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 LATEST SYLLABUS FOR SCIENCE Class-X
Note : Topics under Red Bold have been deleted due to Covid-19 for 2022-23 Board Examinations.

Unit-1 : Chemical Substances–Nature and Behaviour (20 M) Unit-3 : Light (12 M)

Chemical Reactions : Chemical equation, balanced Light : Reflection of light at curved surface, Images formed by
chemical equation, implications of a balanced chemical spherical mirrors, center of curvature, principal axis, principal
equation. Types of chemical reactions : combination, focus, focal length, mirror formula (Derivation not required),
decomposition, displacement, double displacement, magnification.
precipitation, neutralization, oxidation and reduction. Refraction : Laws of refraction, refractive index.
Acids, Base and Salts : Their definitions in terms of Refraction of light by spherical lens, images formed by
–
furnishing of H + and OH ions. General properties, examples spherical lens, Lens formula (Derivation not required),
and uses, concept of pH scale; (definition relating to logarithm Magnification, Power of a lens.
not required), importance of pH in everyday life ; preparation The Human Eye and Colourful World : Functioning of a
and uses of sodium hydroxide, bleaching powder, baking soda, lens in human eye, defects of vision and their corrections.
washing soda and plaster of Paris. Refraction of light through a prism, dispersion of light,
Metals and Non-metals : Properties of metals and scattering of light, application in daily life.
non-metals, reactivity series, formation and properties
Unit-4 : Effects of Current (13 M)
of ionic compounds, basic metallurgical processes,
corrosion and its prevention. Electricity : Electric current, potential difference and elctric
Carbon Compounds : Covalent bonding in carbon current. Ohm’s law; Resistance, Resistivity factors on which
compounds. Versatile nature of carbon, Homologous series. the resistance of a conductor depends. Series combination of
Nomenclature of carbon compounds containing functional resistors, parallel combination of resistors and its
groups, (halogens, alcohol, ketones, aldehydes, alkanes and applications in daily life; Heating effect of electric
alkynes), difference between saturated hydrocarbons and current and its application in daily life. Electric power,
unsaturated hydrocarbons, chemical properties of carbon Inter-relation between P, V, I and R.
compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition and substitution Magnetic Effects of Electric Current : Magnetic field,
reaction.). Ethanol and ethanoic acid (only properties and field lines, field due to a current carrying conductor, field due
uses), soaps and detergents. to current carrying coil or solenoid; Force on current carrying
Periodic Classification of Elements : Need for conductor, Fleming’s left hand rule, Electro magnetic
classification, (Dobereiner’s triads, Newland’s law induction. Induced potential difference, Induced current.
of octaves, Mendeleev’s periodic table) modern periodic Fleming’s right hand rule, Direct current, Alternating current;
table, gradation in properties, valency, atomic number, Frequency of AC, Advantage of AC over DC, Domestic
metallic and non-metallic properties. electric circuits.

Unit-2 : The World of Living (20 M) Unit-5 : Natural Resources (5 M)

Life Processes : “Living” things : Basic concept of nutrition, Sources of Energy : Different forms of energy, conventional
respiration, transport and excretion in plants and animals. and non-conventional sources of energy : fossil fuels, solar
Control and Co-ordination in Animals and Plants : energy, biogas; wind, water and tidal energy; nuclear energy.
Trophic movements in plants; Introduction to plant Renewable versus non-renewable sources.
hormones; control and co-ordination in animals; Our Environment : Eco-system, Environmental
nervous system, voluntary, involuntary and reflex problems, ozone depletion, waste production and their
action, chemical co-ordination : animal hormones. solutions, bio-degradable and non-biodegradable substances.
Reproduction : Reproduction in animal and plants (asexual Management of Natural Resources : Management of
and sexual). Reproductive health—Need and methods of natural resources. Conservation and judicious use of natural
family planning. Safe Vs HIV / AIDS. Child bearing and resources. Forest and wild life, coal and petroleum
women’s health. conservation. Examples of People’s participation for
Heredity and Evolution : Heredity; Model’s contribution conservation of natural resources.
—Rules for inheritance of traits; Sex determination (brief Big dams : advantages and limitations; alternatives if any.
introduction) Basic concepts of evolution. Water harvesting. Sustainability of natural resources.
 Contents
1. Chemical reactions and equations 5-13
2. Acid, base and salt 14-22
3. Metals and non-metals 23-30
4. Carbon and its compounds 31-45
5. Periodic classification of elements 46-55
6A. Life processes : nutrition 56-63
6B. Life processes : respiration 64-69
6C. Life processes : transportation 70-77
6D. Life processes : excretion 78-86
7. Control and coordination in animals & plants —
(Deleted for 2023 Examinations)
8. How do organisms reproduce? 87-99
9. Heredity and evolution 100-111
10. Light -reflection and refraction 112-126
11. Human eye and colourful world 127-134
12. Electricity 135-159
13. Magnetic effects of electric current 160-170
14. Sources of energy 171-177
15. Our environment 178-183
16. Management of natural resources 184-193
Unsolved Model Papers (5) 194-200
 5

Unit-1: Chemical Substances- Nature

and Behavior
Chapter

1 CHEMICAL REACTIONS
AND EQUATIONS

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Which of the following is not a physical change? Q. 8. A white precipitate can be obtained by adding dilute
(U.P. 2014, 15) sulphuric acid to :
(a) evaporation of water into vapours (a) CuSO4 solution (b) NaCl solution
(b) freezing of milk (c) BaCl2 solution (d) Na2SO4 solution
(c) rottening of fruits Q. 9. Which of the following can be decomposed by the
(d) both (b) and (c) action of light?
Q. 2. Which statement is true for a chemical change? (a) NaCl (b) KCl (c) AgCl (d) CuCl
(a) no new substance is formed Q. 10. Burning of magnesium in air is :
(b) the change is temporary (a) oxidation (b) reduction
(c) the identity of the original substance is lost (c) evaporation (d) sublimation
(d) none of these Q. 11. Which of the following is a redox reaction?
Q. 3. The following reaction is an example of a: (a) AgNO 3 + HCl ¾ ¾® AgCl + HNO 3
4NH 3 ( g ) + 5O 2 ( g ) ¾
¾® 2NO( g ) + 6H 2O( g ) (b) BaO 2 + H 2SO 4 ¾
¾® BaSO 4 + H 2O 2
(i) displacement reaction (c) SO 2 + 2H 2S ¾
¾® 2H 2O + 3S
(ii) combination reaction
(d) CaC 2O 4 + 2HCl ¾ ¾® CaCl 2 + H 2C 2O 4
(iii) redox reaction
(iv) precipitation reaction Q. 12. False statement about antioxidant is :
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (a) They are reducing agent.
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv) (b) They get reduced.
Q. 4. The substance formed as a result of chemical reaction (c) BHT and BHA are antioxident.
is called : (d) They protect fats and oils from oxidation.
(a) product (b) reactant Q. 13. Which of the following reaction is not possible?
(c) both (d) none of these (a) ZnSO 4 ( aq ) + Cu ( s) ¾
¾® CuSO 4 ( aq ) + Zn ( s)
Q. 5. The process of respiration is : (b) CuO + H 2 ¾
¾® H 2O + Cu
(a) an oxidation reaction which is endothermic.
(b) a reduction reaction which is exothermic. (c) FeSO 4 + Zn ¾ ¾® ZnSO 4 + Fe
(c) combination reaction which is endothermic. (d) Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3 + 3Mg ¾ ¾® 3MgSO 4 + 2Al
(d) an oxidation reaction which is exothermic. Q. 14. To keep edibles safer, in packaging coating of tin is
Q. 6. Which of the following are combination reactions? preferred instead of zinc, because: (U.P. 2019)
(i) 2H 2 + O 2 ¾ ¾® 2H 2O (a) zinc is relatively less reactive
(ii) CaCO 3 ¾
¾® CaO + CO 2 (b) tin is relatively less reactive
(c) melting point of zinc is less
(iii) CuO + H 2 ¾
¾® Cu + H 2O (d) melting point of tin is less.
(iv) CaO + H 2O ¾ ¾® Ca (OH) 2 Q. 15. The chemical formula of lead nitrate is: (U.P. 2019)
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (a) PbNO 3 (b) Pb(NO 3 ) 2
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) (c) Pb(NO 2 ) 2 (d) PbO
Q. 7. The removal of oxygen from a substance is called : Q. 16. Which of the following is used in black and white
(a) oxidation (b) corrosion photography? (U.P. 2020)
(c) reduction (d) rancidity (a) AgCl (b) Pb(NO 3 ) 2
 6

(c) FeSO 4 (d) CaCO 3 (a) NaCl solution and Cu metal

Q.17. Which of the following pairs will gives the (b) MgCl 2 solution and Al metal
displacement reaction? (U.P. 2019) (c) FeSO 4 solution and Ag metal
(d) AgNO 3 solution and Cu metal
Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16 (a) 17. (d)

2 Marks

Q.1. What type of changes are in melting, freezing, Sunlight

vaporisation and sublimation reactions? 6CO 2 + 6H 2O ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® C 6 H12O 6 + 6 O 2
Chlorophyll
Ans. These are physical changes. Plant food

Q. 2. What type of change occur in rusting of iron, burning Q. 9. What is electrolytic decomposition?
of candle, fermentation, curding of milk? Ans. When electric current is passed through an aqueous
Ans. These are chemical changes. solution of electrolyte, it splits into its constituents.
This process is called electrolytic decomposition.
Q.3. What type of chemical reaction takes place when
magnesium wire is burnt in air? 2H 2O( l) ¾Electric
¾¾¾ current
¾¾® 2H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g )
Ans. It gives magnesium oxide in air as follow :
Q. 10. Why is hydrogen peroxide kept in coloured bottles?
2Mg + O 2 ¾Burn ¾¾® 2MgO Ans. This is done in order to cut off light, because hydrogen
Magnesium Air Magnesium oxide peroxide decomposes into water and oxygen in the
Q. 4. What type of reaction is represented by the digestion of presence of light.
food in our body? 2H 2O 2 ¾Light
¾¾® 2H 2O + O 2
Ans. Decomposition reaction. Q. 11. What happens when silver chloride is exposed to
Q. 5. What is meant by skeletal equation? sunlight?
Ans. The equation where the number of atoms of each Ans. It gives photochemical decomposition reaction.
element on both the sides of a chemical equation are
not equal is called skeletal equation. 2AgCl ¾Sunlight
¾¾ ¾® 2Ag + Cl 2
Q. 6. What do you understand by decomposition? How is it Q. 12. What type of chemical reaction takes place when
different from dissociation? limestone is heated?
Ans. Breaking of compound into two or more simpler Ans. It gives thermal decomposition reaction when
substances is called decomposition, and decomposition limestone is heated.
is an irreversible reaction whereas dissociation is a CaCO 3 ( s) ¾¾® CaO( s) + CO 2 ( g )
reversible reaction.
Limestone
Q.7. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution
Q. 13. What are antioxidants?
change when an iron nail is kept immersed in it?
Ans. An antioxidant is a molecule that inhibits the oxidation
Or Explain with reason as to why the blue colour of
of other molecules. Example butylated hydroxyanisole
aqueous copper sulphate solution fades away slowly (BHA).
when an iron rod is dipped into it. (U.P. 2018)
Q. 14. Define rancidity.
Ans. See NCERT intext Qns.6
Ans. The oxidation of oils or fats in food resulting in a bad
Q.8. Why is photosynthesis considered as endothermic taste and smell is called rancidity.
reaction?
Q. 15. Give an example of exothermic reaction. or combution
Ans. Photosynthesis is an endothermic reaction because of methane. (U.P. 2019, 20)
sunlight energy is absorbed by green plants during the
process. Ans. CH4 (g ) + 2O2 ( g ) ¾¾® CO2 ( g ) + 2H2 O( g ) + Heat

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. What is reactant and product? Explain. Ans. Reactant : The substance which take part in a chemical
reaction are called reactants.
 7

Product : The new substance produced as a result of Q. 5. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following
chemical reaction are called products. reaction.
Hence in chemical reaction, reactants are transformed (a) Sodium carbonate on reaction with hydrochloric
into product. acid in equal molar concentrations gives sodium
Reactant ¾¾® Product chloride and sodium hydrogen carbonate.
(b) Sodium hydrogen carbonate on reaction with
Q. 2. What type of following chemical reactions are? hydrochloric acid gives sodium chloride, water
(a) Quicklime react with water. and liberates carbon dioxide.
(b) Marble (limestone) is heated. (c) Copper sulphate on treatment with potassium
(c) Ammonia react with hydrogen chloride. iodide precipitates cuprous iodide (Cu 2I 2 )
Ans. (a) It is an example of combination reaction. liberate iodine gas and also formed potassium
CaO + H 2O ¾ ¾® Ca (OH) 2 sulphate.
Quicklime Slaked lime Ans. (a) Na 2CO 3 + HCl ¾
¾® NaCl + NaHCO 3
Sodium Hydrochloric Sodium Sodium
(b) It is an example of decomposition reaction. acid chloride
carbonate bicarbonate
CaCO 3 ¾Heat
¾ ¾® CaO + CO 2
Quicklime (b) NaHCO 3 + HCl ¾
¾® NaCl + H 2O + CO 2
Limestone
(c) Ammonia react with hydrogen chloride give (c) 2CuSO 4 + 4KI ¾
¾® Cu 2I 2 + 2K 2SO 4 + I2
ammonium chloride which is combination Potassium sulphate
reaction. Q.6. Identify the reducing and oxidising agent in the
NH 3 + HCl ¾
¾® NH 4Cl following reactions.
Ammonium chloride (a) 4NH 3 + 5O 2 ¾ ¾® 4NO + 6H 2O
Q. 3. What is the difference between thermal dissociation
and thermal decomposition? (b) H 2O + F2 ¾
¾® HF + HOF
Ans. (c) Fe 2O 3 + 3CO ¾
¾® 2Fe + 3CO 2
Ans. (a) O2 is changing into H2O. Thus, hydrogen is being
S. Thermal dissociation Thermal decomposition
No.
added to O2. Therefore, O2 is being reduced and it
is an oxidising agent. NH3 is changing into NO.
1. This is reversible reaction. This is irreversible reaction. Thus, hydrogen is being removed from NH3.
2. Product combine and give Product not form reactant. Therefore, NH3 is being oxidised and it is a
reactant on cooling. reducing agent.
3. In this equilibrium is found. Equilibrium not found. (b) F2 is changing into HF. Therefore, F2 is being
4. Example : reduced and it is an oxidising agent. H2O gives
NH4Cl NH3 + HCl 2KClO3 ¾
¾® 2KCl + 3O2 ­ hydrogen to F2 to form HF. Therefore, H2O is a
PCl 5 PCl 3 + Cl 2 reducing agent.
CaCO3 ¾
¾® CaO + CO2 ­
(c) CO is gaining oxygen to form CO2. Thus, CO is
being oxidised to CO2 and, therefore, CO is
Q. 4. Write the type of following reaction.
reducing agent. Fe2O3 gives oxygen to CO to
(a) NH 4Cl NH +4 + Cl – form CO2. Therefore, Fe2O3 is an oxidising agent.
(b) AgNO 3 + KCl ¾
¾® AgCl + KNO 3 Q.7. On adding dilute hydrochloric acid to copper oxide
powder, the solution formed is blue-green. Predict the
(c) N 2 + 3H 2 ¾
¾® 2NH 3 new compound formed which imparts a blue-green
colour to the solution.
(d) CaO + CO 2 ¾
¾® CaCO 3
Ans. Blue-green colour is due to the formation of aqueous
(e) HCl + NaOH ¾ ¾® NaCl + H 2O copper chloride.
Ans. (a) Ionisation reaction CuO( s) + 2HCl( aq ) ¾ ¾® CuCl 2 ( aq ) + H 2O( l)
(b) Double displacement reaction. (Precipitation Copper oxide Copper chloride
reaction) Solution is blue-green due to the presence of Cu 2+ ( aq )
(c) Combination reaction ions.
(d) Combination reaction Q. 8. Balance the following chemical equations.
(e) Double displacement reaction. (Neutralisation
reaction.) (a) FeSO 4 ¾Heat
¾¾® Fe 2O 3 + SO 2 + SO 3
 8

(b) MnO 2 + HCl ¾

¾® MnCl 2 + Cl 2 + H 2O (ii) The substance that brings reduction is called
reducing agent.
(U.P. 2019) (iii) The substance which gets oxidised is the reducing
(c) NaOH + H 2SO 4 ¾
¾® Na 2SO 4 + H 2O agent.
(d) HNO 3 + Ca (OH) 2 ¾
¾® Ca ( NO 3 ) 2 + H 2O (iv) The substance which gets reduced is the oxidising
agent.
(e) FeCl 2 + H 2S ¾
¾® FeS + HCl CuO + H 2 ¾ ¾® Cu + H 2O
(f) Fe + H 2O ¾
¾® Fe 3O 4 + H 2 (U.P. 2019) CuO is being reduced to Cu. Therefore, CuO is an
(g) C 6 H12O 6 + O 2 ¾
¾® CO 2 + H 2O + Energy oxidising agent. H2 is being oxidised to H2O.
Therefore, H2 is a reducing agent.
(U.P. 2019) Q. 13. Consider the following reactions.
(h) CO 2 + H 2O ¾ ¾® C 6 H12O 6 + O 2 (U.P. 2019) (i) Fe ( s) + CuSO 4 ( aq ) ¾
¾® FeSO 4 ( aq ) + Cu ( s)
D
(i) Cu 2S + O 2 ¾¾ ® Cu 2O + SO 2 (U.P. 2019) (ii) Zn ( s) + FeSO 4 ( aq ) ¾
¾® ZnSO 4 ( aq ) + Fe ( s)
Ans. The balanced chemical equations are : There are three metals, Fe, Zn and Cu. Which is the
(a) 2FeSO 4 ¾Heat¾¾® Fe 2O 3 + SO 2 + SO 3 most reactive and least reactive metal?
Ans. In reaction (i), Fe displaces Cu from CuSO4 solution.
(b) MnO 2 + 4HCl ¾
¾® MnCl 2 + Cl 2 + 2H 2O Therefore, Fe is more reactive than Cu. In reaction (ii),
(c) 2NaOH + H 2SO 4 ¾
¾® Na 2SO 4 + 2H 2O Zn displaces Fe from FeSO4 solution. Therefore, Zn is
more reactive than Fe. Thus, order of reactivity is : Zn
(d) 2HNO 3 + Ca (OH) 2 ¾
¾® Ca ( NO 3 ) 2 + 2H 2O > Fe > Cu. We conclude that Zn is most reactive and Cu
(e) FeCl 2 + H 2S ¾¾® FeS + 2HCl is least reactive metal.
Q. 14. Why do we store silver chloride in dark coloured
(f) 3Fe + 4H 2O ¾ ¾® Fe 3O 4 + 4H 2 bottles?
(g) C 6 H12O 6 + 6 O 2 ¾ ¾® 6CO 2 + 6H 2O + Energy Ans. Silver chloride gets decomposed in sunlight.
sunlight Therefore, it is stored in dark coloured bottles.
(h) 6CO 2 + 6H 2O ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® C 6 H12O 6 + 6 O 2 Q. 15. The reactivity of the metals decreases in the order :
chlorophyll
Mg > Zn > Fe > Cu > Ag. Which of the following pots
(i) 2Cu 2S + 3 O 2 ¾¾® 2Cu 2O + 2SO 2 get dissolved when :
Q.9. Silver chloride on photochemical decomposition (a) A solution of magnesium sulphate is kept in iron pot.
produces silver and chlorine. What is the application of (b) A solution of zinc sulphate is kept in silver pot.
this reaction? (c) A solution of copper sulphate is put in iron pot.
(d) A solution of silver nitrate is put in zinc pot.
Ans. 2AgCl( s) ¾Photochemical
¾¾¾¾ ¾® 2Ag ( s) + Cl 2 ( g )
Decomposition Ans. (a) MgSO 4 + Fe ¾ ¾® No reaction
This reaction is used in black and white (B & W) It is because Fe is less reactive than Mg.
photography. Same is true for AgBr. Therefore, iron pot does not get dissolved.
(b) ZnSO 4 + Ag ¾ ¾® No reaction
2AgBr ( s) ¾
¾® 2Ag ( s) + Br 2 ( g )
It is because Ag is less reactive than Zn.
Q. 10. Why do fire flies (Jugnu) glow at night? Therefore, silver pot does not get dissolved.
Ans. Fire flies contain a protein which undergoes aerial
oxidation. This chemical reaction is exothermic and (c) CuSO 4 + Fe ¾ ¾® FeSO 4 + Cu
involve emission of visible light. Therefore, fire flies This reaction takes place because Fe is more
(Jugnu) glow at night. reactive than Cu. Iron pot gets dissolved in the
Q. 11. What are the conditions to (a) promote corrosion form of FeSO4.
(b) check rusting? (d) 2AgNO 3 + Zn ¾ ¾® Zn ( NO 3 ) 2 + 2Ag
Ans. (a) Substances such as oxygen, moisture, acids etc. This reaction takes place because Zn is more
promote corrosion. reactive than Ag. Zinc pot gets dissolved in the
(b) Paint is applied on iron articles to check rusting. form of Zn ( NO 3 ) 2 .
Q.12. What is the relationship between oxidation and Q. 16. Give an example of decomposition reaction. Describe
oxidising agent, between reduction and reducing an activity to illustrate such a reaction by heating.
agent. Explain with one example. Or What happens when lead nitrate is heated? (U.P. 2019)
Ans. (i) The substance that brings oxidation is called Ans. Lead nitrate on heating decomposes to give lead oxide,
oxidising agent. nitrogen dioxide and oxygen.
 9

2Pb( NO 3 ) 2 ( s) ¾Heat
¾¾® 2PbO( s) + 4NO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) (iv) H 2SO 4 + Zn ¾
¾® ZnSO 4 + H 2
Colourless Brown Fumes
(v) 4Na ( s) + O 2 ( g ) ¾
¾® 2Na 2O
Q.17. Explain any one reduction property of SO2 by giving
Q.19. Explain redox reaction with example. (U.P. 2019)
chemical equation. (U.P. 2019)
Ans. Oxidation and reduction reactions always occur
Ans. SO 2 gas gives nasent hydrogen with moisture. together. Only oxidation or only reduction does not
SO2 + 2H2 O ¾
¾® H2 SO4 + 2H occur. If one substance is oxidised, then the other
substances is reduced or Vice-Versa. The oxidation
Colour + H ¾ ¾® colourless and reduction reactions are also called redox reactions.
SO 2 gas reduced ferric chloride to ferrous chloride. The term redox, ‘red’ stand for reduction and ‘ox’ for
oxidation. For example: When copper oxide (CuO) is
2FeCl 3 + SO 2 + 2H 2O ¾ ¾® 2FeCl 2 + 2HCl + H 2SO 4
heated with H 2 , then copper and water are formed.
Q.18. What happen when: CuO + H2 ¾ ¾® Cu + H2 O
(i) Lead nitrate is heated (U.P. 2019)
(i) CuO is reduced to Cu beause oxygen is being
(ii) Nitric acid reacts with calcium hydroxide removed from CuO.
(U.P. 2019) (ii) H 2 is being oxidised to H 2O, because oxygen is
(iii) Ferrous sulphate is heated. (U.P. 2019) being added to H 2 to form H 2O.
(iv) Zinc powder mixed with dil. Sulphuric acid. Q.20. Explain the neutralisation reaction. (U.P. 2020)
(U.P. 2020) Ans. When acid and base react in aqueous solution, salt and
(v) Sodium metal reacts with oxygen. (U.P. 2019) water are formed. This reaction is called
heated neutralisation reaction.
Ans. (i) Pb(NO 3 ) 2 ( s) ¾ ¾¾® PbO( s) + 4NO 2 ( g )
decomposition HCl( aq.) + NaOH( aq.) ¾¾® NaCl( aq.) + H 2O( l)
+ O 2 (g )
¾. H 2O( l)
Or H + ( aq. ) + OH - ( aq. ) ¾®
(ii) 2HNO 3 + Ca(OH) 2 ¾ ¾® Ca(NO 3 ) 2 + 2H 2O
heated
When acid is react with base whatever the amount of
(iii) 2FeSO 4 ( s) ¾ ¾¾® Fe 2O 3 ( s) + SO 2 ( g ) heat is emitted, is called heat of neutralisation. Weak
decomposition acid and weak base do not ionise completely.

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. State the method of writing chemical equation. Zn + H 2SO 4 ¾
¾® ZnSO 4 + H 2
14 4244 3 14 4244 3
Ans. The method of representing a chemical reaction
Reactants Products
with the help of symbols and formulae of the
The substances which combine or react are known
substances involved in its is known as a chemical
as reactants. Zinc and sulphuric acid are the reactants
equation. Let us take one example ot understand the
here. The reactants are always written on the left hand
meaning of a chemical equation clearly. side in an equation with a plus sign (+) between them.
Zinc metal reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to form The new substances produced in a reaction are
zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas. This reaction can be known as products. Zinc sulphate and hydrogen are
written in words as : the products in this case. The products are always
Zinc + Sulphuric acid ¾¾® Zinc sulphate + Hydrogen written on the right hand side in an equation with a plus
sign (+) between them.
This is known as the word equation. We can change
this word equation into a chemical equation by writing The arrow sign (¾¾®) pointing towards the right hand
the symbols and formulae of the various substances in side is put between the reactants and products. This
place of their names. arrow indicates that the substances written on the left
hand side are combining to give the substances.
Now, Symbol of zinc is Zn
Q. 2. What is a chemical reaction? What are the different
Formula of sulphuric acid is H2SO4, types of chemical reaction? Explain each by giving
Formula of zinc sulphate is ZnSO4, examples.
and, Formula of hydrogen is H2 Or Explain the combination and decomposition reactions.
So, putting the symbols and formulae of all the (U.P. 2019)
substances in the above word equation, we get the Or Explain the combination and displacement reactions.
following chemical equation : (U.P. 2020)
 10

Or Explain the combination reaction. (U.P. 2020) 3. Displacement Reaction : Those reactions in which
Ans. Chemical reaction are the processes in which new one element takes the place of another element in a
substances with new properties are formed. So, in compound are known as displacement reactions.
chemical reactions reactants are transformed in to For example :
products. In chemical reaction, atoms of one element
do not change into the atom of other elements. Atom of Fe ( s) + CuSO 4 ( aq. ) ¾
¾® FeSO 4 ( aq. ) + Cu( s)
element in reactants and products remain the same. Copper sulphate Iron sulphate
Important types of chemical reaction are given below: Zn ( s) + CuSO 4 ( aq. ) ¾
¾® ZnSO 4 ( aq ) + Cu ( s)
1. Combination or addition Reaction: Those chemical Zinc sulphate
reaction in which two or more substances combine to
form a single substance are called combination or Note: In displacement reaction more reactive element displace less
addition reaction. reactive elements from the aqueous solution of its compound.
For example : Reactivity order of some elements ¾¾® K > Na > Ca > Mg >
(i) 2Mg ( s) + O 2 ( g ) ¾Combination
¾ ¾ ¾¾® 2MgO ( s) Al > Zn > Fe > H > Cu > Ag > Au
Magnesium oxide
Combination
4. Double displacement reaction : Those reactions in
(ii) N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® 2NH 3 ( g ) which two different reactants exchanges their ions and
Ammonia form two new compounds are called double
Combination displacement reactions.
(iii) 2H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® 2H 2O ( l)
Water For examples :
(iv) C( s) + O 2 ( g ) ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® CO 2 ( g ) Na 2SO 4 ( aq. ) + BaCl 2 ( aq. ) ¾
¾® BaSO 4 ( s) + 2NaCl ( aq. )
Sodium sulphate Barium chloride Barium Sodium chloride
Carbion dioxide
sulphate
2. Decomposition reaction : Those reactions in which a (White ppt.)
single compound breaks up into two or more simpler
substances are called decomposition reaction. AgNO 3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) ¾
¾® AgCl (s) + NaNO 3 (aq)
For example : Silver nitrate Silver chloride Sodium nitrate
(White ppt.)
(i) CaCO 3 ( s) ¾H¾
eat
¾® CaO ( s) + CO 2 ( g )
Calcium carbonate Calcium oxide Note: These reactions categorised into following two types:
(Limestone) (Quicklime)
(a) Precipitation Reaction : When aqueous solution of two
(ii) 2FeSO 4 ( s) ¾H¾
eat
¾® Fe 2O 3 ( s) + SO 2 ( g ) +SO 3 ( g ) salts are mixed then some salt precipitate due to mutual
Ferrous sulphate Ferric oxide Sulphur dioxide Sulphur exchange of ions.]
trioxide
AgNO3 ( aq ) + NaCl ( aq ) ¾
¾® AgCl ( s ) + NaNO3
(iii) 2Pb( NO 3 ) 2 ( s) ¾H¾
eat
¾® 2PbO ( s) + 4NO 2 ( g ) +O 2 ( g ) White ppt.
Lead nitrate Lead oxide Nitrogen Oxygen
dioxide (b) Neutralization Reaction : When acid react with base then
formed salt and water called neutralization reaction.
Note: The decomposition of a substance on heating is known as NaOH ( aq ) + HCl ( aq ) ¾
¾® NaCl( aq ) + H2O( l )
‘thermal decomposition’. While decomposition after
absorbing sunlight energy is called photochemical Sodium hydroxide Hydrochloric acid Sodium chloride
decomposition. (Base) (Acid) (Salt)
Sunlight
2AgCl ( s ) ¾ ¾ ¾¾® 2Ag ( s )+ Cl 2 ( s )
Silver chloride Silver Chlorine

NCERT Intext Questions

Q. 1. Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before Q. 2. Write the balanced equation for the following chemical
burning in air? reactions :
Ans. The magnesium ribbon which we use usually has a (i) Hydrogen + Chlorine ¾® Hydrogen chloride
coating of a white layer of magnesium oxide on its (ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium sulphate ¾®
surface. It is formed by the slow reaction of moist air on Barium sulphate + Aluminium chloride
it. This hinders the burning of magnesium. So, this (iii) Sodium + Water ¾® Sodium hydroxide +
layer is removed by rubbing with sandpaper before Hydrogen
burning.
Ans. (i) H 2 ( g ) + Cl 2 ( g ) ¾® 2HCl( g )
 11

(ii) 3BaCl 2 ( aq ) + Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3 ( aq ) ¾® 3BaSO 4 ( s) Q. 6. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution
+2AlCl 3 ( aq ) change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Ans. Iron is more reactive than copper. It displaces copper
(iii) 2Na ( s) + 2H 2O( l) ¾® 2NaOH( aq ) + H 2 ( g ) from copper sulphate solution according to the
Q. 3. Write a balanced chemical equation with symbols for following reaction :
the following reactions : Fe ( s) + CuSO 4 ( aq ) ¾
¾® FeSO 4 ( aq ) + Cu ( s)
(i) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate
Iron Copper sulphate Iron (II) sulphate Copper
in water react to give insoluble barium sulphate
and the solution of sodium chloride. Thus, as copper sulphate reacts to form iron (II)
(ii) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with sulphate, the blue colour of copper sulphate solution
hydrochloric acid solution (in water) to produce fades and solution turns green due to iron (II) sulphate.
sodium chloride solution and water. Q. 7. Give an example of a double displacement reaction
Ans. (i) BaCl 2 ( aq ) + Na 2SO 4 ( aq ) ¾® BaSO 4 ( s) other than the one between barium chloride and sodium
+2NaCl( aq ) sulphate solutions.
(ii) NaOH( aq ) + HCl( aq ) ¾® NaCl( aq ) + H 2O( l) Ans. AgNO 3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) ¾ ¾® AgCl (s) + NaNO 3 (aq)
Q. 4. A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for whitewashing. Silver Sodium Silver Sodium
nitrate chloride chloride nitrate
(i) Name the substance ‘X’ and write its formula.
(ii) Write the reaction of the substance ‘X’ named in Q. 8. Identify the substances oxidised and the substances
(i) above with water. reduced in the following reactions :
Ans. (i) The substance ‘X’ used for whitewashing is (i) 4Na ( s) + O 2 ( s) ¾® 2Na 2O ( s)
quicklime (calcium oxide). Its formula is CaO. (ii) CuO ( s) + H 2 ( g ) ¾® Cu ( s) + H 2O( l)
(ii) When quicklime is mixed with water, the Ans. (i) In this reaction, sodium (Na) is changed into
following reaction takes place : sodium oxide ( Na 2O) by the addition of oxygen
CaO( s) + H 2O( l) ¾® Ca (OH) 2 ( aq ) + Heat to sodium. Since addition of oxygen is called
Quicklime Calcium hydroxide oxidation, therefore, the substance sodium (Na) is
(Calcium oxide) (Slaked lime) oxidised to Na 2O.
Q. 5. Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the test Oxygen (O 2 ) is changed into Na 2O. Here, the
tubes double of the amount collected in the other in addition of metal to oxygen takes place. So, the
electrolysis of water experiment? Name this gas. substance reduced is oxygen.
Ans. The gas which is collected in double the amount in the (ii) Here, copper oxide is reduced to copper metal
electrolysis of water experiment is hydrogen. This is whereas hydrogen is oxidised to water.
because water ( H 2O) contains two parts of hydrogen
element as compared to one part of oxygen element by
volume.

NCERT Exercise
Q. 1. Which of the statements about the reaction below are (c) decomposition reaction
incorrect? (U.P. 2019) (d) displacement reaction
2PbO( s) + C( s) ¾® 2Pb( s) + CO 2 ( g ) Ans. The given equation is a displacement reaction in which
(a) Lead is getting reduced. Fe of Fe 2O 3 has been displaced by Al. Hence, (d) is
(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised. the correct answer.
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised.
Q. 3. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added
(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced. to iron filings? Choose the correct answer.
(i) (a) and (b) (ii) (a) and (c)
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(iii) (a), (b) and (c) (iv) All
Ans. The incorrect statements are : (b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
(a) Lead is getting reduced and (c) No reaction takes place.
(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised. (d) Iron salt and water are produced.
Hence, (i) is the correct answer. Ans. The following reaction takes place :
Q. 2. Fe 2O 3 + 2Al ¾® Al 2O 3 + 2Fe Fe + 2HCl ¾¾® FeCl 2 + H2
Iron Hydrochloric acid Iron (II) chloride Hydrogen
The above reaction is an example of
(a) combination reaction Thus, hydrogen and iron chloride are produced.
(b) double displacement reaction Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
 12

Q. 4. What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should the Q. 8. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following
chemical equations be balanced? and identify the type of reaction in each case.
Ans. A balanced chemical equation is one which contains an (a) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq)
equal number of atoms of each element on both sides of ¾® Potassium iodide (aq) + Barium bromide (s)
the equation. For example, (b) Zinc carbonate (s) ¾® Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon
2H 2 + O 2 ¾ ¾® 2H 2O dioxide (g)
(c) Hydrogen (g) + Chlorine (g) ¾® Hydrogen
According to the law of conservation of mass, matter chloride (g)
can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical (d) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) ¾®
reaction. During a chemical reaction, the total mass of Magnesium chloride (aq) + Hydrogen (g)
reactants and products remain the same. Hence, in a Ans. (a) 2KBr ( aq ) + BaI 2 ( aq ) ¾® 2KI ( aq ) + BaBr 2 ( s)
chemical reaction, the number of atoms of the various
elements on both sides should be equal. Therefore, a Double displacement reaction
chemical equation is to be balanced in accordance with (b) ZnCO 3 ( s) ¾® ZnO( s) + CO 2 ( g );
the law of conservation of mass. Decomposition reaction
Q.5. Translate the following statements into chemical (c) H 2 ( g ) + Cl 2 ( g ) ¾® 2HCl( g );
equations and then balance them. Combination reaction
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form (d) Mg ( s) + 2HCl( aq ) ¾® MgCl 2 ( aq ) + H 2 ( g );
ammonia. Displacement reaction
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water Q. 9. What does one mean by exothermic and endothermic
and sulphur dioxide. reactions? Give examples.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate Ans. Exothermic reaction: In exothermic reaction, heat is
to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of evolved during the reaction which is indicated by ‘+
barium sulphate. heat’ sign on the right hand side of the equation.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give
potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. CaO( s) + H 2O( l) ¾® Ca (OH) 2 ( aq ) + Heat
Ans. (a) N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) ¾® 2NH 3 ( g ) Endothermic reaction: In this reaction, heat is
absorbed which is indicated by putting ‘+ heat’ sign on
(b) 2H 2S( g ) + 3O 2 ( g ) ¾® 2H 2O( l) + 2SO 2 ( g ) the left hand side of the equation.
(c) 3BaCl 2 + Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3 ¾® 2AlCl 3 + 3BaSO 4 ¯ N 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) + Heat ¾® 2NO( g )
(d) 2K( s) + 2H 2O( l) ¾® 2KOH( aq ) + H 2 ( g ) Q.10. Why is respiration considered as an exothermic
Q. 6. Balance the following chemical equations : reaction? Explain.
(a) HNO 3 + Ca (OH) 2 ¾® Ca ( NO 3 ) 2 + H 2O Ans. During respiration, the glucose combines with oxygen
(b) NaOH + H 2SO 4 ¾® Na 2SO 4 + H 2O in the cells of our body and provides energy. Thus,
(c) NaCl + AgNO 3 ¾® AgCl + NaNO 3 respiration is an exothermic process because energy is
produced during this process.
(d) BaCl 2 + H 2SO 4 ¾® BaSO 4 + HCl
Ans. (a) 2HNO 3 + Ca (OH) 2 ¾® Ca ( NO 3 ) 2 + 2H 2O C 6 H12O 6 ( aq ) + 6O 2 ( g ) + 6H 2O( l) ¾
¾® 6CO 2 ( g )
(b) 2NaOH + H 2SO 4 ¾® Na 2SO 4 + 2H 2O Glucose
+ 12H 2O( l) + Energy
(c) NaCl + AgNO 3 ¾® AgCl + NaNO 3 Q. 11. Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite
(d) BaCl 2 + H 2SO 4 ¾® BaSO 4 + 2HCl of combination reactions? Write equations for these
Q.7. Write the balanced chemical equations for the reactions?
following reactions: Ans. In a combination reaction, two or more substances
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide ¾® combine to form a single product. Also, a large amount
Calcium carbonate + Water of heat is evolved.
(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate ¾® Zinc nitrate + Silver The decomposition reactions require energy either in
(U.P. 2020) the form of heat, light or electricity for breaking down
one substance into two or more substances.
(c) Aluminium + Copper chloride ¾® Aluminium
N2 + 3H2 ¾® 2NH3 + Heat; Combination reaction
chloride + Copper
2NH3 + Heat ¾® N2 + 3H2; Decomposition reaction
(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate ¾®
Q. 12. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions
Barium sulphate + Potassium chloride
where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light or
Ans. (a) Ca(OH) 2 + CO 2 ¾® CaCO3 + H2O electricity.
(b) Zn + 2AgNO3 ¾® Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag Ans. Decomposition reaction involving absorption of heat :
(c) 2Al + 3CuCl2 ¾® 2AlCl3 + 3Cu
CaCO 3 ( s) ¾
¾® CaO( s) + CO 2 ( g )
(d) BaCl2 + K2SO4 ¾® BaSO4 + 2KCl
Calcium carbonate Calcium oxide Carbon dioxide
 13

Decomposition reaction involving absorption of light : (ii) 2Cu ( s) + O 2 ( g ) ¾Heat

¾¾® 2CuO( s)
2AgCl( s) ¾Sunlight
¾¾ ¾® 2Ag ( s) + Cl 2 ( g ) Copper Oxygen Copper oxide
Silver chloride Silver Chlorine In this reaction, Cu has gained oxygen to
Decomposition reaction involving absorption of form CuO. Thus, Cu is oxidised to copper
electrical energy : oxide (CuO).
(b) Reduction: It is defined as the process which
2H 2O( l) ¾Electric
¾¾ ¾® 2H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g)
current involves loss of oxygen or gain hydrogen, For
Water Hydrogen Oxygen example,
Q.13. What is the difference between displacement and (i) CuO + H 2 ¾Heat ¾¾® Cu + H 2O
double displacement reactions? Write equations for
Copper oxide Hydrogen Copper Water
these reactions.
Ans. In a displacement reaction, a more reactive element In this reaction, copper oxide is losing
displaces or removes another element from its oxygen. So, it is being reduced to copper.
compound. (ii) ZnO + C ¾Heat ¾
¾® Zn + CO
For example, zinc being more reactive, displaces Zinc oxide Carbon Zinc Carbon
copper from its compound. monoxide
Zn ( s) + CuSO 4 ( aq ) ¾
¾® ZnSO 4 ( aq ) + Cu ( s) In this reaction, zinc oxide is losing oxygen.
So it is being reduced to zinc.
In case of double displacement reactions, two
compounds react by exchanging their ions and form Q. 17. A shiny brown coloured element ‘X ’ on heating in air
two new compounds. becomes black in colour. Name the element ‘X ’ and
For example, silver nitrate and sodium chloride the black coloured compound formed.
exchange their ions, NO -3 and Cl - respectively and Ans. Element X is copper. The black coloured compound
formed is copper (II) oxide.
form two new compounds in the following reaction.
AgNO 3 ( aq. ) + NaCl ( s) ¾¾® AgCl( aq. ) +NaNO 3 ( aq ) 2Cu + O 2 ¾Heat ¾¾® 2CuO
Copper (Brown) Oxygen Copper (II) oxide (Black)
(White ppt.)
Q. 14. In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from Q. 18. Why do we apply paint on iron articles?
silver nitrate solution involved displacement by copper Ans. By coating paint over iron articles, the contact of moist
metal. Write down the reaction involved. air with iron is cut off. So, moist air cannot attack on
Ans. Cu ( s) + 2AgNO 3 ( aq ) ¾ ¾® Cu ( NO 3 ) 2 ( aq ) +2Ag( s) the surface of iron articles and there is no risk of rusting
(corrosion of iron). Thus, iron articles can be protected
Copper Silver nitrate Copper (II) nitrate Silver from damage for many years.
Q. 15. What do you mean by precipitation reaction? Explain Q. 19. Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with
giving examples. nitrogen. Why?
Ans. A reaction that produces a precipitate are called Ans. In the presence of oxygen in the air, the fats present in
precipitation reaction. In double displacement the fatty food are oxidised to compounds which have a
reactions, only those ions combine together which forms bad smell, i.e., the food becomes rancid. Flushing with
precipitate. The other ions remains in solution. nitrogen cuts off the contact of food with oxygen and
When sodium sulphate solution is mixed with barium protects the food from rancidity.
chloride solution, a white precipitate of BaSO 4 is Q. 20. Explain the following terms with one example each.
formed by the reaction of SO 2-4
and Ba 2+ . (a) Corrosion (U.P. 2019) (b) Rancidity
Na 2SO 4 ( aq ) + BaCl 2 ( aq ) ¾
¾® BaSO 4 ( s) ¯ + 2NaCl( aq ) Ans. (a) Corrosion : It is a process of slow and gradual
conversion of a metal into its undesirable
The other product formed is sodium chloride which compounds (sulphides, carbonates, oxides, etc.)
remains in the solution. by the attack of air and moisture (water) present in
Q.16. Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of the atmosphere.
oxygen with two examples each : For example, reddish brown coating on iron,
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction black coating on silver and green coating on
Ans. (a) Oxidation: It is defined as a process which copper are some examples of corrosion of iron,
involves gain of oxygen or loses hydrogen. For silver and copper respectively. Corrosion of iron
example, is known as rusting.
(b) Rancidity : When the food items are kept for a
(i) 2Mg ( s) + O 2 ( g ) ¾
¾® 2MgO( s) long period, the fats and oils present in them get
Magnesium Oxygen Magnesium oxide oxidised and their smell and taste change. They
Here, Mg has gained oxygen to form MgO. become rancid and so the process is called
Hence, Mg has been oxidised to MgO. rancidity. ccc
 14

Chapter

2 ACID, BASE AND SALT

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. The pH value of pure water is : Q.12. The chemical name of caustic soda is: (U.P. 2018)
( U.P. 2011, 14, 17,18, 19, 20) (a) sodium hydroxide (b) sodium chloride
(a) 0(zero) (b) 1 (c) 7 (d) 14 (c) sodium bicarbonate (d) calcium sulphate
Q. 2. The pH value of H2S solution is : ( U.P. 2011, 14, 18 ) Q.13. The product of chloro alkali process are :
(a) zero (b) 7 (a) NaCl, Cl2 and H2 (b) H2, Cl2 and NaOH
(c) less than 7 (d) more than 7 (c) Cl2, Na2CO3 and H2O
Q. 3. The pH value of solution is 3. This solution is : (d) NaOH, Cl2 and HCl
(U.P. 2017, 19) Q.14. Chemical formula of baking powder is : (U.P. 2015)
(a) acidic (b) basic (a) NaHCO 3 (b) Na 2CO 3
(c) neutral (d) none of these (c) NH 4Cl (d) NaOH
Q. 4. The compound used for disinfecting in drinking water : Q.15. The colour of turmeric with alkali is : (U.P. 2019)
(U.P. 2011, 14, 17, 20) (a) yellow (b) orange
(a) washing soda (b) baking soda (c) brownish red (d) remain unchanged
(c) alum (d) bleaching powder Q.16. The possible pH value of acidic rain water is:
Q. 5. The chemical formula of washing soda is : (U.P. 2019)
(U.P. 2015, 16, 20) (a) 5.2 (b) 6.2 (c) 7.2 (d) 8.2
(a) Na 2CO 3 × 10H 2O (b) NaHCO3 Q.17. The aqueous solution of sulphur dioxide is:(U.P. 2019)
(c) NaCl (d) CaOCl 2 (a) acidic (b) basic (c) neutral (d) amphoteric
Q. 6. Number of acidic hydrogen atoms in sulphuric acid is : Q.18. Which of the following is acidic salt? (U.P. 2020)
(U.P. 2016, 19) (a) NaCl (b) NaHSO 4
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) zero (c) Na 2SO 4 (d) KCN
Q. 7. The pH value of acidic solution is : (U.P. 2016, 19) Q.19. Baking powder releases which gas on heating?
(a) 7 (b) less than 7 (U.P. 2019)
(c) more than 7 (d) zero (a) CO (b) Na 2CO 3
Q. 8. The strength of hydrochloric acid is 10 -2 N . pH value (c) CO 2 (d) O 2
of this solution is: (U.P. 2018) Q.20. The pH value of aqueous solution of H2 SO4 is :
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0 (U.P. 2020)
Q. 9. When pH of rain water goes below 5.6, it is called : (a) 0 (b) less than 7
( U.P. 2018)
(c) 7 (d) more than 7
(a) acid rain (b) base rain
Q.21. The pH value of basic solution is: (U.P. 2020)
(c) neutral rain (d) either (a) or (b)
(a) zero (b) 7
Q.10. The burning sensation on touching nettle leaves is due
to : ( U.P. 2013) (c) less than 7 (d) more than 7
(a) formic acid (b) methanoic acid Q.22. Which of the following statement is incorrect for
neutral solution? (U.P. 2020)
(c) ethanoic acid (d) propanoic acid
Q.11. The combination of hydrochloric acid and sodium (a) value of hydrogen ion (H+ ) is 10 -7 mol/lit.
hydroxide solution forms: ( U.P. 2018) (b) value of hydroxyl ion (OH - ) is 10 -7 mol/lit.
(a) common salt (b) caustic soda (c) value of pH is zero
(c) bleaching powder (d) baking soda (d) value of pH is 7
 15

Q.23. Which of the following is not strong electrolyte? (a) ammonium chloride (b) sodium acetate
(U.P. 2020) (c) hydrogen sulphide (d) potassium nitrate
Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. What is the ionic product of water? What is its value at

25°C? (U. P. 2012, 14) Q.5. Why does bleaching powder always smells of
Ans. At standard condition of temperature, in water the chlorine?
product of [H+] and [OH–] ion is a constant called ionic Ans. Bleaching powder always smells of chlorine because
product. Hence when exposed to air, it reacts with carbon dioxide in air
H 2O H Å + OH - to release chlorine.
K w = [ H + ][OH - ] Q.6. Two solutions A and B have pH values of 5 and 8
respectively. Which solution will be basic in nature?
Ionic product of water at 25°C is 1 ´ 10 -14 . Ans. Solution B.
So, Q. 7. If a few drops of a concentrated acid accidentally spills
K w = [ H + ][OH - ] = 1 ´ 10 -14 over the hand of a student, what should be done?
(U.P. 2014, 15)
Q. 2. Define the pH. State its relation with the hydrogen ion. Ans. The hand should be washed immediately with plenty of
(U.P. 2014, 16,19) water and a paste of sodium hydrogencarbonate (a
Ans. pH is the negative raise of number ten which represent base) must be applied to neutralise the acid.
hydrogen ion concentration in the solution. So Q. 8. If someone is suffering from the problem of acidity
[ H + ] =10 - pH after overeating; which of the following would you
suggest as a remedy?
After taking log both side, Lemon juice, Baking soda solution or Vinegar.
pH = - log [ H + ] Ans. Baking soda solution because it is basic in nature and
hence neutralises the excess acid present in the
Where [H + ] = concentration of H + ion in mol/litre. stomach.
Q. 3. What is measured by using pH scale? Give the pH Q. 9. Why does tooth decay start when the pH of mouth is
range of neutral, acidic and alkaline solution. lower than 5.5?
(U.P. 2017) Ans. Tooth starts decaying when the pH of our mouth is
Ans. pH scale is used to measure the acidic or basic strength lower than 5.5. This is because below this pH value, the
of solution in terms of hydrogen or hydronium ion medium of the mouth becomes more acidic due to
which tooth enamel corrodes at a faster rate.
concentration.
Q.10. Two solutions X and Y have pH values of 3.0 and 9.5
For neutral solution pH = 7
respectively. Which of these will turn litmus solution
For an acidic solution pH < 7 from blue to red and which will turn phenolphthalein
For an alkaline solution pH > 7 from colourless to pink? (U.P. 2016)
Q. 4. Complete and balance the following equations : Ans. X will turn blue litmus to red because it is acidic in
(U.P. 2016) nature having pH value less than 7. Y will turn
(i) NaCl + NH 3 + H 2O + CO 2 ¾ ¾® ...................... phenolphthalein from colourless to pink because it is
basic in nature having pH value greater than 7.
(ii) Ca (OH) 2 + Cl 2 ¾
¾® ......................... Q. 11. A knife, which is used to cut a fruit, was immediately
dipped into water containing drops of blue litmus
Ans. (i) NaCl + NH 3 + H 2O + CO 2 ¾
¾®
solution. The colour of the solution changes to red,
NaHCO 3 ¯ + NH 4Cl what is the nature of the fruit? (U.P. 2014, 15)
Sodium bicarbonate Ans. The fruit is acidic as it turns blue litmus solution to red.
(ii) Ca (OH) 2 + Cl 2 ¾
¾® CaOCl 2 + H 2O Q.12. What are the products formed when an acid reacts with
Bleaching powder
a base?
 16

Ans. Acid reacts with a base to form salt and water. Q.16. Write down the two main uses of sodium carbonate.
Q.13. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. When it changes into curd ( U.P. 2019)
(yogurt), will its pH value increase or decrease? Why? Ans. (i) Sodium carbonate (washing soda) is used in glass,
Ans. When milk changes into curd (yogurt), its pH value soap and paper industries.
decreases. This is because during curd formation, lactic (ii) It is used in manufacture of sodium compound
acid is produced which makes it acidic. such as borax.
Q.14. Give the concentration of H Å ions in the solution Q.17. Write down the two uses of caustic soda and plaster of
having pH value equal to 4. What will be the nature of Paris. (U.P. 2020)
solution? (U.P. 2018) Ans. Caustic soda are used in manufacture of washing soda,
Ans. Given pH = 4 soap and detergents.
Hence solution is acidic because pH is less than 7. Plaster of Paris are used in cast industry, making of
Q.15. Write down the molecular formula and chemical name toys, decorative materials and doctors used it for
of washing soda. ( U.P. 2019) surgery of supporting fractured bones in the right
position.
Ans. Chemical name of washing soda is sodium carbonate
decahydrate. Its molecular formula is Na 2CO 3 .10H 2O.

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. According to ionisation theory explain why HCl is an Ans. The chemical formula of baking powder is sodium
acid and NaOH is a base? hydrogencarbonate (NaHCO3); whereas, that of
Ans. According to ionization theory, any compound that washing soda is sodium carbonate ( Na 2CO 3 × 10H 2O).
dissociates in water to form [H+] ion as only called Sodium hydrogencarbonate on heating gives CO2 gas
acid. which will turn limewater milky whereas no such gas is
Example: obtained from sodium carbonate.
2NaHCO 3 ¾Heat¾¾® Na 2CO 3 + H 2O + CO 2
HCl H + + Cl –
Any compound that give hydroxide ion after the Na 2CO 3 × 10H 2O ¾Heat
¾¾® Na 2CO 3 + 10H 2O
ionisation are called base. Q.5. With the help of a chemical equation, explain how a
NaOH Na + + OH – soda-acid fire extinguisher helps in putting out a fire.
As it is evident that HCl in water dissociates to give H + Ans. Soda-acid fire extinguisher contains sodium
bicarbonate and sulphuric acid, which are in separate
ions, whereas NaOH in solution gives OH – ions. So, containers in them. When knob of the fire extinguisher
HCl is an acid whereas NaOH is a base. is pressed, then sulphuric acid mixes with sodium
Q. 2. When zinc metal is treated with a dilute solution of a bicarbonate solution and produces a lot of CO2 gas,
strong acid, a gas is evolved, which is utilised in the which forms a blanket over the fire and cuts it off from
hydrogenation of oil. Name the gas evolved. Write the the supply of the air to the burning substance and the
chemical equation of the reaction and also write a test fire stops.
to detect the gas formed. 2NaHCO 3 + H 2SO 4 ¾ ¾® Na 2SO 4 + 2H 2O + 2CO 2
Ans. When zinc reacts with dilute solution of strong acid, it Baking soda Sulphuric acid Sodium Water Carbon
forms salt and hydrogen gas is evolved. sulphate dioxide
Zn + 2HCl ¾ ¾® ZnCl 2 + H 2 ­ Q.6. What is acid rain? How does it affect the aquatic life?
(U.P. 2019)
When a burning splinter is brought near the mouth of
the test tube, the gas burns with a pop sound. Ans. The aquatic animals (like fish) can survive in river
water only in a narrow range of pH change. When the
Q. 3. Which acid is produced in our stomach? What happens pH of rain water is less than 5.6, it is called acid rain.
if there is an excess of acid in the stomach? How can its When water of acid rain flows into the rivers, it lowers
effect be cured? the pH of river water. The survival of aquatic life in
Ans. Hydrochloric acid is produced in our stomach. The such rivers becomes difficult.
excess acid in the stomach causes indigestion which Q.7. What is acid rain? How does it determine the pH of
produces pain and irritation. This effect can be cured soil? (U.P. 2019)
by using antacids. Antacids (a group of mild bases)
react with excess acid in the stomach and neutralise Ans. When rain water moves through atmosphere, the acidic
it. . gases like SO 2 , NO 2 , SO 3 etc. gets dissolved in it
making rain water acidic (pH ranging 5-6). This rain
Q. 4. How would you distinguish between baking powder containing acidic water is called ‘acid rain’.
and washing soda by heating?
This water decomposes surface of metals and marble.
 17

pH of soil may be determined by dissolving soil sample (ii)NaHCO 3 + HCl ¾

¾® NaCl + H 2O + CO 2
into water and then pH of solution is tested by pH meter Sodium Sodium
or universal indicator/pH paper. bicarbonate chloride
Q.8. Write down the chemical name, molecular formula and Q. 12. How will you prepare the following?
uses of common salt. (U.P. 2019)
(i) Sodium carbonate from sodium hydroxide
Ans. The chemical name of common salt (table salt) is
(U.P. 2019)
sodium chloride. Its molecular formula is NaCl. It can
be prepared in laboratory by reaction between aqueous (ii) Bleaching powder from chlorine (U.P. 2020)
sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid. (iii) Baking soda from washing soda (U.P. 2020)
NaOH( aq.) + HCl( aq.) ¾ ¾® NaCl( aq.) + H 2O (iv) Sodium bicarbonate from sodium chloride.
(U.P. 2018)
Aqueous solution of NaCl on evaporation gives Ans. (i) Sodium carbonate is prepared by reaction of
crystals of NaCl. NaOH and CO 2
Uses: (i) It is used as raw material for manufacture of
NaOH, Na 2 CO3 , NaHCO3 and sodium metal. 2NaOH + CO 2 ¾ ¾® Na 2CO 3 + H 2O
(ii) It is used in food, and preservative in pickles, (ii) Bleaching powder is prepared by passing chlorine
meat and fish. gas over slaked lime.
(iii) It is used to melt snow on the road in cold Ca(OH) 2 + Cl 2 ¾ ¾® CaOCl 2 + H 2O
countries. (iii) Baking soda is prepared by passing CO 2 gas over
Q. 9. Salt A commonly used in bakery products on heating saturated solution of Na 2CO 3 .
gets converted into another salt B which itself is used
for removal of hardness of water and a gas C is evolved. Na 2CO 3 + CO 2 + H 2O ¾ ¾® 2NaHCO 3
The gas C when passed through lime water, turns it (iv) NaCl + NH 3 + CO 2 + H 2O ¾ ¾® NaHCO 3
milky. Identify A, B and C. +NH 4Cl
Ans. Baking powder (NaHCO3), salt A is commonly used in Q. 13. What happens when–
bakery products. On heating, it forms sodium
carbonate (Na2CO3), B and CO2 gas, C is evolved. (i) Sodium bicarbonate is heated?(U.P. 2017, 18, 19)
When CO2 gas is passed through lime water it forms (ii) Chlorine gas is passed over slaked lime?
calcium carbonate (CaCO3), which is slightly soluble (U.P. 2020)
in water making it milky. (iii) Bleaching powder react with carbon dioxide?
Q. 10. Give suitable reason for the following statements : (iv) Plaster of Paris react with water?
(i) We fell burning sensation in the stomach when we (v) Carbon dioxide gas is passed in aqueous solution
overeat. of sodium carbonate?
(ii) The crystals of washing soda change to white (vi) Sodium bicarbonate reacts with dil. sulphuric?
powder on exposure to air. acid ? (U.P. 2018)
(vii) Zinc powder mixed with dil. sulphuric acid?
(iii) An aqueous solution of sodium chloride is neutral
but an aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is (U.P. 2020)
basic. (viii) Gypsum heated at 373K? (U.P. 2020)
(ix) Plaster of Paris is heated ? (U.P. 2020)
Ans. (i) When we overeat excess of acid is produced in the
stomach which causes burning sensation. Ans. (i) Sodium carbonate is heated.
(ii) Washing soda is sodium carbonate decahydrate 2NaHCO 3 ¾Heat
¾¾® Na 2CO 3 +H 2O + CO 2
which when exposed to air loses 10 molecules of Sodium Sodium
bicarbonate carbonate
water and changes to white powder.
(iii) Sodium chloride is a salt of strong acid HCl and (ii) Bleaching powder is formed.
strong base NaOH, so it is neutral. Sodium Ca (OH) 2 + Cl 2 ¾
¾® CaOCl 2 + H 2O
carbonate is a salt of weak acid H2CO3 and strong Slaked lime Bleaching powder
base NaOH, so it is basic. (iii) Chlorine gas is produced.
Q. 11. Write only the chemical equation of the following:
CaOCl 2 + CO 2 ¾
¾® CaCO 3 + Cl 2 ­
(i) Effect of temperature on sodium bicarbonate.
(U.P. 2018) Bleaching powder Calcium carbonate
(ii) Sodium bicarbonate with hydrochloric acid. (iv) It gives hard substance gypsum with water known
(U.P. 2018) as setting of P.O.P
D D
Ans. (i) 2NaHCO 3 ¾¾® Na 2CO 3 + H 2O + CO 2 ­ 2CaSO 4 × H 2O + 3H 2O ¾¾ ® 2(CaSO 4 × H 2O)
Baking soda Sodium carbonate P.O.P. Hard substance
(Gypsum)
 18

(v) Sodium bicarbonate is formed. (vii) Zn + H 2SO 4 ¾¾® ZnSO 4 + H 2 ­

D
Na 2CO 3 + H 2O + CO 2 ¾¾ ® 2NaHCO 3 Zinc dil. sulphuric acid Zinc sulphate Hydrogen
Sodium carbonate Sodium bicarbonate 373K
(viii) 2(CaSO 4 × 2H 2O) ¾ ¾¾® (CaSO 4 ) 2 × H 2O
(vi) 2NaHCO 3 + H 2SO 4 ¾
¾® Gypsum Plaster of Paris
Sodium bicarbonate dil. sulphuric acid + 3H 2O
Na 2SO 4 + 2H 2O + 2CO 2 ­ (ix) (CaSO 4 ) 2 × H 2O ¾¾® D
2CaSO 4 + H 2O
Sodium sulphate
Plaster of Paris Calcium sulphate

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. Describe the importance of pH in our daily life. Q. 2. Describe method of electrolysis by passing of electricity
(U.P. 2019) in aqueous solution of sodium chloride. Write the main
Ans. (i) Plants and Animals are pH Sensitive : Our products in this reaction. Write the equation of chemical
body works within the pH range 7.0 to 7.8. If the reaction and give the naming apparatus used in it.
pH of our body gets disturbed, then many ailments (U.P. 2020)
can occur in our body. The pH of rain water is less Ans. On electrolysis of concentrated aqueous solution of
than 5.6, it is called acid rain. When water of acid sodium chloride (called brine), Cl 2 gas is liberated at
rain flow into the rivers, it lowers the pH of river anode (positive electrode), H2 gas is liberated at cathode
water and it becomes acidic. The survival of an and NaOH solution is formed near cathode.
aquatic life in such rivers becomes difficult and 2NaCl ( aq. ) + 2H 2O ( l) ¾Electrolysis
¾¾¾ ¾®
can even kill the fishes and other aquatic animals. Sodium chloride
(ii) pH in our Digestive System— Due to the 2NaOH ( aq. ) + Cl 2 ( g ) + H 2 ( g )
presence of HCl in our stomach, the pH of gastric Sodium hydroxide
juice is about 1.2. It helps in digestion of the food. This process of electrolysis of aqueous solution of
When excess of the acid (HCl) is produced in sodium chloride is called chlor-alkali process,
stomach, it causes indigestion, pain and irritation. because the product formed (i) chlor for chlorine and
Persons who suffer from the problem of hyper (ii) alkali for NaOH. The product of electrolysis are
acidity are advised to take some antacid. The H 2 , Cl 2 and NaOH.
antacids are basic in nature and neutralise the Because chlorine gas reacts with cold NaOH solution
excess of the acid of stomach. Milk of magnesia so, NaCl and sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl) are
[Mg(OH) 2 ] is important antacid. obtained and that why it is necessary that Cl 2 should
(iii) pH of the Soil and Plant Growth: Most of the not come in contact with NaOH.
plants grow best when pH of the soil is close to 7. If
the soil is too acidic or too basic, then the growth of 2NaOH + Cl 2 ¾¾® NaOCl + NaCl + H 2O
the plant is adversely affected. Use of fertilizers also
affects the pH of the soil. The pH of the soil may be
changed by using the suitable chemicals and make it
suitable for growing plants. If the soil is acidic, then
quick lime (CaO) or slaked lime Ca(OH) 2 is added
to the soil. If the soil is basic, then manure (compost,
natural organic matter) is added to the soil. Manure
contains acidic substances.
(iv) pH Change as the Cause of Tooth Decay: Tooth
decay starts when the pH of mouth is lower than Nelson cell
5.5. Tooth enamel contains calcium phosphate
and is the hardest substance in the body. It does Q.3. Write chemical equation for the preparation of washing
not dissolve in water but gets corroded at pH soda and also give its one use. (U.P. 2019)
below 5.5, Bacteria present in the mouth produces Or Describe how washing soda is produced? Write its
acids by degradation of sugar and food particles chemical equation and also uses. (U.P. 2019)
left in the mouth after eating and thus spoil the Ans. Chemically name of washing soda is sodium
teeth. The best way to prevent tooth decay is to carbonate decahydrate (Na 2 CO3 × 10H2 O). Sodium
clean the mouth after eating food. The pH of tooth
carbonate (Na 2 CO3 ) that does not contain water of
paste is about 8 and is basic. Thus, cleaning of
crystallisation is called anhydrous sodium carbonate or
teeth by a tooth paste neutralises the excess acid
soda ash.
and prevents tooth decay.
 19

Preparation: Anhydrous sodium carbonate (Na 2 CO3 ) Or Write down the chemical name, molecular formula and
is dissolved in water and recrystallised. Washing soda is uses of bleaching powder. (U.P. 2020)
out. Ans. The chemical name of bleaching powder is calcium
Na 2CO 3 + 10H 2O ¾ ¾® Na 2CO 3 × 10H 2O oxychloride and its molecular formula is CaOCl 2 .
Preparation: It is prepared by passing chlorine gas over
Uses: (i) It is used in glass, soap and paper industries. dry slaked lime [Ca(OH) 2 ].
(ii) It is used in the manufacture of sodium
compound such as borax. Ca(OH) 2 + Cl 2 ¾ ¾® CaOCl 2 + H 2O
(iii) It is uses for removing parmanent hardners of It is a colourless white powder which gives strong
water. smell of chlorine.
Q.4. Write down the molecular formula and chemical name Uses: (i) It is used for disinfecting drinking water.
of baking soda. Give the chemical equation of its (ii) It is used for bleaching cotton and linen in the
preparation. (U.P. 2019) textile industry.
Or Write down two methods of preparation of baking soda (iii) It is used as an oxidising agent in many
with chemical equation. (U.P. 2019) chemical industry.
Or Write down the chemical equation of preparation of Q.6. How is plaster of Paris prepared? Write its chemical
baking soda. Write the effect of temperature on it. equation with water. (U.P. 2019)
(U.P. 2019) Or Write down the method of preparation of plaster of
Or Write down the one method of preparation of baking paris with cehmical equation and its uses. (U.P. 2019)
soda and use also. (U.P. 2020) Or Write the chemical property of plaster of Paris.
Ans. The chemical name of baking soda is sodium hydrogen (U.P. 2020)
carbonate or sodium bicarbonate. Its molecular Ans. Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate
formula is NaHCO 3 . (CaSO 4 ×1 / 2H 2O). Only half water molecule
Preparation: (i) Cold and concentrated aqueous solution (1 / 2H 2O) is present as water of crystallisation. But not
of sodium chloride (called brine) is made to react with possible to have half a molecule of water. So the
ammonia and carbon dioxide. formula of it may be written as (CaSO 4 ) 2 × H 2O
NaCl + NH 3 + CO 2 + H 2O ¾ ¾® NaHCO 3 + NH 4Cl Therefore, CaSO 4 × 1 / 2H 2O and (CaSO 4 ) 2 × H 2O are
same compounds.
(ii) Passing CO2 gas in saturated solution of Na 2CO 3 . Preparation: Plaster of Paris is prepared by heating
Na 2CO 3 + CO 2 + H 2O ¾ ¾® 2NaHCO 3 gypsum at 100°C (373K).
It is a white solid substance which is soluble in water. 2(CaSO 4 × 2H 2O) ¾100
¾¾ °C
® (CaSO 4 ) 2 × H 2O + 3H 2O
Action of heat: Baking soda or its aqueous solution Gypsum POP
decomposes on heating to give sodium carbonate,
carbon dioxide and water. Properties:
(i) It is a white powder. On heating plaster of Paris, it
2NaHCO 3 ¾Heat ¾¾® Na 2CO 3 + CO 2 ­ +H 2O loses water molecules and becomes calcium
Uses: (i) It is used as antacid and gives relief from pain sulphate.
to the persons suffering from acidity.
(ii) It is used for making baking powder. (CaSO 4 ) 2 × H 2O ¾Heat
¾ ¾® 2CaSO 4 + H 2O
(iii) It is used in soda-acid fire extinguishers. (ii) On mixing water, plaster of Paris changes to
(iv) It is added in milk to save from becoming gypsum and sets as hard mass. It is called setting
sour. of POP.
Q.5. Write the one method of preparation of bleaching (CaSO 4 ) 2 × H 2O + 3H 2O ¾
¾® 2(CaSO 4 × 2H 2O)
powder with chemical equation. (U.P. 2018, 20) POP Gypsum

NCERT Intext Questions

Q. 1. You have been provided with three test tubes. One of (b) Put this blue litmus paper in the remaining two
them contains distilled water and the other two contain test tubes, one by one. The solution which turns
an acidic solution and a basic solution, respectively. If the blue litmus paper to red will be the acidic
you are given only red litmus paper, how will you solution.
identify the contents of each test tube? (c) The solution which has no effect on any litmus
Ans. (a) Put the red litmus paper turn by turn in each of the paper will be neutral and hence, it will be distilled
three test tubes. The solution which turns the red water.
litmus paper to blue will be a basic solution. Here, Q. 2. Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in
the blue litmus paper formed can now be used to brass and copper vessels?
test the acidic solution.
 20

Ans. Curd and other sour substances should not be kept in Q. 8. While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the
brass and copper vessels. This is because curd and acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
other sour substances contain acids which can react Ans. Dilution of concentrated acid with water is a highly
with these vessels to form poisonous compounds that exothermic process. If water is added into acid, the heat
can cause food poisoning and damage health. produced is so large that the solution may splash out
Q. 3. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with and the beaker in which it is carried out may break due
a metal? Illustrate with an example. How will you test to excessive heating. Hence, dilution is done by adding
the presence of this gas? acid into water.
Ans. When a metal reacts with an acid, usually hydrogen gas Q. 9. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H 3O + )
is liberated. For example, zinc reacts with dilute affected, when a solution of an acid is diluted?
sulphuric acid as follows :
Ans. When a solution of an acid is diluted, the concentration
Zn + H 2SO 4 ¾ ¾® ZnSO 4 + H 2 of hydronium ions (H 3O + ) per unit volume decreases.
Zinc Sulphuric acid Zinc sulphate Hydrogen
Q. 10. How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–)
The hydrogen gas evolved can be tested by passing the affected, when excess base is dissolved in a solution of
gas through soap solution and then bringing a burning sodium hydroxide?
candle near the soap bubble filled with the gas. The
soap bubble bursts and the hydrogen gas burns with a Ans. On dissolving excess base in a solution of sodium
pop sound. hydroxide, concentration of OH– ions per unit volume
in the solution increases.
Q. 4. A metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric
acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved Q. 11. You have two solutions A and B. The pH of the
extinguishes burning candle. Write a balanced solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8. Which
chemical equation for the reaction if one of the solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which
compounds formed is calcium chloride. of these is acidic and which one is basic?
Ans. The gas that extinguishes a burning candle is carbon Ans. The pH of a solution is inversely proportional to its
dioxide. It is formed by the action of dilute hydrogen ion concentration. This means that the
hydrochloric acid on a metal carbonate or metal solution having lower pH will have more hydrogen ion
hydrogencarbonate and produces effervescence. Since concentration. Thus, solution A will have more
one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride. This hydrogen ion concentration.
shows that the metal compound is calcium carbonate. It A solution with pH < 7 is acidic. Hence, solution A is
cannot be calcium hydrogencarbonate because calcium acidic.
hydrogencarbonate is found in solution. A solution with pH > 7 is basic. Hence, solution B is
Thus, the metal compound A is calcium carbonate basic.
(CaCO3). Q. 12. What effect does the concentration of H+(aq) ions have
Calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid on the acidic nature of the solution?
to form calcium chloride, carbon dioxide and water. Ans. Water contains exactly the same number of H+ and
CaCO 3 ( s) + 2HCl( aq ) ¾
¾® CaCl 2 ( aq ) + CO 2 ( g ) + H 2O( l) OH– ions. Acidic solution contains more hydrogen ions
than water. Higher the concentration of H+ ions in a
Q. 5. Why do HCl, HNO3, etc. show acidic character in solution, more acidic is the solution.
aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like Q. 13. Do basic solutions also have H+(aq) ions? If yes, then
C 2 H 5OH and glucose do not show acidic character? why are these basic?
Ans. HCl, HNO3, etc., ionise in the aqueous solution to Ans. Basic solutions also have H+ ions in addition to OH–
produce H 3O + ions. Hence, they show acidic ions. They are basic because in these solutions, OH–
character. Compounds like C 2 H 5OH and glucose do ion concentration is greater than H+ ion concentration.
not ionise in the aqueous solution to give H 3O + ions, Q. 14. Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would
i.e., hydrogen present in them is non-ionisable. Hence, treat the soil of his field with quicklime (calcium oxide)
they do not show acidic character. or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium
Q. 6. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct carbonate)?
electricity? Ans. Most of the plants grow best when the pH of the soil is
Ans. An acid in the aqueous solution ionises to produce close to 7. If the soil is too acidic or too basic, the plants
grow badly or do not grow at all. As quicklime, slaked
H 3O + ions and the corresponding negative ions. For lime or chalk are all alkaline substances, these would
example, HCl gives H+ and Cl– ions. Due to the be added to the soil by the farmer when the soil is
presence of ions in the solution, it conducts electricity. highly acidic.
Q. 7. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry Q. 15. What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?
litmus paper? Ans. Bleaching powder.
Ans. Dry HCl gas does not change the colour of dry litmus Q. 16. Name the substances which on treatment with chlorine
paper because it does not produce H 3O + ion. yields bleaching powder.
 21

Ans. Dry slaked lime Ca(OH)2. 2NaHCO 3 ¾

¾® Na 2CO 3 + CO 2 + H 2O
Q. 17. Name the sodium compound which is used for softe- Sodium Sodium Carbon Water
ning hard water. hydrogen carbonate carbonate dioxide

Ans. Washing soda (sodium carbonate). Q. 19. Write an equation to show the reaction between plaster
of Paris and water. (U.P. 2020)
Q. 18. What will happen if a solution of sodium
hydrogencarbonate is heated? Give the equation of the Ans. Plaster of Paris (CaSO 4 × 1 2 H 2O) on mixing with
reaction involved. water, changes into gypsum (CaSO 4 × 2H 2O) which
sets to a hard mass in about half an hour.
Ans. Sodium hydrogencarbonate on heating decomposes to 1 1
give sodium carbonate, carbon dioxide and water. CaSO4 × H2 O + 1 H2 O ¾¾® CaSO4 × 2H2 O
2 2
Gypsum
Plaster of Paris Water

NCERT Exercise
Q. 1. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be : 2HCl( aq ) + Mg ( s) ¾
¾® MgCl 2 ( aq ) + H 2 ( g )
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10
Ans. The solution which turns red litmus blue is basic. Its pH (c) Sulphuric acid (aq) + Aluminium(s) ¾ ¾®
should be greater than 7. Therefore, the correct answer Aluminium sulphate(aq) + Hydrogen(g)
is (d). 3H 2SO 4 ( aq ) + 2Al( s) ¾
¾® Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3 ( aq )
Q. 2. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas + 3H 2 ( g )
that turns lime water milky. The solution contains :
(a) NaCl (b) HCl (c) LiCl (d) KCl (d) Hydrochloric acid(aq) + Iron(s) ¾¾®
Ans. Egg-shells contain calcium carbonate which reacts Iron chloride(aq) + Hydrogen(g)
with HCl to give out CO2 which turns lime water 2HCl( aq ) + Fe ( s) ¾
¾® FeCl 2 ( aq ) + H 2 ( g )
milky. Hence, the correct answer is (b). Q. 6. Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain
Q. 3. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely hydrogen but are not categorised as acids. Describe an
neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution of HCl. If we activity to prove it.
take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount Ans. Although alcohols and glucose contain hydrogen, they
of HCl solution (the same solution as before) is
required to be neutralised. It will be : are not ionised to give H + ions in solution. So, they are
not considered as acid.
(a) 4 mL (b) 8 mL (c) 12 mL (d) 16 mL
Activity:
Ans. If we take double the amount of the NaOH solution, the q Collect solutions of hydrochloric acid, sulphuric
amount of the HCl solution required to neutralise it, is
also double. Hence, the correct answer is (d). acid, glucose and alcohol.
q Take a beaker of 100 mL.
Q. 4. Which one of the following type of medicines is used
for treating indigestion? (U.P. 2019) 6 volt battery
Bulb
(a) Antibiotic (b) Analgesic
(c) Antacid (d) Antiseptic Switch
Ans. The indigestion is due to excess of acid produced in the
stomach. The medicine used to neutralise it is called
antacid. Hence, the correct answer is (c) Beaker
Q. 5. Write word equations and then balanced equations for
the reactions taking place when Dilute acid
Nail solution
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules.
(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium Rubber cork
ribbon.
q Now, take a cork and fix two nails on it as shown in
(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium
powder. figure.
(d) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.
q Place this cork in the beaker.
Ans. (a) Sulphuric acid (aq) + Zinc(s) ¾ ¾®
q Connect the nails to the two terminals of a 6 volt
Zinc sulphate(aq) + Hydrogen(g) battery through a bulb and a switch.
q Now, pour dilute H2SO4 in the beaker so that the
H 2SO 4 ( aq ) + Zn ( s) ¾
¾® ZnSO 4 ( aq ) + H 2 ( g )
nails are immersed in the acid. Switch on the
(b) Hydrochloric acid (aq) + Magnesium(s) ¾
¾® current.
Magnesium chloride(aq) + Hydrogen(g)
 22

q Repeat the experiment with dilute hydrochloric tube B. In which test tube, will the fizzing occur more
acid, glucose and alcohol solutions. vigorously and why?
q What do you observe? Ans. We know that hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid
q Does the bulb glow in all cases? and acetic acid (CH3COOH) is a weak acid. Being a
It is observed that the bulb will glow in case of strong acid, HCl solution contains a much greater
hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid, but not in the amount of hydrogen ions in it. Due to this, the fizzing
case of alcohol and glucose. will occur more vigorously in test tube A. The fizzing is
due to the evolution of H2 gas which is formed by the
Q.7. Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, action of acid on the magnesium ribbon.
whereas rain water does?
Ans. Distilled water does not conduct electricity because it Mg + 2HCl ¾ ¾® MgCl 2 + H 2 ­
does not contain any ionic compounds like acids, bases Q. 11. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will
or salts, dissolved in it. Rain water, while falling to the change as it turns into curd? Explain your answer.
earth through the atmosphere, dissolves acidic gases Ans. The pH will fall below 6. This is because lactic acid (an
like CO2, SO2 etc. from the air and form acids like acid) is produced when milk sets into curd.
carbonic acid (H2CO3), sulphurous acid (H2SO3), etc. Q. 12. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to
These acids provide hydrogen ions (H+) to rain water. fresh milk.
So, due to the presence of these acids, the rain water
conducts electricity. (a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6
to slightly alkaline?
Q. 8. Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence (b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
of water?
Ans. (a) Milk is made slightly alkaline so that it may not
Ans. Acidic nature of a substance is due to the formation of get sour easily due to the formation of lactic acid
H + ( aq ) ions in solution. Hydrogen ions are produced in it.
in the presence of water. The separation of H + ions (b) The alkaline milk takes a longer time to set into
from acid like HCl molecule cannot occur in the curd because the lactic acid formed has to first
absence of water. So, acids do not show acidic neutralise the alkali present in it.
behaviour in the absence of water. Q. 13. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof
Q. 9. Five solutions A, B , C , D and E when tested with container. Explain why. (U.P. 2019)
universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9 Ans. Plaster of Paris is a white powder and on mixing with
respectively. Which solution is : water, it changes to gypsum giving a hard solid mass.
(a) neutral? (b) strongly alkaline? 1 1
CaSO4 × H2 O + 1 H2 O ¾¾® CaSO4 × 2H2 O
(c) strongly acidic? (d) weakly acidic? 2 2
Gypsum
(e) weakly alkaline? Plaster of Paris Water
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen ion Hence, it should be stored in a moisture-proof
concentration. container.
Ans. Q. 14. What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two examples
Nature pH Solution of such type of reaction. (U.P. 2020)
(a) Neutral 7 D Ans. All bases react with acids to form salt and water. Such
(b) Strongly alkaline 11 C type of reactions are called neutralisation reactions.
(c) Strongly acidic 1 B NaOH + HCl ¾¾® NaCl + H 2O
Sodium hydroxide Hydrochloric acid Sodium chloride Water
(d) Weakly acidic 4 A (Base) (Acid) (Salt)
(e) Weakly alkaline 9 E
KOH + HNO 3 ¾
¾® KNO 3 + H 2O
Arrangement of the pH in increasing order of hydrogen Potassium hydroxide Nitric acid Potassium nitrate Water
ion concentration is as follows : (Base) (Acid) (Salt)
11 < 9 < 7 < 4 < 1 Q. 15. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking
Q. 10. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test soda.
tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test Ans. See Long Answer Type Question- 3&4.
tube A while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test
ccc
 23

Chapter

3 METALS AND NON-METALS

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. The aqueous solution of SO2 is : (U.P. 2019) (a) zinc is costlier than tin
(a) acidic (b) basic (b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin
(c) neutral (d) amphoteric (c) zinc is more reactive than tin
Q. 2. The chemical formula of copper glance is : (U.P. 2016) (d) zinc is less reactive than tin
(a) Cu2S (b) Cu2O (c) CuFeS2 (d) CuCO3 Q.7. Uranium is: (U.P. 2019)
Q.3. The ore of copper is : (U.P. 2018) (a) alkali metal (b) non-metal
(a) haematite (b) malachite (c) radioactive element (d) gas
(c) carnallite (d) cryolite Q.8. Which of the following is metallic element?
Q.4. Malleability is exhibited by: (U.P. 2018 ) (U.P. 2020)
(a) sulphur (b) iodine (a) P (b) He (c) Li (d) S
(c) phosphorus (d) copper Q.9. Which of the following metal reacts with water at room
Q.5. The earthly or undesired materials associated with an temperature? (U.P. 2018, 20 )
ore are called : (U.P. 2018) (a) copper (b) iron (c) zinc (d) sodium
(a) gangue (b) mineral Q.10. Neon is: (U.P. 2019)
(c) matrix (d) Both (a) and (c) (a) alkali metal (b) inert gas
Q.6. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc (c) metalloid (d) transition element
because: (U.P. 2017)

Answers
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. Write the names and formulae of ores of copper and Ans. On cooling molten copper releases SO2 gas, which
aluminium. (U.P. 2014, 16, 17, 18 , 19) forms blisters on the surface of copper and this copper
Ans. Ores of copper : with 2% impurities is called blister copper.
Q. 4. How are sodium and potassium stored for protection?
Copper pyrite or chalcopyrite = CuFeS2;
Ans. Sodium and potassium are stored under kerosene oil
Copper glance = Cu2S, Malachite = CuCO 3 . Cu (OH) 2 for protection because they react with cold water.
Ores of aluminium : Bauxite = Al 2O 3 .2H 2O Q. 5. What is aqua regia?
Ans. It is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated
Cryolite = Na 3 AlF6 , hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the
Alunite = K 2SO 4 . Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3 .24H 2O ratio of 3 : 1. It can dissolve gold and highly corrosive
Q. 2. Is the following reaction possible? Explain giving a liquid.
reason. (U.P. 2011) Q. 6. Which layer does aluminium get coated with when
Hg + H 2SO 4 ¾ ¾® HgSO 4 + H 2 ­ exposed to air? Is this coat useful?
Ans. The above reaction is not possible, because mercury Ans. Aluminium gets coated with a layer of aluminium
(Hg) is below hydrogen in reactivity series i.e., less oxide on exposure to air. This layer prevents the further
reactive than hydrogen therefore, mercury does not corrosion of the metal.
displace hydrogen from dilute acid. Q. 7. Cooking utensils and boilers are commonly made of
Q. 3. What is blister copper? copper and aluminium, why?
 24

Ans. Aluminium and copper are good conductors of heat, Ans. Hydrogen forms a positive ion, still it is a non-metal,
that is why cooking utensils and boilers are made up of because :
them. (i) it can accept electrons to form negative ions also.
Q. 8. How is copper pyrite concentrated? (ii) it is in gaseous state at normal room temperature.
Ans. Copper pyrite is concentrated by the process of froth Q. 10. Why do objects made of aluminium not corrode easily?
flotation because sulphide ores are concentrated by this Ans. Aluminium reacts with oxygen in the environment to
process and copper pyrite is a sulphide ore. form a protective layer of Al 2O 3 (aluminium oxide)
Q. 9. Hydrogen has a tendency to form positive ions, but it is over its surface. This protective layer prevents the
a non-metal. Explain. (U.P. 2014) further corrosion of the aluminium objects.

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. What do you mean by flux? Explain the action of any Fe ( s) + 2AgNO 3 ( aq ) ¾
¾®
one acidic flux with the help of chemical equations.
Fe ( NO 3 ) 2 ( aq ) + 2Ag ( s)
(U.P. 2015, 18)
(ii) Iron is below zinc in the reactivity series;
Ans. Flux : The substances which react with the impurities therefore, iron cannot displace zinc from zinc
present in the ores at high temperature to form substances sulphate solution. No reaction takes place.
that can easily melt and be removed are called flux.
Q. 6. When calcium metal is added to water the gas evolved
Flux are of two kinds : does not catch fire but the same gas evolved on adding
(i) Acidic flux e.g., SiO 2, (ii) Basic flux e.g., CaO sodium metal to water catches fire, Why is it so?
Acidic flux like SiO2, is used to remove basic Ans. In both cases, the gas evolved is H 2 . When calcium
impurities like CaO.
reacts with water the heat evolved is not sufficient for
CaO + SiO 2 ¾ ¾® CaSiO 3 hydrogen to catch fire. On the other hand, sodium
Calcium silicate (slag)
metal reacts with water violently and in this case a lot
Q. 2. What is slag? of heat is evolved which is sufficient for hydrogen to
Ans. Impurities that cannot melt, react with flux and form a catch fire.
compound which is light and insoluble and floats on Q.7. Give the reaction involved during extraction of zinc
the molten metal and is easily removed. This from its ore by : (U.P. 2018)
compound is called slag. (a) roasting of zinc ore
CaO + SiO 2 ¾ ¾® CaSiO 3 (b) calcination of zinc ore
Basic flux Acidic impurity Calcium silicate Ans. (a) 2ZnS( s) + 3O 2 ( g ) ¾Heat
¾¾® 2ZnO( s) + 2SO 2 ( g )
(insoluble slag)
(b) ZnCO 3 ( s) ¾Heat
¾ ¾® ZnO( s) + CO 2 ( g )
Q. 3. What is the difference between flux and slag?
(U.P. 2020) Q. 8. All minerals are ores. Comment on this statement.
Ans. See short answer Type Question 1 and 2. Ans. This statement is wrong. Only those minerals from
Q. 4. Explain roasting and calcination process with example. which the metal can be extracted conveniently and
(U.P. 2016, 18) profitably are called ores.
Or Define the roasting with example. (U.P. 2018) Q. 9. What would happen to iron railings on the road side if
Or What is the difference in roasting and calcination? they are not painted? Why does it happen so?
(U.P. 2020) Ans. If the iron railing on the road side is not painted, a
Ans. Roasting : The ore is heated in the presence of excess brown rust would form on its surface because the moist
of air to convert it into an oxide is called roasting. air of the atmosphere reacts with iron to form brown
flaky substance on its surface. The rust is hydrated iron
Ore of zinc is zinc sulphide (ZnS). ZnS is converted (III) oxide, Fe 2O 3 × xH 2O.
into zinc oxide by roasting.
Q. 10. Why does the colour of the solution become blue, when
2ZnS + 3O 2 ¾Roasting
¾ ¾¾® 2ZnO + 2SO 2 a copper wire is dipped in silver nitrate solution? Give
Calcination : The ore is heated in the absence of air to the chemical reaction. (U.P. 2015, 17)
convert it into an oxide is called calcination. Or With a reason explain if the following reaction is
Zinc carbonate (calamine) is converted into zinc oxide possible or not
by calcination. Cu + 2AgNO 3 ¾ ¾® Cu ( NO 3 ) 2 + 2Ag (U.P. 2011)
ZnCO 3 ¾Calcination
¾¾¾ ¾® ZnO + CO 2 Or What is electrochemical series? When a copper rod is
Q. 5. What happens when: dipped in silver nitrate solution, the colour of the
(i) iron nail is placed in silver nitrate solution? solution becomes blue. Explain it on the basis of the
(ii) iron strip is dipped in zinc sulphate solution? electrochemical series. (U.P. 2012)
Ans. (i) Iron is more reactive than silver.
 25

Or What happens when a copper rod is placed in the 2AgNO 3 + Cu ¾ ¾® Cu(NO 3 ) 2 + 2Ag
solution of silver nitrate? (U.P. 2017)
Q.15. On the basis of electrochemical series, explain that
Ans. A series in which metals are arranged in decreasing order
copper does not release hydrogen gas when it reacts
of their reactivity, is known as electrochemical series.
with dilute sulphuric acid. (U.P. 2018)
In the electrochemical series, all metals can displace
metals below them from their salt solutions. Copper is Ans. Position of copper in the electrochemical series is
above silver in reactivity series and hence displaces below hydrogen, thus it is less reactive than hydrogen
silver from silver nitrate solution and the colour of the and therefore is not capable to displace hydrogen from
dilute acids like H 2SO 4 , hence reaction is not possible.
solution becomes blue due to the presence of Cu 2+ Cu + H 2SO 4 ¾® No reaction.
ions.
Q.16. Describe the extraction of metal from the sulphide ore
Cu ( s) + 2AgNO 3 ( aq ) ¾ ¾® Cu ( NO 3 ) 2 + 2Ag ¯ of zinc by giving chemical equation. ( U.P. 2019, 20)
Q. 11. Explain the ores and minerals by giving example. Or Write the chemical equation of extraction of zinc from
(U.P. 2019, 20) zinc sulphide. (U.P. 2020)
Or Define the ores and minerals (U.P. 2016, 18) Ans. Zinc occurs in nature as zinc sulphide (ZnS) and zinc
Ans. Minerals: The natural materials in which the metals or carbonate ( ZnCO 3 ). Zinc sulphide is first converted
their compound occur in earth’s crust are called into zinc oxide by roasting. Therefore, zinc sulphide is
minerals, e. g., bauxite, copper glance etc. heated strongly in excess of air.
Ores: Those minerals from which metals can be 2 ZnS ( s) + 3 O 2 ( g ) ¾Heat
¾¾® 2 ZnO ( s) + 2 SO 2 ( g )
Roasting
extracted conveniently and profitably are called ores, Zinc sulphide Zinc oxide
e. g., bauxite is ore of aluminium. Therefore, all ores are Reduction of ZnO to zinc metal : ZnO can be reduced
minerals but all minerals are not ores. to zinc metal by heating with carbon. The oxides of less
Q.12. Chlorine displaces iodine from potassium iodide reactive metals such as zinc, iron, lead, tin, nickel etc.
solution. Why? may be reduced by using carbon as a reducing agent.
Ans. In the electrochemical series, on moving from top to For reduction, ZnO is mixed with carbon (or coke) and
bottom, the reducing property of non-metals decreases is heated.
and oxidizing property increases. Chlorine is below ZnO ( s) + C ¾Heat
¾¾® Zn ( s) + CO ( g )
iodine in the electrochemical series indicating that it is
a more strong oxidizing agent as compared to iodide. Q. 17. How is copper isolated from the ore of copper glance?
Since, it is a more strong oxidizing agent as compared ( U.P. 2019)
to iodine, it displaces iodine from potassium iodide Ans. The extraction of copper from copper glance (Cu 2S)
solution. ore involves the following two steps:
2KI + Cl 2 ¾ ¾® 2KCl + I 2 ­ (i) The concentrated copper (I) sulphide (copper
glance) ore is roasted in air, when copper (I)
Q.13. When H 2SO 4 reacts with zinc, hydrogen gas is sulphide is oxidised to copper (I) oxide :
released but this reaction does not takes place with
2Cu 2S ( s) + 3O 2 ( g ) ¾Roasting
¾ ¾¾®
silver. Explain reason and also write chemical
reactions. (U.P. 2018) Copper (I) sulphide
2Cu 2O ( s) + 2SO 2 ( g )
Ans. Position of zinc in electrochemical series is above Copper (I) oxide
hydrogen, thus it is more reactive than hydrogen and
(ii) When a good amount of Cu 2S has been converted
can displace hydrogen from sulphuric acid, whereas
into Cu 2O, then the supply of air for roasting is
silver is placed below hydrogen, i. e., less reactive than
stopped. In absence of air Cu 2O formed above
hydrogen and hence no reaction takes place.
reacts with the remaining Cu 2S to form Cu metal
Zn + H 2SO 4 ¾® ZnSO 4 + H 2 ­ and SO 2 .
Ag + H 2SO 4 ¾® No reaction. 2Cu 2O( s) + Cu 2S ( s) ¾Heat
¾¾® 6Cu ( s) + SO 2 ( g )
Q.14. A wire of silver dipped in CuSO 4 solution and in other Q.18. How is zinc extracted from calamine? Also write
container, a copper wire dipped in AgNO 3 solution. chemical equations. (U.P. 2019, 20)
Give the reactions in both containers with reason. Ans. Zinc occurs as zinc carbonate in calamine ore ZnCO 3 .
(U.P. 2020) Zinc carbonate should be first converted into zinc
Ans. (i) Silver (Ag) is less reactive than Cu because the oxide. This is done by calcination. Thus when calamine
position of Ag in electrochemical series is below ore is heated strongly in absence of air, it decomposes
of Cu. Therefore, Ag does not displace Cu from to form zinc oxide and carbon dioxide.
CuSO 4 solution.
ZnCO 3 ( s) ¾ ¾® ZnO( s) + CO 2 ( g )
CuSO 4 + Ag ¾ ¾® No reaction
When zinc oxide (ZnO) is heated with carbon, zinc
(ii) Copper is more reactive than Ag, therefore Cu metal is produced, carbon reduces the ZnO to Zn metal.
displaces the Ag from AgNO 3 solution.
ZnO ( s) + C ( s) ¾
¾® Zn ( s) + CO ( g )
 26

Q.19. Explain rusting by citing an example and write safety Ans. Hg is obtained from Cinnabar ore (HgS) by roasting.
measures. (U.P. 2019) 2HgS ( s) + 3O 2 ( g ) ¾D¾Roasting
¾¾ ¾® 2HgO ( s) + 2SO 2 ( g )
Ans. When iron is exposed to moist air for a long time, iron D
acquires a coating of brown flaky substance called 2HgO ( s) ¾¾ ® 2Hg ( l) + O 2 ( g )
rust. This is called rusting of iron. Iron reacts with Q. 21. Balance the following reaction:
moist air to form rust. Rust is hydrated iron (III) oxide D
(i) Cu 2S + O 2 ¾¾ ® Cu 2O + SO 2 (U.P. 2019)
( Fe 2O 3 × xH 2O). Rusting of iron (corrosion of iron) D
needs both, air (oxygen) and water. Moist air (damp (ii) HgS + O 2 ¾¾ ® HgO + SO 2 (U.P. 2019)
air) supplies air (oxygen) and water and, therefore, (iii) ZnS + O 2 ¾
¾® ZnO + SO 2
rusting of iron takes place in moist air. Ordinary water
D
contains some dissolved oxygen and, therefore, rusting Ans. (i) 2Cu 2S + 3O 2 ¾¾ ® 2Cu 2O + 2SO 2
of iron takes place in ordinary water also. Rusting does D
not take place in dry air which does not contain water (ii) 2HgS + 3O 2 ¾¾ ® 2HgO + 2SO 2
vapours. Similarly, rusting does not occur in boiled D
(iii) 2ZnS + 3O 2 ¾¾ ® 2ZnO + 2SO 2
water which does not contain dissolved air. This shows
that rusting of iron needs both, air (oxygen) and Q. 22. What happens when: ( U.P. 2019)
water. (i) Sodium metal reacts with water?
Safety measures : (ii) Magnesium metal reacts with dil. sulphuric acid?
(i) by painting the surface (iii) Sodium metal reacts with oxygen (air) ?
(ii) by applying grease Ans. (i) 2Na ( s) + 2H 2O ( l) ¾
¾® 2NaOH ( aq ) + H 2 ( g )
(iii) Galvanization (ii) Mg ( s) + H 2SO 4 ( aq ) ¾
¾® MgSO 4 ( aq ) + H 2 ( g )
Q.20. How would you obtain mercury (Hg) from one of its
ores? Give chemical reactions only. ( U.P. 2019) (iii) 4Na ( s) + O 2 ( g ) ¾
¾® 2Na 2O

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. What is electrochemical or activity series? chloride. Electric current is passed in molten sodium
Ans. It is a list of metals arranged in order of their decreasing chloride (Na + Cl - ) when sodium is obtained at
activities and a metal displace all the metals from their cathode whereas chlorine is obtained at anode.
compounds are below or after it in this series.
Reactivity Series (or Activity Series) of Metals
At Cathode : Na + + e - ¾
¾® Na
Potassium K (Most reactive metal) At Anode : 2Cl - ¾
¾® Cl 2 + 2e -
Sodium Na
Calcium Ca Similarly, calcium and potassium are obtained by the
Magnesium Mg electrolysis of molten CaCl 2 and molten KCl
Aluminium Al
respectively.
These metals are Zinc Zn
more reactive Iron Fe Decreasing (ii) Extraction of aluminium metal: Aluminium metal is
than hydrogen. Tin Sn chemical obtained by the electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide
Lead Pb reactivity
[Hydrogen] [H]
(Al 2O 3 ). When electric current is passed through
Copper Cu molten Al 2O 3 , aluminium is obtained at cathode
These metals are Mercury Hg whereas oxygen is obtained at anode.
less reactive than Silver Ag
hydrogen. Gold Au (Least reactive metal) At Cathode : Al 3+ + 3e - ¾
¾® Al
Q. 2. Write down the extraction metals towards the top of the At Anode : 2O 2- ¾
¾® O 2 + 4e -
activity series. It is important to know that the reactive metals such as
Ans. The metals such as Na, K, Ca, Mg and Al are very Na, K, Mg, Ca, Al etc., can not be obtained by the
reactive metals and are placed high up in the reactivity electrolysis of the aqueous solutions of their salts.
series. Such metal oxides can not be obtained by
Q. 3. An element A reacts with water to form a compound B
reducing their compound with carbon or aluminium.
which is used in white-washing. The compound B on
This is because these metals have more affinity
heating forms an oxide C which on treatment with
(attraction) for oxygen than carbon. Therefore, carbon
water gives back B. Identify A, B and C and give theys
is unable to remove oxygen from the oxides such as
reactions involved.
Na 2O, K 2O, MgO, CaO, Al 2O 3 etc. and to produce
Ans. A is calcium, it reacts with water to form calcium
the free metals.
hydroxide which is used in white washing. So, B is
(i) Extraction of sodium metal: Sodium metal is Ca(OH)2.
extracted by the electrolysis of molten sodium
 27

Ca ( s) + 2H 2O( l) ¾
¾® Ca (OH) 2 ( aq ) + H 2 ( g ) 2. Impurity eliminated in the form Impurity of H2O and CO2
of oxide. eliminated.
(B )
Example: Example:
Q. 4. Differentiate between the following : Heat Heat
2ZnS + 3O2 ¾ ¾¾® CaCO3 ¾ ¾¾®
(i) Minerals and ores (U.P. 2018 ,20)
Zinc blende Limestone
(ii) Roasting and calcination (U.P. 2018, 20)
2ZnO + 2SO2 ­
(iii) What is alloy, give the name, composition and CaO + CO2 ­
application of one important alloys of copper.
(U.P. 2018)
Ans. (i) Mineral : Most of elements are found in nature as (iii) Alloy : Homogeneous mixture of two or more
their compounds with impurities on the upper than two substances (element) called alloy.
surface of rocks, these are known as minerals. Alloys of Copper
Ores: Those minerals by which metals are (a) Brass : It have 80% Cu and 20% Zn, which is used to
extracted easily and economically, known as ores. make utensils, wire, machine and statues.
All ores are mineral but all minerals are not ore. (b) Bell metal : It have 80% Cu and 20% Sn, which is
used to make bells and parts.
(ii)
(c) Coinage metal : It have 95% Cu, 4% Sn and 1% P
S.No. Roasting Calcination which is used to make coins.
1. When concentrate ore heated In this, concentrate ore (d) Bronze : It have 80% Cu and 12% Sn and used in
in presence of air below the heated in absence of air making utensils and statues.
melting point of metal. below the melting point of
air.

NCERT Intext Questions

Q. 1. Give an example of a metal which : Q. 5. Samples of four metals A, B , C and D were taken and
(i) is a liquid at room temperature added to the following solution one by one. The results
obtained have been tabulated as follows :
(ii) can be easily cut with a knife
(iii) is the best conductor of heat Metal Iron (II) Copper (II) Zinc Silver nitrate
sulphate sulphate sulphate
(iv) is a poor conductor of heat
A No reaction Displacement — —
Ans. (i) Mercury (ii) Sodium (iii) Silver (iv) Lead
Q. 2. Explain the meanings of malleable and ductile. B Displacement — No reaction —
Ans. Metals can be hammered into thin sheets. This property C No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacement
of metal is called malleability and the metals showing
D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction
this property are called malleable. Gold, silver, copper,
aluminium etc., are malleable metals. Use the table above to answer the following questions
Metals can be drawn into wires. The ability of metals to about metals A, B , C and D.
be drawn into thin wires is called ductility. (i) Which is the most reactive metal?
Gold is the most ductile metal. It is interesting to know (ii) What would you observe, if B is added to a
that a wire of about 2 km length can be drawn from one solution of copper (II) sulphate?
gram of gold. (iii) Arrange the metals A, B , C and D in the order of
Q. 3. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil? decreasing reactivity.
Ans. Sodium is a very reactive metal. It reacts vigorously
Ans. (i) B is most reactive.
with water and oxygen present in air and even catches
fire. Hence, to protect sodium, it is kept immersed in (ii) B will displace copper from copper (II) sulphate.
kerosene oil. (iii) B > A > C > D
Q. 4. Write equation for the reactions of Q. 6. Which gas is produced, when dilute hydrochloric
(i) iron with steam acid is added to a reactive metal? Write the chemical
(ii) calcium and potassium with water equation, when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4.
Ans. Hydrogen gas is produced, when a metal reacts with
Ans. (i) 3Fe ( s) + 4H 2O( g ) ¾
¾® Fe 3O 4 ( s) + 4H 2 ( g ) dilute hydrochloric acid.
(ii) Ca ( s) + 2H 2O( l) ¾
¾® Ca (OH) 2 ( aq ) + H 2 ( g ) M ( s) + 2HCl( aq ) ¾ ¾® MCl 2 ( s) + H 2 ( g )
Metal Hydrochloric acid Metal chloride Hydrogen
2K( s) + 2H 2O( l) ¾
¾® 2KOH( aq ) + H 2 ( g ) (Dilute)
 28

Chemical equation for the reaction of iron with dilute Gangue or Matrix : The unwanted impurities of sand
H2SO4 is and rocky materials present in the ore are known as
gangue or matrix. We get a concentrated ore by
Fe ( s) + H 2SO 4 ( aq ) ¾
¾® FeSO 4 ( aq ) + H 2 ( g ) removing the gangue present in it.
Iron Dilute sulphuric Iron (II) sulphate Hydrogen Q. 11. Name two metals, which are found in nature in the
acid
free state.
Q. 7. What would you observe, when zinc is added to a Ans. Gold and silver are least reactive and hence these
solution of iron (II) sulphate? Write the chemical metals occur in nature in the free state.
reaction that takes place. Q. 12. Which chemical process is used for obtaining a metal
Ans. When zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate, from its oxide?
the greenish colour of iron (II) sulphate solution fades Ans. Reduction.
away gradually, due to the formation of colourless zinc Q. 13. Metallic oxides of zinc, magnesium and copper were
sulphate solution. Iron metal is deposited on zinc. heated with the following metals :
Zn ( s) + FeSO 4 ( aq ) ¾
¾® ZnSO 4 ( aq ) + Fe( s) Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Zinc Iron (II) sulphate Zinc sulphate Iron Zinc oxide
(Greenish solution) (Colourless solution) Magnesium oxide
Q. 8. (i) Write the electron dot structures of sodium, Copper oxide
oxygen and magnesium. In which case will you find, displacement reactions
(ii) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the taking place?
transfer of electrons. Ans. As we know, a more reactive metal can displace a less
(iii) What are the ions present in these compounds? reactive metal from its oxide. Here, magnesium is the
(U.P. 2019) most reactive, zinc is less reactive whereas copper is
Ans. This is deleted for 2021 Examination. the least reactive metal. Thus, displacement reactions
will take place in the following cases :
Q. 9. Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?
Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Ans. This is deleted for 2021 Examination.
Zinc oxide — Displacement —
Q. 10. Define the terms: (a) Mineral (b) Ore (c) Gangue. Magnesium — — —
Ans. Mineral : The inorganic element or compound, which oxide
occurs naturally in the earth’s crust is called mineral. Displacement Displacement —
Copper oxide
For example, copper pyrites (CuFeS2), cuprite (Cu2O),
etc. are the minerals of copper.
Q. 14. Which metals do not corrode easily?
Ore : The mineral from which a metal can be extracted
Ans. Silver, gold, platinum and titanium.
profitably and conveniently is called an ore. For
example, bauxite ( Al 2O 3 . 2H 2O) and clay Q. 15. What are alloys?
( Al 2O 3 . 2SiO 2 . 2H 2O) are the minerals of aluminium. Ans. Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of two or more
But, extraction of aluminium is cheaper and easier metals, or a metal and a non-metal. For example, brass
from bauxite. Hence, bauxite is the ore of aluminium. is an alloy of two metals—copper and zinc, whereas
Thus, “every ore is a mineral but every mineral is not steel is an alloy of a metal, iron and a small amount of a
an ore.” non-metal, carbon.

NCERT Exercise
Q. 1. Which of the following pairs will give displacement Ans. (c) Applying paint
reactions? (U.P. 2019) Q. 3. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound
(a) NaCl solution and copper metal with a high melting point. This compound is also
(b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal soluble in water. The element is likely to be :
(c) FeSO4 solution and silver metal (a) calcium (b) carbon (c) silicon (d) iron
(d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal Ans. (a) Calcium
Ans. (d) AgNO 3 solution and copper metal Q.4. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc
Q.2. Which of the following methods is suitable for because: (U.P. 2019)
preventing an iron frying pan from rusting? (a) zinc is costlier than tin
(a) Applying grease (b) Applying a coating of zinc (b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin
(c) Applying paint (d) All of these (c) zinc is more reactive than tin
(d) zinc is less reactive than tin
 29

Ans. (c) Zinc is more reactive than tin. (a) What will be the action of gas on (i) dry litmus
Q. 5. You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and a paper? (ii) moist litmus paper?
switch. (b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the
(a) How could you use them to distinguish between reaction taking place.
samples of metals and non-metals? Ans. (a) When sulphur is heated in air, sulphur dioxide gas
(b) Assess the usefulness of these tests in is formed.
distinguishing between metals and non-metals. S( s) + O 2 ( g ) ¾
¾® SO 2 ( g )
Ans. (a) (i) We use the hammer to break the sample. If
Sulphur Oxygen Sulphur dioxide
the sample breaks, this means that it is brittle
and hence it is a non-metal. On the other (i) Sulphur dioxide has no action on drylitmus
hand, if the sample flattens to form a sheet, paper.
this means that the sample is malleable and (ii) Sulphur dioxide turns moist blue litmus
hence is metal. paper to red. It gives sulphurous acid.
(ii) We set up the electric circuit and place the (b) SO 2 ( g ) + H 2O( l) ¾ ¾® H 2SO 3 ( aq )
sample in between clips A and B and put the
Q. 10. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
switch ‘on’. If the bulb glows, the sample is a
good conductor of electricity and hence, it Ans. (i) Galvanisation
must be a metal. If, on the other hand, the (ii) Greasing
bulb does not glow, the sample is a poor Q. 11. What type of oxides are formed, when non-metals
combine with oxygen?
conductor of electricity and hence, it must be
non-metal. Ans. Non-metals react with oxygen to form acidic oxides or
neutral oxides. Carbon forms an acidic oxide CO2,
(b) Because of malleability of iron and many other
sulphur forms an acidic oxide SO2 and hydrogen forms
metals, we can cast them into sheets, which can be
a neutral oxide H2O. Carbon monoxide (CO), nitrous
used for various purposes. For example, iron
oxide (N2O) and nitric oxide (NO) are also the
sheets are used for roofing and for making trunks,
examples of neutral oxides.
boxes etc.
Q. 12. Give reasons :
Metals are good conductors of electricity. It is (a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make
because of this property that metal wires made up jewellery.
of copper and aluminium are used for carrying (b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
electricity. (c) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is
These tests of distinguishing metals and used to make utensils for cooking.
non-metals are widely applicable in industries and (d) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually
its validity has been scientifically proved. converted into oxides during the process of
Q. 6. What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of extraction.
amphoteric oxides. Ans. (a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make
Ans. Some metal oxides show both acidic as well as basic jewellery because of their bright shiny surface and
character. Such oxides are called amphoteric oxides. high resistance to corrosion. Also, they have high
For example, (i) Aluminium oxide ( Al 2O 3 ) (ii) Zinc malleability and ductility.
oxide (ZnO). (b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under
Q. 7. Name two metals, which will displace hydrogen from oil to prevent their reaction with oxygen, moisture
dilute acids and two metals, which will not. and carbon dioxide of air so as to protect them
Ans. (i) Magnesium and zinc will displace hydrogen from because they are very reactive metals.
dilute acids. (c) Aluminium metal forms a thin layer of
(ii) Copper and silver will not displace hydrogen from aluminium oxide all over its surface, under the
dilute acids. action of moist air. This layer prevents the metal
underneath from further corrosion. It is cheap,
Q. 8. What would you take as the anode, the cathode and the
easily available, malleable, ductile and a good
electrolyte in the electrolytic refining of metal M?
conductor of heat. Therefore, it is used to make
Ans. Anode : A thick block of impure metal M. utensils for cooking.
Cathode : A thin strip of the pure metal M. (d) It is easier to obtain a metal from its oxides as
Electrolyte : A water soluble salt of the metal M. compared to its sulphides and carbonates. So,
Q. 9. Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated prior to reduction, metal carbonate and sulphides
it. He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube must be converted into metal oxides. A carbonate
over it. ore is converted into oxide by calcination,
 30

whereas a sulphide ore is converted into oxide by 2. Metals react with water to 2. Non-metals do not react
roasting. liberate hydrogen gas. with water.
Q. 13. You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being 3. (a) Metals react with dil. HCl 3. Non-metals do not dis-
cleaned with lemon or tamarind juice. Explain why and H2SO4 to liberate H2 gas. place H2 from acids
these sour substances are effective in cleaning the because non-metals are
vessels. Metal + dil. Acid ¾ ¾® Salt electron acceptor, they
Ans. When copper vessels are exposed to moist air, they + Hydrogen cannot supply electron to
form a green coating of basic copper carbonate hydrogen.
(b) Metal + dil. Nitric acid ¾
¾®
[CuCO 3 . Cu (OH) 2 ]. Metal salt
2Cu + CO 2 + O 2 + H 2O ¾
¾® CuCO 3 . Cu (OH) 2 + Water + Oxides of nitrogen.
144 42444 3
(From moist air) Basic copper carbonate (Exception: Mg and Mn
(Green) evolve H2 gas with dil. HNO3)
The sour substances such as lemon or tamarind juice
contain acids. Lemon juice contains citric acid and Q. 15. A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He
tamarind contains tartaric acid. These acids dissolve promised to bring back the glitter of old and dull gold
the coating of copper oxide or basic copper carbonate, ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold
present on the surface of tarnished copper vessels and bangles to him, which he dipped in a particular
make them shining red brown again. solution. The bangles sparkled like new but their
Q. 14. Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the weight was reduced drastically. The lady was upset but
basis of their chemical properties. (U.P. 2019, 20) after a futile argument the man beat a hasty retreat. Can
Ans. you play the detective to find out the nature of the
solution he had used?
Metals Non-metals Ans. The goldsmith dipped the set of the gold bangles in
1. Metals combine with oxygen 1. Non-metals combine with aqua regia solution. Aqua regia is a freshly prepared
and form basic oxides. oxygen and form acidic mixture of 1 part of conc. HNO3 and 3 parts of conc.
4 Na ( s ) + O2 ( g ) oxides or neutral oxides.
HCl by volume. Aqua regia dissolved a considerable
¾¾® 2Na O( s ) C( s ) + O2 ( g ) ¾
2
¾® CO2 ( g ) amount of gold from the dipped gold bangles and
Acidic oxides + Water ¾
¾® hence reduced their weight drastically. The dishonest
Basic oxides + Water¾
¾® Bases
Acids goldsmith can recover the dissolved gold from aqua
regia by a suitable treatment.
Na 2O( s ) + H2O( l ) CO2 ( g ) + H2O( l ) ¾
¾® Q. 16. Give reasons, why copper is used to make hot water
¾® 2NaOH( aq )
¾ H2CO3 ( aq ) tanks but not steel (an alloy of iron).
Sodium Carbonic acid Ans. Copper is a much better conductor of heat than steel.
hydroxide Also, copper does not react with water at all but steel
Litmus test (turn red litmus blue) Litmus test (turn blue litmus (an alloy of iron) reacts with steam. So, copper is used
red) to make hot water tanks but not steel (an alloy of iron).
ccc
 31

Chapter

4 CARBON AND
ITS COMPOUNDS

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. An open chain compound is : (U.P. 2017) O O
(a) cyclic hexane (b) cyclic butane || ||
(c) benzene (d) butene-2 (c) CH 3 — C — OH (d) CH 3 — C— CH 3
Q. 2. Unsaturated compound from the following is : Q. 12. The IUPAC name of acetic acid is :
(U.P. 2014) (U.P. 2011, 14, 16, 17)
(a) CH 4 (b) C 2 H 6 (a) acetic acid (b) ethanoic acid
O (c) propanoic acid (d) methanoic acid
|| Q.13. The IUPAC name of ethyl alcohol is :
(c) CH 3 — C — OH (d) C 2 H 4 (U.P. 2015, 16, 18 , 20)
Q. 3. The formula of alkyne from the following : (a) ethanol (b) methanol
(U.P. 2013, 15, 16) (c) acetic acid (d) ethanoic acid
(a) C 3 H 8 (b) C 4 H10 (c) C 3 H 6 (d) C 3 H 4 Q. 14. Which of the following compound present in alcoholic
Q. 4. The angle between the two bonds of a carbon atom in group? (U.P. 2011, 14, 17)
CH 4 : (a) CH 3CO — OH (b) CH 3 — CH 2 — OH
(a) 90° (b) 45° (c) 130°28' (d) 109°28' (c) C 6 H 5 — OH (d) H — OH
Q. 5. General formula of alkene is : Q.15. Which of the following belong to the same
(a) C n H 2n+ 2 (b) C n H 2n homologous series? (U.P. 2011, 15)
(c) C n H 2n- 2 (d) C n H 2n + 1OH (a) CH 4 and C 2 H 4
Q. 6. Buckminster fullerene is an allotropic form of the element : (b) CH 3OH and CH 3CHO
(a) Phosphorus (b) Fluorine (c) HCHO and CH 3CHO
(c) Carbon (d) Sulphur (d) C 2 H 5OH and CH 3OCH 3
Q. 7. Main component of natural gas is : (U.P. 2017) Q. 16. Sodium lauryl sulphate is :
(a) methane (b) ethane (c) propane (d) butane (a) soap (b) detergent
Q. 8. The functional group of ethanoic acid is : (c) plastic (d) explosive
(U.P. 2017, 18 ) Q. 17. The molecular formula of homologue of butane is :
(a) C O (b) — OH (a) C 4 H 8 (b) C 3 H 6 (c) C 4 H 6 (d) C 3 H 8
O O Q. 18. The reaction between alcohol and an acid is called:
|| || (a) hydrolysis (b) saponification
(c) H — C— (d) — C— OH (c) hydrogenation (d) esterification
Q. 9. Which one is found in wine? (U.P. 2018 ) Q. 19. True statement about micelles is :
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Methyl alcohol (a) Soaps from micelle while detergents do not form
(c) Butanol (d) All of these micelle.
Q. 10. Functional group present in propanal is: (U.P. 2017, 20) (b) Soaps as well as detergents forms micelle.
(c) Detergents forms micelle while soaps do not form
(a) — CHO (b) C O micelle.
(c) — OH (d) — OCH 3 (d) Detergents as well as soaps do not form micelle.
Q. 11. Ketonic group present in : (U.P. 2017, 19, 20) Q. 20. Incorrect statement is :
O (a) Diamond and graphite are isotopes of carbon.
|| (b) Petroleum and coal are fossil fuels.
(a) H — C— H (b) CH 3CH 2OH
(c) Carbon is tetravalent in all its compounds.
 32

(d) In graphite, each carbon atom is linked to 4 other Q. 26. The IUPAC name of formaldehyde (HCHO) is:
carbon atoms. ( U.P. 2015, 19)
Q. 21. Ethanol reacts with sodium and forms two products. (a) formaldehyde (b) methanal
These are : (c) ethanal (d) acetaldehyde
(a) sodium ethanoate and hydrogen Q. 27. Propanol is: ( U.P. 2019)
(b) sodium ethanoate and oxygen (a) C 3 H 5OH (b) C 2 H 5OH
(c) sodium ethoxide and hydrogen (c) C 3 H 6OH (d) C 3 H 7OH
(d) sodium ethoxide and oxygen Q. 28. The chemical formula of propane is: ( U.P. 2019)
Q. 22. Which does not give addition reactions? (a) CH 4 (b) C 3 H 8 (c) C 4 H10 (d) C 2 H 6
(a) C 2 H 4 and C 2 H 2 (b) C 3 H 6 and C 4 H 6 Q. 29. Propane with the molecular formula C 3 H 8 has:
(c) C 2 H 6 and C 3 H 8 (d) C 2 H 4 and C 3 H 4 ( U.P. 2019)
Q. 23. IUPAC name of acetone is: (U.P. 2016) (a) 10 covalent bonds (b) 7 covalent bonds
Or The IUPAC name of CH 3 — C— CH 3 is: (c) 8 covalent bonds (d) 9 covalent bonds
|| (U.P. 2018) Q. 30. Which of the following is aldehyde? ( U.P. 2020)
O (a) methanol (b) ethanal
(a) butanone (b) propanone (c) ethanol (d) propenol
(c) butanol (d) propanol Q. 31. Which of the following is not in saturated hydrocarbon?
Q. 24. The functional group present in butanone is : ( U.P. 2020)
(U.P. 2011, 12, 13, 14) (a) single bond (b) tetrahedral structure
(a) — CHO (b) C O (c) 109° 28¢ bond angle between C — C bond
(d) C == C
(c) — OH (d) — OCH 3 Q. 32. Which of the following organic compound is un-
Q. 25. The IUPAC name of acetaldehyde is: ( U.P. 2019) saturated? ( U.P. 2020)
(a) ethanol (b) ethanal (a) ethane (b) methane
(c) methanal (d) propanol (c) aniline (d) ethyl alcohol
Answers
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (c)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. Write name and molecular formulae of two aliphatic alk.KMnO4

Or CH 3CH 2OH + 2[O] ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® CH 3COOH
unsaturated hydrocarbons. (U.P. 2017) or acidic K 2 Cr2 O7
Ethanol Ethanoic acid
Ans. Unsaturated compound having atleast one double
(C == ) or triple (C ºº ) bond. Example: Q. 3. Organic compounds are mainly formed due to which
bonding?
Ethelene : CH 2 == CH 2 ; Acetylene : CH ºº CH Ans. Covalent bond.
Q. 2. Write the name of compounds and formulae of ethyl Q.4. Name the functional group in the following
alcohol on oxidation. (U.P. 2017) compounds: (U.P. 2014, 16)
Or Write the chemical equation of preparation of ethanoic (i) methyl alcohol (ii) formic acid
acid by the oxidation of ethanol. (U.P. 2019) Ans. (i) Methyl alcohol (CH 3OH) has hydroxyl group
Or Ethanol oxidised by alkaline KMnO 4 solution (give (— OH).
only chemical equation.) (U.P. 2019)
(ii) Formic acid has carboxylic acid group
Ans. On oxidation by acidic potassium dichromate or (— COOH).
alkaline KMnO 4 it gives acetic acid.
Q. 5. Give the general formula of alkane, alkene and alkyne?
[ O] [ O] (U.P. 2014)
CH 3CH 2OH ¾ ¾ ¾
¾® CH 3CHO ¾ ¾ ¾
¾® CH 3COOH
alk.KMnO4 alk.KMnO4 Ans. Alkane ® C n H 2n+ 2 , Alkene ® C n H 2n ,
Ethyl alcohol Acetaldehyde Acetic acid
Alkyne ® C n H 2n - 2
 33

Q. 6. Why are unsaturated hydrocarbons more reactive than Q. 11. Identify and name the functional groups present in the
saturated hydrocarbons? following compounds.
Ans. Unsaturated hydrocarbons are more reactive due to the H H H
presence of C == C and C ºº C bonds which are weaker | | |
than the single bond in saturated hydrocarbons. These (a) H — C — C — C — OH
| | |
double and triple bonds are the reactive sites in the
H H H
unsaturated hydrocarbons which easily give addition
reactions. H H O
| | ||
Q. 7. What happens when methane react with chlorine?
(b) H — C — C — C — OH
(U.P. 2019) | |
Ans. CH 4 + Cl 2 ¾ ¾® CH 3Cl + HCl H H
Methane Chlorine Chloromethane H H O H H
Q. 8. Write the names of the following compounds | | || | |
H H H H O (c) H — C — C — C — C — C — H
| | | | || | | | |
(a) H — C — C — C — C — C — OH H H H H
| | | |
H H H H H H H H
| | | |
H H (d) H — C — C — C == C — H
| | | |
(b) H — C — C — C ºº C — H H H
| |
H H Ans. (a) — OH Hydroxyl/Alcohol
H H H H H H H (b) — C — OH Carboxylic acid
| | | | | | | ||
(c) H— C — C — C — C — C — C — C == O O
| | | | | | O
H H H H H H || | |
(c) — C — Ketone (d) — C == C — Alkene
H H H H H
| | | | | Q. 12. Explain the isomers with example.
(d) H — C — C — C — C — C — OH Ans. Compounds having same molecular formula but
| | | | | different physical and chemical properties are called
H H H H H isomers, e. g., n -butane and isobutane.
Q. 13. Write a brief note on esterification.
Ans. (a) Pentanoic acid (b) Butyne
( U.P. 2013, 14, 15, 16, 17, 19)
(c) Heptanal (d) Pentanol Ans. When an alcohol reacts with a carboxylic acid in the
Q. 9. Explain the functional group. (U.P. 2015, 17, 18, 19) presence of concentrated sulphuric acid, the sweet
Ans. An atom or a group of atoms which gives special pro- smelling compound obtained is called an ester and the
perties to the organic compound is called functional process is known as esterification.
group. — OH, — CHO, — COOH, —CO — , conc.
¾® CH 3COOC 2 H 5 + H 2O
C2 H5 OH + CH3 COOH ¾ ¾ ¾
— X (halo or halogen group) etc., are functional groups. H2 SO4
Ethyl acetate Water
Q. 10. What is hetero-atom? (U.P. 2019) (ester)
Ans. One or more hydrogen atoms of hydrocarbon (alkanes, Esters are used as flavouring agents and in making
alkenes, alkynes etc.) can be replaced by these perfumes.
elements such that valency of carbon always remains Q. 14. Name the gas evolved when ethanoic acid reacts with
four. In such compounds, the element replacing sodium carbonate. How would you identify this gas?
hydrogen is called hetero-atom. If one hydrogen atom Ans. The gas evolved is carbon dioxide (CO 2 ). The reaction
of CH 4 is replaced by chlorine atom (Cl), the is as follows :
compound formed is CH 3Cl. The chlorine atom
(halogen atom) in CH 3Cl is called hetero-atom. 2CH 3COOH + Na 2CO 3 ¾ ¾® 2CH 3COONa + CO 2 ­+ H 2O
Carbon combine with other atom such as O, N, Cl, Br, I Ethanoic acid Sodium Sodium Carbon Water
carbonate ethanoate dioxide
and S etc. The presence of these hetero-atoms confer
special properties to the compound and called When this gas is passed through limewater, it turns
functional group. milky. The milky colour of limewater confirms that the
gas is carbon dioxide (CO 2 ).
 34

Q. 15. Write the IUPAC name and structural formula of soap molecules in aqueous solution of soap is called
formic acid. (2014, 16, 19) micelle.
O Q. 20. Write a short note on uses of detergent giving example.
|| (U.P. 2019)
Ans. H — C— OH, methanoic acid.
Ans. Detergents have cleansing properties like soap.
Q. 16. Write the IUPAC name: ( U.P. 2019 ) Detergents form lather with soft water as well as hard
(i) CH 3COCH 3 (ii) CH 3 — CH — CH 3 water also. Detergents are better cleansing agents than
| soaps because they do not form precipitate (scum) with
OH hard water. A detergent is sodium salt of a long chain
Ans. (i) Propanone, (ii) Propanol-2 benzene sulphonic acid or sodium salt of long chain
alkyl hydrogensulphate. e. g.,
Q. 17. What is homologous series? (U.P. 2014, 18, 19)
Ans. A series of organic compounds containing same CH 3 — (CH 2 )11 — C 6 H 4 — SO -3 Na +
functional group, same chemical properties and in
which the two successive compounds differ by CH 2 Sodium n -dodecyl benzene sulphonate
group is called homologous series. The compounds CH 3 — (CH 2 )10 — CH 2 — SO -4 Na +
CH3 Cl, C2 H5 Cl and C3 H7 Cl are chloroalkanes. The
compounds CH3 OH, C2 H5 OH and C3 H7 OH are Sodium n -dodecyl sulphate
alcohols. Q. 21. How will you convert ethanoic acid into methane?
Q. 18. Give the three characteristics of homologous series. Explain with the help of equations of the reactions
Ans. (i) Compounds belonging to a given homologous involved.
series can be represented by the same general Ans. CH 3COOH + NaOH ¾
¾® CH 3COONa + H 2O
molecular formula. Sodium
Ethanoic acid Sodium ethanoate Water
(ii) All the compounds of a homologous series show hydroxide
similar chemical properties.
Then, sodium ethanoate is heated with soda lime to get
(iii) The compounds of a homologous series can be
methane.
prepared by similar methods.
Q. 19. What is a micelle? (U.P. 2019) CH 3COONa + NaOH ¾
¾® CH 4 + Na 2CO 3
Ans. A concentrated solution of soap form micelle. The Sodium ethanoate Sodium hydroxide Methane Sodium
(from soda lime) carbonate
micelles are large enough to scatter light. Therefore, a
soap solution appears cloudy. A spherical aggregate of This reaction is called decarboxylation.

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. Write all the four valencies of carbon atom through the Q. 2. Carbon forms number of compounds due to which of
concept of Le-bel and van’t Hoff with diagram. its two specific properties? ( U.P. 2019)
Explain the position of carbon and hydrogen in Or Explain tetravalency and catenation (self-linking) pro-
methane through the concept of above theory. perty of carbon. (U.P. 2019)
(U.P. 2015, 16, 17, 18) Or Write short note on the tetravalency of carbon.
Ans. Le-bel and van’t Hoff Structure (Valency of (U.P. 2019)
carbon) : According to Le-bel and van’t Hoff, if Ans. The two characteristic properties of carbon which make
carbon atom located at the center with four hydrogen it to form a large number of organic compounds are:
(or substituents) that are located at the corners of Catenation : Carbon has the unique ability to form
tetrahedron. covalent bonds with other carbon atoms , giving rise to
The bond angle between two bonds (Valency) is aprox. large molecules. This property is called catenation
109°28'. (self -linking). These compounds may have long
All the four bonds are directed outward from carbon chains of carbon, branched chains of carbon or even
atom. carbon atoms arranged in rings(closed chain).
H H
C
C C C C C
C C C C
'

'
°28

°28

C C C
109

109

C C
H H
C
H H H H
Straight chain Branched chain Closed chain
Tetrahedral structure of carbon (Ring structure)
 35

In addition, carbon atoms may be linked by single, Ans. The process of burning of carbon and its compounds in
double or triple bonds with other carbon atoms or other excess of air (oxygen) to produce carbon dioxide, light
elements such as H, S,O, N, P etc. and heat is called combustion. All combustion
Tetravalency : Since carbon has a valency of four, it is reactions are oxidation reactions.
capable of bonding with four other atoms of carbon or For example:
atoms of some other monovalent elements. In order to C + O 2 ¾® CO 2 + Heat + Light
satisfy its tetravalency, carbon can form double or
triple bonds with other C-atoms or with O, N, H, S, P, CH 4 + 2O 2 ¾® CO 2 + 2H 2O + Heat + Light
also. Compounds of carbon are formed with hydrogen, CH 3CH 2OH + 3O 2 ¾® 2CO 2 + 3 H 2O + Heat + Light
nitrogen, sulphur, chlorine and many other elements
giving rise to compounds with specific properties Saturated hydrocarbons generally give non-sooty,
which depend on the elements other than carbon clean flame while unsaturated hydrocarbon give
present in the molecule. yellow flame with a black smoke (soot).
Q. 3. Write short note on group or radicals. (U.P. 2016, 18 ) Q.7. Write short note on oxidation reaction with reference
to hydrocarbons. (U.P. 2020)
Ans. Normally, each carbon compound has two parts where
each part is called a group or radical. These show the Ans. Hydrocarbons on complete oxidation (combustion)
chemical properties of organic compound. produce CO 2 and H 2O. There are many reactions in
For example: Compound R — X have two parts which complete oxidation does not take place. For
example when ethyl alcohol is heated with alkaline
R ® alkyl radical, X — functional group.
potassium permanganate solution or acidified
e. g., CH3 OH Þ CH3 —Methyl radical, potassium dichromate solution, it gets oxidised to
OH — alcohol group acetic acid.
Q.4. Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated
hydrocarbons. (U.P. 2013, 18) alk. KMnO
CH 3CH 2OH + 2[O] ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾4¾
¾® CH 3CO OH + H 2O
Ans. Acidic K 2 Cr2 O7

S. Saturated hydrocarbons Unsaturated hydrocarbons Therefore, controlled combustion is called oxidation.

No. Q.8. Write short note on substitution reaction with ref-
1. They are very stable and less They are stable but more erence to organic compounds. (U.P. 2019)
reactive in nature. reactive in nature.
Or Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of
2. They form compounds by They form compounds by sunlight. (U.P. 2020)
substitution reaction. addition reaction.
D CH2
Ans. Those reaction in which one (or more) hydrogen atoms
CH4 + HNO3 ¾¾® CH2 — Cl
|| of a hydrocarbon are replaced by one or more other
+ Cl 2 ¾
¾® |
Methane CH2 atoms or group, is called a substitution reaction.
CH2 — Cl
CH3 — NO2 + H2O Example :
Ethylene Ethylene
Nitromethane dichloride CH 4 + Cl 2 ¾Sunlight
¾¾ ¾® CH 3Cl + HCl
Methane Methyl Hydrogen
3. They are neutral to alkaline They render alkaline KMnO4
chloride chloride
KMnO4. colourless.
4. They do not decolourize They decolourize bromine All hydrogen of methane is substituted by chlorine in
bromine water. water. the presence of sunlight.
5. They do not react with ozone They react with ozone to form
to form ozonide. ozonide. CH 4 + 4Cl 2 ¾Sunlight
¾¾ ¾® CCl 4 + 4HCl
Methane Carbon Hydrogen
tetrachloride chloride
Q. 5. Explain the alkyl group. (U.P. 2018)
Ans. When one hydrogen atom is removed from a saturated In this reaction, H-atom of methane gets replaced by
hydrocarbon, i. e., a parent alkane, an alkyl group is Cl-atom.
formed and is named from the parent alkane by Q.9. Explain the addition reaction with reference to organic
removing the ‘ane’ and adding ‘yl’. For example : compound. (U.P. 2019, 20)
CH 4 (methane) — CH 3 (methyl), C 2 H 6 (ethane) —
Or Write the addition reaction of ethylene. (U.P. 2020)
C 2 H 5 (ethyl). Or What is hydrogenation? What are its industrial
Q.6. Write short note on combustion of hydrocarbons. importance? (U.P. 2019)
(U.P. 2019) Ans. Those reactions in which an unsaturated compound
Or Explain the combustion reaction with example. combines with some other substance to give a single
(U.P. 2020) product is called an addition reaction.
Or Write the reaction of combustion of methane. Addition reaction is the characteristic property of
(U.P. 2020) unsaturated compounds. Thus alkenes, alkynes,
aldehydes, ketones gives addition reaction. Addition
 36

reaction takes place in the presence of catalysts such as O

palladium (Pd) or nickel (Ni). ||
CH 2 == CH 2 + H 2 ¾¾ Ni
® CH 3 — CH 3 (viii) CH 3 — C — CH 2 — CH 2 — CH 3 (U.P. 2014)
Ethene Ethane CHO
And see Que. No. 12 in NCERT Exercise. |
Q. 10. Write short notes on homologous series with example (ix) CH 3 — CH — CH 3 (U.P. 2014)
of alkane and alkene. (U.P. 2018, 19, 20) (x) CH 3 — CH(OH) — CH 3 (U.P. 2014, 17, 18)
Ans. A series of organic compounds containing same
functional group, same chemical properties and in (xi) CH 3CH 2CHO (U.P. 2012, 14, 17)
which the two successive members differ by CH 2
group is called homologous series. (xii) CH 2 == CH — CH == CH 2 (2015, 17)
Example: (xiii) H — CHO (U.P. 2011, 13, 15, 17, 20)
(i) In alkanes such as CH 4 , C 2 H 6 , C 3 H 8 and C 4 H10 ,
the two successive members differ by CH 2 group. (xiv) CH 3 — O — CH 3 (U.P. 2017)
Therefore, these are members of same
(xv) HCOOH (2013, 16)
homologous series. Alkanes have the same
general formula C n H 2n+ 2 . (xvi) CH 3CH 2OH (U.P. 2017, 19)
(ii) In alkenes such as C 2 H 4 , C 3 H 6 , C 4 H 8 and (xvii) CH 3 — HC == CH — CH 3 (U.P. 2012)
C 5 H10 , the two successive compounds differ by
—CH 2 group and have the same general CH 3
molecular formula C n H 2n . Therefore, these are |
the members of same homologous series. (xviii) CH 3 — CH == C — CH 3 (U.P. 2017)
Q. 11. Write short note on valency of carbon. O
Ans. Atomic number of carbon is 6 and its electronic ||
configuration is 2, 4. Thus, carbon atom has 4 electrons (xix) CH 3 — C — CH 2 — CH 3 (U.P. 2017)
in its outermost shell (valence shell). Carbon atom
requires 4 more electrons to complete its octet. Carbon O
atom can not form the anion C 4- by gaining 4 electrons ||
because of stability considerations. If carbon atom (xx) CH 3CH 2 C —OH (U.P. 2020)
loses 4 electrons it will form the cation C 4+ which has (xxi) CH 3CH 2C ºº CH (U.P. 2019)
the electronic configuration of inert gas (helium).
Therefore, carbon atom shares 4 electrons to complete Ans. (i) Pentyne-2 (ii) Propan -1-ol
its octet and to have the configuration of nearest inert (iii) But-2-yne (iv) Propyne
gas (neon). In this way carbon atom will have 8 (v) Ethanoic acid
electrons in its outermost shell. Thus, carbon atom
forms 4 covalent bonds, its valency is 4 and it is (vi) Propanone-2 (Propan-2-one)
tetravalent. The four valencies of carbon atom are (vii) Pentan-3-one (Pentanone-3)
represented by 4 single lines: (viii) Pentan-2-one (Pentanone-2)
| (ix) 2-methyl propanal
—C— (x) Propan-2-ol (Propanol-2)
| (xi) Propanal (xii) Buta-1,3-diene
Q. 12. Write the IUPAC name of the following : (xiii) Methanal (xiv) Methoxy methane
(i) CH 3 — C ºº C — CH 2 — CH 3 (xv) Methanoic acid (xvi) Ethanol
(xvii) Butene-2 (xviii) 2-methyl but-2-ene
(ii) CH 3CH 2CH 2OH (U.P. 2011, 16, 17 )
(xix) Butan-2-one (xx) Propanoic acid
(iii) CH 3 — C ºº C — CH 3 (U.P. 2011) (xxi) 1-butyne
Q.13. Give the structural formula of the following
(iv) CH 3 — C ºº CH (U.P. 2011, 14, 20) compounds :
O (i) ethanoic acid (acetic acid) (U.P. 2011, 15, 16)
|| (ii) methyl acetylene (U.P. 2011, 18)
(v) CH 3 — C — OH (U.P. 2015, 16, 19, 20) (iii) methanal (Formaldehyde) (U.P. 2011, 18)
(vi) CH 3COCH 3 (U.P. 2011, 16, 17 , 18, 19, 20) (iv) methanoic acid or formic acid (U.P. 2013)
(v) 2-pentyne (U.P. 2013)
(vii) CH 3CH 2COCH 2CH 3 (U.P. 2019) (vi) dimethyl ether
 37

(vii) ethanal (acetaldehyde) (U.P. 2012) H H H

(viii) But-2-ene (U.P. 2012) | | |
(xi) H — C — C — C — C — H
(ix) Bromopentane (U.P. 2019) ||
| | |
(x) 1, 3-butadiene (U.P. 2014) H O H H
(xi) butanone-2 (U.P. 2015) Butanone-2
(xii) propanol-2 or 2-propanol (U.P. 2015, 17 , 19, 20)
(xiii) acetic acid (U.P. 2015) H OH H
(xiv) 2-hydroxy propanoic acid (U.P. 2015, 19) | | |
(xv) pentanone-3 (Pentan-3-one) (U.P 2015, 17, 18) (xii) H — C — C — C — H
(xvi) ethyl alcohol (ethanol) (U.P. 2015) | | |
(xvii) Pentanal (U.P. 2020) H H H
Propanol-2 or 2-propanol
H O H
| || | H O
Ans. (i) H — C — C — OH (ii) H — C — C ºº C — H | ||
| | (xiii) H — C — C — O — H
H H |
Ethanoic acid Methyl acetylene H
Acetic acid
O O
|| || H H
(iii) H — C — H (iv) H — C — OH | |
Methanal Methanoic acid (xiv) H — C — C — C — O — H
| | ||
H OH O
H H H 2-hydroxy propanoic acid
| | |
(v) H — C — C — C ºº C — C — H H H H H
| | | | | | |
H H H (xv) H — C — C — C — C — C — H
2-Pentyne | | || | |
H H O H H
H H H O Pentanone-3
| | | ||
(vi) H — C — O — C — H (vii) H — C — C — H H H
| | | | |
H H H (xvi) H — C — C — OH
Dimethyl ether Ethanal | |
H H
H H H H Ethyl alcohol
| | | |
(viii) H — C — C == C — C — H H H H H O
| | | | | | ||
H H (xvii) H — C — C — C — C — C — H
But-2-ene (or 2- butene) | | | |
H H H H
H H H H H Pentanal
| | | | |
(ix) H — C — C — C — C — C — Br Q. 14. What happens when? (Give the chemical reactions
| | | | | only)
H H H H H (i) Ethanol reacts with Na metal.
Bromopentane (U.P. 2016, 18, 19, 20)
(ii) Ethyl acetate react with sodium hydroxide
(x) H — C == C — C == C — H (U.P. 2016, 20)
| | | | (iii) Ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H 2SO 4 at
H H H H l60-170°C. ( U.P. 2015, 16, 18, 19, 20)
1, 3- butadiene (iv) Sodium acetate is heated with sodalime.
(U.P. 2014, 15, 16, 17)
 38

(v) Ethyl alcohol is heated with NaOH and chlorine. (xi) CH 3COOH + NaOH ¾
¾® CH 3COONa + H 2O
(U.P. 2014) Ethanoic acid Sodium ethanoate
(vi) Ethyl alcohol reacts with chlorine. (U.P. 2014) (xii) 2 CH 3COOH + Na 2CO 3 ¾
¾® 2CH 3COONa + CO 2
(vii) Ethyl alcohol (ethanol) reacts with acetic acid Acetic acid Sodium Sodium acetate
carbonate
(ethanoic acid) in the presence of conc. H 2SO 4 . +H 2O
(U.P. 2015, 16, 18 , 19, 20) (xiii) CH 3COOH + NaHCO 3 ¾
¾® CH 3COONa
Ethanoic acid Sodium hydrogen Sodium ethanoate
(viii) Ethanol reacts with alkaline potassium carbonate
permanganate. (U.P. 2019) + CO 2 + H 2O
Or Ethanol is oxidised with alkaline solution of Q.15. What is a homologous series of carbon compounds?
List its any two characteristics. Write the name and
KMnO 4 . (U.P. 2019) formula of next higher homologous of HCOOH.
(ix) Methane is mixed to chlorine gas in presence of Ans. (i) A series of organic compounds in which the same
functional group substitutes for hydrogen in a
sunlight. (U.P. 2019)
carbon chain is called homologous series.
(x) Methane is combusted. (U.P. 2019) Characteristics of homologous series :
(xi) Ethanoic acid reacts with NaOH. (U.P. 2019) (a) The molecular formulae of any two
successive members of a homologous series
(xii) Acetic acid reacts with sodium carbonate. (2019) differ by — CH 2 .
(xiii) Sodium hydrogen carbonate reacts with ethanoic (b) There is a regular gradation in physical
acid. (U.P. 2019) properties of members of a homologous
series.
Ans. (i) 2C 2 H 5OH + 2Na ¾
¾® 2C 2 H 5ONa + H 2 ­
(ii) The name of next homologous of HCOOH is
Ethyl alcohol Sodium ethoxide ethanoic acid (CH3COOH).
(ii) CH 3COOC 2 H 5 + NaOH ¾
¾® CH 3COONa + C 2 H 5OH Q. 16. Distinguish between esterificatfon and saponification
Ethyl acetate Sodium acetate Ethyl alcohol
reactions with the help of the chemical equations for
each. State one use of each (i) esters, and (ii)
Conc. H SO saponification process. (U.P. 2019)
(iii) C 2 H 5OH ¾ ¾ ¾ 2¾¾4® CH 2 == CH 2 + H 2O
160–170 °C Or Write short note on saponification. (U.P. 2019)
Ethyl alcohol Ethylene Ans. Esterification : A process in which an alcohol and a
(iv) CH 3COONa + NaOH ¾CaO
¾¾ ,D
¾® Na 2CO 3 + CH 4 ­ carboxylic acid react in the presence of conc. H 2SO 4
sodalime to form an ester.
Sodium acetate Sodium carbonate Methane Conc. H2 SO4
CH 3COOH + C 2 H 5OH ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾ ®
D
(v) CH 3CH 2OH + 4Cl 2 + 6NaOH ¾¾® CHCl 3 + 5NaCl Ethanoic acid Ethanol
Ethyl alcohol Chloroform CH 3COOC 2 H 5 + H 2O
Ethyl ethanoate (Ester)
+ HCOONa + 5H 2O Saponification : A process in which an ester reacts
Sodium formate with sodium hydroxide to form sodium salt of an acid
(vi) C 2 H 5OH + Cl 2 ¾
¾® CH 3CHO + 2HCl and alcohol.
Ethyl alcohol Acetaldehyde CH2OCOOC17H35 CH2OH
conc. H2 SO4
(vii) CH 3COOH + C 2 H 5OH ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® CHOCOOC17H35 + 3NaOH ¾¾® CHOH
Esterification
Acetic acid Ethyl alcohol
CH 3COOC 2 H 5 CH2OCOOC17H35 CH2OH
Ethyl acetate (Ester) + H 2O Tristearate Glycerol
alk. KMnO4
(viii) CH 3CH 2OH + 2[O] ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® CH 3COOH + H 2O + 3C17H35COONa
D
Ethanol Ethanoic acid Sodium stearate (Soap)
(i) Esters are used in ice creams and perfumes.
Sunlight (ii) Saponification process is used in the preparation
(ix) CH 4 + Cl 2 ¾ ¾ ¾
¾® CH 3Cl + HCl
Methane Chloromethane
of soap.
Q. 17. What are soaps? Write the chemical equations of the
¾® CO 2 + 2H 2O + Heat + light
(x) CH 4 + 2O 2 ¾ reaction involved in the manufacture of soap.
(U.P. 2018)
 39

Or What is soap? Write the chemical name and formula of 4. Soap should be soluble in alcohol.
any one soap. Write any four good attributes of a soap. 5. Soap should not break when in use.
(U.P. 2018)
Q. 18. Why does carbon form covalent bonds only?
Ans. Soap : Sodium or potassium salt of higher fatty acid is (U.P. 2016, 19)
called soap.
Ans. Electronic configuration of carbon atom is 2,4. It needs
Preparation of soap : When triglyceride of higher 4 more electrons to complete its octet. If carbon atom
fatty acid is hydrolysed by the base then product which loses 4 electrons from its outermost shell, the cation
is formed with glycerol called soap and the reaction is formed (C 4+ ) has inert gas configuration of helium. If
called saponification.
carbon atom gains 4 electrons, the anion formed (C 4- )
See equation of Question 16 in saponification. has inert gas configuration of neon. But the formation
Attributes of a good soap: of the ions C 4- and C 4+ is not possible on stability and
1. Soaps are biodegradable. energy consideration. Therefore, carbon forms
covalent compounds by sharing 4 electrons with other
2. Soaps do not work in hard water. atoms.
3. It should contain disinfectants.

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. What do you mean by saturated and unsaturated H H H
hydrocarbons? Explain with examples. (U.P. 2018 ) | | |
Or What do you mean by alkane, alkene and alkyne. H— C— H H— C— C— H
(U.P. 2018) | | |
Or Write a short note on classification of hydrocarbons. H H H
(U.P. 2019) Methane Ethane
Or Write a short note on saturated and unsaturated H H H H H H H
hydrocarbons. (U.P. 2020) | | | | | | |
Or What is the difference between saturated and H— C— C— C— H H— C— C— C— C— H
unsaturated hydrocarbons. Write the general formulae | | | | | | |
of saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.(U.P. 2020) H H H H H H H
Ans. Hydrocarbons : A compound made up of hydrogen Propane Butane
and carbon only is called hydrocarbon (Hydrogen +
Carbon = Hydrocarbon). Methane (CH 4 ), ethane 2. Unsaturated Hydrocarbons (Alkenes and Alkynes):
(C 2 H 6 ), ethene (C 2 H 4 ) and ethyne (C 2 H 2 ), are all A hydrocarbon in which the two carbon atoms are
hydrocarbons because they are made up of only two linked by a ‘double bond’ or a ‘triple bond’ is called
elements: carbon and hydrogen. The most important an unsaturated hydrocarbon. Ethene ( H 2C == CH 2 )
natural source of hydrocarbons is petroleum (or and ethyne ( HC ºº CH) are two important unsaturated
crude oil). hydrocarbons. Unsaturated hydrocarbons are of two
Types of Hydrocarbons : Hydrocarbons are of two types:
types: Saturated hydrocarbons and Unsaturated (i) Alkenes (Olefines): Unsaturated hydrocarbons in
hydrocarbons. which two carbon atoms are linked by a double
1. Saturated Hydrocarbons (Alkanes): A hydro- bond (C == C) are called Alkenes. The general
carbon in which the carbon atoms are connected by formula of an alkene is Cn H 2n . Here n is number of
only single covalent bonds is called a saturated C-atoms. For example:
hydrocarbon. Saturated hydrocarbons are also called H H
alkanes. We can now say that : An alkane is a | |
hydrocarbon in which the carbon atoms are connected H — C == C — H (C 2 H 4 )
by only single covalent bonds (There are no double or Ethene (Ethylene)
triple bonds in an alkane). Thus, the hydrocarbons
methane, ethane, propane and butane form a series of H H
compounds known as alkanes. The names of all these | |
saturated hydrocarbons end with ‘ane’. The general H — C — C == C — H (C 3 H 6 )
| |
formula of saturated hydrocarbons (alkane) is
H H
C n H 2n+2 . Here n is number of carbon atoms. Propene
 40

Sum of all the bond around each C-atom should be (3) Organic compounds containing carboxylic group
4. O
(ii) Alkynes (Acetylenes): Unsaturated hydrocarbons ||
in which two carbon atoms are linked by a triple (— C— OH) are called carboxylic acids. The general
bond (C ºº C) are called Alkynes. General formula formula of carboxylic acids is R — COOH. The
of an alkynes is Cn H 2n– 2 . carboxylic group has one free valency at the carbon
For example: atom. The common IUPAC name of carboxylic acid is
H — C ºº C — H (C 2 H 2 ) alkanoic acid. To obtain IUPAC name of carboxylic
Ethyne (acetylene) acid, the letter ‘ e’ of the corresponding alkane is
dropped and the suffix ‘oic acid’ is added to it.
H For example:
|
H — C — C ºº C — H (C 3 H 4 ) Alkane -e + oic acid = Alkanoic acid
| HCOOH , CH 3COOH , CH 3CH 2COOH
H Methanoic acid Ethanoic acid Propanoic acid
Propyne
— COOH group is monovalent, it always comes at the
end of the carbon chain.
Q. 2. Write a note on IUPAC name system of aldehydes,
ketones and carboxylic acids. (U.P. 2020) Q. 3. Write equation of four chemical reactions of ethyl
Or Write a short note on nomenclature of organic alcohol (ethanol). (U.P. 2019)
compounds. (U.P. 2019) Or Write chemical properties of ethyl alcohol. (U.P. 2020)
Ans. The IUPAC name of an organic compound based on Ans. (i) Combustion: Ethyl alcohol burn in air to produce
two factors: (i) name of the carbon chain (ii) name of CO 2 and H 2O. Lot of heat and light is produced
the functional group. during combustion.
The name of some functional groups are named after CH 3CH 2OH + 3O 2 ¾combustion
¾¾¾ ¾® 2CO 2 + H 2O
the parent alkane by using suffix to show their
presence. The name used after the parent alkane is + Heat + light
called suffix. For example the suffix for alcohol is ‘ol’. (ii) Oxidation: When ethyl alcohol is heated with alkaline
Therefore, CH3 OH is named as methanol and C 2 H 5OH KMnO 4 solution or acidified K 2Cr 2O 7 solution, it
is named as ethanol. gets oxidised and give acetic acid (ethanoic acid) and
O water.
|| Alk. KMnO
CH 3CH 2OH + [O] ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾4 ® CH 3CHO + H 2O
(1) Organic compounds containing — CHO (— C— H) as Ethanol or Acid. K 2 Cr2 O7 Ethanal
functional group are called aldehydes. Their general
Alk. KMnO
formula is R — CHO, where R may be hydrogen atom CH 3CHO + [O] ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾4 ® CH 3COOH
or an alkyl group such as — CH 3 , C 2 H 5 etc. The or Acid. K 2 Cr2 O7
Ethanal Ethanoic acid
common IUPAC name of aldehydes is alkanal.
—CHO group is monovalent. To obtain the IUPAC Or CH 3CH 2OH + 2[O] ¾Alk. KMnO
¾ ¾ ¾¾4 ® CH 3COOH + H 2O
or Acid. K Cr O
name of aldehydes, the letter ‘ e’ of the corresponding Ethanol 2 2 7

alkane is dropped, and the suffix ‘al’ is added to it. (iii) Reaction with sodium metal: Ethanol reacts with Na
For example: metal to produce sodium ethoxide and hydrogen.
Alkane -e + al = Alkanal
2C 2 H 5OH + 2Na ¾¾® 2C 2 H 5ONa + H 2
HCHO , CH 3CHO, CH 3CH 2CHO
Methanal Ethanal Propanal (iv) Dehydration: When ethanol is heated at 443K (170°C)
(2) Organic compounds containing — CO —(> C == O) as with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid, a water
functional group are called Ketones. Ketone group is molecule is given out and ethene is formed. Removal
divalent and is joined to two alkyl groups. Therefore, of water from a substance is called dehydration.
ketone group always occurs in the middle of carbon 2 4 conc. H SO
CH 3CH 2OH ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾ ® CH 2 == CH 2 + H 2O
chain. The common IUPAC name of ketones is 160-170 °C
Ethylene (ethene)
alkanone. To obtain the IUPAC name of ketones, the
letter ‘ e’ of the corresponding alkane is dropped, and (v) Esterification: Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the
the suffix ‘one’ is added to it. presence of conc. H 2SO 4 to form ethyl ethanoate (an
For example: ester) and water.
2 4 conc. H SO
Alkane -e + one = Alkanone C 2 H 5OH + CH 3COOH ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾ ® CH 3COOC 2 H 5
CH 3COCH 3 , CH 3COCH 2CH 3 , Ethanol Ethanoic acid Ethyl ethanoate
Propanone Butanone +H 2O
 41

(vi) Dehydrogenation: On heating, vapours of ethanol over 2 conc. H SO

4 ® CH COOC H
CH 3COOH + C 2 H 5OH ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾ 3 2 5
heated Cu, acetaldehyde is formed.
Ethyl ethanoate
CH 3CH 2OH ¾Hot
¾¾ Cu
® CH 3CHO + H 2 (Ethyl acetate)
300 °C
+H 2O
Uses: (i) It is used in manufacture of dyes, drugs, Esters are sweet smelling liquids. They have fruity
detergents etc. smell and are used in making perfumes.
(ii) It is used as a solvent for oils, fats, dyes, paint, (ii) Reaction with Na 2CO 3 and NaHCO 3 : When ethanoic
cough syrups. acid reacts with sodium carbonate or sodium hydrogen
(iii) A mixture of ethanol and petrol is used as a fuel carbonate, sodium ethanoate (sodium acetate) is formed
for vehicles. and CO2 gas is evolved .
(iv) It is used in alcoholic drinks (beverages) like 2CH 3COOH + Na 2CO 3 ¾
¾® 2CH 3COONa + CO 2 + H 2O
wine, wisky etc.
(v) It is used as an antiseptic to sterilize syringes. CH 3COOH + NaHCO 3 ¾
¾® CH 3COONa + CO 2 + H 2O
Q.4. What is glacial acetic acid? Write chemical equations (iii) Reaction with NaOH: When ethanoic acid reacts with
of four reaction of acetic acid. (U.P. 2019) sodium hydroxide, sodium ethanoate and water are formed.
Or Write the chemical equations for the reaction of CH 3COOH + NaOH ¾
¾® CH 3COONa + H 2O
esterification of ethanoic acid and also write its chemical Sodium ethanoate
reaction with NaOH and NaHCO 3 . (U.P.2019) (iv) Reaction with Na metal: Sodium metal reacts with
Or Write equations of three chemical properties of acetic ethanoic acid and produce H2 gas.
acid and also write its one use. (U.P. 2019, 20) 2CH 3COOH + 2Na ¾
¾® 2CH 3COONa + H 2 ­
Or Write the chemical equation of preparation of ethanoic Uses : (i) It is used as vinegar.
acid by the oxidation of ethanol. What happens when (ii) It is used in dyeing, paper and silk industry.
ethanoic acid react with (i) ethanol in presence of conc. (iii) It is used as solvent and laboratory reagent.
H 2SO 4 (ii) sodium hydroxide (iii) sodium carbonate.
Q. 5. Explain the cleansing action of soap on the basis of
(U.P. 2016, 18, 19, 20)
micelle concept. (U.P. 2019, 20)
Ans. Anhydrous acetic acid solidifies as shining crystal like Or What are micelles? Explain with example. What is
ice, hence it is called glacial acetic acid. their importance in the cleansing action of soap?
When ethanol is heated with alkaline potassium (U.P. 2019)
permanganate solution or acidified K 2 Cr2 O7 solution, Ans. A concentrated solution of soap form micelle. The
it gets oxidised and give ethanoic acid. micelles are large enough to scatter light. Therefore, a
Alk. KMnO soap solution appears cloudy. A spherical aggregate of
CH 3CH 2OH + 2[O] ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾4 ® CH 3COOH + H 2O soap molecules in aqueous solution of soap is called
or Acid . K 2 Cr2 O7
Ethanol Ethanoic acid micelles.
Preparation: By oxidation of ethanol: When ethanol is Dust particles are held on clothes by oil/grease. Water
heated with alkaline KMnO 4 solution or acidified does not wet oil, grease and dirt. Therefore, dirt, oil,
K 2Cr 2O 7 solution, it gets oxidised and gives ethanoic grease etc. can not be removed by washing with water
acid and water. only. When soap is dissolved in water, it forms the
Chemical properties: (i) Esterification : Ethanoic acid micelle. To remove dirt, oil and grease from the dirty
reacts with ethanol in presence of conc. H 2SO 4 to form cloth.
ethyl ethanoate (an ester ) and water. For cleansing action See NCERT Exercise Que.15

NCERT Intext Questions

Q.1. What would be the electron dot structure of carbon stable electronic configuration of the noble gas neon.
dioxide which has the formula CO 2 ? The formation of CO 2 molecule is shown below :
Ans. In carbon dioxide molecule, the two oxygen atoms are
bonded on either side with carbon atom by double C + 2 O ¾¾® O C O or O C O
bonds. Thus, there are 2 double bonds in CO 2 .
Carbon shares its two electrons in the formation of a
double bond with one oxygen atom and another two Valencies of C and O are 4 and 2 respectively.
electrons with another oxygen atom. In this process, Q. 2. What would be the electron dot structure of a molecule
both the oxygen atoms and the carbon atom acquire the of sulphur which is made up of eight atoms of sulphur?
 42

Ans. The eight atoms of sulphur are joined together in the Are structural isomers possible for bromopentane?
form of a ring. Ans. (i) Ethanoic acid (CH 3COOH)
S S S S
S S H O
S S
S
S S | ||
S S S S H — C — C — OH
S |
H
Q. 3. How many structural isomers can you draw for
pentane? (ii) Bromopentane (C 5 H11 Br)
Ans. The five carbon atoms in pentane, C 5 H12 can be arranged
in three different ways to give three structural isomers: H H H H H
| | | | |
H H H H H H H H H H — C — C — C — C — C — Br
H C C C C C H H C C C C H | | | | |
H H H H H
H H H H H H C H H
Yes, three structural isomers are possible for
H H H
bromopentane.
n-pentane isopentane
(iii) Butanone (CH 3CH 2COCH 3 )

H H H H O H H
| || | |
H C H H — C— C— C— C— H
| | |
H C C C H
H H H
H C H
(iv) Hexanal (C 5 H11CHO)
H H H
H H H H H H
neopentane
| | | | | |
Q. 4. What are the two properties of carbon which lead to the H — C — C — C — C — C — C == O
huge number of carbon compounds we see around us? | | | | |
(U.P.2019) H H H H H
Ans. See Short Answer Type Que. 2.
Q. 5. What will be the structural formula and electron dot Q. 7. What are the names of following compounds?
structure of cyclopentane? H
Ans. The molecular formula of cyclopentane is C 5 H10 . Five |
carbon atoms of cyclopentane are connected by single (i) CH 3 — CH 2 — Br (ii) H — C == O
bonds in a cyclic form. Following are the structural H H H H
formula and electron dot structure of cyclopentane. | | | |
H H (iii) H — C — C — C — C — C ºº C — H
H H | | | |
C H H H H
H H H C H
C C H C C H Ans. (i) Bromoethane or ethyl bromide
H H (ii) Methanal or formaldehyde (iii) Hexyne
H C C H Q. 8. Why is the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid an
H H oxidation reaction?
C C H H Ans. The conversion of ethanol into ethanoic acid is called
H H an oxidation reaction because oxygen is added to it
Structural formula Electron dot structure during this conversion.
of cyclopentane (C5H10) of cyclopentane (C5H10) CH 3CH 2OH + 2[O]
Ethanol Nascent oxygen
Q. 6. Draw the structures for the following compounds : [From oxidising agent]
(i) Ethanoic acid (ii) Bromopentane Alkaline KMnO +heat
4
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ¾® CH 3COOH + H 2O
¾¾
(iii) Butanone (iv) Hexanal Or Acidified K 2 Cr2 O7 +heat
Ethanoic acid Water
 43

Note : produced in test tube B through lime water taken

« A substance which gives oxygen for oxidation is called an in another test tube.
oxidising agent. Alkaline potassium permanganate and (v) We will find that limewater turns milky. It is a test
acidified potassium dichromate oxidise alcohols to acids, that for carbon dioxide.
is, adding oxygen to the starting material. Hence, they are Hence, this experiment proves that when ethanoic acid
known as oxidising agents. reacts with sodium hydrogencarbonate then carbon
Q. 9. A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. dioxide gas is produced with an effervescence (a rapid
Can you tell why a mixture of ethyne and air is not evolution of gas bubbles). Ethanol does not react with
used? NaHCO 3 .
Ans. If a mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt, then ethyne Q. 11. What are oxidising agents?
burns completely producing a blue flame. The Ans. A substance which gives oxygen for oxidation is called
oxygen-ethyne flame is extremely hot and produces a an oxidising agent. Alkaline potassium permanganate
very high temperature which is used for welding and acidified potassium dichromate are strong
metals. A mixture of ethyne and air is not used for oxidising agents.
welding because burning of ethyne in air produces a Q. 12. Would you be able to check if water is hard by using a
sooty flame due to incomplete combustion, which is detergent?
not hot enough to melt metals for welding. Ans. No, we would not be able to check whether a sample of
Q. 10. How would you distinguish experimentally between an water is hard by using a detergent because a detergent
alcohol and a carboxylic acid? forms lather easily even in hard water.
Ans. All the carboxylic acids decompose sodium Q. 13. People use a variety of methods to wash clothes.
hydrogencarbonate giving brisk effervescence of Usually after adding the soap, they ‘beat’ the clothes on
carbon dioxide gas whereas ethanol does not react with a stone, or beat it with a paddle, scrub with a brush or
sodium hydrogencarbonate. the mixture is agitated in a washing machine. Why is
Experiment : agitation necessary to get clean clothes?
Ans. Agitation is necessary to get clean clothes because
(i) Take two test tubes, label them as A and B. the soap micelles which entrap oily or greasy
(ii) Take about 0.5 g of sodium hydrogencarbonate particles on the surface of dirty cloth have to be
(NaHCO3) in each test tube. removed from its surface.When the wetted cloth in
(iii) Add 2 mL of ethanol in test tube A and 2 mL of soap solution is agitated, the micelles containing oily
ethanoic acid in test tube B. or greasy dirt particles get removed from the surface
of dirty cloth and go into the water and the dirty cloth
(iv) We can observe the gas bubbles in test tube B. No
gets cleaned.
such bubbles are seen in test tube A. Pass the gas

NCERT Exercise
Q. 1. Ethane with the molecular formula C 2 H 6 has : Ans. (b) The fuel is not burning completely.
(U.P. 2019) Q. 4. Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond
(a) 6 covalent bonds (b) 7 covalent bonds formation in CH 3Cl.
(c) 8 covalent bonds (d) 9 covalent bonds Ans. CH 3Cl is chloromethane. It is made up of one carbon
H H atom, three hydrogen atoms and one chlorine atom.
| | Carbon atom has 4 outermost electrons, each hydrogen
Ans. (b) 7 covalent bonds: H — C — C — H atom has 1 electron and chlorine has 7 outermost
| | electrons. Carbon shares its four outermost electrons
H H with three hydrogen atoms and one chlorine atom to
form CH 3Cl as follows :
Q.2. Butanone is a four carbon compounds with the
functional group : H H
(a) carboxylic acid (b) aldehyde
(c) ketone (d) alcohol 3H + Cl + Cl H C Cl or H C Cl
Ans. (c) Ketone H
H
Q. 3. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting
blackened on the outside, it means that : Each atom in CH 3Cl has a noble gas electron
(a) the food is not cooked completely. arrangement. Carbon attains the nearest noble gas
(b) the fuel is not burning completely. configuration of neon, hydrogen acquires the
configuration of helium while chlorine achieves the
(c) the fuel is wet. configuration of argon. Chloromethane contains three
(d) the fuel is burning completely. C — H and one C — Cl covalent bonds.
 44

Q. 5. Draw the electron dot structures for : Q. 7. How can ethanol and ethanoic acid be differentiated on
(a) ethanoic acid (b) H 2S the basis of their physical and chemical properties?
(c) propanone (d) F2 (U.P. 2019, 20)
Ans. On the basis of physical properties: (i) Ethanol has
H O burning taste whereas ethanoic acid has sour taste.
O (ii) Boiling point of ethanol is 351 K whereas that
|| of ethanoic acid is 391 K (iii) Melting point of
Ans. (a) H C C O H CH 3 — C— O — H
ethanol is 156 K whereas that of ethanoic acid is 290
K. (iv) Ethanoic acid turns blue litmus to red whereas
H ethanol does not.
On the basis of chemical properties: Ethanoic acid
. . reacts with sodium hydrogen carbonate to produce
(b) H S H H— S
. .— H CO 2 gas whereas ethanol does not react.
CH 3COOH + NaHCO 3 ¾ ¾® CH 3COONa + CO 2
H H + H 2O
C 2 H 5OH + NaHCO 3 ¾ ¾® No reaction.
(c) H C C C H CH — C— CH Q. 8. Why does micelle formation take place when soap is
3 3
|| added to water? Will a micelle be formed in other
H O H O solvents such as ethanol also?
Ans. Soaps are sodium salts of long chain fatty acids. Two
ends of soap molecule have different properties. The
hydrocarbon part ( R ) is hydrophobic whereas the ionic
(d) F F F—F part (COO- ) is hydrophilic. When soap is dissolved in
water, the RCOO- ions are present at the surface with
Q.6. What is a homologous series? Explain with an COO - groups in water and the hydrocarbon chains ( R )
example. (U.P. 2019, 20) staying away from it. But at higher concentration they
Ans. A homologous series is a group of organic compounds are pulled into the bulk of solution and aggregate in a
having same functional group and similar chemical spherical form with their hydrocarbon chains pointing
properties in which the successive compounds differ towards the centre with COO - part remaining
by CH2 group. They can be represented by same outwards on the surface. The aggregate formed is
general formula. known as ionic micelle. Micelle formation does not take
place in ethanol.
Homologous series of alkanes : All the alkanes have
Q. 9. Why are carbon and its compounds used as fuels for
similar structures with single covalent bonds and show most applications?
similar chemical properties. Therefore, alkanes can be
Ans. Carbon and its compounds are used as fuels because
grouped together in the form of a homologous series. they burn in air releasing a large amount of heat energy.
The first six members of the homologous series of
alkanes are given in the following table : C + O2 ¾ ¾® CO 2 + Heat
Table: Homologous Series ¾® CO 2 + 2H 2O + Heat
CH 4 + 2O 2 ¾
Compound Molecular Formula Difference
Q. 10. Explain the formation of scum when hard water is
treated with soap.
Alkanes CnH2n + 2(General formula) Ans. Hard water contains Ca 2+ and Mg 2+ ions due to the
1. Methane CH4 presence of their dissolved salts. Soap reacts with
Ca 2+ and Mg 2+ ions to form the precipitate (scum).
2. Ethane C2H6 Formation of scum hinders the formation of lather.
3. Propane C3H8 — CH2 — 2 Sodium soap + Ca 2+ ¾ ¾® Calcium soap + 2Na +
Precipitate (scum)
4. Butane C4H10
2+
2 Sodium soap + Mg ¾® Magnesium soap + 2Na +
¾
5. Pentane C5H12
Precipitate (scum)
6. Hexane C6H14 Q. 11. What change will you observe if you test soap with
litmus paper (red or blue)?
 45

Ans. A soap is the salt of a strong base (sodium hydroxide) Or Write short note on cleansing action of soap.(U.P. 2019)
and a weak acid (carboxylic acid), so a solution of soap Ans. Cleansing Action of Soap : A soap molecule consists
in water is basic in nature. Being basic, a soap solution of two dissimilar parts :
will turn red litmus paper blue. (i) A short ionic part comprising the carboxylate salt,
Q.12. What is hydrogenation? What is its industrial — COO - Na + . This is the polar end. This is water
application? (U.P. 2019) soluble (i.e., hydrophilic or water attracting) and,
Ans. The addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated therefore, remains attached to water.
hydrocarbon to get a saturated hydrocarbon is called (ii) A long hydrocarbon chain which is the non-polar
hydrogenation. This process takes place in the end. This end is hydrophobic i.e., water repelling)
presence of nickel or palladium metals as catalyst. It and is soluble in oil and grease.
has an important industrial application. It is used to – +
prepare vegetable ghee from vegetable oils. Vegetable COO Na
oils such as groundnut oils, cotton seed oils and Non-polar end Polar end
C17H35
mustard oils are unsaturated and also contain double (Hydrophobic) (Hydrophilic)
Oil soluble end Soap molecule Water soluble end
bonds (C == C). On hydrogenation (addition of
hydrogen), in the presence of nickel as catalyst, When soap is dissolved in water, it forms a colloidal
vegetable oil produces vanaspati ghee. suspension. In this colloidal suspension, the soap
H H molecules cluster together to form micelles and remain
R R radially suspended in water with the hydrocarbon end
Ni Catalyst towards the centre and the ionic end directed outward.
C C + H2 ¾¾¾¾¾® R C C R
R R Heat This is shown in the figure.
R R Dirt particles
Vegetable oil Vanaspati ghee (oil or grease)
(Liquid state) (Solid state) Na
+

Q. 13. Which of the following hydrocarbons undergo addition Soap

reactions? Na
+
Oils
molecule
C 2 H 6 , C 3 H 8 , C 3 H 6 , C 2 H 2 and CH 4 . Water

Ans. The unsaturated hydrocarbons undergo addition +

Na
reactions. Out of the given hydrocarbons, C 3 H 6 Na
+

(alkene) and C 2 H 2 (alkyne) are unsaturated.

Therefore, C 3 H 6 (propene) and C 2 H 2 (ethyne) will The dirt particles always adhere to the oily or greasy
undergo addition reactions. layer present on the skin or clothes. When a dirty cloth
Q. 14. Give a test that can be used to differentiate between is dipped into a soap solution, its non-polar
butter and cooking oil. hydrocarbon end of micelles attach to the grease or oil
Ans. If a carbon compound decolourises bromine water, it present in dirt and polar end remains in water layer.
will be an unsaturated compound. Thus, we can The mechanical action of rubbing subsequently,
distinguish between a cooking oil and butter by the dislodges the oily layer from the dirty surface shaping
bromine water test. it into small globules. A stable emulsion of oil in water
(i) Cooking oil decolourises bromine water. This is formed. The emulsified oil or grease globules
shows that it is an unsaturated compound. bearing the dirt can now be readily washed with water.
(ii) Butter does not decolourise bromine water. This The magnesium and calcium salt present in hard water
shows that it is a saturated compound. react with soap molecule to form insoluble product
Q. 15. Explain the mechanism of the cleaning action of soaps. called scum. This scum create difficulty in cleansing
action.
(U.P. 2019, 20)
ccc
 46

Chapter

5 Periodic Classification
of Elements

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Elementary or typical element is : (U.P. 2015, 17) (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
(a) Na (b) K (c) Se (d) He Q.12. The formula of oxide of an element M is MO. The
Q. 2. Which of the following elements is highly electro- formula of its nitrate will be :
negative? (U.P. 2014, 16) (a) MNO 3 (b) M ( NO 3 ) 2
(a) I (b) Na (c) Br (d) Mg (c) M 2 NO 3 (d) M 3 ( NO 3 ) 2
Q. 3. The acidic oxide is : (U.P. 2014, 15) Q. 13. In Mendeleev’s periodic table gap was not left for one
(a) Al 2O 3 (b) K 2O (c) MgO (d) P2O 5 of the following elements. This element is :
Q. 4. The highly electronegative element is : (U.P. 2016, 18 ) (a) gallium (b) beryllium
Or Which of the following is the most electronegative? (c) germanium (d) scandium
(U.P. 2018) Q. 14. Long form of periodic table made by :
(a) Ne (b) F (c) Ar (d) Br (a) Dobereiner (b) Newlands
Q. 5. Amphoteric oxide is : (U.P. 2014) (c) Bohr (d) Mendeleev
(a) Na 2O (b) MgO (c) Al 2O 3 (d) P2O 5 Q. 15. The element which form an acidic oxide has the atomic
Q. 6. Uranium is : (U.P. 2016, 19) number is :
(a) alkali metal (b) non-metal (a) 6 (b) 16 (c) 12 (d) 19
(c) stable metal (d) inner transition metal Q. 16. The element which form basic oxide has the atomic no. is :
Q. 7. Element showing a diagonal relation are : (a) 18 (b) 17 (c) 14 (d) 19
(U.P. 2011, 17, 19) Q. 17. What type of oxide would Eka - aluminium form?
(a) Li and Be (b) Li and Mg (a) EO (b) EO 2 (c) E 2O 3 (d) EO 3
(c) Li and Na (d) Al and Si Q. 18. Formula of chloride of an element is MCl 2 . Write the
Q. 8. Alkaline earth metal are : formula of its oxide. (U.P. 2018)
(a) Li, Na, K (b) Fe, Co, Ni (a) MO 2 (b) MO (c) M 2O 3 (d) M 2O
(c) Ba, Sr, Ca (d) Cu, Ag, Au Q. 19. Neon is a: (U.P. 2019)
Q. 9. The basis of modern periodic classification of element (a) alkali metal (b) inert gas
is: (U.P. 2012) (c) metalloid (d) transition metal
(a) atomic mass (b) atomic number Q. 20. Alkali metal are: (U.P. 2020)
(c) Mendeleev (d) Mosley (a) Be, Mg, Ca (b) Li, Na, K
Q.10. The scientist who propounded the modern periodic law? (c) B, Al, Ga (d) Ca, Ag, Au
(a) Prout (b) Newland Q. 21. Which of the following element is member of second
(c) Mendeleev (d) Mosley group? (U.P. 2020)
Q. 11. The valency of oxygen is : (U.P. 2012) (a) Li (b) Mg (c) B (d) Si

Answers
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (b)
 47

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. State the fundamental (Mendeleef) periodic law? Atomic weight of Mg = Equivalent weight ´ Valency
(U.P. 2019, 20) = 12 ´ 2 = 24
Or Mendeleef ’s periodic table was based on which law? Q. 9. Write the formula of alkaline oxide and neutral oxide.
(U.P. 2019) Ans. Alkaline oxide = Na 2O, Neutral oxide = SiO 2
Ans. The physical and chemical properties of the elements Q. 10. Explain the periodicity is the following properties in
are the periodic function of their atomic weight second period of periodic table :
(masses). (i) Metallic character (ii) Ionization potential
If elements are arranged increasing order of atomic Ans. (i) On going from left to right in a period metallic
weight then some properties elements will repeat. character decreases.
Q. 2. State the modern periodic law. (U.P. 2013, 16, 19) (ii) On going from left to right in a period ionization
Ans. The physical and chemical properties of elements are potential increases.
the periodic function of their atomic numbers. Q. 11. Why do group 1 elements form unipositive ions?
If elements arranged increasing order of their atomic Ans. Group 1 elements contain 1 electron in their outermost
number then same properties elements will repeat. shells. These elements lose this electron easily to attain
Q. 3. Write two reasons responsible for late discovery of the 8 electrons in their outermost shell. Hence, they
noble gases. from unipositive ion.
Ans. (i) They are very less reactive. For example,
(ii) They are less abundant in nature. K L M K L
Q. 4. Define the diagonal relationship. (U.P. 2019) -

Ans. Diagonal relationship : The properties of some Sodium ( 11Na) 2, 8, 1 ¾-¾ 1e

¾® Na + 2, 8
element of second period resemble with the element of Q. 12. Which is smaller?
third period which are placed diagonally opposite them (a) Na + or Na (b) Cl or Cl -
called diagonal relationship. Ans. (a) Na ® 2, 8, 1 Na + ® 2, 8
Second period Li Be B C +
Na is smaller as it has lesser number of shells
Third period Na Mg Al Si than Na.
Thus the elements Li and Mg, Be and Al, B and Si have
a diagonal relationship. (b) Cl ® 2, 8, 7 Cl - ® 2, 8, 8
Q. 5. The electronic configuration of a element is 2, 8, 7. Cl has greater effective nuclear charge. So, it is
Find the atomic number and place in periodic table of smaller than Cl - .
element. (U.P. 2020) Q. 13. Why did Mendeleev leave some gaps in his periodic
Or Find the period and group in periodic table of a element table?
which is atomic number is 17. (U.P. 2020) Ans. Mendeleev left some gaps in his periodic table for the
Ans. Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7 elements yet to be discovered. He even predicted the
properties of these elements by studying the properties
K L M
of the neighbouring elements.
Period = No. of shell = 3
Q. 14. State modern periodic law. What is number of groups
Group = No. of electron in outer shell = 7, hence and periods in the modern periodic table?(U.P. 2019, 20)
Group = 7 + 10 = 17 (or VII A) Ans. Modern periodic law states that the properties of
Q. 6. Write the position of element with atomic number 11 in elements are a periodic function of their atomic number.
periodic table. There are 18 groups and 7 periods in the modern
Ans. Electronic configuration 11 = 2, 8, 1 periodic table.
K L M Q. 15. Why are the elements of group 18 called zero valent?
Period = 3 Ans. Group 18 elements have their outermost shells
Group = No. of electron in outer shell = 1 (or IA) completely filled and the atoms of these elements have
Q. 7. What do you understand by typical elements ? no tendency to gain or lose electrons. Thus, the
(U.P. 2019) elements of this group are zero valent and almost
Ans. Typical elements : The elements of third period are unreactive.
known as typical or representative elements. Q. 16. Why group 17 elements form uninegative anions?
Third period elements : Na Mg Al Si P Ans. Group 17 elements have 7 valence electrons, one
Q.8. Element Mg is present in second group of periodic electron less than the maximum number of electrons
table. If equivalent weight of Mg is 12 then find its that can be accommodated in the outermost shell.
weight. Therefore, it is easier for these elements to gain an
Ans. Mg belongs to the second group of periodic table. electron and form uninegative anions, so as to attain
Hence, its valency will be 2. noble gas configuration. For example,
 48

K L K L Q. 19. Why does the size of the atom increase down the
-1e- - group?
Fluorine (F) 2, 7 ¾ ¾¾® F 2, 8
Ans. In moving down a group, the charge on the nucleus
Q. 17. How does the metallic character change along the increases with increase in atomic number, but at the
period? same time, there is an increase in the energy levels. The
Ans. As we go from left to right in a period, the metallic number of electrons in the outermost shell, however,
character decreases, because of the addition of an remains the same. Since the effect of additional energy
electron in the same energy shell each time. So, levels outweighs the effect of increased nuclear charge
attraction between the nucleus and the electrons in the and thus the distance of the outermost electron from the
outermost shell increases. Thus, tendency to lose an nucleus increases on going down the group.
electron decreases and metallic character decreases. Q. 20. Noble gases are unreactive. Do their atoms have any
Q. 18. What is atomic radius? Why does atomic radius other thing in common?
decrease across a period? Ans. Except helium, atoms of all other noble gases have 8
Ans. Atomic radius is defined as the distance from the centre electrons in their valence shells. Most of the inert gases
of the nucleus of an atom to the outermost shell of are zerovalent. Their valence shells are completely
electrons. The atomic radius decreases along a period. filled.
In moving from left to right across the period, the Q. 21. What are metalloids, explain with examples?
charge on the nucleus increases by one unit (due to Ans. Elements which give properties of metals as well as of
increase in atomic number), but the additional electron non-metals are called metalloids or semi-metals. The
goes to the same shell. As a result, outer electrons are properties of metalloids are intermediate between
pulled in closer to the nucleus. This causes the decrease those metals and non-metals. B, Ge, As, Sb, Po etc. are
of atomic size. metalloids.
Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks
Q. 1. Write two characteristics of Mendeleev’s original (ii) Valency in relation to hydrogen.
periodic table and write the name of elements of second Ans. (i) Metallic property : On moving from left to right
period. (U.P. 2018 ) in a period, the atomic size of elements decreases,
Ans. (i) Elements are arranged in increasing order of atomic and their ionic potential increases, hence,
weight (masses). electropositivity or metallic character decreases.
(ii) There were seven period (horizontal columns) and Example : In the second period lithium and
eight group (vertical columns) in the original beryllium are more electropositive than carbon
periodic table of Mendeleev. and carbon is more electropositive than flourine.
Commonly elements on the left hand side and
Second period : Li Be B C N O F bottom of the table are highly metallic whereas,
Q. 2. (i) Why do we classify elements? elements on the right hand side and top of the
(ii) In Mendeleev’s periodic table, why was there no table are highly non-metallic.
mention of noble gases like helium, neon and (ii) Valency in relation to hydrogen : In relation
argon? with hydrogen the valency increases from 1 to 4
Ans. (i) Different elements discovered in different times on moving from left to right in a period, then
were found to possess different physical and decreases from 4 to 1.
chemical properties. But, it was difficult to study LiH BeH 2 BH 3 CH 4 NH 3 H 2O HF
all the information or properties of these elements. 1 2 3 4 3 2 1
Scientists started discovering some pattern in Q.4. Which of the following element’s oxide would be
their properties to classify all the known elements strongly alkaline?
in order to make their study easier. So, elements Na, Mg, Al and Si (U.P. 2014)
are classified on the basis of their similarities and Ans. The oxides of Na, Mg, Al and Si would be Na 2O, MgO,
dissimilarities in properties. Al 2O 3 and SiO 2 respectively. The basicity of these
(ii) Noble gases like He, Ne, Ar, etc. were not oxides would decrease from Na 2O to SiO 2 as they
discovered at the time of Mendeleev. They were belong to the same period of the periodic table.
discovered later as they are inert and present in Na 2O MgO Al 2O 3 SiO 2
extremely low concentrations in our atmosphere. Strong alkaline Alkaline Amphoteric Acidic
So, after their discovery they were placed in a new Na 2O and MgO are alkaline as they react with water to
group (18) in modern periodic table. form their corresponding hydroxides.
Q. 3. How do the following properties of elements of second Na 2O + H 2O ¾ ¾® 2NaOH
period change? Explain. (U.P. 2012) Strong base
Strong alkaline
(i) Metallic property (U.P. 2018 )
 49

MgO + H 2O ¾
¾® Mg (OH) 2 Q. 12. Give four properties of long form periodic table.
Weak base
(U.P. 2018 )
Q. 5. Write the electronic configuration of atomic number 19 Or Write a note on the long form of the periodic table.
to give its position in period and group and also give How have the shortcomings in Mendeleev ’s periodic
valency of the element. (U.P. 2015) table rectified in this table? Explain by giving any two
examples. (U.P. 2012)
Ans. Atomic No. (Z) =19
Or How are the defects in Mendeleev ’s periodic table
Electronic configuration 19 K = 2, 8, 8, 1 rectified in the modern periodic table? (U.P. 2012)
K L MN Or With the help of two examples explain the merits of the
Valency = Electron in valence shell =1 long form of periodic table. (U.P. 2011, 17)
Period = No. of shell = 4
Ans. According to the electronic configuration of elements,
Group = No. of valence electron = IA or 1
it can be said that the chemical properties of elements
Q.6. What do you understand by electronegativity of depend on the number of electrons present in their
element explain periodicity?
valence shell, therefore, the atomic number is a more
Ans. Electronegativity is electron attracting power of
element. So, electronegativity of an element higher substantial way of classifying elements. When
then electron attracting power is more. elements are arranged in increasing order of the atomic
number, after a fixed period they show same chemical
F >O >N >C
¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® behaviour or chemical behaviour is repeated after a
decreasing order of EN.
fixed interval when elements are arranged in their
Periodicity of EN : On moving left to right in periodic increasing order of atomic number. Rang, Werner and
table electronegativity increased and down the group
Bury on the above basis made a table known as the
EN decreased.
long form of periodic table or modern periodic table.
Q. 7. If an element X is placed in group 14, what will be the
formula and the nature of bonding of its chloride? The defects in the Mendeleev ’s periodic table were
removed as follows :
Ans. The formula will be X Cl 4. The element X of group 14
will have 4 valence electrons. So, it shares its 4 (1) All the elements in the periodic table are arranged
electrons and forms covalent bond with 4 chlorine according to their increasing atomic numbers and
atoms. atomic number is related with electronic
Q. 8. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of configuration.
their atomic radii : (2) Isotopes are given a separate place in this periodic
(a) Li, Be, F, N (b) Cl, At, Br, I table.
Ans. (a) F < N < Be < Li as the atomic radii decreases
(3) Rare earth metals are placed as lanthanides and
along a period.
actinides in separate series.
(b) Cl < Br < I < At as the atomic radii increases down
a group. (4) Elements having the same properties were placed
Q. 9. Identify and name of the metals out of the following together and elements having different properties
elements whose electronic configurations are given were placed separately e.g, Pt and Au have similar
below: properties, so placed in the same group. Alkali
(a) 2, 8, 2 (b) 2, 8, 1 (c) 2, 8, 7 (d) 2, 1 metals and coinage metals have different
Ans. (a), (b) and (d) are metals. properties, so are placed separately.
(a) Magnesium (b) Sodium (d) Lithium (5) Elements of group VIII have been placed in three
Q. 10. Arrange the following elements in the increasing order vertical columns according to the atomic
of their metallic character: numbers.
Mg, Ca, K, Ge, Ga Q. 13. State and explain Mendeleev ’s original periodic law.
Ans. Ge < Ga < Mg < Ca < K
Explain main difference of Mendeleev’s original
Q.11. Which group of elements could be placed in periodic law and modern periodic law. (U.P. 2015)
Mendeleev’s periodic table without disturbing the
original order? Give reason. Ans. Mendeleev’s periodic table: When Mendeleev’s
classified elements then 63 elements were known.
Ans. Noble gases Based on fundamental periodic law.
According to the Mendeleev’s classification, the
Fandamental periodic law : Physical and chemical
properties of elements are the periodic function of their
properties of elements are periodic function of their
atomic masses and there is a periodic recurrence of
atomic mass.
elements with similar physical and chemical
properties. Noble gases being inert, could be placed in If elements are arranged in increasing order of atomic
a separate group without disturbing the original order. mass then some properties of elements repeated.
Properties:
 50

(i) There were seven periods (Horizontal rows) and from the nucleus and it become easy for the elements to
eight groups (Vertical columns) in the original lose electrons and form cations. Thus electro-positive
periodic table of Mendeleev. character increases on going down the group.
(ii) This periodic table based on atomic mass. Q.15. Mendeleev named three missing elements as (i)
Limitations of MENDELEEV's PERIODIC table: eka-boron, (ii) eke-aluminium and (iii) eka-silicon.
1. Position of hydrogen was not assigned correctly. What names were given to these three elements after
their discovery?
2. No separate position has been given to isotopes of
an element. Ans. The prefix ‘eka’ describes the preceding element in the
same group. So, eka-boron means first comes boron
3. Some elements having higher atomic mass are and then the unknown element in the same group.
placed before the elements with lower atomic mass. Eka-aluminium means first comes aluminium and then
Q. 14. Explain the metallic characters in a period and a group the unknown element. Eka-silicon means that comes
of elements with reason. (U.P. 2020) after silicon in the same group. The names given to
Ans. On moving from left to right in a period, the metallic these elements after their discovery are scandium,
character (electropositive character) decreases gallium and germanium respectively.
whereas non-metallic character (electronegative Q. 16. The velency of silicon is 4 and that of chlorine is 1,
character) increases. Because, when we move from why?
left to right in period, the nuclear charge increase and Ans. Electronic configuration of silicon is 2, 8, 4. Silicon
velency electrons are attracted more strongly by the needs 4 more electrons to have the electronic
nucleus. Therefore, it becomes more difficult for the configuration of the nearest noble gas, argon.
atoms to lose electrons. Metals form cations by lossing
Electronic configuration of chlorine is 2, 8, 7. Chlorine
the electrons, the positive character (metallic character)
needs 1 more electron to have the electronic
decreases on moving from left to right in period.
configuration (2, 8, 8) of the nearest inert gas, argon.
On going down a group, the metallic character
Therefore, silicon is tetravalent and chlorine is
increases and non-metallic character decreases. monovalent.
Because we go down the group, the atomic radius
increases. The velency electrons become farther away

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. (a) How could the modern periodic law remove (b) Atomic number is always a simple whole number.
various anomalies of Mendeleev’s periodic table? It can either be 1 or 2. There can be no element
Explain with examples. with atomic number 1.5.
(b) Is it possible to have an element having atomic (c) The modern periodic law given by ‘‘Mosely’’ and
number1.5 placed between hydrogen and helium? periodic table given by ‘Bohr’.
(c) Name the scientist who prepared modern periodic Q. 2. (a) Explain the merits and demerits of Mendeleev’s
table. periodic table (U.P. 2011, 12, 13)
Ans. (a) When element arranged according to their atomic (b) Write the main characterstics of long form
number on the basis of modern periodic law, all periodic table? (U.P. 2011, 12, 14)
the anomalies of Mendeleev’s classification Ans. (a) (1) Merits of Mendeleev’s periodic table :
disappear. These are give below :
(i) Discovery of new elements : Mendeleev’s
(i) Explain the position of Isotopes : All the
periodic table left proper gaps far then
isotopes have some atomic number so these
elements placed at one place. undiscovered element like gallium (Ga),
(ii) Explanation for the position of cobalt and scandium (Sc) and germanium (Ge). When
nickel : Atomic number of cobalt is 27 and these elements were discovered later on, they
that of nickel is 28. And modern periodic were placed in those gaps, without disturbing
table based on atomic number so atomic the existing elements.
number 27 should come first and nickel (U.P. (ii) To determine the atomic mass :
28) come later. Mendeleev’s periodic table has proved
(iii) Explain for the position of hydrogen: useful in correcting the wrongly known
Hydrogen element has been placed at the top masses of elements by the following way:
of group 1, above the alkali metals because Atomic weight = Equivalent weight
electronic configuration of hydrogen is ´ Valency
similar to those of alkali metals. Both (iii) An easy way to study elements : It became
hydrogen and alkali metals have 1 valence easy to study the physical and chemical
electron each. behaviour of elements as by just studying the
 51

behaviour of one element. We can know the In a particular group on moving top to bottom
behaviour of all other elements in that group radii of atom increased because no. of shell
because all of them would exhibit the same increased.
behaviour. This is why the elements have (ii) Electronegativity : It is electron attracting power
been classified as such. of an elements.
(b) Demerits of Mendeleev ’s periodic table : Periodicity of electronegativity : In a particular
(i) Position of hydrogen : In his table on moving left to right electronegativity increased
Mendeleev had placed hydrogen with alkali because radius decreased while in a particular
metals in group I, as it forms electropositive group moving top to bottom electronegativity
ions like alkali metals. It was also placed in decreased.
group VII with halogens, as it showed (iii) Ionisation potential : It is energy required to
electronegativity like them, so hydrogen remove an electron from isolated gaseous atom.
occupied two places in Mendeleev ’s Periodicity of Ionisation potential : On moving
periodic table, which is not possible and left to right in a particular period, Ionisation
hence is attributed as a demerit. potential increased because size of atom decrease.
In a particular group on moving top to botom IP
(ii) Elements with different properties were decreased because size of atom increased.
placed in the same group : Mendeleev had (iv) Metallic character : Refer Que. No. 14 from short
placed elements exhibiting similar chemical answer type question.
behaviour in one group, but still there were (v) Electropositive character : It is electron
some elements that showed different donating power of an element. Metals shows
chemical behaviour and were placed in the electropositive characters.
same group. Periodicity of electropositive character: In a
Example : Alkali metals, elements of group particular group on moving left to right
I A and coinage metals of group I B were electropositive nature decrease because size of
placed in one group and they exhibit atom decreased. While on moving top to bottom
in a group electropositive character increased due
different chemical behaviour.
to increase in size.
(iii) Elements showing different chemical (vi) Alkaline property of oxide : Metal oxides are
behaviour were placed in different groups alkaline in nature.
: Some elements showing similar chemical Periodicity of alkaline nature of oxide : On
behaviour were placed in different groups. moving left to right in a particular period alkaline
Example : Pt (195.09) and Au (196.97) show nature of oxide decreased because metallic
similar chemical behaviour but were placed character decreased. While on moving top to
in group VIII and group I separately. bottom in a group alkaline nature of oxide
Likewise copper and mercury, barium and increased due to increase in metallic character.
lead etc. show same chemical behaviour, but Alkaline nature of oxide µ Metallic character
were placed in different groups. Q. 4. Write down the four utility of Mendeleef’s periodic
table. (U.P. 2020)
(b) Refer the Que. No. 12 in short answer.
Ans. (i) Mendeleef’s periodic table made the study of
Q. 3. What changes are observed in the following properties elements and their compound easy.
of elements in a period on going from left to right in the
periodic table? (U.P. 2015) (ii) While prepararing the periods table, Mendeleff
(i) Atomic radii (ii) Electronegativity left some gaps for undiscovered elements. Such as
scandium (Sc), gallium (Ga) and germanium (Ge).
(iii) Ionisation potential (iv) Metallic character These elements were discovered later and were
(v) Electropositive character placed in the gaps left for them without
(vi) Alkaline property of oxide disturbingth position of existing elements. The
Ans. (i) Atomic radii : It is the distance between the properties of these elements have been found to be
nucleus and outer shell of atom. similar to those already predicted by Mendeleef.
Periodicity of Atomic radii : On moving left to (iii) Mendeleef named these elements (Sc, Ga, Ge) by
right in a particular period atomic radii is prefixing a sanskrit numeral, ‘eka’ (one) to the
decreased because effective nuclear charge name of preceding element in the same group. Sc,
increase. Ga and Ge have properties similar to boron,
 52

aluminium and silicon respectively. The element (vi) When all the inert gases (noble gases) were
before Sc in group 3 is boron. Therefore Sc was discovered, they were placed in separate group
name as eka-boron. The element before Ga in (zero group) with out disturbing the original
group 3 is aluminium and it was named Mendeleef’s periodic table.
eka-aluminium. Similarly, the element Ge in
group 4 was name as eka-silicon.

NCERT Intext Questions

Q.1. Did Dobereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of reactive and formed compounds with most
Newlands’ octaves? elements. The formulae of the oxides and
Ans. This is deleted for syllabus of 2021 examination. hydrides formed by an element were treated as
one of the basic properties of an element for its
Q. 2. What were the limitations of Dobereiner’s classification?
classification. He then took 63 cards and on each
Ans. This is deleted for syllabus of 2021 examination. card he wrote down the properties of one element.
Q. 3. What were the limitations of Newlands’ Law of octaves? He selected the elements with similar properties
Ans. This is deleted for syllabus of 2021 examination. and pinned the cards together on a wall. He
Q. 4. Use Mendeleev’s periodic table to predict the formulae observed that most of the elements got a place in a
for the oxides of the following elements : periodic table and were arranged in the order of
their increasing atomic masses.
(i) K (ii) C (iii) Al (iv) Si (v) Ba
Q. 7. Why do you think the noble gases are placed in a
Ans. (i) The element K is in group I of Mendeleev’s separate group?
periodic table in which the general formula of the Ans. Noble gases are very unreactive. So, they are placed in
oxides of elements is R 2O, therefore, the formula a separate group, i.e., zero group.
of oxide of K will be K 2O. Q. 8. How could the Modern periodic table remove various
(ii) The element C is in group IV of Mendeleev’s anomalies of Mendeleev’s periodic table?
periodic table in which the general formula of the Ans. With the adoption of atomic number as the basis of
oxides of elements is RO 2 , therefore, the formula classification of elements, some of the anomalies in the
of oxide of C will be CO 2 . Mendeleev’s periodic table now disappear. These are :
(iii) The element Al is in group III of Mendeleev’s (i) Position of hydrogen : The atomic number of
periodic table in which the general formula of the hydrogen is 1 and hence, it should occupy the first
oxides of elements is R 2O 3 , therefore, the position in group 1 of the periodic table. But,
formula of oxide of Al will be Al 2O 3 . because of its chemical similarity with elements
(iv) The element Si is in group IV of Mendeleev’s of group 1 and group 17, the position of hydrogen
periodic table in which the general formula of the in the periodic table is still debated.
oxides of elements is RO 2 , therefore, the formula (ii) Position of isotopes : As the isotopes of an
of oxide of Si will be SiO 2 . element have the same atomic number, they should
(v) The element Ba is in group II of Mendeleev’s occupy the same place in the periodic table.
periodic table in which the general formula of the
(iii) Position of anomalous pair : The position of
oxides of elements is RO, therefore, the formula of
oxide of Ba will be BaO. anomalous pair of elements, i.e., pair of elements
Q. 5. Besides gallium, which other elements have since been in which the element with higher atomic mass
discovered that were left by Mendeleev in his periodic precedes the element with lower atomic mass is
table? (any two). also decided. When these elements are arranged in
Ans. Scandium and Germanium. order of their atomic numbers, they occupy their
Q. 6. What were the criteria used by Mendeleev in creating natural places in the periodic table as shown in the
his periodic table? following table:
Ans. When Mendeleev started his work, 63 elements were Anomalous pair of elements
known. He tried putting the elements in order of
their atomic masses. He also examined the Pair of elements Atomic Atomic Group
weight number
relationship between the atomic masses of the
elements and their physical and chemical (i) Cobalt 58.9 27 9
properties. Among chemical properties, Nickel 58.7 28 10
Mendeleev concentrated on the compounds (ii) Tellurium 127.6 52 16
formed by elements with oxygen and hydrogen. Iodine 126.9 53 17
He selected hydrogen and oxygen as they are very
 53

Q. 9. Name two elements you would expect to show (iii) Element Atomic Electronic
chemical reactions similar to magnesium. What is the number Configuration
basis of your choice? Helium (He) 2 2
Ans. Beryllium (Be) and Calcium (Ca) are the two elements Neon (Ne) 10 2, 8
which will show chemical reactions similar to Argon (Ar) 18 2, 8, 8
magnesium because Be and Ca belong to the same Q. 11. (i) Lithium, sodium, potassium are all metals that
group (group 2) of the periodic table as magnesium react with water to liberate hydrogen gas. Is there
(group 2). All of these have same number of electrons any similarity in the atoms of these elements?
(i.e., 2) in their outermost shell. (ii) Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of
Q. 10. Name : extremely low reactivity. What, if anything, do
their atoms have in common?
(i) three elements that have only a single electron in Ans. (i) All these metals have one electron in their
their outermost shells. respective outermost shells.
(ii) two elements that have two electrons in their Also, all these elements of group 1 form basic oxides.
valence shells. (ii) The outermost shells of the atoms of helium and
neon are completely filled with electrons.
(iii) three elements with completely filled outermost Q. 12. In the modern periodic table, which are metals among
shells. the first ten elements?
Ans. The first ten elements are : H, He, Li, Be, B, C, N, O, F,
Ans. (i) Element Atomic Electronic Ne. Among these, only two elements Li (lithium) and
number Configuration
Be (beryllium) are metals.
Lithium (Li) 3 2, 1
Sodium (Na) 11 2, 8, 1 Q. 13. By considering their position in the periodic table,
Potassium (K) 19 2, 8, 8, 1 which one of the following elements would you expect
to have maximum metallic characteristic?
Ga Ge As Se Be
(ii) Element Atomic number Electronic Ans. Maximum metallic characteristic is found in elements
Configuration on the extreme left side of the periodic table. Out of the
Beryllium (Be) 4 2, 2 above given elements, beryllium (Be) will have the
Magnesium (Mg) 12 2, 8. 2 maximum metallic characteristic because it is on the
extreme left side in the periodic table (group 2).

NCERT Exercise
Q. 1. Which of the following statements is not a correct (d) a total of two shells, with three electrons in its
statement about the trends when going from left to right valence shell?
across the periods of periodic table? (e) twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature. first shell?
(b) The number of valence electrons increases. Ans. (a) Ne (2, 8) (b) Mg (c) Si (2, 8, 4) (d) B (2, 3)
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily. (e) C (2, 4)
(d) The oxides become more acidic. Q. 4. (a) What property do all elements in the same column
Ans. (c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily. of the periodic table as boron have in common?
Q. 2. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl 2 , (b) What property do all elements in the same column
of the periodic table as fluorine have in common?
which is a solid with a high melting point. X would most
likely be in the same group of the periodic table as: Ans. (a) They all have a valency of 3.
(b) They all have a valency of 1 because all have 7
(a) Na (b) Mg (c) Al (d) Si valence electrons.
Ans. The element X forms a chloride X Cl 2 , therefore, its
Q. 5. An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 7.
valency is 2. Out of the given elements Na, Mg, Al and (a) What is the atomic number of this element?
Si, the element of valency 2 is Mg. So, X would most (b) To which of the following elements would it be
likely be in the same group of the periodic table as Mg. chemically similar? (Atomic numbers are given in
Q. 3. Which element has : parentheses.)
(a) two shells, both of which are completely filled N (7) F (9) P (15) Ar (18)
with electrons? Ans. (a) The atomic number of this element is obtained by
(b) the electronic configuration 2, 8, 2? adding all the electrons present in its electronic
(c) a total of three shells, with four electrons in its configuration.
valence shell? \ Atomic number = 2 + 8 + 7 = 17
 54

(b) The electronic configuration of the given element Ans. (a) Nitrogen (N) — At. No. = 7
Electronic configuration = 2, 5.
= 2, 8, 7
(b) Phosphorous (P) — At. No = 15
Valence electron in its atom = 7 Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 5
This element will be chemically similar to that Thus, nitrogen will be more electronegative because its
element which has the same valence electron (7). atom has small size due to which the attraction of its
The electronic configuration of the above nucleus for the incoming electron is more.
elements are : Q. 8. How does the electronic configuration of an atom
relate to its position in the modern Periodic Table?
(i) N (7) : 2, 5 (5 valence electron) Ans. The group number of elements having upto two valence
(ii) F (9) : 2, 7 (7 valence electron) electrons is equal to the number of valence electrons.
(iii) P (15) : 2, 8, 5 (5 valence electron) The group number of elements having more than two
(iv) Ar (18) : 2, 8, 8 (8 valence electron) valence electrons is equal to the number of valence
electrons plus 10. For example,
Clearly, F (9) has 7 valence electrons just like that
of the given element. Hence, the given element of No. of valence Group number
electrons in the periodic table
atomic number 17 will be chemically similar to
1 1
the element fluorine (F) of atomic number 9. Group number = Number of
2 2 valence electrons
Q. 6. The position of three elements A, B and C in the
periodic table are shown below : 3 3 + 10 = 13
Group 16 Group 17
4 4 + 10 = 14
— — 5 5 + 10 = 15
— A 6 6 + 10 = 16
— —
B C 7 7 + 10 = 17
8 (or 2 valence 8 + 10 = 18
(a) State whether A is a metal or a non-metal. electrons in K shell)
(b) State whether C is more reactive or less reactive
than A. The number of electron shells in the atom of an element
(c) Will C be larger or smaller in size than B? is equal to the period to which that element belongs in
(d) Which type of ion – cation or anion, will be the Periodic Table. Also, the number of valence shell
formed by element A? electrons increases by one unit as the atomic number
Ans. (a) Metals lie on the left-hand side of the periodic increases by one unit on moving from left to right in a
table whereas non-metals arc found on the period.
right-hand side. The element A is in group 17.
Group 17 is on the right side of the periodic table. Li Be B C N O F Ne
Thus, element A is a non-metal (called halogen). 2, 1 2, 2 2, 3 2, 4 2, 5 2, 6 2, 7 2, 8
(b) The chemical reactivity of non-metals decreases Q. 9. In the modern periodic table, calcium (atomic number
on going down in a group. In group 17, the 20) is surrounded by elements with atomic numbers 12,
chemical reactivity decreases on going down in a 19, 21 and 38. Which of these have physical and
group. So, element C is less reactive than A. chemical properties resembling calcium?
(c) The atomic size decreases in moving from left to Ans. The atomic numbers of three elements which lie in the
right along a period. So, atom C will be smaller in same group are 12, 20 and 38. So, the elements having
size than B. atomic numbers 12 and 38 have physical and chemical
(d) The element A of group 17 has 7 valence properties resembling with calcium.
electrons. So, it will gain one electron to form a
Atomic number Electronic configuration
negatively charged ion (A - ). The negatively 12 2, 8, 2
charged ion is called an anion. So, element A will 20 2, 8, 8, 2
form an anion. 38 2, 8, 18, 8, 2
Q. 7. Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and phosphorus (atomic
number 15) belong to group 15 of the Periodic Table. Q. 10. Compare and contrast the arrangement of elements in
Write the electronic configuration of these two Mendeleev’s periodic table and the modern periodic table.
elements. Which of these will be more (U.P. 2015, 17, 19)
electronegative? Why?
 55

Ans. Mendeleev’s Periodic Modern Periodic Table (v) No proper places are (v) Isotopes of elements
. Table assigned to isotopes are assigned the same
(i) Elements have been (i) Elements have been of elements. place as they have
arranged in order of arranged in the order same atomic number.
their increasing of their increasing (vi) There are misfit (vi) When atomic
atomic masses. atomic numbers. anomalous pair on number is taken as
(ii) There are only eight (ii) There are eighteen the basis of atomic the basis of
vertical columns vertical columns, masses. classification, the
called groups. called groups. misfit anomalous
pair have been
(iii) Transition elements (iii) Transition elements removed.
are arbitrarily placed are placed in the
together in a single middle of the table.
group VIII. ccc
(iv) The inert gases were (iv) The inert gases have
not known at the time been placed at the
of Mendeleev. end of periodic table
i.e., Group 18.
 56

Chapter Unit-2: Living Kingdom

6A Life Processes:
NUTRITION
Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark
Q. 1. Light absorbing pigment in plants is : (b) Alkaline pH
(a) Chlorophyll (b) Xanthophylls (c) Both acidic and alkaline pH
(c) Phycoerythrin (d) Lycopene (d) Neither in acidic nor in alkaline pH
Q. 2. The organism having parasitic mode of nutrition is : Q. 15. The process of obtaining food by Amoeba is known as :
(a) Penicillium (b) Plasmodium (a) Dialysis (b) Cytokinesis
(c) Paramecium (d) Parrot (c) Phagocytosis (d) Amoebiasis
Q. 3. The O 2 in photosynthesis comes from : (U.P. 2012, 16) Q. 16. The length of small intestine in a human adult is about :
(a) Air (b) Water (a) 4.5 m (b) 1.5 m (c) 3.5 m (d) 6.5 m
(c) CO 2 (d) Chlorophyll Q. 17. The process of digestion in human is completed in :
Q. 4. Heterotrophic nutrition is found in : (a) Oesophagus (b) Small intestine
(a) Animals and Fungi (b) Plants and Fungi (c) Stomach (d) Large intestine
(c) Plants and Animals (d) None of these Q. 18. What does a liver secrete ? (U.P. 2017, 18, 19)
Q. 5. Gaseous exchange in plants is carried out by : (a) Saliva (b) Gastric juice
(a) Stomata (b) Respiration (c) Bile juice (d) Pancreatic juice
(c) Transpiration (d) Xylem Q. 19. Pancreatic juice contains enzymes which digest :
Q. 6. Number of guard cells present in stomata is : (U.P. 2009)
(a) Five (b) Four (c) Three (d) Two (a) Proteins and carbohydrates only
Q. 7. Photosynthesis takes place in : (U.P. 2016) (b) Proteins and fats only
(a) Mitochondria (b) Grana of chlorophyll (c) Fats and carbohydrates
(c) Ribosome (d) Stroma in chlorophyll (d) Proteins, fats and carbohydrates
Q. 8. Iodine gives blue colour with : Q. 20. Where are proteins first digested in the alimentary
(a) CO 2 (b) Starch (c) Fats (d) Glucose canal?
Q. 9. The plant process that reduces air pollution is: (a) Small intestine (b) Oesophagus
(U.P. 2013, 14, 18) (c) Mouth (d) Stomach
Or Plants help in reducing pollution by: (U.P. 2017) Q. 21. The internal energy (cellular energy) reserve in
(a) respiration (b) photosynthesis autotrophs is :
(c) protein synthesis (d) transpiration (a) Proteins (b) Fatty acids
Q. 10. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires : (U.P. 2019) (c) Glycogen (d) Starch
(a) CO 2 and H 2 O (b) Chlorophyll Q. 22. In which of the following groups of organism the food
(c) Sunlight (d) All of these material is broken down outside the body and then
absorbed?
Q. 11. Guard cells are found in : (U.P. 2020)
(a) Mushroom, green plants, Amoeba
(a) Root (b) Stomata
(b) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
(c) Stem epidermis (d) None of these
Q. 12. The pH of saliva is : (c) Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta
(a) 7.4 (b) 7.0 (c) 6.8 (d) 6.2 (d) Cuscuta, Lice, tapeworm
Q. 13. Ptyalin acts on : Q. 23. Emulsification of fats is done by :
(a) Glucose (b) Fats (c) Proteins (d) Starch (a) Enzyme lipase (b) HCl
Q. 14. The action of enzyme pepsin can occur in : (c) Bile juice (d) Pancreatic juice
(a) Acidic pH Q. 24. Mainly absorption of the digested food is done by :
 57

(a) Duodenum (b) Stomach (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B

(c) Large intestine (d) Small intestine (c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin C
Q. 25. The number of milk teeth present in human are: Q. 28. ATP and NADP. 2H are produced in: (U.P. 2019)
(U.P. 2018) (a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplast
(a) 20 (b) 28 (c) 24 (d) 32 (c) Peroxisomes (d) Lysosomes
Q. 26. Bile juice is secreted from: (U.P. 2018, 19) Q. 29. Made up of only nucleic acid and proteins are:
(a) Pancreas (b) Gall bladder (U.P. 2019)
(c) Liver (d) Stomach (a) Bacteria (b) Chloroplast
Q. 27. Soluble only in water is: (U.P. 2019) (c) Viruses (d) Prions
Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (c)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. Which is the basic requirement of living organisms for Ans. Enzymes are proteins which acts as bio-catalysts. They
obtaining energy? help in increasing or decreasing the rate of biochemical
Ans. Food is the basic requirement of living organisms for process.
obtaining energy. Q. 10. Name the organelle in which photosynthesis occurs.
Q. 2. Which of the following is an autotroph? Green plant or Ans. Chloroplast.
Man. Q. 11. Where is light reaction take place?
Ans. Green plant. Ans. Grana (Thylakoids).
Q. 3. Name two inorganic substances which are used by Q. 12. Name the part of chloroplast, where dark reaction is
autotrophs to make food. carried out?
Ans. CO 2 and H 2O. Ans. Stroma.
Q. 4. What is the mode of nutrition in fungi? Q. 13. Give two functions of stomata.
Ans. Saprophytic nutrition. Ans. Two functions of stomata are : (a) Transpiration (b)
Q. 5. Which is the largest gland in the human body? Gaseous exchange.
Ans. Liver. Q. 14. What is digestion?
Q. 6. Define nutrition. (U.P. 2016) Ans. It is a process, in which complex food is simplified
with the help of enzymes, so that it can be absorbed and
Ans. The function of obtaining food and its assimilation in
assimilated in the body.
the body for their survival, growth and works is called
nutrition. Q. 15. Name the salivary glands found in the buccal cavity.
(U.P. 2010, 12, 13, 14)
Q. 7. Define the term nutrients.
Ans. Three pairs of salivary glands found in the buccal
Ans. Nutrients are the substances, which are essential for
cavity :
biosynthesis of body constituents. Nutrients give
energy and help in growth of an organism. (i) Parotid (ii) Sub-lingual (iii) Sub-mandibular.
Q. 8. Define photosynthesis. (U.P. 2015, 17, 18) Q. 16. Liver is located in which part of our body?
Ans. Photosynthesis is the process in which plants use Ans. It is placed in the upper right side of the abdomen.
sunlight and chlorophyll to synthesise their food by Q. 17. What are the functions of bile juice? (U.P. 2020)
utilising carbon dioxide (CO2 ) and water (H 2O). Ans. Bile juice in the intestine, makes the medium alkaline
Oxygen gas is released during this process. (pH 7.6-7.7). It also helps in the emulsification of fats,
which is necessary for their digestion.
6CO 2 + 6H 2O ¾sunlight
¾ ¾® C 6 H12O 6 + 6O 2 Q. 18. What are villi? What is their functions?
chlorophyll
Carbohydrate Ans. Villi are the finger like projections of mucosa, in the
(Glucose) entire intestinal region of alimentary canal. These villi
Most of the photosynthesis occurs in the leaves of the increase the surface area, which help in better digestion
plant. But a small amount of photosynthesis may be and absorption of food materials.
occur in green stem and twigs. Q. 19. What is a mixed gland? Give an example.
Q. 9. What are enzymes? Ans. A gland which has endocrine as well as exocrine
functions, is called a mixed gland. e.g. Pancreas.
 58

Q. 20. What is photolysis of water? Ans. Pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which contains
Ans. During light reaction of photosynthesis, some water enzymes like amylase, lipase and trypsin.
molecules decomposes in the presence of light. Due to â Amylase help in breakdown of carbohydrates.
this decomposing, O 2 gas is released. This reaction is â Lipase help in breakdown of complex fat
known as photolysis of water. molecules.
Q. 21. Which part of the solar radiation do plants utilise for
Q. 24. What is the source of protons to reduce NADP + to
photosynthesis?
NADPH?
Ans. Plants utilise a small part of visible range of the solar
Ans. Water
radiation, mainly orange and red light and small
amount of blue light, Green light is not used for Q. 25. Which hormone regulate blood sugar rises ?
photosynthesis. Ans. Insulin.
Q.22. In which type of light maximum photosynthesis occurs? Q. 26. Write the name of enzyme present in saliva and tell what
Ans. Red light. function it has got? (U.P. 2019)
Q. 23. Write the name and functions of two digestive enzymes Ans. Salivary amylase (ptyalin). It convert starch into sugar
at pH of 6.8.
secreted by pancreas. (U.P. 2018)

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. What is autotrophic nutrition? Explain in brief with (a) Herbivores : Animals who depends directly on
example. (U.P. 2019) plants for food, are called herbivores. e.g. Cow,
Ans. Autotrophic nutrition is that mode of nutrition in Deer, etc.
which some organisms make its own food using (b) Carnivores : Animals who eat the flesh of other
simple inorganic material like CO 2 and H 2 O in the animals, are called carnivores. e.g. Lion, Tiger,
presence of sunlight energy. These organisms are Frog, etc.
called autotrophs. e.g. green plants, autotrophic (c) Omnivores : Animals who can eat both plants and
bacteria, chemosynthetic bacteria. flesh of other animals e.g. Man, Crow, etc.
Q. 2. What is the difference in living beings and non-living Q.6. Describe the role of water in the process of
beings? Plants are living beings, Why? Explain it? photosynthesis.
Ans. All living (unicellular and multicellular plants and Ans. During light reaction, water undergoes photolysis to
animals) are active and they perform different types of generate protons. During this process, O 2 gas is also
life-processes. The basic functions performed by evolved. The NADPH 2 are used in dark reaction to
living organisms to maintain their life on the earth is reduce CO 2 to form carbohydrates. In this way water
called life-processes. These processes differentiate plays a major role in formation of food.
living things (which are alive) from non-living things. Q. 7. How does absorption take place in the small intestine
Some basic life processes common to all the living of the human beings?
things are: nutrition, respiration, transportation, Ans. Most of the digested food is absorbed in ileum part of
reproduction, growth, excretion and control small intestine. This part contain finger-like
co-ordination etc. All the life processes are important projection are called villi. These villi increase the
for life of organism. Plants are living beings. surface area for absorption. The absorbed food goes to
Q. 3. Differentiate between autotrophs and heterotrophs. the blood capillaries present in villi.
Q. 8. What are dental caries? How can these be prevented?
Ans. Organisms which can prepare their food themselves
Or Describe the tooth decay. (U.P. 2020)
using inorganic raw material like CO 2 , water and
sunlight, etc. are called autotrophs. Ans. Decay of teeth is called dental caries. If teeth are not
brushed up properly, bacterial colonies are developed
On the other hand, those organisms, which can not
between the gaps. Masses of bacterial cells together
directly use inorganic raw material to prepare their with food particles stick to the teeth to form dental
food are called heterotrophs. plaque. The bacteria continue to produce acids, which
Q. 4 Differentiate between herbivores and carnivores. gradually soften the enamel and a hole is created into
Ans. The animal which feed directly on green plants and the enamel. The acid destroys the underlying dentine
their products, are called herbivores. e.g. Goat, Cow, and reaches upto pulp cavity. This is very painful
etc. On the other hand, those animals which feed on condition. If not treated properly, it leads to complete
the flesh of herbivores, are called carnivores. e.g. decay of tooth.
Lion, Tiger, etc. Regular oral hygiene and brushing the teeth after
Q. 5. Classify animals on the basis of their food habits. eating is very helpful in preventing such caries.
Ans. Animals can be classified into three main groups on Brushing removes the plaque before the bacteria
the basis of their food habits : produce acids.
 59

Q. 9. What is compensation point? (iii)The mucus helps to protect the stomach wall from
Ans. When the rate of photosynthesis is equal to rate of its own secretions of hydrochloric acid.
respiration, it is called as compensation point. Q. 17. In given diagram, name the part ‘A’ and ‘B’ and state
Compensation point is usually reached at dusk and one function of each. (U.P. 2012, 13, 14, 15, 16)
down and on a cloudy day. Or Describe the function of stomata in plants.(U.P. 2019)
Q. 10. All plants give out O 2 during day and CO 2 during Or What is stomata? Write its importance. (U.P. 2020)
night. Do you agree with this statement? Give reason. A

Ans. During day time, as the rate of photosynthesis is more

than the rate of respiration, the net result is evolution
of O 2 . At night there is no photosynthesis, so they
give out CO 2 due to respiration.
Q. 11. How does water affect the rate of photosynthesis in
plants? (U.P. 2012, 14)
Ans. Water affects the rate of photosynthesis indirectly.
Water stress causes the stomata to close, thus reducing
the availability of CO2 . It also causes the leaves to B
wilt, reducing the surface area for photosynthesis.
Fig.: Structure of Stomata

Q. 12. What is the role of acid in our digestion? (U.P. 2020) Ans. The small openings present on the surface of leaves,
Ans. When food reaches stomach, the disgestion of green parts and other soft aerial parts of the plants are
proteins begins. Gastric juice, secreted by stomach called stomata.
wall contains hydrochloric acid (HCl) and various ‘A’ : Stomatal pore
enzymes like pepsin and rennin, which partially digest Function : Gaseous exchange takes place in the
the proteins. HCl serves to activate these enzymes and leaves through these pores for the purpose of
also makes the medium acidic. photosynthesis.
Gastric lipase may digest a little fat, but there is no ‘B’ : Guard cell
digestion of carbohydrates in stomach. Function : The opening and closing of the stomatal
Q. 13. What is peptic ulcer? How is peptic ulcer caused? pore is a function of the guard cell. When these cells
Ans. An ulcer on the inner membrane lining of the stomach become turgid then the stomata gets opened, while
is called peptic ulcer. Peptic ulcer is caused by the when they turn flaccid then the stomata gets closed.
high acidity of gastric juice secretions. Q. 18. What are the various processes that takes place in the
Q. 14. What causes movement of food inside the alimentary duodenum?
canal? Ans. Processes that takes place in the duodenum are :
Ans. The wall of alimentary canal contains muscle layers. (i) Bile emulsifies the fat molecules present in the
Rhythmic contraction and relaxation of these muscles food into small globules.
pushes the food forward. This is called peristalsis, (ii) The pancreatic enzymes trypsin starts digesting
which occurs all along the gut. the proteins and the pancreatic amylase break
Q. 15. Explain the role of mouth in digestion of food. down the starch.
Or What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food? (iii)Bicarbonate ions secreted by the duodenal wall
(U.P. 2019) makes the medium alkaline.
Q. 19. List the three events that occur during the process of
Ans. Food is crushed into small pieces by the teeth. It mixes
photosynthesis.
with saliva and the enzyme ptyalin breaks down starch
Ans. (i) Absorption of light energy by the green pigment
into sugars. Tongue helps in through mixing of food
chlorophyll.
with saliva.
(ii) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
Q. 16. What substance are contained in the gastric juice?
and the spliting of water molecule into oxygen
Give their functions.
and hydrogen. This oxygen is released by the
Ans. Gastric juice contains these substances— plants into the atmosphere. This reaction occurs in
Hydrochloric acid, enzyme pepsin and mucus. grana part of chloroplast.
Functions : (iii) CO2 reduced with the help of assimilatory power
(i) HCl in the stomach is used to make the medium (formed in light reaction) to form carbohydrate
acidic to facilitate the action of the enzyme pepsin (food). This reaction occur in stroma. It is dark
and kill bacteria if any. reaction, because it does not require the presence
(ii) Pepsin digests proteins to convert them into of light.
peptones. First two reactions [(i) & (ii)] are light dependent
reaction, because they occur in presence of light.
60

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1 What is nutrition? Define autotrophic nutrition and its Q. 2. Describe the nutrition process in Amoeba. (U.P. 2016)
types with suitable example. (U.P. 2019) Ans. The mode of nutrition in Amoeba is holozoic. So it
Ans. Nutrition is a process of intake, as well as utilisation of does not absorb its food but ingested its food.
nutrients by an organism. Therefore, nutrition The various steps involved in the process of nutrition
involves all the activities, which are concerned with are:
the intake of food (ingestion) and digestion and 1. Ingestion : Amoeba has no mouth for the
assimilation in the body for growth and work. Two ingestion of food. Amoeba ingests food by using
mode of nutrition are: its pseudopodia. when a food particle comes near
(1) Autotrophic nutrition (2) Heterotrophic nutrition. Amoeba, then Amoeba ingests this food particle by
(1) Autotrophic nutrition : Some ogranisms, like green forming temporary finger-like projections called
plants do not obtain their food from surroundings. They pseudopodia around it.
can synthesise their food by themselves by using 2. Digestion : In Amoeba, food is digested in the
sunlight and inorganic material (CO2 and water). Such food vacuole by digestive enzymes. The enzymes
organism (green plants and some bacteria) are called form surrounding cytoplasm enter the food
autotroph. We can now say that, autotrophic nutrition vacuole and breakdown the food into small and
is that mode of nutrition in which an organism make or soluble molecules by chemical reactions. Thus
synthesises its own food from the simple inorganic digestion in Amoeba takes place inside the food
material (CO2 and H 2O ) present in the surroundings
vacuole due to which the food dissolves.
with the help of sunlight. Food is organic material like 3. Absorption : The digested food present in the
glucose etc. Autotrophic organisms contain the green food vacuole of amoeba is absorbed directly into
the cytoplasm of cell by diffusion. The digested
pigment called chlorophyll which is capable of
food just spread out from the food vacuole into the
trapping sunlight energy. For example autotroph whole of amoeba cell. After absorption of food,
make their own food by photosynthesis. the food vacuole disappears.
Photosynthesis is a process in which green plant using 4. Assimilation : A part of the food absorbed in
sunlight and chlorophyll to synthesise food by amoeba cell is used to obtain energy through
utilising atmospheric CO2 and water. Oxygen gas is respiration. The remaining part of absorbed food is
released during photosynthesis. used to make the parts of Amoeba cell which lead
6CO 2 + 6H 2O ¾sunlight
¾ ¾® C 6 H12O 6 + 6O 2 ­ to the growth of Amoeba. Thus, on assimilating
chlorophyll
Glucose (food) oxygen food Amoeba grows in size and then reproduce
into two daughter cells.
(2) Heterotrophic nutrition : It is that mode of nutrition
in which an organism can not make (synthesise) its
own food from simple inorganic materials (like CO2
and H 2O) and depends on the other organisms for its
food. All the animals have a heterotrophic mode of
nutrition. Most bacteria, yeast and fungi also have
heterotrophic mode of nutrition. Heterotrophic mode
of nutrition is of three types:
(i) Saprotrophic nutrition, (ii) Parasitic nutrition,
(iii) Holozoic nutrition
(i) Saprotrophic Nutrition– Organism obtain its
nutrients (food) from the dead and decaying
organic matter of dead plants, dead animal and
rotten bread etc. Example– Many fungi,
mushrooms, Rhizopus.
(ii) Parasitic Nutrition– In this mode of nutrition an
organism obtain its food from other living organism Fig.: Different stages in the nutrition (feeding) of Amoeba.
without killing them.
5. Egestion : Amoeba has no fixed place (like anus)
Example–Various fungi, Cuscuta, roundworm.
for removing the undigested part of food. when a
(iii)Holozoic Nutrition– In holozoic mode of nutrition considerable amount of undigested food collects
organism takes the complex organic food materials inside Amoeba, then its cell membrane suddenly
into its body by process of ingestion. Example– Man, ruptures at any place and the undigested food is
frog, dog, lion etc. thrown out of the body of Amoeba.
 61

Q. 3. What is digestion? Draw a labelled diagram of human acidity of food and activates the proenzymes of
digestive system. With the help of this diagram, describe pancreatic juice. Three types of enzymes are
the process of digestion of food in man.(U.P. 2012, 16) present in pancreatic juice.
Or Draw a well labelled diagram of human digestive system (a) Trypsin : Acts on semi-digested
and explain the digestive process. (U.P. 2019) proteins and peptones and converts
Or Draw a labelled diagram of human digestive system. them into amino acid.
Describe the process of digestion. (U.P. 2019) (b) Amylopsin : Converts sugar and starch
Or Draw a well labelled diagram of human digestive system into glucose.
and describe the process of digestion of stomach and (c) Steapsin : Acts on fats and converts
small intestine. (U.P. 2019) them into fatty acids and glycerols.
Ans. There are five main steps in the process of nutrition in Most of the digestion is completed in
man: duodenum. Rest food is digested in
(i) ingestion, (ii) digestion, (iii) absorption, ileum.
(iv) assimilation, (v) egestion. (B) Digestion in Ileum : Intestinal juices are
secreted from the glands of ileum. These are
(i) Ingestion: The process of taking food into the body is many enzymes in it, e.g., erepsin which
called ingestion. Human beings, food is ingested through converts rest of the protein into amino acid,
the mouth. Maltase, invertase, lactase, etc., which converts
(ii) Digestion : The process by which complex insoluble sugar to glucose and lipase converts fat to
organic food is converted into simple soluble molecules glycerol and fatty acids.
(can be absorbed by body) is called digestion. The All components of food get digested
digestion of food starts as soon as use put food in our completely in small intestine.
mouth.
Digestion in Alimentary Canal of Man: The digestion
in different parts of alimentary canal is as follows :
1. Digestion in Buccal cavity : In buccal cavity, the
food is chewed and mixed with saliva. Salivary
glands in our mouth produce saliva. Ptyalin (salivary
amylase) enzyme is present in saliva. It acts on starch
and converts into sugar (Maltose). The food remains
in the mouth only for short time, so the digestion of
food remains incomplete in mouth. The slightly
digested food in the mouth in swallowed by the
tongue and goes down the food pipe called
oesophagus. The oesophagus carries food to the
stomach.
2. Digestion in Stomach : The food grinder conti-
nuously in stomach due to peristalsis movement. The
gastric juice from gastric gland mixes in it.
Hydrochloric acid (HCl), enzyme propepsin and
prorenin, etc. are present in gastric juices. The
proenzymes are activated by HCl and this protects the
food for spoiling. Propepsin with the acid changes into
pepsin and digestion of protein of food. At the same
time prorenin convert into renin and separate protein
from milk. Pepsin effects proteins and they convert
into peptones. There is no digestion of carbohydrates
in stomach. Now food goes to small intestine.
3. Digestion in small intestine: The small intestine is a
coiled and narrow tube. It is the longest part of (iii)Absorption : After digestion, the molecules of
alimentary canal. It is about 6.5 metres long in an food become so small that they can pass
adult man. Small intestine is divided into three through the walls of the small intestine and go
regions: duodenum, jejunum and ileum. into our blood . This is called absorption.
(A) Digestion in duodenum : First bile juice and (iv) Assimilation : The blood caries digested food to
then pancreatic juices mixes in the chyme of all the parts of the body where it becomes
duodenum. Bile juice is alkaline. It removes the assimilated as parts of the cells. This assimilated
62

food is used by the body cells for obtaining energy Experiment showing the necessity of chlorophyll
as well as for growth and repair of the body. in photosynthesis : Take a potted plant with
(v) Egestion : Undigested food is sent to rectum, variegated
where from it is passed to outside through anus. leaves. Keep it
The act of expelling the faces is called egestion. for 48 hours in
Q.4. What is photosynthesis? With the help of dark place and
experimentprove that chlorophyll, CO 2 and sunlight then for 6 Black paper
are essential for photosynthesis. (U.P. 2013,15,17) hours in
Or What is photosynthesis? Explain using suitable sunlight. Take
diagram that CO 2 and light are necessary for the the leaf and Clip Blue part
process of photosynthesis. (U.P. 2018) boil it. Test for
Ans. Photosynthesis : The process by which green plants starch is
make their own food (like glucose) from CO2 and water conducted by
by using sunlight energy in the presence of chlorophyll, iodine Colourless part
is called photosynthesis. O2 gas is released during solution. Only Fig. Basic mechanism of photosynthesis
photosynthesis. The process of photosynthesis can be green parts of
represented as :
the leaf show positive results, i.e., blue colour with
6CO 2 + 6H 2O + light energy iodine solution. The starch is not formed in those
(Carbon dioxide) (Water) (From sun) place where green colour was not present in the
Chlorophyll variegated leaf. Starch is formed only in green in
¾¾¾¾¾ ¾® C 6 H12O 6 + 6O 2
(photosynthesis) green parts of the leaf showing that chlorophyll is
(Glucose) (Oxygen) necessary for photosynthesis.
(A food)
Experiment showing the necessity of CO2 : Cut a cork
of a wide mouth bottle into two parts from the centre. Put
KOH solution inside the bottle and place destarched leaf
between the two parts of cork in such a way that half
parts of third leaf is placed inside the bottle and half
outside the bottle. KOH is responsible for absorbing
CO2 from the atmosphere (bottle). Place the setup in
sunlight for 2-3 hours and test the leaf for starch with
iodine solution. Half leaf part which was inside the bottle
shows absence of starch. Where as half free part shows
positive test for starch, CO2 is not available to the leaf (a) (b)
inside the bottle because KOH absorbed all the CO2 Fig. : Variegated leaf : (a) Before starch test,
from the air, hence no starch was formed. This shows (b) After starch test
that CO2 is necessary for photosynthesis. This
experiment is also called Mall's experiment. Q. 5 What is transpiration? Describe the importance of it
with diagram. (U.P. 2020)
Or Explain the transpiration. How many types of
transpiration are found is plants? Explain the stomatal
transpiration with diagram . (U.P. 2016, 17, 18)
Ans. The loss of water from the aerial parts (leaves, green
parts) of the plants in the form of water vapour is
called transpiration. It a physical process but it can
also be considered as biochemical process regulated
Fig. : Experiment to show that CO2 is necessary by the protoplasm of the cell. Transpiration is more in
for photosynthesis day and least during night.
Types of Transpiration:
Experiment showing the necessity of light in There are following types of transpirations-
photosynthesis : Take a potted croton plant and 1. Stomatal transpiration: Leaves, green shoots
destarch its leaves by keeping it in dark for 2-3 days. and other modified forms of stem have many
Cover both the upper and lower surface of a leaf with small openings on their surface called stomata.
the help of black paper and put the setup in sunlight The stomata help the plant for exchange of gases
for 4-6 hours. Detech the leaf and test for the presence during respiration. They are made up of a pair of
of starch. Only part of leaf that could get light turns kidney shaped cells called guard cells, which
blue showing the presence of starch in it. This shows govern the opening and closing of stomata. About
that the light is essential for photosynthesis. 90% of total transpiration occurs from stomata.
 63

2. Cuticular transpiration: The outer part of the Importance of Transpiration

plants and the leaves are covered by cuticle. They 1. Removal of excess water: Plants continuously
also play important role in transpiration. This is absorb water from the soil with the help of root
called cuticular transpiration. hairs by the process of osmosis. The water
3. Lenticular transpiration: The stem and absorbed by the plants is much more as compared
to the required water. Thus the excess water is
branches of the trees have numerous openings needed to be removed out and the process
called lenticels. Some water vopour is released involved is called transpiration.
from thesel enticels also. About 1% of total 2. Absorption of mineral salts: Transpiration and
transpiration is through these lenticels. absorption are interrelated. More the transpiration
Mechanism of Opening and Closing of Stomata occurs in plants more is the water absorbed by them.
The openings present on the surface of the leaves, Soil water has less amount of mineral salts, thus
green parts and other soft aerial parts of the plants more is the water absorbed more is the mineral salt
have small openings called stomata. They are made absorbed by the plants. More transpiration also
up of specific kidney shaped cells present in a pair; these increases osmotic pressure of the cell sap, thus more
are called the guard cells. These cells are different mineral salts can enter the plant cells.
from the other epidermal cells as they have 3. Transpirational pull and ascent of sap:
chloroplasts in them and can perform photosynthesis. Transpiration creates a specific force called
These cells can become turgid or flaccid due to suction force or suction pressure which is
change in their turgor. required for ascent of sap. This pressure results
into the ascent of sap even the tall trees.
4. Temperature regulation: Transpiration helps in
Open
stomatal temperature regulation. Due to transpiration the
Pore water vapour formed on the surface of the plants
Outer
results results into decrease in temperature of the
Guard thin wall plants. Thus the plant is saved from being affected
Closed
cells
stomatal by high temperature.
Inner Pore 5. Even distribution of water: It results into even
thick wall
Fig. : Open and closed stomata
distribution of water in the plant cells and tissues.
6. Concentration of sugars: Due to transpiration
When these cells become turgid then the stomata gets the concentration of sugar increases in the fruits
opened, while when they turn flaccid then the stomata thus increase the sweetness in the fruits.
gets closed. As the cells become flaccid then the water 7. Formation of mechanical tissues and
from the surrounding cells (subsidiary cells) enters the membranes: More transpiration results into more
guard cells by the process called osmosis. The inner development of mechanical tissues of the plants,
wall being thick result in outward expansion of guard this increses the tensile strength of the plants.
cells resulting into opening of stomata. When the These tissues prevent the fungal and bacterial
osmotic pressure decreases then the water moves out attacks on the plants e. g., cuticle on the outer
of these guard cells and they turn flaccid resulting into epidermis of the plants.
closing of stomata. NOTE: See NCERT intext questions and exercise questions
after Chapter 6D.
ccc
 64

Chapter

6B Life Processes:
RESPIRATION

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q.1. In glycolysis the net gain of ATP molecules is : (d) Nostrils ® Pharynx ® Larynx ® Trachea ®
(U.P. 2014) Alveoli
(a) 2 (b) 0 (c) 4 (d) 8 Q.10. Krebs’ cycle is takes place in which cell organelle?
Q. 2. Glycolysis takes place in : (U.P. 2015) (a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplast
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Ribosome (c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus
(c) Mitochondria (d) Endoplasmic reticulum Q.11. The energy currency in cellular process is:
Q. 3. One of the following organisms can live without O 2 of (U.P. 2018, 19)
air. This organism is : (a) NADH (b) ADP (c) GTP (d) ATP
(a) Amoeba (b) Yak (c) Yeast (d) Leach Q.12. The two organisms breath only through their moist skin :
Q.4. Which of the following is not produced during (a) Fish and Frog (b) Leach and earthworm
anaerobic respiration in cellular fungus? (c) Frog and earthworm (d) Fish and earthworm
(a) C 2 H 5OH (b) H 2O (c) CO 2 (d) ATP Q.13. Which of the following is most appropriate for
Q.5. Fermentation in human body occurs in the cells of : anaerobic respiration?
(a) Bones (b) Muscles (a) Glucose ® Pyruvate ® CO 2 + Energy
(c) Brain (d) Does not occurs (b) Glucose ® Lactate ® CO 2 + Ethanol + Energy
Q.6. During respiration the exchange of gases takes place in : (c) Glucose ® Ethanol ® CO 2 + Energy
(a) Bronchi (b) Alveoli (d) Glucose ® Pyruvate ® Ethanol + CO 2
(c) Bronchioles (d) Trachea Q.14. The breathing and respiration in woody stem of a plant
Q.7. Which of the following increases in muscles cells when take place through :
they are lacking in O 2 ? (a) Root hair (b) Lenticels
(a) CO 2 (b) Lactose (c) Closed stomata (d) Open stomata
(c) Lactic acid (d) Uric acid Q.15. The product of alcoholic fermentation is: (U.P. 2018)
Q.8. When air is blown from mouth into a test tube (a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Butanol
containing lime water, the lime water turns into milky (c) Methyl alcohol (d) All of these
due to the presence of : Q.16. Which of the following is most likely to have a much
(a) O 2 (b) CO 2 higher breathing rate?
(c) N 2 (d) water vapour (a) Man (b) Fish (c) Dog (d) Sparrow
Q.9. Which of the following is the correct sequence of air Q.17. During the deficiency of O 2 in tissues of human being,
passage during inhalation? pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid in :
(a) Nostrils ® Larynx ® Pharynx ® Trachea ® (a) Cytoplasm (b) Chloroplast
Lungs
(c) Mitochondria (d) Golgi body
(b) Nasal passage ® Trachea ® Pharynx ® Larynx
Q.18. Power house of cell is: (U.P. 2020)
® Alveoli
(a) Chloroplast (b) Mitochondria
(c) Larynx ® Nostrils ® Pharynx ® Lungs
(c) Ribosomes (d) Lysosomes

Answers
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10 (a)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b)
 65

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. What is respiration? (U.P. 2012, 13, 15) Ans. In human body the blood absorbs oxygen inside the
Ans. The process of energy production by the oxidation of lungs, at the surface of alveoli.
food stuff within the body of living beings is called Q. 13. What is carbonic anhydrase?
respiration. Ans. It is an enzyme, which is present in blood plasma and
Q. 2. Define breathing . inside the RBCs. It results in the formation of carbonic
Ans. The intake of O 2 and elimination of CO 2 from the body acid from CO 2 and H 2O.
is called breathing. This process is essential for Q. 14. How many ribs are found in human body?
respiration. Ans. Our body has 12 pairs (24) of ribs.
Q. 3. What do you mean by oxidation of food? Q. 15. What are alveoli?
Ans. The complete combustion of organic material of the Ans. Alveoli are small balloon like chambers or air sac,
food to release energy is called oxidation of food. inside the lungs.
Q. 4. How is respiration different from breathing? (U.P. 2019) Q. 16. Where do you find cartilaginous rings?
Ans. Respiration is the process of oxidation of food to Ans. Cartilaginous rings are present on the wall of trachea.
produce energy. It occurs inside the cell. On the other Q. 17. Name the chemical form in which the transportation of
hand. breathing involves the exchange of gases CO 2 occurs in the blood.
between organism and its atmosphere. It occurs outside Ans. The transport of CO 2 occurs in the form of bicarbonate
the cell. ions, carbonic acid and carbamino compounds.
Q. 5. What is respiratory pigment? Q. 18. What is larynx? Describe its function.
Ans. The coloured chemical substance that helps in the Ans. It is a small cartilaginous structure, which is associated
transport of respiratory gases (O 2 & CO 2 ) in the blood with trachea. It contains vocal cords and helps in voice
is called respiratory pigment. e.g., Haemoglobin. production. So it is also known as voice box.
Q.6. Which part of roots involved in the exchange of Q. 19. Which structure covers the gills in fishes?
respiratory gases ? Ans. Operculum.
Ans. Root hairs. Q. 20. What is sternum?
Q. 7. What are lenticels? Ans. It is a single, broad, dragger shaped bone, located
Ans. These are small openings which are found in woody ventrally in chest region.
and older stems for the exchange of respiratory gases. Q. 21. What is emphysema?
Q. 8. Name the pores in a leaf through which respiratory Ans. Emphysema is a disease of lungs, in which some of the
exchange of gases takes place. alveoli and their parts lose their flexibility. This results
Ans. Stomata. in abnormal inflation of the alveoli.
Q. 9. What is diaphragm? Q. 22. What is ATP? (U.P. 2019)
Ans. It is a muscular partition between thoracic and Ans. ATP (Adenosine Tri-phosphate) is the enrgy currency
abdominal cavities in mammalian animals. It plays an of the cell. It is formed from the energy, which is
important role in breathing. released during respiration. One molecule of ADP
Q. 10. What is the functions of epiglottis? (Adenosine Di-phosphate) and one inorganic
Ans. During swallowing, the epiglottis covers the opening phosphate (iP) use this energy and form ATP.
of trachea to prevent the entry of food in it. ADP + (iP) ¾ ¾® ADP ~ (iP) = ATP
Q. 11. What is branchial respiration? This is an endothermic reaction. When the terminal (P)
Ans. Respiration by gills is called bronchial respiration, e.g. group of ATP is broken down (using water), about 30.5
in fish. kJ/mol is released.
Q. 12. Where does the blood absorb O 2 in the human body?

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. ‘Respiration is a vital function of the body’. Justify. is an essential and vital life function, as it generates
Ans. Energy is essential for all living organisms. The energy energy for living organisms.
from food is obtained when the food is oxidized in the Q. 2. Differentiate between respiration and combustion.
presence of O 2 . This process of oxidation of food is (U.P. 2016, 18, 19)
called respiration. In this way the process of respiration
 66

Ans. Respiration is a biochemical process that occurs with in require oxygen. The process is important because it is
living body. It is catalysed by enzymes. It is produced the first step in respiration (i. e., oxidation of food). It is
ATP. On the other hand, combustion is purely a required for both types of respiration—aerobic and
chemical process that does not occur within animal anaerobic.
body. It is also not catalysed by enzymes. It produced Q. 11. How is plant respiration different from animal res-
energy and temperature. piration?
Q. 3. What are stomata ? What is their role in respiration? Ans. The respiration in plants is different from animal
Ans. Stomata are the small opening on the leaf surface. respiration in the following ways:
These are formed by two guard cells. Stomata help in (a) All parts of a plant like the root, stem and leaf
transpiration and also in the exchange of gases. In this perform respiration individually but in animals,
way stomata are helpful in the respiration of leaf the respiration of all body cells is highly
tissues. coordinated.
Q. 4. What is fermentation? (U.P. 2012 ) (b) Due to lack of blood, there is very little transport
Ans. The oxidation of food in the absence of O 2 is called of respiratory gases in plants. But in animals
fermentation or anaerobic respiration. In this process transport of respiratory gases is highly efficient.
food is converted into either ethyl alcohol or lactic acid (c) Respiration in plants occurs at a slower rate than
with the release of very little amount of energy. animals.
Q. 5. How does respiration occurs in the leaves? Q. 12. How are the lungs in human beings to maximise the
Ans. Leaves are aerial structures. They have many tiny pores area for the exchange of gases?
on their surface. These pores are called stomata. The Ans. Lungs are flexible structure and internally contain a
stomata helps in the exchange of gases. The gaseous large number of thin air sacs or alveoli. Alveoli are also
exchange occurs by diffusion. flexible with thin membrane. Alveoli increase many
Q. 6. How does respiration occurs in Amoeba? times the surface area for the exchange of gases.
Ans. Amoeba is a single-celled animal. It lives in fresh water Q. 13. What is meant by residual volume of air? What is its
and uses the O 2 which is dissolved in water for its function?
respiration. O 2 from the water enters the cell body of Ans. The residual volume of air is the minimum volume of air
Amoeba through its cell membrane by the process of which is present in the lungs, during the breathing cycle
diffusion. In the similar manner, the CO 2 is also when air is taken in and let out of the lungs.
eliminated out through the cell membrane to outside. This insure that there is sufficient time for O 2 to be
Q. 7. Describe the respiration process in a fish. absorbs and for the CO 2 to be released.
Ans. Fishes have special organs for breathing called gills. Q. 14. What is cutaneous respiration?
Gills are highly vascular structures. When water passes Ans. In some organisms, like frogs, the skin is moist and is
over the gills, the gills capillaries extract dissolved provided with large number of blood capillaries. In
oxygen from this water. Similarly, CO 2 is released in these organisms skin also participates in breathing
the outgoing water. (gaseous exchange). So the respiration by skin is called
Q. 8. How is O 2 and CO 2 are transported in human beings ? cutaneous respiration.
Ans. O 2 is transported in blood with the help of Q. 15. Give the difference between breathing and respiration.
(U.P. 2019)
haemoglobin. Haemoglobin is present in RBCs, and it
Ans. Difference between breathing and respiration
picks up O 2 and forms oxyhaemoglobin. So oxygen is
transported in the form of oxyhaemoglobin. Breathing Respiration
Transport of CO 2 take place in the dissolved form 1. The process of obtainig 1. The process of releasing
because CO 2 is soluble in water. So large amount of oxygen and releasing energy from food is called
CO 2 gets dissolved in the blood plasma and gets carbon dioxide is called respiration.
breathing.
transported.
Q. 9. Give three points of distinction between aerobic and 2. It is a physical process. 2. It is bio-chemical process.
anaerobic respiration. (U.P. 2015, 18, 20) 3. It takes place in the lungs. 3. It takes place in the lungs
Ans. See short answer type Question -16. as well as in
mitochondria.
Q. 10. What is glycolysis? What is its importance?
4. It utilises energy from the 4. It releases energy from the
Ans. It is a biochemical process, in which the glucose (food ) food. oxidation of simple food.
is converted into pyruvic acid. This process occurs in
the cytoplasm of all living cells. This process does not
 67

Q. 16. Give the difference between aerobic respiration and 2. Complete breakdown of 2. Partial breakdown of food
anaerobic respiration. (U.P. 2015, 17, 18, 20) food occurs in aerobic occurs in anaerobic
Ans. Difference between Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration. respiration.
Respiration: 3. The end products are CO2 3. The end products are
and H2 O. ethanol C2 H5 OH and
Aerobic Respiration Anaerobic Respiration CO2 or lactic acid.
1. Aerobic respiration takes 1. It is takes place in the 4. Aerobic respiration 4. Much less energy is
place in presence of O2 . absence of O2 . produces a considerable produced in anaerobic
amount of energy. respiration.

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q.1. Explain the respiratory system of man with the lungs found alveoli. The alveoli are highly vascular,
diagram. (U.P. 2019) their wall is very thin and it forms respiratory surface
Ans. Respiratory system of Human: Human beings, like for the exchange of gases.
other land animals are air breathers. Lungs are the main 6. Ribs, Inter-costal Muscles and Diaphragm
respiratory organs in human beings. The mode of There are 12 pairs of ribs are found, which forms
respiration in human beings is called pulmonary thoracic cavity. Ribs attached with intercostals
respiration. muscles. These are present in the space between two
The respiratory system in human beings consist of ribs. At the bottom of the thoracic cavity, there is a
following parts : large muscular flap, this is called diaphragm.
1. Nostrils and Nasal Chambers : The tip of nose has two
small holes called nostrils. The nostrils lead internally
Alveoli
into nasal cavity. The hairs inside nostrils clean the air Alveolar
duct
and mucus which is present in nasal cavity. also clean the
Respiratory
air. bronchioles Alveolar
duct
2. Pharynx : The part of throat between the mouth and Terminal
bronchiole
wind pipe is called pharynx. From the nasal passage, air
enters into pharynx and then goes into the wind pipe.
3. Larynx : Larynx is a cartilaginous structure that
Fig.:L unga lveoli areb alloonl ikes tructurep resent inl ungs
produce sound and thus help in speaking. It is located
at the upper top of the trachea. Q.2. Describe the process of aerobic and anaerobic
4. Trachea and Bronchi : Trachea is a long tubular, respiration. (U.P. 2010, 11, 13, 15, 17)
hollow structure, which arises in pharynx and goes to Or What is ATP? How is it formed? What is the use of it?
the middle of the thoracic cavity. It is divided two (U.P. 2019)
bronchus and further it divides into many secondary Ans. For ATP See very short answer Type Qns. 22.
and tertiary branches which form bronchioles. Trachea Aerobic Respiration: The respiration which needs O 2
and all bronchi have 'C' shaped cartilaginous rings on
or occurs in the presence of O 2 is called aerobic
their outer-wall. These rings prevent trachea and
respiration. During this type of respiration, glucose is
bronchi from collapse during expiration.
brokendown into carbon dioxide and water with the
5. Lungs : These release of considerable amount of energy. The energy
are two, balloon is stored in the form of ATP.
like structure,
It consists of two steps :
which are main
respiratory (a) Glycolysis : The conversion of sugar (Glucose)
gs
organs. These are into pyruvic acid is called glycolysis. It occurs in
present in the the cytoplasm.
thoracic cavity. (b) Krebs' cycle : It is the process of converting
These are pyruvate into CO2 and H2 O along with the
covered with release of considerable amount of energy. It
pleura. The left occurs in the mitochondria. One molecule of
lung has two Fig:Respiratorysystemofhumanbeings. glucose liberates 38 ATP molecules during
lobes, while the right lung has three lobes. Inner side of aerobic respiration.
 68

Glycolysis
Glucose ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
¾® Pyruvic acid
(Cytoplasm)
(1 mole) (2 moles)
Oxygen
¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® 6CO 2 + 6H 2O + 38 ATP
(Mitochondria)
(Krebs' cycle)

Anaerobic Respiration : The respiration which takes

place in the absence of O 2 is called anaerobic
respiration. During this respiration glucose is broken
down into ethyl alcohol and CO 2 with the release of
very small amount of energy (2ATP). This type of
respiration occurs in microscopic organisms like yeast,
etc. Fig: Process of breathing, (a) Inspiration, (b) Expiration
In the absence of O2 The process of breathing pumps in O 2 into our body
Pyruvic acid ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾®
(2 moles) and removes CO 2 . Breathing occurs involuntarily but
2C 2 H 5OH + 2CO 2 + 2 ATP the rate of breathing is controlled by the respiratory
(Ethyl alcohol) system of Brain. The average breathing rate in an adult
In human beings, the energy is obtained by aerobic man at rest is about 15 to 18 times per minute. During
respiration but sometimes anaerobic respiration occurs vigorous exercise, the demand for oxygen increases the
in muscles during vigorous exercise when O 2 gets rate by about 20 to 25 times per minute.
consumed faster than its supply by the blood. During Q. 4. Where does exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
the anaerobic respiration in the muscles the glucose is occur in human? Describe its function with diagram.
converted into lactic acid with the release of 2ATP of (U.P. 2009)
energy. Ans. Gaseous exchange in human– Gaseous exchange
(Glycolysis) occurs in the alveoli and in the tissues by the process of
Glucose ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® Pyruvic acid
(In cytoplasm) diffusion along the concentration gradient.
(1 mole) (2 moles)
In absence of O2
Exchange of Gases in the Alveoli
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
¾® Lactic acid + 2 ATP The venous blood from the body tissues reaching the
(Occurs in human muscles) (2 moles) alveoli of the lungs has a low partial pressure of oxygen
ATPs are used by the body for all energy dependent PO (PO = 40 mm Hg) and a high partial pressure of
2 2
processes such as muscle contraction, nerve impulse carbon dioxide (PCO2 = 46 mm Hg). On the other hand
conduction, protein synthesis, metabolism, movement etc. the PO2 in alveolar air is high (PO2 = 98 mm Hg) and
Q. 3. Explain process of breathing in man. (U.P. 2009) PCO2 is low (PCO2 = 40 mm Hg).
Ans. Process of breathing in Human– It is include
following two steps–
Mechanism of breathing : It has two processes–
(i) Inhalation: When we breath in air, the diaphragm
contracts which results in the increase in volume of
chest cavity. Due to this expansion of chest cavity, the
air pressure in the lungs decreases. Thus, air from
Fig: Gaseous exchange in the alveoli of Lungs
outside rushes into the lungs through nostrils, trachea
and bronchi. Therefore, air sacs of lungs get filled with Therefore, oxygen diffuses into the blood, while CO2
air when we breathe in. The exchange of gases between diffuses out from the blood into alveoli. Thus, when the
alveoli and blood takes place by the process of blood flows out of lungs its oxygen concentration is high
diffusion. (PO2 = 98 mm Hg) and the CO2 concentration is low
(ii) Exhalation:Now, the air present in air sacs of the lungs (PCO = 40 mm Hg).
2
is rich in CO 2 . When we breathe out air, the diaphragm Exchange of Gases in the Tissues
relaxes which results in the decrease in volume of chest In the process of cellular respiration, oxygen is
cavity. This contraction pushes the air from the lungs consumed and CO2 is released by the tissues, therefore,
into the trachea, nostrils and then out of the body into the partial pressure of oxygen is less in the tissues
air. Breathing in air is called inhalation (inspiration) (PO = 40 mm Hg) and the partial pressure of CO2 is high
2
and breathing out air is called exhalation. (PCO = 46 mm Hg).
2
 69

The oxygenated blood coming to the tissues has a It causes oxygen to move from capillaries into the
higher PO2 (PO2 = 98 mm Hg) and PCO2 (PCO2 = 40 tissues and CO2 to move from tissues into the blood,
mm Hg) than in the tissues. making it deoxygenated.
Function of gaseous exchange– It provides oxygen to
Tissue
the cells of living organisms so that they can obtain
PO2= PCO2=
40 mmHg 46 mmHg energy from organic molecules.
NOTE: See NCERT intext questions and exercise questions
Arterial Blood Venos Blood after Chapter 6D.
PO2= 100 mmHg 100 mmHg PO2= 40 mmHg
40 mmHg PCO2= 46 mmHg
PCO2= 40 mmHg

Capilary ccc
Fig: Gaseous exchange in the tissue
 70

Chapter

6C Life Processes:
TRANSPORTATION
Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Blood pressure is measured on : Q.12. Instrument used to measure blood pressure is :

(a) Radial artery (b) Vena cava (U.P. 2008)
(c) Aorta (d) Brachial artery (a) Hematometer (b) Manometer
Q. 2. Heart wall is formed by : (c) Sphygmomanometer (d) Barometer
(a) Cardiac muscles (b) Striated muscles Q.13. Blood is oxygenated in :
(c) Smooth muscles (d) None of these (a) Left auricle (b) Pulmonary artery
Q. 3. Transpirational pull theory explains the mechanism of (c) Pulmonary veins (d) Lungs
which phenomenon? Q.14. Translocation of food in plants occurs through :
(a) Transpiration (b) Translocation of food (U.P. 2004, 13)
(c) Ascent of sap (d) Absorption of food (a) Xylem (b) Phloem
Q. 4. The largest vein of the body is : (c) Cortex (d) Stomata
(a) Aorta (b) Inferior vena cava Q.15. In plants upward movement of water and minerals
(c) Superior vena cava (d) Pulmonary vein through xylem tissues is called : (U.P. 2013)
Q. 5. The vein which caries pure blood is : (U.P. 2018) (a) Transpiration (b) Respiration
(a) Aorta (b) Inferior vena cava (c) Translocation (d) Ascent of sap
(c) Pulmonary artery (d) Pulmonary vein Q.16. Tricuspid valve is present between :
Q. 6. The artery which caries impure blood is : (a) Right and left ventricle
(a) Aorta (b) Inferior vena cava (b) Right ventricle and left auricle
(c) Superior vena cava (d) Pulmonary artery (c) Right ventricle and right auricle
Q. 7. The oxygenated blood from the lungs is poured into: (d) Left ventricle and left auricle
(U.P. 2018) Q.17. Food translocated by phloem in the form of :
(a) right auricle (b) right ventricle (U.P. 2014)
(c) left auricle (d) left ventricle (a) Sucrose (b) Protein
Q. 8. The function of W.B.C. is : (c) Hormone (d) Fat
(a) To fight against infection Q.18. Xylem vessels are made up of :
(b) To carry CO 2 (a) Living cells (b) Dead cells
(c) To synthesizes blood proteins (c) Non-living cells (d) Protein
(d) To coagulate blood after an injury Q.19. Haemoglobin plays an important role in : (U.P. 2017)
Q. 9. Platelets help in : (a) Excretion (b) Respiration
(a) Transport of CO 2 (c) Digestion (d) Growth
(b) Coagulation of blood after an injury Q.20. Mineral absorbed by root hairs is in the form of :
(c) To fight against infection (a) Molecule (b) Ions
(d) To destroy toxic particles (c) Compound (d) Gases
Q. 10. Lymph does not contain: (U.P. 2018) Q.21. Dixon and Jolly are associated with : (U.P. 2018)
(a) red blood corpuscles (b) white blood corpuscles (a) Ascent of sap (b) Osmosis
(c) lymphocytes (d) excretory substances (c) Absorption (d) Diffusion
Q.11. Normal blood pressure of a healthy man is about : Q.22. The red colour of the blood is due to : (U.P. 2016)
120 140 120 100 (a) Haeme (b) Nucleic acid
(a) (b) (c) (d)
100 100 80 80 (c) Vitamin C (d) Potassium
 71

Q.23. Which one of the following has cytoplasm but no (a) phloem (b) xylem (c) cortex (d) plasma
nucleus? Q.27. In plants xylem is responsible for: (U.P. 2019)
(a) Xylem vessel (b) Sieve tube Or The functions of Xylem in plants is: (U.P. 2019, 20)
(c) Tracheid (d) Companion cell (a) conduction of excretory waste products
Q.24. Which one of the following does not have valves? (b) conduction of water
(a) Heart (b) Arteries (c) conduction of food
(c) Capillaries (d) Veins (d) conduction of amino acid
Q.25. An animal having double circulation in a three Q.28. The number of chambers in human heart are:
chambered heart is : (U.P. 2020)
(a) Fish (b) Snake (c) Deer (d) Sparrow (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Q.26. Translocation of water and minerals in plants occur
through: (U.P. 2018, 19)
Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10 (a)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. Which organ act as a pump in the circulatory system? Ans. Translocation in plants refers to the transport of
Ans. Heart act as a pump in the circulatory system. assimilated and synthesized food material from to
Q. 2. Where does blood absorb oxygen? different parts of the plant.
Ans. Blood absorb oxygen in the lungs. Q. 12. The absorption of water by roots occurs due to which
Q. 3. What stop blood from flowing backwards through the physical force?
heart? Ans. The absorption occurs under the effect of diffusion.
Ans. Valves. Q. 13. What is transpirational pull?
Q. 4. Name two liquids which help in the transport of Ans. Due to rapid transpiration, demand for more water is
substance in the human body. developed in leaves, which create a suction pressure is
Ans. Blood and Lymph. in the xylem tissues. This suction is called
transpirational pull.
Q. 5. Name the conducting tissue of plants which is made of
Q. 14. What is blood?
sieve tubes along with companion cells.
Ans. Blood is a fluid connective tissue that circulates
Ans. Phloem.
throughout the body for the distribution of various
Q. 6. What is an artery? What type of blood is present in biological substances.
pulmonary artery? Q. 15. The red colour of blood is due to which pigment?
Ans. Arteries are the type of blood vessels which carry (U.P. 2018)
oxygenated blood from heart to different parts of body
Ans. The colour of blood is red due to the presence of
except pulmonary arteries which carry deoxygenated
haemoglobin. Haemoglobin found in RBCs.
blood.
Q. 16. What is the function of Haemoglobin? (U.P. 2018)
Q. 7. What is the function of xylem?
Ans. It is a respiratory pigment, therefore, it helps in the
Ans. Xylem transport water and minerals from the roots to transportation of respiratory gases O 2 and CO 2 .
the leaves.
Q. 17. What is plasma of the blood?
Q. 8. Name two main components of xylem tissues. Ans. It is a colourless liquid which consists of water with
Ans. Two main components of xylem tissues are vessels many substance, like protein, salts, hormones,
and tracheids. enzymes, etc.
Q. 9. What are vascular bundles? Q. 18. Why are the valves needed in the heart?
Ans. The conducting tissue in plants consisting of xylem Ans. In presence of these valves blood does not flow
and phloem are known as vascular bundles. backward when the auricles or ventricles contract.
Q. 10. What do you mean by ascent of sap? Q. 19. What are antibodies?
Ans. The lifting up of water and minerals in a plant is Ans. These are protein molecules, made by white blood
known as ascent of sap. It is perform by xylem. cells (lymphocytes) to fight against infection.
Q. 11. What do you mean by translocation with respect to Q. 20. What are veins? (U.P. 2016)
transport in plants?
72

Ans. Veins are thin walled large vessels that collects Q. 31. Why blood group AB is called universal recipient?
impure blood from various organs and transport it to Ans. Blood group AB is called universal recipient because
the heart. it does not agglutinate with blood from other groups.
Q. 21. Give the function of platelets. Q. 32. Why blood group O is called universal donor?
Ans. Platelets are blood cells, which are responsible for Ans. Blood group O is called universal donor because it has
coagulation of blood i.e., they stop the bleeding. no antigen and, therefore, it can not be agglutinated
Q. 22. Which chemicals is secreted by platelets at the time of with the blood of any other group.
injury? Q. 33. From which chamber aorta arises?
Ans. Tissue thromboplastin. Ans. Aorta arises from left ventricle.
Q. 23. What is the life span of platelets? Q. 34. Name the place where bicuspid or mitral valve is
Ans. Life span of platelets is 7 to 12 days. present.
Q. 24. Why blood does not clot in blood vessels? Ans. Bicuspid or mitral valve is present at left
Ans. Blood does not clot in blood vessels due to presence of interauricular junction.
an anticoagulant, called heparin. Q. 35. Which type of blood vessels have valves?
Q. 25. Who discovered blood groups? Ans. Veins.
Ans. The blood groups were discovered by Carl Q. 36. Which is known as pacemaker of heart?
Landsteiner (1901). Ans. SA node is known as pacemaker of the heart.
Q. 26. What are blood vessels? Name the type of blood Q. 37. What is lymph?
vessels? (U.P. 2017) Ans. Lymph is a colourless fluid, which contains a large
Ans. Blood is circulated from heart to different parts of the number of lymphocyte cells.
body with the help of blood vessels. They are of three
Q. 38. What is ECF?
types:
Ans. ECF stands for extra cellular fluid. It is a colourless
(i) Arteries (ii) Veins (iii) Capillaries
liquid, which is present around the cell in intercellular
Q. 27. Name the blood group. Which is called ‘Universal spaces.
donor’.
Q. 39. From which substance, lymph is originated?
Ans. Blood group O.
Ans. Lymph is originated from ECF. It also combats
Q. 28. Name the blood group. Which is called ‘Universal infection.
recipient’.
Q. 40. What is ECG?
Ans. Blood group AB.
Ans. ECG refers to electro-cardiogram. It is used to check
Q. 29. What are the two types of antigens which determine the health of Heart.
blood group? Q. 41. What is SA node?
Ans. Antigen A and B. Ans. It is sinu-auricular node, which is located at the apex
Q. 30. What are the two types of antibodies found in blood? of right auricle. It generates impules for heart beating.
Ans. Antibodies a and b.

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. What is the meaning of transport of materials in living Ans. When the water reaches the xylem tissues, it moves
beings? upwardly towards stem. This upward movement of
Ans. Transport of material in living beings is vital life water and minerals is called ascent of sap.
process in which various types of biomolecules are Q. 4. Describe briefly the mechanism of translocation of
transported from one place to other. Transport helps food in plants.
in the proper distribution of substance throughout the Ans. The mechanism of translocation of food can be
body according to the need. explained on the basis of Munch hypothesis. This
Q. 2. What is transpiration pull? How it developed in hypothesis says that, translocation of food from
plants? leaves to other parts occurs due to difference in the
Ans. The loss of water creates water deficiency in the concentration of solute (food particles) in different
leaves. So leaves demand more water from stem. Stem parts of the plant.
in turn demands more water from roots. In this way, Q. 5. What is blood? Describes its composition.
this demand for more water, creates a suction pressure Ans. Blood is a fluid connective tissue that circulates
in the xylem tissues. This suction is called throughout the body. It is red in colour. It is composed
transpiration pull. of a fluid medium, known as plasma and three types of
Q. 3. What is meant by ascent of sap? blood cells (i) RBCs (ii) Platelets.
 73

Q. 6. What is plasma? Which chemical substances are Ans. Similar to A, B and O antigens, another types of
present in it? antigens are also found in humans. These are present
Ans. The liquid matrix of the blood is called plasma. It is on the RBCs surface. These are called Rh proteins.
colourless (or slightly yellowish). Most of the plasma These were first discovered on the membrane of
is formed by water. In addition to water, it contains RBCs of Rhesus monkey, hence give this name.
various types of hormones, enzymes, proteins (i) However, these are not found in all human beings. The
fibrinogen (ii) albumin and (iii) gamma globulin and person who has this antigen on their RBCs are called
other chemicals. Rh + while those , in which this antigen is absent are
Q. 7. Describe the structure and function of RBCs . called as Rh – .
Ans. RBCs are very small disc shaped biconcave cells. Q. 13. Write differences between Arteries and Veins.
These have no nucleus and other cell organelles. (U.P. 2014, 15, 16, 18)
These are red in colour due to the presence of a red Ans. Difference between Arteries and Veins–
pigment called haemoglobin inside them.
Arteries Veins
Haemoglobin is the respiratory pigment. One mm 3 of
1. Arteries carry the blood from Veins collect the blood from
blood contains about 5 million RBCs. With the help of heart and supply to different different organs of the body and
haemoglobin RBCs serve to transport respiratory organs. carry it towards the heart.
gases i.e. O 2 and CO 2 . 2. The wall of arteries is thick The wall of veins is thin and
Q. 8. What are W.B.Cs? Name various type of WBCs found and flexible. flexible.
in humans. 3. In arteries muscular layer is In vein muscular layer is thin.
Ans. These are irregular shaped like Amoeba, cells with thick.
different shape of nucleus. It is float freely in blood 4. Arteries have no valves. At Vein have valve, which allow
plasma. These acts as soilders of the body and help to origin place in the heart values the blood to flow towards heart.
prevent infections. Various types of WBCs are - found.
eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils, monocytes and 5. In arteries blood flows at high In veins blood flow at low
pressure. pressure.
lymphocytes.
6. Mostly oxidized blood flows Mostly unoxidised blood flows
Q. 9. What is lymph? What is its importance? in arteries. in veins.
Ans. It is a light yellow coloured liquid, which is present in
7. Arteries are situated in deep in Veins are situated near the skin.
lymphatic ducts and lymph glands. It contains a high the body.
number of lymphocyte cells. But it has no RBCs.
Lymph is very important as it acts as a middle man Q. 14. Write differences between Blood and Lymph.
between blood and extra cellular fluid. (U.P. 2013, 14, 15, 16)
Q. 10. Describe the functions of lymph. Ans. Difference between Blood and Lymph–
Ans. Important functions of lymph are : S.No. Blood Lymph
1. It acts as medium for exchange of nutrients, gases, 1. Blood is red in colour. Lymph is colourless.
hormones, and enzymes between cells. 2. RBCs are present in blood. RBCs are absent in
2. It brings CO 2 and other harmful excretory lymph.
products from cells of tissue to blood. 3. Lymphocytes are present. Lymphocytes are present
3. The lacteals present around villi absorb digested more in number then the
food (Fatty acid and glycerol). blood.
4. Soluble plasma proteins are Insoluble plasma
4. Lymphocytes are produced in the lymph glands of
present in large amount. proteins are present in
lacteals which eat upon bacteria. large amount.
5. It protects the soft tissue and organs. 5. O2 and nutritive substances Excretory products are
Q. 11. Why some persons are called universal recipient and are present in excess amount. present in excess amount.
some others are called universal donors?
Q. 15. What is blood pressure? (U.P. 2012)
Ans. Since, the persons of blood group AB have no
Ans. The pressure at which blood is pumped around the
antibody in their blood, they can receive blood from
body by heart is called blood pressure. It is two types :
all types of donors. Hence, persons with AB blood
group are called universal recipients. (i) Systolic blood pressure : The maximum pressure
On the other hand, the persons with blood group O, can at which the blood leave the heart through the
main artery during contraction phase, is called the
give their blood to any person (because there is no
systolic pressure. The normal systolic pressure is
antibody against antigen O in any person). Hence,
120 mm Hg.
persons with blood group O are called a universal
donors. (ii) Diastolic blood pressure : The minimum
pressure in the arteries during relaxation phase of
Q. 12. What is Rh blood group system?
74

heart is called diastolic pressure. The normal 1. The impure blood comes to right auricle through
diastolic pressure is 80 mm Hg. inferior and superior vena cava. Right auricle
Q.16. What is transpiration? Write down four factors pumps this blood to right ventricle.
affecting transpiration process? (U.P. 2016, 18) 2. Right ventricle sends this blood to lungs for
Ans. Transpiration : The loss of water from the aerial oxygenation, through pulmonary artery.
parts of the plants in the form of water vapours is 3. From lungs, the pure blood is brought to left
called transpiration. Following factors are there to auricle, through pulmonary veins.
influence the process of transpiration.
(i) Temperature: Increased atmospheric tempe- 4. Left auricle sends this pure blood to left ventricle.
rature causes decrease in humidity of air. This 5. Left ventricle sends this blood to entire body
causes increase in transpiration. When through aorta.
temperature decreases, decrease in transpiration
take place.
(ii) Speed of Air : High speed of air causes higher
rate of transpiration. But when the air speed is
high, stomata get closed and causes a decrease in
transpiration.
(iii) Humidity : There is an increase in transpiration Right From
auricle lungs
when atmospheric humidity decrease, while
transpiration decreases with increase in humidity. Pulmonary
vein
(iv) Light Intensity : When intensity of light Left auricle
increases it causes increase in temperature and
decrease in atmospheric humidity which causes
increased rate of transpiration.
Right ventricle Left ventricle
Q.17. Describe the advantage of division of human heart in
right and left parts. (U.P. 2019)
Ans. Human heart has four chambers: 2 auricles and 2 Fig.: Blood flow through heart
ventricles. Various steps in heart functioning are:

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. Describe the translocation of water and minerals in widely accepted explanation for ascent of sap. The
plants and given the mechanism of it (ascent of sap). theory is based essentially upon the following facts :
(U.P. 2011, 12, 13, 15, 16, 19, 20) 1. Continuity of water column : There is a
Or Explain the methods of translocation of minerals in continuous water column right from the vein
platns. (U.P. 2020) endings of leaves down to roots hairs.
Or Through what conduction of water in plants takes 2. Cohesive force of water : There is a great mutual
attraction among the water molecules (cohesive
place? Explain its mechanism. (U.P. 2020) force).
Ans. Translocation of water and minerals in plants :
3. Adhesive force : There is a great adhesive force
Water and minerals reach upto xylem by the root between the water column and the walls of xylem
hairs. The vessels are connected end to end the make a vessels.
pipe from one end of root to the top of the plant. It is
4. Transpiration
necessary to translocate water and minerals to top of
pull : Due to
the plant. Some plant are 200 feet or more in height transpiration by
and water and minerals reach there also. This the mesophyll cell
translocation of water and minerals take through the of the leaf, there is
lumen of the xylem vessels. Actually a continuous a constant pull on
column of water is formed. A cohesive force works water column in
between the water molecules which keep them tight. upward direction.
When water evaporates from the surface of leaves the This is called the
water is sucked up. A transpiration pull is developed transpiration pull. xx

and he water moves up in the plants. This force is very As a results of Fig: Transpiration pull (sunction) and
ascent of sap
high. The process is called ascent of sap. transpiration pull,
Mechanism of ascent of sap: Transpiration whole of the water column in the xylem is lifted
pull-cohesive force theory : This theory proposed by like a rope. This theory thus states that water
Henry H. Dixon and John H. Jolly (1895) is most ascends in the plant because of transpiration pull,
 75

and the column of water remains continuous due Munch Hypothesis of translocation of food : This
to the cohesive force of water molecules. hypothesis is most accepted one. According to it the
Demonstration to transpiration pull : Take a long process take up from more concentration to low
glass tube about 50 to 75 cm. Place it in a beaker concentration.
containing mercury. Fill air free water in the glass
tube and fit a leaf young shoot at the free end of the
tube. Keep the apparatus in sunlight soon a rise in the
mercury level can be noted. Rising of Hg by
transpiration pull.

B A

Two osmoscope ‘A’ and ‘B’ are taken (to make

osmoscope a glass tube is taken with two ends folded
at right angles. Semipermeable membrane is tied on
both the ends.) ‘A’ is kept in concentrated sugar
solution beaker and ‘ B’ is kept in simple water beaker.
Both the beakers are connected with a small tube (t).
Due to more osmotic pressure in 'A' more turgid
Q. 2. Describe the translocation of food in the plant and pressure develops and a mass flow of solution from
given Munch hypothesis of translocation of food. ‘A’ starts to ‘B’. The loss of amount of solution from
(U.P. 2014, 18) ‘A’ which is moving towards ‘B’ is filled by the
Or Explain the translocation of food in plants by phloem. solution of beaker ‘A’. If the amount of sugar in ‘A’
(U.P. 2019) remains the same and the sugar in ‘B’ is removed the
Ans. Translocation of food in plants : Food is process will be very fast.
manufactured by leaves on the top of the plant and The experiment can be understand as the ‘A’
translocated upto root by phloem. Phloem contain osmoscope works as the mesophyll tissue of leaves
sieve cells and sieve tube connect end to end and form where sugar synthesis takes place by photosynthesis
a long tube. But as the cells are living they have sieve and the osmotic pressure remains move. ‘ B’ is like
plate at their ends called sieve plates. Sugar and other those parts of the plant where either the sugar is
food materials have to move through these plants. The utilized or stored in insoluble from the roots.
translocation of food needs energy. ‘T’ tube is equal to the sieve tube and the bulbs as
Experiments: Demonstration of food translocation xylem. In this way according to Munch hypothesis
by phloem : Take a woody plant remove a ring of 2-3 food material dissolved in water flows continuously
cm of the tissue outside xylem. This cut portion should into phloem.
be kept wet. After a few days you will see that the upper Q. 3. Describe the structure and function of human heart.
position of the ring swells while the lower parts starts (U.P. 2010, 11, 13, 17, 18)
drying up because of not getting food. The food in the Or What is heart? Explain that it works like a pump in
lower region is used up and new one is not reached to it. short. (U.P. 2019)
So this shows the food translocate by phloem. Or Illustrate a labelled diagram of longitudinal section of
After some time it
swells & root come out human heart and clear about the position of
oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in different parts
Removed bark
of heart. Show the circulation path of blood with the
or phloem help of arrow-markings. (U.P. 2019)
Dry part of stem
due to lack of food
Or Draw a labelled diagram of longitudinal section of
human heart. Describe its structure and show the route of
blood circulation with the help of arrows. (U.P. 2019)
Fig.: Ringing in which bark is removed Or Draw a labelled diagram of human heart. (U.P. 2019)
76

Ans. Human Heart : â From right ventricles, arises a large vessel, called
â The heart is muscular bag-like structure that as pulmonary artery (it receives impure blood
function non-stop, throughout the life of the from right ventricle and take it to the lungs for
individual. It serves to pump the blood throughout purification).
the body. â From left ventricle, arises a very large vessel,
â It consists of cardiac muscles. These muscles never called as aorta.
undergo fatigue. â Aorta receives pure blood from left ventricles and
â The heart is located almost in the centre of the goes to give this blood to different body parts.
thoracic cavity. It is protected by a double walled Mechanism of Heart Functioning :
covering, called pericardium.
Structure of Human Heart :
â The heart is composed of four chambers. These are
of two types : auricles and ventricles.
Auricles : Right auricle

â The upper two chambers are called right and left

auricles (or Atria). These are thin walled and
smaller chambers. Auricles serve to receive the
blood.
â Right auricle receives impure blood from various
Right ventricle
parts of the body, through two major veins, called
as; (i) superior vena cava (pre-caval) and (ii)
inferior vena cava (post caval). Fig.: Blood flow through heart
â Left auricle receives pure (oxygenated) blood from During each heart-beat, the chambers of the heart
lungs through pulmonary vein. contract (systole) and relax (diastole) in a regular
â Both auricles are separated from each other by an coordination.
inter-auricular septum. Auricles are separated from â The contraction of chamber is called systole. It
ventricles by inter-ventricular septa (one on each decreased the volume of the chamber and pumps
side). the blood outwardly.
â Both auricles pump impure blood to the ventricles â The relaxation of chamber is called diastole. It
of their side. brings the chamber in its original size. During
systole, the chamber again receives the blood.
Pre-caval
(Superior vena cava) Heart-beat
The pumping mechanism of heart involves regular contraction
(systole) and relaxation (diastole) of heart chambers. One systole
and one diastole of each chamber constitute one heart-beat.
Heart-beat is due to rhythmic contraction and relaxation of heart
Left muscles. Normal rate, at which heart-beat is 72 times per minute.
pulmonary During exercise and heavy work, this rate becomes increased.
Right veins
pulmonary
veins

Right lung Left lung

Pulmonary
Pre-caval veins
(Sup. Vena Pulmonary
Systemic
cava) artery
aorta
(Dorsal
aorta)
Post-caval
(Inferior vena cava)
De-oxygenated
Fig. : External structure of human heart Post-caval
(Inf. Vena
blood
cava) Oxygenated
Ventricles : blood

â There are two ventricles, called right and left

Fig. : Entire scheme of blood circulation through heart
ventricles. These are separated by interventricular
septum. Various steps in heart functioning are :
â The ventricles function as pumping chambers, thus 1. The impure blood comes to right auricles through
they have thick muscular walls. inferior and superior vena cava. Right auricles pumps
this blood to right ventricle.
 77

2. Right ventricles sends this blood to lungs for LUNGS

(purification/
oxygenation, though pulmonary artery. oxygenation of blood)
3. From lungs, the pure blood is brought to left auricle, (Gaseous exchange)
through pulmonary veins. Pulmonary
4. Left auricle sends this pure blood to left ventricle. vein
Pulmonary
5. Left ventricle sends this blood to entire body through artery
aorta.
Q. 4. What do you mean by double circulation in human
heart ? (U.P. 2017)
Ans. Double circulation is found in the heart of higher Rt. Lt.
Auricle
organisms such as birds and mammals. Double Auricle
circulation refers to the flow of blood twice through the Lt.
Aorta
Vena cava Rt.
heart in one heart-beat. Double circulation involves Ventricle
Ventricle
two types of blood flows, through the heart. First flow
is called pulmonary circulation. In this right auricle
Capillary bed
and right ventricles are involved which deal with right in tissues
impure blood. Second flow is called systemic (Gaseous exchange)
circulation. It involves left auricle and left ventricle.
Fig.:Double circuit circulation through the body

Impure blood from body comes to the right portion of

heart, impure blood goes to the lungs for purification
by pulmonary artery. Pure blood comes to the left
portion of the heart by pulmonary veins. Pure blood
supplies to whole body by carotid systemic arch. In
double circulation system pure and impure blood
never get mixed with each other hence, the circulation
remains much efficient and high pressure is produced
for blood circulation.
NOTE: See NCERT intext questions and exercise questions.
Fig.:Double circulation through heart
after Chapter 6D.
ccc
 78

Chapter

6D Life Processes:
EXCRETION

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

1. Osmoregulatory organelle in Amoeba is : (b) Malpighian tubules
(a) Mitochondria (b) Food vacuole (c) General body surface
(c) Contractile vacuole (d) Plasma membrane (d) All of these
2. The excretory organ of Amoeba is : 11. Artificial kidney function on the principle of :
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum (a) Reverse osmosis (b) Diffusion
(b) Food vacuole (c) Dialysis (d) Centrifugation
(c) Contractile vacuole (d) Plasma membrane 12. Kidneys are :
3. The excretory organs in vertebrate are : (a) Round (b) Almond shaped
(a) Lungs (b) Kidneys (c) Bean shaped (d) Irregular shaped
(c) Liver (d) Spleen 13. The main nitrogenous waste of humans is :
4. The organ which filter the blood is called : (a) Amino acids (b) Ammonia
(a) Kidney (b) Heat (c) Uric acid (d) Urea
(c) Pancreas (d) Liver 14. Main excretory waste of birds is :
5. Fishes that are found in freshwater, excrete more urine. (a) Creatin (b) Uric acid
This is called : (c) Ammonia (d) Guanine
(a) Osmoregulation (b) Excretion 15. Selective reabsorption of glucose takes place in :
(c) Transportation (d) Aquatic respiration (a) Bowman’s capsule (b) Henle’s loop
6. Excretion in unicellular and aqutic animals occurs by : (c) PCT (d) Glomerulus
(a) Ultrafiltration (b) Simple diffusion 16. Which of the following is the correct path taken by
(c) Selective reabsorbtion urine in our body?
(d) All of these (a) Kidney ® Ureter ® Urethra ® Bladder
7. The excretory waste of Amoeba is : (b) Kidney ® Bladder ® Urethra ® Ureter
(a) Urea (b) Uric acid (c) Kidney ® Ureter ® Bladder ® Urethra
(c) Nitrate ions (d) Ammonia (d) Bladder ® Kidney ® Ureter ® Urethra
8. The act of passing out of urine is called : 17. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system
(a) Micturition (b) Excretion for: (U.P. 2019)
(a) Nutrition (b) Respiration
(c) Egestion (d) Exocytosis
(c) Excretion (d) Transpiration
9. Excretory organs of earthworm are :
(a) Nephridia (b) Nephron 18. The function of kidney in human is: (U.P. 2019)
(c) Kidney (d) Skin (a) Respiration (b) Protein synthesis
10. In insects, the excretory organs are : (c) Hormone synthesis (d) Excretion
(a) Nephron

Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (d)
 79

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. What is excretion? (U.P. 2016, 18) Ans. It is a network of fine capillaries in the cavity of
Ans. The process of removal of metabolic waste products Bowman’s capsule.
from the body is called excretion. Q. 17. What are the excretory organs in insects?
Q. 2. Name two waste in our body. Ans. Malpighian tubules.
Ans. Urea and creatine. Q. 18. What do you mean by ureotelic animals?
Q. 3. Where is urea synthesized in human body? Ans. Animals which excrete urea as their main excretory
Ans. In liver. waste, are called ureotelic animals. e.g., human.
Q. 4. What are uriniferous tubules? Q. 19. What are uricotelic animals?
Ans. These are structural and functional units of kidneys. Ans. Animals which excrete uric acid as their main
Q. 5. What is the role of contractile vacuole in Amoeba? excretory waste, are called uricotelic animals. e.g.,
Ans. Contractile vacuole maintains the amount of water in human birds.
the body which is called osmoregulation. Q. 20. What are ammonotelic animal?
Q. 6. Name an organisms in which the excretory organs are Ans. Animals which excrete ammonia as their main
nephridia. excretory waste, are called ammonotelic animals. e.g.,
Ans. Earthworm. Amoeba, Sponges, Hydra etc.
Q. 7. Name an organisms in which the excretory organs are Q. 21. How is urea produced in liver?
flame cells. Ans. Urea is produced in liver from ammonia by Ornithine
Ans. Tapeworm. cycle.
Q. 8. What is urine? Q. 22. Which organs of the human body excretes urea?
Ans. Urine is a transparent or pale yellow liquid. It contains Ans. One pair of kidney.
various metabolic wastes of the body such as urea, Q. 23. Which blood vessel brings impure blood into the
creatine and creatinine. kidney?
Q. 9. Name various types of nephridia, found in an earth- Ans. Renal artery.
worm. Q. 24. Which blood vessel carries out the cleaned blood from
Ans. In an earthworm three types of nephridia are found : the kidneys?
(i) Septal (ii) Pharyngeal and (iii) Integumentary Ans. Renal vein.
Q. 10. How many uriniferous tubules are found in one Q. 25. What controls osmoregulation in human beings?
human kidney? Ans. Hypothalamus and kidneys.
Ans. About 12 lakhs uriniferous tubules are found in one Q. 26. Name three important steps in urine formation.
human kidney. Ans. (a) Ultrafiltration (b) Selective reabsorption
Q. 11. What is the main function of Henle’s loop? (c) Secretion
Ans. To absorb more and more water from tubular filtrate Q. 27. Name the place where ultrafiltration takes place.
and to concentrate the urine. Ans. Bowman‘s capsule and glomerulus.
Q. 12. Ureters arise from which structure? Q.28. Name the place where maximum absorption of
Ans. Kidneys (renal pelvis). glucose takes place.
Q. 13. Ammonia is converted into which substance in liver? Ans. Proximal convoluted tubule.
Ans. Urea. Q. 29. Which part of nephrons is impermeable to water?
Q. 14. Write outer peripheral and inner middle part of kidneys. Ans. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
Ans. Renal cortex and renal medulla. Q. 30. What is dialysis?
Q. 15. Name various parts of a nephron. Ans. The mechanism of removing urea, by using an
Ans. Bowman’s capsule, PCT, Henle’s loop and DCT. artificial kidney is called dialysis.
Q. 16. What is glomerulus?

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. What is osmoregulation? How does it take place in important role in osmoregulation. Whenever there is
human? excess of water in the body, kidney remove it in the
Ans. The maintenance of amount of water and form of dilute urine. Skin also remove a large amount
concentration of ions and salts in the body is called of water and salts from the body in the form of sweat.
osmoregulation. In human skin and kidney plays
80

Q. 2. Which is the major nitrogenous waste product in a acid, creatine, creatinine, remains of drugs etc, which
human body? How is it removed from the body? must be removed out from the blood. In distal
Ans. The major nitrogenous waste product in human body convoluted tubule (DTC), these substance are
is urea. It is produced from ammonia in liver. Urea is selectively poured into the tubular filtrate from the
removed from the blood during ultrafiltration. In this blood capillaries present around the tubules. This
way, urea forms the major part of urine, which is process is called secretion.
removed out from the body time to time. Q.7. Describe the structure, location and function of
Q. 3. What is glomerulus? What role does it play in urine urinary bladder in man.
formation? Ans. Urinary bladder is a pear shaped, muscular, sac like
Ans. Glomerulus is the network of capillaries, which are structure present in lower abdomen. It is attached with
formed by afferent arteriole in the cavity of two ureters. These ureters bring urine from kidneys to
Bowman’s capsule. It is the main centre where the urinary bladder. The urinary bladder serves to
process of ultrafiltration takes place. During store the urine temporarily.
ultrafiltration glomerular capillary wall and Q. 8. Why are many substance reabsorbed from glomerular
Bowman's capsular wall filter the blood and remove filtrate?
the urea. Ans. Many substances such as glucose and amino acids etc.
Q. 4. What is Henle’s loop? What is its main function? are filtered from blood in Bowman's capsule. Since
Ans. Henle’s loop is the middle loop like part of the these substance are very important for the body so,
nephron. It consists of a descending arm and they must not be eliminated out from the body. So
ascending arm. The main function of this loop is to these are reabsorbed in proximal convoluted tubule
absorb more and more water from the tubular filtrate (PCT).
and to make urine concentrated. Q. 9. Describe the structure of a nephridium. (U.P. 2012)
Q. 5. How ultrafiltration takes place in nephrons? Ans. A nephridium consists of a long and coiled tube,
Ans. The impure blood is brought to nephron by afferent which internally has a long ciliated lumen. One end of
arterial and enters the glomerular capillaries. In this tube is broad, blind and funnel shaped. It is called
glomerular , blood is filtered through capillary walls nephrostome. It servers to pick up the metabolic
and wall of Bowman’s capsule. The filtrate comes wastes from the body. Ciliary lining helps to propel
into the lumen of nephronic tubule. Filtered blood is the wastes towards the other end. The other end of the
sent to the efferent arterial. nephridium is called excretory duct. It has a small
Q. 6. What is meant by ‘secretion’ during urine formation? pore, called nephridiopore. It either open to the
Ans. The blood, which is filtered in glomerulus, still outside or into the alimentary canal.
contains some harmful materials like amino hippuric

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. Explain the structure and mechanism of nephron.

Pure blood
(U.P. 2019)
Impure blood
Or Explain the function of nephron with the clean
diagram. (U.P. 2020)
Hilus
Ans. See NCERT intext Question-19
Q. 2. Describe the mechanism of urine formation in human Right
kidney Left
excretory system. Draw a labelled diagram to kidney
illustrate your answer. (U.P. 2012, 13, 15, 16, 17, 18) Renal
Renal vein
Or Name the organs of excretory system in human. Show artery
them with the help of a labelled diagram. (U.P. 2019) Ureter
Ans. The excretory system of human being consists of the Urinary
following main organs : Two kidney, Two ureters, Bladder
Bladder and Urethra. Urethra
The kidneys are bean shaped organgs towards the
back of our body just above the waist.The function of
kidneys is to remove the poisonous substance urea,
other waste salts and excess water from the blood and Fig.: Excretory system of human

excrete them in the form of a yellowish liquid called Mechanism of urine formation :Urine formation is
urine. take place as follows:
 81

The basic mechanism of urine formation include three After these three steps, the tubular filtrate becomes the
processes: (a) ultrafiltration, (b) selective reabsorption urine, which is collected by collecting duct. From
and (c) Secretion. collecting ducts, urine goes to pelvis and then to
1. Ultrafiltration : ureter. It is finally collected in the urinary bladder.
8 Ultrafiltration take place in Bowman’s capsule. Time to time, it is passed to outside through urethra.
8 The blood that comes to nephron is filtered The act of passing out of urine is called micturition.
through the walls of glomerulus. Q. 3. Describe the excretion in plants.
8 The filtrate (which is called initial filtrate) Ans. The excretion in plants is completely different from
comes into the cavity of convoluted tubule. animals. It is not as efficient as in animals. There is no
8 The filtrated blood goes into the peritubular organized system for this purpose. Excess of oxygen
capillary network (PTCN). (produced in photosynthesis) and CO 2 (produced in
2. Selective Reabsorption : respiration) are eliminated out through the stomata.
8 It is the second step during urine formation. Excess of water is also eliminated out through stomata
8 The initial filtrate contains many useful (during transpiration).
substance like glucose, amino acids and For other metabolic wastes, plants use a completely
various ions. different strategy. One important facts is that, most of
8 These are essential substances, which must the plant tissues are dead (composed of sclerenchyma
not be eliminated to outside from the body cells). Due to this, the waste is not very toxic to the
with urine. plant body. More over, plants can regularly lose some
8 Therefore, the capillaries of the peri tubular of their body parts such as leaves (during autumn).
capillary network (PTCN) selectively Many of the waste products in plants are stored in the
reabsorb the essential substance from the leaves. When leaves fall, the wastes are also removed
tubular filtrate. This is called selective off. Some waste products are converted into products
reabsorption. like gums, resins, alkaloids etc. and are deposited into
8 Every day, about 180 L of initial filtrate is dead cells (such as those of xylem). Some waste
formed. But the actual amount of urine that is substances are secreted into the soil by the roots.
passed to outside is about 1 to 1.5 L/day. So, a Q. 4. What is hemodialysis? Discuss it mechanism.
large amount of water is reabsorbed. The
initial filtrate is now called tubular filtrate. Ans. Hemodialysis : In persons, suffering from renal
3. Secretion failure the blood urea level rises abnormally.
Excessive urea in the blood may be fetal. Thus to
8 The blood, which is filtered in glomerulus,
still contains some harmful material like remove the urea from the body of such persons, an
creatine, creatinine, remains of drugs, etc., artificial kidney is used, which is known as
which must be removed out from the blood. hemodialiser. The mechanism of such urea removing
8 So, these substance are selectively secreted
is called hemodialysis.
from blood, into the tubular filtrate. This Mechanism : Blood is taken out from an artery of the
process called secretion. patient, and it is cooled to 0°C. It is mixed with an
anticoagulant such as heparin.

Fig. : orking
W of an artificial kidney (Hemodialysis)
It is then pumped into artificial kidney (hemodialiser).
In this apparatus, blood flows through channels or
tubes bounded by cellophane membrane. The
membrane is impermeable to macro-molecules, such
as urea, uric acid, creatinine and mineral ions. A
dialyzing fluid is used in the hemodialiser which
Fig.: Basic mechanism of urine formation
(outline only) contains some solutes and minerals ions. The blood of
the patient moving inside the machine is kept
82

separated from dialysing fluid through cellophane of the artificial kidney is warmed to body
membrane. The wastes diffuse from blood to the temperature, mixed with an antiheparin to restore its
dialyzing fluid across the cellophane membrane. In normal coagulability and returned to the body of the
this way the blood is considerably cleared of patient through a vein.
nitrogenous waste products. The blood is coming out

NCERT Intext Question

Q. 1. Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen Ans. Difference between autotrophic and heterotrophic
requirement of multicellular organisms like humans? nutriton:
Ans. In the case of a single-celled organisms, no specific
S.No. Autotrophic Nutrition Heterotrophic Nutrition
organs for exchange of gases are needed because the
entire surface of the organisms is in contact with the 1. In autotrophic nutrition, In heterotrophic nutrition
organisms synthesize their organisms obtain their food
environment. But in multicellular organisms, all the food from inorganic directly or indirectly from
cells may not be in direct contact with the surrounding substances like CO2 and autotrophs.
environment. Thus, diffusions is insufficient to meet water.
the oxygen requirements of large multicellular 2. Chlorophyll and sunlight are Chlorophyll and sunlight are
organisms (human beings) because the volume of essential for photosynthesis not required.
human body is so big that oxygen cannot diffuse into and thus nutrition to occur.
all cells of the human body quickly. 3. Examples: all green plants Examples: All animals and
Q. 2. What criteria do we use to decide whether something and some bacteria. fungi.
is alive?
Ans. Following are the standards that decide whether Q. 6. Where do plants get each of the raw materials required
something is alive : for photosynthesis?
(i) The major criteria is movement. Movement may Ans. The raw materials required for photosynthesis are
be incurred through locomotion (running, carbon dioxide and water. Terrestrial plants get
walking, etc.), action of body parts (e.g., chewing carbon dioxide from environment and water from soil.
of cud by cow), breathing, growth (in plants), Aquatic plants take up CO 2 that is present in
dissolved form in water. Water is simply absorbed by
maintenance and repair of cellular structure and
the parts of the aquatic plant submerged in water.
molecular movement in metabolic reactions.
Q. 7. What is the role of the acid in our stomach?
(ii) Requirement of food for performing life pro- Ans. The acid (hydrochloric acid) secreted inside the
cesses. stomach makes the medium acidic which is necessary
(iii) Respiration and utilization of the inhaled oxygen for the activation of the enzyme pepsin. It converts
inactive propepsin into active pepsin. Also,
for oxidation of food.
hydrochloric acid kills any bacteria which may enter
(iv) Display of growth and development. the stomach along with food.
(v) Expulsion of metabolic wastes (excretion). Q. 8. What is the function of digestive enzymes?
Q. 3. What are outside raw materials used for by an Ans. Digestive enzymes convert the large and insoluble
organism? food molecules into small water soluble molecules in
Ans. Outside raw materials provide energy to organisms to the process of digestion, e.g., pancreas secretes
enzymes like amylase, trypsin and lipase. The
maintain their body processes. They are needed to
enzymes amylase breaks down the starch, trypsin
prevent damage and break-down in the body. Water,
breaks down the proteins and lipase breaks down the
carbondioxide and mineral compounds are the emulsified fats into simple sugars, amino acids and
rawmaterials for plants. Water, protein carbohydrate, fatty acids, respectively.
fat and vitamins are the raw materials for animals.
Q. 9. How is small intestine designed to absorbed digested
Q. 4. What processes would you consider essential for food?
maintaining life? Ans. The small intestine is the main region for the
Ans. The important processes essential for maintaining life absorption of digested food. The inner lining of small
are : nutrition, respiration, transportation, excretion, intestine has millions of tiny finger-like projections
and control and coordination. called villi. The presence of villi gives the inner walls
Q. 5. What are the difference between autotrophic nutrition of the small intestine a very large surface area for
and heterotrophic nutrition? absorption of digested food. The villi are richly
 83

supplied with blood vessels which take the absorbed Q. 13. How are the lungs designed in human beings to
food to each and every cell of the body. maximize the area for exchange of gases?
Q. 10. What advantage over an aquatic organism does a Ans. Lungs are two soft spongy structures lodged in the
terrestrial organisms have with regard to obtaining thoracic cavity. In the lungs, wind pipe divides into
oxygen for respiration? smaller tubes, called bronchi which in turn form
Ans. The organisms that lives in water such as a fish obtains bronchioles. The bronchioles later terminate in
oxygen for respiration which dissolved in water balloon-like structure, called alveoli. The presence of
whereas the terrestrial organisms take in oxygen alveoli in the lungs provides a very large area for the
directly from the air. Since, the amount of oxygen exchange of gases and this availability of large
dissolved in water is fairly low as compared to the surface area maximises the exchange of gases. The
amount of oxygen in the air, breathing rate in aquatic alveoli have very thin walls and contains an extensive
organisms is much faster than terrestrial organisms. network of blood vessels to facilitates exchange of
Q. 11. What are the different ways in which glucose is gases.
oxidized to provide energy in various organisms?
Ans. Breakdown of glucose takes place by various
pathways as given below :
In cytoplasm
Glucose Pyruvate
(6-carbon molecule) (3-carbon molecule + Energy)
Presence of oxygen
(in mitochondria)
(in muscle cells)
Lack of oxygen
(in yeast)

Absence
of oxygen

Ethanol + CO2 Lactic acid H2O + CO2

+ Energy + Energy + Energy Q. 14. What are the components of the transport system in
(2-carbon molecule) (3-carbon molecule) human beings? What are the functions of these
components?
Q. 12. How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in Ans. Transport system in human beings consists of heart,
human beings? blood and blood vessels.
Ans. During inhalation, oxygen comes into alveoli of the (i) Heart : The muscular organ which pumps and
lungs. The alveoli is surrounded by very thin blood receives the blood.
vessels called capillaries. So, the oxygen diffuses out (ii) Blood : It is a fluid connective tissue. It consists
from the alveoli walls to the blood in capillaries. The of plasma, RBCs, WBCs and blood platelets.
oxygen is carried by blood to all the parts of the body Plasma transports food, CO 2 and nitrogenous
by binding it with haemoglobin present in blood. wastes in dissolved form. RBCs transport
The blood passes through the tissues of the body and respiratory gases and hormones. WBCs protect
the oxygen present in it diffuses into the cells (due to the body from infections and platelets prevent the
its higher concentration in the blood). This oxygen loss of blood at the time of injury by forming
combines with the digested food present in the cells to blood clots.
released energy. Carbon dioxide is produced as a (iii) Vessels : They are subdivided into:
waste product during respiration in the cells of the
(a) Arteries : Carries blood from heart to
body tissues. This CO 2 diffuses into the blood (due to
different body parts.
its higher concentration in body tissues). Blood
carries CO 2 back to the lungs and out of the body into (b) Veins : Transport blood towards heart from
air. various body parts.
O2 O2 O2 (c) Capillaries : Site of exchange of material
Air Nostril Pharynx between blood and living cells through tissue
CO2 CO2 CO2
fluid.
O2 O2 O2
Wind pipe Bronchi Lungs Q. 15. Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated blood in
CO2 CO2 CO2
mammals and birds?
O2 O2 Ans. Mammals and birds are warm-blooded animals. They
Alveoli CO2
Blood CO2
Tissue
constantly use energy to maintain their body
 84

temperature. They have higher energy needs and so Functions of Nephron :

they require more oxygen to produce energy. Thus, it (i) Filtration : Filtration of blood takes place in
is important that their oxygenated blood does not get Bowman’s capsule from the capillaries of
mixed up with deoxygenated blood. glomerulus. This take place under high pressure.
Q. 16. What are the components of the transport system in The filtrate passes into the tubular part of the
highly organized plants? nephron. This filtrate contains glucose, amino
Ans. The transport system of highly organised plants acids, salts and major amount of water.
consists of xylem and phloem. Xylem consists of (ii) Reabsorption : As the filtrate flows along the
tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem tubule useful substance such as glucose, amino
fibers. Phloem consists of sieve tubes, companion acids, salts and water are selectively reabsorbed
cells, phloem fibers and phloem parenchyma. into the blood by capillaries surrounding the
Q. 17. How are water and minerals transported in plants? nephron tubule.
Ans. See for Ans. Chap.-6C Long Question No. 1. (iii) Tubular secretion : Certain substance which are
harmful and not needed by the body like ammonia
Q. 18. How is food transported in plants?
potassium, creatinine and hydrogen ions are
Ans. See for Ans. CHP.-6C Long Question No. 2. secreted from the capillary blood into the lumen of
Q. 19. Describe the structure and functioning of nephrons. distal tubule. This is called tubular secretion.
Ans. Structure of Nephron : Nephron is the structural and The fluid entering the collecting tubule is called urine.
functional unit of kidney. It flows through the ureters into urinary bladder,
(i) It consists of a long coiled tubule differentiated where it is stored and discharged from time to time
into proximal tubule, Loop of Henle and distal through urethra.
tubule. The distal tubule opens into the collecting Q. 20. What are the methods used by plants to get rid of
tubule. excretory products?
(ii) At the proximal end of the nephron lies a Ans. To get rid of excretory products, plants use the
double-walled cup-shaped structure called following ways :
Bowman’s capsule.
(i) The plants get rid of gaseous waste products
(iii) The Bowman’s capsule contains a bundle of through stomata on leaves and lenticels in stem.
blood capillaries which is called glomerulus.
(ii) The plants get rid of stored solid and liquid
(iv) In the glomerulus, the blood that comes in
through afferent arteriole is drained out through wastes by shedding of leaves, peeling of bark and
efferent arteriole. felling of fruits.
(iii) The plants also secrete wastes in the form of
gums and resins.
(iv) Some waste substance are excreted through roots
into the soil around them.
(v) Excess of water is eliminated by the process of
transportation.
(vi) In living cells, many cytoplasmic wastes are
shifted to cellular vacuoles.
Q. 21. How is the amount of urine produced regulated?
Ans. The amount of urine produced depends on how much
of excess water in the body, and on how much of
dissolved waste is there to be excreted. More water
and dissolved waste in the body will produce more
Fig.: Basic structure of a nephron urine and on the other hand, less water and less
(the functional unit of kidney) dissolved waste will therefore, produce less urine.

NCERT Exercises
Q. 1. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system Q. 2. The xylem in plants are responsible for : (U.P. 2019)
for : (U.P. 2019) (a) transport of water
(a) nutrition (b) respiration (b) transport of food
(c) excretion (d) transportation (c) transport of amino acids
Ans. (c) (d) transport of oxygen
 85

Ans. (a) When we breathe in, the alveoli expand and maximise
Q. 3. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires : the exchange of gases.
(U.P.2019) Q. 10. What would be the consequence of a deficiency of
(a) carbon dioxide and water haemoglobin in our body?
(b) chlorophyll (c) sunlight Ans. The deficiency of haemoglobin in our body is called
(d) all of these anaemia. In anaemia, the blood is unable to carry the
sufficient amount of oxygen required by the body. So,
Ans. (d)
respiration would be less and less energy will be
Q. 4. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, available to the body. The haemoglobin deficient
water and energy takes place in : person will feel weak, pale lethargic and will be
(a) cytoplasm (b) mitochondria unable to perform heavy physical work.
(c) chloroplast (d) nucleus Q. 11. Describe double circulation in human beings. Why is
Ans. (b) it necessary?
Q. 5. How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this Ans. The blood passes through the heart twice through
process take place? separate pathways for completing one cycle. This type
Ans. The small intestine is the site of the complete of circulation is called double circulation.
digestion of fats. The food coming from the stomach Pulmonary
veins
is acidic and has to be made alkaline for the pancreatic Oxygenated blood
enzymes to act. It is made alkaline by bile juice Left auricle
secreted by the liver. The upper part of small intestine, Lungs
also called duodenum, receives bile juice from the Pulmonary Left ventricle
Pulmonary artery circulation Oxygenated blood
liver and the enzymes lipase from pancreas. Bile salts Aorta
break down them into smaller globules thereby Deoxygenated blood
increasing the efficiency of enzymes action and lipase Systemic
Right ventricle circulation Arteries
breaks down the emulsified fats. The wall of the small
le
intestine has many glands which secrete intestinal uric All body organs except lungs
ht a
juice. The enzymes present in it finally convert the Ri g av
a
n ac
Ve Deoxygenated blood
fats into fatty acids and glycerol. Veins
Q. 6. What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food? The double circulation of blood includes :
(U.P. 2019, 20) (i) Systemic circulation
Ans. Saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase (ii) Pulmonary circulations.
which digests the starch (complex molecule) present (i) Systemic circulation : It supplies oxygenated
in food into sugar (maltose). blood from left auricle to left ventricle, which is
Q.7. What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic pumped to aorta to distributed blood to various
nutrition and what are its byproducts? (U.P. 2020) body parts. The deoxygenated blood collected
Ans. The condition necessary for autotrophic nutrition are from the various body organs by the veins to pour
sunlight , chlorophyll, carbon dioxide and water. into vena cava and finally in the right atrium
The byproducts of autotrophic nutrition are water and (auricle). Right atrium transfers this blood into
oxygen. the right ventricle.
Q.8. What are the difference between aerobic and (ii) Pulmonary circulation : The deoxygenated
anaerobic respiration? Name some organisms that use blood is pushed by the right ventricle into the
the anaerobic mode of respiration. lungs for oxygenated through pulmonary artery.
Or How does aerobic respiration differ from anaerobic The oxygenated blood is brought back to left
respiration? [NCERT Exemplar] atrium of the human heart through pulmonary
Ans. See short answer type Questions-16 of Chap. 6B vein. From left atrium, the oxygenated blood is
pushed into the left ventricle. The left ventricle
Organisms that use the anaerobic mode of respiration
pumps oxygenated blood into aorta for systemic
are yeast, some bacteria and some parasitic worms.
circulation.
Q. 9. How are the alveoli designed to maximise the
Necessity of double circulation : In human
exchange of gases?
four-chambered heart (which consists of two auricles
Ans. Alveoli are small pouches or sac-like structures. They and two ventricles) the left side and right side of heart
are surrounded by blood capillaries. More than are completely separated to prevent the oxygenated
millions of alveoli are present in the lungs. The blood from mixing with deoxygenated blood. Such a
presence of millions of alveoli in the lungs provides a separation allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen
very large surface area for the exchange of gases. to the body cells which is necessary for producing a
86

lot of energy. This energy is useful in case of human Q. 13. Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and
beings that have high energy need because they nephrons in the kidneys with respect to their structure
constantly require energy to maintain their body and functioning.
temperature.
Ans. Compare the functioning of alveoli and nephrons–
Q. 12. What are the difference between the transport of
materials in xylem and phloem? S.No. Alveoli Nephron
Ans. Difference between transport of material in Xylem 1. Its structure is that of a They are elongated
and Phloem– pouch-like air sac. tubules.
2. The walls of alveoli are Each nephron has two
S.No. Transport in Xylem Transport in Phloem very thin. components- Bowman’s
1. It transports water and It transports organic capsule and tubules.
minerals. nutrients. 3. Alveoli are surrounded by Blood capillaries form two
2. The movements in The movement is the thin blood capillaries. patches- glomerulus and
generally unidirectional. multidirectional. peritubular capillaries.
3. It is not influenced by Phloem transport is inhibited 4. The presence of millions of The function of tubular part
metabolic inhibitors. by metabolic inhibitors. alveoli in the lungs of nephron is to allow the
provides a very large selective reabsorption of the
4. It is carried out by xylem It takes place in sieve tubes surface area for the useful substance into the
vessels and tracheids. with the help of adjacent exchange of gases between blood capillaries.
companion cells. blood and inhaled air.

ccc

NOTE: Due to Covid-19 Chapter-7 (Control and Coordination in Animals and Plants) is not
in the Latest Syllabus 2022-23
 Chapter -7
87
(Control and Coordination in Animals and Plants)
This chapter has been Deleted from Syllabus For Session
2022-23 Due To COVID-19 Epidemic

Chapter

8 How do Organisms
Reproduce?

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Main method of reproduction in amoeba is : Q.11. During fertilization the pollen tube of the pollen grain
(a) Multiple fission (b) Budding enters the ovule usually through : (U.P. 2016)
(c) Sexual reproduction (d) Binary fission. (a) integument (b) nucellus
Q. 2. Vegetative buds on leaves are found in : (c) chalaza (d) micropyle
(a) Cuscuta (b) Bryophyllum Q.12. Fertilization takes place in:
(c) Selaginalla (d) Discorea (a) Testes (b) Uterus
Q. 3. Asexual reproduction by budding in: (U.P. 2017, 19, 20) (c) Ovaries (d) Fallopian tubes
(a) Planaria (b) Leishmania Q.13. Testes are present in a muscular sac, called:
(c) Hydra (d) Rhizopus (a) Diaphragm (b) Vas deferens
Q. 4. The two organisms which can regenerate fully from (c) Seminal vesicle (d) Scrotum
their cut body parts are : Q.14. Cutting of fallopian tubes to prevent fertilization is
(a) Paramecium and Hydra called:
(b) Hydra and Amoeba (a) Immunisation (b) Vasectomy
(c) Planaria and Leishmania (c) Tubectomy (d) Laparoscopy
(d) Hydra and Planaria Q.15. Human immuno-deficiency virus is responsible for :
Q. 5. Spore formation is the most common asexual method (a) Cancer (b) Syphilis (c) AIDS (d) SCIDS.
of reproduction in : Q.16. The onset of pubertal character in a male is due to the
(a) protozoa (b) tuber (c) fungi (d) Algae. secretion of hormone:
Q. 6. Stock and scion are involved in the artificial propag- (a) Progesterone (b) Estrogen
ation method known as : (c) Cortisone (d) Testosterone
(a) tissue culture (b) layering Q.17. Breast development is promoted by :
(c) grafting (d) cuttings (a) Testosterone (b) Insulin
Q. 7. After fertilization, which part of the flower modified (c) Thyroxin (d) Estrogen
into fruits. (U.P. 2017, 18) Q.18. During menstruation, the ovulation takes place at
(a) another (b) style (c) ovary (d) ovule which day.
Q. 8. Transfer of pollen grain from another to stigma is (a) 14th day (b) 28th day (c) Ist day (d) 15th day
called: (U.P. 2014) Q.19. In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum outside the
(a) pollination (b) ovulation body because it helps in the :
(c) fertilization (d) none of these (a) process of mating
Q. 9. Double fertilization is the special characteristic of : (b) formation of sperms
(U.P. 2016) (c) easy transfer of sperms
(a) animals (b) angiospermic plants (d) all of these
(c) gymnospermic plant (d) algae Q.20. What is present in pollen sac? (U.P. 2019)
Q.10. The male gametes in a flower and in a human are (a) calyx (b) ovary
produce respectively in : (c) ovule (d) pollen grains
(a) Stigma and ovary (b) anther and style Q.21. The number of chromosomes in the zygote is:
(c) ovary and testes (d) anther and testes (U.P. 2020)
 88

(a) 4X (b) 3X (c) 2X (d) X (c) development of bones and muscular

Q.22. Which of the following is not function of testosterone (d) control of metabolic for growth
harmone? (U.P. 2020) Q.23. Which of the following part in plant in suitable for
(a) control of puberty character in boys. vegetative propagation? (U.P. 2020)
(b) control of sperms formation (a) stems (b) leaves (c) roots (d) buds
Answers
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10 (d)

11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. What do you mean by the term reproduction? Ans. It is female gametophyte which is formed within the
Ans. The production of new individual of same kind by an ovule.
organism is called reproduction. Q. 14. Which parts of the flower become the fruit and seeds?
Q. 2. What do you mean by a clone? Ans. After fertilization, the ovary becomes the fruit, while
Ans. The identical copy of an organism is called its clone. ovule becomes the seeds.
Q. 3. What are gametes? Q. 15. What is hermaphrodite animals?
Ans. These are haploid cells meant for sexual reproduction. Ans. Animals which have both sexes in the same individual
Q. 4. Why gametes are haploid cells? are called hermaphrodite animals.
Ans. Gametes are haploid because these are produced by Q. 16. What is androecium?
meiotic cell division. Ans. The male reproductive whorl of flower is called
Q. 5. Define cleavage. androecium. Its units are called stamen.
Ans. It is a series of serially occurring mitotic division in Q. 17. What is gymoecium?
the zygote which results in the formation of primary Ans. The female reproductive whorl of flower is called
embryo. gynoecium. Its units are called Pistil or carpel.
Q. 6. What is the gestation period in humans? Q. 18. What are spores in plants?
Ans. In human entine period of embryonic development or Ans. These are haploid structures which form the gametes
pregnancy is called gestation period. It is about 9 on development.
months. Q. 19. Define multiple fission.
Q. 7. What is contraception? Ans. Multiple fission is an asexual method of reproduction
Ans. The method of preventing the fertilization is called where the parent organism splits to form many new
contraception organisms at the same time.
Q. 8. What is regeneration? Q. 20. Name some organism which reproduce by spore
Ans. The process of getting back a full organism from its formation.
body part is called regeneration. Ans. Many bacteria and fungi like, Rhizopus, Mucor,
Q. 9. What is totipotency? Penicillium etc.
Ans. The ability of a cell to give rise to an entire organism is Q. 21. What is fragmentation?
called totipotency. Ans. Fragmentation is a special type of regeneration in
Q. 10. What do you mean by triple fusion? which a multicellular organism, breaks up naturally
Ans. The fusion of a sperm (male gamete) with two polar into two or more parts to produce new daughter
nuclei to form the primary endosperm nucleus is individuals.
called triple fusion. It is takes place in angiospermic Q. 22. What is grafting?
plants. Ans. It is a type of artificial vegetative propagation in
Q. 11. What is syngamy? which two plants are joined together to produce a new
Ans. The fusion of a sperm with egg cell to form zygote is plant.
called syngamy. Q. 23. What is stock and scion?
Q. 12. Which structure secretes progesterone hormone? Ans. In grafting process the lower part of the plant which
Ans. Progesterone is secretes by corpus luteum (in females, has the root system is called stock and the upper part
inside the ovaries). of the plant, which has the shoot system (i.e., stem,
Q. 13. What is embryo sac in flowering plants? leaves, flower etc) is called scion.
Q. 24. What do pollen grains contain?
 89

Ans. Pollen grain contains the male gametes of the plants. Q. 37. Where does the growth and development of fertilized
Q. 25. Why does the lining of uterus become thick and ovum occurs?
spongy every month? Ans. The growth and development of a fertilized ovum
Ans. The lining of uterus become thick and spongy every takes place in the uterus.
months by receiving nourishing the growing embryo. Q. 38. Define implantation.
Q. 26. What is micropyle? Ans. The embedding of embryo in the thick lining of the
Ans. The opening of the ovule is called micropyle. uterus is called implantation.
Q. 27. What are antipodal cells? Q. 39. What is gestation period?
Ans. These are 3 haploid cells present inside the embryo Ans. The period between fertilization and birth of the baby
sac of ovule. is called gestation period. It is about 9 months or 40
Q. 28. What dose the seed contain? weeks.
Ans. The seed contains an embryo and endosperm. Q. 40. Define parturition?
Q. 29. Where testes are located in humans? Ans. The birth of the baby (delivery ) on completion of the
Ans. Testes are located in scrotal sacs, which hang sown gestation, is known as parturition.
from the lower abdomen. Q. 41. What are condomes?
Q. 30. In which organ of the body spermatogenesis is carried Ans. These are balloon like rubber caps used by males
out? during copulation to prevent the entry of semen into
Ans. In testes. the female vagina.
Q. 31. Define copulation. Q. 42. What are oral pills?
Ans. Copulation is the act by which the male animal Ans. Oral pills are mainly hormonal preparations, which
transfers his sperms into the female’s body. are meant to prevent pregnancy. Due to change in
Q. 32. Why is temperature of scrotal sac 2°C less than the hormonal balance may cause some side effects.
body temperature? Q. 43. Explain the role of placenta in the development of
Ans. Because for the production of sperms testis require human embryo.
temperature 2°C less than the body temperature. Ans. Role of placenta is given below :
Q. 33. What happens if egg is not fertilized? (i) With the help of placenta embryo get nutrition
Ans. If egg is not fertilize then menstruation will occurs. from mother’s blood.
Q. 34. Name the liquid carrying the sperm. (ii) Placenta helps in removal of wastes.
Ans. The sperms are carried in a liquid called semen. (iii) To pass glucose and O 2 from mother to the
Q.35. Name the place where fertilization takes place in embryo placenta provides required surface area.
humans. Q. 44. Give example of two bacterial and two viral sexually
Ans. In fallopian tubes. transmitted disease.
Q. 36. Where are ovaries placed inside the female body? Ans. Two bacterial sexual transmitted diseases are—
Ans. Ovaries are placed in the lower part of abdominal gonorrhoea, syphilis. Two viral sexual transmitted
cavity. diseases are - Warts and AIDS.

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. What do you mean by asexual reproduction? Q. 3. Describe the fragmentation method of reproduction.
(U.P. 2016) Ans. In this process the body of the parent is broken down
Ans. It is a kind of reproduction in which only one into many small fragments. Each fragment, under
individual is involved. There is no gamete formation suitable condition, may give rise to new individual.
and also there is no fertilization. The newly formed For example: in Spirogyra a portion of it gets
individual is the copy of its parent. Asexual detached from the main body and gives rise to a new
reproduction may be of various types, such as individual. This method of reproduction is called
budding, regeneration, fission and vegetative fragmentation.
propagation. But is majority of the multicellular organisms, the
Q. 2. Describe asexual reproduction in Amoeba? reproduction by this method is not possible due to
Ans. Amoeba usually divides by the process of binary increasing complexity and cellular specialization.
fission (division). In this process the parental Amoeba Q.4. Illustrate with example the division and fragmentation
divides into two halves by simple mitotic division. method of reproduction in living organisms.
Each half receives equal genetic material and is able (U.P. 2019)
to grow into a new daughter Amoeba. Ans. See short answer type Qns. 2 and 3
 90

Q. 5. Mention the reproduction parts of a flower. is cut across or lengthwise, each part can regenerate
Ans. Flower is the reproductive parts of an angiospermic the missing half. The cells of cut body part of the
plants. The male reproductive part of the plant is organism divide rapidly to make ball of cells. The
called androecium. Its units are called stamen. Each cells present in the ball move to their proper places
stamen consists of anther and a filament. with in the ball where they have to form various
Q. 6. What is pollination? Describes cross pollination. organs and body parts. Regeneration is not exactly the
(U.P. 2017) same as reproduction because most simple animals
Ans. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a would not depend on being cut into pieces to be able
pistil is called pollination. It is of two main types : (i) to reproduce.
self-pollination (ii) cross-pollination. Q.11. What are the various methods of vegetative
propagation? Discuss any one method with example.
Cross-pollination : Transfer of pollen from the
(U.P. 2013)
another of a flower to the stigma of another flower,
belonging to a different plant, is called Ans. The process of obtaining complete plant from any
cross-pollination. vegetative part of plant is called vegetative
propagation. Various methods of vegetative
Q.7. What are the male and female gonads in human
propagation are—cutting, layering and grafting etc.
beings? State any two functions of each of them.
Cutting is a simple method, in which a suitable part of
Ans. The male gonads in human beings are one pair of stem or root (about 20 to 30 cm long) is cut and it is
testes. These serve to produce sperms and planted in the soil, along with some nutrients. This cut
testosterone hormone. part soon develops new roots and develops into a new
The female gonads in human beings are a pair of plant. Root cuttings are commonly used in plants like
ovaries. These are present in the lower abdomen. lemon, tamarind, blackberry and respberry etc.
These produce ovum and sex hormones - estrogens Q.12. What are the advantages of self pollination and
and progesterone. cross-pollination?
Q.8. What are the secondary sexual characteristic in Or Write the importance of cross pollination.
human? Name one such character of male and female? (U.P. 2015, 18)
Ans. The characters distinguish a male from female are Ans. Advantages of self pollination :
called secondary sexual characters.
(i) Plant does not have to depend on pollinating agencies.
Secondary sexual characters in male - beard,
moustaches, axial and pubic hairs, cracking of voice (ii) Only a small number of pollen grains are required.
etc. and in female - breasts, deep voice, growth of (iii) Self-pollination strengthens the better character
axial and pubic hairs. of the plant.
Q. 9. Define micropropagation. How it is carried out? Advantages of cross-pollination :
Ans. It is advance method of reproduction in which a large (i) It helps to eliminate bad characters from the species.
number of small plantlets can be obtained by using (ii) It helps in the development of new characters due
tissue culture technique. to recombination of genes.
In this method a suitable tissue or cell of a plant, is
(iii) Immunity to diseases increases.
taken out from the main body, it is called explant. It is
now grown on a nutrient rich culture medium. This (iv) Ability to adopt according to changing
medium is also supplemented with plant hormones environment increases.
like auxins and cytokinin, Which promote cell Q. 13. Describe the structure of a pollen grain.
division and produce big mass of cells of tissue Ans. Stamens produce pollen
multiply by mitotic divisions and produce big mass of grain that are yellowish in
cells. This cell mass is called callus. This callus is able colour. Pollen grain is
to develop seedling, which on germination gives rise unicellular and haploid. It
to new plants. has two layers, the thicker
Q.10. What do you mean regeneration? Explain the outer one is called exine,
regeneration with a example. (2020) which is thin at places called
Ans. In some organisms (plants and animals) small cuts germ pores and inner thin
parts of their body can grow to form whole new layer is called intine.
organisms complete in all respects, this process is Q. 14. Describes the changes that occur in the flower after
called regeneration. Simple animals like Hydra and fertilisation. (U.P. 2019)
Planaria show regeneration. Ans. After fertilisation, ovary grows rapidly and becomes
When a Hydra is cut into many pieces, each piece can ripened. Such a ripened ovary is called fruits.
give rise a new animal. Planaria (a platyhelminth) Meanwhile, the petals, sepals, stamens, style and
posseses great power of regeneration. When Planaria stigma may shrivel and fall off.
 91

Internally zygote starts germination. The ovule female reproductive parts in a flower known as
becomes the seed. In this way, the seed contains the unisexual flowers e. g., papaya, watermelon etc.
germinating embryo (i. e., the future plant). Q. 18. Mention the reproductive parts of flower.
Seeds when germinate under proper growing Ans. Flower is the reproductive organ of angiospermic
conditions, give rise the seedlings. Seedlings contain plants.
two important structures plumule and radicle. The male reproductive part of the plant is called
The plumule part on further development gives rise to androecium. Its units are called stamen. Each stamen
the shoot part (stem, leaves etc), of the new plant. On consists of anther and a filament.
the other hand, the radicle, part gives rise to the root The female reproductive part of the flower is called
part of the new plant. gynoecium. Its units are called pistils (carpels). Each
Q.15. Describe double fertilisation in plants. After pistil consists of stigma, style and ovary. Ovary
fertilisation name the part in each case which internally contains one the many ovules.
develops into: (i) the fruits, (ii) the seeds. (U.P. 2014) Q. 19. What is the significance of vegetative reproduction in
Ans. Double fertilisation is found in angiospermic plants. plants? (U.P. 2012, 13, 15, 16, 17)
In these plants there are two male gametes, in each
pollen tube. One fertilises with egg cell (syngamy) to Ans. It is the simplest method of reproduction in plants.
form zygote. The other gamete fertilises with two Ø Since the offspring and parents both have the
polar nuclei (triple fusion) and results in the formation same genotype and same characters, this type of
of endosperm. Thus, there are two fusions. Hence it is reproduction helps to preserve the useful
called double fertilization. characters of the parental plant.
After fertilization: (i) Ovary develops into fruits (ii) Ø It is a quick method of multiplication.
Ovules develops into seeds.
Ø It is a very helpful method of reproduction in
Q.16. Draw a labelled diagram of L.S. of gynoecium to
show the fertilisation in flowers and describe it. those plants, which are sexually weak or have
poor viability and long dormant period of seeds.
(U.P. 2019)
Q. 20. What is menstruation? Explain why it occurs?
Ans. Gynoecium is the innermost whorl of the flower
which constitutes the ovum. It is made up of stigma, Ans. In females when the egg is not fertilized, there is a
style and ovary. The ovules are formed in the ovary. monthly discharge of blood and cells debris through
The stigma receives the pollen grain during the vagina. This is called menstruation. In the
pollination. condition of non-fertilization of egg, the inner lining
of uterus is shedded-off.
Stigma Q. 21. Write the full form of IUCD, AIDS, HIV, OCs, STDs.
Ans. IUCD : Intra Uterine Contraceptive Devices.
Style
AIDS : Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
HIV : Human Immuno Deficiency Virus.
OCs : Oral Contraceptives.
Ovary
STDs : Sexually Transmitted Diseases.
Q. 22. What is menopause?
Ovule Ans. The period of permanent cessation of menstruation in
females, usually occurring between the age of 45 and
50 is called as menopause.
Thalamus
Q. 23. Describe two sexually transmitted viral diseases in
Fig. : L.S. of Gynoecium humans.
Ans. Two important sexually transmitted viral diseases in
Q.17. Name the organs by which sexual reproduction in humans are:
flowering plants takes place. What are the unisexual 1. Herpes: It is caused by Herpes simplex virus. In
and bisexual flowers, write with example?(U.P. 2019) this disease, blisters develop on the inner
Or Differentiate between unisexual and bisexual flowers membranes of the genitalia.
with example. (U.P. 220) 2. AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome):
Ans. Stamens and carpels (pistils) are the reproductive It is the deadliest disease which has no cure so far. It
organs of a flower i. e., organs by which sexual is caused by a virus called HIV (Human Immuno-
reproduction in flowering plant takes place. Most Deficiency Virus). This virus attacks the immune
plant have both male and female reproductive organs system and leads to its destruction. The virus is
in the same flower and are known as bisexual flower found in the lymphocytes of the blood, semen,
e. g., lily, rose etc., while others have either male or vaginal and cervical fluids of the human body.
 92

Q. 24. Why do testes lie outside the abdominal cavity? 3. Fertilization does not take Fertilization takes place.
Or Describe the function of human testes. (U.P. 2020) place.
Ans. Being outside the abdominal cavity, the temperature 4. Progeny shows similarily Progeny shows the blending of
of scrotum is 2 to 3°C lower than the human body with parents. character of both parents.
temperature and this provides an optimal temperature
for the formation of sperms. Q. 27. Differentiate self pollination and cross pollination.
Testes also sectretes hormone testosterone, which (U.P. 2011, 16, 19)
promotes sperm formation and it is also responsible Ans. Difference between self and cross pollination:
for the puberty related changes in a boy.
Q. 25. What are the permanent methods of family planning? S.No. Self-pollination Cross-pollination
Write short notes on any two. (U.P. 2019) 1. Flowers are bisexual, but Flowers can be bisexual or
when they are unisexual then unisexual and male and
Ans. The prevention of pregnancy in women is called male and female flowers female flowers can
contraception. Any device or chemical (drug) which develops on the same plant. originated on two different
prevents pregnancy in women is called a plants.
contraceptive. All the birth control methods can be 2. Male and female parts of a Male and female parts in a
broadly divided in the three categories: (i) Barrier flower mature at the same flower mature at different
methods, (ii) chemical methods (iii) surgical methods. time. times.
Surgical methods are permanent method of family 3. Androecium and gynoecium Flowers are brightly
planning. Surgical methods of birth control are are arranged in such a way coloured and attractive to
available for both males and females. that pollen grains easily fall attract pollinators. Some
on the stigma. So no external external agents are
(a) Vasectomy: In males a small portion of vas agent is required. Flower are required for transfer of
deferens (sperms duct) is surgically removed off usually not attractive. pollen grains on the stigma
and the cut the ends are tied properly. This of other flowers.
surgical procedure is known as vasectomy and is 4. Flower do not produce scent Scent and nectar are
prevents the presence of sperms in semen. or nectar. usually produced.
Cut part of the 5. Flowers of some plants don’t Such an arrangement is not
Ureter Fallopian tube Uterus Fallopian tube
open ever or they are closed. found.
Vas deferens
tied and cut
Prostate gland Q.28. Write a short note on sexual reproduction in
Vas deferens angiospermic plants. (U.P. 2020)
Testis Ans. The plants in which the sex organs are carried within
the flowers and seeds are enclosed in a fruit are called
(a) (b) angiosperms or flowering plants. The flowering
Fig. : In Human (a) Vasectomy (b) Tubectomy plants reproduce by sexual reproduction method. The
reproductive organs (sex organs) of a flowering plant
(b) Tubectomy: In females, a small portion of oviducts are in its flowers. Mostly plants are bisexual having
(fallopian tubes) is surgically removed off and cut the male and female reproductive organs in same
the ends are tied properly. This prevents the ovum flower. Some flowers which contain only one sex
(or egg) from entering into the oviducts. This organ, either male (stamen) or female (carpels) are
surgical procedure is called tubectomy. called unisexual flowers.
Q.26. Write down four differences between sexual and The male organ of flower called stamen make the
asexual reproduction. (U.P. 2014, 16, 18) male gametes of the plant. The male gametes are
Ans. Difference between sexual and asexual repro- present in pollen grains. The female organ of a flower
duction: called carpel makes the female gametes of plant.
S.No. Asexual Reproduction Sexual Reproduction
These female gametes are present in ovules. The
female gametes present in ovules are also called egg
1. Single parent is required Two parents are required for
to produce progeny. the production.
cells or ova-The male gamtes present in pollen grains
fertilise the female gametes (egg cell) present in
2. Cell division is of mitotic For the gametes formation ovule. The fertilised egg cell grow within ovule and
type. meiosis occur. After
fertilization mitotic division seeds. The seeds produce new plants on germination
takes place. under suitable conditions.
 93

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. Describe the vegetative reproduction (Propagation) in (i) Cutting : It is a simple method, in which a
plants? (U.P. 2012, 15, 16, 19) suitable part of stem or root (about 20 to 30 cm
Or What is vegetative propagation? Describe its methods long) is cut and it is planted in the soil, along
with example. (U.P. 2019) with some nutrients. This cut part soon develops
Ans. Vegetative Reproduction : The new plants are new roots and develops into a new plant.
obtained from the parts of old plants (like-stems, Cutting are commonly used in plant like lemon,
leaves and roots) without the help of any reproductive rose, croton, sugarcane, tapioca, china rose, etc.
organs is called vegetative propagation or (ii) Layering : In this method, a twig (branch) of a
reproduction. It is asexual method of reproduction. plant is bent down, below the level of soil. This
Vegetative propagation usually involves the growth
bent part is called layer. A small incision is
and development of one or more buds present on the
old part of the plants. When provides suitable made in this layer (bent portion). Now, the
conditions, these buds grow to form new plants. portion is covered with soil. Moisture is given at
regular intervals. Soon this covered portion
Vegetative reproduction in plants in natural but it can
be carried out artificially as well. develops new roots and become separated (or
can be cut) from main body, giving rise to new
Some example of natural vegetative reproduction is
given below : plant. Layering is common in plants like -
Jasmine, Strawberry, Grapevine and Cherry etc.
(a) Natural Method of Vegetative Reproduction
(iii) Grafting : It is the technique of joining parts of
(i) Bryophyllum plants can be reproduced by
two different plants to form a composite plant.
using either a piece of its stem or its leaves.
One plant, which has a strong root system, is
When such a mature leaf of the Bryophyllum
plant falls on the ground, then each plantlet selected as stock are stump (basal part). The
can grow into a new plant. branch of other plant (which is to be grafted) is
selected as scion. Scion is usually grafting from
plants which have superior characters.

Fig.: Leaf of Bryophyllum, with buds

(ii) Many plant can also be grown by vegetative

propagation by using a piece of its stem.
(iii) Vegetative propagation of plants by using Fig.: Mechanism of grafting
tubers which are modified, underground
stems (or roots). The tubers has a number of The shoot of the stock is cut 20-30 cm above the
buds (eyes) is planted in the soil in the ground. Leaves and buds removed from this
growing reason, then each buds of tubers part. Now, complementary cuts are made in
grows into a new plant. Potato garlic, onion, stock and scion, so that scion can be fitted
are stem tuber whereas sweet potato Dehlia exactly in the grooves of stock. After this fitting,
are root tuber. the area is tied tightly with the help of a tough
(b) Artificial Methods of Vegetative Reproduction thread and then it is covered with grafting wax,
In some plant, where vegetative reproduction by to avoid any infection.
natural means is difficult to occur, special Grafting is carried out commonly in plants like
techniques can be used . We know that plant cells mango, guava, apple, rubber plant, lemon etc.
are more totipotent then animal cells. So they can Q. 2. Explain the fertilisation in flowering plants.
be forced to reproduce vegetatively. Thus all the (U.P. 2019)
technique or method which are carried out by Or Define the fertilisation. Describe the process of it in
human beings to produce plants vegetatively, are plants with diagram. (U.P. 2019)
called artificial methods. These include stem Or Write definition of pollination. Explain the
cutting, root cuttings, layering, grafting and fertilisation with labelled longitudinal section
gootee etc. diagram of flower. (U.P. 2020)
 94

Or Draw a labelled diagram of longitudinal section of a Methods of Cross-pollination :

flower. (U.P. 2019) In plants, cross-pollination takes place with the help
Ans. The transfer of Stigma
of wind, water, insects and animals.
pollen grains Stamen Anther Style
Pistil/carpel
1. Entomophily : Flowers are brightly coloured and
from the anther Filament Ovary attractive. They generally produce scent and
of a stamen to nectar to attract insects. The stigma of these
the stigma of a
flowers is sticky in nature. e.g., Salvia, Fig,
carpel is called
pollination. Peepal, Oak, Syeamore etc.
The fusion of a Petal 2. Anemophily : Many plants show pollination by
Setal
male gamete wind for which, various modification are present
with a female Pedicel
Ovule in flowers. e.g., Flower are small arranged in
gamete to form groups. Scent, nectar and colour are absent in
a zygote during Fig. L.S. of typical flower flowers. Stigma are irregular. Pollen grains are
sexual repro- light and dry in nature. e.g., Wheat, Maize, Jowar,
duction, is called fertilisation. Pine etc.
A pollen grain contains two male gametes. When 3. Hydrophily : In aquatic plants where flowers are
pollen grain falls on stigma of the carpel, it brusts
present above the surface of water, pollination
open and grows a pollen tube downwards into the
takes place by insects. But in submerged plants,
style. This tube contains male gametes. One of the
male gametes reaches the ovule in the ovary through pollination takes place by water. For hydrophily,
pollen tube and fuses with egg (female gamete) to various modifications are present in flowers,
form zygote (fertilised egg). style, stigma etc. Pollen grains are light in weight,
The other male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei, they have low density so that they can float on
to form a triploid endosperm nucleus. The zygote water and come in contact with female flower.
grows into an embryo and an endosperm nucleus e.g., Vallisneria, Elodea, Hydrilla,
grows into endosperm (the food storage tissue of Ceratophyllum etc.
seed). 4. Zoophily : Some plants show pollination with the
After fertilisation ovary grows rapidly and becomes help of snails, birds, bats etc. e.g., Semal,
ripened. Such a ripened ovary is called fruit. (with Begonia, Kadamb etc.
seeds inside it). A seed is the reproductive unit of Advantages of Cross-pollination
plant.
1. By this, we can develop improved varieties.
Q. 3. What is pollination? Explain in short various method
of cross pollination? Also write its importance. 2. Because of variation, we obtain healthy seeds
(U.P. 2013, 15, 18) with better quality, which show hybrid vigour.
Or Define the pollination. Explain the various methods of 3. By cross-pollination, disease-resistant varieties
pollination. (U.P. 2020) develop which show high resistance power.
Or What is pollen grains? Where is found it? Explain the 4. By this, development of fertile plants takes place.
different types of pollination. (U.P. 2020) Disadvantages of Cross-pollination
Ans. Male gametes of flower are called pollen grain. The 1. High amount of protoplasm is lost in the
male gametes of plants are made in anther of stamen.
production of scent, nectar etc.
The process of transfer of pollen grains from anther to
the stigma (carpel) is called pollination. It is of 2. Large number of pollen grains is lost.
following two type : 3. For cross-pollination, plants need external agents
1. Self-pollination : It is the transfer of pollen such as wind, water, bird, insects, humans etc.
grains from the anther to the stigma of the same 4. Parental characters are not preserved.
flower or of another flower of the same plant. It is Q. 4. Describe the male reproductive system in human?
present in bisexual flowers, e.g. Commelina, (U.P. 2012, 14)
Impatiens, Viola, Arachis, Oxalis etc. Ans. Male Reproductive System
2. Cross-pollination : It is the transfer of pollen Reproductive system of a human male consist of
grains from the anther of one plant to the stigma following organs :
of another flower of another plant but of the same A. Testes
species. In nature, cross-fertilization is important
because it is responsible for the development of Ø The testes are primary sex organs that produce
new species. sperms (male gametes) and male hormones.
 95

Ø Testes are present in a pouch-like structure, E. Penis

called scrotum, where temperature is slightly Ø It is the external reproductive organs, which
lower than the body temperature (i.e., 34 to hangs down in front of scrotum. Internally, it
35°C). This lower temperature is essential for the provides passage to the urethra.
formation of sperms. Testis also secretes Ø Penis is used to pass out urine. Besides, penis is
hormone, testosterone, which promotes sperm also used to deposit semen (sperms) into the
formation and it is also responsible for the female genital tract (vagina), during sexual
puberty related changes in boy. intercourse, so that fertilization can occur.
Ø Each testis internally contains many chambers of Spermatogenesis and Sperms :
seminiferous tubules. The wall of these tubules Ø Formation of sperms is called spermatogenesis.
is called germinal epithelium, which is This process takes place inside the testes under
responsible for the formation of sperms (male the effect of various hormones, especially
gametes). testosterone. Sperm is the male gamete.
Ø The sperms are motile structure. The sperms are Q. 5. Describes the female reproductive system in human?
therefore send to a very long and highly coiled Ans. The reproductive system of human female consists of
tube, called epididymis. Inside epididymis, the following organs and glands.
sperms get matured and they acquire motility. A. Ovaries :
B. Vas Deferens and Urethra Ø These are two almond-shaped glandular
Ø The vas deferens is a long duct, which arises from structure, which are placed in the pelvic cavity,
epididymis. and one each side of the uterus.
Ø It takes the sperm from testes to the ejaculatory Ø At the time of birth, the ovaries contains a large
duct. The ejaculatory duct also receives the duct number of immature eggs, called primary
from urinary bladder. The combined duct is oocytes.
called urethra.
Ø After puberty, at each menstrual cycle (i.e., every
month), one of the eggs, undergoes maturation. It
develops with in a follicle, called Graafian
follicle.
Ø A mature Graafian follicle, contains a haploid egg
or ovum (female gamete or germ cell).
Ø In the middle of menstrual cycle, the Graafian
follicle ruptures and ovum is released from one of
the ovaries (every month). This release of egg
(ovum) from the ovary is called ovulation.
Fig.: Male reproductive system
(diagrammatic)
Ø After ovulation, the remaining part of Graafian
follicle develops into very important endocrine
Ø Urethra is long tube structure, about 20 cm long. glands, known as corpus lutuem. Corpus luteum
It provides the common pathway fort the flow of secrets an important hormone, called
urine and semen. progesterone. If there is no fertilization, corpus
C. Seminal Vesicles degenerates by 28th day of menstrual cycle.
Ø The seminal vesicles are two sac like, glandular B. Uterus
structures, situated behind the bladder. They open Ø It is a thick, muscular, pear-shaped organ, which
into the vas deferens (of their side), to form the is situated in the pelvis (lower abdomen). The
common ejaculatory duct. muscular wall of uterus is called the myometrium
Ø The secretion of seminal vesicle is highly and the inner most lining (layer) is called
nutritious for sperms. endometrium.
D. Prostate Gland Ø Uterus is associated with the vagina, through a
Ø It is a large walnut shaped gland, present below narrow, neck like part (called cervix). The upper
the bladder, surrounding the urethra. Its secretion region of uterus is associated with fallopian
is acidic in nature. tubes.
Ø The secretion of theses glands, along with sperms Ø The main function of uterus is to carry out the
is referred to as semen. It is thick, whitish fluid. development of the embryo
96

C. Fallopian Tubes (Oviducts) 1. Bacterial Diseases

Ø These are a pair of about 10 cm long tubes which Gonorrhoea : It is one of the common sexually
are associated with the upper part of the uterus. transmitted diseases. It is caused by the bacteria
Ø The other part of these tubes move towards the Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which infects the ureter in
ovaries where it enlarge to form ampulla with men and the cervix in women.
fimbriated margin. Syphilis : It is caused by Treponema pallidum.
Ø The main function of the Fallopian tubes is to Urethritis : Infection of urethra is called urethritis. It
convey the ovum from the ovary to the uterus. is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.
D. Vagina and External Genital Organs 2. Viral Diseases
Ø It is the muscular tube– like structure. It remains Herpes : It is caused by Herpes simplex virus. In this
associated with the uterus, through cervix. disease, blisters on the inner membranes of the
Ø The vagina is about 3 to 5 inches long and it opens genitalia.
to outside through vaginal opening. This opening AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome)
is located deep in the vulva region. It is the deadliest disease which has no cure so far. It is
Ø The main function of vagina is to receive the caused by a virus, called HIV (Human
semen (sperms) from the male penis, during immuno-deficiency virus). This virus attacks the
mating. immune system and leads to its destruction. The virus
is found in the lymphocytes of the blood, semen,
vaginal and cervical fluids of the human body.

Fig.: HIV virus (Causative agent of AIDS)

3. Protozoan Infection
Fig. : Female reproductive system Trichomoniasis : It is an infection of urino-genital
(diagrammatic) tract in women which is caused by a protozoan, called
E. Mammary glands (breasts) Trichomonas vaginalis.
Q. 7. What do you mean by population control? What are
Ø The mammary glands or breast are accessory
various measure to control population size?
female reproductive organs which secrete the
milk after the birth of the baby. (U.P. 2012, 14, 17, 20)
Or What do you mean by family planning? Describe the
Ø At the mid-anterior apex, each mammary gland
various methods of population control. (U.P. 2020)
bears a prominence, known as the nipple.
Ans. Population Control : Human population is rising
Ø The nipple is encircled by a dark, tinted area with an explosive rate, resulting is a dramatic increase
called the areola. The nipple is perforated by 15 to in the number of individuals. The condition is more
20 small apertures, which are opening of milk serve in developing nation like India. Population of
ducts. India in 1961 was only 43.9 crores (439 million) but it
Q. 6. What do you mean by sexually transmitted diseases has now more than 100 crores (1000 millions). These
(STDs)? Describes various sexually transmitted figures are alarming and suggest to take immediate
diseases in humans. measures to control population size.
Ans. The disease of reproductive system, that can be Family planning can be done by practicing birth
transmitted from one person to the other during sexual control measures. Birth control can be done by
contact, are called sexually transmitted diseases. preventing of pregnancy in women.
These diseases can be caused by a variety The preventing of pregnancy in women is called
microorganisms like bacterial, protozoan, and contraception, and device or chemical which
viruses. Some of the important sexually transmitted prevents pregnancy in women is called a
diseases are in this way: contraceptive. A small family is a happy family.
 97

Measures to Control Human Population : not occur. Some of the barrier methods are
Following measures may be helpful in controlling condoms, diaphragms and cervical caps.
population explosion : Condoms are balloon like structures, made up of
1. Educating people about the advantages of a small elastic rubber. These are used by males.
family. Diaphragm and cervical caps are used by
2. Providing contraceptive devices free of cost to females.
weaker section of the society. (b) Chemicals Methods : Chemicals methods include
3. Raising the age of marriages. the use of drugs. These are used by females. These
4. Generating advance technology based employ- methods include oral pills and vaginal pills. Oral
ment and infrastructure. pills contain certain hormones, which prevent the
5. Providing incentives to families observing family ovulation. These oral pills are also referred to as
planning. oral contraceptives. The vaginal pills are
inserted into the vagina where they kill the sperms.
6. Imposing legal restrictions to control the family size.
(c) Surgical Methods : See short answer type Qns.
Contraceptive Devices : These are of following three
25.
types :
(a) Barrier Methods : In these methods, certain Intra Uterine Contraceptive Devices (IUCD), like
barriers are used which prevent the meeting of copper T, loops etc. are also used.
sperms with ovum and therefore fertilization does

NCERT Intext Questions

Q. 1. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission? Q. 3. Can you think of reasons why more complex
organisms cannot give rise to new individuals through
Ans. regenerations?
Binary fission Multiple fission Ans. More complex organisms cannot reproduce by
regeneration process because :
1. In binary fission, the parent 1. Multiple fission is the
organism splits into two simultaneous division of (i) their body is highly complicated,
daughter nuclei, followed by the parent body into (ii) there are specific organs to do specific functions,
division of cytoplasm, thus many daughter (iii) there is a division of labour in the body of
resulting into two identical individuals. complex organisms,
individuals (daughter cells).
(iv) Regeneration is carried out by specialized cells,
2. It occurs during favorable 2. It occurs when an
conditions. organisms faces which are not present in complex organisms.
unfavorable Q. 4. Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing
environmental condition. some types of plant?
3. Nucleus divides only once 3. Nucleus divides Ans. Vegetation propagation practiced for growing some
in this form of reproduction. repeatedly to form large type of plants because :
number of nuclei. (i) Characters of the plants can be preserved through
4. Protective covering is not 4. Protective covering, i.e., successive generation.
formed around an organism. a cyst is formed around (ii) Seedless plants can be grown through vegetative
the organism during
multiple fission. reproduction.
5. e.g.,Amoeba, Paramecium. 5. e.g., Plasmodium. (iii) Through cutting and grafting methods, flowers
and fruits can be grown in a shorter time.
Q. 2. How will an organism be benefitted if it reproduces (iv) It is a cheaper, easier and more rapid method of
through spores? plant propagation.
Ans. An organism will be benefitted if it reproduce through Q. 5. Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process
spores because : of reproduction?
(i) It is a simpler and faster mode of reproduction. Ans. The process of reproduction results in the production
(ii) Spores being small and light, get easily dispersed of offsprings which are exactly similar to the parents.
through wind and animals. Thus, its dispersal DNA copying is accompanied by cell division that
becomes easier. gives rise to two cells. The exact blueprint of design is
(iii) Spores bear thick resistant covering to enable inherited in the offsprings due to DNA replication in
them to survive even in unfavorable conditions. parent cell.
98

Therefore, DNA copying is an essential part of the Ans. Various changes that take place in a girl body at the
process of reproduction. time of puberty are :
Q. 6. How is the process of pollination different from (i) Thick hair growth in armpits and genital area
fertilization? between the thighs.
Ans. Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the (ii) Thinner hair on legs, arms and face.
anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel. The pollen (iii) Oily skin and appearance of pimples.
grains are transferred by agents, such as insects, birds,
man, wind and water. It occurs only in plants. (iv) Breast size begins to increases.
However, fertilization in plants is the fusion of pollen (v) Darkening of the skin of the nipples at the tips of
grains, nuclei (male gamete with the egg cell) and the breasts.
secondary nucleus of embryo sac to form diploid (vi) Start of menstrual cycle.
zygote and triploid endosperm nucleus, respectively. Q. 9. How does the embryo get nourishment inside the
Fertilization in animals is defined as the fusion of a mother’s body?
male gamete (sperm) with a female gamete (ova) to Ans. The embryo gets nourishments from the mother’s
form during sexual reproduction. blood through placenta. The placenta is a disc-shaped
Q. 7. What is the role of the seminal vesicles and the tissue which is embedded in the uterine wall. It
prostate gland? contains villi on the embryo's side of the tissue. On the
Ans. Seminal vesicles are a pair of thin-walled muscular mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the
elongated sacs which secrete fluid for nourishment of villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose
sperms. and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. In
Prostate glands also produce fluid which is released in the way, embryo gets its nutrition.
the urethra along with secretion of seminal vesicle Q. 10. If a women is using a copper-T, will it help in
and helps in sperm mobility. The secretion of these protecting her from sexually transmitted disease?
accessory glands together with sperm is called semen. Ans. No, because sexually transmitted disease occur due to
It affects the vaginal pH so that sperms move fluid to fluid contact that takes place in the vagina.
smoothly inside the vagina.
Q. 8. What are the changes seen in girls at the time of
puberty?

NCERT Exercise
Q. 1. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in: some the father. The mixing of the genes of mother
(U.P. 2019) and father in various different combinations, results in
(a) Amoeba (b) Yeast the offsprings having genetic variations.
(c) Plasmodium (d) Leishmania Thus, we conclude that sexual reproduction promotes
Ans. (b) diversity of characters on the offsprings by providing
Q. 2. Which of the following is not a part of the female genetic variations. This genetic variation leads to the
reproductive system in human beings?(U.P. 2019, 20) continuous evolution of various species to form better
(a) Ovary (b) Uterus and better organisms.
(c) Vas deferens (d) Fallopian tube Q. 5. What are the functions performed by the testis in
Ans. (c) human beings?
Q. 3. The anther contains : (U.P. 2020) Ans. The function of testis is to produce sperm and male sex
(a) Sepals (b) Ovules hormone called testosterone. The scrotum provides the
(c) Carpel (d) Pollen grains optimal temperature for formation of sperms.
Ans. (d) Q. 6. Why does menstruation occur?
Q. 4. What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over Ans. Menstruation occurs in human females only when the
asexual reproduction? eggs is not fertilized by the male sperm. Since the egg
Ans. In asexual reproduction, the offsprings are almost is not fertilized so, the thick and soft uterus lining
identical to their parents because they have the same having a lot of blood capillaries in it is not require.
genes as of their parents. Thus, genetic variations not Thus, the unfertilized ovum disintegrates within a day
possible or is slow in asexual reproduction. Sexual and the uterus lining also breaks down. As the uterus
reproduction involves fusion of male and female lining contains a lot of blood vessels, so when it is
gametes coming from both the parents. Therefore, the shed, blood along with other tissue is released. This
offsprings receive some genes from the mother and comes out of the vagina in the form of bleeding.
 99

Q. 7. Draw a labled diagram of the longitudinal section of a Q. 10. How does reproduction help in providing stability to
flower. (U.P. 2012, 19) the population of species?
Ans. See long answer Type question 2. Ans. The consistency of DNA copying during reproduction
Q. 8. What are the different methods of contraception? is important for maintenance of body design features
Or What are the various ways to avoid pregnancy? that allow the organism to live in a particular area.
Elaborate any one method. (U.P. 2014, 16, 17, 18) This consistency of DNA copying provides stability
Ans. A number of preventive methods or devices have been to the populations of species. Reproduction is
developed to prevent unwanted pregnancy. These responsible for continuation of a species. Stability to
methods are broadly categorized as : population of species is attained by equalizing the
birth and death ratio of individual. Birth is possible
(i) Barrier methods, (ii) Chemicals methods, (iii)
only due to reproduction.
Surgical methods.
Q. 11. What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive
See long answer type Question 7 and short answer methods?
type Question 25. Ans. The reasons for adopting contraceptive methods are :
Q. 9. How are the modes of reproduction different in (i) Protection from sexually transmitted diseases.
unicellular and multicellular organisms?
(ii) Restricting the number of children in a family.
Ans. The unicellular organisms have only one cell. There is
no separate tissue for reproduction. So, they can (iii) Sufficient gap between successive births.
reproduce asexually by the process of fission (binary (iv) Enjoying a good reproductive health.
or multiple) or budding as in yeast. On the other hand, (v) Controlling population.
the multicellular organisms contain various cells and
have separate systems for reproduction. So, they can ccc
reproduce by both sexual reproduction.
 100

Chapter

9 Heredity and
Evolution

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. When we cross tall pea plants with dwarf pea plants, all Q. 13. In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure
the plants in F1 generation will be tall. Plants in the F2 short plant (tt), the ratio of pure tall plant to pure short
generation will be : (U.P. 2017) plants in F2 generation will be :
(a) tall and dwarf both (b) tall (a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
(c) dwarf (d) none of these Q. 14. A zygote which has inherited an X chromosome from
Q. 2. Father of heredity is : (U.P. 2013) the father will develops into :
(a) Darwin (b) Gregor Johann Mendel (a) baby boy (b) baby girl
(c) Hugo de Vries (d) H.G. Khorana. (c) either boy or girl (d) adult
Q. 3. Hereditary units present on chromosomes are called : Q. 15. Sex chromosomes in man are: (U.P. 2019)
(a) hereditary unit (b) DNA (a) XY (b) XX (c) Y (d) X
(c) RNA (d) genes Q. 16. A gradual change, over a long period in a form of life is
Q. 4. The recessive trait in garden pea is : (U.P. 2015) known as :
(a) tall stem (b) wrinkled seeds (a) erosion (b) evolution
(c) round seeds (d) inflated pod (c) revolution (d) evaluation
Q. 5. 3 : 1 ratio in F2 generation was obtained by : Q. 17. Scientists believe that all life originated in :(U.P. 2018)
(a) the sea (b) the soil
(U.P. 2015)
(c) the ground (d) the air
(a) monohybrid cross (b) dihybrid cross
Q. 18. The theory of evolution of species by natural selection
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these was given by :
Q. 6. Mendel used genetics over the plants of : (U.P. 2016) (a) Mendel (b) Darwin (c) Dalton (d) Lamarck
(a) papaya (b) grapes (c) potato (d) peas Q. 19. The organs which perform similar functions but have
Q. 7. The number of chromosomes in man : (U.P. 2016) different basic structure are called :
(a) 44 + XX (b) 44 + XY (a) homologous organs (b) analogous organs
(c) 46 + XX (d) 46 + XY (c) homolytic organs (d) analytic organs
Q. 8. The number of autosomes in sperms are : (U.P. 2016) Q. 20. The organs which perform different functions but have
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 42 (d) 44 the same basic structure are called :
Q. 9. A cross between two individuals results in a ratio of (a) asymmetric organs (b) analogous organs
9 : 3 : 3 : 1 for four possible phenotypes of progeny. (c) homologous organs (d) homophobic organs
This is an example of a : (U.P. 2018)
Q. 21. The wings of a housefly and the wings of a sparrow are
(a) dihybrid cross (b) monohybrid cross an example of :
(c) test cross (d) none of these (a) analogous organs (b) vestigial organs
Q. 10. The science of heredity is known as : (c) respiratory organs (d) homologous organs
(a) biology (b) embryology Q.22. Fossil of Archaeopteryx is the connecting link
(c) genetics (d) biochemistry between :
Q. 11. The visible characteristic in an organism is known as : (a) birds and mammals (b) birds and reptiles
(a) prototype (b) stereotype (c) amphibians and reptiles(d)fishes and
(c) phenotype (d) genotype invertebrates
Q. 12. The number of pair of sex chromosomes in the zygote Q. 23. The evolutionary history of an organism is called its :
of human is : (a) Ancestry (b) Phylogeny
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four (c) Pedigree (d) Heredity
 101

Q. 24. Chemically a gene is made up of : (c) rabbit (d) chimpanzee

(a) RNA (b) DNA Q.29. According to Mendel, genotype of dwarf plant of pea
(c) Protein (d) Carbohydrate is: (U.P. 2020)
Q. 25. Evolution of wild cabbage was possible due to : (a) TT (b) Tt (c) tt (d) tT
(a) natural selection (b) artificial selection Q. 30. The branch of science which study of fossils is:
(c) mutation (d) fossilization (U.P. 2020)
Q.26. Which of the following genotypes represents pure (a) ecology (b) ethology
round seeds? (U.P. 2019) (c) paleontology (d) biology
(a) tt (b) Tt (c) iT (d) RR Q.31. According to Darwin, new species are originate by:
Q. 27. In the view of development, we are very close to: (U.P. 2020)
(U.P. 2019) (a) natural selecton (b) mutation
(a) student of china (b) chimpanzee (c) acquired characters (d) hybridisation
(c) spider (d) bacteria Q.32. DNA found in: (U.P. 2020)
Q.28. Which one the nearest member of human in (a) cytoplasm (b) nucleoplasm
evolutionary history: (U.P. 2019) (c) nucleolus (d) nucleus
(a) monkey (b) bat
Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10 (c)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (d)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. Name the plant which was selected by Mendel for his Ans. DNA has self replicating capacity and its nucleotide
experiments, why he selected this plants? sequences can hold genetic information. So, DNA is
(U.P. 2017, 18, 19) the genetic material.
Ans. Mendel selected garden pea (Pisum sativum) for his Q. 7. How chromosomes are arranged in an ideogram?
experiments because of following reasons : Ans. In an ideogram, chromosomes are arranged in order of
(i) Short life span. their decreasing size.
(ii) Bisexual nature of flower. Q. 8. What would happen if Y type of sperm fuses with egg?
(iii) Suitable structure and shape of flower for cross Ans. This fusion would result in the formation of male
pollination. individual.
(iv) More number of contrasting characters. Q. 9. What is chromatin?
(v) Self fertilization could easily be controlled. Ans. The DNA rich part of the nucleoplasm is called
Q. 2. What are the three ways which can produce variant chromatin. It consist of DNA and histone proteins.
genotypes in the environment? Q. 10. What is importance of DNA copying in reproduction?
Ans. The three ways which can produce variant genotypes are : Ans. DNA copying ensures that same blue print of the body
(i) Gene mutations (ii) Recombination or crossing- design is maintained.
over (iii) Hybridization Q. 11. Where genes are located? (U.P. 2014)
Q. 3. What do you mean by somatic variations? Ans. Genes are DNA segments. Since, DNA is the part of
Ans. Variations, which affect only somatic (vegetative the chromosome, genes are also located within the
cells) of the body are called somatic variations. chromosomes.
Q. 4. What are germinal variations? Q. 12. Describe the chemical nature of a gene. (U.P. 2018)
Ans. Those variations which affect the germ cells of the Ans. Chemically, a gene is DNA segment, consisting of
body are called germinal variations. These variations definite numbers of deoxyribonucleotides.
are inheritable. Q.13. How many types of gametes do human females
Q. 5. What is genetic material? produce?
Ans. The material that replicates itself and carries genetic Ans. Human female produces only one type of gamete i.e.
information is called genetic material. DNA is the ovum.
genetic material. Q. 14. What is zygote?
Q. 6. Why DNA is genetic material? Ans. Zygote is a diploid cell which is formed by the fusion
of an ovum and a sperm.
102

Q. 15. Define evolution? pattern are called analogous organs. e.g., wings of a
Ans. The process of gradual development of complexities bird and wing of insects.
in living organisms over a long time period which Q. 26. What do you mean by the term ‘inheritance’?
result in the formation of better and new species, is Ans. Inheritance means the transfer of characters from
known as evolution. parents to offsprings.
Q. 16. Name a connecting link between reptiles and birds. Q. 27. What are Mendel’s factors today called as?
Ans. Archaeopteryx. Ans. Mendel's factors are know today a ‘genes’.
Q. 17. Name two vestigial organs present in your body. Q. 28. Define speciation.
Ans. Nictitating membrane and vermiform appendix. Ans. Formation of new and more complex species from
Q. 18. When a recessive character can express itself? simpler ones during long course of time is called
(U.P.2013) speciation.
Ans. A recessive character can express itself only in Q. 29. What are autosomes?
homozygous condition i.e. when both alleles of the Ans. The chromosomes other than sex chromosomes are
gene are similar. called autosomes.
Q. 19. Which cell is known as a diploid cell? Q. 30. What is organic evolution?
Ans. A cell that contains two complete sets of Ans. Organic evolution is the gradual change in living
chromosomes is called a diploid cell. organisms with the time.
Q. 20. What term is given to a cell that contains only one set Q. 31. Does the occurrence of diversity of animals on earth
of chromosomes? suggest their diverse ancestry also? Discuss this point
Ans. Haploid cell, i.e., sperm and ovum. in the light of evolution.
Q. 21. What are adaptations? Ans. No. It is not so. Evolution suggests that at some point
Ans. To suit the changes in climatic conditions, organisms of time all organisms have a common ancestry. The
develops certain changes in their body. Such changes diversity that we see around us because of different
are known as adaptations. adaptability of different organisms under different
Q. 22. What are connecting links? environmental conditions.
Ans. The organisms which have similarities of two distinct Q. 32. Name the plant which was selected by Mendel for his
groups are known as connecting links. e.g., experiments, why he selected this plants?
Archaeopteryx is the connecting link between reptiles (U.P. 2017, 18, 19)
and Aves. Ans. Mendel selected garden pea (Pisum sativum) for his
experiments because of following reasons:
Q. 23. How a female and male baby is formed?
Ans. When sperm containing X-chromosome, fuse with (i) Short life span.
ovum, the baby would be a female, and when sperm (ii) Bisexual nature of flower.
containing Y-chromosome, fuse with ovum, then the (iii) Suitable structure and shape of flower for cross
baby would be a male. pollination.
Q. 24. What are homologous organs? (iv) More number of constrasting characters.
Ans. Organs of different organisms which have similar
(v) Self fertilization could easily be controlled.
structure and origin pattern but have different
functions are called homologous organs. e.g., hands Q.33. What do you mean by heredity? Write the name of
of man and forelegs of horse. father of it. (U.P. 2020)
Q. 25. What are analogous organs? Ans. The characters which transfer from parent to
Ans. Organs of different organisms which have similar offsprings are called hereditary characters. The
functions but have different structure and origin inheritance of hereditary characters is called heredity.
Gregor Johann Mendel is father of it.

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. What is genetics? What is the contribution of Mendel chromosome. Chemically the gene is DNA, so it
in this branch of biology? consists of DNA nucleotides.
Ans. The branch of science that deals with heredity and Q. 3. How is sex determination take place in human beings?
variations is called genetics. Mendel who is known as (U.P. 2017)
‘Father of genetics’ kept the foundation of modern Ans. In human beings, females have no Y chromosome. So
genetics. He proposed the basic laws of genetics. they produce only X type of ovum. Males have both
Q. 2. What do you understand by a gene? (U.P. 2014, 18) X, as well as Y chromosome, so they produce X and Y
Ans. Gene is the segment of DNA, which contains the type of gametes. When X chromosome containing
information of a character. Since the DNA is the part sperm fuses with ovum of female, the baby would be a
of chromosome, gene is also located in a female. When Y chromosome containing sperm fuses
with ovum of female, the baby would be a male.
 103

Q. 4. What is organic evolution? Describe the contribution Mendel then crossed the tall pea plants of F1-
of Lamarck. generation. He found that tall and dwarf plants are
Ans. Organic evolution is a process of gradual changes in obtained in the F2 -generation in the ratio of 3 : 1. He
organisms to form more complex organisms over a noted that dwarf trait of the parent plant which had
long period of time. It is a naturally occurring seemingly disappeared in F1 progeny, reappeared in
biological process that results in the development of
more and more complex life from simplex life over F2 generation. Mendel called tall character (trait) as
millions of years. dominant trait and dwarf character as recessive
Lamarck proposed a theory regarding the mechanisms trait.
of evolution. He proposed that the changes that the Q. 8. Describe important points of ‘chromosomal theory of
organism acquires during its life span are passed on to sex determination’. (U.P. 2013, 18)
the next generation. Gradually, they get accumulated
and consequently a new species is formed. Ans. This theory was given by E.B. Wilson and Stevens
Q.5. What are homologous organs? How do they provide (1902-1905). It was further extended by T.H.
evidence in support of evolution? (U.P. 2014) Morgan and C.Mc Clung. According to this theory :
Ans. Organs of different organisms, which differ in their (i) The sex of the organisms is determined by the
function but have same structural plan and origin are nature of sex chromosomes.
called homologous organs. For example : (ii) In all sexually reproducing organisms, at least one
(a) Wings of bat and wings of bird. sex chromosome is present. Chromosome other
(b) Arm of man and foot of horse. than sex chromosomes are called autosomes.
These organism provide similarity in the structural (iii) Sex chromosomes are mainly of two type — X
plan of two different organism. This shows their and Y.
common ancestry. Hence, homologous organs
provide strong evidence in favour of evolution. (iv) X chromosomes is present in both male and
Q.6. What happens when pea plants with two different female members but Y chromosome is found only
contrasting characters are crossed? in males.
Ans. When pea plants with two different contrasting (v) In human beings, the female carries two X
characters are crossed, only one appears among the chromosomes but male carries one X chromosome
offspring of the next generation. But in the successive and one Y chromosome. Due to this, females have
generation, both the characters appear. XX condition, while males have XY condition.
Q.7. What do you mean by dominant and recessive
characters? (U.P. 2013, 17, 19) Q. 9. How variations are helpful in origin of a new species?
Or Explain the dominant and recessive traits on the basis Ans. The inheritable variations are accumulated and
of Mendel’s experiments. (U.P. 2019) preserved in the individuals of new generations.
Gradually, over a long period of time these variations
Ans. Mendel crossed tall pea plants with dwarf pea plants.
becomes very large in quantity and organism of the
He found that only tall pea plants were produced in the new generation becomes very much different from the
first generation (F1-generation). No dwarf pea plants original generation. In this way a new species is
were obtained in F1-generation. Mendel concluded evolved.
that F1-generation showed the traits of only one of the
Q. 10. What is synthetic theory of evolution?
parent plants. The trait of other plant did not show in
the progeny of F1-generation. Ans. Today, the most accepted theory for evolution is the
‘synthetic theory’. According to this theory the origin
Tall plant Dwarf plant of new species depends upon the interaction of
TT tt
genetic variations and natural selection (environment
conditions).
F1 Generation
Q. 11. What is fossils? How do fossils form layer by layer?
All tall plants Tt
F2 generation on selfing, i.e., Tt × Tt
(U.P. 2019)
Ans. Please see the answer of S.A type Question-19
TT Tt Tt tt Q. 12. Compare Lamarckism and Darwinism giving an
example of Giraffe. (U.P. 2016, 18, 20)
Tall plants 3 : Dwarf plant 1 Ans. The main differences between the Lamarckism and
1 : 2 : 1 Darwinism are explained on the basis of giraffe as
Pure tall Hybrid tall : Pure dwarf follows :
 104

S.No. Lamarckism Darwinism advantage to a species. Whereas speciation is the

development of a new species from pre-existing ones.
1. Lamarckism explained According to Darwin
that the ancestors of in the ancestral This leads to a sequence of gradual change in the
giraffe fed on leaves of population of giraffe, primitive organisms over millions of years, to form
bushes and trees and some individuals newer species which are very different from older
competing with each happened to have ones. This is called evolution.
other for food, stretched longer necks than Q.16. ‘‘Fossils are related to evolution’’, Justify this
their necks in order to others. This statement. Give the two ways by which age of the
reach the higher difference was fossils can be estimated?
branches. inheritable.
Or Explain the importance of fossils in deciding
2. This condition was Such long necked evolutionary relationships. (U.P. 2019, 20)
transmitted to the individuals would be
offsprings who expected to win the Ans. Fossils are the remains of the organisms which were
therefore started with a struggle of existence surviving on the earth millions of years ago. Fossils of
somewhat longer neck and short necked the organisms of past, greatly help us to understand
and repeated the individuals become the process of evolution. Fossils have provided us
process. Hence, the extinct.
decendents of the
many missing and connecting links. Fossils give clues
original stock acquired to interpret the habits and habitat of the past
progressively longer organisms. For example:
necks. Fossil of Archaeopteryx (a connecting link between
3. According to Lamarc- Because of com- reptiles and birds) clearly suggests their evolutionary
kism over use of neck petition and struggle, relationship.
and legs was nature selected long Two ways of determinating age of fossils are :
responsible for longer necked individuals
neck and legs. This and short necked (i) Relative method : fossils closer to the surface are
characters become individuals died in more recent.
inherited and long due course of time.
necked giraffe evolved.
(ii) Dating : finding the ratio of different isotopes of
the same element.
Q. 13. Distinguish between homologous and analogous Q. 17. What is speciation? List four factors that could lead to
organs. speciation. Which of these cannot be a major factor in
the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species?
Ans. S.No. Homologous Analogous organs Explain. Give reason to justify your answer.
organs Ans. Speciation is the formation of new species from the
1. It is same in basic It is not same in basic pre-existing population.
structure. structure. Factors responsible for speciation :
2. It have different It have same external (i) Genetic drift (ii) Natural selection
external structure. structure.
(iii) Geographical isolation (iv) Mutation.
3. It have different It have same functions.
functions. Geographical isolation cannot be a major factor in the
Example : Forelimbs Example : Forelimb (or speciation of a self pollinating plant species because
of a man and a lizard. wing) of bird and physical barrier cannot be created in self-pollinating
forelimb (or wing) of plants.
bat. Q. 18. Write a short note on natural selection. (U.P. 2020)
Q. 14. Why offsprings differ from parents in certain Ans. Charles Robert Darwin gave the theory of evolution in
characters? his famous book ‘The origin of species’. The theory
Ans. It is due to biparental percentage. The genes on of evolution proposed by Darwin is known as ‘The
chromosomes which pass over to the next generation theory of natural selection’. It suggests that the best
is partly derived from both the parents (mother and adapted organisms (plants and animals) are selected
father). During fertilization of egg by the sperm, new by nature to pass on their characteristics to next
combination of chromosomes enter the zygote. Due to generation. So, natural selection is the process of
which certain variations occur in the offsprings. Thus, evolution of a species whereby characteristics which
brothers and sisters show variations in their help individual oragnisms to survive and reproduce
complexion, habits and behavior. are passed on the their offspring and those
Q. 15. Natural selection and speciation leads to evolution. characteristic which do not help are not passed on.
‘Justify this statement’. Nature thus selects only the fittest and gives them
Ans. Natural selection is defined as the change in frequency chance to survive.
of some genes in a population, which gives survival Q. 19. What are fossils? How are they formed? (U.P. 2019)
 105

Ans. Fossils are dead remains of the past organisms (plants insect body decomposes, the impression of its body
and animals). These are preserved traces of living parts remains on the mud surface. Such remains
organisms, which existed on earth very long ago. (actual body part) or impression, moulds etc. are
These are in the form of actual remains, casts called fossils.
(impressions) or moulds. If we dig into the earth, we find fossils in different
Fossils are formed when the body parts of an organism layers of the earth. This is because the earth’s upper
(plants or animals) get buried in the soil layres. For surface undergoes changes gradually over a long time
example–If a dead insect get cought in hot mud, it will period. When new soil is formed, it covers the earlier
not undergo decomposition easily. surfaces and forms a new layer. So, fossils are found
When the mud dries and hardens, the insect gets in different layers of the soil surface.
preserved in it. In long course of time, even if the

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q.1. Define heredity. Explain Mendel's laws of Pure tall plant Pure dwarf plant
inheritance. (U.P. 2018) (T T) (t t)

Or Describe monohybrid cross between pure tall and

pure dwarf plants. (U.P. 2013)
Or What do you mean by independent assortment? Tt Tt Tt tt
Explain the dihybrid cross using diagrammatic sketch (Tall) (Tall) (Tall) (Tall)
only. (U.P. 2018, 20) All tall plant (Tt) Hybrid
Or Explain Mendel’s laws giving one example for each
law. (U.P. 2019, 20) 2. Law of segregation or purity of gametes
Or What are Mendel’s laws? Explain them with suitalbe (Second law) : Law of segregation states that in a
diagrams. (U.P. 2019) heterozygote, the two members of the allelic pair
Or What are Mendel’s laws of inheritance? Explain it remain together without blending. When gametes
with example of seeds of pea having round, wrinkled, are formed from the hybrid, the two genes
yellow and green characters with the help of separated out (or segregate out) and only one
diagrams. (U.P. 2019) enters each gamete. This is also known as law of
Or What do you mean by Mendel’s law of dominance? purity of gametes.
Explain it with the help of diagram of dihybrid cross?
Example : When cross between homozygous tall
(U.P. 2019)
(TT) and homozygous dwarf (tt) plants take place,
Or Explain the Mendel’s laws with example. (U.P. 2020)
in F1 generation we obtain all the tall plants
Ans. Heredity : The characters which transfer from parents
to offsprings are called hereditary characters. The (heterozygous) (Tt). The plants of F1 generation
inheritance of hereditary characters is called heredity. are self pollinated, the seeds obtained thus
Mendel’s laws of inheritance : On the basis of produce homozygous tall, heterozygous tall and
experiments, he proposed three laws which are homozygous dwarf plants in a ratio 1 : 2 : 1.
commonly known as Mendel’s laws of inheritance. Because during gamete formation; genes with
These are as follows : contrasting characters separate and only one
1. Law of dominance (First Law): According to enters each gamete. So, this is known as law of
this law when two homozygous individuals with segregation or purity of gametes.
one or more contrasting characters are crossed, the Tall plants (F1 generation)
(Hybrid=Tt)
F1 hybrid have both the contrasting genes of a pair
self cross
but only one expresses and it does not allow the
other one to appear. This is called law of
dominance. Tall Tall Tall Dwarf (F2 generation)
Example : When cross fertilization takes place, Pure (TT) Hybrid (Tt) Hybrid (Tt) Pure (Tt)
between tall plants and dwarf plants then in F1 3. Law of independent assortment (Third Law) :
generation obtain all the tall plants because Two characters under consideration are assorting
tallness is a dominant character over dwarfness in an independent manner, giving rise to different
which is recessive character. combination. It means that the genes of all the
106

characters are independent from each other and by XX and in males by XY. In males, one sex
combine to make new varieties. This law can be chromosome is longer than the other.
explained on the basis of dihybrid cross. Sex-determination in Human: During gameto-
genesis, for- mation of gametes takes place by meiosis
The plants with yellow and round seeds (pure) and each gamete receives haploid set of
were crossed with those having green and chromosomes, i.e., it receives only one chromosome
wrinkled seeds (pure). The F1 seeds were yellow from each pair.
and round. When these F1 seeds were grown into Male cell Female cell

plants, F2 seeds were obtained which showed all xy xx

the four possible combinations i.e., (i) yellow and
round seeds, (ii) yellow and wrinkled seeds,
(iii) green and round seeds and (iv) green and x y x x
wrinkled seeds. These four kinds of seeds were Sperms Eggs
obtained in 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio. (homozygous (heterozygous
Yellow Round Green wrinkled sex- sex-
xy xx xy
chromosome) xx chromosome)
(YYRR) (yyrr) ............ P
1 generation Girl Boy Girl Boy

Fig.: Sex-determination in human child

yr
By this way, each egg cell (female gamete) contains
YR
22 + X chromosomes and sperms (male gamete)
gametes contain either 22 + X or 22 + Y chromosomes.
During fertilization, egg cell receives sperm. As a
heterozygote Yellow round .............. F1 generation result of which zygote is formed which contains either
(YyRr) 44 + XX or 44 + XY chromosomes in it. It means, sex
Self ertilization
f determination depends upon the chromosomes
present in sperm. Because on the basis of sex
YR Yr yR yr
chromosomes, male and female child develop as
YR YYRR YYRr YyRR YyRr follows :
44 + XY = male child (boy)
Yr YYRr YYrr YyRr Yyrr 44 + XX = female child (girl)
F2 e
gneration Sex determination in all the organisms takes place
yR YyRR YyRr yyRR yyRr according to Mendel’s law.
Q. 3. What is variations? Write the types of variations.
yr YyRr Yyrr yyRr yyrr Ans. Variations : Organisms are not the carbon copy of
their parents. In fact, no two organisms are exactly
Fig. Dihybrid cross: Phenotypic ratio=9:3:3:1 similar. They have certain remarkable differences.
(Yellow round: yellow wrinkled: green round: These differences among different organisms are
green wrinkled) known as variations.
Therefore, it can be concluded that two characters Variations include all changes in morphological,
under consideration are assorting in an physiological and behavioural characteristics (shape,
independent manner, giving rise to different size, colour, relative position of body organs and
habits etc.).
combinations.
Variations are very important from the evolutionary
Q. 2. What do you mean by sex-chromosome? Explain the
mechanism of sex-determination in humans. point of view, because they provide basic raw
(U.P. 2013, 15, 19) material for organic evolution. In simple words,
Or Write a short note on sex-determination in human. without variations (changes) evolution can not occur.
(U.P. 2020) Type of Variations :
Broadly variations are of two types : 1. Somatic
Ans. Sex chromosome : In humans, germinal cells contain
Variation and 2. Germinal Variation
46 chromosomes. Out of these (23 pairs) chromo-
somes, 22 pairs of chromosomes are similar in both 1. Somatic Variations : These variations are caused
males as well as in females. 23rd pair of chromosome by the environmental effects on the body of the
in females is also similar but in males it is dissimilar, organisms. These variations cause local changes
these are called heterosomes or allosomes. on the constitution of the organisms and are
Chromosomes of 23rd pair are known as non-heritable. These get lost with the death of the
sex-chromosomes. In females, these are represented organism. These variations do not play any
 107

significant role from genetical and evolutionary those of birds but teeth and tail like those of
points of view. reptiles. Archaeopteryx is, therefore, a connecting
2. Germinal Variations : Germinal variations are link between the reptiles and birds, and hence
produced due to changes in the germplasm of the suggests that the birds have evolved from the
organisms. Since germ cells participate in reptiles.
reproduction, these variations are also called Q. 5. What is organic evolution? Explain Darwinism with
the help of example. (U.P. 2011, 15, 18)
genetical variations because these are inheritable
Ans. Organic evolution : Slow gradual change which is
(i.e., pass from parents to the offspring). Only
responsible for the development of complex organism
these variations are significant from the from simple primitive organisms (animals and plants)
evolutionary point of view. is called organic evolution.
Q. 4. Define organic evolution and mention atleast two Darwinism : Charles Darwin (1809-1882) proposed
evidences in support of organic evolution. (U.P. 2019) the theory of ‘Natural Selection’. He presented his
Or Explain the organic evolution with suitable example. work in a book ‘Origin of Species by Natural
(U.P. 2020) Selection’.
Or Explain the terms analogous and holomogous organs Darwinism is based on the following facts :
with example. (U.P. 2019) 1. Over production tendency : All the organisms
Or Explain the homologous and analogous organs each have a tendency to increase their number rapidly
with example. (U.P. 2019, 20) by reproduction. As a result of which, number of
Ans. Organic evolution : The word evolution has been members increases in geometric ratio. A sea
derived from the Latin word ‘evolver’ which means to urchin produces 10 lacs eggs in a year. Ascaris
‘unroll’ or ‘unfold’. We can now define the evolution
as, Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes female lays 2,70,00,000 eggs in whole life. So
which take plaec in the simple primitive organisms organisms produce large numbers of their
(animals and plants) over millions of years in which offsprings but the amount of food and the place to
new species (complex organisms) are produced. It is live on earth is limited.
also called organic evolution, because the evolution 2. Struggle for existence : Organisms need food,
of living organisms. All the plants and animals which water, light and shelter for their survival. To fulfill
we see today around us have evolved from same or the their needs, they compete with each other. This is
other ancestors that lived on this earth long, long ago. called struggle for existence, which is of the
Evidences for organic Evolution: Some of the following three types :
important sources which provide evidences for
evolution are: (i) Homologous organs (ii) Analogous (i) Intra-specific struggle : The struggle
organs (iii) Fossils. between the members of same species. All the
(i) Homologous organs: Those organs which have members need similar things, so this type of
the same basic structural design but different struggle is very much dangerous.
functions, are called homologous organs. For (ii) Inter-specific struggle : The struggle
example; the forelimbs of a man, a lizard between the members of different species.
(repetile), a frog (amphibian), a bird and a bat (iii) Environmental struggle : The struggle of
seem to built from the same basic design of bones, organisms against natural factors such as
but they perform different functions. drought, flood, famine, temperature variation,
(ii) Analogous organs: Those organs which have wind etc. is called environmental struggle.
different basic structural design but have similar 3. Variations and their inheritance : Two
appearance and perform similar functions are organisms in nature show differences. These
called analogous organs. For example; the wings differences are called variations. The children of a
of an insect and a bird have different structure but parent are also dissimilar. Those organisms in
they perforom the same function of flying. Since which variations are favourable to environment
the wings of insects and birds are analogous survive. While those in which unfavourable
organs. variations occur die. These variations are
(iii) Fossils:The remains or inpressions of dead inheritance. As a result of which progeny survives
animals or platns that lived in the remote past are in environment.
known as Fossils. Fossils provide evidence of 4. Survival of the fittest : Due to these various
evolution. For example; a fossil bird called struggles for existence and useful heritable
Archaeopteryx looks like a bird but it has many variations, only those individuals survive which
features of reptiles. It has feathered wings like are best fitted to new conditions of life and the
108

least fit are the first to perish. Herbert Spenser environmental influence leads to change in their
called this ‘Survival of the fittest’. habits which results in unusual activity of an
5. Natural selection : The survival of the fittest is organ or structure.
the result of natural selection. 3. Use and misuse of organs : The continuous and
6. Origin of species : One variation in a population constant use of organs make them efficient and
causes a small change. These variations are lead to their better development, while misuse for
heritable and transmit in different generations. a long time make them undeveloped and
After several generations, an ancestral population ultimately lead to their degeneration. Sometimes,
may give rise to new descendent population, these remains present as vestigial organs.
which show dissimilarities with the ancestral one. 4. Inheritance of acquired characters : The
Example : Lion, tiger, cat and panther are similar favourable structural changes gained by an
to each other in structure and nature. These all are individual due to use or misuse during its life time
evolved from a common ancestral stock. Because is preserved and are passed on to its offsprings.
of different environmental conditions, they evolve Such cumulative effects will finally result in the
in different ways and become dissimilar. appearance of new species.
Q. 6. Explain Lamarckism with the help of example. Evidences of Lamarckism : Lamarck proved his
(U.P. 2013, 15, 17, 18) ideas on the basis of following examples.
Ans. Lamarckism : Jean Baptiste De Lamarck explained 1. Example of giraffe : The continuous stretching of
scientifically the organic evolution for the first time. neck for several generations by giraffe to catch
He published his work in the book ‘Philosophic high located leaves of desert-trees caused the
zoologique’ in 1809, which is popular as lengthening of its neck. This was due to
Lamarckism. continuous use of particular organ (neck).
Lamarckism is based on the following facts : 2. Example of snake : Snakes have elongated body
1. Tendency to increase in size : According to accompanied by loss of limbs. The continuous
Lamarck, each organism shows a tendency to creeping through holes and crevices made limbs
increase in size. continuously useless for locomotion with the
2. Effect of environment : Lamarck believed that result that limbs become completely lost in
various factors like soil, food, temperature etc. act snakes. Their ancestors possess short limbs.
directly or indirectly on organisms. This

NCERT Intext Questions

Q. 1. If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an round-yellow seeds were produced in the first
asexually reproducing species and a trait B exists in generation. No wrinkled-green seeds were obtained in
60% of the same population, which trait is likely to the F1 generation. From this, it was concluded that
have arisen earlier? round shape and yellow colour of the seeds were
Ans. Trait B is likely to have arisen earlier in a population dominant traits over the wrinkled shape and green
of an asexually reproducing species. colour of the seeds.
Q. 2. How does the creation of variations in a species When the F1 generation pea plants having round
promote survival?
yellow seeds were cross-breed by self-pollination,
Ans. Variations in a species arise due to errors in DNA then four types of seeds having different
copying. Force of natural selection selects individuals
with useful variations in the prevailing environment combinations of shape and colour were obtained in
so as to ensure their survival. The individuals with second generation (F2 ). These were round yellow,
useful variations increase in numbers through round green, wrinkled yellow and wrinkled green
differential reproduction in the population. seeds.
Q. 3. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits may be Such a cross is known as dihybrid cross as two sets of
dominant or recessive? corresponding characters are considered.
Ans. See Short Answer Type Qns. 7. Thus, ratio of F2 generation is
Q. 4. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are
inherited independently? Round : Round : Wrinkled : Wrinkled
Ans. When Mendel first crossed pure-breed pea plants yellow green yellow green
having round-yellow seeds with pure-breed pea plants 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
having wrinkled-green seeds, he found that only
 109

Thus, the ratio of each phenotype (or appearance) of In case I, let us assume that trait ‘A’ is dominant.
the seeds in the F2 generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. Mendel Then father may have I AI A or I AI O and mother I OI O .
observed that round yellow and wrinkled green, and
In this case, 50 per cent of the progeny will have blood
two new combinations of characteristics had
appeared in the generation. These were round green group A and 50 percent of the progeny will have blood
and wrinkled yellow. On the basis of this group O, when father’s blood group is A and mother’s
observation, Mendel concluded that though the two is O.
A A
pairs of original characteristics (seed colour and I I
shape) combine in the F1 generation, they get O AO AO
I I I I I
separated and behave independently in the O AO AO
subsequent generation.] I I I I I

Parental Mother plant with Father plant with In case II, let us assume that trait ‘O’ is dominant. In
Generation round yellow seeds wrinkled green seeds this case also, we see that child may have blood group
RRYY rryy
O.
A O
Gemetes RY RY ry ry I I
O AO O O
I I I I I
F1 Generation RrYy RrYy Round yellow O AO O O
I I I I I
seeds
All plant with
round yellow seeds Since, in both the assumptions the child can have
(Self-pollination)
blood group O, so we cannot establish which trait is
Plant with Plant with dominant.
round yellow seeds round yellow seeds
RrYy RrYy Q. 6. What are the different ways in which individuals with
a particular trait may increase in a population?
Ans. Individuals with particular trait may increase in a
Gametes RY Ry rY ry RY Ry rY ry population in the following ways :
(i) By natural selection
Gametes (ii) By genetic drift
Q. 7. How is the sex of the child determined in human
RY Ry rY ry beings?
Ans. See long answer type Ques. 2.
RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy Q. 8. Why are traits acquired during the lifetime of an
RY Round Round Round Round individual not inherited?
yellow yellow yellow yellow Ans. The changes in the non-reproductive body cells, i.e.,
RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy
somatic cells of an organism cannot be inherited by its
offsprings, because only those traits can be
F2 generation

Ry Round Round Round Round

transmitted to further generations in which changes
Gametes

yellow green yellow green

have occurred in the DNA present in the reproductive
RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy cells of parent organism.
rY Round Round Wrinkled Wrinkled Q. 9. Why are small numbers of surviving tigers a cause of
yellow yellow yellow yellow worry from the point of view of genetics?
RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy Ans. The small numbers of surviving tigers are a cause of
ry Round Round Wrinkled Wrinkled worry from the point of view of genetics because if
yellow green yellow green they all die and become extinct, their genes will be
lost forever and coming generations will not be able to
Independent inheritance of two contrasting traits: see tigers at all. Also, small number of tigers means
Shape and colour of the seeds less chances of variations. Variations are important
for stability of a species by natural selection.
Q. 5. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood Q. 10. What factors could lead to the rise of a new species?
group O and their daughter has blood group O. Is this Ans. Genetic variation, natural selection and reproductive
information enough to tell you which of the traits blood isolation are factors that could lead to the rise of a new
group A or O is dominant? Why or why not? species.
Ans. The information is insufficient to tell whether the trait: Q. 11. Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the
‘A’ or ‘O’ is dominant. speciation of a self-pollinating plant species? Why or
why not?
110

Ans. Geographical isolation will not be a major factor for (i) It helps to identify an evolutionary relationship
the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species between apparently different species.
because it does not have to look for other plants for its
process of reproduction to be carried out. (ii) The fossils present in the bottom rocks are simple
Q. 12. will geographical isolation be a major factor in the while the most recent fossil found in the upper
speciation of an organism that reproduces asexually? strata are highly complex. This geographical
Why or why not? succession completely agrees with the concept of
Ans. Geographical isolation will not be a major factor in the evolution.
speciation of an organism that reproduces asexually, Q. 16. Why are human beings who look so different from
because it does not required any other organisms to each other in terms of size, colour and looks said to
carry out reproduction. belong to the same species?
Q. 13. Give an example of characteristics being used to Ans. The human beings are different from each other in
determine how close two species are in evolutionary terms of size, colour and looks but are said to be of the
terms. same species (Homo sapiens) because they can
Ans. Forelimbs of humans and wings of birds show the interbreed to produce fertile offsprings (son and
closeness between these two species. Since, the daughter). The earliest members of Homo sapiens
forelimbs of a human and wings of birds have similar have been traced back to Africa. Some of our
structure but perform different functions. Thus, the ancestors stayed back in Africa and spread across
presence of homologous organs in different animals these continents; other left Africa and slowly spread
provides evidence for evolution by telling us that they across the whole earth. They moved forward and
have evolved from the same ancestor who had the backward in groups, separately or in mixed groups at
basic design of the organ on which all the homologous times. These groups of ancestors, like other species,
organs are based. lived their lives in then prevailing environment and
Q. 14. Can the wings of butterfly and the wings of a bat be developed genetic variation to become differently
considered homologous organs? Why or why not? coloured with specific features of different
Ans. The wings of a butterfly and the wings of a bat cannot geographical regions in modern times.
be considered as homologous organs because they Q. 17. In evolutionary terms, can we say which among
have different basic designs even though they perform bacteria, spiders, fish and chimpanzees have a ‘better’
similar functions. They are therefore regarded as body design? Why or why not?
analogous organs. Ans. There is no real ‘progress’ in the idea of evolution.
Q. 15. What are fossils? What do they tell us about the Evolution is simply the generation of diversity by
process of evolution? environmental selection. The only progressive trend
Ans. When organisms die, their bodies decay and in evolution seems to be that more and more complex
decompose. But every once in a while, the body or at body designs have emerged over time. However,
least some parts may be in an environment that does again, it is not as if the older designs are inefficient. So
not let it decompose completely. If a dead insect gets many of the older and simpler designs still survive. In
caught in hot mud, for example, it will not decompose fact, one of the simplest life forms, i.e., bacteria
quickly, and the mud will eventually harden and inhabit the most inhospitable habitats like hot springs,
retain the impression of the body parts of the insect. deep-sea thermal vents and ice in Antarctica. In other
All such preserved traces of living organisms are words, human beings are not the pinnacle of
called fossils. evolution, but simply yet another species in the
The fossils tell us the following : teeming spectrum of evolving life.

NCERT Exercise
Q. 1. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall (c) potato and runners of grass
pea plants bearing violet flowers with short pea plants (d) all of these
bearing white flowers. The progeny all bore violet Ans. (d)
flowers, but almost half of them were short. This Q. 3. In evolutionary terms, we have more in common with:
suggest that the genetic make-up of the tall parent can (U.P. 2019)
be depicted as :
(a) a Chinese school-boy (b) a chimpanzee
(a) TTWW (b) Ttww (c) TtWW (d) TtWw
Ans. (c) (c) a spider (d) a bacterium
Ans. (a)
Q. 2. An example of homologous organs is : ( U.P. 2019, 20)
(a) our arm and dog’s foreleg Q. 4. A study found that children with light-coloured eyes
are likely to have parents with light-coloured eyes. On
(b) our teeth and an elephant’s tusks
this basis, can we say anything about whether the light
 111

eye colour trait is dominant or recessive? Why or why Ans. Sexual reproduction gives rise to more viable
not? variations than asexual reproduction. In asexual
Ans. From this study we can say light-coloured eye is a reproduction, the offsprings are almost identical to
dominant trait because children born from parents their parents because they have the same genes as of
having light-coloured eyes also had light-coloured their single parent. Thus, much genetic variation is not
eyes. possible in asexual reproduction. Asexual
Q. 5. How are the areas of study—evolution and classifi- reproduction inhibits the further evolution of the
cation interlinked? (U.P. 2019) organism.
Ans. Characteristics of organisms refer to the details of In sexual reproduction, the offsprings although
their external and internal appearance or behaviour similar to their parents, are not identical to them or to
that distinguish them from one another. These one another. This is because the offsprings receive
characteristics or organisms also form the basis for the some genes from the mother and some from the father.
classification of organisms. The more characteristics Because of the mixing of genes of mother and father
two species have in common, the more closely they in different combinations, all the offspring will
are related. And the more closely they are related the exhibit genetic variations. In this way, sexual
more recently they will have had a common ancestor. reproduction leads to a greater variations in the
By identifying hierarchies of characteristics between population.
species, we can work out the evolutionary relation- Thus, genetic variation leads to the continuous
ships of the species we see around us. Thus, we can evolution of various species to form better and still
appreciate that classification of species is in fact better organisms.
reflection of their evolutionary relationship.
Q. 10. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and
Q. 6. Explain the terms analogous and homologous organs female parents ensured in the progeny?
with examples.
Ans. In case of human beings, 23 pairs of chromosomes
Ans. See long Answer Type Question. 4. have a maternal and a paternal copy. Out of 23 pairs,
Q. 7. Explain the importance of fossils in deciding 22 pairs are said to be autosomes and one pair is called
evolutionary relationship. (U.P. 2019, 20) sex chromosome. At the time of fertilization, the egg
Ans. See short Answer Type Question-16. cell fuses with the sperm cell which is haploid (n) to
Q. 8. What evidence do we have for the origin of life from form zygote. Zygote is diploid (2n) which contains 23
inanimate matter? (U.P. 2019) pairs of chromosomes from mother and 23 pairs from
Ans. An experiment conducted by Stanley L. Miller and father. In this way, an equal genetic contribution of
Harold C. Urey in 1953 proved that origin of life takes male and female parents is ensured in the progeny.
place from inanimate matter. They assembled an Q. 11. Only variations that confer an advantage to an
apparatus to create an early earth atmosphere which individual organism will survive in a population. Do
consisted of gases like methane, ammonia and you agree with this statement? Why or why not?
hydrogen but no oxygen, over water. This was
Ans. We agree with this statement that only variations that
maintained at a temperature just below 100°C and
electric sparks were passed through the mixture of confer an advantage will survive in a population.
gases to stimulate lightning. At the end of a week, All the variations do not have an equal chance of
15% of the carbon (from methane) had been converted surviving in the environment in which they find
to simple compounds of carbon including amino acids themselves. The chances of survival depends on the
which make up protein molecules. nature of variations. Different individuals would have
Q. 9. Explain how sexual reproduction gives rise to more different kinds of advantages. A bacteria that can
withstand heat will survive better in a heat wave.
viable variations than asexual reproduction. How
Selection of variants by environmental factors forms
does this affect the evolution of those organisms that
the basis for evolutionary processes.
reproduce sexually?
ccc
 112

Unit-3: Natural Phenomena

Chapter

10 (Reflection and Refraction)

Light

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. One object is placed before plane mirror at a distance (b) between focus and centre of curvature
of 10 cm. The distance of image from the mirror will (c) at centre of curvature
be : (U.P. 2014)
(d) away from centre of curvature
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 0 cm
Q. 12. The image formed by a mirror is always virtual, erect
Q. 2. Conjugate focus are possible only in : (U.P. 2012) and smaller than object. This mirror is : (U.P. 2015)
(a) convex mirror (b) concave mirror (a) plane mirror (b) convex mirror
(c) plane mirror (d) ordinary glass (c) concave mirror (d) none of these
Q. 3. The relation between focal length ( f ) and radius of Q. 13. When an object is placed at a nearer point to a mirror,
curvature ( R ) is : (U.P. 2014, 15, 17, 19) an erect image is formed and when object is placed at a
1 farther point, it becomes inverted, then mirror is :
(a) f = R (b) f = (c) 2 f = R (d) f = 2R
R (U.P. 2015)
Q. 4. The focal length of a convex mirror is 12 cm, its radius (a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror
of curvature will be : (U.P. 2011, 19) (c) convex mirror (d) none of these
(a) 6 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 18 cm (d) 24 cm Q. 14. An image formed by a convex mirror will always lie :
Q. 5. Virtual and larger than object size image of an object (U.P. 2015)
can be formed by : (U.P. 2011) (a) between centre of curvature and focus
(a) convex mirror (b) concave lens (b) between centre of curvature and infinity
(c) concave mirror (d) plane mirror (c) between pole and focus
Q. 6. Which of the following mirrors, forms a diminished (d) can be formed anywhere
and virtual image of an object? (U.P. 2011) Q. 15. The radius of curvature of a concave mirror is 20 cm.
(a) Plane (b) Concave Its focal length will be : (U.P. 2018)
(c) Convex (d) All of these (a) -20 cm (b) -10 cm
Q. 7. The focal length of a concave mirror with it’s radius of (c) 40 cm (d) 10 cm
curvature 20 cm, will be : (U.P. 2016)
Q. 16. An object is situated in front of a concave mirror,
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 20 cm
having focal length 10 cm, at a distance of 20 cm from
Q. 8. The focal length of a concave mirror is 15 cm. Radius it. The image of object will be formed: (U.P. 2017)
of curvature is : (U.P. 2012, 13, 14) (a) behind the mirror
(a) 15 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 45 cm (d) 60 cm
(b) between mirror and focus
Q. 9. The focal length of a plane mirror is: (U.P. 2014)
(c) at focus
(a) zero (b) infinite (c) 25 cm (d) -25 cm
(d) at centre of curvature
Q.10. The focal length of a convex mirror is 10 cm. The
Q. 17. Whose field of view is largest? (U.P. 2017)
radius of curvature of convex side of the mirror will
be : (U.P. 2016) (a) Plane mirror (b) Convex mirror
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 20 cm (c) Concave mirror (d) Convex lens
Q. 11. The image formed by a concave mirror is virtual, erect Q. 18. Speed of light in air is 3 ´ 10 8 m/s and in some other
and magnified. Object is situated : (U.P. 2017) medium is 1.5 ´10 8 m/s. The refractive index of this
(a) between pole and focus medium is : (U.P. 2017)
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 0.5 (d) 2
 113

Q. 19. The refractive index of glass is minimum for:(U.P. 2016, 18) (a) In between P and F behind mirror, virtual and
(a) violet colour (b) yellow colour erect.
(c) green colour (d) red colour (b) In between P and F behind mirror, virtual and
inverted
Q. 20. A ray of light incident normally at the separating plane
of two media. The angle of refraction will be : (c) In front of mirror, real and erect
(U.P. 2013, 19) (d) In front of mirror, virtual and erect. (Here F is
focus.)
(a) 0° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
3 Q.29. Where an object should be placed in front of the
Q. 21. If refractive index of glass w.r.t. air is , then refractive concave mirror so that its image be erect and larger in
2 size ? (U.P. 2019)
index of air w.r.t. glass is : (U.P. 2014, 16) (a) At the centre of curvature C of the mirror
3 1 5 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) (b) At the focus point F of the mirror
2 2 2 3
(c) In between the centre of curvature C and the focus
Q. 22. The speed of light in air is 3 ´ 10 8 m/s. The speed of point F of the mirror
3 (d) In between the pole P and the focus point F of the
light in glass with refractive index will be :
2 mirror.
(U.P. 2013, 16, 19) Q.30. Image formed by a mirror is always straight whatever
(a) 2 ´ 10 8 m/s (b) 3 ´ 10 8 m/s will be the distance, then mirror is: (U.P. 2019)
(a) only plane (b) only concave
(c) 4.5 ´10 8 m/s (d) 1.5 ´10 8 m/s
(c) only convex
Q. 23. The refractive index of glass is maximum for :
(U.P. 2013, 17, 19, 20) (d) either plane or convex
Q.31. To make an image real, inverted and larger than the
(a) red colour (b) violet colour
object with a convex lens, the object should be placed :
(c) green colour (d) yellow colour
(U.P. 2019)
Q. 24. If an object is kept at a distance of 2 f in front of a (a) On the focus of lens
convex lens then find the distance of it’s image from (b) On the distance 2 f of lens
the lens : (U.P. 2011, 16)
(c) Between f and 2 f of lens
(a) f (b) 2 f
(d) Between 2 f and infinity.
(c) infinity
Q.32. An object is placed at a distance of 0.2 m from a lens.
(d) between 2 f and infinity
Magnification of virtual image formed is 0.5, then lens
Q. 25. The velocity of light in the vaccum is : (U.P. 2018) is : (U.P. 2019, 20)
7 8
(a) 3 ´ 10 m/s (b) 2 ´ 10 m/s (a) concave with focal length 0.1 m
(c) 3 ´ 10 8 m/s (d) 3 ´ 1010 m/s (b) concave with focal length 0.2 m
Q. 26. The image formed by a convex lens will be virtual, if : (c) convex with focal length 0.1 m
(U.P. 2018) (d) convex with focal length 0.2 m
(a) object is at infinity Q.33. For which type of mirror, image of an object placed in
(b) object is at focus front of it will be real, inverted and diminished?
(c) object is between F and 2F (U.P. 2020)
(d) object is between focus and optical centre (a) convex (b) concave
Q. 27. The nature of the image formed by a convex lens : (c) plane (d) none of these
(U.P. 2018) Q.34. In which of the following medium, speed of light will
(a) real and erect be maximum? (U.P. 2020)
(b) virtual and diminished (a) air (b) water (c) glass (d) vacuum
(c) virtual and inverted Q.35. Focal length of a convex lens having radius of
curvature 32 cm will be : (U.P. 2020)
(d) real and inverted
(a) 32 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 64 cm (d) 8 cm
Q. 28. What will be the position and nature of the image of an
object formed by a convex mirror placed between Q.36. Focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm. Its radius of
infinity and pole ( P ) of the mirror? (U.P. 2019) curvature is : (U.P. 2020)
(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 40 cm (d) 80 cm
114

Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10 (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. ( b) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (c)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. Write the relation among u, υ and f for concave Ans. For violet colour of the light.
mirror? (U.P. 2012) Q. 9. The refractive index of glass w.r.t. air is 1.5. What is
1 1 1 the refractive index of air w.r.t. glass? (U.P. 2014)
Ans. + =
υ u f Ans. a ng =1.5
Q. 2. Draw a ray-diagram for the formation of image of an 1 1 2
object placed between centre of curvature and focus g na = = =
a ng 1.5 3
of a concave mirror? (U.P. 2012)
Ans. Q. 10. The speed of light in air and water are 3 ´ 10 8 m/s and
O¢ 2.25 ´10 8 m/s respectively. Find the refractive index
of water w.r.t. air. (U.P. 2011)
I 8
P Ans. Speed of light in air, c = 3 ´ 10 m/s
C O F
Speed of light in water, υ = 2.25 ´ 10 8 m/s
I¢
c 3 ´ 10 8 4
Q. 3. What type of mirror is used as a lamp shade, over the a nw = = = = 1.33
υ 2.25 ´ 10 8 3
lamps used as street light? Also, write one more use of
Q. 11. The refractive index of a transparent liquid w.r.t. air is
this mirror. (U.P. 2012)
1.2 and that of a transparent solid is 1.8. Find the
Ans. Convex mirror. It is used in cars, buses, trucks and refractive index of solid w.r.t. liquid. (U.P. 2017)
other automobiles near the driver seat for rear
view. Ans. n
a l = 1.2 , n
a s = 1.8
Q. 4. The focal length of convex mirror is 10 cm. What will a ns = 1.8 = 1.5
be the maximum distance of an object’s image in it? l ns =
a nl 1.2
(U.P. 2014) Q. 12. Name the lens, which is used in a projector.
Ans. On 10 cm. (When object is at infinity). Ans. Convex lens
Q. 5. The image formed by a mirror is erect and smaller than
Q.13. The speed of light in water is 2.25 ´10 8 m/s. If
the object. What kind of mirror is this? Is the image 4
real or virtual? (U.P. 2015) refractive index of water is , then find the speed of
Ans. Convex mirror, image is virtual. 3
light in vacuum. (U.P. 2017)
Q. 6. List out any two uses of concave mirror. (U.P. 2016)
Ans. 1. It is used as reflectors in the head lights of cars, Ans. υ = 2.25 ´ 10 8 m/s
c 4
search lights, torch etc. to obtain a parallel beam n = OR c = n ´ υ = ´ 2.25 ´ 10 8 = 3.0 ´ 10 8 m/s
of light. υ 3
2. It is used by dentists to focus light on the patient’s Q. 14. What is meant by the optical centre of a lens?
tooth to be examined. (U.P. 2017)
Q. 7. Write the relation between refractive index ( n) and Ans. Optical centre: It is point on principal axis of lens
through which light passes straight undeviated.
critical angle (c). (U.P. 2011, 12, 13, 14)
Q. 15. Write the relation between the distance ( u) of object
Or If critical angle of a transparent medium is c, then what
will be the refractive index of this medium? from lens, distance ( υ) of image from lens and
magnification (m) produced by lens. (U.P. 2014, 15)
(U.P. 2017)
υ
1 Ans. Magnification, m =
Ans. Refractive index, 1 n2 = u
sin c
Q. 16. The ratio of the object length to image length is 1 : 4.
Q. 8. For which colour of the light the refractive index of
What will be the ratio of distance of object ( u) to
glass is maximum? (U.P. 2011, 15)
distance of image (υ) from lens? (U.P. 2014, 15)
 115

I 4 Ans.
Ans. O : I =1: 4 Þ =
O 1 O¢

I υ u 4 I¢
m= = Þ =
O u υ 1 O P I F C
ratio, u: υ =1: 4
Q. 17. In a transparent medium, light of which colour will
have less speed — red colour or violet colour?
(U.P. 2018) Image is virtual, erect and diminised behind the mirror.
Ans. Violet colour Q. 21. The image of an object is formed on the object itself
Q. 18. Differentiate between virtual image formed by a placed at 36 cm from the pole on the principal axis of
concave mirror and of a convex mirror. (U.P. 2018) concave mirror. Calculate the focal length of the
Ans. Virtual image formed by a concave mirror is larger mirror and linear magnification. (U.P. 2019)
than the object while virtual image formed by a Ans. Because image is being formed at the same point
convex mirror is smaller than the object. where object is kept, so it is radius of curvature (R)
Q. 19. Why is convex mirror used as a rear view mirror in R 36
and f = =- = -18 cm
vehicles? State any one reason. 2 2
Ans. As convex mirror gives a wider field view of the Also u = -36 cm, υ = -36 cm, f = ? m = ?
approaching traffic, so it is used as a rear view
1 1 1 1 æ 1 ö 2
mirror. = + =- +ç - ÷ = - = -18 cm
Q. 20. Draw a ray diagram of image formed by a convex f υ u 36 è 36 ø 36
mirror. (U.P. 2018, 20) υ æ -36 ö
Also, m = - = -ç ÷ = -1
Or Draw a ray diagram to show the porition and nature of u è -36 ø
the image formed of an object placed between the
so image in inverted.
convex mirror and its focus. (U.P. 2019)

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. Prove that the focal length of a spherical (concave) Ans. Position ¾® Behind the mirror
mirror half of its radius of curvature. (U.P. 2013, 14) Nature ¾® Larger than the object, virtual, erect.
Ans. Ð OAC = Ð ACF (Alternate angles)
\ Ð ACF = Ð CAF M1 I¢
\ In D CAF , AF = FC B
O¢
A
O A
i C F O P I
r

C F P
M2
Q. 3. Differentiate between convex and concave mirrors.
(U.P. 2012, 14)
Ans. The differences between convex and concave mirrors
If the aperture of the mirror is small, the point A is
are shown in following table:
very near to point P,
Differences Between Convex and Concave Mirrors
\ AF = PF
1 Convex Mirrors Concave Mirrors
Thus, PF = FC = PC
2 1. The focus of a convex The focus of a concave
R mirror lies behind the mirror is in front of the
\ f = where PF = f (Focal length) mirror. mirror.
2
and PC = R (Radius of curvature) 2. The focus of a covex The focus of a concave
mirror is virtual as the mirror is real as the rays
Q. 2. Draw a ray-diagram, showing the image formation of rays of light after of light after reflection
an object placed between the pole and focus of a reflection appear to come converges at the focus.
concave mirror. (U.P. 2014) from the focus.
116

3. These mirrors are These mirrors are sin i

diverging in nature. converging in nature. = Constant
sin r
4. These mirrors always These mirrors form both
form a virtual image. virtual as well as real This law is also called ‘Snell’s Law’.
image depending upon 4
the position of the object. Q. 8. The refractive index of water and glass w.r.t. air are
3
Q. 4. The radius of curvature of a concave mirror is 20 cm. 3
and respectively. Find refractive index of glass
An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from this 2
mirror. Find the distance of image of the object from w.r.t. water and that of water w.r.t. glass.
the mirror. (U.P. 2011) (U.P. 2011, 12, 15, 16)
Ans. R = -20 cm Þ f = R / 2 = -10 cm, u = -15 cm 4 3
Ans. a nw = , a ng =
1 1 1 3 2
+ =
υ u f a ng 3/2 9
w ng = = , w ng =
1 1 1 a nw 4/3 8
- =-
υ 15 10 1 1 8
\ g nw = = =
1 1 1 2-3 1 n
w g 9 / 8 9
Þ = - = =-
υ 15 10 30 30
Q. 9. The refractive index of water and glass w.r.t. air are
Þ υ = -30 cm
1.35 and 1.50 respectively. If light ray is entering
\Image will be formed at a distance of 30 cm from the from glass to water, then find the refractive index.
mirror. (U.P. 2017)
Q. 5. The focal length of a concave mirror is 5 cm. Where Ans. n = 1.35, n = 1.50
a w a g
will the image of an object placed in front of it at a
distance of 10 cm be formed? Will it be real? Q Ray is entering from glass to water
(U.P. 2011, 12, 13) n 1.35 9
\ Refractive index, g nw = a w = = = 0.9
Ans. f = -5 cm, u = -10 cm n
a g 1.50 10
1 1 1 Q. 10. Draw a ray-diagram showing the image formation of
+ =
υ u f an object placed at the focus of convex lens. Also
1 1 1 describe the position and nature of image. (U.P. 2014)
- =- Ans. Position ¾® Image is formed at infinity.
υ 10 5
1 1 1 1-2 1 Nature ¾® Much larger than the object, real, inverted.
Þ = - = =-
υ 10 5 10 10 O¢
Þ υ = -10 cm
\Image will be formed at a distance of 10 cm from the F
mirror. Yes, it will be real. O C F¢
Q. 6. Write the uses of convex mirror. (U.P. 2012, 20)
Ans. Uses of convex mirror:
(1) It is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles.
Q. 11. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a
(2) It is used in street light as reflector for
convex lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the position
spreading the light over a larger area.
and distance of the image. (U.P. 2016)
Q. 7. Write the laws of refraction of light.
Ans. u = -30 cm, f =15 cm
Or Write the Snell’s law regarding the refraction of light
1 1 1
and explain it. (U.P. 2015, 19) - =
υ u f
Ans. Laws of Refraction: There are two laws of refraction
of light. 1 1 1
+ =
υ 30 15
(i) First Law: The incident ray, the refracted ray and the
1 1 1 1
normal all lie in the same plane. Þ = - = Þ υ = 30 cm
υ 15 30 30
(ii) Second Law or Snell’s Law: The ratio of sine of
Distance of the image will be 30 cm to the other side
angle of incidence (i) to the sine of angle of refraction of lens.
(r) is a constant for the light of given colour Q. 12. An object is placed in front of a convex lens :
(Wavelength) and for the given pair of media
 117

(i) in between optical centre and focus

(ii) at 2F and
F¢ C F
(iii) at infinity, then show the position of image in
both the cases by drawing ray-diagrams.
(U.P. 2016, 17) f¢ f
Or Draw a ray diagram for the formation of image of (a) (b)
an object a convex lens when the objects:
(i) at infinity, (ii) between the focus and optical (ii) Principal Focus: The rays parallel to the principal axis,
centre of the lens. (U.P. 2019) after refraction, either go towards a fixed point or
Or Show the nature, position and relative size of the appear to come from a fixed point on the axis. This
image formed by convex lens for an object placed point is called the second focus or principal focus of
at 2 F distance. Draw ray diagram. (U.P. 2020) the lens. [Fig. (b)]
Ans. (i) When object is placed in between optical centre Q. 14. A real image of an object placed at a distance of 30 cm
and focus : from a convex lens, is formed at a distance of 20 cm.
B¢ L
Find the focal length of lens. Also, draw a
ray-diagram. (U.P. 2015)
B Ans. u = -30 cm and υ = 20 cm,
E F2 1 1 1 1 1 1 5 1
A¢ F1 A C = - Þ = + = =
f υ u f 20 30 60 12
\ Focal length, f =12 cm
L¢ O¢
(ii) When object is at 2F1 :
L F¢ I
B O F C
E I¢
2F1 F2 A¢
A F1 C 2F2 Q. 15. The focal length of a concave lens is 20 cm. At what
2f distance from this lens, an object should be placed, so
B
L¢
that its image may form at a distance of 12 cm from the
2f lens? (U.P. 2015)
(a) Image is formed at 2F2 . Ans. f = -20 cm and υ = -12 cm
(b) Same size of image as that of the object. 1 1 1
- =
(c) Real and inverted. υ u f
(iii) When object is at infinity : 1 1 1
- - =-
B L 12 u 20
1 1 1 2 1
- = - = =
A¢ u 12 20 60 30
A F1 C F2
u = -30 cm
B¢ \ Object should be placed at a distance of 30 cm from
L¢ the lens.
Image is formed real, inverted and highly Q. 16. A three times larger image of an object is formed upon
diminished on the opposite side of the lens at a screen by a convex lens. If positions of object and
second focus F2 . image are interchanged, then what will be the
Q. 13. Define first and second principal foci of a convex lens magnification? (U.P. 2017, 19)
using an appropriate ray-diagram. (U.P. 2015, 17) υ υ
Ans. m = Þ -3 = Þ υ = -3u
Ans. (i) Focus: The rays starting from a fixed point on the u u
When positions of object and image are interchanged,
principal axis, or appearing to go towards a fixed
then the values of u and v will also interchanged.
point on the axis, after refraction through lens become
\ u¢ = -3u, υ¢ = -u
parallel to the principal axis. This point is called first υ¢ - u 1
focus of the lens. [Fig. (a)] \Now, magnification m = = or m =
u¢ - 3 u 3
118

Q. 17. An object is placed on the principal axis of a convex O¢

lens at a distance of 36 cm from it. Image of object is
formed at the same distance from the lens but on the I¢
opposite side. Find the focal length of lens and linear F
magnification of image. (U.P. 2017) O I C F¢
Ans. u = -36 cm, υ = +36 cm
1 1 1
= - \ Image is formed at a distance of 40 cm on the same
f υ u
side as object. It is larger than the object, erect, virtual
1 1 1 2 1 and 10 cm long (double sized of the object).
= + = =
f 36 36 36 18 Q. 20. Explain with the help of a
diagram, why a pencil partly Pencil
\ Focal length, f =18 cm immersed in water appears N1 N
2

υ 36 to be bent at the water

Magnification, m = = = -1 surface? (M. Imp.)
u - 36 Water
Ans. The reason of this
Q. 18. An object is placed at a distance of 50 cm from a
phenomenon is very
concave mirror. Its real and inverted image is formed
important property of light, called refraction, i. e.,
at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror. Calculate the
bending of light, when the light passes from one
focal length of mirror and magnification of image.
medium to another.
(U.P. 2018)
Q. 21. With the help of a labelled diagram, explain why a
Ans. u = -50 cm, υ = -20 cm tank full of water appears less deep than it actually is.
1 1 1 (M. Imp.)
= +
f υ u Ans. When we look into a tank of water, we do not see the
actual bottom of the tank, we see a virtual image of the
1 1 1 7
=- - =- bottom of the tank which is formed by the refraction
f 20 50 100 of light coming from the tank water into the air. Since
100 the image of the bottom of the pool is formed nearer to
\ f =- = -14.28 us. Therefore, we feel that the tank is less deep.
7
υ +20 2
\ m= =- = - = - 0.4
u +50 5 Eye
\ Focal length of the mirror is 14.28 and
magnification is – 0.4.
Q. 19. A 5 cm tall object is placed on the principal axis of a
Air
convex lens of focal length 40 cm at a distance of 20
Water
cm from it. Find the nature, position and size of the Apparent
depth
image. Draw ray-diagram also. (U.P. 2018) Real
depth
Ans. O = 5 cm, f = +40 cm, u = -20 cm
Tank
1 1 1
- = Q. 22. Draw the ray diagram of image of an object by convex
υ u f lens placed between first principal focus and second
1 1 1 1 1 1 principal focus. (U.P. 2018, 20)
+ = Þ = - Ans. Image is real, inverted and magnified in this
υ 20 40 υ 40 20
condition. Image formed beyond 2F2 .
1 1 Ray diagram
=- Þ υ = - 40 cm
υ 40 P

I υ A
Magnification =
O u C1 O F2 2F2 B¢
2F1 B F1 C2
I - 40
= Þ I =10 cm
5 -20 A¢
Q
 119

Q. 23. Show by diagram that how to adjust two convex lens Using mirror formula
that upcoming parallel rays will became parallel again 1 1 1 1 1 1
after travelling through lens. (U.P. 2018) = + Þ = -
f υ u υ f u
Ans.
1 1 3 5
= - = Þ υ = = 1.66 m
25
. -5 5 3
F I υ 166
.
Magnification = = - = - = 033
.
O u -5
Here, parallel rays are supposed to be coming from a i. e., image is 0.33 times to the size of object. It is
infinite distance. As we know that in case of convex virtual and behind the mirror.
lens, whenever an object is placed at infinite distance, Q.27. Calculate the position of an image of an object placed
then image formed at F and vice-versa. 30 cm away from a concave lens focal length 15 cm.
Therefore, if we adjust the position of second convex Also calculate the magnifying power of the lens.
lens in such a way that focus of second convex lens (U.P. 2019)
coincides will the image of first convex lens as shown Ans. For concave lens f = -15cm, u = -30 cm, υ = ?, m = ?
in figure, then we shall get parallel rays again. 1 1 1 1 1 1
Q. 24. Which type of mirror you will use to view the vehicle = - Þ = +
f υ u υ f u
approaching your car or bike from the rear side?
Answer with reasons. Whether the image formed will 1 1 1 3
= + =- Þ υ = -10 cm
be real or virtual? (U.P. 2019) υ -15 -30 30
Ans. To see the rear view in moving cars or bikes, convex – ve sign signifies that image is formed in object side
mirrors are used because their view area is high and and virtual erect image.
a large area of rear side can be viewed. The image υ -10 1
formed is always erect and smaller in size than Magnification m = = = (i. e.,diminished)
object. u -30 3
Q. 25. A 5.0 cm long object is placed at a diastance of 20 i. e., size of image will be same as of object.
cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Object is Q. 28. A concave lens has focal length 15 cm. If image is
placed normal to the principal axis of the lens. Find formed at a diatance 10 cm from the lens, find the
out nature, position and size of the image. (U.P. 2019) position of object. Calculate the magnification
Ans. Given that O = 5.0 cm, u = -20 cm, f =10 cm. produced by the lens also. (U.P. 2019)
Or The focal length of a concave lens is 15 cm. At what
Using lens formula distance should an object be placed from the lens, so
1 1 1 1 1 1 that the image of the object be formed at 10 cm from
= - or = + the lens? Calculate the magnification produced by the
f υ u υ f u
lens also. (U.P. 2019)
1 1 æ 1 ö 1 Ans. υ = -10 cm, f = -15 cm (concave lens), u = ?
= +ç ÷= Þ υ = 20 cm
υ 10 è -20 ø 20 1 1 1 1 1 1
= - Þ = -
i. e., image will be formed at 20 cm behind the lens. It f υ u u υ f
will be real and inverted. 1 1 æ 1 ö -3 + 2
I υ υ 20 = - -ç ÷= Þ u = -30 cm.
m = = Þ I =O ´ =5´ = -5 cm u 10 è -15 ø 30
O u u -20
i. e., object is placed at 30 cm distance from the lens
i. e., size of image will be same as of object. υ -10
Q. 26. A convex mirror with radius of curvature 5 metre is m= = = 0.33
u -30
attached with a motorcycle to see the objects behind
the motorcycle. Describe the position, nature and size + ve sign signifies that image is erect, virtual and
of the image, formed by this mirror, of another diminished
motorcycle coming from behind at a distance of 5 Q. 29 An object of length 5 cm is placed at the distance of 30
metre. (U.P. 2019) cm from the centre of a convex lens of focal length 20
Ans. Given that radius of curvature, R = 5 m cm. Find the position of the image and its size.
R 5 (U.P. 2019)
so f = = = 2.5 m (+ ve for convex mirror) Ans. O = 5 cm, f = 20 cm (+ ve for convex lens)
2 2
u = -5 m, υ = ? u = -30cm, υ = ?
120

M
1 1 1 1 1 1 Ans. When the object is placed
= - Þ = +
f υ u υ f u between C and F O

1 1 1 1 In this case, the image is P

C F
= + = Þ υ = +60 cm formed beyond C. It is large,
υ 20 -30 60 inverted and real. I
So image is real and inverted on the other side than M'
object. Q.34. Refractive indices of kerosene oil, turpentine oil and
I υ 60 water are 1.44, 1.47 and 1.33 respectively. In which of
m= = = = -2
O u -30 the above, light will travel at fastest speed and why?
I (U.P. 2020)
= -2 Þ I = O ´ -2 = 5 ´ ( -2) = -10 cm
O Ans. Refractive index in medium
(inverted and enlarged) Speed of light in vacuum (c)
Q. 30. A 2.0 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the n=
Speed of light in medium ( υ)
principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm.
The distance of the object from the lens is 15 cm. Find c 30. ´ 10 8
the nature, position and size of the image. (U.P. 2020) For kerosene υ= = = 2083
. ´ 10 8 m/s
n 144
.
Ans. Given that f = +10 cm (Q convex lens), u = -15 cm,
. ´ 10 8
30
O = 2 cm, I = ?, υ=? For turpentine oil = = 2040
. ´ 10 8 m/s
For a lens 147
.
1 1 1 1 1 1 . ´ 10 8
30
= - Þ = - Þ υ= 30 cm For water = = 2.256 ´ 10 8 m/s
f υ u 10 υ -15 1.33
I υ I 30 Light travel in water fastest because the refractive
and m= = Or = Þ i = -4 cm
O u 2 -15 index of water in above is lowest.
i. e., image will be at 30 cm inverted and of 4 cm size. Q.35. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a
Q.31. Calculate the apparent depth of a black dot marked at convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Explain the
the bottom of a transparent glass cube having edge position and nature of image. (U.P. 2020)
length 4 cm. Refractive index of glass is 1.6. Ans. Distance of object from mirror, ( u) = -10 cm
(U.P. 2020) focal-length of convex mirror, f = +15 cm
Actual depth. distance of image from mirror, υ=?
Ans. R.I. =
Apparent depth. by, mirror-formula
4 4 1 1 1
1.6 = Þ App. depth = = 2.5 cm = +
App. Depth 16
. f υ u
Q.32. In an automobile a convex back mirror having radius of 1 1 1
curvature 6 m has been fitted. When a vehicle is at a = +
15 υ -10
distance 6 m from the back mirror, then calculate
position and size of image visible in mirror. (U.P. 2020) 1 1 1 2+3 5
= + = =
Ans. Radius of curvature R = 60 . m υ 15 10 30 30
R 60 . υ=6 cm
Focal length f = = . m
= 30
2 2 Positive sign. show that the image is formed backward
of mirror and it will be virtual, erect.
Object-distance, u = -6 m, Image-distance υ=?
from, mirror-formula: Q.36. Critical angle of a liquid with reference to air is 30º.
1 1 1 1 1 1 2 +1 3 Calculate the refractive index of liquid. (U.P. 2020)
= - Þ = - = = Ans. Critical angle (q c ) = 30°, refractive Index (m) = ?
υ f u υ 30 . ( - 6) 6 6 1 1 1 1
υ= 2 m From, m = = = (Qsin 30° = )
sin q c sin 30° 1 / 2 2
I -υ 2
m= = = = +0.33 m =2
O u -6 Q.37. With the help of ray diagram for a concave mirror,
Q.33. Draw ray diagram when an object is placed between express the formation of image when object is placed :
focus and centre of curvature of a concave mirror. (i) at centre of curvature
Also explain the nature and size of image. (U.P. 2020)
(ii) between the pole and focus of mirror (U.P. 2020)
 121

Ans. (i) When the object is present at centre of concave lens, the light rays coming to it after
curvature ( C ) refraction become parallel to principal axis, is
The centre of curvature is known primary focus ( F1 ) of lens.
M
a middle point. All (ii) Secondary Focus: After refraction by a convex
O
distances from this point lens, the rays of light coming parallel to principal
to every part of the mirror C P
F axis of a convex lens meet at a point from the
are the radius of the I principal axis. And after refraction from a concave
curvature of the mirror. M' lens the rays of light travelling parallel to principal
So, when the object is of axis, appear to be coming from a point of
placed at C, the image is also formed at C. The principal axis, this points are called secondary
image is inverted, real and has a size similar to focus (F2 ) of lens.
that of the object. And See Que. no.12 point (ii)
(ii) When the object is present at pole and focus Q.39. What is the nature of image formed by convex mirror?
(F) Write two practical uses of convex mirror.(U.P. 2020)
When the object is placed M Ans. In case of convex mirror: Rays coming parallel to
at pole, the actual rays the principal axis, after reflection, diverge in different
diverge from each other directions. If they are
M1
and no real image could be C F O P I projected behind the
formed. So, an upright, mirror, they meet at a
larger and virtual image is virtual point behind the f
M' F
formed. mirror. This point is P C

Q.38. Define the primary and secondary focus of a lens. An called focus of the
convex mirror. So, Virtual focus
object is placed in front of convex lens at distance M2
twice to the distance between optical centre and focus. focus of a convex mirror
Using ray diagram, explain the formation of is virtual.
image. (U.P. 2020) For uses of convex mirror See Very Short Answer
Ans. (i) Primary or First Focus: The point located on the Tupe Que. no.6
principal axis of a convex lens, the light rays
starting from this point after refration and of a

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. The length of image of an object, placed at a distance Ans. m = -5, f = -15 cm
of 25 cm from a convex mirror is half of that of object. υ
Find the focal length of the mirror. (U.P. 2014) m = - = -5 Þ υ = 5u
u
Ans. Q The image formed by a convex mirror is always
1 1 1
virtual. + =
\ The magnification will be positive. υ u f
1 1 1 1 6 1
m = , u = -25 cm + =- Þ =-
2 5u u 15 5u 15
υ 1 u -25 25 u = -18 cm; υ = 5 u
m=- = Þ υ=- =- = cm \ υ = 5 ´ ( -18) = -90 cm
u 2 2 2 2
1 1 1 \ Object should be placed at a distance of 18 cm.
+ = And image will be formed at 90 cm away from the
υ u f
mirror.
2 1 1 1 1 Q. 3. The focal length of a convex mirror is 15 cm. An
- = Þ = Þ f = 25 cm
25 25 f f 25 object is placed upon its principal axis from pole at a
\ Focal length of the mirror is 25 cm. distance of 30 cm. Find the position of the image of
object. (U.P. 2017)
Q. 2. At what distance should an object be placed from a
concave mirror with focal distance 15 cm so that a real Ans. f =15 cm, u = -30 cm
image of 5 times of the size of object may form? Find 1 1 1
+ =
the position of image also. (U.P. 2016) υ u f
122

1 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 Q. 6. An object placed at a distance of 15 cm from the

- = Þ = + = =
υ 30 15 υ 15 30 30 10 convex lens forms a real image which is twice of the
\ υ =10 cm size of object. Find the focal length of the lens.
\ Image will be formed at a distance of 10 cm, behind (U.P. 2016)
the mirror. υ
Ans. m = = -2 Þ υ = -2u
Q. 4. A 2 cm long object is placed in front of a concave u
mirror, of focal length 15 cm, at a distance of 30 cm \ υ = -2( -15) = 30 cm
from it. Find the position and size of the image 1 1 1
formed. Also state its nature. = -
f υ u
Ans. O = 2 cm, f = -15 cm, u = -30 cm
1 1 1
1 1 1 = +
+ = f 30 15
υ u f
1 3 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 = = Þ f =10 cm
- =- Þ = - =- f 30 10
υ 30 15 υ 30 15 30
\ Focal length of the lens is 10 cm.
υ = -30 cm
Q. 7. A 5 cm high object is placed at a distance of 50 cm
\Image is formed at a distance of 30 cm in front of the from a concave lens, having a focal length of 25 cm.
mirror. Find the height and position of the image so formed.
I υ -30 Ans. u = -50 cm, f = -25 cm, O = 5 cm
m= =- =- = -1
O u -30 1 1 1
I I - =
\ = -1 Þ = -1 υ u f
O 2
1 1 1 1 1 1 3
\ I = -2 cm + =- Þ = - =-
υ 50 25 υ 25 50 50
\ Image is 2 cm long. It is inverted and real.
50
Q. 5. The image of an object, placed at a distance of 10 cm υ=- = -16.7 cm
from a convex lens is formed two times of the object 3
towards the same side as that of object. If the object is I υ I 50 1
m= = Þ =+ ´
placed at a distance of 20 cm on the same side, find the O u 5 3 -50
position and magnification of the image. (U.P. 2014) 5
Ans. Q Image is formed to the same side as the object, I = = 1.7 cm (erect)
3
therefore, it will be virtual. So, the magnification will
\ Image will be formed at a distance of 16.7 cm on the
be positive.
same side as the object. It will be 1.7 cm long.
υ υ Q. 8. The focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm. At what
m= =2 Þ = 2 Þ υ = -20 cm
u -10 distance from the lens should an object be placed so
1 1 1 that a two times larger and real image may be
= + obtained? (UP 2012, 14, 20)
f υ u
Ans. f = 20 cm, m = -2
1 1 1 1
=- + = υ υ
f 20 10 20 m= Þ = -2
u u
\ f = 20 cm
υ = -2u
Now, when u = -20 cm, then
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 - = Þ - - =
- = υ u f 2u u 20
υ u f
3 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 - = Þ u = -30 cm
+ = Þ = - 2u 20
υ 20 20 υ 20 20
\ Object should be placed at a distance of 30 cm from
\ υ=¥ the lens.
υ ¥ Q. 9. A 10 cm long candle is placed at a distance of 20 cm
\ Magnification, m = = =¥
u -20 from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the
\ The image is formed at infinity and magnification will position and height of image formed by lens. Also
also be infinite. state its nature. (U.P. 2017)
 123

Ans. O =10 cm, u = -20 cm, f =10 cm I¢

1 1 1
- = O¢
υ u f
F
1 1 1 I O C F¢
+ =
υ 20 10
1 1 1 1
Þ = - =
υ 10 20 20 Q.11. A candle is placed at a distance of 90 cm from a
\ υ = 20 cm screen. Calculate the position of a convex lens of focal
I υ length 20 cm between candle and screen, in order to
Magnification, m = = obtain real and diminished image. (U.P. 2020)
O u
Ans. Let the distance between candle and lens is x cm.
I 20
= Þ I = -10 cm then, u = -x cm, υ = (90 - x ) cm, f = 20 cm.
10 -20
Using lens forumula,
\ Image is formed at a distance of 20 cm on the opposite 1 1 1 1 1 1
side. And it will be 10 cm long, real and inverted. = - Þ = -
f υ u 20 (90 - x ) -x
Q. 10. A two times lager, virtual image is formed of an object
1 x + 90 - x
placed at a distance of 20 cm from a lens. Find the or = or -x 2 + 90x = 1800
distance of the image and focal length of the lens, 20 (90 - x ) x
draw a ray diagram also. (U.P. 2018) or x 2 - 90x + 1800 = 0
Ans. m = 2, u = -20 cm
-b ± b 2 - 4ac
υ υ x=
m= Þ = 2 Þ υ = - 40 cm 2a
u -20
a =1 b = -90 c =1800
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
- = Þ =- + =
υ u f f 40 20 40 -( -90) ± ( -90) 2 - 4 ´ 1 ´ 1800
x=
f = 40 cm (Convex lens) 2 ´1
90 ± 30
x= or x = 60 cm or 30 cm
2

NCERT Intext Questions

Reflection
Q. 1. Define the principal focus of a concave mirror. Ans. Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in
Ans. The point on the principal axis at which all the rays vehicles to see the traffic at the rear side. Convex
parallel and close to the principal axis meet after mirrors are preferred because
reflection from the concave mirror is called principal (i) they always give an erect, though diminished
focus. image.
Q. 2. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 cm. (ii) they have a wider field of view as they are curved
What is its focal length? outwards.
Ans. Here, radius of curvature, R = 20 cm Thus, convex mirrors enable the driver to view much
Focal length, f = ? larger area than a plane mirror.
R 20 Q. 5. Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius
We know that, f = = cm = 10 cm of curvature is 32 cm.
2 2
The focal length of spherical mirror is 10 cm. Ans. Here, R = 32cm; f = ? (Convex mirror)

Q. 3. Name a mirror that can give an erect and enlarged R 32

f =
= = 16 cm
image of an object. 2 2
Ans. Concave mirror can give an erect and enlarged image Q. 6. A concave mirror produces three times (Enlarged)
of an object. When the object is placed between the magnified real image of an object placed at 10 cm in
pole and the focus of the mirror. front of it. Where is the image located?
Q. 4. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view Ans. Here, in case of concave mirror
mirror in vehicles? u = -10 cm (u is always negative)
υ = ?; m = -3 (Real image)
 124

Now the magnification formula is Ans. Speed of light in a medium is inversely proportional to
-υ æ υ ö 1
m= or -3 = - ç ÷ refractive index of the medium, i. e., υ µ . As
u è 10 ø n
refractive index of water is minimum, so light travels
or υ = -30 cm fastest in water.
Image will be formed at 30 cm from the mirror on the Q. 5. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the
same side of the object. meaning of this statement?
Refraction Ans. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. It means that
Q. 1. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into for a light ray travelling in vacuum and entering
1
water. Does the light ray bend towards the normal or diamond, speed is slowed and becomes times
away from the normal? Why? 2.42
Ans. Light ray travelling in air and entering obliquely into than that in the vacuum.
water is bent towards the normal because the speed of Q. 6. Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens.
the ray decreases in water. Ans. 1 dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1
Q. 2. Light enters from air into glass having refractive index metre.
1.50. What is the speed of light in glass? The speed of Q. 7. A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of a
light in vacuum is 3 ´ 10 8 ms -1. needle at a distance of 50 cm from the lens. Where is
the needle placed in front of the convex lens, if the
Ans. Given, n =1.5 and the speed of light in vacuum,
image is equal to the size of the object? Also find the
c = 3 ´ 10 8 ms -1. We know that the refractive index is power of the lens.
c Ans. When an object is placed, at 2F1, of a convex lens, its
given by the expression n = where c is the speed of
υ image is formed at 2F2 and is of the same size as
light in vacuum and υ is the speed of light in the given object.
medium (Glass). Hence we have
Here, it is given that the image of the needle is formed
c 3 ´ 10 8 at a distance of 50 cm from the convex lens. Hence,
υ= = = 2.0 ´ 10 8 ms -1
n 1.5 the needle is placed in front of the lens at a distance of
Q. 3. Find out, from table 10.3 (NCERT Page No. 175), the 50 cm.
medium having highest optical density. Also find the Object distance, u = -50 cm
medium with lowest optical density. Image distance, υ = 50 cm
Ans. A substance having higher refractive index is Focal length = f
optically denser than another substance having lower According to lens formula
refractive index. So the medium having highest 1 1 1
optical density is diamond. The medium with lowest - =
υ u f
optical density is air.
Q. 4. You are given kerosene, turpentine oil and water. In 1 1 1 2 1
= - = =
which of these does the light ray travel fastest? Given f 50 ( -50) 50 25
refractive index of kerosene =1.44, refractive index of f = 25 cm = 0.25 m
turpentine 1.47, refractive index of water =133 . . 1 1
(UP. 2020) Power of lens = = = +4D
f ( in m ) 0.25

Fully Solved NCERT Text Book Exercise

Q. 1. Which one of the following materials can not be used (d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal
to make a lens? focus
(a) Water (b) Glass (c) Plastic (d) Clay Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) Q. 3. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex
Q. 2. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to lens to get a real image of the size of the object?
be virtual, erect and larger than the object. Where (U.P. 2020)
should be the position of the object? (U.P. 2019) (a) At the principal focus of the lens
(a) Between the principal focus and the centre of (b) At twice the focal length
curvature (c) At infinity
(b) At the centre of curvature (d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature principal focus
Ans. (b)
 125

Q. 4. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each (b) Convex mirror is used as side or rear-view mirror
a focal length of – 15 cm. The mirror and the lens are of a vehicle. This mirror produces a small but
like to be: (U.P. 2020) upright image of the objects. Due to small size of
(a) both concave (b) both convex the image, it covers a wide area.
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex (c) Concave mirror is used in solar furnace because
(d) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave such mirrors are converging mirrors. They are
Ans. (a) used converge the light rays to produce more heat.
Q. 9. One-half of a convex lens is covered with a black
Q. 5. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your paper. Will this lens produce a complete image of the
image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be: objects. Verify your answer experimentally. Explain
(U.P. 2019) your observations.
(a) plane (b) concave Ans. If the lens is covered half in following manner (As
(c) convex (d) either plane or convex shown in the diagram), a convex lens can still produce
Ans. (d) a full image of the object.
Q. 6. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use
while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm O F2 2F2
(b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm 2F1 F1
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
Ans. (c)
Q. 10. An object 5 cm in length is held 25 cm away from a
Q. 7. We wish to obtain an erect image of an object, using a
converging lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw the ray
concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. What should be
the range of distance of the object from the mirror? diagram and find the position, size and the nature of
What is the nature of the image? Is the image larger or the image formed.
smaller than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show Ans. Given that (Using sign convention)
the image formation in this case. Size of object = +5 cm; Distance of object from lens,
Ans. A concave mirror forms an erect image only when the u = -25 cm
object is placed between its pole and focus. So object According to lens formula,
should be placed in the range of 15 cm (focal length) 1 1 1
from the pole. The nature of such images is virtual and = -
f υ u
enlarged.
On putting the values, we have,
1 1 1 6
= - =
10 υ -25 100
υ = +16.67 cm
For size of the image, we know that
h¢ υ
=
h u
Object is placed between F and Pole h¢ 16.67
On putting the values, =
Image — Virtual and enlarged 5 -25
Q. 8. Name the type of mirror used in the follwing h¢ = -3.33 cm
situations :
The negative sign indicates that the image is inverted.
(a) headlights of a car
The required diagram is given in following figure:
(b) side / rear-view mirror of a vehicle
(c) solar furnace
Support your answer with reason. F2 2F2
Ans. (a) A concave mirror is used in headlights of a car. 2F1 F1 O
This mirror produces a strong parallel beam of the
f = 10 cm
light. u = – 25 cm
υ = + 16.67 cm
126

Q. 11. A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image R 30

Focal length of the lens, f = = = +15 cm
10 cm from the lens. How far is the object placed from 2 2
the lens? Draw the ray-diagram. (For convex mirrors, f is positive)
Ans. f = -15 cm, υ = -10 cm 1 1 1
1 1 1 According to mirror formula, = +
- = f υ u
υ u f 1 1 1
1 1 1 On putting the values, we have, = +
- - =- 15 υ -20
10 u 15 υ = +8.57 cm
1 1 1 1 The positive sign shows that the image is virtual.
Þ - = - =
u 10 15 30 h¢ υ
\ u = -30 cm Size of the image, =
h u
On putting the values, we have,
- 8.57 ´ 5
h¢ = = + 2.14 cm
C1
-20
F1 O F2 C2
The image is diminished and the positive sign shows
that the image is erect.
Q. 15. An object of size 7.0 cm is placed at 27 cm in front of a
Q. 12. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 18 cm. At what
convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Find the position distance from the mirror should a screen be placed, so
and nature of the image. (U.P. 2020) that a sharp focused image can be obtained? Find the
Ans. Given that (Using sign convention) size and the nature of the image.
Distance of object from mirror, u = -10 cm Ans. Given that (Using sign convention)
Focal length of the mirror, f = +15 cm Size of the object = 7.0 cm
According the mirror formula, Distance of object from mirror, u = -27 cm; Focal
1 1 1 length of the lens, f = -18 cm
= +
f υ u 1 1 1
According to mirror formula, = +
On putting the values, we have, f υ u
1 1 1 5
= + = On putting the values, we have,
15 υ -10 30
1 1 1
or, υ = 6 cm = +
-18 υ -27
Positive sign shows that the image is virtual, i. e., on
the back side of the mirror. υ = -54 cm
υ The negative sign shows that the image is real. So
Magnification, m = -
u screen should be placed at a distance of 54 cm in front
+6 of the mirror.
On putting the values, we have, m = - = +0.6 h¢ υ
-10 Size of the image, =-
The image is diminished and the positive sign shows h u
that the image is erect. On putting the values, we have,
Q. 13. The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1. - ( -54) ´ 7
h¢ = = -14 cm
What does this mean? -27
Ans. The magnification of +1 shows that the size of the The image is enlarged and the negative sign shows
object and the image is same. The positive sign shows that the image is inverted.
that the image is virtual.
Q. 16. Find the focal length of a lens of power – 2.0 D. What
Q. 14. An object 5.0 cm in length is placed at a distance of 20
type of lens is this?
cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature
30 cm. Find the position of the image, its nature and Ans. Que No. 16 is deleted from 2021 examination
size. (U.P. 2020) Q. 17. A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power
Ans. Given that (Using sign convention) +1.5 D. Find the focal length of the lens. Is the
prescribed lens diverging or converging?
Size of the object = 5.0 cm
Ans. Que No. 17 is deleted from 2021 examination
Distance of object from mirror, u = -20 cm; Radius of
curvature, R = 30 cm ccc
 127

Chapter

11 Human Eye and

Colourful World

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. The least distance of distinct vision for a healthy eye is: (a) violet colour (b) red colour
(U.P. 2011, 14, 19) (c) green colour (d) yellow colour
Or The minimum distance of clear sight is: Q. 10. When white light is passed through a glass prism, the
(U.P. 2018, 19, 20) minimum deviation is observed in: (U.P. 2012)
(a) 25 cm (b) 50 m (c) 100 cm (d) infinity (a) violet colour (b) red colour
Q. 2. In a healthy human eye, image is formed: (c) green colour (d) yellow colour
(U.P. 2013, 16) Q. 11. Which colour light exhibits maximum scattering?
(a) at retina (b) before retina (a) Red colour (b) Violet colour
(c) beyond retina (d) at infinity (c) Green colour (d) Yellow colour
Q. 3. Due to the defect of vision of long-sightedness, the Q. 12. Which colour light exhibits minimum scattering?
image is formed: (U.P. 2012) (U.P. 2012, 14, 16)
(a) at retina (b) in front of the retina Or The scattering of light is minimum for: (U.P. 2018)
(c) behind the retina (d) no where (a) Red colour (b) Violet colour
Q. 4. Which one of the following is an option to remove the (c) Green colour (d) Yellow colour
defect of hypermetropia? (U.P. 2013, 14) Q. 13. That property of the light which makes sky appears
(a) Concave lens (b) Concave mirror blue: (U.P. 2015, 16)
(c) Convex lens (d) Convex mirror (a) reflection (b) refraction
Q. 5. To correct the defect of short-sightedness, we use: (c) scattering (d) dispersion
(U.P. 2011, 19) Q. 14. When observed from moon, sky appears:
(a) concave lens (b) concave mirror (U.P. 2017, 19, 20)
(c) convex lens (d) convex mirror (a) violet (b) blue (c) black (d) white
Q. 6. The far point of a person suffering from short-sightedness Q. 15. The screen of eye is:
is situated at: (U.P. 2013) (a) cornea (b) retina (c) pupil (d) lens
(a) 25 cm (b) smaller than 25 cm Q. 16. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric: (V. Imp.)
(c) infinity (d) smaller than infinity (a) dispersion of light by water droplets
Q. 7. The near point of a man suffering from hypermetropia or (b) refraction of light by different layers of varying
long-sightedness, is at (U.P. 2018) refractive indices
(a) 25 cm (b) less than 25 cm (c) scattering of light by air particles
(c) more than 25 cm (d) infinity (d) internal reflection of light by clouds
Q. 8. The image formed on retina of human eye is: (U.P. 2015) Q. 17. Eye lens is:
(a) erect but appear inverted (a) convergent (b) divergent
(b) inverted but appears erect (c) convex or concave (d) none of these
(c) erect and appears erect Q. 18. Far point for a normal eye is at: (U.P. 2019)
(d) inverted and appears inverted (a) 25 cm (b) 50 cm (c) 100 cm (d) infinity
Q. 9. When white light passed through a prism, the maximum Q.19. For healthy eye nearest point of vision is: (U.P. 2020)
deviation is observed in: (U.P. 2011, 13, 17, 18) (a) 25 cm (b) 50 cm (c) 100 cm (d) infinite
Answers
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10 (b)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a)
128

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. Where is the far point for a healthy eye situated? Ans. For violet colour, deviation is maximum and for red
(U.P. 2011, 12, 15) colour deviation is minimum when white light travels
Ans. The far point for a healthy human eye is situated at through a prism.
infinity. Q. 10. When white light is passed through the prism, then
Q. 2. What is the range of vision of a normal eye? which colour is obtained at the farthest end from the
(U.P. 2011, 12, 15) base? (U.P. 2011)
Ans. The range of vision of a normal eye is 25 cm to Ans. Red colour is obtained at the farthest end from the
infinity. base of prism.
Q. 3. Where is the near point of a healthy human eye Q. 11. In visible light, which colour is scattered minimum?
situated? (U.P. 2015) (U.P. 2011)
Ans. The near point of a healthy human eye is situated at 25 Ans. Light of red colour is scattered minimum.
cm. Q. 12. Why are alert signals always red in colour?
Q. 4. What kind of lens is used to correct the far-sighted- Ans. Red colour light is scattered the least. So, it can pass
ness? (U.P. 2011, 12) through mist, fog, etc. undeviated.
Or What is the basic reason of far-sightedness? How can
Q. 13. What do you understand by spectrum of white light?
this defect be prevented? (U.P. 2018)
Ans. A person with far-sighedness can see distant objects Ans. When a beam of white light is passed through a glass
clearly but cannot see nearby objects. This defect is prism, then by dispersion, the band of seven colours
often related with ageint process. A convex lens is formed on the screen, is called the spectrum of white
used to correct the far-sightedness. light.
Q. 5. What kind of lens is used to correct the short- Q. 14. Why does the sky appear dark to astronauts?
sightedness? (U.P. 2012) Ans. For scattering of light, particles are required. Since
Ans. A concave lens is used to correct the there are no particles in space, therefore sky appears
short-sightedness. dark to astronauts.
Q. 6. A man is wearing spectacles consisting of convex Q. 15. What is the function of pupil in human eye?
lens. By what kind of defect of vision is he suffering? Ans. The function of pupil in human eye is to control or
(U.P. 2015) regulate the amount of light entering.
Ans. If the man is using convex lens, then he is suffering Q. 16. Loosening of ciliary muscles leads to which defect?
from long-sightedness or hypermetropia. Ans. Presbyopia.
Q. 7. What is meant by colour blindness? (U.P. 2015) Q. 17. What do you mean by scattering of light? (U.P. 2019)
Ans. When a man is unable to differentiate between Ans. When sunlight passes through the earth's atmosphere,
different colours, the defect is called colour blindness. much of the light is absorbed by the fine dust particles
Q. 8. What do you mean by short-sightedness? How this and air molecules in the atmosphere which give out
defect is corrected? (U.P. 2018) the absorbed light in some random direction. This
Ans. It is a defect in which the person cannot see the distant phenomenon is called the scattering of light.
objects clearly, but can see the nearby objects. The lower wavelength lights (Blues) are scattered
It is corrected by using a concave lens of suitable focal much more by the air molecules but the higher
length. wavelength lights (Reds) are scattered much less.
Q. 9. In which colours maximum and minium deviation
occur when white light travel through a prism?
(U.P. 2018)

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. What is accommodation power of eye? Q. 2. What is meant by near point and far point for human
(U.P. 2011, 13, 15, 16, 19) eye? State their positions for a healthy eye.
Ans. The ability of the eye lens, to adjust its focal length (U.P. 2015, 17)
automatically, according to the position of object Ans. Near Point for Eye: It is the nearest point to the eye at
placed in front of the eye is called the power of which an object is visible to the eye distinctly. For an
accomodation of eye. It is provided by the ciliary healthy eye, the distance of near point is 25 cm.
muscles.
 129

Far Point for Eye: It is the point at the maximum Ans. He should use a lens which can form a image of an
distance from an eye at which an object is visible to object placed at infinity at a distance of 50 cm.
the eye distinctly. For an healthy eye far point is at \ u = -¥, υ = -50 m
infinity. 1 1 1
Q. 3. What is defect of vision? (U.P. 2015) = -
f υ u
Ans. Sometimes the eye of a person cannot focus the image
1 1 1 1
of an object on the retina properly. In such cases the =- + =-
vision of a person becomes blurred and he cannot see f 50 ¥ 50
either the distant objects or near by objects (Or both) f = -50 m (Concave lens)
clearly and comfortably. The person is said to have a 1 1
defect of vision. It is mainly of two types: \ Power of the lens, P = =-
(1) Myopia f 50
(2) Hypermetropia P = -0.02 D
Q. 4. What is long-sightedness or hypermetropia? What Q.8. A person suffering from short-sightedness, can see
kind of lens is used to correct this defect? only upto a distance of 20 m. Find the focal length and
(U.P. 2012, 13, 16, 20) nature of the lens used to remove the defect. Also find
the power of the lens. (U.P. 2018)
Ans. Hypermetropia: Hypermetropia is that defect of
vision due to which a person cannot see the nearby Ans. u = -¥, υ = -20 m
objects clearly. 1 1 1
= -
Hypermetropia is corrected by using a convex lens of f υ u
suitable focal length. 1 1 1 1
Q. 5. What is short-sightedness? (U.P. 2011, 12, 16) =- + =-
f 20 ¥ 20
Or A student is unable to see the words written on
blackboard clearly. Which type of eye defect is there f = -20 m (Concave lens)
and how it may be corrected? (U.P. 2020) \ Focal length of the lens is 20 m and nature is concave
Ans. Myopia: Myopia(short-sightedness) is that defect of lens.
vision due to which a person cannot see the distant 1 1
Power of the lens, P = = - = - 0.05 D
objects clearly. f 20
Myopia is corrected by using a concave lens of Q. 9. Why does sky appears black instead of blue to an
suitable focal length. astronaut? (U.P. 2016)
Q. 6. A person suffering from short-sightedness can see Ans. For scattering of light, atmosphere (Particles) are
only upto a distance of 10 m. A lens of what focal required. In space, there is no atmosphere, therefore
length and power, he will have to use to remove this
scattering of light does not take place in space. That’s
defect? (U.P. 2013, 20)
why, sky appears black to the astronaut.
Ans. He should use a lens of such a focal length so that the
Q. 10. Why does the sky appear blue? Explain. (U.P. 2013)
image of an object placed at infinity may be formed at
a distance of 10 m. Or Why is colour of clear sky blue? (U.P. 2019)
Or Why does the colour of a clear sky appear blue?
u = - ¥, υ = -10 m = -1000 cm
(U.P. 2019)
By lens formula
Ans. When white light coming from sun passes through
1 1 1 atmosphere. It gets scattered by dust and other tiny
= -
f υ u particles suspended in air. The scattering of violet and
blue lights are much more than that of other lights.
1 1 1 1
=- + =- This scattered blue light reaches the eye from all
f 1000 ¥ 1000 directions. So, sky appears blue.
Þ f = -1000 cm = -10 m (Concave) Q. 11. Why does the sun appear red at sunrise and at sunset?
1 1 Ans. At the time of sunrise and sunset when the sun is near
\ Power of the lens, P = = = - 0.1 D the horizon, the sunlight has to travel greatest distance
f -10
through the atmosphere to reach us. During this long
Q.7. A man can see clearly upto a maximum of 50 m journey of sunlight, most of the blue-colour present in
distance. A lens of what power should he use for clear it is scattered out and away from our line of sight,
vision? (U.P. 2012, 17) leaving behind mainly red colour in the direct sunlight
130

beam that reaches our eyes. Thus, the sun appears red Ans. Angle of prism, A = 60º , angle of deviation d m = 38º
at sunshine and sunset. n=?
Q. 12. What is Tyndall effect? Explain with an example. éd + A ù é38º +60º ù
sin ê m ú sin
Ans. The scattering of light by particles in its path is called ë 2 û= êë 2 úû sin 49º
Tyndall effect. When a beam of light enters a n= =
A 60º 12
smoke-filled dark room through a small hole, then its sin sin
2 2
path becomes visible to us. The tiny dust particles
present in the air of room scatter the beam of light all n = 0.75 ´ 2 = 1.50
around the room. Thus, scattering of light makes the Q. 15. A man with spectacles can read a book placed at 25
particles visible. cm. The lens used in the spectacles has power -2.0 D.
The man without spectacles can read the book placed
Q. 13. Describe the formation of rainbow in the sky with the
at which distance? (U.P. 2019)
help of a diagram.
Ans. A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky Ans. Given that
after a rain. It is produced by dispersion of sunlight by 100
u = -25 cm, P = -2D = = -50 cm (concave lens)
tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere. The -2
water droplets act like small prisms. When a ray of υ=?
light falls on 1 1 1 1 1 1
water drop (Or = - Þ - = -
raindrop) it
Sunlight f υ u 50 υ -25
undergoes 1 1 1 3 50
=- - =- Þ υ = - = -16.7 cm
refraction and υ 50 25 50 3
dispersion to form Q. 16. Calculate the magnification power of a lens of power
a spectrum. This +20D when image is being formed at minimum
Red Violet
spectrum distance of clear vision. (U.P. 2020)
undergoes
internal reflection Ans. P = +20 D, u = -25 cm,
(Inside the raindrop) and finally refracted again when 1 1 1
P= Þ f = = = 005. m or 5 cm
it comes out of the raindrop. After the dispersion of f P 20
light and internal reflections, the band of colours Using the lens formula,
reaches observer's eye in the form of a rainbow.
1 1 1 1 1 1
= = Þ = -
A rainbow is always formed in the direction opposite f υ u 5 υ -25
to that of the sun.
1 1 1 4 25
Q. 14. A prism has an angle 60° and the minimum angle of = - = Þ υ= = 6.25 cm
deviation 38°. Calculate the refractive index of υ 5 25 25 4
material of the prism. (Take, sin 49° = 0.75) υ 6.25 1
Also magnification m = - =− =
(U.P. 2019) u -25 4

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. Describe the human eye with the help of a labelled
diagram. Explain the image formation by eye at retina
Cornea
using a ray. (U.P. 2012, 15, 17)
Ans. Human Eye: Human eye is an unprecious gift given Pupil
Fovea
(Yellow spot)
by God to us which helps us to see this beautiful Lens

colourful world. It functions like a camera. Optical axis of

Blind spot eye lens
Construction: The main parts of eye and their Optic nerve
functions are as follows: Iris Ciliary Retina
muscles
(1) Cornea: It is a transparent sherical membrane
Eye ball
covering front of the eye through which light
enters. Fig. : A vertical section of eye ball, showing internal structure of eye
 131

(2) Iris: It is a coloured and opaque membrane In this defect the far point of eye is displaced closer to
between the cornea and the lens that controls eye and eye lens forms the image before retina.
size of pupil. Causes or reason of Myopia: This defect may arise
due to —
(3) Pupil: It is a hole in the middle of the iris that
(1) High converging power of eye lens.
regulates the amount of light entering the eye.
(2) Elongation of the eye ball.
(4) Eye Lens: It is a transparent crystalline convex
Correction: This defect can be corrected by using a
lens converges the light rays and produces a real
concave lens of suitable power. It will bring the
and inverted image of object on retina. image back on the retina and thus the defect is
(5) Retina: It is a membrane, in front of the eye corrected.
lens, acts as a screen on which the image is The appropriate ray-diagram is shown in the given
formed by the lens system of human eye. firgure.
(6) Optic nerve: With the help of optic nerve,
the signals are transferred from retina to the
brain.
Image formation by eye at retina: Retina

Eye Rays from distant object

Object Lens
(a) Myopic eye

Image
at retina
Far point Retina
Functioning or working of eye:
When light strikes the eye ball, it is refracted first by Bringing the object
close to eye
the cornea.
It then enters the eye ball through pupil. (b) Far point of a myopic eye

The iris muscles guard the size of the pupil and

regulate the amount of light that enters the eye.
The enetering light now passes through the lens. The Far point
Retina
lens focuses the light rays on the retina. F
The eye lens is a biconvex lens and forms a real and
inverted image on the retina (As shown in the figure). Use of
concave lens
When light rays fall on retina, the light-sensitive cells
(c) Correction for myopia
(Rods and cones) get activated and generate electrical
impulses (Signals). Q.3. What is the defect of far-sightedness or hyper-
These signals are sent to the brain via the optic nerves. metropia? How can the defect be corrected? Explain
The brain interprets these signals (Make the image with the help of diagram. Give causes of
erect) and finally processes the information. far-sightedness. (U.P. 2011, 12, 15, 16, 20)
Q. 2. What is meant by myopia (Short-sightedness)? What Or What is far sightedness? What are its reasons?
is the reason behind it? Explain with an appropriate Describe methods for correction of it with the help of
ray diagram, how this defect can be corrected? diagram. (U.P. 2020)
(U.P. 2012, 14, 17, 19, 20) Or What is long-sightedness defect of vision ? How can
Or What is short sightedness? What are its reasons? this defect be removed? (U.P. 2019)
Describe methods for correction of it with the help of Or Define far-sightedness. Which type of lens will you
diagram. (U.P. 2020) use to remove it. (U.P. 2019)
Ans. Myopia or Short-sightedness: When a person can Ans. Hypermetropia or far-sightedness: When a person
see the nearby objects clearly but can not see the can see the distant objects clearly but cannot see the
distant objects clearly, then such a defect of vision is nearby objects clearly, then such a defect of vision is
called short-sightedness or myopia. called long-sightedness or hypermetropia.
132

In this defect the near point of eye is displaced farther Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red.
away from eye.
Causes or reason of hypermetropia: This defect
arises either because: Screen

(1) the focal length of the eye lens is too long, or t

ligh
(2) the eye ball has become too small. ite Red R
Wh Orange O
Prism Yellow Y
Correction: This defect can be corrected by using a Green G
Blue B
convex lens of suitable power. It provides the Indigo I
Violet V
additional focusing power required for forming the
image on the retina.
Normal Reason of dispersion: The refractive index of glass
near point
N¢
Retina for the light of different colours are different. So,
when a light ray passes through the prism, constituent
colour rays suffer different deviations and leave the
D = 25 cm prism at different angles. This is the causes of
(a) Hypermetropic eye
dispersion.
Q.5. A man suffering from hypermetropia can, see an
Near point of object clearly, placed at a minimum distance of 50 cm
defective eye from eye. Find the nature, focal length and power of
N¢ N
O Retina the lens to be used in his spectacles to correct his
Rays from vision. (U.P. 2012, 13)
object at eye’s
near point Ans. u = -25 cm, υ = -50 cm
(b) Near point of hypermetropic eye 1 1 1
= -
f υ u
Normal near point
1 1 1 1
=- + =
N¢
Retina f 50 25 50
N
Near point of
defective eye Use of
\Focal length of the lens, f = 50 cm (Convex lens)
convex lens
\ Power of the lens,
(c) Correction for hypermetropic eye 100 100
P= = = + 2.0 D
Q. 4. Explain by ray-diagram, the dispersion of white light f ( in cm ) 50
by a prism. And also give the reason of dispersion of
Q. 6. A man suffering from myopia, can read a book by
white light. (U.P. 2011, 16, 17) placing it at a distance of 20 cm from eye. Of what
Or With the help of a neat ray diagram show the kind and focal length a lens should be used in his
dispersion of light through prism. Also, show angle of spectacles, so that he can read a book, placed at a
incidence and angle of deviation for one colour. distance of 25 cm. (U.P. 2011)
(U.P. 2020) Or A person with short sighted can read a book placed at
Or Explain the dispersion of white light through a glass 20 cm away. To read the book at 25 cm away, he
prism. (U.P. 2020) should use the lens of which nature and of what focal
Or Explain the phenomenon of dispersion of while light length in his spectacles. (U.P. 2019)
by prism. Ray of which colour deviates the most? Ans. He should use a lens which can make an image of
(U.P. 2020) object, placed at 25 cm distance, at a distance of 20 cm
from eye.
Ans. Dispersion of light: The phenomenon of splitting of
white light into its constituent colours, after passing u = -25 cm, υ = -20 cm
through a prism, is called dispersion of light. The 1 1 1
= -
pattern of colours so obtained is called spectrum. f υ u
The ray of light of violet colour is deviated maximum 1 1 1 -5 + 4 1
=- + = =-
and the ray of light of red colour is deviated f 20 25 100 100
minimum. f = -100 cm (Concave lens)
In the spectrum, mainly seven colours are visible in \He should use a concave lens of focal length 100 cm.
the following order:
 133

NCERT Intext Questions

Q. 1. What is meant by power of accommodation of the 1 1 1 1
= - =-
eye? f -1.2 ( - ¥ ) 1.2
Ans. The ability of the eye to focus on the distant objects as or, f = -1.2 m
well as the nearby objects on the retina by changing
1 1 -5
the focal length or converging power of its lens is Power, P= = = = - 0.83 D
called accomodation. f -1.2 6
The normal eye has a power of accommodation which A concave (Or divergent) lens of focal length 1.2 m
enables the objects as close as 25 cm and as far as and power – 0.83 D should be used to restore proper
infinity to be focused on its retina. vision.
Q. 2. A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond Q. 3. What is the far point and near point of the human eye
1.2 m distinctly. What should be the type of corrective with normal vision?
lens used to restore proper vision? Ans. For normal vision, the near point is about 25 cm and
Ans. In normal eye, the far point is infinity. The lens used far point is infinity. Thus, a normal eye can see objects
should be such that an object at infinity forms virtual clearly that are between 25 cm and infinity.
image at 1.2 m. Q. 4. A student has difficulty in reading the blackboard
Now, υ = -1.2 m, u = - ¥, f = ? while sitting in the last row. What could be the defect
the child is suffering from? How can it be corrected?
1 1 1
We know = - Ans. The child is suffering from myopia. It can be corrected
f υ u by using spectacles containing concave lenses.

NCERT Exercise
Q. 1. The human eye can focus objects at different distances focal length ( f ) in metre =1 / power of the lens
by adjusting the focal length of the eye lens. This is (i) For distant vision:
due to: focal length ( f ) in metre
(a) presbyopia (b) accommodation 1
= = - 0.181 m = - 18.1 cm
(c) near-sightedness (d) far-sightedness - 5.5
Ans. (b) (ii) For near vision:
Q. 2. The human eye forms the image of an object at its: focal length ( f ) in metre
(a) cornea (b) iris 1
(c) pupil (d) retina = = 0.667 m = 66.7 cm
+ 1.5
Ans. (d) Q. 6. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of
Q. 3. The least difference of distinct vision for a young the eyes. What is the nature, focal length and power of
adult with normal vision is about: the lens required to correct the problem?
(a) 25 m (b) 2.5 cm (U.P. 2013, 15, 17)
(c) 25 cm (d) 2.5 m Ans. To correct the myopia, the person should use a
Ans. (c) concave lens so that for an object at infinity ( u = ¥ ),
the virtual image is formed at the far point of myopic
Q. 4. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by
person (v = -80 cm).
the action of the:
From lens formula, we have,
(a) pupil (b) retina 1 1 1
(c) ciliary muscles (d) iris = -
f υ u
Ans. (c)
On putting the values,
Q. 5. A person needs a lens of power – 5.5 dioptre for 1 1 1
correcting his distant vision. For correcting his near = - or f = -80 cm
vision he needs a lens of power +1.5 dioptre. What is f - 80 - ¥
the focal length of the lens required for correcting: We also know that,
(i) distant vision, and (ii) near vision? 1 1
P= (In metre) = = -1.25 D
Ans. We know that, f - 0.80
134

So, the person should use a concave lens of power lens becomes thinner and its focal length increases as
1.25 D. the object is moved away from the eye.
Q. 7. Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is Q. 10. Why do stars twinkle? (U.P. 2019)
corrected. The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1 Ans. Stars twinkle due to atmospheric refraction of the light
m. What is the power of the lens required to correct rays that come from stars. As the stars are very far
this defect? Assume that the near point of the normal away, they act as point sources of light. When light
eye is 25 cm. enters the earth’s atmosphere, it is refracted by many
Ans. A person with hypermetropia can see distant objects thick layers of gases, which vary in their density. As a
clearly but cannot see nearby objects. This defect result, the path of rays of light coming from the star
arises either because: goes on varying slightly. The apparent position of the
(a) the focal length of the eye lens is too long, or star fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering the
eye flickers. This is known as twinkling of stars.
(b) the eye ball has become too small.
Q. 11. Explain why the planets do not twinkle? (U.P. 2019)
This defect can be corrected by using a convex lens of
appropriate power. The correction diagram is given Ans. Planets are much closer to the earth and are seen as
aside. extended sources. So, a planet may be considered as a
In the problem it is given that the near point of the collection of a large number of point-sized light
normal eye is 25 cm, hence u = -25 cm. The lens used sources. Although light coming from individual
forms its virtual image at near point of hypermetropic point-sized sources flickers but the total amount of
eye, i. e., υ = -1 m = -100 cm. light entering our eye from all the individual
point-sized sources average out to be constant. As a
result, the planets appear equally bright and there is
no twinkling of planets.
Q.12. Why does the Sun appear reddish early in the
morning? Illustrate with the help of a labelled
diagram. (U.P. 2019)
Ans. In early morning, the Sun is situated near the horizon.
Light from the Sun passes through thicker layers of air
From lens formula, we have, and larger distance in the earth's atmosphere before
1 1 1 reaching our eyes. While passing through atmosphere
= - blue light is the most scattered away and the Sun
f υ u appears reddish. For labelled diagram
On putting the values,
1 1 1
= - Sun over head
f -100 -25 Less blue scattering
100
or f =+ = 33.33 cm
3
1 1
We also know that, P = + (In metre) = Sun at horizon Observer
f + 0.33 Blue light Atmosphere
scattered away
= +3 D sun appears red
Earth surface
So, the person should use a convex lens of power 3.00 D.
Fig. : Sun, over head and at horizon
Q. 8. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects
placed closer than 25 cm? Q. 13. Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an
Ans. Focal length of the eye lens can not be decreased astronaut? (U.P. 2020)
below a certain minimum limit. As a result, a normal Ans. Colour of the sky is on account of scattering of light of
eye can not see clearly the objects placed closer than a shorter wavelengths by particles in the atmosphere of
minimum distance, called near point of eye. For a earth. If the earth had no atmosphere, there would not
young adult man, value of near point is 25 cm. So, we have been any scattering and the sky would have
can not see clearly objects placed closer than 25 cm. looked dark. When an astronaut in his spacecraft goes
Q. 9. What happens to the image distance in the eye when above the atmosphere of earth, sky appears dark to
we increase the distance of an object from the eye? him because there is no scattering of light.
Ans. The image is formed on the retina even on increasing ccc
the distance of an object from the eye. For this eye
 135

Chapter Unit-4: Effect of Electricity

12 Electricity

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. The number of joules in kilowatt-hour will be: (c) 4 J (d) 6.0 ´10 5 J
(U.P. 2011, 12, 13, 14) Q. 11. Two wires of resistances R1 and R 2 are connected in
(a) 3600 (b) 36 ´ 10 (c) 3.6 ´10 5 (d) 3.6 ´10 6
3
parallel. Their equivalent resistance is: (U.P. 2014)
Q. 2. Ohm’s law is true for: (U.P. 2015) R1 ´ R 2 R + R2
(a) only the metallic conductors (a) R1 + R 2 (b) R1 ´ R 2 (c) (d) 1
R1 + R 2 R1 ´ R 2
(b) only the non-metallic conductors
Q. 12. The electric current flows in a metallic wire by:
(c) only the semi-conductors (U.P. 2015, 17)
(d) all Or Current in a conductor is due to the flow of:(U.P. 2019)
Q. 3. Electric charge is passing through a wire at the rate of (a) free electrons (b) protons
10 electrons per second. The current passing through
the wire is: (U.P. 2017 ) (c) ions (d) neutrons
Q. 13. The unit of electrical energy is: (U.P. 2015, 20)
(a) 1.6 ´ 10 -19 A (b) 3.2 ´ 10 -19 A
(a) kilowatt (b) horse power
(c) 3.2 ´ 10 -18 A (d) 1.6 ´ 10 -18 A (c) joule / second (d) watt-second
Q. 4. In adjoining figure, the potential difference between Q. 14. An electric bulb is marked 100 watt-250 volt. The
points A and B is: (U.P. 2017) resistance of the bulb is: (U.P. 2015)
A B (a) 25000W (b) 625W (c) 25W (d) 2.5W
1V Fig. 12.4
2V Q. 15. The formula for electric power is: (U.P. 2015, 19)
(a) 3 volt (b) 2 volt (c) 1 volt (d) – 1 volt V i V2
(a) P = (b) P = (c) P = Vi (d) P =
Q. 5. Kilowatt-hour is the unit of: (U.P. 2012, 13, 18) i V i
(a) time (b) mass Q. 16. The charge on an electron is: (U.P. 2011, 14)
(c) energy (d) power (a) -1.6 ´ 10 +19 C (b) -1.6 ´ 10 -19 C
Q. 6. The powers of two electric bulbs are 100 W and 200 W.
Both are connected to mains of 220 V then the ratio of (c) +1.6 ´ 10 +19 C (d) +1.6 ´ 10 -19 C
the resistance of their filament will be: Q. 17. The unit of electrical resistance is:(U.P. 2012, 13, 17, 20)
(U.P. 2014) (a) ohm (b) ohm / metre
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 (c) ohm-metre (d) ampere
Q. 7. Ampere-second is the unit of: (U.P. 2013, 14) Q. 18. The unit of electric charge is: (U.P. 2014)
(a) electrical energy (b) potential difference (a) joule (b) coulomb
(c) charge (d) electric current (c) volt (d) ampere
Q. 8. The S.I. unit of electric current is: (U.P. 2014, 15) Q. 19. Four 4 ohm resistances are connected in parallel. Their
Or Unit of current flowing in electric circuit is:(U.P. 2020) equivalent resistance is: (U.P. 2013, 17)
(a) coulomb (b) joule (c) ampere (d) volt (a) 1 ohm (b) 4 ohm (c) 8 ohm (d) 16 ohm
Q. 9. The charge on a proton is: (U.P. 2013) Q. 20. 1 micro ohm is equal to: (U.P. 2016)
(a) 1.0 ´ 10 -19
C (b) 6.25 ´ 10 +19
C (a) 10 -9 ohm (b) 10 -6 ohm
(c) -1.6 ´ 10 +19 C (d) +1.6 ´ 10 -19 C (c) 10 -3 ohm (d) 1 ohm
Q. 10. The power of electic heater is 0.5 kilowatt. It is used for Q. 21. A wire is stretched to thrice of its initial length. Its
20 minutes. The value of produced heat will be: resistance will become: (U.P. 2017 )
(U.P. 2014, 15) (a) 9 times of initial value (b) 3 times of initial value
(a) 2.5 ´ 10 -2 J (b) 10 J
 136

1
(c)
1
times of initial value (d) times of initial value (a) 4 n (b) 4 / n (c) n / 4 (d) 4 n 2
9 3 Q. 29. Two lambs are rated 60 W and 100 W, respectively. If
Q.22. According to Ohm’s law, the relationship between both are operated by a 220 V supply, then the ratio of
current ( i), potential difference (V ) and resistance ( R ) these resistances are: (U.P. 2018)
is: (U.P. 2015, 16) (a) 5 / 3 (b) 3 / 5 (c) 9 / 25 (d) 25 / 9
R V
(a) i = V 2 R (b) i = VR (c) i = (d) i =
V R Q. 30. If a bulb of rating 200V/100 W is used at 100 volt then
Q.23. In adjoining figure, the current i 2W what will be the power of the bulb? (U.P. 2019)
is: (U.P. 2014) (a) 50W (b) 25W (c) 100W (d) 40W
(a) 1 A 2W Q. 31. Equivalent resistance between points A and B of the
(b) 0.5 A following circuit is: (U.P. 2019)
i
(c) 4 A 1
2V
+ –
(d) 2 A
Q.24. Two wires with same resistance R are connected in 0.5
parallel and one resistance R is connected in series with 1
them, then their resulting resistances is: (U.P. 2016)
(a) 2.5W (b) 1.5 W (c) 1.0 W (d) 2.0W
(a) 3R (b) 2R (c) 3R / 2 (d) R / 2
Q. 32. According to Ohm’s law, a graph between voltage and
Q. 25. On increasing the temperature, the electrical resistance
current will be: (U.P. 2019, 20)
of a conductor: (U.P. 2018)
(a) a straight line (b) a circle
(a) remains unchanged (b) increases
(c) a semi-circle
(c) decreases
(d) a line changing its direction continuously.
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
Q.33. Internal resistance of a cell (EMF = 1.5V) is 3W.
Q. 26. The resistance of a conductor is 5W. A current of 3 A
Maximum current which may be drawn from it is :
passes through it for 20 sec. The heat produced in the (U.P. 2020)
conductor will be: (U.P. 2018)
(a) 1.5 A (b) 0.5 A (c) 3.0 A (d) 3.0 mA
(a) 900 joule (b) 900 calorie
Q.34. T.V. and L.E.D. indicator fitted in your home works at
(c) 300 joule (d) 300 calorie 0.75V and 100 mA. Its power is : (U.P. 2020)
Q. 27. Two electric bulbs having resistance in ratio 1 : 2 are (a) 75 mW (b) 100 mW(c) 0.75 W (d) 7.5 mW
connected in parallel to an electric source of constant
voltage, then the power consumed will be in ratio: Q.35. How many joules are there in 1 kWh? (U.P. 2020)
(U.P. 2018) Or One kilowatt-hour is equal to: (U.P. 2019)
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 (a) 3600 J (b) 36 × 103J
5
Q. 28. n conducting wires each of resistance 4W are connected (c) 3.6 × 10 J (d) 3.6 × 106J
in parallel combination. Their equivalent resistance
will be: (U.P. 2012)

Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (d)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. Why are the ammeter and voltmeter used in an Q. 2. Two wires of resistances 4 ohm and 3 ohm are
electrical circuit? How are they connected in the connected with a battery in series. If the current in first
circuit? (U.P. 2015) wire is 2 ampere then, what will be the current in
Ans. Ammeter is used to measure the electric current and it second wire? (U.P. 2014)
is connected in series, while voltmeter is used to Ans. Since in series combination, same current flows
measure the potential difference and it is connected in through all conductors, so current in second
parallel. resistances will also be 2 A.
 137

Q. 3. In a circuit, 180 coulomb charge is flowing per q 8.0 ´ 10 -19 C

minute. Find the current flowing through the circuit. Number of electrons, n = = =5
e 1.6 ´ 10 -19 C
(U.P. 2015)
Ans. Given, charge, q =180 C, t =1 minute = 60 s So, 5 electrons are in excess on it.
\ By formula q = it, Q. 11. There are two resistances of 6 ohm and 3 ohm.
q 180 C Calculate the maximum and the minimum resistances
We have, current i = = =3A which you can obtain by combining them?(U.P. 2014)
t 60 s
Ans. Given, R1 = 6 W and R 2 = 3 W
Q.4. A current of 0.5 ampere is flowing through a
conducting wire for 10 minutes. How much charge The maximum resistances will be that of series
will flow through the wire? (U.P. 2016, 19) combination
Ans. Given, current i = 0.5 A so, R max = R1 + R 2 = 6 + 3 = 9W
time t =10 minutes = 10 ´ 60 s = 600 s And maximum resistances will be that of parallel
\ Charge, q = it = 0.5 ´ 600 = 300 C combination
Q. 5. What is the relation between potential difference and 1 1 1 1 1
so, = + = +
current? (U.P. 2012) R min R1 R 2 6 3
Ans. Potential difference, (V ) = current ( i) × resistance ( R ). 1 3+6 18
or, = Þ R min = = 2W
Q. 6. Write the relation between charge q, current i and time R min 6 ´ 3 9
t. (U.P. 2013) Q. 12. The filament used in two different bulbs are of same
Ans. q = it material and of same length, but one of them is thicker
Q. 7. What is the relation between joule, volt and coulomb? than the other. If the same voltage is applied across
(U.P. 2014) them, then which bulb will have greater power?
Ans. By formula W = qV , (U.P. 2014)
Ans. The thicker filament will have less resistance
We get joule = coulomb × volt 2
Q. 8. 10 8 electrons flow from a point A to point B in 10 -4 s. æ Q R µ 1 ö and so its power æç P = V Þ P µ 1 ö÷
ç ÷ ç
How much current and in which direction will it flow? è Aø è R R ÷ø
(Charge on electron, e = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 C) will be greater than the other.
(U.P. 2015, 16) Q. 13. How does the temperature affect the resistance of
Ans. Given, number of electrons, n =10 8 , time, t = 10 -4 s metallic conductors?
q ne 10 8 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 Ans. Resistance will increase with increasing temperature.
\ Current, i = = = Q. 14. An electric bulb is rated 100 W-250 V. Find (i)
t t 10 -4 resistance of bulb and (ii) maximum current, which
= 1.6 ´ 10 -7 A (Q q = ne) can be passed through it. (U.P. 2016, 17)
Current will flow from B to A. Ans. Given, P = 100 W, V = 250 V, R = ?, imax = ?
Q.9. A current of 10 ampere is passing through a V2
conductor. Calculate the number of electrons passing (i) By P = , we have
through the conductor per second. (Charge on R
. ´ 10 -19 C)
electron, e = 16 (U.P. 2017, 20) Resistance of bulb,
Ans. Here, i =10 A, t =1 s V 2 250 ´ 250
R= = = 625W
e = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 C P 100
Q Charge, q = ne = it (ii) Maximum current,
it 10 A ´ 1s V 250
So, number of electrons, n = = imax = = = 0.25 A
e 1.6 ´ 10 -19 C R 625
Q.15. Keeping the potential difference constant, the
= 6.25 ´ 1019 / s resistance of a circuit is doubled. By how much does
Q. 10. There is a negative charge of 8.0 ´ 10 -19 coulomb on a the current change?
conductor. How many electrons are in excess on it? 1 i R
Ans. Q i µ Þ 1 = 2
(U.P. 2014, 19) R i2 R1
-19
Ans. Given, q = 8.0 ´ 10 C and charge on electron i1 2R i1 1
-19 = Þ = 2 Þ i2 = i1
e = 1.6 ´ 10 C i2 R i2 2
\ By formula q = ne, we get
\ The current becomes half.
138

Q. 16. The potential difference between two points of a Ans. Resistance 1W, 2 W and 3W are joined in series,
conductor is 10 volt. Find the current in the conductor,
if heat is evolved at the rate of 15 joule/s. (U.P. 2014) \ R ¢ = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6W
Ans. Given,V =10 volt, P =15 joule / s , By P = Vi, we have Resistance 3W and R ¢ are joined in parallel,
P 15 1 1 1 1 1 3 1
\ Current, i= = = 1.5 A \ = + = + = = Þ R = 2W
V 10 R 3 R¢ 3 6 6 2
Q. 17. Write Ohm’s Law. (U.P. 2018)
\ Equivalent resistance between points A and B will
Ans. If the physical conditions of a conductor remains
unchanged, then the ratio of potential difference and be 2W.
the current flowing through the conductor is a Q. 20. Internal resistance of a cell of 1.5 volt is 0.5 W. What is
V the maximum current that can be obtained by this cell
constant. = Constant ? (U.P. 2019)
i
V 15 .
Q. 18. Due to which particle, the electric current flows in a Ans. Current I = = = 3.0A
conductor? What is the amount of charge on this R 05 .
particle? (U.P. 2018) Q. 21. Calculate the value of total charge flowing in the
Ans. The electric current flows in a conductor due to the filament of an electric bulb in which current 0.5 A is
motion of (free) electrons. The charge on this particle flowing for 10 minutes. (U.P. 2019)
(an electron) is -1.6 ´ 10 -19 coulombs. Ans. I = 0.5A, t = 10 min Þ 600 second, Q = ?
Q. 19. Calculate the equivalent resistance between points A . ´ 600 = 300 coulomb
Q = I ´ t = 05
and B in the given circuit. (U.P. 2018) Q. 22. There are 5 more electrons than the normal state of a
3W
conductor. What is the amount of charge on the
conductor and its nature? (U.P. 2019)
A B Ans. Charge on conductor, Q = n ´ e -
1W 2W 3W
Fig. 12.7 = 5 ´ (1.6 ´ 10 -19 ) = 8.0 ´ 10 -19 C (negative)

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. Define electric potential. (U.P. 2012) Ans. Resistances 3W and 3W are in parallel,
Ans. The work done in bringing a unit positive charge from 1 1 1 1 1 2
infinity to a particular point, is defined as the electric \ = + = + =
R R1 R 2 3 3 3
potential at that point.
W E 1.5
V= Unit — joule / coulomb or volt. Current in the circuit, i = =
q R + r 1.5 + r
1.5
Q. 2. Explain the meaning of potential difference of a 0.6 =
1.5 + r
conductor. (U.P. 2012, 13)
1.5
Ans. In electric circuit, the work done to move a unit Þ 1.5 + r = = 2.5
positive charge from one point to the other point is 0.6
known as the potential difference between that two \ r = 2.5 - 1.5 = 1W
points. \ Internal resistance, r =1W
W Q. 4. A conductor has 5 electrons more than in its normal
DV = Unit — joule / coulomb or volt.
q position. Find the amount and nature of the charge on
Q. 3. In the following figure, find the internal resistance of the conductor. (charge on an electron e = 1.6 ´ 10 -19
the cell. (U.P. 2011, 16, 17) coulomb) (U.P. 2011)
Ans. The charge on one electron is e, then charge on n
r
electrons, (Here n = 5, e = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 )
1.5 V
q = ne = 5 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 = 8.0 ´ 10 -19 coulomb
0.6A Since on the conductor the electrons are in excess and
3W the charge of electron is negative, therefore the nature
of charge on the conductor will be negative.
3W Q. 5. How much energy is consumed by a heater in 30 min,
if a current of 12 A flows through it when it is
connected to a 220 V supply? (U.P. 2018)
 139

Ans. Given i =12 A, V = 220 V, t = 30 min= 30 ´ 60 = 1800 s (ii) Equivalent resistance between A and B
\ Electric energy consumed =Vit R AB = 2 W + R + 4 W
= 220 ´ 12 ´ 1800 2 20
=2+ + 4= W
= 4752000 J = 4752 kJ 3 3
Q. 6. 2.5 ampere current is flowing through a wire. How \ Potential difference between A and B
much change will flow through the wire in 20 20
V = iR AB = 1.5 A ´ W = 10 V
minutes? Find also the number of electrons flowing 3
per second. (U.P. 2011, 13) Q. 9. Three wires of resistances 20, 24 and 30 ohm are
Charge arranged in (i) series (ii) parallel arrangements. Find
Ans. We know that Current =
Time the equivalent resistance in each situation. (U.P. 2019)
or, Charge = Current ´ Time Ans. (i) In series arrangement, the equivalent resistance,
Charge = 2.5 ampere ´ (20 ´ 60) s R = R1 + R 2 + R 3
= 3000 coulomb = 20 + 24 + 30 = 74 ohm.
(Q Time = 20 min = 20 ´ 60 s) (ii) In parallel arrangement, the expression for
Number of electrons flowing per second equivalent resistance R,
Charge 1 1 1 1
= = + +
Charge on an electron R R1 R 2 R 3
3000 1 1 1 1
= or, = + +
1.6 ´ 10 -19 R 20 24 30
30 1 6 + 5 + 4 15 1
= ´ 10 3 ´ 1019 = 1.875 ´ 10 22 = = =
16 R 120 120 8
Q. 7. Find equivalent resistance between points A and B in \ R = 8 ohm.
the following figure: (U.P. 2016) Q. 10. The resistance of a circuit is R. How an other
1W 1W resistance of what value must be combined in the
circuit, so that the resistance of the circuit reduces to
1/ 3 of the original resistance?
A B Ans. Equivalent resistance may be reduced if some new
resistance is combined in parallel to the existing
1W 1W resistance.
Ans. 1W and 1W are in series. Suppose X ohm resistance is combined in parallel to
R
So, their equivalent resistance, R1 = 1W + 1W = 2 W R, then new resistance .
3
and R 2 = 1W + 1W = 2 W 1 1 1 3 1 1
Again, 2W and 2W are in parallel. = + or = +
R /3 R X R R X
The equivalent resistances 1 3 1 2
1 1 1 or = - =
= + = 1W \ R =1W X R R R
R 2 2 or X =R /2
Hence, equivalent resistance between points A and Q. 11. In the following circuit, find the equivalent resistance
B =1W between AB and AC. (U.P. 2014)
Q. 8. In the electrical circuit given below, a current of 1.5
A
ampere is flowing. Find:
1.0 V
A B
2W R
Fig. 12.10
4W 3W 6W
(i) the resistance R
(ii) potential difference between A and B
(U.P. 2013, 17) B C
6W
Ans. (i) As shown, potential difference across R, Fig. 12.11

Ans. Equivalent resistance between AB:

V =1.0 V
Q 6W and 6W are in series, so their equivalent
and current in it, i =1.5 A
V 1.0 2 resistance
\ V = iR gives, R = = = W R = 6 + 6 = 12W
i 1.5 3
140

Now, 12W and 3W resistances are in parallel, so Ans. Resistances 1W, 4 W and 1W are in series,
equivalent resistance between AB
1 1 1 5 \ R1 = 1 + 4 + 1 = 6 W
= + = Now, R1 and 6W are in parallel,
R AB 3 12 12
12 1 1 1 1 1 2
\ R AB = = 2.4W \ = + = + =
5 R 2 R1 6 6 6 6
Equivalent resistances between AC: \ R2 = 3W
Q 3W and 6W are in series, so their equivalent Now, R 2 and 1W, 2 W are in series,
resistance
\ Equivalent resistance of the circuit,
R = 3 + 6 = 9W
Now, 9W and 6W resistance are in parallel, so R = R 2 + 1 + 2 = 3 + 1 + 2 = 6W
equivalent resistance between AC V 12
\ Current, i = = = 2 ampere
1 1 1 R 6
= +
R AC 6 9 Q. 15. In the adjoining figure an electric circuit is shown.
1 5 Calculate the current flowing and potential difference
= in 1.0 ohm resistance of it. (U.P. 2013)
R AC 18 9.0 volt 1.0W
+ –
18
\ R AC = = 3.6W Key
5
Q. 12. What is electrical resistance? Write its unit. 3.0W
i
(U.P. 2015, 20)
Ans. The ratio of the potential difference applied to the
current flowing in the conductor is called the 6.0W
electrical resistance ( R ) of the conductor.
V Ans. Resistance wires of 3.0 W and 6.0W are connected in
R= Unit — ohm (denoted by the symbol W).
i parallel arrangement.
Q. 13. There are three resistances each of value 2W. How Their equivalent resistance,
should they be connected in a circuit so that their R R 3.0 ´ 6.0
R¢ = 1 2 = = 2.0W
equivalent resistance becomes 3W? (U.P. 2011, 15) R1 + R 2 3.0 + 6.0
Ans. First connect two resistances of 2 ohm each in Total resistance of the circuit, R = 2.0 + 1.0 = 3.0W
parallel. Then connect remaining third resistance of
Current flowing in the circuit,
2W in series to the
previous arrangement. E 9.0 volt
2W i= = = 3.0 ampere
Thus, the equivalent R 3.0 ohm
2W
resistance of 3W will This current of 3.0 ampere will also flow in 1.0 ohm
be obtained. If R1, be resistance.
the equivalent 2W Potential difference across the ends of 1.0 W
resistance of two
resistance = 3.0 ´ 1.0 = 3.0 volt
resistances of 2 ohm each.
Q. 16. In the following circuit, find:
1 1 1 (i) current, drawn from the cell and
Then, = + = 1 or R1 = 1 ohm (ii) potential difference across 2W resistor.
R1 2 2
(U.P. 2014)
Now, resistances of 1 ohm and 2 ohm are in series. So, 3W
their equivalent resistance R = 1 + 2 = 3W.
2W 3W
Q. 14. In the following circuit diagram, calculate the current
i. (U.P. 2017) 3W
12V i1 1W
i
K i1
+ –
1W 6W 4W 6V Fig. 12.15

Ans. Three 3W resistors are in parallel. If their equivalent

i i i1
resistance is R1, then
2W i 1W
Fig. 12.12
 141

1 1 1 1 Q. 20. Two bulbs, marked 100 W-220 V and 60 W-220 V are

= + + = 1W
R1 3 3 3 connected in parallel to a supply line of 220 V. Find the
current drawn from supply line. (U.P. 2014, 15, 20)
or, R1 = 1W
Now, R1 and 2W resistances are in series, so total Ans. Given, P1 = 100 W, P2 = 60 W and V = 220 V
resistance of the circuit Let R1, R 2 be their resistances.
R = 1 + 2 = 3W V2
(i) Current drawn from cell By formula, P= ,
R
V 6
i = = =2A V 2 220 ´ 220
R 3 We get R1 = = = 484 W
P1 100
(ii) This whole current passes through 2W resistor,
so its potential difference V 2 220 ´ 220
and R2 = = = 806.7W
V = i´ R =2´2 = 4V P2 60
Q. 17. In the given circuit a current of 1.5 ampere is flowing. In parallel combination, their equivalent resistance
Calculate:
R R 484 ´ 806.7
(i) value of resistance R R= 1 2 = = 302.5W
(ii) potential difference between A and B R1 + R 2 484 + 806.7
(U.P. 2013) \ Current drawn from supply line
1.5 A 3.0 V V 220
I= = = 0.73 A
3W R 4W R 302.5
Q. 21. Calculate the current flowing through the resistors.
2W
Ans. (i) By Ohm’s law, V = iR , in resistance R
V 3.0 volt 4W
\ R= = = 2W
i 1.5 ampere
Total resistance = 3 W + 2 W + 4 W = 9 W
(ii) Potential difference between A and B
= current × resistance 4V
= 1.5 ´ 9 = 13.5 volt Ans. Net resistance of the given circuit is,
Q. 18. A 1.0 A current is passed through conductor for 1 1 1 3
1 minute. Find = + =
R 2 4 4
(i) total charge
4
(ii) number of electrons, passing through the or R = ohm
conductor. (U.P. 2013, 17) 3
Ans. Given, . A, t =1 minute = 60 s
i =10 Hence, current through the resistors is,
\ Charge, q = it = 1.0 A ´ 60 s = 60 C V 4´3
i= = =3A
By q = ne, the number of electrons passing through R 4
wire per second Q. 22. Three 2W resistors A, B and C are connected as shown
q 60 C
n= = = 3.75 ´ 10 20 electrons in figure. Each of them dissipates energy and can
e 1.6 ´ 10 - 19 withstand a maximum power of 18 W without
C
melting. Find the maximum current that can flow
Q. 19. How many bulbs of 25 W can lightened in parallel
through the three resistors.
combination in a circuit of 250 volt and 5 ampere 2W
fuse? (U.P. 2011, 13, 14, 15, 17, 20 )
I 2W B I
Ans. Q V = 250 volt; i = 5 ampere, power of a bulb = 25 watt
A 2W
Let there are n bulbs in circuit.
So, power of n bulbs ( P ) = 25n watt C
By the formula, P = Vi
Ans. Given that, P = 18 W; R = 2 W
25n = 250 ´ 5
or n = 50 bulbs P
We know that, P = i 2 R or i 2 =
Therefore, in the circuit maximum 50 bulbs of 25 W R
can lightened. On putting the values, we have,
142

18 By W = Vit,
i2 = = 9 or i = 9 = 3 A
2 W 15
Current, i = = = 0.5 A
3 V ´ t 1.5 ´ 20
Therefore, current through B and C, i = = 1.5 A
2 Q. 28. 15 electric lamps each of 100 watt are used in a house
Q. 23. What is meant by 1 unit electricity? Give its S.I. unit. at the rate of 6 hours per day. A 300 watt refrigerator is
also used at the rate of 10 hours per day. How much
Or Define kilowatt-hour. (U.P. 2011, 13, 17)
will it cost for a month at the rate of ` 2.50 per unit?
Ans. kilowatt-hour or unit: kilowatt-hour is a commercial (U.P. 2015)
unit of electrical energy, which is simply called 1 unit.
Ans. Energy consumed by bulbs
1 kilowatt-hour is the amount of electric energy Watt ´ hours ´ days
consumed by a load of 1 kilowatt in 1 hour. = units
1000
where 1 kilowatt-hour = 3.6 ´ 10 6 joule. (15 ´ 100) ´ 6 ´ 30
Q. 24. Establish a relation between kilowatt-hour and joule. = = 270 units
1000
(U.P. 2013)
and energy consumed by fridge
Or How many joules are in kW. calculate. (U.P. 2020) 300 ´ 10 ´ 30
Ans. Relation between kilowatt-hour and joule = = 90 units
1000
1 kWh =1000 Wh = 1000 W ´ 1 h \Total energy consumed = 270 + 90 = 360 units
= (1000 J / s ) ´ (60 ´ 60 s ) Q1 unit costs ` 2.50, hence total cost of energy consumed
= 1000 ´ 3600 joule = no. of units × ` 2.50 per unit
= 360 ´ 2.50 = ` 900
or, 1 kWh = 3.6 ´ 10 6 joule
Q. 29. In a circuit a current of 5 ampere is flown for 8 second.
Q.25. Prove that the power of a bulb is inversely pro-
Find how many electrons are passing through it in this
portional to its resistance. (U.P. 2011, 12, 13, 16, 19)
time interval? If resistance of the circuit is 20W then
Ans. Let R be the resistance of the bulb filament and i be the calculate the heat produced in it. Charge on electron
current passing through it, when a potential difference
V is applied across it. = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 C. (U.P. 2005, 19)
V Ans. Q i = 5 amp, t = 8 second, R = 20W
Then, V = iR Þ i= q n´ e
R By formula, i= =
Power of bulb, P = Vi t t
V V2 The number of electrons flown through the circuit,
P = V æç ö÷ = i´ t 5´8
èRø R n= = = 2.5 ´ 10 20
e -19
1 1.6 ´ 10
So, P µ , when V is constant.
R Now, by formula, H = i 2 Rt = (5) 2 ´ 20 ´ 8
So, power of a bulb is inversely proportional to its = 4000 joule
resistance. 4000
= = 952.38 calorie
Q. 26. An electric bulb is rated as 25 watt-250 volt. How 4.2
much current will flow through it on connecting it Q. 30. A current of 10 A is flowing in a circuit for 4 second. If
with 250 volt mains supply and how much its resistance of the circuit is 10 ohm, then find:
resistance will be? (U.P. 2014) (i) the total number of electrons flowing in the
Ans. Power of bulb at V volt P = V ´ i circuit,
whose i is current in the bulb (ii) heat produced. (U.P. 2015, 19)
P 25 Ans. Q Given i = 10 A, t = 4 s, R = 10 W
\ i= = = 0.1 ampere
V 250 q n´ e
For formula i= =
Resistance of filament of bulb, t t
V V V 2 250 ´ 250 (i) Total numbers of electrons flowing in the
R= = = = = 2500 ohm circuit,
i P /V P 25 i´ t 10 ´ 4
Q. 27. The potential difference across the ends of a resistance ( n) = = = 2.5 ´ 10 20 electrons
e -19
wire is 1.5 volt. 15 joule energy is dissipated when 1.6 ´ 10
current flows through it for 20 seconds. Calculate the (ii) Produced heat
current flowing through the wire. (U.P. 2016) ( H ) = i 2 Rt = (10) 2 ´ 10 ´ 4 = 4000 J
Ans. Given, V = 1.5 volt, t = 20 sec Q. 31. An electric bulb is marked 100 W-200 V. Calculate its
W =15 joule, i = ? resistance and the current, which flows through it,
 143

when connected to a 220 volt mains. Q. 35. Calculate the effective resistance between the points
(U.P. 2012, 13, 14, 15, 16) A and B in the following circuit and flowing current in
Ans. Given, P =100 W, V = 200 V 5W resistance. (U.P. 2018 )
If R be its resistance, then C

V2 V 2 200 ´ 200
P= Þ R= = = 400W
R P 100 2W 3W
and V = iR gives
V 200 1
Current i= = = = 0.5 A
R 400 2 I = 10 A A 5W B I
Q. 32. 220 V-100 W is written an electric bulb. Calculate its
resistance and the current flowing through it, when it is Ans. Q Resistances 2W and 3W are in series,
connected to mains of 220 volts. (U.P. 2012, 13, 15) \ R ¢ = 2 + 3 = 5W
V2 Now, R ¢ and 5W are in parallel,
Ans. Resistance of the filament of the bulb, R =
P 1 1 1 1 1 2
\ = + = + =
Here, V = 220 volt, P =100 watt R AB R ¢ 5 5 5 5
(220) 2 5
\ R= = 484 ohm \Effective resistance, R AB = = 2.5W
100 2
V 220 Potential difference between points A and B
Current flowing ( i) = = = 0.45 ampere
R 484 5
V = iR AB = 10 ´ = 25 volt
Q. 33. A 12 volt-150 ampere-hour battery is being used in a 2
house for power-failure. For how much time, a fully \ Current flowing in 5W resistance,
charged battery can run a 60 W fan and 40 W bulb, V 25
during power failure? Assume that all other energy i= = = 5 ampere
losses are negligible. (U.P. 2017) R 5
Ans. Given, P = 60 W + 40 W = 100 W Q. 36. An electric bulb of 60 W in a house glows for 4 hours
daily. What is the amount (electric units) of electricity
For battery, V =12 Volt, i =150 A and t =1 hour consumed in a month of 30 days? (U.P. 2018)
\ Total energy, which this battery can provide
W = Vit = (12 V ´ 150 A) ´ 1 h Ans. Unit consumed during a month
= 1800 watt ´ 1 h watt ´ hours ´ days 60 ´ 4 ´ 30
= = = 7.2 units
= 1.8 kW ´ 1 h = 18 . kW-h 1000 1000
Suppose battery can run appliances for t hour, then Q. 37. An electric bulb of 60 watt is connected with an
W = Pt = 100 W ´ t hour electric main of 220 volts. Calculate. (U.P. 2018)
100 (i) electric current through the bulb
= kW ´ t hour
1000 (ii) resistance of the bulb
= 0.1 ´ t kW-h Ans. (i) P = 60 W, V = 220 volt
Þ 0.1 ´ t = 1.8 Q P = Vi
1.8 P 60
\ t= = 18 hours \ i= = = 0.27 ampere
0.1 V 220
Q. 34. 3.75 ´10 20 electrons are flowing per minute in an
\Electric current through the bulb is 0.27 ampere.
electric conductor. Calculate the electric current
flowing in that conductor. The charge on one electron V2
(ii) Q P=
is 1.6 ´ 10 -19 coulomb. (U.P. 2018 ) R
Ans. n = 3.75 ´ 10 20 electrons, t =1 minute = 60 sec, V 2 220 ´ 220
e = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 coulomb \ R= = = 806.66W
q ne P 60
Electric current, i = = \ Resistance of the bulb is 806.66 W.
t t
20 -19 Q. 38. In the following diagram resistances are R1 = 15 W,
3.75 ´ 10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 6 ´ 10
\i= = = 1 ampere R 3 = 30 W, R 4 = 5 W, R 5 = 20 W and battery is 18 volt.
60 60 Calculate the total resistance and the electrical current
\ 1 ampere electric current is flowing in that conductor. flowing in the circuit. (U.P. 2019)
144

R1 l
of another resistor of same material of length and
R2 2
R3 cross-sectional area 2A. (U.P. 2019)
Ans. According to Ohm’s law
+ l l
Battery R4 R5 R =r´ Þ 4=r´ ...(1)
– A A
l
when l¢ = and A ¢ = 2 A, then
2
( ) l2
– A + R =r´ ...(2)
Key
2A
Ans. Given that R1 = 15 W, R 2 = 10 W, R 3 = 30 W, Dividing eq. (2) by (1)
R 4 = 5 W, R 5 = 20 W, V = 18 V R r´ l´ A
Total resistance = Þ R = 1W
4 r ´ 2 ´ 2A
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= + + = + + Q. 41. Heat produced per second in a resistor of 4W is 400
R1- 3 R1 R 2 R 3 15 10 30 J. Calculate the value of potential difference across
Þ R1- 3 = 5W the resistor and current in it. (U.P. 2019)
1 1 1 1 Ans. H = 400 J, R = 4 W, t =1s, V = ?, I = ? H = I 2 Rt
R 4- 5 = + = + Þ R 4- 5 = 4W
R 4 R 5 5 20
H 400
\ Total resistance of circuit R = 5 + 4 = 9W I= = = 10 A
R. t 4 ´1
V 18
\ I= = = 2A Also V = IR = 10 ´ 4W = 40 V
R 9
Q.42. The resistance of a conducting wire is 10 ohms. If the
Q.39. Two lamps with rating constants 100 watt, 220 volt length of this wire is doubled and the area of
and 200 watt, 220 volts are connected in a parallel cross-section is halved, then what will be the
combination and with mains of electrical supply 220 resistance of wire ? (U.P. 2019)
volts. Calculate the current flowing through the l l¢
mains. (U.P. 2019) Ans. Using R = r ´ and R ¢ = r ´
A A¢
Ans. Given that supply voltage V = 220 V
R ¢ l¢ A ¢ l¢ ´ A (2 ´ l) ´ A
Power of first lamp, P1 =100 W = = = =4
Power of second lamp, P2 = 200 W R l A l ´ A ¢ l ´ (05 . A)
The resistance of first lamp : (Ql¢ = 2l and A ¢ = 05
. A)
V 2 (220) 2 48400 \ R ¢ = 4R = 4 ´ 10 = 40W
R1 = = = = 484W Q.43. What is meant by electric power? Write its formula in
P1 100 100 terms of :
The resistance of IInd lamp : (i) potential difference (V ) and current (I), (ii) current (
V 2 (220) 2 48400 I) and resistance (R) and (iii) potential difference (V )
R2 = = = = 242W and resistance (R). (U.P. 2019)
P2 200 200 Ans. The rate at which electrical energy is consumed is
Since the lamps are in parallel, so their total resistance called electrical power.
will be V2
(i) P = I ´ V (ii) P = I 2 R (iii) P =
1 1 1 1 1 1+2 3 R
= + = + = =
R R1 R 2 484 242 484 484 Q.44. Resistances of 2 W, 3 W and 5W are connected in
484 series. If potential difference of 30 volt is applied at
R= = 161.3 the two ends of the combination, find the potential
3
difference between the ends of each resistance and
According to Ohm's Law find produced energy from 3W resistance.
V = IR (U.P. 2020)
220 = I ´ 161.3 Ans. Total resistance = 2 W + 3 W + 5 W = 10W
220 voltage applied = 30V
I= = 1.36A
161.3 V 30
Q i= = = 3A
Q. 40. The resistance of a resistor is 4W when its length is l R 10
and cross-sectional area A. Find the value of resistance Now V1 = i × R1 = 3 ´ 2 = 6V
 145

V2 = i × R 2 = 3 ´ 3 = 9V R 4r ´ l ´ A
= =4
V3 = i × R 3 = 3 ´ 5 = 15V 5 r´ l´ A
Energy produced across 3W resistance = V ´ i ´ t
R = 5 ´ 4 = 20W
= 9 ´ 3 ´1
Q.46. Electrical meter fitted at your home is marked with
= 27 J/s (250V-20A). How much maximum load (in kW) may
Q.45. For an iron wire, length is l1, cross-sectional area is A1 be supplied through this meter? (U.P. 2020)
and resistance is 5W. If its length is doubled with Ans. V = 250 volt, I = 20 amp.
changing volume and temperature, then calculate the
new resistance. (U.P. 2020) \ P = VI = 250 ´ 20 = 5000 watt = 5 kW
Ans. Let the length of a 5W resistance wire is l1, Q.47. A heater of 1500 W is connected with electrical mains
cross-section area is A1 and resistivity is r. then of 250 V. Calculate :
rl rl (i) current flowing through heater
R= or 5 = ....(1) (ii) resistance of heater wire (U.P. 2020)
A A
Let the length is doubled then length is 2l. but when Ans. P =1500 watt, V = 250 volt
the length of wire is doubled then the cross-section P 1500
(i) Current I = = = 6 amp.
will be half ( A / 2). V 250
Let the resistance is R, then V 2 250 ´ 250
r ´ 2l 4r ´ l (ii) Resistance, R = = = 4167
. W
R= = ....(2) P 1500
A/2 A
equation (2) divided by (1),

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. What is Ohm’s law? Show the graph between current Q. 2. Establish the formula for the equivalent resistance of
and potential difference by drawing the circuit series combination of three resistances. Also give its
diagram for the verification of Ohm’s law. conclusions. (U.P. 2015, 16, 17)
(U.P. 2011, 12, 13, 14, 15, 18, 19) Ans. Let three resistance-wires AB , BC and CD are conn-
Ans. Ohm’s law: If the physical conditions (like ected in series of resistances R1, R 2 and R 3 respectively.
temperature, length, etc.) of a conductor remains Let current i flows through these three resistances and
unchanged, then the ratio of the potential difference between the ends of these
potential difference across it Y resistances are V1, V2 and V3 respectively. Then
and the current flowing according to Ohm’s law,
i

through the conductor is a V1 V2 V3

Straight
constant. line A
D
V R1 B R2 C R3
= Constant
i X
V i i
V Fig. 12.1

= R (Resistance)
i
The constant V / i is also known as the resistance of + –
Key
the conductor.
Varification of Ohm's law: If a graph is drawn V1 = iR1, V2 = iR 2 and V3 = iR 3
between the potential difference (V ) and the current Potential difference between points A and D is,
( i), then a straight line must be obtained (See figure). V = V1 + V2 + V3
Key Battery
+ –
Rheostat V = iR1 + iR 2 + iR 3 …(i)
+
If the equivalent resistance between points A and D is
A Ammeter R, then
–
Resistance wire V = iR …(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii)
+ V – iR = iR1 + iR 2 + iR 3
Voltmeter
\ R = R1 + R 2 + R 3
146

Conclusions: (4) Potential difference across all resistance in

(1) Equivalent resistance is equal to the sum of parallel combination are same.
individual resistances in the series combination. Q. 4. In the following figure, find the current drawn from
(2) If there is a need to increase the resistance of a the cell. (U.P. 2011, 15, 17)
10 V
circuit, then the resistances should join in series
+ –
combination. 4W

(3) Same current passes through all the resistances

connected in series combination.
2W
Q. 3. Establish the formula for the equivalent resistance of
parallel combination of three resistances. Also give its 2W
conclusions. (U.P. 2011, 16, 17, 19)
Fig. 12.26

Ans. Let three resistances R1, R 2 and R 3 are connected in Ans. Resistances 2W and 2W are joined in parallel,
parallel between points A and B. Since each resistance 1 1 1 2
\ = + =
is connected between A and B, therefore, there will be R¢ 2 2 2
same potential difference V across each resistance and Þ R ¢ = 1W
current i is divided in three parts i1, i2 and i3 through Now, R ¢ and 4W are in series.
R1, R 2 and R 3 respectively. \ Equivalent resistance,
R1
i1
R = R ¢ + 4 = 5W
i2 R2 \ Current drawn from cell
V 10
A
i3
B i= = = 2 ampere
R3 R 5
i i
Q. 5. Find out the following in the electric circuit given in
figure:
A B C
+ – A1
Key + –
Battery 4W
+
Fig. 12.25

8V
\ i = i1 + i2 + i3 …(i) –
8W 8W
By Ohm’s law, Key
V V V –
i1 = , i2 = and i3 = A2
+
R1 R2 R3
From equation (i), (i) effective resistance of two 8W resistors in the
V V V combination
i= + + …(ii) (ii) current flowing through 4W resistor
R1 R 2 R 3
(iii) potential difference across 4W resistance
If equivalent resistance between points A and B is R, (iv) power dissipated in 4W resistor
then (v) difference in ammeter readings, if any.
V Ans. (i) Given that, R1 = R 2 = 8 W
i= …(iii)
R R R
From equation (ii) and (iii), Using the relation,R p = 1 2
R1 + R 2
V V V V
= + + On putting the values, we have,
R R1 R 2 R 3
8 ´ 8 64
1 1 1 1 Rp = = = 4W
\ = + + 8 + 8 16
R R1 R 2 R 3 (ii) Net resistance of the given circuit is,
Conclusions: R s = 4 + 4 = 8W
(1) The reciprocal of equivalent resistance is equal V 8
to the sum of reciprocals of individual Therefore, i= = =1A
resistances. Rs 8
(2) The equivalent resistance of the resistances is (iii) Potential difference across 4W is,
lesser than even the smallest resistance in V = iR = 1 ´ 4 = 4 V
combination. (iv) Dissipated power is,
(3) If there is a need to decrease the resistance of a
P = i 2 R = (1) 2 ´ 4 = 4 W
circuit, then the resistances should join in
parallel combination. (v) No difference
 147

Q. 6. In the following circuit diagram, calculate: 1 1 1 1 1

=+ + +
(i) equivalent resistance between points A and B R min R1 R 2 R 3 R 4
(ii) current supplied by battery 1 1 1 1
(iii) P.D. across 2W resistor. (U.P. 2017) = + + +
1W 4 8 12 24
A
6 + 3 + 2 +1 1
= = W
24 2
2V 4W 2W \ R min = 2W
Q. 8. The internal resistance of the cell in the adjoining
electric circuit is 1 ohm and electromotive force is 20
B Fig. 12.28
1W volt. Find:
(i) total resistance of the circuit
Ans. (i) Here 1W, 2 W and 1W are in series, hence their
(ii) current of the circuit
equivalent resistance (iii) potential difference between points A and B.
R1 = 1 + 2 + 1 = 4 W (U.P. 2013)
Now, this 4W is in parallel with another 4W
resistor, hence, equivalent resistance between A 20 volt
and B.
1W 6 ohm
4 ´ 4 16
R AB = = = 2W i
4+4 8 i

(ii) Q V = 2 V and resistance of circuit, 4 ohm 2 ohm

R = R AB = 2W A B
\ Current supplied by battery 6 ohm
V 2 Ans. (i) Resistances of 4 ohm and 2 ohm are in series,
i = = =1A
R 2 their equivalent resistance will be 6 ohm.
(iii) Q R1 and remaining 4W resistor are in parallel, Now, equivalent resistance between A and B be
hence P.D. across both will be same, i. e., equal 6´6
to 2V. R¢ = = 3 ohm
6+6
\ Current in 2W resistor
V 2 Total resistance of the circuit
i1 = current in R1 = = = 0.5 A = R + r = 3 + 6 + 1 = 10 ohm
R1 4
(ii) Current in the circuit,
\ P.D. across 2W resistor, E 20 volt
\ V1 = i1 ´ 2 W = 0.5 A ´ 2 W = 1 V i= = = 2.0 ampere
R + r 10 ohm
Q. 7. How will you combine 4 W, 8 W ,12 W and 24W (iii) Potential difference between points A and B
resistances such that (i) maximum and (ii) minimum V = i ´ R¢
resistance can be obtained? Draw circuit diagram, V = 2.0 ´ 3 = 6.0 volt
also. (U.P. 2016) Q. 9. In the following figure, find:
Ans. (i) For maximum resistance, (i) equivalent resistance between points A and B
R max = R1 + R 2 + R 3 + R 4 (ii) current in the circuit
= 4 + 8 + 12 + 24 = 48W (iii) potential difference across the ends of 3W
4W 8W 12W 24W
resistor. (U.P. 2012, 16)
6V
A B A B
+ –

(ii) For minimum resistance, 3W

2W
4W 1W

8W
2W
Ans. (i) 2W and 2W are in parallel, so their equivalent
A 12W B resistance
2´2 4
24W R1 = = = 1W
2+2 4
148

Now, 3 W, 1W and 1W resistances are in series, so Q.12. In the following circuit, B

equivalent resistance of circuit. find:

R AB = 3 + 1 + 1 = 5W (i) equivalent resistance
1W 1W
between A and C
(ii) Current in the circuit
V 6 (ii) current in the circuit 2W
A C
i= = = 1.2 A (iii) potential difference
R AB 5 across A and B. + –

(iii) Potential difference across the ends of 3W (U.P. 2015) 2V

V = iR = 1.2 ´ 3 = 3.6 V Ans. (i) 1W and 1W resistors are in series, so their

Q.10. When two resistors are connected in series, their equivalent is
equivalent resistance is 25 ohm. When they are R1 = 1 + 1 = 2 W
connected in parallel, their equivalent resistance is 4
ohm. Find each resistance. (U.P. 2011, 12) Now, these 2W and 2W resistances are in
Ans. Let R1 and R 2 be the resistances. parallel, so equivalent resistance of circuit
R R 2´2
Then in series R1 + R 2 = 25 …(i) R= 1 2 = = 1W
R1 ´ R 2 R1 + R 2 2 + 2
and in parallel R= =4 (ii) Here, V = 2 V and R =1W
R1 + R 2
V 2
R1 ´ R 2 \ Current in the circuit, i = = =2A
or =4 R 1
25
(iii) Now, branches ABC and AC are in parallel,
Þ R1R 2 = 25 ´ 4 = 100
hence potential difference across both branches
By ( R1 - R 2 ) 2 = ( R1 + R 2 ) 2 - 4R1R 2 will be same equal to 2 V.
We have ( R1 - R 2 ) 2 = (25) 2 - 4 ´ 100 \ Current in ABC is
V 2V
or, ( R1 - R 2 ) 2 = 625 - 400 = 225 i= = =1A
R ABC 2 W
On taking square root,
R1 - R 2 = 15 …(ii) \ Potential difference across AB,
On solving equation (i) and (ii) V = iR AB = 1 A ´ 1W = 1 V
we get R1 = 20 W and R 2 = 5 W Q.13. Find equivalent resistance between A and B and
\ Resistances are 20W and 5W. between A and C. (U.P. 2015)
2W
Q. 11. In the following figure, electromotive force (e.m.f.) of D C
the cell is 4 volt and internal resistance is negligible.
Find:
A
(i) net resistance 2W 2W
(ii) current in the circuit + 4V
–
(iii) potential difference across A 3W
A B
and C. (U.P. 2014) 6W
3W 1W
B
C
D Ans. (i) 2 W, 2 W and 2W are resistances in series, so their
Ans. (i) 3W and 3W are in parallel. equivalent resistance
Their equivalent resistance R1 = 2 + 2 + 2 = 6 W
3´3 3 Now 6W and 6W ressistances are in parallel, so
R1 = = =1.5W their equivalent resistance between A and B
3+3 2
6´6
1.5W and 1W resistances are in series, so net R AB = = 3W
resistance of the circuit, 6+6
R = 1.5 + 1 = 2.5 W (ii) 2W and 2W are resistances in series.
(ii) Current in the circuit \ Equivalent resistance,
E 4 R1 = 2 + 2 = 4 W
i= = = 1.6 A Now, 2W and 6W are in series.
R + r 2.5 + 0
(iii) Q Resistance between A and C is R1 =1.5W \ Equivalent resistance,
R2 = 2 + 6 = 8W
\ Potential difference across A and C is
4W and 8W are in parallel, so their equivalent
V = i R1 = 1.6 A ´ 1.5 W = 2.4 V resistance,
 149

R1R 2 \ R¢ = 9 R
R AC =
R1 + R 2 The new resistance will be 9 times the initial
resistance.
4 ´ 8 32
= = = 2.67W Q. 16. In the following figure, find the current in 1 ohm
4 + 8 12 resistor and potential difference across it. (U.P. 2013)
Q. 14. In the following circuit, calculate the current i. 9V 1W
+ –
(U.P. 2015)

1W 3W
2W
i2 6V
+ –
6W
i
i1 Fig. 12.40

4W 2W Ans. 3W and 6W resistances are in parallel, so equivalent

resistance
Fig. 12.39

R ´ R 2 3 ´ 6 18
Ans. 1W and 2W resistances are in series, so their equivalent R1 = 1 = = = 2W
R1 + R 2 3 + 6 9
resistance
R1 = 1 + 2 = 3 W These 2W and 1W resistances are in series, so
Similarly, equivalent resistance of circuit
R2 = 4 + 2 = 6W R = 2 + 1 = 3W
Now, 3W and 6W resistances are in parallel, so Current in 1W resistance (current in circuit)
equivalent resistance of circuit V 9
i = = =3A
R ´ R2 3 ´ 6 R 3
R= 1 = = 2W
R1 + R 2 3 + 6 and potential difference across it.
\ Current, i = current drawn from cell V = iR = 3 A ´ 1W = 3 V
V 6 Q. 17. The equivalent resistance of two electric resistances,
= = =3A when connected in series, is 25 ohm. If these
R 2
resistances are connected in parallel arrangement, the
Q. 15. A wire is stretched such that its length becomes three
equivalent resistance is 4 ohm. Find the resistance of
times the original length. Find the new resistance of
each wire. (U.P. 2001, 12)
the wire.
Ans. Let the initial length of the wire be l and it becomes l¢ Ans. Let the resistance of wires are R1 and R 2 .
when the wire is stretched. The area of cross-section In series arrangement,
of the wire is A which becomes A ¢ after the wire is R1 + R 2 = 25 …(i)
stretched. The initial volume of the wire is Al and final In parallel arrangement
will be A ¢l¢. But the volume remains the same
1 1 1
\ Al = A ¢l¢ + =
A l¢ R1 R 2 R
or =
A¢ l 1 1 1 R 2 + R1 1
+ = or =
l¢ R1 R 2 4 R1R 2 4
Given that =3
l R1R 2
A l¢ or =4 …(ii)
\ = =3 …(i) R1 + R 2
A¢ l Substituting value of R1 + R 2 from equation (i) in
If the specific resistance of the material of the wire is equation (ii), we get
k, then initial resistance of wire R1R 2
l = 4 or R1R 2 = 100
R =r …(ii) 25
A
By formula,
If the final resistance of wire be R ¢ after it is stretched,
l¢ ( R1 - R 2 ) 2 = ( R1 + R 2 ) 2 - 4R1R 2
then R¢ = r …(iii)
A¢ ( R1 - R 2 ) 2 = (25) 2 - 4(100) = 625 - 400 = 225
Dividing equation (iii) by (ii), we get R1 - R 2 = 15 …(iii)
R ¢ l¢ A æ l¢ ö æ A ö Solving Eqs. (i) and (iii), we get
= ´ = ç ÷ç ÷ =3´3 =9
R A¢ l è l ø è A¢ ø R1 = 20 ohm and R 2 = 5 ohm
150

Q. 18. In the following fuigure, find: = 7.5 + 15 + 120 + 900 = 1042.5 units
(i) equivalent resistance Expenditure on electricity
(ii) current in circuit = no. of units × ` 5 / unit
(iii) potential difference across 3 ohm resistor. = 1042.5 ´ 5 = ` 5212.5
(U.P. 2012) Q. 20. In a house, a fan of 100 watt, two tube lights of 50 watt
10V each and a television set of 100 watt are used on an
+ – average for 10 hours per day. Then calculate the
electric consumption in kilowatt (unit) during one
month (30 days). How the above equipments will be
1W 3W connected with the mains show by a diagram?
2W (U.P. 2013)
Ans. Power of all the equipments
P = 1 ´ 100 + 2 ´ 50 + 1 ´ 100 = 300 watt
2W 300 ´ 10
Ans. (i) 2W and 2W resistances are in parallel Electric consumption per day = = 3 units
1000
2´2
So R1 = = 1W \ Units consumed during one month (30 days)
2+2 = 3 ´ 30 = 90 units
Now, these resistances 1W, 1W and 3W are in
series, so equivalent resistance of circuit Diagram showing the connections of above
R = 1 + 1 + 3 = 5W appliances to the mains is given below:
(ii) E.M.F., V =10 V
V 10 N
\ Current in the circuit, i = = =2A
R 5 L
(iii) Potential difference across 3W resistor T.L. T.L.
F T.V.
V = iR = 2 A ´ 3 W = 6 V
Q. 19. In a house, 5 L.E.D. bulbs each of 10 W, 1
incandescent bulb of 100 W, 4 fans each of 50 W and
an air conditioner of 1.5 kW are being used. If bulbs
are used 5 hours per day and fans and airconditioners Main
fuse
are used 20 hours per day, then find the expenditure Switch board
on electric energy for a period of one month (30 days)
at the rate of ` 5 / unit. (U.P. 2017) Q. 21. 50 bulbs of 100 W, 20 fans of 100 W, 5 refrigerators of
Ans. Q Consumed electric energy (in unit) 1000 W and 2 ovens of 2000 W, are working in a
watt ´ hour ´ days factory. Bulbs and fans are used for 20 hours,
= refrigerators are used 24 hours and ovens are used for
1000 10 hours, daily. Calculate the electrical energy
\ Energy consumed by 5 L.E.D. bulb consumed in 1 month (30 days all working days).
(5 ´ 10 watt) ´ (5 hours) ´ 30 days Calculate the total payment for 1 month at the rate of `
=
1000 5 per unit. (U.P. 2018 )
= 7.5 units Ans. Electric energy consumed
Energy consumed by incandescent bulb watt ´ hours ´ days
= units
100 watt ´ 5 hours ´ 30 days 1000
=
1000 \ Energy consumed by 50 bulbs
=15 units (100 ´ 50) ´ 20 ´ 30
Energy consumed by 4 fans = = 3000 units
1000
(4 ´ 50 watt) ´ 20 hours ´ 30 days
= Energy consumed by 20 fans
1000 (100 ´ 20) ´ 20 ´ 30
=120 units = =1200 units
1000
and energy consumed by air conditioner
(1.5 ´ 1000 watt) ´ 20 hours ´ 30 days Energy consumed by 5 refrigerators
= (1000 ´ 5) ´ 24 ´ 30
1000 = = 3600 units
= 900 units 1000
Total number of units consumed Energy consumed by 2 ovens
 151

(2000 ´ 2) ´ 10 ´ 30 (i) Equivalent resistance

= =1200 units
1000 (ii) Total current in circuit
\ Total energy consumed in 30 days (iii) Potential difference between points A and B.
= 3000 + 1200 + 3600 + 1200 = 9000 units –
+
Total payment for 1 month (30 days) at the rate of ` 5 A
12V
per unit = 9000 ´ 5 = ` 45000

( )
Q.22. Calculate in the following C 30W 10W 40W
circuit:
20W B
(i) equivalent resistance
between A and B

2W

2W
60W
(ii) current drawn from the
cell A B Ans. (i) Resistance 30 W, 20 W, 60 W are in parallel, then
(iii) potential difference 4W
equivalent resistance
between A and B 1 1 1 1 2 + 3 +1 6
(U.P. 2018 ) = + + = =
2V R1 30 20 60 6 60
1 1
= Þ R1 = 10 W
Ans. (i) Resistances 2W and 2W are in series, R1 10
\ R ¢ = 2 + 2 = 4W Now resistance 10W and 40W are in parallel then
equivalent resistance
Now, R ¢ and 4W are in parallel
1 1 1 4 +1 5
1 1 1 1 1 2 = + = =
\ = + = + = R 2 10 40 40 40
R R¢ 4 4 4 4
1 1
\ R = 2W = Þ R2 = 8W
\Equivalent resistance between A and B is 2W. R2 8
E 2 Now R1 and R 2 are in series.
(ii) Current, i = =
R + r 2+0 equivalent resistance of the circuit,
2 R = R1 + R 2 = 10 + 8 = 18W
\ i = = 1 ampere
2 V 12
(ii) I = = = 0.67A
(iii) Potential difference between A and B R 18
V = iR = 1 ´ 2 = 2 volt (iii) V across A - B = I ´ R = 067 . ´ 8 = 5.36V
Q. 23. Calculate the value of : (i) equivalent resistance, (ii) Q. 25. In the circuit given R1 = R 2 = R 3 = 30 W, R 4 = 10 W
total current in the circuit, (iii) potential difference and R 5 = R 6 = 40 W. Voltage of battery is 16V and
between points A and B, in the following electrical internal resistance is zero. The currents flowing
circuit. (U.P. 2019 ) through individual resistance R1, R 2 , R 3 , R 4 , R 5 and
2V + –
R 6 are I 1, I 2 , I 3 , I 4 , I 5 and I 6 respectively. Voltage
4W across these resistances are V1, V2 , V3 , V4 , V5 and V6
A B respectively. Calculate the total current flowing
through circuit. (U.P. 2020)
2W 2W
R1
Ans. (i) Resistance of two resistances of 2W connected in R2
series R3
R1 = 2 + 2 = 4 W +
Now resultant resistance of two resistances (4W each) 16 volt R4
–
joined in parallel R5 +
Key A
1 1 1 2 –
= + = Þ R = 2W
R 4 4 4 R6
V 2
(ii) Total Current in the circuit, I = = = 1A
R 2 Ans. R1 = R 2 = R 3 = 30 W, R 4 = 10 W, R 5 = R 6 = 40 W
(iii) In parallel circuit, voltage remain same, i. e., potential
V =16 V
difference across AB is 2V.
because, R1, R 2 and R 3 are in parallel, so
Q. 24. In the given circuit, find the values of: (U.P. 2019 )
152

1 1 1 1 1 +1 +1 3 Q. 28. For the circuit given, calculate : (U.P. 2020)

= + + = =
R ¢ 30 30 30 30 30 (i) equivalent resistance between points A and B.
1 1 (ii) value of current flowing
= \ R ¢ = 10W
R ¢ 10 (iii) potential difference between points A and C.
4W
Now, R 5 and R 6 in parallel, so A C 4W B
1 1 1 2 1 4W
= + = =
R ¢¢ 40 40 40 20
Or R ¢¢ = 20W
6V
Q R ¢, R ¢¢ and R 4 are in series, so + –
Total Resistance R = R ¢ + R ¢¢ + R 4
= 10 + 20 + 10 = 40W Ans. (i) Q 4W and 4W are in parallel, So
V 16
Total current in circuit I = = = 0.4 amp. 1 1 1 1 +1 2 1
R 40 = + = = =
R¢ 4 4 4 4 2
Because the potential difference at the and of wires
resistance which connected in parallel are same R ¢ = 2W
So, potential difference at the end V = IR Now, R ¢ and 4W are in series, so equivalent resistance
= 0.4 ´ 30 =12 V between points A and B.
Q. 26. Calculate the current and voltage across the cell in the R AB = R ¢ + 4 = 2 + 4 = 6W
following circuit. (U.P. 2020) V 6
(ii) current in circuit I = = = 1 amp.
2W R 6
(iii) Potential difference between point A and C
0.5W V = IR ¢ = 1 ´ 2 = 2 volt
10W 10W 3W Q. 29. Following circuit is connected with ideal battery of 10
12 V
V. Calculate : (U.P. 2020)
(i) resistance between A and B
1W (ii) current i in circuit
Ans. 2W and 3W are in series, So (iii) potential difference between A and B.
R = 2 + 3 = 5W 4W 2W

4W
Now, R1 (5W ), 10W and 10W are in parallel, So A B
1 1 1 1 2 +1 +1 4
4W
= + + = = 2W 1W
R 2 5 10 10 10 10
i
\ R 2 = 2.5W 3W
Now, R 2 (2.5W ), 1W and 0.5W are in series, So
Total Resistance R = 2.5 + 1 + 0.5 = 4W 10 V
V 12
\ Current follow in circuit I = = = 3W Ans. Between points A and B there are resistance 4 W and
R 4 2W are in series and 2W and 1W are also in series so
Potential-difference in cell, V = IR their equivalent resistance.
= 3 ´ 4 =12 V R1 = 4 + 2 = 6 W
Q. 27. In your home air-conditioner (1.5 kW) is used for 10
R2 = 2 + 1 = 3W
hours per day. Calculate the value of electricity
consumed per month (30 days) if its costs ` 7 per unit. Now, these R1 and R 2 are parallel between A and B,
(U.P. 2020) So,
1 1 1 1+2 3 1
Ans. Energy Consumption, = + = = =
Number ´ watt ´ Hours ´ days R3 6 3 6 6 2
=
1000 R 3 = 2W
3 Total Resistance R = 3 + 2 = 5W
1 ´ 1.5 ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ 30
= = 450 unit V 10
1000 (ii) Curren-flow, I = = = 2 amp.
(Q1.5kW = 1.5 ´ 10 3 W) R 5
(iii) Potential difference between A and B
Total cost = No. of Unit × cost of 1unit
V = IR = 2 ´ 2 = 4 volt
= 450 ´ 7 = ` 3150
 153

NCERT Intext Questions

Q. 1. What does an electric circuit mean? Q. 8. Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a
Ans. A closed conducting path through which electric thin wire of the same material, when connected to the
current may flow is called an electric circuit. same source? Why?
Q. 2. Define the unit of current. l
Ans. Resistance, R µ
Ans. The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A). When 1 A
coulomb of electric charge flows through any The resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional
cross-section of a conductor in 1 second, the electric to its area of cross-section. A thick wire has a greater
current flowing through it is said to be 1 ampere. area of cross-section whereas a thin wire has a smaller
1 coulomb (C) area of cross-section. Thus, a thick wire has less
1 ampere = resistance and a thin wire has more resistance.
1 second (s)
Therefore, current will flow more easily through a
Q. 3. Calculate the number of electrons constituting one thick wire.
coulomb of charge. (U.P. 2019) Q. 9. Let the resistance of an electrical component remains
Ans. Charge on an electron = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 C constant while the potential difference across the two
Q If the value of charge in 16. ´ 10 -19 C, then number ends of the component decreases to half of its former
of electron =1 value. What change will occur in the current through
\ If the value of charge in 1 C, then number of it?
electrons V
Ans. We know that, i=
1 1 R
= = ´ 1019
16
. ´ 10 -19 16
. Since, the resistance remains constant, so the current
is directly proportional to potential difference. If the
= 0.625 ´ 1019 = 6.25 ´ 1018 potential difference is halved, the current also gets
Q. 4. Name a device that helps to maintain a potential halved.
difference across a conductor. Q. 10. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons
Ans. A cell or a battery. made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
Q. 5. What is meant by saying that the potential difference Ans. Coils of electric toasters and electric irons are made of
between two points is 1V? an alloy rather than a pure metal because:
Ans. The potential difference between two points in a (i) the resistivity of an alloy is much higher than
current carrying conductor is said to be 1V when 1 that of pure metal and
joule of work is done to move a charge of 1 coulomb
from one point to the other. (ii) an alloy does not undergo oxidation easily even
1 joule at high temperature.
Therefore, 1 volt = Q. 11. (i) Which among iron and mercury is a better
1 coulomb conductor?
1 V = 1 JC -1 (ii) Which material is the best conductor?
Q. 6. How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge Ans. (i) Among iron and mercury, iron is better conductor
passing through a 6 V battery? of electricity because resistivity of iron
Ans. Charge, Q =1 C (10.0 ´ 10 -8 W m ) is less than that of mercury
Potential difference, V =6V (9.40 × 10 -8 W m).
Work done, W = VQ = 6 V ´ 1C = 6 J (ii) We know that a good conductor of electricity
The work done on each coulomb = 6 J should have a low resistivity and a poor
Therefore, the energy given to each coulomb of conductor of electricity will have a high
charge is also 6 J. resistivity. Silver has the lowest resistivity of
Q. 7. On what factors does the resistance of a conductor 1.60 × 10 -8 W m, which means that silver offers
depend? the least resistance to the flow of current
Ans. The resistance of a conductor depeneds: through it. So, silver is the best conductor of
(i) on its length, electricity.
(ii) on its area of cross-section, Q. 12. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a
(iii) on the nature of its material and battery of three cells of 2 V each, a 5W resistor, an 8W
(iv) on temperature of the conductor. resistor, and a 12W resistor and a plug key, all
connected in series.
154

5W 8W 12W than the smallest individual resistance. Therefore,

equivalent resistance will be less than 1W.
(ii) In this case, also the equivalent resistance will be
I
less than 1W.
Q. 15. An electric lamp of 100W, a toaster of resistance 50W,
+ –
and a water filter of resistance 500W are connected in
parallel to a 220 V source. What is the resistance of an
6V electric iron connected to the same source that takes as
Ans. The potential difference of each cell = 2 V much current as all three appliances, and what is the
The total potential difference (or voltage) of 3 cells current through it?
=3´2V =6V Ans. Here, R1 = 100 W, R 2 = 50 W, R 3 = 500 W
Q. 13. Redraw the circuit of Q.12, putting in an ammeter to Equivalent resistace = R
measure the current through the resistors and a Resistors are connected in parallel.
voltmeter to measure the potential difference across 1 1 1 1
the 12W resistor. What would be the readings in the \ = + +
R R1 R 2 R 3
ammeter and the voltmeter?
Ans. It is noted that the ammeter has been put in series with 1 1 1 1
= + +
the circuit and the voltmeter has been put in parallel R 100 50 500
with the 12W resistor. 1 5 + 10 + 1
=
(i) Calculation of current reading in the ammeter: R 500
Here, R1 = 5 W, R 2 = 8 W and R 3 = 12 W 1 16 4 125
= = Þ R= W
These three resistors are connected in series. R 500 125 4
\ Total resistance, R = R1 + R 2 + R 3 Current through all the three appliances,
= 5 + 8 + 12 = 25W V 220 ´ 4
i= = = 7.04 A
Potential difference, V = 6 V R 125
Current, i=? Since, the electric iron connected to the same source
Applying Ohm’s law, V = iR that takes as much current as all the three appliances.
V 6 So,
i= = = 0.24 A 125
R 25 Resistance of the electric iron = W = 31.25 W
Therefore, ammeter will show a reading of 0.24 A. 4
+ – Current through the electric iron = 7.04 A
V
Q. 16. What are the advantages of connecting electrical
5W 8W 12W devices in parallel with the battery instead of
connecting them in series?
– Ans. (i) In parallel circuit, if one electrical appliance stops
A
+ working due to some defect, then all other
appliances keep working normally. In series
circuit, if one electrical appliance stops working
+ –
due to some defect, then all other appliances also
6V Fig. 12.46
stop working.
(ii) In parallel circuits, each electrical appliance gets
(ii) Calculation of potential difference reading the same voltage as that of the power supply line.
across 12W resistor: In series circuit, appliances do not get same
Current, i = 0.24 A, Resistance, R =12W, voltage as that of the power supply line.
Potential difference, V = ? (iii) In the parallel connection of electrical appliances,
Applying Ohm’s law the overall resistance of the household circuit is
V = iR = 0.24 ´ 12 = 2.88 V reduced due to which the current from the power
Therefore, the voltmeter reading is 2.88 V. supply is high. In the series connection, the
overall resistance of the circuit increases too
Q. 14. Judge the equivalent resistance when the following much due to which the current from the power
are connected in parallel (i) 1W and 10 6 W (ii) 1W and supply is low.
10 3 W and 10 6 W. Q. 17. How can three resistors of resistance 2 W, 3 W and 6W
Ans. (i) When a number of resistance are connected in be connected to give a total resistance of (i) 4W (ii)
parallel, then their combined resistance is less 1W ? (U.P. 2020)
 155

Ans. (i) As the total resistance (equivalent resistance) is 1 1 1 1 1

4W, the 6W resistor cannot be in series. So, it must = + + +
R 4 8 12 24
be in parallel with some other resistors.
3W 1 6 + 3 + 2 +1
Þ =
2W R 24
A B C D 1 12 1
Þ = =
Fig 12.47
6W R 24 2
In parallel connection, the equivalent resistance \ R = 2W
( 4W ) has to be less than all the resistances. Q. 19. Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while
So, the resistors of 2 W and 3W cannot be in the heating element does?
parallel at one time with 6W. Ans. The cord of the electric heater is made of copper. It
So, the resistors have to be in a mixed does not glow because negligible heat is produced in
combination. it by the passing current due to its extremely low
Let us consider the combination shown in the resistance.
figure: The heating element of an electric heater is made of
The equivalent resistance between B and C nichrome. It glows because large amount of heat is
(which are in parallel) produced in it by the passing electric current due to its
3 W ´ 6 W 18 W high resistance.
= = = 2W Q. 20. Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000
3W + 6W 9W
coulombs of charge in one hour through a potential
The resistance between A and D difference of 50 V.
= 2 W + 2 W = 4 W.
Ans. Here, Q = 96000 C, t = 1 hour = 60 ´ 60 s and V = 50 V
So, the combination shown in the figure is true.
(ii) Here, R1 = 2 W, R 2 = 3 W, R 3 = 6 W and R =1W Q 96000 80
Current, i= = = A
2W t 60 ´ 60 3
3W V 50 ´ 3 15
Resistance, R= = = W
A 6W B i 80 8
Fig. 12.48

Heat produced, H = i 2 Rt
Since, the equivalent resistance of the 80 80 15
combination is of lesser value than any of the = ´ ´ ´ 60 ´ 60 = 4800000 = 4800 kJ
3 3 8
resistors of the combination, it is clear that the
resistors should be connected in parallel. It can be Q. 21. An electric iron of resistance 20W takes a current of 5
further confirmed by using the formula A. Calculate the heat developed in 30 s.
1 1 1 1 Ans. Here, R = 20 W, i = 5 A, t = 30 s
= + +
R R1 R 2 R 3
Heat developed = i 2 Rt = 5 ´ 5 ´ 20 ´ 30
1 1 1 3 + 2 +1 6
= + + = = =1 = 15000 J = 15 kJ
2 3 6 6 6
Q. 22. What determines the rate at which energy is delivered
i. e., R =1 ohm by a current?
Therefore, resistors should be connected in
parallel. Ans. Electric power.
Q. 18. What is (i) the highest , (ii) the lowest total resistance Q. 23. An electric motor takes 5 A from a 220 V line.
that can be secured by combinations of four coils of Detemine the power of the motor and the energy
resistance 4 W, 8 W, 12 W, 24 W? consumed in 2 h.
Ans. (i) The highest can be secured by series combination Ans. Power, P = Vi = 220 ´ 5 = 1100 W = 1.1 kW
and is equal to
Energy consumed,
R = 4 W + 8 W + 12 W + 24 W = 48 W
(ii) The lowest total resistance can be secured by E = P ´ t = 1.1 kW ´ 2 h = 2.2 kWh
parallel combination, which is given by
 156

Fully Solved NCERT Text Book Exercise

Q. 1. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal 10 ´ 3.14 ´ (2.5 ´ 10 - 4 ) 2
parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the l=
= 122.7 m
equivalent resistance of this combination is R ¢, then 1.6 ´ 10 -8
R When the diameter is doubled, then new diameter will
the ratio is: (U.P. 2020)
R¢ be,
(a)
1
(b)
1
(c) 5 (d) 25 d = 0.5 ´ 2 = 1 mm = 1 ´ 10 -3
25 5
Radius of the wire, r = 0.5 ´ 10 -3 m
Ans. (d)
Q. 2. Which of the following terms does not represent New area of cross-section
electrical power in a circut? = pr 2 = 3.14 ´ (0.5 ´ 10 -3 ) 2 m 2
V2 l
(a) i 2 R (b) iR 2 (c) Vi (d) Again using the same formula, R ¢ = r
R A
Ans. (b) Putting the values, we have,
Q. 3. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. If it is run 122.7
on 110 V, the power consumed will be: (U.P. 2019) R ¢ = 1.6 ´ 10 -8 = 2.5 W
(a) 100 W (b) 75 W (c) 50 W (d) 25 W 3.14 ´ (0.5 ´ 10 -3 ) 2
Ans. (d) Therefore, the length of the wire is 122.7 m and the
Q. 4. Two conducting wires of the same material and of new resistance is 2.5W.
equal lenghts and equal diameters are first connected in Q. 7. The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for
series and then parallel in a circuit across the same the corresponding values of potential difference V
potential difference. The ratio of heat produced in across the resistor are given below:
series and parallel combinations would be : (U.P. 2020) Values of V and i
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 Current in ampere 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
Ans. (c) Potential difference in volt 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
Q. 5. How is a voltmeter connected in a circuit to measure
potential difference between 2 points? Plot a graph between V and i and calculate the
resistance of that resistor.
Ans. To measure the potential difference between two
points, a voltmeter should be connected in parallel to Ans. The required graph is plotted below:
the points. Since, the graph is a straight line, any value of
potential difference and corresponding value of
Q. 6. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity of
current can be used to find out resistance of the
1.6 × 10 -8 Wm. What will be the length of this wire to resistor. (The same can also be find out using slope of
make its resistance 10W? How much does the the graph).
resistance change if the diameter is doubled? 14.0
(U.P. 2019)
12.0
Potential difference (volt)

Ans. Given that, diameter of the wire, d = 0.5 mm

Radius of the wire, r = 0.25 mm = 2.5 ´ 10 -4 m 10.0
Area of cross-section = pr 2 = 3.14 ´ (2.5 ´ 10 - 4 ) 2 8.0
Resistance of the wire =10W
6.0
Resistivity of the material = 1.6 ´ 10 -8 W m
Resistance ( R ) of a copper wire of length l and 4.0
cross-section A is given by the expression, 2.0
l
R =r
A 0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0
On putting the values, we have, Current (ampere)
l So, selecting any easy value of V and I.
10 = 1.6 ´ 10 -8
3.14 ´ (2.5 ´ 10 -4 ) 2 When V = 3.4, then I =1.0
 157

V 3.4 i. e., 6 W + 6 W + 6 W = 18 W, which is not desired. If we

From Ohm’s law, R = = = 3.4W
I 1.0 connect the resistors in parallel, then the equivalent
Q. 8. When a 12 V battery is connected across an unknown 6
resistance will be = 2 W.
resistor, there is a current of 2.5 mA in the circuit. Find 3
the value of resistance of the resistor. Hence, we should either connect the two resistors in
Ans. Given that, potential difference =12 VC series or parallel. Let the names of three resistors are
current = 2.5 mA = 0.0025 A R1, R 2 and R 3 .
Now, according to Ohm’s law, (i) Two resistors are in parallel:
V 12 When two resistors are in parallel then their
R= = = 4800 W
i 0.0025 equivalent resistance,
Q. 9. A battery of 9 V is connected in series of 1 1 1 2 1
= + = =
0.2 W, 0.3 W, 0.4 W, 0.5 W and 12W respectively. How R¢ 6 6 6 3
much current would flow through the 12W resistor? \ R ¢ = 3W
Ans. Given that, potential difference = 9 V
Now, R ¢ is in series with R 3 ,
resistors in series = 0.2 W, 0.3 W, 0.4 W, 0.5 W and 12W
So, total resistance, R = 3 + 6 = 9W
In series combination, the equivalent resistance is the R1
sum of all resistaces.
So, total resistance, R3
= 0.2 W + 0.3 W + 0.4 W + 0.5 W + 12 W = 13.4 W R2
The current in the circuit, can be obtained by using Fig. 12.50

Ohm’s law,
(ii) Two resistors are in series:
V 9
i= = = 0.67 ampere When two resistors are in series then their
R 13.4 equivalent resistance,
In series combination, the current remains the same on
R ¢ = 6 + 6 =12W
all the resistors. So, current on 12W resistor would
also be 0.67 A. Now, R ¢ is in parallel with R 3 ,
Q. 10. How many 176W resistors (in parallel) are required to 1 1 1 1+2 3
So, total resistance, = + = =
carry 5 A on a 220 V line? R 12 6 12 12
Ans. Given that, potential difference = 220 V \ R = 4W
R1 R2
value of each resistor, r =176W
Current required to flow = 5 A
Let, total amount of resistance needed in the circuit to
generate a current of 5 A is R. R3
Then according to Ohm’s law, Fig. 12.51

V 220 Q. 12. Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 V

R= = = 44W
i 5 electric supply line, are rated 10 W. How many bulbs
We have to use resistors in parallel sequence to can be connected in parallel with each other across the
generate a total R = 44W two wires of 220 V line if the maximum allowable
Suppose, n is the number of resistors required. So, sum current is 5 A?
of n resistors in parallel combination will be Ans. Given that, potential difference = 220 V
1 1 Maximum current allowed = 5 A
= n æç ö÷ V 220
R èrø R= = = 44W
1 n i 5
On putting the values, we have = So, total resistance of the circuit, can not be more than
44 176
n=4 44W.
So, 4 resistors of 176W in parallel combination can Now, have to calculate the resistance of each bulb ( R ¢ )
produce the required current. by using following formula:
Q. 11. Show how you would connect three resistors, each of V2 V2
P= or R ¢ =
resistance 6W, so that the combination has a resistance R¢ P
of (i) 9W, (ii) 4W. On putting the values,
Ans. If we connect the resistors in series, then the 220 ´ 220
equivalent resistance will be the sum of the resistors, R¢ = = 4840W
10
158

We have to use resistors in parallel sequence to Therefore, R = R1 + R 2 = 1 + 2 = 3W

generate a total R = 44W According to Ohm’s law
Suppose, n is the number of bulbs required. So, sum of V = iR
resistance of n bulbs in parallel combination will be
Putting the values, we have,
1 1 ö
= n æç ÷ 6 = i ´ 3 \ i = 2 ampere
R è R¢ ø Since, the two resistors are in series, same
On putting the values, we have, current will pass through both the resistors.
1 n Hence, current flowing through the 2W resistor
= \ n =110
44 4840 in 2 ampere.
So, 110 bulbs are required. Power is given by the expression,
Q. 13. A hot plate of an electric oven connected to a 220 V P = i2R
line, has two resistance coils A and B, each of 24W
resistance which may be used separately, in series, or On putting the values, for 2W resistor, we have,
in parallel. What are the current in the three cases? P =2´2´2=8W
Ans. Given that, supply voltage, V = 220 V (ii) Case 2:
resistance of one coil, R1 = 24 W; Potential difference, V = 4 V
resistance of second coil, R 2 = 24 W 12W and 2W resistors are connected in parallel.
(i) Coils are used separately: We know that the potential difference on each
According to Ohm’s law, V = i1R1 resistor, in parallel combination is the same.
Putting the values, we have, 220 = i1 ´ 24 So, power used in 2W resistor can be find out
i1 = 9.16 ampere using following formula:
Since, R1 = R 2 the current will be the same in V2
P=
case of R 2 . R
(ii) Coils are used in series: 4´ 4
Putting the values, we have, P = =8W
In series, the total resistanc in series, 2
R s = R1 + R 2 Q. 15. Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V, and the other
R s = 24 + 24 = 48W 60 W at 220 V, are connected in parallel to electric
According to Ohm’s law, V = i2 R s mains supply. What current is drawn from the line if
Putting the values, we have, 220 = i2 ´ 48 the supply voltage is 220 V? (U.P. 2020)
Ans. See Short Answer Type Question-20
i2 = 4.58 ampere
Q. 16. Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set in 1 hr, or a
(iii) Coils are used in parallel:
1200 W toaster in 10 minutes?
In series, the total resistanc in parallel, Ans. (1) Energy consumption by TV set,
1 1 1
= + Power = 250 W; Time = 1 hr = 3600 s
R p R1 R 2 Energy consumed = P ´ t = 250 W ´ 3600 s
1 1 1 Energy consumed = 900000 joule
= +
R p 24 24 (2) Energy consumption by toaster,
R p =12W Power =1200 W; Time = 10 min = 600 s
According to Ohm’s law, Energy consumed = P ´ t = 1200 W ´ 600 s
V = i3 R p Energy consumed = 720000 joule
Putting the values, we have, It is clear that the TV set will consume more
energy.
220 = i3 ´ 12
Q. 17. An electric heater of resistance 8W draws 15 A from
i3 =18.33 ampere
the service mains for 2 hours. Calcuate the rate at
Q. 14. Compare the power used in the 2W resistor in each of
which heat is developed in the heater.
the following circuits: Ans. The rate of heat (energy) production is called power.
(i) a 6 V battery in series with1W and 2W resistors, and Given that, resistance of the heater = 8W
(ii) a 4 V battery in parallel with12W and 2W resistors. current drawn =15 A; time = 2 hour = 7200 second
Ans. (i) Case I: power of the heater, P = i 2 R
Potential difference, V = 6 V Putting the values,
1W and 2W resistors are connected in series. we have P = 15 ´ 15 ´ 8 = 1800 W
 159

Q. 18. Explain the following: alloy because resistivity of an alloy is more than
(a) Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for that of metals, as a result it produces large
filament of electric lamps? amount of heat.
(b) Why are the conductors of electric heating (c) In series circuits, the potential difference (V )
devices, such as bread-toasters and electric irons, gets divided. Each component of a series circuit
receives a small voltage. As a result, the amount
made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
of current decreases. Hence, series arrangement
(c) Why is the series arrangement not used for is not used in domestic circuits. Furthermore, if
domestic circuits? any component of the series system becomes
(d) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its failure, the current supply stops in entire system.
area of cross-section? (d) Resistance ( R ) of a wire is inversely
(e) Why are copper and aluminium wires usually proportional to its area of cross-section ( A ).
employed for electricity transmission? (e) Copper and aluminium wires have low
Ans. (a) The melting point and resistivity of tungsten are resistivity. They are good conductors of
very high. It does not burn readily at a high electricity. Hence, they are usually employed
temperature. The electric lamps glow at very high for electricity transmission.
temperatures. Hence, tungsten is mainly used as
heating element of electric bulbs. ccc
(b) The conductors of electric heating devices such
as bread-toasters and electric irons are made of
160

Chapter

13 Magnetic Effects of
Electric Current
Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Which of the following is not a unit of intensity of Q. 10. An electron is moving with velocity υ in a uniform
magnetic field? (U.P. 2007, 12, 17, 18) magnetic field B in a direction perpendicular to it. The
(a) weber/m 2 (b) tesla force acting upon the electron is : (U.P. 2013)
eυ eB υB
(c) gauss (d) newton / amp 2 (a) (b) eυB (c) (d)
Q. 2. The unit of magnetic field intensity is : (U.P. 2012, 13) B υ e
(a) weber / m (b) tesla (c) weber (d) oersted Q. 11. In electromagnetic induction, the e.m.f. induced in a
coil is directly proportional to : (U.P. 2012)
Q. 3. The unit of intensity of magnetic field is :
(a) a magnetic flux
(U.P. 2001, 09, 12, 13)
(b) resistance of circuit
(a) newton / ampere-metre 2
(c) change in magnetic flux
(b) newton / ampere-metre
(d) rate of change of magnetic flux
(c) newton-ampere-metre
Q. 12. Dynamo produces : (U.P. 2016)
(d) newton 2 / ampere-metre (a) charge (b) electromotive force
Q. 4. 1 tesla is equal to : (U.P. 2015) (c) electric field (d) magnetic field
2
(a) 1 weber / m (b) 1 gauss Q. 13. The device which converts the mechanical energy into
(c) 10 - 4 weber / m 2 (d) 10 - 4 gauss electrical energy is : (U.P. 2010)
Q. 5. A moving charged particle can produce : (a) motor (b) dynamo
(U.P. 2012, 13, 14, 16) (c) galvanometer (d) transformer
(a) only the magnetic field Q. 14. The device that produces electric current is :
(b) only the electric field (a) dynamo (b) galvanometer
(c) both magnetic and electric fields (c) ammeter (d) meter
(d) none of these Q. 15. Laws of electromagnetic induction were given by :
Q. 6. The law which determine the direction of the magnetic (U.P. 2017)
force acting upon a charged particle, moving in a (a) Henry (b) Faraday
magnetic field is : (U.P. 2013) (c) Oersted (d) Gauss
(a) Ohm’s law (b) left hand thumb rule Q. 16. The unit of magnetic flux is: (U.P. 2015, 16, 17, 18)
(c) Fleming’s left hand rule (a) weber (b) weber / metre
(d) right handed screw rule (c) weber / metre 2 (d) weber-metre
Q. 7. The length l of a conductor, carrying a current i is Q. 17. The formula of magnetic field near to straight current
placed in a magnetic field of strength B, perpendicular carrying conductor of infinite length, is :
to it. The force acting upon it is : (U.P. 2014)
(U.P. 2001, 03, 10, 15)
i B l
(a) (b) (c) iBl (d) m0 æ i ö m0 æ i ö m0 æ i ö m0 æ i ö
Bl il Bi (a) ç ÷ (b) ç ÷ (c) ç ÷ (d) ç ÷
4pè r ø 2pè r ø 4pè r2 ø 2p è r2 ø
Q. 8. The magnitude of force acting upon a conductor of
length l, carrying a current i and placed perpendicularly Q.18. Induced electromotive force produced by
in a uniform magnetic field B is : (U.P. 2017) electromagnetic induction will be directly proportional
B i Bl to : (U.P. 2018)
(a) (b) (c) Bil (d) (a) total resistance of the circuit
il Bl i
Q. 9. The unit of magnetic field is : (U.P. 2016) (b) magnetic flux
(a) weber / metre (b) weber / metre 2 (c) rate of change in magnetic flux
(d) change in magnetic flux
(c) weber / meter 3 (d) weber
Q. 19. Dynamo converts : (U.P. 2018)
 161

(a) chemical energy into electrical energy (b) Ohm’s Law

(b) sound energy into magnetic energy (c) Fleming’s Left hand rule
(c) mechanical energy into electrical energy (d) Flemming’s Right hand rule
(d) mechanical energy into light energy Q. 22. Electrical motor converts: (U.P. 2020)
Q.20. A current carrying conductor is placed in between the (a) mechanical energy into chemical energy
poles of the stable magnetic field. The direction of (b) mechanical energy inot electrical energy
force acting on the conductor is given by the law: (c) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(U.P. 2019) (d) chemical energy into mechanical energy
(a) Maxwell’s cork-screw rule Q. 23. A moving electron produces: (U.P. 2020)
(b) Flemming’s Right hand rule (a) only magnetic field
(c) Fleming’s Left hand rule (b) only electrical field
(d) Ohm’s Law (c) both magnetic field and electrical field
Q. 21. The direction of current induced in a conductor due to (d) none of theses
variable magnetic field is expressed by: (U.P. 2020)
(a) Right and thumb rule
Answers
Answers
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10 (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. What is the function of the carbon brushes in an Q. 7. Write the formula for the force acting upon a charged
electric motor? (U.P. 2012, 14) particle moving in a magnetic field. (U.P. 2014)
Ans. To make an electrical contact between the Or Give the magnitude and the direction of the force,
commutator rings and the external circuit. acting upon the charged particle moving in a magnetic
Q. 2. What will be the effect of inserting a soft iron rod in a field. (U.P. 2014)
current carrying solenoid? (U.P. 2012) Ans. This force is given by
Ans. The magnetic field intensity will be increased several F = qυB sin q
times. where q = charge of particle
Q. 3. Write the right handed screw rule. (U.P. 2011) υ = velocity of particle
Ans. Maxwell’s right handed screw rule: If we hold a B = magnetic field intensity
screw-driver in our right hand keeping it parallel to
q = angle between υ and B
the current carrying conductor and rotate it in such a
way that the screw advances in the direction of The direction of this force is perpendicular to both υ
current, then direction of rotation of thumb (as and B.
observed from a point) will give the direction of the Q. 8. Write the names of the magnetic poles at the ends of
magnetic field at that point. current carrying solenoid, shown in the adjoining
Q. 4. Where is the Fleming’s left hand rule used? figure. (U.P. 2013)
Ans. It is used to determine the direction of the magnetic
force acting upon a current carrying conductor.
Q. 5. Which rule is used to determine the direction of the
magnetic field of a current carrying conductor?
Ans. Right hand thumb rule is used to determine the
Ans. Left end is south pole while right end is north pole.
direction of the magnetic field of current carrying
conductor. Q. 9. On what factors does the force acting upon a current
Q. 6. Write the formula of force acting on current carrying carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field depend?
conductor due to magnetic field. (U.P. 2013)
(U.P. 2013, 15, 17, 18) Ans. The force F acting upon a current carrying conductor
depends upon
Ans. F = iBL sin q
(i) current (i) in the conductor
where i is current, B is magnetic field intensity and L is
the length of the conductor. (ii) magnetic field ( B )
 162

(iii) length ( l) of the conductor situated in the field Ans. Dynamo is the device which converts mechanical
(iv) sine of the angle q (i. e., sin q) between the energy into electrical energy.
directions of the current and field. Hence, Q. 16. Name a device whose working is based upon the
F = ilB sin q Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.
Q. 10. Write the formula for magnetic field intensity due to Ans. It is the ‘electric generator’ or ‘dynamo’.
infinitely long straight current carrying conductor. Q. 17. What will happen if the direction of electric current is
(U.P. 2012, 14) changed in a freely suspended solenoid? (U.P. 2007)
Ans. Magnetic field intensity in vacuum or air due to a long Ans. Solenoid will turn by 180°.
straight current carrying conductor, at a distance r Q. 18. What is dynamo (generator)? (U.P. 2013, 15)
from it, is given by Ans. Dynamo (generator) is a device which converts the
m i
B = 0 æç ö÷ N/A-m mechanical energy into electrical energy.
2pè r ø Q. 19. What is the difference between direct current
where i = current in the conductor generator and alternating current generator?
m 0 = magnetic permeability of free space. (U.P. 2015)
Q. 11. Under what conditions the magnetic force acting upon Ans. Direct current generator consists of split rings while
a current carrying conductor will be maximum and alternating current generator consists of slip rings.
minimum? (U.P. 2013, 15) Q. 20. What is the difference between electric motor and
Ans. Force will be maximum when conductor is placed electric generator? (U.P. 2014, 17)
perpendicular to field and it will be minimum when it Ans. Electric motor converts electrical energy into
is parallel to field. mechanical energy while electric generator converts
Q. 12. Write the units of magnetic field intensity.(U.P. 2011) mechanical energy into electrical energy.
Ans. The units of magnetic field intensity are newton / A-m Q. 21. Write Lenz’s law to find the
or weber / m 2 or tesla. direction of induced current.
(UP 2018) N S
Q. 13. On what factors does the force acting upon a charged
Ans. In electromagnetic induction,
particle moving in a magnetic field depend? Write the
direction of induced e.m.f. or
formula for this force. (U.P. 2014, 17 )
induced current is such as to N N
Or Force acting upon a charged particle moving in a oppose the change that
magnetic field depends on which of the physical produces it. This law is called
factors? (U.P. 2016) Lenz’s law.
Ans. This force F acting on a charged particle depends Q. 22. The total power of the equipments of your house is 5
upon kW. If electric supply of your house is at 200 V, then
(i) charge ( q ) of the particle what should be the rating (maximum value of current)
(ii) velocity ( υ) of the particle of the fuse wire of your mains? (U.P. 2018)
(iii) magnetic field intensity ( B ) Ans. Q P =V i
(iv) sine of the angle q (i. e., sin q) between the P 5 kW 5000 W
direction of motion and that of the field. This \ i= = = = 25 A
force is given by V 200 V 200 V
F = qυB sin q The rating of the fuse wire is 25 A.
Q. 14. Which law is used to determine the direction of Q. 23. A current carrying wire is moving in a magnetic field,
induced current in dynamo? but the induced emf is not produced in the wire. How
Ans. Fleming’s right hand rule is used to determine the is it possible? (U.P. 2019)
direction of induced current in dynamo. Ans. When wire is aligned in the direction of magnetic
Q. 15. Name the device which converts the mechanical field, then emf formed will be zero.
energy into electrical energy.

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. What is meant by magnetic field intensity? Write its through which a unit current is flowing at that point.
unit. (UP 2016) It’s unit is weber / m 2 or tesla.
Ans. The intensity of a magnetic field at a point is measured by Q. 2. Which rule determines the direction of magnetic field
the force acting upon a conductor of unit length in a current carrying solenoid? State the rule.
 163

Or State the right hand thumb rule. (U.P. 2012, 13) Thus, this rule enables us in determining the direction
Ans. Right hand thumb rule: It states that, “If we wound of force acting on a current carrying conductor placed
the right hand fingers around the current carrying in a magnetic field.
conductor and keep the Q. 7. How is the direction of induced current determined?
thumb perpendicular to current (U.P. 2012, 16)
the fingers in such a Or Write Fleming’s right hand rule. (U.P. 2015)
way that the thumb
points in the direction of magnetic Or Describe the Fleming’s right hand rule to determine
the current then fingers field line the direction of induced current due to magnetic
right hand
will be along the induction. (U.P. 2016)
direction of the current Ans. The direction of induced current is determined by
then fingers will be Fleming's right hand rule.
along the direction of magnetic field lines.” Direction of induced current: Fleming’s right hand
Q. 3. What is meant by a magnetic line of force? Give rule: If we stretch our right hand thumb, it's
fore-finger and middle motion of
properties of magnetic lines of force. (U.P. 2017, 18 ) conductor
Ans. Magnetic line of force: Magnetic lines of force in a finger are perpendicular to magnetic field

magnetic field are those imaginary lines, which each other in such a way
indicate the direction of the magnetic field that the fore-finger points induced
continuously at that place. towards the magnetic field current
and thumb points in the
Properties of magnetic lines of force:
direction of motion of
(1) It always start from the north pole and enters into conductor, then the middle finger will point in the
the south pole of the magnet. direction of induced current (see figure).
(2) The tangent drawn at any point of it, indicates Q. 8. An electron enters with a velocity of 2 ´ 10 4 m/s in a
the direction of magnetic field at that point. magnetic field of 1200 N/Am. Calculate the force
(3) Two lines of forces never intersect each other. acting on the electron if it enters :
Q. 4. What is meant by electromagnetic induction? (i) perpendicular to the field
(U.P. 2014, 16, 17) (ii) parallel to the field
Ans. The phenomenon of induction of electromotive force (iii) making an angle of 30°. (U.P. 2016)
and current due to change in magnetic flux is called Ans. Given, q = 1.6 ´ 10 -19
coulomb
electromagnetic induction. This emf is called induced
electromotive force and the current is called induced υ = 2 ´ 10 4 m/s, B =1200 N/Am,
current. F =?
Q. 5. Define induced electromotive force. (U.P. 2014) By F = qυB sin q
Ans. See the Short answer type Question-4. (i) Perpendicular to the field, i. e., q = 90°
Q. 6. Write Fleming’s left hand rule and explain it with the Force F = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ 2 ´ 10 4 ´ 1200 ´ sin 90°
help of a suitable diagram. (U.P. 2011, 13, 14, 15)
Or Write the Fleming’s left hand rule which determines = 38.4 ´ 10 -13 N
the direction of magnetic force. (U.P. 2012, 15, 16) (ii) Parallel to the field, i. e., q = 0°
Or State the law with an appropriate diagram to Force F = 1.6 ´10 -19 ´ 2 ´10 4 ´1200 ´ sin 0° = 0
determine the direction of force, which acts upon a
(iii) At an angle of 30° with the field, i. e., q = 30°
current carrying conductor placed perpendicularly in
1
a magnetic field. (U.P. 2017) Force F = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ 2 ´ 10 4 ´ 1200 ´
Ans. Fleming’s left hand rule: If the fore-finger, the middle 2
-13
finger and the thumb of the left hand are stretched at = 19.2 ´ 10 N
right angles to one another, in F Q. 9. A coil of wire having area 0.9 m 2 is placed in a
such a way that the fore-finger
uniform magnetic field 2 ´ 10 -2 weber per m 2 . What
points in the direction of the
will be the magnetic flux associated with the coil, if
magnetic field B and the middle B
finger in the direction of the the plane of the coil is :
current i, then the thumb will i
(i) along the magnetic field and
point in the direction of the (ii) perpendicular to the magnetic field? (U.P. 2019)
force F on the conductor (see . m 2 , B = 2 ´ 10 -2 W m 2 , Df = ?
Ans. A = 09
figure).
164

(i) When coil is along magnetic field, i. e., Ans. When we place a coil in magnetic field and give
q = (90º -0) = 90º current to it, it starts rotating (as in case of motor).
Opposite to this, when a coil is placed in a strong
f = BA cos q = 2 ´ 10 -2 ´ 09
. ´ cos 90º = 0 magnetic field and is rotated (force in given), then a
(ii) When coil is ^ to magnetic field. current gets induced inside the coil. This production
of current in a coil when it is rotated in magnetic field
f = BA cos (90º -90º ) = 2 ´ 10 -2 ´ 09
. ´1 is called electromagnetic induction.
= 1.8 ´ 10 -2 Wb AC generator have slip ring while DC generator have
Q.10. What do you understand by electromagnetic induction? split ring commutators.
Write the major difference between AC and DC
generators. Explain through diagram. (U.P. 2020)

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. Give the principle of an electric motor and explain its (1) Armature coil: It consists of a loop of an
construction and working. (UP 2011, 12, 13, 15, 16) insulated copper wire folded in a rectangular
Or What is the working principle of an electrical motor? form ABCD, upon a soft iron frame.
Describe its construction and working method clearly (2) Field magnet: There are two opposite poles
with diagram. (U.P. 2019) (N-S) of a strong magnet. So, armature coil is
Or What is the difference in an electric motor and placed between a strong magnetic field
generator? Explain the principle and working of an perpendicularly.
electric motor with a neat diagram. (U.P. 2019)
(3) Split rings: It consists of two halves (X and Y )
Or Name the rule to determine the direction of a force
of a metallic ring. These halves are attached to
experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in
a magnetic field. Explain the functioning of electrical the shaft of the armature coil and kept isolated
motor with the help of diagram also. (U.P. 2020) from each other. The purpose of the rings is to
Ans. Electric motor: It is a device which converts the reverse the direction of current with each turn.
electrical energy into mechanical energy. (4) Brushes: The outer surface of split rings
Principle: It is based upon the principle that a current remains in contact with two carbon brushes
carrying conductor placed perpendicular to the (P and Q). These brushes provide electric supply
magnetic field experiences a force. to the rings.
When a coil is given a current in a strong magnetic Function of a split ring: If the direction of current
field, it experiences a force, which makes it to rotate. remains the same, after half rotation anti-clockwise,
The direction of the force (movement) can be find out the coil would experiece another half rotation
using Fleming’s left hand rule. clockwise, i. e., returning back to original position.
Construction: Such a motor is of no use. To solve this problem, the
Direction of
rotation of coil motor has split ring halves which act as commutators,
Permanent (Anticlockwise)
magnet
Rectangular i. e., they reverse the direction of the current at each
coil
M
B C
half rotation. The function of split rings (commutator)
is to reverse the direction of flow of current with each
nt

Force half rotation.

rre
Cu

Magnetic Working: Current in the coil ABCD enters from the

field
nt

source/cell through brush P and returns back through

rre

Force
Cu

N S brush Q.
A D
X Carbon brush As a result the direction of the current in arm AB of the
Commutator (fixed)
(rotates with
P coil and CD of the coil is opposite.
coil) Y Q
+ –
Now, according the Fleming’s left hand rule, the force
acting on arm AB pushes it downwards while the
Battery
force acting on arm CD pushes it upwards.
Fig. : An electric motor
As a result, the coil and the axle, which are free to turn
An electric motor consists of four main parts : about an axis, rotate in anti-clockwise direction. Thus,
 165

the electric motor continuously converts the electrical (4) Brushes: The outer surface of slip rings remain
energy into mechanical energy. in connect with two stationary carbon brushes B1
Q. 2. Explain the principle, construction and working of an and B 2 . These brushes are connected to the
alternating current dynamo, by drawing a neat labelled external circuit across which the output is
diagram. (U.P. 2012, 13, 14, 15, 16,17, 18 , 19) obtained.
Or Explain with labelled diagram the principle and Function of brushes: These are the devices that
working of an electrical dynamo. What is the function remain in contact with rings. These do not get rotated
of brushes in it? (U.P. 2019) but takes current (or provide to) from the rings.
Or Write the principle on which electrical dynamo works. Working: When the axle (shaft) is rotated by some
With the help of labelled diagram explain its working. mechanical force (handle), the rings and the coil also
(U.P. 2020) move inside the magnetic field. By applying
Fleming’s left hand rule, the induced currents are set
Or Write the difference between direct current and
up in the arms.
alternating current. Explain the principle and working
of alternating current generator briefly. Also draw Thus the current in the external circuit flows from B1
necessary diagram. (U.P. 2020) to B 2 .
Ans. AC dynamo: It is a device which converts the After half a rotation, the directions of the induced
mechanical energy into electrical energy. currents in both the arms gets changed. Thus, the
current in the external circuit now flows from B 2 to
Principle: It works on the principle of
electromagnetic induction. When the coil of electric B1 .
generator is rotates in a magnetic field, an induced In this way, after every half rotation, the polarity of the
current is developed that flows through the circuit current in the respective arms changes. This type of
connected with the coil. current is known as alternating current and thus the
Construction: AC generator continuously converts the mechanical
Rotation of coil
anticlockwise energy into electrical energy.
Rectangular
Permanent coil Q. 3. Differentiate between electric motor and electrical
magnet M B C generator. Describe the working and construction of
electric generator with the help of diagram.
tn

Motion
rre

Field (UP 2018, 20)

Cu

Field
nt
rre

Ans. Difference between electric motor and electric

Cu

Motion
N
S generator :
Slip rings A R2 D S.No. Electric Motor Electric Generator
(rotate with
coil) 1. It converts electrical It converts mechanical
B2
R1 energy into mechanical energy into electrical
B1 Carbon energy. energy.
brushes (fixed) G
Shaft Galvanometer 2. A split ring type Slip-rings are used in it.
commutator is used in it.
Fig.: A.C. generator 3. It needs power supply. It gives power supply.
An AC generator consists of four main components:
Electric Generator: Working and construction of
(1) Armature coil: It is a freely rotating rectangular electric generator are given in question no. 2.
coil ABCD, formed by large number of turns of
insulated copper wire wound over a soft iron Q. 4. Describe the working of a direct current dynamo. Also
core. describe its construction and principle.
(2) Field magnet: The armature coil is placed (U.P. 2012, 13, 14, 16, 17, 18)
perpendicularly between the strong parmanent Or Explain with labelled diagram the principle and
cylindrical poles of a strong magnet to create a working of an electrical dynamo. What is the function
strong magnetic field.
of brushes in it? (U.P. 2019)
(3) Slip rings: The two ends of the armature coil are
connected to two slip rings (R1 and R 2 ). These Or What is a dynamo? Explain the construction and
rings rotate along with the armature coil and working of DC dynamo. What is the difference
axle. between DC and AC? (U.P. 2019)

* Difference between AC and DC is deleted 2021 Syllabus.

166

Or With the help of suitable diagram, explain the Ans. Electromagnetic induction : See Short Ans. type
principle and working of electrical dynamo. What is Question No. 10
the role of brushes in it? (U.P. 2020) Faraday’s Laws of Electromagnetic Induction
Or With the help of suitable diagram, explain the On the basis of his experiments Faraday predicated
principle and working of direct current dynamo. gave two laws related to electromagnetic induction
(U.P. 2020) which are known as Faraday’s laws of
Ans. DC dynamo: It is a device which converts the electromagnetic induction. These two laws are as
mechanical energy into electrical energy in the form follows:
of direct current. First law : ‘‘When there is a change in magnetic flux
Principle: Same as AC dynamo in question no. 2. related to a circuit then an electromotive force is
developed in the circuit which is called induced
Construction: Rotation of coil
anticlockwise E.M.F. This phenomenon is called electromagnetic
Rectangular
Permanent coil induction. This electromotive force produced in the
magnet M B C circuit only until flux is changing. If the circuit is
Motion
nt closed then current is produced in it, which is called
rre

Field induced current.

Cu

Field
t
n
rre

Second law: The value of induced electromotive

Cu

Motion
N S force produced in a circuit is equal to the negative rate
A R
1 D of change of magnetic flux with time.
R2
B1
+ Commutator Suppose that at any instante value of magnetic flux
– B2
Shaft
– passing through a circuit is f 1 and after time-interval
Carbon G
brush
+
Dt it becomes f 2 then induced e.m.f. in the circuit,
Galvanometer change in flux (f - f 1 ) Df
e=- =- 2 =- volt ...(i)
Fig. : D.C. generator time - interval Dt Dt
A DC dynamo consists of four main parts : If the value of Dt is infinitesimal , i. e., Dt ® 0 then
(1) Armature coil: Same as in AC dynamo in df
e=- ...(ii)
question no. 2. dt
(2) Field magnet: Same as in AC dynamo in Here, negative sign indicates the direction of induced
question no. 2. e.m.f. and which always opposes the change in flux. If
(3) Split rings: Same as in electric motor in there is a coil in the circuit which has N turns of the
question no. 1. wire then induced electromotive force in the whole
coil,
(4) Brushes: The outer surface of split rings
Df
remains in connect with two stationary carbon e = -N ...(iii)
brushes B1 and B 2 as in AC dynamo. Dt
Working: When the axle (shaft) is rotated by some Þ Eletrical generator : See Long Ans. Type Question
mechanical force, the rings and the coil also rotate No. Q. 2
inside the magnetic field. So, the induced current are Q. 7. A charge 32 . ´ 10 -19 coulomb moving with velocity
set up in the arms of the coil. 6
10 m/sec enters in a magnetic field of intensity 3
To get a direct current, a split-ring type commutator is weber/m 2 at an angle of 60º . Calculate the force
used. One brush is at all times in contact with the arm acting on the charge. Write the necessary law for
moving up while the other is in connect with the arm finding the direction of magnetic force acting on a
moving down. Thus a direct current in only one moving charge particle in a magnetic field.
direction (B1 to B 2 ) is produced.
(U.P. 2019)
Q. 5. Write down the laws of electromagnetic induction.
Explain the working of a dynamo based on this Ans. q = 32 . ´ 10 C, υ = 10 m s , B = 3 W m 2 ,
-19 6

principle by using appropriate diagram. (U.P. 2019) q = 60º , F = ?

Ans. For electromagnetic induction see short answer Type Q F = Bq υsin q
Que. 11. and Lone answer type Que. 2 and 3. = 3 ´ 3.2 ´ 10 -19 ´ 10 6 ´ sin 60º
Q. 6. What do you mean by electromagnetic induction? 3 3
Write down Faraday’s laws of an electromagnetic . ´ 10 -13 ´
= 96 (Q sin 60º = )
induction. Write the principle of an electric 2 2
generator. (U.P. 2019) = 8.31 ´ 10 -13 N
 167

Direction of force will be decided by Flemming's left Q F = BIl.sin q

hand rule. (i) When q = 90º and sin 90º = 1
Q. 8. A current of 1 ampere is flowing through a conductor F = 2 ´ 1 ´ 1 ´ 1 = 2N.
of length 1m. It is placed in 2 newton/ ampere-meter (ii) When q = 0 and sin 0º = 0
magnetic field. Calculate the force acting on the F = 2 ´ 1´ 1´ 0 = 0 N
conductor when :
3
(i) the conductor is perpendicular to the field. (iii) When q = 60º and sin 60º =
2
(ii) the conductor is parallel to the field.
(iii) the conductor is making an angle of 60º with the 3
F = 2 ´ 1´ 1´ = 3 or 1.73 N
direction of magnetic field. (U.P. 2019) 2
Ans. I = 1 A, l = 1 m, B = 2 N A. m

NCERT Intext Questions

Q. 1. Why does a compass needle get deflected when Apply the right-hand rule to find out the direction of
brought near a bar magnet? the magnetic field inside and outside the loop.
Ans. A compass needle gets deflected when brought near a Ans. Since the current passes through the loop in clockwise
bar magnet because magnetic force is exerted by the direction, therefore, the front face of the loop will be
bar magnet on the compass needle, which is itself a the south pole and the back face, i. e., the face touching
tiny pivoted magnet. the table will be north pole. According to right-hand
Q. 2. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. rule, the direction of magnetic field inside the loop
Ans. will be pointing downward. Outside the loop, the
direction of the magnetic field will be upward.

S N

Q. 3. List the properties of magnetic field lines.

Ans. (i) They travel from north pole to south pole outside Q. 6. The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw
the magnet and south pole to north pole inside the
magnet. a diagram to represent it.
(ii) They are closed and continuous curves. Ans. A uniform magnetic field in a
region is represented by
(iii) Two magnetic field lines never intersect each
other. If the lines intersect, then at the point of drawing parallel and
intersection there would be two directions (the equidistant straight lines, all
needle would point towards two directions) for pointing in the same direction.
the same magnetic field, which is not possible.
Q. 7. Choose the correct option. The magnetic field inside a
(iv) The number of field lines per unit area is the long straight solenoid carrying current
measure of the strength of magnetic field, which
is maximum at poles. The magnetic field is (i) is zero.
strong, where the field lines are close together (ii) decreases as we move towards its ends.
and weak where the lines are far apart. (iii) increases as we move towards its ends.
Q. 4. Why do two magnetic field lines of force never (iv) is the same at all points.
intersect each other? Ans. The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of
Ans. Two magnetic field lines of force never intersect each parallel straight lines. This indicates that the magnetic
other. If the lines intersect, then at the point of field is the same at all points inside the solenoid. Thus,
intersection there would be two directions (the needle answer (iv) is correct.
would point towards two directions) for the same Q. 8. Which of the following property of a proton can
magnetic field, which is not possible. change while it moves freely in a magnetic field?
Q. 5. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of (There may be more than one correct answer).
the table. Let the current pass through the clockwise. (i) Mass (ii) Speed
168

(iii) Velocity (iv) Momentum Q. 13. Which sources produce alternating current?
Ans. Whenever a charged particle (in this case a proton) Ans. Some of the sources that produce alternating current
moves in a magnetic field, its velocity and as a result are bicycle dynamos, car alternators and power house
of this its momentum change. Thus, (iii) and (iv) are generators.
the properties which change when a proton moves Q. 14. Choose the correct option.
freely in a magnetic field.
A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a
Q. 9. A positively charged particle (alpha-particle) magnetic field. The direction of the induced current
projected towards west is deflected towards north by a changes once in each:
magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is :
(a) two revolutions (b) one revolution
(i) towards south (ii) towards east
(c) half revolution (d) one-fourth revolution
(iii) downward (iv) upward
Ans. (c) Half revolution
Ans. Since the positively charged particle (alpha-particle)
Q. 15. Name two safety measures commonly used in electric
projected towards west, so the direction of current is
circuits and appliances.
towards west. Now the deflection is towards north, so
the force is towards north. Ans. (i) Electric fuse
Now hold the fore-finger, centre finger and thumb of (ii) Earthing of metal bodies of electrical appliances.
our left-hand at right angles to one another. Let us Q. 16. An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a
adjust the hand in such a way that our centre finger domestic electric circuit (220 V) that has a current
points towards west and thumb points towards north. rating of 5 A. What result do you expect? Explain.
If we look at our fore-finger, it will be pointing,
upward. Thus, the magnetic field is in upward Ans. Power, P = 2 kW = 2 ´ 1000 W = 2000 W
direction. So, the correct answer is (iv). Voltage, V = 220 V, Current drawn, i = ?
Q. 10. State Fleming’s left hand rule.
Power, P = V ´ i
Ans. Stretch the thumb, fore-finger and middle finger of
your left hand such that they are mutually P 2000
i= = = 9 A (approx)
perpendicular. If the fore-finger points in the direction V 220
of magnetic field and the middle finger in the
The current drawn by this electric oven is 9 A whereas
direction of current, then the thumb will point in the
the fuse in the circuit is only 5 A capacity. When a
direction of motion or the force acting on the
high current of 9 A flows through the 5 A fuse, the
conductor.
fuse wire will get heated too much, melt and break the
Q. 11. State different ways to induce current in a coil. circuit. Therefore, when a 2 kW power rating electric
Ans. The current in a coil can be induced by the following oven is operated in a circuit having 5 A fuse, the fuse
ways: will blow off cutting off the power supply in this
(i) by rotating the coil in the magnetic field between circuit.
the poles of U-shaped magnet. Q. 17. What precautions should be taken to avoid the
(ii) by keeping the coil stationary and moving a overloading of domestic electric circuits?
magnet inside it. Ans. (i) Too many electrical appliances should not be
(iii) by changing the current continuously in an operated on a single socket.
another coil kept near it.
(ii) Too many high power rating electrical
Q. 12. Name some sources of direct current. appliances should not be switched on at the same
Ans. Some of the sources of direct current are dry cell time.
battery, car battery, and dc generator.

Fully Solved NCERT Text Book Exercise

Q. 1. Which of the following correctly describes the (d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on
magnetic field near a long straight wire? the wire.
(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to Ans. (d).
the wire. Q. 2. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is :
(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the (a) the process of charging a body.
wire. (b) the process of generating magnetic field due to a
(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the current passing through a coil.
wire. (c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative
motion between a magnet and the coil.
 169

(d) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor. Q. 9. When is the force experienced by a current carrying
Ans. (c). conductor placed in a magnetic field largest?
Q. 3. The device used for producing electric current is Ans. When current carrying conductor is placed
called a : (U.P. 2020) perpendicular to the magnetic field.
(a) generator (b) galvanometer Q. 10. Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your
(c) ammeter (d) motor back to one wall. An electron beam, moving
Ans. (a). horizontally from back wall towards the front wall, is
deflected by a strong magnetic field to your right side.
Q. 4. The essential difference between an AC generator and
What is the direction of magnetic field?
a DC generator is that :
(a) AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC Ans. In this case, the direction of the current will be from
generator has permanent magnet front wall to back wall, because direction of current is
(b) DC generator will generate a higher voltage taken opposite to the flow of electrons. So, by
(c) AC generator will generate a higher voltage
applying left hand rule, the direction of magnetic field
is found to be in downward direction (towards floor).
(d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator
has a commutator Q. 11. Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain
Ans. (d). its principle and working. What is the function of a
split ring in an electric motor?
Q. 5. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit :
Ans. See the Long answer type Question-1
(U.P. 2019, 20)
Q. 12. Name some devices in which electric motors are used.
(a) reduces substantially (b) does not change
Ans. An electric motor is used in fans, mixer, water pumps
(c) increases heavily (d) vary continuously
etc.
Ans. (c).
Q. 13. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a
Q. 6. State whether the following statements are true or galvanometer. What will happen if a bar magnet is :
false.
(i) pushed into the coil,
(a) An electric motor converts mechanical energy into
(ii) withdrawn from inside the coil,
electrical energy.
(iii) held stationary inside the coil?
(b) An electric generator works on the principle of
electromagnetic induction. Ans. (i) The needle will get deflected to one side to
(c) The field at the centre of a long circular coil carrying produce current in the coil (by electromagnetic
current will be parallel straight lines. induction).
(d) A wire with a green insulation is usually the live (ii) The needle will again deflect but in opposite
wire of an electric supply. direction.
Ans. (a) false, (b) true, (c) true, (d) false. (iii) The needle will not deflect.
Q. 7. List two methods of producing magnetic fields. Q. 14. Two circular coils A and B are placed closed to each
Ans. (i) Artificial magnets other. If the current in the coil A is changed, will some
(ii) A current carrying conductor, coil or solenoid current be induced in the coil B ? Give reason.
Q. 8. How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you Ans. The change in the current in coil A, changes the
determine the north and south poles of a current magnetic field around it. The coil B is placed in this
carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? changing magnetic field, so a current will definitely
Explain. be induced in the coil B.
Ans. When an electric current is passed through a solenoid, Q. 15. State the rule to determine the direction of a :
a magnetic field is set up around it. If we draw the (i) magnetic field produced around a straight conductor
lines force by using a compass, we find that the pattern carrying current,
is similar to that of a bar magnet. One end of the (ii) force experienced by a current carrying straight
solenoid behaves as north pole and the other end of the conductor placed in a magnetic field which is
solenoid behaves as south pole. perpendicular to it, and
To determine the north and south poles of a current (iii) current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a
carrying solenoid, suspend it with a strong thread. magnetic field.
Now bring the north pole of a bar magnet towards one Ans. (i) Right hand thumb rule (or Maxwell’s cork screw
end of the solenoid. If the solenoid attracts towards rule).
the magnet, then that face of the solenoid is south (ii) Fleming’s left hand rule
pole. If the solenoid moves away from the bar magnet,
then that face of the solenoid is the north pole. (iii) Fleming’s right hand rule
170

Q. 16. Explain the underlying principle and working of an Q. 18. What is the function of an earth wire? Why is it
electric generator by drawing a labelled diagram. necessary to earth metallic appliances?
What is the function of brushes? Ans. A wire in the domestic circuits (often of green colour),
Ans. See Long answer type Question-2 which remains connected to a metal plate buried
Q. 17. When does an electric short circuit occur? deeply in the earth, is called an earth wire.
Electrical appliances which have a metallic body,
Ans. An electric short circuit occurs due to overloading.
must be connected with the earth wire. In case of any
The overloading can occur when the live wire and the
leakage of current, the earth wire provides, a
neutral wire come in to direct contact. (This happens low-resistance conducting path for the current.
when the insulation of wires is damaged or there is a Thus, it ensures that any leakage of current to the
fault in any appliance). metallic body of the appliance keeps its potential to
Overloading can also occur due to an accidental hike that of the earth, and the user may not get a severe
in the supply of voltage. Sometimes overloading is electric shock.
caused by connecting too many appliances to a single
socket.

ccc
 171

Chapter Unit-5: Natural Resources

14 Sources of Energy

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Solar panel cannot be used to get electricity on : Q. 11. In a hydropower plant :
(a) a sunny day (b) a cloudy day (a) Potential energy possessed by stored water is
(c) a hot day (d) a windy day converted into electricity
Q. 2. Which of the following country is called the country (b) Kinetic energy possessed by stored water is
of winds? converted into potential energy
(a) Poland (b) Denmark (c) Electricity is extracted from water
(c) India (d) Ireland (d) Water is converted into steam to produce
Q. 3. Mars orbiter runs on which type of energy : electricity
(a) solar energy (b) nuclear energy Q. 12. Ocean thermal energy is due to :
(c) coal energy (d) wind power (a) Energy stored by waves in the ocean
Q. 4. Which power plant works on the basis of gravity of (b) Temperature difference at different levels in the
earth? ocean
(a) Geothermal (b) Wind farms (c) Pressure difference at different levels in the ocean
(c) Hydropower (d) Nuclear power (d) Tides arising out in the ocean
Q. 5. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel? Q. 13. Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for
(a) Wood (b) Coal greenhouse effect?
(c) Petroleum (d) Natural gas (a) Coating with black colour inside the box
Q. 6. Which of the following is a renewable source of (b) Mirror
energy? (c) Glass sheet
(a) Uranium (b) Petroleum (d) Outer cover of the solar cooker
(c) Coal (d) Biomass Q. 14. The power generated in a windmill :
Q. 7. Which of the following element is used in making (a) Is more in rainy season since damp air would mean
solar cells? more air mass hitting the blades
(a) Gold (b) Carbon (c) Silicon (d) Silver (b) Depends on the height of the tower
Q. 8. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of
(c) Depends on wind velocity
energy?
(a) Wood (b) Sun (d) Can be increased by planting tall tree close to the
tower
(c) Fossil fuels (d) Wind
Q. 15. In a hydroelectric power plant more electrical power
Q. 9. Acid rain happens because : can be generated if water falls from a greater height
(a) Sun leads to heating of upper layer of atmosphere because :
(b) Burning of fossil fuels release oxides of carbon, (a) Its temperature increases
nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere (b) Larger amount of potential energy is converted
(c) Electrical charges are produced due to friction into kinetic energy
amongst cloud (c) The electricity content of water increases with
height
(d) Earth atmosphere contains acids
(d) More water molecules dissociate into ions
Q. 10. Fuel used in thermal power plants is : Q. 16. Source of fossil energy is: (U.P. 2019, 20)
(a) Water (b) Uranium (a) Wind energy (b) Solar energy
(c) Biomass (d) Fossil fuels (c) Coal (d) Hydroelectric
172

Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. What is a good fuel? Q. 12. Why solar cookers are covered with glass plate? And
Ans. A fuel which is economical, easily available and painted black from inside?
pollution free can be considered as a good fuel. Ans. Solar cookers are covered with glass plate to attain the
Q. 2. What are renewable resources? high temperature. This glass plate does not allow the
Ans. Resources which can be regained once they have been heat to come out and temperature inside the box is
used up are known as renewable resources, e.g., – increased. And painted black from inside because
water, wind, sun. black surface absorbs more heat than white.
Q. 3. What are non-renewable resources? Q. 13. Explain why obtaining of energy from nuclear fusion
Ans. Those natural resources which cannot be regained or reactions is preferable to obtaining of energy from
regenerated are called non-renewable resources, e.g., nuclear fission reactions? Give two reasons.
– coal and petroleum. Ans. Obtaining of energy from nuclear fusion reactions is
Q. 4. What is solar panel? preferable to obtaining of energy from nuclear fission
Ans. It is an arrangement of solar cells to trap a greater reactions. The two reasons are given below :
amount of solar energy. (i) Energy released from nuclear fusion is enough
Q. 5. What are thermal power plants? larger than the energy released from nuclear
Ans. These are steam based plants in which steam is used fission for a given substance amount.
to generate electricity. (ii) Nuclear waste is obtained in nuclear fission which
Q. 6. What is nuclear fission? is highly radioactive. Whereas there is no such
Ans. The splitting of a heavier nucleus into lighter nuclei types of difficulty found in nuclear fusion.
with the release of energy is called fission. Q. 14. Write short note on biomass: (U.P. 2019)
Q. 7. Which department executes the solar energy Ans. The waste material of the animals and dead parts of
programme in India? plants and tree are called biomass. Biomass is an
Ans. Solar energy programme is executed by ‘Ministry of organic matter which contain chemical energy in the
non-conventional energy sources’. form of carbon compound.
Q. 8. How much solar energy is received by India? Q. 15. Mention the names of different sources of energy and
Ans. India receives the solar energy equivalent to more describe in brief the importance of nuclear energy:
than 5,000 trillion kWh in a year. (U.P. 2019)
Q. 9. What is the composition of natural gas? Ans. Two energy sources are non-renewable and
Ans. Natural gas is a mixture of lightweight alkenes. renewable sources. Non-renewable sources connot be
Q.10. How much electricity does a typical solar cell regenerated once they are used up, e. g., Coal,
produce? petroleum, natural gas etc. Renewable sources can be
Ans. A typical solar cell produces 0.5 to 1.0 V electricity. regenerated if used up, e. g., Solar energy, wind
Q. 11. What is the main cause of tidal energy? energy, water energy, wave energy etc.
Ans. The differences in the high and low tides is the main Importance of nuclear energy- Please see NCERT
cause of tidal energy. Intext Qus. 10

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. What are the features of a good fuel? (v) It should be environment friendly, i.e., should
Ans. A good fuel should have following features : not cause pollution.
(i) It should perform a large amount of work per unit Q. 2. What are solar cells? What are their advantages?
volume or mass. Ans. Solar cell : These are the devices used to convert solar
(ii) It should be easily accessible. energy into electric energy. A typical solar cell
develops a voltage of 0.5–1.0 V and produces about
(iii) It should be easy to store and transport. 0.7 W of electricity when exposed to the sun. A large
(iv) It should be perhaps most importantly, be number of solar cells are combined together on a solar
economical. cell panel can give sufficient electricity for practical
use.
 173

Advantages of solar cells : 3. A back-up system should be associated to supply

1. The main advantage of solar cells is that they have electricity in the periods, when there is no wind.
no moving parts. So they are almost maintenance 4. Establishment of wind energy farms requires large
free. They can work even without any use of area of land. For a 1 MW plant, about 2 hectares of
focusing devices. land is needed.
2. The solar panels can be set up in remote and 5. The initial cost of establishment of the farm is very
inaccessible areas where setting up of power high and farm accessories like blades, tower etc.,
transmission line may be expensive or not requires regular maintenance.
possible. Q. 7. Firewood is a conventional fuel. List any four reasons
3. Silicon, which is used for making solar cells, for replacing it with alternate sources of energy.
easily available.
Ans. (i) Wood has low calorific value as compared to
Q. 3. What are limitations of using nuclear energy for the other sources of fuel.
production of electricity?
(ii) It causes air pollution on burning.
Ans. Limitations of nuclear energy for the production of
electricity are : (iii) Cutting down of trees causes depletion of forest
1. The high cost of installation of a nuclear power leadings to imbalance in nature.
plant. (iv) Only 8-10% energy of burning firewood is
2. High risk of environmental conditions. utilized and the remaining is wasted.
3. Limited availability of uranium/thorium. Q. 8. Explain how the energy of flowing water is related to
Q.4. What are hot spots? How are they helpful in solar energy.
producing geothermal electricity? (U.P. 2019) Ans. When solar energy falls on the water surface then
Ans. The deeper regions of earth's crust are very hot and the evaporation of water from water surfaces like oceans,
matter in this region is in a molten state. Due to rivers and other water bodies takes place to form
geological changes, the molten matter is pushed clouds. The clouds are then taken to distant places by
upward and trapped in certain region called 'Hot air currents, and ultimately water comes back to the
spots'. When underground water comes in contact surface in the form of rain and snow. During
with such hot spot, steam is generated. This steam can evaporation, a part of solar energy gets converted into
be forced to run a turbine to produce electricity. Such potential energy of water molecules. The potential
electricity is called geothermal electricity. Sometimes, energy of water molecules gets converted into kinetic
hot water from these regions finds outlets at the energy during rain and snowfall. Thus energy of water
surface and comes out in the form of hot springs.
flowing in a river is considered to be an indirect form
Q. 5. Describe the constitution and functioning of a nuclear of solar energy.
bomb.
Q. 9. What is the importance of hydropower plants in
Ans. A nuclear bomb can be based on either fission or India? Describe how electric energy is generated in
fusion reaction or a combination of both. In a typical
such plants.
nuclear bomb a fission based bomb (using uranium or
plutonium) is placed at the core of the fusion based Ans. Importance : Hydropower plants are of prime
hydrogen bomb. This entire bomb is embedded in a importance as about 25% of our energy requirement in
substance which contains deuterium and lithium. India is met by hydropower plants.
When the inner nuclear bomb (based on fission) Electric energy generation in Hydropower plants :
explodes, the temperature of the substance is raised to (i) A high rise dam is constructed at a suitable place
107 K in a few microseconds. The high temperature on the river to obstruct the flow of water and
generates sufficient energy for the light nuclei thereby, collect water in larger reservoirs. Due to
(hydrogen nuclei) to fuse. This generates a rise in water level the kinetic energy of flowing
devastating amount of energy. water is transformed into potential energy of
Q. 6. What are the limitations of using wind energy for the stored water.
production of electricity?
(ii) The water from the high level in the dam is carried
Ans. Limitations of wind energy for the production of through sluice gates and pipes to the turbine of
electricity are : electric generator, which is fitted at the bottom of
1. Wind energy farms can be established at such places the dam. Due to flowing water turbine is rotated at
where wind blows for the greater part of a year. a fast rate and hydel electricity is produced.
2. The wind speed should also be higher than (iii) A hydro power plant converts the potential energy
15 km/h to maintain the required speed of the of falling/stored water into electricity.
turbine. Q. 10. Write short note on conventional sources of energy.
174

Ans. Those energy resources which have accumulated in Q. 11. What are fossils. How old are fossils? How do eva-
nature over a very-very long time and cannot be lutate its?
quickly replaced when exhausted are called Ans. Fossil fuels are hydrocarbons, which are formed
non-renewable energy resources. from the remains of dead plants and animals. Fossils
Non-renewable energy resouces include various fossil are over hundreds of millions of years. Fossils age
fuels and nuclear energy from radioactive elements can be determinate by the ratio of isotopes of
(like Uranium).
non-radioactive elements and radioactive elements,
Non-renewable energy resources are called
present in rocks.
conventional energy resources.

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. What is nuclear energy? Name the power reactors in (ii) Glass cover (G) : A cover made of two sheets of
India. What is main problem associated with nuclear toughened glass held together in an aluminium
energy? frame is used as a cover of the box B.
Ans. The energy generated during a nuclear fission is called Reflector
(Plane mirror)
nuclear energy. When the nucleus of a heavy atom

ht
(such as uranium, plutonium or thorium), bombarded

lig
n
with low-energy neutrons, it splits into lighter nuclei

Su
with the release of a large amount of energy.
Glass sheet cover
For example, the fission of an atom of uranium, (or lid)
produces 10 million times the energy produced by the
combustion of an atom of carbon from coal. Inner metal box Outer
Nuclear reactions are usually chain reactions. So, (painted black) wooden
nuclear power reactors are designed in such a way that box
Thermocol
these reactions can be controlled effectively and the (insulator)
energy so released can be used to generate electricity.
A Schematic diagram of Solar cooker
In India, many nuclear power reactors are working for
electricity production. Their total output is about only (iii) Plane mirror reflector (R) : A plane mirror
3% of the total electricity generation capacity of the
reflector fixed in a frame is fixed to the box B with
country. Nuclear power reactors in India are located at
the help of hinges. The mirror reflector can be
Tarapur (Maharashtra), Rana Pratap Sagar
(Rajasthan), Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), Narora (UP), positioned at any desired angle to the box. The
Kakrapar (Gujarat) and Kaiga (Karnataka). mirror is positioned so as to allow the reflected
sunlight fall on the glass cover of the box.
Nuclear power reactors have a big problem of storage
of nuclear material and disposal of nuclear waste. (iv) Cooking containers (C) : A set of containers
Improper nuclear-waste storage and disposal can made of aluminium and blackened from outside
result in severe nuclear contamination. Moreover, a are kept in the box B. These containers are also
risk of accidental leakage of nuclear radiation is also painted black because black surface absorbs more
associated with nuclear power generation. heat.
Q. 2. Give the construction and working of a solar cooker. Working : The food is cooked in a shallow vessel of
Ans. A device that utilizes solar energy for cooking the container. The box has a transparent covering of
purposes is called a solar cooker. The most commonly glass sheet over it. The solar cooker is placed in
used form of solar cooker is knows as box-type solar sunlight and reflector (plane mirror) is adjusted in
cooker. A box-type solar cooker is shown in the such a way that a strong beam of sunlight enters the
figure. box through the glass sheet. The blackened metal
Construction of a box-type solar cooker : A surfaces in the wooden box absorb infra-red
box-type solar cooker consists of the following radiations from the beam of sunlight and heat
components : produced raises the temperature of blackened metal
surface to about 100°C. The food absorbs heat from
(i) Box (B) : This is an insulated metal or a wooden the black surface and gets cooked. The thick glass
box. It is painted black from inside because black sheet does not allow the heat produced to escape and
surface absorbs more heat. The box may be thus, helps in raising the temperature in the box to a
provided with four roll-wheels. There is a sufficiently high degree to cook the food. The
thermocol layer between the wooden box and the thermocol layer also does not allow the heat to escape
inner metal box. and thus the temperature inside is maintained.
 175

Q. 3. What is solar energy? For what purposes we can use it? as it is or can be stored in the battery. This stored
Ans. Solar energy is the most important energy resource. It electrical energy then can be used at night. SPV can be
can be used directly or indirectly for human welfare. used for a number of applications such as:
Solar energy is the most readily available source of (a) domestic lighting
energy. It does not belong to anybody and is, (b) street lighting
therefore, free. It is also the most important of the (c) village electrification
non-conventional sources of energy because it is (d) water pumping
non-polluting and, therefore, helps in reducing the
(e) artificial satellites and space probes (like Mars
green-house effect. India receives a good level of
orbiters) use solar energy
solar radiation, about 5000 trillion kWh (with daily
(f) powering of remote telecommunication repeater
average about 4-7 kWh/m 2 ). stations and
Solar energy can be used to meet our electricity (g) railway signals.
requirements. Through Solar Photovoltaic (SPV)
cells, solar radiation gets converted into DC
electricity directly. This electricity can either be used

NCERT Intext Questions

Q. 1. What is a good source of energy? (i) the fossil fuel reserves in the Earth are limited
Ans. A good source of energy is : which may get exhausted soon, if continued to be
(i) One which would do a large amount of work per used at the current rate.
unit volume or mass. (ii) the use of alternate sources of energy will reduce
(ii) Which is easily accessible? the pressure on fossil fuels making them last for a
(iii) Which is easy to store and transport. much longer time.
(iv) Perhaps most important, economical. (iii) the pollution being caused by the burning of fossil
fuels can be avoided by using alternate sources of
Q. 2. What is good fuel?
energy.
Ans. A good fuel is one which :
Q. 6. How has the traditional use of wind and water energy
(i) Produces more heat per unit mass. It has high
been modified for our convenience?
calorific value.
Ans. The traditional use of wind has been modified by
(ii) Produces less harmful gases on combustion. using windmills and that of water by constructing
(iii) Is cheap and easily available. hydroelectric power plants.
(iv) Is easy to handle, safe to transport and convenient Q. 7. What kind of mirror—concave, convex or plain would
to store. be best suited for use in a solar cooker? Why?
Q. 3. If you could use any source of energy for heating your Ans. A concave mirror would be best suited for use in a
food and why? solar cooker. When a concave mirror reflector is
Ans. We would use a microwave oven for heating the food attached to a solar cooker, it converges a large amount
as it heats uniformly and clearly without any loss in its of Sun’s heat radiations at its focus due to which a
nutritional value. high temperature is produced around the focus area.
Q. 4. What are the disadvantages of fossil fuels? Q. 8. What are the limitations of the energy that can be
Ans. (i) The fossil fuels are non-renewable sources of obtained from the oceans?
energy. If we were to continue consuming these Ans. The limitations of the energy that can be obtained
sources at such an alarming rate, we would soon from the oceans (tidal energy, wave energy and ocean
run out of energy. thermal energy).
(ii) Air pollution is caused by burning fossil fuels. (i) Tidal energy is not likely to be a potential source
(iii) The oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur that of energy in the future because there are very few
are released on burning fossil fuels are acidic sites around the world which are suitable for
oxides. These lead to acid rain which affects our building tidal dams.
water and soil resources. (ii) Wave energy would be a viable proposition only
(iv) Carbon dioxide produced by burning these fuels where waves are very strong.
produced greenhouse effect. (iii) The energy potential from the sea (tidal energy,
Q. 5. Why are we looking at alternate sources of energy? wave energy and ocean thermal energy) is quite
Ans. We are looking at alternate sources of energy large, but efficient commercial exploitation is
because : difficult.
176

Q. 9. What is geothermal energy? be pollution-free, but the assembly of the device

Ans. Heat energy from hot molten rocks present inside the would have caused some environmental damage.
Earth under certain favourable conditions created by Q. 12. Hydrogen has been used as a rocket fuel. Would you
natural process is known as geothermal energy. This consider it a cleaner fuel than CNG or why not?
form of energy is the only type of energy which do not Ans. Hydrogen is a cleaner fuel than CNG because the
use solar energy. burning of hydrogen produces only water which is
Q. 10. What are the advantages of nuclear energy? completely harmless. The burning of CNG produces
Ans. (i) It produces huge amount of energy from very carbon dioxide and water. This CO 2 can produce
small amount of a unclear fuel. greenhouse effect in the atmosphere and lead to the
excessive heating of the environment in the long-run.
(ii) It does not produce gases like carbon dioxide
which contribute to greenhouse effect or sulphur Q. 13. Name two energy sources that you would consider to
dioxide which causes acid rain. be renewable. Give reasons for your choices.
Ans. (i) Wind energy (ii) Solar energy
(iii) Once the nuclear fuel is loaded into the reactor,
the nuclear power plant can go on producing Q. 14. Give the names of two energy sources that you would
electricity for two to three years at a stretch. consider to be exhaustible. Give reasons for your
choices.
Hence, there is no need for putting in the nuclear
fuel again and again. Ans. (i) Fossil fuels
Q. 11. Can any source of energy be pollution-free? Why or (ii) Nuclear fuels
why not? Fossil fuels are present in a limited amount in the
Ans. No, any source of energy cannot be pollution-free. Earth. Once exhausted, they will not be available to us
Exploiting any source of energy disturbs the again. It takes millions of years for fossil fuel to be
environment in some way or the other. Only the formed.
degree and manner of pollution varies. In some cases, The nuclear materials which can be conveniently
the actual operation of a device like the solar cell may extracted from the Earth are limited and hence, they
will get exhausted one day.

NCERT Exercise
Q. 1. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water (iii) Fossil fuels can provide energy at any required
on : (U.P. 2020) time whereas solar energy becomes unavailable
(a) a sunny day (b) a cloudy day when the sky is covered with clouds.
(c) a hot day (d) a windy day Q. 5. Compare and contrast biomass and hydroelectricity as
Ans. (b) A cloudy day sources of energy.
Q. 2. Which of the following is not an example of a Ans. (i) Biomass is a renewable source of energy only if
bio-mass energy source? (U.P. 2019, 20) we plant trees in a planned manner which is not
(a) Wood (b) Gobar-gas the case with hydroelectricity.
(c) Nuclear energy (d) Coal (ii) The energy from biomass can be obtained by using a
Ans. (c) Nuclear energy chulha or a gobar gas plant whereas hydroelectricity
requires construction of dams on rivers.
Q. 3. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored
(iii) Biomass provides pollution-free energy only
solar energy. Which of the following is not ultimately
derived from the Sun’s energy? when converted into bio-gas whereas
hydroelectricity is totally pollution-free.
(a) Geothermal energy (b) Wind energy
Q. 6. What are the limitations of extracting energy from :
(c) Fossil fuel (d) Bio-mass
(i) the wind (ii) waves (iii) tides
Ans. (a) Geothermal energy
Ans. (i) (a) It is not available at all times.
Q. 4. Compare and contrast fossil fuels and the Sun as direct
sources of energy. (b) It requires a very large area of land.
(c) It is not possible to have a windmill
Ans. (i) The reserves of fossil fuels are limited, i.e., everywhere as to run it, the minimum wind
exhaustible whereas solar energy is available in speed of 15 km/hr is required (only possible in
abundance (and that too without cost), i.e., open areas like the seaside).
inexhaustible. (ii)(a) Wave energy would be a viable proposition
(ii) Fossil fuels cause pollution on burning whereas only where waves are very strong.
solar energy is pollution-free. (b) It is costly to set up devices to trap wave
energy.
 177

(iii)(a) Very few sea coasts in the world have suitable (iii) It is easy to handle solar cooker and there is no
sites for the purpose of harnessing tidal chance of any kind of accident.
energy. (iv) The nutrients in the food do not get destroyed.
(b) The rise and fall of tides happen only twice in Disadvantages of using a solar cooker :
a day and is not sufficient to generate
electricity continuously. (i) Solar cooker cannot be used at night and during
cloudy weather.
Q. 7. On what basis would you classify energy sources?
(U.P. 2019) (ii) It takes more time to cook food.
(i) Renewable and non-renewable (iii) The direction of solar cooker is to be changed
continuously towards the direction of the Sun.
(ii) Exhaustible and inexhaustible
(iv) Solar energy is not available uniformly all the time
Are the options given in (i) and (ii) the same?
and at all the places.
Ans. We would classify energy sources as (i) renewable
and non-renewable. (v) It cannot be used for making chapattis and for
frying purposes.
Renewable sources of energy are inexhaustible;
whereas non-renewable sources of energy are Q. 10. What are the environmental consequences of the
exhaustible. Thus, the options in (i) and (ii) are the increasing demand for energy? What steps would you
same. suggest to reduce energy consumption?
Q. 8. What are the qualities of an ideal source of energy? Ans. (i) Burning of fossil fuels to meet the increasing
demand for energy causes air pollution.
Ans. An ideal source of energy has the following qualities:
(ii) Construction of dams on rivers to generate
(i) It gives us more heat per unit mass.
hydroelectricity destroys large ecosystems which
(ii) It does not pollute the air on burning by giving out get submerged under water in the dams. Further,
smoke or harmful gases. large amounts of methane (which is a greenhouse
(iii) It should be cheap and easily available. gas) is produced when submerged vegetation rots
(iv) It should be easy to handle and safe to transport. under anaerobic conditions.
Q. 9. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a In order to reduce energy consumption :
solar cooker? Are there places where solar cookers (i) Fossil fuels should be used with care and caution
would have limited utility? to derive maximum benefit out of them.
Ans. Solar cookers have limited utility at places which (ii) Fuel saving devices such as pressure cookers, etc.,
remain cloudy or have longer winters; e.g., hilly areas. should be used.
Advantages of using a solar cooker : (iii) Efficiency of energy sources should be
maintained by getting them regularly serviced.
(i) It cooks food without causing any kind of
pollution. (iv) And last of all, we should be economical in our
energy consumption as energy saved is energy
(ii) It is economical to use solar cooker because
produced.
nothing is to be paid for using solar energy.
ccc
 178

Chapter

15 Our Environment

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Flow of energy occurs always : Q. 11. In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for
(a) From primary consumers to producers transfer from one trophic level to the next is in the form
(b) Tertiary consumers to producers of :
(c) Producers to consumers (a) Heat energy (b) Light energy
(d) Decomposers to consumers (c) Chemical energy (d) Mechanical energy
Q. 2. Interconnecting food chains establish a : Q. 12. One of the following is not a consumer. This one is :
(a) Food link (b) Food web (a) giraffe (b) antelope (c) algae (d) alligator
(c) Community (d) Ecosystem Q. 13. Which of the following act as decomposers ?
Q. 3. Which one is not a biodegradable waste? (a) Lactobacillus bacteria (b) Cyanobacteria
(a) Polybags (b) Sewage (c) Putrefying bacteria (d) Rhizobium bacteria
(c) Paper napkins (d) Animal excreta Q. 14. One of the following is a micro-consumer. This one is :
Q. 4. Chlorofluoro carbons cause damage to : (a) ant (b) lice (c) fungi (d) mosquito
(a) Green plants (b) Ozone layer Q. 15. In the food chain comprising of a snake, grass, insect
and frog, the secondary consumer is :
(c) Pond ecosystem (d) Polar ice
(a) insect (b) snake (c) frog (d) grass
Q. 5. Which of the following material can be biomagnified :
Q. 16. What provides the energy which then flows through a
(a) Sewage waste (b) Pesticide residues food chain?
(c) Plastic bags (d) Aluminium canes (a) Glucose (b) Oxygen
Q. 6. In making a food chain in an ecosystem, which trophic (c) Respiration (d) Sunlight
level is kept at first place?
Q.17. Which of the following cannot be added in a
(a) Herbivores (b) Carnivores composting pit to prepare compost?
(c) Decomposers (d) Producers (a) sunflower plants (b) fruit and vegetable peels
Q. 7. In a food chain, the third trophic level is always (c) flowers of plastic (d) red worms
occupied by :
Q.18. Which of the following constitute a food chain?
(a) Carnivores (b) Herbivores
(U.P. 2020)
(c) Decomposers (d) Producers
(a) Grass, wheat and mango
Q. 8. In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy
at forth trophic level is 5 kJ. What will be the energy (b) Grass, cow and elephant
available at the producer level? (c) Grass, goat and human
(a) 5 kJ (b) 50 kJ (c) 500 kJ (d) 5000 kJ (d) Grass, fish and goat.
Q. 9. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the Q.19. Which of the following is/are called environment
food chain in increasing amount at each higher trophic friendly practice (s)? (U.P. 2019)
level is known as : (a) Carrying cloth-bags while going to the market for
(a) Eutrophication (b) Pollution keeping purchases.
(c) Biomagnification (d) Accumulation (b) Switching off light and fans to avoid unnecessary
Q.10. Organisms which synthesis carbohydrates from consumption of energy.
inorganic compounds using radiant energy are called : (c) Walking to school on foot instead of going by
(a) Decomposers (b) Producers vehicle
(c) Herbivores (d) Carnivores (d) All of the above
 179

Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10 (b)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. Why are green plants called ‘producers’? Q. 9. What are the advantages of cloth bags over plastic
Ans. Green plants are called producers because they bags during shopping?
prepare food for the ecosystem. Ans. Cloth bags have more strength and they can be used
Q. 2. What are consumers? again and again for longer time period. Furthermore
Ans. These are the organisms which do not prepare food these are biodegradable and hence environmental
but consume the food prepared by the producers. friendly.
Q. 3. What are decomposers? Q. 10. What is the percentage of solar energy trapped and
utilized?
Ans. These are micro-organisms like bacteria and fungi
Ans. 1% in terrestrial habitat and 0.2% in aquatic
which help in biodegradation of complex material. It
ecosystem is the percentage solar energy trapped and
is recycling of material.
utilized.
Q. 4. What do you mean by habitat?
Q. 11. State any two practices which can help in the
Ans. The place where an organism lives is called its protection of our environment.
habitat. Habitat of an organism is the best place for it,
Ans. Two practices which can help in the protection of our
where it finds maximum food and shelter.
environment are :
Q. 5. What is energy flow?
(i) Disposal of the waste after its separation as
Ans. The transfer of energy from producers to consumers biodegradable and non-biodegradable material.
through food chain is called energy flow. It flow
(ii) Judicious use of unleaded petrol and alternate
always unidirectional.
sources of energy.
Q. 6. What are trophic levels? Q. 12. What are the by-products of fertilizer industries? How
Ans. These are nutrition levels according to their food do they affect the environment?
habits. Ans. The harmful by-products are gases such as SO 2 and
Q. 7. What will happen if deer is missing in the food chain
given below? Nitrous oxide (NO). They cause extensive air
pollution and are responsible for acid rain.
Grass — Deer — Lion Q. 13. What will happen if all the organisms in one trophic
Ans. An imbalance will be created because : level are destroyed. (U.P. 2019)
The population of lion will decrease and the
population of grass will increase. Ans. Please See NCERT Exercise Ques. 4.
Q. 8. What will happen if lion is missing in the food chain Q. 14. What is mean by a 10% law? (U.P. 2019)
given below? Ans. According to (Lindeman, 1942) only 10% of the
Grass — Deer — Lion energy entering a particular trophic level is available
Ans. Ecosystem imbalance will be created, because the for transfer to the next higher trophic level.
number of deers will increase hence less amount of
grass leading to soil erosion.

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. The number of malarial patients in a village increased Q. 2. Give three characteristics of food chain?
tremendously when large number of frogs were Ans. (i) A food chain always straight and proceeds in
exported from the village. What could be the cause for progressive straight line.
this? (ii) A food chain helps in understanding the food
Ans. The food chain in the given situation will be : relationship and interactions among various
Phytoplankton ® Zooplankton ® Mosquito larva ® Frogs organisms in an ecosystem.
In the absence of frogs (as they were exported), more (iii) It also helps to understand the movement of toxic
mosquito larvae survived giving rise to large number substances in an ecosystem and the problem of
of mosquitoes. The large number of mosquitoes their biological magnification.
caused increased of malaria.
180

Q. 3. ‘‘Energy flow in food chains is always unidi- Ans. The environment is the sum total of all biotic and
rectional’’. Justify this statement. Explain how the abiotic factors that surround and potentially influence
pesticides enter in a food chain and subsequently get an organism environment includes a part of the
into our body. lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere.
Ans. In a food chain the energy progressively through the
various trophic levels and is no longer available to the The main components of environment are abiotic
organisms of the previous trophic level. The energy factor, such as light, temperature, soil, water gases
captured by the autotrophs does not revert back to the etc. and biotic factors are plants, animals and
solar input. Thus, energy flow in food chains are said microorganisms.
to be unidirectional. Q. 8. Distinguish between autotrophs and heterotrophs.
Pesticides used for crop protection when washed How do they helps in the energy flow of an
away go down into the soil. These pesticides are ecosystem?
absorbed by plant which are the producers. One Ans. Organisms which are able to prepare their food from
consumption of these plants, the pesticides enter our inorganic raw material by their own efforts, by using
food chain and beings non-biodegradable, these sunlight are called autotrophs. e. g . green plants.On
chemicals get accumulated progressively and enter the other hand, the organism, which cannot prepare
our body.
their food by their own efforts are called heterotrophs.
Q. 4. Why does a food chain consist of only three to four
Example : animals, fungi.
steps?
Ans. On an average, only 10% of the food available to a Autotrophs are the producers, so they fix solar energy
trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level. into chemical energy from the food. The survival of
Since, the amount of available energy keeps on other organisms depends directly or indirectly on
becoming less as we move to higher trophic levels, so these autotrophs. Heterotrophs consume the food
very little usable energy remains after four trophic prepared by the autotrophs. In this way, both
levels. That is why a food chain consists of only three autotrophs and heterotrophs maintain the energy flow
to four steps. in an ecosystem.
Q. 5. What are decomposers? Q.9. What do you mean biodegradable and non-
Ans. Decomposers break down the complex organic biodegradable. What effect of their on environment.
substances of garbage, dead animals and plants into Ans. These waste materials can be degraded (simplified)
simpler inorganic substances that go into the soil and into simpler compounds by the action of some
are used up again by the plants in the absence of
bacteria or fungi. They do not cause environmental
decomposers recycling of material in the biosphere
will not take place. pollution. While these waste material can not be
Q. 6. What is biodiversity? What will happen if biodiversity degraded into simpler compounds.These materials
of an area is not preserved? Mention one effect of it. remain as un-degraded waste and get accumulated.
Ans. The variety of life forms found in a particular region These cause severe environmental pollution.
forms its biodiversity. If biodiversity of an area is not Please - See NCERT intext Qus. 2 and 3.
preserved, it will result in : Q.10. Write short notes on garbage treatment. (U.P. 2019)
(i) natural calamities such as floods, forest fires and Ans. Our population and accordingly our needs are
hurricans. increasing day by day. As a result, every day we
(ii) soil erosion and desertification because of produce a large amount of waste and garbage. The
deforestation. proper disposal and management of this garbage is of
(iii) large-scale habitat losses and extinction of utmost importance of maintain our environment
vulnerable animal and plant species. clean. Emphasis should be given to use the products
(iv) sudden climatic changes and instability in the which are biodegradable in the environment. Use of
functioning of the ecosystem. non-biodegradable materials like disposable plastic
The effect of biodiversity loss would be disturbance of cups and polythene bags must be avoided and
ecosystem balance. discouraged.
Q. 7. What is environment? What are its components?

Long Answer Type Questions 7 Marks

Q. 1. Write short note on: 1. Flow of energy green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture
2. Food chain (U.P. 2019) 3. Food wed about 1% of the sunlight that falls on the leaves
Ans. 1. Flow of Energy : Sun is the ultimate source of and convert it to energy.
energy in an ecosystem. This energy enters the From producers, this energy is transferred to the
ecosystem through producers or green plants. The primary consumers (or herbivores), which
 181

directly feed on the plants. From herbivores, the . trophic level, maintains a link or chain among
energy is transferred to the next trophic level of biotic components at different trophic levels. In
secondary consumers (primary carnivores). other words, all biotic components from
The energy from secondary consumers is producers to consumers are linked together for
finally transferred to tertiary consumers (top their nutritive needs. This chain of organisms (at
carnivores). different trophic levels), in which organisms are
This movement of energy though successive linked together for their food requirement, is
trophic levels in an ecosystem is called energy called food chain. Food chain can better be
flow. Energy flow is always unidirectional (from expressed as ‘a sequence of eaters, being eaten’.
producers to consumers). A food chain in an ecosystem shows the flow of
When energy is transferred from one trophic level energy and matter. It is always unidirectional i.e.,
to the next, a great amount of energy gets lost to always energy flows from producers to tertiary
the environment (as heat) or in performing body consumers. It can be shown as below :
functions such as digestion, growth, respiration, Producers ® Herbivores ® Primary carnivores ® Top carnivores
reproduction etc. Thus, a small amount of energy
is transferred from one trophic level to the next. Due to small
According to an estimate, only an average of amount of
10% of the energy is transferred from one energy transfer
trophic level to the next i.e., about 10% of the to the next Tertiary
trophic level, the consumers
food eaten is turned into the biomass and is
available for the next level of consumers size of food Secondary
chains are consumers
2. Food Chain : Energy flow through different
limited upto 3 or Primary
4 steps only. The consumers
loss of energy at
each step is so Producers
(Green plants)
great that very
little usable Fig. : Trophic levels
energy remains
after 3 or 4 steps.
Due to energy limitations, in most of the cases,
the number of individuals at a higher trophic level
is lesser than the number of individuals at lower
trophic level i.e., greatest number is that of the
producer. Similarly, the biomass of producers is
the highest in an ecosystem.
3. Food Web : In any ecosystem, a separate food

Tertiary
consumer

Secondary
Consumer

Primary
Consumer

Producer

Fig. : A food web consists of many interwoven food chains

182

chain does not exist. Normally, there is an The plants and crop are eaten by rats, insect and
interconnection of various food chains in also by rabbit. The rat in turn is consumed by
ecosystem. This interconnection of many food snake and insect is eaten by a lizard. The snake,
chains is known as food web. A food web lizard and rabbit all can also be consumed by a
expresses the pattern of energy and nutrient flow, hawk. In this way, a network of interconnecting
throughout the ecosystem. organisms is obtained which is known as food
A food web can be explained by a simple example: web.

NCERT Intext Questions

Q. 1. Why are some substances biodegradable and some Grass Insect Frog
non-biodegradable? (Producer) Herbivore Carnivore
(Primary (Secondary
Ans. The waste materials that we generate in our daily life consumer) consumer)
are either biodegradable and non-biodegradable. In
our environment, microorganism such as bacteria and Peacock Snake
(Top carnivore) Carnivore (Tertiary consumer)
fungi secrete enzymes to degrade substances. Organic
compounds, present in the dead remains of plants and Q. 4. What are trophic levels? Give an example of a food
animals and their waste products can be degraded into chain and state the different trophic levels in it.
simpler harmless substances by biological processes Ans. Each step or level of a food chain where transfer of
and microorganisms. These wastes are termed as energy occurs are called trophic levels. Let us
biodegradable. On the other hand certain category of consider the following food chain.
wastes like plastic, glass, etc. cannot be degraded by In this food chain, grass is a producer (first trophic
level). Insect is a herbivore and eats grass. Thus,
microorganisms or biological process. These wastes insect is at second trophic level. Insect, in turn, is
persists in the environment and are termed as eaten by frog (carnivores I). Thus, frog is at third
non-biodegradable. trophic level. Frog, is eaten by snake (carnivores II).
Q.2. Give any two ways in which biodegradable Thus, snake is at fourth trophic level. Snake, in turn is
substances would affect the environment. eaten by peacock (carnivores III). Thus, peacock is at
Ans. Two ways in which biodegradable substances would fifth trophic level.
affect the environment are : Q. 5. What is the role of decomposers in the environment?
Ans. Decomposers break down the complex organic
(i) Decomposition of biodegradable wastes produces substances in the dead remains and waste products of
foul smell which spreads in the environment and organisms into simple inorganic substances that go
makes the life of people miserable. into the soil and are used up once more by plants.
(ii) Flies breed at huge heaps of biodegradable wastes Q. 6. What is ozone and how does it affect any ecosystem?
carrying the germs and spread diseases such as Ans. This Question not involved in syllabus of 2021
typhoid, diarrhoea, tuberculosis, cholera etc. Q. 7. How can you help in reducing the problem of waste
Q. 3. Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable disposing? Give any two methods.
substances would affect the environment. Ans. We can help reducing the waste disposal problem by
Ans. Two ways in which non-biodegradable substances changing our life style and attitude. If we minimize
would affect the environment are: the use of disposable articles and start using only
those articles which can easily be recycled, the
(i) Some of the non-biodegradable wastes (pesticides quantity of waste can be reduced.
and heavy metals) convert the land into barren 1. Non-biodegradable waste: Most often the
land and enter the food chain thus, affecting non-biodegradable waste is recycled. It is taken
human beings and other biotic components of the away by rag-pickers.
environment. 2. Biodegradable waste: Biodegradable waste is
(ii) Pesticides and other chemicals enter water and putrescible. It can be composted or
food chains. They affect the fertility of soil and vermicomposted or to prepare compost for our
harm all kind of living organisms. Human beings kitchen gardens.
are harmed the most because they are at the top of Some prominent methods of waste disposal are land
the food chain. fills, production of bio-gas and manure and
incineration.
 183

NCERT Exercise
Q.1. Which of the following groups contain only The concentration of harmful chemicals will be
biodegradable items? different at different trophic level, because the
(i) Grass, flowers and leather animals at the highest trophic level or at the extreme
(ii) Grass, wood and plastic right side of the food chain will have the maximum
concentration of harmful chemicals in the body, and
(iii) Fruit-peels, cake and lime-juice
grass which is at the lowest trophic level will have
(iv) Cake, wood and grass minimum concentration of harmful chemicals.
Ans. (i), (ii) and (iv). Grass ¾¾® Goat
Q. 2. Which of the following constitute a food chain? (Absorbs chemicals (Receives chemicals
(U.P. 2019) from soil) along with fodder)
(i) Grass, wheat and mango

®¾¾
(ii) Grass, goat and human
(iii) Goat, cow and elephant Human
(iv) Grass, fish and goat (Receives chemicals
Ans. (ii) with milk and meat)
Q. 3. Which of the following are environment-friendly Q.7. What are the problems caused by the non-
practices? (U.P. 2019, 20) biodegradable wastes that we generate?
(i) Carrying cloth-bags to put purchases in while Ans. The problems caused by the non-biodegradable
shopping. wastes that we generate are :
(ii) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans. (i) The non-biodegradable wastes cannot be
(iii) Walking to school instead of getting your mother decomposed by microorganisms like bacteria and
to drop you on her scooter. fungi. So, the volume of these wastes will not
(iv) All of the above. decrease creating the problem of their disposal.
Ans. (iv) (ii) They have to be dumped on land. Hence, the land
Q. 4. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one becomes unfit for other purposes.
trophic level? (U.P. 2020) (iii) Heavy metals present in industrial waste like
Ans. If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the copper, lead, nickel, mercury remain in the soil
transfer of food energy to next level will stop. Also,
indefinitely. Slowly, they pass into vegetation and
there will be overpopulation of individuals belonging
to the previous trophic level. The organisms of higher crops and thus harm both humans and animals.
trophic level will also die. Hence, it will result in (iv) Pesticides and other toxins pollute underground
imbalance in the ecosystem. waste, surface water and soil. The chemicals enter
Q. 5. Will the impact of removing all the organisms in a food chain thereby harming animals and humans,
trophic level be different for different trophic levels? and the soil may become acidic or alkaline.
Can the organisms of any trophic level be removed (v) In the process of removing recyclable materials
without causing any damage to the ecosystem? from solid wastes, the rag-pickers are exposed to
Ans. Removal of all the organisms in a trophic level will many diseases and toxins.
cause the same type of disturbance in an ecosystem,
i.e., killing of higher trophic level and explosion in Q. 8. If all the waste we generate is biodegradable, will this
population of the lower level organisms. If all have no impact on the environment?
producers are killed, there will be no food available Ans. If all the waste we generate is biodegradable, it will
for herbivores present in the ecosystem. In the have impact on the environment. Biodegradable
absence of herbivores, various categories of wastes pollute the environment only when the amount
carnivores will be affected. Since, all categories of is large which cannot be degraded (or decomposed)
organisms are linked through a food chain, removal of into harmless substances in nature at the right time.
organisms of any trophic level will ultimately affect Thus, the impact on the environment will depend
the ecosystem. upon the system of collecting, transporting and
Q. 6. What is biological magnification? Will the level of disposal of biodegradable waste.
this magnification be different at different levels of Q. 9. Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for concern?
the ecosystem? What steps are being taken to limit this damage?
Ans. The increase in concentration of harmful chemical Ans. This Ques. not involved in Syllabus of 2021.
substances (pesticides) in the body of living
organisms at each trophic level of a food chain is ccc
called biological magnification.
 184

Chapter

16 Management of
Natural Resources

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q.1. The Bishnoi community of Rajasthan is associated (c) biogas (d) CNG
with the conservation of : Q.12. Which of the following is not a natural resource?
(a) coal and petroleum (b) forests and wildlife (a) soil (b) water (c) electricity (d) natural gas
(c) water resources (d) abiotic environment Q.13. The three R’s which can help us to conserve natural
Q.2. The Chipko Andolan is associated with : resources for long term use are :
(a) Tigers (b) Turtles (c) Trees (d) Tomatoes (a) recycle, regenerate, reuse
Q.3. Amrita Devi Bishnoi was associated with : (b) reduce, regenerate, reuse
(a) preventing the custom of child marriage in (c) reduce, reuse, redistribute
Rajasthan. (d) reduce, recycle, reuse
(b) campaign to save the girl child. Q.14. The main reason for the abundant coliform bacteria in
(c) conservation of cultural heritage of Rajasthan. the water of river Ganga is :
(d) conservation of forests and wildlife. (a) immersion of ashes of the dead into the river.
Q.4. The river water is said to be polluted with acidic wastes (b) washing of clothes on the banks of river.
if the pH of river water is : (c) discharge of industrial wastes into river water.
(a) zero (b) above 7 (c) below 7 (d) exactly 7 (d) disposal of unburnt corpses into river water.
Q.5. The major programme started to replenish the damaged Q.15. Groundwater will not be depleted due to :
forests is called : (a) Process of afforestation
(a) horticulture (b) tissue culture (b) Establishing thermal power plants
(c) agriculture (d) silviculture (c) Process of deforestation
Q.6. With which tree Amrita Devi Bishnoi is associated? (d) Cultivation of high yielding varieties of crops
(a) Khajoor(b) Khejrali (c) Khejri (d) Keekar Q.16. Khadins are used in Rajasthan to :
Q.7. One of the following does not contribute in producing (a) hold water for irrigation
acid rain. This one is :
(b) recharge groundwater
(a) SO 2 (b) CO 2 (c) NO (d) CO
(c) promote soil erosion (d) trap wild animals
Q.8. The poisonous gas which reduces the O 2 carrying
Q.17. Ganga Action plan was started on :
capacity of blood to a large extent is : (a) 1989 (b) 1985 (c) 1980 (d) 2005
(a) SO 2 (b) NO (c) CO (d) CO 2 Q.18. Opposition to the construction of large dams is due to :
Q.9. Which of the following is not an ancient water (a) Social reasons
harvesting structure ?
(b) Economic reasons
(a) kattas (b) sargam (c) kulhs (d) surangams
(c) Environmental reasons
Q.10. Snakes are killed in large numbers because :
(d) All of these
(a) they are very poisonous
Q.19. Khadins, Bundhis, Ahars and Kattas are ancient
(b) they kill rats structures that are examples for :
(c) their skin is expensive (a) Grain storage (b) Wood storage
(d) they damage the crops (c) Water harvesting (d) Soil conservation
Q.11. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel? Q.20. Pick the right combination of terms which has no fossil
(a) LPG (b) natural gas fuel :
 185

(a) Wind, ocean and coal (b) Kerosene, wind and tide (b) To ignore the community in forest conservation
(c) Wind, wood and sun (d) Petroleum, wood and sun efforts.
Q.21. The important message conveyed by the ‘Chipko (c) To cut down forest trees for developmental
Movement’ is : activities.
(a) To involve the community in forest conservation (d) Government agencies have the unquestionable
efforts. right to order destruction of trees in forests.

Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (a)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

Q. 1. What are natural resources? Q. 12. What is meant by energy plantation?

Ans. Any component of the natural environment that can be Ans. Plantation with an aim to generate biomass and
utilized by man to promote his welfare is considered bioenergy is called energy plantation.
as a natural resource. Q. 13. What is afforestation?
Q. 2. Expand MPN. Ans. Extensive planting of trees is called afforestation.
Ans. Most Probable Number. Q. 14. What is deforestation?
Q. 3. What is Coliforms bacteria? Ans. Destruction of forest cover is called deforestation.
Ans. These are bacteria that live in intestine and, therefore, Q. 15. Which department executes the solar energy
are present in animal excreta. programme in India?
Q. 4. What is indicated by the presence of Coliforms in Ans. Solar energy programme is executed by ‘Ministry of
water? Non-Conventional Energy Sources’.
Ans. Presence of Coliform in water indicates severe con- Q. 16. How many national parks and sanctuaries are found in
tamination of water with sewage pollutants. India?
Q. 5. What are three R’s? Ans. India has 89 national parks an 492 sanctuaries.
Ans. Three ‘R’ are – reduce, recycle and reuse. Q. 17. Name the industries which are based on forest
Q. 6. What is wild life? product.
Ans. The biodiversity that is living and forests and jungles Ans. Paper, timber and sport industries.
under their natural habitat conditions is called wild Q. 18. How are coal and petroleum formed? Name two
life. elements present in coal and petroleum in addition to
Q. 7. Who was Amrita Devi Bishnoi? carbon.
Ans. Amrita Devi Bishnoi was a member of Bishnoi Ans. Coal and petroleum were formed the degradation of
community in Rajasthan, who in 1731 sacrificed her bio-mass millions of years ago and are used as fuels.
life along with 363 others for the protection of ‘khejri H 2 , N 2 and S present in coal and petroleum in
trees’ in Khejrali village near Jodhpur in Rajasthan. addition to carbon.
Q.8. What was Chipko Andolan (‘Hug the tree Movement’)? Q. 19. Name the prominent ecologist who is responsible for
Ans. The Chipko Andolan (‘Hug the Trees Movement’) Chipko movement.
was a big movement carried out by local people for Ans. Shri Sundarlal Bahuguna.
the safety of forest. Q. 20. Give one criticism about large dams.
Q. 9. What was Kulhs system? Ans. Large dams consume large amount of public money
Ans. It was a local system of canal irrigation in Himachal without the generation of proportionate benefits.
Pradesh. Q. 21. Define biodiversity.
Q. 10. How much land area in India is covered with forests? Ans. The occurrence of different types of genes and species
Ans. 19% of the total land area is covered with forests. from all the habitat and ecosystem in a particular place
Q. 11. What is soil erosion? and various part of the earth is called biodiversity.
Ans. The displacement of upper soil layer by the action of Q. 22. Why should we conserve forests? (U.P. 2019)
wind or water current is called erosion.
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Ans. We should conserve forest because of the following (ii) They protect biodiversity
reasons– (iii) They help in rainfall.
(i) Forest help in preventing soil erosion

Short Answer Type Questions 4 Marks

Q. 1. What steps you can take to reduce consumption of (ii) Big dams cause economic problems because they
energy and become environment friendly? consume a huge amount of public money without
Ans. We can take following steps : the generation of proportionate benefits.
(i) Taking a bus instead of using vehicles. (iii) Big dams also cause environmental problems
(ii) Using CFLs for home lighting. because they contribute enormously to
(iii) Taking stairs, instead of a lift. deforestation and the loss of biological diversity.
(iv) In winters, wearing an extra sweater, instead of Q. 5. When we consider the conservation of forests, who
using a heater. will be the stakeholders?
Q. 2. What measures can you suggest for the sustainable Ans. When we consider the conservation of forests, we
need to look at the stakeholders who are :
management of the forests?
(i) The people who live in or around forests are
Ans. For sustainable management of the forests following
dependent on forest produce for various aspects
measures may be taken :
of their life.
(i) Role of local people in the forest management
must be taken into consideration as they have (ii) The forest department of the Government which
move knowledge of forest climate and conditions. owns the land and controls the resources from
(ii) Exploitation of forest by industrialists must be forests.
checked. (iii) The industrialists who use ‘tendu’ leaves to make
(iii) Development of roads, commercial building, bidis to the ones with paper mills.
dams etc. near forests or on forest land must be (iv) The wild life and nature enthusiasts who want to
avoided to protect the habitats of rich conserve nature in its pristine form.
biodiversity. Q. 6. Name a greenhouse gas produced due to combustion
(iv) Policies should be framed to ensure controlled of fossil fuels. Mention its bad effect to the
exploitation with environmental safety. environment.
Q. 3. Describe the causes of deforestation. Ans. The greenhouse gases produced are CO 2 and oxides
Ans. (i) Phenomenal increase in human and livestock of N 2 and S. These cause global warming.
population.
Q. 7. Why must we conserve our forests? (U.P. 2019)
(ii) Growing demands of timber and fuel wood.
Ans. We must conserve forests because of the following
(iii) Increase in area under cultivation of crops.
reasons :
(iv) Excessive and unplanned grazing.
(i) Forests help in preventing soil erosion.
(v) Increased demand of wood for paper, board,
newsprint etc. (ii) They protect biodiversity.
(vi) Construction of roads in mountains. (iii) They maintain ground water level.
(vii) Growth of industries and impact of human (iv) They help in rainfall.
activities such as mining, quarrying, irrigation (v) They provide raw materials.
and agricultures. (vi) They prevent floods.
Q. 4. Describe three important types of problems,
Q. 8. What is water harvesting? How can this technique
associated with the construction of big dams.
help in the conservation of water?
Ans. Three important types of problems, associated with
Ans. Water harvesting is a technique of capturing rain
the construction of big dams are :
water when it falls and taking measures to keep the
(i) Construction of big dams causes social problems water clean.
because they displace large number of peasants and This water is stored underground that remains un-
tribals without adequate compensation or rehabili- polluted, it recharges wells and provides moisture for
tation. The people who are displaced by dam vegetation over a wide area.
projects, are usually poor tribals who do not get any
Q. 9. Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable
benefits from such projects. They are alienated from
sources of energy.
their lands, without adequate compensation.
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Ans. Distinguish between renewable and non- Garhwal, who hugged the tree trunks preventing the
renewable contractors from felling the tree. This Andolan
quickly spread to other parts of the country and forced
S. Renewable Sources Non-renewable Sources of the government to rethink their priorities in the use of
No. of Energy Energy forest produce. Consequently the local people were
benefited. The environment was saved from
1. Those sources of energy Those sources of energy which permanent damage. It affected the quality of soil and
which are being produced have been accumulated in the sources of water were affected in a good way.
continuously in nature and nature over a long time and
are inexhaustible are cannot be quickly replaced if Q. 13. Suggest a few measures for controlling CO 2 levels in
called renewable sources once exhausted are called the atmosphere.
of energy. non-renewable sources of Ans. (i) Reduce the consumption of petrol in the
energy.
automobiles.
2. Renewable sources of Non-renewable sources of (ii) Use of CNG or clean fuel.
energy are available in energy are available in limited (iii) Instead of burning litter prepare manure out of it.
unlimited quantities. quantity. (iv) Treatment of smoke to remove harmful gases
e.g., Air, water, solar, e.g., Coal, petroleum, natural before discharging into the atmosphere.
radiations, etc. gas, etc. (v) Plant more trees.
Q. 14. Write short notes on wild animals.
Q. 10. What are the causes of pollution of river Ganga?
Ans . Forests support a rich biodiversity. A large variety of
(U.P. 2020)
plants and animals find their habitats in the forests,
Ans. The causes of pollution of river Ganga are as follows : hence, forests are known as ‘hotspots of biodiversity’.
(i) Dumping of garbage and untreated sewage from The biodiversity that is living and forests and jungles
all the towns and cities on the bank of the river. under their natural habitat conditions is called wild
(ii) Millions of people bath and wash their clothes, life.
animals and vehicles in the river water. In the other word, a large area of land on which trees
(iii) Releasing chemical effluents from industries and other plants grow naturally is called forest and the
directly into the river water. wild animals (like deer, snakes, tiger, lion, elephants
(iv) Immersion of ashes or even dead bodies in the etc.) and birds which live in a forest, are called
river, performed as a ritual. wild-life.
Q. 11. Why is replenishment of forest necessary? State four When we cut forests for needs, we destroy the habitats
reasons. of thousands of wild live species. Due to this reason,
Ans. The replenishment of forest is necessary because of many of our species have become extinct and many
the following reasons : others are at the verge of extinction.
(i) It is used to conserve soil. Q. 15. Write short note on water pollution. (U.P. 2019)
(ii) It provides shelter to wild animals. Ans . Water pollution is the contamination of water bodies
(iii) It reduces atmospheric pollution. due to the changes in physical, chemical and
biological properties of water that can affect the living
(iv) It controls flood and increases frequency of
beings adversely. Due to human activities, ponds,
rainfall.
rivers, oceans are getting polluted in several parts of
Q. 12. What was Chipko Andolan? How did this Andolan the world.
ultimately benefit the local people and the
environment?
Ans. ‘Chipko Andolan’ (Hug the trees movement) was a
movement started by woman of Reni village in

Long Answer Type Questions

Q. 1. What is pollution? Ganga pollution is one of the major The water in most of our rivers is highly polluted,
present problems. What methods we should adopt to because the dumping of untreated sewage and
cheek it? Write an article. industrial wastes into it.
Ans. The undesirable change in physical, chemical or Pollution of the Ganga
biological characteristics of air, water and soil is The Ganga is the most holy river of India. It arises
called pollution. from Gangotri and flows upto Ganga Sagar in the Bay
of Bengal, covering a distance of about 2500 km.
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During its long course, it passes through hundreds of Importance of Forests :

cities in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal. Wood : It is the major forest product. Wood is useful
During it course it receives that pour their garbage and as building material for construction. It is a raw
excreta into it. Largely untreated sewage is dumped material for doors, windows, furniture, railways
into the Ganges every day. Industrial effluents also sleepers, bullock carts, sports goods, etc. Wood is also
make the situation more serious. Such pollution of used as raw material for the manufacture of paper,
rivers and water bodies is extremely harmful for rayon and film.
aquatic organisms including fishes. Very high level of Essential oils : Many essential oils are obtained from
forest plants. These include rosha grass, khas,
Coliform level (MPN) indicates the poor quality of
sandalwood, etc. Essential oils are used in the
the water. manufacture of soaps, cosmetics, pharmaceuticals,
Because the quality of the water in the Ganga was very confectionery, incense, etc.
poor, in 1985, Indian Government launched the Fuel wood : In developing countries, it is a major
“Ganga Action Plan”. source of fuel for domestic purposes.
One such plan was the “Ganga Action Plan”. This Bamboos : These grow in forests and are useful in
multi-crore project came about in 1985 because the rafters, roofing, walling, flooring matting, basketry,
quality of the water in the Ganga was very poor. cartwood, etc. Bamboos are used as raw material in
Coliform and MPN paper and rayon industries.
Coliform is a group of bacteria. It is found in the Some other forest products : The forest plants also
intestine of many mammals including humans. It is yield useful products such as: tanning materials, dyes,
also present in animal excreta / sewage etc. So, its resins, gums, drugs, spices and insecticides.
presence in water indicates severe contamination. The Forest industries : The following industries are
amount of coliform in water is measured in terms of forest based—pulp, paper and newsprint, plywood,
MPN (Most Probable Number). fibre board, match industry, resin and turpentine, etc.
If the pH of river water found to be below 7, then the Conserve of forest : See Ans. of NCERT Intext
river water will be acidic and hence polluted. Ques.- 6
Today pollution of river Ganga can be controlled by Q.3. What do you understand by management of
the following methods: resources? How can benefit the society through it?
(i) Proper maintenance of water body. Write an article on it.
Ans. Management of Resources : Management and
(ii) Reduced use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers
conservation of natural resources means the scientific
in agriculture.
utilisation of resources. For this, we should remember
(iii) Avoid the disposal of waste into river. the 3 R's that can save the environment, i. e., Reduce,
(iv) Proper sewage treatment before disposal into Recycle and Reuse.
river. The society can be benefited in different ways by the
Q. 2. Give the functions and importance of forests. management of following ways:
Or Forestry property is very important for us. (a) Forest and wildlife
How can us conserve it? Write an article. (U.P. 2019) (i) We should judiciously use the forest products.
Ans. Functions of Forests : Broadly, forests play three (ii) Felling of trees for paper, timber, etc, should be
important functions : controlled.
1. Productive functions : These include production (iii) Killing of wild animals for their skin, etc., should
of wood, fruits and a wide variety of compounds, be banned.
such as resins, alkaloids, essential oils, latex, (iv) Afforestation should be practised.
pharmaceutical, etc. (v) Management of the forest should be given to local
2. Protective functions : These include people.
conservation of soil and water, prevention of (vi) We should try and preserve biodiversity we have
drought, shelter against wind, cold and radiation inherited.
etc. (b) Water resources
3. Regulative functions : These involve (i) Leaking taps should be repaired.
absorption, storage and release of gases, radiant (ii) Water from industries should not be directly
energy and recycling of water and mineral dumped in the river water.
elements. These functions improve climatic
(iii) Use of insecticides and pesticides should of
conditions, and enhances the economic and
minimised, which are washed away with rain and
environmental value of the landscape. Forests
also regulate floods and drought. contaminate river water and underground water.
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(iv) Methods like rain water harvesting, construction Water harvesting is important because today we are
of canal should be promoted. Construction of facing problems like poor availability of pure
dams may also prove beneficial. drinking water, increasing water pollution, lowering
(c) Coal and petroleum of water table, poor and uneven monsoon. Water
harvesting is the only solution to these problems. It
(i) Use of coal and petroleum as a source of energy
helps in :
should be minimised.
â Providing drinking water.
(ii) Use of CNG or LPG as fuels in automobiles.
â Providing irrigation water.
(iii) Renewable sources of energy like solar power,
â Increasing groundwater recharge.
hydropower, wind energy, tidal energy, etc.,
â Reducing stormwater discharges, urban floods and
should be used. It is a better to walk over a short
overloading of sewage plants.
distance rather than going by car or scooter.
â Reducing seawater ingress in coastal areas.
Q. 4. What is water conservation? Using it, how we can
benefit human beings animals and plants? (U.P. 2019) â Water harvesting can be undertaken through a
variety of ways :
Ans. Water conservation : It involves storing rain water
in the large structure through dams, tanks and canals. â Capturing run-off from rooftops.
Which can hold this water round the year. â Capturing run-off from local catchments.
The aim is to develop primary resources of land and â Capturing seasonal floodwaters from local
water, to produce secondary resources of plants and streams.
animals for use in a manner which will not cause â Conserving water through watershed management.
ecological imbalance. In general, water harvesting is the activity of direct
Water harvesting refers to the capturing of rain water, collection of rainwater. The rainwater collected can
where it falls or capturing the run-off in village or be stored for direct use or can be recharged into the
town and taking measures to keep that water clean by
groundwater. Rain is the first form of water in the
preventing polluting activities. The purpose is not to
hydrological cycle, hence is a primary source of water
hold the surface water, but to recharge the ground
water. for us. Rivers, lakes and groundwater are all
secondary sources of water.
Water harvesting is an age-old concept in India.
Khadins, tanks and nadis in Rajasthan, bandharas and Q. 5. Describe the forests and wild life resources.
tals in Maharashtra, bundhis in Madhya Pradesh and Ans. Forests and Wild Life Resources : Forests support a
Uttar Pradesh, ahars and pynes in Bihar, kulhs in rich biodiversity. A large variety of plants and animals
Himachal Pradesh, ponds in the Kandi belt of Jammu find their habitats in the forests, hence, forests are
region, and eris (tanks) in Tamil Nadu surangams in known as ‘hotspots of biodiversity’. The biodiversity
Kerala, and kattas in Karnataka are some of the water that is living and forests and jungles under their
harvesting methods in ancient India. natural habitat conditions is called wild life.
A traditional rain water harvesting system for When we cut forests for needs, we destroy the habitats
agriculture is Khadin which is used in Rajasthan. of thousands of wild life species. Due to this reason,
Khadin system of rain water harvesting is about 100 m many of our species have become extinct and many
to 300 m long earthen embankment called khadin others are at the verge of extinction.
bund, built across the lower edge of the sloping A loss of diversity may lead to a loss of ecological
farmland. stability. Therefore, we need to protect and conserve
The rain water which collects in reservoir formed by our forests and rich biodiversity.
the bund, and in the dugwell, seeps slowly-slowly into Stakeholders : Forests produce are very important for
the ground. This water saturated ground (land) is us. But our dependency of forest produce is variable.
subsequently used for growing crops. Some of us have alternative products and, therefore,
do not depend heavily of forest produce. But some
people, who do not have alternatives, depend directly
on forest produce. So, we have to understand
Khadin following groups or stakeholders who more or less
Catchment Shallow
area Khadin or cropped bund depend upon forest produce.
area dugwell

Saline area
1. The people who live near forests depend directly
on forest produce for their needs.
Seepage 2. The Forest Department of the Government which
The Khadin system of rain water harvesting
controls the resources from forests.
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3. The industrialists : who depend upon forest surface of the earth. The two most common forms
produce for commercial use (for example: bidi are natural gas and crude oil.
makers use tendu leaves; paper mill owners 2. Coal : Coal can be defined as a sedimentary rock
depend upon wood and other material.) that burns. It was formed by the decomposition of
4. The wild life and nature enthusiasts who try to plant matter, and it is a complex substance that
conserve nature in its pristine form. can be found in many forms. Coal is divided into
Let us take a look at what each of these groups four classes: anthracite, bituminous,
needs/gets out of the forests. sub-bituminous and lignite.
Local people who live near forests need large India has huge proven coal reserves, estimated at
quantities of firewood, small timber and thatch. In more than 90 billion tons, or about 10% of the
general their livelihood depends entirely on forest world's total. Most of these reserves are relatively
produce. Such use of forest resources usually does not high ash bituminous coal and are located in
lead to the exhaustion of these resources. This is Bihar, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh states.
because, local people are well aware of forests and At the current level of production and
they have developed practices to ensure that the consumption, India’s coal reserve would last
resources were used in a sustainable manner. Before more than two hundred years.
independence, during British period, forests were
Management of Coal and Petroleum
exploited ruthlessly and the people in the nearby area
were forced to depend on much smaller areas. After Two large problems are associated with the use of
independence, the Forest Department tried to manage petroleum and coal :
the situation, but role of local people, their knowledge (a) These are limited in quantity. So, their long term
and local needs continued to be ignored. use requires a careful management.
Industries are the biggest threat to the forests. (b) Combustion of coal and petroleum causes a great
Industrialists consider the forest as merely a source of environmental pollution. Both these, in addition
raw material for their factories. They have nothing to to carbon, contain hydrogen, nitrogen and
do with the sustainability and replenishment of the sulphur. When these are burnt, the products are
forests. After exploiting an area, they find another carbon dioxide, water, oxides of nitrogen and
area but never try to manage the sustainability of these oxides of sulphur. These oxides cause heavy air
areas. pollution. High amounts of CO 2 increases green
The role of nature and wild life enthusiasts is very house effect and consequently the global
important in the sustainable management of the warming. When combustion takes place in
forests. They have no direct dependency on forests insufficient air (oxygen), then carbon monoxide
but for the sake of environment and preserving is formed instead of carbon dioxide, which is
biodiversity they carry out programmes to alert the again highly poisonous gas.
people and the Government for the safety of forests. The management of coal and petroleum,
Many programmes have been executed by NGOs time therefore, requires a careful and judicious
to time for the safety of forests.
management practices that should aim at :
Q. 6. Describe the Coal and Petroleum resources.
(i) long term availability of these resources and
Ans. Coal and petroleum Resources
(ii) reducing the extent of air pollution caused by
India is both major energy producer and consumer.
the burning of such resources.
India currently ranks as the world's eleventh greatest
energy producer, accounting for about 2.4% of the Q. 7. Describe the importance of wild life.
world’s total annual energy production, and as the Ans. Importance of wild life : Wild life is important for us
world's sixth greatest energy consumer, accounting because of following important aspects :
for about 3.3% of the world’s total annual energy 1. Ecological value : Wild animals are very
consumption. important in maintaining the balance of
Despite its large annual energy production, India is a ecosystem. Through food chain and food web
net energy importer, mostly due to the large wild life helps in maintaining a sustained
imbalance between oil production and consumption. ecosystem.
Coal and petroleum were formed from the degradation 2. Commercial value : Wild life acts as an
of bio-mass millions of years ago and hence these are important renewable natural resource. Marine
resources that will be exhausted in the future. fisheries alone is the big source of income to
1. Petroleum : The term ‘petroleum’ is used to millions of people. Besides, fur, wool, teeth,
describe a broad range of hydrocarbons which glands of musk deer, antlers of deer etc. are very
are found as gases, liquids, or solids beneath the costly and have great commercial value.
 191

3. Game value : Wild life has its worth as game were abundant than relative to human population.
also. In several countries worldwide, millions of Therefore, no significant depletion occurred.
people hunt or trap fish for recreation. But in the last millennium, human population and its
4. Aesthetic value : Wild life also has great requirements have increased tremendously, causing
aesthetic value because of their sheer beauty and serious damage to natural resources.
appeal to the human spirit. Therefore, deals with some of our natural resources
5. Scientific value : Scientific studies of many of like forests, wild-life, water, coal and petroleum and
the wild life species are of direct value to the issues related with the management of these
resources and the problems associated with them.
humans. Species in wild, help us to understand
several hidden facts of nature and natural Most of the natural resources and products available
phenomena. to us are limited on the earth. Due to tremendous
increase in human population, our demand for these
6. As natural gene bank : Wild life serves as gene resources and products has also been increased at a
bank because it is a natural region where very fast rate. If we do not manage our resources, we
organisms with genetic diversity are preserved. can not fulfil our growing needs in the near future.
Q. 8. What do you understancd by natural resources? Natural resources must not be exploited excessively
Explain its benefit in human society with example. for short term gains. Their replenishment is also
Ans. Natural Resource–Any component of the natural essential. So, the management of natural resources
environment that can be utilised by man to promote requires a long-term perspective so that these will last
his welfare is considered as a natural resource. The for the generations to come.
natural resource can be a substance, an energy unit, or This management should also ensure equitable
a natural process or phenomenon. distribution of resources so that all, and not just a few
Land, soil, water, forests, coal and petroleum etc. are rich and powerful people, benefit from the
examples of important natural resources. development of these resources.
Another factor that we have to keep in mind is the
Management of natural resources means a system of
environmental preservation, while utilizing a natural
controlling the use of natural resources in such a way resource. Exploitation of some resources causes
as to avoid their wastage and to use them in the most severe environmental pollution. For example, mining
effective way. causes pollution because of the large amount of slag.
Natural resources are the gifts of nature to mankind. Hence, Sustainable management suggests that we
These have been exploited by human beings, since the should also plan for the safe disposal of such wastes.
beginning of civilization. At that time, these resources

NCERT Intext Question

Q. 1. What changes can you make in your habits to become Q. 3. How would these advantages differ from the
more environment friendly? advantage of using a long-term perspective in
Ans. We can make the following changes in our habits to managing our resources?
become more environment friendly : Ans. Exploiting resources with short-term aim is beneficial
(i) We must collect plastic, paper, glass and metal for the present generation to meet current basic human
items and recycle and reuse them to make the needs while using with a long-term perspective aims
required things instead of synthesising fresh to fulfil the need of future generation. A long-term
perspective in managing our resources is a sustainable
plastic, paper, glass or metals. practice that unables the present generation to use
(ii) By closing the taps when water is not needed. natural resources judiciously so that their availability
(iii) By planting trees. is ensured for the future generation too.
(iv) Save the energy by switching off unnecessary Q. 4. Why do you think there should be equitable
lights and fan. distribution of resources? What forces would be
working against on equitable distribution of our
(v) Reducing the use of non-renewable energy resources?
sources like petrol, diesel etc. Ans. The management should ensure equitable distribution
Q. 2. What would be the advantage of exploiting resources of resources, so that both rich and poor are benefitted.
with short-term aims? Powerful and rich people take advantage of their
Ans. Exploiting resources with short-term aims provide influence and get more benefit as compared to poor
immediate advantage that meet current basic human people. The money and power are important factors
needs. which work against the distributions of our resources.
192

Q. 5. Why should we conserve forests and wildlife? Q. 8. Compare the above system with the probable systems
Ans. There are large number of species of both plants and in hilly/mountainous areas or plains or plateau
animals that are found in the forests. However, the regions.
range of different life forms (bacteria, fungi, ferns, Ans. Water harvesting system in the hilly areas are quite
flowering plants, nematodes, insects, birds, reptiles different from those of plain areas. Parts of Himachal
and so on) is also important. One of the main aims of Pradesh had evolved the local system of canal
conservation is to try and preserve the biodiversity we irrigation called kulhs over four hundred years ago.
have inherited. Experiments and field studies suggest The water flowing in the streams was diverted into
that a loss of diversity may lead to a loss of ecological man-made channels which took this water numerous
stability. villages down the hillside. The management of the
Q. 6. Suggest some approaches towards the conservation of water flowing in these kulhs was done by a common
forests. agreement between all villages. Interestingly, during
Ans. The following measures are suggested for the the planting season, water was first used by the village
conservation of forests: farthest away from the source of the kulhs, then by
(i) Plantation of indigenous or exotic species to villages progressively higher up. These kulhs were
develop forests in all the available land. managed by two or three people who were paid by the
(ii) Indiscriminate felling of trees for the purpose of villagers. In addition to irrigation, water from these
timber must be reduced. kulhs also percolated into the soil and fed springs at
(iii) The forest reserves must be protected from various points.
fuel-starved villagers, fodder-starved cattles and Q. 9. Find out the source of water in your region/locality. Is
commercial exploitation. water from this source available to all people living in
(iv) Participation of local people and villagers must that area?
be taken in conservation of forests and they Ans. The source of water in my locality is groundwater
should be given proper employment. through handpump and the municipality supply.
Q. 7. Find out about the traditional systems of water Sometimes, especially in summer season, water from
harvesting/management in your region. these source become scant. In my locality, water is
Ans. The traditional system of water harvesting/mana- available to all the people.
gement in our region are ponds, pits and lakes where
rainwater is stored.

NCERT Exercises
Q. 1. What changes would you suggest in your home in (i) Saving energy by turning off lights that we are
order to be environment friendly? not using.
Ans. By pursuing the three R’s, i.e., Reduce, Recycle and (ii) I will suggest to buy recycled paper for
Reuse, we can save the environment in an effective
decoration and other purpose instead of plastic
way.
materials.
(i) Reduce : It means to use less. I would save
electricity by switching off unnecessary lights (iii) Use writing paper on both the side.
and fans, prefer walking or cycling than using an (iv) To grow plant and tree all around the playground.
automobile, turn off the engine of car at red light,
Q. 3. We saw in this chapter that there are four main
repair leaky taps, would not waste food, etc.
stakeholders when it comes of forests and wildlife.
(ii) Recycle : Means to collect used things like Which among these should have the authority to
plastic, paper, glass and metal items and recycle decide the management of forest produce? Why do
these material to make required things instead of you think so?
synthesizing of extracting fresh plastic, paper,
Ans. The local people who live in or around forests should
glass or metal. have the authority to decide the management of forest
(iii) Reuse : Refers to using things again and again. produce. These people know the practice to use the
For example, instead of throwing away used resource in sustainable manner. These people have
envelops, they can be used by reversing. been using the forest and wildlife resource since the
Q. 2. Can you suggest some changes in your school which ancient times without harming or causing any
would make it environment friendly? environment damage. However, they should be
Ans. The changes that would make my school environment constantly checked and guided by environmentalists
friendly are : and ecologists.
 193

Q. 4. How can you say that an individual can contribute or Q. 5. What can you as an individual do to reduce your
make a difference to the management of : consumption of the various natural resources?
(i) Forests and wildlife, Ans. As an individual, I will try my best to use or consume
(ii) Water resources, and only minimum and the required amount of food,
(iii) Coal and petroleum? clothes, toys, books and electricity.
Q. 6. List five things you have done over the last one week
Ans. (i) Forests and wildlife :
to :
(a) I will stress on the conservation of
(i) conserve our natural resource.
biodiversity.
(ii) increase the pressure on our natural resources.
(b) I will prevent cutting down of tree in forest,
this will itself protect the habitat of wild Ans. (i) Five things that I have done over the last one
animals. week to conserve our natural resource are :
(c) I will try to educate people on the importance (a) Saved electricity by switching off un-
of forests and their role in our life. necessary lights.
(ii) Water resources : (b) Repaired leaky taps for saving water.
(a) I will stress on the conservation of water by (c) Used empty plastic bottles of jams for storing
turning off the tap while brushing or shaving. purpose.
(b) I will use potable water for drinking purpose (d) I have not purchased plastic toys.
only and not for cleaning car, or giving water (e) I have not used petroleum products.
to plant. (ii) Five things which I have done over the last week
(c) The judicious use of water is essential to to increase the pressure on our natural resource :
avoid undue wastage of water. (a) I did not switch off my room’s light last
(d) I will adopt rainwater harvesting system. night.
(iii) Coal and Petroleum : These are the main source (b) Wasted food.
of energy today. We can save them in many (c) Wasted water during bathing.
ways. For example : (d) Frequently used heating devices.
(a) Using fluorescent tubes instead of lamps (e) Visited my friend house in a car.
using fossils fuels. Q. 7. On the basis of the issues raised in this chapter, what
(b) Using solar devices instead of fossil fuels. changes would you incorporate in your lifestyle in a
(c) Prefer walking or cycling rather than using move towards a sustainable use of our resources?
vehicles or using public transport to save Ans. I would incorporate the maximum use of the three R’s,
petrol. i.e., reduce, recycle and reuse in my lifestyle in a move
(d) I will get my car properly tuned to improve towards sustainable use of our resources.
fuel efficiency. ccc
194

MODEL PAPER-1
Time : 3 hour 15 minute
Science-X Marks : 70
Par t

Part A C

1. (a) The image formed by a convex lens will be

virtual, if: 1 2W 3W
(i) object is at infinity
(ii) object is at focus
(iii) object is between F and 2F i = 10 A A 5W B i
(iv) object is between focus and optical centre Or Prove that the power of the a bulb is inversely
(b) The near point of a man suffering from proportional to its resistance. 4
hypermetropia or long-sightedness, is at: 1 4. Write down the working principle of D.C. generator.
(i) 25 cm (ii) less than 25 cm Also, explain its construction and working. 7
(iii) more than 25 cm (iv) infinity Or What is ohm’s law ? show the graph between current
(c) The resistance of a conductor is 5W. A current of and potential difference by drawing the circuit diagram
3A passes through it for 20 sec. The heat produced for verification of Ohm’s Law. 7
in the conductor will be: 1 Part -B
(i) 900 joule (ii) 900 calorie
(iii) 300 joule (iv) 300 calorie 5. (a) The IUPAC name of formaldehyde is: 1
(d) Two electric bulbs having resistances in ratio 1 : 2 (i) formalin (ii) methanol
are connected in parallel to an electric source of (iii) ethanol (iv) methanol
constant voltage, then the power consumed will (b) The H concentration of a solution is 1 ´ 10 -7
+
be in ratio: 1 mol/liter. The pH value of solution : 1
(i) 1 : 2 (ii) 1 : 1 (iii) 2 : 1 (iv) 1 : 4 (i) 0 (ii) 7 (iii) 8 (iv) 6
2. (a) In a transparent medium, light of which colour (c) Typical element is : 1
will have less speed– red colour or violet colour. 2
(i) Na (ii) K (iii) Sc (iv) He
(b) The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is 6. (a) Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned
the meaning of this statement? 2 before burning in air? 2
(c) Due to which particle, the electric current flows in (b) Write the IUPAC names of the following
a conductor? What is the amount of charge on this compound : 2
particle? 2
(i) CH 3COCH 2CH 3 (ii) CH 3CH 2COOH
3. (a) An object is placed at a distance of 50 cm from a (c) Write the chemical name and molecular formula
concave mirror. Its real and inverted image is of bleaching powder. Write the chemical equation
formed at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror. of bleaching powder for manufacturing 2
Calcualte the focal length of mirror and
7. (a) Differentiate between the following: 2
magnification of image. 4
(i) Minerals and ores
Or A person suffering from short-sightedness can see
(ii) Roasting and calcinations
only upto a distance of 20 cm. Find the focal
(b) How does the electronic configuration of an atom
length and nature of the lens used to remove the
relate to its position in the modern periodic table ? 2
defect. Also, find the power of the lens. 4
Or What changes take place in the following in the
(b) Calculate the effective resistances between the
second period of the periodic table? 2
points A and B in the following circuit and
(i) Metallic properties
flowing current in 5W resistance. 4
(ii) Valencies with respect to hydrogen
 195

8. (a) What are Hydrocarbons classify with suitable (i) Wood (ii) Sun
example? 3 (iii) Fossil Fulls (iv) Wind
(b) Describe one method for preparation of ethyl (d) Number of male gametes in a pollen tube is : 1
alocohol by giving equation of the reaction with (i) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) 3 (iv) 8
the following:
10. (a) Describe any two important functions of kidneys.
(i) Na (ii) CH 3COOH (iii) H 2SO 4 4 1+1=2
Part -C (b) What is organic evolution? 2
9. (a) C-shaped structure of alimentary canal is : 1 (c) How do fossils form layer by layer? 2
(i) stomach (ii) duodenum 11. (a) Describe asexual reproduction on in Ameoba. 4
(iii) oesophagus (iv) vermiform appendix. Or How is sex determination in human beings. 4
(b) The protozoan having a flagellum at its one end (b) What is pollination? Explain in short various
is: 1 method of cross pollination. 4
(i) Amoeba (ii) Paramecium Or Differences between arteries and veins. 4
12. Describe the structur and function of human heart. 7
(iii) Hydra (iv) Leishmania
Or Describe the forests and wild life resources. 7
(c) Which of the following a non-renewable source of
energy? 1

MODEL PAPER-2
Time : 3 hour 15 minute
Science-X Marks : 70
P
art C

(c) Calculate the equivalent resistance between

Part- A points A and B in the given circuit? 2
1. (a) The radius of curvature of a concave mirror is 20 3W

cm. Its focal length will be: 1 A B

1W 2W 3W
(i) – 20 cm (ii) – 10 cm
(iii) + 40 cm (iv) +10 cm 3. (a) A 5 cm tall object is placed on the principle axis of
(b) The velocity of light in the vacuum is: 1 a convex lens of focal length 40 cm at a distance
(i) 3 ´ 10 7 m/s (ii) 2 ´ 10 8 m/s of 20 cm from it. Find the nature, position and size
of the image. Draw ray diagram also. 4
(iii) 3 ´ 10 8 m/s (iv) 3 ´ 1010 m/s
Or What is hypermetropia? State two causes of
(c) Which of the following is not the unit of magnetic
hypermetropia. With the help of ray diagrams
field? 1
show the following: 4
(i) weber/metre 2 (ii) tesla (i) the eye defect hypermetropia
(iii) gauss (iv) newton/ampere 2 (ii) correction of hypermetropia using a lens
(d) Dynamo converts: 1 (b) A conductor has 5 electrons more than its normal
(i) chemical energy into electrical energy position. Find the amount and nature of the charge
(ii) sound energy into magnetic energy on conductor. (Change on electron = 1.6 ´ 1019 C).
(iii) mechanical energy into electrical energy 4
(iv) mechanical energy into light energy Or An electric bulb of 60 watt is connected with an
2. (a) Differentiate between virtual image formed by a electric main of 220 volts. Calculate: 4
concave mirror and of a convex mirror. 2 (i) electric current through the bulb
(b) Show diagrammatically, how two converging (ii) resistance of the bulb
lenses should be arranged so that parallel beams 4. Differentiate between electric motor and electric
generator. Describe the working and construction of
become parallel after passing through two lenses. 2
electric generator with the help of diagram. 7
196

Or How will you combine 4 W, 8 W ,12 W and 24W (iii) ethylene reacts with ozone?
resistances such that (i) maximum and (ii) minimum (b) Write short note on any two: 4
resistance can be obtained? Draw circuit diagram, also. (i) Esterification (ii) Micelle
7
(iii) Homologous series (iv)Substitution reaction
Part -B
Part -C
5. (a) Which one of the following types of medicines is
used for treating indigestion ? 1 9. (a) Number of chromosomes in man is : 1
(i) Antibiotic (ii) Analgesic (i) 44 (ii) 45 (iii) 46 (iv) 47
(iii) Antacid (iv) Antiseptic (b) Liver secretes : 1
(b) Fe 2O 3 + 2Al ¾
¾® Al 2O 3 + 2Fe (i) Saliva (ii) Gastric juice

The above reaction is an example of a : 1

(iii) Bile (iv) Pancreatic juice
(i) combination reaction (c) Bowman’s capsule is a part of : 1
(ii) double displacement reaction (i) Bile duct (ii) Pancreatic duct
(iii) decomposition reaction (iii) Prostate gland (iv) Uriniferous tubule
(iv) displacement reaction (c) Ground water will not be deplected due to: 1
(c) The kind of compound soap is : 1 (i) Afforestation (ii) Planting more trees
(i) acid (ii) ash (iii) salt (iv) ester (iii) Loss of forest and decreased rainfall
6. (a) What happen when tristearine is heated with
caustic soda? 2 (iv) Absence of rains
(b) Write IUPAC names of the following compounds. 2 10. (a) Differentiate between androecium and
gynoecium. 2
(i) CH 3CH 2CH 2CHO (ii) CH 3CH 2CH 2OH
(b) What is the vegetative reproduction? Describe its
(c) What is the effect of temperature on plaster of
importance. Write its advantages and
Paris. 2
7. (a) Write all the four valencies of carbon atom
disadvantages too. 2
through the concept of Le Bel-Van’t Hoff with (c) Define family planning. Write two permanent
diagram. Explain the position of carbon and methods of family planning. 2
hydrogen in methane through the concept of 11. (a) What is cross-pollination. Write only the names
above theory. 2
different types of cross-pollination. Describe the
Or Write the following by giving on example with
equation : germination of pollen grain with the help of
(i) esterification (ii) halogenation diagram. 4
(b) How is washing soda prepared? Given chemical (b) Describe in brief the structure and functions of
equation and uses also. 2 human blood. 4
8. (a) What happens when (write chemical equation 12. What do you mean by independent assortment?
only): 7 Explain the dihybird cross using diagrammatic sketch.7
(i) sodium acetate is heated with ethanol? Or Explain the theory of natural selection of Darwin with
(ii) ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H 2SO 4 at suitable examples. 7
different temperature?

MODEL PAPER-3
Time : 3 hour 15 minute
Science-X Marks : 70

respectively. The ratio of lengths of image and

Part- A object is: 1
(i) 1 (ii) greater than 1
1. (a) The distance of an object and its image from
optical centre of a lens are 10 cm and 30 cm (iii) infinite (iv) smaller than 1
(b) When observed from moon, sky appears: 1
 197

(i) violet (ii) blue (iii) black (iv) white 6. (a) Write IUPAC name of the following compound: 2
(c) Four 4W resistances are connected in parallel. CH3
Their equivalent resistance is: 1 CH3
(i) C O (ii) CH3 C CH3
(i) 1W (ii) 4W (iii) 8W (iv) 16W CH3
(d) The device which converts the mechanical energy CH3
into electrical energy: 1
(i) motor (ii) dynamo (b) Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution
change when an iron nail is dipped in it? 2
(iii) transformer (iv) galvanometer
(c) Differentiate between metal and non-metal on the
2. (a) What is mean by magnetic line of force? Give
basis of their chemical properties. 2
properties of its. 2
7. (a) How will you obtain (Give chemical equation
(b) A wire of resistivity ‘r’ is pulled to double its
only) 2
length. What will be its new resistivity? 2
(i) sodium carbonate from solution of common
(c) What is the function of pupil in human eye? 2 salt ( NaCl ) ?
3. (a) Why does the sun appears red at sunrise and at (ii) bleaching powder from slaked lime?
sunset? 4 (b) State and explain Mendeleev’s original periodic
Or In the following circuit, find the equivalent law. Explain main difference of Mendeleev’s
resistance between AB and AC. 4 periodic law and modern periodic law. 2
A
Or Write name of an element having atomic number
36 and what is its place in periodic table? 2
3W 8. (a) What is the difference between saturated and
6W
unsaturated hydrocarbon, clarify with an
example. 3
B C (b) Write the chemical name and molecular formula
6W of baking soda . How is prepared it. Give it
(b) Write the Fleming’s left hand rule and explain it properties and uses. 4
with the help of a suitable diagram. 4
Part -C
Or There are negative charge of 8 ´ 10 -19 C on a
conductor. How many electrons are excess of it? 4 9. (a) Law of Segregation was proposed by : 1
4. A two times larger, virtual image is formed of an object (i) Mendel (ii) Operin
placed at a distance of 20 cm from a lens. Find the
distance of the image and focal length of the lens. Draw (iii) Drawin (iv) Lamarck
a ray-diagram also. 7 (b) Muscular contraction in alimentary canal is
Or Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain called: 1
its principle and working. What is the function of a split (i) digestion(ii)peristaltic movement
ring in an electric motor? 7 (iii) circulation(iv)absorption
Part -B (b) Which of the following is not a fossil fuel? 1
(i) Wood (ii) Coal
5. (a) The functional group in propanal is : 1
(iii) Petroleum (iv) Natural gas
(i) — CHO (ii) C O
(d) Variations in organisms occurs through : 1
(iii) — OH (iv) — OCH 3 (i) vegetative reproduction
(b) The metal which displace hydrogen gas on
(ii) asexual reproduction
reaction with acid is : 1
(iii) sexual reproduction
(i) Zn (ii) Cu (iii) Pt (iv) Ag
(c) Main constituent of natural gas : 1 (iv) spore formation
10. (a) What is stomach? Write its three importance
(i) methane (ii) ethane
functions. 2
(iii) propane (iv) butane
198

(b) With the help of ray-diagram show double Or What is family planning? Describe various
circulation of blood in human. 2 measures to control human population. 4
(c) Draw a labeled diagram of internal structure of 12. Explain the various process upto fertilization and seed
kidney of human. 2 formation in a plant after pollination in a flower. 7
11. (a) Suggest some approaches towards the Or Explain how sexual reproduction gives rise to more
conservation of forest. 4 viable variations than asexual reproduction. How does
this affect the evolution of those organisms that
Or Describe the importance of wild life. 4 reproduce sexually? 7
(b) What will happen if we kill all the organisms in
one trophic level? 4

MODEL PAPER-4
Time : 3 hour 15 minute
Science-X Marks : 70

Or The velocity of light in vacuum is 3 ´ 10 8 m/sec. If

Part- A the refractive index of glass be 1.5, calculate the
1. (a) Far point of a healthy eye is situated at: 1 velocity of light in glass. 4
(i) infinity (ii) 1 meter (b) A bulb is rated 100 W-220 V. Calculate its
resistance. How much current will flow through it
(iii) 50cm (iv) 25cm
if the bulb is used with 220 volt main supply? 4
(b) The sky appears blue due to: 1
Or Calculate the equivalent resistance between A and
(i) reflection of light (ii) refraction of light
B and between A and C in the following circuit: 4
(iii) scattering of light D C
2W
(iv) total internal reflection of light
(c) SI unit of electric current is: 1
2W 2W
(i) coulomb (ii) ampere
(iii) joule (iv) ohm 6W
A B
(d) The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction
is : 1 4. Explain the principle, construction and working of an
AC dynamo with a neat diagram. 7
(i) the process of charging a body.
Or The image of an object, placed at a distance of 10 cm
(ii) the process of generating magnetic field due from a convex lens is formed two times of the object
to a current passing through a coil. towards the same side as that of object. If the object is
(iii) producing induced current in a coil due to placed at a distance of 20 cm on the same side, find the
relative motion between a magnet and the coil. position and magnification of the image. 7
(iv) the process of rotating a coil of an electric Part -B
motor.
2. (a) Explain the difference between alternating 5. (a) Element X forms a chloride with the formula
XCl 2 , which is a solid with a high melting point. X
current and direct current. 2
would most likely be in the same group of the
(b) Write the relation between the distance of an periodic table as : 1
object from the lens ( u), distance of the image (i) Na (ii) Mg (iii) Al (iv) Si
from the lens ( υ) and magnification of lens ( m). 2 (b) Ethane with the molecular formula C 2 H 6 has : 1
(i) 6 covalent bonds (ii) 7 covalent bonds
(c) In spectrum obtained from prism which colour is
(iii) 8 covalent bonds (iv) 9 covalent bonds
found near the base of prism? 2
(c) Which of the following pairs give displacement
3. (a) What is hypermetropia? What kind of lens is used reaction ? 1
to correct this defect? 4 (i) NaCl solution and copper metal
 199

(ii) MgCl 2 solution and aluminium metal (iii) biomass (iv) fossil fuels
(iii) FeSO 4 solution and copper metal (b) One of the following is not a consumer. This one
(iv) AgNO 3 solution and copper metal is : 1
6. (a) Why do HCl, HNO 3 show acidic characters in (i) giraffe (ii) antelope
aqueous solution while solutions of compound (iii) algae (iv) alligator
like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic (c) The Chipko Andolan is associated with : 1
character? 2 (i) tiger (ii) turtles
(b) Write a note on redpx reaction. 2 (iii) trees (iv) tomatoes
(c) Write the two chemical equation of acetic acid. 2 (d) The number of autosomes in sperms are : 1
7. (a) What are flux and slag? 2 (i) 22 (ii) 24 (iii) 42 (iv) 44
(b) Write the position of element with atomic number 10. (a) Describe the chemical nature of gene : 2
11 in the periodic table. 2 (b) Where testes are located in humans? 2
Or State the modern and fundamental periodic law. (c) What is the function of insulin? 2
8. (a) Write the short note on any two : 3
11. (a) What is glomerulus? What role does it plays in
(i) combustion reaction (ii) neutralisation reaction
urine formation? 4
(iii) addition reaction (iv) displacement reaction
Or Describe the respiration process in fish. 4
Or Describe the method for the manufacture of acetic
acid. Also write the uses of it? 3 (b) Describe Human sperm with a labeled diagram. 4
(b) Write the method of preparation of plaster of Or What are homologus organs? How do they
paris? Give its uses also. 4 provide evidence in support of evolution? 4
Or What are soaps? Write mechanism of cleaning 12. What do you understand by sex-chromosomes?
action of soaps. 4 Explain the mechanism of sex-determination in
humans. 7
Part -C Or What is excretion? Describes the mechanism of urine
9. (a) Fuel used in thermal power plants is : 1 formation in human excretory excretory system. 7
(i) water (ii) uranium

MODEL PAPER-5
Time : 3 hour 15 minute
Science-X Marks : 70

Part- A (i) free electrons (ii) protons

1. (a) n conducting wires each of resistance 4W are (iii) ions (iv) neutrons
connected in parallel combination. Their 2. (a) What is long-sightedness? 2
equivalent resistance will be: 1 (b) A mirror forms erect and smaller image than an
(i) 4 n (ii) 4 / n (iii) n / 4 (iv) 4 n 2 object. What is the type of mirror? Is the image
real or virtual? 2
(b) Two lambs are rated 60 W and 100 W,
respectively. If both are operated by a 220 V (c) Find out electric current i flowing in the following
supply, then the ratio of these resistances are: circuit. 2
5 3 9 25
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 10V 2W
3 5 25 9
i 4W
(c) The property of light, due to which sky appears
blue is: 1
4W
(i) reflection (ii) refraction
(iii) scattering (iv) dispersion 3. (a) Define the first and second foci of a convex lens
(d) The current flows in a conducting wire due to: 1 by using proper ray-diagram. 4
200

Or An object of height 5 cm is placed at a distance of Or How can ethanol and ethanoic acid be
50 cm from a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. differentiated on the basis of their physical and
Find out the height and position of the image chemical properties? 3
formed. 4 (b) Nitrogen (Atomic no. 7) and phosphorus (Atomic
(b) How are the resistance connected in series? no. 15) belong to group 15 of the periodic table.
Deduce the expression for this arrangement of the Write the electronic configuration of these two
resistances. 4 elements. Which of these will be more
Or 10 8 electrons are flowing from point A to B in electronegative ? 4
10 - 4 seconds. How much current is flowing and Or Write the four properties of long form periodic
in which direction? The charge on an electron table. 4
= 1.6 ´ 10 -19 coulomb. 4 Part -C
4. What do you mean by electromagnetic induction?
Write down the faraday law of an electromagnetic 9. (a) The causal organism of AIDS is : 1
induction. 7
(i) atom (ii) bacteria
Or The resistance of resistor is 5W when its length is l and
(iii) fungus (iv) virus
cross-sectional area A. Find the value of resistance of
another resistor of same material of length l / 2 and (b) Ammonia is converted into urea in : 1
cross- sectional area 2A. 7 (i) liver (ii) pancreas
Part -B (iii) stomach (iv) kidney
(c) Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for
5. (a) The ore of copper is : 1
green-house effect? 1
(i) haematite (ii) malachite
(i) Coating with black colour inside the box
(iii) carnallite (iv) cryolite
(ii) Mirror (iii) Glass sheet
(b) Which of the following is weak acid ? 1
(iv) Outer cover of the solar cooker
(i) H 2SO 4 (ii) HClO 4
(d) Gastric juice is secreted from : 1
(iii) CH 3COOH (iv) HCl
(i) pancreas (ii) gall bladder
(c) IUPAC name of HCOOH is : 1
(iii) stomach (iv) liver
(i) Ethanoic acid (ii) Methanoic acid
10. (a) Describes sexual reproduction in flowering
(iii) Propanoic acid (iv) none of these plants. 2
6. (a) Write a short note on diagonal relationship. 2
(b) What is the relationship between gene and
(b) How does the electronic configuration of an atom chromosomes. 2
rotate to its position in modern periodic table. 2
(c) Write two difference between aerobic and
(c) Why is respiration considered as an exothermic anaerobic respiration. 2
reaction. 2
11. (a) Describe female reproductive system of human. 4
7. (a) With the help of chemical equation explain how a
Or What is the significance of photosynthesis? 4
soda-acid fire extinguisher helps in putting out a
(b) Describe the mechanism of absorption of water by
fire. 2
the root with the help of diagram. 4
(b) In the electrolytic refining of a metal M. What
would you take as the anode, the cathode and the Or Describe the autotrops and heterotrophs. 4
electricity? 2 12. What is digestion? With the help of the diagram,
describe the process of digestion of food in man. 7
8. (a) Which of the following hydrocarbon undergo
addition reaction? Give reason.
C 2 H 6 , C 3 H 8 , C 3 H 6 , C 2 H 2 and CH 4 . 3