16/08/2023 C

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 REVISION TEST NO 2 Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered :
PHYSICS:
Thermal Properties of Matter
PHYSICS:
Thermal Properties of Matter
CHEMISTRY:
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Structure of Atom
CHEMISTRY:
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Structure of Atom
BOTANY:
Cell : The unit of Life
BOTANY:
Cell : The unit of Life
ZOOLOGY:
Biomolecules
ZOOLOGY:
Biomolecules

PHYSICS

PHYSICS

1. Three rods A, B and C of same dimension 2. A steel sphere is dipped into water at 20°C,
have thermal conductivities 2k, 2k and k the temperature of water is increased the
respectively. They are arranged in T-shaped apparent weight of the sphere
structure as shown in the figure. The (1) Will increase
temperature of junction is
(2) Will decrease
(3) Will remains constant
(4) May increase or decrease depending
on the radius of the sphere

3. The colour of a distant star in sky is an

(1) 70°C indication of its
(2) 64°C (1) Size
(3) 54°C (2) Distance
(4) 42°C (3) Mass
(4) Temperature

1
REVISION TEST NO 2

4. Heat required to change 20 g ice at –20°C 9. On the Fahrenheit scale, the absolute zero
into steam at 100ºC is (Specific heat of ice of temperature is at
cal cal (1) – 300°F
= 0.5 and of water = 1 , latent heat
g°C g°C

cal
(2) – 459.67°F
of vaporization of water = 540
g
, latent (3) – 101.2°F
heat of fusion of ice = 80
cal
). (4) 273°F
g

(1) 2400 cal

10. For a rectangular sheet of homogeneous
(2) 13000 cal solid, the ratio of coefficient of area
(3) 14600 cal expansion to its linear expansivity is
(4) 8640 cal (1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
5. A planet is at a distance ‘r’ from the sun and (3) 3 : 1
its surface temperature is constant at T. (4) 1 : 1
Assuming that the planet receives energy
only from the sun and loses energy only
through radiation from its surface. 11. Which of the following cylindrical rods (each
Neglecting atmospheric effects which of the made up of same material) will conduct most
following is correct for temperature T? heat, when their ends are maintained at
(1) T ∝ r2 same steady temperature?
(1) Length = 1 m, Area of Cross-Section =
(2) T ∝ r½
3 mm2
(3) T ∝ r–2
(2) Length = 2 m, Area of Cross-Section =
(4) T ∝ r–½ 3 mm2
(3) Length = 1.5 m, Area of Cross-Section
6. A black body emits radiations of maximum = 7 mm2
intensity for the wavelength of 4000 Å when (4) Length = 2 m, Area of Cross-Section =
the temperature of the body is 2227°C. If the 0.5 mm2
temperature of the body is increased by
1000°C, then maximum intensity would be
observed for wavelength of 12. 3 kg ice at – 20°C is mixed with 7 kg of water
(1) 2857 Å at 30°C in an insulating vessel. The final
temperature will be
(2) 2560 Å
(1) –7°C
(3) 2351 Å
(2) 7°C
(4) 3248 Å
(3) 0°C
(4) 10°C
7. A body cools in 7 minutes from 60°C to 40°C
in a surrounding of temperature 10°C. If
body transfers heat only due to radiation and
surrounding temperature remains same,
then temperature of the body after next 7
minutes will be
(1) 28°C
(2) 20°C
(3) 18°C
(4) 32°C

8. If 5 g of steam at 100°C is mixed with 5 g of

ice at 0°C, then the resultant temperature of
the mixture is (Lv = 540 cal/g and Lf = 80
cal/g)
(1) 77°C
(2) 127°C
(3) 55°C
(4) 100°C

2
REVISION TEST NO 2

13. The graph between two temperature scale A 16. Heat is supplied to a certain sample of a
and B is as shown in figure. Between upper substance in solid state at a constant rate.
fixed point and lower fixed point there are The variation of temperature is plotted
150 equal division on scale A and 100 on against time as shown in the figure. Choose
scale B. The relationship for conversion the correct statement regarding the sample.
between the two scale is given by

(1) Its specific heat capacity is greater in

solid state as compared to the liquid
state
(2) Its specific heat capacity is greater in
liquid state as compared to the solid
state
(3) Latent heat of fusion is greater than that
of latent heat of vaporization
(1) tA −180 tB (4) Both (1) and (3)
=
100 150

(2) tB −40
=
tA
17. A small ball is immersed in water. It weighs
100 180
w1 , at 0°C. Water is heated to 50°C and now
(3) tA −30
=
tB
it weighs w2 . The coefficient of cubical
150 100

(4) tA −180 tB
expansion of ball material is less than water
150
=
100
then on comparing weights,
(1) w2 > w1
14. On an imaginary scale of temperature X, the (2) w2 < w1
freezing and boiling points of water are 42°X (3) w1 = w2
and 192°X respectively. What will be the
temperature on X scale corresponding to a (4) More information is required
temperature 40°C on Celsius scale is
(1) 102°X 18. A cylindrical metallic rod is in thermal
(2) 82°X contact with two reservoirs of heat, its two
ends conduct an amount of heat Q in time t
(3) 122°X
in steady state. If this rod is replaced by
(4) 152°X another rod of same material having double
radius of the first rod. The amount of heat
15. The specific heat of a metal at low conducted by the new rod in same time in
steady state will be
temperature varies according to S = bT2 ,
where b is constant and T is absolute (1) Q
4
temperature. The heat energy needed to unit
mass of the metal to raise the temperature (2) 4Q
from T = 1 K to T = 3 K is (3) 2Q
(1) 10b (4) Q
3 2

(2) 20b

(3) 13b 19. A tungsten lamp is at 3000 K and its surface

3 area is 0.3 cm2 . The emissivity found
(4) 26b
experimentally for tungsten lamp is 0.4. The
3
rate at which heat is radiated from lamp is
proportional to
(1) 30004
(2) 32734
(3) 27304
(4) 27274

3
REVISION TEST NO 2

20. A graph plotted between temperature read 22. The correct graph of coefficient of volume
on Fahrenheit scale and that on Celsius expansion (αv) of copper as a function of
scale, are shown below. The correct graph is temperature is
(1) (1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(4)

23. A black smith fixes iron ring on rim of

wooden wheel of a horse cart. The diameter
of rim and iron ring are 3.453 m and 3.441 m
respectively at 0°C. To what temperature
should the ring be heated so as to fit on rim
of wheel? (αFe = 1.20 × 10–5 K–1 )
(1) 290.6°C
21. Coefficient of volume expansion at constant (2) 260.5°C
pressure for an ideal gas at 300 K is
(3) 330.4°C
(1) 1.5 × 10–3 K–1
(4) 435.6°C
(2) 3.3 × 10–3 K–1
(3) 2.7 × 10–5 K–1 24. A cube at temperature 0°C is compressed
equally from all sides by an external
(4) 3.3 × 10–5 K–1
pressure P. By what amount should its
temperature be raised to bring it back to size
it had, before external pressure was
applied? (Bulk modulus of cube is β and
coefficient of linear expansion is α)
(1) P
βα

(2) 3β

(3) P

3αβ

(4) 2P

3αβ

4
REVISION TEST NO 2

25. In the given heat and temperature graph of a 29. A graph is plotted between the temperature
substance, choose the correct statement. of a metal cube in °C versus °F. The cosine
of the angle made by the graph with °C axis
is
(1) 5
9

(2) 9

(3) 5

√106

(a) Latent heat of fusion is greater than the

(4) 9

latent heat of vapourisation. √106

(b) Heat capacity of solid is greater than heat

capacity of liquid.
(c) Heat capacity of solid is less than heat 30. The energy radiated per second by a
capacity of liquid. spherical black body will be doubled if its
(d) Latent heat of fusion is less than the (1) Radius is doubled
latent heat of vapourisation (2) Radius is increased by nearly 41%
(1) b & d
(3) Temperature is increased by 41%
(2) a & c
(4) Temperature is doubled
(3) c & d
(4) a & d
31. A slab consist of two portions of different
materials of same thickness and equal
26. Two ends of a uniform rod of cross-sectional length joined end to end and having the
area A and thermal conductivity k are thermal conductivities K and 2K. The
maintained at different but constant equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab
temperatures. At any point on the rod the (1) 3k
dT
temperature gradient is . If I be the (2) 3
dx
2k
thermal current in the rod, then
(3) 2k

(1) I ∝ A 3

(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct (4) 4k

3
(3) I ∝ 1
A

−
−
(4) I ∝ dT
32. An ideal gas is expanding such that P √T =
dx
constant. The coefficient of volume
expansion is
27. Identify the correct statement (1) 1
(1) Newton's law of cooling is valid for all T

temperature variation (2) 3

2T

(2) The rate of heat transfer is maximum in

(3) 2

radiation process T

(3) Temperature is a measure of heat (4) 3

T
possessed by a body
(4) Good absorber is a bad emitter
33. If two rods of length 2 m and 1 m having
coefficients of linear expansion α and 2α
28. A : Standardisation of thermometer is respectively are joined together to form a
obtained with gas thermometer. composite rod of total length 3 m. The
R : Coefficient of expansion of gas is very average coefficient of linear expansion of
small than that of liquid. the composite rod will be
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (1) 2α
the reason is the correct explanation of
(2) α
the assertion 2

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (3) 4α

3
the reason is not the correct α
explanation of the assertion (4)
3

(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason

is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

5
REVISION TEST NO 2

34. Figure shows three different arrangements

of materials 1, 2 and 3 to form a wall.
Thermal conductivities are k1 > k2 > k3 . The
left side of the wall is 20°C higher than the
right side. Temperature difference ΔT across
the material 1 has following relation in three
cases

(1) ΔTa > ΔTb > ΔTc

(2) ΔTa = ΔTb = ΔTc
(3) ΔTa = ΔTb > ΔTc
(4) ΔTa = ΔTb < ΔTc

35. At what temperature, the readings of

centigrade scale and Fahrenheit scale are in
ratio 2 : 3?
(1) −160
( )°C
3

(2) −160
( ) °F
3

(3) −320
( )° C
3

(4) −160
(
5
) °F

PHYSICS

36. A spherical black body emits radiation with 38. On a new scale of temperature (which is
power P when its temperature is T. The linear) and called the W scale, the freezing
radiation emitted by another black body of and boiling points of water are 39o W and
same material but of double the radius and 239o W respectively. What will be the
half of the temperature as the initial one, will temperature on the new scale,
have power
corresponding to a temperature of 39o C on
(1) 2P the Celsius scale?
(2) 3P (1) 139o W
(3) P
4 (2) 78o W
(4) P
(3) 117o W
2

(4) 200o W
37. When water is heated from 0°C to 10°C, its
volume
39. A metal sphere with a cavity is heated. The
(1) Increases size of cavity will
(2) Decreases (1) Increase
(3) First decreases and then increases (2) Decrease
(4) Does not change (3) Remain same
(4) Depends on location of cavity

6
REVISION TEST NO 2

40. When temperature of a rod increases from T 45. A : Thermal current is same at all points in a
to T +ΔT, its moment of inertia increases conductor during steady state.
from I to I +ΔI. If α is coefficient of linear R : Thermal current is proportional to cross
expansion of rod, then ΔI
is sectional area of conductor for a given
I
temperature difference across conductor.
(1) 2αΔT
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(2) αΔT the reason is the correct explanation of
(3) αΔT the assertion
2
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(4) αΔT
the reason is not the correct
3
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
41. If reflectance and transmittance of a body is false
are 0.4 and 0.3, then its absorptance will be
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) 0.3
statements
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.25
46. A uniform copper rod rotates freely about its
(4) 1 perpendicular bisector. If it is cooled
uniformly, then
42. The radius of the ring is R and its coefficient (1) Its speed of rotation increases
of linear expansion is α. If temperature of the (2) Its speed of rotation decrease
ring is increased by Q then fractional (3) Its speed of rotation remains same
increase in its circumference will be
(4) Its speed of rotation first decrease then
(1) αQ increase
(2) 2αQ
(3) πR × Q
47. A cubical block of coefficient of linear
(4) 2πR × Q expansion α is submerged partially inside a
liquid of coefficient of volume expansion γ.
43. Maxwell's velocity distribution curve is given On increasing the temperature of the system
for two different temperature. For the given by ΔT, the height of the cube inside the
liquid remains unchanged. The relation
curves
between α and γ is
(1) γ = α
(2) γ = 4α
(3) γ = 2α
(4) γ = 3α

48. An anisotropic material has coefficients of

linear thermal expansion α1 , α2 and α3
(1) T1 > T2 along x, y and z-axis respectively. Coefficient
(2) T1 < T2 of cubical expansion of its material will be
equal to
(3) T1 ≤ T2
(1) α1 + 2α2 + 3α3
(4) T1 = T2 (2)

44. In a pressure cooker, cooking is fast

because (3) 3α1 + 2α2 + α3
(1) More steam will be available in cooker (4) α1 + α2 + α3
at 100°C
(2) The boiling point of water is raised
inside pressure cooker
(3) The boiling point of water is lowered
inside pressure cooker
(4) Specific heat of pressure cooker is low

7
REVISION TEST NO 2

49. The top of the lake is frozen. The air in

contact with surface of lake is –20°C. Then
the maximum temperature of water in
contact with lower surface of ice will be
(1) –6°C
(2) 0°C
(3) 4°C
(4) –273°C

50. A : Thermal conductivity is a measure of

ability of the material to allow the passage of
heat through it.
R : The S.I. unit of thermal conductivity is
Wm–1 K–1 .
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

CHEMISTRY

CHEMISTRY

51. Element of highest first ionization energy 54. Identify the incorrect match.
among the following is (1) MgO : Basic oxide
(1) O (2) N2 O : Amphoteric oxide
(2) S (3) CO2 : Acidic oxide
(3) Se
(4) Al2 O3 : Amphoteric oxide
(4) Te

55. Oxide which is not amphoteric, is

52. Which of the following is not permissible
arrangement of electrons in an atom? (1) PbO
(1) n = 4, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2 (2) GeO2
(2) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1 (3) SnO
2
(4) Al2 O3
(3) n = 5, l = 2, m = –3, s = − 1
2

(4) n = 2, l = 1, m = –1, s = − 1 56. Correct order of atomic radii of Si, Al, P, S is

2

(1) P > S > Si > Al

53. The orientations of the orbitals in a subshell (2) Al > Si > P > S
is given by (3) S > P > Al > Si
(1) Spin quantum number (4) Si > Al > P > S
(2) Principal quantum number
(3) Magnetic quantum number 57. The element with highest electronegativity
(4) Azimuthal quantum number belongs to
(1) Period 3, group 16
(2) Period 3, group 17
(3) Period 2, group 16
(4) Period 2, group 17

8
REVISION TEST NO 2

58. The correct order of negative electron gain 65. Maximum number of electrons that can be
enthalpies of O, F and Cl is accommodated in an orbital with quantum
(1) Cl > F > O number n = 4, l = 2 and m = –1 is
(2) Cl > O > F (1) 2
(3) F > Cl > O (2) 10
(4) F > O > Cl (3) 8
(4) 6
59. Element with largest atomic radius among
the following is 66. Which of the following quantum numbers is
(1) B not possible for valence electron of sodium
atom?
(2) Be
(1) n = 3
(3) Li
(2) l = 1
(4) F
(3) m = 0
(4) s = + 1
60. The orbital diagram in which Hund's rule is 2

violated, is
(1) 67. Isosters among the following is
(1) N2 and CO
(2)
(2) CO and O2
(3) (3) O2

(4) O
+
2
(4)

68. If the radius of Bohr orbit for second excited

state of Li2+ ion is x Å then radius (in Å) of
61. Which of the following is not permissible
arrangement of electrons in an atom? Be3+ ion in its ground state will be
(1) n = 4, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2 (1) x
2
x
(2) n = 5, l = 2, m = –3, s = − 1 (2)
12
2

(3) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1 (3) x

3
2

(4) n = 2, l = 1, m = –1, s = − 1 (4) 4x

3
2

62. The orbit angular momentum of electron in 69. The correct order of increasing ionic radii of
the following isoelectronic species is
4th shell of hydrogen atom is
(1) S2– < Cl– < P3– < K+
(1) Zero
(2) h (2) Cl– < S2– < P3– < K+
2π
(3) K+ < Cl– < S2– < P3–
(3) 2h

π
(4) K+ < S2– < Cl– < P3–
(4) 4h

70. If uncertainty in momentum is double of

63. Which of the following electronic uncertainty in position then uncertainty in
configurations represents a transition position will be
−−
element? (1) h
√
(1) ns1 2π

−−
(2) ns2 np5 (2) 1 h
√
2 2π

(3) (n – 1)d5 ns2 −

−
(3) h
√
(4) (n – 1)d 10 2 5
ns np π

(4) h

2√2π
64. Element with largest atomic radius among
the following is
(1) B
(2) Be
(3) Li
(4) F

9
REVISION TEST NO 2

71. Correct order of first ionization enthalpy of 77. Which of the following is incorrect match?
the given elements is
n l Orbital
(1) F > O > N > C
(2) N > F > O > C (1) 3 2 3d
(3) O > F > N > C (2) 2 1 2p
(4) F > N > O > C
(3) 4 3 4d

72. The species which is not isoelectronic with (4) 4 0 4s

CO is (1) (1)
(1) CN– (2) (2)
(2) NO+ (3) (3)
(3) O2 2+ (4) (4)
(4) C2 –
78. Lithium is diagonally related with
(1) Be
73. The orbit angular momentum of electron in
(2) Mg
4th shell of hydrogen atom is
(3) Al
(1) Zero
(4) Si
(2) h
2π

(3) 2h
79. Maximum number of visible spectral lines
π
obtained during the transition of electrons
(4) 4h

π from 4th excited state to the ground state of

hydrogen atoms is
74. Wavelength of a sand particle moving with (1) 2
100 m/s speed is (2) 3
(mass of particle = 6.6 mg) (h = 6.6 × 10–34 (3) 6
Js) (4) 10
(1) 10–30 m
(2) 10–33 m 80. Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy is
(3) 10–15 m (1) Be < B < C < N < O
(4) 10–34 m (2) B < Be < C < N < O
(3) B < Be < C < O < N
(4) Be < B < C < O < N
75. Li+ is isoelectronic with
(1) H
81. The possible set of four quantum numbers
(2) He for the outermost electron of copper atom (Z
(3) Be+ = 29) is
(4) B2+ nl m s
1
(1) 3 2 –2 +
2

76. Which of the following oxides is expected to (2) 3 2 0 −

1

react with sodium hydroxide? 2

1
(1) K2 O (3) 4 1 0 +
2

(2) MgO (4) 4 0 0 −

1

2
(3) Al2 O3
(1) (1)
(4) Li2 O (2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

82. Correct order of first ionisation energy is

(1) Li < Be < B
(2) Li < B < Be
(3) N < O < F
(4) F < O < N

10
REVISION TEST NO 2

83. The atomic orbitals used for filling in sixth 85. A : Bond dissociation energy of Cl—Cl bond
period of periodic table are is more than F—F bond.
(1) 6s, 6p, 6d, 6f R : Electron affinity is maximum for Cl.
(2) 6s, 6p, 4d, 5f (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
(3) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p the assertion
(4) 6s, 6p, 6d, 5f (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
84. Isoelectronic pair among the following is explanation of the assertion
(1) CO and ¯ ¯¯
CN
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(2) N
−
and O2
2 (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) F2 and O
− statements
2

(4) NO and CO

CHEMISTRY

86. Among the following, pair of elements 90. The correct order of ionic radii is
belonging to same period is represented in
(1) Z = 35 and Z = 38 (1) Al3+ > Mg2+ > F– > Na+ > O2–
(2) Z = 28 and Z = 38 (2) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2–
(3) Z = 55 and Z = 77
(3) F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
(4) Z = 86 and Z = 96
(4) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+

87. In which of the following options, the order of

arrangement does not agree with the 91. Minimum wavelength of emitted photon of
variation of property indicated against it? Paschen series for H atom (RH : Rydberg
(1) H– > Br– > CI– > F– (decreasing ionic constant of hydrogen atom) is
radii) (1) 3
RH

(2) CI > F > O > S (decreasing negative

(2) 9
electron gain enthalpy) 2RH

(3) N > O > Be > B (decreasing first (3) 9

ionization enthalpy) RH

(4) CI > S > Al > Na (decreasing (4) 1

RH
electronegativity)

88. Incorrect order of electron affinity is 92. The electronic configuration of ytterbium
(Atomic number 70) is
(1) Cl > Si > Na > Ar
(1) [Xe]4f 14 5d 0 6s1
(2) Cl > F > Br > I
(3) Cl > F > S > O (2) [Xe]4f
14 0
5d 6s
2

(4) S > O > Se > Te (3) [Xe]4f

11 3
5d 6s
2

(4) [Xe]4f
10 2
5d 6s
2

89. Ratio of the wavenumber of the first line of

Lyman series of hydrogen atom to the first
93. Number of electrons in chromium atom for
line of Balmer series of He+ ion will be
which ‘n + l = 4’ is
(1) 5 : 2
(1) 4
(2) 9 : 5
(2) 5
(3) 27 : 20
(3) 7
(4) 7 : 5
(4) 10

11
REVISION TEST NO 2

94. Which among the following species contains 97. The number of σ and π bonds in
highest number of unpaired electrons?
(1) Cr2+
(2) Co2+ respectively are
(3) Fe2+ (1) 17, 2
(4) Mn2+ (2) 16, 3
(3) 16, 2
(4) 18, 3
95. Select the wrong statement among the
following
(1) In case of hydrogen like species, the 98. Maximum number of electrons in an atom
energy of 3s orbital is equal to the having n + l + m = 3 is
energy of 3p orbital (1) 6
(2) Angular momentum of an electron in (2) 2
H–atom in quantized (3) 8
(3) Total orbital angular momentum of (4) 4
–
electron in ‘p’ orbital is equal to √2 ℏ

(4) Two electrons in an atom occupying the

99. If the wavelength of the first line of He+ ion in
same orbital are distinguished by Lyman series is x Å, then the wavelength of
magnetic quantum number the first line of Li2+ in Balmer series will be
(1) 2x Å
9

96. Minimum wavelength of emitted photon of (2) 12x

Å
Paschen series for H atom (RH : Rydberg 5

constant of hydrogen atom) is (3) 3 x Å

(1) 1 (4) x
RH
9
Å
(2) 3

RH

(3) 9 100. The ratio of the wavelength of the second

2RH line to that of the third line of Balmer series
(4) 9 of H-atom is
RH (1) 21 : 25
(2) 28 : 25
(3) 25 : 28
(4) 21 : 17

BOTANY

BOTANY

101. Disc shaped structure on the sides of 102. Lysosomes are rich in all of the given
centromere of each chromosome is called enzymes, except
(1) Secondary constriction (1) Lipases
(2) Kinetochore (2) Carbohydrases
(3) Primary constriction (3) Proteases
(4) Telomere (4) RuBisCO

12
REVISION TEST NO 2

103. The centromere is present very close to one 110. Inside the chloroplasts, enzymes for
end of the chromosome in synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins are
(1) Telocentric chromosome present in
(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome (1) Stroma
(3) Acrocentric chromosome (2) Lumen
(4) Metacentric chromosome (3) Grana
(4) Thylakoid
104. Chromatin contains
(a) DNA 111. The functions of cell organelles that are not
(b) Histone proteins included in endomembrane system are
(c) RNA a. Detoxification of drugs
(d) Non-histone proteins b. Carbon dioxide fixation.
(1) (a) & (b) only c. Splitting of water molecule.
d. Glycolipid formation
(2) (a), (b) & (d) only
(1) All a, b, c and d
(3) (a), (b) & (c) only
(2) Only a and b
(4) All (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(3) Only b, c and d
(4) Only b and c
105. Peripheral microtubules in flagella are
connected to each other through
(1) Radial spoke 112. Which of the following cell organelles is the
site of oxidative phosphorylation?
(2) Central sheath
(1) Chromosomes
(3) Interdoublet bridges
(2) Mitochondria
(4) Plasma membrane
(3) Plastids
(4) Nucleus
106. The two membranes enveloping
mitochondria differ from each other on the
basis of 113. Carotenoids containing plastids are
(1) Phospholipid : Protein ratio (1) Leucoplasts
(2) Cristae formation by outer membrane (2) Chromoplasts
(3) Types of enzymes associated with each (3) Aleuroplasts
membrane (4) Amyloplasts
(4) All except (2)
114. Centrioles are found in
107. Which of the following cell organelles has (1) All prokaryotic cells
enzymes which are optimally active at the (2) Higher plant cells
acidic pH?
(3) Animal cells and fungal cells
(1) Vacuoles
(4) Animal cells only
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Lysosomes
115. At maturity, mammalian RBCs lack
(4) Mitochondria
(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Proteins
108. In metacentric chromosome, the centromere
is located (3) Plasma membrane
(1) At the middle of chromosome (4) Nucleus
(2) Slightly away from the middle of
chromosome 116. In which of the given plants, elaioplast is
(3) Close to one end of chromosome found?
(4) At the end of the chromosome (1) Potato
(2) Castor
109. Nucleolus is (3) Rice
(1) A membrane bound structure in (4) Maize
nucleus
(2) A site for active ribosomal RNA
synthesis
(3) Large and many in number in cells
which are actively involved in lipid
synthesis
(4) Observed in mature sieve tubes

13
REVISION TEST NO 2

117. Primary constriction of a chromosome is 124. The cell structure that is involved in storage
known as as well as synthesis of fats is
(1) Centromere (1) SER
(2) Kinetochore (2) Sphaerosome
(3) Centrosome (3) Glyoxysome
(4) Satellite (4) Peroxisome

118. Which of the given is a starch containing 125. Carotenoids containing colored plastids are
colourless plastid?
(1) Aleuroplast (1) Chloroplasts
(2) Amyloplast (2) Chromoplasts
(3) Elaioplast (3) Aleuroplasts
(4) Chromoplast (4) Amyloplasts

119. Which of the following is not a circular DNA 126. In mitochondria, the enzymes and electron
molecule? carriers for the formation of ATP are present
(1) Plasmid DNA in
(2) Bacterial genomic DNA (1) Outer mitochondrial membrane
(3) Mitochondrial DNA (2) Mitochondrial matrix
(4) Eukaryotic genomic DNA (3) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(4) Inter-membrane space
120. Which one is odd w.r.t. functions of
microfilaments? 127. A membraneless cell organelle, which is
(1) Pseudopodia formation absent in the higher plant cells is
(2) Furrow formation during cell division (1) Ribosome
(3) Help in anaphasic movement of (2) Centriole
chromosomes (3) Nucleolus
(4) Involvement in cytoplasmic streaming (4) Lysosome

121. An element of cytoskeleton which involves in 128. Arrangement of microtubules is '9 + 0' in
the formation of scaffolds of chromatin is (1) Cilia
(1) Intermediate filaments (2) Flagella
(2) Microfilaments (3) Pili
(3) Microtubules (4) Centriole
(4) Centrioles
129. Which of the following is false about
122. Which of the given cell organelles is single lysosomes?
membrane bound and participates in (1) Single membrane bound organelle
photorespiration?
(2) Very rich in hydrolytic enzymes
(1) Chloroplast
(3) Enzymes optimally active at basic pH
(2) Mitochondria
(4) Formed by Golgi apparatus
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Vacuole
130. Motile bacteria are able to move with the
help of
123. Which of the given is not an essential (1) Pili
structure of all the chromosomes? (2) Fimbriae
(1) Telomere (3) Flagella
(2) Centromere (4) Cilia
(3) Satellite
(4) Chromatid
131. Ribosomal subunits remain united with each
other due to a specific concentration of
(1) Ca2+
(2) Mg2+
(3) Mn2+
(4) Fe3+

14
REVISION TEST NO 2

132. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t cell 134. In animal cells, steroidal hormones are
organelles and their function synthesised by
(1) SER- Lipid synthesis (1) RER
(2) RER- Detoxification of drugs (2) SER
(3) Golgi apparatus- Packaging of proteins (3) Ribosomes
(4) Lysosomes- Intracellular digestion (4) Golgi bodies

133. Basal body of cilia and flagella in eukaryotes 135. Cell organelle(s) having RNA is/are
is formed by (a) Nucleus
(1) Mesosomes (b) Mitochondria
(c) Chloroplast
(2) Centrioles
(d) Ribosomes
(3) Lysosomes
(1) (b) and (c) only
(4) Golgi apparatus (2) (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

BOTANY

136. One of the functions of a cell organelle that 139. Sometimes a few chromosomes have non-
is neither bound by any membrane nor staining secondary constrictions at a
found in prokaryotes is constant location, which gives appearance
(1) Formation of plasma membrane of a small fragment called
(2) Synthesizing lipids and steroids (1) Centromere
(3) Synthesizing enzymatic proteins (2) Satellite
(4) Formation of spindle fibres (3) Kinetochore
(4) Telomere
137. Read the statements stating true (T) or false
(F) and select the correct option. 140. Select the correct option stating true (T) and
(A) Elaioplasts store fats and oils false (F) w.r.t. ribosomes
(B) The orange colour of carrot is due to (A) Protein synthesis in eukaryotic cell
amyloplast occurs in the ribosomes of nucleus.
(C) Stroma of chloroplast contains enzyme (B) Ribosomes are the granular structures
required for synthesis of carbohydrates and first observed under the electron
proteins. microscope.
A B C (C) The sedimentation coefficient is indirect
measure of density and size.
(1) F T T (A) (B) (C)
(2) T T F (1) T T T
(3) T F T (2) F F F
(3) T F T
(4) T F F
(4) F T T
(1) (1)
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
(4) (4)

138. Eukaryotic cells possess/have

141. Mitochondria differ from chloroplasts in the
(1) An organised nucleus without
presence of
nucleolus
(1) Electron transport system
(2) Genetic material organised into
chromosomes and plasmids (2) ATP synthesis
(3) Centrioles in all plant cells (3) Enzymes for aerobic respiration
(4) A variety of complex locomotory and (4) Porin proteins in their membrane
cytoskeletal structures

15
REVISION TEST NO 2

142. Mitochondria and chloroplast, both are 146. Read the following statements carefully
considered as semi-autonomous cell A. Particles of Fernandez and Moran occur
organelles. How many of the given features in mitochondria.
is/are exclusive to mitochondria? B. High G ≡ C content is found in dsDNA of
(a) Presence of dsDNA chloroplast.
(b) Oxidation of carbohydrates C. Mitochondria are sausage-shaped
(c) Presence of ETS double membraned organelles that divide
(d) Surrounded by double membrane by fission.
(e) ATP synthesis (1) Only B is correct
(1) 2 (2) B & C are correct, but A is incorrect
(2) 3 (3) B & C are incorrect
(3) 1 (4) A, B & C are correct
(4) 4
147. Read the following statements.
143. Read the following statement and select a. Golgi apparatus is the important site of
correct option. formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
(A) Microfilaments are solid, unbranched b. Enzymes of lysosomes are optimally
rods of indefinite lengths. active at basic pH.
(B) Intermediate filaments are non- c. Plant vacuole is bound by a single
contractile, hollow filaments of acidic membrane called tonoplast.
proteins. d. Endoplasmic reticulum is involved in
(C) Microfilaments form scaffold for protein synthesis only
chromatin. The correct ones are
(D) Microtubules are present in bacterial cell (1) a and b
also.
(2) a and c
(1) A, B and D are correct
(3) b and d
(2) Only C and D are incorrect
(4) All except b
(3) B and D are incorrect
(4) Only A and D are correct
148. How many of the given statements is/are
true w.r.t matrix of mitochondria?
144. Identify the following statements as true(T) (a) Contains single circular dsDNA with low
or false(F) and select the option accordingly. G ≡ C content.
A. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are associated (b) Contains enzyme for tricarboxylic acid
with the plasma membrane of the cell cycle.
B. Several ribosomes on a single mRNA (c) 80S ribosomes are present
form a structure called polysome (d) Contains components required for
C. Polysome translates the protein into synthesis of protein.
mRNA (1) 1
A B C (2) 2
(1) T F T (3) 3
(4) 4
(2) F T T

(3) T T F
(4) T F F
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

145. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Centriole – Helps in the formation of
basal body of flagella
(2) Eukaryotic flagella – ‘9+0’ arrangement
of microtubules
(3) Smooth ER – Lipid synthesis
(4) Vacuole – Surrounded by tonoplast

16
REVISION TEST NO 2

149. Select incorrect statement for chromoplasts.

(1) Formed from leucoplasts or
chloroplasts
(2) Consists of fat insoluble pigments
carotene, xanthophylls and others.
(3) Imparts orange colour to carrot roots.
(4) Occur in ripened tomato and chilly
fruits.

150. Match the columns and select the correct

option.
Column I Column II
i. Aleuroplast (a) Rich in carotenoids
ii. Chromoplast (b) Store fats
Synthesis of
iii. Chloroplast (c)
carbohydrates
iv. Elaioplast (d) Store proteins
i ii iii iv
(1) (c) (a) (d) (b)
(2) (b) (d) (a) (c)
(3) (b) (c) (d) (a)
(4) (d) (a) (c) (b)
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

ZOOLOGY

ZOOLOGY

151. Triglycerides are made up of : 154. Monomer of the most abundant biomolecule
(1) 2 fatty acids + 2 glycerol molecules on earth is
(2) 3 fatty acids + 2 glycerol molecules (1) Glycine
(3) 3 fatty acids + 1 glycerol molecule (2) N-acetylglucosamine
(4) 1 fatty acid + 3 glycerol molecules (3) Glucose
(4) ATP
152. Concanavalin A is a type of secondary
metabolite categorized as a 155. ATP is a
(1) Lectin (1) Nucleotide
(2) Alkaloid (2) Nucleoside
(3) Drug (3) Purine
(4) Glucose transporter (4) Pyrimidine

153. During a particular enzymatic reaction the 156. Select a non-aromatic amino acid.
activity of succinate dehydrogenase is (1) Phenylalanine
inhibited by the addition of malonate.
(2) Alanine
This is a classic example of
(1) Allosteric inhibition (3) Tyrosine
(2) Positive feedback (4) Tryptophan
(3) Non-competitive inhibition
(4) Competitive inhibition

17
REVISION TEST NO 2

157. All of the following are examples of storage 164. Identify 'P' in equation given below
polysaccharides except 'P '

(1) Inulin Glucose-6-phosphate ⇌ Fructose-6-

phosphate
(2) Glycogen
(1) Dehydrogenase
(3) Starch
(2) PEP carboxylase
(4) Chitin
(3) Isomerase
(4) Aldolase
158. The simplest amino acid is
(1) Glutamic acid
165. A new amino acid in a polypeptide chain is
(2) Lysine added at :
(3) Valine (1) Left end of chain
(4) Glycine (2) 5' terminal of chain
(3) N terminal of chain
159. Cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme (4) C terminal of chain
carboxypeptidase is
(1) Zn2+
166. A living tissue is grinded with trichloroacetic
(2) Mg2+ acid. Mark the biomolecule which will be
(3) Ca2+ absent in acid insoluble fraction.
(1) Cytosine
(4) Mn2+
(2) Collagen
(3) Cholesterol
160. The percentage contribution of proteins in a (4) Chitin
human cell's weight is
(1) More than lipids
167. Following reaction is catalysed by which
(2) Less than nucleic acids category of enzymes?
(3) Less than carbohydrates X
(4) Less than 3 percent ⟶ X −Y +C = C
1

C −C
161. Choose the odd one w.r.t homopolymers
(1) Dehydrogenase
(1) Peptidoglycan
(2) Ligase
(2) Chitin
(3) Lyase
(3) Starch
(4) Hydrolase
(4) Cellulose

168. The most important form of energy currency

162. In double helix of DNA, the two DNA strands in living systems is the bond energy in a
are plectonemically coiled i.e. chemical called
(1) Coiled over protein sheath (1) DNA
(2) Coiled differently (2) RNA
(3) Coiled around each other (3) ATP
(4) Coiled around a common axis (4) GMP

163. Lipids are not strictly macromolecules 169. Among the following biomolecules, which is
because present in the retentate fraction?
(1) They are made up of fatty acid and (1) Glucose
alcohol
(2) ATP
(2) They have low molecular weight when
compared to polymers like starch, (3) Lipids
glycogen etc. (4) Glycine
(3) They are found in acid-soluble pool
(4) They have low melting point 170. Glycerol, present in phospholipids is
(1) Sphingosine
(2) Choline
(3) Sterol
(4) Trihydroxypropane

18
REVISION TEST NO 2

171. The correct sequence of the concentration of 178. N-acetylglucosamine : _______ :: Glucose :
cations inside the cell in decreasing order is Cellulose.
(1) K > Na > Ca Complete the analogy.
(2) Ca < K < Na (1) Starch
(3) Na > K > Ca (2) RuBisCO
(4) Ca > Na > K (3) Collagen
(4) Chitin
172. Upon attempting to overcome competitive
inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by 179. Choose the odd one w.r.t. nucleoside.
addition of more substrate (1) Adenosine
(1) Km value decreases (2) Guanosine
(2) Km value increases (3) Cytosine
(3) Vmax value decreases (4) Thymidine
(4) Km value remains unaffected
180. Which of the following bonds is not present
in a nucleotide ?
173. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option. (1) Ester bond
Statement-A : Living state is a non – (2) N-glycosidic bond
equilibrium steady state to be able to (3) Covalent bond
perform work.
(4) Phosphodiester bond
Statement-B : Living process is a constant
effort to reach equilibrium.
(1) Both statements are correct 181. The metabolic pathway from glucose to
(2) Both statements are incorrect lactic acid which occurs in 10 metabolic
steps is termed as
(3) Only statement A is correct
(1) Glycolysis
(4) Only statement B is correct
(2) Citric acid cycle
(3) Krebs cycle
174. Which of the following is a secondary
metabolite? (4) Electron transport chain
(1) Ricin
(2) ATP 182. The pentose sugar present in DNA is
(3) Amino acid (1) Ribose
(4) Glucose (2) Fructose
(3) Deoxyribose
175. Non-proteinaceous organic compound that (4) Galactose
is tightly bound to the proteinaceous portion
of enzyme is called 183. Which of the following biomolecules
(1) Apoenzyme possesses helical structure?
(2) Holoenzyme (1) Starch
(3) Co-enzyme (2) Cellulose
(4) Prosthetic group (3) Glucose
(4) Chitin
176. The molecular weight of lipids is
(1) More than 800 Da
(2) More than 10000 Da
(3) Less than 800 Da
(4) More than 8000 Da

177. Palmitic acid is a fatty acid with ___ carbon

atoms.
Select the correct option that fills the blank.
(1) 17
(2) 18
(3) 20
(4) 16

19
REVISION TEST NO 2

184. Mark the option which represents the

correct inference from the figures given
below.
$8

(1) A- Determines the specificity of

protein/enzyme action
(2) A- Tertiary structure is absolutely
necessary for many biological activities
of proteins
(3) B- The two strands of polypeptides are
antiparallel in alignment
(4) B- The monomers on the two opposite
strand interact through bonds formed
by addition of water.

185. % weight of A element is highest in

¯
¯¯¯¯¯
earth’s crust and B element is highest in
¯¯¯¯¯¯
human body respectively.
Choose the option that correctly fills the
blanks A and B respectively.
(1) O and C
(2) C and O
(3) O and O
(4) C and C

ZOOLOGY

186. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t type of 187. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
DNA. competitive enzyme inhibition.
Approximate (1) The inhibitor and substrate bind at
DNA different sites of the enzyme.
number of bp/turn
(2) At a sufficiently high substrate
(1) B-DNA – 10 concentration, the reaction velocity
reaches the Vmax.
(2) C-DNA – 9
(3) Sulpha drugs are competitive inhibitor
(3) D-DNA – 8 and competes with the substrate PABA
for the active site of enzyme.
(4) Z-DNA – 7
(4) A competitive inhibitor increases the
(1) (1) apparent Km for a given substrate.
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

20
REVISION TEST NO 2

188. Read the given statements carefully 192. At high temperature, enzymes become A
(i) Tetrapeptides have four peptide linkages. while at low temperature enzymes remain
(ii) Amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is in B state. Select the correct match for A
read left to right, beginning with the and B.
carboxyl-terminal end. (1) Inoperative , active
(iii) Isoelectric point is the characteristic pH
(2) Inactivated , active
at which net electric charge of a particular
amino acid is zero. (3) Denatured , inactive
(iv) Lysine and Arginine are basic amino (4) Inactivated , hyperactive
acids.
Considering the above statements, how
many are correct? 193. Select the correct match between column I
and column II.
(1) One
Column I Column II
(2) Three
(3) Two Storage
a. Cellulose (i)
homopolysaccharide
(4) Four
Structural
b. Chitin (ii)
homopolysaccharide
189. Identify the given biomolecule.
Branched polymer of
c. Inulin (iii)
glucose
Exoskeleton of
d. Glycogen (iv)
arthropods
(v) Cannot trap I2 molecules
Choose the correct option.
(1) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
Select the incorrect statement. (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) It is lecithin (3) a(v), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) It is a phospholipid found in cell (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
membranes
(3) It is insoluble in water 194. Single letter code for the aromatic amino
(4) It is formed by esterification of acid which acts as precursor for melanin is
trihydroxy propane with three fatty (1) E
acids (2) Y
(3) F
190. Find the correct match. (4) W
Column - I Column - II
(Biomolecule) (Bond) 195. A pair of heterocyclic amino acids is
a. Protein (i) Ester (1) Phenylalanine and tryptophan
(2) Histidine and arginine
b. Carbohydrate (ii) Phospho-ester
(3) Proline and histidine
c. Lipid (iii) Peptide (4) Hydroxyproline and tyrosine
d. Nucleic acid (iv) Glycosidic
196. Ribose sugar is not a part or component of
Phospho-
(v) (1) ATP
diester
(2) NAD
(1) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) NADP
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(v) (4) DNA
(3) a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(v)

191. How many of the compounds given in a box

below are proteins by nature?
Collagen, Trypsin, Insulin, Antibody,
Receptor, GLUT-4
(1) Four
(2) Six
(3) Five
(4) One

21
REVISION TEST NO 2

197. Match the following columns. 199. Which among the following does not hold
true for nucleic acids?
Column-I Column-II
(1) A nucleic acid containing ribose sugar
a. Phospholipids (i) Nucleoside is called RNA.
b. Myoglobin (ii) Lecithin (2) A nucleic acid containing 2-
c. Cellulose (iii) Prosthetic group deoxyribose sugar is called DNA.

d. Uridine (iv) Homopolysaccharide (3) They are polymer of nucleotides.

(4) A nucleotide has only two chemically
Tertiary structure of distinct components, nitrogenous base
e. Haem (v)
protein and sugar.
(1) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(i), e(iii)
(2) a(v), b(ii), c(i), d(iv), e(iii) 200. ‘Ramachandran Plot’ is used to confirm the
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(v), e(ii) structure of category of biomolecules
represented by
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii), e(v)
(1) Collagen
(2) Glycerol
198. Choose the correct statement
(3) DNA
(1) Prosthetic group is loosely bound to the
apoenzyme (4) Starch
(2) Catalytic activity is lost when the co-
factor is removed from the enzyme
(3) Coenzyme nicotinamide adenine
dinucleotide contains the vitamin
thiamine
(4) Calcium is a co-factor for the proteolytic
enzyme carboxypeptidase

22