1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Application of Thermodynamics
VCRS DPP 01

1. The horse power of the motor running the compressor 1000 K. If both the refrigerators have the same
of a refrigerator having COP 4.5 and extracting 200 C.O.P., then the temperature T of the body is
kJ/kg of evaporating heat with 1.5 kg min–1 ________K (round off to two decimal places).
refrigerant flow rate is [MCQ] [NAT]

(a) 0.5 (b) 1

7. The capacity of a refrigerator is 200 TR when
(c) 1.5 (d) 2
working between –6°C 25°C. The mass of ice
produced per day from water at 25°C is _______
2. A reversed Carnot cycle works between temperatures tonnes (round off to two decimal places). Assume that
of 270K and 330K. What is the heat rejected by the cycle operates on reversed Carnot cycle and latent
device per minute if work done in compressor is 200 heat of ice 335 kJ/kg. [NAT]
kJ/min? [MCQ]
(a) 570 kJ (b) 853 kJ 8. A cold storage is to be maintained at –5°C while the
(c) 1100 kJ (d) 912 kJ surroundings are at 27°C. The heat leakage from the
surroundings into the cold storage is estimated to be
29 kW. The actual C.O.P. of the refrigeration plant is
3. A reversed Carnot cycle used for chiller plant works one-third of an ideal plant working between the same
between –33°C and 27°C when it is winter. If the temperature. The power required to drive the plant is
plant produces 10 tonne of ice per hour in winter, then ______kW (round off to two decimal places).
what is the amount of ice produced in summer when [NAT]
environment temperature increases by 10 degrees?
[MCQ] 9. A refrigerant used in vapor compression refrigeration
(a) 8.57 tonne has enthalpy at exit of capillary tube as 135 kJ/kg. If
(b) 5.64 tonne the refrigerant was completely liquid when it enters
(c) 11.00 tonne the expander, then the mass fraction of refrigerant
(d) 9.12 tonne converted to vapour when hf = 90 kJ/kg and latent
heat of vaporization is 350 kJ/kg is ______% (round
4. A 2-ton refrigeration unit is used in a refrigerator. If off to two decimal places). [NAT]
the ratio of minimum to maximum temperature in the
cycle is 0.8, then the compressor work if actual COP 10. In an idealized Carnot vapor refrigeration cycle,
of cycle is 60% of ideal cycle is ______ kW (round refrigerant is used as the working fluid. The
off to two decimal places). [NAT] refrigerant enters the condenser as saturated vapor at
28°C and leaves as saturated liquid. The evaporator
5. A VCR cycle rejects 500kJ of heat per minute. The operates at a temperature of –10°C. The
amount of ice produced at 0°C from water at 30°C if thermodynamic properties of Refrigerant is given in
COP of refrigerator is 1.5, is ______kg/min (round table. [MSQ]
off to two decimal places). Latent heat of fusion water Pressure Tsat Enthalpy Entropy
is 334 kJ/kg. Take C of water as 4.2 kJ/kg [NAT] (kPa) (kJ/g) (kJ/kg K)
hf hg sf sg
6. Two refrigerators A and B operate in series. The 200.74 -10 40 200 0.15 0.9
refrigerator A absorbs energy at the rate of 1kJ/s from
a body at temperature 300 K and rejects energy as 727.31 28 90 270 0.30 0.8
heat to a body at temperature T. The refrigerator B
absorbs the same quantity of energy which is rejected Which of the following options is/are correct?
by the refrigerator A from the body at temperature T,
and rejects energy as heat to a body at temperature
 2

(a) The work input to the compressor is 91.44 kJ/kg. (c) The work input to the compressor is 80 kJ/kg.
(b) The work developed by the turbine is 18 kJ/kg. (d) The work developed by the turbine is 14.80 kJ/kg.

Answer Key
1. (c) 6. 547.7 (545.0 to 550.0)
2. (c) 7. 13.745 (13.5 to 14.0)
3. (a) 8. 10.4 (10.0 to 11.0)
4. 2.92 (2.80 to 3.00) 9. 12.5 (12.0 to 13.0)
5. 0.65 (0.60 to 0.70) 10. (a, b)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Application of Thermodynamics
VCRS DPP 02

1. The compressor work in a refrigerating machine

having a throttle valve is 20 kJ/kg. By using an 6. In a cascade refrigeration cycle two refrigerator are
expander, the increase in net refrigerating effect is 4 working in series with COP 5 and 3. If this
kJ/kg. The percentage change in work is _____% refrigerator is running by a Carnot engine having
(round off to two decimal places). [NAT] temperature limit 600 K and 300 K and heat supplied
to the Carnot engine is 2 kW, the refrigeration effect
is ______kW (round off to two decimal places).
2. In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, heating, [NAT]
cooling and refrigeration take place at the
temperatures of 100oC, 20oC and -5oC respectively. 7. A vapour absorption refrigeration system works with
What is the maximum C.O.P of the system? [MCQ] generator, ambient and evaporator temperature as 360
K, 310 K and 260 K respectively. If the evaporator
(a) 1.6 (b) 4.0 temperature falls to 240 K, the generator temperature
(c) 2.3 (d) 4.6 in order to operate the system with same COP is
______ Kelvin (round off to two decimal places).
3. Working under pressure limits of 10 bar & 0.1 bar. if [NAT]
the refrigerant has following properties
hf hg sf sg 8. In a vapor compression refrigerating system the mass
10 bars 150 kJ/kg 450 kJ/kg 500 kJ/kg 40oC flow rate of refrigerant is 1000 kg/hr and specific
volume at inlet to compressor is 0.1 m3/kg and if
0.1 bar 50 kJ/kg 350 kJ/kg 500 kJ/kg -10oC volumetric efficiency is 80%, the compressor
displacement in m3/min is _______ (round off to two
Find COP and RE (in kJ/kg) if the Refrigerant enters decimal places). [NAT]
condenser at 70°C and 10 bars. [MCQ]
(a) 150, 1.33 9. A vapour compression refrigerator uses methyl
(b) 1.33, 200 chloride (R-40) and operates between temperature
(c) 1.5, 150 limits of -10oC and 45oC. At entry to the compressor,
(d) 1.5, 200 the refrigerant is dry saturated and after compression
it acquires a temperature of 60oC. The C.O.P. of the
4. In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, the refrigerator is _______ (round off to two decimal
refrigeration temperature is – 15oC. The generation is places). The relevant properties of methyl chloride
operated by solar heat where the temperature reached are as follows:
is 110oC. The temperature of surrounding where heat Saturation Enthalpy Entropy
rejected is 55oC. The maximum COP of the system is temperature (kJ/g) (kJ/kg K)
[MCQ] in 0oC Liquid Vapour Liquid Vapour
(a) 0.66 (b) 0.57 -10 45.4 460.7 0.183 1.637
(c) 0.53 (d) 0.46
45 133.0 483.6 0.485 1.587

5. A solar refrigeration system works with generator Let cp of R-40 = 0.5 kJ/kg-K. [NAT]
temp of 77°C. The condenser and absorber are at
same temp of 27°C. If the Evaporator is at -3°C then
percentage reduction in refrigerating effect if 10. 28 tonnes of ice from and at 0oC is produced per day
surrounding temperature increases by 10 °C is in an ammonia refrigerator. The temperature range in
_______% (round off to two decimal places). the compressor is from 25oC to -15oC. The vapour is
[NAT] dry and saturated at the end of compression and an
expansion valve is used. There is no liquid
 2

subcooling. Assuming actual C.O.P. of 62% of the

theoretical, the power required to drive the
compressor is _________kW (round off to two
decimal places). Take latent heat of ice = 335 kJ/kg.
Following properties of ammonia are given:
[NAT]
Temperature Enthalpy Entropy
0 oC (kJ/g) (kJ/kg K)
Liquid Vapour Liquid Vapour
25 298.9 1465.84 1.1242 5.0391

-15 112.34 1426.54 0.4572 5.5490

 3

Answer Key
1. 20.00 (19.00 to 21.00) 6. 1.67 (1.50 to 2.00)
2. (c) 7. 380.20 (375.00 to 385.00)
3. (b) 8. 2.08 (1.90 to 2.10)
4. (c) 9. 10.98 (10.50 to 11.50)
5. 39.70 (39.50 to 40.00) 10. 18.60 (18.00 to 19.00)

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 GATE

Mechanical Engineering (Hinglish)

DPP: 1
Applied Thermodynamics
Gas Refrigeration

Q 1 A good refrigerant should have which of the following Q 7 The chemical name of Freon 22 is
properties. (A) CCl3F (B) CH3Cl
(A) High latent heat of vaporization (C) CHClF2 (D) CCl2F2
(B) Lower specific heat
(C) High critical temperature Q 8 Match List-I (Refrigerant) with List-2 (Uses) and
(D) Low specific volume select the correct answer using the code given below
the list- II
Q 2 Which of the following is/are true disadvantage(s) of
List – I List – II
Bell-Coleman cycle (A) Direct contact
(i) R-22
(A) Low COP (B) High running cost freezing of foods
(C) Small system size (D) More chances of (ii) R – 134a (B) Cold storage plants
frosting at expander (iii) NH3 (C) Windows AC
(D) Domestic
(iv) Brine
Q 3 The chemical formula of R-134 is Refrigerator
(A) CHClF2 (B) C2Cl3F3 (v) CO2 (E) Milk chilling plants
(A) i-D, ii-C, iii-B, iv-E, v-A
(C) C2Cl2F4 (D) C2H2F4
(B) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-E, v-B
Q 4 A Bell Coleman cycle works under pressure ratio of (C) i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv-E, v-A
10. The refrigerating effect when air enters (D) i-D, ii-C, iii-A, iv-E, v-B
compressor at 300K and air is cooled by 40 degrees in
Q 9 Which of the following statements is/are true:
condenser is _______ kJ/kg (round off to one decimal
(A) An automatic expansion valve maintains a
place).
constant pressure in the condenser.
Q 5 A Bell Coleman cycle works under pressure ratio of (B) An automatic expansion valve maintains a
10. Air enters compressor at 300 K and air is cooled constant pressure in evaporator.
by 40 degrees in condenser. The change in COP if air (C) In an automatic expansion valve the mass flow
is superheated in the evaporator by 10 degrees rate of refrigerant increases as refrigeration load
________%. increases.
(D) Automatic expansion valve-based systems are
Q 6 Which of the following is true for Refrigerants. critically charged.
(A) In Room Air-Conditioner refrigerant is CHCIF2
Q 10 The subcooling in a vapour compression refrigeration
(mono-chloro - difluoro methane), also called
system can be achieved by which of the following
Freon 22 or R22.
methods.
(B) In the Domestic Refrigerator refrigerant is R12,
(A) Circulating more quantity of cooling water
CCl2F2 (dicholoro - difluoro methane)
through condenser.
(C) Freons are responsible for the depletion of the
(B) Using water colder than the main circulating
ozone layer by chlorine atoms in the upper
water.
atmosphere (stratosphere).
(C) Employing a heat exchanger
(D) All of these
(D) Any one of the above.
 Answer Key
Q1 A,B,C,D Q6 D
Q2 A,B Q7 C
Q3 D Q8 C
Q4 20.5~21 Q9 B,C
Q5 0~0 Q10 D

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Applications of Thermodynamics
DPP-01
Refrigerants
1. [MSQ] (b) In the Domestic Refrigerator refrigerant is R12,
A good refrigerant should have which of the following CCl2F2 (dicholoro - difluoro methane)
properties. (c) Freons are responsible for the depletion of the
(a) High latent heat of vaporization ozone layer by chlorine atoms in the upper
(b) Lower specific heat atmosphere (stratosphere).
(c) High critical temperature (d) All of these
(d) Low specific volume 7. [MCQ]
The chemical name of Freon 22 is
2. [MSQ] (a) CCl3F (b) CH3Cl
Which of the following is/are true disadvantage(s) of (c) CHClF2 (d) CCl2F2
Bell-Coleman cycle
(a) Low COP 8. [MCQ]
(b) High running cost Match List-I (Refrigerant) with List-2 (Uses) and
(c) Small system size select the correct answer using the code given below
(d) More chances of frosting at expander the list- II
List – I List – II
3. [MCQ] (i) R-22 (A) Direct contact freezing of
The chemical formula of R-134 is foods
(a) CHClF2 (b) C2Cl3F3 (ii) R – 134a (B) Cold storage plants
(c) C2Cl2F4 (d) C2H2F4 (iii) NH3 (C) Windows AC
(iv) Brine (D) Domestic Refrigerator
4. [NAT] (v) CO2 (E) Milk chilling plants
A Bell Coleman cycle works under pressure ratio of 10. (a) i-D, ii-C, iii-B, iv-E, v-A
The refrigerating effect when air enters compressor at (b) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-E, v-B
300K and air is cooled by 40 degrees in condenser is (c) i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv-E, v-A
_______ kJ/kg. (d) i-D, ii-C, iii-A, iv-E, v-B

5. [NAT] 9. [MSQ]
A Bell Coleman cycle works under pressure ratio of 10. Which of the following statements is/are true:
Air enters compressor at 300 K and air is cooled by 40 (A) An automatic expansion valve maintains a
degrees in condenser. The change in COP if air is constant pressure in the condenser.
superheated in the evaporator by 10 degrees (B) An automatic expansion valve maintains a
________%. constant pressure in evaporator.
(C) In an automatic expansion valve the mass flow
6. [MCQ] rate of refrigerant increases as refrigeration load
Which of the following is true for Refrigerants. increases.
(a) In Room Air-Conditioner refrigerant is CHCIF2 (D) Automatic expansion valve-based systems are
critically charged.
(mono-chloro - difluoro methane), also called
Freon 22 or R22.
 2

10. [MCQ]
The subcooling in a vapour compression refrigeration
system can be achieved by which of the following
methods.
(a) Circulating more quantity of cooling water
through condenser.
(b) Using water colder than the main circulating
water.
(c) Employing a heat exchanger
(d) Any one of the above.

❑❑❑
 3

Answer Key
1. (a, b, c, d) 6. (d)
2. (a, b) 7. (c)
3. (d) 8. (c)
4. 20.8 (20.5 to 21.0) 9. (b, c)
5. 0 (0 to 0) 10. (d)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Applications of Thermodynamics
DPP-01
Psychrometry
1. [MCQ] the total pressure is 90 kPa is ______(round off to two
Which of the following will actually tell the amount of decimal places).
water vapour in air?
(a) Specific humidity 6. [NAT]
(b) Relative humidity 5 kg of moist air with specific humidity of 0.025 mixes
(c) Degree of saturation with 10 kg of dry air. The result mixture will have
specific humidity of ________gm/kg of d.a. (round off
(d) None
to two decimal places).

2. [MCQ] 7. [MCQ]
What is the relative humidity in the atmospheric air There is a room which contains 30 kg of dry air and 0.6
having specific humidity of 16 gm/kg of air and 25℃ kg of water vapour. The total pressure and temperature
DBT. Pvs at 25℃ is 0.03098 bar. of air in the room are 100 kPa and 25°C respectively.
(a) 82% (Pvs = 3.17 KPa; at 25 °C for water) What is the relative
(b) 78% humidity of the air in the room (in percentage)?
(c) 90% (a) 96.25
(d) 68% (b) 97.53
(c) 98.27
3. [NAT] (d) 100
Air at atmospheric condition of 100kPa and 25°C has
25g of water present per kg of Moist air. The relative 8. [MCQ]
humidity of air if saturation pressure at 25°C is 4 kPa A room is occupied by an air-water vapour mixture at
is _______% (round off to two decimal places). 38°C (Ps = 0.06624 bar). The atmosphere pressure is 1
bar and relative humidity is 72%. The humidity ratio is
4. [MCQ] ________ g/kg of dry air.
A room contains air at 20°C and 98 kPa at a relative (a) 0.03115 (b) 31.15
humidity of 85 percent. If the saturation pressure at (c) 0.3115 (d) 3.115
20°C is 2.3392 kPa and h = 2537.4 kJ/kg, what will be
the partial pressure of dry air and the enthalpy per unit
mass of dry air? 9. [NAT]
(a) 96.01 kPa, 52.83 kJ/kg The atmospheric air at 15° C with density 1 kg/m3 and
(b) 124.8 kPa, 68.68 kJ/kg 1 bar pressure has 80% relative humidity is supplied to
(c) 76.81 kPa, 42.26 kJ/kg the heating chamber at the rate of 100 m³/min. The
(d) 53.76 kPa, 32.58 kJ/kg
leaving air has a temperature of 22° C without change
5. [NAT] in its moisture contents. The heat added to the air is
A moist air sample has dry bulb temperature of 30°C ________kJ/min (round off to nearest integer).
and specific humidity of 12 g water vapour per kg dry
air. The degree of saturation (in %) of air sample, if the
saturation vapour pressure of water at 30℃ is 5 kPa and
 2

10. [NAT] mixture) in the room air is _______ (round off to one
A metallic water container which contains water at decimal place).
room temperature, is cooled slowly by adding ice.
When temperature of the container reaches 12.8°C
(corresponding vapour pressure 1.479 kN/m²),
moisture from the room begins to condense on the
container. If barometric pressure of room is 1.01325
bar, then the parts by mass of water vapour (gm w.v/kg

❑❑❑
 3

Answer Key
1. (a) 6. 8.19 (8.00 to 8.50)
2. (a) 7. (c)
3. 98.97 (98.50 to 99.50) 8. (b)
4. (a) 9. 715 (700 to 725)
5. 34.07 (33.5 to 34.5) 10. 9.2 (8.5 to 9.5)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Applications of Thermodynamics
DPP-01
IC Engine Cycles
1. [MCQ] volume is 196.3 cc and the heat rejected is 1000 kJ/kg,
A four-stroke engine completes one cycle in the work output per kg of air is ______kJ (round off to
(a) 4 revolutions of crankshaft one decimal place).
(b) 2 revolutions of crankshaft
(c) 1 revolution of crankshaft 6. [MCQ]
(d) 3 revolutions of crankshaft In an otto engine during compression process, pressure
1
is seen to be 150kPa at 8 th of stroke and 1.50 MPa at
2. [MSQ] 7
8
th of stroke. What is the efficiency of this engine?
Choose the correct option(s) from below.
(a) 42.5% (b) 54.3%
(a) For the same speed, the number of power strokes
(c) 69.8% (d) 48.4%
in 4-stroke engine is twice that of 2-stroke engine.
(b) lighter flywheel is used in 2-stroke engines than
7. [NAT]
4-stroke engine
The compression ratio of the air-standard Otto cycle is
(c) In 2-stroke engines, ports are operated by piston
8. The initial conditions of air at the beginning of the
movement
compression stroke are 300K and 0.1 MPa. The
(d) 2-stroke engines are lighter in weight than 4-
amount of energy added during the combustion process
stroke engines
is 29 kJ/mol. The work done per kg of air is
_________kJ (round off to one decimal place).
3. [MSQ]
In an ideal diesel cycle, the clearance volume is 10
8. [NAT]
percent of stroke and cut-off takes place at 5 percent of
The percentage loss in the ideal efficiency of a diesel
stroke. Based on above data which of the following
engine with compression ratio 14 if the fuel cut-off is
options is/are correct?
delayed from 5% to 8%, is ______% (round off to two
(a) the compression ratio is 10
decimal places).
(b) the compression ratio is 11
(c) cut-off ratio is 2.0 9. [NAT]
(d) cut-off ratio is 1.5 In a diesel engine with variable compression ratio, the
initial compression ratio is 16 : 1. The ratio of specific
4. [NAT] heats is 1.4. For the same cut-off ratio of 4.0, if the
The maximum pressure and temperature in air standard compression ratio is increased by 25 %, the increase in
Diesel cycle are 44 bar and 1600 K respectively. If the
air standard thermal efficiency of the engine will be
minimum pressure and temperature are 1 bar and 300
K then the fuel cut-off ratio is _______(round off to _______% (round off to two decimal places).
one decimal place).

5. [NAT]
An engine working on air standard Otto cycle has a
cylinder diameter of 10 cm and stroke length of 15 cm.
The ratio of specific heats for air is 1.4. If the clearance
 2

10. [MCQ]
A two-stroke square ratio engine runs with speed of
3000 rpm and fuel consumption of 5 litres/hr. The fuel
has specific gravity of 0.7 and air-fuel ratio is 19. The
mean piston speed is 600 m/min. The ambient
conditions are 1.013 bar, 15oC. What is the volumetric
efficiency considering R for gas = 0.287 kJ/kg-K?
(a) 38.4% (b) 26.4%
(c) 51.6% (d) 42.0%
❑❑❑
 3

Answer Key
1. (b) 6. (c)
2. (b, c, d) 7. 564.7 (550 to 600)
3. (b, d) 8. 3.27 (3.00 to 3.50)
4. 1.8 (1.5 to 2.0) 9. 7.73 (7.50 to 8.00)
5. 1169.2 (1150 to 1190) 10. (a)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Applications of Thermodynamics DPP-01
IC Engine Performance
1. [MCQ]
For the same values of peak pressure, peak temperature 6. [MCQ]
and heat rejection, the correct order of efficiencies for Air rate used in an engine is 20 times of the fuel by
Otto, Duel and Diesel cycle is mass. What is the mean effective pressure if volumetric
efficiency is 90% and indicated thermal efficiency is
(a) Otto >  Dual >  Diesel 30%? The calorific value of the given fuel is 40MJ/kg.
(b) Diesel > Dual > Otto Density of air is 1kg/m3.
(a) 568 kPa (b) 485 kPa
(c) Dual > Diesel > Otto
(c) 460 kPa (d) 540 kPa
(d) Diesel > Otto > Dual
7. [NAT]
2. [NAT] A diesel engine develops brake power of 5kW. Its
The stroke length of 4-stroke engine having 4 cylinders indicated thermal efficiency is 30% and mechanical
if engine develops indicated power of 200KW at efficiency is 80%. The percentage change in mileage if
200rpm is _____cm. The stroke length is 1.5 of bore load is increased by 50% is ______%. Assume
and indicated mean effective pressure is 6 bar. calorific value to be 40MJ/kg.

3. [NAT] 8. [MCQ]
The mean effective pressure of an Otto cycle is 1MPa. A four-cylinder diesel engine of 4-stroke type has
The displacement of the engine is 1 liter with 3 stroke to bore ratio as 1.2 and the cylinder diameter is
cylinders. If the engine is operated for 2-stroke cycle at 12 cm. What is the indicated power of the engine?
4000 rpm then the indicated power developed by Indicator card shows the diagram having area of 30
engine is _______kW. cm2. Indicator spring constant is 10 bar/cm and engine
is running at 2000 rpm. Length of indicator diagram is
4. [MCQ] 6 cm.
In a Dual combustion cycle working on compression (a) 396 kW (b) 451 kW
ratio 14 and P1 and V1 are initial pressure and volume (c) 542 kW (d) 483 kW
respectively.
Isentropic work of compression = 4P1V1 9. [NAT]
Constant pressure work during fuel supply = 2P1V1 An eight-cylinder diesel engine of two stroke type has
Isentropic work of expansion = 16P1V1 specific fuel consumption of 0.25 kg/kWh. The brake
The mean effective pressure is
mean effective pressure of each cylinder is 1.5 MPa
(a) 196 P1 (b) 15.07 P1
(c) 10.14 P1 (d) 13 P1 and engine run at 100 rpm. The bore and stroke of
cylinder are 85 cm and 220 cm respectively. The fuel
5. [MCQ] consumption rate is ______kg/s.
What is the brake mean effective pressure of a four-
cylinder, two-stroke engine of 100 mm bore, 125 mm
stroke, when it develops a torque of 490 Nm?
(a) 548.5 kPa (b) 784.6 kPa
(c) 514.5 kPa (d) 484.3 kPa
 2

10. [MSQ]
The brake fuel conversion efficiency of an engine is
30%. The mechanical and combustion efficiencies are
80% and 94%, respectively. The heat losses to the oil
and coolant are 60 kW. If the chemical energy of the
fuel entering the engine is 200 kW then which of the
following is/are correct options(s)?
(a) 30% of this energy becomes brake power
(b) 7.5% of this energy becomes friction power
(c) 30% of this energy becomes heat losses
(d) 6% of this energy becomes exhaust chemical
energy
❑❑❑
 3

Answer Key
1. (b) 6. (d)
2. 52.33 (52.00 to 53.00) 7. 33 (30 to 35)
3. 200 (195 to 205) 8. (c)
4. (b) 9. 1.73 (1.50 to 2.00)
5. (b) 10. (a, b, c, d)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Applications of Thermodynamics
DPP-02
IC Engine Performance
1. [MCQ] reducing the fuel supply by 25%, is ______N-m (round
What is the octane number of a fuel if a fuel mixture off to nearest integer). Frictional power of engine is
contains 30gm of iso-octane and 5 gm of n-Heptane. 2kW.
(a) 56.52 6. [MCQ]
(b) 85.71 44 kg of C3H8 is burnt with air (Mol. Wt. = 29) to
(c) 80.42 produce 44 kg of CO2 and remaining CO. What is the
approximate amount of air used in the combustion?
(d) 75.00
(a) 56 kg (b) 220 kg
(c) 423 kg (d) 550 kg
2. [NAT]
In a Morse test on 3 cylinders, 2- stroke engine SI 7. [NAT]
engine, the brake power is 10 kW and the BHP of A fuel containing 47% C, 42% Hydrogen, 10% oxygen
individual cylinder with spark cut-off are 6.0KW, and 2% Sulphur by weight is burnt in presence of Air.
5.9KW, and 5.95KW respectively. The mechanical If the mass of fuel is 1 kg then the mass of air required
efficiency of the engine is _____% (round off to one so that Sulphur produces SO2 , is _____kg (round off
decimal place). to one decimal place).

3. [NAT] 8. [NAT]
A rope dynamometer is used to measure power of an 1kg of fuel consisting of a mixture of 50% methane and
IC engine. If the rope is wrapped by 2 turns on the 50% hydrogen by volume is burnt in presence of
dynamometer shaft, then the power developed by oxygen. The amount of oxygen required for complete
engine when tension in the slack and tight side of rope combustion is _____kg (round off to two decimal
is 50 and 500N, is ______kW (round off to one decimal places).
place). The drum radius is 0.5 m and engine rotate at
3000 RPM 9. [NAT]
The Willan’s line measured for a four-stroke, four-
4. [MCQ]
cylinder is expressed as: FC = 0.4 + 0.1  BP, Where
A motoring test was performed on engine to calculate
frictional power of engine. If the motor consumes FC is the rate of fuel consumption in gm/s and BP is
10A of current at potential difference of 220V what is the brake power in kW. If the engine consumes 1 gm/s
the frictional power? Assume motor has 80%
of fuel, then the indicated thermal efficiency is
efficiency.
(a) 1.76 kW (b) 2.20 kW _______% (round off to nearest integer). Take CV of
(c) 1.53 kW (d) 2.00 kW fuel = 40MJ/kg.

5. [NAT] 10. [MSQ]

A brake dynamometer is used to measure power During trial of four stroke single cylinder engine the
developed by engine. It measures a torque of 500N-m load on dynamometer is found 20 kg at radius of 50
at engine speed of 900 RPM. The torque measured by cm. The speed of rotation is 3000 rpm. The bore and
this dynamo if engine speed is dropped to 600 RPM on stroke are 20 cm and 30cm respectively. Fuel is
 2

supplied at the rate of 0.15 kg/min. The calorific value

of fuel may be taken as 43 MJ/kg. After some time, the
fuel supply is cut and the engine is rotated with motor
which required 5 kW to maintain the same speed of
rotation of engine.
Based on above data, which of the following options
is/are correct?
(a) The mechanical efficiency is 86%
(b) The mechanical efficiency is 77%
(c) The bsfc is 0.15
(d) The bsfc is 0.29
❑❑❑
 3

Answer Key
1. (b) 6. (d)
2. 82.3 (82.0 to 82.5) 7. 19.43 (19 to 20)
3. 70.68 (70.0 to 71.0) 8. 4.44 (4.20 to 4.60)
4. (a) 9. 25 (24 to 26)
5. 554.5 (550 to 560) 10. (a, d)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Application of Thermodynamics
DPP-01
Brayton Cycle
1. [MSQ] 6. [MCQ]
Which of the following is/are correct with respect to A gas plant operates on Brayton cycle between
gas turbines? temperature limits of 300 K and 1000 K. The efficiency
of the cycle corresponding to optimum pressure ratio is
(a) It usually operates as an open cycle.
(take γ = 1.4).
(b) The working fluid undergo no phase change. (a) 73% (b) 58%
(c) It can work with low quality fuel. (c) 45% (d) 62%

(d) It is used in aircrafts due to its light weight.

7. [NAT]
In an ideal Brayton cycle, atmospheric air (ratio of
2. [NAT] specific heats, cp/cv = 1.4, specific heat at constant
A gas turbine plant operates on Brayton cycle pressure = 1.005 kJ/kgK) at 1 bar and 300 K is
between Tmin = 300 K and Tmax = 1000 °C. Optimum compressed to 8 bar. The maximum temperature in the
Pressure ratio of the cycle will be ______. cycle is limited to 1500 K. If the heat supplied at the
[Take  for gas = 1.4] rate of 100 MW, the mass flow rate (in kg/s) of air
required in the cycle is ________.
3. [MSQ]
A gas turbine plant operates on Brayton cycle between 8. [MCQ]
300 K and 1300 K. Select the correct option(s) from A simple Brayton cycle has a pressure ratio of 6 and a
below. maximum temperature of 900 K. Air enters the
(a) The maximum cycle efficiency is 76.9 % compressor at 100 kPa, 300 K. Based upon cold-air
(b) The maximum cycle efficiency is 53.2 % standard analysis assumptions, the work ratio of this
(c) Maximum work done per kg of air is 352.75 kJ/kg cycle is?
(d) Maximum work done per kg of air is 167.26 kJ/kg (a) 0.44 (b) 0.56
(c) 0.65 (d) 0.72
4. [NAT]
Atmospheric air at 101.325 kPa and 27°C enters the 9. [MCQ]
compressor of a gas turbine operating on Brayton cycle An ideal gas turbine working on Brayton cycle has
which is having a pressure ratio of 6 (air = 1.4). If the minimum and maximum temperatures 310 K and 1300
turbine work is 2.5 times the work of compressor, then
the maximum temperature in the cycle will be _____ K respectively and back work ratio is 0.50. What will
K. be the temperature at the end of compression.
(a) 735 K (b) 650 K
5. [NAT] (c) 545 K (d) 462 K
An ideal Brayton cycle, operating between the pressure
limits of 1 bar and 8 bar, has minimum and maximum
temperatures of 300 K and 1500 K. The difference
between the temperatures at the end of compression
and expansion processes is _________ͦ C.
 2

10. [MCQ]
In a gas turbine cycle the temperature at end of
compression is 500 K and peak temperature in cycle is
1400 K. The mean temperature at which heat is
supplied is
(a) 950 K (b) 786 K
(c) 874 K (d) 702 K

❑❑❑
 3

Answer Key
1. (a, b, d) 6. (c)
2. 12.54 (12.00 to 13.00) 7. 104 (100 to 110)
3. (a, c) 8. (a)
4. 1253.45 (1240 to 1270) 9. (b)
5. 284.63 (275 to 295) 10. (c)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Application of Thermodynamics
DPP-02
Brayton Cycle
1. [MCQ]
Providing Intercooling in Brayton cycle, the mean 6. [NAT]
temperature of heat addition The air supplied to a gas turbine plant is 10 kg/s. The
pressure ratio is 6 and pressure at the inlet of the
(a) Increases
compressor is 1 bar. The compressor is two-stage and
(b) Decreases provided with perfect intercooler. The inlet
(c) Remains same temperature is 300 K and maximum temperature is
limited to 1073 K. Neglecting the mass of fuel, the
(d) Can not determine
thermal efficiency of the plant is _______% (correct up
to one decimal places).
2. [MCQ]
The optimum intermediate pressure Pi for a gas turbine 7. [NAT]
plant operating between pressure limits 1 bar and 8 In a gas turbine, air enters the compressor at 1bar, 300
bar with perfect inter cooling between the two stages K and gets compressed to 6 bar. If there is loss of
of compression is: 10kJ/kg of heat to atmosphere in compressor, the
(a) 2.00 bar amount of work done on compressor if the process
(b) 2.84 bar moves isentropically is ___________kJ/kg (round off
(c) 4.00 bar to nearest integer).
(d) 3.62 bar
8. [NAT]
3. [NAT] A gas turbine power plant operates on a simple Brayton
In a 3-stage air compressor, air enters the 1st stage cycle with air as the working fluid. The air enters the
compressor at 1 bar. If the overall compression ratio is turbine at 1 MPa and 1000 K and leaves at 125 kPa,
10 then the pressure after second stage is _______bar 610 K. Heat is rejected to the surroundings at a rate of
(correct up to two decimal places). 70 kW and air flow rate is 25 kg/s. The net power
output is _____kW (round off to nearest integer).
4. [MCQ]
In an ideal Brayton cycle with air as the working fluid. 9. [NAT]
the air enters the compressor at 100 kPa and 300 K. If An ideal gas turbine cycle with two-stages of
the air rate of the cycle is 15 kg/kW-h, then what is the compression and expansion has an overall pressure
net power output per kg of air flow?
ratio of 10. Air enters the compressor at 290 K, and the
(a) 293 kJ/kg (b) 355 kJ/kg
(c) 325 kJ/kg (d) 240 kJ/kg turbine at 1200 K. Assuming intercooling and
reheating to be perfect, the thermal efficiency of this
5. [NAT] gas turbine cycle is _________% (correct up to one
The compressor of a gas turbine plant, operating on an
decimal place).
ideal intercooled Brayton cycle with perfect
intercooling, compresses the air with an overall
compression ratio of 6 in a two stage compression
process. Air enters the compressor at 300 K and 100
kPa. The minimum compressor work is ______ kJ/kg
(round off to nearest integer).
 2

10. [NAT]
In a gas turbine, air enters the compressor at 100 kPa,
300 K with a volumetric flow rate of 5 m3/s. The air is
compressed in two stages to 1200 kPa with
intercooling to 300 K between stages at a pressure of
350 KPa. The turbine inlet temperature is 1400 K and
the expansion occurs in two stages with reheat to 1400
K between the stages at a pressure of 350 KPa. The net
power developed in cycle is ______kW (round off to
nearest integer).

❑❑❑
 3

Answer Key
1. (b) 6. 37.17 (36.80 to 37.50)
2. (b) 7. 211.5 (205.0 to 215.0)
3. 4.64 (4.50 to 4.80) 8. 9728.75 (9500 to 10000)
4. (d) 9. 39.42 (39.00 to 40.00)
5. 175.9 (170.0 to 180.0) 10. 3369 (3300 to 3400)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Application of Thermodynamics
DPP-03
Brayton Cycle
1. [MCQ] efficiency of 80%. What is the efficiency of this cycle
In a Brayton cycle with ideal regeneration, as the with regeneration?
pressure ratio increases, the cycle efficiency (a) 30.58% (b) 31.32%
(a) Increases (c) 35.16% (d) 28.86%
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same 6. [NAT]
(d) First increases then decreases An ideal gas turbine cycle with many stages of
compression and expansion and a regenerator of 100
percent effectiveness has an overall pressure ratio of
2. [MSQ]
10. Air enters every stage of compressor at 290 K,
The efficiency of an actual Brayton cycle is NOT
and every stage of turbine at 1200 K. The thermal
improved by ______.
efficiency of this gas turbine cycle is _______%
(a) Providing reheating
(round off to nearest integer).
(b) Providing intercooling
(c) Providing regeneration
7. [NAT]
(d) Increasing pressure ratio
A gas turbine operates between 300K and 1300K. The
turbine and compressor isentropic efficiency is 90%. If
3. [MCQ] a regenerator with efficiency of 80% efficiency is
The minimum and maximum temperatures in a gas installed, the efficiency of cycle if cycle was designed
turbine cycle are 280 K and 1000 K respectively. The for optimum pressure is _____% (round off to nearest
pressure ratio at which ideal regenerative efficiency integer).
equals Brayton efficiency is
(a) 9.28 (b) 11.32 8. [NAT]
(c) 8.16 (d) 10.56 A Brayton cycle works on minimum temperature of
300 K and maximum temperature of 1300 K. If
4. [NAT] compression ratio of cycle is 20, Then the isentropic
A gas turbine develops 150 kJ of work while the efficiency of air compressor to add least amount of
compressor absorbed 60 kJ of work and the heat energy in combustor, is ____% (round off to nearest
supplied is 300 kJ. If a regenerator which would integer).
recover 40% of heat from the exhaust were used, then
the increase in overall thermal efficiency would be 9. [NAT]
_______% (round off to one decimal place). An ideal closed gas turbine operates between 800℃
and 30℃. It produces a power 100KW. The plant is
5. [MCQ]
A gas turbine power plant working on the Brayton designed such that there is no need for regenerator. A
cycle with regeneration of 70% effectiveness. The air fuel of calorific value 45000 KJ/Kg is used. The rate of
at the inlet to the compressor is at 1 bar and 300 K the fuel consumption is _______ gm/s (round off to two
pressure ratio is 6 and maximum cycle temperature is decimal places).
1200 K. The turbine and compressor each have an
 2

10. [NAT]
A simple open cycle gas turbine develops electrical
power output of 50 MW. It has a compressor turbine
and a free power turbine. Both the turbines have
separate combustion chambers. The cycle takes in air
at 1 bar and 300 K. The total compressor pressure ratio
is 11.31. The turbine inlet temperature is 1500 K. The
mass flow rate of air entering compressor is
_______kg/s (round off to nearest integer).

❑❑❑
 3

Answer Key
1. (b) 6. 75.8 (74 to 77)
2. (a, b) 7. 40 (39 to 41)
3. (a) 8. 40 (39 to 41)
4. 11.6 (11.00 to 12.00) 9. 4.74 (4.50 to 5.00)
5. (d) 10. 110.5 (105 to 115)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Application of Thermodynamics
DPP-01
Rankine Cycle
1. [MCQ] 6. [NAT]
Rankine cycle is different from Carnot cycle during. A Gas turbine working on Brayton cycle has pressure
ratio of 4. Combustion products enter turbine at 1500
(a) Expansion process K. If there is a heat loss of 20kJ/kg from the Turbine,
(b) Heat rejection process then the work developed by turbine ______kJ/kg
(round off to nearest integer). Take cp=1.1kJ/kgK & γ
(c) Heat addition process = 1.33.
(d) Pump work
7. [NAT]
2. [MCQ]
A Gas turbine working on Brayton cycle has pressure
Superheating of steam before expansion in a Rankine
ratio of 4. Air enters compressor at 300 K. If air fuel
cycle
ratio is 80 and combustion efficiency is 96%, the
(a) Decreases thermal efficiency
temperature of air entering turbine if calorific value of
(b) Has no effect on thermal efficiency
fuel is 41MJ/kg, is _______K (round off to nearest
(c) Increases thermal efficiency
integer). Take cp=1kJ/kgK & γ = 1.4
(d) May increase or decrease thermal efficiency
8. [NAT]
The steam consumption of steam engine is 20 tonnes
3. [MCQ]
per shift of 8 hours when developing 370 kW. The
Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant
specific enthalpies at outlet and inlet of the boiler are
(a) Improves in summer as compared to that in winter
2778.0 kJ⁄kg and 191.8 kJ⁄kg . The thermal
(b) Improves in winter as compared to that in summer efficiency of engine is ______% (round off to one
(c) Is unaffected by climatic conditions decimal place).
(d) None of these
9. [NAT]
A power plant working on ideal Rankine cycle operates
4. [MCQ]
In a Rankine cycle which of the following effects are between pressure limits of 180 bar and 0.06 bar. At
not true when condenser pressure is decreased. condenser pressure the specific enthalpy and specific
(a) Efficiency increases volume of saturated liquid are 151.5 kJ/kg and
(b) Pump work increases 0.0010064 m3 /kg respectively. The pump work is
(c) Work output increases ______ kJ/kg (round off to one decimal place).
(d) Life of turbine blades increases
10. [NAT]
5. [NAT] The power developed by a turbine in ideal Rankine
A Gas turbine working on Brayton cycle has pressure cycle is 1200 kW. The heat supplied to the boiler and
ratio of 4. Inlet condition of compressor is 1 Bar and the heat rejected in condenser are 3400 kJ/kg and 2800
27 °C. If there is a heat loss of 10kJ/kg from the kJ/kg respectively. If the energy required by the feed
compressor, the work required to run compressor is pump is 36 kW, then the required mass flow rate of
_____kJ/kg (round off to nearest integer). Assume cp = steam is ____kg/s (round off to two decimal places).
1kJ/kgK & γ = 1.4
❑❑❑
 2

Answer Key
1. (c) 6. 460.2 (455 to 465)
2. (c) 7. 937.8 (930 to 945)
3. (b) 8. 20.6 (20.0 to 21.0)
4. (d) 9. 18.11 (17.8 to 18.4)
5. 155.8 (150 to 160) 10. 1.94 (1.90 to 2.00)

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 1

Branch: Mechanical Engineering Batch: HINGLISH

Applications of Thermodynamics
DPP-02
Rankine Cycle
1. [MCQ] specific enthalpies at outlet and inlet of the boiler are
Which of the following statements regarding effects of 2778.0 kJ⁄kg and 191.8 kJ⁄kg . The thermal
reheating of steam in a steam turbine is true: efficiency of engine is ____% (round off to one
(a) It decreases the specific output of the turbine. decimal place).
(b) It decreases cycle efficiency.
(c) It increases blade erosion. 6. [NAT]
(d) It improves the quality of exit steam. A Carnot cycle works on steam between the pressure
limits of 7 MPa and 7 kPa. The thermal efficiency of
2. [MCQ] the cycle is _______% (round off to one decimal
In the Rankine cycle, with the maximum steam place).
temperature being fixed from metallurgical At 7 MPa: hƒ = 1267 kJ/kg, hg = 2772.1 kJ/kg,
consideration, as the boiler pressure increases, sg = 5.8133 kJ/kg · K, sƒ = 3.1211 kJ/kg ·K
(a) The condenser load will increase At 7 KPa: hƒ = 162.60 kJ/kg, hg = 2572.14 kJ/kg,
(b) The quality of turbine exhaust will decrease sg = 8.2801 kJ/kg · K, sƒ = 0.5564kJ/kg ·K
(c) The quality of turbine exhaust will increase
(d) The quality of turbine exhaust will remain
Unchanged

3. [NAT]
A steam powerplant works with boiler pressure of 180
bar and condenser pressure of 0.1bar. The enthalpy at
inlet to boiler is 223 kJ/kg and at exit of boiler is 3200
kJ/kg. Reheat is employed at pressure of 45 bar with
enthalpy of cold reheat as 2900kJ/kg and that of hot 7. [NAT]
reheat as 3445 kJ/kg. Enthalpy at exit of low pressure In a steam power plant working on ideal Rankine cycle,
turbine is 2500kJ/kg. Neglecting pump work, the the steam turbine receives steam at 10 bar 2500 oC and
efficiency of cycle is _______% (round off to one discharge at 0.5 bar. The enthalpies at inlet and outlet
decimal place). of the turbine are 2942 kJ/kg and 2408 kJ/kg
respectively. If enthalpy at pump entry is 340 kJ/kg,
4. [NAT] neglecting pump work the efficiency of the power plant
Steam powerplant generates 50MW of power while is _____% (round off to one decimal place).
running at efficiency of 35%. If the coal used in
powerplant has a calorific value of 28 MJ/kg and boiler 8. [NAT]
efficiency is 80%, then the amount of coal required per A power plant working on a Rankine cycle works
day to meet power requirements of the plant is between pressure limits of 12 bar and 0.7 bar. The
______tones/day (round off to nearest integer). enthalpy and entropy at turbine inlet are 3432 kJ/kg
and 7.0198 kJ/kg-K.
5. [NAT] At 0.7 bar properties of steam are sf = 0.5589 kJ/kg-K,
The steam consumption of steam engine is 20 tonnes sg =7.459 kJ/kg-K, hf = 163 kJ/kg, hg =2246 kJ/kg. The
enthalpy of the wet steam at turbine exit is _____kJ/kg
per shift of 8 hours when developing 370 kW. The (round off to nearest integer).
 2

9. [NAT] 10. [NAT]

Steam at 100 bar and 500°C (h1 = 3373.6 kJ⁄kg) enters In a Reheat Rankine Cycle, the enthalpies at various
a stream turbine that has one stage of reheat. The steam states are given below.
is exhausted from the turbine at 0.7 bar and 85% dry. h1 = 3336.5 kJ/kg
The net work developed by the turbine is 1600 kJ/ kg h2 = 2814.4 kJ/kg
of steam. Neglecting pump work, the heat supplied in h3 = 3432.8 kJ/kg
reheater _______ kJ/kg (round off to nearest integer). h4 = 2367.7 kJ/kg
At 0.7 bar, hf = 163.38 kJ⁄kg & hfg = 2409.2 kJ/kg. h5 = 163.4 kJ/kg
h6 = 172.4 kJ/kg
The efficiency of the cycle is______% (round off to
one decimal place).

❑❑❑
 3

Answer Key
1. (d) 6. 44.2 (43.8 to 45.0)
2. (b) 7. 20.5 (20.0 to 21.0)
3. 35.34 (35.0 to 36.0) 8. 2113 (2000 to 2200)
4. 551 (545 to 555) 9. 437.6 (435 to 440)
5. 20.6 (20.0 to 21.0) 10. 41.7 (41.0 to 42.0)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Applications of Thermodynamics
DPP-03
Rankine Cycle
1. [MCQ]
Choose the wrong statement:
(a) bleeding increases the thermodynamic efficiency
of turbine
(b) bleeding increases the net power developed by
turbine
(c) bleeding decreases the net power developed by
turbine 5. [NAT]
(d) boiler is supplied with hot water due to bleeding A steam powerplant works with boiler pressure of 30
bar and condenser pressure of 0.1bar. If the enthalpy at
2. [MCQ] inlet to boiler is 145 kJ/kg and at exit of boiler is 3445
Which of the following statements is not correct for
regenerative steam cycle? kJ/kg, the efficiency of cycle if enthalpy at exit of
(a) It increases thermal efficiency turbine is 2442 kJ/kg is ___30.3___% (round off to one
(b) It reduces boiler capacity (TPH) for a given output decimal place). Water at 30 bar has specific volume of
(c) It reduces temperature stresses in the boiler due to
0.001m3/kg
hotter feed
(d) The efficiency increases with increased number of
feed heaters 6. [MSQ]
A steam turbine plant operates on Rankine cycle with
3. [MCQ] steam entering turbine at 40 bar, 350oC and leaving at
In a regenerative Rankine cycle with one open feed 0.05 bar. Steam leaving turbine condenses to
water heater, for each kg steam entering the turbine, if saturated liquid inside condenser. Feed pump delivers
m kg steam is having h1 specific enthalpy and the saturated liquid into boiler.
specific enthalpy of water entering the heater is h2 then h2 = h at 40 bar, 350oC = 3092 kJ/kg,
h3, the specific enthalpy of saturated liquid leaving the s2 = s at 40 bar, 350oC = 6.5821 kJ/kg ·K,
heater is h3 = hg at 0.05 bar = 2452 kJ/kg,
(a) h3 = h2 + m (h1 – h2) h4 = hƒ at 0.05 bar = 138 kJ/kg,
(b) h3 = h1 + m (h1 – h2) s4 = sƒ at 0.05 bar = 0.4764 kJ/kg,
(c) h3 = h2 + m h1 v4 = vƒ at 0.05 bar = 0.00100 m3/kg
(d) h3 = h1 + m h2

4. [NAT]
A power plant working on regenerative Rankine Cycle
with an open feed water heater h1 = 2922 kJ⁄kg and h5
= 273 kJ⁄kg and bleed to the feed water heater is 20%
of the boiler steam generation rate. The specific
enthalpy at state 6 is _____kJ/kg (round off to nearest
(a) The net work per kg of steam is 636 kJ/kg
integer).
(b) The net work per kg of steam is 543 kJ/kg
 2

(c) The cycle efficiency is 21.56 % 9. [NAT]

(d) The cycle efficiency is 29.15 % A steam powerplant works with boiler pressure of 50
7. [NAT] bar and condenser pressure of 0.1bar. The enthalpy at
A steam powerplant operates with 4 closed feed water
exit of condenser is 145 kJ/kg and at exit of boiler is
heaters. The enthalpy of bleed steam entering number-
2 feed water heater is 2760 kJ/kg and enthalpy of feed 3445 kJ/kg. Enthalpy at exit of turbine is 2442 kJ/kg
water entering is 192kJ/kg. Steam gets condensed and 20 % of steam at pressure of 3 bar with enthalpy
completely to enthalpy of 392kJ/kg at exit of feed
2700kJ/kg is extracted from the turbine and used for
water heater. If bleed steam is 20% of the feed water
entering the heater, then the enthalpy of feed water at open feed water heating. Neglecting pump work, the
exit of heater is ______kJ/kg (round off to nearest cycle efficiency is _______% (round off to one
integer).
decimal place).

8. [NAT]
In a powerplant, water comes out of a boiler as 10. [MCQ]
saturated vapour at 72 bar. The steam flows through A steam turbine working on Rankine Cycle is
the turbine and exhausts at 0.08 bar to a condenser. The supplied with dry saturated steam at 12 bar and
water leaves the condenser at 0.08 bar and 40°C (h =
173.9 kJ/kg). Liquid water is again pumped through exhaust at 0.1 bar.
pump. Isentropic efficiency of the turbine is 70%. The The properties of steam at 12 bar,
plant has a capacity of 75 MW. The mass flow rate of sg = 6.519 kJ⁄kg-K.
steam circulated is ______kg/s (round off to one
hf = 798.4 kJ⁄kg and latent heat 1984.3 kJ⁄kg
decimal place). Properties of steam: P = 0.08 bar: hf =
173.9 kJ/kg, hfg = 2403.2 kJ/kg, sf = 0.5926 kJ/kgK, At 0.1 bar,
sfg = 7.6370 kJ/kg K, At 72 bar: hg = 2770.9 kJ/kg, sg = hf = 191.8 kJ⁄kg and latent heat = 2393 kJ⁄kg
5.8019 kJ/kgK. Pump work is 3kJ/kg of water flow.
sf = 0.649 kJ⁄kg-K and sfg = 7.502 kJ⁄kg-K
Neglecting pump work, what is the cycle efficiency?
(a) 32 % (b) 22.3 %
(c) 19.6 % (d) 27.7 %

❑❑❑
 3

Answer Key
1. (b) 6. (a, c)
2. (b) 7. 665.6 (650 to 680)
3. (a) 8. 112.3 (107.0 to 117.0)
4. 802.8 (790 to 810) 9. 34.0 (32.0 to 36.0)
5. 30.3 (30.0 to 30.5) 10. (d)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Application of Thermodynamics
DPP-01
Air Compressor
1. [MCQ] is 12 bars and distance of piston top and cylinder head
For high compression and low volume capacity the is 2 cm at TDC. The mass of air delivered per minute
suitable compressor is when air enters the compressor at 300 K and 1bar, is
______kg/min (round off to one decimal place).
(a) Reciprocating compressor
(b) Centrifugal compressor 6. [NAT]
(c) Axial flow compressor A reciprocating compressor with two stages, develops

(d) Rotary type compressor 30 bars of pressure and have clearance ratio of 0.05.
Assuming Compressor runs isentropically, the
2. [MCQ] volumetric efficiency is ____% (round off to nearest
Large clearance volume in reciprocating compressor
integer).
leads to which of the following
(a) High volumetric efficiency and less power 7. [NAT]
consumption A reciprocating compressor develops pressure of 10
(b) Low volumetric efficiency and less power bar with air entering cylinder at 300K and 1 bar. If the
consumption per kg of air flow process followed is polytropic with index 1.3, then the
(c) Low volumetric efficiency and high power heat rejected to surrounding per kg of air flow is
consumption per kg of air flow ______kJ/kg (round off to one decimal place).
(d) Low delivery pressure and no change in power
8. [NAT]
3. [MCQ] A single-stage reciprocating air compressor is required
3 stage reciprocating compressor has suction and to compress 72 m³ of air per minute from 20°C and 1
delivery pressures as 1 bar and 27 bar respectively. For bar to 8 bar pressure. What is the work required if the
minimum work of compression, the delivery pressure compression process is isothermal: ______kW (round
after 1st stage is- off to nearest integer).
(a) 1 bar (b) 9 bar
(c) 27 bar (d) 3 bar 9. [NAT]
In a reciprocating air compressor, the clearance ratio is
4. [MCQ] 15%. If the air is received at 1.5 bar then the maximum
What is the minimum no of reciprocating compressor pressure which the compressor can attain is _____bar
stages required to develop a pressure of 40 bars with (round off to one decimal place).
intercooling when maximum temperature permitted in
the compressor is 450 K? Air enters at 300 in all stages 10. [NAT]
after perfect intercooling A reciprocating air compressor having a piston
(a) 2 (b) 6 displacement of 0.015 m3 per revolution, operates at
(c) 5 (d) 3 450 rpm and has a volumetric efficiency of 85%. If the
air is received at 1 bar and 200°C then mass of air
5. [NAT]
A reciprocating air compressor with bore of 20 cm and sucked is ______kg/min (round off to two decimal
stroke of 24 cm runs at 3000 RPM. Pressure developed places).
❑❑❑
 2

Answer Key
1. (a) 6. 88 (87 to 89)
2. (c) 7. 50.21 (49.00 to 51.50)
3. (d) 8. 249.5 (245 to 255)
4. (d) 9. 25.97 (25.50 to 26.50)
5. 15.54 (14.50 to 16.50) 10. 4.22 (4.00 to 4.50)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Application of Thermodynamics DPP-01
Centrifugal Air Compressor
1. [MCQ] 6. [NAT]
Centrifugal compressors are used where A centrifugal air compressor runs at 27000 RPM. The
(a) high pressure and low volume are required blade diameter at exit is 20 cm and isentropic
(b) low pressure and high-volume flow are required efficiency of compressor is 90%. If air enters
(c) high pressure and high-volume flow are required compressor at 22 oC, then the pressure ratio developed
(d) low pressure and low-volume flow are required in the compressor is ________ (round off to two
decimal places).
2. [NAT]
A centrifugal air compressor with radial blades runs at
7. [NAT]
15000 RPM. If the inlet diameter is 15cm and exit
A centrifugal air compressor runs at 20000 RPM. Air
diameter is 30cm. If inlet temp is 17 oC, then the
enters at 300K & 1 bar. Diameter of inlet of compressor
temperature produced at exit of compressor is
is 10cm and that of exit of blade is 20 cm and there is
________ oC (round off to two decimal places).
pre-whirl of 15 degrees provided at inlet. The work
required per kg of air to run the compressor is
3. [MCQ]
______kJ/kg (round off to one decimal place).
A centrifugal air compressor having a pressure ratio of
5, compresses air at a rate of 10 kg/s. If the initial
8. [NAT]
pressure and temperature are 1 bar and 20°C
A centrifugal air compressor runs at 12000 RPM. Air
respectively, then what is the power required to drive
enters at 300K & 1 bar. Diameter at the inlet of blade
the compressor? Take γ = 1.4 and cp = 1 kJ/kg.K.
is 10cm and that at exit is 30cm. Blade angle at exit is
(a) 1550 kW (b) 1224 kW
70 degrees. If velocity of flow is constant at 50m/s,
(c) 1710 kW (d) 934 kW
then the work required per kg of air to run the
compressor is ______kJ/kg (round off to one decimal
4. [MCQ]
place).
In a centrifugal compressor running at 15000 RPM,
diameter and whirl velocity at outlet are 500 mm and
9. [NAT]
380 m/s. The degree of reaction of the turbine is.
A centrifugal compressor runs at a speed of 15000 rpm
(a) 51.6% (b) 45.3%
and delivers 30 kg of air per second. The work done on
(c) 55.8% (d) 61.5%
the compressor is 28.8 kJ/kg of air. The torque on the
compressor is ______ kN-m (round off to two decimal
5. [NAT]
places).
A centrifugal air compressor runs at 15000 RPM. The
inlet diameter is 15cm and exit diameter is 30cm. The
10. [NAT]
slip factor is 0.9 and work input factor is 1.05. If 5
A centrifugal compressor handles 540 kg/min of air at
kg/min of air passes through compressor, then the
power required to run compressor is ______kW (round a speed of 20,000 rpm. The air enters the impeller eye
off to two decimal places). with no pre-whirl. The ratio of whirl speed to tip speed
is 0.9. The diameter of tip is 426 mm. then the power
required is _____kW (round off to nearest integer).
❑❑❑
 2

Answer Key
1. (b) 6. 2.14 (2.00 to 2.30)
2. 72.24 (70.0 to 75.0) 7. 40.9 (40.0 to 42.0)
3. (c) 8. 32.1 (31.8 to 32.4)
4. (a) 9. 0.55 (0.50 to 0.60)
5. 4.37 (4.20 to 4.60) 10. 1612 (1575 to 1650)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Application of Thermodynamics
DPP-01
Axial Air Compressor
1. [MCQ]
If an axial flow compressor is designed for a constant 6. [NAT]
velocity through all stages, the area of the annulus of In an axial flow compressor with 50% degree of

the succeeding stages will reaction, the relative air angles at rotor inlet and outlet

(a) Remain the same are 130o & 100o respectively. Blade velocity = 180 m/s.

(b) Progressively decrease The work done per stage is ____kJ/kg (round off to one

(c) Progressively increase decimal place).

(d) Depend upon the number of stages

7. [NAT]
2. [MCQ] An axial compressor is fitted with half-reaction
While flowing through the rotor blades in an axial flow blading, the blade inlet and outlet angles being 50o and
air compressor, the relative velocity of air 15o when measured from axial direction. The mean
(a) continuously decreases diameter of a certain blade pair is 85 cm and the rotor
(b) continuously increases run at 5500 rpm. The whirl speed at inlet is ______m/s
(c) first increases and then decreases (round off to one decimal place).
(d) first decreases and then increases
8. [NAT]
3. [MCQ] A 10 stage axial compressor provide overall pressure
In an axial flow compressor stage, air enters and leaves ratio of 10 at overall isentropic efficiency of 90%. Air
the stage axially. If the axial component of the air enters at 300K and work is divided equally between all
leaving the rotor is half the mean peripheral velocity of stages. If blade outlet angle is 20 degree, blade mean
the rotor blades and air leaves rotor blade axially, then velocity is 200m/s and flow velocity is 100m/s, then
the degree of reaction will be the blade inlet angle is _____degree (round off to one
(a) 1.00 (b) 0.75 decimal place).
(c) 0.50 (d) 0.25
9. [NAT]
4. [NAT] An axial compressor runs at 15000 RPM. Mean
In an axial flow air compressor: u = 200 m/s, vf = 180 diameter of blade is 0.4m. If the flow velocity is
m/s, α1 = 50o, α2 = 15o and ρ = 1 kg/m3. The work constant to 50m/s, and air is deflected from absolute
done per stage per kg of air is ____kJ (round off to angle of 30 degree to 60 degree in the flow direction,
one decimal place). the work required to run compressor is ______kJ/kg
(round off to one decimal place).
5. [NAT]
In an axial compressor, the mean blade speed is 220 10. [MCQ]
m/s and axial velocity is 180 m/s. The blade inlet and In an axial flow compressor, the axial velocity is
outlet angles are 42o and 20o respectively. The degree uniform across the stage and equal to 120 m/s and
of reaction of the compressor is ____% (round off to mean blade speed of each stage is 200 m/s. If the
one decimal place). compressor has symmetrical blades and work done per
stage is 22.39 kJ/kg then the blade inlet and exit angles
are
 2

(a) β1 = 42.30°, β2 = 37.13°

(b) β1 = 42.30°, β2 = 15.50°
(c) β1 = 52.43°, β2 = 20.15°
(d) β1 = 54.33°, β2 = 15.30°
❑❑❑
 3

Answer Key
1. (b) 6. 21.15 (20.7 to 21.6)
2. (a) 7. 44.9 (44.0 to 46.0)
3. (d) 8. 62.4 (62.0 to 63.0)
4. 33.25 (33.0 to 33.6) 9. 18.14 (17.0 to 19.0)
5. 51.7 (51.0 to 52.5) 10. (c)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Application of Thermodynamics
DPP-01
Steam Turbine
1. [MSQ]
Which of the following statement is correct for steam 5. [NAT]
turbine? A combined cycle powerplant works with Brayton
cycle as top cycle and Rankine cycle as bottom cycle.
(a) It converts pressure energy into electrical energy
If efficiency of both the cycles is 40% then efficiency
(b) It converts thermal energy into mechanical energy of combined cycle will be _______% (round off to
(c) It converts thermal energy into kinetic energy nearest integer).

(d) It converts low grade energy into high grade

6. [MCQ]
energy In a simple impulse turbine, the nozzle angle at the
entrance is 30°. What will be the blade-speed ratio for
2. [MCQ]
maximum diagram efficiency?
The main aim of compounding steam turbine is to
(a) improve efficiency (a) 0.43 (b) 0.25
(b) reduce steam consumption (c) 0.5 (d) 0.75
(c) reduce motor speed
(d) reduce turbine size
7. [NAT]
3. [MCQ] A D’Laval turbine has absolute velocity at entry and
Which of the following is not the correct statement for exit to blade as 250m/s and 150 m/s. The work
steam turbines developed by turbine per kg of steam flow will be
(a) In impulse turbine the cross-section between ________kJ/kg (round off to nearest integer).
blades is constant.
(b) Blade manufacturing of reaction turbines is 8. [MCQ]
complex. A four-row velocity compounded steam turbine
(c) In reaction turbines the pressure drop takes place develops 6400 kW. What is the power developed by
only in moving blades. the last row?
(d) Impulse turbines are used for small power
(a) 200 kW (b) 400 kW
generation.
(c) 800 kW (d) 1600 kW
4. [MCQ]
Steam expands from enthalpy of 3400kJ/kg to 9. [NAT]
3200kJ/kg in a nozzle. The velocity of steam coming A parson’s turbine has absolute and relative velocity at
out of the nozzle will be? entry to blade as 250m/s and 150 m/s with nozzle angle
(a) 200 m/s (b) 632 m/s as 30 degree. The work developed by turbine will be
(c) 836 m/s (d) 14.14 m/s
_______kJ/kg (round off to nearest integer).
❑❑❑
 2

Answer Key
1. (b, d) 6. (a)
2. (c) 7. 20 (19 to 21)
3. (c) 8. (b)
4. (b) 9. 40 (39 to 41)
5. 64 (62 to 66)

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 1

Mechanical Engineering Hinglish

Application of Thermodynamics
DPP-01
Compressible Flow
1. [NAT] (d) depends on initial pressure and other conditions of
Space shuttle while entering the atmosphere from the gas
space stations travels at Mach Number of 5. If the
6. [MCQ]
atmospheric temperature at a given location is -50 °C,
In a normal shock in a gas
temperature of air at nose of the shuttle will be
(a) the stagnation pressure remains the same on both
_____°C (round off to nearest integer). sides of the shock
(b) the stagnation density remains the same on both
2. [MSQ] sides of the shock
Which of the following statements regarding (c) the stagnation temperature remains the same on
convergent divergent nozzles are correct both sides of the shock
(a) Supersonic velocities can be achieved in these (d) the Mach number remains the same on both sides
nozzles of the shock
(b) They have convergent subsonic and divergent
supersonic sections 7. [NAT]
(c) Shockwaves may be formed in divergent section Air is expanded in nozzle of gas turbine from pressure
(d) They are fitted where pressure ratios are low of 15 bar to 3 bar. If the process is isentropic, Mach
number at exit of nozzle will be _______ (round off to
3. [NAT] two decimal places).
An object travels in air of pressure 1 bar (abs) at 10°C.
The speed of the projectile is 1500 km/hour. The Mach 8. [NAT]
angle is _____degree (round off to nearest integer). An airplane is flying at a height of 15 km where the
temperature is -50°C. The speed of the plane
4. [MSQ] corresponds to M=2.0. Assuming k=1.4 and R=287
Which of the following statements are correct for J⁄kg-K, the speed of the plane is _______km⁄hr (round
shock waves. off to nearest integer).
(a) Pressure increases more across a normal shock
wave as against weak shockwave 9. [NAT]
(b) Total temperature remains same across all An airplane is moving in an atmosphere with pressure
shockwaves p = 44 kPa (abs) and density ρ = 0.63 kg⁄m3 . A pilot
(c) Strong shocks are formed at high Mach numbers tube on the plane records the stagnation pressure as 70
(d) Shock waves are always produced at supersonic kPa (abs). The speed of the airplane is _____ m/s
speeds (round off to nearest integer). (k = 1.4 and R = 287 J⁄kg-
K)
5. [MCQ]
In a nozzle designed for maximum discharge
conditions, the flow velocity in the convergent section
of the nozzle is
(a) Subsonic
(b) sonic
(c) supersonic
 2

10. [NAT]
Air at 8.6 bar, and 190°C expands at a rate of 4.5 kg/s
through a convergent–divergent nozzle to an
atmospheric pressure of 1.013 bar. The critical
pressure is ___4.54 (4.30 to 4.70)__bar (round off to
two decimal places).
❑❑❑
 3

Answer Key
1. 1065 (1060 – 1070) 6. (c)
2. (a, b, c) 7. 1.71 (1.60 to 1.80)
3. 54 (53 to 55) 8. 2155 (2150 to 2160)
4. (a, b, d) 9. 263.4 (260 to 266)
5. (a) 10. 4.54 (4.30 to 4.70)

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