DOC-20241206-WA0003

Youth Competition Times
ALL INDIA ENGINEERING SERVICES

AND PSU'S EXAMINATIONS
Electrical Engineering
VOLUME-2
Previous Years Chapterwise and
Sub-topicwise Objective Solved Papers
Useful for : UPPSC AE, UPSC ESE (Pre), UPSC JWM, UPPCL, UPRVUNL, UPJN AE, UKPSC AE,
BHEL ET, CIL MT, DMRC/LMRC AM, DSSSB AE, JUVNL AE, RRB SSE, SJVNL ET,
TSGENCO AE, Vizag Steel MT, UJVNL AE, PTCUL, ASSAM PSC, APPSC, AP TRANSCO
AE, BPSC, CGPSC, GPSC, Goa PSC, Haryana PSC, HPPSC, ISRO Scientist/Engineer, JPSC,
J&K PSC, Kerala PSC, Karnataka PSC, KPTCL AE, GESCOM AE, Maharashtra PSC, MP
PSC, Manipur PSC, Mizoram PSC, Odisha PSC, Punjab PSC, RPSC, TNPSC, TANGEDCO
AE, Tamilnadu TRB, Telangana PSC, WB PSC.
Chief Editor
A.K. Mahajan
Compiled by
Er. Pradeep Kumar
Edited by
Er. Anil Kumar, Er. Brijesh Kumar Dohare, Er. Santosh Kumar Yadav
Computer Graphics by
Balkrishna & Charan Singh, Anurag Panday
Editorial Office
Youth Competition Times
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Publisher Declaration :
Edited and Published by A.K. Mahajan for YCT Publications Pvt. Ltd.
and printed by Roop Printing Press, Prayagraj. In order to publish the book,
full care has been taken by the editor and the publisher,
still your suggestions and queries are welcomed. Rs. : 495/-
In the event of any dispute, the Judicial area will be Prayagraj.
ELETRICAL ENGINEERING
Chapterwise solved Papers
VOLUME -I
Network Theory
Electromagnetic Field Theory
Control System
Element of Electronics
Analog Electronics
Microwave and Communication System
Electrical Machine–I
Engineering Mathematics
System and Signal Processing
VOLUME - II
Power Electronics & Drives
Digital Electronics
Power System Analysis
Analog Communication Basics
Electrical Machine–II
Power System Protection and Switch Gear
Electrical & Electronics Measurements
Electrical Materials
Microprocessor & Computer Fundamentals
2
INDEX (VOLUME-II)
UPPSC Electrical AE Syllabus ........................................................................................... 5-8
UPPCL Electrical AE Syllabus ......................................................................................... 9-10
UPSC Electrical ESE Syllabus ........................................................................................ 11-12
ELECTRICAL AE, PSC & PSU's Previous Exam Papers Analysis Chart ................ 13-17
Trend Analysis of Previous Year Papers Through Bar Graph and Pie Chart ........... 18-18
Power Electronics & Drives .................................................................. 19-117
Power Semiconductor Devices .......................................................................................19
Diode rectifier .................................................................................................................54
Phase Controlled Rectifier ..............................................................................................70
Chopper...........................................................................................................................88
Inverters ........................................................................................................................101
Power Semiconductor Drives .......................................................................................113
Switched Mode Power Supply (SMPS) ........................................................................116
Digital Electronics ................................................................................ 118-178
Number System, Logic Gates & Switching Circuit ......................................................118
Combinational Logic Circuit ........................................................................................146
Sequential Logic Circuit ...............................................................................................150
Registers and Counters .................................................................................................158
A/D and D/A Converter ................................................................................................163
Basic of Filter Circuit ...................................................................................................172
Semiconductor Memories .............................................................................................174
Miscellaneous ...............................................................................................................176
Power System Analysis ........................................................................ 179-320
Generating Power Station .............................................................................................179
Performance of Transmission Line, Line Parameter & Corona ...................................207
Compensation Technique, Voltage Profile Control and Load Frequency Control.......246
Distribution System, Cables and Insulators ..................................................................251
Load Flow Studies ........................................................................................................274
Power System Stability .................................................................................................289
Optimal Power System Operation ................................................................................301
HVDC Transmission, FACTS and Recent Trends .......................................................305
Per Unit System ............................................................................................................313
Power System Transient and Travelling Wave.............................................................319
Analog Communication Basics ........................................................... 321-351
Modulation & Demodulation ........................................................................................321
Noise and Bandwidth Transmitter & Receiver .............................................................335
Digital Communication Basics .....................................................................................342
Sampling Quantizing ....................................................................................................347
FDM & TDM ................................................................................................................349
Transmission Line Audio & Ultra High Frequency .....................................................350
Electrical Machine–II .......................................................................... 352-480
Three Phase Induction Machine ...................................................................................352
AC Single Phase Induction Motor ................................................................................428
Special Type of Motor ..................................................................................................440
Synchronous Motor.......................................................................................................450
3
Power System Protection and Switch Gear ...................................... 481-557
Protection of Alternator ................................................................................................481
Protection of Power Transformer .................................................................................483
Protection of Feeder ......................................................................................................487
Protection of Motor.......................................................................................................489
Protection Against Over Voltage ..................................................................................490
Reactor ..........................................................................................................................494
SF6, CB, Gas Actuated Relay (Buchholz Relay) ..........................................................495
Fault Analysis, Fuses ....................................................................................................514
Protective Relay, Protective Scheme for Power System Equipment ............................536
Surge of Transmission Line ..........................................................................................550
Electrical & Electronics Measurements............................................. 558-678
Basic Method of Measurement .....................................................................................558
Measurement of Resistance ..........................................................................................577
AC Bridges ...................................................................................................................582
Galvanometer, Ammeter & Voltmeter .........................................................................601
Measurement Energy & Power .....................................................................................623
CRO and Frequency Measurement ...............................................................................645
Transducer & Sensor ....................................................................................................654
Instrument Transformer ................................................................................................669
Digital Meter, Electronic Element ................................................................................674
Miscellaneous ...............................................................................................................676
Electrical Materials .............................................................................. 679-709
Introduction to Engineering Material ...........................................................................679
Dielectric Properties of Material...................................................................................682
Magnetic Properties of Material ...................................................................................689
Conductive Material .....................................................................................................700
Semiconductor Material ................................................................................................704
Super Conductors ..........................................................................................................705
Miscellaneous ...............................................................................................................707
Microprocessor & Computer Fundamentals .................................... 710-752
Data Representation and Represent of Integer .............................................................710
Interrupts .......................................................................................................................720
Floating Point Number Organization............................................................................726
Programming of Microprocessor ..................................................................................726
ROM and RAM Memories ...........................................................................................735
CPU of a Microcomputer ..............................................................................................742
Interfacing Memory and I/O Devices ...........................................................................746
Programmable Peripheral and Communication Interface .............................................750
Application of Microprocessor .....................................................................................750
Note : Network Theory, Electromagnetic Field Theory, Control System, Element of Electronics,
Analog Electronics, Microwave and Communication System, Electrical Machine–I,
Engineering Mathematics, System and Signal Processing (Study Volume-I)
4
UPPSC
Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission
Government of UP, Prayagraj
Combined State Engineering Services
(General Recruitment/Special Recruitment)
Examination-2019
Post : Assistant Engineer 'AE'
[Pay scale: (` 15,600 – `39,100) Grade pay : ` 5400/-]
SI. Name of Name of Post Essential Qualification for No of
No. Department the Post Vacancies
1. Public Works Asstt. Engg. Essential–Must possess a 46
Deptt. (P.W.D) (Electrical/Mechanical) degree in Electrical
2, Mandi Parishad Asstt. Engg. Engineering as the case 05
(Electrical/Mechanical) may be, from an institution
3. Housing and Urban Asstt. Engg. or university recognized by 25
Planning Deptt. (Electrical/Mechanical) the Government or be a
4. Nagar Vikas Asstt. Engg. qualified Associate 06
Vibhag (Electrical/Mechanical) Member of the institution
5. Nagar Vikas Asstt. Engg. of Engineer (India) 19
Vibhag (Water)/'B' Category Electrical Engineering
Jalkal Engg. Branch, as the case may be.
6. Energy Department Asstt. Director, Preferential–A candidate 21
Electrical Security who has (i) served in the
7. Labour Deptt. Asstt. Engg. Territorial Army for a 13
(Factories) minimum period of two
8. Nagar Vikas Asstt. Engg. years, or (ii) obtained a "B" 18
Vibhag (Water)/'B' Category Certificate of N.C.C. or (iii) (SC/ST/OBC)
Jalkal Engg. Successfully completed one
9. Mandi Parishad Asstt. Engg. year training as trainee, 02
(Electrical/Mechanical) shall other things being (OBC)
equal, be given preference
in the matter of direct
recruitment. (iv) Working
knowledge of Hindi written
in Devnagri Script.
5
Examination Pattern and Syllabus
The following two objective type papers will be for the Combined State Engineering
Services Examination.
Paper-I
Subject No. of Questions Marks Total Marks Time
General Hindi 25 (Each 75

question of 3 375 2.30 Hours
marks)
Main Subject 100 (Each 300

(Electrical Engg.-1) question of 3
marks)
Paper-II
Subject No. of Questions Marks Total Marks Time
General Studies 25 (Each 75

question of 3 375 2.30 Hours
marks)
Main Subject 100 (Each 300

(Electrical Engg.-II) question of 3
marks)
Personal Examination (Interivew) – 100 Marks
Total – 375 + 375 + 100 = 850 Marks
SYLLABUS
General Hindi– Hindi syllabus will be made in such a way that the candidates understanding of
Hindi language and efficient use of words can be checked. Its level will be of high school.
General Studies– The question paper of General Studies will include information focusing on
current events and their scientific aspects of such things which come in everyday experience and
which can be expected from an educated person. The question paper will also included such
questions in the history, politics and geography of India, to which candidates will be able to
answer without special study.
6
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
Networks and Systems: Steady-state and Transient-state Analysis of systems, Thevenin's,
Norton's Superposition and Maximum Power Transfer-theorems, Driving point Transfer
functions, Two-port networks, Laplace and Fourier transforms and their applications in Network
analysis, Z-transforms for discrete systems, R-L, R-C & L-C network synthesis.
E.M. Theory: Analysis of electrostatic and magnetostatic fields, Laplace, Poission and Maxwell
equations, solution of boundry value problems, electromagnetic wave propagation, ground and
space waves, Propagation between Earth Station and Satellites.
Control systems: Mathematical modelling of dynamic linear continuous systems, Block
diagrams and Signal flow graphs, time-response specifications, steady-state error, Routh-Hurwitz
criterion, Nyquist techniques, Root Loci, Bode Plots, Polar Plot and stability analysis, Lag-,
Lead-, Lag-Lead-compensation, state-space modelling, state transition matrix, controllability and
observability.
Elements of Electronics: Basics of semiconductor diodes, BJT, FET and their characteristics,
different types of transistors and FET amplifiers equivalent circuits and frequency response,
feedback oscillators, colpitts oscillator and Hartley Oscillator, Operational amplifiers-
characteristics and applications.
Power System Analysis and Design: Line parameters and calculations, Performance of
Transmission lines, Mechanical design of overhead lines and Insulators, Corona and radio
interference Parameters of single- and three-core Cables, Bus admittance matrix, Load flow
equations and methods of solutions, Fast-decoupled load flow, Balance and Unbalanced-faults
analysis, Power system stability, Power system transients and traveling Waves, EHV
Transmission, HVDC transmission, Concepts of FACTS, Voltage Control and Economic
operation, Concepts of distributed generation, solar and wind power, smart grid concepts.
Elements of Electrical Machines: General concepts of E.m.f., m.m.f., and torque in rotating
machines, DC Machines: motor and generator characteristics, equivalent circuits, commutation
and Amature reaction, starting and speed controls of motors; Synchronous Machines:
performance, regulation, Parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and
applications, Transformers: phasor-diagram and equivalent circuit, efficiency and voltage
regulation, auto-transformers, 3-phasee transformers.
Measurement: Basic methods of measurement, Precision and standards, error analysis, Bridges
and Potentiometers; moving coil, moving iron, dynamometer and induction type instruments,
measurement of voltage, current, power, energy, and power factor, Instrument transformers,
digital voltmeters and multimeters, time and frequency measurement, Q-meters Oscilloscopes,
Basics of sensor, and data acquisition system, Instrumentation systems for pressure and
temperature measurements.
7
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
Power Electronics and Drives : Semiconductor, power, diodes, transistors, thyristors, triacs,
GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs static characteristics and principles of operation, triggering circuits
single phase and threephase controlled rectifiers-fully controlled and half controlled, smoothing
and filters regulated power supplies, DC-DC choppers and inverters, speed control circuits for
DC and A.C. drives, Basics of electric drives : types, quadrant operation, reversing and braking
of electric motors, estimation of power ratings, traction motors.
Digital Electronics : Boolean algebra, logic gates, combinational and sequencial logic circuits,
multiplexers, multivibrators, sample and hold circuits, A/D and D/A converters, basics of filter
circuits and applications, active filters, semiconductor memories.
Microwaves and Communication systems : Electromagnetic wave in guided media, wave
guide components, resonators, microwave tubes, microwave generators and amplifiers.
Analog Communication basics : Modulation and demodulation, noise and bandwidth,
transmitters and receivers, signal to noise ratio, digital communication basics, sampling,
quantizing, coding frequency and time-domain multiplexing, sound and vision broadcast,
antennas, transmission lines at audio and ultra high frequencies.
Induction and special Machines : Three-phase Induction motors Rotating magnetic field,
Torque-slip characteristics, Equivalent Circuit and determination of its parameters, starters,
speed control, Induction generators. Single phase Induction motors: Theory and phasor diagrams,
characteristics, starting and applications, repulsion motor, series motor: E.m.f. equation and
phasor diagram and performance, servomotors, stepper motors, reluctance motors, brushless DC
motors (BLDC).
Power system protection and Switch gear : Methods of Arc Extinction, Restriking voltages
and recovery voltage, testing of circuit breakers, Protective relays, protective schemes for power
system equipment, surges in transmission lines and protection.
Numerical Methods : Solution of non-liner algebraic equations, single and multistep methods
for solution of differential equations.
Electrical Engineering Materials : Crystal structure and defects, conducting, insulating and
magneting Materials, super-conductors.
Elements of Microprocessors : Data representation and representation of integer and floating
point-numbers. Organization and programming of a microprocessor, ROM and RAM memories
CPU of a microcomputer, interfacing memory and I/O devices, Programmable peripheral and
communication interface. Application of microprocessors.
8
Uttar Pradesh Power Corporation Limited (UPPCL) AE
SYLLABUS
SECTION-1 Theorems: Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Superposition
Engineering Mathematics and Maximum Power Transfer theorem;
Transient response of dc and ac networks,
Linear Algebra: Matrix Algebra, Systems of
sinusoidal steady-state analysis, resonance, two
linear equations, Eigenvalues, Eigenvectors.
port networks, balanced three phase circuits,
Calculus: Mean value theorems, Theorems of
star-delta transformation, complex power and
integral calculus, Evaluation of definite and
power factor in ac circuits.
improper integrals,
SECTION-3 : Electromagnetic Fields
Partial Derivatives, Maxima and minima,
Multiple integrals, Fourier series, Vector Coulomb's Law, Electric Field Intensity,
identities, Directional Electric Flux Density, Gauss's Law,
derivatives, Line integral, Surface integral, Divergence, Electric field and potential due to
Volume integral, Stokes’s theorem, Gauss’s point, line, plane and spherical charge
theorem, Divergence theorem, Green’s distributions, Effect of dielectric medium,
theorem. Capacitance of simple configurations, Biot-
Differential equations: First order equations Savart’s law, Ampere’s law, Curl, Faraday’s
(linear and nonlinear), Higher order linear law, Lorentz force, Inductance, Magnetomotive
differential equations with constant efficients, force, Reluctance, Magnetic circuits, Self and
Method of variation of parameters, Cauchy’s Mutual inductance of simple configurations.
equation, Euler’s equation, Initial and boundary SECTION-4 : Signals and Systems
value problems, Partial Differential Equations,
Representation of continuous and discrete time
Method of separation of variables.
signals, shifting and scaling properties, linear
Complex variables: Analytic functions,
Cauchy’s integral theorem, Cauchy’s integral time invariant and causal systems, Fourier
formula, Taylor series, Laurent series, Residue series representation of continuous and discrete
theorem, Solution integrals. time periodic signals, sampling theorem,
Probability and Statistics: Sampling theorems, Applications of Fourier Transform for
Conditional probability, Mean, Median, Mode, continuous and discrete time signals, Laplace
Standard Deviation, Random variables, Transform and Z transform.
Discrete and Continuous distributions, Poisson SECTION-5 : Electrical Machines
distribution, Normal distribution, Binomial
Single phase transformer: equivalent circuit,
distribution, Correlation analysis, Regression
phasor diagram, open circuit and short circuit
analysis.
tests, regulation and efficiency; Three-phase
SECTION-2 : Electric Circuits transformers: connections, vector groups,
Network elements: ideal voltage and current parallel operation; Auto-transformer,
sources, dependent sources, R, L, C, M Electromechanical energy conversion
elements; Network solution methods: KCL, principles; DC machines: separately excited,
KVL, Node and Mesh analysis; Network series and shunt, motoring and generating mode
9
of operation and their characteristics, speed space model, Solution of state equations of LTI
control of dc motors; Three-phase induction systems, R.M.S. value, average value
machines: principle of operation, types, calculation for any general periodic waveform.
performance, torque-speed characteristics, no- SECTION-8
load and blocked-rotor tests, equivalent circuit,
Electrical and Electronic Measurements
starting and speed control; Operating principle
of single-phase induction motors; Synchronous Bridges and Potentiometers, Measurement of
machines: cylindrical and salient pole voltage, current, power, energy and power
machines, performance and characteristics, factor; Instrument transformers, Digital
regulation and parallel operation of generators, voltmeters and multimeters, Phase, Time and
starting of synchronous motors; Types of losses Frequency measurement; Oscilloscopes, Error
and efficiency calculations of electric analysis.
machines. SECTION-9
SECTION-6 : Power Systems Analog and Digital Electronics
Basic concepts of electrical power generation,
Simple diode circuits: clipping, clamping,
ac and dc transmission concepts, Models and
rectifiers; Amplifiers: biasing, equivalent
performance of transmission lines and cables,
circuit and frequency response; oscillators and
Series and shunt compensation, Electric field feedback amplifiers; operational amplifiers:
distribution and insulators, Distribution characteristics and applications; single stage
systems, Per-unit quantities, Bus admittance active filters, Sallen Key, Butterworth, VCOs
matrix, Gauss- Seidel and Newton-Raphson and timers, combinatorial and sequential logic
load flow methods, Voltage and Frequency circuits, multiplexers, demultiplexers, Schmitt
control, Power factor correction, Symmetrical triggers, sample and hold circuits, A/D and D/A
components, Symmetrical and unsymmetrical converters.
fault analysis, Principles of over-current,
differential, directional and distance protection; SECTION-10 : Power Electronics
Circuit breakers, System stability concepts, Static V-I characteristics and firing/gating
Equal area criterion, Economic Load Dispatch circuits for Thyristor, MOSFET, IGBT; DC to
(with and without considering transmission DC conversion: Buck, Boost and Buck-Boost
losses). Converters; Single and three-phase
configuration of uncontrolled rectifiers;
SECTION-7 : Control Systems
Voltage and Current commutated Thyristor
Mathematical modeling and representation of based converters; Bidirectional ac to dc voltage
systems, Feedback principle, transfer function, source converters; Magnitude and Phase of line
Block diagrams and Signal flow graphs, current harmonics for uncontrolled and
Transient and Steady-state analysis of linear thyristor based converters; Power factor and
time invariant systems, Stability analysis using Distortion Factor of ac to dc converters; Single-
Routh-Hurwitz and Nyquist criteria, Bode phase and three-phase voltage and current
plots, Root loci, Lag, Lead and Lead-Lag source inverters, sinusoidal pulse width
compensators; P, PI and PID controllers; State modulation.
10
ENGINEERING SERVICES EXAMINATION
Recruitment on the results of this examination will be made to the Services/ Posts under the following
categories:-
Category I-Civil Engineering.
Category II-Mechanical Engineering.
Category III-Electrical Engineering.
Category IV-Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering.
Contents for syllabi of both the papers together for Preliminary/ Stage–I Examination (objective
type paper–II) and separately for Main/Stage–II Examination (Conventional type Paper–I and
Paper–II)
PAPER–I
1. Engineering Mathematics :
Matrix theory, Eigen values & Eigen vectors, system of linear equations, Numerical methods for
solution of non-linear algebraic equations and differential equations, integral calculus, partial
derivatives, maxima and minima, Line, Surface and Volume Integrals. Fourier series, linear, non-
linear and partial differential equations, initial and boundary value problems, complex variables,
Taylor's and Laurent's series, residue theorem, probability and statistics fundamentals, Sampling
theorem, random variables, Normal and Poissons distributions correlation and regression analysis.
2. Electrical Materials :
Electrical Engineering Materials, crystal structures and defects, ceramic materials, insulating
materials, magnetic materials– basics, properties and applications; ferrities, ferro–magnetic
materials and components; basics of solid state physics, conductors; Photo–conductivity; Basics of
Nano materials and Superconductors.
3. Electric Circuits and Fields :
Circuit elements, network graph, KCL, KVL, Node and Mesh analysis, ideal current and voltage
sources, Thevenin's, Norton's, Superposition and Maximum Power Transfer theorems, transient
response of DC and AC networks, Sinusoidal steady state analysis, basic filter concepts, two-port
networks, three phase circuits, Magnetically coupled circuits, Gauss Theorem, electric field and
potential due to point, line, plane and spherical charge distributions, Ampere's and Biot-Savart's
laws; inductance, dielectrics, capacitance; Maxwell's equations.
4. Electrical and Electronic Measurements :
Principles of measurement, accuracy, precision and standards; Bridges and potentiometers; moving
coil, moving iron, dynamometer and induction type instruments, measurement of voltage, current
power, energy and power factor, instrument transformers, digital voltmeters and multi-meters,
phase, time and frequency measurement, Q-meters, oscilloscopes, potentiometer recorders, error
analysis, Basics of sensors, Transducers, basics of data acquisition systems
5. Computer Fundamentals :
Number systems, Boolean algebra, arithmetic functions, Basic Architecture, Central Processing
Unit, I/O Memory Organisation; peripheral devices, data representation and programming, basics of
Operating system and networking, virtual memory, file systems; Elements of programming
languages, typical examples.
11
6. Basic Electronics Engineering :
Basics of semiconductors diodes and transistors and characteristics, Junction and field effect
transistors (BJT, FET and MOSFETS), different types of transistor amplifiers, equivalent circuits
and frequency response; oscillators and other circuits, feedback amplifiers.
PAPER–II
1. Analog and Digital Electronics :
Operational amplifiers– characteristics and applications, combinational and sequential logic
circuits, multiplexers, multi–vibrators, sample and hold circuits, A/D and D/A converters, basics of
filter circuits and applications, simple active filters; Microprocessor basics-interfaces and
applications, basics of linear integrated circuits; Analog communication basics, Modulation and de-
modulation, noise and bandwidth, transmitters and receivers, signal to noise ratio, digital
communication basics, sampling quantizing, coding, frequency and time domain multiplexing,
power line carrier communication systems.
2. Systems and Signal Processing :
Representation of continuous and discrete–time signals, shifting and scaling operations, linear,
time–invariant and causal systems, Fourier series representation of continuous periodic signals,
sampling theorem, Fourier and Laplace transforms, Z transforms, Discrete Fourier transform, FFT,
linear convolution, discrete cosine transform, FIR filter, IIR filter, bilinear transformation.
3. Control systems :
Principles of feedback, transfer function, block diagrams and signal flow graphs, steady-state
errors, transforms and their applications; Routh-hurwitz criterion, Nyquist techniques, Bode plots,
root loci, lag, lead and lead-lag compensation, stability analysis, transient and frequency response
analysis, state space model, state transition matrix, controllability and observability, linear state
variable feedback, PID and industrial controllers.
4. Electrical Machines :
Single phase transformers, three phase transformers– connections, parallel operation, auto–
transformer, energy conversion principles, DC machines–types, windings, generator characteristics,
armature reaction and commutation, starting and speed control of motors, Induction motors–
principles, types performance characteristics, starting and speed control, Synchronous machines -
performance, regulation, parallel operation of generators, motor starting, characteristics and
applications, servo and stepper motors.
5. Power Systems :
Basic power generation concepts, steam, gas and water turbines, transmission line models and
performance, cable performance, insulation, corona and radio interference, power factor correction,
symmetrical components, fault analysis, principles of protection systems, basics of solid state relays
state relays and digital protection; Circuit breaker, Radial and ring-main distribution systems,
Matrix representation of power systems, load flow analysis, voltage control and economic
operation, System stability concepts, Swing curves and equal area criterion. HVDC transmission
and FACTS concepts, Concepts of power system dynamics, distributed generation solar and wind
power, smart grid concepts, environmental implications, fundamentals of power economics.
6. Power Electronics and Drives :
Semiconductor power diodes, transistors, thyristors, triacs, GTOs, MOSFETs and IGBTs – static
characteristics and principles of operation, triggering circuits, phase control rectifiers, bridge
converters– fully controlled and half controlled, principles of choppers and inverters, basic concepts
of adjustable speed DC and AC drives, DC-DC switched mode converters, DC-AC switched mode
converters, resonant converters, high frequency inductors and transformer, power supplies.
12
ELECTRICAL, PSC & PSUS PREVIOUS EXAM PAPERS ANALYSIS CHART
Sl Proposed Total
Exam Question Paper
No. Year Question
Union Public Service Commission
1. UPSC ESE 2020 1×150 150
2. UPSC ESE 2019 1×150 150
3. UPSC ESE 2018 1×150 150
4. UPSC ESE 2017 1×150 150
5. UPSC ESE 1992-2016 2000
6. UPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2019 1×100 100
7. UPSC JWM 2017 1×100 100
Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission
8. UPPSC AE (Paper -I) 2011 1×100 100
9. UPPSC AE (Paper -II) 2011 1×100 100
10. UPPSC AE (Paper -I) 2008 1×100 100
Uttar Pradesh Power Corporation Limited
11. UPPCL AE 04.11.2019 Shift - I 2019 1×150 150
12. UPPCL AE 04.11.2019 Shift - II 2019 1×150 150
13. UPPCL AE 01.01.2019 Shift - I 2019 1×150 150
14. UPPCL AE 01.01.2019 Shift - II 2019 1×150 150
15. UPPCL AE 30.12.2016 2016 1×150 150
UPPCL AE 12.11.2016 (Exam 1×150 150
16. 2016
Cancelled)
17. UPPCL AE 18.05.2016 2016 1×150 150
18. UPPCL AE 2015 1×150 150
19. UPPCL AE 2014 1×150 150
20. UPPCL AE 2013 1×150 150
Uttar Pradesh Rajya Vidyut Utpadan Nigam Limited
21. UPRVUNL AE (UPJVNL) 2016 1×150 150
22. UPRVUNL AE 2016 1×150 150
23. UPRVUNL AE 2014 1×150 150
UP Jal Nigam
24. UP Jal Nigam AE 2016 1×25 25
Uttarakhand Public Service Commission
25. UKPSC AE (Paper I) 2013 1×180 180
26. UKPSC AE (Paper II) 2013 1×180 180
27. UKPSC AE (Paper I) 2012 1×200 200
13
28. UKPSC AE (Paper II) 2012 1×200 200
29. UKPSC AE (Paper I) 2007 1×200 200
30. UKPSC AE (Paper II) 2007 1×200 200
UJVNL/PTCUL Uttarakhand
31. UJVNL AE 2016 1×126 126
32. PTCUL AE 2016 1×126 126
33. PTCUL AE 2012 1×126 126
Andhra Pradesh PSC
34. APPSC Poly. Lect. 2020 1×150 150
35. APPSC AEE 2019 1×100 100
AP TRANSCO/APGENCO
36. AP TRANSCO AE 2019 1×70 70
37. AP TRANSCO AE 2012 1×100 100
38. AP TRANSCO AE 2011 1×70 70
39. AP GENCO AE 2012 1×70 70
40. AP SPDCL AE 2012 1×100 100
Assam PSC
41. Assam PSC (CCE) 2015 1×100 100
Airports Authority Of India
42. AAI Jr. Executive 2016 1×84 84
Bihar Public Service Commission
43. BPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2016 1×60 60
44. BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015 1×60 60
45. BPSC AE (Paper V) 2012 1×50 50
46. BPSC AE (Paper VI) 2012 1×50 50
BHEL
47. BHEL ET 2019 1×120 120
Chhattisgarh PSC
48. CGPSC AE 2017 1×150 150
49. CGPSC AE Shift - I 2014 1×150 150
50. CGPSC AE Shift - II 2014 1×150 150
Coal India Ltd
51. CIL MT 2020 1×100 100
52. CIL MT 2017 1×100 100
DMRC/LMRC AM
53. DMRC AM 2020 1×90 90
54. DMRC AM 2018 1×90 90
14
55. DMRC AM 2016 1×90 90
56. LMRC AM 2020 1×90 90
57. LMRC AM 2018 1×90 90
58. LMRC AM 2015 75 70
Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board
59. DSSSB AE 2019 1×100 100
Gujarat Public Service Commission
60. Gujarat PSC AE 2020 2020 1×100 100
61. Gujarat PSC Poly. Lect. 2016 1×200 200
Goa PSC
62. Goa PSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2019 1×15 15
Himachal Pradesh PSC
63. HPPSC AE Shift-I 2019 1×80 80
64. HPPSC AE Shift-II 2019 1×80 80
65. HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (T.E.) 2017 1×100 100
66. HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (T.E.) 2016 1×100 100
Haryana PSC
67. Haryana PSC Civil Services Pre. 2014 1×100 100
ISRO Scientist
68. ISRO 2020 1×80 80
69. ISRO 2019 1×80 80
70. ISRO 2018 1×80 80
71. ISRO 2017 1×80 80
72. ISRO 2015 1×80 80
73. ISRO 2014 1×80 80
74. ISRO 2013 1×80 80
Jharkhand PSC
75. JPSC AE (Paper V) 2013 1×50 50
76. JPSC AE (Paper VI) 2013 1×50 50
JUVNL AE Jharkhand
77. JUVNL AE (Shit I) 2017 1×75 75
78. JUVNL AE (Shit II) 2017 1×75 75
79. JUVNL AE (Shit III) 2017 1×75 75
KERALA PSC
80. KPSC AE (PWD /Irrigation) 2014 1×100 100
81. KPSC Asst. Electrical Inspector 2014 1×100 100
15
KARNATAKA PSC
82. Karnataka PSC AE (Municipal) 2017 1×100 100
83. Karnataka PSC AE (Municipal) 2016 1×100 100
KPTCL /GESCOM KARNATAKA
84. KPTCL AE 2016 1×100 100
85. KPTCL AE 2015 1×75 75
86. GESCOM AE 2011 1×75 75
Maharastra Public Service Commission
87. MPSC (Mains) PAPER-I 2019 1×100 100
88. MPSC (Mains) PAPER-II 2019 1×100 100
89. MPSC (Mains) PAPER-I 2018 1×100 100
90. MPSC (Mains) PAPER-II 2018 1×100 100
M.P. Public Service Commission
91. MPPSC AE 2017 1×100 100
92. MPPSC AE 2016 1×100 100
93. MPPSC AE 2014 1×100 100
Mizoram
94. Mizoram PSC AE 2016 1×100 100
Rajasthan Public Service Commission
95. RPSC AE 2018 1×100 100
96. RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 1×100 100
97. RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2012 1×100 100
98. Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE Shift I 2016 1×84 84
99. Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE Shift II 2016 1×84 84
100. Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE Shift III 2016 1×84 84
101. RPSC Inspector of factories 2011 1×100 100
Odisha Public Service Commission
102. OPSC AEE Paper- I 2015 1×90 90
103. OPSC AEE Paper- II 2015 1×90 90
OMC (Odisha)
104. OMC Dy. Manager 2019 1×80 80
Punjab Public Service Commission
105. PPSC SDE 2017 1×100 100
106. PSPCL AE 2012 1×60 60
RRB SSE
107. RRB SSE 01 September 2015 Shift-I 2015 1×21 21
108. RRB SSE 01 September 2015 Shift-II 2015 1×22 22
109. RRB SSE 01 September 2015 Shift-III 2015 1×20 21
16
116. RRB SSE (SET GREEN) 2014 1×20 20
117. RRB SSE (SET YELLOW) 2014 1×20 20
118. RRB SSE (SET RED) 2014 1×20 20
SJVNL
119. SJVNL ET 2019 1×120 120
Tamilnadu PSC
120. TNPSC AE 2019 1×200 200
121. TNPSC AE 2018 1×200 200
122. TNEB Limited (TANGEDCO) AE 2018 1×80 80
123. TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 1×150 150
Telangana PSC
124. TSTRANSCO AE 2018 1×80 80
125. TSPSC AEE 2017 1×150 150
Vizag Steel
126. Vizag Steel MT 2017 1×100 100
127. Vizag Steel MT 2013 1×100 100
128. Vizag Steel MT 2012 1×100 100
129. Vizag Steel MT 2011 1×100 100
West Bengal PSC
130. WBPSC AE 2017 1×200 200
131. WBPSC AE 2012 1×100 100
132. WBPSC AE 2009 1×100 100
133. WBPSC AE 2008 1×100 100
134. WBPSC AE 2007 1×100 100
135. WBPSC AE 2003 1×100 100
136. WBSETCL AE 2016 1×60 60
Total 15,660
Note : After detailed analysis of the above 136 Question papers of Union and States
Engineering Services Examination related to Electrial Engineering 15660 Question
have been presented chapter wise.
Questions of repetitive and similar nature have been included so that the technique of
asking questions can benefit the competitors.
17
Trend Analysis of Previous Year Electrical AE &
PSU's Papers Through Bar Graph and Pie Chart
18
01.
Power Electronics & Drives
Ans. (b) : The snubber circuit is one type of dv/dt
(i) Power Semiconductor Devices protection circuit of thyristor hence
dv
limit are use in
dt
1. Due to low internal generation in GTO, the snubber circuit.
GTO has Series reactor are used as current limiting device
(a) Lower latching current hence di/dt limit are use in series reactor.
(b) Lower holding current i2 t limit is use to protect fuse.
(c) Lower latching and holding current Junction temperature limit used in heat sink.
(d) Higher latching and holding current 4. Ripple factor of a diode rectifier is:
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019 V V
Ans. (d) : During the turn on, GTO is similar to (a) dc (b) rms
Vac Vdc
thyristor in its operates. Latching current and forward
leakage current are considerably higher in GTO V V
compare to the thyristor. The gate drive can be remove (c) ac (d) max
Vdc Vrms
if the anode current above the holding current level. But TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
it is recommended not to remove the positive gate drive
during conduction and hold at value more than Vac
maximum critical gate current. This causes the anode Ans. (c) : Ripple factor of a diode rectifier =
Vdc
current dips below the holding current. Vac = RMS value of output voltage
2. An SCR is considered to be a semi-controlled Vdc = Avg value of output voltage
device because :–
(a) It can be turned OFF but not ON with a gate form factor = R.F2 − 1
pulse. 2
V 
(b) It conducts only during one half cycle of =  ac  − 1
alternating current wave.  Vdc 
(c) It can be turned ON but not OFF with a gate 5. The latching current in the circuit shown below
pulse. is 4 mA. The minimum width of the gate pulse
(d) It can be turned ON only during one half required to turn on the thyristor is
cycle of an alternating voltage wave.
WBSE TCL AE 2016
GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans. (c) : Silicon Controlled Rectifier (SCR) is
considered to be semi-controlled device because its
turn-on can be controlled by gate-pulse signal but its
turn-off can not be controlled by the gate-pulse. (a) 6 µ sec (b) 4 µ sec
3. Match List-I (SCR Rating) with List-II (c) 2 µ sec (d) 1 µ sec
(Protective Element) and select the correct RPSC AE 2018
answer using the codes given below the lists: UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
List-I (SCR raging) List-II (protective Ans. (b) : The circuit equation is,
element)  di 
dv 1. series reactor  V = L dt 
A. limit i = latching current
dt
t = pulse width
di 2. heat sink
B. limit L
dt or, dt = di
V
C. i2t limit 3. snubber Integrating on both sides, we get
D. Junction 4. HRC Fuse L
Temperature ∫ ∫
dt =
V
di
limit L
A B C D A B C D t= i
V
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 3 1 4 2
0.1
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 2 3 1 or, tmin = × 4 × 10−3 = 4 µ sec
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 100
AE Electrical Engg. Volume II 19 YCT

6. A cyclo-converter is operating on a 50Hz 10. The following figure shows a composite switch
supply. The range of output frequency that can consisting of a power transistor (BJT) in series
be obtained with acceptable quality, is- with a diode. Assuming that the transistor
(a) 0-16 Hz (b) 0-132 Hz switch and the diode are ideal, the I-V
characteristic of the composite switch is
(c) 0-64 Hz (d) 0-128 Hz
RPSC AE 2018
ESE 2001
Ans : (b) A cyclo-converter is operating on a 50Hz
supply. The range of output frequency that can be
obtained with acceptable quality, is 0-132 Hz. Cyclo- (a) (b)
converter is a device which converts input power at one
frequency to output power at different frequency with
one stage conversion.
7. A thyristor has internal power dissipation of
40W and is operated at an ambient (c) (d)
temperature of 200C. If thermal resistance is
1.60 C/W, the junction temperature is- TANGEDCO AE 2018
(a) 114 0C (b) 164 0C Ans. (c) :
0
(c) 94 C (d) 84 0C
RPSC AE 2018
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d) Given internal power dissipation, PD = 40W
Ambient temperature, TA= 200C Thermal resistance, Ideal BJT characteristic will be
Q = 1.60 C/W junction temperature, Tj = ?
T − TA
PD = j (Using formula)
Q
Tj − 20 also diode will give reverse blocking capacity
40 = So new characteristic will be
1.6
Tj = 840C
8. A Zener diode has a break down voltage of 9V
and maximum power dissipation of 360 mW.
The maximum current the diode can handle is
(a) 20 mA (b) 30 mA 11. A TRIAC is arranged to allow the diode switch
(c) 35 mA (d) 40 mA to be triggered in conformity with whether or
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I non-anode is positive or negative by
Ans. (d) : Given, maximum power dissipation = 360 mW (a) positive gate pulse
(b) negative gate pulse
Break down voltage = 9V.
(c) either positive or negative gate pulse
So, the maximum current that the given zener diode can
(d) sinusoidal waveform
handle is–
WBPSC AE 2003
P
Imax = max Ans. (c) :
Vmax 12. After the application of input, the time taken
360 × 10−3 by output to show the change in state is called–
Imax = (a) Transmission time (b) Propagation delay
9
(c) State changing time (d) Recovery time
Imax = 40mA UPPCL AE 2013
9. A resistance connected across the gate and the Ans. (b) : After the application of input, the time taken
cathode of a SCR is to by output to show the change in state is called
propagation delay.
(a) increase holding current of SCR
13. The anode current through a conducting SCR
(b) decrease noise immunity of SCR
is 12 A. If its gate current is made one-third,
(c) increase turn-off time of SCR then what will be the anode current?
(d) increase dv/dt rating of SCR (a) zero (b) 4 A
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I (c) 9 A (d) 12 A
Ans. (d) : A resistance connected across the gate and BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
the cathode of a SCR is to increase dv/dt rating of SCR. Ans. (d) :
di Ans. (c) GTO is type of thyristor in which both turned
14. To reduce by the use of R-C snubber, it is ON and turned OFF is controlled by gate terminal.
dt
used
(a) in parallel with the thyristor
(b) in series with the thyristor
(c) either in parallel or in series with the thyristor
(d) neither in series nor in parallel with the
thyristor
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 20. Identify the device which has high accuracy of
Ans. (a) : compensation and noise level is very low.
15. A series dissipative regulator is a type of (a) Synchronous condenser
(a) Linear regulator (b) Saturable reactor
(b) Switching regulator (c) SCCR
(c) Shunt regulator (d) FCCR
(d) Dc-to-Dc converter UPRVUNL AE 2014
UPRVUNL AE 2014 Ans. (c) SCCR have high accuracy of compensation
Ans. (a) Series dissipative is an example of linear and noise level is very low.
regulator, i.e. it is type of linear regulator. 21. In SCR, if gate current is made half, how will it
affect anode current?
16. Identify the unipolar device among the
following. (a) Anode current will be halved
(a) P-N junction diode (b) Anode current will get doubled
(c) Gate current have no affect on anode current
(b) Zener diode
(d) Anode current will become 0
(c) Tunnel diode
UPRVUNL AE 2014
(d) Schottky diode
Ans. (c) In SCR if gate current is half, there is no affect
UPRVUNL AE 2014
on anode current every SCR have gate current rating.
Ans. (d) Schottky diode is unipolar device as it formed
22. Match the following
junction with metal. In schottky diode electron is
majority carrier on both side so it is unipolar device. List–I (Devices)
A) Triac
17. SCR is a switch of which of the following
B) Reverse conducting thyristor
kinds?
C) Diac
(a) DC switch
List–II (Monolithic construction of )
(b) AC switch
1) Two SCRs in anti parallel
(c) Square wave switch
2) A thyristor and a diode in anti parallel
(d) Rectangular wave switch 3) Two diodes in anti parallel
UPRVUNL AE 2014 (a) A-1, B-2, C-3 (b) A-2, B-1, C-3
Ans. (a) SCR is called as DC kind switch as one of (c) A-1, B-3, C-2 (d) A-3, B-2, C-1
advantage of using thyristor as switch in DC circuit is UPRVUNL AE 2014
that it has very high current gain, as thyristor is current
Ans. (a) Triac– Two SCRs in antiparallel
controlled device because small gate current can control
Reverse conducting thyristor– A thyristor and diode in
a much larger anode current.
antiparallel.
18. Which of the following condition must be used Diac– Two diode in anti parallel.
for avoiding local hot spots in SCR?
23. Why does an SCR fail to turn off even when it
(a) Applying a reverse voltage across SCR is in conducting mode and a reverse voltage is
(b) Applying anode current below holding current applied between anode and cathode?
(c) Using low (di/dt) value (a) Positive voltage is applied to the gate
(d) Applying higher gate current during turn on (b) The reverse voltage is small
time. (c) The anode current is more than the holding
UPRVUNL AE 2014 current
Ans. (b) For avoiding local hot spot in SCR we can (d) Turn off time of SCR is large.
apply anode current below holding current. UPRVUNL AE 2014
19. GTO is an example of Ans. (c) SCR fail to turn off even when it is in
(a) A Diode (b) A Transistor conducting mode and a reverse voltage is applied
(c) A Thyristor (d) A Resistor between anode and cathode the anode current is more
UPRVUNL AE 2014 than the holding current.

24. Which of the following statements is correct? 28. TRIAC is equivalent to :
I) A voltage source inverter (VSI) is (a) Two SCRs connected parallel
employed when source inductance is (b) Two SCRs connected in antiparallel
small and load inductance is large (c) One SCR and one diode connected in parallel
II) IGBT is a unipolar device.
(d) None of these
III) A current source inverter is obtained by
inserting a large inductance in series with UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
DC supply. TNPSC AE 2018
(a) I and II (b) I and III PTCUL AE 2016
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III Ans. (b) : TRIAC is equivalent to two separate SCRs
UPRVUNL AE 2014 connected in inverse parallel (i.e. anode of each
Ans. (b) I and III are correct connected to the cathode of the other) with gates
– A voltage source inverter (VSI) is employed when commoned as shown fig. (i).
source inductance is small and load inductance is large.
–A current source inverter is obtained by inserting a
large inductance in series with DC supply.
25. In SCR, surge current is
(a) Repetitive current with sine wave
(b) Non–repetitive current with rectangular wave
(c) Non repetitive current with sine wave
(d) Repetitive current with rectangular wave
UPRVUNL AE 2014
Ans. (c) Surge current it specifies the maximum
allowable non repetitive current with sine wave.
26. Turn-on time of an SCR in series with RL
circuit can be reduced by:
(a) Increasing circuit resistance R
(b) Decreasing R 29. An SCR triggered by current pulse applied to
(c) Increasing circuit inductance L gate-cathode can be turned OFF
(d) Decreasing L (a) By applying a pulse to cathode
TSPSC AEE 2017 (b) By applying a pulse to the anode
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 (c) By applying another pulse of opposite
Ans. (d) : • By increasing the value of load inductance polarity to the gate-cathode
the minimum pulse width required to turn-on the SCR is (d) By reversing the polarity of the anode and
also increased and vice-versa. cathode voltage
• By increasing the value of resistance connected in TNPSC AE 2018
series with inductive load, the minimum gate current ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
width require is constant.
Ans. (d) : Since, SCR is a semi-controlled device, it can
So, Turn-on time of an SCR in series with RL load can be turned ON by gate pulse but cannot be turned OFF
be reduced by decreasing L.
by gate current of opposite polarity. Hence we have to
27. For an UJT employed for the triggering of an reverse bias the device to turn it OFF. Also it’s anode
SCR, stand-off ratio η = 0.64 and dc source current has to be brought below holding current.
voltage VBB is 20V. The UJT would trigger
when the emitter voltage is: 30. Turn-ON and Turn-OFF times of transistor
(a) 12.8 V (b) 13.1 V depend on
(c) 10 V (d) 5 V (a) Static charges (b) Junction capacitance
TSPSC AEE 2017 (c) Current gain (d) Source inductance
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : EBB = VT + ηVBB ESE 2003
= 0.3 + 0.64 × 20 Ans. (b) : Turn-ON and Turn-Off times of transistor
= 13.1 volts depend on junction capacitance.
EBB = emitter voltage 31. A power diode is in the forward conduction
VT = Threshold voltage mode and the forward current is now
For Ge– decreased. The reverse recovery time of the
V1 = 0.3 V diode is trr and the rate of fall of diode current
η = stand-off ratio  di 
is   . What is the stored charge
VBB = dc source voltage  dt 
33. When commutation is obtained by increasing
the current density at the leading edge and
decreasing the same at trailing edge, it is
known as
(a) under commutation
 di  1  di  2 (b) over commutation
(a)   t rr (b)   t rr (c) straight commutation
 dt  2  dt 
2
(d) sinusoidal commutation
 di  1  di  Vizag Steel MT 2012
(c)   t rr2 (d)   t rr
 dt  2  dt  Ans. (b) : Over commutation occurs when the emf
TNPSC AE 2019 induced in the coil during commutation causes the
ESE 2004 current reversal to take place before the brush contacts
the adjacent segment. In this case, the current density at
Ans. (b) : Reverse recovery charge Qrr is amount of
the leading edge increases and decreases the same at
charge carrier that flows across diode in reverse trailing edge.
direction due to the change of state from forward
conduction to reverse blocking condition. 34. A Zener diode is used for
(a) Voltage Regulation (b) Rectification
1 1  (c) Noise Suppression (d) Blocking A.C
Q RR =  I RR t1 + I RR t 2 
2 2  RPSC VPITI 2018
1 UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
= I RR t RR UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
2
di Ans : (a) Zener diode is designed to work in
I RR = ta [tb << ta → ta ≈ trr] breakdown region reverse bias characterstics of Zener
dt diode is similar to normal diode. Zener diode is used
1 di for voltage regulation. Zener Diode is nothing but a
∴ Q RR = . t 2rr
2 dt single Diode connected in a reverse bias.
32. The four-quadrant dual operation requires Symbol-
(a) Two full converters in series
(b) Two full converters connected back to back In the V-I characteristic above Vz is the Zener voltage
(c) Two full converters connected in parallel is also known as the knee voltage because at this point
(d) Two semi converters connected back to back the current increases very rapidly.
CIL MT 2020 35. A cycloconverter operates on a 50 Hz supply. A
TNPSC AE 2019 typical range of output frequency is
TSPSC AEE 2017 (a) 0-100 Hz (b) 0-50 Hz
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 (c) 0-30 Hz (d) 0 Hz
Ans. (b) : The four quadrant dual operation required PTCUL AE 2012
two full converters connected back-to-back. Ans. (c) : The output frequency can be varied from
One of the convertor works as a rectifier (Converts AC 0–30 Hz input frequency.
to DC), another half works as an inverter (converts DC 36. IGBT posses
to AC) and are connected to a DC load. Here two (a) low input impedance
conversion process take place simultaneously, so it is (b) high input impedance
called as a dual converter. (c) high on-state resistance
(d) second breakdown problem
WBPSC AE 2017
Ans. (b) :
37. Consider the following statements regarding
advantages of power electronics converters:
1. Increase efficiency of power converter due to
less loss in power semiconductor devices

2. Low reliability of power converter based 44. In reverse blocking mode of a SCR:
system (a) J1, J2 and J3 are reversed biased
3. Life period of power converter circuit is long (b) J1 and J2 are forward biased but J3 is reverse
4. The size and weight of power electronics is biased
less. Hence the installation cost is low (c) J1 and J3 are reverse biased but J2 is forward
Which of the above statement are correct? biased
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) J1 is forward biased while J2 and J3 are
reverse biased
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
Ans. (c) : In reverse blocking mode
Ans. (b) :
38. In a GTO the n layer forms the:
(a) Anode and Gate (b) Cathode and Gate
(c) Cathode (d) Gate
Ans. (c) :
39. For an SCR which of the following increases
when a resistor is connected across its gate and
cathode?
(a) dv/dt rating of SCR
(b) Holding current of SCR J1 → Reverse bias
(c) Noise immunity of SCR J2 → forward bias
(d) Turn off time of SCR J3 → Reverse bias
UPRVUNL AE 2014 45. For medium power applications, which of the
Ans. (c) If resistor is connected across its gate and following is/are used in chopper?
cathode, noise immunity of SCR increases. 1. IGBT
2. GTO
40. The GTO can be turned off by:
3. MOSFET
(a) Positive gate signal 4. SCR
(b) Negative gate signal (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) Negative anode and cathode voltage (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4/2
(d) Removing gate signal UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 Ans. (a) : For medium power application IGBT, GTO
Ans. (b) : are used.
41. Which terminal does not belong to thyristors?
(a) Anode (b) Cathode
(c) Gate (d) Base
Ans. (d) :
42. Zener diode is usually operated
(a) in forward bias mode
(b) in reverse bias mode
(c) in forward linear region
(d) near cut-in voltage
WBPSC AE 2012
Ans. (b) :
46. Voltage triggered device(s) is/are:
43. In high di/dt protection technique of a i. TRIAC
thyristor: ii. MOSFET
(a) An inductor is connected in series with SCR iii. GTO
(b) Snubber circuit is provided across SCR Out of these:
(c) Heat sink is provided in SCR (a) i and ii are correct (b) only ii is correct
(d) Varistor is connected across SCR (c) i and iii are correct (d) none is correct
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
Ans. (a) : For limiting high di/dt in the thyristor Ans. (b) : MOSFET is only voltage triggered device as
inductor is added in series with SCR. As inductor MOSFET is voltage controlled device depends on VGS
opposes the sudden change in current. and TRIAC and GTO are current controlled device.
47. Match the following– 51. Circuit turn-off time of an SCR is defined as
1. Rectifier. a. Powerelctronic, Motor the time:
speed control, Battery (a) Taken by the SCR to turn off
charging, phase control (b) For which the SCR is reverse biased by the
2. Transistor b. Rectifiers, Wave dipper commutation circuit
circuits (c) Required for the SCR current to become zero
3. SCR c. Amplifiers, Switches (d) For which the SCR is reverse biased to reduce
(RRB SSE Secunderabad Green paper, 21.12.2014) its current below the holding current
(a) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b (b) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
(c) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a (d) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 –b Ans. (b) : Circuit turn-off time on SCR is defined as the
Ans : (c) time for which the SCR is reverse biased by the
1. Rectifier– b. Rectifier is wave dipper circuit, which commutation circuit.
converts A.C. current into D.C. 52. For a UJT, VBB = 20 V, η = 0.65, RB1 = 2 KΩ
2. Transistor– c. Used in amplifiers and switches and RB2 = 1080 Ω, then VP will be:
3. SCR– a. Power electronic, motor speed control, (a) 13.7 V (b) 12.2 V
battery charging, phase control. (c) 10.6 V (d) 11.4 V
48. During forward blocking of two series- JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
connected SCRs, a thyristor with Ans. (a) : Vs = ηVBB
1. high leakage impedance shares lower voltage = 0.65 × 20
2. high leakage impedance shares higher = 13 Volt
voltage Vp = VT + VS
3. low leakage impedance shares higher voltage = 0.7+13
4. low leakage impedance shares lower voltage = 13.7 V
From these, the correct statements are: 53. In Class D commutation circuit, the battery
(a) 2, 3 (b) 2, 4 voltage E = 50 V, maximum load current IL =
(c) 1, 4 (d) 1, 4 50 A & turn of time of SCR is 45 µsec. The
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 capacitor value will be
Ans. (b) : During forward blocking of two series (a) 20 µF (b) 45 µF
connected SCR, a thyristor with high leakage (c) 15 µF (d) 35 µF
impedance shares higher voltage and low leakage JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
impedance shares lower voltage. Ans. (b) : Circuit turn-off time for main thyristor (T1)
49. A single phase voltage controller, using two V
tc =C s
SCRs in antiparallel, is found to be operating I0
as a controlled rectifier. This is because:
(a) Load is RL and pulse gating in used t c I0 45 × 10−6 × 50
C= =
(b) Load is R and pulse gating is used Vs 50
(c) Load is RL and continuous gating is used C = 45 µF
(d) Load is R and high-frequency carrier gating is 54. In Silicon Controlled Rectifier the holding
used current is:
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 (a) double to the latching current
Ans. (a) : Single phase voltage controller, using two (b) equal to the latching current
SCR in antiparallel is found to be operating as a (c) smaller than the latching current
controlled rectifier, this is because load is RL and pulse (d) greater than the latching current
getting is used. JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
50. In the commutation circuit employed to turn- Ans. (c) : Latching current is related to turn-on process
off an SCR, satisfactory turn-off is obtained and holding current is related to turn-off process.
when: IL > IH
(a) Circuit turn-off time > device turn-off time 55. An SCR having equivalent capacitance of the
(b) Circuit time constant < device turn-off time reverse biased junction as 50 pico Farad, can
(c) Circuit turn-off time< device turn-off time be fired with a dv/dt of 200V/micro sec. What
(d) Circuit time constant>device turn-off time will be the value of capacitive current flowing
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 through the junction?
(a) 5 mA (b) 1 mA
Ans. (a) : In the commutation circuit employed to turn-
off an SCR, satisfactory turn-off is obtained when (c) 20 mA (d) 10 mA
circuit turn off time > device turn off time. Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I

Ans. (d) : Given, C = 50 × 10 –12 F, Ans. (c) : Given stand-off ratio (η) = 0.75
dv VBB = 20 volts
= 200V / µ sec = 200 ×106 V / sec ∴ UJT will trigger when the emitter voltage is
dt
Current flowing through capacitor at the junction- VP = ηVBB
dv = 0.75 × 20 = 15 volts
Ic = C 60. The value of the break-over voltage for the
dt
commonly used DIAC is about
dv (a) 95 V (b) 32 V
Ic = C = 50 × 10−12 × 200 × 106 = 0.01A
dt (c) 56 V (d) 18 V
IC = 10 mA Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
56. For circulating current mode operation of dual Ans. (b) : The DIAC (diode for alternating current) is a
converter diode that conducts electrical current only after its
(a) 2nd bridge is gated after a small time interval break-over voltage, VBO, has been reached momentarily.
of the 1st one is gated Most DIACs have a three-layer structure with break-
over voltage of approximately 30V.
(b) Only one bridge is gated at a time
61. A DIAC-TRIAC built in the same chip is called a
(c) 1st bridge is turned off before the 2nd bridge
(a) Triode (b) Cyclotron
is gated
(c) Quadrac (d) Thyratron
(d) Both the bridges are gated simultaneously
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
Ans. (c) : Quadrac are a special type of thyrsitor which
Ans. (d) : For circulating current mode operation of combines a "diac" and a "triac" in a single package. The
dual converter both the bridges are gated diac is the triggering device for the triac.
simultaneously. Circulating current also known as low Quadracs are used in lighting control, speed control and
frequency circulating current generates when the temperature modulation control application.
parallel inverter modules are slightly out of phase or 62. In which of the following waveforms is RMS
have different voltage amplitude. voltage equal to the average voltage?
57. In a.c. voltage regulator with R-L load (a) Triangle wave (b) Square wave
(a) the current leads the voltage (c) Sine wave (d) None of these
(b) current will lead or lag the voltage depending KPTCL AE 2015
on the L/R ratio Ans. (b) : For square wave the RMS is voltage equal to
(c) the voltage lags the current the average voltage.
(d) the voltage leads the current 63. What is crest factor (peak factor)?
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I (a) It is the ratio of the maximum amplitude to
average value
Ans. (d) : In ac voltage regulator with R-L load, the
(b) It is the ratio of the average amplitude and
voltage always leads the current.
RMS value
i(t) = Im sin ωt (c) It is the ratio of the maximum amplitude to
v(t) = Vm sin (ωt + θ) RMS value
ωL (d) None of these
Where, θ = tan −1 KPTCL AE 2015
R
Ans. (c) : Crest factor (peak factor)- It is the ratio of
58. Zener breakdown occurs due to breaking of the maximum amplitude to RMS value,
covalent bonds by the strong electric field set 64. Which of the following waveforms has the
up in the depletion region by the lowest form factor?
(a) Reverse coupling (b) Reverse voltage (a) Sine wave (b) Square wave
(c) Forward current (d) Forward voltage (c) Sawtooth wave (d) Triangle wave
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I KPTCL AE 2015
Ans. (b) : Zener breakdown occurs due to breaking of Ans. (b) : The ratio of the root mean square value to
covalent bonds by the strong electric field set up in the the average value of an alternating quantity (current or
depletion region by the reverse voltage. Hence zener voltage) is called form factor.
diode works in reverse biasing condition. I rms E
59. For a UJT used to trigger an SCR, the stand- Form factor = or rms
Iav E av
off ratio is 0.75, dc voltage source is 20V. The
UJT would trigger when the emitter voltage is Wave Form factor
(a) 17.5 V (b) 20 V Sine wave π
= 1.11
(c) 15 V (d) 12.5 V 2 2
Square wave 1 Ans. (b) : Snubber circuit is used in power electronics
to reduce high dV/dt.
Triangle wave 2
= 1.15
3
65. A thyristor is triggered by a train of pulses of Used to suppress such as voltage transient in electrical
frequency 4 KHz & of duty cycle 0.2. What is system.
the pulse width? 69. Snubber circuit is used to limit the rate of
(a) 50 micro sec (b) 8 micro sec (a) Rise of current
(c) 0.8 micro sec (d) 20 micro sec (b) Conduction period
Vizag Steel MT 2011 (c) Rise of voltage across SCR
Ans. (a) : Given, α = 0.2, f = 4kHz (d) All of above
1 Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
T = = 0.25 ×10−3
f Ans. (c) : Snubber circuit is used to limit the large rate
Also duty cycle, of change of anode to cathode voltage and anode
T current. The snubber circuit is one type of dv/dt
α = ON protection circuit of thyristor.
T
70. Crest factor is defined as
T (a) Peak value (b) RMS value
0.2 = ON
T RMS value
(c) Ration of (a) and (b) (d)
TON = 0.2 × T = 0.2 × 0.25 ×10−3 Peak value
= 50 µ sec GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
So, pulse width is 50 micro sec Ans. (c) : Crest factor is the ratio of peak value to the
effective value i.e. RMS value. Crest power is also
66. What is the function of connecting a Zener known as peak factor.
diode in UJT circuit used for triggering of Peak value
SCR's? Crest factor =
RMS value
(a) Expedite the generation of triggering pulses
(b) Delay the generation of triggering pulses 71. Which of the following diode has the least
reverse recovery time?
(c) Provide constant voltage to UJT to prevent
(a) General purpose diode
erratic firing
(b) Fast recovery diode
(d) Provide a variable voltage to UJT as the (c) (a) and (b)
source voltage changes (d) Silicon carbide diode
Vizag Steel MT 2011 GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans. (c) : Provide constant voltage to UJT to prevent Ans. (d) : Silicon carbide diode has the least reverse
erratic firing. recovery time of 20 ns (at Ta = 25ºC).
67. Zener diode is always used for– Reverse recovery time of fast recovery diodes are
(a) Constant voltage (b) Constant current 150-200ns, ultrafast diodes have recovery times down
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of above to 20ns.
GMB AE 2017 72. The form factor of a pure sinewave
(a) 1.414 (b) 1
Ans. (a) : Zener diode is always used for constant (c) 1.11 (d) 0
voltage. Zener diode is a P-N junction diode operated in
the reverse biased mode zener diode is used to regulate
the load voltage, or it is used for constant voltage. A
68. The snubber circuit is used in Power Ans. (c) : Form factor = RMS value = 2
Electronic– Average value 2A
(a) To reduce high di/dt π
(b) To reduce high dV/dt where A = Amplitude
(c) To reduce losses in circuit A π π
Form factor = × =
(d) None of above 2 × 2A 2 × 2
GMB AE 2017 = 1.11

73. One megabyte is equivalent to 78. A thyristor (SCR) turns off when the–
(a) 210 bytes (b) 220 bytes (a) Gate pulse is removed
30
(c) 2 byes (d) None of the above (b) Gate pulse is applied
GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 (c) Thyristor current is below holding value
Ans. (b) :1 MB = 1024 kB (d) Anode voltage is made negative
= 1024 × 1024 Bytes APTRANSCO AE 2011
= 220 Bytes Ans. (c) : A thyristor (SCR) turn off when the thyristor
74. The main reason for connecting a pulse current is below the holding current .
transformer at the opposite stage of a thyristor IH > ITh for turn off
triggering circuit is to
(a) Amplify the power of triggering pulse 79. Turn-on of a thyristor (SCR) takes place when-
(a) Anode to cathode voltage is positive
(b) Provide electrical isolation
(b) Anode to cathode voltage is negative
(c) Reduce the turn on time of the thyristor
(c) Positive current is applied to gate
(d) Avoid spurious triggering of the thyristor due
to noise (d) Anode to cathode voltage is positive and
positive current pulse is applied to gate
APTRANSCO AE 2011
Ans. (b) :Thyristor often operate at line or high voltage. ESE 2006
Pulse transformer provide safe isolation from high
voltage and do the Job of coupling pulses to the gate. Ans. (d) : Turn on of a thyristor (SCR) takes place
when anode to cathode voltage is positive and positive
75. Which semiconductor device, out of the current pulse is applied to gate.
following, is not a current triggered device ?
(a) Thyristor (b) GTO 80. A triac is a device which acts as a–
(a) Diode in forward direction and thryristor in
(c) TRIAC (d) MOSFET
the reverse direction
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
(b) Thyristor in both directions
APTRANSCO AE 2011
(c) Diode in both directions
Ans. (d) : Current triggered device (d) Thyristor in forward direction and diode in
(i) Thyristor reverse direction
(ii) GTO APTRANSCO AE 2011
(iii) TRIAC Ans. (b) : A triac is a device which acts as a thyristor in
76. The number of p-n junctions in a thyristor are– both direction. Traic work as a bidirectional device and
(a) 1 (b) 2 operates in all 4 region.
(c) 3 (d) 4 81. A GTO SCR
APTRANSCO AE 2011 (a) Requires a special turn-off circuit like the
Ans. (c) : The number of P-N junction in a thyristor are communication circuit of a thyristor (SCR)
3 (J1, J2, J3) and 4-layer. (b) Can be turned off by removing the gate pulse
(c) Can be turned off by giving a negative pulse
to the gate
(d) Can be turned off by giving a positive gate
pulse to the gate
APTRANSCO AE 2011
Ans. (c) : A GTO SCR can be turned off by giving a
negative pulse to the gate.
82. Negative resistance characteristic is exhibited by
(a) Incandescent lamp (b) Transformer
77. In a thyristorised converter a free wheeling (c) UJT (d) Snubber circuit
diode is used to– Karnataka PSC AE 2017
(a) Add to the conduction current of the thyristor Karnataka PSC AE 2016
(b) Oppose the thyristor conduction Ans. (c) : UJT has negative resistance characteristic
(c) Conduct current during the off period of the because in V-I characteristic there is a negative slope
thyristor occurs which is called valley point of valley region.
(d) Protect the thyristor by providing a shunt path
APTRANSCO AE 2011
Ans. (c) : In a thyristored converter a free wheeling
diode is used to conduct current during the off period of
the thyristor.
Free wheeling diode is also improve the power factor
83. The SCR can be turned ON by 88. In a power circuit of 3 KV, four thyristors each
(a) Applying the anode voltage at sufficiently of rating 800V are connected in series. What is
fast rate the percentage series derating factor?
(b) Applying sufficiently large anode voltage (a) 50 (b) 25
(c) Applying sufficiently large gate current (c) 12.5 (d) 6.25
(d) All the above LMRC AE 2015
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) : The SCR can be turned ON by– % derating factor = 1– (% string efficiency)
• Applying the anode voltage at sufficiently fast rate. 3 × 103
• Applying sufficiently large anode voltage. string efficiency =
4 × 800
• Applying sufficiently large gate current.
= 0.9375
84. A voltage commutation circuit is shown in
figure. If the turn off time of the SCR's is 50 Derating factor = 1– String efficiency = 1– .9375
µsec and a safety margin of 2 is considered, = 6.25%
what will be the approximate minimum value 89. Practical way of obtaining static voltage
of capacitor required for proper commutation? equalization in series connected SCRs by the
(voltage is 100 V)
use of :
(a) resistors connected in series with SCR
(b) Resistors of same value across each SCR
(c) One resistor across the string
(d) Resistors of different value across each SCR
CIL MT 2020
ESE 1998
Ans. (b) : By connecting the resistors of the same value
(a) 1.44 µF (b) 0.91 µF across each SCR, we can eliminate the unequal
distribution of voltage across each SCR. Hence, we can
(c) 2.88 µF (d) 0.72 µF obtain the static voltage equalization in series connected
DSSSB AE 2019 SCRs by doing the above thing. When the required
Ans. (c) : For the minimum value of capacitor– rating exceeds SCR voltage rating, a number of SCR's
t off 50 × 10−6 are required to be connected in series to share the
C= = forward and reverse voltage.
0.693 × R L 0.693 × 25
90. A triac is a :
= 2.88×10–6
(a) 2 terminal bidirectional switch
= 2.88µF
(b) 2 terminal unilateral switch
85. An SCR is a device having (c) 3 terminal unilateral switch
(a) Three layers with four junctions (d) 3 terminal bidirectional switch
(b) Three layers with two junctions CIL MT 2020
(c) Four layers with three junction
ESE 2004
(d) Two layers with three junctions
Ans. (d) : "Triac" is abbreviation for three terminal,
Vizag Steel MT 2017
four layer, bidirectional ac switch. 'Tri' indicates that the
Ans. (c) :Four layers with three junctions. device has three terminals and 'ac' indicates the device
86. Which of the following does not cause controls alternating current or can conduct in either
permanent damage of an SCR ? direction.
(a) high current
(b) high rate of rise of current
(c) high temperature rise
(d) high rate of rise of voltage
RPSC VPITI 2016
Ans. (a) : High current does not cause a permanent
damage of an SCR.
87. Which of the following should have low value
for main contacts in LV switching devices ?
(a) Thermal capacity (b) Contact resistance
(c) Thermal conductivity (d) None of the above Triac can conduct with either positive or negative
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II voltage at gate.
Ans. (b) : Contact resistance have low value for main The triac is equivalent to two thyristors connected
contacts in LV switching device. back to back with their gate terminals tied up.
91. The function of snubber circuit connected Ans. (d) : In tunnel diode electron have finite
across an SCR is : probability of penetrating the potential barrier because
(a) Increase dv/dt 1
the junction width ∝
(b) To keep constant value Impurity concentration
(c) Limit dv/dt i.e. junction width will be very small due to high
(d) Decrease dv/dt impurity concentrations.
CIL MT 2020 • Tunnel diode that effectively “negative resistant” due
TSPSC AEE 2017 to the quantum mechanical effect called tunneling.
APTRANSCO AE 2011 • Tunnel diodes have a heavily doped PN junction that
Ans. (c) : The function of snubber circuit connected is about 10 nm wide.
across an SCR to Limit dv/dt. 95. In a thyristor, ratio of latching current to
holding current is
(a) 0.4 (b) 1.0
(c) 2.5 (d) none of these
PTCUL AE 2012
Ans. (c) :
Ratio of latching current to holding current = 2.5
I
Hence = L = 2.5
IH
When switch S is closed, capacitor behaves as short 96. In a thyristor, holding current is :-
circuit, therefore voltage across the SCR is zero. With (a) More than latching current
the passage of time voltage across 'C' builds up at slow (b) Less than latching current
rate such that dv/dt across C and therefore across SCR (c) Equal to latching current
is less than the specified maximum dv/dt rating of (d) Cannot compare with latching current
device (to avoid false switching) UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
92. An SCR may be conduct in reverse bias PTCUL AE 2012
condition Ans. (b) : A thyristor, holding current is less than
(a) always latching current
(b) never Sr. Latching current Holding current
(c) in pure-resistive circuit 1 This related with turn on It is related to run
(d) in inductive circuit process of SCR or off process.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II thyristor.
Ans. (d) : Inductor stored energy during on state and 2. Minimum current above Minimum value of
which gate losses its anode current
 di 
oppose rate of change of current   due to this, control. below which it
 dt  must fall to stop
during reverse biased it released energy. Therefore SCR conducting to
may conduct in reverse bias condition in inductive forward direction.
circuit. 3. Value of latching current It is less than
93. A power semiconductor may undergo damage is more than that of latching current.
due to :- holding current.
(a) High di/dt (b) Low di/dt 97. For normal SCR's, turn on time is
(c) High dv/dt (d) Low dv/dt (a) less than turn off time
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I (b) more than turn of time
Ans. (a) : A power semiconductor may undergo (c) equal to turn off time
damage due to high di/dt. (d) none of above
PTCUL AE 2012
94. Tunnel diodes
Ans. (a) : Turn off time is greater than turn on time for
(a) are mainly operated with reverse bias
successful turning off of the SCR. If it is not done SCR
(b) have a negative resistance region with reverse could regain its forward blocking capabilities and may
bias get turn on again.
(c) has very high impurity concentration resulting 98. A relaxation oscillator uses
in increased barrier width (a) Tunnel diode (b) UJT
(d) electron have finite probability of penetrating (c) Both tunnel and UJT (d) PIN diode
the potential barrier PTCUL AE 2016
PTCUL AE 2012 PTCUL AE 2012
Ans. (b) : UJT relaxation oscillator is a type of RC Ans. (c) : (i) Over Current Protection– Connect fuse
oscillator where the active element is a UJT. or circuit breaker in series with SCR.
A relaxation oscillator is basically a non-liner oscillator (ii) Over Voltage Protection– Varistor is connected
that has the ability to generate a non-sinusoidal periodic across SCR.
wave form at its output-such as triangular wave, square (iii) High dV/dt Protection– Snubber circuit is
wave etc. These are also know as non-sinusoidal wave provided across SCR.
form generators. (iv) High di/dt Protection– Connect a inductor in
99. The intrinsic stand off ratio (η) of a UJT is in series with SCR.
the range of 104. In a single-phase full wave converter, if load
(a) 0<<η<0.5 (b) 0<<η<0.5 current is I and ripple free, then average
(c) should be always 0.5 (d) 0.5 <η<1 thyristor current will be–
PTCUL AE 2012 1
Ans. (d) : Intrinsic stand off ratio is the ratio of RB1 to (a) I (b) I
3
the sum of RB1 and RB2. For UJT it lies in the range of
1 I
0.5 to 1. (c) I (d)
100. Which of the following rectifier is having the 4 2
maximum Transformer Utilization factor? UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
(a) Half wave rectifier Ans. (d) : In full bridge converter, when current at
(b) Full wave rectifier using center tap output side is constant. then one pair of thyristor
(c) Full wave rectifier using bridge rectifier conductor for T/2 time if time period is T. then.
(d) none of the above T/2
IT(avg) = I ×
PTCUL AE 2012 T
Ans. (c) : Transformer Utilization Factor (TUF) of I
• Half wave rectifier → 0.2865 IT(avg) =
2
• Centre tap full wave rectifier → 0.672
105. A metal oxide varistor (MOV) is used for
• Bridge type full wave rectifier → 0.8106 protecting :
101. The tunnel diode : (a) Gate circuit against over-current
(a) has a tiny hole through its center to facilitate (b) Gate circuit against over-voltages
tunneling (c) Anode circuit against over-current
(b) is a point contact diode with a very high (d) Anode circuit against over-voltage
reverse resistance
PTCUL AE 2016
(c) uses a high doping level to provide a narrow
junction Ans. (d) : (i) Over Current Protection– Connect fuse
(d) works by quantum tunneling exhibited by or circuit breaker in series with SCR.
gallium arsenide only (ii) Over Voltage Protection– Varistor is connected
across SCR.
PTCUL AE 2016
(iii) High dV/dt Protection– Snubber circuit is
Ans. (c) : The tunnel diode is a highly doped P-N provided across SCR.
junction diode in which the current induces because of
(iv) High di/dt Protection– Connect a inductor in series
the tunneling. It uses a high doping level to provide
with SCR.
narrow junction. It is fast switching device hence used
in high frequency oscillators, computers etc. 106. If the gate current of an SCR is increased, the
forward breakdown voltage will:
102. A thyrite resistor is used :
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
(a) To provide temperature compensation
(c) Not be affected (d) Infinite
(b) To generate phase shift
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
(c) To rectify very high voltage
PTCUL AE 2016
(d) None of these
PTCUL AE 2016 Ans. (b) If the gate current of an SCR is increased the
forward breakdown voltage will decrease.
Ans. (c) : Thyrite resistor on varistors are used as
If Ig = 0 then forward break over voltage is VBO. When
control on compensation element in circuit to protect
Ig is increased from zero then forward break over
against excessive transient voltage.
voltage will decrease. Typical gate current magnitude
103. For an SCR di/dt protection is achieved are 20 to 200 mA.
through the use of :
107. The average value of the positive half of the
(a) R in series with SCR sine wave current having peak value of Im will
(b) RL in series with SCR be :
(c) L in series with SCR
(a) Im / 2 (b) Im /1.11
(d) None of these
PTCUL AE 2016 (c) I m / 2π (d) Im / π
ESE 2004 MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
Ans. (d) : The average value of the positive half of the Ans. (d) :
sine wave current having peak value of Im will be– Advantage of IGBT Disadvantage of IGBT
Im Low switching loss Latching up problem
Iav =
π High switching speed High turn off time
108. Presence of Gold in thyristors High voltage capacity –
(a) reduces minority carrier life time and Easy of drive Cost is high
increases leakage current
(b) reduces minority carrier life time and reduces Low on stage power It can't block high
leakage current dissipation reverse voltage.
(c) increases minority current life time and 112. In a full wave rectifier without filter, the ripple
reduces leakage current factor is:
(d) increases minority current life time and (a) 1.21 (b) 0.482
increases leakage current
(c) 1.89 (d) 0.682
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : Presence of Gold in thyristors reduces
minority carrier life time and increases leakage current Ans. (b) In full wave rectifier,
for faster devices leakage current is more and hence V
relatively lower value of voltages. Vrms = m
2
109. Thyristor control adopted for ac applications
use the following triggering method in the most 2Vm
Vavg =
common way. π
(a) Pulse gate triggering V
(b) AC gate triggering Form factor = rms
Vavg
(c) Thermal triggering
(d) Radiation triggering Vm / 2
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I =
2Vm / π
Ans. (b) : AC gate, triggering is most common way of
Thyristor control adopted for AC application. π
=
Triggering means turning ON of a device from its off 2 2
state. Turning On of a thyristor refers to thyristor
triggering. Thyristor is turned ON by increasing the Ripple factor = FF2 − 1
anode current flowing through it. The increase in anode FF − Form Factor
current can be achieved by many ways.
• Voltage thyristor triggering π2
= −1
• dv/dt triggering 8
• Gate triggering.
R.F. = 0.482
113. SCR in its normal operation works in......
(a) forward blocking mode
110. If RE = 1 kΩ and IV = 5 mA, determine the (b) reverse blocking mode
value of VEE which will cause the UJT to turn (c) forward conduction mode
"off".
(d) reverse breakover mode
(a) 5 V (b) 2 V
(c) 7 V (d) 6 V AAI Junior Executive 2016
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I Ans. (c) : SCR in its normal operation works in
Ans. (c) : At the valley point forward conduction mode.
VE=VV = 2V 114. Thyristor turns OFF when..............
IE=IV = 5mA (a) gate pulse is removed
RE = 1 kΩ (b) a negative gate pulse is applied
VEE=IERE+VE=7V (c) thyristor anode voltage is reduced by 50%
at the value of VEE = 7V below this the UJT will switch (d) thyristor anode current is reduced below
back to the "OFF" state. holding current value and so maintained for
111. Following is the demerit of IGBT : more than the turnoff time period
(a) High peak current capability AAI Junior Executive 2016
(b) Low turn off time
(c) Ease of gate drive Ans. (d) : Thyristor turns OFF when thyristor anode
(d) High turn off time current is reduced below holding current value and so
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I maintained for more than the turn off time period.

115. Which of these statements about GTO are 118. The typical ratio of latching current to holding
CORRECT? current in a 20A thyristor is :
1. It can withstand higher voltage & current (a) 5.0 (b) 2.0
compared to power transistor (c) 1.0 (d) 0.5
2. It has latching current of few amperes. GOA PSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2019
3. It has higher efficiency that SCR of same Ans. (b) : The typical ratio of latching current to
rating holding current in a 20 A thyristor is 2.0.
4. It has lower gate drive circuit losses. Latching current is always more than holding current.
(a) 2, 3 & 4 (b) 1, 3 & 4 IL
(c) 1, 2 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 4 = 2.0 to 2.5
IH
AAI Junior Executive 2016
Ans. (c) : For GTO it can withstand higher voltage & 119. A TRIAC can be triggered by a gate pulse of ---
current compared to power transistor. It has latching polarity.
current of few amp. It has higher efficiency then SCR of (a) Positive or negative (b) Positive
same rating. (c) Negative (d) None of these
116. While working in series operation, equalizing WBSE TCL AE 2016
circuits are added across each SCR to provide Ans. (a)
uniform
(a) Voltage distribution (b) Firing of SCRs
(c) Current distribution (d) None of the above
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
Ans. (a) : Problem related to series connection of SCR
unequal sharing of voltage :
(a) Due to difference in forward blocking
characteristics of series connected SCR. TRIAC
To overcome this problem, we use "static A Triac can be triggered by a gate pulse of positive
equalizing circuit". (or) negative polarity.
(b) Due to difference in the recovery • When in operation, a triac is equivalent to two
characteristics to over-come this problem, we SCRs connected in antiparallel.
use "dynamic equalizing circuit"
117. During forward blocking state, the SCR has

(a) Low current, medium voltage
(b) Low current, large voltage 120. Turn off time of a SCR is measured from the
(c) Medium current, large voltage instant:
(d) Large current, low voltage (a) Gate current becomes zero
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 (b) Anode voltage becomes zero
Ans. (b) (c) Anode voltage and current become zero at the
same time
(d) Anode current becomes zero
UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (d) Turn off time of a SCR is measured from the
instant, at which time anode current becomes zero.
121. For normal SCRs, the turn on time is ____ the
turn off time.
(a) About half of (b) Equal to
VBO : – Forward Breakover Voltage (c) More than (d) Less than
VBR : – Reverse Breakover Voltage UPPCL AE 2015
So, from this characteristic we see during Forward Ans. (d) For normal SCR, the turn on time is less than
Blocking state, SCR has low current, large voltage. the turn off time.

122. In a three phase full converter, if load current 126. Static V-I characteristics as shown below
is I and ripple free, then average and RMS corresponds to which of the following device?
values of thyristor are respectively.
I I I I
(a) , (b) ,
3 3 2 2
I I I I
(c) , (d) ,
2 2 3 3
(a) MOSFET (b) IGBT
UPPCL AE 2015 (c) Power Transistor (d) GTO
Ans. (d) 3–φ full converter, UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Avg. value of thyristor = I/3 Ans : (d) Comparison between GTO and Thyristor is
written below.
RMS value of thyristor = I / 3 The value of latching and holding current in GTO
123. In a thyristor, is greater than traditional SCR.
(a) Both IL and IH are associated with the turn on Reverse voltage blocking capability of GTO is less
process than forward voltage blocking capability.
(b) Both IL and IH are associated with the turn off The switching speed of GTO is greater than SCR.
So the above given VI characteristics is related to GTO.
process.
127. When the cathode of a thyristor is made more
(c) IH is associated with the turn off process and ........... than its anode than outer junctions are
IL is associated with the turn on process. (a) Negative, reverse biased
(d) Latching current IL is associated with the turn (b) Negative, forward biased
off process and holding current IH is (c) Positive, forward biased
associated with the turn on process. (d) Positive, reverse biased
UPPCL AE 2015 UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Ans. (c) In a thyristor, holding current associated with ESE 2002
turn off process, and latching current, with turn on Ans : (d) When the cathode of a thyristor is made more
process. IL > IH positive than anode, the centre N-P junction is forward
biased but the two outer P-N junctions are reverse
124. The purpose of connecting snubber circuit biased and it behaves much like an ordinary Diode.
across a SCR is to: 128. Which semiconductor device is generally used
dv in fan speed controller?
(a) Suppress
dt (a) SCR (b) MOSFET
dv (c) TRIAC (d) DIAC
(b) Decrease UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
dt
Ans : (c) TRIAC is bidirectional, three terminal
dv thyristor.It is used to central power in a.c. circuit. It is
(c) Increase
dt widely used in lamp dimmer, heat central and control.
(d) Keep transient over voltage at a constant SCR- SCR has three terminals (cathode, anode, gate).
value SCR behaves as a unidirectional switch and sometimes
called thyristor SCR is made of silicon. The control
UPPCL AE 2015
element of an SCR is Gate.
Ans. (a) Purpose of connecting snubber circuit across 129. The _______ is used to protect SCR's
dv dv against_______.
an SCR is to suppress . For high protection
dt dt (a) Snubber circuit, triggering
snubber circuit is provided across SCR. (b) Fuse, turn on
(c) Snubber circuit, dv/dt
125. ..................is a modern power semiconductor (d) Inductor, phase shifting
device that combines the characteristics of ..... UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
and MOSFET. Ans : (c)
(a) GTO, IGBT (b) IGBT, GTO
(c) IGBT, BJT (d) Triac, GTO
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Ans : (c) An IGBT cell is constructed similarly to a n-
channel vertical construction power MOSFET, except
the n+ drain is replaced with a p+ collector layer, thus
forming a vertical PNP bipolar transistor. It is a three
terminal power semiconductor device primarily used as Snubber circuit resistance (RS) capacitor (CS) are in
an electronic switch. series and parallel combination with thyristor
130. Match List-I with List-II 133. The PIV of a half wave rectifier circuit with a
List-I List-II shunt capacitor filter is:-
(Device) (Monolithic construction of) (a) 2Vm (b) Vm
(c) Vm/2 (d) 3Vm
A. Triac 1. Two thyristors in anti-
parallel UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
Ans. (a) : The PIV of a half wave rectifier circuit with a
B. Reverse 2. A thyristor and a diode in shunt capacitor filter is 2Vm.
conducting anti-parallel
thyristor 134. In a thyristor, the holding current IH is-
(a) More than the latching current IL is
C. Diac 3. Two diodes in anti- (b) Less than IL
parallel (c) Equal to IL
(a) A-1 B-2 C-3 (b) A-3 B-2 C-1 (d) Zero
(c) A-1 B-3 C-2 (d) A-2 B-3 C-1 TSPSC AEE 2017
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
Ans : (a) DIAC– It is a two terminal device. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
TRIAC- It is three terminal, Bidirectional ESE 2004
semiconductor device. It is Bidirectional device where
Ans. (b) : Latching current (IL)- It is the minimum
as thyristor is unidirectional device TRIAC is used as
principal current required to maintain the thyristor in the
speed controller in electric Fan.
ON state immediately after the switching from off state
to on state has occurred and triggering signal has been
removed.
Holding current (IH)– It is the minimum anode current
to be attained below which the device comes into the off
state after applying a reverse voltage across it until it
regains its blocking capability
IL > IH
131. If in a rectifier the ripple voltage is 150 mV and 135. The snubber circuit is used in thyristor circuit
the dc value is 15V, then ripple factor is given for:
by:- (a) Triggering (b) dv/dt protection
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.02 (c) di/dt protection (d) Phase shifting
(c) 0.001 (d) 0.002 DMRC AM 2016
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
Ans. (a) : Ripple voltage = 150 mV = 150 × 10–3 V ESE 2001
DC value = 15 V Ans. (b) : The snubber circuit is used in thyristor circuit
Ripple voltage 150 × 10−3 dv
Ripple factor = = = 0.01 for protection. It is provided across the SCR
DC Value 15 dt
132. The device commonly used for triggering a
triac is:-
(a) Diode (b) Transistor
(c) Zener diode (d) Diac
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
Ans. (d) : Diac is the device commonly used for
triggering a triac.
136. What is the main use of RC snubber circuit in

thyristor?
(a) Phase shifting
(b) dv/dt protection
(c) Thermal protection
(d) Over current protection
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
Ans. (b) : RC snubber circuit is used in SCR to protect
The name Diac is compounded from two terminal and the device from large rates of changes of anode to
alternating current (ac) control. The device is most cathode voltage and anode current or dv otherwise false
suitable as a trigger for a bidirectional switch such as dt
the triac. triggering.
137. The snubber circuit used in thyristor circuits (a) Varactor diode (b) Zener diode
for (c) Tunnel diode (d) Schottky diode
(a) Triggering Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III
dv Ans. (d) : Schottky diode-It is a special purpose diode
(b) protection
dt which uses a metal like gold, silver, platinum, tungsten
di etc on the side of the junction, n-type doped silicon on
(c) protection another side and has almost no change storage in the
dt junction.
dv di It has a low forward voltage drop and a very fast
(d) Both and protection
dt dt switching action.
TNPSC AE 2018 141. The maximum anode current that an SCR can
Ans. (d) : Snubber circuit used in thyristor circuit for handle without destruction is called
dv di (a) Forward current rating of SCR
both and protection.
dt dt (b) Holding current
The most common snubber circuit is a capacitor and (c) Working current of SCR
resistor connect in series across the switch. (d) Latching current
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III
Ans. (a) : The maximum anode current that an SCR can
handle without destruction is called forward current
rating of SCR.
The usual current rating of SCR is from about 30A to
Snubber circuit 100A. In case the current exceeds the forward, current
138. A snubber circuit is used in thyristorised rating, the SCR may get damaged due to intensive
control circuits in order to overcome the effects heating at the junctions.
of 142. When a transistor and an SCR of same rating
(a) Electrostatic interference are available, transistor will be preferred for
(b) Transients in a.c. supply medium power applications because
(c) Electromagnetic interference (a) Transistors are cheaper
(d) Heating due to high voltage a.c. (b) Transistors are faster and need no
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III commutation circuit
Ans. (b) : High dv/dt protection : snubber circuit is (c) Transistors are more robust
provided across SCR. (d) Transistors are easy to manufacture
A snubber circuit is used in thyristorised control circuit Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III
in order to overcome the effects of transients in ac Ans. (b) : When a transistor and an SCR of same rating
supply. are available, transistor will be preferred for medium
139. R-C triggering is preferred over resistance power applications because transistors are faster and no
triggering because it need commutation circuit. Transistor is a semi
(a) Provides an accurate firing angle conductor device used to amplify or switch electronic
(b) increases load voltage signals and electric power.
(c) Provides a larger range of firing SCR is a four layer solid state current controlling
device.
(d) Causes quick triggering
APTRANSCO AE 2017 143. UJT has-
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III (a) two base leads
(b) one emitter lead
Ans. (c) : R-C triggering is preferred over resistance
triggering because it provides a larger range of firing. (c) two emitter leads and one base lead
Triggering method of SCR (d) one emitter lead and two base lead
(i) forward voltage triggering PS PCL AE 2012
(ii) Gate triggering Ans. (d) :
(iii) dv/dt triggering
(iv) Temperature triggering
(v) Light triggering
140. Which one of the following type of diode is a
special purpose diode which uses a metal like
gold, silver, platinum, tungsten etc. on the side
of the junction, n-type doped silicon on another
side and has almost no charge storage in the
junction?

UJT has one emitter lead and two base leads- 147. A LC series circuit is connected to a DC supply
Unijuction transistor also called the double-base of 100 V through a thyristor the peak current
diode is a 2-layer, 3-terminal solid-state through the thyristor will be-
(silicon)switching device. The device has a unique 100
characteristic that when it is triggered, its emitter (a) 100 LC (b)
current increases. LC
UJT does not have ability to amplify but it has the  L  C
(c) 100  (d) 100 
ability to control a large ac power with a small  C   L 
signal. It exhibits a negative resistance characteristic    
and so it can be employed as an oscillator. Karnataka PSC AE 2017
The device has only one junction so it is called the Ans. (d) : Let us consider on LC series circuit with
unijunction device. thyristor which is given below–
144. The silicon-controlled rectifier can be turned Load current of an LC series circuit with thyristor can
off: be given by–
(a) by a negative gate pulse
(b) by forced commutation
(c) with the off switch
(d) when the breakover voltage is exceeded
PS PCL AE 2012
Ans. (b) : The silicon controlled rectifier can be turned
off by forced commutation. The method of discharging
a capacitor in parallel with an SCR to turn-off the SCR
IL = IP sinω0t
is called forced commutation.
Where, IP = Peak current through the SCR,
145. An alternator with higher value of SCR has
ω0 = Resonant frequency
(a) Poor voltage regulation and higher stability
limit C
or IL = Vs sin ω0 t
(b) Better voltage regulation and higher stability L
limit Here, Vs = 100 V
(c) Poor voltage regulation and lower stability
limit C
Then, IP = 100
(d) Better voltage regulation and lower stability L
limit
148. Thyristor connected in series need
Karnataka PSC AE 2017
(a) static equalizing circuit
Ans. (b) : An alternator with higher value of SCR has
better voltage regulation and higher stability limit. (b) dynamic equalizing circuit
(c) both static and dynamic equalizing circuit
146. The circuit shown in figure is a
(d) none of the above
Ans. (c) : Thyristor connected in series need both static
and dynamic equalizing circuit due to unequal sharing
of voltage.
Due to difference in forward blocking characteristics
(a) Half wave rectifier (b) Peak detector of series connected SCR. To overcome this problem
(c) Full wave rectifier (d) Clamping circuit we use "Static equalizing circuit".
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 Due to difference in the reverse recovery
characteristics. To overcome this problem, we use
Ans. (b) : Peak detector circuits are used to determine
"dynamic equalizing circuit".
the peak (maximum) value of an input signal. It stores
the peak value of input voltage for infinite time duration 149. Cause of a poor regulation provided by a Zener
until it comes to reset condition. The peak detector diode is
circuit utilized its property of following the highest (a) excessive load current
value of an input signal and storing it. (b) excessive operating temperature
(c) excessive input voltage
(d) resistance of the diode after the breakdown
Ans. (d) : Zener diode is provided poor regulation by
resistance of the diode after the breakdown.

150. 153.
Identify the device shown in the given figure.

In the circuit shown in the given figure, the (a) Silicon unilateral switch
SCR is fired at 45o. Which of the following (b) Silicon controlled rectifier
statements is correct with respect to load (c) Silicon controlled switch
voltage and current at ωt = π? (d) Light activated SCR
(a) Only load voltage is zero. LMRC AM 2020
(b) Both load voltage and load current are zero. Ans. (c) :
(c) Only load current is zero.
(d) Both load voltage and load current are non-
zero.
LMRC AM 2020
Ans. (a) : During positive half cycle the thyristor is
forward biased. The load output voltage is zero till SCR
is fired. Once SCR is fired at on angle α, SCR starts The given figure represent the silicon controlled switch.
conducting. But as soon as supply voltage become zero 154. An SCR has half-cycle surge current rating of
at ωt = π, the load current will become zero and after ωt 3kA for 50 Hz supply. Find its one-cycle surge
current rating.
= π SCR is reversal biased. Thus thyristor T will turn
(a) 2121.32 A (b) 1121.32 A
off at ωt = π and will remain in OFF condition till it is
(c) 2110.32 A (d) 3121.32 A
fired again at ωt = (2π + α). (e) 4121.32 A
151. For which of the following is the frequency is CGPSC AE 2017
constant from input to output? JUVNL AE 2017
(a) AC voltage controller ESE 1999
(b) Chopper Ans. (a) By equating the energies involved in one cycle
(c) Inverter & subcycle:-
(d) Cyclo-converter
LMRC AM 2020
Ans. (a) : For a AC voltage controller, the frequency
remains constant from input to output.
152. In an SCR with four layers represented as
shown in given figure, which are the layers that Isb = 3000A
are equally doped? t = T/2
T
I2.T = (3000)2×
2
3000
I= = 2121.32 A
2
155. If holding current of a thyristor is 2 mA, the
latching current can be
(a) 0.06 µA (b) 0.002 A
(c) 0.004 A (d) 0.012 A
JUVNL AE 2017
(a) P1 and P2 (b) P2 and N2 Ans. (c) : Latching current IL is the minimum value of
(c) P1 and N1 (d) N1 and N2 anode current required to keep SCR in conducting state
even after removal of gate pulse. Holding current is
LMRC AM 2020
minimum value of anode current below which SCR can
Ans. (a) : The level of doping varies between different not maintain current through it and turns off.
layers of the thyristor. The cathode is highly doped and IL = 2 × IH
then gate and anode are doped to equal value and lowest IH = 2 mA ⇒ 0.002A
doping level is within the control N type layer. than IL = 2 × 0.002 ⇒ 0.004A

156. How many semiconductor layers are available 160. How many junctions and terminals does a
in a TRIAC? silicon controlled rectifier has?
(a) Five (b) Three (a) Three junctions and two terminals
(c) Four (d) Two (b) Two junctions and three terminals
JUVNL AE 2017 (c) Two junctions and two terminals
Ans. (c) : The TRIAC is a three terminal, four layer, (d) Three junctions and three terminals
bidirectional semiconductor device that controls a.c. GESCOM AE 2011
power where as SCR. controls d.c. power or forward
biased half-cycles of ac in a load. Ans. (d) :
The triac is the most widely used member of the

thyristor family. SCR = Silicon controlled rectifier
(i) Motor speed regulation Where, J1, J2, J3 are junction
(ii) Temperature control A = Anode
(iii) Illumination control G = Gate
(iv) Liquid level control K = Cathode
157. In order to get best results per unit cost, the 161. Which of the following is true with respect to
heat sinks on which the thyristors are mounted Schottky diode?
are made of : (a) It has a low forward voltage drop
(a) nickel (b) stainless steel (b) It has a very slow switching action
(c) aluminium (d) copper (c) Both a and b
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 (d) None of these
ESE 2004 GESCOM AE 2011
Ans. (c) : In order to get best results per unit cost the Ans. (a) : Schottky diode:- It is a metal-semiconductor
heat sinks on the thyristors are mounted are made of junction diode without depletion layer.
aluminium.
In schottky diode no depletion layer is formed and there
158. Carrier frequency gate drive is used for turn- will be no holes, in this diode. This diode is used in high
on of a thyristor to reduce : frequency. It has a low forward voltage drop.
(a) di/dt
162. Select from the options, the semiconductor
(b) dv/dt
device who's V-I characteristic is as shown.
(c) turn-on time
(d) size of pulse transformer
ESE 2005
Ans. (d) : The size of pulse transformer and average
gate power dissipation can be reduced by using high
frequency gate.
159. .................. is a periodic voltage disturbance
caused by the normal operation of power
electronic devices when current is commutated
from one phase to another.
(a) Noise (b) Notching
(c) Inter-harmonics (d) Sub-harmonics
Ans. (b) : Notching is a periodic voltage disturbance
caused by the normal operation of power electronic (a) TRIAC (b) SBS
devices when current is commutated from one phase to (c) DIAC (d) SCR
another. DMRC AM 2018
Ans. (c) : V-I Characteristics of DIAC : The- V-I (c) The ratio of rms value of all the harmonic
characteristic curve of the DIAC will be in the shape of components to the rms value of fundamental
a Z and the curve will be lying on the first and third component
quadrants because they conduct in both the positive and (d) The ratio of rms value of nth harmonic
negative polarity. voltage component to the rms value of
fundamental voltage component
CIL MT 2020
DMRC AM 2018
Ans. (c) : THD (Total harmonic Distortion) is a
measurement of the harmonic distortion present in a
signal. It is the ratio of RMS value of all harmonics
components to the RMS of fundamental component.
Keeping low total harmonic distortion values on a
system will further ensure proper operation of
equipment and a longer equipment life span.
163. Select from the options, the semiconductor 165. The objective of connecting a resistance and
power device whose basic structure is shown. capacitance across gate circuit is to protect the
SCR gate against
(a) overvoltages (b) dv/dt
(c) noise signals (d) overcurrents
BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015
Ans. (b)
The objective of connecting a resistance and a

capacitance across a SCR to protect against dv/dt
protection. This scheme of protection is known as
sunbber circuit.
(a) TRIAC (b) GTO 166. When the thyristor gets turn on, the gate drive
(c) MOSFET (d) IGBT (a) should not be removed as it will turn off the
SCR
DMRC AM 2018
(b) may or may not be removed
Ans. (d) : It is 3 terminal device formed by combination
(c) should be removed
of MOSFET and BJT. So it is a IGBT.
(d) should be removed in order to avoid
increased losses higher junction temperature
Ans. (d) : When a thyristor is turn on, the gate drive
should be removed in order to avoid increased losses
higher junction temperature because once a SCR is
turn ON it will not turn OFF until the current flowing
through it is less than the holding current.
167. For an SCR, during turn-on and turn-off, the
quantities responsible, respectively, are :
(a) gate voltage and gate current
(b) holding current and latching current
(c) latching current and holding current
164. Total harmonic distortion is defined as : (d) forward break over voltage and reverse break
(a) The ratio of fundamental rms output voltage over voltage
to the total rms output voltage. APTRANSCO AE 2019
(b) The ratio of rms value of fundamental Ans. (c) : Latching current and holding current are
component to the rms value of all the responsible for turn on and turn off of an SCR
harmonic component respectively.

168. A particular power electronic controller 170. For the power circuit given below, SCR is
develops a symmetrical output voltage from π/6 operated at 1 KHz with TON of 0.5 m sec.
rad to π rad, 7π/6 rad, to 2π rad, across a
resistive load over a cycle. The circuit contains:
(a) a diode
(b) two diode connected in anti-parallel
(c) a TRAIC
(d) a SCR
APTRANSCO AE 2019
Ans. (c) : Motor ratings : 200 V (dc), 1000 rpm, 10 A.
Neglecting armature resistance the speed of
motor at given duty cycle (Tm = constant)
(a) 1000 rpm (b) 500 rpm
(c) 1500 rpm (d) 750 rpm
APSPDCL AE 2012
Ans. (b) : It is given that f = 1 kHz : TON = 0.5 msec
1
∵ T = = 1m/sec.
f
Which conducted that the SCR would de turn ON for
0.5 sec and turn off for 0.5 sec.
Therefore the average voltage would be = 100 V
E1
∵ E2 = And we know that E ∝ φN
This type of waveform is achieved using TRAIC as in 2
TRAIC two SCR are connected anti parallel therefore Where φ is constant
both position and negative voltage are allowed through
E2 N2 100 N 2
the devices. So, = ⇒ =
E1 N1 200 1000
169. A single-phase mid-point full wave SCR
converter with maximum mid-point voltage of 1000 × 100
Vmax volts, develops an average output voltage N2 = = 500 rpm
200
across a resistive load at firing delay angles of 0
and π/2 rad, respectively, as : 171. A semiconductor device TRIAC contains:
2Vmax Vmax V V (a) two SCRs connected in reverse parallel
(a) , (b) max , max (b) two BJTs connected in series
π π π 2π
Vmax Vmax Vmax Vmax (c) two SCRs connected in series
(c) , (d) ,− (d) two SCRs connected in parallel
2π π π 2π
APTRANSCO AE 2019 APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
Ans. (a) : We know that average output voltage- Ans. (a) : A TRIAC can be formed by connecting two
V SCR in opposite.
Vo = m (1 + cos α ) {∵ α = 0}
π
V
V0 = m (1 + cos 0 )
π
Vm 2V
V0 = (1 + 1) = m
π π The TRIAC is a bi-directional thyristor, similar in
π operation to two SCRs connected in reverse parallel but
If, α=
2 using a common gate connection. Therefore the TRIAC
V  π V can conduct and be controlled during both positive and
V0 = m  1 + cos  = m
π  2 π negative half cycles of the mains waveform.
Thus, develops an average output voltage across a 172. How many PN junctions are used in a UJT?
resistive load at firing delay angles of 0 and π/2 rad, (a) One PN junction (b) Two PN junctions
2Vmax Vmax (c) Three PN junctions (d) Four PN junctions
respectively , .
π π APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
Ans. (a) : Ans. (a) : During turn-on the forward current rises
before the forward voltage falls and during turn off the
forward voltage rises before the current falls.
Simultaneous existence of high voltage and current in
the device represents power losses.
175. In power electronics
(a) DC to AC conversion circuits are called
converters and AC to DC are called inverters.
(b) DC to DC conversion circuits are called
converters and AC to DC are called inverters.
(c) DC to DC conversion circuits are called
converters and DC to AC are called inverters.
(d) AC to DC conversion circuits are called
converters and DC to AC are called inverters.
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
Unijunction transistor or UJT for short , is an electronic Ans. (c) : In power electronics DC to DC conversion
semiconductor device that has only one p-n junction circuits are called converters and DC to AC are called
with in a N-type (or p-type) lightly doped ohmic inverters.
channel. The UJT has three terminals one labeled 176. Reverse recovery time of a diode should be
emitter (E) and two bases (B1 and B2). considered for
173. di/dt and dv/dt protections to thyristor are (a) Low frequency circuit
implemented using (b) High frequency circuit
(a) An inductor in series with input and a (c) Both low and high frequency circuit
capacitor in series with the switch.
(d) None of the other options
(b) An inductor in parallel with the input and a
capacitor in series with the load. UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
(c) An inductor in parallel with the input and a Ans. (b) : Voltage drop across the diode does not
capacitor in parallel with the load. change appreciably from its steady state value till the
(d) An inductor in series with the input and a diode current reaches reverse recovery level. In many
capacitor in parallel with the load. power circuits thus may create an effective short circuit
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 across the supply, current being limited by the stray
wiring inductance. Also in high frequency switching
Ans. (a) : di/dt protection is required to protect thyristor
circuits, if the time period is comparable to switching
or SCR from the formation of local hot spot due to high
value of rate of change of anode current i.e., di/dt near cycle qualitative modification to the circuit behaviour is
the gate to cathode junction during its turn on process. possible.
And it is implemented by an inductor in series with 177. An IGBT is a combination of-
input and a capacitor in parallel with load. . (a) MOSFET and UJT (b) SCR and MOSFET
Circuit for protection of SCR (c) MOSFET and BJT (d) None of these
KPSC AE 2014
Ans. (c) : IGBT is a bipolar device, its combination of
MOSFET and BJT. All the advantage of MOSFET and
BJT makes IGBT perfect. IGBT has high switching
frequency and low conduction loss.
174. During turn off of a switch

(a) The forward of the switch current rises before
the forward voltage falls.
(b) The forward current of the switch falls and
then forward voltage rises.
(c) The forward voltage rises before the current
falls.
(d) The forward voltage falls then current rises.

178. Class B commutation technique in SCR is: 182. Which phenomenon is present in thyristor but
(a) Self-commutated by a resonating load absent in BJT, MOSFET and IGBT?
(b) C or L-C switched by another load carrying (a) forward conduction (b) latching
SCR (c) forward blocking (d) reverse breakdown
(c) Self-commutated by an L-C circuit APTRANSCO AE 2017
(d) An AC line commutation Ans. (b) : The phenomena of latching current occurs
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 only in SCR. Latching current is associated with turn on
Ans. (c) : Class B : Self commutated by on L.C. circuit. process of SCR. The value of latching current is 2 to 3
Before triggering the SCR the capacitor is charged up. times of holding current. Latching current is defined as
The turn OFF process of an SCR is called commutation. the minimum value of current required to turn ON the
179. Which of the following possess bidirectional SCR.
current capability? 183. A TRIAC in a single-phase circuit taking V
(a) BJT (b) Triac
volts and operating at a firing delay angle, α is
(c) MOSFET (d) SCR supplying a resistive load, R. The power loss in
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 the load is :
Ans. (b) : TRIAC is bidirectional device use in fan
regulators, light intensity controller, temperature 2V 2 sin 2α V 2  cos 2α 
(a) (b)
controller. πR 2 πR  2 
V2  sin 2α  V2  sin 2α 
(c)  π − α +  (d)  π+α−
πR  2  πR  2 
APTRANSCO AE 2017
Ans. (c) :
180. For a 3 - Φ , 50 HZ supply, calculate the ratio
of output voltage ripple-frequency to the
supply-voltage frequency of 6 pulse diode
bridge rectifier.
(a) 3 (b) 12
(c) 2 (d) 6
DMRC AM 2020
Ans. (d) : In this case the ratio of output voltage ripple
frequency to the supply-voltage frequency of 6 pulse
diode bridge rectifier is 6. Single phase circuit with TRAIC is equivalent to single
181. A snubber circuit is connected to the power phase AC voltage controller.
semiconductor device to reduce the : α is the firing angle of TRAIC.
(a) turn-on time 1/ 2
(b) turn-off time 1 π 
∫ Vm sin ( ωt ) d ( ωt ) 
2 2
(c) electrical stresses Vop = 
π α 
(d) thermal resistance  
APTRANSCO AE 2017 1/ 2
1 π 
Ans. (c) : = ∫
π α
Vm2 sin 2 ( ωt ) d ( ωt ) 

 
1/ 2
1 π 
= Vm 
π α ∫
sin 2 ( ωt ) d ( ωt ) 

 
1/ 2
 1 π 1 − cos 2 ( ωt ) 
A snubber circuit consists of a series combination of
= Vm 
π α ∫ 2
.d ( ωt ) 

resistance Rs and capacitance Cs in parallel with the  
1/ 2
thyristor. A capacitor in parallel with the device is  1 π 
sufficient to prevent unwanted
dV
triggering of the
= Vm 
 2π α
(1 − cos 2 ( ωt ) ) d ( ωt ) 
∫ 
dt  
SCR. 1/ 2
 π
dV V 1  sin 2 ( ωt )  
By reducing the electrical stress across the SCR = m  ( ωt ) −  
dt 2  π  2 α 

also reduce.  

1/ 2 186. Schottky barrier diode can be used as.
Vm  1  sin 2π sin 2α 
=  π − −α+  (a) Low noise amplifier
2 π 2 2  (b) Low level detector
1/ 2 (c) Power supply rectifier
Vm  1  sin 2α 
Vop ==  ( π − α ) +  (d) Variable capacitance device
2 π  2 
UPSC JWM 2017
Vor
lor = Ans. (b) : Schottky barrier diode one type of electronics
R component which is also known as hot carrier because it
Average power loss to the load resistance R- have majority carrier of electrons in both part. It is a
Vo2 R Vm2  sin 2α  low voltage diode. The power drop is lower compared
P = I2 R = =  (π − α) +
R2 2πR  2  to P.N junction diode therefore a schottky diode can be
used a low level detector.
V 
Where,  m = V  187. A 3-phase to 3-phase cyclo-convertor requires:
 2  (a) 18 SCRS for 3-pulse device
V2  sin 2α  (b) 18 SCRS for 6-pulse device
P=  (π − α) + (c) 36 SCRS for 3-pulse device
πR  2 
(d) 52 SCRS for 6-pulse device
184. Which diode exhibits negative resistance
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
characteristic?
(a) LED (b) Zener Ans. (a) : A 3-phase to 3-phase cyclo-convertor
(c) Tunnel diode (d) PN diode requires 18 SCR for 3-pulse if half wave converter is
BHEL ET 2019 used.
APTRANSCO AE 2017 Or 36 SCR for 6 pulse if full wave convertor is used.
Ans. (c) : Tunnel diode exhibits negative 188. Thyristor is a ______ layer ______ junction p-
characteristics- n-p-n semi-conductor switching device.
(a) 3, 4 (b) 3, 3
(c) 4, 3 (d) 4, 4
Ans. (c) :
When applied voltage is more than the built-in potential A Thyristor of PNPN type has Four layer i.e. 'P', 'N', 'P'
of the depletion layer the forward current start flowing and N while three junctions are formed as 'PN', 'NP' and
through the tunnel diode. In this condition the current 'PN' namely junction J1, J2 and J3 and three terminal
will decrease when the voltage increases, which show namely anode, cathode and gate.
the characteristic of negative resistance for Tunnel 189. A 10 V reference source is designed from a 30
diode. V supply using a Zener diode and a resistance.
185. Which of the following devices does NOT The test current of the Zener diode is 20 mA. If
require a continuous base drive? the supply voltage drops to 20 V, the Zener
(a) MOSFET (b) IGBT current will be:
(c) BJT (d) SCR (a) 5 mA (b) 15 mA
LMRC AM 2018 (c) 20 mA (d) 10 mA
Ans. (d) : SCR does no require a continuous base drive. LMRC AM 2018
Ans. (d) : Given : VR = 10 V, VZ = 30 V, I = 20 mA 192. Turn-off of GTO is achieved by negative gate
current IGN such that:
(a) IGN = IA/β off (b) IGN < IA/β off
(c) IGN > IA/β off (d) any IGN
LMRC AM 2018
IR = 30 – 10 Ans. (c) : Turn-off of Gate turn off thyristor (GTO) is
20 achieved by negative gate current IGN such that:
R=
20 ×10−3 IGN > IA/β off
R = 1000 Ω 193. A conducting SCR can be opened by reducing
_____to zero.
(a) supply current (b) supply voltage
(c) anode current (d) grid voltage
CIL MT 2017
Vz − Vs Ans. (c) : Turnoff the SCR the anode current needs to
Iz =
R be bring down to negative with respect to cathode or
30 − 20 10 bring in below (negative) holding current value.
= =
1000 1000 194. For dynamic equalizing circuit used for series
Iz = 10 mA connected SCRs, the choice of C is based on:
(a) rise time characteristics
190. SCR can be turned off by reducing the anode
(b) turn-on characteristics
current below:
(a) latching current (b) zero (c) turn-off characteristics
(c) holding current (d) any positive current (d) reverse recovery characteristics
LMRC AM 2018 CIL MT 2017
Ans. (c) : SCR can be turned off is to reduce the anode Ans. (d) : In series connected SCR circuit the capacitor
current below the holding current value on to make the is connected in parallel to maintain the voltage division
holding current value or to make the anode negative equal. The value of capacitor C can be calculated with
with respect to the cathode the process of turn off is respect to reverse recovery characteristics.
known as commutation.
191. If the latching current in the circuit shown in 195. A SCHOTTKY diode is a:
the figure below is 2 mA, then minimum width (a) Both minority and majority carrier diode
of gate pulse required to properly turn on the (b) Minority carrier device
SCR is: (c) Fast recovery diode
(d) Majority carrier device
CIL MT 2017
Ans. (d) : SCHOTTKY diode is a majority carrier
device. It is a semiconductor diode formed by the
junction of a semiconductor with a metal. It has low
(a) 6 µs (b) 3 µs forward drop and a very fast switching action.
(c) 2 µs (d) 4 µs Low junction capacitance.
LMRC AM 2018 Fast reverse recovery time.
–3
Ans. (d) : Given : IL = 2 mA = 2 × 10 A, L = 0.2 H Schottky diodes operate at high frequencies.
LdI High efficiency, high current density.
VL = Schottky diodes are used as general purpose
dt
Where, SCR is on, VL = 100V rectifiers, radio frequency applications, power
LdI supplies.
100 =
dt 196. Light activated thyristor can be used as:
LIL (a) Amplifier (b) Oscillator
100 =
TON (c) Switch (d) Filter
CIL MT 2017
LI L 0.2 × 2 ×10−3
TON = = = 4 × 10−6 s Ans. (c) : It acts exclusively as a bistable switch
100 100
conducting when the gate receives a current trigger and
TON = 4µs continuing to conduct until the voltage is removed.

197. A buck regulator has an input voltage of 12 V 200. ON state voltage drop in SCR is of the order of:
and the required output voltage of 5 V. The (a) 1 to 1.5 V (b) 10 to 15 V
duty cycle of the regulator is: (c) 100 to 150 V (d) 0.1 to 1 V
(a) 5/12 (b) 12/5
(e) 0.1 to 0.5 V
(c) 5/2 (d) 6
CGPSC AE 2017
ESE 2018
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 Ans. (a) : The ON-stage voltage drop is a voltage drop
CIL MT 2017 typically present in a thyristor. In ON-State thyristor
ESE 2008 behaves like a closed switch voltage drop across
thyristor in ON state is of the order of 1 to 2V
Ans. (a) : Given,
depending on the rating of SCR. It may be seen from
Vin = 12V, Vout = 5V
the voltage drop increases slightly with an increase in
for a buck converter with duty cycle α, the output anode current.
voltage is given by-
201. Force commutation of SCR is in.
Vout = αVin (a) Class A (b) Class A and E
Where, (c) Class B, C and D (d) Class E
α = Duty cycle of regulator (e) Class F
V 5 CGPSC AE 2017
α = out =
Vin 12 Ans. (c) : The thyristor can be turned off by reverse
198. External-pulse commutation of SCR is biasing the SCR or by using active or passive
categorised in. component. Thyristor current can be reduced to a value
(a) Class A (b) Class B below the value of holding current since the thyristor is
(c) Class C (d) Class D turned off forcibly. It is termed as a forced commutation
(e) Class E process force commutation of SCR is found in class B,
CGPSC AE 2017 C and D.
Ans. (e) : Class E commutation is also known as 202. Find average charging current for the
external pulse commutation. In this, an external pulse following battery charger circuit. Take VS =
source is used to produce the reverse voltage across the 230 V, 50 Hz, R = 8 Ω , and E = 150V.
SCR.
199. An SCR has a straight-line slope of 130 for the
gate-cathode characteristic. Find the gate-
source resistance for trigger source voltage of
15 V and allowable gate dissipation of 0.5 W.
(a) 110.5 Ω (b) 121.5 Ω
(c) 120.5 Ω (d) 111.9 Ω
(e) 130.5 Ω
CGPSC AE 2017
Vg
Ans. (d) : Given = 130, P = 0.5W (a) 4.96 A (b) 5.97 A
Ig (c) 12.2 A (d) 10.2 A
Eg =15 V (e) 8.5 A
P = VgIg CGPSC AE 2017
Vg Ans. (a) : V0 = i0R + E when T conduct
multiply both side by
Ig Thyristor 'T' will conduct if
Vg V V0 ≥ Vs
× Ig × Vg = g × P (i) When V0 = Vs= i0R + E thyristor T starts
Ig Ig
conducting.
Put the value right side, If Vs < E, thyristor T does not conduct
then, (ii) If Vs = E, thyristor T also does not conduct in that
Vg case.
× Ig × Vg = 130 × 0.5
Ig V s = i0 R + E
Vg2 = 65, Vg = 65 = 8.06 E = i0 R + E {∵ Vs = E}
i0R = 0 or say i0 = 0
0.5
Ig = = 0.062 Vs = E
8.06
Vm sinωt = E Let ωt = θ , Vs = E
E − Vg 15 − 8.06 Vmsin θ = E, θ = sin-1(E/Vm)
∴ Rs = g = =111.9 Ω
Ig 0.062 At ωt = π- θ we get

Vs = Vmsin(π- θ ) operation depends upon the flow of majority carriers
= Vmsin θ = E only, MOSFET is a unipolar device.
After ωt> π- θ , Vs<E Power MOSFET is used low power high frequency
converter. Since frequency of a power MOSFET is
Let at ωt = α hence i0 = 0, thyristor T starts conducting high then the time period of switching is very low
and ωt = π−θ, thyristor T stop conducting. because,
V s = i 0R + E 1
Vs − E Vm sin ωt − E T = µsec.
i0 = = f
R R Therefore, a power MOSFET have highest switching
1 πθ Vm sin ωt − E speed.
2π ∫α
i0av=
R 205. To ensure successful turn-on of a thyristor, the
1 minimum gate pulse width of the thyristor gate
=  Vm ( cos α + cos θ ) − E ( π − θ ) 
2 πR  pulse should be sufficient to ensure the cathode
From above α>θ so α min = θ, α max = π − θ current to reach
(a) the holding value of thyristor current
1
i 0av =  2Vm cos θ − E ( π − 2θ )  (b) the peak value of thyristor current
2 πR (c) the latching value of thyristor current
1 (d) 50% of the peak value of thyristor current
=  2Vm cos θ − E ( π − 2θ ) 
2 πR  UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I
 150  Ans : (c) Once the thyristor is switched on or in other
Here θ = sin ( E / Vm ) = sin 
−1 −1
 = 0.479 rad point of view, the anode current is above latching
 230 2 
current, the gate losses control over it. So for a
1 
i 0av = (
2π ( 8 ) 
)
2 230 2 cos ( 0.479 ) − 150 ( π − 2 × 0.479 )  successful SCR turn on, the minimum gate pulse width
 of SCR gate should be sufficient to ensure the cathode
1 current to reach the latching value of thyristor current.
= (
16 π
)
460 2 × 0.887 − 150 ( 3.14 − 0.958 )
di
206. To protect the thyristor form high , _____ is
1 dt
= ( 577.027 − 327.3 ) used in _____ with the thyristor.
16 π
1 (a) Resistor, parallel
= × 249.727 (b) Inductance, parallel
16 π
(c) Inductance, series
i0av = 4.96A (d) Capacitor, parallel
203. Power dissipation is negligibly small in: UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
(a) SCR (b) BJT Ans : (c) di/dt protection is required to protect SCR
(c) MOSFET (d) CMOS from formation of local hot spot due to high value of
BHEL ET 2019 rate of change of anode current. So we use an inductor
Ans. (d) : Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor in series with the thyristor as it presents high rate of
(CMOS), has lowest power dissipation CMOS logic change of current.
family has highest fan out among all logic families. 207. A thyristor is connected to supply with load.
204. Which is the power semiconductor device Anode is positive with respect to cathode. What
having highest switching speed? are the conditions of the junctions if the gate
current is zero?
(a) SCR (b) IGBT
(a) All the junctions are forward biased
(c) MOSFET (d) GTO
(b) All the junctions are reverse biased
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020
(c) p-n junctions near to the anode and cathode
Ans. (c) : are reverse biased and the middle junction is
forward biased.
(d) p-n junctions near to the anode and cathode
are forward biased and the middle junction is
reverse biased
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
Ans : (d) If the Anode terminal is made positive with
respect to cathode, when thyristor is connected to
supply with load we see that two outer P-N junction are
A power MOSFET is voltage controlled device that has now forward biased but the centre N- junction is reverse
three terminal called gate, drain and source. As its biased.
dv α to π — Thyristor OFF
208. ____ limits the across the switching device
dt Average output voltage
during _____. 1 π
(a) Snubber, turnoff of the device V0 = ∫ Vm sin ωt
2 α
(b) Inductor, turnoff of the device
V V
(c) Inductor, normal running conditions = m (1 + cos α ) ∵ Vrms = m
(d) Snubber, normal running conditions 2π 2
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II 2 Vrms
Ans : (a) A device which is used it reduce voltage = (1 + cos α )
2π
across the switch while current failed up and the
reduction in the voltage across the switch turn off is due V
to the voltage drop across the snubber inductance. V0 = rms (1 + cos α )
π 2
dv
209. To protect the thyristor form high , _____ 211. In line-side commutated circuit shown which
dt component is to be replaced by an energy
is used in _____ with the thyristor.
recovery transformer and a diode in order to
(a) R-C, parallel (b) R-L, series
limit overcharging of the capacitor?
(c) LC, series (d) R-C, series
Ans : (a) As we know that current through capacitor
follows the relation
dv dv
i = C ⇒ i ∝ (if Cis Constant)
dt dt
Hence leakage current through device will increase with
increase dv/dt (i.e. Rated of applied voltage). High dv/dt (a) L1 (b) L
can be availed by using snubber circuit (capacitor
(c) T1 (d) Dm
connected in series with resistance) in parallel with
device. UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
210. Find the average load voltage of the rectifier Ans : (c) T 1 Component is to be replaced by an energy
circuit, if the device is switched to ON at a recovery transforms and a diode in order to limit
angular angle. overcharging of the capacitor.
212. In a thyristor-
(a) Latching current is a associated with turn-off
process
(b) Holding current is associated with turn-on
process
Vrms Vrms (c) Both latching and holding current are
(a) cos α (b) (1 + cos α ) associated with turn-off process
π 2 π 2
(d) Latching current is associated with turn-on
Vrms Vrms
(c) (1 + cos α ) (d) (1 + cos α ) process.
π 2π UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
Ans : (d) The main difference between latching and
Ans : (b) holding current of Thyristor (SCR) is that latching
current is related with turn on process while holding
current is related to turn off process. Latching current is
the minimum anode current requires keeping turned on
SCR after removing gate signal.
213. Distortion factor (DF) and total harmonic
distortion (THD) are related by.
1 1
(a) DF = 2
(b) THD =
1 − THD 1 + DF2
1 1
(c) THD = (d) THD = −1
1 − DF2 DF2
0 to α — Thyristor ON UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
Ans : (d) Relation between distortion factor Q total 216. For low power applications a GTO has:
harmonic distortion. (a) Low on-state gain
1 (b) Low ratio of peak surge current to average
distortion factor = current
2
1 + Total harmonic Distortion
(c) Higher blocking voltage capability
1 (d) Low ratio of peak controllable current to
DF=
1 + ( THD )
2 average current
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
Squaring Both sides,
Ans : (c) Due to this large negative current, GTOs
2 1 (Gate turn off thyristor) are used in large power
DF =
1 + THD 2 application. These asymmetrical GTOs have an
DF2 + DF2(THD)2 = 1 applicable reverse voltage (Higher blocking voltage)
1 − DF 2 capability (typically 20-25 volt). These are used where
(THD)2 = either reverse voltage across it would have occures are
DF2
reverse conducting diode is connected across circuit.
 1  217. The SCR in the circuit is turned on at t=0. The
THD = 2
− 1
 DF  conduction time duration of the SCR is
214. Operating frequency in IGBT s is around:
(a) 50 kHz (b) 2 MHz
(c) 1 MHz (d) 1.5 MHz
Ans : (a) Uninterruptible power supplies with constant
(a) 2π LC (b) π LC
load and typically low frequency welding which require
a high average current and low operating frequency (c) LC (d) (
1/ 2π LC )
which is less than 50 KHz ( < 50KHz ) . Some typical UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I
IGBT application include motor control need operating Ans. (b): The conduction time of the thyristor in one
frequency < 20KHz. complete cycle is:–
215. For the power semiconductor devices IGBT,
MOSFET, Diode and thyristor, which one of
the following statements is true
(a) MOSFET is majority carrier device, whereas
IGBT, Diode, thyristor are minority carrier
devices
(b) IGBT and MOSFET are majority carrier t c = π LC thyristor turn on time may be defined as the
devices, whereas Diode and Thyristor are time required by SCR to change its state from forward
minority carrier devices blocking mode to forward conduction mode when gate
(c) All of the four are majority carrier devices pulse is applied.
(d) All the four are minority carrier devices 218. A triac based single phase voltage regulator
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I feeds an R–L load as shown in the figure. What
Ans : (a) IGBT, MOSFET, Diode and Thyristor all is the range of triggering angle for which the
are semiconductor device power output voltage V0 is not controllable?
Properties MOSFET IGBT Thyristor Diode
Symbol
Type of Majority Minority Minority Minority

Device Carrier Carrier Carrier Carrier
V-I Voltage Voltage Current Not
Controlled controlled (a) 450 ≤ α ≤ 1800 (b) 450 ≤ α ≤ 900
0 0
Temp Positive Flat Negative Negative (c) 0 ≤ α ≤ 45 (d) 900 ≤ α ≤ 1800
Coefficient UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I
Ans : (c) For controlling the load the minimum voltage 220. The thyristor in the figure is turned on at t=0.
of firing angle must be greater than load phase angle. The inductor and capacitor are initially
uncharged. The steady state value of the
capacitor voltage, vc is
 ωL 
So, φ = tan −1  
 R  (a) 40V (b) 10V
 10  (c) 20V (d) 30V
φ = tan −1   = tan −1 (1)
 10  UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II
φ= 45 0 Ans. (a): In a given LC circuit. In the steady state
firing angle for which the output voltage is uncontrolled condition, the voltage across the capacitor is two times
is of the supply voltage.
0° ≤ α min ≤ φ
Thus, 0° ≤ α min ≤ 45°
219. A thyristor circuit is shown in the figure. If the
latching current of the thyristor is 10mA, the
minimum width of the gate pulse for successful
triggering of the thyristor is VC= 2VS
VC = 2 × 20 = 40volt
221. Two SCRs having forward on-state resistances
of 0.05Ω and 0.04Ω respectively, are connected
in parallel to supply a load. If the load current
is 90A, the current taken by the SCRs,
respectively, are
(a) 1µs (b) 4µs (a) 50A and 40A (b) 40A and 50A
(c) 5µs (d) 3µs (c) 30A and 60A (d) 10A and 80A
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II
Ans. (c): Given data:- Ans. (b): It is given that:-
Latching current of thyristor = 10mA R1= 0.05Ω, R2= 0.04Ω
di Since both SCR are connected in parallel and Load
∵ E = IR + L current = 90A from current division Rule,
dt
R2
I1 = IL ×
R1 + R 2
0.04
= 90 ×
0.04 + 0.05
4
I1 = 90 × = 40A
9
R1
Solving the above differential equation for current (i) :- I2 = IL ×
R 1 + R2
E − t 
R
i = 1 − e  A L
0.05
R  = 90 ×
0.05 + 0.04
10
10  − −3 
t I2 = 50A I1 = 40A
10 × 10−3 =  1 − e 5×10 
10   222. A power MOSFET is a–
e −200t
= 0.99 (a) Voltage controlled device
Taking log on both sides (b) Current controlled device
–2000t = –0.01 (c) Frequency controlled device
t = 5 µ sec (d) None of the above
Ans. (a) : 225. A sine wave as has a peak value of 12 Volts. Its
crest factor is–
(a) 1.732 (b) 1.11
(c) 1.415 (d) 0.706
Ans. (c) : Given that-
peak value of sin wave voltage = 12V
The r.m.s. value for sin wave is given by-
A power MOSFET is a three terminals are called gate, Vr.m.s. = Peak value of voltage
source and drain. It is a voltage controlled device. A 2
power MOSFET possess high input impedance. Vm
Power MOSFET are available upto about 500V, 140A Vr.m.s. =
2
rating its operating frequency is upto about 1MHz.It is
used for switching or amplifying signals. The main Peak value of voltage
advantage of power MOSFET that it requires almost no Crest factor =
r.m.s value of voltage
input current to control the load current.
223. When transistors are used in series or parallel, V V × 2
a snubber circuit is used to– = m = m
Vm Vm
(a) Control the current (b) Control the voltage 2
(c) Limit di/dt (d) All of these
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 crest factor = 2 = 1.415
Ans. (c) : A snubber circuit is that limit the rate of rise 226. A voltage source inverter is used to control the
 dv  speed of a three-phase, 50 Hz squirrel cage
of voltage   across the power switch and the rate of
 dt  induction motor. Its slip for rated torque is 4%.
The flux is maintained at rated value. If the
 di 
rise of current   . So as to modify the switching stator resistance and rotational losses are
 dt  neglected, then the impressed voltage to obtain
trajectory limit the peak power dissipation and protect twice the rated torque at starting should be–
 di   dv  (a) 10 Hz (b) 5 Hz
the switch against excessive   or   .
 dt   dt  (c) 2 Hz (d) 4 Hz
It reduced power loss in a transistor during switching ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
period and protect the device from the switching stress Ans. (d) :
of high voltage and currents. Given:
224. In figure shown below, the Peak Inverse Frequency, f = 50 Hz
Voltage (PIV) required for diode is– Slip, s = 0.04
Therefore, the impressed frequency of voltage to
obtain twice the rated torque at starting is given by:
fr = 2sf
= 2 × 0.04 × 50 = 4 Hz
227. Use of a reverse conducting thyristor in place
of antiparallel combination of thyristor and
(a) 300V (b) 200V feedback diode in an inverter:
(c) 100V (d) 400 V (a) Effectively minimises the peak commutating
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 current
Ans. (d) : Given that:- (b) Decreases the operating frequency of
operation
(c) Minimises the effects of load inductance on
the commutation performance
(d) Causes deterioration in the commutation
performance
ESE 1998
Ans. (d) : Use of a reverse conducting thyristor in place
PIV is measure when diode is reversed biased. of antiparallel combination of thyristor and feedback
Voltage across diode, diode in an inverter causes deterioration in the
= (−300) – (100) = −400 V commutation performance.

Directions : Consists of two statements, one labelled (a) 1.98 W and 1.7 W
as 'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. (b) 2.2 W and 1.7 W
Examine these two statements carefully and select the (c) 1.98 W and 0.792 W
answers to these items using the codes given below:
(d) 2.2 W and 0.792 W
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are ESE 2017
individually true and Statement (II) is the Ans. (c) : From the given circuit,
correct explanation of Statement (I) V − VCE(sat ) 200 − 2
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are IC(max) = CC = = 19.8A
individually true but Statement (II) is not RL 10
the correct explanation of Statement (I) VCC − IC
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is Pon = t ON .fs
6
false
200 × 19.8
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is = × 3 × 10 −6 × 1000 = 1.98W
true 6
228. Statement (I): V I
The IGBT makes use of the advantages of both Poff = CC C .t off .fs = 0.792 W
6
powers MOSFET and BJT.
231. Consider the following statements with regard
Statement (II):
The IGBT has MOS input characteristic and to a GTO:
bipolar output characteristic. 1. The turn-off gain of the GTO is large.
ESE 2017 2. Large negative gate current pulses are
Ans. (a) : IGBT has advantage of both MOSFET and required to turn off the GTO.
BJT as it has high impedance gate like MOSFET and 3. GTO has large reverse blocking capability.
small on-state voltage like BJT. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
229. The turn-off time of thyristor is 30 µs at 50oC. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
What is its turn-off time at 100oC? (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 15 µs (b) 30 µs ESE 2017
(c) 60 µs (d) 120 µs Ans. (b) : Gate turn-off (GTO) thyrister have small
ESE 2017 turn-off gain and large –ve gate current pulses are
Ans. (c) : required to turn off it.
GTO has small reverse blocking capability.
232. Consider the following statements with regard
to power diodes:
1. The breakdown voltage is directly
proportional to the doping density of the drift
toff increases with temperature but not linearly. region.
toff doubles between 25oC to 125oC 2. Losses in the diode are less due to
So, toff = 2 × 30 µs conductivity modulation of the drift region in
= 60 µs the on-state.
230. The IGBT (Insulated Gate Bipolar Transistor) 3. The vertically oriented structure supports
used in the circuit has the following data : large blocking voltages.
tON = 3 µs, tOFF = 1.2 µs, Duty cycle (d) = 0.7, Which of the above statements is/are correct?
VCE(sat) = 2 V and fs = 1 kHz. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
What are the switching power losses during (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
turn-on and turn-off, respectively? ESE 2017
Ans. (b, c) : The breakdown voltage is inversly
proportional to the doping density.
When power diode is forward biased, the holes will be
injected from the P+ region into the drift region. So on-
state losses in the diode are reduced. This phenomenon
is called conductivity modulation.
With vertical structure the current rating of the device is
proportional its area, and the large voltage blocking
capability is achieved.

Directions : Consists of two statements, one labelled 236. The ig-Vg characteristics of a thyristor is a
as ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. straight line passing through origin with a
Examine these two statements carefully and select the gradient of 2.5 × 103. If Pg = 0.015 watt, the
answers to these items using the codes given below: value of gate voltage will be nearly
Codes: (a) 5.0V (b) 6.1V
(a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are (c) 7.5V (d) 8.5V
individually true; and Statement (II) is the ESE 2019
correct explanation of Statement (I)
Ans. (b) : Given
(b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
individually true; but Statement (II) is Vg
NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I) = 2.5 × 103 or Vg = 2500 Ig
Ig
(c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is
false Pg = VgIg = (2500 Ig)Ig
(d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement (II) is 0.015 0.015
true Ig 2 = = Ig =
2500 2500
233. Statement (I) : A large gate pulse is required to
turn on a GTO thyristor. = 2.449 × 10-3 A
Statement (II) : This thyristor does not need a Vg = 2500 × 2.449 × 10-3
commutation circuit. = 6.123 V
ESE 2018 237. TRIAC as a bidirectional triode thyristors is
Ans. (d) : The GTO is a power switching device that used to control the output voltage by varying
can be turned on by a short pulse of gate current and conduction time or firing delay angle in
turned off by a reverse gate pulse. This reverse gate (a) AC-DC converters (Controlled rectifiers)
current amplitude is dependent on the anode current to
be turned off. (b) AC-AC converters (AC voltage controllers)
Hence there is no need of an external communication (c) DC-DC converters (DC choppers)
circuit to turn it off. (d) DC-AC converters (Inverters)
So statement I is false and II is true. ESE 2020
234. Which one of the following in not required for Ans. (b) :
power diode?
(a) High speed operation
(b) Fast communication
(c) Small recovery time
(d) Low on state voltage drop
ESE 2019
Ans. (b) : The power diode should have.
High speed operation for that, small recovery time is
required.
Low on state voltage drop to reduce conduction
losses.
235. The reverse recovery time of a diode is trr = 3
µs and the rate of fall of the diode current is
di
= 30 A/µs. The storage charge QRR and the
dt
peak inverse current IRR will be respectively
(a) 135 µC and 90A (b) 270 µC and 90A
(c) 270 µC and 60A (d) 135 µC and 60A
ESE 2019
 di  A
Ans. (a) : IRR =   × t rr = 30   × 3µs
dt
   µs 
1 Vo (ac) can be controlled by controlling firing angle of
Q = t rr × I RR
2 TRIAC.
1 As triac is bidirectional switch so it can conduct both
= × 3 × 10−6 × 90 = 135 × 10 −6 C
2 positive and negative currents, so it is used in AC-AC
= 135 µC converters.

238. A string of series connected thyristors is to be 240. In half wave SCR, power control circuit, if the
used for an application of 6kV and 1000A with firing angle is 300, then for one complete cycle
derating factor 0.2. If the available thyristors of operation, the load gets power for
are of rating 1000V and 200A, then what (a) 30º (b) 60º
should be the number of series and parallel (c) 333º (d) 150º
connected thyristors UPPCL AE 2014
(a) 7, 6 (b) 8, 6
Ans. (d) : In half wave SCR, power control circuit, if
(c) 8, 7 (d) 7, 8
the firing angle is 300, then for one complete cycle of
UPPCL AE 2014
α 300
Ans. (c) : Given that: operation, the load get power for = = = 150º
Total voltage of string (VT) = 6 kV = 6 × 103 V 2 2
Rated voltage of thyristor (V) = 1000V 241. A thyristor is connected in series with the series
Total current in string (IT) = 1000 A combination of a coil and a capacitor.
Rated current of thyristor (I) = 200 A Resistance and the inductance of the coil are R
= 2.4 Ω and L = 25µH respectively. To achieve
No. of series & parallel connected SCR = ?
condition of self-commutation value of the
Derating factor (D.F.) = 0.2 capacitor C should be
For series connection (a) 20µF (b) 30µF
VT (c) 10µF (d) 50µF
D.F.= 1- string efficiency = 1-
ns × V UPPCL AE 2014
Ans. (c) : Resistance R = 2.4 Ω
6 × 103
0.2 = 1 − Inductance L = 25 µH
n s × 1000
Condition for self commutation is-
6 6 4L
= 0.8 ⇒ n s = = 7.5 R2 <
ns 0.8 C
ns = 8
4 × 25 ×10−6
for parallel connection- ( 2.4 )2 <
C
IT
D.F. = 1 − 100 × 10−6
nP × I C<
( 2.4 )2
1000
0.2 = 1 − C < 17.36 µF
n p × 200
242. The average load current supplied by a
10 thyristor depends on.
= 0.8
2n p (a) firing angle
10 50 (b) firing frequency
np = = np = = 6.4 (c) magnitude of gate current
0.8 × 2 8
np = 7 (d) all of the above
239. Two transistor analogy is used to explain the MPPSC AE 2017
operation principle of Ans. (a) : The firing angle controls the period of
(a) BJT (b) MOSFET conduction and hence average load current. It's the
(c) IGBT (d) Thyristor angle after which the thyristor 'fires', or in other words,
UPPCL AE 2014 conducts. Firing angle of thyristor varies from 00 to
0
180 .
Ans. (d) : Two transistor analogy is used to explain the
operation principle of Thyristor.
(ii) Diode Rectifier
1. The peak inverse voltage (PIV) for the diode in
the given circuit equals.
(a) 3V (b) 2.3 V

(c) 0 V (d) 6 V
Schematic diagram of thyristor PS PCL AE 2012

Ans. (a) : The peak inverse voltage (PIV) for the diode 5. Consider the waveform of full-wave rectified
in the given circuit is- PIV = 3V voltage. The transform of the function is
The peak inverse voltage is the maximum voltage that
diode holds when it is reverse biased, so maximum
voltage there is 3V, which drops across diode during
negative half cycle.
Note: PIV never being negative value.
2. A half wave rectifier has an input voltage of
240 V RMS. If the step down transformer has
a turns ratio of 8:1, what is the peak load 1 πs 1 πs
voltage? Neglect diode drop. (a) cot h (b) cot h
(a) 27.5 V (b) 86.5 V s2 − 1 2 s2 + 1 2
(c) 30.0 V (d) 42.5 V 1 πs 1 πs
(c) 2 cot (d) 2 cot
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 s +1 2 s −1 2
Vm 2 × Vs WBPSC AE 2003
Ans. (d) : ( V0 )1 = = Ans. (b) :
2 2
2 × 240 6. In a 3-phase full wave a.c. to d.c. converter, the
= = 169.68 ratio of output ripple frequency to supply
2
voltage frequency is–
( V0 )1 ≃ 170V (a) 2 (b) 3
( V0 )1 8 (c) 6 (d) 12
=
( V0 )2 1 BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
170 8 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
= Ans. (c) : In a 3-phase full wave a.c. to d.c. converter,
( V0 )2 1 the ratio of output ripple frequency to supply voltage
170 frequency is-
( V0 )2 = = 21.25
8 fout = nfin
V Where, n = no. of thyristor
( V0 )2 = m
2
f out
Vm =6
21.25 = f in
2
Vm = 42.5 Volt 7. A 240V, 50Hz supply feeds a highly inductive
load of 50 Ohm resistance at firing angle 45o.
3. As compared to a full wave rectifier using two What would be the value of load power when
diodes, the four diode bridge rectifier has the
supply is through a thyristor half control
dominant advantage of
bridge.
(a) higher current rating
(b) lower peak inverse voltage (a) 128 W (b) 367 W
(c) lower ripple factor (c) 512 W (d) 418 W
(d) higher efficiency UPRVUNL AE 2014
WBPSC AE 2012 V
Ans. (c) Vavg = m (1 + cos α )
Ans. (b) : π
4. An SCR is used for converting a.c. to d.c. The 2 × 240
anode supply is 220V, 50 Hz and the firing =
π
(1 + cos 45o )
angle is adjusted to 60º. The dc output voltage
is: =108.092 (1.707) = 184.5V
(a) 74.2 V (b) 311 V Vavg 184.5
(c) 220 V (d) None of these Iavg = = = 3.69A
R 50
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
V π−α 180° − 45°
Ans. (a) : Vout = m [1 + cos α ] I rms = Iavg = 3.69 × = 3.2A
π 180°
2π
P = 3.2 × 3.2 × 50 = 512W
220 2
= 1 + cos 600  8. For the circuit given above, given load is 230V,
2π
50 Hz. Calculate the power absorbed in load
Vout = 74.2V
for α = π/4
10.
What is the reason behind considering SCR, a
semi controlled device?
(a) SCR can be turned On but not OFF with a
gate pulse
(b) SCR can only be turned ON during one half
cycle of an alternating current
(c) SCR can be turned OFF but not ON with a
(a) 481 W (b) 430.5W gate pulse
(c) 41W (d) 425.2W (d) SCR can only be turned OFF during one half
UPRVUNL AE 2014 cycle of an alternating current
Ans. (a) UPRVUNL AE 2014
Ans. (a) SCR is called semi controlled device because
SCR can turned On but not turn OFF with gate pulse.
SCR can be turned on simply by applying a gate pulse.
11. Consider the following given image and
identify it.
1
∫ π (V sin 2 ω t ) dwt
π
2
Vrms = m
α
Vm2 π (a)
Output of a Butterfly filter
=
2π ∫ (1 − cos 2θ)dθ
α (b)
Output of a Half-Wave rectifier
(c)
Output of a Full-Wave rectifier
V  0 − sin 2α  (d)
Sinusoidal signal
= m × (π − α) −  
2π  2  UPRVUNL AE 2014
230  π 1 Ans. (b) In half wave rectification the rectifier conducts
Vrms = × π− + current only during the positive half-cycles of input ac
π  4 2 supply. The negative half cycles of ac supply are
230 3π 1 suppressed i.e. during negative half cycle, no current is
= × + conducted and hence no voltage appears across the load.
π 4 2
12. In a 3-phase half-wave rectifier, if per phase
Vrms = 219.3041 input is 200 V, then the average output voltage
2
Vrms is:
P= = 480.942W ≃ 481W (a) 233.91 V (b) 116.95 V
R
(c) 202.56 V (d) 101.28 V
9. Calculate the power drawn from supply for TSPSC AEE 2017
single phase VSI phase converter, given that
Ans. (a) : Given, Vphase = 200 V
load current I0 = 200 sin( ω - 450) mA and DC
voltage supply is 220V. Vmp = 200 2 V
(a) 9.8 W (b) 19.8W
(c) 27.25W (d) 34.03
UPRVUNL AE 2014
Ans. (b) Power drawn from source
= V01 I01 cos θ1
I01 = RMS value of fundamental output current
V01 = RMS Value of fundamental output voltage Average output voltage in a 3-phase half-wave rectifier
4 × VS 4 × 220 is–
V01 = = = 198.069V
π 2 π 2 3 3
200 V0 = Vmp
I01 = mA θ1 = 45 o 2π
2
3 3
220 So, V0 = × 200 2
P = 198.069 × × 10−3 × cos 45 2π
2
V0 = 233.91V
= 19.8W

13. In a single phase full wave AC voltage Ans. (b) : A phase controlled converter having ideal
regulator, if the firing angle is varied from 0 to thyristor has an overlap of 300 at α = 00, the overlap of
180o, the rms output voltage can be varied from the converter when it operates at the inverter limits will
(a) VS to 0.25 VS (b) VS to 0.5 VS be greater than 30º.
(c) VS to 1.5 VS (d) VS to 0 18. In a single phase half controlled bridge rectifier
TNPSC AE 2018 feeding a purely resistive load at a firing angle
Ans. (d) : α, each thyristor and free wheeling diode
conduct respectively for-
α = 180o = Vout = 0
(a) αº, 0º (b) π − α, 0º
α = 0 = Vout = Vs (c) π − α, α º (d) π + α, α º
14. The output ripple frequency is 'x' times of the UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
input supply frequency in 3 φ full wave AC to Ans. (b) : In a single phase half controlled bridge
DC converter. The value of the 'x' is rectifier feeding a purely resistive load at a firing angle
(a) 2 (b) 3 α, each thyristor and free wheeling diode conduct
(c) 6 (d) 12 respectively for π − α, 0º.
TNPSC AE 2019 19. The advantage of rectifier welding set is
f (a) reduced no load losses
Ans. (c) : 1/x = in (b) easy arc starting
f out
(c) less hazardous
In full wave converter fout = 2 fin (d) Both (a) and (b)
for 3 phase WBPSC AE 2017
3 × fout = 3×2fin Ans. (d) :
f out 20. An SCR has a half-cycle surge current rating of
=6
f in 3 kA at 50 Hz supply. Determine its one cycle
surge current rating and I2t rating.
f in 1 1
or = = (a) 3 kA and 45000 A2s respectively
f out 6 x
 3  2
∴ x=6 (b)   kA and 45000 A s respectively
 2
15. In a half wave rectifier, the peak value of the
 3  2
a.c. voltage across the secondary of the (c)   kA and 45 A s respectively
transformer is 20 2V .If no filter circuit is  2 
used, the maximum d.c. voltage across the load (d) 3 kA and 45 A2s respectively
will be OMC Deputy manager 2019
(a) 28.28V (b) 25V  3 
Ans. (b) : One cycle surge current rating =   kA
(c) 14.14V (d) 9V  2
TNPSC AE 2019 Again I2t rating is associated with device energy
Ans. (d) : Given Vm = 20 2V capability. This rating is calculated for 10 m Sec.
2
V 20 2  3000 
maximum d.c. voltage = m = = 9V ∴ I2 t rating =  –3
 × 10 ×10 = 45000A s
2
π 3.14  2 
16. In an arc rectifier the drop in voltage at the 21. Third pin in a 3-pin plug is provided so as to
cathode is approximately (a) provide an earth connection
(a) 1 volt (b) 6 to 7 volts (b) provide a 3-phase supply, when required
(c) 60 to 70 volts (d) 1.2 volts (c) provide a spare phase, when required
Vizag Steel MT 2012 (d) prevent a plug being reversed in the socket
WBPSC AE 2012
Ans. (b) : In an arc rectifier the drop in voltage at
cathode is approximately 6 to 7 volts. Ans. (a)
17. A phase controlled converter having ideal 22. A 6-pulse thyristor rectifier bridge is connected
to a balanced 3phase 60 Hz AC source. The
thyristor has an overlap of 30º at α = 0. The
lowest frequency harmonic component in the
overlap of the converter when it operates at the AC source line current will be:(assume that DC
inverter limit will be- output of the current rectifier is constant)–
(a) 30º (b) greater than 30º (a) 240 Hz (b) 200 Hz
(c) less than 30º (d) nothing can be said (c) 300 Hz (d) 150 Hz
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
Ans. (c) : 3rd harmonic- Component is absent in 27. The input voltage to a full wave bridge rectifier
3-phase balanced source. Thyristor controlled rectifier is v(t) = 200sin ωt volts. The peak inverse
have lowest harmonic component is 5th harmonic. voltage of the diodes is
Frequency = 5 f (a) 200 volt (b) 2 × 200 volt
= 5 × 60 (c) 2 ×100 volt (d) 400 volt
= 300 Hz. TSTRANSCO AE 2018
23. The displacement power factor of a single Ans. (a) : Peak inverse voltage for full wave centre-tap
phase, fully controlled rectifier which is feeding bridge Rectifier is PIV = 2Vm
constant DC current into a load when the and For full-wave Bridge rectifier it is
magnitude of firing angle is 45 degrees, will be: PIV = Vm
(a) 1 (b) 1/√2 Where, Vm = maximum value of voltage applied at the
(c) 1/2 (d) √3/2 input side.
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 if Vin = 200 sinωt volts ( ∵ V=Vm sin ωt)
Ans. (b) : Displacement factor = cos α Vm = 200 V
α = 450 ∴ PIV for bridge rectifier = Vm = 200V
1 28. In a dual converter the values of firing angles
cos 450 = of the two converters (α1 and α2) have values
2 (a) α1 = α2 (b) α1 = α2 = 90º
24. If maximum value of source voltage for a full (c) α1 + α2 = 180º (d) α1 > α2
wave centre tap (M-2) rectifier is 10 V, the RPSC VPITI 2018
magnitude of ripple voltage is: Ans. (c) : For dual converter–
(a) 3.8 V (b) 3.07 V α1 + α1 = 180º
(c) 29.8 V (d) 2.98 V for α < 90º act as rectifier
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 for α > 90º act as inverter
Ans. (b) : Vripple = 2
Vrms 2
− VDC So dual converter means act as both inverter and
rectifier so
2Vm α1+ α2 = 180º
Where, VDC =
π 29. A full wave controlled rectifier with resistive
2 2 load is supplied from 200 sin 100t (volts) mains.
 10   2 ×10 
=   −  What will be the average output voltage if the
 2  π  SCRs are fired at 60º?
= 50 − 40.53 = 3.07 V (a) 150 V (b) 300 V
(c) 200 V (d) 95.5 V
25. For the same voltage output, which one of the Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
following has larger peak inverse voltage of the Ans. (d) : Given, Vs= 200sin100t
thyristor?
Output voltage of a 1-f full wave controlled rectifier
(a) Three phase full wave bridge circuit can be given by-
(b) Three phase full wave centre tapped circuit
2V
(c) Single phase full wave centre tapped circuit Vo = m cos α
π
(d) Single phase full wave bridge circuit
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
ESE 2006 2 × 200 2
= cos 60º
Ans. (b) : For same voltage output, has larger peak π
inverse voltage of the thyristor is three phase full wave 400 2 1
center tapped circuit. = ×
π 2
26. In a 3-phase fully controlled bridge rectifier the 200 2
firing pulse frequency is =
π
(a) 3 times the line frequency
= 90.03
(b) 6 times the line frequency
Vo ≅ 95.5 V
(c) 9 times the line frequency
30. What can be the best rectification efficiency of
(d) Same as line frequency
a full wave rectifier?
MPPSC AE 2016 (a) 76.4 percent (b) 98.4 percent
Ans. (b) : In a 3-phase fully controlled bridge rectifier (c) 99.8 percent (d) 81.2 percent
the firing pulse frequency is 6 times the line frequency. JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
Pdc 33. The average output voltage (Vdc) of a half-wave
Ans. (d) : Efficiency, η = × 100% rectifier with resistive load can be given by
Pac following expression, where Vmax is the
For full wave rectifier, maximum or peak voltage of the AC sinusoidal
2 supply.
2 2 
Pdc = Idc .R L =  .Im  .R L V 2Vmax
π  (a) max (b)
π π
2
I  Vmax 4Vmax
2
Pac = I rms (R f + Rs + R L ) =  m  ( Rf + Rs + R L ) (c) (d)
 2 2π π
4 2 GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
2
.I m R L Ans. (a) : For input voltage,(Vmax)
η= 2 π
Im V
.( R f + R s + R L ) output voltage (Vdc) = max = 0.318 Vmax
2 π
If ( R f + R s ) << R L (so neglect the Rf + Rs) 34. Three phase 6-pulse rectifier is also known as
3-phase,
4 2 8 (a) half-wave rectifier (b) full-wave rectifier
η= . = = 0.812 = 81.2%
π2 1 π2 (c) quarter-wave rectifier (d) None of the above
31. What is the lowest ripple frequency in case of GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
full wave rectifier? Ans. (b) : Three phase 6 pulse means 6 pulse
(a) 2f (b) 4f comprising of 3 positive and 3 negative pulse which
happens in full-wave rectifier, It is also commonly
(c) 0.5f (d) f referred as a six pulse bridge.
Vizag Steel MT 2011
35. Rectifier converts
Ans. (a) : The ripple frequency in case of full-wave (a) AC into DC
rectifier is 2f. (b) DC into AC
(c) AC into AC (frequency is different)
(d) DC into DC (magnitude is different)
Ans. (a) : A rectifier is a AC to DC converter.
The rectifier circuit is typically made from a set of
cleverly inter locked diodes. Rectifiers are classified
into three types namely uncontrolled, half controlled
and full controlled rectifiers.
32. A full-wave diode bridge rectifier circuit has: 36. A free-wheeling diode in a phase controlled
(a) 3 diodes (b) 2 diodes converter–
(c) 4 diodes (d) 8 diodes (a) Decreases the possibility of discontinuous
MPPSC AE 2014 conduction in the load
(b) Increases the possibility of discontinuous
Ans. (c) : A full-wave diode bridge rectifier circuit has conduction in the load
4 diodes. It is known as full wave bridge rectifier. (c) Reduces the power factor and causes over
voltages
(d) Causes over voltages
APTRANSCO AE 2011
Ans. (a) : A free wheeling diode in a phase controlled
converter decreases the possibility of discontinuous
conduction in load.
This also improve the power factor and efficiency.
37. The ripple content of load current of a
converter feeding RL load is decided by–
For full wave bridge rectifier- (a) Load resistance alone
(b) Load inductance alone
2I I
Idc = m I rms = m (c) Both load resistance and load inductance
π 2 (d) Neither resistance nor inductance
PIV = 2Vm Efficiency = 81.2% APTRANSCO AE 2011
Ripple factor = 0.48 TUF = 0.812 Ans. (c) : The ripple content of load current of a
converter feeding RL load is decided by both load
Form factor = 1.11 Peak factor = 2 resistance and load inductance.
38. In a full wave rectifier, the current in each 41. What is the maximum output voltage of a 3-
diode flows for. phase bridge rectifier supplied with line
(a) Whole cycle of the input signal voltage of 440 V?
(b) Half cycle of the input signal (a) 528 V (b) 396 V
(c) More than half-cycle of the input signal (c) 594 V (d) 616 V
(d) None of these Punjab PSC SDE 2017
Vizag Steel MT 2017 LMRC AE 2015
Ans. (b) : In full wave rectifier, the current in each ESE 2007
diode flow for half cycle of input signal. Ans. (c) : Maximum output voltage of a 3- φ bridge
rectifier is for α >300.
3Vm 3 2 3 2 × 440
V0 = = Vs = ≃ 594V
π π π
42. What is the reverse recovery time of a diode
when switched from forward bias Vf to reverse
bias VR?
(a) Time taken to remove the stored minority
carriers
Fig full wave rectifier. (b) Time taken by the diode voltage to attain zero
1 1 value
First +Ve cycle D1D2 work and other –Ve cycle D3D4 (c) time to remove stored minority carriers plus
2 2
work. the time to bring the diode voltage to reverse
bias VR
39. The average output voltage in a single-phase (d) Time taken by the diode current to reverse
half wave converter is given by
π
LMRC AE 2015
α+
1
π
1 2 Ans. (c) : Time to remove stored minority carriers plus
(a)
π ∫π V m cos θ dθ (b)
π ∫π V m cos θ dθ the time to bring the diode voltage to reverse bias VR.
α−
2
α−
2
43. The peak inverse voltage of a full wave bridge
π
rectifier is :-
+α
1 2
1
π (a) Vm / 2 (b) 2 Vm
π π∫ 2π α∫
(c) Vm cos θ dθ (d) Vm cos θ dθ (c) 2 Vm / 3 (d) Vm
2
−α UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I Ans. (d) : The peak inverse voltage of a full wave
Ans. (d) : The average output voltage in a single-phase bridge rectifier is Vm.
π 44. A single phase full bridge diode rectifier
1
2π α∫
half wave converter is given by Vm cos θ dθ delivers a constant load current of 10A.
Average and rms values of source current are
40. In a bridge ac to dc converter using P-N respectively:
diodes, if the input voltage is V sinωt, what is (a) 5A, 10A (b) 10A, 10A
the peak inverse voltage across any diode? (c) 5A, 5A (d) 0A, 10A
(a) V (b) 2V OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
(c) V/2 (d) V/√2 UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 Ans. (d) : Consider a full bridge Converter
Ans. (a) :
Particulars Half- Centre Bridge
wave tap type
1 No of diodes 1 2 4
2 Transformer No Yes No
necessary
3 Max efficiency 40.6% 81.2% 81.2%
4 Ripple factor 1.21 0.48 0.48 For constant load,
5 Output fm 2fm 2fm Irms = highest Current
frequency = 10A
6 Peak inverse Vm 2Vm Vm Iaverage = 10 -10 + 10 -10
voltage = 0A

45. In a n-phase one way converter, the d.c. output 50. For continuous conduction, in a single-phase
voltage is :- semi-converter, each SCR conducts for
E m tan ( π / n ) E sin ( π / n ) (a) α (b) π
(a) (b) m (c) α + π (d) π – α
(π / n) (π / n) HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
E m cos ( π / n ) Ans. (d) 1– φ semi converter.
(c) E m / 2 (d)
(π / n)
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : n-phase one way converter, the d.c output
voltage is,
E sin ( π / n ) For continuous conduction, conduction period –
V0(dc) = m
( )
π / n TC = π – α
Therefore each SCR conducts for (π – α).
46. When a series LC circuit is connecter to a dc
supply of V volts through a thyristor, then peak 51. In a single-phase bridge converter, for firing
current through thyristor is angle α = 00 the dc output voltage is..........
(a) V × square root of (C.L) (a) Vm / π (b) 2Vm / π
(b) V/square root of (C.L) (c) Vm / 2π (d) 2Vm / π
(c) V × square root of (C/L) AAI Junior Executive 2016
(d) V × square root of (L/C) Ans. (d) :
PTCUL AE 2012
Ans. (c) : When series LC circuit is connected to a dc
supply of V volt through a thyristor, peak current
C
through thyristor = V × 1 π
47.
L
The duration of pulse in a pulse triggering
Vavg =
T 0 ∫
Vm sin ωt dωt
system for thyristor should be at least 2Vm

Vavg =
(a) 60µs (b) 40 µs π
(c) 20 µs (d) 10 µs 52. A bridge rectifier provides 50mA current at
150V, the average current and PIV rating of
PTCUL AE 2012 each diode, respectively are :
Ans. (d) : A thyristor or TRIAC with the anode positive (a) 79mA, 167V (b) 25mA, 236V
with respect to cathode and with adequate gate drive (c) 12.5 mA, 167V (d) 25mA, 120V
will turn on within 10µs. Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
48. Each diode of three phase, 6 pulse bridge diode Ans. (b) : For Bridge type Rectifier,
rectifier conducts for PIV = Vm
(a) 60 degrees (b) 120 degrees
(c) 180 degrees (d) 90 degrees 2Vm
Given, Vdc = = 150V
PTCUL AE 2012 π
Ans. (b) : A 3 phase 6 pulse converter is nothing but the 150π
⇒ Vm = = 236V
3 phase full converter using 6 devices each conducting 2
for 120°. 50
and average current = = 25mA
49. In a single phase full converter bridge, the 2
average output voltage is given by : 53. The output DC voltage of a rectifier is 25V and
1 α+( π / 2) 1 π+α rms voltage is 2.5V. The ripple factor of this
(a) ∫
π α−( π / 2)
Vm cos θdθ (b) ∫ Vm cos θdθ
π α
waveform will be:
(a) 2% (b) 10%
1 α+π (c) 1% (d) 25%
π ∫0
(c) V m cos θd θ (d) None of these
UPPCL AE 2015
PTCUL AE 2016 Ans. (b) V = 25volts
dc
Ans. (a) : In a single phase full converter bridge, the V = 2.5v
rms
average output voltage is given by
1 α+( π / 2) v 2.5
Ripple factor = rms = = 10%
∫
π α−( π / 2)
Vm cos θdθ v dc 25

54. A single SCR is inserted between voltage Ans. (a) :
source 200 sin (314t) and a load of R = 10Ω. If
the gate trigger voltage lags the AC supply
voltage by 120°, then the average load current is.
5 15
(a) − A (b) A
π π
15 5
(c) − A (d) A
π π
UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (d) α = 1200 , Vm = 200, R = 10Ω
V 200
V0 = m (1 + cos α ) = (1 − 0.5)
2π 2π See the enclosed diagram showing the wavefrom and
50 the rectified wavefrom.
=
π We need the formula for the rms value we use
V0 50 5 integration.
Avg. Load current = = = A
R π × 10 π 1 T/2
55. Which of the following uses diode as main
I 2rms = ∫
T −T / 2
| I ( t ) |2 .dt
functional unit? 0 T/2
1 1 1 T
(a) Filter (b) Amplifier
∫ | 0 |2 dt + ∫ |2|
2
= dt = × 4× = 2
(c) Rectifier (d) Inverter T T T 2
−T / 2 0
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Ans : (c) Diode is a semiconductor device which is Irms = 2 A
constructed with help of P-type and N-type 59. The circuit in figure shows a full-wave
semiconductor material. Resistance is an electrical rectifier. The input voltage is 230V (rms) single
device which converts alternating current into direct one phase ac. The peak reverse voltage across the
by allowing a current to flow through it in one direction.
diode D1 and D2 is:
56. In a three phase half wave rectifier feeding
resistive load, if the input source is a three
phase 4 wire system and line to line voltage is
100V. The supply frequency is 400Hz. The
ripple frequency at the output is:-
(a) 400Hz. (b) 600 Hz.
(c) 1200 Hz. (d) 800 Hz. (a) 100√2 (b) 100
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 (c) 50 √2 (d) 50
Ans : (c) Ripple frequency of 3-φ source Punjab PSC SDE 2017
= 3 × supply frequency ESE 2009
= 3 ×400 = 1200 Hz Ans. (a) : Peak reverse voltage across the diode D1 and D2.
57. A three phase diode bridge rectifier is fed from
 50 
a 400V RMS, 50Hz, three phase AC source. If 2Vm2 = 2Vm1 ×   (∵ secondary has 50V )
the load is purely resistive, then peak  230 
instantaneous voltage is equal to:-  50 
= 2 × 2 × 230 ×  
(a) 400 V (b) 400 2 V  230 
2 400 = 100 2 Volt
(c) 400 V (d) V
3 3 60. In a 3-phase controlled bridge rectifier, with an
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II increase of the overlap angle, the output DC
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I voltage:
Ans. (b) : The peak output voltage is the peak value of (a) increases
the input voltage as that is what the output voltage. (b) depends upon load inductance
Peak voltage or maximum voltage = 2 × rms voltage (c) does not change
(d) decreases
peak output voltage = 2 × 400 = 400 2V
CIL MT 2017
58. The r.m.s. value of a Half-wave Rectified Karnataka PSC AE 2017
symmetrical square wave current of 2A is:- UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
(a) 2A (b) 1A UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
(c) 1/ 2A (d) 3A UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
Ans. (d) : In a 3-φ controlled bridge rectifier output 63. A single-phase fully controlled rectifier has an
voltage is given by average voltage of 'P' volts when α = 0o. Its
3Vml output voltage when α = 30o is:
V0 = cos α − 6fLS I0 ........ (i) (a) 0.5P volts (b) 0.707P volts
π
where Vml = maximum line voltage (c) P volts (d) (
3 / 2 P volts )
α = firing angle LMRC AM 2020
f = frequency
V
L = inductance Ans. (d) : Average voltage Vav = max × cos ( α )
I0 = load current π
also load current I0 is given by V V
P = max × cos 00 = max
Vml π π
I0 = ( cos α − cos(α + µ) ) V 3  Vmax 
2 ωL s Now Vav (30o) = max × cos30o = P × P = 
where µ = overlap angle π 2  π 
from (i) and (ii) we can conclude that as overlap angle 3
increase DC output will decrease. = P
2
61. The maximum efficiency of a half wave 64. A single-phase AC supply is given to a bridge
rectifier is rectifier using diodes. Vs and Is represent the
(a) 50% (b) 33.33% rms value of phase voltage and phase current
(c) 40.6% (d) 68% including fundamental and harmonics, and
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 IS1 = rms value of fundamental component of
JUVNL AE 2017 supply current IS= The input displacement
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II factor (DF) will be:
(a) cosine of phase angle between VS and ISp
Ans. (c) : Generally,
(b) cosine of phase angle between VS and IS1
Efficiency
(c) cosine of phase angle between IS and IS1
Half wave 40.53%
(d) cosine of phase angle between VS and IS
Full wave 81.06%
DMRC AM 2018
62. A half controlled single phase bridge rectifier is Ans. (b) : Displacement factor is cosine of phase angle
supplying an RL load. It is operated at a firing between Vs and Is. It is power factor due to phase shift
angle α and the load current is continuous. The between voltage and current at fundamental line
fraction of cycle that the free wheeling diode frequency.
conduct is
65. When an average reading AC voltmeter using a
1 α half-wave rectifier is used to measure an AC
(a) (b) 1 –
2 π voltage of rms value equal to 20V, the reading
α α of the meter will be.
(c) (d) (a) 20 V (b) 10 V
2π π
TNPSC AE 2018 (c) 18 V (d) 9 V
UJVNL AE 2016 DMRC AM 2018
Ans. (d) :  Vpeak 
Ans. (d) : Given that, Vrms = 20 ∵ Vrms = 
 2 
∴ Vpeak = 20 2
Vm 20 2
V(avg) for half wave = = = 9V
π π
66. The ripple factor of an uncontrolled three-
phase half wave rectifier is_______.
(a) 0.045 (b) 1.21
(c) 0.1821 (d) 0.43
DMRC AM 2018
Ans. (c) : The ripple factor of an uncontrolled three-
phase half wave rectifier is 0.1821.
free wheeling diode conducts 2d over complete cycle 67. An AC supply of 240 V, 50 Hz is applied as
2α α input to a centre-tapped rectifier through a
free wheeling diode conduct at = = transformer of turn's ratio 12:1. Select from
2π π
the options, the PIV of each diode.
(a) 40.2 V (b) 20.2 V
(c) 56.4 V (d) 28.2 V
DMRC AM 2018 t
Ans. (c) : Given that,
 Vm 
Vrms, primary = 240 V ∵ Vrms =  Thyristor T1 is forward bias during positive half cycle
 2
and thyristor T2 is forward bias during the negative half
Vm, primary = 240 2V cycle.
n1 12 70. For centre tapped full wave rectifier with C
=
n2 1 filter, the maximum voltage that would appear
across the diode if input voltage is 5V will be
So, ______.
Vm, primary n1 (a) 12 V (b) 5 V
=
Vm ,secondary n2 (c) 14.14 V (d) 2.5 V
240 2 12 Ans. (c) : Diode input voltage, Vin = 5V
=
Vm,secondary 1 Maximum voltage of centre tap full wave rectifier
Vm, secondary = 28.28 V Vmax = 2Vin
PIV = 2Vm, secondary =2 × 28.28 V = 2 ×5
= 56.56 V ≃ 56.4 V = 10V
68. The ripple voltage of a FWR with a 100 µF after filter ⇒ vn = 2Vmax
filter capacitor connected to a load of 50 mA is = 2 ×10 = 14.14V
(a) 2.4 V (b) 1.2 V
71. In a rectifier, commutation of diodes refers to
(c) 4.4 V (d) 6.6 V transferring energy from
APSPDCL AE 2012 (a) Rectifier diode to load
Ans. (b) : C = 100 µF; IL = 50 mA (b) Freewheeling diode to load
Ripple voltage of a full wave rectifier (c) Freewheeling diode to rectifier diode
2.4Idc 2.4 × I L 2.4 × 50 (d) Rectifier diode to freewheeling diode
Vr(rms) = = = UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
C C 100
Vr = 1.2 Volt Ans. (d) : The term commutation means the transfer
69. The output waveform given below can be current form one path to another. Energy is transferred
to freewheeling diode to reduce harmonics and also
obtained from
suppress the voltage spike occur in inductive load. Free
wheeling diode is always used in its reverse biased
mode.
Advantage of freewheeling diode
(i) power factor improve
(ii) Negative spikes in output voltage are removed.
(iii) the overall current waveform is improved
(iv) overall converter efficiency improves.
(a) Controlled rectifier 72. A Center tapped full wave rectifier output
(b) AC chopper contains only
(c) DC chopper (a) Even harmonics (b) Odd harmonics
(d) DIAC-TRIAC phase control circuit (c) Even and odd harmonics (d) No harmonics
APSPDCL AE 2012 UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
Ans. (a) : The given waveform is obtained from A.C Ans. (a) : A center tapped full wave rectifier output
voltage controlled rectifier with R load. contains only even harmonic.
73. A comparison of performance of single phase
and three phase rectifiers indicates
(a) Single phase rectifiers are better than three
phase rectifiers
(b) Three phase rectifiers are better than single
phase rectifiers
(c) The performance is equivalent

Ans. (b) : Advantages of three phase rectifier over a 77. Which of the following bridge rectifiers has
single phase rectifier. The output current in the load highest harmonic content in output voltage?
contain very less ac component as compared to single (a) 1-phase half wave (b) 1-phase full wave
phase. Ripple factor is lower and therefore high cut (c) 3-phase half wave (d) 3-phase full wave
filtering is not required to give steady dc output. KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
74. The best type of filter for a diode rectifier Ans. (a) : 1-phase half wave bridge rectifier has highest
consists of harmonic content in output voltage.
(a) A large inductor at the input end
78. Form factor is equal to peak factor in case of :
(b) A large capacitor at the output end
(a) Square wave (b) Triangle wave
(c) A small inductor at the input end
(c) Sawtooth wave (d) Sinusoidal wave
(d) A small inductor at the input and a large
capacitor at the output HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 Ans. (a) :
Ans. (d) : An inductor in series blocks a.c. as its has RMSValue
Form factor =
high resistance for a.c. and a shunt capacitor short Average value
circuits and send a.c. component back as capacitor Max value
block d.c. and passes a.c. Peak factor =
RMSvalue
75. An ideal rectifier should have
(a) Efficiency = 100%; Vac = 0; Transformer In case of square wave, max value = RMS value = Avg
Utilization Factor = 1 and Total harmonic value.
distortion = 0 peak factor = form factor for square wave.
(b) Efficiency = 99%; Vac = 0.1; Transformer 79. A 1-phase diode bridge rectifier connected
Utilization Factor = 0.9 and Total harmonic from 100V rms ac supply is feeding a resistive
distortion = 0 load. Neglecting diode drop, the output average
(c) Efficiency = 99%; Vac = 0.1; Transformer voltage is approximately.
Utilization Factor = 0.9 and Total harmonic (a) 90.0V (b) 63.7V
distortion = 5% (c) 141V (d) 45V
(d) Efficiency = 100%; Vac = 0.2; Transformer Vizag Steel MT 2013
Utilization Factor = 0.8 and Total harmonic
distortion = 5% Ans. (a) : Given that,
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 Vrms = 100 V
Ans. (a) : The Ideal rectifier is–
Lossless i.e., 100% efficiency
Pure d.c. output i.e., Vac = 0 at output
Transformer utilization factor = 1
Total harmonic distortion = 0
76. A single phase half wave rectifier circuit has a
freewheeling diode which will conduct only if-
(a) load is combination of R and L
(b) load is purely inductive or combination of R
and L
(c) load is purely resistive
(d) load is purely inductive
KPSC AE 2014  Vm 
Ans. (b) : A single phase half wave rectifier, has a free Vavg =
2Vm
] ∵ Vrms = 2 
wheeling diode, which will conduct if load is purely π  
inductive or combination of R and L. The main purpose ∴ Vm = Vrms 2 
of free wheeling diode is to provide a path for decay of 2 × 100 × 2
current through an inductive load when switch is put off. =
π
Vavg = 90.0V
80. A half wave rectifier built using a diode is
connected to a sinusoidal voltage of 120 V (rms)
at a frequency of 50 Hz. The load resistance is 5
Ω. The power absorbed by the resistor is:
(a) 1220 W (b) 610 W
2Vm
Vout = cos α (c) 720 W (d) 1440 W
π LMRC AM 2018
Ans. (d) : Vrms = 120 V Ans. (a) : Vavg = Vm /π, Vs = 230 V
Vm = 120 2 V ∵ Vrms
V
= m
2
(
Vm = 230 2 V )
(V ) = (V )
2 2
R1 = 5 Ω avg m
for half wave rectifier, Pavg = 2
R πR
V 2 2
Vout rms = m V V
2 R= = m m
∵ Pavg = 1kW given 
π Pavg 1000π 2
2
120 2  120 
= =  For single phase half-wave controlled rectifier with R
2  2
load.
2
 120  V
(V )
2
  Vavg = m (1 + cos α ) α = firing angle
2
= 2π
out rms
P=
R 5 0
α = 90 given
(120) 2 Vm
P=
2×5
Vavg =
2π
(1 + cos900 )
P = 1440 watt V
Vavg = m
2π
81. A full wave diode rectifier is applied with a
( Vavg )
2
voltage from a 60V–0–60V transformer. Load
and diode forward resistance are 100 Ω and 10 Power absorbed in the heater =
R
Ω respectively. The average output voltage of 2 2
the rectifier circuit is: V  1 V
= m  = 2m
(a) 34.7 V (b) 24.6 V  2π  R 4π R
(c) 17.4 V (d) 49.1 V
1  V2    Vm2  
LMRC AM 2018 =  2m  ∵ Pave = 1000 =  2  
Ans. (d) : Vrms = 60, 4 π R    π R  
V 1000
Vrms = m == W = 250 W
2 4
Vm = 60 2 83. For a total harmonic distortion of 0.1 with I1 =
2Vm 4A and Rc = 8Ω, calculate total power.
V0 = (a) 50 W (b) 64.64 W
π
(c) 55.55 W (d) 70 W
2 × 60 2
V0 = = 54.01V BHEL ET 2019
π
The average output voltage of the rectifier circuit is- Ans. (b) : The fundamental power (P1) =
( 4) × 8 = 64W
2
V × RL I2 R
Vavg, out = 0 = i C = Where Ii = I1
R L + R DF 2 2
RL =Load resistance
RDF= Diode forward resistance
Total power (p) = 1 + ( THD ) P1
2
( )
54.01×100 = [1+(0.1)2]64
Vavg, out = = 49.1 V
110 p = 64.64 Watt
82. A 230 V, 50 Hz single-phase half wave 84. A full-wave rectifier uses two diodes, the
controlled rectifier is supply a power to a single
internal resistance of each diode is 20Ω
phase 230 V, 1kW heater. Find power absorbed
in the heater element when the firing angle is constant. The transformer r.m.s secondary
0
90 . voltage from centre tap each end of secondary
(a) 250 W (b) 500 W is 50 V and load resistance is 980 Ω. Find the
(c) 750 W (d) 1000 W maximum load current.
1000 (a) 70.7mA (b) 0.7 mA
(e) W
2 (c) 3.5 mA (d) 7.07mA
CGPSC AE 2017 UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
Ans. (a) : Given that- (a) 6.6 A (b) 5.0 A
internal resistance (r) = 20Ω (c) 5.8 A (d) 4.2 A
load Resistance (RL)= 980Ω UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
Vrms = 50V TANGEDCO AE 2018
Ans. (c) :
Vm = 2Vrms = 2 × 50
Vm = 70.7Volt
Vm
Maximum load current ( I m ) =
r + RL
70.7 When switch S is ON, Diode goes in OFF condition,
Im = = 70.7mA ∆ic = 1.6 A → peak to peak, so
20 + 980
1.6
85. A 3- phase, 4-wire ac is applied to the following Peak current, Ic = = 0.8 A
rectifier. Determine the average value of the 2
output voltage. Take Vp is the rms value of the I0 = 5A
phase voltage. So, peak current in S = I0 + 0.8
= 5 + 0.8
= 5.8 A
87. Current-ripple factor (CRF), ripple current Ir
and average load current Ic are related by the
expression.
(a) CRF = (Io) (b) CRF = I0 – Ir
(c) Ir=(CRF)(I0) (d) I0=(CRF)(Ir)
3 6 6 Ans : (c) Ripple factor is the rms value of ac component
(a) Vp (b) Vp present in the rectified output to the average value of
π 2π rectified output thus it can be written as-
3 2 3 6 current ripple factor (C.R.F.)
(c) Vp (d) Vp Ripple current (Ir )
2π 2π =
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II Average load current (I0 )
Ans. (d) : The figure is known as 3- φ half wave diode 88. The average output voltage of a half controlled
rectifier. bridge converter is measured to be 103.53 V. If
the average output voltage the bridge is supplied from a 230 V, 50 Hz
sinusoidal source, the triggering angle of the
1 5π / 6 3 3 thyristors in the bridge is approximately
sin ωt d ( ωt ) =
2π / 3 ∫π / 6
V0 = Vmp (a) 600 (b) 900
2π 0
(c) 120 (d) 300
3 6 UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I
V0 = Vp
2π Ans : (b) Average output voltage of half controlled
Bridge Inverter Vout = 103.53Volt
3 3 2
V0 = Vp
2π Vm
or
Thus, Vout = (1 + cos α ) ,
π
3 3 Here Vm = 230Volt × 2
V0 = Vmp ∵ Vmp = 2VP
2π (∵ Vm = Vrms × 2 )
86. In the circuit shown, an ideal switch S is
230 × 2
operated at 100 kHz with a duty ratio of 50%. 103.53 = (1 + cos α )
Given that ∆ic is 1.6 A peak-to-peak and I0 is 5 π
A dc, the peak current in S, is 103.53 × 22
1 + cos α =
230 × 2 × 7
2277.66
1 + cos α =
2276.66
1 + cos α ≃ 1
cos α = 0
α = 900

89. What is the ratio of peak inverse voltage across Ans. (d) : Since, there are current is constant current so
the diode in center tapped full wave rectifier the average value of a constant current or voltage is
and the bridge rectifier? zero. A constant current or voltage only gives the rms
(a) 2 (b) 0.5 value that is output current or voltage. So, rms value of
(c) 0.25 (d) 1 constant current is.
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019 Irms = I0 = 10Amp
Ans. (a) :
Thus, Iave = 0 and Irms = 10 Amp.
92. In the circuit given below Inductor used is ideal
inductor. What is the conduction angle of
diode?
Centre tapped rectifier
(a) 90° (b) 180°

(c) 270° (d) 360°
Full wave rectifier (Bridge rectifier) Ans. (d) :
PIV across diode = Vm Since the inductor is ideal, it will store energy during
Ratio of PIV across diode in center tapped to bridge the positive half cycle and give that energy back to
rectifier = 2. source in the negative half cycle. Also it will not allow
90. A single-phase half-wave converter with the change in the direction of flow of the current.
freewheeling diode is driving a separately Therefore, the diode will conduct for 360° (or 2π).
excited dc motor at 900rpm and is achieved
with 60° firing angle. If the same motor is fed
through single-phase semi converter with firing
angle 60°, motor will run at a speed
(a) 1500rpm (b) 1200rpm
(c) 1800rpm (d) 900rpm
UPPCL AE 2014
Ans. (c) :
V
Vout1 = m (1 + cos α ) 1 – φ half wave motor
2π Vm
Vm 1.5Vm i0 = i D =
(1 − cos ωt)
= (1 + cos 60 ) = ωL
2π 2π
93. In a single phase asymmetrical half controlled
Vm
= Vout 2 = (1 + cos α ) 1 – φ semi converter rectifier with firing angle 'α' feeds a constant
π current load. What will be conduction angle of
V diodes?
= m (1.5 )
π (a) π + α (b) π − α
Vout ∝ N (c) 2α (d) 2π
Vout1 N1 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
=
Vout 2 N 2 Ans. (a) : Diodes conduct for (π+α) in asymmetrical
half-controlled rectifier. For symmetrical counterpart
N1 Vout 2
N2 = = 900 × 2 diodes conduct for (π) duration only.
Vout1 94. In a three phase half controlled rectifier with
= 1800 rpm constant current load and freewheeling diode,
91. A single phase full wave bridge diode rectifier what is the fraction of cycle the diode
delivers a constant current of 10 A to load. conducts? Consider firing angle (α) of
Average and RMS values of source current are thyristors greater than 60°.
(a) 5 A, 10 A (b) 10 A, 10 A (a) (α – π/3)/2π (b) (α + π/3)/2π
(c) 10 A, 7.07 A (d) 0 A, 10 A (c) (α – π/3) × 3/2π (d) (a + π/3) × 3/2π
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
Ans. (c) : The diode will conduct for three times in 2π Directions : consists of two statements, one labelled as
‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’.
 π
for the duration of  α −  each time. Examine these two statements carefully and select the
 3 answers to these items using the codes given below:
 π 3 Codes:
That is,  α − 
 3  2π (a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
individually true; and Statement (II) is the
95. The figure shows a half wave rectifier circuit
with input voltage v(t) = 10 sin(100πt) volts. (b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
Assuming ideal diode characteristics with zero individually true; but Statement (II) is
forward voltage drop and zero reverse current, NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I)
the average power consumed in watts by the (c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is
load resistance RL is– false
(d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement (II) is
true
97. Statement (I) : Conventional diode rectifier
circuits have low frequency harmonics.
Statement (II) : Passive techniques used to
(a) 1 Watts (b) 0.25 Watts reduce the current THD in conventional rectifiers
require large transformers and/or reactors.
(c) Zero Watts (d) 0.5 Watts
ESE 2018
Ans. (b) : Conventional diode rectifier have low
Ans. (b) : frequency harmonics, due to switching action of diodes.
Power consumed by load resistance R, Passive techniques, using filters require large value of
reactor and transformer
P = I2rms R
98. For large power output, multiphase rectifiers
For half-wave rectifier, are used along with filters to reduce level of
I V harmonics by increasing the fundamental
I rms = m = m frequency in
2 2R
Therefore, (a) Diode rectifier (b) Bridge rectifier
(c) Star rectifier (d) Delta rectifier
2
V  ESE 2020
P= m  .R ∵ R = R L = 100 Ω (given)
 2R  Ans. (c) : Multiphase rectifier are connected in star
configuration to control the switching and as only one
Vm2 (10) 2 1 device will conduct so, non-symmetrical current flows.
P= = = = 0.25W
4R 4 × 100 4 To compensate this primary of transformer in delta
So, P= 0.25 Watts connection.
96. The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier circuit 99. 1φ half wave converter with freewheeling
compared to that of a half wave rectifier circuit diode, drives a separately excited DC motor at
without filter is– 900 RPM with firing angle 60°. When this
motor is fed from 1 φ full converter with
(a) Half of that for a half wave rectifier α = 60°, the motor speed will be
(b) Less than half that for a half-wave rectifier (a) 1800 RPM (b) 1200 RPM
circuit (c) 600 RPM (d) 900 RPM
(c) Equal to that of a half wave rectifier Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
(d) More than half that for a half-wave rectifier E
circuit Ans. (b) : Speed N ∝ b if φ = constant
φ
Then, N ∝ E b
Ans. (b) :
Ripple factor of half wave rectifier is 1.21. 2Vm
cos 60º
Ripple factor of full wave rectifier is 0.483. N2 π 4
⇒ = =
Ripple factor gives the information about the ripple N1 Vm (1 + cos 60º ) 3
content in the output DC voltage. As the number of 2π
pulses increases in the output, the ripples reduce and 4
⇒ N 2 = × 900 = 1200rpm
ripple factor decreases. 3

100. An output pulse width of 400µs. If it were fed
with 11 trigger pulses with successive trigger
(iii) Phase Controlled Rectifier
pulses separated by 10µs, the output pulse 1. The Second harmonic Component of the
width would be Waveform given in the following figure has an
(a) 200 µs (b) 500 µs amplitude of:
(c) 100 µs (d) 400 µs
UPPCL AE 2014
Ans. (b) : Output pulse width = 400µs
Fed 11 trigger pulse separated by 10µs
Total output pulse width = 400 + 10 × 10 = 500µ sec
101. Firing angle of a three-phase semiconverter is (a) 0 (b) 1
90°. To achieve continuous mode of conduction (c) 2/π (d) 5
freewheeling diode should conduct for TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
(a) 0º (b) 30º Ans. (a) : There are square wave, only fundamental
(c) 90º (d) 60º component contain hence in this wave form second
UPPCL AE 2014 harmonic component is zero.
Ans. (b) : Firing Angle of a 3 − φ semi converter = 30º 2. A three-pulse converter has a freewheeling
diode across its load. The operating range of
for continuous mode of conduction freewheeling diode the converter is-
should conduct for 3d = 900
(a) 00 ≤ α ≤ 1500 (b) 600 ≤ α ≤ 1200
900 0
(c) 30 ≤ α ≤ 150 0
(d) 1800 ≤ α ≤ 3600
d=
3 RPSC AE 2018
= 30º Ans : (a) A three -pulse converter has a free wheeling
102. A single-phase semi-converter is operating in diode across it's load. The operating range of the
continuous conduction mode. Average value of converter is 00 ≤ α ≤ 1500 .
the output voltage is 3. The frequency of ripple in the output voltage of
2Vs 2Vs a three phase controlled bridge rectifier
(a) (1 + cos α ) (b) (1 – cos α ) depends on-
π 2π (a) firing angle
2Vs 2Vs (b) load inductance
(c) (1 – cos α ) (d) (1 + cos α ) (c) load resistance
π 2π
(d) supply frequency
UPPCL AE 2014
RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (a) : Single phase semi converter is operating in Ans : (d) Ripple frequency of output voltage of three
continuous conduction mode, then average value of phase controlled bridge rectifier is 'm' times the input
output voltage is frequency where 'm' is number of pulses.
V 4. A single phase fully controlled bridge converter
Vo = m (1 + cos α ) ∵ Vm = 2Vs
π supplies a load drawing constant and ripple
free load current, if the triggering angle is 30°,
2Vs the input power factor will be
∴V0 = (1 + cos α ) (a) 0.65 (b) 0.78
π
103. Ripple factor is defined as. (c) 0.85 (d) 0.866
TANGEDCO AE 2018
(a) RMS Value/Peak value
TNPSC AE 2018
(b) Peak value/RMS value
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
(c) Peak Value/DC value
Active power
(d) RMS Value/DC value Ans. (b) : Input power factor = =
MPPSC AE 2017 Apprant power
Ans. (d) : Ripple factor is a measure of effectiveness of For fully controlled bridge converters,
a rectifier circuit. It is defined as the ratio of RMS value 2V
V0 = m cos α α = 30°
of the AC component (Irms) in the output waveform to π
the DC component VDC in the output waveform. 3
R.M.S.value of a.c. component V0 = .Vm
Ripple value (r) = π
Average or d.c. component Is = I0 (for ripple free)

Vm 8. Figure (a) is the voltage transform applied to
Vs = the circuit diagram shown in figure (b). Find
2 out the third harmonic component of voltage
3 signal.
Vm .I0
V0 I0 6
Input power factor = = π = = 0.78
Vs Is Vm π
.I0
2
5. A three phase fully controlled bridge converter
is feeding a load drawing a constant and ripple
free load current of 10 A at a firing angle of
30º. The approximate total harmonic distortion
(%THD) and rms value of fundamental
component of the input circuit will respectively
be:
(a) 31% and 6.8 A (b) 66% and 6.8 A
(c) 31% and 7.8 A (d) 68% and 7.8 A
TANGEDCO AE 2018
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 (a) (100/3π) sin 3t (b) (100/6π) sin 3t
Ans. (c) : Load current I0 = 10 Amp (c) (100/4π) sin 4t (d) (100/6π) sin 9t
RMS value of total source current UPRVUNL AE 2014
2 2 Ans. (a) Fourier series
IS = I 0 = 10 = 8.165Amp
3 3
∞
4 × 25
v(t) = ∑ = sin nω0 t
∞
4I0 nπ n = Ia 9r 5 nπ
IS(t) = ∑ sin sin [ nωt − nα ]
100
n =1,3,5 nπ 3
Third harmonic component = sin(3ω0 t)
RMS value of fundamental current 3π
4I Time period To = 2π sec
IS1 = 0 sin π / 3 1
2π f0 =
2π
= 7.8 Amp
ω0 = 2πf 0 = 1rad / sec
2
I  100
Total Harmonic distortion (THD) =  S  − 1 V3 = sin(3 × 1× t)
3π
 IS1 
100
2 V3 = sin(3t)
 8.165  3π
=   −1
 7.8  9. A 240V, 50Hz supply feeds a highly inductive
= 31% load of 50 Ohm resistance at firing angle 45o.
What would be the value of load power when
6. In which circuit duty cycle of any pulse wave is supply is through a thyristor full control
50% bridge.
(a) Astable Multivibrator (a) 489 W (b) 789W
(b) Mono-stable Multivibrator
(c) 365 W (d) 466 W
(c) Bistable Multivibrator
UPRVUNL AE 2014
(d) Schmitt trigger
UPPCL AE 2013 Ans. (d) Load power = V0I0
Ans. (a) : 2V
V0 = m cos α α = 45o
A square wave waveform is symmetrical in shape and π
has a positive pulse width equal to its negative pulse Vm = 240 × 2
width resulting in 50% duty cycle.
Square wave waveform are used in astable 2 × 240 × 2
multivibrator. V0 = cos 45o
π
7. The firing angle of thyristor in a thyristor - ⇒ 152.788 Volt
controlled rectifier is to be controlled in the
range of V
I0 = 0 R = 50Ω
(a) 900 to 2700 (b) 900 to 1800 R
0 0
(c) 0 to 180 (d) 00 to 900
V02 (152.788 )
2
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 P0 = = = 466W

Ans. (c) : R 50

10. In dual converter, the circulating current. Ans. (b) : RL load with free wheeling diode in single
A) Allows smooth reversal of load current phase 1-pulse converter
B) Improves speed of response.
Which of the options is true?
(a) Only A is true
(b) Only B is true
(c) Both A and B are true
(d) Neither A nor B is true For conduction angle β , the main diode (T) conducts for
UPRVUNL AE 2014 angle π. and the free wheeling diode (FD) conducts for
ESE 2006 an angle of (β–π)
Ans. (c) Dual converter properties:- 14. In a three phase half wave rectifier, the output
(i) Allows smooth reversal of load current. voltage is equal to
(ii) Improves speed of response. (a) The most positive input phase voltage at any
instant
11. In a single phase voltage controller with RL
(b) The difference of most positive and most
load, ac output power can be controlled if
negative input phases at any instant
(a) Firing angle α > φ (load phase angle) and (c) The average value of the three phase voltages
conduction angle γ = π (d) The difference of the two positive phase
(b) α > φ and γ < π voltages
(c) α < φ and γ = π TNPSC AE 2018
(d) α < φ and γ > π Ans. (a) : In a 3-phase half wave rectifier, the output
TSPSC AEE 2017 voltage is equal to the most positive input phase voltage
at any instant.
Ans. (b) : In single phase voltage controller with RL
load, ac output power can be controlled if firing angle α 3 3
Vout = Vp
> φ (load phase angle) and conduction angle γ < π . 2π
12. In a single-phase full converter, the number of 15. The overlap angle of a phase controlled
SCRs conducting during overlap is: converter would increase on increasing the
(a) 1 (b) 2 I. Supply voltage
(c) 3 (d) 4 II. Supply frequency
TSPSC AEE 2017 III. Load current
Ans. (d) : IV. Source inductance
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) II, III and IV are correct
(c) I, II, IV are correct
(d) I, III and IV are correct
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : Overlap angle of a phase controlled converter
would increase on increasing the supply voltage load
current and source inductance (L).
When there is no source inductance (L) commutation 16. A 3 phase semi converter can work as
will occur at T3 & T1. Immediately, thyristors T1 & T2
(a) converter for α = 0 to 180o
are switched ON. This will lead the input polarity to
change instantaneously. In the presence of source (b) converter for α = 0 to 90o
inductance, change of polarity and commutation does (c) converter for α = 90 to 180o
not occur instantaneously. Thus, T3 and T4 do not (d) converter for α = 0 to 90o and inverter for α =
commutates as soon as T1 and T2 are switched ON. 90 to 180o
At some interval, all the 4 thyristos will be conducting. TNPSC AE 2018
This conducting interval is called the overlap interval µ. Ans. (a) : A 3 phase semi converter work as converter
for α = 0 to 1800.
13. A single-phase one-pulse diode rectifier is
feeding an RL load with freewheeling diode 3Vml
across the load. For conducting angle β , the
V0 = (1 + cos α )
2π
main diode and freewheeling diode would
17. The output voltage V0 of a boost converter is
respectively, conduct for related to the duty cycle D as
(a) π, π – β (b) π, β – π (a) V0=Vin/(1-D) (b) V0=Vin/(1-D)2
(c) β, π (d) β –π, π (c) V0=Vin /(1+D) (d) V0= Vin/ (1+D)2
TSPSC AEE 2017 TNPSC AE 2019
Ans. (a) : The output voltage V0 of a boost converter is 20. Consider a phase controlled converter shown in
related to the duty cycle D as- the figure. The thyristor is fired at an angle α
V0 1 in every positive half of input voltage. If peak
= value of instantaneous output voltage is 230,
Vi 1 − D
then the firing angle α is close to
Vi
V0 =
1− D
18. A three phase semi converter feeds the
armature of a separately excited DC motor
supplying a non zero torque. For the steady
state operation, the motor current is found to
drop to zero at certain instant of time. At such
points, the output voltage is (a) 450 (b) 1350
(a) Equal to the instantaneous value of AC phase (c) 900 (d) 1850
vol TNPSC AE 2019
(b) Equal to the instantaneous value of motor Ans. (b) : Vi = 230 V
Back EMF frequency f = 50Hz
(c) Arbitrary
 230 
(d) Zero firing angle α = 1800−cos-1  
TNPSC AE 2019  230 2 
ESE 2012 = 1800–450
Ans. (b) : Motor back emf = 1350
E = V-IaRa 21. A rotary converter can be started
where V = voltage (a) from dc side as dc motor
I = instant . armature current (b) from ac side as induction motor
as I = 0 given (c) by means of a small auxiliary motor
E=V (d) any of these
19. A full bridge converter supplying an RLE load Vizag Steel MT 2012
is shown. The giving angle is 1200 supply
Ans. (d) : A rotary converter is a type of electrical
voltages is V = 200 π sin(100π ∈ )V,
R = 20 Ω , E= 800V. The inductances is large machine which acts as a mechanical rectifier, inverter or
enough to make current smooth. The real frequency converter.
power fed back to the source is kW is A rotary converter can be started from dc side as dc
motor or from ac side as induction motor or by means
of a small auxiliary motor.
22. A six pulse bridge converter feeds a pure
resistive load. The control of the converter can
be varied in the range of α as given below:
(a) 0º ≤ α ≤ 180º (b) 0º ≤ α ≤ 150º
(c) 0º ≤ α ≤ 120º (d) 30º ≤ α ≤ 150º
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
(a) 10 kw (b) 6 kw Ans. (c) : In a 6 pulse bridge converter, the positive
(c) 50 kw (d) 30 kw and negative groups of SCR are fixed at an interval
TNPSC AE 2019 120º, for effective control of voltage firing angle α can
be varied from 0º to 120º .
2 × 200π
Ans. (b) : Voltage V0 = cos α = 400 cos1200 0º ≤ α ≤ 120º
π
also drop V0 = E + I0R 23. The ratio of d.c. output voltage of a half
= -800 + 20I0 controlled bridge converter to that of a fully
controlled bridge converter for the same a.c.
∴ − 200 = −800 + 20 I0
600 input supply is
(
2 +1 )
. The firing angle is-
I0 = = 30A
20 2
Assuming circuit to be lossless- (a) 30º (b) 45º
power = V0 I0 (c) 60º (d) 90º
= 200 × 30A = 6 kW UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : For half bridge controlled converter Ans. (b) : Thyristor controlled compensator is usually
designed to operate at a slightly lagging power factor.
2Vac
Vdc1 = (1 + cos α ) for 0 ≤ α ≤ π 27. A three-phase fully controlled converter can
π work as a:
For full controlled convertor
(a) converter for α = 45º to 90º
2 2Vac (b) converter for α = 0º to 90º
Vdc2 = cos α for 0 ≤ α ≤ π
π (c) converter for α = 0º to 180º
2 +1 (d) converter for α = 90º to 180º
= Ratio of Vdc1 output to Vdc2 output UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
2
Ans. (c) : A three phase fully controlled converter can
2 +1 2Vac π (1 + cos α ) work as converter for α = 0º to 180°
= ×
2 π 2 2Vac cos α 3Vm
Voutput = cos α
2 + 1 (1 + cos α ) π
=
2 2 cos α 28. The converter which can feed power in any one
2 2 cos α + 2cos α = 2 + 2 cos α of the four quadrants is
(a) Semi converter
2 cos α = 1 (b) Full converter
1 (c) Dual converter
cos α = = cos 45º
2 (d) A combination of semi and full converter
α = 45º MPPSC AE 2016
24. A 3-phase, fully controlled converter is feeding Ans. (c) :
power into a DC load at a constant current of
100√3 A. The RMS value of current through
each thyristor of the converter is:
(a) 200 A (b) 100 A
(c) 110/√3 A (d) 100/√2 A
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
Ans. (b) : Current through thyristor in 3-φ fully
I
controlled converter = L
3
IL = 100 3
100 3 So from above circuit configuration it is clear that dual
IT = converter can feed power in any one of the four
3 quadrants.
IT = 100 A 29. A separately excited DC motor is connected
25. AC voltage controllers are thyristor based through fully controlled single phase bridge
devices which are used for: rectifier. The power supply is sinusoidal and
1. Industrial heating rated at 240 V, 50 Hz. The average voltage
2. Starting of induction motor SCR for firing angle α = 30º will be
3. Speed control of 3phase AC drives approximately equal to:
Which of these is/are correct? (a) 347 V (b) 187 V
(a) only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 157 V (d) 227 V
(c) only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 2Vm
Ans. (b) : V0 = cos α
Ans. (d) : AC voltage controllers are thyristor based π
device used in
2 × 240 × 2
(i) Industrial heating = cos30º = 187 Volt
(ii) Starting of induction motor, π
(iii) Speed control of 3-φ AC drives. 30. A single phase half wave converter with free
wheeling diode fed separately excited DC drive
26. Thyristor controlled compensator is usually
designed to operate at: operates at 1000 rpm at firing angle α = 45o. If
single phase half wave converter is replaced by
(a) Unity power factor single phase semi converter, the motor rotates
(b) A slightly lagging power factor at
(c) A slightly leading power factor (a) 2000 rpm (b) 1500 rpm
(d) Zero power factor leading (c) 1000 rpm (d) 500 rpm
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 TSTRANSCO AE 2018
Ans. (a) : The average output voltage of single phase Let V0 = Vm sin ωt
 V  for continuous condition mode–
semiconverter is  V0 = m (1 + cos α )  1 π+α
 π  V0 = ∫ Vm sin ωt dωt
and the average output voltage of 1-φ half wave π α
 V 
converter  V0 = m (1 + cos α )  Vm
[ − cos ωt ]α
π+α
 2π  =
π
∴ (V0)semiconverter = 2 ×(V0)Half-wave converter
V
& ∵ Speed (N) ∝ Vt ← In separately excited DC motor. = − m  cos ( π + α ) − cos α 
Speed becomes twice i.e. 2000 rpm. π
Vm
31. A three phase full wave controlled rectifier is =− [ − cos α − cos α ] {∵ cos ( π + α ) = − cos α}
connected to a separately excited DC motor π
and the machine has the following data : Te = V
150 N-m; ω = 75 rad/sec and Ia = 50A; What = − m ( −2 cos α )
π
will be the back emf of the motor ?
(a) 200 V (b) 225 V 2Vm
V0 = cos α
(c) 250 V (d) 275 V π
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 33. In a single phase semi converter with
Ans. (b) : Power output of the motor is given by discontinuous conduction and extinction angle
[P = Teω = EbIa] β < π, freewheeling action takes place for
Where, Te = Electromagnetic Torque (in N-m) (a) α (b) α – β
ω = Speed of motor (in rad/sec) (c) β – π (d) zero degree
Eb = Back emf (in volts) RPSC VPITI 2018
Ia = Armature current (in ampers) Ans. (d) : For single phase half wave converter for
P = 150×75 = Eb×50 discontinuous conduction for β < π freewheeling action
150 × 75 take place for zero degree.
Eb = = 225 volts
50
32. In a single phase full wave converter, the
output voltage Vo is
(a) 2 Vm (b) Vm sin ωt
2Vm 2Vm
(c) sin α (d) cos α
π π So there is no negative peak in semi converter so
RPSC VPITI 2018 freewheeling action take place for zero degree.
Ans. (d) : 1-φ full wave converter→ 34. The most suitable solid state converter for
controlling the speed of the three phase
squirrel cage motor at 25 Hz is
(a) Cyclo converter
(b) Current source inverter
(c) Voltage source inverter
(d) Load commutated inverter
RPSC VPITI 2018
LMRC AE 2015
ESE 2001
Ans. (a) : Cyclo converter is most suitable solid
converter for controlling speed of 3-φ squirrel cage
Induction Motor at 25Hz because it converts AC power
frequency into AC power of adjustable frequency.
35. A 3-phase, half wave controlled rectifier is
connected to a 220V source. If the delay angle
is 45º and the load resistance is 10 Ohm, what
will be the average power dissipation in SCR, if
SCR has a forward voltage drop of 1 V?
(a) 2.5 W (b) 4.5 W
(c) 1.5 W (d) 3.5 W
Ans. (d) : In a three phase half wave rectifier average 39. A full wave bridge rectifier is supplied from a
output voltage is- 150V, 50Hz. If the delay angle is 30 degree and
3V load resistance is 10 Ohm, what will be the
Vo = m cos α ripple frequency?
2π
(a) 100 Hz (b) 25 Hz
220 2 (c) 75 Hz (d) 50 Hz
= 3× cos 45º
2π Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
220 2 1 Ans. (a) : The fundamental frequency of the ripple
= 3× voltage is twice that of the AC supply frequency in a
2π 2 full wave bridge rectifier, where for the half-wave
Vo = 105 volt rectifier it is exactly equal to the supply frequency.
Average output current- Given AC supply frequency = 50 Hz.
V 105 ∴ Ripple frequency for full wave bridge rectifier circuit
Io = o = = 10.50 Amp
R 10 = 2 × 50
I = 100 Hz
Average current rating of SCR IT(ave) = 0 40. Which of these converters can operate in both 3
3
phase and 6 phase modes?
10.5
IT(ava ) = = 3.50 (a) 6 phase semi converter
3 (b) 6 phase full converter
Thyristor voltage (VT) = 1 V (c) 3 phase semi converter
Average power dissipation in SCR (Pave) = VT ITave (d) 3 phase full converter
= 1 × 3.50 Vizag Steel MT 2011
P = 3.5 W Ans. (c) : 3–φ semi converter can be operated in both 3
36. In a three phase full wave converter, the phase and 6 phase modes.
number of notches per cycle is/are
For α < 600 = 6pulse
(a) nine (b) three
(c) six (d) one α ≥ 600 = 3pulse
Where 'α' is firing angle
Ans. (c) : In a three phase full wave converter, the
number of notches per cycle are six. 41. A 240 V, 50 Hz supply feeds a highly inductive
load of 50 ohm resistance through a thyristor
37. In a three phase full wave converter, the output full control bridge when the firing angle α =
voltage pulsates at a frequency of 45º, output voltage is
(a) 2f (b) 3f (a) 256 V (b) 200 V
(c) f (d) 6f (c) 152 V (d) 160 V
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II Karnataka PSC AE 2016
Ans. (d) : 1. For half wave rectifier fo=fi Ans. (c) : Let us consider a 1-φ fully controlled bridge
2. For full wave rectifier fo=2fi rectifier shown in figure given below–
3. For three phase full wave converter
fo = 3(2fi) ⇒ 6fi
38. A three phase full converter is fed from 400V,
50Hz mains. PIV rating of SCRs are 1300V.
What will be the voltage safety factor?
(a) 2.3 (b) 2.7
(c) 2 (d) 3
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II For continuous conduction mode,
Ans. (a) : Voltage safety factor-It is described as the 2V
V0 = m cos α
ratio of peak inverse voltage to the maximum value of π
input voltage.
2 × 240 2
Peak inverse voltage = cos 45°
Vsf = π
2 × RMS value of input voltage
2 × 240 2 1 2 × 240
1300 = × =
= = 2.3 π 2 π
400
2×
2 V0 = 152 V

42. A fully controlled natural commutated 3-phase 45. A single phase fully controlled rectifier is
bridge rectifier is operating with a firing angle supplying a load with an anti-parallel diode as
α = 300 The peak to peak voltage ripple shown in the figure. All switches and diodes are
expressed as a ratio of the peak output DC ideal. Which one of the following is true for
voltage at the output of the converter bridge is: instantaneous load voltage and current?
3
(a) 1 − (b) 0.5
2
3
(c) 3 −1 (d)
2
DSSSB AE 2019
Ans. (b) : A fully controlled natural commutated 3-
phase bridge rectifier is operating with a firing angle α
= 300 The peak to peak voltage ripple expressed as a
(a) v0 < 0 & i0 < 0 (b) v0 < 0 & i0 ≥ 0
ratio of the peak output DC voltage at the output of the
converter bridge is 0.5. (c) v0 ≥ 0 & i 0 ≥ 0 (d) v0 ≥ 0 & i0 < 0
DSSSB AE 2019
43. A half wave thyristor converter supplies a
purely inductive load as shown in figure. Ans. (c) : As it is 1-φ fully controlled rectifier with an
Triggering angle of the thyristor is 120, the antiparallel diode.
extinction angle will be: ∴ V0 ≥ 0 and i0 ≥ 0.
46. A three phase converter feeds pure resistance
load at a firing angle of α = 60o. The average
value of current flowing in the loads is 10A. If a
very large inductance is connected in the load
circuit, then the:
(a) 240o (b) 200o (a) Average value of current will remain as 10A
(c) 180o (d) 120o (b) Trend of variation of current cannot be
DSSSB AE 2019 predicted unless the exact value of inductance
Ans. (a) : Given, Triggering angle (α) = 120° connected is known
(c) Average value of current will becomes less
Extinction angle (β ) = ?
than 10A
For 1-φ half wave rectifier extinction angle–
(d) Average value of current will become greater
β = 2π – α than 10A
= 3600–1200 DSSSB AE 2019
β = 240° ESE 2013
44. A three-phase fully-controlled thyristor bridge Ans. (a) : As large inductance is connected so current
converter is used as line commutated inverter becomes constant hence average value of current will
to feed 50 kW power 420 V dc to a three phase, remain 10 A.
415 V (line), 50 Hz ac mains, consider dc link 47. A Full wave controlled converter is supplied by
current to be constant. The rms current of the a 3-φ transformer. The load is inductive in
thyristror is: nature and rating of load is Vo = 500 dc, power
(a) 119.05 A (b) 68.73 A = 10 KW. If the firing angle of converter is 30
(c) 39.68 A (d) 79.37 A degree, then the rating of the transformer is:
DSSSB AE 2019 (a) 12.9 kVA (b) 12.11 kVA
Ans. (b) : Given, P = VdId (c) 12.10 kVA (d) 12.12 kVA
P DSSSB AE 2019
Id =
Vd Ans. (a) : Given α = 30
P = 10 kW
50 × 103
Id = Power factor = 0.9 × cos α = 0.9 × cos 30 = 0.77
420
kW
I d = 119.05 kVA =
power factor
RMS current of thyristor
I 119.05 10
(Ith)rms = d = kVA =
3 3 3
0.9 ×
2
( I th )rms = 68.73 A kVA = 12.9kVA

48. A single phase full converter is connected 51. For four quadrant operation of separately
across 250 V a.c. Its output voltage when firing excited d.c. motor, the converter used to–
angle is 30º is given by (a) half controlled bridge converter
(a) 210 V (b) 195 V (b) fully controlled bridge converter
(c) dual converter (d) cyclo-converter
(c) 250 V (d) 390 V
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I Ans. (c) : For four quadrant operation of separately
Ans. (b) : Given Vrms= 250 V, α = 300 excited DC motor, the converter used to dual converter.
Vm = 250 2 V
A dual converter has two full bridge converter one
converter is for two quadrant operation.
2Vm cos α 2 × 250 × 2 × cos 300 52. Consider following power electronic circuits
V0 = = related to two-quadrant operation of d.c. drive :
π π
1. Half controlled 2. Fully controlled
= 194.92 V bridge converter. bridge
≃ 195 V converter.
49. A single phase half controlled bridge rectifier 3. Dual converter 4. Chopper
has supply voltage of 400 sin 314 t and supplies Out of these statements :
a resistive load. For a firing angle of 60°, the (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
average output voltage will be– (b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 3, 4 and 1 are correct
200 240
(a) V (b) V (d) 4, 1 and 2 are correct
π π UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
300 400 Ans. (b) : Only Half controlled bridge converter can be
(c) V (d) V
π π used for one quadrant operation. While fully controlled,
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II dual converter and chopper can also used for two
quadrant operation.
Ans. (c) : For half controlled bridge rectifier- 53. A single phase full wave a.c. voltage controller
V connected from a single phase a.c. supply of
V0 = m (1 + cos α)
2π 200 sin 314t feeds a 10 ohm pure resistive load.
For a firing angle of 900, the power delivered to
400 0 0
V0 = (1 + cos 60 ) (α = 60 , given) load is–
2π (a) 0.5 kW (b) 0.75 kW
400 3 (c) 1.0 kW (d) 4.0 kW
V0 = .
2π 2 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
300 Ans. (c) :
V0 = π
π 1  
50. A phase controlled converter having ideal
V0(rms) =
π  ∫
.  Vm2 sin 2 ωtdωt 
π / 2 
thyristor has an overlap of 30° at α = 0°. The
π
overlap of the converter when it operates at the Vm2  1 − cos ωt 
inverter limit will be–
V0(rms) =
π ∫
. 
π/2
 2
 dωt

(a) 60° (b) 30°
Vm2  1
(c) less than 30° (d) greater than 30°
= .
π  2
{ }
( ωt )ππ / 2 − ( sin ωt )ππ / 2 

Ans. (b) : For limiting case of inverter V  π  π
V0 = 0 V0(rms) = m  π −  −  sin π − sin 
2  2   2
cos α + cos(u ′ + α + µ) = 0
V 1
V0(rms) = m ×
cos(u′ + α + µ) = −1 { }
∵ α = 00 , cos 00 = 1 2 2
(u ′ + α + µ) = 180° V
V0(rms) = m
2
α + u ′ + µ = 1800 V02rms
( ) 200 × 200
u ′ = 180° − 30° P= =
R 4 × 10
u ′ = 150° or 300 P = 1000 = 1k W
u ′ = 300 P = 1k W

54. A single-phase full bridge VSI has inductor L 57. In a single phase full wave controlled bridge
as the load. For a constant voltage, the current rectifier, minimum output voltage and
through the inductor is– maximum output voltage are obtained at which
(a) Square wave (b) Triangular wave conduction angles (in degrees)?
(c) Sine wave (d) Pulse wave (a) 0 and 180 respectively
(b) 180 and 0 respectively
(c) 0 and 0 respectively
Ans. (b) : We know that (d) 180 and 180 respectively
di di V LMRC AE 2015
V=L =
dt dt L ESE 2007
V = Constant Ans. (b) For a single phase fully controlled bridge
rectifier, the average output voltage is given by-
V
i = .t + C inclined straight line. V
L V0 = m (1 + cos α )
π
55. A single phase fully controlled bridge converter At α = 180° ⇒ cos 180° = 0
for supplying high inductive load is fed by a
V
voltage Vm sin ωt. The average and rms values Then V0 = m Minimum voltage
of output voltages are– π
2Vm V V V At α = 0° ⇒ cos 0° = 1
(a) cos α and m (b) m cos α and m
π 2 π 2 2V
V0 = m Maximum voltage
2Vm π
(c) cos α and Vm Output voltage is minimum for α = 180°
π
V and maximum for α = 0°
(d) m cos α and 2Vm 58. A single-phase full wave convertor is connected
π
across 250V ac. Its output voltage when firing
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II angle is 30° will be :-
Ans. (a) : (a) 195 V (b) 210 V
2Vm (c) 215 V (d) 250 V
V0 (avg) = cos α UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
π
Ans. (a) : Given- Vrms = 250 V, α = 300
Vm
V0(rms) = Vm = 250 2 V
2
2V
56. A solar cell of 350V is feeding power to an AC V0 = m cos α
supply of 440V, 50Hz through a 3 phase fully π
controlled bridge converter. A large inductance 2 × 250 2
is connected in the DC circuit to maintain the = × cos 300
3.14
DC current at 20A. If the solar cell resistance is = 195.02 V ≃ 195 V
0.5 ohm, then each thyristor will be reversed
biased for a period of : 59. In a single phase semiconverter for continuous
(a) 125 0
(b) 120 0 conduction, each SCR conducts for :-
(c) 60 0
(d) 55 0 (a) α (b) π
(c) α + π (d) π – α
LMRC AE 2015
Ans. (d) Voltage across 3 − φ fully controlled bridge
Ans. (d) : In a single phase semiconverter from 0 to α
converter. there is no conduction in each SCRs. SCRs are gated
V0 = − ( E − Idc R cell ) at α and then naturally commutated at π. Hence,
conduction angle = π – α.
= − ( 350 − 20 × 0.5 ) = −340V
60. In a 3-phase semi converter, for firing angle
3V less than or equal to 60°, freewheeling diode
i.e. V0 = −340 = m cos α conducts for
π
3 × 440 × 2 cosα (c) 90 degrees (d) zero degree
= −340
π PTCUL AE 2012
α = 125 Ans. (d) : In case of semi-converter operating with α <
Thus, each thyristor will be reversed biased for period 60º, Freewheeling diode does not comes into play as the
voltage never falls to zero and gives no chance for the
of (180 − 125 ) = 55 inductor to discharge.

61. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as load. For Ans. (b) :
a constant source current the voltage across V
capacitor is Vo avg = m (1 + cos α)
2π
(a) square wave α = 900
(b) triangular wave
(c) step function
(d) none of above
PTCUL AE 2012
Ans. (b) : A single phase CSI has capacitor as load. For
constant source current the voltage capacitor should be cos 900 = 0
triangular wave. V
Vo = m (1 + cos 900 )
62. In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage 2π
pulsate at a frequency equal to V
(a) supply frequency (b) 2f = m
2π
(c) 3f (d) 6f
66. When the firing angle α of a single phase fully
PTCUL AE 2012 controlled rectifier feeding constant dc current
Ans. (d) : In 3φ full converter output voltage pulsates at into a load is 300, the displacement power
a frequency equal to 6f. factor (DSF) of the rectifier is :
63. In a 3 phase semiconverter, the three SCRs are (a) 1 (b) 0.5
triggered at an interval of : (c) 0.866 (d) 1/3
(a) 60° (b) 90° Punjab PSC SDE 2017
(c) 120° (d) None of these Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
PTCUL AE 2016 ESE 2006
Ans. (c) : In a three phase semiconverter, the three SCR Ans. (c) : Displacement power factor (DPF) of 1-φ
fully controlled bridge rectifier is
2π
are triggered at an interval of or 120°. [DPF = Cosα] α :– firing angle
3 ⇒ DPF = cos 300
64. The maximum d.c. voltage available from a
fully controlled bridge converter supplying a 3
= = 0.866
motor and operating from low impedance 230 2
V mains is : 67. ac to dc circulating current dual converters are
(a) 230 V (b) 210 V operated with the following relationship
between their triggering angles (α1 and α2) :
(c) 207 V (d) 180 V
(a) α1 – α2 = 180o (b) α1 + α2 = 90o
(c) α1 + α2 = 360o (d) α1 + α2 = 180o
Ans. (c) : Given : Vs = 230 V HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
Voltage (V0) = ? Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
For fully controlled bridge rectifier Ans. (d) :
2 2Vs
V0 =
π
2 2 × 230
V0 =
π
V0 = 207.07
V0 ≅ 207 V
65. Average output voltage (V0) in terms of
maximum input voltage (Vm) of a Half
Controlled Bridge converter at firing angle α =
900 is : V01 = −V02
(a) 2Vm/π V0 = Vmax cos α1 = −Vmax . cos α 2
(b) Vm/2π cos α1 = − cos α 2 = cos (180o − α 2 )
(c) √2Vm/π
α1 = 1800 – α2
(d) 0
α1 + α2 = 180o
68. In phase controlled rectification power factor Ans. (d) Range of firing Angle, 0 < α < 180o
(PF) −3
 ωL  −1  314 × 6.36 × 10 
(a) Remains unaffected θ = tan −1   = tan  
(b) Improves with increase of firing angle α  R   2 
(c) Deteriorates with increase of α α = 45o
(d) Is unrelated to α Firing Angle vary 45o < α < 180o
71. A single phase two pulse converter feeds RL
Ans. (c) load with sufficient smoothing so that the
In phase controlled rectification for 1–φ system, power conduction is continuous. If the resistance of
factor is given by (pf = cosα) the load circuit is increase, then,
where (a) The ripple content of the load current will
α = firing angle. remain the same .
if α ↑ cos α ↓ ⇒ pf deteriorates. (b) The ripple content of the load current will
69. A single phase full-wave half controlled bridge decrease.
converter feeds an inductive load. The two (c) The ripple content of the load current will
SCRs in the converter are connected to a increase.
common D.C. bus. The converter has to have a (d) There is a possibility of discontinuous
free wheeling diode–
conduction.
(a) Because the converter inherently does not
provide for free-wheeling. UPPCL AE 2015
(b) Because the converter does not provide for ESE 2012
free-wheeling for high values of triggering Ans. (c) In single phase two pulse converter feeds RL
angles. load with sufficient smoothing so that conduction is
(c) Or else, the free-wheeling action of the continuous, and resistance of load circuit increased,
converter will cause shorting of the AC then ripple content of the load current decrease.
supply. 72. The average output of a semi-converter
(d) Or else, if a gate pulse to one of the SCR is connected to a 220V, 50Hz supply and firing
missed, it will subsequently cause a high angle of 60 degree is :
current in the other SCR. (a) 54.02 V
WBSE TCL AE 2016 (b) 148.55 V
Ans. (b) : During the free-wheeling period, π to (π+α) (c) 220V
and 2 π to (2π+α), energy stored in inductance during (d) 110V
(π+α) to π and α to π, gets dissipated partially in R and UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
partially to the energy stored in load emf. E. No energy
Ans : (b) Given that-
is feedback to source during free-wheeling period.
Therefore, in the absence of free-wheeling diode, T1 & Vrms = 220 V
T2 . may conducts simultaneously which will come Vm= 2 Vrms = 220 2
short-CKT of supply voltage (Vs.) α = 600
So output voltage
T2 Vm
 
 V0 = π (1 + cos α ) 
 
220 2
D1 D2 V0 =
π
(
1 + cos 600 )
Single phase bridge type semi-converter 220 × 2 3
V0 = × = 148.55Volt
π 2
Note-The correct answer according to commission is (c)
73. In a 3 phase controlled bridge rectifier, each
70. A single phase AC voltage controller or thyristor conducts for the period of maximum
regulator fed from 50 Hz system supplies a
of______.
load having resistance and inductance of 2.0Ω
(a) 60 degree (b) 180 degree
and 6.36 mH respectively. The control range of
(c) 120 degree (d) 90 degree
firing angle for this regulator is:
(a) 90o < α < 180o (b) 0o < α < 45o UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
o
(c) 0 < α < 180 o
(d) 45o < α < 180o Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III
UPPCL AE 2015 UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II

Ans : (c) Ans. (a) : The effect of source impedance in a 3-phase
fully controlled bridge converter is decrease the output
voltage.
78. In a single-phase full converter, if output
voltage has peak and average values of 325V
and 133V respectively, then the firing angle is
(a) 400 (b) 1400
0
In this, 6 SCRs are used. (c) 50 (d) 1300
Gate is turned on by triggering pulse and line BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015
commutates. Each phase is a full wave power rectifier Ans. (c): Given that-
and phase voltages of a three phase system is stable at Peak out put voltage (Vm) = 325 V
RBY 1200. Average output voltage (V0)=133 V
Load voltage at different firing angle will be different
which will be equal to total voltage obtained by three 2Vm
Vo = cos α
different phase voltage at 1200. π
74. A single phase two pulse bridge converter gives 133 × π
an average output voltage of 400 V and power cos α =
2 × 325
of 10 kW. The SCRs are connected to form a
single phase two pulse mid point converter. The cos α = 0.6424
new output rating will be α = 50.02
(a) 400 V, 10 kW (b) 400 V, 5 kW α = 500
(c) 200 V, 5 kW (d) 200 V, 10 kW
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 79. A separately excited dc motor controlled by a
single-phase SCR full-converter supplied at 200
Ans. (c) : 1-φ 2-pulse bridge converter
V ac voltage draws 40 A at a firing delay angle
Vavg. = 400 V of 45o. If the armature resistance of the motor
P = 10 kW is 0.25 ohm, the back emf is :
If connected 1-φ 2-pulse mid point converter
 200   200 
400 (a)  − 10  V (b)  + 10  V
Vavg = = 200V  π   π 
2
10  400   400 
P= = 5kW (c)  − 10  V (d)  + 10  V
2  π   π 
75. In a three-phase full wave rectifier, out of six APTRANSCO AE 2019
diodes used in the circuit, the number of diodes Ans. (c) :
conducting at one time is Output voltage of ac-dc converter
(a) four
(b) three
2Vm 2 × 200 2 400
(c) two Vo = cos α = cos 45o = volts
(d) all six with partial conduction π π π
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II For dc motor ⇒ Vo = Eb + Ia Ra
Ans. (c) : A three-phase full wave rectifier, out of six  400 
diodes used in the circuit, the number of diodes Eb =  − Ia R a 
 π 
conducting at one time is two.
76. If the ripple factors of a single phase and a  400 
Eb =  − 40 × 0.25 
three phase full-wave rectifiers are R1 and R3  π 
respectively, then
(a) R1 > R3 (b) R1 < R3  400 
Eb =  − 10  Volts
(c) R1 = R3 (d) anything is possible  π 
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II 80. The conducting pairs of SCRs in a bridge-type
Ans. (a) : If the ripple factors of a single phase and a 3-phase ac-dc converter with SCRs S1, S3, S5
three phase full-wave rectifiers are R1 and R3 connected in top-half and S4, S6, S2 in bottom-
respectively, then R1 > R3. half of the converter, and supplying a
77. The effect of source impedance in a 3-phase resistance load are :
fully controlled bridge converter is (a) (S6, S1), (S1, S2), (S2, S3), (S3, S4), (S4,
(a) decrease the output voltage S5), (S5, S6)
(b) increase the output voltage (b) (S1, S4), (S4, S3), (S3, S6), (S6, S5), (S5,
(c) decrease the output voltage and increase the S2), (S2, S1)
output current (c) (S1, S2), (S2, S3), (S3, S4), (S4, S5), (S5,
(d) increase the output voltage and decrease the S6), (S6, S1)
output current (d) Either (a) or (c)
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II APTRANSCO AE 2019
Ans. (d) : 84.
A single-phase fully controlled thyristor bridge
ac-dc converter is operating at a firing angle of
250 and an overlap angle of 100 with constant
dc output current of 20A. The fundamental
power factor (displacement factor) at input ac
mains is.
(S1, S2), (S2, S3), (S3, S4), (S4, S5), (S5, S6), (S6, S1) (a) 0.827 (b) 0.866
or (c) 0.78 (d) 0.9
(S6, S1), (S1, S2), (S2, S3), (S3, S4), (S4, S5), (S5, S6) UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
81. In a three-phase full-controlled converter, by KPSC AE 2014
0
using six SCRs, commutation occurs every Ans. (b) : Given that, α = 25
________. overlap angle µ= 100
(a) 60o (b) 90o The fundamental displacement factor (FDF),
(c) 45o (d) 180o  µ
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 FDF = cos  α + 
 2
360
Ans. (a) : Commutation angle =  100 
n = cos  250 + 
where n = No. of SCR  2 
0
360 = cos30
∴ Commutation angle = = 60o
6 3
=
82. A single phase fully controlled rectifier has an 2
average output voltage of 200 V when α = 0. Its Displacement factor = 0.866
output voltage when α = 30º is approximately 85. A 3- Φ full-wave converter as shown in the
(a) 200 V (b) 160 V figure is operated from a 3- Φ -connected 208-
(c) 173 V (d) 183 V V(line-line rms), 50 Hz supply and the load
APGENCO AE 2012 resistance is R = 10Ω . If the delay angle α is
Ans. (c) : Average output voltage for single phase fully 60º, find the average output voltage?
controlled rectifier-
2Vm
V0 = cos α
π
2Vm
=200 if α = 0º
π
then α = 30º
3 (a) 160.32V (b) 140.45V
V0 = 200 × = 173.2 Volt ≃ 173 V
2 (c) 200.56V (d) 100V
83. A 200 V dc-dc converter is turned ON for 30 µ DMRC AM 2020
sec and turned off for 10 µ sec. The output Ans. (b) : Given line to line voltage (VL) = 208 V
voltage will be Maximum line to line voltage (VmL) = 2VL
(a) 200 V (b) 150 V
(c) 175 V (d) 120 V = 2 × 208
APGENCO AE 2012 Delay angle ( α ) = 600
Ans. (b) : Given that, TON = 30 µ sec = 30 ×10–6 sec Average output voltage for 3 – φ full wave-
TOFF = 10 µ sec = 10×10–6 sec 3VmL
Average load voltage for DC – DC converter. Rectifier is Vavg = cos α
π
V0 = αVs
3 × 2 × 208
TON T = cos 600
α= = ON {T = TON + TOFF } π
TON + TOFF T 3 × 2 × 208 1 1
 0
= × ∵ cos 60 = 
30 ×10 −6 π 2  2
α=
( 30 + 10 )10−6 Vavg = 140.44V
30 × 10−6 3 86. Mention the power factor of 1-Φ full bridge
= = diode rectifier supplying high inductive load.
40 ×10−6 4 (a) 1.5 (b) Less than 1
3 (c) 1 (d) Greater than 2
Vo = × 200 = 150 volt
4 DMRC AM 2020
Ans. (b) : A low power factor is the result of inductive 89. A single phase semi-converter is operated from
loads. An overall power factor less than 1 indicates that 120 V, 50 Hz AC supply at a firing angle of 30
the electricity supplier need to provide more generating degrees. Load is such that the load current is
capacity than actually required. So, the power factor of continuous and ripple free. Displacement factor
of the converter is :
1-Φ full bridge diode rectifier supplying high inductive
(a) 0.77 (b) 0.97
load less than 1.
(c) 0.67 (d) 0.57
87. Figure shows 1- Φ full converter feeding RLE LMRC AM 2018
load with XL = 3Ω, R = 4Ω and E = 10V.
Ans. (b) : Given that: – firing angle (α) = 30o
Determine the average value of load voltage for Single phase semi converter :
the average load current of ILo = 50A.
α
Displacement factor (kd) = cos  
2
 30 
= cos  
 2 
= cos 150
= 0.965
k d ≅ 0.97
(a) 150 (b) 190
(c) 110 (d) 260 90. A 230 V, 50 Hz single-phase full converter
bridge is connected to RLE load. The average
DMRC AM 2020 load current of 10 A is constant over the
Ans. (d) : Given that, working range. Take R = 0.4 Ω , L = 2 mH,
R = 4Ω and E = 120 V. Find the firing angle delay.
XL = 3 Ω (a) 73.210 (b) 23.210
0
E = 10 V (c) 43.21 (d) 63.210
0
(e) 53.21
Z = R 2 + X 2L = 42 + 32 = 16 + 9 = 25 CGPSC AE 2017
Z = 5Ω Ans. (e) : Iavg Load = 10A (constant)
Voltage drop in inductor and resistor = IL0 × Z LdIavg Load
= 50 × 5 = 250V Vavg Load = Iavg Load R+ + E,
dt
So, the average value of load voltage Vs = 250 + E ∂Iavg
∴ Vs = 250 + 10 = 260V = 10(0.4)+0+120V = 0 ∵ Iavg = 10A
dt
88. In a 3-phase converter circuit during = (4+120)V Constant over
commutation when one SCR in one phase is working range
turned on to turn-off an SCR in another phase,
result in : = 124 V ( )
∵ ∂ ( constant ) = 0
dt
(a) voltage notching (b) harmonic distortion For full converter bridge connected to RLE load
(c) voltage sag (d) voltage swell 2Vm cos α
BHEL ET 2019 V0avg = Vavg Load= Where Vm = 2Vs
π
APTRANSCO AE 2017
π V 
Ans. (a) : In a 3-phase converter circuit during cos α =  avg  α = firing angle delay
2  Vm 
commutation when one SCR in one phase is turned on
to turn-off an SCR in another phase, result in voltage  π 124  −1 389.36
notching. α = cos −1  ×  = cos 650.53
 2 230 2 
α= 53.210
91. A 230V, 50 Hz single-phase full converter
bridge is connected to RLE load with R = 6 Ω ,
L= 6 mH, and E = 60 V. Find the average value
of load current for a firing angle delay of 500
under continuous conduction.
Voltage notching is primarily caused by three-phase (a) 22.18 A (b) 12.18 A
rectifiers or converters that generate continuous DC (c) 2.18 A (d) 32.18 A
current. The voltage notching happen when the current (e) 5.18 A
commutates from one phase to another. CGPSC AE 2017
Ans. (b) : Vs = 230V, f = 50Hz , R = 6 Ω , 94. A buck converter is used to control a d.c.
L = 6mH E = 60V motor. The input to a dc buck converter is 200
α = 500 V. Find the duty ratio of the pulse to be applied
2Vm to the converter to produce 150 V across the
Vavg = cos α d.c. motor.
π
(a) 60% (b) 50%
2 × 230 2 cos 50 (c) 35% (d) 75%
Vavg = = 133.10V
π UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
LdIavg Ans : (d) Input to a dc buck
Vavg = Iavg R + +E
dt converter = 200 V0 = αVS
for continuous conduction
Pr oduced voltage
LdIavg Duty Ratio = ×100
=0 Total voltage
dt
150
So Vavg= Iavg R + E = × 100 = 75%
200
Vavg − E 133.1 − 60 73.1
Iavg = = = = 12.18A 95. A three phase diode bridge rectifier is feeding a
R 6 6 highly inductive load. The load current is
Iavg = 12.18A assumed to be 100A ripple free DC. If the three
92. The value of boost factor is equal to unity when phase input is 400V, 50Hz, AC, the rms value
TCSC (Thyristor Controlled Series Capacitor) of the current through each diode is
is operated in: (a) 57.73A (b) 33.33A
(a) Capacitive boost mode (c) 66.67A (d) 16.67A
(b) Inductive boost mode UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II
(c) Blocking mode Ans. (a): Given data:-
(d) Bypass mode Im = 100 Amp
DMRC AM 2016 We know that:- I = 0.5773I
d rms m
Ans. (c) : The value of boost factor is equal to unity
when TCSC (Thyristor controlled series capacitor) is = 0.5773×100A
operated in blocking mode. When thyristor value is not Id rms = 57.73A
triggered and TCSC operated in blocking mode in this
96. The average output voltage of a single phase
mode TCSC perform like a tired series capacitor.
full controlled bridge converter is measured to
93. Identify the circuit based on the working be 103.5V. The load current is assumed to be
principle. continuous. If the bridge is supplied from a
230V, 50Hz sinusoidal source, the triggering
angle of the thyristors in the bridge is
approximately
(a) 90o (b) 60o
o
(c) 120 (d) 30o
Ans. (b) : It is given,
Average output voltage =103.5volt
2V
Average, output voltage = m cos α ,
π
(a) Fully-controlled rectifier Here α = Triggering angle
(b) Semi-controlled rectifier Vm = Vrms 2
(c) A.C. regulator Vm = 230 2
(d) Controlled inverter.
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II 2 × 230 2
103.5 = cos α
Ans. (c) : The given shown in figure is an AC regulator π
AC Regulator is also known as 1-φ full wave ac 103.5 × π
cos α =
voltage controller. 2 × 230 2
AC Voltage controllers : AC voltage controllers are cos α = 0.5 = 1/2
thyristor based devices which convert fixed alternating cos α = cos 60°
voltage directly to variable voltage without change in
frequency. α = 60°

97. A half controlled single phase bridge converter Ans. (a) : For 1– φ fully controlled rectifier; the input
is supplying an R-L load. The triggering angle power factor (IPF) is given by:
is α. If the load current is continuous, the
duration for which the freewheeling of the load 2 2
IPF = cos α = 0.9 cos α
takes place in a half cycle of the input voltage is π
(a) 2π-α (b) π-α Here α = 45°. Therefore,
(c) π-2α (d) α 1
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II IPF = 0.9 × = 0.636
2
Ans. (d) : A half controlled single phase bridge
101. If a boost converter operates with a duty ratio
converter is supplying an R-L load and the triggering
D = 1 then output voltage is–
angle is α. If load current is continuous, α is that
(a) Infinity (b) Input voltage
duration for which the freewheeling of the load takes
place in half cycle of the input voltage. (c) Zero
(d) Two times the input voltage
98. A single phase half controlled converter bridge
is feeding a load with constant ripple free ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
current. If the triggering angle is 60o, the Ans. (a) :
displacement power factor of the converter is Output voltage of a boost converter is given by:
(a) 0.707 (b) 0.866 Vin
(c) 0.913 (d) 0.5 V0 =
(1 − D)
Ans. (b) : Displacement power factor of converter is Vin V
Here, D = 1. Then, V0 = = in
given by:- (1 − 1) 0
α V0 = ∞
DPF = cos
2
102. Consider the following statements:
Here, α = triggering Angle = 60o 1. The voltage developed across the OFF
60° switches of the half bridge convertor is the
DPF = cos
2 maximum dc link voltage.
DPF = cos 30o= 3 / 2 = 0.866 2. In the full bridge converter, the voltage across
the primary of the transformer is the dc link
99. In a 3 phase semiconvertor, firing angle = 120°
voltage.
and extinction angle = 110°. Each SCR and
freewheeling diode conducts respectively for 3. The voltage developed across the OFF
switches of the full bridge converter is half
(a) 60°, 50° (b) 30°, 50°
the maximum dc link voltage.
(c) 60°, 10° (d) 30°, 40°
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a) : For a 3 phase semi converter- (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
SCR conducts for (π – α) period ESE 2017
Where, α is the firing angle, Ans. (c) : 3-phase half controlled bridge converter are
∴ SCR conduction = π – 120° generally used in industrial applications. In full bridge
= 60° inverter, peak voltage is same as the DC supply voltage.
 π 103. A freewheeling diode in phase-controlled
And freewheeling diode conducts for  β −  period
 3 rectifiers
Where, β is extinction angle (a) enables inverter operations
(b) is responsible for additional reactive power
π
Freewheeling diode conduction = β − (c) improves the line power factor
3 (d) is responsible for additional harmonics
= 110° – 60°
CIL MT 2020
= 50°
ESE 2017
Thus, each SCR and freewheeling diode conducts
respectively for 600 and 500. Ans. (c) : free wheeling diode keeps Vout always
positive and inductor discharges energy through it
100. A single phase full bridge converter supplies hence it improves power factor by giving more power.
power to constant current load. If the
104. A three-phase fully-controlled bridge converter
triggering angle is 45°, what is the input power
is connected to a 415 V supply, having a source
factor of the converter?
resistance of 0.3 Ω and inductance of 1.2 mH
(a) 0.637 (b) 0.837
per phase. The converter is working in the
(c) 0.937 (d) None of the above inversion mode at a firing advance angle of 30o.
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018 What is the average generator voltage for the
condition: dc current Id = 60 A, thyristor drop 107. A single-phase fully controlled bridge
= 1.5 V and f = 50 Hz? converter is connected with RLE load where R
(a) 180 V (b) 210 V = 5Ω, L = 4mH and E = 50V. This converter
(c) 230 V (d) 240 V circuit is supplied from 220V, 50Hz ac supply.
ESE 2017 When the firing angle is 600, the average value
3Vm of the load current will be nearly
Ans. (*) : cos (1800 − α ) (a) 12.2 A (b) 9.8 A
π
(c) 6.4 A (d) 4.2 A
3 × 415 2 3ωLs ESE 2019
cos1500 = − E + 2I 0 rs + 2 × Vt + I0
π π Ans. (b) : There will be continuous current due to
3 × 100π× 1.2 × 103 inductor value being very high-
= −E + ( 2 × 60 × 0.3) + ( 2 ×1.5 ) + × 60
π 2V
Vo = m cos α
E = 545.96 V π
105. A single-phase 220V, 1kW heater is connected 220 2 o
to half wave controlled rectifier and is fed from = 3.14 × cos 60
a 220V, 50Hz ac supply. When the firing angle V = 99.07V
o
α = 90o, the power absorbed by the heater will
V −E
be nearly ∴ Average current Io = o
(a) 1000W (b) 750W R
(c) 500W (d) 250W 99.07 − 50
= = 9.8A
ESE 2019 5
V 2 220 × 220 22 × 22 108. In a single-phase full converter, if α and β are
Ans. (d) : R = = = Ω firing and extinction angles respectively then
P 1000 10
the load current is
Power delivered to the load
(a) discontinuous if ( β – α ) = π
1 2
 
1 V π 2
(b) continuous if ( β – α ) < π
=  m   
R  2π  2  
  (c) discontinuous if ( β – α ) < π
(d) discontinuous if ( β – α ) > π
2
 1

 220 × 2  π  2 
   UPPCL AE 2014
2π  2  
=   Ans. (c) : In a single phase full converter. Load current
R is discontinues if ( β – α ) < π
220 × 220 × 2 π
= × 109. A single phase full bridge voltage source
4πR 2
inverter (VSI) is fed from a 300V battery. A
220 × 220 × 10 1000 pulse of 1200 duration is used to trigger the
= = = 250 W
4 × 22 × 22 4 appropriate devices in each half cycle. The rms
106. Introduction of hysteresis in a comparator value of the fundamental component of the
makes it output voltage in volts is.
(a) Pulse generator (a) 234 (b) 245
(b) Immune to false triggering caused by noisy (c) 300 (d) 331
input signal MPPSC AE 2017
(c) A square waveform generator Ans. (a) : Fundamental output voltage
(d) Prone to false triggering caused by noisy V nπ
V01 = dc sin nd × sin × sin nωt
input signal nπ 2
UPPCL AE 2014
2 2Vdc
Ans. (b) : Introduction of hysteresis in a comparator ( V01 )rms = × sin d
π
makes it immune to false triggering caused by noisy
input signal. Noise or signal variation at the comparison 2 2 × 300
= × sin 60
threshold will cause multiple transitions. Hysteresis sets π
an upper and lower threshold to eliminate the multiple = 234
transitions caused by noise. Hence, the option (a) is correct.

110. A single phase fully controlled thyristor bridge Ans. (a) : Vin = 220 Vout = 150 f = 4000Hz
rectifier is fed from a 230 V, 50 Hz single phase Vout = α.Vin
AC mains. If it is delivering a constant DC 150 15
current of 10 A at a firing angle of 300, then the α = =
value of power factor at AC mains is. 220 22
(a) 0.87 (b) 0.9 TON
=α
(c) 0.78 (d) 0.45 T
MPPSC AE 2017 α
Ans. (c) : Input power factor = power factor at ac main TON = α.T = f
= C.D.F × D.F TON = 0.000170.45
2 2 2 2 TON = 170µs
= cos α = cos300
π π 3. In the dc choppers for periodic time T, the
= 0.78 output voltage can be controlled by frequency
111. In a single-phase full converter, for continuous modulation by varying–
conduction, each pair of SCRs conduct for (a) T, keeping tON constant
(a) π – α (b) π (b) tON, keeping T constant
(c) α (d) π + α (c) T, keeping tOFF constant
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I (d) tOFF, keeping T constant
TSPSC AEE 2017 TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
Ans. (b) : In continuous conduction mode (CCM), APTRANSCO AE 2011
current is flowing continuously in the load circuit. Ans. (a) : In dc chopper, for periodic time T, the output
In a single-phase full converter, for CCM, each pair of voltage can be controlled by frequency modulation by
SCRs must conduct for π degree. varying T, keeping tON constant.
112. A single-phase full converter is supplied from T
D = ON
230 V, 50 Hz source. Load is R-L load. At α = T
600, calculate average dc voltage. TON
(a) 103.5 V (b) 206 V D=
TON + TOFF
(c) 230 V (d) 320 V
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I 4. A dc to dc transistor chopper supplied from a
fixed voltage DC source feeds a fixed resistive-
2V inductive load and a free-wheeling diode. The
Ans. (a) : Vavg = max (1 + cos α )
π chopper operates at 1 kHz and 50% duty cycle.
Without changing the value of the average dc
2 × 2 × 230 current through the load, if it is desired to
= × cos 600
π reduce the ripple content of load current, the
= 103.5 V control action needed will be-
(a) increase the chopper frequency keeping its
duty cycle constant.
(iv) Chopper (b) increase the chopper frequency and duty
cycle in equal ratio.
1. A dc series motor is controlled by chopper. V =
–3 2 (c) decrease only the chopper frequency
600 V, Ra + Rf = 0.1 Ω, Km = 4 × 10 N-m/A , Ia
(d) decrease only the duty cycle
= 300A, duty cycle = 0.6. Power input to the
motor is RPSC AE 2018
(a) 98 W (b) 108 kW ESE 2010
(c) 88 kW (d) 100 kW Ans : (a) To reduce the ripple content of load current,
increase the chopper frequency keeping its duty cycle
TSPSC AEE 2017 constant.
Ans. (b) : Given, duty cycle (α) = 0.6 1
Vs = 600 V ∆I L ∝ → chopping frequency
Lf
Ia = 300 A
∵ Vout of chopper = Terminal voltage of motor 5. In DC Choppers, per unit ripple is maximum
= α Vsupply when duty cycle α is:
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.5
[Power input to motor = Vt.Ia = αVs.Ia]
(c) 0.7 (d) 0.9
P = 0.6 × 300 × 600 = 108 kW RPSC AE 2018
2. The input voltage of step - down chopper is 220 TSPSC AEE 2017
V, output voltage is 150 V and chopping PTCUL AE 2016
frequency is 4000 Hz. Find the Ton. OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
(a) 170 µs (b) 340 µs UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(c) 4 µs (d) 0.25 µs PTCUL AE 2012
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 ESE 1997
Ans. (b) : In DC chopper (a) 1.77 mA (b) 1.77A
α ( I − α ) Vs T (c) 1.73 mA (d) 1.73 A
ripple current ( ∆i ) = UPRVUNL AE 2014
L
where, α = duty cycle Ans. (d) Vrms = Vs α
Vs= Source Voltage = 48 0.75
T= time period = 41.56V α = Ton × f
L= inductor used in circuit
α = 3 × 10 −3 × 250
Now, per unit ripple current will be
α= 750×10–3 = 0.75
∆i α ( I − α ) Vs T α ( I − α ) RT
= = = i pu 41.56
Vs / R L.Vs R L I rms = ( R = 24 )
R
Here, R= resistance used to limit current 41.56
If ipu is maximam = = 1.73A
24
di pu 8. Which of the following options represent
then, =0
dα change and control voltage magnitude and
frequency both?
 (α (1 − α ) RT 
d  (a) Dc-dc conversion
L (b) Ac-dc rectification
0=  
dα (c) Dc-ac inversion
RT (d) Ac-ac cycloconversion
0 = (1− 2 α ) . UPRVUNL AE 2014
L Ans. (d) AC–AC cycloconversion used in
0 = 1 − 2α cycloconverter for changing and control voltage
1 magnitude and frequency both.
α= = 0.5 9. A DC chopper is used for regenerative braking
2 of a separately excited DC motor. The DC
Thus, In DC choppers, per unit ripple is maximum supply voltage is 400 V. The armature current
when duty cycle α is 0.5. during regenerative braking is kept constant at
6. A step down chopper as shown below is 300 A with negligible ripple. For a duty cycle of
switched at 1 kHz with duty ratio D = 0.5. Peak 60% the power return to the DC supply is:
to peak ripple in load current is nearly (a) 78 kW (b) 58 kW
(c) 38 kW (d) 48 kW
TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (d) : Power returned to DC supply
[ P = Vt Ia ];
where Vt = armature terminal voltage
and Ia = armature current
(a) 10 A (b) 0.5 A Also, Vt = (1 – α) Vs; α = duty cycle
(c) 0.125 A (d) 0.25 A = (1 – 0.6) × 400
UPPCL AE 2014 = 160 V.
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I Now, P = Vt . Ia = 160 × 300 = 48 kW
Ans. (c) : Peak to peak Ripple current in a step down 10. A cycloconverter is a
chopper is (a) frequency changer (fc) from higher to lower
 D(1 − D)Vs  frequency with one-stage conversion
 ∆I L = fL ; (b) fc from higher to lower frequency with two-
 
stage conversion
D = Duty cycle
(c) fc from lower to higher frequency with one-
Vs = supply voltage stage conversion
f = frequency of switching (d) Either (a) or (c)
L = Inductor TSPSC AEE 2017
0.5(1 − 0.5) ×100 Ans. (d) : A circuit which converts input at one
∆I L =
1×103 × 200 ×10−3 frequency to output power at different frequency with
= 0.125 Amp one-stage conversion is called a cycloconverter. A
7. A DC to DC chopper operates at 48 V source cycloconverter is thus one-stage frequency changer.
with a resistive load of 24 Ohm. If the chopper Basically, cycloconverters are of two type, namely:
frequency is 250 Hz, what would be the value (i) step-down cycloconverters.
of rms current when Ton =3ms? (ii) step-up cycloconverters.

11. A dc chopper is fed from 100V dc. Its load Ans. (c) : TOFF = 4 ms
voltage consists of rectangular pulse of frequency f = 200 Hz
duration 1 msec in an overall cycle time of 3
msec, the average output voltage and ripple 1 1
Total time T = = = 5 ms
factor for this chopper are respectively. f 200
(a) 25 V, 1 (b) 50 V, 1 TON = T-TOFF = 5-4 = 1ms
(c) 33.33 V, 2 (d) 33.33 V, 1 1
TON T 
TSPSC AEE 2017 Average resistance = 
T  ∫ 2dt + ∫ 4dt 
BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015 0 TON 
Ans. (c) : Given, TON = 1 m sec 1
=  2 × 1 + 4 ( 5 − 1) 
T = Time period = 3 m sec 5
T 1 18
∴ α = duty cycle = ON = = Ω
T 3 5
Vin = 100 V dc 15. A 1φAC voltage regulator feeding a pure R-
Vout = αVin load has a load voltage of 200V RMS, when fed
1 from a source of 250 V RMS. The input power
= × 100 = 33.33 Volt
3 factor of the controller is
1 1 (a) 0.64 (b) 0.8
Ripple factor = −1 = −1 = 2 (c) 0.894 (d) 0.75
α 1/ 3
TNPSC AE 2019
12. A four quadrant chopper cannot be operated
as ESE 2001
(a) one quadrant chopper 200
Ans. (b) : Power factor cos φ = = 0.8
(b) cyclo converter 250
(c) inverter 16. A step down chopper has input voltage of 200
(d) bidirectional rectifier Volt. When the chopper is ON, the voltage drop
TNPSC AE 2018 is 2 V. If the ON time of the chopper is 50% of
ESE 2001 the cycle time, the average output voltage will
Ans. (b) : Four quadrant chopper cannot operated as be-
cyclo-converter because a chopper is a device that (a) 98 V (b) 99 V
converters fixed DC input to a variable DC output (c) 100 V (d) None of the above
voltage directly. Whereas cyclo-converter convert AC
power from one frequency to AC power at another UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
frequency. Ans. (b) : Given : TON = 50% T = 0.5 T
13. The output voltage V0 of a buck converter is Vd = 2 V, Vs = 200 V
related to the duty cycle D as Average output voltage (Vavg) = ?
(a) V0 = Vin × D2 (b) V0 =Vin × D Circuit diagram of a step down chopper shown in the
(c) V0 = Vin/D (d) V0 = Vin / D2 figure given below–
TNPSC AE 2018
Vout
Ans. (b) : Duty cycle in buck converter is =
Vin
Vout = D Vin
TON
Duty cycle D =
T Ton
14. A 3 phase wound rotor induction motor is Duty cycle (α) = T
controlled by a chopper controlled resistance in
the rotor circuit. A resistance of 2Ω is 0.5T
=
connected in rotor circuit and a resistance of T
4 Ω is additionally connected during OFF α = 0.5
periods of the chopper. The off period of the Average output voltage of a step down chopper is,
chopper is 4 ms. The average resistance in the
Vavg = (Vs – Vd)α
rotor circuit for the chopper frequency of 200
Hz is = (200 – 2)0.5
(a) 26/5 Ω (b) 24/5 Ω = 198 × 0.5
(c) 18/5 Ω (d) 16/5 Ω Vavg = 99 V
TNPSC AE 2019
17. Step down chopper shown in figure above is Ans. (b) : T = Ton + Toff = 4 ms
operating at 100 Hz in continuous mode of 1
current conduction. Its peak to peak a.c. ∴ f=
current ripple will be- T
= 1000/4
= 250 Hz
20. In a chopper circuit, the switching device is
turned off at regular intervals by adopting
(a) A combination of forced and natural
commutation
(a) 50 Amp (b) 100 Amp (b) Forced commutation
(c) 75 Amp (d) 175 Amp (c) Either forced or natural commutation
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II (d) Natural commutation
Ans. (a) : Given : Step down chopper circuit diagram– Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
Ans. (b) : In chopper circuit force commutation
required for switching off the power electronics devices.
Hence in forced commutation, SCR is turned off by
using active or passive component.
21. Load voltage in a d.c. chopper circuit is given
by
From fig. (a) d.c. supply voltage/duty cycle/d.c.
V0 = 55 V (b) Duty cycle × d.c. supply voltage
Vs = 220 V
(c) Duty cycle / d.c. supply voltage
L = 8.25 mH = 8.25 × 10–3 H
(d) 1/( duty cycle × d.c. supply voltage)
f = 100 Hz
(∆I)max = ?
Ans. (b) : In dc chopper circuit
V
α= 0 V0 = Duty cycle × d.c. supply voltage
Vs V0 = α Vs
55 Where, Vs = supply voltage
α= = 0.25
220 α = duty cycle
α(1 − α)Vs V 0 = output load voltage
Formula used : (∆I)max =
fL 22. In DC chopper the input waveform is ..........
0.25(1 − 0.25)220 and output waveform is......
(∆I)max = (a) Continuous, continuous
100 × 8.25 × 10−3 (b) Discontinuous, discontinuous
41.25 × 1000 (c) Continuous and discontinuous
=
825 (d) discontinuous and continuous
(∆I)max = 50 Amp. UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
18. A chopper can be used on: UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(a) Frequency modulation only Vizag Steel MT 2011
(b) Both PWM and FM ESE 2010
(c) Pulse-width modulation only Ans : (c) Voltage & current waveform of D.C. chopper
(d) Amplitude modulation only is shown below.
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
Ans. (b) : A chopper can be used on both PWM and
FM. PWM describe pulse width modulation, also use in
inverters.
19. In a step-down converter using pulse width
modulation, Ton = 3 × 10–3s and Toff = 1 × 10–3s.
The chopping frequency is
(a) 333 Hz (b) 250 Hz
(c) 500 Hz (d) 1000 Hz
MPPSC AE 2016
25. A chopper circuit operating from 100 V d.c.
input is shown below. The duty ratio of the
chain switch (SW) is 0.8. The load is sufficiently
inductive so that the load current is ripple. The
average current through the diode (d) under
steady state is
(a) 1.6 A (b) 6.4 A

(c) 8.0 A (d) 10 A
Ans. (c) : During the period TON Chopper is ON and
load voltage is equal to source voltage (Vs = 100 V).
During the interval TOFF, Chopper is OFF, load current
(I0) flows through diode as result load voltage is zero
during TOFF.
Average load voltage-
TON
V0 = VS = αVS {α = 0.8, Vs = 100 V}
We can see the input waveform is continuous but TON + TOFF
output waveform is discontinuous. = 0.8 × 100 = 80V
23. A chopper is used for on-off control on a dc Average load current-
separately excited motor. The chopper is fed V 80
from a dc source of 230 V and it has on-time of I0 = 0 = = 8A
10 msec and off-time of 15 msec. The motor R 10
constants are as following: 26. A step down d.c. chopper has an input voltage
V, if duty cycle is α and the load is a resistance
Armature resistance ra = 3Ω R, the rms value of output voltage is–
Voltage constant Km = 0.5V-s/rad
(a) αV (b) α V
Assume motor current is continuous. For a
speed of 1500 rpm, the average current will be αV
(c) α 2 V (d)
(a) 24.5 A (b) 4.5 A R
(c) 30.7 A (d) 50.5 A UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
DSSSB AE 2019 Ans. (b) : For step down chopper
Ans. (b) : Chopper duty cycle D is– V0(avg) = α.V
Ton Ton 10 × 10−3
D= = = = 0.4 V0(rms) = α.V
T Ton + Toff 10 × 10−3 + 15 × 10−3
For the motor armature circuit– Where, V = input voltage
V0avg = Vin D = Vt = Ea+ IaRa = Kmωm + IaRa V0 = output voltage
α = duty cycle
VinD = Kmωm + IaRa 27. A step down chopper is connected to a d.c.
2π × 1500 supply. For duty ratio of 0.4 p.u., the output
230 × 0.4 = 0.5 × + Ia × 3
60 voltage is 96 V. For the same duty ratio, the
motor load current– output voltage provided by the step up chopper
will be–
2π× 1500 (a) 180 V (b) 240 V
230 × 0.4 − 0.5 ×
Ia = 60 = 4.487A (c) 300 V (d) 400 V
3 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
Ia ≃ 4.5 A Ans. (d) : For step down chopper
V0 = α.Vin
24. FET is a good signal chopper because.
(a) It exhibits no offset voltage at zero drain 96 = 0.4 × Vin
current 96
Vin =
(b) It occupies less space in integrated form 0.4
(c) It is less noisy Vin = 240Volt
(d) It has got high input impedance Step up chopper
Vizag Steel MT 2017
V 240
Ans. (a) : It exhibits no offset voltage at zero drain Vout = in = = 400V
current. 1 − α 1 − 0.4

28. A step down chopper connected to a d.c. Ans. (d) : A cyclo-converter can change the frequency
supply, supplies a separately excited d.c. motor and voltage value. So it can used for speed control of
at a duty ratio of α. The ripple factor in the any synchronous motor.
terminal voltage of the motor assuming 32. A DC chopper is used in regenerative braking
continuous current conduction is- mode of a dc series motor. The DC supply is
α 1− α 600V, the duty cycle is 70 percent. The average
(a) (b)
1− α α value of armature current is 100A. It is
continuous and ripple free. What is the value of
1− α α power feedback to the supply?
(c) (d)
α 1− α (a) 3 kW (b) 9 kW
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (c) 18 kW (d) 35 kW
Ans. (c) : We know that- LMRC AE 2015
2
V0 rms ESE 2009
Ripple factor (R.F.) = 2
− 1 Ans. (c) : V S = 600V α = 0.7
Vavg
Vo = (1-α) Vs
∵ V0 rms = α Vin  = (1 − 0.7 ) × 600
( )
 
 V0(avg) = αVin  = 180V
P = V 0I a
2
 α Vin  1 = 180×100 = 18 kW
R.F. =   − 1 = −1
 αVin  α 33. Which type of chopper is generally used in high
power circuits where load fluctuation is not
1− α very large?
R.F. = (a) Load commutated chopper
α
(b) Chopper Type A
29. In a three-phase to single phase cycloconverter,
(c) Current commutated chopper
the number of thyristors used are –
(d) Voltage commutated chopper
(a) 4 (b) 6
CIL MT 2020
(c) 8 (d) 18
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II Ans. (d) : The process of opening or turning off a
conducting thyristor is known as commutation.
Ans. (b) : In a three-phase to single phase
Voltage commutated chopper is one of the simplest and
cycloconverter we will need 6 SCR in each set of
earliest chopper circuits. This chopper is also known as
rectifier since we have to specify the 3-φ ac voltage.
parallel capacitor turn off chopper, impulse commutated
30. Which one pair out of following alternatives is chopper or classical chopper. This chopper can not
not correctly matched related to d.c. motor work on no load.
drive?
34. A chopper, in which current remains positive
(a) Half controlled – one quadrant - operation
but voltage may be positive or negative, is
bridge converter known as :
(b) Fully controlled – two quadrant - operation (a) Chopper Type C (b) Chopper Type D
bridge converter (c) Chopper Type A (d) Chopper Type E
(c) Dual converter – four quadrant - operation CIL MT 2020
(d) Step up chopper – two quadrant - operation UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (b) : A chopper in which current remains positive
Ans. (d) : The step up chopper is a dc - dc converter but voltage may be positive or negative is know as D
and it is not used in two quadrant-operation. While half type chopper. A type D chopper work as a two quadrant
wave rectifier can be used one quadrant-operation. Full (I and IV)
wave rectifier can use two quadrant and dual converter
can be used in four quadrant-operation.
31. For speed control of low speed high capacity
synchronous motor, the power electronic
circuit used is–
(a) A.C. voltage controller
(b) Current fed inverter
(c) Voltage fed inverter
(d) Cyclo-converter
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II Quadrant type B or D chopper circuit.
35. Input power factor of a cycloconverter is Ans. (a) In a DC chopper, fed from constant voltage
(a) high (b) always unity mains.
(c) low (d) leading V (1 − D)D
PTCUL AE 2012 Ripple current = S
FL
Ans. (c) : A cycloconverter can supply lagging, leading
or unity power factor loads while its input is always By the differentiation respect to D.
lagging. Hence input power factor of a cycloconverter is at D = 0.5, Ripple current increase to maximum value at
low. D = 0.5 and then decrease.
36. In dc choppers if Ton is the ON period and f is 39. A step up chopper has an input voltage of 5V
the chopping frequency, then output voltage in and the average output voltage of 20V. The
terms of input voltage VS is given by.......... duty cycle is
(a) VS Ton / f (b) VS Ton f (a) 3/2 (b) 2/3
(c) VSf / Ton (d) VS /(Ton f ) (c) 3/4 (d) 15/2
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Ans : (c) Given Data,
Ans. (b) :
(Supply voltage) Vs = 5V
V0 Ton  1 (Output voltage)V0= 20V
=  Where,f = 
VS T  t VS
T Formula, V0 =
V0 = VS on 1− α
T
5 3
V0 = VS Ton f 20 = ⇒ α=
1− α 4
37. Expression of average output voltage (V0) of a
step up chopper in terms of applied input dc 40. A chopper circuit is operating on TRC
voltage V1 and duty cycle α is : principle at a frequency of 2kHz on 230 V
V Vi supply. If the load voltage is 184V, the on time
(a) i (b) (Ton) and off time (Toff) of chopper are
α 1+ α
respectively:-
Vi
(c) (d) αVi (a) Ton = 0.3 msec, Toff = 0.2 msec
1– α (b) Ton = 0.38 msec, Toff = 0.12 msec
(c) Ton = 0.2 msec, Toff = 0.3 msec
Ans. (c) : Step up Chopper–In this chopper average
(d) Ton = 0.4 msec, Toff = 0.1 msec
output voltage Vo is more than the input D.C. voltage
V i. UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
Ans. (d) : Given that,
V0 = 184 Vs = 230 V, f = 2 kHz
V0 T  1 1 
Ton = ∵ T = = = 0.5 m.sec 
Vi Vs  f 2 
184 × 0.5
Ton = = 0.4 msec
230
Toff = T − Ton = 0.5 − 0.4 = 0.1msec
Vi
Average load voltage Vo = α : – Duty cycle Thus, Ton = 0.4 msec, Toff = 0.1 msec .
1− α
41. A step up copper has Vs as the source voltage
TON TON and α as the duty cycle. The output voltage for
α= =
T TON + TOFF this chopper is given by
38. A DC chopper is fed from constant voltage (a) Vs(1 + α) (b) Vs/(1 – α)
mains. The duty ratio α of the chopper is (c) Vs(1 – α) (d) Vs/(1 + α)
progressively increased while the chopper feeds UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
RL load. The per unit current ripple would: UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
(a) Increase to a maximum value at α = 0.5 and Ans. (b) : Step-up Chopper
then decrease.
(b) Increase progressively
(c) Decrease to a minimum value at α = 0.5 and
than increase
(d) Decrease progressively
UPPCL AE 2015
ESE 1998
Ans. (c) : In step down chopper,
T
duty cycle = α = ON V0 = 150 V, Vs = 230 V
T
and average load voltage V0 = αVs
V
α= 0
Vs
150
=
230
1 1
also, T = =
f 400Hz
150 1
⇒ TON = αT = × = 1.63m sec
230 400
44. A chopper is used to control the illumination of
a lamp having 20 Ohm resistance. The d.c.
supply voltage is 120V. If power dissipated in
From figure during Ton energy stored in inductor is– the lamp is 180W, what is the value of duty
I +I  cycle of the chopper?
Win = Vs  1 2  Ton
 2  (a) 60% (b) 40%
During Toff energy released by inductor is– (c) 70% (d) 50%
I +I 
Wout = ( V0 − Vs )  1 2  ⋅ Toff Ans. (d) : P = VIo
 2 
180 18
Consider system to be lossless Io = =
Win = Wout 120 12
For stepdown chopper with resistive load-
I +I  I +I 
Vs  1 2  Ton = ( V0 − Vs )  1 2  Toff V0 = DVs
 2   2 
VsTon = V0Toff – VsToff I0 R = DVs
Vs (Ton + Toff) = V0Toff 180
Vs T × 20 = D ×120
V0 = {∵ Toff = T − Ton } 120
T − Ton 3600
D=
Vs 120 ×120
V0 = 60 1
T D= =
1 − on
T 120 2
= 0.5
Vs  Ton  = 50%
V0 = ∵ α = 
1− α  T  45. The amount of copper that would be required
42. A type of chopper has a source voltage V, load for a three-phase system for transmitting the
resistance R, and duty cycle α. For this same amount of power over a fixed distance
chopper, the rms value of the output voltage with a fixed line loss when compared to single
may be:- phase system will be
(a) αV (b) V/α (a) One-third (b) Three-fourth
(c) Half (d) One-fourth
(c) V / 1− α (d) (1 − α ) .V
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II Ans. (b) : The amount of copper that would be required
Ans. (c) : A type of chopper has a source voltage V, for a three-phase system for transmitting the same
load resistance R and duty cycle α then the rms value of amount of power over a fixed distance with a fixed line
the output voltage = V / 1− α . loss when compared to single phase system will be
three-fourth.
43. A DC chopper operates on 230 V dc and 46. A chopper circuit is operating on time ratio
frequency of 400 Hz, feeds an R-L load. If the control principal at a frequency of 2kHz on a
output voltage of chopper is 150 V, the ON time 220 V dc supply. If the load voltage is 170 V the
of the chopper is conduction period is _______.
(a) 3.84 msec (b) 2.5 msec (a) 0.5 ms (b) 0.386 ms
(c) 1.63 msec (d) 0.65 msec
(c) 0.114 ms (d) 2 ms
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
Ans. (b) : Given, f = 2 kHz, Vs = 220 V, V0 = 170 V Ans. (a) :
V 170 17
α= 0 = =
Vs 220 22
1 1
T= = = 0.5msec.
f 2kHz
Duty cycle
TON
α=
T
TON = α.T
17
= × 0.5 ×10−3
22 Chopper is a basically static power electronics device
TON = 0.386 ms which converts fixed DC voltage to variable DC
voltage. It is nothing but a high speed switch which
47. The effect of source inductance on the output connects and disconnects the load from source at a high
voltage of a 3-phase AC-DC converter is rate to get variable voltage at the output.
(a) Increase in the output voltage
49. A step down and motoring cycle mode chopper
(b) Decrease in the output voltage
has input voltage of 220 V and per unit
(c) No change in the output voltage
conduction time is 0.6. The output voltage of
(d) None of the above
the chopper is
(a) 88 V (b) 550 V
Punjab PSC SDE 2017
PTCUL AE 2012 (c) 366.7 V (d) 132 V
Ans. (b) : The effect of source inductance on the output UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
voltage of a 3-phase AC-DC converter is decrease in the Ans. (d) : Given, Vin = 220V, α = 0.6
output voltage.
For step down chopper output voltage is–
V0 = αVin
= 0.6 × 220
V = 132.0 V
50. In D.C. chopper per unit rippled maximum
when duty cycle α is
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.7 (d) 0.9
Ans. (b) : In D.C. chopper per unit rippled maximum
when duty cycle α is 0.5.
51. A step up chopper is required to deliver load
voltage of 660 V from a 220 V DC source, if the
non-conduction time of the thyristor is 100 µs,
the required pulse width is
(a) 200 µs (b) 300 µs
(c) 400 µs (d) 100 µs
ESE 1999
Ans. (a) : Given, Toff = 100 µs, Vdc = 220 V, V0 = 660 V
The effect of source inductance L is to reduce the For step up chopper output voltage–
average dc output voltage. V
48. A chopper circuit converts V0 = dc
1− D
(a) DC to DC (b) DC to AC
(c) AC to AC (d) AC to DC 220
660 =
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (1 − D)

1 55. What is a chopper?
1− D = (a) It is a switching device that converts fixed
3
AC input to a variable DC output voltage
2 directly
D=
3 (b) It is a switching device that converts fixed
Ton 2 DC input to a variable DC output voltage
D= = directly
T 3
(c) It is a switching device that converts fixed
Ton 2 DC input to a variable AC output voltage
=
Ton + Toff 3 directly
3Ton = 2Ton + 2Toff (d) It is a switching device that converts fixed
Ton = 2Toff AC input to a variable AC output voltage
directly
Ton = 2 × 100
GESCOM AE 2011
Ton = 200 µs Ans. (b) : A chopper is a high speed on/off
52. Duty cycle in a chopper circuit with switching semiconductor switch. Chopper is a static device that
frequency 100 Hz and TON time as 2 ms, is converters fixed dc, input voltage to a variable dc output
voltage directly. For medium power application we uses
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.4
IGBT and GTO, in chopper.
(c) 0.8 (d) None of these
56. For a dc-dc boost converter circuit, the order
of connection of components L, C, D,
Ans. (a) : Given, Ton = 2ms, f = 100Hz MOSFET- switch in between supply and load
Duty cycle– from left to right is :
T  1 (a) L-series, Switch-series, C-parallel, D-parallel
α = on = f Ton ∵ f =  (b) Switch-series, L-series, C-parallel, D-parallel
T  T
(c) L-series, Switch-parallel, D-series, C-parallel
α = 100 × 2 × 10–3
(d) Switch-series, L-parallel, C-parallel, D-series
α = 0.2 APTRANSCO AE 2019
53. A boost chopper chops 5 V DC voltage to Ans. (c) : For a dc-dc boost converter circuit, the order
produce an average output of 30 V. The duty of connection of components L, C, D, MOSFET- switch
ratio is: in between supply and load from left to right is-
5 3
(a) (b)
6 6
18 1
(c) (d)
3 6
LMRC AM 2020
V 5 So, the order of connection is :
Ans. (a) : Duty ratio D = 1 − in = 1 − L-series, Switch-parallel, D-series, C-parallel
Vout 30
57. In a dc-dc buck converter when the rate of
25 5 change of current in the 400 µH inductor, L is
= =
30 6 7.5 × 104 A/sec. If the converter is operated
54. Which commutation method is faster with a 50 V input voltage, the output voltage of
(a) voltage commutation the converter is :
(b) current commutation (a) 15 V (b) 20 V
(c) load commutation (c) 25 V (d) 30 V
(d) none of above APTRANSCO AE 2019
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 Ans. (b) :
PTCUL AE 2012  di  V (1 − α )
Rate of change of current   = s
Ans. (a) : The process of opening or turning off, of a  dt  L
conducting thyristor is known as commutation. The
50 (1 − α )
commutation circuit can be divided into two categories– 7.5 × 104 =
(1) Forced commutation 400 × 10−6
(a) Voltage commutation 3 2
1− α = ⇒ α =
(b) Current commutation 5 5
(2) Load commutation. 2
Vo = αVs = × 50 = 20V
Voltage commutation is faster. 5
58. Which chopper circuit uses saturable reactor? 62. In a boost chopper circuit if Vs, V0, L are input
(a) Morgan chopper (b) Auxiliary commutated voltage, output voltage and inductance,
(c) Jones chopper (d) Load commutated respectively, and when the conducting switch is
KPSC AE 2014 opened, the rate of change of inductive current
Ans. (a) : A saturable reactor is a special form of is :
conductor where the magnetic core can be deliberately V V
saturated by a direct current Morgan Chopper. (a) s (b) 0
L L
59. Which of the following devices convert fixed Vs − V0 Vs + V0
DC to variable DC? (c) (d)
(a) cyclo converter L L
(b) phase controlled rectifier APTRANSCO AE 2017
(c) chopper Ans. (c) :
(d) voltage source inverter
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
Ans. (c) : A chopper is a high speed ON/OFF
semiconductor switch. Chopper is a static device that
converts fixed dc input voltage to a variable dc output
voltage directly.
60. A buck converter has an input current of 2.4A
while required output current is 6A. What will
be the duty cycle of the converter? [Assume Boost converter,
lossless system]
When, the switch is opened and applying KVL to the
(a) 0.4 (b) 1.0
di
(c) 0.8 (d) 2.0 circuit → Vs = L + Vo
DMRC AM 2020 dt
Ans. (a) : Given that, di di V − Vo
L = Vs − Vo ⇒ = s
Input current Ii/p = 2.4 A dt dt L
Required output current Io/p = 6 A 63. ADC Chopper is a static device that converts
Then, duty cycle, fixed ________ input voltage to a variable
I 2.4 ______ output voltage.
Duty cycle = i / p = (a) DC, AC (b) AC, DC
Io / p 6
(c) AC, AC (d) DC, DC
Duty cycle = 0.4 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
61. Select the correct relation [D = Duty cycle]. Ans. (d) : A DC Chopper is a DC to DC Convertor in
V 1 which the fixed DC is feeded and a variable DC output
(a) Boost converter: out = can be obtained.
Vin 1– D
Thus, a copper is a device that converts fixed DC input
V to a variable DC output voltage directly.
(b) Buck converter: out = 1 – D
Vin 64. A buck DC-to-DC converter is applied with a
Vout voltage of 100 V and supplies a resistive load of
(c) Boost converter: =D 50 Ω. During ON state, it has a voltage drop of
Vin
2 V. The chopping frequency is 1 KHz and duty
Vout ratio is 50%. Average and rms output voltages
(d) Buck-boost converter: =D respectively are:
Vin
DMRC AM 2020 (a) 98 V and 69.4 V (b) 24.5 V and 89.4 V
(c) 49 V and 89.2 V (d) 49 V and 69.4 V
Ans. (a) : For boost converter,
LMRC AM 2018
V0 1 Ans. (d) : Given that,
=
Vi (1 – D ) Duty ratio (d) = 50% = 0.5
Vi Applied voltage (Vi) = 100V
V0 = Drop voltage (Vc) = 2V
(1 – D )
In buck converter,
Where,
∵ Vin = Vi – Vc
Vi = input voltage
Vin = 100 – 2 = 98 V
V0 = Output voltage
The above expression clearly identifies that the output Vavg = DVin
voltage in a boost converter will be always higher than
the input supply voltage across the entire range of the Vavg = 0.5 × Vin
duty cycle, 0 to 1. So, option (a) is correct. Vavg = 0.5 × 98V

Vavg = 49V 67.
A voltage-commutated chopper has the
following parameters: Vs = 220 V, R = 0.5 Ω ,
Vrms = D Vin L=2mH, E=40. Commutation circuit
= 0.5 × 98 parameters are: L = 20 µH, C = 50 µF, TON =
= 69.29 V 800 µs, T = 2 ms. Find effective ON period for a
constant load current of 80 A.
Vrms ≅ 69.4V (a) 1.375 ms (b) 1.275 ms
65. A 230 V dc step down chopper is driving a load (c) 1.075 ms (d) 0.875 ms
resistance of 10 Ω . It has a voltage drop of 2 V (e) 1.475 ms
across chopper when it is on. Find the r.m.s. CGPSC AE 2017
Value of output voltage for a duty cycle of 0.4. Ans. (c) :
(a) 0.4 × 228 V (b) 0.4 × 230V
(c) 0.2 × 228 V (d) 0.4 × 228V
(e) 0.2 × 230 V
CGPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : The voltage drop across the switch will
occurs only when it is on.
Formula used- V0( rms ) = D ( Vs − Vd )
Given Vs = 220 V, Vd = 2V, D = 0.4 Voltage commutated chopper circuit
Vs = 220 V E = 40 V
V0 (rms) = 0.4 × ( 230 − 2 )
R = 0.5 Ω L = 2mH
= 0.4 × ( 228 ) L = 20 µH C = 50µF
66. A voltage-commutated chopper has the T ON = 800 µs(turn on time of main thyristor)
following parameters: Vs = 220 V, R = 0.5 Ω , L T = 2 µ s (Total time of chopper)
= 2mH, E = 40 V. Commutation circuit
parameters: L = 20 µH and C = 50 µF, TON =
800 µs, T = 2 ms. Find peak currents through
main thyristor for a constant load current of
80A. TOFF = ?, I0 = 80
(a) 80 + 220 2.5A (b) 220 2.5A For voltage commutated chopper there are four modes
(c) 80 A (d) 300 A of operation main thyristor is ON up to 2 mode In 3rd
(e) 480 A mode the polarity of capacitor is reversed & capacitor
CGPSC AE 2017 voltage changes.
Ans. (a) : Voltage commutated copper operates in 4 From -Vs tord + Vs Linearly.
mode In mode 1 and 2 thyristor is on. In mode 1, Thus for 3 mode
current through thyristor is from two sources i.e. from ∂v C  Vs − ( − Vs ) 
supply voltage V & charged capacitance supply voltage I 0 = C =
∂t tc
Vs, current in thyristor = I0 = load current.
From capacitor, current in thyristor is given I' 2V × C 2 × 220 × 50 ×10−6
Tc = s = = 275 µs
So Ipeak = I0 + I' I0 80
The current from capacitor goes through thyristor.
In 4th mode the whole current I0 flows into free
1 1
= CV = L(I ') [∵energy stored in capacitor is wheeling diode as T1, TA & D are open thus V0 = 0
2 2
2 2 So, TOFF = TON +TC

discharged to inductor]
= 800+275 µS
2 C
( )
2
I ' = V = 1075 µs = 1.075 ms
L
68. A step-up chopper has input voltage of 220 V
50 and output voltage of 660 V. If the conducting
I' = V C / L = 220
20 time of thyristor chopper is 100µs, find the
= 220 2.5 pulse width of output voltage.
∴ Ipeak = I0 + I' (a) 200 µs (b) 20 µs
∵ I0 = 80A (given) (c) 150 µ s (d) 50 µs
(e) 100 µs
Ipeak = (80 + 220 2.5)A
CGPSC AE 2017
Ans. (c) : Ton = 100 µs 71. A step down chopper operates from a DC
For step up Chopper:- voltage source Vs and feeds a DC motor
Vs armature with counter emf Eb. From
V0 = oscilloscope traces it is found that current
1− D
220 increases for time tr, falls to zero over a time tf
660 = and remains zero for a time to in every
1− D
220 chopping cycle. Then the average voltage
= (1 − D ) = across the motor would be-
660
1 Vs t r Vs t r + E b t f
D = 1− (a) (b)
3 Where, D→ Duty cycle tr + tf + to t r + tf + to
Ton V t + Ebto Vs t r + E b ( t f + t o )
D =2/3 = (c) s r (d)
T t r + tf + to tr + tf + to
2T
Ton = ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019
3
2T 100 × 3 Ans. (c) :
100 = , T= = 150µs
3 2
Toff = T − Ton
= 150-100 = 50 µs
69. The output ripple voltage in a buck dc-dc
converter is calculated using which expression?
∆V0 1 + D ∆V0 1− D
(a) = (b) =
V0 8LCf V0 8LCf 2
∆V0 1 − D ∆V0 1+ D
(c) = (d) =
V0 8LCf V0 8LCf 2 Vs t r + E b t 0
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I Vav =
t r + tf + t0
Ans : (b) As we know that -
Ripple in output voltage of buck converter 72. A step down chopper operates from a DC
D(1 − D)Vs voltage source Vs = 400 V and feeds a DC
( ∆ V 0) = -------------- (i) motor armature with a back emf Eb = 300 V.
8f 2 LC
Output voltage of buck converter From the oscilloscope traces it is found that the
V0 = DVs ------------ (ii) current rises for a time tr = 10 m sec and falls
by equation (i) and (ii) to zero over time tf = 5 m sec and remains zero
∆V0 D (1 − D ) Vs for a time of t0 = 6 m sec in every chopping
= cycle. Then, average DC voltage across the
V0 8f 2 LC
DVs freewheeling diode will be–
(a) 276 V (b) 257 V
∆V0 1 − D
= 2 (c) 262 V (d) 300 V
V0 8f LC
70. A buck–boost converter with continuous
inductor current is operated with a duty cycle Ans. (a) :
of 0.4. If the input voltage is 50V(DC), the Given that:
output voltage is
(a) 33.33V (b) 16.66V Vs = 400 V, Eb = 300 V, tr = 10 ms, tf = 5 ms, t0 = 6 ms
(c) 93.33V (d) 66.66V The average DC voltage across the free wheeling diode
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II is given by:
Ans. (a): Buck-boost converter of output V t + Eb t0
αVs VDC,avg = S r
voltage = tr + tf + t0
1− δ
Here, α = Duty cycle = 0.4 So,
Vs = Input voltage = 50 volt 400 ×10 ×10−3 + 300 × 6 ×10−3
0.4 × 50 20 VDC,avg = = 276.19 V
V0 = = 10 ×10−3 + 5 ×10−3 + 6 ×10−3
1 − 0.4 0.6
Vout = 33.33 volt VDC,avg ≃ 276 V

73. A 230 V DC step-down chopper is driving a 1− D
load resistance of 10 Ω . It has a voltage drop of Ripple factor (R-F) = =
2 V across chopper when it is on. Find the D
average output voltage for a duty cycle of 0.4. 1 − 1/ 3
=
(a) 81.2 V (b) 91.2 V 1/ 3
(c) 51.2 V (d) 61.2 V
2
(e) 71.2 V
CGPSC AE 2017 3
= 1 = 2 = 1.414 =1.4
Ans. (b) : The voltage drop across the switch occurs
3
only when it is ON.
≃ 1.5
For step down chopper-
76. If chopper frequency is 1 kHz and on time is
output voltage (V0) = ( Vs − Vd ) D
0.5 m sec., the duty cycle is
Given, Vs = 230 V (a) 0.6 (b) 0.5
D = 0.4 (c) 0.8 (d) None of the above
Vd = 2V Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
V0 = (230 - 2) × 0.4 Ans. (b) : f = 1kHz
= 228 × 0.4 time = 0.5 ms (P.W.) → Pulse width (Active time )
V0 = 91.2 V 1 1
Time period (T) = = = 0.001s
74. A diode which is to be used in a chopper has f 1kHz
switching specifications as di/dt = 20A/µs and PW 0.5ms
reverse recovery time trr = 5µs. Expected peak Dutycycle (d) = = = 0.5
reverse current is T 1ms
(a) 70.71A (b) 44.72A
(c) 141.42 (d) 100A (v) Inverters
UPPCL AE 2014
1. In buck boost converter, what is the maximum
1 di 2 20 –12 value of switch utilization factor?
Ans. (d) : Q R = t rr = 0.5 × –6 × 25 ×10
2 dt 10 (a) 1 (b) 0.75
½ (c) 0.5 (d) 0.25
  di  
I RM =  2Q R    Q R = 250 × 10 –6 LMRC AE 2015
  dt   ESE 2004
1
½ αVs
 2 × Q × 20   2 × 250 × 10−6  2 Ans. (b) : V0 = (Buck-Boost converter)
=  =   1− α
 10 –6   10−6  V0 α
= 100Amp =
Vs 1 − α
75. A dc chopper is fed from 200 V dc. Output
voltage is rectangular pulses with Ton= 1 ms In buck boost convertor, max value of switch utilization
and T = 3 ms. The average output voltage and 3
factor =
ripple factor for this chopper are 4
(a) 66.66 V, 1 (b) 50 V, 1 = 0.75
(c) 66.66V, 1.5. (d) None of the above 2. Harmonics in three-phase inverters may be
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I reduced with the help of:
(a) both passive and active filters
TON
Ans. (c) : Duty cycle (d) = (b) passive filters
T (c) active filters
1ms (d) Neither passive nor active filters
=
3ms APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
1 Ans. (a) : Harmonics can be eliminated by using filter it
=
3 may include active or passive kind of filter.
 TON  3. The following distortion readings are available
Vav = V   for a power amplifier. D2 = 0.2, D3 = 0.02 and
T
 ON + TOFF  vDl = 0.06. The Total Harmonic Distortion
1 (THD) is–
Vav = 200   (a) 30.97% (b) 20.97%
3
(c) 15.67% (d) 13.29%
Vav = 66.66V ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015
Ans. (b) : 7.The operation of ac motors fed from current
Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) is given as: source inverters is characterized by
(
%THD = (D 2 )2 + (D3 )2 + (vD1 ) 2 × 100) (a) sinusoidal line voltage
(b) peak armature voltage
Here, D2 = 0.2, D3 = 0.02 and vD1 = 0.06. Therefore, (c) good harmonic torques
(
%THD = (0.2)2 + (0.02)2 + (0.06)2 ×100 ) (d) sinusoidal armature voltage with spikes
TANGEDCO AE 2018
( )
= 0.04 + 0.0004 + 0.0036 ×100 = 0.044 ×100 Ans. (d) : The operation of ac motors fed from current
source inverter is characterized by sinusoidal armature
= 20.97%
voltage with spikes.
4. Which of the following statements is /are
8. A single phase source inverter is feeding a
correct in connection with inverters?
(a) Only VSI requires feedback diodes purely inductive load as shown in the figure.
(b) GTO's can be used in feedback diodes The inverter is operated at 50 Hz in 180°
square wave mode. Assume that the load
(c) Only CSI requires feedback diodes
current does not have any dc component. The
(d) VSI and CSI both require feedback diodes
peak value of the inductor current i0 will be
UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (a) Voltage source inverter requires feedback
diode, allow to flow current, when main thyristor turn
off, improve the power factor of inverter
5. In an uniform PWM (multi pulse width)
inverter, if P is the number of pulse per half
cycle and δ is the duration of each pulse, then
the rms output voltage equal to:
(a) 6.37 A (b) 10 A
Pδ π (c) 20 A (d) 40 A
(a) Vrms = V (b) Vrms = V
π Pδ TANGEDCO AE 2018
δ π Ans. (b) : V = 200 V
(c) Vrms = PV (d) Vrms = PV
π δ L = 0.1 H
Ans. (a) : In multi pulse width modulation
P×δ
Vrms = V
π
6. In single pulse modulation of PWM inverters,
third harmonic can be eliminated if pulse width
is equal to
di
(a) 180º (b) 120º V =L
(c) 60º (d) 30º dt
TSPSC AEE 2017
200 =
(
0.1 Ip − ( − Ip ) )
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II 10 × 10 −3
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II I0 = 10 A
9. In which of the following devices sinusoidal of
controllable magnitude and frequency is
Ans. (b) : In single pulse modulation
produced?
 ∞
4Vs nπ  (a) Dc-dc conversion
 V0 =

∑
n =1,3,5 nπ
sin
2
sin nωt 
 (b) Ac-dc rectification
π (c) Dc-ac inversion
If nd = π or d = , then nth harmonic is eliminated (d) Ac-ac cycloconversion
n
from the inverter output voltage. UPRVUNL AE 2014
For example, for eliminating 3rd harmonics, pulse width Ans. (c) In DC–AC inversion sinusoidal of controllable
2π magnitude and frequency is produced. It is used in
2d must be equal to = 120º
3 inverter
10. The operation of an inverter fed induction Ans. (a) : 3-φ voltage source inverter, output voltage
motor can be shifted from motoring to free from 3rd harmonic because the line voltage is the
regenerative braking by : difference of two phase voltage, the 3rd harmonic gets
(a) Reversing phase sequence cancelled out
(b) Reducing inverter voltage
4Vs  π
(c) Decreasing inverter frequency ( VAB )n = sin  ωt + 
(d) Increasing inverter frequency nπ  6
TNPSC AE 2018 14. A single phase full bridge inverter uses a
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 uniform pulse width modulation with five
ESE 2002 pulses per half cycle. If the rms output voltage
Ans. (c) : The operation of an inverter fed induction 1
motor can be shifted from motoring to regenerating is times of the dc input voltage, the pulse
2
braking by decreasing inverter frequency.
width will be-
11. A single phase inverter has square wave output
voltage. What is the percentage of the 5th (a) 18º (b) 15º
harmonic component is relation to the (c) 10º (d) 36º
fundamental component? UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
(a) 40% (b) 30% 1
(c) 20% (d) 10% Ans. (a) : Given that : Vr.m.s = Vs , pulse width (α)=?
2
TNPSC AE 2018
Np = 5
ESE 2004
∞
For single phase full bridge inverter single pulse
4Vs
Ans. (c) : V0 = ∑
n =1,3,5 nπ
sin ωt modulation output voltage
2d
For fundamental component (V0)r.m.s = Vs
π
4Vs
V1 = 1 2d
π× 2 Vs = Vs
For 5th harmonic component 2 π
4Vs 1 2d
V5 = =
5π 2 2 π
V 1 π
% = 5 = × 100 2d =
V1 5 2
= 20% 2d = 90°
12. To convert a VSI (Voltage Source Inverter) 2d
into a CSI (Current Source Inverter) insert a α=
Np
large
(a) Inductor in series with DC supply 90°
α=
(b) Capacitor in parallel with DC supply 5
(c) Inductor in parallel with DC supply α = 18°
(d) Capacitor in series with DC supply
TNPSC AE 2018 15. A current source inverter is normally employed
Ans. (a) : To convert a VSI (voltage source inverter) (a) if the source inductance is small
into a CSI (current source inverter) insert a large (b) on any source irrespective of its impedance
inductor in series with DC supply. Large inductor (c) if the source inductance is large
maintain to not change of current hence produce (d) if the load is pure inductive load
constant current. UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
13. In a three phase voltage source inverter
Ans. (c) : In CSI the amplitude of the output current is
operating in square wave mode, the output
independent on the load impedance, as input current is
voltage will be free from
(a) 3rd harmonic (b) 7th harmonic kept constant. For this purpose in the circuit, the current
th
(c) 11 harmonic (d) 13th harmonic source consists of a d.c voltage source 'V' with a large
inductance 'L' in series with it. The high impedance
TNPSC AE 2018
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 reactor is connected in series with voltage source to
ESE 2006 maintain a constant current at the input terminal of CSI.

16. The motor not suitable for traction service is Ans. (b) : The frequency of ac voltage in a single-phase
(a) current source inverter fed squirrel cage pulse width modulated (PWM) converter is regulated by
induction motor varying the frequency of the sine wave applied to the
(b) slip ring induction motor with chopper based converter.
rotor resistance control 20. An inverter converts–
(c) PWM voltage source inverter fed squirrel (a) d.c. voltage ot variable d.c. voltage
cage induction motor (b) a.c. voltage to d.c. voltage
(d) load commutated inverter fed synchronous (c) d.c. voltage to a.c. voltage of constant
motor frequency
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I (d) d.c. voltage to a.c. voltage of variable
Ans. (c) : CSI fed Squirrel cage induction motor frequency
drive are not suitable for parallel operation. They are APTRANSCO AE 2011
connected in series. Ans. (d) : An inverter converts dc voltage to ac voltage
Slip ring induction motor with chopper based rotor of variable frequency.
resistance are used in traction. 21. A single phase voltage source inverter is
The PWM VSI squirrel cage induction motor drive controlled in a single pulse-width modulated
is dc link from ac source through the transformer mode with a pulse width of 150o in each half
and diode rectifier. So this is not used regenerative cycle. Total harmonic distortion is defined at
braking. 2
Vrms − V12
The load commutated inverter fed synchronous THD = ×100 Where V1 is the rms
V1
motor are used high power drive like, steel rolling
mills, main line traction. value of the fundamental component of the
output voltage. The THD of output AC voltage
17. What type of load should be used in a single- waveform is:
phase full bridge inverter so that it can operate (a) 66.65% (b) 30.49%
in load communication mode? (c) 48.42% (d) 31.8%
(a) RLC overdamped (b) RC DSSSB AE 2019
(c) RLC underdamped (d) RL Ans. (d) : Given, Total pulse width (2d) = 150°
CIL MT 2020 d= 75°
OMC Deputy manager 2019 2d 5
Vrms = V = Vs = 0.913Vs
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 π 6
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II 4 Vs
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II V1 = sin 75o = 0.87 Vs
π 2
PITCUL AE 2012
2
Ans : (c) Forced communication is required Vrms + V12
THD = × 100
underdamped because to turn off switches S1, S2 and V12
T/2 anode current should comes to zero, due to load it is
( 0.913Vs ) − ( 0.87 Vs )
2 2
not possible, current becomes zero after voltages
becomes Zero. Load communication occurs When (XL THD = ×100
( 0.87 Vs )
2
> XC), Under damped Response
= 0.318 × 100
R C
( ξ > 1) ⇒ ξ = THD = 31.8%
2 L
18. In a 3phase bridge inverter operating in VSI 22. In sinusoidal pulse modulation used in PWM
mode, the phase and line voltage are out of inverter, amplitude and frequency for
phase by: triangular carrier and sinusoidal reference
signals are 10 V, 2 KHz and 2 V, 100 Hz. If
(a) 30 degrees (b) 120 degrees peak of triangular carrier and reference
(c) 45 degrees (d) 90 degrees sinusoidal coincide the modulation index and
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 pulse width is:
Ans. (b) : In a 3-φ bridge inverter operating in VSI (a) 0.2, 28.8o (b) 0.4, 14.4o
o
mode the phase voltage and line voltage are 120o out of (c) 0.2, 14.4 (d) 0.4, 28.8o
phase. DSSSB AE 2019
19. The frequency of ac voltage in a single phase mR 2
PWM converter is regulated by Ans. (c) : Modulation index = =
mT 10
(a) increasing the amplitude of sine wave
= 0.2
(b) varying the frequency of sine wave
pulse width = 2α
(c) varying the frequency of triangular wave
(d) amplitude of the triangular wave α = 7.2o
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 pulse width = 2α = 14.4o

23. Consider following statements related to a Ans. (b) : In 1800 conduction mode, the r.m.s. value of
current fed inverter : fundamental line to line output voltage is-
1. Capacity to recover from occasional
6
commutation failure. V1(L−L) = Vs
π
2. Noisy operation
3. Capability of four quadrant operation V1(L − L) = 0.7797Vs
4. Simple control and firing circuits.
27. A voltage-source inverter in normally
5. Reverse voltage with standing capability employed when
Out of these statements : (a) Source inductance is large and load
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct inductance is small
(b) 2, 4 and 5 are correct (b) Source inductance is small and load
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct inductance is large
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct (c) Both inductances are large
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (d) Both inductances are small
Ans. (c) : A current fed inverter or current connected GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
inverter has better performance than a voltage source RPSC VPITI 2016
inverter. A CSI (current source inverter) has a capacity KPSC AE 2014
to recover from occasional commutation failure. And it ESE 2012
has four quadrant operation. Controlling of this inverter ESE 1998
is simple. Ans. (b) : A voltage source inverter is useful when
24. The PWM technique that provides superior source inductance is low while load have high
performance characteristics in reducing inductance.
harmonics in three phase voltage source A voltage source inverter is mainly used to convert a
inverter is – constant DC voltage into an AC voltage with variable
(a) space vector PWM magnitude and frequency.
(b) sinusoidal PWM 28. For elimination of 5th harmonic from the
output of an inverter, what will be the position
(c) selected harmonics elimination PWM
of pulse in a PWM inverter?
(d) minimum ripple current PWM
(a) 72 degree (b) 36 degree
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (c) 60 degree (d) 90 degree
Ans. (a) : Space vector PWM technique provides LMRC AE 2015
superior performance characteristic in reducing ESE 2008
harmonic in three phase voltage source inverter space Ans. (a) : For elimination of 5th harmonic
vector PWM (SVPWM) is the final step to field
cos nθ = 0
oriented control of 3-φ inverter.
5d = 0, π, 2π
25. In a plane single phase inverter – d = 0, π/5, 2π/5
(a) The maximum output frequency is less than Pulse width = 2d
frequency of damped oscillation.
(b) The output frequency can be even higher than = 2π/5 = 720
the frequency of damped oscillation. 29. Which of the following is the function of
(c) The output frequency is equal to the feedback diodes in McMurray inverter?
frequency of damped oscillation. (a) To freewheel the load current
(d) All of the above (b) To provide the path for the excess of
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II commutation current above the load current
(c) To provide required reverse bias across the
Ans. (a) : In a plane single phase inverter the maximum
outgoing thyristor
output frequency is less than the frequency of damped
(d) To provide the return path for the reactive
oscillation and to reduce the damping at output.
current of load
26. A three phase bridge inverter operating in 180° CIL MT 2020
mode of operation supplies a three phase pure
Ans. (a) : The function of feedback diodes in
Y-connected resistive load. The r.m.s. value of McMurray inverter to freewheel the load current.
fundamental line to line output voltage is– Feedback diodes are used to provide discharging paths
(a) 0.4714 Vs (b) 0.7797 Vs of inductors.
(c) 0.8165 Vs (d) Vs Diode provides reverse lines voltage for thyristor and
where Vs is input d.c. supply voltage return path for excess reactive current i.e. inductor
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II current.

30. A PWM switching scheme is used in single 34. What is the condition to be satisfied (for under
phase inverters to : damping) in the selection of L and C in a series
(a) Reduce the higher order harmonics inverter?
(b) Minimize the effect of load
2L 4L
(c) Reduce the lower order harmonics (a) R 2 < (b) R 2 >
C C
(d) Reduce the total harmonic distortion
CIL MT 2020 4L 4L
(c) R 2 = (d) R 2 <
Ans. (c) : A PWM switching scheme is used in single C C
phase inverters to reduced the lower order harmonics. Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
Pulse width modulation or PWM technology is used in Ans. (d)
inverters to give a steady output voltage of 230 or
110V.
31. The single-phase half-bridge inverter as shown
in the figure here has resistive load with output
power of 240 W and the DC input voltage of Vs
= 48 V. Determine the value of load resistance
(R) connected?
di 1
dt C ∫
KVL :– iR + L + idt = Vs + Vco
1 V + Vco
(a) 2.4Ω (b) 10 Ω Laplace Transform ⇒ Is  R + Ls +  = s
 sC  s
(c) 20.6 Ω (d) 6.4 Ω
DMRC AM 2020 Vs + Vco 1
⇒ Is = .
Ans. (a) : Given that , P = 240 W L 2 R 1
s + s+
Vs= 48 V L LC
For single-phase half-bridge inverter, As the circuit is underdamped,
V 48 2
V= s = = 24V  R  1
2 2  2L  – LC < 0
 
V2 V 2 24 × 24
P= , R= = 4L
R P 240 ⇒ R2 <
R = 2.4 Ω C
Thus, the value of load resistance R = 2.4 Ω. 35. A PWM switching scheme is used with a three
32. A three phase current source inverter can be phase inverter to :
operated in :- (a) Reduce the total harmonic distortion with
(a) 30 degree or 90 degree mode modest filtering.
(b) 0 degree or 60 degree mode (b) Minimize the load on the D.C. side
(c) 60 degree or 120 degree mode
(c) Increase the file of the batteries
(d) 120 degree or 180 degree mode
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I (d) Reduce low order harmonics and increase
Ans. (d) : A three phase current source inverter can be high order harmonics
operated in 120 degree or 180 degree mode. WBSE TCL AE 2016
33. In single phase modulator of PWM inverters, ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
fifth harmonics can be eliminated if pulse ESE 2013
width is equal to
(a) 30 degrees (b) 72 degrees Ans. (d) : For the inverter topology, it may not be
(c) 36 degrees (d) 108 degrees possible to reduce the overall voltage distortion due to
PTCUL AE 2012 harmonics but by PWM switching schemes the
Ans. (b) : In single phase modulation of PWM inverter, magnitude of lower order harmonic voltages can be
th
the x harmonic can be eliminated, if the pulse width reduced, after at the cost of increasing the magnitudes
(2d) is made equal to (2π/n). of higher order harmonics voltages. Such a situation is
th
Hence for 5 harmonic x = 5 acceptable in most cases as the harmonic voltages of
2π higher frequencies can be satisfactorily filtered using
or 2d = = 72°
5 lower sizes of filter chokes and capacitors.

36. A 3-phase voltage source Inverter (VSI) is 39. Consider the following statements about
operated in 1800 conduction mode. Which one Current Source inverters (CSI) and choose the
of the following is true? correct option :
(a) Both phase-voltage and line-voltage will have 1. The amplitude of output current from Current
3rd harmonic components.
Source Inverters (CSI) is independent of the
(b) Phase-voltage will have 3rd harmonic
component out line-voltage will be free from load.
3rd harmonic components. 2. the dc input to CSI is obtained from a fixed
(c) Line-voltage will 3rd harmonic component voltage ac source through a controlled rectifier
but phase-voltage will be free from 3rd bridge, or through a diode bridge and a chopper
harmonic components. 3. CSI find their use in synchronous motor starting
(d) Both phase-voltage and line-voltage will be (a) Only option 3 is incorrect
free from 3rd harmonic components (b) Both 2 and 3 are correct and 1 is incorrect
WBSE TCL AE 2016 (c) All options are incorrect
Ans. (b) : Line voltage- (d) All options are correct
 ∞
4Vs nπ π  UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
 VL = n =Σ cos sin n  ωt +  
 1,3,5 nπ 6  6  Ans : (d) A current source inverter is one in which the
source current is predetermined and load impedance
 nπ  3π
For n = 3, VL = 0, as cos   = cos = 0. determines the output voltage. The supply current
 6  6
cannot change quickly the current is controlled by
Pole voltage, series D.C. supply inductance uses of current inverter.
∞
2Vs 1. Speed control of A.C. Moter
VP = ∑ sin nωt
n = 6k ±1 nπ
2. Inductive Heating
For n = 3, VP ≠ 0, Hence is not free from third 3. Starting of synchronous motor.
harmonics. 40. In a 3-ph bridge inverter with 180° conduction,
37. When a line commutated converter operates in the number of switches that are ‘on’ at any
the inverter mode. instant of time is:-
(a) It draws both real and reactive power from (a) 1 (b) 2
the A.C. supply. (c) 3 (d) 4
(b) It delivers both real and reactive power to the ESE 2016
A.C. supply.
(c) It delivers real supply to the A.C. supply.
(d) It draws reactive power to the A.C. supply. Ans. (c) : In a 3-phase bridge inverter with 180°
WBSE TCL AE 2016 conduction, the number of switches that are ‘on’ at any
Ans. (c) : When a line commutated converter operates instant of time is 3.
in the inverter mode with RLC load, then, if delivers 41. How may switches are used to construct a 3- φ
real power to the A.C. supply. by taking power from to 3- φ cycloconverter?
the back emf of the load.
(a) 3 (b) 6
38. In sinusoidal PWM, there are "m" cycles of the
triangular carrier wave in the half cycle of (c) 12 (d) 18
reference sinusoidal signal. If zero of the UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
reference sinusoid coincides with zero/ peak of ESE 2002
the triangular carrier wave, then the number Ans. (d) : There are eighteen switches are used to
of pulse generated in each half cycle are
respectively. construct of 3-φ to 3-φ cyclo-converter.
m m 42. A single phase full bridge inverter is fed from a
(a) (b) 48 V battery and is delivering power output to
m −1 m +1
m −1 m −1 a pure resistive load. What is the value of
(c) (d) fundamental output voltage?
m m +1 (a) 21.62 V (b) 30.56 V
UPPCL AE 2015 (c) 43.22 V (d) 14.4 V
Ans. (c) When triangular carrier wave has its peak RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
coincidence with zero of the reference sinusoidal
F Ans. (c) : Fundamental output voltage in 1–Phase full
N = c . Pulse per half cycle. In case of zero triangular Bridge inverter is
2F
wave coincides with zero of the reference sinusoidal, 2 2
there are (m–1) Pulse per half cycle. Number of pulse ( V01 )RMS = VS
π
generated in each half cycle
m −1 2 2
= = × 48 = 43.22volts
m π

43. A three phase bridge converter is fed from a Ans. (b) : Given that:-
500 V dc source. The inverter is operated in
1800 conduction mode and it is supplying a  I max 
THD = 4% = 0.04 ∵ Irms = 
purely resistive, star connected load. The RMS  2
value of the output (line) voltage is Imax = 4A
(a) 540V (b) 259.80 V We know:
(c) 408 V (d) 235.56 V
THD =
∑ 2
I
h ≠1 h rms
Ans. (c) : In 3 phase 1800 mode voltage source inverter, I1rms
Line RMS voltage,
( VL )RMS = Vs
2
0.04 =
∑ I 2
h ≠1 h rms
3  4 
2  
= × 500 = 408.24 volts  2
3 0.04 × 4 2
≃ 408 V ∑ h ≠1 I2hrms = 2 × 2
44. Advantage of current source inverter over (Ih rms → rms value of harmonical current)
voltage source inverter is
(a) high or better controllability 0.04 × 4 × 2
=
(b) easily protected 2
(c) high regenerative capability
I h rms = 0.08 2 Ampere
(d) all of the above
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II 48. A single-phase full-bridge inverter with
Ans. (d) : Advantage of current source inverter over switches S1 & S2 in one leg and S3 & S4 in the
voltage source inverter is high or better controllability, other leg connected along with feed-back
easily protected and high regenerative capability. diodes D1 & D2 and D3 & D4, respectively,
45. The preferred operating frequencies of a series develops a square wave voltage across an R-L
inverter and a parallel inverter are: load. The conducting devices carrying currents
(a) series inverter - low frequency, parallel during the time intervals t0 to t1, t1 to t2, t2 to t3,
inverter - low frequency and t3 to t4 are :
(b) series inverter - low frequency, parallel (a) S1, S4 D2, D3 S2, S3 D1, D4
inverter - high frequency (b) D1, D4 S1, S4 D2, D3 S2, S3
(c) series inverter - high frequency, parallel (c) D2, D3 S2, S3 D1, D4 S1, S4
inverter - high frequency (d) S2, S3 D1, D4 S1, S4 D2, D3
(d) series inverter - high frequency, parallel APTRANSCO AE 2019
inverter - low frequency
Ans. (b) :
Ans. (d) : The preferred operating frequencies of a
series inverter and a parallel inverter are series inverter -
high frequency, parallel inverter - low frequency.
46. The thyristorised voltage source inverter are
provided with free wheeling diode across each
thyristor. The free-wheeling diode can be
avoided in the case of the following load:
(a) back emf type (b) inductive type
(c) capacitive type (d) resistive type
Ans. (d) : The thyristorised voltage source inverter are
provided with free wheeling diode across each thyristor.
The free-wheeling diode can be avoided in case of
resistive type load.
47. In a 3-phase inverter-fed induction motor
drive, the THD is 4% if the maximum value of
load current is 4 A. The RMS value of net
harmonic current is:
(a) 0.08 (b) 0.08 2
(c) 0.16 (d) 0.16 2
LMRC AM 2020
Thus option (b) is correct.
BHEL ET 2019
49. Which of the following does NOT measure the (d) is that harmonic component whose frequency
quality of inverter output? is closest to the fundamental has an amplitude
(a) Harmonic factor greater than or equal to 3% of the
(b) Total harmonic distortion fundamental component
(c) Distortion factor UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
(d) Power factor Ans. (d) : Low Order Harmonics is one of the
LMRC AM 2020 performance parameter of single phase half bridge
Ans. (d) : The output of inverter is the voltage output inverters whose frequency is closest to the fundamental
which remains independent of type of load therefore it and its amplitude is greater than or equal to 3% of the
amplitude of the fundamental component.
will remain unaffected from power factor.
53. To cancel the low order harmonics in the
50. The output of a single phase inverted bridge is
output voltage of an inverter, the PWM
as given below :
switching scheme used is.
(a) Delta PWM (b) Stepped PWM
(c) Sinusoidal PWM (d) Trapezoidal PWM
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (c) : To cancel the low order harmonics in the
output voltage of an inverter, the PWM switching
scheme used is sinusoidal PWM as there is no change in
In the above output voltage input waveform by applying sinusoidal PWM.
(a) 5th and 7th harmonics will be absent 54. An inverter will operate in rectifier mode when
(b) 3rd, 5th, 7th harmonics will be absent the output voltage phasor and output current
(c) 3rd, 9th, 15th harmonics will be absent phasor have a phase difference, which is.
(d) 3rd, 7th harmonics will be absent (a) Less than π/2
APSPDCL AE 2012 (b) Between 3 π /2 and 2 π
Ans. (c) : (c) Greater than π /2
(d) Zero
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (c) : Inverter will operate in rectifier mode when
output voltage phasor and output current phasor have
phase difference more/greater than 900(π/2).
55. A single phase full-bridge inverter controls the
power in resistive load. Input dc voltage is 220
This is the output voltage waveform of 3φ inverter in V and PWM with five equal pulses per half
120° mode of operation. cycle is used. The rms voltage of the load for
Therefore in the above output voltage 3rd, 9th, 12th and pulse width of 300 is
15th or say triple harmonic would be absent. (a) 378.4 V (b) 242 V
51. In a three phase bridge inverter, the gating (c) 200.8 V (d) 166.6 V
signals for the three phases have a phase UPSC JWM 2017
difference of: Ans. (c) : let 2d = total pulse width
(a) 120o (b) 60o Np = No. of pulses. = 5
o
(c) 90 (d) 180o given that,
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 θ = 300
360 supply voltage (Vs) = 220 V
Ans. (a) : Phase difference = Where n =No. of
n 2d
= 300 ⇒ 2d = 30 × N p = 30 × 5 = 1500
phase so for 3-φ, n = 3 Np
360 We know that,
phase difference = =120o
3 2d
52. Low order harmonic (LOH) one of the Vrms = Vs
π
performance parameter of single phase half
bridge inverter 150 0
150 π
(a) is the smallest of all harmonic components = 220 = 220 ×
π π 180
(b) is that harmonic component whose frequency
is closest to the fundamental 5
= 220
(c) has an amplitude greater than or equal to 3% 6
of the fundamental component Vrms = 200.8 V
56. In a PWM inverter the fundamental frequency 59. A series inverter has a L = 6 mH, C = 1.2 µF,
is. R = 100 Ω and Toff = 0.2 ms. Find the output
(a) Equal to switching frequency frequency.
(b) One fifth of switching frequency (a) 66.55 Hz (b) 666.55 Hz
(c) Double the switching frequency (c) 766.55 Hz (d) 86.55 Hz
(d) Independent of switching frequency (e) 866.55 Hz
UPSC JWM 2017 CGPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : In PWM inverter the fundamental frequency Ans. (e) : L = 6 mH, C = 1.2 µF,
is equal to the switching frequency. R = 100 Ω and Toff = 0.2 ms.
57. A 3 phase inverter operates with 180 degree  1 
conduction mode. It is fed from a 500 V DC f 0 =   Hz for series inverter
source and is supplying a purely resistive Y  T + 2Toff 
connected load, RMS values of the 2π
fundamental component of line and phase Where, T =
voltage, respectively, at the inverter output is- 1 R2
− 2
(a) 408 V, 225.16 V (b) 390 V, 235.56 V LC 4L
(c) 408 V, 235.56 V (d) 390 V, 225.16 V 2π
T=
LMRC AM 2018 1 100 2
∞ −
4 ( 6 × 10 −3 )
−3 −6 2
4Vs nπ  π 6 × 10 × 1.2 × 10
Ans. (d) : VRY = ∑ sin sin  ω t + 
n =1,3,5 nπ 3  6
2π
4Vs π T=
( VRY )rms = sin
6 × 10 −3
× 12 × 10 7
−
1002
π 3
4 ( 6 ×10−3 )
2
4 × Vs 3
(VRY)rms = × 2π 2π
2π 2 T= =
10 10
10 10
1 1
2Vs 6Vs 6 × 500 − 105 −
= × 3 = = 72 144 72 144
π π π
(VRY)rms = 389.84 V line 2π 144 24π
= = ms
( VRY )rms ≅ 390V line 105 100
1
For phase – f0 = Hz
 24 π  −3
V 390  + 2 × 0.2  × 10
VR = L = = 225.07  100 
3 3 1000 1000
= =
( R)
V ≅ 225.16 Phase 0.24 π + 0.4 1.154
f0 = 866.53 Hz
58. A single phase auto-sequential commutated
CSI is fed from a 220 V DC source to a load of 60. The speed of a 3-phase 2-pole, 60 Hz
10 Ω resistor. TOFF = 20 µs, and output synchronous motor is controlled by a step-
frequency is 50 Hz. Take a factor of safety of 2, down 3-phase cycloconverter. The maximum
and find a suitable value of source inductance, speed of the motor can be:
di
(a) 1000 rpm (b) 1200 rpm
assuming = 25 A/s in one cycle. (c) 3600 rpm (d) 1500 rpm
dt
BHEL ET 2019
(a) 8.8 mH (b) 1.2 H
Ans. (b) : Given that:-
(c) 8.8 H (d) 1.2 mH
P=2
(e) 2.2 H f1 = 2
CGPSC AE 2017 for 3-phase step down cycloconverter f2 =
Ans. (c) : Rate of change of current di/dt = 0.5f f1 60
= 0.5×50 = 25A/sec = = 20 Hz
3 3
A short circuit at the load terminals of the inverter puts then,
the most sever condition on the source. 120f 2
di maxm speed of the motor =
Vs = L P
dt 120 × 20
220 =
L= = 8.8 H 2
25 = 1200 rpm

61. In which condition does the voltage source (a) 2Us and P respectively
inverter give better performance? (b) Us and 2P respectively
(a) Both load and source inductances are high. (c) Us and P respectively
(b) Both load and source inductance are less. (d) 2Us and 2P respectively
(c) Load inductance is less and source inductance
is high.
OMC Deputy manager 2019
(d) Load inductance is high and source
inductance is less. Ans. (c) : For 1φ half bridge inverter
BHEL ET 2019 Fundamental rms output voltage
ESE 2000 2Vs Vs 2U s
V0 rms = = = = Us
Ans. (d) : Inverters are static power converters that π 2 2
produce an AC output waveform from a DC power I0rms = V0rms / R = Vs / 2R
supply. voltage source inverter given better
2
performance when load inductance is high and source V0rms
P= = I20rms R
inductance is less. R
62. To get minimum harmonic distortion in the Vs2 P 4P
output, a 3-phase to 3-phase cycloconverter ×R = = =P
4R 2 4 4
requires:
(a) 72 SCRs (b) 18 SCRs 66. A single phase full bridge voltage source
(c) 12 SCRs (d) 36 SCRs inverter is operated in 1800 mode with square
BHEL ET 2019 wave output. If the input DC supply is 100 V,
the rms value of the fundamental output
Ans. (d) : To get minimum harmonic distortion in the
voltage is
output, 3-phase to 3-phase cycloconverter is required 36
SCRs. (a) 80 V (b) 50 V
(c) 90 V (d) 70 V
63. In a 3–phase voltage source inverter used for
speed control of induction motor, anti–parallel UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I
diodes are used across each switching device. Ans : (c) Given data:-
The main purpose of diodes is to: Vdc = 100V
(a) Protect the switching devices against over  2 2 
voltage  Vout fundamental = Vdc 
 π 
(b) Provide path for freewheeling current
(c) Allow the motor to return energy during 2 2
regeneration = ×100
3.14
(d) Help in switching off the devices = 90 V
DMRC AM 2016
67. A single phase full bridge voltage source
Ans. (c) : The purpose of providing anti-parallel diode inverter is operated with SPWM (sinusoidal
used across each switching device to allow the motor to pulse width modulation). The input DC
return energy during regeneration. voltage is 100 V . If the amplitude modulation
64. A single pulse width-modulated inverter is used index is 1, the rms value of fundamental
to drive a load. Find the angle of shift to component of output voltage is
produce rms output voltage of 100 V. if the (a) 141.4 V (b) 70.7 V
input dc voltage is 120 V. (c) 50.3 V (d) 90.7 V
(a) 500 (b) 1250 UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I
0
(c) 150 (d) 900 Ans : (b) The output voltage for the pulse width
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II modulator (PWM) full bridge inverter is given by:-
0
Ans : (b) 125 Vout fundamental = 0.707 × m × Vdc
Using Formula
= 0.707×1×100
V0 = V3 28 ⇒ δ = 0.3472
= 70.7volt
Using Formula
68. In a single phase inverter using single pulse
θ −θ modulation for control of output voltage,
δ = 2 0 1 ⇒ θ2 − θ1 = 1250
360 Harmonics of the order 'n' can be eliminated
65. If the amplitude of the output voltage of a full by making the pulse width equal to
bridge inverter is 2Us and its output power is (a) 4π/n (b) 2π/n
4P, then the corresponding quantities in case of (c) π/n (d) π/2n
a half bridge inverter is : ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019
Ans. (b) : nth harmonics in a single phase inverter using Ans. (c) : In 3-φ inverters with 180o conduction each
single pulse modulation is- thyristor conducts for 180o of a cycle but in 6-modes in
4V which three different thyristor conducts
V0 = s sin nd
nπ 6 modes → 360o
∵ nd = π, 2π,......... 1 mode → 60o
π So, each mode conduct for 600.
∴d=
n 72. To eliminate third harmonic in a single-pulse
π modulated PWM inverter, pulse width should
pulse width = 2d = 2 × be of
n
(a) 30º (b) 150º
2π
pulse width = (c) 120º (d) 60º
n UPPCL AE 2014
69. A single phase inverter has a square wave Ans. (c) : To eliminate third harmonic
output voltage. What is the percentage of fifth
sin 3d = 0
harmonic component in relation to
fundamental component present in the output 3d = 0, π, 2π, 3π................
voltage? π 2π
(a) 40% (b) 30% d = 0, , ,............
3 3
(c) 20% (d) 10% 2π 4π
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018 pulse width = 2d = 0, , ................
3 3
Ans. (c) :
2π
Fourier series for square wave output is given by: ∴ 2d =
∞ 3
4VDC
V0 = ∑ nπ
sin(nωt)
=
2 × 1800
n =1,3,5... 3
Magnitude of fundamental component, = 1200
4V 73. PWM switching schemes used in single-phase
V01 = DC
π inverter
Magnitude of 5th harmonic, (a) increases the life of the batteries
4VDC 1 (b) minimises the load on the dc side
V05 = = V01
5π 5 (c) Reduces low order harmonics and increases
That is, high order harmonics
V05 = 20% of V01 (d) reduces the total harmonic distortion with
modest filtering
Thus, the percentage of fifth harmonic component in
relation to fundamental component present in the output UPPCL AE 2014
voltage is 20%. Ans. (c) : PWM (pulse width modulation) Techniques
70. In a resonance pulse inverter: Switching scheme used in single phase inverter to
(a) DC output voltage variation is wide reduce lower order harmonics, and increase higher order
(b) The frequency is low harmonics and control output voltage.
(c) The output voltage is never sinusoidal
(d) DC saturation of transformer core is 74. A single-phase voltage source inverter has
minimized square wave input voltage. If pure inductive
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013 load is connected to it, the nature of load
Ans. (a) : When the variation of the DC output voltage current waveform will be
is not wide, resonant pulse inverters can be used. The (a) square
inverter frequency, which could be the same as the (b) sinusoidal
resonant frequency, is very high, and the inverter output
(c) triangular
voltage is almost sinusoidal.
o (d) trapezoidal
71. In a three-phase inverter with 180 conduction,
there are six modes of operation in a cycle Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
where duration of each mode is Ans. (c) : A single-phase source inverter has square
(a) 90o (b) 75o wave input voltage. If pure inductive load is connected
(c) 60o (d) 45o to it, the nature of load current wave form will be
ESE 2020 triangular.

(vi) Power Semiconductor Drives (c) Unipolar PWM control
(d) phase control
1. A thyristor is triggered by a pulse train of 5 BHEL ET 2019
kHz. The duty ratio is 0.4. If the allowable APTRANSCO AE 2011
average power is 100 W, the maximum Ans. (b) : For the speed control of AC drive the
allowable gate drive power will be sinusoidal PWM control method is preferred using
(a) 50 W (b) 150 W thyristor. Sinusoidal PWM speed control method is a
(c) 100 2W (d) 250 W adjustable speed control method for ac drives and speed
is vary by pulses.
6. Variable Speed Drive (VSD) for fan application
Ans. (d) : Given, Average power = 100 W
improves :
Duty ratio (α) = 0.4 (a) efficiency of the system
Pmax = ? (b) performance of the system
Average power = α × Pmax (c) energy saving in significant time
100 = 0.4 × Pmax (d) All of the above
100 MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
Pmax =
0.4 Ans. (d) : Variable Speed Drive (VSD) for fan
Pmax = 250 Watt application improves–
• Efficiency of the system
2. In static Kramer drive, motor turns ratio is 0.6,
• Performance of the system
the firing angle is 120º. The motor slip is:
(a) 0.633 (b) 0.533 • energy saving in significant time
(c) 0.833 (d) 0.733 7. In fans, power (P) is related to speed (N) by
TSPSC AEE 2017 relation :
Ans. (c) : Slip in static Kramer drive is given by (a) P ∝ N (b) P ∝ N2
3
(c) P ∝ N (d) None of the above
 1 
 s = − cos α  MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
a
Ans. (c) : In fans, power (P) is related to speed(N) by
where a = motor turns ratio relation–
and α = firing angle
1 P ∝ N3
s=− cos120º
0.6 8. Which factor is considered while selecting
0.5 1 motor drive for pump set ?
= = 0.833 { ∵ cos120° = − } (a) Electrical characteristics
0.6 2
(b) Mechanical characteristics
3. In electro-mechanical drive systems, what is
(c) Both (a) and (b)
the full form of VVVF controller?
(a) Variable Voltage Verses Fluctuations (d) None of the above
(b) Variable Voltage Varient Frequency MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
(c) Variable Value Voltage Frequency Ans. (c) : Electrical and mechanical both characteristics
(d) Variable Voltage Variable Frequency should be considered while selecting motor drive for
pump set.
Ans. (d) : Electro-mechanical drive system uses VVVF 9. Multiple quadrant operation Luo converters
controlling method. are second generator converters, they have
three modes :
VVVF = Variable Voltage Variable Frequency.
(a) Two quadrant in forward operation,
4. For flexibility in operation in industry which Two quadrant in reverse operation,
drive is suitable?
Four quadrant in dc/dc Luo converter.
(a) Individual drive (b) Group drive
(b) Four quadrant in forward operation,
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Only D.C. drive
Two quadrant in reverse operation,
GMB AE 2017
Two quadrant in dc/dc Luo converter.
Ans. (a) : For flexibility in operation in industry (c) Two quadrant in forward operation
individual drive is suitable. As if causes some savings
in the cost of super structure because of being much Four quadrant in reverse operation
lighter and less expensive. Four quadrant in dc/dc Luo converter.
(d) Four quadrant in forward operation
5. For the speed control of AC drive the preferred
method using thyristor is : Four quadrant in reverse operation
(a) integral cycle control Four quadrant in dc/dc Luo conveter.
(b) sinusoidal PWM control MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
Ans. (a): Multiple quadrant operation Luo converters 13. A dc motor armature, supplied through phase
are second generator converters, they have three mode. controlled thyristors, receives a smoother
voltage shape at :
Two quadrant in forward operation.
(a) rated motor speeds
Two quadrant in reverse operation. (b) low motor speeds
Four quadrant in dc/dc Luo converter. (c) moderate motor speeds
Advantages- (d) higher motor speeds
High efficiency HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
Easy to control the speed ESE 2005
Switching losses are reduced Ans. (d) : A dc motor armature supplied through phase
Applications- controlled thyristors, receive a smoother voltage shape
Industrial applications at higher motor speeds.
Pumping system 14. In an adjustable speed dc drive operated by an
ac-dc converter with armature voltage control
Variable voltage drives.
upto base speed :
10. Inversion failure in naturally commutated (a) The torque increased linearly with increase in
circuits used for motor loads leads to : speed
(a) High voltage across thyristor (b) The torque decreased linearly with increase in
(b) High fault current speed
(c) Low power factor (c) The torque remains constant with increase in
speed
(d) Low fault current
(d) The power remains constant with increase in
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I speed
Ans. (b) : Inversion failure in naturally commutated APTRANSCO AE 2019
circuit used for motor loads leads to high fault current Ans. (c) : In an adjustable speed dc drive operated by an
because in natural commutation self inversion voltage ac-dc converter with armature voltage control upto base
produced on the device when current in the Thyristor speed the torque remains constant with increase in
are naturally zero. If inversion voltage production is speed. This is shown in the figure given below-
failed then the heavy current flow through Thyristor
which lead to high fault current for motor loads.
11. The consideration involved in the selection of
the type of electric drive for a particular
application depends on
(a) Speed control range and its nature
(b) Starting torque
(c) Environmental conditions Where, NB = Base Speed
(d) All of the above N = Normal Speed
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 Torque speed characteristics of dc motor by armature
Ans. (d) : The consideration involved in the selection voltage control method.
of the type of electric drive for a particular application If speed of motor is below base speed the torque is
depends on – constant and speed of motor is greater than base speed
then torque is decrease as shown in the above figure.
(i) Speed control range and its nature Thus, the torque remains constant with increase in
(ii) Starting torque speed.
(iii) Environmental conditions. 15. In an adjustable speed ac drive which quantity
12. For the speed control of ac drive, the preferred gets reduced above rated speed?
method using thyristors is : (a) developed torque
(a) phase control (b) stator frequency
(b) integral cycle control (c) reduced starting torque
(c) chopper control (d) stator current
(d) all are equally good APTRANSCO AE 2017
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 Ans. (a) : In A.C. drives operating on above rated speed
there is a between operating at higher speed and
Ans. (c) : For the speed control of ac drive, the developed torque capability of the motor. The
preferred method using thyristors is chopper control. A relationship between the torque and speed of the motor
chopper is a high speed on/off Semiconductor switch. in such a way that the developed torque is reduced as
Chopper is a static device that converters fixed dc input the speed of the motor increases. So above the rated
voltage to a variable dc output voltage directly. speed. the developed torque will reduce.
16. In a brake test the effective load on the branch 19. If the induction motor drive is capable of
pulley was 38.1 kg, the effective diameter of the bidirectional power flow where limited range of
pulley 63.5 cm and speed 12 r.p.s. The motor speed control is required for large power
took 49A at 220 V. Calculate the output power. applications, then this arrangement is called
(a) 24 π × 38.1 × 0.3175 × g Watts (a) Static conductance drive
(b) 24 π × 38.1 × 31.75 × g Watts (b) Static Scherbius drive
(c) Static compressive drive
(c) 12 π × 38.1 × 0.3175 × g Watts (d) Static reluctance drive
(d) 24π× 38.1× 0.3175 Watts ESE 2020
(e) 24 π × 38.1 × 63.5 × g Watts Ans. (b) : The static Scherbius drive provides the speed
CGPSC AE 2017 control of a wound rotor motor below synchronous
Ans. (a) : Effective load (w1 - w2) = 38.1 kg speed. The portion of rotor AC power is converted into
DC by a diode bridge.
0.635
radius = = 0.3175m This drive has ability to flow the power both in the
2 positive as well as negative direction of the injected
shaft torque ( τ ) = F.r = 38.1×0.3175 kg-m voltage.
power output = torque ×angular velocity in rad/s 20. An electric car with dc motor drive is running
= 38.1×0.3175×2π×12 at a speed of 100km/hour. Driver of the car
reduces the pressure on the accelerator to
= 24 π × 38.1× 0.3175 g Watts
reduce the speed of the car to 80km/hour. This
17. The power supplies which are used extensively is a case of
in industrial applications are required to meet (a) reverse motoring
1. Isolation between the source and the load (b) counter current braking
2. High conversion efficiency (c) regenerative braking
3. Low power density for reduction of size (d) dynamic braking
and weight UPPCL AE 2014
4. Controlled direction of power flow Ans. (c) : An electric car with dc motor drive is
Which of the above specifications are correct? running at a speed of 100 km/hour. Driver of the car
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only reduce the pressure on the accelerator to reduce the
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only speed of the car to 80 km/hour this is the case of
ESE 2019 regenerative braking.
Ans. (c) : The power supplies which are used in 21. The load frequency control is the basic control
industrial application must have: mechanism. Whenever there is variation in
Isolation between source and load so that load load demand, there is unbalance between real
disturbance does not make supply unstable. power input and output. The difference is
High conversion efficiency. supplied by the energy of rotating parts given
High power density so that size and weight of 1
by KE = Iω2 . In this connection, which of the
supply is reduced. 2
Controlled direction of power flow. following statements are incorrect?
18. In a DC motor drive, if the armature current is (1) If KE reduces, ω decreases, speed falls and
reversed by keeping field current positive frequency increases.
producing a breaking torque, then the drive is (2) The change in frequency is sensed and back
said to be operating in to control the position of inlet valve of prime
(a) Motoring mode movers.
(b) Regenerative braking mode (3) The input to prime movers tries to bring the
(c) Dynamic braking mode balance between real power input and output.
(d) Plugging mode (4) The frequency variation is not dependent on
real power balance of the system.
ESE 2020
Answer options:
Ans. (d) : Plugging induction motor breaking is applied
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
by just reversing the supply phase sequence by
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
interchanging connections of any two phase of stator,
we can attain plugging breaking of induction motor. Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
Due to reversal of phase sequence, the direction of Ans. (a) : If KE reduces, ω decreases, speed falls and
rotating magnetic field gets reversed. This produce a frequency increases.
torque in the reverse direction and the motor tries to The frequency variation is not dependent on real
rotate in opposite direction. power balance of the system.
22. For controlling the speed of dc motor of 200 hp Ans. (a) SMPS (switch mode power supply) are
rating, the following type of converter is superior to linear power supplies in respect of size and
normally used. efficiency.
(a) Single-phase full converter 4. Which one of the following is used as main
(b) Single-phase dual converter switching element in SMPS operating in 20
(c) Three-phase full converter KHz to 100 KHz range?
(d) Three-phase dual converter 1. UJT 2. MOSFET
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I 3. Triac
(a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 3
Ans. (c) : For controlling the speed of dc motor of 200 (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
hp rating, the three-phase full converter is normally UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
used.
Ans : (c) Reasserted MOSFET, dominance is hard
23. In ac drives, stable operating point is when switching application above 50 KHz. When the
(a) Load torque is equal to electromagnetic application uses zero voltage switching, results vary
torque with operating temperature. Typical frequency ranges
(b) Load torque is greater than electromagnetic from a 20 KHz to 2 MHz.
torque 5. The circuit configuration as shown in fig.
(c) Load torque is less than electromagnetic belongs to which of the following categories of
torque SMPS (Switched Mode Power Supply)?
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : In ac drives, stable operating point is when
load torque is equal to electromagnetic torque reflected
on motor shaft.
(vii) Switched Mode Power

Supply (SMPS) (a) Flyback Converter
(b) Push-pull converter
1. Most suitable device for high frequency (c) Half-Bridge converter
inversion in SMPS is (d) Full bridge converter
(a) BJT (b) IGBT UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
(c) MOSFET (d) GTO Ans : (a) The above shown circuit diagram represents
DSSSB AE 2019 flyback converter. The flyback converter is used in both
TNPSC AE 2018 AC/DC and conversion with galvanic isolation between
ESE 2001 the input and any output. It's schematic diagram is
Ans. (c) : Most suitable device for high frequency similar to that of buck boost converter, with the
inversion in SMPS is MOSFET. This is voltage inductor split to form a transformer, so that the voltage
ratio's are multiplied with an additional advantage of
controlled device.
isolation.
2. A Switching Mode Power Supply (SMPS) 6. Consider the following statements about SMPS
operating at 20 kHz to 100 kHz range uses (Switched Mode Power Supply) and chooses
which of the following as the main switch ? the correct option.
(a) SCR (b) MOSFET 1. In comparison to conventional linear
(c) TRIAC (d) UJT power supplies, SMPS has higher output
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II ripple and its regulation is worse.
Ans. (b) : For switching mode power supply, the 2. Control of radio frequency noise requires
frequency is very high. Hence MOSFET is used for the use of filters on both the input and
high frequency device. BJT is used for low frequency output of SMPS.
(a) Only option 2 is correct
device.
(b) Both 1 and 2 are correct
3. SMPSs are superior to linear power supplies in (c) Both options are incorrect
respect of: (d) Only option 1 is correct
(a) Size and efficiency UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
(b) Regulation and noise Ans : (b) Advantage of SMPS
(c) Efficiency and regulation. For normal rating, SMPS is small and light in
(d) Noise and cost weight.
UPPCL AE 2015 less sensitive to input voltage variation.
7. The power efficiency of a switching mode (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
voltage regulator is much higher than that of a (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
linear regulator because it operates ESE 2019
(a) in saturation (b) in cut-off Ans. (d) :
(c) like a switch (d) on high duty cycle SMPS has high ripple in output voltage and its
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II regulation is poor.
Ans. (c) : The power efficiency of a switching mode SMPS produces electromagnetic as well as radio
voltage regulator is much higher than that of a linear frequency interference, since current is switched
regulator because it operates like a switch. ON and OFF sharply.
8. For a simple flyback SMPS, which of the The output voltage of SMPS is less sensitive w.r.t
following statement is incorrect? input voltage variation as compared to linear
(a) SMPS generates high level of noise in its supply.
output 12. Consider the following features with respect to
(b) It makes inefficient use of transistor the fly back converters:
(c) Its application is limited to the power levels 1. It is used mostly in application below 100W.
of the order of few hundred watts 2. It is widely used for high-output voltage.
(d) Its application can be up to the power levels 3. It has low cost and is simple
of few mega watts Which of the above statements are correct?
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (d) : For a simple flyback SMPS, its application (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
can be up to the power levels of few mega watts. ESE 2019
Statement is in correct. Ans. (a) :
9. The low order harmonic can be effectively The flyback type SMPS circuit offers simple
reduced by topology and low cost, although its efficiency is
(a) Buck inverted (b) Boost Inverter inferior to others SMPS circuits.
(c) Buck Boost inverter (d) SPWM That's why it is used in low power circuits, from
few watts to less than 100W.
Flyback converters are well suited for high output
Ans. (d) : SPWM (Sinusoidal Pulse Width Modulation) voltages.
technique with a sine wave of fundamental reference
13. Which one of the following devices in not a
and triangular waves for carrier frequencies in the
switched-mode DC power supply?
comparator effectively reduce low order harmonics.
(a) Flyback forward converter
10. Which of the following is the main advantage of (b) Full bridge converter
SMPS over linear power supply? (c) Push-pull converter
(a) No transformer is required (d) Resonant converter
(b) Higher efficiency ESE 2020
(c) No filter required
Ans. (d) : • Flyback forward converter is DC/DC
(d) Only one state of conversion
converter
CIL MT 2017
• Full bridge converter converts full wave to DC
Ans. (b) : A SMPS has high efficiency over linear • Push-pull converter is a type of DC-DC converter
power supply.
• Resonant converter is a type of electric power
• The efficiency is as high as 80 to 90% converter that contains a network of inductors and
• Less heat generation, less power wastage. capacitor called a "resonant tank", tuned to resonate a
• Reduced harmonic feedback into the supply. specific frequency. These are circuits which employ
• The manufacturing cast is reduced. zero voltage and zero current switching.
Application- 14. The phenomenon of overlap in converter
There are many applications of SMPS they are used in operation occurs due to.
the mother board of computers, mobile phone, charger, (a) source resistance
HVDC measurement, battery chargers. (b) source inductance
11. Consider the following statements. (c) both source resistance and source inductance
1. SMPS generates both the electromagnetic (d) high value of firing angle
and radio frequency interference due to high MPPSC AE 2017
switching frequency. Ans. (b) : Overlap is the phenomenon due to effect of
2. SMPS has high ripple in output voltage and source inductance on the a.c. side the current
its regulation is poor. commutation is delayed due to the source inductance
3. The output voltage of SMPS is less sensitive which is normally the leakage reactance of transformer
with respect to input voltage variation. (as × 77R) for a transformer, the source resistance is
Which of the above statements are correct? usually neglected.

02.
Digital Electronics
Ans : (b) ABCD + ABCD + ABCD + ABCD
(i) Number System, Logic = ABCD + ABCD + ABCD + ABCD
Gates & Switching Circuit ( )
= ABC D + D + ABC D + D ( )
= ABC + ABC (∵ D + D = 1)
1. The output at point B if the input at point A is
a 0 bit will be (
= AC B + B ) (∵ B+ B =1 )
= AC
(a) neither 1 nor 0 (b) either 1 or 0 5. The Hexadecimal equivalent of the octal
number 567.43 is
(c) 0 (d) 1 (a) 187.7C (b) 1C7.87
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III (c) 187.C7 (d) 177.8C
Ans. (c) : TANGEDCO AE 2018
Ans. (d) : (567.43)8
= 5 × 82 + 6 × 81 + 7 × 80 + 4 × 8–1 + 3 × 8–2
= (375.546875)10
Hence, A = B = A 0.546875 × 16 = 8.750 = 8
If the input at point A is 0 bit then B will be 0 0.75 × 16 = 12 = C
2. In a Karnaugh map simplification, the octet 16 375 7
eliminates: 16 23 7
(a) Three variables and their complements
1
(b) Two variables and their complements
(c) Eight variables = 177
375.546875 = 177.8C
(d) All overlapping groups
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 6. How many 1's are present in the binary
representation of (256×7)+(4×16)+(9×4096) + 5
Ans. (a) : A group of 2m cells will eliminate m variables (a) 8 (b) 11
octet group of 8 cells in k–map. (c) 9 (d) 10
3
2 = 8, UPPCL AE 2013
So, in given problem, 3 variables will be eliminated Ans. (a) : Given equation
3. The binary equivalent of hexadecimal number (256×7)+(4×16)+(9×4096) + 5
4 FAD is- 7×(16)2+4×(16)1+9×(16)3+5×160
(a) 0101 1111 0010 1100 (9745)16
(b) 0100 1111 0010 1100 (1001 0111 0100 0101)2
(c) 0100 1111 1010 1101 1's are present in the binary 8.
(d) 0100 1110 0010 1101 7. The Excess-3 code for decimal number 72 is–
RPSC AE 2018 (a) 10100101 (b) 10010000
(c) 01110101 (d) 01001011
Ans : (c) Each of hexadecimal digits are equal to 4
UPPCL AE 2013
binary digits,
for D, Binary of (13)→1101 Ans. (d) : Excess-3 code–
For A, Binary of (10)→1010 • It is a 4-bit code
For F, Binary of (15)→1111 • It can be derived from BCD code by adding '3' to each
coded number
for 4, Binary of (4)→0100
So, • It is an un-weighted code
(4FAD)16 = (0100111110101101) decimal to binary
(72)10 = (1001000)2
4. The Boolean expression ABCD + A B CD + binary to excess -3 code
ABC D + ABCD is equivalent to- 1001000
(a) A (b) AC = + 011
(c) ABC (d) 1
RPSC AE 2018 (1001011)2
8. Binary 1 & 0 are corresponding to–
(a) They are numbers
(b) AC positive and negative cycle
(c) They are two different DC voltages
(d) They are two different AC voltage
UPPCL AE 2013 Which of these come under the class of
Ans. (c) : Binary 0 and 1 are to different DC voltage combinational circuits?
Binary 1 = DC positive voltage = DC high voltage (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
Binary 0 = DC low voltage = DC negative voltage
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. In the circuit shown in the figure below, the UPRVUNL AE 2014
output Y equals which one of the following?
Ans. (a) Above circuit act as sequential and D-latch use
in sequential. But Multiplexers and read only memory
combination circuit.
13. Which of the following notations have two
repetitions of zero?
(P) 1's complement with radix of number being 2
(Q) 7's complement with radix of number being 8.
(R) 9's complement with radix of number being
10.
(a) A+B (S) 10's complement with radix of number being
(b) A+B 10.
(c) AB + AB Select the correct answer using the codes given
(d) AB below:
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 (a) P, Q and S (b) P and R
ESE 2008 (c) Q, R and S (d) P, Q and R
Ans. (a) : TSPSC AEE 2017
10. (734)8 = (?)16 ESE 2005
(a) C1D (b) DC1
Ans. (d) : Odds compliment like 1's, 3's, 5's, 7's, 9's ......
(c) 1CD (d) 1DC
UPRVUNL AE 2014 etc. have two repetition of zeros.
Ans. (d) (734)8 = (?)16 So, the following notations have two repetitions of
zero–
(i) 1's compliment with radix of number being 2.
(ii) 7's compliment with radix of number being 8.
(iii) 9's compliment with radix of number being 10.
14. Using 10's complement, subtract : (52532-3250)
(a) 49282 (b) 149282
(c) 85578 (d) 161828
(734)8 = (1DC)16 TNPSC AE 2018
11. Which among the following is the decimal Ans. (a) : 52532 – 3250
equivalent of hex number 1A53? 9 9 9 9 9
(a) 6793 (b) 6739 −0 3 2 5 0
(c) 6973 (d) 6379 10's complement of 3250 = 9 6 7 4 9
UPRVUNL AE 2014
+ 1
Ans. (b) (1A53)16 = (?)10
For converting hexadecimal into decimal multiply by 9 6 7 5 0
16. So, Subtraction value will be,
3 × 160 + 5 × 161 + A ×162 + 1×163
↓
10
= 6739
12. Consider the following digital circuits: There 10's complement will be 49282.
1. Multiplexers 15. Convert (0.6875)10 to binary
2. Read Only Memories (a) (1.0100)2 (b) (0.1011)2
3. D-latch (c) (1.1011)2 (d) (0.0100)2
4. Circuit as shown in figure below TNPSC AE 2018

Ans. (b) : (0.6875)10 in binary 19.
The most extensively used method for
simplification of Boolean functions is
(a) Algebraic method
(b) Karnaugh map technique
(c) Variable entered mapping technique
(d) Quine-Mcclusky method
So, (0.6875)10 = (0.1011)2 UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
16. The simplified form of the Boolean function Y Ans. (b) : The most extensively used method for
= AB C + ABC + AB C + ABC simplification of Boolean functions is Karnaugh map
technique.
(a) C (b) C 20. The logic gate shown below is
(c) AB (d) AB
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (a) : K-Map–
Y = ABC + ABC + AB C + ABC
(a) Positive AND (b) Negative AND

(c) Negative OR (d) None of the above
Ans. (c) : Diode circuit diagram negative (OR Gate)
Y= C
17. Express the following Boolean expression using
exclusive-OR and AND gate operators.
F=AB'CD'+A'BCD'+AB'C'D+A'BC'D
(a) F = ( A ⊕ C )( B ⊕ D ) F
This is OR Gate
(b) F = ( A ⊕ B )( C ⊕ D )
A B D1 D2 y
(c) F = ( A ⊕ D )( B ⊕ C ) 0 0 ON ON 0
(d) F= ( AB ) ⊕ ( CD ) 0 1 ON OFF 1
TNPSC AE 2019 1 0 OFF ON 1
Ans. (b) : F = AB'CD' + A'BCD' + AB'C'D + A'BC'D
1 1 OFF OFF 1
21. An octal number 1028 is equivalent to decimal
( )
= CD AB + AB + CD AB + AB( ) number-
(a) 524 (b) 338
( )(
= CD + CD AB + AB ) (c) 536 (d) 236
= ( A ⊕ B )( C ⊕ D )
Ans. (c) : (1028)8 = (?)10
18. The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its 1028 = 1× 83 + 0 × 82 + 2 × 81 + 8 × 8°
inputs are at logic 1. The gate is either = 512 + 0 + 16 + 8
(a) an OR or an EX-OR = 536
(b) an OR or an EX-NOR 22. Boolean expression (A + B)(A + C) is equal to
(c) a NAND or an EX-NOR (a) AB + C (b) AC + B
(d) an AND or a NAND (c) A + BC (d) ABC
UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : Output of logic gate = 1, when all input are at Ans. (c) : Given Boolean expression is
logic = 1, the gate is an OR Gate or EX-NOR. (A + B) (A + C)
= AA + AC + BA + BC {∵ A.A = A}
= A + AC + BA + BC
= A(1 + C + B) + BC {∵ 1 + something = 1}
(A + B)(A + C) = A + BC
23. The Boolean expression
AB + ABC + BC is simplified as-
Y = A ⊙ B = A ⊕ B = AB + AB (a) AC + BC (b) AB + BC
Y = 1.1 + 00 (c) AC + BC (d) A + BC
=1 UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I

Ans. (a) : The Boolean expression 28. Decimal 43 in hexadecimal and BCD number
AB + ABC + BC system is respectively:
(a) B2, 0100 0011 (b) 2B, 0100 0011
= AB (C + C ) + ABC + BC ( A + A) (c) 2B, 0011 0100 (d) B2, 0100 0100
= ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC UPRVUNL AE 2016
{∵ ABC + ABC = ABC} Ans : (b) Conversion of Decimal to Hexadecimal
= ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC
So,
(43)10 = (2B)16
Conversion of Decimal to BCD
Y = AC + BC
24. The BCD of 123 is:
(a) 000100110010 (b) 001010011
(c) 000100100011 (d) 011011 So,
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 (43)10 = (01000011)BCD
Ans. (c) : 29. Which of the following is equivalent to the
25. A system which contains basic Boolean Boolean expression (XYZ+YZ+XZ)?
operations (AND, OR, NOT), some inputs and (a) X (b) Y
a set of output are called: (c) Z (d) (X+Y)Z
(a) Sequential circuits UPRVUNL AE 2016
(b) Combinational circuits Ans : (d) Boolean expression
(c) Internal circuits = (XYZ +YZ+XZ) = Z(XY+Y+X) = Z(X+Y)
(d) Switching circuits 30. 4-bit 2's complement representation of a
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 decimal number is 1000. The number is:
Ans. (b) : (a) 8 (b) 0
26. The binary representation of the decimal (c) –7 (d) –8
number 1.375 is : UPRVUNL AE 2016
(a) 1.111 (b) 1010 Ans : (d) (1000)2
(c) 1.011 (d) 1.001
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans : (c) (1.375)10
0.375×2 = 0.750 →0 conversion of decimal to
binary
0.75×2=1.50→ 1 (1)10 = 1×20
0.5×2 = 1.0→1 =1 1'S Complement of 1000 = 0111
(0.375)10 = (011)2 2'S Complement of 1000
(1.375)10 = (1.011)2
27. Find the value of Z in the given circuit.
So,
(1000)2 = – 8
31. The range 1's signed decimal numbers that can
be represented by 6-bit 1's complement number is
:
(a) ABC (b) (A') (B) C (a) –31 to 31 (b) –63 to 64
(c) 0 (d) (A') BC (c) –64 to 63 (d) –32 to 31
UPRVUNL AE 2016 UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans : (a) Ans : (a) Range of 1'S complement number
= – (2n-1–1) to + (2n-1–1)
n = 6 bit
so,
= – (25–1) to + (25–1)
= –31 to + 31
32. The 2's complement representation of –17 is:
A + B = A ⋅ B = AB
(a) 01110 (b) 01111
Z = AB . B . C (c) 11110 (d) 10001
Z = ABC UPRVUNL AE 2016

Ans : (b) 2' of –17 = 01111 (a) 10101010 (b) 10111111
Binary representation of 17= 10001 (c) 10100110 (d) 11101001
1's of –17= 01110 Ans : (a)
2'S = +1
01111
33. Circuit shown in the given figure is :
85 = 1010101
–85 = 01010101
1's Compliment of 01010101
(a) Positive logic OR circuit = 10101010
(b) Negative logic OR circuit 38. In a binary number, the leftmost bit is called :
(c) Positive logic NAND circuit (RRB SSE (Shift-II), 03.09.2015)
(d) Negative logic NAND circuit (a) Most significant bit
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (b) Least significant bit
Ans : (b) Given circuit is Negative logic OR circuit. (c) Carry bit
34. The binary code of (21.125)10 is (d) Extra bit
(a) 10101.001 (b) 10100.001 Ans (a) : In binary number, the leftmost bit is called
(c) 10101.010 (d) 10100.111 most significant bit and rightmost bit is called least
UJVNL AE 2016 significant bit.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II 39. ASCII is a .......... bit code.
WBPSC AE 2007
(RRB SSE (shift-III), 02.09.2015)
Ans. (a) : Given that, (21.125)10
(a) 7 (b) 12
(c) 16 (d) 32
Ans : (a) ASCII (American standard code for
information exchange) is a 7-bit code. with the help of 7
bit, 27 = 128 binary groups can be formed.
40. How many numbers of NOR are gates required
So, (21.125)10 = (10101.001)2 to realize AND gate.
(RRB SSE (Shift-III), 01.09.2015)
35. The 2's complement of the binary number
(11001100)2 is (a) 2 (b) 4
(RRB SSE (Shift-II), 01.09.2015) (c) 3 (d) 5
(a) (00110100)2 (b) (00110011)2 Ans : (c)
(c) (00110000)2 (d) (11110100)2
Ans : (a) 1's complement of 11001100 = 00110011
Note– In 1's complement, we write 1 as 0 and 0 as 1
So, 2's complement–
00110011
+1
00110100 Hence, 3 NOR gates will be required to realize AND
36. The value of the binary 11111 is: gate.
(RRB SSE Secunderabad Red Pepar, 21.12. 2014) 41. Considering X and Y as binary variables, the
(a) 24 –1 (b) 24 equivalent Boolean expression for (X . Y)' is :
(c) 25 (d) 25 –1 (RRB SSE (Shift-II), 01.09.2015)
  (a) X'+Y (b) X+Y' (c) X'+Y' (d) X'.Y'
Ans : (d)  11111 = (?)
 2 Ans : (c) (X . Y)' = X' + Y'
= (24×1+23×1+22×1+21×1+20×1) De-morgan theorem-1
= (16+8+4+2+1) A.B = A + B
= 31 = (25 –1)
NAND = Bubbled OR
37. Considering 1's complement representation for
De-morgan theorem-2
negative numbers, -85 will be stored into an 8-
bit memory space as A + B = A. B
(RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I), 02.09.2015) NOR = Bubbled AND

42. In Boolean Algebra, A + AA' is equivalent to : 47. Symmetrical square wave of time period 100
(RRB SSE (shift-III), 02.09.2015) micro second can be obtained from square
(a) 0 (b) 1 wave of time period of 10 micro second by
(c) A (d) A' using a:
Ans : (c) = A + AA' (a) Divide by –2 circuit (b) Divide by –5 circuit
= A (1 + A') (∴ 1 + A = 1) (c) Divide by –4 circuit (d) BCD counter
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
=A Ans. (d) : Symmetrical square wave of time period 100
43. In Boolean Algebra, A+A+A+ ....... +A is the micro second can be obtained from square wave of time
same as: period of 10 micro second by using BCD counter.
(RRB SSE Secunderabad Red Pepar, 21.12. 2014) 48. Which of the following is a self complementary
(a) Zero (b) A code?
(c) nA (d) An (a) Execess- 3 code (b) Pure binary code
Ans : (b) A +A + A + ....... +A (c) 8421 BCD code (d) Gray code
A(1 + 1 + 1+.......... +1) = (A) UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
Because there is always 1 + 1 = 1 in doing OR Ans. (a) : Execess- 3 code is a self complementary
Operation code, these are the codes that have property that 9's
A (1 + 1+ ............ +1) complement or decimal number is obtained directly by
A×1=A replacing is by 0s and 1s.
44. Which of the following statement is not correct? 49. The 2's compliment of 11001000 is
(RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I), 02.09.2015) (a) 00110111 (b) 00110001
ESE 2005 (c) 01001000 (d) 00111000
(a) X + XY = X (b) X.(X + Y) = XY MPPSC AE 2016
(c) X + XY = X (d) ZX + ZXY = ZX + ZY Ans. (d) : 11001000
1's = 00110111
Ans : (a) Boolean rule A + A = 1
A + 1 =1 2's = 00110111
A+0=A +1
_________
A.1=1 00111000
A.A = 0 50. A 3-variable karnaugh map has
A + AB = A (a) Eight cells (b) Three cells
(a) X + XY = X (c) Sixteen cells (d) Four cells
Boolean rule X + XY = X MPPSC AE 2016
take L.H.S, X + XY + XY = X + XY + XY Ans. (a) : K-map for 3 variable–
= X + Y (X + X)
= X+Y
L.H.S ≠ R.H.S
45. In boolean Algebra, A' (A + B') is equivalent to ∴ K–map cell = 2 = 8 cells.
3
(RRB SSE (Shift-III), 03.09.2015) 51. To implement the expression ABCD + ABCD +
(RRB SSE (Shift-II), 03.09.2015) ABCD, it takes one OR gate and
(a) A'B (b) AB' (a) One AND gate
(c) AB (d) A'B' (b) Three AND gate
Ans : (d) A '(A + B') (c) Three AND gates and four inverters
(d) Three AND gates and three inverters
= A 'A + A 'B' from Boolean rule (∴ A 'A = 0 ) MPPSC AE 2016
= A ' B' Ans. (c) : ABCD + ABCD + ABCD
46. The voltage levels for a negative logic system:
(a) Must necessarily be negative
(b) Could be negative or positive
(c) Must necessarily be positive
(d) Must necessarily be either zero or – 5V
(RRB SSE (Shift-III), 01.09.2015)
Ans. (d) : For negative logic
Logic '0' = 5V
Logic '1' = 0V or -5V
So, we can say that logic '0' value is higher than logic '1'
for negative logic system. It may be positive or
negative, but logic '0' value should be more than logic
'1'.
52. The Boolean expression given by 57. A Nibble is equal to how many bit(s)?
XY + XY + XY is equivalent to the following. (a) 8 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 1
(a) X + Y (b) X + Y
(c) XY (d) X + Y Ans. (c) : 1 Byte = 8 bits
MPPSC AE 2017 1 Nibble = 4 bits.
MPPSC AE 2016
58. Hexa decimal equivalent value of decimal
Ans. (a) : Boolean expression, number 757.25 is
= XY + XY + XY (a) 7B2.2B (b) 2F5.40
(
= XY + X Y + Y ) (c) 3E4.60 (d) 42A.8
TSTRANSCO AE 2018
= XY+X Ans. (b) : (757.25)10 = (?)16
= (X+ X ) (X+Y) (∴ X + X = 1) To convert decimal to any other base 'r' divide the
integer part and multiply the fractional part with 'r'
= (X+Y)
16 757 5
53. EX-OR gate can work as NOT gate for the
following condition 16 47 15 = F
(a) If one input can be made equal to one ↑
16 2 2
(b) If one input can be made equal to zero
(c) By connecting both inputs together 0
(d) None of these are correct 0.25×16 = 4.00, 00×16 = 0
MPPSC AE 2016 (757.25)10 = (2F5.40)16
Ans. (a) : A ⊕ B = AB + AB 59. The complete set of only these logic gates
if A = 1 designated as universal gates is –
(a) NOR, OR and AND gates
A ⊕ B = 1B + 1B
(b) XNOR, NOR and NAND gates
= 0+B (c) NOR and NAND gates
So, if one input made equal to one. EX-OR gate works (d) XOR, NOR and NAND gates
as a NOR gate.
RPSC VPITI 2018
54. NAND gate will have low output if two inputs
WBSE TCL AE 2016
are following
(a) 00 (b) 01 Ans. (c) : The logic Gates can be classified as :
(c) 10 (d) 11 (a) Basic Gates : NOT, AND, OR
MPPSC AE 2016 (b) Universal Gates : NAND, NOR
Ans. (d) : (c) Special Purpose Gates :– EX-OR and EX-NOR.
They are used in arithmetic circuit, comparators,
code-conversion, parity generators, parity
Y = A.B checkers etc.
• NAND & NOR gates are called universal gates
Truth table-
because all other gates can be realized using
these two gates.
60. In a 2-bit half adder, the sum and the carry bits
are obtained, respectively by the
(a) NAND and OR gates
(b) AND and NOR gates
(c) NOR and EXCLUSIVE-OR gates
(d) EXCLUSIVE-OR and AND gates
55. A byte represents a group of RPSC VPITI 2018
(a) 8 bits (b) 10 bits Ans. (d) : EXCLUSIVE-OR and AND GATES
(c) 24 bits (d) 32 bits HALF ADDER
KPTCL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : 1 Byte = 8 bits
1 kilo byte = 1024 Byte
56. Converting (6B8)16 to decimal will result in
(a) (1780)10 (b) (1285)10
(c) (1720)10 (d) (1480)10
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
Ans. (c) : (6B8)16 → (?)10 Logical expression
6 × 162 + B × 161 + 8 × 160 = (1720)10 SUM = S = AB + AB Carry = AB

61. Which one of the following alphanumeric code Ans. (c) : Decimal No. = –1
is used on punched paper cards? (1)10 = 0000 0001
(a) 8-bit EBCDIC (b) 7-bit Selectric
(c) 7-bit BCDIC (d) 12-bit Hollerith
Ans. (d) : 12 bit Hollerith used alpha numeric code in
64. In a thyristor the junction temperature is 60ºC.
punched paper cards.
Thermal power flow between the junction and
A code for relating alpha numeric character to holes in heat sink is 4W. What will be the thermal
punched. resistance between junction and heat sink, if
62. For the given truth table: which of the the latter is at a temperature of 20ºC?
following circuit implements Y? (a) 15º C/Watt (b) 5º C/Watt
Inputs o/p (c) 10º C/Watt (d) 20º C/Watt
A B Y Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
0
0 0 0 Ans. (c) : Given, T j = 60 C, T = 4W, Ta = 200C
Tj − Ta
0 1 1 Thermal resistance ( θc ) =
1 0 1 T
1 1 0 60 − 20
=
4
θc= 100C/Watt
(a) 65. The equivalent decimal of the given
hexadecimal number (7BF)16 is
(a) 1983 (b) 1982
(c) 1901 (d) 2083
(b) Ans. (a) :
(7 BF )16 = 7 ×16 2 + B × 161 + F × 160
= 7 × 16 2 + 11 × 161 + 15 × 160
= 1792 + 176 + 15
= (1983)10
(c) 66. The Boolean expression AC + BC' is equivalent
to
(a) B'C + AC + BC' + A'CB'
(b) A'C + BC' + AC
(c) ABC + A'BC' + AB'C + ABC'
(d) (d) AC + BC' + B'C + ABC
Ans. (c) : ABC + A'BC' + AB'C + ABC'
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I = ABC + AB'C + A'BC' + ABC'
Ans. (d) : = AC(B + B') + (A'B + AB) C' [A' + A = 1]
A B Y = AC +{( A' + A)B} C'
0 0 0 = AC + BC'
0 1 1 67. A and B are 2 inputs of a NOR gate. If A is
1 0 1 connected to logic 0 level, what will be the
1 1 0 output Y?
Y = AB + AB (a) Y = A' (b) Y = B'
Example X - OR = Gate (c) Y = B (d) Y = A
Ans. (b) : Truth table of NOR Gate is-
Y = AB + AB
63. Converting the signed decimal –1 to 8 bit 2's
complement number will result in
(a) 000000 01 (b) 111111 10
(c) 111111 11 (d) 011111 11 If A is connected to logic 0.
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I Then Y = B'

68. Which of the following sets does not contain 73. The following expression T = XYZ + XYZ +
universal gates? XYZ can be simplified as :
(a) NOT, OR and AND Gates (a) T = XZ + XY (b) T = XZ + XY
(b) XNOR, NOR and NAND Gates
(c) NOR and NAND Gates (c) T = XZ + XY (d) T = XZ + XY
(d) XOR, NOR and NAND Gates MPPSC AE 2014
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 Ans. (a) : T = XYZ + XYZ + XYZ
Ans : (a) AND, OR, NOT gates, are not universal = XY ( Z + Z ) + XYZ
gates. with the help of these gates, universal gates are
designed. Ex. NAND gate, NOR gate. = XY + XYZ { ∵ Z+ Z =1}
69. What will be the decimal value of E7F6? = X ( Y + YZ )
(a) 63223 (b) 63462
(c) 59376 (d) 59382 = X ( Y + Y )( Y + Z ) { ∵ Y + Y = 1}
Ans. (d) : Decimal equivalent of E7F6 is- = X.1. ( Y + Z )
(E ×163 ) + (7 ×16 2 ) + (F × 161 ) + (6 × 160 ) = XY + XZ
= (14 ×163 ) + (7 × 16 2 ) + (15 × 161 ) + (6 ×160 ) 74. What number of nibbles can make one byte–
= 59382 (a) 1 (b) 2
∴ (E7F6)16 = (59382)10 (c) 4 (d) 8
70. Which of the following hexadecimal numbers is MPPSC AE 2014
just prior to F52B? Ans. (b) : In computing, a nibble is four bit. It is known
(a) E52A (b) F51B as half byte in the networking or telecommunication. A
(c) F52B (d) F52A nibble have sixteen (24) possible value.
Vizag Steel MT 2011
Ans. (d) : 1
4-binary digit = 1 nibble = byte
(F52B)16 = 11 × 160 + 2 × 161 + 5 × 162 + 15 × 163 2
8-binary digit = 1 byte = 2 nibble
= (62763)10
No. prior to 62763 is 62762 75. Excess-3 code is known as
16 62762 A (a) Weighted code
(b) Cyclic redundancy code
16 3922 2 (c) Self complimentary code
Now, (62762)10 = 16 245 5 (d) Algebraic code
16 15 F GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans. (c) :Excess-3 also called XS3 code is Non-
0 weighted code known as self complimentary code.
It is particularly significant for arithmetic operations as
∴ (62762)10 = (F52A)16 it overcomes the shortcoming encountered using the
71. Gray code for number 4 is given by ; 8421 BCD code to add two decimal digits whose sum
(a) 0111 (b) 0110 exceeds 9.
(c) 0101 (d) 0100 76. Following is the truth-table of _____ gate.
MPPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) :binary no. of 4 = 0100
then,
(a) AND (b) NAND

72. Which relation is not true in Boolean algebra? (c) OR (d) NOR
(a) A(BC) = (AB)C GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
(b) A(B + C) = AB + AC Ans. (a) :From above truth table it is clear when both
(c) A + AC = A
(d) A(A + C) = 1 input are high, output is high and if there is low at
MPPSC AE 2014 either input, the output is low. This represent AND gate
Ans. (d) : A(A + C) = 1 configuration.
L.H.S = A(A + C) 77. Following gate is an universal gate
= AA + AC = A + AC (a) AND (b) NAND
= A(1 + C) ∵(1 + C ) = 1 (c) OR (d) None of the above
=A GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
R.H.S. = 1 Ans. (b) :Any Boolean expression can be created by
L.H.S ≠ R.H.S using NOR and NAND gates only hence they are
So, option (d) is not correct. known as universal gate.

78. Following circuit will produces ____ output 81. The simplified form of the logic function A+BC
when A = 0 and B = 1. is,
(a) (A+B)(A+C)
(b) ABC
(c) AB+BC
(d) AB + ABC
(a) S = 0, C = 1 (b) S = 1, C = 0 DSSSB AE 2019
(c) S = 0, C = 0 (d) S = 1, C = 1 ESE 2015
Ans. (a) : Y = A+BC
Ans. (b) : Y = (A+B) (A+C) distribution theorem.
A=0 B=1
82. Convert BCD 0001, 0010, 0110 to binary
A =1 B = 0 (a) 1111110 (b) 1111100
Since S = A ⊕ B = AB + AB = 0.0 + 1.1 = 0 + 1 = 1 (c) 1111000 (d) 1111111
C = A.B= 0.1 = 0 Vizag Steel MT 2017
79. For the circuit shown in figure, the Boolean Ans. (a) : BCD to decimal
expression for the output y in terms of inputs 0001 0010 0110
P,Q,R and S is– ↓ ↓ ↓
(1)10 (2)10 (6)10
(126)10 in decimal.
Decimal to Binary– (1111110)2
2
126 0
2
63 1
2
31 1
2
15 1
7 2 1
3 2 1
1 2 1
0
(a) P ′ + Q ′ + R ′ + S′ (b) P + Q + R + S 83. The simplest equation which implements the K-
map shown below is.
(c) (P ′ + Q ′)(R ′ + S′ ) (d) (P + Q)(R + S) C C C
APTRANSCO AE 2011 AB
Ans. (b) : AB 0 0
AB 1 1
AB 1 1
AB 0 1
(a) X = AC+B
(b) X = AB
(c) X = ABC + ABC + ABC
(d) X =AB+ AB
Vizag Steel MT 2017
Ans. (a) :
Y = P+Q+ R +S
80. The Boolem expression
x'yz'+ x′y ′z + xyz ′ + xyz + xy ′z can be
simplified to–
(a) xz ′ + x ′z + yz (b) xz + y ′z + yz ′ X = AC+B
(c) x ′y + yz + xz (d) x ′y ′ + yz ′ + x ′z 84. Which of the following statements accurately
APTRANSCO AE 2011 represents the two BEST methods of logic
Ans. (b) : T = x ' yz '+ x ' y ' z + xyz '+ xy 'z + xyz circuit simplification?
By k-map. (a) Boolean algebra and Karnaugh mapping
(b) Karnaugh mapping and circuit waveform
analysis
(c) Actual circuit trial and error evaluation and
waveform analysis
(d) Boolean algebra and actual circuit trial and
Y = y 'z + xz + yz ' error evaluation.
Vizag Steel MT 2017
Ans. (a) : Two best methods of logic circuit Ans. (b) : Given that,
simplification are Boolean algebra and karnaugh F = (A + B) + (A + C)
mapping.
85. The digital circuit using two inverters given in F = AA + AC + AB + BC
the figure below will act as F = AC + AB + BC (BC is redundant term)
So, F = AC + AB
89. A BCD-to-7 segment decoder has 0100 on its
input. The active outputs are–
(a) an oscillator (a) a, c, f, g (b) b, c, f, g
(b) a mono-stable multivibrator (c) b, c, e, f (d) b, d, e, g
(c) an astable multivibrator UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
(d) a bistable multivibrator Ans. (b) : The common cathode type BCD to
ESE 2010 7-segment decoder-
Ans. (d) : The digital circuit using two inverters given
in the figure will act as a bistable multivibrator.
86. Difference of the two binary numbers 11011
and 01111 is
(a) 01100 (b) 01000
(c) 10100 (d) 00100
Ans. (a) : Given,
two binary numbers, 11011 and 01111
1 1 0 1 1
– 0 1 1 1 1
0 1 1 0 0
87. If the output of a logic gate is '1' when all its
inputs are logic '0', the gate is either:
(a) a NAND or a NOR
(b) an AND or an EX-NOR
Thus, A BCD-to-7 segment decoder has 0100 on its
(c) an OR or a NAND
(d) an EX-OR or an EX-NOR input. The active outputs are b, c, f, g.
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 90. The circuit shown in following figure is a–
RPSC VPITI 2016
ESE 2014
Ans. (a) : If the output of a logic gate is '1' when all its
inputs are logic '0' the gate is either a NAND or a
NOR.
NAND gate-
(a) 3-input AND gate (b) 3-input OR gate
(c) 3-input NAND gate (d) 3-input NOR gate
Ans. (a) :
NOR Gate-
It is a 3-input AND gate .

So, Y = A.B.C
88. In Boolean Algebra, if F = (A + B)(A + C) then
91. The Boolean expression (A + C + D) (B + D +
(a) F = AB + AC (b) F = AC + AB C) may be simplified as–
(c) F = AB + AB (d) F = AC + AB (a) AB + CB (b) AB + C + D
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (c) A + BC + D (d) A + B + CD
ESE 2001 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II

Ans. (b) : F = ( A + C + D )( B + D + C ) 96.Which one of the following relations from the
Boolean algebra pertaining to 'AND' operation
F = AB + AC + AD + BC + CD + BD + DC + D + C cannot be verified when A and B can take on
F = AB + AD + AC + BC + CD + C + BD + D only the value 0 or 1?
F = AB + C(1 + A + B + D) + D(1 + A + B + C) (a) AB = BA (b) AA = A
F = AB + C + D (c) A1 = 1 (d) A0 = 0
ESE 2020
92. A bulb is controlled by two switches A and B. Ans. (c) : AB = BA, AA = A and A0 = 0 can be verified
The bulb glows only when either switch A or but A1 = 1 cannot be verified as.
switch B is ON. Its Boolean expression is– A can have 0 or 1.
(a) AB + AB (b) AB + AB If A = 1 ⇒ A.1 = 1.1 ⇒ 1 True but
(c) AB + AB (d) AB + AB If A = 0 ⇒ 0.1 = 1 which is not true.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II 97. Exclusive OR logic equation is:
Ans. (c) : By truth table– (a) AB + BA (b) AB + B + A
A B Y (c) AB + B (d) AB + AB
0 0 0 PTCUL AE 2012
Ans. (d) : XOR gate
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0 equivalent to
So, Y = AB + AB
Hence, it is clear that the bulb glows only when either
switch A or switch B is ON.
93. The minimum number of 2-input NAND gates
required to construct one 4-input NAND gate
is-
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
Ans. (d) :
98. The minimum, number of NAND gates
required to implement A ⊕ B ⊕ C is :
(a) 8 (b) 10
(c) 9 (d) 6
PTCUL AE 2016
Hence, from here it is clear that 5 NAND gate will be Ans. (a) : For full adder EXOR gate with three input,
use. minimum number of NAND gate required = 8
94. The Decimal equivalent of hexadecimal 99. What logic function is produced by adding
number (E5)16 is : inverters to the inputs of an AND gate ?
(a) 279 (b) 229 (a) OR (b) NOR
(c) 427 (d) 3000 (c) NAND (d) X-OR
RPSC VPITI 2016 MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Hexadecimal number = (E5)16 Ans. (b) : NOR logic function is produce by adding
Hexadecimal to Decimal = (E5)16
inverter to the input of an AND gate shown below.
= (14 5)16 {∴ E = 14}
1 0
= 14×16 +5×16
= 224+5×1
= (229)10
95. The hexadecimal of the binary number
(11010011)2 is
(a) D316 (b) D416
(c) C316 (d) C416
ESE 2020
Ans. (a) : To convert binary number into hexadecimal,
we start from LSB binary digit and from groups of 4
binary digits. Then we write hexadecimal equivalent of 100. Which of the following operations is
each group of 4 bits. commutative but not associative ?
1101 0011 (a) AND (b) OR
D 3 (c) EX-OR (d) NAND
So, (D3)16 MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I

Ans. (d) : 106. Which of the following circuits is called latch?
• Every logic gate follows commutative law (a) AND circuit
• AND, OR, EX-OR, EX-NOR follows associative (b) NAND circuit
law, NAND, NOR does not follow associative law. (c) Flip-flop
101. What is the maximum possible number of (d) ROM circuit
symbols /characters that an ASCII code can BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
have? Ans. (c) : A flip-flop is called as latch circuit with the
(a) 8 (b) 128 combination of clock signal. Used to store one bit of
(c) 256 (d) 255 information.
AAI Junior Executive 2016 107. In constructing a K – map, the order is
Ans. (b) : ASCII code is 7 bit code. obtained by using
Maximum possible symbols = 27=128. (a) Gray code progression
102. In a staircase, two switches, A and B, control a (b) Binary coded decimal code
lamp. The Boolean expression for this circuit (c) Excess– 3 code
is.. (d) Binary code progression
UPPCL AE 2015
(a) AB + AB (b) AB + AB Ans. (a) In constructing K-map, the order is obtained by
(c) AB + AB (d) AB + AB using gray code progression.
AAI Junior Executive 2016 108. For implementing Boolean function F (A, B, C,
Ans. (a) : For staircase D) = ∑m (0, 1, 2, 4, 6, 9, 12, 14 ) using 8 : 1
AB + AB multiplexer with select lines as B, C and D.
=A⊕B Which of the following is correct?
103. The decimal value for the BCD coded number (a) I0 and I2 are A
00010010 is (b) I0 and I2 are A
(a) 6 (b) 10 (c) I1, I3 and I4 are connected to A
(c) 12 (d) 13 (d) I5, I6 and I7 connected to 0
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
(00010010)BCD = ( ?)10
0001 = 1
0010 = 2
∴ (00010010)BCD = (12)10
I0 = A
104. Which of the following illustrates the
distribution law? I1 = A + A = 1
(a) (A+B)+C = A+(B+C) = A+B+C I2 = A
(b) (A.B).C = A.(B.C) = A.B.C I3 = 0
(c) A+B = B+A
I4 = 1
(d) A.(B+C) = (A.B)+(A.C)
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI I5 = 0
Ans. (d) : Distribution law I6 = 1
A.(B+C) = (A.B)+(A.C) I7 = 0
(A+B)(C+D) = AC+AD+BC+BD 109. De Morgan’s second theorem is:-
105. The reduced form of Boolean function (a) A = 0 (b) A = A
AB + AB + AB is (c) B = 0 (d) A + B = AB
(a) A+B (b) A.B UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(c) A.B (d) A + B Ans. (d) : De Morgan's second theorem is-
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI AB = A + B
Ans. (a) : AB + AB + AB 110. The most suitable gate for comparing two bit
= B ( A + A ) + AB is:-
st (a) AND gate (b) OR gate
(Taking B common from 1 two terms)
(c) NAND gate (d) EX-OR gate
= B.1 + AB (∵ A + A = 1) UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
= B + AB (∵1.A = A) Ans. (d) : EX-OR gate is most suitable gate for
= (B + A).(B + B) comparing two bit.
[By distribution theorem A+BC = (A+B)(A+C)]
= (B+A).1
= A+B

111. The output Y of the logic circuit given below (a) 279 (b) 229
is:- (c) 427 (d) 3000
Ans. (b) : (E5)16 = E × 16 + 5 ×160
= 14 × 16 + 5 ×1
(a) 1 (b) 0 = 224+5
= (229)10
(c) X (d) X
UJVNL AE 2016 117. Decimal number –4 is represented in 2’s
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II compliment form as:-
(a) 0 1 0 0 (b) 1 0 1 1
Ans. (a) : (c) 1 1 0 0 (d) 1 0 1 0
Ans. (c) : -4 in 2's complement is,
Y =X⊕X
Y = XX + X X
Y =X+X (∵ X + X = 1)
Y=1 118. What will be the product of two binary
112. Which of the following is an invalid state in 8- numbers 1011 and 101
4–2–1 Binary coded Decimal counter:- (a) 111 111 (b) 110 111
(a) 1 0 0 0 (b) 1 0 0 1 (c) 110 100 (d) 110 110
(c) 0 0 1 1 (d) 1 1 0 0 Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II Ans. (b) :
Ans. (d) : A BCD counter can count from 0000{(0)10} 1011
to 1001{(9)10} hence 1100 {(12)10} is not a valid BCD
state. ×101
113. The following circuit is a sequential circuit : 1011
(a) AND gate 0000
(b) NAND gate
(c) Bistable multivibrator 1011
(d) EX-OR gate 110111
MPPSC AE 2014 119. A dual converter is generally used where
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II (a) Lower frequency a.c. is required
Ans. (c) : Sequential logic is a type of logic circuit (b) Reversible d.c. is required
whose output depends on the present value of its input (c) Higher frequency a.c. is required
signal and previous output. So that Bistable (d) Ripple free d.c. is required
multivibrator is sequential logic circuit. Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III
114. The output X of the OR gate show in figure is:- Ans. (b) : The dual converter is a power electronic
control system to get either polarity dc from ac
rectification by the forward converter and reverse
converter.
(a) 1 (b) 2 A dual converter is generally used where reversible dc
(c) 0 (d) 3 is required.
120. The Boolean expression X (P, Q, R) = π (0,5)
Ans. (a) :
is to be realised using only two 2-input gates.
Which are these gates?
(a) AND and OR (b) NAND and OR
X= 1+1+1 = 1 (c) AND and XOR (d) OR and XOR
Punjab PSC SDE 2017
115. The Boolean expression A (A+B) is equal to:-
(a) 1 (b) B Ans. (d) : X(P,Q,R) = π(0,5) = Σ(1,2,3,4,6,7)
(c) A (d) A+B
Ans. (c) : Boolean expression = A(A + B)
= A.A + AB
= A+AB = A(1+B)
=A
Where, 1 + B = 1.
Y = Q + PR + PR
116. Decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number
E5 is:- To realise above expression OR and XOR Gate needed.

121. The figure of merit of a logic family is given by: Ans. (b) :
(a) gain × bandwidth. NOR table
AND table
(b) propagation delay time × power dissipation.
(c) fan-out × propagation delay time. A B AB A B A+B
(d) noise margin × power dissipation 0 0 0 0 0 1
Punjab PSC SDE 2017
0 1 0 0 1 0
Ans. (b) : Figure of merit = Propagation delay × power
dissipation = tp × PD 1 0 0 1 0 0
122. A “sum” output in a half adder can be 1 1 1 1 1 0
realized by using a single two input gate which
should be:
(a) Exclusive OR gate (b) NOR gate
(c) AND gate (d) OR gate
Punjab PSC SDE 2017
So AND gate require three NOR gates.
Ans. (a) : A "sum" output in a half adder can be
realized by using a single two input gate which should 128. The circuit shown below represents a
be exclusive OR gate.
123. NAND operation with x and y inputs is:
(a) x + y (b) x + y
(c) x × y (d) ( x + y)( x + y)
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 (a) TTL (b) CMOS
Ans. (b) : NAND operation with x and y inputs is (c) Half adder (d) Full adder
NAND = x.y = x + y (Demorgan theorem). UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
124. Which of the following gates has the exact Ans. (c) : Half adder–
inverse output of the OR gate for all possible
input combinations?
(a) NOR (b) NOT
(c) NAND (d) AND
Mizoram PSC AE 2016
Ans. (a) : Inverse of OR gate is NOR gate.
For OR gate Y = A + B Sum = A⊕B
For NOR gate Y = A + B Carry = AB
125. What are the symbols used to represent digits 129. Nibble is equivalent to
in the binary number system? (a) 4 bits (b) 8 bits
(a) 0, 1 (b) 0, 1, 2
(c) 0 through 8 (d) 1, 2 (c) 2 bits (d) None of the above
Mizoram PSC AE 2016 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
Ans. (a) : In binary system only two digit 0 and 1 is Ans. (a) : Nibble is equivalent to 4 bits.
used. Where 0 represent the OFF state and '1' represent So, 4-bit binary = 1 Nibble
as ON state.
126. Byte is synonymous with 130. The minimum Boolean expression for the
(a) band (b) character following circuit is
(c) bit (d) word
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI
Ans. (b) : Byte is combination of 8 bits, which is also
called a character. e.g → 1 byte = (00000001) bit
127. The AND function can be realized by using N
number of NOR gates. The minimum value of
N is
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
(a) AB + AC + BC (b) A + BC
DSSSB AE 2019
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI (c) A + B (d) A + B + C

Ans. (d) : 133. In a half-adder having two inputs A and B and
two outputs (S and C are the sum and carry
outputs bits, respectively) the Boolean
expression for S and C in terms of A and B is
(a) S = AB + AB , C = A.B
(b) S = AB + AB, C = A + B
(c) S = AB + AB, C = A + B
(d) S = A + AB , C = A + B
ESE 1997
Ans. (a) : Half adder–
From figure–
A(B + C) + AB + (A + B)C
= AB + AC + AB + AC + BC
= AB + AB + AC + AC + BC
= B(A + A) + A(C + C) + BC Sum = A⊕B = AB + AB
= A + B + BC {∵ A + A = C + C = 1} Carry = AB
= A + (B + B)(B + C) 134. De Morgan's first theorem depicts the

By distribution theorem– equivalence of
=A+B+C (a) OR gate and Exclusive OR gate
(b) NOR gate and Bubbled AND gate
131. The Boolean expression for the shaded area in (c) NOR gate and NAND gate
the Venn diagram is (d) NAND gate and NOT gate
UPRVUNL AE 2014
Ans. (b) De Morgan's first theorem depicts equivalence
of NOR gate and bubbled AND gate-
(a) XY + YZ + ZX (b) XYZ + XYZ + XYZ

(c) XYZ + XY Z (d) ZYX + XYZ A + B = A.B
135. The output of the gated network shown in the
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II figure is
ESE 2011
Ans. (b) : XYZ + XYZ + XYZ
(a) ( AB )(CD)( EF )
(b) AB + CD + EF
132. A 4-input AND-gate is equivalent to (c) AB + CD + EF
(a) 4 switches in parallel (d) (A + B)(C + D)(E + F)
(b) 2 switches in series and 2 in parallel UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
(c) 3 switches in parallel and 1 in series Ans. (c) :
(d) 4 switches in series
Ans. (d) : A 4-input AND-gate is equivalent to 4
switches in series.

So, Y = AB.CD.EF Ans. (b) : Given, logic circuit is a half adder–
= AB + CD + EF
= AB + CD + EF
136. VHF range is between
(a) 130 - 300 MHz (b) 13 - 400 MHz
(c) 30 - 300 MHz (d) 3 - 300 MHz
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II 142. An IC comprises of 40 logic gates, each of
Ans. (c) : VHF range is 30 - 300 MHz. which consists of 5 components. This forms a
137. De Morgan's theorem state that case of
(a) SSI (b) MSI
(a) A + B = A.B and A.B = A.B (c) LSI (d) VLSI
(b) A + B = A + B and A.B = A.B UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
(c) A + B = A.B and A.B = A + B Ans. (b) : An IC comprises of 40 logic gates, each of
which consists of 5 components. This forms a case of
(d) A + B = A + B and A.B = A + B MSI.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II 143. The dual of the Boolean theorem, A. (B + C) =
Ans. (c) : De Morgan's theorem state that– A . B + A . C is
(a) A + (B + C) = A . B + A . C
A + B = A.B and A.B = A + B (b) A. (B + C) = (A + B) (A + C)
138. Which one of the following is incorrect as per (c) A + (B . C) = (A + B)(A + C)
Boolean algebra? (d) None of the above
(a) 1 + 1 = 1 (b) 1 + 0 = 1 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
(c) 0 + 0 = 0 (d) 0 + 1 = 0
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II Ans. (c) : The dual of the Boolean theorem A. (B + C)
= A . B + A . C is–
Ans. (d) : By OR-Operation Theorem–
A + (B . C) = (A + B)(A + C)
A + A = A, A + O = A, A + 1 = 1, A + A = 1
From the above can be see that 144. The output of the circuit shown below will be
0 + 1 = 0 does not correct.
139. The dual statement of the following expression
(A + 1) = 1 is
(a) A . 1 = A (b) A . 0 = 0
(c) A + A = A (d) A . A = 1
Ans. (b) : A . 0 = 0 (a) Y ( X + Z ) (b) Y ( X + Z )
140. A XOR gate produces an output only when its (c) Y ( X + Z ) (d) Y ( X + Z )
two inputs are UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
(a) high (b) low
(c) different (d) same Ans. (d) :
Ans. (c) : A XOR gate produces an output only when
its two inputs are different
Truth table of XOR Gate-
x y x⊕ y
0 0 0
145. The reduced form of Boolean expression of
0 1 1
1 0 1 ABCD + ABCD is
1 1 0 (a) ABC (b) ABD
(c) BCD (d) None of the above
141. The logic circuit gives in the figure represents
Ans. (b) : Given, Boolean expression,
ABCD + ABCD
(
= ABD C + C ) {∵ C + C = 1}
= ABD
(a) Full adder 146. The reduced form of Boolean expression of
(b) Half adder
(c) Half subtractor AB + A + AB is
(d) Boolean multiplier (a) 1 (b) AB
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 (c) 0 (d) None of the above

151. A bulb in staircase has two switches, one switch
Ans. (c) : Given, AB + A + AB = AB.A.AB being at the ground floor and the other being at
(By Demorgan's theorem) first floor. The bulb can be turned ON and also
= AB.A.AB OFF by any one of the switch irrespective of
the state of the other switch. The logic of
= AB.AB ∵ A.A = 0 switching of bulb resembles–
  (a) AND gate (b) XOR gate
=0 (c) OR gate (d) NAND gate
147. The maximum number of NAND gates UJVNL AE 2016
required to implement A + AB + ABC is equal ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015
to Ans. (b) :
(a) zero (b) 1
(c) 4 (d) 7
Ans. (a) : Given that,
A + A B + A B C = A(1 + B ) + A B C
= A + ABC
= A(1 + B C)
=A
So, the minimum number of NAND gates required to
zero. Let S1 be in 1 (ON) state. LED will turn ON for S2=0
148. In a half adder having two inputs A and B and (OFF) and will turn OFF for S2 = 1(ON)
two outputs (S and C are sum and carry output Let S1 be in 0 (OFF) state. LED will turn ON for
bits respectively). Boolean expression for S and S2 = 1(ON) and will turn OFF for S2 = 0(OFF)
C in terms of A and B is : Thus, switching of this particular nature resembles on
(a) S = A.B + A.B C = A.B XOR gates.
XOR [Exclusive – OR] gate is also called staircase or
(b) S = A.B + A.B C=A+B ladder switch. Truth table for EX-OR is as follows:
(c) S = A.B + A.B C= A+B
(d) S = A + A.B C= A+B
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans. (a) For half adder–
S = A.B + A.B Here, X = SW1, Y = SW2, OFF = 0 and ON = 1.
S=A⊕B
carry = AB
149. The minimum number of NAND gates
required to implement A + AB + AB.C is equal
to
(a) 0 (b) 1 152. In sum of the product function f(x,y,z)=∑(2, 3,
(c) 4 (d) 7 4, 5), the prime implicants are
UJVNL AE 2016 (a) XY, XY
Ans. (a) F = A + AB + ABC (b) XY, XYZ, XYZ
(
F = A 1 + B + BC ) (c) XYZ,XYZ,XY
(d) XYZ,XYZ,XYZ,XYZ
F=A UJVNL AE 2016
So, to implement A, zero NAND Gates are required. Ans. (a) f(x, y, z) = ∑(2, 3, 4, 5)
150. Dual of the Boolean expression A.(B + C) = A.B Prime implicants is obtained by combining maximum
+ A.C possible cells.
(a) A + (B + C) = A.B + A.C
(b) A.(B + C) = (A + B).(A.C)
(c) A + B.C = (A + B).(A+C)
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans. (c) Dual of the Boolean expression Prime implicants are XY, XY .
A.( B + C ) = A.B. + A.C is 153. The hexadecimal equivalent of binary number
11101101 is
A + ( BC ) = ( A + B ) .( A + C ) (a) BC (b) DC
(c) ED (d) EA
A + BC = ( A + B ) .( A + C ) UJVNL AE 2016
Ans. (c) (11101101) A full adder can be implemented by two H.A. and one
In hexa decimal OR gate.
So, full adder circuit consists of XOR and AND, OR
gate.
157. In the figure below, as long as X1 = 1 and X2 =
1, the output Q remains
(a) at one (b) at zero

(c) at its initial value (d) unstable
(1110 1101)2 → (ED)16 BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015
154. Which of these sets of logic gates are designated Ans. (d)
as universal gates?
(a) NOR, NAND
(b) OR, NOT, AND
(c) NOR, NAND, XNOR
(d) XOR, NOR, NAND
JUVNL AE 2017
GESCOM AE 2011
Ans. (a) : A universal gate is a gate which can
implement any Boolean function without need to use
any other gate type. the NAND and NOR gates are Q = X1.X3
universal gates.
X3 = X 2 Q
By De Morgan's law-
X3 = X 2 + Q
(
Q = X1 X 2 + Q ) {∵ XX ==11}
1
2
Q=Q
Here if Q = 1 Q = 0
& Q = 0 Q =1
Hence circuit is unstable
158. The range of signed decimal numbers that can
155. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of decimal be represented by 5 bits 1's complement
number 155? number is:
(a) 90 (b) 9A (a) –31 to 31 (b) –15 to 15
(c) 9C (d) None of these (c) –63 to 63 (d) –7 to 7
GESCOM AE 2011 UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
Ans. (d) : (155)10→(?)HD
(155)10 = (9B)16 Ans. (b) Range of 1's complement number
156. Implementation of a full adder circuit consists = - ( 2 − 1) to + ( 2 − 1)
n −1 n −1
of: n = 5 bits
(a) X-OR, AND, OR (b) NOT, AND, NOR
(c) AND, OR, X-NOR (d) X-OR, AND, NOT = - ( 2 − 1) to ( 2 − 1)
4 4
DMRC AM 2018 (16–1) to (16–1)

Ans. (a) : = -15 to +15
159. Simplified form for the Boolean expression
Y = ( A + B ) ( A + B ) + ( AB ) + A ?
(a) A
(b) AB
(c) B
(d) A+B
Ans. (a) : Y = ( A + B ) ( A + B ) + AB + A
(a) 7, 2 (b) 6, 2
(c) 7, 1 (d) 6, 1
DMRC AM 2020
 using transposition theorem Ans. (a) : Given that,
 f(A, B, C, D) = ∑ m ( 0,1, 4,6,7,8,10,14,15 )
= A + BB + AB.A ∵( A + B )( A + C ) = A + BC
Prime Implicants (PI) -A group of square or rectangle

∵B = 1, AA = 0,1 + B = 1 made up of bunch of adjacent minterms which is
( )
allowed by definition of K-map are called prime
= A + A + B .A implicants (PI).
Essential Prime implicants (EPI)- These are those
= A + AA + AB groups which cover atleast one minterm that can't be
= A + AB covered by any other prime implicants called essential
= A (1+ B) prime implicants (EPI).
=A
160. If function ƒ(A, B) = ∑m(0,1,2,3) is
implemented using SOP form, the resultant
Boolean function would be:
(a) A + B
(b) A + B
(c) AB
(d) 1
Ans. (d) : f ( A, B ) = ∑ m ( 0,1, 2,3)
So, the number of prime implicants (PI) = 7

f ( A, B ) = ∑ m ( 0,1, 2,3) and the number of essential prime implicants (EPI) = 2
Sum of products back tracing = m0 + m1 + m2 + m2 Thus, option (a) is correct.
= AB + AB + AB + AB 164. What is the value of (64)16 + (80)10 ?
= A ( B + B) + A ( B + B) (a) (180)10 (b) (76)10
(c) (164)10 (d) (100)10
=A+A DMRC AM 2020
=1
Ans. (a) : (64)16 + (80)10 = ?
161. What is the decimal number for 10101? Convert hex value into decimal value,
(a) 21 (b) 22 (6 × 161 + 4 × 160)10 + (80)10 = (100)10 +(80)10
(c) 28 (d) 91 = (180)10
165. The gray code for decimal number 6 is
Ans. (a) : (10101)2 → (21)10
equivalent to
10101 → 1 × 2 4 + 0 × 23 + 1× 2 2 + 0 × 21 + 1× 20 (a) 1100 (b) 1001
= 16 + 0 + 4 + 0 + 1 (c) 0101 (d) 0110
= 21 Vizag Steel MT 2013
162. Which gate is known as inverter gate? Ans. (c) : Binary equivalent of decimal number 6 is
(a) AND (b) OR = 0110
(c) NOT (d) NAND
Ans. (c) : NOT gate is also known as inverted gate.
Symbol and truth table of a NOT gate are given below–
163. Identify the number of prime implicants and 166. The Octal equivalent of the HEX number
essential prime implicants for the function AB.CD is:
(a) 253.314 (b) 253.632
f(A, B, C, D) = ∑ m ( 0,1, 4, 6, 7, 8,10,14,15 )
(c) 526.314 (d) 526.632
(where 'm' represents minterms) OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
Ans. (b) : 169. An AND gate:
A – 1010 (a) Implements logic addition
B – 1011 (b) Gives high output only when all inputs are
C – 1100 low
D – 1101 (c) Is equivalent to a series switching circuit
Now AB.CD (d) Is equivalent to a parallel switching circuit
010 101 011 110 011 010 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
= . Ans. (c) :
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
2 5 3 6 3 2
Octal equivalent
= 253.632
167. Which of the following subtractions results in
F16?
1. (BA)16 – (AB)16
2. (BC)16 – (CB)16 An AND gate give high output only when all the inputs
3. (CB)16 – (BC)16 are high and perform or say implement logical
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3 multiplication.
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Let us consider a circuit with two switch
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II Let S1 and S2 be 2 switch and connected in series now,
Ans. (b) : (BA) 16 – (AB)16 when, S1 and S2 are closed then only bulb will glow. In
= (11×161 +10×160) – (10×161+11×160) same way AND is a series switching circuit giving high
= (176 +10) – (160+11) output when both input are high.
= 186 – 171 170. The number 43 in 2's compliment
= 15 = (F)16 representation is:
and (BC)16 – (CB)16 (a) 01010101 (b) 11010101
= (11×161+12×160) – (12×161 + 11×160) (c) 00101011 (d) 10101011
= 188 – 203 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
= -15 = (-F)16 Ans. (c) : In 2's complement representation, positive
and (CB)16 – (BC)16 numbers are represented as their binary representation
= (12×161 + 11×160) – (11×161+12×160) and negative number are represented by first doing 1's
= 203 – 188 = 15 = (F)16 complement, then adding 1 to the result.
Thus, option (1) and (3) are correct. So, 43 is a positive number.
168. The NAND –NAND realization is equal to: 43 in 2's compliment representation is 00101011.
(a) AND-NOT realization Positive number need not be complement in 2's
compliment representation.
(b) AND-OR realization
(c) OR- AND realization 171. The following Boolean expression
(d) NOT-OR realization ( )(
Y = A +B +C A + B + C )
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II can be realised using:
Ans. (b) : (a) one AND gate
(b) one NOT gate and one OR gate
(c) one NOT gate and one AND gate
(d) one OR gate
LMRC AM 2018
(
Ans. (b) : Y = A + B + C ) ( A + B + C)
= AA + AB + AC + BA + BB + BC + CA + CB + C C
= A + AB + AC + BA + B + BC + CA + CB
= A + AB + AC + CA + B + BC + BC
= A (1 + B + C + C ) + B (1 + C + C )
=A+B {∵ XX = 0, 1 + X = 1, X + X = 1}
Now, draw the logical diagram,
bubbled input of OR gate will results a NAND gate and

compliment of AND gate is a NAND gate. Therefore,
NAND-NAND realization is equivalent to AND –OR Thus, we can be realized using, one NOT gate and one
realization. OR gate.

172. Simplified form of the Boolean expression Y = Ans. (c) : All the inputs are 1
A BC + A(B)C + (A)BC is: Truth table for 3-inputs NAND gate.
Input Output
(a) Y = C(A + B) (b) Y = C(A + B)
A B C Y = A.B.C
(c) Y = C(A + B) (d) Y = C(A + B)
0 0 0 1
LMRC AM 2018 0 0 1 1
Ans. (c) :Y = A BC + A(B)C + (A)BC 0 1 0 1
By using K-map, 0 1 1 1
1 0 0 1
1 0 1 1
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0
Thus, output of NAND gate is 0 for three inputs
when, all the inputs are 1.
176. Octal equivalent of the binary (100111010)2 is.
(a) (472)8 (b) (482)8
Y= A C + C B
(c) (572)8 (d) (1472)8
(
Y= C A + B ) (e) (432)8
CGPSC AE 2017
(
Y = C A +B ) Ans. (a) : To convert binary into octal
173. Addition of the hexadecimal numbers → First we make pair of 3 bits from LSB
(DEF.12) and (12EF.C) gives: → Then we write octal equivalent of each pair
16 16
(a) (20DE.E2)16 (b) (20DE.D2)16
(c) (20DE.C2)16 (d) (20DE.B2)16
LMRC AM 2018
Ans. (b) : Addition of the hexadecimal numbers
(DEF.12)16 and (12EF.C)16 = (DEF.12)16 + (12EF.C)16
= (20DE.D2)16. so, (472)8
174. A logic circuit that provides a HIGH output if 177. The following circuit represents:
one input but not both, is HIGH, is:
(a) OR gate (b) NOT gate
(c) Ex-OR gate (d) Ex-NOR gate
CIL MT 2017
Ans. (c) : In Ex-OR gate the output is high only if either
of input is high otherwise the output is low. See Truth
Table
(a) AND (b) NOR

(c) XOR (d) NAND
C = A ⊕ B = AB + BA (e) XNOR
A B C CGPSC AE 2017
0 0 0
Ans. (c) : output of 1st AND Gate Y' = AB
0 1 1
Output of 2nd AND Gate Y'' = A B
1 0 1
1 1 0 output of OR Gate Y= AB + AB
so, it is EXOR gate.
175. Output of NAND gate is 0, for three inputs
when: 178. Octal number system representation of (1A7)16
(a) one of the input is 1 is.
(b) none or the input is 1 (a) (1647)8 (b) (647)8
(c) (657)8 (d) (667)8
(c) all the inputs are 1
(e) (646)8
(d) two of the inputs is 1
CGPSC AE 2017
CIL MT 2017
Ans. (b) : (1A7)16, first of all, convert this number in its Ans. (b) : G1 = A.B
Binary equivalent, so we get:- G2 = CD
= 1A7 G3 = BC
0001 1010 0111 → 000 110 100 111
G4 = ACD
1 A 7 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ G5 = G2 + G3 = BC + CD
0 6 4 7 G6 = G5 + G1 = AB ( BC + CD )
Hence (1A7)16 = (647)8 G7 = G6 + G4
179. Simplify the following Boolean function. = AB ( BC + CD ) + ACD
Y = ABCD + ABCD + ABCD + ABCD
(a) Y = CD (b) Y = A D
(
= ABBC + ABCD + ACD )
(c) Y = BD (d) Y = A D ∵1 + D = 1 
= ABC (1 + D ) + ACD  
(e) Y = BD  B.B = B 
CGPSC AE 2017 = ABC + ACD
Ans. (e) : Y = ABCD + ABCD + ABCD + ABCD 182. The Complementary Coded Decimal (CCD)
Y = ABCD + ABCD + ABCD + ABCD code for decimal 325 is :
( )
Y = ABD C + C + ABD C + C ( ) (a) 1101 1010 1100
(b) 1100 1010 1101
Y = ABD + ABD (c) 1111 1010 1101
(d) 1100 1101 1010
(
Y = BD A + A )
∵X + X = 1
 BHEL ET 2019
Y = BD Ans. (d) : Complementary coded Decimal code (CCD)
180. Determine the complement of the following for:-
function. 3 2 5
Y = AB + A(B + C) + B(B + C) ↓ ↓ ↓
0011 0010 0101 BCD equivalent
(a) Y = B + AC (b) Y = B + AC 1100 1101 1010 1's complement
(c) Y = B AC ( ) ( )
(d) Y = B + AC
Note-1's complement means all 1 are converted into 0
and all 0 are converted into 1.
(e) Y = B(A + C) 183. The BCD code for decimal 325 is :
CGPSC AE 2017 (a) 0011 0010 0101
(b) 1111 1010 1101
Ans. (c) : Y = AB + A ( B + C) + B( B + C) (c) 1101 1010 1100
Y = AB + AB + AC + B.B + BC (d) 1100 1010 1101
∵ 1 + C = 1  BHEL ET 2019
= AB+AC+B (1 + C)
 B.B = B Ans. (a) : BCD code for 325
= AB+AC+B 3 2 5
0011 0010 0101
= (A+1) B+AC
184. The logic equation of an EX-NOR gate having
= B+AC A and B as its input is:
Complement (a) A'B' + AB' (b) A'B' + AB
Y = B + AC (c) A'B + AB' (d) A'B' + A'B
Y = B AC( ) BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (b) :EX-NOR Gate- It is also called "Gate of
181. Find the simplified Boolean function for the equivalence or coincidence logic"
following circuit. Input Output
A B Y=A ⊙ B
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
(a) X = ACD + ABC (b) X = ACD + ABC Equation of output

(c) X = D + ABC (d) X = AC + ABC Y = A⊙B= A⊕B
(e) X = AD + ABC = AB + AB
CGPSC AE 2017 = AB + AB
185. Representation of (–20)10 in two's complement Ans. (b) :
form is :
(a) 101111 (b) 101100
(c) 101110 (d) 110001
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (b) : Representation of (-20)10 in two's
complement.
So,
( )
X = AB + C .B.C
(
= AB.C .BC)
186. A logic variable in either inverted or non-
 using Demorgan's theorem
inverted form is called : ( )
= AB.C B.C  
(a) prime-implicant (b) minterm  AB = A + B 
(c) maxterm (d) literal = ( A + B ) BC
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (d) : Literal is a variable or complement of a = ABC + BBC ∵ BB = 0
variable used in boolean functions representation of = ABC
digital generally for a boolean function with N variables
190. Identify the Boolean for the given switching
there can be 2N literals possible. circuit.
187. The equivalent decimal number of (0.4051)8 is :
(a) 0.5100098 (b) 0.6100018
(c) 0.4100028 (d) 0.70108
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (a) : Equivalent decimal number (0.4051)8
= 4×8-1+0×8-2+5×8-3+1×8-4
= 0.5+0+5×.001953+0.000244 (a) (A + B) C (b) A (B + C)
(c) A + B + C (d) ABC
= 0.5+0.009665+0.000244 UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
= 0.5100098
Ans. (b) : When two switch connected in parallel is
188. Simplify the Boolean function: known as OR gate. OR gate represent as addition.
(A + B) (A + C)
(a) AC + B (b) AB + C
(c) ABC (d) A +BC
Ans. (d) : Let Y = (A+B) (A+C)
= AA+AC+AB+BC (∵ AA = A )
= A + AC + AB + BC
= A(1+C)+AB+BC ∵1 + C = 1 When switch connected in series is known as AND gate
= A+AB+BC AND gate represent as multiplication
=A(1+B)+BC ∵1+ B = 1 So, Both combination will be-
=A+BC
189. Find the output Boolean function for the logic
circuit.
Y = A(B+C)
191. Simplify the Boolean function:
( A + B) ( A + B) ( A + C)
(a) X= ABC (b) X= ABC (a) AB (b) AC
(c) X= ABC (d) X= ABC (c) AB (d) BC
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II

Ans. (b) : (A+B) (A+ B ) A + C ( ) 194. Given digital circuit behaves as an:
= ( A.A + A.B + B.A + B.B )( A + C )
= ( A + A ( B + B ) + B.B ) ( A + C ) (∵ A.A = A )
∵ B + B = 1
( )
= ( A + A (1) + 0 ) A + C 
∵ B.B = 0 
 
(
= (A + A) A + C )
(a) OR gate (b) XOR gate
= A ( A + C) (c) NOR gate (d) NAND gate
= AA + AC UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
= 0 + AC Ans : (b)
= AC
192. What could be the rank R of a matrix Am×n, if
m < n, and A is not a null matrix?
(a) 1 < R ≤ n (b) 0 < R ≤ n
(c) 0 < R ≤ m (d) 1 < R ≤ m
Ans. (d) : For any matrix A, Rank (A) ≤ Rank (A) min
(m, n)
i.e. maximum Rank of Am×n = min(m, n)
so, 1<Rank ≤ m
only null matrix can have a rank of zero. All other
matrixes have rank of at least one.
193. Find suitable option for the given k-map
Z (output) = xy + xy = x ⊕ y
The output is XOR Gate and it's symbolic
representation is given : when x and y are two inputs:
195. A combination circuit is described by a

function as the sum of min-terms. The function
is defined as f(A,B,C) = ∑ m(0,1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)
(a) QR + S (b) QR + S
A is the MSB and C is the LSB. The minimized
(c) QR + S (d) QR + S expression of the function is
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I (a) ABC (b) B + C
Ans : (a)
(c) A+ B+C (d) A + B + C
Ans : (d) Solving the K-Map:-
We have here 3-quads, so the Minimized expression of

So the output expression for karnaugh map is this function is:-
(S + QR ) . Y = A+ B+C

196. The minimized form of the function, F, which 1100 11011010 1011
is shown in the figure, is CD.AB =
C D A B
Now, paring in three to convert this binary into octal,
5 2 6
011 001101. 101 010 110
3 1 5
(a) XY + YZ + ZX (b) YZ + XY + XZ CD.AB = (315.526)8
(c) YZ + XZ (d) X + ZY 199. What is the 2’s Complement of binary number
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II 0010 0110 1001 1101?
Ans. (b): After solving the K-map pairing or making (a) 0010 0110 1001 1110
quads, the table is reduced in following from: - (b) 1101 1001 0110 0010
(c) 1101 1001 0110 1101
(d) 1101 1001 0110 0011
Ans. (d) :
We know that: 2’s complement = 1’s complement + 1
So, 1’s complement of 0010 011010011101 is:-
1101100101100010.
Therefore 2’s complement is:-
1101100101100010
Now simplifying the function F +1
F = YZ + XY + XZ 1101 100101100011
197. What is simplified Boolean equation of a logic 200. What is the output of XOR gate with A and B
circuit. If the circuit output is 1 for following as input?
inputs? (a) AB + AB (b) (A + B)(A + B)
ABCD = 0010
ABCD = 0110 (c) (A + B)AB (d) (A + B) + AB
ABCD = 1000 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
ABCD = 1100 Ans. (c) :
And output is zero for all other inputs Logic gate diagram of XOR gate is given as:
(a) ACD + ACD (b) ACD + ACD
(c) ACD + ACD (d) ACD + ACD
Ans. (a) : Given that:-
ABCD = 0010
ABCD = 0110 Logic symbol of XOR gate is
ABCD = 1000
ABCD = 1100
Then, express in k-map in term of 4 variable.
Y = AB + BA
Now taking option (c),
Y = (A + B)AB
( )
Y = (A + B) A + B = AA + AB + BA + BB
Y = AB + BA (Since,AA = BB = 0)
So, option (c) is correct.
201. The truth table-
simplied equation = ACD + ACD

198. What is the octal equivalent of hexadecimal
number CD.AB?
(a) 320.506 (b) 215.546
(c) 205.516 (d) 315.526
Ans. (d) : Represent the Boolean function
Given: (a) X (b) X–Y
Hexadecimal number CD.AB (c) X+Y (d) Y
First converting hexadecimal to binary, ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015

Ans. (a) : 203. Which of the following Boolean algebra rules is
correct?
(a) A.A = 1 (b) A + AB = A + B
(c) A + AB = A + B (d) A(A + B) = B
Ans. (c) : As property-
For option (a) X A.A = 0 {
∵ A+A =1 }
A + AB = A(1 + B) = A
A + AB = (A + A)(A + B) = (A + B)
A(A + B) = A + AB (since, AA = A)
A(A + B) ≠ B
204. In an all NOR gate realisation of a
For option (b) X - Y combinational circuit all EVEN and ODD level
gates behave like–
(a) OR and AND (b) AND and OR
(c) OR and NOT (d) NOR and AND
Ans. (b) : All NOR gate realisation represents a product
For option (c) X + Y of sum (POS) form, which behaves like OR-AND
circuit. On the other hand, all NAND gate circuit
behaves like AND-OR as it represents SOP form. Since
it is asked EVEN level and ODD level gates, then ODD
being 1st level, all NOR gates will act as AND and 2nd
or EVEN level gates will be acting as OR.
For option (d) Y 205. The logical expression, AB C + A BC + A B C is
equivalent to
(a) A (B + C) (b) A + B + C
(c) A B C (d) A( C + B )
ESE 2017
According to the truth table, the Boolean function Ans. (d) : ABC + ABC + ABC
F(x, y) is X.
202. The logic evaluated by the circuit at the output
( )
= AC B + B + ABC
is- = AC + ABC ∵B + B = 1
 
(
= A C + BC )
= A ( C + B) ( C + C ) ∵ C + C = 1
 
= A ( C + B)
(a) XY + YX (b) XY + XY
206. What is the octal equivalent of (5621.125)10?
(c) (X + Y)XY (d) XY + XY + X + Y (a) 11774.010 (b) 12765.100
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 (c) 16572.100 (d) 17652.010
Ans. (a) : ESE 2017
Truth table of the given circuit is as follows: Ans. (b) : For integer part
The output of the given logic circuit is as shown in the

following diagram:
for decimal part 0.125 × 8 = 1

Hence, (5621.125)10 = (12765.100)8

207. What is the hexadecimal representation of 210. The decimal equivalent of binary number
(657)8 ? 1001.101 is
(a) 1 AF (b) D 78 (a) 9.750 (b) 9.625
(c) D 71 (d) 32 F
ESE 2017 (c) 10.750 (d) 10.625
ESE 2019
 
Ans. (a) : (657)8 =  11010 1111 Ans. (b) : Given binary number = 1001.101
 2 1001.101 = 23×1+22 × 0 + 21 × 0 + 20 × 1 + 2-1 × 1 + 2-2
= (1 AF)16 × 0 + 2-3 × 1
208. The Truth table for the function f(ABCD) =
1 1
Σm(0, 1, 3, 4, 8, 9) is =9+ +
A B C f 2 8
0 0 0 W = 9.625
0 0 1 X
0 1 0 Y 211. Convert decimal 41.6875 into equivalent
0 1 1 0 binary:
1 0 0 Z
(a) 100101.1011 (b) 100101.1101
1 0 1 0
1 1 0 0 (c) 101001.1011 (d) 101001.1101
1 1 1 0 ESE 2019
Where W, X, Y, Z are given by (d is the Ans. (c) :
complement of D)
(a) D, d, 1, 1 (b) 1, d, D, 1
(c) 1, 1, D, d (d) 1, D, d, 1
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : We see the given truth table and function f
can be written as
F = A BC W + A BC X + A BC Y + ABC Z
The given function is :-
f(A, B, C, D) = Σm(0, 1, 3, 4, 8, 9)
It can be simplified using the K-map as follows :- (41)10 = (101001)2
⇒ 0.6875 × 2 = 1.375 = 1
⇒ 0.375 × 2 = .75 = 0
⇒ 0.75 × 2 = 1.5 = 1
⇒ 0.5 × 2 = 1.0 = 1
(0.6875)10 = (1011)2
Hence (41.6875)10 = (101001.1011)2
212. If a negative binary number is to be
represented by n-bits, then the standard format
will be
F = A BC + A BC D + A BC D + A BC (a) Sign bit '0' on left and magnitude on right
Comparing the above function from the function (b) Sign bit '1' on left and magnitude on right
obtained from truth table. (c) Sign bit '0' on right and magnitude on left
We get : W = 1 (d) Sign bit 'T' on right and magnitude on left
X=D
ESE 2020
Y =D= d
Z=1 Ans. (b) : To represent signed binary number, MSB
209. The decimal value of signed binary number indicates the sign and remaining bits represent
11101000 expressed in 1's complement is magnitude.
(a) -223 (b) -184
(c) -104 (d) -23
ESE 2019
Ans. (d) : Given binary number is in 1's complement
form Positive sign bit is 0 and negative sign bit is 1.
1101000 213. The Boolean expression A =Z(Y+Z) (X+Y+Z)
00010111 ← 1's complement can be simplified to.
(23)10 = Magnitude
MSB of given Binary number is 1 hence it is -ve (a) X (b) Y
number (-23)10. (c) Z (d) XY
MPPSC AE 2017
Ans. (c) : A = Z (Y + Z) (X + Y + Z) 3. Two signal 5 kHz and 8 kHz are multiplexed.
A = (Z .Y + Z.Z) (X + Y + Z) The required channel bandwidth will be–
A = (ZY + Z) (X + Y + Z) (a) 16 kHz (b) 10 kHz
A = Z(Y + 1) (X + Y + Z) (c) 19 kHz (d) 12 kHz
A = Z(X + Y + Z) UPPCL AE 2013
Ans. (a) :
∵ l + P =1  Bandwidth (ωm) = 2 × fm (maximum frequency)
A = XZ + YZ + Z.Z  
 P.P. =P  = 2 × 8 kHz
A = XZ+YZ+Z ωm = 16 kHz
A = Z(X+Y+1) 4. In digital multiplexer, T1 carrier system is
A=Z designed to accommodate,
214. Logic circuits are (a) 12 Voice Channels primarily for short
(a) analog circuits (b) digital circuits distance
(c) hybrid circuits (d) None of the above (b) 24 Voice Channels for short distance
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I (c) 48 Voice Channels for short distance
(d) 64 Voice Channels for short distance
Ans. (b) : Logic circuit are digital circuit because logic
TNPSC AE 2019
circuits perform logical operation. Such as multiplexers,
registers, arithmetic logic units and memory. Ans. (b) : In digital multiplexer, T1 carrier system is
designed to accommodate 24 Voice Channels for short
The "logic" part refers to the fact that the circuit should distance.
be functioning according to a set of rules (Boolean
logic)that dictate correct (and "logical") response of the 5. In general, a multiplexer has
(a) One data input, several data outputs and
circuit to do its intended work. selection inputs
215. AND-OR realization is equivalent to (b) One data input, one data output and one
(a) NAND-NAND (b) NOR-NOR selection input
(c) OR-AND (d) None of the above (c) Several data inputs, several data outputs and
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I selection inputs
Ans. (a) : AND-OR realization is equivalent to NAND- (d) Several data inputs, one data output and
NAND. because bubbled inputs of OR-Gate will results
selection inputs
a NAND Gate and complement of AND Gate is a
MPPSC AE 2016
NAND Gate.
Ans. (d) : A multiplexer is a digital circuit which has
one output and several data input.
(ii) Combinational Logic Circuit
1. Given two half adders, what extra 2-input gate
is required to build a full adder?
(a) NOR gate (b) XOR gate
(c) OR gate (d) AND gate
TANGEDCO AE 2018
Ans. (c) :
6.
For the conversation of parallel to series data,
following device can be used:
(a) Demultiplexer (b) Multiplexer
(c) Decoder (d) Counter
∴ To convert 2 half adder (HA) into full adder an OR MPPSC AE 2016
gate is required. Ans. (b) : A combinational circuit that selects one from
2. In a multiplexer, the numbers of selection lines many input is known as multiplexer. In multiplexer
are n. The size of multiplexer is- different input are inserted parallely and then it gives
(a) n2 × n (b) n × 1 one output which is in serial form
(c) 1 × 2n (d) 2n × 1
UPPCL AE 2013
Ans. (d) : • Multiplexer is a combinational circuit
which have many data input and single data output
depending on select or control input.
• There are 2n input lines where 'n' is the number of
select lines.
∴ Size of multiplexer is 2n × 1.

7. How many 3-line-to-8-line decoders are Ans. (c) : A full substractor can be construct from two
required for a 1-of-32 decoder? half substractor by the following process–
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 8
Vizag Steel MT 2017
Ans. (c) : 3- line-to-8 line decoders are requires for 4,
1-of-32 decodes.
8. A full adder can be implemented with half
adders and OR gates. A 4-bit parallel full
adder without any initial carry requires –
(a) 8 half adders, 4 OR gates
(b) 8 half adders, 3 OR gates Thus, a full substractor can be constructed from 2-HS
(c) 7 half adders, 4 OR gates (half substractor) and a 2 input OR gate.
(d) 7 half adders, 3 OR gates 12. In order to make a 2-bit adder following is
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II required :-
Ans. (d) : A full adder can implemented by two half (a) One full and one half adder
adders and one OR gates and a 4-bit parallel full adder (b) One full adder
without any initial carry can be implemented by 7 half (c) Two half adders
adders and 3 OR gates. (d) One half adder
9. A multiplexer has n data inputs, m control UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
inputs and one data output, then - Ans. (a) : In order to make a 2-bit adder is required one
(a) 2m = n (b) 2n = m full adder and one half adder.
(c) mn = 2 (d) n2 = m 13. A multiplexer is a
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (a) combinational circuit
Ans. (a) : (b) flip-flop
(c) sequential circuit
(d) comparator
Ans. (a) : A multiplexer is a combinational circuit a
multiplexer is a circuit which can deliver single output
from multiple inputs. The inputs to a multiplexer circuit
may be analog or digital. A multiplexer is useful for
sending large amount of signal over a network with a
lower bandwidth and time than an equivalent circuit
The relation between data input & control line- without multiplexer.
14. In a full adder there are...................
2m = n
(a) two binary number inputs and two outputs.
Where, m = no. of control lines (b) three binary digit inputs and two binary
n = no. of data input outputs.
10. A full adder circuit has– (c) three binary digit inputs and three binary digit
(a) two inputs and one output outputs
(b) two inputs and two outputs
(d) two binary number inputs and three binary
(c) three inputs and one output
digit outputs
(d) three inputs and two outputs
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II AAI Junior Executive 2016
Ans. (b) : A full adder circuit has two inputs and two Ans. (b) : In a full adder there are 3 binary digit input
outputs and one carry input. Carry input does not and two outputs.
consider as input so two inputs and two outputs are 15. A 32 to 1 multiplexer has the following
present. features.
(a) 32 inputs, one output and 5 control signals
11. A full substractor can be constructed from two
half substractors and a – (b) 32 outputs, one input and 5 control signals
(a) 2-input NAND gate (b) 2-input NOR gate (c) 5 inputs, one control signal and 32 outputs
(c) 2-input OR gate (d) 2-input AND gate (d) 5 inputs 32 control signals and one output
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014

Ans. (a) : A multiplexer is a combinational circuit Ans. (d) :
which have many data input and single output
depending on select (or) control input.
• There are 2n input lines where 'n' is the number of
select line and only one output line. Y = S B + SB
∴ A 32 × 1 MUX has 32 input lines Y = A B + AB
( )
5 control signals ∵ 25 = 32 Ex - OR gate
& 1 output Y = A⊕B
16. Number of 16×1 MUX required to cons-truct = AB + AB
64 × 1 MUX is Thus, 2:1 multiplexer block is a an Ex-OR gate.
(a) 7 (b) 4 20. A full-adder can be realized using
(c) 6 (d) 5 (a) one half-adder and two OR gate
UPPCL AE 2015 (b) two half-adder and one OR gate
Ans. (d) Number of 16×1 MUX required to cons-truct (c) two half-adder and two OR gate
64 (d) one half-adder and one OR gate
64 × 1 MUX is +1 = 5 .
16 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
17. How many 3-line to 8-line decoders are Ans. (b) : A full-adder can be realized using two half-
required for a 1 of 32 decoder? adder and one OR gate.
(a) 1 (b) 2 21. For a free running multivibrator, an external
(c) 4 (d) 8 trigger is employed –
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II (a) always (b) never
Ans. (c) : The 3 input data lines used as common lines (c) if output voltage is to be regulated
for the 4-decoder of 8 outputs. Thus, one could have a (d) if frequency stabilization is required
total of 4 × 8 = 32 outputs UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
Hence, one needs 4 a 3-line to 8 line decoders. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
OR Ans. (d) : For a free running multivibrator an external
3×8- decoder →1×32 decoder trigger is employed if frequency stabilization is
32 required. Hence to change the stable stages of
No. of decoders required = =4
8 multivibrator, triggering is required.
18. What are the output bit s (sum) and c (carry) of 22. The minimum number of 2 to 1 multiplexers
a Half adder having Input A=1 and B=1? required to realize an 8 to 1 Multiplexer is :
(a) 1, 1 (b) 1, 0 (a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 0, 1 (d) 0,0 (c) 7 (d) 10
Ans. (c) : Half adder adds two binary digits and Ans. (c) : The minimum number of 2 to 1 multiplexers
produces two binary outputs called sum and carry. required to realize an 8 to 1 Multiplexer is-
Number of 2 × 1 multiplexers required = 2n – 1
∵ 8 × 1 = 23 × 1
∴ n=3
Therefore, number of 2 × 1 multiplexers required
= 2n – 1
Input Sum Carry = 23 – 1
A B S C =7
0 0 0 0 23. The realization of Full adder circuit is done by
0 1 1 0 using ______
(a) two half adder & one OR gate
1 0 1 0 (b) one half adder & one OR gate
1 1 0 1 (c) one half adder & two OR gate
S = A ⊕ B S = AB + AB (d) two OR gate
C = AB APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
19. The following 2:1 multiplexer block Ans. (a) : Two half adder & one OR gate.
implements? 24. The purpose of an 'enable input' on a
multiplexer chip is:
(a) active the entire chip
(b) activate one half of the chip
(c) apply Vcc
(a) An AND gate (b) An Ex-NOR gate
(d) To reset chip
(c) An OR gate (d) An Ex-OR gate
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
Ans. (a) : Enable input is used to active the chip, when 16
Ans. (a) : No. of MUX = =8
enable is high the chip works (ACTIVATE), when 2
enable is low the chip does not work (MEMORY). 8
However enable can be Active-High or Active-Low =4
2
indicating it is active either when it is connected to Vcc 4
or GND respectively. =2
2
25. An JK flip flop can be converted to T flip flop 2
by connecting? =1
2
(a) J to Q (b) K to Q ∴ Total number of 2 × 1 MUX required to implement
(c) J to K (d) J to Q 16×1 MUX = 8 + 4 + 2 + 1
= 15
29. A switch tail ring counter is made by using a
Ans. (c) : A T-flip-flop is basically a J-K Flip-flop. In single D-FF. The resulting circuit is :
this circuit input terminals J and K are connected with (a) T-FF (b) D-FF
each other and this input is named as T. (c) SR-FF (d) JK-FF
APTRANSCO AE 2017
Ans. (a) : A switch tail-ring counter is also called as
Johnson counter or twisted so, when we used single D-
(a) circuit diagram of Triggered T-Flip-Flop FF the inverted output of D-FF is given to input as itself
so, it behave like T-FF. Thus, a switch tail ring counter
26. An SR flip flop can be converted to JK flip flop
is made by using a single D-FF. The resulting circuit is
by making?
T-FF.
(a) S = JQ, R = KQ
30. An optical encoder is
(b) S = Q, R = Q (a) a means of isolating voltages between
(c) S = J, R = Q computer and power supply system.
(d) S= JQ, R = K Q (b) a component of a stepper motor system.
(c) a position transducer.
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 (d) primarily a velocity transducer from which
Ans. (a) : For conversion of SR flip flop to JK flip flop position can be determined by integration.
at first we have to make combine truth table for SR and Vizag Steel MT 2013
JK flip flop. From the truth table we can draw K-map Ans. (a) : An optical encoder is a means of isolating
for input S,R. voltages between computer and power supply system.
31. An 8:1 multiplexer has how many select
inputs?
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) 8
Ans. (c): The number of select input line in 8 : 1
Multiplexer will be 3. It can be determined by the
Now from above K-map, we get the relation S = JQ below formula: -
and R = KQ 2n:1, where n = No of select line
Here, 2n = 8
27. Which of the following is a binary storage
2 n = 2 3, n = 3
device? n = select line
(a) diode (b) flipflop 32. The output f of the 4-to-1 MUX is shown in the
(c) BJT (d) SCR figure. The function, f, is given as Logic '1'
Ans. (b) : A Flip-flop is an electronic circuit with two
stable states that can be used to store binary data. The
stored data can be changed by applying varying inputs.
Flip-flop is a data storage element. It is the basic storage
element in sequential logic.
28. Find the number of 2 x 1 MUX (multiplexers)
required to implement 16 x 1 MUX.
(a) 15 (b) 20 (a) x y + xy (b) x y + xy
(c) 5 (d) 9 (c) x+y (d) x + y
DMRC AM 2020 UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II

Ans. (a): F = S1S0 I0 + S1S0 I1 + S1S0 I 2 + S1S0 I3 36. A 4- bit parallel adder can add.
(a) two 4-bit binary number
F = x y.1 + x y.0 + x y.0 + xy.1 (b) two 2-bit binary number
F = x y + xy (c) four bits at a time
(d) four bits in a sequence
MPPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : Two or more full adders are connected to
form parallel binary adders. A 4-bit parallel adder is
formed by connected four full adders such that the carry
input of the next adder the carry input of the low-order
is grounded since there is no carry input present for this
adder since each full adder can add two 1-bit binary
numbers, therefore a 4-bit parallel adder can add two 4-
bit binary number.
33. How many numbers of half-adders are
required for m-bit numbers? (iii) Sequential Logic Circuit
(a) 2 × m – 1 (b) 2m – 1
(c) 2 × m + 1 (d) 2 × m 1. How many flip-flops are required to construct
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018 a mod 128 counter? What is the largest decimal
Ans. (a) : To realize a full adder we need two half number that can be stored in a mod - 64
adders now to add 2m bit numbers we need m-1 full counter?
adders so, no. of half adders needed = 2 (m - 1) +1 (a) 7 flip-flops, 127 (b) 7 flip-flops, 63
= 2m - 2 + 1 (c) 8 flip-flops, 128 (d) 8 flip-flops, 64
= 2m -1 TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
n
34. Which logic inputs should be given to the input Ans. (b) : 2 = 128n
lines I0, I1, I2 and I3, if the MUX is to behave as 2 = 27
two point input XNOR gate? n =7
largest decimal no. which can stored = (MOD) – 1
= 64 – 1 = 63
2. In a JK Flip-flop, if the two inputs are high,
then:
(a) The output will be complemented
(b) The output will be same as previous state
(c) The output will be set as '1'
(d) The output will be complemented by the
clock pulse
Ans. (d) : In a JK Flip-flop, if the two inputs are high,
then the output will be complemented by the clock
(a) 0110 (b) 1001 pulse.
(c) 1000 (d) 1111 3. Consider the following J-K flip-flop:
ESE 2017
Ans. (b) : For XNOR gate, f = xy + x y.....(i)
output of the MUX
( ) ( ) ( )
f = Io x y + I1 xy + I 2 x y + I3 ( xy ) .....(ii)
For both equations (i) and (ii) to be equal In the above J-K flip-flop, J = Q and K=1.
Io = 1, I1 = 0, I 2 = 0, I3 = 1 Assume that the flip-flop was initially cleared
35. The half adder circuit has the following and then clocked for 6 pulses. What is the
number of inputs and outputs respectively. sequence at the Q output?
(a) 1,2 (b) 2,1 (a) 010000 (b) 011001
(c) 2,2 (d) 2,3 (c) 010010 (d) 010101
MPPSC AE 2017 RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : Half adder is a combinational arithmetic Ans : (d) When
circuit that add two numbers and produces a sum bit (s) Q = 0 → Q =1
and carry bit (c) as the output. so, J=K=1
Q n +1 = Q n = 1
when,
Q = 1 → Qn = 0
J = 0, K = 1
Qn+1 = 0
So, there is two input and two output. So, the sequence at the Q output will be 010101.

4. The output Qn of a J-K flip-flop is zero. It 8. Which of the following circuits come under the
changes to 1 when a clock pulse is applied. The class of sequential logic circuits?
input Jn and Kn are respectively P. Full adder Q. Full subtractor
(a) 1 and X (b) 0 and X R. Half adder S. JK flip
(c) X and 0 (d) X and 1 T. Counter
RPSC AE 2018 Select the correct answer using the codes given
Vizag Steel MT 2012 below:
ESE 1997 (a) P and Q (b) Q and R
Ans. (a) : (c) R and S (d) S and T
TSPSC AEE 2017
Clock J K Q n +1
Ans. (d) : In sequential logic circuits, present output
O X X Qn depends on the present inputs and the past behaviour of
1 0 0 Qn the circuit.
1 0 1 0 Some examples of sequential circuits are–
(i) Flip-flops (T, D, SR (or) JK).
1 1 0 1 → set state (ii) Registers and
1 1 1 Qn (iii) counters
Hence, The output Qn of a J-K flip-flop is zero. It 9. The number of control lines in a 8 to 1
changes to 1 when a clock pulse is applied. The input Jn multiplexer is
and Kn are 1 and X respectively. (a) 1 (b) 3
5. The number of flip-flops required for mod-16 (c) 4 (d) 8
counter are: TNPSC AE 2018
(a) 5 (b) 6 Ans. (b) : No. of control line in 8 to 1 MUX is-
(c) 3 (d) 4 2n = 8
UPRVUNL AE 2014 n=3
Ans. (d) No of flip-flops used in mod 16 counter is
2n = 16 10. How many flip-flops will be complemented in a
2n = 24 10-bit binary ripple counter to reach the next
n = 4 no of flip-flops count after the following count
6. Assertion (A): The speed-power product is an 0111111111
important parameter for comparing various (a) 5 (b) 10
TTL series. (c) 1 (d) 9
Reason (R): A low value of speed-power TNPSC AE 2018
product indicates that a propagation delay can Ans. (b) : Count = 0111111111
be achieved without excessive power Step 1- Add 1 to the given binary number, we get
dissipation and vice-versa. 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
+ 1
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
not the correct explanation of A Step-2 Count how many bits are complemented after step-
(c) A is true but R is false 1.
(d) A is false but R is true n = 10 bit
UPRVUNL AE 2014 Step-3 number of bits complemented = number of flip-
Ans. (a) Speed power product is important parameter flop needed to complement.
for comparing TTL series because A low value of
speed power product indicates that a propagation delay So, No. of flip flop = 10.
can be achieved without excessive power dissipation 11. In frequency multiplexing systems, if the
and vice-versa subcarries frequency deviations are
7. A 1 ms pulse can be converted into a 10 ms proportional to the center frequency, the
pulse by using which one of the following? scheme is reffered to have
(a) An astable multivibrator (a) a proportional bandwidth format
(b) A monostable multivibrator (b) a constant bandwidth format
(c) A bistable multivibrator (c) a variable bandwidth format
(d) A JK flip-flop (d) a consistent bandwidth format
UPRVUNL AE 2014
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) The main application of monostable
multivibrator are pulse width modulator ramp generator, Ans. (a) : In frequency multiplexing systems, if the
frequency divider, pulse stretcher etc. so 1ms pulse can subcarries frequency deviations are proportional to the
be converted into a 10 ms pulse by monostable center frequency, the scheme is referred to have a
multivibrator. proportional bandwidth format.

12. The characteristic equation of the T - FF is Ans : (c) Four JK Flip-Flops will be required to
given by construct a BCD counter.
+ +
(a) Q = TQ +TQ (b) Q = TQ +QT
(c) Q+ = QT (d) Q+ = TQ
Vizag Steel MT 2012
Ans. (b) :
Characteristic equation is T Qn Qn+1 JK flip-flop is very useful flip-flop, it is used in making
Q n +1 = TQ n + TQ n 0 0 0 counters.
0 1 1 Truth Table of JK flip- flop-
= T ⊕ Qn
1 0 1
1 1 0
Characteristic Table for T-flip-flop
13. In a J-K flip-flop, if J = K, the resulting flip-
flop is referred to as a
(a) T-type (b) D-type
(c) S-R type (d) Master J-K 17. How many flip-flop are required for MOD-100
UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I ripple counter?
Ans. (a) :. In a J-K flip-flop, if J = K, the resulting flip- (a) 6 (b) 4
flop is referred to as a T-type. (c) 3 (d) 7
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
Ans. (d) : Flip flop required for MOD-100 ripple
counter-
N ≤ 2n
J=K=T 100 = 2n
14. A flip-flop is not used as log(100) = nlog2
(a) a bounce elimination switch n = 6.64
(b) an encoder n=7
(c) a counter Total states = 27 = 128
(d) a Random Access memory So, there are 28 unused states & 100 used states.
UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I 18. Like the latch, the Flip-Flop belongs to a
Ans. (b) : A combinational logic circuit does not category of logic circuits known as
require any form of memory and therefore not require (a) Monostable multivibrators
of flip-flop. Only sequential logic circuit have required (b) Bistable multivibrators
memory and use of various type flip-flop. (c) Astable multivibrators
Combinational logic circuit - decoder, encoder (d) One shots
Sequential logic circuit - RAM, Shift registered MPPSC AE 2016
15. Which of the following flip-flops is not level Ans. (b) : Like the latch, the Flip-Flop belongs to a
triggered? category of logic circuits known as bistable
(a) S - R Flip-flop multivibrators.
(b) D-type Flip-flop 19. What will be the propagation delay in each flip
(c) J-K Flip-flop flop, if 12-bit ripple counter having a modulus
(d) Master-Slave J-K Flip-flop of less than or equal to 2N is clocked at
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II maximum usable frequency of 12 MHz?
Ans. (b) : Level triggered flip-flop are generally called (a) 6.05 ms (b) 6.95 ms
as latches. It gets triggered at the level of the clock (c) 6.95 ns (d) 6.05 ns
pulse. SR, JK and master slave JK, FFs are level JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
triggered while D-type FF is not level triggered. 1
Ans. (c) : fCLK =
16. Minimum number of J-K flip flops needed to 2Nt Pd
construct a BCD counter is: N = Number of logic gates
(a) 2 (b) 3 tPd = Propagation delay of each logic gate.
(c) 4 (d) 5 1
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 tPd =
2 × 6 ×12 × 106
UPRVUNL AE 2016
tPd = 6.95 ns

20. In a clocked S – R flip-flop made with NAND 24. The frequency of the clock signal applied to the
gates, the input combinations S = 1, R = 1, is rising edge triggered D flip-flop shown in
not permitted because is leads to figure is 10 KHz. The frequency of the signal at
(a) reset set of the Flip-Flop Q is–
(b) both the outputs being zero simultaneously
(c) an unpredictable output
(d) the output becoming available before the
clock goes low
RPSC VPITI 2018
Ans. (c) : S = 1, R = 1 the output becoming it is an (a) 10 KHz (b) 2.5 KHz
unpredictable output from truth table (c) 20 KHz (d) 5 KHz
APTRANSCO AE 2011
ESE 2007
f 10kHz
Ans. (d) : f out = in = = 5KHz
2 2
25. Race around condition occurs in:
(a) Multiplexer (b) ROM
(c) Voltage regulator (d) Flip-Flops
DSSSB AE 2019
S = 1 R = 1 so output is unpredictable ESE 2015
Ans. (d) : Race around condition occurs in flip flop.
Qn + 1 = S + R Qn Thus occurs at following condition
21. The numbers of flip-flops required in a decade (i) J = K = 1
counter are (ii) tpd(FF) < tpw
(a) 2 (b) 3 (iii) flip flop is level triggered
(c) 4 (d) 10 Race around condition does not occur in edge triggered
RPSC VPITI 2018 flip-flop.
Ans. (c) : In decade counter these are 10 states so no of To avoid race around condition master slave flip-flop is
flip flop equal to used.
2n ≥ 16 26. In a RS flip-flop, if S = 1 and R = 0, then the
2n ≥ 24 value of Q will be
n=4 (a) same
22. Master-slave J-K flip-flop is used to (b) 0
(a) Eliminate race around condition (c) 1
(d) undefined
(b) Improve its reliability
(c) Reduce power dissipation Ans. (c) : In a RS flip-flop, if S = 1 and R = 0, then the
(d) Increase its clock frequency value of Q will be 1.
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I 27. Which one of the following is not a sequential
Ans. (a) : Master-slave J-K flip-flop is used to eliminate circuit / system ?
race around condition. The master slave loads on one (a) Clocked S-R flip-flop (b) Shift register
edge of the clock waveform and transfer to slave on the (c) ROM (d) Ripple counter
other edge. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
Ans. (c) : ROM- Read only memory is not a sequential
23. When the output of a J-K flip-flop goes
circuit. It is a simple memory which store the data in
alternate as LOW, HIGH, LOW, HIGH on form of binary number 0 and 1.
repeated clock pulses, then it is operating in
28. The basic sequential logic building block in
(a) Toggle mode (b) Hold mode
which the output follows the data input as long
(c) Set mode (d) Reset mode
as the ENABLE input is active, is–
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II (a) J-K flip-flop (b) D flip-flop
Ans. (a) : JK flip-flop truth-table (c) T flip-flop (d) D Latch
Ans. (d) : In D-latch the data input follows as long as
the enable input is active.
D latch is used for chapter the logic level which is
present in data lines.
29. How many FFs are required to build a binary
counter circuit to count from 0 to 1023?
(a) 1 (b) 6
∴ When the output of a JK- flip flop goes alternate as (c) 10 (d) 24
LOW, HIGH, LOW, HIGH or repeated clock pulses, UJVNL AE 2016
then it is operating in toggle mode. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
Ans. (c) : A binary counter with n-bit can count from o State Table
to 2 n − 1 . for an n-bit counter n-FFs are required. CLK J K Qn + 1
Given, N = 1023 1 0 0 Qn (last state)
Formula : N = 2n − 1 1 0 1 0 (reset)
1023 = 2n – 1 1 1 0 1 (set)
1024 = 2n 1 1 1
(2)10 = 2n Q (Toggle)
n
By comparison we get, From state table we can say that in a master slave JK
n = 10 flip-flop if J = K = 1. The state Qn + 1 of the flip-flop
So No. of required flip-flop (n) = 10
30. The reduced state table of a sequential machine after the clock pulse will be Q n .
has 7 rows. What is the minimum number of 33. In a JK flip flop, both J & K inputs are held
flip flops needed to implement the machine? HIGH. The effect of next clock pulse will be.....
(a) 0 (b) 2 (a) to SET output (b) to RESET output
(c) 3 (d) 7 (c) to TOGGLE output
LMRC AE 2015 (d) to maintain output unchanged
ESE 2007 AAI Junior Executive 2016
Ans. (c) : State table of a sequential machine = 7 rows Ans. (c) : In a JK flip flop, both J & K inputs are held
Minimum no. of flip-flop required = 2n
7=2 n high. Then output is TOGGLE mode.
n=3 3
there 2 = 8 state 34. The number of states in its counting sequence
1 is unused state. that a ring counter consisting of 'n' flip-flop
31. When a flip-flop is reset its output will be : scan have is
(a) Q = 0, Q = 0 (b) Q = 1, Q = 1 (a) 2n – 1 (b) 2n – 1
(c) n (d) 2n + 1
(c) Q = 0, Q = 1 (d) Q = 1, Q = 0
Ans. (c) : Ring counter is SISO shift register.
Ans. (c) : In S-R flip-flop if output Q = 0 and Q = 1 (i) Ring counter is a non-self starting counter.
then flip-flop said to be reset. (ii) With 'n' ffs', there are n-states present in ring
counter.
(iii) With 'n' ffs, maximum counting possible in
Flip flop Output ring counter is (2n–1)
State Q Q 35. What J-K input condition will always set 'Q'
Set 1 0 upon the occurrence of the active clock
Reset 0 1 transition?
32. In a master slave JK-flip-flop J = K = 1. The (a) J = 0, K = 0 (b) J = 1, K = 1
state Qn+1 of the flip-flop after the clock pulse (c) J = 1, K = 0 (d) J = 0, K = 1
will be : Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
(a) 0 (b) 1 Ans. (c) : Truth Table of J–K Flip Flop
(c) Qn (d) Qn
Ans. (d) :
36. Toggle flip-flop are not commercially available,

because
(a) they are not economic
(b) J-K flip-flop can be used as toggle flip-flop
by connecting J and K together
(c) J-K flip-flop can be used as toggle flip-flop
Master-slave JK flip-flop is designed to eliminate the by connecting J and K through inverter
race around condition in JK flip-flop and it is (d) None of the above
constructed by using two JK flip-flops BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
Ans. (b) : Toggle flip-flop (T-FF) Ans. (b) :
• The toggle flip-flop (T-FF) is a single input version
of the JK flip-flop.
• Toggle flip-flop (T-FF) can be obtained from a J-K
flip-flop if J and K are connected together.
So, Toggle flip-flop is not commercially available.
For J-K flip-flop

S = JQ
R = KQ
37. Number of flip-flops required to implement When, Q = 0, Q =1
divide by 20 Johnson counter is: For changing output 0 to 1, S should be 1 possible when
J = 1 and K = 0, since Q = 0. So K remain X when J =
(a) 15 (b) 25 1, K = X, JK flip-flop's output change from 0 to 1.
(c) 20 (d) 10 41. Which of the following circuits come under the
UPPCL AE 2015 class of sequential logic circuits:-
Ans. (d) With n flip flop there are 2n states in the (a) Full adder (b) Full subtractor
Johnson counter. (c) Half adder (d) J-K flip counter
2n = 20 UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
n = 10 Ans. (d) : J-K flip counter come under the class of
sequential logic circuits.
10 flip flop required Sequential logic circuit are those circuit in which output
38. A T-flip flop function is obtained from J–K flip depend upon present input and past input.
flop. If the flip flop belongs to a TTL family the Full adder, full subtractor and half adder come
connection needed at the input must be under the class of combinational logic circuits.
JK flip-flop and counter come under the class of
(a) J = 1 and K = 1
sequential logic circuits.
(b) J = 1 and K = 0
42. What kind of logic device or circuit is used to
(c) J = K = 0 store information?
(d) J = 0 and K = 1 (a) Counter (b) Register
UPPCL AE 2015 (c) Inverter (d) Buffer
Ans. (a) Mizoram PSC AE 2016
Ans. (b) : A register is a sequential circuit. It is a
storage circuit. It is used to store n-number of data by
using n-number of flip-flops.
Q 43. The following flip-flop is used to eliminate
race-around problem:
(a) R-S flip-flop
T-flip flop (b) Master Slave flip-flop
J=K=T (c) J-K flip-flop
J = 1, K = 1 (d) None of these
39. In a 6 bit Johnson counter sequence, there are Ans. (b) : Master Slave flip-flop is used to eliminate
a total of how many states or bit patterns? race-around problem.
(a) 2 (b) 6
44. In a J-K flip-flop, if J = K , then it acts as a/an:
(c) 12 (d) 24 (a) T flip-flop (b) D flip-flop
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II (c) RS flip-flop (d) Decoder
Ans. (c) : For n-bit Johnson counter total no. of states or LMRC AM 2020
bit patterns are 2n states. So, Ans. (b) : In a J-K flip-flop when J = K it will act as D
n = 6 bit flip-flop.
2n = 2 × 6 = 12 states 45. Identify the combinational logic circuit(s) from
40. If the J-K Flip flop’s output is zero, then in the following list:
I. Full adder
order to change its output to 1, the input
II. J-K flip-flop
combination is:- III. Counter
(a) J = 0, K = X (b) J = 1, K = X (a) II only (b) III only
(c) J = X, K=1 (d) J = X, K = 0 (c) II and III (d) I only
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II LMRC AM 2020

Ans. (d) : Combinational logic circuits- Ans. (c) : The frequency f, of clock pulse for reliable
MUX Encoder Decoder operation of counter is given by–
Half adder Full adder 1
Sequential logic circuits- ≥ N.(t d ) + Ts
Flip-flops Counter Register f
46. Which is the condition for toggle mode in JK where N = Number of flip flops
flip flop? td = Propagation delay of a flip flop
(a) J = 0, K= 0 Ts = strobe pulse width
(b) J = 0, K= 1 Here, N = 4, td = 50 ns, ts = 30 ns
(c) J = 1, K= 1 The maximum frequency is,
(d) J = 1, K= 0 103 103
JUVNL AE 2017 = MH z = 4.35 MHz
N.t d + t s 4 × 50 + 30
Ans. (c) : J = 1, K= 1, is the condition for toggle mode
in J-K flip flop. 50. If the input to T-flipflop is 100 Hz signal, the
47. The present output Qn of an edge triggered JK final output of the three T-flip-flops in cascade
Flip-Flop is logic 0. If J = 1, then Qn + 1 will be : is
(a) logic 0 (b) Race around (a) 1000 Hz (b) 500 Hz
(c) Indeterminate (d) logic 1 (c) 333 Hz (d) 12.5 Hz
APTRANSCO AE 2019 Vizag Steel MT 2013
Ans. (d) : Given that- Ans. (d) : for 3 T-flip-flops number of states = 23 = 8
Present output Qn = 0 f
f 0 = clkn ,n = number of flip-flop
J=0 2
As K is not given- 100
∴ K=0 ∴ Output frequency =
8
Characteristics table of J-K FF-
J K Qn Qn + 1 f 0 = 12.5Hz
0 0 0 0 51. A flip-flop whose state changes on the rising or
0 0 1 1 falling edge of a clock pulse is called:
0 1 0 0 (a) rising edge flip-flop
0 1 1 0 (b) level-triggered flip-flop
1 0 0 1 (c) edge-triggered flip-flop
1 0 1 1 (d) leading edge flip-flop
1 1 0 1 Toggle BHEL ET 2019
1 1 1 0 Toggle Ans. (c) : A flip-flop whose state changes on the rising
If, J = K = 1 or falling edge of a clock pulse is called edge triggered
Then Qn + 1 = Q n {Toggle condition} flip flop.
∴ when J = 1 and K = 0 52. PDM is generated by employing.
Qn+1 = 1 (a) Schmitt Trigger
48. Johnson counter is also called as _______. (b) Astable multivibrator
(a) Ring counter (c) Monostable multibibrator
(b) Twisted Ring counter (d) JK flip-flop
(c) Trigger counter UPSC JWM 2017
(d) Left right counter Ans. (c) : The monostable multivibrator is used as delay
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 and timing circuit. It is also used to trigger another
Ans. (b) : A Johnson counter is a modified ring counter pulse generator. It is used for regenerating old and worn
in which the output from the last flip flop is inverted out pulse.
and feedback to the first as an input. It is also called as Thus, PDM is generated by employing, monostable
Inverse feedback counter or twisted ring counter. multivibrator.
49. In a 4 stage ripple counter, the propagation 53. For a master-slave flip-flop:
delay of a flip flop is 50ns. If the pulse width of (a) Change in the input is immediately reflected
strobe is 30ns, find the maximum frequency at in the output
which counter works reliably. (b) Change in the output occurs when the state of
(a) 3 MHz the master is affected.
(b) 4 MHz (c) Change in the output occurs when the state of
(c) 4.35 MHz the slaves is affected
(d) 4.85 MHz (d) Both the master and the slave states are
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 affected at the same time
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (c) : Ans. (d) : 5-flip flops are required to make a mod-25
binary counter. For a mod N counter, the number of
flip-flops required is less than or equal to 2 to power n,
where n is a positive integer. for, N mod counter,
Number of flip flops ≤ 2n{n=positive Integer}
57. A shift register with its complement output (Q')
of the last stage connected to the D-input of the
first stage is called:
(a) asynchronous counter
(b) up-counter
(c) twisted-ring counter
(d) synchronous counter
BHEL ET 2019
For a master-slave flip-flop change in output occur Ans. (c) :
when state of the slave is affected.
54. Propagation delay through a master slave flip
flop is given as 1000 ns. The maximum clock
frequency that can be used with this flip flop is:
(a) 0.1 MHz (b) 100 MHz
(c) 10 MHz (d) 1 MHz
LMRC AM 2018
Ans. (d) : Propagation delay through a master slave Twisted ring counter .
flip-flop = 1000 ns 58. If J = K in case of J – K flip-flop, then the
Maximum clock frequency : resulting flip-flop is known as:
1 (a) J-K FLIP FLOP itself
(fCLK) =
Delay (b) T-type FLIP-FLOP
(c) S-R FLIP-FLOP
1 (d) D-type FLIP-FLOP
=
1000 ×10−9 BHEL ET 2019
= 106 Ans. (b) :
f CLK = 1 MHz
55. Which statement BEST describes the operation
of a negative-edge-triggered D flip-flop?
(a) The Q output is always identical to D input
(b) The logic level at the D input is transferred to
Q on NGT of CLK
(c) The Q output is always identical to the CLK
input if the D input is high
(d) The Q output is always identical to D input
CLK = PGT Circuit is called J-K flip-flop with two input J = T and
CIL MT 2017 K = T. If inputs J and K are tied together to become a
Ans. (b) : In a Edge triggered D type flip flop. single input called T, then the two of the four cases with
• at positive edge of CLK, Q will be same as D unless a different inputs (J = K) are eliminated the circuit is
synchronous input control it. called T-flip flop which always complements its
• A logic 0 at S will cause Q to set to logic 1 previous output (toggle).
• A logic 0 at R will cause Q to set to logic 0 59. An astable multivibrator has:
(a) two stable states
• The action of S and Q input overrides any effect of (b) no stable states
D input. (c) one quasi-stable state
From above we can explain it in easy terms as The logic (d) two quasi-stable states
level at D input is transferred to Q on NGT of CLK. BHEL ET 2019
56. The minimum number of flip-flops required to Ans. (d) : An Astable multivibrator or a free running
design a frequency divider to divide a multivibrator is the multivibrator which has no stable
frequency by 25 is. states.
(a) 2 (b) 3 But only two quasi-stable states between which it keeps
(c) 4 (d) 5 oscillating continuously of its own without any external
(e) 6 excitation.
CGPSC AE 2017
60. In a JK flip-flop race around condition occurs Codes:
when. (a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
(a) Both J & K inputs are zero individually true; and Statement (II) is the
(b) Both J & K inputs are one correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) J = 1 and K = 0 (b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
(d) J = 0 and K = 1 individually true; but Statement (II) is
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019 NOT the correct explanation of Statement
Ans. (b) : The "Race -around condition" will occurs (I)
in J and K flip-flop. (c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is
When J = K = 1 false
and t pd ff < t pw
( )
true
In this condition, without any change in the input the 63. Statement (I) : The decimal-to-BCD encoder
output changes. digital logic circuit chip IC 74147, is a priority
To avoid this, we should maintain. encoder.
t pw < t pd( ff ) < T Statement (II) : In this circuit, priority is given to
the lowest-order input.
Where tpw = pulse width
ESE 2018
tpd = pulse delay
T = clock time pulse Ans. (c) : The decimal to BCD encoder digital logic
circuit chip IC 74147 is a priority encoder. Statement I
61. Which of the following multivibrator is called
is correct.
the flip flop?
(a) Astable multivibrator In priority encodes, priority is given to highest order
(b) Monostable multivibrator input.
(c) Bistable multivibrator Hence statement (II) is wrong.
(d) Both (b) and (c) 64. Which of the following sentences are true?
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 (1) Flip flop is often called as latch.
Ans. (c) : Bistable multivibrators operate in a similar (2) In R-S flip flop S = 1, flip flop is set Q = 0.
fashion to flip flops producing one of two stable outputs (3) In R-S flip flop R = 1, flip flop is reset Q = 1.
which are complement of each other. Bistable (4) Flip flop is a memory device.
multivibrators have two stable states and can maintain a Answer options:
given output state indefinitely unless an external trigger (a) 1 and 4 are true (b) 1 and 2 are true
is applied to force it to change the state. (c) 2 and 3 are true (d) 3 and 4 are true
62. A 4 bit module − 16 ripple counter uses JK F/F. Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
If the propagation delay of each F/F is 50 nano Ans. (a) : Only statements 1 and 4 are true.
seconds, the maximum clock frequency that Flip flop is often called as latch.
can be used is equal to Flip flop is a memory device
(a) 20 MHz (b) 5 MHz
(c) 10 MHz (d) 4 MHz
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 (iv) Registers and Counters
LMRC AE 2015
ESE 2003
1.
A cascade of three identical modulo-5 counters
Ans. (b) : Given 4 bit module delay of each F/F is 50 ns has an overall modulus of-
So, worst-case delay, (a) 5 (b) 25
= 4 × 50 ns = 200 ns (c) 125 (d) 625
Then, minimum time between two consecutive clock
RPSC AE 2018
pulse (Tmin) = 200 ns
Therefore, frequency of the maximum clock is: Ans : (c) A cascade of mode P, mode Q, and mode R
counter becomes mode PQR
1
f = ∴ Overall counter = Mode 5×5×5
Tmin = Mode 125
1 6 2. A mod-3 counter is already available. To design
f = = 5 × 10 Hz = 5MHz
200ns a 'divide by 6' counter, further how many more
Directions: flip-flops are required?
consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (a) 6 (b) 3
(I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these (c) 2 (d) 1
two statements carefully and select the answers to TANGEDCO AE 2018
these items using the codes given below:
Ans. (d) : Divide by 6 counter mean → MOD – 6
counter. Which count 0 to 5.
→ Mod-3 counter is available mean 2 flip flop present
but for count [0 to 5] 3 flip-flop request. so one more
flip-flop required.
3. The 8-bit Right Shift Register has initial
readings as 11001010. After the three clock
pulses the content of Shift Register will be 7. Which of the logic family exhibit relatively
higher power dissipation per gate?
(a) TTL (b) ECL
(c) CMOS (d) NMOS
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : ECL logic family has high power dissipation
per gate.
(a) 10111001 (b) 01011100
(c) 11100101 (d) 00110010 8. Match the following
UPPCL AE 2013 Logic family Characteristics of Logic
family
Ans. (a) : 8 bit shift register has initial reading = 1 1 0 0 (A) TTL 1. maximum power dissipation
1010
(B) ECL 2. Highest packing density
(C) NMOS 3. Least power dissipation
(D) CMOS 4. Saturate Logic
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 1 3 2
TNPSC AE 2019
Ans. (c) : TTL- Saturate Logic
ECL - Maximum power dissipation
NMOS - Highest packing density
4. The initial state of MOD-12 down counter is CMOS - Least power dissipation
0110. After 28 clock pulses, the state of the 9. Number of bits needed to code 256 operations is:
counter will be– (RRB SSE (Shift-II), 03.09.2015)
(a) 1011 (b) 1010 (a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 0010 (d) 0001 (c) 8 (d) 16
UPPCL AE 2013
Ans (c) : Operation of code 256 require 8 bits.
Ans. (c) : A MOD-12 counter goes through 12 states in
one cycle of 12 pulses. 2 n = 256
It complete 2 cycles in 24 pulses. 2 n = 28
In the rest 4 phase, it moves down from 0110 = 0010 n = 8 bit
5. How many states are unused in a 4-bit Johnson
10. A MOD-4 counter will be count-
counter? (a) From any number to n+3
(a) 2 (b) 4 (b) From 0 to 3
(c) 8 (d) 12 (c) From 0 to 4
UPRVUNL AE 2014 (d) From 0 to 8
Ans. (c) Use state in a n bit johnson counter UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
= 2n Ans. (b) : A MOD-4 counter will count from 0 to 3
unused state in a n bit johnson counter there are 4 state, 0, 1, 2, 3 and repeat in every 4 clock
= 2n-2n cycle.
=24–2×4 11. The range of numbers which can be stored in
=16-8 an 8-bit register (with left most bit for sign) is:
=8 (a) –127 to + 128 (b) –128 to + 128
6. The group of bits 11001 is serially shifted into a (c) –127 to + 127 (d) –128 to + 127
5-bit parallel output shifted with initial state UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
01110. After three clock pulses the register will Ans. (d) : Range of numbers which can be stored in an
contain 8-bit register –128 to +127.
(a) 01110 (b) 00001 12. A modulus 12 counter must have
(c) 00101 (d) 00110 (a) 12-Flip-Flops
(b) 3-Flip-Flops
TNPSC AE 2018 (c) 4-Flip-Flops
Ans. (c) : 5-bit parallel output shifter with initial state (d) Synchronous clocking
is 01110. MPPSC AE 2016
Ans. (c) : 4 flip-flop are required to make a mode 12 18. Registers and counters are similar in the sense
counter. Mod 12 counter will count from 0 to 11. To that they both -
represent 11 in binary 4 bits are required (1011). Hence (a) store binary information
4 flip-flops are required as each flip-flop can have 1 (b) are made from an array of flip-flops and gates
state (0 or 1) at the output. integrated on a single chip
(c) count pulses
13. A program counter is a storage register for (d) are, in fact shift registers
(a) Location of instruction in memory UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
(b) Binary code for the operation to be performed Ans. (b) : Registers and counters are similar in the
(c) Location of data in memory sense that they both are made from an array of flip-flops
(d) Address of next instruction to be executed and gates integrated on a single-chip.
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I A register is a digital CKT with two basic function
Ans. (d) : A program counter is a storage register for i.e. data storage and data movement.
address of next instruction to be executed. A counter is a circuit that counts the number of
14. IC 555 can be used in – occurrences of an input.
(a) Astable mode (b) Bistable mode 19. A frequency counter needs to measure a
(c) Monostable mode (d) All of above frequency of 15 Hz. Its signal gating time is 2s.
GMB AE 2017 What is the percentage accuracy of the counter,
Ans. (d) : The IC 555 timer is an integrated circuit used taking into account the gating error?
in variety of timer, delay, pulse generation, and (a) 3.33% (b) 13.33%
(c) 98.67% (d) 96.67%
oscillator applications. This is used in astable mode,
LMRC AE 2015
bistable mode and also monostable mode.
Ans. (d) : Measure Frequency = 15Hz
15. A divide by 6 counter is obtained by using: Signal gating time = 2sec.
(a) 6-bit ring counter
1
(b) 6-bit ripple counter 2−
% accuracy counter = 15 × 100
(c) 3-bit ripple counter
2
(d) 3-bit twisted-ring counter
DSSSB AE 2019 = 96.7%
ESE 2012 20.
The total propagation delay through a 74HC04
Ans. (b) : A divide by 6 counter is obtained by using 6- inverter is known to be 24ns. What is the
bit ripple counter. maximum clock frequency that can be used :
(a) 41.7 MHz (b) 83.3 MHz
16. The bit sequence 0010 is serially entered (right
(c) 20.85 MHz (d) None of these
most bit first) into a 4-bit parallel out shift PTCUL AE 2016
register that is initially clear. What are the Q
outputs after two clock pulses? 1 1
Ans. (a) : The max clock frequency fc = =
(a) 0000 (b) 0010 Tc 24 ×10−9
(c) 1000 (d) 1111 = 41.66 MHz ≃ 41.7 MHz
Vizag Steel MT 2017
21. BCD counter is also known as
Ans. (c) :. (a) MOD–8 counter (b) MOD–16 counter
CLK I / P Q3 Q 2 Q1 Q0 (c) MOD–4 counter (d) MOD–10 counter
UPPCL AE 2015
0 0 0 0 0 0 Ans. (d) A binary code decimal (BCD) is a serial digital
1 0 0 0 0 0 counter that counts (0-9) ten digit so this is a Mod-10
2 1 1 0 0 0 counter.
22. Which of the following counters has the highest
Output after two clock pulses 1000. speed?
17. It is required to construct a counter to count up (a) ring counter (b) Synchronous
to 100(decimal). The minimum number of flip- (c) Asynchronous (d) Ripple counter
flops required to construct the counter is. UPPCL AE 2015
(a) 8 (b) 7 Ans. (b) In all the type of counter, there are
(c) 6 (d) 5 synchronous counter has the highest speed.
Vizag Steel MT 2017 23. The frequency of the pulse at Z in the Diagram
Ans. (b) : Given – N = 100 shown below is:
N ≤ 2n
100 ≤ (2) n
100 ≤ 27 (a) 64 kHz (b) 20.5 Hz
n=7 (c) 1 kHz (d) 62.5 Hz
UPPCL AE 2015

Ans. (d) Ans. (c) : A bus organized processor consists of 15
registers. The number of selection lines in each
multiplexer and in the destination decoder are
respectively 4 and 4.
2n-1 = 15
Mod (10 × 20 × 16) = Mod (3200)
2n = 16
Fi / p 200 ×103
Fo / p = = 24 = 16 so for 15 selection line
mod 3200
Fo / p = 62.5Hz Mux = 4
24. Which logic family provides minimum power decoder = 4
dissipation? 29. A Darlington emitter-follower circuit is
(a) TTL (b) CMOS sometimes used in the output stage of a TTL
(c) ECL (d) JFET
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 gate in order to:
GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 (a) increase its IOL
Ans. (b) :CMOS provides minimum power dissipation. (b) reduce its IOH
CMOS are used for both pull up and down. Simple C- (c) increase its speed of operation
MOS devices used almost no power when not switching (d) reduce power dissipation
from one state to another state. CMOS consists of Punjab PSC SDE 2017
FET's.
25. A pulse train can be delayed by a finite number ESE 2013
of clock periods using: Ans. (c) : A Darlington emitter-follower circuit is
(a) a serial-in serial-out shift register sometimes used in the output stage of a Transistor-
(b) a serial-in parallel-out shift register Transistor logic-(TTL) gate in order to increase its
(c) a parallel-in serial out shift register
(d) a parallel-in parallel-out shift register speed of operation.
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 Emitter follower circuit has a prominent place in
Ans. (a) : A pulse train can be delayed by a finite of feedback amplifiers. Emitter follower is a case of
clock periods using a serial in serial-out shift register. negative current feedback circuit. This is mostly used as
The shift register which allows serial input (one bit after a last stage amplifier is signal generator circuit.
the other through a single data line) in serial-out shift
register. The circuit consists of four D flip-flops which 30. In a digital voltmeter, the oscillator frequency
are connected in a serial manner. is 400 KHz and ramp voltage falls from 8 V to
26. A shift register with the serial output connected 0 V is 20 msec. The number of pulses counted
back to the serial input is a: by the counter is :
(a) feedback shift register (a) 800 (b) 2000
(b) shift register counter
(c) universal shift register (c) 4000 (d) 8000
(d) serial to parallel converter OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 Ans. (d) : Given : Oscillator frequency (f) = 400 KHz
ESE 2010 1 1
Ans. (b) : A shift register with the serial output Time period (T) = = = 2.5 × 10−6 sec
f 400 × 103
connected back to the serial input is a shift register
Since ramp voltage falls in 20 ms
counter.
The information stored within these registers can be No of pulse counted by counter,
transferred with the help of shift registers. Shift register 20 ×10−3
is a group of flip-flops used to store multiple bits of (NP) =
2.5 ×10−6
data.
27. Which one of the following logic families can N P = 8000
be operated using a supply voltage from 3 V to
15 V? 31. In order to build a MOD-12 counter, the
(a) TTL (b) ECL minimum number of flip-flop needed is equal
(c) PMOS (d) CMOS to :
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 (a) 12 (b) 4
Ans. (d) :CMOS logic families can be operated using a (c) 3 (d) 1
supply voltage from 3V to 15V. HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
28. A bus organized processor consists of 15 Ans. (b) : MOD ≤ 2N
registers. The number of selection lines in each
multiplexer and in the destination decoder are It will count from 0 to 11.
respectively: 12 ≤ 24 (12 ≤ 16 ) so N = 4
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 4 and 2 N = Number of flip-flop.
(c) 4 and 4 (d) 4 and 8
The minimum no. of flip-flop needed is equal to 4.
Punjab PSC SDE 2017
32. A 3-stage ripple counter has Flipflop with 36. The time delay ∆t introduced by a SISO shift
propagation delay of 25 nsec and pulse width of register in digital signals is given by
strobe input 10 nsec. Then the maximum 1
operating frequency at which counter operates (a) N 2 × (b) N 2 × f c
fc
reliably is
(a) 16.67 MHz (b) 17.6 MHz f 1
(c) c (d) N ×
(c) 12.67 MHz (d) 11.76 MHz N f c
APGENCO AE 2012 where,

Ans. (d) : tdelay = tp + tstroble N is the number of stages
= (25 × 3) + (10) fc is the clock frequency
= 85 n sec ESE 2019
1
f max = = 11.76 MHz Ans. (d) : Given
85n sec
Number of flip-flop in SISO = N
33. The output frequency of a decade counter that Clock frequency = fc
is clocked from 50 kHz signal is. 1
(a) 12.5 kHz (b) 50 Hz clock time period =
fc
(c) 5 kHz (d) 500 kHz
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019 Time delay for a bit to pass through a single flip-flop
1
fclock stage =
Ans. (c) : output frequency = fc
mod value
As decade counter is given Therefore time delay for a signal to pass through N flip-
∴ Mod value = 10 flop stages = N ×
1
fclock 50 kHz fc
f0 = = = 5 kHz
10 10 37. In JK flip flop, the race round condition takes
34. A Mod–6 counter is realised using 3 numbers place when.
of flip–flops. The counter will skip– (a) J = 0, K = 0 (b) J = 0, K = 1
(a) 4 counts (b) 3 counts (c) J = 1, K = 0 (d) J = 1, K = 1
(c) 2 counts (d) zero counts
MPPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : In JK flip flop, race round condition takes
Ans. (c) : A counter is designed by using 3 flip–flops.
place when J = 1, K = 1.
It has maximum possible counts = 23 = 8.
When J = K = 1, at each clock pulse output changes
Mod–6 counter will have 6 counts only;
therefore, it will skip 2 counts. (toggles) without any change in the input, is known as
35. A three stage Johnson counter ring in figure is Race Around condition.
clocked at a constant frequency of fc from 38. An asynchronous counter differs from a
starting state of Q0,Q1,Q2= 101. The frequency synchronous counter in.
of output Q0,Q1,Q2 will be– (a) the number of states in its sequence
(b) the method of clocking
(c) the type of flip-flops used
(d) the value of the modules
MPPSC AE 2017
Ans. (b) : An asynchronous counter differs from a
(a) fc/2 (b) fc/6 synchronous counter in the method of clocking, set AC
(c) fc/3 (d) fc/8 timer, set time in camera to take the picture, flashing
light indicator in automobiles, car parking control etc.
ESE 2003
counting the time allotted for special process or event
Ans. (a) :
by the scheduler.

(v) A/D and D/A Converter Ans. (a) No of comparator circuit required in 3 bit
simultaneous A/D converter are–
1. The number of comparisons carried out in a 4 = 2n –1 = 23 – 1 = 8 – 1 = 7
bit flash-type A/D converter is-
(a) 16 (b) 15 6. If the angle of refraction into a medium is ≥ the
(c) 4 (d) 3 critical angle of refraction
RPSC AE 2018 (a) there will be 100% reflection and 0%
Vizag Steel MT 2012 refraction
ESE 1999 (b) there will be 0% reflection and 100%
Ans : (b) Number of comparison carried out in a 4 bit
flash-type A/D converter, refraction
ADC = 2 –1 n (c) there will be 50% reflection and 50%
= 24–1=15 refraction
1 (d) there will be 25% reflection and 75%
2. A 3 digit, 2V full scale dual slope ADC has its
2 refraction
integration time set to 300 ms. If the input to TNPSC AE 2018
the ADC is (1+1 sin 314t)V, then the ADC Ans. (a) : If the angle of refraction into a medium is ≥
output will be-
(a) 1.000 (b) 1.999 the critical angle of refraction there will be 100%
(c) 1.414 (d) 1.500 reflection and 0% refraction.
RPSC AE 2018 7. The typical value of the fill factor for a good
Ans : (b) Vin = (1+1 sin 314 t)V silicon cell
t = 300 ms = 0.3 sec
Vin = (1+1 sin 314 × .3) (a) 1 (b) 0.8
= 1.997 V ≈ 1.999 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.5
1 TNPSC AE 2018
3 digit display is actually four segment, one half digit
2 Ans. (b) : Typical value of the fill factor for a good
and 3 full digits. It can display maximum 1999. silicon cell is 0.8
2 volt full display means it can display 1.999 volts.
8. A binary Ladder D/A converter is constructed
3. For the equation
by using resistors having
∂2u 2 ∂ u
2
(a) Individual values (b) Only one value
=c find the correct name
∂t 2 ∂x 2 (c) Only two values (d) Only three values
(a) one dimensional heat equation TNPSC AE 2018
(b) one dimensional wave equation
Ans. (c) : In the binary ladder D/A converter is
(c) two dimensional Laplace equation
(d) two dimensional Poisson equation construct by using resistors having only two values.
WBPSC AE 2003 9. A 10-bit D/A converter provides an analog
Ans. (b) : output which has a maximum value of 10.23 V.
4. A 4-bit D/A converter have a full scale output The resolution is
voltage of 8 V. The output voltage when the (a) 10 mV (b) 20 mV
input is 1010 is- (c) 15 mV (d) 25 mV
(a) 160V (b) 16V
(c) 5V (d) 80V UPRVUNL AE 2016
UPPCL AE 2013 Ans : (a) Maximum of value 10 bit D/A
Ans. (c) : Full scale output (Vfs) voltage is maximum = 10.23V
output of DAC So,
Full scale output voltage = reference voltage = 8V Vm
Resolution =
Decimal equivalent of 1010 = 10
Vr
(2n − 1)
Vout = n × ( decimal equivalent binary )
2 −1 Resolution =
10.23
= 10mV
∴ Vout =
8
×10 =
16
≈ 5 volts (210
− )
1
15 3
10. For a DAC, the resolution required is 50 m V
5. In order to build a 3 bit simultaneous A/D
total maximum input is 10 V. The number of
converter, what is the number of comparator
circuits required? bits required is
(a) 7 (b) 8 (a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 15 (d) 16 (c) 9 (d) 200
UPRVUNL AE 2014 UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans : (b) Given that– Ans : (b) Resolution = 50µA
Resolution = 50mV I0 = 20mA
Vm = 10V
So, V0
Resolution =
Vm 2n − 1
Resolution = 20 × 10−3
2n − 1 50×10-6 = n
10 2 −1
50 ×10−3 = n 2n= 401
2 −1 n≈9
2n–1 = 200 15. In a digital voltmeter, the advantage of using a
2n = 201 dual slope ADC is that:
(a) its conversion time is small.
n ≈8 (b) its accuracy is high.
11. Flash ADC is : (c) it gives output is BCD format.
(a) a serial ADC (d) it does not require a comparator.
(b) a parallel ADC UPRVUNL AE 2016
(c) partly serial and partly parallel Ans : (b) The dual slope ADC has many advantages
(d) successive approximation ADC noise present on the input voltage is reduced by
UPRVUNL AE 2016 averaging the value of the capacitor and conversion
Ans : (b) Flash ADC is a parallel ADC. clock do not effect conversion accuracy, since they act
A flash ADC (also known as a direct-conversion ADC) equivalently on the up slope and down slope.
is a type of analog to digital converter that uses a linear The advantage of using dual slope ADC is its high
voltage ladder with a comparator at each "rung " of the accuracy.
ladder to compare the input voltage to successive 16. An 8-bit DAC produces an output voltage of 1V
reference voltage for a digital input of 00110010. Determine the
⇒ for n bit conversion flash type ADC requires. largest value of the output voltage from the
(i) 2n-1 comparators DAC.
(ii) 2n resistors (a) 255 V (b) 5.1 V
(iii) 2n×n priority encoder. (c) 12.75 kV (d) 20 mV
12. Number of comparator required to build a 5- OMC Deputy manager 2019
bit analog to digital type of converter is: Ans. (b)
(a) 5 (b) 11 (00110010)2 = (50)10
(c) 31 (d) 21 V = K × 50
UPRVUNL AE 2016 1 = K × 50 ⇒ K = 20mV
ESE 1994 The largest output will occur for an input of
Ans : (c) for n-bit conversion ADC requires (11111111)2 = (255)10
= 2n-1 comparator Vout (max) = 20mV × 255 = 5.1V
n = 5 bit 17. A 4-bit D/A converter gives an output voltage
= 25-1 of 4.5 V for an input code of 1001. The output
= 31 comparator voltage for an input code of 0110 is:
13. In an 8- bit D/A converter, the reference (a) 3.0 V (b) 2.0 V
voltage used is 10V. What voltage is (c) 1.5 V (d) 4.5 V
represented by 10100001? UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
(a) 0.00392 V (b) 6.314 V Ans. (a) : Decimal equivalent of binary 1001 = 9
(c) 6.288 V (d) 0.00391V decimal equivalent of binary 0110 = 6
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Vref
Ans : (b) Vr = 10V n = 8bit Vout = n
2
(binary equivalent decimal) = 161 [decimal equivalent of binary 1001]
V
Voltage ( V ) = n r (binary equivalent decimal) Vref
4.5 = 4 [9]
2 −1
2
10
= 8 × 161 9Vref
2 −1 4.5 =
16
1610
= = 6.31V 16 × 4.5
255 Vref = = 8V
9
14. The full scale output of a DAC is 20 mA. If the
V
resolution is to be less then 50µA, then the Now, Vout '
= ref
required bits are 2n
[decimal equivalent of binary 0110]
(a) 8 (b) 9
8× 6 8× 6
(c) 10 (d) 11 = 4 = = 3V
UPRVUNL AE 2016 2 16

18. The advantage of using a free-wheeling diode Ans. (d) : For given DAC, n = 4, Vref = +5
with bridge AC/DC converter is: V 5 1
(a) reduced cost of system Resolution = n ref = 4 = V / LSB
(b) regenerative braking 2 −1 2 −1 3
(c) reliable speed control For V0 = Resolution × D
(d) improving power factor D = decimal of (1000)2 = 8
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 1
Ans. (d) : The advantage of using a free-wheeling diode V0 = × 8 = 2.667V
3
with bridge type AC/DC converter is D = decimal of (1111)2 = 15
(1) Improving power factor 1
(2) The over all current waveform is improved V0 = ×15 = 5V
(3) Overall converter efficiency improve 3
19. Which A/D converter has highest conversion 24. A 10 bit A/D converter is used to digitize an
time? analog signal in the 0 to 5 V range. The
(a) Flash type maximum peak to peak ripple voltage that can
(b) Dual Slope integration be allowed in the DC supply is
(c) Successive approximation (a) nearly 100 mV (b) nearly 50 mV
(d) Ramp/Counting (c) nearly 25 mV (d) nearly 5 mV
MPPSC AE 2016 Karnataka PSC AE 2016
Ans. (b) : A/D converter which take highest conversion PTCUL AE 2012
time is dual slope integration. Ans. (d) : Given, Vref = 5 V, n = 10 bit
Tc = 2(n+1) × TCLK V
20. A DAC has 10V as full scale output voltage. Its Maximum ripple in DC supply = refn
2
accuracy is 0.3%. The maximum error of DAC 5
will be = 10
(a) 40 mV (b) 30 mV 2
(c) 20 mV (d) 60 mV = 4.8 × 10–3
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II Maximum ripple in DC supply ≅ 5 mV
Ans. (b) : The maximum error acceptable in ADC/DAC 25. The 8 bit DA Converter has a maximum output
is 1 LSB which is equal to resolution. voltage of 2V. If Vin = 1.5V, the digital output
∴ Maximum error = 0.3% × Vfs at the end of conversion will be
0.3 (a) 0001 1100 (b) 0010 0010
= × 10V = 0.03V (c) 0110 0000 (d) 1100 0000
100 PTCUL AE 2012
= 30 mV
Ans. (d) : Full scale output = Step size × No. of steps
21. The number of comparators required in a 3-bit 2 = Step size × 2n – 1
comparator type analog to digital converter is–
(a) 2 (b) 3 2 2
Step size = 8 =
(c) 7 (d) 8 2 −1 255
APTRANSCO AE 2011 Input 1.5 1.5 × 255
Ans. (c) : Number of comparator required = 2n–1 Output = = =
n = 3bit Stepsize  2  2
 
23–1 = 8–1 = 7  255 
Comparator required = 7 = 191.25 ≈ 192 (next integer)
22. A system uses a 12 bit word to represent the (192)10 = (1100 0000)2
input signal. If the maximum peak to peak 26. The minimum number of resistor required in a
voltage at the output is set to 4V, the resolution 4-bit D/A network of weighted-resistor type is :
of the system is (a) 4 (b) 8
(a) 488 µV (b) 976 µV (c) 15 (d) 16
(c) 1952 µV (d) none of the above MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 Ans. (a) : In a 4-bit D/A network of weighted-resistor
Ans. (b) : Given, n = 12-bit, Vref = 4 V type,
V
Resolution = n ref
2 −1
4
Resolution = 12
2 −1
Resolution = 976 µV
23. Find out step and analog output for 4 bit R–2R
ladder DAC when input is 1000 and 1111.
Assume Vref = +5V Minimum no.of resistors required = No.of bits
(a) 6 V and 9 V (b) 3 V and 6 V ∵ n = 4 (Given)
(c) 10 V and 12 V (d) 2.66 V and 5 V Minimum no. of resistors required = 4
CIL MT 2020
27. The speed of conversion is maximum in : 32. The ADC that has maximum clock periods
(a) Successive approximation A/D converter equal to number of bits is:-
(b) Parallel-comparator A/D converter (a) Dual slope ADC
(c) Counter-ramp A/D converter (b) Counter ramp ADC
(d) Dual-slope A/D converter.
(c) Successive approximation ADC
(d) Flash converters ADC
Ans. (b) : The speed of conversion is maximum in
parallel comparator A/D converter speed of conversion UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
is maximum because the comparisons of the input Ans. (c) : The ADC that has maximum clock periods
voltage are carried out simultaneously. equal to number of bits is successive approximation
28. The input to 10 bit DAC is 0110111011. If the ADC. The conversion time of successive
full range of analog output voltage is 0V to 5V, approximation ADC is nTclk.
the converted output voltage is nearly............V Where, n = number of bits.
(a) 2.220 (b) 4.43 33. A 12 bit A/D converter has a range 0-10. What
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.443 is the approximate resolution of the converter?
AAI Junior Executive 2016 (a) 1 mV (b) 2.5 mV
V (c) 2.5 µ V (d) 12mV
Ans. (a) : Vout = n r × decimal value RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
2 −1
(0110111011)2= (443)10 Vm
Ans. (b) : Resolution = n
5 2 −1
Vout = 10 × 443 n = no of bit V = voltage range
2 −1
10 10
5 Resolution = = 12 =
= × 443 2 − 1 4096 − 1
1023 = 2.44 mV ≅ 2.5 mV
= 2.165 ≃ 2.2 34. The change in value of an analog signal during
29. How many comparators would a 12-bit flash the conversion process produces what is called
ADC require? the-
(a) 4095 (b) 3095 (a) Quantization error (b) Resolution error
(c) 4000 (d) 2512 (c) Nyquist error (d) Sampling error
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 PS PCL AE 2012
Ans. (a) : For n-bit conversion flash type ADC Ans. (a) : Quantization error is the difference between
requires– the analog signal and the closest available digital value
(i) 2n–1 comparators at each sampling instant from the A/D converter.
(ii) 2n resistors Quantization error also introduces noise, called
(iii) One 2n × n priority encoder quantization noise, to the sample signal.
∴ No. of comparators for 12-Bit ADC is 35. A 12 bit ADC is operating with 1µ sec. clock
212–1 = 4096 – 1 = 4095 period and total conversion time is seen to be
30. Which of the following finds application in 14 micro seconds.
pocket calculator? The ADC must be of:
(a) TTL (b) CMOS (a) Flash type
(c) ECL (d) Both (a) and (c) (b) Counting type
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II (c) Integrating type
Ans. (b) : Because of low power consumption CMOS is (d) Successive approximation type
used in pocket calculators. Punjab PSC SDE 2017
31. The fastest switching logic family is OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
(a) CMOS (b) TTL Ans. (d) : The conversion time different type of ADC
(c) DTL (d) ECL are given by,
JUVNL AE 2017 Flash type ADC:- It is required 1-clock cycle for ADC
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 conversion.
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II Counter type ADC:- The maximum conversion time in
Ans. (d) : ECL (Emitter Coupled Logic) counter type ADC converter. is (2n-1) Tclk.
• ECL is a non saturated logic ∵ n = 12 bit (given) Tclk = 1µ sec ( given )
• It is the fastest logic among all and hence called conversion time = (212 – 1).1 µsec = 4095 µsec
"current mode logic". Integrating type:- It is also known as dual-slope
• It provide wired 'OR' logic. integrating type ADC.
• It uses negative power supply to avoid any noise conversion time= (2n + N)Tclk
and glitches. Successive approximation type:-
conversion time = n Tclk Ans. (a) : Given,
In successive approximation type, Tclk = clock period 0.4
1 Tclk is used for start of conversion signal. % Resolution (R) = 0.4% = = 4 × 10–3
100
1 Tclk is used for end of conversion signal. n=?
Thus, Tclk = 1 µsec (given) 1
Resolution (R) =
n = 12 bit (given) (2) n − 1
∴ Conversion time = 12 ×1 µsec + 1 µsec (starting bit) 1
+ 1 µsec (ending bit) = 14 µsec 4 × 10–3 = n
(2) − 1
Thus, option (d) is correct. 1
n
36. A successive approximation A/D converter has (2) – 1 =
a resolution of 20 mV. What will be its digital 4 × 10−3
(2)n – 1 = 250
output for an analog input of 2.17 V? (2)n = 250 + 1
(a) 001101100 (b) 01101101 (2)n = 251
(c) 01101011 (d) None of the above (2)n ≃ (2)8
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 By comparing the power,
Ans. (a) : Given analog input = 2.17 V n≅8
Resolution = 20 mV = 20 × 10–3 V
2.17V 39. The resolution of a 12-bit D/A converter is
Number of steps = given by
20 × 10−3 (a) 1/15 (b) 1/255
= 108.5 (c) 1/4095 (d) 1/65,535
The digital result would be UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
(108)2 = (001101100)2. Ans. (c) : Given, n = 12-bit, Resolution = ?
37. The simplified block diagram of a 10-bit A/D 1
Resolution ( R ) = n
converter of dual-slope integrator type is 2 −1
shown in Fig. 14. The 10-bit counter at the 1
output is clocked by a 1 MHz clock. Assuming = 12
2 −1
negligibel time overhead for the control logic, 1
the maximum frequency of the analog signal =
4096 − 1
that can be converted using this A/D converter
1
is approximately =
4095
40. The fastest A/D converter is of the following
type:
(a) Flash type
(b) Counter (ramp) type
(c) SAR type
(d) Dual slope type
(a) 2 kHz (b) 1 kHz Ans. (a) : The fastest A/D converter is Flash type.
Decreasing order of counter speed–
(c) 500 Hz (d) 250 Hz Flash type > Counter (ramp) type > SAR type > Dual
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V slope type
Ans. (b) : For dual slope converter, minimum 41. A digital to analog converter with a full scale
conversion time is 2nTclk output voltage of 3.5V has a resolution close to
For maximum frequency, 14 mV. Its bit size is:
1 (a) 4 (b) 8
fmax = (c) 16 (d) 32
minimum conversion time UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
1 f UJVNL AE 2016
fmax = n
= clkn [ n = 10 bits ] Vr
2 Tclk 2 Ans. (b) Resolution = n
106 2 −1
fmax = = 976.56 Hz 3.5
210 14 × 10 = n
–3
2 −1
∴ fmax ≃ 1 KHz 3.5 ×1000
n
38. The resolution of a D/A converter is 2 –1=
14
approximately 0.4%. It is 2n – 1 = 5 × 50
(a) 8-bit converter (b) 10-bit converter 2n = 250 + 1
(c) 12-bit converter (d) 16-bit converter 2n = 251
RPSC VPITI 2016 2n ≃ 28
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II n ≈8

42. The number of comparators needed in a Ans. (d) : full scale output,
parallel conversion type 8-bit analog to digital VFS = Resolution × Max. decimal
converter is :
= nr × ( 2 n − 1)
V
(a) 8 (b) 16
(c) 255 (d) 256 (2 )
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I {Where, Vr = 15 V}
PTCUL AE 2012
Ans. (c) : Given, n = 8-bit
15
(
= 8 × 2 −1
2
8
)
Comparators needed in a parallel conversion A/D = 14.94 V
converter (N) = 2n–1
= (2)8 – 1 48. ADC preferred for digital panel meters and
= 256–1 multimeters
(a) Flash ADC
N = 255 (b) Servo ADC
43. Which of the following analog-to-digital (c) Successive approximation ADC
converters takes maximum time (slowest)? (d) Dual-slope ADC
(a) Counting type APSPDCL AE 2012
(b) Successive approximation type Ans. (d) : ADC preferred for digital panel meters and
(c) Integrating type multi-meter dual-slope ADC. A dual slope ADC
(d) Parallel comparator (flash) type produces an equivalent digital output for a
LMRC AM 2020 corresponding analog input by using two (dual) slope
Ans. (c) : Integrating type converter are one which technique. The dual slope ADC mainly consists of 5
takes maximum time. blocks.
44. In a three-phase full wave AC to DC converter, Integrator, comparator, clock signal generator, control
the ripple frequency of the output is: logic and counter.
(a) 6 × supply voltage frequency 49. The percent resolution of an 8-bit D/A
(b) 2 × supply voltage frequency converter is
(c) 12 × supply voltage frequency (a) 0.392 (b) 1/256
(d) 3 × supply voltage frequency (c) 1/255 (d) (a) and (b) both
LMRC AM 2020 APGENCO AE 2012
Ans. (a) : In 1-φ full wave AC-DC converter ripple 1
Ans. (a) : % resolution = N ×100
frequency is 2 × supply frequency 2 −1
So 3φ full wave converter will have 2 × 3 is 6 × supply 1 1
voltage frequency. = 8 ×100 = ×100
2 −1 255
45. What is the value of LSB of an 8-bit DAC for = 0.39%
0–12.8 V range ? 50. In R-2R ladder of DAC, if input is 0110 and
(a) 1.6 V (b) 50 mV Vref = 16V, then output voltage is _____.
(c) 0.625 V (d) 1.28 V (a) 8V
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 (b) 4V
Ans. (b) : The resolution is always equal to the "Weight (c) 6V
of the LSB" and is also referred to as the "step size". (d) 10V
Since it is the amount that Vo will change as the digital UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
input value is changed from one step to the next. Ans. (c) : for 4 -bit DAC
V V 12.8 V
Step size = N fs = 8 fs = = 50mV output voltage V0 = ref4 [ b 0 + 2b1 + 4b 2 + 8b 3 ]
2 − 1 2 − 1 255 2
46. What is the maximum number of memory Vref= 16 volt
locations that can be accessed by 8 address b0=0, b1=1, b2=1, b3=0
16
bits? V0 = [ 0 + 2.1 + 4.1 + 8.0 ]
(a) 255 (b) 256 16
(c) 512 (d) 511 V0 = [2+4]
GESCOM AE 2011 V0= 6V
Ans. (b) : Memory size = 2A × D 51. Sample-and-hold circuits in analog-to digital
Where, A = Address lines converters (ADCs) are designed to.
(a) sample and hold the output of the binary
D = Data lines counter during the conversion process
max no. of memory location = 28 (b) stabilize the input analog signal during the
= 256 conversion process
47. Select from the options, the full scale output for (c) sample and hold the D/A converter staircase
an 8 bit DAC for 0 to 15 V range. waveform during the conversion process
(a) 12.58 V (b) 13.02 V (d) stabilize the comparator's threshold voltage
(c) 13.25 V (d) 14.94 V during the conversion process.
DMRC AM 2018 KPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) : Sample and hold circuit in analog to digital Ans. (d) : 5 bit weighted resistor D/A converters in
converter (ADCs) are designed to stabilize the input which resistance of LSB = 40 kΩ i.e. b0 = 40 kΩ
analog signal during the conversion process. 40
52. Which of these commutation methods is used in b1 = b0 × 2–1 = = 20kΩ
2
AC – DC converters? 40
(a) Class F (b) Class D b2 = b0 × 2–2 = = 10kΩ
(c) Class C (d) Class A 4
KPSC AE 2014 40
b3 = b0 × 2–3 = = 5kΩ
Ans. (a) : Class F commutation method is used in AC- 8
DC converters. 40
Commutation means bring the thyristor from forward b4 = b0 × 2–4 = = 2.5kΩ
16
conduction state to forward blocking state. Thus, the resistor value corresponding to MSB will be
53. A n-bit Analog to Digital Converter (ADC) is 2.5 kΩ.
required to convert an analog input in the 56. Subranging ADC is a modification of
range 0-5V dc to an accuracy of 5 mV. What is (a) flash ADC architecture.
the value of n? (where n denotes resolution of (b) dual-slope integrating type ADC
ADC) (c) quad-slope integrating ADC
(a) 8 (b) 10 (d) counter type ADC
(c) 12 (d) 9 Vizag Steel MT 2013
DMRC AM 2020 Ans. (a) : Subranging ADC is modification of flash
ESE 2003 ADC architecture. It is a two stage data converter. The
first stage converter is a 3-bit flash ADC, and second
Ans. (b) : Resolution, in terms of full scale voltage of stage converter is a 4-bit flash ADC. That's why it can
ADC is equal to value of least significant bit (LSB), be said that is it the modification of flash ADC
Vfs architecture.
Resolution = VLSB = 57. How many control lines are present in analog
2n
to digital converter in addition to reference
Vfs= full scale voltage voltage?
n = no. of bits (a) 1 (b) 2
VLSB = voltage value of LSB (c) 3 (d) 4
Then, given that, UPSC JWM 2017
VLSB = 5mV Ans. (b) : There are 2 control lines present in analog to
Vfs = 5V digital converter in addition to reference voltage.
5 Ist indicate when to start and IInd when to end.
∴ 5 ×10−3 = n 58. What is the conversion time of a 12-bit counter
2
type ADC with 1 MHz clock frequency to
5 5000 convert a full scale input?
2n = −3
= = 1000
5 ×10 5 (a) 4.095 µs (b) 4.095 ms
2n = 210 (∵ 210 = 1000 ) (c) 4.95 s (d) 4.95 ms
UPSC JWM 2017
Compare both side,
2n − 1
n = 10 Ans. (b) : Conversion time =
f
54. The number of comparators required in a 4 bit
2 −1
12
comparator type ADC is : = = 4.095 ms
(a) 16 (b) 15 1× 106
(c) 17 (d) 12 n = no. of bit = 12
APTRANSCO AE 2017 f = clock frequency = 1MHz
59. The resolution in volts of a 9 bit D/A converter
Ans. (b) : The number of comparator required for an n which uses ladder network and has full scale
bit comparator type ADC = 2n–1 output voltage of +5V is:
For a 4 bit comparator type ADC total number of (a) 20 mV (b) 100 mV
comparator required = 24 – 1 (c) 10 mV (d) 1 mV
= 16 – 1 LMRC AM 2018
= 15 Ans. (c) : Given: V = 5 V
55. In a 5 bit weighted resistor D/A converters, the n=9
resistor value corresponding to LSB is 40 kΩ, V
Resolution (R) = n
and the resistor value corresponding to MSB 2
will be : 5
= 9
(a) 0.4 kΩ (b) 3 kΩ 2
(c) 2.8 kΩ (d) 2.5 kΩ = 9.76 × 10–3 = 9.76 mV
APTRANSCO AE 2017 Resolution (R) ≃ 10 mV

60. A 5 bit ladder has a digital input of 11010. Ans. (d) : For 4-bit R-2R ladder DAC
Assuming that 0 corresponds to 0 V and 1 V 5 1
corresponds to +10V, its input voltage will be: Resolution = n ref = 4 =
2 −1 2 −1 3
(a) +6.5 V (b) –6.65 V Analog output = Resolution × D (Decimal equivalent of
(c) –8.125 V (d) +8.125 V binary input)
LMRC AM 2018 1
= × 8 = 2.667 V
Ans. (d) : Given that, n = 5 3
5 bit ladder has a digital input = 11010 Directions:
1 corresponds to +10V consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement
0 corresponds to 0V (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these
two statements carefully and select the answers to
(11010)2 = (26)10 these items using the codes given below:
V +10 10 Codes:
Resolution (R) = refn = 5 = = 0.3125 (a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
2 2 32
So, its output voltage (V0) = Resolution × input individually true; and Statement (II) is the
= 0.3125 × 26 (b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
V0 = +8.125V individually true; but Statement (II) is
NOT the correct explanation of Statement
61. Traffic light at one particular crossing change (I)
after every 40 seconds. The traffic light at the (c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is
next crossing changes after every 32 seconds. false
At a certain time they change together. After (d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement (II) is
true
what time they will change together? 64. Statement (I) : Analog to digital conversion is
(a) 2 min. 40 sec. (b) 1 min. 20 sec. essentially a sampling process.
(c) 3 min. 20 sec. (d) 2 min. 20 sec. Statement (II) : A hold element is digital to
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018 analog converter.
Ans. (a) : ESE 2018
We have two crossing with traffic lights change after Ans. (c) : In electronics analog to digital converter is a
system that converts an analog signal into digital, it may
every 40 seconds and 32 seconds. be called sampling process also.
The time at which they will change together is The hold the value at a constant level for a specified
LCM of (40, 32) sec = 160 sec = 2 min 40 sec minimum period of time. So statement (II) is incorrect.
62. A digital volt meter (DVM) uses 10 MHz clock 65. Consider the following statements :
and has a voltage controlled generator which 1. Flash type ADCs are considered the fastest
2. In successive approximation type ADCs,
provides a width of 5μ sec/volt of unit signal. conversion time depends upon the magnitude
A 10 V input signal would correspond to a of the analog voltage
pulse count of– 3. Counter-type ADCs work with fixed
(a) 500 (b) 250 conversion time
(c) 750 (d) 1000 4. Dual slope ADCs are considered the slowest
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (a) : Given:- (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Clock frequency, f = 10 MHz ESE 2018
Thus, time for one count, Ans. (c) : The flash type ADCs are considered fastest,
1 1 as the time taken for conversion of analog to digital
T= = = 10−7 s only depends on the delays of comparator and encoders,
f 10 × 106 which and generally negligible for a n-bit successive
Total Time, approximation type ADC,
= 10 × 5 × 10−6 s t conversion= n.Tclk
Where Tclk = clock period
= 50 × 10 −6 s The conversion time is independent of magnitude of
Therefore, analog voltage.
The conversion time of counter type DC is given by,
50 × 10 −6 tconversion = Tclk (decimal equivalent of digital output)
Pulse Count = = 500
10−7 So, the conversion time of counter type ADC is not
fixed.
63. What is the analog output for a 4-bit R-2R For dual slope ADC, conversion time.
ladder DAC when input is (1000)2, for Vref = t conversion = (2n + m).Tclk
5V?
 Vanalog 
(a) 2.333 V (b) 2.444 V Where m= 2n  
(c) 2.5556 V (d) 2.6667 V  Vref 
ESE 2017 So, the dual slope ADC are slowest ADC.

66. An analog output voltage for the input 1001 to 69. Which of the following sentences are true?
a 4 bit D/A converter for all possible inputs (1) A dual slope A/D converter is slower than
assuming the proportionality factor K = 1 will other types of A/D converter.
be (2) D/A converters use various inverters, gates
(a) 9 (b) 6 and flip-flops.
(c) 3 (d) 1 (3) A/D converters use R to R connecting
ESE 2019 resistors.
(4) Successive approximation method has much
Ans. (a) : VO = K (decimal equivalent) conversion time.
= 1 × (23 × 1 + 0 × 22 + 0 + 21 + 20 × 1) = 1 × (8 + 1) Answer options:
=9 (a) 1 and 2 are true (b) Only 2 is true
67. How many bits are required in an A/D (c) 2 and 3 are true (d) 1 and 4 are true
converter with a B+1 quantizer to get a signal- Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
to quantization noise ratio of at least 90 dB for Ans. (d) :Only statements 1 and 4 are true.
a Gaussian signal with range of ± 3σx? A dual slope A/D converter is slower than other
(a) B + 1 = 12 bits (b) B + 1 = 14 bits types of A/D converter.
(c) B + 1 = 15 bits (d) B + 1 = 16 bits Successive approximation method has much
ESE 2019 conversion time.
70. Which of the following sentences are true?
Ans. (d) : Vp− p = 6σ x (1) Two simple but important tests performed to
for Gaussian variable mean mx = 0 check the operation of D/A converter are
Single power = mean square value transient test and monotonocity test.
2 2 2 (2) Two simple but important tests performed to
S = m x + σ x = σx check the operation of D/A converter are
∆2 steady state accuracy test and monotonocity
Noise power = test.
12 (3) Checking monotonicity means checking
Vp− p 6σ output voltage increase as the input digital
∆ = n = nx signal increases.
2 2 (4) For proper monotonicity the output waveform
 36 σ2  6σ2 should be perfect ramp waveform.
Noise power =  2n x /12  = 2nx Answer options:
 2  2 (a) Only 1 is true (b) 2 and 3 are true
2 (c) 2, 3 and 4 are true (d) Only 4 is true
σx 2 2n
SNR = =
 3 σx 
2 3 Ans. (b) : Only Statements 2 and 3 are true.
 2n  Two simple but important tests performed to check
 2  the operation of D/A converter are steady state
SNR in dB = 10 log10 2 2n − 10log10 3 accuracy test and monotonocity test.
Checking monotonicity means checking output
= (6n - 4.8) dB voltage increase as the input digital signal
Given that , SNR ≥ 90 dB increases.
6n − 4.8 ≥ 90 71. Which of the following sentences are true?
n ≥ 15.8 (1) When D/A converter is used in conjunction
n = 16 with multiplexer the maximum rate at which
Number of bits required = 16 converter can operate must be considered.
68. The device used to convert a binary number to (2) When D/A converter is used with multiplexer
a 7-segment display format is the. the minimum rate at which converter can
(a) Multiplexer (b) Encoder operate must be considered.
(c) Decoder (d) Register (3) Each time date is shifted into register,
MPPSC AE 2017 transience appear at the output of the
converter. This is due to different rise and fall
Ans. (c) : A digital decoder IC, is device which convert times of each flip-flop.
one digital format into another and one of the most (4) The settling time is the main factor
commonly used device for doing this is called binary determining maximum rate of multiplexing.
coded decimal (BCD) to 7-segment display decoder. Answer options:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are true (b) Only 2 is true
(c) 1 and 2 are true (d) 2 and 3 are true
Ans. (a) : Only statement 1, 3 and 4 are true.
When D/A converter is used in conjunction with
multiplexer the maximum rate at which converter
can operate must be considered.
Each time date is shifted into register, transience
appear at the output of the converter. This is due to
different rise and fall times of each flip-flop.
The settling time is the main factor determining
maximum rate of multiplexing.
(vi) Basic of Filter Circuit 6. The letter A below indicates which filter?
1. GSM incorporates ..................... concept for

increasing subscribers number.
(a) Cell split (b) Cell reuse
(c) Cell Filters (d) Frequency reuse
UPPCL AE 2013
Ans. (d) : → GSM incorporates frequency reuse (a) stop band
concept for increasing subscribers number (b) transition band
Advantage of frequency reuse is reduce the minimum (c) pass-band
height of the transmitted antenna. (d) Ripple
2. An ideal reconstruction filter cannot be used UPRVUNL AE 2016
for real-time applications since it is: Ans : (c) The above graph represented a band pass
(a) Non-linear (b) Non-causal filters
(c) Unstable (d) Stable Band-Pass Filter:-
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 A band-Pass filter is a device that passes frequencies
Ans. (b) : within a certain range and rejects (attenuates)
3. The drawback of m-derived filter is removed frequencies outside that range.
by connecting number of sections in addition to 7. Which one of the following filters has its
prototype and m-derived sections terminating:
(a) Full sections transfer function as shown in the equation
(b) One-fourth sections below?
(c) Half sections jωRC
H( ω) =
(d) Square of three-fourth section 1 + jωRC
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 (a) High-pass filter (b) Low-pass filter
Ans. (c) : (c) Band-pass filter (d) Band-stop filter
4. This frequency response graph is for a: OMC Deputy manager 2019
Ans. (a) : First Order High Pass Filter
(a) low-pass filter (b) high-pass filter Output Impedance = ZR = R

(c) band-pass filter (d) band-stop filter Input Impedance = ZR + ZC
UPRVUNL AE 2016 1
Ans : (a) The above graph represents a low pass filter. =R+
Cs
A low pass filter (LPF) is a filter that passes signals
Z R RCs
with a lower frequency. Transfer Function = out = =
Z 1 1 + RCs
5. A Blackman window can eliminate ripple in in R+
FIR filters. The trade off is: Cs
(a) larger transition bandwidth jωRC
∴ H(ω) =
(b) smaller transition bandwidth 1 + jωRC
(c) a non-linear phase response 8. Magnetic recording tape is commonly made
(d) possible instability from
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (a) small particles of iron
Ans : (a) A Blackman window can eliminate ripple in (b) silicon iron
FIR filters. The trade off is larger transition bandwidth. (c) ferric oxide
WBPSC AE 2008
Ans. (c) :
9. To reduce the error in Digital circuits the
following component is required–
(a) Isolation transformer
s
(b) Antialiasing filter
M −1
∑
(c) Sample and Hold circuit
Y ( n) = h( R ) S ( n − R )
(d) ADC
R =0
GMB AE 2017
Ans. (b) : To reduce the error in digital circuit anti (a) 32 chip (b) 64 chip
aliasing filter is required this filter is used before a (c) 12 chip (d) 48 chip
signal sampler or restrict the band width of a signal to UPPCL AE 2015
approx satisfy sampling theorem. Ans. (a) 32 memory chip required to design 4K-byte
10. The magnitude response of a Chebyshev type I memory, if the memory chip size is 1024×1.
filter exhibits ripples in 15. The attenuation versus frequency
(a) Stop band (b) Pass band characteristics shown is that of an:
(c) Transition band (d) Settling band
Ans. (b) : The magnitude response of a Chebyshev type
I filter exhibit ripple in pass band for calculating the
ripple
ripple = –20 log10 (1–δp)
δp = magnitude of ripple
11. A band pass signal has significant frequency
component in the range of 1.5 MHz to 2 MHz.
If the signal is to be reconstructed from its
samples, the minimum sampling frequency will
be –
(a) 1 MHz (b) 2 MHz
(c) 3.5 MHz (d) 4 MHz
Ans. (d) : For sampling of any signal
(a) m derived Band pass filter.

(b) m derived High pass filter .
Sampling Frequency- (c) m derived Low pass filter.
fs = 2f max (d) M derived Band stop filter.
DMRC AM 2018
fs = 2 × 2 MHz = 4MHz Ans. (c) : The attenuation versus frequency
12. For active filters, which of the following is characteristics shown is that of an m derived Low pass
TRUE? filter.
(a) Slope of response in transition band is 40 dB 16. A low-pass filter with a cut-off frequency of 60
per octave for second order filter. Hz is cascaded with a high pass filter with a
(b) Slope of response in transition band is 40 dB cut-off frequency of 40 Hz. The resultant
per decade for second order filter system of filters will function as.
(c) Slope of response in transition band is 6 dB (a) an all-pass filter
per octave for second order filter (b) an all-stop filter
(d) Slope of response in transition band is 20 dB (c) a band stop (band-reject) filter
per decade for second order filter. (d) a band-pass filter
AAI Junior Executive 2016 KPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) : For active filters slope of response in Ans. (d) : A low pass filter with cut off frequency of 60
transition band is 40dB per decade for second order Hz is cascaded with high pass filter with cut off
filter and 20dB per decade for first order filter. frequency of 40 Hz. Resultant function will work as
13. For attenuation of high frequencies we should band pass filter from 40Hz to 60Hz frequency.
use A low pass filter with cut-off frequency 60 Hz,
(a) Shunt Capacitance (b) Series Capacitance
(c) Inductance (d) Resistance
Ans. (a) : For attenuation of high frequencies we
should use shunt capacitance since Xc for high
frequency is low, the high frequency are shunted to
ground and are not transmitted. A high pass filter with cut-off frequency 40 Hz,
High frequency components are eliminated in Low
pass filter; in it we place capacitance in shunt to the
source.
14. Number of memory chips required to design
4K-byte memory if the memory chips size is
1024 × 1, is
after cascading, 4. A high-pass π-connected symmetrical filter
section has a capacitance of 5000 pF in its
series arm and inductances of 500 µH in each
of its shunt arms. The cut-off frequency of the
filter is
(a) 201.3 kHz (b) 284.7 kHz
(c) 50.33 kHz (d) 71.18 kHz
KPTCL AE 2016
Ans. (d) :
17. How many 3-line-to-8-line decoders are
required for 1-of-32 decoder?
(a) 4 (b) 1
(c) 8 (d) 2
CIL MT 2017
Ans. (a) : Total number of output lines = m ≤ 2 n 1
n = Total number of input lines fc =
4π LC
32 ≤ 2n 2L = 500 µH
2 ≤ 2 = Input lines = 5
s n
L = 250 µH
32 1
No. of decoders required = =4 fc =
8
4π 250 × 10 × 5000 × 10−12
−6
fc = 71.18 kHz
(vii) Semiconductor Memories 5. What is the maximum memory size that can be
1. Give the number of bytes stored in the memory accessible with n lines in the address bus of a
unit of size 2T × 8 microprocessor?
(a) 241 (b) 240 (a) 2n+1 (b) 2n-1
(c) 2 31
(d) 2 30
(c) 2n (d) 2n
TNPSC AE 2018 Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
Ans. (a) : 1 Terabyte = 1024 G.B. Ans. (d) : The maximum memory size that can be
= 1024 × 1024 MB accessible with n lines in the address bus of a
= 1024 × 1024 × 1024 kB microprocessor 2n.
= 1024 × 1024 × 1024 ×1024 bytes 6. Which is true statement?
= 240 bytes (a) A bistable multivibrator is a free-running
2T B = 2 40+1 = 241 bytes oscillator
So , 241 bytes unit memory stored in 2T × 8 memory (b) A bistable muiltivibrator is triggered
size. oscillator
2. For a memory with 64K words storage, the (c) A bistable multivibrator is a sawtooth wave
number of pins required for addressing and the generator
address range in binary format is- (d) A bistable multivibrator is a crystal oscillator
(a) 8 (b) 12
MPPSC AE 2014
(c) 16 (d) 20
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II Ans. (b) : Bistable multivibrator is also called sawtooth
6
Ans. (c) : 64 K = 2 × 2 10 multivibrator, requires application of two triggers to
= 216 return the circuit to its original state. Bistable
∴ n = 16 multivibrator sometimes called flip-flops obviously
3. The typical fan-out of standard TTL is : such a circuit does not oscillate. In this circuit, both
(a) 6 (b) 14 coupling network provide d.c. coupling and no energy
(c) 12 (d) 10 storage element is used.
UPRVUNL AE 2016 7. The advantage of digital display devices are–
Ans : (d) Fan out- Fan-out is a term that defines the (a) Human error in reading can be eliminated
maximum number of digital inputs that the output of a (b) Low power consumption
single logic gate can feed. Most transistor-transistor (c) Both (a) and (b)
logic(TTL) gates can feed up to 10 other digital gates or (d) Neither of (a) and (b)
devices. GMB AE 2017
Typical Fan-out of standard TTL–––10 Ans. (c) : Advantage of digital display devices are
Propagation delay –––––– 7–10 nsec (a) Human error in reading can be eliminated
Power supply voltage –––– +5V (b) Low power consumption. A digital display device is
Number of gates which can be derived by output of one an output device for presentation of information in
logic gate is called Fan-out. visual or tactile form.
8. A semiconductor ROM is basically Ans. (a) : The speed of any digital integrated circuit
(a) a set of flip-flop memory elements indicates how fast a flip-flop can changes the stages.
(b) a sequential circuit with flip-flops and gates ICs are a high speed input ad output devices which used
(c) a combinational logic circuit
in smart phones and laptop etc.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II 14. The disadvantage of dynamic storage elements
ESE 1992 is that
Ans. (c) : ROM is a semiconductor memory that is (a) storage cells are to be refreshed frequently
designed to hold data either permanently or do not (b) information stored previously is lost
charge frequently. (c) power has to be kept on
A semiconductor ROM is basically a combinational (d) None of the above
logic circuit. JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI
9. Monolithic ICs are fabricated within a- Ans. (a) : Disadvantages of Dynamic memory
(a) soft stone (b) single stone
allocation or dynamic storage elements-
(c) silicon layer (c) ceramic layer
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II As the memory is allocated during run time, it
Ans. (c) : Monolithic ICs are fabricated within a silicon requires more time.
layer. Hence All circuits components and their inter Memory needs to be free by the user when done.
connections are to formed in a single layer. This is important as it is more likely to turn into
10. The number of address lines required to bugs that are difficult to find.
address a memory of size 16K is: In this storage cells are to be refreshed frequently.
(a) 14 Lines (b) 16 Lines
(c) 15 Lines (d) 12 Lines 15. A memory system has a total of 8 memory
UPPCL AE 2015 chips, each with 12 address lines and 8 data
ESE 2012 lines. Total size of the memory system is :
Ans. (a) Memory of size =16 K (a) 6 Kbytes (b) 32 Kbytes
= 2 4 × 210 (c) 48 Kbytes (d) 64 Kbytes
= 214 UJVNL AE 2016
14 Address line required to address a memory of size Ans. (b) Total size of memory =
16K. 2 A × data lines × number of memory chips
11. Four memory chips of 256 × 4 sizes have their
(Where A = number of address lines)
address busses connected together. The size of
the system will be; = 212 × 8 × 8
(a) 1024×4 (b) 64×16 = 210 × 2 2 × 23 × 23
(c) 1024×16 (d) 256×16
 210 = 1K 
UPPCL AE 2015 = 25 k bytes  23 = 8 = 1 byts 
Ans. (d) Four memory chips of 256×4 sizes have their
address busses connected together, size of the system, = 32 k bytes
= 256 × 16 16. Which among the following logic family has
12. What are the number of Memories required of least propagation delay?
size 16×4 to design a Memory of size 64×8 ?
(a) TTL (b) CMOS
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8 (c) DTL (d) I2L
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019
Ans. (d) : Ans. (a) : TTL has least propagation delay which is
The number of ROM required = (64 × 8)/(16 × 4) about 1.5 – 33 ns.
=8
17. A modulus-10 ring counter require a minimum
13. The speed of an digital IC indicates –
(a) how fast a flip-flop can change stages of.
(b) how fast input triggers the output (a) ten flip-flops (b) five flip-flops
(c) the rate at which output changes (c) four flip-flops (d) twelve flip-flops
(d) none of these MPPSC AE 2017
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI Ans. (a) : A modulus-10 ring counter require a
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II minimum of ten flip-flops.

(viii) Miscellaneous
1. The figure of merit is minimum in:-

(a) I2L
(b) NMOS
(c) ECL
(d) TTL
Ans. (a) :
Logic family Figure of merit (FOM)
2
IL 0.1 pJ to 0.7 pJ
(a) An astable multivibrator
NMOS 250 pJ
(b) A monostable multivibrator
ECL 55 pJ (c) Voltage-controlled oscillator
TTL 100 pJ (d) Ramp generator
Thus, the figure of merit is minimum in I2L. UPRVUNL AE 2014
2. The expression for time period of a 555 Timer Ans. (c)
based astable multivibrator is:
(a) t1 = 0.7( R1 + R2 )C1 and t2 = 0.7 R2 C1
(b) t1 = ( R1 + R2 )C1 and t2 = 0.7 R1C1
(c) t1 = R1C1 and t2 = 0.7 R2 C1
(d) t1 = 0.7( R1 + R2 )C1 and t2 = R2 C1

Ans. (a) : for 555 timer based
Above circuit is voltage controlled oscillator it is an free
t1 = 0.7.( R 1 + R 2 ) C1 running multivibrator and operate at a set of frequency
fo called free running frequency.
t 2 = 0.7R 2C1
5. The multivibrator circuit which processes one
3. In an astable multivibrator stable state and one quasi stable is:
(a) β = 1 (a) Astable
(b) β A = 1 (b) Monostable
(c) β > 1 (c) Bistable
(d) β < 1 (d) Schmitt trigger circuit
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (a) : Astable multivibrators are free running Ans. (b) : Monostable multivibrators (or) "One-shot"
oscillators which oscillate between two states multivibrators is used to generate a signal output pulse
continuously producing square wave output waveforms. of a specified width, either "HIGH" or "LOW" when a
The basic transistor circuit for an Astable Multivibrator suitable external trigger signal or pulse is applied.
produces a square wave output from a pair of grounded Monostable multivibrator process one stable and one
emitter cross-coupled transistors. quasi-stable stage.
In Astable Multivibrator β = 1. 6. A multivibrator which has both quasi-stable
states is called
4. What does the following given circuit
represent? (a) Schmitt trigger

(b) Astable multivibrator (c) Transistor Transistor Logic and
(c) Monostable multivibrator Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
(d) Bi-stable multivibrator (d) Tristate transistor Logic and Complementary
Metal Oxide Silicon
RPSC VPITI 2018
Ans. (b) : A multivibrator which has both quasi-stable
states is called astable multivibrator. UPRVUNL AE 2016
7. IC No. 7420 represents Ans. (c) : Full form of TTL and CMOS in reference of
logic familiar
(a) Dual 4-input AND gates
TTL → Transistor Transistor logic
(b) Dual 4-input NAND gates
(c) Quad 2-input AND gates CMOS → Complementary Metal oxide Semiconductor
(d) Quad 2-input NAND gates 12. Basic circuit of ECL family is:
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II (a) NOR (b) XOR
Ans. (b) : IC No. 7420 represents dual 4 input NAND (c) CMOS (d) NAND
gates. UPRVUNL AE 2016
8. Which amongst the following logic gate Ans : (a) ECL (Emitter Coupled Logic) is a high-speed
families is the slowest? integrated circuit bipolar transistor logic family. ECL
(a) ECL (b) TTL uses an overdrive BJT differential amplifier with single-
ended input.
(c) CMOS (d) (I2)L
Basic circuit of ECL is NOR/OR Gate.
UPRVUNL AE 2016
13. Which of the following TTL sub-families has
Ans : (c) CMOS family is the slowest logic gate family,
maximum speed?
it has very low power dissipation, it can operate at
maximum supply voltage (3V to 18 V). (a) Standard TTL
(b) Schottky–clamped TTL
9. The logic family which is most suitable in the
industrial environment is : (c) High speed TTL
(a) (I2)L (b) HTL (d) Low power TTL
(c) TTL (d) CMOS Ans: (b) In TTL sub-families, schottky-clamped TTL
has maximum speed.
UPRVUNL AE 2016
It has average power dissipation =22 mW/gate and
Ans : (b) HTL logic family is most suitable in industrial average propagation delay 3ns.
environment. It uses schottky diode clamps at gate.
10. The switching speed of ECL is very high
because:
(a) it uses positive logic
(b) it uses negative logic
(c) it uses high speed transistors
(d) its transistors remain unsaturated
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans : (d) Switching speed of ECL is very high because
its transistor remain unsaturated. Preventing transistors
from entering the saturation region.
11. The full forms of the abbreviation TTL and
CMOS in reference to logic families are
14. Ultraviolet radiation is used in IC fabrication
(a) Triple Transistor Logic and Chip Metal Oxide
process for:
Semiconductor
(a) Diffusion (b) Isolation
(b) Tristate Transistor Logic and Chip Metal
Oxide Semiconductor (c) Masking (d) Mettallisation
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016

Ans. (a) : Ultra violet radiation is used in IC fabrication 19. Monolithic IC design is based on
process for diffusion. (a) extreme use of transistors and diodes
15. A system of internal _______ gets initiated (b) extreme use of RC coupling
almost automatically resulting in highly (c) using high value resistors and capacitors
efficient organization as a whole. (d) making the area of circuit elements as large as
(a) Auditing possible
(b) Verification UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
(c) Validating Ans. (a) : Monolithic IC design is based on extreme use

of transistors and diodes.
(d) Benchmarking
20. In a monostable multivibrator using 555 timer,
the time delay is 100msec, timing resistor is 100
Ans. (d) : A system of internal bench marking gets kΩ, the value of timing capacitor is
initiated almost automatically resulting in highly (a) 9 mF
efficient organization as a whole. (b) 0.9 µF
16. Which of the following statement is wrong (c) 9 F
regarding a multivibrator ? (d) 1.8 µF
(a) Output is available continuously APSPDCL AE 2012
(b) Feed back between two stages is 100% Ans. (b) : A 555 timer in a monostable multi-vibrator
(c) Positive feedback is employed needed to produce a time delay in the circuit.
(d) When one transistor is ON, the other is OFF. For monostable multi-vibrator
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II t = 1.1RC
t = Time delay = 100 msec
Ans. (a) : A multivibrator cannot gives the output
continuously because there is an off stage occurs and Time resistor = 100 kΩ
some time due to unstability so, it does not gives the 100×10−3
Then C = = 0.9 µF
output continuously. 1.1×100×103
17. Which of the following is used for timing 21. An 8-bit DAC uses a ladder network. The full-
devices : scale output voltage of the converter is +10V.
(a) Astable multivibrator The resolution expressed in percentage and in
volts is, respectively
(b) Monostable multivibrator
(a) 0.25% and 30 mV
(c) Bistable multivibrator
(b) 0.39% and 30 mV
(d) Schmitt Trigger
(c) 0.25% and 39 mV
(d) 0.39% and 39 mV
Ans. (b) : A monostable multivibrator is sequential
ESE 2018
electronic circuit that generates an output pulse. When it
100 100 100
is triggered a pulse of predefined duration is produced. Ans. (d) : % Resolution = = 8 =
So, monostable multivibrator is used for timing devices. ( 2 − 1) − 1 255
n
2
18. The logic families particularly suited for = 0.392%

implementation of LSI and VSI functions are Fullscale output
Resolution in voltas =
(a) I2L (b) ECL 2n − 1
(c) Schottkey TTL (d) CMOS 10
= 8
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II 2 −1
Ans. (a) : The logic family particularly suited for 10
implementation of LSI and VSI formations are I2L. In =
255
LSI (large scale integration) has no. of component from
500 to 300000 or more than 100 gates. VSI-very large = 0.039 V
scale integration having 300000 chips. = 39 mV

03.
Power System Analysis
Ans. (c) : Diversity factor =
(i) Generating Power Station (Sum of individual
maximum demands)
1. The maximum demand of a consumer is 2 kW (Coincident maximum demand
and his daily energy consumption is 20 units. of the whole system)
the load factor is: mathematically, diversity factor is expressed as:
(a) 10% (b) 42% D + D 2 + ............ + D n
(c) 60% (d) 41.6% FD = 1
Dg
TSPSC AEE 2017 or
Ans. (d) : Given, Maximum demand = 2 kW n
Daily energy consumption = 20 units = 20 kWh. ∑ Di
Pavg Pavg × T FD = i=1
Plant load factor = = Dg
Pm Pm × T
Where,
energy consumption in a day FD = diversity factor
=
energy able to produce in a day Di = maximum demand of the load I,
irrespective of the time of occurrence.
20 10
= = Dg = D(1+2+3+.......n)-maximum coincident
2 × 24 24 demands of a group of n load,
= 0.41667 If the value of the diversity factor is greater than 1, then
= 41.6% it is a good diversity factor, and 1.0, represents a poor
2. In order to have lower cost of electric energy diversity factor. A highly diversity factor has the effect
of reducing the maximum demand.
generation:
(a) the load factor and diversity factor should be 4. Which of the following statements regarding
steam boilers are correct?
low 1. The boiler must be capable of quick starting
(b) the load factor should be low but the diversity and loading.
factor should be high 2. The boiler should have no joints exposed to
(c) the load factor should be high but the flames.
diversity factor should be low 3. The boiler must be capable of burning low
(d) both the load factor and diversity factor ash content coal efficiently.
should be high (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2020
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans. (d) : Qualities required for a steam boilers–
ESE 2013
Quick starting and loading.
Ans. (d) : Load factor–ratio of average load and Efficient burning of coal.
maximum load. Load factor is always less than 1. If
Proper design so that no joints are exposed to flame.
load factor is high, utilization is high.
Domestic load- 10% – 20% 5. Which of the following is NOT one of the laws
Industrial load - 80% – 90% of limiting friction?
(a) The magnitude of the limiting frictional force
Diversity factor–ratio of peak loads of all system to
depends upon the nature of material of the
peak load of complete system.
surface in contact and on their roughness or
Diversity factor is always greater than 1.
smoothness
So in order to have lower cost of energy generation,
(b) The force of friction is tangential or parallel
both load factor and diversity factor should be high.
to the surfaces in contact
3. Diversity factor in a power system is (c) Direction of force of friction is opposite to the
(a) always less than unity direction in which the body would start
(b) normally less than unity moving on applying the force
(c) always more than unity (d) It is dependent on the size or area of the
(d) normally more than unity surfaces in contact
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I JUVNL AE 2017

Ans. (d) : Limiting friction is does not depend on the 11. Which one of the following is employed as a
size or area of the surfaces in contact. moderator by CANDU type of slow thermal
1. The direction of limiting frictional force is always nuclear reactors?
opposite the direction of motion. (a) Water (b) Heavy water
2. Limiting friction acts tangential to the two surfaces (c) Graphite (d) Beryllium
in contact. TSPSC AEE 2017
3. The magnitude of limiting friction is directly ESE 2006
proportional to the normal reaction between the two Ans. (b) : Heavy water in nuclear power plant used as
surface. moderator by CANDU type of slow thermal nuclear
6. The design of hydrostatic bearings commonly reactor.
involve more complex lubrication systems, and 12. Large size steam plants and nuclear plants are
requires specialized design and application suitable for
practices. One of the advantages of hydrostatic (a) Intermediate loads
bearing is (b) Base loads
(a) Complete elimination of wear (c) Both base and peak loads
(b) Being best for light load and extremely high (d) Peak loads
speed TNPSC AE 2018
(c) Low stiffiness TSPSC AEE 2017
(d) Being best for heavy load and extremely high Ans. (b) : Thermal power plant, and nuclear power
speed plant are operate economically for base load gas turbine
JUVNL AE 2017 and diesel power plant operate for peak load.
Ans. (a) : The design of hydrostatic bearing commonly
13. Diversity factor is the ratio of
involve more complex lubrication systems, and requires
specialized design and application practices. One of the Average demand
(a)
advantages of hydrostatics bearing is complete Maximum demand
elimination of wear. Hydrostatic bearing are externally Maximum demand
pressurized fluid bearing, where the fluid is usually oil, (b)
water or air, and the pressurization is done by a pump. Connected load
7. Which of the following is a non-conventional Sum of individual maximum demand
(c)
source of energy? Simultaneous maximum demand of entire group
(a) Nuclear (b) Coal fired
(c) Wind (d) Gas fired Units generated in a year
(d)
RPSC AE 2018 8760 hours
Ans : (c) Non-conventional source of energy are also WBPSC AE 2007
called renewable source of energy. Example wind
energy, Bio energy, solar energy and tidal energy. Ans. (c) :
8. Which of the pollutants is mostly emitted from 14. A fuel cell in order to produce electricity burns
fossil-fuelled power plant? (a) Helium (b) Nitrogen
(a) particulate matters (c) Hydrogen (d) Lithium
(b) SO2 TNPSC AE 2018
(c) CO Ans. (c) : A fuel cell in order to produce electricity
(d) CH4 burns hydrogen.
WBPSC AE 2003 15. Lignite, bituminous and anthracite are
Ans. (d) : different ranks of
9. Which information a hydrograph does not (a) Nuclear fuel (b) Coal
provide : (c) Biogas (d) Natural gas
(a) the discharge at any time during the period TNPSC AE 2018
under consideration Ans. (b) : Lignite, bituminous and anthracite are
(b) the amount of water stored in a dam different ranks of coal.
(c) the maximum and minimum run-off during 16. The power extracted by the wind blades during
the period upstream is
(d) the average run-off during the period
1
WBPSC AE 2003 (a) P = C P A ρ V 3 (b) P = 2CPAρV3
Ans. (b) : 2
10. Find out the odd one : 1
(c) P = C P A ρ V 2 (d) P = 2CPAρV2
(a) Pelton Wheel 2
(b) Suction Pump TNPSC AE 2018
(c) Francis Turbine Ans. (a) : Power extracted by the wind blades during
(d) Kaplan Turbine
1
WBPSC AE 2003 upstream is P = C P A ρ V 3
Ans. (b) : 2

17. The cut-out speed of a wind turbine is from Average load
(a) 25 m/s to 40 m/s (b) 30 m/s to 60 m/s Ans. (d) : Capacity factor of a plant =
(c) 40 m/s to 60 m/s (d) 40 m/s to 80 m/s Plant capacity
TNPSC AE 2018 25. The function of economiser is to
Ans. (a) : Cut-out speed of a wind turbine is from 25 (a) heat the feed water using exhaust steam
m/s to 40 m/s. (b) heat the feed water using exhaust gases
18. Which of the following is not a part of a (c) heat the incoming air using exhaust gases
modern wind turbine? (d) heat the cooling water using exhaust steam
(a) Compressor (b) Gearbox TNPSC AE 2018
(c) Nacelle (d) Yaw drive Ans. (b) : Function of economiser is to heat the feed
TNPSC AE 2018 water using exhaust gas.
Ans. (a) : Compressor is not a part of a modern wind 26. The main consistent of LPG is
turbine. The nacelle of a wind turbine, where the tower (a) Methane (b) Butane
meets the rotor, houses important components like the (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen
gear box, which converts the relatively slow rotation of TNPSC AE 2018
the blades into the higher RPM of the turbine's Ans. (b) : The main consistent of LPG is Butane.
generator. The Yaw drive is a motor that turns the
nacelle to keep the rotor facing into the wind tat all 27. Load factor during a period is
times. (a) average load/installed capacity
(b) average load/maximum load
19. The amount of energy available in the wind at (c) maximum load/average load
any instant is proportional to ______ of the
wind speed. (d) maximum load/installed capacity
(a) Square root (b) Square Vizag Steel MT 2012
(c) Half (d) cube  Average load 
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (b) :  Load factor = 
Ans. (d) : Amount of energy available in the wind at  Maximum load 
any instant is proportional to cube of the wind speed. 28. In the figure shown below which curve
π 2 3 represents the variation of cost of generation
Electric power is P = r ν ρη per kWh with the load factor, for a thermal
2
power plant ?
20. In solar radiation the angle made by the plane
surface with the horizontal
(a) Azimuth angle (b) Slope
(c) Zenith angle (d) Declination angle
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : In solar radiation the angle made by the plane
surface with the horizontal slope. The slope is the angle
made by the plane surfaces with the horizontal. It is
considered +ve for surfaces slopping towards the south
and -ve for surface slopping towards the north.
21. Solar constant is (a) curve A (b) curve B
(a) 1.15 W/m2 (b) 1.4 W/m2 (c) curve C (d) curve D
2
(c) 1.4 kW/m (d) 1.4 mW/m2 Vizag Steel MT 2012
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (d) : The variation of cost of generation per kWh
Ans. (c) : Solar constant is 1.4 kW/m2. with the load factor is given by the below graph.
22. NASA standard value for solar constant
(a) 1353 Watts/sq.m (b) 116.5 Watts/sq.m
(c) 13.53 kW/sq.m (d) 0.116 kW/sq.m
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (a) : NASA standard value for solar constant is
1353 Watts/sq.m.
23. What is the maximum possible output of a
solar array?
(a) 500 W/m2 (b) 250 W/m2
2
(c) 500 kW/m (d) 250 mW/m2 29. Heating value of coal is approximately
TNPSC AE 2018 (a) 1000–2000 kcal/kg
Ans. (b) : Maximum possible output of a solar array (b) 2000–4000 kcal/kg
250 W/m2.
(c) 5000–6500 kcal/kg
24. The capacity factor of a plant is equal to
(a) maximum load/average load (d) 9000–10500 kcal/kg
(b) average load/maximum load Vizag Steel MT 2012
(c) maximum load/plant capacity Ans. (c) : Heating value of coal is approximately
(d) average load/plant capacity = 5000 – 6500 kcal/kg.
TNPSC AE 2018
30. Ash content of most of the Indian coals is 36. Which of the following is an impulse turbine?
around (a) Francis turbine
(a) 1% (b) 5% (b) Keplan turbine
(c) 15% (d) 35% (c) Propeller turbine
Vizag Steel MT 2012 (d) Pelton turbine
Ans. (c) : Ash content of most of the Indian coals is WBPSC AE 2017
around 15%. Ans. (d) :
31. The load of a system is shown in the figure 37. Which of the following power stations is mainly
below. The load factor of the system is used to cover peak load on the system?
(a) Coal based thermal power plant
(b) Nuclear plant
(c) Gas based thermal power plant
(d) Pumped storage hydro power plant
WBPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) :
38. One Joule is equal to
(a) 0.778 (b) 0.667 (a) 10 Nm
(c) 0.438 (d) 0.331 (b) 0.1 Nm
Vizag Steel MT 2012 (c) 1 Nm
Ans. (c) : Load factor (d) 100 Nm
WBPSC AE 2017
1 
(100 × 6 ) +  × 18 × 50  Ans. (c) :
=
Average load
= 2  39. A generating station has a connected load of
Peak load 24 × 100 450 MW and a maximum demand of 250 MW;
= 0.4375 = 0.438 the units generated being 615 × 106 per annum.
32. Overall thermal efficiency of a steam power The demand factor will be nearly:
station is in the range (a) 0.48 (b) 0.56
(a) 18–24% (b) 30–40% (c) 0.64 (d) 0.72
(c) 44–62% (d) 68–79% UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
Vizag Steel MT 2012 Ans. (b) :
Ans. (a) : Thermal efficiency of steam power plant is 40. Which of the following components is used to
the ratio of the Heat equivalent of mechanical Energy hold the hydraulic fuel in hydraulic system?
transmitted to the turbine shaft and the heat of the (a) Reservoir (b) Flapper Nozzle
combustion. Thermal efficiency is generally quite low (c) Valve (d) Actuators
about 30%. So, overall thermal efficiency of a steam UPRVUNL AE 2016
power station is in the range 18–24%. Ans : (a) Reservoir is used to hold the hydraulic fuel in
33. A power plant supplying energy to a city will hydraulic system.
usually experience peak demand 41. A power plant which is most efficient but has a
(a) from midnight ot early morning high initial cost is :
(b) 8 am to 12 noon (a) hydro-electric power plant
(c) 2 pm to 6 pm (b) steam power plant
(d) 6 pm to 12 pm (c) diesel power plant
Vizag Steel MT 2012 (d) nuclear power plant
Ans. (d) : The peak demand in a city usually occurs OMC Deputy manager 2019
between 6 pm to 12 pm. Ans. (a) : Due to higher initial cost of construction of
34. In hydro power plants dam Hydro electric power plant but it has lowest
(a) Initial cost is high and operating cost is low running cost (due to nearly zero fuel cost)
(b) initial cost as well as operating costs are high 42. Pitot tube is used for measurement of
(c) initial cost is low and operating cost is high (a) pressure
(d) initial cost as well as operating cost is low (b) flow speed
Vizag Steel MT 2012 (c) velocity at a point
Ans. (a) : The initial cost in hydro power plants is high (d) discharge
but its operating cost is low. WBPSC AE 2012
35. Which of the following material is preferred
Ans. (b) :
for transmitting electrical energy over a long
distance? 43. In a reciprocating pump
(a) Copper (a) flow is intermittent
(b) Aluminium (b) flow is uniform
(c) Steel reinforced copper (c) priming is essential
(d) Steel reinforced aluminium (d) torque is uniform
WBPSC AE 2017 WBPSC AE 2012
Ans. (d) : Ans. (b) :

44. The term associated with energy conservation (c) both (a) and (b)
is (d) none of (a) and (b)
(a) use of nuclear energy (b) use of MHD WBPSC AE 2008
(c) energy audit (d) none of the above Ans. (c) :
WBPSC AE 2008 53. A water boiler at home is switched on to the
Ans. (c) : a.c. mains supplying power at 230 V/50 Hz. The
45. The following instrument is not used during frequency of instantaneous power consumed by
energy audit : the boiler is
(a) Lux meter (b) Thermometer (a) 0 Hz (b) 50 Hz
(c) Energy meter (d) Fluxmeter (c) 100 Hz (d) 150 Hz
Ans. (d) : Ans. (c) :
46. The number of Indian villages electrified is 54. In India, highest power generation is
approx. contributed by :
(a) 25% (b) 50 % (a) Nuclear power stations
(c) 75% (d) 85% (b) Hydro power stations
WBPSC AE 2008 (c) Thermal power stations
Ans. (d) : (d) Renewable energy sources
47. If power P available from a hydroscheme is UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
given by P = 9.81 QH where Q is the flow rate Ans. (c) : In India, highest power generation is
through the turbine in 1/S and H is the head in contributed by thermal power station. Around 63% by
metre then P will be in units the thermal power contribution, and hydro contributing
(a) W (b) HP around 25%.
KJ 55. Power generation cost reduces as
(c) (d) KWh (a) Diversity factor increases and load factor
S
WBPSC AE 2008 decreases
(b) Diversity factor decreases and load factor
Ans. (a) : increases
48. The flow duration curve at a given head of (c) Both diversity as well as load factor decreases
hydroelectric plant is used to determine (d) Both diversity as well as load factor increases
(a) total power available at the site MPPSC AE 2016
(b) total units of energy available Ans. (d) : As diversity of load and load factor increases
(c) load factor at the plant the cost of power generation reduces.
(d) diversity factor for the plant
1
WBPSC AE 2008 Cost of generation ∝
ESE 1994 DF
Ans. (a) : 1
Cost of generation ∝
49. Thermionic converter utilizes load factor
(a) seeback effect 56. The generation voltage is usually
(b) thermionic emission effect (a) between 11 KV and 33 KV
(c) peltier effect (b) between 400 KV and 700 KV
(d) thomson effect (c) between 132 KV and 400 KV
WBPSC AE 2008 (d) between 150KV and 500 KV
Ans. (b) : KPTCL AE 2016
50. The unit power of turbine is given by Ans. (a) : The generation voltage is usually between 11
(a) P/H5/4 (b) P/H2/3 kV and 33 kV after the generation voltage by using of
3/2
(c) P/H (d) P/H4/3 step up transformer voltage step up by 132 kV etc.
WBPSC AE 2008 57. A generating station has connected load of 500
Ans. (c) : MW and maximum demand of 200 MW, then
51. As per IE rules the maximum allowable the Demand Factor of the station will be
variation between declared and actual voltage (a) 0.4 (b) 0.2
at consumer's premises should be (c) 0.5 (d) 2.5
(a) ±6% (b) ±8% JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
(c) ±5% (d) ±9% Maximum Demand
WBPSC AE 2008 Ans. (a) : Demand factor =
Connected load
Ans. (a) :
200
52. The most suitable location for a power factor = = 0.4
improvement device is 500
(a) near the electrical appliance which is 58. Which fitting is used when control of oil or
responsible for poor power factor grease pressure is required and filling of gear
(b) at the receiving end, in case of transmission cases or bearing housings is done with pressure
line guns?

(a) Leakproof fittings Ans. (c) : Maximum demand = 60 MW = 60 ×106 W
(b) Button head fittings Annual load factor = 0.75
(c) Pressure relief valves So, total annual energy = Annual maximum demand ×
(d) Safety vent fittings Annual load factor × 8760
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III = 60 × 106 × 0.75 × 8760
Ans. (c) : Pressure relief value is used when control of = 394.2×106 kWh
oil or grease pressure is required and filling of gear 64. For low head and high discharge, the hydraulic
cases or bearing housings is done with pressure guns. turbine used is :
59. The strength characteristic and properties of (a) Francis turbine (b) Kaplan turbine
different types of soil are studied under (c) Pelton wheel (d) Impulse turbine
(a) Water Resources Engineering TSTRANSCO AE 2018
(b) Construction Technology Ans. (b) : Kaplan hydraulic turbine is used for low head
(c) Environmental Engineering and high discharge. A Kaplan hydraulic turbine is a
(d) Geotechnical Engineering reaction turbine speed of turbine is 60 rpm to 300 rpm.
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III 65. In an inter-connected power system, the most
Ans. (d) : The strength characteristic and properties of suitable power plant to meet the peak load
different types of soil and studied under geotechnical conditions is
engineering. (a) Hydel (b) Nuclear
60. A sudden reduction in load of the generator (c) Steam (d) Pumped storage
causes the governor to close the turbine gates RPSC VPITI 2018
and thus create an increased pressure in the Ans. (d) : Pumped storage is most suitable power plant
penstock which may results is to meet peak load condition, pumped storage can
(a) penstock hammer phenomenon provide energy balancing, stability and auxiliary grid
(b) water hammer phenomenon service. This is due to ability to respond to potentially
(c) pressure hammer phenomenon large electrical load change within seconds, that’s why
(d) load hammer phenomenon it is used for peak load condition.
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III 66. The load duration curve for a power station is
Ans. (b) : A sudden reduction in load of the generator as shown in the below figure. The reserve
capacity in the plant at 70% capacity factor is
causes the governor to close the turbine gates and thus
create an increased pressure in the penstock which is
called water hammer phenomenon.
61. A plant generate 30000 kWH energy per day
and the maximum demand on plant is 2500
kW, then the Load Factor of the plant will be:
(a) 0.7 (b) 0.4
(c) 0.6 (d) 0.5 (a) zero (b) 10 MW
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III (c) 30 MW (d) 50 MW
Total Energy generated RPSC VPITI 2018
Ans. (d) : Load factor = ESE 2001
Peak load × T
Ans. (b) :
30000
= = 0.5
2500 × 24
62. Load factor during a given period is defined as
the ratio of
(a) Average demand to the connected load
(b) Connected load to the maximum demand
(c) Average load to the maximum demand Maximum demand = 90 MW
(d) Maximum demand to the average demand 1
40 × × 100 + 100 × 50
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III Average demand = 2
Average load 100
Ans. (c) : Load factor = =70 MW
Maximum demand
Capacity factor = 70%
63. A power plant has following annual factors: averagedemand
load factor = 0.75, capacity factor = 0.60, use 0.7 =
Plant capacity
factor = 0.65. Maximum demand is 60 MW.
Estimate the annual energy production of the Plant capacity = 70 = 100 MW
plant. 0.7
(a) 265.2×103 kWh (b) 425.2×103 kWh So Reserve capacity
(c) 394.2×106 kWh (d) 564.2×106 kWh = plant capacity – Max demand
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II = 100 – 90 = 10 MW

67. What will be the reserve capacity of a power (a) 8760 × 105 kWh (b) 730 × 105 kWh
plant having maximum demand 90 MW? (c) 4380 × 105 kWh (d) 365 × 105 kWh
Given plant capacity factor 0.45 and utilization Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
factor 75%. Ans. (a) : Energy generated = Max. demand × load
(a) 90 MW (b) 30 MW factor × hours in 1 years
(c) 120 MW (d) 60 MW = (200 × 106) × (0.5) × (24 × 365)
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I = 8760 × 105 kWh
Ans. (b) : Maximum demand = 90 MW 73. What happens if steam input is increased in
Plant capacity factor = 0.45 increased & initial power factor is leading?
Utilization factor = 75% (a) Current decreases
Maximum demand (b) Power factor increases
Now, utilization factor = (c) Voltage increases
Plant capacity
(d) No change in frequency
90 Vizag Steel MT 2011
0.75 =
Plant capacity Ans. (b) : When steam input is increased, the machine
90 becomes overexcited.
Plant capacity = = 120 MW ∵ Eb cosδ > Vt So, the power factor will be increased.
0.75
Reserve capacity = Plant capacity– Maximum demand 74. What is the Dielectric strength of air at NTP
= 120 – 90 = 30 MW (rms)?
68. The centre of gravity of the volume of the (a) 1.0 KV/Cm (b) 21.1 KV/Cm
liquid displaced is called (c) 2.11 KV/Cm (d) None of the options
(a) metacentre (b) center of mass Vizag Steel MT 2011
(c) center of buoyancy (d) center of pressure Ans. (b) : Dielectric strength of air at Normal
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II temperature and pressure is–
Ans. (c) : The centre of gravity of the volume of the 21.1 kV/cm (rms)
liquid displaced is called center of buoyancy. & 30 kV/cm (peak)
69. For all pure substances there is a temperature 75. The load curve is used for :
called triple point. The phase(s) which exist in (a) Deciding schedule of generating units
equilibrium at this point is/are (b) Deciding sizes of generating units
(a) Solid, liquid and gas (c) Deciding total installed capacity of the plant
(b) Solid only (d) Deciding schedule and sizes of the generating
(c) Liquid only units and capacity of the plant
(d) Gas only MPPSC AE 2014
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II Ans. (d) : Load curve is in the power system chart
Ans. (a) : For all pure substances there is a temperature illustrating the variation in demand/electrical load over
called triple point. The phase(s) which exist in a specific time. It helps in deciding schedule and sizes
equilibrium at this point are Solid, liquid and gas. of generating units or capacity of the power plant.
70. The normally acceptable standard value of 76. The base load power station supplies load in a
TDS (Total dissolved solids) for drinking water
is day is–
(a) 500 mg/l (b) 2500 mg/l (a) Peak hours (b) Off peak hours only
(c) 100 mg/l (d) 2000 mg/l (c) Full day (d) None of above
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II GMB AE 2017
Ans. (a) : The normal acceptable standard value of TDS Ans. (c) : Base Load– The unvarying load which
(Total dissolved solids) for drinking water is 500 mg/l. occurs almost the whole day on the station is known as
71. The yearly load duration curve of a power base load.
plant is a straight line. The maximum load is 77. Which of the following materials is used as a
750 MW and the minimum load is 600 MW. moderator in nuclear power station?
The capacity of the plant is 900 MW. The
utilization factor is (a) Graphite (b) Boron
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.6 (c) Calcium (d) Plutonium
(c) 0.83 (d) 0.73 GMB AE 2017
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II Ans. (a) : Moderator– The moderator of a nuclear
Ans. (c) : reactor is a substance that slows down neutrons.
Maximum load e.g. D2O, graphite etc.
Utilization factor =
Rated plant capacity 78. One unit electrical energy is equal to
750 (a) 36 × 105 kcal (b) 4186 kcal
Utilization factor = = 0.83 (c) 9.81 kcal (d) 860 kcal
900 GMB AE 2017
72. The total energy generated in a year if the
maximum demand on a power station is 200 Ans. (d) : 1 kilo watt hour = 860.421 kcal ≃ 860kcal
MW and the annual load factor is 50% will be 1 kilo watt hour = 1 unit

79. In restructured power system – Ans. (b) : Thermal power plant and nuclear power plant
(a) Generation, Transmission and Distribution as has high speed of rotation because of it is used as base
single utility load while hydro power plant has low speed because it
(b) Generation only single utility is used of peak load.
(c) Distribution only single utility Nr(T) = Nr(N) = 3000 rpm
(d) None of above Nr(H) = 300 rpm
GMB AE 2017 84. Nuclear power plant is used as
Ans. (d) : In restructured power system, the (a) peak load plant (b) base load plant
arrangement of the earlier setup of the power sector was (c) stand-by plant (d) none of the above
characterized by operation of a single utility generating, Karnataka PSC AE 2016
transmitting and distributing electrical energy in its area Ans. (b) : Nuclear power plant is used as base load
of operation. power plant. In the Nuclear power plant uses the
80. Out of the following plant categories, the base process of nuclear fission in order to generate
load power plants are : electricity. Power plants that do not change their power
(i) Nuclear (ii) Run of river output quickly.
(iii) Pump storage (iv) Diesel 85. Which of the following is not the transmission
(a) (i) and (ii) voltage in India ?
(b) (ii) and (iii) (a) 66 kV (b) 132 kV
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (c) 264 kV (d) 400 kV
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
WBSE TCL AE 2016 Ans. (c) : Transmission voltage in India 66kV, 132kV,
APTRANSCO AE 2011 220kV, 400kV etc but 264 kV is not the transmission
Ans. (a) voltage in India.
• Nuclear Power Plants and Run of river plants are 86. A generating station has a maximum demand
classified as base-load power plants. of 50 MW, a load factor of 60 %, a plant
• The Power Plants that do not change their power capacity factor of 45 %. If the plant while
output quickly, such as large cost or nuclear plants running is fully loaded, the daily energy
are generally called Base-load power plants. produced will be :
(a) 400 MW (b) 720 MW
81. Which material is used in controlling chain (c) 500 MW (d) 600 MW
reaction in a nuclear reactor? RPSC VPITI 2016
(a) Thorium (b) Uranium
(c) Boron (d) Beryllium Ans. (b) : Max demand = 50 MW
Load factor = 60%
APTRANSCO AE 2011
Plant capacity factor = 45%
Ans. (c) : Boron and cadmium rods are used as control
rods. Average load
Load factor = ,
82. In main line service as compared to urban and Peak load
sub-urban railway services Average load = 0.6×50 = 30
(a) distance between the stops is more (exceeding Daily energy produced = Average load × 24
10 km) = 30 × 24 = 720 MW
(b) max speed attained is high
(c) acceleration and braking retardation rates are 87. Within the boiler of Thermal Power Station,
low the steam has highest temperature in :
(d) all of the above (a) water tubes (b) water walls
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 (c) water drum (d) superheater
Ans. (d) : In main line service as compared to urban RPSC VPITI 2016
and sub-urban railway services– Ans. (d) : Within the boiler of thermal power station,
• Distance between the stops is more (exceeding 10 the steam has highest temperature in superheater.
km). 88. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by
• Max speed attained is high. the refrigerant in a :
(a) compressor (b) evaporator
• Acceleration and braking retardation rates are low. (c) condenser (d) expansion valve
83. The most appropriate operating speeds in rpm MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
of generators used in thermal, nuclear and Ans. (c) : During a refrigeration cycle heat is rejected
hydropower plants would relatively be by the refrigerant in a condenser.
(a) 3000, 300 and 1500 89. Axial flow fans are :
(b) 3000, 3000 and 300 (a) Tube axial (b) Vane axial
(c) 1500, 1500 and 3000 (c) Propeller (d) All of the above
(d) 1000, 900 and 750 MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
LMRC AM 2020 Ans. (d) : Axial flow fans are :
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 • Tube axial
• Vane axial
ESE 1994 • Propeller

90. Which class of duty is used for centrifugal Ans. (d) : While Synchronising the DG set with the
pumps ? utility grid, must be satisfied–
(a) Short duty • Voltage of DG set must be same with the utility
(b) Continuous duty grid.
(c) Intermittent duty • Phase sequence must be same with the utility grid.
(d) None of the above • Frequency must be same with the utility grid.
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
97. Which Indian standard is related to alternating
Ans. (b) : Continuous duty is used for centrifugal current generator driven by internal
pumps. combustion engine ?
Centrifugal pumps are used where the flows are large, (a) IS 13364 (b) IS 3046
inlet is flooded and used in lifting situations. (c) IS 15564 (d) IS 7026
91. The radiator of engine of a DG Set is filled MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
with: Ans. (a) : IS 13364 Indian standard is related to
(a) Normal water only alternating current generator driven by internal
(b) Coolant only combustion engine.
(c) Coolant and normal water
98. What are the main parts of a DG set ?
(a) Engine only
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II (b) Alternator only
Ans. (c) : The radiator of engine of a DG set is filled (c) Engine–Alternator
with coolant and normal water. (d) Engine–Alternator–Exciter
92. The efficiency of a DG Set ranges between : MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
(a) 20 to 25% (b) 0 to 20% Ans. (d) : Diesel generator sets are complete generator
(c) 40 to 45% (d) 60 to 70% systems that are designed to be operated with diesel fuel
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II which is great for remote locations. Diesel generators
Ans. (c) : The efficiency of a DG set ranges between 40 are reliable, require minimum maintenance and run
to 45%. efficiently but release harmful gases when burned.
93. If A is cross-sectional area of conductor, the • The main parts of DG (Diesel Generator)
Bus-bar temperature rise in a DG Set is • Diesel engine
proportional to : • AC alternator
(a) A (b) 1/A2 • Exciter
2
(c) A (d) A3
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II 99. Which of the following options is true?
(a) As the load factor of a power plant increases,
Ans. (b) : If A is cross-sectional area of conductor, the
bus-bar temperature rise in a DG set is proportional to– the unit energy cost increases.
1/A2 (b) As the load factor of a power plant decreases,
94. Bus bar temperature rise in a DG Set is the unit energy cost increases.
proportional to : (c) As the load factor of a power plant increases,
(a) Current (I) the unit energy cost decreases.
(b) Square of current (I2) (d) As the load factor of a power plant decreases,
(c) Voltage (V) the unit energy cost decreases.
(d) All of the above (e) Unit energy cost does not depend upon load
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II factor.
Ans. (b) : Bus bar temperature rise in a DG set is CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
proportional to square of current (I2). Ans. (c) : As the load factor of a power plant increases,
95. In a DG Set, bus–bar experiences : the unit energy cost decreases. And by increasing both
(a) thermal stress load factor and diversity factor the unit energy cost will
(b) electromagnetic stress
(c) Both (a) and (b) decrease.
(d) None of the above 100. On a typical day, the load on a power plant is
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II as under:
Ans. (c) : In a DG set, bus bar experiences both thermal Time Load (MW)
stress and electromagnetic stress. 12-5 AM 20
96. While synchronising the DG Set with the utility 5-9 AM 40
grid, which of the condition(s) must be 9-6 PM 80
satisfied? 6-10 PM 100
(a) Voltage of DG Set must be same with the 10PM-12 AM 20
utility grid The installed of the plant is 125 MW, the load
(b) Phase sequence must be same with the utility factor and capacity factor are:
grid (a) 0.6917, 0.533 (b) 0.5917, 0.473
(c) Frequency must be same with the utility grid (c) 0.4917, 0.503 (d) 0.3917, 0.273
(d) All (a), (b) and (c) must be satisfied (e) 0.7797, 0.423
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
Ans. (b) : Average load Ans. (e) :
= [20×5+40×4+80×9+100×4+20×2]
= [ 100 + 160 + 720 + 400 + 40] Capacity factor = Average.demand on power plant
Maximum installed capacity
1420 Capacity factor = Load factor × Utilization factor
= = 59.166
24 Maximum load
Average load capacity factor = = × Load factor
Load factor (L.F) = Plant capacity
Peak load 105. Which of the following are the main parts of a
59.166 power system?
= 1. Generating stations
100 2. Transmission systems
L.F = 0.5917 3. Distribution networks
Maximum load (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Capacity factor (C.F) = Load factor ×
Plant capacity (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
ESE 2020
100
= 0.5917 × Ans. (d) : Parts of Power system–
125 • Generation System
(C.F) = 0.473 • Transmission System
101. Utilization factor of a plant is defined as: • Distribution System
(a) Maximum Load/Rated plant Capacity 106. The power required by the pump from the
(b) Rated plant Capacity/Maximum Load motor is proportional to :-
(c) Average Annual load/Rated Plant Capacity (a) (Speed)2 (b) (Speed)3
(d) Load Factor/Rated Plant Capacity (c) (Speed) (d) (Speed)1/2
(e) Maximum Demand/Connected Load UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II Ans. (b) : The power required by the pump from the
Maximum load motor is proportional to (speed)3.
Ans. (a) : Utilization factor =
Rated Plant capacity 107. The most economic load on an overhead line is
(a) less than natural load
102. In reference with the thermal power plant (b) equal to natural load
which one of following is not represent the (c) greater than natural load
fixed cost? (d) none of these
(a) Interest on capital investment PTCUL AE 2012
(b) Insurance charges Ans. (c) : For overhead line most economical load is
(c) Fuel cost greater than natural load.
(d) Depreciation For underground line most economical load is less than
(e) None natural load.
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II 108. The MHD system generates
(a) ac only (b) dc only
Ans. (c) : In the thermal power plant, fuel cost is not (c) ac and dc (d) either ac or dc
represented as fixed cost, it is a variable cost. PTCUL AE 2012
103. A diesel power plant is most suitable as: Ans. (b) : The MHD generator develops DC power and
(a) Peak load power plant the conversion to AC is done using an inverter.
(b) Base load power plant 109. The maximum demand of a power station is
(c) Stand by power plant 100 MW. If the annual load factor is 40%,
(d) All of above calculate the total energy generated in a year :
(e) None (a) 3.5 × 105 KWh (b) 3504 × 105 KWh
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II (c) 3504 × 10 KWh
6
(d) None of these
Ans. (c) : A diesel power plant is most suitable as stand PTCUL AE 2016
by power plant. Ans. (b) : Energy generated/year = max demand × LF ×
104. Capacity factor of a given power plant can be Hours in a year
formulated as: = (100 × 103) × 0.4 × (24 × 365)KWh
(a) Average demand on power plant/Maximum = 3504 × 105 KWh
demand on power plant 110. A generating station has an installed capacity
(b) Average demand on power plant/peak load of 50 MW and delivers 220 MWh per annum.
(c) Maximum demand on power plant/Average If the annual fixed charges are Rs. 160 per kW
demand on power plant installed capacity and running charges are 4
paise per kWh, determine the cost per unit
(d) Maximum installed capacity/Average demand generated
on power plant (a) 4 paise (b) 2 paise
(e) Average demand on power plant/Maximum (c) 10 paise (d) 8 paise
installed capacity UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II PTCUL AE 2016

Ans : (d) Annual fixed charges = 160 × plant capacity  1× 4.19(100 − 15) 
⇒ Rs. 160 × 50,000  
⇒ Rs. 80 × 105 =  2 4.2 
Annual running charges = Rs. 0.04 × 220 × 106 ( 2.17 ) × 105.8 ×15 × 60
Total annual charges = Rs. 0.04 × 220 × 106 1000
= (168 × 105) Rs. =
84.79
× 100 = 18.91%
 168 × 105  448.38
Cost per unit =  6 
Rs. = 0.0764 Rs. 115. The unit discharge (Q) and unit speed (N)
 220 ×10  curves for different turbines are given in
= 7.64 Paise figure. Which curve represent to Francis
≈ 8 Paise turbine :
111. The main function of shielding in nuclear
reactor is provide protection against :
(a) α-rays (b) β-rays
(c) γ-rays (d) None of these
PTCUL AE 2016
Ans. (c) : Shields are used in reactor to reduce the (a) X (b) Y
intensity of gamma rays on neutrons incident on the (c) Z (d) None of these
reactor vessel. PTCUL AE 2016
112. In a steam engine the change in internal energy Ans. (b) :
equal to :
(a) The work done during whole of the Rankine
cycle
(b) The work done during adiabatic expansion
only
(c) The work done during compression
(d) The change of enthalpy
PTCUL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : In a steam engine the change in internal
energy equal to the work done during adiabatic
expansion. 116. A power station's maximum demand is 50 MW,
113. In the impulse turbine if friction is neglected capacity factor is 0.6 and utilization factor is
the : 0.85. Calculate the following :
(a) Relative velocity at inlet and outlet is of the
same magnitude 1. Load factor
(b) Passage of the steam over the moving blades 2. Annual energy produced
provides the motive force (a) Load factor : 0.5068
(c) Pressure increases as it flows over the moving Annual energy : 0.3 × 106 MWh
blades (b) Load factor : 0.7058
(d) Work done is zero Annual energy : 0.3 × 107 MWh
PTCUL AE 2016 (c) Load factor : 0.5068
Ans. (c) : In the impulse turbine if friction is neglected Annual energy : 0.3 × 107 MWh
pressure increases. (d) Load factor : 0.7058
114. An electric kettle was marked 500 W, 230 V Annual energy : 0.3 × 106 MWh
and was found to take 15 minutes to bring 1 kg MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
of water at 15 °C to boiling point. Determine Ans. (d) : Given : Capacity factor (C.F) = 0.6
the heat efficiency of the kettle. Utilization factor (U.F) = 0.85
(a) 70% (b) 75% Maximum demand = 50 MW
(c) 85% (d) None of these Load factor = Annual energy produced = ?
PTCUL AE 2016 C.F 0.6
Ans. (d) : Given, Load factor (L.F) = = = 0.7058
U.F 0.85
Power P = 500W, V = 230V, t = 15 × 60 = 900 sec Annual energy produced = L.F × Max. demand × 8760
Initial temp t1 = 15°C, final temp t2 = 100°C
= 0.7058 × 50 × 8760
Specific heat S = 4.19 kJ/kg/°C
= 0.3 × 106 MWh
mass m = 1kg
117. During day time, solar cells generate :
 ms ( t 2 − t1 )  (a) constant D.C. voltage
Heat Utilised  4.2

 (b) variable D.C. Voltage
Efficiency of kettle = =
Heat Produced  I2 Rt  (c) constant A.C. voltage
  (d) variable A.C. voltage
 1000 
Ans. (b) : During day time, solar cell generate variable Ans. (b) : A super thermal power station generator or
DC voltage because during day time light of sun are turbo-alternator has higher speed than a Hydro-
varies time to time and every moment it stored the alternator due to their construction. The speed of a
energy. turbo-alternator is can be limited by the maximum
118. Operation of following wind turbine is peripheral speed given by,
independent of wind direction : V = πDns
(a) Horizontal axis turbine V
(b) Vertical axis turbine ns =
(c) Angular horizontal axis turbine πD
(d) None of the options available Where, D = Diameter of rotor
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I V = Peripheral velocity
Ans. (b) : Vertical axis wind turbine are typically small ns = Speed of alternator in r.p.s
wind turbines that are characterized by an axis of Turbo-alternator are used in thermal power station and
rotation that is perpendicular to ground as a result it has small diameter whenever a hydro power station
vertical axis wind turbine can operate independently of alternator has large diameter. Therefore the speed of
wind direction which is a major for urban applications generators of Chandrapur super thermal power station is
where wind direction can changed rapidly. higher than Koyana Hydro Power Station.
119. In steam turbine plant, extraction of heat from 122. Electrostatic precipitators are used in :
flue gases to heat feed water of the boiler is (a) Thermal power station to reduce the pollution
done by : (b) Thermal power station to heat the water
(a) Air preheater (b) Superheater (c) Solar power plant to generate static electricity
(c) Economiser (d) Condenser (d) Nuclear power plant to control radiation
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
Ans. (c) : In steam turbine plant, extraction of heat from Ans. (a) : Electrostatic precipitators are used in thermal
flue gases to heat feed water of the boiler is done by power station to reduce the pollution. Electrostatic
economiser. An economiser is a mechanical device precipitator, are also called electrostatic air cleaner a
which is used as a heat exchanger by preheating a fluid device that uses an electric charge to remove certain
to reduce energy consumption. impurities either solid particles or liquid droplets from
120. Which of the following statements are true for air or other gases from exhaust flues from chimney.
renewable energy ? 123. According to Betz theory, the maximum
1. Energy obtained from natural and possible power coefficient is 16/27 and 59%
persistent flow of energy occurring in the efficiency is the best conventional wind turbine
immediate environment. can be in extracting power from the wind
2. The renewable energy is obtained from because :
static stores of energy that remain 1. 100% efficiency is not possible due to fluid
mechanics of wind.
underground unless released by human 2. 100% efficiency can be extracted then the
interaction. flow of air would be reduced to complete
3. It is also called as Green energy or stop and no velocity would remain
Sustainable energy. available to sustain flow through extraction
4. It is the energy supplied by finite supplies mechanism.
or Brown energy. (a) 1 is true, 2 is false
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (b) Both 1 and 2 are true
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 (c) 1 is false, 2 is true
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I (d) Both 1 and 2 are false
Ans. (c) : Ans. (b) : According to Betz's theory, no turbine can
• Renewable energy often referred to as energy comes capture more than 16/27 (59.3%) of kinetic energy in
from natural resources or processes that are wind. The factor 16/27 (59.3%) known as Betz's
constantly replenished. coefficient. Practical utility scale wind turbines achieve
• Energy obtained from natural and persistent flow of at peak 75-80% of the Betz limit. Therefore given both
energy occurring in the immediate environment. option 100% efficiency is not possible due to fluid
• It is called as green energy or sustainable energy. mechanics of wind and 100% efficiency can be
extracted then the flow of air would be reduced to
121. Comment on the speed of generators of complete stop and no velocity would remain available
Chandrapur Super Thermal Power Station and to sustain flow through extraction mechanism are true.
Koyana Hydro Power Station. 124. A Reynolds number of 1000 indicates
(a) Same speed of both power station generators (a) Turbulent flow
(b) Chandrapur Super Thermal Power Station (b) Laminar flow
generator speed is higher (c) A flow which can either be turbulent or
(c) Koyana Hydro Power Station speed is higher laminar
(d) Cannot comment (d) None of the above
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : A Reynolds number of 1000 indicate laminar Ans. (a) : In adiabatic saturation process of air the
flow. enthalpy remains constant.
• They Reynolds number compares the inertial forces 131. In winter air conditioning, the process is.........
to the viscous forces that apply at a fluid. It is a (a) heating, humidification and cooling.
dimensionless number to determine if a fluid flow (b) heating, humidification and heating.
will be turbulent or laminar. (c) heating, dehumidification and heating
125. In a power station, the cost of generation of (d) cooling, humidification and heating.
power reduction most effectively when: AAI Junior Executive 2016
(a) Diversity factor alone increases Ans. (b) : In winter air conditioning the process is
(b) Both diversity factor and load factor increase heating humidification and heating.
(c) Load factor alone increases 132. For a given centrifugal pump,................
(d) Both diversity factor and load factor decrease (a) the discharge varies directly as the speed.
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 (b) the head varies inversely as the speed
ESE 1994 (c) the power varies as a square of the speed.
Ans. (b) In power station, cost of generation of power (d) the discharge varies as square of the speed.
reduces when diversity factor and load factor increases. AAI Junior Executive 2016
cost of generation ∝ 1 1 Ans. (a) : For a given centrifugal pump the discharge
∝
Diversity Factor load factor varies directly as the speed.
126. Which of the following power stations will take 133. Priming is necessary in..................
least time in starting from cold to full load (a) centrifugal pump to lift water from greater
operation. depth
(a) Nuclear power plant (b) centrifugal pump to remove air in the suction
(b) Steam power plant pipe and casing
(c) Hydro power plant (c) hydraulic turbine to remove air in the turbine
(d) Gas turbine plant casing
(d) hydraulic turbine to increase the speed of
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 turbine and to generate more power.
Ans. (c) Hydro power plant will take least time in AAI Junior Executive 2016
starting from cold to full load operation about 5 to 10 Ans. (b) : Priming is necessary in centrifugal pump to
minutes. Hence this plant is used to supply the peak remove air in the suction pipe and casing.
load of system.
134. Why is a minimum of net positive suction head
127. The amount of energy available in the wind at required for a hydraulic pump?
any instant is proportional to: (a) to prevent cavitations
(a) V (b) V2 (b) to increase discharge
(c) V3 (d) V3 (c) to increase suction head
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 (d) to increase efficiency
Ans. (c) Amount of energy available in the wind at any AAI Junior Executive 2016
instant is proportional to V3. Ans. (a) : In order to prevent cavitations minimum of
V = velocity of the wind. net positive suction head required for a hydraulic pump
By 2016 wind was contributing approx 4 percent of the 135. The viscosity of...............
world total electricity (a) liquid increases with increase temperature
128. Which one of the following sources of energy (b) gases increases with temperature
does a fuel cell consist of? (c) fluid decreases with temperature
(a) Hydrogen (b) Electrical storage (d) fluid increases with temperature
(c) Natural gas (d) Petroleum AAI Junior Executive 2016
AAI Junior Executive 2016 Ans. (b) : The viscosity of gases increases with
Ans. (a) : Fuel cell consist of hydrogen as energy temperature η ∝ T.
source. 136. Which of the following phenomena is
129. Which of these sources leaves larger carbon associated with surface tension in fluids?
footprint? (a) Density (b) Viscosity
(a) Hydro (b) Solar (c) Capillarity (d) Kinematic viscosity
(c) Thermal (d) Hydrogen AAI Junior Executive 2016
AAI Junior Executive 2016 Ans. (c) : Capillarity is associated with surface tension
Ans. (c) : Thermal energy source leaves larger carbon in fluids.
footprint. 137. Which of the following contributes to the
improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle in
130. In an adiabatic saturation process of a thermal power plant?
air.............. (a) Reheating of steam at intermediate stage
(a) the enthalpy remains constant (b) Regeneration use of steam for heating boiler
(b) the temperature remains constant feed water
(c) the absolute humidity remains constant. (c) Use of high pressures
(d) the relative humidity remains constant (d) All of the above
AAI Junior Executive 2016 Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
Ans. (d) : Improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle 143. In a nuclear reactor, chain reaction is
in a thermal power plant– controlled by
(1) Reheating of steam at intermediate stage. (a) Iron rods (b) Graphite rods
(2) Regeneration use of steam for heating boiler (c) Cadmium rods (d) Brass rods
feed water. UPPCL AE 2015
(3) Use of high pressure. ESE 2000
this can improve by increasing the mean Ans. (c) In a nuclear reactor, chain reaction controlled
temperature of heat addition. by cadmium rods.
138. The largest thermal power station in India is 144. Compared to turbines in conventional coal-
in : fired thermal stations, nuclear power plant
(a) Bihar (b) Manipur turbines used steam at.
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Chattisgarh (a) Higher pressure and lower temperature
GOA PSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2019 (b) Lower pressure and temperature
Ans. (c) : The Vindhyachal thermal power station (c) Higher pressure and temperature
[largest thermal power station in India] is located in (d) Lower pressure and higher temperature
Singrauli district in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh. UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
139. The effect of feedback on the plant is ESE 2014, 2015
(a) to make the plant simple Ans : (b) Nuclear plants split atoms to heat water into
(b) to worsen the response steam. The steam turns a turbine to generate electricity
(c) to reduce the sensitivity to plant parameter Nuclear power plants use steam at lower pressure and
variations temperature compared to turbines in conventional coal-
(d) None of the above fired thermal station.
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI 145. The term "pen stock" is associated with which
Ans. (c) : The effect of feedback on the plant is to type of power plant?
reduce the sensitivity to plant parameter variations. (a) Hydel (b) Nuclear
140. Power intended to be available even under (c) Solar (d) Thermal
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
emergency condition is termed as
(a) firm power (b) hot reserve Ans : (a) A penstock is a sluice or gate or intake
structure that controls water flow, or an enclosed pipe
(c) cold reserve (d) spinning reserve that delivers water to hydro turbine and sewerage
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI system. The term is inherited from the earlier
Ans. (a) : Firm power :– The term 'firm power' as it technology of mill ponds and watermills.
applies to the area of energy can be defined as power or 146. The power output from a hydro-electric power
power producing capacity, intended to be available at plant depends on:
all times during the period covered by a guaranteed (a) Head, type of dam and discharge
commitment to deliver, even under adverse conditions. (b) Type of dam, discharge and type of
141. In a power station, the cost of generation of catchment area
power is considerably reduced when. (c) Type of draft tube, type of turbine and
(a) The diversity factor decreases efficiency of the system
(b) Both the diversity factor and the load factor (d) Head, discharge and efficiency of the system
increase UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
(c) The diversity factor increases and the load Ans : (d) The power output from a hydro-electric
power plant depends on Head, discharges and
factor decreases efficiency of the systems.
(d) Both the diversity factor and the load factor
decrease 0.736
P= QηH KW
UPPCL AE 2015 75
Ans. (b) In a power station, the cost of generation of Where :
power is considerably reduced when both the diversity Q = Discharge m3/sec
factor and load factor increase. H = Water head (m)
η = Over all effeciency of turbine alternator set.
142. In a hydro-power station, a surge tank is
147. The diversity factor is always
provided to. (a) Equal to 1 (b) Less than 1
(a) Control pressure variations in pipes due to (c) Greater than 1 (d) Zero
sudden load variations RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
(b) Reduce the diameter of penstock pipes Ans. (c) :
(c) Control the water flow in the turbine  Sum of individual maximum demand 
(d) Increase the supply of water  Diversity factor = 
 Maximum demand of the group 
UPPCL AE 2015
The diversity factor is always > 1, because
Ans. (a) In a hydro power station a surge tank is sum of individual max demand > maximum demands of
provided to control pressure variations in pipes due to the group
sudden load variation. So, diversity factor > 1

148. A 100 MW power station delivers 100 MW for 153. The highest transmission voltage in India is-
2 hours, 50 MW for 6 hours, and is shut down (a) 200 kV (b) 400 kV
for the rest of each day. It is also shut down for (c) 765 kV (d) 1000 kV
maintenance for 45 days each year. Energy KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
supplied per years is PS PCL AE 2012
(a) 12 × 104 MWh (b) 8 × 104 MWh Ans. (c) : The highest transmission voltage in India is
(c) 6 × 105 MWh (d) 16 × 104 MWh 765 kV.
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 154. The disadvantages of renewable source of
Ans. (d) : Energy supplied for each working day energy is/are-
= (100 × 2) + (50 × 6) (a) intermittency
= 500 MWh (b) lack of dependability
Station operates for = 365 – 45 = 320 days in a year (c) availability in low energy densities
∴ Energy supplied/ year = 500×320 = 1,60,000 MWh (d) all the above
= 16 × 104 MWh PS PCL AE 2012
149. The ideal load factor should be Ans. (d) : The disadvantages of renewable source of
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.5 energy is.
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.8 Higher upfront cost
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 Intermittency
Ans. (a) : Load factor (L.F.) is a parameter which Lack of dependability
compares average consumption of electricity against availability in low energy densities.
peak demand load factor is indexed on a scale from "0 A renewable source of energy means energy that is
to 1", with a load factor of "1" being the best, as it sustainable, something that can't run out, or endless like
implies that the consumer's demand is constant. the sum. When you hear the term alternative energy it
∴ Ideal Load factor should be 1.0. usually refers to renewable energy source too. It means
150. What is pulverised coal? to sources of energy that are alternative to the most
(a) Coal broken in fine particles commonly used non-sustainable sources.
(b) Coal which burns for a long time 155. Which of the following power plants is the most
(c) Coal free from ash reliable-
(d) Non-smoking coal (a) Diesel (b) Hydro electric
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III (c) Steam (d) Tidal
Ans. (a) : A pulverised coal-fired boiler is an industrial PS PCL AE 2012
or utility boiler that generate thermal energy by burning Ans. (b) :Hydro-electric power plants the most reliable
pulverised coal that is blown into the firebox. power plant because hydropower plants are the only
Pulverised coal is coal broken in fine particles. major generators that can dispatch power to the grid
immediately when all other energy sources are
151. Francis, Kaplan and Propeller turbines fall inaccessible, they provide essential backup power
under which category? during major electricity disruptions.
(a) Impulse turbine
(b) Impulse-reaction combined turbine 156. Piranha cleaning of a silicon wafer uses
(c) Propulsion turbine (a) H2SO4 and KOH. (b) H2SO4 and H2O2.
(d) Reaction turbine (c) KOH and NaOH. (d) H2O2 and KOH.
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III Punjab PSC SDE 2017
Ans. (b) : Piranha cleaning of a silicon wafer uses
Ans. (d) : A reaction turbine is a type of turbine that
H2SO4 and H2O2.
develop torque by reacting to the pressure or weight of a
fluid. The operation of reaction turbines is described by 157. The purpose of moderator in a nuclear power
Newton's third law of motion. The turbine is driven by plant is to
the reaction force resulting the flow for the rotors. (a) Control flow of water inlet
Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbine falls under (b) Control the amount of nuclear fuel is to the
reactor
reaction turbine.
(c) Control nuclear fusion rate by slowing down
152. Which of the following is usually not the the neutrons
generating voltage. (d) Control the steam flow to the turbine
(a) 6.6 KV (b) 11 KV Karnataka PSC AE 2017
(c) 12.5 KV (b) 10 KV Ans. (c) : The purpose of moderator in a nuclear power
PS PCL AE 2012 plant is to control nuclear fusion rate by slowing down
Ans. (c) : 12.5 KV is usually not the generating voltage. the neutrons.
Moderator like e.g. (D2O) called deuterium in the form
In electrical generating power stations, electrical power of heavy water is used.
is generated at medium voltage level that ranges from 158. Most of the steam turbine alternators are
11 kV to 25 kV. wound for
This generated power is sent to the generating step up (a) Two poles
transformer to make the voltage level higher from this (b) Ten to twenty poles
point to the user end voltage level varies in different (c) Twenty to thirty poles
levels we can realize this voltage level. (d) Six poles
Ans. (a) : Most of the steam turbine alternators are (a) Dead weight
wound for two poles. And called turbo alternator and (b) Spring loaded
speed of this alternator is very high as 3000 rpm. (c) Lever
159. A generating station which has a high (d) Low steam and high water
investment cost and low operating cost is JUVNL AE 2017
casually operated as Ans. (d) : Safety valves release excess steam when the
(a) Peak load station (b) Base load station pressure of steam inside the boiler exceeds rated
(c) Medium load station (d) None of the above pressure and as per boiler regulations every boiler must
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 be fitted with two safety valves. 'Low' steam and high
water is not an example of safety valve.
Ans. (b) : Base Load Station– The unvarying load
which occurs almost the whole day on the station is 165. In India, the single phase domestic supply is
known as base load. And it has a high investment cost rated at 230 V. It represents
(initial cost) and low operating cost. (a) Average Value (b) Maximum value
(c) RMS Value (d) Instantaneous value
160. A hydel power plant of run off river type JUVNL AE 2017
should be provided with a pondage so that the Ans. (c) : In India, the single phase domestic supply is
(a) Firm-Capacity of the plant is increased rated at 230V, it represents RMS Value. The RMS
(b) Operating head is controlled Value is the effective value of a varying voltage or
(c) Pressure inside the turbine spelling remains current. It is the equivalent steady DC (constant) value
constant which gives the same effect. For example a lamp
(d) Kinetic energy of the running water is fully connected to a 6V RMS AC supply will shine with the
utilized same brightness when connected to steady 6V DC
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 supply.
ESE 1998 166. Which among the following is NOT a system of
Ans. (a) : A hydel power plant of run off river with plumbing for house drainage?
pondage - pondage usually refers to the collection of (a) Triple stack system (b) Two pipe system
water behind a dam at the plant and increases the stream (c) Single stack system (d) One pipe system
capacity for a short period, say a week. And due to JUVNL AE 2017
uniformity of supply and assistance from a firm- Ans. (a) : Triple stack system is not a system of
capacity the utility of these plants is much more than plumbing for house drainage. There are four system of
those of other types. It is work satisfactorily as base plumbing of drainage work in a building.
load and peak load plant. (i) Single stack system
161. The moderator used in fast breeder reactor is: (ii) One pipe system
(a) graphite (b) heavy water (iii) Two pipe system
(c) ordinary water (d) None of the above (iv) One pipe system partially ventilated
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI 167. The lead screw of a lathe with nut is a
Ans. (d) : No moderator is used in the breeder reactor (a) Screw pair (b) Turning pair
since fast neutrons are more efficient in transmitting U- (c) Sliding pair (d) Rolling pair
238 to Pu-239. At this concentration of U-235, the JUVNL AE 2017
cross-section for fission with fast neutrons is sufficient Ans. (a) : The lead screw of a lathe with nut is a screw
to sustain the chain reaction. pair when the nature of contact between the element of
162. Maximum demand/connected load is termed as a pair is such that one element can turn about the other
: by screw threads, the pair is known as a screw pair. the
(a) Average demand (b) Demand factor lead screw of a lathe with nut is an example of screw
(c) Load factor (d) Diversity factor pair
UJVNL AE 2016 168. What is energy consumption per unit GDP
Maximum demand called?
Ans. (b) Demand factor = (a) Energy cost
Connected load (b) Energy ratio
163. For gas pressure below 1 mmHg, the thermal (c) Per capita consumption
conductivity of gas is : (d) Energy intensity
(a) Independent of pressure JUVNL AE 2017
(b) Dependent of pressure Ans. (d) : Energy consumption per unit GDP is Called-
(c) Independent of volume energy intensity. Energy intensity is a measure of the
(d) Dependent of volume per gross domestic production. It is recognized as the
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I reciprocal of energy efficiency.
Ans. (b) : For gas pressure below 1 mmHg, the thermal 169. If the discharge is 1 m³/sec and the head of the
conductivity of gas is dependent of pressure. water is 1 m, then the power generated by the
164. Safety valves release excess steam when the alternator (Assume 100% efficiency of
pressure of steam inside the boiler exceeds rate generator and turbine) will be
pressure and as per boiler regulations every (a) 9.81 kW (b) 16 kW
boiler must be fitted with two safety valves. (c) 12.5 kW (d) 22 kW
Which of the following is NOT an example of JUVNL AE 2017
safety valve? ESE 1997
Ans. (a) : No of m3 per second passing through plant = Ans. (d) : Entity consumer 500 kWh per day. load
1m3/sec. factor = 0.4
Effective head of water H = 1m 500 ×103
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.81 Average power = = 20.83kW
24
efficiency η% = 100%
output power (P) = 1000 × ρ × g × H 20.83 × 103
Maximum demand =
P = 1000 × 1 × 9.8 × 1 0.4
P = 9.81 kW = 52.08 kW
170. If the whole circle bearing is 211⁰ 54' , then its 174. The public sector unit associated with the
reduced bearing will be manufacturing of steam power plant
(a) N 31o 54' E (b) S 31o 54' W equipment in India is :
o
(c) S 31 54' E (d) N 31o 54' W (a) N.T.P.C.
JUVNL AE 2017 (b) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
Ans. (b) : In the whole circle bearing 2110 54', (c) Heavy Engineering Corporation
than the reduced bearing S 310 54' W (d) Neyveli Lignite Corporation
171. Moderator in nuclear reactor is used to HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
(a) Transfer heat produced inside the reactor to Ans. (b) : The public sector unit associated with the
heat exchanger manufacturing of steam power plant equipment in India
(b) Control the chain reaction is BHEL (Bharat heavy electrical Limited).
(c) Stop chain reaction
175. The daily energy produced in thermal power
(d) Start chain reaction
station is 720 MWh at a load factor of 0.6.
JUVNL AE 2017
What is the maximum demand of the station ?
Ans. (b) : Moderators are a type of material in a nuclear (a) 50 MW (b) 30 MW
reactor that work to slow down the fast neutrons
(c) 72 MW (d) 720 MW
(Produced by splitting atoms in fissile compounds like
uranium-235), to make them more effective in the
fission chain reaction, the moderator should be able to ESE 2008
slow down neutrons to an accepted speed. Generated energy in T hour
Ans. (a) : Load factor =
172. A coal fired steam power plant working at a Maximum demand × T hour
plant load factor of 90% has one 400 MW Since, Generated Energy = 720 MWh
generating unit. If the heat content of the coal Load factor = 0.6
is 2 kWh/kg, the overall plant efficiency is 60% T = 24
and a train load of coal is 900 metric tons, the
720
number of trains require Maximum demand =
(a) 10 (b) 8 0.6 × 24
(c) 1 (d) 6 Maximum demand ⇒ 50 MW
JUVNL AE 2017 176. The knowledge of diversity factor helps in
Ans. (b) : Maximum power Pmax = 400 MW computing :
Load factor = 0.9 (a) Plant capacity (b) Average load
Average power Pavg = 0.9 × 400 = 360 MW (c) kWh generated (d) Peak demand
One day energy = 360 × 103 ×24 = 8640 × 103 kWh HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
Efficiency η = 0.6
Ans. (a) : Diversity factor
Energy generated by coal = 2 kWh/kg
Sum of individual maximum demand
Therefore actual energy =
Generated by coal = 2×0.6 = 1.2 kWh/kg maximum demand of system
One train coal = 900× 103 kg Df. > 1
One train coal can generated energy The knowledge of diversity faster helps in computing
= 900 × 103 × 1.2 kWh plant capacity.
8640 × 103 177. A power station has a maximum demand of 15
Total number of train required = =8
900 ×103 × 1.2 MW. The annual load factor is 50% and plant
173. If an entity consumes 500 kWh per day at a capacity factor is 40%. What is the reserve
load factor of 0.4, the maximum demand capacity of the plant ?
permissible is / (a) 1875 kW (b) 3750 kW
(a) 4.5 kW (b) 70.8 kW (c) 6000 kW (d) 7500 kW
(c) 60 kW (d) 52.08 kW HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
JUVNL AE 2017 ESE 2006
Ans. (b) : Reserve capacity = Plant capacity – Peak When, plant load factor = 0.70
demand and Pmaximum remain same.
Therefore, Paverage = Pmaximum × Plant load factor
Aveage load
Capacity factor = 600
Plant capacity = × 0.70
0.40
Average load = 1050 kWh
Load factor =
Maximum demand 182. It is required to melt 3 tonnes of steel using an
Average load = Load factor × maximum demand electric arc furnace. The heat energy required
to melt one kg of steel is approximately 170 k
Maximum demand Cal. The electric power utilised by the furnace
Then capacity factor = × load factor
Plant capacity is 510 kW. The time taken by the furnace is :
(a) 1 hour 10 minutes (b) 2 hours 20 minutes
Maximum demand
Plant capacity = × load factor (c) 45 minutes (d) 4 hours
capacity factor APTRANSCO AE 2019
15 Ans. (a) : As we know that,
= × 0.5 1 kCal = 4186 Joules
0.4 1 tonne = 1000 kg
75 3 tonne = 3000 kg
= = 18.75MW Energy to melt 3000 kg steel is = 170 × 3000 kCal
4
reserve capacity = (18.75 – 15) MW = 51,0000 kCal
= 3.75 MW Energy in Joules = 4184 × 510,000
= 3750 kW = 2133840000 Joules
Power (in watts) × time (in seconds) = Energy (in
178. Which of the following plants have the lowest
joules)
operational and maintenance costs? Power = 510 kW
(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Hydroelectric plant 2133840000
t= = 1.16 hr = 1hour16 min
(c) Thermal power plant 510 ×1000 × 3600
(d) Diesel power plant 183. An industrial consumer has a load of 1500 kw
GESCOM AE 2011 at 0.8 pf lag. for 12 hrs and 1000 kw at Upf for
Ans. (b) : Hydroelectric plant have the lowest 12 hrs during a day. The daily load factor of
operational and maintenance costs. the consumer is
179. Pelton wheels are most efficient under the (a) 0.666 (b) 0.833
conditions of ______ (c) 0.8 (d) 1.25
(a) High pressure and high flow APSPDCL AE 2012
(b) Low pressure and low flow Total kwh during / day
(c) Low pressure and high flow Ans. (b) : Daily load factor =
(peak load in kW) × 24h
(d) High pressure and low flow
GESCOM AE 2011 1500 ×12 + 1000 × 12
= = 0.833
Ans. (d) : Pelton wheels are most efficient under the 1500 × 24
conditions of high pressure and low flow. 184. A generating station has maximum demand of
180. Which of the following is an example of 30 MW, a load factor of 0.6 and plant capacity
impulse turbine? factor 0.48; The reserve capacity of the plant is
(a) Pelton wheel (b) Tyson turbine (a) 37.5 MW (b) 7.5 MW
(c) Kaplan turbine (d) All the above (c) 19.5 MW (d) 12 MW
GESCOM AE 2011 APSPDCL AE 2012
Ans. (a) : Pelton wheel is an example of impulse Ans. (b) : M.D = 30 MW
turbine. L.F = 0.6
Plant capacity factor = 0.48
181. A consumer consumes 600 kWh per day at a Reverse capacity = Plant capacity – M.D
load factor of 0.40. If the consumer increases
A.L
the load factor to 0.70 without increasing L.F =
maximum demand, what is the consumption of M.D
energy in kWh? A.L = L.F × M.D
(a) 950 kWh (b) 1000 kWh = 0.6 × 30 = 18
(c) 1050 kWh (d) 1100 kWh A.L
APTRANSCO AE 2019 Plant capacity factor =
Plant capacity
Paverage A.L
Ans. (c) : Plant load factor = Plant capacity =
Pmaximum Plant capacity factor
600 kWh 18
0.40 = = = 37.5
Pmaximum 0.48
600 Reverse capacity = 37.5 – 30
Pmaximum = kWh = 7.5 MW
0.40
185. How much power is developed when a hydro- Ans. (a)
power plant operates under an effective head of Description unit Combined Conventional Dieset
30 m and a discharge of 40 m3/s? GT &ST Steam plant Engine
(a) 5.77 kW (b) 11.77 kW Power
(c) 46.10 kW (d) 11.77 MW Plant
APPSC AEE 2019 Thermal % 40-46 33-36 43-45
efficiency
Ans. (d) : Given data– auxiliary % 2-4 8-10 1.3-2.1
Q = 40 m3/s power
head = 30m consumptio
735.5 n
P= × Q × H × η kW Plant load kWh/ 6000-7000 5000-6000 7200-
75 factor kW 7500
735.5
= × 40 × 30 × 103 ×1 = 9.80 × 40 × 30 ×103 Auxiliary power consumption of DG set at full load in
75 its operating capacity is about 1.3 to 2.1.
= 11.768 MW 190. The starting current value of DG set should not
186. Power factor is equal to exceed ____% of full load capacity of DG set.
(a) Apparent power/Average Power (a) 100 (b) 200
(b) Apparent power/True power (c) 150 (d) 300
(c) Average power/ True power APPSC AEE 2019
(d) True power/Apparent power Ans. (b) : The starting current value of DG set should
not exceed 200% of full load capacity of DG set.
APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (d) : Power factor is a dimensionless number in 191. The maximum permissible percentage
closed interval of 0 to 1. unbalance in phase loads on DG sets is
R True Power (a) 5% (b) 15%
Power factor = = (c) 10% (d) 1%
Z Apparent Power APPSC AEE 2019
187. True power in three-phase circuit in kilowatt isAns. (c) : It is always recommended to have the load as
(a) 1.414 ×Volts ×Amperes ×pf/1000 much balanced as possible since unbalanced load can
(b) 1.73 ×Volts ×Amperes ×pf/1000 cause increased losses, heating and decrease it's
(c) Volts ×Amperes ×pf/1000
(d) Volts × Amperes ×1000/pf efficiency. It also results in unbalanced output voltage.
The maximum unbalanced load between phase should
APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (b) : True Power for 3-φ in kilowatt not exceed 10% of the capacity of generating sets.
P = 3VI cos φ 192. The permissible percentage overload on DG
sets for 1 hour in every 12 hours of operation is
pf
= 1.73 × Volt × amp × (a) 5% (b) 15%
1000 (c) 10% (d) 1%
188. The rating required for DG set with 500kW APPSC AEE 2019
connected load and with diversity factor of 1.5,
Ans. (c) : The A.C. generators are designed to meet
80% loading and 0.8 power factor is
(a) 500 kVa (b) 600 kVA 50% overload for 15 second as specified by standards.
(c) 625 kVA (d) 520 kVA The DG sets selection should be such that overloads are
within specified limits. The permissible percentage
APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (d) : Given data overload on DG sets for 1 hour is every 12 hours of
connected load= 500 kW operation is 10%.
Diversity factor = 1.5 193. Designed power factor of a DG set is generally
Sum of connected load at
Diversity factor =
Maximum demand (a) 1.0 (b) 1.1
(c) 0.9 (d) 0.8
500 APPSC AEE 2019
Maximum demand= = 333.33
1.5 Ans. (d) : Any power factor less than rated (0.8) output
% loading = 80% = 0.80 is limited by generating ampere generators can typically
333.33 produce electricity at 93.5% efficiency, rest is lost in
set rating = = 416.6kW
0.80 windage, bearing friction and heat losses further 1hp is
416.6 equal to 0.746 kW of power which is equal to kVA
At 0.8 pf rating = = 520 KVA times of the power factor.
0.8
189. Auxiliary power consumption of DG set at full 194. Maximum permissible earth resistance for
load in its operating capacity is about buildings is
(a) 1-2% (b) 5-6% (a) 0.5 ohms (b) 1 ohms
(c) 10-12% (d) Above 15% (c) 2 ohms (d) 8 ohms
APPSC AEE 2019 APPSC AEE 2019

Ans. (d) : Permissible earth resistance value Ans. (d) : Graphite is used as a neutron moderator in
Particulars Permissible resistance nuclear reactors. It slow down the neutron so they have
Large substance 0.5 Ω a higher probability of being absorbed by nuclides
Major substance 1.0 Ω which they can cause to undergo fission rather than
Small substance 2.0 Ω speeding out of the reactor.
Tower foot 8.0 Ω 199. A generating station has a connected load of
Maximum permissible earth resistance for building is 500 MW and a maximum demand of 300 MW.
8Ω . The units generated being 600 × 106 per
195. Maximum permissible earth resistance at large annum. The load factor is-
power station is (a) 60% (b) 13.7%
(a) 0.5 ohms (b) 1 ohms (c) 40% (d) 22.83%
(c) 2 ohms (d) 8 ohms KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
APPSC AEE 2019 Ans. (d) : Given : Total annual energy = 600 × 106 J
WBPSC AE 2017 Total annual energy
Ans. (a) : The value of the earth resistance for different Load factor =
Annual peak load × 8760
power stations are shown below-
Large power station - 0.5 ohms 600000
= × 100
Major Power station - 1.0 ohms 300 × 8760
small substation - 2.0 ohms = 22.83%
In all other cases - 8.0 ohm 200. Total installed capacity of generation of electric
196. The cost of a transmission line conductor at 400 power in Indian is about :
kV is ` 200/meter. At 800 kV, cost per metre (a) 196 GW (b) 346 GW
will be: (c) 1000 GW (d) 100 GW
(a) ` 100 (b) ` 200
(c) ` 50 (d) ` 400 HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 Ans. (b) : Total installed capacity of generation of
Ans. (c) : Volume of conductor require electric power in India is about 346 GW.
1 1 1 201. Total installed capacity of hydroelectric power
Vol ∝ 2 = 2
= generation in India is about :
V (400) 160000
at V = 800 kV (a) 50 MW (b) 196 MW
1 1 1 (c) 500 MW (d) 50 GW
Volnew ∝ 2 = = HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
V (800) 2 640000 Ans. (d) : Total installed capacity of hydro electric
1 power generation in India is about 50 GW.
Vol 160000 640000 202. Induced draft fans are located at :
= = =4 (a) The top (b) The bottom
Vol new 1 160000
(c) In the middle part (d) Can be anywhere
640000
Vol HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
Volnew = Ans. (a) : Induced draft fans are located at top to suck
4 out warm gasses locating at top.
i.e. required conductor is 4 times less so will be cost i.e.
203. The fertile material is :
200 (a) U235 (b) U233
= ` 50/m
4 (c) Plutonium (d) U238
197. In the thermal power plants, the pressure in HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
the working fluid cycle is developed by: Ans. (d) : U -238 is fertile material when the nuclei
(a) turbine (b) super heater absorb a neutron, it induced an odd atomic mass making
(c) Feed water pump (d) condenser it a fissile material.
KPSC AE 2014 204. Ash content of Indian coal is approximately
Ans. (c) : In the thermal power plants, the pressure in (a) 5% (b) 8%
the working fluid cycle is developed by the help feed (c) 10% (d) 25%
water pump. HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
Super heater is used to convert saturated steam into dry Ans. (d) : Ash content of Indian coal is approximately
steam. 25%.
The function of condenser is to condense the exhaust 205. The pH value of water used for boiler is :
steam from a steam turbine to obtain maximum (a) Unity
efficiency. (b) 7
198. Which of the following material is used as a (c) 10
moderator in nuclear reactors? (d) Slightly more than 7
(a) Boron (b) Plutonium HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
(c) Sodium (d) Graphite Ans. (d) : The pH value of water used for boiler is
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 slightly more than 7 mainly 8.5 pH.

206. A Kaplan turbine is a : 210. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Inward flow, impulse turbine the nuclear power plants:
(b) Outward flow, reaction turbine 1. A thermal reactor needs a moderator
(c) High head, mixed flow turbine material
2. In a nuclear reactor, multiplication factor
(d) Low head, axial flow turbine
is kept almost equal to one.
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 3. Nuclear power plants are used as peak load
Ans. (d) : A Kaplan turbine is low head, axial flow plants only
turbine. Pelton wheel is used for high head and Francis Which of the above statements are correct?
turbine is used for medium head. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
207. For a Hydro-electric plant with low head and (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
large water storage the most suitable turbine is UPSC JWM 2017
ESE 2008
(a) Francis turbine (b) Impulse turbine
Ans. (b) : In Nuclear power plants.
(c) Kaplan turbine (d) none of these (i) A thermal reactor needs a moderator material
Vizag Steel MT 2013 (ii) In a nuclear reactor, multiplication factor is kept
Ans. (c) : Kaplan turbine is used for a hydro-electric almost equal to one.
plant with low head and large water storage and for 211. Nuclear power stations are normally used to
medium head- Francis turbine and for high head low meet.
discharge Pelton wheel turbine is used. (a) Peak load (b) Base load
208. Which one of the following fuels is used by the (c) Average load (d) Any load
UPSC JWM 2017
slow thermal nuclear reactors for power
Ans. (b) : Nuclear power plant are usually considered to
generation?
be "base load station" since fuel is a small part of the
(a) U235 (b) U238 cost of production and because they can not be easily or
(c) Th232 (d) Pu239 quickly dispatched. Their operations, maintenance and
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II fuel cost are at the low end of the spectrum, making
ESE 2007 then suitable as base load power suppliers.
Ans. (a) : Fuel is used by the slow thermal nuclear 212. In thermal plants, the steam energy is
reactors for power generation is Uranium (235.) converted into mechanical energy by means of:
A nuclear reactor is a service that contains and (a) Boiler
controls sustained nuclear chain reactions. In (b) Condenser
nuclear fission is controlled by controlling the (c) Reactor
(d) Steam turbine
number of neutrons released during the fission. The OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
energy liberated in a controlled manner is used to Ans. (d) : In a thermal power plant coal is used as fuel.
produce steam, which can run turbines and produce In this plant steam is produced at high pressure in the
electricity. steam boiler due to burning of fuel in boiler furnaces.
Some Important part of nuclear reactor This steam is further superheated in super-heater. This
Moderators- Heavy water D2O and graphite called super heated steam enters into turbine and rotate the
moderators are provided along with the fissionable turbine blades. Then turbine developed the mechanical
nuclei for slowing down fast neutrons. energy.
Control rods-(Cadmium, Boron)-The reactor can 213. The rotor used in alternators of Hydroelectric
be shutdown by means of rods that have high absorption Station is:
of capacity of neutrons. Cadmium and boron can absorb (a) Cylindrical rotor
(b) Salient pole rotor
neutrons from the corresponding isotopes, which are not
(c) Non-salient pole rotor
radioactive. (d) Round rotor with AC excitation
Coolant(water, heavy-water, liquid sodium, OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
helium, liquid oxygen ) - The coolant transverse heat Ans. (b) : The hydraulic turbine in hydroelectric plant
produced during fission to a working fluid which in turn operates at low speed as compared to steam, therefore,
may produce steam. to achieve the required power frequency, number of
209. The input to a steam turbine is : poles are need to be increased which is efficiently
(a) Water close to boiling point possible in salient pole rotor.
(b) Superheated steam 214. The fuel used in the nuclear power station is:
(c) Dry and superheated steam (a) Uranium (b) Coal
(d) Superheated and saturated steam (c) Diesel oil (d) Water
UPSC JWM 2017 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
Ans. (c) : Dry and superheated steam leaves the boiler Ans. (a) : Nuclear fuel is the fuel that is used in a
at high temperature and high pressure which is used to nuclear reactor to sustain a nuclear chain reaction. The
rotate the blade of turbine. So, the input to a steam most common nuclear fuel are the radioactive metals
turbine is dry and superheated stem. Uranium-235 and Plutonium-233.

215. Effect of water hammer is reduced by using: Ans. (d) : Load Curve: It is a graph showing variation
(a) Spill ways (b) Surge tank in electrical load over a specific time.
(c) An anvil (d) Dam Load Duration Curve: Load Duration curve is the
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II arrangement of all load levels of Load Curve in a
Ans. (b) : Surge tank is a tank connected to a pipe descending order of magnitude.
carrying a liquid and intended to neutralize sudden Monograph : It is a detailed written study of single
change of power (water hammer) in the flow by filling specialized subject or an aspect of it.
when the pressure increases and implying when it Hydrograph: It is a graph showing the rate of flow
drops. (discharge) versus time past a specific point in a river,
channel or conduit carrying flow.
216. In an inter-connected grid system, the diversity
220. In hydropower stations, an enlarged body of
factor of whole system: water just above the intake and used to
(a) Decreases (b) Increases regulate the reservoir is called
(c) Remains same (d) None of the above (a) Spillways (b) Forebay
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II (c) Reservoir (d) Penstock
Ans. (b) : In an interconnected grid system the OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
maximum demand on system is much reduced as Ans. (b) : Forebay serves as regulating reservoir storing
water temporarily during light load and provide water
compared to sum of individual maximum demand on
during peak loads.
different stations Therefore the diversity factor will
221. A domestic load consists of 10 lamps of 100 W
improve i.e increases. each, three fans of 60 W each and two heaters
Sum of Individual Max.demand of 1 kW each, all the loads operating for 1
Diversity factor =
Max.demand of thesystem hour. Energy consumed is measured using and
energy-meter having a constant of 1500
Usually the maximum demands of the consumers do not revolutions per kWh. The number of
occur at the same time. Therefore diversity factor can be revolutions recorded by the meter is 4500. The
equal or greater than one. percentage error in the energy-meter reading
217. Load frequency control is achieved by properly is:
matching the individual machines: (a) –5.66% (b) 5.66%
(c) 15.66% (d) –15.66%
(a) Reactive power LMRC AM 2018
(b) Generated voltages Ans. (a) : Total energy consumption/day = (10 × 100 +
(c) Turbine inputs 3 × 60) + 2 × 1000) × 24
(d) Turbine and generator ratings = 3.18 kWh
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 = 3.18 kWh
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II k = 1500 rev/kWh
ESE 1998 (k = energy-meter having a constant)
no. of rev made in actual = 3.18 × 1500 rev/kWh
Ans. (c) : Individual Turbine inputs should be properly
= 4770 rev
matched to achieve the load frequency control.
4500 − 4770
218. A power station has installed capacity 300 MW. %error = ×100
4770
Its capacity factor is 50% and its load factor is
= −5.66%
75%. Its maximum demand is:
222. Power generation cost reduce as:
(a) 100 MW (b) 150 MW
(a) both diversity factor as well as load factor
(c) 200 MW (d) 250 MW
increase
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II (b) diversity factor decreases and load factor
Ans. (c) : Capacity Factor increases
Max demand × Load factor (c) diversity factor increases and load factor
=
Plant Capacity decreases
Max demand (d) both diversity factor as well as load factor
50 = × 75 decrease
300 MW LMRC AM 2018
50 × 300 Ans. (a) : Power generation cost reduce as, both
Max demand = = 200 MW
75 diversity factor as well as load factor increase.
219. A graphical representation of the discharge Average load
Load factor =
and time is known as: Peak load
(a) Load curve (b) Load duration curve Sum of individual max demand
(c) Monograph (d) Hydrograph Diversity factor =
max demand of the group
223. Load factor of a power station is generally: Ans. (a) : Oxygen content is inversely related to carbon
(a) unity (b) less than unity content 30% oxygen.
(c) greater than unity (d) zero Since lignite is lowest rank of coal due to its relatively
LMRC AM 2018 low heat content. It contain least carbon (40 to 55%) so
Ans. (b) : Load factor of a power station is generally more oxygen.
less than unity (< 1) 228. The thermal efficiency of a modern steam
Average load power station is about.
Load Factor = (a) 20% (b) 30%
Peak load (c) 40% (d) 50%
224. The main objective of the governor system in (e) 60%
power system for all types of turbines is to CGPSC AE 2017
control the: Ans. (b) : Thermal efficiency of steam power plant is
(a) Reactive power output the ratio of the heat equivalent of mechanical energy
(b) Voltage phase angle transmitted to turbine shaft and heat of the combustion.
(c) Frequency Thermal efficiency is generally quite low about 30%.
(d) Voltage magnitude 229. A hydro-electric generating station is supplied
CIL MT 2017 from a reservoir of capacity 5×106 m3 at a head
Ans. (c) : In a power system the governor control is the of 200 metres. Find the total energy available in
steam input to turbine which further result in control of kWh if the overall efficiency is 75%.
speed input to generator. (a) 1.44×106 kWh (b) 1.044×106 kWh
6
Now as (c) 2.044×10 kWh (d) 20.44×106 kWh
6
120f (e) 2.44×10 kWh
Ns = CGPSC AE 2017
P
where P = No. of poles Ans. (c) : weight of water available is
Ns = Synchronous speed W = volume of water ×density
f = frequency = 5 × 10 6 × 1000
Ns ∝ f = 5 ×109 × 9.81 N
Hence frequency can be controlled by varying the ∴Electrical energy available = WH ηoverall
speed.
225. Domestic consumer load is around: 5 ×109 × 9.81× 200 × 0.75
= kWh
(a) 5 kW (b) 120 kW 3600 ×1000
(c) 40 kW (d) 80 kW E= 2.044×106 kWh
CIL MT 2017
230. Demand factor in power system is.
Ans. (a) : Domestic load consists of lights, fans (a) the maximum demand
refrigerators, heater, television, small motor for (b) the ratio of maximum demand to its
pumping water etc. most of the residential load occurs connected load
only for some hours during the day for this reason, the (c) the ratio of the average load to maximum
load factor is low about 10 to 12% and domestic demand
consumer load is around 5 kW. (d) the ratio of the maximum demand to average
load
226. The area under a load curve gives: (e) the ratio of the area under the load curve to
(a) maximum demand (b) minimum demand the total number of hours.
(c) energy consumed (d) average demand CGPSC AE 2017
CIL MT 2017
Ans. (b) : Demand factor is the ratio of the sum of the
Ans. (c) : Load Curve– The curve showing the maximum demand of a system to the total connected
variation of load on the power station with respect to
load on the system under consideration. Demand factor
time is known as load curve. The load on a power is always less than one.
station is never constant, it varies from time to time.
231. Which of the following fuel has more carbon?
Load curve gives the relation between power and time. (a) Lignite (b) Bituminous coal
Therefore area under the load curve represents energy (c) Anthracite coal (d) Heavy oil
consumed, because energy (e) Petrol
CGPSC AE 2017
E = p× t
Ans. (c) : Type of Coal- Coal are mainly 4-types. This
Where p = power division is based on carbon, ash & moisture content.
t = time 1. Peat Coal :-
227. Which of the following fuel has more oxygen? First stage of transformation
Less than 40 to 55% carbon & more impurities
(a) Lignite
Contain a lot of moisture.
(b) Bituminous coal (c) Anthracite coal 2. Lignite Coal:-
(d) Heavy oil (e) Heavy oil It is a Brown coal 40 to 55% carbon
(e) Petrol Intermediate state Dark to black brown
CGPSC AE 2017 Moisture content is high

3 Bituminous Coal:- 234. If a plant, having an installed capacity of 20
Soft coal; most widely & used coal MW, produces annual output of 7.35×106 kWh
40 to 80% carbon and remains in operation for 2190 hours in a
Moisture & volatile content year, then the plant uses factor is:
Calorific value is very high due to high proportion (a) 16.7% (b) 20.2%
carbon & low moisture. (c) 30.2% (d) 80.5%
4. Anthracite Coal:- (e) 65.2%
It is a best quality hard coal CGPSC AE 2017
80- 95% carbon Ans. (a) : Plant use factor
negligible small proportion of moisture
232. Find the calorific value of fuel to a steam power Actual energy produced ( kWh )
=
station with an overall efficiency of 20% and  No.of hours that 
0.6kg of coal being burnt per kWh of electrical
energy generated.
( Plant capacity )  the plant has been 
*
 in operation 
(a) 5166.67 kcal/kg (b) 6166.67 kcal/kg  
(c) 8166.67 kcal/kg (d) 1766.67 kcal/kg 7.35 ×10 ×10
6 3
(e) 7166.67 kcal/kg = = 0.167 ≈ 16.7%

CGPSC AE 2017 20 ×106 × 2190
Ans. (e) : Let x kcal/kg be the calorific value of fuel. 235. The ratio of maximum demand on the power
Heat produce by 0.6 kg of coal = 0.6 x kcal station to the rated capacity of the power
station is called:
(∵ 1kWh = 860 kcal ) (a) plant use factor (b) demand factor
Heat equivalent of 1kWh = 860 kcal (c) utilisation factor (d) diversity factor
Electricaloutput in heat units BHEL ET 2019
η overall =
Heat of combustion Maximum Load
Ans. (c) : Utilisation factor =
860 Rated Plant capacity
0.2 =
0.6x Maximum demand
860 Demand factor =
x= Connected Load
0.6 × 0.2
= 7166.67 kcal / kg Sum of Individual Max demand
Diversity factor =
233. Thermal and electrical efficiency of a 100 MW Maximumload onlystation
steam station are 30% and 92% respectively.
Find the coal consumption per hour when the Average load × time ( 24 hours if the timeis a day )
Plant use factor =
station is delivering its full rated output and Plant capacity × No.of hours that the plant has
using coal of calorific value 6400 kcal/kg. been in operation
(a) 78687 kg (b) 84867 kg 236. If the PSM is 8, the relay setting is 125% and
(c) 84687 kg (d) 48786 kg CT ratio is 400 : 1, then the value of fault
(e) 48687 kg current will be:
CGPSC AE 2017 (a) 4000 A (b) 4550 A
ESE 2014 (c) 3000 A (d) 5000 A
Ans. (e) : Overall efficiency of the power station is BHEL ET 2019
ηoverall = ηthermal × ηelect Ans. (a) : We know that:-
= 0.30 × 0.92 PSM (Plug setting multiplier)
= 0.276 Fault current
Units generated/hour = (100 × 103 × 1) kWh =
Relay pickup current
= 105 kWh
Heat produced/hour, H = and Relay pickup current
= % current setting × CT ratio
Electrical output in heat units
fault current
ηoverall PSM =
%current setting × CT ratio
105 × 860 Fault current
= 8=
0.276 125 400
=311.6 × 106 kcal (∵1kWh = 860 kcal) ×
100 1
H ∴ Fault current = 8×125×4
∴coal consumption/hour = = 4000A
Calorific value
237. Hot reserve is defined as :
311.6 ×106
= (a) a reserve generating capacity which is in
6400 service but not in operation
= 48687.5 kg (b) a reserve generating capacity which is not in
≅ 48687 kg service but is in operation

(c) a reserve generating capacity which is not in Ans. (d) : In coal-fired thermal power station, the
service and not in operation electro precipitator is used for collect the dust particles
from flue gases.
(d) a reserve generating capacity which is in
service and in operation
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (b) : Hot Reserve- Reserve capacity of plant in
operation but not in service.
Cold Reserve- Reserve capacity of plant in service but
not in operation.
Spinning Reserve- Reserve capacity of plant connected
to grid ready to take load.
Firm Reserve- Reserve capacity of plant used for
Electrostatic precipitator (ESP)
emergency load demand.
238. A 100 MW power station delivers 100 MW for Electrostatic precipitator (ESP):- ESP also called
2 hours, 50 MW for 6 hours in a day and is electrostatic air cleaner, a device that uses an electric
charge to remove certain impurities either solid particles
shut down for maintenance for 45 days each or liquid droplets from air or other gases in smokestacks
year. Calculate its annual load factor? and other flues. Electrostatic precipitators are used for
(a) 20% (b) 21% air pollution control, particularly for removing particles
(c) 22.5% (d) 18.3% from waste gases at industrial facilities and power-
generating stations.
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020 240. A consumer has a maximum demand of 250
100 × 2 + 50 × 6 + 0 × (24 − 8) kW at 40% load factor. If the tariff is ` 100 per
Ans. (d) : Pavg =
24 kW of maximum demand plus 10 paise per
= 20.833MW kWh. find the overall cost per kWh.
(a) 1126/876 (b) 876/1126
Pavg × Number of days of plant operation
PLF = (c) 8760/1126 (d) 1126/8760
Pmax × 365 UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
Ans. (d) : Load factor = 40%
maximum demand = 250 kW
Energy consumption in one year
= 250×0.4×8760 = 876000kwh
876000 × 10
total cost = + 250 ×100
100
= 112600Rs
totalcost
over all cost =
energy consumption in one year
Pmax = 100 MW 112600 1126
= = Rs / kWh
Number of days of plant operation 876000 8760
= 365 – 45 = 320 days 241. A steam power plant produces 1 unit of
20.833 × 320 electrical energy by using 0.5 kg of coal and its
= = 0.1826 or 18.26% ≃ 18.3% overall efficiency is 20%. Calculate the colorific
100 × 365 value of fuel.
239. In coal-fired thermal power stations, what are (a) 6600 kcal/kg (b) 8000 kcal/kg
the electrostatic precipitators used for? (c) 8600 kcal/kg (d) 8400 kcal/kg
(a) To remove dust particles settling on the bus UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
bar conductors in the station yard. Ans. (c) : 1unit =1kwh = 860calorie
(b) To condense steam by electrostatic means. Electricaloutput
efficiency = × 100
(c) To keep the air heaters clean. Amount fuel Burnt × calorific value
(d) To collect the dust particles from the flue 860
gases 20% =
0.5 × x
DMRC AM 2016 x = 8600
ESE 2007
calorific value of fuel x=8600 Kcal/kg

242. Which of the following plant converts the heat 247. Determine the load factor for the following
energy of coal combustion into electrical load curve.
energy?
(a) Tidal power plant
(b) Steam power plant
(c) Diesel power plant
(d) Nuclear power plant
Ans. (b) : A steam power plant consists of a boiler ,
steam turbine, generator, and other auxiliaries. the
boiler generates steam at high pressure and high
temperature.
The steam turbine converts the heat energy of steam (a) 0.63 (b) 0.58
into mechanical energy. The generator then converts the (c) 0.76 (d) 0.65
mechanical energy into electric power. UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
243. In current situation, which of the following Ans : (b) Draw the load duration curve :
fuels is used more in electrical energy
generation?
(a) Natural gas (b) Coal
(c) Nuclear energy (d) Wind energy
Ans. (b) : Coal is the most abundant fossil fuel on the
planet and widely used as the source of energy in
thermal power stations and is a relatively cheap fuel.
244. The ratio of average load to maximum demand
in power system is defined as:
(a) Demand factor
(b) Load factor We know that :
(c) Utilization factor Average Load
(d) Average load Load Factor =
Maximum Demand
Unit generated / Day
CGPSC AE 2017 Average Load =
24 Hours
Average load
Ans. (b) : Load factor = Unit generated per Day
maximum demand
( 20 × 8 ) + (15 × 4 ) + ( 5 ×12 ) 
it is a measure of the utilization rate, or efficiency = 
of electrical energy usage. 24
Average load = 11.66 MWh
Load factor is always less than 1 Maximum Demand = 20 MW
245. A generating station produces 61.5 Mega Units 320MWh
per annum. It is connected to a load of 50 MW Average Load = = 13.33MW
and its maximum demand of 20 MW. 24h
Determine the demand factor of the station. Average Load 11.66 MW
∵ Load Factor = = = 0.583
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.5 Maximum Load 20 MW
(c) 0.6 (d) 0.2 248. Which of the following power stations has the
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II least maintenance cost?
Ans : (a) From the above question, it is given : (a) Diesel power plant
Load connected = 50 MW (b) Nuclear power plant
Maximum Demand = 20 MW (c) Hydro-electric power plant
Maximum Demand 20 MW (d) Thermal power plant
Demand Factor = = = 0.4 UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
Connected Load 50 MW Ans : (c) Of the above power plants Hydroelectric
246. Penstocks are used in ______ power station. power plants house least maintenance cost. Because
(a) Thermal (b) Nuclear other plants require High skilled engineers and staff and
(c) Wind (d) Hydro-electric large running cost.
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II 249. The annual load factor of a power station is
Ans : (d) Penstocks are commonly used in water 40% and its maximum demand is 100 MW.
management system such as surface water drainage and Determine the energy generated in a year.
fuel water severs. These carry water down from (a) 250×8760 MWh (b) 40×8760 MWh
hydroelectric reservoir to turbine inside the actual (c) 40×365 MWh (d) 250×365 MWh
power stations. UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II

Ans : (b) ∵ We know that : Ans : (d) 30.79%
[Energy generated per year = load factor × Maximum 1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 Joule = 860.42 Calorie Efficiency
load × Hours in years] Electricaloutput
Putting the values in above formula : = × 100
Energy generated Amount Fuel Burnt × Calorific value
40 860.42
= × 100 MW × 365 × 24 = 40 × 8760 MWh = × 100 = 30.7%
100 2800
250. A power station has the following daily load 253. A generating station has a maximum demand
cycle of 25 MW, a load factor of 60%, a plant
capacity factor of 50% and a plant use factor
of 72%. Find the reserve capacity of the plant.
(a) 8 MW (b) 5 MW
(c) 20 MW (d) 10 MW
Ans : (b) Maximum Demand (M.D.) = 25 MW
load factor (L.F.) = 60%
Capacity factor (C.F.) = 50%
MD × ( L.F − ( C.F.) )
Reserve capacity =
C.F.
25 ( 60 − 50 )
R.C. =
50
Reserve Capacity = 5 MW
Determine its average load 254. A Thermal station has 85% boiler efficiency,
(a) 40 MW (b) 30 MW 90% turbine efficiency and 40% load factor.
(c) 35 MW (d) 25 MW Determine the thermal efficiency of the station
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II (a) 34% (b) 36%
Ans : (c) (c) 76.5% (d) 90%
 Area ( in kWh ) under daily load curve 
 Average Load =  Ans : (c) Thermal efficiency = ηBoiler × ηTurbine
 24Hours  = 0.85×0.9 = 0.765
Energy generated per day = Area (in kWh) = 76.5%
Under daily load Thermal efficiency of the station = 76.5%
( 60 × 4 ) + ( 50 × 4 ) + ( 40 × 4 ) + ( 20 × 8 + 4 )  × 10
3
255. A power plant with high initial cost, low
= 840×103 kWh running and maintenance cost and with no
standby losses is:
840 × 10 kWh
3
(a) Steam power plant
∴ Average Load = = 35MW
24h (b) Diesel power plant
251. Which of the following helps in selecting the (c) Nuclear power plant
size and number of generating units or the (d) Hydro-electric power plant
preparation of the operating schedule of power UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
station: Ans : (d) A power plant which requires high initial cost
(a) Power factor in comparison to thermal power plant, diesel power
(b) Average load plant is hydroelectric power plant. It requires very large
(c) Load curve space and efficiency is 85 to 90%. The fuel used is
(d) Impedance of transmission line water it cost is high because construction of dam is
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II expensive it has no standby losses and requires less
Ans : (c) Load curve helps in selecting the size and maintenance.
number of generating units or the preparation of the 256. A water boiler at a home in Lucknow is
switched to the AC mains supply power. The
operating schedule of power station.
frequency of instantaneous power consumed by
The selection of number and size of the units is decided the boiler is
from the annual load curve. The no. and size is selected (a) 0 Hz (b) 50 Hz
in such way that they correctly fit the station. (c) 100 Hz (d) 150 Hz
252. A diesel power station has fuel consumption of UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I
0.28 kg per kWh, the calorific value of fuel Ans : (c) Since frequency of instantaneous power is
being 10,000 kcal/kg Determine the overall two times of input supply frequency.
efficiency. So the frequency would be = Input supply frequency ×2
(a) 23.5% (b) 50.2% = 50×2 = 100
(c) 40.2% (d) 30.79% Because the standard frequency supply in India is 50
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II Hz.

257. The following are various energy sources: 261. If a body reflects entire radiation incident on it
1. Solar 2. Wind then it is known as–
3. Tidal 4. Wave (a) Black body (b) Grey body
5. Geo-thermal (c) White body (d) Transparent body
From the above energy sources, the renewable ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
energy sources are Ans. (c) : If a body reflects entire radiation incident on
(a) 1 and 2 only it, then it is known as a white body. On the other hand,
(b) All the energy sources mentioned above if it absorbs entire radiation, it is called a black body.
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only Directions : Consists of two statements, one labelled as
(d) 1, 2, and 3 only 'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I these two statements carefully and select the answers to
Ans. (b): Solar wind, Tidal and geothermal, wave these items using the codes given below:
energy sources are renewable energy source. Industries, Codes:
Transport and population is rapidly increasing in (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
present area, so use of energy sources in also increased. individually true and Statement (II) is the
This is why we need renewable energy source to fulfill correct explanation of Statement (I)
the requirement of energy in future. (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
Non-Renewable energy source: coal, petroleum & individually true but Statement (II) is not the
natural gas etc. correct explanation of Statement (I)
258. For harnessing low variable water heads, the (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
suitable hydro turbine with high percentage of (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
reaction and runner adjustment vanes is 262. Statement (I):
(a) Peyton (b) Kaplan The power available from wind is directly
(c) Impeller (d) Francis proportional to V3, where V is the velocity.
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II Statement (II):
ESE 2011 Drag type wind turbines have lower speeds and
Ans. (b): For making use of low variable water heads. high torque capabilities.
The suitable hydro turbine with higher percentage of ESE 2017
reaction and runner adjustment vanes is Kaplan hydro Ans. (b) : Power available from wind trubine
turbine. Turbines running on low heads are axial flow π
reaction turbine. These turbine work on head lesser P = × r 2 × v3 × ρ × n
2
than 30 meters. where, r = Radius of swept area
Turbines running on medium heads are axial radial v = Velocity
flow turbine.
ρ = Density of air
259. Plant Use Factor is
Maximum demand Thus, P ∝ v3
(a)
Connected load Statement I - True.
(b) Number of units generated Drag type wind turbine have lower speed and high
Plant capacity × number of hours plant operated torque capabilities but this is not correct explanation for
Averagedemand Statement-I.
(c)
Plant capacity Directions: consists of two statements, one labelled as
Average load 'statement (I)' and the other as 'statement (II)' you are to
(d) examine there two statements- carefully and select the
Maximum load answers to these items using the codes given below.
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019 Code:
Ans. (b) : Plant use factor (a) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
number of units generated individually three and statement (II) is the
=
plant capacity × number of hours plant operated correct explanation of statement (I)
260. In a nuclear power station, moderator is used (b) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
to– individually true, but statement (II) is not the
(a) Absorb neutrons correct explanation of statement (I).
(b) Reduce the speed of neutrons (c) Statement (I) is true, but statement (II) is
(c) Accelerate the speed of neutrons false.
(d) Stop chain reactions (d) Statement (I) is false, but statement (II) is
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 true.
Ans. (b) : Moderators are made from materials with 263. Statement (I) : Reaction turbines are generally
light nuclei which do not absorb the neutrons, instead used for sites with high head and low flow.
they slow them down by a series of collisions. Carbon Statement (II) : Kaplan and Francis turbines are
in the form of graphite is a material used for moderators reaction turbines.
as heavy water. ESE 2019

Ans. (d) : Statement I is false as impulse turbines are 268. A system has connected load of 120 kW, peak
used for high head sites and reaction turbines are used load of 100 kW, base load of 25 kW and
for low head sites. Statement II is true as both Kaplan average load of 48kW. The load factor of the
and Francis turbines are reaction turbines. consumer is
Francis turbines are mixed flow turbine since water (a) 40% (b) 48%
enters radially but leaves turbine. axially. (c) 25% (d) 83.3%
Kaplan turbines are axial flow turbines since water Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
inters axially and leaves the turbine axially.
Ans. (b) : Given
264. In a 3-phase, 60Hz, 500MVA, 15kV, 32-pole Average load = 48 kW
hydroelectric generating unit, the values of ωsyn Peak load = 100 kW
and ωmsyn will be nearly Average load
(a) 754 rad/s and 47.6 rad/s Load factor = ×100
(b) 377 rad/s and 46.7 rad/s Peak load
(c) 377 rad/s and 23.6 rad/s 48kW
(d) 754 rad/s and 23.6 rad/s = ×100
100 kW
ESE 2019
Ans. (c) : Given data = 48%
f = 60 Hz, 500 MVA, 15kV, 32 pole
Hydroelectric generation unit (ii) Performance of
ωsyn (electrical) = 2πf = 2π× 60 = 120 × 3.14 = 377
rad/sec Transmission Line, Line
ωmsyn (mechanical) Parameter & Corona
2πN 2π× 120 × f 4πf
= = =
60 60P P 1. Three networks are connected in cascade as
4π× 60 shown below:
= = 23.56 rad / sec
32
Hence (c) is correct.
265. The voltage across a component is measured as
80 V r.m.s. and the current through it is 4 A
r.m.s. If the current leads the voltage by 20º
what is the apparent power in the component?
(a) 116 VA (b) 109 VA
(c) 301 VA (d) 320 VA
UPPCL AE 2014 ABCD parameters of the system is:
Ans. (d) : Apparent power = (voltage)rms × (current)rms
 A B   2.0∠ − 10 5∠ 300 
0
= 80 Vrms × 4Arms =
= 320VA  C D  
  1.0∠ − 200 4.0∠100 
266. One kilowatt hour of electrical energy is the What is the value of Z2?
same as
(a) 36 x 105 B.T.U. (b) 36 x 105 joules (a) 5∠300 (b) 2∠100
0
5
(c) 36 x 10 ergs (d) 36 x 105 watt (c) 0.2∠20 (d) 1∠200
UPPCL AE 2014 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
Ans. (b) : 1kWh = 1000 Watt ×3600 second Ans. (a) : There cascaded systems will have following
= 3.6×106 Watt second ABCD or T-parameters:
= 3.6 ×106 Joules (J)
= 36×105 Joules
267. The daily load pattern on a plant is as follows:
50 MW for 20 hours; 100 MW for 4 hours.
What is the load factor?
(a) 0.68 (b) 58.3
(c) 0.583 (d) 68
UPPCL AE 2014
Ans. (c) : Total consumption load
= 50 × 20 + 100 × 4
= 1400 MWH = 1400 unit
Average load
Load factor =
Peak load
1400 / 24
= = 0.5833
100

So, Ans. (c) : Buchholz's relay is a gas activated relay used
[T] = [T1] × [T2] × [T3] for protection of transformer from the internal or
 Z2  incipient fault. If intensity of fault is severe then
 1+ Z2  accumulation of gas in the chamber is more and relay
Z3
[T] =   will operate. The operating time of Buchholz's relay is
1 1  Z2  Z2  more.
 +  1+  1+  6. The concept of an electrically short, medium
 Z1 Z3  Z1  Z1 
We know that: and long line is primarily based on the :
(a) Normal voltage of the line
 A B   2.0∠ − 10 5∠300 
0
(b) Physical length of the line
[T] =  = 
 C D  1.0∠ − 200 4.0∠100  (c) Wavelength of the line
(d) Power transmitted over the time
On comparison,
WBSE TCL AE 2016
Z2 = 5∠300 BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015
2. The inductance of line is minimum when: KPSC AE 2014
(a) GMD is high APTRANSCO AE 2011
(b) GMR is high Ans. (b) : The concept of electrically short, medium
(c) Both GMD and GMR high and long line is primarily based on the physical length
(d) GMD is low and GMR is high of the transmission line.
Short line – ℓ < 80 km -11 kV to 33 kV
Ans. (d) Induction of two wire transmission line
 GMD  Medium line – 80 km <ℓ< 200 km - 66kV to 132 kV
L = 2 × 10−7 ℓn  
 GMR  Long line – ℓ > 200 km. - Above 132 kV
Where, 7. Corona loss is less if the shape of conductor is-
GMD = Geometrical means distance (a) oval (b) rectangular
GMR = Self GMD or Geometrical mean radius (c) square (d) circular
Therefore, by increasing of GMR and decreasing of UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
GMD, Ans. (a) : The shape of conductor like flat, oval
Inductance of transmission line will decrease .
cylindrical etc. affects corona loss is minimum. If
3. For the overhead transmission lines, the self shape of conductor is oval, corona loss is less compared
GMD method is used to evaluate : to any other shape.
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance 8. If the effect of earth is taken into account, then
(c) Both inductance and capacitance the capacitance of line to ground
(d) None of these (a) Remains unaltered (b) Increases
PTCUL AE 2016 (c) Decreases (d) Becomes infinite
Ans. (a) : For overhead transmission lines, self GMD Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
method is used to calculate inductance of line. UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
4. The inductance of a line is minimum when Ans. (b) : In transmission line, two types of
(a) GMD is high capacitances exists : First one is capacitance between
(b) GMR is high the phase conductors and the second one is shunt
(c) Both (a) and (b) capacitance between conductor and earth.
(d) GMD is low, but GMR is high Capacitance between the phase conductors is not only
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I dependent of conductor spacing, radius of conductor
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I and height of conductor from the ground, rather it is
Ans. (d) : The inductance of single phase two wire line also influenced by the earth.
is- The effect of earth on the capacitances of lines is to
µ 0  GMD  increase it.
L= ℓn   9. If the size of the conductor is increased then the
π  GMR 
corona effect is:
Where GMD = Mutual geometric mean distance (a) Increased
GMR = Self GMD or geometric mean radius.
Therefore, by increasing of GMR and decreasing of (b) Decreased
GMD inductance of transmission is decreases or (c) No change
minimum. (d) No corona is formed
5. Buchholz's relay is used to protect ______. TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
(a) Transmission line Ans. (b) : When size of conductor is increased the
(b) Generator corona losses will decrease because.
(c) Transformer 1
Pc ∝
(d) Motor d
CIL MT 2017
10. If the corona loss on a particular system at 50 Ans. (c) : Use of double line to transmit power is
Hz is 1 kW/phase/km, then corona loss on the helpful in-
surface of the same system with supply 1. increasing power capability
frequency at 25 Hz will be- 2. increasing stability
(a) 1 kW/phase/km (b) 0.5 kW/phase/km 14. The d.c. resistance of a conductor due to skin
(c) 0.667 kW/phase/km (d) None of these effect is
RPSC AE 2018 (a) unchanged (b) decreased
Ans : (c) corona loss (c) increased (d) infinite
 f + 25  UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
r
( )
2
= 241× 10−5 ×   × × V − V Ans. (c) : When direct current flows in the conductor
 δ 
ph c
d the current is uniformly distributed across the section of
where , the conductor whereas flow of alternating current is
f = supply frequency non-uniform, with the outer surface of the conductor
δ = Air density factor carrying more current than the inner surface or near the
r = Radius of the conductor core.
d = distance between the conductors 15. Corona loss on a system at 50 Hz frequency is 1
Vph = operating voltage of the transmission line kW/phase/km. The corona loss on the same
VC = Critical disruptive voltage system with supply frequency 25 Hz will be
Therefore, (a) 1 kW/phase/km
corona loss P ∝ ( f + 25 ) (b) 0.667 kW/phase/km
(c) 0.5 kW/phase/km
P1 ( f1 + 25 ) (d) 1.414 kW/phase/km
=
P2 ( f 2 + 25 ) UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Peek's formula–
P2 =
( 25 + 25 ) × 1 = 2 = 0.667 KW/km per phase. PC (corona loss) ∝ (f + 25)
( 50 + 25 ) 3 1 kW / km / phase ( 50 + 25 )
=
11. The ‘transportation delays’ occurring in PC ( 25 + 25 )
distribution system are detrimental to stability
because they produce 1× 50
PC = = 0.667 kW/phase/km
(a) attenuation (b) phase lag 75
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) transients 16. An overhead transmission line has a span of
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I 260 m. The weight of the conductor is 0.68
Ans. (b) : The 'transportation delays' occurring in kg/m. The maximum allowable tension in the
distribution system are detrimental to stability because line is 1550 kg. Maximum sag of the line should
they produce phase lag. be
12. Bundle conductors are mainly used in EHV (a) 5.8 m (b) 4.6 m
overhead transmission lines (c) 2.7 m (d) 3.7 m
(a) to reduce transmission line losses UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
(b) to reduce corona Wℓ 2
(c) help in carrier communication Ans. (d) : Sag (s) =
(d) both (b) and (c) 8T
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I Where W = Total weight per meter
T = Limiting tension
L↓
Ans. (d) : From bundling : r ↑ L ↓ ∵↓ Zc = 0.68 × ( 260 )
2
C s=
8 × 1550
V2
and Surge Impedance Loading (SIL) ↑= s = 3.7 meter
Zc ↓
17. Shielding angle of an EHV line is about
Bundle conductors are mainly used in EHV overhead (a) 20° (b) 50°
transmission line because by using this we will get-
(c) 70° (d) 90°
1. Reduced corona loss
2. Reduced radio interference UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
3. Reduced surge impedance Ans. (a) : • The protective angle (α) or shielding angle
4. Reduced voltage gradient (α) afforded by a ground wire is defined as the angle
5. Reduced reactance between a vertical line through the ground wire and a
13. Use of double line to transmit power is helpful slanting line connecting the ground wire and the phase
in conductor to be protected.
(a) increasing power capability • The shielding angle (α) is in the 20º to 45º.
(b) increasing stability
(c) both (a) and (b) • Shielding angle of an EHV line is about 20º.
(d) decreasing power capability • A shielding angle of 45º is satisfactory when the tower
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I is on a hill-side.

18. A transmission line to be reciprocal, the 24.
Transposition of conductors
condition is (a) is an interchange of position of conductors
(a) A = D (b) AC – BD = 1 (b) increases the level of electrical power flow
(c) AD – BC = 1 (d) AB – CD = 1 (c) increases the magnetic coupling
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I (d) prevents an abrupt change of current
A B  WBPSC AE 2003
Ans. (c) :   =1 AD – BC = 1 Ans. (a) :
 C D
25. Line regulation and load regulation of any
19. Which one of the following relays has the regulated power supply should be-
capability of anticipating the possible major (a) Infinite (b) Maximum
fault in a transformer? (c) Minimum (d) Unity
(a) Over current relay (b) Differential relay
UPPCL AE 2013
(c) Buchholz relay (d) Over fluxing relay
TANGEDCO AE 2018Ans. (c) : Line regulation and load regulation of any
regulated power supply should be minimum.
Ans. (c) : Buchholz relay is suitable to anticipate major
fault. 26. Skin effect resistance per unit length is–
(a) proportional to the conductivity
20. Corona loss does not depend on
(a) Atmosphere (b) proportional to the relative permittivity
(b) Conductor size (c) inversely proportional to the permeability
(c) Line voltage (d) inversely proportional to the conductivity
(d) Height of the conductor UPPCL AE 2013
TANGEDCO AE 2018Ans. (d) : Skin effect is the tendency of an alternating
Ans. (d) : Corona loss PC is given by current to become distributed within a conductor such
that the current density is large near the surface of the
( f + 25) r
PC = 242.2 ×10−5 × ( Vo − Vc )2 kW / km / phase
conductor.
δ d Skin-effect resistance per unit-length is inversely
δ = Relative density of air proportional to the conductivity.
∴ PC does not depend on height of conductor. 27. For a short transmission line with R/X ratio
21. Consider the single line diagram shown in equal to 1, the voltage regulation will be zero
figure below. If the base voltage is selected on when the load power factor is
the generator terminal as 10 kV, what will be (a) unity (b) 0.707 leading
the base voltage on transmission line? (c) 0.707 lagging (d) 0 leading
Ans. (b) :
28. A 50 Ω distortionless transmission line has an
(a) 10 kV (b) 11 kV inductance of 0.25 µH/m. What is the
(c) 120 kV (d) 132 kV capacitance per meter?
–2
TANGEDCO AE 2018 (a) 10 F (b) 10–5 F
–10
(c) 10 F (d) Zero
Ans. (c) :
Ans. (c) :
29. What would be the effect on conductor volume,
when the voltage of transmission is increased?
(a) It will increase
10 × 132 (b) It does not change
Base voltage = = 10 × 12 = 120 kV (c) It will decrease
11
(d) It increase proportionately
22. The maximum permissible value of the
resistance of earth in general is : UPRVUNL AE 2014
(a) 15 Ω (b) 12 Ω Ans. (c) If the voltage in transmission line increase
(c) 10 Ω (d) 5 Ω volume of conductor is decreases.
WBPSC AE 2009 P 2 ℓ 2ρ
Volume = 2
Ans. (d) : V cos 2 φW
23. According to Indian Electricity rules 1956 the 1
value of high voltage is ↓ Volume =
(a) below 400 KV (b) below 11 KV ↑ V 2
cos 2 φ
(c) below 33 KV (d) below 132 KV Volume of conductor material required is inversely
WBPSC AE 2009 proportional to the square of the voltage and square of
Ans. (c) : power factor of the load.
30. Which of the two generalized constants of a 34. A 100 km long transmission line is loaded at
transmission line are equal? 110 kV. If the loss of the line is 15 MW and the
(a) B & C (b) A & B load is 150 MVA, the resistance of the line is
(c) A & D (d) B & D (a) 8.06 ohms per phase
TSPSC AEE 2017
(b) 0.806 ohms per phase
Ans. (c) : In transmission line parameter for short
(c) 0.0806 ohms per phase
transmission line parameter.
(d) 80.6 ohms per phase
Vs = AVr + BI r 1 Z 
= A = D symmetric TSPSC AEE 2017
Is = CVr + DI r  0 1  ESE 2003
31. A 100 km transmission line is designed for a Ans. (a) : Power loss = 15 mega watt
nominal voltage of 132 kV and consists of one Voltage = 110 kV
conductor per phase. The line reactance is
0.726 ohm/km. The static transmission capacity V2
Power =
of the line, in MW, would be: R
(a) 240 (b) 132 Vin2
(c) 416 (d) 720 Rph =
TSPSC AEE 2017 Power
2
Ans. (a) : Given, Line reactance = 0.726 ohm/km  110 × 103  (110)
2
Line reactance for 100 km = 0.726 ohm/km × 100 km   × 106

= 72.6 ohm =  3 
= 3
15 15
V2 × 106 × 106
P= 3 3
Xl
(110) 2
132 × 103 × 132 × 103 = = 806.66 ohm
P= 15
72.6 806.60
P = 240 MW For 1 km per phase resistance =
100
32. In a 3-phase extra-high voltage cable, a metallic R = 8.06ohm per phase
screen around each core insulation is provided
to 35. In a short line, the regulation at leading power
(a) Facilitate heat dissipation factor is
(b) Give mechanical strength (a) IR cos φr + IX sin φr (b) IX cos φr + IR sin φr
(c) Obtain longitudinal electric stress (c) IR cos φr – IX sin φr (d) IX cos φr – IR sin φr
(d) Obtain radial electric stress
TSPSC AEE 2017 TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : In a 3-phase extra high voltage cable, a Ans. (c) : In a short line
metallic screen around each core insulation is provided  Vs  1 z   Vr 
to give mechanical strength.  I  = 0 1   I 
 s   r
33. The inductance of single phase two wire power
transmission line per km gets doubled when the Voltage regulation = Vr − Vr = IR cos φ − I Xsin φ
1
(a) Distance between wires is doubled r r

Vr
(b) Distance between the wires is increased four
fold 36. Bundled conductors in EHV transmission
(c) Distance between the wires is increased as systems provide
square of the original distance (a) increased line reactance
(d) Radius of the wire is doubled (b) reduced line capacitance
TSPSC AEE 2017 (c) reduced voltage gradient
ESE 1993 (d) increased corona loss
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : Distance between the wires is increased as
ESE 1996
square of the original distance.
Inductance of transmission line- Ans. (c) : Bundled conductor in EHV Transmission line
provide reduced voltage cable size can be reduced
d
L = 2 × 10−7 × ln   voltage gradient and reduced line reactance.
 r' 37. If the supply frequency increases, then skin
Where, d = distance between the conductors effect is
r' = 0.7788r (a) increased (b) decreased
r = radius of the conductor (c) unaltered (d) infinity
Therefore, if we increase the value of inductance is TNPSC AE 2018
doubled , the distance between the wires in increased Ans. (a) : If the supply frequency increases, then skin
square of the original distance. effect is increased.

38. For visual critical voltage, breakdown must 42. The electric breakdown strength of an
extend from the conductor surface to a distance insulating material depends on
of (a) composition of the material
 0.03  0.3 (b) thickness of the material
(a) r 1 +  (b) r + (c) time of application of voltage
 δr  δr (d) all of these
 0.3  Vizag Steel MT 2012
(c) δr (1 + 0.3r ) (d) r 1 +  Ans. (d) : The electric breakdown strength of an
 δr 
TNPSC AE 2019 insulating material depends upon
• Composition of the material
Ans. (a) : Visual voltage is the minimum phase-neutral
voltage at which corona glow appear all along the line • Thickness of the material
conductors. • Time of application of voltage
Corona glow does not begin at the disruptive voltage • voltage strength.
but at lighter voltage called visual called visual 43. The corona loss on a particular system at 50 Hz
critical voltage. is 1 kW/phase/km. The corona loss on the same
It is given by empirical formula system with supply frequency 25 Hz will be-
(a) 1 kW/phase/km
 0.03  d (b) 0.667/kW/phase/km
Vv = m v g 0 .δ.r 1 + log
 er kV / phase
 δr  (c) 0.5 kW/phase/km
Where mv is another irregularity factor having a value of (d) independent of the frequency
1.0 for smooth conductor and 0.72 to 0.82 for UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
Rough conductors. Ans. (b) : Corona power loss-
g0- breakdown strength of .....at 250C PL ∝ f + 25
δ - air density factor
r- radius of the conductor PL2 f 2 + 25
=
D- Distance b/w conductor PL1 f1 + 25
39. The fact that a conductor carries more current
PL 2 25 + 25
on the surface as compared to core, is known as =
(a) skin effect 1 50 + 25
(b) corona 50
(c) permeability PL2 = = 0.66 kW / phase / km
75
(d) unsymmetrical fault 44. Ferranti effect on long overhead lines is
Vizag Steel MT 2012 experienced when
Ans. (a) : Skin Effect:– The concentration of current (a) The line is lightly loaded
density is more on the surface and it decreases as we (b) The line is heavily loaded
move towards the core of the conductor. (c) The line is on full load
40. Impulse voltages are characterized by (d) Power factor is unity
(a) polarity UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
(b) peak value Ans. (a) : Ferranti effect- When receiving end of
(c) time of half the peak value transmission line is operating under no load condition or
(d) all of these light load condition, sending end voltage Vs is less than
Vizag Steel MT 2012 receiving end voltage Vr is called Ferranti effect.
Ans. (d) : Impulse voltage are characterized by : (a) 45. The sag of a transmission line is
Polarity (b) peak value (c) time of half the peak value.
wl 2 wl 2
41. An overhead transmission lines the effect of (a) (b)
capacitance can be neglected when the length 8T0 6T0
of line is less than wl 2
wl 2
(a) 200 km (b) 160 km (c) (d)
(c) 100 km (d) 80 km T0 3T0
Vizag Steel MT 2012 UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : Ans. (a) : Support at same level
Type of If f = 50Hz Then, Effect of
Transmission length is capacitance
line
Short line l < 80 km Neglected
Wl 2
Medium line 80 km < l < 240 capacitor is Sag ( S ) =
km lumped and 8T0
constant l = length of span (m)
Long line l > 240 km capacitance is S = Sag of mid span (m)
uniformly T0 = conductor tension (Newton)
distributed W = conductor weight (N/m)

46. The advantage of double circuit three phase 52. Corona loss is less when the shape of the
lines- conductor is:
(a) increased reliability (a) Circular (b) Flat
(b) total inductance of the line is reduced (c) Oval (d) Square
(c) stability of power system is improved UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
(d) all of the above Ans. (c) :
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I 53. In transmission lines, non uniformity of
Ans. (d) : In single circuit configuration has three current distribution is caused by:
conductor for the three phases. While a double circuit (a) Hall effect (b) Proximity effect
configuration has double circuits (three phase for each (c) Faraday effect (d) Inductive effect
circuit). Double circuits are used where greater UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
reliability is needed. Ans. (b) :
This method more power over transmitted particular 54. A line trap in a long transmission line is used to
distance. (a) improve power factor
Stability of power system is improved. (b) dampen over voltage oscillations
47. The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as (c) confine carrier signals in the line
(d) protect the line against
the
WBPSC AE 2012
(a) resistivity of conductor increases
(b) permeability of conductor increases Ans. (c) :
(c) diameter increases 55. The size of earthwire is determine on the basis
(d) frequency increases of
WBPSC AE 2017 (a) voltage of the service line
(b) current carrying capacity of the service line
Ans. (a) : (c) atmospheric condition
48. Why is the floating neutral in a three phase (d) nature of application
supply considered as undesirable? WBPSC AE 2008
(a) High voltage across the load Ans. (b) :
(b) Low voltage across the load 56. A short transmission line having a series
(c) Medium voltage across the load impedance Z has the following parameters :
(d) Unequal line voltage across the load (a) A = C = 0, B =1, D = Z
WBPSC AE 2017 (b) A = D = 1, B =Z, C = 0
Ans. (d) : (c) A = C = 1, B =0, D = Z
49. When the transmission voltage increases, the (d) A = B = Z, C =D = 0
percentage resistance drop WBPSC AE 2008
(a) increases Ans. (b) :
(b) decreases 57. When the voltage is increased n times, the size
(c) remain same of the conductor is
(d) none of the above (a) Increased n time
WBPSC AE 2017 (b) Increased to n2 times
Ans. (b) : 1
(c) Reduced to times
50. Size of the earth or ground wire n
(a) is based on the maximum fault current 1
(d) Reduced to 2
carrying through the ground wire. n
(b) is based on the rated current carrying WBPSC AE 2007
capacity of the service line Ans. (d) :
(c) depends on the soil resistivity 58. Ferranti effect on transmission line is a
(d) both (a) and (c) phenomenon which represents
WBPSC AE 2017 (a) Rise in receiving end voltage on lagging load
Ans. (a) : (b) Rise in receiving end voltage on leading load
51. For an EHV equipment for maintenance first is (c) Load impedance equals to surge impedance
should be isolated and connected to the ground (d) Rise in receiving end voltage on no load
because WBPSC AE 2007
(a) to provide low impedance Ans. (d) :
(b) to discharge the charging capacitance to 59. The breakdown stress of atmospheric air is
ground approximately
(c) protection for operating personnel (a) 0.3 KV/cm (b) 3 KV/cm
(d) Both (b) and (c) (c) 30 KV/cm (d) 300 KV/cm
Ans. (d) : Ans. (c) :

60. The main purpose of using bundled conductors Ans. (b) : Propeller turbine is reaction turbine not a
on EHV line is for getting impulse turbine. So option (b) is not correctly matched.
(a) Reduced reactance 66. If AC corona losses in a transmission line is 0.6
(b) Reduced surge impedance kW, then for the same line voltage,
(c) Reduced voltage gradient approximate value of DC corona loss will be
(d) Corona free ________.
WBPSC AE 2007 (a) 1800 W (b) 1.2 kW
Ans. (d) : (c) 0.2 kW (d) 0.3 kW
61. Which of the following pairs is not correctly UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
matched? Ans. (c) : Corona loss ∝ (f + 25)
(a) Solid conductor – High skin effect for AC f = 50 Hz
(b) Hollow conductor – Preferred under heavy for DC f = 0 Hz
current Corona loss (AC) 50 + 25
(c) Bundled conductor used – For voltages less =
than 275 kV Corona loss (DC 0 + 25
(d) Composite standard conductor – Used for 0.6 kW 75
voltage less than or equal to 220 kV =
Corona loss (DC) 25
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
Ans. (c) : Bundled conductor is used above 275 kV, it is 0.6 0.6
Corona loss (DC) = = kW
not used below 275 kV, as it reduces corona loss and 75 3
line inductance. 25
62. In a 3-phase transmission system, base kVA is = 0.2 kW
1732 kVA whereas base kV is 10 kV, the 67. Inductance of bundled conductor line in
magnitude of base current will be __________. comparison to inductance of the line with one
(a) 10 A (b) 100 A conductor per phase is _____________.
(c) 173.2 A (d) 1.732 A (a) Not comparable
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 (b) More
( kVA )base 1732 (c) Less (d) Equal
Ans. (b) : Ib = = UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
3 × ( VL )base 3 × 10
 GMD 
= 99.99 ≃ 100 A Ans. (c) : L = 2 × 10–7 ln   H/m
63. If efficiency of a gas turbine is 0.5 whereas of a  GMR 
steam turbine is 0.7, overall efficiency of the 1
L∝
Combined Plant will be _______. GMR
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.7 By using bundle conductor GMR increases as self GMR
(c) 0.95 (d) 0.35 increases inductance of conductor decreases more than
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 single conductor.
Ans. (d) : Overall efficiency = 0.7 × 0.5 68. If current passing through a conductor in a
= 0.35 transmission line is decreased by a fraction of 3
64. Select the incorrect statement regarding (keeping other parameters constant), its
thermal power stations? effective resistance __________.
(a) Condenser converts steam into feed water (a) increases 3 times (b) decreases 3 times
(b) Economizer is run by superheated steam and (c) increases 9 times (d) decreases 9 times
generates mechanical power
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
(c) Combustion takes place in boiler
(d) Steam is converted into super heated steam in Ans. (c) : P = I2R = constant
Super heater 1
R∝ 2
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 I
Ans. (b) : Function of economizer is to absorb the heat I' = I/3
2
of the exhaust fluids and send to boiler. Economizer R  I 
equate the vapour pressure temperature to boiler =  =9
R old  I / 3 
temperature. So, Economizer is run by super heated R = 9 Rold
steam and generate mechanical power this is wrong So, effective resistance is increased by 9 times.
statement.
69. Aluminium is commonly used as conductor
65. Which of the following pair is not correctly material in transmission lines compared to
matched? copper because:
(a) Impulse turbine-Pelton wheel turbine (RRB SSE Secunderabad Red Pepar, 21.12. 2014)
(b) Impulse turbine-Propeller turbine (a) It is more conductive
(c) Reaction turbine-Kaplan turbine (b) It tensile strength is more
(d) Reaction turbine-Francis turbine (c) It is costlier
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 (d) It is cheaper and lighter
Ans : (d) Aluminium is a good conductor material in Ans. (c) : The size of conductor in distribution network
transmission lines compared to copper because is mainly decided by voltage drop.
aluminium is cheaper and lighter in weight than copper. 74. For a 220 kV, 200 km lossless long line the
70. A short Transmission line is having negligible receiving end voltage at no-load is
resistance and a reactance of 10Ω. At receiving approximately:
end an overexcited synchronous motor is (a) 220 kV (b) 225 kV
connected, the loss free synchronous motor at (c) 220.2 kV (d) 230 kV
10 kV is supplying a mechanical load of 2 MW UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
at operating at 0.8 pf. The compensation Ans. (b) : For the long lossless transmission line, Due
required to be to be provided at receiving end to Ferranti effect receiving end voltage greater than
to obtain zero voltage regulation is: sending voltage at no-load.
(a) Shunt reactor compensation of 1.3 MVAR 225 kV is well suitable by the Ferranti effect.
(b) Shunt reactor compensation of 1.5 MVAR 75. Under Ferranti effect, sending end voltage is:
(c) Shunt capacitor compensation of 1.5 MVAR (a) lesser than the receiving end voltage
(d) Shunt capacitor compensation of 1.7 MVAR (b) equal to double the receiving end voltage
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 (c) equal to the receiving end voltage
Ans. (b) : Mechanical load = 2 MW at 0.8 pf (d) greater than the receiving end voltage
2 Active Power JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
Apparent power = = Ans. (a) : Under Ferranti effect, sending end voltage is
0.8 cos φ
= 2.5 lesser than the receiving end voltage.
76. Corona loss can be reduced by the used of
Reactive power = 2.5 × 0.6 = 2.5 × 1 − (0.8) 2 hollow conductors because,
= 1.5MVAR (a) The current density is reduced
(b) Eddy current in the conductor is eliminated
71. The copper efficiency of a 3-phase 3-wire (c) For a given cross-section, the radius of the
system is : conductor is increase
cos 2 φ 3 (d) Of better ventilation in the conductor
(a) (b) cos 2 φ UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
2 4
TSTRANSCO AE 2018
2.67 2 ESE 1994
(c) (d)
cos 2 φ cos 2 φ Ans. (c) : We know that corona losses is inversely
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 proportional to the square root of diameter –
Ans. (d) : Copper efficiency of a 3-φ 3 wire system is 1
Pc ∝
2 Output d
, this is calculated by %η =
2
cos φ Output + loss So, by using hollow conductor d increase & Pc
decrease.
72. In a nominal T–network, the charging current 77. A transmission line represented in End
IC is given with usual notation by: condenser method, the value of parameters A
 Z Y
(a)  VR + I R  Y (b) ( VR + ZI R ) and D are _____ and ______ respectively.
 2 2 (a) A = 1+ZY; D = 1+ZY
(b) A = 1+ZY; D = 1
 Z Z
(c)  VS + I R  Y (d) I R Y (c) A = 1–ZY; D = 1+ZY
 2 2 (d) A = 1; D = 1+ZY
Ans. (c) : In a nominal T-network, the charging current Ans. (b) : End condenser transmission is a line on when
 Z the shunt capacitance ignore. Hence
IC is given IC =  VS + I R  Y
 2 A = 1 + ZY B=Z C=Y
D=1
78. As the moisture content in the air increases, the
disruptive critical voltage
(a) Decreases (b) Increases
(c) Remains constant (d) Infinite
TSTRANSCO AE 2018
73. The size of conductor in distribution network is
Ans. (a) : As the moisture content in the air increases,
mainly decided by:
the disruptive critical voltage decrease.
(a) Span of poles
(b) Ohmic loss 79. A long transmission line is energized at the
(c) Voltage drop sending end and is kept open circuited at the
(d) Temperature rise of conductor receiving end. The magnitude of receiving end
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 line voltage is 400 kV. The magnitude of the
sending end line voltage is
(a) < 400 kV (b) = 400 kV 83. The insulation level of a 400 kV EHV overhead
(c) > 400 kV (d) ≥ 400 kV transmission line is decided on the basis of
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 (a) Switching over current
Ans. (a) : When a transmission line is operating under (b) Switching over voltage
no load condition or lightly loaded condition then due to (c) Radio and TV interference
Ferranti effect receiving end voltage is always greater (d) Corona inception voltage
than sending end voltage. So, the Sending end voltage Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
Vs < 400 kV WBPSC AE 2008
80. The string efficiency of a string of suspension Ans. (b) : Insulation level of 400 kV EHV overhead
insulators of a 400 kV, 3-phase transmission transmission line is decided on the basis of switching
line is 80%. The voltage across the string is over voltage. Over voltage can produce by switching
(a) 400 kV (b) (400/ 3 )kV operation that are carries out it electrical network that is
switching over voltage can produced by closing an
(c) ( 500 / 3 ) kV (d) 320 kV unloaded line, by clearing a fault.
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 84. A unique name that must be assigned to a
Ans. (b) : In the given question voltage across the string service set before the wireless network can
will be equal to the phase voltage. For 100% string operate is called as
efficiency voltage across each disc will distribute (a) MID (b) RID
equally. So the voltage across the string will be (c) SSID (d) WID
 400  JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
  kV.
 3 Ans. (c) : A unique name that must be assigned to a
lin voltage service set before the wireless network can operate is
Voltage across string = phase voltage = called as SSID (Service Set Identifier).
3
85. The capacitive reactance of 100 km lengths of
 400 
=  kV. the line is 1000 ohm. The capacitive reactance
 3 for 200 km length of the line is
81. A balanced three phase delta connected load is (a) 1500 ohm (b) 750 ohm
supplied by a balanced 3-phase, 400 V supply. (c) 500 ohm (d) 3000 ohm
The phase current is 10 A at a 0.8 power factor JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
lagging. The total reactive power absorbed by
the load is Ans. (c) : The capacitive reactance of 100 km lengths of
(a) 7.2 kVAR (b) 2.4 kVAR the line is 1000 ohm. The capacitive reactance for 200
(c) 3.2 kVAR (d) 9.6 kVAR km length of the line is 500 ohm.
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 86. Active power loss in a transmission line is
Ans. (a) : In ∆-connected load Vphase = VLine = 400V. mainly due to
Given, Iphase = 10A (a) Resistance (b) Impedance
Power factor = 0.8 pF. (c) Inductance (d) Capacitance
⇒ Reactive power per phase = Qph = VphIphsinθ JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
= 400×10×0.6
= 2.4 kVAR Ans. (a) : Active power loss in a transmission line is
∴ Total reactive power 3Qph = 7.2 kVAR mainly due to resistance in overhead lines and
82. The apparent power and active or real power underground cables.
are equal when the power factor (pf) is 87. The expression for voltage regulation of a short
(a) 0.5 leading (b) 0.5 lagging transmission line for leading power factor is
(c) zero (d) unity given by
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I (a) (I R cos φR + IXL sin φR)/VR
Ans. (d) : Power triangle- (b) (I R sin φR + IXL cos φR)/VR
(c) (I R cos φR – IXL sin φR)/VR
(d) (I R sin φR – IXL cos φR)/VR
Ans. (c) : Regulation of Short-Transmission Line
IR cos φr ± IX L sin φr
Regulation =
VR
cos φ =
True Power / Real power Where, + → for lagging power factor
Apparent Power – → for leading power factor
At unity power factor cosφ = 1 ∴ The expression for voltage regulation of a short
True Power transmission line for leading power factor is given by
1= IR cos φr − IX L sin φr
Apparent Power V.R. =
True power = Apparent Power VR

88. Ferranti Effect is more pronounced when 93. In transmission line which conductors are
___________ used?
(a) the line is longer and the voltage applied is (a) Copper (b) All aluminum
higher (c) ACSR (d) None of above
(b) the line is shorter and the voltage applied is GMB AE 2017
lower Ans. (c) : In transmission line ACSR conductors are
(c) the line is shorter and the voltage applied is used. Aluminum conductor steel reinforced cable is a
higher
(d) none of these type of high capacity, high strength standard conductor
KPTCL AE 2015 typically used in overhead transmission lines.
Ans. (a) : Ferranti effect is more pronounced when the 94.
line is longer and the voltage applied is higher.
Due to this effect, the receiving end voltage will be
higher than the sending end voltage at no load
conditions.
During no load conditions (open circuited), this A 3–φ transmission line uses 1.24 cm dia.
capacitive current flows through the energized line conductor and these are placed at corners as
result in current surges (i.e. current will be more shown above of 2 m. The inductance/phase is–
than the load current) (a) 12 × 10–7 H (b) 8.4 × 10–7 H
89. The transfer of energy for reaction turbines is (c) 7.6 × 10 H
–6
(d) 12.5 × 10–6 H
based on _______ GMB AE 2017
(a) Newton’s first law
(b) Newton’s second law D 
(c) Newton’s third law Ans. (a) : L = 2 × 10−7 ℓn  m  H / m
(d) All the above  Ds 
KPTCL AE 2015
Ans. (c) : The transfer of energy for reaction turbines is
based on Newton's third law.
90. Which type of corona generates much less
ozone? Ds = 0.7788 R
(a) A positive corona
(b) A negative corona D 1.24cm
R= = = 0.62cm
(c) Both positive corona and negative corona 2 2
generate same amount of ozone
(d) No ozone is generated by either type of Ds = 0.7788 × 0.62 ×10−2 m
corona Dm = 2m
KPTCL AE 2015
 2 
Ans. (a) : A positive corona generates much less ozone. L = 2 × 10−7 ℓn  −2 
H/m
91. Which of responsible for interference with  0.7788 × 0.62 × 10 
communication Line.
(a) Phase current L = 12 × 10−7 Henry
(b) zero sequence current
(c) Line current 95. The generalized constants A, D of transmission
(d) None of the options line have –
Vizag Steel MT 2011 (a) No dimensions (b) Dimensions of ohm
Ans. (b) : Zero sequence current is responsible for (c) Dimensions of mho (d) None of above
interference with communication line.
GMB AE 2017
92. In a 3 – φ system, the linear losses are –
(a) Inversely proportional to cos2 φ Ans. (a) : Three phase transmission line can be
(b) Directly proportional to cosφ expressed as
(c) Inversely proportional to cosφ VS = AVR + B IR
(d) None of above
GMB AE 2017 IS = CVR + D IR
Ans. (a) : Power loss in the line is inversely The generalized constant A , D of the transmission line
proportional to the system voltage and power factor are dimensionless whereas the dimensions of B and
both C are ohms and Siemens respectively.
P 2ρℓ 96. When bundled conductor are used in place of
W= single conductor, the effective inductance and
V cos2 φ A
2
corona loss will respectively,
Where, A = Area (a) Increase and Decrease
V = Voltage (b) Decrease and Decrease
1 (c) Increase and Increase
W∝ (d) Depends on the system
cos2 φ
Ans. (b) : Increased No. of conductor gives more area 101. The limit of distance of transmission line may
for current to flow and reduce per conductor current be increased by the use of.
flow hence both inductance and corona loss will reduce. (a) Series resistances
97. For a fixed value of complex power flow in a (b) Shunt capacitor and series reactors
transmission line having a sending end voltage (c) Series capacitors and shunt reactors
V, the real power loss will be proportional to– (d) Synchronous condensers
(a) V (b) V2 Vizag Steel MT 2017
2 Ans. (c) : Series capacitor and shunt reactors increase
(c) 1/V (d) 1/V
APTRANSCO AE 2011 limit of distance of transmission line.
Ans. (c) : 102. Power loss due to corona is not directly
S = VI proportional to.
I = S/V (a) Spacing between conductors
2 (b) Supply voltage frequency
S (c) Phase-neutral voltage
Real power loss = I2 R = 2 R
V (d) All of the above
1 Vizag Steel MT 2017
Real power loss ∝ 2 Ans. (a) : Power loss due to corona is given by–
V
( f + 25 ) r V − V 2 kW/km/phase
Real power loss ∝ 2
1 Pc = 244 ×10 −5 ×
δ d
( p c)
V Thus we can say that power loss due to corona is not
98. For the protection of a very long extra HV line directly proportional to spacing between conductors (d).
the protective relay used is 103. The corona is considerably affected by which of
(a) over current with extremely inverse the following?
(a) Size of the conductor
characteristics
(b) Shape of the conductor
(b) percentage differential relay
(c) Surface condition of the conductor
(c) reactance type relay
(d) All of the above
(d) mho type distance relay
Vizag Steel MT 2017
Ans. (d) : Distance relay is the most commonly relay Ans. (d) : Corona is affected by size of conductor,
which used to protect the very long and EHV line. Mho shape of conductor, surface condition of conductor.
relay is the example of distance relay. 104. The span of an overhead line is 220 m, weight
99. In overhead transmission lines, generally used of conductor is 604 kg/km and ultimate tensile
are strength is 5758 kg. For the safety factor 2, the
(a) copper conductors sag of the line will be
(b) aluminum conductors (a) 3 m (b) 2 m
(c) ACSR conductors (c) 1.5 m (d) 1.27 m
(d) none of the above UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 Ans. (d) : Given,
Ans. (c) : Aluminum conductor steel rain forced l = 220 m
conductor (ACSR) is used for over-head transmission weight of conductor = 604 kg/km = 604 g/m
line because they have high tensile strength and having Ultimate tensile strength = 5758 kg = 5758×1000 g
good conductivity and low line losses. safety factor =2
5758 × 1000
100. Series capacitor can be used in distribution working tension, T = = 2879 × 1000
lines 2
604 × ( 220 )
2
(a) To provide reactive power compensation Wℓ 2
(b) To reduce the receiving end voltage under sag, s = = = 1.27m
8T 8 × 2879 ×1000
light loading condition
(c) To reduce the voltage drop 105. When bundle of conductors are used in place of
(d) To reduce line losses single conductors the effective inductance and
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 capacitance will, respectively
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 (a) Increase and decrease
(b) Decrease and increase
Ans. (a) : Series Capacitor– If a static capacitor is
(c) Decrease and remain unaffected
connected in series with the line, it reduces the
(d) Increase and remain unaffected
inductive reactance between load and supply point
means to provide reactive power compensation. ESE 2018
For long transmission lines where the total reactance is APPSC AEE 2019
high, series capacitors are effective for improvement of UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
system stability.
Ans. (b) : For Bundled Conductors :- 109. To limit the line charging current, long
distance EHV lines are connected with .......... at
−7 D  both ends.
(Inductance) L PH = 2 ×10 ln  m 
 DS  (a) capacitors (b) line reactors
(c) lightning arrester (d) None of the above
  MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
  Ans. (b) : To limit the line charging current, long
2πε0 εr 
(Capacitance) CPH = distance EHV lines are connected with line reactors.
  D 
 ln  m   110. In a high voltage sub-station, a common
  DS   method for obtaining a low ground resistance is
By using Bundle conductor self distance (DS) increases to use :
So, The value of inductance decreases and capacitance (a) interconnected ground grid
increases respectively. (b) counterpoise wire
106. For flat voltage profile system, voltage (c) rod gap
regulation is : (d) None of the above
(a) 0 MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
(b) 100 Ans. (a) : In a high voltage sub-station a common
(c) 50 method for obtaining a low ground resistance is to use
(d) None of the above interconnected ground grid.
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016111. The corona loss on a particular system at 50 Hz
V − VR is 1 KW/Km per phase. What is the corona loss
Ans. (a) Voltage regulation = S × 100 at 60 Hz in KW/Km per phase?
VR (a) 0.83 (b) 1
VS = Sending end voltage (c) 1.13 (d) 1.2
VR = Recieving end voltage LMRC AE 2015
For flat voltage profile system ⇒ VS = VR Ans. (c) Corona loss ∝ ( f + 25 )
So, voltage regulation will be zero. P2 f 2 + 25
107. By increasing the transmission voltage to =
P1 f1 + 25
double of its original value, the same power can
be dispatched keeping the line loss : 60 + 25
P2 = × P1
(a) equal to original value 50 + 25
(b) half the original value P2 = 1.13kW / km / ph
(c) double the original value
(d) one-fourth of original value 112. For a perfect conductor, the field strength at a
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 distance equal to the skin depth is X% of the
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 field strength at its surface. The value X% is :
RPSC VPITI 2016 (a) 0 (b) 50
2 2 (c) 36 (d) 26
P ρℓ
Ans. (d) : Line loss ( w ) = 2 LMRC AE 2015
Vm cos 2φ v Ans. (a) : For perfect conductor, current is uniform
Where Vm = Voltage trough out the conductor.
v = volume ∴ Field strength at distance equal to skin depth = field
If transmission voltage double its then line loss become strength at its surface.
∴ X% is 0.
1
, if the power constant. 113. ABCD parameters are used in analysis of
4 .............
108. Which one of the following is not done by the (a) Short circuit (b) Electronic circuits
use of bundled conductors in transmission line? (c) Open circuit (d) Transmission line
(a) Control of voltage gradient CIL MT 2020
(b) Reduction in corona loss Ans. (d) : ABCD parameters are used in analysis of
(c) Reduction in radio interference transmission line. It is also known as chain parameters.
(d) Increase in interference with communication In cascade connection, the output of one network acts as
lines the input of the next network ABCD parameters relate
input parameters of a two port network in terms of the
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 output parameters hence, the cascade connection is
RPSC VPITI 2016 analyzed through ABCD parameters.
ESE 2003
 Vs   A B   Vr 
Ans. (d) : The use of bundled conductor in transmission I  =   
line, they are control of voltage gradient, reduction in  r   C D   Ir 
corona loss, reduction in radio interference and increase
in interference with communication lines is not done by
use of bundle conductor.

114. The apparent power drawn by an AC system is 118. Which of the following methods is used to
50 kVA, reading of wattmeter is 20 kW. evaluate inductance of a transmission line:
Reactive power consumed will be: (a) GMD (b) transposition of lines
(a) 45.82 kVAR (b) 50 kVAR (c) Skin effect (d) Self GMD
(c) 70 kVAR (d) 20 kVAR (e) None
(e) Can't be calculated with the given data CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II Ans. (d) : Self GMD method is used to evaluate
inductance of transmission line.
Ans. (a) : Apparent power = 50 kVA
Real power = 20 kW 119. Which of the following factors affect Corona?
1. Atmospheric conditions, temperature,
From the power triangle
humidity, moisture, ice and fog
2. Current of conductor
3. Waveform
4. Condition of surface of conductors,
smoothness and dust.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Reactive power (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
ESE 2020
= ( Apparent power )2 − ( Real power )2 Ans. (b) : Corona loss in power line
= 502 − 202 kVAR  f + 25  r
( V − Vc ) kW/km/phase
2
PL = 241.5 × 10−5  
= 45.82 kVAR  δ  d
115. In EHV transmission shunt compensation is 3.92b
done to: where, δ = = air density factor
273 + T
(a) Minimize the occurrence of fault
P = atmospheric pressure
(b) Improve the stability limits
T = ambient temperature
(c) Enhance the power transfer capability
(d) Improves the voltage profile f = frequency
(e) All of the above V = phase voltage
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II Vc = critical disruptive voltage
r = conductor radius
Ans. (d) : In EHV transmission shunt compensation is d = spacing between conductors
done to improves the voltage profile. Critical disruptive voltage is given by
116. From economical point of view DC d
transmission is cheaper than AC transmission VC = m v g v δ r ln  
for: r
(a) Length below 250 Km When mg = surface irregularity factor
(b) Length below 200 Km g = breakdown strength of surrounding air
(c) Length beyond 600 Km Hence, it can be seen that corona is independent of the
(d) Length beyond 1100 Km current in the conduction.
(e) Not cheap in any case 120. Bundled conductors that are used to increase
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II line voltage in EHV lines for raising critical
Ans. (c) : For economical point of view DC corona voltage depend on
transmission is cheaper than AC transmission for length (a) Number of conductors in the group
beyond 600 Km. (b) Voltage gradient
117. If inductance per unit length of an over line (c) Optimum spacing
conductor is l Henry and dielectric material (d) Communication interference
around the conductor has permittivity ε, value ESE 2020
of inductance will be, Ans. (a) :
L d
(a) (b) L VC = m0 g 0δr log e kV
( 0.5) ε r
L L r = Radius of conductor
(c) (d)
( 0.2 ) ε ε m0= irregularity factor
g0= maximum value of disruptive voltage
(e) None of these
δ = air density factor
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
d = space between conductor
Ans. (c) : Permittivity of dielectric material = ε Critical corona voltage depends on–
value of inductance =
L • Number of conductors in the group
0.2ε • Clearance between them, and the distance between the
Unit of inductance is Henry . groups forming separate phase.

121. In a 275 kV transmission line with line 124. Three equal impedances (R + j X) connected in
constants A = 0.85 ∠ 5o and B = 200 ∠ 75o, if delta carry a balanced line current of IL. The
the voltage profile at each end is to be total active and reactive power drawn by these
maintained at 275 kV, the power at Unity are :-
Power Factor (UPF) will be nearly (a) IL2 R and IL2 X respectively
(a) 98 MW (b) 118 MW (b) 3IL2 R and 3IL2 X respectively
(c) 144 MW (d) 184 MW (c) IL2 R/3 and IL2 X/3 respectively
ESE 2020 (d) IL2X and IL2 R respectively
Ans. (b) : For UPF load QR = 0 Ans. (a) : Three equal impedances (R + j X) connected
VV  AVR2 in delta carry a balanced line current of IL.
0 =  S R  sin ( β − δ ) − sin ( β − α )
 B  B The total active power = I 2L R
275 × 275  0.85 × 2752 Total reactive power = I 2L X
0 =   sin ( 75 − δ ) −
o
sin ( 75o − 50 )
 200  200 125. Which of the following effect represents
δ = 22o increase in resistance due to non-uniform
Power at unit power factor, distribution of current in a conductor?
(a) Proximity (b) Skin
VV AVR2
PR = S R cos ( β − δ ) − cos ( β − α ) (c) Corona (d) None of these
B B UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Skin effect is increase in resistance due to
 275× 275  0.85× 2752
 cos ( 75 − 22 ) − cos ( 75o − 5o )
= o o non-uniform distribution of current in a conductor.
 200  200 126. Overhead lines generally use :-
= 117.63 MW ≈ 118 MW (a) Copper conductors
122. The leakage resistance of a 50 km long cable is (b) All aluminium conductors
1 M. For a 100 km long cable it will be :- (c) ACSR conductors
(a) 1 M (b) 2 M (d) Insulated conductors
(c) 0.66 M (d) 0.5 M UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
Ans. (c) : Overhead lines generally use ACSR
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I conductors.
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 Advantages of ACSR (Aluminium-conductor steel
Ans. (d) : Leakage resistance is inversely proportional reinforced) conductors.
to the length of conductor therefore– Reduced reactance.
R L Reduced voltage gradient.
R ∝ 1/ Land 1 = 2 Reduced corona losses.
R 2 L1 Reduced ratio interference.
Reduced surge impedance.
L  50
R 2 = R1  1  = 1× MΩ = 0.5MΩ 127. If ‘r’ is the radius of the conductor and ‘R’ the
 L2  100 radius of the sheath of the cable. The cable
operates stably from the view point of dielectric
123. A single phase load of 100 kVA is delivered at strength if :-
2000V over a transmission line having R=1.4 Ω (a) r /R > 1.0 (b) r / R < 1.0
and X = 0.8 Ω. The voltage at the sending end, (c) r / R < 0.632 (d) r / R < 0.368
when the power factor of the load is unity, will UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
be :- Ans. (d) : Gradient at a distance X
(a) 1.68 kV (b) 2.98 kV V
g=
(c) 2.07 kV (d) 2.84 kV X ln ( R / r )
V V
Ans. (c) : Given, ∴ g min = and g max =
 
R R
R = 1.4 Ω, VR = 2kV R ln   r ln  
X = 0.8 Ω PR = 100kVA r r 
r 1
cosφ = 1 It can be seen that < < 0.368
R e
PR 100 × 103 So, r / R < 0.368
IR = = = 50A
VR .cos φ 2000 ×1 128. In a short transmission line, resistance and
Sending end voltage, inductance are found to be equal and
regulation appears to be zero, then the load will
Vs = VR + IR .Z be :-
= 2000 + 50∠00 (1.4 + j0.8 ) (a) Unity power factor (b) Zero power factor
(c) 0.707 lagging (d) 0.707 leading
= 2070.38∠1.10 V Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
Magnitude | Vs |= 2070.38 TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
| Vs |= 2.07 kV BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015
Ans. (d) : (c) Diameter of conductors
(d) Both spacing between conductors and
Voltage regulation =
( Vs − Vr ) = I ( R cos φ ± X sin φ ) diameter of the conductors
r
Vr Vr PTCUL AE 2016
for lagging load– Ans. (d) : Corona effect can be minimized by–
( R cos φ + X sin φ ) • By increasing conductor spacing
Voltage regulation = I r • By increasing conductor size
Vr
• Using Bundled conductors.
for leading load– We know corona loss–
( R cos φ − Xsin φ )
Voltage regulation = I r ( f + 25) r
( VP − Vd ) kW/km/phase
2
Vr P = 243.5 × 10−5
δ d
for unity load power factor–
It depends on
I ( R cos φ ) • radius of conductor (r).
Voltage regulation = r
Vr
Therefore, zero voltage regulation is possible only for
• Line voltage 3VP ( )
leading power factor. • Spacing between the conductor.
for given data, R = X 134. As the transmission voltage increases, the
R R 1 percentage resistance drops ............. .
so, cos φ = = = = 0.707 leading. (a) Increase (b) Decrease
Z 2
R +X 2 2 (c) Remain constant (d) None of these
129. The efficiency of electrostatic precipitator is as PTCUL AE 2016
high as Ans. (b) : With the increase in transmission voltage line
(a) 99.6% (b) 90% losses are reduced since line losses are inversely
(c) 85% (d) 80% proportional to square of supply voltage V.
PTCUL AE 2012 135. For a transmission line the constant A, B, C,
Ans. (a) : The typical efficiency of an electrostatic and D are related as :
precipitator as a function of the corona power ratio is (a) AD – BC = 1 (b) BC – AD = 1
power consumed divided by airflow (in cubic feet per (c) AD − BC = 0.5 (d) None of these
minute). It can be as high as nearly 100%. PTCUL AE 2016
130. Skin effect is Ans. (a) : In a transmission line
(a) proportional to frequency • If receiving end is short circuited with supply voltage
(b) proportional to square of frequency V.
(c) inversely proportional to frequency
(d) independent of frequency
PTCUL AE 2012
Ans. (a) : Skin effect is proportional to supply
frequency. This effect increases with increase in V = B Ir1 –––––––– (I)
frequency. Is1 = D Ir1 –––––––– (II)
The non- uniform distribution of electric current over • If voltage V is applied at receiving end input is short
the surface or skin of the conductor carrying ac is called circuited.
the skin effect.
131. The size of conductor on modern EHV lines
selected on the basis of
(a) voltage drop (b) current density
(c) corona (d) skin effect
0 = AB – B Ir2
PTCUL AE 2012
AV
Ans. (c) : The size of the conductor and their spacing Ir2 = –––––––––(III)
has the considerable effect on corona loss. Hence B
corona loss is taken into account while choosing size of – Is2 = CV – D Ir ––––(IV)
the conductor on EHV lines. For a passive and bilateral network, reciprocity theorem
132. Frequency of resonant vibrations lines in the is applicable, hence
range of Is2 = Ir1 –––––––––(V)
(a) 10-20 Hz (b) 100-200 Hz Thus from equation (III) (IV) and (V) –
(c) 60-100 Hz (d) 200-300 Hz DAV
PTCUL AE 2012 – Ir1 = CV −
B
Ans. (c) : The frequency of resonant vibrations lies in
−BIr1
the range of 60 Hz to 100 Hz. or = BC − AD
133. The corona effect can be minimized by V
increasing : using equation (I)
(a) The length of conductors – 1 = BC – AD
(b) Spacing between conductors AD – BC = 1
136. A 132 KV transmission line has the following 139. Corona effect is observed in :
data : (a) Underground cables
Weight of conductor = 680 kg/km, length of (b) Underwater cables
span = 260 m, ultimate strength = 3100 kg, (c) Overhead distribution line
Safety factor = 2 (d) Overhead EHV transmission lines
Calculate the height above ground at which the
conductor should be supported. Ground Ans. (d) : Corona effect is observed in overhead EHV
transmission lines.
clearance required is 10 meters.
• The phenomenon of ionization of surrounding air
(a) 12.2 m (b) 12.7 m around the conductor due to which luminous glow
(c) 13.7 m (d) None of these with hissing noise is rise is know as the corona
PTCUL AE 2016 effect.
680 140. As compared to single conductor, the bundled
Ans. (c) : Weight of conductor = 680 kg/km = conductor transmission line have :
1000
= 0.68 kg/m (a) Lower values of surge impedance
(b) Higher values of surge impedance
Ultimatestrength 3100 (c) Zero surge impedance
Tension T = = = 1550 kg
Safety factor 2 (d) Infinite surge impedance
Span length ℓ = 260 m MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : As compared to single conductor, the bundled
wℓ 2 0.68 × ( 260 )
2 conductor transmission lines have lower values of surge
sag = = = 3.7 m impedance.
8T 8 × 1550 • Bundled conductor are those conductor which are
Ground clearance = 10 m made up from two or more stranded conductors,
Conductor should be supported at height bundled conductors are used to get more current
= 10 + 3.7 = 13.7 m carrying capacity.
137. Ferranti effect in long transmission line is due • A bundled conductor reduces the reactance of the
to the effect of : electric transmission line. It also reduces voltage
(a) Line reactance (b) Line capacitance gradient, corona loss, radio interference, of the
(c) Line resistance (d) None of the above transmission lines.
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I 141. Which of the following distribution systems is
Ans. (b) : Ferranti Effect– It is the effect in which preferred for good efficiency and high
economy?
voltage at the receiving end of transmission line is (a) Single-phase, two-wire
greater than sending end voltage during no load or light (b) 2-Phase, 3- wire system
load condition is called Ferranti effect. (c) 3-phase, 3-wire system
Ferranti effect in long transmission line is due to the (d) 3-phase, 4-wire system
effect of line capacitance. It can be reduced by adding HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
shunt reactor at load ends. RPSC VPITI 2016
138. An overhead transmission line has a span of Ans. (d) 3–phase 4 wire system is preferred for good
220 meters, conductor weighing 804 kg/km. efficiency and high economy because there is neutral
Calculate the maximum SAG if the ultimate wire present.
tensile strength of the conductor is 5758 kg. In this system neutral does not shift and remains at
Assume safety factor as 2. Also find maximum ground potential. Better voltage regulation is obtained
even in fault condition on any phase, and completely
tension T. black out can be avoided.
(a) SAG = 1.69 T = 2879 kg
142. Transmission efficiency of transmission line
(b) SAG = 2 T = 2800 kg increases with
(c) SAG = 2.21 T = 2875 kg (a) Decrease in power factor and voltage
(d) SAG = 1.89 T = 2789 kg (b) Increase in power factor and voltage
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I (c) Increase in power factor but decrease voltage
Ans. (a) : Given ℓ = 220 m, W= 804kg/km. (d) Decrease in power factor but increase in
voltage
804 HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
weight of conductor per unit length = = 0.804 kg
1000 HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
ultimate tensile Strength = 5758 kg Ans. (b) Transmission efficiency ∝ power output
Safety factor = 2 Pout = VLIL cos φ
5758
Working tension (T) = = 2879 kg  E F Vt 
2  Pout = sin δ  in transmission line
 X 
wℓ 2 0.804 × ( 220 )
2 s
Sag (S) = = cos φ↑ Pout ↑ efficiency ↑

8T 8 × 2879 Pout ∝ V
S = 1.69 Pout ↑ V ↑ efficiency ↑

143. In short transmission line, voltage regulation is 146. The X : R ratio of 220 kV line as compared to
zero when the power factor angle of the load at 400 kV line is
the receiving end side is equal to (a) greater (b) smaller
(a) tan–1 (X/R) (b) tan–1 (R/X) (c) equal (d) it could be anything
(c) tan–1 (X/Z) (d) tan–1 (R/Z) Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 Ans. (b) : The X : R ratio of 220kV line as compared
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 to 400 kV line is smaller.
Ans. (b) : Regulation of short Transmission Line If voltage is increased the resistance value R is
 Ir R cos φr ± I r X sin φr  decreased. Hence the X : R ratio will increase. So for
 Re gulation =  220 kV line the X : R ratio will be smaller than 400 kV
 VR  line.
Where, + → for lagging power factor
147. The corona loss on a particular system at 50 Hz
– → for leading power factor
For zero voltage regulation– is 1 kW/phase per km. The corona loss on the
I R cos φr + Ir X sin φr same system with supply frequency of 25 Hz
%V.R = r =0 will be –
Vr (a) 1 kW/phase/km (b) 0.5 kW/phase/km
= IrRcosφr + IrXsinφr = 0 (c) 0.667 kW/phase/km (d) 2 kW/phase/km
R HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
tan φr = −   [–ve sign represents p.f is leading] Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
X
At leading pf the regulation will generally negative but Ans. (c) :
it also becomes zero provided that  f + 25  r
−1  R 
Corona loss PC = 242.2   ( V − Vc )2 ×10−5
⇒ φr = tan    δ  d
X kW/km/phase p ∝ (f + 25)
144. Corona loss increases with: p1 50 + 25 1
(a) Decrease in conductor size and increase in ∴ = =
supply frequency p 2 25 + 25 x
(b) Increase in both conductor size and supply 50
frequency ⇒x= = 0.667 kW/km/phase
75
(c) Decrease in both conductor size and supply
frequency 148. Corona loss in power lines is
(d) Increase in conductor size and decrease in (a) more in winter season
supply frequency (b) less in winter season
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 (c) independent of season
ESE 2004 (d) more in summer season
Ans. (a) Corona loss – BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
( f + 25 ) Ans. (a) : Influence of weather on corona loss is
× ( Vph − Vc ) kW / km / phase
r 2
Pc = 243.5 × 10−5 × ×
δ d accounted in Peek's formula by the term 'δ' air density
Where, correction factor.
f = Supply frequency Peek's formula
δ = Air density factor
 ( f + 25) r V − V 2 ×10−5  kW / km/ phase
r = Radius of the conductor
Pc = 243.5 ( d) 
d = Distance between the conductor  δ D 
Vph= Operating voltage of the transmission
line Air density correction factor (δ) depends on weather
Vc= Critical disruptive voltage condition. During bad weather conditions like, rain,
Corona loss increase with snow, hailstorm δ ↓ leading to decrease in critical
• Decrease the conductor size disruptive voltage and increase of corona loss.
• Increase supply frequency Hence, corona loss in power lines is more in winter
• Air pressure in hilly areas the corona effect is more season.
dominant due to reduced pressure. 149. If ACSR conductor has specification as 48/7,
• Corona loss decrease by the use of large size of which of the following is correct?
conductor. (a) Conductor has 48 strands of steel and 7
strands of Al
145. Insulators in EHV lines are designed based on
(b) Conductor has 7 strands of steel and 48
(a) switching voltages (b) peak voltages
strands of Al
(c) corona (d) lightning voltages
(c) Conductor has 48 strands
Ans. (a) : Insulator in extra high voltage line are
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
designed based on switching voltage.
WBPSC AE 2007

Ans. (b) : Aluminium conductor steel-reinforced Ans : (c) We know that-
(ACSR) conductor is a type of high capacity, high ( f + 25 ) r V − V 2 × 10−5 kW / Km / Phase
strength stranded conductor typically used in overhead Pc = 243.5 ( d)
power lines. The outer stands are high-purity aluminium δ D
(Al), choosen for its good conductivity, low weight and Corona Loss ∝ [f+25]
low cost. Corona Loss at 50 Hz - P1 ∝ (50 + 25)
48/7 ACSR conductor means, conductor has 7 strands Corona Loss at 60 Hz - P2 ∝(60 + 25)
of steel and 48 strands of Aluminium. P 50 + 25 75 15
150. When a charge is given to a conductor :– So, 1 = = =
P2 60 + 25 85 17
(a) It distributes uniformly all over the surface
17
(b) It distributes uniformly all over the volume ∴ P2 = P1
(c) It distributes on the surface, inversely 15
proportional to the radius of curvature ∵ P1 = 3 kW/km/phase
(d) It stays where it was placed
17
WBSE TCL AE 2016 P2 = × 3
Ans. (a) : When a charge is given to a conductor of 15
spherical shape, it distributes uniformly all over the P2 = 3.4kW / km / phase
surfaces with circular shape, each charge has no-net
force on it, because there is the same amount of charge 154. The corona loss of 400 kV, 50Hz, system is
on either side of it and it is uniformly distributed. 3kW/km per phase. What is the corona loss if
the system operates for DC with same
151. The charging reactance of 50 km length of the configuration?
line of 1500Ω. What will be the charging (a) 3 kW/km per phase
reactance for 100 km length of the line? (b) 9 kW/km per phase
(a) 750Ω (b) 600Ω (c) 1 kW/km per phase
(c) 1500Ω (d) 3000Ω (d) 1.5 kW/km per phase
ESE 2005 Ans : (c) We know that:
Ans. (a) Charging Reactance ∝
1 ( f + 25) r V − V 2 ×10−5 kW / Km./ Phase
length Pc = 243.5 ( d)
δ D
1 [Corona power Loss ∝ (f+25)]
X Cα
L on 50HZ– Corona Loss P1 ∝ (50+25)
X C 1 L1 = X C2 L 2 on 0HZ– Corona Loss P2 ∝ (0+25)
50 × 1500 = 100 × X C2 So, the ratio of P1 & P2 is given by:
P1 50 + 25 75
X C2 = 750Ω = = =3
P2 0 + 25 25
152. Which of the following statement is true? P1 = 3P2
1. Transmission lines is not used for and we are given, P1 = 3kW/km
communication P 3
2. Transmission lines are classified only as per ∴ P2 = 1 = = 1kW / km / phase
their construction 3 3
3. Corona losses are less in DC than in AC 155. Loss in transmission line is 20 MW and is
system loaded at 110kV. If load is 200 MVA and
4. Cables are used for DC supply only length is 100 km then resistance per km is
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 8.06 ohm (b) 6.05 ohm
(c) only 3 (d) only 4 (c) 0.806 ohm (d) 0.0605 ohm
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Ans : (c) Corona Loss noise and radio interference Loadin MVA
increases steeply under foul weather conditions with Ans : (b) I L =
AC but not with D.C. Voltage
We can see that- PC ∝ ( f + 25 ) 200 × 106
IL =
110 × 103
PC = Corona Loss
f = Supply frequency 200
IL = × 103
from the above equation it can because that corona 110
losses are less in D.C. than A.C. i.e. corona losses are I L = 1818.18A
much in A.C.
Power loss = 20MW
153. The corona loss in a particular system at 50Hz
is 3kW/ km per phase than corona loss at 60 Hz = 20 × 106 Watt
in kW/km per phase is:- P = I 2L R L
(a) 0 (b) 1.13
20 × 106 = (1818.18 ) × R L
2
(c) 3.4 (d) 3.9
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 R L = 6.05 Ω
156. The dielectric strength of rubber is 30000 Ans. (b) : Corona discharge can cause an audible
V/mm at frequency of 50 Hz. What is the hissing (or) cracking noise as it ionizes the air around
thickness of insulation required on an electrical the conductors This is common in high voltage electric
power transmission lines. The corona effect can also
conductor at 33 kV to sustain the breakdown? produce a violet glow, production of ozone gas (O3)
(a) 0.825 cm (b) 0.8 mm around the conductor, Radio interference, and electrical
(c) 1.0 cm (d) 1.1 mm power loss.
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 The phenomenon of violet glow, hissing noise and
production of ozone gas in an overhead transmission
V line is known as corona.
Ans : (d) E =
d 160. For transmission line which of the following
relation is true?
E = Electric field, V = Voltage, d = Thickness (a) AD – BC = 1 (b) – AD – BC = 1
V (c) AD – BC = –1 (d) AD – BC = 0
E=
d RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
33 × 1000 33 × 1000 Ans. (a) : Transmission line parameters are represented
30000 = , d=
d 30000  V   A B   Vr 
as,  S  =   
11  IS   C D   I r 
d= =1.1 mm
10 Where,
157. Transposition of transmission line is done to VS = Sending end voltage
IS = Sending end currant
(a) Reduce line losses Vr = Receiving end voltage
(b) Reduce skin effect Ir = Receiving end current
(c) Balance line voltage drop For symmetry network : A = D
(d) Reduce corona & for reciprocity network : AD – BC = 1
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 161. Transmission lines connect-
Ans. (c) : Transposition of transmission line is done (a) Generating station to a switching station/step
Balance line voltage drop down transformer station.
(b) Step down transformer station to service
Net result flux φr, which link with transformer banks
communication line become zero. (c) Distribution transformer to consumer
GMD/Phase equal premises
Flux/Phase equal (d) Service points to consumer premises
Current/Phase equal PS PCL AE 2012
L/Phase equal Ans. (a) : Transmission lines connect generating station
158. In three phase, 4 wire AC system, unbalancing to a switching station/step down transformer station.
A transmission line is used for the transmission of
is caused due to connection of electrical power from generating substation to the
(a) Single phase loads various distribution units. It transmits the wave of
(b) Three phase induction motor voltage and current from one end to another. The
(c) Synchronous condenser transmission line is made up of the conductor having a
(d) Three phase transformers uniform cross section along the line. Air acts as an
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 insulating or dielectric medium between the conductors.
Ans. (a) : In a 3 phase 4 wire system, the connected 162. The corona loss in a 50 Hz system is 0.25
kW/ph/km. At a frequency of 60 Hz, the corona
loads are normally single phase. loss would be:
The single-phase load is connected between one of the (a) 0.30 kW/ph/km (b) 0.36 kW/ph/km
3–phase wires and a wire connected to star point of the (c) 0.28 kW/ph/km (d) 0.21 kW/ph/km
system. The return of load current is completed through TSPSC AEE 2017
this fourth wire. (also known as neutral wire) Ans. (c) : As we know that–
Here, it is important to note that 3 − φ , 4-wire system is
Corona loss (Pc) ∝ (f + 25)
required only when there is unbalance in load but the Pc1 ( f1 + 25 )
=
unbalance should not be more than 15-20%, to be the Pc2 ( f 2 + 25 )
safe side.
So, In 3–φ 4 wire. AC system, unbalancing is caused 0.25 = 50 + 25 = ( )
75
due to connection of single phase loads. Pc2 60 + 25 ( 85 )
159. During the corona along with hissing noise a 85 × 0.25
Pc2 =
smell of the following gas is also come. 75
(a) O2 (b) O3 Corona Power loss at 60 Hz Pc2 = 0.28 kW / ph / km
(c) H2 (d) H2S
163. ACSR conductor is used in place of copper in Ans. (c) : Method of Reduce Corona–
overhead power lines because of Bundled conductors are use
(a) Higher current carrying capacity By the use of large size conductor.
(b) Being lighter in weight Use hallow conductor.
(c) Economy 167. The dielectric strength of air under normal
(d) Higher tensile length
condition is around
(a) 30 kV/cm (b) 100 kV/cm
Ans. (c) : ACSR (Aluminum conductor steel (c) 150 kV/cm (d) 200 kV/cm
reinforced) Karnataka PSC AE 2017
ACSR conductor are normally cheaper than copper
conductors of equal resistance and this economy is Ans. (a) : The dielectric strength of air under normal
obtained without sacrifice of efficiency. condition is around 30 kV/cm.
A reduction in the number of supports involves a 168. Transposition of transmission line is done to
corresponding reduction in the total cost of insulators, reduce the
foundation’s erection and incidentally the costs of (a) line losses
maintenance, replacements and stores are similarly (b) capacitive effect
reduce. (c) disturbance to nearby communication circuits
164. The effect of corona can be reduced if the (d) effect of surge voltages induced on the line
critical voltage can be raised by PTCUL AE 2012
(a) increasing the spacing between the Ans. (c) : When communication lines are run in parallel
conductors to transmission line, there is a possibility of high
(b) increasing the diameter of the conductor voltage induction in the communication line. This can
(c) either (a) or (b) result in noise. By transposition this noise can be
(d) none of the above reduces.
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 169. Reactive power is
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 (a) Rate of energy transfer
Ans. (c) : Corona loss can be given by– (b) The product of r.m.s. volt and quadrature
1 component of r.m.s. current
Pc ∝
D (c) The product of r.m.s. volt and r.m.s. current
Where, 'D' is spacing between conductor hence when (d) The product of r.m.s. volt and in phase
'D' is increase corona loss will decreased. component of r.m.s. current
D
And also E 0 ∝ ln   Ans. (b) : Reactive power can be given by–
r Q = Vrms Irms sinφ
Where, 'r' radius of conductor
And Pc ∝ (E0 – Ec)2
So when 'r' is increases then E0 decreases therefore
corona loss will also decreased.
165. Increase in temperature in over head
transmission lines causes
(a) Increases in stress & length
(b) Decrease in stress & length
(c) Decrease in stress but increase in length
(d) None of the above 170. In a long transmission line under no load
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 condition
(a) Receiving end voltage is less than sending
Ans. (c) : In overhead transmission line if temperature
are increased the conductor will expand because of this end voltage
sag will also increased. Sag can be written as– (b) Sending end voltage is less than receiving end
voltage
Wℓ 2 (c) Receiving end voltage equally sending end
δ=
8T voltage
Where, T = Tension or stress of overhead (d) None of these
lines/conductor Karnataka PSC AE 2017
ℓ = Length of cable Ans. (b) : Ferranti Effect– When transmission line is
W = Weight of conductor operating under no load condition or lightly load
Since, δ ∝ Temperature condition, the sending end voltage Vs is less than
And here temperature is increase therefore stress are receiving end voltage Vr is called Ferranti effect.
decreases and length increased. 171. The corona loss in a 50-Hz system is 0.2
166. To reduce corona effect usually kW/phase/km. At a frequency of 60 Hz, the
(a) The distance between the conductor is corona loss would be
reduced (a) 0.17 kW/phase/km
(b) The conductor diameter is reduced (b) 0.24 kW/phase/km
(c) Bundled conductors are used (c) 0.22 kW/phase/km
(d) Stranded conductor are used (d) 0.34 kW/phase/km
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI
Ans. (b) : Corona loss (Pc) 174. Corona loss is less when shape of conductor is
(a) Circular
( f + 25) ( Vph − Vd ) × 10 kW / phase / km
243.5 r 2 −5 (b) Oval
=
ρ d (c) Flat
Where, (d) Independent of shape
r = Radius of conductor in metres UJVNL AE 2016
f = system frequency UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
Vph = phase voltage in kV (rms value) Ans. (a) When the shape of conductor is circular then
Vd = Disruptive critical voltage in kV (rms losses will less.
value) Electric field intensity is uniform throughout the
Corona loss Pc ∝ (f+25) conductor because radius same in all point.
Here f1 = 50 Hz, f2 = 60 Hz, P1 = 0.2 kW/phase/km Corona loss depends on radius of the conductor and
operating voltage.
P1 f1 + 25
= 244 r −5
P2 f 2 + 25 PC = ( f + 25 )( E n − E 0 )
2
10 kW / Km / phase
δ d
0.2 50 + 25 0.2 75
So , = ⇒ = Where Pc – corona power loss
P2 60 + 25 P2 85 f – frequency of supply in Hz
85 δ – air density factor
P2 = 0.2 × = 0.226 ⇒ 0.23 kW/phase/km. En – r.m.s phase voltage in kv
75
172. For a transmission line E0 – disruptive critical voltage per phase in kV
Vs = AVr + BIr and Is = CVr + DIr Then, Ir r – radius of the conductor in meters
equals D – spacing between conductor in meter
(a) –CVs + AIs (b) DVs + AIs 175. When line reactance is 3 times its resistance
(c) DVs – BIs (d) AVs + DIs and the torque angle is 90o, the power
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 transferred from the sending end to the
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI receiving end by a transmission line will be:
Ans. (a) : Vs = AVr + BIr--------- (i) (a) 1/4 (maximum) (b) minimum
Is = CVr + DIr ----------- (ii) (c) 1/2 (maximum) (d) maximum
Vs A Is Ir LMRC AM 2020
Ir = − Vr and Vr = − D Ans. (d) : When line reactance is 3 times its
B B C C o
by putting the value of Vr in equation resistance and the torque is 90 , the power transferred
V AI AD from the sending end to the receiving end by a
I r, Ir = s − s + Ir transmission line will be maximum.
B BC BC 176. A single phase transmission line of impedance
 AD  CVs AIs j0.16 ohm supplies a resistive load of 800 A at
I r 1 − = −
 BC  BC BC 500 V. The sending end power factor is
(a) 0.97 lagging
 BC − AD  C AIs
Ir   = V s − (b) 0.7 lagging
 BC  BC BC (c) 0.5 lagging
for ABCD parameter, AD – BC = 1 (d) 0.8 leading
Ir = – CVs + AIs JUVNL AE 2017
173. Series compensation on EHV lines is resorted Ans. (a) :
to–
(a) Improve the stability
(b) Reduce the fault level
(c) Improve the voltage profile
(d) As a substitute for synchronous phase
modifier
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 Impedance Z = j0.16 ohm
Resistive load = 800A, 500V
Ans. (a) : Power of EHV line is given as:
p.F. sending end = ?
EV
P= sin δ R=
500
⇒ 0.625ohm
X 800
Where, E is sending-end voltage, V is
receiving-end voltage, X is line reactance and δ is load R= 0.625Ω
angle. Series capacitance decreases the value of X, and
hence it can increase the value of power P, which
transmission line can carry. So if we add series
capacitor, it increases the capacity of transmission line
to accommodate greater power swing, hence increasing
stability.

Now, 181. What is the approximate value of the surge
Z = R + iXL impedance loading of a 400 kV, 3-phase 50 Hz
Z = 0.625 + j0.16 overhead single circuit transmission line ?
Z = (0.625) 2 + (0.16) 2 (a) 230 MW (b) 400 MW
(c) 100 MW (d) 1600 MW
Z = 0.644 HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
R 0.625 ESE 2006
P.F. = cos φs = = ⇒ 0.97 Ans. (b) : Surge impedance loading (SIL)
Z 0.644
P.F. = 0.97 lagging V 2
SIL = RL MW
177. Doherty rate tariff is applied to : Z0
(a) domestic consumers VRL is the receiving end voltage in KV.
(b) medium industrial consumers SIL is independent of the distance and depends on the
(c) bulk supplies voltage.
(d) municipal loads A 400 kV, 3–φ, 50Hz overhead single circuit
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 transmission line the surge impedance loading is
Ans. (c) : Doherty rate (Three part tariff) – It approximate 400 MW.
consists of a customer or meter charge. Plus a demand
charge plus any energy charge. It requires two meters. It 182. A 100 km long transmission line is loaded at
is better suited for industrial than for residential 110 kV. If the loss of the line is 5 MW and the
customers as bulk supplies. load is 150 MVA, the resistance of the line is
178. For constant voltage transmission, the voltage (a) 0.806 Ω / phase (b) 8.06 Ω / phase
drop along the line is maintained constant by (c) 0.0806 Ω / phase (d) 80.6 Ω / phase
installing .................. at the receiving end. BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015
(a) capacitors Ans. (d)
(b) inductors P = V2/R
(c) resistors
110 ×110 ×106
(d) synchronous phase modifiers 5 × 106 =
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 R
Ans. (d) : For constant voltage transmission, the voltage 242
R = 242.0Ω, Rperphase = R = 80.6Ω / phase
drop along the line is maintained constant by installing 3
synchronous phase modifiers at the receiving end. 183. It is found that the receiving-end voltage of
179. During load shedding : long transmission line is greater than sending-
(a) System voltage is reduced
end voltage on no-load. This might happen due
(b) System loads are switched off
(c) Both (a) and (b) to which of the following transmission line
(d) None of these parameters?
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 (a) Capacitance (b) Inductance
Ans. (c) : During load shedding- (c) Resistance (d) Conductance
(i) System voltage is reduced BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015
(ii) System loads are switched off. Ans. (a) : In long transmission line when open circuited
180. For the same conductor length, same amount of or lightly loaded, the receiving end voltage is found
power, same losses and same maximum voltage more than sending end voltage. This phenomenon of
to earth, which system requires minimum
conductor area ? rise in voltage at the receiving end of open circuited or
(a) Single-phase ac lightly loaded line is called as the Ferranti effect.
(b) 3-phase ac This effect is due to charging current flowing through
(c) 2-phase ac line which flows due to presence of capacitance
(d) 3 wire dc (between line and ground).
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 184. A 3 phase transmission line operating at Vs =
Ans. (d) : For the same conductor length, same amount 400 kV and has ABCD parameters A = D = 0.8
of power, same losses and same maximum voltage to
earth, 3-wire DC system requires minimum conductor ∠0o, B = 100 ∠90o ohms C = 0.5 × 10–6 ∠90o
area compare to other system as 1–φ ac system, 3–phase mhos. What is the value of inductive shunt
ac, 2–phase ac system etc. reactor required for compensating Ferranti
2P 2 ρℓ effect?
DC 2-wire system = (a) 1500 ohms (b) 750 ohms
ωVm2 (c) 500 ohms (d) 300 ohms
4P 2 ρℓ APTRANSCO AE 2019
1–φ A.C. system =
cos 2 φωVm2 Ans. (c) :
XLSN = inductive shunt reactor
2P 2 ρℓ B 100 100
3–φ 3-wire = X LSN = = = = 500ohms
3ωVm2 cos 2 φ 1 − A 1 − 0.8 0.2

185. In A,B,C,D parameters, ZL/2 in the T- Ans. (d) : The geometric mean radius (GMR) of a
equivalent shown can be represented as conductor is the fictitious radius which do not has any
internal flux linkage but only have external flux linkage.
GMR is basically the geometric mean of distances
between strands of a conductor. For inductance
calculation, r' is a imaginary
r' = 0.7788r
(a) (A – 1)C (b) (A – 1)B 189. The ABCD constants of a short transmission
(c) (A – 1)/C (d) B/(A – 1) line are
APSPDCL AE 2012 (a) A = Z, B= 1, C = 0, D = 1
Ans. (c) : (b) A = 0, B = 1, C= Z, D = 1
(c) A = 1, B = Z, C =0, D = 1
(d) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1, D = Z
APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (c) : Short transmission line-series combination of
resistance and inductance.
Z= R + jX
ABCD parameters of Nominal T network are: Vs = 1.0Vr +ZIr
 ZY  Is = 0Vr + 1.0 Ir
A = 1+  Is = Ir
 2 
 ZY 
B = Z  1+ 
 4 
C=Y
 ZY 
D = 1+ 
 2 
Putting the value of Y = C in equation A.
2(A − 1)
Z= IS = IL
C Vs= 1.Vr + ZIr
ZL ( A − 1)
=  Vs  1 Z   Vr 
2 C  I  = 0 1   I 
186. The chances of occurrence of corona is  s    r
maximum during A= 1 B= Z C= 0 D= 1
(a) dry weather (b) humid weather 190. Clearance of the lowest conductor (across the
(c) winter (d) hot summer street) from the ground for HT lines should be
APSPDCL AE 2012 (a) 17 ft (b) 18 ft
Ans. (b) : Corona is defined as the glow surrounding (c) 19 ft (d) 20 ft
the conductor when the operating voltage is sufficiently APPSC AEE 2019
High. Due to ionization of air surround the conductor Ans. (d) : Clearance above ground of the lowest
conductor of 66 kV should be 6.096 meter.
corona is comes into picture. The chance of corona is
(i) Number of conductor of an overhead line including
maximum during the humid weather condition. service lines erected across a street shall at any part
187. By increasing spacing between phase should be at a height less than-
conductors, the line capacitance will (a) for low and medium voltage line-5.791 meter
(a) Decrease (b) Increase (19ft)
(c) Remain same (d) None of the above (b) for high voltage line-6.096 meter (20ft).
APPSC AEE 2019 191. Which of the following protections is not
normally provided on small distribution
2πε0
Ans. (a) : C = transformers?
d (a) Over-fluxing protection
ℓn  
 
r (b) Buchholz relay
(c) Over-current protection
Where, d = space between conductors
r = radius of conductors APPSC AEE 2019
Therefore, if we increase the spacing between the phase Ans. (b) : Buchholz relay protection is provided to all
conductors, the line capacitance will decrease. transformers which are rated from 0.5 MVA and above
188. For inductance calculation, what will be the rated transformers. While for small size distribution
fictitious radius r' if conductor radius is r? transformers only high voltage fuses are used as main
(a) r' = 0.774r (b) r' = 2r protective device for all larger rated and important
(c) r' = r/2 (d) r' = 0.7788 r distribution transformer, over current protection along
APPSC AEE 2019 with restricted earth fault protection is applied.

192. In a DC two wire feeder, the voltage drop per 196. The reactive power may be described as
wire is 4%. The transmission efficiency of the (a) The average value of that power component
feeder is: resulting in zero average.
(a) 92% (b) 96% (b) That value of power which has a finite value
(c) 98% (d) 88% and strongly depends on power factor.
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 (c) Peak value of that component travelling back
Ans. (a) : Input power (Pin) = I1Vin and forth on the transmission line resulting in
output power (Pop) = I2Vop zero average.
92 (d) None of the other options
Vop = Vin – Vdrop = Vin – 8%Vin = Vin = 0.92Vin UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
100
Ans. (c) : The reactive power may be described as peak
P IV IV value of that component traveling back and forth on the
Efficiency (η) = ou = 2 op = 0.92 2 in
Pin I1Vin I 2 Vin transmission line resulting in zero average.
η = 0.92 197. For an EHV equipment for maintenance first it
η = 92% should be isolated and connected to ground
because-
193. The ABCD constants of a 3 phase transmission
(a) to provide low impedance
line are (b) to discharge the charging capacitance to
A = D = 0.8 ∠1º ground
B = 170 ∠85º Ω (c) protection for operating personnel
C = 0.002 ∠90.4º mho (d) both (b) and (c)
The sending end voltage is 400 KV. The KPSC AE 2014
receiving end voltage under no load condition Ans. (d) : For Extra high voltage equipment for
is maintenance, first it should be isolated and connected to
(a) 400 KV (b) 500 KV ground. Because to discharge the charging current due
(c) 320 KV (d) 417 KV to capacitance to ground for the protection of operating
APGENCO AE 2012 person.
Ans. (b) : 198. ACSR (Aluminium Conductor Steel
 VS   A B   VR  Reinforced) are used as-
 =   (a) super conductors
 IS   C D   I R  (b) over head transmission lines
If no-load then IR = 0
VS = A VR (c) underground cables
(d) none of these
V 400 KPSC AE 2014
VR = S = kV = 500 kV
A 0.8 Ans. (b) : ACSR (Aluminium conductor steel
194. Bundled conductors are used to: reinforced ) are used in over head transmission line.
(a) Reduce inductance of the line This conductor have high transfer capacity, high tensile
(b) Reduce both inductance and capacitance of strength and good conductivity. The outer strands are
the line made up aluminium, and inner strands are made up of
(c) Reduce capacitance of the line steel.
(d) Reduce corona loss and line inductance 199. Advantage of using bundled conductors in
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 transmission lines is to:
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II (a) reduce sag
APGENCO AE 2012 (b) increase mechanical strength of the line
ESE 2000 (c) reduce corona
Ans. (d) Bundle conductors are used to reduce the over (d) all of these
all inductance of line. KPSC AE 2014
In a bundle conductor, all conductors are connected in Ans. (c) : The main advantage of bundled conductors
parallel, hence there Xeq become less. are primarily employed to reduce the corona loss and
radio interference. However they have several
It also reduces voltage gradient, corona loss, surge advantages bundled conductors per phase reduces the
impedance of transmission lines. Bundled conductors voltage gradient in the vicinity of the line and
per phase reduces voltage gradient in vicinity of the improvement in the transmission efficiency as loss due
line, thus reduces possibility of corona discharge. to corona effect is countered.
195. The self GMD method is used to evaluate 200. The major factor in the insulation strength of
(a) inductance an EHV transmission line is-
(b) capacitance (a) corona
(c) inductance and capacitance (b) switching over-voltage
(d) resistance (c) harmonics
APGENCO AE 2012 (d) load power factor
Ans. (c) : The self GMD method is used to evaluate KPSC AE 2014
inductance and capacitance. UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I

Ans. (b) : In EHV transmission line,  2 
if, L 2 = 4 × 10−7 l n  −2 
Below 220 kV,  0.25 × 10 × 0.7788 
 200 
lightning voltages > switching voltages = 4 × 10−7 l n   ........(ii)
Above 220 kV, (UHT voltages)  0.25 × 0.7788 
Switching voltages > lightning voltages equation (ii) is divided by equation (1)
So, in UHT lines the insulation strength of the lines is
 200 
designed based on switching voltages. Thus, the major 4 × 10−7 l n  
factor in the insulation strength of an EHV transmission L2  0.25 × 0.7788 
line is switch over-voltage. =
L1  100 
201. In a transmission line having a sending end 4 × 10−7 l n  
voltage V, for a fixed value of complex power  0.25 × 0.7788 
flow the real loss will be proportional to– L 2 l n (1027.22 ) 6.934
= =
(a) V (b) V2 L1 l n ( 513.61) 6.241
1 1 L2
(c) (d) = 1.11
V V2 L1
WBSE TCL AE 2016
LMRC AE 2015 L 2 = 1.11L1
KPSC AE 2014 So, Inductance will increase but does not double.
Ans. (d) : Let, complex power (S) = P + jQ 203. Which of the following is a solution to Ferranti
S = P + jQ = VI ( cos φ + jsin φ ) = VI e jφ effect?
(a) shunt capacitor (b) shunt reactor
S (c) series capacitor (d) none of the above
I= jφ
(V = sending end voltage) KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
Ve
then, Ans. (b) : In a medium or long transmission line when
Real power loss (P) = I2R open circuited or lightly loaded, the receiving end
2 voltage is found more than sending end voltage. This
 S   S2 R  1 phenomenon of rise in voltage at the receiving-end
=  jφ  .R =  2 jφ  × 2
 Ve  e  V voltage at the receiving end of the open circuited or
So, lightly loaded line is called as the Ferranti effect.
This effect can be reduced by the use shunt reactor
1 which reduce the susceptance of the line so as to
P∝ 2
V improve voltage regulation under light load.
202. Consider a long, two-wire line composed of 204. A 22 cm long solenoid having total number of
solid round conductors. The radius of both turns 1000, consists of a core of cross sectional
conductors is 0.25 cm and the distance between area 4 cm2. Half portion of the core consists of
their centres is 1 m. If this distance is doubled, air and other half is made of iron of relative
then the inductance per unit length. permeability 500. The self inductance of the
(a) increases but does not double solenoid is-
(b) halves (a) 0.64 mH (b) 0.057 H
(c) doubles (c) 0.57 H (d) 57.0 H
(d) decrease but does not halve KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
KPSC AE 2014 Ans. (c) : Given, data shown in figure below–
Self inductance (L) = ?
Ans. (a) : Inductance of a Single Phase two wire line
D
L = 4 × 10–7 ln   H / m
 r' 
D = Distance between two solid conductor of same
radii, r
r' = Radius of fictitious conductor
= 0.7788r
for r1 = r2 = 0.25 cm = 0.25×10–2 m
r' = 0.25×10–2 × 0.7788
D1 = 1 m
N 2 Aµ 0
D2 = 2 m L=
l
( µ r1 +µ r2 )
 D 
L1 = 4 ×10−7 l n  1  (500) 2 × 4 ×10−4 × 4π×10−7 (1 + 500)
 r'  L=
11× 10−2
−7  1  25 × 16 × π× 501× 10−5
L1 = 4 × 10 l n  
−2
 0.25 ×10 × 0.7788  =
11
L1 = 4 × 10−7 l n 400 ........(i) L = 0.57H

205. A 132 kV, 200 km long transmission line has a 208. When is the Ferranti effect on long overhead
reactance of 0.2 Ω/phase/km. What is its lines experienced?
(a) The line is lightly loaded
reactance/phase in p.u. on 100 MVA base? (b) The line is heavily loaded
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.23 (c) The line is fully loaded
(c) 0.6 (d) 0.174 (d) The power factor is unity
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
Ans. (b) : V = 132 V, ℓ = 200 km, RPSC VPITI 2018
Reactance/phase/km = 0.2 Ω/phase/km ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
MVABase = 100 MVA, ESE 2006
reactance/phase = 0.2 × 200 = 40 Ω/phase Ans. (a) : Ferranti effect- The effect in which the
voltage at the receiving end of the transmission line is
X p.u. = X L ×
( MVA Base ) more than the sending voltage is known as the Ferranti
( KVB ) effect. Such type of effect mainly occurs because of
2
light load or open circuit at the receiving.

40 ×100
= ≃ 0.23 p.u.
(132 )
2
206. Using bundled conductors results in–

(a) Reduced reactance
(b) Reduced corona loss
(c) Increased voltage gradient
(d) Both (a) and (b)
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
Ans. (d) : Using bundle conductor results in :
(1) Reduced reactance
(2) Reduced corona loss, because voltage gradient
decreases.
207. A single-phase transmission line of reactance
j0.8 ohm supplies a resistive load of 500 A at
300 V. The sending end power factor is –
(a) Unity (b) 0.8 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading (d) 0.6 lagging
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 Represent line by equivalent π model.
ESE 1996 Line capacitance in assumed to be concentrated at the
Ans. (d) : receiving end.
OM→ receiving end voltage Vr
OC→current drawn by capacitance = IC
MN→ Resistance drop
NP→ Inductive reactance drop
Therefore-
OP→ sending end voltage at no load and is less than
receiving end voltage (vr)
Since resistance is small compared to reactance.
resistance can be neglected in calculating Ferranti
effect.
209. Which circuit parameter is predominant in the
overhead lines?
(a) Inductance (b) Capacitance
V 300 (c) Resistance (d) Luminescence
R= = = 0.6 DMRC AM 2020
I 500
Ans. (a) : Inductance is predominant circuit parameter
now, Z = R + jXL in the overhead lines. Inductance is the property by
= 0.6 + j0.8 virtue of which a circuit oppose the changes in the value
of a varying current flow through it.
|Z| = ( 0.6 ) + ( 0.8 )
2 2
210. Corona loss in transmission lines can be

|Z| = 1 reduced by :
R 0.6 (a) using small diameter conductors
Power-factor ( cos φ ) = = (b) using bundled conductors
|Z| 1 (c) using less spacing between conductors
= 0.6(lagging) because transmission line is inductive (d) increasing the transmission line voltage
circuit. APTRANSCO AE 2017
Ans. (b) : Corona loss in transmission line can be Ans. (d) :Transposition of transmission line is defined
reduced by using the bundled conductors. The diameter as "Exchange of conductor position at regular intervals
of the conductor increases compared to diameter of the along the line so that each conductor occupies the
normal conductor for same power rating. Increase in the original position of each other conductor over an equal
distance over the length of one transposition cycle". The
conductor diameter reduces the electric field stress. total flux linkages and hence net voltage produced in a
Hence corona loss can be reduced. nearby telephone line is zero i.e. transposition of
211. The sending end and receiving end voltages of a transmission line eliminates radio interference in the
three-phase transmission line are 10 kV/ph and nearby communication line.
9.5 kV/ph, respectively. If the resistance drop is Transposition of line-
150 V/ph and receiving end power factor is 0.8,
the sending end power factor is :
(a) 0.745 lagging (b) 0.775 lagging
(c) 0.8 lagging (d) 0.85 lagging
APTRANSCO AE 2017
 V cos φR + IR .R 
Ans. (b) : cos φs =  R 
 Vs 
VS = 10 kV/phase Induction of 3 − φ transposed lines-
VR = 9.5 kV/phase  ( D D D ) ↑ H / m
1/ 3
IRR = 150 V/Phase = 0.15 kV/phase  L R = L Y = L B = L ph ↑= 2 × 10−7 ℓ n 1 2 3 
cos φR = 0.8  r' 
9.5 × 0.8 + 0.15 Inductance of Triangular configuration-
cos φs = = 0.775 lagging
10 ↓d
212. Stringing chart is used for : ↓ L ph = 2 × 10−7 ℓ n  H / m
 r' 
(a) finding the sag in the conductor
(b) the design of towers 214. When the spacing between the conductors in an
(c) the design of insulator string over head line is increased
(d) finding the distance between towers (a) the line inductance decreases but the
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 capacitance increases.
APTRANSCO AE 2017 (b) the line capacitance decreases but the
APGENCO AE 2012 inductance increases.
Ans. (a) : (c) both the inductance and the capacitance
decreases.
(d) both the inductance and the capacitance
increases.
Vizag Steel MT 2013
Ans. (b) : When spacing is increased,
2πε0
Cn =
D
ln
r
∴ C∝ 1
D
The stringing chart is basically used for sag calculation, Capacitance decreases
when the support of the transmission line are not at the
D
same level. The difference in the level point of support L = 2 × 10 –7 l n
and the lowest point of the conductor is defined as sag. r
213. Transmission lines are transposed to reduce : L∝D
(a) Ferranti effect and voltage level ∴ inductance increases.
(b) Skin effect and efficiency 215. Stranded conductors are preferred to solid
(c) Proximity effect and current density over head conductors as-
(d) Interference with neighboring communication (a) they are more flexible.
lines (b) they may be would over a drum for easy
APTRANSCO AE 2017 transportation.
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 (c) may be designed to have larger effective cross
RPSC VPITI 2018 section.
TNPSC AE 2018 (d) all of these
ESE 1996 Vizag Steel MT 2013

Ans. (d) : Stranded conductors are preferred to solid Vfℓ = Full load voltage
over head conductors as-
(i) They are more flexible (V.R) =
( 30 − 25 ) × 100 = 5
×100 = 20%
(ii) they may be wound over a drum for easy 25 25
transportation. V.R = 20%
(iii) may be designed to have larger effective cross-
section. 220. When the load at the receiving end of a long
transmission line is removed, the sending end
216. For a transmission line supported at different voltage becomes less than the receiving end
elevations at the two ends, the tension is voltage. This effect is called.
maximum at the (a) Ferranti effect (b) Kelvin effect
(a) shorter support (c) Proximity effect (d) Skin effect
(b) taller support UPSC JWM 2017
(c) mid point Ans. (a) : When the load at receiving end of a long
(d) horizontal point on the line transmission line is removed, the sending end voltage
Vizag Steel MT 2013 becomes less than the receiving end voltage. This is
Ans. (b) : For a transmission line supported at different known as Ferranti effect. For compensating ferranti
elevations at the two ends, the tension will be maximum effect shunt reactor used at the load end.
at the taller support. 221. The inductance of a power transmission line
217. For the measurement of peak value of an increases with:
impulse voltage, which of the following (a) Decrease in line length
Disruptive Discharge Voltage (DDV) is (b) Increase in diameter of conductor
measured? (c) Increase in spacing between the phase
(a) zero (b) 10% DDV conductors
(c) 50% DDV (d) 100% DDV (d) Increase in load current carried by the
Vizag Steel MT 2013 conductors
Ans. (c) : For the measurement of peak value of an UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I
impulse voltage having a 50% probability of initiating a OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
disruptive discharge voltage each time the dielectric Ans. (c) : As inductance L is given by:-
testing is performed.  GMD 
218. Transmission line can be most accurately L = 2× 107 ln  
modeled by  GMR 
GMR = Geometric Mean Radius = 0.7788r
(a) nominal π circuit (b) nominal T circuit Where, r = conductor radius
(c) equivalent π circuit (d) none of these GMD = Geometric Mean Distance
Vizag Steel MT 2013 L ∝ GMD
Ans. (c) : Transmission line can be accurately modeled Therefore, the inductance for a power transmission line
by equivalent π-circuit. increases with increase in spacing between the phase
conductors.
222. Bundled conductors are mainly used in high
voltage overhead transmission lines to:
(a) Reduce transmission line losses
(b) Reduce corona
(c) Increase mechanical strength of the line
(d) Reduce sag
Ans. (b) : In bundled conductor there is optimum
219. A dc power supply has no-load voltage of 30 V spacing between sub-conductor and hence highest
and a full-load voltage of 25 V at full-load critical disruptive voltage and hence reduced corona
current of 1 A. Its output resistance and load loss.
regulation; respectively are This will further result in low transmission loss. But as
(a) 5 Ω and 20% (b) 25 Ω and 20% losses are reduced because of reduced corona hence
(c) 5 Ω and 16.7% (d) 25 Ω and 16.7% Corona is preferred option.
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 Advantage of bundled conductor-
Vizag Steel MT 2013 (a) Corona loss reduced
V 25 (b) Interference with communication line reduced.
Ans. (b) : Full load resistance (R) = fℓ = = 25Ω (c) GMR (Geometrical mean Radius) increase so the
I fℓ 1
value of inductance reduced then XL also reduced.
load regulation or voltage regulation,
(d) C ↑, IC ↑, pf↑
V − Vfℓ
(V.R) = nℓ × 100 V2
Vfℓ (e) P0 = increase, because surge impedance( Zs)
Zs
Where, Vnℓ = No load voltage
reduced so power transmission efficiency increase.
223. Between 2 supports, due to sag, the conductor 226. The A, B, C, D constants of 220kV line are A =
takes the shape of D = 0.94 ∠ 1o. B = 130 ∠ 73o, C = 0.001 ∠ 90o. If
(a) parabola (b) hyperbola sending end voltage of the line for a given load
(c) catenary (d) semi circle
delivered at nominal voltage is 240kV. Then %
LMRC AM 2018
APSPDCL AE 2012 voltage regulation of the line is:
Ans. (c) : Between two supports due to the sag δ, the (a) 5 (b) 9
conductor takes the shape of catenary, which is a curve (c) 16 (d) 21
that describes the shape of a flexible hanging chain or CIL MT 2017
cable. Ans. (c) : Voltage at sending end-
Vs = AVR + BIR A=D
at no-load IR = 0
V 240
and VRO = s = = 255.32 Volts
A 0.94∠10
V − VRL
% voltage regulation (V.R) = RO × 100
VRL
Where VRL is the full-load voltage at receiving end.
255.32 − 220
wℓ 2 V.R = ×100
Sag = 220
8T
w = Wight per unit length of conductor V.R = 16%
ℓ = Span length 227. When does percentage of line drop decrease?
T = Tension of the conductor at the point of maximum (a) When resistivity of conductor increases
deflection. (b) When area of X-section of conductor
224. A solid in which the atoms are arranged in a decreases
regular periodic geometrical pattern is known (c) When length of the line increases
as: (d) When line voltage increases
(a) conductor (b) semi-conductor (e) When current density of the conductor
(c) insulator (d) crystal increases.
CIL MT 2017 CGPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : Solid are characterized by incompressibility, Ans. (d) : A voltage drop along an electric transmission
rigidity and mechanical strength. This indicates that the or distribution line due to the impedance of the circuit.
molecules, atoms or ion that make up as solid is closely In power distribution system, a given amount of power
packed. A solid in which the atoms are arranged in a can be transmitted with less voltage drop if a higher
regular periodic geometrical pattern is known as crystal. voltage is used.
A crystal posses long range order and symmetry. The
228. In a long transmission line, the leakage current
main property of crystal structure is its periodicity.
through shunt admittance is.
225. To a highly inductive circuit a small capacitor (a) negligible at the sending end of the line
is added in series the angle between voltage and (b) maximum at the sending end of the line
current will (c) maximum at the receiving end of the line
(a) increase
(d) constant over the line
(b) remain same
(e) always zero over the line
(c) become indeterminate
CGPSC AE 2017
(d) decrease
CIL MT 2017 Ans. (b) : The leakage current through the shunt
admittance is maximum at the sending end of the
Ans. (d) : In a highly inductive circuit current is lag
transmission line. This current decreases continuously
from the voltage and angle
as it moves towards the receiving end of the line and
X 
φ = tan −1  L  becomes zero at the receiving end.
 R  229. Which type of system has 3-phase 132 kV
If a small value capacitor added in series of this circuit rating?
then the angle between current and voltage will be (a) Primary transmission
decreased because now the angle of this circuit is– (b) Secondary transmission
 X − XC 
φ = tan −1  L 
(c) Primary distribution
 R  (d) Secondary distribution
Due to addition of capacitor over all value of (XL – XC) (e) Traction system
decreases therefore φ will also decreases. CGPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : A primary transmission is a transmission 232. The system which requires more conductor-
made to the public by the transmitting facility whose material with same maximum voltage to earth
is-
signals are being received and further transmitted by (a) single phase system with 2-wire
secondary transmission service. This level of voltage is (b) single phase system with 3-wire
increased at different suitable levels, it may be at 132 (c) three phase system with 3- wire
kV, 400 KV. This high voltage level is maintained to (d) two phase system with 3-wire
(e) three phase system with 4-wire
transmit the power to long distance substation. It is CGPSC AE 2017
called primary transmission of power. Ans. (a) :
230. When does the efficiency of transmission Volume of conductor
increase? material required on
(a) When the resistivity of conductor increases System Basis of same
maximum voltage
(b) When the area of cross-section of conductor between conductor &
decreases. earth
(c) When the length of the line increases (a) AC single phase 2
(d) When the line voltage increases system with two
wire cos2 φ
(e) When the current density of the conductor (b) Two wire with mid 0.5/cos2
φ
increase point earth
CGPSC AE 2017 (c) Three wire 0.625/cos3 φ
Ans. (d) : Efficiency of a transmission line is defined as (d) Two phase three 1.457/cos2 φ
the ratio of power delivered at the receiving end to the wire
power sent from sending end for improving (e) Two phase four wire 0.5/cos2 φ
2
transmission efficiency increase the voltage by using a (f) Three phase three 0.5/cos φ
wire
power transformer. If voltage (V) increases then loss is (g) Three phase four 0.583/cos2 φ
1 wire
decreases because loss. PL ∝ 2 It is clear from above table that single phase system
V with two wires requires more conductor material with
We increase the voltage so high to 750000 volts to same maximum voltage to earth.
improve the transmission efficiency even more. 233. A conductor with which of the following
properties is not preferred for T&D?
231. The volume of conductor material required in (a) High electrical conductivity
a single phase, 2-wire system with mid-point (b) High tensile strength
earthed is x times that required in a 2-wire DC (c) Low cost
system. Then x is equal to. (d) High electrical resistivity
(e) Low specific gravity
1 CGPSC AE 2017
(a) cos2 φ (b)
cos2 φ Ans. (d) : This difference in the generated and
(c) 2 (d) 2cos2 φ distributed units is known as Transmission and
distribution losses (T&D). A conductor having high
2 electrical resistivity is not preferred for transmission
(e)
cos2 φ and distribution. Because- Conductivity ∝
1
.
CGPSC AE 2017 Resistivity
Ans. (e) : We know that: Volume of conductor material 234. Which of the following properties is not
suitable for line supports in T&D?
required in a single phase 2-wire system with mid point (a) High mechanical strength
earthed volume of conductor- (b) High in weight with loss of mechanical
K  4p 2ρℓ 2  strength
v1 = ∵ K =  (c) Cheap in cost and economical to maintain
2cos2 φ  WVm2  (d) Longer life
volume of conductor required in a 2-wire d.c. system (e) Easy accessibility of conductors for
maintenance
K  4p ρℓ 
2 2
( v2 ) = ∵ K = 
CGPSC AE 2017
4  WVm2  Ans. (b) : The different types of structure (poles or
towers) used for supporting the overhead lines or wires
According to Question- v1 = xv2 are called line support. Line support keep proper
K K spacing between conductors and maintained the
= x× conductor at the prescribed distance from its ground
2cos2 φ 4
parts lines support should have high mechanical
2 strength, cheap in cost and economical to maintain,
x= longer life and easy accessibility of conductors for
cos φ
2
maintenance.

235. Corona in conductors is not affected by. = j19.1A
(a) atmosphere
(b) conductor size I L = I R + I C1 = (176 − j66 )
(c) spacing between conductors drop/conductor = ILZL
(d) line voltage = (176 − j66 )(10 + j50 ) (∵ ZL = R + jX )
(e) power factor = 5060 + j8140
CGPSC AE 2017 VS = VR + I L ZL
Ans. (e) : The phenomenon of corona is affected by the
physical state of the atmosphere as well as by = 38100 + 5060 + j8140
conditions of line. The following are the factors upon = 43160 + j8140
which corona depends- = 43920 ∠10.7 0
1. Atmosphere- As corona is formed due to ionization Line voltage = 43920×103 × 3
of air surrounding the conductors
VL= 76 kV
2. Conductor size
3. Line voltage 238. A balanced 3- phase load of 30 MW is supplied
4. Spacing between conductors. at 132 kV, 50 Hz and 0.85 p.f. lagging by means
So we see that corona is not effected by power factor. of a transmission line. The series impedance of
236. When the length of an overhead power a single conductor is (20 + j52) Ω and the total
transmission line is about 50 km to 150 km, it is phase-neutral admittance is 315×10-6 siemen.
classified as a: Using nominal T method, find the B and C
(a) short transmission line constants of the line.
(b) medium transmission line (a) B = 55.5 ∠ 690 and C = 0.000315 ∠ 900
(c) long transmission line (b) B = 55.5 ∠ -690 and C = 0.000315 ∠ 900
(d) short distribution line (c) B = 55.5 ∠ 690 and C = 0.000315 ∠ -900
(e) medium distribution line (d) C = 55.5 ∠ -690 and B = 0.000315 ∠ 900
CGPSC AE 2017 (e) C = 55.5 ∠ 690 and B = 0.000315 ∠ -900
CGPSC AE 2017
Ans. (b) : A medium transmission line is defined as
transmission line with an effective length more than Ans. (a) : Z = (20 + j52) Ω
80km but less than 250 km. The ABCD parameter of a Y = 315×10-6 siemen
medium transmission line is calculated using a lumped C = Y = jωCT where CT → is capacitance
shunt admittance, along with the lumped impedance in magnitude of Y = |ωCT| = 315×10-6
series to the circuit. and angle of Y = ∠ 900
So, C =Y = 0.000315 ∠ 900
237. A-100 km long, 3-phase, 50-Hz transmission
line has R/phase/km = 0.1 Ω , X/phase/km =  ZY 
∵ B = Z 1 + 
0.5 Ω , susceptance /phase/km = 10×10-6 S. If  4 
the line supplies load of 20 MW at 0.9 p.f.
 ( 20 + j52 )( 0.000315 ) 
lagging at 66 kV at the receiving end, calculate = ( 20 + j52 ) 1 + 
sending end line voltage by Nominal π method.  4 
(a) 76 kV (b) 44 kV
 0.063 + j0.01638 
(c) 33 kV (d) 60 kV = ( 20 + j52 ) 1 + 
(e) 90 kV  4
CGPSC AE 2017 = ( 20 + j52 )(1 + 0.001575 + j0.004095 )
Ans. (a) : For a 100 km,
= ( 20 + j52 ) [1.001575 + j0.004095]
line resistance/phase = 0.1×100 = 10Ω
inductive reactance/phase = 0.5×100 = 50 Ω = 20.0315 + j0.0819 + j52.0819 − 0.21294
capacitive susceptance/phase = 19.81856 + j52.1638
= 10 × 10-6 × 100 = 10 × 10-4 semens
susceptance at each end = 5 × 10-4 siemens = 55.80∠690.19
66 × 103 ≅ 55∠690
VR = = 38100 V
3 ∵ option (a) is nearly equal to it so, option (a) is
20 × 106 correct.
IR = (∵ P = VI cos φ ) 239. An overhead line is equipped with shunt
3 × 66 × 103 × 0.9
IR = 195 A inductive reactor at receiving end to maintain
sending end voltage equal to the receiving end
∴ I R = 195 ( 0.9 − j0.435 ) voltage. If the ABCD parameters of line are A
I R = 176 − j85 = D = 0.9 ∠0, B = 200 ∠90Ω and C = 0.95 × 10–3
 1  ∠90 S. What should be the ohmic value of the
−4
∵ XC = jω  reactor to maintain same voltage on both side?
IC1 = 38100 × j5 ×10  V  (a) 1052.6 Ω (b) 2000 Ω
 IC1 = = Vjω (c) 105.26 Ω (d) 1055 Ω
 XC  BHEL ET 2019
Vr Ans. (b) : Corona loss ∝ (Vph-VC)2
Ans. (b) : Inductive shunt reactance Xish = Where Vph= operating voltage of the transmission line.
Ir VC = Critical disruptive voltage
Vs = AVr + BIr P1 = 25 kW
After compensation of Ferranti effect Vs= Vr P2 = 100 kW
Vr = Avr+BIr Vph3 = 50 kV/phase
BIr = (1-A)Vr
V B Vph 2 = 60 kV/phase
Inductive shunt reactance Xish = r =
Ir (1 − A )
( )
2
P1 Vph1 − VC
200∠900 =
( )
2
Xish = = 2000Ω P2 Vph 2 − VC
(1 − 0.9 ) 2
240. ACSR conductors consist of: 25  50 − VC 
(a) inner conductors made of aluminium = 
100  60 − VC 
(b) all conductors made of aluminium
2
(c) outer conductors made of aluminium 1  50 − VC 
(d) core conductors made of aluminium = 
BHEL ET 2019 4  60 − VC 
Ans. (c) : ACSR: Aluminium conductor steel- 1
50-VC= ( 60 − VC )
reinforced cable is a type of high-capacity, high strength 2
stranded conductor typically used in over head power 100-2VC = 60-VC
lines, the outer strands are high-purity aluminium, 100-60 = VC
chosen for its good conductivity, low weight and low
VC = 40 kV
cost.
241. In an inductive circuit, active power is 60 W 244. A solid conductor with relative permeability µr
and reactive power is 80 VAR. Calculate the = 200, conductivity σ = 5 × 106 mho/m having
power factor of the circuit. outer dia 8 mm and length 2 mm. If the total
(a) 0.6 lag (b) 0.8 lag current carried by the conductor is i(t) = 2
(c) 0.5 lag (d) 0.75 lag cos(π104t) A. Find the skin depth.
BHEL ET 2019 (a) 2.25 mm (b) 0.225 mm
Ans. (a) : Given , (c) 0.16 mm (d) 1.60 mm
Active power (P) = VI cos φ = 60 W ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020
Reactive power (Q) = VIsin φ = 80 VAR Ans. (b) : µr = 200
σ = 5 × 106 ( ℧ / m )
∴ Apparent power (S) = P2 + Q2 i(t) = 2cos(π104t)
ω = 104 π
= ( 60 ) + ( 80 )
2 2
f = (104 )
1
= 100 VA {∵ ω = 2πf }
2
Active power ( P )
Power factor ( cos φ ) = 1 ∵ µ = µ 0µ r 
Apparent power ( S ) δ=  −7 
µπσf  µ 0 = 4π× 10 H / m 
60
= = 0.6 lag 1
100 δ=
1 ( 4 )(
242. Admittance is the reciprocal of: 10 4π× 10−7 ) (200) ( 5 ×106 )
π
(a) inductance (b) susceptance 2
(c) impedance (d) reactance
1 10−3
BHEL ET 2019 = = = 0.225mm
Ans. (c) :Admittance is the reciprocal of impedance 2π2 (106 ) 2π
1 245. In a two conductor a.c. line the current density
Y= is highest at their inner edges and is least at the
Z
outer edges. This is due to:
(a) Skin effect
Where, (b) Attraction between the conductors
Y is the admittance, measured in Siemens. (c) Capacitance between the conductors
Z is the impedance, measured in ohms. (d) Proximity effect
243. For a 3–phase transmission line, find the DMRC AM 2016
disruptive critical voltage if the corona loss of
Ans. (d) : In two conductor AC line the current density
the line is 25 kW at 50 kV/phase and 100 kW at
60 kV/phase. is highest at inner edges and is least at outer edges due
(a) 49.6 kV (b) 40 kV to proximity effect It is mutual effect of the current in
(c) 50 kV (d) 43.6 kV closely adjacent conductor producing an apparent
BHEL ET 2019 increase in resistance.

Proximity:- When the conductors carry the high Ans. (b) : For equilateral spacing of conductor of an un-
alternating voltage then the currents are non uniformly transposed three phase line we have balance receiving
distributed on the cross-section area of the conductor. end voltage and no communication interference
This effect is called proximity effect. The proximity 247. In transmission of bulk electrical power, high
effect results in the increment of the apparent resistance voltage offers:
of the conductor due to the presence of the other (a) Low cost of switching
conductors carrying current in its vicinity. (b) Small size of conductors
When two or more conductors are placed near to each (c) Small towers
other, then their electromagnetic fields interact with (d) Small risk of danger
each other. Due to this interaction, the current in each of DMRC AM 2016
them is redistributed such that the greater current Ans. (b) : As we know that- area of the conductor
density is concentrated in that part of the strand most
remote from the interfering conductor. P 2 ρℓ
A= 2
There are two cases in which proximity occurs:- Vm cos 2 φW
1. When two conductors carry the current in the Where, Vm = maximum transmission voltage
same direction:- If the conductors carry the P = maximum transferred power
current in the same direction, then the magnetic W = losses in transmission line
field of the halves of the conductors which are ρ = Resistivity of conductor material
close to each other is cancelling each other and
hence no current flow through that halves portion Since A ∝ 1
of the conductor. The current is crowded in the Vm2
remote half portion of the conductor. So for high voltage size of conductor is small
248. A transmission line of surge impedance 300Ω is
connected to a load of 300Ω. The reflection
coefficient of transmission line at the load end
will be
(a) 0 (b) –1
(c) 2 (d) +1
2. When two conductors carry the current in the Ans : (a) Given data : –
opposite direction:- When the conductors carry Surge Impedance = 300Ω
the current in the opposite direction, then the close Load Impedance = 300Ω
part of the conductor carries, the more current and ∴Reflection Coefficient of transmission line at
the magnetic field of the far off half of the Z − ZL
conductor cancel each other. Thus, the current is the load end = C
zero in the remote half of the conductor and Z C + ZL
crowded at the nearer part of the conductor. 300 − 300
= =0
300 + 300
249. A 800 KV transmission line is having per phase
line inductance of 1.1 mH/km and per phase
line capacitance of 11.68 nF/Km. ignoring the
length of line, its ideal power transfer capacity
in MW is:
(a) 1204 (b) 1504
(c) 2085 (d) 2606
Factor affecting the proximity effect:- (e) None
1. Frequency UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II
2. Diameter of conductor
RPSC AE 2018
3. Structure of conductor
4. Material of conductor UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
246. For equilateral spacing of conductors of an un- CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
transposed three phase line, we have: L 1.1× 10−3
(a) Balanced receiving end voltages and Ans. (c) : ZC = = = 306.88ohm
communication interference C 11.68 × 10−9
(b) Balanced receiving end voltages and no Ideal power transfer capacity
communication interference
( )
2
(c) Unbalanced receiving end voltages and VL2 800 × 103
communication interference = = =2085.50 MW
ZC 306.88
(d) Unbalanced receiving end voltages and no
communication interference P ≅ 2085 MW
DMRC AM 2016
250. A short circuit test is conducted on a Ans. (a) : Use of bundle conductor is EHV line to
1100/110V, 50Hz single-phase transformer reduced corona losses.
with instruments connected on the high voltage A bundle conductor reduced the reactance of
side of the transformer. The voltmeter reads transmission line. It also reduced voltage gradient, surge
40V. The ammeter reads 10A. The wattmeter impedance, Radio interference in the transmission line.
reading is 300W. The approximate winding By making bundle conductor geometric mean radius of
resistance and leakage reactance, referred to conductor increased.
high-voltage side, are respectively. 253. A short transmission line is having series
(a) 30Ω, 26.4Ω (b) 3.0Ω, 2.64Ω impedance Z = 0.07 + j 0.12 p.u. If the
(c) 0.3Ω, 0.264Ω (d) 0.003Ω, 0.00264Ω transmission line is operating under full load at
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II leading p.f., what will be the possible voltage
Ans. (b): Given Data:- V = 40volt, I = 10A, P = 300W regulation of transmission line?
In short circuit:- (a) 17% (b) 5%
(c) 9% (d) 12%
V 40
Z= = = 4Ω ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
I 10
Ans. (b) : Under leading power factor voltage
P = I 2R
regulation are negative, zero and positive. If voltage
∵ P = 300 regulation are positive when it will as low as possible.
300 = 102×R Therefore voltage regulation of short transmission line
R = 3Ω (R= Winding resistance) will be 5%
254. Inductance of transmission line for a length of
Leakage Reactance X = Z2 − R 2 = (4) 2 − (3) 2 400 km in unsymmetrical configuration are:
= 16 − 9 LR = 30 mH, LY = 20 mH, LB = 25 mH
What will be the inductance of each
= 7 transmission line after transposing?
X = 2.645Ω (a) LR = LY = LB = 30 mH
251. In skin effect the skin depth is proportional to (b) LR = LY = LB = 20 mH
(f is frequency) (c) LR = LY = LB = 25 mH
(d) LR = LY = LB = 75 mH
1
(a) f (b) ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
f Ans. (c) : Given that-
1 LR = 30 mH , LY = 20 mH, LB = 25 mH
(c) (d) f Induction of each transmission line after transposing is-
f
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019 LR + LY + LB
L=
Ans. (b) : Skin depth : It is a measure of how closely 3
electric current flows along the surface of a material. At
L=
( 30 + 20 + 25) mH
dc, electric current flow uniformly through a conductor.
However, at higher frequencies the current prefers to 3
75
flow along the surface producing surface current the L= mH
skin depth equation is given in below- 3
L = 25 mH
ρ
Skin depth ( ∂ ) = 255. The inductance of power transmission line
πfµ τµ0 increases with–
1 1 (a) Decrease in line length
∴ δ∝ ∵ ρ= (b) Increase in diameter of conductor
f σ
(c) Increase in spacing between phase conductors
Where, (d) Increase in load current carried by the
f= frequency of the current conductor
ρ = Resistivity of the material ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
µ0 = absolute permeability Ans. (c) : Inductance of power transmission line is
µ r = Relative permeability given by:-
µ  d
σ = conductivity of the material. L = 0 × ln  
2π  r
252. Use of bundled conductor in EHV lines will
(a) Reduce corona loss Where, d is distance between the phase conductors and r
is radius of the phase conductor.
(b) Increase the inductance of transmission line
Therefore, inductance of power transmission line
(c) Reduce the capacitance of transmission line
increases with increase in spacing between phase
(d) Increase corona loss
conductors.
256. The Y-bus matrix of a 100 bus interconnected Ans. (a) : Power of 3 phase circuit is given as:
system is 80% sparse. Then, the number of P = 3VI cos φ
transmission lines in the system must be–
(a) 950 (b) 3000 P
(c) 1900 (d) 1500 So, I= ..............(i)
3V cos φ
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018 And resistance of conductor,
Ans. (a) : ℓ
Given: R =ρ
Number of buses, N = 100 A
Sparsity, s = 0.8 Where,
Number of transmission lines is given as: ℓ = length of conductor
N 2 (1 − s) − N A = cross sectional area
NT =
2 ρ = resistivity of material
(100)2 (1 − 0.8 ) − 100
NT = = 950 Line loss is given by:
2 PL = 3I2R
257. The power transmission capacity of the Substituting I and R,
transmission line is– 2
(a) Inversely proportional to the square of the  P  ℓ
PL = 3   ρ
voltage  3V cos φ  A
(b) Proportional to the voltage
(c) Inversely proportional to the voltage P 2 ρℓ
V2 =
(d) Proportional to the square of the operating PL cos 2 φ A
voltage
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 ∵ ν = A × ℓ 
P 2 ρℓ 2  
Ans. (d) : Maximum active power transferred by a V =
2
 ν 
transmission line is- PL cos2 φ ν ∴ A = ℓ 
3V 2 ν = volume of the
3 − φ active power = P3−φ = ph
Zs conductor
V V assume constant efficiency,
As, Vph = L = s 1
3 3 V2 ∝
2 ν
V  1
So, P3−φ = 3 s  × Therefore, volume of the conductor is:-
 3  Zs 1
Volume ∝
Vs2 (Voltage) 2
P3−φ =
Zs If voltage is increased by ‘n’ times, the size of the
Thus the power transmission capacity of the conductor would be reduced by 1/n2 that of the original.
transmission line is proportional to the square of the 260. Shunt conductance in overhead power
operating voltage. transmission lines is primarily due to–
258. Ferranti effect states that under certain (a) Leakage over the insulators
conditions, the sending end voltage is– (b) Leakage over the conductors
(a) Less than receiving end voltage (c) Leakage over the poles
(b) Greater than receiving end voltage
(d) Leakage between ground and conductors
(c) Equal to receiving end voltage
(d) Not having any impact on the receiving end ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017
voltage Ans. (a) : Shunt conductance in overhead power
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 transmission lines is primarily due to leakage over the
Ans. (a) : The Ferranti effect is an increase in voltage at insulators.
the receiving end of a long transmission line, above the 261. In power lines, series capacitors are used to–
voltage at the sending end. This occurs when the line is (a) Improve line frequency.
very lightly loaded or the load is disconnected (no load). (b) Compensate inductive reactance.
259. Assuming constant transmission efficiency, if (c) Compensate capacitive reactance
voltage is increased ‘n’ times, the size of the (d) Balance harmonics.
conductor would be – ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013
(a) Reduced to 1/n2 that of the original Ans. (b) : In linear transmission, series capacitors are
(b) Increased to n2 that of the original used to compensate inductive reactance, which in turn
(c) Reduced to 1/n that of the original improves the transmission capacity whereas, parallel
(d) Increased to n times that of the original capacitors at the load end are connected to improve the
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 power factor.
Directions : Consists of two statements, one labelled as 265. Consider the following statements regarding
'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine corona :
these two statements carefully and select the answers to 1. It causes radio interference.
these items using the codes given below: 2. It attenuates lighting surges.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are 3. It causes power loss.
individually true and Statement (II) is the 4. It is more prevalent in the middle conductor
correct explanation of Statement (I) of a transmission line employing flat
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are conductor configuration.
individually true but Statement (II) is not the Which of the above statements are correct?
correct explanation of Statement (I) (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true ESE 2017
262. Statement (I):
The power distribution systems are 3-phase 4-wire Ans. (c) : Corona effect in an electrical discharge
circuits. brought on by the ionization of a fluid such as air
Statement (II): surrounding a conductor which is electrically charged.
A neutral wire is necessary to supply signle-phase Corona causes radio interference, power loss, reduces
loads of domestic and marginal commercial the magnitude of lightings & switching and it is more
consumers. prevalent in the middle conductor in a flat conductor
ESE 2017 configuration.
Ans. (a) : The distribution system are 3-phase 4-wire 266. The transmission line is represented as a two-
circuit. 4th wire for neutral. Thus one can use any one
phase with neutral. port network as shown in the figure. The
sending end voltage and current are expressed
Directions : Consists of two statements, one labelled as
'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine in terms of receiving end voltage and current
these two statements carefully and select the answers to for the network as
these items using the codes given below: Vs = A VR + B IR
Codes: Is = CVR + D IR
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are Where A, B, C and D are generalized circuit
individually true and Statement (II) is the constants.
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is not the
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true The condition for symmetry for the networks is
263. Statement (I) : (a) A = C (b) A = D
Limiting factor of DC transmission is the high (c) B = C (d) B = D
cost of conversion equipment. ESE 2017
Statement (II) :
Generation of harmonics is used for reactive Ans. (b) : A network is symmetrical if its input
power transfer only which has the ability to alter impedance is equal to its output impedance.
voltage levels. A=D
ESE 2017 267. The time interval needed for a surge to travel
Ans. (c) : D.C. transmission has high cost below 500 to the end of a 600 km long overhead
Km. So, statement I - True. transmission line is
Generation of harmonics is used for reactive power (a) 6 s (b) 2 s
transfer only which has the ability to alter voltage (c) 20 ms (d) 2 ms
levels. So statement (II) false.
ESE 2018
264. Which one of the following does not have an
Ans. (d) : We know that :-
effect on corona?
Velocity
(a) Spacing between conductors 1/ time =
(b) Conductor size Length
(c) Line voltage The speed of surge = speed of light = 3 × 108 m/sec
(d) Length of conductor
ESE 2017 Length 600×103
Time = = = 2 msec
Ans. (d) : corona is independent on length of conductor. Velocity 3×108
( f + 25 ) r V − V 2 268. At what power factor will a lossless line with a
P = 241 × 10 −5
δ d
( p d) reactance of 0.6 pu exhibit zero regulation
given that the sending-end voltage is 1.0 pu?
where r = radius of conductor
(a) 0.800 lag (b) 0.800 lead
v = line voltage
(c) 0.954 lead (d) Unity p.f.
d = spacing between the conductors.
ESE 2018
Ans. (c) : A loss line with reactance Xs = 0.6 pu
The condition for voltage regulation to be zero,
I X  tan δ is given by
Power factor angle, φr = 90° - φ + Sin-1  s s 
 2Vs  I
tan δ = r
 1× 0.6  IC
φr = 90 − 90o + sin −1  
 2  5 ×103
φr = sin-1 (0.3)
sinφr = 0.3 = 1025 ×106
5 ×103
Power factor, cosφr = 1 − ( sin φr ) = 1 − ( 0.3)
2 2
1
= 0.954 lead
269. An 11 kV, 3-phase transmission line has = 0.025
( 2π× 50 × 0.102 ×10−6 )
resistance of 1.5Ω and reactance of 4Ω per power loss , P= V2 Cω + tan δ
phase. The efficiency of the line when
supplying the load of 4 MW, at 0.8 lagging = ( 5 ×10 ) × 0.102 × 10 × 2π× 50 × 0.025
3 2 −6
power factor is nearly = 20.028 W

(a) 99% (b) 95% ≃ 20W
(c) 92% (d) 90%
ESE 2018 271. The impedance of a parallel circuit is 10 - j 300
Ω at 1 MHz. The values of circuit elements will
Ans. (c) :
be
(a) 10Ω and 6.4 mH (b) 100Ω and 4.7 nF
(c) 10Ω and 4.7 mH (d) 100Ω and 6.4 nF
ESE 2019
Ans. (b) :
Sa Pr = 3 × I L × VL × P.F
Pr 4 × 103 5 × 103 Z = 10 - j30
IL = = = A
3VL P.F 3 × 11× 0.8 3 × 11 1 10 + j30
Y= ×
Power Loss PL = 3IL2R 10 − j30 10 + j30
25 ×106 10 j30
= 3× ×1.5 = 0.3099MW = +
3 × 121 1000 1000
PC = Pr + PL = 4 + 0.3099 = 4.3099 MW 1
= + j30 × 10−3
Pr 4 100
So efficiency η% = ×100 = ×100 = 92.8%
Ps 4.3099 1 1
+
270. A lossy capacitor Cx, rated for operation of 5 R − jX c
kV, 50 Hz is represented by an equivalent 1
circuit with an ideal capacitor Cp in parallel R = 100Ω, = 30 × 10−3
with a resistor Rp. Cp is 0.102 µF; and Rp = 1.25 X c
MΩ. The power loss, and tanδ, of this lossy 2πfC = 30 × 10 −3
capacitor when operating at the rated voltage
are, respectively 2π × 1× 106 × C = 30 × 10 −3
(a) 20 W and 0.04 (b) 10 W and 0.04 C = 4.7 nF
(c) 20 W and 0.025 (d) 10 W and 0.025 272. A 10km lossless line has a reactance of 0.3
ESE 2018 ohm/km. The ABCD constants are
Ans. (c) : Given that, (a) A=1, B=j3, C=0, and D=1
Cp = 0.10 2µf (b) A=1, B=0.3, C=0, and D=1
Rp = 1.25 MΩ (c) A=1, B=j0.3, C=0, and D=1
V = 5 kV (d) A=1, B=0.3, C = 0.3 and D=1
f = 50 Hz UPPCL AE 2014
Ans. (a) : 10km lossless line is short transmission line. Ans. (b) : Ferranti effect occurs when current drawn by
Vs 1 z   Vr  the distributed capacitance of the line itself is greater
= than the current associated with load at the receiving
IS 0 1   Ir  end of the line (during light or no load) .
z = 0.3ohmn/km × 10km Hence Ferranti effect caused for line capacitance.
= 3.0 ohm 278. A line which connects a distributor to the
Vs 1 j3  Vr  customer's load point is called as
=
IS 0 1   I r 
(a) Service main (b) Distributor
(c) line (d) Feeder
A = 1 B =j3 C = 0 D = 1 UPPCL AE 2014
273. Primary reason of using bundle conductor is Ans. (a) : A line which connects a distributor to
(a) to reduce the line inductance consumer's load point is called as service main.
(b) to improve stability limit. 279. Positive and negative sequence network for
(c) to increase the power transfer capability. transmission line is
(d) to reduce corona. (a) Positive and zero sequence networks are same
Vizag Steel MT 2013 (b) same
UPPCL AE 2014 (c) not same
Ans. (d) : By using bundled conductors the corona (d) Negative and zero sequence networks are
effect reduces because voltage gradient reduced as the same
effective diameter of conductor increases. Bundle UPPCL AE 2014
conductors also reduced the interference with near by Ans. (b) : Positive and negative sequence network of
communication lines. transmission line is same, and zero sequence network is
274. Shunt reactors are needed different from other.
(a) to boost receiving end voltage under light 280. What is the minimum safety factor in respect to
load condition the conductor tension?
(b) to bring down receiving end voltage at light (a) 1 (b) 2
loads (c) 3 (d) 1.5
(c) to boost receiving end voltage under heavy Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
loads Ans. (b) : The minimum safety factor for conductors
shall be 2 based on their ultimate tensile strength.
(d) to bring down receiving end voltage under
281. The receiving-end voltage for a long line under
heavy loads no-load condition is
UPPCL AE 2014 (a) less than the sending-end voltage
Ans. (b) : Shunt Reactor are needed to bring down (b) more than the sending-end voltage
receiving end voltage at light loads. (c) equal to the ending-end voltage
275. Inner filament reactance is higher than outer (d) Any of the above
filament reactance of a conductor when
Ans. (b) : The receiving-end voltage for a long line
(a) true for both AC and DC under no-load condition is more than the sending-end
(b) HVDC current flows voltage because when the voltage is applied at the
(c) AC current flows sending end, the current drawn by the capacitance of the
(d) DC current flows line is more than current associated with the load.
UPPCL AE 2014 282. Line regulation is determined by.
Ans. (c) : Inner filament reactance is higher than outer (a) load current
filament reactance of a conductor when AC current (b) zener current and load current
(c) changes in load resistance and output voltage
flows.
(d) changes in output voltage and input voltage
276. Skin effect occurs when a conductor carries MPPSC AE 2017
current at _____ frequencies.
V − Vrfl
(a) medium (b) high Ans. (d) : Per unit regulation = rnl
(c) low (d) very low Vrnl
UPPCL AE 2014 Line regulation is the ability of the power supply to
maintain its specified output voltage over changes in the
Ans. (b) : Skin effect occurs, when a conductor carries input line voltage. It is expressed as percent of change
a current at high frequency. Skin effect is tendency for in the output voltage relative to change in the input line
alternating current (AC) to flow mostly near the outer voltage.
surface of an electrical conductor, such as metal wire. 283. Stringing charts of transmission lines are
The effect comes more and more apparent as the curves between
frequency increases. (a) Sag versus tension
277. Ferranti effect is caused for (b) Sag and tension versus temperature
(a) Line conductance (b) Line capacitance (c) Sag versus height
(c) Line resistance (d) Line reactance (d) Tension versus height
UPPCL AE 2014 Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I

Ans. (b) : Stringing charts of transmission lines are (c) Unbalance reduces
curves blue sag and tension versus temperature (d) None of the above
stringing chart is a plot of transmission line tension and Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
sag as a function of temperature. Ans. (c) : Over head transmission lines are transposed
because- unbalance reduces. In case of three phase
system, electrical flux linkage between conductors
produces imbalance in the system and therefore to avoid
it lines are transposed.
(iii) Compensation Technique,

Voltage Profile Control and
Load Frequency Control
1. The Thevenin's equivalent impedance of a bus-
61. Stringing charts of transmission lines bar in a three phase, 400 kV system is 0.2 p.u.
are at a base of 500 MVA. Calculate the reactive
284. Series compensation of long transmission line power needed to boost the voltage by 5 kV at
results in the bus-bar.
(a) Lower voltage drop only (a) 31.25 kVAR (b) 131.25 kVAR
(b) Maximum power transfer only (c) 131.25 MVAR (d) 31.25 MVAR
(c) Lower voltage drop and maximum power LMRC AM 2020
transfer 0.2 × ( 400 )
2
(d) Higher voltage drop Ans. (d) : Impedance X = = 64 Ω

Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I 500
Ans. (c) : Series compensation of long transmission line QX
NOL = ∆V =
lower voltage drop and maximum power transfer. It Vi
improve power transfer capability of line. Q × 64 Ω
285. A 10 km lossless line has a reactance of 5 kV =
0.3Ω/km. The ABCD constants are 400 kV
 1 0 1 j3 Q = 31.25 MVAR
(a)   (b)  
 0.3 1  0 1  2. A factory draws 100 kW at 0.8 p.f. lagging
from a 3-phase, 11 kV supply. It is desired to
 j3. 0  1 0 raise the p.f. to unity using capacitor bank. The
(c)   (d)  
 1 1  j3 1  total power rating of the capacitor bank is
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I (a) 75 kVAR (b) 100 kVAR
Ans. (b) : Given z = j0.3 Ω /km (c) 62.5 kVAR (d) 50 kVAR
for 10 km UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I
= j0.3 Ω /km×10km Ans : (a) P.F. change-
= j3 Q = P ( tan φ1 − tan φ2 )
ABCD parameters of lossless transmission parameter is.
Q = P  tan ( cos −1 ( 0.8 ) ) − tan ( cos −1 (1) ) 
 A B  = 1 Z  A = D = 1
C D   0 1  B = Z, C = 0 Q =100  tan ( 36.86 ) − 0 
= 1 j3 = 100×.7497
0 1  = 100×.75
286. Which of the following sentence is more correct Q = 75 KVAR (rating capacitor)
with respect to power flow in transmission 3. A single phase inductive load draws 10 MW at
system? 0.6 power factor lagging. What is the value of
(a) Change in voltage magnitude affects real the capacitor to be connected in parallel with
power the load to raise the power factor to 0.80?
(b) Change in load angle affects reactive power System voltage is 1000 V and system frequency
(c) Change in voltage affects frequency is 50 Hz.
(d) Change in load angle affects real power (a) 30 mF (b) 40 mF
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I (c) 19 mF (d) 23 mF
Ans. (d) : With respect to power flow in transmission ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019
system change in load angle affects real power. Ans. (c) : P = 10 MW
287. Overhead transmission lines are transposed cos φ1 = 0.6, cos φ2 = 0.8
because tan φ1 = 1.33, tan φ2 = 0.75
(a) Efficiency improves Qc = P(tan φ1 – tan φ2)
(b) Voltage regulation improves = 10(1.33 – 0.75) MVAR
= 5.8 MVAR Ans. (c) : In general power factor can be improve by
Qc 5.8 × 106 connecting a capacitor in shunt.
C= = 8. Shunt capacitance in an EHV line is restored to
2πfV2 2π × 50 × (1000)2 (a) improve the stability
C = 19 mF (b) improve the voltage
4. In a power network, 380 kV is recorded at a (c) reduce fault level
400 kV bus. A 60 MVAR, 400 kV shunt reactor (d) none of above
is connected to the bus. What is the reactive PTCUL AE 2012
power absorbed by the shunt reactor? Ans. (b) : Reactive power plays important role in power
(a) 57 MVAR (b) 54.15 MVAR system stability. Shunt capacitors provide enough
(c) 66.48 MVAR (d) 63.16 MVAR reactive power according to load demand. During light
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018 load shunt capacitor is able to maintain line over
V 2 voltage.
Ans. (b) : We known that: Q ∝ 9. A power factor meter connected in a circuit
f
2 indicates pf of 0.6 lagging. To improve the
Q R  VR  f 2 power factor, we have to insert the following
=  × component, in the circuit.
QS  VS  f1
(a) Inductors
Here, f1 = f2 (b) Both inductor and resistors
2
 VR  (c) Capacitors
⇒ Q R = QS ×   ×1 (d) Resistors
 VS  ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015
Here, Ans. (c) : When circuit is lagging in nature, its power
QS = 60 MVAR, VS = 400kV and VR = 380kV. factor can be improved by adding capacitor:
Therefore, R
2 cos φ = ; Z = R 2 + (X L − X C )2
 380  Z
Q R = 60 ×   When capacitor is added, (XL – XC) reduces. So, Z
 400  decreases and cos φ increases.
= 60 × 0.9025
QR = 54.15 MVAR 10. In a 360 kV network, 280 kV is recorded at a
5. In order to improve the power factor in case of 360 kV bus. The reactive power absorbed by a
3-phase load, the capacitance is connected in– shunt rated for 50 MVAR, 360 kV connected at
(a) Star (b) Delta the bus is ________.
(c) Any star or delta (d) Zig- Zag (a) 40.8 MVAR (b) 30.24 MVAR
GMB AE 2017 (c) 33.67 MVAR (d) 41.55 MVAR
Ans. (b) : In order to improve the power factor in case UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
of 3-phase load, the capacitance is connected in delta. KV 2
360 2
6. ............ properties are : Ans. (b) : Impedance = = = 2592 Ω

MVAR 50
i. Maintain voltage at or near a constant level
ii. Improve power system stability Record kV = 280 kV.
iii. Improve power factor V 2 2802
iv. correct phase unbalance. Reactive power absorbed = =
Z 2592
(a) Series capacitor
(b) Static compensator = 30.24 MVAR
(c) Regulating transformer 11. A source V s = 200 cos ωt delivers power to a
(d) Boost transformer load at power factor 0.8 lag. The reactive
CIL MT 2020 power is 300 VAR. The Active Power is given
Ans. (b) : Static compensators are installed in the power by?
system to perform the following– (a) 200 Watts (b) 225 Watts
Maintain voltage at or near a constant level. (c) 400 Watts (d) 300 Watts
Improve power system stability. ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020
Improve power factor.
Correct phase unbalance. Ans. (c) : cosφ = 0.8
7. In general power factor can be improved by φ = 36.86°
using: Reactive power (Q) = Vrms Irms sinθ
(a) Combination of capacitor and inductor in 200
parallel 300 = ⋅ Irms sin 36.86°
(b) Combination of capacitor and inductor in 2
parallel Irms = 3.5355 A
(c) Shunt capacitor only Active power (P) = Vrms Irms cosφ
(d) Series capacitor only 200
(e) Shunt inductor only P = × 3.5355 × 0.8 = 400 W
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II 2

Alternative solution: For, 1500 kW at p.f. = 0.6 (leading)
Q = VI sinθ Active power = 1500 kW
200 Reactive power = Active power × tan φ
300 = I × 0.6
2 sin φ
= Active power ×
300 × 2 cos φ
I =
200 × 0.6 cos φ = 0.6
P = VI cosφ
cos2 φ = 0.36
200 300 2 1-cos2 φ =1 - 0.76
= × × 0.8 = 400 Watt
2 200 × 0.6
sin2 φ = 0.64
12. A 50 kW load at power factor of 0.8 lagging is
supplied from a single phase AC supply. sin φ = 0.8
Reactive power drawn from the source is. = 1500×0.8/0.6
(a) 37.5 kVAr lagging (b) 625 kVAr leading = 2000 kW (leading)
(c) 37.5 kVAr leading (d) 625 kVAr lagging
LMRC AM 2018 Total active power = (300+1000+1500) kW
Ans. (a) : Active power = 50 kW = 2800 kW
Power factor = cos φ = 0.8 lagging Total reactive power = (0 - 750 kW +2000 kW)
φ = 36.860 = 1250 kW (leading)
Active power 50 Reactive power 1250 25
Apparent power = = = tan φ = =
p.f. 0.8 active power 2800 56
= 62.5 kVA 25
Reactive power (Q) = Apparent power × sin φ tan φ = = 0.446
56
= 62.5 × sin 36.86°
= 62.5 × 0.6 φ = tan −1 ( 0.446 )
Q = 37.5kVAr, lagging Power factor = cos φ = cos  tan −1 ( 0.446 ) 
13. Find the power factor of an installation ≃ 0.92 leading
supplying the following loads:
14. For a synchronous generator connected to an
300 kW at unity power factor, 1000 kW at 0.8
lagging power factor and 1500 kW at 0.6 infinite bus through a transmission line, how
leading power factor: are the change of voltage (∆V) and the change
(a) 0.71 leading (b) 0.71 lagging of frequency (∆f) related to the active power (P)
(c) 0.92 leading (d) 0.92 lagging and the reactive power (Q)?
LMRC AM 2018
(a) ∆V is proportional to P and ∆f to Q
Reactive power
Ans. (c) : = tan φ (b) ∆V is proportional to Q and ∆f to P
Active power (c) Both ∆V and ∆f and proportional to P
for, 300 kW at p.f. = 1 ∵ cos φ =1
(d) Both ∆V and ∆f are proportional to Q
Active power = 300 kW ∴ φ = 00 RPSC VPITI 2018
Reactive power = Active power ×tan φ ESE 2006
= 300 kW × 0 Ans. (b) : All the electric motor speed are frequency
=0
for, 1000 kW at p.f. = 0.8 (lagging) dependent by frequency variation performance will be
Active power = 1000 kW affected.
Reactive power = Active power × tan φ The reactive power is varies with voltage because–
sin φ V2
= Active power × Reactive power (Q) ∝ L .
cos φ f
cos φ = 0.8 Active power of an alternator can be given by–
cos2 φ = 0.64 ∆P ∝ ∆f
1-cos2 φ =1- 0.64 = 0.36 15. An 800 kV transmission line has a maximum
power transfer capacity of P. When operated at
sin2 φ = 0.36
400 kV with the series reactance unchanged,
sin φ = 0.6 the new maximum power transfer capacity is
0.6 approximately
= 1000 ×
0.8 (a) P (b) 2 P
= 125 × 6 (c) P/2 (d) P/4
= 750 kW (lagging) TANGEDCO AE 2018

EV (c) Synchronous condenser supplying leading
Ans. (d) : P = sin δ kVAR depending on excitation of condenser
X (d) Synchronous condenser supplying lagging
and δ = 90° kVAR
E=V TSTRANSCO AE 2018
E1V1 V ⋅V V2 Ans. (c) : The voltage at the receiving-end of the line
∴ P1 = sin δ = 1 1 sin 90 = 1 can be controlled by installing synchronous condenser
X1 X X
supplying leading kVAR depending on excitation of
or P1 ∝ V12 condenser.
and P2 ∝ V22
P1 8002
Now = =4
P2 4002
P
P2 = 1
4
16. Following electricity rules, the supply
frequency of the A.C. supply is allowed to very
by : Vr
(a) ± 5% Q= ( Vs − Vr )
X
(b) ± 3%
(c) ± 10% If Q>0 Q<0
Vs – Vr > 0 Vs – Vr < 0
(d) ± 1%
WBPSC AE 2009 Vs > Vr Vs < Vr
Ans. (b) : 20. For a long uncompensated transmission line,
the limit to the line loading is governed by
17. Which of the following frequency variation for (a) thermal limit (b) stability limit
power-frequency is as per IS? (c) voltage drop (d) corona loss
(a) 2.5% (b) 5% UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
(c) ±5% (d) ±2.5%
Ans. (b) : For a long uncompensated transmission line,
WBPSC AE 2007
the limit to the line loading is governed by stability
Ans. (d) : limit.
18. A 3-phase, 11 kV, induction motor draws 100 21. Load frequency controller is …. ….. and
kVA at 0.8 pf lagging from the system. A 3- excitation voltage controller is …. ……
phase capacitor bank rated 60 kVAR is (a) fast acting, slow acting
installed across the motor in order to increase (b) fast acting, fast acting
the power factor to unity. The apparent power (c) slow acting, fast acting
supplied by the system to the motor with (d) slow acting, slow acting
capacitor bank is RPSC VPITI 2016
(a) 100 kVA (b) 40 kVA Ans. (c) : Load frequency controller is slow acting and
(c) 160 kVA (d) 80 kVA excitation voltage controller is fast acting.
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 22. Disadvantage of low power factor is :
(a) Large kW rating
Ans. (d) : P = S.cos φ Q = S.sin φ
(b) High power factor
P = 100 × 0.8 Q = 100 × 0.6 (c) Large kVA rating
P = 80 kW Q = 60 kVAR (d) None of the above
Now 60 kVAR capacitor bank provide reactive power MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
for unity power factor So– Ans. (c) : Disadvantage of low power factor is large
P = S.cos φ KVA rating. The KVA rating of machines is also
reduced by having higher power factor, as per the
P
S= formula-
cos φ
KW
80 KVA =
S= cos φ
1
Hence, the size and cost of the machine is also reduced.
S = 80 kVA
23. Power factor is increased by :
19. The voltage at the receiving end of the line can (a) Series capacitor
be controlled by installing (b) Capacitor in parallel to load
(a) Synchronous condenser supplying leading (c) Under excited synchronous motor
kVAR
(b) Synchronous condenser supplying lagging (d) All of the above
kVAR depending on excitation of condenser MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II

Ans. (b) : Power factor is increased by capacitor in Ans. (a) Change in load demand (in MW/Hz) is.
parallel to load. Given as following-
• P = VI cos φ
 1
P ∆PD = −  D + 
cos φ =  R 
VI
• There are three main way to improve power factor-  1 
a. Capacitor banks = 2 + 
b. Synchronous condensers  0.025 
c. Phase advancers. = 42 MW/Hz
24. Improvement in power factor results in : 27. Functions of Regional Load Dispatch Centers
(a) Change in kW (RLDC) is/are:
(b) Reduction in voltage
(c) Reduction in losses (a) System operation and control including
(d) Change in frequency interstate/interregional transfer of power
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II (b) Scheduling of generation
Ans. (c) : Improvement in power factor results in (c) Metering and Data Collection
reduction in losses. (d) Compilation of System Operating Data
• A lower power factor causes a higher current flow (e) All of these
for a given load as the line current increases the
voltage drop in the conductor increases which may CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
result in a lower voltage at the equipment. With Ans. (e) : Functions of regional load dispatch centre are
improved power factor, the voltage drop in the system operation and control including inter
conductor is reduced, improving the voltage across state/interregional transfer of power, scheduling of
the equipment.
generation, metering and data collection and
P = VIcos φ compilation of system operating data.
• Methods of power factor improvement- 28. Frequency of power system network......
a. Capacitor banks
b. Synchronous condensers (a) has no relation to energy balance of the
c. Phase advancers system
25. Series capacitive compensation in EHV (b) is sensitive to energy balance of the system
transmission lines is used to : (c) does not depend on speed of Individual
(a) reduce the line loading generators in the system
(b) improve the stability of the system (d) has no relation to generation
(c) reduce the voltage profile
(d) improve the protection of the line AAI Junior Executive 2016
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II Ans. (b) : Frequency of power system network is
Ans. (b) : Series capacitive compensation in EHV sensitive to energy balance of the system.
transmission lines is used to improve the stability of the 29. The frequency of power system controls-
system.
The power transfer over a line is given by- (a) the active power and apparent power
(b) the reactive power
Vs VR
P1 = sin δ (c) the apparent power only
XL (d) both active power and reactive power
Where, P1 - power transferred per phase (W) BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
Vs - Sending end phase voltage (V)
Vr - receiving -end phase voltage (V) Ans. (a) : The frequency of power system controls the
XL- Series inductive reactance of the line (Ω) active power and the apparent power.
δ = phase angle between Vs and Vr [Constant frequency
For same power transfer and for the same value of = satisfactory operation of power system]
sending and receiving end voltage the phase angle (δ) in If f ↓ ⇒ speed ↓ ⇒ Pe ↓ ⇒ Pe – PL ↓ ⇒ stability of
the case of the series impedance line is less than that for system is affected.
the uncompensated line. The reduced value of δ gives
higher stability. 30. Which of the following individual machines,
26. The speed regulation parameter R of a control the load frequency control achieved?
area is 0.025 Hz/MW and load frequency (a) Generated voltages
constant D is 2 MW/Hz. What is the area (b) Turbine and generator ratings
frequency response characteristic (AFRC)? (c) Reactive power
(a) 42 MW/Hz (b) 40 MW/Hz (d) Turbine inputs
(c) 20 MW/Hz (d) 2 MW/Hz UPPCL AE 2015
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 Ans. (d) The load frequency control is achieved by
LMRC AE 2015 turbine inputs.
ESE 2001
31. In the load-frequency control system with free
governor action, the increase in load demand (iv) Distribution System, Cables
under steady conditions is met :
(a) Partly by increased generation and partly by
and Insulators
decrease of load demand 1. A 3 phase 4 wire system is commonly used for-
(b) Only by increased generation by opening of (a) Primary distribution
steam valve
(c) Both (a) and (b) (b) Secondary distribution
(d) None of the above (c) Primary transmission
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 (d) Secondary transmission
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
ESE 2012 PS PCL AE 2012
Ans. (a) : In the load-frequency control system with Ans. (b) : A 3- phase 4 wire system is commonly used
free governor action the increase in load demand under used for secondary distribution.
Three phase four wire system means three wires of
steady conditions is met partly by increased generation three phases (star connected) and fourth wire is neutral
and partly by decrease of load demand. connection, for three phase loads like motors three
32. In power systems shunt compensators are phase heaters etc.
employed at load ends to 2. The main criterion for selection of the size of
(a) Control the load voltage distribution for a radial distribution system is :
(b) Reduce the reactive power loss in (a) voltage drop (b) corona loss
transmission (c) temperature rise (d) capital cost
(c) Control the node voltage and reduce the HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
reactive power loss OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
(d) Augment stability of the system UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 Ans. (a) : The main criterion for selection of the size
Ans. (c) : In electrical power system, shunt capacitive of distribution for a radial distribution is a voltage
compensation is widely employed to reduce the active drop.
and reactive power losses and to ensure reactive loading Voltage drop = I × X L
condition.
XL = Line conductor Reactance.
33. A synchronous phase modifier, used for voltage
3. Whenever the conductors are dead-ended or
control in a line
there is a change in the direction of
(a) is a static device
transmission line, the insulators used are of
(b) is a rotating machine, driven by an induction
the:
motor. (a) pin type (b) suspension type
(c) always draws leading Var from the bus. (c) strain type (d) shackle type
(d) none of these RPSC VPITI 2016
Vizag Steel MT 2013 ESE 1998
Ans. (d) : Synchronous phase modifier is basically a Ans. (c) : When ever the conductor are dead-ended or
synchronous motor running under no load, and by there is a change in direction of transmission line, the
adjusting the excitation it is used for controlling reactive insulator use are of the strain type.
power from leading to lagging so that, power factor can 4. The operating voltage of high voltage cables is
be controlled by use of synchronous phase modifier. upto-
34. In the first Cauer network, with a pole at (a) 1.1 kV (b) 11 kV
infinity, the first element must be (c) 3.3 kV (d) 33 kV
(a) Series capacitor UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
(b) Series inductor Ans. (b) : Extra high voltage cable is used widely in
(c) Shunt capacitor power transmission utilizes upto 11 kV.
(d) Shunt inductor 5. In a substation
ESE 2017 (a) lightning arrester has lowest insulation level
(b) transformer has lowest insulation level
a n s n + a n − 2 s n − 2 + ........
Ans. (b) : Z ( s ) = (c) busbar has lowest insulation level
b m s m + b m − 2 s m − 2 + ..... (d) insulation level of lightning arrester,
n>m, a pole is at w = ∞ and it is possible to represent transformer and busbar must be same.
z(s) in the continued function form by dividing the Vizag Steel MT 2013
numerator by denominator inverting and dividing until Ans. (a) : In order to pass all the current to the ground
the expansion terminates. In this case C.F.E. will give a due to lightning. The lighting arrestor has lowest
series inductor as first element. insulation level.

6. Three materials X, Y and Z having relative  r ' = e −1/ 4 .r  .......................(i)
permittivity 2.5, 3.0 and 4.0 respectively are
used in a single core cable. The materials on GMR= self GMD
inner most and outer most layer respectively Distance of conductor-A with itself = DAA = r'
should be Distance of conductor A with B = DAB = 2r
(a) X and Y (b) Y and Z Distance of conductor A with C = DAC = 2r
(c) X and Z (d) Z and X Distance of conductor B with itself = DBB = r'
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I Distance of conductor B with itself A = DBA = 2r
Ans. (d) : Dielectric Grading–In dielectric grading a Distance of conductor B with itself C = DBC = 2r
homogeneous dielectric is replaced by different Distance of conductor C with itself = DCC= r'
Distance of conductor C with itself A = DCA = 2r
dielectric such that the relative permittivity of material
near the conductor should be high and permittivity for Distance of conductor C with itself B = DCB = 2r
outer most layer will be lower. GMR = (DAB.DAC.DAA.DBB.DBA.DBC.DCC.DCA.DCB)1/9
r < r1 < r2 GMR= (2r.2r.r'.2r.2r.r'.2r.2r.r')1/9
E1 > E2 > E3 GMR=[(r'.2r.2r)3]1/9
GMR=(r'.2r.2r)1/3 [put r' = e-1/4.r]
-1/4 1/3
[GMR= (e r.2r.2r) ]
GMR= 3 e −0.25 r.2r.2r 
 
9. When the diameter of the core and cable is
doubled the value of capacitance
(a) Will be reduced to half
→ Hence the materials on inner most is Z and outer (b) Will be reduced to one-fourth
most layer is X. (c) Will be doubled
7. Size of conductor in distribution system is (d) Remains unchanged
found using RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
(a) Ohm's law Ans. (d) :
(b) Kirchhoff's law
(c) Kelvin's law
(d) Faraday's law
Ans. (c) : The size of conductor in distribution system
is found using Kelvin's law.
8. The geometric mean radius of a conductor in
terms of the radius 'r' of an individual strand
for three equal strands as shown in figure :
capacitance between
core and sheath
2π ∈0 ∈r
c= F/m
R
ℓn 
r
Where,
∈r = Relative permittivity of dielectric
(a) 3
e−0.25 r × 2r × 2r (b) 3 e0.25 r × 2r × 2r If R → 2R
(c) 3
e−0.5 r × r × 2r (d) 3 e0.5 2r × 2r × 2r & r → 2r
APTRANSCO AE 2019 2π ∈0∈r 2π ∈0∈r
c= =
Ans. (a) :  2R  R
ℓn  ℓn 
 2r  r
Thus capacitance remain unchanged
10. Length of the cable is doubled, its capacitance C
will be :
(a)One-fourth (b) One-half
(c)Doubled (d) None of the above
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
Ans. (c) C ∝ l
The length of the cable and the capacitance of the cable
are directly proportional to each other. Hence if the
length gets doubled then the capacitance will also be
doubled.

11. In a string of suspension insulators, if potential Ans. (d) : • A feeder is designed on the basis of its
across each disc is same then its string current carrying capacity where the design of distributor
efficiency is: is based on the voltage drop occurring in it.
(a) 50% (b) 100% • Generally, no-tappings are taken from the feeder so
(c) Less than 100% (d) More than 100% the current in it remains the same throughout.
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 16. A suspension insulator string has three units
Ans. (b) : In a string of suspension insulators, if with ground capacitance of 0.2 C and self
potential across each disc is same then its string capacitance of C. Its string efficiency is
efficiency is 100%. (a) 75% (b) 78%
12. In a string of suspension insulators, the voltage (c) 80% (d) 85%
distribution across the different units of a UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
string could be made uniform by the use of a Ans. (b) :
grading ring, because it: String efficiency
(a) forms capacitances with link-pins to cancel
the charging current from link-pins
(b) forms capacitances which help to cancel the Total voltage across the string
= × 100
charging current from link-pins number of disc × Voltage nearest the conductor
(c) increases the capacitances of lower insulator E ×100
units to cause equal voltage drop =
(d) decreases the capacitances of upper insulator n × EN
units to cause equal voltage drop if number of disc = 3
Ans. (b) : In the string of suspension insulator, the %η =
( 3 + 4K + K ) ×100
2
voltage distribution across the different units of string 3 (1 + 3K + K )2
could be made uniforms by the used of a grading ring,

because it forms capacitance which help to cancel the mutual capacitance 0.2C
K= = = 0.2
charging current from link pins. capacitance to ground C
13. The undesirable property of an electrical
( 3 + 4 × 0.2 + 0.04 )
insulating material is- %η = × 100
(a) high dielectric strength 3 (1 + 3 × 0.2 + 0.04 )
(b) high relative permittivity = 78%
(c) low density
(d) high insulation resistivity 17. Sheath is used in cables to
RPSC AE 2018 (a) provide proper insulation
Ans : (c) The undesirable property of an electrical (b) prevent moisture
insulating material is low density. (c) prevent chances of rust on strands
(d) provide strength to the cable
14. 3-phase, 4-wire system is commonly used for
(a) primary distribution
(b) secondary distribution Ans. (b) : Sheath–Sheath does not allow the moisture
(c) primary transmission content and protect conductor from electro chemical
(d) none of the above factor. e.g. lead or aluminium.
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I 18. A cable has an insulation of relative
Ans. (b) : permittivity 2. If the insulation is replaced by
Primary transmission– 3-phase, 3-wire, (400 - 765) kV one of relative permittivity 4, then capacitance
Secondary transmission– 3-phase, 3-wire, 33 kV of the cable
Primary Distribution– 3-φ, 3-wire, 33 kV to 11 kV (a) is doubled (b) is halved
(c) remains unchanged (d) is reduced
Secondary Distribution– 3-φ, 4-wire, 400 V/230 V
15. Assertion (a) : Feeders are designed mainly from
the view point of voltage drop in them. 2πε 0 ε r r
Ans. (a) : Capacitance (c) = F/m
Reason (R) : Current loading of the feeder R
ℓn  
remains same along its length. r
Select the correct answer. C ∝ εr
(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct C1 ε r1 2
explanation of (a). = =
C 2 ε r2 4
(b) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (a). C2 = 2C1
(c) (a) is true, but (R) is false. 19. The normal voltage for dielectric heating is
(d) (a) is false, but (R) is true. (a) 1500 V (b) 11 kV
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I (c) 33 kV (d) 66 kV

Ans. (a) : Dielectric heating– 26. Conductor of an overhead line including
• It is also called high-frequency capacitive heating and service lines erected across a street shall any
is used for heating insulators like wood, plastics and part be at a height of minimum
ceramics etc. (a) 5.8 m (b) 3.5 m
• The supply frequency required for dielectric heating is (c) 2.9 m (d) 3.1 m
in the range of 3 MHz to 30 GHz and the applied WBPSC AE 2003
voltage is up to 20 kV. Ans. (a) :
• The normal voltage for dielectric heating is 1500 V. 27. When a service line passes over a building a
20. Conductors for wiring have cross sectional area vertical clearance shall be maintained at a
based on minimum height over the building at
(a) cost (a) 2.0 m (b) 2.5 m
(b) maximum permitted voltage drop (c) 1.9 m (d) 1.0 m
(c) maximum temperature rise at rated current WBPSC AE 2003
(d) all of the above Ans. (b) :
WBPSC AE 2009 28. Transmission of power by a.c. cables is
Ans. (d) : impossible beyond
21. Electrical insulating materials are generally (a) 500 km (b) 300 km
(a) good conductor of heat (c) 250 km (d) 45 km
(b) bad conductor of heat TSPSC AEE 2017
(c) not affected by heat Ans. (d) : Power transmitted by ac cable is impossible
(d) both items (b) and (c) above beyond 35-45 km, there will be power loss due to
WBPSC AE 2009 internal resistance and ecological factors which can be
Ans. (d) : rectified by building busty region.
22. An overhead line insulator must have 29. A suspension type insulator has three units
(a) low eddy current losses with self-capacitance C and ground
(b) low ratio of rupturing strength to flash over capacitance of 0.2 C having a string efficiency
voltage of:
(c) high relative permittivity (a) 80% (b) 82%
(d) high internal resistance (c) 78% (d) 76%
WBPSC AE 2009 TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (d) : Ans. (c) :
23. The conductors in an underground cable are operating phase voltage
String efficiency =
stranded to (n × voltage of disc nearest to conductor)
(a) reduce ohmic losses and mutual inductance n = 3 (number of discs)
(b) increase dielectric strength operating voltage (Vph) = k2 + 4k + 3
(c) lower eddy current losses voltage of disc nearest to conductor = k2 + 3k + 1
(d) provide flexibility and reduce skin effect
WBPSC AE 2009 Pin to earth capacitance 0.2C
where, k = = = 0.2
Ans. (d) : capacitance C
24. In a balanced three phase four wire (k 2 + 4k + 3)
distribution system when the neutral is String efficiency (η%) =
disconnected 3 × (k 2 + 3k +1)
(a) potential difference across each phase load is 0.04 + 0.8 + 3
unbalanced =
3 × (0.04 + 0.6 + 1)
(b) potential difference across each phase load is
balanced %ηstring = 78%
(c) potential difference across load reactance is
30. The dielectric strength of impregnated papers
increased
is about
(d) potential difference across load reactance is (a) 20 kV/mm (b) 30 kV/mm
decreased (c) 15 kV/mm (d) 5 kV/mm
WBPSC AE 2003 TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (a) : Vizag Steel MT 2012
25. The dielectric strength and the compressive Ans. (b) : Dielectric strength of impregnated paper is
strength of the mechanically sound porcelain about 30 kV/mm. Dielectric strength is defined as the
insulator should be respectively maximum voltage required to produce a dielectric break
(a) 60 kV, 20,000 kg/cm2 down through the material and is expressed as volt per
(b) 20 kV, 70,000 kg/cm2 unit thickness.
(c) 100 kV, 70,000 kg/cm2 31. A 3-wire dc distribution makes ___________
(d) 60 kV, 70,000 kg/cm2 voltages available.
WBPSC AE 2003 (a) one (b) two
Ans. (b) : (c) three (d) four
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : A 3-wire dc distribution makes two voltage 36. The size of the ground wire is mainly governed
available. by the consideration of-
V volts between any outer and neutral (a) system rated current
2V volts between the outers. (b) maximum lightning current
32. The cable size can be reduced by (c) system voltage
(a) use of intersheaths only (d) mechanical strength
(b) use of capacitance grading only UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
(c) use of both intersheaths and capacitance Ans. (b) : The size of the ground wire is mainly
grading governed by the consideration of maximum lightning
(d) selecting insulation of very high dielectric current. (IEC 60364) rules that the earth wire must be of
strength the same size of the power wire, upto 16 sqmm.
TNPSC AE 2018 37. String efficiency of a suspension insulator
Ans. (d) : Cable size can be reduced by selecting string is improved in practice by using-
insulation of very high dielectric strength. (a) longer cross arm
33. Suspension insulators are used when (b) guard ring
transmission voltage is (c) grading of capacitances
(a) high (b) low
(c) fluctuating (d) steady UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
TNPSC AE 2019 Ans. (b) : The most suitable method of improvement of
Ans. (a) : Classification of insulators, string efficiency of suspension type insulator is guard
1. Pin type insulators-used upto 33kV ring. The ring or shield are fitted to the bottom insulator
2. Suspension insulators-used for higher voltage and effect of shunt capacitance negligible.
beyond 33kV. Each insulation disc is designed for 38. The capacitance of a 3-core cable between any
11kV and hence for any operating voltage a string of two conductors with sheathed earth is 2µF. The
insulators can be used. per phase capacitance will be-
3. Strains Insulators- These insulator are special (a) 1 µF (b) 4 µF
mechanically strong disc insulators used to takes the (c) 0.667 µF (d) 1.414 µF
tension of the conductors at line terminals and at UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
point where the line is dead end.
Ans. (c) : Given, Measured capacitance (C1) = 2µF
Ex.- Road crossing, River crossing
Ce = Three capacitor in parallel
at angle towers where there is line change.
C 2
4. Shackle Insulators- used for LT lines, used Ce = 1 = = 0.667 µ F
Section poles 3 3
End poles 39. Which of the following distribution system is
On sharp turns most reliable?
Service connection (a) Parallel system
34. String efficiency is improved in practice by (b) Radial system
using. (c) Ring main system
(a) disc of different size (d) All are equal
(b) capacitance grading WBPSC AE 2017
(c) guard rings Ans. (c) :
(d) longer cross-arms 40. Disc type insulators are used for voltages
UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I beyond
Ans. (c) : All the four options are the methods of (a) 11 kv (b) 33 kv
improve string efficiency. To provide guard ring closed (c) 66 kv (d) 132 kv
to conductor is most practical method to improve string WBPSC AE 2017
efficiency. Hence option (c) is correct.. Ans. (b) :
35. For an a.c. transmission line, the string 41. What is the main type distribution system in
efficiency is 80%. If the d.c. voltage is supplied India?
for the same set-up, the string efficiency will be (a) Radial (b) Parallel
(a) 100% (b) 80% (c) Network (d) Both (b) and (c)
(c) 92% (d) 75% WBPSC AE 2017
UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I Ans. (a) :
Ans. (a) : In d.c. transmission line ground capacitance 42. The temperature limit for class F insulation is
does not exists therefore voltage across each disc is (a) 1050C (b) 1200C
equal. So string efficiency, (c) 1300C (d) 1550C
ηstring = 100% WBPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) :

43. In a cable capacitor voltage gradient is 48. In a distribution system, which of the following
maximum at the surface of the items shares the major cost?
(a) earth (b) conductor (a) Conductance
(c) sheath (d) insulation (b) Earthling system
WBPSC AE 2017 (c) Distribution transformer
Ans. (b) : (d) Insulators
44. Most commonly used insulating material for WBPSC AE 2012
low and medium voltage cable is Ans. (c) :
(a) polyethylene 49. Non-metallic conductor used internal wiring
(b) porcelain are generally made of
(c) PVC (a) wood (b) rubber
(d) volcanized rubber (c) PVC (d) cork
Ans. (c) : Ans. (c) :
45. String efficiency of an insulator can be 50. The thickness of insulation provided on the
increased by conductor depends upon
(a) correct grading of insulators of various (a) current rating
capacitances (b) voltage rating
(b) reducing the number of strings (c) both (a) and (b)
(c) increasing the number of strings in the (d) none of the above
insulators WBPSC AE 2012
(d) None of the above Ans. (b) :
WBPSC AE 2017 51. For welding, the secondary transformer being
Ans. (a) : used should be
46. A dc 3-wire distributor system requires how (a) high voltage high current
much of copper as compared to a dc 2-wire (b) high voltage low current
distributor system? (c) low voltage low current
(a) Only 33.33% of copper (d) low voltage high current
5 WBPSC AE 2008
(b) Only of copper Ans. (d) :
6
(c) Only 66.66% of copper 52. The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy
5 dielectric medium increases with increase of
(d) Only of copper
16 (a) conductivity (b) permeability
OMC Deputy manager 2019 (c) wavelength (d) permittivity
Ans. (d) : For DC wire system with one conductor WBPSC AE 2008
earthed Ans. (c) :
4ρP 2 ℓ 2 53. Which of the following distribution systems is
volume of conductor material required =
WVm2 more reliable?
4ρP 2 ℓ 2 (a) Tree system
Assume, K = 2 (b) Radial system
WVm
For DC 3-wire system (c) Ring-main system
(d) All are equally reliable
2.5P 2ρℓ 2
Volume of conductor material required = WBPSC AE 2007
2WVm2 Ans. (c) :
2.5  4ρP ℓ  2.5
2 2
54. Surface flashover of the bushing insulators are
=  2 
= K
2 × 4  WVm  8 often caused by
(a) Moisture present in the transformer oil
5 (b) Pollution of the bushing surfaces
= K
16 (c) Lining up of the suspended particles present
Hence in 3-wire dc system volume of conductor in the oil
5 (d) Heavy external short circuit
required is times of that required in two wire dc
16 WBPSC AE 2007
system. Ans. (a) :
47. The breakdown stress of atmospheric air is 55. Insulation resistance of a cable _________ with
approximately increase in temperature and ___________ with
(a) 0.3 KV/cm (b) 3 KV/cm increase in length.
(c) 30 KV/cm (d) 300 KV/cm (a) increases, increases (b) increases, decreases
WBPSC AE 2012 (c) decreases, decreases (d) decreases, increases
Ans. (c) : UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
Ans. (c) : Insulation resistance decreases with increase 58. The string efficiency of the insulator is less than
in temperature as insulator has –ve temperature 100% due to:
coefficient and decrease with length too. (a) Different capacitance of insulator units
insulation resistance, R- (b) Due to air capacitance between pin of
1 suspension insulator and tower structure
R∝ (c) Due to losses in the lines
ℓ (d) Equal capacitance of insulator units
56. A coaxial cable of length 10 cm filled with UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
material for which ∈r=18, σ=0 and µr=80 Ans. (b) : The string efficiency of the insulator is less
having inner and outer diameter as 1 mm and 4 than 100% due to air capacitance between pin of
mm respectively. The inductance of cable is:
(a) 6.654 × 10–5 H (b) 4.436 mH suspension insulator and tower structure.
(c) 1.1 × 10–6H (d) 2.218 × 10–6 H 59. A co-axial cable of inner radius a and outer
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 radius b. The space between conductor is filled
Ans. (d) : Given, l = 10 cm = 10×10–2 m with dielectric of permittivity ∈ and length of
µr = 80 cable 4m. What is the capacitance of the cable?
a = inner diameter = 1 mm b
b = outer diameter = 4 mm ln  
2π∈ a
µl  b  (a) (b)
Inductance of cable, L = ℓn   H b 2π∈
2π  a  ln  
a
µ µ .l  b  π∈ 8π∈
= 0 r ℓn   (c) (d)
2π a b b
2ln   ln  
4π × 10 × 80 × 10 × 10−2  4 
−7
a a
= ℓn  
2π 1 UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
2π ∈0 l
= 16 ×10−7 ℓn ( 4 ) = 16 × 1.386×10–7 Ans. (d) : Capacitance of the cable = F/ m
R
= 22.18 ×10–7 ℓn  
r
L = 2.218 ×10−6 H Where, R = b = outer radius
r = a = inner radius
57. A distribution system is shown in figure with 2π ∈0 ×4
load currents as marked. The two ends of the For 4m length, C =
feeder are fed by voltage sources such that VP– b
ℓn  
VQ = 3V. The value of the voltage for minimum a
voltage of 220 V at any point along the feeder
is: 8π ∈
C= F
b
ℓn  
a
60.
In a two unit insulator string, voltage across
the unit near to line conductor is 18.5 kV and
(a) 225.89 V (b) 222.89 V string efficiency is 75%. The voltage of line
(c) 228.58 V (d) 220.0 V conductor will be:
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 (a) 37 kV (b) 48.07 kV
Ans. (a) : VP – VQ = 3V (c) 27.75 kV (d) 30 kV
Value of minimum point of voltage, where current to be
reverse. UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
Ans. (c) : String efficiency (η)
Total phase Voltage
=
n × Voltage phase Conductor
given, η = 0.75
VP – VQ = 0.1 (IP – 10) + 0.15 (IP – 30) + 0.12 (IP – 60) VL 3
0.75 =
3 = 0.37IP – 12.7 2 × 18.5 3
I P = 42.43Amp VL = 27.75kV
Points will have minimum voltage
VS = 220V 61. The resistance for a conductor will be least for
VP = VS + 0.1 (IP – 10) + 0.15 (IP – 30) the following
= 220 + 0.1 (42.43 – 10) + 0.15 (42.43 – 30) (a) DC (b) 60 Hz
= 225.10V (c) 10 KHz (d) 10 MHz
It is nearly equal to 225.89 V. MPPSC AE 2016

Ans. (a) : As DC is independent of frequency Ans. (c) : Let Rt = R0 + Ri
So resistance is minimum in case of DC.(due to skin Where R0 and Ri are the resistances of the inner and
effect) outer conductors.
62. For two-wire DC system with mid-point At dc,
earthed, copper loss in each conductor is ℓ ℓ 3.14
calculated using the relation as: Ri = = = = 0.005Ω
σS σπa 5 × 10 π ( 2 × 10−3 )
2 7 2
(a) (PR1) / (2V2) (b) (P2R1) / (2V2)
2 2
(c) (P R1) / (4V ) (d) (PR1) / (4V2) ℓ ℓ ℓ
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III R0 = = =
σS σπ ( b + t ) − b  σπ  t + 2bt 
2 2 2
Ans. (c) : For two-wire DC system with mid-point  
earthed, copper loss in each conductor is calculated 3.14
using the relation as = = 0.0154 ×10−1
5 × 107 π [1 + 12] × 10−6
P 2 R1
= = 0.00154
4V 2
63. A 3-Phase over head transmission line is R t = R0 + Ri
supported by three disc insulators. The = 0.005 + 0.00154
potential across top, middle & lower units are = 0.00654
10 kV, 15 kV, & 20 kV respectively, then the = 6.54 mΩ
string efficiency of the insulator disc will be
(a) 25% (b) 80% 67. The cable telemetry is also known as
(c) 50% (d) 75% (a) Radio telemetry
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III (b) Micro-wave telemetry
ESE 2003 (c) Land-line telemetry
Ans. (d) : (d) Frequency telemetry
Total Voltage across the string Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
String efficiency = Ans. (c) : Direct data transfer over an electrical and
n × voltage across the unit
pneumatic line is known as land line Telemetry.
near the power conductor The cable-telemetry is also known as Land-Line
45 Telemetry.
%η = ×100 = 75%
3 × 20 68. Identify the following insulation classes where
64. The insulators used in guy cables are NEMA has ambient temperature of 40 deg C.
(a) Stay insulators (b) Shackle insulators (a) 400 < = Temp < = 1000 (class A)
(c) Disc insulators (d) Pin insulators (b) 400 < = Temp < = 1200 (class B)
(c) 400 < = Temp < = 1450 (class F)
Ans. (a) : Stay insulators-For low voltage lines, the
(d) 400 < = Temp < = 1650 (class H)
stays are to be insulated from ground at a height. The
insulator used in the stay wire is called as stay insulator Vizag Steel MT 2011
and is usually of porcelain and is so designed that in Ans. (a) : Electrical insulation systems are rated by
case of breakage of the insulator the guy cable will not standard NEMA (National Electrical Manufactures
fall to the ground. Association) classifications According to maximum
65. A booster is used to compensate the voltage allowable operating Temperature.
drop in the circuit. A booster is Temperature Maximum Allowable
(a) never connected with the feeder Tolerance operation Temperature Rise at
(b) connected in series and parallel both with
negative feeder Class Temperatur full load (1.0 service
(c) always connected in series with positive e Allowed factor motor)
feeder (0C)
(d) always connected in parallel with the negative A 105 60
feeder B 130 80
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II F 155 105
Ans. (c) : A booster is used to compensate the voltage H 180 125
drop in the circuit. A booster is always connected in
series with positive feeder. Example Temperature Tolerance Class F :
66. For the copper coaxial cable let a = 2 mm, b = 6 400 C + 1050 C + 100 C = 1550 C
mm, and t = 1 mm, then the resistance of 3.14 69. The material used for insulating in a cable
m length of the cable at dc will approximately should have the following property :
be (a) Low cost
(consider σ = 5 × 107 mho/m) (b) High dielectric strength
(a) 1.5 mΩ (b) 8.54 mΩ (c) high mechanical strength
(c) 6.54 mΩ (d) 5.54 mΩ (d) All options are correct
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II MPPSC AE 2014
Ans. (d) : For material used for insulation in a cable 73. A line which connects distributor to substation
should have is called –
• Low cost (a) Source mains (b) Distributors
• High insulation resistance to avoid leakage current. (c) Feeder (d) None of above
• High dielectric strength to avoid electrical GMB AE 2017
breakdown of the cable Ans. (c) : Feeder in transmission line connects
• High mechanical strength distributor to substation. Feeder transmits power from
70. The most commonly used material for insulator generating station or substation to the distribution
of overhead transmission line is–
(a) Porcelain (b) Glass points.
(c) Steatite (d) None of above 74. Distributors are designed from the point of
GMB AE 2017 view of
Ans. (a) : There are many types of insulator material (a) its current carrying capacity
use in overhead line e.g Glass, porcelain etc. (b) operating voltage
Porcelain is mechanically strong, less affected by (c) voltage drop in it
temperature and has minimum leakage problem hence (d) operating frequency
most commonly used for insulator of overhead line. HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
71. In a string of suspension insulators the shunt Karnataka PSC AE 2016
capacitance can be decreased by using–
(a) Longer cross-arm (b) Shorter cross-arm Ans. (c) : Distributors are designed from the point of
(c) Longer spans (d) None of above view of voltage drop in it because power transfer to
GMB AE 2017 consumer and there is a stability limit of voltage
Ans. (a) : variation at the consumer terminal is ±6%.
75. Consider a three-core three-phase, 50Hz, 11kV
cable whose conductors are denoted as R, Y
and B in the figure. The inter-phase
capacitance (C1) between each pair of
conductors is 0.2 µF and the capacitance
between each line conductor and the sheath is
0.4µF. The per-phase charging current is.
Where, Cs Capacitance between metal part of the

insulator and tower structure (a) 2.0 A (b) 2.4 A
Cm Capacitance of each insulator disc. (c) 2.7 A (d) 3.5 A
C m > Cs Vizag Steel MT 2017
In a string of suspension insulators the shunt Ans. (a) : Given– C1=0.2 µF, C2=0.4 µF
capacitance can be decreased by using longer cross arm.
For string of insulators capacitance ratio (K) is always
less than one.
C
i.e., Capacitance Ratio = s = K < 1( always )
Cm
72. In capacitance grading of cable, the dielectric
of highest permittivity is–
(a) Near the core
(b) In the middle Per phase charging current (IC) = 2πf C ph Vph
(c) Farthest away from core Cph = 3C1+C2
(d) None of above
GMB AE 2017 = 3 ×.2 + 0.4
Ans. (a) : In capacitance grading of cable, the dielectric =1µF
of highest permittivity is kept near the core. 11
IC = 2π× 50 × 10−6 × × 103
Capacitance grading is the process of using various 3
layers of dielectric with each dielectric having their own IC = 2 Amp
property.
76. Which of the following are connected by the 81. The insulation resistance of a 2 km long cable is
service mains? 150 M Ω. For a length of 20 km, the insulation
(a) Transformer and earth resistance will be :
(b) Distributor and relay system (a) 1500 MΩ (b) 15 MΩ
(c) Distributor and consumer terminals (c) 1.5 MΩ (d) 150 MΩ
(d) Distributor and transformer MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
Vizag Steel MT 2017 Ans. (b) : Insulation resistance–
Ans. (c) : Distributor and consumer terminals are
1
connected by the service mains. R∝
77. The distributors of the overhead lines are. l
(a) Single phase R1 L 2
so =
(b) Three-phase three wire R 2 L1
(c) Three-phase four wire
(d) None of the above 150MΩ 20km
=
Vizag Steel MT 2017 R2 2km
Ans. (c) : 3- phase 4 wire are used by secondary 150 × 2
distribution of the overhead line. R2 = = 15MΩ
20
78. Dielectric loss in a cable is given by
82. In spite of some limitations, cables are
(a) Pd ∝ CV 2 tan δ (b) Pd ∝ CV sin δ preferred over the transmission lines where :
(c) Pd ∝ C V sin δ
2
(d) Pd ∝ C 2V 2 sin δ (a) Public safety is involved
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I (b) Scenic beauty of city is important
(c) Submarine crossing is there
Ans. (a) : Dielectric loss in cable
Pd = ωCV 2 tan δ MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
Where, Ans. (d) : In spite of some limitations, cables are
V = cable rated voltage to earth preferred over the overhead transmission lines where–
C = Cable capacitance per unit length (F.m-1) • Public safety is involved
tan δ = loss factor for insulation • Scenic beauty of city is important
Pd = Dielectric loss per unit length (Wm-1) • Submarine crossing is there
ω = angular frequency (2πf) • Connections of substations, transformers etc. are
79. Find the number of insulator discs required in required.
string insulator, if operating voltage is 220 kV 83. For reducing tower footing resistance, it is
and maximum voltage of each disc is 11 kV. better to employ :
(a) 25 (b) 10 (a) Chemical and counterpoise
(c) 13 (d) 21 (b) Chemical and ground rods
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016 (c) Ground rods and counterpoise
Ans. (c) No. of disc required = Phase voltage in (d) Chemical, ground rods and counterpoise
(kV)/11
220 ×103 20
= ⇒ ≈ 12 + Ans. (c) : Tower footing resistance–
3 × 11× 10 3
3 • Tower footing resistance (Rt) is the resistance
One or two extra insulators are used for safety factor. offered by the metal part of the lower and the
So for 220 kV operating voltage 13 insulator discs will
be required in string insulator. ground resistance and it is important for the
protection against surge voltages.
80. Grading of cable is performed in order to
achieve : • Since the tower footing resistance depends upon the
1. uniform stress soil resistivity and critical breakdown gradient of
2. reduction in quantity of insulation the soil hence chemical treatment can be used. This
3. reduction in quality of insulation method requires regular checking of soil condition
Answer options : at each and every tower which are several mills
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only apart hence it is very much time consuming.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
APTRANSCO AE 2019 Therefore we use ground-rod and counterpoise.
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II 84. Cross-linked Polyethylene (XLPE) cable has :
Ans. (a) : Grading of cable is performed in order to (a) good impulse dielectric strength
achieve– (b) inert to chemical reaction
• Uniform stress (c) high-thermal dissipation property
• Reduction in quantity of insulation. (d) All of the above
Grading of a cable is the process of achieving uniform MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
electrostatic stress in the dielectric of cable. This is Ans. (d) : Cross-linked polyethylene (XLPE) cable has
achieved by making potential gradient equal throughout • Good impulse dielectric strength
the dielectric layer. It can be done in two ways (i) • Inert to chemical reaction
capacitance grading (ii) Inter sheath grading. • High-thermal dissipation property.

85. As per the 'Indian Electricity Act', the HT Ans. (a) : Major type of distribution substation is pole
consumer should maintain p.f. in between : mounted, hence there is mainly distribution system used
(a) 0.6 to 0.8 (b) 0.8 to 0.85 in 3-φ 4 wire line which is pole mounted.
(c) 0.9 to 0.99 (d) Above unity 91. Which insulator is used in 132 kV transmission
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II lines?
Ans. (c) : As per the 'Indian Electricity Act', the HT (a) Pin type
consumer should maintain pf in between 0.9 to 0.99. (b) Disc type
86. The purpose of insulation coordination is to : (c) Shackle type
(a) limit the over voltage (d) Pin and shackle type
(b) protect the electrical apparatus against over (e) Strain type
voltage CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
(c) grade the insulation of different power Ans. (b) : In high voltage transmission line, disc type
apparatus and overhead lines such that the insulator is used in 132 kV transmission line.
least important apparatus fails first and the 92. String efficiency can be improved by:
most important one is protected to the highest (a) Using a longer cross arm
level (b) Using a guard ring
(d) None of the above (c) Grading the insulator
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II (d) any of the above
Ans. (c) : The purpose of insulation coordination is to (e) None
grade the insulation of different power apparatus and CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
overhead lines such that the least important apparatus Vizag Steel MT 2013
fails first and the most important one is protected to the Vizag Steel MT 2012
highest level. Ans. (d) : String efficiency =
87. Fault location in an HV cable is done by : Voltage across whole string
(a) Voltage withstand test
(b) Partial discharge scanning tests n × ( voltage across last units )
(c) Life tests Where, n = number of insulator disc.
(d) Impulse testing This can be improved by, using a longer cross arm, by
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II using a guard ring and grading the insulator.
Ans. (b) : Fault location in an HV cable is done by 93. A string insulator has 4 units. The voltage
partial discharge scanning tests. across the bottom most unit is 33.33% of the
88. In a three unit insulator string, voltage across total voltage. Find the string efficiency.
lowest unit is 17.5 KV and lowest string (a) 25% (b) 66.67%
efficiency is 84.28%. What is the total voltage (c) 33.33% (d) 75%
across the string? DMRC AM 2020
(a) 8.825 KV (b) 44.25 KV CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
(c) 88.25 KV (d) 442.5 KV Ans. (d) :
LMRC AE 2015 operating phase voltage(Vph )
ESE 2001 String efficiency =
Ans. (b) % string efficiency = n × voltageof disc nearest
to conductor
Voltage across the string ( V ) Voltage of disc nearest to conductor = 33.33% × Vph
=
Number of disc× Voltage across the disc nearer = 0.333 × Vph
to conductor Vph
V % string efficiency = ×100
0.8428 = 4 × 0.333 × Vph
3 × 17.5 %string effeciency = 75.07% ≃ 75%
Voltage across the string (V) = 44.25 kV
89. In metropolitan areas most commonly 94. Number of insulator disc required for 66 KV
employed distribution scheme is: power lines
(a) Ring Scheme (a) 10 (b) 5
(b) Radial Scheme (c) 8 (d) 7
(c) Interconnected system (e) 12
(d) Anyone from the above CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
(e) None (Operating voltage per phase)
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II Ans. (b) : No. of disc =
11kV
Ans. (c) : In metropolitan areas most commonly
employed distribution scheme is interconnected system. 66 kV
90. Major type of distribution substation is: = 1.73 = 3.46
(a) Pole mounted (b) Underground 11kV
(c) Indoor (d) Outdoor n≅4
(e) None and one extra disc for safety purpose so, number of
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II insulator disc required for 66 kV power lines is 5.

95. Cables are advantageous than overhead Ans. (b) : Generally fault location in cable detected by
transmission lines because: comparing capacitance of the insulated conductors.
(a) Has low maintenance
2πε0ε r
(b) Has low cost C= F/ m
(c) Can be used for high voltage applications D
l n 
(d) Can be used in highly congested areas d
(e) All above Where, D = Internal diameter of the sheath
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II d = Diameter of the core
Ans. (d) : Cables can be used in highly congested areas, εr = Relative permittivity of insulating material
so, this is advantage over to use of over head in between the core and lead sheath.
transmission line. Dielectric loss = ω CVP2 tan δ
(SIL )UG > (SIL )OH
100. A three-phase, four-wire, 400 V system is
96. What should be the minimum distance between supplying a balanced star-connected load with
a power cable and communication cable while impedance of 10 ∠ – 300o Ω. The voltage to
running in parallel to avoid interference? neutral being 230.9 ∠– 900o, 230.9 ∠ – 300o and
(a) 50 cm 230.9 ∠ – 1500o. The current in the neutral
(b) 2 cm wire is :
(c) 100 m (a) 10 A (b) zero
(d) Cannot run parallel (c) 17.3 A (d) 5 A
(e) No restrictions APTRANSCO AE 2019
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II Ans. (b) : Since the applied 3-phase voltage is
Ans. (a) : Minimum distance between power cable and balanced and the impedance are all equal. So the current
communication cable while running in parallel to avoid also would be balanced, as a result there is no current is
interference should be 50 cm. the neutral wire. So, the current in the neutral wire is
97. At which part of the cable voltage stress is zero.
maximum? 101. A 3-phase, 4-wire system supplies power to a
(a) insulator balanced star-connected load. The current in
(b) Sheath each phase in 15 A. The current in the neutral
(c) Conductor core wire will be :
(d) Conductor surface (a) 15 A (b) 45 A
(e) Uniform everywhere (c) 8.66 A (d) 0 A
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
Ans. (c) : Voltage stress is maximum at conductor core Ans. (d) : For a balanced star connected load, under
of the cable, this is also known as inner most part of normal condition, the current through the neutral wire is
conductor while it is minimum outer most sheath of zero.
conductor. 102. A 3-phase 3-wire supply feeds a star connected
2V load consisting of 3 equal resistors. If one of the
i.e gmax = V/meter resistors is to be removed, then what is the
D reduction in power as compared to the original
d log
d power ?
2V (a) 25% of the original power
gmin = V/meter (b) 33.3% of the original power
D
D log (c) 50% of the original power
d (d) 66.6% of the original power
98. The current carrying capacity of cables in case HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
of AC is less than that of DC because: Ans. (c) : In 3-phase 3-wire supply is given to star
(a) Presence of ripples connected resistive load.
(b) Presence of harmonics
(c) High dielectric losses Vph  VL 
P1 = 3VL IL = 3VL  Vph = 
(d) All of the above R  3
(e) None
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II VL VL VL2
3 =
Ans. (c) : Due to high dielectric loss, the current 3R R
carrying capacity of cable in case of AC is less than DC. If one of resistance is removed than the circuit will
99. Generally, fault location in cables detected by become.
comparing:
(a) Inductance of the insulated conductors
(b) Capacitance of the insulated conductors
(c) Resistance of the insulated conductors
(d) Dielectric loss
(e) None of them
VL VL2 108. In a 33 KV overhead line, there are three units
∴ P2 = VL I = VL × = in the string of insulators. If the capacitance
2R 2R between each insulator pin and earth is 11% of
P1 self capacitance of each insulator, find string
∴ =2
P2 efficiency.
(a) 75% (b) 80%
1 (c) 90% (d) None of these
∴ P2 = P1
2 PTCUL AE 2016
So power consumed is 50% of original. Ans. (d) : Let V1,V2, V3 voltage across top, middle and
103. The main criterion for the design of a bottom unit respectively. If C is self capacitance of each
distributor is : unit and CS is shunt capacitance them
(a) The voltage drop (b) Corona loss Shunt capacitance
(c) Temperature rise (d) Radio interference K= = 0.11
Self capacitance
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I 33
Voltage across string = = 19.05 KV
Ans. (a) : A distributor has a variable loading along it's 3
length. distributors are tapped throughout at several V2 = 1.11 V1
points to serve the consumers and current is not same in V3 = 1.34 V1
the line. So the main criteria for the design of a Total voltage across string
distributor is the voltage drop.
V = V1 + V2 + V3 = V1 + 1.1V1 + 1.34V1 = 3.452V1
104. Which of the following is not a type of insulator 19.05 = 3.452 V1
used in overhead transmission line? V1 = 5.52 KV, V2 = 6.13 KV, V3 = 7.4 KV
(a) Rivet type (b) Pin type
(c) Suspension type (d) Strain type Voltage across string
String efficiency = × 100
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I No of insulator × V3
Ans. (a) : Rivet type insulator is not used in overhead 19.05 × 100
transmission line. String efficiency = = 85.8%
3 × 7.4
105. The insulation resistance of the cable decreases
with 109. Find the most economical value of diameter of
(a) increase in length of cable a single core cable to be used on 50 KV single
(b) decrease in length of cable phase system. The maximum permissible stress
(c) electric stress in the dielectric is not to exceed 40 KV/cm.
(d) none of these (a) 7.06 cm (b) 4.52 cm
PTCUL AE 2012 (c) 1.77 cm (d) None of these
Ans. (a) : The insulation resistance of a cable PTCUL AE 2016
ρ R Ans. (d) : Peak value of cable voltage
Ri = ℓn V = 50 × 2 = 70.7 kV
2πℓ r
Maximum permissible stress, gmax = 40 kV/cm
1
∵ Ri ∝ ∴ Most economical conductor diameter is
ℓ 2V 2 × 70.7
as cable length increases, insulation resistance d= = = 3.53 cm
decreases. g max 40
106. The charging current drawn by the cable 110. A 2-wire d.c. distributor 200 meters long is
(a) lags behind the voltage by 90° uniformly loaded with 2A/meter resistance of
(b) leads the voltage by 90° single wire is 0.3 Ω/km. If the distributor is fed
(c) leads the voltage by 180° at one end, calculate the maximum voltage
(d) none of above drop.
PTCUL AE 2012 (a) 10 volt (b) 12 volt
Ans. (b) : The charging current drawn by cable leads (c) 24 Volt (d) None of these
voltage by 90° because it is capacitive in nature. PTCUL AE 2016
107. The most economic load on an underground Ans. (c) : Total current entering the distributor
cable is I = i × ℓ = 2 × 200 = 400 A
(a) greater than its surge loading Total resistance of distributor
(b) less than surge loading
R=r×ℓ
(c) equal to surge loading
(d) none of above r = 2 × 0.3/1000 = 0.0006 Ω
PTCUL AE 2012 R = 0.0006 × 200 = 0.12 Ω
Ans. (b) : The most economic load on an underground 1 1
∴ Total drop over distributor = IR = × 400 × 0.12
cable is less than surge loading as in case of 2 2
underground cable, its heating is main concern. = 24 V

111. The main drawback of underground system 114. The temperature coefficient of resistance of an
over overhead system is : insulator is :
(a) Exposure to lightning (a) Negative and dependent on temperature
(b) Heavy initial cost (b) Positive and dependent on temperature
(c) Negative and independent of temperature
(c) Exposure to atmospheric hazard (d) Positive and independent of temperature
(d) Inductive interference between power and UPPCL AE 2015
communication circuits Ans. (a) Temperature coefficient of resistance of an
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 insulator is negative and dependent on temperature.
Ans. (b) The underground cables have several 115. Insulator used in a commutator is
advantages over the overhead lines; they have smaller (a) Mica (b) PVC
voltage drops, low chances of developing faults and (c) Glass (d) Wood
have low maintenance cost. Main drawback of under UPPCL AE 2015
ground system over head system is heavy initial cost. Ans. (a) Mica insulator used in a commutator need to
112. The non-uniform distribution of voltage across separate the commutator segments electrically from one
another by a solid insulator, that done by using mica.
the units in a string of suspension insulators is
due to: 116. Line insulators are made of:
(a) Porcelain (b) Mica
(a) Unequal self capacitance of the units (c) PVC (d) Marble
(b) The existence of stray capacitance between UPPCL AE 2015
the metallic junctions of the units and the Ans. (a) Line insulator are made of porcelain.
tower body. 117. Normal belted cables can be used for voltages:-
(c) Non uniform distance of separation of the (a) 11 kV (b) 11kV- 33kV
units from the tower body. (c) 33kV-66kV (d) 66kV-132kV
(d) Non uniform distance of between the cross- UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
arm and the units. Ans : (a) Belted cable are used for voltages upto 11kV
DMRC AM 2016 but in extraordinary cases, there use may be extended
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 upto 22 kV . In this type of cable are cores are not in
ESE 1998 circuilar shape. The cores of insulated from each other
by uses of impregnated paper.
Ans. (b) : The non-uniform distribution of voltage
across the unit in string of suspension insulator is due to 118. Core is insulated by ______ in a Shielded cable.
(a) Impregnated paper
the existence of stray capacitance between the metallic
(b) VIR
function of unit and the tower body. (c) PVC/PE
(d) Gutta Percha
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Ans : (c) Shielded cable has an extra layer of metal
shield surrounding the conductive wires inside this is
normally either a metal braid or fail, and often has an
insulated conductor core running along side it for easy
connection.
119. Copper as conductor for cables is used as
(a) Hard drawn
113. Which of the following power distribution (b) Hardened and tempered
systems provides greater reliability? (c) Annealed
(a) Radial system of distribution (d) Alloyed with chromium
(b) Ring system of distribution RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
(c) AC 3-phase 4-wire system Ans. (c) : Hard drawn copper is difficult to work with
and stranding and bunching of the finer wires in this
(d) DC distribution state would be very difficult. By heat treating the copper
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI at the correct temperatures the ductility can be restored
Ans. (b) : Ring main distribution system provides to make the cable soft and flexible again. The heat
greater reliability as compared to other distribution treating process is known as annealing and the resulting
system because– method is known as soft annealed copper. So, copper as
• In ring main distribution, there are less voltage conductor for cables is used as Annealed.
fluctuation at consumer's terminal. 120. Which of the following is not a method of
• Ring main system is very reliable as each voltage equalization in a string insulator?
distribution transformer is fed with two feeders. (a) Increasing of length of cross arm
That means, in the event of a fault in any section of (b) Grading of the units
the feeder can be removed and the continuity of the (c) Static shielding
(d) Connecting two discs in parallel
supply is ensured from the alternative path. RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011

Ans. (d) : For equalizing the voltage distribution, the 124.
top unit of the string must have minimum capacitance,
while the disc nearest to the conductor must have
maximum capacitance. The following methods are used
to equalize voltages across the discs in the string
insulations–
(i) Using longer cross Arms
(ii) Grading of insulator discs.
(iii) By using a static shielding. Identify the graph shown in the given figure.
So, connecting two discs in parallel is not a method of (a) Sag chart (b) Stringing chart
voltage equalization in a string insulator. (c) Corona chart (d) Tension chart
121. Which of the following insulators is used in LMRC AM 2020
transmission lines at the river and road Ans. (b) : The above graph show the relation between
crossings? sag and temperature and sag vs temperature which is the
(a) Pin type insulator case of stringing chart.
(b) Suspension type insulator 125. For a line insulator, (puncture voltage) / (flash
(c) Strain type insulator over voltage) is:
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) greater than 1 (b) less than 1
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 (c) equal to 0 (d) equal to 1
Ans. (c) : Strain Insulator–When there is a dead end LMRC AM 2020
of the line or there is corner or sharp curve, this is Ans. (a) : The break down voltage of insulator is
subjected to greater tension. In order to relieve the line generally higher than that of air hence ratio of puncture
from excessive tension, strain insulator are used. For to flash over voltage is greater than 1.
low voltage line (<11 kV), shackle insulators are used 126. Traffic sign indicating speed limit is
as strain insulators. The discs of strain insulators are categorized as
used in the vertical plane. When the tension in lines is (a) Regulatory Sign
exceeding high, as at long river spans, two or more (b) Warning Sign
string are used in parallel. (c) Informatory Sign
122. Bundled conductors are employed to improve (d) Danger Sign
(a) Appearance of the transmission line JUVNL AE 2017
(b) Mechanical stability of the line Ans. (a) : Traffic sign indicating speed limit is
(c) Current capacity of the line categorized as regulatory. Sign term regulatory
(d) Corona performance of the line describes a range of sign that are used to indicate or
APTRANSCO AE 2011 reinforced or traffic laws, regulation or requirements
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 which apply either at all times or at specified times or
places upon a street or highway, the disregard of which
Ans. (d) : Advantages of bundled conductors may constitute a violation, or sign in general that
(i) Bundling of conductors leads to reduction in line regulate public.
inductances so, maximum power transfer 127. Wavy structure of pin insulator increases its :
capability of the line increases. (a) mechanical strength
(ii) Capacitance of the line increase, now since we (b) puncture strength
have L↓ & C↑ → Surge Impedance loading (SIL) (c) flashover voltage
increases. (d) thermal strength
(iii) The most important advantage of bundled HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
conductors is its ability to reduce corona discharge. Ans. (c) : Multiple shells (Petticoats or rain sheds) in
(iv) Reduction in the formation of corona discharge pin type insulator adapted to be mounted on a spindle
leads to less power loss and hence improved are provided in order to obtain sufficient length of
transmission efficiency of the line. leakage path so that the flash over voltage between the
(v) Reduction in communication line interference due power conductor and the pin of the insulator is increase.
to reduction in corona. Wavy structure of pin insulator increase its flashover
123. In a string of suspension insulator, the voltage.
maximum voltage appears across the unit. 128. With the rise in temperature, the insulation
(a) Most far from the conductor resistivity :
(b) Nearest to the conductor (a) Reduces exponentially
(c) At the middle (b) Reduces linearly
(d) None of the above (c) Increases linearly
UJVNL AE 2016 (d) Remains same
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
Ans. (b) In a string of suspension insulator the Ans. (a) : Insulators is negative temperature coefficient
maximum voltage appears across the nearest to the hence the insulation resistivity reduces exponentially
conductor. with the rise in temperature.

129. A suspension insulator has 3 discs with equal Ans. (d) : Total number of strands for n layer cable
capacitance. The capacitance of each joint and = 3n2 – 3n + 1
metal work is 10% of the capacitance of a Where n → number of layer = 3
single disc. The approximate value of So total strand = 3 × 32 – 3 × 3 + 1 = 27 – 9 + 1= 19
maximum line to neutral voltage, for which the 133. In suspension type insulator, the potential drop
string can be used if each disc can withstand a is maximum across-
maximum voltage of up to 6.6 kV, will be____. (a) top disc
(a) 18.5 kV (b) 12.5 kV (b) center disc
(c) 14 kV (d) 17 kV (c) lowest disc
DMRC AM 2018 (d) depends on number of discs of the string
Ans. (d) : V3 = V1 (1 + 3k + k2) APSPDCL AE 2012
V2 = V1 (1 + k) {k = 0.1} Ans. (c) : In suspension type insulator, the potential
So, maximum voltage drop is, drop is maximum across lowest disc.
V3 = 6.6 kV 134. Calculate the string efficiency of 4-units
6.6 suspension insulator, if voltage across the
V1 = = 5.038 kV bottom most unit is 30% of the total voltage.
(1 + 3 × 0.1 + (0.1)
2
(a) 83.3% (b) 50%
V2 = 5.038 × (1.1) = 5.54 kV (c) 75% (d) 63.33%
APPSC AEE 2019
V3 = 6.6 kV
Voltage = (6.6 + 5.03 + 5.54) kV Ans. (a) : Given data
n= 4
= 17.17 V ≃ 17 kV
V4 = 0.30, so string efficiency is –
130. The insulation resistance of a cable of length 10
V 1
km is 1 MΩ, For a length of 100 km of the same ηstring= = × 100
cable, the insulation resistance will be 4 × V4 4 × 0.3
(a) 0.1 MΩ (b) 10 MΩ = 83.33%
(c) 1 MΩ (d) 0.01 MΩ 135. In a 66 kV overhead line there are 3 units in
BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015 the string of insulator. The voltage across the
WBPSC AE 2017 string is:
Ans. (a) : Insulation resistance of cable (a) 66 3 kV (b) 66 kV
1 3
Ri ∝ (c) 66 kV (d) 132 kV
ℓ APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
R 2 ℓ1 Ans. (b) :
=
R1 ℓ 2
ℓ 10
R 2 = 1 R1 = × 1× 106
ℓ2 100
R 2 = 105 MΩ = 0.1MΩ
131. The conductors of 1.6 km long, 3-phase, 3.3 kV
overhead lines are in horizontal formation with
Assume that voltage across each unit are uniformly
762 mm between centres. The effective distributed then-
diameter of the conductors is 3.5 mm. The V V V 3V
equivalent spacing (in mm) is : Starting voltage = + + = =V
3 3 3 3
(a) 560 (b) 762 V 66
(c) 960 (d) 862 Vpn = L = {∵ V = VL }
APTRANSCO AE 2019 3 3
Ans. (c) : 136. A radial power system is represented by
(a) Closed paths
(b) Closed and open paths
(c) Only open paths
d = 762 mm UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
GMD = 3 d × d × 2d = 1.26d Ans. (c) : The Radial distribution is the cheapest to
= 1.26 × 762 mm build and it is widely used in sparsely populated area. A
= 960 mm radial system has only one power source for a group of
132. The number of strands on a 3-layer cable is customers. A radial system is a system having a single
(a) 24 (b) 7 path over which current may flow for a part or all of the
(c) 37 (d) 19 way from the distribution substations to any distribution
APSPDCL AE 2012 transformer.

137. If δ is the loss angle of a cable, its power factor Ans. (a) : Insulation resistance of cable decrease of with
is- ρ R 1
(a) cos δ increase in its length R i = l n ⇒ Ri ∝
2πl r l
(b) sin δ 141. The insulation resistance of a cable of length 5
(c) p.f. is independent of δ km is 2 M Ω, its insulation resistance for 40 km
(d) p.f. is dependent on δ but not as in (a) or (b) length will be :
KPSC AE 2014 (a) 1 MΩ (b) 5 MΩ
Ans. (b) : loss angle = δ, δ is the angle between (c) 0.25 MΩ (d) 16 MΩ
charging current and supply current. HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
Ans. (c) : Insulation resistance
(φ = 90–δ)
ρ R
power factor = cosφ Ri = ln
= cos(90 – δ) = sinδ 2πl r
1 R 1 l2 2 40
Ri ∝ ⇒ = ⇒ =
l R 2 l1 R2 5
2
∴ R 2 = = 0.25MΩ
8
142. Sheath are used in cables to –
(a) Provide proper insulation
(b) Provide mechanical strength
(c) Prevent ingress of moisture
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) : Sheath is used in cable to provide mechanical
strength. Sheath is made of lead alloy. It also protects
workers from electrical shocks.
143. A dc distributor of length, l m and resistance r
ohms/m, fed at both ends with equal voltages, is
Pd = ωCV 2 δ uniformly loaded with i A/m run. The power
loss in the distributor is :
138. Feeder is designed mainly from the point of
view of : i 2 rl 2 i 2 rl 3
(a) (b)
(a) Its current carrying capacity 3 4
(b) Operating voltage 2 3
i rl 2 3
i rl
(c) Voltage drop in it (c) (d)
(d) Operating frequency 8 12
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 APTRANSCO AE 2017
WBPSC AE 2017 Ans. (d) :
Ans. (a) : Feeder is mainly designed based on its
currents carrying capacity. because voltage drop remain
constant.
139. The cable best suited for the transmission of
voltages from 33 kV to 66 kV is ............ Distributor AB of length ℓ meters, having resistance r
(a) Belted cables (b) Screened cables
(c) Pressure cables (d) None of these ohm/m run with uniform loading of I ampere/m run.
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 Let the distributor be fed at the feeding points A and B
Ans. (b) : The cables best suited for transmission of 33 at equal voltage say V volts.
kV to 66 kV is screened cables. iℓ
Current supplied from each feeding point=
Screened cable wire used for transmission of electricity 2
or electronic signal, protected by an enclosing web of Consider a small length dx of the distributor at point P
earthed wire mesh to avoid electromagentic interference which is a distance x from the feeding end A.
from other signal. Resistance of length dx = rdx
140. The insulation resistance of a cable ............ with iℓ ℓ 
the increase in its length : Current in length dx = − ix = i  − x 
2  2 
(a) Decrease
power loss in length dx = (current in dx)2 × resistance of
(b) Increases 2
(c) Remains unchanged  ℓ 
dx = i  − x   × rdx
(d) None of these  2 
Total power loss in distributor is- 146. The insulation resistance of a piece of 10 km
1  ℓ
2
1 ℓ  long single core under ground cable is 10 MΩ .

2
P = ∫ i  − x   rdx = i 2 r ∫  − ℓx + x 2  dx The I.R. for a length of 25 km the same cable
0
 2  0
4 
would be
ℓ
 ℓ 2 x ℓx 2 x 3  (a) 1.6 MΩ (b) 4 MΩ
= i2r  − + 
 4 2 3 0 (c) 25 MΩ (d) 62.5 MΩ
Vizag Steel MT 2013
 ℓ3 ℓ3 ℓ3  Ans. (b) : Given that:-
= i2r  − + 
4 2 3 R1 = 10 MW R2 = ?
 3ℓ3 − 6ℓ 3 + 4ℓ 3  ℓ1 = 10 km
= i2r  
 12  ℓ 2 = 25 km
ℓ 
3
1
= i2r   ∵ R∝
12  ℓ
i 2 rℓ3 R 2 ℓ1
P= =
12 R1 ℓ 2
144. A single core cable is designed to work for a 10
single phase system with a peak voltage of 220 R 2 = 10 × 106 ×
25
kV. The maximum permissible stress in the R 2 = 4MΩ
dielectric is not to exceed 20 kV/mm. For
147. A lead sheath is used in an under ground cable
economical size, the overall core diameter of
to
the cable is : (a) prevent ingress of moisture
(a) 28.2 mm (b) 26.4 mm (b) provide mechanical strength.
(c) 24.4 mm (d) 22.0 mm (c) provide adequate insulation
APTRANSCO AE 2017 (d) increase the capacitance to earth
Ans. (d) : Peak voltage of single core cable = 220 kV Vizag Steel MT 2013
maximum permissible stress in the dielectric = gmax Ans. (a) : A lead sheath is used in an underground cable
= 20 kV/mm to prevent ingress of moisture. It is made up of
V Aluminium or jute. A lead sheath can be used as a
gmax = , radius of the cable = r
r chemical barrier in low, medium and instrumentation
220 cables for all kinds of proto-chemical project.
r= = 11 mm 148. Insulation resistance of 1 m length of a cable is
20
overall core diameter = 2 × r = 2 × 11 = 22.0 mm 104 MΩ . the insulation resistance of 100 m
length of the same cable will be
145. For a uniformly loaded dc distribution fed at
(a) 102 MΩ (b) 104 MΩ
one end, the maximum voltage drop is found to 6
(c) 10 MΩ (d) 108 MΩ
be 10V. If it is fed at both ends at the same Vizag Steel MT 2013
voltage, the maximum voltage drop would be
Ans. (a) : Given : R1 = 104 MΩ
(a) 2.5 V (b) 5.0 V
(c) 10 V (d) 20 V ℓ1 = 1 m
Vizag Steel MT 2013 ℓ2 = 100 m
Ans. (a) : For a uniformly loaded DC distribution R2 = ?
1 Insulation resistance ,
feeder, voltage drop when feeded on both end = IR
8 1
R∝
1 l
and voltage drop when feeded on one side = IR
2 then,
1 R 2 l1
IR = 10, IR = 20V =
2 R 1 l2
So, voltage drop when feeded on both end= R2 1
1 1 4
=
× IR = × 20 10 100
8 8
R 2 = 102 MΩ
= 2.5V

149. Screened cables are used to make the electric 152. Installation of high voltage bus-bar in a sub-
field distribution within the cable station requires
(a) tangential (b) radial (a) disc insulator (b) shackle insulator
(c) rotating (d) none of these (c) post insulator (d) pin insulator
Vizag Steel MT 2013 Vizag Steel MT 2013
Ans. (a) : As disc insulators have high dielectric
Ans. (b) : Screened Cable– It is designed ensure that
strength. They can withstand high voltage. Hence they
the stress is substaintially radial and hence normal to the
are used in installation of high voltage bus-bar in a
paper surface and is also contain within the machine substation.
lapped insulation which is electrically strong. Therefore
153. Ring main distribution is preferred to a radial
screened cable are used to make the electric field system because:
distribution within the cable radial. (a) Voltage drop in the feeder is less and supply
150. Basic impulse level of 11kV distribution system is more reliable
as per IS specification is (b) Voltage drop in the feeder is less and power
(a) 100 KVp (b) 85 KVp factor is high
(c) 75 KVp (d) 45 KVp (c) Power factor is high and supply is more
Vizag Steel MT 2013 reliable
(d) Power factor is high and system is less
Ans. (c) : Basic impulse level of 11 KV distribution
expensive
system as per as specification is 75 KVp. When impulse OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
over voltage appear it is discharged through surge Ans. (a) :
protecting device. Hence insulation of these devices
must be designed to withstand a certain minimum
voltage. So basic impulse level of 11 KV distribution
system as per specification is 75KVp.
151. A uniformly loaded DC Distributor is fed at
both ends with equal voltages. As compared to
a similar distributor fed at one end only, the
drop at the middle point is:
(a) One forth (b) One third
(c) One half (d) Twice
LMRC AM 2018
Ans. (a) : Uniformly Loaded Distributor Fed at Both
End with Equal Voltage– In this maximum voltage
drop occurs at middle point. If V1 is the maximum
voltage drop when loaded at both end Radial feeder is the simplest most economical and the
1 most commonly used feeder. It has the drawback of
So, V1 = IR .....(1)
8 poor reliability and greater voltage drop while in ring
Where, I = line current main feeder, distributor makes a closed loop or ring and
R = line resistance fed at or more than one points and in ring main
Uniformly Loaded Distributor Fed at One End with distribution system voltage drop in the feeder is less and
Equal Voltage– In this also maximum voltage drop supply is more reliable.
occurs at middle point. If V2 is the maximum voltage 154. The dielectric strength of Empire tape
when loaded at one end. insulation is about.
(a) 4kV/m (b) 4 kV/mm
1
Then, V2 = IR .....(2) (c) 40 kV/mm (d) 40 kV/m
2 (e) 4 V/mm
By equation (1) & (2) CGPSC AE 2017
1 Ans. (b) : Empire tape is used for cable insulation,
IR
V1 8 conductor wrapping and connection wrapping Empire
=
V2 1 IR tape is produced by impregnation of fine quality
2 electrical grade polysilk yearn with glyptal varnish and
other insulating grade oil. The dielectric strength of
1 Empire tape insulation is about 4kV/mm. This tape is
V1 = V2
4 strong and flexible and dimensionally stable.
155. For a three phase transmission line, the 157. A conductor is composed of seven identical
conductors are spaced horizontally with copper strands each having a radius r, the self
spacing between adjacent conductors equal to GMD of the conductor will be:
'd'. If the conductors are rearranged to form (a) r (b) 2r
an equilateral triangle of side 'd', then : (c) 2.177r (d) 3.177r
(a) The line capacitance and inductance both DMRC AM 2016
increase Ans. (c) :
(b) The line capacitance and inductance both
decrease
(c) The line inductance increases while the
capacitance decreases
(d) The line inductance decreases while the
capacitance increases
DMRC AM 2016
Ans. (d) :
The self GMD of the seven strands conductor is the 49th

root of the 49 distances. Thus,
GMD = ( d × d × 2d )
1/ 3 1
Ds = ( r′ ) × ( D12 ) × ( 2r )6 
GMR = 0.7788 r 7 2 6 49
2
× D 226 × D14
2
× D17
GMD = 1.26d 
Substituting the values of varies distances.
1
Ds = ( 0.7788r ) × ( 22 r 2 × 3 × 22 r 2 × 22 r × 2r × 2r ) 
7 6 49
 
1
2r ( 3) × ( 0.7788 )  7
Ds = 1
GMD = ( d × d × d )
49
1/ 3
GMR = 0.7788 r 6
Ds = 2.1767 r
GMD = 1.26 d Ds ≃ 2.177 r
Since GMD and GMR same in both cases. Then,
158. Insulation resistance of a cable 20km long is
 GMD 
L/Ph ∝ GMD and ∵L = 2 ×10–7 ℓn   1MΩ. Two cable lengths, 20km and 10km are
 GMR  connected in parallel. The insulation resistance
1 2πε0 of the parallel combination is:
C/Ph ∝ C=
GMD  GMD  (a) 1.5MΩ (b) 1MΩ
ℓn  
 GMR  (c) 0.66MΩ (d) 0.5MΩ
∴ Capacitance will increase and inductance will DMRC AM 2016
decrease. Ans. (c) : As we know that :-
156. The main requirements of the insulating 1
insulation Resistance ∝ ℓ = length of the cable
materials used for cables is : ℓ
(a) low insulation resistance (b) tenacity ∵ insulation resistance (R1) for 20 km = 1 MΩ (given)
(c) hygroscopicity (d) less elasticity
BHEL ET 2019 ∴ Insulation resistance (R2) for 10 km =?
Ans. (b) : The main requirement of insulating material R1 ℓ 2
=
used for the cable are- R 2 ℓ1
High insulation resistance to avoid Leakage
1×106 10
current. =
High dielectric strength to avoid electrical R2 20
breakdown of cable. ∴ R2 = 2 MΩ
Good mechanical properties (tenacity and ∴Insulation resistance of the parallel
combination ( R eq )
elasticity).
Immune to attack by acids and alkaline.
Non hydroscopic R1 × R 2 1× 106 × 2 × 106
Non inflammable = =
R1 + R 2 1× 106 + 2 ×106
Low coefficient of thermal expansion
Low permittivity. Req = 0.66 MΩ

159. A dc 3- wire distributor system requires how Ans. (d) : The insulation strength of EHV transmission
much of copper as compared with a dc 2-wire line is mainly designed for switching over voltage.
distributor system? Switching over voltage is transient in nature. When the
(a) Only 33.33% (b) Only 66.66% loaded line is suddenly switched ON or OFF,
5 5 Switching over voltage is produced that time.
(c) Only (d) Only
6 16 162. Insulation resistance of a cable of length 20 km
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I is 2 M Ω. What will be the insulation resistance
Ans : (d) A dc 3-wire distributor system requires less of the same cable but for a length of 200 km?
copper than either single phase or two phase distribution (a) 2 MΩ (b) 20 MΩ
system volume of conductor material (copper) in 3- (c) 0.2 MΩ (d) 200 MΩ
wire system
2.5p2 ρℓ 2 Ans. (c) : Given that:-
= = 0.3125 K. − − − − − − − (i)
2ωV 2 m Insulation Resistance (R1) = 2 MΩ
and volume of copper required in length of cable (ℓ1) = 20 km
4ρp 2 ℓ 2
2 wire system = = k − − − − − − − −(ii) length of cable (ℓ2) = 200 km
ωVm 2
Insulation resistance (R2) =?
2.5p2 ρℓ 2 / 2ωVm 2 5 formula used-
Dividing (i)/(ii) = = only
4ρp 2 ℓ / ωVm 2 16 1
Insulation resistance ( R ) ∝
160. A single phase AC distribution line supplies ℓ
two single phase loads as shown in the figure
R 2 ℓ1
below. The impedances of line segments A-B =
and B-C are j0.25 Ω and j0.35 Ω respectively. R1 ℓ 2
The voltage drop from A to C is R 20
= 2 =
2 200
20
R2 = ×2
200
R2 = 0.2 MΩ
(a) 30+j 4.5 V (b) 4.5 + j 30 V 163. String efficiency of 100% means in string
(c) 30–j 4.5 V (d) 4.5–j 30 V insulators–
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I (a) Self-capacitance is zero
Ans : (b) (b) Shunt capacitance is maximum
(c) Self-capacitance is maximum
(d) Shunt capacitance is zero
Ans. (d) :
String insulators circuit diagram is as follows:
I B = 30∠ − cos −1 0.8
= 30∠ − 36.87°A
IC = 40∠0°A
I AB = I B + IC = 66.48∠ − 15.7°A
V = ( 66.48∠ − 15.7° ) . ( 0.25∠90° ) + ( 40∠0° ) .( 0.35∠90° )
V = 30.34∠81.47°
V = (4.5 + j30)volt
where, CS is shunt capacitance and C is self-
161. The insulation strength of an EHV
transmission line is designed mainly with the capacitance. If we calculate relation between V1, V2 and
following consideration V3, then
(a) Harmonics CS = C1 = kC
(b) Load power factor V2 = (1 + C)V1................(1)
(c) Corona
(d) Switching over voltage V3 = V1 (1 + 3C + C2 ).......(2)
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II This condition will hold its value of C in Eqs. (1) and
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI (2) equal to zero. That means shunt capacitor should be
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I zero.
164. The current carrying capacity of cables in DC Ans. (b) : The dielectric strength of air at a barometric
is more than that in AC mainly due to– pressure of 76 cm and 25°C is 30 kV/cm of maximum
(a) Absence of harmonics voltage and 21.1 kV/cm of r.m.s. voltage. The dielectric
(b) Non-existence of any stability limit strength of a material is a measure of dielectric strength
(c) Smaller dielectric loss of a insulator.
(d) Absence of ripple It is defined as the maximum voltage required to
produced a dielectric breakdown through the material
and it expressed in term of volt per unit thickness.
Ans. (c) : For DC current, there is no inductance and no
capacitive reactance. Therefore, low dielectric loss168. When 7/0.029 V.I.R cable is carrying 20 A, a
drop of 1 V occurs every 12 m. The voltage
occurs for DC. Therefore, current-carrying capacity is
drop in a 100 m run of this cable when it is
increased as compared to AC. In case of AC dielectric
carrying 10 A is nearly
loss is maximum due to inductance and conductance. (a) 4.2 V (b) 3.2 V
165. The earth wire should not be thinner than a – (c) 1.2 V (d) 0.42 V
(a) 20 SWG wire (b) 16 SWG wire ESE 2017
(c) 10 SWG wire (d) 8 SWG wire Ans. (a) : Given,
If 20 A current carrying voltage drop is 1 volt for 12 m.
Ans. (d) : Due to mechanical strength considerations,Then for 10 A current carrying voltage drop is 0.5 volt
the earth wire should not be thinner than 8 SWG for 12 m
(Standard Wire Gauge). As per British standard wire For 100 meters
gauge, 0.5
× 100 = 4.16 ≃ 4.2V
8 SWG = 4.064 mm (Diameter) 12
166. The voltage stress will be maximum in an Directions:
underground cable at– consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement
(a) The surface of the sheath. (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these
(b) The surface of the conductor. two statements carefully and select the answers to
(c) The surface of the insulation. these items using the codes given below:
(d) The surface of the armour. Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
Ans. (b) : Since, supply is given in core which contain correct explanation of Statement (I)
conductor, this voltage supply creates potential gradient (b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
because insulation layer which out covers conductor is individually true; but Statement (II) is
maintained at ground potential. This potential difference NOT the correct explanation of Statement
creates dielectric stress. So stress will be maximum at (I)
the point where, maximum voltage appears. That mean (c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is
surface of the conductor. false
true
169. Statement (I) : A ‘bedding’ is provided over to
the metallic sheath in an underground cable.
Statement (II) : The bedding protects the metallic
sheath against corrosion.
ESE 2018
Ans. (c) : Bedding in provided over to the metallic
sheet in and an underground cable. Hence statement (I)
is true.
The purpose of bedding is to protect the sheath from
mechanical injury due to armouring. you can think a
167. The dielectric strength of air at a barometric shock absorber and hence statement (II) is false.
pressure of 76 cm and 25 degree centigrade is– 170. The dielectric loss in the insulation of a lossy
(a) 30 kV/meter. underground cable, due to leakage current is
(b) 21.1 kV rms/cm. (using standard notations)
(c) 21.1 kV rms/mm. (a) ωCV2 cosδ (b) ωCV tanδ
(d) 110 kV/meter. (c) ωCV2 tanδ (d) ωCV sinδ
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013 ESE 2018
Ans. (c) : R.C. parallel circuit represents dielectric 173. Consider the following properties regarding
material of a cable R represents loss in Dielectric. insulation for cables:
Power Loss = V.IR 1. A low specific resistance
Phasor Diagram = 2. High temperature withstand
3. High dielectric strength
Which of the above properties of insulation are
correct while using cables?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2019
Ans. (c) : The insulation of cables should have.
a high specific resistance
I high temperature with stand capability
tan δ = R (from Phasor Diagram), {tanδ = loss tangent high dielectric strength to handle high voltage stress.
IC
174. The electric stress in the underground cable is
angle} (a) Maximum at the conductor and minimum at
V the sheath
Power loss = VIR = VIC tan δ = V. tan δ = V ωC tanδ
2
XC (b) Zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
(c) Minimum at the conductor and maximum at
171. A concentric cable has a conductor diameter of
the sheath
1 cm and an insulation thickness of 1.5 cm. (d) Same as conductor and sheath
When the cable is subjected to a test pressure UPPCL AE 2014
of 33kV, the maximum field strength will be Ans. (a) : The electric stress in the under ground cable
nearly is maximum at the conductor and minimum at the
(a) 41,000V (b) 43,200V sheath.
(c) 45,400V (d) 47,600V V
ESE 2019 E max = V/cm
R
r ln
Ans. (d) : Given data r
Conductor diameter (2r = d) = 1 cm 175. The voltage at farthest load point from supply
Insulation thickness (t) = 1.5 cm at one end will be the least always for
test voltage (V) = 33 kV (a) Ring system
Hence D = 2R = 2r + 2t = d + 2t = 4 cm (b) interconnected system
Maximum field strength is given as (c) Network system
V V (d) Radial system
Emax = = UPPCL AE 2014
R rln D / d
rℓ n Ans. (d) : The voltage at farthest load point from
r
supply at one end will be the least always for radial
33000
= = 47608.93 V system.
4 cm
0.5ln 176. If the length of a cable is doubled, its
1
capacitance
172. Radio influence voltage (RIV) generated on a (a) Becomes one-fourth
transmission line conductor surface is not (b) Becomes one-half
affected by (c) Becomes double
(a) System voltage (d) Remains unchanged
(b) Corona discharges on the conductors MPPSC AE 2017
(c) Rain MPPSC AE 2014
(d) Nearby radio receivers Ans. (c) : The length of the cable and the capacitance of
ESE 2019 the cable are directly proportional to each other. Hence,
if the length gets doubled, then the capacitance also can
Ans. (d) : Radio influence voltage depends on
be doubled.
Operating system voltage
ε A
Corona discharge C= 0
Surface irregularity d
V
Atmospheric conditions (rain, dust) Ic = Vp ωc0 L ( Cs + Cc )
Though it does not depend upon nearby radio receivers. 3

(v) Load Flow Studies Ans : (a) Number of buses, n = 100
m = PV Bus = 9 
10 generator Bus
1. If a 5-bus test system contains 6 transmission Slack Bus = 1 
lines and one transformer, how may non-zero
Jacobian = 2n – (m +2)
elements are there in the system Y-bus?
= 200 – (9+2) =189
(a) 25 (b) 12
So, 189×189
(c) 11 (d) 19
APTRANSCO AE 2017 4. In case of load flow analysis one of the system
buses is taken as swing bus
Ans. (d) :
Total number of buses = 5 (a) as reference bus
Total number of transmission lines = 6 (b) to compensate the system losses
Number of non zero element in the Y bus system, (c) both (a) and (b)
=(Total no. of buses)2 – (Total no. of transmission lines) (d) to reduce the system losses
= 52 –6 UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
= 25 – 6 = 19 Ans. (c) : Slack, Swing or Reference Bus:
2. For a power system network with n nodes, Z33 • At this bus, the voltage magnitude V and phase angle
of its bus impedance matrix is j0.5 per unit. δ are specified whereas real and reactive powers PG and
The voltage at node 3 is 1.3∠-100 per unit. If a QG are obtained through the load flow analysis.
capacitor having reactance of –j3.5 per unit is • Swing bus is used to compensate the system losses.
now added to the network between node 3 and 5. A power system is represented by its system
the reference node, the current drawn by the matrix ZBUS (m × m). Now an element is added
capacitor per unit is in power system network without creating a
(a) 0.325∠1000 (b) 0.325∠800 new node. The dimension of the new impedance
0
(c) 0.371∠100 (d) 0.433∠800 matrix will be
APPSC AEE 2019 (a) m × m (b) (m + 1) × (m + 1)
Ans. (d) : (c) (m – 1) × (m – 1) (d) (m + 2) × (m + 2)
Ans. (a) : The ZBus matrix is known for a partial
network having m buses and a reference bus O. The
VBus is a column vector of bus voltages measured with
respect to the reference node, IBus is a column vector m
× 1 of injected bus currents and ZBus is an m × n matrix.
Thevenin's equivalent impedance between bus (3) and
6. Following two statements are marked Assertion
ref. bus is Z33.
(a) and Reason (R). Select the correct answer
Z 33 = j0.5 pu
Thevenin's equivalent voltage between bus (3) and ref. using the codes given below :
bus = 1.3 ∠ -100 Assertion (a) : Load flow analysis is usually
carried out using YBUS.
Reason (R) : YBUS generally matches the network
topology but not sparse.
Codes :
(a) (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct
explanation of (a).
(b) (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (a).
1.3∠ − 100 (c) (a) is false, but (R) is true.
IC =
j0.5 − j3.5 (d) (a) is true, but (R) is false.
1.3∠ − 100 UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
IC = = 0.433∠800 Ans. (d) : • Y-bus matrix is a sparse matrix (a few
− j3.0
number of elements are non-zero) for an actual power
3. A power system has 100 buses including 10 system.
generator buses. For the load flow analysis
• For large system YBus matrix is used as load flow
using Newton-Raphson method in polar
analysis.
coordinate, the size of the jacobian is-
(a) 189*189 (b) 100*100 • ZBus is a full matrix. For small systems Zbus can be
(c) 90*90 (d) 180*180 obtained by current injection method or the step by
RPSC AE 2018 step formulation of Zbus method.

7. For the use of Newton-Raphson method, the 11. The Y parameter of the following network is
non-linear algebraic equations are made linear  0 -1/2
with the help of 1/2 1 
(a) By decoupling the equations  
(b) Taylor series expansion (a) Non reciprocal and active
(c) Exponential distribution (b) Non reciprocal and passive
(c) Reciprocal and active
(d) Nothing can be said
(d) Reciprocal and passive
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : Newton-Raphson method is an iterative
Ans. (a) : Reciprocal condition in Y parameter Y12=Y21
method which approximates the set of non-linear
1 1
simultaneous equations to a set of linear simultaneous Here, Y12 = − , Y21 =
equations using Taylor's series expansion and the terms 2 2
are limited to first approximation. So, Y12 ≠ Y21
8. In the load flow analysis, Jacobian is Hence, network is non reciprocal and active
represented as 12. Which one of the following matrices reveals the
 H N topology of the power system network?
M L  (a) Bus incidence matrix
  (b) Primitive impedance matrix
For decoupled load flow analysis the (c) Primitive admittance matrix
assumptions made are (d) Bus impedance matrix
(a) M = 0; L = 0 (b) H = 0; L = 0 TNPSC AE 2019
(c) M = 0; N = 0 (d) H = 0; N = 0 Ans. (a) : The bus incidence matrix has e(n-1)
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I dimension since one node become reference.
 ∆P   ∆δ  13. For the load flow solution of a power system, at
Ans. (c) :   =   least one bus is selected as slack bus to
 ∆Q   ∆ / E / E  (a) compensate the line losses occurring in the
where H, N, M and L are elements of Jacobian matrix. power system
For decoupled load flow analysis (b) meet the reactive power
 ∆P   H O   ∆δ  (c) meet the unforeseen loads
 ∆Q  =  O L   ∆ / E / E  (d) all the above
     UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
9. Load flow study of a power system is mainly Ans. (d) : Load flow problem never converges due to
carried out for unbalance between generation and demand of load.
(a) fault calculations Therefore for the load flow solution of a power system
(b) stability studies at least one bus is selected as slack but to compensate
(c) system planning and operation the line losses occurring in the power system, meet the
(d) load frequency control reactive power and meet the unforeseen loads.
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I 14. The better method for load flow analysis of a
Ans. (c) : • The load flow solution gives the nodal large power system in sense of memory
voltages and phase angles and hence the power injection requirement and computation is
at all the buses and power flows through inter- (a) Newton-Raphson method
connecting power channels. (b) Gauss - Siedel method
• Load flow study is essential for designing a new (c) Decoupled method
power system and for planning extension of the existing (d) Fast-decoupled method
one for increased load demand. UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
10. If a voltage-controlled bus is treated as load Ans. (c) : The fast decoupled method advantageous
bus, then which one of the following limits with N-R method to less iteration and less computation.
would be violated? Hence size of Jacobian matrix will decrease with
(a) Active power (b) Reactive power comparison to N-R- method.
Decoupled method is used to memorise and load
(c) Voltage (d) Phase angle
scheduling with lots of computer work.
TSPSC AEE 2017
15. The acceleration factor to increase the rate of
Ans. (b) : In a power system,
convergence in Gauss-Siedel Method lies
known quantity on voltage controlled bus = V, δ between-
known quantity on load bus = P, Q (a) 0.14 to 0.16 (b) 1.0 to 1.2
when the reactive power violated in a bus then, voltage (c) 1.4 to 1.6 (d) 0.18 to 0.20
controlled bus treated as a load bus. UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
Ans. (c) : The convergence is Gauss–Siedel is very low Ans. (a) : Given, power system bus
when compared to other load flow. So, in order to
increase the convergence speed acceleration factor (α)
is used. Acceleration factor 'α' should be chosen based
on trail and error method. Generally 'α' will be in range
of 1.6 to 1.8.
16. The polynomial which takes the following
values-
y(0) = 1; y(1) = 0; y(2) = 1 and y(3) = 10
can be obtained, using Newton's forward Z23 = 0.02 + j0.02
interpolation formula, as- = 0.028 ∠ 45º
(a) x 3 − x 2 + 1 (b) x 3 − 2 x 2 + 2 1 1
(c) 2 x 3 − x 2 + 1 (d) x 3 − 2 x 2 + 1 Y23 = =
Z 23 0.028∠45
= 35.35 ∠ –45º
Ans. (d) : Given : = 35.35 cos (–45º) + 35.35 jsin (–45º)
y(0) = 1, y(1) = 0, y(2) = 1, y(3) = 10 Y23 = (25 – 25 j) mho
Find polynomial by using Newton's forward
18. In the Gauss elimination method for solving a
interpolation formula = ?
system of linear algebraic equations,
x y ∇y ∇ 2 y ∇ 3 y triangularzation leads to
0 1 (a) diagonal matrix
−1 (b) lower triangular matrix
1 0 2 (c) upper triangular matrix
1 6 (d) singular matrix
2 1 8 WBPSC AE 2017
9 Ans. (c) :
3 10 19. The method of successive displacement is a :
x − x0 x − x0 x − 0 x (a) Newton-Raphson method
r= = = = =x (b) bus admittance matrix method
h x 2 − x1 2 − 1 1
(c) Gauss-Seidel method
By Newton's forward interpolation formula : (d) power factor correction method
x(x − 1) 2 x(x − 1)(x − 2) 3 OMC Deputy manager 2019
yr = y0 + x∇y + ∇ y+ ∇ y + .....
2! 3! Ans. (c) : In linear algebra, Gauss Seidel method also
x(x − 1) x(x − 1)(x − 2) known as the Liebmann method or the method of
yx = 1 + x(−1) + ×2+ ×6
2! 3! successive displacement, is an iterative method used to
2 2 solve a linear system of equations.
(x − x) × 2 x(x − 3x + 2)
=1 − x + + ×6 20. Which of the following steps does not hold true
2 ×1 3 × 2 ×1 for the steps involved in the Newton-Raphson
= 1 – x + x2 – x + x3 – 3x2 + 2x method of load flow study?
2 3
= 1 – 2x + x (0)
3 2
(a) Use the estimated V and δ(0) to formulate
y x = x − 2x + 1
the Jacobian matrix j(0).
(0)
17. Find the Y23 for the power system shown in (b) Use the estimated V and δ(0) to calculate a
figure given below-
total n number of injected real power Pcalc(0)
and an equal number of real power mismatch
∆P(0).
(c) Choose initial values of the voltage
(0)
magnitude V of all np load buses and n-1
angles δ of the voltages of all the buses
(0)
except the slack bus.

(0)
(d) Use the estimated V and δ(0) to calculate a
total np number of injected reactive power
(a) (+25 – j 25) mho (b) (–25 + j 25) mho Qcalc(0) and an equal number of reactive
(c) (–25 + j 25) mho (d) (–50 + j 25) mho power mismatch ∆Q(0).
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I OMC Deputy manager 2019
Ans. (b) : All the three options (a), (c) and (d) are Ans. (a) : 2-bus power system
correct for steps involved in the Newton-Raphson j 15 10 
Bus impedance matrix = 
method of load flow study, option (b) does not hold 80 10 12 
true.
21. Compared to Gauss-Seidel method, Netwon-
Rephson method takes
(a) less number of iterations and more time per
iteration
(b) less number of iterations and less time per
iteration
(c) more number of iterations and more time per
iteration If j0.1 is removed
(d) more number of iterations and less time per Z Z12 
iteration Then =  11 
Z
 21 Z 22 
WBPSC AE 2008
ESE 1999 Z12 = 0
Z21 = 0
Ans. (b) :
22. In a N-bus power system containing one slack 0.5 0 
Hence Zbus = j  
bus and (N–1) load buses the size of the  0 0.2 
Jacobian ........... will be 25. In load flow analysis, the load at a bus is
(a) N × N represented as :
(b) 2 N × 2N (a) A constant current drawn from the bus
(c) (2N–2) × (2N–2) (b) A constant impedance connected at a bus
(d) (2S–1) × (2N–1) (c) Constant real and reactive power drawn from
WBPSC AE 2008 the bus
Ans. (c) : (d) A voltage-dependant impedance at the bus
23. Find the odd one out : HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
(a) Gauss elimination method KPSC AE 2014
(b) Gauss Seidel iteration method TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
(c) Gauss Jordan elimination method UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
(d) Least Square fitting Ans. (c) : In load flow studies, load is represented at
WBPSC AE 2007 load bus with constant real & reactive power drawn
Ans. (c) : from the bus.
24. For 2-bus power system shown the bus 26. One-line diagram of a 3-bus power system is
j 15 10  given in figure. The line admittances are
impedance matrix is . if the
80 10 12  marked in per unit. The first row of the YBus
reactance of j0.1 is removed the Zbus of that
network will be:
0.5 0   0.25 −0.16 

(a) j   (b) j   (a) ( 20 − j 50 )( −10 + j 20 )( −10 + j 30 ) 
 0 0.2   −0.16 0.32 
(b) ( 20 − j 50 )(10 − j 20 )(10 − j 30 ) 
 0.15 0   0.1875 0  (c) (10 − j 20 )( −10 + j 20 )( −10 + j 30 ) 
(c) j   (d) j  
 −0.16 0.1875   −0.16 0.32 
(d) ( 20 + j 50 )( −10 + j 20 )( −10 + j 30 ) 
Ans. (a) : 30. Which of the following factors are assessed by
performing load flow studies on a power
system network?
a. MW and MVAR at different buses
b. Bus bar voltages
c. To determine network reliability
d. To minimize system losses
(a) a only
Y11 = Y12 + Y13
= (10 –j20) + (10 – j30) (b) a, b & d
Y11 = 20 – 50j (c) a, b & c
Y12 = –Y12 = –10+20j (d) All the above factors
Y13 = –Y13 = –10+30j Karnataka PSC AE 2016
27. Number of iterations required for convergence Ans. (d) : Factor are assessed by performing load flow
of a load flow algorithm increases significantly studies on a power system network–
with increase of number of buses with • MW and MVAR at different buses
(a) G-S load flow algorithm • Bus bar voltages
(b) N-R load flow algorithm • To determine network reliability
(c) both G-S and N-R load flow algorithms • To minimize system losses
(d) Fast decoupled load flow algorithm
31. The approximate percentage of load buses and
TSTRANSCO AE 2018
generation buses is a power system are
Ans. (a) : Gauss-Seidel method is significantly used
respectively
when increment in no. of buses. So no. of iterations also
(a) 85%, 15% (b) 15%, 85%
increase.
(c) 40%, 60% (d) 60%, 40%
28. In load flow studies of a power system, a
voltage control bus is specified by
(a) Real power and reactive power Ans. (a) : The approximate percentage of load buses
(b) Reactive power and voltage magnitude and generation buses is a power system are 85%, 15%
(c) Voltage and voltage phase angle respectively.
(d) Real power and voltage magnitude 32. In the load flow study of a power system, if P
RPSC VPITI 2018 and |V| are specified at a bus, it is a
Ans. (d) : In load flow studies of a power system, a (a) slack bus
voltage control bus is specified by real power and (b) load bus
voltage magnitude. Voltage controlled bus also known (c) voltage controlled bus
as generator bus in which voltage (V) and Real power (d) nothing can be said
(P) is specified and Q and δ is unspecified so it is also UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
known as PV buses. So, Voltage control bus is Ans. (c) : In the load flow study of a power system, if P
specified by real power and voltage magnitude. and |V| are specified at a bus, it is a voltage controlled
29. If the reference bus is changed in two load flow bus.
runs with same system data and power 33. Load flow study is carried out for
obtained for reference bus taken as specified P (a) Fault calculations
and Q in the latter run, the system losses– (b) Planning of power system
(a) Will be unchanged but complex bus voltages
(c) Load frequency control
will change
(d) Study of stability of the system
(b) Will change but complex bus voltage remain
unchanged
(c) As well as complex bus voltage will changed HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
(d) As well as complex bus voltage will be UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
unchanged Ans. (b) : A load flow study is the analysis of an
APTRANSCO AE 2011 electrical network carried out by an electrical engineer.
Ans. (a) : The system losses are function of system The purpose is to understand how power flows around
properties which are independent of choosing a type of the electrical network. In addition to power flow, a load
bus, where as the complex bus voltage is a function of flow study is often used to investigate other parameters
parameter which are being calculated. Hence, the such as current flow, system power factors, losses and
system losses will be unchanged but complex bus equipment loading. So, load flow study is carried out
voltages will change. for planning of power system.
34. Gauss-Seidel method can be used for solving a Ans. (b) : Gauss Seidel iterative method is for solving
set of: the both Linear and non linear differential equations.
(a) linear differential equations only The Gauss- Seidal method is an iterative technique for
(b) linear algebraic equations only
solving a square system of n-linear equations with
(d) both linear and non-linear algebraic equations unknown X :
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I AX = b
Ans. (b) : Gauss-Seidel method can be used for solving It is defined by the iteration :
a set of linear algebraic equations only.  L ( K +1) = b − U ( K ) 
35. A network containing 50 buses in which 10 are  x x 

the voltage control buses, 6 are the generator {x(K) = Kth approximation or iteration of X}
buses. Find the size of the Jacobian matrix. 39. For a 15 bus power system with a 3 voltage
(a) 84*84 (b) 83*83 controlled bus, the size of the Jacobian matrix
(c) 34*34 (d) 33*33
is
(a) 25 × 25 (b) 11 × 11
Ans. (b) Size of Jacobian matrix
= (2n – m – 2)* (2n – m – 2) (c) 22 × 22 (d) 12 × 12
Where, n = number of bus CIL MT 2020
m = number of PV bus Ans. (a) : Number of bus (n) = 15
(2 × 50 - 10 - 5 - 2)* (2 × 50 - 10 - 5 - 2) Voltage controlled bus (m) = 3
(100 - 17) *(100 - 17) then–
(83*83)* (83*83) Size of the Jacobian matrix
36. Solving x2–2=0 by Newton-Raphson technique, = (2n – m – 2) × (2n – m – 2)
when initial guess x0 = 1.0, then subsequent = (2 × 15 – 3– 2) × (2 × 15 – 3 – 2)
estimate of x i.e. x1 will be –
= 25 × 25
(a) 1.414 (b) 1.5
(c) 2.0 (d) cannot be obtained 40. Find the Y bus matrix for the data give below.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II From To Resistance Reactance
1 2 0 0.34
Ans. (b) : Let, f (x) = x 2 − 2
2 3 0 0.42
f (1) = −1, f '(x) = 2x (∵ x = x0 = 1)
1 3 0 0.30
f ' (1) = 2 2 0 0 0.15
f (x 0 ) 3 0 0 0.1
x1 = x 0 − ( x 0 = 1)
f '(x 0 )
f (1) (−1) − j45 j15 j10
= 1− = 1− = 1.5
f '(1) 2 (a) j15 − j35 j15
37. In which of the following methods proper j10 j15 − j45
choice of initial value is very important ?
(a) Bisection method (b) False position
(c) Newton-Raphson (d) Bairstow method − j6.27 j2.94 j3.33
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (b) j2.94 − j11.98 j2.381
Ans. (c) : Newton-Raphson –Newton-Raphson method j3.33 j2.381 − j15.714
is an iterative method which approximates the set of
non-linear simultaneous equation to set of linear
simultaneous equation using Taylor's series expansion. − j10.44 j7.10 j3.33
in Newton-Raphson methods proper choice of initial (c) j7.10 − j16.155 j2.381
value is very important.
j3.33 j2.381 − j15.714
38. Gauss Seidel iterative method for solving the :
(a) Both linear and non linear algebraic equations
(b) Both linear and non linear differential − j6.99 j3.33 j2.00
equations (d) j3.33 − j5.83 j2.5
(c) Solving differential equation
(d) Solving algebraic equation j2.00 j2.5 − j6.1617
CIL MT 2020 CIL MT 2020
Ans. (b) : Here No. of buses = 3 Ans. (e) : Given,
Total bus (n) = 300
Total load bus (m) = (Generator bus + Reactive power
support bus – slack bus)
m = (20+25–1) (Let slack bus = 1)
m = 44
Size of jacobian matrix
[ J ]n×n = ( 2n − m − 2 ) × ( 2n − m − 2 )
So, matrix will be formed of order 3 × 3 = (2×300–44–2)×(2×300–44–2)
1 1 = (600–46)×(600–46)
y13 = = = − j3.33 [J] = 554×554
X13 j0.3 n×n
42. In comparison to Gauss Seidal, Newton
1 1
y12 = = = − j2.94 Raphson method takes:
X12 j0.34 (a) Less no. of iteration and more time per
1 1 iteration
y 23 = = = − j2.381
X 23 j0.42 (b) Less no. of iteration and less time per
1 1 iteration
y 20 = = = − j6.66 (c) More no. of iteration and more time per
X 20 j0.15
iteration
1 1 (d) More no. of iteration and less time per
y30 = = = − j10
X30 j0.1 iteration
So, for construction of y-bus matrix, (e) None
(i) Diagonal element = sum of admittance of that bus CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
(ii) Off diagonal element = –ve of admittance Ans. (a) : In comparison to Gauss – seidal, newton
connected b/w two bus. Rahpson method takes less no of iteration and more
Y11 = y13 + y12 = − j3.33 + ( − j2.94 ) = − j6.27 time per iteration.
Y12 = − ( y12 ) = − ( − j2.94 ) = j2.94 43. The Gauss Siedal load flow method has
following disadvantages. Mark the incorrect
Y13 = − ( y13 ) = − ( − j3.33) = j3.33 statement:
Y21 = Y12 = − ( y12 ) = j2.94 (a) Unreliable convergence
(b) Slow convergence
Y22 = y 21 + y 20 + y23 = − j2.94 − j6.66 − j2.38
(c) Choice of slack bus affects convergence
= − j11.98 (d) A good initial guess for voltages is essential
Y23 = − ( y 23 ) = j2.381 = Y32 for convergence
Y13 = Y31 = − j3.33, Y33 = Y30 + Y32 + Y31 (e) All of the above
= − j10 + ( − j2.381) + ( − j3.33) Ans. (a) : Unreliable convergence is the disadvantage
= − j12.381 − j3.33 of the Gauss seidal load flow method.
= − j15.713 44. The voltage at a particular bus can be
controlled by controlling:
− j6.27 j2.94 j3.33
(a) Active power of the bus
Ybus matrix = j2.94 − j11.98 j2.381 (b) Reactive power of the bus
j3.33 j2.381 j15.714 (c) Phase angle
41. A power system consists of 300 buses out of 20 (d) Both Active and Reactive power of the bus
buses are generator bus, 25 buses are the ones (e) All of the above
with the reactive power support and 15 buses CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
are the ones with the fixed shunt capacitors. All Ans. (b) : The voltage at a particular bus can be
other buses are the load buses. It is proposed to controlled by controlling reactive power of bus.
perform a load flow analysis in the system 45. The slack bus must be a
using Newton Raphson method. The size of the (a) Load bus
Newton Raphson jacobian matrix is: (b) Generator bus
(a) 553*553 (b) 540*540 (c) Feeder Bus
(c) 555*555 (d) 666*555 (d) Both Load and Generator bus
(e) 554*554 (e) None of them
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
Ans. (b) : If the slack bus is not specified, then (a) M e (T) = σT8 (b) M e (T) = σT3
generator bus with maximum real power |P| acts as the
slack bus. (c) M e (T) = σT 6 (d) M e (T) = σT 4
Slack bus– It is also known as the reference bus or AAI Junior Executive 2016
swing bus. There are active power and reactive power Ans. (d) : For measurement of sun's radiation
are specified. Me(T) = σT4
46. In a power system, the maximum number of Where, M e ( T ) = energy flux
buses are :-
(a) PV buses (b) Slack buses σ = Stefan Boltzmann constant
(c) PQ buses (d) any of the above T = Temperature in Kelvin
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I Where, σ = 5.6703×10–8 watt/m2K4
Ans. (c) : In a power system, the maximum number of 51. P(G) and Q(G) denote the real and reactive
buses are PQ buses. powers of a generator respectively, d the
A bus in a power system is defined as the vertical line machine angle and f the angles between
at which the several components of the power system terminal voltage and emf. A synchronous
like generators, load and feeders are connected. motor under overexcited conditions will have.
47. If a voltage-controlled bus is treated as load (a) P(G) < 0,Q(G) > 0, −900 < δ < 0, −90 < φ < 1800
bus, then which one of the following limits
(b) P(G) < 0,Q(G) < 0, −900 < δ > 0, −90 < φ < 1800.
would be violated?
(a) Voltage (b) Active power (c) P(G) < 0,Q(G) > 0, −900 > δ < 0, −90 < φ > 1800.
(c) Reactive power (d) Phase angle
(d) P(G) < 0,Q(G) > 0, −900 < δ > 0, −90 < φ < 1800.
Ans. (c) : If a voltage-controlled bus is treated as load AAI Junior Executive 2016
bus, then reactive power limits would be violated. Ans. (a) :
48. Voltage control bus or P-V bus is that bus E V
P(G) = f t sin δ
where : Xs
(a) only voltage control equipments are
connected E f 2 E f Vt
Q(G) = − cos δ
(b) only generator is connected Xs Xs
(c) only frequency controllers are connected For overexcited generator
(d) generator or voltage control equipments are P(G) < 0, Q(G) > 0
connected
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I −900 < δ < 0, −90 < φ < 1800
Ans. (d) : Voltage control bus or P-V bus is that bus 52. In load flow, generator bus indicates :
where generator or voltage control equipments are (a) P-Q bus (b) V–δ bus
connected. Because in P-V bus system P and V are (c) P-V bus (d) Q-V bus
specified quantity and Q and 'δ' are unspecified AAI Junior Executive 2016
quantity. As voltage 'V' is specified at this bus their Ans. (c) : In load flow analysis generator bus
voltage control equipment should necessarily be indicates P-V bus.
connected at this bus. Bus type Known Parameter Unknown
49. In Gauss-Seidel's method of power flow Parameter
solution, the acceleration factor is used for : Load bus P, Q V, Phase angle
(a) Reducing the number of iterations Generator P, V (Magnitude) Q, Phase angle
(b) Increasing the number of iterations bus
(c) One step solution in one iteration Slack bus Voltage magnitude, P,Q
(d) Easy back substitution of voltages phase angle
53. The statement ''Generators are Coherent'',
Ans. (a) : In Gauss-Seidel's method of power flow
implies that:
solution, the acceleration factor is used for reducing the
(a) All of them oscillate at same frequency.
number of iterations. It is a simple algebraic equation.
(b) Each of them oscillates at different
Time for calculation of each iteration is minimum
frequencies
compared to Newton Raphson method.
(c) They rotate at same frequency.
50. The Stefen Boltzmann's law used to measure
(d) Each generator rotates at different frequency.
the sun's irradiance is given by........(Where Me
(T) indicates the specific emission and σ
indicates the Stefen Boltzmann's constant and Ans. (a) : Generators are coherent means all of them
T is the temperature.) oscillate at same frequency.

54. For a power system under dynamic Ans. (b) : If f(x) is a polynomial of degree n, then ∆n
perturbation. ................ f(x) equal to constant.
(a) QV loop will not affect the Pf loop ∆n f(x) = constant
(b) QV loop will drastically affect the Pf loop 59. Newton – Raphson method is suitable in the
(c) Pf loop will not affect the QV loop cases where:-
(d) Pf loop will drastically affect the QV loop (a) (x) is large (b) (x) is small
AAI Junior Executive 2016 (c) (x) is negative (d) (x) is positive
Ans. (b) : For a power system under dynamic UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
perturbation QV loop will drastically affect the Pf loop. Ans. (a) : Newton–Raphson method is suitable in the
55. Which one of the following methods is used for cases where (x) is large.
numerical integration? 60. In load flow studies a PV bus is treated as a PQ
(a) Newton Raphson method bus, when
(b) Lagrange’s method (a) voltage at the bus becomes high
(c) Trapezoidal rule (b) reactive power goes beyond limit
(d) None of above (c) phase angle becomes high
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II (d) None of the above
Ans. (c) : Trapezoidal rule is used for numerical JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI
integration. Ans. (b) : When a network containing one slack bus,
56. For solving equation x3–3x+1 = 0 by Newton one PV bus and the power value of PV bus is in the out
Raphson method, the initial guess be xo = 0, of range for a given value of reactive power limits, So
next estimate x1 will be:- that PV bus is working as PQ bus with value of Q.
(a) 0.212 (b) 0.333 61.
(c) 0.40 (d) 0.425
Ans. (b) : Given that,
f(x) = x3 - 3x + 1
x0 = 0
f ( x 0 ) = x 30 − 3x 0 + 1
= 0 - 0 +1
f(x0) = 1
f' (x0) = 3x 20 − 3 The size of bus admittance matrix for the single
line diagram shown in the given figure is:
= 3(0)2 - 3 (a) 4 × 4 (b) 2 × 2
= -3 (c) 3 × 3 (d) 5 × 5
Using Newton Raphson method- LMRC AM 2020
f ( x0 ) Ans. (a) : Here also 4 power generation sources are
x1 = x 0 −
f '( x0 ) available therefore. 4 × 4 matrix can be prepared.
62. The number of iterations required to reach
1
= 0− convergence in the Gauss-Seidal method of
( −3 ) load flow analysis are:
x1 = +1/ 3 (a) dependent on the size of the system, and
decrease with the increase in the size of the
= 0.333
system
57. The order of convergence of Newton-Raphson (b) dependent on the size of the system, and
method is:- increase with the increase in the size of the
(a) 1 (b) 1.618 system
(c) 2 (d) 4 (c) dependent on the size of the system, and
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II increase with the decrease in the size of the
Ans. (c) : The order of convergence of Newton- system
Raphson method is 2. (d) independent of the size of the system
58. If f(x) is a polynomial of degree n, then ∆n f(x) LMRC AM 2020
is equal to:- Ans. (b) : The number of iterations required to reach
(a) 0 (b) Constant convergence in Gauss-Seidal method of load flow
(c) f(x + nh) (d) None of these analysis are dependent on the size of the system, and
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II increase with the increase in the size of the system.

63. In a power system, there are 50 buses as 67. Compared to Newton-Raphson method, Gauss-
follows: Seidel method takes :
Slack bus = 1 (a) Less number of iterations and more time per
Generator buses = 8 iteration
Load buses = 41 (b) Less number of iterations and less time per
By the Newton-Raphson method, the size of the iteration
Jacobian matrix is: (c) More number of iterations and more time per
(a) 80 × 80 (b) 70 × 70 iteration
(d) More number of iterations and less time per
(c) 60 × 60 (d) 90 × 90
iteration
LMRC AM 2020
Ans. (d) : Where no. of buses = n = 50
Ans. (d) : Compared to Newton-Raphson method,
no. of Generator buses m = 8 Gauss-Seidel method takes more number of iterations
Size of Jacobin matrix = [2(n–1) - m] ×[ 2(n – 1) - m] and less time per iteration.
= [2 (50 – 1) - 8 ] × [2(50 – 1)-8] Load flow equations are nonlinear and they can
= (98 - 8) × (98 - 8) be solved by an iterative method.
= 90 × 90 e.g. Gauss's method
64. Load flow study yields a .............. solution to Gauss seidel method
have the values of Pi, Qi, mag(V) and voltage Newton-Raphson method
phase angle at each bus. 68. Value of acceleration factor used in Gauss-
(a) transient (b) dynamic Seidal method in load flow studies is
(c) steadystate (d) any of thses (a) 1.59 (b) 1.66
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 (c) 1.0 (d) 1.6
Ans. (c) : Load flow study yields a steadystate APSPDCL AE 2012
solution to have the value of pi, Qi, mag(v) and phase Ans. (d) : The acceleration factor is a multiplier that
angle at each bus. enhances correction between the values of voltage in
Bus type Quantities Quantities to two successive literation.
specified be obtained Its specific value depends on the system parameter. The
Load bus P, Q |V|, δ optimum value of α is lies between "1.2 – 1.6" but
Generator bus P, |V| Q, δ generally in practice "α = 1.6" is widely used.
slack bus |V|, δ P, Q 69. A power system has 100 buses including 10
65. A bus-bar is rated by : generator buses. For the load flow analysis
using Newton-Raphson method in polar
(a) current only
coordinates, the size of the Jacobian is
(b) voltage only
(a) 189 × 189 (b) 100 × 100
(c) current, voltage and frequency current
(c) 90 × 90 (d) 180 × 180
(d) current, voltage frequency and short-circuit
current
APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (a) : Total number of buses = 100
Ans. (d) : A Bus-bar is rated by current, voltage, Generator buses = 10 - 1 = 9 = n
frequency and short-circuit current. Load bus = 90 m
Bus bar is a metalic strip or bar, typically housed inside Size of Jacobean matrix = (2m+n) × (2m+n)
switched gear panel boards and bus way encloseres for = (2×90+9)×(2×90+9)
load high current power distribution. = 189 × 189
The term bus bar is drived from the Latin word 70. The per-unit power output of an salient-pole
omnibus, meaning collector of things. Thus electrical generator which is connected to an infinite bus,
bus-bar is the collector of electrical energy at one is given by the expression, P=1.4 sinδ+0.15 sin
location. 2δ, where δ is the load angle. Newton-Raphson
66. Normally YBUS matrix is a : method is used to calculate the value of δ for
(a) Null matrix (b) Sparse matrix P=0.8 pu. If the initial guess is 300, then its
(c) Full matrix (d) Unity matrix value (in degrees) at the end of the first
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 iteration is
−1 (a) 150 (b) 28.480
Ans. (b) : ZBUS = YBUS 0
(c) 28.74 (d) 31.200
Normally YBUS matrix is a sparse matrix. APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (c) : Given equation 73. A 12 bus power system has 3 voltage controlled
P = 1.4 sin δ +0.15 sin 2δ ............ (1) buses. The dimensions of the Jacobian matrix
δ0= 300= π/6 will be
(a) 21 × 21 (b) 21 × 19
P = 0.8 Pu
(c) 19 × 19 (d) 19 × 21
from (1) APGENCO AE 2012
f(δ0) = P – 1.4 sin δ - 0.15 sin 2δ ESE 2000
f(δ0) = 0.8 – 1.4 sin 300- 0.15 sin (2×300) Ans. (c) : Power system bus = 12
= -0.0299. Voltage controlled buses = 3
f (δ0)= 1.4cos 300- 0.3 cos (2×300) Jacobean Matrix
= -1.2124 – 0.15 = -1.3624 = [2(n – 1) – m × (2 (n – 1) – m]
According to Newton Rapshon Method = [2(12 – 1) – 3) × (2 (12 – 1) – 3]
f ( δn ) = [2(n – 1) – m × (2 (n – 1) – m]
δn+1= δn- = 19 × 19
f ′ ( δn ) 74. In a load flow at a slack bus the
π  −0.0299  (a) P and Q values are specified
δ1 = −  (b) P and V values are specified
6  −1.3624 
(c) Q and V values are specified
δ1 = 28.740 (d) V and δ values are specified
71. A 1000×1000 bus admittance matrix for an Ans. (d) : In electrical power system a slack bus (or
electric power system has 8000 non-zero swing bus), defined as a V & δ bus, is used to balance
elements. The minimum number of branches the active power | P | and reactive power | Q | in a
(transmission lines and transformers) in this system while performing load flow analysis. For slack
system are: bus it is assumed that the voltage.
(a) 1000 (b) 2000 different type bus known Unknown
(c) 106 (d) 3500 quantities quantities
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I 1. Load Bus P and Q V and δ
APPSC AEE 2019 2. Generator bus P and V Q and δ
Ans : (d) As given that 3. Slack Bus V and δ P and Q
Total Number of elements in Ybus 75. The specified parameters for a slack bus in
Admittance matrix = 1000×1000=106 load flow analysis are-
Number of diagonal element (N) = 1000 (a) real power and reactive power
power system has non-zero element are 8000 (b) real power and voltage magnitude
So total number of element which are non-zero at will (c) voltage magnitude and phase angle
(d) reactive power and voltage magnitude
as non diagonal
= (8000-1000) = 7000
Vizag Steel MT 2013
Total number of branch
Ans. (c) :
( Number of non − zero of diagonal element ) Bus type Specific Unknown
=
2 quantities quantity
7000 Slak bus |V| δ P,Q
= = 3500 Load bus P,Q |V| δ
2
72. Load flow studies involve solving simultaneous Controlled bus P, |V| Q, δ
(a) linear algebraic equations 76. For a load flow solution the quantities normally
(b) non linear algebraic equations specified at a voltage controlled bus are :
(a) P and Q (b) P and |V|
(c) linear differential equations
(c) Q and |V| (d) P and δ
(d) non linear differential equations
APGENCO AE 2012
Ans. (b) : In load flow solution, the quantities normally
ESE 2000
specified at a voltage controlled bus are P and |V|.
Ans. (b) : Load flow studies involve solving
77. In a power system, each bus or node is
simultaneous non-linear algebraic equation in terms of
associated with four quantities, namely :
node-currents. The load flow results give the bus (i) Real power
voltage magnitude and phase angles and hence the (ii) Reactive power
power flow through the transmission lines, losses and (iii) Bus voltage magnitude
power injection at all the bus. (iv) Phase angle of the bus voltage
For load flow solution, among these four, the | E || V |
number of quantities to be specified is – Ans. (c) : ↓ Pr = cos δ
x↑
(a) Any one (b) Any two
(c) Any three (d) All the four X L = 2πfL
R
ESE 1998 P ∝ cosφ = and X ∝ f
R2 + (X)
2
Ans. (b) : For load flow studies any two quantities of
four specified of bus are required. Four quantities are therefore if frequency increases reactance 'X' increases
(a) Real power (b) Reactive (c) Bus voltage magnitude and p decreases also Q ∝ I 2 X L and X L ∝ f
(d) phase angle of bus voltage. Among these any two
therefore Q increases when frequency increases.
quantity is specified or know other two are solved.
82. The bus admittance matrix of a power system
78. For load flow solution the quantities specified
at a load bus are –  –j50 j10 j5 
 
(a) P and Q (b) P and |V| is given by  j10 –j30 j10  . The
(c) Q and |V| (d) P and δ  j5 j10 –j25 
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 impedance of line between bus 2 and 3 will be
Ans. (a) : For load flow solution, the quantities equal to:
specified at load bus are P and Q. (a) –j0.5 (b) j0.1
79. A voltage controlled bus is treated as a load bus (c) j0.2 (d) –j0.2
in subsequent iteration when DMRC AM 2020
(a) Voltage limit is violated Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
(b) Active power limit is violated ESE 2003
(c) Reactive power limit is violated Ans. (b) : Given that,
(d) Phase angle limit is violated  –j50 j10 j5 
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 Admittance matrix =  j10 –j30 j10 

 j5 j10 –j25
Ans. (c) :
Bus type Quantities Quantity to be  Y11 Y12 Y13 
Admittance matrix =  Y21 Y22 Y23 
specified obtained  Y31 Y32 Y33 
Generator bus or P, |V| Q, δ Comparing,
voltage So, Y23 = – j 10
controlled bus 1
Load Bus P, Q |V|, δ Impedance =
Admittance
Slack Bus |V|, δ P, Q Admittance between bus 2 and 3 (Y23) = –j10
A voltage-controlled bus is treated as a load bus in 1 1
subsequent iteration when reactive power limit is Z23 = = = j0.1
Y23 − j10
violated.
So, Z23 = j0.1
80. The load flow solution is always assured in case
83. In power flow analysis for a voltage controlled
of –
bus, which of the unknown quantity?
(a) Newton-Raphson method (a) Real power
(b) Gauss method (b) Phase angle of voltage
(c) Gauss-Seidel method (c) Absolute value of voltage
(d) None of these method (d) Reactive power
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 LMRC AM 2018
Ans. (d) : The load flow solution is always assured in Ans. (b, d) : In power flow analysis, in voltage
none of the following methods, Newton Raphson controlled bus. Real power and absolute value of
method, Gauss, Gauss Siedal method because they give voltage are known quantity while phase angle of voltage
approximate solution. and reactive power are unknown quantity.
81. For lumped inductive load, with the increase in 84. Which load flow method is sensitivity to initial
frequency – guess in respect of reliability of convergence of
solution?
(a) P and Q increase
(a) Newton-Raphson method
(b) P increases, Q decreases (b) Runge-Kutta method
(c) P decreases, Q increases (c) Gauss-Seidel method
(d) P and Q decrease (d) Gauss elimination
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 CIL MT 2017
Ans. (a) : Newton-Raphson method is more sensitive to  1 1 
−
initial guess in respect of reliability of convergence of  I p   jx jx   VP 
solution. But Newton Raphson method requires more (c)  =    
 Iq   1 1
−   Vq 
time per iteration. Guass seidal has got linear  jx jx 
convergence, convergence is affected by choice of slack 
bus and the presence of sense capacitor.  1 1 
−
85. The bus admittance matrix of a power system  Vp   jx jx   Ip 
(d)  =   
 Vq   1 1
(with respect to diagonal), has:
−   Iq 
(a) only value symmetry  jx jx 

(b) both position and value symmetry
(c) only position symmetry UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
(d) complete asymmetry Ans : (b)
CIL MT 2017 Apply KVL in circuit-1
Ans. (b) : Bus Admittance Matrix– It is a square
matrix. It is also known as [Y] bus matrix for n-bus the
size of [Ybus] matrix is n × n.
The value of diagonal elements is the sum of the
admittance connected to corresponding bus.
The value of off diagonal elements is the admittance
connected between 2 bus bars. It is provided with (–) VP = IP jx
sign i.e. |Yij| = |Yji|.
Thus the bus admittance matrix of a power system (with IP 1
= and VP = -Iq jx
respect to diagonal) has both position and value VP jx
symmetry.
Iq 1
86. Method of successive displacement is- =−
(a) Bus admittance matrix method VP jx
(b) Newton-Raphson method again
(c) Power factor correction method apply KVL in circuit-2
(d) Gauss-Seidel method
Ans : (d) In Numerical linear algebra, the Gauss-Seidel
method, also known as Liebmann method or the method
of successive displacement, is an iterative method used
to solve a linear system of equation. It was only
mentioned in a private letter from guess to his student
Gerling in 1823. Vq = Iq jx
87. Obtain the Ybus representation of the model of Iq 1
= and Vq = -Ip jx
transformer shown Vq jx
Ip 1
=−
Vq jx
So, We can write Y- Parameter
1 1
1 1 Y11 = , Y12 = −
−  jx jx
 Vp   jx jx  Ip 
(a)  =   1 1
Y21 = − Y22 = +
 Vq   −1 1   Iq  ,
 jx jx jx
 jx 
 1 1
 1 1 −
−   I p   jx jx   Vp 
 I p   jx jx  Vp   =   
(b)  =    Iq   1 1   Vq 
 Iq   − 1 1   Vq   − jx jx 
 jx jx  

88. A 10-bus power system consists of four Ans. (d):
generator buses indexed as H1,H2,H3 and six
load buses indexed as Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4, Q5, Q6.
The generator bus H1 is considered as slack
bus, and the load buses Q3 and Q4 are voltage
controlled buses. The generator at bus H2
cannot supply the required power demand, and
hence it is operating at its maximum reactive
power limit. The number of non-linear Y11 = Y12 + Y10
equations required for solving the load flow Y11 = − j10 + j0.05
problem using Newton-Raphson method in
Y11 = − j9.95
polar form is:
(a) 4 (b) 24 Y22 = Y21 + Y23 + Y20
(c) 20 (d) 14 Y22 = − j10 − j10 + j0.05
Y22 = − j19.95
Ans : (d) Total Number of buses = 10
Number of PU bus =2 Y33 = Y32 + Y30
Number of PQ bus = 4 Y33 = − j10 + j0.1
Minimum number of non– linear equation to be solved Y33 = − j9.9
=2×10–2–4=14
89. A load-flow program is run twice, in the second 91. What is the size of a Jacobian matrix for a 100
bus power system with 29 numbers of voltage
run, the previous reference bus gets changed to
controlled buses?
a PQ bus. Which one of the following
(a) 29 × 29 (b) 170 × 170
statements is true?
(c) 169 × 169 (d) 30 × 30
(a) The system losses as well as complex bus
voltages will change
Ans. (c) : Given that:
(b) Load flow result will remain same in all
Total no. of buses (n) = 100
aspects Total no. of PV buses (m)
(c) The system losses will change but the = Voltage controlled bus +
complex bus voltages will remain same reactive power support bus +
(d) The system losses will be unchanged but the Generator bus.
complex bus voltages will change m = 29
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I Size of Jacobian matrix,
Ans : (d) A load flow program can be run two times. In [J] = (2n-m-2) × (2n - m - 2)
the second run. If previous reference bus gets changed = ( 2 × 100 − 29 − 2 ) × ( 2 ×100 − 29 − 2 )
to the PQ Bus. Then the system losses will be
= ( 200 − 31) × ( 200 − 31)
unchanged but the complex bus voltages will change.
90. The network shown in the given figure has [J] = 169 × 169
impedances in p.u. as indicated. The diagonal 92.In Gauss–Sidel load flow method, the number
elements of YBUS matrix are of iterations may be reduced if the correction in
voltage at each bus is multiplied by–
(a) Gauss constant (b) Acceleration factor
(c) Blocking factor
(d) Lagrange multiplier
Ans. (b) : In Gauss–Sidel load flow method, the
number of iterations may be reduced if the correction in
voltage at each bus is multiplied by acceleration factor.
(a) –j 19.9, –J 19.8, –J 9.9 93. The line reactance's of a power network are as
(b) j9.95, j19.95, j9.9 follows :
(c) j19.9, j19.8, j 9.9 Line No. From Bus To Bus Reactance
(d) –j9.95, –j19.95, –j 9.9 1 0 1 0.2 p.u.
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II 2 1 2 0.4 p.u.
The bus impedance matrix with '0' as ref-bus is 97. The slack bus has to be a
0.2 0.4  0.4 0.2  (a) Generator bus
(a)   (b)   (b) Load bus
0.4 0.6  0.2 0.6  (c) Generator or Load bus
0.2 0.2  0.6 0.2  (d) Neither generator nor load bus
(c)   (d)   Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
0.2 0.6  0.2 0.4 
ESE 2018 Ans. (a) : The slack bus or swing bus is a bus with a
large generator that can freely adjust its real and
Ans. (c) : Network can be constructed in following
reactive power output to enable the power flow to solve.
from the given data :-
This generator will adjust itself to whatever it needs to
be at to solve the power flow equation.
98. Generally in load flow solutions, the load is
modelled as a
(a) constant impedance load
(b) constant power load
(c) constant current load
(d) dynamically varying load
 ZBus( old ) Zij 
IBUS(new) =   Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
 Z j1 Z j2 .. ( Z jj + Zb )  Ans. (b) : Generally in load flow solutions, the load is
modeled as a constant power load.
0.2 0.2  0.2 0.2  99. In a 100 bus power system, there are 10
= =
 0.2 0.2 + 0.4  0.2 0.6  generators. In Particular iteration of Newton
94. Which of the following buses are used to form Raphson load flow technique (in polar co-
bus admittance matrix for load flow analysis? ordinates), two of the PV buses are converted
1. Load bus to PQ type. In this iteration.
2. Generator bus (a) The number of unknown voltage angles
3. Slack bus increases by two and the number of unknown
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only voltage magnitudes increases by two.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) The number of unknown voltage angles
ESE 2019 remains unchanged and the number of
unknown voltage magnitudes increases by
Ans. (d) : YBUS is bus admittance matrix which is used
two
in load flow analysis. This matrix helps in finding (c) The number of unknown voltage angles
values of P,Q,|V| and delta. The elements of matrix are increases by two and the number of unknown
the admittances of transmission lines between buses i.e. voltage magnitudes decreases by two
load; generator and slack bus. (d) the number of unknown voltage angles
95. Swing bus would generally be a bus in a remains unchanged and the number of
network which is a unknown voltage magnitudes decreases by
(a) PQ bus two.
(b) PV bus MPPSC AE 2017
(c) Voltage controlled bus Ans. (b) : In a 100 bus power system, there are 10
(d) Any bus generators. In a particular iteration of Newton raphson
UPPCL AE 2014 load flow technique, two of the PV buses are converted
Ans. (b) : Swing bus would generally be a bus in a to PQ type, In this iteration the number of unknown
network which is a PV bus. There are active power and voltage angles remain unchanged and the number of
voltage are known quantity, reactive power and δ is unknown voltage magnitudes increases by two.
unknown, quantity. 100. The bus impedance matrix of a 4-bus power
96. In z-bus building algorithm, a new bus is added system is given by
to the partial network of 'm' bus and the  j0.3435 j0.2860 j0.2723 j0.2277 
resultant bus impedance matrix is of dimension  j0.2860 j0.3408 j0.2586 j0.2414 
(a) (m+1) × (m+1) Zbus =  
(b) both (m –1) × (m–1) and (m–1) × (m–1)  j0.2723 j0.2586 j0.2791 j0.2209 
(c) (m–1) × (m–1)  
 j0.2277 j0.2414 j0.2209 j0.2791
(d) (m+1) × (m–1) A branch having an impedance of j0.2 Ω is
UPPCL AE 2014 connected between bus 2 and the reference.
Ans. (a) : In z-bus building algorithm, a new bus is Then the values of Z22,new and Z23, new of bus
added to the partial network of 'm' bus and the Resultant impedance matrix of the modified network are
bus impedance matrix is of dimension (m + 1) × (m + 1) respectively
(a) j0.5408Ω and j0.4586Ω Ans. (b) : Critical clearing angle – If the actual clearing
(b) j0.1260Ω and j0.0956Ω angle is greater than the critical clearing angle the
(c) j0.5408Ω and j0.0956Ω system is unstable, otherwise it is stable. The higher the
(d) j0.1260Ω and j0.1630Ω initial load, the lower the critical clearing angle.
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I 3. Stability of transmission line can be increased
Ans. (b) : by
(a) shunt capacitor
(b) series capacitor
(c) shunt reactor
(d) Both (a) and (b)
We have j = 2, b = 4 WBPSC AE 2017
 Z12  Ans. (d) :
1  Z22  
= Z21 Z22 Z23 Z24  4. In a 3-phase ac power transmission system
Zij + Zb  Z32  
 Z42  using synchronous generation
(a) The steady state power limits of both round
 j0.2860 rotor and salient pole machines are reached at
=
1  j0.3408 π
j0.j408 + j0.2  j0.2586 θ = of their respective power angle
 j0.2414 2
charateristics.
[ j0.2860 j0.3408 j0.2586 j0.2414] (b) The steady state power limit of round rotor
 j0.3435 j0.2860 j0.2723 j0.2277  machines occurs at a much smaller pole
 j0.2860 j0.2147 j0.16296 j0.2414  machine power angle characteristic.
=  (c) The steady state power limit of salient pole
 j0.2723 j0.2586 j0.2791 j0.2209  machines occurs at smaller angle θ as
 
 j0.2277 j0.2414 j0.2209 j0.2791 compared to that of round rotor machine
Z22 (new) = Z22(old)- j0.2147 power angle characteristic.
= j0.1260 Ω (d) The transient state power limits of
Z23(new) = Z23 (old) - j0.2586 - j0.16296 synchronous generators do not depend on
= j0.0656 Ω initial load just before the large change in
load or on 3-phase fault.
Hence option (b) is correct.
ESE 2017
Ans. (c) : Steady state stability limit of a particular
(vi) Power System Stability circuit of a power system is defined as the maximum
power that can be transmitted to reciving end without
1. With reference to the problem of power system loss of synchronism.
swings for protection of EHV lines :
(a) mho relay with characteristic angle of 75o is
the best choice
(b) mho relay with characteristic angle of 60o is
the best choice
(c) reactance relay is the best choice
(d) impedance relay is the best choice
Ans. (b) : Mho relay with characteristic angle of 60o is
the best choice
2. Tick out the correct statement
(a) The higher the initial load, the larger the Steady state power limit for salient pole machine occurs
critical clearing angle at samller load angle.
(b) The higher the initial load, the lower the 5. Transient stability can be improved by using
critical clearing angle governors attached to the turbines, should be
(c) The initial load has nothing to do with the (a) fast acting
critical clearing angle (b) slow acting
(d) The higher the operating time of the circuit (c) no function of governors in improving
breaker, the larger will be the critical clearing stability
angle (d) nothing can be said
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I

Ans. (a) : • Transient phenomenon is a non-periodic 9. A 200 MVA, 11 kV, 3phase 6pole synchronous
function of time and does not last longer. The duration generator has an inertia constant H equal to 2
for which they start is very insignificant as compared MJ/MVA. What will be the magnitude of
with the operating time of the system. generator at synchronous speed?
• Transient stability can be improved by using (a) 200 MJ (b) 100 MJ
governors attached to the turbines, should be fast acting. (c) 400 MJ (d) 200v2 MJ
6. A 50 Hz, 4 pole truboalternator rated at 20 UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
MVA, 13.2 KV has an inertia constant H = 4 Ans. (c) : Magnitude of generator energy stored = GH
KW sec/KVA. The K.E. stored in the rotor at
= 200 × 2 G = 200 MVA.
synchronous speed is
(a) 80 KJ (b) 80 MJ = 400 MJ H=2
(c) 40 MJ (d) 20 MJ 10. If the inertia constant H of a machine of 200
APGENCO AE 2012 MVA is 2 p.u., its value corresponding to 400
Ans. (b) : H = inertia constant MVA will be:
Stored K.E. in MJ at synchronous speed (a) 4 p.u. (b) 2 p.u.
H= (c) 1.0 p.u. (d) 0.5 p.u.
Machine rating in MVA
Stored K.E. in MJ synchronous speed TSPSC AEE 2017
= H × machine rating in MVA Ans. (c) : As we know that–
= 4 × 20 H = MJ/MVA
= 80 MJ H = Inertia constant
7. A 50 Hz generator having H = 6 MJ/MVA is 1
connected to synchronous motor having H = 4 H∝
MVA rating
MJ/MVA through a network of reactances.
The generator is delivering power of 1.0 p.u. to H1pu MVA 2
the motor which reduces to 0.6 p.u. when fault =
H 2 pu MVA1
occurs. The angular acceleration in ele.
degrees/sec2 is 2 × 200
H2pu =
(a) 360 (b) 180 400
(c) 1500 (d) 1800 H 2pu = 1pu
APSPDCL AE 2012
Ans. (c) : H1 = 6 MJ/MVA, f = 50 Hz 11.
A 2 pole, 50 Hz, 11 kV synchronous generator
H2 = 4 MJ/MVA with a rating of 12 MW and 0.87 lagging power
P1 = 1.0 Pu factor has a moment of inertia of 12000 kg–m2.
P2 = 0.6 Pu The constants H and M are
then angular acceleration, (a) H = 42.933 MJ/MVA and M = 0.0658
H1 × H 2 1 d 2 δ12 MJs/elec. degree
× . = P1 − P2
H1 + H 2 180 f dt 2 (b) H = 0.658 MJ/MVA and M = 0.42933
MJs/elec. degree
6× 4 1 d2δ
× . 212 = 1.0 − 0.6 (c) H = 4.2933 MJs/elec. degree and M = 0.658
6 + 4 180 × 50 dt MJ/MVA
d 2δ12 (d) H = 0.658 MJs/elec. degree and M = 4.2933
on solving, = 1500 elec.degree/s2
dt 2 MJ/MVA
8. A 100 MVA, 11KV, 3-phase, 50Hz, 8-pole TNPSC AE 2018
synchronous generator has an inertia constant Ans. (a) : ω = 2πf = 2 × π × 50 = 100π rad / sec
H equal to 4 seconds. The stored energy in the 1
rotor of the generator at synchronous speed Kinetic energy (MJ) = Iω2
will be– 2
(a) 100 MJ (b) 400 MJ 1
= × 12000 × (100π )
2
(c) 800 MJ (d) 12.5 MJ 2

APTRANSCO AE 2011 592.6 MH
ESE 1994
12
Energy(MJ) stored MVA rating of machine, G = = 13.79
Ans. (b) : H = 0.87
MVA MJ 592.6
Energy stored = H × MVA Rating H= = = 42.97 MJ / MVA
MVA 13.79
= 4 × 100
GH 13.95 × 42.48
= 400MJ M= = = 0.0658 MJS/ elec − deg ree
180f 180 × 50
12. For stable operation, the normal value of 'δ' 17. Transient stability of a power system can be
normally lies between: improved
(a) 0 to 30º (b) 0 to 90º (a) by increasing system voltage
(c) 0 to 60º (d) 0 to 180º (b) using high speed excitation
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 (c) by reducing transfer reactance of the system
Ans. (a) : For stable operation of power system stability (d) all the above
the δ torque angle should lies between 0 to 300. UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
13. Steady state stability of a power system is
Ans. (d) : Transient stability of a power system can be
improved by-
(a) reducing fault clearing time improved by increasing system voltage, using high
(b) using double circuit line instead of single speed excitation and by reducing transfer reactance of
circuit line the system because in power system electric power is
(c) single pole switching given by,
(d) decreasing generator inertia E V
RPSC AE 2018 Pe = sin δ
Xs
Ans : (b) Steady state stability of the power system can
be improved by increasing the number of parallel line 18. Synchronizing power coefficient of a
between the transmission points, i.e. using double synchronous generator connected to infinite
circuit line instead of single circuit line. bus bar is
14. Stability of a power system can be improve by- (a) Pmax ω cos δ0
1. Using series compensators P
2. Using parallel transmission lines (b) max cos δ0
2
3. Reducing voltage of transmission
Which of the above statements are correct? (c) Pmax cos δ0
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) none of the above
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
RPSC AE 2018 Ans. (c) : It is represents as Psyn. A synchronous
Ans : (d Stability of power system can be improved by- machine whether a generator or a motor when
(i) Using series compensator synchronized to infinite bus bar has inherent tendency
The inductive reactance of a line can be reduced by to remain synchronizing. Synchronizing power can be
connecting static capacitors in with the line. given by–
(ii) Using parallel transmission
By operating transmission line in parallel, reactance V Ef
Psyn = cosδ0
decreases and power increases. Xs
So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
 V Ef 
15. Steady state stability of a power system is Psyn = Pmax cosδ0 ∵ Pmax = X 
improved by  s 
(a) reducing fault clearing time
(b) using double circuit line instead of single 19. For stability and economic reasons
circuit line transmission lines are operated with the power
(c) single pole switching angle in the range-
(d) decreasing generator inertia (a) 10º to 25º (b) 30º to 45º
TANGEDCO AE 2018 (c) 60º to 75º (d) 65º to 80º
EV sin δ UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
Ans. (b) : ↑Ps =
X↓ Ans. (b) :
To improve stability we need to increase power by
decreasing reactance & to do that double circuit line
should be used.
16. The steady state stability limit of a
transmission line
(a) increases with the increase in length of the
line
(b) decreases with the increase in length of the
line
(c) decreases with the increase in load angle | E || V |
Pc = sin δ
(d) increases with the increase in load angle X
δ = 30° to 45°
Ans. (b) :

20. If δ is the electrical power angle, H is the per Vs
unit inertia constant, Pm is the per unit Ans. (c) : QR = ( Vs cos δ − VR )
X
mechanical power, Pe is the per unit electrical
E E
power, and fo is the frequency, the swing Pmax = v = v sin δ by given
equation is given by : X X
H d2δ 1
(a) Pe – Pm = sinδ = δ = 30°
180f o dt 2 2
1.25
(b) Pe – Pm =
180f o d 2δ 0.4 = [1.25cos 30 − VR ]
H dt 2 0.3
VR = 0.986 pu
H d2δ
(c) Pm – Pe =
180f o dt 2 VR ≃ 1 pu
180f o d 2 δ 25. A shunt capacitor used in power system for
(d) Pm – Pe = VAR compensation is operated at 98% of its
H dt 2
OMC Deputy manager 2019 rated frequency and 95% of its rated voltage.
Ans. (c) : Swing equation gives relation between the The VAR supplied by shunt capacitor (as
accelerating power and angular acceleration. Swing compared to its rated capacity) is:
(a) 7.9% higher (b) 11.5% higher
equation describes the rotor dynamics of the
(c) 11.5% lower (d) 7.9% lower
synchronous machines and it helps in stabilizing the
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
system
H d2δ V2
Pa = Pm – Pe = [in terms of pu system] Ans. (c) : VAR supply by shunt capacitor = QC =
180f o dt 2 XC
21. The circuit clearing time of a fault in power = V2 ωC
system is related to = (0.98) × (0.95)2C
(a) reactive power limit = (0.98) × (0.95)2 × C
(b) short circuit limit = 0.8845 C
(c) steady-state stability limit C − 0.884 C
(d) transient stability limit % determent = × 100
C
WBPSC AE 2008
Ans. (d) : = 11.5% lower
22. A motor driving a passive load is said to be 26. If the line having no resistance and the load
steady-state stable if being at unity power factor, then the natural
dTL dTM dTL dTM power of line under these conditions is given by
(a) − =0 (b) − <0 the relation (Note: Vs is sending end line
dω dω dω dω
dTL dTM voltage in kV, Vr is receiving end line voltage in
(c) − >0 (d) all of these kV, Z0 is surge impedance of line in ohms)
dω dω (a) Pr = Vs2/Z0 MW (b) Pr = 3Vs2/Z0 MW
WBPSC AE 2008 2
(c) Pr = Vr /Z0 MW (d) Pr = 3Vr2/Z0 MW
Ans. (c) : JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
23. Which of the following lines has highest steady Ans. (c) : If the line having no resistance and the load
state limit? being at unity power factor, then the natural power of
(a) 132 kV (b) 66 kV line under these conditions is given by the relation
(c) 220 kV (d) 400 kV
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 Vr2
Pr =
EV Z0
Ans. (d) : Steady state limit = , so it is directly
X where Vr = receiving end line voltage in kV
proportional to voltage so more the voltage more the Z0 = surge impedance in Ω
steady state limit. So, highest steady state limit for 27. Which one of the following are produced in a
given options will be 400 kV. circuit which is simultaneously subjected to two
24. A transmission line with reactance of 0.3 pu is transients due to two independent disturbances
supplied at constant voltage of 1.25 pu, it is or when the disturbing force producing the
supplying reactive power 0.4 pu and is transients is itself variable?
operating at half of the steady state stability (a) Complex Transients
limit. The receiving end voltage in feeder is: (b) Transition Transients
(a) 1.32 pu (b) 1.11 pu (c) Subsidence Transients
(c) 1 pu (d) 1.18 pu (d) Relaxation Transients
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
Ans. (a) : Complex Transients-These are produced in Ans. (a) :
a circuit which is simultaneously subjected to two Vb1 = 100∠300
transients due to two independent disturbances or when Z = (0 + j5)
the disturbing force producing the transients is itself Vb 2 = 100∠00
variable.
E f Vt
28. How can the steady state stability be increased? P= sin δ
(a) Increasing the excitation of the motor only Xs
(b) Increasing the excitation of the generator only 100 × 100
(c) Reducing the reactance only = sin 30 = 1000watt
(d) All the options 5
Vizag Steel MT 2011 E
Q = f [Vt cosδ − E f ] = −268VAR
Ans. (d) : Steady state stability limit is given by Xs
E b Vt 32. The equal area criterion of stability is
SSSL = watt
Xs applicable to–
Where, (a) Two machine system and infinite bus bars
(b) One machine system and infinite bus bars
E b = Excitation Voltage
(c) Multi-machine system only
Vt = Terminal Voltage (d) None of the above
XS = Synchronous reactance ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017
If E b ↑ and XS ↓, SSSL ↑ . Karnataka PSC AE 2016
APSPDCL AE 2012
29. Which of the equipment/instrument is not used
for controlling voltage in a Power system Ans. (b) : The equal area criterion is a graphical
network? technique used to examine the transient stability of a
(a) Series capacitor machine system with an infinite bus. The stability
(b) Shunt capacitor conditions are stated by equating the two area segments
(c) Tap changing transformer which are present in the power angle diagram.
(d) Series inductor 33. Steady state stability limit is
Vizag Steel MT 2011 (a) less than the transient stability limit
Ans. (d) : Series Inductor is not used for controlling (b) equal to transient stability limit
voltage in a power system network.
(c) greater than the transient stability limit
The following are the method used in the power system
for controlling the voltage. (d) uncertain
• On-load tap changing transformer. UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
• Off- load tap changing transformer. Ans. (c) : Steady state stability limit is greater than the
• Shunt reactors. transient stability limit.
• Synchronous phase modifier. 34. For transfer of maximum power in a single-
• Shunt capacitor. phase line from one end to the other :
• Static VAR system (SVS). (a) resistance of the line should be 1.732 times its
30. The rated voltage of a 3-phase power system is reactance.
given as– (b) resistance of the line should be three times its
(a) rms phase voltage (b) Peak phase voltage reactance.
(c) rms line to line voltage (c) reactance of the line should be three times its
(d) Peak line to line voltage resistance.
APTRANSCO AE 2011 (d) reactance of the line should be 1.732 times its
Ans. (c) : The rated voltage a 3-phase power is given as resistance
rms line to line voltage.
RPSC VPITI 2016
31. Consider two buses connected by an impedance
of (0+j5) ohms. The bus 1 voltage is Ans. (d) : For transfer of maximum power in a single
phase line from one end to other end, reactance of the
100∠300 V and bus 2 voltage is 100∠00 V. The
line should be 1.732 times its resistance.
real and reactive power supplied by bus 1,
respectively are– 35. Keeping the excitation voltage the same, the
(a) 1000W, 268 VAr load on the motor is increased such that the
(b) –1000W,–134VAr operating power factor will become
(c) 276.9W,–56.7 VAr (a) 0.995 lagging (b) 0.995 leading
(d) –276.9W,–56.7 VAr (c) 0.791 lagging (d) 0.848 leading
APTRANSCO AE 2011 LMRC AE 2015
Ans. (a) : Power (P) =
( EV ) × sin θ , P = VI cos θ 39. Active Power is a function of .........., and
reactive power is a function of ..........
X
(a) Voltage magnitude, voltage phase angle
The excitation and terminal voltage of maintain
constant and load is increase to get the constant power. (b) Voltage phase angle, voltage magnitude
Power factor will decrease and become lagging power (c) Voltage magnitude, voltage magnitude
factor. (d) Voltage phase angle, voltage phase angle
36. If the inductance of a line increases, HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
transmission capacity will :- E f Vf
(a) Increase Ans. (b) Active power ( P ) = sin δ
XS
(b) Decrease
V
(c) Remain same Reactive power (Q) = t [ E f cos δ − Vt ]
(d) Independent of inductance XS
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I Active power is function of voltage phase Angle (δ).
Ans. (b) : We know that, power transfer in case of Reactive power is function of Voltage magnitude 'V'.
transmission line is given by–
40. Harmonics in power system are not generated
Vs Vr sin α
P= by :
X (a) Unbalanced source and balanced load
Where, α is the angle between the voltage at two bus (b) Balanced source and unbalanced load
X = series reactance (c) Balanced loading with a balanced source
Now, we can see from above that as X, increase the
(d) Non linear switches
power transmission capacity will decrease.
37. For stability and economic reasons, the
transmission line is operated with power angle Ans. (c) : Harmonics in power system are not
in the range generated by balanced loading with a balanced source
(a) 10-25 degrees (b) 30-45 degrees 41. Switching operations on the transmission line
(c) 60-75 degrees (d) 65-80 degrees have severe impact on-
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 (a) steady-state stability
BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015 (b) transient-state stability
UPPCL AE 2015 (c) dynamic-state stability
PTCUL AE 2012 (d) None of the above
Ans. (b) : For stability and economic concern BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
transmission line is operated with load angle in the Ans. (b) : Switching operations on the transmission line
range of 30°– 45°.
have severe impact on transient-state stability.
38. Transient stability of the generator is
dependent on 42. If the capacitance of transmission line is
1. generator reactance; lower reactance increased, the transmitted power will
decreases peak power and increases initial (a) remain same
rotor angle. (b) increase
2. how heavily the generator is loaded. (c) decrease
3. generator inertia; higher the inertia, (d) tend to be zero at receiving end
slower the rate of the change of angle. BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
4. generator output during fault Ans. (b) : If a capacitor having capacitive reactance Xc
Which of the above is incorrect : is connected in series with the line, the reactance of the
(a) 1 (b) 2 line is reduced from XL to (XL–XC). The power transfer
(c) 3 (d) none of the above will increase due to decrease in reactance from XL to
(XL–XC). As transmitted power–
Ans. (a) : Transient stability of generator depends on-
Generator reactance EV
P= sin δ
Loading on generator X
Generator inertia
43. Steady state stability of a power system is the
Generator output during fault
But statement 1 is incorrect because output power of ability of the power system to :
generator is given by– (a) maintain voltage at the rated voltage level
(b) Maintain frequency exactly at 50 Hz
E V
Pe = sin δ (c) Maintain a spinning reserve margin at all
Xs times
Where, Xs = synchronous reactance of generator (d) Maintain synchronism between machines and
If reactance of generator decreased then power will on external tie lines
increases. WBSE TCL AE 2016
Ans. (d) : Steady state stability of a power system is 48. For transient stability of a system, which of the
the ability of the power system to maintain following is correct?
synchronism between machines and on external tie dδ dP dδ dP
(a) > 0, >0 (b) < 0, <0
lines. dt dδ dt dδ
And, the highest power which can be transferred to the dδ dP dδ dP
(c) = 0, >0 (d) < 0, =0
receiving end of the system without affecting the dt dδ dt dδ
synchronism is termed as steady-state stability limit. JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI
44. Equal area criterion gives information about Ans. (c) : The rate of change of load angle must be
(a) Relative stability positive and so the change in real power variation in
(b) Absolute stability order to supply the demand.
(c) Swing curves dδ dp
So, = 0, >0
(d) Stability region dt dδ
UPPCL AE 2015 49. The voltage at the two ends of a transmission
Ans. (b) Equal area criterion in a power system gives line are 132kV and its reactance is 40 ohm. The
information about absolute stability. capacity of the line is :
45. The transient stability of power station can be (a) 435.6 MW (b) 515 MW
increased by introducing (c) 215 MW (d) 351.5 MW
(a) Shunt capacitance UJVNL AE 2016
(b) Shunt inductance V ⋅V
Ans. (a) Capacity of line = S R (when cosφ = 1)
(c) Series inductance Z
(d) Series capacitance 132 ⋅132
= MW
UPSC JWM 2017 40
UPPCL AE 2015 = 435.6 MW
Ans. (d) Transient stability of a power station increased 50.
by introducing series capacitance.
E V
Poutput = F t
XS
By series capacitance total reactance is decrease hence
power output increase.
46. To increase power transfer capability of a long
transmission line, we should_____. Consider the equal area criterion shown in the
(a) Increase line resistance given figure. When the power system is
(b) Increase transmission voltage operating such that A2 < A1(case c), the system
(c) Decrease line reactance is said to be:
(d) Increase transmission voltage and decrease (a) floating (b) unstable
line reactance (c) stable (d) critically stable
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 LMRC AM 2020
Ans : (d) Ans. (b) : Since A2 < A1 the load angle of generator
will pass through δm. Beyond this mechanical power
will be greater than electrical, consequently the system
will become unstable.
VS VR 51. The main function of series reactors in power
P= sin δ systems is to
XL
(a) Bring down the fault level
Increase in transmission voltage and decrease in line (b) Improve the voltage regulation
reactances increases power transfer capability of a long (c) Improve the power factor of the power system
transmission line. (d) Improve the transmission efficiency
47. The reactive power transfer over a line mainly JUVNL AE 2017
depends on Ans. (a) : The main function of series reactors in power
(a) power angle (b) Vr system is to bring down the fault level, series reactors
(c) |Vs| – |Vr| (d) Vs are used as current limiting reactors to increase the
impedance of a system. They are also used for neutral
earthing.
Ans. (c) : The reactive power transfer over a line
VV
mainly depends on |Vs| – |Vr|. (Sending end voltage - P = s R sin δ
receiving end voltage. Xs

52. ................ is defined as a steady-state deviation 1
from an ideal sine wave of power frequency, (a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 1: 2 :
0.75
principally characterized by the spectral (c) 1 : 2 : 4 (d) 1 : 4 : 16
content of the deviation. APTRANSCO AE 2019
(a) Waveform distortion
(b) Flicker V2
Ans. (b) : Pmax = .....(1)
(c) Voltage sag X
(d) Voltage imbalance with compensator at mid point,
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 V2 θ
Ans. (a) : Waveform distortion is defined as a steady- P' = sin
X/2 2
state deviation from an ideal sine wave of power '
frequency principally characterized by the spectral Pmax = 2Pmax ....(2)
content of the deviation. With compensator at 75% distance,
53. A large power system is represented by X ' = 0.75
Thevenin's equivalent. The Eth and Zth are 0.9 V2 1
''
∠0o p.u and 0.25 ∠90o p.u respectively. If a Pmax = = Pmax .....(3)
shunt capacitor bank is connected to raise the 0.75X 0.75
bus voltage to 1.0 p.u. The MVAR rating of the From (1), (2) and (3)
capacitor bank is : 1
ratio is 1 : 2 :
(assume base MVA 100 and base kV 138) 0.75
(a) 10 (b) 20 55. Given maximum power transmitted through a
(c) 30 (d) 40 line Pmax, then with 60% of series capacitor
APTRANSCO AE 2019 compensation the maximum power transfer
Ans. (d) : becomes
P
(a) max (b) 0.4 Pmax
0.4
P
(c) max (d) 0.6 Pmax
0.6
APSPDCL AE 2012
Ans. (a) : Given maximum power transmitted through a
line Pmax then with 60% of series capacitor
compensation the maximum power transfer becomes
 
Given that,  Pmax  Pmax
E th = E f = 0.9∠00 p.u.  = .
 1 − 60  0.4
Zth = X s = 0.25∠900 p.u.  100 
V = 1.0 p.u. 56. In a single machine connected to infinite bus
Q R = −Q C bar system, alternator voltage is 1.5 pu and its
V reactance is 1.0 pu are connected through a line
QR =
Xs
[ Ef cos δ − V ] {∵ δ = 0} reactance of 0.3 pu. The maximum steady state
power transfer is
= 4 [ −0.1] = −0.4p.u (a) 1.154 pu (b) 5.0 pu
(c) 1.5 pu (d) 0.76 pu
QC = − ( −0.4 ) = 0.4p.u
APSPDCL AE 2012
QC = 0.4 ×100 MVAR Ans. (a) : Ef = 1.5 pu; Xg = 1.0 pu; line reactance XL =
QC = 40 MVAR 0.3 pu
54. A transmission line has equal voltages at the E V
Pmax = f t
two ends, maintained constant by two sources. X
A third source is to be provided to maintain Here bus voltage Vt = 1∠00 as reference
constant voltage equal to the end voltages at 1.5 × 1 1.5
either the mid-point of the lines (case 1) or at So, Pmax = = = 1.154 pu
X g + X L 1.3
75% of the distance from sending end (case 2),
The maximum power transfer capabilities of 57. For enhancing the power transmission in/along
the line in the original case, case 1 and case 2 EHV transmission, the most preferred method
respectively, will be in the radio of : is to connect a
(a) series inductive compensator in the line ∇Pi
(b) shunt inductive compensator at the receiving 60. Electrical stiffness is defined as Tij = . The
∇δ
end
(c) series capacitive compensator in the line power system is generally operated at
(d) shunt capacitive compensator at the sending (a) ∆δ = 90°
end (b) ∆δ = 0°
APPSC AEE 2019 (c) ∆δ = 30° to 45°
Ans. (c) : Power flow in line is proportional to
(1/reactance of the line), as reactance of line decreases, (d) ∆δ = 75°
so power flow in line increase with increasing UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
capacitive effect. For enhancing the power transmission Ans. (c) : In practical load situations, the load angle is
in along EHV transmission line, the most preferred 30° to 45°. Synchronizing power is defined as the
method is to connect a series capacitive compensator in
the line. varying of synchronizing power P on varying in the
E g Vt load angle it is also called stiffness of coupling.
p= Sinδ 61. FACTS device is used for-
X
1 (a) enhancing controllability
P∝ where, X = ( X L − X C ) (b) varying network impedance
X
58. The swing equation for stability of power (c) increasing power transfer
system is represented by (d) all of the above
d 2δ KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
(a) M 2 = Ps + Pe Ans. (d) : Facts device is used for:
dt
(i) Enhancing controllability.
d 2δ
(b) M 2 = Ps − Pe (ii) Varying network impedance.
dt
(iii) Increasing power transfer.
d2δ
(c) M 2 = Ps .Pe 62. Which of the following are the advantages of
dt interconnected operation of power system ?
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 (i) Less reserve capacity requirement
(ii) More reliability
d2δ
Ans. (b) : Swing Equation– M = Ps − Pe = Pa (iii) High power factor
dt 2 (iv) Reduction in short-circuit level
M→ Angular Momentum = Iω Select the correct answer using the codes given
I → Momentum of Inertia
below :
δ→ Power angle of the machine.
Pa → Accelerating power (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
P s→ Mechanical input to synchronous gen. (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
(Mechanical power) HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
Pe → Electrical output of synchronous gen. (Electrical Ans. (a) : Advantages of interconnected operation of
power) power system are :
59. For equal area criterion when a disturbance (i) Less reserve capacity requirement
occurs:
(a) If the speed of the rotor is at synchronous (ii) More reliability.
speed there is change in torque angle 63. If the power transferred from a system to a
(b) The angle increases if the speed is more than load under maximum power transfer condition
synchronous speed. is Pm, the loss in the system is –
(c) The mechanical output is less than electrical
(a) Pm (b) Pm/2
output.
(d) None of the other options (c) 2Pm (d) None of these
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
Ans. (a) : The condition of stability can be stated as the |E||V|
system is stable if the area under Pa (accelerating Ans. (a) : Pe = sin δ
Xd
power)– δ curve reduces to zero at same value of δ . In
other words, the positive area under Pa–δ curve must be Pe = Pm sinδ For, δ = 1 Pe = Pm
equal to negative area and hence he name 'equal area'
According maximum power transfer theorem, the loss
criterion of stability. So, if the speed of rotor is at m
synchronous speed there is change in torque angle equal to the max power and power transferred to load
during disturbance. will be equal at maximum power transfer condition.

64. The inertia constants of two groups of Ans. (c) : The equal area criterion means the total area
machines, which swing together are M1 and under P-δ curve during transient period should be zero.
M2. The inertia constant of the system is : Total area can be zero if it has 2 equal area with
M1M 2 opposite sign.
(a)
M1 + M 2
(b) M1 – M2, M1 > M2
(c) M1 + M2
M1 + M 2
(d)
M1M 2 A1 + A2 = 0
APTRANSCO AE 2017 A1 = –A2
Ans. (c) : Consider the swing equation of two machine A1(acc) = –A2(de-acc)
which swings together are- It is a graphical method. The graph plot between P-δ
shown in the above fig.
d 2δ1
( )
M1 2 = Pm1 − Pe1 p.u. .........(1)
dt
It is only employed for transient stability of single
machine infinite bus system.
2
d δ 67. Which among the following statement is true
( )
M 2 22 = Pm 2 − Pe2 p.u. ..........(2)
dt
for a power system with lagging power factor?
(a) Active power will flow from lagging voltage
GH bus to leading voltage bus
{Where, M = }
120f (b) Active power will flow from leading voltage
Since, two machine swings together then, bus to lagging voltage bus
(c) Reactive power will flow from lagging
i.e. δ1 = δ2 = δ adding eq. (1) + (2)
voltage bus to leading voltage bus
2
d δ (d) Reactive power will flow from leading
So, M eq 2 = Pm − pe
dt voltage bus to lagging voltage bus
Thus, M eq = M1 + M 2 Ans. (b) : For a power system with lagging power
Pm = Pm1 + Pm 2 factor active power will flow from leading voltage bus
to lagging voltage bus whenever with leading power
Pe = Pe1 + Pe2 factor active power will flow from lagging voltage bus
to leading voltage bus.
∴ Option (c) is correct.
68. If Pm is the maximum power transferred, the
65. Transient stability of a power system can be transferred power in the system is:
improved by (a) Pm/4 (b) Pm/2
(a) faster fault clearing (c) 3Pm/4 (d) Pm/8
(b) fast-acting excitation system DMRC AM 2016
(c) both (a) and (b) Ans. (b) : If Pm is maximum power transferred, so
(d) none of these P
transferred power in system is m as at maximum
Vizag Steel MT 2013 2
Ans. (c) : Transient stability of a power system can be power half is transferred to load and half to system
improved by 69. The swing equation is given by.
(i) faster fault clearing Where δ is electrical power angle; H is per unit
(ii) fast-acting excitation system inertia constant; Pm is per unit mechanical
power; Pe is per unit electrical power and f0 is
66. The equal area criterion is employed for the frequency
determination of the
180fo d 2 δ
(a) steady state stability limit of single-machine- (a) Pe − Pm =
infinite bus system. H dt 2
(b) swing curve of single-machine-infinite bus H d2δ
(b) Pm − Pe =
system. 180fo dt 2
(c) transient stability limit of single-machine- 180fo d 2 δ
infinite bus system. (c) Pm − Pe =
H dt 2
(d) determination of critical clearing time.
RPSC AE 2018 180fo d 2 δ
(d) Pe − Pm =
ESE 2016 H dt 2
Vizag Steel MT 2013 UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I

Ans : (b) The swing equation is given by – iii. Use high speed reclosing breakers
H d δ 2 iv. Increase system frequency
Pm − Pe = (a) i, ii, and iv (b) i, iii and iv
180 f o dt 2 (c) i, ii, iii and iv (d) i, ii and iii
where H =per unit inertia constant ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
δ = electrical power angle Ans. (d) : Transient stability limit of a power system is
Pe = per unit electrical power the maximum flow of power through a particular point
Pm = per unit mechanical power in the power system without loss of stability when small
f0= Frequency disturbances occur. Following are the methods for
It is a second order differential equation where the improvements:
 dδ  1. By increasing system voltage.
damping term is absent   because of the
 dt  2. By increasing X/R ratio in the power system.
assumption of a lossless machine and the fact the torque 3. By using high-speed circuit breakers.
of damper winding has been ignored. 4. By fast valuing of the turbine.
70. A generator delivers power of 1p.u. to an 5. Use of auto reclosing.
infinite bus through a purely reactive network. 6. By employing high-neutral grounding impedance.
The maximum power that could be delivered 7. By using quick automatic voltage regulations (AVR).
by the generator is 2.0 p.u. A three-phase fault 72. The stability of a system, when subjected to a
occurs at the terminals of the generator which disturbance, is assessable by which of the
reduces the generator output to zero. The fault following methods?
is cleared after tc seconds. The original network 1. Swing curve
is then restored. The maximum swing of the 2. Equal-area criterion
rotor angle (δ) of the generator is found to be 3. Power-angle diagram
δmax= 120 electrical degrees. The value of cosδ 4. Power-circle diagram
at time t = tc is (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 0.285 (b) 0.471 (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 0.512 (d) 0.352 ESE 2018
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II Ans. (d) : Stability of a system is assessable by using
Ans. (a): the solutions of the swing equation study of swing
curve, equal area criterion and power angle curve.
But power circle diagram is used to find rating of
compensator not for stability of system. So statement 1,
2 and 3 are correct.
73. Power transmission capacity of a high voltage
line can be increased by
(a) Increasing the resistance of the line
(b) Increasing the inductive reactance of the line
(c) Reducing the effective series reactance of the
line
 π 
Pa = 1  δc − 30° (d) Reducing the shunt admittance of the line
 180°  ESE 2018
 π 
Pd = 2 [ cos δc − cos120°] − 1 120°× Ans. (c) : High voltage power transmission allows for
 180°  lesser resistive losses over long distance in the wiring.
Since, Pa = Pd VS2
π 2π PS = sin δ
δc − = 2cos δc − 2cos120° − + δc XL
6 3
By reducing the value of XL, the power transmission
2π π
− − 2 cos120° = 2 cos δc capacity can be increased, regarding the above equation.
3 6
74. A 40 MVA, 11kV, 3-phase, 50 Hz, 4-pole turbo-
δc= 3.417o alternator has an inertia constant of 15 sec. An
cos δc = 0.2853 input of 20 MW developed 15 MW of output
71. Which among the following are suitable for power (Neglecting losses). Then the
improving the transient stability limits of a acceleration is
power system? (a) 600/s2 (b) 650/s2
0 2
i. Increase system voltage by AVR (c) 70 /s (d) 750/s2
ii. Use high speed excitation systems ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : It is given :- Ans. (a) :
S = 40 MVA
H = 15 sec
Pm = .20 MW
Pe = 15 MW
f = 50 Hz Inter connecting different coherent areas, requires a
From use of swing equation, better load frequency control. It also facilitates better
Md 2 δ  H.S  coordination of conventional and non-conventional
2
= Pm − Pe M =  power plants leading to energy conservation. Hence,
dt  180f 
statement-1 and 3 are correct whereas, statement -2 is
HS d 2 δ incorrect.
= Pm − Pe
180f dt 2 78. In a power system, due to interconnection or
d 2 δ ( Pm − Pe )180f grid formations and transmission line
= (Putting the values) redundancy, the ability to serve all power
dt 2 HS
demands without failure over long periods of
=
( 20 − 15 )180 × 50 = 750 / s 2 time, is due to
40 × 15 (a) Power system quality
75. Which one of the following conditions will be (b) Power system reliability
satisfied for an impedance matched system? (c) Computers and microprocessors
(a) The decibel power gain is equal to twice the (d) Reserve generating capacity
decibel voltage gain ESE 2020
(b) The decibel power gain is equal to the decibel Ans. (b) : Power system reliability is ability of power
voltage gain system to serves power demand without failure over
(c) The decibel power gain is half the decibel long period of time.
voltage gain 79. The inertia constant H for a 50Hz, 100MVA
(d) The decibel power gain is equal to thrice the hydroelectric generator is 4.0MJ/MVA. How
decibel voltage gain much kinetic energy is stored in the rotor at
ESE 2019 synchronous speed?
Ans. (c) : For Impedance matched system (a) 400 (b) 2
Decibel voltage gain = 2 × Decibel power gain. (c) 25 (d) 8
76. The methods adopted for improving the steady UPPCL AE 2014
state stability of power system are KE ( MJ )
1. Quick response excitation system Ans. (a) : H =
2. Higher excitation voltages MVA Rating
3. Maximum power transfer by use of Series KE = H × MVA
capacitor or reactor 4MJ
= × 100 MVA
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only MVA
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 = 400 MJ
ESE 2019 80. Which of the following mainly leads to voltage
Ans. (c) : Quick response excitation system improve instability?
transient stability. (a) Transfer of reactive power
↑Pmax ∝ Excitation↑ (b) Transfer of active power
1 (c) Transfer of dc power
↑Pmax ∝
( XL − XC ) ↑ (d) Transfer of harmonic power
Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Ans. (a) : The power system are heavily stressed due to
77. Consider the following statements for a large
increased loading and this leads to voltage instability.
national interconnected grid:
that means transfer to reactive power.
1. Better load frequency control
2. Same total installed capacity can meet lower 81. Voltage stability is also known as load stability
demands and is strongly influenced by
3. Better hydro/thermal/nuclear/renewable co- (1) Dynamic characteristics and static response of
ordination and energy conservation. the load.
Which of the above statements are correct? 2) The load characteristics, set of parameters
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only such as power factor or variation of active
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 and reactive powers with voltage and
ESE 2019 frequency.

(3) The frequency dependency of active and Ans. (c) : Max demand = 30 MW
reactive power. Load factor = 60%
4) Load, a device connected to power system Plant capacity factor = 50%
that consumers active or reactive power. Max load
Identify the incorrect statements. Capacity factor = × Load factor
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Plant capacity
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 30 MW
Plant capacity = × 60%
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I 50%
Ans. (b) : The load characteristics, set of parameters 30 × 106 × 6
such as power factor or variation of active and reactive =
powers with voltage and frequency 5
The frequency dependency of active and reactive = 36 MW
power. Reserve capacity of plant = Plant capacity – Maximum
demand
= 36 – 30
(vii) Optimal Power System = 6 MW
Operation 3. It is always economical to improve the power
factor of an electric installation to
1. The loss formula coefficient matrix for a two- (a) zero
plant system is given by (b) unity
 0.001 -0.0001 -1 (c) a little less than unity
 -0.0001 0.0013  MW . (d) a little more than unity
 
The economic schedule for a certain load is UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
given as Ans. (c) : • Adding capacitors is generally the most
P1 = 150 MW and P2 = 275 MW. economical way to improve a facility's power factor.
What is the penalty factor for plant 1 for this • It is always economical to improve the power factor
condition? of an electrical installation to a little less than unity.
(a) 1.324 (b) 1.515 4. The maximum demand of consumer is 2.0 kW
(c) 1.575 (d) 1.721 and the daily energy consumption 20 units. Its
ESE 2017 load factor is
Ans. (a) : Given, (a) 10.6% (b) 20.6 %
B12 = B21 = –0.0001 MW–1 (c) 31.6 % (d) 41.6 %
B11 = 0.0010 MW–1 BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
B22 = 0.0013 MW–1
Ans. (d) :
P1 = 150 MW, P2 = 275 MW
Loss equation: 5. What type of earthing is used of transmission
PL = B11P12 + 2B12 P1P2 + B 22 P22 lines?
(a) Plate earthing (b) Pipe earthing
= ( 0.0010 ) P12 + 2 ( −0.0001) P1 P2 + ( 0.0013 ) P22 (c) Strip earthing (d) Rod earthing
∂ PL WBPSC AE 2017
= 2 ( 0.001) P1 + 2 ( −0.0001) P2
∂ P1 Ans. (c) :
= 2 ( 0.001)(150 ) + 2 ( −0.0001) (275) 6. Availability Based Tariff (ABT) is a
(a) Three part tariff
= 0.245 (b) Two part tariff
1 (c) Single part tariff
Penalty factor =
 ∂ PL  (d) None of the above
1 −  WBPSC AE 2007
 ∂ P1 
1 Ans. (d) :
= = 1.324 7. By connecting the capacitor bank across the
(1 − 0.245 ) inductive loads, which of the following is
2. A generating station has a maximum demand correct?
of 30 MW, a load factor of 60% and a plant (a) Power factor of generators is reduced
capacity factor of 50%. The reserve capacity of (b) The reactance of line supplying the load is
the plant is: reduced
(a) 5 MW (b) 4 MW (c) The inductive load itself is reduced
(c) 6 MW (d) 10 MW (d) The reactive power demand from supply
RPSC VPITI 2018 system is reduced
TSPSC AEE 2017
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
ESE 2003, ESE 2014
Ans. (d) : By connecting the capacitor bank across the 11. In the optimum generator scheduling of
inductive loads, the reactive power demand from supply different power plants, the main fuel cost is
system is reduced and there are main method for obtained when
improve power factor. (a) Only the incremental fuel cost of each plant is
same
8. Under maximum power transfer condition the (b) The penalty factor of each plant is same
efficiency is (c) The ratio of the incremental fuel cost to the
(a) 25% (b) 75% penalty factor of each plant is same
(c) 100% (d) 50% (d) The incremental fuel cost of each plant
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III multiplied by its penalty factor is the same
Ans. (d) : Under maximum power transfer condition the Karnataka PSC AE 2017
efficiency is 50%. ESE 1994
9. For the same voltage boost the reactive power Ans. (d) : In the optimum generator scheduling of
capacity of is more? different power plants, the main fuel cost is obtained
(a) Shunt capacitor when the incremental fuel cost of each plant multiplied
by its penalty factor is the same.
(b) Series capacitor
1
(c) Same for shunt & series Penalty factor (Pn) =
∂P
(d) None of the options 1− L
Vizag Steel MT 2011 ∂Pn
Ans. (a) : By Shunt capacitor voltage Booster, the ∂P
Where, L =incremental fuel cost
reactive power capacity is maximum as compared to ∂Pn
series capacitor. 12. For economic operation the generator with
10. A consumer is taking load of 20 kW at power highest position incremental transmission loss
factor of 0.8 lagging. Find the rating of will operate at
capacitor to raise the power factor to 0.95. (a) The lowest positive cost of production
(a) 9.43 kVAR (b) 8.43 kVAR (b) The lowest negative incremental cost of
(c) 7.53 kVAR (d) 6.43 kVAR production
(c) The highest positive incremental cost of
production
Ans. (b) : P = 20 kW (d) None of the above
P.f. = 0.8 Lag Karnataka PSC AE 2017
P = VIcos φ Ans. (a) : Kelvin’s Law- The most economical area of
conductor is that for which the total annual cost of
20 × 103
= VA transmission line is minimum.
0.8 Generally, the X-sectional area of the conductor is
S = 25 × 103 decided on the basis of minimum annual cost.
S = 25KVA For economic operation the generator with highest
(∵sin φ = (1 − ( cos φ) ) )
positive incremental transmission loss will operate at
2
the lowest positive cost of production.
13. What does the figure below illustrate?
Q1 = VIsin φ
= 25 × 103 × 0.6
Q1 = 15KVAR
So, P.f = 0.95
P = VI cos φ
20 × 103
S= = 21.052 KVA
0.95
Q 2 = VIsin φ
Q 2 = 21.052 × 0.31224
(a) Millman's theorem
Q 2 = 6.57 KVAR (b) Kelvin's law
Q t = Q1 − Q 2 (c) Reciprocity theorem
(d) Compensation theorem
= 15-6.57 = 8.43 KVAR DMRC AM 2018
Ans. (b) : Kelvin's Law 16. The cost function of a 50 MW generator is
given by (pi is the generator loading)
F (pi) = 225 + 53Pi + 0.02 Pi2
When 100% loading is applied, the
Incremental Fuel Cost (IFC) will be
(a) Rs. 55 per MWh
(b) Rs. 55 per MW
(c) Rs. 33 per MWh
(d) Rs. 33 per MW
APGENCO AE 2012
ESE 200
Ans. (a) :
Fuel cost function F(pi) = 225 + 53 pi + 0.02 pi2
It states "The most economical cross section area of The incremental cost-
d F ( pi )
electrical conductor is that for which cost of energy is
lost in given period is equal to the interest for same dpi
=
d
dpi
( 225 + 53Pi + 0.02 pi2 )
period of the capital involved."
d F ( pi )
14. The incremental fuel cost two generating units = ( 53 + 0.04 pi ) per MWh {pi = 50 }
dpi
are given by :
IC1 = 25 + 0.2 PG1 = ( 53 + 0.04 × 50 )
IC2 = 32 + 0.2 PG2, where PG1 and PG2 are real = ( 53 + 2 ) = 55per MWh
power generated by the units.
The economic allocation for a total load of 250 17. What is the penalty factor of a plant if its
incremental loss is 0.2?
MW, neglecting transmission loss is given by :
(a) 5 (b) 0.8
(a) PG1 = 140.25 MW, PG2 = 109.75 MW
(c) 0.2 (d) 1.25
(b) PG1 = 109.75 MW, PG2 = 140.25 MW
(c) PG1 = PG2 = 125 MW
Ans. (d) : Penalty factor
(d) PG1 = 100 MW, PG2 = 150 MW
APTRANSCO AE 2019 1
Li = i = 2,3,....., m
Ans. (a) : Given that, δP
1− L
IC1 = 25 + 0.2 PG1 δPgi
IC2 = 32 + 0.2 PG2 δPL
Total load = 250 MW incremented loss = 0.2
δPg
PG1 + PG2 = 250 .....(1)
For economic allocation of load, 1
L= = 1.25
IC1 = IC2 1 − 0.2
25 + 0.2 PG1 = 32 + 0.2 PG2
18. The annual cost characteristics of plants are
0.2 [PG1 – PG2] = 7
given as :
PG1 – PG2 = 35 .....(2)
(a) C1 = 5kW1 + 0.02 kWhr
Solving (i) and (2)
(b) C2 = 7kW2 + 0.015 kWhr
PG1 = 142.25 MW and PG2 = 109.75 MW Which plant can be selected for base load
15. The most accurate and versatile method of operation?
achieving reactive power compensation is by (a) Plant 1
using : (b) Plant 2
(a) Switched capacitors (c) Any of these
(b) Fixed capacitor with controlled reactor (d) None of these
(c) Saturable reactor with capacitor bank HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
(d) Switched capacitor with controlled reactors Ans. (b) : For base load operation, we choose a plant
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II where energy losses are low, because base load
APPSC AEE 2019 operation continuous working for day long.
Ans. (d) : The most accurate and versatile method of So Plant 2 is selective among these for base load.
achieving reactive power compensation is by using Plant 1 , 5 kW1 + 0.02 kWhr
switched capacitor with controlled reactors. Plant 2 , 7 kW2 + 0.015 kWhr

19. In terms of plant powers Pn and Pm and loss 21. The economic size of a conductor depends on:
coefficients Bmn the total transmission loss PL (a) Faraday's Law (b) Biot-Savart Law
is: (c) Kirchhoff's Law (d) Kelvin's Law
∑ ∑
N N BHEL ET 2019
(a) B P
m =1 n =1 mn n UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
∑ ∑
N N Ans. (d) : Kelvin's Law– "The Kelvin's law states that
(b) P B
m =1 n =1 m mn the most economical size of a conductor is that for
∑ ∑
N N which annual interest and depreciation on the capital
(c) P B P
m =1 n =1 m mn n cost of the conductor is equal to the annual cost of
energy loss."
∑ ∑
N N
(d) 2Pm Bmn Total annual cost C = K1a + K2/a
m =1 n =1
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 Where K1 & K2 constant and a is area of cross-section
Ans. (c) : The total transmission loss of conductor.
N N 22. A load center of 120 MW derives power from
PL = ∑∑
m =1 n =1
Pm Bmn Pn two power stations connected by 220 kV
transmission lines of 25 km and 75 km as
Where, coefficients Bmn are called loss coefficient or B- shown in figure below. The three generators
coefficient. G1, G2 and G3 are of 100 MW capacity each
20. The incremental fuel cost for two generating and have identical fuel cost characteristics. The
units are given by minimum loss generation schedule for
IC = 10 + 0.2PG supplying the 120 MW load is
1 1
IC2 = 16 + 0.2PG2 , where PG1 and PG2 are real
power generated by the units. Find the
economic allocation for a total load of 170 MW.
(neglect transmission line loss)
(a) PG1 = 60 MW, PG2 = 110 MW (a) P1 = 90 MW (b) P1 = 80 MW
(b) PG1 = 80 MW, PG2 = 90 MW P2 = 15 MW P2 = 20 MW
(c) PG1 = 100 MW, PG2 = 70 MW P3 = 15 MW P3 = 20 MW
(d) PG1 = 120 MW, PG2 = 50 MW (c) P1 = 60 MW (d) P1 = 40 MW
DMRC AM 2020 P2 = 30 MW P2 = 40 MW
ESE 1995 P3 = 30 MW P3 = 40 MW
Ans. (c) : Given that, ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020
IC1 = 10 + 0.2 PG1 Ans. (a) : For minimum loss, higher power should
IC2 = 16 + 0.2 PG2 come from shorter distance accordingly the correct
PG1 + PG2 = 170.............(i) answer is option (a) in which 90 MW comes from 25
∵ Equal incremental cost rule then, km and 30 MW comes from 75 cm.
10 + 0.2 PG1 = A 23. Cost of equipment used in power system is
16 + 0.2 PG2 = A `1,00,000 and its scrape value is `10,000 after a
A – 10 useful life of 20 years. What is the annual
PG1 = depreciation charge of the equipment?
0.2
(a) ` 5,000 (b) ` 5,000
A – 16 (c) ` 500 (d) ` 4,500
PG 2 =
0.2 UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
Put these values in eq........(i) Ans. (d) : P = `1,00,000
A –10 A – 16 S = `10,000
+ = 170
0.2 0.2 n = 20Year
A – 10 + A – 16 = 170 × 0.2 = 34 So Annual depreciation charge
P −S
2A – 26 = 34 ( Q ) =  
2A = 34 + 26  n 
60 1,00,000 − 10,000
A=
2
= 30 (Q) =
20
Now, PG1 =
30 – 10 20
= = 100 MW ( Q ) = ` 4500
0.2 0.2
P= original cost
30 – 16 14 S= estimated scrap value
PG2 = = = 70 MW
0.2 0.2 n= estimated life (in year)

24. The problems associated with use of series Assume the minimum loading on any generator
capacitor for power factor improvement is to be 30 MW, the most economical loads PG1
listed in the options. Which option is not true? and PG2 for the two generators are, respectively
(a) The effect of series capacitor is more than (a) 170 MW and 100 MW
that of shunt capacitor in power factor (b) 200 MW and 100 MW
improvement (c) 170 MW and 30 MW
(b) Switching-in of an unloaded transformer may (d) 200 MW and 30 MW
develop Ferro resonance ESE 2017
(c) Series capacitor develops high recovery Ans. (d) : Given,
voltage across the circuit breaker contacts P1 + P2 = 200 MW
(d) Series compensated line has a tendency to Pmin = 30 MW
cause series resonance, called sub C1 = P1 + 0.01 P12
synchronous resonance of frequencies lower C2 = 5P2 + 0.02 P22
than power frequencies
∂C1
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I = 1 + 2 ( 0.01) P1 = λ1
Ans : (a) Improving power factor means reducing the ∂P1
phase difference between voltage and current. So ∂C2
capacitor or bank of capacitor installed in parallel to = 5 + 2 ( 0.01) P2 = λ 2
∂P2
load provides reactive power for function, effect of
incremental fuel cost λ1 = λ2 = λ
series capacitor is less in comparison to that of parallel
capacitor. ∴ 1 + 2(0.01) P1 = 5 + 2 (0.002)P2
0.02 P1 – 0.04 P2 = 4
25. Incremental fuel costs in Rs/MWh for a plant
4
consisting of two generating units are given by P1 – 2P2 =
dF1 dF2 0.02
= 0.4P1 + 400 and = 0.48P2 + 320 400
dP1 dP2 P2 – 2P2 =
2
The allocation of loads P1 and P2 between P1 – 2P2 = 200
generating units 1 and 2, respectively, for Solving equations (i) and (ii)
minimum cost of generation to serve a total P1 = 200 and P2 = 0
load of 900 MW, neglecting losses, is But given minimum load should be 30 MW.
(a) 200 MW and 7000 MW 27. A utility offers two tariffs for monthly billing
(b) 500 MW and 400 MW (i) Rs. 2.5/unit
(c) 300 MW and 600 MW (ii) Rs. 200 +Rs.1.75/unit
(d) 400 MW and 500 MW At what consumption level is tariff (i)
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I preferable
ESE 2015 (a) Above 267 units (b) At all levels
Ans : (d) The incremental fuel cost Rs MWH are (c) Below 267 units (d) Less than 30 units
dF1 UPPCL AE 2014
= 0.4P1 + 400
dP1 Ans. (c) : Utility offer two tariffs
(i) Rs. 2.5/unit
dF2
= 0.4P2 + 320 (ii) Rs. 200 +Rs.1.75/unit
dP2 Consumption level is tariff preferable below 267 units.
the total load shared by both generating unit is
P1 + P2 = 900 .......... (i) (viii) HVDC Transmission,
Equation the both incremental cost generation we get
0.4P1 + 400 = 0.48P2 +320 FACTS and Recent Trends
0.48P2 = 0.4P1+80 ......... (ii)
Substituting the value we get 1. In a D.C. transmission line :–
(a) It is necessary for the sending end and
P1 = 400MW receiving end to be operated in synchronism
P2 = 500MW (b) The effective of inductive and capacitive
reactances are greater than in an A.C.
26. A lossless power system has two generators G1 transmission line of the same rating
and G2; and total load to be served is 200 MW. (c) There are no effect due to inductive and
The respective cost curves C1 and C2 are capacitive reactances
defined as (d) Power transfer capability is limited by
2
C1 = PG1 + 0.01 PG1 similarly considerations
2
C 2 = 5 PG2 + 0.02 PG2 WBSE TCL AE 2016

Ans. (c) : In a D.C. transmission line, there are no Ans. (c) : By using HVDC transmission over EHV-AC
effects due to inductive and capacitive reactances so, it system stability can be improved.
is preferred for bulk power transmission over long • HVDC systems are economical for long distance bulk
distances as losses in the line reduces as compared to power transmission by overhead line.
A.C. lines. • There is no charging current and skin effect.
2. In the case of HVDC transmission system, • There are easy reversibility and controllability of
which of the statements is True? power flow through a DC link.
(a) No charging current but skin effect is present.
(b) There are charging current but no skin effect. 6. Which one of the following is not true in HVDC
(c) Both charging current and skin effect are transmission?
present. (a) Corona loss is much more is HVDC
(d) There is neither charging current nor skin transmission.
effect. (b) The power transmission capability of bipolar
UPPCL AE 2015 line is almost the same as that of single-
RPSC AE 2018 circuit act line.
Ans. (d) for long distance transmission, HVDC system (c) HVDC link can operate between two ac
may be less expensive and have lower electric loss, and systems whose frequencies need not be equal.
there are no charging current nor skin effect. (d) There is no distance limitation for HVDC
3. Power capability 'P' HVDC transmission varies transmission by underground cable.
with the distance 'D' as TNPSC AE 2019
(a) P ∝ 1/ D Ans. (a) : Corona is the phenomenon of ionisation of
(b) P ∝ D surrounding air around the conductor due to which
(c) P ∝ D luminous glow with hissing noise is produced.
(d) it does not depend on D This effect can cause considerable power loss, both
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I AC and DC transmission lines can generate corona
Ans. (d) : Power capability, due to the space charge formed around the
Ed1 − Ed 2 conductors.
P= Ed 2 7. HVDC link between two power systems is used
R
where E d1 and E d2 are the d.c. voltages at the two to
(a) transfer more power
ends and R is the line resistance. (b) improve stability
hence, power is proportional to the difference of the line
(c) avoid transfer of effects of one system to
voltages. It does not depends on distance D.
other
4. The d.c. output voltage of a bridge converter (d) all the above
used in HVDC transmission is
UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
3 2 2 3 Ans. (d) : HVDC (high voltage direct current) electric
(a) Em (b) Em
π π power transmission system also called a super highway
3 3 3 3 or electrical super highway, uses direct current between
(c) Em (d) Em
2π π two power system, so low losses and high efficiency.
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I 8. The power transmission capability of a bipolar
Ans. (d) : The output voltage for an n-phase circuit is HVDC line compared to a 3-phase single
Vm sin π / n circuit line is-
π/n (a) Half (b) Double
for n = 6 Vm = 3 Vm (c) One fourth (d) None of the above
Vm = E m UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : Power transmission by bipolar HVDC line is
3E m sin π / 6 E
V0 = =3 3 m same as that three phase single line transmission.
π/6 π In HVDC system has charging current but no skin effect
5. HVDC transmission is preferred to EHV AC while transfer the power.
because 9. Rihand-Dadri transmission line is
(a) HVDC terminal equipments are inexpensive
(a) 400 kV EHV AC line
(b) VAR compensation is not required
(b) ±500 kV Bipolar DC line
(c) system stability can be improved
(d) harmonic problem is avoided (c) ±400 kV Bipolar DC line
PTCUL AE 2012 (d) 220 kV EHV AC line
TSPSC AEE 2017 UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
Ans. (b) : The Rihand-Dadri transmission line is HVDC Ans. (c) : The electrical power is not transmitted by
connection between Rihand and Dadri in India. It have D.C. due to its limitation like.
1500 MW thermal power station. It is Bipolar DC. link, (1) Very bulky system
DC voltage + 500 kV Bipolar DC line. (2) Can not be stepped up or stepped down by
10. HVDC line uses: transformer without converter
(a) IGBT in the converters (3) not economic
(b) SCRs in the converters 14. HVDC transmission can be used due to–
(c) MOSFET in the converters (a) Asynchronous link
(d) Power diodes in the converters (b) Transmit bulk power at long distance
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 (c) Reduce conductor material
Ans. (a) : High voltage DC transmission line uses IGBT (d) All of above
in the converters. GMB AE 2017
Insulated gate bipolar transistor in HVDC transmission Ans. (d) : HVDC transmission can be used due to
line, have power rating 8 to 180 MW. asynchronous link, transmit bulk power at long distance
and to reduce conductor material.
11. In HVDC transmission line, high power SCRs
15. The most accurate method for HVAC and
are used for which of the following?
HVDC measurement is–
1. Boosting the voltage
(a) Electrostatic voltmeter
2. a.c. to d.c. conversion
(b) Sphere gap method
3. d.c. to a.c. conversion
(c) Resistance divider method
(a) Option 1 only
(d) Capacitance divider method
(b) Option 1 and 3only
GMB AE 2017
(c) Option 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b) : Sphere gap arrangement is used to measure
(d) Options 2 and 3only
the peak value of HVAC, peak value of HVDC and
impulse voltage. Peak value can be measured if the
Ans. (d) : In HVDC transmission line, high power distance between two spheres are known. Two
SCRs are used for arrangement are used in this method –
1. a.c. to d.c. conversion 1. Horizontal 2. Vertical
2. d.c. to a.c. conversion 16. Power is transferred from system A to system
• High Voltage Direct Current (HVDC) transmission, B by HVDC link as shown in the figure. If the
there are predominant voltage harmonic on d.c. side and voltage VAB and VCD are as indicated in the
current harmonic on ac side of converters. figure and I > O, then–
12. Which transmission system has skin effect
absence, less line cost, low corona effect?
(a) HVDC
(b) EHV-AC
(c) UHB-AC
(a) VAB < O, VCD < O, VAB > VCD
(d) HVDC and EHV-AC
(b) VAB > O, VCD > O, VAB < VCD
MPPSC AE 2014
(c) VAB > O, VCD > O, VAB > VCD
KPTCL AE 2015 (d) VAB > O, VCD < O
Ans. (a) : In HVDC system APTRANSCO AE 2011
1. In AC system skin effect is larger then DC system. Ans. (c) : Power flows in the indicating direction when
2. HVDC system required signal conductor to transmit VAB>0, VCD>0, VAB> VCD.
power. There is no power factor that is power loss is in Since current flows from high voltage to low voltage.
1 17. Shunt connected FACTS controller ______ into
∝ 2 so that less power loss.
V the bus at the point of connection.
3. Corona effect is lesser in DC system as compare to (a) inject voltage
AC system. (b) inject current
13. The electrical power is not transmitted by D.C. (c) inject active power
due to its limitation like– (d) inject reactive power
(a) Skin effect in D.C. Karnataka PSC AE 2016
(b) Greater voltage drop in D.C. Ans. (b) : Shunt connected FACTS controller inject the
(c) Can not be stepped up or down current into the bus at the point of connection. SVC is
(d) None of above used to regulate the voltage at a given bus by
controlling its equivalent reactance.
GMB AE 2017
18. The power carrying capacity of a HVDC line (c) For the same power to be transmitted current
varies with distance d as rating of system is reduced
(a) is independent of d (b) P ∝ d 2 (d) All of the above
1 (e) None
(c) P ∝ d (d) P ∝ CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
d
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I Ans. (d) : In HVDC transmission system high power
Ans. (a) : The power carrying capacity of a HVDC line factor is because voltage drop is reduced, current rating
varies with distance d as is independent of d. reduced, stress on thyristor and damping circuit is
reduced are the reason to have high power factor of
19. The circuit breaker used for the protection of
HVDC transmission line is– HVDC transmission line.
(a) Air blast circuit breaker 24. Advantage of HVDC transmission system
(b) SF6 circuit breaker (a) No charging current
(c) Vacuum circuit breaker (b) No skin effect
(d) None of above (c) No compensation required
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (d) Less corona loss and radio interference
Ans. (d) : The design and operation of DC system is (e) All
different from AC circuit. The breaker which is used for CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
the interruption of the high voltage direct current is Ans. (e) : Advantage of HVDC transmission system, is
known as the HVDC circuit breaker. The voltage no charging current, no skin effect, no compensation is
breaking capacity of the HVDC circuit breaker is nearly required, less corona loss and radio interference.
33kV, and for the current it is 2kA. e.g. use Hybrid 25. Following is true for a HVDC system:
circuit breaker. (a) Skin effect but absence of charging current
20. In a DC transmission line : (b) Presence of Charging current and no skin
(a) it is necessary for the sending end and effect
receiving end to be operated in synchronism. (c) Both are present
(b) the effects of inductive and capacitive (d) Both absent
reactance are greater in the same rating AC
(e) Proximity effect and skin effect
transmission line as compared to that of DC
line
(c) there are no effects due to inductive and Ans. (b) : In a HVDC system presence of charging
capacitive reactance current is present but there is no skin effect.
(d) power transfer capability is limited by 26. Rectifier firing angle (α) in HVDC
stability considerations transmission is kept nearly equal to:
RPSC VPITI 2016 (a) 0° (b) 30°
Ans. (c) : In a DC transmission line, there are no effects (c) 15° (d) 45°
due to inductive and capacitive reactance. (e) None
21. “Graetz” circuit is mainly used in : CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
(a) EHV AC transmission Ans. (c) : Rectifier firing angle (α) in HVDC
(b) HVDC transmission transmission is kept nearly equal to 15°.
(c) Flexible transmission 27. A 12 pulse bridge rectifier is used in HVDC
(d) 220/ 220 kV transmission system:
RPSC VPITI 2016 (a) It results in power factor improvement
Ans. (b) : Graetz circuit is manly used in HVDC (b) It results in elimination of certain harmonics
transmission. (c) Less complex analysis
22. Short-circuit ratio of an HVDC grid is : (d) All of the above
(a) DC power flow/kVA (e) None
(b) AC MVA/DC MW CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
(c) Voltage/Current at the short-circuit point
Ans. (b) : A 12 pulse bridge rectifier used in HVDC
(d) Short-circuit MVA at converter bus rated DC
transmission system, it results in elimination of certain
power MW
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II harmonics in transmission system.
Ans. (d) : Short-circuit ratio of an HVDC grid is short- 28. A bipolar HVDC transmission line has two
circuit MVA at converter bus rated DC power MW. poles :-
(a) One positive and other negative
23. Reason to have high power factor in case of
HVDC transmission system (b) Both Positive
(a) Voltage drop is reduce (c) Both negative
(b) Stress on thyristors and damping circuit is (d) None of the above alternatives
reduced UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : A bipolar HVDC transmission line has two 33. A HVDC link consists of rectifier, inverter
poles one positive and other negative. transmission line and other equipment, which
In HVDC transmission, first AC is converted into DC of the following is true for this link?
using rectifiers then DC is converted into AC using (a) Transmission line produces/supplier reactive
inverters. power
Due to rectifiers and inverters voltage harmonics appear (b) The rectifier consumes reactive power and the
on DC side and current harmonics on AC side of inverter supplies reactive power from/to the
converters. respective connected A.C. system.
29. A dc line carries (c) Rectifier supplies reactive power and the
(a) less power than an equivalent ac line inverter consumes reactive power to/from the
(b) more power than ac line respective connected AC system.
(c) same power as an ac line (d) Both the converters (rectifier and inverter)
(d) none of above consume reactive power from the respective
PTCUL AE 2012 connected AC system.
Ans. (b) : A dc line carries more power than ac line WBSE TCL AE 2016
with same specifications. Ans. (b) : In HVDC link, consisting of rectifier,
30. SSSC in transmission system is analogous to inverter, Transmission line and other equipments, the
.......... in distribution system. rectifier consumes reactive power and inverter supplies
(a) UPQC (b) SVC reactive power from/to the respective connected AC
(c) DSTATCOM (d) DVR system.
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 34. In HVDC transmission there are predominant
Ans. (d) Dynamic Voltage Restorer (DVR) is a static .............hormonics on dc side and......
VAR device analogous to SSSC. It is a series hormonics on ac side of converters.
compensation device, which protects sensitive electric (a) Current, voltage
load, from power quality problems such as voltage sags, (b) Voltage, frequency
swells, unbalance and distortion through power (c) Current, frequency
electronic controller that use voltage source converters. (d) Voltage, current
SSSC– static synchronous series compensator UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
DVR– Dynamic voltage restorer. Ans : (d) In HVDC transmission there are predominant
31. ................ is an example of series-series FACTS voltage harmonics on D.C. side and current harmonics
device. on A.C. side of converters. since excessive current
(a) UPFC (b) SSSC harmonics results in voltage distortion, additional
(c) IPFC (d) STATCOM losses, overheating and harmonic interference.
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 35. Which of the following is not true regarding
Ans. (c) The interline power flow controller (IPFC) is a HVDC transmission?
multiline FACTS device. It consists of a set of (a) Corona loss is much more in HVDC
converters that are connected in series with different transmission
transmission lines. IPFC is an example for series–series (b) The power transmission capability of bipolar
facts device. line is almost the same as that of single circuit
IPFC– Interline power flow controller AC line
FACTS– Flexible alternating current transmission (c) HVDC link can operate between two AC
system. system whose frequencies need not be equal
(d) There is no distance limitation for HVDC
32. High voltage Direct Current (HVDC)
transmission by underground cable
transmission is mainly used for :
(a) Bulk power transmission over very long
distances Ans. (a) : In HVDC transmission line corona loss is
(b) Inter-connecting two system with the nominal directly proportional to (f + 25), where f is the
frequency frequency of supply. Frequency 'f' being zero in case of
(c) Eliminating reactive power requirement in the dc, then corona loss is less as compared to a.c.
operation Therefore corona loss is much more in HVDC
(d) Minimizing harmonics at the converter transmission is not true regarding HVDC transmission.
stations 36. Power transfer capability of a HVDC
WBSE TCL AE 2016 transmission line varies with distance as:
Ans. (a) : High-voltage Direct Current (HVDC) (a) square of the distance
transmission system is mainly used for bulk-power (b) square root of the distance
transmission over very long distances, because, for (c) independent of the distance
long distance transmission, HVDC system may be less (d) directly with the distance
expensive and have lower electrical losses. JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI

Ans. (c) : Power transfer capability of HVDC 41. Interline Power Flow Controller (IPFC) is a :
transmission line does not vary with distance but where (a) Shunt-series FACTS controller
as in AC transmission line it varies inversely with (b) Series-series FACTS controller
distance. (c) Both (a) and (b)
37. In SCADA system network, the Repeaters are (d) None of these
used to increase the HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
(a) Length of transmission data Ans. (d) :
(b) Coverage range of transmission data
(c) distortion of transmission data
(d) Noise of transmission data
JUVNL AE 2017
Ans. (b) : In SCADA system network increase the
repeaters are used to coverage range of transmission
data. Repeater is an electronic device in a
communication channel that increases the power of a
signal and retransmits it, allowing it to travel further.
A interline power flow controller is an electrical device
Since it amplifies the signal; it requires a source of
electric power. for providing fast-acting reactive power compensation
on high-voltage electricity transmission networks. It
38. In the HVDC system, the ac harmonics which
uses a pair of three-phase controllable bridges to
get(s) effectively eliminated with 12 pulse
bridge converters, are : produce current that is injected into a transmission line
(a) Triplen harmonics using a series transformer.
(b) Triplen and 5th harmonics 42. Figure shows the schematic diagram of
(c) Triplen, 5th and 7th harmonics differential protection employing over current
(d) 5th and 7th harmonics relay. If a ground fault occurs in the armature
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 winding causing currents to flow to the fault
ESE 2000 from both the sides of the winding (800 A and
Ans. (d) : In the HVDC system the ac harmonics which 1000 A), then the current through the relay will
gets effectively eliminated with 12 pulse bridge be_____.
converters, are 5th and 7th harmonics. (Assume current ratio of CT's as 200:1)
39. In HVDC transmission, there are predominant: (a) 5 A (b) 4 A
(a) current harmonics on ac side and voltage (c) 1 A (d) 9 A
harmonics on dc side of converters DMRC AM 2018
(b) current harmonics only on the dc side of the Ans. (d) :
converters
(c) both (a) and (b)
ESE 2003
Ans. (b) : In HVDC transmission line requires
convertor at each end. At the sending end a.c. is
converted into d.c. and at the receiving end it is
converted back to a.c. for used. In HVDC transmission,
current harmonics only on the dc side of the converters
are predominant.
40. Response time of STATCOM is ................ times
faster than that of SVC. As we know that,
(a) 2–4 (b) 4–6
(c) 6–8 (d) 8–10 Secondary current Primary turn
=
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 Primary current Secondary turn
Ans. (d) : STATCOM is more expensive than switched For I1, for I2
capacitors or static VAR compensator (SVC). 800 200 1000 200
Response time of STATCOM is 8–10 times faster than = , =
I1 1 I2 1
that of SVC.
The main difference between the SVC and STATCOM I1 = 4A I2 = 5A
is whereas in case of SVC device the current injected
into the system depends upon the system voltage, in Total current through relay operating coil = I1 + I2
case of STATCOM it is independent of the system =5+4
voltage. =9A

43. HVDC transmission systems generally employ: 48. Under normal conditions, an HVDC link
(a) 6 pulse converters operates with-
(b) 3 pulse converters (a) CC control at rectifier station and CEA
(c) 12 pulse converters control at inverter station
(d) either 12 or 6 pulse converters (b) CIA control at rectifier station and CC control
KPSC AE 2014 at inverter station
Ans. (c) : For obtaining the proper voltage rating large (c) both at CC control
number of thyristors are connected in series. In modern (d) both at minimum delay angle control
HVDC system – 12 pulse converter is more preferred as (CC-constant current; CEA-constant extinction
it contains minimum ripple. angle, CIA- constant ignition angle)
44. STATCOM is a-
Ans. (a) : The basic principle of operation of an HVDC
(a) variable impedance type shunt compensator
linking system is based on the conversion of AC to DC
(b) variable impedance type series compensator
and vice-versa by means of rectifier and inverter as
(c) switched converter type shunt compensator
shown in figure given below.
(d) switched converter type series compensator
Ans. (c) : The static synchronous compensator
(STATCOM) is a shunt-connected FACTs device that
is used primarily for reactive power control.
STATCOM is a switched converter type shunt Under normal condition, an HVDC link operates with
compensator. CC control at rectifier station and CEA control at
45. A static synchronous series compensator injects : inverter station.
(a) a current in quadrature with the system 49. Transmission of bulk power between India and
voltage Sri Lanka is possible
(b) a voltage in quadrature with the line current (a) using ac over-head transmission line.
(c) a current in phase with the line current (b) using ac submarine cable.
(d) a voltage in phase with the system voltage (c) using either ac or dc submarine cable.
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 (d) using dc submarine cable
Ans. (b) : A static synchronous series compensator Vizag Steel MT 2013
injects a voltage in quadrature with the line current. Ans. (d) : Transmission of bulk power between India
46. The operation of a TCSC is prohibited for and Sri Lanka is possible using dc submarine cable.
firing angles in the resonance region, since it This is done by HVDC Grid interconnection system.
offers to the network- The India-Sri Lanka HVDC Grid interconnection is a
(a) a low impedance (b) a high current proposed project link the national grid of India and Sri
(c) a low voltage (d) a high impedance Lanka. The link would measure 285 km in length
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 including 50 km of submarine cable. In implemental by
Ans. (d) : The operation of a TCSC is prohibited for PGCIL & CEB.
firing angles in the resonance region, since it offers to 50. Find the correct statement related to the
the network a high impedance. HVDC transmission.
(a) HVDC can be used to interconnect two AC
47. Which of the following scheme is used for
systems of different frequencies.
coupling ac systems of different frequencies?
(b) HVDC eliminates the reactive power
(a) FACTS device
requirement in the operation.
(b) cycloconverter
(c) HVDC is always economical when compared
(c) back to back dc link with the AC transmission of same voltage
(d) none of the above level.
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 (d) HVDC minimizes harmonics at the converter
Ans. (c) : In a back to back d.c link configuration two stations.
independent neighbouring systems with different and UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II
incompatible electrical parameter like frequency / Ans. (a): A High voltage direct current (H.V.D.C.)
voltage / short-circuit power level etc. Power from two electric power transmission system (also called a power
or more neighbouring system is first convert in d.c with super highway) or an electrical super highway) use
the help of power rectifier system and convert into a.c D.C. for bulk transmission of electrical power in
with the help of inverter. Therefore back to back d.c contrast with the more common AC system.) It can also
link scheme is used for coupling a.c system of different be used to connect two A.C. systems of different
frequencies. frequencies.
51. HVDC Homo polar links uses (b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
(a) One conductor usually of negative polarity individually true; but Statement (II) is
(b) One conductor usually of positive polarity NOT the correct explanation of Statement
(c) Two conductors of positive and negative (I)
polarity (c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is
(d) Two conductors of negative polarity false
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019 (d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement (II) is
Ans. (d) : true
54. Statement (I) : In an HVDC system, the steady-
state power transfer from a generator to the
infinite bus is dependent on the power angle and
the line impedance intervening between them.
Statement (II) : In an HVDC system, the power
transfer between the two stations connected by a
In Homo polar, two conductors of same polarity which dc link is much larger than that in a corresponding
is negative polarity are used. EHV ac system.
52. Synchronous capacitor is– ESE 2018
(a) An over excited synchronous motor running Ans. (d) : HVDC is used for bulk power transfer over
without mechanical load long distance compared to HVDC. In HVDC there is no
(b) An over excited synchronous motor driving concept of power angle so power flow is independent
mechanical load from power angle
(c) An ordinary static capacitor bank • Power transfer capacity is more in D.C. than to A.C.
(d) A rotating dynamic capacitor bank 55. The HVDC system uses
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 (a) Rectifier station at sending end and inverter
Ans. (a) : A synchronous capacitor is an over excited station at receiving end
synchronous motor running without mechanical load or (b) Inverter station at sending as well as at the
no load. In case of over excitation a synchronous motor receiving end
operates at leading power factor and reactive power (c) Rectifier station at sending and as well as at
supply to source. the receiving end
A over excited synchronous motor used for power (d) Inverter station at sending end and rectifier
factor improvement. station at receiving end
ESE 2019
53. Bulk power transmission over long HVDC lines
is preferred because of Ans. (a) :
(a) Low cost of HVDC terminal
(b) No harmonic losses
(c) Minimum line power losses
(d) Simple protection
ESE 2017
Ans. (a) : HVDC line has lower power losses than an At the sending end, AC power is rectified to DC with
HVAC of the same capacity in practically all cases, the help of rectifiers. Whereas, at the receiving end DC
which means more power is reaching its final is again converted to AC with the help of inverters as
destination. most of the practical loads are driven by AC pwoer.
The cost of HVDC system is less in HVDC for length 56. Which one of the following is used for
ℓ > 400 km compared to HVAC. communication with the aim of achieving high
figure of merit in HVDC circuit breakers?
Directions:
(a) Oil interrupter
consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement
(b) Air interrupter
(I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these
(c) Vacuum interrupter
(d) SF6 interrupter
ESE 2019
Codes:
Ans. (c) : Vacuum interrupter is used for
communication with the aim of Achieving high figure
of merit in HVDC circuit breaker.
57. In an HVDC transmission, the DC output Ans : (d) Initial rating of Generator = 75 MVA, 10 KV
voltage can be controlled to get inverter New rating of Generator = 100 MVA, 11kV
operation when the firing angle α is initial steady state reactance Xd = 0.4 p. u. (per unit)
(a) α = 0o New Xd = ?
(b) 0o < α < 90o 2
 MVA new  kVold 
(c) 90o < α < 180o (X )d pu = ( X d pu )   
(d) 0o < α < 180o
new old
 MVA old  kVnew 
ESE 2020  100  10 
2
Ans. (c) : Voltage of the HVDC system (Vo) is obtained = 0.4   

 75  11 
from the rectification of AC supply generated from
= 0.44
generating stations.
• For 3-phase full wave converter 2. For a given base voltage and base volt-amperes,
3VmL the per unit impedance value is x. For the
Vo = cos α doubled base values of both voltage and volt-
π
amperes, the per unit impedance will be
• In inversion mode, power flow is inverted (i.e., Po is
(a) 2x (b) 0.25x
negative). It is possible when Vo is negative.
(c) 0.5x (d) no change
3VmL
Vo = cos α < 0 UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
π
ESE 2002
∴ cos α < 0
Ans. (c) : Zpu (Per-unit impedance)
⇒ 90o < α < 180o.
58. In an HVDC transmission mode, the link which Z(ohms) × (MVA) b
x = Zpu =
( KV )b
2
has two circuits that are almost independent of
each other is called Z(ohms) × 2 ( MVA )b 1 Z ( ohm ) × ( MVA ) b
(a) Monopolar link Zpu1 = =
( 2KV )b ( KV )
2 2
(b) Bipolar link 2
b
(c) Homopolar link Zpu1 = 0.5 x
(d) Dualpolar link
ESE 2020
Ans. (b) : The most significant advantage of the bipolar 3. Base current in amperes is
link is that if any of their links stop operating, the link is Base kVA
(a)
converted into monopolar mode because of the ground 3 × kVBase ( line − line )
return system. The half of the system continues and
supplies the power. Base kVA
(b)
59. The FACTS device which uses voltage source 3 × kVBase ( line − line )
converter in it is. Base kVA
(c)
(a) TCSC (b) SVC kVBase ( line − line )
(c) TCR (d) SSSC
MPPSC AE 2017 Base kVA
(d)
Ans. (d) : Static synchronous compensator static 2
synchronous compensator is shunt connected FACT TNPSC AE 2018
device SSSC (Static synchronous static compensator) is Ans. (a) : Base KVA = 3 × KVBase(line −line) × I Base
based on the principle of voltage source or current
source converter. Base KVA
IBase =
3 × KVBase(line −line)
(ix) Per Unit System 4. With base values 13.2 kV and 30 MVA, the p.u.
1. A 75 MVA, 10 kV synchronous generator has impedance of an alternator is 0.2 p.u. The p.u.
Xd = 0.4 p.u. The Xd value (in p.u.) to a base of impedance for the base values of 13.8 kV and
100 MVA, 11 kV is- 50 MVA will be-
(a) 5.78 (a) 0.328 p.u. (b) 0.33 p.u.
(b) 0.279 (c) 0.318 p.u. (d) 0.306 p.u.
(c) 0.412 UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
(d) 0.44 TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
RPSC AE 2018 ESE 2002
Ans. (d) : (Zpu)new = ? 7. A 500 MVA, 11KV synchronous generator has
(Zpu)old = 0.2 p.u 0.2 p.u. synchronous reactance. The p.u.
Base(kV)old = 13.2 kV synchronous reactance on the base values of
Base(kV)new = 13.8 kV 100 MVA and 22 KV is–
Base(MVA)old = 30 MVA (a) 0.16 (b) 0.01
Base(MVA)new = 50 MVA (c) 4.0 (d) 0.25
2
 Base ( kV )old   Base ( MVA )new  APTRANSCO AE 2011
(Zpu ) new = (Zpu )old   × 
 Base ( kV )new   Base ( MVA )old 
2
SbaseNew  Vbase 
Ans. (b) : X Pu new = X Pu old × × old

2  Vbase
Sbase old 
 13.2   50  13.2 13.2 5  
(Zpu ) new = 0.2     = 0.2 × × ×
new
 13.8   30  13.8 13.8 3 2

 11   100 
= 0.3056 pu X pu ( new ) = 0.2 ×   × 
 22   500 
(Zpu)new = 0.306 pu
5. A 60 MVA, 8 kV synchronous generator has Xd X pu( new ) = 0.01pu
= 0.6 p.u. The Xd value (p.u.) to a base of 100
8. An equipment has a per unit impedance of 0.9
MVA 10 kV is ________.
(a) 0.41 (b) 0.64 pu to a base of 20 MVA, 33 kV. The pu
(c) 0.56 (d) 0.52 impedance to a base of 50 MVA and 11 kV will
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 be :
(a) 4.7 (b) 20.25
Ans. (b) :
(c) 0.9 (d) none of these
( MVA ) New ( kV )Old
2
( X pu )New = ( X pu )Old × ( MVA ) × 2 RPSC VPITI 2016

Old ( kV ) New Ans. (b) : Given, (Zpu) old = 0.9 pu, (VB) old = 33 kV
(VB)new = 11kV , (SB) new = 50 MVA, (SB) old = 20 MVA
100 ( 8 )
2
64
= 0.6 × × = 0.6 × 2
60 (10 )2 (SB )new  ( VB )old 
( ) ( )
60
Zpu = Zpu × × 
= 0.64 pu. new old ( SB )old  ( VB )new 
6. The per unit impedance Z(P.U) in a 3-phase 2
50  33 
system is = 0.9 × ×  
20  11 
Z( ohm ) × ( MVA )B Z( ohm ) × ( kV ) B
2
(a) (b) Zpu = 20.25pu at new base.

( kVB )
2
( MVA )B
1000 × ( kV )B 1000 × ( kV )B 9. The per unit parameter for a 500 MVA
(c) (d) machine on its own base are :
3 IB I B ×10 6
Inertia, M = 20 p.u.
RPSC VPITI 2018 Reactance, X = 2 p.u.
Ans. (a) : Per unit value is taken as per phase basics The per unit values of inertia and reactance on
Z ( Actual ) ZΩ Ib 100 MVA common base are respectively :
Z(P.U) = = = ZΩ ×
Z ( Base ) ( Vb / I b ) Vb (a) 4 and 0.4 (b) 100 and 10
(c) 4 and 10 (d) 100 and 0.4
LMRC AE 2015
( VA )b Ans. (d) : S bold = 500 MVA S b new = 100 MVA
VA → capacity I b =
Vb Sb
X pu new = X pu old × new
V→ Volt Sbold
( VA )b = 2×
100
Z( P.U.) = ZΩ
( Vb ) 500
2
for larger rating 3φ machine- = 0.4 pu

( VA )b Inertialnew = Inertia old ×
Sbold
6 ( MVA )b Sbnew
Z( P.U.) = ZΩ . 10 2 = ZΩ ×
( Vb ) ( KVb )
2
500
M new = 20 × = 100 pu
106 100

10. A transmission line has a per unit impedance of (a) 0.200 (b) 0.266
0.5 pu at 500 MVA and 132 KV base. The per (c) 0.242 (d) 0.220
unit impedance on the base of 200 MVA will DMRC AM 2020
be: UJVNL AE 2016
(a) 0.5 pu (b) 0.2 pu UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
(c) 0.1 pu (d) 0.02 pu ESE 1997
(e) 0.05 pu
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II Ans. (a) : ( X ) = ( X ) ( MVA B ) 2 × ( KVB )1
2
Ans. (b) :
pu 2 pu 1
( MVA B )1 ( KVB )22
2 2 2
 Sb  kVb  1  1 
Z( pu ) = Z( pu ) old × 
( new )  ( old )  = 0.242 ×   ×  
new  Sb  kVb   1   1.1 
 ( old )  ( new )  1
= 0.242× = 0.2 pu
 200  1.21
= 0.5 ×   ×(1)
2
 500  = 0.200 pu
Z( pu ) = 0.2 pu 14. Per unit impedances of transformer, measured
new
from primary side and secondary side are :
11. A three phase 50 MVA 10 KV generator has a (a) equal
reactance of 0.2 ohm per phase. Hence the per
(b) depends on transformer ratio
unit value of the reactance on a base of 100
(c) depends on rating on transformer
MVA 25 KV will be:
(d) depends on polarity of windings
(a) 1.25 (b) 0.625
(c) 0.032 (d) 0.32 MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
(e) 0.45 Ans. (a) : In a transformer per unit impedance
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II measured from primary side and secondary side are
ESE 2002 equal because base value of voltage also changes
Ans. (c) :Given that, according to transformation ratio. Per unit impedance
Actual value reactance (X) = 0.2 ohm/phase can be given by–
(MVA)b= 100 MVA Zactual
(kV)b = 25 kV % Z(pu) = × 100
Zbase
We know that,
( MVA )b 15. The per unit impedance of a circuit element is
X pu = X × ( ) 0.15. If the base kV and base MVA are both
( kV )2b halved, the new value of the per unit
100 impedance will be:
= 0.2 ×
(a) 0.075 Ω (b) 0.60 Ω
( 25 )2
(c) 0.30 Ω (d) 0.15 Ω
0.2 ×100
X pu =
= 0.032pu DMRC AM 2016
25 × 25 UPPCL AE 2015
12. The velocity of a travelling wave through a UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
cable of relative permittivity of 9 is :- BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015
(a) 9 × 108 m/sec (b) 3 × 108 m/sec ESE 2002
8
(c) 10 m/sec (d) 2 × 108 m/sec
 ( Vb )
2
(S ) 
Ans. (c) ( Zpu ) = ( Zpu ) × b new
× old 
Ans. (c) : Given, ε r = 9 new old
( Sb ) old  ( Vb ) 
 new 
c 2
ν= ( ν = velocity) Sb / 2  Vb 
εr = 0.15 × × 
Sb  Vb / 2 
3 × 108 3 ×108 1
= 0.15 × × ( 2 )
2
ν= = = 108 m / sec
εr 9 2
1
13. The per unit impedance of a synchronous = 0.15 × × 4
machine is 0.242. If the base voltage is 2
increased by 1.1 times, the per unit value will (Z )
pu new = 0.30 Ω
be :-
16. The impedance value of a generator is 0.2 pu Ans. (a) : UPQC – Unified power quality conditioner. It
on a base value of 11 kV, 50 MVA. The is a custom power device designed to mitigate the
impedance value for a base value of 22 kV, 150 disturbance that affect the performance of sensitive and
MVA is: or critical loads. UPQC has shunt and series
(a) 0.15 pu (b) 0.2 pu compensation capabilities for harmonics, reactive power
(c) 0.3 pu (d) 0.4 pu voltage disturbances, and power flow control.
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 UPQC is FACDS devices.
ESE 1996
20. A 500 M VA, 18 kV alternator has reactance of
2
 V  Sb 0.25 p.u. Find the per unit reactance of the
Ans. (a) : ( Zpu ) = ( Zpu ) ×  old  × new alternator for the base value of 100 MVA, 20
 Vnew  Sbold
new old
2
kV.
 11  150 (a) 0.2103 p.u. (b) 0.1243 p.u.
= 0.2 ×   ×
 22  50 (c) 0.4301 p.u. (d) 0.0405 p.u.
= 0.15 DMRC AM 2020
17. The reactance of a generator is given as 0.3 p.u. Ans. (d) : Given that:- (Xpu)old = 0.25 p.u.
based on its nameplate 20 kV, 400 MVA. Find (kV)old= 18 kV
the new p.u. reactance using new bases of 25 (kV)new = 20 kV
kV and 200 MVA. (MVA)old = 500 MVA
(a) 0.066 p.u. (b) 0.076 p.u. (MVA)new = 100 MVA
(c) 0.086 p.u. (d) 0.096 p.u. (Xpu)new = ?
LMRC AM 2020 Now,
( kV )2old ( MVA )new
2
 20  200
Ans. (d) : New per unit reactance = 0.3 ×   × (Xpu)new = (Xpu)old× ×
 25  400 ( MVA )old
( kV )2
1 new
= 0.3 × 0.64 ×
2 (18 ) 100
2
= 0.096 p.u. = 0.25 × ×
18. The per unit impedance of a generator in an ( 20 )2 500
interconnected power system, corresponding to 324
= 0.25 × × 0.2
its own voltage and kVA rating is 0.2 Ω. Its per 400
unit impedance corresponding to a new (Xpu)new = 0.0405p.u.
common base voltage and kVA rating, which
21. If the base current and base voltage of a 345 kV
are 80% of the generator base values, selected
system are 3000 A and 300 kV respectively,
for the whole system will be:
per-unit voltage and base impedance of the
(a) 0.4 Ω (b) 0.1 Ω
system respectively are :
(c) 0.15 Ω (d) 0.25 Ω
(a) 1.15 pu, 115 Ω (b) 1.15 pu, 100 Ω
DMRC AM 2018
(c) 0.87 pu, 115 Ω (d) 0.87 pu, 100 Ω
Ans. (d) : Given that-
APTRANSCO AE 2017
Zold = 0.2 Ω
Ans. (b) : Base current of 345 kV system =Ib=3000 A
(kVA) new = 0.8 ( kVA )old
Base voltage of 345 kV system = Vb = 300 kV
(kV) new = 0.8 ( kV )old then, base impedance of the system
Znew= ? V 300 × 1000
Zb = b = ⇒ Zb = 100Ω
Then, Ib 3000
( kV )old ( kVA )new
2
Actual volt. 345
Znew = Zold × × ⇒ pu voltage = = = 1.15 p.u.
( kV )new ( kVA )old
2
base volt. 300
0.2 × 1× 0.8 Vpu = 1.15 p.u. and Zb = 100Ω
= = 0.25 Ω
0.64 × 1 22. The p.u. reactance of a 25 MVA, 13.2 kV
Znew = 0.25 Ω alternator 0.5 pu. On a base of 50 MVA and
19. Which one of the following is FACDS device ? 13.8 kV the p.u. value shall be
(a) UPQC (b) TCSC (a) 0.4575 p.u. (b) 0.9149 p.u.
(c) SPS (d) SSSC (c) 10000 p.u. (d) 1.8299 p.u.
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 Vizag Steel MT 2013
2 26.
A 22 kV, 400 MVA generator has the reactance
MVA ( new )  KV( old ) 
= X p.u.( old ) ×
Ans. (b) : X p.u.( new ) ×  of 0.3 pu. The value of reactance on the new
MVA ( old )  KV( new )  base 25 kV and 200 MVA will be:
2 (a) 0.116 pu (b) 0.32 pu
50  13.2 
= 0.5 × ×   (c) 0.58 pu (d) 0.232 pu
25  13.8 
LMRC AM 2018
Xp.u. = 13.2 × 13.2 × 0.5 × 50 Ans. (a) : Given :
25 ×13.8 × 13.8 (kV)old = 22 kV, (MVA)old = 400 MVA
Xp.u. = 0.9149 (kV)new = 25 kV, (MVA)new = 200 MVA
23. In per unit method of representation of a (Zpu)old = 0.3 p.u
power system, the base value of
As we known that:-
(a) impedance is same for the entire system.
2
(b) voltage is same for the entire system.  MVA new   kVold 
(c) MVA is same for entire system. ( pu )new ( pu )old  MVA   kV 
Z = Z ×
(d) MVA should be in the proportion of  old   new 
transformer ratio. Put the value,

2
Vizag Steel MT 2013 200  22 
Ans. (c) : The per unit system makes the calculation = 0.3 × ×  
400  25 
easier as all the values are taken in the same
unit. ( Zpu )new = 0.116 pu
Actual value in any unit
Per unit value =
Base or reference value in thesame unit 27. The % resistance of a 100 kVA, 5 kV, 5 Ω
reactance is given by:
Thus, the base value of power is same for entire system. (a) 2% (b) 20%
24. The p.u. reactance of a 30 MVA, 13.2 kV (c) 40% (d) 4%
alternator is 0.4 p.u. The p.u. value for a base CIL MT 2017
voltage of 13.8 kV and 50 MVA will be Ans. (a) : Given,
(a) 0.667 p.u. (b) 0.638 p.u. Rating (S) = 100 kVA = Base kVA
(c) 0.383 p.u. (d) 0.610 p.u. Voltage (V) = 5 kV = Base kV
Vizag Steel MT 2013
Reactance = 5Ω
X pu ( new ) MVA new ( kVold ) 2 % Reactance = ?
Ans. (d) : = ×
X pu ( old ) MVA old ( kVnew )2 ( kV ) 2 1000 × ( kV )2
Base impedance (Z ) = =
X pu( new ) 50  13.2  2
B
( MVA ) ( kVA )
= × 
0.4 30  13.8  1000(5) 2
ZB =
X pu( new ) = 0.4 ×1.67 × 0.95 100
X pu( new ) = 0.610 p.u. Z B = 250Ω
X
Zp.u. = 0.610 p.u. % Reactance (X) = ×100
ZB
25. The per unit value of a 4Ω resistor at 100 MVA 5
= ×100
base and 10 KV base voltage is: 250
(a) 2 p.u. (b) 4 p.u. 100
(c) 0.4 p.u. (d) 40 p.u. =
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II 50
Ans. (b) : System impedance Z = 4 Ω % X = 2%
(kV)2B (10)2 28. The pu parameters for a 300 MVA machine on
Base impedance = Zbase = = = 1Ω
( MVA )B 100 its own base are inertia M = 10 pu and
Z reactance X = 4 pu. The pu values of inertia
Per unit impedance Zpu =
Zbase and reactance on 50 MVA common base,
4 respectively, will be:
= (a) 40, 0.67 (b) 60, 0.67
1
(c) 4, 10 (d) 60, 0.4
Zpu = 4p.u
BHEL ET 2019

Ans. (b) : We know that :-
1 2
Iω
Inertia constant (m) = 2
MVA
m1 ( MVA )2
= (a) 0.1 (b) 0.05
m 2 ( MVA )1 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.2
( MVA )1 300 UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II
m2 = × m = 10 ×
( MVA )2 1 50 Ans. (a):
Zero sequence network diagram
m2 = 60 (pu value of Inertia)
for reactance:
 V   ( MVA ) new
2

X new = X old ×  old  ×  

 Vnew   ( MVA )old 
∵ base is equal so: Vold = V new
2
1 50
∴ = 4×  × The zero sequence driving point reactance of bus 3 is
 1  300 X 0,
X new = 0.67 (pu value of reactance.)
29. In the case where the voltage bases are same
the new per unit impedance is obtained from
the formula:
new
Zold
pu SB
old
(a) Zpu =
Snew
B
new
Zold new
pu SB VBold
(b) Zpu =
Sold
B VB
new
new
Zold new
pu SB
(c) Zpu = X0 = (0.2||0.2)
Sold
B 0.2 × 0.2 0.04
new new = =
Zpu SB 0.2 + 0.2 0.4
(d) Zold
pu =
Sold
B
X 0 = 0.1pu
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I 31. What will be the base impedance for a three
Ans : (c) Per unit impedance of equipment of phase system with base MVA = 100 MVA and
same general type based on their own rating fall in a Base kV as 11 kV?
narrow range regard less of rating of equipment. (a) 1.21 Ohms (b) 3.6 Ohms
Due to old per unit impedance (c) 5.2 Ohms (d) 2.78 Ohms
s b old ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015
Zold = Z old
− − − − − −(i)
( VB ) Ans. (a) : Given that:-
pu act
old 2
Base MVA = 100 MVA and Base kV = 11 kV
due to new per unit impedance
new
Z =
( kV )2 = 11×103 × 11×103
s Base
new
Zpu = Zact
new b
− − − − − −(ii) MVA 100 ×106
( VB ) new 2
121
ZBase = = 1.21Ω
from equation (i) and (ii) 100
Zold × Snew ZBase = 1.21Ω
new
Zpu = pu old B ∵ VBold = VBnew
SB 32. Reactance of a three reactors rated at 7500
30. The zero sequence reactance's (in p.u.) are kVA, 3300 V, having 7.5% reactance is ........
indicated in the network shown in the figure (a) 0 .209 ohm (b) 2 ohm
below. The zero sequence driving point (c) 0.219 ohm (d) 0.109 ohm
reactance of node 3 will be UPPCL AE 2014

Ans. (d) : The percentage can be converted into 4. The mathematical expression for the velocity
reactance in ohms by the following expression. for travelling electromagnetic wave in free-
%X =
( kVA ) X space can be given as:
(a) (µ 0 ε 0 )1/ 2 (b) (µ 0 ε 0 ) −1
10 ( kV )
2
(c) µ 0 ε 0 (d) (µ 0 ε 0 ) −1/ 2

7500X
7.5 = MPPSC AE 2014
10 ( 3.3)
2
Ans. (d) : Maxwell deduced that the speed of
7.5 ×10 × ( 3.3)
2
propagation of on electromagnetic wave through a
X= vacuum is entirely determined by the constants, µ0 and
7500
X = 0.109 ohm ε 0 :-
1
(x) Power System Transient c=
µ0 ε0
and Travelling Wave
c = ( µ0 ε0 )
−1/ 2
1. The break down strength of air at STP is 21

kV/cm. Its breakdown strength at 30º µ = 4π × 10−7 H / m 
∵ 0 −12 
temperature and 72 cm pressure of Hg will be- ε 0 = 8.8540 × 10 F / m 
(a) 21.25 kV/cm (b) 20.2 kV/cm The constant c is the speed of light, and of all
(c) 23 kV/cm (d) 19.5 kV/cm electromagnetic waves, in free space. It has a value of c
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I = 2.998×108 m/s.
Ans. (a) : Many electrical power system or devices use 5. PLCC is used in substations which do not
air as an insulating medium. It is given that at standard include among following–
temperature and pressure the air has breakdown strength (a) Wave trap
is 21 kV/cm. In the case of air when it is taken as an (b) Coupling capacitor
insulating medium then it is situated that at 30º and 72 (c) Power line conductor
Hg the air will have a breakdown strength 21.25 kV/cm. (d) Capacitor bank
2. The reflection coefficient of a short circuited GMB AE 2017
line is Ans. (d) : PLCC in modern electrical power system
(a) 1 (b) –1 substation is mainly used for following purpose, carrier
(c) 0.5 (d) zero protection relaying of transmission line so that inter trip
WBPSC AE 2008 command can be issued by relay due to tripping of
Ans. (b) : circuit breaker at any end. These includes wave trap,
3. A complex wave of r.m.s. value 240 V has 20% coupling capacitor, power line inductor.
3rd harmonic content and 2% 5th harmonic 6. The surge diverter protects substation
content then the approximate r.m.s. value of equipment against–
the fifth harmonic will be (a) Direct lightning stroke
(a) 5.7 V (b) 4.7 V (b) Travelling waves
(c) 3.7 V (d) 2.7 V
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I (d) None of above
Ans. (b) : Let V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, be the r.m.s value of GMB AE 2017
fundamental and harmonics voltages
Ans. (c) : The surge diverter protects substation
Then,
equipment against direct lightning stroke and travelling
20
V3 = V1 = 0.2V1 waves. This is used to diverts excess voltage to earth,
100 thus it protects sensitive electrical and electronic
2 equipment.
V5 = V1 = 0.02V1
100 7. Consider a step voltage wave of magnitude 1pu
travelling along a lossless transmission line that
Vrms = V12 + V32 + V52
terminates in a reactor. The voltage magnitude
240 = V12 (1 + 0.2 × 0.2 + 0.02 × 0.02) across the reactor at the instant the travelling
wave reaches the reactor is.
240 240
V1 = =
1.0404 1.02
= 235.29 V
V5 = 0.02 × 235.29
V5 = 4.7 Volt

(a) -1 pu (b) 1 pu Where
(c) 2 pu (d) 3 pu V' = Reflected voltage
Vizag Steel MT 2017 V = Incident voltage
Ans. (b) : I' = Reflected current
I = Incident current
V"
Transmission or Reflected coefficient of voltage =
V
V" 2Z1
= =
V Z1 + Zs
50 ×103 × 2 × 100
V" =
500
= 20 × 103
Voltage magnitude across Reactor = 1pu. = 20kV
8. Indicate which of the following is not a TWT 11. Consider the following balanced line-to-neutral
slow wave structure : voltages with abc sequence :
(a) Periodic-permanent magnet
 Van   277 ∠ 0 
o
(b) Coupled cavity  
(c) Helix (d) Ring bar VP =  Vbn  =  277 ∠ -120o  volts
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II  Vcn   277 ∠ 120o 
Ans. (a) : Periodic permanent magnet is not a travelling The values of V0, V1 and V2 are respectively
wave tube (TWT) slow wave structure. TWT is a (a) 0, 177 ∠ 0o and 177 ∠ 0o
specialized vacuum that is a used in electronics to
(b) 277 ∠ 0o, 0 and 0
amplify the radio frequency.
(c) 0, 277 ∠ 0o and 0
9. Steepness of a travelling wave is attenuated by :
(d) 277 ∠ 0o, 0 and 177 ∠ 0o
(a) line resistance
(b) line inductance ESE 2020
(c) line capacitance Ans. (c) : Given,
(d) both line inductance and line capacitance Phase voltge
 Van   277 ∠ 0 
o
RPSC VPITI 2016
 
Ans. (a) : Steepness of a travelling wave is attenuated VP =  Vbn  =  277 ∠ -120o  volts
by line resistance.
 Vcn   277 ∠120o 
10. An overhead line having a surge impedance of
400 Ohms is connected in series with an Since the phase voltage are balanced, the negative and
underground cable having a surge impedance zero sequence components of voltage will be 0 and only
of 100 Ohms. If a surge of 50 kV travels from positive sequence will be present.
the line end towards the line-cable junction, the ∵ Van = Va 0 + Va1 + Va 2
value of the transmitted voltage wave at the
junction is : Va1 = Zero sequence voltage
(a) 20 kV (b) 30 kV =0
(c) 80 kV (d) –30 kV Va 2 = negative sequence voltage
Ans. (a) : Va1 = positive sequence voltage
Van = Va1 = 277∠00
12. For transient stability analysis, as long equal
area criterion is satisfied, the maximum angle
to which rotor angle can oscillate is
(a) 900 (b) 450
0
(c) Greater than 90 (d) Less than 900
Ans. (c) : For transient stability analysis, as long as
equal area criterion is satisfied, the maximum angle to
Transmitted voltage V" = V+V' which rotor angle can oscillate is at greater than 900.
Transmitted current I" = I+I'
04.
Analog Communication Basics
Ans : (d) Square law detector gives original signal
(i) Modulation & Demodulation from amplitude modulated signal.
Carrier amplitude is constant, power transmitted by FM
1. In an FM system, when the AF is 500 Hz and is constant.
the AF voltage is 2.4V, the deviation is 4.8 kHz. 4. FM signals are always generated at:
If the AF voltage is now increased to 7.2V, the (a) High level
new deviation will be : (b) Low level and then amplified by a series of
(a) 4.8 kHz (b) 14.4 kHz highly efficient class C, D, E or F amplifiers
(c) 28.8 kHz (d) 9.6 kHz (c) Zero level
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 (d) oscillator frequency
ESE 2015 UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (b) : Given, Ans. (b) : FM signals are always generated at low level
fm = 0.5 kHz and then amplified by a series of highly efficient class
Vm = 2.4 volt C, D, E or F amplifiers.
∆f = 4.8 kHz 5. The maximum deviation allowed in an FM
broadcast system is 75kHz. If the modulating
we know that,
signal is of 10kHz, find the bandwidth of the
∆f = KbVm FM signal.
∆f 4.8 (a) 85 kHZ (b) 170 kHZ
Kb = = = 2kHz / V
Vm 2.4 (c) 75 kHZ (d) 340 kHZ
Now, when, RPSC AE 2018
Vm' = 7.2V, the new deviation in Ans : (b) Maximum deviation = ∆f = 75KHz
frequency is Modulation frequency = fm= 10KHz
bandwidth = 2 ( ∆f + f m )
∆f ' = K b Vm' = 2 × 7.2 = 14.4 kHz
= 2(75+10)
2. In order to reduce interference, the signal = 170 KHz
should be:
6. Capture effect occurs in
(a) Amplified (b) Multiplied
(a) AM (b) FM
(c) Demodulated (d) Modulated (c) PCM (d) QAM
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II TANGEDCO AE 2018
Ans. (d) : The level of the interfering signal can be Ans. (b) : Capture effect occurs in FM or radio receiver.
reduced by restricting the operating bandwidth to the It is a phenomenon associated with FM reception in
minimum acceptable. This can be achieved by- which only the stronger of two signals at, or near, the
By modulation same frequency or channel will be demodulated.
By input RC or LC filtering 7. If there are M messages and each message has
By feedback LC filtering probability p = 1/M, the entropy is
Low value (10-33 PF) capacitors directly at the (a) 0 (b) 1
input signal. (c) log2M (d) M log2M
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct TANGEDCO AE 2018
answer using the code given below the lists. Ans. (c) : If there are M message and each message has
List-I List-II probability p = 1/M. Then the symbols are equally
A. Video signal (TV) 1. Square-law detector likely, For such source entropy is given as H = log2 M
8. In delta modulation, the slope overload
B. FM 2. Transmitted power distortion can be reduced by
constant (a) decreasing the step size
C. AM 3. AM waves (b) decreasing the granular size
(a) A-2 B-1 C-3 (b) A-1 B-2 C-3 (c) decreasing the sampling rate
(c) A-3 B-1 C-2 (d) A-3 B-2 C-1 (d) increasing the step size
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 TANGEDCO AE 2018

Ans. (d) : In delta modulation the slope overload 13. The signal (1 + Acos8 π t) cos (2 π × 103t)
distortion can be reduced by increasing step size. contains frequency component (in Hz),
9. An AM Scheme is working with a modulation (a) 996, 4, 1000
index of 0.8. Power efficiency of this (b) 996, 1000, 1004
modulation scheme is (c) 1000, 2000
(a) 24% (b) 48% (d) 996, 998, 1000, 10002, 1004
(c) 12% (d) 18% UPPCL AE 2013
TANGEDCO AE 2018
Ans. (b) :
µ2 ( 0.8 )2 f (t) = cos 2π × 103 t + A cos8πt × cos 2 2π ×103 t
Ans. (a) : η = =
2 + µ2 2 + (0.8)2 = cos 2π×103 t + A cos 2π(1000 + 4)t + A cos 2π(1000 − 4)t
0.64 = cos 2π × 103 t + A cos 2π × 1004t + A cos 2π × 996t
= ×100 = 24.24%
2.64 Frequency component f1, f2, f3 respectively = 1000,
10. Determine the bandwidth of the FM signal for 1004, 996.
5kHz audio signal modulated by a carrier of 50
14. Power of FM signal is–
MHz causing a frequency deviation of 25 kHz?
(a) same as unmodulated carrier
(a) 60 kHz (b) 90 kHz
(b) infinite
(c) 30 kHz (d) 80 kHz
(c) zero
UPPCL AE 2013
(d) unity
Ans. (a) : Bandwidth of FM wave signal by Carson's
Rule is [B.W. = 2(δ + fm) Hz] UPPCL AE 2013
where δ = frequency deviation = 25 kHz Ans. (a) : As a rule of thumb, often termed as Carson's
fm = 5 kHz rule 98% of the signal power in FM is contained within
a bandwidth equal to the deviation frequency plus the
∴ BW = 2(25 + 5) = 60 kHz
modulation frequency double.
11. How many A.M. broadcast stations can be
Bandwidth FM = 2[∆f + fm]
accommodated in a 50 kHz bandwidth if the
highest frequency of a modulating carrier is 5 15. In the sinusoidal pulse width modulation
kHz? scheme, if the zero of the triangle wave
(a) 20 (b) 5 coincides with zero of the reference sinusoidal,
(c) 15 (d) 10 then the number of pulses per half cycle is
UPPCL AE 2013 f0 f 
(a) (b)  c  +1
Ans. (b) : Given, 2f  2f 
(HMF) : Highest modulating frequency = 5 kHz. 2f c fc
(BW) : Bandwidth = 50 kHz. (c) (d) −1
f 2f
B.W. = n × 2 × H.M.F. TNPSC AE 2018
Where, n = no. of A.M. broadcast stations Ans. (d) :
BW 50kHz Length of half cycleof square reference wave
n= = =5 N=
2 × HMF 2 × 5kHz width of onecycle of triangular wave
12. An amplitude modulated wave has a power
1/ 2 f c f
content of 800 W at its carrier frequency. What N = = c −1
will be the power content for each sidebands if 1/ f 0 2f
percentage modulation is 80%.? 16. For a FM wave represented by the voltage
(a) 128 W (b) 320 W equation
(c) 256 W (d) 64 W ν = 12 sin(6 ×108 t + 5 sin 1250 t)
UPPCL AE 2013
the modulation index and the maximum
Ans. (a) : m = 0.8, Pc = 800W
deviation respectively are
m 2 Pc ( 0.8 ) × 800
2
Power in each side band (P) = = (a) 5, 995 Hz (b) 2.5, 995 Hz
4 4 (c) 5, 1250 Hz (d) 10, 995 Hz
= 0.16×800 = 128W UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : Given : FM wave voltage equation is– Ans : (c) SSB transmission is used at the places, where
V = 12 sin(6 × 108t + 5 sin 1250 t) the power saving and low Bandwidth requirements are
Compared the above equation with standard FM wave much important.
voltage equation, 20. The saving in power in a DSB-SC system
V = Vc sin(ωct + mf sinωmt) modulated at 80% is :
Modulation index (mf) = 5 (a) 0 (b) 80%
(c) 75.76% (d) 50%
Maximum frequency (ωm) = 1250 rad/sec
UPRVUNL AE 2016
2πfm = 1250
 2 
fm =
1250
Hz = 199 Hz Ans : (c) η% =   × 100
2π  2 + m2 
Frequency deviation (δ) = mf fm m = 0.8
2
(δ) = 5 ×
1250 = × 100
2π 2 + 0.64
2
(δ) = 995 Hz = × 100
2.64
17. If an FM signal with a modulation index mf is
passed through a frequency tripler, the wave in = 75.76%
the output of the tripler will have a modulation 21. An FM signal has a carrier frequency of 105
index of- MHz and upper frequency 105.007 MHz of
(a) mf/3 (b) 3mf modulated signal. The carrier swing is
(c) 9mf (d) mf (a) 105 MHz (b) 310 MHz
(c) 7 kHz (d) 14 kHz
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : If an FM signal with a modulation index mf is
Ans : (d) Given that-
passed through a frequency tripler, the wave in the
output of the tripler will have a modulation index of Carrier frequency fc = 105MHz
3mf. Upper frequency (fH) = 105.007 MHz
∆f = fH–fc = (105.007–105)
18. Match Group I and Group II, and choose the
correct option. ∆f= 0.007×106Hz = 7000Hz = 7KHz
Group I Group II Carrier swing
A. FM 1. Slope overload = 2×Frequency deviation = 2×∆f
B. DM 2. µ-law = 2×7 = 14 KHz
C. PSK 3. Envelope detector 22. An FM signal with a deviation ∆f is passed
D. PCM 4. Capture effect through a mixer, and has its frequency reduced
three folds. The deviation in the output of the
5. Hilbert transform
mixer is:
6. Matched filter
(a) 3∆f (b) ∆f /3
(a) A – 5 B – 1 C – 6 D – 4
(c) ∆f (d) intermediate
(b) A – 4 B – 6 C – 1 D – 5
UPRVUNL AE 2016
(c) A – 4 B – 1 C – 6 D – 2
Ans : (c) Since deviation does not depends upon the
(d) A – 6 B – 3 C – 4 D – 2
resultant frequency of the mixer.
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Hence alternative (c) is the correct choice.
Ans : (c) The correct match is given below- 23. Find unmodulated carrier power, when
FM - Capture effect P(out)=50 W at 100% modulation and internal
DM - Slope overload loss in the modulator is 10 W
PSK - Matched filter (a) 40 W (b) 50 W
PCM - µ-law (c) 60 W (d) 70 W
19. Which of the following analog modulation UPRVUNL AE 2016
schemes requires the minimum transmitted Ans : (a) Given Data-
power and the minimum channel bandwidth? P(out) = 50W at 100% Modulation = 5000W
(a) VSB (b) DSB-SC Pt = 10W
(c) SSB (d) AM So, unmodulated carrier power is given by-
TANGEDCO AE 2018 Pc = P(out) – Pt
MPPSC AE 2017 Pc = 50–10
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Pc = 40W

24. If the modulation index of an AM wave is Ans. (a) : Synchronizing channel required in single
changed from 0 to 0.5, the transmitted power channel PPM. A PPM (Pulse position modulation) is
increases by used by most transmitter and receiver.
(a) 12.5% (b) 100% 27. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
(c) 75% (d) 50% matched?
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (a) AM – Medium wave radio propagation
Ans : (a) It is given P1 and P2 are transmitted (b) FM – Constant carrier frequency
m1 = 0 power (c) Noise in AM – Triangular noise power
 m2  spectrum in FM
So, P1 = PC 1 + 1 
 2  (d) Noise in FM – Rectangular noise power

spectrum in AM
P1 = PC (1+0) ∵ m1 = 0 UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
P1 = PC Ans. (b) : FM - constant carrier frequency, it is wrong
 m2  statement. In frequency modulation the frequency of
∵ P2 = PC 1 + 2 
 2 carrier is varied in accordance with instantaneous value
  of amplitude of modulating signal.
 0.52  28. For an AM having a power of 500 W and
P2 = PC  1 +  ∵ m 2 = 0.5
 2  modulation index of 80%, the power content of

each side band is:
P2 = 1.125PC
(a) 162 W (b) 80 W
(P − P )
η% = 2 1 ×100 (c) 98 W (d) 72 W
P1 UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
1.125Pc − Pc Ans. (b) : m = 0.8 P = 500 W
= × 100
Pc m2
side band power = Pc ×
= 0.125×100 = 12.5% 2
( 0.8 )
2
25. Carrier power will be ___________ of total
transmitted power of a 100% amplitude = 500 × = 160 W
2
modulated signal.
(a) 0.667 (b) 0.50 PLSB + PUSB = 160 W
(c) 0.33 (d) 0.25 Power of single side = 160/2 = 80 W
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 29. The angle modulated signal given as x(t) = 20
ESE 1998 cos( ωct – 0.5 cos(100t)) has power
Ans. (a) : We know, (a) 100 (b) 200
Pt (c) 50 (d) 300
Pc = MPPSC AE 2016
 m2 
1 +  Ans. (b) : Average Power of angle modulated signal-
 2 
Ac2
Pc =
Pt
{∵m = 1, given} P=
 1 2
 1 +  2
 2 = (20) /2
2 = 200
Pc = Pt 30. The frequency modulation (FM) based
3
= 0.667 Pt communication system has the following
Hence, We can say that carrier power will be 0.667 of disadvantages over the amplitude modulation
total transmitted power of a 100% amplitude modulated (AM) communication system:
signal. (a) requirement of more output power
26. Synchronizing channel is required in ______. (b) requirement of more bandwidth
(a) Single channel PPM (c) requirement of more modulating power
(b) PAM (d) presence of noise in high frequency regions
(c) PDM MPPSC AE 2016
(d) PAM and PDM both Ans. (b) : Frequency modulation (FM) requires more
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 bandwidth in communication system.
31. If in a amplitude modulation (AM) based 35. The correct sequence of subsystem in FM
communication system Pc denotes the power of receiver is
carrier and Pt denotes the total power of AM P. Mixer
wave then for modulation index = 1, the Q. RF amplifier
relation between Pc and Pt will be R. Limiter
(a) Pc = Pt (b) Pc = Pt/2 S. IF amplifier
(c) Pt = Pc/4 (d) Pt = 3Pc/2 T. Discriminator
MPPSC AE 2016 O. Audio amplifier
(a) OPQRST (b) PQRSTO
 m2 
Ans. (d) : Pt = Pc 1 +  (c) RPQSOT (d) QPSRTO
 2  JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
Where- PC = Carrier power Ans. (d) : FM receiver is
m = percentage of modulation (1) RF amplifier
PT = total power (2) Mixer
If m=1 (3) IF amplifier
(4) Limiter
3P
Pt = c (5) Discriminator
2 (6) Audio amplifier
32. In frequency modulation, the increased depth 36. In FM broadcasting the maximum allowed
of modulation increases deviation is 75 kHz. If the modulating signal is
(a) Both Bandwidth and Transmitted power producing only a maximum deviation of 60
(b) Transmitted power only kHz, then the FM percentage of modulation is
(c) Bandwidth only (a) 8% (b) 12.5%
(d) Neither bandwidth nor Transmitted power (c) 80% (d) 125%
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
Ans. (c) : In frequency modulation, the increased depth Ans. (c) : FM percent modulation
of modulation increases bandwidth only. actual carrier deviation
= ×100
33. FM broadcast standards specify a maximum maximum carrier deviation
deviation of frequency to be equal to 75 kHz 60
and a maximum modulating frequency of 15 m%= ×100
75
kHz. What is the modulation index for FM
= 80%
wave?
37. For a signal amplitude modulated to a depth of
1 90% by a sinusoidal signal, what will be the
(a) (b) 5
5 ratio of transmitted power to the power of un-
(c) 60 (d) 125 modulated carrier?
RPSC VPITI 2018 (a) 1.405 (b) 0.5
Ans. (b) : Given, ∆f = 75 kHz, fm = 15 kHz (c) 1.5 (d) 0.81
∆f frequency deviation
Modulation index (m) = =
f m Modulating frequency  m2 
Ans. (a) : Pt = Pc 1 + a 
 2 
75 KHz
= where, Pt = transmitted power
15 KHz
Pc = carrier power
m=5 ma = modulation depth = 0.9
34. A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated with 800 Hz Pt 0.92
audio sine wave, the frequencies present in the = 1+ = 1.405
output will be Pc 2
(a) 1000, 1000.8 kHz (b) 999.2, 1000.8 kHz 38. If the radiated power of AM transmitter is 10
(c) 999.2, 1000 kHz (d) 1000, 1800 kHz kW, the power in the carrier for modulation
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I index of 0.6 is nearly –
(a) 8.24 kW (b) 8.47 kW
Ans. (b) : Given, fc = 1000 kHz, fm = 0.8 kHz
(c) 9.26 kW (d) 9.60 kW
f = fc ± fm
= 1000 ± 0.8
Thus, = 1000.8 kHz and 1000-0.8 = 999.2 kHz Vizag Steel MT 2011
Ans. (b) : Ans. (a) : SSB has greater power saving and most
 µ2  reduced Bandwidth than other AM signals.
Pt = Pc  1 +  43. Which of the following is not the purpose of
 2 
modulation?
Pt = radiated power/transmit power (a) Increasing signal power
Pc = carrier power (b) Multiplexing
µ = modulation index (c) Effective radiation
(d) Secondary winding
 0.36 
10 = Pc  1 +  Vizag Steel MT 2011
 2 
Ans. (a) : Increases in signal power is not a purpose of
10 modulation
Pc = kW
1.18 Need For Modulation:–
Pc = 8.47kW Reduction in the Height & Antenna
Avoid mixing of signals
39. Which of these leads to fast communication?
Increase the range of communication
(a) High S/N Ratio
Multiplexing is possible
(b) Larger bandwidth
Improves quality of reception.
(c) High channel capacity
44. FM broadcast band lies in which band?
(d) High transmitter power
(a) HF band (b) VHF band
Vizag Steel MT 2011
(c) UHF band (d) SHF band
Ans. (b) : If a signal has more bandwidth, it includes
Vizag Steel MT 2011
higher frequencies. It can change more rapidly. Thus,
more BW corresponds to a higher maximum rate of data Ans. (b) : FM Broadcast Band lies in VHF Band.
transfer. Which extends from 30 to 300 MHz.
40. Figure of merit is always unity in case of which 45. If a 1 MHz carrier is amplitude modulated with
of the following? a 5 kHz audio signal, the upper side frequency
is–
(a) SSB-SC (b) FM
(a) 1000 kHz
(c) AM (d) All the options
(b) 1005 kHz
Vizag Steel MT 2011
(c) 995 kHz
Ans. (a) : Figure of merit for (DSB-SC) or (SSB-SC) is
 (SNR)O,AM Ka 2P  UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
always unity  F.O.M = = 
 (SNR)C,AM 1 + K a 2 P 
Ans. (b) :
41. What is the image frequency of a station of fc = 1 MHz, fm = 5KHz
frequency 1200 KHz? Standard signal of AM
(a) 910 KHz (b) 1290 KHz
(c) 2110 KHz (d) 3230 KHz
Vizag Steel MT 2011
Ans. (c) : fs = 1200 KHz Upper side frequency = fc + fm
Image frequency, = 1000kHz + 5kHz
fi = fs + 2IF = 1005kHz
= 1200 + 2 × 455 (IF = 455 KHz )
46. Picture information is transmitted in TV signal
= 1200 + 910 by–
= 2110 KHz (a) FM (b) AM
42. Which of the following AM techniques have (c) PAM (d) PNM
greater signal power and reduction of band UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
width? Ans. (b) : Picture information is transmitted in TV
(a) SSB (b) USB signal by amplitude modulation. Hence The picture
(c) DSB-SC (d) None of the options information amplitude is increased with the help of
Vizag Steel MT 2011 carrier wave.
47. In a modulation system, if the modulating Ans. (b) :
voltage remain the same, the modulation index FM signal = 10 cos[2π × 105t + 5 sin(2π × 1500t) + 7.5
is halved, when the modulating frequencies is sin(2π × 1000t)]
doubled, the system will be –
The instantaneous frequency (in rad/sec)
(a) AM
dθ d
(b) FM ω= = [2π × 105t + 5 sin(2π × 1500t) + 7.5 sin(2π
dt dt
(c) DM
× 1000t)]
= 2π × 105 + [(2π × 1500 × 5) cos(2π × 1500t) + (2π ×
7.5 × 1000)cos(2π × 1000t)]
ESE 2016
Maximum frequency deviation ∆fmax –
Ans. (b) : In frequency modulation system, if the
modulating voltage remain the same, the modulation ∆fmax = [5 × 1500 + 7.5 × 1000]Hz
index is halved, when frequency is double. Hence in = 15 × 103 Hz
frequency modulation, the frequency is changed and at ∆f max
So, modulation index (mf) =
receiving end the voltage will same. f max
48. The modulation index of an AM wave is fmax = maximum frequency contained in message signal
changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power ∴ m(t) = 5sin(2π × 1500t) + 7.5sin(2π × 1000t)
will be –
fmax = 1500 Hz
(a) unchanged
15 × 103
(b) halved Then, mf = = 10
1500
(c) doubled
(d) increased by 50% 50. A 400W carrier is amplitude modulated with m
TANGEDCO AE 2018 = 0.75. The total power in AM is
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (a) 400 (b) 588
ESE 2001 (c) 650 (d) 512
Ans. (d) : We know that-
Ans. (d) : Total power required for transmission of
 µ2 
Pt = Pc  1 +  (µ = modulation index)  m2 
 2  AM is Pt = Pc 1 + a 
 2 
at µ = 0
Pt = Pc where,
Pc = carrier power = 400W
at µ = 1
ma = modulation index = 0.75
Pt = 1.5 Pc
 0.752 
∴ Pt = 400  1 +  = 512 watts
1.5Pc − Pc  2 
% change = × 100
Pc
51. Frequency-modulated transmitters find
= 50% extensive use
Hence, the modulation index of an AM wave is (a) at 40 MHz frequency
changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power will be (b) below 40 MHz frequency
increased by 50%. (c) above 40 MHz frequency
49. Consider the frequency modulated signal 10 (d) at 40 Hz to 40 kHz frequency
cos[2π × 105t + 5 sin(2π × 1500t) + 7.5 sin(2π × BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
1000t)]
Ans. (c) : Frequency-modulated (FM) transmitters find
with carrier frequency of 105 Hz. The
extensive use above 40 MHz frequency.
modulation index is :
In frequency modulation, the total transmitted power
(a) 12.5 (b) 10
always remains constant, but with increased depth of
(c) 7.5 (d) 5
modulation, the required bandwidth, is increased.
PTCUL AE 2016
52. How does the performance of amplitude- Ans. (a) Permissible range in maximum modulation
modulated transmitters get affected if they index for commercial FM that has
have low level of modulation? 25Hz to 25 kHz, is 3 to 3000
(a) Transmitters will have high efficiency 56. If 90 kHz carrier is amplitude modulated by
(b) Transmitters will have low efficiency the speech band of 200 Hz to 2 kHz, then the
(c) Transmitter efficiency is independent of range of upper and lower side bands will
modulation respectively be.
(d) None of the above (a) 45.2 to 47 and 42.8 to 44
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI (b) 90.2 to 92 and 88.0 to 89.8
(c) 92.2 to 94.8 and 88 to 92
Ans. (b) : Efficiency of Transmitter,
(d) 88.0 to 89.8 and 92.2 to 98.8
 useful power  UPPCL AE 2015
η = 
 Total power  Ans. (b) 90kHz carrier is modulated by speech band of
  m2  200Hz to 2kHz.
also, useful power  P = Pc 1 + a   Range of upper side band =
  2 
90 kHz + .2 kHz = 90.2 kHz
Where, Pc = carrier power 90 kHz + 2 kHz = 92 kHz
ma = modulation index. Range of lower side band =
∴ If ma ↓ ⇒ useful power ↓ 90 – 2 = 88 kHz
Hence, η ↓ 90 – 0.2 = 89.8 kHz
53. Non-coherent demodulation refers to the 57. In AM when the modulation index is 0.5, the
system employing demodulators that are maximum power Pt, (where Pc is carrier
designed to operate without knowledge of the power) is equal to
incoming signal's: (a) Pc (b) 2.5 Pc
(c) 2 Pc (d) 1.125 Pc
(a) Phase (b) Current
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
(c) Voltage (d) Power
Ans : (d) Formula for Amplitude signal
UPPCL AE 2015
 m2 
Ans. (a) Non-coherent demodulation refers to the Pt = 1 +  Pc
 2 
system employing demodulators that are designed to
operate without knowledge of the upcoming signal is Where, m = modulation index = 0.5
phase. Pt = transmitted power
Pc = Carrier power
54. An amplitude modulated System consist of 110
MHz bandwidth for the transmission of AM So, P = 1 + ( 0.5 )  P
 2

t C
signal. If the audio frequency used to modulate  2 
the carrier does not exceed by 5 kHz. then how P = 1.125 P
t c
many stations could transmit within this band
simultaneously? 58. An AM wave is given by s(t) =20(1 + 0.5 cos 103
t + 0.3 cos 104t. cos 106t), the modulation index
(a) 1000 (b) 1100
of the envelope is:-
(c) 110 (d) 11,000
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.58
UPPCL AE 2015 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.8
Ans. (d) An amplitude modulated system consist 110 UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
MHz bandwidth for the transmission of AM signal then Ans. (b) : Given that,
11,000 stations could transmit within this band s(t) =20(1 + 0.5 cos 103 t + 0.3 cos 104t. cos 106t)
simultaneously.
∴ m1 = 0.5
55. Determine the permissible range in maximum m 2 = 0.3
modulation index for commercial FM that has
25 Hz to 25 kHz modulating frequencies. Modulation index (m) = m12 + m 22
(a) 3 to 3000 (b) 3 to 300
= ( 0.5 ) + ( 0.3)
2 2
(c) 2 to 2000 (d) 5 to 50
UPPCL AE 2015 = 0.58

59. Modulation is Primarily accomplished to:- 63. A carrier is amplitude modulated by four
(a) Produce side bands signals of frequency 10 kHz, 15 kHz, 20 kHz
(b) Mix two-waves of different frequencies and 25 kHz what is the bandwidth of the
(c) Improve transmission efficiency modulated signal?
(d) Transmit audio-frequency signal over long (a) 25 kHz (b) 50 kHz
distance (c) 70 kHz (d) 140 kHz
ESE 2007
Ans. (d) : Modulation is primarily accomplished to
transmit audio-frequency signal over long distance. Ans. (b) : BW = 2 × maximum modulated frequency
60. In an AM wave, Vmax = 10V and Vmin = 5V. The B.W. = 2 f max
percentage of Modulation is:- = 2 × 25 kHz
(a) 20.00 (b) 33.33 = 50 kHz
(c) 50.00 (d) 75.00 64. If the carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II suppressed, the percentage power saving will
Ans. (b) : Vmax = 10V and Vmin = 5V be
 V − Vmin  (a) 50 (b) 150
Percentage of modulation (m) =  max  ×100 (c) 100 (d) 66.67
 Vmax + Vmin 
Ans. (d) : Given modulation index (µ) = 100% Power
 10 − 5  5
=  = × 100 = 33.33% Power saved
 10 + 5  15 saving = × 100
Total Power
61. An AM wave has Vmax = 12 V and Vmin = 4 V.
Calculate the modulation index assuming single
Pc 2
tone modulation. (symbols/notations carry % Power saving = ×100 = × 100
their usual meaning)  µ  2
2 + µ2
Pc  1 + 
(a) 1 (b) 1/2  2 
(c) 2 (d) 1/4 2 2
= × 100 = ×100 = 66.67%
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III 2 +1 3
Ans. (b) : The modulation index (mf) – 65. If the frequency of the modulating signal is
V − Vmin 12 − 4 1 decreased in the case of AM it results in
m f = max = =
Vmax + Vmin 12 + 4 2 (a) increased modulation index
(b) decreased modulation index
62. A data signal having frequency component
(c) no change in modulation index
from d.c. to 1 kHz is to be transmitted using
frequency modulation with maximum deviation (d) nothing can be said
in carrier frequency being 1.5 kHz, the UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
minimum carrier channel bandwidth will be Ans. (c) : In amplitude modulation, the amplitude of the
(a) 2 kHz (b) 5 kHz carrier wave is varied in proportion to that of the
(c) 4 kHz (d) 7 kHz message signal being transmitted. Therefore modulation
index is varied according to amplitude and it does not
have any effect with variation in frequency.
Am
∆ fm = 1.5 kHz m=
Ac
fm = 1 kHz
Bandwidth (BW) = 2 (∆fm + fm) where, m = modulation index of AM wave.
= 2 (1.5 + 1) Am = amplitudes of the modulated wave.
= 2.5 ×2 Ac = amplitudes of the carrier wave.
= 5 kHz So, we say that no change in modulation index.

66. In FM (Frequency Modulation), when 72. In a frequency modulation system, maximum
frequency deviation is doubled frequency deviation allowed is 1000Hz and
(a) the modulation is doubled modulating frequency is 1 KHz. Determine
(b) the modulation is halved modulation index β.
(c) the carrier swing is halved (a) 2 (b) 1
(d) modulation index is decreased (c) 1000 (d) 2000
UJVNL AE 2016
∆f
Ans. (a) : Modulation index = ESE 2013
fm
Ans. (b) Modulation index
From given expression we can say that in FM Frequency Deviation
(Frequency Modulation), when frequency deviation is =
Modulating frequency
doubled then the modulation is doubled.
70. 100% modulation is produced in AM 1000
β= =1
(Amplitude Modulation) when 1000
(a) the carrier frequency equals the signal β =1
frequency
(b) the carrier frequency exceeds the signal 73. A carrier wave of peak voltage 20 V is used to
frequency transmit a message signal. What should be the
(c) the carrier amplitude equals the signal peak voltage of the modulating signal in order
amplitude to have a modulation index of 80%?
(d) the carrier amplitude exceeds the signal (a) 16 volt (b) 26 volt
amplitude (c) 36 volt (d) 40 volt
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II JUVNL AE 2017
Ans. (c) : The carrier amplitude equals the signal
Ans. (a) : Modulation index =
amplitude.
Peak value of modulating signal
Modulation index is the amount of modulation present
in a carrier wave. It is also described as the ratio of the Peak value of carrier signal
amplitude of message signal to that of carrier signal. Hence, Peak value of modulating signal =
A (modulation index) (peak value of carrier signal)
% Modulation index (m) = m × 100
AC 80
= × 20 = 16V
Am 100
= × 100 {∵ A m = A c } 74. An audio signal has a bandwidth of 50 kHz.
Am
The maximum value (amplitude) of modulating
= 100%
signal is 10 V. This signal frequency modulates
where, Am is maximum baseband or message signal
amplitude and AC is maximum carrier signal amplitude a carrier. If the frequency sensitivity constant
so for m = 1 Am should be equal to AC. of the modulator is 20 kHz/V, then according to
71. If the frequency of the modulating signal is Carson’s rule, the bandwidth of the modulator
decreased in the case of FM (Frequency output will be
Modulation), it results in (a) 50 kHz
(a) increased modulation index (b) 500 kHz
(b) decreased modulation index (c) 100 kHz
(c) no change on modulation index (d) 250 kHz
(d) it becomes AM (Amplitude Modulation) Ans. : (b) Given that:-
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II Kf = 20 kHz/V, fm= 50 kHz & Vm = 10V
∆f We know that :-
Ans. (a) : Modulation index = ∆f = Kf Vm = 20k×10= 200k
fm
∵ According to Carson's Rule :-
where, ∆f = frequency deviation
fm = modulating frequency BW = 2 ( ∆f + f m )
From the given expression when frequency of
∴ BW = 2(200+50)
modulating signal decreased then modulation index of
FM is increased. BW = 500kHz

75. A varactor diode can be used to generate 77. With ∆ φ peak phase deviation and fm =
modulating signal for. modulating signal frequency, the equivalent
(a) FM generator peak deviation is.
(b) AM generator f
(a) ∆ f eq = ∆φf m (b) ∆ f eq = m
(c) PM generator ∆φ
(d) AM and PM generators
d ( fm ) ∆φ. f m
UPSC JWM 2017 (c) ∆ f eq = (d) ∆ f eq =
d ( ∆φ ) 2
Ans. (a) : Varactor diode are used as voltage- controlled
capacitors. They are commonly used in voltage- UPSC JWM 2017
controlled oscillators, parametric amplifier and Ans. (a) : ∆ f eq = ∆φf m
frequency multipliers. Voltage controlled oscillators Where,
have many application such as frequency modulation ∆φ = peak phase deviation
for FM transmitters. Varactor diode can be used to
f m = modulating signal frequency
generate modulating signal for FM generator.
78. The modulated peak value of a signal is 10 V
while the un-modulated carrier is 8 V. The
modulation index of such an amplitude-
modulated wave is.
(a) 0.75 (b) 0.50
(c) 0.25 (d) 0.125
76. A signal m(t) = 5cos2π100t, frequency UPSC JWM 2017
modulates a carrier. The resulting FM signal is Ans. (c) : VC = 8 V and Vmax = 10V
10 cos[(2π × 105t) + 15 sin (2π 100t)]. The VC [1+µ] = Vmax Where,
approximate bandwidth of the FM is. µ = modulation index
(a) 0.1 kHz VC = carrier voltage
(b) 1.0 kHz Vmax= modulated peak value
(c) 3.2 kHz of signal
(d) 100 kHz 10
1+ µ =
UPSC JWM 2017 8
Ans. (c) : 3.2 kHz µ = 1.25-1
1  dφ  µ = 0.25 V
∆ fmax=
2π  dt  max 79. Bandwidth of FM signal is _______ than AM
signal.
∵φ = 15sin ( 2π100t )
(a) Lesser
dφ
= 15.cos ( 2π.100t ) × 2π × 100 (b) either lesser or larger
dt (c) larger
 dφ  (d) None of the above
 dt  = 15 × 2π × 100
max OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
1 Ans. (c) : Bandwidth of FM signal is larger than AM
∆ f max = [15 × 2π ×100] = 1500
2π signal. FM is less prone to interference than AM.
m ( t ) = 5cos 2π100t However, FM signals are impacted by physical barriers.
FM has better sound quality due to higher bandwidth.
f max = 100 Hz
80. In AM modulation, when the modulation index
BW = 2 ( ∆f max + f max ) increases, transmitted power is:
BW = 2(1500 + 100) (a) Constant (b) Increased
= 2 × 1600 (c) Decreased (d) None of the above
= 3.2kHz OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II

Ans. (b) : In AM modulation the transmitted power is Ans. (a) : Modulation index is basically the ratio of
 µ2  amplitude of the message signal 'Vm' to the amplitude of
PT = Pc 1 +  carrier signal 'Vc'.
 2 
Vm ( Vmax − Vmin )
Where, PT = transmitted power µ= =
Vc ( Vmax + Vmin )
Pc = Carrier Power
µ = modulation index where, µ = Modulation index
2
µ 84.
fc + fm is:
∵ PT ∝ (a) Upper band frequency
2
∴ PT ∝ µ (b) Lower band frequency
Therefore, as modulation index increased the (c) Mid band frequency
transmitted power will also increase. (d) None of the above
81. In FM modulation, when the modulation index
increases, transmitted power is: Ans. (a) :
(a) Constant (b) Increased
(c) Decreased (d) None of the above
ESE 2015
Ans. (a) : In frequency modulation, the transmitted
A 2m
power ( PT ) =
2R L
Where, Am = amplitude of wave
RL= Resistance of Load fc = carrier frequency.
As we see, there is no depend on modulation index, fc - fm = lower side band frequency.
therefore it can be assumed that the power will remain fc + fm = upper side band frequency.
constant.
85. In amplitude modulation, frequency is:
82. An example for an analog signal is: (a) Constant (b) Zero
(a) Sine wave (b) Impulse signal (c) Variable (d) One
(c) Sample signal (d) None of the above
Ans. (a) :
Ans. (a) :
Sine wave is an example of analog signal. An analog

signal is any continuous signal for which the time-
varying feature of the signal is a representation of some
other time varying quantity.
83. Modulation index is: In amplitude modulation , the amplitude (Signal
(a) Vm/Vc (b) Vc/Vm Strength) of the carrier wave is varied in proportional to
(c) Vm/Ic (d) None of the above that of message signal being transmitted. In such case
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II the phase and the frequency remains same.

87. In frequency modulation, frequency is: 89. Amplitude modulation has:
(a) Constant (b) Zero (a) One carrier
(c) Variable (d) One (b) One carrier with two side band
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II (c) One carrier with infinite
Ans. (c) : (d) None of the above
Ans. (b) :
Amplitude modulation produces a signal with power

concentrated at carrier frequency and two adjacent
sideband each of sideband is equal in bandwidth to that
of modulating signal and is a mirror image of the other.
90. The modulating index of an AM-signal is
reduced from 0.8 to 0.5. The ratio of the total
power in the new modulated signal to that of
Frequency modulation is a technique used to encode the original signal will nearly be
data on an alternating digital or analog signal. The (a) 0.39 (b) 0.63
method includes varying the frequency of the carrier
(c) 0.85 (d) 1.25
wave on which useful information is imposed or
impressed upon. ESE 2018
88. In Frequency modulation has: Ans. (c) : It is given that :-
(a) One carrier µ1= 0.8, µ2 = 0.5
(b) One carrier with two side band frequencies PT2/PT1 = ?
(c) One carrier with infinite frequencies PT2 Pc (1 + µ 2 / 2 )
2
=
PT1 Pc (1 + µ21 / 2 )
Ans. (c) :  (.5 )2 
1 +  25
PT2  2  1 +
= = 200
PT1  ( 0.8 )2  1 + 64
1 +  200
 2 
PT2 = PT1 × 0.85
91. When an information signal is multiplied by an

auxiliary sinusoidal signal to translate its
frequency, the modulation is called
(a) Phase modulation
The total spectrum for a frequency modulated signal (b) Frequency modulation
consists of the one carrier with an infinite number of (c) Amplitude modulation
sidebands spreading out on either side of carrier at (d) Quadrature amplitude modulation
integral multiples of the modulating frequency. ESE 2019
Ans. (c) : Information (message) signal is multiplied Ans. (c) : Modulation idex m1 = 0.6
with auxiliary (carrier) signal in amplitude modulation m2 = 0.8
to translate baseband frequency to higher frequencies. resulting modulation idex,
92. The transmission power efficiency for a tone
m = m12 + m 22
modulated signal with modulated index of 0.5
will be nearly = ( 0.6 ) + ( 0.8 )
2 2
(a) 6.7%
(b) 11.1% = 0.36 + 0.64
(c) 16.7% = 1.00
(d) 21.1% m = 1.0
ESE 2019
95. In the amplitude modulation (AM)
Ans. (b) : Transmission power efficiency communication system, the modulation index
µ2 should be in the following range.
η=
2 + µ2 (a) 0 to 1 (b) -1 to 1
Given = 0.5 (c) 1 to 2 (d) -1 to 0
( 0.5) MPPSC AE 2017
2
η= = 0.111 Ans. (a) : For amplitude modulation communication

2 + ( 0.5 )
2
system, modulation index should be in the range of 0 to

η = 11.1% 1.
93. In AM modulation, the equation of the When m = 0 un-modulated
modulating signal is given by f(t) = Am cos ωm t. m=1 100% modulation
If the amplitude of the carrier wave is A and m <1 Under modulation
there is no over-modulation, the modulation m >1 Over modulation causes error or
efficiency will be fault condition
(a) 33.3%
96. For a narrow-band frequency modulated (FM)
(b) 38.6% signal, the generated bandwidth for 5 KHz
(c) 43.3% audio signal will be.
(d) 48.6% (a) 5 KHz (b) 10 KHz
ESE 2020 (c) 20 KHz (d) 30 KHz
Ans. (a) : The modulation efficiency of AM signal MPPSC AE 2017
µ2
Ans. (b) : For a narrow band frequency modulated
η= × 100
2 + µ2 (FM) single.
With no over modulation i.e., (µ ≤ 1) Bandwidth (B.W) = 2fm
So, maximum efficiency (µ = 1) Here fm = 5KHz
1 So, B.W. = 2×5
η% = × 100 ⇒ 33.3% = 10KHz
2 +1
94. In Amplitude modulation (AM) system, a 97. In Amplitude Modulation (AM)
carrier is modulated by two sinusoidal message communication systems, the oscillator
signals with modulation index of 0.6 and 0.8 frequency in receiver is as.
respectively. Then, the resulting modulation (a) Always 455 Hz
index will be as. (b) More than signal frequency
(a) 1.4 (c) Less than signal frequency
(b) 0.8 (d) Same as signal frequency
(c) 1.0 MPPSC AE 2017
(d) 0.2 Ans. (b) : In amplitude modulation communication
MPPSC AE 2017 system the oscillator frequency in receiver is more than
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 signal frequency. The frequency band used for AM
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II radio is about 550 to 1720 KHz.

98. In television system, the following modulation 2. Which of the following is not a component of
scheme are used for picture and sound PLL ?
respectively. (a) VCO
(a) Frequency modulation, Amplitude (b) Loop filter
modulation (c) Phase detector
(b) Amplitude modulation, Frequency (d) Frequency multiplier
modulation HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
(c) Amplitude modulation, Amplitude ESE 2005
modulation Ans. (d) :
(d) Frequency modulation, Frequency
modulation
MPPSC AE 2017
Ans. (b) : In televison system, Amplitude modulation
scheme is used for picture and frequency modulation
technique is used for sound.
99. Pre emphasis in frequency modulated (FM)
communication system is generally used for. A phase locked loop or phase lock loop is a control
(a) Amplifying low-frequency components system that generates an output signal whose phase is
(b) Amplifying high-frequency components related to the phase of an input signal.
(c) Amplifying low and high frequency 3. Quantization noise is generated in the
components following:
(d) Amplifying DC component (a) Frequency division multiplexing
MPPSC AE 2017 (b) Time division multiplexing
Ans. (b) : Pre-emphasis in frequency modulated (FM) (c) Pulse code modulation
communication system is generally used for amplifying (d) Amplitude modulation
high frequency components. Pre-emphasis is done at the MPPSC AE 2016
transmitter and de-emphasis is done at the receiver to Ans. (c) : Quantization noise is generated in pulse code
attenuate those frequency by same amount they are modulation.
boosted.
4. If two stages with noise figure F1 and F2 and
gains G1 & G2 are cascaded, the resultant noise
(ii) Noise and Bandwidth F will be:-
(a) F1+(F2–1)/G1 (b) F1+(F2–1)/G2
Transmitter & Receiver
(c) (F1–1)/G2+F2 (d) (F1–1)/G1+F2
1. Quantisation noise arises only in UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(a) amplitude modulation circuits Ans. (a) : If two stages with noise figure F1 and F2 and
(b) frequency modulation circuits gains G1 & G2 are cascaded, the resultant noise F will
(c) phase modulation circuits be F1+ (F2 -1)/G1.
(d) phase code modulation circuits 5. In a PCM system of telemetry, the quantization
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II noise depends on-
(a) The sampling rate and quantization levels
Ans. (d) : Quantisation noise arises only in phase code
modulation circuits. (b) The sampling rate only
Quantisation noise is typically caused by small (c) The number of quantization levels only
differences (mainly rounding errors ) between the actual (d) Information provided is not sufficient
analog input voltage of the audio being sampled and the RPSC AE 2018
specific bit resolution of the analog-to-digital converter Ans : (c) In a PCM system of telemetry, the
being used. This noise is nonlinear and signal quantization noise depends on the number of
dependent. quantization levels only.

6. The maximum effective aperture of an antenna 9. For direct reception of TV signals from a
which has directive of 800– communication satellite which type of antenna
(a) 36.36λ2 (b) 63.6λ2 is used?
(a) Horn (b) Chicken mesh
(c) 66.33 λ2 (d) 36.63λ2
(c) Parabolic (d) Loop
UPPCL AE 2013
4π Ans. (b) : For direct reception of TV signals from a
Ans. (b) : D = 2 A e , D = directivity
λ communication satellite which type of antenna is used
chicken mesh.
Dλ 2 800 × λ 2 10. A superhetrodyne receiver with an I.F. of 450
Ae = =
4π 4π kHz is tuned to a signal frequency of 1200 kHz.
Ae = 63.66 λ 2
In such a case, the image frequency would be
7. If a channel having bandwidth of 2 kHz and (a) 750 kHz (b) 900 kHz
signal to noise ratio is zero dB. Maximum bit (c) 1650 kHz (d) 2100 kHz
rate for this channel will be– UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
(a) 0 kbps (b) 0.5 kbps Ans. (d) : Given : fi = 450 kHz
fs = 1200 kHz
(c) 4 kbps (d) 2 kbps
Image frequency = fs + 2fi
UPPCL AE 2013
= 1200 + 2 × 450
Ans. (d) :SNR = 0 dB = 2100 kHz
BW= 2kHz 11. Double side band system is suited to public
0dB = 10log10 ( S / N ) broadcast, because-
(a) it requires small bandwidth
0 = log10 ( S/ N )
(b) it is easy to generate signal in this system
S / N = 100 = 1 (c) it needs simple and inexpensive transmitting
Maximum bit rate for channel and receiving equipments
(d) none of these
 S
BW = B log 2  1 +  UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
 N
Ans. (c) : A type of transmission in which the same
= 2log 2 (1 + 1) information is conveyed by emission. Therefore Double
side band system is suited to public broadcast, because
= 2log 2 2
it is simple and inexpensive transmitting and receiving
= 2 ×1 equipment.
= 2kbps 12. The thermal noise voltage measured at 27ºC by
8. Super heterodyne radio receiver suffers from– a measuring equipment of bandwidth 10 MHz
in the following circuit will be nearly:
(a) carrier frequency problem
(b) intermediate amplitude problem
(c) Gain control problem
(d) image frequency problem
UPPCL AE 2013
Ans. (d) : In super heterodyne radio receivers an image (a) 1.1 µV (b) 0.9 µV
frequency is an undesired input frequency equal to the (c) 0.7 µV (d) 0.5 µV
source frequency plus twice the intermediate. UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
Ans. (b) :
13. Which one of the following offers bandwidths
and noise immunity and used in long distance
telephone lines and cables for TV?
(a) STP (b) Coaxial cable
(c) Optical fibre (d) UTP
Super hetero dyne AM Receiver Block Diagram Ans. (b) :

S 18. Suppose a communication channel in the
14. If a channel has = 7 and B = 4 kHz and
N presence of additive white Gaussian noise has
S bandwidth 8KHz, and signal to noise ratio
another channel has = 15 and B = 3 kHz. (SNR) = 7 then the channel capacity will be
N
(a) 32 Kbps (b) 8 Kbps
The channel capacities will be respectively:
(c) 24 Kbps (d) 64 Kbps
(a) 9 × 103 bits/sec and 9 × 103 bits/sec
MPPSC AE 2016
(b) 9 × 103 bits/sec and 12 × 103 bits/sec
(c) 12 × 103 bits/sec and 12 × 103 bits/sec  S
Ans. (c) : C = Blog 2 1 + 
(d) 12 × 10 bits/sec and 9 × 10 bits/sec
3 3  N 
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 Where C = channel capacity
Ans. (c) : B = channel bandwidth
S = Signal power
15. A broadcast radio receiver with IF = 100 kHz is
N = Noise Power
tuned to 500 kHz. What will be image
frequency? C = 8 × 103 log (1 + 7 )
(a) 5000 kHz (b) 700 kHz = 8000log 2 23
(c) 600 kHz (d) 300 kHz
C = 24 Kbps
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
19. Noise generally affects the following part of the
Ans. (b) : Image frequency, fIM = fs + 2 fIF communication system
fIF = 100 KHz (a) Transmitter
fs = 500 (b) Receiver
fIM = (500+ 200) kHz (c) channel
= 700 KHz (d) None of these are correct
16. Which is a circular polarized antenna? MPPSC AE 2016
(a) Yagi-Uda Ans. (c) : As carrier wave travels in channel. So
(b) Parabolic reflector channel is generally affected by noise.
(c) Small circular loop 20. Transistor A operates at 32.4 KHz and B
(d) Helical operates at 324 Hz. The flicker noise is:
(a) 0 (b) A = B
MPPSC AE 2016
(c) A < B (d) A > B
Ans. (d) : Helical is a circular polarized antenna.
17. Thermal noise power P in a resistor R is Ans. (c) : Transistor A operates at 32.4 KHz and B
related as follows:
1
(a) P ∝ R operated as 324 Hz. The flicker noise = .
f
(b) P ∝ 1/R Then, A < B.
(c) P ∝ R2 21. The outputs of both the video and the audio
(d) P is independent of R transmitter are combined by using
MPPSC AE 2016 (a) Decoder circuit
Ans. (d) : Thermal noise equation- (b) Encoder circuit
(c) Diplexer circuit
V = 4KTBR
(d) Demultiplexer circuit
Where, B = bandwidth in Hz.
Thermal noise power calculations.
Ans. (c) : The outputs of both the video and the audio
V2 transmitter are combined by using Diplexer circuit.
P=
4R 22. What is signal to noise ratio equal to?
( )
2
4KTBR (a) Square of signal volt to noise volt ratio
P= (b) Signal volt to noise volt ratio
4R (c) Cube of signal volt to noise volt ration
P = KTB (d) No relation
Noise power is independent of the resistance. Vizag Steel MT 2011

Ans. (a) : Signal to Noise is equal to square of signal 27. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is
voltage to noise voltage ratio. increased by a factor of 9, then the maximum
range will increase by a factor of –
S0 3
= L2 (a) 3 (b) 3
Nq 2
(c) 9 (d) 81
Where, N q = Quantization Noise UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
L = Quantization Levels Ans. (c) : Range of antenna ∝ diameter
S0 = Signal level Hence, when the diameter of antenna increased by the
factor of 9. its range will also increase by factor of 9.
23. Which is not an Omni-directional antenna :
28. One of the following is very useful as multiband
(a) Marconi antenna (b) Discone antenna
HF receiving antenna. This is the –
(c) Log-periodic antenna
(a) conical horn (b) folded dipole
(d) Half-wave dipole antenna
(c) log periodic (d) square loop
MPPSC AE 2014
Ans. (c) : In radio communication, an omni-directional
Ans. (c) : Log periodic is a very useful multiband HF
antenna is a class of antenna which radiates equal radio
receiving antenna. It is a multi-element, directional
power in all direction perpendicular to an axis, with
antenna designed for wide band frequency.
power varying with angle to the axis, decline to zero on
the axis it log periodic antenna. So, Log-periodic 29. In the television system in India, the odd and
even fields are scanned for
antenna is not an Omni-directional antenna.
(a) 25 times each
24. The radiation power of antenna which has
(b) 25 times each but alternatively
radiation resistance equal to 500 ohm and fed
(c) 50 times each
by 20A current, will be :
(d) 50 times each but alternatively
(a) 100 kW (b) 150 kW
(c) 200 kW (d) 250 kW
Ans. (b) : In television system in India, the odd and
MPPSC AE 2014
even field are scanned for 25 time each but ultimately
Ans. (c) : So radiation power by antenna, because in India 50 frame per scanned and in each
Prad = i 2 R = ( 20 ) × 500 = 400 × 500 = 200000
2
second. in which 25 are odd and 25 are even.
Prad = 200 kW 30. The power gain of an antenna using parabolic

reflector is directly proportional to the
25. In DSB-SC system, at the receiver the detection (a) mouth diameter
process is expensive because: (b) wavelength
(a) it requires synchronous detection (c) aperture ratio
(b) Generation of local carrier is difficult at the (d) square of the aperture ratio
receiver LMRC AE 2015
(c) Power level of received signal is very low
Ans. (d) : The power gain of an antenna using parabolic
(d) All options are correct reflector is directly proportional to the square of the
MPPSC AE 2014 aperture ratio.
Ans. (a) : In DSB-SC system, at the receiver the 31. In a Broadcast superheterodyne receiver
detection process is expensive because it requires having no RF amplifier, the loaded Q of the
synchronous detection. antenna coupling circuit (at input of mixer) is
26. The non-resonant antenna is– 100. If the intermediate frequency (IF) is 455
(a) Dipole (b) Yogi-uda KHz, calculate the image frequency (fsi) and its
(c) Monopole (d) Rhombic rejection ratio (α) at 1000 KHz :
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (a) fsi = 1190 KHz and α = 1.386
Ans. (d) : A non-resonant antenna is rhombic. Non (b) fsi = 1455 KHz and α = 138.6
resonant antennas are those for which the resonant (c) fsi = 1910 KHz and α = 1.386
frequency does not occurs. The wave moves in forward (d) fsi = 1910 KHz and α = 138.6
direction hence it does not forms a standing wave. PTCUL AE 2016

Ans. (d) : Load Q of antenna coupling circuit = 100 Ans : (d) Noise is an unwanted energy which reaches
Intermediate frequency fi = 455 kHz to receiver with signal. Due to having much noise in the
Image frequency fsi = fs + 2fi channel it can meet at any point with the signal. The
maximum effect of noise is where the signal gets weak.
= 1000 + (2 × 455)
36. In TV, video signals are transmitted through
fsi = 1910 kHz (a) Frequency modulation
fsi fs 1910 1000 (b) Pulse modulation
f= − = − = 1.386 (c) Amplitude modulation
fs fsi 1000 1910
(d) phase modulation
Rejection ratio α = 1 + Q 2 f 2 = 1 + (1002 ) (1.386 )
2 UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Ans : (c) Frequency modulation is used for Radio TV
α = 138.6 sound transmissions while amplitude modulaton is used
32. Forward error-correcting code............. for video transmission. A high frequency, current
(a) requires no retransmission of signal to correct modulating signal such as video is to be transmitted
errors. vestigial sideband transmission is used for TV
transmission, is the lowest power transmission
(b) requires partial retransmission of signal to
technique.
correct errors.
(c) requires retransmission of entire signal to 37. In transistor radio receiver, the number of IF
correct errors amplifier stages are:-
(a) 1 (b) 2
(d) always uses parity to correct errors
(c) 4 (d) 6
Ans. (a) : Forward error correcting code or channel
Ans. (b) : Two IF amplifier stage are very commonly
coding is a technique used for controlling errors in
used in transistor radio receiver .
transmission over unreliable or noisy communication
channels. 38. For an ideal 3000Hz channel, S/N ratio is:-
(a) 3 (b) 1.5
33. The spectral density of which noise is constant
(c) 4 (d) 2
for all frequency ranges?
(a) White noise (b) Internal noise
(c) Shot noise (d) Solar noise Ans. (a) :According to shanno's theorem,
UPPCL AE 2015  S
C = B log2 1 + 
Ans. (a) The spectral density of white noise is constant  N
for all frequency ranges. S
= 2( ) − 1
C/B
So,
34. Thermal noise power is directly pro-portional N
to: In this case C = 2 fm = 2×3000 Hz = 6000 Hz
(a) The bandwidth over which the noise is to be B = fm = 3000 Hz
measured S
∴ = 2(
6000 / 3000 )
−1 = 3
(b) The resistance of the antenna. N
(c) Both the voltage of the signal and the 39. A phase locked loop (PLL) is a feedback circuit
resistance of the antenna consisting of a:-
(d) The voltage of the signal (a) Phase detector (b) Low pass filter
UPPCL AE 2015 (c) VCO (d) All of the above
Ans. (a) Thermal noise is directly proportional to the UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
bandwidth over which the noise to be measured. Ans. (d) : A phase locked loop (PLL) is a feedback
35. Noise has the greatest effect in a circuit consisting of a phase detector, low pass filter and
communication system when it interferes with VCO.
the signal.........
(a) In the transducer
(b) In the transmitter
(c) In the receiver
(d) In the channel
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
40. An antenna has a resistance of 50 Ω and an Ans. (c) : Solar noise, cosmic noise and Galactic noise
equivalent noise resistance of 30 Ω . The noise these are fall in same category of source whenever
figure in decibels is:- atmospheric noise have different category of source
(a) 1.6 dB (b) 2 dB among these.
(c) 3.6 dB (d) 6 dB 46. Two way simultaneous data communication
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II mode is called
Ans. (b) : Antenna resistance (Ra) = 50 Ω (a) simplex (b) half-duplex
Noise resistance (Req) = 30 Ω (c) full-duplex (d) none of these
R eq UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
Noise Figure ( NF ) = 1 +
Ra Ans. (c) : Two way simultaneous data communication
30 mode is called full-duplex.
= 1+ = 1 + 0.6 = 1.6
50
Noise figure in decibel = 10 log 1.6 dB = 10 × 0.204 dB
= 2.04 dB ≃ 2 dB
47. Noise figure is related to the following ratio:
41. Human ears can detect sound intensity of order
(a) signal power/noise power
of:-
(b) noise power/signal power
(a) 10–4 W/m2 (b) 10–8 W/m2
–13 2 (c) input signal-to-noise ratio/output signal-to-
(c) 10 W/m (d) 10–18 W/m2
noise ratio
(d) output signal-to-noise ratio/input signal-to-
Ans. (c) : Human ears can detect sound intensity of
noise ratio
order of 10–13 W/m2
42. A satellite channel can be fairly accurately
modelled as a: Ans. (c) : Noise figure = input signal-to-noise
ratio/output signal-to-noise ratio.
(a) Random delay channel
(b) Panic button channel 48. A tuned radio frequency receiver has its
(c) Additive white Gaussian noise channel bandwidth 10 kHz at the tuned frequency 1100
(d) Fading channel kHz. The quality factor or the selectivity of the
receiver is
Ans. (c) : A satellite channel can be fairly accurately
modelled as a additive white Gaussian noise channel. (a) 110 (b) 11
43. The synchro-transmitter acts like 1 110
(c) (d)
(a) an alternator (b) an induction motor 110 2
(c) a transformer (d) None of these UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II Ans. (a) : Given that, fr = 1100 kHz
Ans. (c) : The synchro-transmitter acts like a BW = 10 kHz
transformer. fr 1100 kHz
Q= = = 110
44. In television, 4:3 represents the BW 10 kHz
(a) interlace ratio
49. ................... is also known as the average failure
(b) maximum horizontal deflection
rate.
(c) aspect ratio
(a) System average interruption frequency index
(d) ratio of the two diagonals
(b) System average interruption duration index
(c) Average service availability index
Ans. (c) : In television, 4:3 represents the aspect ratio.
(d) Customer average interruption frequency
45. Indicate the noise whose source is in a category
index
different from that of the other three.
(a) Solar noise (b) Cosmic noise
(c) Atmospheric noise (d) Galactic noise Ans. (a) : System arrange interruption frequency index
is also known as the average failure rate.
50. In ...................... mode, no voltage is injected Ans. (c) : A channel is used to convey an information
(VDVR = 0) by DVR. The booster transformer's signal from one or several senders/ transmitter to one or
low voltage winding is shorted through the several receivers.
converter. No switching of semiconductors
54. FM signal is less affected by:
occurs in this mode of operation. The DVR will
be in this mode most of time. (a) Loss
(a) Protection (b) Injection (b) Temperature
(c) Stand by (d) Shut down (c) Frequency
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 (d) Noise
Ans. (c) : In stand by mode, no voltage is injected OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
(VDVR = 0) by DVR. The booster transformer's low Ans. (d) : Noise affects the amplitude but in frequency
voltage winding is shorted through the converter. No modulation 'FM' the information is transmitted varying
switching of semiconductor occurs in this mode of the frequency and not the amplitude therefore, FM is
operation. The DVR will be in this mode most of the
less affected by Noise.
time. You will not be able to control live TV.
55. Which of the following measures cannot be
51. The image frequency of a super heterodyne
effective in reducing the noise?
receiver in TV receivers, is.
(a) Created within the receiver itself (a) Reduction in signalling rate
(b) Due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection (b) Increase in transmitted power
(c) Not rejected by the IF tuned circuits (c) Increase in channel bandwidth
(d) Independent of the frequency to which the (d) None of the above
receiver is tuned. ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020
UPSC JWM 2017 Ans. (c) : Measures can be effective in reducing the
Ans. (c) : The image frequency of a super heterodyne noise is that:-
receiver in TV receivers, is not rejected by the IF tuned (a) Reduction in signalling rate
circuits. (b) Increase in transmitted power
52. The noise voltage at temperature T K at the But increase in channel bandwidth can not be effective
input of a television RF amplifier is V volt.
in reducing the nosie.
What will be the noise at temperature 2T K?
V 56. For a bandwidth of 100 MHz, oscilloscope
(a) 2 V (b) should have a rise time of:
2
(a) 5.5 ns (b) 7.5 ns
V
(c) V 2 (d) (c) 3.5 ns (d) 9.5 ns
2
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans : (c) Rise time of an oscilloscope is defined as,
Ans. (c) : As we know that:-
thermal noise voltage at temp T K, Vn2 = 4KTBR  0.35 
 Using formula → t r = 
 B.W(MHz) 
Where,
B = Bandwidth 0.35
tr = = 3.5ns
R = resistive component 100 MHz
of the impedance
2
57. Which of the following measures cannot be
∴ thermal noise voltage at temp 2T K, Vn1 = 4K effective in reducing the noise?
(2T)BR (a) Reduction in signaling rate
Vn2 1 (b) Increase in transmitted power
∴ 2 = ∵ Vn = V
Vn1 2 (c) Increase in channel bandwidth
(d) Use of redundancy
Vn1 = V 2
53. Messages travel from transmitter to receiver
Ans. (c) : On increasing the bandwidth, the system
with help of:
becomes prone to more noise, because more noise can
(a) Transmitter (b) Receiver
enter the bandwidth. Therefore, increase in channel
(c) Channel (d) Antennas
bandwidth cannot be effective in reducing the noise.
58. For practical purpose, the signal to noise ratio Ans. (a) : In a pulse digital modulation :
for acceptable quality transmission of analog
signals and digital signals respectively are 3 2
Signal to Noise ratio (SNR) = Q
(a) 10 - 30 dB and 05 - 80 dB 2
(b) 40 - 60 dB and 10 - 12 dB Where Q = Number of quantization levels.
(c) 60 - 80 dB and 20 - 24 dB Therefore the compander in a digital communication
(d) 70 - 90 dB and 30 - 36 dB system serve to equalize the SNR for both weak and
ESE 2019 strong PAM signal.
Ans. (b) : For practical purpose, the signal to noise
ratio for acceptable quality transmission of analog 3. For a binary phase-shift keying modulator with
signals and digital signals respectively are 40 - 60 dB a carrier frequency of 70 MHz and input bit
and 10 - 12 dB. rate of 10 Mbps, the maximum Upper Side
59. The Shannon limit for information capacity I is Frequency (USF) and minimum Lower Side
 S  S Frequency (LSF) are respectively
(a) Blog 2  1 −  (b) Blog 2  1 + 
 N   N  (a) 85 MHz and 65 MHz
 S  S (b) 75 MHz and 65 MHz
(c) Blog10 1 −  (d) Blog10 1 + 
 N  N (c) 55 MHz and 45 MHz
Where: (d) 75 MHz and 45 MHz
N = Noise power (W) ESE 2020
B = Bandwidth (Hz)
Ans. (b) : Given,
S = Signal power (W)
ESE 2020 fc = 70 MHz
Ans. (b) : Shannon limit for Information capacity Rb = 10 Mbps
 S spectrum of binary phase shift keying
I = Blog 2  1 + 
 N
where, N = noise power
B = Bandwidth
S = Signal power
(iii) Digital Communication

Basics
So, maximum upper side frequency–
1. Quantization error takes place in the following R
process. USF = f c = b
(a) Pulse width modulation 2
(b) Pulse code modulation 10
= 70 + = 75 MHz
(c) Frequency division multiplexing 2
(d) Time division multiplexing Minimum lower side frequency (LSF)
MPPSC AE 2017
R 10
Ans. (b) : The difference between an input value and its = fc – b = 70 –
2 2
quantized value is called a quantization error. In PCM,
Quantization error occurs when converting an analog = 65 MHz
signal into digital signals. PCM is used in Telkom 4. In modulation system, the energy per bit-to-
system, digital audio recording, digitized video special
effects, digital video, voice mail etc. E
noise power density ratio b is
2. The compander in a digital communication N o
system serves to. C fb N B

(a) Equalize the SNR for both weak and strong (a) × (b) ×
N B C fb
PAM signals
(b) Increase the amplification of the signals C B N fb
(c) × (d) ×
(c) Improve A/D conversion N fb C B
(d) Improve multiplexing
UPSC JWM 2017 ESE 2020

Ans. (c) : The signal to noise ratio (SNR) of received 8. If Vc is the peak value of carrier signal and Vr
C Eb  fb  is that of reference signal, modulation index of
signal =   a sinusoidal PWM is?
N No  B 
(a) Vr/Vc (b) Vc/Vr
Eb C B (c) (Vc/Vr)2 (d) (Vr/Vc)2
= ×
No N f b KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
Eb C × B Ans. (a) : The modulation index in PWM is defined as
So, =
No N × f b the ratio between peak value of reference signal to a
peak value of triangular carrier signal.
5. For sinusoidal pulse width modulation of a
switch, sinusoidal reference is modulated with Vr
M i( PWM ) =
a triangular high-frequency carrier signal. If Vc
zero of the reference signal coincides with the
zero/peak of the carrier wave, then the number Where, Vc = peak value of carrier signal
of pulses generated in each half cycle are Vr = reference signal
(a) m/(m-1) (b) (m-1)/m 9. FSK demodulation is an application of :
(c) 1 (d) (m-1)/(m-1) (a) BPF (b) Timer
UPPCL AE 2014 (c) PLL (d) None of these
Ans. (b) : If zero of the reference signal coincides with HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
the zero/peak of the carrier wave, the number of pulses Ans. (c) : FSK (frequency – shift keying) is a frequency
( m – 1) modulation scheme in which digital information is
generated in each half cycle are . transmitted through discrete frequency changes of a
m
6. In single pulse modulation used in PWM carrier signal. FSK demodulation is an application of
inverters, for eliminating third harmonic PLL (Phase - locked loop).
component in the output voltage, the pulse 10. In sinusoidal pulse width modulation used in
width should be PWM inverters, the fundamental output
(a) 60º (b) 90º frequency is adjusted to 50Hz. The frequency
(c) 110º (d) 120º of the triangular carrier signal is adjusted to
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I 1.5 KHz. If the modulation index is adjusted to
APGENCO AE 2012 0.8, what will be the value of the carrier ratio
Mf and the order of the significant harmonics?
2π
Ans. (d) : When pulse width 2d = then nth harmonic (a) 30, 29 & 31 (b) 0.33, 29 & 31
n (c) 0.33, 14 & 16 (d) 30, 14 & 16
eliminated.
DMRC AM 2018
hence, 3rd harmonic eliminated
2 ×180 Carrier frequency
= = 120º Ans. (a) : M f =
3 Fundamental frequency
7. In sinusoidal pulse width modulation 1500
Mf = = 30
(a) The width of each pulse is different 50
(b) The width of all pulses is same. Mf +1 = 30 + 1 = 31
(c) The width of each pulse is varied in Mf –1 = 30 – 1 = 29
proportion to the amplitude of sine wave 11. Resonant converters are basically used to
evaluated at the center of the same pulse. (a) generate large peak voltages
(d) The width of each pulse is varied in
(b) reduce the switching losses
proportion to the amplitude of sine wave
evaluated at the start of the same pulse. (c) eliminate harmonics
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 (d) convert a square wave into a sine wave
APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (c) : In sinusoidal pulse width modulation– An
inverter produces an AC output voltage from a DC Ans. (b) : A resonant converter is a type of electric
input by using switching circuit to stimulate a sine wave power converter that contains a network of inductors
by producing one or more square pulses of voltage per and capacitors called a "resonant tank" turned to
half cycle. The pulse near the edge of the half cycle are resonate at a specific frequency. Resonant converters
always narrower than the pulse near the center of the are basically used to reduced switching losses
half cycle such that the pulse widths are proportional to encountered in pulse width modulation (PWM)
the corresponding amplitude of a sine wave at that converters. The device is switched with either zero
portion of the cycle. current or zero voltage at its terminals.

12. The primary advantage of PCM system is : Ans. (c) : An ergodic process is one which conforms to
(a) Lower noise the ergodic theorem. The theorem allows the time
(b) lower bandwidth average of a conforming process equal to the ensemble
(c) Lower cost average. In practice this means that statistical sampling
(d) Lower power requirement can be performed at one instant across a group of
UPPCL AE 2015 identical processes or sampled over time on a single
process with no change in the measured result. Hence,
Ans. (a) Primary advantage of PCM system is lower
the assumption of ergodic process in communication
noise.
system means the random signals have the identical
13. In which pulse modulation system, the highest time and ensemble averages.
signal to noise ratio achieved?
16. A message signal with its amplitude uniformly
(a) PPM
distributed between –2V and +2V is
(b) Equal in all three transmitted by a 8-bit binary PCM system. The
(c) PWM (SNR)q would be
(d) PAM (a) 37.8 dB (b) 49.8 dB
UPPCL AE 2015 (c) 43.8 dB (d) 25.8 dB
Ans. (a) PPM type pulse width modulation system, is UPPCL AE 2013
the highest signal to noise ratio achieved. Ans. (b) : Signal to noise ratio (SNR)
14. A binary FSK signal has Mark frequency of 49
 So 
KHz and space frequency of 51KHz. If the   ≡ 1.76 + 6n
input bit rate is 2 kbps. the minimum  N q dB
bandwidth and baud are............Hz &
where, n = no. of bits
...........respectively.
(a) 2000, 6000 (b) 2000, 4000 ∴ SNR = 1.76 + 6 × 8
(c) 6000, 2000 (d) 4000, 2000 = 49.76 dB ≃ 49.8dB
AAI Junior Executive 2016 17. Which modulation is used in GSM system?
Ans. (c) : Given, (a) QPSK (b) PMSK
f b = 2kbps (c) GMSK (d) QMSK
UPPCL AE 2013
| f m − f s | | 49 − 51|
∆f = = Ans. (c) : GSM uses a digital modulation format called
2 2
GMSK (Gaussian minimum shift keying).
= 1kHz
18. Signal to Noise ratio of companded PCM is–
Minimum bandwidth,
(a) Inversely proportional to signal bit rate
B = 2 ( ∆f + f b )
(b) Depends on maximum amplitude
B = 2 (1000 + 2000 ) = 6 kHz (c) Depends on number of quantization levels
The baud for binary FSK can also be determine by (d) Proportional to maximum frequency of the
substituting N =1. signal
f 2000 UPPCL AE 2013
Baud = b = Ans. (c) : Signal to noise ratio of companded PCM is
N 1
= 2000 depend on number of quantization level.
15. The assumption of ergodic process in 19. Digital modulation requires–

communication system means– (a) bandwidth of both is same
(a) The random signals have identical time (b) more bandwidth compared to Analogy
averages modulation
(b) The random signals have identical ensemble (c) less bandwidth compared to Analogy
averages modulation
(c) The random signals have the identical time (d) unity bandwidth
and ensemble averages UPPCL AE 2013
(d) None of these is correct Ans. (c) : Digital modulation require less bandwidth
MPPSC AE 2014 compare to analogy modulation.
20. Which one of the following is a digital 24. Amplitude levels are transmitted in a 7 unit
modulation technique? code in a PCM. For sampling to be done at a
(a) PAM – Pulse Amplitude Modulation rate of 2 Hz, the bandwidth should be
(b) PCM – Pulse Code Modulation ________.
(c) PPM – Pulse Position Modulation (a) 14 kHz (b) 2 kHz
(d) PWM – Pulse Width Modulation (c) 7 kHz (d) 3.5 kHz
TNPSC AE 2018 UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
Ans. (b) : PCM – Pulse Code Modulation is a digital Ans. (c) : Bit rate = Rb = n×fs
modulation technique. = 7 × 2 kHz = 14 kHz
21. In PCM, if transmission path is very long then {∵ n = no. of unit/bit = 7}
the reconstruction of PCM wave is done by. 1 14
(a) increasing the pulse width Band width = R b = = 7 kHz
2 2
(b) regenerative repeater stations 25. The pulse width Modulation process can be
(c) increasing the pulse amplitude achieved by
(d) decreasing the spacing in pulses (a) Using free-running multivibrator
TNPSC AE 2019 (b) Performing integration on the signal
Ans. (b) : In PCM, if transmission path is very long (c) Using a mono-stable multivibrator
then the reconstruction of PCM wave is done by (d) Performing a differentiation on pulse position
regenerative repeater stations. modulation
22. The main advantage of PCM system is MPPSC AE 2016
(a) lower noise
Ans. (c) : The pulse width modulation process can be
(b) lower power achieved by using a monostable multivibrator.
(c) lower bandwidth
26. In communication system, the ergodic process
(d) lower operating expenses
concept for many random signal means
(a) They have similar ensemble averages
Ans. (a) : The main advantage of PCM system is lower (b) They have similar time averages
noise.
(c) They have similar time and ensemble
23. A Sinusoidal message signal m (t) is averages
transmitted by binary PCM without (d) They do not have similar time and ensemble
compression. If the signal to quantization noise averages
ratio is required to be at least 48 dB, the
MPPSC AE 2016
minimum number of bits per sample will be:
Ans. (c) : Ergodic process concept for many random
(a) 8 (b) 10
signals means they have similar time and ensemble
(c) 12 (d) 14
averages.
UPRVUNL AE 2016
27. Companding operation is useful because :
Ans : (a) It is given that -
(a) It overcomes quantization noise in PCM
S 
Signal to Noise Ratio   dB = 48 (b) If protects small signals in PCM from
N quantizing noise
for any sinusoidal signal- (c) It reduces impulse noise in PWM receivers
S  S (d) None of these is correct
 N  dB in PCM =  N  dB = 1.8 + 6n
    MPPSC AE 2014
It is transmitted without compression. Ans. (b) : The signal to quantization noise ratio in PCM
S system depends upon,
∴  N  dB = 6n
  • to reduce impulse noise
48 = 6n • to protect small signal in PCM by companding
n=8 operation from quantizing ratio.

28. Which of the following pulse modulation 32. Which of following is a DIGITAL SIGNAL
technique is analog : SYSTEM?
(a) Differential PCM (b) PCM (a) PPM (pulse position modulation)
(c) PWM (d) Delta (b) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
MPPSC AE 2014 (c) PWM (pulse width modulation)
Ans. (c) : Pulse width modulation (PWM) or pulse (d) PCM (pulse code modulation)
duration modulation (PDM) or pulse time modulation AAI Junior Executive 2016
(PTM) is analog modulation scheme in which the Ans. (d) : PPM, PAM and PWM are anolog modulation.
duration or width or time of the pulse carrier varies PCM is digital modulation.
proportional to the instantaneous amplitudes of message 33. An audio signal of 15 kHz is digitized by a 5–
signal. bit PCM system. Number of bits/sec required
29. In a PCM system, the number of quantization to encode this audio signal will be:
levels are 16 and maximum signal frequency is (a) 300 kbps
4 kHz, the bit transmission rate is– (b) 30 kbps
(a) 64 K bits/sec. (b) 16 K bits/sec. (c) 150 kbps
(c) 32 K bits/sec. (d) 32 bits/sec. (d) 75 kbps
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (a) : Ans. (c) Sampling rate (fs ) = 2 × 15 kHz
Bit transmission rate = 30 kHz
= frequency × No. of quantization levels Bit rate (Rb ) = n fs
Bit transmission rate = 4 kHz × 16 = 5 × 30

= 150 bits/sec
= 64 kHz bits/sec
34. An analog voltage signal whose highest
Bit transmission rate = 64kbits / sec
significant frequency is 1 kHz is to be digitally
30. A signal is sampled 8 KHz and is quantized coded with a resolution of 0.01% covering the
using 8-bit uniform quantizer. Assuming SNRq voltage range up to 10 volts. To avoid loss of
for a sinusoidal signal, the correct statement information, the minimum number of bits in
for PCM signal with a bit rate of R is : the digital code should be.
(a) R = 32 kbps, SNRq = 49.8 dB (a) 2 (b) 14
(b) R = 64 kbps, SNRq = 55.8 dB (c) 4 (d) 8
(c) R = 64 kbps, SNRq = 49.8 dB UPPCL AE 2015
(d) R = 32 kbps, SNRq = 25.8 dB Ans. (b) To avoid loss of information, minimum
number of bits in digital code should be 14.
PTCUL AE 2016
35. A compander is used in digital commu-nication
1
Ans. (c) : Bit duration (Tb) = system to:
nfs
(a) Reduce noise
Where n is no of bit, fs is sampling frequency (b) Improve SNR
1 (c) Improve the frequency response
bit rate Rb = ⇒ 8fs = 64 kbps
Tb (d) Compress the bandwidth
SNRq = 1.76 + 6.02n = 1.76 + 6.02 × 8 = 49.8 dB UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (b) A compander is used in digital communication
31. For a single channel PCM system with a
system to improve SNR
sample rate fs=5000 samples per second and a
7-bit compressed PCM code. the line speed 36. Why is PWM telemetry system more
is......... advantageous as compared to PCM?
(a) 40,000 bps (b) 35,000 bps (a) It does not need ADC.
(c) 5,000 bps (d) 70,000 bps (b) It does not need sample and hold circuit.
(c) It is expensive
(d) It does not need ADC, and it does not need
Ans. (b) : Line speed = bit rate = nfs
sample and hold circuit.
= 7×5000 = 35000 bps UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (d) In the PWM telementry system does not need 42. If 'N' signal are multiplexed using PAM band
ADC and it does not need sample and hold circuit, so limited to fM' the channel bandwidth need not
this is the advantage as compared to PCM. be larger than
f
37. A PCM system uses a uniform quantizer (a) N. M (b) N.fM
followed by an 8–bit encoder. What is the SNR 2
for a full load sinusoidal singnal (c) 2N.fM (d) N2.fM
(a) 1.8 dB (b) 50dB ESE 2019
(c) 49.8dB (d) 68dB Ans. (c) : Band width = fS × N
Where fS = 2fm
UPPCL AE 2015
B.W. = N × 2fm
Ans. (c) A PCM system uses a uniform quantizer
B.W. = 2Nfm
followed by an 8–bit encoder, 49.8dB is the SNR for a
43. In a time division multiplexing, there are 8000
full load sinusoidal signal.
samples for a digital signal-0 channel that uses
38. Number of quantization levels required for a 8 kHz sample rate and 8 bit PCM code. The
PCM system having 5 number of bits per line speed will be
sample is: (a) 56 kbps (b) 64 kbps
(a) 64 (b) 16 (c) 76 kbps (d) 84 kbps
(c) 32 (d) 05 ESE 2020
UPPCL AE 2015 Ans. (b) : Speed of commutation in Time division
Ans. (c) Number of quantization levels required for a multiplexing (TDM) ⇒ Rb = Nnfs
PCM system having 5 number of bits per sample is Number of signals multiplexed is not given, so that
TDM is normal PCM only, where only one signal is
2 n = 25 = (32) . transmitted,
39. The most noise immune system is:- Rb = nfs (∵ N = 1)
(a) SSB (b) PCM =8×8k
(c) PDM (d) PWM = 64 kbps
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II 44. For an 8-PSK system, operating with an
Ans. (b) : PCM (Pulse Code Modulation) is the most information bit rate of 24 kbps, the band rate
will be
noise immune system.
(a) 16,000 (b) 12,000
40. Indicate which of the pulse modulation system (c) 8,000 (d) 6,000
is analog? ESE 2020
(a) PCM (b) Differential PCM Ans. (c) : Given,
(c) PWM (d) Delta Rb = 24 kbps
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II Rb
Ans. (c) : PWM (pulse width modulation) system is an Band rate Br =
log 2 M
analog in nature while PCM (pulse code modulation),
M=8 (for 8-PSK)
differential PCM and Delta are digital in nature.
24 kbps
41. For coherent detection of digital signals, the Br =
log 2 8
receiver must be:
= 8 kbps
(a) Synchronized in time only
Br = 8,000
(b) Synchronized in phase only
(c) Synchronized in time and phase
(d) Unsynchronized
( iv) Sampling Quantizing
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II 1. Truncating numbers that are represented in
Ans. (c) : In coherent detection the local carrier wave sign-magnitude form result in a quantization
which is generated at receiver is phase locked with error that is.
carrier at the transmitter. Thus both the oscillators (a) negative for positive numbers
 1  (b) negative for negative numbers
waved are synchronized in both frequency   and (c) positive for positive numbers
 time 
(d) unsymmetrical about zero
phase.
TNPSC AE 2019
Ans. (a) : Truncating numbers that are represented in Ans. (a) : Given, fm = 10 kHz
sign-magnitude from result in a quantization error that From Nyquist rate, the minimum number of samples per
is negative for positive number. second that must be taken to ensure recovery is,
2. Sync pulses are termed as f s = 2f m
(a) Synchronizing pulses
(b) Syncron pulses = 2 × 10 KHz = 20,000 sample/sec
(c) Syncite pulses = 20 K sample/sec
(d) Synclose pulses 6. Bandwidth of a N-bit binary coded PCM signal
JUVNL AE 2017 for modulating a signal having bandwidth of 'f'
Hz is
Ans. (a) : Sync pulse is a Synchronization pulse. The
(a) f/N Hz (b) f/N2 Hz
termed Synchronization pulse is usually applied to
analog signals (c) Nf Hz (d) N2f Hz
TANGEDCO AE 2018
3. The Nyquist rate for the signal
Ans. (c) : Bandwidth of N bit binary PCM signal for
1
x(t) = cos (4000 πt) cos (1000 πt) will be modulating is Nf Hz.
2π
Data size 1
(a) 5 kHz (b) 10 kHz Bandwidth = = N × = N.f
time T
(c) 15 kHz (d) 20 kHz
ESE 2020 7. Mean-square signal-to-quantization noise ratio
Ans. (a) : To evaluate the Nyquist rate of signal S
  for PCM (with L = total number of
1  N q
x(t) = .cos(4000πt).cos(1000πt)
2π levels and ∆ V= quantization error range) is.
1 L2
x(t) = .[ 2cos(4000πt).cos(1000πt) ] (a) (b) L2
4π ∆ V
1 L2 L2
x(t) = .[ cos(3000πt).cos(5000πt)] (c) (d)
4π 12∆V 12
using cos (A – B) + cos (A + B) = 2 cos A. cos B) UPSC JWM 2017
ωm = 5000 π Ans. (b) : signal to quantization noise ratio (SQNR)
 5000 π  signal power
⇒ fm =   = 2500 Hz =
 2π  Quantization Noise power
So, by low pass sampling theorem Nyquist rate ≥ 2fm ∆2
for fs = 2(2500) ∵Quantization noise power =
12
fs = 5000 Hz Vmax − Vmin
fs = 5 KHz ∆=
2n
4. Nyquist rat (NR) of the signal and maximum A − ( −A m )
frequency (MF) are related as. = m ( message is sinusoidal )
L
(a) NR = MF (b) NR = 2 MF
2A m
(c) NR = 1/MF (d) NRV = MF/2 ∆=
L
MPPSC AE 2017
Ans. (b) : Nyquist rate is the minimum rate at which a A 2m
signal power =
finite bandwidth signal needs to be sampled to retain all 2
of the information. 3 2n
N.R. = 2.fm (maximum frequency = fm) then, SQNR = .2
2
5. A signal having a spectrum ranging from dc to 3
10 KHz is to be sampled and converted into SQNR = L2
2
discrete form. What is the minimum number of
∴ SQNR ∝ L2
samples per second that must be taken to
Where,
ensure recovery?
∆ = step size
(a) 20 K samples/sec (b) 2000 samples/sec
n = No. of bits
(c) 20 samples/sec (d) 200 samples/sec
2n = L = No. of levels
CIL MT 2020
8. It is assumed that quantization error, e(n) is a 3. The time clock frequency and its period for the
sequence of random variables where crystal frequency of 13 MHz will be
1. The statistics do not change with time. (a) Clock frequency = 1.08 MHz and Time
2. It is sequence of uncorrelated random period = 0.9 µs
variables. (b) Clock frequency = 1.08 MHz and Time
3. It is uncorrelated with the quantizer input period = 0.9 s
x(n). (c) Clock frequency = 1.08 Hz and Time period =
4. The probability density function is uniformly 0.9 s
distributed over the range of values of (d) Clock frequency = 1.08 Hz and Time period =
quantization error. 0.9 s
Which of the above statements are correct? JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Crystal frequency 13
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only Ans. (a) : Clock frequency = =
12 12
(c) 3 and 4 only = 1.08 MHz
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1 1
ESE 2020 Time period = = = 0.9 sec
f 1.08
Ans. (b) : Quantization error is the difference between
4.
In order to separate the channels in an TDM
the analog signal and the closest available digital value
receiver, we need to use following:
at each sampling instant from the A/D converters.
(a) Band pass filters (b) AND gates
The probability density function does not uniformly
(c) Differentiator (d) Integrator
distributed over the range of values of quantization
MPPSC AE 2014
error.
Ans. (b) : In TDM entire time interval divided into
smaller time slots and corresponding to each time slot
(v) FDM & TDM the sample from a specified signal. It is simple circuit.
1. In frequency division multiplexing (FDM) In order to separate the channels in TDM receiver AND
receiver, in order to separate the channels, gate is use.
following is used. 5. Frequency shift keying can be considered as a
(a) Integrator method for introducing:
(b) Differentiator (a) Frequency modulation
(c) Band pass filters (b) Amplitude modulation
(d) AND gates (c) Phase modulation
MPPSC AE 2016 (d) None of these is correct
Ans. (c) : In order to separate channel in FDM band MPPSC AE 2014
pass filters are used. Ans. (a) : Frequency shift keying (FSK) is a frequency
modulation scheme in which digital information of a
transmitted through discrete frequency change of a
carrier signal. FSK can be implemented by using
completely independent free running oscillator.
6.Time division multiplex –
(a) can be used with PCM only
2. The process of utilizing the time scale for (b) combines five groups into a super group
simultaneous transmission of more than one (c) stacks 24 channels in adjacent frequency slots
intelligence signals on the same carrier is (d) interleaves pulses belonging to different
(a) CDMA (b) FDMA transmission
(c) FDM (d) TDM UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III Ans. (d) : Time division multiplex interleaves pulses
Ans. (d) : The process of utilizing the time scale for belonging to different transmission. Time division
simultaneous transmission of more than one intelligence multiplex is a method of transmitting and receiving the
signals on the same carrier is TDM. signal over a common signal path.

7. Angular separation between two adjacent Ans. (b) : Equalizing pulses in TV are placed at vertical
phasors in 8PSK is....................... blanking period. Equalizing pulses are added to
(a) 450 (b) 900 synchronizing signal in interlocked scanning in order to
(c) 22.50 (d) 8π0 eliminate the difference in form of odds and even
AAI Junior Executive 2016 synchronizing pulses.
Ans. (a) : Angular separation between two adjacent 4. Which circuit is used to amplify the higher
phasors in 8PSK is 450. audio frequencies?
8. For separating the channels in FDM, one has to (a) Integrator (b) Differentiator
use:- (c) Post-emphasis (d) Pre-emphasis
(a) Differentiator (b) Integrator JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
(c) Band pass filter (d) AND gates Ans. (d) : Pre-emphasis circuit is used to amplify the
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II higher audio frequencies.
Ans. (c) : Band pass filter is use for separating the 5. In television, we use interlacing for following
channels in 'FDM'. purpose:
Band pass filter allows a band of frequency to pass (a) To provide the illusion of motion
through and attenuates other frequencies. (b) To ensure that at lines on the screen are
scanned
(vi) Transmission Line Audio (c) To simplify the vertical sync pulse train
(d) To avoid flicker
& Ultra High Frequency MPPSC AE 2014
1. A transmission line is feeding 1 watt of power Ans. (d) : The flicker problem in television was solved
to a horn antenna having a gain of 10 dB, the using an innovation called interlaced scanning. As they
antenna is matched to the transmission line. are sequentially displaced, the human vision system
The total power radiated by the horn antenna perceives odd number lines and even number lines
in free space is interlaced.
(a) 10 watt (b) 1 watt 6. Which statement is not true :
(c) 0.1 watt (d) 0.01 watt (a) The phase array radar has very fast scanning
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 compared to other types of radar
Ans. (a) : Given : Power input to horn antenna = 1 W (b) The phase array radar has ability to track and
Gain of antenna = 10 dB = 10 linear scan simultaneously compared to other types
of radar
Power radiated by horn antenna = ?
(c) The phase array radar has circuit simplicity
Power radiated by horn antenna = Gain × Power input
compared to other types of radar
= 10 × 1
(d) The phased array radar has the ability to track
= 10 W many targets simultaneously as compared to
2. An audio signal is to be transmitted digital. other types of radar
Which is the system best suited for good fidelity MPPSC AE 2014
(a) 8 bit PCM Ans. (c) : In antenna theory, a phased array usually an
(b) 16 bit PCM electronically scanned array, computer controlled array
(c) 32 bit PCM of antenna which creates a beam of radio wave that can
(d) PCM system with non uniform quantizer be electronically steered to point in different direction
TNPSC AE 2018 without moving the antenna. The phase array radar has
Ans. (d) : PCM system with non uniform quantizer is circuit simplicity compared to other type of radar.
best suited for good fidelity. 7. For low attenuation, the best transmission
3. When are the equalizing pulses in a TV placed? medium is –
(a) Serration period (a) Flexible waveguide
(b) Vertical Blanking period (b) Rigid waveguide
(c) Horizontal retrace period (c) Rectangular waveguide
(d) Horizontal Blanking period (d) Coaxial line
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II

Ans. (c) : For low attenuation the best transmission Ans. (d) For audio and speech signal transmission the
medium is rectangular wave guide. A rectangular wave best choice is non uniform quantizer .
guide is a hollow metallic rectangular cross section. The 12. Head phones/audio amplifiers are used as
conducting walls of the wave guide confine the balance detectors in AC Bridge at frequency of.
electromagnetic field and thereby guide the
(a) 250 Hz and above
electromagnetic wave.
(b) Less than 250 Hz
8. A piston attenuator is a –
(c) More than 4 kHz
(a) Vane attenuator
(d) 500 kHz
(b) Waveguide below cut off
UPSC JWM 2017
(c) Modefilter
(d) Flap attenuator Ans. (a) : Head phones/audio amplifiers are used as
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II balance detector in AC bridge at frequency of 250 Hz
and above.
Ans. (b) : Piston attenuator is a waveguide below cut
off. A piston attenuator inserted in wave guide to 13. Sound signals in TV are:
introduce an amount of attenuation that can be clarified (a) Amplitude modulated
by moving an output coupling device along its (b) dc modulated
longitudinal axis. (c) Frequency modulated
9. For audio applications, which of the following (d) Both (a) and (c)
is most common oscillator :- OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
(a) Crystal Oscillator (b) LC oscillator Ans. (c) : Frequency modulation has larger signal to
(c) RC oscillator (d) None of these noise ratio and therefore, FM is less prone to
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I interference than AM. FM has better sound quality due
Ans. (c) : Most common oscillator is RC oscillator for to higher BW. So the FM is preferred for sound signal.
audio application.
14. Video signals in TV are:
RC phase-shift oscillators use resistor-capacitor (RC)
(a) Amplitude modulated
network to provide the phase-shift required by the
(b) dc modulated
feedback signal. They have excellent frequency stability
and can yield a pure sine wave. (c) Frequency modulated
1
f= OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
2πRC 6
Ans. (a) : Amplitude modulation of carrier takes up less
10. A video signal transmission system transmits bandwidth in spectrum and this is important when high-
625 pictures frames per second. Each frame frequency content modulating signal such as video is to
consists of a 200 × 200 pixel grid with 64 be transmitted. So, we can use video signals in TV are
intensity levels per pixel. The data rate of the amplitude modulated.
system is (in bits/sec) :
15. Which one of the following is not a
(a) 6.4 Gbps (b) 600 Mbps
transmission parameter of a private line data
(c) 150 Gbps (d) 1.6 Gbps
circuit that utilizes public telephone network?
PTCUL AE 2016
(a) Geographical parameter
Ans. (c) : Frame per sec = 625
(b) Bandwidth parameter
Pixels per frame = 200 × 200
(c) Interface parameter
64 intensity level per pixel
(d) Facility parameter
∴ Data rate = 625 × 200 × 200 × 6 = 150 Mbps
ESE 2020
11. For audio and speech signal transmission the
Ans. (a) : There are three broad categories of
best choice is:
transmission parameters–
(a) Uniform quantizer
Bandwidth parameter
(b) Null qantizer
Interface parameter
(c) Universal quantizer
(d) Non-uniform quantizer Facility parameter
UPPCL AE 2015 Geographical parameter is not transmission parameter.

05.
Electrical Machine–II
3. A 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs
(i) Three Phase Induction at a speed of 1440 rpm. The rotating field
Machine produced by the rotor rotates at a speed of
.............. rpm with respect to stator field.
1. The speed of an induction motor is controlled (a) 1500 (b) 0
by varying the supply frequency keeping V/f
(c) 1440 (d) 60
constant, then–
APTRANSCO AE 2017
(a) Breakdown torque and magnetizing current
would both remain constant Ans. (b) : In a 3φ inductor motor speed of rotor = Nr
(b) Breakdown torque would remain constant but Speed of rotor field rotate at synchronous speed = Ns
magnetizing current would increase. Speed of rotor w.r.t. stator field, Nr = Ns
(c) Breakdown torque would decrease but So, speed of rotor field w.r.t. stator field = Ns – Ns = 0
magnetizing current would remain constant. 4. A three-phase slip-ring induction motor is
(d) Breakdown torque and magnetizing current always started with a
both would decrease. (a) starting winding
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013 (b) squirrel cage winding
Ans. (a) : In V/f method for speed control, the ratio V/f (c) no external resistance in rotor circuit
is maintained constant so that flux will always remain (d) full external resistance in rotor circuit
fixed. By maintaining constant flux breakdown torque APPSC AEE 2019
and magnetizing, current can be maintained constant. Ans. (d) : If rotor of SRIM has low rotor winding
Therefore, the speed of an induction motor is controlled resistance at the time of starting, it will draw high
by varying the supply frequency keeping V/f constant, starting current. Thus full external resistance is needed
then breakdown torque and magnetizing current would to start this type of induction motor, and gradually
both remain constant. resistance has to be decreased when ever it reaches to
2. An 8-pole, 50 Hz, three-phase induction motor synchronous speed.
is running at 705 rpm and has a rotor copper 5. The starting torque of the slip-ring induction
loss of 5 kW. Its rotor input power is : motor can be increased by
(a) 5.06 kW (b) 0.3 kW (a) adding resistance to the stator
(c) 100 kW (d) 83.33 kW (b) adding resistance to the rotor
APTRANSCO AE 2017 (c) adding resistance to stator as well as the rotor
Ans. (d) : Given that, (d) None of the above
Rotor copper loss = 5kW APPSC AEE 2019
P = 8, f = 50 Hz, Nr = 705 rpm Ans. (b) : We know that, with increasing rotor
as we know that, resistance, rotor current will reduce and hence rotor flux
∴ Rotor copper loss = s × Rotor input power (Pin) will reduce. Adding such resistance to rotor circuit and
Rotor copper loss, sPin = 5 kW gradually external resistance is removed from circuit
achieves high starting torque only at start. The starting
120f torque of the slip ring induction motor can be increased
Ns =
P by adding resistance to the rotor.
120 × 50 N − Nr 6. The value of average flux density in air gap in
Ns = = 750rpm ⇒ s = s an induction motor, should be small
8 Ns
(a) to achieve good efficiency
750 − 705 45 3
So, s= = = = 0.06 (b) to get poor power factor
750 750 50 (c) to get good power factor
5 (d) for minimum cost.
∵ sPin = 5 ⇒ Pin = = 83.33kW
0.06 APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (c) : The motor with small air gap length draws 9. During the block rotor test on an induction
less magnetizing current, and the power factor of the motor, the power is drawn mainly for
motor is better than the motor having large air gap (a) copper loss and core loss
length. More the length of the air gap, more the leakage (b) copper loss
flux leading to more power loss.
(c) core loss
7. In a three phase induction motor, the (d) copper loss, core loss and windage and
maximum torque
friction loss
(a) does not depend on rotor resistance 'r2'
(b) is proportional to the rotor resistance'r2'
Ans. (b) : Block Rotor Test or Short Circuit Test–
(c) is proportional to r22
This test is performed to determine the short circuit
(d) is proportional to r2 current ISC with normal applied voltage to stator,
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I blocked rotor test on a induction motor the power is
Ans. (a) : Torque in 3-φ induction motor is– drawn mainly for copper loss. This test is just
equivalent to short circuit test on a transformer.
ksE 2 R
T= 2 2 2 2 Cupper loss (Pcu) = Isc2
R
R2 + ( sX 2 )
The torque will be maximum when 10. Induction generator delivers power at
R (a) lagging power factor
Slip ( s ) = 2
X2 (b) zero power factor
E22 (c) unity power factor
Tmax = k N −m (d) leading power factor
2X2
From above equation it is concluded that
Maximum torque is directly proportional to square Ans. (d) : The phasor diagram of induction generator
of rotor induced e.m.f. at standstill. shown by figure below.
The maximum torque is inversely proportional to
rotor reactance.
Maximum torque is independent of rotor
resistance.
8. If a 3-φ squirrel cage induction motor is started
at no load from a constant voltage a.c. supply,
the starting time will be minimum when the
slip corresponding to the maximum torque is-
(a) 0.203 (b) 0.407
(c) 0.608 (d) 0.712
Ans. (b) : Relation between rated torque and maximum Here, the resultant current I is the phasor sum of
1
torque of a 3-φ squirrel cage induction motor is-
τr 2s m magnetizing current I m and current through the supply
=
τm ( s m ) 2 + 1 I 2 . The generator current is the phase reversal of
As we know that in 3-φ induction motor rated torque is resultant current.
1.5 times of maximum torque. Hence power factor of induction generator is always
τr 2s leading. Also there is no demagnetizing current.
= 2 m
1.5τr s m + 1 11. The motor normally used for cranes is
s m + 1 = 3s m
2 (a) slip-ring induction motor
(b) ward-leonard controlled DC shunt motor
s 2m − 3s m + 1 = 0
(c) synchronous motor
By solving we get, (d) DC differentially compound motor
s m = 0.381
WBPSC AE 2017
s m ≅ 0.407 Ans. (a) :

12. A 6 pole, 3 phase alternator running at 1000 14. What is the operating slip of a 400 V, 50 Hz, 6-
rpm supplies power to an 8 pole, 3 phase pole, 3-phase induction motor, while the speed
induction motor which has a rotor current of is 936 r.p.m. with a 400 V, 48 Hz, 3-phase
frequency 2 Hz. What is the speed at which the supply ?
motor operates? (a) 0.036 (b) 0.064
(a) 1000 rpm (b) 960 rpm (c) 0.025 (d) 0.075
(c) 750 rpm (d) 720 rpm HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II Ans. (c) :
ESE 2002 120f 120 × 48
Stator field speed = = = 960rpm
Ans. (d) : Frequency of the alternator is given by: p 6
N ×P given rotor field speed = 936 rpm
fs = s
120 960 − 936 24 1
slip = = =
Here Ns = 1000 rpm and p = 6. 960 960 40
So, S = 0.025
1000 × 6
fs = = 50Hz 15. An induction motor having 8 poles runs at
120 727.5 rpm. If the supply frequency is 50 Hz, the
For rotor, synchronous speed is given by: emf in the rotor will have a frequency of :
120 × fs (a) 1.5 Hz (b) 48.5 Hz
Ns′ =
P (c) 51.5 Hz (d) 75 Hz
Here p = 8. So, HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
120 × 50 ESE 2003
Ns′ = = 750rpm Ans. (a) :
8
For 2 Hz rotor frequency slip, slip is given by: Given rotor speed Nr = 727.5 rpm
120f 120 × 50
f
s = r ,=
2
= 0.04 Stator field speed Ns = = = 750 rpm
fs 50 p 8
750 − 727.5 22.5
Now, rotor speed is given by: ∴ slip = = = 0.03
750 750
N r = (1 − s)N s'
Now induced rotor voltage frequency fr = Sfs
Nr = (1 - 0.04) × 750 fr = 0.03 × 50 = 1.5 Hz
N r = 0.96 × 750 = 720rpm 16. Slip of an induction motor increases with :
13. A 8 pole single-phase induction motor is (a) Increase in current and decrease in torque
running at 690 rpm. What is its slip with (b) Decrease in current and torque
respect to forward and backward field, (c) Decrease in current and increase in torque
respectively ? (d) Increase in current and torque
(a) 0.08, 2.0 (b) 0.08, 1.92 HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
(c) 1.92, 0.08 (d) 2.0, 0.08 Ans. (d) : Slip increase with increasing load-providing
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 a greater torque.
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II Slip expressed as,
ESE 2007 S = shaft rotation speed N − Nr
= S = 100
Ans. (b) : In single phase induction motor there will be Synchronous magnetic field speed NS
two fields running in opposite direction with speeds as When the rotor is not running the slip is 100%.
follows. 17. A 3-phase, 440 V, 50 hp. 50 Hz induction motor
120f 120 × 50 runs at 1,450 rpm when it delivers rated output
Ns = = = 750rpm
P 8 power. Determine rotor induced voltage (in V)
750 − 690 if stator to rotor turn ratio is 1 : 0.80. Assume
∴ forward field slip = = 0.08 the winding factors are the same.
750
(a) 11.70 – 11.80 (b) 11.30 – 11.40
750 + 690
Backward field slip = = 1.92 (c) 12.70 – 12.80 (d) 12.30 – 12.40
750
Ans. (a) : In induction motor– Ans. (b) :
Induced emf E2 = 4.44 f2 φ N2, f2 = sf1 The equivalent circuit of induction motor has the
Given rotor speed = 1450 R2 (1 − s )
equivalent mechanical load is equal to
nearest stator speed = 1500 s
1500 − 1450 1 21. The converter fed induction motor is controlled
∴ S= −
1500 30 by:
E1 f1N1 440 f ×1 30 (a) Stator voltage control
∴ = ⇒ = = (b) Rotor voltage control
E2 f2 N2 E 2 Sf × 0.80 0.8
(c) Stator voltage and frequency control
440
∴ E2 = × 0.8 = 11.733 (d) Any one of the above
30 TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
18. An induction motor has synchronous speed of Ans. (d) : The converter fed induction motor is
1500 rpm, what will the slip when it is running controlled by stator voltage control, rotor voltage
on a speed of 1450 rpm? control, stator voltage and frequency control there are
(a) –3.33% (b) +3.33% voltage control technique applicable for both slip ring
(c) 4% (d) 6% and squirrel cage induction motor.
GMB AE 2017 22. In practice regenerative breaking is used when
Ans. (b) : Given, (a) quick motor reversal is desired.
Ns = 1500 rpm, Nr = 1450 rpm (b) load has overhauling characteristic
(c) controlling elevators, rolling mills etc.
N − Nr
%s = s ×100 (d) none of these
Ns
1500 − 1450 Ans. (b) : In regenerative braking, the power or energy
= × 100
1500 of the drive machinery which is in kinetic form is
%s = 3.33% returned back to the power supply mains. This type of
braking is possible when the drive load forces the motor
19. The power input to an induction motor is 40 to run at a speed higher than no load speed with
kW when it is running at 5% slip. The stator constant excitation.
resistance and core loss are assumed negligible. In practice, regenerative braking is used when load has
The mechanical power developed: overhauling characteristics.
(a) 42 kW (b) 40 kW 23. An 8 pole wound rotor induction motor
(c) 38 kW (d) 2 kW operating on 60 Hz supply is driven at 1800
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 r.p.m. by a prime mover in the opposite
MPPSC AE 2016 direction of revolving magnetic field. The
frequency of the rotor current is
Ans. (c) : Stator core loss & c.u. loss = 0
(a) 30 Hz (b) 60 Hz
Pg = 40 kW = Pin
(c) 120 Hz (d) 180 Hz
Pcu = s.Pg = 0.05 × 40
= 2kW UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
Pout = Pin– sPg
Ans. (d) : Given, Nr = 1800 r.p.m, fs = 60 Hz, P = 8
= 40–2
120 × f
=38kW Synchronous speed (Ns) =
P
20. If 'R2' be the standstill rotor resistance of an 120 × 60
induction motor running at a slip 's', the Ns = = 900 r.p.m
8
mechanical load equivalent to an electrical
900 − 1800
resistance 'RL' in a stationary equivalent circuit Forward slip (s) = = −1
is equal to: 900
Back slip = 2 – s
R R (1 − s )
(a) 2 (b) 2 =2+1=3
s s
Rotor current frequency = sfs
R2 R2 (1 − s ) = 3 × 60
(c) (d)
s2 s2 f r = 180 Hz
24. If Pg is the air gap power and s be the slip of an Ans. (c) : Eddy current loss (Pe)
induction motor, then the rotor copper loss and Pe = K e f 2 B2m V 2
mechanical power developed are respectively
Pe ∝ f2
(a) (1– s) Pg and Pg (b) Pg (1 – s) and Pg/s
Pe1 ( f1 )
2
Pg =
(c) and Pg (1 – s) (d) sPg and (1 – s) Pg Pe2 ( f 2 ) 2
s
2
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I f 
Pe2 =  2  × Pe1
Ans. (d) : Pcu = sPg  f1 
Pm = (1 – s)Pg  100 
2
=   ×100
Where, Pg = air gap power  50 
s = slip Pe2 = 400 Watts
Pcu = rotor cu loss
28. A 6 pole, 50 Hz, 3-Φ induction motor is
Pm = mechanical power developed
running at 950 rpm and has rotor Cu loss of
25. The rotor frequency for a 3-phase 6-pole, 1000 5kW. Its rotor input is __________ kW.
r.p.m. induction motor with a slip of 0.04 is (a) 100 (b) 10
(a) 2 Hz (b) 4 Hz (c) 95 (d) 5.3
(c) 6 Hz (d) 8 Hz BHEL ET 2019
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (a) : rotor frequency f r = s × f
120f UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
synchronous speed, Ns =
P Ans. (a) :
120 × f Given:
1000 = Number of poles, P = 6
6
Frequency, f = 50 Hz
supply frequency f = 50 Hz
Motor Speed, Nr = 950 rpm
hence rotor frequency fr = 0.04 × 50
Now, the synchronous speed of the motor,
= 2 Hz.
120f 120 × 50
26. For a 3-phase induction, the rotor power NS = =
P 1000
output is 18 kW and the corresponding slip is Ns=1000 rpm
4%. What will be the rotor copper loss? Thus,
(a) 500 W (b) 750 W N − N r 1000 − 950
Slip = s =
(c) 600 W (d) 540 W Ns 1000
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II 50
s= = 0.05
Ans. (b) : Pag : Pmd : Prc :: 1 : (1 – s) : s 1000
Prc s Since, rotor copper loss is given by:
= ( s = 0.04)
Pmd 1 − s Per = sPg
Where, Pg is rotor input and s is slip. Therefore,
0.04
Prc = × 18 × 103W P 5 × 103
0.96 Pg = L =
s 0.05
Prc = 750 watt
Pg = 100kW
27. The eddy current loss in an a.c. motor is 100
watts at 50 Hz. Its eddy current loss at 100 Hz 29. The maximum torque of an induction motor is
200 kg-m at a slip of 12%. The torque at 6%
frequency will be
slip would be
(a) 50 Watts (b) 200 Watts
(a) 100 kg-m (b) 160 kg-m
(c) 400 Watts (d) 25 Watts (c) 50 kg-m (d) 40 kg-m
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
T 2ss m Ans. (b) : A variable speed 3-φ induction motor drive
Ans. (b) : = obtained by varying applied voltage is suitable for
Tmax s m2 + s 2
driving for type load where torque is proportional to
Where, square of speed.
Tm = maximum torque = 200 33. An induction machine is operated with two
sm = slip at maximum torque = 12% = 0.12 values of frequencies with the ratio of 1:2
s = slip at which the value of T is to be found out 6% = without changing the voltage. Then the starting
0.06 torque of the machine for two cases will be in
T 2 × 0.6 × 0.12 the ratio of
= (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4
200 ( 0.12 ) + ( 0.06 )
2 2
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
T 0.0144 TANGEDCO AE 2018
=
200 0.018 1 120f
Ans. (c) : starting torque T ∝ ; Ns =
T = 200 × 0.8 Ns P
T = 160 kg-m Ns ∝ f
30. In a 3-phase induction motor maximum torque 1
(a) is proportional to r2 ∴ Ts1 ∝
f1
(b) is proportional to r2 Now f2 = 2f1
(c) is proportional to r2 T f 2f
and s1 = 2 = 1
(d) independent to r2 Ts2 f1 f1
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I So torque ratio will be 2 : 1
3  V2  34. The speed of rotor field flux with respect to the
Ans. (d) : Maximum torque, Tm =   stator in a 50 Hz, 4 pole induction machine
ωs  2X 2 
running at 1% slip is
hence, in a 3-phase induction motor maximum torque is (a) 1500 rpm (b) 15 rpm
independent of r2. (c) 1485 rpm (d) 3000 rpm
31. The ratio of rotor output to rotor input in an TANGEDCO AE 2018
induction motor is 0.96. The slip of the motor 120f
is- Ans. (a) : Synchronous speed (Ns) =
p
(a) 0.04% (b) 4% 120 × 50
(c) 6% (d) 12% = =1500 rpm
4
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I As speed of Rotor rotating magnetic field is same as
Ans. (b) : Pag : Pmd : Pcu ::1: (1 − s) : s stator rotating magnetic field w.r. to stator.
Hence, rotor output = Pmd (Mechanical developed Hence speed of Rotor magnetic field = Ns = 1500 rpm
power) 35. In a 3-phase induction motor at constant
rotor input = Pag (air gap power) supply frequency
(a) Torque is proportional to voltage of supply
Pmd
= 0.96 = (1 − s ) (b) Torque is not affected by voltage of supply
Pag (c) Torque is nearly proportional to square of
s = 1 – 0.96 supply voltage
s = 0.04 (d) Torque is oscillating, whose frequency is set
by supply voltage
s = 4%
WBPSC AE 2009
32. A variable speed three-phase induction motor Ans. (c) :
drive obtained by varying the applied voltage is
36. Which one of these is false in an induction
suitable for
motor the value of maximum torque is
(a) driving constant torque loads dependent on
(b) driving fan type loads where torque (a) rotor voltage
proportional to square of speed (b) frequency of A.C. supply
(c) driving loads where torque inversely (c) rotor reactance at standstill
proportional to square of speed (d) rotor resistance
(d) driving all type of loads WBPSC AE 2009
TANGEDCO AE 2018 Ans. (d) :
37. To control the speed of the 3-phase cage motor (c) To reduce noise and pullout torque, but
at 25 Hz, the most suitable solid state converter increases parasitic torque and starting torque
will be
(a) load-commutated inverter (d) To reduce noise, parasitic torque and starting
(b) cycloconverter torque, but increases pullout torque
(c) voltage source inverter UJVNL AE 2016
UPRVUNL AE 2014
(d) current source inverter
ESE 2000
ESE 2001
Ans. (b) :
Ans. (a) Rotor skewing is used in three phase squirrel
38. The no-load power factor of an induction cage induction motor to reduce noise, parasitic torque,
motor is low due to its starting torque and pullout torque.
(a) small slip 42. It is given that the starting current of a 3φ
(b) high starting current induction motor is 3 times the rated current,
(c) low starting torque while the rated slip is 6%. What would be the
(d) large magnetizing current ratio of starting torque to full-load torque?
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 (a) 0.6 (b) 1.8
Ans. (d) : (c) 0.54 (d) 1
UPRVUNL AE 2014
39. Slip of an induction machine is 0.04 and the
2
stator supply frequency is 150 Hz. What will be T I 
the frequency of the rotor induced emf?
Ans. (c) e.st =  st  × Sfℓ [ Ist = 3Ifℓ ]
Te.fℓ  Ifℓ 
(a) 0.06 Hz (b) 6 Hz 2
(c) 16 Hz (d) 4 Hz Te.st  3Ifℓ 
=  × Sfℓ
UPRVUNL AE 2014 Te.fℓ  Ifℓ 
Ans. (b) Rotor induced emf frequency (fr)= sfs = ( 9 ) × 0.06
f = 150Hz, s = 0.04 = 0.54
= 0.04×150 = 6Hz 43. The approximate value of efficiency of a three
40. Match the following correctly. phase induction motor running at a slip 's' is
List–I given by:
A. dc series motor 1 s
(a) (b)
B. Squirrel-cage induction motor 1 + s 1 + s
C. dc shunt motor s
(c) (1 – s) (d)
List–II 1 − s
1. Shearing and pressing TSPSC AEE 2017
2. Haulage and hoisting Ans. (c) : Efficiency of 3-φ induction motor is–
3. Rolling mill Output power(P0 )
%η = × 100
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3 (b) A-2, B-3, C-1 Input power(Pg )
(c) A-3, B-1, C-2 (d) A-3, B-2, C-1 (1 − s)Pg
UPRVUNL AE 2014 %η = ×100 {∵ P0 = (1 – s)Pg}
Pg
Ans. (b) DC series motor – Haulage and hoisting
DC shunt motor– Shearing and pressing %η = (1 − s) × 100
Squirrel-cage induction motor– Rolling mills 44. For C coils and P poles, the distance between
41. Why rotor skewing is used in a three-phase the coils connected by an equalizer ring is:
squirrel-cage induction motor? C C
(a) (b)
(a) To reduce noise, parasitic torque, starting P 2
torque and pullout torque 2C C
(c) (d)
(b) To reduce noise and parasitic torque, but P 2P
increases starting torque and pullout torque TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (c) : The distance between equalizer ring– 47. The starting torque of a 3-phase induction
motor varies as
2C
D= (a) V2 (b) V
P
(c) V1/2 (d) 1/V
where, P = Pole
TSPSC AEE 2017
C = Coils
Ans. (a) : We know that torque in a 3-φ motor is–
45. The speed of a 3-phase induction motor is
controlled by controlling its supply frequency. 3 3V 2 R 2
τ= × 2
If the speed of the machine is reduced by 2πN s R 2 + (sX 2 ) 2
reducing the frequency by 50% of the rated τ = KV2
frequency; to keep the flux in the machine
τ ∝ V2
constant, the motor voltage compared to rated
voltage must be 48. Consider the following statements:
(a) increased by 25% (b) increased by 50% In a 3-phase induction motor connected to a 3-
(c) decreased by 50% (d) decreased by 25% phase supply; if one of the lines suddenly gets
disconnected, then the
TSPSC AEE 2017
1. Motor will come to a standstill
Ans. (c) : As we known that in a 3-φ induction motor–
2. Motor will continue to run at the same speed
V
φ= with line current unchanged
f 3. Motor will continue to run at a slightly speed
Now speed is reduce by reducing frequency 50% and with increase in line current
flux is constant– f = V 4. Rotor current will have both of sf and (2–s)f
f1 V1 component frequencies where s is the slip and
=
f 2 V2 f is the supply frequency
Of these statements:
f1 V
= 1 (a) 1 and 4 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
0.5f1 V2
(c) 3 and 4 are correct (d) 2 and 3 are correct
V2 = 0.5 V1 TSPSC AEE 2017
Percentage reduction in voltage–
Ans. (c) : In a 3-φ induction motor connected to a 3-φ
0.5V1 − V1
= × 100 supply, if one line suddenly get disconnected, then the
V1 motor run continue slightly increased speed and take
= 0.5 × 100 more current from supply and motor will behaves like
= 50% double phase IM giving both sf and (2-s) f component
46. Consider the following statements: of frequency on its rotor.
Star delta starter is used in 3-phase induction 49. A three phase slip ring induction motor with
motor because it chopper controlled resistance has its torque
1. Prevents heating of the motor winding proportional to:
2. Ensures permissible minimum starting current (a) Rotor current
3. Is regulated by electricity authority (b) Stator resistance
4. Ensures smooth run up to full load (c) Square of rotor current
Of these statements (d) Square root of rotor current
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct TSPSC AEE 2017
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct Ans. (c) : A 3-phase slip ring induction motor with
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct chopper controlled resistor in rotor has its torque
(d) 1 and 2 are correct proportional to square of the rotor current.
TSPSC AEE 2017 50. In static rotor resistance control method, the
Ans. (d) : Star delta starter is used in 3-φ induction effective external resistance is
motor to reduce the starting current and prevent the (a) R2 (1 – α) (b) R (1 – α)
heating of motor winding. In star delta starter starting (c) R (1 – α) (d) R (1 – α)2
current reduce to 1/3 times of full load current. TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (c) : Static-Rotor-Resistance control–In a slip- Ans. (a) : 3-φ, 440 V, 60 Hz
ring induction motor (SRIM), a three phase variable V
resistor R2 can be inserted in the rotor circuit as shown φ∝ always constant (According to question flux
f
below. By varying the rotor circuit resistance R2, the density is to maintained at its normal value)
motor torque can be controlled. The starting torque and V1 V2
starting current can also be varied by controlling R2. =
f1 f 2
440
V2 = × 25
60
= 183.33 V
54. Which of the following can be obtained by
equivalent circuit of an induction machine?
The effective external resistance (a) Complete performance characteristics of the
R.Ton R(T − Toff ) machine
Re = = (b) Temperature rise is the core
T T
(c) Type of protection used in the machine
T
Re = R(1 – α) where α = on (d) Design parameters of the winding
T TNPSC AE 2018
51. In V/f control method, Ans. (a) : Complete performance characteristic of
(a) The maximum torque decreases machine obtain by equivalent circuit of induction
(b) The motor speed increases machine.
(c) The maximum torque is constant 55. The advantage of double squirrel cage
(d) The maximum torque increases induction motor over single cage rotor is to
improve
TSPSC AEE 2017
(a) Speed regulation (b) Power factor
V V (c) Slip (d) Starting torque
Ans. (c) : In   control method. is constant
f  f TNPSC AE 2018
because φ is constant. Ans. (d) : Double cage rotor is special design of
2 2 induction motor for better starting torque and lower
V 1 V starting current.
Tst ∝   . , Tm ∝  
f  f f  56. When applied rated voltage per phase is
Tst = starting torque reduced by one-half, the starting torque of a
Tm = maximum torque squirrel cage induction motor becomes_____ of
the starting torque with full voltage
1 1 1
Tst ∝ & Tm = constant (a) (b)
f 2 4
52. The synchronous speed of linear induction 1 3
(c) (d) j
motor depends on 2 2
(a) Width of the pole pitch TNPSC AE 2019
(b) No. of poles UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
(c) Supply frequency (d) Both (a) and (c) ESE 2006
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (b) :
Ans. (d) : Synchronous speed of linear induction motor K E2R
Tst = 2 2 2 2 2
depend on width of the pole pitch and supply R 2 + ( X2 )
frequency.
53. It is desired to operate a 3φ, 440V, 60 Hz ∵ T ∝ V2
2
induction motor from a 25 Hz source. The Generally T1 = V
voltage that should be applied to the machine if When applied voltage reduced on half
2
the air gap flux density is to be maintained at V V2
T2 =   =
its normal value is 2 4
(a) 183 V (b) 1056 V
1
(c) 105.7 V (d) 609.7 V ∴ T2 = T1
4
TNPSC AE 2018
57. If an induction motor has a rotor resistance of Ans. (b) : In induction motor, the value of air gap flux
0.02 Ω and a stand still reactance of 0.1 Ω , density Bg is usually between 0.35 to 0.6 Wb/m2.
then the value of total resistance of starter for 61. For avoiding cogging in induction motor the
rotor circuit for maximum torque to be exerted difference between the number of stator and
at starting is rotor slots should not be
(a) 0.002 Ω (b) 5 Ω (a) P (b) 3P
(c) 0.12 Ω (d) 0.08 Ω (c) 5P (d) any of these
TNPSC AE 2019 Vizag Steel MT 2012
Ans. (d) : Given, Ans. (b) : For avoiding cogging in Induction motor the
R = 0.02 Ω , X = 0.1 Ω difference between the number of stator and rotor slots
Condition for getting maximum torque at starting by should be 3P.
adding external resistance is- 62. The slip rings of wound rotor machines are
R2 = SX2, at stand still S = 1 made from
R2 + Rst = X2 (a) electrolytic copper (b) brass
Rst = 0.1 - 0.02 = 0.08 Ω (c) cast iron (d) mild steel
Rst = 0.08 Ω Vizag Steel MT 2012
58. The rotor slots are slightly skewed in squirrel Ans. (b) : The slip rings of wound rotor induction
cage induction motor to machine (WRIM) are made from brass.
(a) Increase the strength of the rotor bars 63. The losses occurring in the rotor of an
(b) Reduce the magnetic hum and locking induction motor are less than those in the
tendency of the rotor stator because of
(c) Economize the copper to be used (a) small diameter of rotor
(d) Provide cases of fabrication (b) less rotor frequency
TNPSC AE 2019 (c) slot skewing
ESE 2003 (d) none of these
Ans. (b) : Slot harmonics can be eliminated by the Vizag Steel MT 2012
technique of skewing. Ans. (b) : The losses occurring in the rotor of an
induction motor is less than that in the stator because of
less rotor frequency.
64. A sinusoidal voltage V and frequency f is
connected to a series circuit at variable
resistance R and a fixed reactance X. The locus
This will reduce magnetic locking tendency due to of the tip of the current phasor I as R varies
harmonics and it also reduced the magnetic hum. from 0 to ∞ is
(a) a semi circle with a diameter V/X
59. Which type of slots are generally used
(b) a straight line with a slope R/X
induction motors?
(c) an ellipse with V/R as major axis
(a) open type
(d) a circle at radius R/X and origin at (0, V/2)
(b) semi-closed type
Vizag Steel MT 2012
(c) closed type
(d) all of these Ans. (a) : A sinusoidal voltage V and frequency f is
connected to a series circuit at variable resistance R and
Vizag Steel MT 2012
a fixed reactance X. The locus of the tip of the current
Ans. (b) : Slots generally used in induction motors are phasor I as R varies from 0 to ∞ is a semi circle with a
semi-closed type. diameter V/X.
60. In case of induction motors the value of air gap 65. The linear force (F) developed by a linear
flux density usually taken is induction motor of efficiency η is
(a) 0.1 to 0.2 Wb/m2
air gap power
(b) 0.35 to 0.6 Wb/m2 (a) F =
η× synchronous speed
(c) 1.05 to 1.35 Wb/m2
(d) 2.15 to 2.55 Wb/m2 air gap power
(b) F = η×
Vizag Steel MT 2012 linear synchronous velocity

linear synchronous velocity 68. An induction motor is operating under
(c) F = η×
air gap power plugging operation. If the synchronous speed is
Ns and rotor speed is Nr, then the speed of
1 air gap power
(d) F = × rotating magnetic field with respect to rotor
η linear synch.velocity
will be
UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I (a) Ns + Nr (b) Ns - Nr
Ans. (b) : Efficiency of a linear induction motor is
(c) Ns (d) Nr
given by-
V ×F
% ηLIM = 2 × 100 Ans. (a) : Plugging is the method of speed control in
Pg
induction motor. This method connection of motor is
Where, V2 = Linear synchronous velocity
reversed, this will create reverse magnetic field which is
F = Developed linear force
oppose the speed of rotation. Relative speed of
Pg= Air gap power of the rotor
induction motor is (Ns – Nr) during plugging Relative
Therefore,
speed is,
ηLIM × Pg
Developed linear force (F) = Ns – (–Nr)
V2
= (Ns + Nr)
66. In a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor, the
starting torque can be increased by
1. decreasing supply frequency only.
2. increasing supply frequency only.
3. decreasing both the supply frequency and
supply voltage by the same ratio.
69. In the equivalent circuit of an induction motor,
4. increasing number of poles only.
the mechanical load is represented by
From these statements the correct answer is
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 r' s
(a) 2 (b) r2'
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 s (1 − s )
s 1− s 
Ans. (d) : In a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor, (c) r2' (d) r2'  
the starting torque can be increased by- (1 + s )  s 
decreasing supply frequency only. UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
decreasing both the supply frequency and supply Ans. (d) : The variable resistance r2/s may be replaced
voltage by the same ratio. by the actual rotor winding resistance r2 and a variable
Increasing number of poles only.
resistance Rmech. which represents mechanical shaft load
67. The current source inverter fed three- phase that is,
induction motor has
r
1. regenerative braking facility. Rmech = 2 (1 − s)
2. no stability problem at light loads or in open s
loop operation.  1  
3. sinusoidal motor voltage with spikes. R mech. = r2   − 1
 s  
4. facility to operate on constant torque or
constant power mode.
Of these statements, the correct answer is
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 1 (d) 4, 1 and 2
Ans. (d) : The current source inverter fed three- phase
induction motor has–
Regenerative braking facility
No stability problem at light loads or open loop
operation
Equivalent Circuit of Induction Motor
Facility to operate on constant torque on constant
power. Referred to the Stator

70. A 4-pole, 50 Hz cage induction motor is run as Ans. (b) : Wide range of speed control of I.M. is used
a self excited induction generator at a speed of V
control method.
750 r.p.m. It will- f
(a) not run as generator since the speed is less
V
than synchronous speed. φ∝
f
(b) generate power at a frequency of 50 Hz.
At constant torque operation we have to decrease V and
(c) generate power at 25 Hz frequency.
f in same proportionate to flux φ remain constant
(d) not self excite at 750 r.p.m.
UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I V↓
φ∝ = constant
Ans. (a) : P = 4, f = 50 Hz, N = 750 rpm f↓
r
120 f And therefore torque remain constant,

Synchronous speed ( Ns ) = Above the base speed (constant power mode)V can not
P
increase with their rated value, but frequency can
120 × 50
Ns = increase so that flux decreases.
4
T ∝ φ2
Ns = 1500 r.p.m.
Thus, A 4-pole, 50 Hz cage induction motor is run as a Hence correct option is (b).
self excited induction generator at a speed of 750 r.p.m. 73. In the cumulative cascade connection of two
It will not run as generator since the speed is less than induction motors, the synchronous speed of the
synchronous speed. set is given by-
71. The rotor bar current in a there phase squirrel (a) 120 f1/P1 – P2 (b) 120 f1/P1 + P2
cage induction motor is 100 Amp. The rotor (c) 120 f /P
1 1 (d) 120 f1/P2
resistance is 0.05 Ohm/phase. At a slip of 5% UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
the air gap power is Ans. (b) : In this method two motor, one is main motor
(a) 5 kW (b) 10 kW and another auxiliary motor.
(c) 30 kW (d) 60 kW If 3φ supply is given to stator of main motor while the
auxiliary motor is derived at slip frequency from the
slip ring of main motor.
Ans. (c) : Given, Rotor current (I2) = 100 A
Let N s1 → synchronous speed of main motor
Rotor resistance (R2) = 0.05 Ω/phase
Slip = 5% = 0.05 p.u Ns2 → synchronous speed of auxiliary motor
Air gap power (Pg) = ? P1 be the No. of poles of main motor
Cupper loss (Pcu) = 3 (I'2 ) 2 R2 P2 be the No. of poles of auxiliary motor
f = supply frequency
= 3×(100)2 × 0.05
N = speed of set both motor mounted on common shaft
= 3×104×0.05
s1 = slip of main motor
= 1500 W
Ns − N
Air gap power of 3-φ squirrel cage induction motor is s1 = 1
given by– N s1
P 1500 f1 = s1f
Pg = cu = Auxiliary motor is supplied with same frequency as
s 0.05
4 main motor
= 3×10
120 f 2 120 f1
= 30 kW f1 = f 2 N s2 = =
P2 P2
72. If both the supply voltage and frequency are
reduced to 80% of their previous values in a 120s1 f
N s2 = ...(1)
three phase induction motor, then the ratio of P2
the maximum values of new torque to previous Now put the value
torque is- Ns − N
(a) 0.8 (b) 1.0 s1 = 1 ...(2)
N s1
(c) 1.25 (d) None of the above
Put the value of S1 in equation (1)
We get Ans. (c) :
120( N s1 − N ) f Po  2π N 
N s2 = T= ∵ ωs = 
P2 N s1 ωs  60 
Now at no load, the speed of auxiliary motor almost Po
T= 60
same i.e. N = Ns2 2π N
P  60 
120 f ( N s1 − N ) TN = o 60 =   Po
N= 2π  2π 
P2 N s1
Means Po ∝ TN {GivenT ∝ N 2 }
We re-arrange
Po ∝ N 2 .N
120 f
N s1 = for main motor Po ∝ N 3
P1
N 
N s2 =
120 f
for auxiliary motor Po ∝ N 13 N2 =  1 
P2  2 
Po1/ 2 ∝ N 23
When cumulative cascading is done then the complete
3
set runs at a speed of adding both speed. Po  N1 
=
120 f 120 f Po1/ 2  N1 
N s1 + N s2 = +  
P1 P2  2 
120 f = (2)3
N s1 + N s2 = N =
P1 + P2 Po
Po1/ 2 =
120 f 8
N=
P1 + P2 76. A Schrage motor is-
(a) an asynchronous motor with slip rings and
74. A line connected induction generator during its commutator which can operate at sub-
operation synchronous as well as super-synchronous
(a) takes active and reactive powers from the line speeds
(b) takes active power from the line and returns (b) an asynchronous motor with three windings,
reactive power which operates only in sub-synchronous
region.
(c) takes reactive power from the line and returns
(c) a synchronous motor with slip rings on one
active power
side and commutator on the other side
(d) a device which works as a frequency changer
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
Ans. (c) : In induction machine requires an externally Ans. (d) : It is a commutator type 3-phase-induction
supplied armature current. Because rotor field always motor and provided with three windings known as
lag behind the stator field. The induction machine primary, secondary and tertiary. Primary winding of
consumed reactive power from line and return active Schrage motor on rotor and secondary winding on stator
power to grid. and tertiary is connected to commutator. Schrage motor
is essentially a combination of wound rotor induction
75. A three phase induction motor drives a motor and frequency converter.
centrifugal pump whose load torque is
77. In a three phase induction motor, the
proportional to square of the speed. If the maximum torque.
motor delivers a power P0 at rated speed, the (a) is proportional to rotor resistance r2
power at half of the rotor speed will be (b) does not depend on r2
P0 P0 1
(a) (b) (c) is proportional to
2 4 r2
P0 P0 (d) is proportional to (r2)2
(c) (d)
8 16 KPTCL AE 2016
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : In a 3-φ induction motor torque is given by- 80. A 3-phase, 20 pole slip ring induction motor
ksE R 2 2 runs at 291 rpm, when connected to a 50 Hz
2
T= .....(1) supply. If the total rotor circuit resistance is
R + ( sX 2 )
2 2
2
doubled and R2 >> sX2, the slip for full load
And slip at maximum torque is–
torque is-
R
sm = 2 .....(2) (a) 3% (b) 4%
X2
(c) 5% (d) 6%
R  UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
k  2  E 22 R 2
X
Tm =  2  2
Ans. (d) : P = 20, Nr = 291 rpm, f = 50 Hz
R2  We know that,
R 2 +  X2 
2
 X2  f × 120 50 ×120
2
Ns = = = 300 rpm
kE P 20
Tm = 2
N − m ....................(3)
2X 2 Ns − Nr 300 − 291
Slip = × 100 = × 100
Put the value of Sm in equation (1) Ns 300
By equation (3) we can see that maximum torque of a
9
3-φ induction motor does not depends on rotor = ×100 = 3%
resistance r2 while from equation (2) we can see that 300
maximum slip is depends on rotor resistance r2. As we know that,
78. Wide range of speed control of a three phase R
slip ring induction motor is obtained by using s fl = 2
X2
(a) constant supply voltage (V) control
If R2>> sX2
V
(b) constant control Then,
f
s fl ∝ R 2
(c) slip power recovery control
(d) rotor resistance control s fl2 R '2
=
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I s fl1 R2
Ans. (b) : This most popular method for controlling the
2× R2
speed of an induction motor. As ratio of supply voltage
and frequency decreases with same proportionate a
s fl2 =
R2
× s fl1 {∵ R '
2 = 2R 2 }
constant torque induction motor with wide range of

s fl2 = 2 × 3%
speed operation obtain below the base speed.
Above the base speed the supply voltage can not s fl2 = 6%
increase by its rated value in that case the motor will
work at constant power mode. 81. The power input to a 3-phase induction motor
79. The crawling in an induction motor is caused is 50 kW. If stator losses are 800 W, then
by– copper losses of rotor phase for 0.5% slip will
(a) Improper design of machine
be-
(b) Low voltage supply
(a) 100 W (b) 200 W
(c) High loads
(d) Harmonics developed in the motor (c) 246 W (d) 492 W
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I), 02.09.2015 Ans. (c) : Given, Stator input = 50 kW = 50 × 103 W
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 Stator losses = 800 W
Pg = stator input power – stator loss (core loss)
Ans. (d) : Sometimes, squirrel cage induction motors
= 50 × 103 – 800
exhibit a tendency to run at very low speeds due to
harmonic content present in flux wave. This = 50000 – 800
phenomenon is known as crawling of induction motor. Pg = 49200 watt
For example, if 7th harmonic is present in the flux, then Rotor copper loss (Pcu) = sPg
the rotating field rotates Ns/7 forward. Hence, harmonic
= 0.005 × 49200
torque is also developed in addition with fundamental
torque. Pcu = 246 watt

82. The relationship between rotor frequency f2, 87. A 3-phase slip ring induction motor is wound
slip S and the stator supply frequency f1 is for 4-pole on stator and 6-pole on the rotor.
given by When 3-phase balanced voltage source at 50 Hz
is applied, it will run at
(a) f1 = Sf2 (b) f2 = Sf1
(a) 1500 rpm (b) 1000 rpm
(c) f2 = f1 (1–s) (d) f2 = Sf1 (c) 0 rpm (d) 750 rpm
ESE 2000
Ans. (b) :
Ans. (c) :
83. Semi-enclosed slots or totally enclosed slots are
88. Cogging and crawling are phenomena
used in induction motors essentially to associated with
(a) improve starting torque (a) cage induction machines and they are
(b) increase pull-out torque essentially same
(c) increase efficiency (b) the former during starting and latter at a
(d) reduce magnetizing current and improve fraction of its rated speed
power factor (c) the former at a fraction of its rated speed and
the latter during starting
WBPSC AE 2017
(d) Any of the above
ESE 1994 WBPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : ESE 1995
84. Consider the following statements : Ans. (b) :
In a 3-phase induction motor connected to a 3- 89. A 3-phase, 50 Hz 4-pole induction motor is
phase supply; if one of the lines suddenly gets running at 1440 rpm and rotor input power is
disconnected, then the 2 kW. The rotor copper loss is
(a) 40 W (b) 60 W
(a) motor will come to a standstill
(c) 80 W (d) 100 W
(b) motor will continue to run at same speed with
WBPSC AE 2017
line current unchanged
Ans. (c) :
(c) motor will continue to run at a slightly
90. A 3-phase, 6-pole induction motor is connected
reduced speed with increase in line current to a 60 Hz supply. The voltage induced in the
(d) rotor current will have both of sf and (2–s)f rotor bars is 4 V when the rotor is at standstill.
component frequencies, where s is the slip The voltage and frequency induced in the rotor
and f is the supply frequency bars at 300 rpm will be:
WBPSC AE 2017 (a) 3 V and 45 Hz (b) 3 V and 55 Hz
(c) 4 V and 45 Hz (d) 4 V and 55 Hz
Ans. (c) :
85. If a three phase induction motor, voltage Ans. (a) :
between the slip rings at stand still is 50 V. At
91. When the supply voltage to a squirrel cage
full load the slip is 0.04. The voltage between rotor of a 3-phase induction motor is reduced
slip rings at full load is by 30%, its starting torque reduces by :
(a) 50 V (b) 20 V (a) 36% (b) 46%
(c) 5 V (d) 2 V (c) 30% (d) 51%
WBPSC AE 2017 OMC Deputy manager 2019
Ans. (d) : Ans. (d) : starting torque (Tst) ∝V2
86. In an induction motor if the air gap is T1st V12
i.e, =
increased T2st V22
(a) speed will reduce V2 is 30% reduced by V1
(b) efficiency will improve ∴ V2 = 0.7V1
(c) power factor will be lowered T V12 V12 1
∴ 1st = = =
(d) breakdown torque will reduce T2st (0.7V1 ) 2 0.49V12 0.49
WBPSC AE 2017 T2st = 0.49 T1st
Ans. (c) : Hence T2st is 49% of T1st i.e. T2st is 51% reduced.

92. The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage Ans. (c) : s = 0.1 fs = 60 Hz
induction motor is rotor frequency, fr = sf
(a) 4 (b) 3 = 60 × 0.1
(c) 2 (d) none of the above = 6 Hz.
WBPSC AE 2012
98. A 4 pole 3-phase induction motor which has a
Ans. (d) : rotor current of frequency 3 Hz gets supply
93. A three phase induction motor has negligible from a 6 pole 3-phase alternator running at 600
stator impedance. When the motor has rpm. At what speed does the motor operates?
constant torque load its speed is controlled by (a) 810 rpm (b) 750 rpm
rotor resistance. The slip of the motor (c) 720 rpm (d) 1060 rpm
(a) varies directly with rotor resistance UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
(b) varies inversely with rotor resistance
120f
(c) does not depend on rotor resistance Ans. (a) : Ns = 600 rpm =
(d) varies directly with rotor stand mill reactance P
 120f 
WBPSC AE 2008  Ns = 
Ans. (a) :  P 
94. If a 4-pole induction motor has a synchronous P=6
speed of 1500 r.p.m., the frequency of supply to Frequency of alternator-
the stator is 600 × P 600 × 6
f= =
(a) 12.5 Hz (b) 25 Hz 120 120
(c) 50 Hz (d) 60 Hz f = 30 Hz.
WBPSC AE 2007 Synchronous speed for Induction motor-
Ans. (c) : 120 × 30
=
95. In a P-pole, f-Hz, 3-phase induction motor, 4
synchronous angular velocity in mechanical = 900 rpm
and electrical radians per second is respectively Rotor frequency = 3 Hz
given by sf = 3
4πf 2πf 2πf 4πf 3
(a) , (b) , s = = 0.1
P P P P 30
2πf 4πf Rotor speed of IM-
(c) , 4πf (d) , 2πf
P P Nr = Ns – s Ns
WBPSC AE 2007 = 900 – 0.1 × 900 = 810 rpm
Ans. (d) : 99. Maximum internal torque generated in a
96. The cogging in an induction motor is caused Polyphase induction motor cannot be referred
by- as:
(a) high loads (a) Stalling torque (b) Pullout torque
(b) harmonics developed in the motor (c) Breakdown torque (d) Total torque
(c) low voltage supply UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
(d) none of the above Ans. (d) : Maximum internal torque generated in
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 polyphase induction motor cannot be referred as total
Ans. (b) : The rotor of squirrel cage IM may sometimes torque because of slip as it is not a constant speed
refuse to start at all when connected to 3-phase supply motor.
source is known as cogging. This is due to the 100. For a 3-phase induction motor, rotor input–
production of harmonic synchronous torques at zero rotor cu loss–rotor core loss = ?
rotor speed because of interaction between the stator
(a) Shaft Power
and rotor slot harmonic field.
(b) Stator Cu Loss
97. Slip of a 3phase induction motor is 0.1. If the
(c) Mechanical Power developed
line frequency is 60 Hz, the rotor frequency
(d) Rotational loss
will be _______.
(a) 59.4 Hz (b) 54 Hz UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
(c) 6 Hz (d) 5.4 Hz Ans. (c) : Rotor input – rotor cu loss – rotor core loss
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 = Mechanical power developed.

101. If rotor speed of an induction motor is 480 rpm 106. What will happen if the length of the air gap of
and rotor gross output is 2000 W, the an induction motor is increased?
magnitude of shaft torque developed is: (a) More air gap flux
(a) 31.14 Nm (b) 39.80 Nm
(b) Higher magnetizing current
(c) 38.67 Nm (d) 41.89 Nm
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 (c) Increase in speed
Pgross (d) Higher speed
Ans. (b) : T = Pgross = 2000 W UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
ωr
Ans. (b) : If the length of the air gap of an induction
Pgross × 60  2πN r 
= Nr = 480 rpm ωr =  motor is increased, then higher magnetizing current
2πN r  60 
produced.
2000 × 60
T= = 39.80 N-m 107. A 3 phase, 4 pole 50 Hz induction motor takes a
2π × 480
power input of 30 kW at its full load speed of
102. As compared to wound rotor, cage rotor:
1440 r.p.m. Total stator losses are 1 kW. The
(a) is costlier (b) is more efficient
slip and rotor copper losses as full load will be:
(c) requires more maintenance
(d) has higher power factor (a) 0.04, 600 W (b) 0.02, 600 W
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 (c) 0.04, 1160 W (d) 0.04, 1200 W
Ans. (b) : Cage rotor is more efficient than wound rotor UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
because slip ring motor or wound motor have low Ans. (c) : Nr = 1440rpm, Ns = 1500rpm
power factor as compare to squirrel cage motor and
because of absence of slip ring, brushes losses are N s − N r 1500 − 1440
S= =
minimum in cage rotor. Ns 1500
103. An electric motor in which rotor and stator = 0.04
fields rotate simultaneously is called is __ motor.
(RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I), 02.09.2015) Rotor input power = input power – stator loss
(a) DC (b) Induction = 30 kW – 1 kW
(c) Synchronous (d) Universal = 29 kW
Ans : (c) The speed of the rotor and stator field of
synchronous motor remain the same. That is why it's Rotor copper loss = Pgs = 29 × 103 × 0.04 = 1160 Watt
sleep value is zero.
108. In a 3-phase induction machine at low slip, the
Ns = Nr
S = Ns – Nr = 0 torque slip characteristic is
104. In AC rotating machines the generated or 1
(a) T ∝ (b) T ∝ s 2
speed EMF s2
(RRB SSE (Shift-III), 03.09.2015) 1
(a) leads φ by 90o (c) T ∝ (d) T ∝ s
s
(b) lags φ by 90o
(c) is in phase with working flux MPPSC AE 2016
(d) lags φ by 180o Ans. (d) : Torque is directly proportional to slip
Ans : (b) In A.C. rotating machines the speed emf lags
φ by 90o.
105. Rotating magnetic field is produced in a .........
(RRB SSE (Shift-II), 01.09.2015)
(a) Single-phase induction motor
(b) Three-phase induction motor
(c) D.C. series motor
(d) A.C. series motor
Ans : (b) When a 3-φ winding is energised from a 3-φ
sypply, a rotating magnetic field is produced. This field
is such that its poles do not remain in a fixed position
on the stator but go on shifting there position around the
stator. For this reason, it is called a rotating field.

109. In a 3 phase induction motor running at slip ‘s’ (a) 1500 r.p.m (b) 25 r.p.m.
the mechanical power developed in terms of air (c) 1425 r.p.m (d) 75 r.p.m
gap power Pg is KPTCL AE 2016
(a) (s – 1)Pg (b) (1 – s)Pg
Ans. (d) : Synchronous speed
(c) Pg(1 + s) (d) s × Pg
120f 120 × 50
KPTCL AE 2016 Ns = = = 1500rpm
P 4
Ans. (b) : Power input to rotor in an induction motor is
Speed of rotor = Nr = Ns (1-s) = 1500(1-0.05)
[air gap power (Pg) = E2I2cosθ2]
= 1425 rpm
E2= rotor per phase emf
I2 = rotor per phase current Now, speed of rotor field mmf = Ns = 1500 rpm
r2 = rotor resistance ∴ speed of rotor mmf relative to rotor structure is
s = slip (Ns-Nr) = (1500-1425) = 75 rpm
Also, 112. Squirrel cage bars placed in the rotor pole
r  faces of an alternator help reduce hunting-
Pg = I 22  2  (a) Above synchronous speed only
s
Now, (b) Below synchronous speed only
(c) None of the other three
1 
Pg = I 22 r2 + I22 r2  − 1 (d) Above and below synchronous speeds both
s 
KPTCL AE 2016
= (Rotor ohmic loss) +
(Internal mechanical power developed in rotor) Ans. (d) : The oscillations of the rotor due to sudden
= sPg + (1-s) Pg change in load about its equilibrium position is called
∴ mechanical power developed in rotor in terms of air hunting. Hunting is avoided by-
gap power is [(1–s)Pg] By using a flywheel
110. The power factor of a squirrel cage induction By designing the synchronous machine with
motor is suitable synchronizing power coefficient (or)
(a) low at light load only. stiffness coefficiency.
(b) low at heavy load only. By employment of damper bars in rotor pole face.
(c) low at light and heavy load both. 113. The principle of operation of a 3 phase
(d) low at rated load only. induction motor is most similar to that of a-
KPTCL AE 2016 (a) Synchronous motor
Ans. (a) : The power factor of a squirrel cage induction (b) Repulsion start induction motor
motor is poor at no load and low load conditions. At no (c) Transformer with a shorted secondary
load the power factor can be as low as 15% lagging. (d) Capacitor start, induction run motor
However as load is applied to the motor the power
KPTCL AE 2016
factor increases. At the rated load, the power factor may
be as high as 85 to 90% lagging. Ans. (c) : The principle of operation of a 3 phase
induction motor is most similar to that of a transformer
with a shorted secondary.
114. A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor with star-
connected rotor has an induce e.m.f of 173 V
between slip-rings at standstill with normal
voltage applied to the stator. The resistance per
phase of rotor winding is 0.5 ohm and standstill
leakage reactance per phase is 1 ohm. The
From the graph, it is seen that power factor of a squirrel rotor current/phase when running short-
cage induction motor is low at light load only. circuited with 5 percent slip will approximately
111. A balanced 3 phase, 50 Hz voltage is applied to be:
a 3 phase, 4 pole, induction motor. When the (a) 12 A (b) 10 A
motor is delivering rated output, the slip is (c) 5 A (d) 7 A
found to be 0.05. The speed of the rotor m.m.f.
relative to the rotor structure is
E2 Ans. (c) : At stand still condition–
Ans. (b) : I2 =
2 E2 = 100 V
 r2 
  + x2
2
at full load slip = 2% to 5%
 
s
So,
173/ 3 s = 0.05, 0.04, 0.03, 0.02
I2 = = 10 A
 0.5 

2
 +1
2 ( )
So possible value of emf E '2 = s × E2
 0.05 
E '2 = 100×0.04
115. Rotor slot of the squirrel cage induction motor
are skewed slightly, so as to E '2 = 4V
(a) Increase the mechanical strength of rotor 118. A 3-phase induction motor has a starting
(b) Make the rotor construction simple torque of 200 N-m when switched on-directly to
(c) Eliminate locking tendency of the rotor to supply. If an auto-transformer with 50%
reduce the noise tapping is used for starting, the starting torque
(d) Save the amount of copper required would be
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 (a) 400 N-m (b) 200 N-m
Ans. (c) : Rotor slot of squirrel cage induction motor (c) 100 N-m (d) 50 N-m
skewed slightly so as to eliminate locking tendency of TSTRANSCO AE 2018
the rotor. So the speed of motor will smooth and noise Ans. (d) : Torque = 200 N-m
reduce. x = 0.5
116. In a three-phase induction motor, the We know that–
maximum torque is : TautoT/F = x2 TDOL.
(a) Independent of rotor resistance T = 0.25×200
(b) Proportional to rotor resistance T = 50 N-m
(c) Proportional to square of rotor resistance 119. A 3-phase induction motor runs at 3% slip
(d) Proportional to square root of rotor resistance develops mechanical power equal to 10 kW.
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 The air gap power is
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I  10 
Vizag Steel MT 2013
(a) 9.7 kW (b)   kW
 0.97 
Ans. (a) : In Three phase induction motor torque is (c) 11 kW (d) 10.03 kW
given by TSTRANSCO AE 2018
KsE 22 R 2 Ans. (b) : S = 0.03
T=
( 2) ( 2)
R
2
+ sX
2
Pout = 10 kW
Pg = Pout + s. Pg
Maximum value of slip at maximum torque is-
(1–s)Pg = Pout
R
s= 2 ρ
X2 Pg = out
1− S
Then, Maximum torque-
10
KE 22 Pg = kW
Tmax = 0.97
2X 2 Where, Pg = air gap power
Therefore we can see that the maximum value of slip Pout = mechanical power
depend on rotor resistance but maximum torque 120. A three-phase, 2000-volt Y-connected wound
independent of rotor resistance. rotor induction motor has the following no-load
117. The emf induced per phase in the rotor test data :
winding of a 3-phase induction motor is 100 V 2000 volt, 15.3 amp and 10.1 kW
at stand still. Under full-load condition, this The core loss resistance rc of the approximate
emf would be normally equivalent circuit is nearly
(a) 100 V (b) 50 V (a) 396 Ω (b) 686 Ω
(c) 4 V (d) 0.2 V (c) 329 Ω (d) 666 Ω
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 TSTRANSCO AE 2018
Ans. (a) : V = 2000 V 124. The power input to a three phase induction
P = 10.1 kW motor is 50 kW and the corresponding stator
P = 10100 W losses are 2kW. The rotor is rotating at a slip of
3%. What will be the total rotor copper loss?
V2
P= (a) 48 kW (b) 45.46 kW
r
(c) 46.56 kW (d) 1.44 kW
V2 Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
rc =
P Ans. (d) : Given, Power input to motor = 50 kW
2000 × 2000 Stator losses = 2 kW
rc = = 396.03Ω
10100 Slip of rotor rotating (s) = 0.03
rc = 396 Ω Power input in air gap (Pg) = 50 – 2 = 48 kW
121. In a three phase induction motor, the ratio Rotor copper loss = sPg
power across air gap, rotor copper loss and = (0.03 × 48)
gross mechanical power output is = 1.44 kW
(a) PG : sPG : (1–s)PG 125. Deep bar rotors are used in induction motors to
(b) PG : sPG : (s–1)PG increase
(c) PG : (1–s)PG : sPG (a) Full load torque (b) Full load current
(d) PG : sPG : (1+s)PG (c) Starting current (d) Starting torque
RPSC VPITI 2018 Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
Ans. (a) : In a three phase induction motor, the ratio Ans. (d) : Deep bars rotors are used in induction motors
power across air gap, rotor copper loss and gross to increase the starting torque, deep bar rotor provide
mechanical power output is– more rotor resistance at starting and low rotor resistance
Pa = Air gap power at the running condition.
sPa = rotor copper loss 126. If a 3-phase induction motor is running at
PG(1-s) = gross Mechanical power super synchronous speed for self excitation
So ratio is– then the machine
PG : sPG : (1–s) PG (a) Feeds reactive power to the mains
122. The reactance per phase as compared to the (b) Draws reactive power from the mains
resistance per phase of an induction motor is (c) Feeds real power to the mains
(a) quite high (b) slightly large (d) Draws real power from the mains
(c) almost same (d) very small Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
RPSC VPITI 2018Ans. (b) : If a three phase induction motor running at
Ans. (a) : The Reactance per phase as compared to super synchronous speed, then it has negative slip so it
resistance per phase in induction Motor is high because goes into generating region. So it will draws more
it mainly work on lagging power factor. reactive power from supply.
123. If the rotor resistance of a wound rotor 127. What can be the approximate efficiency of a 3-
induction motor is increased, then the impact phase, 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor, which is
over the speed and starting torque of the motor running at 1470 rpm?
respectively is (a) 92% (b) 95%
(a) Speed and starting torque both decrease (c) 96% (d) 98%
(b) Speed increase and starting torque increase JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
(c) Speed decrease and starting torque increase
N
(d) Speed and starting torque both increases Ans. (d) : Rotor efficiency = r
Ns
RPSC VPITI 2018
Ans. (c) : If rotor resistance of wound induction motor 120 f
Ns =
is increased, speed decrease and starting torque P
increases- 120 × 50
= = 1500
3I 2 R 4
T= 2 2 T ∝ R2 ]
ωS 1470
η= × 100 = 98%
↑ T R 2 ↑ T ↑ ωS ↓ 1500

128. What can be the speed of a 3-phase slip ring 131. The phenomenon of squirrel cage induction
induction motor, if it is wound for 6 poles on motors sometimes showing tendency to run at a
stator and 8 poles on rotor and 3-phase very low speed is known as
balanced voltage source at 50 Hz is applied to (a) Skewing (b) Damping
the motor?
(c) Cogging (d) Crawling
(a) 1200 rpm (b) 850 rpm
(c) 1500 rpm (d) 0 rpm Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
Ans. (d) : To avoid cogging effect in slip ring induction Ans. (d) : Crawling in Induction motors
motor the conditions are- It has been observed in SCIM type motor has a
The number of poles on the rotor should not be tendency to run at very slow speed compared to its
equal to stator poles. synchronous speed, this phenomenon is known as
Rotor poles are always less than the stator poles. crawling. The resultant speed is nearly 1/7th of its
Rotor poles also should not be integral multiples of synchronous speed.
stator slots. This action is due to the fact that harmonics fluxes
For all the above conditions the motor will not start. So produced in the gap of the stator winding of odd
speed = 0 rpm. harmonics like 3rd, 5th, 7th etc. These harmonics create
129. Torque developed by a 3-phase, 400 V additional torque fields in addition to the synchronous
induction motor is 100 N.m. If the applied torque.
voltage is reduced to 200 V, the developed
torque will be 132. The braking method which is commonly used
(a) 50 N-m (b) 25 N-m in controlling elevators, rolling mills, printing
(c) 200 N-m (d) 62.5 N-m presses and machine tools etc. is
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II (a) Dynamic Braking
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (b) Regenerative Braking
Ans. (b) : Given, T1 = 100 N-m, V1 = 400 V (c) Plugging Braking
V2 = 200 V, T2 = ? (d) Rheostatic Braking
Torque of induction is- Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
T ∝V2 Ans. (c) : Plugging i.e. reversal of torque so that
2 armature tends to rotate in the opposite direction.
T1  V1 
So, =  This method is commonly used in controlling elevators
T2  V2 
rolling mills, printing presses and machine tools etc. In
100 400 × 400 this method, connections to the armature terminals are
=
T2 200 × 200 reversed so that motor tends to run in the opposite
direction.
100
T2 = 133. What is the slip (as a percentage) when a 6 pole
4
single phase induction motor operating on 220
T2 = 25 N - m
V and 60 Hz is rotating at speed of 1140 rpm?
130. Why in AC motor control the ratio of voltage (a) 60% (b) 5%
to frequency is maintained at constant value? (c) 10% (d) None of these
(a) To make maximum use of magnetic circuit
KPTCL AE 2015
(b) To make minimum use of magnetic circuit
Ans. (b) : Rotor speed =1140 rpm
(c) To maximize the current drawn from the
supply to provide torque Synchronous speed = 1200 rpm
(d) To minimize the current drawn from the N − Nr
Slip = s × 100
supply to provide torque Ns
Vizag Steel MT 2011
1200 − 1140
Ans. (a) : If V/f ratio is kept constant, then magnetic = ×100
1200
flux (φ) will be constant and generally φ is set near the
saturation point of the magnetic circuit. This keeps 60
= × 100
torque production stable. Hence, V/f ratio is kept 1200
constant to make maximum use of magnetic circuit. = 5%

134. In Schrage motor, the rotor has which of the Ans. (b) : A D.O.L. starter is employed for starting
winding? electric motor of rating up to 5 HP
(a) Primary winding 1 HP = 746 W
(b) Tertiary winding 5 HP = 5×746 W
(c) Primary & tertiary winding = 3730 W
(d) Secondary winding 5HP = 3.73 kW
Vizag Steel MT 2011 139. The major drawback of induction motor is–
(a) Low starting torque
Ans. (c) : Schrage motor has three windings–Two in
(b) Large starting current
rotor and one in stator.
(c) Poor power factor
Rotor has primary & tertiary winding
(d) None of above
Schrage motor is basically an inverted poly phase
GMB AE 2017
induction motor.
Ans. (c) : The major drawback of induction motor is
135. In a double cage and deep bar induction poor power factor. At low load or no load condition
machine which effect/rule controls the rotor because of presence of only magnetizing current in the
resistance & inductance? stator windings, cause low power factor operation of
(a) Hysteresis effect (b) Skin effect induction motor.
(c) Fleming rule (d) None of the options 140. Supply is not given in Traction system in main
Vizag Steel MT 2011 line during–
(a) Acceleration (b) Retardation
Ans. (b) : Skin Effect controls the rotor resistance &
(c) Coasting (d) Free run
inductance in a Double cage and deep induction
GMB AE 2017
machines.
Ans. (c) : Supply is not given in traction system in main
136. Cogging and crawling problem is faced in line during coasting period.
which of the following machines? In this period supply to motor is cut off at the end of
(a) Induction machine free running period and train is allowed to run due to it's
(b) Synchronous machine own inertia.
(c) DC machine (d) All he machine 141. Regenerative braking is possible in Traction
Vizag Steel MT 2011 system–
Ans. (a) : Cogging and crawling problem is faced in (a) Urban (b) Suburban
(c) Main line (d) None of above
Induction machine.
GMB AE 2017
Cogging is the magnetic locking between the stator
slots and rotor slots. Ans. (c) : Regenerative braking is possible in main line
traction system.
The phenomena of motor run at 1/7th speed of the
Regenerative braking is an energy recovery mechanism
full load speed due to harmonic is called crawling. that slow down a moving vehicle or object by
137. Skew of rotor eliminates converting its kinetic energy into a form than can either
(a) Effect of space harmonics used.
(b) Entire effect of crawling 142. Slip rings of a phase-wound induction motor
(c) Magnetic noise are made of
(d) Vibration due to unequal force developed in (a) Wood (b) Cast Iron
rotor (c) Steel (d) Copper
GMB AE 2017
Ans. (d) :Slip rings are made up of conductive metal
Ans. (c) : Skewing– By skewing the armature slots only
like copper or copper alloy.
tooth harmonics or slot harmonics (hum) or magnetic
143. The stator winding of an induction motor can
noise can be eliminated.
be designed for
138. A D.O.L. starter is employed for starting (a) Any number of pole
electric motor of rating up to- (b) Any even number of pole
(a) 1 HP (b) 3.75 kW (c) Any odd number of pole
(c) More than 10 HP (d) Up to 10 HP (d) Only four pole
GMB AE 2017 GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans. (b) : An induction motor is a rotating machine. A Ans. (d) : We know,
body will rotate and produce torque when there are two Nr = (1-s) Ns
equal forces acting exactly in opposite direction.
In order to develop torque for rotation the necessary Ns = 120f
P
forces required are created by the two poles and they
Therefore,
will be acting exactly opposite which will cause the
motor to rotate. 120f
If we choose odd no of poles then the single pole
Nr = (1 − s )
P
existing will not have counter force to rotate thus stator
winding designed has even no. of poles. ksE 22 R 2
T=
144. Speed torque characteristics of induction R 22 + (sX 2 )2
motor in its operating region is nearly same as
Rotor resistance R2 is constant and if slip s is small then
that of
(sX2)2 is so small that it can be neglected. Therefore,
(a) DC shunt motor (b) DC series motor
(c) DC series generator (d) None of the above T ∝ sE 22
GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 Where E2 is rotor induced emf and E 2 ∝ V. Thus-
Ans. (a) :For operating region DC shunt motor
characteristic resemble induction motor. T ∝ sV 2
Torque speed characteristic of Induction motor- Then speed and torque of induction motor can varied by
stator voltage control, rotor voltage control, frequency
control.
147. An induction motor having full-load torque of
0 N-m when delta-connected develops a
starting torque of 120 N-m. For the same
145. Corresponding to certain load connected to a 6- supply voltage, if the motor is changed to star
pole, 50Hz wound rotor induction motor, connection, the starting torque developed will
frequency of currents in rotor circuit is be
observed as 90 cycles per minute. Estimate the (a) 40 N-m
rotor speed in rpm. (b) 60 N-m
(a) 1030 (b) 970 (c) 90 N-m
(c) –1030 (d) –970 (d) 120 N-m
GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015
Ans. (b) :Stator Frequency = 50 Hz = fs APTRANSCO AE 2011
90
fr = = 1.5 Ans. (a) We know that-
60
τst in delta = 3 τst in star
Rotor Frequency = 1.5 Hz = fr
τ
We know that, τst,Y = st, ∆
3
fr 1.5
=S= = 0.03 ( Here S = Slip ) 120
fs 50 =
3
Rotor speed Nr = Ns(1 – S)
τst ,Y = 40 N − m
120f 120 × 50
Ns = = = 1000 rpm
P 6 So, the motor is changed to star connection, the
Nr = 1000(1 – 0.03) = NS(1–S) starting torque developed will be 40 N-m.
= 970 rpm 148. A centre zero ammeter connected in the rotor
146. The speed and torque of induction motors can circuit of a 6 pole 50 Hz induction motor makes
be varied by which of the following means : 30 oscillations in one minute. The rotor speed is
(a) Stator voltage control (a) 970 rpm
(b) Rotor voltage control (b) 990 rpm
(c) Frequency control (c) 1010 rpm
(d) All of these (d) 1030 rpm
RPSC VPITI 2016 Karnataka PSC AE 2016
GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 ESE 1995
Ans. (b) : Given, P = 6, f1 = 50 Ans. (c) : No load power factor of an induction motor
Nr = ? can be given by–
120f1 120 × 50 I
Synchronous speed N s1 = = = 1000r.p.m cosφ0 = w
P 6 I0
For centre zero position frequency required to motor – Where, Iw = Core loss component
30 1 I0 = No load current
f2 = = Hz Since no load current in induction motor is high due to
60 2
high reluctance caused by air gap therefore power factor
New synchronous speed–
I
1 ↓ cos φ = w will be low. And it is about 0.2 or 0.35
120 × I0 ↑
120f 2 2 = 10r.p.m
N s2 = = lagging.
P 6
152. The outer cage of a double squirrel motor has
Rotor speed (Nr) = N s1 − N s2
(a) manganese brass (b) red copper
= 1000 – 10 (c) bronze (d) steel
N r = 990 r.p.m Karnataka PSC AE 2016
Ans. (a) : The outer cage of a double squirrel motor has
149. Stator voltage control for speed control of manganese brass because the outer bars should have
induction motors is suitable for high resistance and low reactance.
(a) Fan and pump drives 153. In case of 3-phase slip ring induction motor as
(b) Drive of a crane the rotor resistance is increased, the starting
(c) Running it as generator torque
(d) Constant load drive (a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) increases upto a certain value of resistance
Ans. (a) : Stator voltage control for speed control of and then remains constant
induction motors is suitable for fan and pump drives. (d) increases upto a certain value of resistance
150. As compared to squirrel cage induction motor, and then decreases
a wound rotor induction motor is preferred Karnataka PSC AE 2016
when the major consideration is Ans. (d) : In case of 3-phase slip ring induction motor
(a) High starting torque as the rotor resistance is increased, the starting torque
(b) Low windage losses increases upto a certain value of resistance and then
decreases.
(c) Slow speed operation
154. The slip test is used-
(a) to measure the slip of the induction motor
(b) to measure the torque of the induction motor
Ans. (a) : As compared to squirrel cage induction motor (c) to measure the Xd and Xq of the alternator
a wound rotor induction motor is preferred when a (d) None of the above
major consideration is high starting torque. A wound Karnataka PSC AE 2016
rotor is also preferred for smooth starting and adjustable Ans. (c) : The slip test is used to measure the Xd and Xq
speed. of the alternator. It is performed by rotating the rotor
151. The power factor of an induction motor with prime mover like DC motor. There is no field
operating at no load will have a value around supply for the alternator.
(a) 0.9 lag 155. Over single cage rotor, the advantage of the
double squirrel-cage induction motor is:
(b) 0.2 lead
(a) power factor is higher
(c) 0.2 lag
(b) starting current is lower
(d) 0.9 lead (c) efficiency is higher
APPSC AEE 2019 (d) slip is large
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 DSSSB AE 2019
ESE 2010 ESE 2001

Ans. (b) : Over single cage rotor, the advantage of the 160. The rotor copper losses of an induction motor
double squirrel-cage induction motor is starting current are directly proportional to.
is lower. (a) Input to the motor (b) Output of the motor
156. A 4-pole, 50Hz, 3-φ induction motor running on (c) Rotor resistance (d) Slip
full load develops a useful torque of 180 Nm at Vizag Steel MT 2017
a rotor frequency of 1.5 Hz. The shaft power Ans. (d) : Rotor copper loss = Pgs
output is _____. Pg = rotor power input
(a) 46 kW (b) 30 kW s = Slip
(c) 23 kW (d) 27 kW Rotor copper loss ∝ s
DSSSB AE 2019
161. The starting torque of a 3-phase delta
1.5 connected squirrel cage motor on DOL starting
Ans. (d) : f r = sf s ,s = = 0.03
50 is 600 N-m. The starting torque in star-delta
120 × 50 starter will be
Ns =
4 (a) 200 N-m (b) 300 N-m
(c) 600 N-m (d) 100 N-m
Ns = 1500rpm
Psh = Tsh (1 − s ) ωs Ans. (a) : The starting torque in star-delta starter
2π × 1500  2πN s  1
Psh= 180 × (1 − 0.03) × ∵ ωs =  = × DOL torque
60  60  3
= 27426.1 Watt 1
= × 600 N-m
Psh ≅ 27 kW 3
157. Skewing is done in _____ part of induction = 200 N-m
motor. 162. The torque produced during the braking is
(a) stator (b) conductor opposite of rotor direction. The method of
(c) pole shoe (d) rotor bar braking is
DSSSB AE 2019 (a) Mechanical braking
Ans. (d) : Skewing is done in rotor bar part of an (b) Hydraulic braking
induction motor, this is done to prevent cogging, this (c) Plugging
happens when the rotor slots and stator slots are same in (d) Regenerative braking
number or they are integer multiple of each other. UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
158. The low power factor of induction motor is due Ans. (c) : The torque produced during the braking is
to. opposite of rotor direction. The method of braking is
(a) Rotor leakage reactance plugging.
(b) Stator reactance 163. In case of speed control of a 3-phase induction
(c) The reactance lagging magnetizing current motor by injecting an emf through rotor
necessary to generate the magnetic flux circuit, the injected emf should have
(d) All of the above (a) supply frequency
Vizag Steel MT 2017 (b) slip frequency
Ans. (d) : Low power factor of induction motor is due (c) half of the supply frequency
to rotor leakage reactance, stator reactance, the (d) independent of frequency
reactance lagging magnetizing current necessary to UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
generate the magnetic flux. Ans. (b) : Speed control of a 3-phase induction motor
159. If s is the slip and f is the supply frequency, the by injecting an emf through rotor circuit, the injected
frequency of rotor current is given by. emf should have slip frequency.
(a) s.f (b) s2f The main advantage of this type of speed control of
(c) s.f/2 (d) f/s three phase induction motor is that a wide range of
Vizag Steel MT 2017 speed control is possible whether it is above normal or
Ans. (a) : Frequency of rotor current (fr) =s.f below normal speed.

164. The power input to the rotor of a 3-phase (a) B-C-A (b) C-A-B
induction motor is 4 kW/phase while motor slip (c) A-C-B (d) B-C-A or C-A-B
is 6%. The total copper loss is BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015
(a) 240 W (b) 480 W
(c) 720 W (d) 1200 W
Ans. (c) : If direction of rotation is clockwise and phase
sequence is A-B-C then phasor will be–
Ans. (c) : The input power to the rotor of a 3-φ
induction motor = 3×4 kW
= 12 kW
Total copper loss = s.Pg
= 0.06 × 12kW
= 720 W
Where, pg = power input
165. At low value of slip (s), the torque (T) of an
Now for anti-clockwise direction rotation the phase
induction motor is
sequence will be A-C-B phase sequence.
1 1
(a) proportional to (b) proportional to 2 169. Insertion of resistance into the rotor circuit of a
s s
3-phase induction motor does not affect
(c) proportional to s (d) proportional to s2
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I (a) the starting torque
(b) the maximum torque
Ans. (c) : At low value of slip (s), the torque (T) of an
(c) the induced voltage in the rotor circuit
induction motor is T ∝ s .
(d) all the above are true
166. Standstill impedance of an induction motor is
(0.08 + j 0.4)Ω. Slip at which it will produce
maximum torque is Ans. (b) : Insertion of resistance into the rotor circuit of
(a) 0.032 (b) 0.2 a 3-phase induction motor does not affect the maximum
(c) 0.32 (d) 0.48 torque.
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I 3 E2
maximum torque, τmax = . 2 N-m
Ans. (b) : at maximum torque slip is- 2πNs 2X 2
R
s= 2 170. For an induction motor operating at a slip s,
X2
the ratio of the gross mechanical power output
0.08 to air-gap power is equal to
= = 0.2
0.4 (a) s (b) 1– s
167. An induction machine works as induction (c) 1– s2 (d) 1− s
generator when its slip is UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II
(a) greater than 1
(b) less than zero (negative)
(c) in between 0.04 and 0.07
(d) does not depend on slip
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I Ans. (b): Air gap power is Pg
Total gross power developed is (Pm) = Pg–Pcu
Ans. (b) : An induction machine works as induction
the rotor copper losses is equal to the SPg.
generator when its slip is less than zero (negative).
∴ Pcu= SPg
168. The direction of rotation of a 3-phase induction
Therefore the gross mechanical power and air gap
motor is clockwise when it is supplied with a 3-
phase sinusoidal voltage having phase sequence power ratio is given by:-
A-B-C. For counter-clockwise rotation of the Pm (1 − S) Pg
= = (1 − S )
motor, the phase sequence of the power supply Pg Pg
should be
171. Four points w, x, y, z are marked on the Ans. (a) : As we know that if a 3- φ supply fed to stator
torque/speed curve of an induction motor of a 3- φ slip ring induction motor a rotating magnetic
shown below. The point at which motor
operates with a slip more than 1, is field will produced and a rotating flux both will be
rotating in the air gap at synchronous speed and the
same flux crosses the air gap and links with rotor and
rotor is get short circuited then e.m.f. will be inductor in
the rotor current will flow.
As we know that rotor frequency is- f r = s f s
Then, there is same operation whenever a three phase
slip ring induction motor is fed from the rotor side with
stator winding short circuited. The frequency of current
flowing in short circuited stator is slip frequency.
(a) w (b) x
(c) y (d) z 174. What does happen if tripled harmonics given to
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I induction motor?
Ans. (a) : The point at motor operates with a slip more (a) Will results in short circuit
than 1 is w. (b) Fail to start
N − Nr (c) Nothing will happen
s= s (d) None of the above
Ns
for x, y, Nr < Ns and positive, so slip (s) = positive,
ESE 2003
less than 1.
for z, Nr > Ns positive, so slip (s) = negative. Ans. (b) Sinusoidal wave form is an ideal form and is
nearly impossible to realize such a wave form in
for w, Nr < Ns and negative, so slip s = positive,
practice. All the alternating wave forms deviate to a
greater than 1.
lesser or higher degree from this ideal sinusoidal shape.
172. Crawling in an induction motor is due to When a sinusoidal input is applied to electronic circuit
(a) time harmonics the output is distorted wave form. This distorted wave is
(b) slip ring rotor because of nonlinear characteristics of electronic circuit.
(c) space harmonics produced by winding Those distorted wave is called harmonics. The
currents component having triple times of the fundamental are
(d) insufficient starting torque know as third harmonics. Generally all third harmonics
RPSC VPITI 2016 are equal in all phases. These harmonics is applied to
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I induction motor, it will harmonics are equal in all
ESE 1999 phase. These harmonics is applied to induction motor it
Ans. (c) : Crawling in an induction motor is due to will fail to start because rotating magnetic field never
space harmonics produced by winding currents. develops hence it results in fail to start.
Sometimes squirrel cage induction motors exhibits a 175. The nature of operating power factor of a 3-
tendency to run at very slow speed (as low as one- phase a.c. induction motor is –
seventh of their synchronous speed.). This phenomenon (a) always lagging
is called as crawling of an induction motor. (b) always leading
173. A three-phase slip ring induction motor is fed (c) may be lagging or leading
from the rotor side with stator winding short (d) always unity
circuited. The frequency of currents flowing in UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
short circuited stator is– UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
(a) Slip frequency (b) Supply frequency
Ans. (a) : The nature of operating power factor of a
(c) Frequency corresponding to rotor speed 3-phase a.c. induction motor is always lagging because
(d) Zero no-load power factors of induction motors are in the
ESE 2016 neighborhood of 0.15 or so. The effect of low value of
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013 no-load power factor is to decrease the full-load
PTCUL AE 2012 operating power factor of the induction motor. A better
WBPSC AE 2012 no-load and full-load power factor, air gaps in induction
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I motor are kept as small as are mechanical possible.
176. A 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor is
3 V 2 r2' / s
rotating at 1410 rpm at full load. The value of Ans. (b) : Torque = = 2
ωs  r2' 
induced rotor current frequency will be–  1
r +  + X
2
(a) 50 Hz (b) 47 Hz  s 
(c) 3 Hz (d) 0 Hz S = Slip
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II ωs = synchronous speed in rps
Ans. (c) : Given, P = 4 f = 50 Hz r1 + r21 = resistance
120f
Ns = V12
P T∝ s
120 × 50 r21
Ns = = 1500rpm
4 179. A four pole three phase induction motor is
N r = 1410 running at 4 percent slip at full load. If the
NS − N r 1500 − 1410 speed of motor be 720 rpm, the supply
Slip ( S) = =
Ns 1500 frequency is –
2
S = 0.06 (a) 16 Hz (b) 25 Hz
3
f r = Sfs = 0.06 × 50 (c) 30 Hz (d) 50 Hz
f r = 3Hz UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
Ans. (b) : Nr = 720 rpm = rotor speed
f r = Motor frequency
S = 0.04 slip
fs = supply frequency
Ns − N r
177. The torque developed in a 3-phase induction S=
Ns
motor will be maximum when its rotor circuit
power factor becomes– SN s = N s − N r
(a) 0.707 leading (b) unity N r = N s − SN s
(c) 0.8 lagging (d) 0.707 lagging
= N s (1 − S)
WBPSC AE 2017
720
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II Ns =
(1 − 0.04)
Ans. (d) : The torque develop in 3-phase induction
motor will be maximum when its rotor circuit power Ns = 750rpm
factor becomes 0.707 lagging.
120f
tan α = 1 Ns =
P
α = tan–1(1) 750 × 4
Supply freq. f = = 25Hz
θ = 450 120
Power factor = cos θ 180. The starting current of a 3∅ induction motor is
= cos 450 five times the rated current, while the rated slip
is 4%. The ratio of starting torque to full load
= 0.707 lagging
torque is:
178. At low values of slip ‘s’, the torque of a three
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.8
phase a.c. induction motor is proportional to
(c) 1.0 (d) None of these
( V1 is stator voltage, r21 is rotor resistance
ESE 2018
referred to primary side)
DMRC AM 2016
V12 V12 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
(a) 1 .(1 − s) (b) 1 .s
r2 r2 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
2 1
(c) V1 .r2 (1 − s) 2 1
(d) V1 .r2 .s ESE 2009
ESE 2001
T starting I 
2 Ans. (c) : Slip power recovery control is used for
Ans. (c) : =  st  × s fl control the speed of 3-φ induction motor and it is a
T full load  Ifl 
static method and it is wasted the I2R losses. during the
Where, Ist = starting current low speed operation.
Ifl = rated current
184. In an induction motor, if the air gap is
Sfl = rated slip
increased
Tst = Starting torque
(a) speed will reduce
Tfl = Full load torque
∵ Ist = 5Ifl, Sfl = 0.04 (b) efficiency will improve
(c) power factor will be lower
Tst  5Ifl  (d) breakdown torque will reduce
=  × 0.04 RPSC VPITI 2016
Tfl  Ifl 
= ( 5 ) × 0.04
2
T starting ESE 2004
= 25 × 0.04 = 1.0
T full load Ans. (c) : In an induction motor if the air gap increases
then power factor of motor get decreases because the
181. A three phase induction motor runs above the
motor draws more magnetizing current which lags the
synchronous speed. For self excitation, the
machine – voltage by more angle. If the angle between voltage and
(a) draws real power from the supply current is more then the power factor will be less
(b) draws reactive power from the supply absolutely it is decrease.
(c) feeds reactive power to the supply R R
cos φ = =
(d) feeds real and reactive powers to the supply Z R + X 2L
2

There are L to be increase
Ans. (b) : A 3-φ if induction motor, to self excite as a
generator you need to connect a sufficient capacitor ∵ XL=ωL
across one or more of the winding then drive the motor So, power factor is decreased.
at or above synchronous speed and it will self excite and
ready to delivery power to loads. 185. If an induction machine is run at above
synchronous speed, it acts as :
182. For a high starting torque, the most suited
three phase induction motor is – (a) a synchronous motor
(a) slip ring type (b) an induction generator
(b) squirrel cage rotor type (c) an induction motor
(c) deep bar squirrel cage rotor type (d) none of the above
(d) double cage rotor type RPSC VPITI 2016
Ans. (a) : For a high starting torque, the most suited
Ans. (b) : If an induction motor run at above
three phase induction motor is slip ring type induction
synchronous speed, it acts as an induction generator. If
motor.
the rotor is rotating below synchronous speed induction
183. Assertion : Slip power recovery control is used
machine is a motor.
for speed control of three phase slip ring induction
motor. N − Nr
s= s
Reason : It provides wide speed control down to Ns
low speed.
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct. Reason If N r > Ns then Slip = ( − ve )
explains Assertion.
186. For a 4 pole, 50 Hz I.M. running at a speed of
(b) Assertion and Reason are correct. Reason
1440 rpm, the slip is :
does not explain Assertion.
(a) 4% (b) 3%
(c) Assertion is true. Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false. Reason is true. (c) 2% (d) 1%
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
Ans. (a) : Given– 189. The torque characteristics of a three phase
P = 4, f = 50 Hz, Nr = 1440 rpm induction motor is similar to that of ............
120f 120 × 50 (a) d.c. differentially compounded motor
NS = = = 1500 rpm (b) d.c. shunt motor
p 4
(c) d.c. series motor
Ns − N r 1500 − 1440
% slip ( s ) = × 100 = × 100 (d) d.c. cumulatively compounded motor
Ns 1500 CIL MT 2020
60 Ans. (b) : The torque characteristics of three phase
= × 100 = 4%
1500 induction motor-
187. In induction motors, low power factor is due to
:
(a) Low load (b) High load
(c) Overload (d) None of the above
Ans. (a) : In induction motors low power factor is due
to low load. At low load or no load condition because of
The torque characteristics of a three phase induction
presence of only magnetizing current in the stator
motor is similar to that of DC shunt motor.
winding, causes low power factor operation of the
DC shunt motor is used in constant speed motor
power system, since magnetizing current is highly
applications like the following.
inductive in nature.
Lathe machines
188. A 4 pole induction motor, supplied by a slightly
Centrifugal pumps
unbalanced three phase 50 Hz source is
Fans
rotating at 1440 rpm. What is the electrical
frequency in Hz of the induced negative 190. A 400 V, 50 Hz, 4-pole, three phase induction
motor cannot run at 1500 rpm because :
sequence current in the rotor ?
(a) At 1500 rpm there will be no emf induced in
(a) 100 (b) 98
the rotor circuit and hence no torque will be
(c) 52 (d) 48
developed
LMRC AE 2015
(b) At 1500 rpm, the rotor will draw excessive
Ans. (b) Given data, current and may be harmful to the motor
f = 50 Hz N = 1440 rpm (c) An induction motor can run only at a speed
P=4 higher than its synchronous speed
PNS (d) At 1500 rpm, torque developed by the rotor
f= may not sufficient to rotate the rotor.
120
CIL MT 2020
120f
NS = Ans. (a) : At 1500 rpm there will be no emf induced in
P
the rotor circuit and hence no torque will be developed
120 × 50
= in three phase induction motor. Induction motor is also
4 called as Asynchronous motor because it runs at a speed
Synchronous speed (Ns) = 1500 rpm, less than synchronous speed. Torque developed by
N − Nr induction motor is proportional to slip at synchronous
slip(s) = s speed, slip is zero and hence torque developed by the
Ns
motor is zero.
1500 − 1440
= = 0.04 191. The power input in blocked rotor test
1500
performed on a three phase induction motor is
Now, electrical frequency of induced negative sequence approximately equal to :
current in rotor obtained as
(a) Eddy current loss in the core
f0 = ( 2 − s ) f (b) Iron loss in the core
= ( 2 − 0.04 ) × 50 (c) Hysteresis loss in the core
(d) I2R loss in the winding
f 0 = 98 Hz
CIL MT 2020
Ans. (d) : The blocked rotor test of an induction motor Ans. (b) : In a single phase induction motor driving a
is same as the short-circuit test of a transformer. fan load, the reason for having a high resistance rotor is
to achieve quick acceleration.
194. A starting torque of 80 Nm is developed in an
induction motor by an auto transformer starter
with a tapping of 30 percent. If the tapping of
auto transformer is 60 percent, then what is the
starting torque?
(a) 40 Nm (b) 160 Nm
In blocked rotor test the applied voltage on the stator (c) 240 Nm (d) 320 Nm
terminal should be low otherwise normal voltage could (e) 430 Nm
damage the winding of the stator. In this test speed CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
remains zero and full load current passes through stator ESE 1994
winding, by which full load copper loss (i2R) can be ESE 2005
calculated.
Ans. (d) : Tst ∝ X 2 for auto transformer {X =
192. The approximate efficiency of a three phase, 50
%Tapping}
Hz, 4 pole induction motor running at 1350
2
rpm is : T1  X1 
= 
(a) 94 percent (b) 90 percent T2  X 2 
(c) 40 percent (d) 65 percent
80 30 2
CIL MT 2020 =
T2 602
120f
Ans. (b) : NS = T2 = 320 Nm
P
120 × 50 195. An electric motor with constant output power
=
4 will have a torque speed characteristics in the
NS = 1500rpm form of
Rotor output power (a) Straight line through the origin
Rotor efficiency = (b) Straight line parallel to the speed axis
Rotor input power
(c) Circle about the origin
Rotor input power
= (1 − s ) × (d) Rectangular ellipse
Rotor input power
(e) Rectangular hyperbola
Rotor efficiency = 1 – s CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
= 1− s
( N − N r) Ans. (e) : Rectangular Hyperbola
Ns
Nr
=
Ns
1350
Rotor efficiency (η) = × 100 = 90%
1500
193. In a single phase induction motor driving a fan
load, the reason for having a high resistance
rotor is to achieve:
(a) Low starting torque
(b) Quick acceleration
(c) High efficiency
(d) Reduce size So, An electric motor with constant output power will
(e) low load torque have a torque speed characteristics in the form of a
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II rectangular hyperbola.

196. The power factor of induction motor at no load Ans. (a) : The voltage actually used for useful flux in
have the value approximately: the air gap of 3-φ induction motor is equals to applied
(a) 0.9 lag (b) 0.2 lead voltage.
(c) 0.2 lag (d) 0.9 lead
200. In an induction motor, air gap power is 10 kW
(e) 0.99 lag
and mechanically developed power is 8 kW.
What would be the ohmic losses?
Ans. (c) : Power factor of induction motor at no load
have the value approximately 0.2 lag. Power factor of (a) 1 kW (b) 2 kW
induction motor varies with load. At full load pf will be (c) 3 kW (d) 0.5 kW
nearly (0.8 to 0.9) lagging. (e) 1.5 kW
197. A squirrel cage induction motor having a rated CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
slip of 2 percent on full load has starting torque ESE 2007
of 50 percent of full load. What would be the
Ans. (b) : Air gap input power = 10 kW
starting current?
(a) Two times the full load current Pm = 8 kW
(b) Four times the full load current Ohmic loss (Pcu) = Rotor input power – Power develop
(c) Five times the full load current (Pm)
(d) Three times the full load current = 10 kW – 8kW
(e) Equal to full load current Pcu = 2 kW
ESE 2010 201. The starting current and torque of a 3-phase
Ans. (c) : Slip = 0.02 induction motor on direct- online starting is
2 30A and 300 Nm respectively. What are the
Tst  Ist  corresponding values with star-delta starter?
=   Sfl
Tfl  Ifl  (a) 10A, 100 Nm (b) 30A, 300 Nm
Tst = 50% Tf l (c) 17.32A, 173.2 Nm (d) 30A, 173.3 Nm
2 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
1 I 
= 0.02  st  CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
2  Ifl  ESE 2009
Ist = 5Ifl Ans. (a) : If starting winding are connected in delta
198. The main reason for crawling in induction therefore,
motor is: Line current, I LD = 3I PD , phase current
(a) High load
(b) Low load Voltage across each phase = VL = VP
(c) Low voltage supply if impedance per phase = Z
(d) Improper lamination V
(e) Harmonics then, I PD = L
Z
Ans. (e) : Main reason for crawling in induction motor or I = 3I = 3VL (i)
LD PD
is Harmonics. There are air gap flux in 3–φ induction Z
motor contains harmonics of order (6x ±1) this create If starting winding are connected in star,
parasitic torque, motor rotate very less speed.
∴Line current (ILS) = Phase current (IPS)
199. The voltage actually used for useful flux in the
air gap of 3 phase induction motor is: V
Phase Voltage (VP) = L
(a) Equals to applied voltage 3
(b) Greater the applied voltage Here,
(c) Less than applied voltage
VL = line to line voltage
(d) Equals to induced e.m.f.
Now, winding current per phase
(e) Can't say
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II V
I PS = L (ii)
ESE 2006 3Z
on comparing (i) & (ii) 204. Skew is used in induction motors in order to
I LD reduce torque due to :-
I LS = (a) Time harmonics
3
(b) Slot harmonics
∵ starting current in direct online starting = 30A (c) Space harmonics
1 (d) Reverse rotating fields
∴ starting current in star delta = × 30 = 10A
3 CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
1 UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
∴Torque in star = × torque in delta UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
3
Ans. (b) : When the number of stator slots is equal to
1 the number of rotor slots or its integral multiple, then
= × 300
3 the alignment losses between the stator teeth and rotor
= 100 N-m teeth at start may become so strong as to prevent
movement of the rotor. This phenomenon is know as
202. Unbalanced supply voltage given to a 3-phase, cogging.
delta connected induction motor leads to:
Cogging is mainly prevented by skewing of the rotor,
(a) Less heating of rotor result in reduction in vibration and noise as the effective
(b) Zero sequence current air gap becomes more uniform.
(c) Negative sequence component of current 205. Double squirrel cage induction motor is widely
(d) Positive sequence component used over single cage squirrel induction motor
(e) Positive and negative sequence component because of:
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II (a) Higher efficiency
Ans. (c) : For an unbalanced supply voltage to a 3 – φ , (b) Higher power factor
∆-connected induction motor leads to negative sequence (c) Lower power factor
Component of current. (d) Lower slip
Unbalance Fault → Negative sequence dominate (e) Lower starting current
Ground Fault → Zero sequence dominate. CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
203. What would be the number of poles if an Ans. (e) : In double squirrel cage induction motor has
induction motor runs under stable condition two cage, one outer cage with high resistance and low
with a constant torque load at 1250 rpm of a 50 cross section area and other inner cage with low
Hz Supply? resistance and high cross section are. Both are solidly
(a) 6 (b) 4 closed through end ring. During starting the frequency
of the rotor produces skin effect and the starting current
(c) 8 (d) 2
will flow only in outer cage which offers high resistance
(e) 5
and produce high starting torque. While decrease
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II starting current.
Ans. (b) : In case of induction motor, rotor speed is less 206. In the equivalent circuit of double-cage
than stator speed. induction motor, the two rotor cages can be
Number of pole in induction motor can determine by considered
synchronous speed, at which motor will be revolving. (a) in parallel
Under this condition number of pole will be same as (b) in series-parallel
pole of induction motor. (c) in series
Given Nr = 1250 rpm (d) in parallel with stator
Synchronous Speed for 2 pole CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
120 × 50
Ns = = 3000rpm JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI
2 Ans. (a) : In equivalent circuit of double cage induction
Synchronous Speed for 4 pole motor, the two rotor cages are expressed in parallel.
120 × 50
Ns = = 1500rpm
4
Synchronous Speed for 6 pole
120 × 50
Ns = = 1000rpm
6
Hence, number of pole = 4.

207. In a 3-phase induction machine the slip rings of Ans. (d) : The equation of torque is –
the machine are open-circuited. The frequency
KsV02 R 2
of the voltage across the slip rings is 75 Hz. The T=
R 22 + ( sX 2 )
2
rotor is driven at a speed of :-
(a) 750 rpm (b) 1500 rpm
(c) 2250 rpm (d) 3750 rpm so, T ∝ sV0 2
211. In a three phase induction motor, the ratio of
120f starting current to full load current is 12.56
Ans. (a) : N s =
P and the ratio of starting torque to full load
{ f = 50 Hz 3-phase induction machine} torque is 1.6. Percentage slip at full load is :-
120 × 50 (a) 0.01% (b) 12.64%
= = 1500
4 (c) 1% (d) None of these
P UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
f2 = × ∆N
120 I Tst
4 Ans. (c) : Given st = 12.56 = 1.6
75 = × ∆N Ifl Tfl
120
as we know that,
∆N = 2250 rpm
2
∆N = Ns + Nr Tst  Ist 
= s 
2250 = 1500 + Nr (as s > 1) Tfl  Ifl 
Nr = 750 rpm
1.6 = s(12.56)2
208. Maximum torque in 3-phase induction motor
varies as :- s = 1%
(a) f (b) 1/f Where
(c) 1/f2 (d) 1/f3 Tst = Starting torque
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I Tfl = Full load torque
Ans. (c) : Torque (max) is given by- Ist = Starting current
3 V 2 Ifl = Full load current
Tmax = (neglecting stator impedance.)
2 ωs X 2'
212. At low values of slip ‘s’, the torque of a 3-phase
2 induction motor is :-
V
Tmax ∝   (a) T (b) T α s
f  (c) Ts –1
(d) Ts2
Thus, maximum torque in 3-phase induction motor
varies as 1/f2.
Ans. (b) : Torque equation–
209. If stator impedance is neglected, the maximum
torque in an induction motor occurs at a rotor KsR 2 E 22
T=
resistance of :-
( R 2 )2 + ( sX 2 )2
(a) (1 + s) X2 (b) (1 – s) X2
(c) s X2 (d) X2 At low values of slip ‘s’, the torque of a 3-phase
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I induction motor is T α s.
Ans. (c) : Maximum torque occurs when– 213. In a 3-phase induction motor, the ratio of air-
R gap power, rotor copper losses and developed
s= 2 mechanical power is respectively :-
X2
(a) (1 – s) : s : 1 (b) 1 : (1 – s ) : s
∴ R2 = s X 2 (c) s : (1 – s) : 1 (d) 1 : s : (1 – s)
where R2 = Rotor resistance UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
X2 = Rotor reactance
Ans. (d) : we know that,
210. In a 3-phase induction motor working at full Pg : Pcu : Pm = 1 : s : (1 – s)
load, the torque ‘T’ is related with slip ‘s’ and
supply voltage V0 as follows :- where,
(a) T ∝ V0 / s (b) T ∝ s V0
2 2 Pg = air gap power
(c) T ∝ sV0 (d) T ∝ sV0 2 Pcu = rotor copper losses
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I Pm = developed mechanical power

214. A 3-phase delta connected squirrel cage 218. In an induction motor, if the rotor is locked,
induction motor when started with DOL then the rotor frequency of induction motor
starter has a starting torque of 600 Nm. Its will be :
starting torque when star-delta is used will be :- (a) Equal to the supply frequency
(a) 600 Nm (b) 200 Nm (b) Less than the supply frequency
(c) 300 Nm (d) 400 Nm
(c) More than the supply frequency
(d) Zero
Ans. (b) : Starting torque when star-delta is used.
PTCUL AE 2016
1
Tst = ( DOL ) Ans. (a) : If rotor locked slip s = 1
3
rotor frequency fr = sf
1
= ( 600 ) Nm
3 f r = f = Supply frequency
= 200 Nm 219. A 4 pole, 3 phase, 50 Hz star connected
215. The frequency of rotor current of 50 Hz., 3- induction motor has a full load slip of 4%.
phase induction motor is about– Calculate full load speed of motor.
(a) 50 Hz (b) 2 Hz (a) 1500 rpm (b) 1440 rpm
(c) 25 Hz (d) 0 Hz
(c) 1425 rpm (d) None of these
PTCUL AE 2012
PTCUL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : Frequency of rotor current fr = sf
Ans. (b) : Given,
at starting s = 1
Full load slip (s) = 4% = 0.04
fr = f = 50Hz
In running condition rotor current frequency is 2 – 6 Hz. Pole (P) = 4
216. An induction motor crawls at lower speed. This Synchronous speed (Ns) = 120f = 120 × 50
is due to– P 4
(a) Skewing Ns = 1500 rpm
(b) Harmonic induction torque Full load speed (Nr) = (1 – s)Ns
(c) High secondary reactance = (1 – 0.04)1500
(d) Low secondary reactance = 0.96 × 1500
PTCUL AE 2012
N r = 1440 rpm
Ans. (b) : Induction motor has the tendency to run at
very low speed (upto 1/7th of synchronous speed). This 220. What is the advantage of double squirrel cage
phenomenon is known as crawling. This action happens rotor as compared to round bar cage rotor :
due to the fact that harmonics fluxes produced in the (a) The efficiency of motor is higher
gap of the stator winding of odd harmonics like 3rd, 5th, (b) The power factor of motor is higher
7th etc. These harmonics create additional torque in
(c) The slip of motor is larger
addition to the synchronous torque.
(d) The starting current of motor is lower
217. The power drawn by 3 phase induction motor.
PTCUL AE 2016
When first run in star connection and then in
delta connection, will be : Ans. (d) : A double cage rotor has low starting current
and high starting torque as compared to round bar cage
(a) 3 times power taken in star connection
motor therefore double cage more suitable for direct on
1
(b) times power taken in star connection line starting.
3
221. The operation of the cascade connection of slip-
(c) 3 times power taken in delta connection
ring induction motor is regarded as :
(d) None of these
(a) Speed control by emf injection in rotor circuit
PTCUL AE 2016
(b) Speed control by current injection
Ans. (c) : When three phase induction motor first run in
star connection then in delta connection as in star delta (c) Speed control by rotor resistance
starting method, it takes 3 times power in delta (d) Speed control by gear mechanism
connection as compared to star connection. MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I

Ans. (a) : The operation of the cascade connection of 223. In Star-Delta starting of a squirrel cage large
slip-ring induction motor is regard as speed control by induction motor, compared with DOL, needs to
emf injection in rotor circuit. In this method e.m.f inject be expanded, starting current and torque are
in rotor circuit by external slip ring. If inject e.m.f is
reduced by factors of :
support back e.m.f of rotor then current increased in
rotor circuit by which torque increased as well as speed 1 1 1 1
(a) , (b) ,
increase because T ∝ I 2 E 2 cos φ2 3 3 3 3
1 1 1 1
(c) , (d) ,
3 3 3 3
I
Ans. (b) : Line current with star-delta starting =
3
Line current with DOL starting = 3I
The ratio of line current with star-delta starting and line
I/ 3 1 1
current with DOL is = = =
222. The starting torque of a three phase induction 3I ( 3) 2 3
motor can be increased by– 2
(a) Increasing rotor reactance V 
starting torque with star-delta starter =  L 
(b) Increasing rotor resistance  3
(c) Increasing stator resistance
starting torque with DOL starter = ( VL )
2
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I (VL / 3) 2 1
Ans. (b) : Starting torque of a 3-phase induction so, the torque ratio is = =
(VL )2 3
motor :- The torque develop at instant of starting of
motor is called starting torque. Hence with star-Delta starting, the starting torque is also
Ts = K1E 2 I 2 cos φ2 reduced to one third of starting torque obtained with
Let, direct switching.
R2 = rotor resistance per phase. 224. A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full
X2 = stand still rotor reactance. load speed of 1440 rpm. The number of pole of
I2 = rotor current
the motor are :
E2 = rotor emf at stand still
(a) 4 (b) 6
cos φ2 = power factor
(c) 12 (d) 8
∴ rotor impedance ( Z 2 ) = R 22 + X 22 MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
E2 E2 Ans. (a) : At 50 Hz frequency No. of poles for
I2 = =
Z2 R +X2
2
2
2
different speed-
R2 R2 Synchronous Speed No. of Poles
cos φ2 = =
Z2 R 22 + X 22 (Ns)
P=
120f
then, Ns
E2 R2  3  at 3000 rpm 120 × 50

Ts = K1.E 2 . . ∵ K1 =  P= =2
R +X
2
2
2
2 R +X 2
2
2
2  2 πNs  3000
2 at 1500 rpm 120 × 50
Ts =
3
.
E .R 2 2 P= =4
2πNs ( R 22 + X 22 ) 1500
at 1000 rpm 120 × 50
Therefore, P= =6
1000
Ts ∝ R 2
Thus by increasing the rotor resistance, starting torque From above table speed range from (1001 to 1499)
can be increased. rpm No. of poles will be 4.

225. Implementation of Volts/Hertz strategy for 228. In a three-phase induction motor:
inverter-fed induction motor in open loop is (a) The developed torque is approximately
used in : directly proportional to slip in normal running
(a) Low performance applications range and inversely proportional to it in the
(b) High performance applications low speed range
(c) Both (a) and (b) (b) The developed torque is approximately
directly proportional to slip in normal running
(d) None of these
range as well as in the low speed range
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I (c) The developed torque is approximately
Ans. (a) : Implementation of volts/Hertz strategy for inversely proportional to slip in normal
inverter-fed induction motor in open loop is used in low running range as well as in the low speed
V range
performance application. Because the constant ratio
f (d) The developed torque is approximately
in the rotor develops constant maximum torque except inversely proportional to slip in normal
low speed. Therefore motor could be able to operate at running range and directly proportional to it
constant torque mode. in the low speed range
226. In V/f control of induction motors, the ratio of
V/f is boosted during : Ans. (a) By the torque slip characteristics the developed
torque is approximately directly proportional to slip in
(a) below rated frequency
normal running range and inversely proportional to it in
(b) at half rated voltage
the low speed range.
(c) below 5 Hertz
(d) above rated frequency
Ans. (c) : In V/f control of induction motors, the ratio
of V/f is boosted during below 5 Hz because apart from
the normal iron and copper losses in stator. The rotor
copper loss is the most significant and it is proportional
to the slip frequency. If frequency is increased then
losses will also increases. Therefore V/f ratio is boosted
Torque slip characteristics of
below 5 Hz.
induction motor
227. The speed of a 50 Hz, three-phase induction
229. The torque developed by a three–phase, 400V
motor under full-load condition is 720 rpm.
induction motor is 200 N-m. If the supply
The number of poles of the motor is:
voltage is 200 V, the developed torque then is:
(a) 4 (b) 6 (a) 200 N-m (b) 100 N-m
(c) 8 (d) 12 (c) 50 N-m (d) 400 N-m
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
Ans. (c) Given, Speed (N) = 720 r.p.m, f = 50 Hz Ans. (c) Given, T = 200 N-m, V = 400 V
d1 1
 120f  V2 = 200 V
speed (Ns ) No.of Pole  P = 
 Ns  In a 3-φ induction motor developed Toque is given by–
120 × 50 Td ∝ V 2
at1500 rpm P = = 4 Pole
1500
Td1 V12
at1000 rpm P = 120 × 50 = 6 Pole =
1000 Td2 V22
120 × 50 200  400 
2
at 750 rpm P= = 8 Pole =
750 
Td2  200 
120 × 50
at 600 rpm P= = 10 Pole 1
600 Td 2 = 200 ×
4
So, rotor speed range from (601 to 749) rpm no. of
Td 2 = 50N − m
poles will be 8 pole.

230. If the rotor circuit resistance of a three-phase Ans. (a) : The synchronous speed of an induction motor
WRIM induction motor is increased: is controlled by varying supply frequency.
(a) Both the starting torque and the maximum 233. Which of these statement about 'variable
torque developed increase frequency control for speed control of
(b) Both the starting torque and the maximum induction motors' are CORRECT?
torque developed remain unchanged 1. It may be used for squirrel cage motors &
(c) The starting torque increases but the wound rotor motors.
maximum torque developed decreases 2. It may be used for squirrel cage motors only
(d) The starting torque increases and the
3. It may be used for wound rotor motors only.
maximum torque developed remains
4. It may be used for sub synchronous & super
unchanged.
synchronous speeds
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 4, 2 & 3
Ans. (d)
(c) 2 & 3 (d) 1 & 4
k E 22 R 2 AAI Junior Executive 2016
Tst =
( R 2 ) + (X2 )
2 2
Ans. (d) : For variable frequency control
– It may be used for squirrel cage motors & wound
the starting torque is proportional to the rotor resistance
so starting torque will increase with rotor resistance rotor motors.
– It may be used for sub synchronous & super
• Maximum torque–
synchronous speeds
kE 22 234. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor
Tmax =
2X 2 slots are usually given slight skew in order to
the maximum toque is independent of rotor resistance reduce
and is inversely proportional to rotor reactance. So, if (a) windage losses
we increase the rotor resistance the maximum torque (b) eddy currents
will be unchanged. (c) accumulation of dirt and dust
231. If f is the frequency in Hz, ns the synchronous (d) magnetic hum
speed rps, and p is the number of pairs of Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
poles, the relation between f, ns and p for a Ans. (d) : Rotor slots are usually given slight skew in
three phase machine is order to reduce rotor locking tendency. In SCIM, slots
(a) f = ns p (b) f = ns p/120 are laminated and rotor core is not made to parallel to
(c) f = ns/p (d) ns = 2f/p rotor shaft.
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 235. In a three-phase induction motor, the number
Ans. (a) If ns = Synchronous speed in r.p.s of poles in the rotor winding are always
f = frequency in Hz (a) zero
p = no. of pairs of pole (b) more than the number of poles in stator
Total no. of poles (P) = 2p (c) less than number of poles in stator
Synchronous speed in r.p.m can be given by– (d) equal to number of poles in stator
120f Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
Ns =
P Ans. (d) : For proper running of 3–φ induction motor,
Ns 120f  Ns  number of pole in the rotor winding are always equal
ns = = ∵ n s = r.p.s 
60 60 × 2p  60  to number of pole in stator. Pole also determine the
synchronous speed.
f
ns = 120f
p Ns =
P
f = nsp
236. When a stationary 3-phase induction motor is
232. The synchronous speed of an induction motor switched on with one phase disconnected
is controlled by................ (a) it is likely to burn out quickly unless
(a) varying supply frequency. disconnected immediately
(b) maintaining fixed poles (b) it will start but very slowly
(c) varying rotor circuit resistance (c) it will make jerky start with loud noise
(d) maintaining fixed supply frequency (d) None of the above
AAI Junior Executive 2016 BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
Ans. (a) : If the motor is already in the running Ans. (d) : Given no-load test on 3-φ Induction motor,
condition and one phase is disconnected, depending on the graph between the input power and voltage drop is
the loading conditions it will continue running or stop shown in figure, the intersection point yield the friction
running. If the motor is lightly loaded the motor will and windage loss.
continue to operate. This condition is called single
phasing and may damage the motor.
237. If the stator voltage of a squirrel-cage
induction motor is reduced to 50% of its rated
value, the torque developed is reduced by
(a) 50% of its full-load value
(b) 25% of its full-load value
(c) 75% of its full-load value
(d) 57.7% of its full-load value
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI 240. In the circle diagram for a 3-phase induction
Ans. (c) : Toque developed in induction motor is, motor, the diameter of the circle is determined
∴ Te ∝ V 2 by–
% Decrease in torque (a) Total stator current
(b) Exciting current
 Te − Te2 
= 1  × 100 (eT ∝ V 2
) (c) Rotor current
 Te1  (d) Rotor current referred to stator
 1 − 0.25 
=  ×100 ( V2 = 0.5V1 ) UPPCL AE 2015
 1  ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
= 75% Ans. (d) : The circle diagram of induction motor
So, if the stator voltage is reduced by 50% of its rated provides information which is not provided by an
value, the torque developed is reduced by 75%. ordinary phasor diagram. A phasor diagram gives
238. The effect of increasing the length of air-gap in relation between current and voltage only, whereas by
an induction motor will be to increase the circle diagrams, we can get information about its power
(a) power factor (b) speed output, power factor, efficiency, torque, speed, slip,
(c) magnetizing current (d) air-gap flux copper loss, etc. in a graphical or in a diagrammatic
ESE 2016 representation. The diameter of the circle is determined
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I by the rotor current referred to stator.
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI 241. The rotor power output of a 3 phase induction
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II motor is 15 kW and the corresponding slip is
Ans. (c) : The effect of increasing the length of air-gap 4%. The rotor copper losses will be.
in an induction motor will be to increase the (a) 500 W (b) 525 W
magnetizing current. (c) 625 W (d) 600 W
The permeability of the magnetic circuit rotor-to-
RPSC AE 2018
stator will decrease.
The magnetizing inductance of the motor decreases. TSPSC AEE 2017
The magnetizing current will increase- This will UPPCL AE 2015
cause a poor power factor at all loads. CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
239. No load test on a 3-phase induction motor was UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
conducted at different supply voltages and a ESE 2001
plot of input power versa voltage was drawn. ESE 1997
This curve was extra-polated to intersect the y- Ans. (c) Rotor power output (p ) = 15kW
m
axis. This intersection point yields :
pm = pg (1 – s)
(a) core loss
15
(b) stator copper loss pg = = 15.62KW
(1 − 0.04)
(c) stray load loss
(d) Friction and wind age loss Rotor copper loss = Pg s
WBSE TCL AE 2016 = 15.625 × 0.04 = 625 W

242. If the rotor circuit resistance of a 3 phase Ans : (c) It is given
induction motor is increased, then; stator frequency (fs) = 50 Hz
(a) The starting torque will increase but the Rotor frequency (fr) = 2Hz
maximum torque will remain unchanged. 120f 120 × 50
(b) The starting torque will decrease but the Speed (NS) = = = 1500rpm
P 4
maximum torque will remain unchanged.
f 2
(c) Both the starting and the maximum torque Slip is given by, s = r = = 0.04
will increase. f 50
(d) Both the starting and the maximum torque motor speed (Nr)= ?
will decrease. N − Nr
∵s= s
UPPCL AE 2015 Ns
Ans. (a) Rotor circuit resistance of a 3–φ induction 1500 − N r
motor increased, then the starting torque will increase, 0.04 =
1500
because of rotor current will reduce, rotor flux also
60 = 1500 − N r
reduce,
R2 3 N r = 1440 rpm
T = K S E 22 2 K=
R 2 + (SX 2 ) 2
2πN S
245. Match List-I with List- II
T ∝ R2 hence starting torque increase and maximum List-I List-II
torque remain same. Method of speed Performance
243. An induction machine works at motoring mode control of 3 phase achieved
when slip is : wound-type induction
(a) Zero (b) 0 – 1 motor
(c) More than one (d) Negative
A. Rotor resistance 1. Both speed and p.f
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
control can be controlled
Ans : (b)
B. Constant volts/Hz 2. Maximum torque
control remains constant
C. Injection of voltage 3. Starting torque
in rotor circuit decreases
(a) A-2 B-3 C-1 (b) A-1 B-2 C-3
(c) A-2 B-1 C-3 (d) A-3 B-2 C-1
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
ESE 2008
Ans : (d) The correct match of above column is
following-
Rotor Resistance control - Starting torque decrease
Constant volts/Hz control- Maximum torque remains
Torque slip curve three phase induction motor constant
In motoring mode, the value of slip of induction motor Injection of voltage in rotor circuit - Both speed and
is between 1 and 0.01. The slip of motor can't be zero. p.f. can be controlled
If it is s = 0 the torque will not produce in the motor Full Load Torque Expression–
and the rotation of motor is not possible. at rest position ks E 22 R 2 3
of rotor slip is 1. T= Where k =
R + ( sX 2 ) 2πN 's
2 2
2
244. The frequency of rotor emf of an 4-pole
Ns
induction motor is 2 Hz. If the supply N 's = (Synchronous speed in RPS)
frequency is 50 Hz, then the motor speeds:- 60
(a) 1500 rpm (b) 750 rpm X2 = Rotor reactance at standstill
(c) 1440 rpm (d) 720 rpm E2 = Induced EMF in rotor at standstill
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 R2 = Rotor resistance
ESE 2015 s = Slip
246. A 10 kW,400 V, 3-phase induction motor with Ans. (c) : If Ns is assumed synchronous speed.
star delta starter, having full load efficiency as 120f
0.86, the full load pf is 0.8 and short circuit then, N s = P
current is 30 A at 100 V. Find the ratio of 120 × 60
starting to full load current? P= = 6.26 ≃ 6
1150
(a) 1.4 (b) 1.8
So,
(c) 2.4 (d) 1.9
120 × 60
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 N s = = 1200 rpm
6
ESE 2014
249. In a circle diagram of a three phase induction
Ans : (d) Given: output power = 10 KW motor the point where tangent to the circle is
VL = 400 Volt parallel to the horizontal line represents:-
Cos φ = 0.8 (a) Maximum torque
η = 0.86 (b) Maximum output power
Full load current in delta (c) Maximum input
output power (d) Stator loss
=
3VL cos φη UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
10 Ans. (c) : In a circle diagram of a three phase induction
=
3 × 400 × 0.8 × 0.86 motor the point where tangent to the circle is parallel to
= 20.98A the horizontal line represents maximum input.
So, short circuit current of 400V 250. What is the ratio of starting torque and
400 maximum torque of a 3 phase, 50 Hertz, 4 pole
= 30× = 120A induction motor for a maximum torque of 1200
100
rpm?
Phase value of short circuit current in delta circuit, (a) 0.384 (b) 0.560
120 (c) 0.506 (d) 0.989
Vph = A (e) 0.453
3
1 120 CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
So, VL = × = 40A UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
3 3
ESE 2009
For motor connected in Star
line value of starting current Tst 2
= Ans. (a) : =
Tmax sst s
line value of fullload current + max
s max sst
40
= sst = 1 (For starting torque)
20.98
= 1.9 Ns − N r 1500 − 1200
smax = = = 0.2
Ns 1500
247. The change in speed of a 3 φ induction motor
from No load to full load is about:- (Ns = 1500 rpm, Nr = 1200 rpm)
(a) 4% (b) 8% Tst 2 2 2
= = =
(c) 15% (d) 50% Tmax 1 0.20 5.20 5.20
+
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II 0.20 1
Ans. (a) : The change in speed of a 3 φ induction motor Tst = .384Tmax
from No load to full load varies from 1% to 5%. So, 251. A balanced three phase induction motor runs
option (a) is correct. at slip ‘s’. If ‘s’ is the synchronous speed, what
248. A 3-ph, 60 Hz induction motor runs at 1150 is the relative speed between the stator mmf
rpm, its synchronous speed is:- and the rotor mmf?
(a) 1300 rpm (b) 1500 rpm (a) s (b) (1-s)s
(c) 1200 rpm (d) 1000 rpm (c) ∞ (d) Zero
Ans. (d) : Relative speed of stator mmf with respect to Ans. (a) : As for constant torque operation f↓ V↓
stator = Ns which implies flux remain constant so that torque
Relative speed of rotor mmf with respect to stator = Ns remain constant.
Relative speed of stator mmf with respect to rotor N ↓,f ↓, V ↓ φ = constant , T = constant
= Ns–Nr
254. Wide speed control range of three phase
Relative speed of stator mmf with respect to rotor mmf squirrel cage induction motor is obtained by:-
= Ns – Ns = 0 (a) Variable voltage constant frequency control
Where, Ns = Synchronous speed method
Nr = Rotor speed (b) Slip power recovery method
Take stator as reference then both mmf speed is Ns with (c) Pole changing method
respect to stator hence there relative speed will be zero (d) Constant voltage to frequency ratio (V/f)
(Ns - Ns = 0) as both fields revolve in same direction. method
252. When the supply voltage to an induction motor UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
is reduced by 10%, the maximum torque Ans. (d) : Wide speed control range of three phase
decreased by approximately– squirrel cage induction motor is obtained by constant
(a) 5% (b) 10% voltage to frequency ratio (V/f) method.
(c) 20% (d) 40% 255. A 6-pole, 50Hz, 3-phase induction motor has
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016 rotor resistance of 0.25 ohm and develops the
LMRC AE 2015 maximum torque at 875 rpm. The rotor
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II reactance and slip at the maximum torque
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013 respectively are:-
APTRANSCO AE 2011 (a) 2 , 0.125 pu (b) 2 , 0. 25 pu
ESE 2004 (c) 1 , 0. 25 pu (d) 1 , 0.125 pu
Ans. (c) : We know that power of induction motor is UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
given by 120f 120 × 50
Ans. (a) : N s = = = 1000 rpm
We also know that P 6
T ∝ V2 N − Nr
Slip ( S) = s
Formula used- NS
T2  V2 
2
1000 − 875 125
=  = = (Nr = 875 rpm)
T1  V1  1000 1000
S = 0.125
Let initial voltage be V. So if V is reduced by 10%, new At the maximum torque-
voltage will become 0.9 V. R2 = SX2
2
T2  0.9V  R 0.25
=  X2 = 2 = =2
T1  V  S 0.125
T2 = 0.81 T1 256. A 3–phase induction motor under dc dynamic
braking work as:-
T2 = 81 T1%
(a) Induction generator
% reduction in torque ( T ) = (100 − 81) T1 (b) dc generator
T = 19 T1 (c) dc motor
T ≅ 20T1 (d) synchronous generator
Hence, torque will be reduced by 20%.
Ans. (d) : 3-phase induction motor under dc dynamic
253. It is desirable that flux be maintained constant braking work as synchronous generator.
in variable speed induction motor drives, as it
results in 257. At s = 0, the torque of an induction motor is:-
(a) constant torque capacity (a) Zero
(b) Equal to full – load torque
(b) higher operating efficiency
(c) Very high
(c) avoidance of saturation
(d) Very low
(d) lower core loss
Ans. (a) : Torque of an induction motor- 260. Smooth control of induction motor can be
obtained by
3 SE 22 R 2
Tr = (a) Variation of rotor resistance
2πN s
( R 2 )2 + ( SX 2 )2 (b) Variation of supply frequency only
(c) rotor slip power control only
Where, R2 = Rotor resistance per phase (d) Both variation of supply frequency and rotor
X2 = Standstill rotor reactance slip- power control
E2 = Rotor emf at standstill RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
S = slip Ans. (a) : Smooth control of an induction motor can be
So, we can say that if slips = 0 then torque of an obtained by variation of rotor resistance.
induction will be zero. 261. Plugging is executed when
(a) Two stator terminals are shorted together
258. An AC induction motor is used for a speed
(b) The supply terminals of any two stator phases
control application. It is driven from an
are interchanged
inverter with a constant V/F control. the motor (c) Any two stator terminals are earthed
name plate details are as follows : (no. of poles (d) Any two stator terminals are connected to a
= 2) d.c. source.
V = 45 V; Vph = 3 V; F = 50 Hz, N = 2850 rpm RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
The motor runs with the inverter output Ans. (b) : Plugging- In this method the armature
frequency set at 40 Hz, and with half the rated terminals (or supply polarity) of separately excited (or
slip. The running speed of motor is. shunt) motor when running are reversed. Therefore, the
(a) 2400 rpm (b) 2280 rpm supply voltage V and the induced voltage Eb (back emf)
(c) 2340 rpm (d) 2790 rpm will act in the same direction. The armature current is
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 reversed and high braking torque is produced.
262. Regenerative braking occurs when
Ns − N r (a) No. of poles is decreased in pole changing
Ans. (c) : s rated =
Ns motor
120 × 50 (b) The load is lifted by a hoisting machine
Ns = = 3000rpm (c) The load is lowered by a hoisting machine
2
(d) The load move upside on slope
3000 − 2850
srated = = 0.05 Vizag Steel MT 2013
3000 RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
120 × 40 Ans. (c) : In regenerative braking kinetic energy of the
at 40Hz, N s2 = = 2400rpm
2 motor returned to the power supply system.
s r 0.05 Regeneration is not possible in a plain D.C. series motor
s2 = = = 0.025
2 2 since the field current cannot be made greater than
N r2 = N s2 (1 − s 2 ) = (1 − 0.025) × 2400 = 2340rpm armature current. Regenerative breaking is used when
load is lowered by a hoisting or the Eb(back emf) if
259. For wound rotor motors, rotor resistance is greater than the terminal voltage.
preferred over reduced voltage starting 263. In dynamic braking
because it- (a) The stator terminals are switched over to d.c.
(a) Limits starting current only source from the a.c. supply
(b) Increases starting torque only (b) The supply terminals of any two stator phase
(c) Improves starting power factor only are interchanged
(c) Any two stator terminals are earthed
(d) Limits starting current, increases starting
(d) A d.c. voltage is injected in the rotor circuit.
torque and also improves starting power
factor.
Ans. (a) : Dynamic braking which is done by making a
magnetic field stationary motor. This condition is
Ans. (d) : For wound rotor motor, rotor resistance is carried out by injecting a DC current into a the 3-φ
preferred over reduced voltage starting because it limits induction motor stator coil. After the connection of the
starting current, increasing starting torque, and also stator coil is released from the AC supply voltage
improves starting power factor. source.

264. A 60 Hz four pole induction motor runs at 1755 1
rpm at rated load. What is the frequency of Ans. (d) : Air gap ∝
Reluctance
rotor current? Smaller air gap, has large value of reluctance in poly
(a) 1.5 Hz (b) 61.5 Hz phase induction motor.
(c) 73.125 Hz (d) 4.5 Hz 1
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 Im ∝
Reluctance
Ans. (a) : Hence If reluctance increase, then magnetizing current
120f is reduce.
Ns =
P 268. At low slip the torque – slip characteristic of an
f = frequency induction motor varies as
P = No of pole (a) Torque ∝ (1/slip2) (b) Torque ∝ (slip2)
120 × 60 (c) Torque ∝ (1/slip) (d) Torque ∝ slip
Ns = = 1800rpm
4 RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
N − N r 1800 − 1755 45 Ans. (d) :
s= s = =
Ns 1800 1800
s = 0.025
fr = rotor current frequency = sf
= 0.025 × 60
f r = 1.5Hz
265. As resistance is added in the rotor circuit of a
slip ring induction motor, its maximum torque
(a) increases at the same slip
(b) decreases at the same slip
(c) remains same at lower slip
(d) remains same at higher slip
Ans. (d) : As resistance is added in the rotor circuit of a
slip ring induction motor, its maximum torque remains
At synchronous speed s = 0, therefore, the torque T is
same at higher slip.
zero. When the speed is very near to synchronous
266. An induction motor when started on load does
speed, the slip is very low and ( sX 2 ) is negligible in
2
not accelerate up to full speed but runs at 1/7th
of the rated speed. The motor is said to be. comparison with R2. therefore,
(a) Locking (b) Plugging Ks
T= if R2 is constant
(c) Crawling (d) Cogging R2
BHEL ET 2019 T = Ks
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 T∝s
ESE 2001 Hence, when the slip is small (which is the normal
Ans. (c) : The air gap in a 3 – φ induction motor working region of the motor) the torque-slip curve is a
contains harmonic of the order of (6n ± 1) then create straight line.
parasitic torque. Due to these harmonic, motor continue KsE 2 R
to rotate stably at a speed N much less than full load T= 2 2 2 2
R 2 + ( sX 2 )
speed Nr. This phenomenon known as crawling.
267. Which one of the following statements is In low slip region, torque ∝ slip
correct? 269. A voltmeter gives 120 oscillations per minute
A smaller air gap in a poly-phase induction when connected to the rotor of an induction
motor helps to motor. When the stator frequency is 50 Hz,
(a) Reduce the changes of crawling what is the slip of the motor?
(b) Increase the starting torque (a) 2% (b) 2.5%
(c) Reduce the change of cogging (c) 4% (d) 5%
(d) Reduce the magnetizing current HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
ESE 2004 ESE 1994
Ans. (c) : Rotor frequency is given by: Ans. (a) : Since the frequency of rotor circuit is a slip
fr = sfs frequency, hence the voltage to be injected must be at a
where, s is slip and fs is source frequency. slip frequency. This technique is to control speed of slip
Given motor voltage oscillates 120 times in a minute. ring induction motor. The injected voltage should be the
Therefore, its oscillations per second (frequency) will same frequency induced voltage, so that later can
interact with the former, that is, the injected voltage can
be
assist or oppose the induced voltage. There are two
120
fr = Hz = 2Hz methods for this technique:
60
(1) Kramer method and (2) Scherbius system.
Slip,
272. A 4-pole induction motor is energized from a
f 2
s= r = 50 Hz supply system. What will be the running
f s 50 speed and frequency of rotor currents if the
s = 0.04 machine runs on full load at 3% slip?
s=4% (a) 1455 rpm, 50 Hz (b) 1500 rpm, 1.5 Hz
(c) 1455 rpm, 1.5 Hz (d) 1500 rpm, 50 Hz
270. Which one of the following methods are
suitable for speed control of squirrel cage
induction rotor? Ans. (c) : P = 4, f = 50 Hz
(i) Voltage control 120 × 50
Ns = = 1500rpm
(ii) Rotor resistance control 4
(iii) Frequency control S = 3% = 0.03
(iv) Pole changing method Nr = Ns (1 – S)
Select the correct answer using the codes = 1500 (1 – 0.03)
given below = 1500 × 0.97
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) Nr = 1455 rpm
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) fr = Sf
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) = 0.03 × 50
(d) (ii) and (iv) fr = 1.5 Hz
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 273. If the full load speed of a 3-phase induction
ESE 2005 motor is 960 rpm, its speed at half load will be
Ans. (b) : For speed control of squirrel cage induction approximately
motor– (a) 960 rpm (b) 900 rpm
voltage control, frequency control, pole changing (c) 1000 rpm (d) 975 rpm
method. Speed of squirrel cage induction motor can not Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III
be control by rotor resistance control method as the ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013
rotor resistance is fixed in case of squirrel cage UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
induction motor. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
271. The injected emf in the rotor of an induction ESE 2007
motor is of– Ans. (d) : Assume Ns = 1000 then P = 6 poles, f = 50
(a) The same frequency as slip frequency Hz
(b) The same phase as the rotor emf Hence, full load slip
(c) A high value for satisfactory speed control Ns − N r
S= = 0.04 = 4
(d) The same phase as rotor emf and a high value Ns
for satisfactory speed control. 0.04
LMRC AM 2018 We know at half full load slip = = 0.02
2
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III Rotor speed at half full load N r = N s (1 − S)
N r = 1000 × (1 − 0.02) = 980rpm ≈ 975 rpm
ESE 2003

274. At low values of slip, the torque in an induction R2 = Rotor resistance
motor is S = slip
(a) Inversely proportional to the slip Low slip region of an induction motor-
(b) Directly proportional to the square of the slip sR
(c) Directly proportional to the slip τ ∝ 22 ∝ s
R2
(d) Inversely proportional to the square of the slip
High slip region of an induction motor-
sR 1
Ans. (c) : At low slip (i.e. s = 0) τ ∝ 2 22 ∝
s X2 s
τ∝s {τ = torque}
277. In a variable speed induction motor derive V/f
At high slip (i.e. s= 1) kept constant over a wide range of its
1 frequency variation. The motor operates in the
τ∝
s following mode-
(a) Constant power mode
275. A 3-phase, 6-pole, 50-Hz induction motor
(b) Constant torque mode
develops maximum torque at 940 rpm. The
rotor resistance per phase is 0.1Ω. What is the (c) Constant slip mode
standstill reactance. (d) Variable power and variable torque mode
(a) 0.1 Ω (b) 0.01 Ω PS PCL AE 2012
(c) 1.0 Ω (d) 1.67 Ω Ans. (b) : The constant torque pattern is a straight line
which results in a constant V/f ratio that provides
constant motor torque throughout the speed range. The
120f variable torque pattern has lower voltages at lower
Ans. (d) : N s =
P speeds to prevent motor saturation.
120 × 50 278. The power factor of an induction motor
= = 1000rpm
6 operating at full load is likely to be:
N − N r 1000 − 940 60 (a) unity (b) 0.85 lead
S= s = = = 0.06 (c) 0.85 lag (d) 0.4 lag
Ns 1000 1000
Punjab PSC SDE 2017
R2 = SX2
0.1 Ans. (c) : The power factor of an induction motor
X2 = {R 2 = 0.1Ω,Given} operating at full load is likely to be 0.85 lag.
0.06
Types of single phase induction motor-
X2 = 1.67Ω
Split phase induction motor
276. At slip equal to infinity, the torque of a three Capacitor start induction motor
phase induction motor is. Capacitor start and capacitor run induction motor
(a) zero (b) very small Shaded pole induction motor.
(c) high (d) very high Three phase induction motor-
PS PCL AE 2012 Squirrel cage induction motor
Ans. (a) : At slip equal to infinity, the torque of a three Slip ring induction motor.
phase induction motor is zero.
279. What is the frequency of rotor current of a 50
Slip is expressed as a percentage of synchronous Hz induction motor operating at 2% slip?
Ns − N r
speed i.e. slip (s) = × 100 (a) 1 Hz (b) 100 Hz
Ns (c) 2 Hz (d) 50 Hz
KsR 2 E 22 Punjab PSC SDE 2017
τ= Ans. (a) : Given-
R 22 + s 2 X 22
Operating frequency (f) = 50 Hz
3 N slip = 2%
Where, K = , N s' = s (Synchronous speed in
2πNs' 60
Rotor frequency- f r = sf
RPS)
X2 = Rotor reactance at standstill f r = 0.02 × 50
E2 = Induced EMF in rotor at standstill = 1 Hz

280. A 220 V, 50 Hz, 4-pole, three phase induction 283. A 3-phase, 6-pole, 50 Hz induction motor
motor has a full load speed of 1450 rpm. The develops 5 metric H.P at 950 rpm. If the stator
rotor frequency is loss is 300 W, the stator input must be
(a) 1.65 Hz (b) 2.5 Hz (a) 5000W (b) 4755 W
(c) 0.35 Hz (d) 50 Hz (c) 4165 W (d) 4015 W
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 Karnataka PSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : Given, Nr = 1450 r.p.m, P = 4 Ans. (c) : Given : Nr = 950 r.p.m, f = 50 Hz
f = 50 Hz, rotor frequency (fr) = ? Pm = 5H.P = 5 × 735.5 = 3677.5 Watt
Synchronous speed, Stator loss = 300 W
120f 120 × 50
120f Ns = = = 1000 rpm
Ns = P 6
P
N − Nr
120 × 50 % Slip (s) = s × 100
Ns = = 1500 Ns
4
N − Nr 1000 − 950
% slip (s) = s × 100 = ×100
Ns 1000
= 5% = 0.05 p.u
1500 − 1450
= ×100 P
1500 Air-gap power, Pg = m
= 3.33% = 0.033 ( 1− s)
f r = sf 5 × 735.5
Pg = = 3871.05 watt
(1 − 0.05)
fr = 0.033 × 50
Stator input = Pg + stator losses
f r = 1.65Hz Stator input = 3871.05 + 300
281. Induction generator works between slip = 4171.05 watt
(a) 1 < s < 2 (b) 0.1 < s < 1.0 Stator input ≅ 4165W
(c) s < 0 (d) None of the above 284. For a 3-φ induction motor when impedance is
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 neglected the slip at the maximum torque will
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II be
Ans. (c) : Induction motor has– r2 x2
Breaking mode s>1 (a) (b)
x2 r2
Motoring mode 0≤s≤ 1
r x
Generating mode s<0 (c) 2 (d) 2
x2 r2
Where s is slip
N − Nr
%s = s × 100 Ans. (c) : Torque in 3-φ induction motor can be given
Ns
by–
282. A 400V, 10 kW, 3-phase, 6-pole, 50 c/s
K sR E 2
induction motor is expected to run at full load τ = 21 22 22
R 2 + s X2
(a) Between 900 & 1000 r.p.m
(b) Between 100 & 1500 r.p.m
R
KsR
τ = 2 22 2
+ s X
{∵ K = K1E22 }
(c) Between 1500 & 2000 r.p.m 2 2
(d) Above 2000 r.p.m dτ

For maximum torque, =0
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 dR 2
Ans. (a) : Given : P = 6, f = 50 c/s d KsR 2
=0
120 × 50 dt R 22 + s 2 X 22
Ns = = 1000 rpm
6
( R 2 )2 + ( sX 2 )2  Ks − 2KR 2 ⋅ R 2s
Hence induction motor is expected to run at full load is   =0
2
between 900 & 1000 because rotor speed is always less ( R 2 ) + ( sX 2 )2 
2
than synchronous speed.  

KsR 22 + Ks(sX 2 ) 2 − 2KsR 22 = 0 Ans. (c) : By adding resistance in rotor winding provide
much higher torque from starting torque to full speed
Ks(sX 2 ) 2 − KsR 22 = 0
and much better speed control with higher torque. The
Ks(sX 2 ) 2 = KsR 22 higher torque comes from the power factor in a wound
sX2 = R2 rotor motor with resistance in the rotor circuit the power
R2 factor is much higher. So the current in the stator and
s= rotor are nearly in phase giving better torque.
X2
288. A 3-phase induction motor can operate over a
285. For maximum starting torque in an induction wide range of power factor, that is from
motor lagging to leading power factors. This is
(a) r2 = 0.5 x2 (b) r2 = x2 achieved by varying
(c) r2 = 2 x2 (d) r2 = 0 (a) the field excitation
(b) the speed
Ans. (b) : Maximum starting torque in an induction (c) the applied voltage
motor can be achieved when,
r
s= 2 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
x2 Ans. (a) : A 3-phase induction motor can operate over a
r2 = x2 (∵ at starting slip (s) = 1) wide range of power factor, that is from lagging to
286. A 3-phase induction machine is operating with leading power factors this is achieved by varying the
slip 0 > s > –1. The operating mode of the field excitation.
machine is 289. A 3-phase, 400 v, 50 Hz, 4-pole induction motor
(a) motoring (b) generating runs at a slip of 5%. The relative speed
(c) plugging (d) none of these between the rotor field and the stator field is
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (a) 1425 rpm (b) zero rpm
Ans. (b) : A 3-phase induction machine is operating (c) 75 rpm (d) 1500 rpm
with slip 0 > s > –1. The operating mode of the machine UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
is generating.
Ans. (b) : In induction motor,
For motor condition– 0 ≤s≤1
Rotor field speed = Ns
Stator field speed = Ns
∴ Relative speed = Ns – Nr = Ns – Ns = 0
290. A 4-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor runs
with 5% slip. The rotor speed is
(a) 1425 rpm (b) 1462.5 rpm
(c) 750 rpm (d) 1500 rpm
Ans. (a) : Given, f = 50 Hz, slip = 0.05
120 f
Ns =
P
120 × 50
Ns = = 1500 rpm
4
287. By adding resistance in the rotor circuit of a Nr = Ns (1 – s)
slip ring induction motor, the starting current : = 1500 (1 – 0.5) = 1500 × .95
(a) and torque both reduce (compared to direct = 1425 rpm
on-line starting) 291. For a given 3-phase induction motor,
(b) and torque both increase maximum torque will be developed at starting
(c) reduces but starting torque increases if the rotor parameters are as follows:
(d) increases but starting torque decreases (a) R2 = 2Ω, X2 = 8Ω (b) R2 = 4Ω, X2 = 8Ω
MPPSC AE 2017
(c) R2 = 8Ω, X2 = 8Ω (d) R2 = 16Ω, X2 = 8Ω
RPSC VPITI 2016
Ans. (c) : Maximum torque developed in induction Ans. (b) : Given, rotor speed = 1440 rpm, f = 50 Hz
motor at slip- Since a 3-φ induction motor always run at less than
R2 synchronous speed assume Ns = 1500 rpm
s=
X2 120 f
P=
Ns
At starting, slip (s) = 1
So, R2 = X2 120 × 50
P=
R2 = 8Ω, X2 = 8Ω 1500
292. The efficiency of a 440 V, 50 Hz, 3-phase P=4
induction motor running at no-load is 297. The speed-torque characteristic of an induction
(a) 0% (b) 50% motor closely resembles the speed-torque
(c) 100% (d) infinity characteristic of a
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (a) DC series motor (b) DC shut motor
Ans. (a) : The efficiency of a 440 V, 50 Hz, 3-phase (c) Universal motor (d) Synchronous motor
induction motor running at no-load is 0%. Because it UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
has output power at no load is zero. Ans. (b) : The speed-torque characteristic of an
293. In a 3-phase 50 Hz induction motor, the rotor induction motor closely resembles the speed-torque
core losses are characteristic of a DC shut motor.
(a) very high as compared to stator core loss 298. In a 3-phase induction motor, stator impedance
(b) very small as compared to stator core loss is neglected. If supply voltage and frequency
(c) equal to stator core loss always are decreased by keeping V/f constant, then
(d) none of these maximum torque Tm & the slip sm at which
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II maximum torque occurs would change as
Ans. (b) : In a 3-phase 50 Hz induction motor, the rotor (a) Tm increases and sm decreases
core losses are very small as compared to stator core (b) Tm decreases and sm increases
loss. (c) Tm remains constant and sm increases
294. If the load on an induction motor is increased (d) Tm remains constant and sm decreases
from no-load to full load, its slip and the power
factor will, respectively.
(a) Decrease, decrease (b) Decrease, increase Ans. (c) : Tm remains constant and sm increases.
(c) Increase, decrease (d) Increase, increase 299. For a 3-phase induction motor having rotor
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 resistance of 6Ω, maximum torque occurs at a
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II slip of 0.6. The value of standstill rotor
ESE 2006 reactance is
Ans. (d) : If the load on a induction motor increases, (a) 4.44 Ω (b) 0.36 Ω
then both slip and power factor increases. Incremental (c) 1 Ω (d) 10 Ω
in slip is because rotor speed decreases due to increase UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
in load. Ans. (d) : Given, sm = 0.6, X1 = ?, R2 = 6 Ω
295. The speed of the rotor field of an induction Maximum torque occurs at slip-
motor is equal to
(a) synchronous speed (b) rotor speed R2
sm =
(c) zero (d) None of these X2
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II 6
Ans. (a) : The speed of the rotor field of an induction 0.6 =
X2
motor is equal to synchronous speed. Speed of the rotor
of a induction motor is always less than synchronous 60
X2 = = 10Ω
speed due to relative motion between stator and rotor. 6
296. A 400 V, 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor X 10
Standstill rotor reactance X1 = 2 =
rotates at 1440 rpm on full load. The number of s 1
poles would be
{∵ At standstill condition s = 1}
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8 X1 = 10 Ω

300. In variable voltage variable frequency speed 303. In 50 Hz induction machine, if the no load
control, to achieve constant torque, below base speed is 745 rpm, the synchronous speed is :
speed (a) 700 rpm
(a) flux is to be increased (b) 750 rpm
(b) V/f is to be kept constant (c) 800 rpm
(c) flux is to be decreased (d) 850 rpm
(d) V is to be constant OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II Ans. (b) : Given, No load speed (N0) = 745 r.pm
Ans. (b) : In variable voltage variable frequency speed Frequency (f) = 50 Hz
control, to achieve constant torque, below base speed 120f
V/f is to be kept constant. N0 =
P
301. Rated speed of a three-phase induction motor 120 × 50
is 1,440 rpm for 50 Hz supply, the number of 745 =
P
pole is : 120 × 50
(a) 6-pole (b) 2-pole P= = 8.04
745
(c) 8-pole (d) 4-pole P≅8
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I 120f
Ans. (d) : Given, rated speed of the induction motor- Synchronous speed (Ns)=
P
(Nr) = 1440 r.p.m 120 × 50
f = 50 Hz ( Ns ) =
8
As we know that a 3 - φ induction motor always run less
( Ns ) = 750 r.p.m.
than synchronous speed.
Let the synchronous speed (Ns) =1500 r.p.m. 304. In 50Hz induction machine, if the no load speed
120f is 2900 rpm, the slip frequency is :
Synchronous speed (Ns) =
P (a) 0.33 Hz (b) 0.67 Hz
120 × 50 (c) 1.33 Hz (d) 1.67 Hz
1500 = OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
P
120 × 50 Ans. (d) : Given, No load speed (N0) = 2900 rpm
P=
1500 f = 50 Hz
P=4 120× f
No. of poles (P) =
302. If the rotor of induction motor rotates at N0
synchronous speed, the torque produced is : 120 × 50
P=
(a) High (b) Low 2900
(c) Zero (d) Infinity P = 2.06
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I P ≅ 2
Ans. (c) : Given, Nr = Ns 120f
Synchronous speed (Ns) =
N − N r Ns − Ns P
Then slip (s) = s = =0
Ns Ns 120 × 50
=
2
Developed torque in a 3− φ induction motor is-
Ns = 3000 rpm
ksE 2 R 2
τd = P
( R 2 ) + ( sX 2 )
2 2 Now, Slip frequency ( f s ) = ( N s − N 0 ) ×
120
Since slip is 'zero' 2
= ( 3000 − 2900 ) ×
k ×0× E × R2
2
120
So, τd =
( R 2 ) + ( 0X 2 )
2 2
200
=
120
τd = 0
fs = 1.67 Hz

305. Leakage flux in an induction motor is E  Phase voltage 
(a) Flux that links through the machine V=  Line voltage = 
3  3 
(b) Flux that links both stator and rotor windings
E2
(c) Flux that links none of the winding ∴ T ∝ V2 =
(d) Flux that links the stator winding or the rotor 3
winding but not both Torque in DOL E2
∵ = 2 ×3 = 3
UJVNL AE 2016 Torque Star Delta E
Ans. (d) Leakage flux in induction machine is that flux Torque in DOL T
which links with only with stator winding, or rotor Torque in Star Delta = =
3 3
winding but not both.
309. For a given three-phase induction motor, the
306. If P = number of poles and N = revolution slip at full load is:
made per second, what is the frequency of an (a) equal to slip at no-load
alternator ?
(b) less than slip at no-load
(a) PN/2 Hz (b) 120/PN Hz
(c) greater than slip at no-load
(c) 120 N/P Hz (d) 120 P/N Hz
(d) equal to zero
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I LMRC AM 2020
Ans. (a) : Given, Speed of alternator = N rps Ans. (c) : Slip is the change in speed from No load to
No. of poles = P full Load.
PN
Frequency of alternator ( f ) = Hz s = NFL – NNL
2 where s = slip
307. A three-phase squirrel cage induction motor is NFL = Full Load speed
operating at 'dT/ds = 0'. The corresponding NNL = No Load speed
torque is: Therefore at Full load the difference will be more.
(a) Minimum (b) 1/2 (maximum) Hence more slip.
(c) Maximum (d) 1/4 (maximum) 310. The stator of a 3-phase, 4-pole slip ring
LMRC AM 2020 induction motor is connected to 50 Hz supply.
dT At the rotor terminals, a frequency of 30 Hz is
Ans. (c) : given =0 required. The speed at which the rotor must be
ds
driven is
will be true for maximum value of T
(a) 600 rpm (b) 1500 rpm
Hence torque T will be maximum.
(c) 900 rpm (d) 2000 rpm
308. For a three-phase induction motor, if T is the JUVNL AE 2017
starting torque when a DOL starter is used,
Ans. (a) : In three phase slip ring induction motor given
then what is the starting torque when a star-
by–
delta starter used is?
P=4
T T fs = 50Hz
(a) (b)
3 3 fr = 30Hz
T T 120fs 120 × 50
(c) (d) Ns = ⇒ ⇒ 1500 rpm
4 2 P 4
LMRC AM 2020 Rotor Frequency = Slip × stator frequency
Ans. (a) : starting torque is given by 30
Slip = = 0.6
R 50
T = KSE 22 2 Nr = Ns (1–s)
R 2 + ( sx 2 )
2
Nr = 1500(1–0.6)
where E2 = voltage Nr = 600 rpm
R2 = rotor resistance 311. Power factor of industrial undertakings is low,
x2 = rotor reactance mainly because of the use of
s = slip (a) large number of synchronous motors
∴ T ∝ E 22 (s, R2 and x2 being a constant) (b) large machines
(c) large number of Induction motors
for DOL T ∝ V 2
(d) large capacitors
In star delta starter JUVNL AE 2017
Ans. (c) : Most industrial processing facilities use a Ans. (a) : In the regenerative braking, it uses an energy
large quantity of induction motor to drive their pumps, recovery mechanism which slow down a vehicle by
conveyors, and other machinery in the plant these converting its kinetic energy into another form.
induction motors cause the power factor to be inherently Regenerative braking is use in battery powered electric
low for most industrial facilities. vehicle.
312. In how many quadrants of torque and speed, 315. A three-phase induction motor at standstill has
the electric drive of elevator is required to 104 V induced between its slip ring terminals.
operate? The rotor winding is star connected and has
resistance and stand-still reactance of 0.2 and
(a) 3 (b) 1
1 Ω per phase respectively. When the rotor
(c) 4 (d) 2
develops maximum torque then the rotor
JUVNL AE 2017 current will be____.
Ans. (c) : Elevator drive should have four quadrant (a) 58.83 A/phase (b) 214.2 A/phase
operation. Elevator drives operate in four quadrants are (c) 42.8 A/phase (d) 11.76 A/phase
forward motoring (1st quadrant), Forward braking (2nd DMRC AM 2018
quadrant), reverse motoring (3rd quadrant) and reverse R 0.2
braking (4th Quadrant) all of below. it provide smooth Ans. (c) : s = 2 = = 0.2 (slip at max torque)
X2 1
and easy control.
So, current at max slip,
313. An electric motor developing a starting torque
of 15 Nm, starts with a load torque of 7 Nm on I = 104 / 3 = = 104 / 3 = 42.45 A / phase
its shaft. If the acceleration at start is 2  R 22   0.2 
2
2
rad/sec , the moment of inertia of the systems   + X 2
2   +1
2
 s   0.2 
must be (neglecting viscous and Coulomb
friction) : Thus, I ≃ 42.8 A / phase
(a) 0.25 kgm2 (b) 0.25 Nm2 316. The speed of a 4-pole induction motor is
(c) 4 kgm 2
(d) 4 Nm2 controlled by varying the supply frequency
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 while maintaining the ratio of supply voltage to
supply frequency (v/f) constant. At a rated
Ans. (c) : Ta = Ts – Te = 15 – 7 = 8 Nm frequency of 50 Hz and rated voltage of 400 V
Pa its speed is 1440 rpm. If the load torque is
∵ Ta =
ω constant, the speed at 30 Hz will be________.
Pa = Taω = ma (a) 840 rpm (b) 864 rpm
(c) 828 rpm (d) 882 rpm
m Ta
= = I moment of inertia DMRC AM 2018
ω a
8
I = = 4kgm 2 V/f = constant
2 P=4
I = 4kgm2 Nr = 1440 rpm
314. Which of the following is true with a At, f = 50 Hz-
regenerative braking? 120 × 50
Ns = = 1500 rpm
(a) It uses an energy recovery mechanism which 4
slows down a vehicle by converting its kinetic N − N r 1500 − 1440 60 6
energy into another form S= s = = =
Ns 1500 1500 150
(b) It uses an energy recovery mechanism which
So, slip remain same.
transforms the braking energy into kinetic
At, f = 30 Hz
energy of the vehicle
120 × 30
(c) It uses an energy recovery mechanism which Ns= = 900 rpm
4
reduces the speed of a vehicle by converting
the electrical energy into kinetic energy. N − N r 900 − N r 6
S= s = =
(d) It regenerates the brake fluids for use at a N s 900 150
future period 900-Nr = 36
GESCOM AE 2011 Nr = 864 rpm

317. A 3-phase, 50-Hz, 4-pole squirrel-cage 319. No-load test on a 3-phase induction motor was
induction motor has its stator rewound for 6 conducted at different supply voltage and a
poles without any alternations in the rotor. The plot of input power versus voltage was drawn.
motor would now run at a speed of This curve was extrapolated to intersect the y-
(a) < 1000 r.p.m. (b) < 1500 r.p.m. axis. The intersection point yields the :
(c) < 3000 r.p.m. (d) zero r.p.m. (a) core loss
BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015 (b) stator copper loss
Ans. (a) (c) stray load loss
f = 50 Hz (d) friction and windage loss
For, P=4 APTRANSCO AE 2019
120 × 50
Ns = = 1500 r.p.m. Ans. (d) : Power input at no load (P0) provided losses
4 only as the shaft output in zero. Pi (Iron loss) and
Now when P = 6
Pw f (windage and friction loss)
120 × 50
Ns = = 1000 r.p.m.
6
then the rotor of the motor will run less than 1000
r.p.m. as it is a induction motor Nr < Ns
318. The torque/speed curve of an induction motor
is as shown in the figure. Four points of
operation are marked as W, X, Y and Z. Which
one of them represents the operation at a slip
greater than 1?
320. Match the following with parts in List-I with
machines in List-II
List-I List-II
p. damper bars 1. dc machine
q. rotor bars 2. synchronous machine
r. commutator 3. induction machine
(a) p–1, q–2, r–3
(a) W (b) X (b) p–3, q–1, r–2
(c) Y (d) Z (c) p–2, q–3, r–1
APTRANSCO AE 2019 (d) p–3, q–2, r–1
ESE 2017 APSPDCL AE 2012
Ans. (a) : Ans. (c) : Damper Bars: Damper bars are used in
synchronous machine.
Rotor Bars: Rotor bars are used in induction machine.
Commutator: Commutator used in DC machines
which convert the AC output of armature in to DC.
321. A 3-phase induction motor is run in counter-
clockwise direction as motor with reverse phase
sequence of supply. The range of slip variation
for this mode is
(a) 0 < s < 1 (b) 2 > s > 1
In braking mode, the motor runs in opposite direction to (c) 0 < s < –1 (d) 3 < s < 2
rotating field i.e. Nr (rotor for speed) is negative. APSPDCL AE 2012
N − ( − N r ) Ns + N r Ans. (b) : A 3-phase induction motor is run in counter-
S= s = >1
Ns Ns clockwise direction as motor with reverse phase
Thus, the operation point at which a slip greater than 1 sequence of supply. The range of slip variation of this
is W. mode is 2 > s > 1.

322. The following is phasor diagram of rotor remaining constant, the rotor speed with a slip
variables of 3-phase induction motor with Ej as of 5% will be
injected emf. This provides (a) 1610 rpm (b) 1750 rpm
(c) 1500 rpm (d) 1710 rpm
APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (d) : It is given–
N = 1200 rpm
P = Number of poles
120f
Ns = (Ns = synchronous speed)
(a) sub synchronous speed without pf P
improvement 1200 × 6
f= = 60Hz
(b) super synchronous speed without pf 120
improvement for P = 4
(c) sub synchronous speed with pf improvement 120f 120 × 60
(d) super synchronous speed with pf Ns = = = 1800rpm
P 4
improvement Nr =Ns (1- s)
APSPDCL AE 2012 =1800 (1-0.05)
Ans. (c) : = 1710 rpm
325. The shaft output of a three-phase 60 Hz
induction motor is 80 kW. the friction and
windage losses are 920W, the stator core loss is
4300 W and the stator copper loss is 2690 W.
The rotor current and rotor resistance referred
to stator are respectively 110 A and 0.15 Ω. If
the slip is 3.8%, what is the percent efficiency?
(a) 80% (b) 92%
(c) 87% (d) 85%
APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (c) : Pm = output = 80 KW
The following is phasor diagram of rotor variables of 3- windage and friction losses = 920 W
phase induction motor with Ej as injected emf. Stator core loss = 4300 W
This provides sub synchronous speed with pf Stator copper loss = 2690 W
improvement. slip = 3.8%
323. The advantages of a slip-ring induction motor Gross mech. output = Pm + windage and friction losses
over a squirrel cage induction motor is that = 80 KW +920 W
(a) it has higher efficiency = 80.92 kW
(b) it has higher power factor 1
rotor input/rotor gross output =
(c) it can be started with help of rotor resistance ( s)
1 −
starter
rotor input = rotor output/(1-s) = 80.92 KW/(1-0.038)
= 84.11 kW
APPSC AEE 2019
we know that
Ans. (c) : Advantage of slip ring induction motor over
stator input = rotor input + stator core loss
squirrel cage motor is higher starting torque. Slip ring
+ stator Cu loss
induction motor provides some advantages like low
= 84.11 KW + 4300 W +2690 W = 91.1
starting current and it improves the power factor we can
KW
add external variable resistance to the rotor of this type
of motor. % Efficiency = (rotor output/stator input)×100
= (80/91.9)×100 KW
324. The synchronous speed for a three-phase 6-pole
induction motor is 1200 rpm. If the number of = 87.81%
poles is now reduced to 4 with the frequency ≃ 87%

326. If the rotor circuit of a squirrel cage induction Ans. (a) : If we interchange any two phases we can
motor is open, the rotor will reverse the motor running direction. i.e. say R-Y-B
(a) run at very high speed motor running clockwise, change to R-B-Y the motor
(b) run at very low speed will rotate counter-clockwise. However, the motor
(c) make noise should be stopped before phase interchange is done.
(d) not run 330. If the supply voltage is changed by 5% for 3Φ
APPSC AEE 2019 induction motor, it's torque will have a change
Ans. (d) : If the rotor circuit of a squirrel cage induction of:
motor is open the rotor will not run. Because same (a) 5% (b) 10%
voltage should be induced in rotor, but rotor current will (c) 20% (d) 25%
remain zero, because rotor is open circuited as there is APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
no current, there will not be any torque developed and
Ans. (b) : Voltage of 3 φ induction motor is changed by
hence no rotation of rotor.
5% & torque will have a charge of.
327. Crawling in the induction motor is caused by
(a) low voltage supply or high loads T ∝ V 2 (for induction motor)
(b) friction developed in the motor ∂T ∂V
∝2
(c) flux wave produced by a stator winding is not T v
pure sine wave ∂V
= 5%
(d) None of the above V
APPSC AEE 2019 ∂t
ESE 2003 ∝ 2 ( 5 ) = 10%
T
Ans. (c) : Sometimes induction motor exhibits a ∂T
tendency to run at very slow speeds (as low as one ∝ 10%
T
seventh of their synchronous speed). This phenomenon
Hence torque will have change of 10%
is known as crawling of induction motor. Crawling in
the induction motor is due to the fact that, flux wave 331. Given the following phasor diagram of
produced by a stator winding is not purely sine wave. induction machine, identify its mode of
Instead it is a complex wave consisting a fundamental operation
wave and odd harmonic like 3rd, 5th, 7th etc. 3rd
harmonic is absent in balanced 3-phase system.
328. It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction
motor and use starter because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load
current
(b) It will pick up very high speed and may go
out step
(c) it will run in reverse direction Mode ↓ Speed ↓
(d) starting torque is very high (a) Motoring > Ns
APPSC AEE 2019
(b) Generating > Ns
Ans. (a) : The purpose of starters is to limit high (c) Motoring < Ns
starting current (5 to 8 times the full load current), three
(d) Generating < Ns
phase induction motor draws very high starting current .
APGENCO AE 2012
If such high current flows through the winding for
longer time, the motor winding will damage. Hence to Ans. (b) : The output of the induction generator
limit such a high starting current, starters are required. depends upon the magnitude of negative slip or on how
329. If any two phases for an induction motor are fast above synchronous speed the rotor is driven in the
interchanged same direction. So, for induction motor in generating
(a) the motor will run in reverse direction mode rotor speed > Ns .
(b) The motor will run at reduced speed 332. The following speed-torque characteristics are
(c) the motor will not run obtained for 3-phase induction motor. Pick up
(d) the motor will burn the correct method of speed from the options.
APPSC AEE 2019 (output constant)

335. In an induction motor the slip power recovery
schemes can be used
(a) In constant power drive only
(b) In constant torque drive only
(c) In both constant power and constant torque
drives
V Ans. (c) : Slip power recovery scheme is a method of
(a) control
f speed control of induction motor recovered power is
E feedback to main supply instead of wasting it in the
(b) control rotor resistance.
f
(c) Pole changing with f constant 336. In electrical braking of three phase induction
(d) stator voltage control, f constant motor for the condition when the motor speed
is greater than its synchronous speed the
APGENCO AE 2012
_________ breaking technique may be used.
Ans. (a) : Correct method of speed control in order to
(a) regenerative
avoid saturation and to minimize losses, motor operated
at rated air gap flux by varying terminal voltage with (b) dynamic
frequency so as to maintain (V/f) ratio constant at the (c) plugging
rate value. This type of control is known as constant (d) None of the other options
volts per hertz. UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
333. The name plate of a 3-phase induction motor Ans. (a) : When the speed of induction motor is more
reads as than synchronous speed, relative speed between the
V = 400 V hp = 5 f = 50 Hz motor conductors and air gap rotating field reverses, as
I = 15 A Con–∆ N = 540 a result the phase angle because greater than 90° and the
rpm power flow reverse and thus regenerative breaking takes
The number of poles for which stator winding place.
is wound 337. When single phasing occurs in a three phase
(a) 10 (b) 12 induction motor carrying K times rated load
(c) 14 (d) 16 the motor may operate satisfactorily.
APGENCO AE 2012 (a) K = 1
Ans. (a) : The speed of synchronous speed of stator is (b) K = 0.5
always greater than rotor speed in induction motor- (c) K = 2
Hence, Ns = 600 rpm (d) None of the other options
120 f UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
Ns =
P Ans. (b) : The term single-phasing in IM when one of
120 × 50 the phase is opened. In this condition motor can't bear
P= = 10
600 full load. For load less than rated load approximately
334. The rotor impedance of a slip ring induction half load, motor may operate satisfactory. If K is rated
motor is (0.1 + j0.6)Ω/ph. The resistance/ph to load, then for K = 0.5 it will work satisfactory.
be inserted into rotor to get maximum torque
338. In a 3-phase induction motor, a deep bar rotor
at starting should be-
is used for obtaining
(a) 0.1 Ω (b) 0.3 Ω
(a) More starting torque
(c) 0.4 Ω (d) 0.5 Ω
(b) Reduced rotor loss
APGENCO AE 2012
(c) More Pull out torque
Ans. (d) : The maximum torque is independent of rotor (d) Less starting torque
resistance, yet the exact location of τmax is dependent on
it. Greater the value of R2, greater is the value of slip at
which maximum torque occurs. So, The resistance/ph to Ans. (a) : The deep bar rotor in an induction motor is
be inserted into rotor to get maximum torque at starting used to obtain high rotor resistance at starting condition
should be 0.5 Ω. and low rotor resistance at the running condition.

339. A 3 phase induction motor is running on a Ans. (a) : Damper winding is the winding which is
constant load. If the fuse in one phase blows off placed in the pole faces around the pole shoes of
then the, synchronous machine, the current induced in damper
(a) Motor will stop winding is due to induction. When rotor is running at
(b) Motor will run with reduced current synchronous speed, the relative speed between damper
(c) Motor will run with increased current bar and rotating flux is zero. So no flux cutting takes
(d) None of the other options place consequently, no current flow during normal
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 operation. Thus, the current carried by the damper
Ans. (c) : If a three phase motor is operating and losses winding under normal running condition is zero.
one phase, the motor will continue to operate at a
343. The rotor copper loss for a 4 pole 3-phase 50
reduced speed and experience vibrations. Current will
also increase considerably in remaing phases. Hz induction motor running at 1495 rpm is
50W. Its rotor input is-
340. During starting of induction motor at the
terminals of the machine (a) 250 W (b) 15 kW
(a) there is a current inrush (c) 50 W (d) 100 W
(b) there is a dip in voltage KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
(c) there is combination of both inrush of current Ans. (b) : Given : Cupper loss (Pcu) = 50 W
and voltage dip No. of pole (P) = 4
(d) None of the other options Supply frequency (f) = 50 Hz
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 Rotor speed (Nr) = 1495 r.p.m
Ans. (c) : High resistance (over load condition) is often 120f
encountered when starting a motor from static (ideal) Ns =
P
position due to inertia, so, it draw excessive current.
voltage dip is caused by short circuit, overload or 120 × 50
=
starting of electric motor. 4
341. In induction motor the torque Ns = 1500 r.p.m
(a) Does not depend on slip and rotor resistance. Ns − N r
% slip = × 100
(b) Depends on slip but not on rotor reactance. Ns
(c) Depends on slip and rotor resistance but not
1500 − 1495
on rotor reactance. = ×100
(d) Depends on slip and rotor impedance 1500
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 1
s=
Ans. (c) : For small value of slip, motor slip is 300
proportional to the rotor resistance. Torque depends on P 50
square of induced emf, rotor resistance and operating Rotor input (Pg) = cu =
s 1
slip of the motor. 300
Starting torque in induction motor
Pg = 50 × 300
KSE 22 R 2 Pg = 15000
Tst =
R 22 + ( SX 2 )
2
Pg = 15kW
3 3
K= = = constant 344. The electrical representation of the variable
ωs 2πn s
mechanical load of a 3-phase induction motor
If the slip is very low then reactance (X2) will be is the resistance given by-
neglected.
(a) r2 (1 − s )
then starting Torque
sE 2 (b) r2 ( s − 1)
Tst = 22
R2  1
(c) r2 1 − 
342. The current carried by the damper winding  s
under normal running condition is:  1  
(a) Zero (b) Prime mover (d) r2   − 1
 s  
(c) Excitation (d) Load
KPSC AE 2014 KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014

Ans. (d) : The variable resistance r2/s may be replaced Ans. (a) : The speed of slip ring induction motor can be
by the actual rotor winding resistance r2 and a variable controlled by connecting external resistance in the rotor
resistance Rmech. which represents mechanical shaft load circuit through the slip ring. This method is also known
that is,
as rotor Rheostatic method of speed control. It is not
r
Rmech = 2 (1 − s) applicable in cage rotor due to short circuiting of rotor
s ends.
 1  
R mech. = r2   − 1 347. What is meant by plugging in the case of a 3-
 s   phase induction motor?
(a) locking of rotor due to harmonics
(b) interchanging two supply phases for quick
stopping
(c) starting the motor with direct on line
Equivalent Circuit of Induction Motor Ans. (b) : Plugging is a method of speed control in
Referred to the Stator induction motor. In this method the connection of the
345. The speed of a 3-phase, 4 pole, 440 V 50 Hz induction motor are reversed, this will creates a reverse
induction motor is 1440 rpm. What is the magnetic field which oppose the speed of rotation. Thus
frequency of rotor emf? in the plugging interchanging two supply phases for
(a) 200 Hz (b) 50 Hz quick stopping of a 3-φ induction motor.
(c) 2 Hz (d) 48 Hz
348. What is the condition for maximum torque
WBPSC AE 2017
KPTCL AE 2016 under running conditions for a 3-phase
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 induction motor, if R2 is the rotor resistance, X2
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 is the rotor reactance and 's' is the slip?
(a) X2 = sR2 (b) R 2 X 2 =
WBPSC AE 2012 s
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II (c) R2 = sX2 (d) R 2 = s 2 X 2
Ans. (c) : Given : P = 4, f = 50 Hz, Nr = 1440 r.p.m
fr = ? Ans. (c) :
120f 120 × 50 kV12sR 2
Ns = = = 1500 r.p.m Te =
P 4 R 22 + s 2 X 22
N − Nr
% slip (s) = s
Ns
× 100
Te =
k1sR 2
R + s 2 X 22
2
2
{∵ k1 = kV12 }
1500 − 1440
= × 100 k1 R 2
1500 Te = 2
R
% (s) = 4% = 0.04 p.u 2
+ sX 22
fr = sf s
fr = 0.04 × 50 k1R 2
Te = 2
f r = 2 Hz  R2 
 − X 2 s  + 2R 2 X 2
 s 
346. Rotor rheostatic method of speed control is
used for- Te will be maximum when
(a) slip ring induction motor R2
(b) squirrel cage induction motor − X2 s = 0
s
(c) DC series motor
R2 = sX2
(d) DC shunt motor
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 Hence torque is maximum when the rotor resistance per
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II phase is equal to the 's' time of rotor reactance per phase
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I under running conditions.
349. The starting current of an induction motor is Ans. (d) : The fractional slip of 3- Φ induction motor is
five times the full load current while the full the ratio of the rotor copper loss/rotor input
load slip is 8%. Find the ratio of starting Rotor Copper loss
torque to full load torque. Fractional slip =
Rotor input
(a) 8.0 (b) 4.0
352. A 3- Φ , 5kW induction motor has a p.f. of 0.75
(c) 0.6 (d) 2.0
lagging. A bank of capacitors is connected in
DMRC AM 2020
delta across the supply terminals, then p.f. is
Ans. (d) : Torque T ∝ I2 raised to 0.9 lagging. Determine the kVAr
rating of the capacitors connected in each
At full load, slip (S) = 8% = 0.08
phase.
If2 If
Tf ∝ = K. ( Where, K = constant ) (a) 0.313 kVAr (b) 0.256 kVAr
S 0.08 (c) 0.663 kVAr (d) 0.113 kVAr
for starting, slip (S) =1 DMRC AM 2020
I 2
Tst ∝ st = K.
( 5 × If ) = 25 I2 (Where, K = constant) Ans. (c) : Motor input = P = 5kW
2
S 1
f Original p.f. = cos θ1 = 0.75
Final p.f. = cos θ2 = 0.90
T 25I2
Now, st = 2 f = 25 × 0.08 = 2.0 θ1 = cos −1 ( 0.75) = 41°.41 ,
Tf If
0.08 tan θ1 = tan ( 41°.41) = 0.8819
Tst θ2 = cos −1 ( 0.90 ) = 25°.84
Thus, = 2.0
Tf
tan θ2 = tan ( 25°.84 ) = 0.4843
350. A 4-pole, 50 Hz, 3- Φ induction motor has a slip Required capacitor kVAr to improve p.f. from 0.75 to
of 6%. Calculate the speed of the 0.90
motor. Required capacitor kVAr = P(tan θ1 –tan θ2)
(a) 1250 rpm (b) 1350 rpm = 5 kW (0.8819 – 0.4843)
(c) 1500 rpm (d) 1410 rpm = 1.99 kVAR
DMRC AM 2020 And rating of capacitor connected in each phase,
Ans. (d) Given that, 1.99
= = 0.663kVAr
Pole (P) = 4, f = 50 Hz 3
slip = 6% = 0.06 353. Generally, Crawling in squirrel cage induction
Now, motor is tendency to run stably at speeds as low
120f 120 × 50 as :
Ns = =
P 4 (a) One-third of their synchronous speed
Ns= 1500 (b) One-fifth of their synchronous speed
N − Nr (c) One-seventh of their synchronous speed
∵s= s (d) One-ninth of their synchronous speed
Ns
APTRANSCO AE 2017
1500 − N r th
0.06 = Ans. (c) : Due to presence of 7 harmonics the torque
1500 slip characteristics is having a saddling effect which
90 = 1500 – N r N
makes motor to run stably at speed around s . If the
Nr = 1410 rpm 7
So, speed of the motor in 1410 rpm. starting torque is high like slip ring induction motor
351. The fractional slip of 3- Φ induction motor is then their is no chances of crawling. To eliminate 7th
the ratio of: harmonic or crawling effect the windings are short
pitched.
(a) rotor copper loss/rotor output
(b) stator copper loss/stator input 354. The torque developed by any 3-phase induction
motor at 0.8 p.u. slip is :
(c) rotor copper loss/ stator copper loss
(a) Full-load torque (b) unstable torque
(d) rotor copper loss/ rotor input
(c) starting torque (d) break down
DMRC AM 2020
APTRANSCO AE 2017
Ans. (b) : Ans. (b) : When one line of 3 − φ induction motor
running with constant load gets opened it starts
operating as open delta configuration. Hence, its line
current increases.
358. An electric developing 10 kW at a speed of 900
rpm. The torque available at the shaft is
(a) 106 N-m (b) 1.7 N-m
(c) 10,000 N-m (d) 450 N-m
Vizag Steel MT 2013
In the unstable region the slip lies from S = 1 to S = Sm, Ans. (a) : Given that,
the motor comes under the pull-out torque region or P = 10 kW
breakdown region. In this region the induction motor N = 900 rpm
become unstable where, the slip in nearly equal to 1. P
T=
355. In a 3-phase slip-ring induction motor, the slip ω
at some speed is 0.05. The speed is reduced by
10 × 103 × 60  2πN 
inserting an external resistance in the rotor T= ∵ ω = 
circuit and the slip is 0.15. If the rotor winding 900 × 2π  60 
resistance per phase is 0.2 Ω, the external T = 106 . 10 N–m
resistance is : T ≅ 106 N − m
(a) 0.2 Ω (b) 0.3 Ω
(c) 0.4 Ω (d) 0.5Ω 359. A 3-phase induction motor while supplying a
APTRANSCO AE 2017 constant load has the fuse of one line suddenly
blows off. The motor will continue to run with
S↑
Ans. (c) : For an induction motor τ∝ line current nearly increased to
R2 ↑ (a) 3 times (b) 6 times
Where, S = slip
(c) 5 times (d) 3 times
1
↑N∝ Vizag Steel MT 2013
I↓
Ans. (d) : 3-φ induction motor to assume that supply
S1 S2 S2 0.15 connection is ∆-∆ in this case current in 3-φ system is–
= ⇒ R2 = × R1 ⇒ × 0.2 = 0.6
R1 R 2 S1 0.05
I L1 = 3 IP .....(1)
∵ R2 = R1 + Rext
If one line is suddenly blow-off then current
∴ Rext = R2 – R1 = 0.6 – 0.2 = 0.4 Ω becomes–
Rext = 0.4 Ω I L2 = 3IP .....(2)
356. The probable speed of a plane three phase
induction motor at full load, when supplied By equation (1) & (2)
from 50 Hz source is IL2 3I
= P
(a) 1250 rpm (b) 1480 rpm IL1 3I P
(c) 1530 rpm (d) 1650 rpm
Vizag Steel MT 2013 I L2 = 3 IL1
120f 120 × 50
Ans. (b) : Ns = = = 1500 IL2 = 3 I L1
P 4
As it could not operate at synchronous speed. So, for 360. For a slip ring induction motor if the rotor
3 − φ IM = 1480 rpm. resistance is increased the
357. When one line of a 3-phase induction motor, (a) starting torque and efficiency decrease.
running with constant load, gets opened, (b) starting torque and efficiency increase.
(a) its speed increases (c) starting torque increases but efficiency
(b) its line current increases decreases.
(c) its stops running (d) starting torque decreases but efficiency
(d) it continues as earlier increases.
Vizag Steel MT 2013 Vizag Steel MT 2013
Ans. (c) : As adding resistance to rotor increases 363. For a three phase induction motor the blocked
starting torque. So efficiency decreases. rotor test is conducted at
(a) Rated voltage and rated current
(b) Rated current and reduced voltage
(c) Rated voltage and reduced current
(d) Reduced voltage and reduced current
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (b) : For a 3-φ induction motor blocked rotor test
is conducted rated current. This test is also called short
KE 22 R 2 circuit test to determined copper loss at rated current. In
Tst = this test supply is given but the rotor is blocked to rotate
R 22 + ( sX 2 )
2
mechanically. In block rotor condition, reduced voltage
As R increases, starting torque increases up to (up to 5% of rated) is required to flow the rated current.
maximum torque but rotor consumes more power so 364. A 3-phase induction motor is operating at slip
copper loss increases and efficiency decreases. s. if its two supply leads are interchanged, then
361. In AC locomotives, squirrel cage induction its slip at that instant will be:
motors are used, the method of speed control (a) 2-s (b) 2+s
is: (c) 1+s (d) 1-s
(a) Pole changing method of speed control OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
(b) Frequency control method of speed control WBPSC AE 2012
(c) Cascade control method of speed control
Ans. (a) : In 3-phase Induction motor slip 's' is given by
(d) Slip control method of speed control
Ns − N r
DMRC AM 2016 s= Where, Ns = synchronous speed
Ans. (b) : In AC locomotives squirrel cage induction Ns
motor the method of speed control is frequency control Nr = rotor speed
method of speed control as :-
Ns Nr
120 × f s= −
NS = Ns Ns
P
So by varying frequency we can vary speed of A.C. Nr
locomotives squirrel cage induction motor. s = 1−
Ns
362. A 6 pole, 50 Hz, 3 phase induction motor runs
at 800 rpm at full load. What is the value of slip Nr
at this load condition? = 1 − s ................ (i)
Ns
(a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) 15% (d) 25% Now, the motor is rotating at speed Nr if the 2 supply
UPSC JWM 2017 leads are interchanged the direction of relative motion
will change and new relative speed will be Ns to Nr.
Ans. (a) : Given that:-
pole (P) = 6 Ns + N r Nr
Now new slip = = 1+
f = 50 Hz Ns Ns
at full load speed of motor (N) = 800 r.p.m. Putting (i) in above
120 × f
∵ Ns(synchronous speed) = Nr
P New slip = 1 + = 1+1− s
120 × 50 Ns
∴ Ns = = 1000 r.p.m.
6 =2-S
N −N 365. A three phase induction motor is supplied with
∵ slip ( s ) = s × 100 a 400 V, 50 Hz AC supply and has a full load
Ns
speed of 940 revolutions per minute. The
1000 − 800
= ×100 number of poles with which the magnetic field
1000 produced by stator current rotates are:
200 (a) 8 (b) 2
= × 100
1000 (c) 4 (d) 6
s = 20% LMRC AM 2018
Ans. (d) : Given that:- Where,
Nr = 940 rpm f = 50 Hz R2 = Rotor resistance
120f X2 = Rotor reactance
Ns = E2 = Rotor emf.
P
Where Therefore,
T s ∝ R2
Nr = Rotor speed
So, starting torque of a wound rotor induction motor can
Ns = synchronous speed
be increase by adding external resistance to rotor
For induction motor Ns > Nr circuit.
120 × 50 368. Direction of rotation of a three-phase cage-type
940 =
p induction motor can be reversed by:
120 × 50 (a) reversing the phase sequence
P=
940 (b) reducing the frequency
P = 6.38 (c) reducing the load
P ≃ 6 pole (d) reducing the voltage
Because rotor run slightly less speed than synchronous LMRC AM 2018
speed. Ans. (a) : Direction of rotation of a 3-phase cage type
366. A three phase induction motor rated for 500 induction motor can be reverse by reversing the phase
sequence.
kW, 400 V, 50 Hz and 6 poles runs at a speed of
960 rpm when fully loaded. Slip of the machine ABC to ACB for the rotation reversed.
will be: 369. A 10kW, 400V, 3 phase induction motor is
(a) 0.04 (b) 0.01 started with direct-on-line starter. The motor
current and power factor at starting will be
(c) 0.02 (d) 0.03
_______ respectively.
LMRC AM 2018
(a) 20A, 0.6 (b) 20A, 0.2
Ans. (a) : Given that:- (c) 120A, 0.2 (d) 120A, 0.6
f = 50 Hz Nr = 960 rpm CIL MT 2017
Pole (P) = 6 Ans. (c) : Power (P) = 10kW
120f Voltage (V) = 400 V
∵ Ns =
P 10000
Current (I) = = 25 A
120 × 50 400
Ns = = 1000 rpm
6 Therefore starting current which reaches to 4 to 6 times
N − Nr i.e. 100 to 150 A
slip (s) = s Hence 120A, 0.2 p.f is most appropriate.
Ns
370. In an induction motor, the meaning of
1000 − 960
s= = 0.04 synchronous wattage means:
1000 (a) combined stator and rotor inputs in watts
slip = 0.04 (b) stator input in watts
(c) shaft output in watts
367. The starting torque of a wound rotor induction
(d) rotor input in watts
motor can be increased by adding:
CIL MT 2017
(a) external capacitance to the rotor circuit
(b) external inductance to the rotor circuit Ans. (d) : The synchronous watt is defined as torque
developed by motor such as power input to rotor across
(c) a combination of inductance and capacitance
the air gap is 1 W while running at synchronous speed.
to the rotor circuit
Torque in IM is given by
(d) external resistance to the rotor circuit
P P I2r
LMRC AM 2018 Te = g = m = 2 2
ωs ωr s ( ωs )
Ans. (d) : Starting torque of a wound rotor induction
motor, Here torque is directly proportional to rotor input by
defining new unit of torque which is synchronous watt
3 E 22 .R 2
Ts = . and that can be written as–
2πN s ( R 22 + X 22 )
1 syn-watt = Te ∝ Pg

371. To avoid cogging in induction motor, the Ans. (d) : Induced emf/rotor phase Er = sE2
number of stator slots should not be ______ the
number of rotor slots. (
= 0.04 × 120 / 3 )
(a) greater than = 2.77 V
(b) dependent on rotor reactance/phase = sX2 = 0.04×1.5 = 0.06 Ω
(c) equal to
rotor impedance/phase = R 22 + ( sX 2 )
2
(d) less than
CIL MT 2017
= 0.32 + 0.06 2
Ans. (c) : In order to reduce or eliminate the process of
= 0.306 Ω
cogging the number of stator slots are never made equal
to the rotor or have an integral ratio. It can also be 2.77
rotor current/phase = = 9A
reduced by skewed rotor. 0.306
372. Which starting method is not used in squirrel 375. A 50-Hz, 8-pole induction motor has F.L. slip
cage induction motors? of 4%. The rotor resistance/phase is 0.01 Ω and
(a) Resistance in stator circuit standstill reactance/phase is 0.1 Ω . Find the
(b) Resistance in rotor circuit ratio of maximum to full-load torque and the
(c) Auto-transformer starting speed at which the maximum torque occurs.
(d) Star-delta starting (a) 1.35 and 700 r.p.m.
CIL MT 2017 (b) 1.75 and 700 r.p.m.
CGPSC AE 2017 (c) 1.45 and 550 r.p.m.
Ans. (b) : Resistance in rotor circuit starting method is (d) 1.65 and 700 r.p.m.
not used in a squirrel cage induction motor because the (e) 1.45 and 675 r.p.m.
rotor of squirrel cage induction motor is short circuited
CGPSC AE 2017
by heavy end rings by which we does not insert the
resistance on rotor circuit. Therefore starting torque of a Tf 2s .s
Ans. (e) : = m f
cage rotor is low as compared slip ring induction motor. T max s 2m + s f2
373. A 50 Hz IM, operating at rated load and sm = R2/x2 = 0.01/0.1 = 0.1
voltage, runs at 290 r.p.m. Find the number of sf = 0.04 (given)
poles in that machine.
Tf 2 × 0.1× 0.04 0.008
(a) 4 (b) 8 = = = 0.69
(c) 12 (d) 16
Tmax ( 0.1)2 + 0.042 0.0116
(e) 20 Tmax 1
CGPSC AE 2017 ∴ = = 1.45
Tf 0.69
Ans. (e) : Given, N = 290 r.p.m.
50
f =50 Hz N s = 120 × = 750rpm s m = 0.1
8
we know,
Nm = (1 - 0.1) × 750
120 f 120 f
N= ⇒P= = 675 rpm
P N
120 × 50 376. A 4-pole, 50-Hz, 3- φ induction motor develops
= = 20.68 ≈ 20
290 a maximum torque of 162.8 N-m at 1365 r.p.m.
374. A 3- φ , slip-ring, induction motor with Y- The resistance of the star connected rotor is
0.2 Ω /phase. Calculate the value of the
connected rotor has an induced e.m.f. of 120V
between slip-rings, at standstill, with normal resistance that must be inserted in series with
voltage applied to the stator. The rotor winding each rotor phase to produce a starting torque
has a resistance per phase of 0.3 Ω and equal to half the maximum torque.
standstill leakage reactance per phase of 1.5 Ω . (a) 0.1 Ω
Find the rotor current/ph when running SC (b) 0.2 Ω
rotor with 4% slip. (c) 0.3 Ω
(a) 3 A (b) 5 A (d) 0.4 Ω
(c) 7 A (d) 9 A (e) 0.5 Ω
(e) 11 A
CGPSC AE 2017
CGPSC AE 2017
120 × 50 (a) 861.6 r.p.m. (b) 1161.6 r.p.m.
Ans. (d) : N s = = 1500 rpm
4 (c) 1061.6 r.p.m. (d) 961.6 r.p.m.
N = 1365 rpm (e) 1261.6 r.p.m.
∴slip corresponding to maximum torque is CGPSC AE 2017
(1500 −1365) (1200 − 1140) = 0.05
Sb = = 0.09 Ans. (b) : Here S1 =
1500 1200
s2 = s1 ( V1 / V2 )
2
0.2
Sb= R2/X2 ∴ X2 = = 2.22 Ω
0.09
= 0.05 × (440/550)2 = 0.032
KφE 2 K
Tmax= = 1 (Where K1= K φ E2) N2 = 1200(1 - 0.032)
2X 2 2X 2
= 1161.6 rpm
K1
= = 0.225 K1 379. A 50 Hz IM, which is operated at rated load
2 × 222 and voltage, runs at 290 r.p.m. Find the slip.
Let 'r' be the external resistance introduced per phase in (a) 5% (b) 2.5%
the rotor circuit then, (c) 3.33% (d) 6.66%
KφE 2 ( R 2 + r ) (e) 10%
Starting torque Tst =
( R 2 + r ) + ( X2 )
2 2
CGPSC AE 2017
K1 ( 0.2 + r ) Ans. (c) : Given Nr = 290 r.p.m., Let f = 50 Hz
= 120f
( 0.2 + r ) + ( 0.2 / 0.09 ) Nr =
2 2
P
1 × f 120 × 50 600
Tst = Tmax ( given ) P=
120
= = = 20.6
2 Nr 290 29
K ( 0.2 + r ) 0.225 P = 20 Pole
∴ = K
( ) ( )
2 2
0.2 + r + 0.2 / 0.09 2 120 × f 120 × 50
Now Ns = = = 300 r.p.m.
then r = 0.4 Ω P 20
377. A 440-V, 50-Hz, 4-pole, 3-phase IM develops a  N − N 300 − 290 
Slip ( s ) = S = = 3.33% 
torque of 100 N-m at a speed of 1200 r.p.m. If  NS 300
 
the stator supply frequency is reduced by half,
calculate the new speed at a torque of 100 Nm. 380. In star/delta starting of a 3-phase induction
(a) 1000 r.p.m. (b) 1500 r.p.m. motor, the starting voltage is reduced to:
(c) 1050 r.p.m. (d) 1100 r.p.m. (a) 3 times of normal voltage
(e) 750 r.p.m. (b) 3 times the normal voltage
CGPSC AE 2017 1
(c) of normal voltage
Ans. (c) : Synchronous speed at 50 Hz frequency 3
120 × 50 1
= (d) times of normal voltage
4 3
= 1500 rpm BHEL ET 2019
Hence slip speed for a torque of 100 N-m Ans. (c) : At the time of starting when the stator
= 1500 − 1200 winding are star connected each stator phase gets a
= 300 rpm V
voltage L where VL is the line voltage and starting
Now synchronous speed at 25 Hz = 1500/2 3
= 750 rpm torque is reduced to one-third of the starting torque
Since slip-speed has to be the same for the same obtained with direct switching in delta.
torque irrespective of the frequency the new speed at 381. For a 3-phase slip-ring induction motor, the
100 N-m is = 750 + 300 electrical rotor losses are proportional to
= 1050 rpm (a) Synchronous speed
378. A 400-V, 60-Hz, 8-pole, 3- φ induction motor (b) Air gap power
runs at a speed of 1140 r.p.m. when connected (c) Slip
440-V line calculate the speed if voltage (d) None of the above
increase to 550V. ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020
Ans. (c) : For a 3-phase slip ring induction motor, the Ans. (c) :
electrical rotor losses are
Prcu = sPg
Where Prcu = rotor copper loss

s = slip
pg = air-gap power
Thus, the rotor copper loss is equal to slip times the
Starting torque of a three-phase squirrel cage induction
rotor input (air-gap power). The term sPg is known as
motor at rated voltage is 100% to 200% of the rated
slip power, because it is proportional to the slip for a
given value of Pg. torque as T ∝ V 2 .
382. The blocked-rotor test of squirrel-cage 384. No load test on a three-phase squirrel cage
induction motor determines? induction motor at rated voltage is performed
to obtain:
(a) Its equivalent series resistance and reactance
(a) Stator and rotor resistance and reactance
as seen from the stator
(b) Series branch parameters of equivalent circuit
(b) Its equivalent shunt resistance and reactance
(c) Copper and core losses
as seen from the stator
(d) Shunt branch parameters of equivalent circuit
(c) Its equivalent series resistance and reactance DMRC AM 2016
as seen from the rotor
Ans. (d) : No load test on a 3 − φ squirrel cage
(d) Its equivalent shunt resistance and reactance
induction motor is done to obtain shunt branch
as seen from the rotor parameters of equivalent circuit
Ans. (a) : Block rotor test of squirrel cage induction
motor determines its equivalent series resistance and
reactance as seen from the stator i.e.
Equivalent resistance of the motor referred to stator
Psc
R e1 =
Isc2
385. An induction motor has a rotor resistance of
Where, Psc = short circuit power 0.002 Ohm per phase. If the resistance is
Isc = short circuit current increased to 0.004 Ohm per phase, then the
Equivalent impedance of the motor referred to stator maximum torque:
(a) Increases by 200%
Vsc
Ze1 = (b) Increases by 100%
Isc
(c) Remains unaltered
Where Vsc = short circuit voltage. (d) Reduces to half
Equivalent reactance of the motor referred to stator DMRC AM 2016
Ans. (c) : Maximum torque of an induction motor :-
(Z ) − (R )
2 2
X e1 = e1 e1
E2
383. Starting torque of a three-phase squirrel cage τmax = K. N.m K = Constant
2X
induction motor at rated voltage is: 1
τmax ∝ X = Reactance
(a) 30% to 40% of the rated torque 2X
(b) The rated torque ∴ The maximum torque is independent of rotor
(c) 100% to 200% of the rated torque resistance and is inversely proportional to rotor
(d) 5 to 7 times of the rated torque reactance (X) so, if we increase the rotor resistance the
maximum torque will be unaltered.
DMRC AM 2016
386. A4- pole, 3-phase induction motor operates Ans. : (a) Reactance due to the rotor flux lines that do
from a supply whose frequency is 50Hz. not also couples with the stator windings. Rotor leakage
Calculate the speed of the speed of the rotor reactance of a three phase induction motor is affected
and frequency of the rotor currents when the by reducing the rms. value of the supply voltage at rate
frequency.
slip is 0.04.
Rotor reactance of induction motor
(a) N = 1450 rpm and frequency is 4 Hz
X r = 2πf r L
(b) N = 1440 rpm and frequency is 48 Hz
(c) N = 1460 rpm and frequency is 4 Hz Where Xr = rotor leakage reactance
(d) N = 1440 rpm and frequency is 2 Hz fr = rotor frequency.
389. When a 3- phase induction motor is supplied
with balanced 3- phase has supply, it produces
Ans. (d) : P=4, f = 50 Hz, S = 0.04 a rotating magnetic field of magnitude:
120 f 120 × 50 (a) Twice the peak value of the flux due to any
NS = =
P 4 individual phase
Rotor Speed (b) 0.5 times the peak value of the flux due to
any individual phase
Nr = NS(1-S)
(c) 1.5 times the peak value of the flux due to
= 1500(1-0.04) any individual phase
Nr = 1440 rpm (d) Equal to the peak value of the flux due to any
rotor frequency individual phase
fr = sf UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
= 0.04×50 Ans. : (c) The production of rotating magnetic field in
fr = 2 Hz 3 phase supply is very interesting. It can be shown that
magnitude of rotating field is constant and is equal to
387. Slip of an induction motor does not depend on 1.5 φ m. Where. φ m= maximum flux due to any phase.
(a) Shaft torque A three phase Induction motor consist of three phase
(b) Speed of stator field winding.
(c) Core-loss component 390. An 8 pole alternator runs at 750 rpm. It
(d) Speed of motor supplies power to 6 pole induction motor,
which has full load slip of 4%. Full load speed
of the motor is
GOA PSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2019
(a) 705 rpm (b) 750 rpm
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II (c) 960 rpm (d) 970 rpm
NS − N ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019
Ans : (c) Slip =
NS Ans. (c) : For alternator,
Where, Ns = synchronous speed, N = Rotor speed 120f
Ns = = 750 rpm
P
Slip depends on NS.
∵ P = 8 (given)
Slip depends on N(rotor speed)
∴ f = 50 Hz
If torque increases N- decreases.
Slip will not depend on core loss component
388. The parameter of an equivalent circuit of a
three-phase induction motor affected by We know,
reducing the rms value of the supply voltage at Nr = Ns (1 – S)
the rate frequency is; 120f
Ns = for induction motor
(a) Rotor leakage reactance P
(b) Stator resistance f = 50 Hz [cascaded to alternator]
(c) Rotor resistance 120 × 50
Ns = = 1000 rpm
(d) magnetizing reactance 6
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I Nr = 1000 (1 – 0.04) = 960 rpm
391. A 3 phase induction machine draws 1000 kVA Ans. (d) :
at a power factor of 0.866 lag. A synchronous Given:
condenser is connected in parallel to draw an S2 = 0.08
additional power of 750 kVA at a leading pf of
0.707. The power factor of the total load S'2 = 0.02
supplied by the mains is We know that,
(a) 0.95 lag (b) 0.99 lead 3I22 R 2  I 2 = rotor current 
(c) 0.90 lag (d) 0.95 lead torque α  
Sωs  S=slip 
Ans. (b) : I22 ∝ S
As for Torque is same,
s I22 I′22
For induction motor:- =
S2 S′2
P1 = S cos φ
( 6 )2 I′22 36 × 0.02
( )
2
= 1000 × 0.866 kW = 866 kW = = I'2 =
θ1 = P tan φ 0.08 0.02 0.08
= 866 tan [cos–1 0.866] = 500 kVAR (I ) ' 2
2 =9
For condenser
I′2 = 3A
P2 = S cos φ
= 750 × 0.707 kW = 530.25 kW 393. Double cage induction motors are used for
θ2 = –P tan φ [∵ leading power factor] (a) High staring torque
(b) Better speed control
θ2 = –530.25 tan [cos–1 0.707]
(c) High running torque
θ2 = –530.25
total active power of the system (PT) = P1 + P2
= (866 + 530.25) kW
Ans. (a) : Double- Cage Induction motors: An
(PT) = 1396.25 kW
induction motor with two rotor winding or cage is used
Total reactive power (QT) = Q1 + Q2
for obtaining high starting torque at low starting current.
(QT) = 500 – 530.25
Therefore, it is more suitable for direct online starting.
= 30.25 kVAR
Pull out torque of a double cage motor smaller than that
–30.25 = 1396.25 tan φ
of a single-cage motor because two cage produced
Cos φ = 0.99 lead [as reactive power is negative, ∴
maximum torque at different speed.
leading pf]
394. In an induction motor r2′ is the rotor resistance.
392. A 3 phase, 4 pole, 400 V, 10 kW slip ring
induction motor has rotor resistance = 0.16 Ω What is the resistance representing mechanical
output in the equivalent circuit of an induction
per phase and stator resistance of 0.27 Ω per
phase. The voltage across the slip rings at motor as referred to stator side?
standstill is 141 V per phase. The motor 1 
(a) r2′  − 1
develops a torque of 62.4 Nm at a slip of 0.08 s 
and the rotor current is 6 A. What is the rotor
(b) r22 / s
current if a voltage is injected to the rotor so
that the motor runs at slip s = 0.02 and 1 
(c) r22  − 1
develops same torque? s 
(a) 6 A (b) 5 A (d) r2′ / s
(c) 4 A (d) 3 A
KPTCL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : Exact equivalent circuit diagram of an 396. Two Induction motors A and B are identical
induction motor referred to stator is- except that the air gap of motor A is 50%
greater than that of motor B then–
(a) The no-load pf of Motor A will be better than
that of Motor B
(b) The no-load pf of Motor A will be poorer
than that of Motor B
(c) The core losses of Motor A will be more than
those of Motor B
Where, (d) The operating flux
r2' = rotor resistance
ESE 1997
x '2 = rotor reactance Ans. (b) : Due to the presence of large air gap, motor A
x1 = stator reactance will take more magnetizing current for same core loss.
r1= stator resistance Therefore, power factor will be poorer. No load power
R0 = shunt resistance R I
factor cos φ = = w
Xm= magnetizing reactance Z I0
I1 = stator current
since, Z = R 2 + X 2m
I2 = rotor current
and Xm increase due to presence of air gap so, overall
I0 = No load current
value of Z increase then P.F. will decrease.
Iw = Active component of no load current
397. Power supply to a 10 pole induction motor is
Im = magnetizing current
supplied by 4 pole alternator which is driven at
s = slip
1500 RPM. If the motor runs with slip of 4%,
E1 = Induced emf of stator what is its speed?
'
E 2 = Induced emf of the rotor (a) 750 RPM (b) 576 RPM
(c) 600 RPM (d) 240 RPM
395. A change of 5% in supply voltage to an ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015
induction motor will produce a change of
Ans. (b) :
approximately–
Given
(a) 5% in the rotor torque
Number of poles, P = 4
(b) 7.5% in the rotor torque
Speed, N = 1500 RPM
(c) 10% in the rotor torque
Now, the frequency will be
(d) 25% in the rotor torque
P× N
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 f =
120
Ans. (d) : Given that- 4 ×1500 4 ×1500
Rotor torque (T1) = T N-m f = = = 50Hz
120 120
% change in rotor torque (T2) = ? Also given that slip, S = 0.04
Supply voltage (V1) = V Volt Then, the slip speed is given by:
% change in supply voltage (V2) = 5V Volt 120 × f 120 × 50
for induction motor rotor torque- NS = = = 600RPM
P 10
T ∝ V2 Thus, the speed of induction motor is given by:
N − Nr 600 − N r
S= S , 0.04 =
2
T2  V2 
=  NS 600
T1  V1 
24 = 600 − N r
2
T2  5V  N r = 600 − 24 = 576RPM
= 
T  V 
398. A 3 phase induction motor draws active power
T2 = 25 T% P and reactive power Q from grid. If it is
Thus if supply voltage change 5% then rotor torque will operating as a generator, P and Q will
change 25% of previous value. respectively be–
(a) Positive and negative 401. With V/f ratio keeping constant, if the
(b) Positive and positive frequency is decreased below the base value
(c) Negative and negative and the voltage is decreased proportionally, is
(d) Negative and positive fed to an Induction motor, its starting torque
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 and the peak torque for variable frequency and
voltages will be–
ESE 1997
(a) Both starting torque and peak torque will
Ans. (d) : Considering the given motoring conditions as remain constant
positive, induction generator always takes reactive
(b) Starting torque will increase and the peak
power from system and delivers active power to system. torque remains constant
So, direction of active power will reverse for the
(c) Starting torque will remain constant and peak
induction generator. Reactive power direction will be
torque will vary
same, that is, from supply to machine for both motor
(d) Both starting torque and peak torque will
and generator. So, active power P is negative and
decrease
reactive power Q is positive.
399. Thrust developed by a linear induction motor
Ans. (b) : Torque produced by an induction motor:
depends on–
(a) Synchronous speed 3 SE 2 R
T= × 2 2 2 2
(b) Rotor input 2πN s R 2 + (SX 2 )
(c) Rotor input and synchronous speed For starting, S = 1
(d) Number of poles 3 E2R
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 Tst = × 22 2 2
2πNs R 2 + X 2
Ans. (c) : A thrust produced by a linear induction motor
is factor of the supplied voltage the amount of slip and When, we decrease the frequency the reactance and
the size of the air gap as well as the influence of end synchronous speed are decreases. Thus, denominator of
starting torque decreases, which will increase the
effects. Therefore, thrust developed by an linear
starting torque.
induction motor depends on rotor input and
synchronous speed. 402. The inertia constant of the two machines which
A linear induction motor offer high continuous thrust are not swing together at M1 and M2. The
forces, high speed and acceleration rates. equivalent inertia constant of the system is–
(a) M1 – M2 (b) M1 + M2
400. A three phase induction motor running at 1440
(c) M1 M2 /(M1 + M2) (d) M1M2/(M1 - M2)
rpm on rated supply will run at the following
rpm when fuse of one phase gets burnt– ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
(a) 1440 (b) 1380 Ans. (c) : (c) The equivalent inertia constant for two
(c) 1500 (d) zero machines swing together is given by:
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 1 1 1
= +
M eq M1 M 2
Ans. (b) : When one phase of an 3−φ induction motor is
lost, due to blown fuse, thermal overload or broken 1 M + M1
= 2
wire, then it is called single phasing. In this case, the M eq M1M 2
induction motor behaves as a single-phase induction
M1M 2
motor. M eq =
The motor will run at reduced voltage and reduced M1 + M 2
efficiency. During this condition, the motor rotates at a So, option (c) is correct.
slip double as compared to healthy case. Thus, by the 403. A 3-phase induction motor is driving full-load
given running speed of 1440 rpm, we can assume the torque which is independent of speed. If line
synchronous speed of the motor to be 1500 rpm. voltage drops to 90% of the rated value,
Now, slip speed of healthy motor = 1500 – 1440 = 60 percentage increase in motor copper losses–
rpm. (a) 23% (b) –18%
Therefore, during single phasing, the motor will run (c) 123% (d) 25%
with slip speed 120 rpm. ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017
Therefore, the running speed will become: CGPSC AE 2017
= 1500 – 120 = 1380 rpm ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013
Ans. (a) : According to the question, the following table When resistance is equal to reactance, maximum torque
is as shown below: occurs. So this maximum torque can be obtained at the
starting by setting value of slip equal to 1. Therefore,
the starting torque of a slip ring induction motor can be
increased by adding external resistance to the rotor.
406. The synchronous speed of a four-pole induction
motor operating at 50 Hz is–
(a) 25 rps (b) 1560 rpm
(c) 3000 rpm (d) 1000 rpm
Ans. (a) : Given that supply frequency (f) = 50Hz
No. of poles (P) = 4
120f
Synchronous speed, (NS) =
P
120 × 50
404. For controlling the speed of an induction motor = 1500 rpm (1500 revolution per minute)
4
the frequency of supply is increased by 10%.
For magnetizing current to remain the same, 1500
= revolution per second
the supply voltage must– 60
(a) Be reduced by 10% NS = 25 rps.
(b) Remain constant Directions : Consists of two statements, one labelled as
(c) Be increased by 10% 'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine
(d) Be reduced or increased by 20% these two statements carefully and select the answers to
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013 these items using the codes given below:
Ans. (c) : We know that magnetizing current is Codes:
proportional to flux.
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
Now, according to voltage equation,
individually true and Statement (II) is the
V = 4.44Nφf
V
φ= = constant (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
f individually true but Statement (II) is not the
So, if frequency is increased by 10%, voltage is also to correct explanation of Statement (I)
be increased by 10% so that flux remains constant and
since, magnetizing current is proportional to flux, so, (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
magnetizing current will also be constant. (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
405. The starting torque of a slip ring induction 407. Statement (I):
motor can be increased by– The maximum torque of an induction motor is
(a) Adding external resistance to rotor independent of rotor resistance.
(b) Adding external inductance to rotor Statement (II):
(c) Adding external capacitance to rotor The slip at which the maximum torque occurs is
(d) Adding external RLC circuit to rotor directly proportional to rotor resistance.
Ans. (a) : Value of maximum torque does not depend
R
on rotor resistance, but slip at which maximum one Ans. (b) : Maximum Torque (Tm) occurs at S =
torque occurs depends on rotor resistance. X
where S is slip, thus S ∝ R
The torque produced in the induction motor depends on
three factors.
Strength of rotor current
Flux interaction between rotor current
Power factor of rotor.

Directions : Consists of two statements, one labelled as Codes:
'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine (a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
these two statements carefully and select the answers to
Codes:
individually true; but Statement (II) is
(I)
individually true but Statement (II) is not the (c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is
correct explanation of Statement (I) false
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false (d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement (II) is
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true true
408. Statement (I) : 410. Statement (I) : A very efficient method of speed
A 3-phase induction motor is a self-starting control of an induction motor is to vary both V
machine. V
and f in such a way that ratio remains
Statement (II) : f
A star-delta starter is used to produce starting constant.
torque for the induction motor. V
Statement (II) : Keeping constant allows the
ESE 2017 f
Ans. (c) : 3-phase induction motors are self-starting and magnetic flux to remain constant and a reduced V
Star-Delta is used to reduce starting current by reduces the inrush of starting current.
connecting winding in star at the time of starting. ESE 2018
Directions : Consists of two statements, one labelled as Ans. (a) : During V/f control technique of speed
'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine control, the voltage also reduced along with frequency
these two statements carefully and select the answers to such that V/F = Constant until V/F is constant, the air
these items using the codes given below: gap flux is also maintained constant there by, Iron
Codes: losses will be reduced during speed control and
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are efficiency increased.
individually true and Statement (II) is the 411. A 400V, 50 Hz, 30 hp, three phase induction
motor is drawing 50A current at 0.8 power
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are factor lagging. The stator and rotor copper
losses are 1.5 kW and 900W respectively. The
friction and windage losses are 1050W and the
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
core losses are 1200W. The air gap power of
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true the motor will be, nearly
409. Statement (I): (a) 15 kW (b) 20 kW
Leakage reactance of the lower cage in a double-
(c) 25 kW (d) 30 kW
squirrel-cage motor is considerably higher than
that of the upper cage. ESE 2018
Statement (II): Ans. (c) : Given data :-
The lower cage has high permeance for leakage Voltage = 400 V, 50 Hz, 30 H.P., 3φ Induction motor
flux. I = 50A, Power Factor = 0.8 lag
ESE 2017 Pinput = 3VI cos φ
Ans. (a) : The lower cage has high permeance for
= 3 × 400 × 50 × 0.8
leakage flux thus leakage reactance of the lower cage in
double-squirrel-cage motor is considerably higher than= 27712.81W
that of upper cage. or pinput = 27.713 kW
airgap power,
Directions:
Pg = Pinput - stator cu loss - core loss
= 27.713 − 41.5 − 1.2
(I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these
two statements carefully and select the answers to = 25.013 kW
these items using the codes given below : = 25 kW

412. When the value of slip of an induction motor Ans. (c) : From the Question Pout = 37 kW,
approaches zero, the effective resistance efficiency = 0.9
(a) is very low and the motor is under no-load Pout 37
(b) of the rotor circuit is very high and the motor ∵ Pin = = = 41.11kW
efficiency 0.9
is under no-load
(c) is zero
Total losses Present in I.M.
(d) of the rotor circuit is infinity and the motor is
equivalent to short circuited two-winding (1) Stator copper loss = pcu
transformer (2) Rotor copper loss = Pcu
ESE 2018 (3) Iron loss = Pcu
Ans. (b) : The value of slip is zero when rotor speed is 1
(4) Mechanical loss = (No load loss)
almost synchronous speed Ns. 3
This is only possible at no load condition of Induction No load loss = Iron loss + Mechanical loss
motor so the value of effective resistance- 3 × Mechanical loss = Iron loss + Mechanical loss
r Iron loss Pcu
= 2 since S = 0. The value of effective resistance is Mechanical loss = =
S 2 2
infinite, i.e. open circuit. Total loss = 4 kW
413. A 4-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor with P
Pcu + Pcu + Pcu + cu = 4kW
a rotor resistance of 0.25Ω develops a 2
maximum torque of 25 N.m at 1400 rpm. The 4
rotor reactance x2 and slip at maximum torque Pcu = = 1.14kW
3.5
Smax, T respectively would be
Air gap power = pin - Pstator loss
1 1
(a) 2.0 and (b) 3.75 and = 41 - (1.14 + 1.14)
15 12
= 38.7kW
1 1
(c) 2.0 and (d) 3.75 and P 1.14
12 15 Slip = cu = = 0.029 ≃ 0.03
ESE 2018 p ag 38.7
Ans. (d) : for given 3- φ induction motor 415. In an induction motor for a fixed speed at
120f 120 × 50 constant frequency
Ns = = = 1500rpm (a) Both line current and torque are proportional
P 4
Given that, at maximum torque condition, to voltage
Nr (rotor speed) = 1400 rpm (b) Both line current and torque are proportional
to the square of voltage
N − N r 1500 − 1400 1
Sm = s = = (c) Line current is proportional to voltage and
Ns 1500 15 torque is proportional to the square of
Also, at maximum torque condition voltage
R 2 = Sm X 2 (d) Line current is constant and torque is
1 proportional to voltage
∴ 0.25 = X 2 ESE 2018
15
or X2 = 15 × 0.25 = 3.75 Ω Ans. (c) : In an induction motor, for a fixed speed at
or X2 = 3.75 Ω constant frequency :-
Speed = constant, ∴ slip = constant, Frequency =
414. A 3-phase, 37 kW induction motor has an
constant
efficiency of 90% when delivering full load. At
this load the stator copper losses and rotor We know that, torque τ = 3 V2 R2
.
ωS r 2
e 2
copper losses are equal and are equal to stator S
2
+ X 22
iron losses. The mechanical losses are one-third S
of no-load losses. Then the motor runs at a slip Te ∝V2
of For constant slip and frequency,
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.02 Impedance = Constant
(c) 0.03 (d) 0.04
∴ I = V/Z. I ∝ V
ESE 2018
416. A 3-phase induction motor drives a blower Ans. (b) : Cogging also called magnetic locking
where load torque is directly proportional to magnetic locking occurs of the number of stator slots
speed squared. If the motor operates at 1450 are an integral multiple of rotor slots.
rpm, the maximum current in terms of rated Directions : Each of the next six (06) items consists of
current will be nearly two statements, one labelled as 'Statement (I)' and the
(a) 2.2 (b) 3.4 other labelled as 'Statement (II)'. You are to examine
(c) 4.6 (d) 6.8 these two statements carefully and select the answer to
ESE 2019 these items using the codes given below:
NS − N r 1500 − 1450
Ans. (a) : S = =
NS 1500 Codes:
S = 0.033 (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the correct
Slip at which T2 is maximum for blower type load
explanation of Statement (I).
(TL∝ ω2) is S = 1 (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
3
individually true and Statement (II) is not the
1 2
× correct explanation of Statement (I)
I 2max 3 3
= (c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false.
I 2rated 0.033 × (1 − 0.033)
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true.
= (I2)max = 2.2 I2rated 419. Statement (I) :
417. A 500 hp, 6-pole, 3-phase, 440V, 50Hz In a three-phase induction motor, the maximum
induction motor has a speed of 950 rpm on full torque is directly proportional to standstill
load. The full load slip and the number of reactance.
cycles the rotor voltage makes per minutes will Statement (II) :
be respectively In a three-phase induction motor, the speed or the
(a) 10% and 150 (b) 10% and 125 slip at which maximum torque occurs is
(c) 5% and 150 (d) 5% and 125 determined by the rotor resistance.
ESE 2019 ESE 2020
Ans. (c) : 6 pole, 50 Hz, I.M. Ans. (d) : • Maximum torque in a 3-phase induction
120 × 50 motor is given by
So, Ns =
6 3  V2 
= 1000 rpm Tmax =  ' 
ωs  2X 2 
full load given as 950 rpm
N − Nr where, ωs = synchronous speed
∴ %slip = s × 100 V = supply voltage
Ns
X '2 = standstill leakage reactance of rotor.
 1000 − 950 
=  ×100 1
 1000  ⇒ Tmax ∝ '
= 0.05 × 100 = 5% X2
Rotor voltage frequency: Statement -I – correct.
s × f = 0.05 × 50 • Slip for maximum torque is given by
= 2.5 Hz R '2 R 2
= 2.5 cycles/sec ST max = =
X '2 X 2
= 2.5×60 cycles/min
where R2 = rotor resistance
= 150 cycles/min
Statement-II = correct
418. Cogging in an induction motor is caused
420. In a closed loop control of squirrel cage
(a) If the number of stator are unequal to number
induction motor, the field oriented control
of rotor slots
strategy implemented is
(b) If the number of stator slots are an integral
(a) Scalar control
multiple of rotor slots
(c) If the motor is running at fraction of its rated (b) Vector control
speed (c) Adaptive control
th
(d) Due to 5 harmonic (d) Frequency control
ESE 2019 ESE 2020
Ans. (b) : Vector control, also called field-oriented Ans. (d) : The deep bar rotor on double cage rotor of an
control (FOC) is a variable frequency drive (VFD) induction motor are used to increase starting torque.
control method in which the stator current of a three The deep bar rotor on double cage rotor of an induction
phase AC electric motor are identified as two motor are used to increase starting torque of squirrel
orthogonal component that can be visualized with a cage induction motor. The double rotor has two cages in
vector. which rotor winding is accommodated. The resistance
421. A 3-phase, 400/200 V Y – Y connected wound- of upper cage winding more than the inner cage
rotor induction motor has 0.06 Ω rotor winding.
resistance and 0.3 Ω standstill reactance per- Therefore the motor produces higher starting torque.
phase. To make the starting torque equal to the 425. In a constant v/f induction motor drive, the slip
maximum torque, the additional resistance at the maximum torque.
required in the rotor circuit will be (a) is directly proportional to the synchronous
(a) 0.24 Ω/phase (b) 0.34 Ω/phase speed
(c) 0.42 Ω/phase (d) 0.52 Ω/phase (b) remains constant with respect to the
ESE 2020 synchronous speed
(c) has an inverse relation with the synchronous
Ans. (a) : To make starting Ts = Tm MHz torque
speed
Slip for Tm : Sm = 1
(d) has no relation with the synchronous speed.
R
Sm = 2 = 1 MPPSC AE 2017
X2
Ans. (c) : In a constant v/F induction motor drive, the
0.06 + R ext slip at the maximum torque has on inverse relation with
= =1
0.30 the synchronous speed.
Rext = 0.24 Ω  Ns − N r 
422. A delta-connected induction motor is to be  ∝S
 Ns 
operated in V/f control is fed by a threephase
voltage source inverter. During the start this 1
S∝
induction motor drive requires N s
(a) DOL starter (b) star-delta starter 426. In VFD of induction motor, if stator frequency
(c) auto-transformer (d) delta-star starter is varied till its rated frequency, then drive
UPPCL AE 2014 operates in
Ans. (a) : During the start this induction motor drive (a) constant torque region
requires direct on line starter. (b) constant power region
423. Variation of supply frequency for speed control (c) (1) and (2) both
of induction motor is generally carried out with (d) None of the above
(a) V1/f constant (b) V1 constant Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
(c) V1 * f constant (d) V1+f constant Ans. (a) : In VFD of induction motor, if stator
UPPCL AE 2014 frequency is varied till its rated frequency, then drive
Ans. (a) : Variation of supply frequency for speed operates in constant torque region.
control of induction motor generally carried out with
(V1/f) constant.
V
φ ∝ 1 flux constant
f
424. The deep bar rotor on double cage rotor of an
induction motor are used
(a) To increase pull out – torque
(b) To reduce rotor core loss
(c) To improve efficiency
(d) To increase starting torque
UPPCL AE 2014
427. A linear induction motor has 98 poles and a Ans. (b) :
pole pitch of 50 cm. Determine the synchronous
speed and the vehicle speed in km/hr, if
frequency is 50 Hz and slip is 0.25
(a) 180 km/hr, 135 km/hr
(b) 135 km/hr, 180 km/hr
(c) 180 km/hr, 130 km/hr
(d) 185 km/hr, 135 km/hr
Ans. (a) : Synchronous speed (Vs) = 2Tp × f
= 2Tpf
where Tp = pole pitch
f = supply frequency
Vs = 2 × 50 × 10-2 × 50
Vs = 50 m/s
18
Ns = Vs = 50 × = 180 km/h
5
Vehicle speed (V) = (1 − slip ) × synchronous speed
= (1-s) Ns The family of torque–slip characteristics of 3-phase
= (1- 0.25) × 180 induction motor have curve at different value of rotor
= 135 km/h resistance.
428. VFD for induction motor control is popularly the maximum running torque is independent of the
used in industries because value of rotor resistance, So it is remains the same.
(a) VFD allows direct connection of stator Therefore, the addition of resistance to the rotor circuit
terminals to input supply terminals of grid does not change the value of maximum running torque
(b) VFD allows energy conservation and smooth but it is only change the value of slip at which
control of speed KsE 22 R 2
(c) VFD is the only method which is available maximum torque occurs Tr =
R 22 + ( SX 2 )
2
commercially
(d) All the above Where Tr = running torque
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I Note- (i) the maximum running torque is independent
Ans. (b) : VFD allow energy conservation and smooth on the rotor resistance.
control of speed because VFD have the lowest starting (ii) The maximum running torque varies inversely with
current of any starter type and reduce thermal and the standstill reactance. Hence it should be kept as small
mechanical stresses on motors and belts. as possible.
429. In the diagram given below, the family of (iii) The maximum running torque varies directly with
torque-slip characteristics of 3-phase inductionsquare of the applied voltage.
motor have curves at (iv) for obtaining maximum torque at starting (s=1),
rotor resistance must be equal to rotor reactance.
430. The equivalent circuit of a double cage rotor
induction motor is equivalent to two rotor
circuits connected in
(a) Parallel (b) Series
(c) Series-parallel (d) Either 1 or 2
ESE 2008
` Ans. (a) : The equivalent circuit of double cage rotor
(a) different values of input voltage induction motor is equivalent to two rotor circuit
(b) different values of rotor resistance connected in parallel. This arrangement is used for
(c) Different values of input frequency obtaining high starting torque at low value of starting
(d) different values of rotor reactance current. the stator of a double cage rotor of an induction
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I motor is same as that of a normal induction motor.
Ans. (a) : The best method of control of speed of a 3-
phase induction motor over a wide range, variable
voltage , variable frequency control.
Variable frequency control is a method which is used to
control the speed of an induction motor. The
synchronous speed and therefore, the speed of the motor
can be controlled by varying the supply frequency.
120 f
Ns =
Equivalent circuit diagram of double cage rotor P
induction motor. 433. Star-delta starting of 3-phase induction motor
' '
Where I 2u and I 2 ℓ are the currents in upper and lower is equivalent to auto-transformer starting with
cages respectively referred to the stator. (a) 85% tapping (b) 58 % tapping
(c) 52 % tapping (d) 33% tapping
R '2u and R '2ℓ are the resistance of upper and lower
cases referred to the stator. Ans. (b) : The starting torque will 1/3 times that is will
X '2u and X '2ℓ are leakage reactance of the two cagesbe for delta connected winding. Hence a star-delta
1
referred to the stator of the motor. starter is equivalent to an auto-transformer of ratio
3
431. A 50 Hz induction motor operates well on 60
or 58% reduced voltage.
Hz supply provided its terminal voltage is
(a) Reduced to 5/6 of its name-plate rating 434. The length of gap between stator and rotor of
an induction motor is made as small as
(b) Raised to 2/3 of its name-plate rating
practicable because otherwise
(c) Raised to 6/5 (ie. 120%) of its name-plate
(a) The magnetizing current will be more
rating
(b) The ball bearing which can match the
(d) Does not operate at all respective stator and rotor may not be
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I available
V (c) The power factor will be zero
Ans. (c) : In induction motor is constant.
f (d) The labour cost during manufacturing
increases
V1 V2
= (where V1 = terminal voltage) Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
f1 f2
Ans. (a) : Smaller air gap results to smaller energy loss
230 V2
= and higher efficiency the total flux linkage between
50 60 stator and rotor increases as the air gap decreases.
60 Higher flux linkage leads to lower energy loss thus
V2 = × 230
50 increase the efficiency.
6 435. The speed control method of induction motor
V2 = × 230
5 by changing the number of stator poles is easily
6 applicable to
V2 = × terminal voltage × 100 (a) Slip-ring induction motor of large rating only
5
V2=120% of terminal voltage. (b) Squirrel-cage induction motor only
(c) Both, slip-ring and squirrel-cage induction
432. The best method of control of speed of a 3-
motors
phase induction motor over a wide range,
(d) Wound-rotor motors of small rating only
amongst the given options is
(a) variable voltage, variable frequency control
Ans. (b) : The speed control of induction motor by
(b) rotor resistance control
changing the number of stator poles is easily applicable
(c) Pole changing to squirrel –cage induction motor only because the cage
(d) input voltage control rotor automatically develops a numbers of poles which
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I is equal to the poles of stator winding.
436. At full load, the speed of an induction motor is Ans. (c) : In a split phase motor, the running winding
(a) more than its synchronous speed should have low resistance and high inductance.
(b) same as its synchronous speed Because after starting of motor only running winding
(c) half of its synchronous speed remains connected to the load and running winding
(d) slightly less than its synchronous speed carries full load current thus it's resistance should be
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I low.
Ans. (d) : At full load, the speed of an induction motor 2. In a double revolving field theory of single
is slightly less than its synchronous speed because phase induction motor, if the slip of the
forward motor is 'S', then the slip of backward
120f
Ns = motor is:
P (a) 2S (b) S
Where Ns →Synchronous speed (c) 2 – S (d) S – 2
f → Frequency of the supply TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
P → Number of poles Ans. (c) : If may be proved thus : if Nr is the rpm of the
437. In a 3-phase, 4-pole 50 Hz induction motor rotor, then its slip with respect to forward rotating flux
running at 1450 rpm, the frequency of rotor is
currents will be N − Nr N
S= s = 1− r
(a) 50 Hz Ns Ns
(b) 1.66 Hz
Nr
(c) 6.1 Hz OR = 1− S
Ns
(d) 1.72 Hz
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I if backward rotating flux rotates opposite to the rotor,
the rotor slip with respect to this flux is
Ns − N r
Ans. (b) : Slip (s)= N − (− N r )
Nr Sb = s
Ns
Where Ns = synchronous speed
Nr = Rotor speed N
= 1 + r = 1 + (1 − S)
120 f Ns
Ns =
P Sb = 2 − S
120 × 50
Ns = 3. Capacitor-start capacitor-run induction motor
6
is basically a:
=1500
(a) AC series motor (b) Two-Phase motor
1500 − 1450
S= (c) Synchronous motor (d) Commutator
1500 TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
S = 0.033
Ans. (b) : Capacitor start and capacitor run motor is
Rotor current frequency (fr)= slip × supply frequency basically a two-phase motor because, one capacitor is
fr = 0.0333×50 always connected while the motor operate.
fr = 1.66 Hz
4. Capacitor is used in a 1– phase a.c. motor for
(a) improvement in pf.
(ii) AC Single Phase Induction (b) providing starting torque
Motor (c) both items (a) and (b) above
1. In a split phase motor, the running winding WBPSC AE 2009
should have : Ans. (c) :
(a) High resistance and low inductance
5. When a single -winding single-phase induction
(b) High resistance and high inductance motor is excited with AC voltage, the type of
(c) Low resistance and high inductance the magnetic field set up is equivalent to
(d) Low resistance and low inductance (a) a single field rotating with synchronous speed
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 (b) two rotating fields rotating at synchronous
ESE 2014 speed in opposite directions
(c) two rotating fields rotating at different speeds Ans. (d) : In a single phase induction motor two types
in the same direction of torque developed.
(d) two rotating fields rotating in opposite Torque developed due to forward field is–
directions with different speeds
WBPSC AE 2003 I12 R ′2
Tf =
ESE 2004 2ωss
Ans. (b) : Torque developed due to backward field is–
6. Which among the following is true for a I12 R ′2
shaded–pole induction motor? Tb =
2ωs (2 − s)
(a) The rotor runs from the shaded portion to the
unshaded portion of the pole while the flux in So, resultant torque (TR) = Tf – Tb
the former leads that of the latter. I12 R ′2 I12 R ′2
(b) The rotor runs from the shaded portion to the = −
2ωss 2ωs (2 − s)
unshaded portion of the pole while the flux in
the former lags that in the latter. I12 R ′2  1 1 
TR = −
(c) The rotor runs from the unshaded portion to 2ωss  s (2 − s) 

the shaded portion while the flux in the
former leads that in the latter. At starting s = 1,
(d) The rotor runs from the unshaded portion to I12 R ′2 1 1 
TR = −
the shaded portion while the flux in the 2ωss 1 2 − 1 
former lags that in the latter.
UPRVUNL AE 2014 I12 R ′2
= [1 − 1]
ESE 2001 2ωss
Ans. (c) In shaded pole induction motor the rotor runs
TR = 0
from unshaded portion to the shaded portion of the pole
while flux in the former lead that in the latter. Thus we can say that torque developed in a single phase
7. A single phase induction motor with only the induction motor at starting is zero.
main winding excited would produce zero 9. For low noise and high starting torque
torque at- applications, the type of 1-phase induction
(a) synchronous speed only motor used is :
(b) starting and synchronous speed
(a) Capacitor-start type
(c) starting only
(b) Capacitor-run type
(d) starting and a speed slightly below the
synchronous speed (c) Capacitor-start Capacitor-run type
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I (d) Split-phase type
Ans. (b) : At starting in a single phase induction motor OMC Deputy manager 2019
slip is '1' therefore rotor speed of 1-φ induction motor is Ans. (c) : To presence of two high rating capacitors
equal to synchronous speed. Since there are no any capacitor start capacitor run type 1-φ induction motor
relative motion between rotor and stator. Torque have low noise and high torque applications.
produced at starting in a 1-φ induction motor is in
pulsating nature and it is equal in magnitude and 10. In a capacitor start single-phase induction
opposite in direction hence both are cancel to each other motor, the capacitor is connected
therefore a single phase induction motor with only the (a) in series with main winding
main winding excited would produce zero torque at (b) in series with auxiliary winding
starting and synchronous speed. (c) in series with both the windings
8. The torque developed by a single-phase (d) in parallel with auxiliary winding
induction motor with single winding at starting
KPTCL AE 2016
is-
(a) more than the rated torque WBPSC AE 2012
(b) rated torque Ans. (b) : In capacitor start single phase motor,
(c) less than the rated torque capacitor is connected in series with auxiliary winding
(d) zero there are this also known as starting winding. When at
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II motor run at particular speed, this winding is removed.

11. Frictional force developed is 14. To use an AC motor in a DC circuit, Which
(a) directly proportional to area of contact equipment would be required additionally?
(b) inversely proportional to area of contact (RRB SSE Secunderabad Green paper, 21.12.2014)
(c) independent of area of contact (a) Inductor (b) Capacitor
(d) inversely proportional to the square of area of (c) Rectifier (d) Inverter
contact Ans : (d) If the alternating motor is run by D.C. supply.
WBPSC AE 2012 So, we have to change the D.C. to A.C., which will
Ans. (c) : require inverter.
12. The torque developed by a single phase 15. After the starting winding of a single phase
induction motor at starting is- induction motor is disconnected from supply, it
(a) more than rated torque continues to run only on which winding?
(b) rated torque (a) Rotor winding
(c) less than rated torque (b) Running winding
(d) zero
(c) Field winding
(d) Compensating winding
WBPSC AE 2007
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
Ans. (d) : In a single phase induction motor two types
of torque developed. Ans. (b) : After the starting winding of a single phase
Torque developed due to forward field is– induction motor is disconnected from supply, it
continues to run only on running winding.
I12 R ′2
Tf = 16. A ceiling fan uses-
2ωss
(a) split-phase motor
Torque developed due to backward field is–
(b) capacitor start and capacitor run motor
I12 R ′2 (c) capacitor start motor
Tb =
2ωs (2 − s) (d) universal motor
So, resultant torque (TR) = Tf – Tb KPTCL AE 2016
I12 R ′2 I12 R ′2 Ans. (c) : In conventional ceiling fans, single phase
= −
2ωss 2ωs (2 − s) induction motor is used. These motor consume
minimum power and hence are also known as fractional
I12 R ′2  1 1 
TR = − kilo watt motors. These also known as capacitor start
2ωss  s (2 − s) 
motor.
At starting s = 1,
17. A single phase induction motor, rotating in the
I 2 R ′ 1 1  direction of forward field, the slip of the rotor
TR = 1 2  −
2ωss 1 2 − 1  with respect to forward and backward rotating
fields and respectively
I12 R ′2
= [1 − 1] (a) s and 1 – s
2ωss
(b) s and 2 – s
TR = 0 (c) s and s
Thus we can say that torque developed in a single phase (d) 1 – s and s
induction motor at starting is zero. RPSC VPITI 2018
13. The starting torque of a single phase induction Ans. (b) : In a single phase induction motor forward
motor is- slip can be given by–
RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I) 02.09.2015
Ns − N r
(a) Uniform (b) High s=
(c) Low (d) Zero Ns
Ans : (d) The single-phase induction motor are not self- and backward direction on rotor move in opposite
starting because the produced stator flux is alternating direction.
in nature and at the starting, the two components of this
N s + N r N s + (1 − s ) N s
flux cancel each other and hence there is no net torque sb = = = 2−s
i.e. zero starting torque. Ns Ns

18. For the development of the torque in AC (c) In induction motor only fundamental & in
machines the essential conditions are – heater harmonic as well as fundamental are
(a) torque will be produced by the interaction of useful
stator and rotor mmf. (d) In induction motor only harmonic & in heater
(b) torque is inversely proportional to the angle only fundamental are useful
between stator and rotor fields Vizag Steel MT 2011
(c) the stator and rotor fields should rotate at Ans. (c) : For smooth torque production in induction
different speed motor only fundamental component is used.
(d) stator core should not be laminated For generation of more heat, fundamental as in
RPSC VPITI 2018 harmonics are used in a heater.
Ans. (a) : For development of torque in AC machine 23. Which motor has series characteristic :
essential condition is torque produced by interaction of (a) Shaded pole motor
stator and rotor mmf. (b) Capacitor start motor
19. AC series motors are built with as few field (c) Repulsion motor
turns as possible to reduce (d) None of these correct
(a) Flux (b) Eddy current losses
MPPSC AE 2014
(c) Field reactance (d) Speed
Ans. (c) : Repulsion motor are based on the principle of
repulsion between two magnetic field consider 2 pole
Ans. (c) : Due to high inductance of the field and salient pole motor with the vertical magnetic axis. The
armature circuit, the power factor would become very armature is connected to a commutator and brush in
low. Now the power factor is directly related to series. Thus, repulsion motor has series characteristic.
reactance of the field and armature circuit, we can
24. The variable speed operation is desired for the
reduce the field winding reactance by reducing the
following application :
number of turns in the field winding.
(a) Water pump
20. In a shaded pole induction motor, shading coils
(b) Refrigerator
are used to
(c) Ceiling fan
(a) Produce rotating magnetic field
(d) Exhaust fan
(b) Reduce windage losses
(c) Protect against sparking MPPSC AE 2014
(d) Reduce winding losses Ans. (c) : The variable speed operation is required in
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I case of ceiling fan. This is done by adding regulator or
ESE 1992 variable resistors. In ceiling fan 1− φ permanent
Ans. (a) : In a shaded pole induction motor, shading capacitor induction motor is used.
coils are used to producing rotating magnetic field. In 25. Which of the following statement is true?
shaded pole motor winding known as shading coil and (a) Single-phase induction motor requires only
consist one or more shorted turn. The shading coil delay one winding
the establishment of magnetic flux in the region. (b) Single-phase induction motor can rotate in
21. In a single-phase induction motor, the one direction only
operating direction is determined by the (c) Single-phase induction motor is self starting
________ (d) Single-phase induction motor is not self-
(a) Rotor (b) Stator starting
(c) Starting circuit (d) None of these MPPSC AE 2014
KPTCL AE 2015 Ans. (d) : According to double revolving field theory of
Ans. (c) : In a single-phase induction motor the signal phase induction motor the starting torque is zero
operating direction is determined by the starting circuit. so that it is not self starting.
22. In which of these does a single phase voltage 26. Single phase induction motor is ____. Its
controller feeds an induction motor and a starting torque is ______.
heater? (a) Self-starting, Tmax
(a) In both the loads, fundamental & harmonics (b) Not self-starting, 0
are useful (c) Self-starting, 0
(b) In induction motor only fundamental & in (d) Not self-starting, Tmax
heater only harmonic are useful GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans. (b) : Single phase induction motors are not self 31. The blade of a fan of length 2R is rotating in a
starting. Because the produced stator flux is alternating magnetic flux density B with time period T.
in nature and at the starting, the two component of this The induced voltage in the blade will be
flux cancel each other and hence there is no net torque. (a) RBT
27. Starting torque can be obtained in the case of a (b) 2RBT
single phase induction motor with identical πR 2 B
main and auxiliary windings by connecting– (c)
T
(a) A capacitor across the mains
(d) πR2BT
(b) A capacitor in series with the machine
(c) A capacitor in series with the auxiliary
dφ
winding Ans. (c) : emf induced (e) = −
(d) The main and auxiliary winding in series dt
TNPSC AE 2018 flux ( φ ) = BA
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 In time period (T) the area swept by fan blades is πR 2
DMRC AM 2016
dφ d ( BA ) dA
APTRANSCO AE 2011 So, e = = = B.
dt dt dt
ESE 2014
πR 2 πBR 2
Ans. (c) : Starting torque can be obtained in the case of = B. =
a single phase induction motor with identical main and T T
auxiliary windings by connecting a capacitor in series 32. Which of the following motor is suitable for
with the auxiliary winding. frequent starting and stopping?
28. In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no (a)Capacitor start motor
teeth or winding. (b)Capacitor start capacitor run motor
(a) Split phase motor (b) Reluctance motor (c)Resistance split phase motor
(c) Hysteresis motor (d) Universal motor (d)All of the above
Vizag Steel MT 2017 UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
Ans. (c) : Hysteresis motor, rotor has no teeth or Ans. (a) Capacitor start motor is suitable for frequent
winding. starting and stopping.
29. During running condition if the starting
winding of a split phase induction motor is
disconnected,
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor winding will burn
(c) The main winding will be damaged
(d) The motor will continue to rotate.
Vizag Steel MT 2017
Ans. (d) : During running condition starting winding of Capacitor start motor
a split phase induction motor disconnect the motor will Used in pumps and compressors.
continue to rotate. Used in the refrigerator and air conditioner
30. In a single phase induction motor at start, the compressors.
two revolving fields produce. 33. The electrical torque in terms of supply voltage
(a) Unequal torques in the rotor conductors V in a 3-phase induction motor, is proportional
(b) No torque in the rotor conductors to the following?
(c) Equal and opposite torque in the rotor (a) V2
conductors (b) V–1
(d) Equal torque in same direction in the rotor (c) V1/2
conductors. (d) V
Vizag Steel MT 2017 UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
Ans. (c) : By the two field revolving theory there are KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
equal and opposite torque in the rotor conductors. MPPSC AE 2014
Ans. (a) : The electrical torque of 3-φ induction motor, Ans. (a) In case of split phase motor, the phase shift
is proportional to : between currents in the two windings is around 30
τ = KE2I2 cos φ2 degrees.
 38. A 230V, 50 Hz, 4-pole, single-phase induction

E2 R 2 E2 R2 
= KE 2 × ∵ I2 = , cos φ2 =  motor is rotating clockwise (forward) direction
Z2 Z2  Z2 Z2  at a speed of 1425 rpm. If the rotor resistance
KE 22 R 2 at standstill is 7.8Ω, then the effective rotor
τ= resistance in the backward branch of the
Z22
equivalent circuit will be
τ2 (a) 2.0Ω (b) 4.0Ω
∵ E2 = .E1
τ1 (c) 78Ω (d) 156Ω
∴z + z = 1 ESE 2018
Since, E1 is nearly equal to V1 so LMRC AE 2015
Ans. (a) : Given data;
T ∝ V2 V1 = V = Supply Voltage
frequency = 50Hz, poles = 4
34. Shaded pole is used in which type of motor ? speed (N) = 1425 rpm, rotor resistance (r2) = 7.8Ω
(a) d.c. motor 1500 − 1425
slip due to forward field SF = = 0.05
(b) 3-phase synchronous motor 1500
(c) 2-phase a.c. motor r2
(d) single phase induction motor ∴ Rotor resistance due to backward field =
2 ( 2 − Sf )
7.8
Ans. (d) : Single phase induction motor- =
2(2 − 0.05)
1. split-phase motor
2. Repulsion-start induction motor = 2Ω
3. Shaded pole induction motor 39. In a split phase capacitor start induction
4. Reluctance start induction motor motor, a time phase difference between
currents in the main and auxiliary winding is
Thus, Shaded pole is used in single phase induction
achieved by :
motor.
(a) Placing the two windings at an angle of 90o
35. In a fan, air pressure increases up to about : electrical in the stator slots
(a) 20% (b) 30% (b) Applying two phase supply across the two
(c) 10% (d) 5% windings
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II (c) Connecting the two windings in series across
Ans. (c) : In a fan air pressure increases up to about a single phase supply
10% (d) Introducing capacitive reactance in the
36. For maximum torque which motor is not auxiliary winding circuit
suitable ? CIL MT 2020
(a) D.C. series motor Ans. (d) :
(b) D.C. compound motor
(c) Slip-ring I.M.
(d) Resistance split phase motor
Ans. (d) : For maximum torque resistance split phase
motor is not suitable.
37. In case of split phase motor, the phase shift
between currents in the two windings is around
In a split phase capacitor start induction motor phase
(c) 90 degrees (d) 120 degrees difference between currents of the main and auxiliary
LMRC AE 2015 winding is achieved by introducing capacitive reactance
APTRANSCO AE 2011 in the auxiliary winding circuit. Since
1 Ans. (a) : Given,
XC = Zm = (6 + j4), Za = (8 + j6)Ω
2πfC
the value of starting capacitor should be large.
(XC = capacitive reactance, C = capacitance)
Applications-
Used in the washing machine and air conditioning
fans, mixer, grinder, floor polishers.
Drilling and lathe machine.
40. In Hand tool applications which one of the
following single phase motor is used:
(a) Shaded pole motor
φa + φm = α = 90º
(b) Capacitor start motor
(c) Capacitor run motor  X − Xc  −1  X m 
tan −1  a  − tan   = 90º
(d) DC motor  R a   Rm 
(e) AC motor  6 − Xc  −1  4 
tan −1   − tan   = 90º
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II  8  6
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I  6 − Xc 
tan −1   = 123.69
0
ESE 2005  8 
Ans. (e) : In hand tool application AC series motor is 6 − Xc
used and it is also known as a universal motor. They are = −1.5
8
simple in construction it can work on both AC & DC X c = 18
supply, so it is used in hand tool applications.
1
41. A capacitor start single phase induction motor = 18
2πfC
is used for: 1
(a) Easy starting load C=
2π× 50 × 18
(b) Medium starting load C = 176.84 µF
(c) Hard starting load 43. A single-phase motor fails to start but gives
(d) Any type of loads applicable for starting load humming noise due to–
(e) Not applicable for starting load (a) High voltage
MPPSC AE 2017 (b) Low voltage
(c) Wrong connection
(d) Short circuit winding
Ans. (c) : A capacitor start single phase induction motor PTCUL AE 2012
is used for hard starting load or high starting torque. Ans. (d) : If a single phase motor fails to starts but
42. A single phase, 230V, 50 Hz, 4-pole, capacitor- gives humming noise this is due to the short circuit
start induction machine has the following stand terminals of the stator winding of the motor.
still impedances: 44. Compared with a resistor split phase motor, a
capacitor start motor has :
Main winding: Zm = 6 + j4Ω (a) Higher starting torque
Auxiliary winding: Za = 8 + j6Ω (b) Lower starting torque
The value of the starting capacitor required to (c) Higher running torque
produce 90° phase difference between the (d) Lower running torque
currents in the Main and Auxiliary windings MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
will be: Ans. (a) : The starting torque of a capacitor start motor
in comparison to resistance split phase induction motor
(a) 176.84 µF
1
(b) 187.24 µF is nearly 2 times and full load torque is 3.5 to 4.5
2
(c) 265.26 µF times to resistance split phase induction motor torque.
(d) 280.86 µF Therefore compared with resistance split phase
induction motor, a capacitor start induction motor has
PTCUL AE 2012 higher starting torque.
45. The starting winding of a single phase motor is The starting torque in the capacitor start induction
placed in the : run motor is about 3.5 to 4 times that of full load
(a) Rotor (b) Stator torque.
(c) Armature (d) Field The phase difference between main winding and
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I auxiliary winding is achieved by introducing an
Ans. (b) : The starting winding of a single phase motor electrolyte capacitor is in series with starting
is placed in the stator. winding.
A single phase induction motor is not self starting to Application- Compressors, Elevators, conveyors.
overcome this drawback and make the motor self- 47. The shifting magnetic field in a shaded pole
starting it is temporarily converted into two-phase motor is developed by using :
motor during starting period. For this purpose the stator (a) shading coils
of a single phase motor is provided with an extra (b) salient poles
winding known as starting (auxiliary) winding, in (c) a capacitor
addition to the main or running winding. The two (d) damper winding
winding are spaced 90o electrically apart and are
connected in parallel across single phase.
Ans. (a) : The shifting magnetic field in a shaded pole
motor is developed by using shading coils.
46. The starting torque of a capacitor-start

induction-run motor is directly related to the
angle 'θ' between its two winding currents by
the relation :
(a) cos θ (b) sin θ The shaded pole induction motor is simply a self-
(c) tan θ (d) sin θ/2 starting single phase induction motor whose one of the
TNPSC AE 2019 pole is shaded by the copper ring. The copper ring is
APTRANSCO AE 2017 also called the shaded ring. This copper ring act as a
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I secondary winding for the motor. The shaded pole
motor rotates only in one particular direction and the
Ans. (b) :
reverse movement of motor is not possible.
48. Comparing same size single-phase induction
motors, which one of the following has the
highest starting torque?
(a) Resistance split-phase motor
(b) Capacitor-start motor
(c) Capacitor-start capacitor-run motor
(d) Shaded-pole motor
Starting torque is directly proportional to the sine of Ans. (b) Capacitor start, induction motor has highest
angle between starting current and main current. starting torque among all, when compared with same
size single phase induction motor. It's common
applications are in refrigerator, compressor or in other
applications.
49. The direction of rotation of an ordinary single-
phase shaded-pole induction motor:
(a) Can be reversed by reversing the supply
terminals connection to the stator winding
τ ∝ sin θ
(b) Cannot be reversed

(c) Can be reversed by removing one shading 53. Distributed winding and short chording
ring. employed in AC machines will result in :
(d) Can be reversed by open circuiting the (a) Increase in emf and reduction in harmonics
shading rings (b) Reduction in emf and increase in harmonics
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 (c) Increase in both emf and harmonics
DMRC AM 2016 (d) Reduction in both emf and harmonics
Ans. (b) Direction of rotation of an ordinary 1 – φ WBSE TCL AE 2016
shaded pole induction motor can not be reversed. The Ans. (d) : Distributed winding and short chording
rotor will always run from the unshaded pole towards (pitching) employed in A.C. machines will result in
the shaded portion of pole. The motor will run in reduction in both the emf and the harmonics.
clockwise if seen from this side. To reverse 54. In a capacitor start single phase motor, when
disassembling and flipping over the stator by switch the capacitor is replaced by a resistance during
shorted auxiliary winding of thin wire bars, is running condition, what will happen?
performed. (a) The motor will stop
50. A single-phase induction motor is (b) The torque will increase.
(a) inherently self-starting with high torque (c) The direction of rotation will be reversed.
(b) inherently self-starting with low torque (d) The motor will continue to run in the same
(c) inherently non-self-starting direction.
(d) none of the above UPPCL AE 2015
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 Ans. (d) In a capacitor start single phase motor, when
the capacitor replaced by a resistance during running
Ans. (c) : A single phase induction motor consists of a
condition the motor will continue to run in the same
single phase winding on the stator and a cage in rotor,
direction.
due to pulsating field, the rotor does not rotate due to
inertia. 55. In a split phase motor, the ratio of number of
turns for starting winding to that for running
Therefore a 1-φ induction motor is not self starting.
winding is:-
51. Which of the following single phase motors will (a) 2.0 (b) More than 1.0
operate at high power factor? (c) 1.0 (d) Less than 1.0
(a) Shaped pole motor (b) Split phase motor UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(c) Capacitor start motor (d) Capacitor run motor
Ans. (d) : In a split phase motor, the ratio of number of
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 turns for starting winding to that for running winding is
Ans. (d) : Capacitor run motor will operate at high less than 1.0.
power factor, there are capacitor provide lagging 56. The motor used in household refrigerators is:-
reactive power, then reactive power demand is reduce, (a) dc series motor
hence power factor improve. (b) dc shunt motor
52. Repulsion-start induction-run 1-phase motor (c) universal motor
runs as an induction motor only, when (d) Single phase induction motor
(a) brushes are shifted to neutral plane UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(b) commutator segments are short-circuited Ans. (d) : The motor used in household refrigerator is
(c) commutator segments are open-circuited single phase induction motor.
(d) stator winding is reversed 57. In AC motors; the magnetizing current
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI (a) Lags the voltage by 900
Ans. (b) : The behaviour of the repulsion-start (b) Leads the voltage by 900
induction-run motor is the combination of behaviour of (c) Is in phase with the voltage
of repulsion motor and an induction motor. The (d) Phase opposition with the voltage
repulsion-start induction-run motor has the advantage of RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
high starting torque and good speed- regulation. They Ans. (a) : The magnetizing current component of no-
started as repulsion motors, but once they are running at load current will always lag the applied voltage by 900,
a fraction of full speed, the brushes will be shifted in transformer or induction machine, because
mechanically and all commutator bars are short- magnetizing current sets up a flux in core, so it has to be
circuited together to create the equivalent of a squirrel- always in phase with flux, and applied voltage lead the
cage induction motor. flux by 900.

58. A capacitor start, capacitor run single phase s
induction motor is basically a: (a) s (b)
(1 − s )
(a) ac series motor
s
(b) dc series motor (c) (d) 1
(c) 2 phase induction motor (2 − s )
(d) 3 phase induction motor UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 Ans. (c) : Slip corresponding to forward field (forward
PS PCL AE 2012 slip)
Ans. (c) : A capacitor start, capacitor run single phase N − Nr
sf = s = s(let) .....(1)
induction motor is basically a 2-phase induction motor. Ns
Slip corresponding to backward field (backward slip)
N − (− N r ) Ns + N r
sb = s =
Ns Ns
2N s − (N s − N r )
sb =
Ns
2N s (N s − N r )
= −
Ns Ns
CS = start capacitor, CR = run capacitor
Rm = main winding resistance, sb = 2 – sf
Xm = main winding inductive sb = 2 – s .....(2)
RA = series resistor connected in auxiliary winding. By equation (1) & (2)
XA = auxiliary winding inductive reactance. sf s
=
s = Centrifugal switch sb (2 − s)
Applications- The capacitor start capacitor run
61.
An amplidyne is used for closed-loop control. It
induction motor is suitable for high inertia load where
has
frequent starting are required. It is used refrigerators air
conditioner, compressors. (a) control winding
(b) compensating winding
59. In the shaded pole squirrel cage induction
(c) interpole winding
motor the flux in the shaded part always–
(a) Leads the flux in the un-shaded pole segment (d) All of the above
(b) Lags the flux in the un-shaded pole segment UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
(c) Is in out of phase with the flux in the un-Ans. (d) : An amplidyne is used for closed-loop control.
shaded pole segment It has control winding, compensating winding and
interpole winding.
(d) Is in phase with the flux in the un-shaded pole
segment 62. The direction of rotation of a single-phase
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 capacitor run induction motor is reversed by
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (a) interchanging the terminals of the AC supply
Ans. (b) : Since, in shaded pole squirrel cage induction (b) interchanging the terminals of the capacitor
1 (c) interchanging the terminals of the auxiliary
motor rd portion of each pole core is surrounded by a winding
3
(d) interchanging the terminals of both the
strap of copper forming a closed loop called the shading
windings
coil. So minimum flux is links with shaded part. Since
flux is minimum the XL is more because- UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
APPSC AEE 2019
1
φ∝ Ans. (c) : If single phase induction motor is once
XL started, it will happily run in either direction. To reverse
then the flux in shaded pole always lags the flux in it, we need to change the direction of rotating magnetic
unshaded pole. field produced by main and starting winding. The
60. The ratio of slips of forward and backward direction of rotation of a single phase capacitor run
rotating field of a single phase induction motor induction motor is reversed by interchanging the
is terminals of auxiliary winding .
63. A single phase motor: Ans. (b) : The motor used in ceiling fan is capacitor
(a) Requires only one winding start motor.
(b) Can rotate in one direction only 67. A single–phase ac regulator is used to convert:
(c) Is not self starting (a) Fixed ac voltage to variable magnitude ac
(d) Is self starting voltage of same frequency
KPSC AE 2014 (b) Fixed ac voltage to variable frequency ac
Ans. (c) : When a 1-φ supply is given to the stator of 1- voltage of same magnitude
φ motor, a magnetic field is produced, which is (c) Fixed ac voltage to variable frequency ac
pulsating in nature. This magnetic flux has two voltage through dc link
components which are opposite to each other and equal (d) Fixed ac voltage to variable magnitude
in magnitude. So the flux will get cancelled, thus 1-φ variable frequency ac voltage
motor is not a self starting. DMRC AM 2016
64. The phase displacement between starting and Ans. (a) : A single- phase ac regulator is used to
running winding of a capacitor start motor is convert fixed ac voltage to variable magnitude ac
nearly- voltage of same frequency.
(a) 90 0
(b) 60 0 68. Which one of the following capacitors starts
(c) 30 0
(d) 0 0 split phase induction motor having high value
of capacitance?
(a) 94 W, 3450 rpm (b) 187 W, 1725 rpm
Ans. (a) :
(c) 560 W, 1140 rpm (d) 373 W, 1000 rpm
Ans. (c) : 560W, 1140 rpm
High power rating motor need high starting torque
therefore, 560W motor will need maximum rating of
capacitance to start.
69. For a single phase capacitor start induction
motor which of the following statements is
valid?
(a) The capacitor is used for power factor
improvement
Thus the windings are displaced nearly 900 electrical (b) The direction of rotation cannot be changed
and their mmf are equal in magnitude but nearly 900 (c) The direction of rotation can be changed by
apart in time phase. interchanging the supply terminals
65. In a capacitor-start capacitor-run single-phase (d) The direction of rotation can be changed by
induction motor the two capacitors : reversing the main winding terminals
(a) have similar construction CIL MT 2017
(b) are of different types ESE 2016
(c) have equal capacitances WBSE TCL AE 2016
(d) are disconnected when motor attains full APTRANSCO AE 2011
speed Ans. (d) : Single Phase Capacitor Start Induction
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 Motor– According to double field revolving theory
Ans. (b) : In capacitor start, capacitor run 1-φ induction when a winding is excited then two field namely
motor the two capacitors are of different types and of forward and backward is produced. And these both field
different values. Starting capacitor is- electrolyte is rotate same speed i.e synchronous speed (Ns) in
capacitor while running capacitor is paper capacitor. opposite direction to each other. Therefore in a single
phase capacitor start induction motor the direction of
66. The motor used in ceiling fan is :
rotation can be change by changing the main winding
(a) Split phase motor
terminal or auxiliary winding terminal.
(b) Capacitor start motor
70. In split phase induction motor, if the
(c) Shaded pole motor
centrifugal switch of a single-phase resistance
(d) AC series motor
does not open after the starting of the motor,
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 then the motor.
(a) will draw very less current 73. In a capacitor start motor if C1 is the
(b) will run at the speed that is equal to capacitance required for best starting torque
synchronous speed and C2 is the capacitance required for best
(c) will draw high current and get over heated running characteristic then
(d) will run at the speed that is more than the (a) C1 approximately equal to C2
normal speed (b) C1 is much smaller than C2
BHEL ET 2019
(c) C1 is much larger than C2
Ans. (c) : In split phase induction motor auxiliary (d) C1 is equal to C2
R UPPCL AE 2014
winding have high   ratio. If the centrifugal switch
X Ans. (c) : In a capacitor start motor C1 is the
of a single phase induction motor does not open after capacitance required for best starting torque and C2 is
the starting of the motor then the motor will draw high the capacitance required for best running characteristic
current and get over heated. In split phase induction
then C1 is much larger than C2.
motor centrifugal switch must be disconnect when get
direction speed about 70 to 80 % of synchronous speed. 74. In the figure shown below, the rotor is rotated
by prime mover in clockwise direction. What
71. Determine the current required in a 400mm
length of conductor of an electric motor, when will be the direction of emf or current induced
the conductor is situated at right-angles to a in conductors A and B?
magnetic field of flux density 1.2T, if a force of
1.92N is to be exerted on the conductor.
(a) 8A (b) 6A
(c) 4A (d) 2A
Ans. (c) : l= 400 mm = 400×10–3m
B = 1.2T
F = 1.92N
θ = 90o (a) A = ⊙ , B = ⊗ (b) A = ⊙ , B = ⊙
F = IBl sinθ
(c) A = ⊙ , B = ⊙ (d) A = ⊗ , B = ⊗
F
I= Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
Bℓ sin θ
Ans. (c) : A = ⊙ , B = ⊙
1.92
= 75. Most suitable motor for electric traction is
1.2 × 400 × 10−3 × sin 90°
I = 4Amp (a) DC series motor
(b) DC compound motor
72. Consider the following statements regarding ac
drives : (c) DC shunt motor
1. For the same kW rating, ac motors are 20% (d) None of the above
to 40% light weight as compared to dc Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
motors. Ans. (a) : Most suitable motor for electric traction is
2. The ac motors are more expensive as DC series motor the reason that often used fraction is
compared to same kW rating dc motors. the large torque it can develop at low speed, the back
3. The ac motors have low maintenance as emf developed in the armature is very low.
compared to dc motors. The torque developed is proportional to the product of
Which of the above statements are correct? the field and armature current.
76. Load curve for fan type of load is ( ω is speed)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) T × ω (b) T × ω2
ESE 2019
(c) T × ω 3
Ans. (c) : For the same kW rating, ac motors are 20%
to 40% light weight as compared to dc motors. Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
The ac motors are more expensive as compared to Ans. (b) : Load curve for fan type of load is
same kW rating dc motors. proportional to the square of the fan rotation speed.
The ac motors have low maintenance as compared T × ω2
to dc motors.

5. Which of the following is true for a switched
(iii) Special Type of Motor reluctance motor?
1. The torque exerted by the rotor magnetic field (a) It is a salient pole synchronous motor without
of a PM stepping motor with unexcited stator is excitation winding.
called ................ torque. (b) It is a stepper motor with salient poles.
(a) reluctance (b) detent (c) It is a synchronous motor with salient poles
(c) holding (d) either (b) or (c) on stator and rotor
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 (d) It is a stepper motor with closed loop control
and with rotor position sensor.
Ans. (b) : The torque exerted by the rotor magnetic
UPRVUNL AE 2014
field of a permanent magnet stepping motor with
ESE 2001
unexcited stator is called detent torque.
Ans. (d) The switched reluctance motor (SRM) is an
2. Which type of motor is most suitable for
electric motor that run by reluctance torque. switched
computer printer drive?
reluctance motor is a stepper motor with closed loop
(a) Reluctance motor (b) Hysteresis motor
control and with rotor position sensor.
(c) Shaded pole motor (d) Stepper motor
6. Which among the following techniques is used
RPSC AE 2018 to increase the torque of a reluctance motor?
APTRANSCO AE 2011 (a) Increase reluctance of the magnetic circuit
ESE 2004 along the direct axis.
Ans : (d) Stepper motor are used where precise position (b) Decrease reluctance of the magnetic circuit
control is required e.g. printer, disk drive etc. Stepper along the quadrature axis.
motor do not turn continuously like DC motor. They (c) Increase the ratio of the quadrature axis
move in steps such as 1.8 degree. reluctance to direct axis reluctance.
3. Repulsion motors are equipped with (d) Decrease the ratio of quadrature axis
(a) slip rings (b) a repeller reluctance to direct axis reluctance
(c) a commutator (d) None of these UPRVUNL AE 2014
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I ESE 2001
Ans. (c) : The repulsion motor is a modified dc series Ans. (c) To increase the torque of reluctance motor
motor, increase the ratio of quadrature axis reluctance to direct
axis reluctance.
• The stator consists of a single-phase exciting winding
similar to main winding of a single phase induction 7. AC servometer resembles
motor. (a) Two phase induction motor
(b) Three phase induction motor
• The rotor has a closed type armature winding with a
commutator and brushes similar to dc machines. (c) Direct current series motor
(d) Universal motor
4. A single phase Hysteresis motor
TNPSC AE 2018
(a) can run at synchronous and super
synchronous speed Ans. (a) : AC servometer resembles two phase
induction motor, these are AC motors that incorporate
(b) can run at sub synchronous speed only
encoders are used with controller for providing
(c) can run at synchronous speed only feedback and close loop control.
(d) can run at synchronous and sub synchronous
8. In the single phase reluctance motor, the air
speed
gap reluctance
UJVNL AE 2016 (a) must vary as the rotor position changes with
KPTCL AE 2016 respect of stator field axis.
UPRVUNL AE 2014 (b) must be same and is independent of rotor
Ans. (c) : A single phase hysteresis motor can run at position and the stator field axis.
synchronous speed only. Hysteresis motor is defined as (c) must vary but the rotor position should not
a synchronous motor that is having cylindrical rotor and change with respect of stator field axis.
works on hysteresis losses induced in the rotor of (d) none of these
hardened steel with high retentivity. UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I

Ans. (a) : Reluctance motor operated on the principle 11. If the number of poles in a metadyne is 2, the
that force are established that tends to causes iron poles number of interpole is-
carrying a magnetic flux align with each. In the single (a) 4 (b) 2
phase reluctance motor, the air gap reluctance must vary (c) 6 (d) 8
as the rotor position changes with respect of stator field UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
axis. Ans. (b) : A metadyne is a direct current electrical
9. For the proper operation of a repulsion motor machine with two pairs of brushes. It can be used as a
shown below amplifier or rotary transformer. If the number of poles
in a metadyne is 2, the number of interpole is also '2'.
12. An amplidyne has split poles to
(a) provide space for interpoles
(b) increase amplification factor
(c) increase efficiency
(d) damp mechanical oscillations
The angle α should be UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
(a) 90o for high impedance Ans. (a) : This machine uses the cross field principle
(b) 0o or 180o for low impedance and single two pole armature winding. An amplidyne is
(c) less than 90o sometime termed a split poles machine because it has
(d) nothing can be said divided commutating pole may be arrange in all the
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II interpolar gaps.
UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I 13. The a.c. motor used in servo applications is a-
Ans. (c) : If α = 90º, so that net emf in the brush is zero, (a) single-phase induction motor
so that ir = 0. (b) two-phase induction motor
If α < 90 or 45º the mmf is produced into two (c) three-phase induction motor
component = MMF1 + MMF2 (d) synchronous motor
Hence α < 90º is proper operation of reluctance motor. UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
10. Match list – I with list – II and select the Ans. (b) : Most of the a.c. servomotor are of the two
correct answer using the codes given below the phase squirrel cage induction motor type. They are used
lists : for low power applications.
List – I List – II 14. Which of the following motors is preferred for
(Unit) (Type of rotor) tape-recorders?
(RRB SSE (Shift-III) 01.09.2015)
A. Control transformer 1. Dump-bell rotor
(a) Two valve capacitor motor
B. Stepper motor 2. Drag-cup rotor (b) Universal motor
C. Synchro-transmitter 3. Toothed rotor (c) Shaded pole motor
D. Servo-motor 4. Cylindrical rotor (d) Hysteresis motor
Codes : Ans : (d) Hysteresis motor is good for tape recorders
because there is no noise in it. The rotor of this motor is
A B C D
made of non-electromagnetic material such as chrome-
(a) 4 1 2 3
steel around which rings made of high diagonal
(b) 3 1 2 4 material are installed.
(c) 2 3 4 1
15. In a stepper motor the angular displacement
(d) 4 3 1 2
(a) can be precisely controlled
UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I (b) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro
Ans. (d) : computer based controller.
A. Control transformer Cylindrical rotor (c) the angular displacement cannot be precisely
B. Stepper motor Toothed rotor controlled
C. Synchro-transmitter Dump-bell rotor (d) it cannot be used for positioning of work
tables and tools in NC machines.
D. Servo-motor Drag-cup rotor
KPTCL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : Stepper motor is a form of AC motor input 17. An electric motor with high torque/inertia ratio
given to this motor is in the form of electric pulses. For has _______
every input pulse, the motor shift turns through a (a) Lower motor time constant and faster
specified number of degrees, called a step. dynamic response
(b) Higher motor time constant and slow
This step moves through a certain angular displacement,
dynamic response
called step angle (α).
(c) Lower motor time constant and slow dynamic
 Ns − N r  response
α = × 3600 
(d) Higher motor time constant and faster
 N s .N r 
dynamic response
Ns = No of stator poles
TSTRANSCO AE 2018
Nr = No of rotor poles.
Ans. (a) : An electric motor with high torque inertia
This step angle (or) angular displacement is a stepper ratio has lower motor time constant and faster dynamic
motor can be precisely controlled. response. A brush less dc motor sized 80 HP is the
16. The most preferred motor used in the food example of this type of response.
mixer is: 18. Which of the following motors can run on both
(a) dc series motor AC and DC?
(b) Squirrel cage induction motor (a) Universal motor (b) Dual wattage motor
(c) Reluctance motor (c) Flexible motor (d) All the above
(d) Universal motor KPTCL AE 2015
DMRC AM 2016 Ans. (a) : Universal motor can run on both AC and DC.
KPTCL AE 2016 19. Permanent magnet motor is preferred in DC
servo application due to which of the
following?
Ans. (d) : The most preferred motor used in the food (a) High torque to inertia ratio
mixer is universal motor as it is high speed motor. (b) Low torque to inertia ratio
(c) Constant torque to inertia ratio
(d) High torque & high inertia
Vizag Steel MT 2011
Ans. (a) : Permanent magnet is preferred in DC servo
application due to its high torque to inertia ratio.
20. In designing AC servo motors, what is the ideal
X/R ration for stable operation?
(a) Low (b) High
(c) Medium (d) No particular ration
Vizag Steel MT 2011
Ans. (a) : The rotor of ac servomotor is built with high
Resistance so that its X/R ratio is small.
Universal motor:- The universal motor is a type of 21. Which statement is true :
electric motor that can operate on either AC or DC (a) Reluctance motor can be considered as a
power and uses an electromagnet as its stator to create variable torque motor
its magnetic field. It is a commutated series-wound (b) Reluctance motor can be considered as low
motor where the stator's field coils are connected in torque variable speed motor
series with the rotor windings through a commutator. (c) Reluctance motor can be considered as self
Universal motors have high starting torque, can run at starting type synchronous motor
high speed, and are lightweight and compact. (d) Reluctance motor can be considered as a low
Applications: noise and slow speed motor
It is used in domestic appliances. MPPSC AE 2014
It is used in rail traction. Ans. (c) : Reluctance motor work on the principle of
magnetic attraction so it has always a unidirectional
It is used as starter motor, starters of combustion
torque. Reluctance motor can be considered as self
engines are usually universal motors. starting type synchronous motor.
22. The following motor is used for the Ans. (b) : A two-phase a.c. servo meter, the stator has
compressors. two windings (distributed) which are displaced from
(a) Reluctance motor each other by 900 electrical degrees. One winding,
(b) DC series motor called the reference or fixed phase the other winding,
(c) Shaded pole motor called the control phase.
(d) Capacitor-start capacitor-run motor 27. Which one of the following is correct
MPPSC AE 2014 application of Amplidyne ?
Ans. (d) : A capacitor-start capacitor-run motor used (a) Starter for motor
for compressor because it has slightly high initial torque (b) Speed control of motor
with respect to single phase induction motor and also (c) Excitation systems
smoothly operated so that used for compressors. (d) As inverter
23. The torque speed characteristic of a repulsion UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
motor resembles which of the following d.c.
Ans. (c) : Excitation system of the following correct
motor characteristics–
option of a Amplidyne.
(a) Separately excited (b) Shunt
This is an electromechanical amplifier invented prior to
(c) Series (d) Compound
world war II. It consist of an electric motor driving a
APTRANSCO AE 2011
DC generator.
Ans. (c) : Torque-speed characteristic of a repulsion
motor resembles, d.c series motor characteristics. 28. In stepper motors –
(a) moment of inertia is usually high
24. In a _____ vehicle, the single electric motor and
the internal combustion engine are installed (b) starting current is high
such that they can power the vehicle either (c) closed-loop digital feedback control is not
individually or together. possible
(a) Series hybrid (d) bi-directional control is possible
(b) Parallel hybrid UPPCL AE 2014
(c) Series-parallel hybrid UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
(d) None Ans. (d) : In stepper motors bidirectional control is
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 possible. A stepper motor, also known as step motor or
Ans. (b) : In a parallel hybrid vehicle, the single electric stepping motor is a brushless DC electric motor that
motor and the internal combustion engine are installed divides a full rotation into a number of equal steps.
such that they can power the vehicle either individually 29. One of the basic requirements of a servomotor
or together. is that it must produce high torque at all –
25. A single phase a.c. hysteresis motor can run at– (a) Loads (b) Frequencies
(a) synchronous speed only. (c) Voltages (d) Speeds
(b) sub-synchronous speed only. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
(c) synchronous and super synchronous speed. Ans. (d) : One of the basic requirements of a
(d) synchronous and sub-synchronous speed. servomotor is that is must produce high torque at all
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II speeds. this is a rotary activator or linear actuator that
Ans. (d) : Single-phase cylindrical (non-salient pole) allow precise control.
synchronous-induction or shaded pole motors are 30. The most common two phase a.c. servomotor
classed as hysteresis motor. A hysteresis motor has differ from the standard a.c. induction motor
neither a salient pole rotor nor direct excitation, but because it has –
nevertheless it rotates at synchronous speed and sub-
(a) higher rotor resistance
synchronous speed.
(b) high power rating
When the motor has a rotor that has an overall
cylindrical outline and yet is toothed as a many pole (c) greater inertia
salient pole, it is a sub-synchronous motor. (d) none of the above
26. The voltage fed to the two windings of a two UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
phase a.c. servomotor must have phase Ans. (a) : High rotor resistance is the most common
different of – difference from standard a.c. induction motor and two
(a) 0° (b) 90° phase servo motor. As in inductance motor stator is
(c) more than 90° (d) 180° formed by coils while in servo motor stator is formed
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II with permanent magnet.

31. Which one pair is correctly matched in the Ans. (d) : Limit switch to prevent motion beyond preset
following options related to electric motor? limit-generally provided with -
List – I List – II Hoists Machine tables Conveyor
(a) Universal motor – Poor power factor 35. The transfer function of the armature control
(b) 2-phase ac servomotor – High inertia rotor DC servo motor is :
(c) Under excited – Leading power sK T E a ( s )
(a) θs =
synchronous motor factor s2 ( R a + sLa )( Js + B0 ) + K T K b 
2
(d) Deep bar induction – Low starting torque  

motor K T a( )
E s
(b) θs =
 a a (
( R + sL ) Js 2 + B + K K 
0 T b) 
Ans. (a) : Universal motor has power factor poor, under
excited synchronous motor has lagging power factor KT Ea (s )
(c) θs =
deep bar induction motor have high starting torque. So, s ( R a + sLa )( Js + B0 ) + K T K b 
option (a) is correct matched.
K T Ea ( s )
32. The torque speed characteristics of a repulsion (d) θs =
motor resembles with that following type of d.c. s ( R a + sLa )( B0s + J 0 ) + sK T K b 
motor : CIL MT 2020
(a) separately excited type Ans. (c) :
(b) shunt type
(c) differentially compounded type
(d) series type
Ans. (d) :
Torque speed characteristic of a repulsion motor.
KT Ea (s )
θs =
s ( R a + sLa )( Js + B0 ) + K T K b 
36. For a 1.8 degree, 2 phase bipolar stepper
motor, stepping rate is 100 steps/seconds. The
rotational speed of the motor in rpm is:
There are very high starting torque at starting. (a) 12 (b) 15
33. Drag cup rotor is used in 2-phase a.c. (c) 30 (d) 45
servomotor - (e) 60
(a) to increase efficiency CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
(b) to increase generated torque Ans. (c) : Step angle = 1.8 degree
(c) to achieve fast dynamic response (step size × pulse rate)
Speed in rpm (N) =
(d) to control speed 360
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II 1.8 ×100 × 60
=
Ans. (c) : The rotor of the drag cup servomotor is made 360
of a thin cup of the non. magnetic conducting material. N = 30 rpm
A stationary iron core placed in the middle of the
37. Stepper motors are widely used because:
conducting cup to achieve fast dynamic response.
(a) Wide range of speed
34. The following is/are generally provided with (b) Large rating
limit switch to prevent motion beyond preset (c) No need of field control
limit : (d) Compatibility with digital systems
(a) Hoists (b) Conveyors (e) Robust and Cheap
(c) Machine tables (d) All of the above CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II ESE 2002
Ans. (d) : Stepper motor are widely used because of Ans. (a) : A stepper motor is an AC motor whose shaft
compatibility with digital system, this motor is also or rotor moves through one angular step for each input
used in robots and aircraft. pulse. The range of steps may vary from 0.72 to 90º.
38. Which of the following are the advantages of Thus stepper motor is a type of motor which has rotor
using a stepper motor? movement in discrete steps.
(a) Compatibility with transformers and sensors 42. The direct-current servomotor when compared
needed for position sensing to a.c. servo-motor have
(b) Compatibility with digital systems and (a) higher weight-for same power output
sensors are not required for position and (b) higher starting and reversing torques
speed sensing (c) lower starting and reversing torques
(c) Resonance effect often exhibited at low
speeds and decreasing torque with increasing
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
speed
(d) Easy to operate at high speeds and compatible Ans. (b) :
with analog systems S.No. DC servomotor AC servomotor
ESE 2019 1. Efficiency is high 1. Efficiency is low
Ans. (b) : Stepper motor are compatible with digital (about 5% to 20%)
system due to discrete control available. 2. More problems of 2. Less stability issues.
The stepper motor is an electromagnetic device that stability
converts digital pulses into mechanical shaft rotation. 3. High starting and 3. Low starting and
Advantages of stepper motors are low cost, high reversing torque reversing torque.
reliability, high torque at low speed, simple, rugged
construction that operates in almost any environment 4. Brushes causes No radio frequency
and also compatibility with digital systems and sensors radio frequency noise
are not required for position and speed sensing. noise
39. A 2-phase servo motor in control system uses: 43. The control and reference signals in AC
(a) Drag cup rotor servomotor are
(b) Solid cylindrical rotor (a) in phase with each other
(c) Ordinary squirrel cage rotor (b) 90o phase shifted
(d) Slip ring rotor with inherent low rotor (c) 120o phase shifted
resistance (d) 180o out of phase
(e) Salient pole rotor BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II Ans. (b) : The stator of servo motor has two phase
Ans. (a) : A 2-φ servo motor in control system uses winding in space quadrature and rotor is squirrel cage
drag cup rotor. The inertia of this motor can be reduced type. One stator phase winding called as reference
by using drag cup construction for rotor in 2-phase winding is energized with fixed rated called as reference
servo motor. voltage Vr. The other stator phase winding called
40. Which one of the following types of motors is control winding is in space quadrature with the
most suitable for a computer drive? reference winding and energized from servo amplifier.
(a) Reluctance motor The voltage VC, applied to control winding is usually
(b) Hysteresis motor adjusted exactly 90º Out of phase with Vr.
(c) Shaded pole motor 44. The domestic mixer uses an electric motor of
(d) Stepper motor type:-
(e) Induction motor (a) Universal motor (b) Shaded pole motor
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II (c) Synchronous motor (d) Induction motor
Ans. (d) : A computer drive are rotate in step angle, UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
hence stepper motor is most suitable for computer drive. Ans. (a) : Universal motor uses as domestic mixer.
41. Which special type of motor has rotor A universal motor is defined as a motor which may be
movements in discrete steps operated either on direct or single-phase a.c. supply at
(a) stepper motor (b) reluctance motor approximately the same speed and output.
(c) hysteresis motor (d) servomotors Used as vacuum elements
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 Domestic sewing machine.
45. The outstanding feature of universal motor is 49. Which type of motor is most suitable for
its computer printer device?
(a) best performance at 50-Hz supply (a) Reluctance motor (b) Hysteresis motor
(b) slow speed at all loads (c) Shaded pole motor (d) Stepper motor
(c) excellent performance on DC supply UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(d) highest output kW/kg ratio Ans. (d) : Stepper motor is most suitable for computer
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI printer device.
Ans. (d) : The universal motor is a special kind of ac 50. Speed of a repulsion motor at No load is:-
series motor that performs almost as well as a dc motor. (a) Low (b) Very low
It delivers a high starting torque, it's speed can be (c) High (d) Dangerously high
adjusted, it is small in size, and it is inexpensive. UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
One of the most outstanding features of a universal
Ans. (d) : Speed of a repulsion motor at no load is
motor is its high-power output per kg of weight. dangerously high.
The high ratio of power to weight is a result of the
51. Segmental rotor is used in a
motor's ability to run at high speed.
(a) DC motor
46. The common type of servo motor is different
(b) Universal motor
from normal induction motor as it has:-
(c) Split phase induction motor
(a) Lower rotor resistance
(d) Reluctance motor
(b) Higher rotor resistance
(c) Higher power rating
(d) Larger inertia Ans. (d) : Segmental rotor is used in a reluctance motor.
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II A reluctance motor is a type of electric motor that
induces non-permanent magnetic poles on the
Ans. (b) : The common type of servo motor is different
ferromagnetic rotor.
from normal induction motor as it has higher rotor
The rotor does not have any windings.
resistance.
52. Which single phase ac motor will you select for
47. A 3φ, 3 stack, variable reluctance step motor
record players and tape recorders?
has 20 poles on each rotor and stator stack. The
(a) Hysteresis motor
step angle of this step motor is:-
(b) Shaded pole motor
(a) 3o (b) 6o
o (c) Reluctance motor
(c) 9 (d) 18o
(d) Two value capacitor motor
PS PCL AE 2012
Ans. (a) : Hysteresis motor will be suitable for record
Ans. (b) : Number of teeth= Number of poles = 20
players and tape recorders.
360
step angle =
( no.of stacks ) × ( no.of teeth )
360
= = 60
3 × 20
48. An unexcited single phase synchronous motor
is a
(a) a.c. series motor (b) universal motor
A hysteresis motor is a synchronous motor with a
(c) repulsion motor (d) reluctance motor uniform air gap and without DC excitation. It operates
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II both in single and three phase supply. The torque in a
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I hysteresis motor is produced due to hysteresis and eddy
Ans. (d) : An unexcited single phase synchronous current induced in the rotor by the action of the rotating
motor is a reluctance motor. flux of the stator winding.
Usually, unexcited single phase synchronous motor run 53. In an AC servo motor the ratio R/X is kept
at constant speed equal to synchronous speed of high to have
revolving flux. They do not need a dc excitation for (a) linear torque-speed relationship
their rotors that they are called as unexcited single (b) fast acting response
phase synchronous motors. These motors are divided in (c) reduction of heating
two type as one is reluctance motor and another one is
(d) reduction of vibration
hysteresis motor.
Ans. (a) : In an AC servo motor the ratio R/X is kept 58. Size of a high speed motor as compared to low
high to have linear torque-speed relationship. speed motor for the same HP will be
The AC servomotor has following features. (a) bigger (b) smaller
Light weight (c) same (d) Any of the above
Large torque to weight ratio APPSC AEE 2019
Large R to X ratio Ans. (b) : Size of a high speed motor as compared to
No brushes or slip rings hence maintenance free. low speed motor for the same HP will be smaller.
Applications- Computers, robotics, machine tools, self 59. The detent torque in a stepper motor is the:
balancing recorders etc.
(a) minimum of the static torque with the phase
54. Alternators in air-crafts have operating winding excited
frequency of
(b) maximum of the static torque with the phase
(a) 50 Hz (b) 60 Hz
winding over excited
(c) 400 Hz (d) 800 Hz
(c) minimum of the static torque with the phase
winding
Ans. (c) : Alternators in air-crafts have operating (d) maximum of the static torque with the phase
frequency of 400Hz. winding unexcited.
55. A linear AC servo motor must have WBSE TCL AE 2016
(a) high rotor resistance KPSC AE 2014
(b) high rotor reactance
Ans. (d) : Detent torque is defined as the torque at the
(c) a large air gap
maximum load that is applied to the saft of the motor
(d) both (a) and (b)
which is unexcited without causing continuous rotation
when the motor is unexcited the permanent magnet and
ESE 2005 hybrid stepper motor develops a detent torque confining
Ans. (a) : For servo application the motor the rotation of the motor. So, the detent torque in
characteristics should be linear with negative slope stepper motor is the maximum value of the static torque
(with positive damping). It can be proved that for stable with the phase winding unexcited.
operation positive damping is essential. Therefore
ordinary two phase induction motor with high motor 60. A reluctance motor is preferable for-
resistance is suitable for servo application. (a) Electric traction
So, a linear AC servo motor must have high rotor (b) timing and control devices
resistance. (c) refrigerators
56. A reluctance motor runs at (d) lifts and hoists
(a) synchronous speed KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
(b) a speed slightly less than synchronous speed Ans. (b) : A reluctance motor is preferable for timing
(c) half the synchronous speed and control devices because it has constant-speed
(d) above the synchronous speed characteristics.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II 61. Ratio of the rotor reactance X to the rotor
Ans. (a) : A reluctance motor runs at synchronous resistance R for a two-phase servo motor :
speed. It is a type of synchronous motor. (a) is equal to that of a normal induction motor
57. Now a days, which motor is normally used for (b) is less than that of a normal induction motor
crane travel? (c) is greater than that of a normal induction
(a) DC series motor motor
(b) Synchronous motor
(d) may be less or greater than that of a normal
(c) Differentially compound motor
induction motor
(d) AC slip ring motor
APTRANSCO AE 2017
JUVNL AE 2017
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II Ans. (b) : Ratio of the rotor reactance X to the rotor
resistance R for a two-phase servo motor is less than
Ans. (d) : In general DC series motor is used in
electrical crane, because crane requires high starting that of normal induction motor. In normal induction
torque which can be provided using DC series motor. motor X/R ratio is generally kept high, to obtain the
Now a day's AC slip ring induction motor can also be maximum torque close to the operating region. While in
used in this application. Slip ring induction motor can the case of AC servo motor (two phase induction motor
have very high starting torques by connecting this ratio X/R is less than that of normal induction
appropriate resistance to its rotor winding. motor.

62. Preferred motor in electric shaver is: 64. A 250-W, single-phase, 50-Hz, 220-V universal
(a) Shaded pole motor motor runs at 2000 r.p.m. and takes 1.0 A when
(b) Universal motor supplied from a 220-V DC supply and takes
(c) Hysteresis motor 1.0A (r.m.s.), calculate the torque. Take Ra =
(d) Reluctance motor 20 Ω and La = 0.4 H.
CIL MT 2017 (a) 0.955 Nm
Ans. (b) : A electric shaver uses universal motor (b) 95.5 Nm
because (c) 9.55 Nm
• it has high speed (d) 955 Nm
• can be used with AC as well as DC (e) 9.55 Nm
• it is cost effective CGPSC AE 2017
• better speed control Ans. (a) :
63. A 250-W, single-phase, 50-Hz, 220-V universal
motor runs at 2000 r.p.m. and takes 1.0 A when
supplied from a 220-V DC supply. If the motor
is connected to 220-V AC supply and takes 1.0
A (r.m.s), calculate the speed. Take Ra = 20 and
La = 0.4 H, Eb, ac = 160.5 V
(a) 1605 r.p.m. (b) 2000 r.p.m.
(c) 1000 r.p.m. (d) 1200 r.p.m.
(e) 1506 r.p.m.
CGPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : DC operation : Eb.dc = V - IaRa
= 220-20×1
= 200V
AC Operation
Xa = 2π×50×0.4 = 125.7Ω
As seen from fig.
V = (Eb.ac+IaRa)2+(Ia×Xa)2
V 2 − ( Ia Xa )
2
Eb.ac= -IaRa+
( 220 ) − (1×125.7 )
2 2
= −1× 20 + = 160.5V
DC operation : Eb.dc = V - IaRa since armature current is the same for both DC and AC
excitations hence
= 220-20×1
= 200V E b.dc N dc 160.5
= ∴ N ac = 2000 × = 1605 rpm.
AC Operation E b.ac N ac 200
Xa = 2π×50×0.4 = 125.7Ω Pmech = Eb.ac.Ia= 160.5×1 = 160.5W
As seen from fig. T = 9.55×160.5/1605
V 2 = (Eb.ac+IaRa)2+(Ia×Xa)2 T = 0.955 N-m
65. In a three-phase variable reluctance type
V 2 − ( Ia Xa )
2
Eb.ac= -IaRa+
stepper motor, stator consists 12 poles and
= −1× 20 + 2202 − (125.7 ×1) = 160.5V rotor has 8 poles. The step angle will be:
2
(a) 30º
since armature current is the same for both DC and AC (b) 45º
excitations hence
(c) 15º
E b.dc N dc 160.5
= ∴ N ac = 2000 × = 1605 rpm. (d) 10º
E b.ac N ac 200 DMRC AM 2016

Ans. (c) : Step angle ( φ) of reluctance type stepper Ans. (c) : A universal motor can operate on both AC
and DC supplier. That is why the name universal motor
motor-
is given. Universal motors have high starting torque,
 N – Nr  can run at high speed and are lightweight and compact.
= 360 ×  s 
 Ns × N r  They are used in portable drill machine, hair dryers,
grinders, blowers, kitchen appliances, etc.
Ns = no of stator poles =12
69. A pony motor is used for the starting of which
Nr = no of rotor poles = 8
of the following motor–
 12 – 8  360 × 4 (a) Squirrel cage induction motor
= 360 ×  =
 12 × 8  12 × 8 (b) Schrage Motor
Stepper angle ( φ ) of reluctance type stepper motor- (c) Synchronous Motor
(d) Hysteresis Motor
360
= = 15º ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
24
Ans. (c) : Out of many methods of starting a
66. For which of the following pair of machines, synchronous motor, use of pony motors is a significant
the stator and its winding can be of the same method. In this method, the rotor is brought to the
type: synchronous speed with the help of externally
(a) Universal motor and stepper motor connected, small induction motor known as pony motor.
(b) D.C. motor and hysteresis motor Once the rotor attains the synchronous speed, the DC
(c) Hysteresis motor and reluctance motor excitation to the rotor is switched on; and once the
synchronism is established, the pony motor is
(d) Induction motor and D.C. motor
decoupled. Other methods of starting synchronous
DMRC AM 2016 motor are as follows:
Ans. (c) : Hysteresis Motor and reluctance Motor have 1. Using damper winding.
same type of stator and its winding because both 2. As a slip ring induction motor.
hysteresis Motor and reluctance Motor have same 3. Using small DC machine coupled to it.
construction stator have winding and there is no winding
70. A 2-phase ac servomotor has a tendency to run
on rotor in both hysteresis and reluctance Motor. as a single-phase induction motor, if the voltage
67. To reduce commutation difficulties the across the control winding becomes zero. To
universal motors are designed with: prevent this
(a) Weak magnetic field/ (a) Rotor having high mass and moment of
(b) Very strong magnetic field inertia is to be used
(c) Moderate magnetic field (b) Drag-cup type of light rotor and high
(d) Commutation problem does not depend on resistance is to be used
the strength of magnetic field (c) A low resistance rotor is to be used
(d) The number of turns in the control winding is
to be kept lesser than in the main reference
Ans. : (c) In order to minimize commutation problem winding
high resistance brushes with increased brush are used. ESE 2018
Some method of improving commutation are.
Ans. (b) : A 2-phase A.C. servomotor having tendency
1. Resistance commutation to run a single phase induction motor. If the voltage
2. Brush shift across the control winding becomes zero we use drag
3. Voltage commutation cup rotor where the required.
4. Compensating winding Inertia is very low hence maximum torque may be
We can see that this problem does not depend upon obtained at zero or even at negative speed at very high
magnetic field. rotor resistance.
68. A universal motor is one which– 71. A single-stack, 8-phase (stator), multiple step
(a) Is available universally motor has 6-rotor teeth. The poles are excited
one at a time. If excitation frequency is 120 Hz,
(b) Can be marketed internationally
the speed of the motor is
(c) Can be operated either on DC or AC supply (a) 3 rps (b) 5 rps
(d) Runs dangerously high speed on no load (c) 10 rps (d) 15 rps
Ans. (b) : Given that 74. A two phase servo motor has ……
Stator poles, Ns = 8 (a) Wound rotor
rotor teeth, Nr = 6 (b) Rotor similar to that in dc motor
N − Nr (c) Wound and cage rotor
As, step size, α = s × 360 (d) Cage rotor
Ns Nr
UPPCL AE 2014
8−6
= × 3600 Ans. (d) : A two phase servo motor has a cage Rotor.
8× 6
= 150
Shaft speed is given by (iv) Synchronous Motor
αf
n= 1.
A synchronous condenser is.
3600 (a) an induction motor
150 × 120 (b) under excited synchronous motor
n=
3600 (c) over excited synchronous motor
n = 5 rps (d) DC generator
72. A stepper motor has a step angle of 2.5o. If the MPPSC AE 2017
shaft is to make 25 revolutions, the number of MPPSC AE 2016
steps required will be Ans. (c) : A synchronous condenser is an over excited
(a) 1800 (b) 2200 synchronous motor, which draws leading currents from
(c) 2800 (d) 3600 the system and hence compensates for lagging VARS. It
ESE 2020 is used as a reactive power compensator in some system
Ans. (d) : Number of revolution = 25 for power factor correction purpose.
Angle rotated θ = 25 × 360o 2. The term Synchronous condenser refers to
Step Angle = 2.5o (a) A synchronous motor with a capacitor
connected across the stator terminals to
25 × 360o
Number of steps = = 3600 improve the power factor
2.5o
(b) A synchronous motor operating at full-load
73. In which of the following respects, the with leading power factor
servomotors differ in application capabilities (c) An over-excited synchronous motor partially
from large industrial motors? supplying mechanical load and also
1. They produce high torque at all speeds improving the power factor of the system to
including zero speed. which it is connected.
2. They are capable of holding a static position. (d) An over-excited synchronous motor operating
3. They do not overheat at standstill or lower at no-load with leading power factor used in
speeds. large power stations for improvement of
4. Due to low-inertia they are not able to reverse power factor
direction quickly. ESE 2018
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only Ans. (d) : Synchronous condenser :- A synchronous
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only condenser is synchronous motor running at without
ESE 2020 mechanical load. It can generate or absorb reactive volt
Ans. (b) : As due to low inertia, the reversal will be ampere (VAR) By varying the excitation of its field
quick. As speed torque characteristics winding. It is used in power lines to improve power
N- increases then torque decreases. factor, power factor correction by connecting it along
with transmission lines.
3. At a speed other than synchronous speed:
(a) The synchronous machine's voltage regulation
increases
(b) The efficiency of the machine falls drastically
(c) The average value of the developed torque is
zero
(d) The synchronous impedance falls
Ans. (c) At a speed other than synchronous speed, its 6. A pair of synchronous machines on the same
rotor would experience on oscillating torque of zero shaft may be used to generate power at 60 Hz
average value as the rotating magnetic field repeatedly from given source of power at 50 Hz. Using
minimum number of poles for both the
passes the slower moving rotor. A short-circuited
machines, the synchronous speed will be
winding is added to the rotor to damp out the
(a) 500 r.p.m. (b) 600 r.p.m.
oscillations. (c) 1000 r.p.m. (d) 1200 r.p.m.
120f UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
Synchronous speed (NS ) =
P Ans. (b) : Synchronous motor and generator are
coupled, Therefore,
4. The damper winding in a synchronous machine
N s( m) = N s(g )
is provided to:
(a) Developed high running torque and to damp 120 f m 120f g
N s( m ) = , N s(g ) =
out the oscillations Pm Pg
(b) develop starting torque and to damp out the g = generator
oscillations m = motor
(c) Damp out the oscillations and to increase Pm = motor pole
machine's efficiency Pg = generator pole
(d) Reduce copper loss and iron loss 120 f m 120f g
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 =
pm Pg
Ans. (b) Damper winding in a synchronous machine is
120 × 50 120 × 60
provided to develop starting torque and to damp out the =
oscillation. Pm Pg
damper winding also protect from phase swing of rotor Pg 6
and control the damping and reduce the phenomenon of ∴ =
Pm 5
hunting.
Pg : Pm = 6 : 5
5. A synchronous motor is floating on infinite As odd no. of poles are not possible Hence, Pg : Pm =
mains at no load. If its excitation is now 12:10. So, the minimum no. of poles for generator = 12
increased, it will draw. and for motor, minimum no. of poles =10.
(a) Unity power factor current Hence, synchronous speed for minimum number of
(b) Zero power factor lagging current 120f g
poles in generator N s( g ) =
(c) Zero power factor leading current Pg
(d) No current 120 × 60
RPSC AE 2018 = = 600rpm
12
Ans : (c) Floating means normal excitation under no 7. A commutator with a diameter of 50 cm rotates
load condition. at 1000 rpm. If brush width is 1.5 cm the time
of commutation will be-
(a) 0.168 m sec (b) 0.374 m sec
(c) 0.481 m sec (d) 0.573 m sec
Ans. (d) : TC = Time of commutation or short-circuit
W - Wm
TC = b second
v
Where Wb = brush width in cm
Wm = width of mica insulation in cm
v = velocity cm/sec
Peripheral velocity of commutator
1000
v = πDn = π × 50 × cm/s
60
But, v × time of commutation = brush width
So from floating point i.e. normal excitation if increase ∴ Time of commutation = 1.5 × 60
motor draw leading current that zero p.f. leading π× 50 ×1000
current. = 0.573 m sec.
8. A synchronous motor works as synchronous EVa Va2
condenser when it operates Ans. (b) : Pmax = − cos θ
Zs Zs
(a) under excited with leading power factor
(b) normal excited with unity power factor Zs = Xs and θ = 90º
(c) over excited with leading power factor EVa
(d) over excited with lagging power factor Pmax =
Xs
Ans. (c) : • A synchronous motor works as synchronous 12. In a synchronous motor, if β is impedance
condenser when it operates as over excited with leading angle and δ is torque angle, then the maximum
power factor. developed mechanical power is obtained when
• Since, a synchronous condenser behaves like a (a) δ = 180 – 2β (b) δ = 2β
variable capacitor, it is used in power transmission (c) δ = 180 – β (d) δ = β
systems to regulate line voltage.
• They are also used in constant speed applications.
EVa V2
9. Armature reaction mmf and leakage reactance Ans. (d) : P = cos ( β − δ ) − a cos β
of a synchronous machine are determined by Zs Zs
(a) open circuit test and short circuit test dP
(b) open circuit test and zero power factor test condition for maximum power output i.e. =0
dδ
(c) zero power factor test only
impedance angle (β) = load angle (δ)
(d) short circuit test only
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I 13. The 'V' curves of a synchronous motor are
constant power plots of :
Ans. (b) : Armature reaction mmf and leakage
reactance of a synchronous machine are determined by (a) motor current vs excitation
open circuit test and zero power factor test. (b) p.f. vs excitation
10. In a salient pole synchronous machine (usual (c) back e.m.f. vs excitation
symbols are used): (d) field voltage vs excitation
(a) xq > xd (b) xq < xd WBPSC AE 2009
(c) xq = xd (d) xq = 0 Ans. (a) :
MPPSC AE 2017 14. A 3-phase, 400 V, 50 Hz synchronous motor is
KPTCL AE 2016 working at 50% load. In case an increase in the
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I field current of the motor causes a reduction in
WBPSC AE 2012 the armature current it can be concluded that
Ans. (b) : In case of salient pole synchronous motor (a) the motor is delivering reactive power to the
 Vt = E b + Ia R a + jIa X q + j ( x d − x q ) Id  mains
 
(b) the motor is absorbing reactive power from
Where, Vt: Terminal voltage
the mains
Eb: Excitation emf
(c) the motor is neither absorbing nor delivering
Ia: Armature current
reactive power
Ra: Armature resistance
Xd: Direct-axis synchronous reactance (d) none of the above
Xq: Quadrature-axis synchronous reactance. BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans. (b) :
Term Id(Xd – Xq) is due to saliency. In cylindrical
rotor synchronous machine Xd = Xq = Xs 15. Which among the following statement is true
Xd is approximately 60%>Xq about a 3–phase synchronous motor?
X d > X q in a salient pole synchronous machine. (a) The speed of stator MMF is always more than
11. The maximum mechanical power developed by that of rotor MMF
a synchronous motor is given by- (b) The speed of stator MMF is always less than
V VE that of rotor MMF
(a) Pmax ≃ X s W / ph (b) Pmax ≃ W / ph (c) The speed of stator MMF is synchronous
E XS
speed while that of rotor MMF is zero
E X
(c) Pmax ≃ X s W / ph (d) Pmax ≃ S W / ph (d) Rotor and stator MMF are stationary with
V VE respect to each other.
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I UPRVUNL AE 2014
Ans. (d) Rotor MMF and stator MMF are stationary 18. Which of the following is true for a
with respect to each other in 3–φ Synchronous motor. synchronous condenser?
Speed of stator MMf = Rotor MMF = NS (a) It is a synchronous motor with capacitor
So relative speed. connected across stator terminals to improve
= NS – N S = 0 power factor.
(b) It is a synchronous motor operating at full
16. Match List– (Regulation method) with List–II
load with leading power factor
(Relevant phasor) correctly
(c) It is an over-excited synchronous motor
List–I
partially supplying mechanical load, and also
A. Synchronous impedance method
improving power factor of the system to
B. mmf method
which it is connected.
C. Zero power factor (ZPF) method
(d) It is an over-excited synchronous motor
D. American Standard Association method operating at no-load with leading pf used in
List–II large power stations for improvement of
1. emf phasor power factor.
2. Predominantly mmf phasor UPRVUNL AE 2014
3. Both emf and mmf phasors
Ans. (d) Synchronous condenser is an over excited
4. emf and mmf phasors including saturation synchronous motor operating at no load with leading
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 Power factor used in large power station for
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 improvement of power factor.
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 19. A synchronous motor operates at 0.8 pf
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 lagging. If the field current of the motor is
UPRVUNL AE 2014 continuously increased
ESE 2001 1. The power factor decreases upto a certain
Ans. (a) Synchronous impedance method – emf value of field current and thereafter it
phasor increases.
mmf method – predominately mmf phasor 2. The armature current increases upto a certain
Zero power factor (ZPF) method– emf and mmf value of field current and thereafter it
phasors including saturation. decreases.
American Standard Association Method- emf and 3. The power factor increases upto a certain
mmf phasor including saturation. value of field current and thereafter it
17. Because of which of the following reasons the decrease
phasor addition of stator and rotor mmfs is 4. The armature current decreases upto a certain
possible in a cylindrical rotor synchronous value of field current and thereafter it,
machine? increases.
(a) Two mmfs are rotating in opposite direction. From these, the correct answer is
(a) 1, 2 (b) 3, 4
(b) Two mmfs are rotating in same direction at (c) 1, 3 (d) 2, 4
different speed TSPSC AEE 2017
(c) Two mmfs are stationary with respect to each Ans. (b) : When field current is increased continuously,
other the power factor increases then after getting certain
(d) One mmf is stationary and the other mmf is (maximum) value it start to decrease, so the armature
rotating. current start decrease and after some time it increases
UPRVUNL AE 2014 this can be see that from V-curve and inverted V-curve.
ESE 2001 20. A, 10 pole 25 Hz alternator is directly coupled
Ans. (c) In synchronous motor phasor addition is to and is driven by 60 Hz synchronous motor.
possible as mmf are stationary with each other. Then the number of poles in a synchronous
Speed of rotor mmf = Speed of armature mmf = NS motor are
relative speed = NS – NS = 0 (a) 12 poles (b) 48 poles
In synchronous motor phasor addition of stator and (c) 24 poles (d) 6 poles
rotor mmf is possible in a cylindrical rotor two mmfs TNPSC AE 2018
are stationary with respect to each other. ESE 2007
Ans. (c) : Directly coupled alternator and synchronous AB = Armature Reaction mmf
motor driven same speed. BC = Armature leakage reactance drop.
120 × f1 120 × f 2 Hence, the Potier's triangle separates the armature
=
P1 P2 leakage reactance and armature reaction mmf.
120 × 25 120 × 60 24. The maximum power developed in the
= synchronous motor will depend on
10 P2
(a) rotor excitation only.
P2 = 24 pole
(b) maximum value of coupling angle.
21. Synchronous condenser means (c) supply voltage only.
(a) A synchronous motor with capacitor connected
(d) rotor excitation, supply voltage and maximum
across stator terminals to improve PF
value of coupling angle.
(b) A synchronous motor operating at full load
with leading PF Vizag Steel MT 2012
(c) An over excited synchronous motor partially E f Vt
supplying mechanical load and also Ans. (d) : Pe = sin δ
Xs
improving PF of the system to which it is
connected Where, Pe = Power
(d) An over excited synchronous motor operating Ef = Excitation emf
at no load with leading PF to improve the PF Vt = terminal voltage
of the system Xs = Synchronous Impedance
TNPSC AE 2018 δ = Coupling angle.
ESE 2001 So, power developed in synchronous motor will
Ans. (d) : Synchronous condenser means an over depends upon rotor excitation, supply voltage and value
excited synchronous motor operating at no load with of coupling angle.
leading PF to improve PF of the system.
25. An over excited synchronous motor is used for
22. A star connected synchronous machine with
(a) fluctuating load
neutral point grounded through a reactance xn
and winding zero sequence reactance x0 (b) variable speed load
experiences a single-line to ground fault, (c) low torque load
through an impedance xf. The total zero (d) power factor correction
sequence impedance is UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
(a) x0 + xn + xf (b) x0 + 3xn + xf Ans. (d) : A over excited synchronous motor is called
(c) x0 + 3(xn + xf) (d) 3(x0 + xn + xf) phase modifier or phase advancer. They are practically
TNPSC AE 2019 used for improve the power factor.
Ans. (c) : Zero sequence network of synchronous 26.
Leakage reactance (Xl) and armature reaction
machine, mmf (Fa) of a synchronous machine are
∴ X eq = x 0 + 3 ( x n + x f ) determined using
(a) O.C.C. and S.C.C. tests
23. The Potier's triangle separates the
(a) iron losses and copper losses. (b) O.C.C. and zero power factor characteristic
(b) field mmf and armature mmf. (c) O.C.C. only
(c) stator voltage and rotor voltage. (d) nothing can be said
(d) armature leakage reactance and armature UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
reaction mmf. UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
Vizag Steel MT 2012 Ans. (b) : Armature reaction mmf and leakage
Ans. (d) : reactance of a synchronous machine are determine
using O.C.C. and ZPF characteristics.
27. A salient pole synchronous machine has a
synchronous reactance, which is equal to
(a) Xd (b) Xq
Xd − Xq Xd + Xq
(c) (d)
2 2
Ans. (d) : A salient pole synchronous machine has 32. According to Bondel's two reaction theory the
synchronous reactance, which is equal to armature mmf is divided into two components
Synchronous Reactance one along direct axis and the other along
quadrature axis. The component acting along
Xd + Xq the quadrature axis is
Xs =
2 (a) magnetising
Xd - direct axis reactance (b) demagnetising
Xq- quadrature axis reactance (c) cross-magnetising
28. For the 100% excitation of synchronous motor, (d) none of the above
the relationship between applied voltage (V) WBPSC AE 2017
and back emf is. Ans. (c) :
(a) E < V 33. During short circuit test the loss can be
(b) E > V obtained by measuring mechanical power
(c) E is approximately equal to V required to drive the synchronous machine.
The loss PSC comprises of:
1. I2R loss in armature winding due to the flow
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I of short circuit current (ac)
Ans. (c) : The value of excitation for back emf (Eb) is 2. Local core lose caused by armature leakage
equal to applied voltage V, is known as 100% excitation flux
(V = Eb). 3. Hysteresis loss
For over excitation Eb>V motor will operate at Which of the above statements are correct?
leading P.F. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
For under excitation Eb<V motor will operate at (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
lagging P.F. UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
29. Variation in the excitation of a synchronous Ans. (b) :
motor causes variation in 34. A 3300 V, delta-connected motor has a
(a) armature current synchronous reactance per phase (delta) of 18
(b) power factor Ω. It operates at a leading power factor of
(c) speed 0.707 when drawing 800 kW from the mains.
(d) both (a) and (b) The excitation emf will be:
(a) 2871 V (b) 2653 V
WBPSC AE 2017
(c) 2435 V (d) 2217 V
Ans. (b) : UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
30. Salient pole synchronous motor running at Ans. (a) :
synchronous speed suddenly loses its excitation.
35. The synchronous motor is operating on no load
Then, at unity power factor. If the field current is
(a) it will run at a lower speed increased the power factor will become
(b) it will not run (a) leading and the current will decrease
(c) it will continue to run at synchronous speed (b) lagging and the current will increase
with reduced output (c) lagging and the current will decrease
(d) it will continue to run at synchronous speed (d) leading and the current will increase
with same output WBPSC AE 2008
WBPSC AE 2017 ESE 1998
Ans. (a) : Ans. (d) :
31. Armature reaction in a synchronous motor at 36. In a 3-phase, 50 Hz salient pole synchronous
rated voltage and zero power factor (lead) is motor, the maximum power will be obtained
when the load angle would be
(a) magnetizing
(a) 450
(b) cross-magnetising
(b) 900
(c) both magnetising and cross-magnetising
(c) Less than 900
(d) demagnetising (d) More than 900
Ans. (d) : Ans. (c) :

37. Synchronizing power of a synchronous motor Ans. (d) :
varies:
(a) Directly as square of synchronous reactance
(b) Inversely as synchronous impedance
(c) Directly as synchronous reactance
(d) Inversely as synchronous reactance
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
Ans. (d) : Synchronizing power of a synchronous motor
varies inversely
E V
P= v t V-curve of a synchronous motor
X
If synchronous motor with 100% excitation is at unity
1 power factor. Then according to its V-curve, the
P∝
X armature current (Ia) will have leading pf with over
38. Synchronous motor speed is controlled by excitation.
varying 41. The direction of rotation of a synchronous
(a) Field execution motor can be reversed by reversing
(b) Supply voltage (a) Current to the field winding
(c) Supply frequency only (b) Supply phase sequence
(d) Both (Supply voltage) and (Frequency) (c) Polarity of rotor poles
MPPSC AE 2016 (d) none of the other three
Ans. (d) : Speed of synchronous motor can be KPTCL AE 2016
controlled by using both supply voltage and frequency. Ans. (b) : If the working flux direction in a
120f synchronous motor for 'ABC' phase sequence is
NS = clockwise, then for 'ACB' phase sequence it is in anti-
p
clockwise direction.
39. Synchronous capacitor is So, if direction of rotation of synchronous motor is to be
(a) An ordinary static capacitor bank reversed then it can be done by reversing the supply
(b) An over excited synchronous motor driving phase sequence.
mechanical load 42. A synchronous machine is called as doubly
(c) An over excited synchronous motor running excited machine because-
without mechanical load (a) It can be over excited
(d) Not an ordinary static capacitor bank or an (b) It has two sets of rotor poles
over excited synchronous motor driving
(c) Both its rotor and stator are excite
mechanical load or an over excited
(d) It needs twice the normal exciting current
synchronous motor running without
mechanical load KPTCL AE 2016
KPTCL AE 2016 Ans. (c) : A synchronous machine is called a doubly
excited machine because both its rotor circuit & stator
Ans. (c) : A synchronous capacitor (or) synchronous
circuit are excited.
condenser is a over-excited synchronous motor, running
without no load behaves as a capacitor which is Rotor circuit → DC supply→ Field winding
indicated by a leading current or supply of VARs in the Stator circuit→ AC supply→ Armature winding
circuit by a synchronous motor. 43. The synchronous reactance of the synchronous
40. A synchronous motor connected to infinite machine is ______________
busbars has at constant full-load, 100% (a) Ratio between short circuit voltage & open
excitation and unity pf. On changing the circuit current at different field
excitation only, the armature current will have (b) Ratio between open circuit voltage & short
(a) Leading pf with under-excitation circuit current at constant field current
(b) No change of pf (c) Ratio between open circuit voltage & short
(c) Lagging pf with over excitation circuit current at different field current
(d) Leading pf with over excitation (d) None of these
KPTCL AE 2016 KPTCL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : The synchronous reactance (Xs) is the Ans. (b) : Power developed in salient pole machine is.
imaginary reactance employed to account for the
voltage effects in the armature circuit produced by the
actual armature leakage reactance and by the change in
the air gap flux caused by the armature reaction. If field current is switched off, then the machine will
continue to run due to salient power developed by the
[ Xs = X al + X ar ] rotor.
Xal = leakage reactance 46. The maximum power in cylindrical and salient
Xar = Armature reaction reactance pole machines is obtained respectively at load
angles of
(a) 90o ,90o (b) <90o ,90o
o o
(c) 90 ,<90 (d) 90o ,>90o
KPTCL AE 2016
Ans. (c) : Maximum power in cylindrical rotor machine
 Eb  E f Vt
Xs =  Pmax =
 Isc  Xs
44. In a synchronous motor, damper winding is EV
Pout = f t sin δ
provided to Xs
(a) Stabilize rotor motion Pmax = Pout
(b) Suppress rotor oscillations E f Vt E Vt
sin δ = f
(c) Develop necessary starting torque Xs Xs
(d) Suppress rotor oscillations and Develop
δ = sin (1)
−1
necessary starting torque

δ = 900
KPTCL AE 2016
Pmax salient pole rotor-
Ans. (d) : It consists of low resistance copper,
Alluminium or Brass bars embedded in slot pole fack
of salient pole machines.
Due to speed variations of rotor, emf gets induced
in the damper windings, thus current produces &
Power is max d < 900
hence torque produces is such a direction so as to
oppose the cause as per Lenz's law. Thus, damping 47. When a synchronous motor is running at
the oscillation. synchronous speed, the damper winding
produces
Damper winding also form the starting winding of
(a) damping torque
motor of salient-pole type.
(b) eddy current torque
45. A salient pole synchronous motor is running at (c) torque aiding the developed torque
no load. Its field current is switched off. The (d) no torque
motor will- APPSC AEE 2019
(a) come to stop KPTCL AE 2016
(b) continue to run at synchronous speed UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
(c) continue to run at a speed slightly more than ESE 1997
the synchronous speed Ans. (d) : When the rotor is at synchronous speed then
(d) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the relative velocity between the RMF (rotating
the synchronous speed magnetic field of stator) and the rotor is zero. Hence
induced EMF in the damper winding is zero thus in
normal running condition damper winding of
APPSC AEE 2019 synchronous machine does not carry any current
KPTCL AE 2016 therefore no torque will be produced.

48. The angle between the synchronous rotating 120f
stator flux and rotor poles of a synchronous Ans. (b) : Ns = P + P
1 2
motor is
120 × 50
(a) Synchronizing angle (b) Torque angle = = 375rpm
6 + 10
(c) Power factor angle (d) Slip angle
52. The stiffness or synchronizing power
KPTCL AE 2016
coefficient of a synchronous machine is given
Ans. (b) : Angle between synchronous rotating stator by
flux and rotor poles of synchronous motor is a torque
E V cos δ
angle. (a) Ef Vt cos δ (b) f t
Xs
Torque angle (δ) is the angle between rotor flux and
stator flux both are rotating at synchronous speed. It is E V sin δ
(c) Ef Vt sin δ (d) f t
noted that for synchronous motors the rotor flux axis Xs
lags the stator flux axis by the angle (δ). RPSC VPITI 2018
49. The maximum power for a given excitation in a E f Vt Vt2
synchronous motor is developed when the Ans. (b) : P = X cos ( 90 − δ ) − X cos 90º
S s
power angle is equal to
E .V
(a) 0 degree (b) 60 degree Pc = f t sin δ − Active power
(c) 45 degree (d) 90 degree Xs
KPTCL AE 2016 Synchronizing power coefficient
E f Vt dPc E f Vt
Ans. (d) : Pmax = = cos δ
Xs dx Xs
E f × Vt 53. In synchronous the shape of transmitter &
Pout = sin δ
Xs receiver are as which of the following?
Pmax = Pout (a) Transmitter-dumbbell shape, receiver-
cylindrical
E f Vt E f Vt (b) Transmitter-cylindrical, receiver-dumbbell
= sin δ
Xs Xs shape
1 = sin δ (c) Transmitter-cylindrical, receiver-cylindrical
(d) Transmitter-dumbbell shape, receiver-
δ = sin −1 (1) δ = 900
dumbbell shape
50. A synchronous machine while operating at Vizag Steel MT 2011
constant power draws negative reactive power Ans. (a) : The rotor of the synchronous is a dumbbell in
from the bus bar when shape, and a concentric coil is wound on it. The AC
(a) normally excited (b) overexcited voltage is applied to the rotor. So, Transmitter of
(c) not excited at all (d) underexcited synchronous is in dumbbell shape.
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III And, Receiver of synchronous is in cylindrical shape
Ans. (b) : A synchronous machine while operating at 54. Which reactance value is least in synchronous
constant power draws negative reactive power from the machine?
bus bar when over excited. (a) Transient reactance
51. The synchronous speed of a motor set, consists (b) Sub transient reactance
of two induction motors running as (c) Steady state reactance
cumulatively cascaded, used for cascade (d) None of the options
control where main motor has 6 poles while the Vizag Steel MT 2011
( d)
auxiliary motor has 10 poles and the supply Ans. (b) : Sub-Transient Reactance X ′′ < Transient
frequency is 50 Hz, will be
(a) 1000 rpm (b) 375 rpm Reactance ( X ′d ) < Steady state Reactance ( X d )
(c) 1500 rpm (d) 600 rpm X′′d < X ′d < X d
55. Leakage reactance of the armature of a salient 59. In a self-controlled synchronous motor fed
pole synchronous machine which varies with from a variable frequency inverter:
the position of rotor is due to leakage flux (a) The rotor poles invariable have damper
(a) of end connection windings
(b) which remains within the slot (b) The frequency of the stator decides the rotor
(c) which comes out of slot teeth crosses the air speed
gap and enters the pole faces (c) The speed of the rotor decides stator
(d) None of above frequency
GMB AE 2017 (d) There are stability problems
DSSSB AE 2019
Ans. (c) : Leakage reactance of the armature of a salient
pole synchronous machine which varies with the Ans. (b) : In a self-controlled synchronous motor fed
position of rotor is due to leakage flux which comes out from a variable frequency inverter-
of slot teeth crosses the air gap and enters the pole 120f
Ns =
faces. P
In salient pole synchronous machine the air-gap is non- 120f r
uniform.
Rotor speed (Nr) = {∵ f r = sfs }
P
56. During a disturbance on a synchronous N − Nr
machine, the rotor swings from A to B before Slip (s) = s
Ns
finally settling down to a steady state at point C
on the power angle curve. The speed of the ∴ Nr = Ns – sNs
machine during oscillation is synchronous at Nr = Ns (1 – s)
point (s). Thus, the frequency of the stator decides the rotor
(a) A and B (b) A and C speed.
(c) B and C (d) Only at C 60. For determination of voltage regulation of an
APTRANSCO AE 2011 alternator, which one of the methods give more
accurate result?
Ans. (c) : During a disturbance on a synchronous
(a) Synchronous Impedance method
machine, the rotor swings from A to B before Finally
(b) MMF method
settling down to a steady state of machine during
(c) American Institution Standards method
oscillation is synchronous at point B and C.
(d) Potier triangle method
57. During hunting of synchronous motor–
DSSSB AE 2019
(a) Negative phase sequence currents are
ESE 2004
generated
Ans. (d) : For determination of voltage regulation of an
(b) Harmonics are developed in the armature
alternator, Potier triangle method give more accurate
current
result. Its also called zero power factor method.
(c) Damper bars develop torque
61. A 3-phase synchronous motor is provided with
(d) Field excitation increases
a damper winding. It can be started as
APTRANSCO AE 2011 (a) single-phase induction motor
Ans. (c) : During hunting of synchronous motor (b) three-phase induction motor
damper bars develop torque. (c) Both (a) and (b)
58. A cylindrical rotor synchronous motor is (d) damper winding cannot be used for starting
switched on to the supply with its field UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
windings shorted on themselves, the motor will- Ans. (b) : A 3-phase synchronous motor is provided
(a) Not start with a damper winding. It can be started as three-phase
(b) Start but will not run at synchronous speed induction motor.
(c) Start as an induction motor and then run as a 62. A synchronous motor, running with leading
synchronous motor power factor and there is no mechanical load
(d) Start and run as a synchronous motor on it, is known as
APTRANSCO AE 2011 (a) synchronous induction motor
Ans. (b) : A cylindrical rotor synchronous motor is (b) spinning motor
switched on to supply with its field winding shorted on (c) synchronous condenser
themselves the motor will start but will not run at (d) none of the above
synchronous speed. UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : A synchronous motor, running with leading 66. V-curves are used in the analysis of
power factor and there is no mechanical load on it, is (a) d.c. motors
known as synchronous condenser. (b) induction motors
63. In a synchronous machine (c) synchronous motors
(a) Xd" < Xd' < Xd (b) Xd < Xd' < Xd" (d) transformers
(c) Xd = Xd' (d) Xd' = Xd" UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : When a synchronous motor is operating on
Ans. (a) : In a synchronous machine, Xd" < Xd' < Xd. infinite bus at a leading power factor, an increase in the
64. When the excitation of synchronous motor is field current causes an increase in the armature current.
varied, This can be seen from the V curve.
(a) the armature current varies but the power
factor remains constant
(b) the power factors varies but the armature
current does not vary
(c) neither the power factor nor the armature
current varies
(d) both the power factor and armature current
vary
Ans. (d) : The excitation of synchronous motor is
varied both the power factor and armature current vary.
67. A synchronous machine has P number of poles,

find the relation between electrical angular
momentum ( ωe) and mechanical angular
momentum ( ωm).
(a)ωe = ωm (b) ωe = P*ωm
P 2
(c)ωe = * ωm (d) ωe = * ωm
2 P
Electrical angle
Ans. (c) Mechanical angle =
No.of pair of poles
An overexcited synchronous motor operate at leading ω
ωm = e
power factor, under excited synchronous motor operate P/2
at lagging power factor and normal excited synchronous
P
motor operate at unity power factor. ωe = × ωm
65. The distribution factor of a synchronous 2
machine winding is expressed as- Where , P = Number of poles
(a) m sin (ψ/2) (b) m cos (ψ/2) ωe = Electrical angular momentum
 mψ  ωm = Mechanical angular momentum.
sin  
 2  sin( m ψ / 2) 68. A 500V, 120 kW, 50 Hz, star- connected
(c) (d)
m sin(ψ / 2) m cos(ψ / 2) synchronous motor operating at 0.8 pf leading
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I has full load efficiency of 91%. The armature
resistance is equal to 0.08Ω. The magnitude of
 mψ 
sin   the armature current is nearly equal to.
Ans. (c) : Distribution factor- K d =
E dist
=  2 
(a) 173A (b) 240 A
E conc ψ (c) 190 A (d) 127 A
msin  
2 UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
value of Kd is less than 1. RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
Ans. (c) : Ra = 0.8 ohm 72. The damping winding in a synchronous motor
output power 120kW is generally used :
input power = = =
efficency .91 (a) to prevent hunting and provide the starting
Pin = 131.868 kW torque
(b) to reduce eddy currents
3VL Ia cos θ = Pin
(c) to minimize vibrations
131.868 × 103
Ia = = 190.33Amp (d) to reduce noise level
3 × 500 × .8 RPSC VPITI 2016
≃ 190 Amp
Ans. (a) : The damper winding in a synchronous motor
69. Use of fractional pitch winding : is generally used to prevent hunting and provide the
(a)Make it stiffer starting torque.
(b)Results in reduced leakage reactance 73. An ideal synchronous motor has no starting
(c)Results in reduced axial length of the machine torque because the :
(d)All of the above (a) rotor is made up of salient poles
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016 (b) relative velocity between the stator and rotor
Ans. (d) Fractional pitch winding also called short mmf's is zero
pitch winding. It reduces the harmonics and copper (c) relative velocity between the stator and rotor
saving so the results reduced leakage reactance make it mmfs is not zero
stiffer and reduced axial length of the machine. (d) rotor winding is highly reactive
70. In synchronous machine the armature flux RPSC VPITI 2016
helps the main flux when the load power factor ESE 1998
is –
Ans. (c) : An ideal synchronous motor has no starting
(a) zero lagging
torque because the relative velocity between the stator
(b) unity
and rotor mmf is not zero.
(c) zero leading
74. As compared to cylindrical pole type rotors,
(d) 0.8 lagging
salient pole type rotors are :
(a) smaller in diameter and larger in axial length
Ans. (c) : In synchronous machine the armature flux
(b) larger in diameter and smaller in axial length
helps the main flux when the load power factor is zero
leading. (c) larger in diameter and as well as in axial
length
71. If the torque angle of a 4-pole synchronous
(d) smaller in diameter and as well as in axial
motor is 8º electrical, its value in mechanical
angle is length
(a) 4º RPSC VPITI 2016
(b) 2º Ans. (b) : Salient pole type rotor are larger in diameter
(c) 0.5º and smaller in axial length compare to cylindrical pole
(d) 0.25º type rotors.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II 75. In a synchronous machine, if the field flux is
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II ahead of the armature field flux in the direction
Ans. (a) : Given, P = 4, θelect = 8° of rotation, the machine works a
Relationship between the electrical and mechanical (a) asynchronous motor
angles- (b) asynchronous generator
(c) synchronous motor
P
θelect =   θmech (d) synchronous generator
2
RPSC VPITI 2016
4
8° =   θmech Ans. (d) : In a synchronous machine, If field flux is
2
ahead of the armature field flux in the direction of
θmech = 40 rotation, the machine work as synchronous generator.

76. A synchronous machine with small short 79. In a synchronous machine the rotor speed
circuit ratio (SCR) will have : becomes more than the synchronous speed
(a) poor inherent voltage regulation during hunting, the damping bars develop:
(a) Synchronous motor torque
(b) lower stability limit
(b) DC motor torque
(c) difficult to operate in parallel
(c) Induction motor torque
(d) all of the above (d) Induction generator torque
RPSC VPITI 2016 (e) Synchronous generator torque
Ans. (d) : For the small value of the short circuit ratio CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
(SCR) the synchronizing power is small as the ESE 2014
synchronizing power keeps the machine in synchronism ESE 2013
a lower value of the SCR has a low stability limit. In Ans. (d) : When the speed of synchronous motor is
other words a machine with a low value SCR is less above synchronous speed the torque developed is
stable. When operating in parallel with other generator. induction generator torque and when the rotor speed in
So all option will be correct. a synchronous motor becomes lesser than synchronous
speed then damper bars will develop induction motor
77. When the excitation of normally operating torque.
unloaded salient pole synchronous motor
80. For maximum current during 'Slip Test' on a
suddenly gets disconnected, it continues to run synchronous machine the armature mmf aligns
as a: along.
(a) Schrage motor (a) d-axis (b) q-axis
(b) Spherical motor (c) 450 to q-axis (d) 450 to q-axis
(c) Switched reluctance motor WBPSC AE 2017
(d) Variable reluctance motor OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
(e) Stepper motor CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
ESE 2002
Ans. (b) :
ESE 2002
Ans. (d) : When the excitation of normally operating
unloaded salient pole synchronous motor suddenly gets
disconnected, it continues to run as a variable reluctance
motor.
78. A 440 V, 3-phase, 10 pole and 50 Hz
synchronous motor delivering s torque of 50/π
Nm, delivers a power of : For slip test,
(a) 50 W (i ) when, armature poles (or mmf) align with d-axis,
(b) 500 W maximum voltage/ phases
Xd =
(c) 1000 W minimum current/phases
(d) 2000 W (ii) when, armature poles (or mmf) align with q-axis
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 then,
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II minimum voltage/phase
Xq =
ESE 2011 maximum current/phase
Ans. (c) : Thus, for maximum current during slip test, the
50 2πNs armature mmf aligns along q-axis.
P = Tω = ×
π 60 81. If the field of a synchronous motor is under
120f 120 × 50 excited, the power factor will be–
Ns = = (a) Lagging (b) Leading
P 10
(c) Unity (d) More than unity
50 2π× 120 × 50
= × KPTCL AE 2016
π 60 × 10 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
∴ p = 1000 W CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
ESE 2003
Ans. (a) : If the field of a synchronous motor is under Ans. (a) : In synchronous machine damper winding
excited, the power factor will be lagging. If the field is develop torque if speed is changed from synchronous
over excited, the power factor will become leading. In speed. It negative slip damper torque produces to reduce
case of synchronous generator of generator is under speed.
excited then the power factor is leading and in case of
over excitation power factor will be lagging. 86. In a synchronous motor :
(a) E is always less than V
82. For 100% excitation in synchronous motor, the
relationship between back emf E and applied (b) E = V
voltage V is :- (c) E is always more than V
(a) E > V (b) E < V (d) E may be more or less than V
(c) E = V (d) E V MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I Ans. (d) : In a synchronous motor e.m.f (E) may be
Ans. (c) : For 100% excitation in synchronous motor more or less than terminal voltage (V). In under
the relationship between back emf (E) and applied
excitation Ef cos δ < V and motor operate at lagging
voltage V is E = V . power factor. In case of over excitation Ef cos δ > V and
83. The power factor of the input power to a motor operate at leading power factor.
synchronous motor is adjusted by adjusting :- 87. Power factor of a synchronous motor can be
(a) Magnitude of excitation
improved by :
(b) Magnitude of armature reaction
(a) Keeping load constant and running motor
(c) Number of poles
over-excited
(d) None of these
(b) Keeping load constant and running motor
under-excited
Ans. (a) : The power factor of the input power to a
synchronous motor is adjusted by adjusting magnitude (c) Varying the load and constant excitation
of excitation. (d) None of the above
84. If the supply frequency of synchronous motor MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
is 50 cycles/second, then the rotor must revolve Ans. (a) : Power factor of a synchronous motor can be
at : improved by keeping load constant and running motor
(a) 25 cycles/second (b) 50 cycles/second at over-excited because in this case synchronous motor
(c) 100 cycles/second (d) None of the above can generates reactive VAR by varying the excitation of
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I its field winding and synchronous motor behaves like
Ans. (b) : If the supply frequency of synchronous motor variable capacitor. Thus it is used for power factor
is 50 cycles/second, the rotor must revolve at 50 improvement.
cycles/sec because a synchronous motor always run at
88. As the load on a synchronous motor increases,
synchronous speed and there is no relative motion
the torque angle
between stator and rotor i.e N s = N r
(a) increases
Speed of a synchronous motor is given by– (b) decreases
120 × f (c) remains the same
Ns = Nr =
P
(d) may increase or decrease
Since both stator and rotor speed are same and also
depends on supply frequency therefore the both stator
and rotor frequency must be same as supply frequency. Ans. (a) : Torque Angle 'δ'– It is the angle between
85. In a synchronous machine with damper rotor flux and stator flux both which are rotating at
winding, the damping torque at negative slip synchronous speed.
developed by damper winding acts– As the load on the synchronous motor increased, the
(a) To reduce the speed torque angle 'δ' also increased and motor is still running
(b) To increase the speed at synchronous speed.
(c) Either to increase or decrease the speed The value of the torque angle depends on the amount of
(d) None of these load to meet by the motor.
PTCUL AE 2012
89. Damper winding is provided in synchronous Ans. (b) : V-curve:–
motor to : Synchronous motor V-curve drawn between field
(a) increase power factor current if and armature current Ia.
(b) suppress hunting Inverted V-curve :–
(c) reduce speed Inverted V-curve drawn between field current if and
power factor.
(d) increase speed
Ans. (b):Damper winding is provided in synchronous
motor to suppress hunting. Damper winding is the
winding placed in the pole faces of the synchronous
machine which makes the synchronous machine self
starting. It is the small copper wires which are placed in
the holes on pole faces each and of the wires are short
circuited to form a partial squirrel cage winding.
90. The full load slip of synchronous motor is :
(a) 5% (b) 1%
(c) 2% (d) zero
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I 93. The pull-out torque of a salient pole
synchronous motor occurs when the torque
Ans. (d) : Slip (s)– Slip is defined as the relative speed
angle is about
between stator and rotor i.e
(a) 0o (b) 90o
Ns − N r o
(d) 75o
% Slip (s) = × 100 (c) 30
Ns MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I
Since in synchronous motor Ns = Nr therefore the full Ans. (d) : The maximum torque is pull out torque it will
load slip of synchronous motor is occur at θ = 90o, But this is possible for the motor
N − Ns having smooth rotors. As most practical motors have
% (s) = s × 100 salient poles, so the pull out torque occurs at a torque
Ns
angle about to 75o.
%(s) = 0 94. Torque-speed characteristics of synchronous
Thus the full load slip of synchronous motor is zero. motor operating with V/F control is given in
the figure below :
91. Single phase synchronous motors are known as
unexcited motor because :
(a) They run at constant speed
(b) They do not need d.c. excitation
(c) They can operate on single phase supply only (a)
Ans. (b): Usually unexcited single phase synchronous
motor run at constant speed equal to synchronous speed
of revolving flux. They do not need a dc excitation for (b)
their rotors. That's why they are called as unexcited
single phase synchronous motors.
92. Inverted V-curve of a synchronous motor
represents the relation between:
(a) power factor and speed (c)
(b) field current and power factor
(c) field current and speed
(d) armature current and field current
BHEL ET 2019
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I (d)
Ans.(d): Torque-speed characteristics of synchronous 97. In synchronous machines, V-curves are:
motor operating with V/f control is given by given (a) Plots of armature current against field current
figure shown below– at constant voltage
(b) Plots of field current against armature current
at constant voltage
(c) Plots of armature current against field current
at constant power
Power in synchronous motor is given by– (d) Plots of field current against armature current
P = T.ωs at constant power
P P HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
T= = {∵ ω = 2πf}
ωs 2πf Ans. (c) In synchronous machines, V-curves are plots of
Where, T = Torque of synchronous motor armature current against field current at constant power.
P = Power of synchronous motor
ωs = Synchronous speed.
V
If ratio is constant then torque will also constant as
f
shown in above graph.
If frequency increased by keeping voltage remain
constant then torque will be decreased.
95. An under excited synchronous motor operates
at :
(a) lagging PF
(b) unity PF 98. The power factor of a synchronous motor is
(c) leading PF determined by its
(d) lagging PF at low loads and leading PF at (a) speed
high loads (b) field excitation
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I (c) supply voltage
Ans. (a) : If the field current is not sufficient enough to (d) None of the above
produce the required air gap flux as demanded by V, BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
additional magnetizing current or lagging reactive VAR Ans. (b) : According to inverted V-curve of
is drawn from the AC source. This magnetizing current synchronous motor
produces the efficient flux (constant flux- flux set up by
dc supply rotor winding). Hence in this case the motor
is said to operate under lagging power factor and it is
said to be under excited.
96. The major component in synchronous
impedance of a synchronous machine is
(a) Armature winding resistance
(b) Rotor winding resistance
(c) Armature winding leakage reactance
(d) Armature reaction reactance The power factor is varied by variation of its field
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 excitation If.
Ans. (d) Armature reaction refers to the influence of 99. Damper winding is provided in a poly-phase
armature flux on field flux in the air gap when the stator synchronous motor in order to :
winding are connected across loads. (a) Damper out the noise of the machine
Ef = Vt + Ia ra + jIa (Xar + Xs)
(b) Prevent hunting
Xar = Armature reaction Reactance
(c) Provide starting torque
Xs = Synchronous reactance
(d) Provide a cylindrical structure to reduce
Zs = j(Xs + X ar ) + ra
friction
Xar is major component of Zs. WBSE TCL AE 2016

Ans. (b) : Hunting is the phenomenon of oscillation of A. Sudden changes in load; Electrical,
the rotor about its final equilibrium position in a mechanical
synchronous motor. On the sudden application of load, B. Sudden changes in field current
the rotor search for new equilibrium position and his
process is known as hunting.
It can be avoided by the use of damper winding.
100. A Three-phase synchronous motor connected
to AC mains is running at full load and unity
power factor. It its shaft load is reduced by
half, with field current held constant : new
power factor will be :
(a) Unity (a) Both A and B are true
(b) Leading (b) Both A and B are false
(c) Lagging (c) Only A is true
(d) Dependent on machine parameters (d) Only B is true
CIL MT 2017 UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
WBSE TCL AE 2016 Ans : (a) Cause of disturbance-
Sudden change in load
Ans. (b)
Fault occuring in system which the generator
EV
Power P = sin δ supplies.
X Sudden charge in field current.
also, P = VI cosθ 104. The maximum power developed by a
When excitation and terminal voltages are maintain synchronous motor depends on ______ and
constant and the load is reduced, to get the constant (a) Supply voltage, Maximum value of load
power, the power factor will increase and become angle
leading power factor. (b) Supply voltage, Excitation current
(c) Excitation current, Maximum value of load
101. A synchronous motor with negligible armature
angle
resistance runs at a load angle of 20o at the
(d) Output voltage, Supply frequency
rated frequency. If the supply frequency is
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
increased by 10% keeping other parameters
Ans : (b) Maximum power developed by a
constant, the new load angle will be.
Synchronous motor depends on supply voltage and
(a) 14o (b) 20o
excitation current.
(c) 22o (d) 12o Maximum power output
UPPCL AE 2015 E V
ESE 1999 P = b sin δ
Xs
Ans. (b)
Eb V
102. Which of the following statement is false? Pmax =
Xs
(a) Silica gel is used in transformers
(b) Transformer is a constant flux machine Where sin 90o = 1
(c) Induction motor can be self starting δ = 90o
(d) Synchronous motor is self starting V = Supply Voltage
Eb = Excitation current
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Xs = Armature resistance per phase.
Ans : (d) Synchronous motor are not-self starting
105. Synchronous motor can run at:-
motors. This property is due to the inertia of the rotor; it
(a) Leading power factor
can not instantly follow the rotation of magnetic field
(b) Unity power factor
of the stator.
(c) Lagging power factor
103. When a synchronous machine is operating at a (d) Any of above
steady load indicated by P(0, δ0) as shown in UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
the graph, certain limited amplitude
Ans. (d) : Synchronous motor can run at leading,
disturbances are bound to occur. These lagging and unity power factor. So, option (d) is correct.
disturbances could be due to:-
106. As the load on a synchronous motor is Ans. (a) : Synchronous motor is not self starting. The
increased, the torque angle:- stator carries winding connected to an AC supply to
(a) Increases (b) Decreases produce a rotating magnetic field. At synchronous speed
(c) Remains same (d) None of these the rotor poles lock to the rotating magnetic field,
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II because of constant magnetic field in rotor.
Ans. (a) : As the load on a synchronous motor is 111. The power factor of a synchronous motor
increased, the torque angle increases. (a) Improves with increase in excitation and may
107. What is the ratio of No-load speed to full load even become leading at high excitations.
speed of a 200 kVA, 12 pole, 220V, 3 phase, 60 (b) Decreases with increase in excitation.
Hz synchronous motor? (c) Is independent of its excitation.
(a) 1 (b) 1.1 (d) Increases with loading for a given excitation.
(c) 1.21 (d) Infinite RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II ESE 2002
Ans. (a) : For a synchronous speed with no. of poles Ans. (a) : Power factor of synchronous motor improves
P = 12, frequency (f) = 50 Hz. The ratio of no load to with increase in excitation and may even become
full load speed is always 1. Since 3-phase synchronous leading at high excitation. By varying the DC excitation
motor does not have slip. of the motor, the power factor of motor can be varied
108. A synchronous motor is operating on no load at widely.
unity power factor, if the field current is 112. In the 'V' curve of a synchronous motor what x
increased, the power factor will become:- and y coordinates represents?
(a) Leading and the stator current will decrease (a) Armature current and field current
(b) Lagging and the stator current will increase (b) Power factor and field current
(c) Lagging and the stator current will decrease (c) Armature current torque
(d) Leading and the stator current will increase (d) Torque and field current
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (d) : A synchronous motor is operating on no load UPRVUNL AE 2014
at unity power factor, if the field current is increased, Vizag Steel MT 2012
the power factor will become leading and the stator RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
current will increase. ESE 2001
109. A synchronous motor draws a 2000 kVA at a Ans. (a) : In V curve
power factor of 90% leading. If the efficiency
of the motor is 95%, the developed power will
be.
(a) 1800 kW (b) 2000 kW
(c) 1710 kW (d) 1897.7 W
Ans. (c) : kVA rating of motor = 2000 kVA
Power factor of motor = 0.9 leading
efficiency = .95 = 95%
Output
efficiency =
Input
Output = Efficiency ×input
= Efficiency ×V×I cos φ
Ia = Armature current
= 0.95×2000×103 × 0.9
IF = field current
=1710 kW
Developed power (Pd) = 1710 kW 113. Damper windings in a synchronous machine
are
110. Which of the following types of motor is not a
(a) Embedded on the rotor in interpolar regions
self-starting?
(a) Synchronous motor to prevent the rotor from running at sub-
(b) DC series motor synchronous speed.
(c) Induction motor with medium slip (b) Embedded in the pole shoes to prevent the
(d) Induction motor with high slip rotor from running at super synchronous
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 speed

(c) Embedded in the pole shoes to reduce the Ans. (d) : A synchronous machine connected to a
rotor oscillation about the operating point. power system bus bar is operating as a generator. To
(d) Embedded in the rotor in the interpolar make the machine to operate as motor mechanical input
regions to reduce the rotor oscillation about is to be less than the losses at the shaft.
the operating point.
118. The negative phase sequence in a three phase
synchronous motor exists when the motor is
Ans. (c) : Damper winding consists of heavy copper bar
inserted in slot of the pole faces of the rotor. These bars (a) Under loaded
are short-circuited by end ring at both ends of the rotor. (b) Over loaded
Thus, these short circuited bars form a squirrel-cage (c) Supplied with unbalanced voltage
winding. The purpose of damper winding is to minimize (d) None of the above
hunting or rotor oscillation when machine deviates from Karnataka PSC AE 2017
synchronous speed. ESE 1992
114. What is the value of speed regulation in a
Ans. (c) : The negative phase sequence in a three phase
synchronous motor?
synchronous motor exists when the motor is supplied
(a) Less than one (b) Zero
with unbalance voltage.
(c) Unity (d) Infinity
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III 119. If synchronous machine is under excited it
taken lagging VAr from a system when it is
Ans. (b) : Speed regulation of a synchronous motor is
zero because synchronous motor runs at synchronous operated as a
speed. (a) Synchronous motor
115. When a synchronous motor is started, the field (b) Synchronous generator
winding is initially. (c) Both of the above two
(a) excited by a d.c. sources (d) None of the above
(b) short circuited Karnataka PSC AE 2017
(c) open circuited Ans. (a) : Reactive power of a synchronous machine
(d) none of these can be given by–
PS PCL AE 2012 V
Ans. (b) : When a synchronous motor is started, the Q = ( E f cos δ − V ) , For generator
Xs
excitation DC voltage is not applied to field winding.
V
Therefore if Vf input is left unconnected, a zero field Q= ( V − E f cos δ ) , For motor.
voltage is applied on the rotor i.e. field winding is short Xs
circuited. If synchronous machine is under excitation it taken
116. A synchronous motor when operating in lagging VAr from a system when it is operated as
overexcited mode and connected across a load synchronous motor. This case is occurs when,
is used for:
(a)power factor improvement E f cos δ < V
(b)efficiency improvement 120. A synchronous machine having E = 1.1 pu is
(c)torque improvement feeding an infinite bus with voltage of 1 pu, if
(d)current harmonic reduction the transfer reactance is 0.5 p.u, the steady
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 state power limit is
Ans. (a) : A synchronous motor when operating in (a) 1.1 pu (b) 0.55 pu
overexcited mode and connected across a load is used (c) 2.2 pu (d) 2.6 pu
for power factor improvement.
117. A synchronous machine connected to a power
system bus bar is operating as a generator. To Ans. (c) : Given : E = 1.1 p.u, V = 1 p.u, Xp.u = 0.5 p.u
make the machine to operate as motor In synchronous machine steady state power –
(a) Direction of rotation is to be reversed EV
P=
(b) Phase sequence is to be changed X p.u
(c) Field excitation is to be decreased
1.1× 1
(d) Mechanical input is to be less than the losses P=
at the shaft 0.5
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 P = 2.2 p.u

121. In a synchronous machine, the voltage induced Ans. (a) :
by armature reaction flux acts like.
(a) The voltage drop in inductive reactance
(b) The voltage drop in resistance
(c) The voltage drop in capacitive reactance
MPPSC AE 2017 So, open Circuit Characteristic (OCC) curve of a
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II synchronous motor is A.
Ans. (a) : In case of salient pole synchronous machine 125. A synchronous motor is floating on infinite bus
Xd>Xq the reason being Xd is calculated along the poles. bar at no-load. If its excitation is now
so the air gap is less. So current required will be less increased, it will draw
V (a) unity p.f. current
and voltage induced will be more. Hence Xd = max . (b) zero p.f. lagging current
I min
The opposite can be said for Xq as air gap is more so (c) zero p.f. leading current
V (d) no current
X q = min UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
I max
Ans. (c) : A synchronous motor is floating on infinite
122. Which of the following motors running under bus bar at no-load. If its excitation is now increased, it
the specified conditions will have a leading
will draw zero p.f. leading current.
power factor?
(a) slip ring induction motor 126. Synchronous condenser is a synchronous motor
with
(b) under excited synchronous motor
(c) over excited synchronous motor (a) a series capacitor (b) a shunt capacitor
(d) double cage induction motor (c) an over excitation (d) an under excitation
Ans. (c) : Over excited synchronous motor running Ans. (c) : Synchronous condenser is a synchronous
under the specified conditions will have a leading power motor with an over excitation. In this case Ef cosδ > V
factor. and motor operate at leading power factor. Synchronous
123. A salient pole synchronous motor is running at condenser used for power factor improvement.
no-load. If its field current is switched off, then 127. The V-curves of a synchronous motor show
the motor will relationship between
(a) come to stop (a) excitation current and back emf
(b) remain running at synchronous speed (b) field current and power factor
(c) remain running at a speed slightly less than (c) field current and armature current
synchronous speed (d) armature current and supply voltage
(d) remain running at a speed slightly more than KPSC Asstt. Insp. 2014
synchronous speed UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
Ans. (c) : A salient pole synchronous motor is running Ans. (c) : The V-curves of a synchronous motor show
at no-load. If its field current is switched off, then the relationship between field current and armature current.
motor will remain running at a speed slightly less than
synchronous speed.
124. Open Circuit Characteristic (OCC) curve of a
synchronous motor is
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
128. When load of a normally excited synchronous (a) Xd > X'd > X"d (b) X"d > X'd > Xd
motor is increased, its power factor tends to (c) X'd > X"d > Xd (d) Xd > X"d > X'd
(a) unity UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift-II
(b) becomes increasingly lagging WBPSC AE 2017
(c) becomes increasingly leading UJVNL AE 2016
(d) remain unchanged Ans. (a) For synchronous alternator.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II Xd > X′d > X′′d
Ans. (b) : When load of a normally excited
synchronous motor is increased, its power factor tends 133. In relation to the synchronous machine, which
to becomes increasingly lagging. are of the following statements is false :
(a) In salient pole machine, the direct axis
129. At starting, if the field winding is shorted, then
synchronous reactance is greater than the
the synchronous motor will
quadrature axis synchronous reactance
(a) work like a DC motor
(b) The damper bars help the synchronous motor
(b) burn immediately
self start
(c) not start
(c) Short circuit ratio (SCR) is ratio of the field
(d) start as an induction motor current required to produce the rated voltage
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II on open circuit to the rated armature current
Ans. (d) : At starting, if the field winding is shorted, (d) The V-curve of a synchronous motor
then the synchronous motor will start as an induction represents the variation in the armature
motor. current with field current, at a given output
130. A synchronous motor is run from a constant power
voltage and frequency source (infinite bus). If UJVNL AE 2016
the motor DC excitation is increased, the air Ans. (c) Short circuit ratio (SCR) is ratio of the field
gap resultant flux/pole current required to produce the rated voltage on open
(a) remains constant circuit to the rated armature current.
(b) increases 134. The p.u. synchronous impedance of a
(c) decreases synchronous machine is 2.0 p.u. its SCR is
(d) depends upon the p.f. of input power to motor (a) 2
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (b) 1.414
Ans. (b) : A synchronous motor is run from a constant (c) 0.5
voltage and frequency source (infinite bus). If the motor (d) None of the above
DC excitation is increased, the air gap resultant UJVNL AE 2016
flux/pole increases. Because E ∝ φ 1
Ans. (c) Short circuit ratio =
p.u. Reactance
131. The relation between flux phasor Φ and
induced EMF phasor E in synchronous SCR = 1 = 0.5 pu
machine is: 2
(a) Φ and E are in phase 135. A 'P' pole, 50 Hz alternator is driven by a 60
(b) Φ lags E by 90º Hz synchronous motor. Calculate the number
of poles for the synchronous motor.
(c) Φ leads E by 90º
(a) 1.2P (b) 2.4/p
(d) Φ leads E by 180º (c) 1.2/p (d) 2.4P
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II LMRC AM 2020
Ans. (c) : The relation between flux phasor Φ and 120 × 50 6000
induced EMF phasor E in synchronous machine is– Ans. (a) : Ns (gen) = =
a P a P
Φ leads E by 90º. where Pa = Pole of alternator
132. Xd, X'd, X"d are steady state of d-axis 6000 120 × 60
synchronous reactance, transient d axis Now, Motor sync speed = P = P
a m
reactance and sub-transient d axis reactance of
a synchronous machine, respectively. Which of 7200
Pm = × Pa = 1.2P
the statement is true : 6000
136. In a synchronous machine, if pitch of the coil = 138. If a synchronous motor is running at a leading
[(r – 1)/r]th fraction of full pitch, then: power factor, its excitation induced voltage (Ef)
(a) (r + 2)th harmonic can be eliminated from the is :
induced emf in a phase (a) equal to terminal voltage Vt
th
(b) (r – 1) harmonic can be eliminated from the (b) higher than the terminal voltage Vt
induced emf in a phase (c) less than terminal voltage Vt
th
(c) (r + 1) harmonic can be eliminated from the (d) dependent upon supply voltage Vt
induced emf in a phase APTRANSCO AE 2019
(d) rth harmonic can be eliminated from the Ans. (b) : At leading load (|Ef| > |Vt|)
induced emf in a phase
LMRC AM 2020
Ans. (d) : rth harmonic can be eliminated from the
induced emf in a phase.
137. Figure below shows the zero sequence current
paths in a synchronous machine. The zero
sequence impedance of the machine will be.
The motor is said to be over excited if the field

excitation is such that Ef > V.
Under such condition current Ia leads V and the motor
power factor is leading.
139. In a salient pole synchronous motor, the
developed reluctance torque attains the
maximum value when the load angle in
electrical degrees is :
(a) 0 (b) 45
(c) 60 (d) 90
APTRANSCO AE 2019
(a) Z0 = Zn + 3Zgo (b) Z0 = 3Zn + 3Zgo APPSC AEE 2019
(c) Z0 = 3Zn + 3Zgo (d) Z0 = 3Zgo Ans. (b) : Salient pole synchronous motor power and
torque relation per phase.
DMRC AM 2018
Reluctance power is given by
Ans. (c) :
Vt2  1 1 
P=  −  sin 2δ
2  X q X d 
(Vt = Line Voltage)
So, Reluctance Torque.
P V2  1 1 
T= = t  −  sin 2δ
Ws 2Ws  Xq X d 
So, torque is maximum when 2δ = 90o
δ = 45o
140. A three-phase synchronous motor draws 200 A
from the line at unity power factor at rated
load. Considering the same line voltage and
load, the line current at a power factor of 0.5
leading is
For zero sequence impedance, (a) 300 A (b) 400 A
Z0 = 3Zn + Zgo (c) 200 A (d) 100 A
In zero sequence grounding reactance also considered. UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
APTRANSCO AE 2019
Ans : (b) We know that power in a three phase circuit Ans. (a) : The variation of synchronizing power for
is- variation of power angle for a salient pole machine will
be
P = 3 P.F. × V × I
EbV
Psy = sin α
 P  XS
I = 
 3 P.F.V 
From the equation-I1 = 200 amp, I2 = ?
power (P1) = (P2) , P.F1=1, P. F2= 0.5 and V1= V2
Considering the following:
I I P.F2 200 0.5
= , = , I 2 = 400amp
I 2 P.F1 I2 1 143. If the supply frequency and voltage applied to a
synchronous motor are both reduced to K
141. Synchronizing power coefficient can be written
times i.e K (frequency). K (voltage) the
as maximum power of the motor be cones.
(a) Pa.cosδo (b) Pmax.cosδo (a) K times of Pmax at 'f '
(c) Pa.cosδo (d) Pmax.sinδo 1
APSPDCL AE 2012 (b) times of Pmax at 'f '
K
Ans. (b) : The rate of synchronous machine at which (c) K2 times of Pmax at 'f '
synchronous power varies with δ1 is called synchronous 1
power co-efficient. (d) times of Pmax at 'f '
K2
E f Vt APSPDCL AE 2012
For cylindrical machine P = sin δ
Xs Ans. (b) : For a synchronous machine the power which
E f Vt is transferred–
Where = Pm
Xs E f Vt
P= sin δ
Zs
So synchronizing power co-efficient Psy →
if the resistance of the line neglected then–
dp  E f Vt 
Psy = =
d  Xs  ⋅ cos δ E f2
 P= sin δ where Xs depends on frequency f.
Xs
Psy = Pm⋅cosδ
So if supply voltage Ef and frequency reduced to K
142. The variation of synchronizing power for
times
variation of power angle for a salient pole
2
machine will be.  Ef 
  1  E2 
Then power, P =  K  sin δ =  f sin δ 
Xs K  Xs 
K
1
So power becomes times at P
K
1  E f2 
(a) (b) or Pmax at δ = 90, Pmax =  
K  Xs 
144. For a salient pole synchronous machine when
the speed becomes super synchronous during
hunting. The damper bars develops.
(a) Synchronous motor torque
(b) DC motor torque
(c) (d) (c) induction motor torque
(d) induction generator torque
APSPDCL AE 2012 APSPDCL AE 2012

Ans. (d) : During hunting the speed of synchronous (a) generator, lagging pf
machine varies between above and below the (b) generator, upf
synchronous speed. (c) motor, with leading pf
When the speed is super synchronous speed damper bar (d) motor, with upf
develops the induction generator torque and when the APGENCO AE 2012
speed is sub synchronous speed it develop induction
motor torque. Ans. (c) :
145. In a synchronous motor, the excitation is
adjusted to get induced voltage equal to the
applied voltage. Such an excitation is called:
(a) under excitation (b) normal excitation It is a salient pole synchronous motor with leading
(c) over excitation (d) abnormal excitation power factor (pf).
148. In a synchronous motor the maximum value of
Ans. (b) : In a synchronous motor reactive power
torque angle is:
V
Q= ( V − Ef cos δ ) (a) < 900 electrical (b) 00 electrical
Xs
(c) > 900 electrical (d) 900 electrical
when excitation is adjusted to get induced voltage equal KPSC AE 2014
to the applied voltage such a excitation is called normal
P
excitation. In this case. Ans. (d) : Tmax ∝ max
ωs
V = E f cos δ
EV
and reactive power will be zero and motor is operate at Pmax = f t sin δ
unity power factor. Xs
146. In slip test on salient pole synchronous Where, Ef = Field excitation

machine, the stator mmf alignment for Vt = Terminal voltage
maximum/ minimum current drawn from δ = Torque angle
mains is For maximum value of torque angle, sinδ = 1
Maximum current ↓ Minimum current ↓
δ = sin −1 (1)
(a) along 45º to q-axis along d-axis
(b) along q-axis along 45º to d-axis δ = 900
(c) along d-axis along q-axis
149. An over excited synchronous motor will take
(d) along q-axis along d-axis
current at-
APGENCO AE 2012
(a) lagging p.f. (b) leading p.f.
Ans. (d) : In slip test on salient pole synchronous
(c) unity p.f. (d) none of the above
machine the stator mmf alignment for maximum current
drawn q-axis and minimum current drawn along KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
d-axis. In slip test- Ans. (b) : An over excited synchronous motor will take
(i) When stator mmf align with the q-axis current at leading power factor. In this case excitation
Minimum voltage per phase voltage is greater than supply voltage.
Xq =
Maximum current per phase i.e. E f cos δ > V
(ii) When stator mmf align with the d-axis. In this case reactive power is also negative.
Maximum voltage per phase
Xd = 150. In synchronous motor V curves represent the
Minimum current per phase variation of :
147. Given the following phasor diagram of salient (a) Armature current with field excitation
pole synchronous machine, pick up the correct (b) Armature current with stalling torque
mode of operation. (c) Field excitation with stalling torque
(d) Field excitation with maximum power
developed
Ans. (a) : In synchronous motor V curves represent the (a) the power angles decreases while power
variation of armature current with field excitation. factor increases.
(b) both power angle and power factor increase.
(c) both power angle power factor decrease.
(d) the power angle increases while power factor
decreases.
Vizag Steel MT 2013
ESE 2013
Ans. (c) : If the shaft load decreases of a
3 − φ synchronous motor with constant excitation drives
a certain load drawing electrical power from infinite bus
at leading pf both power angle and power factor
decreases.
153. Synchronous machines are called
151. The effect of increasing load on a synchronous 'synchronous' because, their.
motor running with normal excitation is : (a) Speed is directly related to the line frequency
(a) Increase both its Ia and power factor (b) Speed is directly related to the rate of change
(b) Decrease Ia, but increase power factor of line frequency
(c) Increase Ia, but decrease power factor (c) Operating speed is slightly lower than
(d) Decrease both Ia and power factor synchronous speed in motor mode
APTRANSCO AE 2017 (d) Operating speed is slightly greater than
Ans. (c) : synchronous speed in generator mode
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (a) : Synchronous machines are called
synchronous because speed is directly related to line
frequency.
120 f
Ns =
P
Ns ∝ f
Where Ns = Synchronous speed
f = frequency
P = No. of pole
154. Consider the following two components for
'Synchronous reactance' Xs of a synchronous
machine:
1. The armature reaction reactance Xar
E f Vt sin δ
∵ P= = Vt la cos φ 2. The leakage reactance Xal
Xs
Which of the above components is/are affected
So as the motor loaded for load increase on by magnetic saturation?
synchronous motor the following result are obtained. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(i) motor continue to run at synchronous speed (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(ii) torque angle φ increase UPSC JWM 2017
(iii) Armature current Ia increase
Ans. (a) : The armature reaction reactance (XAR) is the
∵ P = Vt la cos φ component of synchronous reactance (Xs) which are
If Ia increase then the cos φ decrease affected by magnetic saturation. Since armature reaction
152. A 3-phase synchronous motor with constant results in a voltage effect in a circuit caused by change
excitation drives a certain load drawing in flux by current in same circuit, its effect is of the
electrical power from infinite bus at leading pF. nature of an inductive reactance therefore,
If the shaft load decrease EAR = –jXARIa

155. The ratio of starting torque to running torque Ans. (a) : Given, Frequency (f) = 60 Hz
in a synchronous motor is: No. of pole (P) = 4
(a) Zero (b) One Supply voltage (V) = 480 V
(c) Two (d) Infinity Load current (IL) = 50 A
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II Power factor (cosφ) = unity
Ans. (a) : The starting torque in a synchronous motor is 120f
zero Synchronous speed (Ns) =
P
starting torque 0
therefore, = =0 120 × 60
running torque Tr Ns = = 1800rpm
4
156. A 3-phase synchronous motor will have: As motor is lossless,
(a) No slip rings (b) One slip ring Power input 'Pin' = Power output 'Pout'
(c) Two slip rings (d) Three slip rings
3VI L cos φ = 3 × 480 × 50 × 1 = 41569.2 W
Ans. (c) : In externally excited synchronous motor 2 Now, Ns = 1800 rpm
slip rings are used to provide excitation. Thus, A 3- or Ns = 30 rps
phase synchronous motor will have two slip rings. angular speed 'ω' is
157. A 3-phase synchronous machine is and ωs = 2πNs
synchronized with an infinite bus. Now steam = 2π × 30
input to synchronous machine is increased. ωs = 60π rad/sec.
With this, synchronous machine starts working Now torque 'T' is given by,
as:
P
(a) Alternator at leading p.f. T=
ωs
(b) Alternator at lagging p.f.
41569.2
(c) Synchronous motor at leading p.f. T=
60 π
(d) Induction generator at lagging p.f.
= 220.53
T ≅ 220.7 N - m
Ans. (a) : As 3-φ synchronous machine is synchronized
to infinite bus bar. 159. A 6-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase synch. motor and an
∴Excitation 'E' will be constant. 8-pole, 50Hz, 3-phase slip ring induction motor
Now, if steam input mechanical power is increased. are mechanically coupled and operate on the
same 3-phase, 50 Hz supply system, If they are
EV
Then, power P = Sinδ left open circuited, then the frequency of the
Xs voltage produced across any two slip rings
Where, E= excitation voltage would be:
V = Supply/source voltage (a) 12.5Hz (b) 25.0Hz
(c) 37.5Hz (d) 50.0Hz
X s = machine impedance
δ = Power angle ESE 1997
Now, case E, V & Xs are constant then with the increase Ans. (a) : For 3-phase synchronous motor,
in power P, sin δ will be increases. Pole (P) = 6, frequency (f) = 50Hz
Therefore, the machine may have leading p.f. synchronous speed,
158. A 480V, 60Hz 4-pole synchronous motor is
120f 120 × 50
drawing 50A of current at full load and unity Ns = = = 1000 rpm
p.f. Assume that the motor is lossless. The P 60
output torque of the motor equals to: For, synchronous speed of inductor motor,
(a) 220.7 Nm (b) 160.5 Nm No. of pole (Pr) = 8; f = 50 Hz
(c) 23.11 Nm (d) 282.1 Nm 120f
Nr =
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II P

120 × 50 Ans. (b) : Torque angle for synchronous motor:-
Nr = = 750rpm
8 Torque angle δ is the angle between rotor flux and
stator fluxes, both are rotating at synchronous speed. It
Ns − N r
Slip ( s ) = is noted that for synchronous motors the rotor flux axis
Ns
lags the stator flux axis by the angle δ as shown in fig.
1000 − 750
= = 0.25
1000
fr = sfs
= 0.25 × 50
f r = 12.5Hz
Thus, frequency of the voltage produced across any two
slip rings would be 12.5 Hz.
160. A synchronous condenser is virtually a/an:
(a) over-excited synchronous motor
(b) DC motor
(c) induction motor
(d) under-excited synchronous motor Thus, Angle between rotor poles and stator poles in a
LMRC AM 2018 synchronous motor is called the torque angle.
Ans. (a) : A synchronous condenser is virtually an over 163. In a synchronous machine, all of the following
excited synchronous motor, there are use for power losses are independent of the load EXCEPT:
factor improvement, and work at leading power factor. (a) iron loss (b) bearing friction
In this condition (c) windage loss (d) copper loss
E f > Vt LMRC AM 2018
Ans. (d) : In a synchronous machine, losses are
161. In a synchronous motor running with fixed
independent of the load except copper loss. Copper loss
excitation, if the load is increased three times,
then its torque angle becomes nearly: are vary with variation of load current.
(a) one-third (b) six times Pcu = I2R
(c) nine times (d) thrice 164. A synchronous machine with low value of short
LMRC AM 2018 circuit ratio has:
Ans. (d) : In a synchronous motor reactive power is (a) higher stability limit
depends on field excitation so reactive power, (b) good voltage regulation
V (c) good speed regulation
(Q) = ( E f cos δ − V )
Xs (d) lower stability limit
At normal operating condition Q = 0 so we get LMRC AM 2018
Ef cosδ = V Ans. (d) : The SCR (short circuit ratio) is an important
In the question given Ef is constant hence factor in a synchronous machine. It is affect the
operating characteristics, physical size and cost of the
cosδ = V
machine. It is reciprocal of synchronous reactance(Xs)
Where, V is load voltage.
Now if load is increase 3 times then torque angle 1
SCR =
becomes nearly to thrice. Xs(pu)
162. Angle between the rotor poles and stator poles Synchronizing power in an alternator is –
in a synchronous motor is called the:
3Vp E f cos δ
(a) Synchronising angle Psyn =
Xs
(b) Torque angle
(c) Retarding angle If SCR is low the synchronous reactance (Xs) is high
(d) Power Factor angle consequently synchronizing power will be low which is
LMRC AM 2018 responsible for lower stability limit.

165. If the line voltage and load remains same on 168. The increased load demand in a synchronous
the 3-phase synchronous motor, then calculate motor is met by:
the line current at power factor of 0.5 leading. (a) reduction in speed
Assume that initially at rated load motor draws (b) increase in speed
a current of 200 A from the line at unity power (c) relative shift between stator and rotor poles
factor. (d) decrease in stator current
(a) 200A (b) 400A BHEL ET 2019
(c) 300A (d) 100A Ans. (c) : In a synchronous motor when load increased.
BHEL ET 2019 The rotor slow down momentarily since it takes some
Ans. (b) : We know that:- time for the motor to take increased power from the
Power of line voltage (P) = 3VL I L cos φ line. In this process the torque angle δ becomes larger
and therefore induced torque-
∵ initially given :
VE f sin δ
IL1 = 200A IL2=? τind = increased.
ωX s
(Power factor) cos φ1 = 1 cos φ 2 = 0.5 leading
Where, δ angle between rotor & stator
Then,
The increased torque increases the rotor speed and
3VL1I L1 cos φ1 = 3VL 2 I L 2 cos φ 2 ∵ VL1 = VL2
motor again pickup the synchronous speed but torque
200 ×1 = I L2 × 0.5 angle δ is larger. Thus if the increased load demand in
I L2 = 400A a synchronous motor met by relative shift between
stator and rotor poles.
166. The ZPFC characteristics can be obtained by 169. A synchronous motor is operating at constant
loading the synchronous generator using: load, while its excitation is adjusted to get unity
(a) synchronous motor (b) DC series motor power factor. If the excitation is now increased,
(c) lamp load (d) DC shunt motor the power factor will be?
BHEL ET 2019 (a) Leading (b) Remains at unity
Ans. (a) : Zero power factor characteristic (ZPFC) of a (c) Lagging (d) Becomes zero
generator is a curve of the armature terminal voltage ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020
and the field current the machine is operated with
Ans. (a) :
constantly rated armature current at synchronous speed
and zero lagging power factor. The zero power factor
characteristic is also called as potier characteristic.
167. In a synchronous machine, the synchronous
reactance is the:
(a) reactance due to either armature reaction or
leakage flux
(b) reactance due to armature reaction of the
machine
(c) reactance due to leakage flux
(d) combined reactance due to leakage flux and
armature reaction Excitation (If) ↑ pf becomes leading.
BHEL ET 2019
170. An overexcited synchronous motor is
ESE 2003
connected across a 100 kVA inductive load
Ans. (d) : In a synchronous machine, the synchronous having a 0.8 lagging power factor. The motor
reactance is the combined reactance due to leakage flux takes 10kW input power while idling (no load).
and armature reaction. If the motor is not to carry any load, the value
Synchronous reactance Xs = Xℓ + Xar of kVA rating of the motor, if it is desired to
Where, bring the overall power factor to unity, is:
(a) 70 kVA (b) 60.8 kVA
Xℓ = reactance due to leakage flux
(c) 68 kVA (d) 50 kVA
Xar = reactance due to armature reaction of the machine DMRC AM 2016
Ans. (b) : Q1 = 100 × 0.6 = 60 kVAR (c) Damper windings help in starting of
P1 = 100 × 0.8 = 80 kW synchronous motor.
For making Pf = 1 (d) Damper windings help in damping out
oscillations in a synchronous generator.
Q2 = 60 kVAR (at P.f = unity)
P2 = 10 kW
Ans. (c) : Damper winding helps in starting of
Q  Q − Q1 
φ = tan −1 = tan −1  2  synchronous motor not of synchronous generator.
P  P2 + P1  Along with this it also helps in damping out of
oscillations in synchronous motor and generator. So the
 60 – 60 
φ = tan–1   option 'a' is not true regarding damper winding role in
 10 + 80  synchronous generator.
φ = tan −1 ( 0 ) 174. Two identical synchronous machines A and B
φ = 00 running at same speed are connected to each
other through an inductor. Machine A is
So kVA rating (S) = Q 2 + P 2 = 602 + 102 supplying an active power to Machine B and
Machine B is supplying reactive power to
= 60.8 kVA
Machine A, then which among the following is
171. A 3-phase synchronous motor is running at correct?
half load, unity pf, its load is increased to full (a) |Va| > |Vb| (b) |Va| < |Vb|
load with no change in field excitation, its new (c) |Va| = |Vb| (d) None of the above
power factor will be:
(a) Unity power factor
Ans. (b) : As machine B is supplying reactive power to
(b) Lagging power factor
machine A
(c) Leading power factor
∴ |Va| < |Vb|
(d) Depends on motor parameters
175. Following data are obtained by slip test on a
DMRC AM 2016
salient pole machine:
Ans. (b) : If the load on a 3-phase synchronous motor is
I dmax = 10A I dmin = 6.5A
increased motor continue to run at synchronous speed
torque angle increases excitation remain constant Vdmax = 30A Vdmin = 25V
armature current increase and φ increases in lagging What is the direct axis reactance ‘Xd ’ and
direction. quadrature axis reactance ‘Xq ’?
172. If a synchronous motor is running at a leading (a) X d = 3Ω, X q = 3.86Ω
power factor, its excitation induced voltage (Ef) (b) X d = 4.61Ω, X q = 2.5Ω
is:
(a) dependent upon supply voltage (c) X d = 3Ω, X q = 2.5Ω
(b) equal to terminal voltage (d) X d = 4.61Ω, X q = 3.86Ω
(c) less than terminal voltage
(d) higher than the terminal voltage ESE 2005
Ans. (b) :
Ans : (d) Synchronous motor running at leading power Given:
factor are used the maintain the determinable voltage on
Id max = 10A Id min = 6.5A
a weak power system. It's excitation induced voltage
(EF), when running at leading power factor is higher Vd max = 30A Vd min = 25V
than terminal voltage running at leading power factor is Direct axis reactance is given as:
higher than terminal voltage. V 30 300
X d = d max = = = 4.61Ω
173. Which of the following is not true for damper Id min 6.5 65
windings in a grid-connected three-phase
Quadrature axis reactance is given as:
synchronous machine?
V 25
(a) Damper windings help in starting of X q = d min =
synchronous generator Id max 10
(b) Damper windings help in damping out X q = 2.5Ω
oscillations in a synchronous motor.
176. A 3 phase synchronous motor, connected to an Ans. (b) : P.F. = cos φ = 0.8
infinite bus, operating at a leading pf with a P= 3 VLIL cos φ (3-φ power)
constant load torque, if excitation is increased
= 3 × 440 × 100 × 0.8 = 60.968 KW
(δ is load angle and φ power factor angle)–
2πNT 120 × 50 120f
(a) Both δ and φ decreases ∴P= ⇒N= = = 500 rpm
60 12 P
(b) δ and φ both increases P × 60
(c) δ increases but φ decreases T=
2πN
(d) δ decreases but φ increases 60.968 × 103 × 60
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 =
2π × 500
Ans. (d) : As the excitation increases, the power of = 1164.40 Nm
rotor magnets will increase; so, stator poles and rotor
180. A 3-phase, 460 V, 6-pole, 60 Hz cylindrical
poles will come more closer to each other. Hence, load rotor synchronous motor has a synchronous
angle (δ) should decrease. According to inverted V- reactance of 2.5 Ω and negligible armature
curve, synchronous motor is already working at leading resistance. The load torque, proportional to the
power factor. So, if excitation increases, power factor square of the speed, is 398 N.m at 1200 rpm.
should degrade further or power factor angle will Unity power factor is maintained by excitation
increase. control. Keeping the v/f constant, the frequency
is reduced to 36 Hz. The torque angle δ is
177. Under no load condition, the angle between the
(a) 9.5o (b) 12.5o
induced voltage and the supply voltage in o
(c) 25.5 (d) 30o
synchronous motor is–
ESE 2017
(a) Zero (b) 45°
Ans. (b) : Given that–
(c) 90° (d) 180°
N1 = 1200 rpm, f1 = 60 Hz, T1 = 398 N-m
N2 = ?, f2 = 36 Hz
Ans. (a) : Angle between induced voltage (Ef) and 120 × 36
supply voltage (V) is called load angle. At no load N2 = = 720 rpm
6
condition induced emf Ef oppose the supply voltage and
T ∝ N 2, T ∝ sin δ
both are equal in magnitude, there are no any phase 2 2
difference between them. Therefore at no load angle T1 = N1 =  1200 
2
between Ef and V is zero. Whenever at running T2 N 2  720 
condition it is vary between 0 < δ ≤ 900 .  720 
2
T2 =   × 398
178. Synchronous motors are not self starting  1200 
because– T2 = 143.28 N-m
(a) Stator not used P × 60
We know, T1 = 1
(b) Starting winding not provided 2πN1
(c) There is no slip 2πN1
(d) The direction of instantaneous torque on the P1 = 60 × T1 = 50.014 KW
rotor reverses after half cycle VS VR
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 We know, P1 = X sin δ1 (∵VS = VR )
Ans. (d) : Synchronous motor is not a self-starting V2
motor because in self-starting motor the starting torque = sin δ1
X
is zero and in synchronous motor we want external
force or torque for work which reverses after half cycle. 50.014 × 103 = ( 460 ) sin δ
2
1
179. A 12-pole, 440 V, 50 Hz, 3-phase synchronous 2.5
motor takes a line current of 100 A at 0.8 pf sin δ = 2.5 × 50.014 × 10 = 0.590
3
1
( 460 )
2
leading. Naglecting losses, the torque developed
will be ∴ sin δ1 = 0.590
(a) 705 Nm (b) 1165 Nm 398 0.590
(c) 1058 Nm (d) 525 Nm =
143.28 sin δ2
ESE 2017
143.28 Total short circuit load loss
sin δ2 = 0.590 × (c)
398 Short circuit armature current
sin δ2 = 0.2127 Total short circuit load loss
δ2 = sin–1 (0.2127) (d)
Short circuit load current
δ = 12.5o
ESE 2019
181. The second-harmonic component of the power
Ans. (a) : Effective armature resistance Ra (eff) of a
P versus load angle δ characteristic of a
synchronous machine is
synchronous machine, operating at a terminal
voltage Vt and having the d-and q-axis reactance = Short circuit load loss (3φ)
per phase of Xd and Xq, respectively, is 3 ( I 2sc )
V2 Xd Xq Short circuit loss ( per phase )
(a) t . sin 2δ =
2 Xd + Xq
( Isc )
2
V  1
2
1  when ISC = short circuit armature current.
(b) t . sin 2δ
2  X q X d 
–
184. A 3-phase synchronous motor has 12-poles and
2 operates from 440V 50Hz supply. If it takes a
Vt X d X q
(c) . cos 2δ line current of 100A at 0.8 power factor
2 Xd + Xq leading, its speed and torque are nearly
V  1 (a) 500 rpm and 1165 N-m
1 
2
(d) t . δ
2  X q X d 
– cos 2 (b) 1000 rpm and 2330 N-m
(c) 500 rpm and 2330 N-m
ESE 2018 (d) 1000 rpm and 1165 N-m
Ans. (b) : The real power for a salient pole machine is ESE 2019
given by. 120 × 50
Ans. (a) : Synchronous speed NS =
E f Vt Vt 2  1 1  12
P1φ = sin δ +  −  sin 2δ
Xd 2  Xq Xd  N S = 500 rpm
∴ second Harmonic component is :- Power input = 3 × 440 × 100 × 0.8 = 60968.12
P = T × ωs
V 2  1 1  
 t  −  sin 2 δ  60968.188 × 60
T= P =
 2  X q X d   ωs 2π × 500
182. The disadvantage of hunting in synchronous = 1164.4066 N-m
machines is ≃ 1165 N-m
(a) Fault occurs in the supply system 185. Potier triangle method is helpful in obtaining
(b) Causes sudden change in inertia the voltage regulation of synchronous machines
(c) Causes large mechanical stresses and fatigue by determining the armature
in the rotor shaft (a) Leakage reactance and its reaction mmf
(d) Causes harmonics (b) Leakage reactance and air-gap flux
ESE 2019 (c) Resistance and its reaction mmf
Ans. (c) : Effects of Hunting in synchronous motor- (d) Resistance and air-gap flux
It may lead to loss of synchronism. ESE 2020
Produces mechanical stresses in the rotor shaft. Ans. (a) : Potier- ∆CBA
Increases machine losses and cause temperature rise. CB = Ia Xal drop
Cause greater surges in current & power flow. BA = Fa
It increases possibility of resonance. Armature reaction mmf
183. Effective armature resistance Ra (eff) of a
synchronous machine is
Short circuit load loss ( per phase )
(a)
( Short circuit armature current )
2
Short circuit load loss ( per phase )

(b)
(Short circuit load current )
06.
Power System Protection and
Switch Gear
5. Consider a stator winding of an alternator with
(i) Protection of Alternator an internal high-resistance ground fault. The
currents under the fault condition are as shown
1. A Merz price maximum demand indicator in the figure. The winding is protected using a
indicates :
differential current scheme with current
(a) maximum demand
(b) average maximum demand over a specified transformers of ratio 400/5A as shown. The
period of time current through the operating coil is.
(c) maximum energy consumption
(d) maximum power
Ans. (b) : A Merz price maximum demand indicator
indicates, average maximum demand over a specified
period of time. This is available as unit together with an
energy meter, then energy meter record total energy
consumption. (a) 0.17875 A (b) 0.2 A
2. A Merz-price protection is suitable for (c) 0.375 A (d) 60 kA
(a) transformers (b) alternators Vizag Steel MT 2017
(c) feeders (d) transmission lines 5
Vizag Steel MT 2012 Ans. (c) : I1 = 220 × = 2.75 Amp
400
APSPDCL AE 2012
5
Ans. (b) : Merz-price protection system is suitable for I2 = 250 × = 3.125Amp
alternators. 400
3. For protection of stator winding of an current through operating coil Ioc = I2 – I1
alternator against internal fault involving = 3.125-2.75
ground, the relay used is a = 0.375Amp
(a) directional over current relay 6. A negative sequence relay is commonly used to
(b) biased differential relay protect:
(c) plain impedance relay
(a) An alternator
(d) Buchholz relay
WBPSC AE 2017 (b) A transformer
Ans. (b) : (c) A transmission line
4. Switchgear equipments include (d) A busbar
(a) Switches UJVNL AE 2016
(b) Fuses OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
(c) Relays and circuit breakers GOA PSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2019
(d) All of the above KPSC AE 2014
Ans. (a) : A relay which protects the electrical system
Ans. (d) :Switchgear includes all kind of switching and
controlling device e.g. switches, fuses, relay, circuit from negative sequence component is called a negative
breaker etc. sequence relay or unbalance phase relay.
Switchgear covers a wide range of equipment The negative sequence relay protects an alternator and
concerned with switching and interrupting currents motor from the unbalanced load which mainly occurs
under both normal and abnormal condition. because of the phase to phase fault.

7. The protection from negative sequence current Ans. (c) Merz-price current scheme protection is used
is provided for to protect the alternator & transformer.
(a) transformer (b) generator 12. Loss of excitation in generator is detected with
(c) transmission line (d) motors the help of
BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI (a) Directional Relay (b) Reactance relay
Ans. (b) : Negative-sequence current rotates opposite to (c) Mho relay (d) Distance relay
that of the power system. This reversed rotating stator JUVNL AE 2017
current induces double frequency currents in rotor Ans. (c) : The loss of excitation can be unambiguously
structures. The resulting heat can damage the rotor very detected by a mho relay, Mho relay located at the
quickly. Hence negative sequence relay is used in generator terminals. The mho relay has been widely
generator to protect it from negative sequence currents. accepted for loss of excitation.
8. Merz – Price Protection is used to protect:- 13. The differential protection for the windings of
an alternator responds to
(a) Transmission line and transformers
(a) overload
(b) Transformers and generators
(b) rotor earth fault
(c) Motors only
(c) inter-turn short circuit of stator winding
(d) Transformers only
(d) none of these
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II Vizag Steel MT 2013
Ans. (b) : Merz– Price protection is used to protect Ans. (d) : The differential protection for the windings
transformers and generators. of an alternator responds to stator earth fault. It does not
9. For the fault at the terminals of a synchronous protect against turn to turn fault on this same phase
generator, the fault current is maximum for a– winding of the stator because the current that this type
(a) 3-phase fault of fault produce flow in local circuit between the turn
(b) 3-phase to ground fault involved and does not create a difference between the
(c) Line-to-ground fault current entering and leaving the winding and it to ends
where current transformer are applied. So, none of these
(d) Line-to-line fault
given option is correct.
14. A power system with two generators is shown
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II in the figure below. The system (generators,
APTRANSCO AE 2011 buses and transmission lines is protected by six
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II over current relay R1 to R6.) Assuming a mix of
Ans. (c) : For the fault at the terminals of a synchronous directional and non-directional relays at
generator, the fault current is maximum for a line-to- appropriate locations, the remote backup
ground fault. This type of fault is most saviour in an relays for R4 are.
alternator because the phase winding conductor are
placed in the slot of the steel stator and stator is always
kept in ground potenetial.
10. Detection of loss of excitation of large
generating units feeding to the grid is done by
using: (a) R1 to R6 (b) R2 to R5
(a) Impedance relay (b) Reactance relay (c) R2 to R6 (d) R1 to R5
(c) Directional relay (d) Offset mho relay UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
(e) None of the above Ans : (a)
Ans. (d) : Detection of loss of excitation of large
generating units feeding to the grid is done by using
offset mho relay.
11. Merz-Price current scheme protection is used
If a fault was taken place between (3) & (4)
in
R3 &R6 must operate
(a) transformer (b) alternator
If R4 is failed to operate, then to limits I1→R1 must
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Inductor Motor
operate to limit I2 →R6 must operate .
UJVNL AE 2016
15. Systems for protection from negative sequence
(ii) Protection of Power
current is provided normally for–
(a) Transformers Transformer
(b) Generators 1. For which of the following reasons is a
(c) Transmission lines differential relay biased to avoid mal operation
(d) Motors when used for transformer protection?
(1) Saturation of CTs
(2) Mismatch of CT ratio
Ans. (b) : Negative sequence currents are produced (3) Difference in connection of both sides
because of the unbalanced currents in the power system. (4) Current setting multiplier.
Flow of negative sequence currents in electrical Select the correct answer using the codes given
machines is undesirable as these currents generate high below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 2
and possibly dangerous temperature in very short time.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Therefore, protection against negative sequence current
TNPSC AE 2019
is essential to generators.
Ans. (b) : A differential relay biased is used for
16. Over fluxing protection is normally transformer protection to avoid mal operation for-
recommended for– (1) Saturation of CTs
(a) Generator transformers in power stations (2) Mismatch of CT ratio
Generally CTs are used for 2 purpose.
(b) Auto-transformers in power stations
1. For getting the current reduction
(c) Station transformers in power stations 2. with the relay and C.B. for tripping mechanism
(d) Distribution transformers during Faults.
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 2. For protection of a 3-phase star/delta
WBPSC 2017 transformer the CTs for differential relays
should be connected
Ans. (a) : If an electrical power transformer is subjected (a) delta/star (b) delta/delta
to carry more than above mentioned flux density as per (c) star/delta (d) star/star
its design limitations, the transformer is said to have WBPSC AE 2017
faced over fluxing problem. It occurs generally in Ans. (a) :
generator transformers in power stations, so over 3. Internal faults of Transformer are detected and
fluxing protection is normally recommended for protected by
(a) Buchholz relay (b) Directional relay
generator transformers in power stations.
(c) Thermal relay (d) Distance relay
17. During single phasing, the unbalanced stator WBPSC AE 2007
current have a negative sequence component, Ans. (a) :
which cause– 4. 'Wave trap' in lines are used to trap waves of
(a) Magnetic flux rotating in opposite direction to (a) Power-frequencies
main flux (b) Higher frequencies entering generator or
transformer units
(b) Magnetic flux rotating in same direction to
(c) Either of the above
main field
(c) Increase the speed of the motor above WBPSC AE 2007
synchronous speed Ans. (b) :
(d) Motor starts rotating in opposite direction 5. The lightning arrester is usually connected
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 (a) in series with the line
(b) Between line and earth
Ans. (a) : During single phasing, the unbalanced stator
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
current has a negative sequence component, which (d) Neither (a) nor (b) above
causes magnetic flux rotating in opposite direction to WBPSC AE 2007
main flux. Ans. (b) :

6. The power transformer having a capacity of 10 Ans. (b) : For protection of power transformer Y-Y
MVA with 132/66 kV (Star-Delta) with Natural ground against fault ∆-∆ type connection is
configuration is protected by circulating used.
current protection system. Calculate the CT 9. A buchholz relay is also called a sudden
ratios on both sides of the transformer for a pressure relay. It is used for the protection of
circulating current of 5A in the pilot wires. (a) a transformer against all internal faults
(a) 43.71/5, 87,4/5 (b) a transformer against all external faults
(b) 43.71/(5/1.732), 87.4/5 (c) a transformer against both internal and
(c) 87.4/5, 43.71/(5/1.732) external faults
(d) 43.71/5, 87.4/(5/1.732) (d) induction motors
TSTRANSCO AE 2018
Ans. (a) : A buchholz relay is also called a sudden
Ans. (b) : pressure relay. It is used for the protection of a
transformer against all internal faults.
It is a gas actuated relay. It is used to detect incipient
faults which are initially minor faults but may cause
major faults in due course of time.
10. Buchholz relay is used as a safety device with
3V1I1 = 3V2 I 2 = 10MVA respect to which of the following?
(a) Audio transformers
⇒ 3 × 132 × I1 = 10 × 103
(b) Oil filled power transformers
I1 = 43.74A (c) Air core transformer
3 × 66 × I 2 = 10 ×103 (d) None of these
KPTCL AE 2015
10 ×103
I2 = = 87.48A Ans. (b) : Buchholz relay is used as a safety with
3 × 66 respect to oil filled power transformers.
⇒ CT ratio, 43.71/(5/1.732), 87.4/5 11. For a Buchholz relay, which of the following
7. Which relay is used to detect and protect statement is not correct ?
internal faults of a transformer? (a) They protect the connecting cables.
(a) Buchholz relay (b) Directional relay (b) They indicate incipient faults
(c) Thermal relay (d) Distance relay (c) They can be used in transformers provided
with conservator
(d) They are gas actuated relays
RPSC VPITI 2018
Ans. (a) : Buchholz relay is used to detect the internal
Ans. (a) : Buchholz Relay– It is a gas actuated relay.
fault and incipient slow developing fault of the They can be used in transformers provided with
transformer. conservator. It is used to detect incipient winding faults
The Buchholz relay protects the transformer from which are initially minor faults but may cause major
internal faults. It is the gas actuated relay. The Buchholz faults in due to course of time.
relay is placed between the main tank and the 12. Which of the following relay has the capability
conservator such type of relay is used in the transformer of anticipating the possible major fault in a
transformer ?
having the rating higher than 500 kVA.
(a) Differential relay (b) Over current relay
8. To protect the power transformer (Y – Y with (c) Over fluxing relay (d) Buchholz relay
neutral grounded) against fault, what type of HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
connection do the CTs have? CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
(a) ∆ – Y connection UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
(b) ∆ – ∆ connection RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
(c) Y – Y connection Ans. (d) : Buchholz relay– It is a gas actuated relay. It
is used to detect incipient faults which are initially
(d) Y – ∆ connection
minor faults but may cause major faults in due to course
RPSC VPITI 2018 of time.
13. The following protection is not used in power Ans. (b) : Buchholz relays-It is a gas actuated relay. It
transformer : is used to detect incipient faults which are initially
(a) Earth fault protection minor fault but may cause major faults in due course of
(b) Inter-turn fault protection time.
(c) Reverse power flow protection Buchholz relays are used on oil immersed power
(d) Overfluxing protection transformers of rating above 750 kVA.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II 18. A large rating power transformer is protected
Ans. (c) : Protection is used in power transformer - by
(1) Earth fault protection (a) negative phase sequence relay
(2) Over fluxing protection (b) percentage differential relay
(3) Internal fault protection (c) over current relay
(i) Incipient fault protection (d) both (b) and (c)
(ii) Short circuits in the transformer winding and UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
connections Ans. (d) : A large rating power transformer is protected
But reverse power flow protection is not used in power by–
transformer. Percentage Differential Relay– It is provided
14. Back up protection is used to protect : protection against both earth and phase fault.
(a) Over voltage (b) Over current Over Current Relay– It is providing protection
(c) Transient current (d) Short circuit against phase to phase fault and overloading.
PTCUL AE 2016 19. The material filled in breather of transformer
Ans. (d) : The back up protection of electrical is
transformer is over current and earth fault protection are (a) Silica gel (b) Sulphuric acid
applied against external short circuit and excessive (c) SF 6 (d) Mineral oil
overloads. APPSC AEE 2019
15. Biased differential protection for transformers Ans. (a) : The function of breather in transformer is to
are used for: filter out the moisture from air. Breather consists of
(a) Low fault settings and high operating speeds silica gel which absorbs the moisture from air. A silica
(b) High fault settings and high operating speeds gel breather is the most commonly used way of filtering
(c) Low fault settings and low operating speeds moisture from air.
(d) High fault settings and low operating speeds 20. Transmission lines are transposed to –
AAI Junior Executive 2016 (a) Reduce the copper loss
Ans. (a) : Biased differential protection for (b) Reduce skin effect
transformers are used for Low fault settings and high (c) Prevent interference with neighbouring
operating speeds. telephone lines
(d) Prevent short-circuit between any two lines
16. A buchholz relay can be installed on
(a) Auto transformer HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
(b) air cooled transformer Ans. (c) : Over the length of one transposition cycle the
(c) welding transformers total flux linkage and hence net voltage induced in a
(d) oil cooled transformer nearby telephone line is zero, i.e. transposition of
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 transmission line eliminates radio-interference in the
nearby communication lines.
Ans. (d) : In oil cooled transformer there are buchholz
relay installed, buchholz relay is a gas actuated relay, 21. Buchholz relay is used for
protect the T/F from anticipant fault. (a) Protection of transformer against all internal
17. Buchholz relays are used on fault
(a) Air-cooled transformers (b) Transformer protection against both internal
and external faults
(b) Oil immersed power transformers of ratings a
(c) Protection of transformer against all external
above 750 kVA
faults
(c) Instrument transformers
(d) Distribution transformers
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I
Ans. (a) : Buchholz relay is used for protection of 26. The harmonic restrained relay is used as
transformer against all internal fault. protection for transformers having :
It is a gas actuated relay. It is used to detect incipient (a) low fault settings and high operating speeds
faults. Which are initially minor faults but may cause (b) high fault settings and low operating speeds
major faults in due to course of time. (c) low fault settings and low operating speeds
22. The Buchholz relay protects a transformer (d) high fault settings and high operating speeds
from – BHEL ET 2019
(a) All types of faults Ans. (a) : Harmonics Restrain Relay– During
(b) A turn to turn fault charging of power transformer high quantity of
(c) Winding to winding fault magnetic inrush current flowing through the winding
(d) None of these which containing many of harmonics. Due to this high
current i1 ≠ i2 occurs which operate the relay without
any fault.
Ans. (a) : Buchholz relay is a gas and oil actuating
To overcome this difficulty harmonics restrain relay
protective device and is used to give alarm in case of
used in which harmonics signal of inrush current is
minor fault and disconnect the transformer from supply
passing which produced restraining force more than
mains in case of severe internal fault.
operating force of relay so that relay will not operate
Buchholz relay protects Transformer from-
during charging time of power transformer.
(i) Turn to turn fault It have low fault setting and high operating speed.
(ii) Winding to winding fault
27. The burden of protective current transformer
23. The type of circuit breakers preferred for EHT (CT) is specified in–
application is (a) Percentage ratio error
(a) bulk oil CB (b) minimum oil CB
(b) Percentage of load current
(c) air blast CB (d) SF6 CB
(c) Volt–ampere
Vizag Steel MT 2013
(d) Percentage phase error
Ans. (d) : The type of circuit breaker preferred in EHT ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015
application is SF6 CB because of high quenching
Ans. (c) : The secondary load of current transformer is
strength. SF6 is electro-negative gas.
termed as burden. Load is specified in volt-ampere.
24. In a power system, the network affected by the
28. The earth transformer is used to–
method of neutral grounding is.
(a) Avoid the harmonics in the transformers
(a) Zero sequence networks
(b) Provide artificial neutral earthing where
(b) Negative sequence networks
neutral point is not accessible
(c) Positive sequence networks
(c) Improve stability of the system
(d) All of these
(d) Measure the voltage
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (a) : Neutral grounding effect only in zero
Ans. (b) : It is one of the four methods of neutral
sequence network.
grounding. Consider a case where a transformer has ∆/∆
25. Buchholz's relay is used in the protection of. connection. In this case, there is no neutral point
(a) transformers (b) generators available for grounding. So, an earth transformer is used
(c) motors (d) transmission line which uses zig-zag (interconnected star) connection.
(e) DC machines
29. For differential protection of power
CGPSC AE 2017 transformer (delta-delta) the current
Ans. (a) : Buchholz's relay-Buchholz's relay is a safety transformers will have–
device which is generally used in Large oil immersed (a) Delta-delta connection
transformers (rated more than 500 kVA) it is a type of
(b) Star-delta connection
oil and gas actuated protection relay. It is used for the (c) Star-star connection
protection of a transformer from the fault occurring (d) Delta-star connection
inside the transformer. ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013

Ans. (c) : It is a general practice that for delta-delta (c) Two-phase and two-earth relays are required
connected transformers CTs are star connected and for (d) Two-phase and one-earth fault relays are
star connected transformers, CTs are delta connected. required
For example, a power transformer with (Y/∆) TNPSC AE 2018
connection is available. Now, to apply differential Ans. (d) : Two phase and one-earth fault relay are
protection on such transformer, CTs will be delta
required for complete protection of 3-φ line.
connected on star side and star connected to delta side
transformer in order to compensate 30° phase shift in 4. For the protection of parallel feeder fed from
(Star/Delta) transformer. one end, the relays required are
30. The Buchholz relay is used to protect the? (a) Non-directional relays at the source and
(a) Alternators against all internal faults. directional relays at the load end
(b) Oil immersed transformers against all internal (b) Non-directional relays at both the ends
faults. (c) Directional relays at the source and non-
(c) Synchronous motors against all internal directional at the load end
faults. (d) Directional relays at both the ends
(d) Transmission lines against all short circuit UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
faults. Ans. (a) : For the protection of parallel feeder fed from
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 one end, Non-directional and directional both relay are
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013 used.
Ans. (b) : The Buchholz relay is a gas-actuated alarm
and protection system. This relay is activated in case of
overheating of transformer oil. When a transformer is
overheated due to high current, temperature increases.
Transformer can allow this increment up to certain
extent. After that, oil level starts decreasing. Buchholz
relay keep a check on this oil level. If this level reduced
below required level. It first actuated alarm system. On
further decrement of oil level it actuated trip circuit.
Non-directional relay at the source end and directional
(iii) Protection of Feeder relay at the load end.
5. First zone distance relay protects a
1. Isolators are designed to transmission line section up to
(a) open or close a circuit under rated load (a) its full length
current (b) 50% of its full length
(b) open or close a circuit under zero current only (c) 25% of its full length
(c) automatically disconnect a circuit under over (d) 80% of its full length
load WBPSC AE 2008
(d) both (a) and (c) above Ans. (d) :
WBPSC AE 2009 6. Merz-price relays are used for
Ans. (b) : (a) motor protection
2. Isolator is generally provided in a power (b) capacitor protection
distribution system (c) rectifier protection
(a) after the circuit breaker (d) generator protection
(b) before the circuit breaker WBPSC AE 2008
(c) on both sides of the breaker Ans. (d) :
(d) never used along with breaker 7. An isolator operates under
WBPSC AE 2009 (a) fault condition
(b) no load condition
Ans. (c) :
(c) full load condition
3. For complete protection of 3-phase line (d) 50% load condition
(a) Three-phase and three-earth fault relays are WBPSC AE 2012
required
WBPSC AE 2007
(b) Three-phase and two-earth fault relays are
Ans. (b) :
required
8. The size of the feeder is determined primarily 12. Direction over current relay is used for which
by- of the following?
(a) the current it is required to carry (a) Generator
(b) the percent variation of voltage in the feeder (b) Transformer
(c) the voltage across the feeder (c) Ring main distributor
(d) the distance of transmission (d) None of these
KPTCL AE 2016
Ans. (c) :
Ans. (a) : A feeder line is a type of transmission line
which transmits power from generating station or
substation to the distribution point. The size of the
feeder is determined primarily by the current it is
required to carry.
9. The main criterion for selection of size of
conductor for a feeder is
(a) Tensile strength (b) Corona loss
(c) Temperature rise (d) Radio interference Directional over current scheme use for the protection
of ring-feeder. Each feeder requires two relays. A non-
RPSC VPITI 2018
directional relay is required at one-end and a directional
Ans. (c) : Temperature Rise is main criteria for relay at the other end. The operating times for relays are
selection of size of conductor for a feeder. As current determined by considering the grading first in one
carrying capacity of conductor decided by the direction and then in the other direction.
Maximum conductor temperature rise or operating 13. Which of the following relay is used for the
temperature. Generally Maximum operating protection of long transmission line:
temperature is used. (a) Mho relay
10. To charge a feeder cable the following sequence (b) Impedance relay
of operation is true : (c) Reactance relay
(a) Make the isolator followed by make the (d) Over voltage relay
switch gear (e) None of these
(b) Make the switch gear followed by make the CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
isolator Ans. (a) : Mho Relay is used for protection of long
(c) Simultaneously make the isolator and switch transmission line.
gear For Medium line – Impedance Relay
(d) Break the isolator followed by make the For Short line – Reactance Relay is used
switch gear 14. The relay used for feeder protection is:
MPPSC AE 2014 (a) Under voltage relay
Ans. (a) : Feeder line is part of an electric distribution (b) Translay relay
(c) Thermal relay
network. The distribution feeder circuit conductor leave
(d) Buchholz relay
the substation from a circuit breaker or circuit recloser
via under ground cables, called substation exist cables.
Hence, to charge a feeder cable make the isolator Ans. (b) The feeder protection has to ensure that the
power grid continues to supply energy. Translay system
followed by make the switch gear. is a voltage balanced system. For feeder protection
11. The positive sequence impedance of a feeder is translay relay is used. Current transformer is used with
3Ω, the negative sequence impedance will be– translay system only to supply to a relay coil, they can
(a) 3Ω (b) 1Ω be made of normal design without any air gaps.
(c) 9Ω (d) 6Ω 15. If the percentage reactance of the system upto
GMB AE 2017 the fault point is 20% and the base kVA is
10,000 then the short circuit VA is:-
Ans. (a) : The positive sequence impedance and
(a) 10 MVA (b) 20 MVA
negative sequence impedance of feeder is nearly same.
(c) 50 MVA (d) 60 MVA
Hence negative sequence impedance is 3 ohm. UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
Ans. (c) : Short circuit (VA), (iv) Protection of Motor
100
VA = base rate KVA ×
% reactance 1. Which one is not true for biased differential
100 protection?
= 10000KVA × (a) it allows a low fault setting
20
= 50 MVA (b) it ensures complete stability against fault
16. Reactive power compensation in feeders leads (c) it operates a definite current setting
to: (d) it does not require CTs with special balancing
(a) negative and zero sequence currents features
(b) expensive voltage regulators WBPSC AE 2003
(c) poor voltage profile
Ans. (d) :
(d) improved voltage profile
BHEL ET 2019 2. The following relay is used for protection of
motors against overload?
Ans. (d) : Reactive power compensation is defined as
the management of reactive power to improve the (a) Thermal relay
performance of alternating current (AC) power systems. (b) Buchholz relay
In general related to load and voltage support. (c) Impedance relay
17. The distribution system indicated below is to be (d) Electromagnetic attraction type
protected with over current protection. Identify MPPSC AE 2014
the locations where essentially directional over Ans. (a) : Overload protection work as using bimetallic
current relays will be required considering strip which is bends when heat to a set temperature by
proper fault discrimination. the current flow into motor. This indicated the motor is
continuously drawing excessive current overtime. It
may be jammed, thermal overload relay which offers
overload protection only.
3. Which relay is generally used for protection of
a.c. motors against over load ?
(a) Impedance relay
(b) Thermal relay
(c) Buchholz relay
(d) Electromagnetic attraction type relay
(a) Br-1, Br-4, Br-8 and Br-7 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
(b) Br-2, Br-3, Br-5 and Br-6 Ans. (b) : Thermal relay– Thermal overload relays are
(c) Br-2, Br-3 and Br-6 protective devices. They are designed to cut power if
(d) Br-1, Br-4, Br-7 and Br-5 motor draws too much current for an extended period of
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018 time. To accomplish this-thermal overload relays
Ans. (c) : Directional relays are always placed at the contain a normally closed (NC) relay.
load side but not at the source side. Therefore Br-2, Br- 4. In thyristor-controlled DC motor starters, the
3 and Br-6 should be essentially directional over protection equivalent to the protection
current.
provided by a no-volt release coil in a
18. Series capacitors are used to– resistance starter is provided by____.
(a) Improve line frequency and eliminate (a) freewheeling diodes across armature and field
harmonics
windings
(b) Compensate for line inductive reactance
(b) a tachogenerator coupled to the DC motor
(c) Neutralise line capacitive reactance
(c) zener diodes connected to the SCRs
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 (d) commutating capacitors
Ans. (b) : Series capacitors are employed in series line DMRC AM 2018
to compensate line inductive reactance, which in turn Ans. (a) : In thyristor-controlled DC motor starters, the
improves the transmission capacity; whereas parallel protection equivalent to the protection provided by a no-
capacitors are connected at load end to improve the volt release coil in a resistance starter is provided by
power factor. freewheeling diodes across armature and field windings.

5. Carrier current protection scheme is normally
(v) Protection Against Over used for
Voltage (a) LV cables
(b) HV cables only
1. Match List I with List II and select the correct (c) LV transmission lines
answer using the codes given below the lists
(d) HV transmission lines only
List I List II
A. Thyrite arrester 1. Tower location UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
B. Sag template 2. Cross bonding
Ans. (d) : Carrier current protection scheme is normally
C. Cable sheaths 3. Restriking voltage used for high voltage transmission lines. The long
D. Circuit breaker 4. Non-linear resistor transmission line receiver converts the received carrier
Codes: current into a DC voltage then it can be used in a relay
A B C D or other circuit that performs any desired function.
(a) 4 1 3 2 6. Tick out the correct one
(b) 4 1 2 3 (a) The insulator should have high impulse ratio
(c) 1 4 3 2 and lightning arrester should have low
(d) 4 3 1 2 impulse ratio
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 (b) The insulator and lightning arresters should
Ans. (b) : Thyrite arrester – Non linear resistance have low impulse ratio
Sag template – tower location (c) The insulator and lightning arresters should
Cable sheath – cross bonding have high impulse ratio
Circuit breaker – Restriking voltage (d) The lightning arrester should have high
2. Impulse ratio of insulators and lightning impulse ratio but insulator should have low
arresters should be: impulse ratio
(a) both low
(b) high and low respectively
Ans. (a) : The insulator should have high impulse ratio
(c) low and high respectively
for economic design, but a lighting arrester should have
(d) both high
low impulse ratio so that surge incident on the lighting
arrester may be by pass to the ground instead of passing
Ans. (b) : The insulator should have a high impulse
it on to the apparatus.
ratio for economic design but a lightning arrester should
have a low impulse ratio, so that a surge incident on the 7. Commissioning tests in relay are carried out to
lightning arrester may be by passed to the ground ensure
instead off passing it, on to the apparatus. (a) correct relay characteristics
3. Protection scheme used for detection of loss of (b) that no damage has been done in transit
excitation of a very large generating unit (c) capacity of relay
feeding power into a grid employs: (d) none of above
(a) Under voltage relay GMB AE 2017
(b) Offset mho relay
Ans. (b) : Commissioning tests in relay are carried out
(c) Under frequency relay
to ensure that no damage has been done in transit.
(d) Percentage differential relay
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 8. Which of the following acts as a protection
Ans. (b) : Protection scheme used for detection of loss against high voltage surges due to lightning?
of excitation of a very large generating unit feeding (a) Breather
power in to a grid employs offset mho relay. (b) Conservator
4. MCB's are used in installations to (c) Horn gaps
(a) permit isolation (d) Thermal overload relays
(b) provide overload protection Karnataka PSC AE 2016
(c) replace fuses Ans. (c) : Horn gaps acts as a protection against high
(d) all of the above voltage surge due to lightning. A horn gap is formed by
WBPSC AE 2009 two horn shaped electrodes that diverge so that arc
Ans. (d) : extinguished itself .

9. Match List-I with List-II and select correct 12. Match the following and choose correct option.
answer using the codes given below the lists. List-I List-II
List – I List – II A. Distance Relay 1. Transformers
B.Under frequency 2. Turbines
(Type of fault in (Type of relay
generator) protection) C. Defferential relay 3. Busbars
A. Turn to turn fault 1 MHO relay D. Buchholz relay 4. Shunt capacitors
B. Loss of excitation 2 Negative 5. Alternators
6. Transmission Lines
sequence over
current relay (a) A-6 B-3 C-4 D-1 (b) A-5 B-4 C-3 D-1
(c) A-6 B-5 C-3 D-1 (d) A-5 B-4 C-3 D-2
C. Unbalance loading 3 Reverse power
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
protection
Ans : (c) Distance Relay are 3-type
D. Turbine failure 4 Differential 1. Impedance Relay – Medium Transmission Line
protection 2. Reactance Ralay – Short Transmission Line
A B C D A B C D 3. Admittance Relay/Mho relay– Long Transmission
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 2 3 line.
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 3 3 1 2 Differential Relay – Differential Relay is used for
protection of equipment against internal Fault,
differential relay is used for the protection of generator,
Ans. (b) : Transformer, feeder, large motor, bus-bars etc.
Turn to turn fault – Differential protection Buchholz Relay- Buchholz Relay is used for the
loss of excitation – MHO relay protection of transformers from the faults accuring
inside the transformers, mainly Buchholz Relay is a
Unbalance loading – Negative sequence over current
type of oil actuated protection relay.
relay
13. A thermal protection switch provides
Turbine failure – Reverse power protection protection against:-
10. Simultaneous tripping of circuit breakers at (a) Over - load (b) Under voltage
both ends of a transmission line is achieved by– (c) Short circuit (d) Over – voltage
(a) Pilot protection UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(b) Overcurrent protection Ans. (a) : A thermal protection switch provides
(c) Distance protection protection against over-load.
(d) None of the above 14. The relay used for protection of high voltage
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II a.c. transmission line against power swing is:-
(a) Instantaneous over current relay
Ans. (a) : The secondary of the CTs at the two ends of
(b) Impedance relay
the protected element are connected together by a pilot
(c) Mho relay
wire circuit. The operating coil of the over current relay
(d) Reactance relay
is connected at the middle of pilot wire. So,
simultaneous tripping of circuit breakers at both ends of
Ans. (c) : Mho relay used voltage in circuit breaker for
a transmission line is achieved by pilot protection. measured instantaneous value.
11. The relay used for the protection of high Mho relays are usually employed for protection of long
voltage a.c. transmission line against power transmission line only, as mho relay operation is not
swing is – effected by power swings.
(a) Instantaneous overcurrent relay Long transmission lines- mho relays
Medium transmission line- impedance relays
(b) Impedance relay
Short transmission line- reactance relays.
(c) Reactance relay
15. Earth wire on EHV overhead transmission line
(d) MHO relay is provided to protect the line against
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (a) lightning surge
Ans. (d) : The relay used for the protection of high (b) switching surge
voltage a.c. transmission line against power swing is (c) excessive fault voltages
MHO relay. (d) corona effect
Ans. (a) : Earth wire on EHV overhead transmission Ans. (b) : A reactance relay is an over current relay
line is provided to protect the line against lightning with directional restraint. Here an over current element
surge. develops a positive torque and a current voltage
16. Type of relay most suited for : directional element either opposes or aids the over
current element, depending on the phase angle between
1. Buchholz relay P. Feeder
the current and voltage.
2. Translay relay Q. Transformer
3. Carrier current, R. Radial
phase distribution
comparison relay
4. Directional over S. Generator
current relay
5. Negative T. Ring main
sequence relay distributor
Characteristic of reactance relay is a straight line
U Long overhead
parallel to the real axis.
transmission
line 19. In a 132 kV system, the line to ground
capacitance is 0.01 µF and the inductance is 4
(a) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-T, 4-R, 5-S
H. What is value of voltage appearing across
(b) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-T, 4-U, 5-P
the CB pole, if the magnetizing current to be
(c) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-T, 5-U interrupted is 5A (instantaneous)?
(d) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-U, 4-T, 5-S (a) 132 kV (b) 10 kV
APTRANSCO AE 2019 (c) 220 kV (d) 100 kV
Ans. (d) : APTRANSCO AE 2017
• Buchholz relay is used in transformer. Ans. (d) : Line to ground capacitance C = 0.01 µF
• Translay relay used for protection of feeder. Line to ground inductance L = 4 H
• Phase comparison relay used in long overhead magnetizing current in = I = 5A
transmission line.
L
• Directional over current relay used in ring main voltage appearing across the CB pole V = I
C
distributor.
• Negative sequence relay used in protection of 4
V=5 = 5 4 ×108
generator. 0.01× 10−6
17. During current chopping the current actually = 5 ×104 × 2 = 100 kV
breaks
V = 100 kV.
(a) during the instant of natural current zero
20. The wave-shape of a standard lightning
(b) before the instant of natural current zero
impulse voltage is given by
(c) after the instant of natural current zero
(a) 0.2/50 µs (b) 1.2/50 µs
(d) irrespective the instant of natural current zero
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 (c) 2/50 µs (d) 2.2/50 µs
Ans. (b) : Current chopping in circuit breaker is defined Vizag Steel MT 2013
as the phenomena in which current is forcibly Ans. (b) : The wave shape of standard lighting impulse
interrupted before the natural current is zero. Current voltage is given by 1.2/50 µs means it is having a front
chopping is mainly observed in vacuum circuit breaker time 1.2 µs and a time to half value of 50 µs.
and air blast circuit breaker. 21. Resistance units in value type lighting arrestor
18. A reactance relay is : is made from
(a) Voltage restrained directional relay (a) nicrome wire
(b) Directional restrained over-current relay (b) parallel connection of carbon resistor.
(c) Voltage restrained over current relay (c) parallel connection of metal film resistor.
(d) Directional restrained over voltage relay (d) silicon carbide.
APTRANSCO AE 2017 Vizag Steel MT 2013

Ans. (d) : The resistor elements are made up of silicon
carbide with inorganic binders. The whole arrangement
is enclosed and filled with nitrogen gas or SF6 gas.
A lightning arrester is normally an electrical insulator.
Whenever excessive voltage generates, it becomes a
good electrical conductor, shunting the lightning surge
safely to ground.
22. Reactance relay is normally preferred for
protection against– 25. In a 132 kV system, Phase to Ground
(a) Over load currents only capacitance is 0.01 µF and inductance is 4H.
Calculate the critical resistance to be connected
(b) Phase faults only
in order to eliminate restriking if a magnetizing
(c) Earth faults only current of 5 A is interrupted by the circuit
(d) High voltage protection only (a) 20 kΩ (b) 10 kΩ
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 (c) 100 kΩ (d) 200 kΩ
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019
Ans. (c) : A reactance relay is a high-speed relay. This Ans. (b) : Critical resistance (R):-
relay consists of two elements: an overcurrent and a
1 L 1 4
current–voltage directional element. Thus, a reactance R= =
2 C 2 0.01× 10−6
relay is an overcurrent relay with directional limitation.
Therefore, it is normally used against earth faults only. = 10 kΩ
23. In a star-delta transmission system the CTs 26. Resistance switching is normally employed in–
used in differential protection will be connected (a) All breakers (b) Bulk oil breaker
in: (c) Minimum oil breaker
(d) Air-blast circuit breaker
(a) star connection on both sides of transformer
(b) star connection on star side and delta
connection on delta side
(c) delta connection on star side and star side and
star connection on delta side
Ans. (d) :
(d) delta connection on both sides of transformer
Resistance switching circuit is shown as follows:
CIL MT 2017
Ans. (c) : To get the required phase shift CT are
connected in STAR on Delta side and in Delta form on
Star transmission side.
24. Which of the following combinations can be
used for the protection of rotating machines
against lightning surges?
A fixed connection of resistance in parallel with the
(a) Lightning conductor and lightning arrester
contact space or arc is called the resistance switching.
(b) Lightning conductor and capacitor Resistance switching is employed in circuit breakers
(c) Lightning arrester and capacitor having a high post zero resistance of contact space. The
(d) Lightning arrester alone is used resistance switching is mainly used for reducing the re–
BHEL ET 2019 striking voltage and the transient voltage surge. It is
Ans. (c) : Surge arrester is a device that bypass, when employed in air blast circuit breakers.
applied on it, high voltage/current surge to the ground. In resistance switching, arc resistance is increased by
Surge capacitor is a device that absorbs surge and holds three methods:
it for few seconds and then releases it to the system. 1. Lengthening of arc
Although it absorbs high voltage surge but it can not 2. Splitting of arc
absorb or hold very high current surge. 3. Cooling of arc

27. The rate of rise of re-striking voltage depends V2 V2
upon– Ans. (d) Q = =
X L 2πfL
(a) The type of circuit breaker
2
(b) Inductance of the system only Q 2  V2   f1 
=   × 
(c) The capacitance of the system only Q1  V1   f 2 
(d) The inductance and capacitance of the system 2
only  0.98Vl   f1 
Q 2 = 100MVAR    
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015  V1   0.96f1 
Ans. (d) : Re–striking voltage is given by: = 100.042 MVAR
  t  4. To improve power factor and feeder voltage
Vrs = V 1 − cos  
  LC  control for a which compensation is required :
The rate of rise of re–striking voltage depends upon the (a) Shunt capacitor
inductance and capacitance of the system only. (b) Synchronous condensers
(c) Series capacitor
(vi) Reactor (d) Excitation control
CIL MT 2020
1. If we operate a shunt reactor of 200 MVAR at Ans. (a) : To improve power factor and feeder voltage
95% of its rated voltage and 90% of its rated control a shunt capacitor is required. Shunt capacitor
frequency, what will be the magnitude of reduces the current flowing through the feeder which
reactive power absorbed by the reactor?
improves the voltage profile along feeder and increases
(a) 180.91 MVAR (b) 191.15 MVAR
additional power transfer capability.
(c) 200.55 MVAR (d) 203.40 MVAR
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 5. For limiting the short circuit we use:
(a) Resistors
V2
Ans. (c) : Reactive power ∝ (b) Reactors
f
(c) Capacitors
 ( 0.95) 2 
=   (d) Both Resistors and Reactors
 0.9  (e) Any of above
 
= 1.002 CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
Actual reactive power absorbed = 1.002 × 200 MVAR Ans. (b) : In the power system for limiting the short
= 200.55 MVAR circuit we use reactors.
2. Which of the following is true with respect to a 6. For a 100% series compensated transmission
breeder reactor? line, a series resonance may occur at:
(a) Its conversion ratio is greater than 1 (a) 50 Hz (b) 150 Hz
(b) It is capable of generating more fissile (c) 200 Hz (d) 250 Hz
material than it consumes (e) None
(c) Both a and b CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
(d) None of these Ans. (a) : In India, operating frequency is approx 50
KPTCL AE 2015 Hz. For 100% series compensated transmission line, a
Ans. (c) : In the breeder reactor- series resonance may occur at 50 Hz.
Its conversion ratio is greater than 1 7. In power system short circuit current can be
It is capable of generating more fissile material than limited by using:
it consumes. (a) Reactors (b) Fuse
3. A shunt reactor of 100 MVAR is operated at (c) Isolators (d) Oil circuit breaker
98% of its rated voltage and at 96% of its rated (e) SF6 circuit breaker
frequency. What is the reactive power CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
absorbed by the reactor?
Ans. (a) : In power system short circuit current can be
(a) 98 MVAR (b) 104.02 MVAR
(c) 96.04 MVAR (d) 100.04 MVAR 1
limited by using high value of reactance. ISC ∝
LMRC AE 2015 %X

8. In circulating type of dual converter, the Current limiting reactors may be connected in series
nature of voltage across reactor is with each generator or in series with each feeder or
(a) alternating (b) pulsating between the busbar section of a tie-bar system or
(c) direct (d) triangular Ring system.
PTCUL AE 2012 They avoid the fault from spreading.
Ans. (a) : In circulating type of dual converter, voltage 12. The reactors are used in transmission line to
across reactor is alternating. (a) increase the maximum power transfer
9. In a dual converter, the circulating current : capability
(a) Allows smooth reversal of load current, but (b) minimise the transmission losses.
increases the response time (c) minimise the fault current.
(b) Does not allow smooth reversal of load (d) improve corona performance.
current, but reduces the response time Vizag Steel MT 2013
(c) Allows smooth reversal of load current with Ans. (c) : Series reactor in a transmission line are used
improved speed of response as current limiting reactor to increase the impedance of
(d) Flows only if there is no interconnecting the system. They are also used for neutral earthing.
inductor Such reactors are also used to limit the starting current
WBSE TCL AE 2016 of synchronous motor.
Ans. (c) : The disadvantages of dual–converters 13. A saturable core reactor is basically a–
with circulating current– (a) Variable resistor
(i) A reactor is required to limit the circulating (b) Step down transformer
current. The size and cost of this reactor may be (c) Thermal relay
significant at high power levels. (d) Variable impedance
(ii) Circulating current gives rise to more losses in ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
this converters, hence the efficiency and power
Ans. (d) : A saturable reactor is a special form of
factor are low. inductor where the magnetic core can be deliberately
(iii) As the converters have to handle load as well as made saturated by a DC current in a control winding.
circulating currents, the thyristors for this Once saturated, the inductance of the saturable reactor
converters are rated for higher currents. dramatically drops. This decreases inductive reactance
In spite of these drawbacks, a dual converter with and allows increased flow of the AC current.
circulating current mode is preferred if load current is
to be reversed quite frequently and a fast response is
desired in the four-quadrant operation of the dual- (vii) SF6, CB, Gas Actuated
converter. Relay (Buchholz Relay)
10. For the stable operation of an interconnected
system, which passive element can be used as 1. Keeping in view the cost and overall
interconnecting element? effectiveness, the circuit breaker best suited for
(a) Resistor (b) Capacitor capacitor bank switching is
(c) Reactor (d) Relay (a) Air blast (b) SF6
UPPCL AE 2015 (c) Vacuum (d) Oil
Ans. (c) For the stable of an inter connected system, UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
reactor element can be used as inter connecting element. Ans. (c) : • Keeping in view the cost and overall
11. Which of the following is not true for a fault effectiveness, the circuit breaker best suitable for
limiting reactor? capacitor bank switching is vacuum.
(a) they limit the short circuit current to a safe • The dielectric strength and arc interrupting ability of
value high vacuum is superior to those of porcelain, oil, air
(b) they protect the circuit breakers which have and SF6 at atmospheric pressure.
inadequate rating 2. Which of the following is not a normal test
(c) they improve the voltage regulation applicable to circuit breakers?
(d) they avoid the fault from spreading (a) Temperature rise test
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 (b) Impulse test
Ans. (c) : Fault limiting reactor- (c) Double voltage double frequency test
Current limiting reactors are useful in limiting fault (d) Short circuit test
currents to such values so that the circuit breakers WBPSC AE 2009
can interrupt them. Ans. (c) :

3. Which of the following is not true in case of an Ans. (c) : In order to quench the arc quickly and also
oil circuit breaker, the oil optimize the dimension generally SF6 circuit breaker is
(a) acts as a producer of hydrogen gas which preferred. Circuit breaker is work when relay sense a
helps in extinguishing the arc fault, then send trip signal to circuit breaker and break
the circuit.
(b) provides insulation the live exposed contacts
from earthed portion of the container. 9. A circuit breaker is rated at 1500 A, 1800
MVA, 33 kV, 3-sec, 3 phase oil circuit breaker.
(c) helps in extinguishing fire in case of hazards
The short time rating of the circuit breaker is
(d) provision insulation between contacts after (a) 1500 A (b) 80.3046 kA
arc is extinguished (c) 1800 A (d) 31.492 kA
WBPSC AE 2009 TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : Ans. (d) : 1800 MVA = 3 × 33 ×103 × I
4. The RRRV of a circuit breaker is higher for a
1800 × 106
circuit with I=
3 × 33 ×103
(a) lower value of natural frequency
(b) higher value of natural frequency = 31.492 kA
(c) higher value of resistance 10. The fault clearing time of a circuit breaker is
(d) low value of resistance usually
(a) few minutes
WBPSC AE 2009
(b) few seconds
Ans. (b) :
(c) one second
5. In 132 KV system the phase to ground (d) few cycles of supply voltage
capacitance is 6µF and the inductance is 6 Vizag Steel MT 2012
henry. The value of the resistance to be used
Ans. (d) : The fault clearing time of a circuit breaker
across the contacts of a circuit breaker to
(CB) is usually 4-5 cycles i.e. few cycles of supply
eliminate restirking voltage is
voltage.
(a) 0.5 kΩ (b) 1.5 kΩ
11. The normal frequency rms voltage that
(c) 1 kΩ (d) 2 kΩ appears across the breaker poles after final arc
WBPSC AE 2003 extinction has occurred, is
Ans. (a) : (a) recovery voltage (b) re-striking voltage
6. Which is not applicable for air circuit breaker? (c) supply voltage (d) peak voltage
Vizag Steel MT 2012
(a) elimination of fire hazard
Ans. (a) : The normal frequency rms voltage that
(b) low speed operation
appears across the breaker poles after the final are
(c) short and consistent arc duration extinction has occurred is called 'recovery voltage'.
(d) less burning of contact 12. The arc voltage produced in the circuit breaker
WBPSC AE 2003 is always
Ans. (c) : (a) in phase with arc current
7. The transient voltage that appears across the (b) leading the arc current by 90o
contacts at the instant of arc extinction is called (c) lagging the arc current by 90o
(a) recovery voltage (b) restriking voltage (d) none of these
Vizag Steel MT 2012
(c) switching voltage (d) on-off voltage
Ans. (a) : The arc voltage produced in the circuit
WBPSC AE 2003
breaker is always in phase of the arc current because the
Ans. (b) : path of arc current is highly resistive.
8. In order to quench the arc quickly and also 13. The capacitor switching is easily done with
optimize the dimensions generally (a) Vacuum Circuit Breaker
(a) Air blast C.B. is preferred (b) Bulk Oil Circuit Breaker
(b) Oil C.B. is preferred (c) Air-blast Circuit Breaker
(c) SF6 C.B. is preferred (d) None of these
(d) Minimum oil C.B. is preferred UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
TSPSC AEE 2017 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II

Ans. (a) : The capacitor switching is easily done with 19. Resistance switching is normally employed in
vacuum circuit breaker. Vacuum circuit breaker does (a) bulk oil beakers
not requires any additional filling of oil or gas. They do (b) minimum oil breaker
not need periodic refilling. These breakers are very (c) air blast circuit breaker
suitable for the system which requires voltage from 11 (d) all breakers
to 33 kV. WBPSC AE 2008
14. The most suitable C.B. for high voltage line Ans. (c) :
without switching resistor is-
20. Switching and protection are served by
(a) Air blast C.B. (b) M.O.C.B.
(a) Switch gear (b) Lightning arrester
(c) SF6 circuit breaker (d) None of these
(c) Fuses (d) Relays
WBPSC AE 2007
Ans. (c) : SF6 'Sulphur hexafluoride circuit breakers' the
Ans. (a) :
most suitable C.B. for high voltage line without
switching resistance. SF6 gas has the unique properties, 21. A fault is more severe from the view point of
such as very high dielectric strength, SF6 circuit RRRV if it is a
breakers are used for rated voltage in the range of 3.6 to (a) Short line fault
760 kV. (b) Medium length line fault
15. In an a.c. circuit breaker, the arc is interrupted (c) Long line fault
at (d) None of the above
(a) zero current (b) peak current WBPSC AE 2007
(c) zero voltage (d) peak voltage Ans. (a) :
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II 22. Which circuit breaker is frequently used for
Ans. (a) : In an AC circuit breaker the arc is interrupted outdoor HV application?
at zero current. The arc plays a vital role in the (a) Vacuum circuit breaker
behaviour of the C.B. The interruption of DC and is (b) Bulk oil circuit breaker
relatively mere difficult than AC arc In AC arc as the (c) Air blast circuit breaker
current becomes zero during the regular wave.
(d) Minimum oil circuit breaker
16. Which is the best suited to extinguishing oil or WBPSC AE 2007
flammable liquid fire?
(a) Soda acid (b) Vapourizing liquid Ans. (a) :
(c) Foam (d) Dry channel 23. There will be voltage across the gap in circuit
WBPSC AE 2017 breakers when ___________.
Ans. (d) : (a) R = ∞ (b) R = 0
17. On what factor does the rate of rise of (c) R < (1 / 2)√ L / C (d) R = (1 / 2)√ L / C
restriking voltage (RRRV) depend? UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
(a) System voltage Ans. (c) : There will be voltage across the gap in circuit
(b) Circuit power factor only 1 L
(c) Switching conditions breakers when R < .
2 C
(d) Switching condition as well as circuit power
factor 1 L
• If R = , oscillation present.
WBPSC AE 2017 2 C
Ans. (d) : 1 L
18. Compared to the breaking capacity of circuit • If R < 2 C , there will no oscillation.
breaker, its making capacity should normally
be 24. The rate of rise of re-striking voltage (RRRV)
(a) equal is dependent upon–
(b) less (a) Resistance of the system only
(c) more (b) Inductance of the system only
(d) two are unrelated to each other (c) Capacitance of the system only
WBPSC AE 2017 (d) Inductance and capacitance of the system
Ans. (c) : ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014

Ans. (d) : The rate of rise of re-striking voltage By choosing standard inverse characteristics of the relay
(RRRV) is defined as the slope of the steepness tangent operating time t
of the re-striking voltage curve; it is expressed in 0.14
kV/ µs . TMS ×
( PSM )0.02 − 1
The expression for the re-striking voltage is given as
V 0.14
0.6 × = 1.978 s
(RRRV) max = m
LC ( 8)0.02 − 1
Thus, RRRV depends on L and C. 27. An over current relay having a current setting
25. Determine the time of operation of a relay of of 125% is connected to a supply circuit
rating 5 A, 2.2 s IDMT and having a relay through a current transformer of ratio 400/5.
setting of 125%, TMS = 0.6. It is connected to The pick-up value will be
the supply circuit through a CT 400 : 5 ratio. (a) 6.25 A (b) 500 A
The fault current is 4000 A.
(c) 100 A (d) 80 A
PSM 2 5 8 10
Time 10 8 3.2 2.5 DMRC AM 2016
(a) 1.89 s (b) 1.92 s APSPDCL AE 2012
(c) 1.93 s (d) 1.87 s Ans. (a) : Current setting = 125%
BHEL ET 2019 400
Current transformer ratio =
Ans. (b) : Fault current Ip = 4000A 5
Ps = 125% = 1.25 Fault Current in Relay Coil
The operating current of the relay = 5×1.25 = 6.25 A PSM =
5 Pickup Value
Is = 4000 × = 50A
400 Fault Current in Relay Coil
PSM =
Secondary current 50 %Current Setting × Rated sec.Current of C.T
PSM = = =8
relay operating current 6.25 Pickup value = % Current setting × rated sec. current of
T.M.S. = 0.6 (given) C.T
The operating time for PSM = 8 is 3.2 sec (TMS = 1) = 1.25 × 5
and for TMS = 0.6 is 1.92 sec
Pickup Value = 6.25
0.6
= × 3.2
1 28. Identify the correct relationship regarding the
t = 1.92 sec rating of a circuit breaker.
26. Determine the time of operation of a 1A, 3s (a) Symmetrical breaking capacity = 2.55 ×
over current relay having a plug setting of Making capacity
125% and a Time multiplier of 0.6. The (b) Making capacity = Symmetrical breaking
supplying CT is rated 400 : 1A the fault capacity
current is 4000 A. (c) Making capacity = 5.55 × Symmetrical
(a) 2.55 sec (b) 1.98 sec breaking capacity
(c) 1.75 sec (d) 0.55 sec (d) Making capacity = 2.55 × Symmetrical
APPSC AEE 2019 breaking capacity
Ans. (b) : Given data LMRC AM 2020
TMS = 0.6 Ans. (d) : Making capacity = 2.55 × Symmetrical
Relay rated current = 1A breaking capacity
Plug setting = 125% 29. The restriking voltage is measured in
pickup current Ip = 1×1.25 = 1.25A (a) RMS value (b) Peak value
CT. ratio is 400:1 (c) Average value (d) None of the above
fault current If = 4000A UJVNL AE 2016
1 Ans. (b) Restriking voltage is measured in peak value.
If referred to secondary side of CT = 4000 × = 10A
400 30. If the fault current is 3000 A, for an IDMT
I referred to secondary side of CT relay, with a plug setting of 50% and CT ratio
PSM= f of 400/5, the plug setting multiplier would be
Pickup current
(a) 7.5 (b) 15.0
10 (c) 18.75 (d) 37.5
= =8
1.25 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II

Ans. (b) : CT ratio = 400/5 Ans. (d) : The current transformer ratio is 400 : 5.
CT rated current = 5A So, the CT cab be provided a rated current of 5 amps to
Relay setting is 50% relay will operate for the relay coil. There by the rated relay can be operated
50  50 
= 5× = 2.5A for 5 ×   = 2.5 A .
100  100 
fault current = 3000A Plug setting multiplier (PSM)
So, plug setting multiplier (PSM) Fault current
=
fault current relay current setting × CT ratio
=
relay current setting × CT ratio 2000 × 5
=
3000 × 5 2.5 × 400
= = 15A
2.5 × 400 PSM = 10
31. When fault occurs in a high voltage 34. If the fault current is 2000 A for a relay with a
transmission line, first the: current setting of 50% and CT ratio of 1000:1,
(a) Circuit breaker operates, then relay the PSM would be:
(b) Relay operates, then circuit breaker (a) 1.5 (b) 4
(c) Relay operates, then successively the isolator (c) 4.5 (d) 6
and circuit breaker (e) 3
(d) Isolator operates, then successively the relay CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
and the circuit breaker Ans. (b) :
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 Fault current
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 PSM = Currentsetting × CTratio × Ratedsecondary current
Ans. (b) When fault occur in a high voltage
2000
transmission line, then firstly relay operates. When it PSM = = = 4
50 1000
sense the fault inform to abnormal current in current × ×1
transformer, then send tripping signal to the circuit 100 1
breaker, and open the circuit breaker. 35. If the fault current is 5 KA, the relay setting is
32. A relay is connected to a 400/5 current 50% and CT ratio is 200/5, Plug setting
multiplier will be
transformer and set at 150%. If the primary
fault current is 2400 A, what will be the Plug (a) 25 (b) 10
Setting Multiplier (P.S.M.)? (c) 12 (d) 50
(a) 4 (b) 3 (e) 12.5
(c) 2 (d) 1 CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 Ans. (d) : Plug Setting Multiplier PSM)
Ans : (a) Rated secondary current of CT = 5A Fault current
=
Pickup current = 5 × 1.50 = 7.5 A Current setting × CT ratio × Rated secondary current
5 5 × 103
Fault current in coil relay = 2400 × = 30A (PSM) =
400 200
30 50% × ×5
Plug setting multiplier (PSM) = =4 5
7.5 5000 × 5 ×100
33. If the fault current is 2000A, the relay setting is =
50 × 200 × 5
50% and CT ratio is 400 : 5, then plug setting
multiplier will be :- PSM = 50
(a) 25 A (b) 15 A 36. Current rating is not necessary in case of :
(c) 50 A (d) 10 A (a) isolators
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II (b) circuit breakers
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016 (c) load break switches
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I (d) circuit breakers and load break switches
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II

Ans. (a) : Current rating is not necessary in case of 41. The voltage rating of circuit breaker is
isolators. normally from ............ times more than the
Isolator is a manually operated mechanical switch normal operating voltage.
which separates a part of the electrical power. Isolators (a) 1.05 – 1.10 (b) 1.10 – 1.15
are used to open a circuit under no load. (c) 1.15 – 1.20 (d) 1.20 – 1.50
37. A 3-phase circuit breaker is rated at 3300 MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
MVA, 33 kV. Its making current will be : Ans. (a) : The voltage rating of circuit breaker is
(a) 100 / 3 kA (b) 100 kA normally from 1.05 – 1.10 times more than the normal
operating voltage.
(c) 255/ 3 kA (d) 255 kA
42. The recovery of dielectric strength after the arc
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II interruption in SF6 circuit breaker is very fast
3300 × 10 6
100 due to the :
Ans. (c) : Breaking current = = kA 1. non-toxic property of SF6 gas
3 × 33 × 103 3
2. non-inflammable property of SF6 gas
Making current = 2.55 × Breaking current
3. inert nature of SF6 gas
100
= 2.55× 4. electronegative property of SF6 gas
3
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
255 (c) 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
= kA
3 MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
38. SF6 circuit breakers have the advantages of : Ans. (c) : To recovery of dielectric strength after the arc
(a) very much reduced electrical clearance and interruption in SF6 circuit breaker is very fast due to the
minimum current chopping problem electronegative property of SF6 gas.
(b) no reduction in dielectric strength 43. Vacuum circuit breakers are used for
(c) performance independent of ambient applications of up to a voltage level of :
conditions 1. 132 kV 2. 220 kV
(d) All of the above 3. 66 kV 4. 400 kV
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II (a) 3 only (b) 2 only
Ans. (d) : SF6 circuit breakers have the advantages of- (c) 2 and 1 only (d) 2 and 4 only
• Very much reduced electrical clearance and MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
minimum current chopping. Ans. (a) : Vacuum circuit breakers are used for
• No reduction in dielectric strength. application of up to a voltage level of 66 kV.
• Performance independent of ambient conditions. 44. The circuit breaker preferred in recent times
39. Magnetic blow out coils are generally used in : for voltage levels of 132 kV – 765 kV is a/an :
(a) air blast circuit breaker (a) vacuum circuit breaker
(b) oil circuit breaker (b) minimum oil circuit breaker
(c) vacuum circuit breaker (c) air-blast circuit breaker
(d) air break circuit breaker (d) SF6 circuit breaker
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
Ans. (d) : Magnetic blow out coils are generally used in Ans. (d) : The circuit breaker preferred in recent times
air break circuit breaker. for voltage levels of 132 kV – 765 kV is SF6 circuit
40. The type of fire extinguisher to put out an breaker.
electrical fire is : SF6 gas has excellent insulating properties are
(a) Class A (b) Class B extinguishing the arc and many other properties
(c) Class C (d) Class D which are the greatest advantages of SF6 circuit
breaker.
There is no reduction in dielectric strength because
Ans. (c) : Class C type of fire extinguisher is to put out
no carbon particles are formed during arcing.
an electrical fire.
It gives noiseless operation and there is no over
A fire extinguisher is an active fire protection device
voltage problem because the arc is extinguished at
used to extinguish or control small fires, often in
natural current zero.
emergency situations.
45. In a short circuits test on a circuit breaker, 49. Figure shows the single phase equivalent circuit
time to reach the peak re-striking voltage is 40 for analyzing circuit breaker operation. The
µ sec. Frequency of oscillation is frequency of re-striking voltage is
(a) 20 kHz (b) 10 kHz
(c) 40 kHz (d) None of the above
Ans. (d) : Frequency of oscillation
2π
T=
ωn
(a) 1000 kHz
2π
ωn = (b) 5000 kHz
T
(c) 500×103 radians/sec
2π
2πf = (d) 200×103 radians/sec
T
1 TSTRANSCO AE 2018
f=
T Ans. (c) : The frequency of restriking voltage
1
= = 25 kHz
40 ×10−6
46. The rate of rise of re-striking voltage (RRRV)
is usually expressed in
(a) kV/m sec (b) kV/µ sec
(c) V/ sec (d) MV/µ sec
1
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II ω=
LC
Ans. (b) : The rate of rise of restriking voltage (RRRV)
1
RRRV = Vm ωn sin ωn t kV / µ sec ω=
10 × 10 × 400 ×10−12
−3
47. An over current relay, having a current setting 1

of 125% connected to a supply circuit through a ω = × 106
2
current transformer of ratio 400/5. The pickup
value is : ω = 500 × 103 rad / sec
(a) 15 (b) 10 50. If the fault current is 3000A for a relay with a
(c) 6.25 (d) 25
plug setting of 50% and CT ratio of 1000 :1,
the plug setting multiplier would be:
Ans. (c) Relay pick up current
= % current setting × rated secondary (a) 1.5 (b) 3
current of CT (c) 4.5 (d) 6
Relay pickup current = 1.25×5 = 6.25A OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
48. A relay is connected to 400/5. A current Ans. (d) : Given that,
transformer and set for 150%. The primary
fault current of 2400 A needs a plug setting Fault current = 3000 A
multiplier of CT ratio = 1000:1
(a) 2 (b) 4 Relay plug setting = 50%
(c) 6 (d) 8 Fault current
RPSC VPITI 2018 PSM =
Relay current setting × C.T.ratio
Ans. (b) : Fault current = 2400 A
3000
Pickup current = CT ratio × secondary CT current & =
1000
current setting 0.50 ×
1
fault current
PSM = 3000
Pickup current = =6
500
2400
PSM = =4 PSM = 6
1.5 × 5 × 400 / 5

51. The current rating of a relay is 5A and it is set Ans. (a) : Breaking capacity = 3 × rated voltage in kV
400
at 150%. C.T. ratio is Fault current is × rated current in kA
5
2000 × 106
6000A. PSM is: rated current = 3
= 34.99 × 103 = 35kV
(a) 75 (b) 15 3 × 33 × 10
(c) 10 (d) 20 55. What is the preferred type of CB to be installed
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 in extra high voltage AC system?
Ans. (c) : Given fault current (If) = 6000 A (a) Bulk oil type CB
400 (b) Air blast CB
C.T ratio = (c) Vacuum CB
5
Setting of relay = 150% = 1.5 p.u (d) Sulphur hexafluoride (SF)6 CB
RPSC VPITI 2018
Relay current setting = % setting of relay × C.T.
secondary current Ans. (d) : Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6) CB : In this SF6
gas is dielectric medium, SF6 has very high dielectric
= 1.5 × 5 = 7.5 A
strength so, it is mainly preferred for high voltage.
Primary current ( fault current )
PSM = 56. Which one of the following equipment can open
Relay current setting× CT ratio or close electrical circuits under both normal
6000 and abnormal conditions?
= = 10
7.5 × 80 (a) Fuse (b) Relay
PSM = 10 (c) Circuit Breaker (d) Isolator
52. An over current relay having a current setting
of 150% is connected to a supply circuit Ans. (c) : Circuit Breaker is a protecting device which
through a current transformer of ratio 500/10. acts as a switch. It opens and closes the contact of the
The pick up value is circuit at the normal as well as when the faulty
(a) 12.5 Amp (b) 10 Amp condition occurs in the system. It automatically
(c) 6.25 Amp (d) 15 Amp disconnects the circuit when an overload current or
short circuit takes place.
JUVNL AE 2017
57. In a 132 kV circuit breaker the bushing to
Ans. (d) : Current transformer ratio = 500/10
ground capacitance is 0.01 micro farad and the
Current setting of 150%
transformer inductance succeeding the circuit
Pick up value = ?
breaker is 4H. What will be the voltage
Pickup value or pickup current =
appearing across the poles of circuit-breaker as
[Rated CT secondary current × current setting.]
it breaks a magnetizing current of 15A flowing
10 ×150
Pick up current = ⇒ 15Amp in the transformer?
100
(a) 300 kV (b) 144 kV
53. Circuit breakers usually operate under (c) 363 kV (d) 282 kV
(a) Transient state of short circuit current
(b) Sub-transient state of short circuit current
Ans. (a) : Given, i0 = 15 A
(c) Steady state of short circuit current
L = 4H
(d) After dc component has ceased
C = 0.01 µF
MPPSC AE 2016
Voltage across pole,
Ans. (a) : Circuit breakers operates when fault occurs
and it is during transient state of short circuit current. L
V = io
54. A 3-phase circuit breaker is rated at 2000 C
MVA, 33 KV. Its rated symmetrical breaking 4
V = 15
current will be 0.01× 10−6
(a) 35 kA (b) 25 kA
(c) 30 kA (d) 40 kA V = 15 4 × 108
WBPSC AE 2012 V = 15 × 2 × 100 × 100
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III V = 300 kV

58. The phasor relation between the arc voltage Ans. (a) : The arc time constant is least (a few micro
and current in an AC circuit breaker is that the sec) in vacuum circuit breaker (VCB) as compare to
(a) arc voltage leads the current by 90 deg other CB. These circuit breaker ideally suited for
(b) arc voltage lags the current by 90 deg capacitor bank switching.
(c) arc voltage is in phase opposition to current 64. Resistance switching is employed in–
(d) arc voltage and current are in phase
(a) All breakers
(b) Bulk oil breakers
Ans. (d) : In an AC circuit breaker the arc path is purely
(c) Minimum oil breakers
resistive so the arc voltage is in phase with the arc
current. (d) Air blast circuit breakers
59. Magnetic circuit breakers use _________ APTRANSCO AE 2011
(a) Permanent magnets Ans. (d) : Resistance switching is employed in air blast
(b) Earth magnets circuit breaker. This switching is employed in circuit
(c) Solenoid breakers having a high post zero resistance of contact
(d) All the above space.
KPTCL AE 2015 65. The use of high speed circuit breakers:-
(a) Improve the system stability
Ans. (c) : Magnetic circuit breakers use solenoid. An
(b) Reduces the short circuit current
electrical circuit breaker is a switching device which
(c) Increases short circuit current
can be operated manually and automatically for
(d) Decreases the system stability
controlling and protecting an electrical power system.
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
60. Which of the following is used in a circuit
APTRANSCO AE 2011
breaker as the medium in which the arc forms?
(a) Insulating gas (b) Insulating oil ESE 2016
(c) Vacuum (d) All the above Ans : (a) Use of high speed circuit breakers improves
KPTCL AE 2015 the system stability. Circuit breaker is a mechanical
Ans. (d) : The arc forms in a circuit breaker as the device whose rating is done in MVA.
medium- High speed circuit breakers units switch the unit
Insulating gas Insulating oil Vacuum switches circuit breakers are located within the network
61. Oil switches are applied : leading up to the control dvices from the pantographs
(a) For low current circuits and they both serve as security devices that allow and
(b) For low voltage circuits cutt off power to the main circuit.
(c) For high voltages and large current circuits 66. The voltage across the circuit breaker contacts
(d) For all circuits after final current is zero, is –
MPPSC AE 2014 (a) Recovery voltage (b) Supply voltage
Ans. (c) : Oil switches are applied for high voltage and (c) Restriking voltage (d) None of these
large current circuit. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
62. The pressure of SF6 gas in circuit breaker is of WBPSC AE 2007
the order of Ans. (a) :
(a) 100 mm Hg (b) 1 kg/cm2
(c) 3-5 kg/cm2 (d) 30-50 kg/cm2
GMB AE 2017
Ans. (c) : SF6 gas has good dielectric strength and
excellent arc quenching property. It is an inert, non
toxic, nonflammable and heavy gas. At atmospheric
pressure, its dielectric strength is about 2.35 times that
of air. And pressure of SF6 gas is 3-5 kg/cm2.
63. Keeping in view the cost and overall The transient voltage which appears across the breaker
effectiveness, the following circuit breaker is contacts at the instant of arc being extinguished is
best suited for capacitor bank switching. known as restriking voltage.
(a) Vacuum (b) Air blast The power frequency, rms voltage which appears across
(c) SF6 (d) Oil the breaker contacts after the arc is finally extinguished
APTRANSCO AE 2011 and transient oscillations die out is called recovery
voltage.
WBSE TCL AE 2016
67. The contact resistance of a circuit breaker is Ans. (a) : For high voltage system 400kV-760kV SF6
about – circuit breaker and air blast circuit breaker to be
(a) 20 ohm (b) 2 ohm installed in system.
(c) 20 milli ohm (d) 20 micro ohm 71. Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at:
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (a) Maximum current (b) Maximum voltage
(c) Zero current (d) Minimum voltage
Ans. (d) : LMRC AM 2018
Ans. (c) : The arc is play a vital role in the behaviour of
the circuit breaker for total interruption of current. The
circuit breaker is essential to quench the arc as quick as
The contact resistance of circuit breaker is possible. In the interruption of arc of a circuit breaker as
about 20 micro ohm. the current becomes zero during the regular wave, the
arc vanishes and it is interrupted from restriking.
68. Which of the following is not a short-circuit test
72. The voltage drop across the arc in an a.c.
of circuit breakers ?
circuit breaker is–
(a) Dielectric test (a) leading the arc current by 900
(b) Making capacity test (b) lagging the arc current by 900
(c) Breaking capacity test (c) in phase with the arc current
(d) Duty cycle test (d) in phase opposite to the arc current
Ans. (a) :A short-circuit test of circuit breaker is– Ans. (c) : The voltage drop across the arc is called arc
voltage. As the arc path is purely resistive the arc
(i) Test for breaking capacity
voltage is in phase with the arc current.
(ii) Test for making capacity
73. A fault in transmission is highly severe from
(iii) Duty cycle test the point of view of RRRV if it is a –
(iv) Short-time current test (a) Short line fault (b) Long line fault
But dielectric test is not a short-circuit test of circuit (c) Medium line fault (d) Generator fault
breakers. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
69. The minimum oil circuit breaker has less Ans. (a) : A fault in transmission is highly severe from
volume of oil because – the point of view of RRRV if it is a short line fault. The
rate of rise of restriking voltage (RRRV)–
(a) there is insulation between contacts.
= Vm ωn sin ωn t
(b) solids insulation is provided for insulating the
contracts from earth. 74. For protection of distribution line, the
following circuit breakers may be considered :
(c) the oil between the breaker contacts has
1. Bulk oil circuit breaker
greater strength.
2. Air blast circuit breaker
(d) none of the above 3. Air circuit breaker
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II 4. Vacuum circuit breaker
Ans. (b) : The minimum oil circuit breaker has less Out of these
volume of oil because a minimum content oil circuit (a) 1 and 2 are used (b) 2 and 3 are used
breaker does not employ a steel tank. Its container is (c) 3 and 4 are used (d) 1 and 4 are used
made of porcelain or other insulating material as solids UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
insulation is provided for insulating the contracts from Ans. (d) : Distribution line use 3.3 kV to 33k. So,
earth. vacuum circuit breaker, Bulk oil circuit breaker are
used.
70. Which is the preferred type of circuit breaker
75. The circuit breaker used for the protection of
to be installed in high voltage system? EHV ac transmission line is–
(a) Air blast circuit breaker (a) Air blast circuit breaker
(b) Vacuum circuit breaker (b) SF6 circuit breaker
(c) Bulk oil circuit breaker (c) Vacuum circuit breaker
(d) None of these (d) Minimum oil circuit breaker

Ans. (b) : The circuit breaker used for the protection of Ans. (c) : Rate of rise of restriking voltage (RRRV)
EHV ac transmission line is SF6 circuit breaker because depend upon on inductance and capacitance of the
of its excellent insulating and arc-quenching property system.
has revolutionized the design of high and extra high  t 
Vr = Vm  1 − cos 
voltage (EHV) circuit breakers.  LC 
76. SF6 gas is used in circuit breaker because Rate of rise of Restriking voltage
(a) It is cheapest. dVr V
(b) Its liquification temperature is less than 0°C. dt LC
(
= m sin t LC KV ) µ sec
(c) Its dielectric strength is highest. Vm
Maximum RRRV = KV / µ sec
(d) It is easily available. LC
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II 80. A 3 phase oil circuit breaker is rated at 1600
Ans. (c) : Sulpher hexafluoride (SF6) has good Amps, 33 KV, 2000 MVA and 4 sec. Value of
dielectric strength and excellent are quenching property. breaking current, making current and short
It is an inert, nontoxic, nonflammable and heavy gas. At time rating (current) will be respectively:
atmospheric pressure, its dielectric strength is about (a) 34.99 KA, 89.22 KA and 34.99 KA for 4 sec
2.35 times that of air. At atmospheric pressure its (b) 89.74 KA, 89.22 KA and 34.99 KA for 4 sec
dielectric strength is more than that of transformer oil. (c) 72.99 KA, 100.20 KA and 34.99 KA for 4 sec
(d) 56.02 KA, 89.22 KA and 34.99 KA for 4 sec
77. The rating of a circuit breaker is usually
(e) Insufficient data
determined on the basis of ……….. fault.
(a) symmetrical 3-phase
Ans. (a) : Symmetrical Breaking capacity
(b) line to line
(c) single line to ground = 3 × VL × Ibreaking
(d) double line to ground 2000 ×106
I breaking =
RPSC VPITI 2016 33 × 103 3
Ans. (a) : The rating of a circuit breaker is usually = 34.99 kA
determined on the basis of symmetrical 3-φ fault. I making = 2 ×1.8 × I breaking
78. Purpose of connecting shunt resistor across the
contacts of a circuit breaker is: = 2 × 1.8 × 34.99
(a) To damp out the oscillations = 89.22 kA
(b) To damp out the restriking transient I Short time rating current = 34.99 kA
(c) To limit the short circuit current 81. Most suitable application of Air blast circuit
(d) To quench the arc breaker is in:
(e) All of the above (a) Up to 400 kV lines
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II (b) Up to 132 kV lines
(c) Up to 260 kV lines
Ans. (b) : Purpose of connecting shunt resistor across
(d) Up to 11 kV lines
the contacts of a circuit breaker is to damp out the
(e) All of the above
restriking transient voltage.
79. For a given circuit breaker its rate of rise of
Ans. (a) : For very high voltage line air blast circuit
restriking voltage (RRRV) depends: breaker is used for voltage upto 400 kV lines.
(a) On the time setting multiplier of the relay
82. Capacitor switching is easy in case of:
(b) On the construction of the circuit breaker (a) SF6 circuit breaker
(c) On the inductance and capacitance of the (b) Vacuum circuit breaker
system (c) Oil circuit breaker
(d) On the system inductance only (d) Air blast circuit breaker
(e) All of the above (e) None of these
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II

Ans. (b) : Vacuum circuit breakers are ideally suited for Ans. (d) SF6 is strongly electronegative, which means
capacitor switching restrike free operation ,due to which the free electrons are easily removed from discharge by
it is capable of chopping small current .Capacitor the formation of negative ions. Most important property
switching is easy in case of vacuum circuit breaker. that makes SF6 a very efficient medium for circuit
83. The normal practice to specify the making breaking is it is highly electro negative in nature. Due to
current of a circuit breaker in terms of its low gaseous viscosity, SF6 gas can transfer heat by
(a) rms value (b) peak value convection. It has high dielectric strength.
(c) average value (d) both (a) and (b) 86. In a circuit breaker.
PTCUL AE 2012 (a) Both restriking and recovery voltages are
Ans. (b) : Electromagnetic force is directly proportional transient in nature.
to the square of current, therefore circuit breaker is (b) Both restriking and recovery voltages are rms
closing maximum electromagnetic force on its contact in nature
will be seen when current is at peak value. Hence (c) Restriking voltage is transient while recovery
making current is specified in terms of peak value. voltage is rms in nature
84. The rate of rise of restriking voltage depends (d) Recovery voltage is transient while restriking
upon : voltage is rms in nature
(a) Types of circuit breaker AAI Junior Executive 2016
(b) The inductance of the system only Ans. (c) : In a circuit breaker Restriking voltage is
(c) The capacitance of the system only transient while recovery voltage is rms in nature.
(d) Both inductance and capacitance of the 87. The breakdown strength of SF6 gas at NTP is:
system (a) three times that of air at NTP and is a
PTCUL AE 2016 function of gas pressure.
UPPCL AE 2016 (b) six times that of air at NTP and is not a
WBPSC AE 2012 function of gas pressure.
WBPSC AE 2017 (c) three times that of air at NTP and is not a
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II function of gas pressure.
(d) six times that of air at NTP and is a function
 1  of gas pressure.
Ans. (d) : Vc = Vmax 1 − cos t
 LC  AAI Junior Executive 2016
dVc Ans. (a) : At Normal temperature and pressure
For RRRV=
dt breakdown strength of SF6 is 3 times that of air at NTP
dVc 1 1 and is function of gas pressure.
= Vmax × sin t
dt LC LC 88. A three – phase, 33kV oil circuit breaker is
For maximum value of RRRV occurs when- rated for 1200 A, 2000 MVA, 3s. The
1 symmetrical breaking current is:-
sin t = π/ 2 (a) 1200A (b) 3600 A
LC
(c) 35 kA (d) 104.8 kA
Vmax
Max value of RRRV = UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
LC Vizag Steel MT 2017
Peak restriking voltage occurs when t = π LC Ans. (c) : Breaking capacity = 3VL × I FL
Hence RRRV depends on both inductance and
2000 × 106 = 1.732 × 33 × 103 × I FL
capacitance.
85. The single most important property that makes IFL = 34.999 kA
SF6 a very efficient medium for circuit ≃ 35 kA
breaking is 89. In a circuit breaker, the time duration from the
(a) It is non–Toxic and non–inflammable instant of the fault to the extinction of arc is
(b) It has high dielectric constant known as:-
(c) It has high breakdown strength (a) Total clearing time (b) Operation time
(d) It is highly electronegative in nature (c) Protection time (d) Recovery time
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II

Ans. (a) : In a circuit breaker, the time duration from Ans. (b) : Air blast circuit breaker to be installed in
the instant of the fault to the extinction of arc is known EHV system.
as total clearing time. 95. The restriking voltage in circuit breaker is
90. The making current of a 3-phase circuit measured in:-
breaker with rating 2000 MVA, 33kV will be:- (a) RMS value (b) Peak value
(a) 35 kA (b) 50 kA (c) Instantaneous value (d) Average value
(c) 70 kA (d) 89 kA UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II Ans. (c) : The restriking voltage in circuit breaker is
Ans. (d) : Making current measured instantaneous value.
= 2.55 × Breaking capacity (BC) The rate of rising of restriking voltage- It is defined
2000 as the slap of the steepness tangent of the restriking
= 2.55 × voltage curve. It is expressed in V/ps.
3 × 33
RRRV is directly proportional to the natural frequency.
= 89 kA
V
91. In an Indoor substation for 220 kV, the circuit RRRVmax = m (Vm = peak restriking voltage)
breakers will be of the type:- LC
(a) Oil (b) Air break 96. The most suitable circuit breaker for
(c) SF6 (d) Vacuum interrupting short line fault without resistance
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II switching is:-
Ans. (c) : In an Indoor substation for 220 kV, the circuit (a) Minimum oil circuit breaker
breakers will be SF6. (b) SF6 circuit breaker
(c) Bulk oil circuit breaker
92. The term critical clearing time in protection of
Power system is related to:- (d) Air blast circuit breaker
(a) Reactive power limit UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(b) Steady state stability limit Ans. (b) : Most suitable circuit breaker for interrupting
(c) Short circuit current limit short line fault without resistance switching is SF6
(d) Transient stability limit circuit breaker.
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II 97. Which one of the following is not a routine test
of a circuit breaker?
Ans. (d) : The term critical clearing time in protection
of power system is related to transient stability limit. (a) Short circuit test
(b) Dielectric test
93. Circuit breaker is used for which of the
(c) Thermal test
following:-
(d) DC resistance voltage drop test
(a) Voltage control
(b) Power control UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(c) Frequency control Ans. (a) : Short circuit test is not routine test of a circuit
(d) Over current protection breaker. Various routine test are performed for ensuring
the quality, performance of a circuit breaker and these
are-
Ans. (d) : Circuit breaker is used for over current
1. Power frequency over voltage with stand test.
protection.
2. Dielectric test on auxiliary circuit and control circuit.
A circuit breaker is a switching device that interrupt the
3. Tightness test or SF6 gas leakage test.
abnormal or fault current. It is a mechanical device that
disturbs the flow of high magnitude (fault) current and 4. Design and visual checks.
in additions performs the function of a switch. The 5. Mechanical operation test.
circuit breaker is mainly designed for closing or 6. Measurement of resistance of main circuit or
opening of an electrical circuit, thus protects the contact resistance test.
electrical system.
98. The air-blast circuit breakers for 400 kV
94. Which is preferred type of C.B. to be installed system are designed to operate in :
in EHV system? (a) 100 µs (b) 50 ms
(a) Vacuum C.B. (b) Air blast C.B. (c) 0.1 s (d) 0.5 s
(c) Bulk oil C.B. (d) None of these HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
Ans. (b) : The air-blast circuit breakers for 400 kV Ans. (b) : If the dielectric strength of the medium
system are designed to operate in 50 ms. In air blast between contacts of a circuit breaker builds more
circuit breakers, compressed air at a pressure of 20-30 rapidly than the restriking voltage, then the arc will be
kg/cm2 is employed as a quenching medium. extinguished.
99. Which of the following circuit breakers is 103. Which medium is used for extinction of arc in
preferred for EHT application: LT circuit breaker?
(a) Air blast circuit breakers (a) Air (b) SF6
(b) Minimum oil circuit breakers (c) Oil (d) Water
(c) Bulk oil circuit breakers UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
(d) SF6 oil circuit breakers Ans. (a) : Air medium is used for extinction of arc in
PS PCL AE 2012 LT circuit breaker.
Vizag Steel MT 2012 104. A 3-phase breaker is rated at 2000 MVA, 33
Ans. (d) : A circuit breaker is a switching device that kV, its making current will be
interrupts the abnormal or fault current. It is a (a) 35 kA (b) 49 kA
mechanical device that disturbs the flow of high (c) 70 kA (d) 89 kA
magnitude (fault) current and in addition to performs UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
the function of a switch. SF6 circuit breaker passes very
Ans. (d) : Given, Rating (s) = 2000 MVA, V = 33 kV
good arc quenching as well as insulating properties that
Making current = 2.55× breaking current
makes it use in EHT applications.
2000 × 106
100. The most suitable C.B. for short line fault = 2.55×
without switching resister is 3 × 33 ×103
(a) Air blast C.B. (b) M.O,C.B. = 89 kA
(c) SF6 C.B. (d) None of the above 105. The rate of rise of restriking voltage (RRRV)
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 depends on
Ans. (c) : The most suitable C.B. for short-line fault (a) the type of circuit breaker
without switching resister is SF6 circuit breaker. SF6 (b) the inductance of the system
circuit breakers can withstand sever RRRV and are (c) the capacitance of the system
capable of breaking capacity current without restriking. (d) Both (b) and (c)
Problem of current chopping is minimized. Electrical UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
clearances are very much reduced due to high dielectric Ans. (d) : The rate of rise of restriking voltage (RRRV)
strength of SF6. depends on the inductance and capacitance of the
101. For rural electrification in a country like India system.
with complex network it is preferable to use
  t 
(a) Air break C.B. (b) Oil C.B. v = V 1 − cos    kV
(c) Vacuum C.B. (d) M.O.C.B.   LC  
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 where, v = restriking voltage
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 V = value of voltage at the instant of interruption
Ans. (c) : For rural electrification in a country like India LC = Series Inductor and shunt capacitance.
with complex network it is preferable to use vacuum 106. The circuit breaker preferred for low current
circuit breaker.
interruption at high voltages
Vacuum circuit breakers have now become popular for
voltage ratings upto 36 kV they employ a single (a) Air blast CB (b) Oil CB
interrupter. The dielectric strength and arc interrupting (c) Vacuum CB (d) None of these
ability of high vacuum is superior to those of porcelain, UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
oil, air & SF6 Circuit breaker. Ans. (c) : The circuit breaker preferred for low current
102. If the dielectric strength of the medium interruption at high voltages is Vacuum CB.
between contacts of a circuit breaker builds
107. Auto reclosing is used in case of
more rapidly than the restriking voltage, then
the arc will (a) lightning arrester (b) bulk oil C.B
(a) not be extinguished (b) be extinguished (c) air blast C.B (d) minimum oil C.B
(c) increase (d) None of the above APGENCO AE 2012
Ans. (c) : Auto reclosing is used in case of air blast 113. A circuit breaker is rated at 2300 MVA, 66 kV,
circuit breakers. it's breaking current will be
Air Blast circuit breakers are suitable for operating (a) 10.29 kA (b) 10.65 kA
voltage of 132 kV. Problem of current chopping occurs (c) 20.12 kA (d) 7.65 kA
in air blast circuit breaker. JUVNL AE 2017
108. The chances of arc interruption in subsequent
Ans. (c) : Rating of circuit breaker = 2300 MVA, 66 kV
current zeros
then breaking current = ?
(a) increases in ABCB, decreases in OCB
(b) decreases in ABCB, increases in OCB breaking current = 3k.V. × kA = MVA
(c) decreases in both cases MVA
K.A. =
(d) increases in both cases 3 × kV
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II 2300 2300
= ⇒
Ans. (b) : The chances of arc interruption in subsequent 3 × 66 114.3
current zeros decreases in ABCB, increases in OCB.
= 20.12kA
109. The main purpose of oil in a minimum oil
circuit breaker is 114. The figure below shows the resistance
(a) arc quenching (b) insulation switching arrangement of a circuit breaker in
(c) cooling (d) lubrication which a resistance is connected across the
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II breaker contacts. From the given options, select
Ans. (a) : The main purpose of oil in a minimum oil the one which is NOT a function of the resistor.
circuit breaker is arc quenching.
110. For a circuit breaker choose the correct
relation.
(a) Breaking time = opening time + arcing time
(b) Opening time = breaking time+ arcing time
(c) Arcing time = opening time + breaking time
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) : For a circuit breaker–
Breaking time = opening time + arcing time
111. The most compact breaking chamber can be (a) In a multi-break CB, it helps to distribute the
found in transient recovery voltage more uniformly
(a) air circuit breaker across the several gaps.
(b) bulk oil circuit breaker
(b) It makes the energy contained in the
(c) minimum oil circuit breaker
electromagnetic field to become zero
(d) vacuum circuit breaker
instantaneously.
(c) It reduces the transient voltages during
Ans. (d) : The most compact breaking chamber can be
switching out inductive or capacitive loads.
found in vacuum circuit breaker.
(d) It reduces the rate of rise of restriking voltage.
112. A three phase, 33kV oil circuit breaker is rated
1200A, 2000MVA. The symmetrical breaking DMRC AM 2018
current is: Ans. (b) : Resistance across the circuit breaker doesn't
(a) 1200A (b) 3600A make the energy contained in the electromagnetic field
(c) 35 kA (d) None of the above to become zero instantaneously.
UJVNL AE 2016 115. A 3-phase circuit breaker is rated at 2000
Ans. (c) Breaking Capacity = 3 × VL × I FL MVA. 33KV. Its making current will be
(a) 35 kA (b) 49 kA
⇒ 2000 × 106 = 1.732×33×103×IFL
IFL = 34.999 kA (c) 70 kA (d) 89 kA
= 35 kA BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015

Ans. (d) : Srated = 2000 MVA, Ans. (c) : Rating of O.C.B = 1500A; 2000 MVA; 33 kV
VL = 33 kV 2000 × 106
Breaking Capacity Breaking current = = 34.99 kA
Breaking Current = 3 × 33 × 103
3 × Rated Voltage
Making current = 2.55 × 34.99
6
2000 × 10 = 89.25 kA
= = 34.99 kA ≃ 35 kA
3 × 33 × 103 119. The making current is
So, (a) specified in terms of CB rated current value
It’s making current = 2.55 × Breaking Current] (b) The peak value of maximum current loop
= 2.55 × 35 × 103 including dc component in any phase during
= 89.25 kA the first cycle of current when the CB is
≃ 89 kA closed.
116. Resistance switching is normally resorted in (c) Depends upon the instant on the current wave
case of when the contacts begin to open
(a) bulk oil circuit breakers (d) None of the other options
(b) minimum oil circuit breaker UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
(c) air-blast circuit breakers Ans. (b) : Making current is peak value attain at first
(d) all type of breakers cycle when the circuit breaker is closed. The making
BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015 current is expressed in 'peak' value of the maximum
Ans. (c) : Resistance switching is normally resorted in current it can safely close on, that's why it is always
case of air-blast circuit breaker. During current have higher value than breaking current.
chopping in air-blast circuit breaker (ABCB) a very Making capacity = 2.55 × symmetrical breaking
high voltage (Prospective voltage) appears across CB capacity
contacts, which may cause a serious damage to it. To
prevent this damage, resistance switching is used by 120. The breaking current of a circuit breaker is
connecting a resistance across CB contacts. (a) Less than its making current
(b) More than its making current
L
Critical value of resistance R = 0.5 (c) Equal to its making current
C
117. In the inductance and capacitance of a power UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
system are respectively 1 H and 0.01 µF and Ans. (a) : Breaking current = r.m.s. value of ac
the instantaneous value of interrupted current
is 10 A, then the voltage across breaker contact component = x
will be : 2
(a) 50 kV (b) 57 kV Where, peak value of ac component.
(c) 60 kV (d) 100 kV = 1.44 × 1.8 × I
APTRANSCO AE 2019 = 2.55 I
Ans. (d) : Given that- So that Im>Ib
L=1H The making current is expressed in 'peak' value of
C = 0.01 µF maximum current it can safely closed on, that's why it is
Voltage across breaker contact = VB
always have higher value than breaking current.
L Making capacity
VB = I symmetrical breaking capacity =
C 2.55
I = interrupting current
121. A circuit breaker is connected to a 132 kV bus
1 bar. What is the maximum value of restriking
VB = 10 = 100 kV
0.01× 10−6 voltage across the contacts voltage of the circuit
118. An OCB is rated 1500 A, 2000 MVA, 33 KV. breaker?
Its making current in kA is (a) 216 kV (b) 108 kV
(a) 51.51 (b) 35
(c) 373.35 kV (d) 264 kV
(c) 89.25 (d) 154.54
APSPDCL AE 2012
Ans. (d) : Maximum value of restriking voltage 126. In a power system MCB act as :
(VR) = 2Vm 1. Switch
= 2 × peak value of the system voltage 2. Short circuit protection device
= 2 × 132 3. Overload protection device.
VR = 264 kV (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
122. Current chopping occur during:
UPSC JWM 2017
(a) disconnection of capacitor
(b) lightning Ans. (d) : MCB is a blend of all three function such as
(c) disconnection of transformer on no load protection from short circuit, overloading and
(d) short circuit fault switching, protection from overload by using a
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 bimetallic strip & short circuit by using solenoid.
Ans. (c) : Current chopping occurs during 127. Which Circuit Breaker (CB) is preferred for
disconnection of transformer on no load. the interruption of high voltage and low
When low inductive current is being interrupted and the current?
arc quenching force of the circuit breaker is more than (a) Oil CB (b) Air blast CB
necessary to interrupt a low magnitude of current. The (c) Vacuum CB (d) All of the above
current will be interrupted before its natural zero OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
instant. In such situation, the energy stored in the Ans. (c) : The selection of circuit breaker is done based
magnetic field appears in the form of high voltage
on the voltage level and current but still the main factor
across the stray capacitance. This phenomenon is called
is current that is where, this dielectric medium comes it.
current chopping.
So, when you have low current value the property of
123. SF6 gas has excellent heat transfer properties vacuum circuit breaker (CB) in enough to quench a arc
because of its :
but in high currents oil or SF6 is used.
(a) Higher molecular weight
Thus, for high voltage and low current circuit breakers,
(b) Low gaseous viscosity
the preferred one is a vacuum circuit breaker.
(c) Higher dielectric strength
(d) both (a) and (b) 128. Find the making current for a circuit breaker
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 rated at 1000 A, 3000 MVA, 66 kV, 3 sec, 3-
phase, oil circuit breaker.
Ans. (d) : SF6 gas has excellent heat transfer properties
because of its (a) 58.62 kA (b) 66.92 kA
(i) Higher molecular weight (c) 86.92 kA (d) 76.52 kA
(ii) low gaseous viscosity. BHEL ET 2019
124. A sphere gap voltmeter always gives a response Ans. (b) : Breaking capacity = 3VL × I FL
on the basis of applied wave's
3000 × 106 = 1.732 × 66 × 103 × I FL
(a) average value (b) rms value
(c) peak/ 2 (d) peak value 3000 × 106
I FL =
Vizag Steel MT 2013 1.732 × 66 × 103
Ans. (d) : A uniform field spark gap will always have a IFL = 66.92 kA
spark over voltage within a known tolerance under
constant atmospheric conditions. Hence a spark gap can 129. SF6 is a:
be used for measurement of the peak value of the (a) neutral gas
voltage, if gap distance is known. (b) non-attaching gas
125. According to Indian Standards, the breakdown (c) quickly ionising gas
voltage of new untreated oil should be (d) electronegative gas
(a) 10 kVrms (b) 20 kVrms BHEL ET 2019
(c) 30 kVrms (d) 60 kVrms
Ans. (d) : SF6 gas used as gaseous insulating material
Vizag Steel MT 2013
SF6 gas is highly electronegative due to high
Ans. (c) : According to Indian standard the breakdown
electronegativity, it absorb free electrons which are
voltage of new untreated oil is 30 kVrms and if the above
value not attained then the oil shall be filtered 60 kV produced due to arcing between the contacts of circuit
(r.m.s). breaker.

130. In a system of 132 kV, the line to ground (a) 50000 Ω (b) 50 Ω
capacitance is 0.05 µF and the inductance is 8 (c) 5000 Ω (d) 500 Ω
H. Determine the voltage appearing across the UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
pole of a circuit breaker if a magnetising
Ans : (d) A given that
current of 7 A is interrupted.
(a) 88.54 kV (b) 23.99 kV series inductance (L) = 50 mH
(c) 54.88 kV (d) 99.23 kV shunt capacitance (C) = 0.05 µF
BHEL ET 2019 we know that
Ans. (a) : Given that:- the critical value of resistance in ohms required be to
C = 0.5 µF connected across the circuit breaker contact which will
L = 8H give not transient oscillation is
I = 7A 1
so voltage across breaker:- R cr = L/C
2
1 1
CV 2 = LIa2 1 50 × 10−3
2 2 So Rcr =
2 0.05 ×10−6
L Rcr = 500 Ω
V = Ia
C 134. In a circuit breaker, the stability of arc in
8 vacuum depends upon
=7 (a) Contact material and its vapour pressure, and
0.05 × 10−6
circuit parameters
8 (b) Contact material and its vapour pressure
= 7 ×103 = 7 ×103 ×12.645
0.05 (c) Circuit parameters only
V = 88.54 kV (d) Contact material and circuit parameters
131. Breakdown is permanent in : UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II
(a) liquids (b) vapours Ans. (a): In a circuit Breaker, the stability of arc in
(c) gases (d) solids vacuum depends upon the contact material, pressure of
BHEL ET 2019 vapour and circuit parameters such as voltage, current,
Ans. (d) : When breakdown occurs, solids get inductance and capacitance. It is observe that higher
permanently damaged while gases fully and liquids vapour pressure in low temperature is better stability of
partially recover their dielectric strength after the arc.
applied electric field is removed. 135. Making capacity of Circuit breaker is
132. The phenomenon of current chopping in Air (a) Lesser than the asymmetrical breaking
Blast circuit breaker occurs while: capacity
(a) Interrupting capacitive current (b) Greater than the asymmetrical breaking
(b) Interrupting inductive current capacity
(c) Clearing a fault (c) Equal to the symmetrical breaking capacity
(d) Switching ON a loaded line (d) Equal to the asymmetrical breaking capacity
DMRC AM 2016 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019
Ans. (b) : The phenomenon of current chopping in Air Ans. (b) : Making capacity is measure in kA and MVA
blast circuit breaker occur while interrupting inductive and have peak value whenever breaking capacity is also
current. When low inductive current such as measure in kA and MVA but it have r.m.s. value. So,
magnetizing current if transformer, shunt reactor are (making capacity)peak = 2.55 (Breaking capacity)r.m.s..
interrupted by breaker there is rapid deionization of The above expression it is clear that making capacity is
greater than breaking capacity.
contact space and may cause the current to be
interrupted before its neutral zero. 136. In general AC distribution systems, arc
interruption in vacuum circuit breakers are
133. In a 132 kV system, the series inductance up to designed to function in a time period of–
the point of circuit breaker location is 50 mH. (a) One cycle
The shunt capacitance at the circuit breaker
(b) Two to three cycles
terminal is 0.05 µF. The critical value of
(c) Within ten cycles
resistance required to be connected across the
circuit breaker contacts which will given no (d) None of the above
transient oscillation is- ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017
Ans. (a) : Vacuum circuit breakers (VCB) are designed (c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is
to function in a time period of one cycle only. These are false
quite faster circuit breakers (CBs). (d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement (II) is
137. The dielectric strength of SF6 gas (used in true
circuit breakers) is approximately– 140. Statement (I) : ‘High resistance’ method is used
(a) Same as that of air for are extinction in DC circuit breakers.
(b) 2 to 3 times more than air Statement (II) : Very little energy is dissipated in
(c) 10 to 20 times more than air the arc in high resistance method of arc extinction.
(d) 2 to 3 times less than air ESE 2018
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 Ans. (c) : High resistance method is used in dc circuit
Ans. (b) : The dielectric strength of air is approximately breaker and low capacity ac circuit breakers because
3 kV/mm, and dielectric strength of SF6 is from 7.3 heat dissipation is very large.
kV/mm to 3.6 kV/mm. That is, 2 to 3 times more than
Hence statement (I) is true but statement (II) is false.
air. SF6 gas maintained at 14 kg/cm2.
141. In a circuit-breaker, the arc is produced due to
138. If a combination of HRC fuse and circuit
1. Thermal emission
breaker is used, the C.B. operates for–
(a) Low overload current 2. High temperature of air
(b) Short circuit current 3. Field emission
(c) Under all abnormal current Which of the above statements are correct?
(d) The combination is never used in practice (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a) : In a protection scheme, the CBs has to Ans. (d) : In a circuit breaker arc is produced.
operate before fuse. This can happen when CBs Electronic (emission/field emission): As field is
operates for low overload currents. emitting high amount of electrons between the
139. Symmetrical breaking capacity of ACB is– contacts.
(a) Greater than asymmetrical breaking capacity Thermionic emission: This heat will continue to
(b) Less than asymmetrical breaking capacity liberate the electrons which further increases the
(c) Equal to asymmetrical breaking capacity heat. Hence statement 1,3 are correct.
(d) Not related to asymmetrical breaking capacity 142. Induction relays are used with …………
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013 quantities.
Ans. (b) : Symmetrical breaking Current = RMS value (a) Both ac and d.c. (b) a.c.
of AC component of fault current Asymmetrical (c) HVDC (d) d.c.
breaking Current = RMS value of total current Hence, UPPCL AE 2014
symmetrical breaking capacity will be lesser as
Ans. (b) : Induction-type relays are the most widely
compared to asymmetrical breaking capacity.
used for protective relaying purposes involving AC
Directions: quantities. They are not usable with DC quantities,
consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement because of their principle of operation.
(I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these 143. The arc voltage produced in AC circuit
two statements carefully and select the answers to breaker is always.
these items using the codes given below: (a) In phase with the arc current
Codes: (b) Lagging the arc current by 900
(a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are (c) Leading the arc current by 900
individually true; and Statement (II) is the (d) None of the above
correct explanation of Statement (I) MPPSC AE 2017
individually true; but Statement (II) is NOT Ans. (a) : The voltage produced in AC circuit breaker is
the correct explanation of Statement (I) always in phase with arc current.

4. A schematic diagram of an alternator is shown
(viii) Fault Analysis, Fuses below where Van = Vbn = Vcn = V1.
1. A power system network with a capacity of 100
MVA has a source impedance of 10% at a
point. The fault level at that point is
(a) 1500 MVA (b) 1000 MVA
(c) 500 MVA (d) 100 MVA
WBPSC AE 2012
KVA If a single phase to ground fault occurs at
Ans. (b) : Fault level or fault KVA = × 100 location ‘a’, what will be the voltage at ‘b’ and
%Z
‘c’?
100 × 103
= × 100 (a) Vbn = Vcn = 3V1 (b) Vbn = Vcn = V1
10
= 1000 MVA (c) Vbn = Vcn = 0 (d) None of the above
2. A three - phase, 10MVA, 11kV generator has ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018

10% sub-transient reactance. A three phase Ans. (a) : In single phase to ground fault at any one of
short occurs at its terminal. The fault current the three phases, V
will be. Vbn = Vcn = 3V1
(a) 5200 A (b) 5249 A 5. A system is said to be effectively grounded if its
(c) 6249 kA (d) 6249 A (a) neutral is grounded directly
UPPCL AE 2014 (b) X0/X1 > 3.0
Ans. (b) : 3VL I L = 10 ×10 6 (c) R0/X1 > 2.0
(d) X0/X1 < 3.0
3 × 11× 103 × I L = 10 ×106 Karnataka PSC AE 2017
I L = 524.86A Karnataka PSC AE 2016
PTCUL AE 2012
1
I p.u. = Ans. (d) : The condition for effective grounding
X p.u
X0 R
1 ≤ 3 and 0 ≤ 1
I p.u. = X 1 X1
0.1
Where X0 and R0 are zero sequence reactance &
Ip.u.= 10
resistance. X1 is positive sequence reactance.
Iactual = 524.86 × 10
6. For a generator connected to an infinite bus
= 5248.6
bar, the power angle equation is Pe = 2.0 sin δ
≃ 5249 A with P = 1.0 p.u. If power angle equation
e
3. In delta connected load, the zero sequence changes to 1.5 sin δ during the fault, then the
currents value of δ at the instant of fault will be
(a) are absent (a) 20o (b) 30o
o
(b) circulate locally (c) 45 (d) 90o
(c) flow through phase wires UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
(d) flow through earth wires Ans. (b) : Given, Pe = 1 p.u, Pe = 2.0 sin δ
Ans. (a) : The zero sequence currents (I0) in delta
connected load have no return path so zero sequence
currents in line of the delta load is absent. However,
zero sequence currents circulates in the phases of the | E || V |
Pe = Pm sin δ = sin δ
loop i.e., In phase winding of load zero sequence Xd
current is circulating in nature.
Pe = 2.0 sin δ

= Pm sin δ Fault current
so, plug setting multiplier =
(Pm = maximum value of power) relay setting × CT ratio
Pm = 2 2000
For fault condition- =
400
1 = 2 sin δ 2.5 ×
5
1 = 10A
sin δ =  
2 11. In which type of fault the negative and zero
1 sequence currents are equal to zero
δ = sin −1  
2 (a) LG fault
= sin 30° (b) LL fault
δ = 30° (c) LLG fault
7. Plug setting = 1.5 A, I relay = 9.0 A, for an OC (d) 3 phase symmetrical fault
relay. The PSM will be: TANGEDCO AE 2018
(a) 13.5 (b) 0.16 Ans. (d) : In 3 phase symmetrical fault negative and
(c) 1.35 (d) 6.0 zero sequence current are equal to zero as it is in
balance condition.
Ans. (d) : Plug setting = 1.5
12. 'HRC' fuses imply
Irelay = 9.0
(a) high rated current
I relay [ fault current ]
PSM = (b) hot rolled copper
Plug setting
(c) high rupturing capacity
9.0 (d) heat resistance ceramic
PSM =
1.5 WBPSC AE 2009
PSM = 6.0
Ans. (c) :
8. Short circuit analysis is done in digital
computer using: 13. In a three-phase overhead transmission line
(a) Zbus (b) Ybus nearly 85% of the faults are :
(c) Any of the above (d) None of the above (a) symmetrical three phase
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 (b) double line to ground
Ans. (a) : Short circuit analysis in power system is (c) single phase to earth
computing by using Zbus. (d) line to line
9. Which fault is more frequently occurring in WBPSC AE 2009
power system? Ans. (c):
(a) Line to line fault
14. An HRC cartridge fuse consists of a heat
(b) Double line to ground fault
resisting ceramic body having metal end caps
(c) Single line to ground fault
to which welded is a
(d) Symmetrical 3 phase fault
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 (a) semiconductor element
Ans. (c) : Most frequently fault occurring in power (b) bimetallic element
system is line to ground (LG) fault. (c) carbon rod
10. If the fault current is 2000 Ampere, the relay (d) silicate element
setting is 50% and CT ratio is 400/5, then the WBPSC AE 2003
plug setting multiplier will be- Ans. (d) :
(a) 25 Amp. (b) 15 Amp.
15. To calculate the fault current in case of L-L-G
(c) 50 Amp. (d) None of these
fault, the three sequence networks are
RPSC AE 2018
connected
Ans : (d) CT ratio is 400/5
(a) in series
CT rated current is 5A
Relay setting is 50%, relay will operate for (b) in parallel
50 (c) series-parallel combination
= 5× = 2.5A
100 (d) none of these
Fault current is 2000A UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
Ans. (b) : To calculate the fault current in case of 18. The severity of line to ground and three phase
L-L-G fault, the three sequence networks are connected faults at the terminals of an unloaded
in parallel synchronous generator is to be same. If the
terminal voltage is 1.0 pu, Z1 = Z2 = j0.1p.u.
Terminal conditions, and Z0 = j0.05 p.u. for the alternator, then the
Ia = 0, Vb = Vc = (Ib+Ic) zf required inductive reactance for neutral
grounding is:
(a) 0.05 p.u. (b) 0.0166 p.u.
(c) 0.1 p.u. (d) 0.15 p.u.
TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (b) : Given, z1 = z2 = j0.1pu, z0 = j0.05 pu
I3−φFault = IL to G fault
V 3V
=
z1pu z1 + z 2 + z 0 + 3z n
z1 + z 2 + z 0 + 3Zn = 3z1
j0.1 + j0.1 + j0.05 + 3 zn = 3 × j0.1
3 zn = j0.3 – j0.2 – j0.05
j0.05
zn =
3
fault current (If) = Ib +Ic z n = j0.0166 pu
19. The critical clearing time of a fault in power
E
Ia 1 = system is related to:
z (z + 3z f )
z1 + 2 0 (a) Reactive power limit
z 2 + z 0 + 3z f (b) Steady state stability limit
16. Phase reversal in a 4-wire unbalanced load (c) Short-circuit current limit
(d) Transient stability limit
supplied from a balanced 3-φ causes change in
TSPSC AEE 2017
(a) the power consumed
Ans. (d) : The critical clearing angle is defined as the
(b) magnitude of phase currents maximum change in load angle curve before clearing
(c) only the magnitude of neutral currents the fault without loss of synchronism. This is related to
(d) magnitude as well as phase angle of neutral transient stability limit.
currents In other words, when the fault occurs is the system the
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I load angle curve begin to increase and system becomes
unstable.
Ans. (d) : Phase reversal in a 4-wire unbalanced load
The angle at which the fault becomes clear and the
supplied from a balanced 3-φ causes change in system becomes stable is called critical clearing angle.
magnitude as well as phase angle of neutral currents. 20. A 10 kVA, 400V/200 V single phase transformer
17. In case of a 3-phase short-circuit fault in a with 10% impedance draws a steady short-circuit
system, the power fed into the system is line current of
(a) Mostly reactive (a) 250 A (b) 50 A
(c) 150 A (d) 350 A
(b) Reactive only
TSPSC AEE 2017
(c) Mostly active
Ans. (a) : kVA rating = 10 kVA
(d) Active and Reactive both equal kVA Rating
TSPSC AEE 2017 Primary current =
V1
120
Ans. (a) : I3−φ fault pu = 10 × 103
X pu = = 25 Amp
400
There are negligible resistance, hence due to reactance 1 1
there are only reactive power fed. Short circuit current ( I pu ) = =
z 10%
V 1
Q= ( E f cos δ − V ) = = 10
Xs 0.10
Hence mostly reactive power will flow Short circuit Actual current (I) = 25 × 10 = 250 Amp.

21. Possible faults that may occur on a 24. Resistances switching is used in case of
transmission line are (a) bulk oil circuit breaker
1. 3-phase fault 2. L–L–G fault (b) minimum oil circuit breaker
3. L–L fault 4. L–G fault (c) air blast circuit breaker
The decreasing order of severity of the fault (d) all types of circuit breakers
from the stability. Point of view is:
(a) 1–2–3–4 (b) 1–4–3–2
(c) 1–3–2–4 (d) 1–3–4–2 Ans. (c) : Resistance switching is used in case of air
TNPSC AE 2018 blast circuit breakers. The air-blast circuit breakers
employ compressed air (at a pressure of 20 kg/cm2) for
Ans. (a) : Decreasing order of severity of fault
arc extinction and are finding their best application is
3-φ fault > L-L-G fault > L-L fault > L-G fault
systems operating at 132 kV.
22. In a power system with a negligible resistance,
the fault current at a point is 8 pu. The series 25. Which among these fuse is very fast in
reactance to be included at the fault point to operation?
limit the short circuit to 5 pu is (a) High rupturing capacity
(a) 0.125 pu (b) 3 pu (b) Cartridge type
(c) 0.075 pu (d) 0.20pu (c) Semiconductor fuse
TNPSC AE 2019 (d) None of the above
JUVNL AE 2017 WBPSC AE 2017
APSPDCL AE 2012
Ans. (c) :
Ans. (c) : R ≃ 0, If1= 8.00 pu, Assume Initial series ,
26. A three phase, 33 kV oil circuit breaker is rated
Reactance = X1
1200 A, 2000 MVA, 3s. What is its symmetrical
1
so If 1 = [As system is in pu] breaking current?
X1
(a) 1200 A (b) 3600 A
1 (c) 35 kA (d) 104.8 kA
8= ⇒ x1 = 0.125pu
X1 WBPSC AE 2017
given required short circuit current = 5.00 pu Ans. (c) :
X2 = X1 + Xadd
1 1 27. The most severe unsymmetrical fault is
If 2 = ⇒ X 2 = = 0.2 pu (a) single line to ground fault
x2 5
(b) line to line fault
0.2 = 0.125 + Xadd
Xadd = 0.075 pu (c) double line to ground fault
23. If the fault current be 2000 amps, the relay (d) none of the above
setting 50% and the C.T. ratio be 400/5, then WBPSC AE 2017
the plug setting multiplier will be Ans. (a) :
(a) 25 (b) 15 28. When does the arc interruption in oil circuit
(c) 10 (d) None of the above breaker take place?
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II (a) Contacts apart
Ans. (c) : Given, If = 2000 amp (b) Voltage becomes zero
relay setting 50% (c) Current goes through zero
CT Ratio = 400/5 (d) All of the above
PSM = ? WBPSC AE 2017
fault current Ans. (c) :
PSM=
Relay current setting 29. If the strands of the fusing wire are twisted,
fault current what happens to the fusing current
= (a) increases
current setting×(C.T secondary current)×C.T. ratio
(b) reduces
2000
PSM = (c) No change/remains same
400
0.50 × 5 × (d) depends on the value of current, increases or
5 decreases
2000 × 5 50 WBPSC AE 2017
= = = 10
50 × 5 × 4 5 Ans. (b) :

30. Why is it difficult to interrupt a capacitive Ans. (a) : Instead of 3–φ fault, if a solid double line to
circuit? ground fault occurs between phase b and phase c and
(a) The current has a leading power factor ground then the symmetrical short circuit current into
(b) The restriking voltage can be high the fault will be 21.3 pu.
(c) Current magnitude is very small 36. A fuse 10 A current rating of fuse element, and
(d) Stored energy in the capacitor is very high it can be blown out at minimum fusing current
WBPSC AE 2017 of 15 A. The fusing factor will be
Ans. (a) : (a) 0.66 (b) 1.5
31. If the fault current is 2000 A, the relay setting (c) 1 (d) 3
is 50% and the C.T. ratio is 400/5, the plug JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
setting multiplier will be Minimum fusing current
Ans. (b) : Factor =
(a) 5 (b) 7 Rated current
(c) 8 (d) 10
15
WBPSC AE 2012 = = 1.5
10
Ans. (d) :
37. For a line to ground fault with neutral solidly
32. When a line to ground fault occurs, the current grounded, the fault current will be
in the faulty phase is 100 A. The zero sequence (a) If = (Ea)/(Z1 + Z2 + Z3)
current in this case will be (b) If = (Ea)/(Z1 + Z2)
(a) zero (b) 33.33 A
(c) If = (√3Ea)/(Z1 + Z2)
(c) 66.66A (d) 100 A
(d) If = (3Ea)/(Z1 + Z2 + Z0)
WBPSC AE 2012
Ans. (b) :
Ans. (d) : For a line to ground fault with neutral solidly
33. The relation between fusing current (I) and grounded, the fault current will be
diameter (d) of the fuse wire is
3E a
1 If =
(a) 1 ∝ d (b) 1 ∝ ( Z1 + Z2 + Z0 )
d
38. Which is not the characteristic of shunt faults?
(c) 1 ∝ d 2 / 3 (d) 1 ∝ d3/ 2
(a) increase in current
WBPSC AE 2008
(b) Fall in frequency
Ans. (d) : (c) Rise in voltage
34. Amongst the given, which pair is incorrectly (d) None of the options
matched: Vizag Steel MT 2011
(a) Electromagnetic attraction type relay moving Ans. (c) : Shunt fault is characteriesed by increase in
Plunger type current and decrease in voltage and frequency. Whereas
(b) Electromagnetic induction type balanced series faults are characterized by increase in voltage and
beam type frequency and decrease in current in the faulted phase.
(c) Gas operated relay buccholz relay 39. Which statement is true?
(d) Thermal relay overload relay (a) Positive sequence is present in all fault
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 (b) Negative sequence is present in all fault
Ans. (b) : Electro magnetic induction type is not a (c) Zero sequence is present un grounded system
balanced beam, type of relay. In induction relay torque (d) Zero sequence is present in all fault
is produce by two phase displaced fluxes. Vizag Steel MT 2011
T = Kφ1φ2 sinφ. Ans. (a) : Positive sequence component is present in all
fault. zero sequence component is present only in
35. Instead of the 3–φ fault, if a solid double line to ground fault.
ground fault occurs between phase b & c and 40. What is short circuit capacity?
ground, the symmetrical short circuit current (a) Pre fault voltage × post fault current
fed into the fault will be: (b) Pre fault voltage × pre fault current
(a) 21.3 pu (b) 17.26 pu (c) Post fault voltage × post fault current
(c) 15.23 pu (d) 28.6 pu (d) Post fault voltage × pre fault current
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 Vizag Steel MT 2011
Ans. (a) : Short-circuit capacity = pre fault voltage × 44. A system is said to be effectively grounded only
post fault current. if Ro/R1 and Xo/X1 are respectively ...........
41. The faults which are likely to occur in (Symbols have their usual meaning)
underground cables are (a) ≤ 1 and ≤ 3 (b) ≥ 1 and ≥ 3
(a) break-down of cable insulation
(c) ≤ 2 and ≥ 2 (d) ≥ 2 and ≤ 2
(b) short circuit faults
(c) open circuit faults
(d) all of the above Ans. (a) : A system is said to be effectively grounded
Vizag Steel MT 2017 only is–
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 R0 X0
≤1 ≤3
Ans. (d) : In underground cable breakdown of R1 X1
insulation cable, short circuit fault and open circuit fault
occurs but most likely breakdown of insulation of cable 45. Two types of earthings are provided viz.
occurs when rating of voltage increase suddenly. equipment earthing and neutral point earthing.
42. In a star connected system without neutral Equipment earthing is mainly provided for :
grounding, zero sequence currents are (a) safety of equipment
(a) zero (b) safety of operating personnel
(b) phasor sum of phase currents (c) safety of starters and cables
(c) same as r.m.s. value of phase current (d) None of the above
(d) none of the above MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
Ans. (b) : Two types of earthings are provided viz
Ans. (a) : When neutral is not present in system then equipment earthing and neutral point earthing.
the zero sequence current is always zero because when Equipment earthing is mainly provided for safety of
neutral is absent zero sequence voltage will be zero
operating personnel.
hence current will also zero.
Earthing is important to ensure-
43. Determine the value of inductance of arc
Safety of personnel
suppressor coil to be connected between the
Safety of equipment
neutral and ground to neutralize the charging
current of overhead line having the line to Prevent of at least minimize damage to equipment
ground capacitance equal to 0.2 µF. If the as a result of flow of heavy currents.
supply frequency is 50 Hz and the operating Improvement of the reliability of the power system.
voltage is 132 kV, find the kVA rating of the 46. The advantages of neutral grounding are :
coil : (a) voltages of the phases are limited to phase to
(a) 16.89 H, 1.095 × 103 kVA ground voltages
(b) 20.89 H, 1.095 × 103 kVA (b) the high voltages due to transient line to
(c) 16.89 mH, 3.095 × 103 kVA ground faults are eliminated
(d) 16.89 µH, 1.095 × 103 kVA (c) the over-voltages due to lightning are
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II discharged to ground
Ans. (a) : Given, (d) All of the above
Capacitor (C)= 0.2 µF, F = 50 Hz
Vrms = 132 kV MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
The value of inductance of arc suppression coil- Ans. (d) : The advantages of neutral grounding are–
1 • Voltage of the phases are limited to phase to ground
L= 2 voltage.
3ω C
1 • The high voltage due to transient line to ground
= faults are eliminated.
3 × ( 2 × π× 50 ) × 0.2 ×10−6
2
• The over-voltage due to lightning are discharged to

= 16.89 H ground.
V2
KVA rating of the coil (S) = ×103 kVA 47. The line current in a three phase system are Ia
3X L = 4 ∠ 60o, Ib = 0, Ic = 4 ∠ – 120o, find the
negative sequence current.
(132 )
2
= (a) 12.909 ∠ – 30o (b) 2.309 ∠ 30o

3 × ( 2 × π× 50 × 16.89 ) ×103 o
(c) 3.303 ∠ 60 (d) 6.913 ∠ 70o
= 1.095×103 kVA
CIL MT 2020
Ans. (b) : Negative sequence current 49. Find the neutral current in the star, neutral
Let ground system from the given symmetrical
1 components. IR1 = 5 ∠0o, IR2 = 2∠ 90o, IR0 = 2
I a2 =  Ia + α 2 Ib + αIc  ∠180o
3
(a) 66 ∠ 150o (b) 0
1 o
=  4∠60o + 1∠ − 120o × 0 + 1∠120o × 4∠ − 120o  (c) 6 ∠ 0 (d) 6 ∠ 180o
3
CIL MT 2020
1
=  4∠60o + 0 + 4∠0o  Ans. (d) : Given, IR1 = 5 ∠0o, IR2 = 2 ∠90o, IR0 = 2∠
3
180o.
1
= ( 2.0 + 3.5i ) + 0 + ( 4.0 + 0i )  Neutral current IN = (IR0 + IR1 + IR2) + (IR0 + a2 IR1 + a
3 IR2) + (IR0 + a IR1 + a2 + IR2)
1
⇒ [ 6 + 3.5i ] ⇒ ( 2 + 1.2i ) = 3 IR0 + IR1 (1 +a2 + a) + IR2 (1 + a + a2)
3 = 3 IR0 (since 1 + a + a2 = 0)
= 2.3∠31.0o ≃ 2.309 ∠ 30o IN = 3 IR0
48. If a = 1 ∠ 120o, which one is correct : IN = 3 × 2 ∠ 180o = 6 ∠ 180o A
(a) a3 = a4 (b) a + a2 + a3 = a 50. The current flowing in the lines toward a
2 4
(c) 1 + a + a = 0 (d) a = a balance load connected in delta are
CIL MT 2020 Ia = 100 ∠0o, Ib = 141.4 ∠ 2250, Ic = 100 ∠ 90o ;
Ans. (c) : find the symmetrical component of the line
current :
(a) Ia0 = 0.07 ∠ 115o, Ia1 = 121 ∠ 150o, Ia2 =
209.88 ∠ 5o
(b) Ia0 = 7 ∠ 125o. Ia1 = 211 ∠ 125o, Ia2 = 229.88
∠ 150o
(c) Ia0 = 0.007 ∠ 45o, Ia1 = 111 ∠ 15o, Ia2 = 29.88
∠ 105o
(d) Ia0 = 0.7 ∠ 145o, Ia1 = 131 ∠ 105o, Ia2 =
a = 1∠120o 290.88 ∠ 10o
CIL MT 2020
aI = I∠120o
1 → → →
= I(cos 120o + j sin 120o) Ans. (c) : Ia 0 =  Ia + I b + Ic 
3 
= I(–0.5 + j0.866)
1
a = –0.5+j 0.866 –––––(i) Ia 0 = 100∠00 + 141.4∠2250 + 100∠900 
3
If vector assuming position OB is multiplied by
1
operator 'a', the vector is further rotated through 120o in Ia 0 = (100 + 0i ) + ( −99.98 − 99.98i ) + (100i ) 
3
the anticlockwise direction and assume the position
Ia0 = 0.007 ∠45°
OC–
1 → → →

a2I = I∠240o Ia1 =  Ia + α I b + α 2 Ic 
3 
a2I = I(cos 240o+ j sin 240o)
a2I = I(–0.5 – j 0.866) Ia1 = [100∠00 + 1∠1200 × 141.4∠2250 + 1∠ − 1200
a2 = – 0.5 – 0.866j ––––– (ii) ×100∠900 ]
Similarly 1
Ia1 = 100∠00 + 141.4∠3450 + 100∠ − 300 
a3I = I∠360o = I(cos 360o + jsin360o) 3
a3 = 1 1
Ia1 = (100 + 0i ) + (136 − 36.6i ) + ( 86.6 − 50i ) 
adding equation (i) and (ii), 3
a+a2 = –0.5+j0.866–0.5–j0.866 1
Ia1 = [322.6 − 86i ]
a+a2 = –1 3
1+a+a2 = 0 Ia1 = (107.5 − 28.7i ) = 111.3∠ − 14.90 ≃ 111∠150

1 → → →
 Ans. (a) : In transmission line positive sequence
Ia 2 =  Ia + α 2 I b + α Ic  impedance is equal to the negative sequence impedance
3 
i.e
1
= [100∠00 + 1∠ − 1200 × 141.4∠2250 + 1∠1200 × 100 Z1 = Z2
3
Where, Z1 = Positive sequence impedance
∠900 ]
Z2 = Negative sequence impedance
1 And zero sequence impedance is always much greater
= (100 + 0i ) + ( −36.6 + 136.6i ) + ( −86.6 − 50i ) 
3 than positive sequence impedance i.e Z0 >> Z1
1
= [ −23.2 + 86.6i ] 54. Which condition gives rise to the most severest
3 fault condition?
= [-7.7+28.9i] (a) Three phase fault at generator output
terminals
= 29.9∠104.90
(b) Three phase fault at load end.
≃ 29.8∠1050 (c) Single phase to ground fault at the load end
51. The current from neutral to ground connection (d) Two phase to ground fault
is 12A. Calculate the zero phase sequence AAI Junior Executive 2016
component current in each phase. Ans. (a) : 3–φ fault at generator output terminals.
(a) 2 A (b) 4 A 55. Zero sequence currents doesn't exist in the
following fault
(c) 6 A (d) None of these
(a) L–G (b) L–L
PTCUL AE 2016 (c) L–L–G (d) L–L–L–G
Ans. (b) : Current from neutral to ground In = 12 A Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
Zero phase sequence of current Ans. (b) : In line to line fault, there are not grounding,
In 12 there are no path for flow of zero sequence current.
Iao = = = 4A 56. The Gauss Seidel load flow method has the
3 3
following disadvantages. Choose the incorrect
52. Symmetrical fault currents are restricted by : statement.
(a) System impedance (a) Unreliable convergence
(b) System voltage profile (b) Slow convergence
(c) System power rating (c) Choice of slack bus affects convergence
(d) D.C. component of fault current (d) A good initial guess for voltage is essential
for convergence
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I WBSE TCL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : Symmetrical fault current is given by– Ans. (a) : Gauss-Seidel Method
Ef Advantages :–
Isc =
Zs 1. Simplicity of technique.
2. Small computer memory requirement
Where, Zs = System impedance
3. Less computational time per iterations.
Ef = System voltage Disadvantages :–
From the above expression we can say that symmetrical 1. Slow rate of convergence resulting in larger no.
fault can be restricted by system impedance. of Iterations.
53. Which of the following sentences is true for 2. Increase in number of iterations directly with
the increase in the number of buses.
transmission line sequence impedances ?
3. Effect on convergency due to choice of slack
(a) Positive sequence and negative sequence bus.
impedances are same
57. The positive sequence component of voltage at
(b) Positive sequence and zero sequence the point of fault is zero when it is a:
impedances are same (a) L-G fault
(c) Negative sequence and zero sequence (b) Three-phase short circuit fault
impedances are same (c) L-L fault
(d) All the sequence impedances are same (d) L-L-G fault
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I DMRC AM 2016
UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (b) : The positive sequence component of voltage (c) Short circuit current limit
at the point of fault is zero for three phase short circuit (d) Steady state stability limit
fault - Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III
1 UJVNL AE 2016
VR1 =  VR + kVY + k 2 VB 
3  RPSC VPITI 2016
for three phase short circuit fault :- OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
k = 1 < 120º and VR = VY = VB ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
1 ESE 2012
∴ VR1 =  VR + kVR + k 2 VR 
3  Ans. (b) : The critical clearing time is the maximum
V time during which a disturbance can be applied without
= R 1 + k + k 2  2
{∵ 1+k + k = 0}
3   the system losing its stability. It is related to transient
VR1 = 0 V stability limit.
58. If all the sequence voltages at the fault point in

a power system are equal, then the fault is
(a) three phase fault
(b) line to ground fault
(c) line to line fault
(d) double line to ground fault
UPPCL AE 2015
APGENCO AE 2012
ESE 2001
(Fig. 1)
Ans. (d) : In double line to ground fault, all the
sequence networks are connected in parallel therefore,
all the sequence voltage at the fault point are equal.
1
Va 0 = Va1 = Va 2 = ( Va + 2Vb )
3
Where Va 0 ,Va1 and Va 2 are sequence voltages.
59. The sequence components of the fault current

are as follows : Ipositive = j2.5 pu, Inegative =-j1.5
pu, Izero=-j1 pu . The type of fault in the system
(Fig. 2)
is
(a) Line to ground fault M
Critical clearing time (tc) = 2 ( δc − δ0 )
(b) Line to line fault Pacc
(c) Double line to ground fault
Accelerating power (Pace) = Pm – Pe
(d) 3Phase fault
Where,
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Pm = Mechanical power
Ans : (c) A double line to ground fault has only the
Pe = Electrical power
property in which the sum of all sequence component
of the fault current is zero. 61. The parameters of a transposed overhead
I positive + I negative + I zero = 0 transmission line are given as: self reactance Xs
= 0.4 ohm/km and mutual reactance Xm= 0.1
j2.5 + ( − j1.5 ) − j1 = 0 ohm/km. The positive and zero sequence
reactance respectively, in ohm/km are:
60. For a fault in a power system, the term critical
clearing time is related to: (a) 0.3, 0.2 (b) 0.5, 0.2
(a) Reactive power limit (c) 0.5, 0.6 (d) 0.3, 0.6
(b) Transient stability limit Punjab PSC SDE 2017

Ans. (d) : Xs= impedance due to self inductance Ans. (a) : The above diagram represented the all line
Xm= impedance due to mutual inductance short and ground fault which is a type of symmetrical
Zero sequence reactance (X0) = Xs + 2Xm fault.
X0 = 0.4 + 2 × 0.1 65. In fault calculations of 3-phase system, _______
= 0.60 Ω/km is a shunt type of fault which is considered to
Positive sequence reactance (X1) = Xs - Xm be a symmetrical fault.
= 0.4 - 0.1 (a) line-to-ground
= 0.30 Ω/km (b) double line-to-ground
62. A single line to ground fault occurs on an (c) line-to-line
unloaded generator in phase ‘a’. If X1 = X2 = (d) 3-phase
0.25 pu and X0 = 0.15 pu, reactance connected DMRC AM 2018
in the neutral Xn = 0.05 pu and the initial
Ans. (d) :A symmetrical fault is a fault where all phases
prefault voltage is 1.0 pu, then the magnitude
of the fault current will be: are affected so that the system remains balanced.
(a) 3.75 pu (b) 1.54 pu 66. A transmission line has self and mutual
(c) 1.43 pu (d) 1.25 pu impedances of 0.8 p.u. and 0.2 p.u. Find the
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 positive, negative and zero sequence impedance
Ans. (a) : Fault current for LG fault is respectively :
E (a) 1.2, 0.6 and 0.08 p.u.
If = 3 × (b) 0.8, 0.6 and 1.2 p.u.
( Z1 + Z2 + Z0 + 3Zn )
(c) 0.8, 0.8 and 1.2 p.u.
Where, E= prefault voltage = 1 ∠ 00
(d) 0.6, 0.6 and 1.2 p.u.
1 3
If = 3 × = APTRANSCO AE 2019
( 0.25 + 0.25 + 0.15 + 3 × 0.05 ) 0.8
Ans. (d) :
If = 3.75pu
Z1 = Z2 = Zs – Zm
63. The method of neutral grounding affects the {Where, Z1 = Positive sequence
(a) positive sequence network Z2 = Negative sequence
(b) negative sequence network Z0 = Zero sequence
(c) zero sequence network Zs = Self impedance
Zm = Mutual impedance}
= 0.8 – 0.2
Ans. (c) : The method of neutral grounding affects the
= 0.6 p.u
zero sequence network.
Z0 = Zs + 2Zm
64.
= 0.8 + 2 × 0.2
= 1.2 p.u
Thus, positive, negative and zero sequence impedance
respectively 0.6, 0.6 and 1.2 p.u. .
67. Polar form of (1 –α2 + α) is
(a) 1.732∠1500 (b) 2∠ − 600
(c) 1.732∠ − 1500 (d) 2∠600
APSPDCL AE 2012
The given figure represents which of the Ans. (d) : Since α = –0.5 + j0.866
following faults?
(a) Symmetrical fault α2 = –0.5 – j0.866
(b) Double-line-to-ground fault So 1 + α – α2 = 1 – 0.5 + j0.866 – (–0.5 – j0.866)
(c) Line-to-line-fault = 1+ i 3
(d) Line-to-ground fault
LMRC AM 2020 = 2∠600

68. A fault occurs in the R phase of a solidly 1 1
>
grounded unloaded alternator. The fault X + X + X + 3X 3X
1 1 0 n 1
current IR1 and neutral current IN are given by 3X > 2X + X + 3X
1 1 0 n
Ea 3X1 – 2X1 > X0 + 3Xn
I R1 = and I N = IAO
z1 + z 2 + z 0 (X1 – X0) > 3Xn
(a)
1
Ea X n < ( X1 − X 0 )
I R1 = and I N = 2IAO 3
z1 + z 2
(b)
70. Severe over-voltages are produced during
Ea arcing faults in a power system with neutral –
I R1 = and I N = 3IAO
z1 + z 2 + z 0 (a) Isolated
(c)
(b) Solidly earthed
Ea (c) Earthed through a resistance
I R1 = and I N = 0
z1 + z 2 + z 0 (d) Earthed through an inductive coil
(d)
APGENCO AE 2012
Ans. (c) : Single line to ground fault (L-G fault) Ans. (a) : Severe (L-L-L fault) over-voltages are
Terminal conditions (at the fault point) produced during arcing faults when neutral is
Va = Ia Zf , I b = Ic = 0 ungrounded because it has no path for fault current to
flow.
Ia 71. The currents in a 3- Φ unbalanced system are :
Ia0 = Ia1 = Ia 2 = IR = (12 + j6)A;IY = (12–j12)A;IB = (–15+j10)A.
3
Calculate positive sequence component of the
Where Ia0, Ia1, Ia2 are the sequence current at the fault R-phase current by considering RYB as phase
point. sequence.
Fault current (a) (–1.85 – j5.47)A (b) (10.85 + j10.13)A
(c) (3 + j5.47)A (d) (3 + j1.33)A
3E
If = Ia = Ia 0 + Ia1 + Ia 2 = DMRC AM 2020
Z1 + Z2 + Z0 + 3Zf Ans. (b) : Given that,
69. The positive sequence and zero sequence IR = (12 + j6)A
Iy = (12 – j12)A
impedance of a generator are X1 and X0
IB = (–15 + j10)A
respectively and its neutral is grounded
For positive sequence,
through a reactance Xn. A single line to ground
1
fault is more severe than a three phase fault at I1 = ( Ia + aIb + a 2 Ic )
3
its terminals when? Where,
(a) Xn = X1 - X0 (b) Xn = 3 (X1 - X0) Ia = I R
(c) Xn > 1/3 (X1 - X0) (d) Xn < 1/3(X1 - X0) Ib = IY
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 Ic = IB
Ans. (d) : In a power system single line to ground (L-G) a = 1∠1200 = −0.5 + j0.866
fault can be given by– (Where, a = phase displacement)
3E f 2 0
a = 1∠240 = −0.5 − j0.866
If =
X1 + X 2 + X 0 + 3X n 1
I1 = (12 + j6 ) + ( −0.5 + j0.866 )(12 − j12 )
And 3-φ fault is– 3
3E f + ( −0.5 − j0.866 )( −15 + j10 ) 
If =
3X1 1
From given condition,
= [12 + j6 − 6 + j6 + j0.866 ×12 + 0.866 ×12 + 7.5 − j5
3
(L-G) fault > 3-φ fault + j0.866 × 15 + 0.866 × 10]
3E f 3E 1
> f = [32.552 + j30.382]
X1 + X 2 + X 0 + 3X n 3X1 3
In a generator X1 ≅ X 2 I1 = 10.85 + j10.13

72. A shunt fault is characterized by : Ans. (c) : Given fault current (If) = 300A
(a) Increase in current, frequency and pf Fault Current
Zero sequence current =
(b) Increase in current, reduction in frequency 3
and pf 300
=
(c) Increase in current and frequency, reduction 3
in pf = 100 A
(d) Decrease in current and frequency 76. In which type of fault, zero sequence currents
APTRANSCO AE 2017 are absent?
Ans. (b) : Different types of shunt fault in order of (a) L-L (b) L-G
(c) L-L-G (d) L-L-L-G
during severity–
CIL MT 2017
(i) Three phase fault (5%)
(ii) Double line to ground fault (10%)
APSPDCL AE 2012
(iii) Line to line fault (15%)
Ans. (a) :
(iv) Single line to ground fault (70%)
The fault may cause interruption in power supply to
consumers, a shunt type of fault result a large amount of
current & decrease in voltage and frequency. A shunt
fault also decrease the supply frequency as well as pf,
by which the system may become unstable.
73. Most severe non-uniform field is developed
with
(a) two sphere electrode arrangement
(b) point-point electrode arrangement
(c) plate-rod electrode arrangement
(d) two parallel plate electrode arrangement.
Vizag Steel MT 2013
Ans. (b) : Most severe non-uniform field is developed
with point-point electrode arrangement. Zero sequence current is absent in line to line fault.
74. A three phase fault in a power system is Ia = 0 ; Vb = Vc + Ib Zf
(a) the most common type of fault. And Ib + Ic = 0
(b) usually the most severe type of fault. ∵ Va1 = E a − Ia1 Z1 ;Va 2 = −Ia 2 Z2
(c) results in equal magnitude for positive and Va = −Ia Z0
0 0
negative sequence currents.

∵ I0 = 0 and Ib = –Ic
(d) results in equal value for positive, negative
and zero sequence currents. 1
I a 0 = ( I a + I b + Ic )
Vizag Steel MT 2013 3
1
Ans. (b) : The most common type of fault–L–G fault. = 0 + I b + ( −Ib ) 
Most severe type of fault–LLL 3 
=0
equal magnitude for positive
and negative sequence current –L– L fault 77. For complete protection of a 3-phase line, how
many phases and earth fault relays are
for symmetrical faults-all sequence currents are equal.
required?
75. The SLG fault current in the faulted phase is (a) 2 phases and 2 earth fault relays
300A, the zero sequence current is: (b) 2 phases and 1 earth fault relay
(a) Zero (b) 300A (c) 1 phase and 2 earth fault relays
(c) 100A (d) 66.6A (d) 3 phases and 1 earth fault relay
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II BHEL ET 2019

Ans. (b) : For complete protection of a 3-phase system Ans. (b) : Short circuit study used for purpose of
from the short circuit faults minimum number of relay designing adequate protection scheme a short circuit
study is used to determine the available fault current or
required are three. In which two are the over current short circuit current at each point in system. Based on
relay which are connected in any of the two phases and study power engineer can easily determine the required
one earth fault relay, which is connected between interrupting capacity of circuit breaker which forms the
basis of designing proper relaying system.
ground and neutral.
81. A 50 MVA, 10 kV, 50 Hz, star-connected,
78. The type of fault in the system having sequence unloaded three-phase alternator has a
components of the fault currents Izero = –j1pu, synchronous reactance of 1 p.u. and a sub-
Inegative = –j0.5pu and Ipositive = j1.5pu is: transient reactance of p.u. If a 3-phase short
circuit occurs close to the generator terminals,
(a) LG (b) LLG the ratio of initial and final values of the
(c) LLLG (d) LL sinusoidal component of the short circuit
BHEL ET 2019 current is:
(a) 3 A (b) 4 A
Ans. (b) : ∵ I 2 = I1 + I0 (c) 2 A (d) 5 A
So, UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
LLG fault occurs in system. Eg Eg
LG fault :In single line to ground (LG) fault, one Ans : ( d ) I" = , I =
Xd " X
conductor comes in contact with the ground or Neutral Given that
conductor. X"d = 0.2 P.u, Xd = 1 P.u
LL fault: A line to line (LL) fault when two conductors Where I = final values of short ckt current
one short circuited. I" = initial value of short ckt current
LLG fault: A double line to ground (LLG) fault occurs I" E g X d
= ×
when two conductors fall on the ground or comes in I Xd " Eg
contact with the neutral conductor. X 1
LG, LL, LLG are unsymmetrical fault. = d × =5
X d " 0.2
While, LLL, LLLG are symmetrical faults.
I"
79. If the positive, negative and zero-sequence = 5Amp
I
reactances of an element of a power system are
82. A 30 kV, 50 Hz, 50 MVA generator has the
0.3, 0.3 and 0.8 p.u. respectively, then the positive, negative, and zero sequence
element would be a? reactances of 0.25pu,0.15 pu, and 0.05pu,
(a) Synchronous generator respectively. The neutral of the generator is
grounded with a reactance so that the fault
(b) Synchronous motor current for a bolted LG fault and that of a
(c) Static load bolted three-phase fault at the generator
terminal are equal. The value of grounding
(d) Transmission line
reactance is:
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020 (a) 1 Ω (b) 1.8 Ω
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I (c) 0.1 Ω (d) 2.18 Ω
Ans. (d) : If the positive, negative and zero sequence UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
reactance of an element of a power system are 0.3, 0.3 Ans : ( b ) X 1 = 0.25 Pu
X2 = 0.15 Pu
and 0.8 p.u. respectively then the element would be a
X0 = 0.05 Pu
transmission line. Because in transmission line-
30 KV, 50 MVA, 50 Hz
X1 = X 2 < X 0
If (L-G fault)= If ( 3 − φ ) then Xg = 0
Here X1 = X2 = 0.3 and X0 = 0.8
i.e. 3Ea1 Ea
= = 1
0.3 = 0.3 < 0.8 x 1 + x 2 + x 0 + 3x g x1
80. For the purpose of designing adequate =3x =x +x +x +3x ⇒ 3x = 2x − x − x
protection scheme, we usually conduct:
1 1 2 0 g g 1 2 0
(a) Load flow study (b) Short circuit study 2
30
(c) Stability study (d) None of the above x g = 0.1 x g ( Ω ) = 0.1× = 1.8Ω
50
DMRC AM 2016 = 1.8 Ω

83. Five alternators are connected in parallel to a Ans. (b) : Three phase short-circuit load does not
busbar. Each alternator is rated 5 MVA, 13.2 participate in circuit; only transmission line is present in
kV and has a 25% reactance on its own base. system which is mostly inductive in nature. Hence,
Determine the short circuit level in MVA at the power taken during short circuit is mostly reactive.
busbar. 87. The positive sequence current of a transmission
line is–
(a) 50 MVA (b) 25 MVA
(a) Always zero
(c) 100 MVA (d) 10 MVA (b) One-third of negative sequence current
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I (c) Three times the negative sequence current
Ans : (c) (d) Equal to negative sequence current
Ans. (d) : Since, positive sequence impedance Z1 of a
transmission line is equal to negative sequence
impedance Z2,
Z1 = Z2 = Zs − Zm
Under short circuit reactance diagram would to :
where Zs is self-impedance and Zm is mutual
0.25 impedance Hence, the positive sequence currents and
xf = = 0.05
5 negative sequence current are also equal.
1pu 1 88. The three non-inductive loads of 5 kW, 3 kW
short circuit current = = = 20 pu and 2 kW are connected in a star network
xf 0.05
between R, Y and B phases and neutral. The
Short circuit MVA = 20 × 5 = 100 MVA line voltage is 400 V. The current in the neutral
84. In a three phase four wire unbalanced system, wire is nearly
(a) 11 A (b) 14 A
the current in the neutral wire is 18 A. The
(c) 17 A (d) 21 A
magnitude of zero sequence current is– ESE 2017
(a) 18 A (b) 6 A Ans. (a) :
(c) 9 A (d) 3 A
Ans. (b) : The relation between neutral current and zero
sequence current is:
In = 3I 0
Here, In = 18 A. Therefore,
18A = 3I0 , I0 = 6A
So, the magnitude of zero sequence current is 6 A.
85. The positive (Z1), negative (Z2) and zero (Z0)
sequence impedances of a solidly grounded Line voltage = 400 V
400
system under steady state condition always Phase voltage, Vph = V
follow the relation– 3
(a) Z1 > Z2 > Z0 (b) Z1 > Z2 < Z0 PR = VPh R I Ph R cos φR = 5kw
(c) Z1 < Z2 < Z0 (d) Z0 > Z1 > Z2 PY = VPh Y I Ph Y cos φR = 3kw
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 PB = VPh B I Ph B cos φB = 2kw
Ans. (a) : Solidly grounded system always follows: For non inductive loads φ = 0, cosφ = 1
Z1 > Z2 > Z0 5×103 5 ×103
where Z1 is the positive sequence impedances, Z2 is the IR = = = 21.65 ∠0o
VPh ∠0 o
400 o
negative sequence impedances and Z0 is the zero ∠0
3
sequence impedances. 3×103
86. In case of 3 phase short circuit in a system, the IY = = 12.99 ∠ + 120o
VPh ∠ − 120o
power fed into the system is–
2 ×103
(a) Mostly active (b) Mostly reactive IB = = 8.66 ∠240o
400 o
(c) Active only ∠ − 240
3
(d) Active and reactive both IN = IR + IY + IB
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 = 11.45 ∠19.10o ≃ 11 A

89. A 3-phase, 100 MVA, 11 kV generator has the The current Ia & Ib will such that Ia + Ib = 0 or Ia = -Ib
following p.u. constants. The generator neutral 1
If (Positive sequence current) = ( Ia + aI b + a 2 Ic )
is solidily grounded. X1 = X2 = 3X0 = 0.15Ω. 3
The ratio of the fault current due to three- 1
phase dead short-circuit to that due to L-G = ( Ia + a ( −Ia ) + 0 )
3
fault would be nearly
I
(a) 0.33 (b) 0.56 = a (1 − a )
3
(c) 0.78 (d) 1.0
25
ESE 2018 = (1 − 1∠120 )
3
Ans. (c) : X1 = X2 = 3X0 = 0.15 Ω
I1 = 14.43∠-30°A
11
Ea = phase voltage generated = kV 91. Which one of the following faults occurs more
3 frequently in a power system?
for 3- φ deal short circuit, fault current (a) Grounded star-delta
(b) Double line faults
Ea
( If )1 = .............................(i) (c) LLG faults
jX1
(d) Single line-to-ground (LG) faults
for L-G fault, fault current ESE 2019
3E a Ans. (d) : The relative frequency of occurrence of
( I f )2 =
jX1 × jX 2 + jX 0 various type of faults.
..................(ii)
Types of fault Frequency
eq.( i ) If1 j ( X1 + X 2 + X 0 )
= = LLL 5%
eq. ( ii ) If2 3jX1
LLG 10%
If1 0.15 + 0.15 + 0.05 LL 15%
= = 0.78
If2 3 × 0.15 LG 70%
90. 92.
The maximum permissible time of de-
energization of the faulty circuit is dependent
on
(a) Voltage on the system
(b) The number of conductors involved
(c) Load carried by the faulty circuit
(d) Fault current and its duration
ESE 2019
A balanced 3-phase load is supplied from a 3-
Ans. (d) : The maximum permissible time de-
phase supply. The contact in line c of the triple-
energization of the faulty depends upon the fault current
pole switch contactor fails to connect when magnitude and its time persistency.
switched on. If the line-currents in lines a and b
93. There is a zero sequence current if the
record 25 A each, then the positive-sequence transformer is connected by
component of the current is (a) Star-Delta
(a) 14.4 ∠ + 300 A (b) 25.0 ∠ – 300 A (b) Delta-Star
(c) 14.4 ∠ – 300 A (d) 25.0 ∠ + 300 A (c) Star-Star
ESE 2018 (d) Delta-Star, neutral grounded
Ans. (c) : UPPCL AE 2014
Ans. (d) : There is a zero sequence current if the
transformer is connected by delta-star neutral grounded.
94. The............... faults are due to open circuit
(a) Shunt (b) Series
(c) L-G (d) Symmetrical
UPPCL AE 2014
Ans. (b) : The series fault are due to open circuit. These 2
are unsymmetrical or unbalanced type of fault except Ans. (d) : Y22 = ∑Y 2j
j=0
three phase open fault.
= sum of admittance connected to bus
95. In the symmetrical component expression of
1 1 1
voltages, we have Y22 = + +
j0.2 j0.2 j0.1
 Va   Va1 
V  = A  V 2 = − j5 − j5 − j10
 b  [ ] b  = − j20
 Vc   Va0 
97.
The sequence network of a 3-phase to ground
Where matrix [A] is
fault has
1 α 1 1 α α 2  (a) positive sequence impedance in series of
 2   
2 voltage source
(a) α α 1 (b) 1 α α
 2   2  (b) negative sequence impedance
 α α 1 1 α α  (c) positive, negative and zero sequence
 1 1 1  1 1 1  impedances in series
 2    (d) None of these
(c) α α 1 (d)  α α 2 1
   2  RPSC VPITI 2018
2
 α α 1 α α 1
Ans. (a) : Positive sequence impedance network is use
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I in 3-φ to ground fault as it is symmetrical fault or
Ans. (c) : In the symmetrical component expression of balance fault so there is no existence of zero and – ve
voltage= sequence fault.
 Va   Va1  98.
The fault which occurs rarely in practice and is
    the most severe and imposes more heavy duty
 Vb  = | A |  Vb2  on the circuit breaker is
 V0   Va0  (a) Line to line fault
(b) Single line to ground fault
1 1 1
  (c) Symmetrical fault
|A| = α 2 α 1 (d) Double line to ground fault
 2 
 α α 1
Ans. (c) : The balanced 3-phase fault is very rare in
96. A sample power system network is shown in occurrence, accounting for only about 5% of the total,
the figure. The ractances marked are in pu. but is the severest of the all types of faults and thus
What is the pu value of Y22 of the Bus imposes the most severe duty on circuit breakers and is
Admittances Matrix (YBus)? used in the determination of the circuit breaker rating.
In other words, symmetrical faults are rarest and most

severe.
99. In a transmission line there is a flow of zero
sequence current when
(a) Double line to ground fault
(b) Line to line fault
(c) Three phase fault
(d) There is an occurrence of over voltage on line
due to a charged cloud
Ans. (a) : In a line to line to ground fault there are zero
sequence current present. In the fault
(a) j10.0 (b) j0.5 Z1 = positive sequence impedance
(c) -j0.1 (d) -j20.0 Z2 = negative sequence impedance
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I Z0 = zero sequence impedance

100. The fuse rating is given in terms of the
following:
(a) kVA (b) VAR
(c) Voltage (d) Current
MPPSC AE 2014
 watts 
Ans. (d) : Fuse rating =   × 1.25
 volts 
A fuse rating is the current need to break the fuse. When
a fuse has broken it removes electrical power from an
electrical circuit.
101. The fault on a power system that gives
symmetrical fault current is –
(a) Line to line fault 105. When a line to ground fault occurs, the current
(b) Three phase short circuit in a faulted phase is 100 A, the zero sequence
(c) Single line to ground fault current in this case will be
(d) None of above (a) zero (b) 33.3 A
(c) 66.6 A (d) 100 A
GMB AE 2017
Ans. (b) : The three phase short circuit fault on a power Ans. (b) : Given, I = I = 100 A
a f
system that gives symmetrical fault. This type of fault is When L-G fault occurs–
rare but more severe than the other cases.
I
102. Which of the following material is not used as Ia 0 = a
3
fuse element: 100
(a) Silver (b) Copper Ia 0 =
3
(c) Aluminium (d) Carbon
Ia0 = 33.33A
Ans. (d) :Carbon being a semiconductor material can't 106. A double line to ground fault occurs on the
be used as fuse. terminals of an unloaded 3-phase, star
connected alternator without neutral
103. Fusing factor is defined as
grounded. The fault current will have
(a) Minimum fusing current
(a) positive sequence component only
(b) Current rating of fusing element
(b) all the three positive, negative and zero
(c) ratio of (a) and (b) sequence components
(d) ratio of (b) and (a) (c) positive and negative sequence components
GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 only
Minimum Fusing current (d) negative sequence component only
Ans. (c) :Fusing Factor =
Current rating of fuse UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
The value of fusing factor is always more than 1. Ans. (c) : A double line to ground fault occurs on the
terminals of an unloaded 3-phase, star connected
104. When a symmetrical short circuit occurs at the alternator without neutral grounded. The fault current
terminals of a synchronous machine, which of will have positive and negative sequence components
the following current is of large magnitude? only.
(a) Sub-transient current 107. The rating of fuse wire is always expressed in:
(b) Transient current (a)Ampere-hours (b) kWh
(c) Steady state current (c)Amperes (d) None of the above
(d) Leakage current UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 Ans. (c) The rating of fuse wire is always expressed in
amperes. The electric current flowing through the fuse
Ans. (a) : When a symmetrical sort circuit fault occurs
wire is same as the load current which is consumed by
at the synchronous terminals the sub transient current the electrical load. That load current only decides the
having high magnitude. rating of fuse.

108. PSM for the relay having CT ratio = 400/5, 112. In case of bus bar fault, the bus zone relay
Fault current = 6000 A and percentage relay (a) must trip all the breakers connected to the bus
setting = 150 will be (b) must give an alarm for bus fault
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) must trip one breaker connected to the bus
(c) 7.5 (d) 0.5 (d) none of the above
Ans. (b) : CT ratio = 400/5 = 80 Ans. (a) : In case of bus bar fault, in the bus zone relay
Relay current setting = 150% of 5A = 7.5A the operating principle is based on Kirchhoff's law the
fault current algebraic sum of all the currents entering and leaving
PSM = the bus bar zone must be zero. Unless there is a fault
relay current setting × CT ratio
there in. The relay is connected to trip all the circuit
6000
= = 10 breakers.
7.5 × 80
113. A three phase fault occurs at the terminals of
109. Negative sequence relay is normally used for an unloaded alternator at an instant when a.c.
which of the following? voltage in one phase is at maximum value. The
(a) Transformer (b) Generator variation of d.c. component during fault period
(c) Transmission line (d) None of these in that phase will depend upon –
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (a) Sub transient time constant
Ans. (b) : Negative sequence relay is normally used for (b) Transient time constant
the generator. Since the synchronous machine has zero (c) Open circuit time constant
negative sequence generated voltage, the negative (d) Armature time constant
sequence network of the machine contains no emf but UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
includes the impedance offered by the machine to
Ans. (d) : A three phase fault occurs at the terminal of
negative-sequence current.
unloaded alternator at an instant when ac voltage in one
110. How many relays are used to detect interphase phase is at maximum value.
fault of a 3-phase system? The variation of dc component during fault period in
(a) one (b) two that phase will depend upon armature time constant.
(c) three (d) six
114. A material best suited for manufacturing of
fuse wire is :
Ans. (c) :
(a) Silver (b) Copper
(c) Aluminium (d) Zinc
RPSC VPITI 2016
Ans. (a) : A material best suited for manufacturing of
fuse wire is silver (Ag)
115. With reference to criteria of occupying lesser
Inter phase fault of a 3-φ system– three over floor area, the isolator preferred is of :
current relays for the protection of a 3-φ system are (a) three-post, centre post rotating, double break
used. This scheme is mainly for the protection of the type
system against phase faults. (b) pantograph type
111. Which of the following is the main relay for (c) two-post, single break type
protecting 90% of transmission line-length the (d) All of the above
forward direction? MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
(a) Directional over current relay Ans. (b) : With reference to criteria of occupying lesser
(b) Carrier current protective relay floor, the isolator preferred is of pantograph type.
(c) Impedance relay 116. Voltage dips cannot be caused by which of the
(d) MHO-relay following ?
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (a) Inductive loading
Ans. (d) : The MHO relay having the least area on the (b) Switching on/off large loads
R-X diagram and least affected hence MHO-relay is the (c) Capacitive switching
main relay for protecting 90% of transmission line- (d) Local and Remote faults
length in the forward direction. MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
Ans. (c) : Voltage dips cannot be caused by capacitive 119. The zero sequence current of a generator for
switching. line to ground fault is j 2.4 p.u. The current
117. A cylindrical rotor generator delivers 0.5 pu through the neutral during the fault is
power in the steady state to an infinite bus (a) j 0.8 p.u (b) j 2.4 p.u.
through a transmission line of reactance 0.5 pu. (c) j 0.24 p.u. (d) j 7.2 p.u.
The generator no load voltage is 1.5 pu and the UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
infinite bus voltage is 1 pu. The inertia constant CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
of the generator is 5 MW - s/MVA and the ESE 2003
generator reactance is 1 p.u. The critical Ans. (d) : Assumption in L-G faults are
clearing angle, in degrees, for a three phase
fault current If = IR
dead short circuit fault at the generator
IY = IB = 0
terminal is :
Vf = IR × Zb = If × Zf
(a) 53.5 (b) 60.2
(c) 70.8 (d) 79.6 I I
therefore, I R 0 = I R1 = IR 2 = f = R
LMRC AE 2015 3 3
The current through the neutral during the fault-
Ans. (d)
If = 3 × I R 0
= 3 × Jɺ 2.4 = Jɺ 7.2 p.u.

120. For an unbalanced fault, with paths for zero
sequence currents, at the point of fault:
(a) The negative and zero sequence voltages are
E V 1.5 ×1 minimum.
Pe = sin δ0 0.5 = sin δ0
( xd + xt ) (1 + 0.5 ) (b) The negative and zero sequence voltages are
δ0 = sin −1 (0.5) = 300 maximum.
(c) The negative sequence voltage is minimum
= π/6
and zero sequence voltage is maximum.
Critical clearing Angle = δcr = cos-1 [(π-2δ0) sinδ0-cosδ0]
(d) The negative sequence voltage is maximum
−1  1 3 and zero sequence voltage is minimum
= cos ( π−π/3) × − 
 2 2  (e) None
-1 CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
= cos (0.18)
Ans. (b) : For an unbalanced Fault, with path for zero
δcr = 79.60°
sequence current, at the point of fault, the negative and
118. At an industrial substation with a 4 MW load, a zero sequence voltage are maximum.
capacitor of 2 MVAR is installed to maintain 121. A 3 phase 100 MVA, 10 KV alternator has 5%
the load power factor at 0.97 lagging. If the reactance. An external reactance X per phase
capacitor goes our of service, the load power has to be connected in series with the alternator
factor becomes. so that 3 phase short circuit does not exceed 8
(a) 0.85 (b) 1 times the full load current. The value of X is:
(c) 0.80 lag (d) 0.90 lag (a) .075 ohm/phase (b) 1.25 ohm/phase
LMRC AE 2015 (c) 2.5 ohm/phase (d) 1.5 ohm/phase
Ans. (c) (e) 1.75 ohm/phase
Inductive MVAR with capacitor CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
4 Ans. (a) : Given, Vb = 10kV, Sb = 100 MVA, Vpu =
= × sin(cos −1 0.99) ≅ 1
0.97 1 pu
So Inductive MVAR without capacitor = 1 + 2 Vpu
Isc =
= 3 MVAR Xg + X
Apparent Power = 4 × 4 + 3 × 3 = 5 MVAR 1
8=
4 0.05 + X
Power factor without capacitor =   = 0.8
5
  X = 0.075ohm / phase

122. Which part of the power system is least prone 126. An over-current relay is said to over reach
to fault? when it operates at a current
(a) Alternators (b) Switchgear (a) Higher than its setting
(b) Equal to its setting
(c) Transformers (d) Overhead lines
(c) 2/3rd of its setting
(e) None of them (d) Lower than its setting
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Ans. (a) : Alternator of the power system is least prone Ans : (a) Over reach used for backup protection.
to fault. Over current relay- The over current relay is defined as
123. Generally, operation of a fuse is a result of: the relay, which operates only when the value of the
(a) Induction effect current is greater than the relay setting time. It protects
(b) Electrostatic effect the equipment of the power system from the fault
(c) Heating effect of current current.
(d) Magnetic effect 127. What will be the largest number of 100W
(e) None of the above electric light bulbs which can be operated from
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II a 200V supply fitted with a 13A fuse?
(a) 16 (b) 26
Ans. (c) : Generally, operation of a fuse is a result of
(c) 31 (d) 32
Heating effect of current. There R resistance, I current
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
flow through it, Hence I2R loss occur heating effect.
Ans : (b) Fuse rating (I) = 13A
124. The critical clearing time of a fault in power
Supply Voltage (V) = 200V
systems is related to :-
100
(a) Reactive power limit Current of each bulb = {∵ P = VI}
200
(b) Transient stability limit
1
(c) Steady state stability limit = A
2
(d) Short-circuit current limit Total current = 13 A
× x = 13
Ans. (b) : The critical clearing time of a fault in power 2
system is related to transient stability limit. x = 13×2
125. An unloaded generator with a pre-fault voltage x = 26
1 pu has the following sequence impedances : Where x = number of bulbs.
Z0 = j 0.15 pu, Z1= Z2= j0.25 pu. The neutral is
128. How many relays are used to detect interphase
grounded with a reactance of 0.05 pu. The fault fault of a three phase system?
current in pu for a single line to ground fault (a) One (b) Two
is:– (c) Three (d) Six
(a) 3.75 pu (b) 4.28 pu UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(c) 6.0 pu (d) 7.25 pu Ans. (c) : Three relays are used to detect interphase
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I fault of a three phase system. In which two are the over
ESE 2012 current relays which are connected in any of the two
Ans. (a) : Fault current for LG fault is- phases and one earth fault relay, which is connected
E between ground and neutral.
If = 3 ×
( z1 + z 2 + z 0 + 3z n ) 129. The least expensive protection for over –
0 current in low voltage system is:-
Where E = pre fault voltage = 1 ∠ 0 (a) Rewirable fuse (b) Isolator
1 (c) Circuit breaker (d) Air – Break switch
If = 3 ×
j ( 0.25 + 0.25 + 0.15 + 3 × 0.05) UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
If = -j 3.75 Ans. (a) : Rewirable fuse is least expensive protection
Magnitude of If = 3.75 pu for over current in low voltage system.

130. For a solidly grounded system and reactance Ans. (d) :
X 2 3
grounded system the value of 0 are  I1   d1 
X1     =
 I2   d 2 
X0 X0 X0 X0
(a) > 3; <3 (b) < 3; >3 2 3
X1 X1 X1 X1  I1   r1 
  = 
X0 X0 X0 X0  I 2   r2 
(c) = 3; <3 (d) > 3; =3 3
X1 X1 X1 X1 2
 16   1.6 
  = 
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011  2   r2 
Ans. (b) : To be classified as solidly grounded, the (1.6)3
(r2 )3 =
X  R  64
system must have  0  ≤ 3 and  0  ≤ 1 .
X
 1 X
 1 r = 0.4 mm
Where X0 & R0 are the zero sequence reactance and 134. When a single line to ground fault occurs the
resistance, and X1 is the positive sequence reactance of current in the faulted phase is 100 A. the zero
sequence current is
the power system.
(a) Zero (b) 33.3 A
 X0  (c) 66.6 A (d) 100 A
For reactance grounded system   >3.
 X1  Karnataka PSC AE 2017
131. The system is said to be effectively grounded Ans. (b) : Given, In = If = 100 A
only if R0/X1 and X0/X1 are respectively The current flowing in the impedance Zn between
(symbols have usual meaning) neutral and ground is In = 3Ia 0
(a) ≤ 1 and ≤ 3 (b) ≥ 1 and ≥ 3 I n 100
Ia 0 = = = 33.3A
(c) ≤ 2 and ≥ 2 (d) ≥ 2 and ≤ 2 3 3
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 Ia0 = 33.3A
Ans. (a) : The system is said to be effectively grounded
135. A single line to ground fault means
X  R  (a) A fault between phase R and Ground
(or) solidly grounded only if  0  ≤ 3 &  0  ≤ 1
 X1   X1  (b) A fault between phase Y and Ground
(c) A fault between phase B and Ground
Where,
(d) A fault between any one phase and ground
X0 = Zero sequence Reactance
X1 = Positive sequence reactance
Ans. (d) : A short circuit between any one of the phase
&
conductors earth is called a single phase to ground fault.
R0 = Zero sequence resistance of the power system. It may be due to the failure of the insulation between a
132. Phase relays are used to provide protection phase conductor and the earth.
against 136. Impedance relay is usually used for protection
(a) Single line to ground fault of–
(b) Three phase faults only (a) Short line (b) Long line
(c) Phase faults involving two or more phases (c) Medium line (d) For all above
(d) Double phase to ground fault only. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
Ans. (c) : Phase Relays are used to provide protection Ans. (c) : impedance relay is non-directional, voltage
restrained over current relay. Impedance relay use
against phase faults involving two or more phases.
medium line because it is moderately affected by both
133. A fuse wire of circular cross-section has a power surges as well as arc resistance.
radius of 1.6 mm. The wire blows off at a 137. A fuse is never inserted in
current of 16A. Then the radius of the wire that (a) Phase line
will blow off at a current of 2A will be (b) Neutral line
(a) 1.6 mm (b) 0.2 mm (c) Negative of DC circuit
(c) 0.8 mm (d) 0.4 mm (d) Positive of DC circuit
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
Ans. (b) : The fuse being a protective device has to Ans. (c) : Given:
perform the duty of separating faulty part of the circuit C = 1µF
from the healthy part. This function of the fuse ceases if f = 50 Hz
the fuse is placed in the neutral line. Therefore a fuse isInductive reactance of the coil to neutralise the
never inserted in neutral line. capacitance of 90% length of line:
138. The sequence components of the fault current X = 1
c
are as follows : I(cos+ve) = j1.5 pu, I(cos-ve) = – 3 × 2 πf × 0.9C
jo.5pu, I(zero) = –j1pu. 1
=
The type of fault in the system is: 3 × 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 0.9 × 1× 10 −6
(a) LG (b) LL 106
(c) LLG (d) LLLG =
848.23
UJVNL AE 2016 Xc = 1178.9
Ans. (c) I = Ia1 + Ia2 + Ia0 = 0 X c ≅ 1179 Ω
1.5j – 0.5j – 1.0j
142. The differential protection relay may lose its
I=0 stability for through faults due to saturation of
Then LLG fault occurs. CT magnetic circuit during short circuit
139. Fuses are used to : condition. To overcome this difficulty which of
the following technique is used–
(a) Protect the circuit/equipment
(a) Biased differential relay
(b) Keep wires from getting overheated
(b) Induction disc relay
(c) Break the circuit when too much current is (c) Stepped tap changing method
being used
(d) IDMTL relay
(d) All of the above ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I Ans. (a) : Biased differential relay is also known as
Ans. (d) : Fuses are used for- percentage differential relay. It is essentially a
Protection of circuit from over voltage, short circuit circulating current differential relay with additional
etc. restraining coil. The current flowing in restraining coil
Overheating due to overloading of circuit. (I + I )
is proportional to 1 2 and restraining coil prevents
Fuse is basically a protective device having a metal 2
wire which melts or breaks when too much current operation during external fault.
flows through it.
140. For a round wire, the approximate value of
fusing current is given by
(a) K d 3 (b) Kd 2
1
(c) d3 (d) d8 143. The fact that a conductor carries more current
K on the surface as compared to core, is known
APGENCO AE 2012 as–
Ans. (a) : An approximate value of the minimum fusing (a) Skin effect
current for a round fuse wire is- (b) Corona
I = Kd3/2 = K d 3 (c) Permeability
Where, (d) Unsymmetrical fault
K = constant which is depend on materials ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
d = diameter of wire Ans. (a) : The fact that a conductor carries more current
141. A 50 Hz, overhead line has line to earth on the surface as compare to core is known as skin
effect.
capacitance of 1 µF. It is decided to use an
earth fault neutraliser. Determine the Skin effect increase with increase in frequency
reactance to neutralise the capacitance of 90% Skin effect is increase with increase in diameter of
length of line. conductor.
(a) 1278 Ω (b) 1169 Ω Skin effect is more in solid conductor and less in
(c) 1179 Ω (d) 1189 Ω stranded conductor because the surface area of the
BHEL ET 2019 solid conductor is more.

144. For an unbalanced fault with paths for zero Ans. (a) : The number of relaying input quantities and
sequence currents, at the point of fault– the number of settings for an over current relay are one
(a) The negative and zero sequence voltages are input, two settings.
minimum 4. The slope of percentage biased relay
(b) The negative sequence voltage in maximum characteristics is proportional to:
and zero sequence voltage is minimum (a) Nr/No
(c) The negative sequence voltage in minimum (b) No/Nr
and zero sequence voltage is maximum (c) ( N r + N o ) /( N r − N o )
(d) The negative and zero sequence voltages are
maximum (d) ( N r − N o ) /( N r + N o )
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
Ans. (d) : For an unbalanced fault with paths for zero Ans. (a) : The slope of percentage biased relay
sequence currents, at the point of fault, the negative and characteristics is proportional to Nr/N0
zero-sequence voltages are maximum. In case of a 5. The component used in the output circuit or a
system with no return path for zero sequence current, static relay is:
these current can not exist. (a) op-amp (b) comparator
(c) capacitor (d) thyristor
(ix) Protective Relay, TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
Protective Scheme for Ans. (d) : Component used in the output circuit of a
static relay is thyristor. Thyristor is a 3 Junction and 4
Power System Equipment layer device.
6. Effect of HVDC transmission in power system:
1. In an electromagnetic relay force acts in a
(a) improves voltage stability
direction :
(b) causes voltage collapse
(a) to maximize reluctance and maximize coil
inductance (c) has no effect
(b) to maximize reluctance and minimize coil (d) none of the above
inductance TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
(c) to minimize reluctance and minimize coil Ans. (a) : Effect of HVDC transmission in power
inductance system, there are improves voltage stability.
(d) to minimize reluctance and maximize coil
HVDC – High voltage direct current.
inductance
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 7. A MHO relay is
Ans. (d) : In an electromagnetic relay force acts in a (a) A voltage restrained directional relay
direction to minimize reluctance and maximize coil (b) A voltage controlled over current relay
inductance. (c) the capacitance of the system only
2. Which expression correctly represents the (d) the inductance and capacitance of the system
IDMT relay characteristics? TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
(a) TMS (0.41)/(PSM1.02 – 1)
(b) TMS (1.4)/(PSM1.002 – 1)
(c) TMS (0.14)/(PSM1.002 – 1)
(d) TMS (14.0)/(PSM2.0 – 1) Ans. (a) : MHO relay is a voltage restrained directional
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 relay. It is a modified impedance relay used for
Ans. (c) : IDMT Relay characteristics protection of long transmission line. MHO relay is also
= TMS (0.14)/(PSM1.002 – 1) used where power swings are high.
3. The number of relaying input quantities and 8. Zero sequence current is exclusively used for
the number of setting for an over-current relay relaying purposes only in the case of:
are: (a) phase over current relay
(a) one input, two settings (b) phase impedance relay
(b) two input, one settings (c) ground over current relay
(c) one input, one settings
(d) ground impedance relay
(d) two input, two settings
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 TRB Poly. Lect. 2017

Ans. (c) : Zero sequence current (Iav) in unsymmetrical 14. An impedance relay is
fault there are exclusively used for relaying purpose in (a) current - restrained over-voltage relay
the case of ground over current relay. (b) current - restrained directional relay
9. The rating of the coil of an electromagnetic (c) voltage - restrained directional relay
relay is generally : (d) voltage - restrained over-current relay
(a) 1 and 5 A (b) 5 and 10 A
(c) 10 and 25 A (d) 50 and 100 A
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 Ans. (d) :
Ans. (a) : The rating of the coil of an induction 15. For the protection of medium transmission
electromagnetic relay is generally 1 and 5 Amp. This is lines, normally the preferred relay is
the type of relay which operate on the principle of (a) reactance relay
electro magnetic attraction. (b) ohm relay
10. The transmission line distance protection relay (c) mho relay
having the property of inherently directional is (d) impedance relay
(a) Impedance relay (b) Reactance relay
(c) Mho relay (d) None of these
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I Ans. (d) :
Ans. (c) : • Mho relay is used in long line from line 16. Zero sequence current is used for relaying
above 200 km and it is distance protection relay. purposes only in the case of :
• Long line - Mho relays-voltage restraint directional (a) phase overcurrent relay
relay. (b) phase impedance relay
Short line - reactance relay : non-directional (c) ground impedance relay
Medium line - impedance relay : non-directional (d) ground overcurrent relay
11. A reactance relay is HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
(a) Voltage restrained directional relay TSPSC AEE 2017
(b) Directional restrained over current relay
Ans. (d) : Zero sequence current is used for relaying
(c) Voltage restrained over-current relay
purpose only in the case of ground overcurrent relay.
(d) Directional restrained over voltage relay
An earth fault relay used for the protection of
TANGEDCO AE 2018
transformer and an alternator, respectively. When an
PTCUL AE 2012
earth fault occurs, zero sequence current flows through
Ans. (b) : For reactance relay the neutral. It actuates earth fault relay.
T = K1I12 − K 3VI sin φ ( K 2 = 0 ) 17.
The phase comparators in case of static relays
K and electromechanical relays normally are :
for relay to operate V/I sinθ = X< 1
K3 (a) cosine and sine comparators respectively
∴ Reactance relay is a directional restrained over (b) sine and cosine comparators respectively
current relay. (c) both are sine comparators
12. In an induction relay, two fluxes with a phase (d) both are cosine comparators
difference are produced by HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
(a) pole shading TNPSC AE 2018
(b) using a secondary coil
Ans. (a) : The phase comparators in case of static relays
(c) phase splitting by resistor and inductor
and electromechanical relays normally are cosine and
(d) any one of the above
sine comparators respectively.
WBPSC AE 2009
A phase comparators compares two input quantities in
Ans. (c) :
phase angle, irrespective of their magnitudes and
13. Which one is not true for Mho relay?
operates if the phase angle between them is ≤ 90o.
(a) suitable for phase fault
(b) it has directions characteristics 18. Reset value of a relay is
(c) it is slow and not selective (a) the value of the actuating quantity above
(d) it is suitable where synchronizing swings which the relay operates
occur (b) the value of the actuating quantity below
WBPSC AE 2003 which the relay opens its contact and comes
Ans. (c) : to original position
(c) the value of the actuating quantity when the 25. Both voltage and current signals are required
fault clears for
(d) the time between the actuating quantity (a) plain over-current relay
exceeds pick up value to the instant the relay (b) a differential relay
closes
(c) a directional relay
TNPSC AE 2018
(d) a biased differential relay
Ans. (b) : Reset value of a relay is the value of the
actuating quantity below which relay opens its contact WBPSC AE 2017
and comes to original position. Ans. (c) :
19. A relay used on long transmission lines is 26. Mho relays have an R-X plane characteristic
(a) mho's relay (b) reactance relay depicted by
(c) impedance relay (d) no relay is used (a) a straight line passing through
Vizag Steel MT 2012 (b) a straight line parallel to X-axis
Ans. (a) : Mho Relay is used in long transmission line. (c) a straight line parallel to R-axis
20. A reactance relay is a- (d) a circle passing through origin
(a) voltage restrained directional relay WBPSC AE 2017
(b) directional restrained over current relay Ans. (d) :
(c) voltage restrained over current relay
27. Under voltage relay are mostly used for
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II (a) transformer protection
(b) busbar protection
Ans. (b) : A reactance relay is a directional restrained
over current relay. (c) motor protection
21. Under normal condition, the voltage across a (d) feeder protection
lighting arrestor is WBPSC AE 2017
(a) zero Ans. (c) :
(b) very small 28. In power system relays the load shed depends
(c) equal to phase voltage on:
(d) equal to line voltage 1. Self regulating factor d
WBPSC AE 2017
2. Power deficit in percent D
Ans. (c) :
3. System normal frequency fs
22. Angle of zone protection of Lighting protection 4. Frequency at any time f
system is approximately
(a) 200 (b) 100
(c) 45 0
(d) 800 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
WBPSC AE 2017 UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
Ans. (c) : Ans. (d) :
23. A lighting arrestor behaves like a 29. Which one of the following is not a main block
(a) high resistance of solid-state relays?
(b) linear resistance (a) Circuit breakers (b) Comparators
(c) variable resistance (c) Time delay units (d) Level detectors
(d) non-linear resistance UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
WBPSC AE 2017 Ans. (a) :
Ans. (d) :
30. Back-up protection is employed for protection
24. Plug setting of an electromagnetic relay can be of
altered by varying
(a) Over voltage
(a) air gap of magnetic path
(b) Over currents
(b) number of ampere turns
(c) Transient current
(c) adjustable back up
(d) by adjusting time setting multiplier (d) Short circuits
Ans. (b) : Ans. (b) :

31. The line trap unit employed in carrier current Ans. (a) : The arc resistance causes distance relay under
relaying: reach. The arc resistance depends on dielectric strength
(a) offers high impedance to 50 Hz power of medium.
frequency signal 35. Thermal relays are commonly used in
(b) offers high impedance to carrier frequency (a) Generator protection
signal (b) Motor starters
(c) offers low impedance to carrier frequency (c) Transformer protection
signal
(d) Feeder protection
(d) offers high impedance to 50 Hz power
frequency signal and high impedance to 50
Hz power frequency signal Ans. (b) : Thermal relay is mainly used in the low
voltage squirrel cage induction motor and in low output
KPTCL AE 2016
rating dc motor. This is commonly used in motor
Ans. (b) : A line trap, also known as wave trap, or high starters.
frequency stopper, is a maintenance-free parallel
Thermal relay has low over loading capacity. It is
resonant circuit, mounted in line on high-voltage (HV)
design to operate 6 to 7 time more than full load current.
AC power transmission line to prevent the transmission
of high frequency carrier signals of power line 36. Distance protection scheme is preferred over
communication to unwanted destinations. It offers high graded time lag over current protection relay
impedance to carrier frequency signals. because
(a) It is faster in operation
32. Inverse definite minimum time lag relay is also
(b) It is simple
called ___________
(c) It is cheaper in cost
(a) pilot relay.
(d) It is smaller in size
(b) differential relay.
(c) over current relay.
(d) directional over current relay. Ans. (a) : Distance protection scheme is preferred over
graded time lag over current protection relay because it
KPTCL AE 2016
is faster in operation.
Ans. (b) : Inverse definite minimum time lag relay is
Distance protection is comparatively simple to apply
also called differential relay.
and it can be fast in operation for faults located along
IDMT means inverse definite minimum time, so as most of a protected circuit. It can also provide both
the current keeps increase, the relay takes minimum primary and remote back-up functions in a single
time to trip the circuit. scheme.
Inverse means "higher the current value, lesser the 37. Lightning arrester must have which of these?
time taken for the relay" to trip the circuit. (a) Low impulse ratio, compare to the insulator
33. Over reaching of distance relay due to the (b) High impulse ratio, compare to the insulator
decaying DC component is avoided by (c) Impulse ratio of insulator & arrester should be
(a) Electromechanical relay same
(b) Solid state relay (d) Impulse ratio of 1.5 times the insulator
(c) Digital relay Vizag Steel MT 2011
(d) Impedance relay Ans. (a) : A lightning Arrester must have low impulse
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 ratio as compared to the insulator for its faithful
Ans. (c) : By digital relay over reaching of distance due operation.
The device which is used for the protection of the
to the decaying DC component is avoided. Digital relay
equipment at the substations against travelling waves.
is a software base protective relay.
Such type of device is called lightning arrester.
34. The arc resistance causes distance relay
38. Current chopping phenomenon is associated
(a) under reach with
(b) over reach (a) Resistance switching
(c) under reach or over reach depending on the (b) Capacitance switching
length of the line (c) Small inductive current
(d) reach unchanged (d) Asymmetrical current
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 GMB AE 2017
Ans. (c) : When low inductive current is being 42. The disadvantage of digital relaying system–
interrupted and the arc quenching force of the circuit (a) Requires signal processing component
breaker is more than necessary to interrupt a low (b) High burden
magnitude of current, the current will be interrupted (c) Flexible
before its natural zero instant. In such a situation the
(d) All of above
energy stored in the magnetic field appears in the form
GMB AE 2017
of high voltage across the stray capacitance, which will
cause restriking of the arc. Ans. (a) : The disadvantage of digital relaying system
1 2 1 requires signal processing component digital relay is a
Li = CV 2 protective relay that uses a microprocessor to analyze
2 2
power system voltage and current.
L
V =i 43. The relative permittivity of air is-
C
(a) 8.854 × 10–12 µF/m
39. Blind spot is a point in zones of protection (b) 1
where (c) 0
(a) Partial protection is available
(d) None of above
(b) No protection is available
GMB AE 2017
(c) Complete protection is available
(d) None of above Ans. (b) : The relative permittivity of air is 1.
Permittivity is the ability of substance to store electrical
GMB AE 2017
energy in an electric field.
Ans. (b) : The section of power system which is not
covered under any zone of protection is called as dead 44. In residential wiring in practice for earthing
zone or blind zone. The ideally the zones of protection the following method is adopted–
should overlap, so that no part of the power system is (a) Neutral earthing (b) Pipe earthing
left unprotected. (c) Plate earthing (d) Resistance earthing
40. Which zone of distance relay is affected by the GMB AE 2017
transient over reach phenomenon? Ans. (c) : In residential wiring in practice for earthing,
(a) First zone (b) Second zone plate earthing method is adopted. This is the type of
(c) Third zone (d) None of above earthing where plates are buried in the ground to serve
GMB AE 2017 as grounding accessory for electrical system.
Ans. (a) : The protected zone of the first unit is called 45. An isolator is designed to open circuit at–
the first zone of protection. It is high speed unit and is (a) Full load (b) Normal condition
used for the primary protection of the transmission line.
(c) No load (d) None of above
If the relay operates for a fault beyond the protected
line, this phenomenon is called over reach. Over reach GMB AE 2017
may occur due to transients during the fault condition. Ans. (c) : Isolator is designed to open circuit at no load.
First zone of distance relay is effected by the transient An isolator switch is used to ensure that an electrical
over reach phenomenon. circuit is completely de energized for service or
41. In differential protection scheme a stabilizing maintenance.
resistance is required to 46. In a biased differential relay, the bias is defined
(a) Block the relay current as the ratio of:
(b) Increase the relay sensitivity (a) fault current and operating coil current
(c) Reduce the effect of non linear CTs
(b) operating coil current and restraining coil
(d) None of above
current
GMB AE 2017
(c) number of turns of restraining and operating
Ans. (c) : In differential protection scheme a stabilizing
resistance is required to guarantees that the relay will coil
not trip during a through fault. The VDR is used to (d) fault current and restraining coil current
protect the CTs and the wiring by limiting the voltage CIL MT 2017
Vs during heavy inside faults. When there is a fault APTRANSCO AE 2011
outside the protected zone the CT secondaries will
WBSE TCL AE 2016
cancel each other's currents.
Ans. (b) : Biased differential relay– Ans. (c) : A MHO relay measures a component of
admittance Y <θ . But its characteristic- when platted
on the impedance diagram (R-X diagram) is a circle,
passing through the origin. It is inherently a directional
relays as it detects the fault only in the forward
direction.
50. The protection against direct lightening strokes
and high voltage steep waves is provided by –
(a) ground wires
(b) lightning arrestors only
(c) both lightning arresters and ground wires
(d) earthing of neutral
Ans. (c) : The protection against direct lightening
The above diagram represent that the ratio of their strokes and high voltage steep wave is provided by both
operating current and restraining current is fixed lightning arresters and ground wire. The main purpose
percentage. Therefore this relay is called biased of lightning arresters is to direct or discharge the surge
differential relay, because the restraining coil is also to the ground the most generally accepted and effective
called a biased coil as it provides additional flux. This method of protecting lines against direct strokes is by
relay is also known as % differential relay. the use of overhead ground wire.
47. The function of the earth wire in an extra high 51. Which of the following statement is true for
voltage line is to – MHO relay?
(a) prevent earth fault (a) Directional restrained over current relay
(b) provide a safety measure from any high flying (b) Directional restrained over voltage relay
object (c) Voltage restrained directional relay
(c) provide a shield to the phase conductors from (d) Voltage controlled over current relay
direct lightning stroke UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
(d) provide mechanical strength to the towers Ans. (c) : MHO Relay– voltage restrained direction
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II relay, MHO relay is less affected by power surge hence
Ans. (c) : The most generally accepted and effective use long line.
method of protecting lines against direct strokes is by 52. If the time of operation of a time delayed over
the use of overhead ground wires. This method current relay for unity time dial setting (TDS)
protection is known as shielding method which does not
is 10 second; then for same plug setting
allow an arc path to form between the line conductor
multiplier and other conditions being identical,
and ground.
time of operation of relay for 0.4 TDS will be :
48. The unit protection section provides
(a) 4 second (b) 25 second
(a) Primary protection
(c) 10 second (d) None of these
(b) Backup protection
RPSC VPITI 2016
(c) Simultaneous protection
(d) Remote protection Ans. (a) : For unity time dial setting, time of operation
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II is 10 second
Ans. (a) : The unit protection section provides primary TDS ∝ Time of operation
protection. If a fault occurs in a particular zone, it is the ( TDS)1 T1
duty of the primary relays of that zone to isolate the =
( TDS)2 T2
faulty element.
1 10
49. The distance relay with inherent directional =
property is known as – 0.4 T2
(a) Impedance relay (b) Reactance relay T2 = 4 sec
(c) Admittance relay (d) Ohm relay
Time of operation for 0.4 TDS is 4 sec.

53. Step potential and touch potential is associated 57. The neutral of 10 MVA, 11 kV alternator is
with : earthed through a resistance of 5 Ohms. The
(a) High voltage transmission earth fault relay is set to operate at 0.75A. The
(b) Earthing of substation CTs have a ratio of 1000/5. What percentage of
(c) Voltage rise in generator the alternator winding is protected ?
(d) Communication system (a) 11.8% (b) 15%
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II (c) 85% (d) 88.2%
Ans. (b) : Step potential and touch potential is HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
associated with earthing of substation. LMRC AE 2015
54. Directional overcurrent relay is used for the Ans. (d) : Primary earth-fault current at which the relay
protection of : 1000
operates × 0.75 = 150
(a) long transmission lines 5
(b) large power transformers Suppose P% of the winding from the neutral remains
(c) ring main distribution lines unprotected.
(d) radial distribution lines P 11×103
The earth fault current = ×
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II 100 3 ×5
Ans. (c) : Directional overcurrent relay is used for the For the operation of the relay, the fault current must be
protection of ring main distribution line. greater than the relay pick-up current.
55. Differential relays are used for protection of P 11× 103 1000
equipment against : × ⇒ × 0.75
100 3 ×5 5
(a) internal faults
or P = 11.80
(b) over current
This means that 11.8% of the winding from the neutral
(c) reverse current
is not protected.
(d) reverse power
Winding from the terminal is protected
100 – P = 100 – 11.8
Ans. (a) : Differential relays are used for protection of = 88.2%
equipment against internal faults.
58. In electromagnetic relays a spring is used to
• Differential relay is that type of relay which provide:
operates when the phasor difference of two or more (a) Operating torque (b) Restraining torque
similar electrical quantities exceeds a predetermined
(c) Mechanical support (d) Opposing torque
value.
(e) None of them
• This system is employed for the protection of CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
feeders, alternators and transformers.
Ans. (b) : In electromagnetic relays a spring is used to
56. Over conventional electromechanical relays, provide restraining torque, and operating torque is
the static relays have the advantages of : provided by the fault current.
(a) low power consumption, less maintenance 59. An electromagnetic relay has standard voltage
and greater sensitivity ratings:
(b) compact size and quick operation (a) 440 V, 240 (L-N)
(c) wide range of characteristic approaching (b) 11 KV, 440 (L-N)
more or less to ideal requirement (c) 110 V, 63.5 (L-N)
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II (e) None
Ans. (d) : Over conventional electromechanical relays, CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
the static relays have the following advantages– Ans. (c) : An electromagnetic relay has standard
1. Low power consumption, less maintenance and voltage ratings is line to line voltage is 110 volt and line
greater sensitivity 110
to neutral VLN =
2. Compact size and quick operation. 3
3. Wide rang of characteristic approaching more or
= 63.5 V
less to ideal requirement.

60. Lightning arrester is used to protect from: Ans. (b) A distance Relay is said to be inherently
(a) Switching surges directional if its characteristic on R-X diagram is a
(b) High amount of current due to short circuits circle that passes through origin.
(c) Over voltages due to indirect lightning The relay because of its inherently directional
strokes characteristic needs only one pair of contacts which
(d) High intensity direct lightning strokes makes it fast tripping for fault clearance and reduces the
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II VA burden on CTs. (Current transformer)
Ans. (c) : Lightning Arrester used to protect from over 65. Which of the following relays is used for phase
voltage due to indirect lightening strokes. fault on long transmission line ?
61. Mho relay is normally used for protection (a) Impedance relay
(a) long transmission line (b) Reactance relay
(b) medium length line (c) Mho relay
(c) short length line (d) None of the above
(d) none of these BPSC AE 2012 Paper- VI
PTCUL AE 2012 Ans. (c) : Relay used for phase fault on–
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (a) short Transmission Line (STL) : Reactance Relay
Ans. (a) : (b) Medium Transmission Line (MTL) : Impedance
• Impedance relay is non-directional and used in Relay
medium transmission lines. (C) Long Transmission line (LTL) : Mho relay.
• Reactance relay is non-directional and used in short
66. A very large generating unit is feeding power
transmission line. It is directional restrained over
to a grid. Which of the protection schemes is
current relay.
used for detection for loss of excitation of the
• Mho relay is directional and used in long transmission
generating unit
line.
(a) Offset mho relay
62. Mho relay is used to protect :
(b) Under frequency relay
(a) Long transmission line
(b) Medium length line (c) Percentage differential relay
(c) Short length line (d) Under voltage relay
(d) All of these UPPCL AE 2015
PTCUL AE 2016 Ans. (a) Very large generating unit is feeding power to
Ans. (a) : Mho relay used to protect long transmission a grid, offset mho relay used for detection of loss of
line. excitation of generating unit.
63. Which relay is used to detect and protect 67. Match list -I with List-II and select the correct
internal faults of transformer? answer using the code given below.
(a) Over-current relay (b) Thermal relay
List-I List-II
(c) Buchholz relay (d) Distance relay
A. short line 1. Reactance relay
B. Medium line 2. Impedance relay
Ans. (c) Buchholz relay is a gas activated relay, this C. Long line 3. Mho relay
relay is used to detect and protect internal faults of
D. earth fault
transformer.
Buchholz relay operates when the oil level in (a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-1 (b) A-1 B-2 C-1 D-3
conservator pipe of a transformer is lowered by the (c) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-1 (d) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-1
accumulation of gas caused by a poor connection or by UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
incipient breakdown of insulation. Ans : (a)
64. A distance relay is said to be inherently Short line - Reactance Relay
directional if its characteristics on R-X Medium line - Impedance Relay
diagram: Long line - Mho Relay
(a) Is a straight line offset from origin
Earth fault - Reactance Relay
(b) Is a circle that passes through origin
Impedance Relay is protection relay which functions
(c) Is a circle that encloses origin
depending upon the distance of fault in line these are
(d) Is a straight line passes through origin
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 also known as distance relay.
68. Over head transmission lines are provided with Ans. (b) :
earth wires :
1. To protect the transmission line from direct
lightning strike
2. To protect the transmission line insulation from
the indirect lightning strike
3. To balance the line currents
4. To provide path for neutral current
(a) Only 2 and 4 (b) Only 1
(c) Only 3 (d) Both 1 and 4
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Ans : (b) Most Over head transmission line having
voltage of 110 kV and above provided with earth wires
(or ground wires). The main purpose of the earth wires
is the protection of the conductors against the direct
incidence of lighting strokes, that can cause line
Fig : R–X characteristic of an impedance relay
outages.
∴ In the R–X plane, the operating characteristic of an
69. Impedance relay can be used for:-
impedance relay is represented by a circle.
(a) Earth fault only
73. The protective relay is used to
(b) Phase fault only
(a) Provide additional safety to the circuit
(c) Both earth and phase fault
breaker in the operation
(d) None of these
(b) Close the contacts when the actuating
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II quantity attains a certain pre-determined
Ans. (b) Impedance relay can be used for phase fault value.
only. It is used in short transmission line. (c) Limit the arcing current during the circuit
70. A relay with inherent directional characteristic breaker operation
is:- (d) Earth any stray voltage
(a) Mho relay (b) Impedance relay
(c) Reactance relay (d) Differential relay
Ans. (b) : The protective relays are provided to close
the contacts when the actuating quantity attains a certain
Ans. (a) : A relay with inherent directional
characteristic is Mho relay. predetermined value.
Protective relays are the device that detects abnormal
71. In a biased differential relay the bias is defined
as the ratio of conditions in electrical circuits by measuring constantly
(a) Number of turns of restraining and operating the electrical quantities which are different during
coil normal and abnormal condition.
(b) Operating coil current and restraining coil 74. Mho relay is normally used for the protection
current of
(c) Fault current and operating current
(a) Short transmission lines
(d) Fault current and restraining coil current
(b) Medium transmission lines
(c) Long transmission lines
Ans. (b) : The relay operate when the magnitude of the
(d) No length criterion
difference in current at both ends of a protected element
exceeds a certain percentage of Nr/N0 of half the RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
magnitude of their sum. Hence the name is bias HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
differential relay. Where, No = No. & turns of the Ans. (c) : Mho distance relays are widely used for the
operating coil and Nr = No. of turns of the restraining
protection of uncompensated and series compensated
coil.
transmission lines in order to determine the presence
72. In the R-X plane the characteristics of an
and location of faults.
impedance relay is represented by
(a) Parabola (b) Circle (i) Mho Relay – Long Transmission lines.
(c) Straight line (d) Ellipse (ii) Reactance Relay – Short transmission lines.
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 (iii) Impedance Relay – Medium transmission line.

75. Which is the main relay for protecting up to 79. In distance protection, the relay measures:
90% of the transmission line-length in the (a) negative sequence impedance of the line from
forward direction relay upto the fault point
(a) Directional over-current relay (b) positive sequence impedance of the line from
(b) Mho relay relay upto the fault point
(c) Carrier-current protection relay (c) zero sequence impedance of the line from
(d) Impedance relay relay upto the fault point
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 (d) negative, positive and zero sequence
Ans. (b) : Mho Relay is the main relay for protecting impedance of the line from relay upto the
upto 90% of the transmission line length in the forward fault point
direction. Punjab PSC SDE 2017
Mho relay is a high speed relay and is also known as Ans. (b) : In distance protection, the relay measures
admittance relay. It is a voltage controlled directional positive sequence impedance of the line from relay upto
relay. fault point.
76. The relay operating coil is supplied through Distance protection schemes are commonly employed
(a) Fuse for providing the primary or main protection and
(b) Current transformer backup protection for AC transmission line and
(c) Power transformer distribution line against three phase faults phase to
(d) Pulse transformer phase fault and phase to ground faults.
80. A lightning arrestor connected between the line
Ans. (b) : One of the most important parts of any and the earth in a power system
electrical relay is its coil. This converts electrical
(a) Protects the terminal equipment against
current into an electromagnetic flux which is used to
travelling surges
mechanically operate the relay contacts. The relay
operating coil is supplied through a current (b) Protects the terminal equipment against direct
Transformer's secondary terminal. lightning stroke
77. How many relays are used to detect interphase (c) Suppresses high frequency oscillations in the
faults of a three-line system? time
(a) One (b) Two (d) Reflects back the travelling waves
(c) Three (d) Six approaching it
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 Karnataka PSC AE 2017
Ans. (b) : To detect the inter phase fault, two relays are
Ans. (a) : Lightning arresters are also known as surge
used for a three line system when there is a need to diverters or surge arresters. They are connected between
control a circuit with either high voltage or power using
the line and ground all the substation. The main purpose
a low voltage circuit, we used one relay. This protective
of lightning arresters is to divert or discharge the surge
"relay circuit" Responds to "inter phase faults"
to the ground. And protects the terminal equipment
78. Which of the following providers protection against travelling surges.
against direct lightning strokes and high
voltage steep waves? 81. Which relays are best suited for the detection
1. Ground wires of the occurrence of severe synchronizing
2. Lightning arrestors power surges?
3. Earthing of neutral (a) Reactance relays (b) Split-phase relays
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 only (c) mho relays (d) Impedance relays
(c) Both 2 and 3 (d) 2 only JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III Ans. (c) : Mho relays are best suited for the detection of
Ans. (a) : Protection methods must be adopted to avoid occurrence of severe synchronising power surges.
flashover or breakdown of line insulators due to over Because mho relay is inherently directional and it is an
voltage caused by direct lighting strokes. admittance type of relay.
The effective method of protection lines against direct 82. The time of operation of distance relay is a
strokes is by the use of overhead ground wires. function of:
The main purpose of lighting arresters is to divert of (a) magnitude of fault current
discharge the surge to the ground. (b) magnitude of line voltage at the relay

(c) ratio of the line voltage at the relay to the Ans. (b) : An induction pattern over current relay is
fault current called 3 second relay when is tripping time is 3 sec with
(d) ratio of the fault current to the line voltage at this setting when time setting is 1 and plug setting
the relay multiplier is 10.
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI 87. The rating of lightning arrester used for 220
Ans. (c) : The time of operation of distance relay is a kV, 3 phase system is
function of ratio of line voltage at the relay to the fault (a) 220 kV, 10 kA (b) 220 kV, 5 kA
current. (c) 198 kV, 10 kA (d) 198 kV, 2 kA
V APSPDCL AE 2012
That is = Z that implies impedance. Hence it is
I Ans. (c) : Rating of lightning arrester used for 220 kV,
called impedance relay. 3-φ system
83. The order of the lightning discharge current is 198 kV, 10 kA
(a) 10,000 A (b) 100 A 88. The relay that most likely to operate during
(c) 1 A (d) 1 µA power swings is
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (a) Reactance relay
Ans. (a) : The order of the lightning discharge current is (b) Impedance relay
10,000 A. (c) Mho relay
84. For protection of rotating machines against (d) Buchholz's relay
lightning surges a combination used as APSPDCL AE 2012
(a) lightning conductor and capacitor Ans. (c) : Power swing is refers to oscillation in active
(b) lightning conductor and lightning arrester and reactive power flow on a transmission line,
(c) lightning arrester and capacitor consequent to a large disturbance like a fault. The out of
(d) lightning arrester alone blocking unit relay during the power swing is an off set-
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II Mho relay. During the power swing which enters into
tripling it will first enter the out of step blocking
Ans. (c) : For protection of rotating machines against
lightning surges a combination used as lightning characteristic.
arrester and capacitor. 89. A relay has a rating of 5A, 2.2 sec IDMT and a
relay setting of 125% TMS = 0.6. It is
85. IDMT (Inverse Definite Minimum Time) is the
connected to a supply circuit through a C.T.
characteristic of a relay for the following type
400/5 ratio. The fault current is 4000 A. The
of protection:
operating current of the relay is
(a) Short-circuit protection
(a) 6.25 A (b) 5 A
(b) Overload protection
(c) 8 A (d) 2.2 A
(c) Earth leakage protection
APGENCO AE 2012
(d) Earth fault protection
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II Ans. (a) : Relay current sating = 125%
relay rating = 5 A
Ans. (b) : IDMT (Inverse Definite Minimum Time) is
Operating current of the relay = 5 × 1.25
the characteristic of a relay for the overload type of
protection. = 6.25 A
86. An induction pattern over current relay is 90. The operating time of instantaneous relay is
called 3 second relay when is tripping time is 3 (a) 0.001 sec (b) 0.01 sec
sec with the following setting: (c) 0.1 sec (d) 1 sec
(a) Time setting is 1 and plug setting multiplier is APGENCO AE 2012
1 Ans. (c) : The operating time of instantaneous relay
(b) Time setting is 1 and plug setting multiplier is is- An instantaneous relay is one in which there is no
10 time delay provided intentionally and so the operating
(c) Time setting is 0.1 and plug setting multiplier time of instantaneous relay is 0.3 sec.
is 10 91. In power system protection the timings are
(d) Time setting is 0.1 and plug setting multiplier abbreviated as below.
is 1 Operating time of backup (OTB)
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II primary relay time (PRT)
selective interval time (SIT) Ans. (c) : The standard current rating of
circuit breaker operating time (CBOT). electromagnetic relay is 1 A and 5 A.
Select the correct inequality given below to 96. Distance protection relay is used in:
prevent mal-operation of protection system. (a) transformer (b) generator
(a) OTB > (PRT+SIT); SIT > CBOT (c) transmission line (d) motor
(b) OTB < (PRT+SIT); SIT > CBOT DMRC AM 2020
(c) OTB < (PRT+SIT); SIT < CBOT Ans. (c) : The distance protection relay is widely spread
(d) OTB > (PRT+SIT); SIT < CBOT employed for the protection of high voltage AC
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 transmission line and distribution line. They have
Ans. (a) : OTB > (PRT+SIT); SIT > CBOT replaced the over current protection because of
OTB → Operating time of backup following reasons-
PRT → Primary relay time (i) It provides faster protection as compared to over
SIT → Selective interval time current relay.
(ii) It has no need for readjustment.
CBOT → Circuit breaker operating time
97. A circuit is disconnected by isolators when:
92. HRC fuse has rupturing capacity of capability
______ in comparison with a circuit breaker (a) circuit breaker is not open
(a) Equal (b) there is no current in the line
(b) Greater than (c) line is on full load
(c) Less than (d) line is energised
(d) None of the other options LMRC AM 2018
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 Ans. (b) : A circuit is disconnected by isolators when,
there is no current in the line, there are use isolators, to
Ans. (c) : Rupturing capacity of a circuit breaker means
isolate the faulty part from the system and flow
the maximum power of a circuit breaker can interrupt
continuous power.
under fault. It is usually expressed in mega Volt
Ampere (MVA) and it is then the product of the rated 98. Which type of distance relay is not affected by
breaking current in kilo amperes and rated voltage fault arc resistance?
expressed in kilo volts. (a) Mho (b) Differential
93. For protection from lightning surges which of (c) Reactance (d) Impedance
the following devices can be used? CIL MT 2017
(a) Lightning arresters (b) Surge diverters Ans. (c) : The operation of reactance relay is
(c) Horn gap (d) Any of the above independent of resistance of the system and hence it is
KPSC AE 2014 used for the protection of transmission line where arcing
ground is more frequent.
Ans. (d) : For protection from lightning surges
lightning arrester, surge diverter and horn gap are used. It is non-directional relay.
These devices are used to defend the power system by It used for the protection of short transmission line
forwarding the high voltage surges in the direction of where the arcing ground is more frequent.
the ground. 99. Normally the human body resistance in totally
94. Which of the following relay is used on wet and dry conditions is _____ respectively.
transformers. (a) 1 kΩ and 1 MΩ (b) 0.1 Ω and 10 kΩ
(a) Buchholz relay (b) MHO relay (c) 100 Ω and 1 kΩ (d) 100 Ω and 10 kΩ
(c) Distance relay (d) None of the above CIL MT 2017
KPSC AE 2014 Ans. (a) : The resistance offered by human body may
Ans. (a) : Buchholz relay is used on transformer, this be as high as 100,000 Ω while wet skin may dry body's
relay is gas actuated relay, this is used for sensing the resistance to 1000 Ω.
anticipant fault.
100. Which of the following device is commonly
95. The standard current ratings of an
used for lightning protection?
electromagnetic relay are –
(a) 5 A and 15 A (b) 15 A and 20 A (a) Isolator (b) Over voltage relay
(c) 1 A and 5 A (d) None of these (c) Circuit Breaker (d) ZnO Varistor
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 CIL MT 2017
Ans. (d) : ZnO Varistor are ceramic semiconductor 104. A reactance relay is also known as:
devices used for protection of electronic equipment (a) Directional restrained overcurrent relay
against transient over voltages due to switching surges (b) Voltage restrained overcurrent relay
(c) Directional restrained directional relay
or lightning. (d) Voltage restrained directional relay
101. Fusing factor of a fuse is defined as the ratio of: BHEL ET 2019
(a) maximum fusing current to the prospective Ans. (a) : The reactance relay is a high-speed relay this
current relay consists of two elements an over current element
(b) maximum fusing current to the cutoff current and a current-voltage directional element. The current
(c) minimum fusing current to the rated carrying element developed positive torque and the current-
voltage developed directional element which oppose the
current
current element depending on the phase angle between
(d) maximum fusing current to the rated carrying current and voltage.
current A relay rated at 5 A is connected to the system
CIL MT 2017 through a C.T. with a turns ratio of 100. The
Ans. (c) : Fusing Factor– Fusing factor of a fuse is fault current in the circuit is 5kA. The plug
defined as the ratio of minimum fusing current to rated setting of the relay is 100% and the time
carrying current of fuse. Therefore, multiplier setting is 0.5. The IDMT
characteristics is a as given below.
Minimum fusing current PSM 2 3.6 5 10 15 20
Fusing Factor =
Current rating of thefuse Time (sec) 10 6 3.9 2.8 2.2 2.1
The value of fusing factor is always more than '1'. 105. The Plug setting multiplier for the relay is:
(a) 20 (b) 10
102. In SCADA, data loggers perform the.
(c) 5 (d) 2
(a) input scanning (b) signal amplification
DMRC AM 2016
(c) A/D conversion (d) recording
Ans. (b) : Given:-
(e) relay tripping Relay current rating = 5 A
CGPSC AE 2017 fault current = 5000 A
Ans. (e) : Data logging in SCADA is the process of CT turn ratio = 100
collecting and storing data over a period of time in order Plug setting = 100 %
to analyze specific trends or records the data based PSM = ?
events/actions of a system network or IT environment. Fault current
Data loggers in SCADA perform the relay triggering as PSM =
Relay current setting × CT ratio
in road traffic counting monitoring of relay status in
railway signaling, load profile recording for energy Relay current setting
consumption, vehicle testing etc. Plug setting ( % )
= × Current rating
103. The time which elapses between the instant 100
when the actuating quantity exceeds the pickup 100
= ×5
value and the instant when the relay contacts 100
close is called: =5
(a) operating time (b) reset time 5000
(c) breaker time (d) preset time PSM =
5 × 100
BHEL ET 2019
PSM = 10
Ans. (a) : Operating time- It is defined as the time
period extended from the occurrence of the fault 106. A list of relays and the power system
through the relay detecting the fault to the operation of components protected by the relays are given
the relay. in the group I and group II, respectively.
Reset time- It is defined as the time taken by the relay Choose the correct matches from the choices
from the instant of isolating the fault to the moment. given below.
When the fault is removed and the relay can be reset. Group –I Group –II
Breaker time- It is the time between termination of P. Distance relay 1. Transformer
Q. Under Frequency relay 2. Turbines
fault and final arc quenching in a circuit breaker is
R. Differential Relay 3. Busbars
called the breaker time.
S. Buchholz Relay 4. Shunt Capacitors
Relay time- The Internal between the existence of fault 5. Alternators
and closure of relay contacts is called the relay time. 6. Transmission Lines

(a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (b) P-6, Q-4, R-5, S-3 (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-6 (d) P-6, Q-5, R-3, S-1 (c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 5
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
Ans. (d): P: Distance relay 6: Transmission lines Ans. (b) : For proper fault discrimination, directional
Q : Under frequency relay 5: Alternator . overcurrent relays will be required at locations 2 and 3.
R: Differential Relay 3: Busbars 110. Buchholz relay is a–
S: Buchholz Relay 1: Transformer (a) Voltage sensitive device
A distance relay has ability to detect a fault within (b) Current sensitive device
preset distance along a transmission line from its (c) Frequency sensitive device
location. (d) Gas actuated device
Differential relay provides differential protection of
Busbars.
Ans. (d) : The Buchholz relay is a gas-actuated relay.
107. MHO relays are used for protection of Whenever a fault occurs inside a transformer, the oil in
(a) Long transmission lines the transformer tank gets overheated and gases are
(b) Power transformer generated. The generation of the gases depends mainly
(c) Busbars on the intensity of fault produced. The heat generated
(d) Short transmission lines during the fault will be high enough to decompose the
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019 transformer oil and the gases produced can be used to
detect the winding faults.
Ans. (a) : As long lines are subjected to power swings
and we know that MHO relays can protect from power 111. A thermal protection switch is used to provide
swings better than simple impedance relay or reactance protection against:
relay. Therefore MHO relays are used for protection of (a) Overload (b) Temperature
long lines. (c) Short circuit (d) Over voltage
108. Which of the following correctly represents the ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014
sequence of operations of isolator circuit Ans. (a) : In a thermal protection switch metallic link
breaker and earthing switch while opening a (or) thermal link is connected with the load in series.
circuit- When current flow through this thermal link it get hot
(a) Open circuit breaker – open isolator – close and deformed (Bend). Once it reaches the thermal cut
earthing switch off level due to the heavy over load then it disconnects
the load from the power supply due to bending effect.
(b) Open isolator – close circuit breaker – open
So the load is protected against over load.
earthing switch
(c) Close earthing switch – open circuit breaker 112. Lightning arrestor should be located–
open isolator (a) Away from the circuit breaker
(d) Close circuit breaker – close isolator – open (b) Near the circuit breaker
earthing switch. (c) Near the transformer
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 (d) Away from the transformer
Ans. (a) : Whenever a maintenance work or repair work
has to be done in power system, first of all circuit Ans. (c) : A lightning arrestor, also called lightning
diverter, is a device used to protect the insulation and
breakers are operated to open the part to be considered,
conductors of the system from damaging effects of
followed by opening of isolator and finally to discharge lightning stroke. They are normally located near the
the part we have to connect that part to the earth so that transformer.
no harm occurs to the worker and other instruments. 113. By which material the fuse element is generally
109. The distribution system shown in figure is to be made–
protected by over current system of protection– (a) Copper (b) Nickel
(c) Iron alloy (d) Silver
Ans. (d) : The fuse element is generally made by silver
material, because it does not get oxidised and its oxide
For proper fault discrimination directional is unstable. The conductivity of silver does not
over current relays will be required at locations deteriorate with oxidation.

114. For the protection of a very long extra high
voltage line, the protective relay used is–
(x) Surge of Transmission Line
(a) Over current with extremely inverse 1. Lightning arrester is normally connected
characteristics between .............. at the substation.
(b) Percentage differential relay
(a) phase and phase
(c) Reactance type distance relay
(b) phase and ground
(d) Mho type distance relay
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013 (c) Both (a) and (b)
WBPSC AE 2017 (d) None of the above
Ans. (d) : Mho relay is the most preferred protection for MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II
long transmission line. Because mho relay remains Ans. (b) : Lightning arrester is normally connected
unaffected by power swings which are quite a big between phase and ground at the substation.
problem in long transmission line. Mho relay is a high
• The device which is used for the protection of the
speed relay and is also known as admittance relay.
equipment at the substations against traveling
115. Determine the Plug Setting Multiplier(P.S.M) waves, such type of device is called lightning
of a 5- ampere over current relay having a arrester or surge diverter. In other words lightning
current setting of 125% connected to supply arrester diverts the abnormal high voltage to the
circuit through a 400/5 current transformer
ground without affecting the continuity of supply.
when the circuit carries a fault current of 4000
amp. 2. Surge impedance loading of a line is
(a) 7 (b) 10 proportional to
(c) 8 (d) 6 (a) 1/V
UPPCL AE 2014 (b) V
Ans. (c) : Plug setting multiplier (c) V2
Fault current (d) V
=
Current setting × CT Ratio × CT Secondary Rated current
4000 A
= Ans. (c) : Surge impedance loading (SIL)
125 400
× ×5
Vs VR ( KV )
2
100 4
SIL = = MW
=8 Zs Z0
116. Merz price protection scheme is the one from SIL ∝ V2
(a) Over current protection
3. Which one is the most common lightning
(b) Earth fault protection
arrester in transmission system?
(c) Differential Protection
(d) Distance protection (a) Rod arrester
(b) Thyrite arrester
UPPCL AE 2014
(c) Oxide film arrester
Ans. (c) : Merz price protection scheme is the one form
(d) Horn gap arrester
of differential protection.
WBPSC AE 2003
117. Burden of a protective relay is the power.
Ans. (c) :
(a) required to operate the circuit breaker
(b) absorbed by the circuit of relay 4. Surge current rating of an SCR specifies the
maximum
(c) developed by the relay
(a) Repetitive current with sine wave
(b) Non-repetitive current with sine wave
MPPSC AE 2017
(c) Non-repetitive current with rectangular wave
Ans. (b) : Burden of protective relay is the power (d) Repetitive current with rectangular wave
absorbed by the circuit relay.
TSPSC AEE 2017

Ans. (b) : Surge current Rating (ITSM) – It specifies 8. The surge impedance of 50 mile long
the maximum non-repetitive or surge current that the underground cable is 50 ohms. For a 25 mile
SCR can withstand for a limited number of times during long cable, surge impedance will be
its life span. (a) 25 ohm (b) 50 ohm
The manufactures specify the surge rating to (c) 100 ohm (d) 200 ohm
accommodate the abnormal conditions of SCR due to WBPSC AE 2012
short circuits and faults. If the peak amplitude and the
Ans. (b) :
number of cycles of the surge current are exceeded, the
9. An overhead line having surge impedance of
SCR may get damaged.
500 ohms is connected with an underground
5. When the load on a transmission line is equal cable of surge impedance 150 ohms. If a surge
to the surge impedance loading of 70 kV travels from line towards the cable
(a) The receiving end voltage is less than the junctions, the value of transmitted voltage
sending end voltage wave at the junction is ______.
(b) The sending end voltage is less than the (a) 31.84 kV (b) 24.48 kV
receiving end voltage (c) 32.30 kV (d) 29.89 kV
(c) The receiving end voltage is more than the UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
sending end voltage
Ans. (c) : ZS = 500 ohm (overhead line)
(d) The receiving end voltage is equal to the
ZL = 150 ohm (under ground cable)
sending end voltage
Transmitted voltage wave at junction-
TSPSC AEE 2017
2ZL
Ans. (d) : When Load on line = surge impedance eT = × ef
Z L + ZC
loading then power factor will be unity.
Loading on a transmission line is equal to surge 2 × 150
= × 70×103
impedance loading the receiving end voltage will be 650
equal to the sending end voltage. eT= 32.30 kV
6. Switching surge is 10. The surge impedance of a 3-phase, 400 kV
(a) high voltage dc transmission line is 400Ω. The surge impedance
(b) high voltage ac loading (SIL) is
(a) 400 MW (b) 100 MW
(c) short duration pulse voltage
(c) 1600 MW (d) 200 MW
(d) hyperbolically dying voltage
RPSC VPITI 2018
Vizag Steel MT 2012
Ans. (a) : Given, V= 400 KV ZS = 400Ω
Ans. (c) : Switching surge is a short duration pulse
voltage. Surge impedance loading
2 6
7. The surge impedance of 50 km long = V = 400 × 400 × 10 = 400 MW
underground cable is 50 Ohms. For a 100 km ZS 400
length it will be- 11. The inductance and capacitance of a cable is
(a) 100 Ohms (b) 200 Ohms 0.38 mH and 0.354 µF per km respectively. The
(c) 50 Ohms (d) 150 Ohms surge impedance of the lossless line is
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II (a) 27.62 ohm
Ans. (c) : The surge impedance practical significance is (b) 42.56 ohm
that no matter how long or short the transmission line. (c) 32.76 ohm
Therefore surge impedance does not depends on length. (d) 50.92 ohm
Hence option (c) will be correct. JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II

Ans. (c) : For lossless transmission line 15. The main consideration for higher and higher
R = 0, G = 0 voltage of transmission is to
(a) increase the efficiency of transmission
L
Zs = (b) reduce power losses
C
(c) increase power transmission capability
0.38 × 10−3
= (d) both (a) and (b) above
0.354 × 10−6
Zs = 32.76 Ω
Ans. (c) : The main consideration for higher and higher
12. The cause of surge voltage in power system are voltage of transmission is to increase power
(a) Lightning transmission capability.
(b) Switching operation 16. The reflection coefficient for a transmission
(c) Faults line shown below at P is
(d) Any of above
GMB AE 2017
Ans. (d) : Over voltage (or surges) on power systems
are due to various causes-
(1) Lightning
(2) Switching operation
(3) Faults (a) +1 (b) –1
13. Increase in load on a power system (loading) (c) 0 (d) 0.5
represents, _____ impedance.
(a) Increased (b) Decreased
Ans. (c) :
(c) Constant (d) None of the above
Ans. (b) :Increase in load represents the increase in
current demand of the system. Now current is increased
and assuming system is large then no voltage drop will
take place hence impedance will reduce to maintain
system stability. Z L − Z0
OR Reflection coefficient ( Γ ) =
Z L + Z0
V2
S.I.L = 300 − 300
ZC = =0
600
14. The surge impedance of a 400 km long
17. The time taken for a surge to travel 600 km
overhead transmission line is 400 ohms. For a long overhead transmission line is
200 km length of the same line, the surge (a) 6 sec. (b) 1 sec.
impedance will be (c) 0.02 sec. (d) 0.002 sec.
(a) 200 Ω (b) 800 Ω UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
(c) 400 Ω (d) 100 Ω Ans. (d) :The velocity of propagation of the wave is
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I = 3 × 108 m / sec
Ans. (c) : Surge impedance of the cable does not If 600 km overhead line
depend on the length of the line hence for the 200 km 600, 000
t= = 0.002sec
length surge impedance will remain same i.e. 400 ohms. 3 × 108

18. The surge impedance of a 50km long 21. A loss less transmission line having surge
underground cable is 50 ohm. For a 25 km impedance loading of 2280 MW is provided
length it will be– with a uniformly distributed series capacitive
(a) 25 ohm (b) 50 ohm compensation of 30%. Then SIL of the
(c) 100 ohm (d) none of the above compensated transmission line will be
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (a) 1835 MW (b) 2280 MW
Ans. (b) : Surge impedance does not depend upon (c) 2725 MW (d) 3257 MW
length of the line . So, the surge impedance of a 25 km LMRC AE 2015
length it will be 50 ohm.
Zse
19. The surge impedance of a 400 kilometer long Ans. (c) Zc = = 1pu
YOC
overhead transmission line is 400 Ohm. For a
200 kilometer length of the same line, the surge Given that for a given line 30% series capacitive
impedance will be : compensation is provided. Hence the series impedance
(a) 200 Ohm (b) 800 Ohm of the line is 70 % of original value.
(c) 400 Ohm (d) 100 Ohm 0.7
Znew = = 0.836 pu
RPSC VPITI 2016 1.0
Ans. (c) : As we know that, V2
surge impedance loading (SIL)=
L ZC
Surge impedance (Zs) =
C 1
SIL ∝
The surge impedance of a 400 kilometer is 400 ohm. ZC
Surge impedance does not change with change in length
of transmission line. So, surge impedance for 200 km ( SIL )2 ZC1
=
length of line is 400 Ω. (SIL )1 ZC2
20. An overhead line having a surge impedance of 1.0

(SIL )2 = × 2280 × 106
400 ohms is connected in series with an 0.836
underground cable having a surge impedance = 2725 MW
of 100 ohms. If the surge of 50 KV travels from
the line towards the cable junctions, the value 22. If the surge impedance of a 3-phase 132 kV
of transmitted voltage wave at the junction is : transmission line is 1000Ω, then surge
(a) 30 KV impedance loading will be:
(b) 20 KV (a) 1000 MW (b) 17.424 MW
(c) 80 KV
(c) 17.424 Ω (d) 70 MW
(d) –30 KV
(e) 1000 Ω
LMRC AE 2015
Ans. (b) Transmission of voltage co-efficient CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II
2r2 2z 2 Ans. (b) : VLine – Line = 132 kV
=
r1 + r2 z1 + z 2 Zs = 1000 Ω
z2 = surge impedance- underground
z1 = surge impedance in overhead line VL 2
SIL =
2z 2 ZS
Value of transmitted voltage = × 50 KV
z1 + z 2
132 × 132 × 106
2 ×100 =
= × 50 1000
100 + 400
= 20 KV = 17.424 MW

23. Surge impedance loading of a transmission line Ans. (c) : The 'Surge impedance' is the 'characteristic
can be increased by:- impedance' of a transmission line at the originating end
1. Decreasing its voltage level of the line.
2. Reducing the length of the line Surge impedance for underground cable is around
(a) Only 2 is correct 50Ω surge impedance for overhead transmission line is
(b) Only 1 is correct 400Ω and surge impedance for transformer is (1000-
2000) Ω.
(c) Both 1 and 2 is correct
(d) Both 1 and 2 incorrect 26. Peterson coil is used for
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 (a) Connecting to interconnected systems

(b) Shunt compensation of transmission lines
Ans : (d) Surge Impedance loading
(c) Reducing the fault current
( kV )
2
SIL = MW (d) Grounding the system neutral

Z0
Where, V = voltage Ans. (d) : Peterson coil is used for grounding the
Z0 = Surge impedance system neutral.
Also called resonant grounding or are suppressing coil
L grounding.
Z0 =
C
Peterson coil is provided with tappings which permit
Surge impedance loading is independent of the length selection of reactance of the coil depends upon the
of line and depends on the voltage. length of the transmission line.
If voltage level deacreses then SIL also decreases 27. The characteristics impedance of a
according to the above formula. transmission line with series impedance
24. What is the approximate value of the surge Z/ohms per unit length and shunt admittance Y
impedance loading of a 400kV, 3-phase, 50Hz mhos per unit length is given by
overhead single circuit transmission line?
Ζ
(a) 230 MW (b) 400 MW (a) (Z + Y)2 (b)
Y2
(c) 1000 MW (d) 1600 MW
2
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II Z Z
(c) (d)  
Ans. (b) : Surge impedance loading (SIL)
Y Y
= 3× Vph × Iph Karnataka PSC AE 2017

Ans. (c) : Characteristic impedance
( VL )
2
SIL = R + jωL Z
Zs ( Zc ) = =
G + jωC Y
Therefore, SIL =
( 400 ×10 )3 2
= 400 MW
Y, Z = Shunt admittance and series impedance per unit
400 length respectively
Where Vph = phase voltage For loss less R = 0, G = 0
Iph = Phase current VL = Line voltage. L
surge impedance Zs =
Zs = surge impedance C
25. The surge impedance of an underground cable 28. Surge impedance of a loss-less line in Ohm is
is around
1 C
(a) 400 ohms (a) (b)
LC L
(b) 25 ohms
(c) 50 ohms (c)
L
(d) LC
(d) 100 ohms C
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
Ans. (c) : Surge impedance of a loss-less line in Ohm 32. Surge impedance of a 400 kV, 100 km
is– transmission line is 400 Ω. For a length of 300
km, surge impedance of the line will be:
L
Z= Ω (a) 400 Ω (b) 800 Ω
C
(c) 200 Ω (d) 1200 Ω
29. The surge impedance of a 400 km long
overhead transmission line is 400Ω. For a 200 APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
km length of the same line, the surge Ans. (a) : Surge impedance is independent of cable
impedance will be length therefore for 300 km length it will be same as
(a) 100 Ω (b) 200 Ω that for 100 km i.e. 400 Ω.
(c) 400 Ω (d) 800 Ω 33. The surge impedance of a 100 km long
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II transmission line is 100Ω. For a 50 km long
transmission line the surge impedance is
Ans. (c) : Surge impedance of the cable does not
depend on the length of the line hence for the 200 km (a) 25 ohm (b) 50 ohm
length surge impedance will remain same i.e. 400 Ω. (c) 75 ohm (d) 100 ohm
30. The surge impedance of 100 Km long UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016

underground cable is 50 Ω. The surge Ans. (d) : Surge impedance does not depend on length
impedance for 50 Km length of similar cable of transmission line. So for 100 km and 50 km lines,
would be : surge impedance will be 100Ω.
(a) 50Ω (b) 100Ω L
Zs =
(c) 25Ω (d) 80Ω C
UJVNL AE 2016 34. A 400 kV surge travels on an overhead line of
Ans. (a) Surge impedance does not depends on length. surge impedance 400 Ω towards its junction
with a cable which has a surge impedance of
L
ZS = 40Ω. What is the transmitted voltage?
C
(a) 36.36 kV
31. The inductance and capacitance of a 400 kV,
(b) 72.73 kV
three-phase, 50Hz lossless transmission line
are 1.6 mH/km/phase and 10 nF/km/phase (c) -327.27 kV
respectively. The sending end voltage is (d) 400 kV
maintained at 400 kV. To maintain a voltage of KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
400kV at the receiving end, when the line is Ans. (b) : Given : Forward voltage wave (e ) = 400 kV
f
delivering 300 MW load, the shunt
Surge impedance (Zc) = 400 Ω
compensation required is
Surge impedance of cable (Z) = 40 Ω
(a) capacitive (b) inductive
(c) resistive (d) zero Transmitted voltage (et) = ?
APPSC AEE 2019 Formula :
Ans. (b) : Surge impedance of transmission line 2Z
et = × ef
L 1.6 × 10 −3 Z + Zc
= = = 400Ω
C 10 ×10−9
2 × 40
et = × 400
V 2 4002 40 + 400
surge impedance loading = R = = 400MW
Zc 400 32000
=
Load applied on transmission line is (300 MW) less 440
than Surge impedance loading (400MW) so, shunt
e t = 72.73kV
inductance is required at receiving end.

35. The surge impedance of a 60 miles long (a) 20kV
underground cable is 50 Ω. For a 30 miles (b) 50kV
length it will be :
(c) 30kV
(a) 25 Ω (b) 50 Ω
(d) 80kV
(c) 100 Ω (d) 200 Ω
APTRANSCO AE 2017
RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) :
Ans. (a): The transmitted voltage wave is given by:-
L
∵ Surge impedance =  2Z0 
C Vr = Vin  
L = Inductance/length  ZS + Z 0 
C = Capacitance/length Here, Zs = Surge Impedance, Z0 = 100Ω
Surge impedance is independent of length of line, so Vin = 50kV
surge impedance = 50Ω.
 2 ×100 
Vr = 50  
36. Surge impedance of power cables used in series  400 + 100 
with transmission line is in the range
200
(a) 400-600 Ω (b) 600-1500 Ω = 50 ×
500
(c) 40-250 Ω (d) 200-500 Ω
Vr = 20kV
Vizag Steel MT 2013
Ans. (c) : For power cables the phase spacing is much 39. Surge impedance of 3 Phase, 400 kV
smaller. This reduces the inductance while the transmission line is 200 Ω. The surge
capacitance remains high. Surge impedance for power impedance loading of the transmission line is
cable is 40Ω and for overhead transmission lines it is
(a) 400 MW (b) 1600 MW
around (400 – 600)Ω.
(c) 200 MW (d) 800 MW
37. The surge impedance in a transmission line
having negligible resistance is:
Ans. (d) : Given,
(a) LC (b)
(L)
V = 400 kV
(C)
Zs = 200 Ω
(c) LC − 1 (d) (L) + (C)
V2
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I Formula used: Surge impedance loading (SIL)=
Zs
Ans : (b) The surge impedance of a line having
negligible resistance and no shunt leakage is pure (400) 2
SIL =
resistance, is given by. 200
Ze = L / C SIL= 800 MW
If the receiving end voltage is assumed same as the 40. A surge voltage of 10 kV travels along a cable
sending end voltage, the impedance of line is resistance towards its junction with overhead line. The
of line. surge impedance of the cable and the overhead
38. An overhead line having a surge impedance of line is 50 Ω and 450 Ω respectively. The surge
400Ω is connected in series with an voltage transmitted to the overhead line is
underground cable having a surge impedance
of 100Ω. If the surge of 50kV travels from the (a) 2 kV (b) 9 kV
line end towards the line- cable junction, the (c) 18 kV (d) 20 kV
value of the transmitted voltage wave at the
junction is ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019

Ans. (c) : Given : Ans. (a) : Grounding is generally done in transmission
Surge impedance of line (Z0) = 450Ω line at sending end (supply side) in order to avoid
Surge impedance of cable (Zc) = 50 Ω shifting and detection of earth fault. The main purpose
of ground wire is to protect the power lines conductor
from direct lightning strokes.
44. What is the approximate value of the surge
impedance loading of a 400 kV, 3-phase 50 Hz
overhead single circuit transmission line–
2z o
VT = (a) 230 MW
zo + zc
(b) 400 MW
2 × 450
= × 10 = 18 kV (c) 1000 MW
450 + 50
(d) 1600 MW
41. The surge impedance of 400 km long overhead
transmission line is 300 Ω. For a 200 km length ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013
of the same transmission line surge impedance Ans. (b) : Surge impedance loading,
will be–
V2
(a) 150 Ω (b) 600 Ω (SIL) =
ZC
(c) 300 Ω (d) 75 Ω
where V is line voltage and ZC is characteristic or
surge impedance
Ans. (c) : Surge impedance is independent of length.
So, there is no change in surge impedance for any L
ZC =
change in length. Therefore answer will 300Ω. C
42. Surge impedance of overhead transmission line Normally the value of surge impedance is 400
is normally in the order of– Ω for an overhead line and 40 Ω for underground
(a) 1 − 5 ohms (b) 20 − 30 ohms cables. Therefore, for given data,
(c) 300 − 500 ohms
(400kV)2
(d) 300000 − 500000 ohms SIL =
400Ω
SIL = 400MW
Ans. (c) : Surge Impedance: The impedance of
transmission line without losses is known as surge 45. At surge impedance loading, magnitude of
impedance (Zs) or natural impedance (Zn). Sending and receiving end voltage are
for lossless transmission line surge impedance- (a) sending end voltage is greater than receiving
L end
Zs =
C (b) receiving end voltage is greater than sending
Surge impedance of overhead transmission line is end
normally in the order of 400Ω and for the cable its (c) not equal at the middle of the line
value is 40Ω. (d) Same throughout the length
Surge impedance does not depends upon length of the UPPCL AE 2014
line.
Ans. (d) : At surge impedance loading, magnitude of
43. Grounding is generally done in transmission sending end voltage and receiving end voltage are, same
line at–
throughout the length. when the line is terminated by
(a) The supply end (b) The receiving end
surge impedance the receiving end voltage equal to
(c) Middle of the line (d) Anywhere
sending end voltage, this case called flat voltage profile.
07.
Electrical & Electronics
Measurements
3. Standardization of potentiometer is done in
order that, they become:
(i) Basic Method of Measurement (a) accurate
1. Two 100V full scale PMMC type DC volt (b) precise
meters having figure-of-merit (FOM) of (c) accurate and direct reading accurate and
precise
10kΩ/V and 20kΩ/V are connected in series.
(d) accurate and precise
The series combination can be used to measure
maximum DC voltage of UPRVUNL AE 2016
(a) 100V (b) 50V TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
(c) 200V (d) 150V Ans : (c) The potentiometer is made direct reading type
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II i.e. the reading is read off directly from the dial setting.
So standardization is done is order to make the
Ans. (d):It is given: instrument more accurate and direct reading. It is based
R1total = 10KΩ × 100V = 1000kΩ on null balance technique.
R 2total = 20kΩ × 100V = 2000kΩ 4. A 0 to 300 V voltmeter has guaranteed
accuracy of 1% full scale reading. The voltage
R series = 3000kΩ
measured by the instrument is 83V. The
1 percent limiting error is:
I1max = = 0.1mA
10 (a) 0.95 (b) 1.81
1 (c) 3.62 (d) 4.85
I 2max = = 0.05mA RPSC AE 2018
20
Vmax = 3000kΩ × 0.05mA UPRVUNL AE 2016
ESE 2011
Vmax= 150V
Ans : (c) Solution-
2. The operation of all induction instruments % limiting error
depends on the production of torque due to: fullscaledeflection × % guaranteed accuracy
(a) The reaction between a flux φ1 and the eddy =
voltage measured by theinstrument
currents induced in a metal disc or drum by
another flux φ2.φ2 is depends on the current 300 × 1%
% limiting error = = 3.62%
or voltage to be measured φ1 is constant 83
(b) The main flux produced by the quantity to be 5. Eddy current damping is more used in
measured measuring instruments of
(a) induction type
(c) The reaction between a flux φ1 and the eddy (b) permanent magnet moving coil type
currents induced in a metal disc or drum by (c) moving iron type
another flux φ2 . φ1 and φ2 are dependent on (d) None of the above
the current or voltage to be measured. UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
(d) The reaction between a flux φ1 and the eddy UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
currents induced in a metal disc or drum by Ans. (b) : Eddy current damping is more used in
another flux φ2.φ1 is depends on the currentmeasuring instruments of permanent magnet moving
or voltage to be measured φ2 is constant coil type instruments.
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II PMMC instrument measure only DC or average
Ans : (c) The reaction between a flux φ1 and the eddy value.
currents induced in a metal disc or drum by another flux Scale is linear.
Spring is used for controlling torque.
φ2 . φ1 and φ2 are dependent on the current or voltage to Damping torque provided by eddy current damping.
be measured The sensitivity is higher compare to other instrument.
6. A (0-25 A) ammeter has a guaranteed accuracy Ans. (a) : Instrument errors refers to the error of a
of 1% of full scale reading. The current measuring instrument, or the difference between the
measured by this ammeter is 10 A. The actual value and the value indicated by the instrument.
percentage limiting error for this measurement Some types of instrumental errors are gearing, backlash,
is friction between moving parts and scale accuracies. etc.
(a) 0.025% (b) 0.25% 11. Standardization of potentiometers is done in
(c) 0.5% (d) 2.5% order that, they become
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I (a) Accurate
Ans. (d) : (b) Precise
% GAE × Full scale reading (c) Accurate and direct reading
% limiting error = (d) Accurate and precise
Current measured by ammeter TSPSC AEE 2017
GAE = Guaranteed accuracy error Ans. (c) : Standardization of potentiometer is a process
1% × 25 of adjusting the working current supplied by the supply
% limiting error = battery such that the voltage drop across a portion of
10 sliding wire matches with the standard reference source.
limiting error = 2.5% It is done so that potentiometer become more accurate
7. An ammeter of range 0–25 Amp has an and give direct reading.
accuracy of 1% of full scale reading. The 12. A meter reads 127.50 V and the true value of
current measured by the ammeter is 5 Amp. the voltage is 127.43 V. Calculate the static
The limiting error in the reading is: error
(a) 2% (b) 2.5% (a) 254.93 V (b) 127.465 V
(c) 4% (d) 5% (c) + 0.07 V (d) – 0.07 V
UJVNL AE 2016 TNPSC AE 2018
UPRVUNL AE 2014 Ans. (c) : Static error = Meter reading – True value
Ans. (d) Relative limiting error = 127.50 – 127.43
% Accuracy × F.S.D = +0.07 V
= 13. The stroboscope is used to measure?
Measured value
(a) displacement (b) pressure
1% × 25 (c) speed (d) temperature
=
5 TNPSC AE 2018
= 5% Ans. (c) : Stroboscope is used to measure speed.
8. Instruments having ______ are primarily 14. AC meters in indicate
responsible for loading effect. (a) Maximum value (b) Average value
(a) High resistance (b) High sensitivity (c) RMS value (d) Crest value
(c) Low sensitivity (d) High range TNPSC AE 2019
UPRVUNL AE 2014 Ans. (c) : AC meters indicate RMS value as AC signals
Ans. (c) Instruments having low sensitivity are effective value is RMS value.
primarily responsible for loading effect. When an In AC voltmeters-RMS voltage is displayed.
15. What is the permissible limit of voltage
instrument of lower sensitivity is used for heavier load
the measurement it makes it erroneous this effect is variations allowed in the distribution system?
known as loading effect. (a) ±2% (b) ±5%
9. The difference between the measured value (c) ±10% (d) ±6%
WBPSC AE 2017
and the true value is called:
(a) Gross error (b) Relative error Ans. (d) :
(c) Probable error (d) Absolute error 16. A coil with a resistance of 10 Ω is connected in
BHEL ET 2019 the direct-measurement mode. Resonance
UPRVUNL AE 2014 occurs when the oscillator frequency is 1.0
MHz and the resonating capacitor is set at 64
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V pF. The percentage error introduced in the
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I calculated value of Q by 0.02 Ω insertion
ESE 2003 resistance will be:
Ans. (d) The difference between the measured value Am (a) 0.1% (b) 0.2%
and the true value AT of the unknown quantity or (c) 0.3% (d) 0.4%
measurand is known as the absolute error of UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
Ans. (b) :
measurement δA.
17. A DC voltage has a sensitivity of 1000Ω/V.
δA = A m − A T When it measured half. full scale in 100 V
10. Gearing, backlash, friction between moving range: the current through the voltmeter is:
parts and scale accuracies are generally known (a) 100 mA (b) 1 mA
as (c) 0.5 mA (d) 50 mA
(a) Instrumental errors (b) Interference errors RPSC VPITI 2016
(c) Calibration errors (d) Interaction errors UPRVUNL AE 2016
TSPSC AEE 2017 ESE 2014
Ans : (c) Given that- Ans : (b) Instrument which shows linearity are
Sensitivity = 1000Ω/Volt permanent Magnet Moving coil (PMMC) instruments.
If represents calibration curve same as straight line
1
Im = because these instruments work only on D.C. so, it has
Sensitivity uniform scale.
1 21. Which of the following constitutes the most
Im = = 1mA important specification of an instrument?
1000
1mA (a) Resolution (b) Reproducibility
Current on Half Scale = = 0.5mA (c) Range (d) Sensitivity
2 UPRVUNL AE 2016
= 0.5 mA
Ans : (c) Important specification of any instrument
18. A resistor of 10kΩ with tolerance of 5% is should be its Range because it is minimum and
connected in series with 5kΩ resistor of 10% maximum value of measurand.
tolerance What is the tolerance limit for series
22. The largest change in the measured variable
network?
(a) 5% (b) 6.67% which produces no instrument response is called :
(c) 10% (d) 8.33% (a) dead band (b) dynamic error
(c) fidelity (d) threshold
UPRVUNL AE 2016
UPRVUNL AE 2016
∆R1 Ans : (a) Maximum change in measurand variable
Ans : (b) R 1 = 10kΩ, × 100 = 5%
R1 (input) which does not produces any reaction/change in
∆R 2 instrument output is called dead band.
R 2 = 5kΩ, × 100 = 10% 23. The correct statement about electrodynamo-
R2 meter instrument amongst the following is:
Req = 15 kΩ (a) Its scale is linear
So, tolerance limit for series network (b) It measures only DC
 ∆R eq  1   ∆R1 (c) It is a transfer instrument
  ∆R 
×100  = ×100  + R 2  2 ×100  (d) Its sensitivity is lesser than M.I. type
 R  R  1 R
R
 eq  eq   1   R2  instruments
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
1
= 10 ( 5%) + 5(10%)  Ans. (c) : Electrodynamometer is a transfer type
15 instrument.
 ∆ R eq  100 • Scale is non-linear
 ×100  = = 6.67% • it measures both AC and DC

 R eq  15 24. Choose the incorrect statement amongst the
19. The ratio of output change for a given given statements.
measuring system is referred to as– (a) Sensitivity of an instrument is directly
(a) Sensitivity (b) linearity proportional to deflection factor
(c) stability (d) fidelity (b) Precision of an instrument does not assures
accurate results
UPRVUNL AE 2016
(c) An instrument with more significant figures
Ans : (a) Output change ratio for a given measuring has more precision
system is called Sensitivity because measuring (d) An instrument requires high degree of
instrument should be sensitive and it has to sense the sensitivity
change in output ratio. UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
Stability- The ability of an instrument to maintain a Ans. (a) : In given question option (a) is not correct
certain physical property at a constant value while because sensitivity is inversely proportional to
rejecting any per turbations in the environment. deflection factor.
Linearity-Linearity means that for every change in the
1
variable you are observing, you get the same change in Sensitivity ∝
the output of the apparatus. Deflection Factor
20. Which of the following describes the linearity 25. Two quantities A = 1 ± 0.1 and B = 2 ± 0.2 are
of an instrument? added. Percentage error in the sum will be:
(a) Largest change in measured variable which (a) 0.03% (b) 3%
produces no instrument response (c) 0.1% (d) 10%
(b) Closeness of the calibration curve to a UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
specified straight line Ans. (d) : A = 1 ± 0.1
(c) Closeness of the indicated value to the B = 2 ± 0.2
measurand A + B = 3 ± 0.3
(d) Range of an inaccuracy which can be 0.3
%error = = 0.1 = 10%
tolerated 3
UPRVUNL AE 2016 so error in sum is 10%.

26. Damping torque in measuring instruments Ans : (d) The moving system of an indicating type of
provided by fluid friction damping is mainly electrical instrument is subjected to which is as
used: follows–
(a) Where low magnetic fields are produced (1) a deflecting torque
(b) Where high magnetic fields are produced
(c) Where deflecting torque is minimum (2) a controlling torque
(d) Where permanent magnet produces the (3) a damping torque
required deflecting torque 31. The type of instruments used mainly for
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 standardizing instruments in laboratories is
Ans. (c) : Damping torque in measuring instrument RRB SSE (Shift-III) 02.09.2015
providing by, fluid friction damping is mainly used (a) Indicating instrument
where deflecting torque is minimum. (b) Integrating instrument
Air friction damping : Where low magnetic field. (c) Absolute instrument
Eddy current damping : Where permanent magnet (d) Recording instrument
produce the required deflecting torque.
Ans : (c) Absolute instrument is used mainly for
27. A voltmeter must have a very high internal standardizing instruments in laboratories.
resistance so that the:
(RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I), 02.09.2015) 32. Which torque is essential for indicating
(a) accuracy is high instruments-
(b) resolution is high RRB SSE (Shift-III) 02.09.2015
(c) meter draws minimum current
(d) loading is maximum (a) Deflecting
Ans : (c) The internal resistance of the voltmeter is high (b) Controlling
and it is mounted parallel to the circuit. So that it can (c) Damping
measure the entire voltage. Due to the high resistance (d) All of the above
low current flows in it. Ans : (d) Deflecting, Controlling, Damping torque is
28. In a portable instrument, the controlling essential for indicating instruments. Indicating
torque is provided by : instrument include ammeter, voltmeter, wattmeter, ohm
(RRB SSE (Shift-I), 03.09.2015) meter and power meter in this category.
(a) Spring
(b) Gravity 33. In case of over damping the instrument will
(c) eddy currents become
(d) damping friction (RRB SSE Bilaspur Yellow paper, 21.12.2014)
Ans : (a) In portable instrument, controlling torque is (a) Oscillating
provided by spring. Gravity control is not use in (b) dead
portable instrument because value of g is not constant (c) fast and sensitive
for every place. This value is change for different places (d) slow and lethargic
and gravity control instrument should use always in Ans : (d)
vertical position which is not possible. So, in portable
instrument the controlling torque is provided by spring.
29. Why a damping force is necessary in measuring
devices :
(RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I), 02.09.2015)
(a) Device pointer to be deflected
(b) To move the pointer to an early stop after
being deflected
(c) To ocsillate the pointer about its last
deflected position
(d) To bring the pointer to zero
Ans : (b) Measuring instrument require damping force In the figure shows that deflection of over damped
as the indicator oscillates after reaching to its final instrument is slow and lethargic.
deflection position. The damping force acts as a brake 34. Which of the following types of measuring
on such oscillations, so that the indicator is in a steady instrument is used only for AC system?
state soon. (RRB SSE (shift-III), 02.09.2015)
30. The moving system of an indicating type of (a) Repulsion type
electrical instrument is subjected to (b) Attraction type
RRB SSE (Shift-III) 02.09.2015 (c) Shaded-pole type
(a) a deflecting torque (d) Electrodynamic type
(b) a controlling torque Ans : (c) Shaded-pole type of measuring instrument is
(c) a damping torque used only for AC system. These are mainly Induction
(d) All of the above type instrument.
35. The pointer of an indicating instrument should 40. A null-type instrument as compared to
be : deflection type instrument has.
(RRB SSE (Shift-I), 03.09.2015) (a) Higher accuracy (b) Lower sensitivity
(a) very light (b) very weighty (c) Faster response (d) All of these
(c) light (d) weighty RPSC VPITI 2018
Ans : (a) The pointer of an indicating instrument should UPSC JWM 2017
be very light and made by aluminium because Ans. (a) : Null-type instrument as compared to
aluminium is light in weight. deflection type has higher accuracy because there are no
36. Power in a DC circuit is measured by heating effect, strong magnetic field effect.
measuring the voltage across and current 41. Which of the following instrument can be used
through the circuit. The voltage and current for measurement of alternating current only?
measurements are made to an accuracy of ±2% (a) Permanent magnet type ammeter
and ±3% respectively. The errors are limiting (b) Induction type ammeter
errors. The error in measurement of power is: (c) Moving iron voltmeter
(a) ±2% (b) ±3% (d) Moving iron ammeter
(c) ±6% (d) ±5% RPSC VPITI 2018
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 Ans. (b) : Induction type of instrument can be used in
Ans. (d) : Error in voltage = ±2% measurement of alternating current.
Error in current = ±3% 42. The largest change of input quantity for which
Error in power = ±V% ± I% there is no output of instrument is called
= ±5% ______
(a) Dead time (b) Dead input
37. The function of integral error control is: (c) Dead output (d) Dead zone
(a) Increase the order of the system
(b) increase the steady state error KPTCL AE 2015
(c) Decrease the order of the system Ans. (d) : The largest change of input quantity for
(d) Does not affect the steady state error which there is no output of instrument is called dead
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 zone.
Ans. (a) : The function of integral error control is 43. What is the percentage error when 3 resistors
increase the order of the system. with ratings 100 Ω at 5%, 150 Ω at 6% and 250
There are improve steady state response, improve type Ω at 8% respectively, are connected in series?
of system by one. (a) 6.33% (b) 6.80%
38. The percentage limiting error, in the case of an (c) 19% (d) None of these
instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150V KPTCL AE 2015
voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1%
Ans. (b) : R t = 100 + 150 + 250 = 500Ω
full-scale reading is-
(a) 1.81% (b) 0.181% 100 × 5
(c) 0.00% (d) 18.1% ∆R 1 = = 5Ω
100
KPTCL AE 2016
6
Ans. (d) : ∆R 2 = 150 × = 9Ω
% Accuracy × F.S.D. 100
% limiting error = 8
Measured value ∆R 3 = 250 × = 20Ω
100
1% ×150
= ∆R t = ∆R 1 + ∆R 2 + ∆R 3
8.3
= 18.1% = 5 + 9 + 20
39. Errors which may be variable both in ∆R t = 34Ω
magnitude and nature (positive or negative) are
classified as Relative error of Rt = ∆R t
(a) Hysteresis error (b) Random errors Rt
(c) Systematic error (d) Interaction errors 34
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 = × 100
500
(RRB SSE Secunderabad Red Pepar, 21.12. 2014) = 6.8%
Ans. (b) : Random error is always present in the
44. The value of percentage error will be greater
measurement. It is caused by inherently unpredictable
fluctuations in the readings of a measurement apparatus when voltage being measured is–
or in the experimenter's interpretation of the (a) Smaller
instrumental reading. Random errors show up as (b) At full range
different results for ostensibly the same repeated (c) At intermediate range
measurement. Random errors are variable in both (d) No relation
magnitude and nature (positive and negative). Vizag Steel MT 2011
Ans. (a) : Ans. (c) : The errors introduced by an instrument fall in
 A − AT  category of systematic error.
The percentage error is given by  m × 100 50. Sensitivity of a strain gauge is given by
 AT  2 2
 ∆R   ∆ℓ 
A m = Measured value     (∆ℓ / ℓ)
where (a)  R   ℓ  (b)
A T = True value (∆R / R)
45. If the frequency of the supply increases, what (∆R / R )( ∆ℓ / ℓ) (∆R / R)
(c) (d)
happens the error of the measuring (∆ℓ / ℓ)
instrument? UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(∆R / R)
(c) Remains constant (d) No relation Ans. (d) : Sensitivity of a strain gauge =
Vizag Steel MT 2011 (∆ℓ / ℓ)
Ans. (a) : If frequency of the supply is increased then, A strain gauge is a resistor used to measure strain on an
error of measuring instrument also increases. object. When an external force is applied on an object
46. In measurement system which of the following due to which there is a deformation occurs in the shape
static characteristics are desirable? of the object. This deformation in the shape is both
(a) Sensitivity (b) Accuracy compressive or tensile is called strain.
(c) Reproducibility (d) All of above 51. Precision measurement of resistance is
GMB AE 2017 generally carried out by
Ans. (d) : Desirable Static characteristics of (a) voltmeter-ammeter method
measurement system- (b) CRO method
(1) Accuracy (c) potentiometer method
(2) Precision (d) bridge method
(3) Sensitivity UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
(4) Resolution Ans. (d) : Precision measurement of resistance is
(5) Linearity generally carried out by bridge method.
Linearity is more important than the sensitivity. 52. Sensitivity of a meter movement is 50 mV, 0 –
Accuracy is more important then resolution. 10 µA. The D.C. resistance of the coil is
47. The smallest change in a measured variable in (a) 50 Ω (b) 500 Ω
which an instrument will respond to (c) 5000 Ω (d) 50 kΩ
(a) Resolution (b) Precision UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
(c) Sensitivity (d) Accuracy 50mV
GMB AE 2017 Ans. (c) : D.C. resistance of the coil =
10µA
Ans. (a) : Resolution– The smallest change in input
50 ×10−3
which can be detected with certainty by an instrument is =
its resolution. 10 ×10−6
48. Which one of the following decides the time of = 5000 Ω
response of an indicating instrument? 53. The damping force in an indicating instrument
(a) Jewel and Pivot bearing is needed for
(b) Deflecting system (a) moving pointer from its zero position
(c) Damping system (b) producing a force equal and opposite to
(d) Controlling system deflecting force
DSSSB AE 2019 (c) to bring back the moving system to
ESE 2004 equilibrium rapidly
Ans. (c) : Damping system decide the time of response (d) stopping the deflection from going out of
of an indicating instrument. range of the instrument
Damping system is basically three types: UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
(i) Eddy current damping Ans. (c) : The damping force in an indicating
(ii) Air damping instrument is needed for to bring back the moving
(iii) Fluid damping system to equilibrium rapidly.
49. The errors introduced by an instrument fall in 54. A certain meter has a sensitivity of 50,000
the category ________. ohm/V. The current required to deflect the
(a) Environmental error (b) Gross error meter movement to full-scale will be :
(c) Systematic error (d) Random error (a) 5 Micro ampere (b) 10 Micro ampere
DSSSB AE 2019 (c) 20 Micro ampere (d) 50 Micro ampere
ESE 2008 RPSC VPITI 2016

Ans. (c) : Certain meter sensitivity is 50,000 (ohm/V) 59. A periodic voltage waveform observed on an
Current required = 1/sensitivity oscilloscope across a load is shown. A
1 permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC) meter
= connected across the same load reads
50,000ohm / V
I = 20 micro amp
55. For defining the standard meter, wavelength of
which material is considered?
(a) Neon (b) Krypton
(c) Helium (d) Xenon
LMRC AE 2015
ESE 2006
Ans. (b) : For defining the standard meter, wavelength
of krypton is considered. (a) 4V (b) 5V
56. A 0 - 100V voltmeter has an accuracy of one (c) 8V (d) 10V
percent at full scale reading. What will be the UJVNL AE 2016
error if it reads 50V? Ans. (a)
(a) 1 percent (b) 2 percent
(c) 0.5 percent (d) 4 percent
LMRC AE 2015
Ans. (b) : % error at reading value
% error × full scale value
=
reading value
1×100
=
50
∈r = 2% 1
57. The open circuit EMF of the Weston standard × 10 × 10 − 2 × 5 + 8 × 5
cell used for standardization of potentiometer Avg value = 2
is : 20 ( Time period )
(a) 1.0183 V (b) 1.183 V 50 − 10 + 40 80
(c) 1.1 V (d) 1.0 V = = = 4 Volt
20 20
CIL MT 2020
60. For the circuit shown, the reading in ammeter
Ans. (a) : The open circuit EMF of the Weston standard A1, when A2 and A3 show 12A and 9A
cell used for standardization of potentiometers is 1.0183
V. The EMF of a Weston cell remains constant for a respectively, is :-
long period of time provided that no appreciable current (a) 21A (b) 15A
is drawn from the cell. Weston cell is also called (c) 12A (d) 9A
Cadmium cell because of its use of cadmium. UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
58. A current I = 5 + 14.14 sin (314t + 40o) is
passed through a centre-zero PMMC, hot wire Ans. (b) : Reading in ammeter A1 = ( A 2 )2 + ( A3 )2
and moving iron instrument, the respective
readings are : Reading in ammeter A1 = (12 )2 + ( 9 )2
(a) –5, 15 and 125 = 144 + 81 = 15A
(b) –5, 125 and 19.14 61. A null-type of instrument as compared to a
(c) 5, 10, 10 deflecting type instrument has :-
(d) 5, 125 and 125 (a) A higher capacity
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 (b) A lower sensitivity
UJVNL AE 2016 (c) A faster response
ESE 2013 (d) All of these
Ans. (d) : Centre zero PMMC reads dc value of UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
measurement hot wire and moving iron instrument Ans. (a) : A null type of instrument as compared to a
reads RMS value.
Given I = 5 + 14.14 sin (314t + 45o) deflecting type instrument has a higher capacity.
PMMC → 5 Amps (only for dc component) 62. A Wattmeter has a full scale range of 2500
Watt. It has an error of 1% of true value. What
2 (14.14 )2 would be the range of reading if true power is
hot wire → 5 + ≃ 125
( 2)
2 1250 Watt?
(a) 1225 Watt – 1275 Watt
(b) 1245 Watt – 1255 Watt
(14.14 )2 (c) 1200 Watt – 1300 Watt
Moving iron → 52 + ≃ 125
( 2)
2 (d) 1237.5 Watt – 1262.5 Watt
Ans. (d) : Given, Ans. (c) Error constants of a system are measure of
True value of power = 1250 Watt steady-state response.
error = ± 1% Error constants are of 3 types-
1250 × 1 (i) Static position error constant (kp)
∴ ± = ±12.5 (ii) Static velocity error constant (kv)
100 (iii) Static acceleration error constant (ka)
So, range of wattmeter = 1250 ± 12.5
= 1237.5 Watt to 1262.5 Watt 67. A 0-10A ammeter is guaranteed for 2%
accuracy full scale reading. What will be the %
63. A voltmeter has a resistance of 2000Ω. When it limiting error when meter is measuring 5A.
is connected across a DC circuit its power (a) 2% (b) 1%
consumption is 2 mW. When the voltmeter is (c) 4% (d) 10%
replaced by other voltmeter of 4000 Ω PTCUL AE 2012
resistance, the power consumed by voltmeter Ans. (c) :
will be % Limiting error
(a) 4 mW (b) 2 mW
% Accuracy at full scale × full scale reading
(c) 1 mW (d) 10 mW =
RPSC VPITI 2018 Measured value
= × 2% = 4%
Ans. (c) : 5
V2 68. For what purpose the stroboscope instruments
P= used :
R
(a) To synchronize synchronous motors
V2 (b) To synchronize synchronous generators
P1 =
R1 (c) To synchronize induction motors
P1 = 2mW R1=2000 Ω (d) To synchronize induction generators
R2 = 4000 Ω PTCUL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : Stroboscope also called strobe tachometer
V2 P R
P2 = ∵ 1 = 2 can be used to measure rotation speed on revolution
R2 P2 R1 velocity of moving parts of an equipment. Stroboscope
R1 method is used to synchronize synchronous generators.
P2 = × P1 69. Which of the following instruments indicate the
R2
instantaneous value of the electrical quantity
2000 being measured at the time at which it is being
= × 2mW
4000 measure?
1 (RRB SSE (shift-III), 02.09.2015)
= × 2mW HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
2 (a) Absolute instruments
P2 = 1 mW (b) Indicating instruments
64. At high frequency the accuracy of all (c) Recording instruments
measuring meters :- (d) Integrating instruments
(a) Increases Ans : (b) Those instrument which directly indicate the
(b) Decreases instantaneous value of the electrical quantity at the time
(c) Remains the same when it is being measured are called indicating
(d) Depends upon the type of meter instruments e.g. ammeters, voltmeters and wattmeter.
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I 70. If an instrument has cramped scale for larger
Ans. (b) : At high frequency the accuracy of all values, then it follows
measuring meters decreases. (a) logarithmic law (b) square law
65. VAh metering can be done by using :- (c) uniform law (d) None of the above
(a) A ball and disc friction gearing LMRC AM 2018
(b) Trivector meter Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
(c) Bridge connected rectifier Ans. (a) : If an instrument has cramped scale for larger
(d) All of the above values, then it follows logarithmic law.
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I 71. The voltage of a circuit is measured by a
Ans. (d) : VAh metering can be done by using a ball voltmeter whose input impedance is low as
and disc and friction gearing, trivector meter and bridge compared to the output impedance of the
connected rectifier. So option (d) is correct. circuit. The error caused will be due to:
66. Error constants of a system are measure of (a) Loading effect (b) system error
(a) Steady state as well as transient state response (c) Random error (d) Gross error
(b) Relative stability UPPCL AE 2015
(c) Steady-state response Ans. (a) The voltage is measured by a voltmeter whose
(d) Transient state response
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II input impedance is low as compared to output
PTCUL AE 2012 impedance of the circuit, the error due to loading effect.

72. The minimum input required to activate an Ans. (a) :
instrument to produce an output is called:
(a) Accuracy (b) Creep
(c) Threshold (d) Resolution
UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (c) Minimum input required to activate an
instrument to produce an output is called threshold.
73. It is reported that the resistance values of two If the load current is small, the voltage drops in the
resistances are 100Ω ± 5Ω and 125Ω ± 15Ω. current coil is small, so that connection of fig. (a)
The resistances are connected in series. If the introduces a very small error.
deviations are standard deviations, the If the load current is large, the value of pressure coil
resultant total resistance is: current is very small as compared with the load current
(a) 225Ω ± 16.6Ω (b) 225Ω ± 15.8Ω and hence power loss in pressure coil will be small as
(c) 225Ω ± 20Ω (d) 225Ω ± 10Ω compared with the load power and therefore, connection
UPPCL AE 2015 of fig. (b) is preferable.
Ans. (b) R1 = 100 ± 5Ω 77. A measured value of capacitor is 100 μF. The
true value of the capacitor is 110 μF. The
R 2 = 125 ± 15Ω percentage relative error is:
(a) 9.99% (b) 9.09%
( δR1 ) + ( δR 2 )
2 2
Standard deviation =
(c) 10.0% (d) 4.76%
δR 1 = 5Ω, δR 2 = 15Ω Punjab PSC SDE 2017
ESE 2011
SD = 5 + 152
2
Ans. (b) : Given-
= 25 + 225 = 15.8 Ω measured value of capacitor = 100 µF
R = R1 + R2 = 250 ± 15.8 Ω True value of the capacitor = 110 µF
74. A wattmeter having a range 1000 W has an x − x test
%Relative error = true × 100
error of ±1% of full scale deflection. If true x true
power is 200W, the range of readings will be
(a) 190 to 210 W (b) 90 to 110 W True value − Measured value
= × 100
(c) 150 to 250 W (d) 100 to 200 W True value
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III 110 − 100 10
Ans. (a) : The range of reading = × 100 = ×100
110 110
1 = 9.09%
= 200 ± 1000 ×
100 78. An ammeter is an electrical instrument used to
= 190 to 210 W measure
75. In a generalized measurement system, the (a) current (b) voltage
function of the signal manipulating element is (c) resistance (d) none of these
to Mizoram PSC AE 2016
(a) change the quantity under measurement to an Ans. (a) : An ammeter is a measuring instrument which
analogous signal used to measure the current through any wire. It is
(b) to perform linear operation like addition and always connected in series with wire or load.
multiplication 79. Alternating current can be measured by
(c) to perform non-linear operations like filtering, (a) Moving iron repulsion type volt meter
chopping and clamping (b) Permanent magnet light ammeter
(d) change the magnitude of signal while
retaining its identity (c) Electrostatic voltmeter
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III (d) Induction ammeter
Ans. (d) : In a generalized measurement system, the Karnataka PSC AE 2017
function of the signal manipulating element is to change Ans. (d) :
the magnitude of signal while retaining its identity. Instruments Measured Quantity
76. When measuring power with an PMMC Only dc or average values
electrodynamometer wattmeter in a circuit Induction ammeter Only ac
where the load current is large Moving iron Both ac and dc
(a) the pressure coil should be connected on load Electrostatic voltmeter High voltages ac & dc
side
80. Which instrument cannot be used for both AC
(b) the pressure coil should be connected on
supply side and DC?
(c) does not depend on the position of pressure (a) Induction type
coil or current coil (b) Electrodynamic type
(d) the current coil should be connected on load (c) Electrostatic type
side (d) Moving iron type
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III Karnataka PSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : 84. The term artificial ageing in instruments is
Instruments Measured Quantity associated with :
Induction type Only ac (a) Springs
Moving iron Both ac and dc (b) Permanent Magnet
Electrodynamic type Both ac and dc (c) Damper
Electrostatic type Voltage ac and dc (d) Both (a) and (b)
81. The range of an electrostatic voltmeter can be OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
extended by using Ans. (b) : In permanent magnet artificial ageing is
possible. In artificial ageing the properties of magnet
(a) An inductor in series
can be control which may take a larger time if it happen
(b) A resistor in series in due to natural time process.
(c) A capacitor, of capacitance smaller than that 85. The fact as to how closely the instrument
of voltmeter is series reading follows the measured variables is called
(d) A capacitor of capacitance larger than that of the :
voltmeter in series (a) Precision (b) Fidelity
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 (c) Accuracy (d) Sensitivity
Ans. (c) : The extension of voltage range of an OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
electrostatic voltmeter done by using of a suitable series ESE 2016
capacitor Ans. (b) : The fact as to how closely the instrument
reading follows the measured variables is called the
fidelity.
86. The limiting error of measurement of power
consumed by the current passing through a
resistance are ± 1.5% and ± 1% respectively.
Then the limiting error of measurement of
resistance will be :
The capacitor multiplier consists of a set of capacitors (a) ± 0.5% (b) ± 0.1%
connected in series across the voltage to be measured (c) ± 0.25% (d) ± 3.5%
and the electrostatic voltmeter is connected across one OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
of them as shown in above figure. Ans. (d) : Given : Error in power (EP) = ± 1.5%
82. A voltmeter having an accuracy of ±3 percent Error in current (EI) = ± 1%
of full-sacle 250 V range is employed to read Error in resistance (ER) = ?
ER = EP + 2EI
150 V. The actual voltage value will fall within
ER = ± (1.5 + 2)%
the range
(a) 140.5 V to 150.5 V (b) 143 V to 150 V E R = ± 3.5%
(c) 142.5 V to 157.5 V (d) 147 V to 153 V 87. Which of the following is an advantage of the
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V analog multimeter over the digital multimeter?
Ans. (c) : Voltmeter has gross accuracy error = 3% of (a) No loading effect
full scale value. (b) High accuracy
(c) Smaller size
F.S.V = 250 V
(d) Less electric noise
∴ error = ± 250 × 0.03 = ±7.5 LMRC AM 2020
So when we try to read 150V, the voltage will fall in the Ans. (d) : As the digital multimeters generate more
range of 150 ± 7.5 = 142.5 to 157.5V. accurate results than analog one. Analog multimeters
83. Hysteresis error in moving-iron instruments are used for the measurement of quantities like voltage,
may be reduced by current and resistance. Analog multimeter shows less
(a) making the iron parts short susceptibility towards electric noise during
(b) reducing the length of the path of fluxes of measurement.
the coil to the shortest possible distance 88. By using low resistance shunt in permanent
magnet moving coil instrument, it can behave
(c) working the iron at flux densities, where
as.
hysteresis error is small (a) Flux meter
(d) All of the above (b) Ballistic galvanometer
BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V (c) Voltmeter
Ans. (d) : Hysteresis error in moving-iron instruments (d) Ammeter
may be reduced by JUVNL AE 2017
(1) Making the iron parts short Ans. (d) : When PMMC is used as an ammeter except
(2) Reducing the length of the path of fluxes of the for a very small current range, the moving coil is
coil to the shortest possible distance connected across a suitable low resistance shunt, so that
(3) Working the iron at flux densities, where only small part of the main current flow through the
hysteresis error is small coil.

89. Cross staff is essentially an equipment used for Ans. (a) : Swamping resistance is used in moving coil
(a) measuring horizontal distance only instruments to reduce error due to temperature.
(b) setting out right angles 94. Consider the following statements in
(c) measuring vertical angles of 20 degrees only connection with measurement of temperature:
(d) taking oblique offsets (a) A thermistor is highly sensitive as compared
JUVNL AE 2017 with platinum resistance thermometer.
Ans. (b) : Cross staff is essentially an equipment used (b) The resistance of a thermistor is solely a
for setting out right angles. The Cross-staff was a function of its absolute temperature, whether
navigational tool used to measure the angle between the source of heat is external, internal or both.
the horizon and a celestial body such as the sun or (c) A thermistor has linear resistance temperature
stars. characteristic.
90. What is the meaning of accuracy? (d) More thermistors exhibits negative resistance
(a) Dispersion of measurements temperature coefficient.
(b) Closeness of output to the true value Which of these statements are correct?
(c) Change in output for every change in input (a) a,b and c (b) a, b and d
(d) Degree of freedom from random errors (c) b, c and d (d) a, c and d
JUVNL AE 2017 APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (b) : Accuracy, refers to the closeness of a ESE 2001
measured value to a standard or true value. Ans. (b) : A thermistor is highly sensitive as compared
91. Brook's deflection potentiometer is used to with platinum resistance thermometer. The resistance of
measure. a thermistor is solely a function of its absolute
(a) unknown resistances which are of high value. temperature, whether the source of heat is external,
(b) unknown voltages which are constant internal or both. Thermistor exhibits negative resistance
(c) unknown voltages which are continuously temperature coefficient.
changing. 95. Suppose that resistors R1 and R2 are connected
(d) unknown resistances which are of low value. in parallel to give an equivalent resistor R.
DMRC AM 2018 With resistor R1 and R2 have tolerance of 1%
Ans. (c) : Brook's deflection potentiometer is used to each, the equivalent resistor R for resistor
measure unknown voltage which are continuously R1=300Ω and R2 = 200Ω will have tolerance of
changing. It is specifically used for calibration and (a) 0.5% (b) 1%
testing of deflection instruments in the laboratories. (c) 1.2% (d) 2%
92. Which of the following statements is APPSC AEE 2019
INCORRECT with regard to potentiometers? ∆R  1 ∆R1 1 ∆R 2 
(a) They can be used for a.c. magnetic testing Ans. (b) : ×100 = R  × × 100 + × 
(b) They are basically null-type instruments R R
 1 R 1 R 2 R2 
(c) Standardization of d.c. potentiometers is done R × R2
using d.c. standard sources R eq = 1 = 120
R1 + R 2
(d) Standardization of a.c. potentiometers is done
using a.c. standard sources ∆R  1 1 
APTRANSCO AE 2019 ×100 = 120  ×1% + ×1% 
R  300 200 
Ans. (d) : Potentiometer– The instrument design for = 1%
measure the unknown voltage by comparing it with the 96. An ammeter reads full scale current of 50 A
known voltage, such type of instrument is known as the with a 2% full scale error. Determine accuracy
potentiometer. error when the ammeter reads 10 A.
Characteristics of Potentiometer– (a) 10% (b) 30%
It measures the null or balance point which does not (c) 25% (d) 20%
require power for the measurement. APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
The working of potentiometer is free from the
source resistance because no current flows through Ans. (a) : Given, full scale value of current (IF) = 50 A
the potentiometer when it is balanced. % full scale error = 2%
It can be used for a.c. magnetic testing. Desired scale = 10A
Standardization of d.c. potentiometers is done using Accuracy error =?
d.c. standard sources. % accuracy error = full scale of value ×% error of full scale
But standardization of a.c. potentiometers is not done desired scale
using a.c. standard sources. So, option (d) is correct. 50 × 2
=
93. Swamping resistance is used in moving coil 10
instruments to reduce error due to. % accuracy error = 10%
(a) temperature variation
(b) strong magnetic field 97. Which of the following is a 'null' type of
(c) both (a) and (b) instrument?
(d) none of the above (a) Potentiometer (b) Voltmeter
APSPDCL AE 2012 (c) Ammeter (d) Wattmeter
ESE 1998 APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
Ans. (a) : Potentiometer is a null type of instrument. A (b) Moving iron type
potentiometer makes use of a balance or null condition, (c) Moving coil type
no current flows, hence no power is consumed in the (d) Induction type
circuit containing unknown emf when the instrument is DMRC AM 2016
balanced. Ans. (a) : Electrodynamometer type instrument will
98. A moving coil instrument of resistance 5Ω have the same calibration on both AC and DC.
requires a potential difference of 70 mV to give
a full scale deflection of 75 m V to give a full
scale deflection. The value of shunt resistance
needed to give a full scale deflection of 30 A is :
(a) 2.5 mΩ (b) 9.99 Ω
(c) 5 Ω (d) 9.95 Ω
30  I 
Ans. (a) : m = −3  = m
 75 × 10   Im 
 
 5 
Rm
m = 2000 R sh = Torque equation in Electrodynamometer Instruments :-
m −1 dM
5 Td = i 1i 2 where,
R sh = dθ
( 2000 − 1) i1 = instantaneous value of
Rsh = 2.5 mΩ current in fixed coil
i2 = instantaneous value of
99. The advantage of PMMC instrument is that it :
(a) is free from friction error current in moving coil
(b) has low torque-to-weight ratio M = Mutual inductance
(c) has high torque-to-weight ratio of moving between fixed and
parts moving coils.
(d) can be used on both AC and DC Now we will consider two cases :-
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 Case-1 :- When DC quantity is being measured.
dM
Ans. (c) : PMMC instrument has high torque to weight Td = I1I 2
ratio of moving parts. By which sensitivity of dθ
instrument is high and less frictional error. but this deflecting torque is controlled by the spring.
100. The sensitivity of gyro can be increased by : The controlling torque due to spring for a deflection of
(a) Increasing the mass of wheel θ.
(b) Increasing spin velocity Tc = kθ k = Spring constant
(c) Reducing the spring stiffness at equilibrium:-
(d) Both (b) and (c) Tc = Td I1 = current in fixed coil
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 kθ = I1I2 dM I2 = current in moving coil
Ans. (d) : The sensitivity of gyro can be increased by dθ
increasing spin velocity (or) by reducing spring  dM 
stiffness. θ =  I1I 2 . 
101. The measured value of a resistance is 20.25 Ω ,  dθ  k
whereas its true value is 20 Ω . Determine the Case 2 :- When AC quantity is being measured
absolute error. let i1 and i2 are sinusoidal current having a phase
(a) 1.0 Ω (b) 0.5 Ω displacement φ.
(c) 5.0 Ω (d) 0.25 Ω
i = I m1 sin ωt
DMRC AM 2020 1
Ans. (d) : Given that:- i2 = I m2 sin (ωt–φ)
Am = 20.25Ω dM
At = 20 Ω Td= (I1I2 cos φ). I1= RMS value of i1
dθ
Absolute error ( δA ) = |Am– At| I2 = RMS value of i2
= 20.25Ω – 20Ω Advantages:-
δA = 0.25Ω These instruments are free from hysteresis and eddy
current losses.
Where, They can be used on both AC and DC.
Am = Measured value They are used as transfer instruments.
At = True value
Disadvantages:-
102. Which of the following instruments will have Low torque/weight ratio and hence low sensitivity.
the same calibration on both A.C. and D.C.: Costlier than PMMC and moving iron type.
(a) Electrodynamometer type Non-uniform scale.

103. A moving coil instrument has a resistance of Ans. (a) : The pointer returns to its zero position on
5Ω and gives a full-scale reading of 100 mA. It removing the source producing the deflecting torque.
is desired to use this meter as a voltmeter for a This happens due to controlling torque. Controlling
range of 0 to 500 V. The resistance required is: torque is provided by spring and it is balance by
(a) 4995 Ω in parallel (b) 5 Ω in parallel deflecting torque.
(c) 5 Ω in series (d) 4995 Ω in series at balance condition,
LMRC AM 2018 Tc = Td
Ans. (d) :Given that:- Im = 100 mA = 100 × 10–3
Voltmeter for range 0 to 500 V. Where Tc = Controlling torque
Rm = 5Ω Td = Deflecting torque
Vm = Im.Rm 108. Multi-meters cannot be used to measure:
= 100 × 10–3 × 5 (a) resistance (b) current
Vm = 0.5V (c) voltage (d) frequency
Rs = Rm(m – 1) CIL MT 2017
 500   V 500  Ans. (d) : A multi-meter is also known as VOM (Volt-
= 5 − 1 ∵m = = Ohm-Milliammeter) is an electronic measuring
 0.5   Vm 0.5  instrument that combined several measurement
Rs = 4995 Ω in series functions in one unit. A typical voltmeter can not
104. The error when the meter is reading half of the measure frequency is only measure voltage, current and
full scale reading is: resistance.
(a) greater than the error when reading full scale 109. In moving coil instruments, the ______ scale is
(b) less than the error when reading full scale used.
(c) equal to the error when reading full scale (a) square (b) nonlinear
(d) equal to half of the error when reading full (c) logarithmic (d) linear
scale CIL MT 2017
LMRC AM 2018 Ans. (d) : In PMMC deflection torque,
Ans. (a) : Error when meter reading half of full scale TD = nBAI = GI n = no. of turns
reading is greater than the error when reading full scale. B = flux density
Measure value − True value A = area of core
% error = × 100 I = Current to be measured
True value
G
Error have minimum value at full scale. Final steady state deflection, θ =   I
105. Potentiometer is basically a device for: K
(a) measuring a current ∴ θ∝I
(b) comparing two voltages So, In moving coil instruments scale is linear.
(c) comparing two currents 110. The current sensitivity of a meter is expressed
(d) measuring a voltage in.
LMRC AM 2018 (a) ampere
Ans. (b) : Potentiometer:-A potentiometer (also (b) ohm/ampere
known as a pot or potentiometer) is defined as a 3- (c) ohm/volt
terminal variable resistor in which the resistance is (d) ampere/division
manually varied to control the flow of electric current. (e) division/ampere
A potentiometer acts as an adjustable voltage divider. CGPSC AE 2017
Thus, potentiometer is basically a device for comparing
two voltages. Ans. (c) : Voltmeter sensitivity is expressed in
ohms/volt. It is the resistance of the voltmeter at the full
106. A zero to 300V voltmeter has an error of 12% scale. Since, the resistance of voltmeter does not change
on full scale deflection. If the true voltage is with the position of pointer,. The total resistance of the
30V then the range of readings on this
meter is the sensitivity multiplied by the full scale
voltmeter will be:
(a) 20 to 40 V (b) 26.4 to 33.6 V voltage reading.
(c) 29.4 to 30.6 V (d) 24 to 36 V  
CIL MT 2017  1 
Ans. (b) : Given, True value = 30V, error = 12% Sensitivity = 
Error = ± 12% × 30   V 
Full scale Deflection Current  
= ± 3.6 V   Ω  
Low Range = 30 – 3.6 = 26.4 V The current sensitivity of a meter is expressed in
High range = 30 + 3.6 = 33.6 V ohm/volt.
107. The pointer returns to its zero position on 111. The range of DC milliammeter can be extended
by using a:
removing the source producing the deflecting
(a) high resistance in series
torque. This happens due to: (b) low resistance in series
(a) Controlling torque (b) Balancing torque (c) low resistance shunt
(c) Damping torque (d) Mass of pointer (d) high resistance shunt
CIL MT 2017 BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (c) : The range of an ammeter is extended by Ans. (c) :
connecting a low resistance shunt and the range of
voltmeter is extended by connecting a high resistance
multiplier is series with the meter.
112. Calculate the reading of voltmeter when 110 V
50 Hz is supplid across PMMC voltmeter
having internal resistance 10 KΩ and full-scale
range of 0-220 V.
(a) 110 2V (b) 55 V
(c) 78 V (d) 0 V
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (d) : A PMMC voltmeter read DC value only.
Here, the apply voltage is AC. Hence the PMMC
voltmeter read zero.
113. In a PMMC–type instrument, which type of
damping is employed?
(a) No damping
(b) Fluid friction damping
(c) Air friction damping
(d) Eddy current damping
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (d) : In a PMMC type instrument, Eddy current Eddy current damping Method is common in moving
damping is used. coil instrument. Damping torque in PMMC instrument
Air friction damping → moving iron instrument is produced by movement of Aluminium former in
Fluid friction damping→Electrostatic type magnetic field of permanent magnet. Due to movement
Fluid friction damping is always greater than air friction of Aluminium former an eddy current is developed on
damping because of more viscosity. the former which produce eddy current damping.
114. Consider the following statements : DC Application:- It can be used as :-
potentiometer is the best means available for (I) Ammeter
(II) Voltammeter
measurement of dc voltages because:
(III) Galvanometer
(1) The precision in measurement is independent
(IV) Ohmmeter
of the type of detector used
Advantages :-
(2) It is based on null-balance technique The PMMC consumes less power and has great
(3) It is possible is standardize before a accuracy.
measurement is undertaken It has a uniformly divided scale and can cover an arc
(4) It is possible to measure dc voltages ranging of 270 degrees.
in value from milli volts to hundreds of volts. The PMMC has a high torque to weight ratio.
Of these statements It can be modified as ammeter or voltmeter with
(a) 2 and 3 correct (b) 1 and 4 are correct suitable resistance.
(c) 1 and 4 correct (d) 2 and 4 are correct It has efficient damping characteristics and is not
DMRC AM 2016 affected by stray magnetic field.
ESE 1995 it produces no losses due to hysteresis.
Ans. (a) : DC potentiometer is best means available for Disadvantages :-
measurement of dc voltages because of higher accuracy The moving coil instrument can only be used on D.C.
due to supply.
(i) It based on null balance technique It's costly as compared to moving coil iron
(ii) It is possible to standardize before measurement. instruments.
It may show an error due to loss or magnetism of
115. Which of the following damping methods is
permanent magnet.
common in moving coil instruments:
(a) Air damping 116. Obtain the equivalent resistance of three 60 Ω
(b) Spring damping resistors in parallel.
(c) Eddy current damping (a) 10Ω (b) 30Ω
(d) Liquid damping (c) 20Ω (d) 180Ω
DMRC AM 2016 UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II

Ans. (c) :Here n = 3 Ans : (a) Permanent magnet Moving coil (PMMC)
R = 60 Ω type instrument are used only in D.C. circuits and
R moving iron instruments are generally used to measure
so, equivalent resistance (Req)= alternating voltage and current.
n Rectifier-Rectifier is a device which converts
60
R eq = alternating current into direct current.
3 121. The two basic forms of moving-iron type
Req = 20 Ω voltmeters and ammeters are:
117. Which of the following type of measuring (a) Permanent magnet type and electrodynamic
instruments is used in the measurement of the type
measurement of ac quantity only? (b) Attraction type and repulsion type
(a) Repulsion moving-iron type (c) Split–phase type and shaded-pole type
(b) Permanent-magnet moving coil type (d) Induction type and electrostatic type
(c) Split-phase induction type UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
(d) Hot-wire type OMC Deputy manager 2019
Ans : (b) Moving iron type instruments are of mainly
Ans. (c) : Split phase type induction instrument- it two type.
consists of a laminated magnet with the pairs of poles at (a) Attraction type (b) Repulsion type
right angles to each other. coils are wound on the poles, It works on the principle that the iron place near the
the opposite poles being connected in series the coils on
magnet towards it.
the two pairs of poles are connected in parallel.
Torque produce in split phase type induction Attraction type- In this, the iron plate attract from the
instrument. weaker filed to words the stronger field.
Tm ∝ θrms cosα Repulsion type- It has two vanes or iron plates one is
its measures only AC quantity. fixed and other is movable.
118. Which of the following is not true with respect 122. A current of −8 + 6 2(sin ωt + 300 ) A is passed
to induction type instruments? through three meters. They are a centre zero
(a) They have very small-open scales θ PMMC meter, a true rms meter and a moving
(b) Damping is very efficient iron instrument. The respective readings in A
(c) They are not much affected by external stray will be–
fields (a) 8, 6, 10 (b) 8, 6, 8
(d) Their power consumption is fairly large and (c) –8, 10, 10 (d) –8, 2, 2
cost relatively high UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II APTRANSCO AE 2011
Ans : (a) Induction type instruments usually have an Ans. (c) :
electromagnet produce that required magnetic field. AC PMMC meter measure only average value.
in the electromagnet produces changing flux. They are Hence reading = –8Amp
not affected by external stray field damping is very
2
efficient and large power consumption. 6 2 
119. Which of the following error/s occurs in only in By a true RMS meter I rms = 82 +   = 10Amp
ac measurements?  2 
(a) errors due to change in impedance of the coil
and stray fields By moving iron instrument,
(b) Errors due to hysteresis and stray fields 2
(c) Errors due to change in impedance of the coil 2 6 2 
and change in the magnitude of the eddy I rms = 8 +   = 10Amp
currents  2 
(d) Error due to hysteresis 123. A circuit with a resistor, inductor, and
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II capacitor in series has a resonant frequency of
Ans : (c) Eddy current is result of varying magnetic f0 Hz. if all the component values are now
flux which is product of A.C. circuit not D.C circuit. doubled. the new resonant frequency is
120. Match items in Row 1 with Row 2. (a) 2f0 (b) f0/2
Row1 Row2 (c) f0/4 (d) f0
1. Permanent Magnet a. DC only UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I
Moving Coil Ans : (b) Resonant frequency = f0
2. Moving iron b. AC only For series resonant RLC circuit :-
connected through
current Transformer 1
f0 = Hz
3. Rectifier c.AC and DC 2π LC
(a) 1→a, 2→b; 3→c after we double the value of Inductor and capacitor The
(b) 1→b, 2→c; 3→a new frequency is f0'.
(c) 1→c, 2→b; 3→a
1
(d) 1→c, 2→a; 3→b f 0' =
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I 2π 2L × 2C
f0 1 126. Accuracy is defined as–
So, = × 2π 2L × 2C (a) The measure of consistency of the readings
f 0' 2π LC (b) Closeness with which an instrument reading
f0 f approaches the true value of the quantity
= 2, f 0' = 0 being measured
f 0' 2 (c) The smallest measurable input change
124. The inductance of a certain moving-iron (d) The ratio of the input to output
θ2
ammeter is expressed as L = 10 + 3θ − µH, Ans. (b) : Accuracy of a measuring instrument is defined as
4 “the closeness with which an instrument reading approaches
where θ is the deflection in radians from the the true value of the quantity to be measured”.
zero position. The control spring torque is For example, if a true value is 10 unit and you
25×10-6 Nm/radian. The deflection of the measure it 9.99 unit by one instrument and 9.2 unit by
pointer in radians, when the meter carries another instrument, then the first instrument is more
current of 5 A rms. is accurate than the latter one.
(a) 2.4 (b) 2.0 127. The sensitivity of an instrument is–
(c) 1.2 (d) 1.0 (a) The smallest increment in the input that can
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift I be detected with certainty
(b) The largest input change to which the
Ans : (c) Given data :- instrument fails to respond
θ2 (c) Ratio of the change in the magnitude of the
L = 10 + 3θ − µH output to the corresponding change in the
4
magnitude of the input
K = 25 × 10 −6 Nm / radian (d) Closeness of the output values for repeated
For the balance null operation application of a constant input
Deflecting torque = Controlling torque ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017
1 dL Ans. (c) : Sensitivity:- The sensitivity is the ratio of
Kθ = i 2 change in output of an instrument to the change in
2 dθ
input.
1  θ
25 ×10−6 × θ = × 52 ×  3 −  ×10−6 ∆q 0
2  2 Sensitivity =
∆q i
1 θ Where, ∆q 0 = infinitesimal change in output
θ = 3− 
2 2 ∆q1 = infinitesimal change in input
θ = 1.2 rad 128. Potentiometer sensitivity can be increased by–
125. Four ammeters M1, M2, M3 and M4 with the (a) Decreasing current in the potentiometer wire
(b) Increasing the length of the potentiometer
following specifications are available: wire
Instru- Type Full Accuracy (c) Decreasing the length of the potentiometer
ment Scale % of Full wire
Value Scale (d) Replacing the cell by a regulated power
M1 31/2 digital 20 ± 0.10 supply
dual slope 31/2 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017
M2 PMMC 10 ± 0.20 UPPCL AE 2014
Ans. (b) : Sensitivity of a potentiometer is the smallest
M3 Electrodynamic 5 ± 0.50
potential difference that can be measured with the help
M4 Moving Iron 1 ± 1.00 of potentiometer. Sensitivity of potentiometer can be
A current of 1 A is to be measured. To ensure increased by decreasing its potential gradient. Thus it
minimum error in the reading, one should can also be increased by:
select the meter (1) Increasing the length of potentiometer wire.
(a) M3 (b) M4 (2) If the potentiometer wire is a fixed length, the
(c) M1 (d) M2 potential gradient can be decreased by reducing the
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II current in the wire with the help of rheostat and
using a single cell.
ESE 2014
Ans. (b): First of all determine the absolute errors for
all instrument
Absolute error of M1 : e1 = 20×0.1%= 2%
Absolute error of M2 : e2 = 10×0.2%= 2%
Absolute error of M3 : e3 = 5×0.5%= 2.5%
Absolute error of M4 : e4 =1×1%= 1%
As we can see that M4 have least absolute error

129. What is the “swamping” resistance which is 132. Consider the following statements with regard
connected in series with the working coil of a to Moving Iron (MI) instructions:
voltmeter to drastically reduce the error in 1. These instruments possess high operating
measurement caused due to variation in torque.
temperature is made up of? 2. These instruments can be used in ac and dc
(a) Constantan (b) Eureka circuits.
(c) Manganin (d) Nichrome 3. Power consumption in these instruments is
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 lower for low voltage range.
ESE 2008 Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans. (c) : Swamping resistance is the resistance with (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
zero-temperature coefficient. It is made up of manganin (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
and connected in series with the meter coil to reduce the ESE 2017
error/variations due to temperature. 1 dL
Directions : Consists of two statements, one labelled as Ans. (a) : Deflecting Torque, Td = I 2
'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine 2 dθ
these two statements carefully and select the answers to Hence the deflection is proportional to square of the rms
these items using the codes given below: value of the operating current.
Codes: Since, it depends on square of rms value of current, if is
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are independent of direction of current i.e, if can measure
individually true and Statement (II) is the both a.c. & d.c.
correct explanation of Statement (I) For low voltage range measurement, the power
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are consumption is higher.
individually true but Statement (II) is not the 133. A current of (10 + 5 sin ωt + 3 sin 2 ωt) is
correct explanation of Statement (I) measured using a moving iron instrument. The
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false reading would be
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true (a) 08.82 A (b) 10.00 A
130. Statement (I): (c) 10.82 A (d) 12.75 A
Moving iron instruments are used in ac circuits ESE 2017
only. Ans. (c) : As we know that M.I instruments measure
Statement (II): rms value so,
The deflecting torque in moving iron instructions 2 2
depends on the square of the current.  5   3 
Irms = (10 ) + 
2
ESE 2017  + 
 2  2
Ans. (d) : As there is iron part which is attracted by the
magnetic field induced in coil, irrespective can measure, = 117
Moving iron instruments can measure both AC & DC. = 10.82 A
1  dL  Directions:
(statement-I-False) Deflecting Torque, τd ∝ I 2   consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement
2  dθ  . (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these
i.e. τd ∝ I 2 two statements carefully and select the answers to
Directions : Consists of two statements, one labelled as these items using the codes given below:
'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine Codes:
these two statements carefully and select the answers to (a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
these items using the codes given below: individually true; and Statement (II) is the
Codes: correct explanation of Statement (I)
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are (b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
individually true and Statement (II) is the individually true; but Statement (II) is NOT
correct explanation of Statement (I) the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are (c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is
individually true but Statement (II) is not the false
correct explanation of Statement (I) (d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement (II) is
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false true
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true 134. Statement (I) : The rotating disc in an energy
131. Statement (I): meter is made of a magnetic material.
PMMC instruments are suitable in aircraft and air Statement (II) : Braking takes place due to eddy
space applications. current generated by the braking magnet.
Statement (II): ESE 2018
PMMC instruments use a core magnet which Ans. (d) : In this statement I is false and statement II is
possesses self-shielding property. correct. Rotating disc of energy meter made of
ESE 2017 aluminium which is Non-magnetic materials.
Ans. (a) : Core magnet of PMMC instrument produce For breaking torque, a permanent magnet called braking
high magnetic field which provide self-shielding magnet is used to induce eddy currents is some part of
property. Thus these are applicable in aircrafts and air disc. These eddy current produces a braking torque
space. which is proportional to the speed of rotating disc.

Braking torque, TB = τ B = kφir 4 C1 + C d
Where, k = constant =
2 C 2 + Cd
φ = flux of magnet
i = eddy current C1 + Cd
=4
r = resistance of eddy current path C2 + Cd
So, statement (I) is incorrect and statement (II) is C1 + Cd = 4C2 + 4Cd
correct. C − 4C 2
135. A 0-150 V voltmeter has a guaranteed accuracy Cd = 1
of 1% full scale reading. The voltage measured 3
by this instrument is 83 V. The limiting error 460 − ( 4 × 100 )
=
will be nearly 3
(a) 1.2% (b) 1.8% = 20 pF
(c) 2.4% (d) 3.2% distributed capacitance,
ESE 2019 Cd = 20 pF
ESE 2010 138. In a PMMC instrument, the swamping resistor
Ans. (b) : Guaranteed accuracy is used to
1 (a) Increase the damping of the instrument
= 150 × = 1.5V (b) Reduce the current within safe limits
100
while measuring 83 V on (0-150) V (c) Compensate for temperature variations
volt meter, it may read [83 ± 1.5] V. (d) Increase the scale sensitivity
ESE 2019
1.5
Hence, limiting error = × 100 Ans. (c) : In PMMC instrument the swamping resistor
83 is used to compensate for temperature variation.
= 1.8% Swamping resistance is made of maganin which has a
136. The variations in the measured quantity due to negligible temperature coefficient.
sensitivity of transducer to any plane other Swamping resistance is 20 to 30 times the coil
than the required plane is resistance.
(a) Cross sensitivity 139. A moving coil ammeter has a fixed shunt of
(b) Sensitivity 0.02Ω. With a coil resistance of R = 1000Ω and
(c) Interference a potential difference of 500 mV across it, full
(d) Distributed sensitivity scale deflection is obtained. The current
ESE 2019 through the moving coil to give full scale
Ans. (a) : The variation in the measured quantity due to deflection will be
sensitivity of transducer to any plane other than the (a) 25A (b) 0.5×10-2A
required plane is called cross-sensitivity. sometimes (c) 0.25×10 A-3
(d) 0.5×10-3A
situation may occur where the equipment is very ESE 2019
sensitive to the plane perpendicular to the required Ans. (d) :
plane and we have to abandon that equipment due to
erroneous result.
137. The self-capacitance of a coil measured by the
resonating capacitor. The measurement gives
the value of tuning capacitor as C1 = 460 pF at
a frequency, f1 = 2 MHz. The second
measurement at f2 = 4 MHz yields a new value 500 × 10−3
Current through the coil =
of tuning capacitor, C2 = 100 pF. The 1000
distributed capacitance Cd will be = 0.5 mA
(a) 10 pF (b) 20 pF 500 × 10−3
(c) 30 pF (d) 40 pF Current through the shunt = = 25 Amp
0.02
ESE 2019 Hence, Current through the moving coil to give full
Ans. (b) : Resonance Frequency scale deflection = 0.5×10-3A.
1 140. A moving iron instrument has full scale current
f1 = of 100 mA. It is converted into a 250V
2π L ( C1 + C d ) voltmeter by using a series resistance made of a
Resonance at frequency f1 and Capacitance C1 and material having negligible resistance
resonance at frequency f2 and capacitance C2. temperature coefficient. The meter has a
1 resistance of 320Ω at 20oC After carrying a
f2 = steady current of 100 mA for a long time, the
2π L ( C 2 + Cd ) resistance of the coil increases to 369Ω due to
f2 C1 + C d self heating. When a voltage of 250V is applied
= continuously, the error due to self-heating will
f1 C 2 + Cd be nearly.

(a) -1.1% (b) -1.9% 143. Pure mechanical instrument cannot be used for
(c) -2.5% (d) -3.3% dynamic measurements because they have.
ESE 2019 (a) Large time constant
Ans. (b) : Total resistance (b) Higher response time
250 (c) High inertia
(Rse + Rm) = = 2500Ω
100 × 10−3 (d) All of the above
Rse = 2500 - Rm MPPSC AE 2017
= 2500 - 320 Ans. (d) : Mechanical instruments are unable to
= 2180Ω response rapidly to the measurement of dynamic
Steady current of 100 mA meter resistance has changed conditions due to the fact that they have moving parts
to 369Ω that are rigid, heavy and bulky and consequently have a
Rse + Rm = 2180 + 369 = 2549 large mass and they take large response time Mass
presents inertia problems and hence these instrument
can not faithfully follow the rapid changes which are
involved in dynamic instrument.
144. A set of independent current measurements are
recorded as 10.03, 10.10, 10.11 and 10.08 A,
250
Now Im2 = = 98.07mA Calculate (a) average current, and (b) range of
369 + 2180 error.
I m2 − I m1 (a) a = 10.8A, b = ± 0.04A
% Error =
Im1 (b) a = 10.8A, b = ± 0.05A
( 98.07 − 100 ) (c) a = 10.05A, b = ± 0.05A
= × 100 = −1.93% (d) a = 10.05A, b = ± 0.04A
100
141. The moving iron instruments when measuring
voltages or currents Ans. (a) :
(a) Indicate the same values of the measurement I +I +I +I
Average current Iav = 1 2 3 4
for both ascending and descending values of 4
current. 10.03 + 10.10 + 10.11 + 10.08
(b) Indicate higher values of the measurement for =
4
ascending values of current
= 10.08 Amp.
(c) Indicate higher values of the measurement for
Maximum value of current (Imax) =10.11 Amp
descending values of current
(d) Indicate lower values of the measurement for Range Imax - Iav = 0.03A
both ascending and descending values of Minimum value of current Imin = 10.03A
current Range = Iav-Iav = 0.05A
ESE 2020 0.03 + 0.05
∴ Average range of errors =
Ans. (c) : Because of hysteresis property, moving iron 2
instruments, when measuring voltage or current, = ±0.04A
indicates different value of measurement for ascending 145. The desirable static characteristics of a
and descending value of current. measuring system are
Due to hysteresis, flux density is higher for descending (a) Accuracy (b) Sensitivity
value of current which tends to read higher for
(c) Reproducibility (d) All of the above
descending values.
142. The accuracy of a 0-100 mV voltmeter is ± 5% .
Ans. (d) : The static characteristics of instruments are
A full scale reading of 100mV may be due to a attributes that changes slowly with time. Static
voltage of
characteristics can be divided into desirable and
(a) 100mV (b) 105mV or 95mV
undesirable. Desirable characteristics-what we want
(c) 90mV (d) 110mV or 90mV
achieve-are
UPPCL AE 2014
Accuracy Sensitivity
Ans. (b) : Full scale reading = 100 mV
Reproducibility Repeatability
error = ± 5%
Undesirable characteristics-what we want to avoid-are
Final Reading = 100mV ± 5% Drift Dead zone
= 105mV or 95mV Static error

(ii) Measurement of Resistance Ans. (d) :
1. The accuracy of Kelvin's double bridge for the

measurement of low resistance is high because
the bridge.
(a) Uses two pairs of resistance arms
(b) Has medium value of resistance in the ratio
arms
(c) Uses a low resistance link between standard
and test resistances
(d) Uses null indicating galvanometer Megger is used to measure high resistance. It is a
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 combination of Generator and ohm meter.
ESE 2002 5. The resistance can be measured by
Ans. (a) : Accuracy of Kelvin's double bridge for the (a) Voltmeter-Ammeter method
measurement of low resistance is high because the (b) Substitution method
bridge uses two pairs of resistance arms. (c) By using Wheat-stone bridge
Ans. (d) : Measurement of medium resistance (1Ω to
100 kΩ) Ammeter-voltmeter method.
Wheat stone bridge measure medium resistance.
Substitution method measure medium resistance.
6. Megger is an instrument for:
(a) Measuring current
(b) Measuring voltage
(c) Testing insulator
(d) Measuring Power
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans : (c) Mega-ohmmeter or megger is a special type of
ohmmeter used to measure the electrical resistance of
insulators. Insulating components e.g. Cable Jackets
2. A 10 V range voltmeter is rated for 50µA full- must be tested for their insulation strength at the time of
scale current. The total resistance of voltmeter commissioning and as part of high voltage electrical
is: equipment maintenance installation.
(a) 200 kΩ (b) 100 kΩ 7. Which of the following methods is used to
(c) 50 kΩ (d) 400 kΩ measure medium resistance?
TSPSC AEE 2017 (a) Potentiometer method
Ans. (a) : We know that sensitivity– (b) Direct Deflection method
1 (c) Wheatstone Bridge method
S0 = × (d) (d) Kelvin Double Bridge method
Ifsd UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
where, d = range of meter OMC Deputy manager 2019
i = current flowing through it Ans.: (c) The different method used for measurement
10 V of medium resistance are as follows : Ammeter voltage
∴ S0 = = 200 kΩ / scale division method substitution method. Wheatstone bridge method
50 × 10−6
Wheatstone bridge is an electrical circuit used to
Resistance of the voltmeter is 200 kΩ measure an unknown resistance by balancing two legs
3. Megger is used for testing of a bridge circuit one leg of which is unknown
(a) Open circuit only component.
(b) Short circuit only
(c) Both open, short circuits, earth resistance and 8. Which of the following is not suitable for the
insulation measurement of low resistances?
(d) Low resistances only (a) Kelvin's Double Bridge method
TNPSC AE 2018 (b) Ammeter Voltmeter method
(c) Potentiometer method
Ans. (c) : Megger is used for measurement of high
resistance, also use for testing, both open circuit, short (d) Wheatstone Bridge
circuits, earth resistance and insulation. UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
4. Megger is combination of Ans. (d) : Low resistance can measured by-
(a) Motor and generator (I) Kelvin's double bridge method.
(b) Generator and voltmeter (II) Ammeter voltmeter method.
(c) Generator and Ammeter (III) Potentiometer method.
(d) Generator and ohm meter Wheatstone bridge method used for medium resistance.
TNPSC AE 2019
9. During the measurement of low resistance 14. Kelvin double bridge is used to measure..........
using potentiometer the following readings are (a) very high resistances
obtained: Voltage drop across low resistance (b) leakage resistances
under test = 0.5 V, Voltage drop across a 0.2 (c) either unknown C or unknown L if the other
ohm standard resistance = 1.2 V, then value of is known
unknown resistance will be (d) very low resistances
(a) 0.0833 Ω (b) 0.833 Ω AAI Junior Executive 2016
(c) 8.33 Ω (d) 83.3 Ω Ans. (d) : Kelvin double bridge is used to measure very
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III low resistance.
V 15. The controlling torque in a meggar.........
Ans. (a) : R T = R .S (a) is provided by springs
Vs
(b) is not required
0.5 (c) is provided by weights attached to the moving
= × 0.2
1.2 system
= 0.083 Ω (ohm) (d) is provided by springs and weights both
Where, S = Standard resistance AAI Junior Executive 2016
RT = Test resistance Ans. (b) : The controlling torque in a meggar is not
VS = Voltage drop across standard resistance required.
VR = Voltage drop across test resistance 16. For measuring a very high resistance we should
10. For low resistance (from few micro ohms to one use
ohm) measurement, which bridge is used? (a) Kelvin's double bridge
(a) Wheatstone bridge (b) Wheat stone bridge
(b) Kelvin bridge (c) Meggar
(c) Guarded Wheatstone bride (d) None of the above
(d) Maxwell bridge Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
RPSC VPITI 2018 Ans. (c) : For measuring a very high resistance we
ESE 2008 should use meggar. For high resistance value greater
Ans. (b) : For Measuring lower resistance Kelvin than 106 meggar is used.
bridge is used. It is also used for measurement of insulation
Method for Measuring low resistance– resistance.
i) Kelvin's double bridge Method
ii) Ammeter voltmeter Method 17. Which of the following devices is used for
iii) Potentiometer Method measuring insulation resistance?
1. Kelvins bridge 2. Campell bridge
11. Resistance in a circuit can be measured with
3. Megger
the help of
(a) Wattmeter (a) 1 and 2 both (b) Only 2
(b) Ohmmeters and DC bridge (c) Only 3 (d) Only 1
(c) Ammeter UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
(d) Voltmeter Ans : (c) Megger is a special type of ohmmeter used to
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II measure the electrical resistance of insulator, insulating
Ans. (b) : Resistance in a circuit can be measured with component.
the help of Ohmmeters and DC bridge. Megger works on the principle of moving coil
12. A Kelvin double bridge is best suited for the instrument. It generates a high voltage in order to test
measurement of : insulation of resistance.
(a) inductance (b) capacitance Megger is operated by an internal hand driven
(c) low resistance (d) high resistance generator.
RPSC VPITI 2016 18. The absolute measurement of resistance
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift-I involves the measurement of.
Ans. (c) : Kelvin double bridge is best suited for the (a) Length and time (b) Length and mass
measurement of low resistance. (c) Velocity (d) Either (a) or (c)
13. Megger is an instrument used for the PS PCL AE 2012
measurement of: Ans. (d) : The absolute measurement of resistance
(a) High resistance and insulation resistance involves the measurement of.
(b) Medium resistance Length and time
(c) Low resistance Velocity
(d) Leakage resistance
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 19. An ohmmeter is an instrument for measuring
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I (a) current (b) voltage
Ans. (a) Mega ohmmeter, some time called as megger (c) resistance (d) wattage
is used to measurement of high resistance and insulation Mizoram PSC AE 2016
resistance. This measures very high resistance value by Ans. (c) : An ohm meter is also an measuring
sending a high voltage signal into the object being instrument which is used to measure the resistance of
tested. any load or any wire.

20. Kelvin's double is best suited for the (c) Cables have a high value of capacitance
measurement of which draws as high value of charging current
(a) inductance (b) capacitance (d) Cables have a low value of capacitance and
(c) low resistance (d) high resistance initial resistance
BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V APTRANSCO AE 2017
Ans. (c) : Kelvin's double bridge method is best suited Ans. (c) : In test of insulation resistance of the cable
for the measurement of low resistance. Low resistance galvanometer should be short circuited before applying
is below 1 ohm. It is specifically designed to measure the voltage because to prevent the flow of charging
resistor that are constructed as four terminal resistor. current. Since cable has high value of capacitance.
21. A galvanometer with a resistance of G ohms is 24. In the ohmmeter method of temperature
shunted by a resistance of S ohms. The measurement involving thermistor, the output
resistance to be added for the current to voltage vs temperature characteristic can be
remain unchanged is : linearised by connecting
(a) S/S + G (b) G/G + S (a) a resistance of proper value in series with the
(c) SG/G + S (d) G2/G + S sensor.
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I (b) a resistance of suitable value in parallel with
sensor.
Ans. (d) : (c) a capacitance of appropriate value in series
with the sensor.
(d) an appropriate capacitance in parallel with the
sensor.
Vizag Steel MT 2013
Ans. (b) : In the ohmmeter method of temperature
GS measurement involving thermistor, the output voltage
G=R+ vs temperature characteristic can be linearised by
G+S connecting a resistance of suitable value in parallel with
GS the sensor.
R =G−
G +S 25. The shunt type ohmmeter is not suited for high
G 2 + GS − GS resistance measurements because
= (a) very low resistance of the meter would short
G +S the high unknown resistance.
G2 (b) scale is highly cramped for high resistance
R= values.
G +S
(c) full scale of the meter may be exceeded.
22. An ammeter having internal resistance of 0.2Ω, (d) battery can not supply the necessary current
has a current range of 0-5A. In order to change for proper meter defection.
the range to 0-25 A, we need to add a resistance Vizag Steel MT 2013
of- Ans. (b) : The shunt type ohmmeter is not suited for
(a) 0.05 Ω in parallel with the meter high resistance measurement because scale is highly
(b) 0.8 Ω in series with the meter cramped for high resistance values. Full scale value of
(c) 1.0 Ω in series with the meter the meter may be exceeded battery can not supply
necessary current for the proper meter detection.
(d) 0.04 Ω in parallel with the meter Therefore it is used for low value resistance
KPSC AE 2014 measurement.
Ans. (a) : The shunt resistances can be calculated as 26. The most suitable material for spring in
follows, majority of the measuring instruments, except
Let Rm = internal resistance of coil = 0.2Ω in low resistance instruments is:
Rsh = low shunt resistance going to add (a) Phosphor-bronze (b) Platinum-silver
(c) Hard rolled silver (d) Silicon-bronze
As the two resistance are in parallel, the voltage drop CIL MT 2017
across them is same. Ans. (a) : Phosphor-bronze is high used because of it's
therefore IshRsh = ImRm resistance to fatigue, wear, chemical corrosion etc.
I R 5 × 0.2 1 27. Which generator is used in Megger?
R sh = m m = =
Ish ( 25 − 5) 20 (a) PMDC generator
(b) Induction generator
R sh = 0.05 Ω (c) Externally excited DC generator
(d) Synchronous generator
Rsh = 0.05 Ω is connected in parallel with the meter. CIL MT 2017
23. When measuring insulation resistance of cables Ans. (a) : Megger works on the principle of
using dc source, the galvanometer used should electromagnetic induction. Supply can be given through
be initially short circuited because : a dc motor. A permanent magnet dc motor driven by
(a) Cables have a low value of capacitance which hand is used as a source of supply to the megger.
draws a high value of charging current Therefore permanent magnet in a megger is used to
provide field for generator as well as ohmmeter.
(b) Cables have a low value of initial resistance
28. Kelvin's double bridge is used for measurement 32. Which of the following is not true with respect
of resistance of to hot-wire instruments?
(a) low value (a) Its deflection depends on the r.m.s. value of
(b) medium value the alternating current, they can be used on
(c) high value direct current also.
(d) very high value resistance (b) They have a very low power consumption
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I (c) They are unaffected by stray fields.
CIL MT 2017 (d) Their readings are independent of waveform
Ans. (a) : Kelvin, double bridge is used for the and frequency.
measurement of low resistances. Low resistance vary in UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
the range of 1Ω to 10 µΩ. Ans. (b) : Hot wire instrument-
Kelvin double bridge is modified form of wheatstone Hot wire instrument is made up of platinum
bridge. iridium wire.
29. Choose the wrong statement with respect to The current to be measured is passed through the
shunt design in measuring instruments. platinum irridium wire.
(a) Temperature co-efficient must be low. It consumes high power because its works on the
(b) Resistance should not vary with time. heating effect (H= i2RT).
(c) They should carry the current without 33. An MC ammeter has a shunt of 0.2Ω and a coil
excessive temperature rise. circuit resistance of R = 100Ω. the instrument
(d) Resistance should have low thermal can take maximum of 5 V. Determine the
electromotive force. maximum current the instrument can handle.
(e) Temperature co-efficient should be high. (a) 25.005 A (b) 2.505 A
CGPSC AE 2017 (c) 25.05 A (d) 25.5 A
Ans. (e) : Shunt design in measuring instruments:- UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
(i) Temperature co-efficient must be low Ans : (c)
(ii) Resistance should not vary with time R 1 V 5
(iii) Resistance should have low thermal electromotive ∵ sh = , Im = = = 0.05A (I m = Ammeter)
R m m −1 R 100
force
0.2 1
So option (e) wrong statement. =
30. Null method of measurement is NOT employed 100 m − 1
in : m = 501 Hence I = m. Im= 501×0.05
(a) DC potentiometer I = 25.05A
(b) Kelvin's double bridge 34. In Hot-wire instruments, the deflection is:
(a) Directly proportional to 1
(c) megger
(b) Inversely proportional to I2
(d) AC potentiometer (c) Directly proportional to I2
BHEL ET 2019 (d) Inversely proportional to I
Ans. (c) : Null method of measurement is not employed UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
in megger. The megger is the instrument uses for Ans : (c) Hot wire instrument was the heating effect of
measuring the resistance of the insulation. The megger the current for knowing their magnitude
work on the principle of comparison i.e. the resistance Heat = work = P.t = I2 R.t
of the insulation is compared with the known value of ⇒ Deflection ∝ I2
resistance. If the resistance of the insulation is high the 35. A moving coil instrument has a coil resistance
pointer of the moving coil deflects towards the infinity of 10 ohms and it can take maximum current
and if it is low then the pointer indicate zero resistance. of 100 mA. What modification is required in
31. In a Kelvin's double bridge, two set of readings the instrument to measure the voltage in the
range (0 to 500) V?
are taken when measuring a low resistance, one
(a) 49.9 Ω in series with the instrument
with the current in one direction and the other (b) 4.99 kΩ in series with the instrument
with direction of current reversed. This is done (c) 4.99 Ω in series with the instrument
to: (d) 4.99 Ω in parallel with the instrument
(a) Eliminate the effect of contact resistance UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
(b) Eliminate the effect of resistance of leads Ans : (b) Multiplier (Resistance in series) is used for
(c) Correct for changes in battery voltage Range extension in Voltmeter.
(d) Eliminate the effect of thermo-electric effects Voltage drop across instrument = IR
DMRC AM 2016 = 0.1 × 10
Ans. (d) : In a Kelvin's bridge two set of reading are Vm = 1 Volt
taken when measuring a low resistance, one with the Extended Range = 500 V
current in one direction and the others with direction of V − Vm 500 − 1
R = Total = = 4990Ω
current reversed. This is done to eliminate the effect of Im 0.1
thermoelectric effect. = 4.99 KΩ in series.

36. A PMMC instrument which takes 10 mA at 50 Ans : (a) Kelvin's Double Bridge Method
m V potential difference maximum. How much for zero galvanometer
resistance is to connect across the instrument deflection
such that the instrument can measure (0 to 10) Eab = Eamd
A current?
(a) 0.0005Ω (b) 0.5Ω
(c) 0.05Ω (d) 0.005Ω
Ans : (a) Im = 10 mA, Vm=50 mV
V
⇒ R m = m = 5Ω
Im
Range extended to I = 10A
= 10,000 mA
I 10000
Multiply factor, m = = = 1000
Im 10
Rm 5
Shunt resistance, R sh = =
(m − 1) 1000 − 1 So,
≈ 0.0005 Ω P qr  p p 
X = .s + −
37. A moving coil instrument having a resistance Q p + q + r  Q q 
of 10 Ω gives a full-scale deflection when the given that
current is 10mA. What should be the value of  P p
the series resistance, so that it can be used as a ∵∆ =  − 
voltmeter for measuring potential difference Q q
up to 100V? P q∆r 
So here X =  S +
(a) 99 Ω (b) 9990 Ω  Q P + q + r 
(c) 999 Ω (d) 9 Ω
39. Which among the following is a method of
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I absolute measurement of resistance?
Ans : (b) Given that (a) Voltmeter ammeter method
Rm=10 Ω , Vm=ImRm (b) Wheatstone bridge method
Vm =10×10-3×10 (c) Lorentz method
Vm =0.1 Volt (d) None of the above
V 100 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019
V=100V M= = =1000 Ans. (c) : Lorentz bridge method is used for
Vm 0.1
measurement of absolute resistance.
So 40. An ammeter with range 0 to 2 mA has internal
Series Resistance resistance of 10Ω. What is the value of shunt
Rse=Rm(M-1) resistance in order to increase the range of
=10(1000-1) ammeter to 100 A?
Rse=9990 Ω (a) 200µΩ (b) 200 mΩ
38. The unknown resistance in Kelvin's double (c) 2µΩ (d) 2000mΩ
bridge is given by Where: ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
 P p Ans. (a) :
Error ∆ =  −  Shunt resistance is given as
Q q  Rm
R sh =
P q∆r  (m − 1)
(a) X =  S + 
Q p+q+r where Im is ammeter reading, I is desire current reading
I
P q  and m =
(b) X =  S +  Im
Q p+q−r Here Im = 2 mA, I = 100 A. So,
P q∆r  I 100
(c) X =  S −  m= = = 50000
Q p+q+r I m 2 × 10 −3
Therefore, shunt resistance is given by:
P q 
(d) X =  S −  R sh =
10
= 0.000200004 Ω
Q p+q+r (50000 − 1)
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I R sh = 200µΩ

41. Low resistance is measured with– (iii) AC Bridges
(a) De Sauty’s bridge
(b) Maxwell’s bridge 1. The bridge method commonly used for finding
(c) Kelvin’s double bridge mutual inductance is :
(d) Wien bridge (a) Heaviside compbell bridge
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 (b) Schearing bridge
Ans. (c) : (c) De Sauty bridge
De Sauty’s bridge – Capacitance (d) Wien bridge
Maxwell’s bridge – Inductance UJVNL AE 2016
Kelvin’s double bridge – Low resistance Ans. (a) Heaviside compbell bridge is commonly used
Wien’s bridge – Frequency to measurement of mutual inductance.
42. Which one of the following methods is used for 2. A lossy capacitor with a dielectric of
the measurement of high resistances? permittivity (ε) and conductivity (σ) operates at
(a) Carey-Foster bridge method
an angular frequency ( ω). The loss tangent for
(b) Substitution method
the capacitor is given by
(c) Loss of charge method
(d) Potentiometer method ωσ ωε
(a) (b)
ESE 2017 ε σ
UPPCL AE 2014 σ
Ans. (c) : In loss of charge method, unknown resistance (c) (d) σωε
is connected in parallel with the capacitor and ωε
electrostatic voltmeter. The capacitor is initially charged UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
to some suitable voltage and then allowed to discharge Ans. (c) :
through resistance and during process terminal voltage
is deserved.
43. Which one of the following materials is used for
the swamping resistance of moving coil
instruments?
(a) Carbon (b) Manganin
(c) Silver (d) Brass
ESE 2019
ESE 2004
Ans. (b) : 'Manganin' is used as a swamping resistance
in moving coil instrument to compensate the change in IR V 1
temperature material has negligible temperature tan δ = = =
co-efficient. IC RVωC ωCR
Swamping resistance is connected in series with Aε d
ammeter to increase its range. C= , R=
d σA
44. Which method can be used for absolute Aεd ε
measurement of resistance? ∴ CR = =
(a) Wheatstone bridge method d σA σ
(b) Releigh method 1 σ
∴ tan δ = =
(c) Ohm’s law method ωε / σ ωε
(d) Lortentz method 3. Hay bridge is suitable for measuring
UPPCL AE 2014 inductance of which one of the following
Ans. (a) : Wheatstone bridge method can be used for inductors?
absolute measurement of resistance. A wheatstone (a) Having Q value less than 10
bridge is an electrical circuit used to measure an (b) Having Q value greater than 10
unknown electrical resistance by balancing two legs of a (c) Of any value of Q
bridge circuit, one leg of which includes the unknown (d) Having phase angle of reactance very large
component. The primary benefit of the circuit is its RPSC AE 2018
ability to provide extremely accurate measurement. Ans : (b) The Hay's bridge is suitable for measurement
45. A meggar is used for measurement of- of high Q inductors, specially those inductance having
(a) low value resistance Q greater than 10.
(b) medium value resistance 4. Schering bridge can be used to measure
(c) high value particularly insulation resistance
(a) Q of a coil
MPPSC AE 2017 (b) Inductance and its Q value
Ans. (c) : Meggar is instrument used for the (c) Capacitance and its power factor
measurement of high resistance and insulation (d) Very small resistance
resistance. UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
ESE 2008
Ans. (c) : Schering bridge is generally used for (c) Anderson bridge– Inductance, Kelvin Bridge–
measurement of D-factor (Dissipation factor, dielectric Low Resistance, Schering Bridge–
losses, power factor of impure capacitance, Healthiness Capacitance, Wheatstone Bridge– Medium
of insulation etc.) Resistance
(d) Anderson bridge– Inductance, Kelvin Bridge–
D-factor (tan δ) = ω C1r1 Capacitance, Schering Bridge– Low
R C R C Resistance, Wheatstone Bridge– Medium
tan δ = ω 4 2 . 3 4
R3 C2 Resistance
UPRVUNL AE 2014
tan δ = ω R 4 C4 Ans. (c) Anderson bridge : It is used to measure
inductance.
5. The reading of high impedance voltmeter V in Kelvin bridge: Kelvin bridge used for measuring low
the bridge circuit shown in the given figure is: resistance.
Schering bridge: It is used to measure capacitance
Bridge.
Wheatstone Bridge: Measure Medium resistance.
7. Wagner's earth devices are used in AC bridge
circuits for
(a) Eliminating the effect of earth capacitances
(b) Eliminating the effect of inter component
capacitances
(c) Eliminating the effect of stray electrostatic
fields
(d) Shielding the bridge elements
TSPSC AEE 2017
(a) Zero (b) 3.33V Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III
(c) 4.20V (d) 6.66V ESE 2005
UPRVUNL AE 2014 Ans. (a) : The wagner's earthing devices is used for
Ans. (b) removing the effect of earth capacitances from the
bridges. It is a type of voltage divider circuit used to
reduces the error which occurs because of stray
capacitances. The wagner earth device provides high
accuracy to the bridge.
8. Maxwell’s inductance-capacitance bridge is
used for measurement of inductance of
(a) Low Q coils (b) Medium Q coils
(c) High Q coils (d) Both (a) and (b)
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
TSPSC AEE 2017
ESE 2006
Ans. (b) : Maxwell's inductance-Capacitance bridge is
used for measurement of inductance of medium Q coils.
10 × 20 10 × 10 1 < Q < 10
VAB = VA − VB = −
30 30 ωL1
Q= = ωC 4 R 4
10 R1
= ( 20 − 10 )
30 Maxwell Inductance-Capacitance Bridge–
100 • Not suitable for measurement of high Q-coil because
= = 3.33V phase angle criteria does not satisfy.
30
• Not suitable for measurement of low Q-coil because
6. Which of the following pairs is correctly of sliding balance problem.
matched? • Suitable for measurement of medium Q-coil i.e (1 < Q
(a) Anderson bridge– Capacitance, Kelvin < 10).
Bridge– Low Resistance, Schering Bridge– 9. The operating frequency of a Wien-Bridge
Inductance, Wheatstone Bridge– Medium oscillator is given by
Resistance 1 1
(a) (b)
(b) Anderson bridge– Capacitance, Kelvin 2π LC 2πRC
Bridge– High Resistance, Schering Bridge– 1 1
Inductance, Wheatstone Bridge– Medium (c) (d)
4π LC 29RC
Resistance TNPSC AE 2018

Ans. (b) : Operating frequency of wien-bridge oscillator 15. Match List I with List II and given correct
1 answer using the given code :
is fr = List-I List-II
2πRC (A) Anderson Bridge 1. Low resistance
10. Maxwell's inductance – capacitance bridge is
used to measure measurement
(a) Very low Q coils (Q < 1) (B) Kelvin Bridge 2. Medium resistance
(b) Medium Q coils (1 < Q < 10) Measurement
(c) Low Q coils (Q = 0) (C) Schering Bridge 3. Inductance measurement.
(d) High Q coils (Q > 10) (D) Wheat stone 4. Capacitance
TNPSC AE 2018 Bridge measurement
Ans. (b) : Maxwell Inductance – Capacitance bridge (A) (B) (C) (D)
is use to measure Medium Q coils (1 < Q < 10) this is (a) 4 2 3 1
not suitable in measurement of high Q coil because (b) 3 2 4 1
phase angle criteria does not satisfy. (c) 3 1 4 2
11. In a.c bridge opposite arms Zb and Zc are (d) 4 1 3 2
300∠ - 90o and 200∠0o respectively. The other TNPSC AE 2019
arm Za is given as 100∠ + 50o . For balanced Zd Ans. (c):
will be Anderson Bridge - Inductance measurement
(a) 600∠ – 40o (b) 600∠140o Kelvin- Bridge - Low resistance measurement
Schering Bridge - Capacitance measurement
(c) 600∠ – 140 o
(d) 150∠14o Wheat stone Bridge- Medium resistance
TNPSC AE 2018
measurement
Ans. (c) : For balance bridge condition Meggar - High Resistance measurement.
Zb Zc = Za Zd
16. In a Wheatstone bridge, known resistances are
Zd =
( 300∠ – 90o ) × ( 200∠0o ) correct within ±0.2%. The accuracy to which
100∠50o an unknown resistance can be measured is
(a) ±0.2% (b) ±0.4%
Zd = 600∠ – 140o
(c) ±0.6% (d) ±0.8%
12. The simplest and most convenient form of Vizag Steel MT 2012
detector used in a wheat stone bridge for audio Ans. (c) :
frequency range is
(a) Galvanometer
(b) Vibration Galvanometer
(c) Pair of Head phones
(d) Cathode Ray tube Indication
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : Detector used in a wheat stone bridge for
audio frequency range is pair of head phones.
13. The resistance of a shunt for a precision grade
ammeter can be best measured by
(a) Kelvin's double bridge
(b) Schering's bridge Q, R, S → Known Resistance
(c) De Sauty's bridge P → Unknown Resistance.
(d) Maxwell's bridge
P R
TNPSC AE 2018 =
ESE 1998 Q S
Ans. (a) : The resistance of shunt for a precision grade QR
ammeter can best measure by kelvin's double bridge P=
method. This is also used to measure low value of S
resistance. ∆P  ∆Q ∆R ∆S 
= ± + + %
14. The bridge used for measurement of P  Q R S 
capacitance is
(a) Schering Bridge (b) Wheat stone Bridge = ± ( 0.2 + 0.2 + 0.2 ) % = ± 0.6%
(c) Wien's Bridge (d) Hay's Bridge 17. Hay bridge is used for the measurement of
TNPSC AE 2019 inductance of coils with
Ans. (a) : The following Bridges are used for measuring (a) low Q values
(b) high Q values
capacitances. (c) medium Q values
1. Schering Bridge
2. De-Sauty's Bridge (d) large stray capacitances
3. Modified De-Sauty's Bridge UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
In options- Ans. (b) : Hay bridge is used to determine the
Wheat stone Bridge→ Resistance measurement inductance of an inductor with a high Q factor,
Wein's Bridge→Frequency measurement Maxwell's bridge is only measure inductor value of
Hay's Bridge→ Inductance measurement inductance.

18. The leakage resistance of a capacitor is Ans : (c) The measurement of inductance is done with
generally measured by Maxwell Bridge. Maxwell bridge is use for measure
(a) megger medium quality factor (1 < Q < 10).
(b) Potentiometer 25. Low resistance is measured by:
(c) Schering bridge (a) De–Sauty bridge
(d) Maxwell's bridge (b) Maxwell bridge
UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I (c) Kelvin double bridge
Ans. (c) : Schering bridge is shielded with metal screen (d) Wien bridge
to reduced the stray capacitor exists between arms and UPRVUNL AE 2016
arms to the earth.
If leakage resistance of capacitor is generally measured Ans : (c) The Best method for accurate measurement of
by Schering bridge. 'low resistance' is 'Kelvin Double Bridge'.
19. A Wien-bridge oscillator uses: 26. In Wien bridge, the output frequency is
(a) Positive feedback determined by:
(b) Negative feedback (a) RLC combination
(c) Both positive feedback and negative feedback (b) LC combination
(d) An LC tank circuit (c) RC combination
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 (d) RL combination
Ans. (c) : UPRVUNL AE 2016
20. A Wien-bridge is sometimes called: Ans : (c) The output frequency in Wien Bridge is
(a) Wheatstone bridge (b) Phase shifter determined in the terms of RC combination and it is
(c) Twin-T oscillator (d) Notch filter represented as:
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 1 1
Ans. (d) : f = Hz
2π C1C2 R1R2
21. The self-capacitance of a coil is measured by a Where, R1, R2 = Value of Resistances
Q meter. The circuit is set into resonance at 2
C1,C2 = Value of capacitances
MHz and the tuning capacitor is 460 pF. The
frequency is now adjusted to 4 MHz and 27. Which of the following types of A.C bridges is
resonance conditions are obtained the tuning used to measure unknown frequency?
capacitor at 100 pF. The value of self- (a) Wein's bridge
capacitance of the coil will be: (b) Maxwell's bridge
(a) 20 pF (b) 30 pF (c) De Sauty's bridge
(c) 40 pF (d) 50 pF (d) Kelvin's double bridge
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 OMC Deputy manager 2019
Ans. (a) : Ans. (a) : Wein bridge is used to measure unknown
22. Schering Bridge is used for the measurement frequency.
of: Maxwell's Bridge – Inductance Measurement
(a) Capacitors De Sauty's Bridge – Capacitance Measurement
(b) Inductors Kelvin's Double Bridge – Low Resistance Measurement
(c) Q-of inductors 28. A potentiometer R5 is put in the apex of the
(d) Medium value resistors bridge shown in the figure to balance the
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 circuit. If Ru = 500Ω; Rv = 500Ω; R2 = 515Ω; R3
Ans. (a) : = 480Ω; and R5 = 100Ω, then find the values of
23. Q factor of a coil measured by the meter is- R6 and R7 to balance the bridge and
_____ the actual Q of the coil. compensate for the unequal values of R2 and
(a) equal to
(b) somewhat lesser than R 3.
(c) somewhat higher than
(d) twice
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans : (b) The Q-Factor measured by the Q-meter
cannot be exactly equal to the actual Q of coil because
of presence of errors. But the value is somewhat lesser
and almost equal to the actual value.
XC 1
Q-Factor of a coil is given by =
R ωC R
24. Inductance is measured by:
(a) Wien bridge (b) Schering bridge
(c) Maxwell bridge (d) Owen bridge
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Vizag Steel MT 2012
ESE 2008

(a) R6 = 60Ω and R7 = 40Ω 33. Which of the following AC bridges is used to
(b) R6 = 50Ω and R7 = 50Ω measure frequency?
(c) R6 = 65.5Ω and R7 = 34.5Ω (a) Wien's bridge
(d) R6 = 67.5Ω and R7 = 32.5Ω (b) Anderson bridge
OMC Deputy manager 2019 (c) Schering bridge
Ans. (d) : From bridge in balance condition– (d) Hay's bridge
(Ru) (R2+R7) = (Rv) (R3 + R6) UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
500 (515 + R7) = 500 (480 + R6) Ans. (a) : Wien's bridge is used to measure frequency.
R 6 – R 7 = 35 34. Under balanced condition of a bridge for
Again, R5 = R6 + R7 = 100 measuring unknown impedance, if the detector
Solving above equation, we get is suddenly taken out
R6 = 67.5Ω, R7 = 32.5Ω (a) Measured value of impedance will be lower
29. A Q-meter does not measures _____________. (b) Measured value of impedance will be higher
(a) Self capacitance (b) Inductance (c) Measured value of impedance will not change
(c) Frequency (d) Energy (d) The impendence can not be measured
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 MPPSC AE 2016
Ans. (d) : Q-meter doesn't measure energy it measure. Ans. (c) : As removing detector does not change current
Q-meter work on the principle of series RLC resonance suddenly in circuit. So measured value of impedance
circuit. It measures–
(i) Self capacitance. will not change.
(ii) Inductance 35. An Aryton shunt is used to make a D'Arsonval
(iii) Frequency galvanometer into a
30. In a meter bridge, an unknown resistance is (a) single range voltmeter
connected with a known resistance of 5 ohm. If (b) single range ammeter
the jockey provides zero deflection at 40 cm (c) multi range ammeter
mark, what is the value of unknown resistance? (d) multi range voltmeter
(a) 5 ohms (b) 3.33 ohms KPTCL AE 2016
(c) 1.33 ohms (d) 2.97 ohms
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 Ans. (c) :
Ans. (b) : R ∝ L
Rknown = 5Ω
R known 100 − 40
=
R unknown 40
5 60
=
R unknown 40
5 × 4 10
Runknown = = = 3.33 ohm.
6 3 Since galvanometer is a very sensitive instrument
31. For measurement through a Maxwell's therefore it can't measure heavy currents. In order to
inductance-capacitance bridge, the Q of the coil convert a galvanometer into an Ammeter, a very low
must be: resistance known as 'Aryton shunt' is connected in
(a) <1 (b) zero parallel to galvanometer Value of shunt is so adjusted
(c) >10 (d) 1 - 10 that most of the current passes through the shunt.
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
ESE 2007 36. A Maxwell's capacitance bridge has various
Ans. (d) : In Maxwell's inductance-capacitance bridge values at balance as : R2 = 500 Ω, R3 = 700 Ω,
quality factor value is in range of 1 - 10 and for Hay's R4 = 1200 Ω and C4 = 0.5 µF, the value of L1
bridge it is greater than 10. will be
32. Owen's bridge is used for the measurement of: (a) 0.35 H (b) 0.72 H
1. Unknown inductance (c) 0.175 H (d) 17.5 H
2. Incremental inductance JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
3. Incremental permeability Ans. (c) : L1 = R2 R3 C4 = 500 × 700 × 0.5 × 10–6
Which of these is/are correct?
= 0.175 H
(a) only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1,2 and 3 37. High voltage Schering bridge is used for the
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 measurement of
(a) Resistance and inductance of a coil
Ans. (d) : Owen's Bridge is used to measure
(b) Frequency of the A.C. source
(i) unknown inductance.
(c) Loss angle of a capacitor
(ii) incremental inductance.
(d) Q of a coil
(iii) incremental permeability.
TSTRANSCO AE 2018
Ans. (c) : Schering Bridge is used for the measurement 40. Which of the following is true with respect to
of the capacitance and high voltage. Schering bridge is Wien Bridge?
used for the measurement of the loss angle of the (a) It does not require equal values of R or C
capacitor. (b) It requires that R and C values of all
R1 components must be equal
(c) It requires that all resistors should have equal
values
(d) None of these
KPTCL AE 2015
Ans. (a) : The wien's bridge use in AC circuits for
determining the value of unknown frequency.
41. Which of the following can be used to measure
the capacitance of a capacitor?
(a) Rheostat
(b) Schering bridge
(c) Wheatstone bridge
(d) None of these
KPTCL AE 2015
Dissipation factor, D = tanδ = ωC4R4 Ans. (b) :
Where, δ = loss angle. Rheostate - Measure variable resistor
38. The capacitance and loss angle of a given Schering bridge - Measure capacitance
capacitor specimen are best measured by Wheatstone bridge - Measure medium resistance
(a) Wheatstone bridge (b) Maxwell bridge 42. Which bridge is used for the measurement of
(c) Anderson bridge (d) Schering bridge capacitance?
RPSC VPITI 2018 (a) Maxwell Inductance Bridge
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 (b) De Sauty's Bridge
Ans. (d) : The capacitance and loss angle of given (c) Hay's Bridge
capacitor specimen are best measured by Schering (d) Kelvin's Double Bridge
bridge RPSC VPITI 2018
Vizag Steel MT 2011
Ans. (b) : De-sauty's bridge is used for Measurement of
capacitance
Dissipation factor
D = ωC1r1 = ωC4 R 4
R 3C4
So R1 =
C2 43. Measurement of dielectric loss of capacitor can
R  be performed by–
C1 = C2  4  (a) Using Wien bridge
 R3  (b) Using Owen bridge
39. Which bridge is normally used for the (c) Using Schering bridge
measurement of frequency? (d) Using Maxwell bridge
(a) Anderson bridge (b) De Sauty's bridge MPPSC AE 2014
(c) Wien bridge (d) None of these
Ans. (c) : Measurement of dielectric loss of capacitor
RPSC VPITI 2018
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II can be performed by using Schering bridge.
UPPCL AE 2015 Schering bridge is very versatile ac bridge for
Ans. (c) :Wien bridge is used for measuring frequency measurement of-
1 Capacitance and dielectric loss
f= Hz {for wien bridge} Capacitance and its pf
2π R1R 2 C1C2 Dissipation factor, tan δ and imperfect capacitance
for R1 = R2 = R and C1 = C2 = C shunted by a resistor.
1 Schering bridges provides safety to the operators by
f=
2πRC incorporating Wagner's earthling device..

44. The Wien bridge can be used for the following– Ans. (d) : Wheatstone bridge-
(a) Measurement of resistance
(b) Measurement of frequency
(c) Measurement of harmonic distortion
(d) Measurement of frequency and harmonic
distortion
MPPSC AE 2014
Ans. (d) : The Wien bridge can be used for the following :
• If the input signal is not sinusoidal or signal
containing harmonics then balancing of bridge is
not possible because null detector is sensitive to the
frequency then with the help of Wien bridge we can
measure the harmonic distortion. R P
• It measures the frequency. At balance condition- =
S Q
1 Sensitivity of bridge is most important parameter as
f=
2π R1R 2 C1C2 compared to accuracy, precision and resolution.
Wheatstone's bridge is not preferred for precision
So, the Wien bridge can be used for measurement of measurement because of error due to
frequency and harmonic distortion. (1) Resistance of connecting leads
45. The input signal for the A.C. bridges is applied (2) Resistance of contacts
from– (3) Thermo-electric emf.
(a) Oscillator system 48. Maxwell's bridge can be used for measurement
(b) Amplifier system of inductance with
(c) Regulated power supply system (a) Medium Q factor (b) High Q factor
(d) D.C. battery system (c) Very low Q factor (d) Wide range of Q
GMB AE 2017
MPPSC AE 2014
Ans. (a) : Maxwell's bridge measurement is used for
Ans. (a) : The input signal for the A.C. bridges is measurement of inductance with medium Q-factor
applied from oscillator system. Bridge are also used to (1<Q<10).
rectify AC signal into DC signal, filter, oscillator. AC Hay's bridge is suitable for the measurement of high Q-
bridge work for oscillator because AC supply source of factor inductance.
constant frequency is used. Anderson's bridge measurement is used for inductance
46. The drawback of diminishing value method for of low Q ⋅ (Q < 1)
calculating depreciation is that depreciation 49. De-sauty's bridge is used for measurement of
changes– (a) High Q inductance
(a) Are small in early years (b) Lossless capacitance
(b) Are high in early years (c) Low Q inductance
(c) Are independent of rate of interest (d) Capacitance with dielectric loss
(d) None of above GMB AE 2017
GMB AE 2017 Ans. (b) : De-sauty's bridge is used for measurement of
Ans. (c) : The following are the commonly used method lossless capacitor.
for determining the annual depreciation charge : C2 R 4
C1 =
Straight line method R3
Diminishing value method
Sinking fund method
Diminishing value method have two drawbacks-
(1) Low depreciation charge are made in the late year
when the maintenance and repair charges are quite
heavy.
(2) The depreciation charge is independent of the rate of
interest.
47. Wheatstone's bridge is not preferred for
precision measurement because of errors due 50. Frequency can be measured by using :-
(a) Maxwell’s bridge
to
(a) Resistance of connecting leads (b) Schering bridge
(b) Resistance of contacts (c) Heaviside - Campbell bridge
(c) Thermo-electric emf (d) Wien’s bridge
(d) All of above DSSSB AE 2019
GMB AE 2017 GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans. (d) : Frequency can be measured by using Wien's 55. Andersen bridge is used for the measurement
bridge. of :
Maxwell bridge- Maxwell's bridge is used to measure (a) time period (b) phase difference
inductance of medium Q coils. (c) inductance (d) capacitance
Schering bridge- Use for measurement of capacitance RPSC VPITI 2016
and loss angle. Ans. (c) : Anderson bridge is used for the measurement
51. Wheatstone bridge is used to measure of inductance.
(a) Voltage (b) Resistance 56. The Wheatstone bridge method of resistance
(c) Current (d) Power measurement is ideally suitable for the
GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 measurement of resistance values in the range
Ans. (b) :A Wheatstone bridge is used to measure of :
unknown resistance, By balancing two legs of bridge (a) 0.001 Ohm to 1 Ohm
circuit, one leg of which includes the unknown (b) 0.1 Ohm to 100 Ohm
component. (c) 100 Ohm to 10 kilo Ohm
(d) 100 kilo Ohm to 10 Mega Ohm
RPSC VPITI 2016
ESE 1996
Ans. (c) : The wheat stone bridge method is ideally
suitable for measurement of resistance value in range
100 ohm to 10 kilo ohm medium value of resistance
measured.
57. A bridge generally used for measuring
capacitance is :
52. Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate
(a) Maxwell's bridge (b) Wien's bridge
errors due to
(c) Owen's bridge (d) De-Sauty's bridge
(a) Electromagnetic coupling
(b) Hysteresis loss CIL MT 2020
(c) Eddy current Ans. (d) : De-Sauty's Bridge– It is simplest method of
(d) Electrostatic coupling comparing two capacitances. With this method only
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II lossless capacitor like air capacitor can be compared
Ans. (d) : Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate C R
errors due to Electrostatic coupling. unknown capacitance C1 = 2 4
R3
53. For Maxwell's inductance-capacitance bridge,
which is used to measure an unknown Maxwell's bridge– It is used to measure inductance of
inductance in comparison with capacitance. medium Q coils. It is modification of wheatstone bridge
The various values at balance, R2 = 500Ω, used to measure unknown inductance in terms of
R3=600Ω, R4 = 1200Ω, C4 = 0.3µF. calibrated resistance and inductance or resistance and
The value of storage (Q factor of coil), if capacitance.
frequency is 500 Hz is ______. Wien's bridge– It is used for measurement of
(a) 2.17 (b) 1.81
(c) Zero (d) 1.13 frequency in terms of resistance and capacitance.
DSSSB AE 2019 Owen's bridge– It is used for measurement of
Ans. (d) : R2 = 500 Ω inductance in terms of capacitance.
R3 = 600 Ω 58. The Schering bridge is ideally suited to
R4 = 1200 Ω measure :
C4 = 0.3 µF (a) Mutual inductance of a coil
Q factor of a coil = ωC4R4 (b) Dielectric loss of an insulator
= 2πfC4 R 4 (c) Supply frequency of the bridge
= 2 × 3.14 × 500 × 0.3 × 10–6 × 1200 (d) Self inductance of coil
Q = 1.13 CIL MT 2020
54. The inductance measurement by Maxwell's Ans. (b) : The Schering bridge is used for the
bridge is best suited for the coil having 'Q' of measurement of the properties of insulators, capacitor
the order of bushings insulating oil, dielectric losses.
(a) 0.5 (b) 10
(c) 55 (d) 1000
Ans. (b) : The inductance measurement by Maxwell's
bridge is best suited for the coil having 'Q' of the order
of 10.
Maxwell bridge is used suitable only for medium Q of
the coils.

The loss factor is given as– Ans. (b) : In an Anderson bridge, unknown inductance
is measured in terms of known capacitance and
R 3C4
R1 = resistance.
C2
Dissipation factor/Dielectric loss–
C2R 4
C1 =
R3
Where,
C1 = Capacitor whose capacitance is to be measured
R1 = Series resistance representing the loss in the
capacitor C4
C2 = Standard loss free capacitor
R3 = non-inductive resistance
C4 = Variable capacitor
R4 = non-inductive resistance in parallel with
variable capacitor C4.
59. If Q of a coil is increased, its power factor
will :
(a) Decrease (b) Increase
R1R 3
(c) Remains same (d) None of these R1 = − r1
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I R4
Ans. (a) : Q of a coil is increased the power factor CR 3
L1 =  4 ( R 4 + R 2 ) + R 2 R 4 
R4 
decrease.
1
Q= 62. De Sauty's bridge best suited for
Power factor
(a) capacitors with dielectric loss
60. Match List-I and List-II with correct answer : (b) lossless air capacitors
List-I List-II (c) high Q
(a) Wein bridge oscillator (1) low output (d) low Q
impedance Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014
(b) Voltage shunt feedback (2) RF frequency Ans. (b) : De Sauty's bridge is best suited for lossless
air capacitor. De Sauty bridge measures as unknown
range
capacitance in term of standard capacitance.
(c) Crystal oscillator (3) Audio
frequency range CR
C1 = 2 4
(d) Current shunt feedback (4) High output R3
amplifier impedance 63. The bridge method commonly used for finding
Code : mutual inductance is.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Heaviside Campbell bridge
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 (b) Schering bridge
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 3 1 2 4 (c) De Sauty bridge
PTCUL AE 2016 (d) Wien bridge
RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : GOA PSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2019
• Wein bridge oscillator – Audio frequency range Ans : (a) The Heaviside mutual inductance bridge is
• Crystal oscillator – RF Frequency range modified to measure the self-inductance in terms of
• Voltage shunt feedback – Low output impedance mutual inductance by campbell.
• Current shunt feedback – High output impedance 64. In a.c. bridges, Wagner earthing device is used
61. In an Anderson bridge, unknown inductance is to eliminate:
measured in terms of: (a) Stray capacitance between detector terminal
(a) known inductance and ground
(b) known capacitance and resistance (b) Effect of stray magnetic fields
(c) known resistance (c) All stray capacitances
(d) known inductance and resistance (d) Power factor
LMRC AM 2018 UPPCL AE 2015
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 Ans. (a) In AC bridge, Wagner earthing device used to
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 eliminate stray capacitance between detector terminal
and ground.

65. Measurement of inductance is possible by:-
(a) Schering Bridge
(b) Maxwell-Wein Bridge
(c) RLC bridge
(d) Wein's Bridge
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Ans : (b) Maxwell wein bridge measure an unknown
inductance in terms of known capacitance. Schering
bridge is used to measure dielectric loss, capacitance
and dissipation factor. Wein Bridge is used to measure R 2R 3
(a) R= , L = C4 R 2 R 3
frequency. R4
66. R1 and R3 are the opposite arms of a R R
Wheatstone bridge as per R2 and R4. The (b) L = 2 3 , R = C4 R 2 R 3
source voltage is applied across R1 and R3. R4
Under balanced conditions what is the value of R4 1
(c) R= , L=
R4 for given values of R1 = 2 ohm, R2 = 5 ohm,
R3 = 15 ohm?
R 2R 3 ( C4 R 2 R 3 )
(a) 6 ohm (b) 30 ohm R4 1
(d) L= , R=
(c) 7 ohm (d) 2/3 ohm R 2R 3 ( 4 2 R3 )
C R
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V
Ans : (a) According to the rule followed by wheatstone Ans. (a) :
bridge-
In balanced condition-
 R1 R 4 
 =  (R1= 2 Ω , R2= 5 Ω , R3 = 15 Ω )
 R2 R3 
2 R4
=
5 15 When the bridge is balanced
15 × 2 Z1Z4 = Z2Z3
R4 = Ω = 6Ω
5  R4 
67. A bridge used for measurement of dielectric  jωC 
loss and power factor is ( R + jωL )  4  = R 2R 3
(a) Maxwell’s bridge (b) Schering bridge R + 1 
(c) Wein bridge (d) Wheatstone bridge  4 jωC 
 4 
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 ( R + jωL )  R 
 = R 2R 3
4

BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V  jR 4ωC4 + 1 
Ans. (b) : Schering bridge in used for measurement of R R + jωLR = R R (1+jωR C )
4 4 2 3 4 4
dielectric loss and power factor. It is an ac bridge. R R4 + jωLR4 = R2R3 + jωR2R3R4C4
Compairing Both sides
R R
R= 2 3, L = R 2 R 3C 4
R4
69. In the Maxwell bridge as shown in the Fig. 11,
the values of resistance RX and inductance LX
of a coil are to be calculated after balancing the
bridge. The component values are shown in the
same figure at balance. The values of RX and
LX will respectively be
Schering bridge
R 
C1 = C2  4 
 R3 
R 3C 4
R1 =
C2
Loss factor –
tan δ = ωC4 R 4 (a) 375 ohm, 75 mH (b) 75 ohm, 150 mH
68. The Maxwell's bridge shown in Fig. 13 is at (c) 37.5 ohm, 75 mH (d) 75 ohm, 75 mH
balance. The parameters of the inductive coil JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V
are ESE 1995
Ans. (a) : This arrangement is shown below = 4 4
VA = 12 × = 12 × = 8
4+2 6
6 6
VB = 12 × = 12 × = 9
6+2 8
Vth = VB − VA = 9 − 8 = 1Volt
V → short, Ig → open
At bridge balance condition–

Z1Z4 = Z2 Z3
 1 
( R1 + jωL1 )  R 4 ||  = R 2R 3
 jωC4 
12 8 3 4 9 + 8 17
 R4  R th = + = + = =
( R1 + jωL1 )   = R 2R 3 8 6 2 3 6 6
 jωC4 R 4 + 1 
Vth 1 6
R1R 4 + jωL1R 4 = R 2 R 3 + jωR 2 R 3 R 4 C4 Ig = = = = 0.206
Comparing both sides, R th + R g 17 + 2 29
R1R 4 = R 2 R 3 and L1R 4 = R 2 R 3 R 4C4 6
Ig = 0.21Amp
R 2R 3
R1 =
R4 71. For measurement on high voltage capacitors
which bridge will be suitable?
2000 × 750
Rx = = 375 Ω (a) Wheatstone Bridge
4000 (b) Modified De Sauty's Bridge
R RR C (c) Schering Bridge
L1 = 2 3 4 4 = R 2 R 3C4 (d) Wien Bridge
R4
JUVNL AE 2017
L x = 2000 × 750 × 0.05 ×10−6
Ans. (c) : For measurements on high voltage capacitors
= 75 mH the suitable bridge is a Schering bridge. The Schering
70. The current through the ammeter of resistance bridge use for measuring the capacitance of the
2Ω, connected in the Wheatstone bridge as capacitor, dissipation factor properties of an insulator, it
shown below is is one of the most commonly used A.C. Bridge
72. Hay's bridge is used to measure inductance of a
coil of Q value :
(a) less than 10 (b) more than 10
(c) more than 100 (d) less than 1
Ans. (b) : The Hay's Bridge is suitable for the
measurement of having high quality factor inductors.
(a) 0.11 A (b) 0.21 A

(c) 0.31 A (d) 0.41 A
BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V
Ans. (b)
Ig
Rg G
for Q > 10
L1 = R2R3C4/1+ ω2 C 4 2 R 4 2
R 2 R 3 R 4 ω2 C 4 2
R1 =
1 + ω2 C 4 2 R 4 2

ωL1 (a) Heaviside's mutual inductance bridge.
Q= (b) Desauty's bridge for measurement of
R1 unknown capacitance.
ωR 2 R 3 C 4 (c) Anderson's bridge for measurement of self-
1 + ω2 C 4 2 R 4 2 inductance.
Q= (d) Owen's bridge for measurement of
R 2 R 3 R 4 ω2 C 4 2 incremental inductance.
1 + ω2 C 4 2 R 4 2 DMRC AM 2018
Ans. (d) :
1
=
ωC 4 R 4
1
Q=
ωC 4 R 4
73. When two sinusoidal voltages are applied to the
horizontal and vertical plates of the CRO, the
pattern observed is an ellipse. This means.
(a) both the voltages are equal and are in phase
with each other.
(b) both voltages are of different magnitude but
of same frequency
(c) both voltages are of same magnitude and
frequency but they have a phase displacement
of 900.
(d) both the voltages are equal and are 1800 out
of phase with each other. The bridge network shown in figure is Owen's Bridge.
DMRC AM 2018 Owen's bridge used for measurement of incremental
Ans. (b) : When two sinusoidal voltages are applied to inductance. Owen's bridge also used for measurement
the horizontal and vertical plates of the CRO, the of unknown inductance over wide range, incremental
pattern observed is an ellipse. This means both voltages inductance and incremental permeability.
are of different magnitude but of same frequency. 75. Which bridge is best suited for use in
Harmonic Distortion Analyzers?
(a) Heaviside
(b) Kelvin's double Bridge
(c) Wein
(d) Schering
APTRANSCO AE 2019
Ans. (c) : Wein Bridge used in AC circuit for determine
the value of unknown frequency. The bridge Measures
the frequency from 100 Hz to 100 kHz. The accuracy of
bridge lies between 0.1 to 0.5%.
The bridge is used for various other applications like
capacitance measurement, Harmonic Distortion
analyzer and in the high frequency oscillator.
74. Identify the bridge network shown.
76. The timing resistor is 10 kΩ and timing
capacitor is 200 PF for a 565 PLL. The free
running frequency is
(a) 500 KHz (b) 350 KHz
(c) 250 KHz (d) 150 KHz
APSPDCL AE 2012
Ans. (d) : The central or running frequency of 565 PLL.
0.3 0.3
fo = =
RC 10 × 10 × 200 × 10−12
3
0.3 300
fo = −6
= × 103 = 150 kHz
2 × 10 2
77. The dielectric loss of a capacitor can be
measured by:
(a) Hay's Bridge (b) Schering Bridge
(c) Maxwell Bridge (d) Anderson Bridge
DMRC AM 2016
APSPDCL AE 2012
Ans. (b) : Dielectric loss is measured by Schering Ans. (c) : The Hay's bridge is used for determining the
Bridge- self-inductance of the circuit. The bridge is the advance
form of Maxwell's bridge is only appropriate for
measuring the high-quality factor. Hence, for measuring
the high-quality factor the Hay's bridge is used in the
circuit.
81. A balanced wheatstone bridge has the following
values associated: R1 = 20 K, R2 = 40K, R3 = Rx
and R4 = 100K. The value of R3 is:
(a) 50 k (b) 20 k
(c) 30 k (d) 40 k
Ans. (a) : Given, R1 = 20 k, R2 = 40K, R3 = Rx, R4 = 100K
At balance:-
Z1. Z4= Z2.Z3
Two independent balance equation are obtained if C4
and R4 chosen as the variable element.
Dissipation factor (d):-
D = tan δ = ωC1r1 = ωC 4 R 4
78. In the figure Z1 = 200 ∠600 ohm, Z2=400 ∠-900 Wheatstone Bridge
ohm, Z3 =300 ∠0 . Then Z4 for bridge to be
0
At balance condition–
balanced is R2 R4
=
R1 R 3
R1
R3 = .R 4
R2
20 ×100
= = 50 K
40
R3 = 50 K
82. The unknown low resistance of metal measured
by:
(a) 150 ∠30 ohm
0
(b) 400 ∠-90 ohm
0
(a) Kelvin's double bridge
(c) 300 ∠90 ohm
0
(d) 600 ∠-150 ohm0
(b) Maxwell bridge
APPSC AEE 2019
(c) Hay's bridge
Ans. (d) : Z1= 200∠60 Ω 0
(d) Wien bridge
Z2 = 400∠-90 Ω 0
Z3= 300∠ 00Ω
Ans. (a) : Unknown low resistance can be measured by
for bridge balanced condition–
Z1 Z4 = Z2Z3 Kelvin's double bridge. Maxwell bridge used to
measure low Q coil inductance. Hay's bridge used to
Z2 Z3 400∠ − 90 × 300∠00
Z4 = = measure high value Q inductance and wien bridge used
Z1 200∠60 to measure frequency.
= 600∠-1500 ohm. 83. In the circuit shown here, find the value of Rx
79. The basic principle of Q-meter is: at which the ac bridge is balanced.
(a) series resonance (b) parallel resonance
(c) mutual inductance (d) mutual capacitance
Ans. (a) : The working principle of Q meter is series
resonant because the resonance exist in the circuit when
the reactance of capacitance and reactance of
inductance is of the same magnitude. i.e. XL = XC
80. Which of the following bridges has high
'quality factor'?
(a) Owen's bridge (b) Maxwell bridge (a) 100Ω (b) 200Ω
(c) Hay's bridge (d) Anderson's bridge (c) 350Ω (d) 250Ω
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 DMRC AM 2020
Ans. (c) : 85. Owen bridge is used to
(a) determine dielectric loss and capacitance.
(b) measure high resistance
(c) determine self inductance
(d) measure mutual inductance
Vizag Steel MT 2013
Ans. (c) : Owen bridge is used to determine self
inductance of coil with the help of resistance and
capacitor.
At balance condition,
 R1   j 
 R4 = R2 −  R3
 1 + jωC1R 1   ωC 2 
On equating the real part,
R 1R 4 C 2 = R 2 C 2 R 3 + R 3C1R 1
R 1R 4 C 2 R 2 C 2 R 3 R 3C1R 1
= +
R 1R 3 C 2 R 1R 3C 2 R 1R 3 C 2
R 4 R 2 C1
= +
R 3 R1 C2 L1 = R 2 R 3C 4
As given that, C4
R4 = 800 Ω R1 = 100 Ω C1 = 0.5 µF R 1 = R3
R3 = 200 Ω R2 = Rx C2 = 1 µ F C2
Now, Where, L1 = Unknown self-inductance of resistance R1
800 R x 0.5 R2 = Variable non-inductive resistance
= + R3 = Fixed non-inductive resistance
200 100 1 C2 = Variable standard capacitor
R C4 = Fixed standard capacitor
4 − 0.5 = x
100 86. Schering bridge is used to
R x = 350 Ω (a) determine dielectric loss and capacitance
(b) measure low resistance.
84. The self inductance of a coil can be measured (c) determine incremental inductance.
using : (d) measure mutual inductance.
(a) Wien's Bridge Vizag Steel MT 2013
(b) Schering Bridge
Ans. (a) :
(c) Anderson's Bridge
(d) Wheatstone Bridge
APTRANSCO AE 2017
Ans. (c) : The self inductance of a coil can be measured
by using Anderson's bridge.
The value of inductance L1,
R
L1 = C. 3  r ( R 4 + R 2 ) + R 2 R 4 
R4
At balance condition,
Z1Z4 = Z2Z3
Measurement of capacitance by Schering bridge,
R 
C1 = C 2  4 
 R3 
This bridge can also be used for accurate determination C1 = Capacitor whose capacitance is to be
of capacitance in term of inductance. determined.

C2 = Standard capacitor Dissipation factor,
R3 = Non-inductive resistance D = tan δ = ωC1r1 = ωC 4 .R 4
R4 = Variable non-inductive resistance RC
Schering bridge is used to determine dielectric loss. r1 = 3 4
Thus, Schering bridge is used to measure dielectric loss C2
and capacitance. R 
87. Wien Bridge is mainly used for the C1 = C 2  4 
measurement of.  R3 
(a) Resistance 89. What is the condition for the network to get
(b) Inductance zero reading in the galvanometer?
(c) Power factor
(d) Capacitance in terms of resistance and
frequency
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (d) :
R1 R 4
(a) = (b) R1R2 = R3R4
R3 R2
(c) R1R3 = R2R4 (d) R1R4 =R2R3
CGPSC AE 2017
Ans. (c) : Wheatstone bridge is in balance condition
when no current flows through the coil or the potential
difference across the galvanometer is zero. This
1 condition occurs when the potential difference across
frequency (f) = Hz the A to B and A to D are equal, and the potential
2π R 1R 2 C1C 2 difference across the B to C and C to D remains same.
for R1 = R2= R and C1 = C2 = C
1
f =
2πRC
Wien Bridge is mainly used for the measurement of
capacitance in terms of resistance and frequency. The
accuracy of the bridges lies between 0.1 to 0.5%. The
bridge is also used for various application like
frequency measurement (100 Hz to 100k Hz), harmonic
distortion analyser. so, R1R3 = R2R4
88. Dissipation factor of a capacitor can be 90. Which element is measured using Maxwell-
measured with: Wien bridge?
(a) Galvanometer (b) Campbell bridge (a) Capacitance (b) Dielectric loss
(c) Inductance (d) Low resistance
(c) Potentiometer (d) Schering bridge (e) High resistance
LMRC AM 2018 CGPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : Dissipation factor of capacitor can be Ans. (c) :
measured with schering bridge.

A Maxwell bridge is a modification to wheat stone Ans. (b) : According to given bridge for balance:-
bridge used to measure an unknown inductance (usually z 1z 3 = z 2z 4
of low value of Q, 1<Q <10) in terms of calibrated z1= (R1|| C)
resistance and inductance or resistance and capacitance. 1
R1 ×
When calibrated components are a parallel resistor and j ωC R1
== =
capacitor then it is known as Maxwell-Wein bridge.
R1 +
1 1 + jωCR 1
91. Anderson bridge is extended from jω C
(a) Owen bridge z2 = 600 Ω
(b) Hay's bridge z3 = R3 + jωL3
(c) De Sauty bridge z4 = 400 Ω
(d) Maxwell-Wien bridge z 1z 3 = z 2z 4
(e) H-bridge  R1 
  ( R 3 + jωL 3 ) = 600 × 400
CGPSC AE 2017  1 + j ω CR 1 
Ans. (d) : R1R3 + jωR1L3 = 240000(1 + jωCR1)
comparing real part
R1R3 = 240000
240000
R3 = = (∵ R 1 = 1000Ω given )
1000
R3 = 240 Ω
93. Hay's bridge is used for measuring:
(a) inductance of high Q factor
(b) resistance
(c) admittance
(d) capacitance
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (a) : The Hay's bridge is a modification of
Maxwell's bridge.
Hay's bridge is suitable for measurement of high coil
and suitable for coil having (Q>10)
Anderson's Bridge gives the accurate measurement of Maxwell capacitance inductance bridge (1<Q<10)
self inductance of the circuit. This bridge is the Anderson bridge → Low Q. coil (Q<1)
advanced form of Maxwell's inductance capacitance Owen's bridge → Incremental inductance
bridge. In Anderson's bridge, the unknown inductance is Campbell bridge → Mutual inductance
compared with the standard fixed capacitance which is Wein bridge → Frequency
connected between two arms of the bridge. The bridge 94. A Q– meter measures:
(a) Loss in a capacitor
measures the accurate capacitances in terms of
(b) Frequency
inductances. (c) Accurate value of electrical quantity
92. Find the value of R3 for the balanced network (d) Properties of the coils
shown below. DMRC AM 2016
Ans. (d) : Q-meter Definition:-The instrument which
measures the storage factor or quality factor of the
electrical circuit at radio frequencies, such type of
device is known as the Q-meter.
Working Principle of Q-meter:- Q-meter works on
series resonant. The resonance is the condition exists in
the circuit when their induction and capacitance.
Q-meter is based on the characteristic of the resistance,
inductance and capacitance of the resonant series
circuit.
(a) 200 Ω (b) 240 Ω

1
Ω
(c) 240 (d) 1.5k Ω
(e) 20 Ω At resonant frequency f0
CGPSC AE 2017 XC = XL

1 Ans. (a) : When bridge is used for determining
= 2πf 0 L frequency
2πf 0 C
1
f0 =
2π LC
Application of Q-meter:-
1. Measurement of Q- The circuit used for

measurement of Q is shown in the figure.
Fig
ω0 L 1
Q max = f=
R 2π R1R 2 C1C 2
2. Measurement of Inductance:- At the resonance
condition for R1 = R2 < R
XL = XC C1 = C2 < C
1
1 f=
2πf 0 L = 2πRC
2πf 0 C Anderson’s bridge – Self inductance
De Sauty’s bridge – Capacitance
L= 1 Wien’s bridge – Frequency
4π2f 2C Cambell’s bridge – Mutual inductance
0 96. What is the balanced condition for the given
3. Measurement effective resistance:- It computes
the value of effective resistance. bridge?
ωL
R= 0
Q
4. Measurement of self capacitance:- The self-
capacitance is determined by measuring the two
capacitance at different frequencies.
1
f1 =
2π L ( C1 + Cd )
thus
1
f2 =
2π L ( C 2 + C d )
f2 = 2f1
1 1
= 2×
2π L ( C 2 + Cd ) 2π L ( C1 + C d )
or distributed capacitance
C − 4C2 (a) Z1R3 = R2Z4 (b) Z1 - R3 = R2 - Z4
Cd = 1 (c) Z1R4 = R2Z3 (d) Z1R2 = R3Z4
3 UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
5. Measurement of bandwidth:- The equation below
calculates the bandwidth- Ans. (a ) : The bridge is in balance condition when no
current flows through the coil or the potential difference
resonance frequency ( ω0 ) across the galvanometer is zero.
Q=
bandwidth ( BW ) so, at balance condition
VAC = VA-VC = 0 or VA = VC
R I1=I2 and I3 = I4
for series resonance RLC circuit bandwidth =
L V = V4+V3= V1+V2
ω0 L apply nodal voltage at A and B.
Q= Z4 Z1
R ×V = V
6. Measurement of Capacitance:- The capacitance Z4 + R 3 Z1 + R 2
determined by connecting the dummy coil across Z4R2 = Z1R3
the terminal T1 and T2 (from fig.). 97. Which of the following ac bridge is used to
95. Which bridge is used to determine frequency? measure unknown frequency?
(a) Wein Bridge (b) Anderson Bridge (a) Maxwell's bridge
(c) Maxwell Bridge (d) Campbell Bridge (b) Kelvin's double bridge
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 (c) De Sauty's bridge
DMRC AM 2016 (d) Wein's bridge
ESE 2008 UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
Ans : (d) Maxwell wein Bridge measures an inductors 100. Wheatstone Bridge is used for measurement
in terms of a capacitor stand this ingenious bridge of–
circuit is known as Maxwell wien bridge and wein (a) Earth resistance
bridge used for precision measurement of capacitance in (b) Very high resistance value
terms of resistance and frequency. It was also used to (c) Medium resistance value
measure audio frequency. (d) Very low resistance values
98. In the given Wheatstone bridge, R1=500Ω R3= ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015
200Ω. The bridge is balanced when R2 is Ans. (c) : Wheatstone bridge is a four-arms
adjusted to 125Ω. Find the resistance Rx arrangement out of which two arms contain two known
resistors, one arm contains variable resistance and the
fourth arm contains unknown resistance whose value is
to be obtained. A galvanometer should be connected
diagonally.
(a) Rx=100 Ω (b) Rx=200 Ω

(c) Rx=50 Ω (d) Rx=120 Ω
Ans : (c) From the wheatstone Bridge Relation in the
circuit:
Now, this variable resistance is varied till deflection of

galvanometer becomes zero by relation:
R
R x = R3 × 1
R2
R 1R x = R 2R 3 Here, R1 = 500Ω Where, Rx is an unknown resistance, R1 and R2 are the
R2= 200Ω known resistors and R3 is the variable resistance.
R3 = 125Ω 101. A Wien Bridge Osicllator is suitable for
500×Rx = 200×125 1. Audio frequency applications
200 × 125 2. Radio frequency applications
Rx = 3. Very low frequency applications
500
Which of the above frequency applications
R x = 50Ω is/are correct?
99. R1 and R4 are the opposite arms of a (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Wheatstone bridge as are R3 and R2. The (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
source voltage is applied across R1 and R3. ESE 2017
Under balanced conditions which one of the Ans. (a) : With no input signal a wien bridge oscillator
following is true– produces continuous output oscillations of 1 MHz.
R R R R Due to good frequency stability, very low distortion and
(a) R1 = 3 4 (b) R1 = 2 3 case of tuning it became most popular audio frequency.
R2 R4
102. In a Q-meter, distributed capacitance of a coil
R 2R 4
(c) R1 = (d) R1 = R 2 + R 3 + R 4 is measured by changing the capacitance of the
R3 tuning capacitor. The values of tuning
APTRANSCO AE 2011 capacitor are C1 and C2 for resonant
UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II frequencies f1 and 2f1 respectively. The value of
Ans. (b) : For a balance bridge condition distributed capacitance will be
C − C2 C − 2C2
(a) 1 (b) 1
2 3
C1 − 4C2 C1 − 3C2
(c) (d)
3 2
ESE 2020
Ans. (c) : Value of tuning capacitance at f1 = C1
Value of tuning capacitance at f2 = C2
1
i.e, f1 = .......(i)
2π L ( C1 + Cd )
R1 R4 = R2 R3 1
and 2f1 = .......(ii)
R R
R1 = 2 3 2π L ( C 2 + Cd )
R4 from equation (i) and (ii) we get

  Ans. (b) : Z1 = 200 ∠ 60º
1 1
2⋅ = Z2 = 400 ∠ –90º
 2π L ( C1 + Cd )  2π L ( C2 + Cd )
  Z3 = 300 ∠ 0º
4 1 For bridge balance condition
=
C1 + Cd C2 + Cd Z1 Z4 = Z2 Z3
4C2 + 4Cd = C1 + Cd 400∠ − 900 × 300∠00
Z4 =
3Cd = C1 – 4C2 200∠600
C1 − 4C2 Z4 = 600∠ − 1500
Cd = = distributed capacitance.
3 105. Q-meter works on the following principle.
103. Suitable bridge for measurement of frequency (a) Parallel resonance circuit
(a) Wein’s bridge (b) Anderson’s bridge (b) Series resonance circuit
(c) Campbell bridge (d) De – Sautty Bridge (c) Mutual inductance
UPPCL AE 2014 (d) Self inductance
Ans. (a) : Wein's bridge is suitable bridge for MPPSC AE 2017
measurement of frequency. Ans. (b) : Q-meter works on the principle of series
(RLC) resonance circuit. Q meter is an instrument
designed for measuring quality factor of coil as well as
for the measurement of inductance, capacitance and
resistance.
106. The following bridge can be used for
measuring the dielectric loss of the capacitor.
(a) Owen bridge (b) Wien bridge

(c) Schering bridge (d) Maxwell bridge
MPPSC AE 2017
Ans. (c) : Schering bridge can be used for measuring
the dielectric loss of the capacitor. It is an AC bridge. It
also used in measuring dissipation factor, properties of
an insulator, capacitor bushing, insulating oil etc.
Neglecting loading effects of the op-amp input and 107. Harmonic distortions in power supply does not
output impedance, the analysis of the bridge circuit affect the performance of Maxwell's bridge
results in. since.
R 3 R1 C2 (a) Filters are used to remove harmonics
= +
R 4 R 2 C1 (b) Final expressions for unknown inductance
contains only fundamental frequency
1
f0 = (c) Mechanical resonance frequency of null
2π R1C1R 2 C2
detectors are beyond the range of harmonic
104. In an ac bridge three impedances are as follows frequencies.
Z1 = 200 ohm ∠ 60o (d) Final expression for unknown inductance is
Z2 = 400 ohm ∠ -90o independent of frequency.
Z3 = 300 ohm ∠ 0o. MPPSC AE 2017
for bridge to be balanced the value of Z4 will Ans. (d) : Harmonic distortions in power supply does
(a) 400 ohm ∠ –90o (b) 600 ohm ∠ –150o not effect the performance of Maxwell's bridge since
(c) 150 ohm ∠ 30 o
(d) 300 ohm ∠ 90 o
final expression for unknown inductance is independent
UPPCL AE 2014 of frequency.

(a) 1000 Ω /volt (b) 100 Ω /volt
(iv) Galvanometer, Ammeter & (c) 1m Ω /volt (d) 10m Ω /volt
Voltmeter RPSC AE 2018
Ans : (c) 1m Ω /volt meters has maximum loading
1. Sensitivity of a potentiometer is: effect on the circuit under measurement.
(a) high for high value of potentiometer 6. An meter has a full-scale deflection of 90
resistance degree at a current of 1 Ampere. The response
(b) low for high value of potentiometer resistance of the meter is square law. Assuming spring
(c) high for low value of potentiometer resistance control, the current for a deflection of 45
(d) constant with respect to potentiometer degree will be-
resistance (a) 0.25 Ampere (b) 0.50 Ampere
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 (c) 0.67 Ampere (d) 0.707 Ampere
Ans. (a) : Sensitivity of a potentiometer is high for high RPSC AE 2018
values of potentiometer resistance. Ans : (d) Given,
2. Deflecting torque of a moving Iron instrument Full scale deflection, θ1 = 900
depends on: for 450 deflection, θ2 = 450
(a) square of the current Current for full scale deflection, I1 =1A
(b) change in self inductance Since response is square law-
(c) current and change in self inductance ∵ θ ∝ I2
(d) square of the current and change in self 2
θ2  I 2 
inductance =  (∴ Using formula )
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 θ1  I1 
Ans. (d) : Deflecting torque of a moving Iron 1/ 2 1/ 2
instrument depends on square of the current and change θ   45 
in self inductance. ⇒ I 2 = I1  2  = 1×  
θ
 1  90 
Deflecting torque in moving Iron instrument is given as:
1
1  dL  = = 0.707 Amp
Td = I 2   2
2  dθ 
I = current 7. A d.c. ammeter has a resistance of 0.1Ω and its
dθ = deflection current range is 0 – 100A. If the range is to be
L = Inductance extended to 0 – 500A, the meter requires the
3. A simple slide wire is used for measurement of shunt resistance of
current in a circuit. The voltage drop across a (a) 0.01 W (b) 0.011 W
standard resistor of 0.1 Ω is balanced at 75 cm. (c) 0.25 W (d) 0.025 W
Find the magnitude of the current if the UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
standard cell emf of 1.45 V is balanced at 50 Ans. (d) : Rm = 0.1 ohm
cm:
Current range = 0-100 Amp.
(a) 21.75 A (b) 2.175 A
(c) 0.2175 A (d) 9.667 A Extended current range = 500 Amp.
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 Rm
Rsh =
1.45 m −1
Ans. (a) : Voltage per unity length =
50 New required range
m=
= 0.029 V/cm Pr e − existing range
Voltage drop across 75 cm length = 0.029×75
I 500
= 2.175 Volt m= = =5
2.175 Im 100
Current through the resistor ( I ) =
0.1 0.1
= 21.75Amp. Rsh =
5 −1
4. A 0-10 mA PMMC ammeter reads 4mA in a 0.1
circuit. Its bottom control spring snaps =
4
suddenly. The meter will now read nearly-
Rsh = 0.025
(a) 10 mA (b) 8 mA
(c) 2 mA (d) zero 8. A d.c. potentiometer is designed to measure
RPSC AE 2018 upto about 2V with a slide wire of 800 mm. A
Ans : (d) It will show zero, in PMMC, control springs standard cell of emf 1.18 V obtains balance at
reads 4mA in a circuit, if it snaps means breaks and it 600 mm. A test cell is seen to obtain balance at
will carry no current so, pointer will show zero. 680 mm. The emf of the test cell is
5. Which one of the following meters has (a) 1.00 V (b) 1.34 V
maximum loading effect on the circuit under (c) 1.50 V (d) 1.70 V
measurement? UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I

Ans. (b) : A potentiometer is a simple voltage divider (c) low resistance and small current carrying
with three terminals two-fixed terminals and third a capacity
movable terminal attached to a jockey-symbolically. (d) high resistance and small current carrying
For DC potentiometer E is proportional to the length of capacity
the wire. BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
E1 L1 Ans. (a) :
= 14. What would be the sensitivity of an ammeter,
E2 L2 which requires a change of 3A in its coil to
1.18 600 produce a change in deflection of the pointer
= by 6mm?
E2 680 (a) 0.4 mm/A
E2 = 1.34 V (b) 0.4 A/mm
9. If ‘d’ is the deflection in galvanometer in scale (c) 2 mm/A
divisions in mm and ‘I’ is galvanometer current (d) 2 A/mm
in µA, then the current sensitivity in mm/µA is Change in deflection
(a) I/d (b) d/I Ans.(c) Sensitivity =
(c) dI (d) dI current pass though ammeter
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I 6mm
=
Ans. (b) : d = deflection scale division in mm 3
I = current in µA = 2 mm/A
d d 15. Which of the following factors limit the
Current sensitivity = = mm / µA deflection of the pointer of a PMMC
I I instrument of about 90º?
10. The secondary output voltage of a saturable 1. Its damping mechanism
core frequency meter is the function of 2. Linearity of magnetic field in which the coil
(a) only frequency moves
(b) only primary voltage 3. Control spring arrangement
(c) both (a) and (b) 4. Shape of pole shoe for the horse shoe magnet
(d) None of above Select the correct answer using the code given
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I below:
(a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 and 4
Ans. (a) : The secondary output voltage of a saturable (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 4
core frequency meter is the function of only frequency. TSPSC AEE 2017
11. Two voltmeters of same range, one moving Ans. (c) : The deflection the pointer of a PMMC
iron type and other permanent magnet moving instruments about 90º can be limited by–
coil type, are connected in parallel for (i) Linearity of magnetic field in which the coil moves
measuring a.c. supply voltage. If the reading of (ii) Control spring arrangements.
MI type is 300V, the reading of PMMC type 16. Horizontally mounted moving iron instruments
will be use
(a) zero (a) Eddy current damping
(b) higher-than M.I. type (b) Electromagnetic damping
(c) lower than M.I. type (c) Fluid friction damping
(d) Same (d) Air friction damping
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (a) : PMMC instrument measures only DC or Ans. (d) : Horizontally mounted moving iron
average values, hence PMMC reading is zero. instruments use air friction damping. They will always a
Moving iron instrument measures both AC and DC resistance to an object which is in motion through a
quantities. viscous medium or on a surface.
12. A 5 mA ammeter having coil resistance of 9.99 17. The damping torque in a measuring instrument
Ω can be used to measure current up to 5A by can be produced by
using a shunt of (a) Eddy current (b) Gravity control
(c) Electro statically (d) Thermally
(a) 0.1 Ω TNPSC AE 2018
(b) 0.001 Ω Ans. (a) : Damping torque in a measuring instrument
(c) 0.01 Ω can be produced by eddy current.
(d) 0.0099 Ω This is done in PMMC (Permanent Magnet moving
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 coil)
Ans. (c) : 18. It a moving iron type ammeter is connected in
13. A moving-iron ammeter coil has thick wire and a circuit and we interchange its connection,
then,
few turns because of having (a) It will give no deflection
(a) low resistance and large current carrying (b) Its reading will not change
capacity (c) It will deflect in opposite direction
(b) high resistance and large current carrying (d) It will burn out
capacity TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : Reading will not change in moving iron type Ans. (b) : Frequency compensation in a moving -iron
ammeter, by interchange its connection because - instrument is achieved by connecting a capacitor across
T ∝ I 2rms the fix coil.
19. In which of the circuits the ammeters and the
voltmeters connected
L
C = 0.41
R s2
(a) circuit A (b) circuit B 24. In a ballistic galvanometer, damping follows
(c) circuit C (d) circuit D (a) hyperbolic decay
TNPSC AE 2018 (b) logarithmic decay
Ans. (d) : Ammeter always connect in series and (c) exponential decay
voltmeter connect in parallel. (d) exponential risc
Vizag Steel MT 2012
Ans. (b) : In Ballistic galvanometer, damping follows
logarithmic decay.
20. The internal resistance of an ammeter should 25. Electrostatic instruments are not free the effect
of
be
(a) temperature
(a) Medium (b) High
(b) frequency
(c) Small (d) Infinity
(c) stray magnetic field
TNPSC AE 2019
(d) stray electrostatic field
Ans. (c) : Ammeter is connected in series to the Vizag Steel MT 2012
measuring branch so these should not be extra voltage
Ans. (d) : Electrostatic instruments are not free the
drop. Hence it has thick an few number of turns.
effect of stray electrostatic field.
Ammeter has low internal resistance.
26. Damping torque is provided in the indicating
Voltmeter has high internal resistance.
instruments by
21. The range of an ammeter can be extended by (a) air friction (b) fluid friction
the use of a (c) eddy current (d) all (a), (b) and (c)
(a) Shunt in series (b) Shunt in parallel UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I
(c) Induction in series (d) Capacitor in series
Ans. (d) : Damping torque is provided in the indicating
TNPSC AE 2019 instruments by
Ans. (b) : Range of ammeter can be extended by using 1. air friction
a shunt in parallel. Range of voltmeter can be extended 2. fluid friction
by using a series resistance. 3. eddy current
22. Damping method used in moving coil 27. A 50Ω, 1 mA moving iron ammeter is to be
instruments is extended to an ammeter of 100 mA. The
(a) air damping approx value of resistance needed will be-
(b) fluid damping (a) 0.10 Ω (b) 0.505 Ω
(c) spring damping (c) 10 Ω (d) None of these
(d) eddy current damping UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I
Vizag Steel MT 2012 Ans. (b) :
Ans. (d) : In PPMC instruments eddy current damping
is used.
23. Frequency compensation in a moving iron
instrument is achieved by connecting
(a) a capacitor in series with the fixed coil
(b) a capacitor across the fixed coil
(c) high resistance in series with the coil
(d) low resistance in series with the coil Im = 1 mA
Vizag Steel MT 2012 I = 100 mA

Rm = 50Ω Ans : (c)
by KVL ( I − I m ) Rsh = Rm I m
 I 
 − 1 Rsh = Rm
 Im  Voltmeter V1 Voltmeter V2
I  SDC1 = 10 kΩ / V SDC2 = 20 kΩ / V
 = m = multiplication factor 
 Im  1 1
Ifsd1 = = 0.1mA Ifsd2 = = 0.05mA
I 100 SDC1 Sdc2
= = 100
Im 1 The maximum allowable current in this combination is
Rm 50 50 0.05 mA, Since both are connected in series. Maximum
Rsh = = = DC voltage can be measured as 0.05 mA.
m − 1 100 − 1 99
(10kΩ / V ×100 + 20kΩ / V × 100)
R sh = 0.505 Ω
= 3000 × 0.05
28. Consider the following statements for PMMC = 150V
Instruments: 32. Eddy current damping can not be used for
1. The scale is non-uniformly divided moving iron instrument because:
2. The power consumption is very low as 25 µW (a) The weight of the instrument will increase.
to 200 µW (b) the presence of permanent magnet required
3. The torque-weight ratio is high which gives a for this purpose will affect the deflection and
high accuracy the instrument reading.
Which of the above statements are correct? (c) the size of instrument will increase.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (d) eddy current will pass through iron and
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 thereby cause loss.
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (c) : Ans : (b) Eddy current Damping is not used for moving
29. The scale of a voltmeter is uniform. Its type is: iron type instruments because this, the presence of
(a) moving iron permanent magnet required for this purpose will effect
(b) induction the deflection and the instrument reading.
(c) moving coil permanent magnet 33. In a gravity controlled instrument, the
(d) moving coil dynamometer deflection angle is proportional to:
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (a) measurand
Ans : (c) The scale of PMMC type of instrument is (b) square of measurand
uniform because in such instruments, controlling torque (c) sine inverse of measurand
(d) sine of measurand
is directly proportional to angle of deflection of the
UPRVUNL AE 2016
pointer.
Ans : (c) In a gravity controlled instrument. The
30. In PMMC instruments, damping is provided
deflection angle is proportional to the sine inverse of
by:
measurand.
(a) the coil itself
It can be expressed as-
(b) separate pair of magnets
TC ∝sinθ, Here, TC = Controlling Torque
(c) an aluminium frame on which the coil is
Td∝I Td = Deflection Torque
wound
∴ I∝ sin θ,
(d) damping vane in an air tight chamber
θ ∝ sin–1(I)
UPRVUNL AE 2016
34. Electrostatic instruments are generally used
Ans : (c) In PMMC instruments, damping is provided
for:
by an aluminium frame on which the coil is wound.
(a) low current measurements
31. Two 100 V full scale PMMC type DC (b) high current measurements
voltmeters having Figure of Merits (FOM) of (c) low voltage measurements
10 kΩ/V and 20 kΩ/V are connected in series. (d) high voltage measurements
The series combination can be used to measure UPRVUNL AE 2016
a maximum DC voltage of: Ans : (d) Electrostatic instruments are generally used
(a) 200 V (b) 100 V for high voltage measurement. These can measure
(c) 150 V (d) 300 V voltages up to many thousand volts in the laboratories.
UPRVUNL AE 2016 It can be used for both A.C. and D.C. Measurement.

35. Two voltmeters have the same range 0-400 V. 37. Find the maximum value of excitation voltage
The internal impedance are 30kΩ and 20kΩ. If for potentiometer, if there is a power
dissipation of 6 W and maximum value
they are connected in a series and 600 V be
resistance of potentiometer is 500 Ω.
applied across them, the readings are: (a) 300 V (b) 3000 V
(a) 360 V and 240 V (c) 54.77 V (d) 90 V
(b) 300 V each UPRVUNL AE 2016
(c) 400 V and 200 V Ans : (c) Power dissipation = 6W
(d) out- of-range for one of the meters and 100 V Maximum Resistance = 500Ω
for the other Excitation voltage of Potentiometer
V2
UPRVUNL AE 2016 P=
Ans : (a) R
V2 = PR = 6×500
V = 3000
V = 54.77Volt
38. Voltmeter calibration is done through :
(a) a signal generator
(b) a potentiometer
(c) an ampere hour meter
(d) a hertz meter
using voltage divider Rule OMC Deputy manager 2019
30 Ans. (b) A potentiometer is an instrument designed to
V1 = × 600 measure an unknown voltage by comparing with a
50 known voltage. It has a high degree of accuracy. The
= 360 volt potentiometer is used for the calibration of voltmeters
20 and ammeters.
V2 = × 600 39. In the given figure, the ideal moving iron
50
voltmeter M will read
= 240 volt
36. The current flowing in a resistor of 1Ω is
measured to be 25 A. But it was discovered that
ammeter reading was low by 1% and
resistance was marked high by 0.5%. Find true
power as percentage of the original power. (a) 7.07 V (b) 12.24 V
(a) 95% (b) 100.1 (c) 14.14 V (d) 20.0 V
WBPSC AE 2007
(c) 101.5% (d) 102.4%
Ans. (b) :
UPRVUNL AE 2016
40. Following are some facts related to PMMC
Ans : (c) The ammeter reading is 25 A instruments:
But true reading is higher by 10% as ammeter is 1. It measures only average values.
showing low reading- 2. Scale is linear.
1 3. Spring is used for controlling torque.
∴ True I = 25 + 25 × 4. Damping torque is usually provided by Air
100 friction Damping.
= 25.25A Out of these:
Similarly true value of resistance is lower by 0.5% (a) 1 and 3 are correct
0.5 (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
∴ True R = 1 − 1× (c) 2 and 4 are correct
100
(d) 1,2 and 4 are correct
= 1 − 0.005 UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
= 0.995 Ans. (b) : Characteristic of PMMC
∴ True power = (True I)2 ×(True R)= (25.25)2×0.995 (i) It measures only average value
= 634.37 W (ii) Scale is linear
(iii) Spring is used for controlling torque.
Measured =(25)2 × 1= 625 W (iv) Eddy current damping used.
Hence true power as a percentage of power measured 41. If cross sectional area of the specimen in
True doubled, the magnetic flux density of the
= × 100 ballistic galvanometer ________.
Measured
(a) doubles (b) is halved
634.37
= × 100 = 101.5% (c) increases 4 times (d) decreases 4 times
625 UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
φ Ans : (b) Given–
Ans. (b) : B = IG = 100 mA
A
A' = 2A VG = 100 Volt
φ B V
R= G ⇒
100
B' = =
2A 2 I G 100 × 10−3
So magnetic flux density becomes half. R = 10 ⇒ 1000 Ω
3
42. Deflecting torque is_________ quantity under 46. PMMC ammeter have uniform scale because :
measurement in PMMC instruments. (RRB SSE (Shift-III), 01.09.2015)
(a) directly proportional to (a) eddy current damping
(b) inversely proportional to (b) They are spring controlled
(c) directly proportional to square of (c) Their deflecting torque varies directly as current
(d) inversely proportional to square of (d) Both spring controlled and having deflecting
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 torque varies directly as current
Ans. (a) : Deflecting torque is directly proportional to Ans : (d) deflecting torque ( T ) = NBIA = NBIdℓ = GI
d
quantity under measurement in PMMC.
Td = NBAI G = Constant = NB l d { A = ld}
Td ∝ I Spring control torque (TC) = Kθ
Where, K = spring coefficient
Td = deflection torque in N-m For final steady deflection, TC = Td
B = flux density in air gap, Wb/m2
G
N= number of terms of the coils θ =  I
A = effective area of the coil, m 2
K
I = current in the moving coil, amperes. K
43. Which of these instruments has highest power Current I =   θ
G
consumption? Therefore, deflection is proportional to the current
(RRB SSE (Shift-III), 03.09.2015) passing in the meter.
(a) Dynamometer Hence the scale of the PMMC uniform.
(b) Electrostatic
(c) Moving coil 47. For increasing the range of voltmeter, one
(d) Hot Wire should connect a:
UPRVUNL (AE) November-2016
Ans : (d) The hot wire sub system will take the most RRB SSE Bilaspur Yellow paper, 21.12.2014
power. Hot wire is based on the principal of heat effect (a) High value resistance in series with voltmeter
used in voltmeter and ammters. (b) Low value resistance in series with voltmeter
44. The internal resistance of the miliammeter (c) High value resistance in parallel with voltmeter
must be very low for (d) Low value resistance in parallel with voltmeter
(RRB SSE Bilaspur Yellow paper, 21.12.2014) Ans. (a) : To increase the range of a voltmeter a high
(a) high accuracy value of resistance is added to it's series to increase the
(b) high sensitivity range of the ammeter a low value of resistance is added
(c) minimum effect on the current in the circuit in its parallel order.
(d) maximum voltage drop across the mater 48. The damping force acts on the moving system
of an indicating instrument only when it is
Ans : (c) The internal resistance of one millimeter of
(RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I), 02.09.2015)
ammeter should be very low which leads to less impact
(a) Moving
of current in the circuit.
(b) Stationary
• The internal resistance of an ideal ammeter should (c) Near its full deflection
be zero.
(d) Just starting to move
• The internal resistance of a voltmeter measure in
Ans : (a) The damping torque in the indicating
millimeters.
instrument, is the work when the indicator is in the
Must me greater than the value of millimeter ammeter
moving state. The damping torque does not appear to be
current.
in a state of steady deflection. Its main function is to
45. A galvanometer (G) measures upto 100mA provide stability to the indicator.
current. It is to be converted to voltmeter to Damping torque ∝ Speed of rotating part.
measure upto 100 volts. What is required to be
done? 49. The most efficient type of damping used for
moving coil type instrument is:
(RRB SSE Secunderabad Green paper, 21.12.2014)
RRB SSE (Shift-III) 01.09.2015
(a) Add 100Ω resistance in series with G
(a) Air damping
(b) Add 1000 Ω resistance in series with G (b) Fluid friction damping
(c) Add 1 Ω resistance in parallel with G (c) Motion damping
(d) Add 0.1 Ω resistance in parallel with G (d) Eddy current damping

Ans. (d) : 53. Use of high permeability core in moving iron
instrument helps in
(RRB SSE (Shift-II), 03.09.2015)
(a) reducing size of meter
(b) increasing sensitivity
(c) reducing temperature error
(d) reducing losses
Ans (c) : Use of high permeability core in moving iron
In eddy current damping, a thin aluminium or copper instrument helps in reducing temperature error.
disc (the disc must be a conductor but non magnetic) 54. An ammeter of range 0-30 A has a guaranteed
attached to the moving system is allowed to pass accuracy of 1% of full scale reading. The
between the poles of a permanent magnet. As the current measured by the ammeter is 6A. The
pointer moves the disc cuts across the magnetic field limiting error in reading is:
and eddy currents produced in the disc. These eddy (a) 5% (b) 4%
currents react with the field of the magnet to produce a (c) 2% (d) 1%
force which opposes motion (Lenz's law). In this way, UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
eddy currents provide damping torque to reduce the % Accuracy × F.S.D.
oscillations of the pointer. Ans. (a) : % Limiting error =
Measured value
50. The hot wire ammeter: 1% × 30
(RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I), 02.09.2015) = = 5%
(a) Is used only for dc circuits 6
(b) High precision instrument 55. In DC potentiometer measurements, a second
(c) Used only for ac circuit reading is often taken after reversing the
(d) Reads equally well on dc and ac circuit polarities of DC supply and the unknown
Ans : (d) Use of hot wire ammeter A.C. and D.C. both voltage, and the average of two reading is
ammeter. The use of PMMC ammeter only D.C. and taken. This is done to eliminate the effects of:
induction ammeter use only in A.C. (a) Stray thermal e.m.fs
(b) Variations in voltages and temperature
51. A moving-iron meter will operate on.............. (c) Stray magnetic fields
RRB SSE (Shift-III) 28.08.2015 (d) Ripples in DC supply
(a) A.C. circuit only UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
(b) D.C. ciruit only Ans. (a) : In DC potentiometer measurements, a second
(c) either A.C. or D.C. circuit reading is often taken after reversing the polarities of
(d) A.C. or D.C. when a rectifier is used DC supply and the unknown voltage, and the average of
Ans : (c) In iron moving meter– two reading is taken, this done to eliminate the emf of
1 dL stray thermal emfs.
Td = I 2 θ ∝ I2 56. The standardization of AC potentiometers is
2 dθ
The moving iron meter measures A.C. and D.C. value done by using:
of both the current or voltage of the A.C. supply. (a) DC standard sources and transfer instruments
Because the deflection will always be in the same (b) AC standard voltage sources directly
direction if the current value is negative or positive. In (c) AC standard sources and transfer instruments
case of A.C., it is measure rms value. (d) Galvanometers and DC supply
52. Torque/weight ratio of an instrument indicates UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
(a) Selectivity (b) Accuracy Ans. (a) : The standardization of AC potentiometer is
(c) Fidelity (d) Sensitivity done by using DC standard sources and transfer
RPSC VPITI 2018 instruments.
TSPSC AEE 2017 57. In a spring-controlled moving iron
RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I) 02.09.2015 instruments, the scale is
ESE 2004 (a) Uniform
ESE 2003 (b) Cramped at the lower end and expanded at
the upper end
Ans. (d) : Torque/weight ratio of instrument indicate (c) Expanded at the lower end and cramped at the
sensitivity. If a pointer having less weight, it will have upper end
high torque weight ratio. So that even for small (d) Cramped both at the lower and the upper ends
deflection pointer start moving and indicates measured MPPSC AE 2016
value it is indicate that it have high sensitivity.
Ans. (d) : In spring controlled moving iron instruments
The ratio of torque to weight of an instrument is the the scale is cramped both at the lower and the upper
measure of the sensitivity of the instrument i.e. ends.
 Torque  58. A PMMC based instrument can be used to
Senstivity ∝ Weight  measure
 
(a) DC (Average) value
T
If ratio is high; Instrument is more sensitive & if (b) Maximum value
W (c) RMS(root mean square) value
T (d) All are correct
ratio is low; instrument is less sensitive.
W MPPSC AE 2016
Ans. (a) : A PMMC based instrument can be used to V = IR
measure DC value. = 0.1× 5 = 0.5
59. If a DC voltmeter is made from an ammeter Burden of CT = VI
having a fed of 100µA then its sensitivity (in = 0.5 × 5 = 2.5 VA
KΩ/V) will be
(a) 1 (b) 100 63. In a ballistic galvanometer, the deflecting
(c) 10 (d) 1000 torque is proportional to
KPTCL AE 2016 (a) the current through coil
Ans. (c) : Voltmeter sensitivity (Sv) is given by (b) square of current through coil
 1  (c) square root current through coil
Sv =  Ω / volt (d) sine of measurand
 Ifsd 
Here, Ifsd = 100 µA RPSC VPITI 2018
1 Ans. (a) : In ballistic galvanometer the deflecting
Sv= = 10000 Ω / Volt torque is proportional to the current in coil
100 × 10−6
kΩ Deflecting Toque Td = BiNA = Gi
= 10 Td ∝ i
Volt
60. In moving coil meters, damping is provided by- 64. The relation between the torque in a shaded
(a) damping vane in the air tight chamber pole induction disc relay and current is that,
(b) the aluminum frame of the coil for single actuating quantity the torque
(c) eddy current disk
(d) the coil spring attached to the moving developed is
mechanism (a) directly proportional to square root of the
KPTCL AE 2016 actuating current
Ans. (b) : Moving coil meter movement make use of (b) directly proportional to actuating current
the aluminium frame on which the coil is would to (c) directly proportional to square of the
provide damping since aluminium is a conductor, the actuating current
frame acts as a one turn coil.
(d) inversely proportional to the actuating current
61. A PMMC meter has an internal resistance 200
Ω and the current required for its full scale JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
deflection is 50 µA. The meter is capable of Ans. (c) : T = KI2 sin θ Τ ∝ Ι2
measuring, on its own, a maximum voltage of Torque is directly proportional to square of the
______ actuating current.
(a) 5 µV (b) 10 µV
(c) 5 mV (d) 10 mV 65. A weight of 2 kg is used as controlling weight in
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 a gravity controlled instrument. If the
Ans. (d) : Given internal resistance of meter (PMMC deflecting torque corresponding to a deflection
type) is 200 Ω and current required for its full scale of 90° is 9.81 × 10-3 then its distance from the
deflection is 50 µA. spindle will be
The maximum voltage the meter is capable of (a) 0.4 m (b) 0.6 m
measuring is V = IR = 50×10–6×200
= 10 mV (c) 0.5 m (d) 0.7 m
62. An ammeter of 0.1 Ω resistance is connected Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
across the secondary of a 400/5 A current Ans. (c) : mgl sin θ = NABI = Td
transformer (CT). The CT burden is m = 2g = 2 × 10-3 kg
(a) 0.5 VA (b) 2.5 VA θ = 90º
(c) 5.0 VA (d) 25 VA
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 Td = mgℓsinθ
Ans. (b) : The burden of CT is the maximum load (in = 2 × 10 −3 × 9.81× ℓ × sin 90º = 9.81 × 10 −3
VA) that can be applied at the CT secondary. The 9.81×10−3 1
burden can be expressed in two ways the burden can be ℓ= = = 0.5
expressed as the total impedance in ohms of the circuit 2 ×10−3 × 9.81× sin 90º 2
or the total volt-amp (VA) and power factor at specified 66. The standardization of a.c. potentiometers is
value of current or voltage and frequency. done by using
(a) directly a.c. standard voltage sources
(b) D.C. standard sources and d’Arsonval
galvanometer
L (c) A.C. standard voltage sources and transfer
O
A instruments
D
(d) D.C. standard sources and transfer
instruments

Ans. (d) : AC Potentiometer:-The potentiometer Ans. (b) : In analog instrument controlling torque is
which is used for measuring the phase and the provided by-
magnitude of the unknown emf by comparing it with (1) Spring control
the known emf such type of potentiometer is known as (2) Gravity control
the AC potentiometer. Control torque is used to bring the pointer in zero initial
• The standardization is done with the help of a dc position if there is no deflecting torque.
standard source i.e. a standard cell or a Zener source 72. A 1 mA ammeter has a resistance of 100 ohm.
and transfer instrument. The transfer instrument is It is to be converted to a 1A ammeter. The
usually an electrodynamometer. value of shunt resistance is
67. A Peterson coil is ________ (a) 0.001 ohm (b) 0.1001 ohm
(a) An arc generating coil (c) 1 × 105 ohm (d) 100 ohm
(b) An arc suppressing coil GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
(c) An arc inducing coil Ans. (b) : Meter resistance Rm = 100 Ω, I=1A, Im=1mA
(d) None of these New current
KPTCL AE 2015 Multiplying factor (m) =
Ans. (b) : A Peterson coil is an arc suppressing coil. Rated Ammeter current
68. PMMC moving coil instruments measures I 1
Multiplying factor (m) = = = 1000
which of the following? I m 1× 10−3
(a) DC only (b) AC only
(c) AC & DC only (d) None of the options New current
= = 1000
Vizag Steel MT 2011 Rated Ammeter current
Ans. (a) : PMMC (Permanent magnet moving coil) Rm 100
Instruments measures DC value only. Now Rsh shunt resistance = =
Advantages of PMMC instruments– m − 1 1000 − 1
• The power consumption of the devices is very less. = 0.1001 Ω
• The PMMC instruments have high accuracy because 73. A d.c. potentiometer is designed to measure up
of the high torque to weight ratio. to about 2V with a slide wire of 800mm. A
• The scale of the PMMC instruments is correctly standard cell of emf 1.18V obtains balance at
divided. 600mm. A test cell is seen to obtain balance at
680mm. The emf of the test cell is–
69. The internal resistance of the ammeter should (a) 1.00V (b) 1.34V
be very low so that– (c) 1.50V (d) 1.70V
(a) It will have high sensitivity APTRANSCO AE 2011
(b) It will provide high accuracy
(c) It will provide maximum voltage drop across Ans. (b) : EMF ∝ Length
the meter EMF ∝ l
(d) It will provide minimum effect of the current EMF1 ℓ1
in the circuit =
EMF2 ℓ 2
MPPSC AE 2014
Ans. (d) : Internal resistance of ammeter should be very EMF1 = 1.18V l1= 600
low. That ammeter are connected in series, so their EMF2 = ? l2 = 680
resistance value is kept low enough because, in series EMF2 ℓ 2
=
they measure current passing through then low EMF1 ℓ1
resistance help ammeter to detect the accurate value of
current. ℓ × EMF1
EMF2 = 2
70. PMMC instrument can be used for ℓ1
measurement of quantity of 1.18 × 680
EMF2 =
(a) A.C. only (b) A.C and D.C. both 600
(c) D.C. only (d) None of above = 1.34V
GMB AE 2017
Ans. (c) : PMMC– Permanent magnet moving coil 74. The effect of stray magnetic fields on the
PMMC instrument measures only DC or average actuating torque of a portable instrument is
values maximum when the operating field of the
Scale of PMMC instrument is linear. instrument and the stray fields are–
(a) Perpendicular (b) Parallel
Spring is used for controlling torque.
(c) Inclined at 600 (d) Inclined at 300
71. In Analog instrument spring is used for
APTRANSCO AE 2011
generate
(a) Deflection torque Ans. (b) : Due to stray magnetic field torque is also
(b) Controlling torque produce which can effect the torque produced due to
(c) Damping torque operating field. If both stray magnetic and operating
(d) Eddy current generation field are parallel. torque due to both field become
GMB AE 2017 additive.

75. A reading of 120 volt is obtained when a I 25
standard inductor was connected in the circuit Ans. (d) : m = I = 5 = 5
m
of a Q-meter and the variable capacitor is
Rm
adjusted to a value of 300 pF. A lossless ∵ R sh =
capacitor of unknown value CX is then m −1
0.2 0.2
connected in parallel with the variable = =
capacitor and the same reading was obtained 5 − 1 4
when the variable capacitor is readjusted to a R sh = 0.05 ohm in parallel with meter
value of 200pF. The value of CX in pF is– 78. Consider the following statements–
(a) 100 (b) 200 (i) The compensating coil of a low power factor
(c) 300 (d) 500 wattmeter compensates the effect of the
APTRANSCO AE 2011 impedance of the current coil
Ans. (a) : (ii) The compensating coil of a low power factor
wattmeter compensates the effect of the
impedance of the voltage coil circuit
(a) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(b) (i) is false but (ii) is true
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are false
APTRANSCO AE 2011
Ans. (b) : Compensating coil of a low power factor
watt meter compensates the effect of the impedance of
Ceq = 300 pf the of the voltage coil circuit.
Ceq = Cx + 200 pf Compensating coil connected in series with pressure
Cx = Ceq – 200 pf coil and opposite direction to the current coil.
= (300 – 200)pf 79. The minimum number of wattmeter (s)
required to measure 3-phase, 3-wire balanced
= 100 pf or unbalanced–
76. A wattmeter is connected as shown in the (a) 1 (b) 2
figure. The wattmeter reads– (c) 3 (d) 4
APTRANSCO AE 2011
Ans. (b) : Minimum no. of watt meter required = N –1
= 3 –1 (N = No of conductor wire)
= 2 Watt meter required
80. Instruments used for the a.c. measurement
alone is
(a) Induction type
(b) permanent magnet moving coil type
(c) hot wire type
(a) Zero always (d) electrostatic type
(b) Total power consumed by Z1 and Z2 UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
(c) Power consumed by Z1 Ans. (a) : Instruments used for the a.c. measurement
(d) Power consumed by Z2 alone is induction type. While other given instruments
APTRANSCO AE 2011 used for both a.c. and d.c. measurement.
Ans. (d) : Potential coil draws zero current so current 81. An ideal meter for the measurement of current
in Z1 + Z2 are same. or voltage should have
(a) absolutely no effect on the circuit conditions
ICC = I (b) zero resistance
Wattmeter reads power consumed by Z2, as voltage a (c) infinite resistance
across potential coil = voltage across Z2. (d) definite effect on circuit conditions
Current through current coil = Current through Z2. UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
77. An ammeter has a current change of 0-5A and Ans. (a) : An ideal meter for the measurement of
its internal resistance is 0.2 ohm. In order to current or voltage should have absolutely no effect on
the circuit conditions.
change the range to 0-25A,wear need to add a
82. The high torque to weight ratio in an analog
resistance of–
indicating instrument indicates :
(a) 0.8 ohm in series with the meter (a) very high friction loss
(b) 1.0 ohm in series with the meter (b) low friction loss
(c) 0.04 ohm in parallel with the meter (c) nothing as regards friction loss
(d) 0.05 ohm in parallel with the meter (d) none of these
APTRANSCO AE 2011 RPSC VPITI 2016

Ans. (b) : High torque to weight ratio in an analog Ans. (a) : If ammeter is connected across the load, due
indicating instrument indicate low friction loss. to low coil resistance, very high current may flow
83. The scale of the voltmeter is uniform. Its type is through the ammeter coils and can possibly damage the
: device. In series connection, the same current flows
(a) moving iron through all the components. Ammeter has a low
(b) induction resistance because we don't want to change current
(c) moving coil permanent magnet flowing through circuit.
(d) moving coil dynamometer 87. The permanent magnet in an a.c. energy meter
RPSC VPITI 2016 provides :-
Ans. (c) : The scale of the voltmeter is uniform, its type (a) Damping torque (b) Deflecting torque
is a permanent magnet moving coil. This are use for (c) Breaking torque (d) All of these
average values. UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
84. The deflecting torque of an Ammeter is directly Ans. (c) : The permanent magnet is an a.c. energy meter
proportional to the current passing through it provides breaking torque.
and the instrument has full scale deflection of
90 degree for a current of 10A. What deflection 88. Electrostatic type instruments are primarily
will occur for a current of 5A when the used as :-
instrument has gravity control? (a) Ammeters (b) Wattmeters
(a) 30 degree (b) 45 degree (c) Voltmeters (d) Ohmmeters
(c) 60 degree (d) 90 degree UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
LMRC AE 2015 Ans. (c) : Electrostatic type instruments are primarily
Ans. (a) : In case of gravity control used as voltmeters.
I ∝ sinθ
2
θ∝I 2 89. The sensitivity of a PMMC instrument is 10
2
kΩ/V. If this instrument is used in a rectifier
sin θ  5  type voltmeter with half wave rectification, the
=  
sin 90°  10  sensitivity will be :-
1 (a) 10 kΩ/V (b) 9 kΩ/V
sin θ =
2 (c) 4.5 kΩ/V (d) 2.2 kΩ/V
sin θ = sin 30o UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
θ = 300 Ans. (c) : Given,
85. The inductance of certain moving iron Sensitivity of PMMC (Sdc) = 10 kΩ/V
instrument is L = (8 + 4α – 0.5α2) µH, where α for half wave rectification sensitivity (Sac),
is the deflection in radian from 0 position. If Sac = 0.45Sac
the control spring torque is 12µN-m/radian, the
scale in position in radian for a current of 2A = 0.45 × 10 kΩ/V
is : Sac = 4.5 kΩ / V
(a) 1.75 radian (b) 0.57 radian
(c) 0.21 radian (d) 0.8 radian 90. Which instrument has identical calibration for
LMRC AE 2015 a.c. and d.c. values–
Ans. (b) Given, (a) Hot wire type (b) Moving coil type
K = 12 µ N-m/radian (c) Induction type (d) Moving type
I = 2A
L = (8 + 4α – 0.5 α ) µH
2 PTCUL AE 2012
Ans. (a) : Hot wire instruments have same calibration
dL
=
dα dα
d
( 8 + 4α − 0.5α 2) for both dc and ac. These are used for measurement of
dL dc and ac both. These are free from errors due to
= 3µH frequency, waveform and external field when used on
dα
from the torque equation ac, therefore, these are particularly used for ac
2
1 I dL measurements.
α= × × 91. Which of the following formula is correct :
2 K dα
1 4 −6
(a) KVA = (KW) 2 + (KVAR) 2
α= × × 3 × 10
2 12 × 10−6
(b) KW = KVA cos φ
α = 0.5radian
(c) KVAR = KVA sin φ
86. When the ammeter is connected across the load (d) All of the above
:
(a) High current will flow through the meter and PTCUL AE 2016
meter may burnout Ans. (d) : Active power P = VI cosφ
(b) The meter acts as a voltmeter Reactive power Q = VI sinφ
(c) The current will not flow through the meter Apparent power S = P + jQ = VI
(d) The meter reads the correct reading
2 2
CIL MT 2020 |S| = P + Q

92. If M is mutual inductance between fixed coil Ans. (a) The standardization of A.C. potentiometers is
and moving coil and θ is deflection, then: done by using AC standard sources and transfer
dM instrument.
(a) θα (b) θα M 97. The given signal is fed to a MI and PMMC
dθ
2 meter. What will be the respective readings?
 dM 
(c) θα   (d) θα M 2
 dθ 
Ans. (a) Mutual inductance is the phenomenon of
inducing e.m.f. in a coil due to rate of change of current (a) 5V and 5V (b) 3.53V and 5V
or change in magnetic flux linked with near by coil. (c) 5V and 0V (d) 53.53 and 1.6V
M = Mutual inductance UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
θ = deflection Ans : (a) Moving Iron instrument measures root mean
square value the r.m.s. value of square wave is Vm.
dM
θ∝ Where, Vm= Peak Voltage
dθ So, MI instrument measures root mean square value in
93. Instrument whose deflection depends upon the given waveform, which is 5V.
average value, is: PMMC instrument measures average value, so the
(a) Moving iron type average value in the waveform is 5V because the
(b) Hot wire type average value of symmetrical signal is determined for
(c) Rectifier type half cycle.
(d) Induction type 98. A PMMC voltmeter is connected across a
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 series combination of DC voltage source
Ans. (c) Rectifier type instrument measures the V1=12V and AC voltage source V2(t)=9sin(4t)V.
alternating voltage and current with help of rectifying The meter reads:-
elements and permanent magnet moving coil type of (a) 13V (b) 15V
instrument. The instrument deflects by the average (c) 12V (d) 7.5V
value of current which depends on average voltage of UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
apparatus and rectifier type Instrument deflection Ans : (c) A PMMC meter reads only DC value, so the
depend on average value. reading measured by voltmeter will be 12 volt only.
94. In an induction type of meter, maximum 99. A current of 10+6sin( ωt+30)A is passed
torque is produced when phase angle between through two meters. They are a PMMC meter
two fluxes is: and a moving iron Instrument. The respective
(a) 00 (b) 450 reading (in A) will be :
(c) 600 (d) 900 (a) 10A and 10A (b) 10A and 16A
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 (c) 10A and 10.86A (d) 0A and 6A
Ans. (d) In an induction type of meter interaction UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
between two magnetic fluxes and eddy current setup a Ans : (c) PMMC instrument measured only D.C.
driving torque in the disc. current.
Tmax α I1 I2 sin θ ∴ current measured by PMMC meter = 10 amp.
Tmax is max when sinθ = 1 2
θ = sin–1 (1) I 
( IDC )
2
In Moving Iron type meter = + m 
θ = 90º  2
Maximum torque is produced when the phase angle
36
between two fluxes is 90º. = 100 +
95. In majority of instruments damping is 2
provided by
(a) fluid friction (b) spring = 118 = 10.86Amp
(c) eddy currents (d) None of the above
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014100. The measurement range of an voltmeter can be
increased by using a_____.
Ans. (c) : Majority of instruments damping is provided (a) High resistance in shunt
by eddy currents. (b) Low resistance in shunt
eddy current are generated in the conductor, as they (c) High resistance in series
eddy current dissipated, energy is removed from the
system, thus producing damping effect. (d) Low resistance in series
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
96. The standardization of a.c potentiometers is
done by using: Ans : (c) The range of an voltmeter can be increased by
using a high resistance in series.
(a) A.C. standard sources and transfer instrument
• Shunt are used for the range extension of ammeters.
(b) D.C. standard sources and transfer A shunt is a low value resistance having minimum
instruments temperature co-efficient and is connected in parallel
(c) A.C. standard voltage source directly with the ammeter whose range is to be extended. The
(d) D.C. standard sources and D.C. galvanometer combination is connected in series with the circuit
UPPCL AE 2015 whose current is to be measured.
101. With a multiplier setting of 30 kΩ, it reads 103. A galvanometer has sensitivity of 50 and has a
400V and with a multiplier setting of 80 kΩ, it resistance of 100Ω. The multiplying power (the
reads 250 V. For a multiplier setting of 20 kΩ, ratio of measured current to galvanometer
the voltmeter reads current) of 10Ω shunt with this galvanometer is :
(a) 371V (b) 483V (a) 11 (b) 100
(c) 454.57V (d) 406 V (c) 110 (d) 10
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
Ans : (c) Circuit diagram is drawn below-
Ans : (a)
1
S=
Ifsd
1
Ifsd = = 0.02A
50
on adding 10Ω resistance in shunt
After setting the multiplier
on 30 kΩ-
R S1 = 30 kΩ, v = 400V
400
V= × 30 + 400 ................. (i) V = 0.02×100
Rm
V = 2Volt
Setting the multiplier on 80 kΩ 2 1
RS2 = 80 kΩ, v = 250V I1 = = A = 0.2A
250 10 5
V= × 80 + 250 ................. (ii) I = I1+0.02
Rm I= 0.2+0.02
Solving equation (i) and (ii) I = 0.22 A
We get- Multiplying power
Rm = 53.33 kΩ I 0.22
M= = = 11
V= 625.0234 volt I m 0.02
Setting the multiplier for 20 kΩ 104. An ammeter has a current range of 0-5 A and
v its internal resistance is 0.4Ω. In order to
V= × 20 + v
Rm change the range to 0-50 A, we need to add a
resistance of______.
v
625.0234 = × 20 + v {R m = 53.33kΩ} (a) 0.4Ω in series with the meter
Rm (b) 1.0 Ω in series with the meter
v = 454.56Volt (c) 0.044Ω in parallel with the meter
(d) 0.055Ω in parallel with the meter
102. A moving coil of a meter has 400 turns and a UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
length and depth of 20 mm and 20 mm Ans : (c)
respectively. It is positioned in a uniform radial
flux density of 200 mT. The coil carries a full
scale current of 25 mA. The torque on the coil
is ............ and sensistivity is.........
(a) 800µNm, 40Ω/V
(b) 800µNm, 25Ω/V
(c) 200µNm, 100Ω/V To increase the range of ammeter
Given, I = 50A, Im = 5A
(d) 800µNm, 1Ω/V Rm = 0.4 Ω
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 Ish = 50 - 5 = 45A
Ans : (a) N = 400, B = 200mT Vsh = Vm
I = 25mA, l=20mm; depth = 20mm. Ish Rsh = Im Rm
A = 20×20 = 400mm 2 45×Rsh= 5×0.4
Rsh = 0.044Ω
Td = NBIA
105. Which of the following indicating instruments
= 400×200×10–3×25×10–3×20×20×10–6
–12 has/have linear scale?
= 80000×25×400×10
–4 (a) Moving-iron meter
= 8×10 (b) Permanent magnet moving-coil meter
Td = 800µNm, (c) Thermocouple meter
1 1 (d) Rectifier type meter
Sensitivity = = = 40Ω/volt RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
Ifs 25 ×10−3
ESE 2006
Ans. (b) : Permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC) has (a)
8A
linear scale. PMMC instrument measure only DC or (b)
12 A
average values, spring used have two properties - (c)
18 A
1. To inject the current as a load. (d)
Indeterminate unless the actual value of R,C
2. To controlling pointer movement and ω are specified
TD = NBAI TD = Deflection torque Punjab PSC SDE 2017
G = NBA Ans. (b) : Given- A1 = 5A A3 = 13A
So, TD = GI
Reading of A2 -
Controlling torque TC = kθ
( A3 ) = ( A1 ) + ( A 2 )
2 2 2
At balance condition TD = TC
kθ = GI
(13)
2
= (5)2 + (A 2 )2
G
deflection θ =   I So, θ ∝ I
169 = 25 + ( A 2 )
2
k
k= spring constant, G = Galvanometer constant (A2)2 = 144
106. Two meters X and Y require 40 mA and 50 A2 = 12A
mA, respectively, to give full-scale deflection, 109. A dc supply of 35 V is connected across 600 Ω
then resistance in series with an unknown
(a) Sensitivity cannot be judged with given resistance. The voltmeter having a resistance of
information 1.2 kΩ is connected across 600 Ω resistance
(b) Both are equally sensitive
(c) X is more sensitive which reads 5 V. Then the unknown resistance
(d) Y is more sensitive should be
(RRB SSE (Shift-II), 03.09.2015) (a) 50 Ω (b) 1.7 kΩ
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 (c) 3.6 kΩ (d) 2.4 kΩ
ESE 2002 Karnataka PSC AE 2017
ESE 1992 Ans. (d) : Given, Vm = 5 V, V = 35 V
Ans. (c) : Full scale deflection of meter X = 40 mA
Full scale deflection of meter Y = 50 mA
1
Sensitivity ∝
full scale deflection
Hence X is more sensitive, because of less value of full
scale deflection. 600 × 1200
107. Which of the following is a non-essential Rm = = 400
1800
requirement of a voltage multiplier? V 35
(a) The change in their resistance with m= = =7
temperature should be low Vm 5
(b) They should be non-inductively wound for Rs = Rm (m – 1)
a.c. meters = 400 (7 – 1)
(c) The change in their resistance with = 400 × 6
temperature should be high R s = 2.4kΩ
(d) Their resistance should not vary with time
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III 110. A current of
Ans. (c) : A voltage multiplier essential requirement: –8 + 6 2 ( sinωt + 30o ) A
The change in their resistance with temperature should
be low. is passed through three meters. They are
They should be non-inductively wound for ac meters. centre-zero PMMC meter, a true r.m.s. meter
Their resistance should not vary with time. and a moving-iron instrument. The respective
But option (c) is non-essential requirement of a voltage readings (in A) will be
multiplier. (a) 8, 6, 10 (b) 8, 6, 8
108. In the figure shown, A1, A2 and A3 are ideal (c) –8, 10, 10 (d) –8, 2, 2
ammeters. If A1 and A3 read 5 and 13A JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V
respectively. Reading of A2 will be- Ans. (c) : • Centre zero PMMC reads shows → –8
(only DC value)
• RMS meter reads only RMS value:
(6 2 )
2
( −8 )
2
= 10+
2
• Moving Iron instrument reads only RMS value:
(6 2 )
2
( −8 )
2
+ = 10
2

111. A 1000 V d.c. supply has two 1-core cables as Ans. (c)
its positive and negative leads. Their insulation
resistance to earth are 4 MΩ and 6 MΩ
respectively as shown in Fig. 15. A voltmeter
with resistance 50 kΩ is used to measure the
insulation of the cable, when connected
between the positive core and earth. Then the
voltmeter reads D.C. current Io = Im/π
A.C. current Irms = Im/2
M.I. type Ammeter Reads Im/2 = 5, Im = 10 Amp.
PMMC need D.C. current
10
I0 = Im/π =
π
= 3.18 Amp.
114. What is the maximum torque on a square loop
(a) 8 V (b) 16 V
of 1000 turns in a field of uniform flux density,
(c) 24 V (d) 40 V B = 1 Wb/m2? [The loop has 10 mm side and
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V carries a current of 3A]
Ans. (a) : (a) 30 N-m (b) 40 N-m
(c) 20 N-m (d) 80 N-m
Ans. (a) :
Maximum torque on a square loop Tpmax = NBIA
Here parallel resistance, = 1000 × 1 × 3 × 10×10-3

Rth = 4MΩ || 0.05 MΩ TPmax = 30 N - m
4 × 0.05 0.2 N = No. of turns
= = = 0.049 MΩ
4.05 4.05 I = Current
∴ Voltage division rule B = Flux density
1000 × 0.049 115. An analog voltmeter uses external multiplier
V= = 8.1 V
6.049 setting with a multiplier setting of 20kΩ, it
V ≅8V reads 440V and with a multiplier setting of
112. Measuring range of a voltmeter can be 80kΩ it reads 252V. For a multiplier setting of
extended by using 40 Ω, voltmeter reads
(a) high shunt resistance (a) 371V (b) 383V
(b) a non-inductive resistance in series with the (c) 394V (d) 406V
voltmeter UJVNL AE 2016
(c) low shunt resistance Ans. (d) Let us consider the resistance of voltmeter is
(d) None of the above R.
Ans. (b) : Measuring range of a voltmeter can be
extended by using a non inductive resistance in series
with the voltmeter.
V
Rse = Rm (m–1) m=
Vm
113. A PMMC-type ammeter and a moving iron-
type ammeter are connected in series in a V = 20i + Ri
resistive circuit fed from output of a half-wave V = (20 + R)i V = 80i + 252 .....(2)
rectifier voltage source. If the moving iron-type or
ammeter reads 5A, the PMMC-type ammeter V = 20i + 440 .....(1)
reads From equ. (1) & (2)
(a) zero (b) 2.5A V = 480V R = 220 kΩ
(c) 3.18A (d) 5A 480
Vc = × 220 = 406 V
BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V 40 + 220

116. The deflection of a moving coil galvanometer A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by
becomes one-fourth when shunted by 20 ohms connecting a low resistance called shunt resistance in
resistance. The resistance of the galvanometer parallel to the galvanometer because the shunt
is : resistance should have a very low resistance. The
(a) 10 (b) 40 current entering the ammeter will be split into two parts.
(c) 60 (d) 50 Let Ig be the maximum current that can flow through
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I galvanometer. Then I-Ig is the current flowing through
shunt resistance.
I
Ans. (c) : Given, Im = Ig .G = ( I − Ig ) .S ..............(i)
4
I I 4I  Ig 
S = G.
 I − I 
So multiplying factor (m) = = = =4 ..................(ii)
Im I I  g 
4 Ig is only a fraction of I, the value of shunt resistance
will be very low.
119. A 0 -1 Ampere moving iron ammeter has an
internal resistance of 50 mΩ and inductance of
0.1 mH. A shunt coil is connected to extent its
range to 0-10 Ampere for all operating
frequencies. The time constant in milliseconds
and resistance in mΩ of the shunt coil
R
R sh = m respectively are
m −1 (a) 2,5.55 (b) 2,1
Rm (c) 2.18, 0.55 (d) 11.1, 2
20 = APPSC AEE 2019
4 −1
Rm = 20 × 3 Lsh L m
Ans. (a) : τsh = =
R m = 60 Ω R sh R m
117. In the given circuit what will be the τ = 0.1mH = 2 milisecond
sh
approximate reading of the voltmeter? 50mΩ
Rm
R sh =
 I 
 − 1
 Im 
50 mΩ
R sh = = 5.55mΩ
10A
−1
1A
(a) 300 V (b) 100 V
(c) 200 V (d) 0 V 120. A moving iron voltmeter is connected across
DMRC AM 2018 the voltage source whose instantaneous value
Ans. (a) : As ideal resistance of a voltmeter is ∞ . So V(t) = 5 +10cos(314+300). The reading of the
whole voltage drop occurs across voltmeter. meter is
So, voltmeter reading = 300 V. (a) 75 V (b) 15 V
118. A moving coil galvanometer is made into a d.c.
(c) 15 V (d) 5 V
ammeter by connecting :
(a) a low resistance across the meter APPSC AEE 2019
0
(b) a high resistance across the meter Ans. (a) : V(t) = 5+10 cos (314+30 )
(c) a high resistance in series with the meter
(d) a low resistance in series with the meter
1
Vrms = 52 + 102
2
( )
APTRANSCO AE 2019
= 75 volts.
Ans. (a) :
121. The sensitivity of a 40 µA meter movement is:
(a) 25 kΩ/V (b) 50 kΩ/V
(c) 40 kΩ/V (d) 20 kΩ/V
Ans. (a) : Given :
Full scale deflection current (If) = 40 µA = 40 × 10–6 A
Sensitivity = ?
Sensitivity is reciprocal of full scale deflection current it
is measured in kΩ/V or Ω/V.

1 125. What is the internal resistance of voltmeter &
Sensitivity = ammeter respectively?
Full scale deflection (If ) (a) high, low (b) low, high
1 1000 × 103 (c) low, low (d) high, high
= −6
= APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
40 × 10 40
Sensitivity = 25 kΩ/V Ans. (a) : An ammeter is used to measure the current in
122. A voltmeter has 50 scale divisions & it can circuit. An ammeter is connected is series in the circuit.
measure up to 50 V. Each scale division reads For ammeter, there is low resistance.
half division. What is the resolution of The potential difference measured by voltmeter will be
voltmeter? accurate if no current is drawn by voltmeter. Resistance
(a) 0.5 volt (b) 1 volt of voltmeter is high.
(c) 0.05 volt (d) 1.5 volt 126. What is the multiplying factor of a wattmeter
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 of 10A, 300 V & having full scale deflection of
Ans. (a) : Resolution of meter = ? 750 W?
50 (a) 4 (b) 8
1 scale division measures voltage = =1 (c) 2 (d) 10
50
1 1 APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
So scale division will measure = 1 × V Ans. (a) :
2 2
= 0.5 V Given : I = 10 A
Resolution = smallest change in I/p that can be V = 300 V
measured = 0.5 V Full scale Deflection = 750 W
123. Two meters A & B require 30 µA & 40 µA P = V.I
respectively to give full-scale deflection. Then = 10 × 300
which option is true? P = 3000 W
(a) A is more sensitive 3000
(b) B is more sensitive So, multiplying factor = =4
(c) Data insufficient to answer 750
(d) Both are equally sensitive 127. Two voltmeters A & B have resistance of 4000
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 Ω & 8000 Ω respectively. They are connected in
Ans. (a) : Given, full scale deflection current of meter series across 240 V supply. The voltage across
A (IA) = 30 µA these voltmeters will be:
Full scale deflection current of meter B (IB) = 40 µA (a) Va = 80 V, Vb = 160 V
1 1 (b) Va = 33 V, Vb = 207 V
Sensitivity of meter 'A' = =
I A 30 ×10−6 (c) Va = 196 V, Vb = 44 V
= 3.3 × 104 Ω / V (d) Va = 120 V, Vb = 120 V
1 1 APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
Sensitivity of meter 'B' = = Ans. (a) :
I B 40 ×10−6
= 2.5 × 104 Ω / V
Thus we can say that meter A is more sensitive than
meter B.
124. A 1 mA meter movement with an internal
resistance of 100 Ω is to be converted into 0-100
By voltage division
mA ammeter. What is the value of the shunt
Rule
resistance required?
(a) 1.01 Ω (b) 2.01 Ω VR a
Va =
(c) 3.01 Ω (d) 4.0 Ω Ra + Rb
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 240 × 4000
Va = = 80 V
Ans. (a) : Given, Im = 1 mA, Rm = 100 Ω 4000 + 8000
Ish = 100 mA, Rsh = ? 240 × 8000
Rm Vb = = 160 V
Rsh = 4000 + 8000
m −1 128. The 'scale' of PMMC and Moving Iron (MI)
I 100 mA instrument, respectively, is:
m = sh = = 100
Im 1mA (a) linear, non-linear
100 (b) non-linear, non-linear
Rsh = = 1.01Ω (c) linear, linear
100 − 1 (d) non-linear, linear
Rsh = 1.01 Ω APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020

Ans. (a) : In PMMC, the torque is proportional to 132. What will be the load power factor, if one
measured quantity while in MI, the torque is wattmeter read positive and the other zero in a
proportional to the square of measurable quantity. So, two wattmeter method for power
the scale is linear in PMMC and non-linear in case of measurement?
MI. (a) unity (b) zero
129. A meter movement with current sensitivity (c) 0.5 lag (d) 0.5 lead
100µA and internal resistance 100 Ω is KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
required to measure current of 10 mA. What Ans. (c) : If P1 = P, P2 = 0
will the shunt resistance be equal to?   P − P 
(a) 1 Ω cos φ = cos  tan −1  3 1 2  
  P1 + P2  
(b) 0.98 Ω
(c) 0.99 Ω   3(1 − 0)  
(d) 1.010101 Ω = cos  tan −1  
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016   (1 + 0)  
Ans. (d) : We can use the below formula for shunt = cos  tan −1 ( 3 ) 
resistance-
= cos 60°
R
R sh = m cos φ = 0.5lag
m −1
Rm = Internal Resistance = 100Ω Thus if one wattmeter read positive and other zero in a
Rsh = shunt Resistance two wattmeter method for power measurement the
power factor will be 0.5 lagging.
I New cuurent 10 mA
m= = = 133. A dynamometer moving coil instrument can
Im Rated ammeter current 100 µA
measure-
10 × 10−3 A (a) a.c. only
= =100 A
100 ×10−6 A (b) d.c. only
100 (c) both a.c. and d.c.
∴ R sh = = 1.010101Ω (d) only pulsating quantities
100 − 1
130. In dc potentiometer measurements, a second KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
reading is often taken after reversing the Ans. (c) : A dynamometer moving coil instrument can
polarities of dc supply. This is to eliminate the measure both A.C. and D.C.
effects of: Scale is nonlinear
(a) Ripples in dc supply Its sensitivity is less than PMMC and M.I. type
(b) Stray magnetic fields instrument.
(c) Stray thermal emf's
(d) Erroneous standardisation 134. A spring controlled moving iron voltmeter
KPSC AE 2014 drawn a current of 1 mA for full scale value of
Ans. (c) : In dc potentiometer measurement, a second 100 V. If it draws a current of 0.5 mA, the
reading is often taken by reversing the polarities of dc meter reading is :
supply, this is to eliminate the effects of stray thermal (a) 50 V (b) 100 V
emf. (c) 25 V (d) 200 V
131. The resistance of a moving coil instrument is HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
10Ω which gives full scale deflection when LMRC AE 2015
ESE 2002
carrying a current of 50 mA. What should be
Ans. (c) : In moving iron scale is non-linear and
the value of shunt to be connected to extend its
so θ ∝ i2
range to 100A?
∴ θ∝V
(a) 0.1Ω (b) 0.0005Ω V ∝ i2
(c) 0.5 Ω (d) 0.005 Ω
V1 i12 (1)
2
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 100
= , =
Ans. (d) : Rm = 10 Ω , Im = 50 mA, I = 100A V2 i 22 ( 0.5 )2 V2
I 100
V2 = 100 × ( 0.5)
2
m= = × 103 = 2000
Im 50
V2 = 25V
R
R sh = m 135. In three-phase power measurement by two
m −1 wattmeter method, the reading of one of the
10 wattmeter was zero. The power factor of the
= = 0.005 load must be :
2000 − 1
(a) 1 (b) 0.8
R sh = 0.005 Ω (c) 0.5 (d) zero
Ans. (c) : w1 = 0 Ans. (b) :
w2 = w PMMC instrument used as ammeter–
  w − w1   Rm = 1 kΩ = 1000 Ω
φ = tan −1  3  2   Im = 100 µA; IFSD = 100 mA
  w 2 + w1   So, Rs = shunt resistance connected to meter up to 100
mA


w
w
( )
φ = tan −1  3  = tan −1 3 R
R sh = m =
Rm
m − 1  IFSD 
1
cos φ = cos 600 = = 0.5  − 1
2 I
 m 
In 3-φ power measurement by two wattmeter method. If 1000 1000
R sh = ⇒ R sh =
reading of one meter is zero then the power factor of  100 × 10 −3  (1000 − 1)
 − 1
load is 0.5. −6 
 100 × 10 
136. The internal resistance of an ideal voltage 1000
source is : = = 1.001
999
(a) Infinity
R sh = 1.001Ω
(b) Zero
(c) Very small approaching zero 139. Ballistic galvanometer is used
(d) Very large approaching infinity (a) as a null detector in ac bridges
(b) as a null detector in dc bridges
APTRANSCO AE 2017
(c) for measuring short-duration current
Ans. (b) : Internal resistance of an ideal voltage source (d) for measuring short-duration electric charge
is 0. This is because voltage source is always connected Vizag Steel MT 2013
in series with the circuit to flow whole current. The Ans. (d) : Ballistic galvanometers are the measuring
internal resistance must be very low, ideally it should be instruments which are used for measuring the quantity
zero and internal resistance of an ideal current source of electric charge obtained from magnetic flux. Its
is ∞ . construction is similar to the moving coil galvanometer.
137. A moving coil meter has a resistance of 3 Ω and 140. The vibration galvanometer has a
gives full scale deflection with 30 mA. To (a) low-pass characteristic
(b) high-pass characteristic
measure voltage up to 300 V, the external
(c) band-pass characteristic with very narrow
resistance to be connected in series with the passband
instrument is : (d) band-stop characteristic with very narrow
(a) 9997 Ω (b) 10000 Ω stopband.
(c) 997 Ω (d) 10003 Ω Vizag Steel MT 2013
APTRANSCO AE 2017 Ans. (c) : The vibration galvanometer has a band-pass
Ans. (a) : Resistance of motor Rm = 3 Ω characteristic with very narrow passband.
Current Im = 30 mA = 30 × 10–3 A = 0.03 A 141. Find the value of shunt resistance to give a
V = 300 Volt (full scale) multiplying factor of 50 for a galvanometer
with 1 k- Ω resistance.
So, R = Rm (m – l)
(a) 20.4 Ω (b) 10.4 Ω
V Ω
Where, m = (c) 18.4 (d) 32.4 Ω
Vm (e) 25.4 Ω
 300   900  CGPSC AE 2017
= 3 − 1 =  − 3  = 9997Ω Ans. (a) : Given, Rm = 1k Ω , m = 50
 0.03 × 3   0.09 
Rm 1000 1000
So, external resistance to be connected in series, R sh = = =
Rseries = 9997 Ω ( m − 1) ( −1) 49
50
138. A PMMC instrument has FSD of 100 µA and a Rsh = 20.408 Ω
coil resistance of 1 kΩ. To convert the 142. A 100 µA ammeter has an internal resistance of
instrument into an ammeter with full scale 100 Ω. For extending its range to measure
deflection of 100 mA, the required shunt 500µA, the shunt resistance required is :-
resistance is : (a) 20 Ω (b) 22.22 Ω
(a) 1 Ω (b) 1.001 Ω (c) 25 Ω (d) 50 Ω
(c) 0.5 Ω (d) 10 Ω CGPSC AE 2017
APTRANSCO AE 2017 UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
Ans. (c) : Given that, (a) 0.1 Ω (b) 1 Ω
Rm = 100 Ω , I = 500 µA (c) 10 Ω (d) 100 Ω
Im = 100 µA (e) 1000 Ω
I 500 µA CGPSC AE 2017
m= = =5 ESE 2011
I m 100 µA
R 100 100 Ans. (b) : We know that-
R sh = m = = Rm
m −1 5 −1 4 R sh = for ammeter
Rsh = 25 Ω m −1
143. Find the multiplying factor of a shunt of 200 Rm = Internal resistance = 100 ohm
ohm resistance used with a galvanometer of 1 m = Multiplying factor
k-ohm resistance.
(a) 2 (b) 3 New current(I)
=
(c) 4 (d) 5 Rated Ammeter current (Im )
(e) 6 since {I = 100 mA, Im = 1 mA, ∴m = 100 }
CGPSC AE 2017
100 100
Ans. (e) : Multiplying factor (m):- R sh = = R sh ≅ 1Ω
I 100 − 1 99
m= 146. Find the total resistance of a voltmeter if the
Im
Im→ full load current of instrument range of voltmeter is 50 V and sensitivity is 20
I→ current to be measured kΩ/V.
shunt resistance is given as (a) 2.5 kΩ (b) 10 kΩ
R (c) 0.4 kΩ (d) 1 MΩ
Rsh = m
m −1 BHEL ET 2019
R Ans. (d) : Sensitivity is given as:
m −1 = m
R sh R + Rm
S= s
given : Rm = 1000Ω V
Rsh = 200 Ω Total resistance (Rs + Rm)= S.V.
1000 = Sensivity × Voltage
m-1=
200 = 20 k Ω /V×50V
m-1=5 = 1000 k Ω
m=5+1 = 106 Ω
m=6 = 1 MΩ
144. Design a shunt resistance for an ammeter with 147. The torque in induction type ammeter is :
internal resistance 50Ω and full scale deflection
current 1mA to read the current in the range of (a) ∝ ωI2m (b) ∝ ω2 I2m
0 to 100 mA. Find the multiplying factor m. ω2
(c) ∝ (d) ∝ ω / I2m
(a) 0.1Ω and m = 20 Im
(b) 0.2 Ω and m = 10 UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
(c) 0.15Ω and m= 10 Ans: (a) The Torque in Induction type ammeter
(d) 0.506 Ω and m = 50 proportional to ωI2m.
(e) 0.506 Ω and m = 100 148. A (0 A to 50 A) moving coil ammeter has a
CGPSC AE 2017
voltage drop of 0.1 V across its terminals at full
Ans. (e) : Given, scale deflection. The external shunt resistance
Rm = 50Ω
If = 1mA (in milliohms needed to extend its range to 0 A
to 500 A is.
I 100mA
Im = 100 mA m= = = 100 (a) 22.2 mΩ (b) 2.2 mΩ
Im 1mA (c) 0.22 mΩ (d) 222.2 mΩ
shunt resistance UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
Rm 50
Rsh = = Ans : (c) We are given that-
m − 1 100 − 1 V 0.1
50 Im = 50A, Rm = = = .002 Ω
Rsh = I 50
99
I = 500A
Rsh = 0.506Ω
So, required shunt Resistance-
145. What is the value of shunt resistance required
I R 50 × 0.002
to convert 0-1 mA meter to read 0-100 mA? Rsh= m m = = 0.22 mΩ
The internal resistance of the meter is 100 I − Im 500 − 50
ohms.
149. A Potentiometer R5 is put in the apex of the 151. An ammeter with range of 0 to 100 µA has an
bridge shown in the figure to balance the internal resistance of 100 Ω. For extending its
circuit. If Ru=500 Ω; Rv =500Ω; R2= 515Ω, R3 range to 0 to 500 µA, the shunt resistance
=480Ω; and R5=100Ω; find the values of R6 required is
and R7 to balance the bridge and compensate (a) 20 Ω (b) 22.22 Ω
for the unequal values of R2 and R3. (c) 50 Ω (d) 25 Ω
Ans : (d) The value of shunt Resistance:-
Rm
R sh =
m −1
I 500
∵ m = new = =5
Iold 100
100 100
∴ R sh = = = 25Ω
5 −1 4
(Rm= Internal Resistance)
152. Two in-phase 50Hz sinusoidal waveform of
unit amplitude are fed into channel 1 and 2,
respectively, of an oscilloscope. Assuming that
the voltage scale, time scale, and other settings
are exactly the same for both the channels,
what would be observed if the oscilloscope is
operated in X-Y mode?
(a) R6=50 Ω and R7 = 50Ω (a) A parabola
(b) R6=65.5 Ω and R7 = 34.5Ω (b) A straight line inclined at 45o with respect to
(c) R6=67.5 Ω and R7 = 32.5Ω the X-axis
(d) R6=60 Ω and R7 = 40Ω (c) An ellipse
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I (d) A circle of unit radius
Ans : (c) At Balance Condition UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II
R u (R2 + R7 ) = R v (R3 + R6 ) Ans. (b): Frequency of X-axis = 50Hz
Frequency of Y-axis = 50Hz
R u = 500Ω, R v = 500Ω, R 2 = 515Ω,R 3 = 480Ω Since, the frequency of Both the axis are same, so a
So, 500(515 + R 7 ) = 500 ( 480 + R 6 ) straight line inclined at 45o with respect to X-axis will
R7 – R6 = –35 ----------(i) show on the screen of C.R.O.
and given that 153. Two voltmeters with ranges of 0 to 100 V has
R6 + R7 = 100 ----------(ii) sensitivities as 10 kΩ/V and 20 kΩ/V. What is
From equation (i) and (ii) the maximum voltage that can be measured
R7 = 32.5 Ω when these voltmeters are connected in series?
R6 = 67.5 Ω (a) 200 V (b) 150 V
150. Voltmeter calibration is done through: (c) 100 V (d) None of the above
(a) An ampere hour meter ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
(b) A signal generator Ans. (b) : as we know that :-
(c) A hertz meter Resistance (R) = sensitivity × Range
(d) A potentiometer Given that,
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I For voltmeter-one For voltmeter-two
Ans : (d) A potentiometer can be used to calibrate a voltage range = 100 V , voltage range = 100 V
voltmeter by using a potentiometer to obtain a sensitivity = 10 kΩ/V , sensitivity = 20 kΩ/V
calibration curve parallel with a shunt in secondary Now,
circuit. Resistance for voltmeter-one (R1)
= 10k ×100 = 1000 kΩ
Resistance for voltmeter-two(R2)
= 20k ×100 = 2000kΩ
100
current in voltmeter-one (I1) = = 0.1mA
1000k
100
current in voltmeter-two (I2) = = 0.05mA
2000k
∵ These voltmeters are connected in series,
So, voltmeter two reads full scale current is 0.05 mA
. and voltmeter-one heads half of its full scale value so,
Calibration of voltmeter through potentiometer. I1 = I2 = 0.05 mA

Now, 157. AC current cannot be measured directly by–
Voltage across voltmeter-one (V1) = I1R1 (a) Hot wire ammeter
= 0.05 m × 1000 k (b) Moving iron ammeter
= 50 V (c) Moving coil ammeter
Voltage across voltmeter-two (V2) = I2R2 (d) Thermocouple type ammeter
= 0.05 m × 2000 k ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013
= 100 V Ans. (c) : Moving coil is also known as permanent
Therefore, magnet moving coil (PMMC). In this arrangement,
total voltage is,
VT = V1 + V2 magnetic field φ is provided to moving system by a
= 50 + 100 = 150 V permanent magnet and current is provided by the circuit
under observation. Now pointer of meter will move
154. The core of a moving iron instrument is made
up of permalloy to– according to force (F = BIℓsinθ) provided to it. If we
(a) Increase sensitivity apply AC current, I will be positive for positive half
(b) Reduce temperature effect cycle and negative for negative half cycle; and since
(c) Reduce effect of stray magnetic field pointer is a mechanical entity with considerable inertia,
(d) Reduce the size of the instrument it will not respond to such a change of short time (10
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 ms). So pointer will not move. Because force
Ans. (c) : Permalloy is a nickel–iron magnetic alloy (F = BIℓsinθ) will be positive for positive current and
with about 80% nickel and 20% iron content. Its
properties like high magnetic permeability, low negative for negative current, so, the meter will not be
coercivity, near zero magnetostriction and significant an able to show value.
isotropic magnetostriction make it useful as a magnetic 158. The internal resistance of a voltmeter should be
core material in electrical and electronic equipments. very high in order to have–
It is also used in magnetic shielding to block (a) High voltage range
magnetic fields. Therefore, the core of a moving iron (b) Maximum current through the meter
instrument is made of permalloy to reduce the effect of (c) Minimum current through the meter
stray magnetic field. (d) More current from the voltage source
155. The current I em units, flowing in a coil of a ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013
tangent galvanometer is given by the Ans. (c) : Since, voltmeter is always connected parallel
expression where to main line, it is required that minimum current should
r = Mean radius of the galvanometer coil. pass through meter and most of the current pass through
N = Number of turns of the galvanometer coil. the main line. Otherwise, the value of the meter will be
H = Horizontal component of earth magnetic erroneous. If current is maximum
field. V
φ= Deflection of galvanometer magnetic i.e. ↑ I = means resistance should be minimum
needle. R↓
then circuit becomes short circuit the voltmeter does not
(a) I = (Hr / 2πN) * cos φ
the read the voltage or V = 0 .
(b) I = (2πNr / H) * tan φ Directions : Consists of two statements, one
(c) I = (Hr / 2πN) * tan φ labelled as 'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement
(d) I = (2πNr / H) * cos φ (II)'. Examine these two statements carefully and select
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Ans. (c) : The current I em units, flowing in a coil of a Codes:
tangent galvanometer, is given by the expression: (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
I = (Hr / 2πN) * tan φ correct explanation of Statement (I)
156. To measure current, Ammeters are connected (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
in– individually true but Statement (II) is not the
(a) Series with very low resistance correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Series with very high resistance (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(c) Parallel with very low resistance (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
(d) Parallel with very high resistance 159. Statement (I):
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 A ballistic galvanometer is preferred as a detector
Ans. (a) : For accurate measurement of a quantity in an AC bridge to measure inductance supplied
through a meter, it is necessary that the quantity should by a source at power frequency.
be exposed fully over meter. Since most of the current Statement (II):
follow the main line path. So, an ammeter should be An AC bridge to measure inductance is balanced
connected in the series. at the fundamental component.
For a fixed-voltage source, current and resistance are ESE 2017
inversely proportional. Ammeter does not serve any Ans. (d) : Ballistic galvanometer is basically used to
purpose in a circuit. It just measures current and measure the amount of charge that passes through it.
introduces extra resistance in a circuit. More the value An A.C bridge to measure inductance is independent of
of resistance, more erroneous ammeter will be. frequency but balanced at the fundamental components.

Directions : Consists of two statements, one
labelled as 'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement
(II)'. Examine these two statements carefully and select
the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
correct explanation of Statement (I) Heat developed, H = I2Rt
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are where I = Current being measured
individually true but Statement (II) is not the R = Resistance of heating element
correct explanation of Statement (I) t = time
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false 163. Two ammeters having full scale reading of
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true 1mA and 10mA are connected in parallel. If the
160. Statement (I) : reading of the two ammeters are 0.5mA and
An instrument manufactured as an ammeter 2.5mA respectively. Ratio of the internal
should not be used as a voltmeter. resistance of ammeters is
Statement (II) : (a) 10:1 (b) 5:1
The high resistance winding of an ammeter will (c) 1:10 (d) 1:5
suffer serious damage if connected across a high UPPCL AE 2014
voltage source. 1
ESE 2017 Ans. (b) : I ∝
R
Ans. (c) : A instrument manufactured as an ammeter I1 R1 = I2 R2
should not be used as a voltmeter (statement-I -True) As
low resistance winding of an ammeter will suffer R1 I2 2.5
= = = 5 :1
serious damage if connected across high voltage R 2 I1 0.5
source., (statement II- False). 164. In an ideal Ammeter, the internal resistance
1 should be.
161. A 4 digit voltmeter is used for voltage
2 (a) Infinite (b) High value
measurement. How would 0.7525 V be (c) Zero (d) Medium
displayed in 1 V range? MPPSC AE 2017
(a) 0.7525 V Ans. (c) : In an ideal Ammeter, the internal resistance
(b) 0.752 V should be zero, so as to drop as little voltage as possible
(c) 0.075 V as current flows through it.
(d) 0.0752 V
ESE 2017
1
Ans. (a) : 4 digit display means, it will display 4 full
2
digit in reading. (v) Measurment Energy &
1
∴ Resolution, R = n , n = no. of full digits Power
10
R = 10–4 1. An energy meter makes 100 revolutions of its
Resolution on 1V range = 1 × 10–4 = 0.0001 V disc per unit of energy. The number of
1 revolutions made by the disc during one hour
digit can display only the number 1. when connected across 210V source and
2
drawing a current of 20A at 0.8 p.f. leading is
∴ 0.7525 V displayed as 0 .7525 V (a) 336 (b) 316
1 4digits
2
digit (c) 286 (d) 256
162. True RMS reading voltmeter ESE 2018
1. Measures the RMS value of voltage Ans. (a) : Given, 1 kWh = 100 revolution
accurately. Energy consumed by the load in one hour
2. Eliminates the error due to waveform. = power × time
3. Uses the thermocouple for heating. VIcos φ× t
Which of the above statements are correct? =
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only = 210 × 20 × 0.8 × 1 watt- hour
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 = 3360 Wh
ESE 2020 = 3.36 kWh
Ans. (a) : • True RMS-reading voltmeter uses heating So, total number of revolution by energy meter
property of certain circuit element for measurement. = 3.36×100
• It uses thermocouple not for heating but to measure = 336
the temperature. There is a heater whose temperature is 2. When measuring power with an
directly proportional to the square of current being electrodynamometer wattmeter in a circuit
measured, having a low power factor:

(a) the current coil should be connected on the Ans. (a) : Air friction damping is used, as eddy current
load side damping will distort the week operating magnetic field
(b) the current coil should be connected on the
supply side and thus it may loads to error.
(c) the pressure coil should be connected on the 6. Two diametrically opposite holes are drilled in
load side the disc of an energy meter to provide:
(d) a compensated wattmeter with pressure coil (a) over load compensation
connected on the load side should be used
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 (b) temperature compensation
Ans. (d) : For low power factor load, a compensated (c) prevention from creeping
wattmeter with pressure coil connected on load side. (d) a friction compensation
3. If an energy meter disc makes 10 revolutions in TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
100 seconds when a load of 450 W is connect to Ans. (c) : To prevent creeping, two diametrically
it, the meter constant (in rev/kWh) is:
(a) 1000 (b) 5000 opposite holes are drilled in the disc of energy meter.
(c) 1600 (d) 800 Due to this hole, the disc will come to rest when the
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 hole comes under edge of pole of shunt magnet. thus
Revolution creeping in limited to a maximum of half of the
Ans. (d) : meter constant =
power × time rotation.
10 7. A d.c. ampere-hour meter is rated at 5A, 250 V.
= The declared constant is 5 A sec/revolution. The
100
0.450 × constant in revolution/kWh will be
3600
360 (a) 2880 (b) 2680
=
0.45 (c) 2480 (d) 2280
Meter constant = 800 rev/kWh UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
4. Two wattmeter's, which are connected to Ans. (a) : k = 5 A sec/rev
measure the total power on a three phase By taking inverse-
system, supplying a balance load, read 10.5 kW
and –2.5 kW respectively. The total power and 1
k ' = rev / A sec
power factor are given by: 5
(a) 13 kW, 0.334 (b) 8 kW, 0.334 3600
(c) 13 kW, 0.684 (d) 8 kW, 0.52 = rev / Ah
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 5
Ans. (b) : w1 = 10.5 kW = 720 rev/Ah
w2 = –2.5 kW The meter constant in revolution/kWh
Total power = w1 + w2 720 × 103
P = 10.5 – 2.5 = rev / kVAh
P = 8kW 250
and power factor angle– = 2880 rev / kWh
 w − w2  8. Induction watt-hour meters are free from
φ = tan −1 3  1 
 w1 + w 2  (a) phase (b) creeping
  10.5 + 2.5   (c) temperature (d) frequency
φ = tan −1  3 ×   UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
  8 
Ans. (d) : Induction watt-hour meters are free from
 3 × 13 
φ = tan −1   frequency.
 8  In this type energy meter consists of an aluminium disc
φ = tan [ 2.8]
−1 on a spindle in between two electromagnets, so disc free
to rotate.
φ = 70.44
9. The current coil of a wattmeter is connected to
Hence power factor the C.T. of R phase. Its potential coil is
cos φ = 0.334 connected across Y & B phases. The wattmeter
5. The type of damping provided in measures
(a) active power in R phase
electrodynamometer wattmeter is:
(a) Air friction damping (b) active power of Y-phase
(b) Eddy current damping (c) reactive power in R-phase
(c) Electromagnetic damping (d) power proportional to 3-phase power if the
(d) None of the above load is balanced
TRB Poly. Lect. 2017 UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : 12. In a single phase induction energy meter, in
order to obtain true value of energy, the shunt
magnetic flux should lag behind the applied
voltage by
(a) 90º (b) 0º
(c) 45º (d) 60º
TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (a) : Phase error in energy meter–It is necessary
that the energy meter should give correct reading on all
power factors; which is only possible when the field
When CC is connected in any one line of 3-φ system setup by the shunt magnets lags behind the applied
and PC is connected in remaining two phase of system voltage by 90º. But the flux due to shunt magnet does
then it will give the reading of reactive power of that not lag behind the applied voltage exactly by 90º
phase in which CC is connected. because of winding resistance and iron loses.
Adjustment–The flux in the shunt magnet can be made
Q = 3W to lag behind the supply voltage by exactly 90º by
10. Measurement of power and power factor of a adjusting the position of shading band placed around the
3-phase system by two wattmeter method can lower part of the control limb of shunt magnet. This
be obtained in case of adjustment is known as lag adjustment.
1. Balanced load and balanced source 13. Light load adjustments for induction type
2. Balanced source with 3-phase 3-wire energy meters are usually done at
unbalanced load (a) 10% of full load current
3. Unbalanced source with 3-phase 3-wire (b) 5% of full load current
balanced load (c) 50% of full load current
(d) 1% of full load current
4. Balanced source with 3-phase 4-wire TSPSC AEE 2017
unbalanced load
Ans. (b) : Light load adjustments for induction type
5. unbalanced and unbalanced source
energy meter are usually done at 5% of full load
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 5
current. Induction type instrument are used for a.c
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
measurements the induction principle find its widest
TSPSC AEE 2017
application as energy.
Ans. (d) : For measurement of power of 3-φ circuit, At
least two wattmeter and three wire for both balanced 14. Creeping in energy meter can be prevented by
and unbalanced load and source. providing
Power reading by wattmeter '1' = W1 (a) One hole on the disc
by wattmeter '2' = W2 (b) Two holes on opposite side of the disc
 3 ( W1 − W2 )  (c) Extra voltage coil in the meter
φ = tan–1   (d) By a magnet
 ( W1 + W2 )  TNPSC AE 2018
11. The power delivered to a 3-phase load can be Ans. (b) : Creeping in energy meter can be prevented
measured by the use of two wattmeters only by providing two holes on opposite side of the disc.
when the 15. The meter constant energy meter is given by
(a) load is unbalanced (a) Rev/kW (b) Rev/kWh
(b) load is balanced (c) Rev/Watt (d) Rev/Joule
(c) three phase load is connected to the source TNPSC AE 2019
through three wires Ans. (b) : Energy meter is used to calculate energy
(d) three phase load is connected to the source consumed by counting the number of revolution made
through four wires by the disc.
TSPSC AEE 2017 Hence meter constant is (K)
Ans. (c) : For measurement of power of any three phase = Revolution made bydisc
circuit, there is at least two wattmeter and three wire Kilo watt hour (units)
either the load is balance or unbalanced. 16. In energy meters, the major cause for creeping
is
(a) vibration
(b) stray magnetic field
(c) overcompensation for friction
(d) excessive voltage across the potential coil
Vizag Steel MT 2012
Ans. (c) : The major cause of creeping in energy meters
is overcompensation for friction.

17. Two wattmeters are used to measure the power 20. The lagging loads when connected to the
in a 3-phase balanced system. What is the electrodynamometer wattmeter cause the
power factor of the load when one watttmeter wattmeter reading to:
reads twice the other ? (a) Read high (b) Have no effect
(a) 0 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.866 (d) 1 (c) Read low (d) Zero
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
APPSC AEE 2019 Ans. (a) :
Ans. (c) : In two wattmeter method power factor is 21. The power flowing in a 3-phase, 3-wire
given by relation balanced load system is measured by two
 −1  W1 − W2   wattmeter method. The reading of wattmeter A
cos φ = cos  tan  3   is 7500 W and of wattmeter B is –1500 W. The
  W1 + W2  
power factor of the system will be nearly:
If W1 = 2 W2 (a) 0.9 (b) 0.7
(c) 0.6 (d) 0.4
 -1  W    3 UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
cosφ = cos  tan  3 2   = cos  tan −1  Ans. (d) :
  3W2    3 
22. Creep in energy meters can be prevented by:
= cos300 = 0.866 (a) using a stronger brake magnet
18. In a balanced 3-phase system, power is (b) using steel laminations of high permeability
measured by two-wattmeter method. The ratio (c) having two holes on opposite sides of the
of two wattmeter readings is 2 : 1. The power disc using extra turns on the voltage coil
factor of the system is (d) using extra turns on the voltage coil
(a) unity (b) 0.866 lagging UPRVUNL AE 2016
(c) 0.707 lagging (d) 0.5 lagging Ans : (c) To prevent creeping in energymeter, two
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I symmetrically opposite holes are drilled in the disc of
UPPSC AE 2008, Paper-I energymeters. Energymeter use in domestic application.
ESE 2015 23. Minimum number of wattmeter required to
Ans. (b) : Given, Power factor of two wattmeter is measure 3 phase, 3 wire balanced or
 −1   W1 − W2    unbalanced power?
cos φ = cos  tan  3     (a) 1 (b) 2
   W1 + W2    (c) 3 (d) 4
W1 2 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019
= UPRVUNL AE 2016
W2 1
W1 = 2W2 Ans. (b) : Using Blondel's theorem for n wire system:-
(n – 1) wattmeter are required to measure the power
 −1   2W2 − W2    Given 3 wire balanced or unbalanced system therefore 2
cos φ = cos  tan  3    
   2W 2 + W2    wattmeter are required.
24. For a given frequency, the deflection torque of
 −1  W2  
= cos  tan  3  an induction ammeter is directly proportional
  3W 
2  to:
(a) (current)2 (b) (current)3
 −1  1  
= cos  tan   (c) current (d) current
  3 
UPRVUNL AE 2016
cos φ = cos 30º Ans : (a) For a given frequency, the deflection torque of
Power factor (cos φ) = 0.866 lagging factor induction ammeter is directly proportional to square of
19. The disc of an energy meter moves even if current.
power is not used. What type of error is in Since Td ∝ φm1 φm2 sinδ ∴ T d∝ I 2
meter?
25. In two wattmeter method of measuring
(a) Speed error (b) Phase error
3-phase power, power factor is 0.5. Then, one
(c) Creeping error (d) None of the above
of the wattmeters will read
W
Ans. (c) : Creeping error- The vibration, stray (a) (b) zero
magnetic field and extra voltage across the potential coil 2
are also responsible for the creeping. Creeping error W
(c) 2W (d)
occurs excessive friction. When disc rotate because 3
additional torque required for rotation of disc. UPRVUNL AE 2016

Ans : (b) Cos φ = 0.5 Ans. (c) : P1 = VI cos (30 – φ)
φ = 60 0 P2 = VI cos (30 + φ)
P1 = 3 × 0.5 × cos (30 – 30)
as we know that
= 3 × 0.5 × 1 = 1.5 W
3 ( W1 − W2 ) P2 = 3 × 0.5 × cos(30 + 30)
tan φ =
W1 + W2 1
So, 1.5 × = 0.75 W
2
3 ( W1 − W2 ) Total Power P1 + P2 = 1.5 + 0.75 = 2.25 W
tan 600 =
W1 + W2 30. Friction adjustment (compensation) in Energy
meters is provided by ______.
3 ( W1 − W2 )
3= (a) using shading loop
W1 + W2 (b) holes/slots on rotating disc
W1 + W2 = W1 − W2 (c) adjusting position of break magnet
W2 = 0 (d) keeping saturable shunt magnet in series
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
26. A 230V, 1-phase watt hour meter records a Ans. (a) : Friction adjustment (compensation) in energy
constant load of 10A for 10 hours at unity meter is provided by using of shading coil. It is place
power factor. If the meter disc makes 2300 between the centre limb of shunt magnet and disc.
revolutions during this period, then what is the 31. A power factor meter has:
meter constant in revolutions/kWh? (a) One current coil and one pressure coil
(a) 300 rev/kWh (b) 400 rev/kWh (b) One current coil and two pressure coils
(c) 200 rev/kWh (d) 100 rev/kWh (c) Two current coils and one pressure coil
OMC Deputy manager 2019 (d) Two pressure coils and two current coils
Ans. (d) HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
No. of revolution (RRB SSE (Shift-III), 03.09.2015)
Meter constant =
energy consumed in kWh Ans. (b) A power factor meter has one current coils and
2300 two pressure coils. Power factor is the cosine of the
=
230 × 10 × 10 ×1× 10−3 angle between the voltage and the current.
= 100 rev/kWh Pressure coil is connected across the circuit while
27. Two watt meter method for 3 phase power current coil is connected such that it can carry
measurement can be used for current/definite fraction of current.
(a) Only balanced load 32. Which of the following is the most commonly
(b) Only unbalanced load used measurement unit for a typical 1-phase
(c) Both Balanced and unbalanced load energy mater?
(d) Star connected loads
RRB SSE (Shift-III) 02.02.2015
TNPSC AE 2019
WBPSC AE 2012 (a) Erg (b) J
Ans. (c) : Two watt meter method uses two wattmeters (c) kWh (d) W
to measure 3- φ power. It is used in 3- φ 3 wire system. Ans. (c) : The most commonly used typical 1-phase
So 2-watt meter can be used for both balanced and energy meter is the measured unit of kwh. 1 kwh is also
unbalanced loads. called as 1 unit. single phase energy meter consists of two
28. In a two wattmeter method of measuring magnets one range magnet which is excited by the line
power in a 3-phase system, the reading of two and the other is shunt magnet its coil is connected at the
wattmeters will be equal and opposite when lateral side of the supply line.
(a) pf is unity 33. In two wattmeter method of 3 phase power
(b) load is balanced measurement, when does one wattmeter read
(c) phase angle between 600 and 900 negative.
(d) load is purely inductive (a) When power factor is less than 0.5 lagging
WBPSC AE 2008 (b) When power factor is greater than 0.5 lagging
Ans. (c) : (c) When power factor is less than 0.5
(d) When power factor is unity
29. While measuring power by two wattmeter
method, the phase voltage is 3 V whereas the CIL MT 2020
phase current is 0.5 A. If the angle between TNPSC AE 2018
phase current and phase voltage is 30 degrees, UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
the total power consumed by the load will be: UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
(a) 3.125 W (b) 1.11W TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
(c) 2.25 W (d) 2.57 W HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 ESE 2020, 2014, 2010, 2002, 1993

Ans. (c) Given, w2 = –w1 37. A 230V, 5A energy meter on full load unity
 power factor test makes 60 revolutions in 360
 3(w1 − w 2 )  
cos φ = cos  tan −1    seconds. If the designed speed of the disc is 520
  (w1 + w 2 )   revolutions per kWh, the energy recorded by
the meter is
  3(w1 − (− w1 ))   (a) 115.10–3 kWh
= cos  tan −1    (b) 115. 185 × 10–3 kWh
  (w1 + (− w1 ))   (c) 115.385 × 10–3 kWh
  2w   (d) 115.68 × 10–3 kWh
= cos  tan −1 3  1   = cos  tan −1 (∞)  = cos90° MPPSC AE 2016
  0 
Ans. (c) : E = VI cos φ × t
cos φ = 0 230 × 5 360
In two wattmeter method of 3-φ power measurement = × = 115 ×10−3 kWh
1000 3600
when does 1 wattmeter read negative then power factor Re volution 60
is less than 0.5. Meter constant ( K ) = =
34. A dynamometer type wattmeter responds to: E 115 × 10−3
(a) r.m.s. value of active power = 521 .73 rev/kWh
(b) r.m.s. value of reactive power when 520 rev/kWh then energy recorded by the meter
(c) average value of active power = 115×10–3 kWh
(d) average value of reactive power hence 521.73 rev/kWh then energy recorded by the
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 meter
RPSC VPITI 2016 115 × 10−3
Ans. (c) : A dynamometer type wattmeter responds to = × 521.73
520
average value of active power. = 115.385 × 10–3 kWh
35. A set of readings taken by an electrical 38. Two Watt meters can be used to measure
instrument has a wide range. This means that power in a
is has: (a) Three phase four wire balanced load
(a) Low accuracy (b) High sensitivity (b) Three phase four wire unbalanced load
(c) Low precision (d) High precision (c) Three phase three wire unbalanced load
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 (d) All are correct
Ans. (c) : A set of reading taken by an electrical MPPSC AE 2016
instrument has a wide range. this means that low Ans. (c) : Two Watt meters can be used to measure
precision. power in a three phase three wire unbalanced load.
36. The ratio of the readings of two wattmeter's 39. If the readings of two wattmeters in the 2-
connected to measure power in balanced 3 wattmeter method of power measurement are
phase load is 5:3 and the load is inductive. The 5.5 kW and 4.5 kW respectively and the latter
power factor of the load is: reading has been obtained after reversing the
(a) 0.917 lag (b) 0.6 lag current coil of the wattmeter. What will be the
(c) 0.917 lead (d) 0.6 lead total power in kW?
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 (a) 10 (b) 1
Vizag Steel MT 2013 (c) 4.5 (d) 5.5
ESE 1994 JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
 3 ( w1 − w 2 )  Ans. (b) : In two wattmeter method
Ans. (a) : cos φ = cos  tan −1 
w1 + w 2  P = w1 + w2

if reversing the current coil of the wattmeter
w1 5
= P = w1 – w2
w2 3 = 5.5 – 4.5
  5w − 3w 2  P = 1 kW
 3 2 
cos φ = cos  tan −1  3   40. In two wattmeter method of power
5w 2 measurement, if one of the wattmeter shows
 + w2  zero reading, then it can be concluded that
 3 
(a) Power factor is 0.95 leading
  2w 2   (b) Power factor is unity
 3 
cos φ = cos  tan −1  3   (c) Power factor is 0.5 lagging
8w 2 (d) Power factor is zero
 
 3  JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
 Ans. (c) : In two wattmeter method of power
3
cos φ = cos tan −1   = cos 23.41
0
measuring, if one of the wattmeter shows zero reading,
 4  then it can be concluded that power factor is 0.5
= 0.917 l ag lagging.

41. The instantaneous power of a balanced three- 44. In two watt meter method of measurement, if
phase load is 2000 W when phase A is at its both the wattmeter show equal reading then
peak voltage. What will be the instantaneous what will be the power factor?
power 30o later? (a) Power factor is unity
(a) 1 kW (b) 4 kW (b) Power factor is zero
(c) 3 kW (d) 2 kW (c) Power factor is half
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 (d) No relationship
Ans. (d) : The instantaneous power of balanced 3-φ Vizag Steel MT 2011
load is 2000W = 2kW.
In 3-φ balanced load power is constant always Ans. (a) :
∴ Even after 30o later, the power would be the same,  P −P 
i.e., 2kW. tan φ = 3  1 2 
42. In a two wattmeter method with unity power  P1 + P2 
factor If P1 = P2
(a) readings of two wattmeters are equal and each
reads half of the power then, tanφ = 0, φ = 00
(b) readings of two wattmeters are equal but cosφ = cos00 = 1
opposite in sign So, if both wattmeter shows equal reading then, power
(c) one wattmeter reads zero and other reads all factor is unity.
the power
45. Generally creeping in an energy meter is due to
(d) any value can be read by each wattmeter (a) stray magnetic field
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I (b) mechanical vibration
Ans. (a) : For unity power factor φ = 00 (c) excessive voltage across the potential coil
(d) over compensation for friction
 3(w1 − w 2 )  BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
φ = tan −1  
 w +w Vizag Steel MT 2011
 1 2 
Ans. (d) :
3(w1 − w 2 ) 46. Creeping in a single phase energy meter may
tan 00 = be due to
(w1 + w 2 )
(a) Vibration
( w1 − w 2 ) (b) Over voltages
0= 3
w1 + w 2
{∵ tan 00 = 0} (c) Overcompensation of friction
(d) All of above
w1 – w2 = 0 GMB AE 2017
w1 = w2 Ans. (c) : In some meters a slow but continuous rotation
Hence, reading of two wattmeter are equal and each is obtain even when there is no current flowing through
the current coil and only pressure coil is energized. This
reads of half power.
is called creeping. The major cause for creeping is over-
43. What is the power factor when a single phase compensation for friction.
watt meter operating on 200 V and 5 A for 5 47. In measurement of power by 2 wattmeter
hours makes 2016 revolutions and the meter method, one wattmeter shows zero and other
constant in revolution is 420? wattmeter shows positive value. The power
factor of circuit will be
(a) 0.04 (b) 1.04 (a) Unity (b) Zero
(c) 0.96 (d) None of these (c) 0.5 (d) less than 0.5
KPTCL AE 2015 GMB AE 2017
Ans. (c) : Energy consumed = 200 × 5 × 5 = 5000 Wh Ans. (c) : w1 = 0 watt
= 5kWh w2 = w watt
  w − w1  
Revolution constant = 420 rev/kWh φ = tan −1  3  2 
∴ kWh =
2016
= 4.8   w1 + w 2  
420   w − 0 
4.8 = tan −1  3  2 
Power = = 0.96 kW   0 + w 2 
5
w 
P = tan −1 3  2 
cos φ =  w2 
VI
tanφ = 3
0.96 × 103 φ = 60°
=
200 × 5 i.e. power factor cosφ = cos 600
cos φ = 0.96 cos φ = 0.5

48. While measuring power in a three-phase load W
by two-wattmeter method, the reading of the
two wattmeters will be equal and opposite (a) 2 (b) 2W
when : W
(a) power factor is unity 3
(b) load is balanced (c) (d) zero
(c) phase angle is between 60o and 90o UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
(d) the load is purely inductive Ans. (d) : Power factor angle
Karnataka PSC AE 2016  3 ( P1 − P2 ) 
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I φ = tan −1  
ESE 1995  P1 + P2 
Ans. (d) : The wattmeter reading are proportional to cos Let P2 = 0, then φ = tan −1  3  = 60°
(30 + φ)
when φ = 90o, two quantities are equal and apposite Power factor = cos φ = 600 = 0.5
therefore when the load is purely inductive or So, we can say that one of the watt meters will read
capacitive. zero.
W2 = VL IL cos (30o – φ) 52. The order of the resistances of current coil and
W1 = VL IL cos (30o + φ) pressure coil of a wattmeter is respectively
When load is purely inductive cos φ = 0 or φ = 90o (a) 0.1 ohm, 10 K ohm
W2 = VL IL cos (30o – 90o) = VL IL sin 30o (b) 0.1 ohm, 100 K ohm
W1 = VL IL cos (30o + 90o) = – VL IL sin 30o (c) 2.0 K ohm, 0.1 ohm
Thus the two wattmeters read equal and opposite. (d) 2.0 K ohm, 20 M ohm
49. On performing load test on 3-φ induction UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
motor by two-wattmeter method, 16kW and – Ans. (a) : The order of the resistances of current coil
4kW are the reading obtained from two- and pressure coil of a wattmeter is 0.1 ohm, 10 K ohm
wattmeter method and the line voltage is 400V. respectively.
The line current is ______. 53. The power in a three phase four wire circuit
(a) 53A (b) 76A can be measured by using :
(c) 65A (d) 50A (a) 2 Wattmeters (b) 4 Wattmeters
DSSSB AE 2019 (c) 3 Wattmeters (d) 1 Wattmeter
Ans. (a) : Given, w1= 16 kW RPSC VPITI 2016
w2 = –4kW Ans. (c) : No of wattmeter = number of wire–1
For 4 wire 3–φ = 4 – 1
Active power = 3VL I L cos φ = 3 wattmeter required.
 ( w1 − w 2 )  54. “Creep” in energy meters can be prevented by
cos φ = cos  tan −1 3  :
 w1 + w 2  (a) using extra turns on the voltage coil
  20   (b) having two holes on opposite sides of the disc
cos φ = cos  tan −1 3   (c) using a stronger brake magnet
  12   (d) using steel laminations of high permeability
= cos (70.890) RPSC VPITI 2016
cos φ = 0.32 Ans. (b) : Creep in energy meter can be prevented by
having two poles on opposite side of the disc.
P = w1 + w 2 = 12 × 103
55. In an induction type of meter, maximum
P = 3VL I L cos φ torque is produced when the phase angle,
between the two fluxes is :
12 × 103 = 3 × 400 × I L × 0.32 (a) 0o (b) 45o
o
IL = 54.12 A (c) 60 (d) 90o
RPSC VPITI 2016
IL ≃ 53A
Ans. (d) : In an induction type meter, maximum torque
50. Creeping in energymeter can be prevented by is produced when the phase angle, between the two flux
providing is 90o.
(a) one hole on the disc T ∝ sin θ
(b) extra voltage coil in the meter sin θ is max at θ = 90o
(c) two holes on opposite side of the disc 56. In the two wattmeter method of measuring 3
(d) nothing can be done phase power, the wattmeters indicated equal
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I and opposite readings when load power factor
Ans. (c) : Creeping in energymeter can be prevented by is :
providing two holes on opposite side of the disc. (a) 90 leading (b) 90 lagging
51. In two-wattmeter method for measuring 3- (c) 30 leading (d) 30 lagging
phase power (W), if power factor of the load is LMRC AE 2015
0.5, then one of the watt meters will read ESE 2013
Ans. (b) Given :- W1 = W Ans. (d) : Creeping in a single phase induction type
W2 = –W energy meter may be due to overcompensation for


θ = tan −1 3  1
( W – W2 )  friction, over voltages and vibrations.
 Creeping is slow but continuous rotation in meter even
 ( W1 + W2 )  when there is no current flowing through the current
 ( W + W )  coil and only pressure coil is energized.
= tan −1 3   61. The inductance of a high Q inductor can be
 ( W − W )  measured using a :-
2 (a) Hay’s bridge (b) Schering bridge
= tan −1 3   (c) Wien’s bridge (d) Maxwell bridge
0
θ = tan −1 3 ( ∞ )
Ans. (a) : The inductance of a high Q inductor can be
θ= tan–1 ∞
measured using a Hay's bridge.
tan θ = tan 90o
62. In an Induction type meter, maximum torque is
θ = 90°
produced when the phase angle between two
57. The creeping is occurs in : fluxes is :-
(a) voltmeter (b) wattmeter
(c) Energy meter (d) ammeter (a) 0° (b) 45°
CIL MT 2020 (c) 60° (d) 90°
Ans. (c) : The creeping occurs in energymeter. UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
Creeping is the kind of error in which the energy Ans. (d) : In an Induction type meter, maximum torque
meter consumes a very small amount of energy is produced when the phase angle between two fluxes is
even when no load is attached to the meter. 90°.
The creeping increase the speed of the disc even 63. Which of the following is not a type of
under the light load condition which increases the wattmeter?
meter reading. (a) Moving coil permanent magnet
The creeping is avoided by drilling the hole in the (b) Induction
disc. The holes are diametrically opposite to each (c) Dynamometer
others, due to this hole, the disc will come to rest (d) Electrostatic
when the hole comes under the edge of pole of
shunt magnet. UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
58. How many number of coils will be there in a Ans. (a) : Moving coil permanent magnet is not a type
dynamo type power factor meter for balance of wattmeter.
three phase load? There are three types of wattmeter. They are–
(a) Three current coil and three pressure coil 1. Induction type wattmeter
(b) One current coil and one pressure coil 2. Dynamometer type wattmeter
(c) One current coil and two pressure coil
(d) Two current coil and one pressure coil 3. Electrostatic type wattmeter
CIL MT 2020 64. In two wattmeter method of measuring 3-phase
Ans. (c) : One current coil and two pressure coils will power, power factor is 0.5 then one of the
be there in dynamo type power factor meter for wattmeter will read
balanced three phase load. The power factor meter has W
two moving coils and their axes are 120o displaced from (a) (b) zero
each other. It has both voltage coils in series with pure 2
resistance. W
59. The minimum number of watt meters required (c) 2W (d)
to measure 3-phase, 3-wire balance or 3
unbalanced power is : RPSC VPITI 2018
(a) 3 (b) 2 UPPCL AE 2014
(c) 4 (d) 1 PTCUL AE 2012
CIL MT 2020 Ans. (b) : Given, cos φ = 0.5
Ans. (b) : The minimum number of watt meters
required to measure 3-phase, 3-wire balance or θ = 60º
unbalanced power is two. 3 ( W1 − W2 )
If system has n phase n wire then (n–1) watt meter tan 60º =
is needed. But if system is balanced then one watt ( W1 + W2 )
meter is sufficient. ( W − W2 )
60. Creeping in a single-phase induction type 3= 3 1
energy meter may be due to :- ( W1 + W2 )
(a) Overcompensation for friction W1 − W2 = W1 + W2
(b) Over voltages
(c) Vibrations 2W2 = 0
(d) All of these W2 = 0

65. To avoid creep in energy meter: Ans : (d) In a compensated wattmeter, the potential
(a) Two shading band are put on shunt magnet coil current flows through the current coil, the
wattmeter so connected will read too high by the
(b) Two shading bands are put on series magnet amount of power lost in the potential coil. So a
(c) Two holes are cut in the disc on opposite side compensated wattmeter has its reading corrected for
of spindle error due to power consumed in potential coil.
(d) The potential coil is made of thin wire
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 71. To measure the total power on a three-phase
Ans. (c) To prevent creeping two diametrically opposite system supplying a balanced load, two
holes are drilled in the disc of energy meter. Due to this wattmeters reads 7.5 kW and -1.5 kW,
hole, the disc come to rest when the hole comes under respectively. The total power and the power
the edge of pole of the shunt magnet. factor, respectively, are:-
66. Induction type single phase energy meters (a) 13.0kW, 0.334 (b) 5.0kW, 0.684
measure electric energy in (c) 8.0 kW, 0.52 (d) 6.0kW, 0.359
(a) kW (b) VA UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
(c) kWh (d) VAR Ans : (d) Given Data-
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 W1= 7.5kW , W2 = –1.5kW
Ans. (c) :Induction type single phase energy meter Total Power for Balance load , P is given by-
measure electrical energy in kWh. P = W1+W2
67. Various adjustments in an energy meter P = 7.5+(-1.5)
include P= 6.0 kW
(a) lag and creep
(b) overload and voltage compensation ∴ tan θ = 3 1
(W − W2 )
= 3
[ 7.5 − (−1.5)] = 3 × 9
(c) temperature compensation W 1 + W 2 7.5 + (−1.5) 6
(d) All of the above 3 3
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 tanθ=
Ans. (d) : Energy meter is used to measure energy 2
consumption over given time. The unit of energy
consumed is represented in (kWh).
Energy meter include lag and creep, over load and
voltage compensation, temperature compensation.
68. A dynamometer wattmeter can be used for
(a) AC measurement only
(b) Both AC & DC measurement
(c) DC measurement only 2 2
∴ cos θ = = = 0.359
(d) None of the above 31 5.56
72. Calculate the power factor for a 3 phase load
Ans. (b) : A dynamometer wattmeter can be used for
both AC & DC measurement. measuring 2 kW and 1kW by using 2
69. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method.
wattmeter method, both the watt meters had (a) 0.824 (b) 0.842
identical readings. The power factor of the load (c) 0.866 (d) 0.91
is : UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
(a) 0.8 lagging (b) 0.8 leading Ans : (c) It is given,
(c) Zero (d) Unity
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 W1=2 kW W2= 1 kW
Ans. (d) According to formula,
W1 = w (W − W2 ) (2 − 1)
W2 = w tanφ = 3 1 = 3
W1 + W2 ( 2 + 1)
–1  (W1 − W2 )  −1  (w − w) 
φ = tan  3  = tan  3 (w + w) 
, φ = tan −1  1  = 300
1
 (W1 + W2 )    tan φ =
3  3
φ = 00
Power factor of the load cosφ = cos 00 = 1 or unity. 3
So, Power factor cos φ = cos300 =
70. A compensated wattmeter has its reading 2
corrected for error due to the : = 0.866
(a) frequency 73. Ampere-Hour meter (DC) is rated for 20 A,
(b) friction 250 V. The meter constant is 15 A-sec/rev. the
(c) power consumed in current coil meter constant at rated voltage may be
(d) power consumed in potential coil expressed as :
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (a) 3750 rev/kWh (b) 3600 rev/kWh
RPSC VPITI 2016 (c) 1000 rev/kWh (d) 960 rev/kWh
ESE 1995
Ans : (d) Meter constant = 15A sec/rev Ans. (b) : Power factor angle-
Meter constant at rated voltage = 15 × 250VA sec/rev  3 ( P1 − P2 ) 
= 15×250×10–3 KVA sec/rev φ = tan −1  
= 15 × 250 × 10 −3 KVA. sec/ rev  P1 + P2 
15 × 250 Let P2 =0, then φ = tan −1  3  = 600
= × 10−3 × 1
3600 power factor = cos φ = cos 600 = 0.5
kWh
= 1.04 ×10−3 × 1 ( cos φ = 1) 78. Dynamometer type wattmeters are suitable for:
rev (a) both ac & dc circuits
Meter constant at rated voltage (b) only ac circuits
1 (c) only dc circuits
=
1.04 × 10−3 (d) only high voltage ac circuits
= 0.96×103 Punjab PSC SDE 2017
= 960 rev / kWh Ans. (a) : Dynamometer type wattmeters are suitable
74. In energy meter, if brake magnet is moved for both ac and dc circuits.
away from the spindle of the moving disc, the Scale is uniform up to a certain limit.
aluminium disc_____. Control system-Gravity control, spring control
(a) Will run fast Damping system- Air friction damping is used.
(b) No effect 79. The line-to-line input voltage to the 3-phase, 50
(c) Will run slow Hz, a.c. circuit shown in Fig. 16 is 100 V r.m.s.
(d) will come to a stop Assuming that the phase sequence is RYB the
UPPCL AE 12-11-2016 wattmeters would read
Ans : (c) When aluminium disc rotates in between
poles of brake magnet, eddy current induced in
aluminium disc controls it as brake.
When brake magnet moves away its speed decreases.
75. The minimum number of wattmeter(s)
required to measure 3–phase, 3–wire balanced
load
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
Ans. (a) : The minimum number of wattmeter required (a) W1 = 886 W and W2 = 886 W
to measure 3-phase 3 wire balanced load is one. And to (b) W1 = 500 W and W2 = 500 W
measure 3-phase 3 wire unbalanced load is two (c) W1 = 0 W and W2 = 1000 W
wattmeter method. i.e. by using two wattmeter method (d) W1 = 250 W and W2 = 750 W
both balance and unbalance load can be measured. JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V
76. Two wattmeters connected to measure the Ans. (c) :
power in 3 phase balanced delta connected load
read W1 = 12 kW and W2 = 15 kW. If same load
be connected in star the wattmeter would read:
(a) W1 = 8.66 kW W2 = 6.93 kW
(b) W1 = 6.96 kW W2 = 8.66 kW
(c) W1 = 5 kW W2 = 4 kW
(d) W1 = 4 kW W2 = 5 kW
Punjab PSC SDE 2017
Ans. (d) : When load will be connected in star then 100
Total power, S = VI = 100 × = 1000 W
( W ) 12 10
( W1 )Y = 1 ∆ = = 4 kW Since the power factor is 0.5, one wattmeter will have
3 3
zero reading and the other will have (full reading) 1000
( ) 15
W
( W2 )Y = 2 ∆ = = 5kW W reading
3 3 ∴ W1 = 0, W2 = 1000 W
77. In a 3-phase power measurement by two 80. An energy meter having a meter constant of
wattmeter method the reading of one of the 1200 revolution per kWh is found to make 5
wattmeter was zero. The power factor of the revolutions in 75 sec. The load power is
load must be: (a) 500 W (b) 100 W
(a) unity (b) 0.5 (c) 200 W (d) 1000 W
(c) 0.866 (d) Zero BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V
Punjab PSC SDE 2017 ESE 2002

Ans. (c) Ans. (c) : Power when 1st source are active–
Meter constant (K) = 1200 revolution/kWh
1200 rev/hr = 1000 watt P1 = i12 R
1000 Power when 2nd source are active–
1 rev / hr = watt
1200 P2 = i 22 R
1000
240 rev / hr = × 240 When both sources are active current flowing through R
1200 is.
= 200 watt P ± P2
I = i1 + i 2 = 1
81. Two wattmeters are connected to measure the R
power of a 3-phase system supplying a Power consumed by the resistance 'R'
balanced load read as 10.5 kW and -2.5 kW 2
 P1 ± P2 
respectively. The total power and power factor
( )
2
P = I R =
2
 × R = P1 ± P2
are  R
(a) 13 kW and 0.334 (b) 13 kW and 0.684  
(c) 8 kW and 0.52 (d) 8 kW and 0.334 84. An integrating digital voltmeters measures
BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V (a) True average value
Ans. (d) (b) Rms value
W1 = 10.5 kW (c) Peak value
W2 = –2.5 kW (d) None of the above
Total power (W) = W1 + W2 UJVNL AE 2016
= 10.5 – 2.5 Ans. (a) An integrated digital voltmeters measures true
W = 8 kW average value.
85. Creep error may occur in induction type
θ = tan −1 3
( W 1 − W 2 ) energy meter due to :
( W1 + W2 ) (a) Over compensation of friction
(b) Increase in temperature
10.5 + 2.5 
θ = tan −1 3 
(c) over voltage across voltage coil
 (d) Both (a) and (c)
 10.5 − 2.5 
UJVNL AE 2016
θ = tan −1  13 
3  HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
 8 ESE 2013
θ = 70.44 0 Ans. (d) Creep error may occurs in induction type
energy meter due to over compensation of friction &
Power factor = cos θ over voltage across the voltage coil.
= cos (70.44) 86. The sum of instantaneous powers in a balanced
= 0.334 three phase system is
(a) Constant
82. An error due to which of the following item
(b) Constant plus a second harmonic oscillating
gets corrected in the reading of a compensated component
wattmeter? (c) Constant plus a fundamental oscillating
(a) An error due to the frequency component
(b) An error due to the friction (d) Constant plus a third harmonic oscillating
(c) An error due to the power consumed in component
current coil UJVNL AE 2016
(d) An error due to the power consumed in Ans. (a) The sum of instantaneous powers in a balanced
potential coil three phase system is constant.
Vizag Steel MT 2011 87. Integrating meters are used for the
Ans. (d) : In a compensated wattmeter, an error due to measurement of.
(a) Current (b) Voltage
power consumed in potential coil (due to its high (c) Power (d) Energy
reactance) gets corrected. UJVNL AE 2016
83. In a network, power consumed by a resistance Ans. (d) Integrating meters are used for the
R is P1 when only the first source is active and measurement of energy.
P2 when only the second source is active. If 88. Power consumed by a balanced 3–phase, 3 wire
both the sources are active simultaneously, load is measured by the two wattmeter method.
then the power consumed by R is The first wattmeter reads twice that of the
(a) P1 ± P2 (b) P1 ± P 2 second, then the load impedance angle in
radians is.
( ) π/12 (b) π/8
2
(c) P1 ± P 2 (d) ( P1 ± P2 )
2 (a)
(c) π/6 (d) π/3
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II UJVNL AE 2016

Ans. (c) When w2 = 2w1 than Active power (P)
P = VI cosφ
 ( w − w1 ) 
φ = tan −1  3 ⋅ 2  Q = VI sinφ
 w1 + w 2  S = VI*
P = active power
 2w − w1 
φ = tan −1  3 ⋅ 1 Q = Reactive power
 2w1 + w1  S = Apparent power
w1 92. What is the major cause of creeping in a energy
φ = tan −1 3 ⋅ meter ?
3w1 (a) Overcompensation of friction
 1  (b) Mechanical vibrations
φ = tan −1   (c) Excessive voltage across the potential coil
 3 (d) Stray magnetic fields
π HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016
φ= Ans. (a) : A slight torque developed by the light load
6
adjustment may cause the disc to rotate slowly when the
89. For measurement of which of the following is potential coil are excited but with no load current
Low Power Factor (LPF) wattmeter NOT flowing. This defect is known as creeping. The major
suitable? cause for creeping is over compensation of friction.
(a) Measurement of power in inductive loads 93. A single phase watt meter with a meter
(b) Open circuit test on single phase transformer constant of 400 makes 2070 revolutions while
(c) Measurement of power in resistive loads operating on 230 V and 12.5 A for 2 hours.
(d) Load test on induction motor What is the power factor?
LMRC AM 2020 (a) 0.8 (b) 0.9
Ans. (c) : A Low power factor (LPF) wattmeter works (c) 9.2 (d) None of these
with low P.F system while a resistive load will have a GESCOM AE 2011
unity factor hence it will give large error in such Ans. (b) : Given, V = 230 V, I = 12.5 A
system. T= 2 hours
90. In a 3-phase power measurement by two Meter constant = 400, revolutions = 2070
wattmeter method, both the watt meters had Revolution 2070
identical readings. What was the power factor Energy (E) = = = 5.175kWh
Meter constant 400
of the load?
(a) Zero (b) 0.8 leading Energy consumed (E)
(c) Unity (d) 0.8 lagging = 230V × 12.5A × 2 Hours = 5.750 kWh
JUVNL AE 2017 Energy 5.175
Power factor = = = 0.9
Ans. (c) : In a 3-phase power measurement by two Energyconsumed 5.750
wattmeter method, both the watt meters has identical 94. Which of the following is true with power
readings, then power factor is unity. factor?
w1 = w2 (a) It is a dimensionless number
tan θ = 3 1
( w − w2 ) (b) It is the ratio between real power and
apparent power
w1 + w 2 (c) Both a and b
θ = tan-1 00 (d) None of these
∴ θ = 0o, cos 00 = 1 GESCOM AE 2011
p.f. = unity Ans. (c) : Power factor is defined as the ratio of real
91. Active power is a function of .............. power absorbed by the load to apparent power flowing
(a) voltage phase angle in circuit, and is a dimensionless number in closed
(b) voltage magnitude interval of -1 to 1.
(c) impedance
(d) all of these
Ans. (a) : Active power- The power which is actually
consumed or utilised in an AC circuit is called true
power or active power measured in kilowatt (kW) or
megawatt (MW).
Active power is a function of voltage phase angle. R
cos φ =
Z
Real power
cos φ =
Apparent power
kW
cos φ =
kVA

95. When a watt meter consists of two pressure 97. In the measurement of power on balanced load
coils (voltage coils), they _____ by two-wattmeter method in a 3-phase circuit,
(a) can be connected in series only the readings of the wattmeter are 3 kW and 1
(b) can be connected in parallel only kW respectively, the latter being obtained after
(c) can be connected in series or parallel reversing the connections of the current coil.
(d) cannot be connected at all The power factor of the load is
GESCOM AE 2011 (a) 0.277 (b) 0.554
Ans. (c) : (c) 0.625 (d) 0.866
ESE 2002
Ans. (a)
W1 = 3kW W2 = –1kW (After
reversing)
 ( W − W2 ) 
φ = tan −1  3 1
 W1 + W2 
When a watt meter consists of two pressure coil
(voltage coil), they can be connected in series or parallel
 4 
(
φ = tan −1  3    = φ = tan −1 3 × 2
  2  )
to change the ranges of wattmeter.
96. In case of power measurements by two φ = tan (3.464)
–1
wattmeter method in a balanced 3-phase φ = 73.89

system with pure inductive load– cos φ = 0.277
(a) Both wattmeters will indicates the same value
Where, cos φ = power factor
but with opposite signs
(b) Both wattmeters will indicate zero 98. A 3-phase balanced load which has a power
(c) Both the wattmeters will indicate the same factor of 0.707 is connected to a balanced
value same sign supply. The power consumed by the load is 5
(d) One wattmeter will indicate zero and the kW, The power is measured by the two-
other will indicate some non-zero value wattmeter method. The readings of the two
BPSC Asstt. Prof. 2015 wattmeters are :
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 (a) 3.94 kW and 1.06 kW
ESE 1997 (b) 2.50 kW and 2.50 kW
Ans. (a) : (c) 5.00 kW and 0.00 kW
In the two-wattmeter method, the reading of first (d) 2.96 kW and 2.04 kW
wattmeter APTRANSCO AE 2019
W1 = 3VP IP cos(30 + φ)0 Ans. (a) :
P1 + P2 = 5 kW –––––––(i)
and of second wattmeter
cos φ = 0.707
W2 = 3VP I P cos(300 − φ)
For pure inductive load phase angle( φ ) = 90 . 0  3 ( P1 − P2 ) 
cos φ = cos −1  tan −1 
So, reading of first wattmeter is:  ( P1 + P2 ) 
W1 = 3VP IP cos(300 + 900 )
 3 ( P1 − P2 ) 
 1 0.707 = cos −1  tan −1 
= 3VP I P cos120 0 0
∵ cos120 = -  
 ( P1 + P2 ) 
 2 
3 ( P1 − P2 )
W1 = −
3 cos ( 0.707 ) = tan −1
2
VP IP ( P1 + P2 )
and reading of second wattmeter is: 3 ( P1 − P2 )
W2 = 3VP I P cos(300 − 900 ) 0.760 = tan −1
( P1 + P2 )
 1
= 3VP I P cos(600 ) 0
∵ cos60 =  3 ( P1 − P2 )
 2 tan 0.760 =
( P1 + P2 )
3
W2 = VP IP 3 ( P1 − P2 )
2 0.950 =
Thus, in case of power measurements by two wattmeter 5
method in a balanced 3-phase system with pure P1 – P2 = 2.74 ––––(ii)
inductive load both wattmeters will indicates the same Solve equation (i) and (ii)
value but with opposite signs. P1 = 3.94 kW & P2 = 1.06 kW

99. A 1-phase, 240 V induction type energy meter 103. What is the phase angle between the voltage &
constant of 600 revolutions per kWh. For a current if two wattmeters read identical values
load current of 10 A at a power factor of 0.8 in the three-phase power measurement?
lagging, speed of the disc in rpm is : (a) 0o (b) 45o
(a) 57.6 (b) 38.4 (c) 90 o
(d) 180o
(c) 19.2 (d) 9.6 APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
APTRANSCO AE 2019 Ans. (a) : For two wattmeter method
Ans. (c) :
Energy of meter (kWh) = V1 cos φ × 10–3   w − w 2 
φ = tan–1  3  1 
= 240 × 10 × 0.8 × 10–3
= 1.92 kWh   w1 + w 2  
Number of revolution = meter constant × kWh for identical values or readings,
= 600 × 1.92 w1 = w2
= 1152  3×0
Revolution 1152 ∴ φ = tan–1  
Speed of disc (rpm) = = = 19.2rpm  2w1 
60 60 φ = tan (0)
–1
100. It is required to measure pf of an electrical φ = 0o
load. No power factor meter is available. The
following combination is used to determine pf. 104. Energy can be measured by using which of the
(a) a wattmeter following meters?
(b) a voltmeter, ammeter and wattmeter (a) Watt-hour meter (b) Wattmeter
(c) a voltmeter and ammeter (c) Frequency meter (d) Multimeter
(d) a kWH meter APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
APSPDCL AE 2012 Ans. (a) : Energy meter or Watt-Hour Meter is an
Ans. (b) : For the measurement of power factor, a electrical instrument that measures the amount of
power factor meter is required. It power factor meter is electrical energy used.
not available then by using Ammeter and voltmeter in 105. For the measurement of three-phase reactive
conjunction with wattmeter, the power factor can also power, the current coil and pressure coil are
be calculated. connected across:
101. While measuring power of a three-phase (a) current coil in one phase & pressure coil
balanced load by the two-wattmeter method, across remaining two phases
the readings are 100 W and 250 W. The power (b) pressure coil in one phase & current coil
factor of the load is across remaining two phases
(a) 0.1 (b) 1
(c) 0.8 (d) 0.5 (c) current coil in one phase & pressure coil is in
APPSC AEE 2019 another phase
Ans. (c) : Two-watt meter method- (d) Current coil & pressure coil across any two
Given, W1=100W phase
W2 = 250W APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
 3 ( W2 − W1 )   3 ( 250 − 100 )  Ans. (a) : Reactive power in three phase balanced
φ = tan −1  −1
 = tan   circuit can be measured by single wattmeter method
 W2 + W1   350  show in figure given below.
 3 × 150 
φ = tan −1   = 36.58
 350 
cosφ = 0.8
102. The meter constant of a single-phase 240 V
induction watt hour meter is 400 revolutions
per kWh. The speed of the meter disc for a
current of 10 amperes of 0.8 power factor
lagging will be Measurement of Reactive Power by Single Wattmeter
(a) 12.8 rpm (b) 16.02 rpm Method
(c) 18.2 rpm (d) 21.1 rpm Current coil is connected in series with line ‘Y’ as
APPSC AEE 2019 shown in fig. The pressure coil is connected between
Ans. (a) : the line ‘R’ and ‘Y’. The reading of the wattmeter will
It is given– V = 240 V, Cos φ = 0.8, I = 10 ampere measure the reactive power.
K= 400 rev/kWh,
Speed of disc = KVI Cos φ /1000 106. In a wattmeter, the nature of pressure coil & of
 240V × 10A × 0.8  current coil, respectively, is:
= 400 rev/kWh ×   kWh (a) resistive, inductive
 1000 × 1hr  (b) inductive, resistive
= 768 rev/hr (c) inductive, inductive
768 (d) inductive, capacitive
= rev / min = 12.8rpm
60 APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020

Ans. (a) : In a wattmeter limited of current flows ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018
through the pressure coil so as to avoid heating. So in RPSC VPITI 2018
order to limit the current we have connected high value WBSE TCL AE 2016
of resistor in series of pressure coil therefore in a KPSC AE 2014
wattmeter pressure coil in resistive nature and current APTRANSCO AE 2011
coil in inductive nature. Ans. (b) :
107. Why are laminated conductors used in the
current coil of electro-dynamometer type
wattmeter?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To reduce hysteresis
(c) To reduce friction loss
(d) To reduce copper loss
Ans. (a) : The fixed coils are wound with heavy-wire.
This wire is standard of laminated especially where In electrodynamometer type wattmeter moving coil
carrying heavy currents in order to avoid eddy current works as pressure coil. Hence moving coil is connected
losses in conductor. across the voltage and thus the current flowing through
108. Ideally, what is the phase angle between the this coil is always proportional to voltage. So the
flux of shunt magnet & the voltage applied of pressure coil of a dynamometer type wattmeter is highly
energy meter? resistive.
(a) 90o (b) 45o 112. The pressure coil of an induction type energy
(c) 30o (d) 0o meter is :
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 (a) Highly resistive (b) Highly inductive
Ans. (a) : Flux of shunt magnet produce flux that is lag (c) Purely resistive (d) Purely inductive
by 90o from applied voltage so, phase difference is 90 HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
degree. ESE 2003
109. A DC supply is applied to an inductive load. Ans. (b) : The pressure coil of an induction type energy
What is the nature of the power factor? meter in Highly inductive.
(a) Unity (b) Lagging The current coil of an induction type energy meter is
(c) Leading (d) Zero lagging highly resistive.
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 113. The following is not essential for the working of
Ans. (a) : DC supply has unity power factor because an indicating instrument :
reactive power absorbed by any inductive load is zero. (a) Deflecting torque (b) Braking torque
This is because of frequency zero. so time period is ∞. (c) Damping torque (d) Controlling torque
So power factor angle is zero from power triangle HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
cos (0) = 1, this is reason in dc supply power factor is ESE 2012
always unity. Ans. (b) : Braking torque is not essential for an
110. When a load of 450 W is connected, if an indicating instrument. Braking torque is used
energy meter disc makes 10 revolutions in 100 integrating type instrument.
seconds the meter constant (in rev/kWh) is- 114. Which method can be used for the
(a) 1000 (b) 800 measurement of three-phase power for an
(c) 500 (d) 1600 unbalanced load?
KPSC AE 2014 (a) Three voltmeter method
Ans. (b) : No. of revolutions = 10 (b) Two voltmeters and one ammeter method
Power P = 450 W = 0.45 kW (c) Two wattmeter method
100 (d) None of the above
t = 100 sec. = Hour HPPSC AE 22 June 2019
3600 Ans. (c) : with the help of two wattmeter method 3
No.of revolutions phase power for on unbalance load can be measured.
Meter constant K =
Energyconsumed ( P × t ) measurement we use two watt meter method.
For balanced power → One watt meter is sufficient.
10 3600 × 10
K= = 115. Two wattmeters are connected to measure the
0.45 ×
100 0.45 ×100 total power consumed by a 3- Φ load at 0.5
3600 power factor lagging. The total power
360 consumed by the load as indicated by the two
= wattmeters is 30 kW. Find the individual
0.45
= 800 Rev./kWh wattmeter readings.
(a) W1 = 10 kW & W2 = 20 kW
111. The pressure coil of a dynamometer type (b) W1 = 15 kW & W2 = 15 kW
wattmeter is– (c) W1 = 5 kW & W2 = 25 kW
(a) Highly inductive (b) Highly resistive (d) W1 = 30 kW & W2 = 0
(c) Purely resistive (d) Purely inductive DMRC AM 2020
Ans. (d) : Two wattmeter method, 118. Phantom loading for testing of energy meter is
W1 + W2 = P {P = 30 kW (given)} used :
(a) to isolate the current and potential circuits
The total instantaneous power absorbed by the three (b) to increase power loss potential circuits
loads Z1, Z2 and Z3 are equal to the sum of the power (c) for meters having low current ratings
measured by the two wattmeter, W1 and W2. (d) to test meters having a large current rating for
which loads may not be available
APTRANSCO AE 2017
Ans. (d) : Phantom loading is used for large machines
which is having high current capacity. Which are not
practically available in laboratory. So the phantom
loading for testing of energy meter is used to test meters
having a large current rating for which load may not be
available.
119. Two wattmeter, connected to measure power in
a three phase balanced circuit, read 100 W
each, The reactive power absorbed by the
circuit is
So, W1 = 30 kW & W2 = 0 is correct. (a) 0 Var (b) 100 Var
(c) 200 Var (d) 300 Var
116. The power consumed by a balanced 3 - φ load Vizag Steel MT 2013
is measured by two-wattmeter method. The Ans. (a) : Given : P1 = P2 = 100
meter readings are 8 kW and 4 kW. The power Determination of reactive power by two wattmeter
factor of the load is : method,
(a) zero Total reactive power (QT) = VI sinφ = 3 ( W1 − W2 )
(b) 0.5 QT = 3 (100 − 100 )
(c) between zero and 0.5 QT = 0 Var
(d) between 0.5 and unity
Hence, the reactive power absorbed by the circuit is 0
APTRANSCO AE 2017
Var.
Ans. (d) : Power measured by two wattmeter method, 120. Holes are drilled on the disc of induction type
reading of wattmeter P1 = 8 kW energy meter at diametrically opposite
P2 = 4 kW positions to
 P1 − P2  (a) balance the disc
 8−4 
∵ tan φ = 3   = 3  = 0.577 (b) dissipate the energy due to eddy currents
 P1 + P2   8+ 4  (c) increase the deflecting torque
(d) avoid creep on no load
φ = tan ( 0.577 )
−1
Vizag Steel MT 2013
= 300 Ans. (d) : To prevent creeping two diametrically
Power factor cos φ = cos 30o = 0.866 opposite hole are drilled in the disc of induction type
So, the power factor of the load is between 0.5 and energy meter. Due to this hole the disc will come to rest
when the hole comes under the edge of pole of shunt
unity. magnet. Thus creeping is limited to a maximum of half
117. A 200 V, 5 A d.c. energy meter is tested at its of the rotation.
marked ratings. The resistance of the pressure 121. In an induction type energy-meter, 'creeping'
circuit is 8000 Ω and that of current coil is 0.1 takes place due to
Ω. The power consumed when testing the meter (a) decrease in the strength of the braking
magnet.
with phantom loading with current circuit
(b) improper lag adjustment.
excited by a 6 V battery is : (c) over-compensation of the frictional torque.
(a) 2.5 W (b) 5 W (d) fluctuation of ambient temperature.
(c) 32.5 W (d) 35 W Vizag Steel MT 2013
APTRANSCO AE 2017 Ans. (c) : Creeping is a phenomena occurring in
Ans. (d) : induction type energy meter due to over compensation
When tested with phantom loading power consumed in of the frictional torque.
Creeping occurs due to–
current coil circuit = Vphantom.I • Over compensation of the friction torque.
P = 6 × 5 = 30 W • Supply voltage is more than normal voltage
Power consumed in pressure coil circuit, • Stray magnetic field
V 2
( 200 ) 2 • Vibration
P= s = = 5W (Vs = supply voltage) To prevent creeping two holes of same radius is drilled
Rp 8000 on the opposite side of the spindle. The disc will stop
total power consumed = 30 W + 5 W = 35 W when one of the holes comes under the shunt magnet.

122. A 3-phase balanced load with lagging power 125. Which of the following instrument is not
factor is supplied by a 3-phase balanced supply, affected by hysteresis and eddy current errors?
sequence RYB. The potential coil of the (a) Electrostatic
wattmeter is connected across RY while the (b) Permanent magnet moving coil
current coil is connected in phase B. The (c) Moving Iron
wattmeter reading will be indicated of. (d) Dynamometer type moving coil
(a) Real power CIL MT 2017
(b) Reactive power Ans. (d) : Electrodynamometer Type Instruments–
(c) Volt-amperes An electrodynamometer type instrument is a moving
(d) Wattmeter will not deflect coil instrument in which the operating field is produced
UPSC JWM 2017 by another coil which is fixed. The fixed coil is usually
Ans. (b) : If potential coil of watt meter is connected air core to avoid Hysteresis loss when used on ac
across RY. While current coil in phase B. It will circuits. It is wound either as self sustaining coil or else
indicate reactive power. on a non-metallic former so as to prevent eddy currents.
123. The potential coil of a wattmeter is designed for 126. In the two-wattmeter method of measurement
minimum inductance so that current through it of three-phase power of a balanced load, if both
is. wattmeters indicate the same reading, then the
(a) Proportional to voltage and out of phase with power factor of the load is:
it
(a) Unity (b) 0.5 lag
(b) Inversely proportional to voltage and almost
(c) < 0.5 lag (d) > 0.5 lag
in phase with it
BHEL ET 2019
(c) Proportional to voltage and in phase with it
(d) Inversely proportional to voltage and lagging Ans. (a) : In two wattmeter method of measurement
by 900  3 ( P1 − P2 ) 
φ = tan −1  
UPSC JWM 2017  ( P1 + P2 ) 
Ans. (c) : The potential coil of a wattmeter is designed  
for minimum inductance so that current through it is If P1 = P2
proportional to voltage and in phase with it as wattmeter 3×0
measure active power and if inductance have high φ = tan −1
2P1
value then active power will be less.
124. An energy meter is designed to make hundred φ = tan −1 0 0
revolutions of disc for 1 unit of energy. φ = 00
Calculate the number of revolutions made by cos φ = cos 00 = 1
the disc when connected to load carrying 50 A
at 230 V and 0.6pf for an hour. 127. In a Dynamometer type wattmeter if current
(a) 920 revolutions (b) 690 revolutions coil and voltage coil connections are
(c) 575 revolutions (d) 1150 revolutions interchanged then–
CIL MT 2017 (a) Current coil will damage
(b) Voltage coil will damage
Ans. (b) : Given,
(c) No damage
N = 100 revolution
E = 1 unit
meter constant (k) = ?
V = 230 V Ans. (a) :
I = 50 A
cosφ = 0.6
Time (t) = 1 hour
New value of revolution (N′) = ?
N 100
k= =
E 1
k = 100
E = VI cosφ × t
= 230 × 50 × 0.6 × 1
E = 6900 Wh
E = 6.9 kWh In a dynamometer type wattmeter if the current coil and
N′ = k.E voltage coil connection are interchanged then the
current coils gets directly connected across the supply.
N′ = 100 × 6.9
Large current flow through the coil resulting into
N′ = 690 revolution damage to current coil.

128. In a dynamometer wattmeter, the moving coil is : Ans. (b) : Dynamometer type measuring instruments
(a) compensating coil are similar to PMMC instrument. Except that the
(b) current coil permanent magnetic field coil is replaced by a coil
(c) low power factor coil which carries the current to be measured it instrument
(d) potential coil may also serve as transfer instrument because they have
BHEL ET 2019 precision grade accuracy both for ac and dc
Ans. (d) : measurement.
In dynamometer wattmeter there are two types of coil

one is fixed coil or current coil and another is moving
coil or potential coil. The fixed coil is connected in
series with the load and carries the circuit current. The
moving coil is pivoted between the two parts of the
131. In induction type watt hour meters, the errors
fixed coil and is mounted on the spindle.
due to frictional forces at the rotor bearings
129. A 3–phase balanced load is connected across 3–
and in the register mechanism is minimized by.
phase balanced supply. To measure power the
current coil of a wattmeter is connected to the
current transformer of R–phase and the (a) Having the product of the shunt magnet flux
potential coil is connected across Y and B φ2 and series magnet flux φ1 small
phase. The wattmeter measures: (b) Having the ratio of the shunt magnet flux φ2
(a) Active power in R–phase and series magnet flux φ1 small
(b) Active power in Y phase (c) Having the product of the shunt magnet flux
(c) Reactive power in R phase φ2 and series magnet flux φ1 large
(d) Power proportional to 3–phase power.
(d) Having the ratio of the shunt magnet flux φ2
DMRC AM 2016
and series magnet flux φ1 large
Ans. (c) : Phasor diagram between V and I in star
connection. UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
Ans : (d) An addition amount of driving torque (Ratio
of shunt magnet flux φ2 and series magnet flux φ1) is
required to compensate this error. The two shading
Bands on the limbs are adjusted to create this extra
torque.
132. An ampere-hour meter is calibrated at 200 V.
That meter is used on 230 V circuit for energy
measurement and indicates a consumption of
P = 3VYB I R cos ( 90 – φ ) (∵ angle between VYB 700 units in a certain period. What is the actual
and P = 3 VYB IR sin φ IR is (90–φ) from fig.) energy supplied?
(a) 805 units (b) 750 units
This is show Reactive power. (c) 800 units (d) 780 units
∴ According to question the wattmeter measures UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II
Reactive Power in R-Phase. Ans : (a) Ah1×V1= Ah2×V2
130. Which of the following type of measuring V1 = 200 Volt V2 = 230 Volt
instrument used in the measurement of both ac Ah1 = ? Ah2 = 700 Units
and dc quantities? So,
(a) Split-phase induction type actual energy supplied
(b) Dynamoter type Ah 2 × V2 700 × 230
(c) Electrolytic type Ah1 = =
(d) Shaded-pole induction type V1 200
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II Ah1 = 805 units

133. The deflecting torque of wattmeter is: 1
(a) ∝ Vp2 Ic , where Vp is the voltage of the fixed T = 30 sec = hours
120
coil and Ic is the current through the moving E 1
coil. P = = × 120 = 4kW
T 30
(b) ∝ Vp Ic ,Where Vp is the voltage of the 137. If two wattmeters used to measure three phase
moving coil and Ic is the current through the power read equal reading, then the power
fixed coil. factor is
(a) 0.866 (b) 0.5
(c) ∝ Vp Ic ,Where Vp is the voltage of the (c) 0 (d) 1
moving coil and Ic is the current through the UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
fixed coil Ans : (d) Given that
(d) ∝ Vp Ic ,Where Vp is the voltage of the fixed W1=W2
As we know that
coil and Ic is the current through the moving
coil 3(W1 − W2 )
tan θ =
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II W1 + W2
Ans : (b) Deflection torque Td in wattmeter is given by tan θ = 0 ∵ W1 = W2
:
T d ∝ V PI C θ=0
Where VP = Voltage of moving coil So
IC = Current through fixed coil Power factor = cos θ
134. In induction type voltmeters and ammeters, the = cos 00 = 1
instantaneous torque T is: 138. A DC A-h meter is rated for 15A, 250V. The
(a) ∝ (φ1i1 + φ2i2) (b) ∝ (φ1i2 – φ2i2) meter constant is 14.4A-s/rev. The meter
(c) ∝ (φ1i2 + φ2i1) (d) ∝ (φ1i1 – φ2i2) constant at rated voltage can be expressed as
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II (a) 3600 rev/kWh (b) 1000 rev/kWh
Ans : (b) (c) 3750 rev/kWh (d) 960rev/kWh
135. An energy meter with a constant of 600 UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II
revolutions per unit used for energy Ans. (b): Meter constant =14.4 A-sec/Revolution
V= 250 volt
measurement. It makes 500 revolutions is 30
Power = V× meter constant = 250×14.4 VA-sec/rev
seconds. find he energy by the load for an hour. = 3600 watt sec/ rev
(a) 1000 units (b) 100 units 3600
(c) 10 unit (d) 0.1 units = kWh / rev
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II 1000
–3
× 3600
= 10 kWh/rev
Ans : (b) 100 units or power = 1000 rev/kWh
No.of Re v. 139. A wattmeter is connected as shown in the
600 rev/kWh = K =
Energy consumed figure. The wattmeter reads
1
1 Rev = kWh
600
5
500 rev ⇒ kWh
6
E 5 360
P= = × kW = 100 kW (a) Power consumed by Z2
T 6 3
(b) Power consumed by Z1
Energy consumed in 1 hr = 100 kW × 1 hr (c) Total power consumed by Z1 and Z2
= 100 kWh (d) Always zero
= 100 units UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II
136. An energy meter has a constant of 300 Ans. (a): Wattmeter will read the power consumed by
revolutions per unit, it makes 10 revolutions in Z2 because the potential coil is connected with the load.
30 seconds. When it is used for energy When the potential coil is connected in series with
measurement. Find the connected load in kW.
(a) 3 (b) 2 voltage source and load most of the voltage will appear
(c) 1 (d) 4 across the potential coil and very low current will flow
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II in the load.
Ans : (d) 4 kW 140. The current and potential coils of a
Rev reV
kWh = 300
Energy meter constant K = dynamometer type wattmeter were accidentally
kWh interchanged while connecting. After
1 1
Energy in 1 rev = kWh, in 10 rev = kWh energizing the circuit, it was observed that the
300 30
wattmeter did not show the reading. This could 143. A single phase energy meter is operating on 230
be due to: V, 50 Hz supply with a load of 20 A for 2 hours
(a) Damage to potential coils at unity power factor. The meter makes 1380
(b) Damage to current coil revolutions in that period. The meter constant
(c) Damage to both current coil and pressure coil is
(a) 695 rev/kWh (b) 150 rev/kWh
(d) Loose contacts
DMRC AM 2016 1
(c) 0.15 rev/kWh (d) rev/kWh
ESE 2013 150
Ans. (b) : BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (b) : Given, V = 230 V, I = 20 A,
t = 2 hours, cosφ = 1
The meter constant (k) = ?
Energy recorded = VI cos φ × t × 10–3
= 230 × 20 × 1 × 2 × 10–3
= 9.2 kWh
No.of revolution meter
The meter constant (k) =
If current and potential coil of dynamometer is Eneregy recorded
accidentally interchanged while connecting after 1380
energizing the circuit it was observed that a wattmeter =
9.2
not show reading this is due to damage of current coil as
k = 150rev / kWh
current coil is not conducting.
141. Which of the following devices are required to Directions : Consists of two statements, one labelled as
measure three phase balanced power? 'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine
(a) One watt meter these two statements carefully and select the answers to
(b) One watt meter and one voltage transformer
Codes:
of 1:1 ratio (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
(c) One watt meter and two voltmeters individually true and Statement (II) is the
(d) None of the above correct explanation of Statement (I)
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017 (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
Ans. (b) : One watt meter and one voltage transformer individually true but Statement (II) is not the
of 1:1 ratio are required to measure three-phase correct explanation of Statement (I)
balanced power. Whenever two wattmeter method used (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
for measuring 3 − phase balance or unbalanced power.
144. Statement (I) :
142. Two wattmeter connected to measure the input To measure power consumed by the load, it is
of a balanced 3 Phase circuit indicates 2000 necessary to interchange the pressure coil
Watts and 500 Watts respectively. What will be terminals when the pointer of a wattmeter kicks
the power factor of the circuit when both of the back.
readings are positive? Statement (II) :
(a) 0.800 (b) 0.565 The pressure coil terminals are interchaged to get
(c) 0.750 (d) 0.696 upscale reading in a wattmeter without affecting
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 the continuity of power to the load.
ESE 2017
Ans. (d) : We know that-
Ans. (a) : In two watt meter method, the reading of two
W2 − W1 tan φ
= wattmeter are-
W2 + W1 3 W1 = VLIL cos ( 30 − φ )
Here, W1 = 2000 W and W2 = 500 W. Therefore,
2000 − 500 tan φ 1500 tan φ W2 = VLIL cos ( 30 + φ )
= , =
2000 + 500 3 2500 3 If load power factor is less than 0.5, φ > 600 W2 shows
3 3 3 3 negative reading to get correct reading watt meter
= tan φ, tan −1   = φ = 46.10 pressure coil terminals are to be interchanged.
5  5  145. Consider the following statements with regard
Power factor is given by: to induction type wattmeter:
pf = cosφ 1. Can be used on both ac and dc systems.
cos (46.10) = 0.693 2. Power consumption is relatively low.
3. It is accurate only at stated frequency and Statement (II) : Deflecting torque developed in a
temperature. dynamometer type wattmeter is proportional to
Which of the above statements is/are correct? the power and that developed in a dynamometer
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only type ammeter is proportional to the square of the
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 current.
ESE 2017 ESE 2018
Ans. (c) : Induction type wattmeter works only for AC Ans. (a) : In dynamometer wattmeter
because for DC, induction is not possible. Due to VI cos φ dM
presence of more weight of moving system, power θ=
R se dθ
consumption is relatively high. Since pressure coil is
highly inductive the meter copper shading bands are i.e.θ ∝ power → linear scale
calibrated at supply frequency only. So, if any other I 2 dM
Dynamometer ammeter θ =
frequency is used reading will change. Due to K C dθ
temperature, winding resistance torque Td is decreased {θ ∝ I2 → non-linear}
and simultaneously braking torque decreased. Hence Hence non-uniform scale.
temperature effect is almost nullified.
148. Consider the following statements regarding
Directions: power measurement of three-phase circuits by
consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement two-wattmeter method
(I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these 1. Total power can be measured if the three-
two statements carefully and select the answers to phase load is balanced and can be represented
these items using the codes given below: by an equivalent Y connection only
Codes: 2. Total power can be measured for the three-
(a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are phase load irrespective of, whether the load is
individually true; and Statement (II) is the balanced or not and connected in Y or ∆
correct explanation of Statement (I) 3. Power factor can be calculated only if the
(b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are three-phase load is balanced
individually true; but Statement (II) is NOT Which of the above statements are correct?
the correct explanation of Statement (I) (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is (b) 1 and 3 only
false (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement (II) is (d) 1, 2 and 3
true ESE 2018
146. Statement (I) : A general purpose dynamometer Ans. (c) : Total power can be measured for three phase
type wattmeter does not read accurately at low load irrespective of whether the load is balanced or not.
power factors. Total power = v1i1 + v 2i 2
Statement (II) : The presence of self-inductance
of the pressure coil introduces an error. = W1 + W2
ESE 2018 = sum of two wattmeter readings,
Ans. (a) : Error due to inductance of potential coil of But in two wattmeter method, power factor can be
wattmeter error is more, at low p.f. power measurement. calculated only when load is balanced.
LP = VIsinφ tanβ Readings of wattmeter,
So, Error ∝
1 (
W1 = 3VIcos 300 − φ )
Cosφ
W2 = 3VIcos ( 30
0
+ φ)
Directions:
consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement Total reactive power, a = 3 ( W1 − W2 )
(I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these So, power factor of load,
two statements carefully and select the answers to  3 ( W1 − W2 ) 
these items using the codes given below: cos φ = cos  tan −1 
Codes:  ( W1 + W2 ) 
individually true; and Statement (II) is the 149. There will be serious errors if power factor of
correct explanation of Statement (I) non-sinusoidal waveform is measured by
(b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are electrodynamometer power factor meter. This
individually true; but Statement (II) is NOT is true for
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is (a) Single-phase meters alone
false (b) 3-phase meters only
(d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement (II) is (c) Both Single-phase meters and 3-phase meters
true (d) 3-phase meters with balanced loads
147. Statement (I) : A dynamometer type wattmeter
has a linear scale while a dynamometer type ESE 2019
voltmeter has a nonlinear scale.

Ans. (a) : The electrodynamometer type 3 φ power Ans. (d) : In a CRO
If the phase angle (φ) between Vx and Vy φ = 0º or 360º
factor meter, the meter gives indications which are
independent of waveform and frequency of supply
because the currents in the two moving coils are equally
affected by any change of frequency.
However, in single phase power factor meter, the
instrument is used at the frequency for which it is
designed. Otherwise, it gives serious error as the and if φ = 180º
reactance of the choke coil will change at different
frequency.
150. An electrodynamometer instrument can be
used as
1. Wattmeter and VAR meter.
2. Power factor meter and Frequency meter.
So, all of the given option is correct.
3. Transfer instrument. 2. An oscilloscope measures
Which of the above statements are correct? (a) peak to peak value of voltage
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (b) d.c. value of voltage
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) r.m.s. value of voltage
(d) average value of voltage
ESE 2020
Ans. (d) : Uses of electrodynamometer instruments– Ans. (a) : An oscilloscope measures voltage waves. A
• Wattmeter and VAR (reactive power) meter. wave form is a graphic representation of a wave.
• Power factor meter Physical Phenomenon such as vibration, temperature
• Frequency meter and current or power can converted in a voltage by a
• Transfer instruments sensors.
Voltage waveform shows time on the horizontal axis
Transfer instrument may be calibrated with dc source
and voltage on vertical axis.
and then used without modification to measure ac with Oscilloscope measures peak to peak value of voltage.
same accuracy. Electrodynamometer instrument can be 3. XY recorders _____________.
used as a transfer instrument. (a) Record one quantity with respect to another
151. A 220 V single phase meter has a constant load quantity
current of 5A passing through it for 2Hr, at (b) Record quantity on x–axis with respect to
unity power factor. If the meter disc makes time on y–axis
1056 revolutions during this period, what is the (c) Record quantity on y–axis with respect to
meter constant in revolution / kWh? time on x–axis
(d) Record quantity on x–axis with respect to
(a) 480 (b) 360 length on y–axis
(c) 120 (d) 240 UPRVUNL AE 2014
UPPCL AE 2014 Ans. (a) XY recorders record one quantity with respect
Ans. (a) : Given V = 220V to another quantity.
I=5A 4. If the distance of screen from a CRT to center
T = 2 Hr of deflection plates is 15 cm, the length of
deflection plates is 2 cm, the distance between
1056 revolutions
Meter constant = × 103 the plates is 1 cm and accelerating voltage is
220V × 5A × 2Hr 500 V, deflection sensitivity is
= 480 revolution/kWh (a) 33.2 V/cm (b) 0.03 cm/V
(c) 66.4 V/cm (d) 0.015 cm/V
(vi) CRO and Frequency Ans.(b) : Given,
L = 15 cm; ld = 2 cm; d = 1 cm; Ed = 500V.
Measurement As we know that,
L ld
1. In CRO, Lissajous pattern will be a straight Deflection sensitivity ( S ) = m/V.
line, if the two signals are of same frequency 2d Ea
with a phase difference of 15 × 2
(a) 0° (b) 180° S=
(c) 360° (d) All of these 2 × 1× 500
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I S = 0.03cm / volt

5. A dual beam CRO uses 10. The given Lissajous pattern is observed for
(a) Electronic switch phase angle of:
(b) Two electron guns
(c) One electron gun
(d) two time base generation circuit
TNPSC AE 2019
Ans. (b) : Dual beam CRO has two electron guns to
project two beams of electrons.
6. When two sinusoidally time varying vectors
having different amplitudes and phase are (a) 0° or 360° (b) 90° or 270°
summed up, the resulting vector is (c) 270° 360° (d) 0° 90°
(a) linearly polarized UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
(b) elliptically polarized Ans. (b) : 90o or 270o
(c) circularly polarized
(d) not polarized
Ans. (b) : When two sinusoidal voltages are applied to
the horizontal and vertical plates of the CRO, the
pattern observed is an ellipse. This means both voltages
are of different magnitude but of same frequency.
Circle is form at phase angle of φ = 90o or 270o.
11. The rise time 't' of signal applied to CRO and
Bandwidth 'B' of the CRO are related as:
(a) t×B=1 (b) t×B=0.35
(c) t/B= 0.55 (d) t/B= 0.32
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
Ans. (b) : The relation between rise time t of signal
applied to CRO and band width B of CRO is-
7. If two time varying signals of equal amplitude t × B = 0.35
and 270º phase displacement are applied to X 12. In a CRO, the horizontal amplifier is designed
and Y plates of CRO, the display will be: for:
(a) A straight line (b) An ellipse (a) Low amplitude signals with a fast rise time
(c) A circle (d) A rectangle (b) High frequency signals with a fast rise time
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 (c) High amplitude signals with a fast rise time
Ans. (c) : (d) High amplitude signals with a slow rise time
8. If the bandwidth of an oscilloscope is given as UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
direct current to 10 MHz. The fastest rise time Ans. (d) : In a cathode Ray oscilloscope (CRO), the
a sine wave can have to be accurately horizontal amplifier is designed for high amplitude
reproduced by an instrument will be: signals with slow rise time.
(a) 20 ns (b) 25 ns 13. A circle is seen on the screen of a CRO when
(c) 30 ns (d) 35 ns two time varying signals of same frequency and
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 same magnitude are applied to X and Y plates
Ans. (d) : of CRO. The relative phase difference is:
9. Which of the following Lissajous patterns is (a) 90º (b) 0º
obtained when the frequency ratio between the (c) 45º (d) 180º
two signals at the x and y input of CRO is 1 and UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
the phase difference between them is 45o ? Ans. (a) : When φ = 90° or 270°
OMC Deputy manager 2019

Ans. (b)
Circle is seen, when φ = 90° or 270° and same

magnitude are applied to X and Y plates of CRO.

14. The deflection sensitivity of a CRT is defined as
the deflection of the beam on screen per unit
deflection voltage. The typical values of
sensitivities of a CRT are
(a) 10 mm/V to 100 mm/V
(b) 0.1 mm/V to 1 mm/V
(c) 1 mm/V to 10 mm/V
(d) 1 mm/V to 1000 mm/V
Ans. (b) : The deflection sensitivity of a CRT is defined
as the deflection of the beam on screen per unit
deflection voltage. The typical values of sensitivities of
a CRT are 0.1 mm/V to 1 mm/V.
(a) 5V, 1ms (b) 5V, 2ms
15. A cathode ray oscilloscope works based on the (c) 7.5V, 2ms (d) 10V, 1ms
following– APTRANSCO AE 2011
(a) Electrostatic based focusing technique
(b) Electromagnetic based focusing technique Ans. (c) :
(c) Electrostatic and Electromagnetic based Voltage 5
VP–P = 5V = = 2.5V
focusing technique Division 2
(d) None of these is correct Now it will be same for unknown voltage
MPPSC AE 2014 division of unknown voltage = 3
Ans. (a) : A cathode ray oscilloscope work based on
electrostatic based focusing technique. ∴ P − Pvoltage = 3 × 2.5 = 7.5V
CRO is a digital instrument, which works on the 1
principle of thermionic emission i.e. emission of Time period = 3
= 1ms
electron from a heated surface. It is a linear device, 10 Hz
with the use of CRO one can measure peak to peak, Period of unknown signal = 2ms
rms, peak or average value of voltage and current. 19. The two inputs of a CRO are fed with two
16. The purpose of the synchronizing control in a stationary periodic signals. In the X-Y mode,
C.R.O. is to the screen shows a figure which changes from
(a) Adjust the amplitude of display ellipse to circle and back to ellipse with its
(b) Control the intensity of the spot major axis changing orientation slowly and
(c) Focus the spot on the screen repeatedly. The following inference can be
(d) Lock the display of signal made from this–
GMB AE 2017 (a) The signals are not sinusoidal
Ans. (d) : The purpose of the synchronizing control in a (b) The amplitudes of the signals are very close
C.R.O. is to lock the display of signal. There must be but not equal
synchronization between the sweep and the signal being (c) The signals are sinusoidal with their
measured. Synchronization is done to produce frequencies very close but not equal
stationary pattern. (d) There is a constant but small phase difference
17. The input resistance of Cathode Ray between the signals
Oscilloscope (CRO) is of the order of APTRANSCO AE 2011
(a) Tens of ohm (b) Mega ohm Ans. (c) : The signal are sinusoidal with their
(c) Kilo ohm (d) Fraction of an ohm frequency very close but not equal the phase difference
GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 of two signal is varying nearly with time
Ans. (b) :The input resistance of a CRO is of order of X = A sin ωt
several mega ohm. Y = A sin (ωt–φ)
The normal input impedance of an oscilloscope is 1 Phase difference = φ
Mega ohm. A probe will have 10 Mega ohm input Alternately
resistance, with about 10 PF of capacitance. X = A1 sin ωt
18. The time/div and voltage/div axes of an Y = A2 cos ωt = A2 sin (ωt–φ)
oscilloscope have been erased. When 1 kHz, 5V for ellipse, A1 ≠ A2
p-p square wave calibration pulse is connected for circle A1=A2
to channel 1 of the scope the waveform
20. Lissajous patterns are used to measure
observed on the screen is as shown in the upper
(a) voltage and frequency
trace of the figure. An unknown signal is
(b) frequency and phase shift
connected to channel 2 (lower trace) of the
(c) frequency and amplitude distortion
scope. If the time/div and V/div on both
(d) amplitude and flux
channels are the same, the amplitude (p-p) and
period of the unknown signal are respectively.
Ans. (b) : Lissajous patterns are used to measure 26. The critical flow condition in a channel is given
frequency and phase shift. by :
21. A 53 Hz reed type frequency meter is polarised αQT 2 αQ 2 T 2
with d.c. The new range of frequency meter is (a) =1 (b) =1
(a) 26.5 Hz (b) 53 Hz gA 3 gA3
(c) 106 Hz (d) None of the above αQ 2 T
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I (c) =1 (d) None of these
gA3
Ans. (c) : The new range of frequency meter is 106 Hz.
PTCUL AE 2016
22. What is the approximate impedance of a CRO?
Ans. (c) : Critical flow condition in a channel is given
(a) 0 (b) 1 Mega Ohm
(c) 10 Ohm (d) 10 Tera Ohm αQ 2 T
LMRC AE 2015 by =1
gA 3
Ans. (b) : Approximate impedance of a Cathode ray
oscilloscope is 1 Mega ohm. Where Q = rate of water flowing through a channel.
g = 9.8 m/sec2
R = 106 ohm A = Cross-sectional area.
23. In a CRO, an electron gun is having : 27. The purpose of synchronizing control in a
(a) Vertical plates CRO is to:
(b) Indirectly heated cathode and control grid (a) Focus the spot on the screen
(c) Phosphorescent screen (b) Lock the display of the signal
(d) Horizontal plates
(c) Adjust the amplitude of the display
CIL MT 2020
(d) Control the intensity of the spot
Ans. (b) : In a CRO, the arrangement of electrodes Punjab PSC SDE 2017
which produces a focused beam of electrons is called HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
the electron gun. It essentially consists of an indirectly UPPCL AE 2014
heated cathode, a control grid, a focusing anode and
Ans. (b) Synchronization is done to produce stationary
accelerating anode. The oscilloscope (CRO) can also be
pattern. The purpose of synchronizing control in a CRO
used for measuring voltage, frequency and phase shift
is to lock the display of the signal. CRO stands for
etc.
cathode ray oscilloscope.
24. X and Y plates of CRO are connected to 28. The input resistance of VTVM is:
unequal voltages of equal frequency with phase (a) 1000Ω (b) 10kΩ
shift of 90°. The lissajous figure on the screen (c) 20kΩ (d) 10MΩ
will be: HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
(a) Circle (b) Straight line Ans. (d) VTVM (Vacuum Tube Voltmeter), is uses the
(c) Ellipse (d) Figure of eight vacuum tube for amplifying the measured AC and DC
PTCUL AE 2012 voltage is known as the vacuum tube voltmeter. Rin
Ans. (a) : Lissajous pattern for various phase shift (Input resistance) of VTVM is 10 mega ohm and can be
as high as 25 MΩ.
The vacuum tube increases the sensitivity of voltmeter
because of which it can detect the signal of very weak
strength.
29. The source of emission of electrons in a
Cathode Ray tube is:
(a) PN junction diode
(b) A barium and strontium oxide coated cathode
(c) Accelerating anodes
25. Lissajous patterns are used to measure (d) Post-accelerating anodes
(a) Voltage and Frequency
(b) Frequency and Phase shift
Ans. (b) The cathode is heated to a temperature that
(c) Frequency and Amplitude distortions
causes electrons to be "boiled off" of its surface into the
(d) Amplitude and Flux
evacuated space in the tube, a process called thermionic
PTCUL AE 2012
emission. A barium and strontium oxide coated cathode
Ans. (b) : Lissajous patterns have two applications to is used for source of emission of electron in cathode ray
analysis the signals. tube (CRT. )
• To calculate the phase difference between two
30. Two sinusoidal signals p( ω1, t) = Asin ω1t and
sinusoidal signals having same frequency.
q( ω2, t) are applied to X and Y inputs of a dual-
• To determine the ratio frequencies of sinusoidal
channel CRO. The Lissajous figure displayed
signals applied to the vertical and horizontal
on the screen is shown in Figure. The signal
deflecting plates.
q( ω2, t) will be represented as
33.
An oscilloscope shows peak-to-peak amplitude
of 8 cm for a measured sinusoidal voltage
waveform with vertical sensitivity knob set to
4V/cm. The average value of the voltage is:
(a) 40.74 V (b) 10.19 V
(c) 2.55 V (d) 20.37 V
LMRC AM 2020
Ans. (b) : Peak to Peak Voltage = 8 × 4 = 32V
32
Peak voltage Vm = = 16 V
(a) q(ω2, t) = A sin ω2t; ω2 = 2ω1 2
(b) q(ω2, t) = A sin ω2t; ω2 = ω1/2 2 × 16
Average voltage Vav =
(c) q(ω2, t) = A cos ω2t; ω2 = 2ω1 π
(d) q(ω2, t) = A cos ω2t; ω2 = ω1/2 = 10.185
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V 34. A lissajous pattern, as in the figure is observed
Ans. (d) : Since one pattern is clockwise and other is on the screen of a CRO when voltage of
anti-clockwise so one is sine function and other cosine frequencies fx and fy are applied to the 'X' and
function. 'Y' plates respectively. Then fx:fy is equal to
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1

(c) 3:2 (d) 2:3
APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (d) :
ω1 2 vertical point
= =
ω2 1 horizontal point
ω
ω2 = 1
2
∴ Q(ω2,t) = A cosω2t; ω2 = ω1/2
31. A dual trace CRO has a number of time base

circuit of :
(a) 1 (b) 2 Where nx = number of horizontal cuts
(c) 3 (d) 4 ny = number of vertical cuts
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I ∴fx : fy = 2:3
Ans. (b) : A dual trace CRO has a number of time base 35. What is the Lissajous pattern if inputs to the
circuit of 2. CRO are 5 cos(50t+φ) & 5 sin(50t + φ) for X &
32. A CRO screen has ten divisions on the Y respectively?
horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin (314t + (a) A circle (b) A straight line
45o) is examined with a line base setting of 5 m (c) A horizontal line (d) An ellipse
sec/div, the number of cycles of signal displayed APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020
on the screen will be : Ans. (a) : If phase difference is 90o, then Lissajous
(a) 0.5 cycle (b) 2.5 cycles pattern will be circle. As seen sin and cos are
(c) 5 cycles (d) 10 cycles orthogonal to each other means phase difference of 90
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I degree.
Ans. (b) : Given : Voltage signal– 36. In CRT, the secondary electrons are collected
V = 5 sin (314t + 45o) by a conductive coating aquadag which is made
2π up of ______.
ω = 2πf = = 314 (a) Hydrazine solution
T (b) Zirconium solution
2π (c) Graphite solution
T= = 0.02
314 (d) Rubber
Per division = 5 ms UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
10 division = 50 ms Ans. (c) : Aquadag is a trade name for a water based
50ms colloidal graphite coating commonly used in cathode
No of cycle = Ray tubes. The name is shortened form of "Aqueous
0.02 Deflocculated acheson Graphite" but has become a
No. of cycle = 2.5 cycle generic term for conductive graphite coating used in
vacuum tubes.

37. The vertical gain control of CRO is set at a 41. Why is crystal oscillator in communication
deflection sensitivity of 5V/cm. An unknown circuits and digital clocks generally preferred?
sinusoidal is applied to Y-input. A 20 cm long (a) It gives high output voltage
straight line trace is observed, what will the ac (b) It requires very low dc supply voltage.
voltage be? (c) The frequency of oscillation remains
(a) 17.677 V substantially constant
(b) 35.35 V (d) It is cheaper.
(c) 100 V UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
(d) 70.71 V Ans. (c) : A crystal oscillator is the only one of all used
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 to produce sinusoidal signals i.e. crystal oscillators are
Ans. (b) : Figure best suitable for the use in timing circuits because of its
high frequency stability. We can obtain precise, high
 Lℓ d Vy  and stable frequency of operation. There is very low
Since,  D =  = Deflection
2dVa  frequency drift our time.

42. The Lissajous pattern on CRO reads y1 = 8
 D Lℓ d  units and y2 = 10 units, what is the phase
S = =  mm / v difference between two waves?
 Vy 2dVa 
(a) 36.86° (b) 53.13°
1 2dVa (c) 38.65° (d) 24.15°
G= = UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
S Lℓ d
Ans. (b) : If the major axis of an elliptical shape
Where, S is the deflection sensitivity- lissajous figure having and inclination angle lies
1 between 0° and 90° with positive x-axis, then the phase
Deflction factor = G = v / mm difference between two sinusoidal signal will be-
5
If 1 cm = 5v x  y 
Then 20 cm = 20 × 5 = 100V
φ = sin −1  1  = sin −1  1 
 x2   y2 
38. The purpose of SYNC control in a CRO is to: Here, y1 = 8 units, y2 = 10 unit
(a) Focus the spot on the screen
8 4
(b) Lock the display of signal φ = sin −1   = sin −1   = 53.13°
(c) Set the intensity of spot  10  5
(d) Adjust the amplitude of display 43. The Lissajous pattern is obtained as fallows by
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 applying horizontal signal of 2 KHz, what is
Ans. (b) : Synchronization is the process of interlocking unknown frequency of vertical signal.
the input signal and the time base generator signal.
When the input signal and the sweep voltage are
synchronized, the pattern on the screen will be locked.
Synchronization is between sweep and signal should
measure. (a) 400.8 Hz (b) 2.5 KHz
39. The calibration signal available from CRO is of (c) 5 KHz (d) 2 KHz
the form: UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
(a) Sinusoidal wave Ans. (c) : We know that– In any Lissajous pattern–
(b) Square wave Vertical frequncy (f v ) No.of Horizontal tangencies
(c) Sawtooth wave =
Horizontalfrequency(f H ) No.of Vertical tangencies
(d) DC signal
from above pattern: Horizontal tangencies = 5 vertical
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 tangencies = 2 f = 2
H
Ans. (b) : Square wave, voltage calibration signal fv 5
normally available at the front panel connection of CRO ∴ = , fv = 5 KHz
2 2
and making a mechanical adjustment so the there is no 44. The Lissajous pattern observed in a CRO is
overshoot or undershoot on the edges of the absecued shown here. What is the frequency ratio of the
waveform. vertical signal to the horizontal signal?
40. The retrace is visible on CRO screen, this
problem is because of
(a) Very high intensity
(b) Very high frequency is applied
(c) Accelerating voltage is too high
(d) Blanking control is not set properly
Ans. (d) : The retrace is visible on CRO screen because
Blanking control is not properly set. If during flyback
(The time when electron beam reaches to travel again
from extreme right to extreme left then horizontal line is
shown in every retrace from right to left) electron beam
is suppressed that is known as Blanking.

(a) 3 : 2 (b) 2 : 5 Ans. (b) : Let fh and fv are respective horizontal and
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 5 : 2 vertical frequency applied to CRO, then it can be
DMRC AM 2020 represented as
fy f v ηh
Ans. (c) : Ratio of frequency = =
fx f h ηv
Number of intersections of lissajous pattern with verticalline
= ηh
Number of intersections of lissajous pattern with horizontalline fv = × fh
ηv
4
= = 4 :1 when ηh = No. of horizontal tangencies
1
45. Which of the following types of instrument ηv = No. of vertical tangencies
could be used to measure the peak value of an therefore if 1 frequency is known other can be found
impulse voltage? out.
(a) PMMC (b) CRO Also phase difference between two sinusoidal signal by
(c) sphere-gap voltmeter (d) both (b) and (c) using formula
Vizag Steel MT 2013
x 
Ans. (d) : For measurement of peak value of impulse φ = sin −1  1 
voltage both CRO and sphere-gap voltmeter can be used  x2 
for measurement of peak to peak voltage of AC. if inclination angle lies between θo + 90o
46. The primary advantage of crystal oscillation is x 
that: or φ = 180 - sin −1  1 
(a) It can oscillate to any frequency  x2 
(b) It gives high output voltage if the inclination angle lies between 90o to 180o.
(c) The frequency of oscillation remains almost where x1 = distance from origin to point on X axis
constant where Lissajous intersects.
(d) It operates on a very low DC supply voltage x2 = distance from origin to point on Y axis
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II where Lissajous intersects.
Ans. (c) : There are some important advantages of
49. One cycle of square wave signal observed on an
crystal oscillator are given,
The crystal oscillators have high frequency stability. oscilloscope is found to occupy 6 cm at a scale
It has high frequency of operation. setting of 30 µs/cm. What is the signal
The Q is very high. frequency?
Thus, in crystal oscillation the frequency of oscillation (a) 1.8 kHz (b) 5.55 kHz
remains constant. (c) 18 kHz (d) 55.5 kHz
47. The sweep generator of a CRO is used to ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020
produce: Time
(a) sinusoidal voltage for the vertical deflection Ans. (b) : Given : = 30 µs / cm
of electron beam Division
(b) saw tooth voltage for the horizontal deflection No. of division occupied by 1 cycle = 6 cm.
of electron beam Time
(c) saw tooth voltage for the vertical deflection of T = No. of division occupied by 1 cycle ×
Division
electron beam T = 6 × 30 × 10-6
(d) sinusoidal voltage for the horizontal = 180 × 10-6 sec
deflection of electron beam
CIL MT 2017 1
Signal frequency (f) =
Ans. (b) : Sweep Generator– It is a measuring T
generator at whose output the frequency of the electric 1
oscillations automatically changes in accordance with f=
given law. For example, a sinusoidal or sawtooth 180 × 10−6
waveform may be produced. Therefore a sweep f = 5.55 kHz
generator of a CRO is used to produced sawtooth 50. Two equal voltages of same frequency applied
voltage for the vertical deflection of electron beam. to X and Y plates of CRO produce a circle on
48. Which of the points below correctly complete(s) the screen. The phase difference between the
the given statement? two voltages will be?
The Lissajous patterns help in the (a) 30° (b) 60°
measurement of ________
1. phase difference between two sine waves (c) 90° (d) 150°
only. ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020
2. frequency of one waveform only, if the ESE 1998
frequency of other waveform is known. Ans. (c) : Two equal voltage of same frequency applied
(a) Only 2 (b) Both 1 and 2 to X and Y plates of CRO produced a circle on the
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Only1 screen. The phase difference between the two voltage
CIL MT 2017 will be 900 or 2700.

53. A cathode ray oscilloscope typically has an
input impedance of.
(a) 1 GΩ (b) 1 kΩ
(c) 1 MΩ (d) 1 Ω
Ans : (c) The normal input impedance of a cathode ray
oscilloscope is 1M Ω . A1X probe will have 1 mega
ohm input resistance with quite a fit of capacitance of
associated with the cable and oscilloscope input may be
50-100 pf.
54. Which of the following lissajous patterns is
obtained when frequency ratio between the two
signals at x and y input of CRO is 1 and phase
difference between them is 450?

Ans : (d) To determine ratio of frequencies of signal
by lissajous pattern draw arbitrary horizontal and
vertical lines on lissajous pattern intersecting lissajous
pattern.
Phase 00/3600 300 or 450 or 600 or
angle 3300 3150 3000
Difference
51. Two sine wave of same amplitude and phase Lissajous
are applied to the vertical and horizontal pattern at
inputs of an oscilloscope. The pattern on the CRO
screen will be:
(a) Straight line at an angle of 45º from x-axis 55. A stationary closed Lissajous pattern on an
(b) Straight line at angle of 135º from x-axis oscilloscope has 3 horizontal tangencies and 2
(c) A circle vertical tangencies for a horizontal input with
(d) A square frequency 3 kHz. The frequency of the vertical
DMRC AM 2016 input is:
Ans. (a) : If two sine wave of same amplitude and (a) 3 kHz (b) 6 kHz
phase are applied to vertical and horizontal inputs of (c) 4.5 kHz (d) 1.5 kHz
oscilloscope so pattern form is straight line at 45º angle UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
from X axis as phase difference φ = 0 so straight line is Ans : (c) The fractional relationship between two
formed frequencies is determined by counting no of cycles in
vertical & horizontal
f V Number of horizontal tangencies
=
fH Number of vertical tangencies
from the question.
fV 3 9
= f V = = 4.5 kHz
3kHz 2 2
52. Oscilloscopes are normally designed such that 56. Consider the following statements with regard
the product of bandwidth and rise time is- to Lissajous pattern on a CRO:
(a) 0.65 (b) 0.95 1. It is a stationary pattern on the CRO.
(c) 1.15 (d) 0.35 2. It is used for precise measurement of
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I frequency of a voltage signal.
Ans:(d) Historically oscilloscope frequency responded to 3. The ratio between frequencies of vertical and
approximately follow the rule- longitudinal voltage signals should be an
Bandwidth × rise time = 0.35 integer to have a steady Lissajous pattern.
The corresponds to a 1 or 2 pole filter roll off in the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
frequency Domain. Today, most real time oscilloscope (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
follow this rule . Band width ×Rise time = 0.35 (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2017

Ans. (d) : Lissajous pattern is a stationary pattern. Ans. (a) :
Ex. Given, Va = 2000 V,
ld = 2 cm
d = 5mm = 0.5 cm
L = 30 cm
D = 3 cm
Vd = ?
L ld .Vd
D=
2Va .d
All the patterns are independent of time. 2Va .d.D
Vd =
Lissajous pattern can be used for measuring of L.ld
frequency of an unknown signal. 2 × 2000 × 0.5 × 3
Vd = = 100 Volts
If fx = frequency of known signal 30 × 2
fy = frequency of unknown signal Vd 100
Vi (input voltage) = = = 1 Volt
then, gain 100
fy 59. An aquadag is used in a CRO to collect
no.of horizontal tangencies
= ( an integer ) (a) Primary electrons only
fx no.of vertical tangencies (b) Secondary emission electrons only
(c) Both primary electrons and secondary
Ex. emission electrons
(d) Heat emission electrons
ESE 2020
TSTRANSCO AE 2018
Ans. (b) : The bombarding of electrons strike the screen
which releases secondary emission electrons. These
secondary electrons are collected by an aqueous
solution of graphite called 'Aquadag', which is
connected to second anode. The collection of secondary
fy 1 fy 2 electrons is necessary to keep CRT screen in a state of
= , =
fx 2 fx 1 electrical equilibrium.
60. When the deflection plates of a CRO are kept
57. Vertical delay line in CRO at the ground potential and a 30 volt dc is
(a) Gives proper time for thermionic emission of applied to the vertical deflecting plates, the
bright spot moves 1cm away from the centre. If
electrons
with the same setting, a 30 volt ac is applied to
(b) Delays the signal voltage by 200 ns the vertical deflecting plate, then the picture
(c) Allows the horizontal sweep to start prior the observed on the screen would be
(a) Two spots 2 cm vertically above each other
vertical deflection (b) A vertical line approximately 3cm long
(d) Delays the generation of sweep voltage (c) A spot approximately 3cm away from the
ESE 2019 centre
(d) A vertical line 2cm long
Ans. (c) : Vertical delay line in CRO allows the UPPCL AE 2014
horizontal sweep to start prior to vertical deflection. Ans. (b) : When the deflection plates of a CRO are
A delay line placed in vertical signal path after the kept at the ground potential and a 30 volt dc is applied
to the vertical deflecting plates, the bright spot moves
trigger signal will result in the ability to display trigger 1cm away from the centre. If with the same setting, a 30
portion of the signal. volt ac is applied to the vertical deflecting plate, then
the picture observed on the screen would be a vertical
58. A CRT has an anode voltage of 2000 V and line approximately 3cm long.
parallel deflecting plates 2 cm long and 5 mm 61. In a Y-Y source/load configuration, the
apart. The screen is 30 cm from the centre of (a) phase current and the line current are in
phase, and both are 120° out of phase with the
the plates. If the input voltage is applied to the load current
deflecting plates gain of 100, the input voltage (b) phase current, the line current, and the load
required to deflect the beam through 3 cm will current are 120° out of phase
(c) line current and the load current are in phase,
be and both are out of phase with the phase
(a) 1 V (b) 3 V current
(c) 5 V (d) 7 V (d) phase current, the line current, and the load
current are all equal in each phase
ESE 2020 UPPCL AE 2014
Ans. (d) : In a y-y source/load configuration, the phase 2. Consider the following statements regarding
current, the line current, and the load current are all LASER–
equal in phase. (i) The emitted light is due to transition of
62. The time base signal in a CRO is. electron energy level to lower energy level
(a) a sinusoidal signal (ii) The emitted radiation is due to transition of
(b) a sawtooth signal electron from lower energy level to higher
(c) a square wave signal energy level
(d) a triangle wave signal (iii) LASER stands for light amplification by
MPPSC AE 2017 stimulated emission of radiations and is an
Ans. (b) : Time-Base generator is used in CRO to noisy device.
produce the sawtooth waveforms these are also known (iv) Main components of a LASER are pumping
as sweep generator time base signal are used in CROs, source, a resonant cavity and LASER are
television, RADAR displays, precise time measurement three level device
system and time modulation. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv)
63. Power consumed by a simple dc circuit can be (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
measured with the help of a single ammeter if. UPPCL AE 2013
(a) the load resistance is known
(b) the supply voltage is known Ans. (c) : LASER–A laser is a device that emits light
(c) the supply current is known through a process of optical amplification based on the
(d) cannot be measured stimulated emission of electromagnetic radiation.
MPPSC AE 2017 • The terms "laser" originated as an acronym for "light
amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.
Ans. (a) : Power consumed by a simple dc circuit can
be measured with the help of a single ammeter if the • The emitted light is due to transition of electron from
load resistance is known. higher energy level to lower energy level.
3. Rochelle salt is a crystalline material used in
producing.
(vii) Transducer & Sensor (a) Velocity transducer
(b) Photoelectric transducer
1. A resistance strain gauge with a gauge factor 3
(c) Piezoelectric transducer
is fastened to a steel member subjected to a
stress of 100 N/mm2. The modulus of elasticity (d) differential transformer transducer
of steel is approximately 2 × 105 N/mm2. UPRVUNL AE 2014
The percentage change in the resistance is Ans. (c) Rochelle salt is a crystalline material used in
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 producing piezoelectric transducer. Piezoelectric
(c) 0.15 (d) 0.1 materials natural piezoelectric materials such as quartz
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I (SiO2) and Rochelle salt (NaKC4H4O6.4H2O) is
Ans. (c) : Gauge factor = 3 crystalline material used for piezoelectric transducer.
stress = 100 N/mm2 4. A resistance strain gauge is mounted on a steel
modulus of elasticity = 2 × 105 N/mm2 plate which is subjected to a strain of 1×10–6.
∆L What would be the change in resistance if
Stress ∝ strain strain = original resistance was 130 ohm? Given that
L gauge factor of strain gauge is 2.
Stress = Elasticity (E) × Strain
5
100 = 2×10 × Strain (a) 356µΩ (b) 467µΩ
Strain = 0.5×10–3 (c) 260µΩ (d) 120µΩ
∆L UPRVUNL AE 2014
= 0.5 × 10−3 ∆R / R
L Ans. (c) Gauge Factor =
∆R ∆ℓ / ℓ
R = 130ohm
Gauge factor = R
∆L Gf = 2
L ∆ℓ
∆R = 1× 10−6
ℓ
3= R ∆ℓ
0.5 ×10−3 ∆R = G f × R × = 1× 10−6 × 2 × 130
ℓ
∆R = 260 × 10 −6 = 260µΩ
= 1.5 × 10−3
R
∆R 5. Thermocouple instruments can be used for a
% = 1.5 × 10−3 ×100 frequency range upto
R (a) 100 Hz (b) 5000 Hz
= 1.5×10–1
(c) 1 MHz (d) 50 MHz and above
∆R
% = 0.15 TSPSC AEE 2017
R
Ans. (d) : Thermocouple is an electric device which 11. Match the following:
uses two wires of the different metal. It's work on the List I List II
principle that the heat energy is converted into an (Transducers) (Characteristics)
electric energy at the junction which is made of A. Thermocouple 1. Modulated output
different metals. B. Thermistor 2. Resistance change
The most significant advantage of the thermocouple with pressure
instrument is that it is used for high-frequency C. Strain gauge 3. Negative
measurement of current and voltage. The instrument is temperature
more accurate for the frequency above 50 MHz. coefficient
D. LVDT 4. Constant
6. Loading effect is principally caused by temperature at one
instruments end
(a) High resistance (b) Low sensitivity A B C D
(c) High sensitivity (d) High range (a) 3 2 4 1
TSPSC AEE 2017 (b) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b) : When an instrument of lower sensitivity is (c) 2 1 4 3
used with a heavier load the measurement it makes is (d) 1 2 3 4
erroneous, this effect is known as loading effect. TNPSC AE 2018
Example-Consider a lower sensitivity (ohm per volt) Ans. (b) :
voltmeter being used with a high resistance load. Now Thermocouple - Constant temperature at one
as a voltmeter is connected across a high resistance end
load, it forms a low resistance parallel path for current Thermistor - Negative temperature coefficient
to pass through. Thus lowering the voltage drop across Strain gauge - Resistance change with pressure.
the load, this causes error reading by voltmeter. This LVDT - Modulate output
effect is known as loading effect. 12. Solar cells are connected in series in order to-
7. The conversion efficiency of a solar cell unit fill (a) Increase the voltage rating
factor FF can be calculated as (b) Increase the current rating
(a) Pmax FF /VOCISC (b) ISCVOC FF/Pmin (c) Increase the thermal rating
(c) Pmin / ISCVOC FF (d) VSCIOC / Pmax FF (d) Increase the life of the cell
TNPSC AE 2018 TNPSC AE 2019
Ans. (b) : Solar cell unit fill factor of a solar cell Ans. (a) : Just like any voltage source series connection
I V FF increases the voltage rating solar cell being a DC power
= SC OC sources follows the same principle.
Pmin 13. The typical life time of a PV system is
8. Solar beam radiation is measured using (a) 20 years (b) 25 years
(a) Anemometer (b) Thermometer (c) 25 decades (d) 30 years
(c) Sunshine recorder (d) Pyrheliometer TNPSC AE 2019
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (b) : Research have shown that average life of a
PV system can be of 25 years.
Ans. (d) : Solar beam radiation is measured using
Pyrheliometer. 14. The specific gravity of electrolyte in a battery is
measured by
9. A photo-diode is exposed to light with an (a) Manometer (b) Anemometer
illumination of 2.5 mW/cm2. calculate the (c) Hydrometer (d) PH meter
reverse current through the device TNPSC AE 2019
(a) 14.96 µA (b) 93.5 µA Ans. (c) : Hydrometer is used to measure specific
(c) 66.84 mA (d) 68.84 µA gravity.
TNPSC AE 2018 15. In a lead acid battery dilute sulphuric acid
(electrolyte) approximately comprises the
Ans. (b) : Reverse current through device following
= sensitivity × illumination (a) One part of H2O, three parts of H2SO4
= 37.4 × 2.5 (b) Two parts of H2O, two parts of H2SO4
= 93.5 µA (c) Three parts of H2O and one part of H2SO4
(d) All H2SO4
10. In an LVDT, the core is made up of a TNPSC AE 2019
(a) Magnetic material Ans. (c) : Electrolyte ratio in lead acid battery is
(b) Non-magnetic material composed of 36-38% acid and 64 to 62% water. i.e.
(c) High permeability nickel - iron hydrogen three parts of H2O and one part of H2SO4.
annealed material 16. The storage battery generally used in electric
(d) Low permeability nickel iron hydrogen power station is-
annealed (a) Nickel-Cadmium battery
TNPSC AE 2018 (b) Zinc-Carbon battery
Ans. (c) : High permeability nickel. Iron hydrogen (c) Lead-Acid battery
annealed material used to made up core in LVDT. (d) Lithium-iron battery
TNPSC AE 2019
Ans. (c) : Lead -Acid battery are preferred due to low (a) Zero error
cost, high storage capacity. Lead acid battery generally (b) Sensitivity error
used in electric power substation. (c) Non-conformity error
17. __________directly converts temperature into (d) Hysteresis error
voltage UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
(a) Thermocouple (b) Potentiometer Ans. (b) :
(c) Gear train (d) LVDT 24. The output of transducer depending not only
TNPSC AE 2019 on present input quantity but also depends on
Ans. (a) : input quantities previously applied to it. This
Thermocouple Temperature to voltage property of transducer is called:
Potentiometer Resistance to voltage (a) Causality (b) Hysteresis
Gear train used in power transmission (c) Stress (d) Non-elasticity
LVDT Displacement to voltage UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
18. The LVDT usually has two secondaries Ans. (b) :
connected in 25. Consider the following statements.
(a) series addition 1. A variable capacitance type transducer gives an
(b) series opposition output proportional to acceleration.
(c) parallel addition 2. LVDT is a self-generating type of transducer.
(d) parallel opposition 3. Eddy current type of transducer gives an output
Vizag Steel MT 2012 proportional to velocity.
Ans. (b) : The secondary of LVDT are connected in 4. A piezoelectric transducer cannot be used to
series opposition. measure static variable.
19. Which of the following theories cannot be Which of these statements is/are correct?
explained by classical theory? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(a) Electron theory (c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 4
(b) Lorentz theory UPRVUNL AE 2016
(c) Photo electric effect Ans : (d) Piezoelectric transducer cannot be used to
(d) Classical free electron theory measure static variable because there are some material
WBPSC AE 2017 whose dimension changes when mechanical force is
Ans. (c) : applied and induce an e.m.f. on their opposite faces.
20. ''The illumination is directly proportional to These material are called Piezoelectric material e.m.f. is
the cosine of the angle made by the normal to produced only when there is deformation due to
the illuminated surface with the direction of the mechanical force. This phenomena is reversible.
incident flux.'' above statement is associated 26. Which of the following is a principle
with disadvantage of a piezoelectric transducer?
(a) Planck's law (a) It can measure only force.
(b) Macbeth's law of illumination (b) It cannot measure static condition.
(c) Bunsen's law of illumination (c) It is too small to handle.
(d) It produces only DC voltage.
(d) Lambert's cosine law UPRVUNL AE 2016
WBPSC AE 2017 Ans : (b) Disadvantage of Piezoelectric transducer is
Ans. (d) : that it cannot measures static condition because
21. When the spring of a watch is wound, it will mechanical force is applied on piezoelectric crystals
possess which causes deformation.
(a) Kinetic energy 27. Dummy strain gauge is used in conjunction
(b) Heat energy with the main strain gauge to:
(c) Strain energy (a) calibrate the system
(d) Electrical energy (b) compensate temperature effects
WBPSC AE 2017 (c) improve sensitivity
Ans. (c) : (d) reduce strain on the gauge
22. How a differential instrumentation amplifier UPRVUNL AE 2016
using transducer bridge can be used as a ESE 1998
temperature controller? Ans : (b) The strain gauge load cell is setup based on a
(a) increase room temperature wheatstone bridge as a network of four strain gauges.
(b) replaces calibrate meter with The dummy strain gauge resistor then comes in to play
(c) change the bridge resistance when considering the variations in the temperature of
(d) replace thermistor by light intensity meter the active strain gauges.
WBPSC AE 2017 28. In a transducer, the observed output deviates
Ans. (b) : from the correct value by a constant factor.
23. In a transducer, the observed output deviates The resulting value error is called–
from the correct value by a constant value the (a) zero error (b) sensitivity error
resulting error is called: (c) non-conformity error (d) hysteresis error
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans : (b) In a transducer, the observed output deviates Ans : (c) Piezoelectric type of load cells can be used for
from the correct value by a constant factor. The the measurement of dynamic forces and static forces
resulting value error is called sensitivity error. provided the load all have a large time constant because
29. While selecting a transducer for a particular induced emf. and its polarity is proportional to the
application, which characteristics should be magnitude and direction of force applied.
considered? Q=d×f
(a) Only input characteristics A
(b) Only output characteristics Ce = Σ r Σ 0
t
(c) Only transfer characteristics
34. A variable reluctance type tachometer has
(d) Input, output and transfer characteristics
number of teeth on rotor as 60. The counter
UPRVUNL AE 2016
records 3600 counts per seconds. Determine
Ans : (d) While selecting a transducer for a particular the speed in rpm.
application, input, output and transfer characteristics (a) 3500 rpm (b) 600 rpm
should be considered (c) 800 rpm (d) 3600 rpm
30. Poisson's ratio for a metal is 0.35. Neglecting UPRVUNL AE 2016
piezo-resistance effect, the gauge factor of a Pulses per second
strain gauge made of this metal is– Ans : (d) Speed in RPM = × 60
(a) 0.65 (b) 1 Number of teeth
(c) 1.35 (d) 1.7 3600
UPRVUNL AE 2016 = × 60
60
Ans : (d) Gauge factor = 1+2 ν = 3600 RPM
where ν= poisson's ratio
35. Manometers measure unknown pressure by–
= 1+2×0.35 ν =0.35 (a) measuring liquid levels
= 1.7 (b) measuring height of liquid columns
31. For signal conditioning of the piezoelectric type (c) balancing the unknown force produced by
transducer, we require– pressure against a known force
(a) a charged amplifier (d) notifying the deflection of a pointer
(b) a differential amplifier UPRVUNL AE 2016
(c) an instrumentation amplifier Ans : (c) Manometer measures unknown pressure by
(d) a transconductance amplifier balancing the unknown force produced by pressure
UPRVUNL AE 2016 against a know force in all pressure measuring
Ans : (a) This type of transducers work on Piezo- instruments, elastic material are used as detector. Many
electric effect according to which when. There is any elastic material convert pressure in displacement.
deformation in crystal in form of expansion in 36. Least suitable transducer for static pressure
thickness, expansion in cross section, twist etc. then emf measurement is–
is induced on opposite faces of crystal (a) Semi-conductor strain gauge
32. A cantilever is used as primary sensing element (b) Variable capacitor for transducer
for the measurement of force. The measured (c) Metal wire strain gauge
deflection is 1 mm. Suppose, each of the (d) Piezoelectric transducer
dimension length, width and thickness of the UPRVUNL AE 2016
cantilever are doubled for the same material Ans : (d) Piezoelectric transducers are used for dynamic
and force, the deflection will be– pressure as their output depends on instant deformation.
The Piezoelectric transducer is an electroacoustic
(a) 0.125 mm (b) 0.25 mm
transducer use for conversion of pressure or mechanical
(c) 0.5 mm (d) 2 mm stress into an alternating electrical force. It is use for
UPRVUNL AE 2016 measuring the physical quantity like force, pressure,
Ans : (c) Measured deflection = 1 mm stress etc.
d = 2l 37. Match List–I with List–II and choose the
d = 1 mm correct option below
d 1 List-I List-II
l = = = 0.5mm P. Pirani gauge 1. Temperature
2 2 measurement
33. Piezoelectric type of load cells can be used for Q. Venturimeter 2. Vacuum pressure
the measurement of– measurement
(a) dynamic forces only R. Radiation pyrometer 3. Force
(b) dynamic forces and static forces provided the measurement
load cells have a small time constant S. Load cells 4. Flow measurement
(c) dynamic forces and static forces provided the (a) P–2, Q–1, R–4, S–3
load cells have a large time constant (b) P–4, Q–3, R–2, S–1
(d) compression forces (c) P–2, Q–4, R–1, S–3
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (d) P–4, Q–3, R–1, S–2
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans : (c) Ans : (b) Dunmore hydrometer has non-linear
List- I List- II resistance versus relative humidity characteristics. Due
P. Pirani gauge 1. Vacuum Pressure to pressure in liquid column, Dunmore meter's mercury
measurement rises causing resistances to connect in parallel and
Q. Venturimeter 2. Flow measurement effective resistance of the circuit reduces and current
R. Radiation pyrometer 3. Temperature increases.
Measurement 43. For pressure measurement absolute pressure is
S. Load cells 4. Force Measurement defined as:
38. A pirani gauge measures vacuum pressure and (a) Atmospheric pressure
works on the principle of– (b) Gauge pressure
(a) change in ionizing potential (c) Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
(b) change in thermal conductivity (d) Gauge pressure-Atmospheric pressure
(c) deformation of elastic body UPRVUNL AE 2016
(d) change of self-inductance Ans : (c) For pressure measurement-
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Absolute pressure
Ans : (b) A pirani gauge measures vacuum pressure and = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
works on the principle of change in thermal Pressure measurement is the analysis of an applied
conductivity. force by a fluid (liquid or gas) on a surface.
39. The thermocouples are: Pressure is typically measured in units of force per
(a) Passive transducers (b) Active transducers unit of surface area.
(c) Input transducers (d) Output transducers e.g. Manometer.
UPRVUNL AE 2016 44. Psychrometer is used for the measurement of:
Ans : (b) Thermocouple is an active transducer because (a) pH (b) viscosity
it induce electrical energy by itself, it does not require (c) conductivity (d) humidity
any external energy source for operation. E.g. Electro UPRVUNL AE 2016
dynamic, thermocouple, photovoltaic, piezoelectric etc. Ans : (d) A psychrometer measures the relative
40. Which of the following devices is used for the humidity in the atmosphere through the use of two
measurement of liquid flow through a channel? thermometer's.
(a) Venturimeter (b) Rotameter 45. The material used for photo-conductivity cell is
(c) Weirs and flumes (d) Pitot tube (a) ZnS
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (b) PbS
Ans : (c) For measurement of liquid flow through a (c) CdS
channel, weirs and flumes are used. These indicates the (d) none of the above
rate of flow of liquid in channel. WBPSC AE 2008
Venturimeter- measure the fluid flow through pipes. Ans. (c) :
Rotameter- measure the volumetric flow rate of fluid
46. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
in a closed tube.
matched?
41. Which of the following meters has the lowest (a) Polarization-Charge Storage
pressure drop for a given range of flow? (b) Magnetostriction-Mechanical Vibrations
(a) Orificemeter (b) Venturimeter (c) Hall effect-Sound generation
(c) Flow nozzle (d) Rotameter (d) Grain orientation-Magnetic field
UPRVUNL AE 2016 improvement
Ans : (d) Rotameter has the lowest pressure drop for a UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
given range of flow. Ans. (c) : Hall effect : production of potential
It work as a constant pressure drop variable area meter. difference across an electrical conductance when
It can be used in a vertical pipe line. magnetic field applied in direction perpendicular to that
Its accuracy is also less (2%) compared to other flow of current is known as Hall effect. Hall effect is
types flow meter. not used in sound generation.
The major advantages of rotameter are, it is simple
47. Which of the following devices has the highest
construction ready to install and the flow rate can be
photo sensitivity?
directly seen on calibrated scale without the help of
(RRB SSE (Shift-II), 03.09.2015), SAIL 29.3.14
any other devices eg. differential pressure sensor. (a) Photoconductive cell
42. Dunmore hydrometer has: (b) Photovoltaic cell
(a) linear resistance versus relative humidity (c) Photodiode
characteristics (d) Phototransistor
(b) non-linear resistance versus relative humidity Ans (a) : The sensitivity of a photoconductive cell is
characteristics very high when a ray of light falls on the cell, it's
(c) linear inductance versus relative humidity conductivity increases and the resistivety decreases,
characteristics which leads to greater current flow.
(d) non-linear inductance versus relative 48. Which of the following is piezo – electric
humidity characteristics material?
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (RRB SSE Bilaspur Yellow paper, 21.12.2014)

(a) Quartz (b) Silica Sand 53. A strain gauge with a resistance of 250Ω
(c) Corundum (d) Polystyrene undergoes a change of 0.15 Ω during a test. The
Ans : (a) Quartz is an piezo electric substance and silica strain is 1.5 × 10-4. The gauge factor is
sand, corundum, poly styrene are not piezo electric (a) 4 (b) 6
materials. (c) 3 (d) 1
49. Pirani gauge can be used to measure Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
(a) Very high temperature ESE 2009
(b) Very low pressure Ans. (a) : Given, R = 250 Ω, ∆R = 0.15Ω
(c) Low fluid flow Strain = 1.5×10– 4
(d) High fluid flow ∆R  1 
MPPSC AE 2016 Gauge factor =  
Ans. (b) : The Pirani gauge is robust thermal R  strain 
conductivity gauge used for the measurement of the 0.15 1
= ×
pressures in vacuum systems or in very low pressure 250 1.5 × 10−4
region.
0.15 10000
50. The gauge factor of a strain gauge is 1, stress is = × =4
1050 kg/cm2, Young's modulus of elasticity is 250 1.50
2.1 × 106 kg/cm2 and resistance is 1000 Ω. The 54. For a master leaf of a laminated spring hinged
change in resistance of the strain gauge is to supports, the
(a) 1.5 Ω (b) 2.0 Ω (a) master leaf is more stressed compared to
(c) 0.5 Ω (d) 1.0 Ω other graduated leaves
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II (b) radius of curvature of master leaf is less than
the next leaf
Stress (c) master leaf is made thicker than the other
Ans. (c) : Strain =
Young's modulus leaves
1050 (d) master leaf is weaker than the other leaves
= JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
2.1× 106 Ans. (c) : For a master leaf of a laminated spring hinged
∆R / R to supports, the master leaf is made thicker than the
Gf = Gauge factor =
strain other leaves.
∆R 55. What is the principle of operation of a Pirani
= G f × strain gauge?
R
∆R = G f × strain × R (a) Variation of viscosity with pressure
(b) Variation of volume with pressure
1050 (c) Variation of thermal conductivity of gas with
= 1× × 1000 pressure
2.1×106
∆R = 0.5 Ω (d) Ionization of gas at low pressures
51. Which of the following is not a transducer?
(a) LVDT Ans. (c) : The Pirani gauge is a robust thermal
(b) Tacho-generator conductivity gauge used for the measurement of the
(c) Transformer pressures in vacuum systems.
(d) Photo-voltaic cell The working principle of Pirani gauge is based on a hot
RPSC VPITI 2018 metal wire suspended in a tube that is exposed to gas
pressure media. The Pirani gauge measures the vacuum
Ans. (c) : Transformer is not a transducer because pressure dependent thermal conductivity from the
transducer convert one form of energy into other but in heated wire to the surrounding gas.
transformer it convert Electrical Energy into electrical
so it is not a transducer. 56. Following transducers are available at the
store. Select a digital transducer.
52. A thermocouple has a sensitivity of 500 µV/ºC. (a) Strain-gauge (b) Shaft Encoder
It is employed to measure a temperature of a (c) LVDT (d) Thermistor
furnace at 700ºC with reference junction at Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
50ºC. The voltage output of the thermocouple is
(a) 750 mV (b) 650 mV Ans. (b) : Out of given options shaft-encoder is a digital
(c) 375 mV (d) 325 mV transducer.
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I A rotary encoder, also called a shaft encoder, is an
Ans. (d) : Sensitivity(∈AB ) = 500µV / 0 C electro-mechanical device that converts the angular
Temperature of furnace = 700ºC position or motion of a shaft or digital output pulses.
Reference temperature = 50ºC 57. Three types of temperature transducers are
E = ∈AB (Ty − Tr ) compared with regards to their sensitivity. The
order in which they exhibit (least sensitive to
E = 500 ×10 −6 (700 − 50) most sensitive) their sensitivities is
E = (500 × 650) µV (a) Thermocouples, Thermistors, RTD's
E = 325 mV (b) Thermocouples, RTD's, Thermistors

(c) Thermistors, RTD's, Thermocouples 61. Laser Light is:
(d) RTD's, Thermistors, Thermocouples (a) Coherent emission
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II (b) Stimulated emission
Ans. (b) : Thermistor - It is type of resistor which (c) Spontaneous emission
resistance is dependent on temperature. It is a type of (d) Coherent and stimulated emissions
temperature transducers. MPPSC AE 2014
Thermocouples - A thermoelectric device for Ans. (d) : LASER (Light Amplification by Stimulated
measuring temperature, consisting of two wires of Emission of Radiation) is coherent and stimulated
different metals connected at two points, a voltage emission. LASER is the source of
being developed between the two junctions in coherent/electromagnetic wave at infrared and visible
proportional to the temperature difference. range. LASER is a produce monochromatic light.
RTDs - Resistance Temperature Detectors are sensors 62. The disadvantage of digital relaying system–
used to measure temperature. (a) Requires signal processing component
Among Thermistors, Thermocouple and RTDs, the (b) High burden
sensitivity order from least sensitive to most sensitive is (c) Flexible
Thermocouples < RTD's < Thermistors (d) All of above
58. Which of the following converts linear GMB AE 2017
displacement from a mechanical reference into Ans. (a) : The disadvantage of digital relaying system
a proportional electrical signal containing requires signal processing component digital relay is a
phase and amplitude information? protective relay that uses a microprocessor to analyze
(a) CRO (b) LVDT power system voltage and current.
(c) RVDT (d) None of these 63. LVDT has following advantages –
KPTCL AE 2015 (a) Infinite resolution, high sensitivity
Ans. (b) : The LVDT convert's a positions or linear (b) Low hysteresis, high repeatability
displacement from a mechanical reference (zero or null (c) Passive transducer
position) into a proportional electrical signal containing (d) Both (a) and (b)
phase for direction and amplitude or distance GMB AE 2017
information. Ans. (d) : LVDT– Linear variable differential
59. Which of the instruments is independent of transformer has the following advantages –
waveform & frequency of AC supply? It has infinite resolution, high sensitivity and there are
(a) Hot wire instrument also low hysteresis and high repeatability.
(b) Thermocouple instrument 64. Pair of active transducers is:
(c) Moving Iron instrument (a) Thermistor- Solar cell
(d) Induction type instrument
Vizag Steel MT 2011 (b) Solar cell- LVDT
Ans. (a) : Hot wire instruments are independent of (c) Thermocouple- Thermistor
waveform and frequency of AC supply. (d) Thermocouple- Solar cell
Advantages of the Hot wire instrument– DSSSB AE 2019
• The instrument is used for the both AC and DC ESE 2003
measurement. Ans. (d) : Pair of active transducer is thermocouple and
• The hot wire instrument is free from the stray solar cell, Pizo-electric
magnetic field. Passive transducer – Strain gauge LVDT, Thermistor
• Their construction is very simple and cheap. etc.
60. Which diode works under forward-biased 65. The device which cannot be used to measure
condition :
(a) Photo diode pressure is
(b) Zener diode (a) LVDT (b) Strain gauge
(c) Light emitting diode (c) Pyrometer (d) Pirani meter
(d) Varactor diode UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
MPPSC AE 2014 Ans. (c) : Pyrometer the device which cannot be
Ans. (c) : An LED is a light emitting diode. The LED used to measure pressure.
emits light when it is forward biased and it emits no Device measures
light when it is reversed biased. LVDT Displacement
LED: Strain Gauge Strain on an object
It work on the principle of electro-luminescence. Pyrometer Temperature
It emits light due to large number of recombination Piranimeter Pressure
at junction. 66. Piezo-electric crystal can be used to measure
With a forward current 20 mA, LED gives out the (a) acceleration (b) flow
maximum intensity. (c) humidity (d) temperature
Cut in voltage is 1.3 V. UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
Power dissipation in order to mW and response time Ans. (a) : Piezo-electric crystal can be used to measure
is in µ sec. acceleration.

67. Deflection of hot-wire instruments depends Ans. (b) : Into the null position of LVDT, the difference
upon between two secondary voltage is zero. In reality, there
(a) rms value of AC current is a small residual voltage left due to the unequal
(b) rms value of AC voltage magnetic flux linking in the two secondary of the
(c) average value of AC current LVDT.
(d) average value of AC voltage • The Linear variable differential Transformer (LVDT)
RPSC VPITI 2016 is a type of sensor which converts linear displacement
Ans. (a) : Deflection of hot-wire instruments depend in to an variable electrical signal.
upon rms value of current. • An LVDT consists of a sliding ferromagnetic core.
2 dm 72. The speed transducer using a drag cup rotor
Td = I rms has the main advantage of–
dθ (a) Very high accuracy
68. For wire wound strain gauges, the gauge factor (b) Low energy requirement
is defined as :- (c) Cheaper construction
2 ∆R (d) Easy installation
(a) 1+ ∆R (b) 1 + PTCUL AE 2012
R
2∆R Ans. (b) : A drag cup rotor has low inertia. Therefore it
(c) 1+2 ν (d) requires little amount of energy.
R
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I 73. Piezometric head is the sum of :
(a) Pressure head, datum head and velocity head
Ans. (c) : Gauge factor (GF) or strain factor of a strain
(b) Datum head and velocity head
gauge is the ratio of relative change in electrical
(c) Pressure head and velocity head
resistance R to the mechanical strains ( ε ).
(d) Pressure head and datum head
∆R / R ∆R / R PTCUL AE 2016
GF = =
∆L / L ε Ans. (d) : The sum of pressure head P/Y and elevation
= 1 + 2ν Where, ( ν = poisson's ratio) head h is called piezometric head.
69. Capacitive transducers are normally used for :- The piezometric head = Pressure head + datum head
(a) Static measurements 74. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) Dynamic measurements answer from the codes given below :
(c) Both static and dynamic measurements List-I List-II
(d) Transient measurements (a) ...... in a device which (1) Transducer
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I measures to intensity of
Ans. (b) : Capacitive transducers are normally used for radiation emitted from a
dynamic measurements. body
70. A capacitance transducer has two plates of (b) ...... is an instrument (2) Reluctance
area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2 which measure humidity
mm. Displacement sensitivity (in pF/cm) due to directly
the gap would be: (c) A ....... is device which (3) Hygrometer
(a) 2.21 (b) 4.42 convertes the energy
(c) 5.23 (d) 6.63 from one form to
PTCUL AE 2012 another
∂C (d) Transducer which make (4) Radiation
Ans. (a) : Displacement sensitivity = use of air gap change pyrometer
∂x are refered as .... type
ε A 
 8.854 × 10−12  Code :
Capacitance C = 0 ε0 = 2
F / cm  (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
d  10  (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
8.854 ×10−12 × 5 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 4 1 2
= PTCUL AE 2016
0.2 × 102 Ans. (a) : (1) Radiation Pyrometer– It is a non contact
= 2.21 pF
temperature sensor that infers the temperature of an
∂C
∴ Displacement sensitivity = = 2.21 pF/cm object by detecting its thermal radiation emitted
∂x naturally.
Where ∂x in cm. (2) Hygrometer– It is an instrument used to measure
71. The residual voltage at the output of a the amount of water vapor in air, in soil.
commercial LVDT is due to (3) Transducer– Converts one form of energy into
(a) improper construction of the core another.
(b) unequal secondaries 75. A temperature control system is known as :
(c) inter-winding capacitance and harmonic (a) Process control system
generated by core (b) Servomechanism
(d) primary and secondary winding resistances (c) Cascade control system
(d) None of these
PTCUL AE 2012
PTCUL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : Temperature control system is known as 81. The e.m.f. developed by a thermocouple
process control system. depends upon
76. Which of the following device can not be used (a) Materials used, diameter of wires and
to measure pressure : temperature gradient
(a) Strain gauge (b) LVDT (b) Length of wires and temperature difference at
(c) Pirani gauge (d) Pyrometer two ends
PTCUL AE 2016 (c) Materials used, shape and size of materials
Ans. (d) : Pyrometer is a device for measuring high and temperature difference
temperature such as in furnaces. (d) Materials used and temperatures of hot and
cold junctions.
77. In strain gauge bridge configuration for UPPCL AE 2015
measurement of torque, the strain gauge must
be precisely mounted at : Ans. (d) Electro motive force develop by a
(a) 0o with the shaft axis thermocouple depends upon material used and
(b) 45o with the shaft axis temperature of hot and cold junctions.
(c) 90o with the shaft axis 82. In semi-conductor strain gauges, on application
(d) 60o with the shaft axis of tensile strain the resistance will:
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I (a) Increase in both p–and n–type materials
Ans. (b) : The sensor is bonded to a rotating shaft that (b) Increase in p-type materials
deforms when a torque is applied. Generally, four strain (c) Decrease in both p-and n-type material
gauges are attached to the rotating shaft in the form of a (d) Increase in n-type materials
wheat stone bridge circuit. They are placed precisely at UPPCL AE 2015
45o with the shaft axis with gauge 1 and 3 being Ans. (b) Semi conductor strain gauges, on application
diametrically opposite as must gauge 2 and 4. of tensile strain, the resistance will increase in p-type
78. A thermocouple has low response time when : materials.
(a) Bare used (b) Thin sheathed used
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above 83. To measure 'Displacement', a capacitive
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-I transducer is superior to inductive type
because of:
Ans. (c) : Responsiveness depends on the ability to (a) Absence of nonlinearity
conduct heat from its outer sheath to the elements wires. (b) High accuracy
Thus a thermocouple has low response time when thin (c) High frequency response
sheathed and bare are used. (d) Small size
79. For light emitted by LASER, which of UPPCL AE 2015
following is TRUE? Ans. (c) To measure displacement a capacitive
(a) Light is monochromatic, unidirectional, non- transducer is superior to inductive type because of high
coherent and intense frequency response.
(b) Light is not monochromatic, converging, non-
coherent, intense. 84. The resistance of a 125 ohm strain gauge
(c) Light is monochromatic, diverging, coherent, change by one ohm for 4000 micron strain. The
intense. gauge factor of the strain gauge is.
(d) Light is monochromatic, unidirectional, (a) 2 (b) 4
coherent, intense. (c) 1 (d) 3
AAI Junior Executive 2016 UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (d) : Light is monochromatic, unidirectional, ∆R / R ∆R / R
coherent, intense. Ans. (a) Gauge factor K = =
∆L / L strain
80. LASER produces radiation of 6000 Angstroms.
1/125 0.008
The frequency of light produced is...............Hz. = =
(a) 6 × 1014 (b) 6000 × 108 4000 × 10−6 4000 × 10−6
(c) 5 × 1014 (d) 3 × 108 8 × 10−3
= =2
AAI Junior Executive 2016 4 × 10−3
Ans. (c) : 85. When photodiode is operating in forward
biased condition, what happens to the diode
λ = 6000 × 10−10 m current with increase in incident light?
c = 3 ×108 (a) It remains a constant, but the voltage drop
c = λf across diode increases.
c (b) It remains a constant.
f=
λ (c) It decreases.
3 ×108 1 (d) It increases.
= −10
= ×1018−3 UPPCL AE 2015
6000 × 10 2
Ans. (d) Photodiode is operating in forward biased
= 0.5 × 1015 condition, when diode current with increase in incident
f = 5 × 1014 Hz light, it increase.

86. The advantage of LVDT over the inductive Ans. (b) : Pressure on a crystal causes the piezoelectric
bridge-type transducer is that: effect.
(a) It can measure displacement of a moving The piezoelectric transducer is an electroacaustic
object. transducer used for conversion of pressure or
(b) It produces high output voltage for small mechanical stress into an alternating electrical force
changes in core position. and vice versa. It is used for measuring the physical
(c) It can be used in extremely low and extremely quantity like force, pressure, stress etc. which are
high temperature directly not possible to measure.
(d) Stray magnetic field has no effect. 92. What is the moving part of a linear variable
UPPCL AE 2015 differential transformer.
Ans. (a) Advantage of LVDT over the inductive bridge (a) Primary (b) Diaphragm
type transducer is that it can measure displacement of a (c) Secondary (d) Core
moving object. PS PCL AE 2012
87. While measuring liquid level with fibre optic Ans. (d) :
transducers, the fibre rod or cable is cut in the The moving element of an LVDT is a separate
form of a: tubular armature of magnetically permeable material.
(a) Rectangle (b) Prism This is called the core.
(c) Sphere (d) Triangle A linear variable differential transformer (LVDT) is
an absolute measuring device that converts linear
UPPCL AE 2015
displacement into an electrical signal through the
Ans. (b) While measuring liquid level with fibre optic mutual induction.
transducers, the fibre rods or cable is cut in the form of 93. A solar cell has a current density 35 mA/cm2
a prism. and a voltage of 0.5 V. What is the efficiency of
88. Which of the following is an inverse the cell when exposed to a sun light intensity
transducer? 100 mW/cm2?
(a) Piezo electric crystals (a) 16.5% (b) 17.5%
(b) Resistance potentiometer (c) 18.5% (d) 6.5 %
Punjab PSC SDE 2017
(c) Capacitive transducer
Ans. (b) : Given-
(d) L.V.D.T
UPPCL AE 2015 Current density (J) = 35 mA / cm 2
Ans. (a) Piezo electric crystals is an inverse transducer Voltage (V) = 0.5 V
Sun light intensity = 100 mW/cm2
89. Which of the following transducers works on JV
the constant pressure drop principle? η=
(a) Venturi meter (b) Pitot tube sunlight intensity
(c) Rota meter (d) Orifice plate 35 × 10−3 × 0.5 35 × 5
= =
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III 100 × 10−3 1000
Ans. (c) : A rotameter is a device that measures the 175
volumetric flow rate of fluid in a closed tube. = = 0.175
1000
Rota meter transducers works on the principle of η = 17.5%
constant pressure drop. 94. The principle of operation of LVDT is based on
90. Which of the following is not an variation of:
electromagnetic device? (a) self inductance (b) mutual inductance
(a) Hall transducer (c) reluctance (d) permeance
(b) Transformer Punjab PSC SDE 2017
(c) Speedometer Ans. (b) : The principle of operation of LVDT is based
(d) Eddy current damping device on variation of mutual inductance.
PS PCL AE 2012 The linear variable differential transformer. It is the
most widely used inductive transducer that converts the
Ans. (a) : The principle of hall effect transducer is that linear motion into the electrical signal.
if the current carrying strip of the conductor is placed in 95. To measure low resistances, four terminals
a transverse magnetic field then EMF developed on approach is preferred because it:
edge of conductor. The magnitude of developed voltage (a) eliminates the effect of thermoelectric emf
depends on density of flux and this property of (b) minimises the effects of parasitic capacitances
conductor is called Hall effect. (c) reduces the effects of parasitic inductances
91. What causes the piezoelectric effect? (d) eliminates the effects of lead and contact
(a) heat or dissimilar metals resistances
(b) pressure on a crystal Punjab PSC SDE 2017
(c) water running on iron Ans. (d) : To measure low resistance, four terminals
(d) a magnetic field. approach is preferred because it eliminates the effects of
lead and contact resistances.
PS PCL AE 2012
96. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly 99. The gauge factor is defined as :
matched? ∆L / L ∆R / R
Material Application (a) (b)
1. Rochelle salt Phonograph ∆R / R ∆L / L
2. Barium titanate Amplifier ∆R / R ∆R / R
(c) (d)
3. Quartz Oscillator ∆D / D ∆P / P
Select the correct answer using the codes given UJVNL AE 2016
below:
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2 Frictionalchangein R
Ans. (b) Gauge factor =
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 Frictionalchangein L
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V
∆R / R
Ans. (c) : The correct matching is G.F =
Rochelle salt – Phonograph ∆L / L
Quartz – Oscillator 100. An LVDT is used to measure displacement.
Silicon – Amplifier
The output of the LVDT is connected to a
97. A Linear Variable Differential Transformer voltmeter of range 0 to 5 V through an
(LVDT) is–
(a) a displacement transducer amplifier having a gain of 250. For a
(b) an impedance matching transformer displacement of 0.5 mm, the output of the
(c) an auto transformer LVDT is 0.5 mV. The sensitivity of the
(d) a differential temperature sensor instrument would be :
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (a) 0.1V/mm (b) 0.5 V/mm
BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V (c) 1 V/mm (d) 5V/mm
Ans : (a) A linear variable differential transformer OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
(LVDT) is an absolute measuring device that converts Ans. (c) : Sensitivity of the LVDT
linear displacement into an electrical signal through the
output voltage  mV 
principle of mutual induction. = = 
displacement  mm 
0.5
= = 1 V / mm
0.5
101. Which of the following is used for energy
conversion?
(a) Cell (b) Circuit breaker
(c) Lightning arrester (d) Transistor
JUVNL AE 2017
Ans. (a) : A electrical cell is an electrical power supply.
It converts stored chemical energy into electrical
potential energy, allowing a current to flow from the
positive terminal to the negative one via an external
circuit.
102. Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple may be
classified as ................ transducers.
(a) active (b) analog
(c) primary (d) None of these
Ans. (b) : Strain guage, LVDT and thermocouple may
be used as analog transducers. Strain gauges work on
the principle of peizoresistive effect and it is a
Linear variable Differential transformer measures
secondary transducer.
Linear displacement.
Analog transducers:– These transducers convert the
98. The following material used for making a input physical phenomenon in to an analogous output
piezoelectric transducer is : which is a continuous function of time.
(a) Quartz (b) Rochelle salt
103. Direct conversion of temperature differences to
(c) Barium titanate (d) All of the above
electric voltage and vice versa is known as ____
UJVNL AE 2016
(a) Seebeck effect
Ans. (d) Quartz, Rochelle salt & Barium titanate is used (b) Thermoelectric effect
in piezo-electric transducer. Piezo electric transducer (c) Both a and b
convert mechanical to electrical and electrical to (d) None of these
mechanical. GESCOM AE 2011

Ans. (c) : Direct conversion of temperature differences
to electric voltage and vice versa is known as-
Seebeck effect
Thermoelectric effect
Seebeck effect production of an electromotive force
(emf) and consequently and electric current in a loop of
material consisting of at least two dissimilar conductors
when two junctions are maintained at different
temperatures.
104. Which of the following is used in Type T dx
(a) x (b)
thermocouples? dt
(a) Platinum-Rhodium (b) Platinum-Copper d2 x d (x − y)
(c) Copper-Constantan (d) Rhodium-Iron (c) (d)
dt 2 dt
GESCOM AE 2011 APPSC AEE 2019
Ans. (c) : Thermocouples- A thermocouple is a sensor Ans. (c) : Given data-
used to measure temperature. Thermocouples consist of M= 0.001 kg
two wire legs made from different metals. The wires K = 8 N/m
legs are welded together at one end creating a junction. 8
ωm = k / m =
This junction is where the temperature is measured. 0.001
When the junction experiences a change in temperature, = 8000 = 10 80
a voltage is created.
ωm = 40 5
Type K→Nickel-chromium
2<ω<3
Type T→Copper/constantan the system is best suitable for measuring acceleration.
Type E→Nickel-chromium/constantan
 d2x 
105. Which of the following instruments, uses two  2 
thermocouples in its circuit for measuring  dt 
unknown voltages? 108. For measuring the magnitude as well as
(a) Average responding AC voltmeter direction of displacement using LVDT, it is
used in conjunction with.
(b) True RMS AC voltmeter (a) an amplitude modulator followed by a low-
(c) Rectifier-type AC voltmeter pass filter.
(d) Peak responding AC voltmeter (b) a phase-sensitive demodulator followed by a
DMRC AM 2018 low-pass filter.
Ans. (b) : True RMS AC voltmeter instruments, uses (c) a twin-T network
two thermocouples in its circuit for measuring unknown (d) an integrator
Vizag Steel MT 2013
voltages.
Ans. (b) : For measuring the magnitude as well as
106. On of the following is an active transducer. direction of displacement using LVDT, it is used in
(a) Selsyn conjunction with a phase-sensitive demodulator
(b) Strain guage followed by a low-pass filter.
(c) Photo voltaic cells 109. A piezoelectric transducer (in the form of a
(d) Photo emission cell rectangular slab) has voltage sensitivity of
APSPDCL AE 2012 0.012 V-m/N and permittivity of 125×10–10 F/m.
The charge sensitivity of the transducer is
Ans. (c) : The active transducers are those transducer in (a) 150 pC/N (b) 75 pC/N
which the output is obtained in the form of voltage or (c) 9.6×10–7 C/N (d) 10416.67 pC/N
current, without any external source. The energy Vizag Steel MT 2013
requires for generating the output signal is obtained Ans. (a) : Charge sensitivity
from the physical quantity which is to be measured. = voltage sensitivity × permittivity
Ex- (i) Piezoelectric transducers. = 0.012×125×10–10
= 150 pC/N
(ii) Photo voltaic cell.
110. Which of the following thermocouples is
107. A strain gauge is attached on a cantilever beam suitable for measuring a temperature around
as shown as shown in the figure. If the base of 2100ºC?
the cantilever vibrates according to the (a) copper-constantan
equation x(t) = sin ω1t + sin ω2t, where (b) tungsten-tungsten + rhenium
(c) chromel-alumel
2 rad/s< ω1, ω2< 3rad/s, then the output of the
(d) nicrosil-nisil
strain gauge is proportional to Vizag Steel MT 2013
Ans. (b) : A thermocouple is a sensor used to measure 116. Normally which of the following has a negative
temperature. Thermocouple consists of two wire legs temperature coefficient?
made from different metals. Material used for (a) Nickel (b) Platinum
thermocouple are– (c) Copper (d) Thermistor
Material Temperature Range
Copper-constantan → –59 to +370 °C BHEL ET 2019
tungsten-tungsten + rhenium → 2100 °C Ans. (d) :
Nicrosil-nisil → 0 to 1260 °C
111. Which of the following transducers is used for
transmitting as well as receiving acoustic
energy in a ultrasonic flow meter?
(a) LVDT (b) RTD
(c) piezoelectric crystals (d) thermistor symbol
Vizag Steel MT 2013 Thermistor- A thermistor (or thermal resistor) is
Ans. (c) : For transmitting as well as receiving acoustic defined as a type of resistor whose electrical resistance
energy in a ultrasonic flow meter piezoelectric crystals varies with change in temperature. It has negative
transducer is used. A piezoelectric transducer is a temperature coefficient of resistance.
device that use the piezoelectric effect to measure
change any form of energy into electrical signal. 117. Working principle of thermo-couple is
112. Semiconductor strain gauges are preferred to (a) Seeback effect (b) Hall effect
metal resistance strain gauges because (c) Faraday’s law (d) None of the above
(a) Semiconductor gauges have more linear ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020
transfer characteristics. Ans. (a) :
(b) Semiconductor gauges are less susceptible to
temperature effect.
(c) Semiconductor gauges have higher
sensitivities.
(d) semiconductor gauges can be easily mounted
on the specimens.
Vizag Steel MT 2013
Ans. (c) : Semiconductor gauges are preferred over
metal resistance strain gauges because of higher
sensitivities. Seeback effect- In 1821 Thomas seeback discovered
113. A strain gauge having a gauge factor of -160 is. the continuous current flow in the thermo electric circuit
(a) p-type semiconductor when two wires of dissimilar metal are joined at both
(b) n- type semiconductor ends and one of the ends is heated.
(c) bounded metal foil type
(d) unbounded metal wire type A thermocouple is a sensor that measures temperature.
UPSC JWM 2017 118. The thermal time constant is the time–
Ans. (b) : A strain gauge factor of -160 represent a (a) To reach the final steady temperature if the
n-type semiconductor. initial rate of increase of temperature were
114. Which of the following can be measured with maintained constant
the help of piezoelectric crystal? (b) To reach 63% of final steady temperature
(a) Flow (b) Velocity (c) To reach 66.66% of final steady temperature
(c) Acceleration (d) Temperature (d) To reach half of the final steady temperature
LMRC AM 2018 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017
Ans. (c) : Piezoelectric crystals produces an electric Ans. (b) : Thermal time constant is defined as the time
signal when pressure applied i.e., it converts force into required for a thermistor to change 63.2% of the total
electric signal ex: quartz, Rochelle salt.
difference between its initial and final body
A piezoelectric crystal is used for measuring non-
temperature, when subjected to a step function change
electrical quantities such as vibration, acceleration,
in temperature under zero power conditions.
pressure and the intensity of sound.
115. Which of the following is a digital transducer? 119. If a circuit is formed consisting of two
(a) Piezoelectric transducer dissimilar metallic conductors, and if one of the
(b) Encoder junction has a temperature of T1 and the other
(c) Photovoltaic is at higher temperature T2, a current flow in
(d) Thermocouple the circuit. This effect is called as–
LMRC AM 2018 (a) Petier Effect (b) Thompson Effect
Ans. (b) : Encoder is a digital transducer, encoder are (c) Seeback Effect (d) Ferrenti Effect
used to encode information and make their unreadable. ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015

Ans. (c) : Ans. (a) : Given data
Stress = 1050 kg/cm2
modulus of elasticity,
y = 2.1×106 kg/cm2
Since, modulus of elasticity,
Stress
Y=
Strain
stress 1050
∴ strain = =
Y 2.1×106
If a circuit is formed consisting of two dissimilar Now, gauge factor,
metallic conductors, and if one of the junctions has a
Gf =
( ∆R / R ) = ∆R / R
temperature of T1 and the other is at higher temperature ( ∆ ℓ / ℓ ) strain
T2, a current flows in the circuit. This effect is called as
∆R
Seeback effect. = G f × strain
120. It is required to measure temperature in the R
1050
range of 1300°C to 1500°C. The most suitable = 2×
thermocouple to be used as transducer would 2.1× 106
be– = 0.001
Percentage change in resistance
(a) Chromel – constantan = 0.001×100
(b) Iron – constantan = 0.1%
(c) Chromel – alumel 123. In a photovoltaic system, there is a thermally
(d) Platinum – rhodium generated small reverse saturation current
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 which flows even in the absence of light, called
Ans. (d) : (a) Photon current (b) Diode current
Both type R and type S thermocouples can be used to (c) Leakage current (d) Dark current
measure a temperature in the range −58°F to 2700°F or ESE 2020
− 50°C to 1480°C. Both are platinum – rhodium Ans. (d) : Dark current refers to the unwanted excess
thermocouple. Type R uses lightly more rhodium as leakage current of a pn junction (photo diode) in reverse
bias when it is not exposed to light.
compared to type S thermocouple.
Temperature range of other options: 124. A resistance wire strain gauge with a gauge
factor of 2 is bonded to a steel structural
(a) Chromel – constantan: −270° to 870°C member subjected to a stress of 100 MN/m2.
(b) Iron – constantan: −210° to 760°C The modulus of elasticity of steel is 200 GN/m2.
(c) Chromel – alumel: −270° to 1260°C The percentage change in the value of the
121. The resistance of a thermistor– gauge resistance due to the applied stress will
(a) Increases with the increase of temperature be
(b) Decreases with the increase of temperature (a) 0.1% (b) 0.3%
(c) Remains constant with the increase of (c) 0.5% (d) 0.7%
temperature ESE 2020
(d) Remains constant with the decrease of Ans. (a) : Given
temperature Gauge factor, Gf = 2
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2013 Stress = 100 MN/m2 = 100 × 106 N/m2
Ans. (b) : Thermistor is a type of resistor whose Since gauge factor
resistance changes rapidly with small change in ∆R / R ∆R / R
Gf = =
temperature. Thermistor is of two types: ∆ℓ / ℓ strain
1. Negative temperature coefficient (NTC) Modulus of elasticity
2. Positive temperature coefficient (PTC) stress
Thus, The resistance of a thermistor decreases with γ=
strain
the increase of temperature.
∆ℓ stress 100 ×106
122. A resistance strain gauge with a gauge factor of ⇒ strain = = = 0.5 × 10−3
2 is fastened to a steel member subjected to a ℓ γ 200 ×109
stress of 1050 kg/cm2. The modulus of elasticity ∆R
So, = G f × ( ∆ℓ / ℓ )
of steel is 2.1×106 kg/cm2. The change in R
resistance ∆R of the strain gauge element due = 2 × 0.5 × 10–3 = 10–3
to the applied stress will be So, percentage change in gauge resistance
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.2% ∆R
(c) 0.3% (d) 0.4% × 100 = 10−3 ×100 = 0.1%
R
ESE 2019
125. Capacitive transducers can be used for the Ans. (a) : Piezometer is used to measure very low
measurement of liquid level. The principle of pressure. A piezometer is a device used to used to
operation used in this cage is the change of measure liquid pressure in a system by measuring the
capacitance with change of
(a) Distance between plates height to which a column of the liquid rises against
(b) Area of plates gravity, or a device.
(c) Dielectric A piezometer is designed to measure static pressure,
(d) Resonance and thus differs from a pitot tube by not being pointed
ESE 2020 into the fluid flow.
Ans. (c) : 129. Transducer is a device which is.
∈0∈r A (a) Useful for converting power from one form to
C=
d other form
Where, ∈0 = The permittivity in free space (b) Useful for converting energy from one form
to other form
∈r = Relative Permittivity with medium
(c) Useful in measurement of electrical signals
d = Distance between two plate (m) (d) Useful in amplification of the signals
A = Overlapping area of plat (m2)
Capacitance transducer can be used for the MPPSC AE 2017
measurement of non-conducting liquid level capacitive Ans. (b) : Transducer is a device which is useful for
transducer using the principle of change of dielectric are converting energy from one form to other form.
normally used for measurement of non-conducting Common example include microphones, loudspeakers,
liquid level. thermometers, position and pressure sensors and
126. Light is capable of transferring electrons to the antenna etc. No transducer is 100 percent efficient,
free-state inside a material thus increasing the some power is always lost in the conversion process.
electrical conductivity of the material. When
the energy imparted to the electrons is quite 130. Which of the following sentences are true?
large, the latter may be emitted from the (1) The device which converts the energy from
material into the surrounding medium. This one form to another is called transducer.
phenomenon is known as (2) Bourdon tube is secondary type of transducer.
(a) Photoemissive effect (3) In most measurement systems, electrical
(b) Photovoltaic effect device acts as primary detector.
(c) Photoconductivity effect (4) Sensing element is not part of transducer.
(d) Photo absorptive effect
ESE 2020 Answer options:
Ans. (a) : Photoemissive effect–Electrons or, charge (a) 1, 2 and 3 are true (b) 2, 3 and 4 are true
carriers absorb light, get excited and ejected out of (c) Only 1 is true (d) Only 4 is true
material. Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
Photovoltaic effect–Electrons or, charge carriers absorb Ans. (c) : The device which converts the one form of
light, get excited but still contain within material. energy into another is known as the transducer. The
Photoconductivity effect–After absorbing light, the process of conversion is known as transduction. The
number of free electrons or charge carrier increases and conversion is done by sensing and transducing the
hence increases electrical conductivity. physical quantities like temperature, pressure, sound
127. Piezo electric transducers are etc.
(a) Primary transducer Bourdon tube is primary type of transducer which
(b) Active transducers converts pressure into displacement. only sentence a is
(c) Secondary transducers true.
(d) Passive transducers
131. Which of the following statements are true?
UPPCL AE 2014
(1) Strain gauges are based on piezo-resistive
Ans. (b) : Piezo electric transducers are active effect.
transducers and it does not need external power supply (2) The strain gauges should have high resistance
as it is self generating. It is the devices which uses coefficient.
piezoelectric effect to measure the changes in pressure, (3) The gauge factor is defined as the ratio of per
temperature, acceleration, strain by converting them to
unit change in resistance to per unit change is
electrical pulse.
length.
128. Piezometer is used to measure (4) Strain gauge should have low value of gauge
(a) Very low pressure factor to result high sensitivity.
(b) Very high pressure Answer options:
(c) Pressure difference between two points (a) Only 2 is true (b) 2 and 3 are true
(d) Pressure in pipes and channel
(c) 1 and 3 are true (d) 3 and 4 are true
UPPCL AE 2014
Ans. (c) : 1 and 3 are true. (viii) Instrument Transformer
Strain gauges are based on piezo-resistive effect.
The gauge factor is defined as the ratio of per unit
change in resistance to per unit change in length 1. Transformers which are current transformers
with a rated current of 500A or more are
 ∆R 
Gf =   ( ∆L / L ) provided with a single turn primary winding in
 R  order.
Where (a) to provide correction for the rated burden
∆ R/R = Per unit change in resistance (b) to keep the ratio of excitation mmf to the
primary winding mmf high.
∆ L/L = Per unit change in length (c) to reduce leakage reactance.
Gf = Gauge factor (d) to keep the ratio of excitation mmf to the
132. Which of the following sentences are true? primary winding mmf low.
(1) The most widely used inductive transducer is DMRC AM 2018
the Linear Variable Differential Transducer. Ans. (d) : In current transformers with rated current
(2) LVDT consists of single primary and two 500A or more are provided with single turn primary
winding in order to keep ratio of excitation emf to the
secondary windings in series opposition. primary winding mmf low.
(3) Linearity of 0.05 is available in commercial N
LVDT. I 2 = I1 1
N2
(4) LVDT is sensitive to stray magnetic fields.
Because we need to step down the current N2 made high
Answer options: and N1 very low equal to 1.
(a) Only 1is true (b) 2, 3 , 4 are true 2. The nominal ratio of the current transformer
(c) All are true (d) None of the above is:
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I (a) primary/secondary current
Ans. (d) : The most widely used inductive transducer (b) secondary/primary turns
(c) primary/secondary turns
is the Linear Variable Differential Transducer.
(d) rated primary/ rated secondary current
LVDT consists of single primary and two secondary TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
windings in series opposition Ans. (d) : Nominal ratio of the C.T.
Linearity of 0.05 is available in commercial LVDT. Rated primary winding current
LVDT is sensitive to stray magnetic fields. kn =
Rated secondary winding current
133. Which of the following sentences are true? 3. A current transformer must at all times have
(1) In resistive thermometer, the change in (a) a secondary load
resistance of material per unit change in (b) short circuited secondary
temperature should be as small as possible. (c) either (a) or (b)
(2) Thermometers are semiconductors which (d) none of these
behave as resistors with high positive UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I
temperature coefficient. Ans. (c) : • The primary current of C.T. is depending on
load connected to system but it is not depending
(3) Thermometers are composed of metallic secondary winding burden.
oxides. • C.T. must never operates with secondary winding
(4) Thermometers are used for measurement of open but P.T. can be operated with secondary winding
level flow and pressure of liquids. open.
Answer options: 4. The ratio error regarding accuracy of a
(a) 1 and 2 are true (b) 2 and 3 are true current transformer depends on:
(c) only 3 is true (d) only 4 is true 1. Nominal ratio
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I 2. Secondary current
3. Primary current
Ans. (d) : Thermometers are used for measurement of (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
level flow and pressure of liquids. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
A thermometer is an instrument for measuring or UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
showing temperature (how hot or cold something.) Ans. (a) :
The resistance thermometer or resistance 5. If the secondary burden of a current
temperature detector (RTD) uses the resistance of transformer is 15 VA and secondary current is
electrical conductor for measuring the temperature. 5 A, then the impedance of the connected load
The resistance of the conductor varies wish the will be:
time. (a) 0.6 Ω (b) 5Ω
The main function of RTD is to give a positive (c) 6Ω (d) 10 Ω
change in resistance with temperature. UPRVUNL AE 2016

Ans : (a) Given Data: Ans. (a) : The burden of current transformer is
15 expressed in terms of VA rating.
Total burden on CT = 15VA V= =3 10. Current in the primary winding of CT depends
5
Secondary Current of CT = 5A on
V = 3V (a) Burden in the secondary winding of a
V 3 transformer
Z= = = 0.6Ω (b) Load connected to the system in which CT is
I 5 being used for measurement
6. A PT is a device which is : (c) Both burden on the secondary and load
(a) Electro-statically coupled connected to a system
(b) electrically coupled (d) None of these are correct
(c) electromagnetically coupled MPPSC AE 2016
(d) conductively coupled Ans. (b) : As CT is used as measuring instrument hence
UPRVUNL AE 2016 current in primary winding of CT depends on load
Ans : (c) A PT (Power transformer) is an instrument connected to system.
which is electromagnetically coupled. PT is used to 11. The primary current in the current
measure high voltage in a Branch of any circuit. In this transformer is dictated by-
instrument, primary coil of Transformer is connected (a) The secondary burden
parallel to the load and the secondary coil is connected (b) The core of the transform
to voltmeter. This is a step down transformer. (c) The load current
7. The power of a 1-phase 3.3 kV load drawing a (d) friction and windage losses
current of 50A is required to be measured by KPTCL AE 2016
means of a wattmeter having potential Ans. (a) : The primary current in the current
terminals marked as 110V and current transformer is dictated by the secondary burden primary
terminals as 5A. What is the transformation current in current transformer is not dependent of the
ratio of the CT ? secondary load current but instead is controlled by an
(a) 20 A (b) 10 A external load.
(c) 0.2 A (d) 0.1 A
12. The nominal transformation ratio of a current
OMC Deputy manager 2019 transformer is
Ans. (b) (a) Primary winding current / secondary winding
Transformation ratio of CT current
Primary winding current (b) Number of primary winding turns / Number
=
Secondary winding current of secondary winding turns
50 (c) Number of secondary winding turns / Number
= = 10 A of primary winding turns
5 (d) Rated primary winding current / rated
8. Primary current in a current transformer is secondary winding current
increased to a very high value. It will cause: Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
(a) Increase in ratio error
(b) Increases in phase angle error but decrease in Ans. (d) : Nominal Ratio (kn)
ratio error It is the ratio of rated primary winding current (or
(c) Reduction in both ratio error and phase angle voltage) to the rated secondary winding current (or
error voltage).
(d) Increase in phase angle error only For CT
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016  rated primary winding current 
Ans. (c) : If primary current is increase in current  k n = rated secondary winding current 
 
transformer there is reduction in both ratio error and 13. Open circuiting the secondary winding CT with
phase angle error. primary still energized will result in
 I sin δ + Is cos δ  (a) Unrestricted primary flux to generate high
R=n+  p  = Actual ratio voltage in secondary
 Is  (b) Possible insulation damage due to high
If Ip is more Is is less R is high. voltage
nominal ratio - acutal ratio (c) Injury to careless operator
↓ Ratio error =
actual ratio (R) ↑ (d) All of above
If actual ratio is high then ratio error will low. GMB AE 2017
9. The burden of current transformers is Ans. (d) : CT should never be operated with secondary
expressed in terms of winding open. If open circuiting in the secondary
(a) VA rating winding of CT with primary still energized will result
(b) Only current rating of secondary winding in–
(c) Voltage, current and power factor of (1) Unrestricted primary flux to generate high voltage in
secondary winding circuit secondary.
(d) Voltage and current in primary winding (2) Possible insulation damage due to high voltage
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 (3) Injury to careless operator.
14. A P.T. of ratio 20 and C.T. of ratio 10 are used ∆R R ∆R / R
to extend the range of a wattmeter. The Ans. (b) : Gauge factor G = =
∆ℓ strain
wattmeter reading should be multiplied by
(a) 2 (b) 20 ℓ
(c) 200 (d) 4000 1
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I G= =2
125 × 4000 × 10−6
Ans. (c) : A P.T. of ratio 20 and C.T. of ratio 10 are
used to extend the range of a wattmeter. The wattmeter 18. A piezoelectric pick-up is an example of
reading should be multiplied by 200. (a) an active transducer
15. The number of turns on the primary of current (b) passive transducer
transformer is usually : (c) temperature transducer
(a) 5 to 10 (b) 50 to 100 (d) flow transducer
(c) 1 to 5 (d) above 100 PTCUL AE 2012
CIL MT 2020 Ans. (a) : Since the change in the dimension of the
Ans. (c) : piezoelectric crystal directly generates an electrical
signal hence it is an active transducer.
19. An instrument transformer is used to expand
the range of which type of instrument–
(a) Electrostatic type
(b) Induction type
(c) Moving coil type
(d) Moving iron type
PTCUL AE 2012
Ans. (b) : An instrument transformer (CT & PT) is used
to expand the range of induction type ac ammeter & ac
voltmeters.
The primary of current transformer has few turns 20. The errors in CT are mainly due to
(maximum 1 to 5 turns) of a thick wire whereas the (a) Leakage flux
secondary has many turns of very fine wire. (b) Excitation emf required
The current transformer is an instrument (c) Core loss
transformer, which is used to measure high (d) Secondary load
alternating current in a power system. PTCUL AE 2012
The secondary of the transformer is connected Ans. (c) : Reasons for the error in CT–
across a low range (0–5A) ac ammeter. • Some exciting mmf required by primary winding to
IP → line current, Is → ammeter current produce flux therefore transformer draw magnetising
Ip current Im.
N p I p = Ns Is = C.T. Ratio • Transformer input must have loss component Ie to
Is
feed core losses and Io required for copper loss in
Ip Ns winding.
= Ip = Is × CT Ratio
Is Np • The flux density in the core is not a linear function of
magnetising force i.e core becomes saturated.
16. The burden of current transformer is 21. Commonly discussed of a CT (Current
expressed in terms of :- Transformer) are
(a) Secondary winding current (a) ratio error and phase angle error
(b) VA rating of transformer (b) polarity error and frequency error
(c) Voltage, current and power factor of (c) resistance error and reactance error
secondary winding (d) loading error and regulation error
(d) None of these UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I Ans. (a) : Commonly, current transformer error are
Ans. (b) : The burden of current transformer is ratio error and phase angle error.
expressed in terms of VA rating of transformer. 22. In current transformers, turn compensation is
17. The resistance of a 125Ω strain gauge changes provided mainly to reduce the :
by 1Ω for 4000 micro-strain. The gauge factor (a) Power loss
of the strain gauge is: (b) Phase angle error
(a) 1.5 (b) 2 (c) Ratio error
(c) 2.5 (d) 3 (d) None of the above
PTCUL AE 2012 UJVNL AE 2016

Ans. (c) In current transformers, turn compensation is Ans. (d) : The secondary of a C.T. is never left open
provided mainly to reduce the ratio error. circuited while the primary is energized because heat
23. In the current transformer, the burden is dissipation in the core will be very large. Core will get
saturated and permanently magnetized rendering it
expressed in the form of:
useless. And dangerously high e.m.f. will be induced in
(a) VA rating
the secondary due to open circuit.
(b) Voltage, Current & power factor rating
(c) primary current rating 28. The ratio error in current transformer is
(d) secondary current rating attributed to:
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 (a) magnetising component of no-load current
(b) power factor of the primary
Ans. (a) : Current transformer burden is defined as the (c) energy component of excitation current
load connected across its secondary. It is generally (d) leakage flux
expressed in VA (volt-ampere). BHEL ET 2019
24. The term 'burden' is referred for which type of Ans. (a) : A current transformer is used for the
transformer? measured of very high currents.
(a) Current transformer Ratio error of a C.T. is defined as the ratio of the
(b) Potential transformer magnitude of the difference between the nominal and
(c) Power transformer actual ratio with respect to the actual ratio.
(d) Distribution transformer 29. The nominal ratio of a current transformer is:
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 (a) Primary winding current / secondary winding
Ans. (a) : The secondary load of current transformer is current
formed as burden to distinguish it from the primary (b) Number of Primary winding turns / Number
load. Therefore 'burden' is referred for current of secondary winding turns
transformer. (c) Rated Primary winding current / Rated
25. In current transformers, turn compensation is secondary winding current
provided to reduce the (d) Number of Secondary winding turns /
(a) power losses Number of Primary winding turns
(b) ratio error DMRC AM 2016
(c) phase angle error Ans. (c) : Nominal ratio (Kn) :- It is the ratio of rated
(d) ratio and phase angle errors primary winding current (or voltage) to the rated
Vizag Steel MT 2013 secondary winding current (or voltage).
For C.T. (current transformer):-
Ans. (b) : Ip = I0 + nIe Ip = transformation ratio
rated primary winding current
Kn =
Ip rated secondary winding current
If > n Ratio error,
Is For P.T. (Potential transformer):-
Turn compensation is provided to reduce the ratio error rated primary winding voltage
Kn =
in current transformer. rated secondary winding voltage
26. The primary of a current transformer is never 30. The current flowing through the primary
energized with its secondary winding of a current transformer (CT) is
(a) short circuited primarily determined by the-
(b) connected to unity power-factor load. (a) Load connected to the secondary coil of CT
(c) connected to lagging power-factor load. (b) Load connected to the main circuit to which
(d) open circuited. the CT is connected
Vizag Steel MT 2013 (c) Load connected to the main circuit as well as
Ans. (d) : The secondary side of current transformer to the secondary of the CT
must never left open circuit because due to MMF (d) It is independent of the main circuit load and
balance theory it may induce a high voltage and it can the load connected to the secondary of CT
harm a person working their. UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
27. The secondary of a CT is never left open Ans : (b) When the load connected to the main circuit
circuited, while the primary is energized to which CT is connected the current start flowing
because through primary winding CT. So primary current of CT
1. Heat dissipation in the core will be very (assuming constant line current) is constant irrespective
large. of whether secondary of CT is connected with burden or
2. The core will get saturated and not.
permanently magnetized rendering it 31. Power of a 1-phase 3.3 kV load drawing a
current of 50 A is required to be measured by
useless
means of a wattmeter having potential
3. Dangerously high emf will be induced in terminals marked as 110 V and current
the secondary terminals as 5 A. What is the transformation
Which of the above reasons are correct? ratio of the CT?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) 20 A (b) 0.2 A
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 10 A (d) 0.1 A
UPSC JWM 2017 UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I

Ans : (c) The ratio of primary current to the secondary (c) Used to extend the range and isolate the
current is known as current transformation ratio of CT. measuring instruments
Primary current (d) Not used at generating stations and
So current transformation ratio = transformer stations
Secondary current
ESE 2020
50 Ans. (c) : Instrument transformer are used for–
= = 10 A
5 • To extent the range of instrument, so that high
32. A 100/5 A bar primary current transformer parameters (current, voltage, energy etc.) can be
supplies an overcurrent relay set at 25% pick measured with moderate size instruments.
up and it has a burden of 5 VA. The secondary • To isolate the measuring circuit from power circuit for
voltage is– safety purpose.
(a) 1 V (b) 1.25 V 35. Which instrument is not affected by stray
(c) 2.5 V (d) 4 V magnetic fields?
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2018 (a) Hot wire type
Ans. (d) : Rating of transformer (S) = 5VA (b) Moving coil type
Given that: (c) Moving iron attraction type
Secondary current, (Is) = 5 A (d) Moving iron repulsion type
1 UPPCL AE 2014
Pick up setting (I's ) = 25% of Is = × IS Ans. (a) : Hot wire instrument is not affected by stray
4
Since given burden is 5 VA, magnetic field.
Advantages of Hot wire instrument:
So, S = Vs Is'
The instrument is used for both AC and DC
S 5 measurement.
Vs = '
=
Is 5/ 4 It is a transfer-type instrument i.e., the calibration is
same for both the AC and DC measurement.
V s= 4 V
36. The secondary of CT is never is never left
33. A 50 Hz bar primary CT has a secondary with
open-circuited because
500 turns. The secondary supplies 5 A current
(a) heat dissipation in the core will be very large
into a purely resistive burden of 1Ω. The phase (b) the core will be saturated and permanently
angle between the primary and secondary magnetised rendering it useless
current is– (c) dangerously high emfs will be induced in the
(a) 4.6° (b) 85.4° secondary
(c) 94.6° (d) 175.4° (d) All of the above
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : (Data insufficient for solution. So, we assume Ans. (d) : The secondary side of a CT(current
magnetizing ampere turns = 200 AT) transformers) should never be left open condition
Given: because when left open, there is a very high voltage
N1 = 1, N2 = 500, IS = 5 A, R2 = 1 Ω found across the secondary side. This high voltage
Magnetizing ampere turns = 200 AT causes a high magnetizing current to build up on the
Magnetizing ampere turns 200A
I0 = = = 200A secondary side which causes high flux and makes the
Primary turns 1 core to saturate.
Transformation ratio, Now as we know more turns at secondary means more
N 500 voltage at secondary terminals and as we know the
n= 2 = = 500 equation,
N1 1
V2 = (N2/N1) V1
The phase angle between the primary and secondary The ratio N2/N1 will be much higher which will produce
current is given by the high voltage at secondary.
180  I0  37. The device used for measurement of
θ=
π  nIS  temperatures exceeding 15000 C is
(a) RTD (b) Radiation
180  200  0
=   = 4.6 pyrometer
π 500 × 5  (c) Thermocouple (d) Thermopile
34. Instrument transformers are Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I
(a) Used to extend the range of the AC Ans. (b) : Radiation pyrometer used for measurement
measuring instruments only of temperature exceeding 15000C because its
(b) Used to isolate the measuring instruments temperature range is (700-20000C)
from the high voltage only

(ix) Digital Meter, Electronic Ans. (d) : Hetrodyne Frequency meter–A frequency
meter in which a known frequency, which may be
Element adjusted or fixed; is hetrodyned with an unknown
frequency to produce a zero beat or an audio-frequency
1. An average reading digital multimeter reads 10 signal whose value is measured by other means. Also
V when fed with a triangular wave, symmetric known as hetrodyne wavemeter.
about the time axis. For the same input the HFM is used for measuring radio frequencies.
r.m.s. reading meter will read 6. Integrating principle in the digital
(a) 20/ 3 V (b) 10/ 3 V measurement is the conversion of:
(c) 20 3 V (d) 10 3 V (a) Voltage to time
(b) Voltage to frequency
(c) Voltage to current
V (d) Current to voltage
Ans. (a) : Vavg = m for triangular wave
2 TSPSC AEE 2017
Vm = 2 × Vavg = 20V Ans. (b) : Integrating type DVM (voltage to
For triangular wave- frequency conversion): The principle of operation of
V 20 an integrating type DVM is illustrated in a constant
Vrms = m = V. input voltage is integrated and the slope of the output
3 3 ramp is proportional to the input voltage.
2. In a digital voltmeter, the oscillator frequency is 7. For a digital meter, if 'S' is the sensitivity, 'Re'
400 kHz, the ramp voltage falls from 8V to 0V is the resolution and 'Ra' is the range of the
in 20 m sec. The number of pulses counted by meter, then which of the given relations is
the counter is
(a) 800 (b) 2000 valid?
(c) 4000 (d) 8000 (a) S=Ra × Re (b) Ra= S × Re
BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V (c) S = Ra/Re (d) Ra=Re/S
UKPSC AE 2012, Paper-I UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
ESE 2012 Ans. (a) : Sensitivity = Range × Resolution
ESE 2013 S = Ra × Re
Ans. (d) : Frequency = 400 KHz 8. Sensitive low voltage electronic components are
Fclk = 400 KHz protected from–
t = 20 m sec (RRB SSE Secunderabad Green paper, 21.12.2014)
Clock pulses = t Fclk
(a) Static charge
= 20 m sec × 400 KHz
= 8000 pulses (b) Induction circuit
(c) Lightening
3. Input signal is integrated for duration of 500
clock cycles in a digital voltmeter. To eliminate (d) All of these
the effect of 50 Hz noise present in the signal, Ans : (d) : Low-sensitive electronic component are
what is the maximum clock frequency? protect from static charge. Induction circuit, lighting
(a) 25 kHz etc.
(b) 50 kHz 9. A digital voltmeter uses a 10 MHz clock and
(c) 100 kHz has a voltage controlled generator which
(d) 250 kHz
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 provides a width of 10 per sec per volt of unit
signal. 10 volt of input signal would correspond
Ans. (a) :
to a pulse count of:
4. To measure 5 volts if one selects a 0-100 volt (a) 500 (b) 1000
range voltmeter which is accurate within ± 1%, (c) 1500 (d) 7500
then the error in this measurement may be up UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
to ESE 1993
(a) ± 2.5% (b) ± 5%
Ans. (b) : Voltmeter uses 10MHz clock,
(c) ± 7.5% (d) ± 20% Width = 10 per sec per volt
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 10 volt of input signal would correspond to a pulse
ESE 2005 count of
Ans. (d) : 1
5. Which one of the following frequency meter is Time for one count = = 10–7 sec
10 × 106
suitable for measuring radio frequency?
Total time = 10 × 10–6 × 10 sec
(a) Vibrating reed frequency meter
(b) Weston frequency meter 10 × 10−6 × 10
Count =
(c) Electrical resonance frequency meter 10−7
(d) Heterodyne frequency meter = 1000
TSPSC AEE 2017
10. The clock frequency of an 8-bit successive 15. A digital voltmeter measures:
approximation type A to D converter is 2MHz. (a) Peak value
The conversion time for an analog signal (b) RMS value
sample to be converted to digital equivalent (c) Peak to peak value
value is (d) Average value
(a) 2 µs (b) 1 µs HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017
(c) 4 µs (d) 16 µs Ans. (d) A digital voltmeter measuring electric potential
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 difference between two points in an electric circuit, and
Ans. (c) : SAR Type ADC digital voltmeter measures an average value. The ramp
Number of clock pulse required for n-bit type DVM samples the voltage at the end of measuring
conversion = n period.
Maximum conversion time = n * TCLK 16. In the multimeter circuit shown in Fig. 17 for
In successive Approximation type ADC, a.c. voltage measurement, the function of the
conversion time is independent of input analog voltage. diode D1 is to
1 1
Here, given TCLK = = = 0.5 × 10−6 sec
f 2 × 106
maximum conversion time =n.TCLK
= 8×0.5×10–6 sec
= 4µ sec.
11. Digital instrument has input impedance of the
order of–
(a) MΩ (b) kΩ
(c) Ω (d) mΩ
GMB AE 2017 (a) provide half-wave rectification
Ans. (a) : Digital instrument has input impedance of the (b) make the rectifier D2 perform full-wave
order of Mega ohm. rectification
These instrument represents the measured value in the (c) by-pass reverse leakage current D2 in the
form of digital numbers. negative cycle of the input
(d) short-circuit over range voltages
12. As compared to analog voltmeter, a digital
voltmeter provides
ESE 1993
(a) faster measurement (b) higher resolution
(c) higher accuracy (d) all the above Ans. (c) :
Ans. (d) : A digital voltmeter provides-
faster measurement
higher resolution
higher accuracy
13. Integrating principle in the digital
measurement is the conversion of The function of D1 is to bypass reverse leakage current
(a) Voltage to time D2 in the negative cycle of the input.
(b) Voltage to frequency 17. A 4 12 digit DMM has the error specification as
(c) Voltage to current 0.2% of reading +10 counts. If a d.c. voltage of
(d) Current to voltage 100 V is read on its 200 V full-scale, the
LMRC AE 2015 maximum error that can be expected in the
Ans. (b) : Integrating principle in the digital reading is
measurement is the conversion of voltage to frequency. (a) ±0.1% (b) ±0.2%
14. A rectifier instrument is used to measure an (c) ±0.3% (d) ±0.4%
alternating square wave of amplitude 100V. JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V
What is the meter reading? Ans. (c) : In 4 12 digit meter in 200 V reading 1 9 9.9 9
(a) 100V (b) 70.7V
range.
(c) 111V (d) 50V
The measuring value is 100 V.
LMRC AE 2015
errors is → 0.2% of reading + 10 counts.
ESE 2006
Count is → 0.01
Ans. (c) In full wave rectifier instrument, deflection is
 0.2 
obtained corresponding to average value, but scale is ∴ error = ±  × 100 + 10 × 0.01 = 0.3
calibrated corresponding to rms value.  100 
Average voltage, V0 = Vm = 100 V 0.3
RMS value or reading = 1.11 V0 =111 V % error = ± ×100 = ± 0.3%
100
18. The advantage of VTVM over non-electronic 23. In a digital voltmeter, during start of
voltmeter is conversion, zero indication is displayed and is
(a) low power consumption called auto zeroing. This is achieved by
(b) lower input impedance (a) Using a positive reference voltage
(c) the ability to measure wider ranges of
voltage (b) Using a negative reference voltage
(d) greater portability (c) Properly charging the differentiator circuit
BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V capacitance to ground
Ans. (a) : The voltmeter which uses the vacuum tube (d) Properly discharging the integrator circuit
for amplifying the measured A.C. and D.C. voltage is capacitance to ground
known as the vacuum tube voltmeter. The advantage ESE 2020
of vacuum tube voltmeter is low power consumption. Ans. (d) : Digital voltmeter has three distinct features.
19. Which one of the following DVM has excellent Auto-ranging
noise rejection feature? Auto-Zeroing
(a) Ramp type DVM Polarity detection
(b) Dual slope type DVM
Auto zeroing–Zero is displayed during start of
(c) Successive approximation type DVM
(d) Flash type DVM conversion in digital voltmeter band this is known as
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I auto-zeroing.
Ans. (b) : Dual slope type DVM has excellent noise This is achieved by properly discharging the integrator
rejection feature. circuit capacitance to ground.
20. Which of the following devices is used at the
first stage of an electronic voltmeter?
(a) BJT (b) SCR
(c) MOSFET (d) UJT
Ans. (c) : MOSFET (Metal-Oxide Semiconductor field
Effect Transistor) is used at the first stage of an
electronic voltmeter. MOSFET is unipolar and has low During auto-zeroing switch S is connected to Ground.
switching power loss, high input impedance, voltage So, that the capacitance of the dual slope converter
controlled device. discharge to the ground.
21. The largest number that can be read by the 3 12
digital voltmeter is: (x) Miscellaneous
(a) 1999 (b) 9991
(c) 1199 (d) 9911
1. The function of the reference electrode in a pH
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 meter is to
(a) Produce a constant voltage
Ans. (a) : A 3 12 digital voltmeter has three full digits
(b) Provide temperature compensation
that can change from 0 to 9 and a one half digit that can (c) Provide a constant current
change is either 0 or 1. That means 3 12 digits digital (d) Measure average pH value
voltmeter can show values from 0 to 1,999 or 0 to – UPRVUNL AE 2014
1,999.
Ans. (a) The function of reference electrode in pH
meter is to provide constant voltage.
2. In which of the following welding methods, the
molten metal is poured for joining the metals?
(a) Gas welding (b) Thermit welding
22. The ramp type digital voltmeter can measure
accurately with (c) TIG welding (d) Arc welding
(a) A positive going ramp voltage only TSPSC AEE 2017
(b) A negative or positive going linear ramp Ans. (b) : Thermit welding also known as exothermic
voltage welding is a welding process that employs molten metal
(c) A negative going ramp voltage only to permanently join the conductors. The process
(d) An asymptotic ramp voltage only employs an exothermic reaction of a thermite
ESE 2019 composition to heat the metal and required no external
Ans. (b) : The principle of ramp-type digital voltmeter source of heat or current.
is to measure the time that a linear ramp voltage takes to
change from level of input voltage to zero voltage or, 3. A 1000 W bulb filled with a reflector
zero voltage to input voltage, i.e. the ramp can be a illuminates an area of 3m × 3 m with an
negative or positive going linear ramp voltage. An average illumination of 450 lux. If the bulb has
electronic counter count and displayed (as a number of an efficiency of 9 lumens/watt, the efficiency of
digits on electronic indicating) this time interval. the reflector is

(a) 70% (b) 30% (a) Direct Measurement
(c) 20% (d) 45% (b) Secondary Measurement
WBPSC AE 2017 (c) Tertiary Measurements
Ans. (d) : (d) All of these
4. Voltage required for butt welding is Ans : (c) The measurement in which the measurement
(a) 2 to 8 V observation occurs twice is called tertiary measurement.
(b) 8 to 15 V Determining the speed of rotating shafts by electric
(c) 15 to 22 V tachometer measuring temperature by pyrometer
(d) 22 to 30 V measuring brake etc. Given third class measurement
WBPSC AE 2017 electrical tachometer is used to find the speed of
Ans. (a) : rotating shaft.
5. Which of the following lamp gives nearly 11. Tachymeter (or Tacheometer) is an instrument
monochromatic light? for measuring–
(a) sodium vapour lamp (RRB SSE Secunderabad Green paper, 21.12.2014)
(b) GLS lamp (a) rpm
(c) tube light (b) Torque
(d) mercury vapour lamp (c) Rotational Kinetic energy
WBPSC AE 2017 (d) Distances
Ans. (a) : Ans : (a) Tachometer rpm measures.
6. Electrodes used in spot welding are made up of Tachometer is a sensor device used to measure the
which material? rotational speed at a car's shaft engine or disc.
(a) Only copper
(b) Copper and Tungsten 12. A carriageway is basically a travelled way
(c) Copper and chromium which is used for the movement of vehicles. The
(d) Copper and Aluminium width of carriageway on a two lane road with
WBPSC AE 2017 raised kerb is
(a) 7.5 m (b) 5.5 m
Ans. (b) :
(c) 3.75 m (d) 6.0 m
7. Interferometer is used for the measurement of:
(a) wavelength
(b) thickness of thin strips Ans. (a) : A carriageway is basically a travelled way
(c) velocity which is used for the movement of vehicles. The width
(d) both wavelength and thickness of thin strips of carriageway on a two lane road with raised kerb is
UPRVUNL AE 2016 7.5 m.
Ans : (d) Interferometer, an instrument that uses the 13. LISN is a device used for the measurement of
interference matter/patterns formed by waves (usually conducted emissions. What is the full form of
Radio, light or sound waves) to measure certain LISN?
characteristics of waves themselves or of material that (a) Line integrated stored network
reflect, refract or transmit the waves i.e. wavelength and (b) Line integrated stabilization network
thickness of the strip. (c) Line impedance stabilization network
8. Normal diastolic blood pressure (in mm Hg) (d) Laser integrated stabilization networking
ranges from: JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
(a) 0-30 (b) 30-60 Ans. (c) : LISN is a device used for the measurement of
(c) 60-90 (d) 90-120 conducted emissions.
UPRVUNL AE 2016 LISN → Line impedance stabilization network.
Ans : (c) Normal Diastolic Blood pressure (in mm Hg) 14. ______ is the process by which employees are
ranges from (60-90). encouraged to take decisions pertaining to their
9. In case of ECG, which lead primarily measure area of work.
forces moving from head to the feet (a) Automation
(inferiorly)? (b) Empowerment
(a) Lead 1 (b) aVF (c) Authorization
(c) aVL (d) VI
(d) Delegation
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans : (b) aVF leads represents: Augmented vector
foot; the positive electrode is on foot. It is used to Ans. (b) : Empowerment is the process by which
measure forces moving from head to feet. employees are encouraged to take decisions pertaining
aVR means: Augmented vector right (+Ve electrode on to their area of work.
right shoulder). 15. Output of a welding machine is –
aVL means: Augmented vector left (+Ve electrode on (a) High voltage and high current
left shoulder). (b) Low voltage and low current
10. The measurement of the speed of a rotating (c) High voltage and low current
shaft by means of an electric tachometer is a: (d) Low voltage and high current
(RRB SSE Secunderabad Red Pepar, 21.12. 2014) UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
Ans. (d) : Output of welding machine is low voltage Ans. (c) : A laser diode can readily be pulse-modulated
and high current because during the welding process the since the photon life time is smaller than the carrier life
arc is produced and for producing arc, the value of time.
A semiconductor device that generates coherent light of
voltage should be low and current should be high. high intensity is known as laser diode. Laser diode can
16. Requirement of luminous flux in any lighting directly convert electrical energy into light.
scheme is inversely proportional to the 22. Electrolytic meter is basically a/an:
(a) coefficient of utilization (a) DC ampere-hour meter
(b) surface area (b) AC energy meter
(c) illumination (c) DC watt-hour meter
(d) AC ampere-hour meter
(d) space-height ratio BHEL ET 2019
JUVNL AE 2017 Ans. (a) : Electrolytic meters are exclusively amp-hour
Ans. (a) : Requirement of luminous flux in any lighting meters, measuring electric quantity directly and electric
scheme is inversely proportional to the coefficient of Energy only indirectly, on the assumption that the
utilization. pressure of the supply is constant.
17. Which among the following represents the ratio Directions:
of the volume of voids to the volume of soil (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these
solids in a given soil mass? two statements carefully and select the answers to
(a) Water content (b) Void ratio these items using the codes given below:
(c) Porosity (d) Specific gravity Codes:
JUVNL AE 2017 (a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
Ans. (b) : Void ratio represents the ratio of the volume correct explanation of Statement (I)
of voids to the volume of soil solids in a given soil (b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
mass. The void of a dense sandy gravel soil is about individually true; but Statement (II) is NOT
0.3, that of a loose 8 and is about 0.6, while the void the correct explanation of Statement (I)
ratio of clays (in natural condition) varies between 0.5, (c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is
and 1.0 and decreases with depth of soil layers. false
18. LEDs are fabricated from : true
(a) silicon (b) germanium 23. Statement (I) : Electromagnetic flow meter is
(c) silicon or germanium (d) gallium arsenide preferred for flow velocity measurement of
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 slurries in pipes as long as the slurry has adequate
electrical conductivity.
Ans. (d) : LEDs are fabricated from gallium arsenide Statement (II) : Electromagnetic flow meter does
(GaAs). not insert any instrument parts into the body of the
19. A solar cell is actually a device which utilizes : fluid flow to cause obstruction as in most of other
(a) Photoconductive effect flow meters.
(b) Photovoltaic effect ESE 2018
(c) Photoemissive effect Ans. (b) : Electromagnetic flow meter is inserted to
measure voltage proportional to the velocity of liquid.
(d) Photoresistive effect Compared to the mechanical flow transducers,
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. (TE) 2016 electromagnetic flow meter is Non-contacted type and
Ans. (b) : A solar cell is actually a device which utilizes loss effects the flow of liquid.
photovoltaic effect. 24. The power is measured in terms of decibels in
20. Opto-coupler is used to : case of
(a) Reduce SCR turn-off time (a) current transformers
(b) Protect IGBTs against dv/dt (b) transformers
(c) Reduce gate signal (c) auto transformers
(d) electronic equipment
(d) Isolate gating circuitry from power lines UPPCL AE 2014
Ans. (d) : The power is measured in terms of decibels
Ans. (d) : Opto-coupler is used to isolate gating
circuitry from power lines. in case of electronic equipment.
An opto coupler is an electronic component that The calculation of decibel can be done when power is
interconnects two separate electrical circuits using light- given as well as when current and voltage are given.
sensing optical interface. It is also called photo coupler When power is given
or optoisolator. P 
21. A laser diode can readily be pulse-modulated, NdB = 10 log10  2 
since the photon life time is ..................... than  P1 
the carrier life time. When the voltage and current are given-
(a) Much higher (b) Higher V  I 
(c) Smaller (d) Much smaller N dB = 20log10  2  ⇒ N dB = 20log10  2 
V
 1  I1 
08.
Electrical Materials
(i) Introduction to Engineering (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Material Ans. (d) :
7. Above Debye temperature, relaxation/collision
1. What does plasma signify? time varies:
(a) Liquid medium (a) Directly as temperature
(b) Electronic medium (b) Inversely as temperature
(c) Gaseous medium (c) With square of temperature
(d) Solid dielectric (d) With inverse of square of temperature
Vizag Steel MT 2011 UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
Ans. (c) : Plasma is a state of matter that is a subset of Ans. (b) : Above Debye temperature relaxation or
gases. But unlike ordinary gases, plasmas are made up collision time varies inversely to temperature.
of atom in which some or all of the electrons have been 8. If edge length of a face centered cubic unit cell
stripped away and positively charged nuclei, called is 1.41 pm, radius of atom present in it will be:
ions, roam freely. (a) 0.41 pm (b) 0.5 pm
2. The glass globe of a filament lamp is completely (c) 1.4 pm (d) 1.1 pm
evacuated to UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
(a) make it clearly visible
(b) increases its mechanical strength Ans. (b) : Edge length = 8 R
(c) increase light emission 1.41
(d) prevent oxidation and convection currents R= pm = 0.5 pm
WBPSC AE 2009 8
Ans. (d) : 9. The displaced atom in Frenkel's defect is called
3. The random zig-zag motion of an electron in an as
electron gas is due to collision with : (a) Anion (b) Cation
(a) other electrons (c) Hole (d) Real atom
(b) atoms in their normal crystal positions Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
(c) impurity atoms in the crystal
(d) with grain boundaries Ans. (b) : Frenkel's defect or dislocation defect is a
WBPSC AE 2009 type of point defect in crystalline solid name after its
Ans. (b) : discover Yakov Frenkel the defect forms when an atom
4. By adding chromium to steel which of the or smaller Ion (usually cation).
following is property enhanced? 10. Vander Waals bond will form in
(a) Resistance to corrosion (a) Hafnium (b) Cobalt
(b) Electrical characteristics (c) Argon (d) Polonium
(c) Magnetic property Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
(d) Ductility Ans. (c) : Vander Waals forces are weak intermolecular
WBPSC AE 2017 forces that are dependent on the distance between atoms
Ans. (a) : or molecules. These forces arises from the interactions
5. Dipoles in any electric field undergo between uncharged atoms/molecules. Vander Walls
(a) magnetism forces are weakest in the 'weak chemical forces'
(b) electromagnetism category.
(c) polarization
(d) magnetisation ∴ Vander Walls bond will form in Argon molecules.
WBPSC AE 2017 11. The Miller indices of a plane are proportional
Ans. (c) : to
6. Which of the following features of solute and (a) the cube of unit cell dimensions
solvent atoms that determine the degree to (b) inter planar spacing
which the solute dissolves in solvent? (c) the intercepts of the planes on the coordinate
1. Atomic size factor axes
2. Crystal structure (d) the reciprocal of numerical parameters of the
3. Electro-negativity intercepts
4. Valances Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II

Ans. (d) : • Miller indices form a notation system is Ans. (c) : In 8085 microprocessor–
crystallography for planes in crystal (Bravias) lattices. Pins- Hold, HLDA is serial input/output signals.
• The Miller indices are proportional to the inverses of (a) HOLD : A peripheral like DMA controller sends
the intercepts of the plane, in the basis of the lattice the HOLD request to the microprocessor through this
vectors. pin to leave the data bus which were also used by
12. Uneven gap in induction motor is likely to microprocessor:
cause (b) HLDA : HOLD acknowledge.
(a) Heating of motor 18. Among the following materials, which has the
(b) Unbalancing of motor shaft lowest resistivity?
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) Iron (b) Tungsten
(d) None of these (c) Gold (d) Brass
GMB AE 2017 JUVNL AE 2017
Ans. (c) : In induction motor the air gap should always Ans. (c) : Resistivity of these materials in ohm-meter–
minimum and uniform. If uneven gap is provided then it Iron = 9.8 × 10-8
is likely to cause– Tungsten = 5.5 × 10-8
(i) Heating of motor Gold = 2.4 × 10-8
(ii) Unbalancing of motor shaft Brass = 0.6 to 0.9×10-7
13. Normally, ............... material is used as 19. The properties of gases for insulation should
armouring. be:
(a) magnetic (b) non-magnetic (a) high dielectric strength only
(c) laminated (d) None of the above (b) high thermal stability only
MPSC (Mains) 2018 Paper-II (c) high thermal stability and low temperature
Ans. (b) : Normally non-magnetic material is used as condensation
armouring. Armaouring use outside or in direct burial (d) high dielectric strength and thermal stability
projects, the electrical cables must have mechanical BHEL ET 2019
protection. Such protection is provided by aluminium Ans. (d) :A good dielectric gas should have high
wire armour or steel wire armour as well as by cable dielectric strength, high thermal stability and non-
with higher pulling loads. flammability and low toxicity. Low boiling point, good
14. The correct order of insulation classes for heat transfer properties and low cost.
increasing maximum permitted temperature is: Directions : Consists of two statements, one labelled as
(a) A B E Y (b) A E B Y 'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine
(c) Y A E B (d) Y A B E these two statements carefully and select the answers to
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 these items using the codes given below:
Ans. (c) Correct order of insulation classes for Codes:
increasing maximum permitted temperature in YAEB. (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
15. The miller indices for a plane which intercepts correct explanation of Statement (I)
at a, b/3, 2c in a simple cubic unit cell are (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
(a) (1/3, 1/2, 1/2) (b) (3, 2, 2)
(c) (1/2, 1/3, 1/3) (d) (2, 6, 1)
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
Ans. (d) : Miller Indices are usually defined as a vector (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
(symbolic vector) representation that is used for the 20. Statement (I) :
arrangement of planes of atoms in a crystal lattice. A lattice defect gets created whenever the
In a simple cubic unit cell, intercepts are a, b/3, 2c is 2, periodicity or order of the crystal lattice gets
6, 1. disturbed.
16. If a graphite in a HB pencil is 2 mm thick then Statement (II) :
the bonding in direction of its thickness will be Point defect, line defect, surface defect and
of volume defect create defect in lattice.
(a) Van der Waals type (b) Mixed type ESE 2017
(c) Covalent type (d) sp3 type Ans. (b) : Defects is lattice are deviation from their
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III uniform arrangment of particles.
Ans. (a) : If a graphite in a HB pencil is 2 mm thick Statement I- True.
then the bonding in direction of its thickness will be of Point defect, line defect, surface defect occurs in lattice.
Van der Waals type. Statement II- True
17. Which of the following signals is used when a But statement II does not follows I.
peripheral device request the microprocessor 21. An atom in a crystal vibrates at a frequency,
to have a DMA operation? determined by:
(a) IO/ M (b) READY 1. Crystal heat current
2. Crystal temperature
(c) HOLD and HLDA (d) RD and WR
3. The stiffness of the bonds with neighbour
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 atoms

Select the correct answer using the codes given 25. If (n) is lattice points per unit cell of the cubic
below: system, (N) and (M) are the Avogadro's
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only number and atomic weight, respectively, and
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (ρ) is the density of the element, then the lattice
ESE 2017 constant (a) is
Ans. (c) : Frequency is determined by the rate of the 1 1
electron as if orbits the nucleus. Stiffness of the bonds  Mρ  3  NM  3
with neighbour atoms determines frequency of atom in (a)   (b)  
 nN   nρ 
a crystal. 1 1
22. Consider the following statements:  nM  3  Nρ  3
1. Nano means 10–9 so that nano materials have (c)   (d)  
an order of dimension higher than the size of  Nρ   nM 
atom and come in the form of rods, tubes, ESE 2018
spheres or even thin sheets/films. Ans. (c) : On the basis of given data :
2. Nano materials have enhanced or changed n = number of atoms in a unit cell
structural property. M = atomic weight gm/mol
3. Nano elements lend themselves to mechanical N = Avogadro’s number
processing like rolling, twisting, positioning. Vuc = Volume of unit cell for cubic system
4. Nano elements show important electrical, ∵ Vuc = a3
magnetic and optical characteristics that are
useful in electrical industry. n×M
ρ=
Which of the above statements are correct? N × a3
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 1
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4  n × M 3
(c) 3 and 4 only a= 
 N×ρ 
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
ESE 2017 26. With reference to nano materials, the prefix
Ans. (b) : Radius of an atom is of order 10–10 to 10–14 m nano stand for
whereas nano means 10–9m whose order of dimension is (a) Nano centimetre (b) Nanometre
higher and nano-materials do exist in the form of rods, (c) Nano micrometre (d) Nano millimetre
takes, spheres etc., Nano materials under goes nano ESE 2019
technology in which manipulation of materials are done
and processed at the nano scale level and also these Ans. (b) : Nano materials, the prefix nano stands for
exhibit important electrical magnetic and optical Nanometre.
characteristics that are useful in electrical industry. The size of nanomaterial less than approximately 100
23. What type of defect causes F-centres in a nanometres.
crystal? 1 Nanometre = 10-9 m
(a) Stoichiometric defect 27. Consider the following applications:
(b) Metal excess defect due to anion vacancies • High temperature heat engines
(c) Metal excess defect due to extra cations
(d) Frenkel defect • Nuclear fusion reactors
ESE 2017 • Chemical processing industry
Ans. (b) : In metal excess defect due to anionic • Aeronautical and space industry
vacancies causes F-centers in a crystal. This type of Which one of the following materials will be
defect is observed in those crystals which are likely to used for these applications?
form schottky defects. (a) Zirconia (b) Alumina
Alkali metal halides like NaCl and KCl show this type (c) Ceramic (d) Silicon carbide
of defect.
ESE 2019
24. What is the correct sequence of the following
materials in ascending order of their Ans. (d) : Silicon carbide is used for
resistivity? • High temperature heat engines.
1. Iron 2. Silver • Nuclear fusion reactors.
3. Constantan 4. Mica • Chemical processing industry.
5. Aluminium
Select the correct answer using the codes given • Aeronautical and space industry.
below: 28. The machine used for the preparation of nano
(a) 2, 5, 1, 3 and 4 (b) 4, 5, 3, 1 and 2 particles of alumina is
(c) 2, 3, 1, 5 and 4 (d) 4, 5, 1, 3 and 2 (a) Attrition mill (b) Grinding machine
ESE 2017 (c) Vending machine (d) Welding machine
Ans. (a) : Resistivity of Silver = 1.6 × 10–8 Ω.m ESE 2019
Resistivity of Aluminium = 2.8 × 10–8 Ω.m Ans. (a) : Attrition mill is a device for mechanically
Resistivity of Iron = 1.0 × 10–7 Ω.m reducing solid particle size by intense agitation of a
Resistivity of Constantan = 4.9 × 10–7 Ω.m slurry of material being of material being milled and
Resistivity of Mica = 0.9 × 1013 Ω.m coarse milling media.
29. Materials in which the atomic order extends Ans. (d) :The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is
uninterrupted over the entirety of the εεA
specimen; under some circumstances, they may C= 0 r
have flat faces and regular geometric shapes, d
are called 1 d
=
(a) Anisotropy (b) Crystallography C ε0 ε r A
(c) Single crystals (d) Crystal system or
ESE 2019 2. At charge - free dielectric interface
Ans. (c) : Single crystals are materials in which the (a) tangential components of both E and D are
atomic order extends uninterrupted over the entirety of continuous
the specimen; under some circumstances they may have (b) normal components of E and D are
flat faces and regular geometric shapes. The vast continuous
majority of crystalline solids, however, are (c) tangential components of E are continuous
polycrystalline, being composed of many small crystals
or, grains having different crystallographic orientations. and normal component of D are continuous
30. Which material possesses the following (d) tangential components of E are continuous
properties? but normal components of D are
• Shining white colour with luster discontinuous
• Soft, malleable and can be drawn into wires WBPSC AE 2003
• Poor in conductivity and tensile strength Ans. (c) :
• Used in making alloys with lead and copper 3. Unit of dielectric constant is
• Used for fuses and cable sheathing (a) farad m–1 (b) ohm m–1
–1
(a) Silver (b) Tin (c) lux m (d) henry m–1
(c) Nickel (d) Aluminium WBPSC AE 2003
ESE 2019 Ans. (a) :
Ans. (b) : • Tin-lead alloy is used for fuse wire. 4. In an electric press, mica is used
• Silver and aluminium have very high electrical (a) As an insulator
conductivity. (b) As a device for power factor improvement
31. The Miller effect input capacitance CMi is (c) For dielectric heating
(d) For induction heating
(a) (1 − A 2V ) D f (b) (1 − A V ) Cf TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (a) : Mica is an insulator, which is mainly used in
(c) (1 − Cf ) AV (d) (1 − C 2f )A V electrical machine and other device like electric press,
where, Cf = feedback capacitance induction machine and dc machine. Hence mica is
V electrical insulator.
AV = O 5. Change in the frequency of supply does not
Vi affect the
ESE 2019 (a) Dielectric heating
Ans. (b) : Input capacitance (miller effect) (b) Electrical resistance heating
C Mi = (1-AV) Cf (c) Induction heating
Where, Cf = feedback capacitance (d) Microwave heating
V TSPSC AEE 2017
AV = 0
Vi Ans. (b) : Electrical resistance heating does not affect in
change in frequency because the property of resistor
does not depends on frequency.
(ii) Dielectric Properties of 6. V being the voltage impressed on a dielectric,
Material dielectric loss is proportional to
(a) V (b) V2
1. In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance (c) 1/V (d) V–2
(C) is given by the relation where d is the TSPSC AEE 2017
distance between two plates. A is the cross- Ans. (b) : Dielectric loss of dielectric is given as
sectional area of plate εr is the relative
permittivity P = 2πfCV2 tanδ
From above equation, P ∝ V2. Hence we can say that
εεd
C= 0 r d dielectric loss is proportional to the square of the
(a) A (b) C = voltage impressed on the dielectric.
ε0εr A
7. Fiber glass insulation can be used up to
1 ε0ε r d temperature of
= 1 d
(c) C A (d) = (a) 60oC (b) 80oC
C ε0 ε r A (c) 130 Co
(d) 180oC
GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 Vizag Steel MT 2012

Ans. (c) : Fiber glass insulation is one of the widely Ans. (c) :
used insulator. It can be used upto temperature of 130o 13. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of
C. the order of
8. A good dielectric should have all the following (a) 0.002 (b) 0.0002
properties EXCEPT (c) 0.02 (d) 0.2
(a) high mechanical strength WBPSC AE 2017
(b) high resistance to thermal deterioration Ans. (b) :
(c) high dielectric loss 14. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between
(d) freedom from gaseous inclusions two plates of an air capacitor, the capacitance
Vizag Steel MT 2012 (a) will decreases
Ans. (c) : A Good dielectric material must not have (b) remain unchanged
high dielectric loss. (c) will increase
9. The impurity in liquid dielectric which has (d) becomes zero
significant effect in reducing the breakdown WBPSC AE 2017
strength, is Ans. (c) :
(a) dust (b) dissolved gases 15. Which one of the following materials is having
(c) moisture (d) ionic impurities higher dielectric strength?
Vizag Steel MT 2012 (a) Polyethylene (b) Polyvinylchloride
Ans. (c) : Moisture presence in the liquid dielectric (c) Mica (d) Transformer oil
significantly reduces the breakdown strength of the UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
dielectric. Ans. (c) :
10. Dielectric heating is not used for 16. Which one of the following breakdown occurs
(a) preheating plastic performs due to an excessive voltage applied to a
(b) heating of glass for glass working dielectric material?
(c) sterilizing surgical instruments (a) Thermal breakdown (b) Intrinsic breakdown
(d) wood gluing and glue line heating (c) Defect breakdown (d) Defect breakdown
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
Ans. (c) : Dielectric heating- Dielectric heating is a Ans. (b) :
non conducting material which can be polarized in the
presence of electric field. They have ability to store 17. The heat generated in the material during
energy when external electric field applied. A dielectric dielectric heating is directly proportional to
is always an insulator. Therefore dielectric heating is (a) the frequency
not used for sterilizing surgical instruments. (b) the square of frequency
(c) square root of frequency
11. Which one of the following statements is not (d) cube of frequency
correct related to dielectric loss in dielectric WBPSC AE 2008
heating? Dielectric loss is
(a) proportional to the supply voltage Ans. (a) :
(b) proportional to the supply frequency 18. What is the magnitude of relaxation time in an
(c) proportional to loss factor ideal dielectric?
(d) proportional to area of the plate (a) 0 (b) 01
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-I (c) ∞ (d) >1
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
Ans. (a) : Dielectric heating is heating caused due to
Ans. (c) : Magnitude of relaxation time for ideal
dielectric loss in insulating material. Dielectric loss is dielectric is infinite.
power loss occurring in dielectric material (Insulating
19. The dielectric losses occur in all solid and
material) when it is subjected to electric field. liquid dielectric due to
Note:-This loss increases with frequency of applied (a) Conduction current
alternating voltage or frequency and area of plate (b) Hysteresis
Dielectric loss = 2(π × f × C × V2 × tan θ) (c) Both Conduction current & Hysteresis
εA (d) None of these are correct
= 2(π × f × 0 × V2 × tan θ) MPPSC AE 2016
t
Ans. (c) : Solid and liquid dielectric have same
f = frequency of supply resistance so there is conduction losses along with
V = voltage hysterisis loss.
C = capacitance, is directly proportional to permittivity 20. The temperature independent polarization is
of the insulating material (a) Orientation polarization
tan θ = loss tangent (b) Space discharge polarization
12. Which material has a lower dielectric strength (c) Electronic polarization
at 50 Hz? (d) Space charge polarization
(a) Bakelite (b) Glass Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
(c) Air (d) Dielectric oil Ans. (c) : The temperature independent polarization is
WBPSC AE 2017 electronic polarization..
21. Materials which are electrical insulators and in 26. The direction of rotation of shaded pole motor
which an electric field can be sustained with a depends on
minimum dissipation of power can be named as (a) Supply frequency
(a) Magnetic materials (b) Semi-conductors (b) No. of poles on the stator
(c) Super conductors (d) Dielectric materials (c) Which half of pole is shaded
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I (d) Supply voltage
Ans. (d) : Dielectric materials are electrical insulators GMB AE 2017
and in which an electric field can be sustained with a Ans. (c) : The direction of rotation of shaded pole
minimum dissipation of power in electric field, it works motor depends on which half of pole is shaded. The
as conductor. direction of this rotating field (flux) is from the un-
22. The induced dipole moment is proportional to shaded to the shaded portion of the pole. The direction
the field strength and the proportionality factor of rotation is clockwise. In a shaded-pole motor the
αe is called reversal of direction of rotation is not possible.
(a) Electronic polarizability 27. The relative permittivity of air is-
(b) Protonic polarizability (a) 8.854 × 10–12 µF/m
(c) Electronic field strength (b) 1
(d) Nuclear polarizability (c) 0
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I (d) None of above
Ans. (a) : Electronic polarization is the relative GMB AE 2017
tendency of a charge distribution, like the electron cloud Ans. (b) : The relative permittivity of air is 1.
of an atom or molecule, to be distorted from its normal Permittivity is the ability of substance to store electrical
shape by an external electric field. energy in an electric field.
23. What happens to the capacitance if mica is 28. In dielectric heating, heat produced is
inserted between the plates of an air capacitor? proportional to ______.
(a) The capacitance increases (a) Square of frequency of supply
(b) The capacitance decreases (b) Square of frequency and square of supply
(c) The capacitance remains the same voltage
(d) The capacitance becomes zero (c) Square of supply voltage
KPTCL AE 2015 (d) Frequency and square of supply voltage
Ans. (a) : If mica is inserted between the plates of an air Karnataka PSC AE 2016
capacitor then the capacitance increases. Ans. (d) : In dielectric heating, the heat produced is
ε0 A proportional to the frequency and square to supply
C= voltage.
 t Dielectric heating can be written as–
( d − t ) + K 
P = 2πfCV 2 tan δ
Where ε 0 = Permittivity of medium P ∝ f, P ∝ V2
K= dielectric constant Where, f = Supply frequency
A= Area
t = thickness 29. The relative permittivity is the least among the
following for:
24. A circular polarized wave are same then– (a) paper (b) Air
(a) Magnitude of two wave are same but phase (c) Glass (d) vacuum
difference is 900C DSSSB AE 2019
(b) Magnitude of two wave are same but phase
difference is zero Ans. (d) : The relative permittivity is least among the
(c) Phases of two waves are same following for vacuum.
(d) Magnitude at the two waves are the same Absolute permittivity ε = ε0 ε r
Vizag Steel MT 2011 Where: εr= relative permittivity = 1(Air), 1.8–2.6
Ans. (a) : If light is composed of two plane waves of (Paper), 512 (glass)
equal amplitude but differing in phase by 900, then the ε0= permittivity of free space = 8.85×10–12 F/m
light is said to be circularly polarized. 30. For dielectric heating, the range of frequency
25. If Im and Is are current in main and starting normally used is
winding in 1 – φ I.M. and α is angle between Im (a) 10 kHz to 100 kHz (b) 100 kHz to 1 MHz
and Is. The motor torque is given by (c) 1 MHz to 10 MHz (d) 10 MHz to 40 MHz
(a) T ∝ Im Is (b) T ∝ Im Is cos α UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I
(c) T ∝ Im Is sin α (d) None of above Ans. (d) : For dielectric heating, the range of frequency
GMB AE 2017 normally used is 10 MHz to 40 MHz.
Ans. (c) : If Im and Is are current in main and starting 31. The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy
winding in 1 – φ I.M. and α is angle between Im and Is. dielectric increases with increasing–
The motor torque is given by- (a) Conductivity (b) Permeability
Te ∝ (starting current) (Running current)sin α (c) Wavelength (d) Permittivity
Te ∝ I m Is sin α RPSC VPITI 2016

Ans. (c) : The depth of penetration or skin depth ( δ ) is- ε εA
Ans. (b) : C = 0 r
1 D
δ=
πfµσ C1 ε r
= 1
Thus the depth of penetration is inversely proportional C 2 ε r2
to the frequency. Thus, it has to be directly proportional C1 2
to the wavelength. =
1 C2 1
∵ δ∝
f C
C2 = 1
1 2
f∝
λ 35. Which of the following device is necessarily
∴ δ∝λ required for automatic temperature control in
So, the depth of penetration ( δ ) of a wave in a lossy furnace–
dielectric increase with increasing wavelength ( λ ) . (a) Thermocouple
(b) Thermostat
32. A uniform plane wave has a wavelength of 2cm (c) Auto-transformer
in free space and 1cm in a perfect dielectric. (d) Heating element of variable resistance
What is the relative permittivity of dielectric? material
(a) 2 (b) 0.5 PTCUL AE 2012
(c) 4 (d) 0.25 Ans. (b) : The temperature selector on the thermostat is
LMRC AE 2015 set for the desired temperature. When the temperature in
2π 2π the furnace fall below or goes up the thermostat
Ans. (c) λ = = actuates, thin ensuring the required temperature of the
β ω µ∈
furnace.
λ0 ∈r ∈0 2 36. Liquids are generally used as insulating
= = materials upto stress of about :
λ ∈0 1
(a) 100 MV/cm (b) 50 MV/cm
∈r = 4 (c) 50 KV/cm (d) 500 V/cm
PTCUL AE 2016
33. When the air pocket is trapped inside a
Ans. (c) : Upto 50 KV/cm stress liquids are used as
dielectric of relative permittivity "5", for a insulating materials.
given applied voltage across the dielectric, the
37. Which of the following capacitors is polarized?
ratio of stress in the air pocket to that in the
(a) Mica
dielectric is equal to
(a) 1/5 (b) 5 (b) Ceramic
(c) 1 + 5 (d) 5 – 1 (c) Plastic Film
LMRC AE 2015 (d) Electrolytic
GOA PSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2019
Ans. (b) Given that ε r1 = 1, ε r2 = 5
Ans. (d) : The electrolytic capacitor is designed with
Dielectric strength D = ε0 ε r t polarity and managed to achieve a high amount of
1 capacitance.
and E∝ 38. The ceramic dielectric used in electrical
εr
engineering includes:
Here applied voltage is same, so ratio of stress,
(a) Porcelain and cermet
E1 ε r2 (b) Silicide and cordierite
=
E 2 ε r1 (c) Cermet and silicide
E1 5 (d) Cordierite and porcelain
= UPPCL AE 2015
E2 1
Ans. (a) The ceramic dielectric used in electrical
So, Option b is correct. engineering includes porcelain and ceramic.
34. A given cable has a dielectric material of 39. Materials having high dielectric constant,
relative permittivity 2, if the dielectric material which is non-linear, are called
is replaced by the material having relative (a) Hard dielectrics
permittivity 1. Then the capacitance C (b) Ferroelectric materials
becomes, (c) Paramagnetic materials
(a) Remains unchanged (b) C/2 (d) Super dielectrics
(c) C/4 (d) 2C UPPCL AE 2015
(e) less information Ans. (b) Materials having high dielectric constant,
CGPSC AE 2014 Shift-II which is non linear are called ferroelectric materials.

40. Which of the following materials has the Ans. (c) : Pyroelectric effect, can be described as the
maximum dielectric strength? ability of certain materials to generate a temporary
(a) Soft rubber (b) Polystyrene voltage when they are heated or cooled. Then change in
(c) Porcelain (d) Glass temperature modifies the position of the atoms slightly
UPPCL AE 2015 within crystal structure.
Ans. (a) Soft rubber material has the maximum 46. The permeability of iron can be increased by
dielectric strength. A perfect vacuum has the highest (a) alloying with cobalt
dielectric strength. Rated at 1 × 1012 MV/m (b) its purification
41. Polarization of a radio wave is taken as the: (c) controlling the carbon percentage
(a) Normal to the direction of magnetic field
(b) Direction of magnetic field in space (d) None of the above
(c) Normal to direction of the lines of force in the BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V
electric field Ans. (a) : Permeability of iron can be increased by
(d) Direction of the lines of force in the electric alloying with cobalt.
field. Permeability is the measure of the resistance of
UPPCL AE 2015 material against the formation of magnetic field.
Ans. (d) Polarization of radio wave is taken as the 47. The potential due to a dipole falls off
direction of lines of force in the electric field. approximately
42. The relative permeability of the medium µr is (a) as the inverse of the square of the distance
related to its own permeability µ and (b) as the inverse of the proportional to the
permeability of free space µ0 as: distance
µr (c) proportional to the square of the distance
(a) µ = (b) µ 0 = µµ r
1 − µ0 (d) None of the above
µ BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V
(c) µ r = (d) µ r = µµ 0
µ0 Ans. (a) : The potential due to a dipole depends on r
UPPCL AE 2015 (distance b/w the point where potential is calculate and
µ the mid point of dipole) and angle between position
Ans. (c) Relative permeability µ r = vector r and dipole moment P.
µ0 Dipole moment is inversely proportional to square of r.
µ = µ 0µ r 48. Dielectric strength of a material depends on :
43. Which method of heating is likely to give (a) Moisture content (b) Temperature
leading power factor? (c) Thickness (d) All of the above
(a) Electric arc heating (b) Induction heating OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
(c) Dielectric heating (d) Resistance heating
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 Ans. (d) : Dielectric strength of a material depends
Ans. (c) : In dielectric heating, the current is drawn by upon
the capacitor. When an AC supply voltage is applied (i) Moisture content
across the capacitor plates, the current does lead the (ii) Temperature
supply voltage by exactly 900. Since the "Dielectric (iii) Thickness
heating" is involved the capacitor, so the power factor 49. What is the absolute permittivity of a dielectric
will be leading in the case of dielectric heating. medium where ε0 is the permittivity of free
44. When some materials are heated above certain
temperatures, they start radiating energy in the space and εr is the relative permittivity of the
form of light. This phenomenon is called medium?
(a) Luminance (b) Corona (a) ε0 / ε1 (b) ε0 ε1
(c) Reminance (d) Permiance
(c) ε1 / ε0 (d) None of these
Ans. (a) : When some materials are heated above GESCOM AE 2011
certain temperatures, they start radiating energy in the Ans. (b) : Absolute permittivity:- It is the measure of
form of light. This phenomenon is called Luminance. resistance that is encounted when forming an electric
Its unit is cd/m2 field in a medium.
45. Owing to the fact that the polarisation due to ε = ε0ε r
permanent dipoles present inside an insulation ε0 = is the permittivity of free space
depends on the temperature, as such, a change
in the temperature of the crystal produces a ε r = relative permittivity of medium.
change in polarisation which can be detected. 50. Which of the following has the highest
Thus, it is called the dielectric constant?
(a) Paralelectric effect (b) Piezoelectric effect (a) Germanium (b) Vacuum
(c) Pyroelectric effect (d) Ferroelectric effect (c) Glass (d) Mica
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III GESCOM AE 2011
Ans. (a) : Germanium has the highest dielectric Ans. (d) : The single phase induction motor having the
constant. highest power factor at full load is capacitor-run type
Glass = 3.7 - 10 motor. In 1-φ capacitor run motor has highest power
Mica = 3 - 6 factor at full load. because in this motor their are 2-
Germanium = 16 capacitor are used, one is used for starting purpose and
Vacuum = 1 second is used for improving P.F.
Dielectric constant- A quantity which measures the 56. The frequencies and voltage used in Dielectric
ability of a substance to store electrical energy in an heating are :
electric field. (a) 10 – 30 MHz, upto 25 kV
51. Unimpregnated paper, silk, cotton, vulcanized (b) 50 – 60 Hz, upto 25 kV
natural rubber, thermoplastics that soften (c) 10 – 30 MHz, upto 100 V
above 900 C are categorized as which of the (d) 50 – 60 Hz, 110 V – 230 V
following insulation/thermal class? APTRANSCO AE 2017
(a) A (b) B Ans. (a) : In dielectric heating the material to be heated
(c) E (d) Y is placed as a slab between metallic A.C. supply for
GESCOM AE 2011 producing sufficient heating frequency between 10 and
Ans. (d) : Unimpregnated papers, silk, cotton, 30 MHz is used. Even though voltage up to 20 kV have
vulcanized natural rubber, thermoplastics that soften been used but from personal safety point of view
above 900 C are categorized as Y insulation/thermal voltage between 600 to 3 kV is commonly used.
class. 57. Out of the following dielectric materials which
52. At a dielectric- dielectric boundary the one has the highest thermal endurance?
pressure is (a) PVC (b) XLPE
(a) In a direction to draw the dielectric of higher (c) teflon (d) transformer oil
permittivity into the dielectric of lower Vizag Steel MT 2013
permittivity. Ans. (c) : Teflon has highest thermal endurance.
(b) In a direction to draw the dielectric of lower 58. A porous solid dielectric has a relative
permittivity into the dielectric of higher permittivity of 4. It is to be impregnated by a
permittivity. liquid dielectric whose relative permittivity
(c) The two dielectrics do not exert any pressure should ideally be
on each other. (a) 2 (b) 4
(d) None of the other options. (c) 8 (d) none of these
UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016 Vizag Steel MT 2013
Ans : (a) A dielectric boundary the pressure is in a Ans. (b) : For impregnation the relative permittivity
direction to draw the dielectric of higher permittivity in should be ideally 4.
to the dielectric of lower permittivity.
59. For an insulating material, dielectric strength
53. For homogeneous isotropic material the and dielectric losses should be, respectively.
polarization vector P is- (a) High and high (b) Low and high
(a) Directly proportional to the electric field (c) High and low (d) Low and Low
intensity E UPSC JWM 2017
(b) Inversely proportional to the electric field ESE 2000
intensity E
Ans. (c) : For insulating materials dielectric strength is
(c) Is not related to E
high so, it can withstand maximum electric field
without failure of dielectric strength and dielectric loss
should be low because more dielectric loss results in
Ans : (a) For homogeneous isotropic material the more heat in dielectric material.
polarization vector P is directly-proportional to the
electric field intensity E. 60. Which of the following capacitors have the
least breakdown voltage?
Pi = NαiE (a) Ceramic (b) Paper
Where αi = ionic polarizability (c) Mica (d) Electrolytic
54. Which of the following is an example of high LMRC AM 2018
frequency electric heating? Ans. (d) : The dielectric strength of the electrolytic material
(a) salt bath furnace (b) induction furnace is very less than the other type of dielectric materials. Hence,
(c) electric arc furnace (d) resistance welding it has least value of breakdown voltage.
KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014 Thus, electrolytic capacitor have the least breakdown
Ans. (b) : An example of high frequency electric voltage.
heating is induction furnaces. 61. A non-magnetic lossy dielectric material with
55. Which one of the following is the type of single- relative permittivity εr = 2.25 and conductivity
phase induction motor having the highest σ = 10–4 mho/m is applied with electromagnetic
power factor at full load ? wave of 2.5 MHz. What is the loss tangent?
(a) Shaded pole type (b) Split-phase type (a) 0.32 (b) 3.13
(c) Capacitor start type (d) Capacitor-run type (c) 11.11 (d) None of the above
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2020

Ans. (a) : Non-magnetic, µr = 1 Ans. (c) : Statement I is true but statement II is false.
Lossy dielectric (σ ≠ 0) Because an electrolytic capacitor is a polarized
σ = 10–4 ( ℧ / m ) capacitor whose anode plate is made of metal that forms
∈r = 2.25 an insulating Oxide layer through anodilization. These
f = 2.5 × 106 Hz are polarized component due to their asymmetrical
σ σ construction and can't be operated with any one of
loss tangent = tan δ = = electrode as anode positive with respect to other.
ωε 2πf × ε0ε r 65. A parallel-plate capacitor with air between the
plates has a capacitance of 10 pF. If the
10−4 distance between the parallel plates is halved
= {∵ ω = 2πf } and the space between the plates is filled with a
( 6 ) 1 −9 
2π 2.5 × 10  ×10  (2.25) material of dielectric constant 5, the newly
 36π  formed capacitor will have a capacitance of
18 (10−1 ) (a) 10 pF (b) 50 pF
= = 0.32 (c) 100 pF (d) 150 pF
(2.5)(2.25)
ESE 2018
62. The dielectric strength of air under normal Ans. (c) For the case when, there is only air between
condition is–
(a) 100 kV/cm (b) 150 kV/cm the capacitor plates.
(c) 30 kV/cm (d) 50 kV/cm ∈ A
C = 0 = 10 pF .......................(i)
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 d
Ans. (c) : In a normal condition, T = 25°C, P = 76 cm Where, A = area of plates
of Hg, and the dielectric strength of air under normal When d is halved and dielectric with dielectric constant
condition is 30 kV/cm. of 5 is inserted.
The dielectric strength of a material is a measure of the
electrical strength of an insulator. ∈∈ A ∈ A 
C ' = r 0 = 2 ∈r  0 
It is defined as the maximum voltage required to d/2  d 
produced a dielectric breakdown, through the material where ∈r = 5
and is expressed in term of volts per unit thickness.
63. Out of the following methods of heating the one ∴ C ' = 2 × 5 [ C ] = 10C
which is independent of supply frequency is C ' = 10 × 10 pF = 100 pF
(a) electric arc heating C' = 100 pF
(b) induction heating
(c) electric resistance heating 66. When an alternating voltage of a given
(d) Dielectric heating frequency is applied to a dielectric material,
KPTCL AE 2016 dissipation of energy occurs due to
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2014 1. Continual change in the orbital paths of the
Ans. (c) : Resistance is independent of supply electrons in the atomic structure
frequency, hence electric resistance heating method is 2. A small conduction current through the
independent of supply frequency. dielectric
Directions: 3. Eddy currents
consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement Which of the above statements are correct?
(I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these (a) 1, 2 and 3
two statements carefully and select the answers to (b) 1 and 2 only
these items using the codes given below: (c) 1 and 3 only
Codes: (d) 2 and 3 only
(a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are ESE 2018
individually true; and Statement (II) is the Ans. (b) :
correct explanation of Statement (I) In dielectric material, The dissipation of energy takes
(b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are place due to following causes :–
individually true; but Statement (II) is 1. Continual change in the orbital paths of electrons
(I) due to AC fields.
(c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is 2. A small conduction current through the dielectric.
false No eddy current losses in dielectric.
(d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement (II) is 67. A barium titanate crystal is inserted in a
true
parallel plate condenser of area 10 mm × 10
64. Statement (I) : An electrolytic capacitor consists
mm. The plate having a separation of 2 mm,
of two electrodes immersed in an electrolyte with
a chemical film on one of the electrodes acting as give a capacitance of 10–9 F. If the value of ε0 =
the dielectric. 8.854 × 10–12 Fm–1, the relative dielectric
Statement (II) : The electrolytic capacitor may be constant of the crystal will be nearly
operated with any one of the electrodes as anode (a) 2640 (b) 2450
positive with respect to the other. (c) 2260 (d) 2080
ESE 2018 ESE 2020

Ans. (c) : For a parallel capacitor, 2. Hysteresis loss (Ph) is computed using the
∈∈ A equation
capacitance, C = o r (a) Ph = K1.6 (b) Ph = K h B1.6
d h Bf m f
Given, C = 10–9F (c) Ph = K h Bf 1.6 (d) Ph = K h B1.6 f 1.6
A = 10 mm × 10 mm = 10–4m2 TANGEDCO AE 2018
d = 2mm = 2 × 10–3m Ans. (b) : Hysteresis loss is given by relation
∈∈ A
since, C = o r Ph = K h B1.6
m f
d Where Kh = Hysteresis constant
Cd 10−9 f = frequency
∈r = = × 2 ×10−3
∈o A 8.854 × 10−12 × 10−4 3. Unit of permeability is–
= 0.22586 × 104 (a) Henry/meter (b) Henry
= 2258.86 ≈ 2260 (c) Henry/meter2 (d) it is dimensionless
UPPCL AE 2013
68. Dielectric materials are essentially.
(a) Insulating materials Ans. (a) : The magnetic permeability is defined as the
(b) Conducting materials property of the material to allow the magnetic line of
(c) Semi conducting materials force to pass through it.
(d) Ferro electric materials The SI unit = Henry per meter (H/m)
MPPSC AE 2017 Permeability is the measure of the resistance of a
WBPSC AE 2012 material against the formation of a magnetic field.
Ans. (a) : Dielectric materials are essentially insulators, 4. If the permeability of a material is 0.999991 it
which means that no current will flow through the can be classified as
materials when a voltage is applied across a dielectric (a) diamagnetic material
object, it becomes polarized. (b) paramagnetic material
(c) ferro-magnetic material
(iii) Magnetic Properties of (d) ferrite
Vizag Steel MT 2012
Material Ans. (a) : Permeability of diamagnetic material is less
than 1.
1. The velocity of light in a particular medium is
108 m/s. What is the relative permittivity of the
medium?
(a) 1.732 (b) 3
(c) 9 (d) 0.333
RPSC AE 2018
1
Ans : (c) Speed of light ( c ) =
µε
1
=
µ 0µ r ε 0 ε r Paramagnetic Diamagnetic
When placed in external When placed in external
F
ε0 = 8.85 ×10−12   magnetic field, total magnetic field, magnetic
m magnetic inside the field inside the material
−7  H  material decreases decreases.
µ 0 = 4π× 10  
m Magnetic susceptibility Magnetic susceptibility
1 (x) is +ve (x) is -ve
∵ µr = 1, 108 =
µ0ε0ε r Relative permeability (µ r ) µr is +ve but less than
Squaring both side is +ve and greater than one.

1 one. Example- Copper, Gold,
4π× 10−7 × 8.85 × 10−12 × εr = 16 Example- Aluminium, Bismuth.
10 Platinum, Chromium
1019 5. Materials which lack permanent magnetic
εr =
4 × 3.14 × 8.85 × 1016 dipoles are known as :
1000 (a) Paramagnetic (b) Diamagnetic
εr =
4 × 3.14 × 8.85 (c) Ferromagnetic (d) Ferrimagnetic
1000 HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
εr =
111.156 WBPSC AE 2017
ε r = 8.996 ESE 2008
εr ≃ 9 Ans. (b)

6. Which one of the following statements is not Ans. (a) : Diamagnetic materials are characterized by
correct? constant, small negative susceptibilities only slightly
(a) Ferrites are hard and brittle materials affected by temperature so it is independent of
(b) Ferrites have higher thermal conductivity temperature.
(c) Ferrites have a high resistivity 14. Which of the following is diamagnetic?
(d) Ferrites cannot be shaped by ordinary (a) MgO (b) BaTiO
machining process (c) Cobalt (d) Copper
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
Ans. (b) : Ans. (d) : Copper is diamagnetic. Zinc, Bismuth,
7. Which of the following are classified as copper, silver, gold antimony, marble, water, gold, Nacl
magnetic materials? etc are also diamagnetic.
(a) Ferro, Piezo, Pyro, Dia materials Ferro magnetic material µr >>>1
(b) Smooth and Hard materials
(c) Crystal, Pyro and Soft materials for paramagnetic material µr slightly greater than 1
(d) Dia, Para, Ferro, Anti Ferro and for diamagnetic material µr <1
Ferrimagnetic materials Copper is a diamagnetic material.
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 15. Reciprocal of magnetic permeability is
Ans. (d) : (RRB SSE Bilaspur Yellow paper, 21.12.2014)
8. Ferrites are (a) Conductance
(a) not easily machinable (b) Susceptance
(b) hard materials (c) Reluctivity
(c) brittle materials (d) Permittivity
(d) all of the above properties Ans : (c) Reciprocal of magnetic permeability is
WBPSC AE 2012 reluctivity.
Ans. (d) : Henry  B
Magnetic permeability = µ = 
9. ALNICO is a meter  H
(a) soft magnetic material
(b) hard magnetic material ampere turn  Ni 
and reluctance = R = 
(c) neither soft nor hard weber  φ
16. Under balanced condition of a bridge for
WBPSC AE 2008
measuring unknown impedance, if the detector
Ans. (b) : is suddenly taken out
10. The coercive force of AINICO is _________. (a) Measured value of impedance will be lower
(a) 44000 A/m (b) 40 A/m (b) Measured value of impedance will be higher
(c) 4 A/m (d) 0.16 A/m
(c) Measured value of impedance will not change
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016
(d) The impendence can not be measured
Ans. (a) : The coercive force of AINICO is 44000 A/m
MPPSC AE 2016
11. For paramagnetic materials, permeability is:
(a) zero Ans. (c) : As removing detector does not change current
(b) 1 suddenly in circuit. So measured value of impedance
(c) slightly greater than zero will not change.
(d) infinite 17. Maximum working temperature of Ni-Cu alloy
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 (constantan) is about
Ans. (c) : For paramagnetic materials permeability is (a) 1200ºC (b) 1600ºC
slightly greater than zero. (c) 500ºC (d) 800ºC
For diamagnetic materials permeability is less than zero
or negative. JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
12. Susceptibility of ferromagnetic materials is Ans. (c) : Maximum working temperature of Ni-Cu
________. alloy (constantan) is about 500ºC.
(a) small and positive (b) large and positive 18. The unit of relative permeability is _______
(c) zero (d) negative AT
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 (a) a Number (b)
Ans. (b) : Ferromagnetic materials have large and m2
positive value of susceptibility. AT N
ex : Fe, Cu, Ni (c) (d)
m wb
µr =1 + χ m
TSTRANSCO AE 2018
χ m = susceptibility Ans. (a) : Relative permeability is the ratio of
13. In diamagnetic materials: permeability of material to permeability of free space.
(a) Susceptibility is independent of temperature
(b) Susceptibility increases with temperature µ
µr =
(c) Susceptibility decreases with temperature µ0
(d) Susceptibility reaches infinity
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 Since, it is a ratio does not have any unit.
19. The magnetic pressure on a piece of magnetic Ans. (c) : Hysteresis is commonly found in
material is well defined by the relation ferromagnetic and ferroelectric materials.
(a) 2B2/µ0 (b) µ0/2B2 24. The ability of materials to become polarized
2
(c) B /2µ0 (d) 2 µ0/B2 under an applied electric field is called _______
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I (a) Ferroelectricity (b) Paraelectricity
Ans. (c) : The magnetic pressure is an energy density (c) Polectricity (d) None of these
associated with a magnetic field. Any magnetic field KPTCL AE 2015
has an associated magnetic pressure contained by the Ans. (b) : The ability of materials to become polarized
boundary condition on the field. under an applied electric field is called paraelectricity.
Magnetic pressure on piece of magnetic material 25. A neodymium magnet is a permanent magnet
B2 made from an alloy of _________
PB = (a) Neodymium and iron
2µ o (b) Neodymium, iron and iodine
B = magnetic flux density (in Tesla) (c) Neodymium and boron
µo = permeability (in H/m) (d) Neodymium, iron and boron
20. According to Curie law, the magnetic KPTCL AE 2015
susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance is Ans. (d) : A neodymium magnet is a permanent magnet
(a) directly proportional to the square of absolute made from an alloy of Neodymium, iron and boron.
temperature 26. The process of removing the unwanted
(b) inversely proportional to absolute temperature magnetism is called ______
(c) directly proportional to absolute temperature (a) Unmagnetization (b) Degaussing
(d) not varied with absolute temperature (c) Diamagnetization (d) Depoling
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II KPTCL AE 2015
Ans. (b) : Curie law for paramagnetic substance Ans. (b) : The process of removing the unwanted
C 1 magnetism is called degaussing.
χ= T > Tc χ∝ 27. The iron alloy, ALNICO is mainly used to
T − Tc T make ________
Tc = curie temperature (a) Temporary magnets
χ = magnetic susceptibility. (b) Permanent magnets
According to Curie law materials become more (c) Transmission lines
magnetic at lower temperature. (d) None of these
21. In a magnetic circuit, the relative permeability KPTCL AE 2015
of vacuum is Ans. (b) : The iron alloy ALNICO is mainly used to
(a) 4π × 10-7 (b) 100 make permanent magnets.
(c) 0 (d) 1 ALNICO is a family of iron alloys which in addition to
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II iron are composed primarily of Aluminium (Al), Nickel
Ans. (d) : Relative permeability (µr), ( µo µr = µ ) (Ni) and Cobalt (Co) hence acronym Al-Ni-Co.
ALNICO alloys are ferromagnetic are used to make
It is unitless- permanent magnets.
For vacuum µr = 1
28. The magnetic permeability of a diamagnet is
for Air µr = 1.0000004
_________
for cobalt µr = 170 (a) More than that of vacuum
for silicon steel µr = 5000 to 10,000 (b) Same as that of vacuum
22. All ferrous materials are suitable for (c) Less than that of vacuum
construction of core of electrical machines (d) 3.14 times that of vacuum
because they are having KPTCL AE 2015
(a) Very high permittivity Ans. (c) : The magnetic permeability of a diamagnetic
(b) Very low permeability is less than that of vacuum.
(c) Very low permittivity Diamagnetic materials are those materials that are
(d) Very high permeability
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II freely magnetized when placed in the magnetic
Ans. (d) : All ferrous metals are having iron as common field. However, the magnetization is in the direction
element. All ferrous materials are having very high opposite to that of the magnetic field.
permeability which makes these materials suitable for Magnetic susceptibility is small and negative.
construction of core of electrical machines. The relative permeability is slightly less than unity.
Due to high permeability, less excitation current is 29. Electrical heating elements are made up of
needed for the establishment of working fluxes. a. Nickel–Chromium
23. Hysteresis is commonly found in ______ b. Nickel–Chromium–Iron
(a) ferromagnetic materials c. Silicon carbide
(b) ferroelectric materials d. Tungsten
(c) both A and B
(d) none of these Which of the above metals/alloys is used for
KPTCL AE 2015 temperature above 1150 ºC?
(a) a (b) a and c 35. ............the Curie temperature, ............
(c) c and d (d) b and d materials behave like Paramagnetic.
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 (a) Below, Ferrimagnetic
Ans. (c) : Electric heating elements are made up of (b) Below, Ferro-magnetic
silicon carbide because silicon carbide has high (c) Above, Ferro-magnetic
resistance so it produce more heat. Tungsten also has (d) Above, dia-magnetic
high resistance. UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
30. If the area of hysteresis loop of a magnetic Ans : (c) Ferromagnetic material above Curie
material is large, the hysteresis loss in the temperature behaves as paramagnetic as the atoms lose
material will be their ordered magnetic moments when the material
(a) small undergoes a phase transition ferromagnetic material
(b) large below curie temperature becomes in its same state.
(c) zero 36. Which two values are plotted on a B-H curve
(d) independent of the area graph-
UKPSC AE 2007, Paper-I (a) reluctance and flux density
Ans. (b) : If the area of hysteresis loop of a magnetic (b) permeability and reluctance
material is large, the hysteresis loss in the material will (c) magnetizing force and permeability
be large. (d) flux density and magnetizing force
Hysteresis loss- PS PCL AE 2012
1.6 Ans. (d) : B-H curve graph are plotted between flux
Ph = K h .B m f density and magnetizing force .
Where, Kh= characteristic of material
Bmax = maximum flux density
Ph = hysteresis power loss per unit volume
31. The magnetic field used in the cavity
magnetron to-
(a) prevent anode current in the absence of
oscillations.
(b) ensures that the oscillations are pulsed.
(c) help in focusing the electron beam, thus
preventing spreading.
(d) ensures that the electrons will orbit around the
cathode.
Ans. (d) : The magnetic field used in the cavity
magnetron to ensures that the electrons will orbit around
the cathode. A magnetron called cavity magnetron
because the anode is made of resonant cavity and a
permanent magnet is used to produce a strong magnetic 37. The ability of a material to remain magnetized
field. after removal of the magnetizing force is
32. Which of the following is a ferroelectric known as
material? (a) permeability
(b) reluctance
(a) Stainless steel (b) Barium nitrate
(c) hysteresis
(c) Wrought iron (d) Brass (d) retentivity
UPPCL AE 2015 Mizoram PSC AE 2016
Ans. (b) Barium nitrate is a ferroelectric material. Ans. (d) : Hence when a material is magnetized by the
33. Area of hysteresis loop represents: magnetic force and after some time when magnetic
(a) Iron losses force is zero and some magnetic energy is present then
(b) Hysteresis losses that property is known as retentivity.
(c) Eddy current losses 38. Magnetostriction is a phenomenon whereby the
(d) Copper losses magnetisation of a ferromagnetic material
UPPCL AE 2015 leads to a change in
Ans. (b) Area of hysteresis loop represents hysteresis (a) relative permeability
loss. (b) physical dimensions
34. Which of the following material can be used for (c) spontaneous magnetisation
permanent magnets? (d) magnetic susceptibility
(a) Carbon steel (b) Alnico JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V
(c) Iron–Cobalt alloy (d) Barium Ferrite ESE 2005
UPPCL AE 2015 Ans. (b) : Magnetostriction is a phenomenon whereby
Ans. (c) Iron – cobalt alloy material can be used for the magnetisation of a ferromagnetic material leads to a
permanent magnets change in physical dimensions.

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 42. The materials used for permanent magnets are
answer using the codes given the lists: (a) soft magnetic materials
List-I List-II (b) magnetic materials
(Type of magnetic (Orientation (c) non-magnetic materials
material) of individual (d) hard magnetic materials
dipole moment) BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V
A. Ferromagnetic 1. ↓↓ Ans. (d) : The materials used for permanent magnets
B. Antiferro-magnetic 2. ↑↓↑↓ are hard magnetic materials.
C. Ferrimagnetic 3. ↑ Permanent magnets are made from special alloys
4. ↑↑↑↑ (ferromagnetic material) such as iron, nickel, and
Codes: cobalt.
A B C 43. In ferromagnetic materials, the spin moments
(a) 4 2 1 associated with two sets of atoms are aligned
(b) 1 2 4 (a) anti-parallel to each other
(c) 2 1 3 (b) parallel to each other
(d) 4 2 3 (c) random to each other
(d) anti-parallel but of unequal magnitude
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V
Ans. (a) : The orientation of industrial dipole moments: Ans. (b) : In ferromagnetic materials, the spin
Ferromagnetic → ↑↑↑↑ moments associated with two sets of atoms are aligned
Antiferromagnetic → ↑↓↑↓ parallel to each other.
Ferrimagnetic → ↓↓ 44. The conductivity of ferrite is
40. A sample of iron carrying a current is (a) less than that of ferromagnetic materials
subjected to a magnetic field. Match List-I with (b) equal to that of ferromagnetic materials
List-II to indicate the influence of angle (c) greater than that of ferromagnetic materials
between the magnetic field and current on the (d) None of the above
resistivity of the sample and select the correct BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V
answer from the codes given below: Ans. (a) : The conductivity of ferrite is less than that
List-I List-II of ferromagnetic material. Thus they are useful in
(Direction of Current) (Electrical high-frequency devices because of the absence of
resistivity) significant eddy current losses.
A. Parallel to 1. Increase
magnetization 45. The hysteresis loop of a magnetic material has
B. Perpendicular to 2. Decrease an area of 5 cm2 with the scales given 1 cm =
magnetization 2AT and 1 cm = 50 mWb. At 50 Hz, the total
3. Unchanged hysteresis loss :
Codes: (a) 15 W (b) 20 W
A B (c) 25 W (d) 50 W
(a) 1 2 UJVNL AE 2016
(b) 2 1
(c) 3 2 Ans. (c) Area under one hysteresis loop
(d) 3 1 = hysteresis loss / cycle 50 Hz
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V = 50 Cycles
Ans. (a) : When conductor is parallel to magnetic field, Scale: on x-axis; 1 cm = 2AT
emf is not induced in it → High resistance on y-axis; 1 cm = 50 mWb
When conductor is perpendicular to magnetic field, emf Areas = 5 cm2
is induced in it offer → Low resitance. Hysteresis loss 1 cycle = 5×2AT×50×10–3AT.Wb
41. Consider the following statements: = 500×10–3 W
Magnetic field induced orbital dipole moment For 50 cycles, hysteresis loss = 500 × 10–3×50
in an atom is: = 25W
1. in a direction opposite to that of the applied 46. When a Ferromagnetic material is magnetized
field
2. larger for larger atoms by alternating source voltage. The phenomenon
3. independent of effective electron mass of magnetostriction causes :
4. 1.3 times of zero-field orbital dipole moment (a) Increase in the body temperature
Of these statements (b) Change in permeability of the material
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct (c) Small changes in its dimension
(c) 3 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 4 are correct (d) Decrease in the saturation flux density
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V UJVNL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : Magnetic field induced orbital dipole Ans. (c). When a Ferromagnetic material is magnetized
moment in an atom is larger for larger atoms and is by alternating source voltage. The phenomenon of
independent of effective electron mass. magnetostriction causes small changes in its dimension.

47. For stainless steels, the grade 18/8 refers to 0.3125 × 108
steel with composition of (a) AT/wb
(a) 18% Nickel and 8% Chromium π
(b) 18% Chromium and 8% Manganese 0.2124 × 108
(c) 18% Chromium and 8% Nickel (b) AT/wb
π
(d) 18% Manganese and 8% Chromium
0.5632 × 108
JUVNL AE 2017 (c) AT/wb
Ans. (c) : 18/8 is probably the most commonly used π
stainless steel and contains 18% chromium and 8% 0.4561×108
nickel. The steel is also known as 304 (in the American (d) AT/wb
π
A 181 grade designation system). DMRC AM 2018
48. What is the SI unit for permittivity? Ans. (a) : Given that-
(a) F/M (b) Ω/M µ = µ 0µ r
(c) V/M (d) A/M
GESCOM AE 2011
Ans. (a) : Permittivity- The ability of a substance to
µ = 4π × 10−7 H / m {
µ 0 = 4 ×10−7 H / m
µ r = 1 (for air) }
store electrical energy in an electric field denoted by ε ℓ = 5 mm = 5 ×10 m –3
is known as permittivity. A = 4 cm2 = 4 × 10–4 m
SI unit of permittivity = F / m = Farad / meter As we know that,
ε = 8.85 × 10−12 farad / meter in air ℓ
Reluctance ( R ) = AT / Wb
ε = ε0ε r µA
49. What is the permittivity of free space (vacuum So, 5 × 10−3
R = AT / Wb
permittivity)? 4π × 10−7 × 4 ×10−4
(a) 8.854 × 109 (b) 8.854 × 10–12 0.3125 × 108
(c) 8.854 × 10 6
(d) 8.854 × 1015 = AT / Wb
π
GESCOM AE 2011
52. Ferro magnetic substances are those which
Ans. (b) : Permittivity of free space = ε 0 ε r when placed in a magnetic field
ε r = 1 for air (a) are weakly magnetized in opposition to the
applied field.
ε = ε0ε r (b) are weakly magnetized in direction of the
= 8.85×10-12×1 f/m applied field.
(c) are strongly magnetized in opposition to the
= 8.85 ×10−12 farad / meter applied field.
50. While measuring unknown resistance using (d) are strongly magnetized in direction of the
Wheatstone's bridge, two sets of readings are applied field.
taken, one with current flow in one direction
Ans. (d) : Ferromagnetic material have a large, positive
and the second by reversing the battery susceptibility to an external magnetic field. When
connections to the bridge through a quick magnetization force is applied, the domain become
acting switch. This is done in order to. aligned to produce a strong magnetic field.
(a) Compensate for the resistance of the contact In ferromagnetic material
leads. µ r >> 1
(b) eliminate the effects of thermoelectric emf. susceptibility
(c) minimise the errors due to change in χm = µr-1
resistance due to change in temperature
53. Unit of retentivity is :
(d) minimise the errors due to contact resistance. (a) Ampere turn (b) Ampere turn/meter
DMRC AM 2018 (c) Weber (d) Wb/m2
Ans. (b) : While measuring unknown resistance using HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
Wheatstone's bridge, two sets of readings are taken, one Ans. (d) : Retentivity– The amount of flux retained per
with current flow in one direction and the second by unit area.
reversing the battery connections to the bridge through a unit → weber/m2
quick acting switch. This is done in order to eliminate 54. Substances having permeability less than the
the effects of thermoelectric emf. permeability of free space are known as :
51. A rectangular iron core has a mean length of (a) Diamagnetic (b) Bipolar
magnetic path of 80 cm and cross sectional area (c) Paramagnetic (d) Ferromagnetic
of 4 cm2. An air gap of 5 mm is cut in the core. HPPSC AE 23 June 2019
If the relative permeability of iron is 1200, Ans. (a) : Substances having permeability less than the
what will be the reluctance of the air gap? permeability of free space are known as diamagnetic
materials.

55. A material produces a magnetic field which 58. When an external field E is applied to a
opposes the applied magnetic field, then it is : molecule carrying a permanent dipole moment
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic µp, the external field will tend to align µp along
(c) Electromagnetic (d) Ferromagnetic the direction of E. This is known as.
HPPSC AE 22 June 2019 (a) Orientational polarization
Ans. (a) : Diamagnetic material are those materials that (b) Electronic polarization
are freely magnetized when placed in the magnetic (c) Ionic polarization
field. The magnetic field produced by diamagnetic (d) Permanent polarization
material opposes the applied magnetic field. The UPSC JWM 2017
relative permeability of diamagnetic material is less Ans. (a) : Orientational polarization (P0) = Nα 0 E
then 1 µ r < 1 . p 2p
56. Which of the following materials is having less where, α 0 =
3kT
than unity relative permeability µr and N = No. of permanent dipoles
negative magnetic susceptibility? E = Electric field intensity
(a) Ferromagnetic (b) Paramagnetic α0 = Orientational polarizability
(c) Diamagnetic (d) Antiferromagnetic When an external field E is applied to a molecule
UPSC JWM 2017 carrying a permanent dipole moment µ , the external
p
Ans. (c) Diamagnetic materials relative field will tend to align µp along the direction of E. This
permeability ( µ r ) is less than unity. Ferromagnetic> is known as orientational polarization.
Paramagnetic>Antiferomagnetic> Diamagnetic. So 59. The materials used for permanent magnets
diamagnetic have least relative permeability ( µ r ) and should have:
(a) low retentivity, high coercivity
-ve susceptibility. (b) high retentivity, low coercivity
For diamagnetic, µ r ≤ 1, χ m = µ r − 1 (c) high retentivity, high coercivity
57. Hard magnetic materials are utilized in (d) low retentivity, low coercivity
permanent magnets. In terms of hysteresis CIL MT 2017
behaviour, a hard magnetic material does not Ans. (c) : It should have high retentivity so that it
possess. remains magnetized in the absence of the magnetizing
(a) Low energy loss when subjected to field.
alternating magnetic field.
(b) High remanence and coercivity
(c) Saturation flux density
(d) Low initial permeability
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (a) :
It should have high coercivity so that it does not get

demagnetised easily.
60. Which of the following electric heaters suffers
from pinching effect?
(a) Core type induction furnace
(b) Electric heater
(c) Coreless induction furnace
In term of hysteresis behaviour, a hard magnetic (d) High frequency eddy current heating
(e) Dielectric heating
material does not posses low energy loss when
CGPSC AE 2017
subjected to alternating magnetic field because the
Ans. (a) : Pinch effect-Manifestation of the magnetic
hysteresis loop of hard magnetic material is large and self-attraction of parallel electric currents, such as
hysteresis loss = area under the curve. constriction of ionized as in a discharge tube, or
Characteristics of hard magnetic materials:- constriction of molten metal through which a large
Low initial permeability. current is flowing. It occurs in core type induction
High coercivity & high remanence furnace.
High saturation flux density. 61. The area of a hysteresis loop for the magnetic
Reduces to saturation magnetization with a high material used in the rotor of a hysteresis motor
applied magnetic field. should be:
It can not be easily magnetized and demagnetized. (a) infinite (b) medium
High hysteresis loss. (c) very large (d) very small
Used as permanent magnets. BHEL ET 2019

Ans. (c) : A hysteresis motor is a synchronous motor
with a uniform air gap and without DC excitation.
(a) ( )
R = R g1 || R g2 + R g3
(b) R = ( R g1 + R g2 ) || R g3
(c) R = R g1 || R g2 + R g3
(d) (
R = R g1 + R g2 || R g3 )
Ans : (d)
The ring is made of hard chrome or cobalt steel having The above circuit can be drawn into the following
circuit-
a large hysteresis loop. So the equivalent reluctance of the circuit-
62. The B-H curve for a deltamax core is: Req = Rg1 + (Rg2||Rg3)
(a) Almost square (b) Almost circle 65. Reluctance (S), number of turns (N) and
(c) Almost triangle (d) Almost zero inductance (L) of a magnetic circuit is related
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II by the equation.
Ans. (a) : Delta max cores L N2
(a) N = (b) S =
It consists 50% iron (Fe) and 50% nickel (Ni) S L
Almost square BH magnetization curve. S N
(c) L = 2 (d) L =
Can be used as a bipolar switch. N S
Ans : (b) Inductance (L) related a certain magnetic flux
linkage an electric current (i) through N turn coil
conductor.
λ(i) = Nφ(i) = Li
63. Which of the following is not a permanent Reluctance (S) relates to certain m.m.f. F to magnetic
flux
magnet alloy?
(a) Silicon-iron (b) Hard iron F(φ) = Sφ
(c) Cobalt (d) Nickel ∵ F(i) = Ni [Ampere turns]
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II F(i) Ni Li
Then φ(i) = = =
Ans : (a) A magnetic alloy is a combination of various S S N
metals from the periodic table such as ferrite. The most
N2
common use permanent magnet alloy are Iron, Nickel, Thus. S =
Cobalt. Silicon Iron is not a permanent magnet alloy. L
These are `soft' magnetic metals. It can be magnetized 66. The magnetic susceptibility of a specimen is
but lost its magnetism quickly. (Ex. Nickel Iron Alloy) small and positive, the specimen is–
64. In the circuit shown, what is the reluctance (R) (a) Diamagnetic (b) Ferromagnetic
as seen from coil N1? (c) Paramagnetic (d) Non-magnetic
Ans. (c) : Magnetic susceptibility:- It is a measure of 70. The total magnetic moment
how much a material will becomes magnetize in an 1. is called saturation magnetization.
applied magnetic field. 2. depends on the number of magnetic dipoles
per unit volumes, the instant electric current
magnetic susceptibility ( χ m ) and the area of the current loop.
Magnetization ( M ) Which of the above statements is/are correct?
= (a) 1 only
Magneticfield intensity ( H ) (b) 2 only
The magnetic susceptibility of a specimen is small (c) Both 1 and 2
and positive then the specimen is called (d) Neither 1 nor 2
paramagnetic. ESE 2017
Susceptibility of diamagnetic material is constant, Ans. (b) : Magnetic moment = µm = IAµn
small and negative only slightly affected by change where, I = electric current
in temperature. A = Area enclosed by current/loop
Susceptibility of ferromagnetic material is not µn = number of magnetic dipole
constant large in amount of positive value. Thus, magnetic moment depends on above factors.
67. The phenomenon of magnetostriction occurs 71. When the working temperature becomes more
when a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized than Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic
resulting in: material becomes
(a) Heating (a) diamagnetic material
(b) Small changes in its dimensions (b) ferromagnetic material
(c) Small changes in its crystal structure (c) paramagnetic material
(d) Some changes in its mechanical properties (d) ferrimagnetic material
ESE 2017 BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans. (b) : Magnetostriction is a property of ESE 2005
ferromagnetic materials that causes them to change their ESE 2017
shape or dimension during the process of magnetization. Ans. (c) : When the working temperature becomes
68. Susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is more than curie temperature the ferromagnetic
1. Negative becomes paramagnetic material. Paramagnetic
2. Positive properties are due to the presence of some unpaired
3. Dependent on the temperature electrons.
4. Independent of the temperature 72. For high speed reading and storing of
Select the correct answer using the codes given information in a computer, the core shall be of:
below: (a) Ferrite
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) Piezoelectric
(c) Pyroelectric
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Ferromagnetic above 768oC
(c) 1 and 4 only ESE 2017
(d) 2 and 4 only ESE 2015
ESE 2017 Ans. (a) : Due to high magnetic permeability and high
ESE 2003 electrical resistance ferrites are employed for
Ans. (c) : For magnetic material (other than construction of core for high speed reading and storing.
diamagnetic) susceptibility is a function of temperature 73. Soft magnetic materials should have:
(a) Large saturation magnetization and large
but diagmagnetic material have negative susceptibiliy permeability
and independent of temperature. (b) Low saturation magnetization and large
69. Consider the following statements? permeability
1. The susceptibility χ of diamagnetic materials (c) Large saturation magnetization and low
is small and negative. permeability
2. The susceptibility of para and anti (d) Low saturation magnetization and low
permeability
ferromagnetic materials is small but positive. ESE 2017
3. The susceptibility has a finite value for free
space or air. Ans. (a) : A soft magnetic material should be easily
magnetized and demagnetized and should have high
Which of the above statements are correct? saturation magnetization, which means larger
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only permeability and saturation respectively.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 74. The magnetic susceptibility of aluminium is
ESE 2017 2.1×10–5. The permeability and relative
Ans. (a) : susceptibility of free space or air is zero. permeability are, respectively
χm = µr – 1 (a) 12.6 × 10–7 and 1.0021
(b) 1.26 × 10–7 and 1.0021
χm = 1 – 1 [∵ for air µ r = 1] (c) 12.6 × 10–7 and 1.000021
χm = 0 (d) 1.26 × 10–7 and 1.000021
So, only statements 1 and 2 are correct. ESE 2018

Ans. (c) : from the question :– Ans. (c) : Saturation Magnetization (MS) :
χ m = 2.1 × 10–5 = 0.60 × µB × NNi
Relative permeability µr = 1 + χ m ρ N 
= 0.60 ( 9.27 ×10−24 ) ×  Ni A 
µr = 1+2.1 × 10–5  A Ni 
µr = 1.000021
Permeability µ = µr µ0 8.90 ×106 × 6.023 × 1023
= 0.60 × 9.27 ×10−24 ×
= (1.000021) (4π × 10–7) 58.71
= 1.256 × 10–6 = 0.60 × 9.27 × 10-24 × 9.12 × 1028
µ = 12.6 × 10–7 = 5.1 × 105 A/m
75. An iron rod of 10–3m3 volume and relative So, saturation flux density,
permeability of 1150 is placed inside a long Bs = µ0Ms
solenoid wound with 5 turns/cm. If a current of = (4π × 10-7) × (5.1 × 105)
0.5A is allowed to pass through the solenoid, = 0.64 T
the magnetic moment of the rod is 78. The temperature at which iron ceases to be
(a) 2.87 × 104 A.m2 ferromagnetic and becomes paramagnetic is
(b) 28.7 × 103 A.m2 (a) Curie-Weiss point
(c) 2.87 × 102 A.m2 (b) Thermo-magnetic point
(d) 28.7 × 102 A.m2 (c) Ferro-paramagnetic point
ESE 2018 (d) Curie point
Ans. (c) : ESE 2019
The Formula of Magnetic dipole moment is :– Ans. (d) : The temperature at which iron ceases to be
Dm (Magnetic dipole moment) = n × i × A ferromagnetic and becomes paramagnetic is curie-
= 5 × 102 ×.5A × 10–3 temperature.
= 0.25 C
Paramagnetism : Curie law, χ m =
Magnetic dipole moment of rod = Dm × Relative T
Permeability Ferromagnetism : Curie-Weiss law,
= 0.25×1150 C
= 287.5 A.m2
χm = ( T > θ)
T−θ
= 2.875×102 A.m2 Where θ is curie temperature.
76. A magnetic field applied perpendicular to the Antiferromagnetism:
direction of motion of a charged particle exerts Curie- Weiss law,
a force on the particle perpendicular to both C
χm = ; at T > TN
the magnetic field and the direction of motion T + θN
of the particle. This phenomenon results in Where TN = Neel temperature.
(a) Flux effect (b) Hall effect 79. The saturation magnetization for Fe3O4, given
(c) Magnetic field effect (d) Field effect that each cubic unit cell contains 8 Fe2+ and 16
ESE 2019 Fe 3+ ions, where Bohr magneton is 9.274×10-24
ESE 2005 A.m2 and that the unit cell edge length is 0.839
Ans. (b) : nm, will be
(a) 1.25 × 105 A/m (b) 5 × 105 A/m
5
(c) 10 × 10 A/m (d) 20 × 105 A/m
ESE 2019
Ans. (b) : The saturation magnetization
MS = NFe2+ × 4 × µB
8
= × 4 × 9.27 × 10−24
→ → ( 0.839 ×10 ) −9 3
Force = q  V× B  ( Lorentz force )

  = 5.0 × 105 A/m
Due to this perpendicular force, moving changes Directions: consists of two statements, one labelled as
accumulates on one surface of specimen, producing 'statement (I)' and the other as 'statement (II)' you are to
Hall voltage. This phenomenon is known as Hall examine there two statements- carefully and select the
Effect. answers to these items using the codes given below.
Code:
77. The saturation flux density for Nickel having
(a) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
density of 8.90 g/cm3, atomic number 58.71 and
individually three and statement (II) is the
net magnetic moment per atom of 0.6 Bohr
correct explanation of statement (I)
magnetons is nearly
(b) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
(a) 0.82 tesla (b) 0.76 tesla
individually true, but statement (II) is not the
(c) 0.64 tesla (d) 0.52 tesla
correct explanation of statement (I).
ESE 2019
(c) Statement (I) is true, but statement (II) is Ans. (c) : We know that magnetising force at the center
false. of coil is proportional to flux density at center.
(d) Statement (I) is false, but statement (II) is
true.
80. Statement (I) : Soft magnetic materials, both
metallic and ceramic are used for making
transformers core, whereas, hard magnetic From ampere's law
materials both metallic and ceramic are used for
making permanent magnets.
Statement (II) : Magnetic materials, both metallic
∫
H. dl = NI
H.2πr = NI
and ceramic are classified as soft or hard
according to the magnetic hysteresis loop being NI
H=
narrow or broad. 2πr
ESE 2019 Force ∝ H
Ans. (a) : Soft-magnetic material - material can be NI
H∝
easily magnetized and demagnetized and follow rapid r
switching of magnetization to applied HC field. where N = No. of turns
Hard magnetic material - these materials are difficult I = Current in loop
to demagnetize they retain their magnetization even r = radius of loop.
offer the removal of field.
83. An analogous of magnetic circuit 'permeability'
So, statement-I and statement -II both are correct and
in electrical circuit is
statement-II is the correct explanation of statement-1.
(a) Reluctivity (b) Conductance
Directions: consists of two statements, one labelled as (c) Conductivity (d) Resistivity
'statement (I)' and the other as 'statement (II)' you are to ESE 2020
examine there two statements- carefully and select the
answers to these items using the codes given below. Ans. (c) : Since permeability is measure of easiness for
Code: magnetic field path.
(a) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are B = µH
individually three and statement (II) is the So, it is analogous to conductivity in electric circuit as it
correct explanation of statement (I) is measure of easiness of electric current in circuit
(b) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
J = σE
individually true, but statement (II) is not the
correct explanation of statement (I). 84. When ferromagnetic or ferrimagnetic
(c) Statement (I) is true, but statement (II) is materials are magnetized, the direction of
false. magnetization in any domain will be rotated
(d) Statement (I) is false, but statement (II) is from its preferential direction. This will show
an anisotropic behaviour On removal of the
true.
magnetizing force, the total magnetization will
81. Statement (I) : Soft iron does not retain
in general have a non-zero value. This
magnetism permanently.
behaviour is due to
Statement (II) : Soft iron has no retentivity. (a) Crystal anisotropics
ESE 2019 (b) Stress anisotropics
Ans. (c) : Soft iron does not retain magnetism (c) Shape anisotropics
permanently as it has very low retentivity (HC). Hence, (d) Crystal, stress and shape anisotropics
soft magnetic materials are easy to magnetize and easy ESE 2020
to demagnetize. Ans. (d) : Effect of certain factors on magnetization–
Hard magnetic materials are hand to magnetize and • Crystal anisotropic–Depending upon the
hard to demagnetize because it has high retentivity crystallographic orientation of the magnetic material,
(HC.) So, statement-I is true but statement-II is false. the magnetization reaches saturation at different
82. The magnetizing force at the centre of a fields.
circular coil varies • Stress anisotropic–Under a compressive force, the
1. Directly as the number of its turns. material can be magnetized most easily in the
2. Directly as the current.
direction of magnetization and under tension they
3. Directly as its radius.
magnetize easily in a direction perpendicular to the
4. Inversely as its radius
direction of magnetization.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only • Shape anisotropy–Ferromagnetic material is
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only magnetized most easily in the direction of its largest
ESE 2020 dimension.

85. The paramagnetic susceptibility varies
inversely with the absolute temperature for (iv) Conductive Material
ordinary fields and temperatures. It is given by
the relation 1. __________ is the property of conductor which
C is opposite to the property that opposes flow of
χ= . current.
T (a) Conductance (b) Resistance
The relation is known as (c) Reluctance (d) Inductance
(a) Phenomenon of magnetostriction
(b) Curie law of paramagnetism UPPCL AE 12-11-2016
(c) Hall Effect Ans : (a) Conductance is the property of conductor
(d) Diamagnetism which is opposite to the property that opposes flow
ESE 2020 current. This is reciprocal of resistance and is measured
Ans. (b) : Curie law of paramagnetic materials in siemens or mho ( ℧ ) .
C
χ= 1
T G=
χ - susceptibility; C = Curie constant; T = temperature R
in K. 2. In metals conduction current is due to
86. If the interaction between the atomic (a) all electrons
permanent dipole moments is zero or negligible (b) only conduction band electrons
and the individual dipole moments are oriented (c) electrons forming a dipole bond
at random, the material will be a (d) electrons taking part in a covalent bond
(a) Ferromagnetic material WBPSC AE 2009
(b) Ferrimagnetic material
(c) Paramagnetic material Ans. (b) :
(d) Antiferromagnetic material 3. The electrical resistivity of metals is based on
ESE 2020 the notion that
Ans. (c) : Paramagnetic materials contain randomly (a) scattering of protons is due to the deviation
oriented permanent dipoles. There is no interaction from the perfect periodicity of the lattice
among the dipoles, hence net permanent dipole moment (b) scattering of electrons is due to the deviations
is zero in the absence of field. from the perfect periodicity of the lattice
87. The magnetic moments of diamagnetic (c) scattering of neutron is due to the deviations
materials are mainly due to from the perfect periodicity of the lattice
(a) Electron spin angular momentum (d) scattering of electron - portion pair due to
(b) Nuclear spin angular momentum deviation from perfect periodicity of the
(c) Orbital angular momentum of the electrons lattice
(d) Centrifugal angular momentum WBPSC AE 2003
ESE 2020 Ans. (b) :
Ans. (c) : Diamagnetic Material
• Diamagnetic material have zero resultant magnetic 4. Gray iron is usually welded by
moment. (a) Gas welding (b) TIG welding
• Electron in an atom orbiting around nucleus have (c) MIG welding (d) Arc welding
orbital angular momentum just like a current carrying TSPSC AEE 2017
loop. Ans. (a) : Gray iron is usually welded by gas welding.
• When an external field is applied to diamagnetic Hence in gas welding, that melts and join metals by
material, those electrons having orbital magnetic heating them with a flame caused by reaction of fuel gas
moment opposite direction speeds up. Thus, the and oxygen.
diamagnetic material develops a net magnetic moment 5. The coefficient of adhesion is
in the direction opposite to that of the applied external (a) Zero in traction systems
magnetic field. (b) Low in case of AC traction high in DC
88. For which of the following materials, the traction
relative permeability is much greater than (c) High in AC traction low in case of DC
unity? traction
(a) Diamagnetic materials (d) Same on AC and DC traction systems
(b) Paramagnetic materials TSPSC AEE 2017
(c) Ferromagnetic materials Ans. (c) : The coefficient of adhesion is high in AC
(d) None of the above traction and low in case of DC traction. The adhesion
MPPSC AE 2017
coefficient is the ratio of the tractive effort force just
Ans. (c) : Material can be classified into 3 groups with
necessary slip the wheel on the track to the adhesive
regard to their relative permeability.
weight.
(i) Diamagnetic materials 0 ≤ µ r < 1
6. Nichrome wires can be safely used for heating
(ii) Paramagnetic materials µ r > 1 upto
(iii) Ferromagnetic materials µ r >> 1 (a) 1200ºC (b) 1400ºC
So ferromagnetic materials, the relative permeability is (c) 1500ºC (d) 2000ºC
much greater than unity. TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (a) : A common nichrome alloy have 80% nickle 13. Among the following, which alloying elements
and 20% chromium by mass. is added in magnet steel for making permanent
Nichrome has a high melting point and is equal to magnet?
1400ºC (2550ºF) (a) 15 to 40% Ni
So, it can be safely used for heating upto 1200ºC (b) 15 to 40% manganese
7. In 'plasma' state a gas (c) 15 to 40% Silicon
(a) loses electrical conductivity (d) 15 to 40% cobalt
(b) conducts electricity JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
(c) becomes perfect insulator Ans. (d) : 15 to 40% cobalt is added in magnet steel for
(d) attracts moisture making permanent magnet.
Vizag Steel MT 2012 14. The resistivity and melting point of a good
Ans. (b) : Plasma is a (Gaseous) state of matter heating element should be
containing charge nuclei or ions. So it conducts (a) high for both (b) low for both
electricity. (c) high and low (d) low and high
8. The electrical conductivity of metals is typically JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
of the order of (in ohm–1m–1) Ans. (a) : The resistivity and melting point of a good
(a) 107 (b) 104 heating element should be high for both.
(c) 105 (d) 106 15. The resistance standards are made up of wires
WBPSC AE 2017 of
Ans. (a) : (a) Phosphor bronze (b) Copper
9. For electrical contacts used in switches, (c) Nichrome (d) Manganin
brushes and relays, the material must possess: Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
1. High electrical conductivity Ans. (d) : The resistance standards are made up of
2. High thermal conductivity wires of Manganin.
3. High melting point Manganin is an alloy of typically 84% copper, 12%
4. Good oxidation resistance manganese and 4% nickel.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only Manganin coil or wire is used in the manufacture of
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 resistors, particularly ammeter shunts, because of its
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 virtually zero temperature coefficient of resistance
Ans. (d) : value.
10. Metallic copper is a : 16. Which of the following has nearly zero
(a) Ferromagnetic substance
temperature coefficient?
(b) Ferrimagnetic substance
(a) Constantan (b) Manganin
(c) Paramagnetic substance
(c) Both A and B (d) None of these
(d) Diamagnetic substance
KPTCL AE 2015
UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (c) : Constantan and manganin has nearly zero
WBPSC AE 2012
temperature coefficient.
ESE 2005
Ans. (d) Metallic copper is a diamagnetic substance. 17. Which of the following has the lowest electrical
conductivity?
11. Which of the following material has the highest (a) Mercury (b) Silver
electrical conductivity? (c) Copper (d) Gold
(a) Copper
KPTCL AE 2015
(b) Steel
(c) Aluminium Ans. (a) :
(d) Silver Ag = 1.6×10–8 (Ω-m)
WBPSC AE 2007 Cu = 1.72×10–8 (Ω-m)
Ans. (d) : Gold = 2.44×10–8 (Ω-m)
Al = 2.8×10–8 (Ω-m)
12. In a spring-controlled moving iron
instruments, the scale is Hg = 95.8×10–8 (Ω-m)
(a) Uniform So, mercury has the lowest electrical conductivity.
(b) Cramped at the lower end and expanded at 18. If the field of a synchronous motor is under-
the upper end excited the power factor will be
(c) Expanded at the lower end and cramped at the (a) lagging (b) leading
upper end (c) unity (d) more than unity
(d) Cramped both at the lower and the upper ends GMB AE 2017
MPPSC AE 2016 Ans. (a) : For synchronous motor
Ans. (d) : In spring controlled moving iron instruments When, Ef cos δ = Va normal excitation (unity p.f.)
the scale is cramped both at the lower and the upper Ef cos δ > Va, over excited machine (leading p.f.)
ends. Ef cos δ < Va, under excited machine (lagging p.f.)

19. A synchronous motor will deliver maximum Ans. (b) : Conducting materials are the materials
power when which allows the flow of charge in one or more
(a) load angle is equal to internal angle directions.
(b) input power factor is unity Gold and Silver are low resistive conducting materials.
(c) load angle is 45° 25. Materials whose specific resistance abruptly
(d) load angle is 0° falls at very low temperature are called
GMB AE 2017 (a) Insulators (b) Semiconductors
EVa (c) Conductors (d) Superconductors
Ans. (a) : P = sin δ UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
Xs UPPCL AE 2015
dp ESE 2014
Condition for maximum power output i.e. =0 Ans. (d) Material whose specific resistance abruptly
dδ
falls at very low temperature are called
i.e. Internal angle or Impedance angle θ = load angle δ superconductors. Superconductor are material that offer
20. In tempering process the steel is heated to a no resistance to electric current example-
temperature : Aluminum, niobium
(a) Below the lower critical point 26. The expulsion of magnetic flux from the
(b) Higher than the lower critical point interior of a piece of superconducting material
(c) In between the lower and upper critical point as the material undergoes the transition to the
(d) Higher than the upper critical point superconducting phase is known as
PTCUL AE 2016 (a) Hall's Effect (b) Piezoelectric Effect
Ans. (a) : In tempering process the steel is heated below (c) Seeback Effect (d) Meissner Effect
the lower critical point temperature to impart some Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III
toughness. Ans. (d) : Meissner Effect-It is the expulsion of a
magnetic field from a superconductor during its
21. 'Sorbite' is obtained when : transition to the superconducting state when it is cooled
(a) Quenching steel during transformation below the critical temperature.
(b) Steel is annealed
(c) A fully hardened steel is finally 'drawn' at 27. By addition of small amount of impurity
about 677°C content in the metal alloy, the residual
(d) None of these resistivity always
(a) decreases (b) has no effect
PTCUL AE 2016 (c) increases (d) reduce to zero
Ans. (b) : Sorbite is formed by rapid cooling of steel Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III
heated to above 400°C. It is softer and more ductile than Ans. (c) : By addition of small amount of impurity
troosite. content in the metal alloy, the residual resistivity always
22. The resistivities of copper and aluminium are increases.
respectively: 28. Which of the following has zero temperature
(a) 2.83×10–8 and 1.72×10–8 ohm meter coefficient of resistance?
–8 –8
(b) 41.72×10 and 2.83×10 ohm meter (a) Manganin (b) Nichrome
–8 –8
(c) 1.60×10 and 1.72×10 ohm meter (c) Carbon (d) Aluminium
(d) 1.72×10–8 and 1.60×10–8 ohm meter Punjab PSC SDE 2017
HPPSC Asstt. Prof. 2017 Ans. (a) : Mangnin has zero temperature coefficient of
Ans. (c) Resistivity of copper = 1.68×10–8 ohmmeter. resistance.
Resistivity of aluminium = 2.65×10–8 ohm-meter Positive temperature co-efficient: these are pure
Resistivity is a key parameter for any material used in metals ex- copper, silver etc.
electric circuits electronic components and many other Negative temperature co-efficient- These are the
23. The property due to which the resistance of materials like semiconductor ex.- Carbon, germanium
some metal or compound vanishes under etc.
certain conditions is known as Zero temperature co-efficient- These are the materials
(a) Semi conductivity. (b) Magnetostriction. like alloys ex- Manganin, constantan etc.
(c) Curie point. (d) Super conductivity. Thermistor has both +Ve and -Ve temperature of
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 co-efficient.
Ans. (d) : Superconductivity is the set of physical 29. Superconductivity is destroyed:
properties observed in certain materials where (a) at high temperature
electrical resistance vanishes and magnetic flux fields (b) at high magnetic field
are expelled outside from the material. Any material (c) in presence of magnetic impurities
exhibiting these properties are called superconductor. (d) in all of the above cases
24. Gold and silver are Punjab PSC SDE 2017
(a) dielectric materials ESE 2005
(b) low resistivity conducting materials Ans. (d) : Superconductivity is destroyed-
(c) magnetic materials At high temperature.
(d) insulating materials At high magnetic field.
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 In presence of magnetic impurities.

30. The electronic configuration of an iron atom is 36. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 4s2 electrical conductivity σ :
(b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2
2 2 6 2 6 8 2 1. It increases with temperature in
(c) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s
(d) None of the above semiconductors.
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V 2. Its increase with temperature is exponential.
Ans. (a) : The electronic configuration of iron atom is 3. It increases in metals and their alloys, linearly
26 Fe. with temperature.
2 2 6 2 6 6 2
26Fe ⇒ 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s Which of the above statements are correct?
31. Superconductivity is due to (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) all electrons having Fermi energy at 0 K (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) all electrons interacting in the
superconducting state (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) crystal structure having no atomic vibration (d) 1, 2 and 3
at 0 K ESE 2017
(d) crystal structure having infinite atomic Ans. (a) : Semiconductors typically have negative
vibrations at 0 K temperature coefficient of resistance as free electrons
increases with increase in temperature. So, resistance
Ans. (c) : Superconductivity is due to crystal structure
having no atomic vibration at zero kelvin (0K). decreases with increase in temperature. Temperature
32. Which of the following allotropes of carbon is a causes exponential increase in semiconductors
good conductor of electricity? conductivity.
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite Metals have positive temperature coefficient i.e.,
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these resistance increases with increase in temperature.
GESCOM AE 2011
37. A copper conductor has a resistance of 15.5 Ω
Ans. (b) : Graphite allotropes of carbon is a good
conductor of electricity. at 0oC. What is its percentage conductivity at
33. If the field of a synchronous motor is under 16oC (to nearest unit value) assuming the
excited, the power factor will be : temperature coefficient of copper as 0.00428
(a) Lagging (b) Leading per oC at 0oC?
(c) Unity (d) More than unity (a) 54% (b) 68%
HPPSC AE 23 June 2019 (c) 94% (d) 98%
Ans. (a) : If the field of synchronous motor is under ESE 2017
excited, the power factor will be lagging.
Ans. (c) : We know that
34. In a cylindrical rotor synchronous machine, the
phasor addition of stator and rotor mmf is R T = R 0 [1 + α∆T ]
possible because : 1 1
(a) Two mmfs are rotating in opposite direction = [1 + α∆T ]
(b) Two mmfs are rotating in same direction at σT σ0
same speed  1 
(c) Two mmfs are stationary with respect to each σT =   σ0
other  1 + α∆T 
(d) One mmf is stationary and the other mmf is 1
σ
rotating (1 + 0.00428 × 16 ) 0
0.9339 σ0
Ans. (c) : Phasor addition of stator and rotor mmfs is
0.9359 σ 0
possible in smooth cylindrical synchronous generator % of σ0 = ×100 i.e. 93.59% of σ0
because both are stationary with respect to each other. σ0
35. Copper behaves as a– 38. At temperatures above a limiting value, the
(a) Conductor always energy of lattice vibrations, in a conductor,
(b) Conductor or dielectric depending on field increases linearly with temperature so that
strength resistivity increases linearly with temperature.
(c) Conductor or dielectric depending on In this region, this limiting value of
frequency temperature is called:
(d) Conductor or dielectric depending on the (a) Bernoulli temperature
electric current density
(b) Curie temperature
Ans. (a) : The loss tangent or dielectric loss for copper (c) Debye temperature
is very large due to its high conductivity. This shows (d) Neel temperature
that the copper behaves as a conductor in all conditions. ESE 2017

Ans. (c) :
(v) Semiconductor Material
1. The LED is usually made up of material like
(a) SiC (b) Si
(c) GaAs (d) BiTe
PTCUL AE 2012
Ans. (c) : LED used the materials like (GaAs),
(GaAsP), (GaP). These are the mixture of elements
gallium arsenic and phosphorus GaAs LEDs emit light
radiations which are infrared hence invisible. GaAsP
above debye temperature the resitivity increases linearly produces red or yellow visible light while GaP emits red
as shown in the figure. or green visible light. Some LEDs emits blue and
Directions: orange light too.
consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement 2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these answer using the code given below the lists-
two statements carefully and select the answers to List-I List-II
these items using the codes given below: A. Ferrite 1. Meissner effect
Codes: B. Superconductor 2. Faraday effect
(a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are C. Quartz 3. Hysteresis
individually true; and Statement (II) is the D. Iron 4. Piezoelectricity
correct explanation of Statement (I) Codes-
(b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are A B C D
individually true; but Statement (II) is (a) 3 1 4 2
NOT the correct explanation of Statement (b) 2 1 4 3
(I) (c) 3 4 1 2
(c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is (d) 2 4 1 3
false RPSC AE 2018
(d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement (II) is ESE 2001
true
39. Statement (I) : Light is capable of transferring Ans : (b)
electrons to the free-state inside a material, thus A. Ferrite - Faraday effect
increasing the electrical conductivity of the material. B. Supperconductor - Meissner effect
Statement (II) : The increased electrical C. Quartz - Piezoelectricity
conductivity produced by light is called D. Iron - Hysteresis
photoconductivity. 3. Which of the following properties is not
ESE 2018 pertaining to ceramics?
Ans. (b) : Photoconductivity is an electrical (a) Malleable and ductile
phenomenon in which a material becomes more (b) Hard and brittle
electrically conductive due to absorption of (c) Good electrical and thermal insulator
electromagnetic radiation. Light is capable of (d) Good resistance to chemical attack
transferring eӨ to free state inside a material, thus UPSC JWM 2017
increasing the electrical conductivity of the material. Ans. (a) : Properties of ceramic material:-
Hence both the statement I and II are individually true Hard and brittle.
but statement-II is not the reason for statement-I. Good electrical and thermal insulator
40. Which of the following statements is/are Good resistance to chemical attack
correct? High melting point
1. Conductor contains a large number of Poor impact strength.
electron in the conduction band at room All the above given properties malleable and ductile
temperature. No energy gaps exist and the properties is not pertaining for ceramic material.
valence and conduction bands overlap. 4. Ceramic materials having high permittivity
2. A semiconductor is a material in which the greater than 12 and permittivity less than 12
energy gap is so large that practically no electron are used for making
can be given enough energy to jump this gap. (a) Bricks for high temperature furnaces and
3. An insulator is a solid with an energy gap small plaster of paris, respectively
enough for electrons to cross rather easily from (b) Connecting terminals of electrical items and
the valence band to the conduction band. bricks for high temperature furnaces,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 respectively
ESE 2020 (c) Bushings of the transformers and capacitors,
Ans. (a) : Only statement '1' is correct. respectively
Conductor–Valence band and conduction band overlap (d) Capacitors and bushing of the transformers,
and there is no energy gap between them. respectively.
Semiconductors–Energy gap between valence band UPSC JWM 2017
and conduction band is small (normally 1 eV) Ans. (d) : If permittivity is greater than 12 it is used to
Insulator–Large energy gap between valance band make capacitors and if permittivity is less than 12 it is
conduction band. used in making bushings of the transformer.

(vi) Super Conductors Ans. (c) : Electrical conductivity of silicon can be
altered by adding impurities like pentavalent and
1. For any superconductor material, which trivalent impurities this process is knows as "Doping".
statements are true out of the following Directions : Consists of two statements, one
statements that superconductivity can be
destroyed by- labelled as 'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement
(i) increasing the temperature above a certain (II)'. Examine these two statements carefully and select
limit the answers to these items using the codes given below:
(ii) applying a magnetic field above a certain Codes:
limit (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
(iii) passing a current, above a certain limit,
through the material individually true and Statement (II) is the
iv) decreasing the temperature to a point below correct explanation of Statement (I)
the critical temperature (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct individually true but Statement (II) is not the
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
RPSC AE 2018 (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
ESE 2016 6. Statement (I):
Ans : (c) The superconductivity can be destroyed by Superconducting compounds and alloys must have
rise in temperature or in the applied magnetic field components which are themselves
above certain limit, applying a magnetic field above a
certain limit, passing a current, above a certain limit, superconducting.
through the material. Statement (II):
2. Find out which one is not the correct Metals and compounds which are superconducting
statement: are rather bad conductors at ordinary
(a) atoms of Helium, Argon and Neon are temperatures.
chemically inactive
(b) atoms of Helium Argon and Neon form ESE 2017
compound with other atoms Ans. (d) : Metal and compounds which are super
(c) outer electron wave function of atoms of conductor are rather bad conductor at ordinary
Helium, Argon and Neon are not easily temperature. Ex-niobium, magnesium diboride. Where
perturbed by the pressure of other atoms
(d) Helium, Argon and Neon remain in gaseous as good conductor Cu, Ag, Au are not super conductor.
state at normal temperature Directions : Consists of two statements, one
WBPSC AE 2003 labelled as 'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement
Ans. (c) : (II)'. Examine these two statements carefully and select
3. Mass of isotope of a superconductor material is the answers to these items using the codes given below:
M. Transition temperature varies with: Codes:
(a) M (b) M2
(c) 1 / M (d) 1 / √M (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 individually true and Statement (II) is the
Ans. (d) : At TC transition from normal to super correct explanation of Statement (I)
conducting state. (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
1 individually true but Statement (II) is not the
TC ∝
M correct explanation of Statement (I)
4. Which one of the following superconducting (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
material is not commonly utilized? (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
(a) Niobium-Zirconium 7. Statement (I) :
(b) Copper-Constantan
A superconductor is a perfect diamagnetic
(c) Niobium-Titanium
(d) Niobium-Tin inter-metallic compound material.
UPSC JWM 2017 Statement (II) :
Ans. (b) : Niobium-Zirconium, Niobium-Titanium and A superconductor is a perfect conductor.
Niobium-Tin inter-metallic compound are utilized in ESE 2017
super conducting material except copper-constantan. Ans. (c) : Super conductor satisfies the criteria of
5. The electrical conductivity of Silicon can be perfect diamagnetism.
altered by. But super conductor is not perfect conductor because a
(a) Sintering (b) Squeezing
(c) Doping (d) Gettering perfect conductor may or may not exhibit
UPSC JWM 2017 diamagnetism.

8. Consider the following statements: Ans. (d) : Critical magnetic field of super conductor
1. Superconductors exhibit normal conductivity   T 2 
behaviour above a transition temperature Tc. HC = H C0 1 −   
  TC  
2. Superconductors lose their superconducting
nature in an external magnetic field, provided
the external magnetic field is above a critical
value.
3. High Tc superconductors have Tc values in
the range 1 to 10 K.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only HC = magnetic field at T K
(d) 1, 2 and 3 H C0 = magnetic field at 0 K
ESE 2017 TC = Critical temperature.
From above equation we may conclude
Ans. (a) : High temperature, super conductor conducts (i) at absolute zero, HC = maximum = H C0
electricity with zero electrical resistance at temperature (ii) at T = TC, HC = 0
above boiling point of liquid nitrozen i.e. 63.15 K so, (iii) at T < TC, material exhibits superconductivity
Hence, statements 1, 3, 4 are correct.
statement 3 is incorrect.
11. Which of the following statements regarding
Rest are correct. superconducting materials are correct, when a
large number of metals become
9. Superconductivity is a material property superconducting below a temperature?
associated with 1. The resistivity ρ of the superconductor is
(a) Changing shape by stretching zero.
2. The magnetic flux density B vanishes through
(b) Stretching without breaking the substance.
(c) A loss of thermal resistance 3. Ferromagnetic and Antiferromagnetic metals
are good example of superconducting
(d) A loss of electrical resistance materials.
ESE 2017 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (d) : Super conductivity is the ability of certain ESE 2020
materials to conduct electric current with practically Ans. (c) : Properties of superconductor–
1. It has zero resistivity.
zero resistance. 2. Magnetic flux density (B) inside the superconductor
10. Consider the following statements: is zero.
3. Magnetic flux density (Bin)
1. The critical magnetic field of a Bin = µ0 (H + M)
superconductor is maximum at absolute zero. 0 = µ(H + M)
2. Transition temperature of a superconductor is So, magnetic susceptibility
M M
sensitive to its structure. xm = = = −1
H −M
3. The critical magnetic field of a '–' sign indicates that superconductor are diamagnetic.
superconductor is zero at its critical 12. Super conductors are becoming popular for use
temperature. in.
(a) Manufacturing of memories.
4. Superconductors show very high conductivity (b) Generating a very strong magnetic field.
below the critical temperature? (c) Generating a very strong electrostatic field.
Which of the above statements are correct? (d) Generating regions free from magnetic field.
MPPSC AE 2017
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only ESE 2011
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only Ans. (a) : Super conductors are becoming popular for
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only use in manufacturing of memories. Super conductors
magnets used in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only and nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) machines, and
ESE 2017 beam-steering and focusing magnets used in particle
accelerators.

(vii) Miscellaneous 5. Which of the following lamp light output is
comparable with that of day light?
1. The luminous sheet reaching the working plane (a) Fluorescent lamp
least depends on (b) Sodium vapour lamp
(a) Dimension of the room (c) Mercury vapour lamp
(b) The lumen output of the lamp (d) Halogen lamp
(c) Colour of the working plane surface TSPSC AEE 2017
(d) Reflection of internal surface Ans. (d) : Halogen lamp light output is comparable with
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 that of day light.
Ans. (c) : Design of lighting schemes Halogen bulbs are a type of incandescent that gives a
Provide adequate illumination close approximation of natural daylight known as 'white
Avoid glare and hard shadows light.'
Provides sufficiently uniform distribution of light all 6. Which of the following vapour/gas will give
over the working plane. yellow colour in a filament lamp?
Dimension of the room. (a) Helium (b) Mercury
2. The term "permittivity" is associated with (c) Magnesium (d) Sodium
______and the term "permeability" is TSPSC AEE 2017
associated with _______respectively. Ans. (d) : A sodium-vapour lamp is a gas-discharge
(a) Electromagnetism, Electrostatic lamp that uses sodium in an excited state to produce
(b) Electromagnetism, Electromagnetism light at a characteristic wavelength of near about 589
nm and thus, it emits yellow color light to the
(c) Electrostatic, Electromagnetism
surroundings.
(d) Electrostatic, Electrostatic
Maharashtra PSC AE 2019 Paper-I 7. A rolled-paper capacitor of value 0.02 µF is to
be constructed using two strips of Aluminium
Ans. (c) : The term "permittivity" is associated with
of width 6 cm, and wax impregnated paper of
electrostatic and term permeability is associated with
thickness 0.06 mm, whose relative permittivity
Electromagnetism.
is 3. the length of foil strips should be-
3. The flicker effect of fluorescent lamps is more (a) 0.3765 m (b) 0.4765 m
pronounced at (c) 0.5765 m (d) 0.7765 m
(a) Lower frequencies (b) Higher frequencies RPSC AE 2018
(c) Lower voltage (d) Higher voltages
Ans : (d) C= 0.02µF, d= 0.06×10–3m, w= 0.06m
TSPSC AEE 2017
A = l×w = l×0.06
Ans. (a) : Flicker effect of fluorescent lamp is more
εεA
pronounced at lower frequencies. Flicker effect in CRO C= 0 r
d
most visible at 60 Hz frequency.
8.85 × 10−12 × 3 × l × 0.06
4. In HPSV lamps, traces of neon gas 0.02 µF =
0.06 × 10−3
(a) Helps in stabilizing the arc
8.85 × 10−12 × 3 × l × 0.06
(b) Changes the colour of light 0.02 × 10−6 =
6 × 10−5
(c) Prevents the vaporization of filament
(d) Assists during starting to develop enough heat 8.85 × 10−12 × 3 × l × 6 ×10−2
2 × 10−8 =
to vaporize sodium 6 × 10−5
TSPSC AEE 2017 2×10–13=8.85×10–12×3×l×10–2
Ans. (d) : In HPSV lamps, traces of neon gas assists 2 × 10−13
l=
during starting to develop enough heat of vaporize 8.85 × 3 × 10−14
sodium HPSV is high pressure sodium vapour light, this 2 2
l= = = 0.75329m
lamp works by creating on electric arc through 8.85 × 0.3 2.655
vaporized. l = 0.75329m

8. A perfect diffuser surface is one that 14.
Peltier effect says that when a current passes
(a) diffuse all the incident light through the junction of two different metals
(b) absorbs all the incident light then at the junction heat
(c) transmits all the incident light (a) is liberated
(d) scatters uniformly in all directions the (b) is absorbed
incident light (c) is absorbed or liberated
WBPSC AE 2009 (d) remains unchanged
Ans. (d) : WBPSC AE 2009
9. Ans. (c) :
A choke coil is used with fluorescent lamps for
(a) starting 15. The unit of luminance (L) is
(b) current limiting (a) candela
(c) power factor improvement (b) candela per square-metre
(d) both (a) and (b) (c) candela per square metre per lax
WBPSC AE 2009 (d) lux per cm
10. For manual arc welding, the power source Ans. (b) :
should be characterized by : 16. In metal halide lamp light is produced by the
(a) Less than 6 volt open circuit voltage radiation for mixture of
(b) only d.c. in nature (a) argon and halide of thallium
(c) drooping voltage versus current curve (b) metallic vapour and halide of sodium
(d) above 100% open circuit voltage (c) sodium vapour and halide of sodium
WBPSC AE 2009 (d) argon and neon
Ans. (c) : WBPSC AE 2003
11. At the curie temperature iron Ans. (d) :
(a) starts melting 17. Percussion welding is a
(b) conducts current (a) end to end welding
(c) becomes an insulator (b) flash welding
(d) losses its magnetic properties (c) self-timing spot welding
WBPSC AE 2009 (d) butt welding
12. The most suitable current for resistance Ans. (b) :
welding is : 18. Lighting system comprising light sources
(a) constant d.c. shielded by a ledge on recess and distributing
(b) A.C. over the ceiling and upper wall is called
(c) short duration pulses (a) comic lighting
(d) square wave (b) contrast lighting
WBPSC AE 2009 (c) cove lighting
Ans. (a) : (d) diffused lighting
13. Illumination at a point directly below a lamp WBPSC AE 2003
giving 256 CP uniformly, is to be 100 Ans. (c) :
lumens/m2. The height at which the lamp is 19. The chemical properties of atoms are
suspected is : determined mainly by
(a) 2.56 m (a) the inner electron configuration
(b) 100 / 256 m (b) the outer electron configuration
(c) 1.6 m (c) the neutron-proton configuration
(d) 10 / 16 m (d) the electron-proton configuration
Ans. (c) : Ans. (b) :

20. Cohesive forces are the forces acting Ans. (c) : "Baur's law" describe the relation b/w
(a) between molecules of different materials breakdown voltage V and thickness (t) of the dielectric
(b) between molecules of same materials is given by V = At2/3, where A is constant.
(c) between water and glass capillary tube 26. The temperature coefficient of resistance of an
(d) due to gravity insulator is:
(a) Positive and independent of temperature
WBPSC AE 2017
(b) Negative and independent of temperature
Ans. (b) : (c) Negative and dependent of temperature
21. Constantan – a resistance wire strain gauge is (d) Positive and dependent of temperature
made of Punjab PSC SDE 2017
(a) Ni, Cu Ans. (c) : The temperature coefficient of resistance of
an insulator is negative and depend of temperature.
(b) Ni, Cr
Insulators have a negative temperature coefficient
(c) Ni, Fe
because as temperature increases, the resistance of
(d) Cu, Cr
insulators decreases.
WBPSC AE 2007
Ans. (a) : R = R ref 1 + α ( T − Tref ) 
22. A synchro has Where,
(a) a 3-phase winding on stator and a single- R = conductor resistance at temperature 'T'
phase winding on rotor Rref = conductor resistance at reference temperature
(b) a 3-phase winding on stator and a commutator Tref = usually 20°C, but sometimes 0°C.
α = Temperature coefficient of resistance for
winding on rotor
conductor material.
(c) a 3-phase winding on rotor and a single-phase T = Conductor temperature in degree Celsius
winding on stator Tref = Reference temperature that α is specified at for
(d) a single-phase winding on stator and a the conductor material.
commutator winding on rotor 27. Which among the following is NOT a fusion
KPTCL AE 2016 type welding?
Ans. (a) : A synchro has 3- φ winding on stator and a (a) Carbon arc welding
(b) Electron beam welding
single phase winding on rotor this is type of transducer (c) Electro-Slag welding
which transform the angular position of the shaft into an (d) Electro-Gas welding
electric signal. (e) Resistance welding
23. For induction heating, which of the following is CGPSC AE 2017
abnormally high? Ans. (e) : Fusion welding is a process that uses heat to
(a) Voltage (b) Current join or fuse two or more materials by heating them to
(c) Frequency (d) Phase angle melting point. The process may or may not require the
Ans.(c): Induction heating is a non-contact heating use of filler material.
process. It uses abnormally high frequency electricity to In case of non-fusion welding, the metal to be welded
heat materials that are electrically conductive. is heated up to semi-molten state and pressure is applied
to complete the weld.
24. Electric welding equipment work best at–
(a) Low voltage and low current 28. Consider the following applications of the
(b) Low voltage and high current materials :
(c) High voltage and low current • Bismuth strontium calcium copper oxide
(d) High voltage and high current used as a high temperature superconductor
APTRANSCO AE 2011 • Boron carbide used in helicopter and tank
Ans. (b) : Electric welding equipment works best at armour
low voltage and high current. • Uranium oxide used as fuel in nuclear
25. The relation between the breakdown voltage V reactors
and the thickness (t) of the dielectric is given by • Bricks used for construction
V= AT2/3, where A is a constant depending on The materials used in these applications can be
the nature of the medium and also on the classified as
(a) Ceramic (b) Constantan
thickness t.
(c) Manganin (d) Tantalum
(a) Kirchhoff's law (b) Faraday's law
ESE 2019
(c) Baur's law (d) None of the above
Ans. (a) : The materials used in these applications can
Vizag Steel MT 2017 be classified as ceramic.
09.
Microprocessor & Computer
Fundamentals
Ans. (b) : If MN/MX' is low, 8086 can be associated
(i) Data Representation and with any co-processor.
Represent of Integer If MN/MX' is low, 8086 is in maximum mode.
If MN/MX' is high, 8086 is in minimum mode.
1. The instruction of 8051 add A, #77 is 5. The number of address lines input to 8259
__________addressing.
(a) 1 (b) 2
(a) Bank (b) Immediate
(c) Direct memory (d) Indirect (c) 4 (d) 8
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : The instruction of 8051 Add A, # 77 is Ans. (a) : Number of address lines input to 8259 is 1.
immediate addressing. i.e. A0. It is used to select control register.
means data is immediately available in the instruction
e.g. 6. The port A of 8255 can be accessible when the
ADD A, # 77; Adds 77 (decimal) to A and stores in A. pin A1 and A0 are
ADD A, # 4DH ; MOV DPTR, # 1000 H; (a) A1 = 0; A0 = 0 (b) A1 = 0; A0 = 1
Moves 1000 (hexadecimal) to data pointer) (c) A1 = 1; A0 = 0 (d) A1 = 1; A0 = 1
2. The number of T-states taken for fetching and TNPSC AE 2018
execution of the 8085 instruction : INR M is
Ans. (a) : The port A of 8255 can be accessible when
(a) 4 T-states (b) 7 T-states
(c) 10 T-states (d) 6 T-states the pin A1 and A0 are 0, 0
TANGEDCO AE 2018 Pin Selected
Ans. (c) : A1 A2
OP Code OPERAND Bytes M / cycle T − state 0 0 Port A
INR M R/W 1 3 10T
0 1 Port B
3. In 8086 the overflow flag is set when _____.
1 0 Port C
(a) The sum is more than 16 bits
(b) Signed numbers go out of their range after an 1 1 Control register
arithmetic operation 7. The length of byte count register in 8257 is
(c) Carry and sign flags are set (a) 4 bits (b) 8 bits
(d) Subtraction (c) 12 bits (d) 16 bits
TSPSC AEE 2017
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : In 8086 the overflow flag is set when –
signed numbers go out of their range after an arithmetic Ans. (d) : Length of byte count register in 8257 is 16
operation. bits.
The overflow flag is set, if the result of a signed 8. Find the 10-point DFT of the following
operation is large enough to be accommodated in a sequence x(n) = δ(n) + δ(n – 5)
destination register. That is, in case of the addition of
(a) X(k) = e–jπk (b) X(k) = (1 + e–jπk)
two signed numbers, the result over flows into sign bit.
4. If MN/MX' is low the 8086 operates in ______ (c) X(k) = ejπk (d) X(k) = (1 – e–jπk)
mode. TNPSC AE 2018
(a) Minimum Ans. (b) : 10 point DFT of the of x(n) = δ(n) + δ(n – 5).
(b) Maximum There are taking Discrete Fourier transform on both
(c) Minimum & Maximum side.
(d) Medium X(k) = (1 + e–jπk)
TSPSC AEE 2017
9. If the 8085 adds 87 H and 79 H, specify the Ans. (a) : The port of 8255 used as bidirectional port in
status of the S, Z and CY flags. mode 2 is Port A.
(a) S = 0; CY = 1; Z = 1 14. How many clock cycles are required for the
(b) S = 1; Z = 1; CY = 1 loop in 8086 with a 5-MHz Clock when it exits
(c) S = 0; CY = 0; Z = 1 the loop?
(a) 2 Clock cycles (b) 3 Clock cycles
(d) S = 0; CY = 1; Z = 0 (c) 4 Clock cycles (d) 5 Clock cycles
TNPSC AE 2018 UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
Ans. (a) : Ans. (d) :
15. A process is thrashing if:
(a) It is spending more time paging than
executing
(b) It is spending less time in paging than
S- sign flag – Since MSB of result is 0, hence executing
sign bit should be be 0. (c) Page fault occurs
Z- Zero flag – Since result is zero, hence zero (d) Swapping cannot tae place
flag should be 1. UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
CY - carry flag – Since there is a carry from MSB Ans. (a) :
(8th to 9th bit), hence CY = 1 16. Computers with large numbers of instructions,
10. The 8080A microprocessor has a maskable complex addressing modes and variable length
interrupt that can be enabled using the instructions are called:
instructions- (a) Complex Instruction Set Computers
(a) DI (b) EI (b) Complex addressing mode computers
(c) DI and EI both (d) None of the above (c) Reduce Instruction set computers
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II (d) Load-store architecture computers
Ans. (b) : 8080A with few more microprocessor has
both maskable and non maskable interrupts, may be Ans. (a) :
enable using EI (Enable, 8080 microprocessor). 17. The status of CY,AC, P and S for the following
program in an 8085 microprocessor is :
11. Which of the following instructions does not MVIA, 8FH
affect any flag? MVIB, 68H
(a) ADC A (b) ADD B ADDB
(c) ANA M (d) CALL 6025H (a) AC = 0; CY = 0; S = 1; P = 0
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II (b) AC = 0; CY = 1; S = 0; P = 1
Ans. (d) : ADC A : All flags are modified to reflect the (c) AC = 1; CY = 1; S = 0; P = 1
result. (d) AC = 1; CY = 0; S = 1; P = 0
ADD B : All flags are modified to reflect the result of OMC Deputy manager 2019
the addition. Ans. (d)
MVIA, 8FH
ANA M : S, Z, P flag are modified to reflect the result MVIB, 68H
after the operation. CY flag is reset and AC flag is set. ADDB
CALL 6025H : No flag are affected.
12. Number of control flags in 8085 are-
(a) Zero (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
Ans. (d) : It consists of 8 bits and only 5 of them are
useful in 8085 microprocessor. Parity flag P = 0 (since odd no. of 1 present in output)
Five flag - Sign flag MSB =1, Sign flag S = 1
Zero flag CY = 0
Auxiliary carry flag ∴ status of flag
Parity flag and Carry flag  AC = 1 
13. The port of 8255 used as bidirectional port in CY = 0 
 
mode 2 is- =
 S 1 
(a) Port A (b) Port B  P = 0
(c) Port Clower (d) Port Cupper  
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II  Z = 0 

18. A compiler converts Ans. (c) : The duty cycle of clock signal of 8086
(a) an object code to a source code microprocessor is 33%. Hence it is requires single phase
(b) a source code to an object code clock with 33% duty cycle to provide internal timing.
(c) an assembly language code to an object code 25. What is ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?
(d) an object code to an assembly language code
(a) A protocol that handles error and control
WBPSC AE 2012
messages in the network
Ans. (b) :
(b) A protocol used to monitor computers
19. The maximum radiation occurs at ________to
the line of array in a broadside array. (c) TCP/IP high level protocols, for transferring
(a) Any angle (b) 90 degrees files from one machine to another
(c) 45 degrees (d) 60 degrees (d) A TCP/IP protocol, used to dynamically bind
UPPCL AE 30-12-2016 a high level IP address to a low level physical
Ans. (b) : The maximum radiation occur at 90o to the hardware address
line array in a broad side array. JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
20. In a one byte instruction 8085 can have Ans. (d) : ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a
maximum of: TCP/IP protocol, used to dynamically bind a high level
(a) 2 MK cycles (b) 1 MK cycles
IP address to a low level physical hardware address.
(c) 5 MK cycles (d) 3 MK cycles
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 26.
SMTP is an (Abbreviations/notations carry
Ans. (c) : In a one byte instruction 8085 can have their usual meaning)
maximum of 5 MK cycle. (a) Transport Layer Protocol
21. IEEE 802.3 Ethernet is an example of a: (b) Application Layer Protocol
(a) Physical layer protocol (c) Data link Layer Protocol
(b) Session layer protocol (d) Network Layer Protocol
(c) Data link layer protocol
(d) Network layer protocol
Ans. (b) : SMPT is an Application Layer Protocol of
TCP/IP protocol.
Ans. (c) : IEEE 802.3 Ethernet is an example of a Data
link layer protocol. SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. SMTP
22. 8051 Microcontroller has is a set of communication guideline that allow software
(a) 64 bytes of RAM and 4K bytes of ROM to transmit an electronic mail over the internet is called
(b) 128 bytes of RAM and 2K bytes of ROM simple mail transfer protocol.
(c) 128 bytes of RAM and 4K bytes of ROM 27. When will the 8085 processor enter wait state
(d) 64 bytes of RAM and 2K bytes of ROM (a) When the READY is tied high (5 V)
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III (b) During the HOLD request
Ans. (c) : 8051 microcontroller has 128 bytes of RAM (c) During bus idle time
and 4K bytes of ROM. (d) When the READY is tied low (0 V)
23. The number of output pins of an 8085 Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
microprocessor are Ans. (d) : Ready-It is used to interface with the slow
(a) 40 (b) 27 peripheral devices:
(c) 21 (d) 19 If ready (RD) = 1
RPSC VPITI 2018
Then only processor will transfer the data or receive the
data from the peripheral device.
Ans. (b) : 27 pins are output pins of an 8085 If the signal at ready pin is low (RD = 0) the
microprocessor output pins A8–A15 (8 pins) microprocessor enter into wait state (T2–T3).
AD –AD (8 pins) During the wait state the contents of the address bus,
0 7
ALE, So, S1, IO/ M , RD, WR, HLDA, INTA, RESET the data bus, and the control bus are all held constant.
OUT, CLK, SOD. 28. The 8051 microcontroller is of–
24. What is the value of duty cycle of the clock (a) 8 bit (b) 16 bit
signal of 8086? (c) 4 bit (d) 32 bit
(a) 50% (b) 66% GMB AE 2017
(c) 33% (d) 20% Ans. (b) : 8051 microcontroller is a 16 bit micro
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I controller.

29. How many pins does 8085 microprocessor Ans. (c) : Under mode 2 of 8255 it will have 5 bit
have? control port and 3 I/O lines at port C.
(a) 30 (b) 39 34. 8086 microprocessor is interfaced to 8253 a
(c) 40 (d) 41 programmable interval timer. The maximum
GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 number by which the clock frequency on one of
Ans. (c) :The 8085 microprocessor is an 8 bit general the timers is divided by
purpose processor that can deal with the memory (a) 216 (b) 28
10
purpose processor with the memory of 64 K byte. The (c) 2 (d) 220
microprocessor consists of 40 pin as well as works with Karnataka PSC AE 2016
+5 V power supply. Ans. (a) : 8253 is a programmable interval timer to
30. Intel 8086 microprocessor is a/an operate a control 16 bit count is loaded in its register. So
(a) 8-bit processor with 40 pin DIP the maximum number by which the clock frequency on
(b) 16-bit processor with 40 pin DIP one of timer is divided by 216 during interfacing.
(c) 32-bit processor with 48 pin DIP 35. In 8085 microprocessor unit scratch pad
(d) 64-bit processor with 48 pin DIP memory comprises of:
(a) W, Z, B, C, D, E, H and L registers
(b) B, C, D, E, H and L registers
GPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 (c) W, Z, B, C, D and E registers
Ans. (b) :The intel 8086 is a 16-bit microprocessor chip (d) W, Z, B, C, D, E, H, L and status registers
with 20 address and 16 bit data lines. DSSSB AE 2019
It is an enhanced version of 8085 microprocessor. It Ans. (b) : In 8085 microprocessor, unit scratch pad
consists of power instruction set, which provides memory comprises of B,C, D, E, H and L register.
operation like multiplication and division easily. 36. Which of the following interrupts has the
31. If the contents of an accumulator are Ex-ORed lowest priority ?
with itself and placed in the accumulator itself, (a) RST 5.5 (b) RST 7.5
then– (c) INTR (d) TRAP
(a) Carry-flag will be set UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
(b) The accumulator contains all 1's
Ans. (c) : INTR has the lowest priority. INTR :- It is the
(c) The zero flag is set active low interrupt acknowledgment signal which is
(d) The accumulator contents are shifted left by only used with INTR.
one bit
37. The first practical microprocessor was
APTRANSCO AE 2011 introduced by
Ans. (c) : XRA, A (a) National semi-conductor (b) Motorola
EX-OR Equation = AB + AB (c) Fair Child (d) Intel
A= B UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
Y=0 Ans. (d) : Microprocessor is a programmable
Then zero flag set, (Z=1) integrating device has computing, storing, retrieving
32. When the timer in 8051 is used as a counter the and decision making capability.
clock pulsed are sources from The first practical µP introduced as introduced by
(a) oscillator (b) external pulses intel 4004(PMOS), 4-bit, 640 Bytes memory capacity.
(c) both (d) none of the above 38. The five flags in 8085 microprocessor are
designated as
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 (a) Z, Cy, S, P and AC (b) D, Z, S, P and AC
Ans. (b) : When a timer in 8051 is used as a counter, (c) Z, C, S, P and AC (d) Z, Cy, S, D and AC
the clock pulse are source from external pulses. 8051 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
can be used as timer and counter. Since 8051 has an 8
Ans. (a) : Flags : The flags generally reflect the status
bit architecture, each 16-bit is accessed as two separate
of arithmetic or logical operation.
register of low byte & high byte.
33. Under which Mode of 8255 it will have the
following features :
(i) 5 bit control port is available Carry flag (Cy)
(ii) 3 I/O lines are available at port C Parity flag (P)
(a) Mode 0 (b) Mode 1 Auxiliary carry (AC)
(c) Mode 2 (d) Mode 3 Zero flag (Z)
Karnataka PSC AE 2016 Sign flag (S)

39. Which characteristic of a memory chip is called Ans. (d) : In 8085 Instruction set specially in its
ac characteristic ? arithmetic group of instruction, we have only add and
(a) Power consumption (b) Bus loading substrate instructions, 8085 does not have instructions
(c) Timing characteristic (d) All the above to perform multiplication or division actions.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II 44. The databus in a 8085A microprocessor is
Ans. (c) : Timing characteristic of a memory chip is (a) Exclusively used 8 bits data bus
called ac characteristics. (b) Multiplexed with the higher byte of address
bus ((A8-A15)
40. The content of the accumulator in an 8085
(c) Multiplexed with the lower byte of 16 bits
microprocessor is not altered after the
address bus (A0-A7)
execution of –
(d) Directly addressed in the I/O bus
(a) CIP 3A (b) ANI 5C
(c) ORA B (d) MVI A 03 PTCUL AE 2012
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II Ans. (c) : The databus in a 8085A microprocessor is
multiplexed with the lower byte of 16 bits address bus
Ans. (a) : The content of the accumulator in an 8085 µP (A0-A7).
is not altered after the execution of CIP3A. While other
45. Which of the following is not a valid flag
option alter after execution.
register in 8085A microprocessor
41. The function “print f” is used in a program : (a) zero flag (b) parity flag
(a) When too many print f calls have been (c) Auxiliary flag (d) Excess flag
already used in the program PTCUL AE 2012
(b) In place of print f, since print f uses more
Ans. (d) : The flag register is a special purpose register.
memory
Depending upon the value of result after any arithmetic
(c) When the output is to be printed on to a file and logical operation the flag bits become set (1) or
(d) When the type of variables to be printed are reset (0). In 8085 microprocessor, flag register are 5.
not known before • Sign flag (S)
RPSC VPITI 2016 • Zero flag (Z)
Ans. (c) : The function "print f" is used in a program • Auxiliary carry flag (AC)
when the output is to be printed on to a file. • Parity flag (P)
42. MOV A, C • Carry flag (CY)
RAR 46. For the 8085 assembly language program given
RAR below, the content of the accumulator after the
RAR execution of the program is :
RAR 3000 MVI A, 45
MOV C, A 3002 MOV B, A
HLTs 3003 STC
The program is for : 3004 CMC
(a) Right shift 3005 RAR
(b) Left shift 3006 XRA B
(c) Once complement of a number (a) 00H (b) 45H
(d) Storing the bcd number (c) 67H (d) E7H
CIL MT 2020 PTCUL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : The right shift operation is done using RAR Ans. (c) : Given program
instruction. RAR stands for "Rotate accumulator high 3000 MVI, 45 H : A = 45 H i.e. 01000101
involving carry flag in rotation." 3002 MOV B, A : B = 45 H i.e. 01000101
43. What about the multiplication and division 3003 STC : Set carry i.e. Cy = 1
instructions of 8085? 3004 CMC : Complementary carry i.e. Cy = 0
(a) Only multiplication instruction 3005 RAR : Rotate accumulator right through
(b) Both multiplication and division instruction carry
(c) Only division instruction
(d) Not support multiplication and division
instruction
CIL MT 2020

3006 XRAB : X-OR of content of B with 52. What is a TRAP?
accumulator (a) Highest priority interrupt
Save the result in accumulator i.e (b) Both Highest priority interrupt and vectored
interrupt
(c) Vectored interrupt
(d) Maskable interrupt
UPPCL AE 2015
∴ A = 67 H Ans. (b) TRAP in a microprocessor, both highest
47. A machine cycle may refer to.......... priority interrupt and vectored interrupt.
(a) fetching an instruction 53. If 8085 adds 87 H and 79H, then:
(b) clock speed (a) Both CARRY and ZERO flags will be set to
(c) fetching decoding and executing an 1.
instruction (b) CARRY flag will be set to 1, ZERO flag set
(d) executing an instruction to 0.
AAI Junior Executive 2016 (c) CARRY flag will be set to 0, ZERO flag set
to 1.
Ans. (c) : A machine cycle consists of the steps that a
computer's processor executes whenever it receives a (d) Both CARRY and ZERO flags will be set to
machine language instruction. It is most basic CPU 0.
operation and modem, CPU are able to perform million UPPCL AE 2015
of machine cycle per second. The cycle consist of three Ans. (a) Addition of 87H and 79H
standard step, fetch, decode and execute. 87H – 10000111
48. An assembly language instruction......... 79H – 01111001
(a) always has a memory involved 100000000
(b) always takes at least one operand S-sign flag- Since MSB of result is 0, hence sign bit
(c) always has an operation field should be 0.
(d) always changes the flag register Z-Zero flag- Since result is zero, hence zero bit should
AAI Junior Executive 2016 be 1.
CY-Carry flag- Since their is a carry from MSB (8th to
Ans. (b) : An assembly language is a programming
9th bit), hence CY = 1.
language which always take one operand.
54. Ready pin of a Microprocessor is used:-
49. Pseudo instructions are basically-
(a) To indicate that the µP is ready to receive I/P
(a) false instructions.
(b) To indicate that the µP is ready to receive O/P
(b) instructions that are ignored by the
(c) To introduce wait states
microprocessor.
(d) To provide direct memory access
(c) assembler directives.
(d) instructions that are treated like comments. UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
Haryana PSC Civil Services (Pre) 2014 Ans. (c) :
Ans. (c) : Pseudo instructions are basically assembler
directives.
50. Which 8085 instruction is equivalent to 1 byte
unconditional JUMP instruction?
(a) RESTART (b) PCHL
(c) DCX (d) SPHL
UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (b) PCHL 8085 instruction is equivalent to 1 byte
unconditional jump instruction.
51. The pin of 8085 that demultiplexes the address Ready pin of the microprocessor is used to introduce
and data pins is called: wait states. It is used by microprocessor to detect
(a) HLDA (b) HOLD whether a peripheral has completed (or is ready for) the
(c) IO/M (d) ALE data transfer or not.
UPPCL AE 2015 55. How many bits are used in data bus of 8085?
Ans. (d) The pin 8085 demultiplexers , the address and (a) 7 (b) 8
the data pins is called ALE. Arithmetic and logic enable (c) 9 (d) 16
pin UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
Ans. (b) : Length of data bus of 8085 microprocessor is Ans. (b) : First byte of an instruction is loaded into IR
8-bits ranging from 00H to FFH. register.
56. The software used to drive microprocessor 62. In an instruction of 8085 microprocessor, how
based system is called:- many bytes are present?
(a) Assembly language (a) One only (b) One or Two
(b) Firm ware (c) Two or Three (d) One, Two or Three
(c) High level language UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(d) Basic interpreter instructions Ans. (d) : In an instruction of 8085 microprocessor their
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II are one, two, or three bytes are present.
Ans. (a) : The software used to drive microprocessor 63. 8085 Microprocessor does not have:-
based system is called assembly language. (a) Zero flag (b) Parity flag
57. The instruction that exchanges stack – top with (c) Over flag (d) Auxiliary carry flag
HL pair is:- UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(a) PUSH H (b) SPHL Ans. (c) : In 8085 microprocessor, the flag register can
(c) XTHL (d) PCHL have a total of flags. but only 5 flags are implemented in
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II 8085. They are:
Carry flag (CY)
Ans. (c) : The instruction that exchanges stack top with
HL pair is XTHL . Auxiliary flag (AC)
XTHL: Sign flag (s)
opcode operand bytes M-cycles T-states Parity flag (P)
XTHL None 1 5 16
58. In 8085 microprocessor, after the execution of
XRA A instruction :-
Thus, 8085 microprocessor does not have over flag.
(a) The carry flag is set
(b) The accumulator contain FFH 64. Which block replacement algorithm is not
generally used in cache operation:-
(c) The zero flag is set
(a) LIFO (b) FIFO
(d) The accumulator contents are shifted left by
one bit (c) LRU (d) Random
Ans. (b) : FIFO block replacement algorithm is not
Ans. (c) : In 8085 microprocessor after the execution of
generally used in cache operation.
XRA A instruction the zero flag is set.
65. The microprograms provided by a
A⊕A =0 manufacturer to be used on his
This XRA A instruction cause accumulator to clear and microprogrammed computer are generally
zero flags is set. called:-
59. The total number of pins in 8085 are:- (a) Software (b) Netware
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) Firmware (d) Hardware
(c) 40 (d) 50 UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II Ans. (c) : The microprograms provided by a
Ans. (c) : The total number of pins in 8085 are 40. manufacturer to be used on his microprogrammed
computer are generally called firmware.
60. Which of the following instructions have only
one operand? 66. The number of output pin of a 8085
microprocessor is
(a) Multiply (b) Add
(a) 40 (b) 27
(c) Shift (d) Subtract (c) 21 (d) 19
Ans. (c) : Shift instructions have only one operand. shift
Ans. (b) : In 8085 microprocessor, the total number of
instruction i.e.,
pins is 40, out of which the number of output pins = 27
RAL RAR RLC RRC
67. In 8085, if the clock frequency is 5 MHz, the
61. Which byte of an instruction is loaded into IR time required to execute an instruction of 18 T-
register? states in µs?
(a) Last (b) First (a) 3 (b) 3.6
(c) Both of above (d) None of above (c) 4 (d) 6
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011

Ans. (b) : Given frequency f = 5 MHz Ans. (c) : The translator program that converts source
Time required to execute an instruction of 18T– states code in high level language to machine code line by line
1 18 is called Interpreter.
18 × = sec
f 5 × 10 6 Compiler scans the entire program and translates the
−6
= 3.6 × 10 sec whole of it into machine code at once.
= 3.6µ sec. 72. The system software used for executing more
than one program at a time must be capable of
68. In order to execute CALL instruction, during (a) Multistaging (b) Multifunctioning
4th machine cycle 8085 executes
(c) Multitasking (d) Multicasting
(a) Memory write operation
(b) Ideal read operation
Ans. (c) : The system software used for executing more
(c) Memory read operation than one program at a time must be capable of
(d) Memory transfer operation multitasking.
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III Multitasking in an operating system, is allowing to
Ans. (a) : In order to execute call instruction during 4th perform more than one computer task at a time.
machine cycle 8085 executes memory write (MW) 73. An instruction used to set the carry Flag in a
operation. computer can be classified as:
Instruction cycle = F + MR + MR + MW + MW (a) data transfer (b) arithmetic
69. Operating system's means (c) logical (d) program control
(a) the way a computer operator works Punjab PSC SDE 2017
(b) conversion of high level language into Ans. (b) : An instruction used to set the carry flag in a
machine code computer can be classified as arithmetic.
(c) the way a CD drive works 74. A microprocessor based system can perform
(d) a set of programs which controls computer many different functions, because:
operation (a) its operation is controlled by software
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III (b) it is digital system
Ans. (d) : An operating system (OS) is system software (c) it uses a RAM
that manages computer hardware, software resources (d) it can be controlled by input and output
and provides common services for computer programs. devices
Other specialized classes of operating system, such as Punjab PSC SDE 2017
embedded and real-time systems exist for many Ans. (a) : A microprocessor based system can perform
applications. many different functions because its operation is
70. The use of substitution MACROs in assembly controlled by software.
language
(a) Saves both memory and execution time
(b) Facilitates program writing
(c) Saves memory
(d) Increases the execution time when compared
to subroutine
Ans. (b) : The use of substitution MACROs in Microprocessor based system are electrical system
assembly language facilitates program writing. consisting of microprocessors, memories, I/O units and
During macro expansion the assembler passes other peripherals.
arguments by variable to the macro parameters. • Microprocessors are the brains of the system.
• The operations of microprocessors are controlled by
71. The translator program that converts source
instructions stored in memories.
code in high level language to machine code
line by line is called 75. In computer terminology 1 Mbyte memory
means
(a) Compiler (b) Loader
(a) 1000000 bytes (b) 1000024 bytes
(c) Interpreter (d) Assembler (c) 1024000 bytes (d) 1048576 bytes
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V
Ans. (d) 81. In 8085 microprocessor system, the direct
1 kilobytes = 1024 bytes addressing instruction is :
1 megabytes = 1024 kilobytes (a) MOV A, B (b) MOV B, 0AH
= 1024 × 1024 bytes (c) MOV C, M (d) STA 8000H
1 MB = 1,048,576 bytes UJVNL AE 2016
Ans. (d) In 8085 microprocessor, the direct addressing
76. 8085 µP does not have instruction is STA 8000H.
(a) zero flag (b) parity flag 82. In 8085 microprocessor, the value of the most
(c) over flag (d) auxiliary carry flag significant bit of the result following the
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II execution of any arithmetic or Boolean
Ans. (c) : In 8085 microprocessor, the flag resister can instruction is stored in the:
have a total of 8 flags. But only 5 flags are implemented (a) Carry status flag
in 8085. They are– (b) Auxiliary carry status flag
carry flag (CY) (c) Sign status flag
Auxiliary flag (AC) (d) Zero status flag
Sign flag (S) UJVNL AE 2016
Parity flag (P)
Ans. (c) The most significant bit of the result following
Zero flag (Z) the execution of any arithmetic or Boolean instruction is
77. In a microprocessor, the register which holds stored in sign status flag.
the address of the next instruction to be fetched 83. The 8085 assembly language instruction that
is:
stores the content of H and L registers into
(a) Stack pointer (b) Program counter memory locations 2051H and 2050H,
(c) Instruction register (d) Accumulator respectively, is
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (a) SPHL 2050H (b) SPHL 2051H
UPPCL AE 2015 (c) SHLD 2050H (d) STAX 2050H
Ans. (b) In a microprocessor, the register which holds UJVNL AE 2016
the address of the next instruction to be fetched is
Ans. (c) Memory location SHLD 2050H
program counter
84. If the probability of a message is ¼,
78. The manufacturer of 6800 µP is
information in bits is:
(a) Intel (b) Motorola
(c) Zilog (d) Hitachi (a) 8 bit (b) 4 bit
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (c) 2 bit (d) 1 bit
Ans. (b) : The 6800 µP is an 8-bit microprocessor UJVNL AE 2016
designed and first manufactured by Motorola in 1974.  1 
Ans. (c) Information (Ixi) = log 2  
 P ( xi ) 
79. The first microprocessor introduced by Intel
Corporation was
(a) 4004 (b) 4040  1 
= log 2 
(c) 8008 (d) 8080 1/ 4 
= 2log 2 2
Ans. (a) : The first microprocessor introduced by Intel
Corporation was 4004 in 1971. =2
80. The relation of number of data bus (D) 85. The instruction ANA M is
requirement and number of the address bus (a) Four byte instruction
(A) requirement in a microprocessor (when (b) Three byte instruction
they are not shared) is given by (c) One byte instruction
(a) D = A (d) Two byte instruction
(b) D > A
JUVNL AE 2017
(c) D < A
(d) D and A are not related Ans. (c) : The instruction ANA M is one byte
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II instruction in 8085 Instruction set.
Ans. (d) : The relation of number of data bus (D) ANA: Logical AND with Accumulator
requirement and number of the address bus (A) opcode operand Bytes M-cycles T-states
requirement in a microprocessor (when they are not ANA Reg. 1 1 4
shared) is given by D and A are not related. Mem. 1 2 7

86. The 16-bit accumulator is denoted as: Ans. (b) : Standout sometimes referred to as a standoff
(a) AX (b) DL are small metal or plastic screws that attach to a
(c) AL (d) AH computer case and hold the motherboard in place. The
APPSC Poly. Tech. Lect. 2020 picture help give on example of standout.
Ans. (a) : AX is used as 16-bit accumulator. The lower 91. The transport layer protocol used for real time
8 bit is designated as AL and higher 8 bit is designated a multimedia, file transfer, DNS and e–mail
AH. respectively are–
87. The contents of the Accumulator, in an 8085 (a) TCP, UDP, UDP and TCP
microprocessor, after the following instructions (b) UDP, TCP, UDP and TCP
are executed will become: (c) UDP, TCP, TCP and UDP
XRA A (d) TCP, UDP, TCP and UDP
MVI B, F0H ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015
SUB B Ans. (b) : The transport layer protocol used for real-
(a) 10H (b) 01H time multimedia, file transfer, DNS and e-mail,
(c) 0FH (d) F0H respectively, are UDP, TCP, UDP and TCP, where UDP
KPSC AE 2014 is User Datagram Protocol and TCP is Transmission
RPSC AE 2018 Control Protocol.
Ans. (a) : In an 8085 microprocessor, TCP is suited for application that requires high
XRA, A reliability and transmission time is relatively less
Then, A = 00H critical while in UDP is suited where fast and efficient
MVI B, F0H transmission is required.
Then, B = F0H 92. The length of cable required for transmitting a
SUB B data at the rate of 500 Mbps in an Ethernet
So, the resulted is 10H . LAN with frames of size 10,000 bits and for
signal speed 2,00,000 km/s is
88. In an 8085 A microprocessor based system, it is
(a) 2.5 km (b) 2.0 km
desired to increment the contents of memory
location whose address is available in D, E (c) 1.5 km (d) 1.0 km
register pair and store the result in same ESE 2018
location. The sequence of instruction is- Ans. (b) : It is given :- Band width = 500 Mbps
(a) XCHG , INR M (b) XCHG, INX H LAN network, frame length(l) = 10,000 bits
(c) INX D, XCHG (d) INR M, XCHG speed (s) = 200,000 km/sec
KPSC AE 2014 The requirement for LAN :-
Ans. (a) : In an 8085 microprocessor, Tx min = 2T
D, E register pair and store the result in same location, L d
= 2.
sequence of instruction is XCHG , INR M. B s
89. In computer terminology what do you call the L S 10000 20, 00 × 1000
set of tools and commands at the top of the d= × = ×
B 2 500 ×10 6
2
computer screen.
2 ×1012
(a) Scroll bar (b) Shasak bar Cable length = = 2000 m = 2km
(c) Status bar (d) Ribbon 1000 × 106
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II 93. The decimal value 0.5 in IEEE single precision
Ans. (d) : In computer interface design a ribbon is a floating point representation has fraction bits
graphical control element in the form of a set of toolbars of
and command. (a) 000....000 and exponent value of 0
The purpose of the ribbon to provide quick access to (b) 000....000 and exponent value of –1
commonly used tasks within each program. Therefore, (c) 100....000 and exponent value of 0
the ribbon is customized for each application and (d) 100....000 and exponent value of –1
contains commands specific to the program. ESE 2018
Ans. (b) : IEEE single precision floating point format:
90. The computer connects the desktop computer
mantissa × 2 exponent
case using the mother board.
for 0.5
(a) Flat Panel (b) Standout mantissa is 0
(c) Joystick (d) Fan exponent is -1
UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift II so representation is 000...000 and exponent value of -1.

94. The contents of the accumulator and register C Ans. (a) : Register level design is geared toward the
are 2EH and 6CH respectively. The instruction processing of word as the basic limits of information or
ADD C is used. The values of AC and P flags signal. Gate level design : individual bits are treated as
are basic signal.
(a) 0 and 0 (b) 1 and 1 98. Which one of the following is a powerful web
(c) 0 and 1 (d) 1 and 0 platform for web applications and web
ESE 2019 services, built-in virtualization technologies,
Ans. (b) : Content of accumulator = 2E variety of new security tools, enhancements
content of registor C = 6C and streamlined configuration and
After addition operation result is 9A management tools?
Binary equivalent of 9A is (10011010)2 (a) Internet Explorer
(b) Internet Information Services
(c) Web Matrix
(d) Visual Web Developer
∴ AC = 1
ESE 2020
p=1
Ans. (c) : Web matrix is a integrated environment
95. Which of the following factors are to be
offered by many famous web hosting providers, which
considered while selecting number
is used for developing ASP.NET applications. It enables
representations to be used in a computer?
developer to build website using built in tempelates.
1. Number types to be represented
2. Range of values to be encountered 99. Most devices are interfaced to a bus with
3. Cost of the hardware to store and process the (a) Tristate drivers (b) Totem-pole outputs
numbers (c) pnp Transistors (d) Resistors
4. Positional notation with fixed weight UPPCL AE 2014
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Ans. (a) : In a microprocessor the device which are
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only used for interfacing are generally tri-state drivers.
ESE 2020
Ans. (a) : A variable represents an area of memory to (ii) Interrupts
hold a value in a typed language such as C, every
variable must be declared with a type.
Range of values to be encountered. 1. Which one of the following interrupts is both
Positional rotation with fixed weight. level and edge sensitive?
(a) RST 7.5 (b) RST 5.5
96. A multiprocessing technology which enables
(c) TRAP (d) INTR
software to treat a single processor as two
processors to utilize the processing power in RPSC AE 2018
the chip that would otherwise go unused and Ans : (c) Among all interrupts RST 7.5 is only positive
lets the chip operate more efficiently resulting edge sensitive RST 5.5 is level sensitive TRAP is both
in faster processing is called level and edge sensitive triggered. INTR is the only
(a) Systematic multiprocessing non-vectored interrupt in 8085 microprocessor. These
(b) Massively parallel processing interrupts are other edge triggered or level-triggered.
(c) Co-processing 2. Which signal of 8085 microprocessor is used to
(d) Hyper threading insert wait states?
ESE 2020 (a) Ready (b) ALE
Ans. (d) : Hyper-threading is intel's proprietary (c) HOLD (d) INTR
simultaneous multi threading implementation used to TSPSC AEE 2017
improve parallelization of computations performed x86 Ans. (a) : READY signal is used to insert wait states in
microprocessors. It allows single microprocessor to act 8085 microprocessor.
like two separate processors. READY is used to interface with the slow peripheral
97. Which of the following design levels of a devices (memory or I/O devices) to the microprocessor.
computer are widely used in computer design? 3. A _____ Instruction at the end of interrupt
1. Gate level 2. Processor level service program takes the execution back to the
3. Register level 3. User level interrupted program.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (a) Forward (b) Return
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Data (d) Line
ESE 2020 TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (b) : The RET instruction stands for return. This Ans. (d) : If the register B contain 26H then the value
instruction is used at the end of the procedure or the sub of B after the execution of INR B is 27 H.
programs. This instruction transfer the execution to the 10. The highest priority interrupt in Intel 8085
caller program (Interrupted program).
microprocessor is
4. In an 8086 processor the instruction pointer (a) INTR (b) RST 7.5
contains 0080 H and the code segment register
contains 0050. Then the 20-bit address of this (c) TRAP (d) RST 6.5
instruction will be TSTRANSCO AE 2018
(a) 00 500 H (b) 00 580 H Ans. (c) : In interrupts priority order is
(c) 00 850 H (d) 00 058 H [TRAP > RST 7.5 > RST 6.5 > RST 5.5 > INTR]
TNPSC AE 2018 So, TRAP has highest priority order.
Ans. (b) : In an 8086 processor the instruction pointer 11. The addressing mode used in the instruction
contains 0080 H and the code segment register contains STAX B is
0050. Then the 20-bit address of this instruction will be
(a) direct (b) immediate
00 580 H.
(c) implicit (d) Indirect
5. RST 7.5 interrupt of 8085 microprocessor is
RPSC VPITI 2018
(a) level triggered
(b) edge untriggered Ans. (d) : STAX B is example of indirect addressing
(c) both level and edge triggered Mode. The instruction STAX B stores accumulator in
(d) edge triggered the memory location specified by the address in B and
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II C register pair.
Ans. (d) : RST 7.5 interrupt of 8085 microprocessor is 12. The 8085 microprocessor responds to the
edge triggered. Whenever RST 6.5, RST 5.5 and INTR presence of an interrupt
are level triggered and TRAP is level triggered and edge (a) as soon as the TRAP pin becomes high
triggered both. (b) by checking the TRAP pin for high status at
6. The number of processes that are completed the end of the execution of each instruction
per unit time is called: (c) by checking the TRAP pin for high status at
(a) Output (b) Throughput regular intervals
(c) Efficiency (d) Capacity (d) by checking the TRAP pin for high status at
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 the end of each instruction fetch
Ans. (b) : Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I
7. Which one of the following keeps track of Ans. (b) : The 8085 microprocessor responds to the
instruction execution sequence? presence of an interrupt by checking the TRAP pin for
(a) Program counter (b) Stack pointer high status at the end of the execution of each
(c) Accumulator (d) Instruction register instruction.
UPPCL AE 18-05-2016 13. Which is the highest Interrupt Priority upon
Ans. (a) : Program counter keeps track of instruction Reset in 8051?
execution sequence. (a) External Interrupt 1
8. Every node (computer workstation or any (b) External Interrupt 0
other peripheral) is connected to a central node (c) Serial Communication
called hub or switch, is related to which (d) Timer Interrupt 1
topology? JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
(a) Bus (b) Ring Ans. (b) : External Interrupt '0' is the highest Interrupt
(c) Star (d) Mesh Priority upon Reset in 8051.
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III 8051/52 Interrupt priority upon reset
Ans. (c) : Every node (computer workstation or any Highest to lowest priority
other peripheral) is connected to central node called hub
External Interrupt 0 (INT0)
or switch, is related to star topology.
Timer Interrupt 0 (TF0)
9. If the register B contains 26H, then the value of
B after the execution of INR B is External Interrupt 1 (INT1)
(a) 25H (b) FFH Timer Interrupt 1 (TF1)
(c) 00H (d) 27H Serial communication (RI +T1)
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III Timer 2 (8052 only) TF2
14. Which interrupt is unmaskable interrupt? 20. One 8259A Programmable interrupt controller
(a) INTR (b) RST 7.5 can handle a maximum of
(c) TRAP (d) RST 5.5 (a) 2 level of interrupts
MPPSC AE 2014 (b) 8 level of interrupts
Ans. (c) : TRAP is also called RST 4.5 interrupt in (c) 16 level of interrupts
interrupt priority order is
(d) 32 level of interrupts
TRAP > RST 7.5 > RST 6.5 > RST 5.5 > INTR
TRAP is highest priority interrupt. It is a unmaskable PTCUL AE 2012
interrupt while other interrupt are maskable. Ans. (b) : The intel 8259A programmable interrupt
15. What is the vectored address of interrupt controller handles upto eight vectored priority interrupts
RST5? for the CPU. It is cascadable for upto 64 vectored
(a) 0040H (b) 0008H priority interrupts without additional circuitry.
(c) 0005H (d) 0028H 21. The hardware interrupt pins in 8086 are..........
DSSSB AE 2019 (a) ALE, ADI (b) READY, GND
Ans. (d) : Vectored address of interrupt RST 5 is (c) NMI, INTR (d) RESET, CLK
0028H.
16. The process of causing an unplanned
branching operation to occur, usually initiated Ans. (c) : The hardware interrupt pins in 8086 are
by external system is called NMI, INTR. NMI is non-maskable interrupt and INTR
(a) Masking (b) Iteration is a maskable interrupt and INTR is a maskable
(c) Interrupt (d) Debugging interrupt having lower priority.
Ans. (c) : The process of causing an unplanned
branching operation to occur, usually initiated external
system is called interrupt.
Interrupt which can be masked or stopped are
maskable interrupt otherwise non-maskable interrupt.
To mask and demask maskable interrupt of 8085 has to
instruction i.e. EI and DI.
17. The instruction that performs the logic ‘AND’
operation between corresponding bits of 22. When an interrupt occurs, the processor
accumulator and 8 bit data specified by completes the current........it is executing, before
instruction is -
(a) ANI Data (b) PUSH POP jumping to the interrupt service subroutine.
(c) PCHL (d) RAL (a) subroutine (b) instruction
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (c) macro (d) program
Ans. (a) : ANI : AND immediate with Accumulator AAI Junior Executive 2016
opcode operand bytes M-cycles T-states Ans. (b) : When an interrupt occurs the processor
ANI 8-bit date 2 2 7T complete the current instruction it is executing before
The contents of the accumulator are logically ANDed jumping to the interrupt service subroutine.
with the 8-bit (operand) and the results are placed in the 23. Which interrupt has the highest priority in
accumulator.
8085?
18. In 8086 microprocessor, Example for “Non
(a) INTR (b) TRAP
Maskable” interrupts are :
(a) TRAP (b) RST (c) RST 6.5 (d) RST 7.5
(c) INTR (d) RST6.6 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
RPSC VPITI 2016 AAI Junior Executive 2016
Ans. (a) : In 8086 microprocessor, example for "Non Ans. (b) : The 8085 microprocessor has five interrupt
maskable" interrupts are TRAP. .They are TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5 and
19. The Instruction AAM in a 8086 (16bit) INTR. These interrupt have a fixed priority go high at
processor is used for the same time, the 8085 will service then on priority
(a) Adjusting Accumulator before multiplication basis, the TRAP has the highest priority followed by
(b) ASCII adjust after Multiplication RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5.
(c) Adding Accumulator and memory
(d) Adding and Multiplication of memory 24. Which of the following instruction is used for
PTCUL AE 2012 serial input operation?
Ans. (b) : The AAM mnemonic stands for ASCII adjust (a) INTR (b) SIM
for multiplication or BCD adjust after multiply. This (c) SID (d) RIM
instruction is used for the process of multiplying two UPPCL AE 2015
ASCII digits. Ans. (d) RIM instruction used for serial input operation.

25. Maximum execution time is required for the 31. The software interrupts in a microprocessor is
instruction: required to
(a) NOP (b) CALL adder (a) Implement co-routines
(c) MOV A,M (d) JMP adder (b) Test the interrupt system of the processor
UPPCL AE 2015
(c) Return from subroutine
Ans. (b) Maximum execution time required for the
instruction CALL adder (d) Obtain system services which need execution
of privileged instructions
26. The XCHG instruction in 8085 micro-
processor after execution changes the data Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III
between: Ans. (d) : The software interrupts in a microprocessor is
(a) AB and HL register pair required to obtain system services which need execution
(b) BC and HL register pair of privileged instructions.
(c) DE and HL register pair In 8085 µp these are 8 software interrupts which are
(d) AB and CD register pair
used either in instructions or along with INTR interrupt.
UPPCL AE 2015
Ans. (c) The contents of register H are exchanged with 32. An infinite long conductor is carrying a current
the contents of register D, and the contents of register L I in a region of permeability µ1 and in the
are exchanged with the contents of register E. vicinity of another region of permeability µ2 as
27. The 8259 A programmable Interrupt controller shown in Fig. 9. For calculating the field in the
in cascade mode can handle interrupts of : first region, the effect of discontinuity is
(a) 8 priority level (b) 16 priority level replaced by an image I' and with µ1 < µ2.
(c) 32 priority level (d) 64 priority level Which one of the following statements is
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II correct in this regard?
Ans. (d) : The 8259 A programmable interrupt
controller in cascade mode can handle interrupts of 64
priority level.
28. Which of these instruction is a 3-byte
instruction?
(a) MVI A
(b) LDAX B (a) I and I' have the same strength and direction
(c) JMP 2050 (b) I and I' have opposite direction but same
(d) MOV A, M strength
RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011 (c) I and I' have same direction but different
Ans. (c) : JMP : Jump 2050; unconditionally – 3 Byte strengths
Instruction. (d) I and I' have opposite direction and different
29. Which one of the following is not a vectored strengths
interrupt?
(a) INTR (b) TRAP
(c) RST 3 (d) RST 7.5 Ans. (c) :
Ans. (a) : INTR is not a vectored interrupt. While
TRAP, RST 3, RST 7.5 is a vectored interrupt.
30. In 8085 microprocessor, whether an interrupt
is masked or not can be checked
(a) using the EI instruction According to virtual image concept, Both I and I' have
(b) using RIM instruction same direction, but different strengths.
(c) using the DI instruction
(d) using SIM instruction 33. A flat slab of dielectric (εr = 5) is placed normal
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III to a uniform field with a flux density D = 1
Ans. (b) : In 8085 are 8 software interrupts which are coulomb/m2. The slab is uniformly polarized.
used either in instructions or alongwith INTR interrupt. Polarization p in the slab (in coulomb/m2) will
In 8085 whether on interrupt is masked or not can be be
checked using RIM instruction. (a) 0.8 (b) 1.2
RIM and SIM instructions are not only used for (c) 4.0 (d) 6.0
interrupt process but also used for serial I/O process. JPSC AE 2013 Paper-V

D−P Ans. (a) : In 8085 RST 7.5 interrupts is positive edge
Ans. (a) : D = ε0E + P ⇒ E =
ε0 sensitive.
Interrupt Triggering
P = ε0χpE
TRAP Edge and Level
εr = 1 + χp RST 7.5 Edge
D−P
P = ε0(εr – 1)E = ε0 ( ε r − 1) = (εr – 1) D – Pεr + P RST 6.5 Level
ε0 RST 5.5 Level
Pεr = (εr – 1)D INTR Level
 ε −1  4 39. If RST7.5 interrupt is involked in 8085, it will
∴ Polarisation (P) =  r  D = × 1 = 0.8C / m
2
execute the ISR from _______ address.
 εr  5
(a) 0024 H (b) 002 CH
34. Which of the following is a non-maskable (c) 003 CH (d) 0000 H
interrupt of 8085 microprocessor? UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
(a) RST 7.5 (b) RST 6.5 Ans. (c) : There are 6 interrupt pins in the
(c) INTR (d) TRAP microprocessor used as Hardware interrupt with their
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II vector address are given below:
Ans. (d) : TRAP is a non-maskable interrupt of 8085 Interrupt Vector Address
microprocessor. While RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5 and RST 7.5 003CH
INTR are maskable interrupt. RST 6.5 0034H
35. A single instruction to clear the lower 4-bits of RST 5.5 002CH
the accumulator in 8085 is TRAP 0024H
(a) XRI 04 H (b) ANI F0H 40. Which of the following is hardware interrupts?
(c) XRI F0H (d) ANI 0FH (a) RST 5.5, RST 6.5, RST 7.5
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (b) INTR, TRAP
Ans. (b) : A single instruction to clear the lower 4-bits (c) Both (a) and (b)
of the accumulator in 8085 is ANI F0H. (d) RST 5.5
36. The clock frequency of a 8085 microprocessor OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
is 5 MHz. The time required to execute an Ans. (c) : The hardware interrupts available are,
instruction of 18 T-states will be TRAP, RST 7.5 , RST 6.5, RST 5.5, INTR
(a) 3.6 µs (b) 0.36 µs 41. What is the RST for the TRAP?
(c) 9.0 µs (d) 0.9 µs (a) RST 5.5 (b) RST 4.5
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (c) RST 4 (d) RST 7.5
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II
Ans. (b) : The RST for the TRAP is RST 4.5 and also
Ans. (a) : Given, fc = 5 MHz, No. of T states = 18
vector address of TRAP is 0024H.
1
TC = = 0.2 µs 42. What are level Triggering Interrupts?
5× 106 (a) INTR and TRAP
execute time = (no. of T states) × TC (b) RST 6.5 and RST 5.5
= 18 × 0.2 × 10–6 = 3.6 µs (c) RST 7.5 and RST 6.5
(d) RST 4 and RST 7.5
37. For an 8085 microprocessor, the value of (the
number of maskable interrupts) – (the number
of non-maskable interrupts) is: Ans. (b) : 8085 have five hardware interrupts, TRAP
(Highest priority), RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5 and
(a) 4 (b) 3
INTR (Lowest priority).
(c) 2 (d) 1 RST 7.5 is positive edge triggered interrupt.
LMRC AM 2020 RST 6.5 and RST 5.5 is level triggered interrupt.
Ans. (b) : In 8085 there are 5 interrupt when 'TRAP' is TRAP is both edge and level triggered interrupt.
the only non-maskable interrupt. Thus, option (b) is correct.
Hence difference in the two is 4 – 1 = 3. 43. Which interrupt is not level sensitive in 8085?
38. In an 8085 microprocessor, which of the (a) RST 6.5 is a raising edge-triggering interrupt
following interrupts is positive edge sensitive? (b) RST 7.5 is a raising edge-triggering interrupt
(a) RST 7.5 (b) RST 6.5 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) TRAP (d) RST 5.5 (d) RST 4 is a raising edge-triggering interrupt
DMRC AM 2018 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II

Ans. (b) : 8085 have five hardware interrupts, TRAP These action are taken by the microprocessor-
(Highest priority), RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5 and First completes the current instruction.
INTR (Lowest priority). Activates INTA output and receives the interrupt
RST 7.5 is positive edge triggered interrupt. type, say X.
Flag register value, CS value of the return address
RST 6.5 and RST 5.5 is level triggered interrupt.
and IP value.
TRAP is both edge and level triggered interrupt.
Flag register values, CS values of the return
Thus, option (b) is correct. address and IP of the return address are pushed on
44. In 8086 microprocessor the following has the to the stack.
highest priority among all types of interrupts: IP value is loaded from the contents of word
(a) NMI (b) DIV 0 location X×4.
(c) TYPE 255 (d) OVER FLOW CS is loaded from the contents of the next word
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II location.
Interrupt flag and trap flag is reset to 0.
Ans. (a) : NMI (Non Maskable Interrupt), It is a single
46. The maximum number of possible interrupts in
pin non maskable hardware interrupt which cannot be
8086 is.
disabled. It is the highest priority interrupt in 8086 µp. (a) 5 (b) 12
45. What are the hardware interrupts in 8086? (c) 128 (d) 256
(a) NMI and INT n (b) NMI and INTR (e) 56
(c) INT n and INT0 (d) INTn and INT3 CGPSC AE 2017
(e) INT n, INT0 and INT3 UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II
CGPSC AE 2017 ESE 2019
Ans. (d) : The different types of interrupts present in
Ans. (b) : There are two hardware interrupts in 8086
8086 microprocessor are given by:-
microprocessor:-
1. Hardware Interrupts:- Hardware interrupts are
1. NMI- those interrupts which are caused by any peripheral
It is a single non-maskable interrupt pin (NMI) device by sending pin to the microprocessor. These are
having higher priority that the maskable interrupt two hardware interrupts in 8086 µP.
request pin (INTR) and it is of type 2 interrupt. i. NMI (Non-maskable interrupt)
When this interrupt is activated, these actions take ii. INTR (Interrupt request)
place- 2. Software Interrupts:- Some instructions are inserted
Completes the current instruction that is in at the desired position into the program to create
progress. interrupts. These interrupt instruction can be used to test
Pushes the Flag register values on to the stack. the working of various interrupt handlers. It includes-
Pushes the CS (code segment) value and IP INT- Interrupt instruction with type number it is 2-byte
(instruction pointer value of the return address on instruction. First byte provides the op-code and the
to the stack. second byte provides the interrupt type number. There
are 256 interrupt types under this group.
IP is loaded from the contents of the word
location 00008 H. 47. In 8085 microprocessors how many hardware
interrupts are maskable?
CS is loaded from the contents of the next word
(a) 2 (b) 3
location 0000AH.
(c) 4 (d) 5
Interrupt flag and trap flag are reset to 0. ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2019
2. INTR- The INTR is a maskable interrupt because Ans. (c) : In 8085 microprocessor, except TRAP all are
the microprocessor will be interrupted only if maskable interrupts.
interrupts are enabled using set interrupt flag RS7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5, INTR.
instruction. It should not be enabled using clear 48. The number of hard ware interrupts present in
interrupt flag instruction. 8085 microprocessor are.
The INTR interrupts is activated by an I/O port. If (a) 1 (b) 4
the interrupt is enabled and NMI is disabled, then (c) 5 (d) 13
the microprocessor first completes the current MPPSC AE 2017
execution and send '0' on INTA pin twice. The first Ans. (c) : Interrupts in 8085, interrupts are the signal
'0' means INTA informs the external device to get generated by the external device to request the
ready and during the second '0' the microprocessor microprocessor to perform a task. there are 5 interrupt
receives the 8 bit, say X, from the programmable signal i.e. TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5 and
interrupt controller. INTR.
49. In a microprocessor, when a CPU is Ans. (d) :
interrupted, it.
(a) Stops execution of instructions
(b) Acknowledges interrupt and branches to
subroutine
(c) Acknowledges interrupt and continue
(d) Acknowledges interrupt and waits for the
next instruction from the interrupting device.
MPPSC AE 2017
(RRB SSE Bilaspur Yellow paper, 21.12.2014)
Ans. (d) : CPU here is a microprocessor the options are
concerned with INTR only as remaining interrupts do The flow chart reads the values of x, y and z, and print
not require interrupt acknowledgment hence the correct the largest of the three numbers.
option is (d).
(iv) Programming of Microprocessor
(iii) Floating Point Number 1. Following program is executed in 8285,
Organization LXI H, F378 H
LXI D, 0A0BH
1. In a digital computer, compared to the integer DAD
operation, the floating point operation takes What are the contents of HL pair?
(a) less time and less memory (a) F3H, 78H (b) 0AH, 0BH
(c) FDH, 83H (d) F3H, 0BH
(b) less time and more memory
(c) more time and more memory
Ans. (c) : DAD Register pair/SP: Add register pair to H
(d) more time and less memory
and L register.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II so, according to given programme content of H & L
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II pair is
Ans. (c) : In a digital computer, compared to the integer F378H
operation, the floating point operation takes more time +0A0BH
and more memory. FD83H
2. Consider the following flowchart involving H hold the MSB of the value i.e., FGH and L holds the
three numbers X, Y and Z : LSB of the value i.e., 83 H
2. The contents of Register (B) and Accumulator
(A) of 8085 microprocessor are 49H and 3AH
respectively. The contents of A and the status
of Carry flag (CY) and Sign flag (S) after
executing SUB B instruction are :
(a) A = F1, CY = 1, S = 1
(b) A = 0F, CY = 1, S = 1
(c) A = F0, CY = 0, S = 0
(d) A = 1F, CY = 1, S = 0
APTRANSCO AE 2019
Ans. (a) : Given that, A = 3AH
B = 49H
Then, executing SUB B operation-
A = 3AH = 0011 1010
–B = 49H = 0100 1001
The flowchart reads the values of X, Y and Z, 11111 0001
Carry→
and F 1
(a) employs looping of certain segments
A = (F1)H
(b) prints the smallest of the three numbers
CY = 1
(c) prints the middle value of the three numbers
(d) prints the largest of the three numbers S = 1 [∵ MSB is 1]
BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V Thus, A = F1, CY = 1, S = 1
3. The crystal frequency of 8085 microprocessor 7. Program Counter Register in 8085 indicates–
is 6 MHz. The time required to execute (a) Instructions executed so far
instruction XTHL over this microprocessor is- (b) The address of current instruction
(a) 5.33µs (b) 10.67 µs (c) The address of next instruction to be executed
(c) 4.33 µs (d) 8.67 µs (d) The address of executed instruction
RPSC AE 2018 UPPCL AE 2013
Ans : (a) Crystal frequency 6 MHz Ans. (c) : The function of the program counter is the
crystal frequency address of next instruction to be executed and program
8085 operating frequency = counter is special purpose register.
2
6 8. Which microprocessor accepts the program
= = 3MHz written for 8086 without any changes?
2
(a) 8085 (b) 8088
1 1
T = = µs (c) 80186 (d) 80188
f 3 TSPSC AEE 2017
XTHL: Exchange H and L with Top of stack Ans. (b) : The microprocessor which accepts the
Op-code operand Bytes M T Hex program written for 8086 is 8088.
XTHL None 1 5 16 E3 8088 is architecturally very similar to the 8086. The
The content of L register are exchanged with the stack main difference is that there are only 8 data lines instead
location pointed out by the contents of the stack pointer of the 8086's 16 lines.
register. The contents of the H register are exchanges 9. Programming the 8253 in mode 3 and loading a
with the next stack location (SP+1). The content of the count N results in
stack pointer XTHL required 16 T-state. (a) Single interrupt signal generation when count
1 becomes zero
= 16 × µsec
3 (b) Square wave output with high for N clocks
= 5.33 µsec and low for N clocks
4. The 8085 instruction that doubles the value in N
(c) Square wave output with high for clocks
accumulator is 2
(a) XRA A (b) ADD A N
and low for clocks
(c) SUB A (d) ORA A 2
TANGEDCO AE 2018
(d) Square wave output with high for
( N + 1)
Ans. (b) : In 8085 ADD A instruction double the value 2
in accumulator. It add data of accumulator to data of
clocks and low for
( N − 1)
clocks
accumulator and result stores again in accumulator. 2
5. The sets of commands in a program, which are TNPSC AE 2018
not translated into machine instructions during Ans. (d) : Programming the 8253 in mode 3 and
assembly process, are called loading a count N (odd) results in Square wave output
(a) Addresses (b) Directive
with high for
( N + 1) clocks and low for
(c) Mnemonics (d) Operands
2
UPPCL AE 2013
( N − 1) clocks.
Ans. (b) : The set of commands in a program, which
2
are not translated into machine instructions during
assembly process are called directives. 10. A stack pointer is
(a) A 16-bit register in the microprocessor that
6. Ready signal of 8085 processor is used for indicates the beginning of the stack memory
(a) Microprocessor is ready for use (b) A register that decodes and executes 16-bit
(b) To introduce WAIT state, when 8085 is arithmetic expressions
communicating with slow peripheral device (c) The first memory location where a subroutine
(c) 8085 is ready to execute instruction address is stored
(d) Slow down the speed of fast peripheral device (d) A register in which flag bits are stored
UPPCL AE 2013 TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : Ready signal of 8085 processor is used for Ans. (a) : A stack pointer is a 16-bit register in the
wait state, when 8085 is communicating with slow microprocessor that indicates the beginning of the stack
peripheral device. memory.
11. In pipeline for a C67x processor the maximum Ans. (b) :
number of execute packets for a fetch packet is 16. How many bits are in an ASCII code?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 16 (d) 32 (c) 9 (d) 11
TNPSC AE 2018 UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
Ans. (b) : In pipelining for a C67x processor the Ans. (b) :
maximum number of execute packets for fetch packet is
17. Program counter (PC) register is an integral
8. part of :
12. A memory which is described in terms of the (RRB SSE (Shift-II), 03.09.2015)
number of product terms and the number of (a) Hard Disk
outputs is called as- (b) RAM
(a) sequentially accessed memory (c) Cache memory
(d) CPU
(b) content addressable memory
Ans : (d) Program counter (PC) is register present in the
(c) programmable logic array CPU (Central Processing Unit), which contains the
(d) charge coupled device memory address of the next instruction to be executed from
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II memory. PC is a 16 bit register.
Ans. (c) : A memory which is described in terms of the 18. Consider the following program
number of product terms and the number of outputs is MVI B, FF
called as programmable logic array. L1 : DCRB
13. Programmable communication interface is JNZ L1
used to transfer- How many times the loop will be repeated?
(a) parallel data (a) 255 (b) 256
(b) serial data (c) 01 (d) 00
(c) both parallel and serial data UPPCL AE 18-05-2016
(d) none of the above Ans. (a) : MVI B, FF
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II L1 : DCRB
Ans. (c) : Programmable communication interface is JNZ L1
used to transfer– The loop will be related 255 times.
Both series and parallel data.
Programmed I/O n =8 28 − 1 = 255
Direct memory access (DMA) 19. The length of instruction in 8085 micro
Interrupt - Initial I/O processor is
14. A basic microprocessor operation such as (a) 32 bits (b) 24 bits
reading a byte from memory or writing a byte (c) 8 bits (d) 16 bits
to a port is called: MPPSC AE 2016
(a) Instruction cycle (b) Clock cycle Ans. (c) : The length of instruction in 8085 micro
(c) Boot cycle (d) Machine cycle processor is 8 bits.
UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019 20. In JAVA, identifiers are used to
Ans. (d) : (a) name things
15. If (b) store / save programs
Tn = Average time to read or write n bits (c) compile programs
TA = Average access time (d) None of the above
n = Number of bits RPSC VPITI 2018
R = Transfer rate, in bits per second Ans. (a) : Identifier in JAVA identifying are names of
Which one of the following relationships for variable method, classes, packages and interface i.e.
non-random-access memory is correct? string, arrays, main arrays identifier.
n
(a) TA = Tn + 21. The c expression ++i equivalent to writing
R (a) i = i + 2
n (b) i = i + 1
(b) Tn = TA +
R (c) i = i + i
(c) Tn = TA – n . R (d) i = i + i + i
(d) TA = Tn – n . R RPSC VPITI 2018
Ans. (b) : This is known as pre increment which mean Ans. (d) :
first increment then add further MVI A, 75
i=i+1 A = 0111 0101
22. In an 8085 microprocessor, the contents of the MVI B, 25
accumulator, after the following instructions B = 0010 0101
are executed will become : ADD B
XRA A
0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1
MVIB F0H
SUB B + 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 1
(a) 01 H (b) 0F H 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0
(c) F0 H (d) 10 H
DAA
RPSC VPITI 2018
TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (d) : For the given instruction set
XRA A → XOR A with A ⇒ A = 0
MVI B F0H → B = F0H
Content of accumulator
SUB B → A = A – B
A = 00H
A = 00000000
B = 11110000 26. With a clock frequency of 3MHz, the execution
2's complement of (–B) = 00010000 time for the instruction "STA addr" of 8085
A + (–B) = A – B = 00010000 will be
= 10 H (a) 3975 ns (b) 4333 ns
23. When is the READY signal sampled or checked (c) 3960 ns (d) 3115 ns
by the 8085 microprocessor? Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
(a) At the end of each machine cycle Ans. (b) : Execution time of "STA adder" instruction
(b) At the 2nd state of every machine cycle T = F + MR + MR + MW
(c) At the end of each instruction cycle T= 4TCLK + 3TCLK + 3TCLK + 3TCLK
(d) At the 1st state of every machine cycle
T = 13 TCLK
13
Ans. (b) : At the second state of every machine cycle, is T=
the "ready" signal sampled or checked by the 8085 f CLK
microprocessor. The ready signal is a active high input fCLK= 3MHz
control signal. It is used by microprocessor to detect 13
whether a peripheral has completed the data transfer or T = ×10−6
3
not.
= 4.333×10–6
24. The addressing mode used in instruction MOV T = 4333ns
A,B is
(a) Implied (b) Immediate 27. The maximum frequency on which 8085A-2
(c) Direct (d) Register microprocessor can operate is
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I (a) 3 MHz (b) 2 MHz
Ans. (d) : The addressing mode used in instruction (c) 5 MHz (d) 11 MHz
MOV A, B is a register. MOV A, B means data in Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II
register B is copied to register A. It occupies only Ans. (c) : The time for the back cycle of the Intel
1-byte in memory. 8085A-2 microprocessor is 200 n-sec.
25. Consider the following program. ∴ The maximum frequency on which 8085A-2 can
MVI A, 75 operate is
MVI B, 25 1 1
ADD B f= = = 5MHz
T 200 × 10− 9
DAA
28. Which one is used as basic processor for
After executing the program, what will be the
Pentium computer?
content of the accumulator?
(a) 34 (b) 9A (a) 8051 (b) 8086
(c) 90 (d) 00 (c) 8085 (d) None of above
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I GMB AE 2017

Ans. (b) : 8086 used as basic processor for Pentium 32. Microprogramming is a technique for
computer. 8086 is an 16 bit microprocessor. (a) writing small programs
29. The 8051 microcontroller is not designed for– (b) programming the control steps of a computer
(c) programming the microprocessors
(a) Rigorous calculation
(d) programming input/output
(b) More input – output port
(c) More instruction set
Ans. (b) : Microprogramming is a technique for
(d) None of above programming the control steps of a computer.
GMB AE 2017
33. A source program is the program written in –
Ans. (a) : The 8051 microcontroller is not designed for (a) English language
rigorous calculation. A rigorous method describes a (b) Symbolic language
column as a group of equation and solved these (c) Machine language
equation to calculate the operating condition of column. (d) High level language
30. 8 bit signed integers in 2's complement form UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
are read into the accumulator of an 8085 Ans. (d) : A source program is the program written in
microprocessor from an I/O port using the high level language.
following assembly language program segment High level language are general purpose language
with symbolic addresses. which are machine independent language.
BEGIN: IN PORT 34. The software used to operate microprocessor
RAL based system is called –
JNC BEGIN (a) Basic interpreter instruction
RAR (b) Firm ware
(c) Machine language code
END : HLT
(d) Assembly language
This program:
(a) Halts upon reading a negative number
Ans. (d) : The software used to operate microprocessor
(b) Halts upon reading a zero based system is called Assembly language. In this
(c) Never halts language programs are written as English like word.
(d) Halts upon reading a positive number 35. The instruction that loads the contents of
DSSSB AE 2019 program counter with the content of HL
Ans. (a) : register pair is –
BEGIN: IN PORT (a) ANI Data (b) PCHL
(c) PUSH POP (d) XRA B
RAL
JNC BEGIN
Ans. (b) : PCHL:- Load program counter with HL
RAR
contents.
END: HLT op code operand bytes M-cycles T-states
This program halts upon reading a negative number. PCHL None 1 1 6T
31. In a microcomputer, WAIT states are used to– Description: The contents of registers H and L are
(a) make the processor wait during DMA copied into the program counter.
operation. Flag : No flags are affected.
(b) make the processor wait during a power 36. Which of the following is not a keyword in Java
interrupt processing. :
(c) make the processor wait during a power shut (a) transient (b) emun
down.
(c) strictfp (d) instanceof
(d) interface slow peripherals to the processor.
RPSC VPITI 2016
Ans. (b) : "emun" is not a keyword in Java.
Ans. (d) : In a microcomputer, WAIT states are used to 37. Which is not true out of following in the
interface slow peripherals to the processor. Wait states context of Java?
can be used to reduce the energy consumption of a (a) The operating system periodically deletes all
processor by allowing the main processor clock to either of the java files available on the system
slow down or temporarily pause during the wait state if (b) Any package imported in a program and not
the CPU has no other work to do. used is automatically deleted

(c) When all references to an object are gone, the Ans. (a) : MOV BL, 8D
memory used by the object is automatically BL = 8D
reclaimed MOV AL, 7E
(d) The JVM checks the output of any Java AL = 7E
program and deletes anything that doesn't ADD AL, BL
make sense 1000 1101
RPSC VPITI 2016 + 0111 1110
Ans. (c) : When all references to an objects are gone the 10000 1011
memory used by the object is automatically reclaimed is AL = (0000 1011)2
false statement about in the context of Java. AL = (0B)H
38. Unsigned integer in ‘C’ language occupies : Cy = 1
(a) Two bytes (b) Four bytes After execution of command AL register will have 0B
(c) One byte (d) Eight bytes and carry flag set.
RPSC VPITI 2016 42. What is the addressing mode used in the
instruction MOV M,C?
Ans. (b) : Unsigned integer in 'C' Language occupies
(a) direct (b) immediate
four bytes.
(c) indexed (d) indirect
39. With regard to microprocessor, ALE stands AAI Junior Executive 2016
for................ . Ans. (d) : Indirect addressing mode is used in
(a) address latch enable instruction MOV M, C.
(b) address level enable 43. Intel's interfacing chips for programmable
(c) address leak enable interval timer and DMA control are.......
(d) address leak extension respectively.
(a) 8253, 8257 (b) 8253, 8251
RPSC VPITI 2016
(c) 8257, 8255 (d) 8251, 8257
Ans. (a) : In a microprocessor, ALE stands for address AAI Junior Executive 2016
latch enable. Ans. (a) : Intel's interfacing chips for programmable
40. Which of the following is not a command in interval timer and DMA control are 8253/8254,
UNIX operating system? 8237/8257 respectively.
(a) cat <file name> 44. In 8085A microprocessor based system. It is
(b) CHMOD + 707 <filename> desired to increment the contents of memory
location whose address is available in (D,E)
(c) MD <directory name> register pair and store the result in same
(d) cd <directory name> location, the sequence of instruction is :
PTCUL AE 2012 (a) XCHG (b) XCHG
Ans. (c) : Cat – This command outputs the content of a INRM INXH
text file. (c) INXD (d) INRM
XCHG XCHG
Cd – This command changes your current directory
WBSE TCL AE 2016
location.
CHMOD – This command changes the permission Ans. (a) XCHG; [DE] ↔ HL, i.e. the address is now
information associated with a file. stored in HL.
MD – Not a command. INRM; the contents of the memory location is
incremented by 1.
41. In 8086, what will be the contents of the AL
Exchange the content of HL-pair with content of DE
register after the following instruction have
pair.
been executed?
MOV BL, 8D 45. Consider the following loop
MOV AL, 7E XRA A
LXI B, 0007 H
ADD AL, BL
Loop DCX B
(a) 0B and carry flag is set JNZ LOOP
(b) 0B and carry flag is reset This loop will be executed
(c) 6B and carry flag is set (a) 1 time (b) 8 times
(d) 6B and carry flag is reset (c) 7 times (d) Infinite times
AAI Junior Executive 2016 RPSC Asstt. Inspector 2011
Ans. (c) : Let's assume that XRA A instruction clears 50. Consider the following instructions:
the register. 1. XRA A 2. CMC
LXI B is loads the register B with 0007. Decrements B 3. ANA A 4. MOV A, A
register pair by seven times right until the loop becomes Which of the above can be used to reset carry
zero. So, the loop will be executed 7–times flag without affecting contents of any register
and operation of 8085 microprocessor?
46. Every processor must necessarily have
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 only
(a) a data bus (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 only
(b) a data bus and an address bus UPSC JWM 2017
(c) a control bus Ans. (d) : ANA A without affecting contents of any
(d) a data bus, a control bus and an address bus register and operation of 8085 microprocessor will reset
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI carry flag.
Ans. (d) : Every processor must necessarily have a data 51. In 8085 microprocessor, contents of Register
bus, a control bus and an address bus. pair BC are FFFFH. After executing
47. A program structure that allows the repeated instruction INX B, the values of various flags
operation of a particular sequence of will be: (Initially CY = 0, Z = 0 and P = 1)
(a) CY = 0, Z = 0 and P = 1
instructions until a specified termination is (b) CY = 1, Z = 1 and P = 1
reached is called: (c) CY = 0, Z = 1 and P = 0
(a) subroutine (b) machine (d) CY = 0, Z = 1 and P = 1
(c) module (d) loop UPSC JWM 2017
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI Ans. (a) : Given that:-
content of Register pair BC = FFFFH
Ans. (d) : In computer programming a loop is a
= 1111 1111 1111 1111
sequence of instruction that is continually repeated until Initially flags:-
a certain condition is reached. Typically a certain Z = 0, CY = 0, P = 1
process is done, such as getting an item of data and After executing INXB results in:-
changing it, and then some condition is checked such as BC = 0000H
whether a counter has reached a prescribed number. So, final flags :-
Z = 0, CY = 0, P = 1
48. After completing the execution, the Notice that : In instruction INXB No flags are affected
microprocessor returns to after executing the instruction.
(a) Halt state (b) Fetch state 52. What is the content of the program counter
(c) Execute state (d) Interrupt state after the execution of the following instructions
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II after reset.
LXIH, 2600H
Ans. (b) : After completing the execution, the MVIL, 07H
microprocessor returns to Fetch state. PC HL
49. MOV CL, 05 ; (a) 0000H (b) 2600H
MOV BH, 23 ; (c) 2607H (d) 0726H
SHR BH,CL ; UPSC JWM 2017
The result after execution of the above Ans. (c) : LXIH, 2600H → L - 00 H & H - 26 H
programme will be /
(a) BH=0001 0000 and Carry Flag=1 H
(b) BH=0000 0001 and Carry Flag=1 PC HL
(c) BH=0001 0000 and Carry Flag=0 i.e. put PC = HL
(d) BH=0000 0001 and Carry Flag=0 = 2607 H
JUVNL AE 2017 53. The task performed by 8086 instruction: IN
AL, 05 H is.
Ans. (d) : MOV CL, 05; (a) Copy 05 H into lower 8 bits of AX
MOV BH, 23; (b) Copy data from address formed by combining
SHR, BH, CL higher 8 bits of BH with 05 into AH
The result after execution of above program for- (c) Copy data from address 05 into AL
MOV CL, 05; (d) Copy contents of AL at address 05H
MOV BH, 23; UPSC JWM 2017
SHR, BH, CL Ans. (c) : IN AL, 05 H
BH = 0000 0001 and carry flag 0 above statement, put the value of 05 H into AL register.

54. In a microprocessor, the address of the next 58. In 8085 microprocessor, instruction XCHG is:
instruction to be executed, is stored in (a) 3 byte instruction
(a) Stack pointer (b) 2 byte instruction
(b) Address latch (c) 5 byte instruction
(c) Program counter (d) 1 byte instruction
(d) General purpose registers CIL MT 2017
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (d) : In 8085 microprocessor XCHG is–
XCHG : Exchange H and L with D and E
WBPSC AE 2007
Opcode Operand Bytes M − cycles T − states
Ans. (c) : Program counter (PC): It is a 16 bit register
used to hold memory addresses. The function of XCHG None 1 1 4
program counter is to point to the memory address from Description– The contents of register H are exchanged
which the next byte is to be fetched. with the contents of register D and contents of register L
When a byte (machine code) is being fetched, the are exchanged with contents register E.
program counters is incremented by one to point to the 59. After the following instructions of 8085
next memory location. microprocessor is executed the register BC and
In a microprocessor the address of the next instruction HL will contain what values?
to be executed is stored in program counter. LXI SP, 2099H
55. Address line for TRAP is: LXI B, 424FH
(a) 0023 H (b) 0024 H LXI H, 64A5H
(c) 0033 H (d) 0034 H PUSH B
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II PUSH H
Ans. (b) : Address line = 8 × type POP B
= 8 × 4.5 ( ∵ Vectored addressed for TRAP is RST POP H
4.5)
RET
= 36
(a) HL= 4F42H; BC, A564H
Converting to Hexa
(b) BC = 4F42H; HL = A564H
Address line for TRAP = 0024H
(c) HL = 424FH; BC = 64A5H
56. What will be the contents of register AL after
(d) BC = 424FH; HL = 64A5H
the following has been executed?
MOV BL, 8C
MOV AL, 7E Ans : (c) LXI SP, 2099H; SP ←2099H
ADD AL, BL LXI B, 424FH; BC ← 424FH
(a) 0A and carry flag is set LXI H, 64A5H; HL ← 64A5H
(b) 0A and carry flag is rest PUSH B; SP ← SP-2; 2098H←42H; 2097H ← 4FH
(c) 6A and carry flag is set PUSH H; SP ←SP-2; 2096H ← 64H; 2095H←A5H
(d) 6A and carry flag is rest POP B; SP ← SP+2; BC ← 64A5H
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II POP H; SP ← Sp+2; HL ← 424FH
Ans. (a) : MOV BL, 8C – copy 8C into BL So, HL = 424FH; BC = 64A5H
MOV AL, 7 E – copy 7E into AL 60. An 8085 assembly language program is given
ADD AL , BL – Add BL to AL and put the answer into as follows.
AL LXI H, 8100H
i.e. 8C 7E = 0A MVI M, 20H
Carry flay is set with 0A output . MVI A, 40 H
57. Name of the 16 bit registers in 8085: INX H
(a) Stack pointer (b) Program counter MVI M, 30H
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above ADD M
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II HLT
The value of A at the end of the execution of
Ans. (c) : In 8085 there are two 16-bit registers called
the program is
memory register to hold memory address. They are: (a) 90H (b) 70H
Program Counter (PC) (c) 40H (d) 60H
Stack pointer (SP) UPPCL AE 01-01-2019 Shift II
Ans. (b): LXI H; HL 8100H Directions:
MVI M; M ← 20H consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement
MVI A; A ← 40H (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these
INX H; HL 8101H
MVI M; M ← 30 H
Codes:
ADD M; A ← A+M
ADD M; A ← (30)H+(40)H (a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
So, Output A ← (70)H
61. In 8085 microprocessors, which signal is used (b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
to insert wait? individually true; but Statement (II) is NOT
(a) READY (b) ALE the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) HOLD (d) INTR (c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is
false
Ans. (a) : In 8085 microprocessor, READY signal is true
used to insert wait. 64. Statement (I) : Variables that are defined inside
This is an active high input control signal. It is used by subprograms are local variables.
microprocessor to detect whether a peripheral has Statement (II) : Their scope is in the body of the
completed (or is Ready for) the data transfer or not. The subprogram in which they are defined.
main function of this pin is to synchronize slower ESE 2018
peripheral to faster microprocessor. Ans. (a) : Global Variable :- Variables which are
62. Resistor of microprocessor ( µp ) which keeps defined outside any functions are known as global
variables. These can be seen from all the functions
track of the execution of program and which within the program.
contain the memory address of next instruction Local variable :- Variable which are defined inside any
to be executed is called– function are known as local variables. These have
(a) Index resistor visibility within the function where these are defined.
(b) Program counter Directions:
(c) Memory address resistor consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement
(d) Instruction resistor (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these
ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015 two statements carefully and select the answers to
Ans. (b) : these items using the codes given below:
Program register holds the address of the next Codes:
instruction to be executed like: (a) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
Inst1 has address 1000 individually true; and Statement (II) is the
Inst2 has address 1002 correct explanation of Statement (I)
Now suppose Inst1 is executing, then the Program (b) Both Statement (I) and ‘Statement (II)’ are
individually true; but Statement (II) is NOT
Counter holds the address of the next Instruction that is
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
Inst2.
(c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement (II) is
Content of program counter at this instance is 1002. false
63. In n has the value 3, then the C language (d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement (II) is
statement : a [++n] = n++; assigns true
(a) 3 to a[5] (b) 4 to a[5] 65. Statement (I) : High-level programming
(c) 4 to a[4] (d) 5 to a[5] languages preferred by the scientific community
ESE 2017 as they are user friendly.
Statement (II) : High level programming
Ans. (c) : Different compilers will try to solve this by
languages provide ways of detailing instruction
doing some thing like-
for problem-solving that are translated into low
a.) doing ++n on the value of "n" first (to be used as level language via compilers and interpreters
index) before being executed by the computer.
b.) doing n++ first, and then ++n to calculate the index. ESE 2018
Ans. (a) : Advantages of high Level language are Ans. (c) : In microprocessor registers are used for
described fellow:- High level language over low level storage of data.
language are easier to read, write and maintain.
ultimately programmers written in a high level language Statement I - Correct.
must be translated into machine language by a compiler All registers are accessible to the user through
or interpreter. instruction.
66. What does the following program print ? Statement II - incorrect.
void f(int*p, int*q)
{ 68. A physical implementation of the type
p = q; declaration in high-level programming
* = 2; languages where major information types
} should be assigned formats for identification is
int i = 0, j = 1;
int main ( ) called
{ (a) Storage order (b) Tag
f(&i, &j); (c) Error correction (d) Error detection
printf("%d %d \n", i, j);
getchar ( ) ESE 2020
return 0; Ans. (d) : In the semantic analysis phase of compilation
} the type error is detected before a program is run. So
(a) 2 2 the programmers create programs that are more likely to
(b) 2 1
(c) 0 1 run error-free in their physical implementation.
(d) 0 2
ESE 2018 (v) ROM and RAM Memories
Ans. (c)
1. A ROM is a.
f(100,200) (a) nonvolatile memory
f(*p,*p) (b) volatile memory
(c) read/write memory
(d) byte-organized memory
MPPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : ROM is an acronyms for read only memory it
refers to computer memory chips containing permanent
or semi-permanent data. Unlike RAM, ROM is non
return function volatile even after you turn off your computer. The
printf(i,j) contents of ROM will remain.
i.e.(0,2)
Directions : consists of two statements, one labelled as 2. In a read only memory. the numbers of address
'Statement (I)' and the other labelled as 'Statement (II)'. lines gives-
You are to examine these two statements carefully and (a) Address of memory,
select the answer to these items using the codes given
below: (b) Numbers of bits stored in memory,
(c) Physical dimension of memory,
Codes: (d) Number of bytes stored in memory.
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are UPPCL AE 2013
individually true and Statement (II) is the correct
explanation of Statement (I). Ans. (b) : Read only memory (ROM) is a type of non-
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are volatile memory in which data stored cannot be
individually true and Statement (II) is not the electrically modified after the manufacture of the
correct explanation of Statement (I) memory device.
(c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false. In a ROM, the number of address lines gives the
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true. number of bits stored in the memory.
67. Statement (I) :
Registers are used for storage of small data in the 3. The 8086 fetches instruction one after another
microprocessor. from _____ or memory.
Statement (II) : (a) Code segment (b) IP
All registers are accessible to the user through (c) ES (d) SS
instructions.
ESE 2020 TSPSC AEE 2017
Ans. (a) : Memory segmentation is the division of a 9. Which is more memory efficient?
computers primary memory into segments or sections. (a) Structure
In 8086 they are (b) Union
(i) ES (extra segment) (c) Both use same memory
(ii) SS (stack segment) (d) Depends on a programme
(iii) CS (code segment) and WBPSC AE 2017
(iv) DS (data segment)
Ans. (b) :
The 8086 fetches instruction one after another from the
code segment (CS) of the memory. 10. Which of the following are the popular
4. RL7-RL0 lines of 8279 chip refer to structures in practice for FIR system?
(a) the data bus 1. Direct form
(b) the outputs that send data for display 2. Transformed form
(c) the inputs for sensing a key depression 3. Cascade form
(d) the scan lines for keyboard and display 4. Frequency sampling realization
TNPSC AE 2018 5. Lattice structure realization
Ans. (c) : RL7-RL0 lines of 8279 chip refer to the input (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
for sensing a key depression. The keyboard section (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
consists of eight return lines RL0 - RL7 that can be used (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
to form the columns of a keyboard matrix. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
5. The internal program memory range of 8051 UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
with active low EA signal high is Ans. (d) :
(a) 0000 – 00FF H (b) 0000 – 0FFF H
11. Which of the following functions of Assembler
(c) 0000 – FFFF H (d) FF00 – FFF H
are correct?
TNPSC AE 2018 1. It translates the function code into its machine
Ans. (b) : The internal program memory range of 8051 code equivalent
with active low EA signal high is 2. It assigns absolute addresses to any symbolic
0000–0 FFF H address
6. In 8086 if a segment address contains a value 3. It checks the syntax of each instruction and
1234 H. Then the ending address of the 64 K generates error messages
segment is (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 22330 H (b) 2233 F H (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 33220 H (d) 3322 F H UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (d) :
Ans. (b) : In 8086 micro processor segment address 12. Which of the following is an example of volatile
contains value 1234 H. Then the ending address of the memory?
64 K segment is 2233 F H. (a) ROM (b) RAM
7. What is the maximum range of memory that (c) PROM (d) HARD DISK
can be accessed using 10 address lines? WBPSC AE 2007
(a) 1000 bytes (b) 2048 bytes Ans. (b) :
(c) 1024 bytes (d) 100 bytes 13. The bit capacity of a memory that has 1024
TNPSC AE 2019 addresses and can store 8 bits at each address
Ans. (c) : Number of address line = 210 is
= 1024 bytes (a) 1024 (b) 8192
8. The "access time" for semiconductor memories (c) 8 (d) 4096
is of the order of- MPPSC AE 2016
(a) a few milli seconds Ans. (b) : The memory has total 1024 number of
(b) a few nano seconds addresses. Each address can hold 8 bits. Hence total bit
(c) a few micro seconds capacity of the memory is 8192.
(d) a few seconds Bit capacity = 8 ×1024 = 8192.
UPPSC AE 2011, Paper-II 14. A ROM has 11-bit address bus, the number of
Ans. (b) : Semiconductor memory also has much faster location in the memory that can be access is
access time than other type of data storage. A byte of (a) 512 (b) 1024
data can be written or read from semiconductor memory (c) 3012 (d) 2048
within few nano seconds. JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III
Ans. (d) : A ROM has 11-bit address bus, the number 20. In INTEL 8085 microprocessor, the address
of location in the memory that can be access is (2n) ⇒ bus is 16 bit wide. The memory which can be
211 ⇒ 2048. accessed by this address bus will be–
(a) 64 k (b) 2 k
15. Host address is identified by
(c) 8 k (d) 12 k
(a) Port number
MPPSC AE 2014
(b) Atomic unit number
(c) IP address Ans. (a) : n bit would get = 2 n addressable memory
(d) Hardware address location
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III now each location may be 16 bit
Ans. (c) : Host address is identified by IP address. = 216 = 210 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2
16. In microprocessor, the 'monitor program' is ROM memory = 216 = 210 × 64
stored in micro computer system in = 64 × 210
(a) Ready Only Memory (ROM)
(b) Static RAM
= 64 k {∵ 210 = 1k }
(c) Dynamic RAM 21. The following memory is a permanent
(d) Keyboard memory–
RPSC VPITI 2018 (a) ROM
Ans. (a) : In Microprocessor the monitor program is (b) RAM
stored in Micro computer system in ROM (Read only (c) ROM and RAM
Memory) (d) None of these is correct
17. What should be the address bus width to MPPSC AE 2014
address 4kB memory? Ans. (a) : The permanent memory is ROM. This
(a) 4 (b) 12 memory is non volatile memory. ROM is read only
(c) 16 (d) 8 memory. It refer to computer memory chips containing
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I permanent memory even you turn off computer, the
contents of ROM will remain same.
Ans. (b) : Data size = 2A ×8
22. In a 8085 microprocessor system with memory
A = address line
mapped I/O
4kB = 2A × 8
(a) I/O devices have 8-bit addresses
4 × 210 × 8 = 2A × 8
(b) I/O devices are accessed using IN and OUT
2 A = 212 instructions.
A = 12 (c) There can be a maximum of 256 input
18. In DRAM, number of transistors required per devices and 256 output devices.
bit is (d) Arithmetic and logic operations can be
(a) 4 (b) 3 directly performed with the I/O data
(c) 1 (d) 2 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II Ans. (d) : In 8085 microprocessor system with memory
Ans. (c) : DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory) mapped I/O arithmetic and logic operations can be
⇒ Data is store in mos capacitor and slower speed. directly performed with the I/O data.
DRAM use in main memory, number of transistor 8085 key features–
require per bit is one. 1. It is 8-bit processor
19. The write cycle time of a memory is 200ns. The 2. It has 8 data bus linear which is the bit capacity of
maximum rate at which data can be stored is the microprocessor.
3. It has total 16 address lines with addressing
(a) 5000000 words/sec (b) 5000 words/sec
capacity of 64 KB.
(c) 50000 words/sec (d) 500 words/sec
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-II 23. The stack is nothing but a set of reversed
(a) ROM address space (b) I/O address space
Ans. (a) : The write cycle of a memory = 200 n sec
(c) RAM address space (d) None of the above
It means in 200 n sec, it writes one word.
∴ The no. of words written in one second
Ans. (c) : The stack is nothing but a set of reversed
1 RAM address space.
= = 5000000 words/sec
200 × 10−9 RAM is primary memory of a computer. It is a volatile
∴ The maximum rate at which data can be stored is memory i.e. when power is turned off all contents are
5000000 words/sec. destroyed.

24. Transaction processing was made possible by Ans. (c) : Access in magnetic drum memory is partly
the development of - random and partly cyclic and sequential.
(a) Direct access storage (b) Magnetic tape 29. In 8085 microprocessor to hold the instruction
(c) Mini computer (d) Cash register inputread from the memory, which of the following
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II is used ?
Ans. (a) : Transaction processing was made possible by (a) Accumulator (b) Stack pointer
the development of direct access storage. (c) Program counter (d) Instruction register
25. Which of the following is a correct definition of UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II
volatile memory ? Ans. (d) : Instruction register- It is the part of ALU and
(a) It loses its contents at high ambient not assessable to the user.
temperatures. The instruction register holds the op-code of the
(b) Its contents are lost on failure of powerinstruction that is decoded and executed.
supply.
30. In a DMA write operation the data is
(c) It has to be kept in air-tight boxes always.
transferred
(d) It is the latest type of bubble memory.
(a) from I/O to memory.
(b) from memory to I/O.
Ans. (b) : RAM– it is a volatile memory i.e. when
(c) from memory to memory.
power is turned off all contents are destroyed. It can be
(d) from I/O to I/O.
easily programmed, erased and reprogrammed by the
user.
Ans. (a) : In DMA data transfer scheme, data are
26. The disadvantage of dynamic storage elements
directly transferred from I/O device to RAM or from
is that –
RAM to I/O device thus it is capable of performing
(a) power to kept on
three operations i.e., read, write and verify.
(b) information stored previously is lost
In DMA write operation, data is transferred from I/O
(c) storage cells are to be refreshed frequently
to RAM.
(d) none of these
31. The increasing order of speed data access for
the following devices is :
Ans. (c) : Dynamic RAM-
(i) Cache memory (ii) C.D. ROM
In dynamic RAM data is stored in MOS
(iii) Dynamic RAM (iv) Processor Registers
capacitance.
Fabricated only using MOSFET (v) Magnetic Tape
Slower than SRAM (a) (v), (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
It is having less power dissipation (b) (v), (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
It has high density (c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
In dynamic storage cells are to be refreshed (d) (v), (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
frequently. WBSE TCL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : The increasing order of speed of data access
So the disadvantage of dynamic storage elements is that
storage cells are to be refreshed frequently. is–
27. A ROM is used to store the table for Magnetic Tape < C.D. ROM < Dynamic RAM < Catch
multiplication of two 8-bit unsigned integers. memory < Processor Register.
Correct answer is – 32. If the last address of memory size 4K is 3FFF
(a) 256 × 16 (b) 64 K × 8 H, then the address of first location would be:
(c) 4 K × 16 (d) 64 K × 16 (a) 3000H (b) 3800H
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (c) 3100H (d) 2FFF H
Ans. (d) : A ROM is used to store the table for UPPCL AE 2015
multiplication of two 8-but unsigned integers is 64K×16.
Ans. (a) If the last address of memory size 4k is 3 FFF
H, then the address of first location will be 3000H.
28. Access in magnetic drum memory is – 33. Which of the following is used for serial access
(a) completely random storage only:-
(b) sequential and cyclic (a) RAM (b) Magnetic tape
(c) partly random and partly cyclic and (c) Magnetic disk (d) Core memory
sequential UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(d) a cyclic sequential Ans. (b) : Magnetic tape is used for serial access
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II storage only.

34. The software that transfers the object program Ans. (c) : Numbers of bits = 4 K
from secondary memory to the main memory is = 22 × 210
called:- = 212
(a) Assembler (b) Loader Number of bits needed to address 4K memory is 12.
(c) Linker (d) Task builder 40. Which one of the following is a nonvolatile
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II memory?
Ans. (b) : The software that transfers the object (a) Static RAM (b) Dynamic RAM
program from secondary memory to the main memory (c) Cache memory (d) ROM
is called loader. BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V
35. Programmable logic array (PLA) uses Ans. (d) : Non volatile memory or non volatile storage
(a) ROM matrices (b) PROM matrices is a type of computer memory that can retrieve stored
(c) RAM matrices (d) Silo memory information, when power is turned off. There are ROM
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI is a non-volatile memory.
Ans. (a) : Programmable logic array (PLA) is a fixed 41. The disadvantage of dynamic storage elements
architecture logic device with programmable AND is that
gates followed by programmable OR gates. It uses (a) information stored previously is lost
ROM matrices. (b) storage cells are to be refreshed frequently
(c) power is kept on
36. Which of the following is secondary storage?
(d) None of these
(a) Floppy disk (b) ROM
(c) EPROM (d) All of the above
Ans. (b) : The disadvantage of dynamic storage
BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V elements is that storage cells are to be refreshed
Ans. (a) : Floppy disk is secondary storage frequently.
A floppy disk, also known as a floppy, diskette or 42. What is the addressing mode used in
simply disk, is a type of disk storage composed of a instruction, LXI B 0345H?
disk of thin an flexible magnetic storage medium. (a) Direct (b) Indirect
37. A computer system has a cache memory of 64 (c) Straight (d) Immediate
KB, RAM of 32 KB and RAM of 512 KB. What UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
is the maximum capacity of the memory Ans. (d) : Immediate addressing mode used in
available to a programmer? instruction, LXI B 0345H.
(a) 608 KB (b) 576 KB 43. Programmable Logic Array (PLA) is having
(c) 544 KB (d) 512 KB (a) ROM matrices
BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V (b) RAM matrices
Ans. (c) (c) ROM & RAM matrices
System cache memory = 64 KB (d) None of these
RAM (1) capacity = 32 KB UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
RAM (2) capacity = 512 KB Ans. (a) : Programmable Logic Array (PLA) is having
Maximum capacity of memory available to a ROM matrices.
programmer is 544 KB. 44. The register which stores the operand, execute
38. The larger the RAM of a computer, the faster an instruction with the help of other registers
is its speed, since it eliminates and memory is called
(a) need for ROM (a) accumulator (b) program counter
(b) need for external memory (c) stack pointer (d) instruction register
(c) frequency disks I/O UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II
(d) need for a data wide path Ans. (a) : The register which stores the operand,
execute an instruction with the help of other registers
and memory is called accumulator.
Ans. (c) : The larger the RAM of a computer, the
45. In a microprocessor based system, DMA
faster is its speed, since it eliminates frequency disks
facility is required to increase the speed of the
I/O. data transfer between the :
39. The number of bits needed to address 4K (a) Memory and register
memory is (b) Memory and I/O device
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) Microprocessor and the memory
(c) 12 (d) 16 (d) Microprocessor and the I/O devices
BPSC AE 2012 Paper-V UJVNL AE 2016

Ans. (b) DMA facility is required to increase the speed (c) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
of data transfer between the memory and I/O devices. (d) Read Only Memory (ROM)
46. A memory system has a total of 8 memory UPPCL AE 04-11-2019 Shift I
chips each with 12 address lines and 4 data Ans. (c) : A central processing unit, also called a central
lines. The total size of the memory system is. processor or main processor, is the electronic circuitry
(a) 64 k bytes (b) 48 k bytes within a computer that carries out the instruction of
(c) 32 k bytes (d) 16 k bytes computer program by performing the basic arithmetic
RPSC VPITI 2018 logic, controlling and I/P, O/P operation specified by
KPSC AE 2014 instructions.
Ans. (d) : Give that :- 50. The ROM consists of–
(a) A decoder followed by an encoder
Total address line (A) = 12
(b) An encoder followed by a decoder
Data lines (D) = 4
(c) A multiplexer followed by a decoder
Total size of memory system = 2A × D
(d) A multivibrator
= 212 × 4 ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2017
= 210 × 22 × 22
Ans. (a) : ROM (read-only memory) is a combinational
(∵210 = 1k) circuit that consists of a decoder followed by an encoder
= 16 k bytes because in ROM, the input to a decoder will be in
47. Memory mapped I/O means. binary form and the output will represent its decimal
(a) Memory of the microprocessor also occupies form.
I/O space A decoder is a combinational circuit which is used to
(b) I/O devices are given memory addresses decode any encode form such as BCD, Binary to a more
known form such as decimal.
(c) I/O devices are connected in the I/O space
(d) I/O devices are not allocated memory 51. Techniques that automatically move program
addresses and data blocks into physical main memory
UPSC JWM 2017 when they are required for execution are
called–
Ans. (b) : Memory mapped I/O is a way to exchange (a) Main memory techniques
data and instructions between a CPU and peripheral
(b) Cache memory techniques
device attached to it. Memory mapped I/O is one where
(c) Virtual memory techniques
the processor and the I/O device share the same
(d) Associate memory techniques
memory location. i.e. the processor and I/O device are
mapped using the given memory addresses.
Ans. (c) : A virtual memory system provides a
48. Statement (I): DRAM memory is available with
mechanism for translating program-generated addresses
much larger size than static RAM
into correct main memory locations. This is done
Statement (II): DRAM needs refreshing after 2
dynamically, while programs are being executed in the
to 4 msec.
CPU. The translation or mapping is handled
(a) Both statement (I) and Statement (II) are
automatically by the hardware by means of a mapping
table.
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are 52. What is the effective access time, if the average
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT page-fault service time is 25 ms, memory access
the correct explanation of Statement (I) time is 100 ns and page-fault rate is P?
(a) 100 + 24,999,900 × P ns
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
false. (b) 100 + 25,000,000 × P ns
(c) 100 + 25,000 × P ns
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
(d) 25,000,000 + 100 P ns
true.
ESE 2018
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (a) : Calculate the access time using following
Ans. (b) : DRAM memory is available with large size
formula : (P × S) + ( 1 - P) Tm
than static RAM this statement is correct but (II)
Where S = Average page fault service time
statement is not correct explanation of statement (I)
statement II is also correct. Tm = Memory access time
= P * 25 ms + (1 - P)100 ns
49. _______in a computer controls, coordinates = P * 25 ms + (100 - p * 100) ns
and supervises the operations of the computer. = P * 25000000 ns + (100 - P * 100) ns
(a) Random Access Memory = 100 + 24, 999,900 * P ns
(b) Arithmetic and Logical Unit (ALU)
53. Consider the following statements : 4. It has higher bit density than DRAM
1. Better memory utilization is possible with (a) 1 and 4 only
non-contiguous allocation using fixed size (b) 1 and 3 only
pages (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. Associative memory is used for providing fast (d) 2 and 4 only
access to data stored in cache memory. ESE 2019
3. Direct mapping of cache memory is hard to Ans. (b) : SRAM is faster than DRAM
implement SRAM is more expensive than DRAM
Which of the above statements are correct? DRAM has higher bit density than SRAM Hence, 1 &
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 57. When enough total memory space exists to
ESE 2018 satisfy a request, but it is not contiguous, then
Ans. (a) : Better memory utilization is possible with this problem is known as
non-contiguous allocation using fixed size pages. (a) Internal Fragmentation
Associative memory is used for providing fast access (b) External Fragmentation
to data stored in cache memory (c) Overlays
Direction mapping is easy to implement. (d) Partitioning
ESE 2019
54. The memory management function of virtual
Ans. (b) : External fragmentation problem exists when
memory includes
enough total memory exist to satisfy a request but it is
1. Space allocation
not contiguous.
2. Program relocation
Directions : consists of two statements, one labelled as
3. Program execution
'Statement (I)' and the other labelled as 'Statement (II)'.
4. Code sharing You are to examine these two statements carefully and
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only select the answer to these items using the codes given
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only below:
ESE 2019 Codes:
Ans. (c) : Program relocation is the process of (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
assigning load address for portion dependent code and individually true and Statement (II) is the correct
data of program and adjust the code and data to reflect explanation of Statement (I).
the assigned address. (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
So, memory management function of virtual memory individually true and Statement (II) is not the
does not includes program relocation. It includes space correct explanation of Statement (I)
allocation, program execution and code sharing. (c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false.
55. If a cache has 64-byte cache lines, how long (d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true.
does it take to fetch a cache line if the main 58. Statement (I) :
memory takes 20 cycles to respond to each A buffer is not an area in RAM or on the hard
memory request and returns 2 bytes of data in drive designated to hold input and output on their
response to each request? way in or out of the system.
(a) 980 cycles (b) 640 cycles Statement (II) :
(c) 320 cycles (d) 160 cycles The process of placing items in a buffer so they
ESE 2019 can be retrieved by the appropriate device when
needed is called spooling.
Ans. (b) : The main memory takes 20 cycle to respond
to each memory request and return 2 bytes of data. ESE 2020
the number of request to access 64-bytes of the cache is Ans. (d) : The process in which data is temporarily held
is buffer, which is special area in memory or on a disk
64
= = 32 where a device can access them when it is ready.
2
59. The physical address translation in virtual
Each request takes 20 cycle.
memory address with Memory Management
Hence, 32 request will take = 32 × 20 = 640 cycles Unit (MMU) is done by which one of the
56. Which of the following statements are correct following mechanisms?
about SRAM? (a) Multiply virtual address by some constant
1. It provides faster access as compared to (b) Translation lookaside buffer (TLB)
DRAM (c) Encryption key
2. It is cheaper than DRAM (d) Using general purpose register in CPU
3. It is more expensive than DRAM ESE 2020
Ans. (b) : A translation look aside buffer is a memory (vi) CPU of a Microcomputer
cache that is used to reduce the time taken to access a
user memory location. It is part of the chip's memory 1. 8085 is a–
management unit. (a) 8-bit Microprocessor
(b) 6-bit Computer processor
60. Which one of the following is the correct (c) 8-bit Miniprocessor
combination of registers in DMA controller? (d) 4-bit Megaprocessor
(a) Data register, Stack pointer and Data counter UPPCL AE 2013
(b) Data register, Address register and Data Ans. (a) :
8085 is a 8 bit microprocessor.
counter
It has 8 data bus line, which is the bit capacity of the
(c) Data register, Stack pointer and Address microprocessor.
register It has total 16 address line.
(d) Data register, Program counter and Data 2. The assembler is
counter (a) A compiler that translates statements from
high-level language into assembly language
ESE 2020 (b) A program that translates mnemonics into
Ans. (b) : Address register to store source address, binary code
count register → to hold count of no. of bytes Data (c) An operating system that manages all the
programs in the system
register → To hold data from memory or I/O while (d) A program that stores data
transerring. TNPSC AE 2018
61. Static system are also called as Ans. (b) : The assembler is a program that translates
mnemonics into binary code.
(a) Memory system (b) Digital system
3. For performing arithmetic and logical
(c) Memory less system (d) Analog system operations, the IC used is
UPPCL AE 2014 (a) 74180 (b) 74181
Ans. (c) : Static system are also called as a memory (c) 74184 (d) 74185
less system, because there are only information present
Ans. (b) : The 74181 is a 4 bit slice arithmetic logic
at t = t, only instant response shows. Present output unit ALU, implemented as 7400 series TTL integrated
value depends only on the present input value but not on circuit. It is first complete ALU single chip.
the past and future value. It was used as the arithmetic and logic core in the CPU
of many historical significant mini computer and other
62. The stage of pipeline operation in which devices.
instructions are retrieved from the memory is 4. Which one of the following will cause external
called interrupt to CPU?
(a) Fetch (b) Execute (a) Register over flow
(b) Attempt to divide by zero
(c) Decode (d) Accumulate
(c) Power failure
UPPCL AE 2014 (d) Invalid operation code
Ans. (a) : Stage of pipeline operation in which UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
instruction are retrieved from the memory is called Ans. (c) :
fetch. 5. Consider the following specification for a VDU
terminal:
63. A 20 bit address bus supports Number of characters/line = 80
(a) 20,000 memory addresses Number of bits/character = 7
(b) 20,97,152 memory addresses Horizontal sweep time = 63.5 µ sec
(c) 10,48,576 memory addresses Retrace time = 20% of horizontal sweep time
(d) 1,00,000 memory addresses The bit rate will be:
(a) 13.32 M bit/sec (b) 12.33 M bit/sec
UPPCL AE 2014 (c) 11.23 M bit/sec (d) 10.22 M bit/sec
Ans. (c) : 20 bit address bus supports UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
= 2n = 220 = 10,48,576 memory address Ans. (c) :

6. Which of the following is an 8-bit register in (a) Stack pointer (b) Program counter
Intel 8085 microprocessor (c) Instruction pointer (d) Accumulator
(a) Accumulator UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(b) Program counter Ans. (d) : A register in the microprocessor that keeps
(c) Stack counter track of the answer or result of any arithmetic or logic
(d) Both accumulator and stack pointer operation is the accumulator.
TSTRANSCO AE 2018 11. In 8085 microprocessor the contents of the
Ans. (a) : accumulator, after the following instruction
Accumulator = 8 − bit register  executed will become:-

Program counter = 16 − bit register  In 8085 microprocessor X RA A
Stack point er = 16 − bit register  MVIB F0H
SUB B
7. The instruction queue in 8086 CPU is
(a) 01 H (b) 0F H
(a) Of random access type
(c) F0 H (d) 10 H
(b) Of FIFO type
(c) Of infinite queue
(d) Of LIFO type Ans. (d) : XRA A- The instruction clears the
accumulator A.
Thus contents in A = 00H, H represents hexadecimal.
Ans. (b) : The instruction queue in 8086 CPU is of
FIFO type. When execution unit (EU) is busy in or contents in A = (0000 0000)2
decoding or executing an instruction, the BIU fetches MVIB F0H- This instruction moves data F0H
up to six instruction bytes for the next instructions. immediately in register B.
These bytes are stored in a first in first out (FIFO) So contents in register B = F0H = (11110000)2
register set, which is called as a queue. SUB B - This instruction subtracts the data is B from
8. Which of the following statements regarding accumulator data (A).
the INT (Interrupt) and the BRQ (Bus request) Contents in accumulator a after above instruction is as-
Pins in a CPU is true?
(a) The BRQ pin is sampled after every
instruction cycle, but the INT is sampled after
every machine cycle.
(b) Both INT and BRQ pin are sampled after
every machine cycle.
(c) The INT pin is sampled after every
instruction cycle, but the BRQ pin is sampled
after every machine cycle.
(d) Both INT and BRQ pin are sampled, after
every instruction cycle.
WBSE TCL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : The BRQ (Bus Request) pin is sampled after 12. Zero address instruction format is used for:-
every instruction cycle.
(a) RISC architecture
But, the INT (Interrupt) is sampled after every
(b) CISC architecture
machine cycle in a C.P.U.
(c) Von – Neuman architecture
9. In which T-state does the CPU sends the
(d) Stack- organised architecture
address to memory or I/O & the ALE signal for
demultiplexing:- UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(a) T1 (b) T2 Ans. (d) : Zero address instruction format is used for
(c) T3 (d) T4 stack organised architecture.
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II 13. In a microprocessor, the stack and stack
Ans. (a) : T-state does the CPU sends the address to pointer
memory or I/O and the ALE signal for demultiplexing (a) Both reside in memory
is T1. (b) Reside in CPU and memory respectively
10. A register in the microprocessor that keeps (c) Reside in memory and CPU
track of the answer or result of any arithmetic (d) Both reside in CPU
or logic operation is the:- Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III

Ans. (c) : In a microprocessor, the stack and stack 18. Select from the options, the Discrete-Time
pointer reside in memory and CPU respectively. Fourier Transform (DTFT) of the below
sequence.
The stack is a last in first out (LIFO) data structure n
1
implemented in the RAM area and is used to store x (n ) =   u (n + 3)
addresses and data when the microprocessor branches to 2
a subroutine. (a) 8e3jω/1+0.5(e-jω) (b) 0.5e3jω/1+0.5(ejω)
(c) 0.5 3jω/1+0.5(e ) (d) 8e3jω/1−0.5(e-jω)
jω
14. In a microprocessor, both ALU and the control DMRC AM 2018
section have special purpose storage location Ans. (d) :As we know that,
called 1
an ↔ | a |< Z |
(a) Decoders (b) Address bus 1 − ae − jω
n
(c) Accumulator (d) Registers 1 1
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016 Shift-III   u (n) ↔ − jω
 
2 1 − 0.5e
Ans. (d) : In a microprocessor, both ALU and the n +3
e 3 jω
1
control section have special purpose storage location   u ( n + 3 ) ↔
2 1 − 0.5e − jω
called registers. n
1 8e3iω
  u ( n + 3) ↔
The architecture of 8085 consist of following register
(a) Temporary registers 2 1.0.5e − iω
(b) General purpose registers 19. _______stores the results of arithmetic and
logical operations.
(c) Special purpose registers (a) Instruction
15. A program access ten continuous memory (b) Accumulator (ACC)
locations. The CPU will take less time if the (c) Data Register (DR)
(d) Program Counter (PC)
addressing mode used is
(a) direct (b) Register indirect Ans. (b) :The output of the ALU goes wherever it is
(c) immediate (d) implicit directed to based on the instruction. In an CISC
Karnataka PSC AE 2017 (Complex instruction set computer) accumulator based
CPU, this will usually be the accumulator.
Ans. (b) : A program access ten continuous memory 20. Consider the following set of processes with
locations. The CPU will take less time if the addressing data thereof as given her :
mode used is register indirect. Process Arrival time CPU Burst time
16. Algorithm is used P1 0 ms 12 ms
P2 2 ms 4 ms
(a) to bring itself into desired state by its own
P3 3 ms 6 ms
action P4 8 ms 5 ms
(b) to perform logarithmic operation An operating system uses shortest remaining
(c) to describe a set of procedures by which the time first scheduling algorithm for pre-emptive
given result is obtained scheduling of processes. The average waiting
time of the processes is
(d) None of the above (a) 7.5 ms (b) 6.5 ms
JPSC AE 2013 Paper-VI (c) 5.5 ms (d) 4.5 ms
Ans. (c) : Algorithm is used to describe a set of ESE 2018
procedures by which the given result is obtained. Ans. (c) : Gantt chart
17. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Logical errors can be detected using the
CT TAT WT
computation of a program (CT-AT) (TAT-BT)
(b) Syntax errors are generally during the 27 27 15
execution of a program 6 4 0
(c) Syntax errors arise from the improper 12 9 3
17 9 4
construction of a program statement
Where CT = Completion time
TAT = Turn-Around Time
WT = Waiting time
Ans. (c) : Syntax errors arise from the improper BT= Burst Time
construction of a program statement. a syntax error is
15 + 0 + 3 + 4 22
an error in the syntax of a sequence of character or Average waiting time = = = 5.5 ms
tokens that is intended to be written in compile time. 4 4

Directions: consists of two statements, one labelled as 24. In which one of the following classes of
'statement (I)' and the other as 'statement (II)' you are to computers, is the relationship between
examine there two statements- carefully and select the architecture and organization very close?
answers to these items using the codes given below. (a) Microcomputers
Code: (b) Mini computers
(a) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are (c) Mainframe computers
individually three and statement (II) is the (d) Super computers
correct explanation of statement (I) ESE 2019
(b) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are Ans. (a) : Computer organization is about what the
individually true, but statement (II) is not the different functional units of computer are and how they
correct explanation of statement (I). are corrected with each other computer architecture is
about details how each unit is implemented. Micro
(c) Statement (I) is true, but statement (II) is computer are simple, small computer where everything
false. is implemented on a single board.
(d) Statement (I) is false, but statement (II) is Directions : consists of two statements, one labelled as
true. 'Statement (I)' and the other labelled as 'Statement (II)'.
21. Statement (I) : Sign magnitude representation is You are to examine these two statements carefully and
generally used in implementing the integer portion select the answer to these items using the codes given
of the ALU. below:
Statement (II) : In sign magnitude representation Codes:
there are two representations of 0. (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
ESE 2019 individually true and Statement (II) is the correct
explanation of Statement (I).
Ans. (d) : Sign-magnitude representation is rarely used
in implementing the integer portion of the ALU. The individually true and Statement (II) is not the
most common scheme is two's complement correct explanation of Statement (I)
representation. (c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false.
In signed magnitude representation, there are two ways (d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true.
to represent zero. 25. Statement (I) :
00000000 = 0 A cache is a memory unit placed between the
10000000 = -0 CPU and main memory M and is used to store
22. Which of the following instructions of 8085 are instruction, data or both.
the examples of implied addressing? Statement (II) :
1. CMA The cache's effect is to increase the average time
required to access an instruction or data word,
2. IN byte
typically to just a single-clock cycle.
3. RET ESE 2020
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (c) : A cache is a memory unit placed between the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only CPU and main memory. It is used to store instruction
ESE 2019 and data that are used repeatedly in the operation of
Ans. (d) : Implied addressing mode has implicit programs. The cache's effect reduce the average time
operand. Thus, (CMA) Complement accumulator and required to access instruction or data.
RET (return) are implied addressing mode instruction. 26. Which one of the following is the correct
23. The Central Processing Unit (CPU) consists of sequence of steps for executing an instruction
during CPU's processing?
(a) ALU and Control unit only
(a) Fetch instruction, Read data, Decode
(b) ALU, Control unit and Registers only instruction, Store data and Execute instruction
(c) ALU, Control unit and System bus only (b) Decode instruction, Read data, Execute
(d) ALU, Control unit, Registers and Internal bus instruction, Fetch Next instruction and Store
ESE 2019 data
Ans. (d) : The CPU consists of following component (c) Decode instruction, Decode Next operands,
ALU = Arithmetic and logic unit Fetch Next instruction, Execute instruction
and Store data
Control unit
(d) Fetch instruction, Decode instruction, Read
Register operands, Execute instruction and Store data
Internal bus ESE 2020

Ans. (d) : Basic steps of execution of an instruction– 3. ............ is a widely used, programmable,
Fetch instruction – Instruction will be fetched from parallel I/O device.
memory. (a) 8259 A programmable Interrupt Controller
Decode instruction – Instructions will be decoded and (b) 8254 programmable Interrupt Timer
calculate the effective address. (c) 8255 A programmable Peripheral Interface
Read operands – Fetch the operand from the memory. (d) 8237 DMA Controller
Execute instructions – Execute the instruction and store TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
the result in the proper place. Ans. (c) : 8555 A programmable peripheral interface is
27. An I/O processor controls the flow of a mostly used, programmable, parallel I/O device.
information between. 4. The Control signals for Input/output in
(a) cache memory and I/O devices memory-mapped I/O of 8085 microprocessor
(b) main memory and I/O devices are:
(c) two I/O devices (a) IOR / IOW (b) IN/OUT
(d) cache and main memories (c) MEMR / MEMW (d) STA, LDA
MPPSC AE 2017 TRB Poly. Lect. 2017
Ans. (b) : An I/O processor controls the flow of
Ans. (c) : MEMR / MEMW control signals are used to
information between main memory and I/O devices.
control read and write I/O operations.
Hence the correct option is (b).
5. _____ signal is generated by combining RD and
28. In an 8085 microprocessor system with WR signals with IO/M.
memory mapped I/O, (a) Control (b) System
(a) I/O devices have 16-bit addresses (c) Register (d) Memory
(b) I/O devices are accessed using IN and OUT TSPSC AEE 2017
instructions Ans. (a) : Control signal is generated by combining RD
(c) there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and WR signals with IO/M.
and 256 output devices. The control signals are provided to support 8086
(d) I/O devices have 8-bit addresses memory Input/output interfaces. They control functions
MPPSC AE 2017 such as when the bus to carry a valid address in which
Ans. (a) : The microprocessor 8085 can transfer direction data are to be transferred over the bus, when
maximum 16 bit address which mean it can address valid write data are on the bus and when to put read data
65,536 different memory location the length of the on the system bus.
address bus determines the amount of memory a system 6. Which among the following is true for DMA
can address such as a system with a 32-bit address bus Data transfer.
can address 232 memory location. (i) The microprocessor does not execute any
instructions during hold period.
(vii) Interfacing Memory and I/O (ii) Used for data transfer in slow I/O devices.
(iii) The microprocessor is forced to hold on by
Devices an I/O device until data transfer is
1. Which of the following refers to the physical complete.
and logical layout of nodes in a network? (a) (ii) only (b) (i) and (ii)
(a) Network Design (b) Network Topology (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
TNPSC AE 2019
(c) Network Layout (d) Network Protocol
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-III Ans. (d) : With Direct memory Access DMA, the CPU
first initiates the transfer & then it does other option.
Ans. (b) : Network topology is refers to the physical
7. Which of the following I/O techniques need
and logical layout of nodes in a network.
processor involvement during I/O operations?
2. Which network allows users to assemble or 1. Programmed I/O
build custom networks using common 2. Interrupt-driven I/O
networking devices?
3. Direct memory access
(a) Pico Network (b) pie-Network
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) iNetwork (d) eNetwork
JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
Ans. (c) : iNetwork allows users to assemble or build Ans. (b) :
custom networks using common networking devices.

8. In an 8085 microprocessor, the first machine 14. ‘C’ language allows a three-way transfer of
cycle of every instruction is : control with the help of :
(a) Opcode Fetch Cycle (a) unary operator
(b) I/O Read Cycle (b) relational operator
(c) Memory Read Cycle (c) ternary operator
(d) Memory Write Cycle (d) comparison operator
OMC Deputy manager 2019 RPSC VPITI 2016
Ans. (a) : In execution of any instruction first cycle is Ans. (c) : 'C' language allows a three way transfer of
op-code fetch the memory read or write on
control with the help of ternary operator.
input/output read or write cycle occur as per
instruction given. 15. How may I/O ports can 8085 access :
9. In DMA operation, data transfer takes place (a) 256 (b) 1028
between (c) 512 (d) 128
(a) Different CPUs (b) I/O and memory CIL MT 2020
(c) I/O and CPU (d) Memory and CPU Ans. (a) : In 8085 instruction set, there are two
Rajasthan Nagar Nigam AE 2016, Shift-I instructions in 8085 for communication with I/O ports.
Ans. (b) : In DMA operation, data transfer takes place They are the IN and OUT instructions. The IN or OUT
between I/O and memory. instruction mnemonic should be followed by an 8-bit
10. The devices commonly used for serial data port address. Thus we can have 28 = 256 input ports and
transfer to/from 8085 microprocessor are 256 output ports are possible in 8085 based micro-
(a) Cassette tapes (b) Key boards computer.
(c) Seven-segment LEDs (d) Memory 16. In IT, the correct abbreviation for SMTP is
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II (a) Sample Mail and Transceiver Protocol
Ans. (a) : The device commonly used for serial data (b) Stop Mail and Terminate Process
transfer to from 8085 µP are cassette tapes. It is an (c) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
analog magnetic tape recording form use for audio (d) Simple Mail Transmission Policy
recording and playback. PTCUL AE 2012
11. A maximum I/O space which can be addressed
Ans. (c) : SMTP → Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. It is
by 8088 CPU is –
a communication protocol used for electronic mail
(a) 1024 (b) 65536
transmission.
(c) 2000 (d) 2048
JUVNL AE 2017 17. Effective address is calculated by adding or
subtracting displacement value to:-
(a) Intermediate address (b) Relative address
Ans. (b) : A maximum I/O space which can be
addressed by 8088 CPU is 65536. (c) Absolute address (d) Base address
12. What type of circuit is used at the interface UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
point of an input port of 8085 ? Ans. (d) : Effective address is calculated by adding or
(a) Decoder (b) Tristate buffer subtracting displacement value to base address.
(c) Latch (d) None of the above 18. The chip 8255 A is connected as peripheral I/O.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-II The chip is selected when address lines A2 to A7
Ans. (b) : Tristate buffer circuit is used at the interface are all 1, the address of control register is:-
point of an input port of 8085. (a) FC H (b) FD H
13. In serial I/O communication, data flow can (c) FE H (d) FF H
occur in – UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II
(a) Synchronous format only Ans. (d) : Chip i.e. 8255A is selected when there is low
(b) Asynchronous format only
input at CS signal in chip and for control register
(c) Either synchronous or asynchronous format
output A0 and A1 should be 1. Also A2 to A7 are all 1
(d) Full duplex only
i.e. given in equations.
So address of control register - A7 A6 A5 A4 A3 A2 A1
Ans. (c) : In serial I/O communication, data flow can
A0
occur in either synchronous or asynchronous format.
Asynchronous counter (Ripple/series counter) = (11 111 111)2
synchronous counter (Parallel counter). = FFH

19. ACK indicates reception of:- Ans. (a) : Near Type JMP instruction are available for
(a) Correct data (b) Incorrect data values falling under 32 KB and 0020 H fall with range
(c) Insufficient data (d) Sufficient data of 32 KB Therefore, Near JMP instruction will be
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-II assembled.
Ans. (a) : ACK (Acknowledgement) code, a 25. A computer system has a cache with a cache
transmission control character used to indicate that a access time TC = 10 ns, a hit ratio of 80% and
transmitted message was received uncorrupted or an average memory access time TM = 20 ns.
without errors. What is the access time for physical memory
Thus, ACK indicates reception of correct data. TP?
20. A microprocessor with 12-bit address but will (a) 90 ns (b) 80 ns
be able to access (c) 60 ns (d) 20 ns
(a) 1 K of memory (b) 4 K of memory
ESE 2017
(c) 8 K of memory (d) 0.4 K of memory
Ans. (c) : Given,
Cache access time, TC = 10 n sec
Ans. (b) : A microprocessor with 12-bit address but will
be able to access 4 K of memory. Hit ratio = 80%
Average memory access
21. The device commonly used for social data
transfer to/from 8085 microprocessor is Time, Tm = 20 n sec
(a) keyboard (b) seven-segment LED Access time for physical memory = TP = T + TC
(c) cassette tape (d) memory TC × hit ratio + miss ratio × (TC + T) = 20
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II 10 × 0.8 + (1 – 0.8) × (10 + T) = 20
Ans. (c) : The device commonly used for social data T = 50
transfer to/from 8085 microprocessor is cassette tape. TP = 50 + TC = 60 n sec
22. The protocol which translates between IP 26. Consider the following statements regarding
addresses and hardware addresses by peer-to-peer computing environment:
maintaining a table of mappings is called 1. In this system, clients and servers are not
(notations/symbols carry their usual meaning) distinguished from one another.
(a) DHCP (b) HTTP 2. All nodes distributed throughout the system
(c) FTP (d) ARP (within) are considered Peers and each may
JUVNL AE 2017 act as either a client or a server.
Ans. (d) : The protocol which translates between IP 3. Peer-to-Peer system assuredly offers certain
addresses and hardware addresses by maintaining table advantages over the traditional client-server
of mappings is called address (IP address) to a system.
permanent physical machine address in a local area 4. Peer-to-Peer system is just a replica of the
network (LAN). The physical machine address is also file-server system.
known as a media Access control or MAC address. Which of the above statements are correct?
23. IPv4 address 127.0.0.1 corresponds to (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1111111.0.0.1 (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 01111111.00000000.00000000.00000001 ESE 2017
(c) 1111111001 Ans. (a) : In peer-to-peer computing, 'peers' are
(d) 100000000.00000000.00000001.00000001 computer system which are connected to each other via
JUVNL AE 2017 the Internet. In other words, each computer on a P2P
Ans. (b) : It is an internal address that routes back to the network becomes a file server as well as a client.
local system, the loop back in IPv4 is 127.0.01 in IPV6, 27. Consider the following statements :
the loop back address is 1. System calls provide the interface between a
01111111.00000000.00000000.00000001. process and the operating system
The address is used to establish on IP connection to the 2. PERL implementations include direct system
same machine or computer being used by the end user. call access
24. Which type of JMP instruction assembles if the 3. System calls occur in different ways
distance is 0020 H bytes? depending on the computer in use
(a) Near (b) Far Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) Short (d) None of the above (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : System calls provide an essential interface Ans. (c) : SSD can locate, retrieve or write data
between a process and operating system. instantly. There is no any movable read write head like
System calls can be grouped roughly into six major hand disk (HDD). SSD uses software- instructions to go
directly to the location where data is stored. So access
categories depending on the computer in use
time is reduced.
(1) Process control Since, there is no any moving parts in SSD. So there are
(2) file Management less power consumption while working and while idle.
(3) Device Management 31. The total average read or write time Ttotal is
(4) Information maintenance 1 b 1 b
(5) Communication (a) TS + + (b) TS + +
2r N 2r rN
(6) Protection so all the three statements are tree. TS b b
(c) + (d) TS + 2r +
28. Consider the following statements regarding rN N rN
Computer Architecture : Where,
1. The advantage with dedicated bus is decrease TS = average seek time
in size and cost b = number of bytes to be transferred
2. In synchronous timing, the occurrence of N = number of bytes on a track
events on the bus is determined by the clock r = rotation speed, in revolutions per second
3. Data bus width decides the number of bits ESE 2019
transferred at one time Ans. (b) : Total average read or write time
Which of the above statements are correct? = Seek time + Total Delay + Time require to read b
bytes
Given: Seek time= Ts
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Rotation speed = r revolution/second
ESE 2018 ∵ r revolution in 1 second
Ans. (c) : Dedicated buses are large in size and 1
increases the costs so this point is incorrect. ∴ revolution in second
r
• Synchronous transmissions are accompanied by 1
regular timing signal which are generated by some Total delay = 2r
external clocking mechanism. Number of bytes on a track = N
• Data bus width is the word length of C.P.U. Data 1
width means number of lines in the bus and one line N bytes can be transferred in r second
carry one bit information at a time. 1
1 byte can be transferred in second
29. In microprocessor interface, the concept of Nr
detecting some condition such as 'no math b
found' is called b bytes can be transferred in second
Nr
(a) Syntax error (b) Semantic error
total average read or write time.
(c) Logical error (d) Error trapping
1 b
ESE 2019 = Ts + +
2r N r
Ans. (c) : "No match found" is a logical error which
occurs during execution. 32. In register index addressing mode, the effective
address is given by.
30. Features of solid state drives (SSDs) are (a) the index register value
1. High performance in input/output (b) the sum of the index value and the operand
operations per second (c) the operand
2. More power consumption than comparable (d) the difference of the index register value and
size HDDs the operand
3. Lower access times and latency rates MPPSC AE 2017
4. More susceptible to physical shock and
Ans. (a) : In Index mode addressing mode, the effective
vibration
address of the operand is generated by adding a constant
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only value to the contents of a register he address of the
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only operand is obtained by adding to the contents of general
ESE 2019 register (called index register) a constant value.

(viii) Programmable Peripheral and Ans. (b) : Programmable peripheral interface can
programmed in 3-mode only.
Communication Interface Mode 'O' - Basic I/O
Mode 1 - Strobe input/strobe output
1. The peripheral which does not belong to the In this input/output of port data is performed in
category of general purpose peripherals is : conjuction with the strobe signal or handshaking signal.
(a) a programmable CRT controller Mode 2- two ways bus.
(b) a programmable DMA controller In this mode port is use 8 bit bus for data transfer with a
(c) a programmable floppy disk controller peripheral device.
(d) a programmable keyboard and display 6. OS that permits multiples programs to run
interface simultaneously using single processor is
OMC Deputy manager 2019 referred as–
Ans. (b) : Programmable DMA controller does not (a) Multitasking (b) Multi user
belong to general purpose peripheral. (c) Multithreading (d) Multiprocessing
2. Which protocol is used to facilitate ISRO Scientist/Engineer 2015
communication between computers? Ans. (a) : OS that permits multiples programs to run
(a) Data Cable (b) CPU simultaneously using single processor is referred as
(c) TCP/IP (d) VPN multitasking.
JUVNL AE 2017
Ans. (c) : TCP/IP protocol is used to facilitate (ix) Application of Microprocessor
communication between computers.
3. Read the given Assertion and Reason carefully
and choose the correct option. 1. The micro controller 8051 has all of the
following, except
Assertion: During DNS resolution, DNS
messages are sent from DNS clients to Root (a) built-in Timer
DNS servers or Local DNS servers (b) built-in Serial Communication
Reason: DNS server identifies the IP Address (c) built-in Analog-to-Digital Converter
of the Destination Server (d) built-in Read Only Memory
(a) Assertion is true but Reason is false TANGEDCO AE 2018
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are false Ans. (c) : Microcontroller has all of the following
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true and except built in analog to digital converter.
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion 2. The root partition, which contains the
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are true but operating-system kernal and sometime other
Reason is NOT the correct explanation of system files, is mounted at:
Assertion (a) Access time (b) Compile time
JUVNL AE 2017 (c) Boot time (d) Execution time
Ans. (c) : During DNS resolution, DNS messages are UPSC Poly. Lect. 2019
sent DNS clients to Root DNS servers or local DNS Ans. (c) :
servers. DNS server identifies the IP Address of the 3. In which of the following protocols, each device
destination server. A DNS zone is an administrative has n-1 ports for cables if there are n devices in
space which allows for more granular control of DNS a network?
components, such as authoritative name servers. The (a) Ring (b) Bus
domain space a hierarchical tree, with the DNS root (c) Star (d) Mesh
domain at the top. JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II
4. (i) RIP (ii) DHCP Among the topics (i) and (ii), Ans. (d) : If there are 'n' devices in a network then in
which can be called as client? mesh protocols, each device has 'n – 1' ports for cables
(a) Neither (i) nor (ii) (b) Both (i) and (ii) because each system in the network is connect to every
(c) (ii) only (d) (i) only other system in the network.
JUVNL AE 2017 4. How are the bits of the register PSW affected if
Ans. (c) :Both RIP and DHCP called as client. we select Bank 1 in microcontroller 8051?
5. The programmable peripheral interface can be (a) PSW .3 = 0 and PSW .4 = 1
programmed in. (b) PSW .3 = 1 and PSW .4 = 0
(a) 2 modes only (b) 3 modes only (c) PSW .3 = 1 and PSW .4 = 1
(c) 4 modes only (d) 5 modes only (d) PSW .3 = 0 and PSW .4 = 0
UPSC JWM 2017 JUVNL AE 2017, Shift-II

Ans. (b) : PSW Bits Bank Selection Ans. (b) : The gamma correction is associated/related
RS1(PSW.4) RS0(PSW.3) with RGB and picture tube RGB stands for Red, Green
and Blue.
Bank 0 0 0
9. In 8085 microprocessor, _____ bit register
Bank 1 0 1
which holds the address of next instruction to
Bank 2 1 0
be fetched is _____.
If we select bank in microcontroller 8051 then- (a) 8 bits, accumulator
PSW.3 = 1
(b) 16 bit, Program counter
PSW.4 = 0
(c) 16 bit, stack pointer
5. Match the items in List-I with the items in List-
II and select the correct answer using the codes (d) 16 bit, HL pair
given below : UPRVUNL (UPJVNL) AE 2016
List-I List-II Ans. (b) : A program counter is a 16 bit register in a
(Type of (Type of distance) computer processor that contains the address (location)
Transmission Line)
of the instruction being executed at the current time. As
A. Short Line 1. Ohm Relay each instruction gets fetched. The program counter
B. Medium Line 2. Reactance Relay increases its stored value by 1.
C. Long Line 3. Mho Relay
10. PSW in 8085 contains-
(a) a-2, b-1, c-3
(a) accumulator (b) flags
(b) a-3, b-2, c-1
(c) a-1, b-2, c-3 (c) either (a) or (b) (d) both (a) and (b)
(d) a-1, b-3, c-2 KPSC AE 2014
WBSE TCL AE 2016 Ans. (d) : PSW (Program status word) in 8085 contains
Ans. (a) accumulator and flag. five bits indicate the five status
Short Transmission line – Reactance Relay flags and three bit are undefined. The combination of
Medium Transmission line – Impedance Relay these 8 bits called program status word.
Long Transmission line – Mho Relay
11. The address of a memory location of Intel 8085
6. Which bus is a bidirectional bus:-
(a) Address bus microprocessor is-
(b) Data bus (a) 8 bit (b) 16 bit
(c) Address bus and data bus (c) 32 bit (d) 64 bit
(d) None of the above KPSC ASTT. INSP. 2014
Ans. (b) : Key feature of 8085
Ans. (b) : Data bus is a bidirectional bus, while address
bus is a unidirectional bus. It is a 8-bit processor
7. An algebraic polynomial of degree n can It has 8 data bus lines, which is the bit capacity of
always be solved analytically with a limit of n the microprocessor.
as It has total 16 address lines with address capacity of
(a) 2 64 KB.
(b) 3
(c) 4 12. The ALE line of an 8085 microprocessor is
(d) there is no limit of n used to :
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper-II (a) latch the output of an I/O instruction into an
Ans. (a) : An algebraic polynomial of degree n can external latch
always be solved analytically with a limit of n as 2. (b) deactivate the chip-select signal from memory
8. The Gamma correction is associated/related devices
with (i) RGB (ii) Picture tube (c) find the interrupt enable states of the TRAP
Choose the correct option for the above
interrupt
statement from the following.
(a) Neither (i) nor (ii) (b) Both (i) and (ii) (d) latch the 8 bits of address line AD7-AD0 into
(c) (ii) only (d) (i) only an external latch
JUVNL AE 2017 APTRANSCO AE 2017
Ans. (d) : The ALE line of an 8085 microprocessor is 17. 8088 microprocessor differs from 8086
used to latch the 8 bits of address line. AD7-AD0 into microprocessor in:
an external latch. ALE stands for Address Latch Enable. (a) Data width on the output
It is the 30th pin of 8085 which is used to enable or (b) Address capability
disable the address bus. (c) Support of coprocessor
(d) Support of MAX/MIN mode
13. Intel's 8212 is a.
(a) A/D converter
(b) D/A converter Ans. (a) : The 8088 have eight – bit external data bus
instead of the 16-bus of the 8086 microprocessor. Thus,
(c) 16 bit I/O port
8088 microprocessor differs from 8086 microprocessor
(d) 8 bit I/O port in data width on the output.
UPSC JWM 2017 18. 8085 microprocessor has _____ individual flags
Ans. (d) : 8212 available in package chip which is dual during arithmetic and logic operations:
in line having 24 pins total. (a) 8 (b) 16
The latch which 8 bit in 8212 receives the information (c) 2 (d) 5
which is present on the eight data inputs ranging from CIL MT 2017
D17 to D10. Ans. (d) : 8085 microprocessor has 5 individuals flag
14. Direction flag is used with: during arithmetic and logic operations.
(a) String instructions (1) Carry flag (CY)– If an Arithmetic operation results
(b) Stack instructions in a carry, the CY flag is set otherwise it is reset.
(c) Arithmetic instructions (2) Parity Flag (P)–
(d) Branch instructions If the result has an even no. of 1′s the flag is set.
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II If the result has an odd no of 1′s the flag is reset.
Ans. (a) : Direction flag are always used with string (3) Auxiliary Carry (AC)– In an arithmetic operation.
instructions. The direction flag is a flag that controls the If carry is generated by digit D3 and passed to D4 flag
left-to-right on right-to-left direction of string is set otherwise it is reset.
processing, stored in the flags register on all XX86 (4) Zero Flag (Z)– Zero flag is set to 1 when the result
compatible CPUs. It is always used with string is zero otherwise it is reset.
Instruction. (5) Sign Flag (S)– Sign flag is set if bit D7 of the result
is 1 otherwise it is reset.
15. 8251 is a:
(a) UART 19. Which of the following is NOT a control
register in 8051?
(b) USART
(a) TCON (b) TMOD
(c) Programmable interrupt controller
(c) SCON (d) IP
(d) Programmable interval timer/counter (e) SBUF
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II CGPSC AE 2017
Ans. (b) : The 8251 is a USART (Universal Ans. (e) : SBUF register is an 8 bit register used solely
synchronous Asynchronous receiver Transmitter) for for serial communication in 8051. For a byte of data to
serial data communication. As a peripheral device of a be transferred via T × D line, it must be placed in SBUF
microcomputer system, the 8251 receivers parallel data register.
from the CPU and transmits serial data after conversion. 20. In 8051, serial communication with 8-bit,
16. In 8086 microprocessor one of the following variable baud is configured as mode:
statements is not true: (a) 0 (b) 1
(a) Coprocessor is interfaced in MAX mode (c) 2 (d) 3
(b) Coprocessor is interfaced in MIN mode (e) 4
(c) I/O can be interfaced in MAX/MIN mode CGPSC AE 2017
(d) Supports pipelining Ans. (b) : Serial control register SCON is used to set
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper- II serial communication operation modes. It is also used to
Ans. (b) : In 8086 microprocessor coprocessor is control, transmit and receive operations. Normally
interfaced in MAX mode. mode-1 (SM0 = 0, SM1 = 1) is used with 8- bits data. 1
So, coprocessor is interfaced in MIN mode in 8086 start bit and 1 stop-bit. This bit enables multiprocessor
microprocessor is not true. communication feature in mode 2 & 3.

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Youth Competition Times

ALL INDIA ENGINEERING SERVICES

Subject No. of Questions Marks Total Marks Time

General Hindi 25 (Each 75

Main Subject 100 (Each 300

Subject No. of Questions Marks Total Marks Time

General Studies 25 (Each 75

Main Subject 100 (Each 300

Personal Examination (Interivew) – 100 Marks

Total – 375 + 375 + 100 = 850 Marks

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