MANUKAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

3rd QUARTER EXAMINATION

PHYSICAL SCIENCE

Directions: Choose the letter of the correct answer. Write your answer on a separate sheet of paper.

1. What type of nuclear reaction emits electrons?

A. alpha emission B. beta emission C. gamma emission D. Fission
2. In the chemical equation below, what is the mass number of product 2?
233 ¿¿ 4
92 U → 90Th+ 2 He

A. 237 B. 229 C. 230 D. 236

3. What do you call the stellar core that is formed when the fragments of clouds contract?
A. Red Giant B. Element Fusion C. Protostar D. White Dwarf
4. What is considered the lightest element?
A. Carbon B. Oxygen C. Helium D. Hydrogen
5. What theory states that stars are formed when a dense region of molecular cloud collapse?
A. Big Bang Theory C. Evolution Theory
B. Creation Theory D. Abiogenesis Theory
6. What type of emission refers to a particle emitted when a radioactive nuclide leaves a nucleus in an excited
state?
A. Beta emission B. gamma emission C. alpha emission D. all of these
7. What will be the result if the star reaches the end of the red giant phase?
A. Protostar B. Red giant C. Supernova D. White dwarf
8. When a star does become unstable?
A. When the hydrogen supply in the core begins to run out
B. When it contracts and expands
C. When its core is converted to iron
D. When the outer shell of the star is pulled by the gravity from the center
9. Which of the following gases are major components of a star?
A. carbon and oxygen C. hydrogen and carbon
B. helium and carbon D. hydrogen and helium
10. Which process is responsible for the formation of light elements such as hydrogen and helium?
A. Big Bang Nucleosynthesis
B. Stellar Nucleosynthesis
C. Supernova Nucleosynthesis
D. Terrestrial Nucleosynthesis
11. Which of the following elements will be formed when three alpha particles fused together?
A. Argon B. Carbon C. Chlorine D. Oxygen
12. Which neutron capture process refers to the faster rate of capturing neutron before it undergoes radioactive
decay?
A. Alpha ladder B. S-process C. R-process D. Tri-alpha
13. The isotope Ti-48 is produced by the alpha decay of which of the following?
A. 52Cr B. 54Cr C. 53Mn D. 53V
14. Cobalt-60 decays to Nickel-60. What particle is emitted?
A. proton B. neutron C. positron D. alpha
15. Which process in involve in the formation of elements up to iron?
A. Tri-alpha process C. Proton-proton chain
B. Alpha ladder process D. CNO cycle
16. There are four people who are credited for their work on the arrangement of elements. Who is known as the
father of periodic table of elements who created the framework that became the modern periodic table, leaving
gaps for elements that were yet to be discovered?
A. Henry Mosely C. Julius Lothar Meyer
B. Dmitri Mendeleev D. John Newlands
17. Which of the following is true about the scientific basis of the periodic table as published by Mendeleev?
A. The periodic table was arranged based on the mass number of elements.
B. The periodic table was arranged based on the atomic weight of elements.
C. The periodic table was arranged based on the atomic number of elements.
D. The periodic table was arranged based on the atomic number and atomic weights of elements.
18. What is the correct range of electronegativity difference for ionic bond?
A. 0.7-up B. 0.5-1.6 C. 0.4-below D. 1.7-up
19. What atoms with greatly differing electronegativity values are expected to form?
A. triple bonds
B. polar covalent bonds
C. nonpolar covalent bonds
D. ionic bonds
20. Sodium chloride, the chemical name for table salt, is a compound composed of 1 atom of sodium and 1 atom of
chlorine. Based on their electronegativity difference, what type of bond sodium chloride has?
A. polar covalent B. nonpolar covalent C. ionic D. metallic
1
21. What element can be described by the electron configuration 2 6 2 ?s 1 p 2 s
A. Neon B. Argon C. Xenon D. none of these
22. How many electrons can a d subshell hold?
A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10
23. How many valence electrons do elements found in group 5A have?
A. 1 B. 8 C. 5 D. 6
24. Which of the following statements define Octet Rule?
A. There should be eight subshells in one main energy level/shell.
B. The subshell d should be the last subshell for each main energy level/shell.
C. There should be eight electrons in the outermost main energy level/shell.
D. The subshell p should hold a maximum of eight electrons in it.
25. Which best define lone pair?
A. A pair of bonding electrons C. A pair of non-bonding electrons
B. A pair of electrons on the central atom D. One non-bonding electron
26. How can we determine the number of dots in a Lewis structure of an element or a compound?
A. By subtracting the number of protons from the atomic mass of an element to get the number of electrons
B. By determining the number of electrons in the outermost energy shell
C. By getting the difference between the electronegativity values of the elements
D. By counting the number of energy levels in an atom
27. What is the molecular shape of BeBr2?
A. Bent B. Trigonal planar C. Linear D. Tetrahedral
28. A molecule has three surrounding atoms bonded in the central atom. After bonding, the central atom has one
lone pair in it. How will you describe the shape of the molecule?
A. Trigonal planar B. Trigonal pyramidal C. Linear D. Bent
29. A molecule has three atoms bonded with each other. Its Lewis dot structure shows that there are two pairs of
electrons that are not bonded. What will be the possible shape for the molecule?
A. Trigonal planar B. Trigonal pyramidal C. Linear D. Bent
30. What is the molecular geometry of NH3?
A. Bent B. Linear C. Tetrahedral D. Trigonal planar
31. Which of the following is the number of electron pairs for trigonal pyramidal?
A. 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair C. 3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs
B. 2 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs D. 5 bond pairs and 0 lone pair
32. From the given Lewis structure of NH3, how many nonbonding pair/s of electron are around the central atom?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
33. How will you determine the polarity of a molecule through its 3D shape?
A. If the molecular shape is symmetrical.
B. If the molecular shape is asymmetrical.
C. If the molecular shape is a combination of both.
D. If the shape shows that the central atom is bonded with the atoms of the same element.
34. Which of the following can exhibit hydrogen bonding among themselves?
A. H2Te B. H2Se C. H2O D. H2S
35. What do you call the forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting molecules?
A. attractive forces C. intermolecular forces
B. repulsive forces D. London dispersion forces
36. What type of intermolecular force is present in all substances, regardless of polarity?
A. Ion-dipole C. hydrogen bonding
B. Dipole-dipole D. London dispersion forces
37. Which of the following is an intermolecular force of attraction that is present in non-polar molecules?
A. Ion-dipole B. Hydrogen bond C. dipole-dipole D. London
dispersion
38. Which biomolecule has a biological function as a first-line source of energy?
A. Carbohydrates B. Nucleic Acids C. Lipids D. Proteins
39. What does DNA mean?
A. Dinucleotide adenine C. Dinucleic adenine
B. Deoxyribonucleic acid D. Diribonucleic acid
40. Which is rich in protein?
A. plant leaves B. vegetable oil C. Human hair D. Table salt
41. Which of the molecules below is NOT a part of nucleic acid?
A. Amino acid B. Phosphate group C. Nitrogenous base D. Sugar
42. Which is NOT an example of monosaccharide of carbohydrates?
A. Galactose B. Glucose C. Fructose D. Lactose
43. Which of the following is not an example of simple carbohydrates?
A. Cellulose B. Glucose C. Fructose D. Sucrose
44. Which elements serve as the main composition of carbohydrates?
A. C, O, H B. C, N, H C. C, O, N D. C, P, O
45. Which of the following serves as storage of energy for plants?
A. Chitin B. Cellulose C. Glycogen D. Starch
46. Which is not an example of lipids?
A. fats B. oil C. pepsin D. both a and b
47. Which of the following groups are all polysaccharides?
A. sucrose, glucose and fructose
B. glucose, starch and chitin
C. maltose, lactose and glycogen
D. glycogen, cellulose and starch
48. What primarily is the function of a nucleic acid?
A. A storage of energy of the body
B. A source of energy of the body
C. Serves as structural molecules of most living organisms
D. For storage and expression of genetic information
49. Which below best describes a carbohydrate?
A. It always consists of five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and one or more phosphate groups and are used
to store genetic information.
B. It is composed of amino acids and is involved in cell signalling, cell transport, immune responses and the cell
cycle.
C. It is insoluble in water and has the ability to store energy for extended periods of time.
D. It is made up of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms and is used to supply energy in the body.
50. Fat is one of the common examples of lipids. Which of the following characteristics is not a characteristic of fats?
A. They can be saturated or unsaturated
B. They are usually obtained from plant sources
C. They can lead to heart disease, cancer and obesity
D. They can be obtained from meat, milk, butter and cheese