WORK, ENERGY AND FORCE

CLASS-X (2021-22)
Q.1.The centripetal force acting on a body undergoing circular motion is
Directed:
a) Towards the centre of the circular path
b) Away from the centre of the circular path
c) Acts along the tangent to a point on the circular path
d) None of these
Ans. a)

Q.2. If a body goes up from the surface of earth, the work done by the force of
Gravity on the body is considered:
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Infinite
Ans. b)

Q.3. If a body goes up from the surface of earth, the work done by the body
Against the force of gravity is considered:
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Infinite
Ans. a)

Q.4. 1 watt = _______

a) 1 J/s
b) 107 erg/s
c) 1/746 H.P.
d) All of the above
Ans. d)

Q.5. If a man exerts a force of 50 N in pulling a cart at a constant speed of

15m/s, the power spent by him will be:
a) 75.0 W
b) 750 W
c) 7500 W
d) 7.5 W
Ans. b)

Q.6.Which of the following possess rotational kinetic energy:

a) A car moving on a circular track
b) A spinning top
c) Moving atoms of HCl gas
d) Both b) and c)
Ans. d)

Q.7.The temperature of water at the bottom of a water fall is:

a) Lower than its temperature at the top as it has less kinetic energy at the bottom.
b) Higher than its temperature at the top as it has more kinetic energy at the bottom.
 c) Higher than its temperature at the top as its potential energy at the top is
converted into heat.
d) Higher than its temperature at the top as its kinetic energy at the top is converted
into heat.
Ans. c)

Q.8.The energy possessed by a pendulum at its extreme position is:

a) Kinetic energy-mgh :Potential energy-zero
b) Kinetic energy-zero :Potential energy- mgh
c) Kinetic energy-mgh :Potential energy- mgh
d) Kinetic energy-zero :Potential energy-zero

Ans. a)
Q.9.A stone of mass 500 g is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 15
ms-1. The potential energy at the greatest height is:
a) 735 J
b) 73.5 J
c) 73,500 J
d) None of these
Ans. B

Q.10.The energy transformation taking place in a car going uphill is:

a) Kinetic energy to mechanical energy
b) Potential energy to mechanical energy
c) Magnetic energy to kinetic energy
d) Chemical energy to mechanical energy
Ans. d)

Q.11.An object is said to possess gravitational potential energy due to change

in its :
a) Mass
b) Height above the earth’s surface
c) Acceleration due to gravity
d) All of the above
Ans. d)

Q.12. How much time is required by a body to perform 640 J of work at the
rate of 40 W?
a) 10 s
b) 24 s
c) 16 s
d) 23 s
Ans. c)

Q.13.A toddler pushes his toy car of mass 120g by pulling a thread making
600 angle with the ground. What is the total work done by the boy if he is
Able to displace his car up to 10m? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
a) 100 J
b) 10 J
c) 1200 J
d) 1000 J
Ans. b)
Q.14.A coolie walks on a horizontal platform with a load on his head. Work
Done by gravity on the load is:
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) None of these
Ans. c)

Q.15. A body of mass 10 kg is lifted by 2m from a height of 3 m above the

ground. Find the increase in its potential energy.
a) 50 J
b) -50 J
c) 196 J
d) -196 J
Ans. c)

Q.16. If a lighter body has same momentum as that of a heavier body, then
The kinetic energy of the ___________ body will be more than that of the
____________ Body.
a) Heavier : lighter
b) Lighter : heavier
c) Heavier : Heavier
d) Lighter : lighter
Ans. b)

Q.17.Which of the following is true?

a) Work = Force x displacement
b) Power = Force x average speed
c) Power = work / time
d) All of the above
Ans. d)

Q.18. When a body falls from a certain height, its total mechanical energy:
a) Changes
b) Remains constant
c) Both of the above
d) Can’t say
Ans. b)

Q.19.A wound up watch spring has:

a) Gravitational potential energy
b) Elastic potential energy
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Ans. b)

Q.20. Two dry bodies rubbed against each other gets charged, they then
Possess:
a) Electrical energy
b) Magnetic energy
c) Sound energy
d) Mechanical energy
 Ans. a)

Force
1. What is the weight of a body placed at the center of the earth?
A. Zero
B. – g
C. g
D. None of the above
Ans- a. Zero

2. What are the factors affecting the turning effect of the body?
a. The magnitude of the force applied
b. Pressure
c. clockwise of moment
d. Equilibrium position
Ans- a: The magnitude of the force applied

3. The unit of moment of force in SI system is:

a. N-cm
B. dyne- cm
C. dyne -m
d. Nm
Ans d: Nm

4. The point of action of force on a rigid body is:

a. Fixed point on rigid body
b. Fixed point, but can be transferred anywhere along the line of force
c. Fixed point, but can be transferred anywhere along the direction of force
d. Fixed point, but can be transferred anywhere opposite to the direction of force
Ans b: Fixed point, but can be transferred anywhere along the line of force

5. The turning effect produced in a rigid body around a fixed point by the application
of force is called
a. Turning force
b. Movement of force
C. moment of force
d. None of the above
Ans c: moment of force

6. The moment of couple is mathematically the :

a. A product of one force and the perpendicular distance between two forces
B. product of both forces and the perpendicular distance between them
C. product of one force and the perpendicular distance between the point of
application of force and turning point.
d. None of the above.

Ans a.product of one force and the perpendicular distance between two forces

7. The condition for equilibrium is:

a. The resultant of all the forces acting on the body be zero only.
 b. The resultant of moments of all the forces acting on the body about the
turning points should be zero.
C. both a and b
d. None of the above
Ans b.the resultant of moments of all the forces acting on the body about the
turning point should be zero.

8. A body is acted upon by two unequal and opposite forces along different lines of
action of force. The body will have
a. Only rotatory motion
b. Only Translatory motion
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans a. Only rotatory motion

9. A force F acts on a rigid body capable of turning around a fixed point. The
moment of force depends upon
a. Magnitude of force F
b. Magnitude of perpendicular distance between the point of action of force and
the point should be zero.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
Ans c. both (a) and (b)

10. The centre of gravity of a cricket ball is at:

a. its geometric centre
b. at its bottom touching the ground
c. its top most point
d. at any point on its surface
Ans a.its geometric centre

11. A body is describing a uniform circular motion. Which of the following quantities
is/are constant
a. speed
b.acceleration
c. velocity
d. both (a) and (b)
Ans a. Speed

12 In a uniform circular motion:

a. speed of body continuously changes because the direction of motion changes
b. velocity of body continuously changes because the direction of motion changes
c. the motion of body is accelerated
d. both (b) and (c)
Ans d. both (b) and (c)

13. A force of 50 N produces a moment of force of 10 Nm in a rigid body. Calculate

the perpendicular distance between the point of application of force and the turning
point.
a . 0.2m
b. 0.5 m
c. 0.2 cm
 d. 0.5 cm
Ans a. 0.2m

14. Calculate the force which will produce a moment of force of 1575 dyne cm, when the
perpendicular distance between point of application of force and turning point is 45 cm.
a . 45 dyne
b . 56 dyne
c. 35 dyne
d. 12 dyne
Ans c: 35 dyne

15. Two forces each of magnitude 2N act vertically upward and downward respectively
on two ends of a uniform rod of length lm, freely pivoted at its centre. Determine the
resultant moment of forces about the midpoint of the rod.
a . 3Nm
b . 2 Nm
c. 2.5 Nm
d. None of the above
Ans b: 2 Nm

16. Where does the position of centre of gravity lie for a circular lamina ?
a . Its centre of Gravity lies at its Geometrical Centre
b. The point of intersection of diagonals.
c. Center of ring
d. None of the above
Ans a: Its centre of Gravity lies at its Geometrical Centre

17. A uniform metre scale is balanced at 20 cm mark, when a weight of 100 gf is

suspended from one end.Where must the weight be suspended ?
a. At 50cm
b. At zero mark
c. At 45cm
d. None of above
Ans b: At zero mark.

18. A uniform wooden beam AB, 80 cm long and weighing 250 gf, is supported on a
wedge as shown in the figure. Calculate the greatest weight which can be placed on end
A without causing the beam to tilt.
a. 850 gf
b. 850 Kgf
c. 750 gf
d. 750 Kgf
Ans c: 750gf

19. A uniform metre scale can be balanced at 70.0 cm mark, when a mass of 0.05 kg is
hung from 94.0 cm mark.
a. 0.06 kg
b. 0.6Kg
c. 0.6 g
d. None of the above
Ans b: 0.6 kg
20. Where is the centre of gravity of a uniform ring situated.
a. At the centre of ring, (where there is no mass)
b. Its centre of Gravity lies at its Geometrical Centre
c. The point of intersection of diagonals.
d. None of the above
Ans a: At the centre of ring, (where there is no mass)

21. The position of the centre of gravity of a body remains unchanged even when the
body is deformed. ’
a. True
b. False
Ans b: False

22. On what factor does the position of the centre of gravity of a body depend?
a. The whole weight of the body should act at that point.
b. force applied
c. both a and b
d. None the above
Ans: The whole weight of the body should act at that point.

23. Condition when the body is in Dynamic equilibrium.

a. the body should remain in its state of uniform motion when it is under the
action of forces.
b.The body should remain in state of rest when it is under the action of forces.
c. both a and b
d. None the above
Ans a: The body should remain in its state of uniform motion when it is under the Action
of force

24. When a body is acted upon by a number of forces the body is to be in equilibrium.
The two conditions are:
a. The resultant of all the translational forces should be zero.
b. All the clockwise moments should be equal to all the anticlockwise moments
C. Both a and b
D. None the above
Ans c: both a and b

Machines
I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions. Choose the appropriate
answer.
1. The correct relationship between MA, VR and efficiency is
a.MA=efficiency x VR
b, VR=Efficiency x MA
c. Efficiency=MA/VR
d. None of these
Ans. MA=efficiency x VR
2.A pulley system with velocity ration of 4 is used to lift a load of 150 kgf through a
vertical height of 20 m. The effort required is 50 kgf in the downward direction, Calculate
the distance moved by the effort.
a. 40 m
b. 80 m
c. 160 m
d. 800 m
Ans. 80 m

3. When we want to use a machine as a force multiplier then

a.Effort>Load
b. Effort<Load
c. Effort=Load
d. None of these
Ans. .Effort<Load

4. A single fixed pulley is used because

a.MA>1
b. VR<1
c. Gives 100 % efficiency
d. Helps to change the direction of effort in a convenient direction
Ans. helps to change the direction of effort in a convenient direction

5. For an ideal machine

a. output energy>input energy
b. output energy<input energy
c. output energy=input energy
d. None of these
Ans. output energy=input energy

6. A system of pulleys with a velocity ratio 25 overcomes a resistance of 3300 N when an

effort of 165 N is applied. Find the mechanical advantage.
a. 20
b.40
c.60
d. None of these
Ans. 20

7. The mechanical advantage of a machine is 50.Find the effort required to lift 100 N
a. 0.05 N
b. 20 N
c. 50 N
d. 2 N
Ans.2N
8. A force applied to a machine to do mechanical work is called
a.Effort
b. Load
c. Efficiency
d. output
Ans. Effort.

9. A single movable pulley is used as

a. Force multiplier
b. speed multiplier
c. Device used to change the direction of effort
d. All of the above
Ans. Force multiplier

10. The MA of an ideal single movable pulley is

a.1
b.2
c. <2
d. <1
Ans.2

11.A single string system has 5 pulleys. If an effort of 50 kgf is required to raise a load of
150 kgf then the efficiency of the system
a.60 %
b.80%
c.10 %
d.70 %
Ans.60 %

12. A woman draws water from a well using a fixed pulley. The mass of bucket and water
together is 5 kg. The force applied by the women is 100 kg. Calculate the mechanical
advantage (Take g=10 m/s)
a.2
b.4
c.6
d.8
Ans.2

13. Select the incorrect option given below

a. A machine always has efficiency less than 100%
b. The mechanical advantage of a machine can be less than 1
c. A machine can also be used as a speed multiplier
d. It is possible that a machine can have the mechanical advantage>VR
Ans. It is possible that a machine can have the mechanical advantage>VR

14. The factor which will not change in a machine of given design
a. Velocity ratio
b. Mechanical advantage
c. Efficiency
d. Both b and c
Ans: Velocity ratio.

15. A pulley which has its axis of rotation stationary is called

a. Single movable pulley
b. Single fixed pulley
c. Combination of a fixed and movable pulley
d. None of these.
Ans. single fixed pulley.

16. In a single movable pulley if the effort moves by a distance 60 cm upwards, by what
height is the load raised?
a. 30 cm
B.120 cm
C.60 cm
D.90 cm
Ans.30 cm.

17. In a single fixed pulley, if the load moves by a distance 15 cm upwards, by what
height is the effort end moved
A.15 cm upward
B.15 cm downward
C.30 cm upward
D.30 cm downward
Ans.15 cm downward

18. In case of a block and tackle system, the mechanical advantage------------with the
increase in the number of pulleys
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. None of the above
Ans. Increases.

19. To --------------the efficiency, the pulleys in the lower block should be as light as
possible
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Reduce
d. None of the above
Ans. Increase.

20. For an ideal machine

a.MA>VR
b.MA<VR
c.MA=VR
d.MA >=VR
Ans.MA=VR

4. Refraction of light from plane Surface.

1) Angle of deviation is
a) angle by which incident ray deviates through prism
b) angle between incident ray and refracted ray
c) angle between incident ray and normal
d) angle between emergent ray and normal
ANS: a
2) Angle of deviation does not depend on
a) angle of incidence
b) angle of prism
c) frequency of light
d) wavelength of light
ANS: c
3) Angle of deviation will be max for ____ colour.
a) red
b) violet
c) green
d) orange
ANS: b
4) Rainbow is formed due to-----of light
a) refraction
b) reflection
c) dispersion
d) deviation
ANS: c
5) Light travels from oil (n=1.48) to water at an angle of 60 degrees relative to the
normal. What will happen to the light?
a) reflect back at an angle of 60 degrees
b) refract through at an angle of 74.5 degrees
c) refract through at an angle of 51.1 degrees
d) reflect back at angle of 30 degrees
ANS : c
6) What is the speed of light in ice (n=1.309)
a) 2.29 * 10^8 m/s
b) 2.43 *10^ 8 m/s
c) 4.36 * 10^-9
d) 4.36 *10^8 m/s
ANS: a
7) What is the index of refraction for a material that allows light to travel at 2.8
*108 m/s?
 a) 1.07
b) 0.67
c) 1.5
d) not possible
ANS: a
8) What happens to light during total internal reflection?
a) The angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.
b) The angle of reflection is the same as the critical angle.
c) The angle of refraction is less than the critical angle.
d) The angle of incidence is zero.
ANS: a
9) When angle of incident (i) equals to critical angle (c) if light is traveled from a denser
medium to a less dense medium
a) total internal reflection occurs.
b) angle of refraction is equal to 90 degree.
c) light is refracted out
d) light travel in straight line
ANS: b
10) Light travelling in glass is incident on a glass-air boundary. The angle of the light
is greater than the critical angle. Which arrow shows the direction of the light after it
is incident on the boundary?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
ANS: b
11) Chose the TWO conditions are NOT correct for total internal reflection to take
place
a) The incident angle should be less than the critical angle
b) The incident angle should be greater than the critical angle
c) Light should travel from a denser to a lighter medium
d) Light should travel from a lighter to a denser medium
ANS: a & d
12) Which diagram correctly describes the critical angle c for air-water surface?
 e) A
f) B
g) C
h) D
ANS: d
13) Light travels through a glass block as shown. Which angle is the critical angle for
light in the glass?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
ANS: b
14) Absolute refractive index of any medium is always _______.
a) less than 1
b) greater than 1
c) 1
d) 0
ANS: c
15) When the angle of refraction is 90° the angle of incidence is called the...
a) Angle of incidence
b) Critical angle
c) Angle of total internal reflection
d) Angle of refraction

ANS b
16) The figure below is an optical phenomenon caused by the refraction of light. What
is this effect called?

a) Dispersion
b) Mirage
c) Rainbow
d) Diffraction
ANS: b
17) Refraction occurs due to _____________
a) the change in the wave's speed when it enters a new medium
b) the wave bouncing off a boundary
c) the change in the wave's frequency when it enters a new medium
d) the wave bending around a barrier
ANS: a

18) Light has the lowest velocity in which medium?

flint glass n=1.70
air n=1.0001
water n=1.33
diamond n=2.45
a) diamond
b) water
c) flint glass
d) air
ANS: a
19) The angle of incidence i and refraction r are equal in a transparent slab when the
value of i is
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) depend on the material of the slab

ANS: a
20) Two beams of red and violet colour are made to pass separately through a prism
(angle of the prism is 60°). In the position of minimum deviation, the angle of
refraction will be
a) 30° for both the colours
b) greater for the violet colour
c) greater for the red colour
d) equal but not 30° for both the colours
ANS: a
21) The refractive index of transparent medium is greater than one because
a) Speed of light in vacuum < speed of light in tansparent medium
b) Speed of light in vacuum > speed of light in tansparent medium
c) Speed flight in vacuum = speed of light in tansparent medium
d) Frequency of light wave changes when it moves from rarer to denser medium

ANS: b
22) The refractive index of water is 1.33. The speed of light in water will be
a)1.33 × 108 m/s
b) 3 × 108 m/s
c) 2.26 × 108 m/s
d) 2.66 × 108 m/s

ANS: c

23) You are given three media A, B and C of refractive index 1.33, 1.65 and 1.46. The
medium in which the light will travel fastest is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) equal in all three media

ANS: a
24) Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to medium B. Refractive
index of the medium B relative to medium A is

ANS: a

25) A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in figure. The refractive
index of medium B relative to A will be

a) greater than unity

b) less than unity
c) equal to unity
d) zero
ANS: b

26) The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab
traced by four students are shown as A, B, C and D in figure. Which one of them is
 correct?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
ANS: b
27) A ray of light is travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium. While
entering the denser medium at the point of incidence, it

a) goes straight into the second medium

b) bends towards the normal
c) bends away from the normal
d) does not enter at all
ANS: b
28) A student does the experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a
rectangular glass slab for different angles of incidence. He can get a correct measure of
the angle of incidence and the angle of emergence by following the labelling indicated in
figure:

a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV
ANS: d
29) When light ray goes from rarer medium to denser medium then its frequency?
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) depends on medium
ANS: c

30) A student performs the experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light passing
through a rectangular glass slab for different angles of incidence. He measures the angle
of incidence ∠i, angle of refraction ∠r and angle of emergence ∠e for all his observations.
He would find that in all cases
a) ∠i is more than ∠r but (nearly) equal to ∠e
b) ∠i is less than ∠r but (nearly) equal to ∠e
c) ∠i is more than ∠e but (nearly) equal to ∠r
d) ∠i is less than ∠e but (nearly) equal to ∠r
ANS: a

MCQs on Chapter: Refraction through

Lens
1) Magnification produced by a concave lens is always_______.
A. more than 1 B. equal to 1 C. less than 1 D. more than 1.5
Ans: C

2) A diverging lens is used in a________.

A. magnifying glass B. car to see the objects of rear side
C. spectacle for correction of short sight D. simple camera
Ans: C

3) Only one of the following applies to a concave lens:

A. focal length is positive
B. image distance can be positive or negative
C. height of the image can be positive or negative
D. image distance is always negative
Ans: D

4) A ___________ lens is used in spectacles for short dighted persons

A. convex B. concave C. Plano concave d. bi focal
Ans: B
5) In order to obtain a magnification of -0.75 with a convex lens of focal length 8 cm,
the object should be placed________.
A. at less than 8 cm B. between 8 cm and 16 cm
C. beyond 16 cm D. at 16 cm
Ans: C
6) A convex lens of focal length 8 cm forms a real image of the size same as that of the
 object. the distance between the object and its image will be
A. 8 cm B. 16 cm C. 24 cm D. 32 cm
Ans: D
7) Which of the following can form a virtual image which is always smaller than the
object?
A. a plane mirror B. a convex mirror C. a concave lens D. a concave mirror
Ans: C

8) The focal lengths of the four convex lenses P, Q, R and S are 20 cm, 15 cm, 5 cm and
10 cm respectively. The lens with the greatest power is _________.
A. P B. Q C. R D. S
Ans: C

9) A converging lens has focal length of 50 cm. The power of this lens is____.
A. + 0.2 D B. – 0.2 D C. +2.0 D D. – 0.2 D
Ans: C

10) Linear magnification produced by a convex lens can be___________.

A. less than 1 or more than 1
B. less than 1 or equal to 1
C. more than 1 or equal to 1
D. less than 1, equal to 1 or more than 1
Ans: D

11) If a part of the lens is covered its focal length_____.

A. increases by 2
B. decreases by 2
C. remains unchanged
D. becomes halved.
Ans: C

12) The lens which is thick in its middle and thin at the periphery. This lens is
called _________
A. Concave lens
B. Convex lens
C. Either A. or B.
D. None of these
Ans: B

13) As per the sign convention, the focal length of convex lens is always taken as
________.
A. negative
B. positive
C. does not depend on sign
D. none of these
Ans: B

14) The focal length of a thin convex lens is ______ (than) (to) that of a thick convex lens.
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. none of these
Ans: B

15) A concave lens forms a virtual upright and diminished image. The object is kept
at_____.
A. infinity
B. 2F1
C. F1
D. anywhere between infinity and the optical centre.
Ans: D

16) The image formed by the lens is that of the same size as that of the object. The lens
must be a_____.
A. convex
B. concave
C. bifocal
D. cannot be determined
Ans: A

17) The focal length of the lens depends upon refractive index and _____.
A. centre of curvature
B. radii of curvature
C. principal axis
D. optical centre
Ans: B

18) If the medium on both the sides of the lenses is same, then the first focal length and
second focal length are related as____.
A. f1 < f2
B. f1 > f2
C. f1 = f2
D. f1 = 2f2
Ans: C

19) The lens used in camera is a _____ lens.

A. convex.
B. concave
C. either A. or B.
D. bi focal
Ans: A

20) The image formed by the simple microscope (or reading glass) is ____.
A. real inverted and diminished
B. real inverted and magnified
C. virtual erect and magnified
D. virtual erect and highly magnified
Ans: C
*******************

SPECTRUM CLASS – X 2021-22

1. A wave with a large wavelength will have a --------- frequency and -------
energy.
a. high, low
b. high, high
c. low, high
d. low, low
Ans- d
2. Select the correct order of waves of decreasing frequency of the Electromagnetic
spectrum
a. Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, UV ray, X-ray, Gamma
b. Gamma, X-ray, UV ray, Visual, IR ray, Micro, Radio
c. Visual, Micro, Infra, UV ray, X-ray, Gamma ray, Radio
d. Micro, Radio, Visual, Infra, UV ray, X- ray, Gamma
Ans – b
3. These high energy waves are given off by radioactive material
a. Gamma
b. Microwave
c. Radio
d. Ultraviolet
Ans – a
4. These waves are required to send signals, including Wi-Fi and text messages.
a. Gamma
b. Microwave
c. Radio
d. Ultraviolet
Ans – c
5. Dispersion of white light on passing through a prism is due to
a. Change in speed of light
b. Change in wavelength
c. Change in frequency
d. Change in speed of light with wavelength
Ans – d
6. If the wavelength of red light is 800nm, then its frequency is-----------
a. 3 X 108 Hz
b. 3.75 x 1014 Hz
c. 7.25 x 1014 Hz
d. 6 x 10 8 Hz
Ans - b
7. The ratio of speed of gamma ray and infra-red ray in vacuum is
a. Speed of gamma ray> speed of Infra-red ray
b. Speed of Infra-red > speed of gamma ray
c. Speed of gamma ray = speed of Infra-red ray
d. None of the above.
Ans – c
8. When a ray of white light falls on a prism, the ray at its first surface suffers-----
and at the second suffers-----.
a. Refraction, deviation
b. Dispersion, refraction & deviation at both surfaces.
c. Dispersion, only deviation
d. Refraction and dispersion
Ans – b
9. This electromagnetic wave is used to study the atomic arrangement in crystals
and in complex molecules
a. X- ray
b. Microwave
c. Infra-red ray
d. Radio wave
Ans – a
10. Infra- red ray is used in photography at night because they are
a. Less scattered
b. Less absorbed in medium
c. Can penetrate a long distance
d. All the above
e. Ans - d
11. A wave has wavelength 10nm. We obtain its spectrum by using
a. Glass slab
b. Quartz prism
c. Glass prism
d. Rock salt prism
Ans – d
12. A radiation is detected using thermopile, its wavelength is
 a. 1012 Ao
b. 10 6 Ao
c. 10 6 nm
d. 1012 nm
Ans – c
13. A ---- prism is used to obtain Infra- red spectrum.
a. Quartz
b. Glass
c. Rock salt
d. Hollow
Ans – c
14. The silver chloride solution turns black when exposed to X radiation. X is
a. Infra-red
b. X -ray
c. Gamma ray
d. UV ray.
Ans – d
15. Global warming is caused due to --------- radiation
a. Short λ IR
b. Short λ gamma
c. Long λ IR
d. Long λ gamma
Ans - d
16. A radiation P is focused by a proper device on the bulb of a thermometer.
Mercury in the thermometer shows a rapid increase. The radiation P is:
a. IR radiation
b. Visible light
c. UV radiation
d. X-ray
Ans- a
17. The speed of an electromagnetic wave with frequency 500MHz and
wavelength of 60 cm is
a. 2 x 108 m/s
b. 3 x 108 m/s
c. 2.25 x 108 m/s
d. 1.5 x 108 m/s
Ans – b
18. In a photographic lab we use IR radiation because
a. affect photographic plate
b. do not scatter
c. large wavelength
d. does not affect a normal photographic plate.
Ans – d
19. The wavelength of UV radiation is
 a. 400nm to 100nm
b. 4000nm to 100nm
c. 400nm to 10nm
d. 40nm to 10nm
Ans – c
20. Which property is incorrect for an electromagnetic spectrum?
a. They travel in a straight line
b. They are deflected by electric and magnetic field
c. They are transverse in nature
d. They show the property of reflection and refraction.
Ans – b

Sound
1) The unit of quantity on which pitch of the sound depends is
(a) Hertz (b) metre
(c) metre/second (d) second
Answer: (a)
2)In the sound wave produced by a vibrating turning fork shown in the diagram,
half the wavelength is represented by :
(a) AB (b) BD (c) DE (d) AE

Answer: (b)

3. Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to

adjust the tension and pluck the string suitably. By doing so, he is
adjusting
i. Amplitude of the sound
ii. Frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical
instruments
iii. Intensity of sound
iii. Loudness of sound
Choose the correct option:
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) only (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) only (iv)
Answer: (b)
4. If the speed of a wave is 380 m/s and its frequency is 1900 Hz, then
the wavelength of the wave will be:
(a) 20 m
(b) 0.2 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 2 m
Answer: (b)

5. To reflect sound waves from any surface , it should have

dimensions
(a) always less than the wavelength of sound wave
(b) always greater than the wavelength of sound wave
(c) equal or less than the wavelength of sound wave
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)

6. What is intensity of sound?

(a) It is inversely proportional to the square of the distance of point
from the source.
(b) It is directly proportional to the square of amplitude of vibration ,
square of the frequency and density of the medium.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:(c)

7. The frequency of the note produced by plucking a given string

increases as
(a) The length of the string increases
(b) The tension in the string increases
(c) The tension in the string decreases
(d) The mass per unit length of the string increases
Answer (b)
8. When a sound wave goes from one medium to another, the quantity that
remains unchanged is
(a) frequency
(b) wavelength
(c)amplitude
(d) speed
Answer: (a)
9. Speed of sound depends upon
(a) Temperature of the medium
(b) Pressure of the medium
(c)Temperature of source producing sound
(d)Temperature and pressure of medium
Answer (a)

10.The property of a medium necessary for wave propagation is

(a) All of the below
(b) Elasticity
(c) Inertia
(d) Low resistance
Answer: All of the below

11. Which of the following need a material medium for their propagation.
(a) Mechanical waves
(b) Electromagnetic waves
(c) matter waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)

12.A sound wave has a frequency of 2 KHz and wavelength 35 cm. How long will it take
to travel 1.5 Km?
(a) 200s
(b) 2.14s
(c) 21.4 s
(d) 0.214s
Answer: 2.14 s

13.Note is a sound
(a) of mixture of several frequencies
(b) of mixture of two frequencies only
(c)of a single frequency
(d) always unpleasant to hear
Answer: (a)

14: Choose the correct statement with respect to the forced vibration.
(a) The frequency of vibration changes with change in the frequency of the
applied force.
(b) The frequency of vibration remain constant.
(c) The vibrations of a body in absence of any resistive force.
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
15) To detect the obstacles in their path, Dolphins produce:
(a) Infrasonic waves.
(b) Ultrasonic waves.
(c) Radio waves.
(d) Light waves.
Answer: (b)

16) Which of the following is/are not applications of ultrasonic waves?

(i) For measuring the depth of sea
(ii) In sterilizing of a liquid
(iii) In ultrasonography
(iv) SONAR
(a) Both (i) ,(ii) and (iii)

(b) only (iv)

(c)Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) only (ii)
Answer (d)

17) A ball vibrates 600 times within 3/2 seconds, its frequency and
timeperiod will be
(a) 900 Hz , 0.0011s
(b) 400 Hz ,0.25s
(c) 400 Hz, 0.0025 s
(d) 900 Hz, 1.1 s
Answer: (c)

18) Compressions are the regions where

(a) Density as well as pressure is low
(b)Density is high pressure is low
(c) Density is low pressure is high
(d) Density as well as pressure is high
Answer : (d)

19) Choose the incorrect statement for the characteristics of free vibrations:
(a) The natural frequency of the body depends on shape, size and nature of
material of body.
(b) There is no loss of energy during free vibration.
(c) Perfect free vibrations are possible only in vacuum.
(d)In each vibration there is loss of energy due to decrease in amplitude
which emit in the form of heat in medium.
Answer (d)
20) Which of the following statement best describes frequency?
(a) the maximum disturbance caused by a wave
(b) the number of complete vibrations per second
(c) the distance between one crest of a wave and the next one
(d) the distance travelled by a wave per second
Answer: (b)