AGK1

1. What is the purpose of the wing main spar?

a. To withstand bending and torsional loads.
b. To withstand compressive and torsional loads.
c. To withstand compressive and shear loads.
d. To withstand bending and shear loads.

2.What is the purpose of wing ribs?

a. To withstand the fatigue stresses.
b. To shape the wing and support the skin.
c. To house the fuel and the landing gear.
d. To provide local support for the skin.

3. What is the purpose of stringers?

a. To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses.
b. To produce stress risers and support the fatigue metres.
c. To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin.
d. To support the primary control surfaces.

4. The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing:

a. the design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor.
b. the design limit load plus the design ultimate load.
c. three times the safety factor.
d. the design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety.

5. In the construction of airframes, the primary purpose of frames or formers is to:

a. provide a means of attaching the stringers and skin panels.
b. oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the fuselage.
c. form the entrance door posts.
d. support the wings.

6. How can wing bending moments be reduced in flight?

a. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and keeping the centre section fuel tanks full for as long as possible.
b. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and using the fuel in the wings last.
c. By having tail-mounted engines and using aileron ‘down-float’.
d. By having wing-mounted engines and using the wing fuel first.

7.Regarding a safe life structure:

1. will only fail after a known number of operations or hours of use.
2. should not fail until a predicted number of fatigue cycles has been achieved.
3. has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults.
4. is changed before its predicted life is reached.
a. 1 and 2 apply.
b. 1 and 3 apply.
c. 2, 3 and 4 apply.
d. all of the above apply.
8. A fail safe structure:
1. has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults.
2. is changed before its predicted life is reached.
3. has redundant strength which will tolerate a certain amount of structural damage.
4. is secondary structure of no structural significance.
a. 1 and 2 apply.
b. 1 and 3 apply.
c. 3 and 4 apply.
d. all of the above apply.

9. The skin of a modern pressurised aircraft:

a. is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle.
b. houses the crew and the payload.
c. provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather.
d. is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads.

10. The primary purpose of the fuselage is to:

a. support the wings.
b. house the crew and payload.
c. keep out adverse weather.
d. provide access to the cockpit.

11. Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are:

a. a means of locating airframe structure and components.
b. passenger seat locations.
c. runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal.
d. compass alignment markings.

12. Flight deck windows are constructed from:

a. an amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals.
b. strengthened glass with shock absorbing clear vinyl interlayers and rubber pressure seals.
c. strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing and rubber pressure seals.
d. strengthened glass with rubber seals.

13. A cantilever wing:

a. is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires.
b. is supported at one end only with no external bracing.
c. has both an upper an lower airfoil section.
d. folds at the root section to ease storage in confined spaces.

14. A torsion box:

a. is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and twisting loads.
b. is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads.
c. is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls and landing gear.
d. is a structure designed to reduce the weight.
15. A lightening hole in a rib:
a. prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage.
b. provides a means of passing cables and controls through a pressure bulkhead.
c. collects and disposes of electrical charges.
d. lightens and stiffens the structure.

16. Control surface flutter:

a. provides additional lift for take off and landing in the event of engine failure.
b. occurs at high angles of attack.
c. is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight envelope.
d. is a means of predicting the critical safe life of the wing.

17. Control surface flutter is minimized by:

a. reducing the moment of the critical engine.
b. aerodynamic balance of the control cables.
c. changing the wings before they reach their critical life.
d. mass balance of the control surface.

18. A damage tolerant structure:

a. has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area.
b. is light, non-load bearing structure, damage to which will not adversely affect the aircraft.
c. is replaced when it reaches its predicted life.
d. need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance.

19. Aircraft structures consists mainly of:

a. light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets and titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.
b. magnesium alloy sheets with aluminium rivets and titanium or steel at points requiring high strength.
c. aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.
d. aluminium sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.

20. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) of an aircraft is:

a. the maximum permissible take off mass of the aircraft.
b. the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with no useable fuel.
c. the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with zero payload.
d. the maximum permissible landing mass.

21. A force of 100N is applied to 2 separate jacks, the area of one is 0.02m2 and the other is 0.04m2:
a. the smaller jack will exert a pressure of 2,000Pa and the larger 4,000 Pa.
b. the smaller jack will exert a pressure of 5,000 Pa and the larger 2,500 Pa.
c. both jacks will move at the same speed.
d. both have the same load.

22. A pre charge pressure of 1,000 bar of gas is shown on the accumulator gauge. The system is then
pressurised to 1,500 bar, so the accumulator will read:
a. 500 bar.
b. 1,000 bar.
c. 1,500 bar.
d. 2,500 bar.
23. The pressure gauge of an hydraulic system provides information regarding the pressure of:
a. the air in the accumulator.
b. the air and hydraulic fluid in the system.
c. the proportional pressure in the system.
d. the hydraulic fluid in the system.

24. A shuttle valve:

a. is used to replace NRVs.
b. allows two supply sources to operate one unit.
c. allows one source to operate two units.
d. acts as a non-return valve.

25. Def. Stan 91/48 is ---------- and is ------------- based:

a. red , mineral
b. red , synthetic
c. green, mineral
d. purple, synthetic

26. A restrictor valve:

a. is used to restrict the number of services available after loss of system pressure.
b. controls the rate of movement of a service.
c. controls the rate of build up of pressure in the system.
d. controls the distance a jack moves.

27. With a hyd lock there is:

a. flow, but no jack movement.
b. no flow but jack continues to move under gravitational effects.
c. no flow, jack is stationary.
d. constant flow.

28. The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to:
a. high operating fluid temperature.
b. system failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp and possible corrosion.
c. a rise in the reservoir fill level.
d. normal operation, it does not matter which fluid is used.

29. Accumulator floating piston:

a. pushes the fluid up when being charged.
b. pushes the fluid down when being charged.
c. provides a seal between the gas and fluid.
d. prevents a hydraulic lock.

30. A relief valve:

a. relieves below system pressure.
b. maintains pressure to a priority circuit.
c. relieves at its designed pressure.
d. prevents excessive pressure through increased fluid temperature.
31. The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is:
a. to compensate for leaks, displacement and expansion.
b. to allow a space into which spare fluid may be stored.
c. to indicate system contents.
d. to maintain fluid between a jack and the accumulator.

32. With air in the hydraulic system you would:

a. ignore it because normal operation would remove it.
b. bleed the air out of the system.
c. allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself.
d. expect it to operate faster.

33. The pressure filter in a hydraulic system:

a. filters the fluid returning to the tank.
b. is fitted down stream of the pump.
c. can be by passed when maximum flow is required.
d. clears the fluid as it leaves the reservoir.

34. Pascal’s law states that:

a. pressure is inversely proportional to load.
b. liquid is compressible.
c. oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators.
d. applied force acts equally in all directions.

35. A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by:

a. an automatic cut out.
b. engine RPM.
c. a control piston.
d. a swash plate that senses the fluid temperature.

36. A high pressure hydraulic pump:

a. needs a positive fluid supply.
b. does not need a positive fluid supply.
c. outlet pressure is governed by centrifugal force.
d. does not need a cooling fluid flow.

37. Case drain filters are:

a. fitted to prevent debris from the reservoir reaching the system.
b. designed to allow hydraulic pump lubricating fluid to drain to atmosphere.
c. to enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to monitor pump condition.
d. fitted in the reservoir outlet.

38. The purpose of an accumulator is to:

a. relieve excess pressure.
b. store fluid under pressure.
c. store compressed gas for tyre inflation.
d. remove air from the system.
39. With a one way check valve (NRV):
a. flow stops when input pressure is greater than output pressure.
b. flow stops when the thermal relief valve off loads the hand pump.
c. flow starts when input pressure is less than output pressure.
d. flow stops when input pressure is less than output pressure.

40. A restrictor valve is physically fitted in the:

a. u/c up line and flap up line.
b. u/c down line and flap up line.
c. u/c down line and flap down line.
d. supply line to the u/c retraction actuator.

41. In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve:

a. a full flow relief valve is fitted down stream of it.
b. a full flow relief valve is fitted upstream of it.
c. a full flow relief valve is not required.
d. the terminal pressure will be controlled by adjusting the pump RPM.

42. Hydraulic pressure of 3,000Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of which is 0.02m2 and
the same pressure is exerted on actuator whose area is 0.04m2:
a. both have the same force.
b. both jacks will move at the same speed.
c. the smaller jack will exert a force of 600N and the larger 1,200N.
d. the smaller jack will exert a force of 60N and the larger 120N.

43. A separator in an accumulator:

a. isolates the gas from the fluid.
b. reduces the size of the accumulator required.
c. removes the dissolved gases from the fluid.
d. maintains the fluid level in the reservoir.

44. In an operating hydraulic actuator the pressure of the fluid will be:
a. greatest near to the actuator due to the load imposed on the jack.
b. greatest at the opposite end to the actuator due to the load imposed on the actuator.
c. high initially, falling as the actuator completes its travel.
d. the same at all points.

45. The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate that the reservoir is at
the full level. The system is then pressurised. Will the contents level:
a. fall below the “full” mark.
b. fall to a position marked ‘full accs charged’.
c. remain at the same level.
d. rise above the “full” mark.

46. A pressure maintaining or priority valve:

a. enables ground operation of services when the engines are off.
b. is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services.
c. is used to control pressure to services requiring less than system pressure.
d. is used to increase pressure in the system.
47. A hydraulic lock occurs:
a. when the thermal RV operates.
b. when fluid by passes a system and returns to the tank.
c. when flow is stopped and the actuator is not able to move.
d. when fluid and air enters the cylinder and only fluid is allowed to bypass to the
reservoir.

48. In an enclosed system pressure is felt:

a. more at the piston head than the rest of the cylinder.
b. more at the cylinder end than the piston head.
c. more when the piston is moving than when it is stationary.
d. the same at both ends between the piston and the cylinder head.

49. A non return valve:

a. can only be fitted if provided with a by pass selector.
b. closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure.
c. opens if inlet pressure equals outlet

50. Low gas pressure in accumulator causes:

a. rapid jack movements.
b. no effect on system.
c. rapid pressure fluctuations while system is operating.
d. rapid and smooth operation of system.

51. Hammering in system:

a. is normal and does not affect the systems efficiency.
b. is caused by pipe diameter fluctuations.
c. is an indication that a further selection is necessary.
d. is detrimental to the system.

52. The specification of hydraulic fluids, mineral, vegetable or ester based is:
a. always distinguishable by taste and smell.
b. generally distinguishable by colour.
c. generally distinguishable by colour only if they are from the same manufacturer.
d. cannot be distinguished by colour alone.

53. An ACOV will:

a. provide an idling circuit when a selection is made.
b. extend the life of the accumulator.
c. provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully charged.
d. ensure the pump is always on load.

54. The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to:

a. allow the parking brake to remain on overnight if required.
b. allow a reduced pressure to the wheel brake system to prevent the wheels locking.
c. prevent over-pressurising the reservoir as altitude increases.
d. prevent total loss of system fluid if the brake pipeline is ruptured.
55. A shuttle valve will allow:
a. the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down.
b. the pressure pump to off-load when the system pressure is reached.
c. two independent pressure sources to operate a system/component.
d. high pressure fluid to return to the reservoir if the Full Flow Relief Valve fails.

56. The purpose of a reservoir is to:

a. compensates for temperature changes.
b. compensates for small leaks, expansion and jack displacement.
c. compensates for fluid loss.
d. to minimise pump cavitation.

57. When the hydraulic system pressure is released:

a. reservoir air pressure will increase.
b. reservoir fluid contents will rise if reservoir is lower than other components in the system.
c. reservoir fluid contents will fall if reservoir is the highest point in the system.
d. reservoir contents are dumped overboard.

58. Hydraulic pressure in a closed system:

a. is greater in pipes of larger diameters.
b. is greater in pipes of smaller diameters.
c. does not vary with pipe diameter.
d. varies in direct proportion to the system demands.

59. Skydrol hydraulic fluid:

a. needs no special safety precautions or treatment.
b. is flame resistant but is harmful to skin, eyes and some paints.
c. is highly flammable and harmful to skin, eyes and some paints.
d. is highly flammable but not harmful in any other way.

60. Skydrol hydraulic fluid can be used to replenish:

a. any hydraulic system without restriction.
b. hydraulic systems that have butyl rubber seals only.
c. any hydraulic system in an emergency.
d. hydraulic systems that have neoprane seals only.

61. A variable displacement pump on system startup will be at:

a. minimum stroke.
b. an optimised position depending on fluid viscosity.
c. maximum stroke.
d. mid stroke.

62. The purpose of a reservoir is:

a. to provide a housing for the instrument transmitters.
b. to enable the contents to be checked.
c. to allow for fluid displacements, small leaks, thermal expansion and contents monitoring.
d. to provide a housing for the main system pumps and so obviate the need for backing pumps.
63. Hydraulic Thermal Relief Valves are fitted:
a. to release all the pressure back to return in an overheat situation.
b. to release half the pressure back to return in an overheat situation.
c. to relieve excess pressure back to the actuator in an overheat situation.
d. in isolated lines only to relieve excess pressure caused by temperature rises.

64. A main system hydraulic pump:

a. does not need a positive fluid supply if primed before startup.
b. always needs a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation.
c. does not need a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation.
d. can be run dry without causing any damage.

65. Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same rate:
a. exert the same force.
b. will lift equal loads.
c. will move at the same speed.
d. exert different forces.

66. A force of 1,500 N is applied to a piston of area 0.002m² and generates a force of-----(1)------Non
a piston of area 0.003m². The pressure generated is -----(2)-----and, if the smaller piston moves
0.025m, the work done is-----(3)------.
a. (1) 56.25J (2) 750,000Pa (3) 750,000N
b. (1)750,000N (2) 2,250 P (3) 56.25J
c. (1) 225N (2) 75,000Pa (3) 562.5 J
d. (1) 2,250N (2) 750,000Pa (3) 37.5 J

67. The following statements relate to hydraulic accumulators. The function of a accumulator is to:
1. Store fluid under pressure
2. Dampen pressure fluctuations
3. Allow for fluid expansion
4. Replace the need for a reservoir
5. Absorb some of the landing loads
6. Allow for thermal expansion
7. Prolong the period between pump cut-in and cut-out
8. Provide the initial pressure when a selection is made and the pump is cut out
9. Provide an emergency reserve of pressure in the event of pump failure
Which of the following applies?
a. All of the statements are correct.
b. None of the statements are correct.
c. Statements 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 8 and 9 are correct.
d. Statements 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, and 9 are correct.

68. The seal materials used with hydraulic fluids to DEF/STAN 91-48 and SKYDROL 700
specification are respectively:
a. natural rubber and neoprene.
b. neoprene and natural rubber.
c. butyl and neoprene.
d. neoprene and butyl.
69. To prevent cavitation of the pump a hydraulic reservoir may be:
a. pressurised.
b. bootstrapped.
c. above the pump.
d. all of the above.

70. A hand pump is usually fitted:

a. for ground servicing purposes.
b. lowering the landing gear in an emergency.
c. pressurising the oleo struts in the air.
d. retracting the gear after take-off.

71. Oil is used in an oleo strut to:

a. support the weight of the aircraft.
b. limit the speed of compression of the strut.
c. lubricate the piston within the cylinder.
d. limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.

72. The nose wheel assembly must be centered before retraction because:
a. there is limited space in the nose wheel bay.
b. the aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not straight.
c. the tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight.
d. it will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off.

73. The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped to:

a. prevent the fluid becoming aerated.
b. counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too fast.
c. make the lowering time greater than the raising time.
d. prevent the hydraulic fluid becoming overheated.

74. Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground is:

a. not possible because the system is not powerful enough.
b. prevented by the ground/air logic system.
c. always a danger after the ground locks have been removed.
d. the responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft.

75. Creep (Slippage):

a. is not a problem with tubeless tyres.
b. refers to the movement of the aircraft against the brakes.
c. can rip out the inflation valve on tubed tyres, and deflate the tyre.
d. can be prevented by painting lines on the wheel and tyre.

76. Tyre wear when taxying can be reduced:

a. restricting the use of brakes and using thrust reversers.
b. taxying at less than 40 kph.
c. staying on the smoothest parts of the taxiway.
d. taxying at less than 25 knots.
77. To prevent scrubbing the tyres while taxying , you should:
a. use tyres with fusible plugs.
b. make sharp turns only if you have high speed tyres fitted.
c. turn no sharper than the minimum specified radius.
d. deflate the tyres to a minimum pressure.

78. The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is:

a. CO2.
b. dry powder.
c. freon.
d. water.

79. When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, the tyre pressure reading on the gauge should be modified by:
a. 10psi.
b. 10%.
c. 4psi.
d. 4%.

80. The most likely cause of brake fade is:

a. oil or grease on the brake drums.
b. worn stators.
c. the pilot reducing the brake pressure.
d. the brake pads overheating.

81. The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes from:
a. the aircraft main hydraulic system.
b. the pilots brake pedals.
c. a self contained power pack.
d. the hydraulic reservoir.

82. Which of the following statements will produce the shortest landing run:
i. crossing the threshold at the correct height and speed
ii. applying full anti-skid braking as quickly as possible after touchdown
iii. using maximum pedal pressure but releasing the pressure as the wheels start to skid
iv. the use of cadence braking
v. use of minimum braking pressure early in the landing run and maximum pressure
towards the end
vi. application of reverse thrust as early as possible in the landing run
vii. deployment of the lift dumpers/speed brakes as early as possible in the landing run
a. (i), (ii), (vi), (vii)
b. (i), (iii), (vi), (vii)
c. (i), (iv), (vi), (vii)
d. (i), (v), (vi), (vii)

83. The formula which gives the minimum speed (Vp) at which aquaplaning may occur is:
a. Vp = 9 X √P where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in knots.
b. Vp = 9 X √P where P is psi and Vp is in mph.
c. Vp = 9 X √P where P is psi and Vp is in knots.
d. Vp = 34 X √P where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in mph
84. An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed will be:
a. 135 mph.
b. 135 knots.
c. 145 knots.
d. 145 mph.

85. Landing gear ground locking pins are:

a. fitted before flight to ensure the landing gear locks are fully cocked.
b. removed prior to flight and returned to stores.
c. fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the down lock jack.
d. removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the crew.

86. The most likely cause of brake unit dragging is:

a. dirt between the rotor and stator assemblies.
b. grease on the rotor assembly.
c. the brake pressure being too high.
d. incorrect operation of the adjuster assemblies.

87. A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is:

a. aircraft is overweight.
b. the tyre pressures are too high.
c. the aircraft is incorrectly loaded.
d. a torque link is worn or damaged.

88. Creep (slippage):

a. can damage the braking system.
b. can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim.
c. may cause excess wear.
d. never occurs on new tyres.

89. The anti-skid system would be used:

a. on landing runs only.
b. on take off runs only.
c. for take off on icy runways.
d. for both take off and landing runs.

90. A hydraulic gear extension/retraction mechanism consists of sequence valves, uplocks and:
a. an anti-skid braking system.
b. downlocks.
c. torque links.
d. a shock absorber.

91. A nose wheel steering control system:

a. prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times.
b. allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position.
c. allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times.
d. prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised.
92. At an aircraft taxying speed of 10mph the antiskid braking system is:
a. inoperative.
b. operative.
c. operative only on the nosewheel brakes.
d. operative only on the main wheel brakes.

93. The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing. The pressures
will have:
a. fallen by 15% from their rated value.
b. risen by 15% from their rated value.
c. remained constant.
d. risen by 10% of their original weight-on-wheels value.

94. The ply rating of a tyre:

a. always indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass.
b. never indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass.
c. indicates whether or not an inner tube should be fitted.
d. is the index of the tyre strength.

95.The purpose of pulley wheels in cable control systems is:

a. to ensure the cable tensions are equal throughout the system.
b. to change the direction of the control cable.
c. to ensure smooth operation of the system.
d. to prevent the cable from slackening.

96. The purpose of the primary stops in a control system is:

a. to set the range of movement of the control surface.
b. to enable the secondary stops to be correctly spaced.
c. to limit control movement to one direction only.
d. to set the control surface neutral position.

97. The purpose of the secondary stops in a control system is:

a. to reduce the control loads on the primary stops.
b. to limit control surface range in the event of primary stop failure.
c. to limit the secondary control system from excessive movement.
d. to remove the excess backlash in the controls.

98. The purpose of the fairleads in a cable control system is to:

a. alter the angle of deflection of the cables.
b. to guide the cables on to the pulley wheels.
c. to attach the cables to chain drives.
d. to keep the cable straight and clear of structure.

99. In a cable control system cables are tensioned to:

1. remove backlash from the control linkage.
2. provide tension on the turnbuckles.
3. provide positive action in both directions.
4. ensure the full range is achieved.
5. compensate for temperature variations.
a. 1, 3 and 5 only.
b. 3 only.
 c. 4 only.
d. all the above.

100. In a cable control system the cables are mounted in pairs to:
1. remove backlash from the control linkage.
2. provide tension on the turnbuckles.
3. provide positive action in both directions.
4. ensure the full range is achieved.
5. compensate for temperature variations.
a. 1, 3 and 5 only.
b. 3 only.
c. 4 only.
d. all the above.

101. In a manual flying control system the control inputs to the primary control surfaces:
1. are reversible.
2. are irreversible.
3. are instinctive for the movement required.
4. are opposite for the movement required.
5. are limited in range by flight deck obstructions.
a. 1 and 4 only.
b. 2 and 4 only.
c. 1 and 3 only.
d. 1, 3 and 5 only.

102. To yaw the aircraft to the right:

a. the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left.
b. the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right.
c. the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left.
d. the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left.

103. To roll the aircraft to the right:

a. the rudder control is moved to the right, the right aileron moves up and the left down.
b. the aileron control is moved to the left and the right aileron moves up and the left down.
c. the aileron control is moved to the right and the right elevator goes up and the left one down.
d. the aileron control is moved to the right, the right aileron goes up and the left one down.

104. The advantages of a cable control are:

1. light, very good strength to weight ratio.
2. easy to route through the aircraft.
3. less prone to impact damage.
4. takes up less volume.
5. less bolted joints.
a. 1, 2 and 4 only.
b. 3 and 5 only.
c. 1, 2 and 5 only.
d. all the above.
105. Main and nose wheel bays are:
a. pressurised.
b. unpressurised.
c. conditioned.
d. different, with the mains being unpressurised and the nose pressurised.

106. Normal maximum negative differential pressure is:

a. when atmospheric pressure exceeds cabin pressure by the amount permitted by the system controls.
b. where the cabin pressure falls below aircraft altitude pressure at which time the inward relief valve opens.
c. when the cabin pressure exceeds the atmospheric pressure by 0.5 PSI.
d. the pressure at which the duct relief valve is set to operate.

107. When would the negative differential limit be reached/exceeded:

a. rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude.
b. during ground pressure testing.
c. rapid ascent when aircraft climbs.
d. when changing to manual operation.

108. A/C in level flight if cabin altitude increases does pressure diff:
a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. remain the same.
d. nil.

109. In level pressurised flight does the outflow valve:

a. close.
b. adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally partially open.
c. open to increase air conditioning.
d. adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally almost closed.

110. In a turbo cooler system is the cooling air:

a. ram air.
b. engine by pass air.
c. cabin air.
d. compressor air.

111. The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. Is this more important:
a. in descent.
b. in climb.
c. in periods when the dehumidifier is in use.
d. in cruise.

112. Is a cabin humidifier:

a. on the ground in conditions of low relative humidity.
b. at high altitude.
c. at low altitude.
d. on the ground in high ambient temperatures.
113. Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:
a. number of pressurisation cycles.
b. number of explosive decompressions.
c. number of landings only.
d. number of cycles at maximum differential.

114. If the forward oil seal in an axial flow compressor fails, will air be:
a. contaminated.
b. unaffected.
c. ‘b’ is only correct if synthetic oil is used.
d. ‘a’ will be correct only if the aircraft is inverted.

115. Rate of change of cabin altitude is shown on a:

a. special gauge.
b. aircraft VSI.
c. cabin pressure controller.
d. gauge reading a percentage of Max Diff Pressure.

116. Cabin discharge valve (pneumatic. is supplied with:

a. air data computer output information.
b. cabin and static pressure.
c. cabin pressure, static and air speed information.
d. cabin pressure only.

117. On what principle does the vapour cycle cooling system work on:
a. liquid into vapour.
b. vapour into liquid.
c. vapour into gas.
d. cold gas into hot gas.

118. What is the purpose of the duct relief valve:

a. to protect the undercarriage bay.
b. to ensure the compressor pressure is regulated.
c. to prevent damage to the ducts.
d. to relieve excess pressure to compressor return line.

119. What system is installed to control the air conditioning:

a. emulsifier and water extractor.
b. impingement type dehydrator and humidifier.
c. dehydrator only.
d. humidifier only.

120. How is the (charge) air cooled in a bootstrap (turbo-compressor) system?

a. by expanding over turbine.
b. by expanding over turbine driving compressor.
c. via an air cooled radiator.
d. by passing it through the fuel heater.
121. At the max differential phase, is the discharge valve:
a. open.
b. closed.
c. under the control of the rate capsule.
d. partly open.

122. What is the purpose of inward relief valves:

a. to prevent negative differential.
b. to back up the duct relief valve.
c. to allow positive pressure to be bled off in an emergency.
d. to back up the outflow valve.

123. On a ground pressurisation test, if the cabin suffers a rapid de-pressurisation:

a. the temperature will rise suddenly.
b. water precipitation will occur.
c. damage to hull may occur.
d. duct relief valve may jam open.

124. A heat exchanger functions by:

a. combining ram and charge air.
b. mixing the various vapours inside the heat exchanger.
c. passing charge air through ducts and cool air around ducts.
d. removing the static charge.

125. Maximum Differential pressure:

a. is the maximum authorised pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient
pressure.
b. is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump.
c. is the pressure loss over a given time limit.
d. is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry.

126. A humidifier is fitted to:

a. extract the moisture content in the air.
b. filter the air.
c. increase the moisture content in the air when operating at high altitude.
d. to ensure the cabin air is saturated at high altitude.

127. If the discharge or outflow valve closes:

a. the duct relief valve will take control.
b. the inward relief valve would assume control.
c. the safety valve would limit the positive pressure difference.
d. the safety relief valve would limit the negative pressure difference.

128. Air for conditioning and pressurisation is taken from:

a. the engine compressor or cabin compressor.
b. the engine by pass duct or thrust reverse by pass duct.
c. the engine compressor or ram turbine.
d. the engine turbine or cabin compressor.
129. Safety valves are biased:
a. inwards.
b. outwards.
c. in the direction sensed by the SVC.
d. neither a nor b.

130. Cabin compressors:

a. increase their flow in cruise conditions.
b. decrease their flow in cruise conditions.
c. increase their flow in proportion to increases of altitude differential pressure and reduction in engine RPM in order
to maintain the mass flow.
d. deliver minimum air at sea level via the cold air unit.

131. In a pressurisation circuit the sequence of operation is for the:

a. inward relief valve to open before the safety valve.
b. outflow valve to operate before the safety valve.
c. outflow valve to operate after the safety valve.
d. outflow valve to operate the same time as the safety valve.

132. With the QFE set on the cabin controller, against an altitude of zero:
a. the fuselage will be pressurised on landing.
b. a ground pressurisation will automatically take place.
c. the cabin will be unpressurised on landing.
d. the flight deck will be depressurised.

133. In the cruise at 30,000 ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4,000 ft to 6,000 ft:
a. cabin differential will increase.
b. cabin differential will not be affected.
c. cabin differential will decrease.
d. nil.

134. An aircraft climbs from sea level to 16,000 ft at 1,000 ft per min, the cabin pressurisation is set to climb at 500 ft per
min to a cabin altitude of 8,000 ft. The time taken for the cabin to reach 8,000 ft is:
a. the same time as it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.
b. half the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.
c. twice the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.
d. three times the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.

135. The aircraft inhibiting switch connected to the A/C landing gear:
a. allows the aircraft to be pressurised on the ground.
b. stops pressurising on the ground and ensures that there is no pressure differential.
c. ensures that the discharge valve is closed.
d. cancels out the safety valve on the ground.

136. Negative differential is limited by:

a. dump valve.
b. inward relief valve.
c. outflow valve.
d. safety valve.
137. Sequence of air through a vapour cooling system is:
a. turbine then expansion valve.
b. tank then evaporator.
c. turbine then evaporator.
d. compressor then turbine.

138. To maintain a steady and constant airflow regardless of altitude or cabin pressure:
a. a duct relief valve is fitted.
b. a venturi device is fitted.
c. a mass flow controller is fitted.
d. a thermostatic relief valve is fitted.

139. The term “pressurisation cycle” means:

a. air introduced into a fuselage under pressure only.
b. air introduced into a fuselage under pressure until the time the air is released.
c. air discharged from the fuselage, above 15 psi.
d. the frequency in Hz the pressure cycles from the rootes blowers enter the fuselage.

140. Inward Relief Valves operate:

a. in conjunction with the cabin pressure controller when there is a negative diff.
b. in conjunction with the cabin altitude selector when there is negative diff.
c. when manually selected during the emergency descent procedure.
d. automatically when there is a negative diff.

141. Safety valves operate:

a. at higher diff than discharge valve.
b. as soon as initiation takes place.
c. at a lower diff than a discharge valve.
d. at a set value, which is selected.

142. Ditching Cocks are operated:

a. automatically when the soluble plugs disolve.
b. to shut all outflow valves.
c. to direct pressure into flotation bags.
d. for rapid depressurisation.

143. Duct Relief Valves operate when:

a. excessive pressure builds up in the air conditioning system supply ducts.
b. to keep cabin pressure close to ambient pressure.
c. to prevent the floor from collapsing should baggage door open.
d. the cooling modulator shutters reach the optimised position.

144. During a normal pressurised cruise, the discharge valve position is:
a. at a position pre-set before take off.
b. partially open.
c. open until selected altitude is reached.
d. closed until selected altitude is reached.
145. A dump valve:
a. automatically opens when fuel is dumped.
b. is controlled manually.
c. is opened automatically when the safety valve opens.
d. is controlled by the safety valve integrating line.

146. When air is pressurised the % of oxygen:

a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. remains the same.
d. nil.

147. If pressure is manually controlled:

a. an extra member is required to monitor system operation.
b. the climb rate would be maintained automatically.
c. climb rate could not be maintained.
d. care should be taken to ensure climb/descent rates are safe.

148. An aircraft is prevented from pressurising on the ground by:

a. the auto deflating valve on the main oleos.
b. inhibiting micro switches on the landing gear.
c. inhibiting micro switches on the throttles.
d. the pressure control master switch.

149. If the pressurisation air is passed over the cold air unit compressor does it:
a. increase the charge air temperature.
b. decrease the charge air temperature.
c. decrease the charge air pressure.
d. make no change to the charge air condition.

150. If the cabin pressure increases in level flight does the cabin VSI show:
a. rate of climb.
b. no change unless the aircraft climbs.
c. rate of descent.
d. nil.

151. Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:

a. the altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height.
b. is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter.
c. altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure.
d. altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions.

152. The term pressure cabin is used to describe:

a. pressurisation of the flight deck only.
b. the ability to pressurise the aircraft to a higher than ambient pressure.
c. the passenger cabin on an airliner.
d. the ability to maintain a constant pressure differential at all altitudes.
153. A pressurisation system works by:
a. essentially constant input mass flow and variable output.
b. essentially constant output mas flow and variable input.
c. does not start until an altitude of 8,000 ft has been reached.
d. supplying hot gases from the engine exhaust unit to the mass flow control system.

154. When air is pressurised by an engine driven compressor, it is also:

a. moisturised.
b. heated.
c. cooled.
d. the temperature is not affected.

155.The electrical supply to the propeller blades for de-icing purposes:

a. is controlled to give an intermittent supply.
b. must be taken directly from the APU generator.
c. must only be selected on for short periods.
d. is continuous to all blades.

156. Propeller blade heating elements are:

a. fitted only to the thin outer sections where maximum ice accretion occurs.
b. fitted only to the thick inner section where minimum ice accretion occurs.
c. usually fitted to the thick section but sometimes a second element is fitted to a mid section.
d. fitted to the complete leading edge.

157. When an aircraft is de-iced prior to departure, if the temperature is 0 C in precipitation, which type of fluid and
application method will provide the longest holdover period:
a. Type I fluid at 100% cold spray application.
b. Type II fluid diluted to 50% hot spray application.
c. Type I fluid diluted to 50% hot spray application.
d. Type II fluid at 100% cold spray application.

158. The effect of frost on an aircraft:

a. is to cause an increase in boundary layer energy and so delay the onset of the stall.
b. can be generally ignored.
c. has no significant effect on the aerodynamic contour or CL max.
d. is to cause an increase in the surface roughness which in turn increases skin friction and reduces the kinetic energy
of the boundary layer.

159. In flight airframe icing does not occur:

a. above 25,000 ft.
b. above 40,000 ft.
c. above 35,000 ft.
d. above 30,000 ft.

160. The methods used to provide de-icing in flight can be:

a. mechanical or pneumatic or fluid.
b. pneumatic or thermal or fluid.
c. electrically heated or air heated or oil heated.
d. centrifugally forced or ram air heated.
161. Ice detectors are used primarily to warn the crew:
a. that they are approaching airframe icing conditions.
b. that they are approaching engine icing conditions.
c. that engine icing conditions now warrant the initiation of the engine system.
d. that airframe icing conditions exist.

162. Fluid is delivered to a propeller by:

a. a centrifugal slipper ring and pipes.
b. integral passages within the propeller dome.
c. a small reservoir contained within the spinner.
d. a slinger ring and pipes.

163. If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to departure:

a. the aircraft can be de-iced with the engines running.
b. the aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running.
c. the aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running and the bleed air off.
d. neither the APU or main engines can be running during the procedure.

164. With a gas turbine engine, should engine anti-icing be selected “ON”:
a. whenever the igniters are on.
b. whenever the IOAT is +10 C or below and the air contains visible moisture.
c. whenever the TOAT is +10 C or below and it is raining.
d. whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on.

165. In a pneumatic de-icing system:

a. the boots remain inflated while the system operates.
b. the boots are inflated and deflated repeatedly.
c. vacuum inflates the boots and pressure deflates them repeatedly.
d. when the boots are fully inflated the pressure is released and they collapse due to their elasticity.

166. When the pneumatic de-icer system is switched off:

a. the relief valves admit ram air to the boots.
b. a small flow of hot air continuously flows through the boots.
c. the dynamic pressure on the leading edge ensures that the boots lie flat.
d. vacuum deflates the boots to minimise drag.

167. Propeller electrical de-icing systems:

a. use only continuous loads to the elements.
b. use a cyclic timer.
c. convert electrical energy to mechanical energy.
d. transfer power to the elements via a commutator in DC systems.

168. To prevent propeller elements overheating:

a. use only when all other services are switched off.
b. carry out a load check before starting engines.
c. use only when the propellers are rotating.
d. use only when in flight.
169. A thermal wing de-icing system:
a. feeds hot air along the complete upper wing surface.
b. feeds the engine exhaust through the leading edge ducts only.
c. can use air taken from the engine compressor.
d. relies on heat generated by the kinetic heating effect of the airflow.

170. Pilots cockpit windows are heated:

a. only to prevent condensation occurring.
b. by agitating the window molecules with an AC current.
c. with a reflective inner coating that prevents fogging.
d. by passing current across an inner conductive electrical coating.

171. For maximum strength against impact damage pilots windows are:
a. normally kept to a minimum size.
b. specially treated during construction.
c. heated internally to increase their elasticity.
d. only heated when the IOAT falls below 0 C in precipitation.

172. Pilots cockpit windows are:

a. only heated by air from the de-misting fan.
b. constructed by heat treating the outer surface to reduce glare.
c. made of sandwich construction with an electrical conductive coating.
d. made of polarised glass.

173. If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to departure:

a. the aircraft can be de-iced with engines running.
b. the aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running.
c. the aircraft can be de-iced with APU running and bleed air selected off.
d. neither APU or engines can be running.

174. An aircraft is to be de-iced and then enter the line up for departure. Which de-ice fluid will have
the best holdover time at 0 C with precipitation:
a. type I fluid at 100% cold spray.
b. a 50%/50% solution of type II fluid hot spray.
c. a 50%/50% solution of type I fluid hot spray.
d. type II fluid at 100% cold spray.

175. Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 25,000 ft is approximately:
a. twenty seconds.
b. eighty seconds.
c. three minutes.
d. six minutes.

176. With out added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 40,000 ft is approximately:
a. twenty seconds.
b. three minutes.
c. eighty seconds.
d. six minutes.
177. The maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not seriously impaired is:
a. 10,000 ft.
b. 17,500 ft.
c. 25,000 ft.
d. 30,000 ft.

178. In a pressure demand oxygen system:

a. each member of the crew has a regulator.
b. each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply.
c. oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow.
d. oxygen demand will cause the pressure to rise.

179. In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied:

a. only when the mask is plugged into the socket connection.
b. only on passenger inhalation through the mask.
c. only when the cabin altitude is above 18,000 ft.
d. only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot.

180. In a diluter demand system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in:
a. air mix supplied at emergency pressure.
b. 100% oxygen supply as called for by the user.
c. 100% oxygen at positive pressure.
d. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure.

181. If the aircraft suffers a decompression passenger oxygen masks:

a. are released by the passengers.
b. automatically drop to a half hung (ready position).
c. are handed out by the cabin staff.
d. must be removed from the life jacket storage.

182. Oxygen cylinders are normally charged to:

a. 1,000 psi.
b. 1,200 psi.
c. 1,800 psi.
d. 2,000 psi.

183. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in:

a. litres/minute.
b. pounds/minute.
c. litres/second.
d. kilos/hour.

184. The colour of American oxygen cylinders is:

a. red.
b. blue.
c. green.
d. brown.
185. The colour of British oxygen cylinders is:
a. white with black lettering.
b. grey with silver lettering.
c. black with white neck.
d. blue with white lettering.

186. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders:

a. is relieved by a thermostat.
b. is relieved by under pressurising the bottle.
c. is relieved by a bursting disc.
d. is controlled by a thermal relief valve.

187. To leak test an oxygen system use:

a. fairy liquid and de-ionised water.
b. thin oil.
c. acid free soap and distilled water.
d. acid free soap and water.

188. Lubrication of an oxygen component thread is by:

a. soap water.
b. grease.
c. oil.
d. graphite.

189. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen system is indicated by:

a. flow indicators.
b. lack of anoxia.
c. aural reassurance.
d. pressure indicators.

190. If the pressurisation system fails and the cabin starts to climb, then at 14,000 ft oxygen will be available to the
passengers by:
a. the stewardess who will hand out masks.
b. the passengers grabbing a mask from the overhead lockers.
c. portable oxygen bottles located in the seat backs.
d. masks automatically ejected to a ½ hung position.

191. When air is pressurised the % of oxygen:

a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. remains the same.
d. nil.

192. In an emergency chemically produced oxygen is supplied for a given period by:
a. sodium chlorate, iron power, an electrical firing system and a filter.
b. potassium chlorate, iron powder, an electrical firing system and a filter.
c. sodium chlorate, iron powder which is chemically activated by air and then filtered.
d. sodium chlorate and an electrical firing system.
193. Passenger oxygen masks will present:
a. only when the cabin altitude reaches 14,000.
b. only if selected by the crew.
c. only if selected by the cabin staff:
d. if selected manually / electrically / barometrically.

194. The charged pressure of a portable oxygen cylinder is normally:

a. 500 psi.
b. 1,200 psi.
c. 1,800 psi.
d. 3,000 psi.

195. With the control knob set to high, a 120 litre portable bottle will provide oxygen for a period of:
a. 60 mins.
b. 30 mins.
c. 12 mins.
d. 3 mins.

196. At what altitude will the diluter-demand oxygen regulator provide 100% pure oxygen:
a. 10,000 ft.
b. 14,000 ft.
c. 24,000 ft.
d. 34,000 ft.

197. A Flow Indicator fitted to an Oxygen regulator indicates:

a. that exactly the correct amount of oxygen is being used by the crew member.
b. that oxygen is flowing through the regulator.
c. that the crew member is correctly connected to the regulator.
d. that the system pressure reducing valve is supplying the correct pressure to the regulator.

198. what is the approximate time of useful conciousness when hypoxia develops at the specified altitudes.
18,000 ft 30,000 ft
a. 2-3 min 10-15 sec
b. 10 min 2 min
c. 30 min 90-45 secs
d. 40 min 5 min

199. What is the effect on cabin temperature of a rapid de-compression at 30,000 ft:
a. sudden and extreme drop.
b. insignificant change over the first 2 minutes.
c. a gradual decrease to ambient over a period of about 10 minutes if the cabin heating ceases.
d. a gradual decrease to ambient temperature over a period of about 30 minutes if cabin heating continues.

200. Susceptibility to hypoxia is increased by:

a. heat.
b. noise.
c. smoking.
d. under-breathing.
201. What is the approximate cabin altitude above which you must breath 100% oxygen if you are to maintain an
alveolar partial pressure equal to that at sea level:
a. 26,000 ft.
b. 30,000 ft.
c. 34,000 ft.
d. 38,000 ft.

202. A flight deck indication that a fixed fire extinguisher has been fired is:
a. a green coloured bursting disc.
b. a protruding indicator pin at the discharge head.
c. low pressure warning lamp.
d. thermal discharge indicator.

203. One type of extinguishing agent you would expect to find in an aircraft installed engine fire
protection system is:
a. carbon dioxide.
b. argon.
c. helium.
d. freon.

204. A wheel brake fire should be fought with a:

a. water/gas fire extinguisher.
b. dry powder extinguisher.
c. Carbon dioxide extinguisher.
d. foam fire extinguisher.

205. An engine fire extinguisher has discharged due to an over temperature condition occurring in
its vicinity. This will be indicated by:
a. a bursting disc in the discharge nozzle.
b. an externally mounted warning lamp.
c. an externally mounted discharge indicator showing red.
d. an audible warning.

206. On a multi engined aircraft, an engine fire warning system consists of:
a. flashing red lights for each engine and a warning horn.
b. steady red light for each engine and a common warning bell.
c. flashing red light for each engine and a common warning bell.
d. steady red light and bell for each engine.

207. Smoke detectors are fitted in:

a. passenger cabins, cargo bays, electrical equipment bays.
b. cargo bays, APU compartment, toilets.
c. toilets, electrical equipment bays, APU compartments.
d. cargo bays, electrical equipment bays, toilets.

208. A short circuit in a resistive “fire wire” detector will:

a. fire the squib in the fire bottle discharge head.
b. cause a spurious fire warning to be received.
c. cause the blow out disc to be ruptured.
d. disable the test circuit.
209. On receipt of an engine fire warning on the flight deck the correct procedure should be:
a. fight the fire with the flight deck BCF fire extinguisher.
b. pull the fire handle, fire the fire extinguisher, shut down the engine.
c. shut down the affected engine, pull the fire handle, fire the first extinguisher.
d. fire the first extinguisher, pull the fire handle, shut down the engine.

210. Fire detection systems:

a. automatically fire the engine extinguishers.
b. can only use AC electricity.
c. are connected to the Vital bus bar.
d. can be tested from the flight deck.

211. A toilet fire extinguisher is activated:

a. by high temperature in its vicinity.
b. by remote control from the flight deck.
c. by a switch at the nearest flight attendant station.
d. by a smoke detector.

212. Emergency exits:

a. can only be opened from the inside.
b. must have an escape slide fitted to them.
c. are painted yellow.
d. must be outlined externally by a 2 inch band of contrasting colour.

213. An automatic escape slide:

a. can be armed from the inside of the aircraft only.
b. can only be activated from the flight deck.
c. automatically inflates when the crash switches are activated.
d. inflates when the recovery team open the door from the outside of the aircraft.

214. Emergency lighting must be capable of remaining illuminated for a minimum of:
a. 5 mins.
b. 7 mins.
c. 10 mins.
d. 15 mins.

215. The LED indicator light on the emergency torch is flashing at 4 second intervals. This indicates:
a. the battery is charging.
b. the torch is serviceable.
c. the battery needs replacing.
d. the filament is broken.

216. Nomex gloves are provided on the flight deck to:

a. protect hands during cold weather refuelling operations.
b. remove hot meal containers from the oven.
c. protect hands from hot materials during firefighting.
d. to allow turn around checks to be carried out on a hot gas turbine engine.
217. If the emergency lighting system is powered from the aircraft electrical system, it takes is power supply from:
a. AC essential bus-bar.
b. DC essential bus-bar.
c. Vital DC bus-bar.
d. The inverter.

218. Lifejackets are inflated with compressed:

a. helium.
b. nitrogen.
c. freon.
d. carbon dioxide.

219. Emergency lighting:

a. can be switched on from the flight deck only.
b. must illuminate the inside of the passenger cabin only.
c. comprises flight deck lighting, cabin internal and external lighting.
d. once activated cannot be switched off.

220. A cut-in area:

a. always has a crash axe located next to it.
b. is designated as a weaker fuselage area.
c. is lit internally by the emergency lighting system.
d. is delineated by external markings having right angled corners.

221. Baffles are fitted in aircraft fuel tanks:

a. to assist in correct fuel distribution.
b. to prevent fuel surging during aircraft manoeuvres.
c. to prevent the static build up in the tank during refueling.
d. to channel fuel to the vent valve.

222. A power failure to a capacitive fuel contents system would cause the gauge to:
a. show full scale deflection high.
b. fluctuate between high and low readings.
c. remain fixed on the last contents noted before failure.
d. show full scale deflection low.

223. A fuel booster pump, besides pumping fuel to the engine, can also be utilised to:
a. jettison and transfer fuel.
b. jettison and heat the fuel.
c. transfer and heat the fuel.
d. transfer and recycle the fuel.

224. During fuel jettison, the aircraft is protected against running out of fuel by:
a. high level float switches.
b. preset jettison quantity switches.
c. the crew remaining alert.
d. low level float switches.
225. To indicate that a refueling bowser carries JET A1 aviation kerosene:
a. yellow and black stripes are marked on the refueling hose.
b. JET A1 would be painted in 30cm high symbols on the side of the container.
c. JET A1 is printed in white on a black background label positioned prominently on the vehicle.
d. the driver wears a straw yellow water and fuel proof jacket.

226. Adjustments may have to made to an aircraft’s engine fuel system if it has been refueled with JET B instead of its
normal JET A1 fuel, these adjustments are to cater for:
a. the change in the specific gravity of the fuel.
b. the change in the calorific value of the fuel.
c. the change in the viscosity of the fuel.
d. the lack of HITEC lubricant in the fuel.

227. The differences between AVGAS 100 and AVGAS 100LL are:
Colour Anti-knock value
a. Same Same
b. Same Different
c. Different Same
d. Different Different

228. The aircraft cannot be refueled while:

a. a ground power unit is operating on the ramp.
b. passengers are walking through the refueling zones.
c. passengers are boarding.
d. the A.P.U. is running.

229. The disadvantage of refueling the aircraft to “tanks full” the night before a departure in the heat of the day is that:
a. the change in the specific gravity may cause the aircraft to be overweight.
b. the change in the volume of the fuel may cause it to spill through the vent system.
c. the change in calorific value may reduce engine power to below sufficient.
d. the R.P.M. governor will be rendered inoperative.

230. An aircraft using MOGAS:

a. is likely to be affected by detonation at cruise power.
b. must have booster pumps fitted in the fuel tanks.
c. is more likely to be affected by vapour locking and carburetor icing.
d. will suffer from a loss of power during take off.

231. If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probable cause is:
a. water contamination.
b. anti-microbiological additives.
c. mixing different fuel grades.
d. oil in the fuel.
232. On an aircraft equipped with a compensated capacitance type fuel quantity indication system graduated to read in
kg, the temperature increases just after the tanks are half filled with fuel. If the fuel expands by 10%, the gauges will
show:
a. an increase of 10%.
b. a decrease of 10% of the volume factored by the new specific gravity.
c. a decrease.
d. the same amount.

233. The exhaust gases from the A.P.U. go into the refueling zone. The A.P.U:
a. must be switched OFF throughout the refueling operation.
b. can be started while refueling is carried out.
c. must be started before fuelling is carried out, and can be run throughout the refueling operation.
d. can be started only after the refueling operation has been terminated.

234. De-fuelled fuel:

a. can only be used in domestic heating systems.
b. can only be used by aircraft from the same operators fleet.
c. must be put back into storage.
d. cannot be re-used until its quality has been verified.

235. The background colour scheme for fuelling system pipelines carrying the following fuels is: JET A1 AVGAS
a. Red Black
b. Black Red
c. Red Yellow
d. Yellow Red

236. AVGAS:
a. is coloured red for identification purposes.
b. is coloured green if it is a leaded fuel and blue if it is a low lead fuel.
c. has no artificial colouring and appears either clear or a straw yellow colour.
d. can only be used in piston engines if oil is added to improve its anti-knock properties.

237. The fuel cross feed valves are fitted in order to facilitate:
a. the use of fuel from any tank to any engine.
b. refueling when only one bowser is in use.
c. isolation of the engine from the fuel system in the case of an engine fire.
d. transfer of fuel between the main fuel tanks.

238. Refueling with passengers on board is not permissible:

a. on a fixed wing aircraft.
b. if AVGAS is being used.
c. if the aircraft has more than twenty seats and the ratio of cabin attendants to passengers is greater than 1:50 and
it is a wide bodied jet.
d. in any of the above cases.
239. While refueling with passengers on board, when a loading bridge is in use:
a. two sets of extra steps must be provided, one of which must be at the rear of the aircraft.
b. the rear left or right door must be manned constantly by a cabin attendant ready for use as an emergency exit
using the inflatable escape slide.
c. ground servicing must not be carried out.
d. catering and cleaning must not be carried out.

240. A “wide-cut” fuel is:

a. more flammable than a kerosene type fuel.
b. less volatile than a kerosene type fuel.
c. coloured red for identification purposes.
d. commonly used in civilian transport aircraft.

241. The purpose of fitting baffles in fuel tanks is to:

a. prevent longitudinal movement of the fuel during acceleration.
b. allow the booster pump to remain covered by fuel irrespective of the aircraft attitude.
c. dampen lateral movement of the fuel in the wing tanks during a sideslip.
d. maintain a pre-determined quantity of fuel in the outboard section of the wing tank.s

242. Fuel is heated:

a. to stop cavitation in the High Pressure Fuel Pump.
b. to maintain a constant viscosity.
c. to prevent water contamination.
d. to stop ice blocking the Low Pressure fuel filter.

243. What is the function of a collector tank (feeder box):

a. prevent detonation during take off.
b. prevent cavitation of the booster pumps.
c. prevent fuel surge due to extreme aircraft attitude.
d. allow suction feeding of the engine pump.

244. Fuel tank booster pumps are:

a. centrifugal, low pressure.
b. centrifugal, high pressure
c. gear type, low pressure
d. gear type, high pressure

245. The advantage of a capacitor type fuel contents gauging system is that the circuit:
a. responds to changes in specific gravity.
b. compensates for high altitude flight.
c. responds automatically to extremely low temperatures.
d. compensates for aircraft attitude changes.

246. The Low Pressure engine driven pump:

a. backs up in case the engine High Pressure Pump fails.
b. backs up in case of a double booster pump failure.
c. assists in the refueling operation if only low pressure refueling systems are available.
d. pressurises the fuel tanks to assist flow to the booster pumps.
247. The purpose of the fuel cooled oil cooler is to:
a. heat the oil and cool the fuel.
b. heat the fuel and cool the oil.
c. cool the oil.
d. heat the fuel.

248. If a fuel tank with a capacitive quantity system was filled with water instead of fuel, the gauge would indicate:
a. full scale low (zero).
b. it would indicate the same as if it were filled with fuel c. full scale high (max).
c. it would freeze at the last known indication.

249. AVTUR or JET A1:

a. varies in colour between clear and straw yellow.
b. is a wide cut fuel which is not normally used in civilian transport aircraft.
c. is a gasoline type fuel with a high flash point.
d. is a 97 octane fuel which prevents detonation in gas turbine engines.