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ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL

PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION 2024

PHYSICS
6091 / 01

ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL
ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL
ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL
ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL
ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL ASSUMPTION ENGLISH SCHOOL

LEVEL: Sec 4 Express DATE: 28 August 2024

CLASS: Sec 4/1 DURATION: 1 hour

Additional Materials provided: 1 sheet of OAS paper

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this booklet until you are told to do so.

Write your NAME and INDEX NUMBER at the top of this page and on the OAS
paper. Shade your index number on the OAS paper.

There are 40 questions in this section. Answer all questions. For each question, there
are four possible answers A, B, C and D.

Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft or 2B pencil
on the OAS paper provided. DO NOT fold or bend the OAS paper.

At the end of the examination, hand in your OAS paper and question booklet separately.

This Question Paper consists of 17 printed pages including this page.

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MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS (40 marks)

Answer all questions on the OAS paper provided.

1 Which is a base quantity?

A area B charge
C energy D temperature

2 A digital caliper is used to measure the length of a few turns of wire.

5.40mm

What is the diameter of the wire?

A 0.54 mm B 1.08 mm
C 2.70 mm D 5.40 mm

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3 The diagram below shows the top view of a light ball swinging at constant
speed on a taut string. Two positions of the ball, A and B, are shown.

A
B

What can be said about the motion of the ball?

A The acceleration of the ball is changing.

B The mass of the ball is not constant.
C The resultant force on the ball is zero.
D The velocity of the ball is constant.

4 The diagram shows a graph of displacement s against time t of an object

moving in a straight line.

0 t

Which graph of velocity v against time t correctly represents the motion of the
object?

A B C D
v v v v

t t t t

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5 The graph shows how the velocity of a pebble projected vertically upwards
from the top of a building varies with time. The pebble reaches the ground in
2.5 s.

0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5

What is the height of the building?

A 1.25 m B 18.8 m
C 20.0 m D 31.3 m

6 An astronaut has a mass of 80 kg on Earth. He can jump to a vertical height of

1.5 m on the surface of the Earth.

How high can he reach when he jumps on the Moon using the same force?

height on the Moon reason

A higher than 1.5 m gravitational field strength of Moon is stronger
B higher than 1.5 m gravitational field strength of Moon is weaker
C lower than 1.5 m gravitational field strength of Moon is stronger
D lower than 1.5 m gravitational field strength of Moon is weaker

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7 The weights of some masses on the surface of four different planets are
recorded below. Which planet has the greatest acceleration due to gravity?

planet mass / kg weight / N

A 0.5 10
B 1.0 8.0
C 1.5 18
D 2.0 5.0

8 Two forces act at a point at an angle θ.

3.0 N

θ
4.0 N

Which angle θ will produce the largest resultant force?

A 0°
B between 0° and 90°
C between 90° and 180°
D 180°

9 A block of mass is moving along a rough surface at constant speed when a

force of 15 N acts on it.

constant speed

15 N

If the 15 N force is removed, how would the motion of the mass change?

A accelerate constantly before reaching terminal velocity

B comes to a stop immediately
C continues to move at the same constant speed
D decelerates constantly to a stop

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10 A rope is attached to a box. A person pulls the box up the slope in the direction
shown.

rope
pulling
force tension T1
normal force
tension T2

friction

weight

Which pair of forces is an action-reaction pair?

action reaction
pulling force of the hand
A friction on the box
on the rope

B normal force weight

pulling force of the hand T 1 on the hand by the

C
on the rope rope
T 1 on the hand by the T 2 on the box by the
D
rope rope

11 Objects of the same size but different mass are placed in identical containers.

Which set-up is most likely to topple over?

A B C D

5g 2g 5g 5g

5g 1g 2g 1g

2g 5g 5g 2g

1g 5g 1g 5g

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12 The diagram shows a model of the braking system of a car. Piston M has an
area of 5.0 cm2 and piston N has an area of 25 cm2. A force of 20 N is applied
to piston M.
piston N

F
20 N

piston M
oil

What is the force F acting on piston N?

A 4.0 N B 6.3 N
C 20 N D 100 N

13 A pipe is closed at one end and contains some gas, trapped by a column of
water. The atmospheric pressure is 100 kPa, the density of water is 1 g/cm3
and the gravitational field strength is 10 N/kg.

gas 7.0 m
5.0 m

water

What is the pressure of gas?

A 0.15 kPa B 5.1 kPa

C 150 kPa D 170 kPa

14 What is work done?

A product of force and distance between force and object

B product of force and distance moved by the object in the same direction
C rate of energy transfer per unit time
D rate of change of displacement per unit time

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15 A 80 kg box is pushed up along a smooth slope by a force of 350 N. The

gravitational field strength is 10 N/kg.

13 m
5m

350 N 12 m

What is the speed of the box at the top of the slope?

A 2.2 m/s B 3.7 m/s

C 10 m/s D 11 m/s

16 The diagram shows a student doing a chin-up exercise. Each time the student
does one chin-up, he lifts his body 0.40 m vertically upwards. The weight of the
student is 600 N. The student can do 18 chin-ups in 1 minute.

What is the power developed by the student?

A 4W B 72 W
C 144 W D 4320 W

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17 The total number of particles and the average kinetic energy of the particles in
three bodies, P, Q and R, are given in the table.

total number of average kinetic energy

body
particles of particles
P N E
Q 0.5N 2E
R 2N E

The temperatures of P, Q and R are denoted by T P , T Q and T R respectively.

Which relationship between T P , T Q and T R is correct?

A TP = TQ < TR B TP = TR < TQ
C TQ < TP < TR D TQ < TP = TR

18 Containers X and Y are filled with equal amount of hot water. The temperature
of the water is measured with a thermometer 10 minutes later. It is observed
that the water in container X has a much lower temperature than container Y.

Below are some statements to explain the observation.

1. Container X has a lid and container Y is not covered.

2. Container X is black and container Y is white.
3. Container X has a larger surface and container Y has a smaller surface.

Which statements are possibly correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only

C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

19 Why is it more dangerous to expose our skin to 50 g of steam at 100 °C than

to 50 g of water at 100 °C?

A Steam conducts heat faster than water.

B Steam is a better radiator of heat.
C Steam moves at a greater speed than water.
D Steam releases more energy than water when it condenses.

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20 The diagram shows an electric heater being used to heat a beaker of water
and an identical beaker of oil for several minutes.

water oil

electric heater

The temperatures of the water and the oil increase constantly. The rise in
temperature of the oil is much greater than that of the water. Why is this so?

A The oil has a higher specific heat capacity than water.

B The oil has a lower specific heat capacity than water.
C The water has a higher specific latent heat of fusion than oil.
D The water has a lower specific latent heat of fusion than oil.

21 In an experiment, 500 g of ice at 0 °C is added to 1 kg of water at 50 °C.

The specific latent heat of fusion of ice is 334 J/g and the specific heat capacity
of water is 4.2 J/g °C.

What is the final temperature of the water?

A 6.8 °C B 10.2 °C
C 25 °C D 40.0 °C

22 What is a wavefront?

A distance between two successive peaks of a wave

B distance between two successive troughs of a wave
C line that joins all the crests that are in phase
D line that joins all the troughs that are in phase

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23 A vibrating source S produces circular water waves near a straight reflector.

90 mm

If the speed of the waves is 60 mm/s, what is its wavelength and frequency?

wavelength / mm frequency / Hz
A 30 1.5
B 30 2.0
C 45 0.5
D 45 2.0

24 Windows K and L are double glazed using different materials.

glass
plastic

air vacuum

window K window L

Which window can be used for soundproofing and why?

A K, glass slows down the vibrations and collisions of particles

B K, sound travels slower in air
C L, plastic is a poor transmitter of sound
D L, sound cannot travel in vacuum

25 A floating ship sends ultrasonic pulse towards the seabed and the reflected
pulse is only received 1.6 s later. If the depth of the sea is 1.22 km, what is the
speed of the ultrasonic wave in seawater?

A 381 m/s B 763 m/s

C 1530 m/s D 3 × 108 m/s

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26 Which radiation in the electromagnetic spectrum is used in mobile phone

communication?

A infrared radiation B microwave

C radio wave D ultraviolet radiation

27 A plane mirror is to be installed in the middle of wall OP in a rectangular room

24 m by 12 m.
mirror
O P

X 12 m

R Q
24 m

What is the minimum width of the plane mirror on wall OP such that a person
at X can see the entire wall QR?

A 8m B 12 m
C 16 m D 24 m

28 A light ray enters a glass block at an angle of 40° to the surface.

40° air

glass

Given that the glass block has a refractive index of 1.5, what is the angle of
refraction in the glass?

A 25° B 31°
C 40° D 75°

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29 When an object is placed 40 cm from a thin converging lens, a real image equal
in size to the object is formed.

The object is then moved nearer the lens, to 10 cm away from the lens.

What are the new properties of the image formed?

size of image position of image

A diminished opposite side of lens
B diminished same side as object
C magnified opposite side of lens
D magnified same side as object

30 In an electrostatic precipitator, a fan blows dusty air past several metal rods
and metal plates. There is a large potential difference between the metal rods
and the metal plates.

metal wire
metal rods
connected
together

metal plates
connected
together

How does dust particles get removed in this precipitator?

A dust particles gain electrons and get attracted to the metal plates
B dust particles gain protons and move away from the metal plates
C dust particles lose electrons and move away from the metal plates
D dust particles lose protons and get attracted to the metal plates

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31 A negatively charged plastic rod is held near a stream of water coming from a
tap. Which picture shows the correct arrangement of charges in the water?

A B

rod rod

water water

C D

rod rod

water water

32 Two copper wires X and Y have the same volume. Wire Y is four times as long
as wire X.

L 4L

X Y

If the resistance of wire X is R, what is the resistance of wire Y?

A 4R B 8R
C 16R D 64R

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33 The circuits below show different arrangements of three identical resistors

between two points. The two points are connected to the same power supply.

Which arrangement will give the smallest effective resistance?

A B

C D

34 Three 120 Ω lamps, P, Q and R, are connected in parallel to a 240 V source.

240 V
6A
P

How much does it cost to use lamp R for 100 min if 1 kWh costs $0.33?

A $0.26 B $0.79
C $2.38 D $47.52

35 Which investigation can determine whether an object is a magnet?

A find out if it can deflect electric charges

B find out if it can deflect needle of a compass
C find out if it is a metal or non-metal
D find out if it is an insulator or conductor of electricity

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36 A steady current is passed through a solenoid. P, Q, R and S are four points

on the axis of the solenoid. Q and R are points inside the solenoid.

Which is a possible direction of the magnetic field due to the current?

P Q R S
A → ← ← →
B → ← → ←
C → → → →
D → → ← ←

37 The circuit diagram shows a circuit breaker.

reset button

arm spring
current out

pivot

current in

What material should the arm be made from?

A copper B iron
C plastic D steel

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38 An ideal transformer has a primary voltage of 600 V and a secondary voltage

of 240 V. The secondary coil is attached to a resistor of resistance 10 Ω.

primary coil secondary coil

600 V 240 V 10 Ω

What is the turn ratio and the current in the primary coil?

turn ratio primary current / A

A 0.4 9.6
B 0.4 24
C 2.5 0.25
D 2.5 60

39 What is the meaning of spontaneous decay?

A each nucleus has the same chance of decaying per unit time
B unable to predict the direction of emission
C unable to predict when a nucleus is going to decay
D unaffected by external factors such as temperature and pressure

40 A Geiger-Muller counter is placed in front of a radioactive isotope. The activity

recorded is 4100 counts/min. After 8 days, it becomes 1325 counts/min.

It was known that the background count is 400 counts/min. What is the
approximate half-life of the isotope?

A 2 days B 4 days
C 6 days D 8 days

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(b) (i) On Fig. 1.1, mark a point D when the object has increasing
deceleration. [1]

(ii) Using ideas about forces, explain why the object begins to slow
down from 10 s.

……………………………………………………………………………..

……………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………….. [2]

2 A ladder of weight 30 N is fixed to a wall at L. The weight of the ladder acts

through the mid-point of the ladder. The wall exerts a horizontal force F H and a
vertical force F V on the ladder at L.

FV

FH L

100 cm

30 N
O 90 cm

(a) (i) State what is meant by the moment of force.

……………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………….. [1]

(ii) Calculate the clockwise moment about O.

clockwise moments = ……………… [2]

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