Level - 01 - Aptimantra - Merged
Level - 01 - Aptimantra - Merged
Level - 01 - Aptimantra - Merged
&
REASONING APTITUDE
[LEVEL – 01 – MODULE – 1190 QUESTIONS]
AVERAGE,
4 ALLIGATION & MIXTURES
45 15
PERCENTAGE,
5 PROFIT & LOSS, 60 19
DISCOUNTS
10 MENSURATION 30 42
11 DATA INTERPRETATION 25 46
13 LOGARITHM 25 51
1 SYLLOGISM 25 53
2 DIRECTION SENSE 25 57
3 BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 25 60
5 LOGICAL ANALOGY 30 66
6 NUMBER SERIES 25 68
9 DATA SUFFICIENCY 30 78
11 CODING INEQUALITIES 30 84
12 CRITICAL REASONING 25 87
1 READING COMPREHENSION 35 96
2 SYNONYMS 20 101
3 ANTONYMS 20 101
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“APTI–MANTRA”
divisible by 3 since the sum of the digits 1 + 2 + 3 + factors of the second number which are not
7 + 5 = 18 is divisible by 3. common to the prime factors of the first number
and this process can be continued for further
Divisibility by 9: If the sum of the digits of the
numbers if any.
given number is divisible by 9 then the actual
Example: Find the LCM of 48, 72, 140?
number will also be divisible by 9. e.g., 732753 is
48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3
divisible by 9, since 7 + 3 + 2 + 7 + 5 + 3 = 27 is
72 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
divisible by 9.
140 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 7
Divisibility by 5: A number is divisible by 5 if and LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 5040.
only if the last digit is either 0 or 5.
Division Method:
Divisibility by 6: A number is divisible by 6 only Example: Find the LCM of 108, 135, 162?
when it is divisible by 2 and 3 both. So first of all we 2 108, 135, 162
see that the number is even or not then we check 2 54, 135, 81
for the divisibility by 3. 3 27, 135, 81
Divisibility by 10: A number is divisible by 10 if 3 9, 45, 27
and only if when it is divisible by both 2 and 5. So it 3 3, 15, 9
can be easily observed that a number is divisible by 3 1, 5, 3
10 must ends up with zero(s) at the right end (i.e., 5 1, 5, 1
last digits) of itself. 1, 1, 1
Thus the required LCM = 2×2×3×3×3×3×5=1620.
Divisibility by 11: A number is divisible by 11 if
the difference between the sum of the digits at odd
places and sum of the digits at even places is equal HCF of Fractions =
to zero or multiples of 11.
LCM of Fractions =
HIGHEST COMMON FACTOR (HCF):
HCF of two or more numbers is the greatest Given two numbers A & B,
possible number that can divide all these numbers (LCM of A & B) × (HCF of A & B) =
exactly, without leaving a remainder. Product of A & B
Basically there are two methods of finding the HCF:
Factor Method: In this method we break the UNIT DIGIT:
numbers in to the prime factors then take the The concept of unit digit can be learned by figuring
product of all the common factors. out the unit digits of all the single digit numbers
Example: Find the HCF of 84, 126?
from 0 - 9 when raised to certain powers.
84 = 2 × 3 × 7 × 2, 126 = 2 × 3 × 7 × 3
So, the HCF of 84 and 126 = 2 × 3 × 7 = 42. These numbers can be broadly classified into three
categories for this purpose:
Division Method: Consider two smallest numbers
then divide the larger one of them by the smaller Digits 0, 1, 5 & 6: When we observe the behavior
one and then divide this divisor by the remainder of these digits, they all have the same unit's digit as
and again divide this remainder by the next the number itself when raised to any power,
remainder and so on until the remainder is zero.
i.e. 0^n = 0, 1^n =1, 5^n = 5, 6^n = 6.
Example: Find the HCF of 120 and 180?
Let's apply this concept to the following example.
120 180 1 Example: Find the unit digit of following numbers:
120 175563 Answer= 5
60 120 2
281 6987 Answer= 1
120
x Hence, 60 is the HCF. 196 25369 Answer= 6
270654789321 Answer= 0
LEAST COMMON MULTIPLE (LCM):
Digits 4 & 9: Both these numbers have a cyclicity of
Basically, there are two methods to find the LCM. only two different digits as their unit's digit.
Factor Method: Resolve the given numbers into Let us take a look at how the powers of 4 operate:
their prime factors, then take the product of all the 41 = 4, 42 = 16, 43 = 64, and so on.
prime factors of the first number with those prime
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Hence, the power cycle of 4 contains only 2 EXERCISE: (LEVEL - 01)
numbers 4 & 6, which appear in case of odd and
DIVISIBILITY PROBLEMS
even powers respectively.
1. If the number 481*673 is completely divisible by
Likewise, the powers of 9 operate as follows:
9, then the smallest whole number in place of *
91 = 9, 92 = 81, 93 = 729, and so on.
will be:
Hence, the power cycle of 9 also contains only 2
a) 2 c) 7
numbers 9 & 1, which appear in case of odd and
b) 5 d) 6
even powers respectively.
So, broadly these can be remembered in even 2. Which of the following number is divisible by 2,
and odd only, 5 and 9?
i.e. 4odd = 4 and 4even = 6. a) 1490 c) 720340
Likewise, 9odd = 9 and 9even = 1. b) 194545 d) 125370
Example: Find the unit digit of following numbers: 3. Which of the following number is divisible by
11?
189562589743 Answer = 9 (power is odd)
a) 2125821 c) 502678
279698745832 Answer = 1 (power is even)
154258741369 Answer = 4 (power is odd) b) 4587963 d) 125370
Digits 2, 3, 7 & 8: These numbers have a power 4. What highest value must be assigned to x so that
cycle of 4 different numbers. 2684 x 56 is divisible by 8?
21 = 2, 22 = 4, 23 = 8 & 24 = 16 and after that it starts a) 2 c) 8
repeating. b) 6 d) 9
So, the cyclicity of 2 has 4 different numbers 2, 4, 8, 5. If 42573k is divisible by 72 then the value of k
6. is?
31 = 3, 32 = 9, 33 = 27 & 34 = 81 and after that it a) 4 c) 6
starts repeating. b) 5 d) 7
So, the cyclicity of 3 has 4 different numbers 3, 9, 7,
6. A number when divided by 5 leaves a remainder
1. of 4, when double (i.e., twice) of that number is
7 and 8 follow similar logic. divided by 5 the remainder will be?
So these four digits i.e. 2, 3, 7 and 8 have a unit digit a) 0 c) 3
cyclicity of four steps. b) 1 d) can’t be determined
7. What will be the least number which when
NUMBER CYCLICITY POWER CYCLE doubled will be exactly divisible by 12, 18, 21
1 1 1 and 30?
2 4 2, 4, 8, 6 a) 196 c) 1260
b) 630 d) 2520
3 4 3, 9, 7, 1
4 2 4, 6 8. What is the least possible number which when
divided by 18, 35, or 42 it leaves the 2, 19, 26 as
5 1 5 the remainders respectively?
6 1 6 a) 600 c) 614
7 4 7, 9, 3, 1 b) 612 d) None of these
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10. A number when divided by 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 leaves the b) 20 d) 30
remainder 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 respectively. Find the
18. When a number is divided by 7 the remainder is
largest 5 digit number?
a) 99940 c) 99989 4 and when the number is divided by 6, the
b) 99959 d) 99912 remainder is 3. What will be number?
a) 32 c) 39
DIVISIBILITY USING REMAINDER
b) 46 d) 53
11. A number when divided by 6 leaves a remainder
3. When the square of the number is divided by 19. 64329 is divided by a certain number. While
6,the remainder is dividing the number 175, 114 and 213 appear as
a) 0 c) 2 three successive remainder, the divisor is?
b) 1 d) 3 a) 184 c) 234
b) 224 d) 6250
12. A number when divided successively by 4 and 5
leaves remainders 1 and 4 respectively. When it 20. 294 divides a certain number, leaves remainder
is successively divided by 5 and 4,then the 213. If 14 divide the same remainder, then what
remainder is is the remainder?
a) 1, 2 c) 3, 2 a) 1 c) 2
b) 2, 3 d) 4, 1 b) 4 d) 3
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a) 4 c) 15 35. Find the Unit digit:
b) 10 d) 16
a) 5 c) 7
26. Three bells in the Amarnath temple toll at the
b) 6 d) 8
interval of 48, 72 and 108 second individually. If
they have toll all together at 6: 00 AM then at 36. Find the unit digit of the expression
what time will they toll together after 6 : 00 AM
and how many times these bells will toll a) 6 c) 0
together till the 6 : 00 PM on the same day? b) 7 d) 4
a) 6:07:12 AM, 101 c) 6:08AM, 101
37. Find the unit digit of the expression
b) 6:09:11 AM, 100 d) 6:07:12AM, 100
27. Find the HCF of ( is? a) 9 c) 0
a) 5 c) 31 b) 5 d) 4
b) 2 d) None of these
38. The digit in unit’s place of the product
28. Product of co-prime number is 117. Their L.C.M 71 × 72 × ..... × 79 is
should be : a) 2 c) 6
a) 1 c) 117 b) 0 d) 8
b) equal to their H.C.F d) none of these
39. What is the unit digit of the expression
29. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are 84 and 8^56 - 2^56 ?
21 respectively. If the ratio of the two numbers a) 2 c) 6
b) 4 d) None of these
is 1: 4, then the larger of the two numbers is
a) 12 c) 84 40. Find the Unit digit of
b) 46 d) 108 a) 3 c) 7
b) 1 d) 9
30. The product of the L.C.M. and H.C.F. of two
numbers is 24. The difference of two numbers is
2. Find the numbers.
COGNIZANT – LATEST
a) 2 and 4 c) 8 and 6 41. If 764xy is divisible by 90, then what is the value
b) 6 and 4 d) 8 and 10 of x + y?
a) 1 c) 5
UNIT DIGIT [OR] CYCLICITY RULE
b) 3 d) 6
31. Find the last digit of 264 * 367
a) 2 c) 8 42. If LCM and HCF of two numbers are 162 and 9
respectively. Prime factors of the product of two
b) 4 d) 6
numbers are:
32. Find the unit digit of a) 3 and 7 c) 2 and 5
× b) 3 and 5 d) 2 and 3
a) 8 c) 5
43. If LCM and HCF of two numbers are equal and
b) 4 d) 1
product of two numbers is 3136, find the HCF of
33. Find the unit digit of the expression the numbers.
a) 44 c) 54
a) 8 c) 3 b) 46 d) 56
b) 7 d) 1 44. What is unit digit of the sum?
1 +2²+33 +44 +55 +66?
34. Find the unit digit of the expression
a) 4 c) 0
b) 9 d) 7
a) 1 c) 5
b) 4 d) 6
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45. Find the least number which when divided by 5,
7 and 13 leaves the same remainder 3 in each
case? BRAIN TWISTER
a) 398 c) 458
b) 453 d) 197
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NUMBER OF ODD FACTORS:
CHAPTER – 2 To get the number of odd factors of a number N
first of all express the number N as,
NUMBER SYSTEMS N=(
(where are the odd prime factors and e
ADVANCED – FACTORS, is the even prime factor)
NUMBER OF ZEROS, HIGHEST POWER, Then the total number of odd factors
= (a + 1) (b + 1) (c + 1)....
REMAINDER THEOREM
NUMBER OF EVEN FACTORS:
FACTORS AND MULTIPLES:
Number of even factors of a number
When two or more integers are multiplied together = (Total number of factors of the given number –
the resultant value is called their product. Total number of odd factors)
For example, 4 × 5 = 20, 3×5×11 = 165
where 20, 165 are called the products.
But we see that 20 = 4 × 5
EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01)
it means 4 and 5 are the factors of 20. REMAINDER THEOREM
1. Find the remainder when (269) 5 7 5 8 7 is
Prime Factorisation: If a number is expressed as
the product of prime numbers (factors) then the divided by 6?
factorisation of the numbers is called prime a) 2 c) 5
factorisation. b) 4 d) 6
For example,
72 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 2. Find the remainder when 1753 X 1749 X
420 = 2× 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 83 X 171 is divided by 17?
a) 5 c) 7
NUMBER OF FACTORS OF GIVEN NUMBER: b) 6 d) 8
Let there be a composite number N and its prime 3. Find the remainder when 7 7 3 is divided
factors be a, b, c, d, ....etc and p, q, r, s, .... etc, be the by 9?
powers of the a, b, c, d,... etc respectively, i.e., if N a) 5 c) 7
can be expressed as b) 6 d) 8
N= × × ..... 4. Find the remainder when 13 2 3 9 is
then the number of total divisors of N is, divided by 16?
= (p + 1) × (q + 1) × (r + 1) × (s + 1)....... a) 5 c) 7
b) 6 d) 8
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b) 1 d) 3 a) c)
9. What is the remainder when 9^1 +9^2 +9^3 b) d) 16
+....+9^9 is divided by 6? 20. Find the number of prime factors of 6 * 7 * 55?
a) 5 c) 3 a) 54 c) 91
b) 4 d) 1 b) 85 d) 108
10. What is the remainder when 4^31 is divided TRAILING NUMBER OF ZEROS
by 10? 21. Find the number of Zeros at the end of the
a) 4 c) 8 following expression 125!
b) 6 d) None of these a) 30 c) 29
b) 31 d) 28
FACTORS
11. Find number of factors for 120? 22. Find the number of Zeros at the end of the
a) 12 c) 16 following expression 100! + 200!
b) 14 d) 18 a) 24 c) 74
b) 49 d) None
12. Find number of Odd factors for 150?
a) 6 c) 7 23. What is the number of zero at the end of the
b) 8 d) 9 product 25! *32! *45!
13. Find number of even factors for 240? a) 10 c) 14
b) 12 d) None
a) 12 c) 16
b) 14 d) 18 24. How many zeros are in
10×20×30×40×…×100?
14. Find number of even factors for 729?
a) 0 c) 6
a) 0 c) 2 b) 5 d) 12
b) 1 d) 3
25. How many zeros are there in
15. Find the sum of factors of ? 1¹×2²×3³×4⁴ … ×100¹⁰⁰?
a) 3420 c) 3244 a) 900 c) 1200
b) 3240 d) 3400 b) 1100 d) 1300
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BRAIN TWISTER CHAPTER – 3
RATIO & PROPORTION,
AGES, PARTNERSHIP
RATIO: The comparison between two quantities in
terms of their magnitude is called the ratio.
The ratio of any two quantities is expressed as
or a:b.
The numerator ‘a’ is called antecedent and
denominator ‘b’ is called consequent.
Properties:
Compound ratio of a : b and c:d is ‘ac : bd’
Inverse ratio of a : b is =b:a
Inverse ratio of a : b : c is
Duplicate ratio of a : b is
Triplicate ratio of a : b is
Sub duplicate ratio of a : b is
Properties:
If a, b, c, d are in proportion then a × d = b × c
If a, b , c are three numbers such that a : b = b :
c
then these numbers a, b, c are said to be in
continued proportion.
b×b=a×c
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EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01) 11. Rs. 3960 are divided among A, B and C so that
half of A’s part, one third of B’s part and one
RATIO & PROPORTION sixth of C’s part are equal. Then C’s part is:
1. If a : b = 5 : 9 and b : c = 4 : 7, find a : b : c. a) 720 c) 2160
a) 20: 36:63 c) 23:11:32 b) 810 d) 1080
b) 11:13:12 d) None of these
12. The salaries A, B, C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If
2. The inverse ratio of 3 : 2 : 1 is? the increments of 15%, 10% and 20% are
a) 1:2:3 c) 3:1:2 allowed respectively in their salaries, then
b) 2:3:1 d) 2:3:6 what will be new ratio of their salaries?
3. Given ratio are- a:b = 2:3 ; b:c = 5:2 ; c:d = 1:4 a) 3:3:10 c) 23:33:60
Find a: b: c: d. b) 10:11:20 d) None of these
a) 10:15:6:24 c) 15:10:6:24
13. In a mixture of 120 litres, the ratio of milk and
b) 10:18:6:27 d)None of these
water is 2 : 1. If the ratio of milk and water is 1:
4. Find the mean proportional between 0.08 and 2, then the amount of water required to be
0.18? added is?
a) 0.11 c) 0.12 a) 20 c) 80
b) 0.09 d) 0.16 b) 40 d) 120
5. The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is
14. The ratio of the incomes of Chetan and Dinesh
a) 18 c) 19 is 3:4. The ratio of their expenditures is 5:7. If
b) 24 d) 20 e) 21 each of them saves Rs.200, find the incomes of
6. Divide Rs. 1162 among A, B, C in the ratio 35 : both?
28 : 20? a) Rs.600, Rs.800 c) Rs.1500, Rs.2000
a) 490:392:280 c) 490:280:392 b) Rs.1200, Rs.1600 d) Rs.1800, Rs.2400
b) 490:392:290 d) None of these 15. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of
7. The ratio of length to width of a rectangle 5% of A and 4% of B is two-third of the sum of
sheet of paper is 5 : 3. If the width of the sheet 6% of A and 8% of B. Find the ratio of A : B is
is 18 cm, find its length? a) 4 : 3 c) 1 : 1
a) 90cm c) 54cm b) 3 : 4 d) 2 : 3
b) 30cm d) 15cm
16. Zinc and copper are in the ratio 5 : 3 in 400 gm
8. Two numbers are in the ratio 3:5. If 9 is of an alloy. How much of copper (in grams)
subtracted from each, the new numbers are in should be added to make the ratio 5 :4?
the ratio 12:23. The smaller number is:
a) 66 c) 50
a) 33 c) 49
b) 72 d) 200
b) 57 d) 63
17. A Zoo has 66 fishes, some white and rest
9. The ratio of number of girls and boys in a orange. Which of the following could be the
college is 7:8. If the percentage increase in ratio of white to orange fishes in the zoo?
number of girls and boys is 20% and 10%
a) 1 : 7 c) 3 : 7
respectively. What will be the new ratio?
b) 2 : 9 d) 2 : 5
a) 42:44 c) 21:22
b) 84:82 d) 11:12 18. A boy has a few coins of denominations 50
10. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, paise, 25 paise and 10 paise in the ratio 1: 2: 3.
B, C, D in the proportion 5:2:4:3. If C gets Rs. If the total amount of the coins is Rs. 6.50, the
1000 more than D, What is B’s share? number of 50 paise coins is?
a) 3000 c) 4000 a) 5 c) 15
b) 2000 d) 5000 b) 10 d) 20
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19. The ratio between the boys and girls in a class PROBLEM ON AGES
is 6: 5 respectively. If 8 more boys join the 26. The present ages of 3 persons are in the
class and two girls leave the class then the proportion 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of
respective ratio becomes 11: 7. What is the their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in
number of girls in the class now? years)?
a) 8, 14, 18 c) 16, 28, 36
a) 44 c) 28
b) 12, 21, 27 d) 20, 35, 45
b) 38 d) 36
27. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of kunal and
20. The income of A and B are in the ratio 5: 3. The sagar was 6:5. Four years hence, the ratio of
expenses of A, B and C are in the ratio 8: 5: 2. If their ages will be 11:10. What is sagar’s age at
C spends Rs. 2000 and B saves Rs. 700, then A present?
saves? a) 10 c) 14
a) 250 c) 500 b) 18 d) 16
b) 1000 d) 1500 28. A person’s present age is two-fifth of the age of
21. The ratio between the male and female his mother. After 8 years, he will be one-half of
existing employees in an organization is 7: 4. the age of his mother. How old is the mother at
present?
The ratio between the male and female new
a) 38 c) 40
recruits of 240 is 5 : 7. What will be the new
b) 43 d) 46
ratio between male and female employees
29. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two
after the recruits join the organization?
years, his age will be twice the age of his son.
a) 6 : 5 c) 3 : 2
The present age of the son is
b) 5 : 4 d) can’t determine
a) 14 years c) 20 years
22. The total number of 3 different colored pens in
b) 18 years d) 22 years
a box is 91. If the ratio between red colored
and green colored pen is 5 : 2 and the number 30. Q is much younger than R as he is older than T.
of green pen is 33 1/3% of blue pens then find If the sum of the ages of R and T is 60 years.
the difference between the red colored and What is definitely the difference between R
green colored pen. and Q’s age?
a) 28 c) 21 a) 1 year c) 25 years
b) 35 d) 14 b) 2 years d) Data inadequate
31. A father is now three times as old as his son.
23. If the ratio of three sides of a triangle is 3 : 4 : 5 Five years back, he was four times as old as his
then find the difference between the smallest Son. The age of the son is
and largest angle. (in degrees) a) 12 c) 18
a) 45 c) 15 b) 15 d) 20
b) 30 d) 50
32. Three years hence, the ratio of A and B will be
24. If a/7 = b/3 = c/5 then find the ratio between 7:5. The age of A two years hence is equal to
a, b and c two times of age of B, 5 years ago. What is the
a) 3 : 4 : 5 c) 7 : 3 : 5 present age of A?
b) 3 : 6 : 7 d) 5 : 7 : 3 a) 24 years c) 32 years
25. If A : B + C = 2 : 5, B : A + C = 1 : 2 then find b) 26 years d) 38 years
C : A + B? 33. The respective ratio between the present age
a) 8 : 13 c) 13 : 5 of daughter, mother, father and grandmother
b) 5 : 13 d) 13 : 8 is 2:5:6:11. The average age of daughter and
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mother is 28 years, what will be 40. A is 8 years older than B and B is 12 years
grandmother's age after 12 years? younger than C. If the sum of the ages of A, B
a) 102 c) 99 and C is 80 years, then what is B’s age after 10
b) 96 d) 100 years?
a) 20 years c) 28 years
34. The ratio of the ages of Anil and Sunil, 6 years
b) 30 years d) 22 years
ago was 8:5 respectively. After 2 years, the age
of Sunil will be 25% less than that of Anil. PARTNERSHIP
What is the present age of Anil? 41. A starts business with Rs. 3500 and after 5
a) 20 years c) 22 years months, B joins with A as his partner. After a
year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2:3. What
b) 21 years d) 23 years
is B’s contribution in the capital?
35. The sum of the present ages of mother and a) 3000 c) 9000
daughter is 51 years. Six years ago, mother’s b) 6000 d) 12000
age is 12 times of the age of daughter and the 42. A and B invested Rs.8000, Rs.4000. After six
ratio of the ages of mother to father is 14:15, months, C joined them with Rs.20000. what
then find the difference between the age of will be B’s share in total profit of Rs.25000
Daughter and father. earned at the end of 2 years from the starting
a) 30 years c) 33 years of the business?
b) 36 years d) 27 years a) 15:13:12 c) 13:15:16
b) 12:13:16 d) 12:15:16
36. Navin is three years older than Babu who is
43. A and B enter into a partnership for a year. A
two years younger to Raj. If the total ages of
contributes Rs.1500 and B contributes
Navin, Babu and Raj be 74, then what is Raje’s
Rs.2000. After 4 months, they admit C, who
age?
contributes Rs.2250. If B withdraws his
a) 24 years c) 25 years
contribution after 9 months, how would they
b) 23 years d) 26 years
share a profit of Rs.900 at the end of the year?
37. The age of Sajan is a multiple of 4. The sum of a) 6: 8: 9 c) 1: 1: 1
the age of Sajan and his age four years ago is b) 8: 6: 9 d) 1: 2: 3
44 years. What was the age of Sajan 2 years
44. A started a business with Rs. 3500 and after 5
ago?
months, B joins with A as his partner. After a
a) 24 years c) 22 years
year, profit is divided in the ratio 2:3. What is
b) 23 years d) 25 years
B’s contribution in the capital?
38. Sum of the ages of A, B and C is 102 years and a) Rs. 7500 c) Rs. 8500
B is 6 years elder than A. If the ratio of the b) Rs. 8000 d) Rs. 9000
present age of A and C is 3:2, the find the
45. Satheesh started a business investing
present age of B?
Rs.60000. After 3 months, Sunil joined him
a) 42 years c) 38 years
with a capital of Rs.75,000. After another 6
b) 45 years d) 48 years
months, Subhash joined them with a capital of
39. The ratio of the ages of Oviya to Kavin is 5:6. Rs.105000. At the end of the year, they made a
The age of Kavin after 8 years is 100% more profit of Rs.19000. Find the share of each.
than the age of Oviya’s two years ago. What is a) Rs.8500, Rs. 7000, Rs. 3500
the average present age of Oviya and Kavin? b) Rs.8000, Rs. 7500, Rs. 3500
a) 22.5 years c) 33.5 years c) Rs. 8000, Rs. 6500, Rs. 4500
b) 16.5 years d) 18.5 years d) Rs. 8500, Rs. 6500, Rs. 4000
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46. A, B and C started the business with the
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investment in the ratio of 1/3:4/5:5/6
respectively. After 6 months B left the 51. Price of each article of type P, Q, and R is Rs.
business. At the end of year, the total profit of 300, Rs. 180 and Rs. 120 respectively. Suresh
the business is Rs.14100, find the profit of A? buys articles of each type in the ratio 3:2:3 in
a) Rs.2700 c) Rs.2400 Rs. 6480. How many articles of type Q did he
b) Rs.2800 d) Rs.3000 purchase?
a) 8 c) 20
47. A started the business with the investment of b) 14 d) None of these
Rs.6000. After 4 months, B joined him with the
52. The ratio of market prices of wheat and paddy
investment is 25% more than the initial
is 2:3 and the ratio of quantities consumed in a
investment of A. At the end of year, A received
family is 5:4. Find the ratio of expenditure of
Rs.2700 as profit share out of the total profit,
wheat and paddy.
then find the profit share of B? a) 6:5 c) 1:1
a) Rs. 2250 c) Rs. 2500 b) 5:6 d) 8:15
b) Rs. 2450 d) Rs. 2000
53. The ratio of numbers of girls and boys
48. There are two partners P and Q enter into a participating in sports of a school is 4:5. If the
partnerships with the capitals of Rs.( x + 1000) number of girls is 212, determine the number
and Rs.( 3 + 3000) respectively. After 5 of boys participating in the sports.
months, R joined him with the capital of Rs.(x + a) 256 c) 251
7000). The ratio of the profit shares of P, Q and b) 265 d) 263
R at the end of one year is 2: 3: 5 respectively.
54. If A:B = 2:3, B:C = 4:5 and C:D = 6:7, then
Find the sum of the capitals invested by P, Q
A:B:C:D is
and R together. a) 16:24:30:35 c) 24:16:30:35
a) Rs. 10000 c) Rs. 30000 b) 35:30:24:16 d) 16:30:24:35
b) Rs. 20000 d) Rs. 40000
55. The three numbers are in the ratio 1/2 : 2/3 :
49. A invested Rs.500 while B invested Rs.800 in a 3/4. The difference between greatest and
partnership business. After 1 year, A withdrew smallest numbers is 36. Find the numbers.
Rs.200 while B withdrew Rs.300 and C joined a) 72, 84, 108 c) 72, 108, 84
them with a capital of Rs.600. Find the profit b) 60, 72, 96 d) 72, 96, 108
share of C, if the total profit received by all of 56. How many toffees were distributed in the total
them after 3 years is Rs.2050. among Ankit, Aniket and Anuj in the ratio
a) Rs. 250 c) Rs. 450 2:3:7, if Aniket receives 84 toffees in total?
b) Rs. 300 d) Rs. 600 a) 300 c) 324
b) 312 d) 336
50. P and Q started a partnership business with
the capital of Rs.15000 and Rs.12000 57. Parul is one -fifth the age her mother was 15
respectively. After certain months, R joined years ago and Parul’s brother is three-fifth the
with the capital of Rs.45000. After 1 year, the age his mother was 10 years ago. If sum of
Parul and his brother’s ages is 31, then how
ratio of the profit obtained by them is 2: 5: 2
old is Parul’s mother?
respectively. After how many months did R
a) 50 c) 35
invest his capital?
b) 40 d) 60
a) 2 c) 6
b) 4 d) 8
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the initial investment of A?
TCS – NINJA - LATEST a) Rs. 3,00,000 c) Rs. 2,70,000
b) Rs. 1,80,000 d) Rs. 2,40,000
58. What is the fourth proportional of 0.006, 1.2 &
6/25?
a) 36 c) 4.8
b) 48 d) 3.6
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MEAN PRICE: The cost price of a unit quantity of
CHAPTER – 4 the mixture is called the mean price.
Mean price
Properties: (m)
If each quantity is increased by a certain value
‘k’ then the new average is increased by K.
If each quantity is decreased by a certain value (d-m) (m-c)
‘k’ then the new average is decreased by K.
Cheaper quantity : Dearer quantity = (d-m):(m-c)
If each value is multiplied by a certain value K,
then the new average is the product of old
average with K.
EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01)
If each value is divided by a certain quantity ‘k’, 1. Find the average of prime numbers between1
to 35?
then the new average becomes times of the
a) 14.545 c) 12.545
initial average where K ≠ 0. b) 13.545 d) None of these
WEIGHTED AVERAGE: If the number of elements 2. Find the average of all numbers between 9 and
in ‘n’ different groups be and the 49 divisible by 5?
averages of the respective groups be a) 28.5 c) 26
then the b) 27.5 d) 26.5
3. Average of 5 consecutive odd numbers is 29.
Weighted average = Find the last number?
a) 33 c) 34
b) 32 d) 38
4. If a, b, c, d and e are five consecutive odd
numbers, and then their average is
AVERAGE SPEED: If a person moves x km at a a) b c) d
speed of u km/hr and further he goes or comes b) c d) Data inadequate
back the same distance x km at a speed of v km/hr, 5. Find the average of consecutive even numbers
then average speed = is 40, 42, 44, 46, 48, 50, and 52
a) 48 c) 47
b) 46 d) 43
Important formulas: 6. The average age of 36 students in a group is
14 years. When teacher's age is included to it,
Average of first ‘n’ natural numbers the average increases by one. What is the
Average of first ‘n’ even numbers = ( n + 1) teacher's age in years?
a) 31 c) 51
Average of first ‘n’ odd numbers = n b) 36 d) Cant be determined
ALLIGATION: It is a rule that enables us to find the 7. There are 50 students in the class room.
ratio in which two or more ingredients at the given Average weight of the 50 students is 50kg. If 5
price must be mixed to produce a mixture of a students are getting admission the average
desired price.
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weight is decreased by 0.5kg. Find the average weight is greater than 60kg and less than 70kg.
weight of the new students in the class? His mother’s view is that his weight cannot be
a) 40.5 c) 42.5 greater than 68kg. If all of them are correct in
b) 45 d) 44.5 their estimation, what is the average of
8. The average age of 20 students in the class is different probable weights of Arun?
17 years. If 10 students are discontinued then a) 66 c) 67
the average age decreased by 1 year, then find b) 66.5 d) 67.5
the average age of discontinued students in 15. The average weight of 11 players of Indian
years? cricket team is increased by 1 kg, when one
a) 17 c) 20 player of the team weighing 55kg replaced by
b) b)18 d) 19 a new player. The weight of the new player is:
9. The average of marks of 14 students was a) 55kg c) 66kg
calculated as 71. But it was later found that the b) 64kg d) None
marks of one student had been wrongly 16. Average price of 42 pens is Rs.82, highest price
entered as 42 instead of 56 and another as 74 of a pen is 150.What is the price lowest price
instead of 32. The correct average is of a pen if average of others 40 pen prices is
a) 67 c) 69 81?
b) 68 d) 71 a) 66 c) 62
10. In 1997 World cup Indian team scored b) 50 d) 54
average of 250 runs in 10 matches. After the 17. There are 100 students in three departments
11th match Indian team average score [X, Y and Z] of a college. Average marks of all
increased by 2 runs, find the last match (11th the student is 82.7. Average marks of X and Z is
match) score? 83. Average marks of Y are 82, then find
a) 252 c) 282 number of students in Y?
b) 272 d) 232 a) 30 c) 47
b) 78 d) 39
11. If the average marks of three batches of 55, 60
and 45students respectively is 50, 55, 60, then 18. In a joint family the average age of
the average marks of all the students is grandparents is 67 years, the average age of
a) 50 c) 58 parents is 35 years and age of grand children
b) 54.68 d) 61 is 6 years. What is the average age of the
family?
12. A library has an average of 510 visitors on a) 42 c) 36
Sundays and 240 on other days. The average b) 69 d) 49
number of visitors per day in a month of 30
days beginning with a Sunday is? 19. The average age of a class of 15 boys is 11
a) 245 c) 285 years. If 5 new boys having average age of 9
b) b) 265 d) 295 years join the class, then the average age of the
class becomes
13. A grocer has a scale of Rs.6435, Rs.6927, a) 1.2 c) 10.5
Rs.6855, Rs.7230 and RS.6562 for 5 b) 3.3 d) 4.6
consecutive months. How much sale must he
have in the sixth month so that he gets an 20. The average temperature of the first three
average scale of Rs.6500? days is 27°c and that of the next three days is
a) 6825 c) 4991 29°c. If the average of the entire week is
b) 4839 d) 4583 28.5°c, then the temperature of the last day is
a) 12.3 c) 31.5
14. In Arun’s opinion his weight is greater than b) 22.5 d) 3.3
65kg but less than 72kg. His brother does not
agree with Arun and he thinks that Arun’s
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21. If the difference between the average of 1st, solution so that the resultant solution has 40%
2nd and 2nd, 3rd is 12, then find the difference methyl alcohol in it?
between 1st and 3rd number? a) 1:2 c) 3:2
a) 11 c) 17 b) 2:1 d) None of these
b) 24 d) 14
29. A jar full of whisky contains 40% alcohol. A
22. Average age of 32 students in a class is 14 part of this whisky is replaced by another
years. The age of their teacher is 41 years, containing 19% alcohol and now the
what is the average age of the students and percentage of alcohol was found to be 26%.
teacher combined? The quantity of whisky replaced is:
a) 11.3 c) 14.36 a) 2/5 c) 2/3
b) 14.81 d) 14.17 b) 2/7 d) 3/2
23. Average age of father and six children is 14 30. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which
years, which is reduced by 4 years if the age of he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit.
father is excluded. Find the age of father? He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold
a) 38 c) 35 at 18% profit is:
b) 39 d) 36 a) 600kg c) 800kg
24. The average of three numbers is 84. If another b) 700kg d) 400kg
number is included the average becomes 80. If 31. A container contains 40 liters of milk. From
another number is included which are 3 more this container 4 liters of milk was taken out
than 4th number replace the 1st number then and replaced by water. This process was
average of four numbers become 79. Find the repeated two times further. How much milk is
value of 1st number? now contained by the container?
a) 12 c) 75 a) 36.14 lit c) 29.16 lit
b) 11 d) 9
b) 28.12 lit d) 24.11 lit
25. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is
657. Also average of four consecutive even 32. 6 liters of pure milk is added to 10 liters of a
numbers is 84. What is the sum of smallest odd mixture of water and milk, with 40% milk.
number and second largest even number? What is the percentage of milk in the new
a) 222 c) 239 solution?
b) 202 d) 269 a) 50% c) 75%
b) 62.5% d) 87.5%
ALLIGATIONS & MIXTURES
26. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties 33. There are 20 liters of mixture of water and
of pulses costing Rs. 15 and Rs. 20 per kg milk with 30% of milk. How many liters of
respectively, so as to get a mixture worth Rs. pure milk have to be added to the mixture, so
16.50 per kg? that, the ratio of water to milk in the new
a) 3:7 c) 7:1 solution is 1:1?
b) 6:2 d) 7:3 a) 14 lit c) 8 lit
b) 6 lit d) 10 lit
27. The cost of Type 1 rice is Rs. 15 per kg and
Type 2 rice is Rs. 20 per kg. If both Type 1 and 34. In a mixture of milk and water, there is only
Type 2 are mixed in the ratio of 2:3, then the 26% water. After replacing the mixture with 7
price per kg of the mixed variety of rice is: litres of pure milk, the percentage of milk in
a) 18 c) 19 the mixture become 76%. The quantity of
b) 18.50 d) 19.50 mixture is:
a) 65 lit c) 38 lit
28. In what ratio should a 20% methyl alcohol b) 91 lit d) None of these
solution be mixed with a 50% methyl alcohol
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35. From a container, 6 litres milk was drawn out a) 1 : 2 c) 3 : 4
and was replaced by water. Again 6 litres of b) 9 : 5 d) 3 : 7
mixture was drawn out and was replaced by 42. A mixture of 10 liters of sugar contains 11%
the water. Thus the quantity of milk and water sugar, out of which 2 liter of water becomes
in the container after these two operations is steam. Find the percentage of sugar in the
9:16. The quantity of mixture is: remaining mixture.
a) 15 c) 25 a) 15% c) 16 %
b) 16 d) 31 b) 13.75 % d) 24%
36. Silver is 34 times heavier than water and brass 43. The 30 liter beer contains 5% alcohol. How
is 18 times heavier than water. In what ratio many liters of water should be added to the
should both the metals be mixed so that they beer so that the alcohol content becomes 3%?
become 24 times heavier than water? a) 20 liter c) 15 liter
a) 4:3 c) 3:5 b) 10 liter d) 25 liter
b) 7:1 d) 3:2
44. The initial ratio of Maida and flour to saltpeter
37. A and B pulses of different quality, priced at Rs was 17:28. How much flour is added to the
70 per kg and Rs 130 per kg respectively, are raw material of 27 kg saltpeter so that ratio of
mixed. The new average price of the mixture Maida and flour become 2:5?
obtained is Rs 100 per kg. What is the ratio of a) 7.5 kg c) 7.3 kg
the quantity of A and B in the mixture? b) 8.7 kg d) 9.1 kg
a) 1 : 1 c) 1 : 2
b) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 5 45. The ratio of water and alcohol in one drum of
wine is 4:3 and in the other drum the ratio is
38. How many kilograms of sugar of Rs.5.4 per kg
3:2. What will be the ratio of water and alcohol
should be mixed with 10 kg of sugar of Rs.4.5
when both are mixed in the ratio of 1: 2
per kg, such that there may be gain of 20% by
respectively?
selling the mixture at Rs.5.94 per kg?
a) 42:41 c) 48:57
a) 10 kg c) 15 kg
b) 62:43 d) 39:48
b) 12 kg d) 8 kg
39. In a glass of syrup, water and sugar are mixed
in the ratio 3: 2. If 8 liters of the mixture is
replaced by 12 liters of sugar liquid, then the
ratio of water and sugar becomes 1: 2. How
many liters of water were in the glass?
a) 4.6 c) 31.8
b) 13.8 d) 12.8
40. The ratio of Alcohol and water in two pots is 2
: 5 and 4 : 3, find the ratio of alcohol and water
in the new mixture obtained (in the third new
vessel) after mixing the mixture of the two
pots
a) 3 : 1 c) 3 : 4
b) 7 : 9 d) 1 : 3
41. The mixture of alcohol and water in two pots,
P and Q, is in the ratio 4: 5 and 3: 2. In what
proportion can these two mixtures be mixed to
obtain a new mixture of half alcohol and half
water?
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CHAPTER – 5
BRAIN TWISTER
PERCENTAGE
PROFIT & LOSS
PERCENTAGE: A fraction with denominator 100 is
called a per cent. It means for every hundredth
value.
=[
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PROFIT & LOSS: a) 7:3 c) 7:5
COST PRICE: The price at which an article is b) 3:7 d) 5:7
purchased. 3. If x is 10% more than y, then by what percent
SELLING PRICE: The price at which an article is is y less than x?
sold. a) 9(1/11) % c) 8(1/11)%
PROFIT: It means the selling price is more than the b) 7(1/11)% d) 10(1/11) %
cost price.
4. Radha spends 40% of her salary on food, 20%
Profit = SP – CP ; ( SP > CP )
on house rent, 10% on entertainment and 10%
LOSS: It means selling price is less than cost price. on conveyance. If her savings at the end of a
month are Rs.1500, then her salary per month
Loss = CP – SP ; ( CP > SP ) (in Rs.) is
a) Rs.7500 c) Rs.7000
Important Formulae: b) Rs.1500 d) Rs.7200
Profit % = ; Loss % = 5. In an examination, a candidate must secure
40% marks to pass. A candidate, who gets 220
marks, fails by 20 marks. What are the
SP = =
maximum marks for the examination?
a) 500 c) 650
b) 600 d) 700
CP = =
6. If the cost of electricity increases by 30%, by
what percent one should reduce his spend in
SP = (100 + k ) % of CP; when profit = k% of CP
order that spent on electricity stays the same?
a) 30% c) 23.7%
SP = (100 – k ) % of CP; when loss = K% of CP b) 42.84% d) 25%
7. What is the % change in the area a square
When a seller sells two similar items, one at a gain (which will become rectangle) if its length side
of say, x%, and other at a loss of x%, then the seller is increased by 20% and of its width side is
always incurs a loss given by:
decreased by 10%?
a) No Change c) Decreased by 10%
Loss % = ( = b) Increased by 10% d) Increased by 8%
If the profit and Loss are of different value rather 8. In a certain school, 20% of students are below
than similar one then, 8 years age. The number of students above 8
x±y± years of age is 2/3 of the number of students
of 8 years of age which is 48. What is the total
If a trader professes to sell his goods at cost price, number of students in the school?
but uses false weights, then a) 48 c) 100
Gain % = b) 80 d) 120
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were found to be defective. The percentage of votes is 560000, find the number of valid vote
defective TVs in all is polled in favor of candidate?
a) 3% c) 12% a) 84000 c) 84000
b) 6% d) Can’t determine b) 83000 d) 357000
11. A bag contains 600 coins of 25p 17. A shopkeeper bought 600 oranges and 400
denomination and 1200 coins of 50 p bananas. He found 15% of oranges and 8% of
denominations. If 12% of 25p coins and 24% bananas were rotten. Find the percentage of
of 50p coins are removed, the percentage of fruits in good condition?
money removed from the bag is nearly? a) 66 c) 88
a) 21.6 % c) 14.6 % b) 77 d) 90
b) 15.3 % d) 12.5% 18. A candidate who gets 20% marks fails by 10
12. 405 sweets were distributed equally among marks but another candidate who gets 42%
children in such a way that the number of marks gets 12% more than the passing marks.
sweets received by each child is 20% of the Find the maximum marks.
total number of children. How many sweets a) 50 c) 150
did each child received? b) 100 d) 200
a) 9 c) 11 19. In an election only two candidates M and N
b) 10 d) 12 contested 30% of the voters did not vote and
13. The population of a town is 3, 11, 250. The 1600 votes were declared as invalid. The
ratio between women and men is 43 : 40. If winner, M got 4800 votes more than his
there are 24% literate among men and 8% opponent thus he secured 51% votes of the
literate among women, the total number of total voters on the voter list. Percentage
literate persons in the town is: votes of the loser candidate, N out of the total
a) 41800 c) 56800 voter on the voter list is?
b) 48900 d) 99600 a) 5% c) 2%
b) 4% d) 3%
14. In a competitive examination in State A, 6%
candidates got selected from the total 20. Six-eleventh of a number A is equal to twenty
appeared candidates. State B had an equal two percent of number B. Number B is equal
number of candidates appeared and 7% to the one- fourth of number C. The value of
candidates got selected with 80 more the third number C is 2400, what is the 45% of
candidates got selected than A. What was the first number A?
number of candidates appeared from each a) 110 b) 108.9
State? c) 117 d) 208.9
a) 4000 c) 12000
PROFIT & LOSS
b) 8000 d) 16000 21. Arjun sold calculator for Rs 480 and he get a
15. Rohan spends 24% of an amount of money on profit of 20%. Find the cp?
an insurance policy, 34% on food, 19% on a) Rs. 384 c) RS.400
children’seducation and 17% on recreation. He b) Rs.576 d) None of these
deposits the remaining amount of Rs. 540 in
22. Cost price of 4 chocolate is Rs.5 and sold 5
bank. How much total amount does he spend chocolates for 7 Rs. Find profit or loss %.
on food and insurance policy together? a) 16.66% Loss c) 12 % Loss
a) Rs. 6350 c) Rs. 5890
b) 12% Profit d) 16.66% Profit
b) Rs. 5220 d) Rs. 6458
23. Cost price of 20 oranges is equal to selling
16. In an election, candidate A got 75% of the total price of 15 oranges. Find Profit or Loss %.
valid votes. If 15% of the total votes were a) 66.66% loss c) 33.33% Loss
declared invalid and the total numbers of b) 66.66% Profit d) 33.33% Profit
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24. Prabha bought 2 pen at same price, sold one 32. By selling an article for Rs.1, 360, a dealer
pen at a profit of 20% and another pen at a loses 15%. At what price should he sell the
loss of 20%. Find overall profit or Loss %. article to gain 10%?
a) No profit No Loss c) 4% Loss a) Rs.1,560 c) Rs.1,360
b) 4% Profit d) Can’t determine b) Rs.1,760 d) Rs.1,600
25. Kumaran sold mobile his mobile at a loss of 33. The cost price of a car was Rs.150000. Raju
5%. Had he sold it for Rs.300 more, he would sold it to Montoo at a profit of 5%, and later
get a profit of 7%. Find the cost price of Montoo sold it back to Raju at 2% loss. Find
mobile. the total profit or loss in the entire
a) 3000 c) 15000 transaction?
b) 6000 d) None of these a) Raju’s gain Rs.4,350 c) Raju’s gain Rs.4,500
26. The marked price of an article is Rs.500.It is b) Raju’s gain Rs.3,150 d) Raju’s loss Rs.4,350
sold at successive discounts of 20% and 10% 34. A dealer buys 200 quintals of wheat at Rs.1,
The selling price of the article is: 200 per quintal. He spends Rs.10, 000 on
a) Rs.400 c) RS.340 transportation and storage. If he sells the
b) Rs.360 d) Rs.350 wheat at Rs.13 per kg, then the profit
27. A Shopkeeper buys articles at 10% discount percentage of the dealer is
and sells them at 35% higher than the marked a) 3% c) 4%
price. What is his profit percentage? b) 1% d) 2%
a) 15% c) 50% 35. When a bicycle manufacturer reduced the
b) 35 % d) None of these selling price of a bicycles by 50%, the number
28. A shopkeeper sells one transistor for Rs.840 at of bicycle sold radically increased by 700%.
a gain of 20% and another for Rs.960 at a loss Initially, the manufacturer was getting a profit
of 4%. His total gain or loss percent is of 140%.What is the new profit percentage?
a) 2% c) 7% a) 10% c) 30%
b) 5% d) None of these b) 40% d) 20%
29. Two articles are sold at the same price. One at 36. If the cost price of any article increased by
a profit of 75% and another one at a loss of 22% and then after some time due to Diwali
30%. What is the overall profit or loss? sale shopkeeper is offering a 22% discount. By
a) 22.5% profit c) 13 2/7 % loss what per cent percentage cost of the article
b) 57.5 profit d) None of these has been increased or decreased
30. A trader sells two articles, one at a loss of 10% a) Decreased by 8.44% c) Decreased by 4.84%
and another at a profit of 15% but finally there b) Increased by 8.44% d) Increased by 4.84%
is no loss or gain. If the total sale price of these
37. A bought a pen for Rs. 200 and sold it to B at
two articles is Rs.30,000, find the difference
10% gain. B sold it to C at 20% loss and C sold
between their cost prices:
it to D at 25% gain, What was the price paid by
a) Rs.5000 c) Rs.7500
D?
b) Rs. 6000 d) None of these
a) Rs. 150 c) Rs. 360
31. Sarita buys two old Samsung and three Mi b) Rs. 220 d) Rs. 200
mobile phones for Rs.40, 200. If she sells the
38. A man sold two articles for Rs.600each. on
Samsung phones at a 10% profit and the Mi
selling first, he gains 20% and on the other
phones at a 20% profit then her total profit is
30%. What is profit% in the transaction?
Rs.5, 640. The cost of the Mi phone is
a) 35.5% c) 13.5%
a) Rs.5,000 c) Rs.5,400
b) 24.8% d) 24%
b) Rs.4,400 d) Rs.1,200
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39. A merchant professes to lose 6% on a certain 47. A dealer offers a discount of 10% on the
tea, but he uses a weight equal to 900 gm marked price of an article and still makes a
instead of one kg. His real gain per cent is: profit of 20%. If its marked price is Rs.800,
a) % c) % then the cost price of an article is
a) 600 c) 400
b) 4% d) %
b) 500 d) 450
40. A grocer sells rice at a profit of 10% and uses a 48. A retailer buys goods at 10% discount on its
weight which is 20% less. Find his total % marked price and sells them at 20% higher
gain. than the marked price. What is his profit per
a) 35.7% c) 37.5% cent?
b) 30.5% d) 35.5% a) Rs. 41.44% c) 22.22%
b) Rs. 55.55% d) 33.33%
DISCOUNTS
41. Giving two successive discounts of 15% and 49. A Shopkeeper buys articles at 10% discount
18% are given on the bag. Find out the overall and sells them at 35% higher than the marked
discount in percentage to purchase the bag. price. What is his profit percentage?
a) 30.3% c) 33.33% a) 15% c) 50%
b) 30% d) 32% b) 35% d) None of these
42. Raza purchases an item by paying Rs.3363. He 50. A dishonest fruit vendor professes to sell his
gets a discount of 5% on it. After getting the goods at cost price but he uses a weight of 800
discount, he also pays GST of 18%. Find the g for the Kg weight. Find his gain per cent.
Marked Price of the item Raza purchased. a) 35% c) 25%
a) 3300 c) 4300 b) 15% d) None of these
b) 3000 d) 4000
43. 30% discount is offered on an item. By using
Membership card the customer wins 10% cash
COGNIZANT – LATEST
back. What is the effective discount percent?
a) 40% c) 37% 51. In an election winning candidate won by 15%
b) 36% d) 33% votes. if a total of 5000 votes were cast of
which only 86% are eligible. Then how many
44. Anil buys an article with 20% discount on the
votes did the winning candidate get?
marked price and sells it at 8% discount on the
a) 2300 c) 2000
marked price. Find his profit/loss percent.
b) 1800 d) 4000
a) 15% profit c) 15% loss
b) 12% loss d) 12% profit 52. In a scheme, a pack of three soaps with MRP
Rs.45 is available for Rs.42. If it still gives a
45. A shopkeeper gives 20% discount on MRP. Jo
profit of 5% to the shopkeeper, then the cost
buys a suitcase from the shop, at an additional
price of the pack is:
discount of 20% on the reduced price. If the
a) Rs.40 c) Rs.41
MRP of the suitcase is Rs.1,200, then find the
b) Rs.37 d) Rs.35
purchasing price paid by Jo.
a) 800 c) 600 53. Atul bought a machine for Rs. 4, 50, 000 and
b) 864 d) 768 sold it to Irfan at a profit. Irfan later sold the
machine to Danish at a loss of 10% for Rs. 4,
46. If on a market price, the difference between
98, 000. The profit earned by Atul is:
selling prices with a discount of 45% and two
a) 23% c) 25%
successive discounts of 30% and 20% is Rs.84,
b) 21% d) 22.22%
then the marked price is
a) Rs.4,500 c) Rs.3,000 54. A book store offers a 10% discount on all the
b) Rs.8,400 d) Rs.2,000 books sold plus an additional discount of 5%
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on the total bill, if the total bill after the initial
discount is more than or equal to Rs.1000.
CHAPTER – 6
Dilshan bought 3 books worth Rs.450, Rs.520
and Rs.250 respectively. How much money TIME, SPEED &
was Dilshan able to save as a result of the
various discounts offered by the store? DISTANCE, TRAINS
a) Rs. 102 c) Rs.61
b) 176.9 d) Rs.183
BOATS & STREAMS,
55. When 40 is subtracted from 50% of a number,
the result is 50% of 500. Find one-tenth of the
number?
RACES
a) 29 c) 75
b) 58 d) 87 When a body moves from point A to another point
56. The difference between a discount of 35% and B at a distance of D, then it requires some time (T)
two successive discounts of 20% and 20% on a to cover a certain distance (D) with a particular
certain bill was Rs.22. Find the amount of the speed (S). Then the relation between T, S and D is,
bill.
Distance = Time × Speed
a) None of these c) Rs. 1200
D = T × S
b) Rs. 1800 d) Rs. 2200
Therefore, when D is constant, T
TCS – NINJA – LATEST and when T is constant, D S
and when S is constant, D
57. (x+10)% of 400 is 40 more than 10% of
Note: The relation of proportionality is important.
2000. 10% of (x+150) is what percentage
less than 50% of x?
a) 16.66% c) 20.00% 1 km / hr = m/s
Conversion of units:
b) 18.18% d) 25.00% 1m/s= km / hr
58. An item was sold at a profit of 12% after giving
a discount of 12.5% on the list price. What AVERAGE SPEED: If a person moves x km at a
would be the gain or loss percentage if a speed of u km/hr and further he goes or comes
discount of 25% is given on the list price? back the same distance x km at a speed of v km/hr,
a) 2% gain c) 2 % loss then average speed is,
b) 4% gain d) 4% loss
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If a body changes its speed in the ratio m : n, EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01)
then the ratio of the time taken to cover the
same distance is n : m TIME, SPEED, DISTANCE
1. A person crosses a 600m long street in 5
TRAINS: minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?
When a train is to cross a telegraph post or a a) 2 km/h c) 13 km/h
standing man, it has to cross its own length. b) 7.2 km/h d) 9.4 km/h
Time taken by a train to cross a post or a man,
2. The Speed of a bus is 72km/hr. The distance
covered by the bus in 5sec is
= a) 100 m c) 50 m
b) 60 m d) 74.5 m
When it passes another standing train or a
3. A man walking at a speed of 10km/hr. After
platform or a bridge, then time taken by train
every kilometer, he takes a rest of 5min. How
to cross the platform,
much time will he take to cover a distance of
5km?
= a) 60 min c) 40 min
b) 50 min d) 70 min
4. A man goes to his office by scooter at a speed
When a fast moving train Crosses or overtakes
of 30km/hr and reaches 6min earlier. If he
a slow moving train, the time taken by fast
goes at a speed of 24Km/hr, he reaches 5
moving train to cross or over take slow moving
minutes late. The distance of his office is
train by,
a) 20 Km c) 22 Km
b) 21 Km d) 24 Km
= 5. A thief spots a policeman 100m away and
takes to his heels. If the police man gives
immediately, then how far a chase would the
BOATS & STREAMS: thief has run before he is over taken? The
speeds of the thief and policeman are 8 kmph
Speed Downstream (D): If the boat is moving and 10kmph respectively.
along with the river in the same direction, then a) 400 m c) 250 m
D=B+C b) 500 m d) 600 m
Speed Upstream (U): If the boat is moving against 6. A thief, who was chased by a policeman was
the river in the opposite direction, then 100m ahead of the policeman initially. If the
D=B-C ratio between speeds of the policeman and the
thief is 5:4, then how long thief would have
covered before he was caught by the
Speed of boat in still water =
policeman?
Speed of current = a) 400 m c) 250 m
b) 500 m d) 600 m
RACES: 7. A thief steals a car at 1.30 p.m. and drives it off
Start up or Head start: It means a runner allows at 40 km/hr. The theft is discovered at 2 p.m.
other runner to stay ahead in the same race. and the owner sets off in another car at 50
Dead Heat: It means both the runners finishing the km/hr. He will overtake the thief at
race at the same time. a) 5 PM c) 3 PM
b) 4 PM d)8 PM
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8. A farmer travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 b) 88 min d) 60 min
hours. He travelled partly on foot @ 4km/hr 15. The distance between Kanpur and Bangalore
and partly on bicycle @ 9km/hr. The distance by flight is 1800 km. An aircraft was slowed
travelled on foot is? down due to bad weather. The time of journey
a) 50 km c) 16 km of Bangalore from Kanpur is increased by 30
b) 45 km d) 12 km minutes and the average speed for the journey
was reduced by 300 km/h. What is the usual
9. If a person walks 14 km/hr instead of 10
duration of the flight if there is no bad
km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more.
weather?
The actual distance travelled by him is
a) 25 km c) 75 km a) c)
b) 50 km d) 100 km b) d)
10. ‘A’ goes 10 km distance with average speed of 16. A man can reach a certain place in 40 hours. If
6 km/h while rest 20 km he travels with an he reduces his speed by 1/15th, he goes 5 km
average speed of 15 km/h. What is the average less in that time. Find the total distance
speed of ‘A’ during the whole journey? covered by him.
a) 10 km/h c) 13 km/h a) 60 km c) 75 km
b) 12 km/h d) 14.5 km/h b) 85 km d) 52 km
11. In the school, A and B took a part in the race 17. A car drove from Agra to Delhi without
and the ratio between their speeds is 5:7. A stopping. It covered the first 50 miles of its
loses the race by 360m then, what is the length journey at an average speed of 25 mph. What
of the track (in km)? was the car’s average speed (in mph), for the
a) 1.26 km c) 9 km remaining 130 miles if its overall average
b) 1.2 km d) 0.2 km speed was 45 mph?
12. The respective ratio between the speed of a a) 28 c) 50
car, a train, and a bus is 5 : 9 : 4.The average b) 30 d) 65
speed of the car , the bus and the train is 72 18. There are three athletes A, B and C at a same
km/hr together. What is the average speed of point. A starts running from a point at a speed
the car and the train together? of 40 m/min. After 5 minutes, B starts running
a) 82 km/hr c) 84 km/hr after A with a speed of 50 m/min.
b) 72 km/hr d) 67 km/hr Simultaneously, C also starts running after A at
13. A travels 20% distance of the total journey by 60 m/min. What distance has C covered (in m)
car and 50% of the remaining by train and taxi when he catches A?
in the respective ratio of 5:3 and the remaining a) c)
distance he covers on feet. If the sum of the b) 600 d) 500
distance which he travels by car and by Taxi is
126 km, then find the total distance which A 19. Ashok and Bimal runs on a 450 m long circular
travels during his journey? track at a speed of 12 m/s and 18 m/s
a) 360 km c) 400 km respectively. They start at same time but run
b) 640 km d) 420 km in opposite direction. Find the number of
times, they would have met when Bimal covers
14. P, Q and R start running around a circular field 3240 meters.
having circumference 88 metre at the same a) 12 c) 14
time from the same point. Speeds of P, Q and R b) 10 d) 16
are 4 m/minute, 8 m/minute and 11
m/minute. Find after how much time, they will 20. John travelled from his town to city. John went
meet again at the same point for the first time. to city by bicycle at the speed of 25 km/h and
a) 44 min c) 40 min came back at the speed of 4 km/h. If John took
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5 hours and 48 min to complete his journey, Another train starts from Chennai to Mumbai
what is the distance between town and city? at 7 am with a speed of 60Km/hr. At what
a) 15 km c) 20 km distance from Mumbai and at what time will
b) 22 km d) 25 km the two trains be at the point of crossing
a) 250Km, 6hrs c) 250km, 6hrs 5min
PROBLEM ON TRAINS
b) 248Km, 6hrs 12min d) 249Km, 6hrs
21. A train 100m long is running at the speed of
30km/hr. The time (in second) in which it will 28. If a train 225 m long passes a telegraphic pole
pass a man standing near the railway line is: in 9 seconds, then the time taken (in seconds)
a) 15sec c) 14sec by it to cross a tunnel 450 m long is:
b) 12sec d) 16sec a) 8 s c) 27 s
b) 10 s d) None
22. A train 240 meters in length crosses a
telegraph post in 16 seconds. The speed of the 29. A train 200 m long travels at the speed of 72
train is(km/hr) km/h. A man is running at 3.6 km/h in the
a) 50Km/hr c) 52Km/hr same direction in which the train is going. The
b) 51Km/hr d) 54Km/hr train will pass the man in:
a) 10 s c) 10 10/19 s
23. A train 300 meters long is running at a speed
b) 12 3/19 s d) None
of 25 meters per second. It will cross a bridge
of 200 meters in 30. If the time ‘t’ taken by a train to cover 1600
a) 15 sec c) 18 sec meter of distance with a certain speed ‘s’ is in
b) 20 sec d) 16 sec the ratio of 2 : 5 then find the speed?
a) 180 kmph c) 72√10 kmph
24. A train takes 18seconds to pass through a
b) 80√6 kmph d) 90√6 kmph
platform 162m long and 15 seconds to pass
through another platform 120m long. The 31. If the speed of two train A and B is in the ratio
length of the train (in m) is: of 4 : 5 and crosses each other in 18 seconds
a) 40 m c) 90 m from opposite direction. The length of train A
b) 80 m d) 95 m is 150 meter and that of B is 250 meter then
finds the speed of slower train?
25. Two trains start at the same time from A & B
a) 35.55 kmph c) 45.55 kmph
and proceed towards B & A at 36 kmph & 42
b) 25.55 kmph d) 65.55 kmph
Kmph respectively. When they meet, it is
found that one train has moved 48 Km more 32. If the length of trains A is 50% more than that
than the other. What is the distance between A of B is and they crosses each other in 20
and B? seconds from opposite direction. If the sum of
a) 624 Km c) 654 km their speed is 90 kmph find their lengths?
b) 640 Km d) 620 Km a) 300m and 200m c) 300m and 150m
b) 100m and 300m d) Can’t determine
26. Two trains start at a same time from Mumbai
and Pune and proceeds towards each other at 33. A train of length 340m crosses a man in 17
the rate of 60Km and 40Km per hour seconds. If the train runs with( s + 5) mps
respectively. When they meet, it is found that speed then find the time taken by train to
one train has travelled 20 Km more than the cross a bridge half of its length?
other. Find the distance between Mumbai and a) 24.04 sec c) 4 sec
Pune. b) 4.4 sec d) 20.4 sec
a) 90 Km c) 110 km
34. A train of length ‘x’ meters completely
b) 140 Km d) 100 Km
overtake a man walking with the speed of 1
27. Chennai is at a distance of 560 Km from kmph in 20 seconds. If the speed of train is
Mumbai. A train starts from Mumbai to 45kmph then find the approx length of train?
Chennai at 6am with a speed of 40 km/hr. a) 245 m c) 240 m
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b) 145 m d) 250 m b) 15 5/8 m d) 5 5/24 m
35. If the time taken by train A and B to cover 42. A boat goes 15km upstream in 1hr 20 mins;
same distance is in the ratio of 4 : 3 then find the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, the speed
the speed of train A if the speed of train B is of boat in still water?
28mps? a) 15.25km/hr c) 14.35km/hr
a) 14 mps c) 21 mps b) 13.54km/hr d) 12.65km/hr
b) 35 mps d) 28 mps
43. The stream runs at 1km/hr, a motor boat goes
BOATS & STREAMS 35km upstream and back again to the starting
36. A man can swim 3 Km/hr in still water. If the point after 12hours. What's the speed of the
velocity of the stream be 2Km/hr, the time motor boat in still water?
taken by him to swim to a place 10Km a) 6km/hr c) 7km/hr
upstream and back is b) 8km/hr d) 10km/hr
a) 12hrs c) 14hrs
44. A man rows at a speed of 10km/hr in still
b) 11hrs d) 16hrs
water to a certain distance upstream and back
37. A boat travels upstream from B to A and to the starting point in a river which flows at 4
downstream from A to B in 3hours. If the km/hr. Find his average speed for total
speed of the boat in still water is 9 Km/hr and journey?
the speed of the current is 3km/hr, the a) 4.8km/hr c) 8.4km/hr
distance between A and B is b) 6.7 km/hr d) 6.9 km/hr
a) 10Km c) 12Km
45. If the man's rate of rowing in still water is
b) 9Km d) 11Km
5km/hr and the speed of stream is 10km/hr.
38. In a stream running at 2 Km/hr, a motor boat The distance given is 15km/hr .Find time
goes 10km upstream and returns to the taken to row downstream?
starting point in 55min. Find out the speed of a) 1km/hr c) 3km/hr
the motorboat in still water. b) 2km/hr d) 4km/hr
a) 50Km/hr c) 23Km/hr
46. A boat covers a certain distance downstream
b) 22Km/hr d) 25Km/hr
in 5 hours, but takes 7 hours to return
39. The difference between downstream speed upstream to the starting point. If the speed of
and upstream speed is 3 km/h and the total the stream be 5km/hr, find the speed of the
time taken during upstream and downstream boat in still water?
is 3 hours. What is the downstream speed, if a) 34km/hr c) 40 km/hr
the downstream and upstream distance is 3 b) 45km/hr d) 30 km/hr
km each?
47. A man can row 9km/hr in still water, if the
a) 2.5 km/h c) 4 km/h
river running at 4 km/hr. It takes hours more
b) 4.33 km/h d) 3.3 km/h
to upstream than to go downstream for the
40. In a 1600 m race, A beats B by 80 m and C by same distance. How far is the place?
60 m. If they run at the same time then by a) 48.75 km c) 47.85km
what distance will C beat B in a 400 m race? b) 75.48km d) 45.78km
a) 5 15/77 m c) 15 5/77 m
48. A motor boat covers a certain distance
b) 5 20/76 m d) None
downstream in 5 hours but takes 7hours to
41. A gives both B and C a start of 60 m in a 1500 return back to the starting point and the speed
m race. However, while B finishes with him, C of the stream is 5km/hr, find the speed of the
is 15 m behind them when A and B cross the motor boat in still water?
finishing line. How much start can B give C for a) 10km/hr c) 30km/hr
the 1500 m race course? b) 20km/hr d) 40km/hr
a) 7 6/23 m c) 7 11/16 m
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49. A man can row at the rate of 5km/hr in still
56. A train runs at a speed of 42 m/s and takes 35
water. If the time taken to row a certain
seconds to pass a tunnel. After travelling some
distance upstream is 2 times as much distance, it takes 15 seconds to pass a pole.
downstream. Find the speed of the as row the What is the length of the tunnel?
same distance current? a) 162 m c) 840 m
a) 1.6km/hr c) 3.2km/hr b) 630 m d) 240 m
b) 2.4km/hr d) 4km/hr
50. The ratio of speed of boat in still water to the
speed of current is 6:1. If the upstream speed TCS – NINJA – LATEST
is 2 km/hr. find the speed of the boat in still
water? 57. A man has to travel 50km in two hours. He
a) 2.8km/hr c) 4.4km/hr could cover 20km in one hour, and then had to
b) 3.6km/hr d) 5.2km/hr stop for 10 minutes for refueling. By what
factor should he increase his speed with
COGNIZANT – LATEST reference to that during the first hour so as to
be able to complete the journey as per
51. Surekha travels 10 km to reach her office. She
schedule?
walks 0.5 km on foot at a speed of 8 kmph to
a) 1.2 c) 2.3
catch her charted bus which travels at a speed
b) 1.8 d) 2.7
of 40 kmph. Time taken by her to reach the
office is: 58. A file of cadets consisting of ten rows and five
a) 15 min c) 18 min columns measures 420 m in length along the
b) 20 min d) 30 min direction of their A marching. How much time
52. Rajesh commutes daily by travelling 4/5 of the (in hours and minutes) would it take to march
distance between his home and office by Metro for a stretch of 3 km. if the stride of each cadet
train. 3/20 by auto and remaining 1 km on is 80 cm, and he takes 57 strides per minute?
foot. The distance between his home and office a) 1 Hour 15 mins c) 1 Hour 35 mins
is b) 1 Hour 5 mins d) 1 Hour 50 mins
a) 12 km c) 24 km
59. A man can row 32Km upstream and 48Km
b) 16 km d) 20 km
downstream in 14hours. Also he can row
53. Ratio between speeds of 2 trains is 5:3. If the 24Km upstream and 40Km downstream in 11
first train runs 350 km in 2 hours, then what is hours. Then, what is the speed of the man in
the speed of the second train? still water?
a) 210 kmph c) 105 kmph a) 2Km/hr c) 6Km/hr
b) 115 kmph d) 100 kmph b) 4Km/hr d) 8Km/hr
54. A man rows a boat at a speed of 5 km/hr in
60. A train running at a speed of 36Km/hr takes
still water. Find the speed of a river if it takes
30 seconds to cross a platform and 15 seconds
him 1 hr to row a boat to a place 2.4 km away
to pass a man walking at 6Km/hr in the
and return back.
a) 1 km/hr c) 3 km/hr opposite direction in which the train is going.
b) 6 km/hr d) 4 km/hr Then what will be the length of the platform?
a) 140m c) 175m
55. A train Radhani starts from Suratkal at 5 a.m b) 150m d) 125m
with the speed of 15 kmph. Another train
Shatabdi starts from the same place in the
same direction at 7 a.m with a speed of 20
kmph. At what time will both the trains meet
each other?
a) 3.00 p.m c) 12:00 p.m
b) 2:00 p.m d) 1:00 p.m
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CHAPTER – 7 Similarly, If ‘ ’ men take ‘ ’ days, working
‘ ’ hrs daily to do a job , and if ‘ ’ men take ‘
’ days, working ‘ ’ hrs daily to do the same
TIME & WORK, job, then
CHAIN RULE,
Similarly, If ‘ ’ men take ‘ ’ days, working
PIPES & CISTERNS ‘ ’ hrs daily to do a job ‘ ’ , and if ‘ ’ men
take ‘ ’ days, working ‘ ’ hrs daily to do the
same job ‘ ’, then
TIME & WORK:
If a person can do a work in ‘n’ days then his one
day’s work is and this one day’s work in terms of
percentage is called efficiency.
PIPES AND CISTERNS:
Also if a person can complete work in one day,
If pipe A can fill a tank in ‘x’ hours, then the pipe
then he can complete the whole work in ‘n’ days.
can fill portion of the tank in one hour.
If A and B can do a work in ‘x’ and ‘y’ days
respectively by working alone, the portion of If pipe A and B take ‘x’ and ‘y’ hours respectively to
work completed by them in one day together fill a tank, when filling alone. Then the portion of
will be, the tank filled by them when filling together in one
hour is . The number of hours to fill
the tank when filling together is
The total number of days required to do the
same job when working together is
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2. Three persons A, B & C are working in a task in 30 days. If B works alone, he can finish
software industry. If A works alone he can the task in 45 days. If C works alone, he can
finish a project code in 20 days. If B works finish the task in 60 days. Consider that,
alone he can finish the same work in 30 days. If Initially B & C started to work together & C left
C works alone he can finish the same work in the job after 6 days, then the work is continued
40 days. Consider that, if 3 person’s A, B & C by A & B together. Now A left the job after 5
started to work together in a team, then in
days of the joining. In how many days B will
how many days the project can be finished?
complete the remaining task?
a) 9.2 days c) 9 days
a) 44 days c) 88 days
b) 13 days d) 13.33 days
b) 22 days d) 20 days
3. 3 Person’s A, B & C are working in a Designing
project. If all 3 person’s work together they 8. Two persons A & B are working in a Industry.
can complete the project in 5 days. If A works If A works alone, he can finish the task in 24
alone he can complete the project in 12 days. If days. If B works alone, he can finish the task in
B works alone he can complete the project in 16 days. Consider that, A & B started to work
20 days. In how many days the entire project together & B left 4 days before the job is done.
can be completed if C works alone? In how many days A will complete the
a) 14 days c) 15 days remaining task?
b) 24 days d) None of these a) 6 days c) 12 days
b) 15 days d) 10 days
4. Three persons A, B & C are working in a
construction company. A & B works together & 9. A can complete a work in 10 days, B in 12 days
they finish the project in 15 days. B & C works & C in 15 days. All of them began the work
together & they finish the project in 20 days. C together, but A had to leave the work after 2
& A works together & they finish the project in days of the start and B 3 days before the
12 days. Consider that, if all 3 person’s A, B & C
completion work. How long did the work last?
started to work together in a team, then in
how many days the project can be finished? a) 7 days c) 10 days
a) 5 days c) 15 days b) 9 days d) 12.5 days
b) 12 days d) 10 days 10. 6 men can do a work in 18 days. If 2 men leave
5. Two persons A & B are working in a furniture a job they will complete the work in how many
industry. If A works alone he can finish a days?
wooden table in 10 days. If B works alone he a) 24 days c) 29 days
can finish the same type of wooden table in 20 b) 27 days d) 30 days
days. Consider that, if A started to work alone
11. Some men can do a work in 100 days, if 10
& he left the job after 4 days, then the work is
men leave the job the work will be completed
continued by B. In how many days B will
in 10 more days. How many men where there
complete the Wooden Table?
initially?
a) 10 days c) 12 days
a) 100 c) 90
b) 8 days d) 16 days
b) 110 d) 120
6. Two persons A & B are working in a furniture
12. 6 men can do a work in 24 days. After 4 days of
industry. If A works alone he can finish a
work 3 more men joined the team. In how
wooden table in 15 days. If B works alone he
many days they will complete the remaining
can finish the same type of wooden table in 25
work?
days. Consider that, A & B started to work
a) 13.33 days c) 13 days
together & B left the job after 4 days, then the
remaining work is completed by A. In how b) 16 days d) 20 days
many days A will complete the Wooden Table? 13. 40 men can construct 60 rooms in 8 days. If 8
a) 8.6 days c) 8 days people leave the job how many rooms they will
b) 9 days d) 9.5 days construct in 12 days?
a) 80 c) 72
7. Three persons A, B & C are working in an
Industry. If A works alone, he can finish the b) 100 d) 90
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14. A alone can do a work in 12 days. B alone can they work together, in how many days will the
do in 20 days. With the help of C they work be finished?
completed in 5 days. They got Rs. 18000 for a) c)
this project. What is the share value of ‘C’?
a) 5000 c) 6000 b) d)
b) 5500 d) 4500 23. X, Y, Z, W have equal efficiency working
15. A is twice as good as B in workmanship. Both together can complete a job in 22 days, two of
people can together complete a work in 4 days. them work half and quarter-time respectively.
B alone will complete the work in how many In how many days of work will be done?
days? a) 35 days c) 36 Days
a) 6 days c) 12 days b) 32 Days d) 40 Days
b) 18 days d) 9 days
24. 10 women and 6 men can do a work in 5 days.
16. 3 men or 4 women can do a work in 43 days. 7 7 women and 8 men can do a same work in 6
men & 5 women together can do the work in days. How long will 12 women and 3 men can
how many days? take to do the work?
a) 12 days c) 16 days a) 4 ¾ days c) 3 days
b) 24 days d) 10 days b) 5 ½ days d) 6 ¼ days
17. If 7 spiders make 7 webs in 7 days, then 1 25. 25 men can complete a piece of work in 16
spider will make 1 web in how many days? days. After 4 days from the start of the
a) 1 c) 49 work, some men left. If the remaining work
b) 7 d) 7/2 was completed by the remaining men in 15
18. 4 mat-weavers can weave 4 mats in 4 days. At days, then find the men left after 4 days from
the same rate, how many mats would be the start of the work?
woven by 8 mat-weavers in 8 days? a) 3 men c) 6 men
a) 4 c) 12 b) 4 men d) 5 men
b) 8 d) 16 26. 5 men can complete a work in 12 days, 8
women can complete it in 18 days and 10
19. A is thrice as good a workman as B and
therefore is able to finish a job in 60 days less children can complete the same work in 24
than B. Working together, they can do it in: days. In how many days can 10 men, 12
a) 20 days c) 25 days women and 8 children complete the same
b) 22 ½ days d) 30 days work?
20. A is 20 % more efficient than B. B can do 40 % a) days c) days
of a work in 20 days. If A and B working b) days d) days
together then how many days work will be
completed? 27. 27 men can do a work in 54 days. 36 women
a) 125/11 Days c) 125 Days can do the same work in 72 days. 12 children
b) 250/11 Days d) 65/2 Days can do it in 108 days. 10 men, 10 women and
6, children do the work till 24 days. The
21. M, N, P can do a piece of work with efficiency
remaining work will be done by only women
in the ratio of 1.5 ∶ 2.5 ∶ 0.5. M, N working
in how many days?
together and complete the work 10 days less
a) 1584 Days c) 1333 Days
than working together N and P. In how many
b) 1790 Days d) None of the above
days of work will be done if all the three will
work together. 28. A, B and C gets a total wage of Rs.3600 if they
a) 25/4 c) 16/3 work together. A and B gets a total wage of
b) 15/4 d) 25/3 Rs. 2800 if they work together and A alone
gets Rs.1600. Find the efficiency ratio of A, B
22. A is 4 times faster than B in doing a job. B
and C.
takes 27 more days than A to finish the job. If
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a) 1:2:3 c) 4:3:2 35. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in
b) 2:4:3 d) 2:5:4 4 hours. Had they been opened separately,
then B would have taken 6 hours more than A
29. P can do a piece of work in 18 days. Q is 20
to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken
percent more efficient than P. Then in how
by A to fill the cistern separately?
many days three-fourth of the work is
a) 1 hr c) 6 hrs
completed when both are working
b) 2 hrs d) 8 hrs
simultaneously?
a) days c) days
36. A cistern can be filled separately by two pipes
b) days d) days P and Q in 45 minutes and 35 minutes
respectively. A tap R at the bottom can empty
30. A can complete three-fifth of the work in 6
the full cistern in 30 minutes. If the tap R is
days and B can complete the two-seventh of
opened 7 minutes after thetwo pipes P and Q
the same work in 4 days. Then in how many
are opened, then after what time from the
days A and B together complete the work?
opening of tap R the cistern becomes full?
a) 6 ¾ days c) days a) 40th minute c) 37th minute
b) days d) 6 ½ days b) 61st minute d) None of these
PIPES & CISTERNS 37. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 30 hours while
B can fill it 45 hours. Pipe A and B are opened
31. Pipes A and B can fill a tank is 5 and 6 hours
and closed alternatively i.e., first pipe A is
respectively. Pipe C an empty it in 12 hours. If
opened, then B, again A and then B and so on
all the three pipes are opened together, then
for 1 hour each time without any time lapse.
the tank will be filled in In how many hours the tank will be filled
a) 3 (8/17) hrs c) 3 (12/17) hrs when it was empty, initially?
b) 3 (9/17) hrs d) 3 (14/17) hrs a) 36 c) 48
b) 54 d) 60
32. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 and 20
minutes respectively. Both the pipes are 38. One filling pipe A is 5 times faster than second
opened together but after 4 minutes, pipe A is filling pipe B. If B can fill a cistern in 36
minutes, the find the time when the cistern
turned off. What is the total time required to
will be full if both fill pipes are opened
fill the tank?
together.
a) 10 min 40 sec c) 14 min 40sec a) 6 min c) 4 min
b) 12 min 40sec d) 18 min 40 sec b) 8 min d) 12 min
33. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 39. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern
and 20 hours respectively. If A is open all the in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately,
time, B and C are open one hour each then B would have taken 6 hours more than
alternatively, the tank will be filled in A to fill the cistern. How many time will be
taken by A to fill the cistern separately?
a) 5 hrs c) 11 hrs
b) 7 hrs d) 15 hrs a) 4 hours c) 6 hours
b) 2 hours d) 8 hours
34. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 hours
40. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as
and 20 hours respectively while a third pipe C
another pipe. If together the two pipes can
can empty the full tank in 25 hours. All the
fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower
three pipes are opened in the beginning. After
pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in:
10 hours, C is closed. In how much time, will
a) 81 min c) 144 min
the tank be full?
b) 108 min d) 192 min
a) 12 hrs c) 16 hrs
b) 13 hrs d) 18 hrs 41. A tank can be filled by one tap in 20 min. and
by another in 25 min. both the taps are kept
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open for 5 min. and then the second tap is b) 1/3 d) 2/3
turned off. In how many minutes more is the
48. 20 men can do a job in 10 days, working 8
tank completely filled?
hours a day. If women are 33.33% more
a) 6 minutes c) 12 minutes efficient than men, how many women will it
b) 11 minutes d) 17 minutes
take to finish the same job in 10 days working
42. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 6 hours a day?
hours. After working at it together for 2 a) 10 c) 12
hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the b) 16 d) 20 e) 15
remaining part in 7 hours. The number of
49. Rahul can finish one-fifth of his homework in
hours taken by C alone to fill the tank is? one hour. Neha can finish three-seventh of her
a) 10 c) 14 homework in one hour thirty minutes and Riya
b) 12 d) 16 can finish three fourth of her homework in
43. A cistern, when full, is emptied by a waste three hours thirty minutes. If all of them start
their homework at 12.00 p.m. and can go to
pipe in 30 minutes, but if a tap (filling source)
play as soon as they all finish their homework,
is opened, it takes 40 minutes, to empty the
when can they start to play, if they take a
cistern. How long the cistern will take to
break at 3.30 p.m. for thirty minutes?
become full when only filling pipe is a) 5.00 pm c) 4.40 pm
working? b) 5.30 pm d) 6.30 pm
a) 140 minutes c) 160 minutes
b) 120 minutes d) 180 minutes 50. There are 5 pipes working in tandem which
can fill a tank of 1.800 litre 3 pipes can
44. P, Q and R can fill the tank in 12, 16 and 24 min individually fill the tank at the capacity in 40
respectively. All three began to fill the tank minutes. Out of these 5 pipes, 3 are used to fill
together but P and Q left 3 and 4 min liquid in the tank. Each of these rate of 30
respectively before filling the tank. Find the litre/min, 45 litre/min and 15 litre/min
total time taken by all of them to fill the tank? respectively. The other two pipes are used to
a) 12 min c) 8 min empty the tank- one of which can empty it at
b) 16 min d) 10 min the rate of 30 litre/min. What is the rate
(litre/min) at which the other pipe alone can
45. A tank can be filled by one tap in 20 minutes empty the tank, considering that the tank is
and by another in 25 minutes. Both the taps full?
are kept open for 5 minutes and then the a) 15 c) 45
second is turned off. In how many minutes b) 30 d) 6
more will the tank be completely filled?
a) 18 minutes c) 11 minutes
b) 16 minutes d) 8 minutes TCS – NINJA – LATEST
51. 96 men were engaged for a project of
COGNIZANT – LATEST constructing a railway track of the length of
18km in four weeks. After one week it was
46. A pipe can fill a tank in 6 hours and another
observed that the work of 4km was completed.
pipe can empty the tank in 12 hours. If both
How many additional men should be engaged
the pipes are opened at the same time, the
tank can be filled in for timely completion of the project?
a) 10 c) 14 a) 12 c) 14
b) 12 d) 16 b) 16 d) 15
47. A can-do work in 15 days and B in 10 days. If 52. X is four times as efficient as Y in respect of
they work on it together for 4 days, then the doing a particular work. Working together
fraction of the work that is left is they complete the work in 16 days. In how
a) ½ c) 1/6
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many days Y, working alone, will be able to do
half the work?
CHAPTER – 8
a) 40 c) 60
b) 80 d) 20 PERMUTATION &
53. A work is assigned to 6 men and 12 women
and they could complete it in 3 days. It was
COMBINATION,
also observed that together they can do 7
times as much work a man and a woman can PROBABILITY
do. In how many days would 14 women have
done the work?
a) 10 c) 12 PERMUTATION:
b) 6 d) 9 Permutation is selecting and arranging ‘r’ things
out of ‘n’ things.
54. A takes 10 days less than B to complete a The formula used is n
work, and together they do it in 12 days. In Pr =
how many days can B alone do the work?
a) 9 c) 30 [This is applicable when the digits or things are
used only once in the arrangement]
b) 12 d) 6 For with repetition formula is mn, where m stands
for the numbers used and n stands for the number
55. 10 men can complete a work in 8 days and 10 of digits made.
women take 12 days to complete the same Permutations of n different things taken all at a
work. How many days will 3 men and 6 time
n
women take to complete the same work? Pn = n!
a) 11 3/7 c) 10 3/7 SEATING ARRANGEMENT:
b) 9 3/7 d) 12 3/7 e) 14
Linear Arrangement:
If there are n people to occupy n chairs arranged
linearly means, total number of ways = n!
Circular Arrangement:
BRAIN TWISTER If there are n people to occupy n chairs arranged
circularly means, total number of ways = (n-1)!
COMBINATION:
Combination is selecting and r things out of n
things.
The formula used is
n
Cr =
nCr = nCn-r
If n is even, the greatest value of nCr = nCm,
where m= n/2
If n is odd, the greatest value of nCr = nCm,
where m= n-1/2 or n+1/2
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nC + nC1 + nC2 + nC3 + …..+ nCn = 2n
0 EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01)
nC + nC + nC + …..+ nC = 2n – 1
0 1 2 n
PERMUTATION & COMBINATION
PROBABILITY: 1. How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from
the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 assuming that
The probability of occurrence of the event E is
defined as, i) Repetition of the digits is allowed?
ii) Repetition of the digits is not allowed?
P (E) = 2. How many 4 – digit number can be formed by
using the digits 1 to 9 if repetition of digits is
Important Definitions: not allowed?
Random Experiment – Any happening, whose a) 9! c) 3024
result is uncertain, is called random b) 4! d) 504
experiment. Ex: Tossing a coin, throwing a die,
selecting a card from a pack of cards. 3. How many 5-digit numbers can be formed out
Sample Space – It is the set of all possible of digits 3, 2, 7, 4, 0, if no digit is to be used
outcomes or chances or occurrences of a more than once?
random experiment. a) 120 c) 24
Events – Any event that consists of a single b) 720 d) 96
outcome is called simple event. 4. How many 3-digit even numbers can be formed
Sure or certain events – An event which always form the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 if the digits can
occurs when an experiment is conducted. For be repeated?
example, in case of tossing a coin, it is sure that a) 120 c) 108
either head or tail will appear. b) 60 d) 90
Impossible events – An event which cannot
5. How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from
occur at all when an experiment is conducted.
the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9 which are divisible
For example, in case of tossing a die, a number
by 5 and none of the digits is repeated?
7 will not occur.
a) 20 c) 8
Complementary events – Given two events E
b) 16 d) 24
and Ec, if Ec occurs when and only when E does
not occur, then Ec will be the complementary 6. How many 3-letter words with or without if
event of E. repetition of letters is not allowed? without
meaning, can be formed by using all the letters
Laws of Probability: of the word 'LOGARITHMS',
Addition law for mutually exclusive events: a) 700 c) 720
In case two events A and Bare mutually b) 750 d) 760
exclusive events, the probability that one of
these events will happen is given by P(A or B) 7. How many words, With or without meaning,
= P(A) + P(B) can be formed using all the letters of the word
Addition law for events that are not mutually EDUCATION, using each letter exactly once?
exclusive: a) 7! c) 9!
In case there are two events, A and B which are b) 8! d) 3024
not mutually exclusive, the probability that 8. Find the number of different words that can be
either one of these two events will happen is formed from the word 'SUCCEED'
given by a) 1390 c) 1320
P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A and B) b) 1400 d) 1260
Multiplication law for independent events:
9. The number of arrangements that can be made
In case there are two independent events, then with the letters of the word 'MATHS'. So, that
the probability of these two events happening
Letter M will occupy always the first place is?
simultaneously or in any order is given by
P(A and B) = P(A). P(B) a) 3! c) 5!
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b) 4! d) 6! 18. when 10 persons shake hands with one another
in how many ways is it possible
10. How many words can be formed using the
a) 20 c) 45
letters of the word ANSWER which neither
b) 90 d) None of these
begin with R nor end in A?
a) 504 c) 496 19. A polygon has 44 diagonals. What is the
b) 500 d) 304 number of its sides?
a) 5 c) 11
11. How many words can be formed letters of the
b) 9 d) 13
word RATIOS such that the vowels are always
together? 20. A box contains 5 red, 4 white and 3 green balls.
a) 12 c) 6 In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from
b) 24 d) 144 the box, without replacement, so that at least 2
of them are green?
12. If the letters of the word ‘NUMBERS’ are
a) 18 c) 28
permuted in all possible ways, then in how
b) 9 d) 27
many of these permutations are the vowels
never together (i.e.) vowels are separated? 21. Five people out of whom only two can drive are
a) 3600 c) 2160 to be seated in a five seater car with two seats
b) 360 d) 720 in front and three in the rear. The people who
know driving don’t sit together. Only someone
13. Find the number of different signals that can be
who knows driving can sit on the driver’s seat.
transmitted by arranging 3 yellow flags, 4 red
Find the number of ways the five people can be
flags and 2 blue flags on a pole. All the flags are
seated.
used to transmit the signal.
a) 40 c) 48
a) 1260 c) 1300
b) 60 d) 36
b) 1200 d) None of these
22. A postmaster wants to get delivered 6 letters at
14. If 6 boys and 6 girls have to sit in a round
six different addresses. In the post office there
circular music chair. So, that there is a girl
are 2 postmen then in how many ways can the
between 2 boys. Find the number of ways they
postmaster send the letters at different
can sit?
addresses through the postmen?
a) 6! * 5! c) 6! * 3!
a) 6! / 2! c) 64
b) 6! * 4! d) 6! * 2!
b) 6! * 2! d) 36
15. In how many different ways a group of 4 men
23. In an auditorium the chairs were arranged such
and 4 women can be formed out of 7 men and 8
that the number of rows were 3 more than the
women?
number of columns. The chairs are rearranged
a) 2450 c) 117
by removing 3 columns and adding 6 rows
b) 1050 d) 232
without adding or removing any chair. How
16. A bag contains 5 black and 6 red balls. many people can sit in that auditorium at a
Determine the number of ways in which 2 black time?
and 3 red balls can be selected? a) 124 c) 108
a) 200 c) 400 b) 96 d) 98
b) 300 d) None of these
24. The number of ways in which 8 different books
17. In how many ways can 5 prizes be given away can be arranged on a shelf so that 3 particular
to 3 boys when each boy is eligible for one or books shall not be together:
more prizes? a) 11! – 3! c) 8! * 3! – 5!
a) 53 c) 5P3 b) 361000 d) 36000
b) 3 5 d) 5C3
25. A six letter word is to be formed by using at
least two vowels in it. How many such words
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can be formed (not necessarily meaningful) if 34. A box contains 4 red, 5 blue and 6 green balls of
all the letters in word are different? identical size. Two balls are drawn at random.
a) 53349120 c) 53431920 The probability that one is blue and the other is
b) 53439120 d) 54339120 green is
PROBABILITY a) c)
26. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the
probability of getting at most 2 heads? b) d)
a) 1/4 c) 7/8
35. An integer is chosen from the first twenty
b) 3/8 d) ½
natural No's. What is the probability, that it is a
27. A Perfect dice is tossed twice. Find the prime number?
probability of getting a total of 9. a) 2/5 c) 1/5
a) 1/6 c) 1/36 b) 2/9 d) 1/20
b) 1/9 d) 7/9
36. Ram and Shyam are playing chess together.
28. The probability that a card is drawn from a Ram knows the two rows in which he has to put
pack of 52 cards will form a pack of 52 cards all the pieces in but he doesn’t know how to
will be diamond or king being in? place them. What is the probability that he puts
a) 4/52 c) 1/52 all the pieces in the right place?
b) 4/13 d) 2/13 a) 8! / 16! c) 8! / 15!
b) 8! / (2 * 15!) d) (2 * 8!) / 16!
29. Find the probability that a person's birthday
falls on Monday or Friday. 37. A child paints the six faces of a cube with six
a) 1/7 c) 3/7 different colors red, blue, pink, yellow, green
b) 2/7 d) Can’t determine and orange. What is the probability that red,
pink and blue faces share a common corner?
30. A bag contains 8 red and 5 white balls. 2 balls
a) 1/6 c) 1/10
are drawn at random. What is the probability
b) 1/20 d) 1/5
that both are white?
a) 5/16 c) 3/26 38. Aarti gave her project assignment to a
b) 2/13 d) 5/39 shopkeeper for binding. There were 19 pages
including a cover page, 12 pages of theory and 6
31. From the group of 5 men and 5 women, two
pages of drawings. She told the shopkeeper that
persons are chosen at random. The probability
the theory pages are in a particular order and
that one of them is man and the other woman is
the drawing pages can be arranged anywhere
a) 2/5 c) 5/9
provided they are together. If the cover page is
b) 3/5 d) 4/9
always kept first what is the probability that
32. If the probability that A will live 15 yr is 7/8 rest of the pages are arranged as per
and that B will live 15 yr is 9/10, then what is requirement?
the probability that both will live after 15 yr ? a) 12C1 × 6! /18! c) 13 × 40 / 17!
a) 1/20 c) 1/5 b) 13C1 × 6! /19! d) 13! × (6! / 18!)
b) 63/80 d) None of these
39. If the letters of the word “CRACKJACK” are
33. A brother and sister appear for an interview rearranged in a random manner, what is the
against two vacant posts in an office. The probability that vowels are neither together nor
probability of the brother’s selection is 1/5th at the ends?
and that of the sister’s selections is 1/3rd. What a) 11/18 c) 7/36
is the probability that one of them is selected? b) 1/2 d) 5/12
a) 1/5 c) 1/3
40. When 4 fair coins are tossed together what is
b) 2/5 d) 2/3
the probability of getting at least 3 heads?
a) 1/4 c) 5/16
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b) 3/4 d) 3/8
CHAPTER – 9
COGNIZANT – LATEST SIMPLE & COMPOUND
41. A phone company offers 5 phone plan options:
call waiting, call forwarding, voice mail, INTEREST
conferencing, and caller ID. A customer can
SIMPLE INTEREST: It is nothing but the fix
choose 3 options. The number of ways one can
percentage of the principal (invested / borrowed
avail the plan options is:
amount of money). Some key words used in the
a) 10 c) 3
concept of interest:
b) 20 d) 5
Principal (P): It is the sum of money
42. Mayank is going on a holiday trip. He wants to deposited/loaned etc. also known as capital.
pack 3 t-shirts from 5 t-shirts he has. In how Interest: It is the money paid by borrower
many ways can he make his choice? calculated on the basis of Principal.
a) 15 c) 20 Time (T/n): This is the duration for which money
b) 8 d) 10 is lent / borrowed.
Rate of Interest (r/R): It is the rate at which the
43. What are the total number of ways in which a
interest is charged on principal.
four-digit number that is divisible by 2, can be
formed using the numerals 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4 Amount (A) = Principal + Interest
without repetition?
a) 240 c) 100 Simple Interest (SI):
b) 120 d) 60
SI =
44. A five-digit number divisible by 3 is to be
formed using numerals 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 with P = Principal, r = rate of interest (in %)
the total number of ways this can be done is? t = time period (yearly, half yearly etc.)
a) 120 c) 216
b) 216 d) None Amount (A) = P + = P (1 + )
Amount (A) = P
When rate of interest is half-yearly,
A=P
A=P
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Difference between CI and SI for two years, 10. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs 1008 in
2 years and to Rs 1164 in 31/2% years .find
P the sum and the rate of interest
a) 900 and 12% c) 800 and 13%
b) 800 and 13% d) None of these
Difference between CI and SI for three years,
11. What is the present worth of Rs.132 due in 2
years at 5% simple interest per annum
P a) 150 c) 120
b) 100 d) 110
12. The difference between simple interest and
EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01) compound interest on Rs.1200 for one year at
10% per annum reckoned half-yearly is.
1. 800 at 5% per annum Cl amounts to 882 in a) 5 c) 2
a) 2 years c) 3 years b) 3 d) 1
b) 4 years d) 1 years
13. A sum of money doubles itself at compound
2. Find the S.I on Rs.18000 at 6 % per annum interest in 15 years. In how many years will
for 9 months. sum become eight times.
a) Rs.700 c) Rs.900 a) 45 c) 25
b) Rs.750 d) Rs.950 b) 20 d) 40
3. The compound Interest on Rs. 10000 for 3 14. If the simple interest on a sum of money at 5%
years at 10% per annum is per annum for 3 years is Rs. 1200, find the
a) 3320 c) 3350 compound interest on the same sum for the
b) 3310 d) 3300 same period at the same rate.
a) 1260 c) 1261
4. Simple Interest for Rs.5000 at the rate 5% of for b) 1250 d) 1262
2 years is
a) 500 c) 50 15. Find the compound interest on Rs. 10000 in 2
b) 600 d) 100 years at 4% per annum, the interest being
compounded half yearly.
5. A sum of money double itself at SI in 10 years. a) 824.32 c) 824.30
In how many years would it be triple itself b) 824 d) 825
a) 36 years c) 20 years
b) 24 years d) 15 years 16. At what rate percent compound interest does a
sum of money become nine fold in 2 years?
6. A sum amount to Rs. 1,352 in 2 years at 4% a) 100% c) 220%
compound interest the sum is b) 150% d) 200%
a) 1500 c) 1300
d) 1200 d) 1250 17. Rs. 800 becomes Rs. 956 in 3 years at certain
simple rate of interest. If the rate of interest is
7. A sum amounts to Rs. 605 in two years and Rs. increased by 4% what amount will Rs. 800
665.50 in the third year what is the rate of become in 3 years?
simple interest? a) 1050 c) 1060
a) 15% c) 12% b) 1052 d) None of these
b) 10% d) 8%
18. Amala invests Rs. 6000 in a bond which gives
8. Different between C.1 & SI an amount of Rs. interest at 4% per annum during the first year
15000 for 2 years is Rs 96 what is the rate of 5% during the second year, 10% during the
interest per annum? third year. How much does she get at the end
a) 8% c) 12% of the third year?
b) 10% d) 5% a) 7210 c) 7207.20
b) 7207.25 d) None of these
9. The difference b/w simple interest and the
compound interest on Rs. 800 at 5% per annum 19. What will be the difference between simple
for 1 year and compound interest on a sum of Rs 2000
a) 0 c) 5 put for 2 years at 5% per annum?
d) 2 d) None of these a) 20 c) 25
b) 15 d) 10
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20. The difference between the C.I and S.I on Rs.
29. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years
4000 for 2 years at 10% is
at simple interest. What will be the compound
a) 45 c) 40
interest of Rs. 12,000 after 3 years at the same
b) 50 d) 42
rate?
21. A sum was put at simple interest at a certain a) 2160 c) 3972
rate for 2 years. Had it been put at 3% higher b) 3120 d) 6240
rate, it would have fetched Rs. 300 more. Find
30. The simple interest earned on a certain
the sum
amount is double the money when
a) 500 b) 3000
invested for 15 years. What interest rate
c) 5000 d) 300
is offered?
22. At what rate of S. I Rs. 4000 will amount to a) 26.66% c) 30%
Rs.5000 in 4 years? b) 12% d) 13.33%
a) 6 % c) 2/3% 31. Given that the interest is only earned on
b) % d) None of these principal. if an investment of Rs_ 1000.00
amounts to Rs. 1440.00 in two years.
23. Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in 3 years at simple Then what is the rate of interest earned?
interest. If the interest rate is increased by 3%, a) 20% c) 21%
it would amount to b) 22% d) 11%
a) 990 c) 982
b) 995 d) 992
24. What amount should be repaid to clear a loan of TCS – NINJA – LATEST
Rs. 6000 borrowed at 6(2/3)% simple interest
per annum for a period of 1 year and 6 months.
a) 6000 c) 6500 32. What is the simple interest obtained for
b) 6600 d) 5600 Rs. 15000 at 6% p.a. if the amount is
deposited on Jan 1 2020 and withdrawn
25. A sum Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 915.92 in two on the end of July 1 2020?
years. Then the compound interest rate is
a) R=6% c) R=7% a) Rs. 480 c) Rs. 450
b) R=5% d) R=10% b) Rs. 420 d) Rs. 390
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CHAPTER – 10
MENSURATION
Mensuration is the branch of mathematics which
deals with the study of different geometrical
shapes, their areas and Volume. In the broadest
sense, it is all about the process of measurement.
It is based on the use of algebraic equations and
geometric calculations to provide measurement
data regarding the width, depth and volume of a
given object or group of objects. While the
measurement results obtained by the use of
mensuration are estimates rather than actual
physical measurements, the calculations are
usually considered very accurate.
2D Shapes 3D Shapes
Square Cube
Rectangle Cuboid
Triangle Cylinder
Parallelogram Cone
Sphere &
Rhombus
Hemisphere
Trapezium Prism
Circle Pyramid
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2. A man walking at the speed of 4 kmph crosses a
square field diagonally in 3 minutes. The area of
the field is:
a) 18000m2 c) 19000m2
b) 20000m2 d) 25000m2
3. The cost of cultivating a square field at the rate
of Rs.135 per hectare is Rs.1215. The cost of
putting a fence around it at the rate of 75 paise
per meter would be :
a) Rs.360 c) Rs.900
b) Rs.810 d) Rs.1800
4. The cost of carpeting a room 18m long with a
carpet 75cm wide at Rs. 4.50 per meter is Rs.
810. The breadth of the room is:
a) 7 m c) 8 m
b) 7.5 m d) 8.5 m
5. A hall 36m long and 15m broad is to be paved
with stones, each measuring 6dm by 5 dm. The
number of stones required is:
a) 180 c) 18
b) 1800 d) 18000
6. A room 5.44m long and 3.74m broad is to be
paved with square tiles. The least number of
square tiles required to cover the floor is:
a) 176 c) 184
b) 192 d) 162
7. A man cycles round the boundary of a
rectangular park at the rate of 12 kmph and
completes one full round in 8 minutes. If the
ratio between the length and breadth of the
park be 3:2, then its area is:
a) 1536 m2 c) 153600m2
b) 15360 m2 d) None of these
8. A rectangular carpet has an area of 60 sq.m. If
its diagonal and longer side together equal 5
times the shorter side, the length of the carpet
is:
a) 5 m c) 13 m
b) 12 m d) 14.5 m
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11. The cross section of a canal is trapezium in
shape. The canal is 12m wide at the top and 8m
wide at the bottom. If the area of the cross
section is 840 sq.m, the depth of the canal is:
a) 42 m c) 63 m
b) 84 m d) 8.75 m
12. The altitude of an equilateral triangle of side
3 3cm is:
a) 3 cm c) 4.5 cm
b) 23 cm d) 3/4 cm
13. The area of a right-angled triangle is 30 sq.cm
and the length of its hypotenuse is 13cm. The
length of the shorter leg is:
a) 4 cm c) 6 cm
b) 5 cm d) 7 cm
14. The difference between the circumference and a) 1100 cm3 c) 1010 cm3
the radius of a circle is 37 cm. The area of the b) 1110 cm3 d) None of these
circle is:
a) 111 cm2 c) 154 cm2 20. The measurement of a rectangular box with lid
b) 148 cm2 d) 259cm2 is 25cmx12cmx18cm. Find the volume of the
largest sphere that can be inscribed in the box
15. A circular road runs round a circular ground. If (in terms of πcm3). (Hint: The lowest measure
the difference between the circumferences of of rectangular box represents the diameter of
the outer circle and inner circle is 66 metres, the largest sphere)
the width of the road is:
a) 288 c) 72
a) 5.25 m c) 10.5 m b) 48 d) 864
b) 7 m d) 21 m
21. What is the diameter in cm of a solid right
16. A toothed wheel of diameter 50cm is attached circular cylinder whose height is 6 cm and the
to a smaller wheel of diameter 30cm. How area of the curved surface is five times the
many revolutions will the smaller wheel make combined area of the two flat surfaces?
when the larger one makes 15 revolutions? a) 3 c) 1.2
a) 18 c) 25 b) 2.4 d) 0.9
b) 20 d) 30
22. The total surface area of a solid hemisphere is
17. A circular wire of radius 42cm is cut and bent 75 times the area of a circle whose diameter is
into the form of a rectangle whose sides are in 6 cm. What is the radius (in cm) of the
the ratio of 6:5. The smaller side of the hemisphere?
rectangle is:
a) 8 c) 15
a) 30 cm c) 72 cm b) 12 d) 18
b) 60 cm d) 132 cm
23. The perimeter of a rectangle plot is 36 m. If the
18. Four horses are tethered at four corners of a length is increased by 6m and the breadth is
square plot of side 63 metres so that they just decreased by 3m, the area of the plot remains
cannot reach one another. The area left
the same, what is the length of the plot?
ungrazed is:
a) 8 m c) 10 m
a) 675.5 m2 c) 785.8 m2 b) 6 m d) 12 m
b) 780.6 m2 d) 850.5m2
19. A theater is of the shape as shown below. The 24. The length of a rectangle is two - fifths of the
cross section is a rectangle 8mx4m mounted by radius of a circle. The radius of the circle is
a triangle of altitude 3m. If the length of the equal to the side of the square, whose area is
building is 25m, find its volume (Inner 1225 sq.units. What is the area (in sq.units) of
measures are given).
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the rectangle if the rectangle if the breadth is 10
units?
a) 140 c) 175
b) 156 d) 214 BRAIN TWISTER
25. What will be the cost of building a fence around
a square plot with area equal to 289 sqft, if the
price per foot of building the fence is Rs. 58?
a) Rs. 3944 c) Rs. 4176
b) Rs. 3828 d) Can’t be determined
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Study the following graph carefully and answer
CHAPTER – 11 the questions given below it
Account of income and expenditure (in crores) of
DATA seven companies in the year 2000
INTERPRETATION 60
50 50
EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01) 50
42.5
45
40
45
40
45
37.5
40 35
Rs. in crore
Study the following table carefully and 32.5 32.5
27.5
answer the questions based on it. 30 25
Total Number of 24500 people who are 20
engaged in the given professions and of
these) percentage of Females and Males 10
0
PROFESSIONS % OF % OF % OF
A B C D E F G
PEOPLE FEMALES MALES Compaines Expenditure
Income
MEDICAL 11 60 40
ENGINEERING 18 30 70 6. Approximately what is the percentage of
LAW 24 45 55 profit/loss that Companies together?
a) 10% profit c) 10% loss
TEACHING 21 80 20
b) 12% profit d) no loss or profit
BANKING 16 35 65
7. If the income of Company A had increased by
MANAGEMENT 10 44 56
10% in year 2000 from year 1999 and profit
earned in 1999 was 20% what was its
1. What is the ratio of the total number of males in
expenditure in 1999? (The value upto two
medical and teaching professions together to
the total number of females in the same decimal places in crores)
professions together? a) 28.40 c) 30.30
a) 117 : 43 c)183 : 29 b) 32.32 d) None of these
b) 29 : 183 d) 43 : 117
8. If the expenditure of Company G in 2000 was
2. The total number of people in the teaching 20% more than its expenditure in the year
profession is what percent of the total number 1999 and the Company has earned a profit of
of people in the law profession? 10% in 1999.What was the company income in
a) 93 c) 68 1999 in crores Rs?
b) 87.5 d) 79
a) 37.5 c) 34.09
3. What is the total number of males from all the b) 41.25 d) None of these
professions together?
a) 11472 c) 12384 9. Which of the following Companies had the
b) 12784 d) None of these highest percentage of profit/loss in 2000?
4. The females in the engineering profession are a) B c) F
what percent of the males in the management b) C d) A
profession (rounded off to two digits after
decimal)? 10. What was the ratio of income C over income G?
a) 71.71 c) 96.43 a) 7:5 c) 10:7
b) 83.43 d) 68.54 b) 7:10 d) 2:5
5. What is the ratio of the number of males in the
banking profession to the number of males in Study the following graphs carefully and
the engineering profession? answer the questions that follow: Income and
a) 52 : 63 c) 7 : 11 Expenditure of Company 'X' during the period
b) 28 : 55 d) 17 : 7 1996 to 2001
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600
550 50
Amount in crore Rs.
500 500 37.5 40
35
450 450 450 450 40 32.5 30 30 32.5
400 400 400 23
350 350 30
300 300
250 20
200 10
100 0
2000
1997
1998
1999
2001
2002
2003
2004
0
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001
Years Years
Year
Expenditure
Income 16. What was the ratio between the number of
candidates appeared in 1997 and the number
11. What is the average profit earned (in crore Rs.) of candidates qualified in 2004?
in the given years? a) 14 : 5 c) 3 : 7
a) 83 c) 113 b) 5 : 14 d) Data inadequate
b) 600 d) 200
17. In which of the following years was the
12. What approximately is the percent profit number of candidates qualified the lowest
earned during the year 1999? among the given years?
a) 48 c) 52
a) 1997 c) 2001
b) 43 d) 49
b) 2002 d) 1998
13. Which of the following years has the maximum 18. What was the percentage drop in the number
percent increase or decrease in income from
of candidates appeared from the year 2002 to
the previous year?
a) 2000 c) 1997 2003?
b) 1999 d) 2001 a) 66 c) 70
14. What is the percentage increase in expenditure b) 30 d) None of these
from 1997 to1998?
19. How many candidates qualified in the year
a) 25 c) 33
2002?
b) 33 d) 30 a) 6750 c) 9900
15. What is the average income (in crore Rs.) for b) 13500 d) None of these
the given years?
20. The number of candidates qualified in 1999
a) 336 c) 450
was what percentage of the number of
b) 280 d) 366 candidates appeared in 1998?
a) 68.5 c) 32.5
Study the following graphs carefully and answer
the questions given below: b) 70 d) 67.5
Number of candidates appeared (In thousands) Study the table and pie chart carefully to
and Percentage of candidates qualified in a answer the questions.
Competitive examination over the years. Percentage breakup of employees working in
various departments of an organization
40 35
27.5 30
30 22.5 20 Marking
17.5
20 10 dept
10 5
20% 24%
0 5% Account
1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 16% Dept
35%
Years Production
Years
dept
Percentage of Candidates qualified
Total number of employees=800
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Number of males in departments BRAIN TWISTER
Production Department 245
HR Department 12
IT Department 74
Marketing Department 165
Accounts Department 93
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CHAPTER – 12 INDICES DIVISION RULES
Division rule with same base
SIMPLIFICATION, p m / pn = pm - n
Example: 35 / 33 = 35-3 = 9
n√p
EXERCISE: (LEVEL - 01)
= p1/n
1. If 2x + 3y = 34 and = ,then find the value
p-n = 1 / pn of 6x + 4y
a) 62 c) 108
b) 58 d) 122
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5. Find the value of X: 20.2 × 64 × 81.3 × 40.2 = 8X b) d) -1/4
a) 2.4 c) 3.5
b) 3.2 d) 4.2 18. The simplified form of (x7/2 /x5/2).√y3 /√y )is :
a) x2/y c) x6/y3
6. If 3x-1 + 3x+1 = 90, then x = b) x3/y2 d) xy
a) 0 c) 3
b) 2 d) -2 19. - x c-b
9. [(62.25/2.5) + (12.5/0.5)] / [(0.75 * 9) + (3.5 * 21. If ( 3)5 92 = 3n 3 3, then the value of n is:
3.5)] =? a) 5 c) 2
b) 4 d) 3
a) 1 c) 2
22. What is the quotient when (x-1 - 1) is divided by
b) 1 d) None of these
(x - 1)?
10. 8.008 + 0.8 + 80.8 + 800.8 + 0.08 =? a) 1/x c) 1/2x
a) 888.888 c) 890.488 b)-1/x d) 1/x2
b) 889.688 d) 980.488 n 2
23. If , then n is equal to :
11. 1344 ÷ 14 ÷ 4 × 34 – 35% of 540 – 45% of 1320 a) -1 c) 0
=x b) -2 d) 2
a) 46 c) 67
24. Solve for m if 36 (6m) = (216)3m+4
b) 87 d) 33
a) -7/4 c) -5/4
12. Find the value of X : {63.6 ÷ (36)-4.2}1/4 = b) -9/4 d) -11/4
a) 1 c) 216 25. Find the value of X :
b) 36 d) 46656
×0.008÷ x
13. (180/37 of 14.8) / (17/60.1 of 180.30) =?
a) 4 c) 8
a) 1.4 c) 1.5
b) 5 d) 9
b) 1.6 d) 1.2
26. Simplify:
14. Find the value of X : ( )3 × 81 ÷ (1/31/5) = 9X (256 / 576)1/4 × (64 / 27)–1/3 × (216 / 8)–1
a) 3 c) 12
a) 1/3 c) 1/2
b) 6 d) 27
b) 1/18 d) 1/3
15. Find the value of X : (0.64)4÷ (0.512)3× (0.8)4 =
(0.8)X+3 27. Simplify the following
a) 0 c) 2 (a4 b6 / c8)3 × (b8c4 / a–6)–2 × (c6a6 / b4)2
b) 1 d) 3 a) a12 / b6. c20 c) a7 / b6 . c20
b) a6 / b6 . c22 d) None of these
16. Find the value of
28. Simplify: (216 / 1)–2/3 ÷ (27 / 1)–4/3 = ?
a) 132 c) 185 a) 4/9 c) 9/2
b) 177 d) 225 b) 9/4 d) 3/2
17. If 2x × 8(1/4) = 2(1/4) then find the value of x? 29. If 9n × 35 × (27)3 / 3 × (81)4 = 27, then the value
a) c) of n is:
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a) 0 c) 3
b) 2 d) 4
CHAPTER – 13
3. The value of is
log log log
a) 0 c) 5
b) 1 d) 60
4. If logx y = 100 and log2 x = 10, then the value
of y is:
a) 210 c) 21000
b) 2 100 d) 210000
5. Simplify :
logab logbc abc log
a) 0 c) 2
b) 1 d) abc
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iii) log 1 = 0 iv)log (1 + 2 + 3) = log 1 + b) 3/4 d) 9/2
log 2 + log 3
a) i c) iii 24. Which of the following statement is not
b) ii d) iv correct?
i) log (1 + 2 + 3) = log 1 + log 2 + log 3
12. If log1087.5 = 1.9421, then the number of digits ii) log( 2+3) = log (2×3)
in (875)10 is? iii) log10 1 = 0
a) 30 c) 33 iv) log10 10 = 1
b) 28 d) 27 a) i c) iii
b) ii d) iv
13. If logX/(a2 + ab + b2) = log Y/(b2 + bc + c2) =
logZ/(c2 + ca + a2), then Xa - b.Yb - c. Zc - a =? 25. If the value of 4 a 2 + 9 b 2 = 10 – 12ab
a) 0 c) 1 then find the value of log (2a + 3b)
b) -1 d) 2 a) 1/2 c) 7/2
b) ¾ d) 9/2
14. If logX =(logY)/2 =(logZ)/5, then X4.Y3.Z-2 =?
a) 2 c) 10
b) 1 d) 2
15. What is the value of X, if 1/(log442/441 X) +
1/(log443/442 X) + 1/(log444/443 X) +…+
1/(log899/898 X) +1/(log900/899 X) = 2?
a) 2/21 c) 7/100
b) 1 d) 10/7
16. Simplify:(log49√7+log25√5-log4√2)/log17.5
a) 5 c) 5/2
b) 2 d) 3/2
17. If log{(a+b)/3} = 0.5(log a + log b), then the
correct relation between a and b is:
a) a2+b2 = 7ab c) (a+b)2 = 2
b) a -b = 7ab
2 2 d) (a+b)/3=(1/2)(a+b)
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REASONING ABILITY
BRAIN TWISTER
CHAPTER – 1
SYLLOGISM
The questions which are asked in this section
contain two or more statements and these
statements are followed by two or more
conclusions. You have to find out which of the
conclusions logically follow from the given
statements. The statements have to be taken true
even if they seem to be at variance from the
commonly known facts.
For such questions, you can take the help of Venn
Diagrams. On the basis of the given statements,
you should draw all the possible diagrams, and
then derive the solution from each of these
diagrams separately. Finally, the answer common
to the all the diagrams is taken.
Example 1:
Statements:
1. All dogs are asses.
2. All asses are bulls.
Conclusions:
1. Some dogs are not bulls.
2. Some bulls are dogs.
3. All bulls are dogs.
4. All dogs are bulls.
Solution:
On the basis of both statements, the following one
diagram is possible.
Example 2:
Statements:
1. Some dogs are asses.
2. Some asses are bulls.
Conclusions:
1. Some asses are not dogs.
2. Some dogs are bulls.
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Solution:
From these given statements the following Conclusions:
diagrams are possible: I. Some citizens are men.
II. All soldiers are citizens.
3. Statements:
I. All books are pens.
II. All pens are boxes.
Conclusions:
I. All books are boxes.
II. All pens are books.
4. Statements:
I. Some children are adults.
II. Some adults are old.
Conclusions:
I. Some children are not old.
II. Some adults are not old.
5. Statements:
I. All parrots are mangoes.
II. Some Mangoes are donkeys.
Conclusions:
I. Some parrots are donkeys.
From the diagram neither (1) nor (2) conclusions II. Some donkey are mangoes.
follow
6. Statements:
I. All cats are bats.
II. All bats are tables.
EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01)
Conclusions:
In each question below three statements (I, II, III) I. Some tables are bats.
are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II. Some tables are cats.
II, III and IV. You have to take the statements to be 7. Statements:
true even if they seem to be at variance with I. No tables are watches.
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions II. Some watches are lamps.
and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements, Conclusions:
disregarding commonly known facts. I. Some lamps are not tables.
II. Some lamps are tables.
a) If only conclusion I follows
8. Statements:
b) If only conclusion II follows
I. Some pins are forks.
c) If either I or II follows II. All forks are keys.
d) If neither I nor II follows III. No key is lock.
e) If both I and II follows
Conclusions:
I. Some locks are pins.
1. Statements:
II. No lock is a pin.
I. Some dogs are rats.
II. Some rats are lions. 9. Statements:
Conclusions: I. Some pearls are stones.
I. Some dogs are lions. II. All stones are bricks.
II. None of the dogs is a lion. III. All bricks are walls.
2. Statements: Conclusions:
I. All soldiers are men. I. Some pearls are bricks.
II. Some citizens are soldiers. II. Some pearls are walls.
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10. Statements: 17. Statements:
I. Some apples are oranges. I. All breads are tables.
II. Some oranges are grapes. II. Some tables are brushes.
III. All grapes are bananas. III. All brushes are paints.
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I. Some apples are bananas. I. Some paints are breads.
II. Some oranges are bananas. II. Some brushes are breads.
III. Some paints are tables.
11. Statements:
I. All goats are flowers. a) None follow
II. No flower is branch. b) Only II follow
III. Some branches are roots. c) Only III follow
d) Only I and II follow
Conclusions:
e) Only II and III follow
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat. 18. Statements:
I. Some pictures are frames.
12. Statements:
II. Some frames are idols.
I. All benches are cots..
III. All idols are curtains.
II. No cot is lamp.
III. Some lamps are candles. Conclusions:
I. Some curtains are pictures.
Conclusions:
II. Some curtains are frames.
I. Some cots are benches.
III. Some idols are frames.
II. Some candles are cots.
a) Only I and II follow
13. Statements: b) Only II and III follow
I. Some buildings are sofas. c) Only I and III follow
II. Some sofas are benches. d) All follow
III. Some benches are tables. e) None follows
Conclusions: 19. Statements:
I. Some tables are sofas. I. Some cards are files.
II. No table is sofa. II. Some files are ink-pots.
14. Statements: III. Some ink-pots are pads.
I. Some fruits are mangoes. Conclusions:
II. Some mangoes are red. I. Some ink-pots are cards.
III. All red are vegetables. II. Some cards are pads.
Conclusions: III. Some pads are files.
I. No fruit is red. a) None follow
II. Some fruits are red. b) Only I follow
15. Statements: c) Only II follow
I. All A are Z. d) Only III follow
II. All Z are X. e) All follow
III. All Y are A. 20. Statements:
Conclusions: I. All bananas are apples.
I. All A are Y. II. Some apples are oranges.
II. All Y are X. III. All oranges are grapes.
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e) Only II and III follow c) Only II follows
21. Statements: d) Only III follows
I. Some tables are chairs. e) Only II and III follow
II. All chairs are benches. 25. Statements:
III. All benches are desks. I. All flowers are buses.
Conclusions: II. Some buses are cats.
I. Some desks are tables. III. All cats are tigers.
II. Some benches are tables. Conclusions:
III. Some desks are chairs. I. Some tigers are buses.
a) Only I follow II. Some tigers are flowers.
b) Only II follow III. Some cats are flowers.
c) Only III follow IV. Some buses are tigers.
d) Only II and III follow a) None follows
e) All follow b) Only I and II follow
22. Statements: c) Only III and IV follow
I. Some blades are papers. d) Only I and IV follow
II. Some papers are books. e) Only II and III, follow
III. Some books are pens.
Conclusions:
I. Some pens are papers.
II. Some books are blades. BRAIN TWISTER
III. Some pens are blades.
a) Only I follow
b) Only II follow
c) Only III follow
d) None follow
e) Only II and III follow
23. Statements:
I. Some pencils are marbles.
II. All marbles are buses.
III. Some buses are trucks.
Conclusions:
I. Some trucks are pencils.
II. Some buses are pencils.
III. No truck is pencil.
a) Only I follow
b) Only II follow
c) Only either I or III and II follow
d) Only either I or III follow
e) None of these.
24. Statements:
I. Some buses are trucks.
II. Some trucks are boats.
III. No boat is jeep.
Conclusions:
I. Some jeeps are buses.
II. Some boats are buses.
III. Some jeeps are trucks.
a) None follow
b) Only I follow
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CHAPTER – 2
DIRECTION SENSE
The questions related to direction sense generally
involve an individual travelling certain distances in
certain directions. Then, the students are asked to Important NOTE # 3:
determine the distance between his starting and
final points and his direction w.r.t. to the starting Always note that the direction of right turn is
point. always in clock-wise direction, and direction of left
turn is always in anti-clockwise direction.
The best way to solve these problems is to draw a
map which traces the path traversed by the person,
as you read on the information given in the
problem and make certain that the map reflects the
entire data given in the problem.
Important NOTE # 1:
In order to solve these kind of problems, it is very
necessary that the student should know all the
directions. Also, the student should be able to find
the left and right of a person walking in particular
direction.
The following diagram displays all the directions
and Left(L) and Right(R) of a person walking in that EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01)
direction to help the candidates know the
directions.
1. Rahul walks 30 m towards south then turns to
his right and starts walking straight till he
completes another 30 m. Then again turning to
his left he walks 20 m. He then turns to his left
and walks for 30 m. How far is he from his
initial position?
a) 30 m c) 10 m
b) 50 m d) 60 m
2. A child is looking for his father. He went 90m in
the East before turning to his right. He went 20
m before turning to his right again to look for
his father at his uncle’s place 30 m from this
point. His father was not there. From here he
went 100 m to the North before meeting his
father in a street. What is the smallest distance
between the starting point and his father’s
Important NOTE # 2: position?
The distance (shortest) between 2 points after a) 80 m c) 140 m
travelling a distance of a metres horizontally and b) 100 m d) 260 m
then b metres vertically is given by -
3. A person moves North, then turns to his right
and then again right and then finally go to left.
In which direction is he moving now?
a) East c) West
b) South-East d) North
4. Varun drove his car for 80 km due North. Then
he turned left and drove for 100 km. Again he
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turned left & drove yet another 80 km. Again he a) 8m c) 12m
turned left and drove his car 120 km. How far b) 10m d) 15m
do you think he actually drove his car from the
12. Point P is 8m to the west of point Q. Point S is
initial position?
2m to the south of point P. Point R is 6m to the
a) 20 km c) 60 km
East of point S. Point T is 2m to the North of
b) 100 km d) None of these
Point R. which of the following three points fall
5. One morning after sunrise, Amrit was standing in a straight line?
facing a pole. The shadow of the pole was a) Q,S,P c) P,T,Q
forming on the left side. Which direction was b) S,T,R d)P,R,T
Amrit facing?
13. Jancy is standing at point A facing North. She
a) East c) North
walks 50 meters to her right and takes a left
b) West d) South
turn and walks another 40 meters., then she
6. I drove 50 km towards east from a city ‘S’ and walks 30 meters to her left again and then 20
then turned right and drove another 30 km. meters to her right. In which direction is she
Now I turned to my left & drove another 30 km. standing from her starting point?
Finally I turned my right & drove 30 km to a) North-East c) North-west
reach a city ‘F’. Find the shortest straight b) North d) South-west
distance between cities S and F.
14. Kamal starts walking towards South. After
a) 20 km c) 30 km
Walking 15 meters he turns towards North.
b) 25 km d) 100 km
After Walking 20 meters, he turns towards East
7. Ahmadabad is to the southwest of Bangalore, and walks 10 meters. He then turns towards
Chennai is to the east of Ahmadabad and South and Walks 5 meters. How far and in
southeast of Bangalore and Delhi is to the north which direction is he from his original position?
of Chennai in line with Ahmadabad-Bangalore. a) 10 meters East c) 10 meters West
In which direction of Bangalore is Delhi b) 10 meters SE d) 10 meters NE
located?
15. I am facing South and take a right and
a) South c) North
walk 20 m, Then I turn right again and
b) Southwest d) Northeast
walk 10 m, Then I turn left and walk 10 m and
8. Manish walked 20 m towards north. Then he then turning right walk 20 m. Then I turn right
turned right and walks 30 m. Then he turns again and walk 60 m, In which direction am I
right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and from the starting point?
walks 15 m. Finally he turns left and walks 15 a) North-East c) North-west
m. In which direction and how many metres is b) North d) South-west
he from the starting position?
16. Sumit put his timepiece on the table in such a
a) 15 m West c) 30 m West
way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North. In
b) 30 m East d) 45 m East
which direction the minute hand will point at
9. Mohan is walking towards west .he takes three 9.15 P.M.?
turns while walking, all at an (internal) angle of a) South-East c) North-west
45 degree towards right, right and left. What b) North d) west
direction is he facing now?
17. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90o in the
a) North-West c) East
clockwise direction, then 180o in the
b) South-East d) West
anticlockwise direction and then another 90o in
10. If South-East becomes North, North-East the same direction. Which direction is he facing
becomes west and so on. What will West now?
become? a) South c) South-west
a) North-West c) East b) South-East d) East
b) South-East d) West
18. If A x B means A is to the south of B; A + B
11. Vikash walks 30 meter in the north direction, means A is to the north of B; A % B means A is
after that he took a right turn and walks 40 to the east of B; A - B means A is to the west of
meter. After that he took a right turn and walks B; then in P % Q + R - S, S is in which direction
40 meter more and finally he took a right turn with respect to Q?
and stop after walking 40 meter. Find the a) South-East c) South-west
distance of vikash from the initial position? b) North-East d) North-west
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to the North of A. Q is in which direction with
19. Point A is 8m to the west of Point B. Point C is
respect to R?
4m to the south of Point B. Point D is 4m to the
a) South-East c) South-west
east of Point C. Point F is 6m to the north of
b) North-West d) North-East
Point D. Point E is 8m to the west of Point F.
Point G is 2m to the south of Point E. How far
and in which direction is Point G from Point A?
a)4m to the west c) 4m to the east
b)8m to the west d) 8m to the east
20. Early morning after sunrise, Karthik was
BRAIN TWISTER
standing infront of his house in such a way that
his shadow was falling exactly behind him. He
starts walking straight and walks 5 metres. He
turns to his left and walks 3 metres and again
turning to his left walks 2 metres. Now in which
direction is he from his starting point?
a) South-East c) South-west
b) North-East d) North-west
21. A dog runs 20 metre towards East and turns
Right, runs 10 metre and turns to right, runs 9
metre and again turns to left, runs 5 metre and
then turns to left, runs 12 metre and finally
turns to left and runs 6 metre. Now which
direction dog is facing?
a) East c) South
b) North d) west
22. A and B start moving towards each other from
two places 200 m apart. After walking 60 m, B
turns left and goes 20 m, then he turns right
and goes 40 m. He then turns right again and
comes back to the road on which he had started
walking. If A and B walk with the same speed,
what is the distance between them now?
a) 20m c) 40m
b) 30m d) 50m
23. There are four towns P, Q, R and T. Q is to the
south-west of P, R is to the east of Q and south-
east of P, and T is to the north of R in line with
QP. In which direction of P is T located?
a) South-East c) South-west
b) North-West d) North-East
24. After 4 p.m. on a sunny day when Ramesh was
returning from his school, he saw his uncle
coming in the opposite direction. His uncle
talked to him for some time. Ramesh saw that
the shadow of his uncle was to his right side.
Which direction was his uncle facing during
their talk?
a) East c) South
b) West d) North
25. Boys and girls are made to sit in 5 rows and 5
columns all of them facing North. A is at the
center of the arrangement, P is to the
immediate right of A, Q is just behind P and R is
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CHAPTER – 3 Maternal & Paternal Relations
A relation from mother's side is maternal and a
BLOOD RELATIONS relation from the father's side is paternal.
Unless specified, the relationships are to be
assumed to be paternal
Blood relation problems mainly deal with the
hierarchical structure of a family i.e., grand-parents, Building a Family Tree
parents and children etc. Different relationships
between the family members of different The following notations/symbols shown in the
generations are given. To solve such questions, the table below are used to build the family tree
entire family tree is to be constructed by plotting
out the various relationships.
The typical relationships that are commonly used
in blood relation problems are summarized below –
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6. Kevin, pointing out to a man who is running in a) Paternal grandmother
a garden, said ‘he is my maternal uncle’s b) Maternal grandmother
daughter-in-law’s husband.’ then how is the c) Paternal grandfather
man’s only paternal aunt’s son related to d) Maternal grandfather
Kevin’s father?
15. If A + B means A is the mother of B;
a) Brother c) Son
A x B means A is the father of B;
b) Uncle d) Aunty
A $ B means A is the brother of B and
7. Introducing a lady, a man said, ‘She is the only A @ B means A is the sister of B
sister of the only son of the father of the then which of the following means P is the son
mother of my daughters.’ how is she related to of Q?
the man? a) Q + R @ P@ N c) Q x R $ P@N
a) Wife c) Sister-in-law b) Q + R * P @N d) Q x R $ P $N
b) Sister d) Data inadequate
16. If A + B means A is the mother of B;
8. Pointing to a person, Dayalan said "his only
A - B means A is the brother B;
brother is the father of my daughter's father".
A % B means A is the father of B and
How is the person related to Dayalan ?
A x B means A is the sister of B,
a) Father c) Uncle
Which of the following shows that P is the
b) Grandfather d) Brother-in-Law
maternal uncle of Q?
9. Pointing to a lady, a girl said, ‘she is the a)Q - N + M x P c) P - M + N x Q
daughter in law of the grandmother of my b) P + S x N –Q d) Q - S %P
father’s only son. ’how is the lady related to
the girl? 17. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’.
a) Wife c) Sister-in-law ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’.
b) Sister d) Mother ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is the wife of Q’.
‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’.
10. Raghul went to his mother’s mother-in-law’s What will come in place of question mark to
only son’s daughter’s husband’s son’s maternal establish the relation that ‘Q is grandson of T’?
uncle and asked for some money. How is this P+Q?R×S÷T
person related to Raghul? a) - c) *
a) Brother c) Father b) + d) ÷
b) Cousin d) Uncle
18. M + N means M is Sister of N.
11. E is the son of C. D is the husband of C. B and G M @ N means M is Father of N.
is the only brother and daughter of D M ÷ N means M is Son of N.
respectively. F is the maternal aunt of E and G. M % N means M is Mother of N.
How is B related to E? In which of the following pairs is the first-
a) Brother c) Father person daughter of the second person with
b) Cousin d) Uncle regard to the expression F @ G % I + J % H
12. Kavi is the daughter of sanju. Abhi is the a) G, J c) H, J
brother of sanju. Akshaya is the sister of abhi. b) F, H d) I, G
Deny is the brother of kavi. Who is the uncle of 19. Read the following information carefully and
deny? answer the questions given below:
a) Sanju c) Abhi A B D F G H and K are seven members of a
b) Deny d) Kavi family. They belong to three generations. There
are two married couples belonging to two
13. P is the brother of Q and R. S is R's mother. T is
different generations. D is son of H and is
P's father. Which of the following statements
married to K. F is granddaughter of B. G's father
cannot be definitely true?
is grandfather of A. B's husband is father-in -
a) T is Q's father c) P is S's son
law of K. H has only one son.
b) S is P's mother d) Q is T's son
14. A+B means A is the mother of B. I. How is F related to G?
A-B means A is the Father of B. a) Son c) Niece
A@B means A is the husband of b) Nephew d) Data inadequate
A#B means A is the daughter of B. II. Which of the following is the, pair of
M@N+P-Q indicates what relationship of M married ladies?
with Q? a) HK c) KF
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b) HD d) None of these 3rd generation and M is the son-in-law of E. K is
the brother-in-law of H. Who among the
III. How many female members are there
following is sister-in-law of D?
among them?
a) E c) D
a) Two c) Four
b) H d) G
b) Three d) Data inadequate
25. Study the following information carefully and
20. A and B are a married couple, A being the male answer the questions given beside:There are
member. D is the only son of C, who is the nine members are in their family. Suji is
brother of A. E is the sister of D. B is the mother-in-law of Kevin and sister-in-law of
daughter-in-law of F, whose husband has Kavi. Bavan is father of Divi. Abi and Diviare
died. How many male members are there in sister-in-law of each other. The person Vidya is
the family? the niece of Kevin and Kavi is the paternal aunt
a) 1 c) 3 of Divi. The relationship of Bavan and Divi is
b) 2 d) 4 same as that of Hari and Vidya. Geni is the
mother of Abi and she has one daughter and
21. There are five persons in a family O,P,Q,R and
one son.
S. They are working as a farmer, a teacher, a
I. If Mano is the son of Kevin, then how Geni
lawyer, an engineer and a doctor. P is an
is related to Mano?
unmarried daughter of O and working as a
a) Father c) Grandmother
teacher. S is the brother of Q, working as a
b) Mother d) Aunt
lawyer. Q is the husband of the only married
couple in the family. O is the father of an II. If Kavi is married to Jerry, then how is
unmarried daughter and two sons working as Bavan related to Jerry?
a farmer. O’s daughter-in-law is a doctor. Who a) Sister-in-law c) Son
is an engineer in the family? b) Daughter d) Brother-in-law
a) S c) P
b) Q d) O
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Solution: In the word FATHER and its code
CHAPTER – 4 HCVJGT, we find that each letter in the word
FATHER is moved two steps forward to obtain the
CODING & DECODING corresponding letter of the code i.e.
F→+2H; A→+2C; T→+2V; H→+2J;
These questions can be broadly classified into 5
E→+2G; R→+2T;
main categories, as follows:
Similarly, we can find the code for STUDENT, i.e.
(1) Alphabet (Letters) Coding Decoding
S→+2U; T→+2V; U→+2W; D→+2F;
(2) Number Coding Decoding
E→+2G; N→+2P; T→+2V;
(3) Mixed Coding Decoding
Hence, the desired code is UVWFGPV
(4) Coding by Substitution
(5) Deciphering Messages Pattern 2: Order Form
In these questions, a word is coded by simply
Alphabet (Letters) Coding-Decoding
changing the order of letters of the word. The
candidate is required to detect the coding pattern
It can be further be divided into two types:
and answer the questions accordingly.
Type – 1: Direct Letter Coding
Example 1: In a code language if BASIC is coded as
In direct letter coding, the code letters occur in the CASIB, how will DANCE be coded in the same
same sequence as the corresponding letters occur language?
in the word.
Solution: If we compare BASIC with CASIB, we can
Example 1: In a coding language ‘STABLE’ is see that the letters used in the code and the word
written as ‘BDFGJK’ and ‘FORTUNE’ is written as are same but their order of placement has been
‘MOXDYZK’, then how is ‘STONE’ written in that changed. Letter B at the first position of basic word
code? has been placed at fifth position in the coded word
and letter at fifth position in the word BASIC has
Solution: Observing the given words and code, we
been placed at first position. The position of second,
can find that:
third and fourth letters remain unchanged.
(I) There is no apparent rule governing the coding.
(II) Both the given words have common codes
corresponding to common letters i.e. ‘STABLE’ and
‘FORTUNE’ have TE in common in the word and
‘DK’ is common in the code. This shows that the
code letter is in the same sequence as the
corresponding letters in the word. Similarly
(III) STONE is formed by a combination of letters of So, DANCE can be coded as EANCD.
STABLE and FORTUNE. Thus all the above three
arguments indicate that this is a question of direct– Pattern 3: Mirror/ Opposite Form
coding. The following two tables are used to solve this type
Thus, the code for STONE becomes BDOZK. of questions.
CORRESPONDING LETTERS (I)
Type – 2: Position based Coding or Replacement
based Letter Coding A B C D E F G H I J K L M
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Example 1: In a certain language ‘SERVICE’ is b) ONILEN d) ONNLIE
written as HVIERXV. How is ‘WORKER’ coded as?
6. In a certain code, SKILLFUL is written as
Solution: Every letter a corresponding letter i.e., LTMJGMMV, How is STATED written in that
S↓HE↓VR↓IV↓EI↓RC↓XE↓V code?
a) TUCUFD c) UTUCEF
Similarly, we can find the code for the word b) UTUBEF d) TUBUFE
WORKER, i.e.,
7. If BLACK is coded as DNCEM, then ORANGE is
A B C D E F G H I J K L M coded as:
a) QTCPIG c) PSBOHE
b) PSCOHF d) QTCOIG
Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N
8. In a certain code 'SEQUENCE' is coded as
W↓DO↓LR↓IK↓PE↓VR↓I 'FDOFVRFT. How is 'CHILDREN' coded in that
code?
Hence, desired code is DLIPVI a) OFESJMID c) OFSEJIMD
b) OFSEMJID d) OFSEJMID
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15. In a certain code ‘DAYLONG’ is written as 24. In a certain code language, if the word
ZBEKHOP. How is CORDIAL written in that BARRICADE, is coded as AABCDEIRR, then how
code? is the word INDIVIDUAL coded in that
a) SPDCMBJ c) DPSCMBJ language?
b) SPDEMBJ d) SPDCJBM a)ADDIIILNUV c) AIIIUDDLNV
b) ADDIIINLUV d) ADDINIILUV
16. If BOMBAY is written as MYMYMY, how will
TAMIL NADU be written in that code? 25. If 'CAT' and 'BOAT' are written as 'XZG' and
a) YMNYMNYMN c) ABCDABCDA 'YIZG' respectively in a code language then how
b) ABHABHABH d) MNUMNUMNU is 'EGG' to be written in the same language?
a) VSS c) VTT
17. In a certain code MODEL is written as ‘513#2’
b) URR d) UTT
and DEAR is written as ‘3#%8’. How is LOAD
written in that code? 26. In each of the four pairs of letter clusters, the
a) 21%3 c) 25%3 letters in the second term are a
b) 23%1 d) 21 # 3 rearranged/transformed form of the letters in
the first term in a particular pattern. In which
18. In a certain language If “ISRO” is coded as
two pairs has transformation been done in the
“9%O” and “NASA” is coded as “14%A” then
same way?
how will be “CNSA” will be coded in same
i. FTPKORJC-FRPKBRJC
language ?
ii. DISTANCE-FBOZURJC
a) 4%A c) 3%C
iii. DISCLOSE-FRPKDRJC
b) 5%N d) 3%A
iv. FRPKDRJC-FRPKORJC
19. In a certain code ADVENTURES is written a) B and C c) A and B
as TDRESAUVEN. How is SURPRISING written b) C and D d) A and D
in that code? 27. In each of the five pairs of letter-clusters, the
a) IUIPGSSRNR c) IUINGSSRRP letters in the second term is a
b) IRIPGSSNRR d) IUIPGSRSNR rearranged/transformed form of the letters in
20. If VICTORY is coded as YLFWRUB, how the first term in a particular pattern. In which
can SUCCESS be coded? two pairs, has the transformation been done
a) VYEEHVV c) VXFFHVV the same way?
b) VYEFIVV d) VXEEIVV i. WMHSD – DSHWM
ii. NPKRQ-PRKQN
21. In a certain code language,’ review exam iii. HQRWK-HKWQR
analysis book’ is coded as ‘ts ie mn as’, ‘current iv. ZIGPM-PTZGM
admit exam analysis’ is coded as ‘mn bn st ie’, v. BWTKG-GKTBW
‘current quiz analysis book’ is coded as ‘cd as a) 4 and 2 c) 2 and 3
mn bn’, ‘review book image article’ is coded as b) 1 and 5 d) 1 and 3
‘ts as yj yx’. Which of the following is the code
for admit’? 28. In each of the five pairs of letter-clusters, the
a) st c) ie letters in the second term is a rearranged/
b) bn d) mn transformed form of the letters in the first term
in a particular pattern. In which two pairs, the
22. In a certain code language:‘rescue wound transformation has been done the same way?
operation improve’ is written as ‘cl sa nk i. RDXPQ – XDPRQ
jo’,‘update warning issue threat’ is written as ii. MUKHI – KUMIH
‘ha fa rs da’,‘improve threat wound update’ is iii. GTRSK – RTGKS P
written as ‘sa rs cl da’ and‘rescue improve iv. KRHU – UPHRK
operation update’ is written as ‘cl nk jo da’. v. MPQTJ - MTJQP
What is the code for ‘improve threat’ in the a) B and C c) A and D
given code language? b) D and B d) A and C
a) cl fa c) da fa
b) cl rs d) rs da 29. In each of the five pairs of letter-clusters, the
letters in the second term is a
23. If FRAGRANCE is written as SBHSBODFG, how rearranged/transformed form of the letters in
can IMPOSING be written? the first term in a particular pattern. In which
a) NQPTJHOJ c) NQTPJOHJ two pairs, has the transformation been done
b) NQPTJOHI d) NQPTJOHJ the same way?
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i. MASON : AMNOS
ii. PARTY : APRYT
CHAPTER – 5
iii. FAULT : AFTLU
iv. LODGE : DOLEG LOGICAL ANALOGY
v. CARGO : ACOGS
a) S and T c) Q and R
b) P and R d) R and S EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01)
30. In each of the five pairs of the letter-clusters, 1. 'TRADE' is related to 'UQBCF' in the same way
the letters in the second term is a as 'PLATE' is related to
rearranged/transformed form of the letters in a) PQMBUF b) OMZUD c) QKBSF
the first term in a particular pattern. In which d) QKBUF e) None of these
two pairs have the transformation been done
the same way? 2. ‘HORSE' is related to 'Stable' in the same way
i. SUBHA – SHABU as 'Cow' is related to
ii. NHGRQ – GHNRQ a) Shed b) Dung c) Herd
iii. SQKTD-DSTKQ d) Bullock e) None of these
iv. HPUTR – HTRUP 3. 'Sugarcane' is related to 'Juice' in the same way
v. JKCBD-BDCK as 'Mustard' is related to
a) A and B c) D and C a) Field b) Oilseed c) Oil
b) A and D d) None of these d) Mamre e) None of these
4. Cobbler : Leather :: Carpenter : ?
a) Furniture b) Wood c) Hammer
d) Chair e) None of these
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b) Summer : winter d)Foal e) Puppy
c) December : January
25. ‘Bouquet’ is related to ‘Flowers’ in the same
d) License: Driving
way as ‘Sentence’ is related to
e) None of these
a) Construction b) Word c) Letters
13. 'Steel' is related to 'Alloy' in the same way as d) Paragraph e) None of these
'Zinc' is related to
26. ‘Shirt’ is related to ‘Button’ in the same way as
a) Non-metal b) Halogen c) Alloy
‘Shoes’ is related to
d) Salt e) None of these
a) Stitch b) Leg c) Socks
14. Given set: (6, 15, 28) d) cloth e) None of these
a) (50, 59, 71)
27. Darkness : Lamp
b) (46, 56, 66)
a) Fatigue : Exercise
c) (60, 69, 72)
b) Thirst : Water
d) (60, 69, 82)
c) Medicine: Illness
e) None of these
d) Study: Classroom
15. Given set: (81, 77, 69)
28. Run: Race
a) (56, 52, 44)
a) Enjoy: Journey
b) (64, 61, 53)
b)Lecture: Study
c) (92, 88, 79)
c) Study: Book
d) (75, 71, 60)
d) Party: Dance
e) None of these
29. Bone : Skeleton : Nerve
16. 21 : 3 :: 574 : ?
a) House : Door : Window
a) 23 b) 82 c) 97
b) Spoke : Wheel : Handle
d) 113 e) None of these
c) Retina: Eye: Pupil
17. 5 : 100 , 4 : 64 :: 4 : 80 , 3 : ? d) Snow: Cloud : Ice
a) 26 b) 48 c) 54 e) None of these
d)60 e) None of these
30. Class : School : Student
18. Mango : Fruit :: Potato : ? a) Ball : Bat : Pitch
a) Root b) Fruit c) Stem b) Sister : Family : Brother
d)Flower e) None of these c) Hand : Body: Finger
d) Leaf : Tree: Root
19. Command : Order :: Confusion : ?
e) None of these
a) Discipline b) Clarity c) Chaos
d) Problem e) None of these
20. Dark : Fear :: Honesty : ?
a) Personality b) Money c) Treachery
d) Trust e) None of these
21. Necklace is related to Jewellery in the same
way as Shirt is related to
a) Thread b) Cloth c) Cotton
d) Apparel e) None of these
22. ‘Needle’ is related to ‘Thread’ in the same way
as ‘Pen’ is related to
a) Ink b) Cap c) Paper
d) Word e) None of these
23. ‘Apparel’ is related to ‘Cloth’ in the same way
as ‘Footwear’ is related to
a) Material b) Leather c) Cobbler
d) Shoes e) Sandals
24. ‘Tree’ is related to ‘Sapling’ in the same way as
‘Horse’ is related to
a) Pony b) Mulc c) Cub
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Hence 11 + 5 = 16 is the next term of the series
CHAPTER – 6 after 11.
Difference Series:
TYPE II - Each term is multiplied/divided by a
It is sub-divided into –
increasing/decreasing factor.
Series with Constant difference:
The difference between the two consecutive
numbers is always constant.
Example – The number series -- 1, 5, 9, 13, ?,.. is
such that the difference b/w any two consecutive
terms is always the same (common difference) i.e. 4.
So we can the find the next number of the series by
Squares/Cubes Series:
adding the common difference 4 to the preceding
term.
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EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01) a) 30 b) 60 c) 40
d) 50 e) None of these
What should come in place of the question mark in 16. 11 16 23 32 43 ?
the following number series? a) 55 b) 57 c) 58
d) 59 e) None of these
1. 5690 5121 4552 3983 3414 2845 ?
a) 2276 b) 2516 c) 2746 17. 15 50 155 470 1415 ?
a) 4250 b) 7078 c) 4245
d) 2356 e) None of these d) 7015 e) None of these
2. 16 8 12 30 105 ?
a) 387.5 b) 470.5 c) 367.5 18. 23 33 46 62 81 103 ?
a) 126 b) 130 c) 133
d) 472.5 e) None of these d) 128 e) None of these
3. 3 7 19 55 163 ?
a) 467 b) 487 c) 475 19. 9 73 105 121 129 ? 135
d) 485 e) None of these a) 13 b) 131 c) 133
d) 134 e) None of these
4. 11 16 23 32 43 ?
a) 55 b) 57 c) 58 20. 11 16 ? 29 37 46 56
d) 59 e) None of these a) 21 b) 22 c) 23
d) 24 e) 25
5. 15 19 ? 27 31
a) 21 b) 23 c) 20 21. 9 15 27 45 69 ?
d) 25 e) None of these a) 109 b) 99 c) 91
d) 81 e) None of these
6. 2 5 7 12 19 31 ?
a) 50 b) 43 c) 49 22. 32 38 50 68 92 ?
d) 54 e) None of these a) 118 b) 128 c) 124
d) 122 e) 116
7. 1 4 9 ? 25
a) 15 b) 17 c) 14 23. 217 216 212 203 ? 162 126
d) 20 e) None of these a) 175 b) 185 c) 187
d) 197 e) 195
8. 106 ? 94 88 82
a) 102 b) 112 c) 96 24. 2 5 11 23 47 ?
d) 100 e) None of these a) 95 b) 93 c) 98
d) 94 e) None of these
9. 17 19 16 20 ? 21
a) 14 b) 17 c) 15 25. 888 888 444 148 ? 7.4
d) 19 e) None of these a) 32 b) 37 c) 68
d) 98 e) None of these
10. 2 3 6 15 45 ?
a) 135 b) 90 c) 75
d) 145 e) None of these
11. 28 25.7 27 24.7 26 23.7 ?
a) 25 b) 28 c) 22.4
d) 24 e) 23
12. 3 7 18 26 ? 53 64 96
a) 34 b) 37 c) 32
d) 38 e) 47
13. 1.7 3.2 2.7 4.2 3.7 ? 4.7 6.2
a) 6.2 b) 5.5 c) 5.2
d) 4.3 e) 4.2
14. 3 19 115 691 ? 24883
a) 6923 b) 4147 c) 2719
d) 1463 e) None of these
15. 5 10 20 ? 80 160
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19. a) ABD b) BDH
CHAPTER – 7 c) CEJ d) DFL
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CHAPTER – 8 b) 16 d) 4
9. How many cubes are there of which one side is
coloured with Red and just opposite side of it
NON-VERBAL REASONSING coloured with black?
a) 4 c)0
CUBES & DICES b) 6 d) 2
10. How many cubes are there of which one side is
coloured with green colour and Adjacent side of
EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01) this is coloured with Black or Red colour?
a) 24 c) 8
CUBES b) 28 d) 16
11. How many cubes are there of which at least one
A cube is coloured red on all faces. It is cut into side is coloured with red colour?
64 smaller cubes of equal size. Now, answer the a) 4 c) 32
following questions based on this statement: b) 16 d) 48
1. How many cubes has no face colored? 12. How many cubes are there of which only one
a) 8 c) 24 side is coloured ?
b) 0 d) 16 a) 24 c) 48
b) 16 d) 32
2. How many cubes have three face colored?
a) 8 c) 24 13. How many cubes are there of which three sides
b) 4 d) 16 are coloured ?
a) 8 c) 0
3. How many cubes are there which have only face
b) 16 d) 4
colored?
a) 16 c) 4
A cube of 8 x 8 x 8 cm. side is coloured opposite
b) 24 d) 8
surface with red, green and yellow. After that
4. How many cubes have two red opposite faces? cubes is cut into 2 cm small cubes.
a) 16 c) 0 14. The number of small cubes which have three
b) 24 d) 8
surfaces coloured with red, green and yellow?
5. How many small cubes are there whose two a) 32 c) 64
adjacent faces are colored red? b) 56 d) 8
a) 0 c) 16
15. The number of small cubes coloured with only
b) 8 d) 24
green?
A solid cubes two adjacent sides are coloured a) 8 c) 32
with Red colour and Just opposite of these sides b) 20 d) 16
are coloured with black colour and rest of the 16. The number of small cubes which have two
sides are coloured with green colour. After that surface coloured with red and yellow?
this is changed into 64 small cubes. a) 4 c) 8
b) 32 d) 16
6. How many such cubes are there of which one or
two sides are coloured but not three sides are 17. The number of cubes that are coloured by at
coloured ? least red and yellow?
a) 3 c) 8 a) 64 c) 16
b) 48 d) 24 b) 32 d) 24
7. How many cubes are there which two adjacent 18. Number of small cubes which have at least one
sides are coloured with red or with black colour surface green?
? a) 32 c) 64
a) 8 c) 2 b) 56 d) 8
b) 16 d) None of these
A bigger cubes of 9x9x9 cm size is coloured all
8. How many cubes are there of which no side is surface with green. After that it is cut into three
coloured ? inches small cubes.
a) 8 c) 0
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19. The total number of small cubes are? DICES
a) 216 c) 27
b) 36 d) 729
1. Which of the following dices in the answer
20. The total number of small cubes which are at figure cannot be made based on the unfolded
least one surface coloured ?
a) 27 c) 6 cube in the question figure?
b) 1 d) 12
21. The number of small cubes that have three
surfaces painted?
a) 8 c) 9
b) 27 d) 3
22. Number of small cubes which are only one side
coloured
a) 6 c) 8
b) 26 d) 12
23. The number of small cubes with at least two
surfaces coloured? a) A c) C
a) 27 c) 20 b) B d) D
b) 8 d) 12
2. From the given options, which figure can
24. The number of small cubes with two surfaces be formed by folding the figure given in
colored? the question?
a) 27 c) 8
b) 729 d) 12
25. The number of colorless cubes?
a) 25 c) 8
b) 4 d) 27
a) A c) C
b) B d) D
a) A c) C
b) B d) D
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7. Three positions of a dices are shown below.
4. Form the given options, which answer figure What will come opposite to face containing ‘I’?
can be formed by folding the given in the
question?
a) VI c) II
b) IV d) V
a) A c) C
b) B d) D
a) δ c) β or θ
b) θ d) β
a) 1 c) 5
b) 2 d) 4
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WATER & MIRROR IMAGE
4. Choose the correct water image of the given (x) (a) (b) (c) (d)
figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives.c
9. Choose the correct mirror image of the given
figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives.4
5. Choose the correct water image of the given (x) (a) (b) (c) (d)
figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives.
10. Choose the correct mirror image of the given
figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives.4
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(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(x) (a) (b) (c) (d)
15. Select a figure from amongst the Answer
11. A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How Figures which will continue the same series as
will it appear when unfolded? established by the five Problem Figures.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(c) (d) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
12. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as 17. Select a figure from amongst the Answer
to how the pattern would appear when the Figures which will continue the same series as
transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.1 established by the five Problem Figures.
13. Select a figure from amongst the Answer (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Figures which will continue the same series as
established by the five Problem Figures. 18. Select a figure from amongst the Answer
Figures which will continue the same series as
Problem Figures: Answer Figures: established by the five Problem Figures.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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23. Select a suitable figure from the four
alternatives that would complete the figure
matrix.
(c) (d)
a) P c) R
b) N d) U
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b) 47 d) 73
ii. How many government employed
doctors are Corona warriors but are not
males?
a) 12 c) 16
b) 8 d) 22
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I. M's position 3rd from the top and
CHAPTER - 9 there are five students between M
and K
DATA SUFFICIENCY II. P's position is 4th from the bottom
and there are 7th students between
P and K.
EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01)
5. What day is the fourteenth of a given
The question consists of a problem question month?
followed by two statements I and II .Find out if the I. The last day of the month is a
information given in the statement(s) is sufficient Wednesday.
in finding the solution to the problem II. The third Saturday of the month is a
17th .
OPTION
6. Among four friends A, B, C and D, who is the
a) If the data in statement I alone are in
heaviest?
sufficient to answer the question, while the I. B is heavier than A, but lighter than
data in statement II alone are not sufficient D.
to answer the question. II. C is lighter than B.
b) If the data in the statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question while the 7. It is 8.00 p.m., when can Hemant get next
bus for Ramnagar from Dhanpur?
data in statement I alone are not sufficient
I. Buses for Ramnagar leave after
the answer the question. every 30 minutes, till 10 p.m.
c) If the data either in statement I alone or in II. Fifteen minutes ago, one bus has left
statement II alone are sufficient to answer for Ramnagar.
the question.
d) If the data given in both the statements I 8. On which day the flat was purchased by
and II together are not sufficient to answer Rohan in 1996.
I. Certainly before 18th December,
the question and.
1996 but definitely not before 15th
e) If the data both in statement I and II December, 1996.
together are necessary to answer the II. Certainly after 16th December,
question. 1996 but not later than 19th
December, 1996.
1. On which day of the week was Varun's
birthday? 9. Vipin's and Javed's salaried are in the
I. Varun celebrated his birthday on day after proportion of 4:3 respectively. What is
Ashish celebrated his birthday. Vipin's salary?
II. Varun was born two days after his sister, I. Javed's salary is 75% that of Vipin's
who was born on 3rd day of the week. salary.
II. Javed'ssalaryisRs.4500.
2. Among P, Q, T, V and Z, who is 3rd from the top
when arranged in descending order of the 10. What is the monthly salary of Praveen?
heights? I. Praveen gets 15% more than Sumit
I. V is taller than P and Q and is shorter than T while Sumit gets 10% less than
who is not the tallest? Lokesh.
II. T is taller than only Z. II. Lokesh's monthly salary is Rs. 2500.
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12. How many visitors saw the exhibition I. India's export of America is 80,000
yesterday? tones and this is 10% of the total
I. Each entry pass holder can take up rice exports.
to three persons with him/her. II. India's total export tonnage of rice
II. In all, 243 passes were sold is 12.5% of the total of 1.9 million
yesterday. tones.
13. How much was the total sale of the 21. How much amount Ronnie required to pay
company? for the new car in the buy-back scheme?
I. The company sold 8000 units of I. The cost of the new car was three
product A each costing Rs. 25. times the cost price of his old car.
II. This company has no other product II. His old car was valued at Rs. 25000
line. under buy back scheme.
14. In what proportion would Raj, Karan and 22. .How many votes did candidate X receive in
Altaf distribute profit among them? the City Cooperative bank's director's
I. Raj gets two-fifth of the profit. election?
II. Karan and Altaf have made 75% of I. Candidate X got 17 percent of the
the total investment. votes that were cast.
II. Four-fifth of the 1000 eligible voters
15. What will be the total weight of 10 poles cast their votes.
each of the same weight?
I. One-fourth of the weight of a pole is 23. What is the area of this plot?
5 kilograms. I. The perimeter of the plot is 208
II. The total weight of three poles is 20 meters.
kilograms more than the total II. Thelengthismorethanthebreadthby
weight of two poles. 4 meters.
16. If X=0, is 1/x >1? 24. How many speeches were delivered in the
I. X is greater than 0. two day's programmers?
II. X is lesser than 1. I. 18 speakers were invited to give at
least one speech, out of which one-
17. A bus leaves Mumbai at 10.00 o'clock in the sixth of the speaker could not come.
morning.At what time will it reach Pune. II. One - third of the speakers gave two
I. The bus does not stop anywhere. speeches each.
II. The bus travels at the average speed
of 50km/hr. 25. What is the total monthly salary of Vasu?
I. Vasu's basic salary is Rs 100 more
18. Rajeev's monthly salary is Rs. 4000. What is than Rajan's salary who also serves
Atul's monthly salary. in Vasu's company.
I. Atul gets Rs, 500 more than the II. Other allowances drawn by Rajan
average salary of his and Rajeev's. besides his basic salary are Rs. 2000
II. Average of Rajeev's and Atul's per month which is Rs.50 less than
salary is Rs. 4500. Vasu's salary.
III. Rajan's basic salary is Rs 1550 per
19. What is the price range of ordinary wall month.
clocks? a) Only II
I. The price range of ordinary wrist b) Only II and III
watches of company X is Rs 400 to c) Only I and II
Rs. 600. d) Only I and III
II. The price range of ordinary wall e) All I, II and III
clocks of company X is 50 percent
that of their ordinary watches.
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CHAPTER - 10
COGNIZANT – LATEST
DECISION MAKING
1. x,y, z are three distinct integers. Is y the
greatest of the three? EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01)
I. x is less than at least one of the two
integers y and z. The following are the criteria for the admission
II. z is less than at least one of the two to the medical course in a college.
integers x and y.
The student must:
2. What is the monthly salary of my father? I. have passed XII Std. examination in Science
I. My father’s and mother’s salaries are with at least 50% marks,
in the ratio 5:2 respectively II. be at least 18 years old as on 1.4.1991,
II. My mother’s salary is 40% of that of
III. have scored at least 65% marks in the
my father’s salary.
entrance examination.
3. What is the amount of cement exported IV. be able to pay the monthly tuition fee of Rs,
front China? 400, and
I. China's export to America is 65,000 V. be able to pay one-time deposit of Rs.
tones and this is 8% of the total 15,000.(F)
cement exports. VI. he case of student who satisfies all other
II. China's total export of cement is
criteria but can pay the one-time deposit
15% of the total of l million tones.
only upto Rs, 10,000, is to be referred to the
4. Sharmila is a chemistry teacher. She Director of the Institute.
forgot to bring her time-table and now VII. The case of a candidate who satisfies all
wants to find out the schedule for XI-B. other criteria apart from the percentage of
She knows that there are four subjects marks in XII th Std. is to be referred to the
taught-Physics, Chemistry,
Chairman, Admission.
Mathematics and Biology- In four
consecutive periods of one hour each VIII. A student who has satisfied all other criteria
starting from 9.00 a.m. At what time is but has not yet received the result of the
the chemistry period scheduled? final examination of XIIth standard may be
I. Mathematics period ended at provisionally admitted.
11.00 a.m., which was preceded
by biology. On the basis of the above criteria and the
II. Physics was scheduled in the information given in the each of the following
last period. questions you have to take decisions as regards
admittance of the student. Please note you are not
5. What is the value of X? assume anything in the case of any student.
I. The square of x is 36.
II. x(x-6)=0 a) If the student is not to be admitted,
b) If the student is to be admitted.
c) If the student is to be referred to the
Director.
d) If the student is to be referred to the
Chairman, Admission.
e) If the student is to be provisionally
admitted.
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18 years old on 1.7.90. She can pay tuition In the case of a farmer who satisfies all other
fee of Rs. 400 per month but can pay one- criteria except
time deposit of only Rs. 10,000.
(A) at (I) above, but is able to cultivate
more than one crop in each piece of land,
2. Prabir Singhal secured 60% marks in the the case is to be referred to Chairman of
XIIth Std. exam with Science. He was 19 the Bank;
years old on 1.3.90 and has secured 80% (B) at (iv) above, but has Fixed Deposits of
marks in the entrance test. He can pay the at least Rs. 4 lakhs with the bank, the case
stipulated one-time deposit of Rs. 15,000 is to be referred to the General Manager of
and the monthly tuition fee of Rs. 400. the Bank.
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9. Vilas born on 3 February, 1956. He has six Following are the Criteria for selection of
acres of cultivable land. He has submitted a Computer professionals in an organization:
recommendation letter issued by the
Panchayat Pradhan. He can pledge The Candidate must
collateral of more than Rs. 8 lakhs. He I. Be a Computer Engineer or MCA with first
doesn't have any unpaid loan from the class having minimum 65% marks.
bank. II. Have secured at least 50% marks in the
Selection Test.
10. Nishant Pathak was born on 14th August,
1958. He has three acres of cultivable land. III. Have secured at least 40% marks in the
He can produce a recommendation letter interview.
from the Panchayat Pradhan. He can give IV. Not be less than 21 years and not more than
collateral of Rs.9 lakhs and does not have 30 years of age as on 1.10.2005.
any outstanding loan from the bank. He
grows two crops in each piece of his land. In case of a candidate who satisfies all other criteria
except:
11. Rishi Thakur was born on 5th June, 1957.
He has obtained a recommendation letter (A) at (I) above but is an Electronics
from the Panchayat Pradhan. He has eight Engineer with 70% marks, the case may be
acres of cultivable land and can pledge referred to the GM, Recruitment.
collateral of Rs. 8 lakhs in addition to his (B) at (II) above but is having at least 2
fixed deposit of Rs. 6 lakhs. He has an years experience of working as a Systems
outstanding loan of Rs. 4 lakhs. Analyst, the case may be referred to the
Chairman, Recruitment Committee
12. Kamal Sawant can produce a
recommendation letter from the Panchayat In each of the following questions,
Pradhan. He can collateral of Rs. 8 lakhs. He information about one candidate is given. You have
has outstanding loan of Rs. 5 lakhs from the to analyse it with reference to the above criteria
bank and also has fixed deposit of Rs. 3 and conditions and then decide the appropriate
lakhs with the bank. He was born on 8th course of action. You are not to assume anything
May, 1957. other than the given information. All these cases
are given to you as on 1.10.2005.
13. Vikram Tomar has seven acres of cultivated
land. He has obtained a recommendation a) If the candidate is to be selected;
letter from the Panchayat Pradhan. He b) If the candidate is not to be selected;
doesn't have any unpaid loan from the c) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman,
bank. He grows two crops in his entire land. Recruitment Committee;
He can produce collateral of more than Rs. 6 d) If the case is to be referred to the GM,
lakhs. Recruitment;
e) If the data provided are inadequate to take
14. Tapan Saha was born on 18th July, 1956. He a decision.
has nine acres of cultivable land. He can
produce a recommendation letter from the 16. Rohit Verma is a Mechanical Engineer with
Panchayat Pradhan. He can give collateral of 75% marks. He was born on 6th July, 1976.
more than Rs. 8 lakhs. He grows two crops He scored 66% marks in the Selection Test
on half of his total land. and 52% marks in the Interview.
15. Yusuf Ali has six acres of cultivable land and 17. Neeti Thukral is MCA with 68% marks and
he doesn't have any outstanding loan from is working as a programmer for the last
the bank. He can produce a three years. She secured 48% marks in the
recommendation letter from the Panchayat Selection Test and 58% marks in the
Pradhan. He can produce collateral of Rs. 9 Interview.
lakhs. He was born on 9thbJanuary, 1957.
18. Shweta Arora is MCA with 76% marks. She
has been working as a Systems Analyst In
an Engineering firm since 15th November,
2003. She scored 72% marks in the
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Selection Test and 65% marks in the Apply the above rules to the cases described in each
interview. Her date of birth is 25th October, of the following questions and decide whether the
1978. employee is eligible for G and/or PF.
A Company has following Gratuity (G) and 23. Mr.Juneja was retrenched from service after
Provident Fund (PF) rules: seven years.
I. An employee must have completed
one year's service to be eligible for
24. Mrs.Sharma served the company for four
either G or PF.
years and resigned.
II. An employee resigning or retiring
or retrenched after ten years'
25. Mr. Basu served in the company for seven
service gets both G and PF.
years and resigned after a prolonged
III. An employee retrenched or retiring
illiness of 3 years for which he was on leave
after 5 years but before 10 years'
without pay
service gets both G and PF, but that
resigning during this period gets
either G or PF.
IV. An employee retrenched or retiring
before 5 years' service gets PF but
not G; but that resigning during this
period gets neither G nor PF.
V. In case an employee dies after 2
years' service, his family gets both G
and PF.
VI. In case an employee dies after 2
years' service, his family gets both G
and PF.
VII. In the case of a lady employee, if she
has completed 2 years' service, two
years are added to her actual
service before applying the above
rules, as a special consideration.
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3. Statements:
CHAPTER – 11 T # R, R % L, L * K
Conclusions:
CODING I. T % L
II.K*R
INEQUALITIES III. T # K
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6. Statements: 13. Statements:
T @ L, L% N, D©N D+T; E$V ; F*T; E@D
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I. N # T I.D$ V
II. L% D II.D+F
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20. Statements:
H $K, T # H, W * T a) Only conclusion I follows
Conclusions: b) Both I and II follow
c) Only conclusion II follows
I. K % W
d) Neither I nor II follows
II. T # K e) Either I or II follows
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II. No. Nothing should be banned in a
CHAPTER-12 democratic country like ours.
CRITICAL
5. Statement : Are nuclear families better
REASONONIG than joint families?
Arguments :
EXERCISE: (LEVEL – 01) I. No. Joint families ensure security
and also reduce the burden of work.
Each of the following questions consists of a
II. Yes. Nuclear families ensure greater
statement followed by two arguments I and II.
freedom.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
6. Statement : Should there be
c) Either I or II is strong
compulsory medical examination of both
d) Neither I nor II is strong
the man and the woman before they marry
e) Both I and II are strong
each other?
1. Statement : Should there be students
Arguments :
union in college/university?
I. No. This is an intrusion to the
privacy of an individual and hence
Arguments :
cannot be tolerated.
I. No. This will create a political
II. Yes. This will substantially reduce
atmosphere in the campus.
the risk of giving birth to children
II. Yes, it is very necessary Students
with serious ailments.
are future political leaders.
In each question below is given a statement
2. Statement : Should India give away followed by two assumptions numbered I and II.
Kashmir to Pakistan? Consider the statement and decide which of the
given assumptions is implicit.
Arguments :
I. No. Kashmir is a beautiful state. It a) Only assumption I is implicit
earns a lot of foreign exchange for b) Only assumption II is implicit
India.
c) Either I or II is implicit
II. Yes. This would help settle conflicts.
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
3. Statement : Should the railways in e) Both I and II are implicit
India be privatized in a phased manner like
other public sector enterprises? 7. Statement : "You are hereby appointed
as a programmer with a probation period of
Arguments : on year and your performance will be
I. Yes. This is the only way to bring in reviewed at the end of the period for
competitiveness and provide better confirmation." - A line in an appointment
services to the public. letter.
II. No. This will pose a threat to the
national security of our country as Assumptions :
multinationals will enter into the I. The performance of an individual
fray. generally is not known at the time
of appointment offer.
4. Statement : Should non-vegetarian II. Generally an individual tries to
food be totally banned in our country? prove his worth in the probation
period.
Arguments :
I. Yes. It is expensive and therefore it
is beyond the means of most people
in our country.
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8. Statement : It is desirable to put the In each the following question, a statement is given
child in school at the age of 5 or so. followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
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17. Statements : The national norm is 100 properly for the treatment of
beds per thousand populations but in this patients.
state,150 beds per thousand are available in
the hospitals. a) All are implicit
b) Only I is implicit
Conclusions: c) Both I and II are implicit
I. Our national norm is appropriate. d) Only II is implicit
II. The state's health system is taking
adequate care in this regard. 21. Statement :Pollution is damaging our
earth securely and we need to realize its
18. Statements : This world is neither good effects and prevent this damage.
nor evil; each man manufactures a world
for himself. Courses of Action:
I. Government should control
Conclusions : unnecessary human actions which
I. Some people find this world quite damage the environment in many
good. ways.
II. Some people find this world quite II. The Pollution Control Board should
bad. close down all industries in the
residential areas.
19. Statement : Air quality has been III. Spread awareness among the
polluted due to the increasing number of masses to reduce and prevent
two-wheelers and four- wheelers. pollution.
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23. Statement : Religions provide the
means for attaining eternal peace.
CHAPTER-13
Inference: ANALYTICAL & SEATING
I. Religions ensure prosperous life.
II. Religions help people to eradicate
poverty. ARRANGEMENT
a) Only I follows.
b) Only II follows. LINEAR ARRANGEMENT:
c) Both I and II follow. It is fundamentally arranging the items given in a
d) Neither I nor II follows. sequence. The questions comprise of arranging
people (or objects) sustaining the given conditions.
24. Statement : Medicine ‘x’ is a drug which The arrangement is done only on one “axis” and,
is causing ripples in the medical field. hence, the position of subjects assumes importance
here in terms of order like first position, second
Inference : position etc..
I. No other drug is causing ripples in
Important Points:
the medical field.
Knowledge of left and right is very important in
II. Medicine ‘x’ is a great drug.
such questions.
a) Only I follows. Also, the direction in which the subject is facing
(i.e. North or South) is to be taken into
b) Only II follows.
consideration before selecting left and right.
c) Both I and II follow. Always write down the conditions given in short
d) Neither I nor II follows. form and represent them pictorially.
Left or Right does not necessarily mean
25. Statement : The ticket for balcony class immediate Left or immediate Right.
is atrociously priced at Rs. 200. If A is sitting to the immediate left of B, then it
also means that B is on immediate right of A.
Inference : If B sits between A & C, then A & C can be at
I. The tickets for other classes are either sides of B i.e. we cannot say whether A or C is
decently priced. sitting to the left or right of B.
II. Rs. 200 is a very big amount to pay
for a balcony ticket.
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CIRCULAR ARRANGEMENT: Shreya. Bhagat is heavier than Rinku but not as
It involves seating of a group of persons around a much tall as Mandeep. Pranav is heavier than
circular/round table or arrangement of some items Bhagat and Rinku but shorter than Mandeep
forming a circle. and Bhagat. Kiran is not taller than Pranav.
Shreya is not taller than Kajal and also not
Things to keep in mind: heavier than Rinku. Kajal is not lighter than
Mandeep who is heavier than Bhagat.
If “A is sitting adjacent to B” - A is either on left Mandeep is shorter than only one person.
side OR on right side of B, i.e. we need to Pranav is not the second heaviest and is lighter
consider all the possible cases of arrangement. than Mandeep.
If B is neighbor to both A & C, it means B sits I. Who among the following is the second
b/w A & C, but A & C can be at either sides of B. lightest?
So while solving such problems, we need to a) Pranav c) Kajal
consider both cases where A is to the left of B b) Rinku d) Shreya
and C is to the right of B ; and A is to the right
II. How many person(s) are heavier than the
of B and C is to the left of B.
one who is second shortest?
While solving such questions, one must keep in a) None c) Two
mind the direction in which the people are b) One d) More than three
facing (towards or away from the center)
III. Who among the following is the heaviest?
a) Shreya c) Kajal
b)Mandeep d) Pranav
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b) 54 pages d) 57 pages
5. Among 5 objects P,Q,R,S and T
III. How many books have more pages than i. R is twice as heavy as T
English book but less pages than Hindi ii. S is one and half times as heavy as Q
book? iii. Q and R together weigh as much as S and
a) One c) Three T together
b) Two d) Four iv. P and S together are one and half time as
heavy as Q and T together
3. Study the following information carefully
to answer the questions: I. Which among the five is the heaviest of
i. Lakshman, Madan, Naresh, Prakash, all?
Dhanumjaya, Rohith and Sandhya are a) Q c) P
sitting in a circle and playing cards. b) S d) R
ii. Naresh, who is the neighbor of Prakash, is
not the neighbor of Rohith. 6. A team of four players are to be selected from
iii. Dhanumjaya is second to the left of R. among four girls A,B,C,D and four boys P,Q,R,S
iv. Naresh is second to the left of Sandhya, such that there would be at least two girls in
who is the neighbor of Madan. the team and the team selection should meet
the following conditions
I. Which of the following is True? i. B cannot go with R
a) Dhanumjaya is the neighbor of ii. D and P must go together
Sandhya and Lakshman iii. S cannot be put up with A
b) Madan is the neighbor of iv. R and C must be together
Sandhya and Lakshman a) QBSC c) RCQS
c) Rohith is the neighbor of Sandhya and b) DAPQ d) BPRA
Lakshman
d)Lakshman is the neighbor of
Prakash and Madan 7. Eight cricket teams A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H
played one-day matches with one another.
II. Which of the following pairs has the Every team played one match with every other
second person sitting second to the right team at the league stage. In each match, the
first person? winning team earned 2 points and the losing
a) Rohith Madan team did not earn any point. A won only 1
b) Naresh Dhanumjaya match; B lost only one match; C lost 3 matches
c)Dhanumjaya Sandhya and earned 2 points more than D. E earned 4
d) None of these points more than G and G earned the same
point as that of H. E and F together earned 16
III. Which of the following pairs has the points.
second person sitting second to the right After the league match, the top two teams
first person? as per the league points table played the
a)Rohith Madan final match and the team scoring the second
b) Naresh Dhanumjaya highest point at the league stage won.
c)DhanumjayaSandhya
d) None of these I. Which team won in the final?
a) A c) E
4. Nehal, Iqbal, Ronit, Malini and Harbhajan b) B d) D
participate in any one of the five activities i.e.
Quiz, Singing, Dance, Debate and Mimicry. 8. Read the given information carefully and
Ronit participates in Singing. Harbhajan does answer the questions:
not participate in Debate and Mimicry. Malini i. Seven professionals a Doctor, an Engineer,
does not participate in Mimicry. Iqbal a Teacher, a Pharmacist, a Lawyer, an
participates in Quiz. Architect, and a Musician live in a hill
station, an industrial city and a historical
I. Who participates in Debate?(TCS city. Their houses are painted with
2019) different colours like blue, red, green,
a) Malini c)Nehal yellow, black, pink and brown.
b) Nehal or Malini d)Can’t be determined ii. The Engineer's and the Lawyer's houses
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are small in size and located in the between F and A. Neither F nor A sits at the
industrial city. extreme ends of the line. Only two people
iii. There are only two houses that are small sit between A and G.E is not an immediate
in size. neighbour of either A or F.E sits third to
iv. Only one big house is located at historical the left of B. B is not an immediate neighbour
city and teacher lives there. of A.E is not an immediate neighbour of
v. Musician lives in the industrial city and his C.
big house is painted in brown colour. I. Who are the immediate neighbors of F?
vi. The environment of all three-hill stations a) AG c) DG
is very pure and clean. b) CD d) GB
vii. The Doctor, the Pharmacist and the
Architect live in blue, yellow and pink II. Who are the immediate neighbors of A?
painted houses respectively. a) BG c) GD
viii. Red and black painted houses are small in b) CD d) EF
size.
11. Answer the questions based on the given
I. What will be the specifications of the information :
teacher's house? i. There are five friends
a) Small-black-historical city ii. They are standing in a row facing south.
b) Small-blue-industrial city iii. Sarala is to the immediate right of Swati.
c) Big-red-hill station
d) Big-green-historical city iv. Sanju is standing between Sita and
Megha.
9. Read the given information carefully and v. Megha is standing between Sarala and
answer the questions: Sanju.
i. There are five friends Anjali Avinash,
Gargi, James and Mohit having six subjects I. Who is at the extreme right end?
Biology, English, Hindi, Mathematics, a) Sita c) Megha
Physics and Statistics. b) Swati d) Data inadequate
ii. Only one passes in all six subjects.
iii. Gargi and Anjali fail in Hindi but not II. Who is to the left of Megha?
Avinash. a) Sanju c) Swati
b) Sarala d) None of the above
iv. All friends pass in Biology except Gargi and
Avinash.
12. Bihar and Orissa are the most deprived states
v. Three friends Mohit, Avinash and Anjali of India. While they contain one-fifth of India's
fail in Physics and Mathematics. population, they have almost one-third of
vi. All friends pass in English except Mohit. India's illiterates. In 1998, only a small fraction
vii. All friends fail in physics except James. of Orissa and Bihar's population was literate
viii. Only Avinash fails in Statistics. versus 85 per cent of Kerala's population.
ix. Only two friends pass in Hindi and More than two- thirds of the births are not
Mathematics. attended by any medical facility, 1/10th of the
infants born in Orissa and Bihar die in infancy
I. Who does pass in Biology and Statistics and an equal number before reaching the age
only? of five. Almost 90 per cent of the under five
a) Anjali c) Avinash deaths are due to malnutrition.
b) James d) Mohit From amongst the lucky kids who have
survived for the first five years, 1/3rd of them
II. Who does pass in all six subjects? work as child labourers and only half
a) James c) Gargi of the remaining are sent to school. Of those
b) Anjali d) Mohit who attend classes, only 40 per cent
are able to reach Std V. in India, 30 per cent
10. Study the following information carefully to of the children under 16 work as
answer the questions: labourers. Orissa and Bihar contain 1/3rd of
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seated in a straight the child labourers in India. India has
line facing north but not necessarily in the the largest population of child labourers,
same order. Only three people sit which is 1/15th of its total population.
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In Orissa and Bihar, out of 100 children b) A d) D
enrolled in school, 32 are girls. And out of 100
who attend Std X, only ten are girls. V. Which of the following pairs sit opposite
Only 38 out of 100 Indian women are literate to each other?
versus 57 percent of males. Even in a) D, F c) A, C
wealthy states such as Punjab, girls suffer from b) E, B d) C, H
malnutrition seven times more than
boys do. The total population of the country 14. Read the following information carefully and
was 90 crores in 1998 and the ratio of male answer the questions given beside.
to female in India was 10 to 9. Certain number of persons sit in a straight
linear row facing towards north but
I. What percentage of girl children enrolled information about few of them is given. G sits
in school reach Std X in Orissa and Bihar? second from an extreme end. Only three
a) 60% c) 32% persons sit between G and E. B is fifth to the left
b) 10% d) insufficient data of R. 6 persons sit between R and E. A, who is
third to the left of E, is adjacent to G. 2 persons
II. In Orissa and Bihar, out of 100 born, sit between F and R, who is not at an extreme
approximately how many children work end. Number of persons to the right of F is same
as child laborers? as number of persons between G and A.
a) 38 c) 32
b) 13 d) 27 I. How many persons sit to the left of B?
a) 9 c) 7
13. Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are b) 6 d) 5
sitting around a circular table, but not
necessarily in the same order. Four of them II. How many persons sit between A and B?
a) 2 c) 4
are facing inside while rests of them are facing
b) 5 d) 6
outside.C is not adjacent to A, who is facing
same direction as B. Two persons are sitting III. Information about how many persons is
between E and G, who are facing different not given?
directions. B is sitting fourth to the left of E, a) 8 c) 10
who faces centre. E is sitting second to the b) 9 d) None of these
right of C. Only one person is sitting between A
IV. Find the odd one out?
and H, who are facing different directions. F is a) R c) A
to the immediate left of H, who is facing same b) E d) F
direction as E. D and F are facing same
directions. V. What is the position of E with respect to B?
I. Who among the following faces the same a) Second to the right
direction? b) Second to the left
a) E,B c) H,G c) Third to the right
b) D,A d) H,F d) Third to the left
II. Four of the following five are alike in a 15. Each of these questions are based on the
certain way and so form a group. Find the information given below:
one which does not belong to that group? i. A ,B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a
a) D c) E line facing to south - while M, N, O, P and
b) A d) F Q are five ladies sitting in a second line
parallel to the first line and are facing to
III. B is related to H in a certain way; the North.
same way E is related to whom? ii. B who is just next to the left of D, is
a) D c) E opposite to Q.
b) G d) A iii. C and N are diagonally opposite to each
other.
IV. Who among the following sits second to iv. E is opposite to O who is just next right
the right of G? of M.
a) B c) F v. P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite
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to D.
vi. M is at one end of the line.
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C. Cheaper cost of imported raw materials.
VERBAL ABILITY
a) Only A c) Only B
CHAPTER – 1 b) Only C d) Only A & B
2. The author’s view is that dependence on local
READING COMPREHENSION market industries for industrial development
is
PASSAGE-I
a) The best way among all available means.
Most developing countries expect domestic
b) Not free major demerits.
industries to be the basis for their program of
c) Helpful to make local industries self-
economic development. It is easy to reserve the
sufficient.
local market for the new local industry by simply
d) Essential for making the local industries
prohibiting imports that might complete. Although
more efficient.
it may not be very efficient operation, local industry
can be guaranteed a profit because high tariffs on 3. Which is the most favorable impact of
or prohibition of imports force consumers within prohibiting imports from other countries?
the nation to purchase the domestic product. a) Profit to local industry is guaranteed.
Local market industries may use the b) Foreign exchange reserves are reduced.
country’s natural resources as well as its labor. The c) There is no competition among local
nation’s foreign exchange credit can be conserved, industries.
even if the production materials or parts must be d) Putting any quality control measures is
bought from other countries, because these imports unnecessary.
will usually cost less than if the finished products 4. Which one two or three of the following
were imported. compel(s) the consumer to purchase the
However, there are also many domestic products?
disadvantages in relying on local market industries A. The superior quality of the domestic
is the basis for industrial development. With products.
excessive protection, these industries will never B. Rules that prohibit import.
have reasons to be efficient in their operations. C. Unaffordable import duties levied.
With little or no competition from the world’s large
manufacturers, the quality of their products will a) All three c) Only A and B
probably be inferior. Yet, the country’s consumers, b) Only A and C d) Only B and C
unable to buy the same item from foreign 5. Most developing countries lack real
producers, must purchase from the local industry. competition because
In most developing countries, real a) There is no industrial development.
competition is unlikely to exist because of an b) The manufacturers do not venture in
inadequate market and a limited ability of the business.
people to purchase. Companies may prosper c) These countries lack foreign exchange
because the power of the state has been used to reserves
force consumers to support them. This may mean d) People have a meager buying.
that to provide employment for a hundred workers
in the new factory and profit for the owner, PASSAGE-II
thousands of people must pay extra for every shirt In the technological systems of tomorrow
or pair of shoes they buy. This unfair type of fast, fluid and self-regulating-machines will deal
industrial development often contributes to social with the flow of physical materials; men with the
and political tensions. flow of information and insight. Machines will
1. Which of the following factor(s) is/are in favor increasingly perform tasks. Machines and men
of the local manufacturers? both, instead of being concentrated in gigantic
A. Easy access to country’s natural resources. factories and factory cities, will be scattered across
B. Availability of labor. the globe, linked together by amazingly sensitive,
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near-instantaneous communications. Human work a) Believer in devotion to duty.
will move out of the factory and mass office into the b) Believer in taking things for granted.
community and the home. Machines will be c) Believer in doing what he is told, right or
synchronized, as some already are, to the billionth wrong.
of a second; men will be de-synchronized. The d) Believer in the honesty of machines.
factory whistle will vanish. Even the clock, “the key
5. The type of society which the author has
machine of the modern industrial age” as Lewis
mentioned makes a plea for
Mumford called it a generation ago, will lose some
a) A mind assimilative of modern scientific
of its power over human, as distinct from purely
ideas.
technological affairs. Simultaneously, the
b) A critical mind having insight into future.
organization needed to control technology will shift
c) A mind well-versed in cultural heritage.
from bureaucracy to Ad-hocracy, from permanence
d) A mind with firm principles of life.
to transience, and from a concern with the present
to a focus on the future.
PASSAGE-III
In such a world, the most valued attributes
We find that today the unity and integrity of
of the industrial age become handicaps. The
the nation is threatened by the divisive forces of
technology of tomorrow requires not millions of
regionalism, linguist, and communal loyalties which
lightly lettered men, ready to work in unison at
are gaining ascendancy in national life and seeking
endlessly repetitive jobs, it requires not men who
to tear apart and destroy national integrity. We
take orders in unblinking fashion, aware that the
tend to forget that India is one nation and we are all
price of bread is mechanical submission to
Indians first and Indians last. It is time we remind
authority but men who can make critical
ourselves what the great visionary and builder of
judgments, who can make critical judgments, who
modern India Jawaharlal Nehru said, “Who dies if
can weave their way through novel environments,
India lives, who lives if India dies?” we must realize,
who are quick to spot new relationships in the
and this is unfortunately what many in public life
rapidly changing reality. It requires men who, in
tend to overlook, sometimes out of ignorance of the
C.P. Snow’s compelling terms, “have the future in
forces of history and sometimes deliberately with
their bones”.
a view to promoting their self-interest, that
1. The technological system of tomorrow will be national interest must inevitably and forever
marked by prevail over any other considerations proceeding
a) dehumanization c) automation from regional, linguistic or communal
b) perfection d) unpredictability attachments. The history of India over the past
centuries bears witness to the fact that India was at
2. The future man, according to this passage,
no time a single political unit. Even during the reign
must be
of the Maurya dynasty, though a large part of the
a) Most adaptive and intelligent.
country was under the sovereignty of the Mauryan
b) Most capable of dealing with the changing
kings, there were considerable portions of the
reality.
territory which were under the rule of independent
c) More concerned with the present than the
kingdoms. So also during the Mughal rule which
future.
extended over large parts of the territory of India,
d) Trained and obedient.
there were independent rulers who enjoyed
3. ‘Near-instantaneous communications’ may be political sovereignty over the territories of their
regarded as a symbol of respective kingdoms. It is an interesting fact of
a) Anachronization history that India was forged into a nation, neither
b) Mischronization on account of a common language nor on account of
c) Resynchronization the continued existence of a single political regime
d) Synchronization over its territories but on account of a common
4. If a person believes that ‘the price of bread is culture evolved over the centuries. It is cultural
mechanical submission to authority’, he is unity—something more fundamental and enduring
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than any other bond which may unite the people of d) They encourage among people the sense of
a country together which has welded this country loyalty to their community
into a nation. But until the advent of the British e) They remind us of our national pride.
rule, it was not constituted into a single political
3. “Communal loyalties” have been considered by
unit. There were, throughout the period of history
the author as
for which we have fairly authenticated accounts,
a) A good quality to be cherished
various kingdoms and principalities which were
b) Of no consequence to the nation
occasionally engaged in conflict with one another.
c) A very important aspect for nation building
During the British rule, India became a compact
d) A threat to the solidarity of the nation
political unit having one single political regime over
e) None of these
its entire territories and this led to the evolution of
the concept of a nation. This concept of one nation 4. Which of the following was the instrumental in
took firm roots in the minds and hearts of the holding the different people of India together?
people during the struggle for independence under a) A common national language
the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. He has rightly b) A common cultural heritage
been called the Father of the Nation because it was c) The endurance level of the people
he who awakened in the people of this country a d) Fundamentalist bent of mind of the people
sense of national consciousness and instilled in e) None of these
them a high sense of patriotism without which it is 5. The passage appears to have been written with
not possible to build a country into nationhood. By the purpose of
the time the Constitution of India came to be a) Giving a piece of advice to politicians of free
enacted, insurgent India, breaking a new path of India
non-violent revolution and fighting to free itself b) Assessing the patriotic values and sacrifices
from the shackles of foreign domination, had made by people for India’s freedom
emerged into a nationhood and “the people of c) Justifying the teaching of Mahatma Gandhi
India” were inspired by a new enthusiasm, a high and its impact on the people
and noble spirit of sacrifice and above all, a strong d) Giving a historical account of how India
sense of nationalism and in the Constitution which evolved as a nation
they framed. They set about the tasks of a strong e) None of these
nation based on certain cherished values for which
they had fought. 6. History shows that India, which was not a
political unit earlier, became so
1. The author has quoted Jawaharlal Nehru to a) During the reign of Maurya dynasty
emphasize the point that, b) During the Mughal rule
a) National interest must enjoy supreme c) After one-national-languge policy was
importance adopted
b) India is going to survive even if the world is d) During the regime of independent rulers
under the spell of destruction e) During the British rule
c) The world will be destroyed if India is on
the threshold of destruction 7. Which of the following statement is/are
d) The survival of the world depends only definitely true in the context of the passage?
upon the well being of India A. The people of India had fought for certain
e) None of these values
B. The fight of the Indian people was for one
2. What, according to the author, is the impact of common culture
the divisive forces on our nation? C. The Indian people lacked sense of
a) They promote a sense of regional pride nationalism until they gained freedom
b) They help people to form a linguistic groups
c) They separate groups of people and create a) Only A d) A and B only
enmity among them b) Only B e) A and C only
c) Only C
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c) Emanating
8. Which of the following, according to the
passage, was commonly applicable to both: the Directions (15- 18) choose the word/group of
Maurya dynasty rule and Mughal rule? words which is most nearly the OPPOSITE meaning
A. A vast territory under governance as the word given in bold as used in the passage.
B. Various independent sovereign rulers 15. Considerable
under a) Inconsiderate d) irresolute
onemajor ruler b) Uncountable e) negligible
C. Lack of political unity under the common c) Unfathomable
governance
16. Welded
a) A and B only d) All the three a) Disjointed d) Dislocated
b) B and C only e) None of these b) Installed e) Thwarted
c) A and C only c) Disembarked
9. The “people of India”, as highlighted by the 17. Attachments
author in the last sentence of the passage, refer a) Predicaments d) Mistrust
to b) Hatred e) Loyalty
a) The people of one unified nation c) Harmony
b) The subjects of several independent rulers
18. Deliberately
c) The patriots who sacrificed themselves in
a) Reluctantly d) Wrongly
the freedom struggle
b) Unintentionally e) Notoriously
d) The people who were instrumental in
c) Unauthorisedly
writing the constitution
e) None of these PASSAGE-IV
10. India’s insurgence was for There was once a jackal that lived in a forest
by the village along with all the other animals. Now,
a) Breaking the path of non-violence this particular jackal was adventurous and often
b) Having one common national language strayed into the village in search of cooked food. It
c) Insisting on a unique cultural identity was not a particularly easy thing to do as he knew
d) Several independent sovereign rulers that the villagers would capture him if he were
e) None of these caught. Besides, the village was full of dogs and the
jackal was afraid of them. They were sure to kill
Directions (11- 14) choose the word/group of him or hurt him badly if they ever managed to catch
words which is most nearly the SAME meaning as him. But the lure of food proved too strong for him
the word given in bold as used in the passage. and so the jackal used to visit the village frequently.
11. Awakened One day, just as he was about to enter a big
house he heard the sound of barking. To his horror
a) Moved d) Kindled
he saw a group of dogs running towards the house.
b) Segregated e) Supported They looked fierce and the jackal was soon
c) Extracted trembling with fear. He ran haphazardly and
12. Cherished tumbled right inside a tub of blue dye. The dogs
didn’t see him and ran the other way. By the time
a) Maintained carefully d) Accepted happily
the jackal climbed out of the tub he was dyed blue
b) Available abundantly e) Protected lovingly from head to foot. He looked strange and totally
c) Managed tactfully unlike any other animal.
The jackal was very happy. “No one will be
13. Authenticated
able to recognize me now” he said to himself, “I can
a) Established d) Audited easily fool everyone in the forest.” When he entered
b) Documented e) Maintained the forest once again everyone was surprised to see
c) Maintained such a strange animal. They had never seen any
animal of that colour before. ”Who are you?” the
14. Proceeding smaller animals asked him. “Where have you come
a) Escaping d) deviating from?” asked the mighty lion with a frown. “Lord
b) Ranging e) freeing Indra, king of heaven, has sent me to look after you”
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said the blue jackal in a grand voice, “I’ll be your b) The pack of jackals
king from now on”. “But I have always been the c) Lord Indra, king of heavens
king of the forest” protested the mighty lion. “All d) The blue jackal
that must change now as I am the king” said the e) Power of blue
blue Jackal enjoying himself, “all of you must serve
4. What did the jackal do after he realized that his
me and do exactly as I tell you.” “What if we don’t?”
color had changed?
asked the Tiger. “Then Lord Indra will destroy the
a) He decided to trick the other animals in the
entire forest and all of you along with it” said the
forest.
blue jackal. The animals did not dare to say
b) He decided to kill himself as no one would
anything more. “What would you like us to do?”
accept him.
they asked the blue Jackal. “Bring me lots of food, to
c) He pretended to be a dog and stayed in the
start with” said the blue jackal promptly. “I am
village.
hungry and can’t take care of you unless I am
d) He took a shower hoping the blue color
properly looked after.”
would run off.
The animals rushed off in search of food.
They took care to bring whatever they could find 5. Why did the jackal banish the pack of jackals
and offered the best of everything to the blue jackal. from the forest?
The jackal was happy and had his fill. The animals a) He feared they would be jealous of him.
promised to serve him faithfully. He assigned b) He feared they would not accept him.
special duties to all animals but banished the pack c) He feared they would recognize him.
of jackals from the forest because he was afraid d) He feared they would tell the Lion, the king
they might recognize him some day. The blue jackal of the forest.
had a wonderful time after that. e) None of these
One day something unexpected happened.
6. What would happen if the animals refused to
The banished pack of jackals was roaming outside
serve the jackal?
the forest and howled together loudly. The blue
a) The jackal would banish them all from the
jackal forgot himself and joined in the howling just
forest.
as he used to do before. The other animals were
b) The jackal would ensure that they be
present when it happened and started at him
punished accordingly.
incredulously. Here was their mighty blue king
c) Lord Indra would be very happy about their
howling just like a jackal! So he was a jackal after all
misbehavior.
and not a strange creature sent from heaven! He
d) Lord Indra would destroy the forest along
has merely been fooling them all these days! Well,
with all the animals.
they were not going to be fooled any longer. They
e) Lord Indra would no longer be the king of
fell upon the blue jackal and killed him before he
heavens.
could explain or protest, and that was the end of
the blue jackal’s reign as king! 7. Why did the animals in the forest readily
1. Why did the jackal keep going to the village? accept the blue jackal as their king?
a) Because he had many friends in the village. a) Because he was different from all the
b) Because he loved the food the humans animals.
prepared. b) Because he had an answer to all their
c) Because he wanted to get away from the questions.
pack c) Because he claimed he was sent by Lord
of jackals. Indra to look after them.
d) Because he was not allowed in the forest. d) Because the Lion who was the king of the
e) Because he wanted to become the king. forest was not doing a good job.
e) Because the Lion had accepted him as the
2. How did the jackal change his color?
king.
a) He got himself a skin treatment.
b) He prayed to Lord Indra to change his color.
c) He wore a set of blue clothes.
d) He tumbled inside a tub containing blue
dye.
e) None of these
3. What could be an appropriate title for the
story?
a) The foolish animals
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b) poisonous d) wrong
CHAPTER – 2
16. FIERCE
SYNONYMS a) Daring
b) Violent
d) Solid
e) Trained
c) Harsh
1. INFURIATE
a) burn c) disgrace 17. PROTESTED
b) threaten d) enrage a) Objected d) Said
b) Affirmed e) Thought
2. PROSPECTIVE c) Fought
a) potential c) prosperous
b) perplexed d) possible 18. LURE
a) Reward d) Desire
3. LOUSY b) Happiness e) Temptation
a) unbearable c) unpleasant c) Scent
b) awful d) stinking
19. BUY
4. ACCENTUATED a) accept d) pay
a) exhibited c) devalued b) provide e) cost
b) mitigated d) sharpened c) bargain
5. PREDOMINANTLY 20. STAGERRING
a) emphatically c) forcefully a) swaying d) huge
b) mostly d) profoundly b) ripening e) collapsing
6. SUCCESSIVE c) unsteady
a) rapid c) victorious
b) beneficent d) consecutive CHAPTER – 3
7. RAVAGE
a) destroy
b) demolish
c) break
d) abolish
ANTONYMS
8. SUPERSTITIOUS 1. ASCETICISM
a) pious c) traditional a) comfort c) luxury
b) irrational d) sacred b) anti-Semitism d) humility
9. MENTOR 2. ENDURING
a) guide c) genius a) fleeting c) painful
b) stylist d) philosopher b) permanent d) long lasting
10. GARNISH 3. DISSOLUTION
a) paint c) genius a) retribution c) establishment
b) stylist d) philosopher b) persuasion d) compliance
11. INFRUCTUOUS 4. PROGRESSIVE
a) meaningless c) unnecessary a) repressive c) retrogressive
b) redundant d) fruitless b) repulsive d) aggressive
12. FIDELITY 5. UNNERVED
a) affection c) allegiance a) confident c) nervous
b) accuracy d) loyalty b) hopeful d) anxious
13. GRUFF 6. EXODUS
a) affection c) allegiance a) influx c) home-coming
b) accuracy d) loyalty b) return d) restoration
14. DOLEFUL 7. INQUISITIVE
a) mournful c) sober a) insincere c) indifferent
b) regretful d) cheerless b) insensitive d) insulting
15. FATAL 8. CANDID
a) terrible c) deadly a) outspoken c) frank
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b) devious d) disguised
CHAPTER – 4
9. NADIR
a) modernity
b) liberty
c) zenith
d) progress IDIOMS AND PHRASES
10. CULPABLE Directions: In the following questions four
a) defendable c) blameless alternatives are given for the idiom/ phrase printed
b) careless d) irresponsible in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/
11. FACILITATE
phrase.
a) help c) propagate
b) hinder d) reject 1. It is high time he came out of his shell.
a) appeared suddenly
12. CRITICISE
b) became more sociable
a) finish c) recommend
c) became a loser
b) critics d) Request
d) removed his clothes
13. CONFORMITY
2. Every political party is at present playing to
a) deviation c) dilution
the gallery.
b) distraction d) diversion
a) adopting cheap tactics
14. AFFIRM b) befooling the common man
a) refuse c) negate c) fighting for votes
b) neglect d) avoid d) appeasing the masses
15. AUTONOMY 3. His blood ran cold when he heard his uncle
a) slavery c) subordination was murdered.
b) dependence d) submissiveness a) He was frightened c) He was horrified
b) He was disgusted d) He was depressed
16. UNEXPECTED
a) Noticeable d) Pleasant 4. This is so simple that even a man in the street
b) Ordinary e) Usual can understand it.
c) Original a) an ordinary person c) an illiterate person
b) an unknown person d) a stranger
17. BANNISHED
a) Secluded d) Embraced 5. When he went to claim insurance for his car,
b) Included e) Delivered the agent said he hadn’t leg to stand on.
c) Loved a) had been injured in an accident
b) was lame
18. AUGMENTING
c) did not have much hope of getting it
a) reducing d) growing
d) would have to wait for some time.
b) channelizing e) criticizing
c) supplementing 6. He didn’t tell me directly, but reading
between the lines. I think he is not happy
19. COMBATING
with them.
a) holding d) forgiving
a) reading slowly and haltingly.
b) caring e) supporting
b) understanding the sense rather than the
c) fighting
actual words.
20. COMMENDABLE c) understanding the meaning of words and
a) Valuable d) Unreliable not the sense.
b) Undeserved e) Unworthy d) reading superficially
c) Deficient
7. Gokul works by fits and starts.
a) consistently c) irregularly
b) in high spirits d) enthusiastically
8. I cannot put up with your misconduct any
longer.
a) a. excuse c) refuse
b) c. accept d) tolerate
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9. I did not mind what he was saying, he was only
talking through his hat.
CHAPTER – 5
a) talking nonsense c) talking ignorantly
b) talking irresponsibly d) talking insultingly FILLING IN THE BLANK
10. He is so furious that he would go through fire
and water to revenge himself on his foe.
WITH APPROPRIATE
a) approach everybody for help WORD
b) avail himself of any opportunity
c) use any conceivable method. Directions: In the following questions, sentences
d) undergo any risk are given with blanks to be filled in with an
11. The watchdogs were asleep when the bulls ran appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are
riot. suggested for each question. Choose the correct
a) behaved cleverly. alternative out of the four.
b) acted without restraint 1. We were completely taken ______ by the estate
c) wandered aimlessly. agent who turned out to be crook.
d) had the best of time. a) for c) on
12. In spite of the immense pressure exerted by b) off d) in
the militants, the Government has decided not 2. A foreign language or mathematics may call for
to give in. three or more hours per class, at least until you
a) accede c) yield have mastered the ______.
b) oblige d) conform a) topic c) subject
13. The young and the old sat cheek by jowl in the b) language d) fundamentals
large audience.
3. ______ you wake me up so early on a Sunday?
a) very near c) very far a) Could c) Dare
b) tongue tied d) irritated
b) Must d) Will
14. We wanted to keep the gift as a surprise for
4. The geocentric idea was abandoned in
mother but my sister gave the game away. seventeenth century, partly as a result of the
a) lost the game
writings of Copernicus, _______ observations
b) gave out the secret made by other astronomers.
c) played badly
a) not only because of c) and also because of
d) withdrew from the game.
b) but also because of d) thus because of
15. I don’t think the law will interfere with us as 5. A person who _____ on his own effort has the
we are just trying to turn an honest penny.
best chance to win.
a) make a legitimate living. a) makes c) puts
b) make a good living
b) relies d) runs
c) have dealings in white money.
d) become more honest. 6. When he died, Ramanujan _____ behind 3
notebooks.
a) was leaving c) had left
b) Left d) leaves
7. For all his _____ he is a _____.
a) wealth, miser c) health, player
b) tricks, cheat d) stupidity, fool
8. In a classroom students are to be trained to
love _____.
a) each other c) all others
b) one another d) altogether
9. Mr. Amar put his whole life _____ the work.
a) on c) in
b) into d) upon
10. All decisions, _______ are likely to be taken by
consensus.
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a) anyhow c) forever
b) somehow d) however
CHAPTER – 6
11. Kumar _____ boy swam across the sea for safety.
a) a 17 years old c) a 17 yr old
GRAMMATICALLY
b) a 17 year aged d) the 17 year old CORRECTING PHRASES
12. She is beautiful ______ brave.
a) but c) and Directions (1 - 15): Which of the phrases a, b, c
b) yet d) so and d given below each statement should replace
the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make
13. Gandhiji will _______ in history as one of the
it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct
greatest men, that ever lived.
as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark
a) go by c) go on
(e) as the answer.
b) go down d) to through
1. In an attempt to grow economically, India
14. All the applicants’ ______ and the results will be plans to march towards an open economy by
announced next week. opened its doors to global markets.
a) rank c) are to rank
a) open doors towards its
b) are to be ranked d) are ranking
b) opening is door to
15. I _____ your parents that I would take care of c) open its doors in
you. d) opening their doors for
a) said d) alerted e) No correction required
b) Forced e) Promised
c) Asked 2. Though poverty is still rampant in India,
economic growth and commercial
development has served to reduce them
substantially over the years.
a) has served to reduce it.
b) is serving to reduce it.
c) had served to reduce them
d) have served to reduce it.
e) No correction required.
3. All witnesses of yesterday’s accident has
been questioned by the police but none could
identify the culprits.
a) Every witness of yesterday’s
b) All witnesses for yesterday’s
c) Most witnesses of yesterday
d) Many witnesses of yesterday.
e) No correction required.
4. In spite of the rapid development of medical
science, production of artificial blood has
remained distant dream for many scientists.
a) Despite of the rapid
b) As a result of the rapid
c) In spite of some rapidly
d) Because of the rapid.
e) No correction required.
5. India has millions of job opportunities but
there is a serious shortage of educated
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professionals whom are actually 12. The striking difference between the two
employable. contestants compatible with each other for
a) those are actually employed. the match was related to their age.
a) compatible with one another.
b) as a result of the rapid.
b) compatible against one another
c) in spite of some rapidly c) competing with the other.
d) because of the rapid d) competing with each other
e) No correction required. e) No correction required.
6. A nation that had been once tried to kill him
13. Market research and market communication is
was the first to embrace him.
so far being confined to a handful of
a) had once been trying to
consumer goods like soaps, cosmetics, etc.
b) had once tried to
a) is thus far being confined to
c) once had been tried to
b) have so far been confined to
d) had to once try and
c) are so far being confined to
e) No correction required
d) have so far been confined with
7. Had he known more about the politics of the e) No correction required
company, he might not have accepted the offer.
14. If we rely on others for technology up
a) He had known more
gradation, potential serious damage may be
b) Did he know more
caused.
c) Since not more was known
a) potentially serious damage may.
d) If he would know more
b) serious potentially damage may
e) No correction required.
c) seriously potential damage may
8. His life is an example of how the human will d) seriously potential damage might
can flourish even in harsh conditions. e) No correction required
a) What the human will can.
15. The load-shedding, however justifiable it may
b) how the human can and will
be, has been aggravating the problems.
c) when the human will can
a) has been aggravated.
d) where the human will can
b) have aggravated
e) no correction required.
c) have been aggravating
9. The social worker passionately stroked the d) would have been aggravated.
annoyed passenger in order that be pacified. e) No correction required
a) to pacify him.
b) that to pacify
c) to be pacified for
d) that to be pacified with
e) No correction required
10. They were no longer able to provide the help
their children need.
a) helped their children need.
b) help their children needed.
c) Help that their children need.
d) help that their children would need.
e) No correction required.
11. You may be well organized in your thoughts
but what would you propose may not be
necessarily acceptable on all occasions.
a) what you would propose.
b) that you would propose.
c) What you propose.
d) What you would have proposed.
e) No correction required.
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9. My watch stopped, as key was not given.
CHAPTER – 7 a. the key was not given.
b. it had not been wound up.
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT c. Its key was not given.
d. No improvement.
Directions: In the following question a part of the 10. I was really criticized by the angry words of
sentence is printed in bold. Below are given my father.
alternatives to the bold part at a, b and c which they a. Jolted b. fluttered
improve the sentence. Choose the correct c. thwarted d. No improvement
alternative. In case no improvement is needed
mark your answer as d. 11. Who does not grasp the recently formed
Commonwealth of Independent States?
1. Who you said was coming to see me this a. know b. identify
morning? c. understand d. No improvement
a. you did say b. did you say 12. You may sign on this paper.
c. did you say that d. No improvement a. sign at his paper. b. sign this paper
2. He is not only known for his wealth but also c. Sign upon this paper d. No improvement
for his learning. 13. All that is human must revert if it does not
a. not only known for his learning advance.
b. only known for his wealth. a. retrograde b. withdraw
c. known not only for his wealth c. retire d. No improvement
d. No improvement
14. Majority of people wrongly believed that
3. Owning to the close affinity of the architect there must be a son in every family.
and the builder, the architect was completed a. the people believe wrongly.
ahead of schedule. b. peoples wrongly believes
a. termination b. cooperation c. The people wrongly believe
c. collaboration d. No improvement d. No improvement
4. The servant was disturbed as her son was now 15. I and my parents live together.
out of sight due to bad company. a. Me and my parents b. My parents and I
a. out of bounds b. out of control c. My parents and me d. No improvement
c. out of reach d. No improvement
5. Whenever I doubt about the meaning of a
word, I look up my dictionary. CHAPTER – 8
a. whenever I have a doubt
b. whenever I am in doubt
c. the moment I doubt ERROR CORRECTION
d. No improvement
6. The watchman asked the intruder who was he Directions (1-20): In the following questions,
and why was he occupying his chair. some of the sentences have errors and some have
a. Who he was and why he none. Find out which part of a sentence has an
b. Who he was and why he was error. The number of that part is your answer. If
c. Who he had been and why was he there is no error, the answer is (d) i.e. No error.
d. No improvement.
1. It is a truth that (a)/ those who are jealous of
7. The police booked a case against the car- others (b)/ never get peace in life. (c)/ No
driver for wrong parking. error (d)
a. restricted b. expelled
c. filed d. No improvement 2. Walking along (a)/ the bank of the river (b)/
the road begins to rise (c)/ No error (d).
8. I am thinking to do an M.A. in English.
a. I am wondering to de an M.A. in English. 3. Shyam is telling (a)/ that I have (b)/ stolen his
b. I am thinking of doing an M.A. in English. pen(c)/ No error (d).
c. I am thinking doing an M.A. in English. 4. The driver showed (a)/ great talent in keeping
d. No improvement. (b)/ the damaged car under control.(c)/ No
error (d)
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5. If it were possible to get near when (a)/ one of CHAPTER – 9
the volcanic eruptions take place (b)/ we
should see a grand sight. (c)/ No error (d)
JUMBLED SENTENCES
6. Tea grows (a)/ both in Assam (b)/ and Ceylon.
(c)/ No error (d)
Directions: Rearrange the following six sentences
7. He described about (a)/ the unpleasant 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a
experiences (b)/ he had in the jail. (c)/ No meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
error (d) given below.
8. I shall avail (a)/ of this opportunity (b)/ to
meet you there. (c)/ No error (d) Set-1
1. The next day, the priest discovered that one of
9. If I got rich (a)/ I would travel (b)/ around the the servants cut his stick shorter by two
world. (c)/ No error (d) inches, fearing that it would grow.
10. Engines used in space shuttles (a)/ are very 2. When the priest questioned each of the
much larger (b)/ and more strong than the servants, they denied.
ones used in Jet planes. (c)/ No error (d) 3. One day a rich merchant’s house was robbed,
and he suspected one of his servants.
11. Remember that a (a)/ stitch at a time (b)/ 4. In this way, the wise old priest caught the thief.
saves nine. (c)/ No error (d) 5. He approached the wise priest in the village
12. The timid creature was driven (a)/ into a and asked for help on the matter.
narrow lane (b)/ where it was slowed by the 6. The priest then gave them each a stick of equal
kidnapper. (c)/ No error (d) length and said that the stick of the real thief
would grow by two inches the next morning.
13. I was having a holiday (a)/ by seaside last
summer (b)/ when I ran into Captain 1. Which of the following should be the SIXTH
Robinson. (c)/ No error (d) (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
14. The G.M. (a)/ of the company (b)/ dispensed a. 6 b. 2 c. 3
the Manager’s services. (c)/ No error (d) d. 5 e. 4
15. The river is in spate (a)/ and it has overflow 2. Which of the following should be the FIFTH
(b)/ its banks. (c)/ No error (d) sentence after the rearrangement?
a. 1 b. 4 c. 3
16. He was debarred (a)/ to appear (b)/ at the d. 2 e. 5
examination. (c)/ No error (d)
3. Which of the following should be the SECOND
17. A rise in rents and wages (a)/ to appear (b)/ at sentence after the rearrangement?
the examination. (c)/ No error (d) a. 2 b. 3 c. 5
18. It is not (a)/ I who is (b)/ to blame. (c)/ No d. 2 e. 6
error (d)
4. Which of the following should be the FIRST
19. Of the two great cities (a)/ the former is (b)/ sentence after the rearrangement?
biggest.(c)/ No error (d) a. 3 b. 4 c. 6
20. When I entered the bedroom (a)/ I saw a snake d. 1 e. 5
crawling (b)/ on the ground. (c)/ No error (d) 5. Which of the following should be the FOURTH
sentence after the rearrangement?
a. 1 b. 5 c. 2
d. 6 e. 4
Set – 2
A. The government too has not left any stone
unturned in promoting the ‘go green’ concept
among the construction industrialists.
B. It has succeeded in luring the builders into
‘going green’ by these incentives, thus mutually
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benefiting the builders as well as the becoming self-reliant in areas in which only a
environment. few countries have such capability.
C. It means that the construction of their 5. Even to meet these nuclear power
buildings ensures energy efficiency, water requirements, India critically requires
conservation and use of recycled and commercial-level power-generation capability,
renewable energy sources. with its commensurate safety and nuclear
D. It has offered many attractive packages, waste management arrangements.
subsidies and tax benefits to the builders who 6. Thus, in Indian context energy security is also
follow this concept. crucial, perhaps much more that it is for the
E. As the construction industry revives from U.S.A., because India imports a good part of its
recession and begins to bloom once again, the crude oil requirements, paying for it with
latest trend to catch the eye of the developers precious foreign exchange.
is to ‘go green’.
F. All these not only have a positive impact on the 11. Which of the following will be the FIFTH
environment but also prove to be more sentence after rearrangement?
economical for the builders as well as the a. 1 b. 2 c. 3
residents in the long run. d. 4 e. 5
6. Which of the following should be the FIRST 12. Which of the following will be the THIRD
sentence after the rearrangement? sentence after rearrangement?
a. A b. B c. C a. 1 b. 2 c. 3
d. D e. E d. 4 e. 5
7. Which of the following should be the SECOND 13. Which of the following will be the SECOND
sentence after the rearrangement? sentence after rearrangement?
a. A b. B c. C a. 1 b. 2 c. 3
d. E e. F d. 4 e. 5
8. Which of the following should be the THIRD 14. Which of the following will be the FIRST
sentence after the rearrangement? sentence after rearrangement?
a. A b. E c. D a. 1 b. 2 c. 3
d. F e. C d. 4 e. 5
9. Which of the following should be the FIFTH 15. Which of the following will be the FOURTH
sentence after the rearrangement? sentence after rearrangement?
a. D b. B c. C a. 1 b. 2 c. 3
d. E e. F d. 4 e. 5
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a. SPQR b. PSRQ the property is subject to litigation or
c. QRSP d. RSPQ otherwise.
a. PQSR b. QRSP
2. 1. The world is full of people appallingly full
c. RQPS d. SQPR
and
they are tumbling over each other. 5. 1. The coming of computer sparked the need
P. There are two solutions to overcome for
these dislikes. remotely operated controls.
Q. One is the Nazi solution, if you don’t like P. It is Silicon Chip that is at the heart of the
kill them, banish them. remote control.
R. One doesn’t like the colour of their skin, Q. This produces an infra-red beam, which
or the shape of their nose or the way they is made up of electro-magnetic waves.
walk and talk. R. When you press the button on the remote
S. Most of the people one doesn’t know and control, the chip sets off an electronic
some of them one doesn’t like. vibrator.
6. The other way is much less thrilling, the way S. The beam carries a coded signal such as
of the democracies and is much more switch on, raise volume etc.
preferable. 6. The code is based on binary digits.
a. PQRS b. RPQS
a. PSQR b. PRSQ
c. PRQS d. PQSR
c. QPRS d. SRPQ
6. 1. Before presenting a paper it is advisable to
3. 1. My principle was put to the test many a time choose a subject of your interest.
in P. When presenting your paper speak
South Africa. distinctly and pleasantly.
P. In my heart of hearts I always wished Q. next, ‘read up’ about it, before you write
that I could win only if my client’s case eas the paper.
right. R. Then prior to writing make a clear plan
Q. But I always resisted the temptation. to ensure orderly presentation.
R. I remember only one occasion when, S. While reading, you should make notes.
after having won a case, I suspected that my 6. In this way, the interest of the listeners is
client had deceived me. enhanced and you are appreciated.
S. Often I knew that my opponents had a. RSQP b. PQRS
tutored their witness, and if only c. QSRP d. SQRP
encouraged my clients or his witnesses to
lie, we would win the case. 7. 1. Environment is the place where all forms of
6. In fixing my fees I do not recall ever having life
made them conditional on my winning the exist, live and prosper.
case. P. Thus, there is a network of life forms with
a. SQRP b. PQRS a close association among themselves and
c. SRPQ d. RPQS with the non living matter.
Q. Any life form can exist on earth only if
4. 1. The decision to purchase a property involves the integrity of all the components are
various factors. maintained.
P. there can be other factors only a seller R. Human life is closely linked with all the
may know and is required to disclose. other forms in the environment and also
Q. this includes checking the documents for with the inanimate objects like air, water
title verification, scrutinizing the original and land.
title deeds etc. S. If anyone component of the network, is
R. While purchasing a property a screening distributed, it will have a profound adverse
procedure is followed. effect on all other components.
S. These include matters such as 6. Protecting Environment is an important
agreements entered into by the seller with item of life.
third parties, power of attorney granted by a. QRSP b. RPSQ
the seller and any pending litigation on the c. PQSR d. SQPR
property.
6. Now a days it is very difficult to verify 8. 1. You would have heard about it by now. Yes,
whether Pluto is no longer considered a planet.
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P. For instance, Pluto is the only known
heavenly body that rotates in synchrony
CHAPTER – 10
with the orbit of its satellite.
Q. It is to be called a “dwarf planet” CLOZE TEST
henceforth.
R. So, unlike the earth and our moon, Pluto
and Charon continuously face each other. Passage –I
S. Even in the past, Pluto’s status had (Question Numbers 1 to 10)
remained shaky and was always considered
a peculiar planet. Our national leaders are still trapped in the slogans
6. Discovered in 1930, and named after the and clichés of the freedom struggle. Day in and day
Roman god of the underworld, Pluto has icy out, they extol the ( 1 ) of nationalism, patriotism
surface composed of nitrogen and methane and service to the motherland and ( 2 ) on the great
and weighs just a fifth of the weight of our sacrifices made by our leaders in the cause of
moon. India’s freedom. Mercifully, we still have ( 3) of
a. QPRS b. SQPR freedom fighters among us, whose number (4)
c. QSPR d. RQSP keeps increasing despite the country having won
freedom half a century back. Politicians are(5)to be
9. 1. One cold night, just as I was about to jump down to earth people, with their finger on the (6) of
into the masses. They have an uncanny knack of(7) the
bed, I heard guns firing. nebulous desires and aspirations of the people. In
P. The whole city seemed to be lit by other words, they have to be(8) in tune with times.
heavenly light. But what sort of(9) repeated appeals to patriotism,
Q. On looking out, I saw the flashes of the nationalism and sacrifices made during the
fast travelling bullets. freedom struggle strike in the heart of the post
R. I stood motionless as shells whistled past. independence generation? It grew up when the
S. I ran to the nearest window. country had already won independence and the
6. It was almost like fireworks except that the freedom struggle had(10) into history. Since it has
flashes were not for celebration, but for grown up in a sovereign, democratic republic,
destruction. nationalism and patriotism are nice words that do
a. RPSQ b. PRSQ not quite inspire it.
c. QRSP d. SQPR
1. a. standards b. targets
10. 1. Khizer had been very pious and wise man. c. ideals d. goals
P. Khizer would then appear and comfort
that person. 2. a. enlarge b. dwell
Q. In Persia, whoever had any problem c. insist d. expatiate
would pray to him for help.
R. He would live until the Day of Judgement. 3. a. majority b. groups
S. He had drunk nectar, the water of Eternal c. tribes d. hordes
Life.
6. The king of Persia also desired to see the 4. a. steadily b. generally
great Khizer. c. normally d. periodically
6. a. mood b. heart
c. Pulse d. mind
7. a. leading b. representing
c. reflecting d. articulating
8. a. collectively b. wholly
c. inevitably d. substantially
9. a. tune b. rhythm
c. chord d. music
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10. a. retired b. receded ‘CRY-Child Relief and You’ 21 an organization that
c. retreated d. returned 22 started by seven such 23 and it has been
working 24 1979 change lives of 25 children
Passage –II allover India.
(Question Numbers 11 to 20)
21. a. was b. is
It was very hot in the small courtroom and c. are d. being
everybody was feeling sleepy. After a tiring
morning, the clerks were anxious to get 11 to lunch 22. a. has b. being
and even the judge must have felt 12 when the last c. was d. been
case came up before the court. A short-middle-aged
man with grey hair and small blue eyes was now 23. a. friends b. men
standing 13 him. The man had a foolish expression c. people d. individuals
on his face and he kept looking 14 stupidly as if he
was trying hard to 15 what was going 16. The man 24. a. from b. during
was accused of 17 into a house and stealing a cheap c. for d. until
watch. The witness, who was called, did not give a
clear 18 of what had happened. He claimed to have 25. a. underprivileged b. privileged
seen a man outside the house one night, but on c. hopeless d. denuded
being 19 further, he confessed that he was not sure
whether this was the man. The judge considered Passage – IV
the matter for a short time and then declared that (Question Numbers 26 to 35)
as there was no real proof, the man could not be 20
guilty. When we sit down for a meal of market-bought
products, we like to think we are getting a
11. a. on b. about
reasonable (26) of the body’s nutrient
c. off d. away
requirements. But studies show that because of our
chemical intensive farming, the food that we have,
12. a. tired b. exhausted
does not (27) the vital nutrients that our ancestors
c. annoyed d. relieved
enjoyed.
Plants (28) with the help of soluble
13. a. before b. with
chemical fertilizers get lazy and do not develop the
c. behind d. against
deep, healthy root systems that pull additional
elements out of the (29). In addition, the micro-
14. a. up b. around
organisms that break down organic matter and
c. along d. at
minerals to be taken up by plant roots are (30) by
chemical bombardment and violent mechanized
15. a. imagine b. understand
manipulation of their environment. Essentially,
c. see d. view
we’re getting robbed, and having to pay for it in
(31) health, energy, longevity, and advancing
16. a. on b. away
medical bills.
c. about d. up
Unfortunately, agriculture’s single-minded
focus on increasing (32) at any cost over the last
17. a. going b. moving
half-century created a blind spot where rapid (33)
c. entering d. breaking
of the nutritional quality of our food has occurred.
This decline has been observed to be quite (34) in
18. a. verdict b. understanding
some crops but has sadly gone largely (35) by
c. account d. explanation
scientists, farmers, government and consumers.
19. a. forced b. threatened
26. a. yield b. number
c. pulled d. questioned
c. amount d. deficiency
e. strength
20. a. found b. discovered
c. charged d. called
27. a. grow b. specify
c. inhibit d. cultivate
Passage –III
e. contain
(Question Numbers 21 to 25)
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28. a. growing b. eaten 36. a. resistant b. subservient
c. suffering d. arising c. immune d. cordial
e. rising e. indifference
37. a. obvious b. trivial
29. a. pesticides b. plants
c. superfluous d. daunting
c. food d. soil
e. rewarding
e. crop
38. a. renamed b. emerged
30. a. increased b. absorbed c. appointed d. entrusted
c. added d. wounded e. visited
e. killed
39. a. aid b. recognition
c. policy d. acceptability
31. a. improving b. declining
e. minister
c. better d. simplifying
e. defective 40. a. shrink b. avoid
c. transfer d. visualize
32. a. yields b. fertilizers e. inherit
c. chemicals d. quality
41. a. focusing b. framing
e. soil
c. escaping d. salvage
e. demolishing
33. a. immigration b. improvement
c. return d. progression 42. a. people b. few
e. deterioration c. diplomats d. autocrats
e. most
34. a. more b. inadequate
43. a. intensified b. master-minded
c. significant d. interior
c. weakened d. projected
e. resistant
e. supported
35. a. improved b. unnoticed 44. a. credibility b. difficulty
c. eradicated d. alarming c. majority d. power
e. unaware e. enthusiasm
Passage –V 45. a. not b. uniformly
(Question Numbers 36 to 50) c. remotely d. partially
With the U.S. military tied down on two fronts and e. also
the rest of the world growing (36) to American
46. a. effectively b. inadvertently
power, the challenges for Rice are as (37) as they
c. basically d. aimlessly
have been for nay Secretary of State in the past
e. not
three decades. After six years of tussling with
others on Bush’s national-security team, Rice has 47. a. admirations b. threats
seen off her rivals and (38) as the principal c. pleasantries d. demands
spokesperson for Bush’s foreign (39). Her reward e. accolades
has been to (40) responsibility for selling a failed
policy in Iraq and (41) a legacy for Bush at a time 48. a. louder b. fewer
when (42) in the world are in the mood to help her. c. magnificent d. most
“Bush is severely (43) and has very little (44) or e. bigger
support at home or abroad,” says Leslie Gelb,
49. a. instability b. fuel
former president of the Council on Foreign
c. energy d. peace
Relations. “That is (45) true for his Secretary of
e. atrocity
State. So they are (46) flailing around.”
That’s a grim assessment, since the (47) to 50. a. defusing b. demolishing
international order are (48) today than at any c. terminating d. igniting
other time since the end of the cold war. The most e. extinguishing
immediate source of (49) emanates from Iraq,
where the country’s civil war risks (50) a region-
wide conflict.
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