (25%) IV

B. Brethine 10mcg IV

C. Stadol 1mg IV push every 4 hours as needed prn for pain

D. Ancef 2gm IVPB every 6 hours

10. A client has cancer of the pancreas. The nurse should be most concerned about which nursing
diagnosis?

A. Alteration in nutrition

B. Alteration in bowel elimination

C. Alteration in skin integrity

D. Ineffective individual coping

11. Which selection would provide the most calcium for the client who is four months pregnant?

A. A granola bar

B. A bran muffin

C. A cup of yogurt

D. A glass of fruit juice

12. The best size cathlon for administration of a blood transfusion to a six-year-old is:

A. 18 gauge

B. 19 gauge

C. 22 gauge

D. 20 gauge
13. The client is having electroconvulsive therapy for treatment of severe depression. Prior to the ECT,
the nurse should:

A. Apply a tourniquet to the client’s arm.

B. Administer an anticonvulsant medication

C. Ask the client if he is allergic to shellfish.

D. Apply a blood pressure cuff to the arm.

14. Before administering eardrops to a toddler, the nurse should recognize that it is essential to consider
which of the following?

A. The age of the child

B. The child’s weight

C. The developmental level of the child

D. The IQ of the child

15. A priority nursing diagnosis for a child being admitted from surgery following a tonsillectomy is:

A. Altered nutrition

B. Impaired communication

C. Risk for injury/aspiration

D. Altered urinary elimination

16. Which action is contraindicated in the client with epiglottis?

A. Ambulation

B. Oral airway assessment using a tongue blade

C. Placing a blood pressure cuff on the arm

D. Checking the deep tendon reflexes.

17. The first action that the nurse should take if she finds the client has an O2 saturation of 68% is:

A. Elevate the head.

B. Recheck the O2 saturation in 30 minutes.

C. Apply oxygen by mask.

D. Assess the heart rate.

18. The client taking Glyburide (Diabeta) should be cautioned to:

A. Avoid eating sweets.

B. Report changes in urinary pattern.

C. Allow three hours for onset.

D. Check the glucose daily.

19. A vaginal exam reveals a footling breech presentation. The nurse should take which of the following
actions at this time?

A. Anticipate the need for a Caesarean section.

B. Apply an internal fetal monitor.

C. Place the client in Genu Pectoral position.

D. Perform an ultrasound.

20. A vaginal exam reveals that the cervix is 4cm dilated, with intact membranes and a fetal heart tone
rate of 160–170bpm. The nurse decides to apply an external fetal monitor. The rationale for this
implementation is:

A. The cervix is closed.

B. The membranes are still intact.

 C. The fetal heart tones are within normal limits.

D. The contractions are intense enough for insertion of an internal monitor.

21. The client with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for developing:

A. Respiratory alkalosis without dehydration

B. Metabolic acidosis with dehydration

C. Respiratory acidosis without dehydration

D. Metabolic alkalosis with dehydration

22. The elderly client is admitted to the emergency room. Which symptom is the client with a fractured
hip most likely to exhibit?

A. Pain

B. Disalignment

C. Cool extremity

D. Absence of pedal pulses

23. The nurse knows that a 60-year-old female client’s susceptibility to osteoporosis is most likely related
to:

A. Lack of exercise

B. Hormonal disturbances

C. Lack of calcium

D. Genetic predisposition

24. The client is admitted for an open reduction internal fixation of a fractured hip. Immediately
following surgery, the nurse should give priority to assessing the:
 A. Serum collection (Davol) drain

B. Client’s pain

C. Nutritional status

D. Immobilizer

25. A client with osteoarthritis has a prescription for Celebrex (celecoxib). Which instruction should be
included in the discharge teaching?

A. Take the medication with milk.

B. Report chest pain.

C. Remain upright after taking for 30 minutes.

D. Allow six weeks for optimal effects.

26. The first step in newborn resuscitation is

a) Suctioning of the throat
b) Patting on the sole
c) Dry the baby
d) Chest Compression

27. A newborn has the following findings at 5 minutes of life: Pulse 126bpm, cyanotic hands and feet,
some flexion, irregular respiration and grimace. The newborn APGAR score is:
a) 8
b) 7
c) 6
d) 5

28. Which one of the following is the leading cause of mortality in under five children in developing
countries?
a) Measles
b) Acute lower respiratory tract infection
c) Prematurity
d) Malaria

29. Positive Kernig’s sign indicates

a) Pain and resistance to knee extension
b) Pain and resistance to knee and hip flexion
c) Pain on hyper extension of neck and spine
 d) Pain on flexion of neck and spine

30. Which of the following is a danger sign in the newborn baby?

a) Breathing 70 beats/min
b) Temperature 36oC
c) 3-4 pustules in skin
d) Abdominal movement during breathing

31. Right order of sub-groups of affective domain is

a) Receiving, Responding, Valuing, Characterization, Organization
b) Receiving, Responding, Characterization, Valuing, Organization
c) Receiving, Valuing, Responding, Organization, Characterization
d) Receiving, Responding, Valuing, Organization, Characterization

32. M.C.Q. are effectively used to test

a) Psychomotor Skills
b) Attitude and Behavior
c) Communication Skills
d) Cognitive Skills

33. Curriculum development begins with

a) Conceptual framework
b) Philosophy
c) Content
d) Objective

34. For the evaluation of the student’s achievement, what should be considered first?
a) Resource available
b) Content covered
c) Types of evaluation
d) Objective of the learner

35. To change the behavior, which of the following will be the best way?
a) Lecture
b) Discussion
c) Role Play
d) Demonstration

36. At the end of clinical posting, PCL 2nd year nursing student will be able to develop care plan of
assigned patient is behavioral objective of
a) Comprehension of cognitive domain
b) Analysis of cognitive domain
c) Synthesis of cognitive domain
d) Psychomotor domain

37. Which neurotransmitter is most commonly associated with depression?

a) Dopamine
 b) Norepinephrine

c) Serotonin

d) Acetylcholine

38. In which disorder are "flashbacks" a common symptom?

a) Generalized Anxiety Disorder

b) Major Depressive Disorder
c) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
d) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

39. Before administering Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT), which of the following pre-procedure
assessments is most important?

a) Obtaining informed consent

b) Measuring the patient’s height and weight
c) Conducting a detailed dietary history
d) Evaluating the patient’s vision and hearing

40. Flight of idea is found in

a) Mania
b) Schizophrenia
c) Psychoneurosis
d) Depression

41. The curriculum of B.SC. Nursing is based on

a) Environment Theory
b) Adaption Theory
c) Problem Solving Theory
d) Neuman Theory
42. Which of the following is not included in four metaparadigms of nursing theory?

a) Health
b) Illness
c) Person
d) Nursing

43. Which immunoglobulin crosses placenta

a) IgG
b) IgA
c) IgD
d) IgM

44. The pregnant women at 36 weeks of gestation came in emergency with constant abdominal pain, hard
and tender abdomen and severe PV bleeding. What is the nurse’s priority action?
a) Transfer the mother for CS
b) Start oxytocin infusion
c) Change sterile gown and catheterize
d) Take history

45. The government of Nepal introduced free maternity services in Nepal from
a) 2007
b) 2008
c) 2009
d) 2010

46. According to Nepal Maternal Mortality Report 2021, maternal mortality rate is
a) 151 per 100,000 live birth
b) 174 per 100,000 live birth
c) 182 per 100,000 live birth
d) 201 per 100,000 live birth

47. How is the pathophysiology of preeclampsia characterized?

a) Vasodilation
b) Vasospasm
c) Hemodilution
d) Hypervolemia

48. Which sign would alert the midwife that a woman in labor pain is entering the second stage of labor?
a) Increase frequency and intensity of contraction
b) Perineum bulges and anal orifice dilates
c) Effacement of internal OS is 100%
d) Vulva encircles the largest diameter of presenting part

49. While providing nursing care in the postnatal period, the most important aspect is
 a) Supporting the mother’s ability to successfully feed and care for her baby
b) Involving the family in the teaching
c) Providing group discussion on infant care
d) Lochia monitoring

50. Immunity that transfer from mother to baby from breast milk is
a) Artificial natural immunity
b) Active artificial immunity
c) Passive natural immunity
d) Passive artificial immunity

The End
1. The three essential elements of an objectives are:
a. learner, condition, activity
b. Learner, content, activity. ( b)
c. Criteria, condition, activity
d. Learner, criteria, activity.
5. Meaning of curriculum is :
a) course
b) Syllabus
c) Co- curricular activities
d) Overall activities of an institution ( D)
6. Effectiveness of curriculum is determined by :
a) Objectives
b) Design
c) Evaluation ( c)
d) Methods

7. Which is not the quality of good teacher?

a) Keeps the students active and disciplines.

b) Encourages teacher center leaning ( b)
c) Be kind and sympathetic
d) Is democratic
51. The curriculum of B.SC. Nursing is based on

e) Environment Theory
f) Adaption Theory
g) Problem Solving Theory
h) Neuman Theory ( D)
52. Which of the following is not included in four metaparadigms of nursing theory?

e) Health
f) Illness (B
g) Person
h) Nursing

53. Curriculum development begins with

e) Conceptual framework
f) Philosophy(b)
g) Content
h) Objective

54. For the evaluation of the student’s achievement, what should be considered first?
e) Resource available
f) Content covered
g) Types of evaluation
h) Objective of the learner (D)

55. To change the behavior, which of the following will be the best way?
e) Lecture
f) Discussion
g) Role Play
h) Demonstration

56. At the end of clinical posting, PCL 2nd year nursing student will be able to develop care plan of
assigned patient is behavioral objective of
e) Comprehension of cognitive domain
f) Analysis of cognitive domain
g) Synthesis of cognitive domain©
h) Psychomotor domain

2. For a male client with dysthymic disorder, which of the following approaches would the
nurse expect to implement?
A. ECT
B. Psychotherapeutic approach. ( B)
C. Psychoanalysis.
D. Antidepressant therapy.

3. To establish open and trusting relationship with a female client who has been hospitalized with
severe anxiety, the nurse in charge should?
 A. Encourage the staff to have frequent interaction with the client
B. Share an activity with the client
C. Give client feedback about behavior
D. Respect client’s need for personal space (D)
4. Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would indicate this
complication to the nurse would be:
A. Intermittent claudication

B. Pitting edema of the area

C. Severe pain when raising the legs

D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the site ( D)