136

‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ ﻣﮭﻤﺔ‬
1. All of the following are true wi th respect to Ig M anti bodies EXCEPT which one
A. they are glycoprotein
B. they fix co mplement
C. they med iate allerg ic reaction
D. they occur on the surface of ly mphocytes
2. All of the followi ng are true with respect to Ig E molecules, EXCEPT which one?
A. They are involved in med iating anti-parasitic immune responses.
B. They are the least abundant immunoglobulin in the serum.
C. They can effect the release of histamine and other chemical med iators.
D. They will cross the placenta and fix co mplement.
3. Which of the foll owing i mmunoglobulins is present normally in plas ma at the highest concentration?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. Ig E
D. Ig G
4. All of the followi ng are true about anti bodies, EXCEPT which one?
A. They are g lycoproteins.
B. They are mo lecule with a single, defined amino acid sequence.
C. They fix co mp lement.
D. They occur on the surface of B-ly mphocyte
5. Which i mmunoglobulin is the princi pal one found in secretions such as milk?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. Ig E
D. Ig G
6. The cl ass of an i mmunoglobulin
A. is determined by Class I and Class II major histocompatibility co mp lex p roteins
B. is determined by the carbohydrate attached to the light chain is
C. determined by the antigen
D. is determined by the heavy chain type
7. Which DOES NOT provi de long term i mmunity?
A) Artificially acquired active immunity
B) Art ificially acquired passive immunity
C) Naturally acquired act ive immunity
D) None of the above
8. An epi tope is
A) a B-cell.
B) ahapten.
C) an antibody.
D) the antigen determinant site.
9. An i mmunoglobulin is a
A) carbohydrate.
B) fatty acid.
C) g lycoprotein.
D) protein.
10. Isotypes refer to variati ons in the:
A) heavy chain constant region.
B) heavy chain variab le reg ion.
C) light chain constant region.
D) light chain variable region.
11. The Fc region medi ates all of the below EXCEPT bindi ng to
A) antigen.
B) lysosomes.
C) so me phagocytic cells.
D) various cells of the immune system.
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12. Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the
immunoglobulin pool?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) Ig G
D) IgM
14. Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE anti body producti on?
A) An adjuvant
B) A hapten
c) Pu rified antigen
d) Crude antigen
15. Compared to the secondary anti body response, the primary res ponse
A) attains a higher Ig G titer.
B) has a longer lag phase.
C) persists for a longer plateau period.
D) produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.
16- Naturally acquired acti ve immunity woul d be most likely acquired through which of the followi ng
processes?
a. vaccination
b. Drinking colostrum
c. Natural birth
d. infection with d isease causing organism followed by recovery.
17- Natural killer cells are invol ved in
A.tumour rejection
B. allograft rejection
C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells
D. all of these
18. Which of the followi ng(s) is/are the determinants of antigenicity?
A.Chemical nature
B. Size of the antigen
C. Foreignness
D. All of these
19- Which of the followi ng statements is false regarding B cells?
. A.B cells can undergo class switching and produce a different antibody type
B. B one marrow stem cells migrate to the thymus and develop into B cells
C. B cells synthesize antibodies and put them on their cell surface
B cells that recognize high concentrations of antigens (self) in the absence of other signals undergo
D.
apoptosis in the bone marrow
20- Which of the followi ng is an example of autoi mmune disease?
A. Rheu matoid arthrit is
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Polyarteritisnodosa
D. All of the above
21- Lens antigens of the eye are
A. cross-reacting antigens
B. sequestrated antigens
C. Neoantigens
D. none of these
22- In which of the following cell mediated immunity (CMI) participates?
A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
B. Graft versus host reaction
C. Allograft reject ion
D. All of the above
23- Overacti vi ty of Th cells may result into
A. Autoimmunity
B. optimal antibody response
C. optimal cell-mediated response
D. none of the above
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24-In which of the followi ng case a large lattice is formed?

A. Antibody is in excess
B. Antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion
C. Antigen is in excess
D. None of these
25- Monocl onal anti body production requires
A. mouse splenic ly mphocytes
B. mouse myelo ma cells
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
26- Which of the followi ng convey the l ongest lasting i mmunity to an infectious agent?
a. Naturally acquired passive immun ity
b. Artificially acquired passive immunity
c. Naturally acquired active immunity
d. All of these
27- Which of the followi ng substances will not stimulate an i mmune res ponse unless they are bound to a larger
molecule?
a. Antigen
b. Virus
c. Hapten
d. Miligen
28- B and T cells are produced by stem cells that are formed in:
a. Bone marro w
b. The liver
c. The circulatory system
d. The spleen
29- B cells mature in the……….. while T cells mature in the
a. Thymus/bone marrow and gut associated lymphoid t issue (GA LT)
b. Spleen/bone marrow and GA LT
c. Bone marro w and GA LT/Thy mus
d. Liver/ Kidneys
30- Which of the followi ng immune cells/molecules are most effecti ve at destroying intracellular pathogens?
a. T helper cells
b. B cells
c. Antibodies
d. T cytolytic cells
31- B cells that produce and release large amounts of anti body are called:
a. Memory cells
b. Basophils
c. Plasma cells
d. Killer cells
32- The specificity of an anti body is due to
a. its valence
b. The heavy chains
c. The Fc port ion of the molecule
d. The variable portion of the heavy and light chain
33- In agglutination reactions, the antigen is a………
in preci pitation reactions, the antigen is a……………
a. whole cell/soluble molecule
b. Soluble mo lecule/ whole cell
c. Bacteriu m/virus
d. Protein/carbohydrates
34- B Cells are acti vated by
a. Co mp lement
b. Antibody
c- Memory cells
d- Antigen
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35- Fusion between a pl asma cell and a tumor cell creates a

a. Myelo ma
b. Ly mphoblast
c. Ly mphoma
d. Hybrido ma
36- Monocl onal anti bodies recognize a single:
a. Antigen
b. Bacteriu m
c. Epitope
d. B cell
37- Cell medi ated i mmunity is carried out by………….. While humoral i mmunity is mainl y carried out
by………………..
a. B cells/T cells
b. Ep itopes/Antigens
c. T cells/B cells
d. Antibodies/Antigens
38- The ability of the i mmune system to recognize self antigens versus nonself antigen is an example of:
a. Specific immunity
b. Tolerance
c. Cell med iated immunity
d. Antigenic immun ity
39-Large parasites such as hel minthes may be killed extracellularl y by the action of
A.basophils B. Monocytes
C. eosinophils D. Neutrophils
40- Cytotoxic T-cells can be recognized by which of the followi ng cell surface marker?
A.CD4 B. CD7
C. CD8 D. CD9

1) The causati ve agent of bacteri al meningitis may be :

a- St. pneumoni ae b- N. meningiti des c- H. influenzae
d- Listeria monocytogenes e- all of the above
2) Capsules of all the followi ng bacteri a are composed of polysacchari de EXCEPT
a- St. pneumoni ae b- N. meningiti dis c- K. pneumoniae
d- B. anthracis e- Y. pestis
3) Antitoxi n treatment is highly recommended as first choice in case of :
a- di phtheria b- botulism c- tetanus
d- all of the above e- only a and c
4) Anti biotic associated pseudomembranous colitis might occur after i nfecti on by :
a- Cl. perfringens b- Cl. tetani c- Cl. botulinum
d- Cl. di fficile e- all of the above
5) Intestinal mucosa is often invaded in case of infection by :
a- Cl. difficile b- Shigella flexneri c- S. typhi
d- Vi brio cholera e- all of the above
6) Which of the following pathogens is both toxinogenic and invasi ve?
a- Shigella dysenteriae b- C. di phtheri ae c- St.pneumoni a
d- V. cholera e- Cl. tetani
7) The thick, gray, adherent membrane over the tonsils and throat is the most prominent sign of :
a- di phtheria b- pneumonia c- whoopi ng cough
d- botulism e- pseudo membranous colitis
8) Regardi ng gonorrheal disease, the followi ng are true EXCEPT :
a- ceftriaxone is the treatment of choice
b- onl y human disease
c- only piliated gonococci are virulent
d- pl olysacchari de capsule is the main virulence factor
e- both local and disseminated infecti ons occur
9) Onl y lysogenic strai n infection can cause :
a- di phtheria b- g onorrhea c- typhoi d
d- brucellosis e- gas gangrene
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10) Rifampicin is used as prophyl actic drug against meni ngococcal infections because :
a- i t is secreted into CS F b- it is long acting drug c-i t is
secreted into sali va d- no resistance appeared to it
e- all of the above
11) All the followi ng are true about T. B EXCEPT :
a- cells contain large amount of lipi ds
b- di fficult to stai n
c- pri marily infects the lung
d- bovine type produce non-pul monary T.B
e- Bordet – Gengo medium is selective
12) BCG vaccine is
a- used for i mmunization ag ainst brucellosis
b- used for i mmunizati on agai nst plague
c- prepared from the bovine type bacilli
d- merthiol ate killed vaccine
e- gi ven to tuberculine negati ve cases
13) Leionine face is observed in case of
a- lepromatous type of leprosy b- tuberculoi d type of leprosy
c- mixed type d- all of the above
e- both a and c
14) Which of the followi ng bacterial s pecies produce coagul ase enzyme ?
a- Staphyl ococcus aureus b- S. epi dermi dis
c- Streptococcus pneumoniae d- all of the above
e- only a and c
15) Swarming on soft ag ar medi a is characteristic of :
a- Klebsiella sp b- Citrobacter s p c- Proteus sp
d- Pseudomonas sp e- non of the above
16) Bipolar staining is characteristic of :
a- Shigella dysenteriae b- Sal monella typhi c- Yersinia pestis
d- C. di phtheri ae e- M. tubercul osis
17) Which of the followi ng toxins is responsible for traveler's di arrhea?
a- heat l abile toxi n of E. coli (LT) b- heat stable toxi n of E. coli (ST)
c- cholera toxin (CT) d- both LT and S T
e- both LT and CT
18) Which of the followi ng staphylococcal diseases is toxin medi ated ?
a-osteomylitis b- pharyngitis c-empetigo
d- scalded skin syndrome e- pneumonia
19) Zeihl-Neelsen stain is used in microscopical examinati on of :
a- M. tuberculosis b- M. bovis c- M. leprae
d- all of the above e- only a and b
20) A negati ve tuberculin test means that :
a- there is a recent infection b- there is an old infection
c- there is no infect ion at all d- there is a very old healed infect ion
e- both c and d
21) Penicillin G is not useful in treatment of the followi ng strepotococcal
disease(s):
a- scarlet fever b- rheu matic fever c- to xic – shock syndrome
d- erysipelas e- all of the above
22) B. anthracis capsule is non-protecti ve because :
a- it is not antigenic b- it is a hapten
c- it is not antiphagocytic d- it is composed of oligosaccharide
e- all of the above
23) Lancefiel d cl assified streptococci into groups according to
a- M protein b- carbohydrate C
c- protein A d- Tand R antigens
e-O antigen
24) In pneumococcal infection , protection of bacteria from phagocytosis is associated wi th the presence of
a- protein A b- pepti odglycan
c- capsule d- teichoic aci d
e- li popolysachari des
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25) Rheumatic fever is specifically diagnosed by

a- ESR b- ASO ti tre c- C-reacti ve protein
d- bacitracin test e-all of the above
26) The nature of the capsule of type b H. influenzae is
a- protein b- pol ysacchari de c- D-glutamate
d- pol yri bosyl ri bitol phosphate e- oligosacchari de
27) The capsule of B acillus anthracis is composed of
a- pol ysacchari de b- oligosacchari de c- D-glutamate
d- glycoli pi d e- hyal uronic aci d
28) Isol ation of E. coli from stool strongly indicates
a- Urinary tract i nfecti on by E. coli b- neonatal E. coli meningitis
c- E. coli gastrorenteritis d-food poisoni ng
e- none of the above
29) Which of the followi ng org anism (s) can produce endospores ?
a- B acillus anthracis b- Clostri dium perifringens
c- Cl ostridi um tetani d- B. cereus
e- all of the above
30) TETRAMUN E is a vaccine against di phtheria, tetanus, pertussis and
a- Hepatitis B b- Hi b disease
c- scarlet fever d- brucellosis
e- typhoi d fever
31) All the followi ng are suppurati ve streptococcal infections EXCEPT
a- puerperal fever b- erysiples
c- tonsilitis d- glomerulonephritis
e-stye
32) "Risus sardonicus" is a characteristic clinical symptom of
a- g as gangerene b- botulism c- bacterial meningitis
d- tetanus e- pseudomembranous colitis
33) Which one of the following microorganisms belongs to coliform bacilli ?
a- S almonella typhi b- Shigella dysenteriae
c- Klebsiella pneumoniae d- Proteus mirabilis
e- Pseudomonus aureugenosa
34) The anti bi otic of choice for treatment of cholera is
a- chloramphenicol b- tetracycline c- penicillin
d- gentamicin e- rifampicine
35) About 70 % of Sal monella food poisoning is caused by
a- S almonella typhi b- Sal monella para typhi A
c- Sal monella typhi murium d- Sal monella para typhi B
e- Sal monella para typhi C
36) Vi antigen is present in which one of the following sal monella s pecies?
a- S almonella para typhi A b- Sal monella typhi murium
c- Sal monella gallinarum d- Sal monella para typhi B
e- none of the above
37) Which of the followi ng bacterial s pecies produce endotoxins?
a- Staphyl ococcus aureus b- S. epi dermi dis
c- S. saprophyticus d- Streptococcus pneumoni a
e- N. gonorrhea
38) Which of the followi ng is not a neurotoxin?
a- tetanos pas mine b- inti min c- shiga toxin
d- botulinum toxin e- all of the above are neurotoxin 30210251401534
39) Descending flacci d paral ysis is characteristic for :
a- botulism b- tetanus c- pertussis
d- g onorrhea e- di phtheria
40) The followi ng bacterial cells contain H-antigen EXCEPT :
a- V. cholera b- S. Typhi c- Clostri dium perfringens
d- E. coli e- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
41) Enterobacter di ffer from Klebsiella in that it is :
a- gram positi ve b- motile c- capsul ated
d- non lactose fermenter e- opportunistic pathogen
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42) Selenite F media are selecti ve and enrichment for :

a- E. coli b- citrabacter c- salmonella
d- proteus e- pseudomonus
43) All salmonella species produce H2 S EXCEPT :
a- S. typhi b- S. paratyphi - A c- S. paratyphi - B
d- S. paratyphi - C e- S. typhi murium
44) Which one of the following characters is WRONG concerning Vi antigen ?
a- i t is glycoli pi d in nature b- it is anti phagocytic
c- i t is heat stable d- it is present i n all strains of S. typhi
e- persistence of vi anti bodies indicates the development of carrier state
45) In typhoi d cases salmonella coul d be isolated from the bl ood during
a- first week b- second week c- third week
d- the convalescent stage e- second and third week
46) Wi dal test is a serological test used for di agnosis of :
a- rheumatic fever b- enteric fever c- mal ta fever
d- puerperal fever e- non of the above
47) Choramphenicol is the drug of choice in treatment of :
a- E. coli b- typhoi d fever c- plag ue
d- g onorrhea e- cholera
48) Which of the followi ng salmonella species can cause a life threatening form of bacteri mia and
septicaemi a
a- S. typhi b- S. paratyphi (A, B and C) c- S. enteriti dis
d- S. cholera suis e- S. newport
49) All Shigella species are mannite fermentors EXCEPT :
a- Sh. dysenteriae b- Sh. flexnexi c- Sh. boydi
d- Sh. sonnei e- Sh. boydi and S. sonnei
50) All the followi ng are correct about Y. pestis EXCEPT :
a- g m-negati ve b- capsulated c- non-motile
d- non-s poring e- opti mum temperature 37o C

1) Duri ng epi demics of plag ue the followi ng control measures are recommended EXCEPT :
a- use anti-flea measures b- use anti-rat measures
c- use tetracycline as prophylactic d- use rifampicine as prophylactic
e- use Haffkine vaccine
2) All the followi ng bacteri a are oxi dase negati ve EXCEPT :
a- S almonella typhi b- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c- St. pneumoniae d- Y. enterocolitica e- H. ducreyi
3) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to phagocytosis and serum bacterici dal response due to its :
a- fi mbria b- mucoi d capsule c- LPS
d- mucoi d capsule and possibly LPS e- exotoxin A
4) What is Wrong about V. cholera?
a- strongly aerobic b- highly sensitive to alkaline pH
c- growth is inhi bited by 7% NaCl d- acti vely motile
e- resistant to bile salts
5) In burn infection appearance of bluish pus suggest infection by :
a- proteus b- pseudomonas c- klebsiella
d- heamophilus e- mycobacteria
6) TCBS medium is selective for :
a- V. cholera b- Shigella c- Sal monella
d- Neisseeria e- Baillus
7) Which of the following diseases is zoonotic
a- di phtheriae b- cholera c- gonorrhea d- pertussis e- pl ague
8) Some indi vi duals are resistant to brucellosis because their serum contai ns :
a- suppressing factor responsi ble for suppressing the rough vari ati on
b- suppressing factor res ponsible for suppressing the smooth variati on
c- suppressing factor which suppress both S and R vari ants
d- complement
e- specific anti bodies
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9) On a special medium, the appearance of dome shaped colony resembling a drop of mercury is
characteristic for
a- Brucella abortus b- B ordetella pertussis
c- Bacillus anthracis d- Corynebacterium di phteriae
e- none of the above
10) Intravenous flui ds is the first line of treatment in case of :
a- di phtheriae b- cholera c- gonorrhea
d- pertussis e- plag ue
11) Pasteurilization or boiling of milk is prophyl actic against :
a- enteric fever b- pl ague c- brucellosis
d- pertussis e- non of the above
12) Which of the followi ng bacteria is capable of intracellular growth ?
a- S almonella b- Brucella c- M. tubercul osis
d- all of the above e- non of the above
13) Non-typable H. infl uemzae can cause the following diseases EXCEPT :
a- meningitis b- otitis medi a c- sinusitis
d- pneumonia in chil dren e- pneumonia in adults
14) H. infleunzae type b
a- does not contain LPS b- does not produce any exotoxins
c- is not capsul ated d- frequently infect adults
e- resistant to l ysis by anti body and complement
15) Indotracheal intubati on is recommended in :
a- brucellosis b- pertussis c- cholera
d- typhoi d e- non of the above
16) The causati ve agent of “ pink eye” is :
a- H. i nfluezae b- H. aegypticus c- H. ducreyi
d- N. g onorrheae e- all of the above
17) The most contagious stage of pertussis is :
a- catarrhal b- paroxys mal c- convalescent
d- all of the above e- only a and b
18) In pertussis disease coryza, sneezing, nasal drai nage and mil d progressive cough represent clinical
features characteristic of :
a- catarrhal stage b- paroxys mal stage c- convalescent stage
d- recovery stage e- both a and b
19) Brucella sp. is among fasti dious bacteria because :
a- i t is small coccobacilli b- it is non intestinal bacteria
c- it require speci al growth medi a d- it is unable to grow on macConkey
e- it is aci d fast bacteria
20) Man is the only known source of
a- Sh. flexneri b- Sh. boydi c- B. pertussis
d- H. influenzae e- all of the above
21) CO2 is necessary for growth of
a- H. i nfluenzae b- B. abortus c- B. melitenensis
d- B. suis e- B. canis
22) PRP capsule of H. i nfluenzae is the most i mportant virulence factor because :
a- i t stimulates anti body formation
b- it renders the organism resistant to phag ocytosis
c- it sti mulates hypersensitivity reactions
d- it is toxic to human cells
e- it enhance adherence of bacteria to human tissues
23) In typhoi d fever chol agogue is gi ven to the patient to :
a- treat typhoi d infection b- detect salmonella in patient serum
c- detect vi anti bodies d- detect faecal carriers
e- detect urinary carriers
24) All the followi ng describe Ps. aeruginosa EXCEPT
a- lactose fermenter b- catalase – positi ve
c- oxi dase – positive d- motile
e- obligate aerobic
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25) All the followi ng vaccines are correct for their corresponding organism EXCEPT
a- T. B – B CG b- Cholera – Kolls c- Di phtheria – DPT
d- H. influcnzae – Hi b conjugate e- Tetanus – TAB
26) All the followi ng are characteristics for Kolls vaccine EXCEPT
a- heat killed b- admi nistered S. C.
c- gi ve protection for 4-6 weeks d- gi ve life- long protection
e- phenol preserved
27) The infecti ve dose of shigella is nearly
a- 10 2 b- 10 5 c- 10 7 d- 10 8 e- 10 9
28) Uptill now no synthetic culture medium is known for culti vati on of ?
a- Shigella dysenteriae b- B acillus anthracis
c- Mycobacterium leprae d- Brucella abortus
e- Protius mirabilis

Part II : Immunol ogy

* Match the following choices to the statements in questions 91 through 97. Choices may be used once,
more than once, or not at all.
a- Ig G b- Ig M c- IgA d- Ig D e- Ig E
91) Anti bodies found in mucus, sali va, and tears
92) Anti bodies that protect the fetus and newborn
93) Anti bodies that are bound to mast cells and invol ved in allergic reactions
94) In addi tion to Ig G, these anti bodies can fix complement
95) The first anti bodies synthesized, especially effecti ve agai nst microorganisms
96) The most abundant class of anti bodies in serum
97) Anti bodies have a role in protection against parasite infection

* Use this graph to ans wer questions 98 to 99. Choices may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Ti me (weeks)
98) The arrow d indicates
a- the ti me of exposure to the same antigen as at a b- the secondary res ponse
c- the pri mary response d- exposure to a new antigen
e- none of the above
99) Which letter on the graph indicates the patient's secondary res ponse to an antigen?
100) Which letter on the graph indicates the patient's response to a second antigen?

* Use this figure to ans wer questions 101 through 104. Choices may be sued once, more than once, or not
at all.
101) Which areas are simil ar for all Ig G anti bodies?
a- a and b b- a and c c- b and c d- c and d e- b and d
102) Which areas are different for all Ig M anti bodies?
a- a and b b- a and c c- b and c d- c and d e- b and d
103) Which areas represent antigen-bindi ng sites?
a- a and b b- a and c c- b and c d- c and d e- b and d
104) What can attach to a host cell?
a- a and c b- b and c c- b d- d e- e
105) Which statement is incorrect?
a- the variable region of a heavy chain binds with antigen
b- the variable region of a light chain bi nds with antigen
c- the Fc region attaches to a host cells
d- the constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all anti bodies
e- none of the above
106) The best defi nition of an antigen is
a- something foreign i n the body
b- a chemical that elicits an anti body res ponse and can combi ne wi th these
anti bodies
c- a chemical that combines with anti bodies
d- a pathogen e- a protein that combines with anti bodies
107) The best defi nition of an anti body is
a- a serum protein
 145

b- a protein that inacti vates or kills an antigen

c- a protein made in res ponse to an antigen that can combi ne wi th that antigen
d- an immunoglobulin
e- none of the above
108) Which of the following is not normally used in a vaccine?
a- toxoi d b- parts of bacterial cells c- li ve, attenuated bacteria
d- inacti vated viruses e- anti bodies
109) The main effect of ADCC is
a- prevent entry b- acti vate phag ocytosis
c- kill microbe extracellulary d- kill infected cells
e- c and d
110) complement medi ated lysis
a- acti ve against virus, rickettsia b- acti vate phag ocytosis
c- prevent attachment d- act on bacteri a outside calls
e- a and d
111) The most i mportant i mmunoglobulin(s) ag ainst Neisseria is
a- Ig G b- Ig A c- Ig M d- Ig D
e- Ig G & Ig M
112) Natural killer is essential against
a- most bacteria b- bacteria require attachment to body surface
c- cancer cell d- mycobacterium tuberculosis
e- Mycoplas ma pneumonia
113) All the following mechanisms are invol ved in killing infected phagocytes EXCEPT
a- CMI b- Nk c- ADCC d- TC e- complement
114) Ig G and Ig M are invol ved in all the following mechanisms against microbes EXCEPT
a- neutralize toxin b- opsonizati on
c- Prevent entry d- prevent attachment
e- C and d
* Use the following statement to answer questions 115 – 119.
a- i ndirect agglutination b- tube agglutination
c- haemaggluti nation d- toxin antitoxi n in vitro
e- toxi n anti toxin i n vi vo
115) Pregnancy test
116) Rheumatoi d factor
117) Rh typi ng
118) Schick's test
119) Coomb's test
120) Which of the following statements is false?
a- leuk oci dins destroy neutrophils
b- haemolysin lyses red blood cells
c- hyal uroni dase breaks down substances between cells
d- kinase destroys fi brin clots
e- Coagulase destroys blood clots
121) Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally Not TRUE?
a- they are more potent than endotoxins b- they are composed of proteins
c- they are not destroyed by heat d- they have s pecific mode of action
e- they are produced by gram-positi ve bacteria
122) Endotoxins are
a- associated with gram-positi ve bacteri a b- s pecific in their method of action
c- part of the gram-neg ati ve cell wall d- excreted from the cell
e-none of the above
123) Which of the following exhi bi ts the highest phagocytic acti vi ty?
a- neutorphils b- T-cells c- lymphocytes
d- basophils e- eosinophils
124) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of i nflammation?
a- redness b- pain c- local heat
d- fever e- s welling
125) Which of the following is found normally in serum?
a- complement b- interferon c- histamine
d- l ysozyme e- leukocytosis – promoting factor
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126) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cell – medi ated i mmunity?
a- the cells originate in bone marrow b- cells are processed in the thymus gland
c- it can inhi bit the i mmune response d- it includes macrophages
e- none of the above
* Use the following choices to ans wer questions 127 through 134. Choices may be used once, more than
once, or not at all.
a- i nnate resistance
b- naturally acquired acti ve immunity
c- artificially acquired acti ve i mmuni ty
d- naturally acquired passive i mmunity
e- artificially acquired passive i mmunity
127) Type of i mmunity resulting from vaccination
128) Type of i mmunity resulting from normal flora
129) Immunity resulting from recovery of an infection
130) A human's resistance to microorganisms in food
131) Newborn's immuni ty due to the transfer of anti bodies across the pl acenta
132) Immunity due to intact healthy skin
133) Immunity due to injection of toxoi d
134) Immunity due to injection of an antitoxin
135) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells?
a- they originate in bone marrow
b- they have antigen receptors on their surfaces
c- they are res ponsible for the anamnestic response
d- they are responsi ble for anti body formation
e- none of the above
136) Put the following in the correct sequence to elicit an anti body response : 1 -TH cell recognizes B cell/2-
APC phag ocytosis antigen; 3-Antigen-digest goes to surface follow APC; 4-TH recognizes antigen –
digest and MHC; 5-B cell recognizes antigen
a) 1,2,3,4,5 b) 5,4,3,2,1 c) 3,4,5,1,2 d) 2,3,4,1,5 e) 3.2.5.4.1
* Use the following choices to ans wer questions 137 through 139. Choices may be used once, more than
once, or not at all
a- IL-3 b- IL-4 c- IL-1 d- IL-2 e- IL-8
137) Responsible for stimulati on of T cells and acti vati on of NK cells
138) Chemotactic attractant for neutrophils
139) Enhance anti body synthesis
140) All the following statements about Type IV hypersensitivities are true EXC EPT
a- they are cell mediated
b- the symptoms occur within a few days after exposure to an antigen
c- they can be passively transferred with serum
d- they contri bute to the symptoms of certain diseases
e- none of the above
141) All the following statements about Type I hypersensiti vity are true
EXCEPT
a) they are cell mediated
b) they invol ve Ig E anti bodies
c) the symptoms are due to histamine
d) the symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen
e) invol ve upper or l ower res piratory tract
142) Which of the following is NOT CORRECT for monocl onal anti bodies
a) they are uniform and highl y specific
b) the hyberi doma is formed by i mmortal non cancerous B cell with cancerous
pl asma cell
c) used to neutralize endotoxin
d) used i n pregnancy test
e) used in serol ogical reacti on for bacteri al i dentificati on
143) In an agglutination test, eight serial diluti ons to determine anti body ti ter were set up : Tube # 1
contained a 1:2 dilution’ tube # 2, a 1:4, etc. if tube # 5 the last tube Showi ng agglutination, what is
the anti body titer?
a) 1 : 8 b) 1 : 16 c) 1 : 32 d) 1 : 64 e)1:128
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144) All the following are oxygen-independent system for intracellular killing of microorganisms
EXCEPT :
a) l actoferrin b) l ow pH c) hydroxyl radicals
d) l ysozyme e) all of the above
145) Which statement is in the proper sequence?
a) Ig E is formed – antigen bi nds Ig E – Ig E binds to mast cells and basophils – histami ne is released
b) Ig E is formed – Ig E binds to mast cells and basophils – antigen bi nds Ig E – histamine is released
c) Ig E is formed – Ig E binds to mast cells and basophils – histamine is released – antigen binds Ig E
d) Ig E is formed – antigen binds Ig E – binds to mast cells – mast cells bind to basophiles – histamine
is released
e) none of the above
146) Which is in the correct order of differentiation
a) stem cells to plas ma cells to B cells b) stem cells to B cells to pl asma cells
c) B cells to pl asma cells to stem cells d) B cells to stem cells to pl asma cells
e) stem cells to APC to pl asma cells
147) Patient's serum, influenza virus, and red bl ood cells are mixed in a tube. What
happens if the patient has anti bodies against influenza virus?
a- agglutinati on b- hemagglutinati on
c- complement fixation d- hemol ysis
e- none of the above
148) Which of the following is not related to ELISA?
a) micro titer pl ate b) double anti body techni que
c) enzymes d) anti-HGS
e) col orimeter
149) Immobilizati on test DOES NOT invol ve
a) flagellated bacteria b) Serum c) pathogen
d) Treponema e) phagocytes
150) Which is not true about direct ELIS A test?
a) detect antigens b) measure anti bodies
c) Known Ab. l abeled is added d) measure anti bodies
e) Sandwich will be formed with Ag. between two anti bodies

References
*Recommended books
- Roitt et al, Immunology 6th Ed., pp 7, 113-114, 144-145.
-Murray et al, Medical Microbiology 4th Ed., pp 91-92
* Periodicals, Web sites, … etc
www.med.sc.edu
www.themicrobe.com
www.themicrobiologyplace.com