Question Booklet Alpha Code: Ru o o D D e
Question Booklet Alpha Code: Ru o o D D e
Question Booklet Alpha Code: Ru o o D D e
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Total Number of Questions : 100 Time : 90 Minutes
INSTruCTIoNS To CANdIdATeS
1. The Question Paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four
versions of Question Booklets with Question Booklet Alpha Code viz. A, B, C & d.
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2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet
of the Question Booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position in
the Examination Hall.
4. If you get a Question Booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha
d code in the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator ImmEdIATEly.
5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your
Question Booklet is un-numbered, please get it replaced by new Question Booklet with same
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alpha code.
6. The Question Booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should
not open the Question Booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that
the Question Booklet supplied to him/her contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The
Question Booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should
bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha
code. This is most important.
8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the Question Booklet. This may be used for rough
work.
9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before
marking your answers.
10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (d) having one correct answer.
Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number
using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OmR Answer Sheet.
11. each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be
deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and
without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure
that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and
that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any
kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.
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2. long cast iron water supply and sewerage pipes are generally produced by
A) Centrifugal casting B) Sand casting
C) Permanent mould casting d) Ceramic moulding
7. The ability of a material to resist fracture due to shock and impact load.
A) Stiffness B) Toughness C) Brittleness d) Strength
10. The ratio of ultimate tensile stress to the working stress is called
A) Bulk modulus B) Poisson’s ratio
C) Factor of Safety d) modulus of rigidity
15. The pump suitable for small discharge and higher heads
A) Centrifugal pump B) Axial flow pump
C) Reciprocating pump D) Mixed flow pump
16. The delivery valve of a centrifugal pump is fully closed, the pressure of fluid inside
the pump will
A) Increase B) Reduce
C) Become zero d) Remain unaltered
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22. Which of the following device is used to conduct specific gravity test of a battery ?
A) Voltmeter B) Cadmium rod
C) Rotameter d) Hydrometer
24. The gear ratio between starting motor and flywheel is about
A) 5 : 1 B) 15 : 1 C) 25 : 1 d) 50 : 1
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26. In a 4 cylinder 4 stroke engine running at 3000 rpm, the number of sparks
produced per minute will be
A) 3000 B) 6000 C) 9000 d) 12000
28. The ratio between the number of turns in an induction coil primary and secondary
winding is about
A) 1 : 10 B) 1 : 50 C) 1 : 100 d) 1 : 200
29. The drive shaft in distributor is rotated at ___________ the engine speed in four
stroke engine.
A) Half B) Equal to
C) One and half time d) double
39. When a gear box has four forward speeds and one reverse speed, it is said to be a
A) 4-speed gear box B) 3-speed gear box
C) 6-speed gear box d) 5-speed gear box
41. In a torque converter, the oil leaving the turbine is changed into a helping direction
by curved
A) Pump vanes B) Turbine vanes C) Stator vanes d) None of these
43. On a diaphragm spring clutch, pressing down on the clutch pedal moves throw out
bearing in against the
A) diaphragm B) Release levers
C) Pressure plate d) Friction disc
45. The purpose of the guide ring in the fluid coupling is to reduce oil
A) movement between the members B) level in coupling
C) Turbulence d) None of these
46. Chassis is a strong steel frame which supports the body and engine
A) Incorrect B) With driving cab C) Correct d) With body
47. The three important types of chassis are, ladder chassis, backbone chassis, and
monocoque chassis
A) Correct B) Incorrect
C) Except ladder chassis d) Except backbone chassis
48. The basic automobile structure consists of the suspension system, wheels, frame and
A) lights B) Axles C) Steering d) Brakes
51. If the tractor was equipped with a swinging drawbar it could be set the center or
offset from center to allow the tractor
A) To run outside the path of the implement
B) To run inside the path of the implement
C) No action
d) None of the above
52. The flat drop carries the seed on a flat in the cell of the Plate, number of seed is
allowed in the cell at each time
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 d) 4
54. The cells round the edge of the plate are large enough to admit several seeds at a time
A) Flat drop B) Hill drop
C) Side drop d) None of the above
55. That power from one shaft can be transmitted to different metering units through
A) Counter shaft B) Chain drive
C) Belt drive d) None of the above
57. In seed drill the delivery rate of the seed is influenced by the forward speed, in
such cases speed has to be limited to
A) 6 km./h B) 7 km./h C) 8 km./h d) 9 km./h
60. Conventional cranes are used for drop weights of up to and drop height below
A) 20 tons and below 100 ft B) 30 tons and below 100 ft
C) 40 tons and below 75 ft d) 50 tons and below 75 ft
62. The maximum pressure that a power steering pump can produce is
A) 2500 psi B) 2000 psi
C) 1500 psi d) 1000 psi
66. In a master cylinder when the brakes are not applied, fluid flows through ________
ports to fill the high pressure chamber ahead of each piston
A) Replenishing port B) Vent port
C) Both A and B d) None of the above
68. master cylinder have flexible diaphragms that covers the reservoirs to
A) Brake fluid from spilling out
B) Air from contacting fluid
C) A vacuum from forming in the hydraulic system
d) Vapour from forming in the hydraulic system
69. What is the approximate percentage of braking force from the secondary shoe, in
a servo type brake ?
A) 68% B) 82% C) 75% d) 60%
70. In a disc brake the brake pad linings wear the caliper piston moves
A) Inward B) Outward
C) No change d) None of the above
71. In respect of routes where fare stages the distance between two stages will be taken
generally as for Ordinary/mofussil/City/City Fast Passenger/Town Services is
A) 1.5 kilometers B) 2.5 kilometers
C) 3.5 kilometers d) 4.5 kilometers
72. In respect of services operated in connection with the festival occasions the fare
rate is increased in fixed rate is
A) 20% B) 25% C) 30% d) 40%
73. As per the Kerala State motor Vehicle Act a driver shall not cause or allow any person,
animal or thing to be placed or to be in the space reserved for the driver’s seat in
accordance with Rule
A) 271(1) B) 273(2) C) 274(2) d) 275(1)
74. In the trolleybus in order to avoid damage to the power transmission gear,
________ braking is used.
A) Regenerative braking B) Plugging type braking
C) dynamic braking d) Stabilized rheostatic braking
75. In lRT, use of low axle load of ___________ compared to 17 tonnes of metro rail
saves operating cost.
A) 10 tonnes B) 11 tonnes
C) 12 tonnes d) 14 tonnes
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76. For establishing the best bus routes and services for a urban area entails an
examination of
A) past systems B) the current system
C) potential needs for future service d) All the above
77. As per Road Regulation of 1989, a duty of the driver to slow down vehicle when
approaching a pedestrian or zebra crossing comes under
A) Rule 6 B) Rule 7
C) Rule 8 d) Rule 9
78. As per the accessibility guidelines for bus terminals and bus stops, Wheelchair
bay should be minimum of __________ in the bus stop design.
A) 700 mm B) 800 mm
C) 900 mm d) 1000 mm
80. The intermediate sight distance is provided to give limited overtaking opportunities
to fast vehicle
A) 1.5 times of stopping distance
B) 2 times of stopping distance
C) 2.5 times of stopping distance
d) 3 times of stopping distance
81. When drag or spin occurs in a clutch assembly, the following are the causes
involved
i) Broken driven-plate or friction lining.
ii) misalignment of the engine to the gear box, caused by incorrect assembly of
the bell-housing to the engine.
iii) Oil or greases on the driven-plate faces.
A) Only (i & ii) B) Only (ii & iii)
C) Only (i & iii) d) All the above (i, ii & iii)
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82. The formula used to determine the value of pressure expected from the cylinder
during the compression stroke.
A) Compression Pressure = atmospheric pressure times the compression ratio
plus atmospheric pressure plus 96 kPa
B) Compression Pressure = atmospheric pressure times the compression ratio
plus atmospheric pressure plus 69 kPa
C) Compression Pressure = atmospheric pressure times the compression ratio
minus atmospheric pressure minus 69 kPa
d) Compression Pressure = atmospheric pressure times the compression ratio
minus atmospheric pressure minus 96 kPa
83. To calculate the bobweight of a crankshaft while balancing, the formula used is
equal to
A) 100% of the rotating weight + 50% of the reciprocating weight
B) 50% of the rotating weight + 100% of the reciprocating weight
C) 100% of the reciprocating weight + 60% of the rotating weight
d) 60% of the reciprocating weight + 100% of the rotating weight
84. Possible causes of abnormal or excessive engine cylinder liner wear are
i) due to friction and corrosion
ii) Abrasion
iii) Scuffing or Adhesion
iv) Excessive heat
A) Only (i & ii) B) Only (iii & iv)
C) Only (i, ii & iii) d) All the above (i, ii, iii & iv)
87. The presence of air in the hydraulic braking system because the brakes are not
able to function properly is called as
A) Brakes noise B) Braking less
C) Burning smells d) Spongy brake
89. The commonly accepted rule for bearing clearance that most crankshaft
manufacturers prefer for street and performance engines is
A) 0.010 inch for every 1-inch of journal diameter
B) 0.0010 inch for every 1-inch of journal diameter
C) 0.00010 inch for every 1-inch of journal diameter
d) 0.0020 inch for every 1-inch of journal diameter
90. Technician A says a vehicle with torsion bar suspension can be adjusted to repair
ride height. Technician B says to take measurements before and after adjustments
are performed. Who is correct ?
A) Technician A B) Technician B
C) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B
92. The inputs used in electrically controlled diesel fuel injection system are
A) engine speed
B) accelerator pedal position
C) crankshaft position
d) combination of engine speed, accelerator pedal position and crankshaft position
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94. The Supreme Court has banned the sale and registration of motor vehicles, conforming
to the emission standard Bharat Stage IV in the entire country from 1st April
A) 2018 B) 2019 C) 2020 d) 2021
98. ____________ refrigerant is chlorine free and less destructive to the ozone layer
with a small impact on global warming.
A) R-125 B) R-123 C) R-22 d) R-115
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