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 religious denomination or any section there of
PRACTICE EXERCISE I shall have the right
Q 1. The Panchayati Raj is based on the 1. to establish and maintain institutions for
Principle of religious and charitable purposes.
(a) Decentralisation 2. to manage its own affairs in matters of
(b) Deconcentration religion.
(c) Democratic Centralism 3. to own and acquire movable and
(d) Democratic Decentralisation immovable property.
Answer- (d) Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
Q 2. Which of the following emerges clearly (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
from Preamble ? (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
1. When the Constitution was enacted. Answer- (d)
2. The ideas that were to be achieved.
3. The system of government. Q 6. By which among the following
4. The source of authority. amendments of the Constitution, the
Select the correct answer using the codes territories of Goa, Daman and Diu were
given below. incorporated in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (a) Constitution (10th) Amendment Act, 1961
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these (b) Constitution (12th) Amendment Act, 1962
Answer- (d) (c) Constitution (14th) Amendment Act, 1962
(d) None of the above
Q 3. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Answer- (b)
recommended which one of the following
Panchayati Raj structures? Q 7. Which among the following political party
(a) Gram Panchayat at the village level and of India has an election symbol almost close
Panchayat Samiti at the block, level only to the election symbol of Republican Party of
(b) Panchayat Samiti at the block level and USA?
Zilla Parishad at the district level only (a) Samajwadi party
(c) Gram Panchayat at the village level, (b) Bahujan Samaj party
Panchayat Samiti at the block level and Zilla (c) Janta Dal (United)
Parishad at the district level (d) Teluhudesam party
(d) Gram Panchayat at the village level and Answer- (b)
Zilla Parishad at the district level only
Answer- (c) Q 8. Once a budget has been presented in
the Parliament, the government has to get all
Q 4. Consider the following statement(s) on money bills related to the union budget
Parliamentary Committees passed within_?
1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not (a) 30 days (b) 60 days
associated with the Committees on Public (c) 75 days (d) 90 days
Accounts and Public Undertakings. Answer- (c)
2. Members of the Committee on Estimates
are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Q 9. Which of the following provision(s) of
Rajya mSabha. Which of the statement(s) Constitution are non-justiciable, that is not
given above is/are correct? enforceable by the courts?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. Directive Principle of State Policy.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The Preamble of Constitution
Answer- (d) 3. The Provision relating to citizenship.
4. The Provision of 9th Schedule.
Q 5. Which of the following statement(s) Select the correct answer using the codes
is/are correct? Article 26 of the Constitution of given below.
India states that subject to public order, (a) Only 1
morality and health, every
(b) 1, 2 and 3 (Articles) (Deals with)
(c) 3 and 4 A. Article 49 1. To preserve historical
(d) 1 and 2 monuments
Answer- (d) B. Article 47 2. Prohibit the slaughter of
cow,
Q 10. The functions of Estimates Committee calves and other milk and
include drought animals
1. To suggest alternatively policies in order to C. Article 48 3. Prohibition of intoxication
bring out efficiency and economy in D. Article 40 4. Organisation of Village
administration. Panchayats
2. To see that the expenditure confirms to the Codes
authority which governs it. ABCD ABCD
3. To examine whether the money is well laid (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
out within the limits of the policy implied in the (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
estimates. Answer- (b)
4. To suggested the form, in which estimates
shall be presented to the Parliament. Which Q 13. Match the following
of the statements given above are correct? List I List II
(a) 1 and 2 (Parts) (Deals with)
(b) 1, 3 and 4 A. Part-III 1. The Panchayat
(c) 1, 2 and 4 B. Part-IV A 2. Fundamental Rights
(d) All of the above C. Part-IX 3. Directive Principle
Answer- (b) D. Part-XI 4. Fundamental Duties
E. Part-IV 5. Union and States Relationship
Q 11. Match the following Codes
List I List II ABCDE
(Functionaries) (Oaths and (a) 1 2 3 4 5
Affirmations) (b) 2 4 1 5 3
(c) 5 4 3 2 1
A. President of India 1. Secrecy of (d) 4 3 5 1 2
Information Answer- (b)
B. Judges of Supreme 2. Faithful discharge
Court of duties Q 14. Which of the following statements are
C. Member of 3. Faith and correct?
Allegiance 1. The Constitution does not fix the number of
Parliament of India to members of the UPSC.
The Constitution 2. One-half of the members of the UPSC
D. Ministers of the Union4. Upholding the should be persons, who have held office
Union under the Government of India or of a state
Constitution and atleast for 5 years.
the 3. The Chairman and members of the UPSC
Law hold office for a term of 5 years or until they
Codes attain the age of 60 years.
ABCD 4. The salaries and allowances of the
(a) 3 4 1 2 members of the UPSC are determined by the
(b) 4 3 2 1 Parliament.
(c) 3 4 2 1 5. The entire expanses of UPSC are charged
(d) 4 3 1 2 on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Answer- (b) Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
Q 12. Match the following (a) 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 5
List I List II (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 4 and 5
Answer- (d) (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer- (c)
Q 15. Consider the following
1. Planning Commission Q 19. Who among the following was the
2. National Development Council Finance Minister of India in the Interim
3. Indian Parliament Government during 1946-1947?
4. Finance Commission Those associated in (a) RK Shanmukham Chetty
with the planning process in India include (b) John Mathai
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Liaquat Ali Khan
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (d) Chintamanrao Deshmukh
Answer- (b) Answer- (c)

Q 16. Consider the following Statements The Q 20. Match the following
fundamental object of Panchayati Raj System List I List II
is to ensure (Writs) (Meanings)
1. people’s participation in development A. Mandamus 1. ‘By what warrant or
2. democratic decentralisation authority’
3. financial mobilisation B. Habeas Corpus 2. ‘We command’
4. political accountability C. Qua Warranto 3. ‘To be certified’
Select the correct answer using the codes D. Certiorari 4. ‘You may have the
given below. body’
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Codes
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 ABCD ABCD
Answer- (a) (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 2 4 1 3
Q 17. Which of the following statements with Answer- (d)
regard to the CAG are correct?
1. He is responsible only to the Parliament. Q 21. Match the following
2. He certifies the net proceeds of any tax. List I List II
3. He complies and maintains the accounts of A. The Council of Ministers 1. Article 74
State Government. shall be collectively
4. He has control over the issue of money responsible to the House
from the Consolidated Fund of India. of People.
Select the correct answer using the codes B. Duties of the Prime 2. Article 77
given below. Minister towards the
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 President.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 C. Council of Ministers 3. Article 76
Answer- (c) to aid and advise the
President.
Q 18. The Governor of a State D. All executive action 4. Article 75
1. possesses Executive Legislative and of the Government of
judicial powers analogous to the President. India shall be taken in the
2. has to act with the aid and advice of the name of the President.
Council of Ministers always. 5. Article 78
3. has the power to appoint and remove the Codes
members of State Public Service ABCD ABCD
Commission. (a) 4 5 1 3 (b) 3 2 4 1
4. has the power to allocate business of the (c) 4 5 1 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
government among the various ministers. Answer- (d)
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Q 22. Consider the following statement(s)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India
provides for free legal aid to Scheduled Q 26. Which of the following are the
Castes and Scheduled Tribes. objectives of the National Development
2. Article 14 of the Constitution of India Council?
provides for equality before law. Which of the 1. To promote common economic policies in
statement(s) given above is/are correct? all vital spheres.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 2. To secure the co-operation of states in the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 execution of the Plan.
Answer- (b) 3. To review the working of the Plan from
time-to-time.
Q 23. In the context of Panchayati Raj, which 4. To consider important questions of social
one of the following is true about Gram and economic policy affecting development.
Sabha? Select the correct answer using codes given
(a) This is the top most tier of the Panchayati below.
Raj (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) It consists of all the voters residing in the (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
jurisdiction of a Village Panchayat Answer- (c)
(c) It is the executive body consisting of
selected representatives from Village Q 27. Which of the following provisions of the
Panchayat Constitution of India need the ratification by
Answer- (b) the legislatures of not less than one-half of
the states to effect amendment?
1. The manner of election of the President of
Q 24. With reference to the passage of India.
Money Bill in Indian Parliament, which one of 2. Extent of the executive power of the Union
the following statements is correct? and the states.
(a) The decision of the Union Finance 3. Powers of the Supreme Court and High
Minister is final on the question whether a bill Courts.
is Money Bill or not 4. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule.
(b) A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Select the correct answer using the codes
Lok Sabha given below.
(c) After a Money Bill is passed by Lok Sabha (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
and transmitted to Rajya Sabha, it should be (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
returned within one month Answer- (d)
(d) When Rajya Sabha returns the Money Bill
with its recommendations, the Lok Sabha has Q 28. Consider the following statement(s)
to accept such recommendations 1. The Ministries Departments of the Union
Answer- (b) Government are created by the Prime
Minister.
Q 25. Which of the following are true of the 2. The Cabinet Secretary is the Ex-officio
President’s ordering making power? Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Which
1. It is laid down in Article 123. of the statement(s) given above is/are
2. Its ambit is co-extensive with the legislative correct?
power of Parliament. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
3. He can promulgate an ordinance only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
when the Lok Sabha is not in session. Answer- (c)
4. It is a discretionary power of the President.
Select the correct answer using the codes Q 29. With respect to Article 371 A of the
given below. Constitution of India, the Governor of which
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 one of the following states has special
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these responsibility with respect to law and order of
Answer- (c) the State?
(a) Assam other aspects has suggested doing away with
(b) Manipur which one of the following pairs of Articles of
(c) Nagaland the Constitution of India?
(d) Andhra Pradesh (a) Articles 305 and 306
Answer- (c) (b) Articles 307 and 308
(c) Articles 308 and 309
Q 30. Consider the following statement(s) (d) Articles 310 and 311
1. The Chairman and the members of the Answer- (d)
UPSC are appointed by the President.
2. The Chairman and the members of the Q 34. Which of the following feature(s) is/are
UPSC are eligible for further employment contrary to the norms of a federal polity?
under the Government. Which of the 1. Common All India Service.
statement(s) given above is/are correct? 2. Single integrated judiciary.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below.
Answer- (c) (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 31. Which one among the following Answer- (d)
statement(s) regarding the constitutionally
guaranteed Right to Education in India is Q 35. Which among the following
correct? statement(s) regarding Lord Ripon’s plan for
(a) This right covers both child and local self-government in India is/are correct?
adult illiteracy and therefore, universally 1. The district should be the maximum area
guarantees education to all citizens of India served by one Committee or Local Board.
(b) This right is a child right covering the age 2. The Local Boards should consist of a large
group of 6 to 14 years and becomes majority of nominated official members and
operational from the year 2015 be presided over by an official member as
(c) This right has been taken from the British Chairman.
Constitution which was the first Welfare State Select the correct answer using the codes
in the world given below.
(d) This right has been given to all Indian (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
children between the ages of 6 to 14 years (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act Answer- (a)
Answer- (d)
Q 36. Which one among the following is not
Q 32. Which of the following statement(s) true of the Planning Commission?
regarding writ of certiorari is/are correct? (a) It is an advisory body and makes
1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer recommendations to the Cabinet
having legal authority to determine the (b) It is responsible for the execution of
questions of deciding Fundamental Rights development programmes and plans
with a duty to act judicially. (c) It is responsible for formulation of a plan
2. Writ of certiorari is available during the for the most effective and balanced utilisation
tendency of proceedings before a of the country’s resources
subordinate court. (d) It indicates the factors which tend to retard
Select the correct answer using the codes economic development
given below. Answer- (b)
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q 37. Which of the following is/are elements
Answer- (c) of ‘annual financial statement’ (budget)?
1. Ways and means to raise the revenue.
Q 33. The Veerapa Moily Commission in its 2. Estimates of revenue and capital reciepts.
report on Administrative Reforms among 3. Estimates of expenditure.
Codes (c) Swear in the members of the house and
(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3 hold the charge till a regular Speaker is
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these elected
Answer- (d) (d) Give his assent to the bills passed by the
house
Q 38. Despite being a Republican State, India Answer- (c)
is a member of the Commonwealth of Nations
whose head is the British Monarch. This is Q 42. Which of the following statement(s)
because with regard to Inter-State Council is/are
(a) this membership does not affect the correct?
sovereign nature of the Indian Republic 1. It was established under the provisions of
(b) this membership only shows that the the Constitution of India.
British ruled over India 2. The Council is a recommendatory body.
(c) members of the association are sovereign 3. There is a standing committee of the
and independent Council under the Chairmanship of the Prime
(d) it is a symbol of the unity among the Minister of India to process matters for
members of the association consideration of the Council.
Answer- (b) Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
Q 39. The President of India is elected by a (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2
proportional representation system through (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
single transferable vote. This implies that Answer- (c)
(a) each elected MP or MLA has an equal
number of votes Q 43. In India, the right to ‘freedom of speech
(b) MPs and MLAs of a State have the same and expression’ is restricted on the grounds
number of votes of
(c) all MPs and MLAs have one vote each 1. the sovereignty and integrity of India.
(d) MPs and MLAs of different states have 2. contempt of court.
different numbers of votes 3. friendly relation with foreign states.
Answer- (c) 4. protection of minorities.
Select the correct answer using the codes
Q 40. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme given below.
Court of India extends to (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) treaties and agreements signed by the (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Government of India Answer- (a)
(b) disputes between the Government of India
and one or more States Q 44. Which of the following statement(s)
(c) disputes relating to implementation of the is/are correct?
Directive Principles of State Policy 1. In India, the constitutional remedy under
(d) a bill passed by the Parliament which is Article 32 is available only in case of
violative of the Constitution Fundamental Rights, not in the case of rights
Answer- (b) which follow from some other provision in the
Constitution.
Q 41. Which one among the following is a 2. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts
function of the Pro-Tem Speaker of the Lok can issue the writs of habeas corpus,
Sabha? mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo
(a) Conduct of the proceedings of the house warranto only for the purpose of enforcement
in the absence of the Speaker of Fundamental Rights.
(b) To check if the election certificates of the Select the correct answer using the codes
members of the house are in order given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer- (c)
Q 49. Who of the following constitutes a
Q 45. Why is political power sharing through Finance Commission for a State in India?
different levels of government desirable in a (a) The President of India
democracy? (b) The Governor of the State
1. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict (c) The Union Finance Minister
between various social groups. (d) The Union Cabinet
2. It decreases the possibility of arbitrary Answer- (a)
decision-making.
3. It prompts people’s participation at different Q 50. Consider the following statement(s)
levels of government. 1. The Annual Appropriation Bill is passed by
Select the correct answer using the codes the Lok Sabha in the same manner as any
given below. other Bill.
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 2 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these can be initiated by an introduction of a Bill in
Answer- (d) either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Q 46. Which of the following statement(s) (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. A registered voter in India can contest an Answer- (b)
election to Lok Sabha from any constituency
in India. Q 51. Which one of the following is the
2. As per the Representation of the People subject of the Narasimhan Committee
Act, 1951, if a person is convicted of any Reports of years 1991 and 1998?
offence and sentenced to an imprisonment of (a) Administrative Reforms
2 years or more, he will be disqualified to (b) Banking Reforms
contest election. Select the correct answer (c) Constitutional Reforms
using the codes given below. (d) Electoral Reforms
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Answer- (b)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer- (b) Q 52. Assertion (A) The number of the
Members of the Union Public Service
Q 47. The impeachment of the President of Commission is preserved in the Constitution
India can be initiated in of India.
(a) either house of the Parliament Reason (R) The Union Public Service
(b) a joint siting of both houses of the Commission was constituted under the
Parliament provisions in the Constitution of India.
(c) the Lok Sabha alone Codes
(d) the Rajya Sabha alone (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Answer- (a) explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
Q 48. Consider the following statements correct explanation of A
about the Attorney-General of India? (c) A is true, but R is false
1. He is appointed by the President of India. (d) A is false, but R is true
2. He has the right to take part in the Answer- (d)
proceeding of the Parliament.
3. He has the right of audience in all courts in Q 53. Who was the President of India at the
India. Which of the statements given above time of proclamation of emergency in the year
are correct? 1976?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (a) VV Giri
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (b) Giani Zail Singh
Answer- (d) (c) Fakhr-ud-din Ali Ahmad
(d) Shankar Dayal Sharma 1. The total elective membership of the Lok
Answer- (c) Sabha is distributed among the states on the
basis of the population and the area of the
Q 54. Which one of the following statement(s) State.
is not correct? 2. The 84th Amendment Act of the
(a) The Vice-President of India holds office Constitution of India lifted the freeze on the
for a period of 5 years delimitation of constituencies imposed by the
(b) The Vice-President of India can be 42nd Amendment. Which of the statement(s)
removed by a simple majority of votes passed given above is/are correct?
in the Rajya Sabha only (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) The Vice-President of India continues to (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
be in office even after the expiry of his term Answer- (c)
till his successor takes over
(d) The Supreme Court of India has to look Q 59. Which one of the following is a human
into all disputes with regard to the election of right as well as a Fundamental Rights under
the Vice-President of India the Constitution of India?
Answer- (b) (a) Right to Information
(b) Right to Education
Q 55. Consider the following statement(s) (c) Right to Work
1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the (d) Right to Housing
Council of States. Answer- (b)
2. The Council of States cannot reject a
Money Bill nor amend it. Which of the Q 60. Under which of the following conditions
statement(s) given above is/are correct? can citizenship be provided in India?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. One should be born in India.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Either of whose parents was born in India
Answer- (c) 3. Who has been a resident of India for not
less than 5 years. Select the correct answer
Q 56. For which one of the following using the codes given below.
Judgements of the Supreme Court of India, (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
the Kesavananda Bharati vs State of India (c) All of these (d) None of these
case is considered a landmark? Answer- (c)
(a) The religion cannot be mobilised for
political ends Q 61. Which one of the following International
(b) Abolishing untouchability from the country Human Rights Instruments has been signed
(c) The basic structures of the Constitution, by India but not yet ratified?
as defined in the Preamble, cannot be (a) Convention on the rights of the child
changed (b) Convention on the elimination of all forms
(d) Right to life and liberty cannot be of discrimination against women
suspended under any circumstance (c) Convention on the political rights of
Answer- (c) women
(d) Convention on the nationality of married
Q 57. Who among the following Indian Prime women
Ministers resigned before facing a vote of no- Answer- (b)
confidence in the Lok Sabha?
(a) Chandra Shekhar Q 62. The Constitution (74th) Amendment Act
(b) Morarji Desai makes mention of the
(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh (a) composition of the National Development
(d) VP Singh Council
Answer- (d) (b) structure of the Planning Commission of
India
Q 58. Consider the following statement(s)
(c) functions of the State Finance (b) officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is
Commission unlikely to be elected
(d) functions of the Kaveri Water Authority (c) swear members and hold charge till a
Answer- (c) regular Speaker is elected
(d) scrutinise the authenticity of the election
Q 63. Consider the following statement(s) certificates of members
with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor Answer- (c)
General of India
1. He shall only be removed from office in like Q 67. Which one of the following right(s)
manner and on the ground as a Judge of the conferred by the Constitution of India is also
Supreme Court. available to non-citizens?
2. He shall not be eligible for further office (a) Freedom of speech, assembly and form
either under the Government of India or association
under the Government of any State after he (b) Freedom to move, reside and settle in any
has ceased to hold his office. Which of the part of the territory of India
statement(s) given above is/are correct? (c) Freedom to acquire property or to carry on
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 any occupation, trade or business
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Right to constitutional remedies
Answer- (c) Answer- (c)

Q 64. Under which of the following Q 68. Consider the following statement(s)
condition(s) security deposits of a candidate 1. A person who was born on 26th January,
contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen
him/her? of India by birth at the time of his birth is
1. The nomination made by the candidate if deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent.
found to be invalid. 2. A person who was born on 1st July, 1988
2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India
nomination even though it is found valid. at the time of his birth, but the father was not,
3. The candidate lost the polls but secured is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth.
l/6th of the total number of valid votes polled Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
in that election. Select the correct answer correct?
using the codes given below. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Answer- (a)
Answer- (b)
Q 69. Consider the following about ‘Beti
Q 65. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Bachao, Beti Padhao’ scheme
Rajya Sabha 1. The scheme was launched on 22nd
(a) he/she has to get elected to the Lok January, 2015 from Panipat, Haryana.
Sabha within 6 months 2. The scheme was initiated with an initial
(b) he/she can declare the government’s corpus of ` 100 crore. Which of the scheme(s)
policies only in the Rajya Sabha given above is/are correct?
(c) he/she cannot take part in the voting when (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
a vote of no confidence is under (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
consideration Answer- (a)
(d) he/she cannot take part in the budget
deliberation in the Lok Sabha Q 70. Identify the correct sequence of
Answer- (c) passing a Budget in the Parliament.
(a) Vote on Account, Finance Bill,
Q 66. The function of a Protem Speaker is to Appropriation Bill, Discussion on Budget
(a) conduct the proceeding of the house in (b) Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill, Discussion
the absence of the Speaker on Budget, Vote on Accounts
(c) Discussion on Budget, Vote on
Account, Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill Q 75. Which one of the following jurisdictions
(d) Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, of the Indian judiciary covers Public Interest
Finance Bill, Vote on Account Litigation?
Answer- (d) (a) Original Jurisdiction
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction
Q 71. Which one of the following states does (c) Epistolary Jurisdiction
not have Vidhan Parishad? (d) Advisory Jurisdiction
(a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra Answer- ()
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer- (c) Q 76. In India, the Supreme Command of the
Armed Forces is vested in the President. This
Q 72. Who among the following Indian Prime means that in the exercise of this power
Minister(s) could not vote for himself during (a) he/she cannot be regulated by law
the ‘Vote of Confidence’ that he was seeking (b) he/she shall be regulated by law
from the Lok Sabha? (c) during war, the President seeks advice
(a) VP Singh only from the Chiefs of the Armed Forces
(b) PV Narasimha Rao (d) during war the President can suspended
(c) Chandra Sekhar the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) Manmohan Singh Answer- (b)
Answer- (b)
Q 77. Which of the following would be
Q 73. According to the Constitution (52nd construed as a reasonable restriction of the
Amendment Act, 1985 as amended in 2003, ‘right to freedom’?
a legislator attracts disqualification under the (a) When the state disallows a candidate from
10th Schedule if securing votes in the name of religion
1. he voluntarily gives up the membership of (b) When the state disallows citizens from
the party on whose ticket he was elected. forming a club out of state funds that denies
2. he votes or abstains from voting contrary to access to women
any direction issued by his political party. (c) When the Government of Nagaland
3. as a result of split, less than one third of disallows temporary residents to buy
the members formed a new group or party in immovable property in Nagaland
the house. (d) All of the above
4. a member who has been elected as a Answer- (d)
independent member joins any political party.
Select the correct answer using the codes Q 78. The 73rd Amendment of the
given below. Constitution provided constitutional status to
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Which of the
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these following are the main features of this
Answer- (d) provision?
1. A three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for
Q 74. The quorum for joint sitting of the all states.
Indian Parliament is 2. Panchayat election in every 5 years.
(a) one-twelveth of the total number of 3. Not less than 33% of seats are reserved
members of the house for women.
(b) one-sixth of the total number of members 4. Constitution of district planning committees
of the house to prepare development plans. Select the
(c) one-tenth of the total number of members correct answer using the codes given below.
of the house (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(d) two-third of the total number of members (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
of the house Answer- (a)
Answer- (c)
Q 79. The Sachar Committee Report pertains A. Amendment of 1. Constitution of
to Germany the
(a) Indian federalism Constitution
(b) Economic development of backward
regions 2. Constitution of
(c) Indian Muslims B. Directive Canada
(d) OBC’s Principles
3. Constitution of
Answer- (c)
South Africa
Q 80. Who among the following C. Emergency Power 4. Irish Constitution
recommends to the Parliament
of the President
for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a
State? D. The Union-State
(a) The President of India Relations
(b) The Governor of the concerned State
(c) The Legislative Council of the concerned
State
Codes
(d) The Legislative Assembly of the
ABCD ABCD
concerned State
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
Answer- (d)
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
Answer- (b)
Q 81. In which of the following years the
Fundamental Duties have been added to the
Q 84. According to Article 164(1) of
existent Fundamental Rights in the
the Constitution of India, in three States there
Constitution of India?
shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare,
(a) 1965 (b) 1976
who may in addition be in charge of the
(c) 1979 (d) 1982
welfare of the Scheduled Castes and
Answer- (b)
Backward Classes. Which one of the
following states is not covered by the Article?
Q 82. Consider the following statement(s)
(a) Jharkhand
with respect to the Attorney General of India
(b) Punjab
1. He is appointed by the President.
(c) Madhya Pradesh
2. He must have the same qualifications as
(d) Odisha
are required by a Judge of High Court.
Answer- (b)
3. In the performance of his duties he shall
have the right of audience in all courts of
Q 85. Which one of the following is the
India. Which of the statement(s) given above
correct chronological order of the tenures of
is/are correct?
the following Presidents of Indian National
(a) Only 1
Congress?
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(a) Jagjivan Ram (b) K Kamaraj
(d) All of the above
(c) PD Tandon (d) UN Dhebar
Answer- (b)
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
Q 83. Match the following
(c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
List I List II
Answer- (c)
(Provisions of the (Sources)
Q 86. Who among the following was the first
Constitution of Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(a) MA Ayyangar
India)
(b) GV Mavalankar
(c) Sardar Hukam Singh
(d) N Sanjiva Reddy 2. Government services in India were thrown
Answer- (b) open to all Indians.
3. The designation of the Governor-General
Q 87. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of Bengal was changed as the
of India GovernorGeneral of British India.
1. VV Giri 4. An Indian was to be appointed as a Law
2. M Hidayatullah Member in the Governor-General’s council.
3. BD Jatti Select the correct answer using the codes
4. GS Pathak given below.
Which one of the following is the correct (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
chronology of their tenures? (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 Answer- (a)
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 4, 1, 3, 2
Answer- (a) Q 92. Which of the following pairs are not
correctly matched?
Q 88. In which one of the following Ministries 1. Government of India Act, 1919 : Dyarchy
the census organisation has been functioning 2. Government of India Act, 1335 : Provincial
on a permanent footing since, 1961? autonomy
(a) Health and Family Welfare 3. Minto-Morley Reforms : Separate
(b) Home Affairs electorate
(c) Social Justice and Empowerment 4. Mountbatten Plan : Constituent Assembly
(d) Human Resource Development 5. Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 : Partition of
Answer- (b) India
Codes
Q 89. Which of the following is not a (a) 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 4
recommendation of the Ashok Mehta (c) 1 and 5 (d) 2 and 3
Committee on Panchayati Raj ? Answer- (a)
(a) Open participation of political parties in
Panchayati Raj affairs Q 93. Which of the following are among the
(b) Creation of a three-tier system provisions of the Act of 1858?
(c) Reservation of seats for Scheduled 1. The administration of India and the Indian
Castes and Scheduled Tribes Territories was transferred to the Crown.
(d) Compulsory powers of taxation 2. The East India Company was abolished.
toPanchayati Raj Institution 3. The Governor-General of India was to be
Answer- (b) known as the Viceroy of India and a
Secretary of State for India was also
Q 90. With reference to the Constitution of appointed.
India, which one of the following pair(s) is not 4. The administrative power of India was to
correctly matched Subject List be shared between the East India Company
(a) Stock Exchanges : The State List and the Crown of England.
(b) Forest : The Concurrent List Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) Insurance : The Union List given below.
(d) Marriage and Divorce : The Concurrent (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
List (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Answer- (a) Answer- (b)

Q 91. Which of the following provisions were Q 94. Consider the following statement(s)
made in the Charter Act of 1833? 1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitute
1. The commercial functions of the East India Consultative Committees of Members of both
Company came to an end and now it had the Houses of Parliament.
only political functions. 2. The main purpose of these Committees
are to provide a forum for formal discussions
between the Government and Members of List I List II
Parliament on polices and programmes of the A. Establishment of 1. Regulating
Government. Which of the statement(s) given Board of Control Act, 1773
above is/are correct? B. Establishment of 2. Pitt’s India
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Supreme Court Act, 1784
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 C. Christian 3. Charter Act,
Answer- (c) missionaries were 1813
allowed to spread
Q 95. Which of the following pairs is their religion in India
incorrectly matched? D. Governor General 4. Charter Act
(a) 9th December, of Bengal as
1947 : Constituent Assembly’s first meeting Governor General of
(b) 26th November, India
1949 : The people of India adopted, enacted ,
and gave to themselves the Constitution 1833
(c) by the members of the Constituent Codes
Assembly ABCD ABCD
(d) 26th January, 1950 : The date of (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
commencement the Constitution (c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3
Answer- (a) Answer- (b)

Q 96. Match the following24th January, 1950 Q 99. Consider the following statements
: The Constitution was finally signed about the Government of India Act, 1935
List I List II provide for
1. the provincial autonomy.
A. Bill of Rights and 1. England 2. the establishment of federal court.
Judicial Review 3. all India Federation at the Centre. Which of
B. Parliamentary 2. Ireland the statements given above are correct?
system of Democracy (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
C. Directive 3. USA (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Principles Answer- (d)
D. Residuary powers 4. Canada Codes
with the centre Q 100. Consider the following statement(s)
ABCD ABCD 1. The Charter Act, 1853 abolished East India
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 company’s monopoly of Indian trade.
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 1 2 4 2. Under the Government of India Act, 1858,
Answer- (a) the British Parliament abolished the East
India Company altogether and undertook the
Q 97. Who among the following were the responsibility of ruling India directly. Which of
members of the Drafting Committee of the the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Constitution? (a) Only 1
1. KM Munshi (b) Only 2
2. Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Sardar Patel Answer- (b)
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. Q 101. Which one of the following Schedules
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 of the Constitution of India includes the
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 disqualification of a Legislator on grounds of
Answer- (d)d defection?
(a) 8th Schedule
Q 98. Match the following (b) 7th Schedule
(c) 5th Schedule Indian Constitution)
(d) 10th Schedule A. Fundamental 1. UK
Answer- (d) Rights
B. Parliamentary 2. USA
Q 102. Which one of the following statements System of
regarding the Speaker is correct? Government
(a) He holds office during the pleasure of the C. Emergency 3. Ireland
President provisions
(b) He need not be a Member of the House at D. Directive Principle 4. Germany
the time of his election, but has to become a of State Policy
Member of the House within six months from Codes
the date of his election ABCD ABCD
(c) He loses his office, if the House is (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 1 3 4
dissolved before the end of its normal tenure (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 2 4 3
(d) If, he intends to resign the letter of his Answer- (c)
resignation is to be addressed to the
President Q 107. Who among the following have the
Answer- (b) office of the Vice-President of India?
1. Mohammed Hidayatullah
Q 103. The Indian Parliamentary system is 2. Fakh-ru-ddin Ali Ahmed
different from the British Parliamentary 3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
system, in that India has 4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(a) both real and nominal executive Select the correct answer using the codes
(b) a system of collective responsibility given below.
(c) bicameral legislation (a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
(d) the system of judicial review (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer- (d) Answer- (b)

Q 104. Which of the following is a basic Q 108. Which of the following taxes is/are
feature of the Presidential Government? levied by the Union and collected and
(a) Rigid Constitution appropriated by states?
(b) Single Executive (a) Stamp Duties
(c) Supremacy of the Legislature (b) Passenger and Goods Tax
(d) Residual powers of the State (c) Estate Duty
Answer- (b) (d) Taxes on Newspapers
Answer- (a)
Q 105. Which of the following is the common
features of a Federal Constitution? Q 109. Which of the following can be termed
1. A written and rigid Constitution. ‘Gandhian’ among the Directive Principles?
2. Division of power between the centre. 1. Prevention of cow slaughter.
3. Separation of powers between the 2. Promotion of cottage industries.
Legislature and Executive. 3. Establishment of Village Panchayats.
4. Bicameral National Legislature. 4. Uniform civil code for the country.
Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. given below.
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer- (c) Answer- (b)

Q 106. Match the following Q 110. Among the ‘Socialistic’ Directive

List I List II Principles may be listed
(Features of the (Borrowed from) 1. prevention of concentration of wealth.
2. right to work. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
3. separation of judiciary from executive. Answer- (b)
4. organising agriculture along scientific lines.
Select the corect answer using the codes Q 114. Consider the following statement(s)
given below. 1. The Union Executive consists of the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 President and the Council of Ministers with
(c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these the Prime Minister as the head.
Answer- (a) 2. The President may, by writing under his
hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign
Q 111. What is meant by saying that the his office.
Directive Principle of State Policy are non- 3. Executive power of the Union is vested in
justiciable? the Prime Minister. Which of the statement(s)
1. In case they are violated, the matter cannot given above is/are correct?
be taken to the court. (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
2. Courts are debarred from consideration of (c) Only 2 (d) All of these
Directive Principles. Answer- (c)
3. The law of the land does not recognise the
existence. Q 215. Which of the following determines that
4. They are sacrosanct. the Indian Constitution is federal?
Select the correct answer using the codes (a) A written and rigid Constitution
given below. (b) An Independent Judiciary
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 (c) Vesting of residuary power with the centre
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these (d) Distribution of powers between centre and
Answer- (a) states
Answer- (d)
Q 112. What are the Gandhian principles
incorporated in the Indian Constitution? Q 116. Which of the followig pairs is correctly
1. Efforts to be made for the development for matched?
weaker or backward sections of the society. (a) Amendment Procedure : Article 268
2. Prohibition on the use of intoxicating liquor (b) Duties of Prime Minister : Article 74
except for (c) President’s Rule : Article 365
purposes. (d) Inter-State Council : Article 263
3. Organisation of Village Panchayats. Answer- (d)
4. Establishment of cottage and small-scale
industries in rural areas. Q 117. Which of the following authorities
Select the correct answer using the codes recommends the principles governing the
given below. grant in aid of revenues to states out of
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 consolidated fund of India?
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these (a) Finance Commission
Answer- (d) (b) Planning Commission
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
Q 123. Which of the following are a Directive (d) Inter-State Council
Principle of State Policy? Answer- (a)
1. Equal pay for equal work for men and
women. Q 118. The Parliament can legislate on any
2. Equal right to an adequate means of subject in the State List.
livelihood. 1. If, the Rajya Sabha declares by a 2/3rd
3. Abolition of untouchability. majority resolution that it is expedient to do so
4. Just and human condition of work. in national interest.
Select the correct answer using the codes 2. For the implementation of international
given below. treaties.
(a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
3. If, two or more states make a request to 1. Directive Principles of State Policy.
Parliament to do so. 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies.
4. When Article 356 is imposed in the state. 3. 5th Schedule.
Which of the statements given above are 4. 6th Schedule.
correct? 5. 7th Schedule.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these given below.
Answer- (d) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) All of these
Q 119. Which of the following statement(s) (b) Constitution (91st Amendment) Act
is/are stated in the Constitution of India? (c) Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act
1. The President shall not be a member of (d) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act
either Houses of Parliament. Answer- (c)
2. The Parliament shall consist of the
President and two houses. Q 124. Consider the following statements
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power
given below. to adjourn the House sine die but, on
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 prorogation, it is only the President, who can
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 summon the house.
Answer- (c) 2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an
extension of the term, there is an automatic
Q 120. Which of the following statement(s) dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time,
is/are correct? at the end of the period of 5 years, even if no
1. The Directive Principle are meant to formal order of dissolution is issued by the
establish Political Democracy. President.
2. The Directive Principle are meant to 3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in
establish Social Democracy. office even after the dissolution of the house
3. The Directive Principle is meant to and until ‘immediately before the first meeting
establish Economic Democracy. of the house’. Which of the statements given
Select the correct answer using the codes above are correct?
given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Answer- (d)
Answer- (b)
Q 125. Which of the following are the
Q 121. Which of the following statement(s) methods of Parliamentary control over public
is/are correct? finance in India?
1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before
over Directive Principles. the Parliament.
2. Right to Education is available to 2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated
foreigners in India. Fund of India only after passing the
3. Right to Information is available only for Appropriation Bill.
citizen to the citizens of India. 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and
Select the correct answer using the codes vote-on-account.
given below. 4. A periodic or atleast a mid-year review of
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 programme of the Government against
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these macro-economic forecast and expenditure by
Answer- (d) a Parliamentary Budget Office.
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament.
Q 122. Which of the following provisions of Select the correct answer using the codes
the Constitution of India have a bearing on given below.
Education? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) All of these 1. The joint sitting of the two Houses of the
Answer- (a) Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article
108 of the Constitution.
Q 126. Consider the following statements 2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
associated with Committees on Public 3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses
Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Indian Parliament was held to pass the
of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
from Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above are
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works correct?
under the overall direction of Cabinet (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Committee on Parliamentary Affairs. (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs Answer- (d)
nominates Members of Parliament on
Committees, Councils, Boards and Q 130. Which of the following statement is
Commissions etc set up by the Government correct?
of India in the various ministries. Which of the (a) The Parliamentary form of government
statements given above are correct? emphasises on the interdependence between
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 the legislative and executive organs
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these (b) Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can
Answer- (d) contest for the office of the Vice-President
(c) While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can
Q 127. Which of the following special powers contest from any State in India, a candidate
have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by to the Rajya Sabha should ordinary be a
the Constitution of India? resident of the state from where he is
(a) To change the existing territory of a state contesting
and to change the name of a state (d) The Constitution explicity prohibits the
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the appointment of a nominated member of the
Parliament to make laws in the State List and Rajya Sabha to the post of minister
to create one or more all India Services Answer- (a)
(c) To amend the election procedure of the
President and to determine the pension of the Q 131. Consider the following statement(s)
President after his/her retirement 1. Union Territories are not represented in the
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Rajya Sabha.
Commission and to determine the number of 2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election
Election Commissioners Commissioner to adjudicate the election
Answer- (b) disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the
Q 128. Consider the following statement(s) Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to Rajya Sabha only. Which of the statement(s)
declare that it would be in national interest for given above is/are correct?
the Parliament to legislate with respect to a (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
matter in the State List. (c) 1 and 3 (d) None of these
2. Resolutions approving the Proclamation of Answer- (d)
Emergency are passed only by the Lok
Sabha. Which of the statement(s) given Q 132. Who among the following can be the
above is/are correct? Chairperson of the National Human Rights
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Commission?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) A Member of either House of Parliament
Answer- (a) (b) A Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of
India
Q 129. Consider the following statements
(c) A social worker actively involved in the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
promotion of human rights Answer- (a)
(d) Any sitting Judge of High Court or
Supreme Court Q 137. Which of the following statement(s)
Answer- (b) regarding Money Bill are incorrect, except?
(a) A Money Bill can only be introduced in
Q 133. The objective of including Directive Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha has no power to
Principles of State Policy says that the state make a change in it against the will of Lok
shall seek to ensure Sabha.
(a) to establish a welfare state (b) A Money Bill may be introduced in Rajya
(b) to provide best opportunities for Sabha but it must be approved by both the
development houses.
(c) to establise a democratic state (c) A Money Bill can only be introduced in Lok
(d) to check the arbitrary action of the Sabha, but it must also be approved by Rajya
Government Sabha.
Answer- (a) (d) A Money Bill can be introduced in either
house but the decision of Lok Sabha thereon
Q 134. Which of the following statement(s) shall prevail.
are incorrect? Answer- (a)
1. Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill.
2. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations Q 138. Match the following
on a Money Bill. List I List II
3. Rajya Sabha cannot reject Money Bill. (Articles of the (Provisions)
4. Rajya Sabha should return the Money Bill Constitution of India)
to the Lok Sabha within 14 days. A. Article 14 1. The state shall not
5. Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill. discriminate against
Select the correct answer using the codes any citizen on
given below. grounds only of
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 5 religion, race, caste,
(c) 1 and 5 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 sex, place of birth or
Answer- (d) any of them
B. Article 15 2. The state shall not
Q 135. Which of the following Constitutional deny to any person
Amendments states that the total number of equality before the
Ministers, including the Prime Minister in the law or the equal
Council of Minister shall not exceed 15% of protection of laws
the total number of members of the house of within the territory of
the people? India
(a) 90th (b) 91st C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is
(c) 92nd (d) 93rd abolished and its
Answer- (b) practice in any form
is forbidden
Q 136. Consider the following statement(s) D. Article 17 4. There shall be
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public equality of
Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the opportunity for all
Lok Sabha. citizens in matters
2. The Committee on Public Accounts relating to
comprises members of Lok Sabha, members employment or
of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of appointment to any
industry and trade. Which of the statement(s) office under the state
given above is/are correct? Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 ABCD ABCD
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 2. Part IX-A of the Constitution of India
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 4 1 2 contains provisions for municipalities and the
Answer- (c) Article 243 envisages two types of
municipalities–a Municipal Council and a
Q 139. Consider the following statement(s) Municipal Corporation for every state. Which
1. The maximum number of the Judges of the of the statement(s) given above is/are
Supreme Court of India is prescribed in the correct?
Constitution of India. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
2. The maximum number of the members of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Union Public Service Commission is Answer- (a)
prescribed in the Constitution of India. Which
of the statement(s) given above is/are Q 143. Consider the following statement(s)
correct? 1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to
(a) Only 1 declare that it would be in national interest for
(b) Only 2 the Parliament to legislate with respect to a
(c) Both 1 and 2 matter in the State List.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Resolutions approving the Proclamation of
Answer- (a) Emergency are passed only by the Lok
Sabha. Which of the statement(s) given
Q 140. Consider the following statements above is/are correct?
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
free and fair elections. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all Answer- (a)
elections to the Parliament, State Legislature
and the Office of the President and the Vice- Q 144. Which of the following statements
President. regarding Fundamental Duties are correct?
3. Giving recognition to political parties and 1. To preserve the rich heritage of the
allotting election symbols to political parties nation’s composite culture.
and individuals contesting the election. 2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals of
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of the freedom struggle.
election disputes. Which of the above are the 3. To renounce practice derogatory to the
functions of the Election Commission of dignity of women.
India? 4. 11th Fundamental Duty was added by 68th
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Constitutional Amendment 2000. Select the
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer- (a) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Q 141. Financial distribution between the Answer- (a)
Union and the State takes place on the basis
of the recommendations of which one of the Q 145. Consider the following statements
following? 1. The highest criminal court of the district is
(a) The National Development Council the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
(b) The Inter-State Council 2. The District Judges are appointed by the
(c) The Planning Commission Governor in consultation with the High Court.
(d) The Finance Commission 3. A person to be eligible for appointment as
Answer- (d) a District Judge should be an advocate or a
pleader of 7 years standing or more or an
Q 142. Consider the following statement(s) officer in Judicial Service of the Union or the
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains State.
provisions for Panchayats and was inserted 4. When the Sessions Judge Awards death
by the Constitution (73rd Amendment Act, sentence, it must be confirmed by the High
1992).
Court before it is carried out. Which of the 4. Fundamental Rights based on Nehru
statements given above are correct? Report, 1928. Which of the statements given
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 above are correct?
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Answer- (d) (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer- (b)
Q 146. Which of the following statement(s) is
not correct? Q 150. Match the following
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has List I List II
to set out the grounds on which it is based (Schedules) (Deals with)
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in A. 9th Schedule 1. Anti-Defection Act
Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility B. 11th Schedule 2. Languages
have been laid down in the rules C. 8th Schedule 3. Panchayats
(c) A motion of no-confidence once admitted D. 10th Schedule 4. Acts and Regulation
has to be taken up within ten days of the Codes
leave being granted ABCD ABCD
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
entertain a motion of no-confidence (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
Answer- (a) Answer- (c)

Q 147. Consider the following statement(s) Q 151. Which of the following is/are Human
1. A person, who has held office as a Right(s) under “Universal Declaration of
permanent Judge of a High Court cannot Human Rights”?
plead or act in any court or before any 1. Right to education.
authority in India except the Supreme Court. 2. Right to equal access to public service.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment 3. Right to food.
as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he Select the correct answer using the codes
has for at least 5 years held a judicial office in given below.
the territory of India. Which of the (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
statement(s) given above is/are correct? (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Answer- (d)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer- (d) Q 152. Consider the following statement(s)
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to
Q 148. Who among the following determines Property.
the authority who shall readjust the allocation 2. Right to Property is a legal right, but not a
of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and Fundamental Right.
division of each State into territorial 3. Article 300 A was inserted in the
constituencies? Constitution of India by the Congress
(a) The President of India Government at the Centre by the 44th
(b) The Parliament of India Constitutional Amendment. Which of the
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner of India statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(d) The Lok Sabha alone (a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3
Answer- (b) (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer- (a)
Q 149. Consider the following statements
1. Fundamental Duties added to Constitution Q 153. Which of the following statements in
on the recommendation of Swarn Singh. regard to the Directive Principles of State
2. Fundamental Duties were added by 44th Policy is correct?
Amendment Act, 1976. (a) Fundamental Right constitute limitation
3. Fundamental Rights meant to establish upon state action while Directive Principles
Political Democracy.
are in the nature of instruction to the C. 74th Amendment 3. Municipalities
Government to achieve certain ends Act, 1992
(b) They are justiciable in certain respects
(c) They enjoin on the state to secure a living D. 61st Amendment 4. Minimum age limit
wage to all workers within a specified period Act, 1988 for voting
(d) The court can compel the state to
implement some of the important directions Codes
Answer- (a) ABCD ABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1
Q 154. Match the following (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 4 2
List I List II Answer- (a)
(Committees) (Recommendations)
A. Balwantrai Mehta 1. 2-Tier Panchayati Q 157. What does the 93rd Constitutional
Committee Raj System Amendment deal with?
B. LM Singhavi 2. 3-Tier Panchayati (a) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and
Committee Raj System Santhali languages in the 8th Schedule
C. Ashok Mehta 3. Constitutional (b) Inclusion of service tax levied by Union
Committee status for Panchayat and collected and appropriated by the Union
D. GVK Rao 4. Rural Development and the states in the 7th Schedule
Committee (c) Free and compulsory education for all
Codes children between the age of 6 and 14 years
ABCD ABCD (d) No reservation in Panchayats need to be
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 2 1 made in favour of Scheduled Castes in
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4 Arunachal Pradesh
Answer- (d) Answer- (c)

Q 155. In India, if a religious sect/community Q 158. Consider the following statements

is given the status of a national minority, what 1. Free and compulsory education to the
special advantages it is entitled to? children of 6-14 years age group by the state
1. It can establish and administer exclusive was made a Fundamental Right by the 76th
educational institutions. Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. The President of India automatically 2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide
nominates a representative of the community computer education even in rural areas.
to Lok Sabha. 3. Education was included in the Concurrent
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the
Minister’s 15-Point Programme. Select the Constitution of India. Which of the statements
correct answer using the codes given below. given above are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer- (c) Answer- (c)

Q 156. Match the following Q 159. In which of the following situations

List I List II does the President promulgate an ordinance?
(Amendment Acts) T(Amended (a) There is disagreement between the two
Subjects) Houses of Parliament over a bill
A. 86th Amendment 1. Elementary (b) Both houses have refused to pass a bill
Act, 2002 education a sponsored by the Government with the
Fundamental Right previous sanction of President
(c) A bill has been pending in Parliament for a
B. 73rd Amendment 2. Panchayati Raj long-period
Act, 1992 (d) Parliament is not in session
Answer- (d)
 (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 4 3
Q 160. What does the 104th Constitution (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 3 4 1
Amendment Bill relate to? Answer- (b)
(a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain
states Q 164. Which of the following are the
(b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons differences between the Fundamental Rights
of India origin living outside India and the Directive Principles?
(c) Providing quota to socially and 1. Fundamental Rights are negative
educationally backward classes in private instructions, while the Directive Principles are
educational institutions positive instruction to the government.
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities in 2. Fundamental Rights are justiciable while
the services under the Central Government the Directive Principles of State Policy are
Answer- (c) non-justiciable.
3. Fundamental Rights enjoy constitutional
Q 161. Which of the following sets of bill is basis while the Directive Principles are based
presented to the Parliament along with the on conventions.
Union Budget? 4. In case of a conflict between the
(a) Direct Taxes Bill and Indirect Taxes Bill Fundamental Rights and most Directive
(b) Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill Principles, the former get precedence.
(c) Finance Bill and Contingency Bill Select the correct answer using the codes
(d) Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill given below.
Answer- (d) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
Q 162. Which of the following is correct about Answer- (c)
the Fundamental Duties?
1. They are not enforceable. Q 165. Who among the following was the first
2. They are primarily moral duties. Law Minister of India?
3. They are not related to legal rights. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
Select the correct answer using the codes (b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
given below. (c) Dr BR Ambedkar
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (d) T Krishnamachari
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Answer- (c)
Answer- (d)
Q 166. The financial powers of the President
Q 163. Match the following of India are that
(a) he is responsible for the preparation for
List I List II the Union Budget and causes it to be laid
(Schedules in the (Subjects) before the Parliament
Constitution of India) (b) He appoints the chairman and members
of the Finance Commission
A. 10th Schedule 1. Languages (c) No Money Bill can be introduced without
his prior approval
B. 8th Schedule 2. Provisions as to (d) All of the above
disqualification on the Answer- (d)
grounds of defection
Q 167. President holds office for a term of 5
C. 1st Schedule 3. Validation of years
certain Acts (a) from the date of his election
and Regulations (b) from the date of his entering the office
D. 9th Schedule 4. The States (c) from a date specified in the Constitution
Codes (d) from a date notified by the election
ABCD ABCD commission
Answer- (b)
Q 172. Which of the following writs will be
Q 168. In which of the following committee, issued by the court in case of illegal
are members from both the Houses of detention?
Parliament represented? (a) Habbeas Corpus
(a) The Estimation Committee (b) Mandamus
(b) The Public Account Committee (c) Prohibition
(c) The Committee on Government (d) Quo-Warranto
Assurance Answer- (a)
(d) The Business Advisory Committee
Answer- (b) Q 173. Match the following
List I List II
Q 169. Match the following
List I List II A. Railway is a 1. Union List
A. Taxes on incomes 1. State List subject list of
other than agricultural B. Residuary powers 2. Union Government
income are vested with the
B. Estate duty in 2. Residuary power C. High Courts in 3. Bombay, Calcutta
respect of agricultural India were started at and Madras
land D. Enforcement of 4. Writs
C. Inter-planetary 3. Concurrent List Fundamental Rights
outer space travel Supreme Court
D. Acquisition and 4. Union List issues
requisitioning
property Codes
Codes ABCD ABCD
ABCD ABCD (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 3 4 2
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2 Answer- (a)
Answer- (c)
Q 174. Which of the following rights was
Q 170. Assertion (A) An award made by a described by Dr BR Ambedkar as “The heart
Lok Adalat is deemed be a decree of a Civil and soul of the Constitution”?
Court. Reason (R) Award of Lok Adalat is (a) Right to Freedom of Religion
final and binding on all parties and no appeal (b) Right of Property
lies against thereto before any court. (c) Right to Equality
Codes (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Answer- (d)
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the Q 175. Which of the following Directive
correct explanation of A Principles of State Policy come into category
(c) A is true, but R is false of ‘liberal principles’?
(d) A is false, but R is true 1. The state shall endeavour to secure a
Answer- (b) Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of
India.
Q 171. Who is the Chairman of second 2. The state shall protect every monument or
Administrative Reforms Commission? place or object of artistic or historic interest.
(a) Bimal Jalan 3. The state shall endeavour to secure to all
(b) Dr Karan Singh workers a living wage and conditions of work
(c) M Veerappa Moily ensuring a decent standard of life.
(d) Ahmed Patel 4. The state shall take steps to separate the
Answer- (c) judiciary from the executive.
Select the correct answer using the codes Which of the statements given above are
given below. correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Answer- (d) Answer- (b)

Q 176. Which of the following are listed Q 180. The term ‘Social Justice’ has enabled
among the Directive Principles in Part IV? the Supreme Court of India to uphold
1. Equal pay for equal work. legislation
2. Uniform civil codes. (a) to remove economic inequalities
3. Small family norm. (b) to provide a decent standard of living to
4. Education through mother tongue at the working people
primary level. (c) to protect the interests of weaker section
Select the correct answer using the codes of society
given below. (d) All of the above
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 Answer- (d)
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer- (b) PRACTICE EXERCISE II
Q 177. The Indian Parliament can invade a
Q 1. The Annual Financial statement of the
State List, if
Government of India in respect of each
1. a subject in the State List assumes a
financial year shall be presented to the House
national importance.
on such day as the
2. a proclamation of emergency has been
(a) Speaker may direct
issued by the President of India.
(b) President of India may direct
3. the Supreme Court authorises the
(c) Parliament may decide
Parliament to do so.
(d) Finance Minister may decide
Select the correct answer using codes given
Answer- (b)
below.
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
Q 2. Which of the following principle(s) is/are
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
taken into consideration by the Speaker while
Answer- (b)
recognising a parliamentary party or group?
1. An association of members who have an
Q 178. The Bombay High Court does not
organisation both inside and outside the
have a bench at which one of the following
House.
places?
2. An association of members who shall have
(a) Nagpur (b) Panaji
atleast one-third of the total number of
(c) Pune (d) Aurangabad
members of the House.
Answer- (c)
3. An association of members who have a
distinct programme of parliamentary work.
Q 179. Consider the following statements
Select the correct answer using the codes
1. Indian Constitution establishes a secular
given below.
state.
(a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 1
2. The state treats all religions equally.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all
Answer- (d)
the people.
3. Educational institutions, without exception,
Q 3. Which one among the following was not
are free to impart religious instruction.
a proposal of the Cabinet Mission, 1946?
4. The state make no discrimination on the
(a) The Constituent Assembly was to be
basis of the religion in matters of
constituted on the democratic principle of
employment.
population strength
(b) Provision for an Indian Union of Provinces Answer- (b)
and States
(c) All the members of the Constituent Q 7. The Committee on Public Accounts
Assembly were to be Indians under the Constitution of India is meant for
(d) British Government was to supervise the 1. the examination of accounts showing the
affairs of the Constituent Assembly appropriation of sums granted by the House
Answer- (d) for the expenditure of the Government of
India.
Q 4. After a bill has been passed by the 2. scrutinising the report of the Comptroller
Houses of the Parliament, it is presented to and Auditor- General.
the President, who may either give assent to 3. suggesting the form in which estimates
the bill or with hold his assent. The President shall be presented to the Parliament. Which
may of the statement(s) given above is/are
(a) assent within 6 months correct?
(b) assent or reject the bill as soon as (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
possible (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
(c) return the bill as soon as possible after the Answer- (c)
bill is presented to him with a message
requesting the house to reconsider the bill Q 8. The principle of ‘collective responsibility’
(d) with hold his assent even if the bill is under parliamentary democracy implies that
passed again by the houses 1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved in
Answer- (c) the Council of Ministers as a whole as well as
an individual minister.
Q 5. Which of the statement(s) relating to the 2. no person shall be nominated to the
Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is/are cabinet except on the advice of the Prime
correct? Minister.
1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired 3. no person shall be retained as a member
a more prominent position after the of the Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that
enforcement of the Constitution of India in he shall be dismissed. Which of the
1950. statement(s) given above is/are correct?
2. He/She is elected from amongst the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
members. (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3
3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to Answer- (d)
be a member of the House.
Select the correct answer using the codes Q 9. Which of the following statement(s)
given below. relating to Comptroller and Auditor General in
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 India is/are correct?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these 1. He/She is not an officer of the Parliament
Answer- (b) but an officer under the President.
2. He/She is an independent constitutional
Q 6. The citizenship means authority not directly answerable to the
1. full civil and political rights of the citizens. house.
2. the right of suffrage for election to the Select the correct answer using the codes
House of the People (of the Union) and the given below.
Legislative Assembly of every state. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
3. the right to become a Member of the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Parliament and Member of Legislative Answer- (b)
Assemblies.
Select the correct answer using the codes Q 10. The Departmental Committee of the
given below. Parliament of India on the welfare of the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 Schedule Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Tribes (STs) shall
1. examine whether the Union Government public undertakings. Which of the
has secured due representation of the SCs statement(s) given above is/are correct?
and the STs in the services and posts under (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
its control. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
2. report on the working of the welfare Answer- (c)
programmes for the SCs and the STs in the
Union Territories. Which of the statement(s) Q 14. The Fundamental Rights, enshrined in
given above is/are correct? Part III of the Constitution of India, ‘‘are
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 inherent and cannot be extinguished by any
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 constitutional and statutory provision’’. This
Answer- (a) was made clear in the case of
(a) AKGopalan v/s State of Madras
Q 11. The subject matter of an adjournment (b) IC Golak Nath v/s State of Punjab
motion in the Parliament (c) State of West Bengal v/s Committee for
1. must be directly related to the conduct of Protection of Democratic Rights West Bengal
the Union Government. (d) Shankari Prasad Singh Dev v/s Union of
2. may involve failure of the Government of India
India to perform its duties in accordance with Answer- (b)
the Constitution. Which of the statement(s)
given above is/are correct? Q 15. Which among the following was the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 reason of the resignations of the Indian
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ministers in all the provinces in the year
Answer- (a) 1939?
(a) The Governors refused to act as
Q 12. Political theory constitutional heads.
1. deals with the ideas and principles that (b) The centre did not provide the required
shape Constitutions. financial help to provinces.
2. clarifies the meaning of freedom, equality (c) The Governor-General converted Indian
and justice. administration from federal to unitary one
3. probes the significance of principles of rule because of the beginning of the Second
of law, separation of power and judicial World War.
review. Which of the statement(s) given (d) India was declared a party to the Second
above is/are correct? World War without the consent of the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 provincial governments.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Answer- (d)
Answer- (d)
Q 16. Consider the following statement(s)
Q 13. The functions of the committee on about world‘s first Modern Slavery Bill,
estimates, as incorporated in the Constitution published in June, 2014 by the British House
of India, shall be to of Commons
1. report what economies, improvements in 1. This is the first of its kind bill in Europe
organisation, efficiency or administrative which specifically addresses slavery and
reform may be effected. trafficking in the 21st century.
2. suggest alternative policies in order to 2. The Bill fixes the maximum sentence
bring about efficiency and economy in available for the most serious offenders upto
administration. 14 years. Which of the statements given
3. examine whether the money is well laid out above is/are correct?
within the limits of the policy implied in the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
estimates. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither1 nor 2
4. examine the reports, if any, of the Answer- (c)
Comptroller and Auditor General on the
Q 17. Which of the following about the 1. The State Election Commissioner shall be
principles of Panchsheel are correct? appointed by the Governer of State.
1. These are a set of five principles governing 2. The State Election Commission shall have
relations between states. power of even preparing the electoral rolls
2. The assumption of Panchsheel was that besides the power of superintendence,
newly independent states after decolonisation direction and control of election to the
would be able to develop a new and more Panchayat.
principled approach to international relations. 3. The State Election Commissioner (SEC)
3. The first formal codification in treaty form can be removed in any manner from the
was done in an agreement between China office. Until he demits himself or complete his
and India. tenure. Which of the statement(s) given
Select the correct answer using the code above is/are correct?
given below. (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Answer- (c)
Answer- (c)
Q 21. Which of the following statement(s)
Q 18. Arrange the following states of India on about Indian Judiciary is not correct?
the basis of conferring statehood (starting (a) The Constitution of India has not provide
from earliest) for double system of courts as in the United
1. Arunachal Pradesh States
2. Nagaland (b) The organisation of the subordinate
3. Sikkim Judiciary in India varies slightly from state-to-
4. Meghalaya state
Codes (c) Every state in India has separate High
(a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3 Court
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3 (d) The Supreme Court has issued direction
Answer- (a) to constitute an all India Judicial service to
bring about uniformity in designation of
Q 19. Consider the following statements officers in criminal and civil side
about Local Government in India. Answer- (c)
1. Article 40 of Indian Constitution provides
for the state to organise Village Panchayat Q 22. Which of the followingstatement(s)
and endow them with such powers and is/are not correct for the Ninth Schedule of
authority as may be necessary to make them the Constitution of India?
function as units of self government. 1. It was inserted by the First Amendment in
2. The 73rd and 74th Constitution 1951.
Amendments inserted part IX and IX A in the 2. It includes those laws which are beyond
Constitution. the purview of judicial review.
3. The provisions in part-IX and IX A of Indian 3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment.
Constitution are more or less parallel and 4. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are
analogous. primarily those which pertain to the matters of
4. The 73rd Constitution Amendment is national security.
applicable to all states irrespective of size of Select the correct answer using the code
population. Which of the statements given given below.
above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these Answer- (c)
Answer- (c)
Q 23. Which one of the following categories
Q 20. Consider the following statement(s) of persons is not treated at par so far as the
about State Election Commission.
availability of Fundamental Rights is Answer- (c)
concerned?
(a) Members of the armed forces Q 27. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian
(b) Members of the forces charged with the Constitution contains provisions for the
responsibility of maintenance of public order administration of Tribal areas.
(c) Members of the forces employed in Which of the following States is not covered
connection with the communications systems under this Schedule?
set-up in the country (a) Assam (b) Manipur
(d) Members of the forces employed in (c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura
connection with the communication systems Answer- (b)
set-up for maintenance of public order
Answer- (a) Q 28. Who acts as the chairman of the Chiefs
of Staff Committee?
Q 24. Notification regarding commencement (a) The President of India in his capacity as
or cessation of a State of war is the the Commander-in-Chief
responsibility of (b) The Prime Minister
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs (c) The Defence Minister
(b) Ministry of Defence (d) The seniormost Chief of Staff
(c) Ministry of External Affairs Answer- (d)
(d) None of the above
Answer- (c) Q 29. Which one of the following statement(s)
is correct?
Q 25. Which of the following statement(s) (a) The President cannot pardon a person
about Mahatma Gandhi’s South African sentenced by a Court Martial
experiences (1893-1914) is/are true? (b) The supreme command of the defence
1. Muslim merchants were actively involved in forces of the Union vests in the President, but
Gandhian political movements in South its exercise has to be regulated by law
Africa. (c) A person awarded rigorous imprisonment
2. In 1906, Gandhi led a campaign in Cape cannot be compelled to do hard work as this
Town against the ordinance on compulsory would amount to violation of Article 23 of the
registration and passes for Indians. Constitution of India
3. Gandhi began his political career with (d) The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007
struggles against the imposition of excessive excludes the powers of the High Courts under
taxes on Indians in Cape Town. Article 226 of the Constitution of India in
Select the correct answer using the codes relation to service matters of persons in the
given below. armed forces
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 Answer- (b)
(c) All of these (d) Only 1
Answer- (d) Q 30. Which one of the following statement(s)
is not correct?
Q 26. Which one of the following statement(s) (a) The Central Government is empowered
is incorrect? to issue a notification to specify any
(a) India does not have a Chief of Defence service in a State as a service of vital
Staff importance to the community
(b) India does not have a Permanent (b) Such a notification remains valid for 6
Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee months
(c) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff (c) Every command given by a superior
Committee who functions as Chief of the officer casts a duty on all persons subject to
Defence Staff the Army Act, 1950, the Air Force Act, 1950
(d) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff or the Navy Act, 1957 to obey the command
Committee who does not function as Chief of when such a notification is in force
the Defense Staff
(d) The provision of the Armed Forces (b) Distribution of powers between the
(Emergency Duties) Act, 1947 are applicable Federal and the State Governments
in connection with vital services imposed in a (c) Supremacy of the Constitution
emergency on the armed forces (d) Authority of the Courts to interpret the
Answer- (b) Constitution
Answer- (a)
Q 31. The power to decide the date of an
election to a State Legislative Assembly rests Q 35. Which of the following is not true of
with the Article 32 of the Indian Constitution?
(a) President of India (a) It gives the Supreme Court and the High
(b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet Courts the power to issue writs for the
(c) Election Commission of India enforcement of Fundamental Rights
(d) Parliament (b) It is included in Part III of the Indian
Answer- () Constitution and is therefore, itself a
Fundamental Right
Q 32. A Parliamentary Democracy is one (c) Dr Ambedkar called it the ‘very soul of the
where Indian Constitution’
1. a balance of popular participation and elite (d) An aggrieved person has no right to
rule takes place. complain under Article 32 where a
2. the government is responsible not to the Fundamental Right has not been violated
public but to the elected representatives. Answer- (a)
3. the parliamentarians are delegated the
responsibility of thinking and acting on behalf Q 36. In which of the following cases did the
of their constituents. Supreme Court rule that Constitutional
Select the correct answer using the code Amendments were also laws under Article-13
given below. of the Constitution of India, which could be
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 declared void for being inconsistent with
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 Fundamental Rights?
Answer- (b) (a) Keshavanand Bharati Case
(b) Golaknath Case
Q 33. When martial law is imposed, (c) Minerva Mills Case
Parliament cannot make law in respect of (d) Maneka Gandhi Case
which one of the following matters? Answer- (b)
(a) Indemnify any person in respect of any act
done by him in connection with the Q 37. Which of the following is not true about
maintenance of order in the area where the Convention on the Elimination of all forms
martial law in force of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)?
(b) Parliament can by law validate any (a) It defines what constitutes discrimination
sentence passed when martial law was in against women and sets-up an agenda for
force in the area national action
(c) A law of Parliament can validate forfeiture (b) It was adopted in 1979 by the United
ordered when martial law was in force in the Nations
area (c) It commits states to undertake measures
(d) Any act done under martial law can be to end discrimination in, their legal system
validated by Parliament by law (d) India is not a ratifying country and is
Answer- (d) therefore not legally bound to put its
provisions into practice
Q 34. Which among the following features of Answer- (d)
a federal system is not found in the Indian
Political System? Q 38. The Supreme Court guidelines issued
(a) Dual citizenship in the Vishaka case pertain to
(a) domestic violence
(b) rape and sexual violence 1. The Act is applicable only to the States of
(c) if sexual harassment at the work place Manipur, Tripura and Nagaland.
(d) trafficking in women 2. A person taken into custody under the
Answer- (c) above Act must be handed over to the officer-
incharge of the nearest police station with
Q 39. Which one of the following statements least possible delay.
is incorrect? 3. An area can be declared as a disturbed
(a) India does not have a Chief of Defence area under the above Act only when the State
Staff Government is of the opinion that the use of
(b) India does not have a Permanent the armed forces in aid of civil power is
Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee necessary to contain a dangerous condition
(c) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff in the concerned area.
Committee who functions as Chief of the Select the correct answer using the codes
Defence Staff given below.
(d) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2
Committee who does not function as Chief of (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
the Defence Staff Answer- (c)
Answer- (c)
Q 43. Which of the following is not a laid
Q 40. Information under the RTI Act, 2005 down principle of the Panchsheel?
can be provided in respect of (a) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial
(a) National Security Council Secretariat integrity
(b) Assam Rifles (b) Mutual non-aggression
(c) Border Road Development Board (c) Mutual support tor each other in world
(d) Border Road Organisation forum
Answer- (d) (d) Mutual non-interference in each other‘s
internal affairs
Q 41. Which of the following statement(s) Answer- (c)
is/are not true for the category of the
Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) inserted by Q 44. Which of the following laws have been
the amendment the Citizenship Act of India in repealed by the Constitution of India?
2003? 1. The Government of India Act, 1935.
1. It gives dual citizenship to Persons on India 2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947.
Origin (PIO), who are citizens another 3. The Abolition of Privi Council Juridisction
country. Act, 1949.
2. It gives Persons of Indian origin (PIO), who 4. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950.
are citizens of another country, are OCI card Select the correct answer using the codes
without citizenship. given below.
3. It permits the OCI to vote in general (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
elections in India. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
4. It allows the OCI to travel to Indian without Answer- (a)
visa.
Select the correct answer using the codes Q 45. Which of the following is/are not central
given below. feature(s) of Article 343 of the Constitution of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 India?
(c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 4 1. Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the
Answer- (b) national language of the Union.
2. The official language of the Union shall be
Q 42. Which of the following statement(s) Hindi in Devanagari script.
with regard to the Armed Forces (Special 3. English language shall continue to be used
Powers) Act, 1958 is/are correct? for official purposes within states.
4. If two or more states agree, Hindi language (c) Bibek Debroy
should be the official language of (d) VK Saraswat
communication between the states. Answer- (b)
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. Q 50. Freedom of conscience under the
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 Constitution of India is subject to
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2 1. public order, morality and health.
Answer- (a) 2. a law providing for social welfare and
reform.
Q 46. After the general elections, the Protem 3. opening Hindu religious institutions of a
Speaker is public character to all Hindus.
(a) elected by the Lok Sabha 4. defamation or incitement to an offence.
(b) appointed by the President of India Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(c) appointed by the Chief Justice of the correct?
Supreme Court (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) the seniormost member of the Lok Sabha (c) 3 and 4 , (d) 1 and 2
Answer- (b) Answer- (b)

Q 47. Match the following Q 51. Which of the following Fundamental

List I List ll Right(s) is/are available to non-citizens?
(Leaders) (Parties) 1. Equality before Law
A. Shyama Prasad 1. Communist Party 2. Right against Discrimination
Mukherjee of India 3. Equality of Opportunity
B. Minoo Masani 2. Bharatiya Jana 4. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
Sangh Select the correct answer using the codes
C. SA Dange 3. Swatantra Party given below.
D. Ashok Mehta 4. Praja Socialist (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 4
Party (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
Codes Answer- (b)
ABCD ABCD
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 1 3 2 Q 52. Which of the following statement(s)
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2 about the formation of the Constituent
Answer- (a) Assembly is/are correct?
1. The members of the Constituent Assembly
Q 48. Which of the following is/are not central were chosen on the basis of the Provincial
tenet(s) of the Constitution of India? Elections of 1946.
1. Prohibits discrimination on grounds of 2. The Constituent Assembly did not include
religion. representatives of the princely states.
2. Gives official status to certain religions. 3. The discussions within the Constituent
3. Provides freedom to profess any religion. Assembly were not influenced by opinions
4. Ensures equality of all citizens within expressed by the public.
religious communities. 4. In order to create a sense of collective
Select the correct answer using the codes participation, submissions were solicited from
given below. the public.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2 given below.
Answer- (d) (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Q 49. Who is the current Vice-Chairperson of Answer- (a)
NITI Aayog?
(a) Raghuram Rajan Q 53. Which of the following laws have been
(b) Arvind Panagariya repealed by the Constitution of India?
1. The Government of India Act, 1935. Q 57. Which one of the following statement(s)
2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947. about Electoral Government in India is not
3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction correct?
Act, 1949. (a) The superintendence, direction and
4. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950. control of elections are vested in the Election
Select the correct answer using the codes Commission of India
given below. (b) There is one general electoral roll for
(a) 1 and 2 every territorial constituency
(b) 2 and 4 (c) The Parliament has the power to make
(c) 1 and 3 laws relating to the delimitation of
(d) 1, 2 and 4 constituencies
Answer- (d) (d) The Supreme Court of India has the
authority to scrutinise the validity of a law
Q 54. A writ of Habeas Corpus for the release relating to delimitation of constituencies
of a person can be issued Answer- (d)
1. where the arrest or detention has taken
place in contravention of the procedure Q 58. The Electronic Voting Machines
established by law. (EVMs) are developed jointly with
2. to secure the release of a person 1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited.
imprisoned on a criminal charge. 2. Bharat Electronics Limited.
3. where the arrest has taken place for 3. Electronics Corporation of India Limited.
contempt of court or the Parliament. 4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited.
Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) All of these (d) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Answer- (a) Answer- (b)

Q 55. Which one of the following changes Q 59. The Constitution of India guarantees
has not been made to the Citizenship Act of freedom of thought and expression to all its
India by the Amendment in 2015? citizens subject to
(a) The Overseas Citizens of India will now 1. implementation of Directive Principles.
be called the Overseas Citizens of India 2. Fundamental Duties.
cardholders 3. Right to Equality.
(b) The Non-Resident Indians are entitled to Select the correct answer using the codes
vote in elections in India given below.
(c) The persons of Indian Origin have been (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
placed at par with the Overseas Citizens of (c) Only 1 (d) All of these
India Answer- (d)
(d) The persons of Indian Origin are now
entitled to life long visa to visit India Q 60. Which one of the following does nnot
Answer- (b) form part of Immanuel Kant’s theory of
‘perpetual peace’?
Q 56. Name the French revolutionary who (a) Republican constitutionalism
wrote Declaration of the Rights of Woman (b) Federal contract among states to abolish
and the Female Citizen. war
(a) Olympe de Gouges (c) World government
(b) Nancy Ruhling (d) Transformation of individual
(c) Maximilien Robespierre consciousness
(d) Mary Wollstonecraft Answer- (d)
Answer- (a)
Q 61. Which one of the following statement(s) 3. National Commission for Minorities
about the process of the Parliament to make 4. National Human Rights Commission
new states is not correct? Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) The Parliament may by law form a new given below.
state and alter the boundaries or names of (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 3 and 4
existing states (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in Answer- (a)
the Parliament except on the
recommendation of the President Q 65. Consider the following statement(s)
(c) A Bill to this effect may be referred by the 1. The President of India shall have the
President to the legislature of the affected power to appoint and remove the Speaker of
state Lok Sabha.
(d) Such a law will fall under the purview of 2. The Speaker has to discharge the
Article 368 functions of his office himself throughout his
Answer- (d) term and cannot delegate his functions to the
Deputy Speaker during his absence from the
Q 62. Which of the following statement(s) station or during his illness. Which of the
with regard to citizenship provisions of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Constitution of India is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
1. No person shall be a citizen of India by (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
virtue of Article 5, or be deemed to be a Answer- (d)
citizen of India by virtue of Article 6 or Article
8, if he/she has voluntarily acquired the Q 66. The Second Administrative Reforms
citizenship of any foreign state. Commission (2005) was concerned with
2. The Parliament has power to make any (a) reforms in institutional arrangements for
provision withn respect to the acquisition and good governance
termination of citizenship and all other (b) reforms in the Indian Penal Code and the
matters relating to citizenship. Criminal Justice System
Select the correct answer using the codes (c) creating an ombudsman mechanism for
given below. reduction of corruption in public life
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) devising new measures for urban
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 governance and management
Answer- (c) Answer- (a)

Q 63. The protection against arrest and Q 67. As per the Constitution of India, the
detention under Article 22 of the Constitution Writ of Prohibition relates to an order
of India is not available to 1. issued against judicial and quasi-judicial
1. an enemy alien. authority.
2. a person detained under a preventive 2. to prohibit an inferior Court from
detention law. proceeding in a particular case where it has
3. a foreigner. no jurisdiction tom try.
4. an overseas citizen of India. 3. to restrain a person from holding a public
Select the correct answer using the codes office to which he is not entitled.
given below. Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4 given below.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Answer- (a) (c) Only 1 (d) All of these
Answer- (a)
Q 64. Which of the following is/are
constitutional body/bodies? Q 68. Who among the following Prime
1. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes Ministers of India were defeated by a vote of
2. National Commission for Women No Confidence?
1. Morarji Desai 3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully
2. Vishwanath Pratap Singh independent Court for the country, was set-up
3. HD Deve Gowda under the Constitution of India in 1950.
4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee Select the correct answer using the codes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
given below. (a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) All of these
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these Answer- (d)
Answer- (d)
Q 72. Which one of the following
Q 69. Which of the following statement(s) Articles/Schedules in themConstitution of
regarding Rajya Sabha is/are correct? India deals with Autonomous District
1. The maximum permissible strength of Councils?
Rajya Sabha is 250. (a) Eighth Schedule
2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected (b) Article 370
indirectly from the States and Union (c) Sixth Schedule
Territories. (d) Article 250
3. It shares legislative powers equally with Answer- (c)
Lok Sabha in matters such as creation of All
India Services. Q 73. Which of the following statement(s)
Select the correct answer using the codes about Comptroller and Auditor General of
given below. India (CAG) is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 1. The CAG will hold office for a period of 6
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 years from the date he assumes the office.
Answer- (a) He shall vacate office on attaining the age of
65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6
Q 70. Which of the following statements years term.
relating to the office of the President of India 2. The powers of CAG are derived from the
are correct? Constitution of India.
1. The President has the power to grant 3. The CAG is a multi-member body
pardon to a criminal in special cases. appointed by the President of India in
2. The President can promulgate ordinances consultation with the Prime Minister and the
even when the Parliament is in session. Council of Ministers.
3. The President can dissolve the Rajya 4. The CAG may be removed by the
Sabha during emergency. President only on an address from both
4. The President has the power to nominate Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of
two members in the Lok Sabha from the proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Anglo Indian community. Select the correct answer using the codes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
given below. (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Answer- (a)
Answer- (b)
Q 74. In which one of the following
Q 71. Which of the statement(s) given below judgements of the Constitutional Bench of the
is/are correct? Supreme Court of India, the ‘rarest of rare’
1. The ideal of a common civil code is set principle in the award of death penalty was
forth in Article 44 of the Constitution of India. first laid down?
2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India (a) Bachan Singh vs State of Punjab (1980)
have been given more extensive powers than (b) Gopalanachari vs State of Kerala (1980)
the Supreme Court. (c) Dr Upendra Baxi vs State of Uttar Pradesh
(1983)
(d) Tukaram vs State of Maharashtra (1979) Select the correct answer using the codes
Answer- (a) given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
Q 75. Consider the following statements (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
about the President of India. Answer- (b)
1. The President has the right to address and
send message to the Council of Ministers to Q 78. A Member of Lok Sabha does not
elicit specific information. become disqualified to continue as a Member
2. The President can call for information of the House if the member
relating to proposals for legislation. (a) voluntarily gives up his/her membership of
3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers the political party from which he/she was
relating to administration of the Union must elected
be communicated to the President. (b) is expelled by the political party fromwhich
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are he/she had been elected to the House
correct? (c) joins a political party after being elected as
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 an independent candidate
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these (d) abstains from voting contrary to the
Answer- (d) direction by his/her political party
Answer- (b)
Q 76. In which one of the following cases, the
constitutional validity of the Muslim Women Q 79. Which one of the following language(s)
(Protection of Rights of Divorce) Act, 1986, is not recognised in the Eighth Schedule to
was upheld by the Supreme Court of India? the Constitution of India?
(a) Muhammad Ahmed Khan vs Shah Bano (a) English (b) Sanskrit
Begum (c) Urdu (d) Nepali
(b) Danial Latifi vs Union of India Answer- (a)
(c) Mary Roy vs State of Kerala
(d) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India Q 80. The category of ‘Overseas Citizens of
Answer- (b) India’ was entered in the Citizenship Act of
India through an amendment in the year
Q 77. Which of the following statement(s) (a) 1986 (b) 1992
with regard to preventive detention in India (c) 1996 (d) 2003
is/are correct? Answer- (d)
1. The detenue has no rights other than those
mentioned in Clauses (4) and (5) of Article 22 Q 81. The Right to Education was added to
of Constitution of India. the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of
2. The detenue has a right to challenge the India through the
detention order on the ground that he was (a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002
already in (b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005
jail when the detention order was passed. (c) Constitution (87th Amendment) Act, 2003
3. The detenue can claim bail on the ground (d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011
that he has been in prison beyond twenty-four Answer- (a)
hours without an order of the Magistrate.
(b) To protect monuments of national
importance
(c) To defend the country and render national
service when called upon to do so
Q 82. Which one among the following is a (d) To know more and more about the history
Fundamental Duty of citizens under the of India
Constitution of India? Answer- (c)
(a) To provide friendly co-operation to the
people of the neighbouring countries
Q 83. Take the case of dignity andm equal Answer- (d)
rights for women. How do democracies help?
(a) Women in democracies have equal Q 87. Consider the following statement(s)
degree of political representation inm According to Hindu Law, marriage is defined
legislatures as
(b) Women in democracies have guaranteed 1. a contract
rights and are always treated with respect 2. a sacrament
(c) Women in democracies are not subjected 3. mutual understanding
sex discrimination in most aspects of social 4. indissoluble
life Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(d) In democracies, the principle of equality is correct?
accepted as legal norm, which makes it (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
easier to guarantee their freedom and dignity (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Answer- (d) Answer- (b)

Q 84. The Constitution of India is republican Q 88. Which one among the following
because it statement(s) is not correct? The word
(a) provides for an elected Parliament ‘socialist’ in the Preamble of the Constitution
(b) provides for adult franchise of India read with
(c) contains a bill of rights (a) Article 39 (d), would enable the court to
(d) has no hereditary elements uphold the constitutionality of nationalisation
Answer- (d) laws
(b) Article 14, would enable the court to strike
Q 85. Which among the following conditions down a-statute which failed to achieve the
are necessary for the issue of writ of quo socialist goal to the fullest extent
warranto? (c) Article 25, would enable the court to
1. The office must be public and must be ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article
created by a Statute or by the Constitution (d) Article 23, would enable the court to
itself. reduce inequality of income and status
2. The office must be a substantive one and Answer- (d)
not merely the function or employment of a
servant at the will and during the pleasure of Q 89. Suppose a Legislation was passed by
another. the Parliament imposing certain restrictions
3. There has been a contravention of the on newspapers. These included page ceiling,
Constitution or a Statute or Statutory price and advertisements. The legislation is
Instrument, in appointing such person to that included in the Ninth Schedule to the
office. Constitution of India. In this context, which
Select the correct answer using the codes one among the following statement(s) is
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Freedom of Press
Answer- (b) (b) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article
31 B
Q 86. Under which law it is prescribed that all (c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes
proceedings in the Supreme Court of India unreasonable restrictions under Article 19 (2)
shall be in English language? of the Constitution
(a) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 (d) The legislation is valid as the Press is not
(b) A Legislation made by the a citizen under Article 19 of the Constitution
Parliament Answer- (b)
(c) Article 145 of the Constitution of
India
(d) Article 348 of the Constitution of India
Q 80. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Answer- (b)
Sabha, which one among the following
statement(s) is not correct? Q 94. The purpose of Directive Principles of
(a) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the State Policy is to
Rajya Sabha (a) lay down positive instructions which would
(b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to guide State Policy at all levels
reject or amend a Money Bill (b) implement Gandhiji’s idea for a
(c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the decentralised state
Annual Financial Statement (c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the
(d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on government
the Demands for Grants (d) promote welfare of the backward sections
Answer- (c) of the society
Answer- (a)
Q 91. Which one among the following is the
distinguishing factor between a pressure Q 95. Which of the following condition(s)
group and a political party? must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to
(a) Pressure groups are confined to a few, vote in elections in India?
while political parties involve larger number of 1. They must be physically present in their
people place of origin to exercise their franchise.
(b) Pressure groups do not seek active 2. NRIs whether they have acquired
political power, political parties do citizenship of other countries or not are
(c) Pressure groups do not politically motivate eligible to vote.
people, while political parties do 3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up
(d) Political parties take political stance, while form 6-A with electoral registration office.
pressure groups do not bother about political Select the correct answer using the codes
issues given below.
Answer- (b) (a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these
Q 92. There are different arguments given in Answer- (d)
favour of power sharing in a democratic
political system. Which one of the following is Q 96. The Kamraj Plan was a plan formulated
not one of them? in 1963 by then
(a) It reduces conflict among different (a) Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new
communities Constitution for the Indian National Congress
(b) Majority community does not impose its was proposed
will on others (b) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the
(c) Since, all are affected by the policies of senior ministers were asked to leave
the government, they should be consulted in government and work to rejuvenate the party
the governance of the country (c) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby a new
(d) It speeds up the decision- making process set of principles for accepting donations for
and improves the chances of unity of the the party work was proposed
country (d) Chief Minister of Madras to root out
Answer- (b) corruption from India
Answer- (b)
Q 93. Which one among the following pairs of
level of government and legislative power is Q 97. Which one among the following is not
not correctly matched? guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
(a) Central Government : Union List (a) Freedom to move freely throughout the
(b) Local Governments : Residuary Powers country
(c) State Governments : State List (b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without
(d) Central and State Government : arms
Concurrent List
(c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
property anywhere in the country forced labour.
(d) Freedom to practice any trade or 2. Abolition of untouchability.
profession 3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
Answer- (c) 4. Prohibition of employment of children in
factories and mines.
Q 98. The Constitution of India divided the Select the correct answer using the codes
states of India in categories A, B, C and D in given below.
the year 1950. In this context, which of the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
following statement(s) is correct? (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(a) The Chief Commissioner was the Answer- (c)
executive head of category A states. The
Rajpramukh was the executive head of Q 101. In which one of the following cases,
category B states. The Governor was the the Supreme Court of India gave verdicts
executive head of categories C and D states which have a direct bearing on the Centre-
(b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head State relations?
of category A states. The Chief (a) Keshavananda Bharati case
Commissioner was the executive head of (b) Vishakha case
categories B and C states. The Governor was (c) SR Bommai case
the executive head of the category D states (d) Indira Sawhney case
(c) The Governor was the executive head of Answer- (c)
category A states. The Rajpramukh was the
executive head of category B states. The Q 102. Consider the following statements
Chief Commissioner was them executive about the powers of the President of India.
head of categories C and D states 1. The President can direct that any matter on
(d) The Governor was the executive head of which decision has been taken by a Minister
category A states. The Chief Commissioner should be placed before the Council of
was the executive head of category B states. Ministers.
The Rajpramukh was the executive head of 2. The President can call all minformation
categories C and D states relating to proposals for legislation.
Answer- (c) 3. The President has the right to address and
send messages to either House of the
Q 99. Which of the following statement(s) Parliament.
is/are correct? Under the provisions of Article 4. Decisions of the Council of Ministers
200 of the Constitution of India the Governor relating to the administration of the Union
of a State may must be communicated to the President.
1. withhold his assent to a bill passed by the Which of the statements given above are
State Legislature. correct?
2. reserve the bill passed by the State (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
Legislature for consideration of the President. (c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these
3. return the bill, other than a Money Bill, for Answer- (d)
reconsideration of the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the codes Q 103. With reference to the conduct of
given below. government business in the Parliament of
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 India, the term ‘closure’ refers to
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) suspension of debate at the termination of
Answer- (d) a day’s sitting of the Parliament
(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which
Q 100. Which of the following are envisaged further debate on a motion can be halted
as being part of the ‘Right against (c) the termination of a Parliamentary session
Exploitation’ in the Constitution of India?
(d) refusal on the part of the Government to (c) for 6 years or till the age of 65 years,
have the opposition look at important whichever is earlier
documents (d) for 5 years or till the age of 60 years,
Answer- (a) whichever is earlier
Answer- (c)
Q 104. According to the Administrative
Tribunal Act, 1985, the Central Administrative Q 108. The writ of Prohibition is issued by a
Tribunal adjudicates disputes and complaints superior court
with respect to the service of persons who (a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from
are exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to
(a) appointed to public services and posts in the rules of natural justice
connection with the affairs of the Union (b) to an inferior court or body exercising
except members of the Defence services judicial or quasi-judicial functions to transfer
(b) official and servants of the Supreme Court the record to proceedings in a case for its
or any High Courts review
(c) members of the Secretarial staff of the (c) where it can call upon a person to show
Parliament or any state legislatures under what authority he/she is holding the
(d) members of the Defence services office
Answer- (a) (d) to an authority to produce an illegally
detained person before the court for trial
Q 105. Which of the following statement(s) Answer- (a)
with respect to the judiciary in India is/are
correct? Q 109. Which one among the following is not
1. Unlike in the United States, India has not included in the Fundamental Rights
provided for a double system of courts. embodied in the Constitution of India?
2. Under the Constitution ofIndia, there is a (a) Right to Equality
single integrated system of courts for the (b) Right to Freedom
Union as well as the states. (c) Right against Exploitation
3. The organisation of the subordinate (d) Right to Information
judiciary varies slightly from state to state. Answer- (d)
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. Q 110. Consider the following statement(s)
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 relating to the procedure of the election of the
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok
Answer- (d) Sabha.
1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on
Q 106. Which of the following Committees such date as the Prime Minister may fix and
are the Committees of Parliament? the Secretary General shall send to every
1. Public Accounts Committee. member notice of this date.
2. Estimates Committee. 2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be
3. Committee on Public Undertakings. held on such date as the Speaker may fix and
Select the correct answer using the codes the Secretary General shall send to every
given below. member notice of this date.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 3. At anytime before noon on the day
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these preceding the date so fixed, any member may
Answer- (d) give notice in writing of a motion that another
member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of
Q 107. The Chief Election Commissioner of the House.
India holds office for a period of Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(a) 6 years correct?
(b) during the pleasure of the President (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer- (a) Q 115. Delimitation of constituencies and
determination of constituencies reserved for
Q 111. Which one among the following is not Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are
a Fundamental Duty of the citizen of India? done by
(a) To develop scientific temper, humanism (a) Election Commission
and the spirit of inquiry and reform (b) Delimitation Commission
(b) To safeguard public property and to (c) Planning Commission
abjure violence (d) Election Commission with the assistance
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, of Delimitation Commission
unity and integrity of India Answer- (b)
(d) To practice family planning and to control
population Q 36. With reference to Lok Adalats, which
Answer- (d) one among the following statement(s) is
correct?
Q 112. Which one among the following writs (a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle
literally means you may have thebody? the matters at pre-litigative state and not
(a) Certiorari those matters pending before any court
(b) Habeas Corpus (b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which
(c) Mandamus are civil and not criminal in nature
(d) Quo Warranto (c) Lok Adalats has not been given any
Answer- (b) statutory status so far
(d) No appeal lies in a civil court against the
Q 113. Which one among the following is not order of the Lok Adalat
a recommendation of the Sarkaria Answer- (d)
Commission on the appointment of the
Governor in a state? Q 117. Which among the following
(a) He/She must not have participated in provision(s) of the Constitution of India is/are
active politics atleast for sometime before fulfilled by the National Social Assistance
his/her appointment asGovernor Programme launched by the Government of
(b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court India?
may be consulted by the President in 1. Fundamental Rights.
selecting a Governor 2. Fundamental Duties.
(c) The Governor’s term of office of 5 years 3. Directive Principles of State Policy.
should not be disturbed except very rarely Select the correct answer using the codes
(d) The Governor should not be the native of given below.
the state (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Answer- (b) (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
Answer- (c)
Q 114. Which one among the following
statement(s) about the functioning of political Q 118. Consider the following statement(s)
parties in a democracy is not correct? 1. In India, only two Union Territories have
(a) Political parties give political education to Legislative Assemblies.
the people 2. Mizoram, Nagaland and Meghalaya, the
(b) Political parties serve as a link between three North-Eastern States of India, have only
the government and thepeople one seat each in the Lok Sabha.
(c) Political parties fight elections and try to Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
get the maximum number of their candidates correct?
elected (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) None of the above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer- (a) Answer- (a)
Q 119. The Rights to Information means and Answer- (d)
includes
1. inspection of documents. Q 123. What is/are the major difference(s)
2. taking out files from office to any place between a written and an unwritten
desired by the applicant. Constitution?
3. taking photograph of files. 1. A written Constitution is the formal source
4. obtaining information in tapes. of all Constitutional Laws in the country and
Which of the statement(s) given above are the unwritten Constitution is not the formal
correct? source.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 2. A written Constitution is entirely codified
(c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these whereas an unwritten Constitution is not.
Answer- (c) Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
Q 120. Match the following (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
List I (Acts) List II (Features) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A.The Indian 1. Introduction of Answer- (c)
Councils Act, 1892 Provincial autonomy
B.The Indian 2. Introduction of the Q 124. In the Rajya Sabha, the states have
Councils Act, 1909 principle of election been given seats
C.The Government of 3. Introduction of (a) in accordance with their population
India Act, 1919 diarchy in provinces (b) equally
D.The Government of 4. Introduction of (c) on the basis of population and economic
India Act, 1935 Separate electorate position
for the (d) on the basis of present economic status
Muslims Answer- (a)
Codes
ABCD ABCD Q 125. The Preamble is useful in
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 constitutional interpretation because it
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 (a) uses value loaded words
Answer- (d) (b) contains the real objective and philosophy
of the Constitution makers
Q 121. The Instrument of Instructions (c) is a source of power and limitation
contained in the Government of India Act, (d) gives and exhaustive list of basic features
1935 has been incorporated in the of the Constitution
Constitution of India in the year 1950 as Answer- (b)
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy Q 126. Which one among the following is not
(c) Extent of Executive Power of State an attribute of sustainability of Indian
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of democratic model?
India (a) Unity in diversity in socio-cultural patterns
Answer- (b) (b) Sustained economic growth specially after
the 1990s
Q 122. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may (c) Regular elections in the centre and states
be removed from office by since, 1950s
(a) the majority party in the house adopting a (d) A strong industrial base with a vibrant
no-confidence motion federal structure
(b) a resolution passed by not less than half Answer- (b)
of the total membership of the house
(c) a resolution passed by atleast two-thirds Q 127. Consider the following statement(s)
of the total membership of the house regarding e-courts, launched recently in India
(d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the 1. They will facilitate hearing of cases via
members of the house video conferencing.
2. They will follow the same procedures that Q 131. Which one among the following is a
are laid out for the bench for hearing appeals Fundamental Duty of citizens under the
in an open court. Constitution of India?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are (a) To provide friendly cooperation to the
correct? people of the neighbouring countries
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) To visit the monuments of national
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 importance
Answer- (c) (c) To defend the country and render national
service when called upon to do so
Q 128. Besides representation, the (d) To know more and more about the
Parliament of India is also a deliberative body religions of India
with diverse functions. Which one among the Answer- (c)
following is not a function of the Parliament of
India? Q 132. India’s Look East Policy was
(a) Ventilating the grievances of the people conceived in the early 1990s at a time when
(b) Executing major policy decisions India was in the process of adjusting to the
(c) Holding the government accountable for post-cold war watershed changes in the
its actions and expenditure international geostrategic environment. The
(d) Amending the Constitution Look EastPolicy
Answer- (b) 1. reflects both historical imperatives and
contemporary compulsion of the post-cold
Q 129. Which one among the following war new world order.
statement(s) is not correct? 2. seeks to optimise India’s synergies in the
(a) The right conferred by Article 32 cannot extended Asia-Pacific neighbourhood.
be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 3. has led to India’s participation in Asia-
(1) of the Constitution of India Pacific forums like ASEAN, East Asia
(b) The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 Summit, BIMSTEC and other institutions.
cannot be suspended Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(c) Punishments can be prescribed by a State correct?
Legislation for offences under Part III of the (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
Constitution of India (c) Only 2 (d) All of these
(d) The Fundamental Rights can be Answer- (a)
abrogated by law made by the Parliament
with regard to members of the forces charged Q 133. Which one among the following
with the maintenance of public order committees of the Parliament of India has no
Answer- (d) members of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
Q 130. The Government of India Act, 1919 (b) Estimates Committee
1. established a bicameral legislature at the (c) Public Undertakings Committee
centre. (d) Departmentally Related Standing
2. introduced dyarchy in the provincial Committee on Finance
executive. Answer- (b)
3. introduced a Federal System of
Government in India. Q 134. Which one among the following is not
Select the correct answer using the codes a constitutional body in India?
given below. (a) Comptroller and Auditor General
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (b) National Commissioner for religious and
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these Linguistic Minorities
Answer- (c) (c) National Commission for Scheduled
Castes
(d) National Human Rights Commission
Answer- (b)
1. Consider the following statement(s) Q 138. The Parliament of India passed the
1. The Anti-Defection Law bans an elected Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas
member from voting against the explicit Law popularly known as PESA Law. Which
mandate of his/her party. one among the following statement(s)
2. The Anti-Defection provisions do not apply regarding PESA Law is not correct?
if one-third of the members of a party disobey (a) PESA was meant to provide
the mandate of the party and constitute selfgovernance in the Scheduled Areas
themselves as a separate party. Which of the (b) PESA disempowers Gram Sabhas
statement(s) given above is/are correct? (c) PESA protects the interests of the tribals
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) PESA conducts public hearings to protect
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 inheritance rights of the tribals
Answer- (d) Answer- (b)

Q 136. The Constituent Assembly of India Q 139. Which one among the following
convened to prepare the Constitution of India countries redefined the principles of
appointed a sub-committee headed by ‘Panchashila’ for the purpose of domestic
Gopinath Bordoloi. Which of the following politics?
recommendation(s) was/were made by the (a) Ghana (b) China
committee? (c) Indonesia (d) Sri Lanka
1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier Answer- (b)
(Asom) Tribal and Excluded Areas.
2. Constitution of District Councils in all Q 140. The Planning Commission of India
autonomous districts of Asom. was constituted
3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (a) under constitutional provision with specific
(Asom) Tribal and Excluded Areas. mention for it
4. Demarcation of territories in North-East (b) through an Act of Parliament
India. (c) through a cabinet decision in this regard
Select the correct answer using the codes (d) through constitutional amendment
given below. Answer- (c)
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4 Q 141. In the SR Bommai vs Union of India
Answer- (d) case, which one among the following features
of the Constitution of India was upheld by the
Q 137. How does participatory budgeting Supreme Court as a basic structure?
seek to make the functioning of local (a) Liberalism
governance institutions more transparent and (b) Secularism
accountable? (c) Dignity of the human person
1. By allowing citizens to deliberate and (d) Freedom of religion
negotiate over the distribution of public Answer- (b)
resources.
2. By allowing citizens to play a direct role in Q 142. Which of the following freedoms is not
deciding how and where resources should be specifically mentioned in the Constitution of
spent. India as a Fundamental Right, but has been
3. By allowing historically excluded citizens subsequently upheld by the Supreme Court
with access to important decision-making as such?
venues. (a) Freedom of trade, occupation and
Select the correct answer using the codes business
given below. (b) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 the country
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these (c) Freedom of association and union
Answer- (c) (d) Freedom of the press
Answer- (d) 3. Speaker : The House of People chooses
after its first sitting
Q 143. Match the following Codes
List I List II (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
(Commissions/Com (Mandates) (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
mittees) Answer- (c)
A. Sachar Committee 1. Anti-Sikh Riots,
1984 Q 147. Which of the following statement(s) is
B. Srikrishna 2. Socio-economic not correct?
Commission and Educational (a) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the
conditions of Muslims Council of States
in India (b) The Council of States has no power to
C. Ranganath Misra 3. Bombay reject or amend a Money Bill
Commission Communal Riots, (c) The Council of Ministers is responsible to
1992 the House of the People and not to the
D. Nanavati 4. Linguistic and Council of States
Commission religious minorities in (d) The House of the People has special
India powers with respect to the State List
compared to the Council of States
Codes Answer- (d)
ABCD ABCD
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 Q 148. Electoral disputes arising out of
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2 Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections
Answer- (a) are settled by
(a) Election Commission of India
Q 144. The Judge of the High Courts in India (b) Joint Committee of Parliament
is administered oath of office by (c) Supreme Court of India
(a) the Chief Justice of the High Court (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) the Governor of the State Answer- (c)
(c) the President of India
(d) the Chief Justice of India Q 149. Power of the Supreme Court of India
Answer- (b) to decide the dispute between centre and
state falls under
Q 145. Among the following ideals and (a) advisory jurisdiction
philosophy, identify those enshrined in the (b) original jurisdiction
Preamble to the Constitution of India. (c) appellate jurisdiction
1. Sovereign democratic republic. (d) constitutional jurisdiction
2. Socialism and secularism. Answer- (b)
3. Capitalism and free trade.
Which of the statements given above are Q 150. The Governor may recommend the
correct? imposition of the President's rule in the state
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (a) on the recommendation of the State
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Legislature
Answer- (a) (b) on the recommendation of the President
(c) on the recommendation of the Chief
Q 146. Which of the following pair(s) of Minister
constitutional authority and procedure of (d) if he is convinced that the Government of
appointment is/are correctly matched? the State cannot be carried on in accordance
1. President : Elected by an electoral college with the provisions of the Constitution of India
consisting of elected MLAs and MPs Answer- (d)
2. Vice-President : Elected by an electoral
college consisting of MLAs and MPs
Q 151. Certain bills cannot be introduced or (Persons) (Committees)
proceeded with unless the recommendation
of the President is received. However, no A. BR Ambedkar 1. Drafting Committee
recommendation is required in some other B. HC Mukherjee 2. Minorites
cases. In which one of the following cases Sub-committee
such recommendation is not required? C. Rajendra Prasad 3. Steering Committee
(a) For introduction of bills and for moving D. Jawaharlal Nehru 4. States Committee
amendments relating to financial matters Codes
(b) For introduction of a bill relating to ABCD ABCD
formation of new states or of alternation of (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 2 3 4
areas of existing states (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
(c) For moving of an amendment making Answer- (b)
provision for the reduction or abolition of any
tax Q 155. Consider the following statement(s)
(d) For introduction of a bill or moving of an about democracy
amendment affecting taxation in which states 1. It consists with the formation of
are interested government elected by the people.
Answer- (a) 2. In democracy, those currently in power
have a fair chance of losing.
Q 152. ‘The Draft Constitution as framed only 3. Each vote has one value.
provides a machinery for the government of Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
the country. It is not a contrivance to install correct?
any particular party in power as has been (a) 1 and 2 (b) All of these
done in some countries. Who should be in (c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3
power is left to be determined by the people, Answer- (b)
as it must be, ‘if the system is to satisfy the
test of democracy’? The above passage from Q 156. Which one of the following
Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to statement(s) regarding the Departmental
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru Committee of the Parliament of India on the
(b) Dr BR Ambedkar empowerment of women is correct?
(c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (a) The Committee will consist of members of
(d) Acharya JB Kriplani the Lok Sabha
Answer- (b) (b) A Cabinet Minister can be a member of
the Committees
Q 153. Which of the following statements are (c) The term of office of the members of the
correct regarding Joint Session of the Houses Committee shall not exceed 2 years
of the Parliament in India? (d) It reports on the working of welfare
1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the programmes for the women
President to take steps for resolving deadlock Answer- (d)
between the two houses.
2. It is not obligatory upon the President to Q 157. Consider the following statement(s)
summon the houses to meet in a joint sitting. 1. Forming a cooperative society is a
3. It is being notified by the President. Fundamental Right in India.
4. It is frequently resorted to establish the 2. Cooperative societies do not fall within the
supremacy of the Lok Sabha. Select the ambit of the Right to Information Act, 2005.
correct answer using the codes given below. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Answer- (b) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer- (c)
Q 154. Match the following
List I List II
Q 158. The legislative power of the (b) not exceeding 9 months
Parliament includes making laws (c) of 1 year at a time
1. on matters not enumerated in the (d) of 2 years at a time
Concurrent List and State List. Answer- (c)
2. in respect of entries in the State List if two
or more State Legislatures consider it
desirable.
3. for implementing any treaty agreement or
convention with any country even if it falls in
the State List. Which of the statement(s)
given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer- (d)

Q 159. Which of the following statement(s) in

the context of structure of the Parliament
is/are correct?
1. The Parliament of India consists of the
President, the Council of States and the
House of the people.
2. The President of India is directly elected by
an electoral college consisting of the elected
members of both the Houses of the
Parliament only.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer- (a)

Q 160.There are provisions in the

Constitution of India which empower the
Parliament to modify or annual the operation
of certain provisions of the Constitution
without actually amending them. They include
1. any law made under Article 2 (relating to
admission or establishment of new states).
2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to
formation of new states).
3. amendment of 1st Schedule and 4th
Schedule.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) All of these (d) None of these
Answer- (a)

Q 161. While a proclamation of emergency is

in operation the duration of the Lok Sabha
can be extended for a period
(a) not exceeding 3 months