SCIENCE FOR 9 AND 10
SCIENCE FOR 9 AND 10
SCIENCE FOR 9 AND 10
1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Biology - Section-III and
Mathematics- Section-IV) and each part consists of four sections.
2. Each Section contains 20 Multiple-choice Questions (MCQs). Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C), and
(D) for the answer, out of which only one is correct.
B. Marking scheme:
1. For each question in sections I, II, III & IV, you will be awarded 3 marks for every correct answer, and a - 1
mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
B
F
2. Friction
(A) can occur only between two surfaces that are moving relative to one another
(B) is equal to the normal force divided by the coefficient of friction
(C) opposes the relative motion between two surfaces in contact
(D) only depends on one of the surfaces in contact
6. A body of weight w1 is suspended from the ceiling of a room through a chain weight w 2.
The ceiling pulls the chain by a force
w w2
(A) w1 (B) w2 (C) w1 + w2 (D) 1
2
7. A ball is released from the top of height ‘h’ metres. It takes ‘t’ seconds to reach the
ground. Where is the ball at the time t/2 s?
h
(A) At from the ground
4
h
(B) At from the ground
2
3h
(C) At from the ground
4
(D) Depends upon mass and volume of the ball
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8. The earth revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit, its speed
(A) goes on decreasing continuously
(B) is greatest when it is closest to the sun
(C) is greatest when it is farthest from the sun
(D) is constant at all the point on the orbit
9. The weights of an object in a coal mine, at sea level and at the top of mountains are w 1,
w2 and w3 respectively then
(A) w1 > w2 > w3 (B) w1 = w2 = w3 (C) w1 < w2 < w3 (D) w1 < w2 > w3
11. Block A and B have masses of 2 kg and 3 kg respectively. The ground is smooth. P and
Q forces as shown. The force exerted by B on A is
3 kg
2 kg
P = 20 N B Q=5N
kg A kg
(A) 14 N (B) 16 N (C) 12 N (D) 10 N
12. A bullet of mass 50 g moving with a speed of 100 m/s hits a wall and penetrates into it.
It takes 0.05 sec to stop in the wall. The magnitude of average force exerted by the wall
on the bullet is
(A) 80 N (B) 100 N (C) 8 x 104 N (D) 800 N
13. A stone is dropped into a well, in which the level of water is h below the top of the well. If
v, is the velocity of sound, the time t, after which the splash is heard after dropping the
stone is given by
2h h 2h h h h 2h
(A) t = (B) (C) t = (D) t =
g v v 2g v 2g v
14. A satellite A of mass m is at a distance 2r from the centre of the earth and another
satellite B of mass 2m is at a distance 6r from the earth’s centre. Their time periods are in
the ratio
(A) 1:2 (B) 1: 3 3 (C) 1:16 (D) 1: 2 2
17. A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distance
covered in the nth second to that covered in n second is:
2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
n2 n n2 n n n2 n n2
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18. Two blocks of masses 2kg and 1 kg are in contact with each other on a horizontal
frictionless table. When a horizontal force of 3.0 N is applied to the block of mass 2 kg,
value of the acceleration of the system
3N
2kg
1kg
2 2
(A) 4 m/s (B) 3 m/s (C) 2 m/s2 (D) 1 m/s2
19. Which of the following velocity time graphs represent uniform motion?
v
(A) (B)
t
v v
(C) (D)
t t
20. A boy pulls a wooden box along a rough horizontal floor at constant speed by means of a
force P as shown. In the diagram f is the magnitude of the frictional force, N is the
magnitude of the normal force and Fg is the magnitude of gravitational force. Which of the
following must be true?
N
Fg : Gravitational force
f P f : Frictional force
N : Normal force
Fg
(A) P = f and N = Fg (B) P = f and N > Fg
(C) P > f and N < Fg (D) P > f and N = Fg
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This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices(A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
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4. The movement of colloidal particles towards one of the electrodes under the influence of
an electric field is
(A) electrolysis (B) anodizing (C) catenisation (D) electrophoresis
7. What is the mass of sulphuric acid present in 100 mL of 15% mass by mass solution of
sulphuric acid(density = 1.10 g/mL)?
(A) 16.5 g (B) 15.5 g (C) 15 g (D) 10 g
11. What are standard temperature and pressure condition for gases?
(A) 0°C and 0 torr (B) 0 K and 760 torr (C) – 273°C & 1 atm (D) 0°C & 760 torr
12. Which among the following liquids will leave behind a residue on heating?
(A) Bromine (B) Brine (C) Mercury (D) Alcohol
13. 12 g of K2SO4 dissolves in 75 g of water at 60°C. What is its solubility in water at 60°C?
(A) 6.25 (B) 62.5 (C)16 (D)160
14. Which pair of the gaseous species diffuse through a small jet with the same rate of
diffusion at same pressure & temperature?
(A) NO, CO (B) NO, C2H6 (C) NH3, PH3 (D) NO, CO2
15. The force that binds the particles of matter together is known as
(A) intermolecular space (B) bond
(C) intermolecular force (D) nuclear force
19. At 0C or 273 K, the physical state of water can be observed as:
(A) solid (B) liquid
(C) vapour (D) both solid and liquid
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20. On hill stations, water will boil at
(A) 100C (B) below 100C (C) above 100C (D) 373 Kelvin
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This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices(A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. Select the correct pair:
Tissue Composition Organ
(A) Pericycle Collenchyma Monocot root
(B) Cortex Sclerenchyma Dicot root
(C) Endodermis Parenchyma with suberin strips Monocot stem
(D) Hypodermis Sclerenchyma Monocot stem
2. Which of the following pairs of the innate immunity barriers belong to the same category?
(A) Skin & immunoglobulin
(B) Acid in stomach & lysozyme in saliva
(C) Mucus coating of respiratory tract and cytokinesis
(D) Inflammation & vaginal acidity
3. Virus infected cells secrete antiviral glycoprotein which move into nearby non infected
cells and prevent viral replication in them is called:
(A) Interferons (B) Interleukins
(C) Intermediate filament (D) Inulins
4. A person has become ill due to snake biting. What kind of antibody will be injected into
him for his recovery?
(A) A second-generation vaccine produced by recombinant DNA technology
(B) A collection of synthetic anti venom chemicals which destroy the poison
(C) Collection of pre-formed antibodies produced in a heterologous host
(D) Collection of antibodies taken from serum of another snake
5. A healthy person acquires the infection by using towels/comb/clothes of the infected
individual and the infection occurs easily in moist and warm conditions.
Above statements are applicable for:
(A) Viral infection (B) Bacterial infection
(C) Fungal infection (D) Helminthic infection
6. How many chromosomes will the cell have at G1, S & G2 phase respectively, if it has 14
chromosomes in diploid condition.
(A) 14, 14, 7 (B) 14, 14, 14 (C) 7, 7, 7 (D) 7, 14, 14
7. Select the incorrect match:
(A) Diphtheria- Corynebacterium (B) Small pox – Varicella zoster
(C) Plague – Yersinia pestis (D) Pertussis- Bordetella pertussis
8. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine:
Column-I Column-II
A. Tuberculosis I. Harmless virus
B. Whooping cough II. Inactivated toxin
C. Diphtheria III. Killed bacteria
D. Polio IV. Harmless bacteria
(A) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (B) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(C) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
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9. Given below is a schematic breakup of the phases/stages of cell cycle:
Choose the option that is correctly indicates the phase of cell cycle.
(A) C-Karyokinesis (B) D-synthetic phase (C) A-Cytokinesis (D) B- Metaphase
10. Which of the following viruses is not generally transmitted through semen of an infected
male:
(A) Ebola virus (B) Hepatitis B virus (C) HIV virus (D) Chikungunya virus
11. Use of antihistamine gives a quick relief from:
(A) Nausea (B) Cough (C) Allergy (D) Headache
12. Which of the following pairs of diseases are caused by virus?
(A) Rabies, Mumps (B) Cholera, TB (C) Typhoid, Tetanus (D) AIDS, Syphilis
13. Assertion: a person who has received a cut from an accident and is bleeding, needs to
give anti tetanus treatment.
Reason: anti-tetanus provides active immunity by providing performed antibodies for
tetanus.
(A) If both assertion and reasoning is true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(B) If both assertion and reasoning is true but the reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion
(C) If assertion is true but reasoning is false
(D) If both assertion and reasoning is false
14. Karyotheca or nuclear membrane is absent in:
(A) Nostoc (B) Drosophila (C) Rhizobium (D) Both 1 & 3
15. All statements are correct for plasma membrane except:
(A) Lipid component mainly consists of phosphoglycerids
(B) Human erythrocyte membrane has 40% lipids and 52% protein approximately
(C) Quasi fluid nature of protein enables lateral movement of lipids within overall bilayer
(D) Improved and widely accepted model of the structure of cell membrane was proposed
by Singer & Nicolson
16. Ringworm in humans is caused by:
(A) Viruses (B) Fungi (C) Bacteria (D) Nematodes
17. Spindle fiber unite with which structure of chromosome?
(A) Chromocenter (B) Chromomere (C) Kinetochore (D) Centriole
18. How many pollen grains (male gametes in plants) will be produced from 4 pollen mother
cells?
(A) 16 (B) 12 (C) 8 (D) 4
19. Which diagnostic techniques will you take to test the probability of having acquired
immune deficiency syndrome in a patient?
(A) WIDAL (B) MRI (C) ELISA (D) ULTRASOUND
20. The main arena of various activities of a cell is:
(A) Nucleus (B) Plasma membrane
(C) Mitochondria (D) Cytoplasm
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This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices(A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
3.
The angles of a triangle are (x – 40°), (x – 20°) and x 10 . Then the value of x is :
1
2
(A) 50° (B) 70° (C) 60° (D) 100°
(C) 300
(D) none of these
A B
6. The coordinates of circumcentre of the triangle whose vertices are 8,6 , 8, 2 and
2, 2
(A) 2,3 (B) 5, 2 (C) 5,3 (D) 7, 2
10. If three sides a, b and c of the triangle are 10 cm, 20 cm and 20 cm respectively. If the
sides a and b are increased by 50% on keeping side c remains same, then what would be
% change in the semi perimeter of the triangle
(A) 20 % increase (B) 30 % increase (C) 75 % increase (D) no change
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11. Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points (6, 3)
and (– 4, 5) in the ration 3 : 2 internally.
22 21 21
(A) 0, (B) 0, (C) ,0 (D) (21, 0)
5 5 5
12. Find the ratio in which the line 3x + y – 9 = 0 divides the line segment joining the points
(1, 3) and (2, 7).
(A) 3 : 5 (B) 3 : 7 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 4 : 3
13. If the points A(6, 1), B(8, 2), C(9, 4) and D(p, 3) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken
in order find the value of p
(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 7
14. Each side of an equilateral triangle is 10cm long. The height of the triangle is:
(A) 10 3 cm (B) 5 3 cm (C) 10 2 cm (D) 5 cm
15. The lengths of the three sides of a triangular field are 40m, 24m and 32m respectively.
The area of the triangle is
(A) 480 m2 (B) 320 m2 (C) 384 m2 (D) 360 m2
16. D is any point on side AC of ABC. If P, Q, X, Y are the mid-points of AB, BC, AD and DC
respectively, then the ratio of PX and QY is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 2 : 3
17. In a triangle ABC, incentre is O and BOC = 110°, then the measure of BAC is:
(A) 20° (B) 40° (C) 55° (D) 110°
18. The angles of a triangle are (x + 5)°, (2x – 3)° and (3x + 4)°. The value of x is:
(A) 30 (B) 31 (C) 29 (D) 28
19. The number of diagonals of a regular polygon is 27. Then each of the interior angles of
the polygon is
500o
(A) (B) 140° (C) 128° (D) 154°
3
20. A(6, 4), B(5, – 2) and C(7, – 2) are the vertices of ……… triangle.
(A) Equilateral (B) Right angled (C) Isosceles (D) none of these
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PHASE TEST-II
BATCHES: CFY 2327 A-LOT
ANSWER KEYS
NSEJS TYPE
PHYSICS (Section – I)
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Hints & Solutions
Section – 1 (PHYSICS)
1. F
T sin F T
sin
3. This statement is true, velocity is a vector quantity that includes both speed and direction.
If the direction of motion changes, the velocity changes even if the speed remains
constant.
6. Fnet = ma
2
1 t2
Or H 0 g ..... 2
2 4
h
Or H
4
Thus height of the ball above the ground h h H
h 3h
H h
4 4
8. v1r1 = v2r2
9. w1 < w2 > w3
11. 20 5
a 3 m/s2
23
N 5 9 N 14 N
12. m v u 50 100
F 100 100 N
t 1000 5
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Dis tan ce h
Time t 2 .......... ii
Speed v
2h h
Total time t1 t 2
g v
14. T2 R3
2 3
TA R A
TB RB
15. Slope of x-t curve gives velocity so when body comes to rest slope must be zero.
16. T2 r3
17. a a
Sn u 2n 1 2n 1 u 0
2 2
Total distance covered in n seconds
1 1 S 2n 1
S un an 2 an 2 ,So n
2 2 S n2
18. f 3
a 1 m/s2
m 3
20. P = f and N = Fg
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Chemistry
1. With increase in temperature, the fluidity of liquids increases.
2. Ammonia is a compound because its compositon is fixed, properties are different from its
components, components can be separated by chemical methods
4. The movement of colloidal particles towards one of the electrodes under the influence of
an electric field is electrophoresis.
8. D
A volatile solid is one that evaporates rapidly, passing off readily in the form of vapour.
9. A
10. D
11. D
12. B
It is Brine which will leave behind a residue when heated and evaporated. This is
because mercury is metal and bromine is an element but brine is a solution of salt in
water, and when it is burned, the salt is left behind as a residue which can be easily seen.
13. 12
Solubility of K2SO4 at 60°C = 100 16
75
14. B
NO and ethane diffuse through a small jet with the same rate of diffusion at
same P and T.
The rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to the square root of molar mass.
Both NO and ethane have same molar mass (30).
Hence, both diffuses at the same rate.
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Biology
1. Pericycle of monocot root is made up of parenchyma cells, not collenchyma. Cortex part
of dicot root is made up of parenchyma cells. Endodermis of monocot stem does not
contain suberin strips. Hypodermis of monocot stem is made up of few layers of
sclerenchyma Tous cell.
2. Acid in stomach and lysosome in saliva, both are parts of first line of defense inhuman
beings.
3. Virus infected cells secrets antiviral glycoproteins known as interferon that moves into
nearby non infective cells.
4. Antivenoms work by boosting our immune response after a snakebite. They are made by
immunizing donor animals such as horses or sheep with snake venoms that means
antibodies is being produced in a heterologous host.
5. Growth of infectious fungi is best at warm and moist temperature.
6. During interphase, number of chromosomes remain the same as that of the diploid state.
7. Small pox is caused by Variola virus, not Varicella zoster. Rest is correct.
8. D
9. A suggests mitotic phase, B suggests anaphase stage, C suggests cytokinesis, D
suggests synthesis
10. D
11. Allergies are your body's reaction to a foreign protein. Usually, these proteins (allergens)
are harmless. However, if you have an allergy to a particular protein, your immune
system overreacts to its presence in your body. A cascade of reactions leads to a release
of histamine, which causes allergy symptoms. Antihistamines are medicines that treat
allergy symptoms by blocking the effects of histamine.
12. A
13. Anti tetanus contains tetanus antitoxin antibodies, which neutralize the free form of the
powerful exotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani. it can only neutralize unbound exotoxin;
it does not affect toxin already bound to nerve endings. So no antibody formation takes
place.
14. Karyotheca or nuclear membrane is absent in both Nostoc & Rhizobium because both of
these are prokaryotes whereas Drosophila is one eukaryotic organism.
15. A
16. Ringworm is a contagious fungal infection caused by common mold-like parasites that
live on the cells in the outer layer of your skin.
17. The kinetochore is a large proteinaceous structure that mediates interactions between
chromosomal DNA and spindle-microtubule polymers.
18. Pollen mother cell will undergo meiosis, and one meiosis cell division produces 4
daughter cells. So here, 4 mother pollen cells will produce 16 daughter cells that is pollen
grains after the end of complete meiosis division.
19. C
20. D
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Mathematics
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
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20.
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