Study power engineering 3rd Class A1 and A2 (1)

1.
The types of expansions or compressions that may be represented by

pressure-volume diagrams are for:
1. Constant pressure
2. Constant temperature
3. Adiabatic
4. Constant volume
5. Isothermal
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
*d. 1, 2, 3, 5
e. 1, 2, 5
2. The common and Naperian logarithms for the number 272 are:
a. 1.4346, 3.3032
*b. 2.4346, 5.6058
c. 3.4345, 7.9084
d. 4.4345, 7.9084
e. 5.4345, 7.9084
3. Find the antilogarithm of the number 3.3522.
a. 0.5263
b. 1.5253
c. 225.09
*d. 2250.09
e. 22500.09
4. The natural or Naperian logarithm of 0.00478 is?
*a. -5.3433
b. -3.0407
c. -2.3205
d. 2.3205
e. 5.3433
5. Find the natural antilogarithm of the number 13.4146.
a. 1.1275
b. 2.5963
c. 259.63
d. 66970.96
*e. 669709.96
6. The antilog of 1.5323 is:

a. 2.3406
*b. 34.06
c. .3406
d. 3.406
e. 3.321
7. The common system of logarithms uses _____________ as the base number.
a. 1
b. 100
*c. 10
d. 01
e. None of the above
8. The relationship between common logarithm and natural logarithm can be stated
as that the natural logarithm is "X" times as big as the common logarithm where
"X" equals?
a. 32.026
b. 23.3026
c. 13.3026
d. 3.3026
*e. 2.3026
9. The logarithm of 135 is:
a. 2.0000
b. 3.1365
c. 2.1365
d. 2.259
*e. 2.1303
10. The logarithm of the number 0.00347 is:
a. 2.5403
b. 1.5403
c. 3.5403
d. -2.5403
*e. -2.4596
11. What is the value of X in the following fractional equation:

X/2 + 3X/4 = 4.5/3
a. 0.83
*b. 1.2
c. 1.5
d. 1.66
e. 2
12. When converting the logarithm 3.1635 to a number the number will be:
a. 145.7
b. 213.
c. 2135.0
*d. 1457.0
13. Using the equations given in the "Handbook of Formulae and Physical Constants,"
or the formula F= 9/5C + 32, and K = °C + 273 convert the following Fahrenheit
reading to the Kelvins at 68°F.
a. 0 K
b. 20 K
c. 32 K
d. 273 K
*e. 293 K
14. The three ratios of a triangle are: 1. Sine 2. Cosine 3. Hypotenuse 4. Tangent
*a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 2, 3 4
d. 1, 2, 3
15. As the cosine decreases the:
a. The value of the angle decreases.

*b. The value of the angle increases.
c. The value of the hypotenuse decreases.
d. None of the above
16. Trigonometry may be defined as:
a. The study of angles.

b. The study of circle parts.
*c. The study of triangle measurement.
d. None of the above.
e. All of the above
17. As the value of the sine of an angle decreases, the angle:
a. Increases
b. Remains the same
*c. Decreases
d. Doubles
18. An example of a set of complementary angles would be:
a. 45°, 45° and 60°.

b. 60°, 60° and 60°.
c. 75° and 105°.
d. 55° and 45°.
*e. 75° and 15°.
19. By definition, an example of an obtuse angle would be the one of?
*a. 98°
b. 188°
c. 79°, 13 minutes and 45 seconds
d. 45°
e. 246°, 30 minutes and 59 seconds
20. An obtuse angle is the one that may measure, for example,
*a. 135°
b. 180°
d. 90°
e. 270°
21. An acute angle, by definition, may have a measurement of?
a. 270°
b. 350°
d. 186°, 30 minutes and 59 seconds
*e. 45°
22. One radian is:
a. A single visitor from outer space.

b. The segment of a circle.
c. The sum of complementary angles exceeding 180°
*d. The angle formed between two radii when the length of the arc formed
by the angle equals the length of the radius
e. 90°
23. Reflex angles refer to angles that have a measurement greater than?
a. 45°
b. 90°
c. 120°
*d. 180°
e. 270°
24. An angle containing 32° 43 minutes 2 seconds is:
a. A right angle
b. An obtuse angle
c. A reflex angle
*d. An acute angle
25. When measuring angles one radian is equal to?
a. 53.7°
b. 2 Pi
*c. 57.3°
d. 360°
e. radius
26. The tangent of 65° 10 minutes is:
a. 3.2010
*b. 2.1609
c. 2.2601
d. 2.3601
27. A circle has a diameter of 14 mm. How many radians (approximately) has this
complete circle?
*a. 43.96 radians

b. 21.99 radians
c. 6.28 radians
d. 5.73 radians
e. 0.028 radians
28. In a right angle triangle if the angle remains constant then the ratio of the
sides and hypotenuse:
a. Increases
*b. Remains constant
c. Decreases
29. A tire which turned two and three quarter (2 3/4 ) revolutions has moved an
equivalent of how many radians?
a. 6.28 radians
b. 8.64 radians
*c. 17.28 radians
d. 171.29 radians
e. 842.4 radians
30. Given that one radian equals 57.3°, then an angle of 229° 12' is equal to ______
radians.
a. 3.998
b. 13133.16
c. 0.25
*d. 4
31. A circle divided into 25 equal parts would have each sector contain an angle
of:
a. 14° 02'
*b. 14° 24'
c. 14° 40'
32. The lower end of a 12 m ladder is 3 m away from the wall. Find the height of
the wall where the top of the ladder touches.
a. 9.83 m
b. 10.50 m
c. 11.32 m
*d. 11.62 m
e. 11.79 m
33. A smokestack 60 m high is stayed by guy wires of 58 m length, which make an

angle of 45° with the horizontal. What is the distance from the point of attachment
to the top of the stack?
a. 15.57 m
*b. 18.98 m
c. 26.77 m
d. 36.77 m
e. 41.02 m
34. The top end of a 12 m long ladder rests on a vertical wall. The foot of the
ladder is 3 m away from the base of the wall. Find the angle of inclination of
the ladder.
a. 14.48°
*b. 75.52°
c. 78.46°
d. 80.87°
e. 85.00°
35. A packaged boiler is to be removed from a flat car. The bed of the flat car
is 2 m above the ground. What length of skids is necessary if the skids are to
make an angle of 25° with the ground?
a. 2.21 m
b. 3.12 m
c. 4.29 m
*d. 4.73 m
e. 5.73 m
36. Solve the following right triangle ABC, in which C is the right angle. Find
c, if a = 2 m, b = 6 m.
a. 7.325 m
*b. 6.325 m
c. 6.235 m
d. 6.124 m
e. 5.657 m
37. What is the angle of inclination of a stairway with the floor, if the steps
have a tread of 20 cm and a rise of 18 cm.
a. 25.8°
b. 36°
*c. 42°
d. 48°
e. 64.12°
38. A steam plant stack is to be checked for height. The survey instrument is set
up at a distance of 80 m from the base of the stack. The angle of elevation to
the top of the stack is 32° 18'. If the eye level height of the survey instrument
is 6.4 m below the level of the stack base, what is the height of the chimney?
a. 50.57 m
*b. 44.18 m
c. 40.29 m
d. 38.57 m
e. 37.17m
39. Solve the following right triangle ABC, in which C is a right angle. Find angle
A if a = 2 m, b = 6 m.
a. 15.21°
b. 16.25°
c. 17.47°
*d. 18.43°
e. 22.43°
40. The Theorem of Pythagoras states:

In a right-angle triangle, the square of hypotenuse equals the sum of the squares
of the other two sides. The mathematical equation for this statement is:
a. b2 = c2 + a2
b. c2 = a2 - b2
*c. c2 = a2 + b2
d. a2 = c2 + b2
e. c2 = b2 - a2
41. Solve the following right triangle ABC, angle C is the right angle, a = 4 cm
and angle A = 27°. Find b and c.
a. b = 5.85 cm, c = 6.81 cm

b. b = 6.85 cm, c = 7.81 cm
*c. b = 7.85 cm, c = 8.81 cm
d. b = 9.75 cm, c = 9.81 cm
e. b = 9.85 cm, c = 10.81 cm
42. A ladder 7.5 m long leans against a wall, and is inclined at 70° to the ground.
How far from the wall is the foot of the ladder?
a. 7.14 m
b. 7.04 m
c. 3.57 m
*d. 2.57 m
e. 1.97 m
43. A ladder 5 m long leans against a wall, and is inclined at 65° to the ground.
How high up the wall does the ladder reach?
a. 2.11 m
*b. 4.53 m
c. 4.71 m
d. 5.52 m
e. 10.72 m
44. A wooden A frame is to be used to remove an air compressor from a truck bed.
The top of the A frame must be 4 m from the ground, and the legs are to be 3 m
apart at the bottom. What is the length of timbers necessary for the A frame legs?
a. 3.85 m
*b. 4.27 m
c. 4.73 m
d. 6.27 m
e. 11.39 m
45. From a ship steaming due East at 15km/hr a lighthouse is sighted and appears
to be in the direction 60° East of North from the ship. Half an hour later, the
lighthouse appears due North of the ship. What is the closest distance between
the ship and the lighthouse?
*a. 4.33 km
b. 8.66 km
c. 12.99 km
d. 25.98
e. 15 km
46. One side of a right angle triangle is 30 cm the angle opposite this side is
38°. The hypotenuse is equal to:
a. 36.2756 cm
b. 41.2700 cm
c. 57.6300 cm
*d. 48.7280 cm
47. A coal conveyor belt, 60 m long, rises at an angle of 18° to the horizontal
and then discharges into a bunker. How high above the starting point is the
discharge?
a. 12.34 m
b. 15.84 m
*c. 18.54 m
d. 19.49 m
e. 57.06 m
48. A trapezoid has parallel sides of 5 m and 8 m, and a height of 4 m. Find the
area.
a. 17 m2
b. 21 m2
*c. 26 m2
d. 30 m2
e. 36 m2
49. A plane figure is:
a. A diagram of an aeroplane.
*b. A figure that could show length and width.
c. A very smooth surface.
d. Any figure that depicts all parts of an object in various planes.
50. Which of the following are the standards for measurement? 1. Imperial measure
2. American measure 3. Surveyor's measure 4. Standard measure 5. Metric measure
6. Nautical measure
a. 3, 4, 5, 6
*b. 1, 3, 5, 6
c. 1, 2, 3, 5
d. 2, 4, 5, 6
51. Given that one side of a triangle is equal to 8 meters, the base of is equal
to b meters and a height of 4 meters. The area of this triangle is equal to?
a. 16 m2
b. 32 m2
c. 8b m2
d. 4b m2
*e. 2b m2
52. A trapezium is a plane figure that has four (4) sides with
*a. no two sides that are parallel.

b. opposite sides which are parallel and all angles equal.
c. opposite sides parallel and only opposite angles equal.
d. opposite sides parallel and equal, and opposite angles equal.
e. two opposite sides parallel, the other two sides not.
53. When given the three sides of a triangle the area of this triangle may be solved
by using the formula:
a. A = 1/2 bl
b. A = 0.433a
c. A = s square root (s-a) (s-b) (s-c)
*d. A = square root of s (s-a) (s-b) (s-c)
54. A right triangle has a vertical height of 7 m and a base of 4 m, find the area.
a. 28 m2
b. 17 m2
*c. 14 m2
d. 11 m2
e. 10.5 m2
55. A rhomboid is a plane figure, which has four (4) sides with?
a. All sides parallel.

b. Opposite sides parallel and all angles equal.
*c. Opposite sides parallel and only opposite angles equal.
d. Opposite sides parallel and equal and opposite angles equal.
e. Two opposite sides parallel, the other two sides not.
56. Any four sided plane figure having straight lines as sides is:
a. A rectangle
b. A square
*c. A quadrilateral
d. An octagon
57. An isosceles triangle has an area of 121 m2 and a base length of 13 m. What
is the vertical height of this (isosceles) triangle?
a. 9.23 m
b. 13.33 m
c. 15.78 m
d. 16.63 m
*e. 18.62 m
58. A rhombus is a plane figure. It has four (4) sides:
a. All sides are parallel.

b. Opposite sides are parallel and all angles are equal.
c. Opposite sides are parallel and only opposite angles are equal.
*d. Opposite sides are parallel and equal and opposite angles are equal.
e. Two opposite sides are parallel, the other two side are not.
59. The area of a trapezium can be determined by the formula:
*a. Divide the trapezium by a diagonal line then find the area of each
triangle, add the area of the two triangles to give the total area of the
trapezium.
b. A = a+b divide by 2 times b
c. A = d1 times d2 divide by 2
d. A = b1
60. An equilateral triangle has sides of 11 meters. What is its area and height?
a. A = 42.76 m2, h = 6.00 m

*b. A = 52.39 m2, h = 9.53 m
c. A = 66.38 m2, h = 12.02 m
d. A = 68.39 m2, h = 12.24 m
e. A = 121 m2, h = 11 m
61. A trapezoid is a plane figure, which has four (4) sides, and?
a. All sides are parallel.

b. Opposite sides are parallel and all angles are equal.
c. Opposite sides are parallel and only opposite angles are equal.
d. Opposite sides are parallel and equal, and opposite angles are equal.
*e. Two opposite sides are parallel, the other two side are not.
62. A rhombus is a rhomboid having:
*a. All sides of equal length

b. All angles equal
c. Only two sides
d. All sides different lengths
63. An equilateral triangle has an area of 63.92 m2. What is the height of this
equilateral triangle?
a. 49.20 m
b. 40.12 m
c. 23.15 m
*d. 10.52 m
e. 9.15 m
64. A polygon is a figure bounded by:
a. Two sides
*b. Any number of straight lines
c. Three sides
d. Hexagon
65. A sector of a circle is a part of a circle bounded by two radius lines and
a portion of the circumference called a/an:
a. Ellipse
b. Chord
*c. Arc
d. Segment
66. What is the area of a triangle whose sides measure 4 km, 5 km and 7 km?
*a. 9.80 km2

b. 10.78 km2
c. 20.00 km2
d. 35 km2
e. 140 km2
67. The area of any triangle can be found if the data given includes:
a. The altitude, or height, and the length of the base of any triangle.
b. The length of the side of an equilateral triangle.
*c. The lengths of the three sides of any triangle.
d. A and C only
e. A,B and C.
68. The area of a sector of a circle can be determined by:
a. Area of circle minus area of triangle

b. Area of segment minus area of triangle
c. Area of triangle minus area of segment
d. Area of circle minus the angle of the sector divided by 360
*e. Area of circle times the angle of the sector divided by 360
69. An octagon has sides 4 cm long. How much larger is its area than a circle with
a radius which is also 4 cm long?
a. 8.66 cm2
b. 18.01 cm2
c. 22.67 cm2
*d. 27.01 cm2
e. 64.72 cm2
70. What is the maximum side a hexagonal metal bar can be machined out from a steel
rod having a diameter of 10 cm? No material is lost.
a. 2.480cm2
b. 4.318 cm2
c. 5.00 cm2
*d. 5.496 cm2
e. 10.991 cm2
71. The length (major axis) of the shadow of a football measures 38 cm. The shadow
has an area of 418 cm2. Assume that the shadow of the football is a perfect ellipse.
What is the width (minor axis) of the shadow?
a. 7 cm
*b. 14 cm
c. 16 cm
d. 28 cm
e. 32 cm
72. A hexagon is machined from a circle having a diameter of 8 cm. How much area
needs to be removed from the circle?
a. 5.012 cm2
b. 6.147 cm2
c. 6.862 cm2
d. 7.147 cm2
*e. 8.862 cm2
73. A horizontal boiler shell is 180 cm in diameter and 5 m long. It is filled

with water to a depth of 160 cm. What is the area of the segment of the end plate
above the water line?
a. 1.87 m2
b. 1.98 m2
c. 2.17 m2
d. 2.24 m2
*e. 2.45 m2
74. Calculate the number of 8 cm diameter tubes that can be attached to a circular
tube sheet of a heat exchanger that is 1.0 m in diameter. Assume that 50% of the
sheet area is used for spacing between the tubes.
a. 72
*b. 78
c. 88
d. 98
e. 156
75. A reinforced concrete beam requires a cross-sectional area of reinforcing steel

equal to 25 cm2. If 2 cm diameter steel rods are used, how many will be required?
a. 6 rods
b. 7 rods
*c. 8 rods
d. 10 rods
e. 12 rods
76. Plane figures have length and width with:
a. No size
b. Only one straight edge
*c. No thickness
d. No measurement
77. A sector has a radius of 5 m. It encompasses the angle of 36°. Calculate the
area of this sector.
a. 7.184 m2
*b. 7.854 m2
c. 8.112 m2
d. 8.334 m2
e. 9.122 m2
78. The formula for finding the lateral surface area of a cylinder is:
a. pi D2h
b. 2 (0.7854 D2)
c. pi Dh+2 (0.7854 D2)
d. 1/2 bh
*e. pi D h
79. The difference between a vector and a scalar is that:
a. The scalar is a quantitive measure while vector is a sign only.

*b. The vector is not only a quantitive measure but also requires a
directional indication while scalar is a quantitive measure only.
c. The scalar is not only a quantitive measure but also requires a directional
indication while vector is a quantitive measure only.
d. The unit must be used for vectors.
80. A system of several vectors can be replaced by a single vector which will have
the same effect, or will be equivalent to the effect created by the several vectors.
This single vector is called the?
a. X component
b. Y component
c. Scalar
d. Equilibrant
*e. Resultant
81. The equilibrant is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the

resultant. The number of equilibrant/s in a system is?
*a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
e. unlimited
82. A body can be put into equilibrium by applying an additional force equal in
magnitude but opposite in direction to the:
*a. resultant
b. scalar
c. equilibrant
d. component
e. vector
83. The force that is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the resultant
force is called:
a. The component
b. The element
c. The displacement
*d. The equilibrant
e. the impedance
84. A displacement of 9 m north of point A, and another of 6 m west of point A

can be added to produce a resultant displacement of:
a. 3 m N of W
b. 10 m N of W
*c. 10.8 m N of W
d. 12.5 m N of W
e. 15 m N of W
85. Three different methods of constructing the vector diagram are: 1.

Parallelogram method 2. Graphical method 3. Polygon method 4. Analytical method
5. Method of components
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 2, 4, 5
*c. 1, 3, 5
d. 2, 3, 5
86. Any vector may be considered to be made up of two or more other vectors which
are called the:
a. Resultants
b. Scalar quantities of the resultant
c. Static of motion
*d. Components of the original vector
87. A body can be put into equilibrium by applying an additional force equal in
magnitude but opposite in direction to the:
a. Scalar
b. Vector
c. Equilibriant
*d. Resultant
88. An aircraft flies at 20° North of West at 100 km/h. The east/west component
of the velocity vector is:
*a. 94 km/h west

b. 34.2 km/h west
c. 36.4 km/h west
d. 30.3 km/h east
e. 18.79 km/h west
89. The resultant of a 4 kN force acting upward and a 3 kN force acting horizontally
is:
a. 1 kN
*b. 5 kN
c. 7 kN
d. 12 kN
e. 6 kN
90. Two slings of equal length are slung from a horizontal beam and connected to
a common shackle at their lower ends. The slings and beam form an equilateral
triangle. The force in one sling when a load of 100 kN hangs from the common shackle
is:
a. 25 kN
b. 50 kN
*c. 57.7 kN
d. 115.4 kN
e. 43.3 kN
91. An aircraft flies northwest at 200 km/h. The velocity vector would have the
following rectangular components:
a. X = 70 km/h y = 70 km/h
*b. X = -141 km/h y = 141 km/h
c. X = 180 km/h y = 180 km/h
d. X = 40 km/h y= 40 km/h
e. X = 100 km/h y = 100 km/h
92. The minimum number of unequal forces whose vector sum can equal zero is:
a. 1
b. 2
*c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
93. A 10 kN and a 5 kN force act on a body. The resultant force on the body must
be:
a. Between 5 and 10 kN
*b. Between 5 and 15 kN
c. More than 5 kN
d. More than 10 kN
e. Less than 5 kN
94. Into how many components can a single vector can be resolved?
a. none
b. one
*c. two
d. four
e. unlimited
95. A ten newton force pushes a body ten metres along a horizontal surface and
does work amounting to 100 joules.
*a. True
b. False
96. Analytical solutions for mechanical problems involve the use of:
a. Vectors
b. Graphs
*c. Mathematics
d. Variegation
97. One of the conditions that a force system in equilibrium is:
*a. The sum of the upward forces must equal the sum of the downward forces.
b. The resultants of the upward forces and downward force may cause rotation.
c. The sum of all the forces must act to one direction.
d. The resultant of the forces cause an acceleration.
98. One of the conditions of a force system in equilibrium is:
a. There are no forces acting parallel to each other.

b. The resultant of the forces produce an acceleration.
*c. The sum of the forces to the left must equal the sum of the forces to
the right.
d. All the forces in the system must act to the same direction.
99. A wooden box is loaded and its mass is 40 kg. It is pulled horizontally by
a force of 150 N which just sets it in motion. Determine the coefficient of friction.
a. 3.75 N
b. 2.616
*c. 0.382
d. 0.382 N
e. 0.368
100. A wooden box is loaded and its mass is 40 kg. A force of 150 N just sets it
in motion. If this force is increased to 170 N, what will occur?
a. The wooden box will move faster at steady velocity.

*b. The wooden box will accelerate.
c. The wooden box will slow down.
d. The wooden box will stop.
e. The wooden box will continue to move at a constant velocity.
101. A body having a mass of 50.97 kg is pulled along a horizontal flat surface
at a constant speed by a force of 180 N, which makes an angle of +30° with the
horizontal. Find the coefficient of kinetic friction for the surfaces.
a. 0.311
b. 1.441 N
c. 0.896
d. 0.38 N
*e. 0.38
102. A body of a gravitational force of 2000 N is pulled along a horizontal surface

at constant speed by a rope that makes an angle of 20° above the horizontal. If
the pull on the rope is 150 N, the coefficient of sliding friction is:
a. 0.0257
b. 0.0275
c. 0.0275N
d. 0.0656
*e. 0.0723
103. Find the value and applied angle of the least force required to move a vessel,
if the mass of the vessel is 1650 kg and the coefficient of friction is 0.49.
*a. 7931 N, 26.10°

b. 5562.52N, 31.47°
c. 5522.52N, 31.47°
d. 4098.52N, 22.22°
e. 726.03N, 25.10°
104. A load of 750 kg just starts to move when the friction angle is 10°. What
effort must be applied parallel to the inclined surface to stop the motion of the
block?
a. 7245.72 N
b. 1478.22 N
*c. 1297.33 N
d. 1277.62 N
e. 1124.35 N
105. A 1000 kg body is pulled along a horizontal surface at a constant speed by
a rope that makes an angle of 15° above horizontal. If the pull on the rope is
150 N, the coefficient of friction is:
a. 0.14
*b. 0.0148
c. 0.004
d. 0.10
e. 0.15
106. A refrigerator is sets on a perfect level surface and has a mass of 150 kg.
It is pushed by a force of 35° N acting at 30° to the supporting surface for the
refrigerator. Assume that the coefficient of friction between the refrigerator
and the suppoting surface is 0.25. What will happen to the refrigerator?
a. The refrigerator will start moving, then maintain steady speed as kinetic
friction increases.
b. The refrigerator will slide and continue to accelerate.
*c. The refrigerator will slide at a constant velocity.
d. The refrigerator will tip.
e. The refrigerator will not move.
107. A sliding face of a slide valve of a steam engine is 150 mm by 300 mm, and
the steam pressure on the back of the valve is 1200 kN/m 2. If the coefficient of
friction is 0.02, what is the force required to move the valve?
a. 2400 N
b. 1800 N
*c. 1080 N
d. 960 N
e. 840 N
108. A man has a mass of 70 kg. What is the magnitude of the largest mass he can
pull by a horizontal rope along a horizontal floor, if the coefficient of friction
between the mass and the floor is 0.23, and that between his boot soles and the
floor is 0.5?
*a. 152.2 kg
b. 52.2 kg
c. 70 kg
d. 102.2 kg
e. 343.4 kg
109. A block of stone of 40 kg is hauled along a horizontal floor by a force inclined

20° to the horizontal. If the coefficient of friction between the stone and the
floor is 0.3, determine the effort required to just move the stone from rest.
a. 157.77N
b. 140.63 N
c. 117.72 N
*d. 112.9 N
e. 84.2 N
110. Force of friction always?
a. Goes along with the applied force.

*b. Goes against the applied force.
c. Depends on the contact area between two surfaces.
d. Harmful to the operation of machinery.
e. Exist even when there is no applied force.
111. The relationship between the static friction and kinetic friction is as
follows:
*a. The static friction is always greater than the kinetic friction.
b. The kinetic friction is always greater than the static friction.
c. The static fricition is twice the kinetic friction.
d. The kinetic friction is twice the static friction.
e. The relationship between static and kinetic friction depends on the nature
of the contact surfaces.
112. To increase the frictional force, it is necessary to?
*a. Increase the roughness of at least one of the surfaces in contact.

b. Increase the roughness of both surfaces in contact.
c. Increase the speed of the moving body.
d. Increase of the area of surfaces in contact.
e. Apply a greater force parallel to the contact surfaces.
113. Kinetic friction is always less than?
*a. Static friction

b. Sliding friction
c. Fluid friction
d. Standing friction
e. Rolling friction
114. When the co-efficient of friction increases, and the force between the two
surfaces remains constant, the friction force will?
a. Remain constant
b. Decrease
*c. Increase
d. Decrease exponentially
e. Approach zero
115. If an object initially at rest on a horizontal surface is pushed by a force

F making 20° to the horizontal surface, then the frictional force developed between
the contact surfaces is __________ as compared to when the force is applied
horizontally to the body.
a. Decreased
b. No difference
*c. Increased
d. Two times bigger
e. 0.342 times less
116. Distance is:
a. Displacement divided by time

b. Speed multiplied by time
*c. A scalar quantity
d. A vector quantity
e. Displacement multiplied by time
117. Velocity:
1. Refers to a body's speed in a certain direction

2. Is displacement divided by time
3. Is a vector quantity
4. Is a scalar quantity
*a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
118. Displacement is:
*a. A vector quantity

b. Speed multiplied by time
c. A scalar quantity
d. Acceleration divided by time
e. Velocity divided by time
119. Acceleration is:
a. The increase of the displacement of a body

*b. A body's rate of change of velocity
c. Expressed usually as km/h
d. The rate of change of time
e. The increase of the velocity of a body
120. Average velocity is determined by:
a. V = v/2
b. V = u + 2a s2
*c. V = (u + v)/2
d. V = u - at
e. V = ut + 1/2 a t2
121. Since the constant 9.81 m/s2 is used so frequently it is given the symbol:
a. V
*b. g
c. s
d. A
e. C
122. As the acceleration due to gravity is a known constant, the final velocity
of a falling body may be found by the formula:
a. V = u2 + 2a s2
b. V = u + v/2
*c. V = u + at
d. V = u2+ 2as
e. V = ut + 1/2 a t2
123. Motion in a straight line is known as:
a. Vector motion
b. Slow motion
*c. Linear motion
d. Scalar motion
e. Straight vertical motion
124. Distance is a scalar quantity.
*a. True
b. False
125. A word, which refers to change in the position of a body, relative to some
reference point is:
a. Magnitude
*b. Displacement
c. Direction
d. Distance
e. Velocity
126. The units of velocity are the same as the units of speed.
*a. True
b. False
127. The velocity of a body is decreasing with time. It is said to be:
a. Going slower
*b. Retarding
c. Accelerating
d. Genuflecting
e. Decreasing modulation
128. The turning effect of a force about a point is the _______ moment of a force.
a. Last
b. Perpendicular
c. Magnitude
*d. First
e. Mid
129. If a body is in equilibrium, the resultant of all forces acting upon the body
must be zero.
*a. True
b. False
130. From the definition, the result of a force moving through a distance is:
a. Power
b. Acceleration
*c. Work
d. Moment of force
e. Velocity
131. Energy a body acquires when in motion is referred to as?
a. Linear
b. Frictional
c. Mechanical
*d. Kinetic
e. Rotational
132. The potential energy contained in a mass of 20 kg located 15 meters above

ground level is:
a. 2.934 J
b. 300 J
*c. 2.943 kJ
d. 30 kJ
e. 300 kJ
133. A steam turbine has an output of 40 MJ/s. Its power output, in kW is?
a. 11.11 kW
b. 4 000 KW
*c. 40 000 kW
d. 24 000 kW
e. 240 000 kW
134. In order to calculate the power in watts required to lift a 25 kg concrete

block to a height of 40 m, you would also need to know the?
*a. Time in seconds

b. Specific gravity of concrete
c. Mass-to-height ratio
d. Atmospheric pressure
e. Volume and density of the block
135. The power required to drive a pump which has an output of 15 kW and an efficiency
of 90% is:
a. 10.0 kW
b. 13.5 kW
c. 15.0 kW
*d. 16.67 kW
e. 17.5 kW
136. The work required to move a mass of 20 kg up a vertical distance of 10 metres

in one minute is:
a. 9.81 J
*b. 32.7 J
c. 32.7 kJ
d. 1962 J
e. 115.72 kJ
137. A 1 kg pipe wrench is dropped from a height of 25 m. In kilometers per hour,

its velocity at impact will be:
a. 22.15 km/h
b. 25 km/h
c. 30 km/h
d. 61.8 km/h
*e. 79.7 km/h
138. The quantity which describes the rate and the direction of motion is:
*a. Velocity
b. Acceleration
c. Speed
d. Displacement
e. Distance
139. An airplane travels 1000 km eastwards for 2 hours. Its average speed in m/sec
is:
a. 69.44 m/s
*b. 138.89 m/s
c. 500 m/s
d. 1000 m/s
e. 3600 m/s
140. A motorcycle traveling at 30 km/h increases its velocity uniformly to 110

km/h in the time of 5 seconds, while traveling the distance of 97.2 m. Its
acceleration in m/s2 is:
a. 16 m/s2
b. 7.78 m/s2
*c. 4.45 m/s2
d. 28 m/s2
e. 111.15 m/s2
141. In a speed test of a car, the machine traveling at 40 km/h increases its
velocity uniformly for 4 seconds, while traveling the controlled distance of 100
m. Its acceleration in m/s2 is:
a. 25 m/s2
*b. 6.945 m/s2
c. 4.45 m/s2
d. 2.8 m/s2
e. 111.15 m/s2
142. By definition, the rate of change of velocity in time is called:
a. proportionality constant
b. velocity ratio
*c. acceleration or deceleration
d. speed
e. velocity moment
143. A train travels at various speeds between several stations. From the train
schedule the following information can be extracted about the different segments
of the journey:
8 km traveled in 10 min., 14 km in 12 min., 16 km in 18 min., 12 km in 10 min.
The average speed during the whole trip is:
a. 13.89 km/h
b. 50 km/h
*c. 60 km/h
d. 72 km/h
e. 100 km/h
144. A flywheel changes speed uniformly from 400 rpm to 100 rpm in one (1) minute.
What is the angular retardation of the flywheel in rad/s2?
a. 0.0833 rad/s2
*b. 0.523 rad/s2
c. 0.698 rad/s2
d. 1.0 rad/s2
e. 5.0 rad/s2
145. Speed is known as the ______________________.
a. rate of change of displacement

b. rate of change of velocity
*c. a scalar quantity
d. a vector quantity
146. The kinetic energy of a 1000 kg automobile traveling at 60 km/h is:
a. 16.67 kJ
b. 60 kJ
*c. 138.8 kJ
d. 60 000 kJ
147. The hammer of a pile driver has a mass of 3 000 kg. It falls through a height
of 9 m. The hammer's kinetic energy just before impact is:
a. 27.0 kJ
*b. 264.87 kJ
c. 27 000 kJ
d. 243 000 J
148. From what height must a mass of 2 kg fall to have the same amount of kinetic
energy as a bullet of 25 g traveling at the speed of 1000 m/s.
a. 50 m
b. 98.1 m
c. 243.7 m
d. 543.39 m
*e. 637.1 m
149. The internal resistance to an external force applied to a body is known as:
a. Strain
*b. Stress
c. Young's Modulus
d. Ultimate strength
e. Allowable strength
150. When referring to stress as used in applied mechanics, the value is usually
expressed in:
*a. Kilopascals
b. Kilowatts
c. Joules
d. Square metres
e. Newton/metres
151. The various types of stress measured in the study of applied mechanics are:
a. Radiation, ultrasonic, brittle and ductile

b. Concentrated, simple, uniform and random
c. Tense, counteractive, reactive, centrifugal and opposite
*d. Torsional, compressive, uniform, shear and tensile
e. Torsional, compressive, bending, shear and tensile
152. A load exerted upon rivets will produce a stress type classed as:
a. Bending
*b. Shearing
c. Torsional
d. Compressive
e. Tensile
153. The amount of deformation compared to the original size of a body, in applied
mechanics, is referred to as:
*a. Strain
b. Stress
c. Set
d. Variable
e. Elastic limit
154. The amount a bolt stretches when subjected to a load, is divided by the original
length. The ratio found is classed as:
a. Linear stress
b. Compressive stress
c. Axial stress
*d. Linear strain
e. Axial thrust
155. An I-beam under compressive load is found to be 0.023 mm shorter than the
original length. Given the original length we can find:
a. The compressive stress

b. Tensile stress
*c. Linear strain
d. Tensile strain
e. Shearing strain
156. Linear strain measures the change of length per unit length when a force is
applied. Which of the following forces is applied to produce linear strain?
a. Shearing
b. Double shear
c. Torsional
d. Bending
*e. Tensile
157. Strain is defined as:
*a. Deformation per unit length

b. Force which causes a change in body shape
c. Original length multiplied by the change in length
d. Original length divided by the change in length
e. Original length divided by the change in area
158. Hooke's Law is used to define which of the following properties of a body?
a. Toughness
b. Hardness
c. Plasticity
*d. Elastic properties
e. Ductility
159. According to Hooke's Law the stress in an elastic body is directly proportional
to the strain if:
a. The yield point of the material is exceeded

*b. The elastic limits of the material is not exceeded
c. The elastic limits of the material is exceeded
d. Young's Modulus remains constant
e. The yield point of the material is not exceeded
160. Hooke's Law determines the constant proportionality of:
a. Area to load on a body

b. Change in length to original length of a body
*c. Stress to strain relation of a body
d. Unit stress of a body
e. Unit strain of a body
161. Hooke's Law states that when a body is under load:
*a. The deformation produced is directly proportional to the stress

producing it.
b. The strain produced is indirectly proportional to the stress producing
it.
c. The strain produced is inversely proportional to the stress producing
it.
d. The deformation produced is directly proportional to the strain producing
it.
e. The deformation produced is inversely proportional to the stress
producing it.
162. The proportionality of stress to strain is expressed as:
a. The sum of increment of stress to increment of strain

b. The grain alignment within a body.
c. The average of increments of stress to increment of strain.
d. The product of increment of stress to increment of strain.
*e. The ratio of increment of stress to increment of strain.
163. The modulus of elasticity (E) is also known as:
a. Elastic limit of a specimen.

*b. Young's Modulus where E = stress divided by strain.
c. Elastic section modulus where E = area divided by strain.
d. Young's Modulus where E = strain divided by stress.
e. Young's Modulus where E = strain multiplied by stress.
164. If Young's Modulus and the stress that a body is subjected to are known, which
of the following can be calculated?
a. Area of the body

b. Bending moments
*c. Amount of strain produced
d. Moment of force
e. The original length
165. A perfectly elastic material:

*a. Shows no sign of strain due to loading when the load is removed
b. Maintains a new length or shape after the load is removed
c. Can only be loaded to the yield point
d. Will take any shape due to elastic ability
e. Can only be loaded to the elastic limit
166. The modulus of elasticity is expressed in:
a. Joules
*b. kPa
c. Newtons per second
d. Newtons per hour
e. kN
167. The stress in an elastic body is directly proportional to the strain if the
elastic limit of the material is not exceeded, is called:
a. Young's Modulus
*b. Hooke's Law
c. Modulus of elasticity
168. Ultimate tensile strength designed into an object must be:
a. Less than the allowable working stress

*b. Greater than the allowable working stress
c. Equal to the allowable working stress
d. Varied as to greater or less than the allowable working stress depending
upon the load applied
e. Ten times greater than the allowable stress
169. When subjecting a sample to an ultimate tensile test, the test is concluded
at:
a. The elastic limit

*b. The load at which the sample breaks
c. The yield point
d. When the maximum elongation is obtained without rupture to the sample
e. Before the yield point
170. Ultimate strength of a material is expressed in units of:
a. Kilowatts
b. Square metres
*c. Kilopascals
d. Joules
e. Kilo Newtons
171. When conducting an ultimate tensile strength test the cross sectional area
of the sample considered for the test calculations is:
a. That area at the point when the elastic limit is reached

*b. That area when the maximum load is applied
c. That area when the yield point is reached
d. That area known prior to the test
e. That area before the elastic limit is reached
172. If the safe working stress and the ultimate strength of a material are known,
we can find the safety factor by:
a. Subtracting the safe working stress from the ultimate strength

*b. Dividing the ultimate strength by the safe working stress
c. Dividing the safe working stress by the ultimate strength
d. Dividing the difference between the safe working stress and the ultimate
strength into the ultimate strength
e. Multiplying the ultimate strength by the safe working stress
173. The maximum stress produced during fracture of a material is its:
a. Brittleness
b. Ductility
*c. Ultimate strength
d. Stiffness
e. Hardness
174. The internal resistance or force of a body is known as strain.
a. True
*b. False
175. Young's Modulus is a very important quantity for if it is known then the amount
of stretching produced by a given stress may be calculated.
*a. True
b. False
176. Factor of safety is always expressed:
a. In kPa
b. In Newton metres
*c. As a ratio (without units)
d. In joules
e. In kN/m
177. A load exerted upon rivets produces a tensile stress.

a. True
*b. False
178. Strain is equal to the change in length of an object divided by the original
length.
*a. True
b. False
179. An example of compression stress would be a load suspended from a rod.
a. True
*b. False
180. A simply supported beam 12 m long, carries a uniform load of 10 kN/m. The
reaction force at each end is:
a. 6 kN
b. 12 kN
*c. 60 kN
d. 120 kN
e. 48 kN
181. Linear strain equals:
a. Change in length multiplied by the original length

b. Original length divided by the change in length
*c. Original length divided into the change in length
d. Original diameter divided by the change in length
e. Original area divided by the change in length
182. The ratio between the ultimate strength of a material and its safe working
stress is known as the:
a. Tensile strength
b. Yield point
c. Strain
*d. Factor of safety
e. Maximum load
183. The stress in an elastic body is directly proportional to the strain if the
elastic limit of the material is not exceed, is called:
a. Young's Modulus
*b. Hooke's Law
c. Modulus of elasticity
d. Yield point
e. Maximum load
184. When conducting an ultimate tensile strength test, the cross-sectional area
of the specimen used for calculation is:
*a. The area before the test is conducted

b. The area after the test is conducted
c. The area during the test
d. Always the area taken at 100 degrees C.
e. The area between the elastic limit and yield point
185. The yield point of a material is where:
a. The breaking point of the specimen occurs

b. The maximum load is applied
c. The factor of safety is increased suddenly
*d. The material can be return to its original size and shape
e. The material suddenly yields to the load
186. The factor of safety is:
1. Ultimate strength divided by the allowable working stress

2. A ratio
3. A numerical value only
4. Between zero to one
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
*d. 1, 2, 3
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
187. Safe working stress is determined by:
a. Interpolation
b. Extrapolation
*c. Dividing the ultimate strength by the factor of safety
d. Multiplying the ultimate strength by the strain
e. Dividing the ultimate strength by the strain
188. The amount of deformation compared to the original size is known as:
a. Hooke's Law
b. Yield point
*c. Strain
d. Ultimate strength
e. Allowable working stress
189. The elastic limit of a material is indicated by the point at which the
elongation of the specimen:
a. Is interrupted by breaking
*b. Where there is a sudden great elongation of the specimen
c. Decreases at a slower rate than the applied load
d. Increases at a faster rate than the load
e. Remains unchanged
190. The ratio of a stress to the corresponding strain is known as:
a. Hooke's Law
b. The yield point
*c. The modulus of elasticity
d. The ultimate strength
e. The maximum load
191. Breaking load and maximum load are the same thing.
a. True
*b. False
192. The factor of safety is a ratio between the ultimate strength of a material
and its safe working stress
*a. True
b. False
193. The ultimate strength of a material is reached at the yield point.
a. True
*b. False
194. The elastic limits of a material is reached before a force applied to a material
stresses that material beyond its yield point.
*a. True
b. False
195. A material under tensile stress undergoes a sudden increase in length when
forced beyond its yield point.
*a. True
b. False
196. A material is subjected to a compressive load. As the load is increased, a

sudden change in the shape of the material is noticed. When the load is removed,
the material returns to its original shape. This indicates the material's ultimate
tensile strength was not reached during test.
*a. True
b. False
197. When considering a steel block subjected to a tensile force, we would find
the stress in the block by:
1. Using the formula stress equals force divided by the area

2. Using the same formula, we use to find stress in a block subjected to
a compressive force
3. Using the same formula, we use to find the shear stress in a bolt
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 3
*d. 1, 2, 3
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
198. The formula, stress = load divided by the area, can be transposed to read
stress times load when you must solve to find the correct area.
a. True
*b. False
199. If we are given the values for the load and the area of an object, we find
the stress by dividing the load by the area.
*a. True
b. False
200. To find the load, when the stress and the area are known, we must multiply
the stress by the area.
*a. True
b. False
201. If we find the maximum load applied to a sample being subjected to an ultimate
tensile strength test, and know the cross-sectional area of the sample prior to
testing, we can calculate the ultimate tensile strength of the sample by:
*a. Dividing the original cross-sectional area into the maximum load applied
b. Multiplying the original cross-sectional area by the maximum load applied
c. Dividing the final cross-sectional area by the maximum load applied
d. Dividing the original cross-sectional area by the maximum load applied
and multiplying by the cross-sectional area found at the break
e. Dividing the original cross-sectional area into the minimum load applied
202. If the factor of safety was increased on an object from 4 to 5, the load on
the object operating at maximum safe working conditions:
a. Could be increased from the original

b. Could be increased providing new safety values were installed
*c. Must be reduced from the original
d. Could be maintained at original
e. Must be increased to one times the value of the maximum working load
203. If the operating temperature of a vessel operating at maximum allowable

working stress was increased the safety factor value:
a. Remains unchanged
b. Will be increased
*c. Will be reduced
d. Remains unchanged providing the vessel was fitted with high temperature
alarms
e. Will be decreased to two times the original
204. The formula, strain equals change in length divided by original length, is
used to find:
1. The strain in an object subjected to compressive loading

2. The strain in an object subjected to tensile loading
3. Young's modulus
a. 1
b. 2, 3
*c. 1, 2
d. 1, 3
e. 1, 2, 3
205. When calculating the ultimate strength of a material we should:
a. Multiple the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area

b. Multiply the maximum load by the new cross-sectional area
c. Divide the maximum load by the new cross-sectional area
*d. Divide the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area
e. Multiply the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area
206. The ultimate strength of a material is:
a. Same as the elastic limit

*b. Factor of safety multiplied by the safe working stress.
c. Same as the yield point
d. Inverse of Young's modulus
e. The maximum load times the original area
207. Moment of a force is equal to force multiplied by:
a. Parallel distance to the pivot

b. Linear distance to the pivot
*c. Perpendicular distance to the pivot
d. Slant distance to the pivot
e. Horizontal distance to the pivot
208. A simple beam is a beam that is supported at one end.
a. True
*b. False
209. A load carried by a beam will produce bending stress.
*a. True
b. False
210. If a beam has its supports arranged so that the beam is free to move on the
supports and no additional forces occur the beam is said to be:
*a. Simple supported

b. Amply supported
c. Singularly supported
d. Supported
e. Strongly supported
211. When the sum of the clockwise moments equals the anti-clockwise moments then:
a. Both forces are zero

*b. Equilibrium exists
c. The resultant is reduced
d. The resultant is increased
e. The equilibrium is greater than the resultant
212. For a lever to be in equilibrium the:
a. Clockwise moments must equal zero

b. Anti-clockwise moments must equal zero
c. Lever must have a torquing effect
*d. Clockwise moments must equal the anti-clockwise moments
e. Clockwise moments must be greater than the anti-clockwise moments
213. The moment of a force is the turning effect:
a. Opposite to the perpendicular force

*b. About a given point
c. Of the resistance to movement
d. Of a short period of time
e. On an object due to gravity
214. A beam supported at both ends has a concentrated load of 70 kg at a distance

of 4 m from one end and 8 m from the other end. This load produces a stress of
the type classed as:
1. Shearing
2. Tensile
3. Torsional
4. Bending
a. 2, 3
b. 1, 3
c. 3, 4
*d. 1, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
215. The magnitude of the moment of a force is equal to:
a. Force times the area

b. Force times the time
c. Force times the pressure
*d. Force times the perpendicular distance
e. Force times the circular distance
216. A 6 m long cantilever beam carries a concentrated load of 45 kN at its free

end. What is the shear force at the wall?
a. 270 kNm
*b. 270 kN
c. 45 kN
d. 7.5 kN/m
e. 0.133 kN
217. Reaction forces are those:
*a. Those which support the beam

b. Clockwise movements
c. Internal forces in the beam
d. The sum of the clockwise movements
218. A simply supported beam is 8 m long and has a concentrated load of 40 kN at

3 m from the left end support and a concentrated load of 30 kN at 2 m from the
right hand end. Find the support reactions. (Neglect the mass of the beam).
*a. R1 = 37.5 kN, R2 = 32.5 kN

b. R1 = 32.5 kN, R2 = 37.5 kN
c. R1 = 35 kN, R2 = 35 kN
d. R1 = 30.5 kN, R2 = 39.5 kN
e. R1 = 40 kN, R2 = 30 kN
219. When a simply supported, horizontal beam has a load of 19 620 kN hanging from
the centre of the beam, the supports on each end of the beam carry an equivalent
mass of:
a. 900 kg
b. 1200 kg
c. 9810 kg
d. 100 t
*e. 1000 t
220. A cantilever pivoted at one end is 6 m long. The load due to the lever's weight
is 9 N, and it acts through its mid-point. At 1 m from the pivoted end a force
of 298 N acts in an upward direction. To keep the system in balance, a load must
be placed at the extreme end of the cantilever. What is the magnitude of that load?
a. 243 N
b. 149.79 N
c. 45.17 kg
*d. 45.17 N
e. 41.75 kg
221. A beam, simply supported at both ends, is 12 m long and has uniformly
distributed load of 10 N/m. The beam supports concentrated loads of 150 N at 3
m from the left end and 350 N at 8 m from the left end. The reaction at the left
end is:
a. 229.2 N
*b. 289.2 N
c. 330 N
d. 3420 N
e. 39 kN
222. A cantilever beam 4 m long carries a concentrated load of 100 kN at its free
end. The beam is also uniformly loaded at 10 kN/m over its entire length. The shear
force at the wall is:
a. 100 kN
b. 110 kN
c. 40 kN
*d. 140 kN
e. 480 kN
223. The factor of safety for both new and used boilers is set out by the ASME
code.
a. True
*b. False
224. A beam 20 meters long rests on a support at each extreme end and carries a
uniformally distributed load of 50 N per meter of length. Find the bending moment
and shearing force at the center section of the beam.
*a. SF = 0 N BM = 2500 Nm counterclockwise

b. SF = 0 N BM = 2500 Nm clockwise
c. SF = 1000 N BM = 2500 counterclockwise
d. SF = 500 N BM = 2500 counterclockwise
e. SF = 500 N BM = 2500 clockwise
225. A beam 20 meters long rests on a support at each extreme end and carries a
load of 10 N at the center of its length. Find the bending moment and shearing
force at the center section of the beam.
a. SF = 5N upwards BM = 100 N m clockwise

b. SF = 5 N downwards BM = 100 N m counterclockwise
*c. SF = 5N upwards BM = 50 N m counterclockwise
d. SF = 0 N BM = 50 N m counterclockwise
e. SF = 0 N BM = 50 N m clockwise
226. A force of 20 N balances a force of 36 N at the extremities of a weightless

14 meter long lever. Calculate the length of the arms from the fulcrum.
a. 7 and 7 m
b. 6 and 8 m
c. 6 and 6 m
*d. 5 and 9 m
e. 10 and 4 m
227. A uniform rod is 10 meters long and provides a force of 30 N. Forces of 40

and 50 N are suspended from its ends. Compute the position of the fulcrum.
a. 5.0 m from the 40 N force

b. 5.0 m from the 50 N force
c. 5.4 m from the 50 N force
d. 4.6 m from the 40 N force
*e. 5.4 m from the 40 N force
228. A beam is simply supported at both ends and, carries a concentrated load of
1000 N. The types of stresses that are set up in the bar are:
*a. Shear stress and bending stress

b. Compression and tension stress
c. Concentrated load and shear stress
d. Compression stress and bending stress
e. Tension stress and shear stress
229. The number designations of a steel "I" beam such as 12I31.8 are:
a. 12 cm is the length and 31.8 cm is the width

b. 12" in nominal depth and 31.8" in nominal width
*c. 12" in nominal depth and 31.8 pounds per linear foot.
d. 12 cm in nominal width and 31.8 kg per linear meter
e. 31.8 cm in nominal depth and 12 cm in nominal width
230. From the list of conditions, select the condition/conditions that applies
to the equilibrium of beams:
1. Downward forces equal to upward forces

2. Shear forces equal to all applied forces
3. Forces to the right equals to the forces to the left
4. There should have no couples
5. Clockwise movements equals to the anticlockwise movements
a. 1, 3 only
b. 2, 3 and 5 only
c. 1, 2, and 5 only
*d. 1, 3 and 5 only
e. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
231. Shear force at any section or point in a beam is the algebraic sum of:
a. All the concentrated loads to the right or left of the section being
considered
b. All the distributed loads to the right or left of the section being
considered
c. All the external forces
d. All the parallel forces to the right or left of the section being
considered
*e. All the vertical forces to the right or to the left of the section being
considered
232. The bending moment at any section in a beam is the algebraic sum of:
a. The upward forces and downward forces

*b. Movements to the left or the right of the section being considered
c. The distributed loads and the concentrated loads
d. Movements at the support
e. All the force couples acting on the beam
233. The movement of a force about a point is:
a. The component that will bring the system to equilibrium

b. The force multiplied by the resultant
c. The force multiplied by the equilibrant
*d. The force multiplied by the perpendicular distance between the force
and the pivot point
e. Equal to time multiplied by the force
234. A column 10 cm diameter and 2 m long is subject to a compression force of

800 kN, which shortens the column 1 mm. Find the modulus of elasticity.
a. 20 371 kPa
b. 101 859 kPa
c. 20 372 MPa
d. 201 850 MPa
*e. 203.72 GPa
235. A steel tube is 8 m long, and has a net cross sectional area of 0.002 m2.
It hangs vertically with a load of 500 Kg at its lower end. If the modulus of
elasticity is 210 x 103 MPa, find the extension of the tube.
a. 0.0117 m
b. 0.0117 cm
*c. 0.093 mm
d. 0.00093 mm
e. 1.117 m
236. A steel bar is 4 m long, and has a cross section of 3 cm x 4 cm. It is in

tension from a force of 360 kN. Find the stress induced.
a. 300 kPa
*b. 300 MPa
c. 120000 kPa
d. 300000 kN/cm2
237. A steel tube is 7 m long and is 6 cm OD with a wall thickness of 4 mm. It

hangs vertically with a load of 400 kg attached to its lower end. If the modulus
of elasticity is 210 x 106 kPa, find the stress induced in pipe material.
*a. 1.39 MPa

b. 1.47 MPa
c. 3.47 MPa
d. 5.57 MPa
e. 12.49 MPa
238. A knuckle joint is made up of a forked end with a 2 cm diameter pin through
it, to hold the other section in place. The joint is under tension from a force
F of 20 kN. Calculate the shearing stress in the pin.
a. 15 915 kPa
*b. 31 831 kPa
c. 33 781 kPa
d. 63 662 kPa
e. 318 MPa
239. Two (2) 19 mm bolts are supporting a load of 7 255 kg from an overhead beam.
The allowable stress on the bolt material is 112 740 kPa. Determine the factor
of safety.
a. 0.449
b. 0.898
c. -0.898
d. 1.898
*e. None of the above
240. The working stress of a material that has an ultimate strength of 525 MPa
and a safety factor of 7 would be:
a. 3675 MPa
b. 367.5 MPa
*c. 75 MPa
d. 525 kPa
e. 75 kPa
241. A steam engine has a piston 20 cm in diameter, and a piston rod of 4 cm diameter.
If the ultimate strength for the rod material is 400 000 kPa, and the factor of
safety for the rod is 12, calculate the maximum allowable steam pressure.
*a. 1 333 kPa

b. 1.333 GPa
c. 3333 kPa
d. 6031.87 kPa
e. 192 000 kPa
242. Three bolts are required to carry a total load of 6.75 tonnes. If the stress
allowed in the material is 55 900 kPa, calculate the minimum diameter of the bolts,
and state the standard size of bolt you would use.
a. 0.88 mm, M8
*b. 22.4 mm, M24
c. 25.4 mm, M27
d. 28.5 mm M30
e. 66.4 mm, M68
243. A steel bar is 7 m long, 10 cm wide and 1.25 cm thick. The bar is subjected
to a tensile force of 133,000 N. The stress produced in the bar is:
a. 106400 Pa
*b. 106400 Kpa
c. 106400 Mpa
d. 106400 N
e. 106400 KN
244. A steel wire 6 mm in diameter is used for hoisting purposes in building

construction. If 150 m of the wire is hanging vertically, and a load of 1 kN is
being lifted at the lower end of the wire, determine the elongation of the wire.
Ignore the mass of the wire itself. Assume that E = 200 GPa.
a. 106.1 mm
b. 39.78 mm
*c. 26.5 mm
d. 10.61 mm
e. 2.65 mm
245. A 65 cm diameter piston rod is subjected to a maximum load of 500 KN. The
tensile strength of the material is 8900 Kpa. What is the factor of safety.
a. 5.3
b. 8
c. 3
*d. 5.9
e. 6.4
246. A specimen of certain material 4.6 cm in diameter is tested in a tensile testing

machine until it breaks. The maximum load applied is 781793 N. Calculate the
ultimate tensile strength of the material.
*a. 995.41 kPa

b. 995.41 Pa
c. 995.41 MPa
d. 995407 kPa
e. 995407 MPa
247. A steel rod 6 m long has a cross-sectional area of 71 cm and is stretched

1.2 cm by a load suspended from one end. (E=210 GPa). Find the stress produced
by the load.
a. 420, 000 Pa
b. 420, 000, 000 Pa
c. 420, 000 MPa
d. 420, 000,000 kPa
*e. 420, 000 kPa
248. A straight aluminum wire 60 m long is subjected to a stress of 90 MPa. Determine

the total elongation of the wire. Assume E = 70 GPa.
a. 38.57 mm
b. 47.66 mm
c. 46.67 mm
d. 76.67 mm
*e. 77.14 mm
249. A rod is 710 mm in diameter and has a tensile strength of 413 MPa. The rod
supports a load of 143.6 KN. What is the factor of safety.
*a. 1138.68
b. 4
c. 11.38
d. 1.138
e. 113
250. A steel rod 3 m long has a cross-sectional area of 26 cm2 and is stretched
0.05 cm by a load suspended from one end. Young's modulus is 210 X 106kPa. What
is the stress produced by the load?
*a. 35 kPa
b. 35 MPa
c. 35 Pa
d. 350 kPa
e. 350 Pa
251. A steel rod 3 m long has a cross-sectional area of 0.26 m2 and is stretched
0.05 cm by a load suspended from one end. The stress produced by the load is 350
kPa. Young's modulus is 210 X 106. What is the load?
a. 91000 KN
b. 910 KN
c. 91000 Pa
*d. 91000 N
e. 910 kPa
252. A steel rod has a factor of safety of 4.3. The maximum stress on the rod is
5431 kPa. What is the ultimate strength of the steel rod.
a. 23353.3 Pa
*b. 23353.3 kPa
c. 23353.3 MPa
d. 23353.3 N
e. 23353.3 KN
253. A steel rod is 100 cm long and is subjected to a load of 10,000 N. While
subjected to this load the length of the bar remains the same. Young's modulus
is 306 GPa. Determine the strain on the bar.
a. 10
b. 5
c. 1
*d. 0
254. A steel rod is 5 m long and has a cross-sectional area of 0.26 m2. When subjected
to a load of 1421 N the rod is stretched to .0012 m. What is Young's modulus for
this material?
a. 22.772 GPa
*b. 22.772 MPa
c. 22.772 kPa
d. 22.772 MN
e. 22.772 GN
255. If the factor of safety of a piston under a working load of 800 KN is 7.85
what is the diameter of the piston if the ultimate strength of the material is
800,000 kPa.
*a. 10 cm
b. 10 mm
c. 5 cm
d. 5 mm
e. .05 m
256. A 2.5 cm diameter bolt is in double shear and carries a load of 30 KN. What
is the shear stress in the bolt?
a. 30,559 MPa
b. 61,115 MPa
c. 61,115 Pa
*d. 30,559 kPa
e. 61,115 kPa
257. Hook's Law applies to the portion in the stress-strain diagram where the curve
representing the relationship between the stress and strain is:
a. Slightly curved upward

*b. Linear
c. Slightly curved downward
d. Horizontal
e. Exponential
258. According to Hooke's Law, the stress in an elastic body is directly

proportional to the strain if:
a. The yield point of the material is exceeded

b. The elastic limit of the material is exceeded
c. Young's Modulus changes proportionally with stress
d. The factor of safety is not exceed
*e. The elastic limit is not exceeded
259. In the equation where, E is known as the modulus of elasticity or __________.
a. the modulus of rigidity

b. the plastic modulus
c. the Wong's modulus
*d. the Young's modulus
e. the modulus of elongation
260. The yield point for a material is the point at which it undergoes large
deformation at a/an____________.
a. Accelerated stress
b. Maximum stress
c. Variable stress
*d. Constant stress
e. Minimum stress
261. The ultimate stress of a material is determined by the experimental test.

The ultimate stress of a material can be calculated according to the following:
a. Multiplying the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area of the

test sample.
b. Multiplying the maximum load by the new cross-sectional area of the test
sample.
c. Dividing the maximum load by the new cross-sectional area of the test
sample.
d. Dividing the breaking load by the new cross-sectional area of the test
sample.
*e. Dividing the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area of the
test sample.
262. If a material is stressed beyond the proportional limit and does not totally
regain its original shape when the stress is removed, the amount of deformation
is called:
a. Permenant strain
b. Plastic set
*c. Strain
d. Maximum set
e. Permenant set
263. A hole 12 mm in diameter is to be punched through a plate 18 mm thick. If

the shear strength of the material is 300 N/mm2, find the load required on the
punch.
a. 2036 N
b. 203.6 Kg
c. 203.6 Pa
*d. 203.6 KN
264. The ratio of shear stress to shear strain is called the modulus rigidity (G).
It is also known as the:
a. Modulus of elasticity
b. Shearing modulus of elasticity
*c. Young's modulus
d. Shear stress modulus of plasticity
e. Wong's shear modulus
265. A tie bar made of mild steel of tensile strength 462 MN/m 2 is to carry a tensile
load of 11.12 KN, find its diameter allowing a factor of safety of 12.
*a. 19.17 mm
b. 19.17 cm
c. 1.917 m
d. 14.36 mm
e. 14.36 cm
266. Safe working stress is determined by:
a. Interpolation
b. Extrapolation
*c. Dividing the ultimate stress by the factor of safety
d. Multiplying the ultimate stress by the strain
e. The average value of the breaking stress determined by testing
267. A safe load of 20.31 KN is carried by a stud of 580.2 mm2 in cross-sectional

area at the bottom of the thread. The bolt has a safe working stress of 35 MN/m 2.
Calculate the number of studs required to hold the cylinder cover of a diesel engine
where the maximum pressure in the cylinder is 42 X 105 N/m2 and the diameter of
the cover is 380 mm.
a. 23
b. 10
c. 20
d. 25
*e. 24
268. The ratio of the output force to the input force is called the:
*a. Actual mechanical advantage

b. Ideal mechanical advantage
c. Velocity ratio
d. Velocity proportion
e. Mechanical ratio
269. Velocity ratio is:
a. Ideal efficiency
b. Actual mechanical advantage
c. Actual efficiency
d. Actual mechanical ratio
*e. Ideal mechanical advantage
270. The efficiency of any apparatus is given by the ratio:
a. Input divided by output

b. Distance effort moves divided by distance load moves
*c. Output divided by input
d. Load divided by effort
e. Load multiplied by effort
271. Load multiplied by distance load moves divided by effort multiplied by

distance effort moves is the:
a. Mechanical advantage of a simple machine

b. Velocity ratio of a simple machine
*c. Efficiency of a simple machine
d. Torquing effect of a simple machine
e. Ratio of the mechanical advantage of a simple machine
272. Actual mechanical advantage divided by velocity ratio is equal to:
*a. Efficiency
b. Velocity ratio
c. Ideal mechanical advantage
d. Equilibrium
e. Resultant
273. A solid brass statue has a mass of 20 000 kg. What mass of steel would be
required to exactly duplicate the structure?
a. 303.5 kg
*b. 18 738 kg
c. 21 347 kg
d. 21 593 kg
e. 21 953 kg
274. A solid cylinder is 31 cm dia. by 2.4 m long. It has the same mass as a lead
cube with 0.5 m sides. What material is the cylinder likely made of?
*a. mild steel

b. wrought iron
c. brass
d. copper
e. cobalt
275. A bar with a diameter of 494 mm and a length of 1.5 m has a square hole with
177.8 mm sides through its axis. If the mass of the bar is 2 027.1 kg, find the
relative density of this material.
a. 10.7
b. 9.77
c. 9.77 kg/m3
*d. 8.44
e. 8.44 kg/m3
276. A cylindrical tank has its axis vertical. It is 2 m in diameter and its mass
is 800 kg. When it is filled to 2 m high with oil, the total mass is 5050 kg. What
is the relative density of the oil?
a. 6.312
b. 6.764 kg/m3
c. 6.764
d. 0.876
*e. 0.6764
277. A pile of coal that forms a perfect cone shape has a base area of 24 m 2 and
a height of 15 m. Assuming the pile has 25 percent of void space, and that the
density of the coal given is 1400 kg/m3, determine the mass of the coal in this
pile.
a. 12 600 kg
b. 14 700 kg
c. 54 000 kg
*d. 126 t
e. 168 t
278. A solid 1345 kg object is totally submerged in a tank of ether with a relative
density of 0.74. If the object has a relative density of 5.8, what is the mass
of ether that will be displaced?
*a. 171.6 kg
b. 171.6 liters
c. 171.6 N
d. 171.6 m3
e. 171.6 cubic liters
279. A piece of coal has a mass of 1.08 kg. The relative density of this piece
is 1.4. Find its volume in cubic meters.
a. 1.296 m3
b. 1.296 x 103 m3
*c. 7.7 x 10-4 m3
d. 17.7 x 10-4 m3
e. 7.7 x 104 m3
280. A block of wood measures 20 cm wide x 15 cm deep and has a specific gravity
of 0.75. If its mass is 8 kg, find the length of the block.
a. 3.56 cm
b. 13.56 cm
*c. 35.6 cm
d. 105 mm
e. 10 667 cm
281. A 5000 litre oil tank contains 60 litres of water. If the water is drained
off and replaced with fresh oil of relative density 0.95, what is the change in
the mass of the tank's contents?
a. 4940 kg
b. 4750 kg
c. 60 kg
d. 5 kg
*e. 3 kg
282. A 400 kg block of steel is placed on top of 1.17 m3 of solid copper. 70 kg

of aluminum are laid on the steel. Calculate the average weight density of the
combined masses. The relative density for steel is 7.87, for copper: 8.77, and
for aluminum: 2.56.
a. 84 273 N/m3
*b. 84 654 N/m3
c. 90 813 N/m3
d. 6 400 kg/m3
e. 62 784 N/m3
283. "Standard conditions" used to compare mass densities of several substance

are set at:
a. 25°C and 25 atmospheric pressure

b. 20°C and one atmospheric pressure
c. 20°C and zero atmospheric pressure
*d. Zero °C and zero atmospheric pressure
e. Zero °C and one atmospheric pressure
284. The "mass density" of a substance is commonly called "density." It has a unit
of:
a. kg/cm3
b. N/kg
*c. kg/m3
d. lbs/ft2
e. m3/kg
285. The "relative density" of a substance refers to:
*a. The density of a substance compared to the density of water

b. The density of a substance compared to the density of air at standard
conditions
c. The density of a substance compared to the density of gold
d. The density of a substance compared to the density of the same substance
at standard conditions
e. The density of water divided by the density of other substance
286. The unit of relative density is:
a. kg/m3
b. lbs/ft3
c. N/m2
*d. none
e. kg/cm3
287. Weight Density of a substance is defined as weight per unit of volume. Its
unit is:
a. m3/kg
b. ft3/lb
*c. lb/ft3
d. kg/m3
e. N/m3
288. Specific weight is:
a. A unit used to indicate volume per unit weight

*b. A term used in the Imperial System only
c. Equal to the ratio of mass to its force
d. Used to indicate density of a substance compared to the density of water
e. Force per unit of area
289. Specific Gravity used in the Imperial system is equivalent to the _______
used in the metric system.
*a. relative density
b. relative gravity
c. specific density
d. weight density
e. specific weight
290. An internal combustion engine has 8 cylinders, the diameter of each of the
pistons is 10 cm. Assuming the force of explosion within the cylinder is 314.16
N, determine the average pressure acting on each of the cylinders.
a. 1 MPa
b. 4 MPa
c. 8 MPa
d. 16 MPa
*e. 32 MPa
291. The ambient pressure measures 100.78 kPa in a beautiful Prince George, BC.
The hot water boiler pressure gauge recorded a pressure of 85 kPa. Determine the
absolute pressure under which this boiler is operating.
a. 15.78 kPa
b. 85 kPa
c. 115.325 kPa
d. 135.78 kPa
*e. 185.78 kPa
292. A tank is 8 m long, 6 m wide and is filled to a depth of 8 m with gasoline.

Density of the gasoline is 672 kg/m3. Determine the pressure at the bottom of the
tank.
*a. 52.74 KPa

b. 53.76 KPa
c. 403.2 KPa
d. 527.4 KPa
e. 624.3 KPa
293. An oil well is 2 kilometers in depth. What pressure is necessary at the bottom
of the well in order to force oil of relative density 0.70 to the top.
a. 14 000 Pa
b. 536.76 kPa
c. 686.7 kPa
d. 1400 kPa
*e. 13 734 KPa
294. A storage tank is 6.5 m high and 1.75 meters in diameter. It is filled to
within 0.75 meters from the top of the tank with an oil that has a relative density
of 0.72. What is the pressure in kPa at the bottom of the tank?
a. 42305.6 kPa
b. 42305.6 Pa
*c. 42.305 kPa
d. 42.305 N
e. 42.305 Pa
295. A storage tank is 6.5 m high and 1.75 meters in diameter. It is filled to
within 1 meter from the top of the tank with an oil that has a relative density
of 0.63. What is the pressure in kPa at a fitting located halfway up the side of
the tank.
a. 13287.6 Pa
b. 13.38 kN
c. 13.28 N
*d. 13.287 kPa
e. 13287.6 kPa
296. A rectangular tank is 10 meters long, 2 meters wide and 6 meters high. The
tank is filled to the 4 meter mark with a liquid having a relative density of 1.24.
What is the pressure on the bottom of the tank?
*a. 97315.2 N
b. 97315.2 Pa
c. 97315 kN
d. 97315 kPa
297. How much will the mercury in a manometer be displaced if the pressure
difference being measured is 100 kPa?
a. 751.8 cm
b. 75.18 m
c. 7.5 mm
d. 7.5 cm
*e. 751.8 mm
298. What is the pressure in kPa at the back end of a boiler where the draft gauge
indicates a reading of 230 mm of H20?
a. 230 Pa
b. 230 kPa
c. 3.4 Pa
*d. 2.256 kPa
e. 2.256 Pa
299. A swimming pool is 4 m deep. What is the gauge pressure on the at of the bottom
of the pool?
a. 4 000 Pa
b. 11 kPa
c. 24.3 kPa
*d. 39.24 kPa
e. 140.54 kPa
300. In a fluid contained by solid boundaries the pressure exerted by the enclosed
fluid on its boundaries is always ____________.
a. normal or perpendicular
*b. constant at all directions
c. equal
d. measured in kgs
e. acting on the side and bottoms
301. Canadian Metric Practice Guide specified the unit for pressure to be used
as _____________________.
a. psi
b. bar
*c. Pa
d. mm Hg
e. mm of water
302. The reference point used for gauge pressure is?
a. Perfect vacuum
b. Ambient pressure
*c. Standard atmospheric pressure
d. Absolute pressure
e. Vapor pressure
303. The values of pressure that can have both a positive or a negative value are?
a. Atmospheric pressure
b. Partial vacuum
c. Vapor pressure
d. Absolute pressure
*e. Gauge pressure
304. A solid sphere exerts a downward force of 30 kN. If the relative density of
the material is 11.3, what is the volume of the sphere?
*a. 0.27 m3
b. 2.7 m3
c. 27 m3
d. 2.7 litres
e. 0.27 m2
305. A water pipeline has an inside diameter of 35 cm and delivers 4000 cubic meters
per hour to a storage tank. What is the velocity of the water within the pipe?
a. 1.11 m/s
*b. 11.54 m/s
c. 11.54 m3/s
d. 1.11 m3/s
306. Absolute pressure must always be positive.
*a. True
b. False
307. A force acting at one end of a 4 m lever is 3 m from the fulcrum. This force
keeps a mass of 50 kg on the other end of the lever in equilibrium. The mechanical
advantage of this system is?
a. 7
b. 6
c. 5
d. 4
*e. 3
308. A screw jack has a single start thread and a pitch of 12 mm. The handle is
500 mm long and an effort of 250 N is applied. If the efficiency of the jack is
50% how many tonnes can it lift?
*a. 3.33 tonnes

b. 3000 kg
c. 3.33 kN
d. 33300 N
e. 3.33 kiloton s
309. A block and tackle system has 3 pulleys in each block with the effort applied
downward. What is the percent of efficiency of the system if an effort of 300 N
is required to lift a mass of 160 kg?
a. 8.7%
b. .87%
*c. 87.17%
d. 50%
e. 78%
310. A wheel and axle has a wheel of 60 cm diameter, and an axle of 7.5 cm diameter.
Calculate the effort required to raise a mass of 50 kg.
a. 4.5 N
b. 12.26 N
*c. 61.31 N
d. 1 226 N
e. 3924 N
311. A load of 850 kN is lifted with a wheel and axle system. The machine has an
efficiency of 92%. The wheel has a radius of 0.9 meters and the axle has a radius
of 12.0 cm. How much effort must be applied to lift the load?
a. 132.2 N
*b. 123.2 kN
c. 123.2 N
d. 132.2 kN
e. 132.2 kPa
312. Using an ideal machine, an 800 kg I-beam is lifted to the top of a support
20 metres above the ground. If the VR of the machine is 9.5 how much effort must
be applied to the machine?
*a. 826.1 N
b. 826.1 kN
c. 826.1 kPa
d. 862.1 N
e. 862.1 kN
313. The lowest possible temperature on the Kelvin scale is:
*a. 0 K
b. -32 K
c. -273 K
d. -460 K
e. -492 K
314. The boiling point on the Rankine scale is:
a. 100 R
b. 212 R
c. 373 R
d. 460 R
*e. 672 R
315. The boiling point on the Kelvin scale is:
a. 100 K
b. 212 K
*c. 373 K
d. 492 K
e. 672 K
316. 82° on the Fahrenheit scale is ______° on the Celsius scale:
a. 25.6
*b. 27.7
c. 30.0
d. 32.3
e. 38.8
317. The temperature range of the mercury thermometer with a Celsius scale is from
______° to ______°C.
a. -10° to 42°
b. - 6° to 38°
*c. - 39° to 315°
d. - 27° to 300°
e. - 20° to 275°
318. 90° on the Celsius scale is equal to ______ R on the Rankine scale:
a. 550
b. 590
c. 630
*d. 654
e. 692
319. 82° on the Fahrenheit scale is equal to ______ K on the Kelvin scale:
a. 290.7
*b. 300.5
c. 310.7
d. 320.5
e. 373.5
320. 72° on the Celsius scale is equal to _______ ° on the Fahrenheit scale:
a. 156.2
*b. 161.6
c. 169.6
d. 173.4
e. 185.2
321. Heat is a form of energy and when applied to a body it:
a. Decreases the temperature

*b. Increases the energy of that body
c. Increases the latent heat
d. Decreases the sensible heat
e. Decreases the internal energy of that body
322. To convert Rankine to Kelvin it is simply a matter of:
a. Rankine reading plus 273°

b. Kelvin reading plus 273°
*c. Rankine reading times 5/9
d. Rankine reading times 9/5
e. Kelvin reading plus 460°
323. The temperature of a body is a measure of the ______________

_________________________.
a. cohesion between the molecules

b. heat required to raise the body to its boiling point
c. hf at saturation point
d. total hg contained in the object
*e. speed of vibration of the molecules
324. Heat is measured in units called:
a. Newtons
b. Watts
*c. Joules
d. Entropy
e. Enthalpy
325. The amount of energy required to raise the speed of molecular vibration
(temperature) of one kg of that substance, one °C is known as:
a. Charles' law
b. Newton's second Law of motion
*c. Specific heat
d. The characteristic constant for a gas
e. Latent heat of fusion
326. The measurable degree of hotness or coldness of anything is known as __________

.
a. percentage
b. amount
c. heat
d. enthalpy
*e. temperature
327. In the SI system the temperature scales used are:

*a. Celsius and Kelvin
b. Fahrenheit and Rankine
c. Absolute and Adiabatic
d. Endothermic and Isothermic
e. Kelvin and Rankine
328. Kelvin is the scientific or _______ scale.
a. perfect
b. fixed
*c. absolute
d. correct
e. proper
329. The most common temperature scale in use is the:
a. Fahrenheit
*b. Celsius
c. Rankine
d. Kelvin
e. Absolute
330. The Kelvin scale is used mainly in ____________ calculations.
*a. thermodynamic
b. mechanical
c. mathematical
d. mensuration
e. transposition
331. If enough heat is supplied to convert a substance from a solid to a liquid

the ____________________.
a. sensible heat will increase

b. temperature will rise
c. volume will decrease
d. potential energy is decreased
*e. force of cohesion is overcome
332. If no heat is lost or gained from the surroundings, then heat gained by the
colder substance equals the __________________.
a. heat gained by the hotter substance

*b. heat lost by the hotter substance
c. heat gained by the colder substance
d. heat lost by the colder substance
e. heat displaced in a container of water
333. Temperature is defined as?
a. The measure of kinetic energy of the molecules of a substance.

*b. The measure of the level of internal energy.
c. The amount of energy transferred from one body to another.
d. The measure of amount of "caloric" passing from one body to another.
e. The sum of kinetic and potential energy of the molecules which make up
the substance.
334. Unlike water, a typical gas may have an infinite number of different specific
heat values.
*a. True
b. False
335. When a solid change directly to a gaseous state it is called:
a. Fusion
*b. Sublimination
c. Evaporation
d. Smoke
336. If a piece of wire with weights suspended from each end is placed over a block
of ice, the following will happen:
a. Wire will remain on the surface of the ice until enough of it melts enough
to allow for the block to break.
b. Wire will cut through the ice and the two pieces will freeze again in
the process leaving the block solid.
c. Wire will cut through the ice leaving two solid halves.
*d. Wire will stay on the surface of ice until it melts.
e. None of the above.
337. When 1 L of water freezes, it produces this much of ice, in liters.
a. 0.93
*b. 1.00
c. 1.09
d. 2.00
338. If enough heat is supplied to convert a substance from a solid to a liquid

the _____________________.
a. temperature will rise

b. volume will decrease
c. potential energy is decreased
*d. force of cohesion is overcome
339. Correct term for any change of phase from a liquid to a vapor is?
a. Boiling
*b. Evaporation
c. Boiling point
d. Vaporization
e. Fusion
340. After vaporization at normal conditions (100 ° Celsius) specific volume of

water increases approximately?
a. 10 times
b. 150 times
*c. 1600 times
d. 3000 times
e. 10,000 times
341. Boiling point of a typical liquid can be decreased by ___________________.
a. dissolving a solid substance, such as salt in it

b. increasing the pressure exerted on the surface of the liquid
*c. decreasing the pressure exerted on the surface of the liquid
d. changing the temperature of the liquid
e. boiling point cannot be changed as it depends solely on the type of
substance
342. The heat required to change a unit of mass of a liquid to the vapor phase
without change in temperature is called the latent heat of ___________________.
*a. evaporation
b. boiling
c. vaporization
d. fusion
e. transformation
343. Temperature is defined as?
*a. A measure of the speed at which a body's molecules vibrate.

b. The unit used to measure heat energy.
c. Heat transfer by electromagnetic waves.
d. A form of energy supplied to a body or substance.
e. The point at which molecular vibrational motion ceases.
344. 150°F is equivalent to:
a. 51.3°C
*b. 65.6°C
c. 101.1°C
d. 212.4°C
e. 302°C.
345. Calculate the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 0.5 kg of
aluminum by 35°C.
a. 2.27 kJ
*b. 15.91 kJ
c. 16.5 kJ
d. 22.7 kJ
e. 45.6 kJ
346. If the temperature of a liquid is 290 K, its temperature on the Celsius scale
will be?
a. 563°C.
b. 554°C.
*c. 17°C.
d. -170°C.
347. A piece of copper absorbs 50 kJ of heat while its temperature rises from 20°C
to 70°C. Calculate the mass of the copper.
a. 0.333 kg
b. 1.54 kg
*c. 2.58 kg
d. 3.50 kg
e. 116 kg
348. The absolute temperature equivalent of 30°C is ____________.
a. -30 K
b. 86°F
c. 86°R
*d. 303 K
e. 672°R
349. Heat transfer due to movement of a fluid is called?
a. Sublimation
*b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Sensible heat
e. Conduction
350. Absolute zero temperature is the temperature at which?

*a. Molecular vibrational motion ceases.
b. Water starts to turn into ice.
c. Atmospheric pressure equals zero.
d. Heat transfer becomes impossible.
e. Energy conversion ceases.
351. With the exception of water, all liquids expand ____________ to temperature
change when heated.
*a. in direct proportion

b. faster
c. inversely proportional
d. slower
e. exponentially
352. The change in length per unit length per degree rise in temperature is known
as the:
a. Specific heat
*b. Coefficient of linear expansion
c. Coefficient of conductivity
d. Latent heat of fusion
e. Latent heat of evaporation
353. One factor that determines the amount of thermal expansion of an object is
the nature of the material itself. Through experimentation, each material is
assigned a coefficient value, which is then applied to expansion calculations
involving that material.
*a. True
b. False
354. The amount of increase in area of each surface will depend on the:
a. Rate of thermal conductivity.

b. Time allowed for heating.
*c. Coefficient of surface expansion.
d. Change of thickness of the material.
e. Specific heat.
355. A copper rod of the same dimensions as a steel rod will:
*a. Expand more for a given temperature change.

b. Expand less for a given temperature change.
c. Heat up slower for a given amount of heat.
d. Have the same mass.
e. Expand the same at all temperatures.
356. What is the coefficient expansion for glass?
a. 10.4 X 10-6
b. 19.5 x 10-6
c. 9.4 x 10-4
*d. 9.0 x 10-6
357. Expansion will result in an increase in a body's surface as well as its

________________.
a. temperature
b. coefficient
*c. volume
d. pressure
e. location
358. The coefficient of expansion for solids is______________.
a. constant for all solids

b. or has the same result for all metals
c. or has no bearing on the volumetric expansion
*d. that we have different values for different substances.
e. that it can be determined by the formula Cp/Cv.
359. Heat will flow from a hot substance to a colder substance unaided, but it
is impossible for heat to flow from a cold substance to a hotter one without the
aid of mechanical work is:
a. The First Law of Thermodynamics

b. Charles' Law
c. The mechanical equivalent of heat
*d. The Second Law of Thermodynamics
e. The General Gas Law
360. The Second Law of Thermodynamics deals with:
a. Speed of heat flow

b. Type of heat flow
c. Work and heat conversion
d. Quantity of heat flow
*e. Direction of heat flow
361. Transfer of heat by convection depends upon:
a. The molecular structure of the fluid.

b. A dense fluid being displaced by a less dense fluid.
c. The color and the texture of the surface of the fluid.
d. The viscosity of the fluid.
*e. A less dense fluid being displaced by a denser fluid.
362. Heat will always flow between two bodies if they are ___________________.
*a. at different temperatures

b. different colors
c. close to each other
d. in a solid state or phase only
e. of the same material in construction
363. The three methods by which transfer of heat energy takes place is:
1. Convection
2. Sensible
3. Conduction
4. Latent
5. Enthalpy
6. Radiation
a. 1, 4, 6
b. 2, 3, 5
*c. 1, 3, 6
d. 3, 4, 6
e. 2, 4, 5
364. Conduction of heat takes place:
a. From ion to ion within the substance.

b. By a difference in densities of the substance.
c. In straight lines much like the sun's rays.
d. By convection currents.
*e. None of the above
365. The transfer of heat by convection involves the:
a. Reduction of mass
*b. Movement of a fluid
c. Transfer of elements
d. Radiation of light
e. Contact between molecules
366. Radiation refers to:
a. Mechanical energy transmission.

*b. The transmission of energy waves.
c. Transfer of heat from molecule to molecule.
d. Transfer of heat by different densities.
e. Transfer of heat by fluid flow.
367. Radiant energy waves are:
a. Able to pass through a vacuum.

b. Those that travel in straight lines.
c. Absorbed, reflected or transmitted by other bodies.
d. Absorbed and converted into heat.
*e. All of the above
368. ___________ has the lowest thermal conductivity.
a. Aluminum
b. Brass
c. Copper
*d. Air
e. Steel
369. The thermal conductivity is a property of a material and has a different value
for each different material.
*a. True
b. False
370. The rate at which the heat flow takes place by conduction depend upon the
temperature difference and the ____________________________.
a. thickness through which the flow takes place

b. type of material through which the flow takes place
c. area of the object the heat flows through
d. temperature difference through the material
*e. All of the above
371. The ratio of the coefficient of volumetric expansion of a material to the

coefficient of linear expansion of the same material is:
a. The square of the coefficient of linear expansion.

b. The cube of the coefficient of linear expansion.
c. 2 to 1
*d. 3 to 1
e. 9 to 1
372. If a mild steel cube of side 40 mm is heated from 25°C to 50 °C, the increase
in volume will be?
a. 5.76 cu mm
b. 19.2 cu mm
*c. 57.6 cu mm
d. 192 cu mm
e. 64 000 cu mm
373. The coefficient of volumetric expansion for solids is:
a. The cube of the coefficient of linear expansion.

*b. Three times the coefficient of linear expansion.
c. Two times the coefficient of linear expansion.
d. The inverse of the coefficient of linear expansion.
e. The square root of the coefficient of linear expansion.
374. The coefficient of linear expansion is defined as:
*a. A change in length per unit length for one degree of temperature change.
b. A rate of change per unit length per degree of temperature change.
c. A change in volume per unit volume for one degree of temperature change.
d. The difference in potential between two dissimilar metals.
e. The inverse of the specific volume of a substance.
375. A 110 m long mild steel pipe in a refinery conveys oil at a maximum temperature
of 140°C. In the winter the plant is shut down, and the temperature of the pipeline
drops to -25°C. Calculate the amount of shrinkage of the pipe.
a. 0.151 8 cm
b. 0.217 8 cm
c. 15.18 cm
*d. 21.78 cm
e. 65.34 cm
376. If the temperature of a mild steel bar 10 m long is increased from 15 to 75°C,
the change in length will be?
a. 0.72 mm
b. 7.2 mm
*c. 7.2 cm
d. 72 cm
e. 0.072 m
377. Heat transfer due to movement of a fluid is called ____________.
a. sublimation
*b. convection
c. radiation
d. sensible heat
e. conduction
378. Heat transfer directly from a flame in a furnace to the furnace waterwalls
is an example of _______________.
a. convection
*b. radiation
c. conduction
d. sublimation
e. condensation
379. If a bar is heated at one end, heat will travel from molecule to molecule
until the other end becomes hot. This is known as _________________.
a. convection
b. radiation
*c. conduction
d. specific heat
e. sublimation
380. Heat transfer by electromagnetic waves is called ____________.
*a. radiation
b. conduction
c. convection
d. emission
e. electromagnetic transmission
381. From the following list, IDENTIFY the three methods of heat energy transfer:
1. Radiation
2. Conduction
3. Induction
4. Convection
5. Sublimation
a. 1, 3 and 4
*b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 5
d. 2, 3 and 4
e. 3, 4 and 5
382. Of four plates of identical physical dimensions, the one made of which material
will conduct the most heat?
a. Aluminum
b. Brass
*c. Copper
d. Glass
e. Steel
383. Heat supplied or taken away from a substance that causes a change of state
without a change in temperature is called _______________.
*a. latent heat
b. sensible heat
c. convective heat
d. accumulated heat
e. evaporative heat
384. The heat necessary to change a unit mass of liquid to the vapor state without
any change in the temperature and pressure is the _________________.
*a. latent heat of evaporation

b. boiling temperature
c. sensible heat
d. enthalpy of fusion
e. fusion energy
385. Addition of sensible heat to a substance:
a. Results in a change of state from solid to liquid.

b. Cannot be read on a thermometer.
*c. Causes a rise in temperature.
d. Is the sum of the latent heat plus heat of evaporation.
e. Results in a change of phase from liquid to vapor.
386. Steam at its boiling point with no water particles present is called
_____________.
*a. dry saturated steam

b. supersaturated
c. superheated
d. vaporized
e. wet saturated steam
387. The temperature at which water boils is dependent upon the ________________.
a. heat content
*b. acting pressure
c. total boiler heating surface
d. absolute volume
e. boiling index
388. Superheated steam is steam at a certain pressure, which temperature is above

the ______________.
a. combustion gas temperature

b. radiant steam temperature
c. fusion temperature
*d. saturation temperature
e. critical temperature
389. The value in the steam tables corresponding to a temperature of 374.12°C and
pressure of 22, 090 kPa is called the _________of steam.
*a. critical point

b. boiling point
c. superheat pressure and temperature
d. steam - water saturation point
e. point of absolute temperature and pressure
390. The amount of heat required to convert 10 kg of water at 60°C into saturated
steam at 200 kPa is?
a. 2455.57 kJ
b. 2511.3 kJ
c. 2706.7 kJ
*d. 24 554.7 kJ
e. 27 067 kJ
391. Determine the total latent heat of 2.3 kg of steam at a pressure of 350 kPa
absolute.
a. 6284.5 kJ
*b. 4940.6 kJ
c. 2148.1 kJ
d. 1649.9 kJ
e. 1343.9 kJ
392. 1 kg of saturated steam at 200 kPa absolute has a dryness fraction of 95%.
Calculate the total heat content.
a. 2706.7 kJ
b. 2611.3 kJ
*c. 2596.5 kJ
d. 2589.91 kJ
e. 2091.8 kJ
393. Five kilograms of water at 100°C is changed to saturated steam having a final
temperature of 120°C. Calculate the total amount of heat required in changing the
water to steam.
a. 2287.26 kJ
b. 2706.3 kJ
*c. 11 436 kJ
d. 13 531.5 kJ
e. 17 138 kJ
394. The quantity of saturated water contained in a unit quantity of steam is

indicated by the _____________.
a. partial pressure
*b. dryness fraction
c. saturation index
d. steam temperature
e. moisture index
395. The ratio of the heat energy required to make steam to the heat energy supplied
by the combustion of fuel in a boiler is called ________________.
a. boiler efficiency
b. factor of evaporation
c. heat rate
*d. combustion efficiency
e. equivalent evaporation
396. A boiler generates 8 kg of dry saturated steam per kg of fuel oil burned.
Fuel oil heating value is 33 000 kJ/kg. Feedwater is supplied at 70°C, and the
boiler pressure is 1400 kPa. Calculate the boiler efficiency.
a. 57.3%
*b. 60.5%
c. 74.7%
d. 85.0%
e. 92.3%
397. What is the specific volume of dry saturated steam at 250 kPa?
a. 560 cm3/gm
b. 560 m3/kg
*c. 718 cm3/gm
d. 71.8 m3/kg
398. The dryness fraction, also called steam quality, is the percentage:
*a. By weight of steam in the mixture

b. By volume of water to steam in the mixture
c. By volume of steam in the mixture
d. Of water by weight in the steam
399. The total heat for wet steam can be determined by:
a. Multiplying hg by the dryness fraction.

*b. Using the entropy - enthalpy diagram for steam.
c. Multiplying the hf value from the Steam Table by the dryness fraction.
d. Subtracting the volume of water from the volume of steam and multiplying
the result by the dryness fraction.
400. Steam that is superheated:
a. Has a greater volume than saturated steam.

b. Has more sensible heat than saturated steam at the same pressure.
c. Contains more energy and has a higher temperature than saturated steam.
*d. All of the above
401. The total amount of heat, in kJ, that is absorbed by the water/steam in a
boiler in a given period of time is called the _____________.
*a. heat rate

c. equivalent evaporation
d. total enthalpy
e. latent heat of the transformation
402. The mass of water that would be evaporated in one hour, from feedwater at
100°C into dry saturated steam at 100°C, by the same amount of heat that is required,
per hour, to produce steam at the actual boiler condition is called the
_____________________.
a. heat rate
*c. equivalent evaporation
d. total enthalpy
e. latent heat of the transformation
403. The ratio of the equivalent evaporation of the boiler to the actual steam
flow rate is called the ____________.
a. heat rate
*b. factor of evaporation
c. equivalent evaporation
d. boiler efficiency
e. boiler evaporation ratio
404. A boiler of higher capacity will have a higher equivalent evaporation,

regardless of the steam and water parameters.
a. True
*b. False
405. Boyle's Law deals with a process that is:
a. Adiabatic
b. Constant pressure
*c. Isothermal
d. Constant volume
e. Polytropic
406. The Laws of Boyle and Charles can be combined and stated as the formula:
*a. PV/T = a constant

b. P1 T1 = P2 T 2
c. P(V2 - V1)
d. PV x 2.3log V1 / V2
e. PVT = PVT
407. If the absolute pressure of a confined gas is constant, then the volume is:
a. Inversely proportional to the absolute temperature.

b. Directly proportional to the absolute pressure.
*c. Inversely proportional to the mass.
d. Directly proportional to the absolute temperature.
e. Inversely proportional to the absolute pressure.
408. If the volume of a confined gas is constant then the absolute pressure is
directly proportional to the absolute temperature according to:
a. Boyle's Law
b. Bernoullis' Law
c. Pascal's Theory
d. The General Gas Law
*e. Charles' Law
409. In the calculation of a constant temperature process the:
*a. Pressure and temperature must be absolute.

b. Volume must be absolute.
c. Mass and temperature must be absolute.
d. Volume and temperature must be absolute.
e. Pressure and volume must be absolute.
410. If the volume of a confined gas is constant, then the absolute pressure is
_______________________________.
a. directly proportional to the absolute mass

b. inversely proportional to the absolute temperature
c. inversely proportional to the absolute volume
*d. directly proportional to the absolute temperature
e. directly proportional to the absolute volume
411. Boyle's Law is one of constant ___________.
a. mass
b. volume
c. pressure
*d. temperature
e. flow
412. In the formula of the general gas law, for a given mass of gas where PV =
mRT, r is:
a. In degrees Rankine
*b. A characteristic constant kJ/kg K
c. The gas expansion resistance
d. A reaction expansion
e. The thermal conductivity
413. The characteristic constant for a gas is given as ________________.
a. Kg/kPa/K
b. J/g C
c. KJ/Kg/C
d. Kg K
*e. KJ/Kg K
414. Gases such as air, nitrogen and oxygen can be roughly defined as perfect gases
because they:
a. Condense rapidly
b. Can expand without being heated
*c. Remain in gaseous form because they are sufficiently removed from their
condensation temperature.
d. Cannot be superheated
415. The types of expansions or compressions that may be represented by

pressure-volume diagrams are for:
1. Constant pressure
2. Constant temperature
3. Adiabatic
4. Constant volume
5. Isothermal
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
*d. 1, 2, 3, 5
e. 1, 2, 5
416. An expansion or compression which occurs without heat transfer to or from

the gas is:
a. Constant temperature
b. Isothermal
*c. Adiabatic
d. Constant volume
e. Polytropic
417. Use of the equation PV = a constant, means the numerical result for a
compression or expansion process will:
a. Decrease as the temperature varies.

b. Increase as the temperature varies.
c. Change from positive to negative for an increasing vacuum.
*d. Be the same at any point in the process.
e. Be constant if pressure changes but not volume.
418. The pressure-volume diagram of a typical air compressor will have a curve
drawn ____________________________.
a. as an adiabatic compression
b. as in an isothermal compression
*c. approximately half way between the adiabatic and isothermal curves
d. almost as a straight line
e. from left to right in increasing value curved up
419. In a constant pressure operation, as the temperature increases the

__________________.
a. pressure increases
*b. volume increases
c. volume decreases
d. pressure decreases
e. volume remains constant
420. A(an) ___________ process is one which has no temperature increase or decrease
during the process.
a. adiabatic
b. otto
*c. isothermal
d. polytropic
e. carnot
421. In calculations involving gases, absolute __________________ _______________

must be used.
a. temperatures and volumes

b. pressures and volumes
c. temperatures, pressures and volumes
*d. temperatures and pressures
e. volumes
422. The curve for adiabatic expansion is __________ than for an isothermal
expansion.
a. longer
*b. steeper
c. higher
d. heavier
e. shorter
423. The work done in a constant pressure expansion can be determined by:
*a. P(V2-V1)
b. P(V1-V2)
c. (P1 V1 - P2 V2)/ r-1
d. PV x 2.3 log V1 / V2
e. P1 V1- P2V2
424. An example of a constant pressure process is:
a. A steam engine with early cut-off.

b. A gas turbine process.
c. A steam turbine process.
*d. An internal combustion engine process.
425. If a calculation for work done is attempted using the formula for isothermal
compression and a minus sign appears in the answer, it indicates the work
_________________.
a. was done by the gas

*b. was done on the gas
c. caused a vacuum to be formed
d. was done at a temperature below zero
e. was done in reverse
426. A perfect gas can be defined as a gas that ________________.
a. does not react chemically with other gases

b. is not poisonous
c. does not change its temperature ever
*d. remains in its gaseous state under all external conditions
427. The person who discovered the relationship between volume and pressure of
perfect gases under the condition of constant temperature was?
a. Jacques Charles
b. Albert Einstein
*c. Robert Boyle
d. Isaac Newton
428. Absolute pressure can be defined as:
a. The pressure at which a perfect gas will turn to a liquid.

*b. The sum of the gauge pressure reading plus atmospheric pressure.
c. The difference between the gauge pressure minus the atmospheric pressure.
d. A pressure constant used in the calculation of pressure volume equations.
429. Before beginning any calculations involving perfect gases you must
_________________.
*a. ensure all the parameters are in the correct units

b. convert all the gasses to the same temperature
c. add 273° to both sides of the equation
d. add atmospheric pressure to both sides of the equation
430. Experiments done by Jacques Charles produced two relationships for prefect
gases, one for constant volume and one for constant pressure.
*a. True
b. False
431. If the pressure of a perfect gas remains constant while its volume changes,
then its temperature will _____________________.
a. remain constant
*b. also change, in direct proportion to the pressure change
c. also change, but inversely proportional to the pressure change
d. change according to the law PVn = a constant
432. The General Gas Law is actually ___________________.
a. a new law that changes both Boyles and Charles laws

b. a new law that changes only Charles law
c. a new law that calculates any unknown conditions of pressure only
*d. a combination of Boyles and Charles laws and is used when the three
parameters of pressure, volume and temperature all change simultaneously
433. The Characteristic Constant of each perfect gas is ______________________.
a. the same for all perfect gases

b. the same for all gases if their temperatures are the same
c. the same for all gases if their pressures are the same
*d. unique to that particular gas
434. The equation P1V1 = P2V2 is called?
a. The characteristic equation of a perfect gas.

b. The characteristic constant of a perfect gas.
c. The perfect gas law equation.
d. The volume constant for perfect gases.
*e. Boyle's law.
435. Compression requires that ________________________.
a. the gas be at absolute pressure and temperature

*b. the work be done on the gas
c. the work be done by the gas
d. the gas will be at a constant volume
436. To "expand a gas" means the gas is ___________________.
a. always at constant volume

b. always at constant pressure
c. always at constant temperature
*d. able to perform useful work
437. If compression or expansion occurs with no change in the temperature of the

gas, the process is called a(n)?
a. Adiabatic process
b. Polytropic process
*c. Isothermal process
d. Constant volume process
438. A gas is compressed adiabatically from 200 kPa to 700 kPa. The index of
compression for the gas is 1.37 and the volume decreases from 3.5 m3to 1.403 m3.
How much work is done in compressing the gas?
a. 752.4 kJ
b. 742.4 kJ
*c. 762.4 kJ
d. 742.2 kJ
439. A perfect gas is compressed under conditions of constant temperature to a

volume of 30 m3. If the final pressure of the gas is 450 kPa gauge, and the initial
volume was 135 m3, what was the initial pressure? (Assume atmospheric pressure
to be 101.3 kPa)
a. 122.5 kPa gauge

*b. 21.2 kPa gauge
c. 223.8 kPa gauge
d. 101.3 kPa gauge
440. A gas at 1000 kPa gauge pressure and 30°C is transferred from a cylindrical
vessel 1.5m in diameter and 3m long to another cylindrical vessel 2.5m in diameter
and 5m long. If the new gauge pressure is 150 kPa, calculate the new temperature.
Note: Assume atmospheric pressure to be 100 kPa for this calculation.
a. 35°C
*b. 45°C
c. 318°C
d. 328°C
441. What mass of air can be held in a storage cylinder at 95°C and 1500 kPa absolute
pressure, if the tank volume is 9.5 m3?
*a. 134.92 kg
b. 144.1 kg
c. 154.9 kg
d. 522.6 kg
e. 725 kg
442. Find the characteristic constant for a gas if 112 kg of the gas has a volume
of 5.7m3 when the pressure is 1500 kPa absolute and the temperature is 42°C.
*a. 0.2436 kJ/kgK

b. 0.261 kJ/kgK
c. 0.271 kJ/kgK
d. 0.274 kJ/kgK
e. 0.291 kJ/kgK
443. 0.25m3 of a gas at 4000 kPa gauge pressure is expanded until the pressure
is 500 kPa gauge. If expansion is polytropic with n = 1.35 find the final volume
the gas will occupy. Note: Assume atmospheric pressure = 100 kPa
*a. 1.03m3
b. 1.24m3
c. 1.30m3
d. 1.33m3
e. 1.47m3
444. 1.45m3 of air at 100 kPa and 12°C is compressed to 950 kPa while following
the law PV1.34 = °C. Taking R for air = 0.287 kJ/kgK, find the final volume of
air and the mass of air compressed.
*a. V2 = 0.27m3 and mass = 1.77 kg
b. V2 = 0.42m3 and mass = 3.55 kg
c. V2 = 0.27m3 and mass = 42.1 kg
d. V2 = 0.42m3 and mass = 57.5 kg
445. An engine cylinder 160 cm in diameter is supplied with a constant working

pressure of 1500 kPa absolute. How much work is done in 120 strokes if the stroke
length is 0.45 meters and the clearance space is 0.25 m3.
a. 117 MJ
*b. 118 MJ
c. 119 MJ
d. 116 MJ
446. 10.4m3 of air is compressed at a constant temperature to 5.1m 3 and 750 kPa
absolute. Calculate how much work is done on the gas, assuming atmospheric pressure
to be 100 kPa.
*a. 2727 kJ
b. 2850 kJ
c. 3051 kJ
d. 3089 kJ
447. How much work is required to compress 75 kg of air isothermally @ 205°C if

the compression ratio is 8.5 to 1? Use R for air = 0.287kJ/kgK
a. 9443 kJ
b. 15238 kJ
*c. 22019 kJ
d. 24039 kJ
448. 24,500 kJ of work is done in a cylinder when 115 kg of a perfect gas is expanded
isothermally @ 210°C from 0.035m3 to 0.35. Find the characteristic constant for
this gas.
*a. 0.192 kJ/kgK

b. 0.198 kJ/kgK
c. 0.421 kJ/kgK
d. 0.441 kJ/kgK
449. A gas expands adiabatically from 1025 kPa to 225 kPa, with an expansion index
of 1.42. If its volume increases from 1.5 m3 to 4.05 m3, find the amount of available
work performed.
a. 441.02 kJ
b. 883.9 kJ
c. 1281.1 kJ
*d. 1491.07 kJ
450. How much work is done on a 9kg mass of a perfect gas that is heated from 15°C
to 175°C if the process follows the law PVn = 1.45. The characteristic constant
for this gas is 0.325 kJ/kgK.
a. 322.76 J
b. 322.76 kJ
c. 1040 J
*d. 1040 kJ
451. A perfect gas @ 415°C has its condition changed in the following two steps.
In step #1 the volume remains constant at 20 m3 while the pressure changes from
750 kPa to 250 kPa. In step # 2 the gas is compressed isothermally to a final pressure
of 1750 kPa. Calculate the final temperature of the gas.
a. T2 = 10.3°C,
*b. T2 = -43.7°C,
c. T2 = 138.3°C,
d. T2 = 170.9°C,
452. How much work is required to compress a gas polytropically from 195 kPa to
1600 kPa while reducing the volume to 0.8 m3? Use the value of "n" for this gas
as 1.35.
a. 399.26 kJ
b. 758.95 kJ
*c. 1538 kJ
d. 1735 kJ
453. Any substance which cannot be broken down into other substances or ingredients
by chemical means is a/an:
a. Mixture
b. Compound
c. Electron
d. Atom
*e. Element
454. Any substance composed of two or more elements which are combined chemically
is a:
a. Chemical change
b. Physical change
c. Mixture
*d. Compound
e. Mol
455. Any substance which consists of different elements or compounds or both is
a/an:
a. Atom
*b. Mixture
c. Solution
d. Element
e. Compound
456. A substance is considered to be a ______________ if it consists of different

elements or compounds or both, all of which retain their individual chemical
properties.
a. compound
b. molecule
c. atom
d. element
*e. mixture
457. __________ are any substances, which cannot be broken down into other
substances or ingredients by chemical means.
a. Compounds
b. Molecules
*c. Atoms
d. Elements
e. Mixtures
458. If there is a material that cannot be separated into any other individual
materials by any chemical means, then this material is called:
a. An atom
b. A compound
c. A mixture
d. A molecule
*e. An element
459. A material made up of two or more elements in chemical combination represents

a/an________________.
a. chemical change
b. physical change
*c. compound
d. mixture
e. kilogram-mol
460. Any material made up of distinct elements, compounds or both, not chemically
combined with each other represents a/an ___________________.
a. atomic structure
*b. mixture
c. molecule
d. elemental compound
e. compound
461. In the formula H2 there are _____________.
a. two molecules of hydrogen

*b. two atoms of hydrogen
c. two elements of helium
d. two mixtures of hydrogen
e. two atoms of helium
462. The atomic number of an element refers to the number of ________________.
a. electrons
*b. protons
c. neutrons
d. atoms
e. molecules
463. The formula mass of H2O is:
a. 12
b. 16
*c. 18
d. 24
e. 36
464. The formula mass for Mg(HCO3)2 is:
a. 142
*b. 146
c. 164
d. 184
e. 192
465. The formula mass for Na2 SO4 is:
a. 64
b. 96
c. 128
*d. 142
e. 166
466. The atomic number of an element is the number of _____________ that an atom
of an element contains.
a. ions
b. neutrons
c. electrons
d. protons plus neutrons
*e. protons
467. ________________ does not contain any neutrons in its nucleus.
a. Helium
b. Carbon
c. Oxygen
*d. Hydrogen
e. Nitrogen
468. A neutron has a/an_____________________________.
a. negative electrical charge

b. positive electrical charge
*c. no electrical charge
d. mass of zero
e. mass double that of the proton
469. An electron has a/an_____________________________.
*a. negative electrical charge

b. positive electrical charge
c. no electrical charge
d. mass of one
e. mass equal to the proton
470. Positive ions are called _________________.
a. isotopes
b. anions
c. acids
*d. cations
e. bases
471. A kilogram mol of a substance is an amount equal to its

________________________ in kilograms.
a. number of protons
*b. molecular mass
c. number of neutrons
d. balanced mass
e. atomic number
472. In order to burn 60 kg of carbon the oxygen necessary will be:
a. 60
b. 100
*c. 160
d. 180
473. In order to burn 228 kg of sulphur the oxygen necessary will be:
a. 160
b. 200
c. 240
*d. 228
474. Frequently in a chemical equation the heat is represented by the symbol delta
or by ______________.
a. the letter h for heat

b. the letter g for gas
*c. omitting it (heat) altogether
d. an arrow pointing down
e. the letters Ht for heat
475. A proton has _______________________.
a. a negative electrical charge

*b. a positive electrical charge
c. no electrical charge
d. a mass of zero
e. no attraction to the electron
476. In order to burn 60 kg of carbon the oxygen necessary will be _____ kg:
a. 60
b. 80
c. 90
d. 100
*e. 160
477. Normally, the chemical formula of a substance represents an atom of that

substance and therefore the formula mass is also the ___________________.
a. ionic mass
b. kilogram mol mass
*c. molecular mass
d. chemical mass
478. Compounds that are classified as acids obtain their acidity because of an
______________________.
a. excess of OH- ions

b. excess of H- ions
*c. excess of H+ ions
d. excess of OH+ ions
e. excess of HOH+ ions
479. Compounds that are classified as acids have the following characteristics:
1. They have a soapy feeling

2. They have a sour taste
3. They change blue litmus paper red
4. They will conduct electricity
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 4
*c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 1, 3, 4
480. Compounds that are classified as bases obtain their alkalinity because of
________________.
*a. an excess of OH- ions

b. an excess of H- ions
c. an excess of H+ ions
d. an excess of OH+ ions
e. an excess of HOH+ ions
481. Compounds that are classified as bases have the following characteristics:
1. They have a soapy feeling

2. They have a sweet taste
3. They have the ability to neutralize acids
4. They will conduct electricity
a. 2, 3
b. 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
*e. 1, 3, 4
482. Compounds that are classified as salts ________________________.
*a. will disassociate into positively and negatively charged ions

b. will not disassociate into positively and negatively charged ions
c. will disassociate into positively charged ions only
d. will disassociate into negatively charged ions only
e. will remain neutral
483. Compounds classified as salts have the following characteristics:
1. They may taste sweet

2. They may taste sour
3. They may taste bitter
4. They may taste salty
*a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 1, 4
e. 3, 4
484. Compounds classified as salts may have the following characteristics:
1. Have a basic effect

2. Have an acid effect
3. Be neutral
4. Change red litmus paper blue
a. 2, 3
b. 1, 2
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
*e. 1, 2, 3, 4
485. Compounds that are classified as acids obtain their acidity because of an
________________.
a. excess of OH- ions

b. excess of H- ions
*c. excess of H+ ions
d. excess of OH+ ions
486. A(an) ______________ solution is an electrolyte.
a. basic
*b. covalent
c. Ph
d. rubbing alcohol
e. organic
487. ___________ are compounds which, when in solution, will disassociate into
positively and negatively charged ions.
a. Acids
b. Ions
*c. Salts
d. Isotopes
e. Bases
488. Acids have a ___________ taste.
a. sweet
b. semi- sweet
*c. sour
d. neutral
e. salty
489. In chemistry, bases are also called ______________.
a. allotropes
b. buffers
c. acetic
d. catalysts
*e. alkalies
490. Elements are substances that _____________________.
a. are made up of only one atom

*b. cannot be decomposed by chemical means into simpler forms of matter
c. exist only in certain chemical forms in the lab
d. are formed when two or more atoms chemically bond together
491. Compounds are:
a. Pure substances formed when atoms of two or more different elements mix
together.
b. Pure substances formed when atoms of only one element join together to
form a different material than the original.
*c. Pure substances formed when atoms of two or more different elements
chemically bond together in fixed portions.
d. Pure substances formed when atoms of two or more elements are bonded
together by nuclear reaction.
492. The physical and chemical properties of mixtures are distinctly different
from those of the elements from which they are composed, while the properties of
compounds are similar to the elements they are composed of.
*a. True
b. False
493. The characteristics of an atom are determined by:

a. The temperature and pressure under which the atom is developed.
b. The number of photons in the nucleus of the atom.
*c. The number of smaller particles within the atom and their interaction
with each other.
d. The direction the electrons are traveling around the nucleus.
494. In a neutral atom, the number of protons equals the:
*a. Number of electrons, therefore the electrical charge within the atom
is balanced.
b. Number of neutrons, therefore the electrical charge within the atom is
balanced.
c. Number of electrons, although the neutrons tend to cancel out the positive
charge giving the atom an overall negative charge.
d. Number of neutrons and electrons within the atom in every case.
495. An atom is called a negative ion or anion if it has more electrons than it
does protons.
*a. True
b. False
496. The atomic number of Uranium is "92" which describes?
a. The atomic weight of an atom of Uranium.

b. The atomic mass of an atom of Uranium.
c. The number of electrons in an atom of Uranium.
*d. The number of protons in an atom of Uranium.
497. The atomic mass of an element will be equal to?
*a. The sum of the protons and neutrons that make up the element.
b. The sum of the protons, neutrons and electrons that make up the element.
c. The sum of the neutrons and electrons that make up the element.
d. The number of protons that are in the nucleus of and element.
498. Substances can be either ionic or covalent in nature. These are terms used
to describe?
a. The type of electrons that the element has.

b. The number of electrons the element has.
c. The type of bond that holds the elements together.
*d. The type of bond that holds the atoms together.
499. Ionic compounds are formed by?
a. The sharing of electrons between atoms.

b. The sharing of atoms between elements.
c. The transferring of protons between atoms.
*d. The transferring of electrons between the atoms.
500. Covalent bonding happens by?
a. The transferring of atoms between elements.

*b. The sharing of electrons between atoms.
c. The transferring of electrons between atoms.
d. The sharing of covalent protons.
501. Chemical compounds are formed by:
a. Mixing of two substances together.

*b. Combining of two atoms of a one substance with one atom of another
substance.
c. A chemical reaction involving the bonding of atoms of different elements.
d. Heating a mixture of elements to a specific temperature.
502. If carbon dioxide is present in the steam drums of a boiler this will cause
_____________________.
a. corrosion in the steam drum

b. corrosion in the steam header
c. corrosion in the device using the steam
*d. corrosion in the return lines
503. The following is a balanced reaction: "One molecule of methane combines with
two molecules of oxygen to produce one molecule of carbon dioxide and two molecules
of water."
*a. True
b. False
504. The molecular mass of a substance can be found by?
a. Adding together the number of protons in each atom in the substance.

b. Adding together the number of atoms in the elements within the substance.
*c. Adding together the atomic masses of the atoms of the elements in the
chemical formula of the substance.
d. Adding all the atomic masses of the atoms on the right side of the chemical
equation and subtracting that from the atomic masses of the atoms on the
left side of the chemical equation.
505. The kilomole is defined as the:
*a. Quantity of a substance that has a mass in kilograms equal to its

molecular mass.
b. Number of molecules of a substance added together to give a balanced
chemical equation.
c. Quantity of a substance that equals the atomic mass of the elements in
the substance.
d. Number of moles of the substance that is equal to the atomic mass of the
substance.
506. When dissolved in water, acids will yield OH- ions and bases will yield H+
ions.
*a. True
b. False
507. Salts are neutral compounds that, when in solution, will break up or
disassociate into?
a. Positively charged ions called anions and negatively charged ions called
cations.
b. The original elements from which the salt was formed, each having a neutral
electrical charge.
*c. Positively charged ions called cations and negatively charged ions
called anions.
d. Acids and bases that have no electrical charge.
508. Hydrocarbon compounds contain?
a. A number of different elements as well as atoms of hydrogen and carbon.

*b. Only atoms of carbon and hydrogen.
c. Atoms of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen.
d. Various organic and inorganic elements.
509. To stabilize itself the hydrogen and carbon atoms combine and
_______________________.
a. form non-organic compounds

*b. share electrons between themselves
c. share protons between themselves
d. the hydrogen atoms give up two electrons to the carbon atom
510. Carbon has the ability to bond strongly to itself and can form either straight,
branched or ring type carbon compounds.
*a. True
b. False
511. Generally, the boiling point of a hydrocarbon compound will

_______________________.
a. decrease with increased carbon chain length and increase with increased
branching
b. decrease with increased carbon chain length and decrease with increased
branching
*c. increase with increased carbon chain length and increase with increased
branching
d. increase with increased carbon chain length and decrease with increased
branching
512. Benzene is the basic building block for aromatic hydrocarbons which are a
special class of unsaturated hydrocarbons with a ______________________.
*a. cyclic molecular structure

b. straight chain molecular structure
c. branched chain molecular structure
d. straight chain molecular structure with one branch attached
513. Coagulation is both a physical and chemical process that reduces turbidity
and colour in water by?
a. Causing a chemical reaction in the water that traps the sediment at the
surface of the water so it can be skimmed off readily.
b. Dissolving the sediment into very fine particles that are too small to
cause problems.
*c. Causing the fine sediment particles to combine into larger masses that
settle rapidly to the bottom of a tank or settling pond.
d. Causing the fine sediment particles to combine into larger particles that
will float on top the water so it can be skimmed off readily.
514. Sand and silica can dissolve in water but will not deposit in boiler tubes
during the heating and boiling process. They will be carried over with the steam
and collect in the condensate return system.
a. True
*b. False
515. The silica that is carried over in the steam will cause?
*a. Glass like deposits on the turbine blades reducing efficiencies and
increasing the potential for blade failures.
b. Only minor wear over time with some efficiency losses.
c. Pluggage in the small nozzles and governor valves
d. No real noticeable problems in this area.
516. Corrosion is defined as?
a. The loss of metal or wall thickness due to the flow of abrasive materials.
b. The destruction of a metal by overheating
*c. The destruction of a metal by chemical or electrochemical reaction with
its environment.
d. The combination of a metal with other materials which cause the metal
to become harder.
517. In the petrochemical industry many different products are developed by?
a. Adding or removing electrons from the hydrocarbon elements.

b. Separating the various elements into their final end products.
*c. Rearranging the carbon and hydrogen molecular structures to give the
desired end products.
d. Sub-cooling the elements to get them to separate into their end products.
518. White liquor which is used in Kraft pulp mills to cook the wood chips is made
up of a mixture of?
*a. Sodium hydroxide, sodium sulphide and water.

b. Sodium hydroxide, sodium chloride and water.
c. Sodium chloride, sodium sulphite and water.
d. Sodium chloride, sodium sulphide and black liquor.
519. The gases present in water which can cause problems in a steam are:
1. Oxygen 2. Carbon dioxide 3. Carbon monoxide 4. Hydrogen
*a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 3
d. 2, 4
520. A butane molecule is a straight chain hydrocarbon molecule which has the
following chemical formula and structure:
*a. Chemical formula = C4 H10 , structure =

b. Chemical formula = C3 H8, Structure =
c. Chemical formula = C3 H8, Structure =
d. Chemical formula = C4 H8, Structure =
521. In order for a chemical equation to be balanced _______________.
a. weights must be added to the beam

b. the ductile components must be removed
c. physical changes are excluded
*d. equal numbers of atoms must appear on both sides
e. equal numbers of molecules must appear on both sides
522. The compound of carbon, responsible for corrosion difficulties in a power

plant is:
a. Graphite
*b. Carbon dioxide
c. Charcoal
d. Carbon
523. The term "plasticity" is applied to material which ____________________.
a. is brittle in its composition

b. is not capable of being reshaped
c. will return to its original shape after being deformed
d. will return to its original shape after the yield point is reached
*e. will not return to its original shape after being deformed
524. Elasticity is the property a body possesses that allows

_________________________.
*a. the body to return to its original shape after being deformed
b. the body to withstand great deformation under high loads before rupturing
c. the body to be rolled into the desired shape without breaking
d. the body to remain deformed after the effort causing deformation is
removed
e. the body to return to its original shape before the yield point is reached
525. Malleability property of material is that property which allows:
a. The material to be twisted a very large amount before breaking.

*b. The material to be rolled to a desired shape without breaking.
c. The material to resist change in shape under an applied load.
d. The material to be heated to liquid state and poured into a mould.
e. The material to be lengthen without breaking.
526. Hardness property of material is a body's ability to ____________________.
a. absorb impact
*b. resist penetration
c. resist bending
d. absorb heat
e. resist breaking
527. An example of a material with the mechanical property of brittleness is

_______________.
a. carbon tool steel

*b. cast iron
c. babbit
d. copper
e. lead
528. The malleability of most materials will _________ when the material is heated.
a. stay the same

b. decrease
*c. increase
d. most materials are not malleable
e. disappear
529. The mechanical property that determines whether a material will break or stand
up under a sudden impact or hard blow is:
a. Malleability
b. Plasticity
c. Ductility
d. Brittleness
*e. Toughness
530. Materials which break rather than bend, even though great force is required
to break them, are said to be __________.
a. hard
*b. brittle
c. malleable
d. tough
e. ductile
531. A material is said to possess ____________if it is very soft and easily

deformed.
*a. plasticity
b. hardness
c. ductility
d. brittleness
e. elasticity
532. _________ is that property of a material, which enables it to be deformed

under tension or stretched without rupture.
a. Hardness
b. Brittleness
c. Toughness
*d. Ductility
e. Malleability
533. __________ refers to that property of a material which enables it to resist

wear, abrasion and penetration.
a. Brittleness
b. Stiffness
*c. Hardness
d. Toughness
e. Elasticity
534. The material property of toughness can be tested by:
1. Drop test
2. Charpy test
3. Izod test
4. Brinell test
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 3, 4
*e. 2, 3
535. A material's ability to withstand great deformation under high loads before
rupturing is a measure of its __________.
*a. toughness
b. ductility
c. ultimate strength
d. malleability
e. stiffness
536. A body's ability to resist change in shape and size under an applied load
is known as _________________.
a. stiffness
b. ductility
c. toughness
d. malleability
*e. hardness
537. A material that will break suddenly without very much deformation occurring
before fracture is called ________.
a. stiff
b. hard
*c. brittle
d. ductile
e. stress
538. If a material does not have the property of ductility then it will be
_____________.
a. tough
b. hard
c. malleable
*d. brittle
e. plastic
539. Examples of materials that have the mechanical property of hardness are:
1. Stellite
2. Babbit
3. Carbon tool steel
4. Diamond
a. 1, 2
*b. 1, 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
540. If a material is said to have a high Brinell number, this means the material
is _________________.
*a. very hard

b. very tough
c. not very hard
d. not very tough
e. very brittle
541. Two common tests used to determine the toughness of a material are the Charpy
and _____________ tests.
*a. Rockwell
b. Brinnell
c. Izod
d. Shore scleroscope
e. Notcher
542. The ultimate strength of a material is determined by a test known as the tensile
test.
*a. True
b. False
543. A tensile test is performed by subjecting the specimen to a/an ______________.
a. Charpy test
b. Izod test
c. Brinell test
*d. Stretching type load
e. Compactor
544. A material that has the mechanical property "toughness" can be tested for
this by which of the following tests:
1. Drop test
2. Charpy test
3. Izod test
4. Brinell test
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
*c. 2, 3
d. 1, 3, 4
e. 2, 3, 4
545. Cast iron is produced, by melting pig iron together with ___________.
*a. limestone
b. scrap iron
c. wrought iron
d. steel
e. coke
546. Iron is produced in a blast furnace from _____________.
a. steel ore
*b. pig iron
c. iron ore
d. cast iron
e. wrought iron
547. Cast iron has a certain percentage of carbon present. This percentage is
__________.
a. 1-3%
b. 2-3%
*c. 2-4%
d. 3-5%
e. 4-6%
548. The most important property a metal must posses to be used in the construction
of a spring is ___________.
a. malleability
b. hardness
c. toughness
*d. elasticity
549. White metal used for slow speed and heavy load applications is composed of
_____________.
a. 5% tin, 15% antimony and 80% lead

b. 5% tin, 20% antimony and 75% lead
*c. 10% tin, 15% antimony and 75% lead
d. 15% tin, 10% antimony and 75% lead
e. 20% tin, 5% antimony and 75% lead
550. Of all the materials listed below, the one which the property of brittleness
is the highest is ______________.
a. aluminum
*b. cast iron
c. babbit
d. copper
551. A special type of alloy steel used for tool making is called _______________.
a. high carbon steel

b. stainless steel
*c. high speed steel
d. wrought steel
e. low carbon steel
552. ____________ increases strength and hardness.
a. Vanadium
b. Copper
c. Chromium
*d. Nickel
e. Manganese
553. Lead has the effect of increasing steel's __________________.
a. toughness
b. corrosion resistance
c. strength
*d. machinability
e. hardness
554. ___________ materials are those metals, which contain metals such as copper
and copper alloys.
a. Hard
b. Cast
*c. Non-ferrous
d. Alloy
e. Ferrous
555. Carbon steel is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon in which the carbon
content is below ___________.
*a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%
e. 5%
556. Brass is an alloy made of copper and zinc.
a. 40% copper 60% zinc

b. 50% copper 50% zinc
*c. 60% copper 40% zinc
d. 70% copper 30% zinc
e. 30% copper 70% zinc
557. White metal used for slow speed and heavy load applications is compromised
of _______________.
a. 5% tin, 15% antimony and 80% lead

b. 5% tin, 20% antimony and 75% lead
*c. 10% tin, 15% antimony and 75% lead
d. 15% tin, 10% antimony and 75% lead
558. One of aluminum's most important properties is it's __________________.
*a. low density

b. hardness
c. elasticity
d. low tensile strength
e. insulation ability
559. Materials that break instantaneously with a clean short fracture without any
intermediate stage of bending are classed as _____________.
a. hard
b. ductile
*c. brittle
d. malleable
560. Ductility is the ability of a material to _________________.
a. withstand great deformation above the elastic limit in compression

without failure, an example would be copper
b. resist a force tending to change its shape and then return to its original
shape when the force is removed, an example would be mild steel
*c. withstand great deformation above the elastic limit in tension without
failure, an example would be copper
d. resist a sudden impact or blow, an example would be mild steel
561. A material that is able to stand up under a sudden impact or hard blow is
described as __________________________.
*a. tough or having high impact strength

b. elastic or having the ability to resist a force trying to change its shape
c. malleable or easy to withstand great deformation
d. ductile or can be stretched under load without deformation
562. The yield point on a tension test is where?
a. The point where the material fails and breaks.

b. The plastic deformation stops and the elastic deformation begins.
c. The stress begins to decrease and the strain begins to increase.
*d. The elastic limit is reached and plastic deformation starts.
563. Case hardening is when?
*a. A material has its surface condition treated so it is capable of resisting

wear, abrasion, cutting and indentation.
b. A soft material is fitted or formed inside another material that has a
harder surface.
c. A material is worked and formed until it becomes completely hardened.
d. A material is heated to its deformation temperature and then cooled slowly
to remove stresses.
564. A Brinell Hardness number of "65 HB 10/500/25" means?
a. That the material tested can handle a load of 65 kN applied across the
entire length of the material without failure.
b. That a load of 65 kg was applied for 10 seconds to a 500 mm length of
material and it showed at deformation of 25N.
*c. That a Brinell Hardness of 65 was obtained using a 10 mm in diameter
hardened steel ball with a 500 kg load applied for a period of 25 seconds.
d. That a Brinell Hardness number of 65 was obtained when a 500 kg load was
applied for 10 seconds to a 25 mm in diameter hardened steel ball.
565. Two tests that are used to determine the toughness of a material are
__________________________.
*a. the Izod and Charpy impact tests

b. the Rockwell and Brinell impact tests
c. the Rockwell and Charpy impact tests
d. the Impact and Hardness tests by Brinell and Charpy
566. The purpose of the blast furnace is to ___________________.
a. reduce the total iron ore to steel and pig iron

b. reduce the iron oxides to cast iron and steel
c. reduce the iron oxides to give a stronger steel that will not rust
*d. reduce the iron oxides to molten iron
567. Molten iron called pig iron is used to produce?
a. Stainless steels and alloy steels.

b. Tool steels and low carbon steels.
*c. Cast iron, wrought iron and steel.
d. An alloy that enhances the properties of tool steels.
568. The operation of a blast furnace is most efficient when it is _____________.
*a. continuous
b. at high temperatures
c. fired by natural gas
d. operated for 12 hours per day
569. A Cupola furnace is used to produce cast iron by?
a. Melting pig iron together with a predetermined amount of scrap cast iron,
steel and limestone at a specific temperature.
b. Melting pig iron together with coke for lowering the carbon content of
the steel.
c. Melting scrap iron, limestone and coke while increasing the temperature
above the melting point.
*d. Melting pig iron together with other scrap metals.
570. Grey cast iron is produced by?
a. Firing the cupola hotter than normal and then cooling the molten material
quickly.
*b. Cooling the molten material from the cupola furnace slowly thus allowing
the carbon to disassociate and form graphite within the iron.
c. Keeping the cupola furnace cooler than normal and then cooling the molten
material quickly to keep the carbon combined with the iron.
d. Adding graphite to the pig iron as you melt it in the cupola furnace to
give it the grey colour and fiberous appearance.
571. Grey cast iron is used for large motor bases and compressor bases because?
a. It is relatively inexpensive to produce and is a harder material than

white cast iron.
b. It is easy to cast and has a harder surface than white cast iron.
c. It is strong in tension, compression and withstands heat well.
*d. It dampens vibration and sound well and it is strong in compression and
shear.
572. In white cast iron, the carbon in the iron is?
a. Completely removed by heating the pig iron to a very high temperature

for an extended period of time.
b. Combined with lime and oxygen to produce the white colour in the iron
when cooled.
*c. Chemically combined in the form of iron carbide or cementite.
d. Reduced to 2% by adding the correct amounts of scrap iron and steel to
the cupola furnace during firing.
573. Malleable cast iron is produced by?
a. Adding more lime in the cupola furnace and firing at a hotter temperature
for a longer time to increase the conversion of carbon to graphite.
b. Giving white cast iron a short heat treatment followed by a quick cooling
or quenching process.
c. Heating the cast iron above its critical temperature until it is full
red.
*d. Giving white cast iron castings a long heat treatment at about 925°C,
followed by a slow cooling process.
574. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon containing ______________.
a. more than 2% carbon

b. less than 0.2% carbon
c. more than 2% carbon but less than 5% carbon
*d. less than 2% carbon
575. Alloy steel is steel that has other elements added to it which tend to increase
its strength, ductility and __________.
*a. resistance to corrosion

b. resistance to machining
c. resistance to welding
d. resistance to heat treatment
576. The characteristics of a metal depend on the atoms that make up the metal
and the space lattice which is _____________.
a. the alloy elements within the metal

b. the amount of space between the atoms
c. the number of atoms within each grain
*d. the arrangement of the atoms, or the grain structure
577. Hot working of steel including forging and rolling increases the strength
of the steel by _______________.
*a. reducing the grain size
b. increasing the grain size
c. reducing the space lattice
d. forcing the atoms in the metal closer together
578. Quenching, case hardening and tempering are methods of?
*a. Heat treating

b. Hot working
c. Cold working
d. Non-destructive testing
579. Specialty steels for construction of bridges, boilers and ships are refined
in a Oxygen furnace because?
*a. It reduces the time needed to produce the steel.

b. The high temperatures cut down on the amount of alloy elements needed
to strengthen the steel.
c. The high temperature gives a final steel product with a very fine grain
structure.
d. This method reduces the impurities like sulphur and phosphorous and gives
the steel a higher strength.
580. The highest grades of steel are produced in ________________.
*a. the electric furnace

b. the oxygen furnace
c. the open hearth furnace
d. the cupola furnace
581. Cast iron is produced by melting pig iron together with ___________.
a. limestone
*b. scrap iron
c. wrought iron
d. steel
582. Hardness is a materials resistance to wear, abrasion and penetration.
*a. True
b. False
583. Step 1 in the production of steel is the production of pig iron in a blast
furnace.
*a. True
b. False
584. In an open hearth furnace the carbon content of the steel is controlled by
adding CO2 to the process.
a. True
*b. False
585. Polymers and elastomers are long chain hydrocarbon molecule units which are
used to produce plastics and rubber.
*a. True
b. False
586. Galvanic action cannot occur without?
a. A large potential difference between the two materials.

b. A difference in temperature between the two materials.
c. A wire or line connecting the two materials.
*d. The electrical connection.
587. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied before galvanic corrosion
takes place?
a. There must be dissimilar materials having a different surface potential.

b. The materials must be immersed in a common electrolyte to allow a flow
of ions.
c. There must be a conducting path to connect the materials to allow a flow
of electrons.
d. Two of the three conditions above must be satisfied.
*e. All of the conditions must be satisfied simultaneously.
588. If the potential difference between two materials in a galvanic corrosion

cell increases, the rate of corrosion will ______________________.
a. increase proportionally
b. decrease proportionally
*c. not change as the electrolyte is the main driver for the corrosion rate
d. only increase if the temperature difference between the materials is also
increased
589. Atmospheric corrosion of a material is caused by?
a. The velocity of the air moving across the material.

b. Direct sunlight hitting the surface of the material.
c. The change in temperature between day and night.
*d. The action of the water vapor and pollutants in the air.
590. Increasing the water vapor in the air will increase the rate of corrosion
of a material.
*a. True
b. False
591. Why are industrial atmospheres much more corrosive than rural atmospheres?
a. The dust and dirt that is in the atmosphere from the extra vehicular
traffic.
b. The extra heat and moisture in the air generated from the various
industries.
c. The sulphur dioxide and other sulphur compounds in the air from the burning
of hydrocarbon fuels and vehicle exhausts.
*d. The acids and chemicals that tend to be used in the various processes.
592. An external source of current that travels along a pipe or other material
that it comes in contact with can cause?
a. The pipe or material to become hot.

*b. Stray current corrosion in the pipe or material.
c. A reduction in the galvanic corrosion rates.
d. An increase in the galvanic corrosion rates.
593. Stray Currents can be found by?
a. Watching for corrosion happening where pipelines enter the ground.

b. Watching for corrosion happening where pipelines exit the ground.
c. Connecting a wire and a very small light to the buried pipeline or metal
structure.
*d. Measuring voltage drops and current flows along buried structures and
metal pipelines.
594. Stress Corrosion Cracking is the failure of a material due to cracking which
is produced by?
a. Straining the material past its elastic point under corrosive atmospheric
conditions.
*b. A combination of service conditions and the environment that the material
is in.
c. Stressing the material by welding it and then stress relieving it at too
high a temperature.
d. Incorrect water treatment of the boiler feed-water.
595. Hydrogen Blistering is one form of Hydrogen Induced Corrosion that is caused
by?
*a. Hydrogen sulphide getting under the surface of the steel and causing
corrosion cells.
b. Water getting under the surface of the steel and forming bubbles.
c. Hot hydrogen blistering the surface of the steel due to the high heat
of the process.
d. Atomic hydrogen diffusion into very small irregularities in the steel
and joining together and lifting up the surface of the steel.
596. Hydrogen Embrittlement cased by hydrogen atoms diffusing into the surface
of the steel can reduce the ductility of the steel by _________.
a. 7%
b. 30%
*c. 42%
d. 83%
597. Sulphide stress corrosion cracking occurs in steel and other high strength
alloys when they are exposed to _____________________.
a. salt water in concentrations high enough to produce an electrolyte

b. dry hydrogen sulphide environments
c. acidic environments
*d. moist hydrogen sulphide environments
598. For Chloride Stress Corrosion Cracking to occur in stainless steels there
must be __________________.
*a. oxygen in the solution

b. a temperature above 100°C
c. water vapour or moisture in the air
d. a flaw in the design of the piece of metal
599. Caustic Corrosion is a name given to corrosion that occurs beneath a

concentrated build up of _________________.
a. Sodium bicarbonate (NaCO3)

b. Sodium Silicate (NaSiO3)
*c. Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH)
d. Sodium Sulphate (NaSO4)
600. Caustic corrosion is usually found __________________.
a. in the colder areas of the boiler where the water circulation is poor
*b. in the higher heat areas of the boiler
c. at the elbows and bends where the flow must make a change of direction
d. directly downstream of where the boiler chemicals enter the boiler
601. If the boiler water pH has been allowed to go below 7.0 for more than one
hour there is a high potential for _________________.
a. caustic embrittlement
b. caustic gouging
c. scale build up under which the corrosion will be enhanced
*d. hydrogen damage or hydrogen embrittlement
602. Chemical treatments to prevent corrosion usually work by

_______________________.
*a. forming a protective film on the metal surfaces

b. absorbing the corrosive elements into itself (the chemical) to form a
passive solution
c. combining with the corrosive elements to form a non-corrosive product
that can then be precipitated out of the process fluid
d. neutralizing the electrolyte so it will not conduct an electric current
603. As the pH of the environment decreases, the corrosion rates _____________.
a. decrease
b. remain the same
*c. increase
d. decrease or increase depending upon the fluid flow rates
604. If the anodic area is relatively small compared to the cathodic area, the
corrosion will be in the form of __________.
a. generalized surface area corrosion

b. under deposit corrosion
c. very sporadic corrosion that moves around the entire surface of the metal
*d. deep pits
605. A substance that retards corrosion when added in specific concentrations to

an environment is called a/an__________________.
a. passifier
b. neutralizer
c. corrosion enhancer
*d. corrosion inhibitor
606. The first layer of an absorbed film type of corrosion inhibitor is

_____________________________________________.
*a. strongly bonded to the metal surface

b. weakly bonded to the metal surface
c. coating the metal surface due to its low viscosity and inability to flow
d. the sacrificial layer that continues to wash away and must be replaced
on a continuous basis
607. Not adding enough passivating inhibitor to keep the entire metal surface
covered can cause ___________________.
a. the coated areas to be kept corrosion free but the other areas will still
be susceptible to minor corrosion
*b. enhanced pitting in the uncoated anodic areas of the metal
c. the entire surface area to be protected as it interrupts the flow of
electric current through the metal
d. the entire metal surface to corrode faster
608. Neutralizing amines are volatile materials added to a system to

__________________________.
*a. neutralize the acidity and increase the pH of the fluid

b. neutralize the caustic action of the fluid and eliminate caustic gouging
c. neutralize the corrosive action on the surface of the metal and build
a passifying film
d. neutralize the corrosive action of the oxygen in the water by absorbing
the excess O2
609. The principle of cathodic protection is to change the whole surface of the
metal into a cathode so that _________________________.
a. the flow of electrons from the metal surface is equal across the entire
surface which reduces pitting and other corrosive actions
b. the electrolyte will not be able to support the flow of electrons
c. the anode will move to a less critical part of the equipment
*d. there is no net flow of current from any point of the metal surface to
the electrolyte
610. Sacrificial Anodes are used to reduce galvanic corrosion of tanks and/or
vessels by ____________________________.
*a. accepting the corrosion action in place of, or instead of, the main
equipment surface
b. isolating the electrolyte from the internal surface of the main equipment
c. reversing the flow of electrical current from the cathode to the anode
d. stopping the flow of electrical current completely by breaking the circuit
611. When several anodes are buried close together and electrically connected to
function as a single unit they are called:
a. Buried cathodic protection

b. Underground cathodic protection
c. A groundbed
*d. An underground bed
612. Cathodic protection always uses ___________________.
a. alternating current at 110 volts and 60 hz

b. alternating current at 220 volts and 60 hz
c. alternating current at 110 volts and milliamp current flow
*d. direct current of varying rates
613. Corrosion coupons are:
a. Pieces of metal inserted into a system to sacrificially corrode instead

of the metal surface that is being protected.
*b. Pieces of metal inserted in a system to evaluate the corrosiveness of
the system.
c. Pieces of metal inserted into a system that will direct the flow of
electrons from the cathode to a neutral point and reduce the corrosion.
d. Pieces of metal inserted into a system that will direct the flow of
electrons from the anode to a neutral point and reduce the corrosion.
614. One of the most serious corrosion problems in the Oil and Gas and Pulp and
Paper industries today is Biological Corrosion.
*a. True
b. False
615. Stress corrosion cracking happens quite quickly in steels and certain copper
containing materials.
*a. True
b. False
616. Monitoring and controlling the boiler water treatment chemistry has no real
impact on the potential for caustic corrosion as it is mainly caused by poor boiler
circulation.
a. True
*b. False
617. Both too high and too low a fluid flow velocity can increase the rate of
corrosion.
*a. True
b. False
618. Passivating inhibitors actually cause the metal to corrode which creates a
protective oxide film on the metal surface that protects the metal from further
corrosive action.
*a. True
b. False
619. When correctly installed, cathodic protection will completely stop the
corrosion process.
a. True
*b. False
620. The positive terminal of the power supply must always be connected to the
structure which is to be protected and the negative terminal must be connected
to the ground bed or severe corrosion of the structure will result.
a. True
*b. False
621. What information does the Material Balance Table provide?
a. Material specifications that the piping and vessels are constructed of.
b. Heat balance across the plant.
c. Volume of process products that will be produced across the plant.
*d. Pressure, temperature, composition and flow rates of the various process
streams shown.
622. A mechanical flow diagram is commonly known as a P&ID which is an acronym

for the words?
a. Power and Instrument Drawing

*b. Process and Instrumentation Diagram
c. Piping and Instrumentation Drawing
d. Piping and Insulation Diagram
623. What does the P&ID show?
a. Less detail than the PFD.

*b. More detail than the PFD.
c. The same amount of information as the PFD but in a more logical format.
d. Completely different information than the PFD shows.
624. What do the Operations and Engineering staff use the Mechanical Drawings for
after completion of construction?
a. Reference material for designing other similar facilities.

b. Reference material for writing ladder logic for the instrumentation and
controllers.
*c. Reference and training materials on the details of the processes and
control systems.
d. They will actually just be filed and not really used again as they serve
no purpose once the facility is built and operating.
625. The Pressure and temperature values listed on the process flow diagram are
the same values as what is shown on the P&ID or Mechanical drawings.
a. True
*b. False
626. What is the legend that comes with the Mechanical drawings used to identify?
a. The various processes the are included in the drawings.

b. The originator of the drawings and the contact numbers where they can
be reached.
c. The actual flow rates, temperatures and pressures that will be experienced
throughout the various processes on the P&IDs.
*d. What the symbols and abbreviations that are used in the drawings mean
or represent.
627. Mechanical Drawings or P&IDs include detailed instrumentation data including

the types of flow, level, pressure and temperature instruments used and their
control locations.
*a. True
b. False
628. When comparing current plant performance rates against design performance
rates the operator can use the?
*a. The Material Balance Drawings

b. The Mechanical Drawings
c. The Process Flow Drawings
d. The Design Data Tables
629. Why are moles per unit of time or percent used on a Material Balance sheet?
a. These units are easy to use in mathematical calculations.

b. These units are accepted by ASME and other engineering standards as the
only universally recognized units.
*c. A mole of a substance will not change regardless of the phase, pressure
or temperature of the process.
d. The mole measurement of a substance converts easily to both SI and Imperial
units.
630. What does the Material Balance sheet usually accompany?
a. Mechanical Flow Diagram

*b. Process Flow Diagram
c. A Piping Isometric Diagram
d. A Construction Drawing
631. The product make up or composition of the various fluid streams are included
in the material balance sheet or diagram.
*a. True
b. False
632. Construction Drawings will be drawn to scale and will show the equipment view
in?
*a. Three different views, usually plan, front, side view and elevations.
b. Three stages of construction, ground breaking, structural only and final
completion.
c. Three different operating modes to show the capabilities of the equipment.
d. Three different operating modes to show how the instrumentation
functions.
633. Pipe rack details with elevations and layout of process lines are included
on what?
a. P&IDs
b. Process Flow Diagrams
c. Construction Drawings
*d. Equipment layout or plot plan drawings
634. What are Plot Plans used for?
a. Locate the area where the underground electrical cables are buried.
*b. Locate the equipment on the plant site and within its process block.
c. Locate that area to set the footings for the equipment.
d. Locate the underground gas and pipelines.
635. What do the dotted lines on the outside of a drawing of a plot plan define?
*a. The battery limits of a group of equipment.

b. The edge of the pump skids.
c. Where the property line for the facility is.
d. The layout of the instrumentation equipment.
636. Piping can be shown in 3D using normal modern drafting tools.
*a. True
b. False
637. What is the acronym for the American Society of Mechanical Engineers?
a. CSA
*b. ASME
c. ABSA
d. NBBI
e. BCSA
638. What is the acronym for The National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel
Inspectors?
a. CSA
b. ASME
c. NBA
*d. NBBI
e. HSN
639. The Alberta Boilers Safety Association (ABSA) is responsible for the
administration of the legislation for _________ and _________.
a. boilers , heaters
b. exams, testing
*c. boilers, pressure vessels
d. testing, fee collection
e. Inspections, process design
640. What designates the classification of the certificate of competency, required

for the role of chief power engineer?
a. Product classification
b. Number of employee's
c. Type of feedstock used
*d. Kilowatt rating of the power plant.
e. ABSA regulations.
641. What is the role of the Chief Power Engineer?
a. Inspect the operations

*b. Supervision of the other power engineers and the safe, and efficient,
operation of the plant
c. Conduct Safety Training
d. Make coffee
e. Operate the panel
642. What is the focus of the Engineers regulations?
*a. State the minimum qualifications necessary to obtain each class of power
engineer certification.
b. Control process operations.
c. Decide who will be chief engineer.
d. Regulate safe handling of fired equipment.
643. What standard regulates Boiler, Pressure Vessel, and Pressure Piping Code?
a. CSA B52
b. ASME Section I
c. ASME Section VII
*d. CSA B51
644. What standard regulates Mechanical Refrigeration Code?
*a. CSA B52

b. ASME Section I
c. CSA B51
d. ASME Section VII
645. What code regulates the rules for Construction of Power Boilers?
a. CSA B52
*b. ASME Section I
c. CSA B51
d. ASME Section VII
646. What code regulates the recommended guidelines for the care of Power Boilers?
a. CSA B52
b. ASME Section One
c. CSA B51
*d. ASME Section VII
647. What code regulates Chemical Plant and Petroleum Refinery Piping?
a. CSA B52
b. ASME Section One
c. CSA B51
d. ASME Section Seven
*e. B31.3
648. What is the main focus of the National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel
Inspectors (NBBI)?
a. The supervision of the other power engineers and the safe, and efficient,
operation of the plant.
*b. To establish uniform qualifications for inspectors and acceptance of
standard code requirements.
c. Regulate safe handling of fired equipment.
d. State the minimum qualifications necessary to obtain each class of power
engineer certification.
649. Today, all Canadian provinces and most of the states in the United States,
require boilers and pressure vessels to be inspected during fabrication by an
inspector holding a National Board commission.
*a. True
b. False
650. Qualified and authorized boiler and pressure vessel manufacturers need not
be registered with the National Board.
a. True
*b. False
651. What information will be found in the Boilers and Related Components of the
B-51 code?
a. This section identifies information that must appear on the nameplates

of every boiler, pressure vessel, safety valve, relief valve and rupture
disc. It also makes reference to any alteration that is made to a boiler
or pressure vessel, and an additional nameplate is to be attached next to
the original nameplate.
b. This section identifies pressure vessels and their installation,
including pressure vessel inspection openings. This section also shows the
design of cushion tanks, blow-off vessels, and the installation of air
receivers.
c. This section identifies piping and fittings and lists the codes and
standards that must be used. These standards include ANSI/ASME standards
B31.1, for Power Piping and the B31.3, for Process Piping.
d. This section explains refrigeration equipment and refers to CSA B52 for
the standard to be met in the design, construction, installation,
inspection, testing, and repair of refrigeration equipment.
*e. This section identifies the standards used in the design, construction,
installation, inspection, testing, and repair, along with water gauges, low
water cut off, fusible plugs, boiler installation, inspection openings,
outlet dampers, blowoff tanks, and cast iron steam and hot water boilers.
652. The pressure vessels section of the B-51 code identifies pressure vessels
and their installation, including pressure vessel inspection openings. This
section also shows the design of cushion tanks, blowoff vessels, and the
installation of air receivers.
*a. True
b. False
653. The repairs and alterations section of the B-51 outlines the standards that
must be followed when replacing existing pieces of pressure equipment with new
pieces of pressure equipment.
*a. True
b. False
654. What tables are found in the tables section of the B-51 code?
1) Categories of fittings
2) Minimum dimensions of blowoff vessels
3) Minimum dimensions of blowoff vessels for coil-tube boilers
4) Steam Tables
5) Refrigeration Tables
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
*c. 1, 2, 3
d. 3, 4, 5
e. 4, 5
655. What are the two main purposes of the CSA B-52 code?
1) Terms and equipment relating to refrigeration and air conditioning

equipment are defined
2) The various classifications of buildings and occupancies are listed
and described with examples of each classification given
3) To provide for the safe design, construction, installation, operation
and repair of refrigerating and air conditioning equipment and systems, and related
equipment
4) To promote uniform requirements among the provinces and territories
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 4
*d. 3, 4
e. 1, 4
656. Clear definitions for terms and equipment relating to refrigeration and air
conditioning equipment are described in sections of the B-52 code?
*a. True
b. False
657. Pressure relief and rupture devices are not covered in the B-52 code?
a. True
*b. False
658. Calculate the minimum required wall thickness of a superheater tube. The tube
is 40 mm O.D. and is connected to a header by strength welding. The maximum allowable
working pressure is 2000 kPa gauge and the average tube temperature is 212°C. The
tube material is alloy steel with specification SA-213-T11.
a. 1.0 mm
b. 0.25 mm
*c. 0.5846 mm
d. 0.7546 mm
is 100 mm O.D. and is connected to a header by strength welding. The maximum
allowable working pressure is 2430 kPa gauge and the average tube temperature is
375°C. The tube material is alloy steel with specification SA-192.
a. 5.025 mm
b. 1.58 mm
c. 3.258 mm
*d. 2.014 mm
660. Calculate the maximum allowable working pressure, in kPa, for a watertube
boiler tube, which is 73.5 mm O.D. and has a minimum wall thickness of 4.71 mm.
The tube is strength-welded into place in the boiler and is located in the furnace
area of the boiler. Tube material is carbon steel, SA-192, with a mean wall
temperature of 380°C.
a. 8.52 Mpa
*b. 9.921 Mpa
c. 10 Mpa
d. 22 Mpa
661. Calculate the minimum required wall thickness of a boiler tube which is
strength welded to a header. The maximum allowable working pressure is 4450 kPa,
and the mean wall temperature is 370°C. The tube material is SA-192 and the outside
diameter is 50 mm.
a. 3.14 mm
b. 1.62 cm
*c. 1.62 mm
d. 3.26 cm
662. Calculate the maximum allowable working pressure, in kPa, for a watertube
boiler tube, which is 76 mm O.D. and has a minimum wall thickness of 3.25 mm. The
tube is strength-welded into place in the boiler and is located in the furnace
area of the boiler. Tube material is carbon steel, SA-192, with a mean wall
temperature of 375°C.
*a. 6.2 Mpa

b. 7.5 Mpa
c. 5.2 Mpa
d. 9.0 Mpa
is 76 mm O.D. and is connected to a header by strength welding. The maximum allowable
working pressure is 4150 kPa gauge and the average tube temperature is 400°C. The
tube material is alloy steel with specification SA-213-T11.
a. 2.125 mm
*b. 1.88 mm
c. 1.5 mm
d. 1.0 mm
664. Calculate the minimum required plate thickness of a welded boiler drum having
an inside radius of 935 mm and a maximum design working pressure of 9020 kPa. The
plate material is SA-516 grade 70 and metal temperature does not exceed 320°C.
Weld reinforcement on the longitudinal joints has been removed flush with the
surface of the plate.
*a. 72.96 mm
b. 55 mm
c. 62.96 mm
d. 83.55 mm
665. Calculate the minimum thickness required for a welded steel pipe of material
SA-209 grade T1b, plain end. The outside diameter of the pipe is 273.05 mm and
the operating pressure and temperature are 2000 kPa and 400°C, respectively.
a. 0.304 mm
*b. 3.04 mm
c. 2.68 mm
d. 2.68 cm
666. A steam header between the boiler and first stop valve is to be fabricated
of 152.4 mm O.D. pipe. The material specification is SA-369 FPA seamless pipe.
The operating pressure will be 8440 kPa at 420°C. The pipe will be joined by full
penetration welds and will be fully radiographed. Calculate the minimum thickness
of the pipe wall if the manufacturer's tolerance is 12.5%.
a. 12.04 mm
b. 15 mm
c. 25.36 mm
*d. 10.90 mm
667. A boiler drum is made of SA-515-70 steel and has a ligament efficiency of
0.66. If the steam temperature is 280°C and the inside diameter of the drum is
1.6 m and the thickness of the drum is 68.45 mm. What will the maximum operating
pressure be, in kPa?
a. 2500 kPa
*b. 6500 kPa
c. 7500 kPa
d. 5200 kPa
668. Calculate the required minimum thickness (in mm) of steam piping which will
carry steam at a pressure of 4300 kPa gauge and a temperature of 370°C. The piping
is plain-end, 273.05 mm O.D.; the material is low alloy steel, SA-335 P11. A
manufacturer's tolerance of 12.5% must be added to the pipe.
*a. 5.61 mm + tolerance = 6.31 mm

b. 6.51 mm + tolerance = 7.21 mm
c. 8.55 mm + tolerance = 9.55 mm
d. 5.00 mm + tolerance = 6.00 mm
669. Calculate the minimum thickness required for a seamless steel feedwater pipe
of material SA-209, grade T1. The outside diameter of the pipe is 323.85 mm and
the operating pressure and temperature are 5200 kPa and 500°C respectively. The
pipe is plain-ended. Assume that the material is an austenitic steel.
a. 12.66 mm
b. 15.85 mm
c. 9.95 mm
*d. 11.85 mm
670. Calculate the required thickness, in mm, of a superheater outlet header,

operating at 500°C and having a maximum allowable working pressure of 17 MPa. The
header material is SA-335-P7 and the outside diameter is 457.2 mm.
*a. 54.35 mm
b. 45.23 mm
c. 22.14 mm
d. 38.26 mm
671. Calculate the maximum allowable working pressure for a welded drum if the
plates are 25 mm thick and of material SA-299. The inside diameter of the drum
is 988 mm and the joint efficiency is 100%. Assume the steam temperature will not
exceed 400°C.
a. 6.035 Mpa
*b. 5.305 Mpa
c. 4.0 Mpa
d. 7.225 Mpa
672. Calculate the thickness of a seamless, unstayed dished head with pressure
on the concave side, having a flanged-in manhole 280 mm by 380 mm. The head has
a diameter of 1235 mm and is a segment of a sphere with a dish radius of 1016 mm.
The maximum allowable working pressure is 1380 kPa, the material is SA-285 C and
the metal temperature does not exceed 204°C.
*a. 18.37 mm
b. 22 mm
c. 38 mm
d. 17.63 mm
673. Calculate the thickness of a seamless, blank unstayed dished head having
pressure on the concave side. The head has a diameter of 1067 mm and is a segment
of a sphere with a dish radius of 915 mm. The maximum allowable working pressure
is 2068 kPa and the material is SA-285 A. The metal temperature does not exceed
250°C.
*a. 25.27 mm
b. 30.55 mm
c. 19.33 mm
d. 35.33 mm
674. Calculate the thickness required for a dished seamless head, which is attached
to a boiler having a shell diameter of 1200 mm. The head has a flanged-in manhole
with one dimension equal to 150 mm. The head is a segment of a sphere with a dished
radius of 1120 mm. The head material is SA-285 Grade C, the maximum allowable
working pressure is 1930 kPa and the steam temperature does not exceed 260°C.
a. 25 mm
b. 35 mm
c. 20.033 mm
*d. 23.7 mm
675. Calculate the thickness of a seamless blank unstayed dished head having
pressure on the concave side. The head has a diameter of 830 mm and is a segment
of a sphere with a dish radius of 615 mm. The maximum allowable working pressure
is 1650 kPa, the material is SA-299 and the metal temperature does not exceed 200°C.
*a. 8.77 mm
b. 10.25 mm
c. 5.22 mm
d. 15 mm
676. Calculate the minimum required thickness, in mm, for a blank, unstayed,
full-hemispherical head, with the pressure on the concave side. The head is
fabricated from seamless material and is double butt welded to the shell. All
reinforcement is removed and fully radiographed. The radius to which the head is
dished is 700 mm, maximum allowable working pressure is 4000 kPa, and the head
material (SA-285 C) will not reach a temperature greater than 340°C. Use code 29.11.
a. 30.79 cm
*b. 14.8 mm
c. 30.16 mm
d. 14.8 cm
677. A seamless, welded, full-hemispherical head is welded to a boiler shell that

has an inside diameter of 1100 mm. Maximum working pressure is 3500 kPa, the
material is SA-226, and operating temperature is 300°C. The head has a flanged
in manhole that meets code requirements. Calculate the minimum required thickness
for the head.
*a. 45.55 mm
b. 60.55 mm
c. 22 mm
d. 52.87 mm
678. Calculate the minimum required thickness for an unstayed full-hemispherical

head with the pressure on the concave side if the head has the following
specifications:
1) Inside diameter = 1.0 m

2) Pressure = 1500 kPa
3) Temperature = 285°C
4) Plate specification is SA-285 C
The head is fabricated from seamless material and is double butt welded to
the shell. All weld reinforcement is removed and has a flanged-in manhole that
complies with the code.
a. 22 mm
b. 38.45 mm
*c. 16.15 mm
d. 28.59 mm
679. What is the minimum required thickness for a blank, full-hemispherical head
if the material of construction is SA-515-65, operating temperature is 425°C,
pressure is 1800 kPa, and the head is dished to a radius of 870 mm?
a. 8.81 mm
b. 9.81 cm
c. 6.32 cm
*d. 9.81 mm
680. With reference to the Code a stoker-fired firetube boiler has 62 m2 of heating
surface. How much steam must the safety valve on this boiler be capable of
discharging per hour?
a. 1587 kg/h
b. 2815 kg/h
*c. 2108 kg/h
d. 3269 kg/h
681. Utilizing the Code a watertube boiler is gas-fired and has 65 m2 of boiler
heating surface, plus 85 m2 of waterwall surface. What is the minimum required
relieving capacity for all the safety valves?
*a. 9815 kg/h

b. 12000 kg/h
c. 14500 kg/h
d. 10000 kg/h
682. Utilizing the Code a watertube boiler, equipped with a superheater, has two
safety valves on the steam drum and one safety valve on the superheater. The boiler
is fired on pulverized coal and has 70 m2 of boiler surface, 95 m2 of waterwall
surface, and 20 m2 of superheater surface. What is the minimum combined relieving
capacity permitted for the steam drum safety valves?
a. 9000 kg/h
b. 7500 kg/h
c. 6900 kg/h
*d. 8130 kg/h
683. Utilizing the Code a stoker-fired firetube boiler has 100 m2 of heating
surface. How much steam must the safety valve on this boiler be capable of
discharging per hour?
*a. 3400 kg/h

b. 2850 kg/h
c. 2500 kg/h
d. 5500 kg/h
684. Utilizing the Code a watertube boiler is gas-fired and has 50 m2 of boiler
heating surface, plus 70 m2 of waterwall surface. What is the minimum required
relieving capacity for all the safety valves?
a. 5452 kg/h
b. 6500 kg/h
c. 9800 kg/h
*d. 7910 kg/h
685. Calculate the heating value of a fuel with the following ultimate analysis:
1) Carbon 62.0% (0.62 kg/kg of fuel)

2) Hydrogen 5.2%
3) Sulphur 0.9 %
4) Ash 9.5%
5) Oxygen 19.0%
6) Nitrogen 2.0%
Using the formula: Calorific value = 33.7 C + 144 (H - O2/8) + 9.3 S
a. 32 MJ/kg
*b. 25.03 MJ/kg
c. 15.55 MJ/kg
d. 50.26 MJ/kg
2) Hydrogen 6.0%
3) Sulphur 1.0 %
4) Ash 9.5%
5) Oxygen 20.0%
6) Nitrogen 1.8%
Using the formula: Calorific value =33.7 C + 144 (H - O2/8) + 9.3 S
*a. 25.35 MJ/kg

b. 32.55 MJ/kg
c. 19.25 MJ/kg
d. 41.65 MJ/kg

2) Hydrogen 4.0%
3) Sulphur 0.75 %
4) Ash 9.5%
5) Oxygen 18.5%
6) Nitrogen 2.0%
a. 35.15 MJ/kg
b. 41.55 MJ/kg
c. 16.65 MJ/kg
*d. 25.43 MJ/kg

2) Hydrogen 5.0%
3) Sulphur 0.8 %
4) Ash 9.5%
5) Oxygen 21.0%
6) Nitrogen 2.0%
a. 30.56 MJ/kg
*b. 25.43 MJ/kg
c. 51.25 MJ/kg
d. 29.56 MJ/kg

2) Hydrogen 10.0%
3) Sulphur 1.2 %
4) Ash 9.5%
5) Oxygen 18.5%
6) Nitrogen 2.0%
a. 30.22 MJ/kg
b. 35.23 MJ/kg
*c. 28.05 MJ/kg
d. 52.22 MJ/kg
690. Specific gravity is the ratio between the mass of a volume of oil, and is
generally measured with a __________.
a. dead weight tester

b. thermometer
*c. hydrometer
d. density meter
691. The heating value of fuel oil, expressed as kJ/kg, varies inversely with the
specific gravity. This is due to the fact that the hydrogen content decreases as
the oil becomes lighter.
a. True
*b. False
692. Viscosity of fuel oil decreases as the temperature increases and becomes
nearly constant, above 120°C.
*a. True
b. False
693. The viscosity is the time, in __________, for 60 cm3 of oil to run through
an orifice, at 38°C.
a. minutes
*b. seconds
c. hours
d. days
694. A proper natural gas flame will be blue with a yellow tip.
*a. True
b. False
695. One advantage of natural gas firing is, the clean burning, no ash is produced
to leave deposits on the heating surfaces.
*a. True
b. False
696. The heating value of natural gas will vary according to its __________.
a. color
*b. constituents
c. weight
d. volume
697. Biomass fuels are any fuel sources that are, or were, alive. Specific examples
include grass, leaves, vines, coffee grounds and other waste products from the
food industry.
*a. True
b. False
698. Municipal wastes generally contain large amounts of biomass material that
may be suitable for use as a fuel.
*a. True
b. False
699. The heating value of dry wood bark is about 50,000 kJ/kg.
a. True
*b. False
700. Fill in the blanks:
The amount of NOX formed, can be controlled by:

__________ the amount of excess air used in combustion
and __________ the temperature in the combustion zone.
a. Increasing, increasing
b. Restricting, increasing
*c. Restricting, reducing
d. Eliminating, increasing
701. The process of non-catalytic removal of NOx, is the addition of ammonia to

the flue gas.
*a. True
b. False
702. The catalytic removal system requires injection of __________ in the presence
of a __________.
a. water, heat
b. fuel, air
c. lead, heat
*d. ammonia, catalyst
703. NOx removal catalyst used is a base metal compound, such as iron, lead, or
silver.
*a. True
b. False
704. A fluidized bed of limestone, will not only reduce nitrous oxides but will
also significantly reduce sulphur dioxide emissions by the combination of sulphur
dioxide with the limestone.
*a. True
b. False
705. Electrostatic precipitators have an efficiency of greater than 95%.
*a. True
b. False
706. CSA B51 establishes that every boiler, pressure vessel, safety valve, relief
valve, safety relief valve and rupture disc shall be stamped with an ASME Code
Symbol Stamp.
*a. True
b. False
707. ASME-approved shops undergo regular intensive inspections by inspectors

employed by ASME.
*a. True
b. False
708. ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code Section I applies to the Boiler proper
and the boiler “external piping”. Super heaters, economizers and other pressure
parts connected directly to the boiler.
*a. True
b. False
709. B31.3 Power Piping sets boiler piping rules for: materials, design,
fabrication, construction, and testing.
a. True
*b. False
710. B-31.1 Process Piping sets the rules for Pressure or Process Piping in the
rest of the plant that is not covered in B-31.1
a. True
*b. False
711. The three methods of welded pipe manufacture are: the electric fusion method,
the electric resistance method, or the double submerged-arc method.
*a. True
b. False
712. Pick the answer best describing the electric fusion method of pipe
manufacturing:
*a. Flat plate having the proper width and thickness and having been heated
in an electric furnace to the proper welding temperature is shaped by forming
rolls into a tube-like form.
b. Flat plate is formed cold into a tube shape by rollers and then it passes
between welding electrodes which make contact with the pipe on either side
of the joint.
c. Flat plate is formed into a tube shape and placed in an automatic welder
with the inside backed by a water-cooled copper shoe. Two electrodes are
used which are not in actual contact with the pipe. The welding current passes
from one electrode through a powdered flux and across the pipe joint to the
other electrode. A welding rod placed just above the pipe joint is thereby
melted and deposited in the groove of the pipe joint.
d. Flat plate rolled into a tube shape with heat and then welded free hand
tungsten weld.
713. The most frequently used materials for power piping systems are:
1) Inconel 800 H
2) Alloy steels
3) Low carbon steels
4) Galvanized steel
5) Austenitic stainless steels
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
*b. 2, 3, 5
c. 2, 3, 4, 5
d. 4, 5
e. 1, 3, 5
714. With regards to low carbon steel, graphitization is the breaking down of part
of the material into iron and graphite, and failure of the material will occur
along lines where there is a concentration of graphite.
*a. True
b. False
715. Nonferrous metals are those containing very little or no iron, such as red
brass, admiralty brass, aluminum brass, copper silicon and copper nickel alloys.
*a. True
b. False
716. The major advantage of plastic pipe is its resistance to corrosive materials
and its ease of installation.
*a. True
b. False
717. Plastic materials are limited to 1000 kPa and 60°C, for water service. For
other services, pressure and temperature limits shall be based on the hazards
involved, but in no application shall they exceed 1000 kPa and 60°C.
*a. True
b. False
718. PVC pipe is commonly used for ________________.
*a. potable water applications

b. underground fuel gas distribution
c. gravity and pressurized drainage systems
d. instrument air tubing
e. small bore hydrocarbon piping
719. What is ABS pipe commonly used for?
a. Pure water services and laboratory drainage systems

*b. Potable water systems and pressurized liquid lines for salt water, or
crude oil
c. Water and chemical waste lines
d. Raw sewage systems only
e. Hydrocarbon service
720. There are two broad classifications of plastic piping materials. They are
Thermoplastics and Thermosets. Thermoplastics will soften when heated, allowing
for shaping and forming. Thermosets will not soften when heated. They will start
to decompose if heated too high.
*a. True
b. False
721. What is Flexible Non-Metallic Pipe or Tubing commonly used for?
a. Buried flammable and combustible liquid service

b. Instrumentation tubing
c. Non-potable process or cooling water service
d. Small bore process piping
*e. Instrumentation tubing, water and steam piping to sample coolers
722. A steam line 200 m long is installed in a plant at an ambient temperature

of 15°C. When in service the line will carry steam at 400°C. How much will the
line increase in length when put into service?
a. 2.0 m
b. 0.5 m
*c. 0.847 m
d. 1.55 m
723. A fuel gas line 500 m long is installed in a plant at an ambient temperature
of 20°C. When in service the line will carry fuel gas at 250°C. How much will the
line increase in length when put into service?
a. 2.23 m
b. 1.5 m
c. 0.25 m
*d. 1.26 m
724. It is very important when commissioning a piping system to be aware of the

piping expansion. A very close watch must be kept on piping anchors and expansion
joints.
*a. True
b. False
725. The use of expansion bends for high pressure service is preferred
_________________.
a. because it is cost efficient

*b. because of the no maintenance involved and little likelihood of leaks
developing advantage
c. because expansion bends require a large amount of extra space
d. because more expansion allowed
e. there are no moving parts
726. Expansion loops are common on pipe racks with long runs of pipe.
*a. True
b. False
727. Several different methods are available for controlling pipeline expansion.
Two of the most common are ___________ _____ and __________ _____.
a. underground trenching, solid anchors

*b. expansion bends, expansion joints
c. different metals, temperature gradients
d. different procedure, operating parameters
728. The change in length of the pipe due to the change from out-of-service
temperature to in-service temperature may be calculated by considering the
coefficient of linear expansion of the pipe material and the length of the pipe.
*a. True
b. False
729. List the trap selection criteria for the application?
1) Condensate capacity, under start-up

2) Condensate capacity, under normal operating
3) Condensate temperature the trap will have to handle
4) Steam header temperature
5) Pressure differential across the trap
6) The location of the trap
a. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
*b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. 5, 6
730. Find the warm-up load in kg/h in warming up 50 m of 203.2 mm, Schedule 40
steel pipe to a working pressure of 1737 kPa in a warm-up time of 20 minutes. Initial
temperature of the pipe is 20°C. Table 1 lists the dimensions and the mass per
meter of different sizes of steel pipe with varying wall thickness.
a. 500 kg
*b. 102.89 kg
c. 58 kg
d. 1002.89 kg
731. In order to determine the correct size of the trap for an application, it
is necessary to calculate the condensate load to be removed by the trap, per hour.
*a. True
b. False
732. In order to accomplish this warm up in 20 minutes, the condensate rate /h
would be:
*a. 308.67 kg/h

b. 125 kg/h
c. 254 kg/h
d. 132 kg/h
733. If a group of traps drain into a common return header, a check valve should
be installed between the trap and the supply header.
a. True
*b. False
734. To have a single trap for two units is permitted, as long as the trap capacity
is not exceeded.
a. True
*b. False
735. The most positive method to test a trap to ensure it is working is to touch
the body of the trap.
a. True
*b. False
736. Describe three tasks done on a yearly trap inspection.
A. The trap body and operating parts should be examined for corrosion, erosion,
mechanical wear, etc
B. All internal parts should be cleaned and worn valves, seats, levers etc.,
should be replaced, as should cracked buckets, floats or bellows
C. Check trap housing temperature
D. All gasket seating surfaces should be thoroughly cleaned and new gaskets
used on reassembly
a. A, B, C, D
b. A, B
*c. A, B, D
d. D
737. The proper design of the trap and condensate return system is critical in
preventing water hammer in a condensate system.
*a. True
b. False
738. If a lift is used, then the most common type of trap used is the Thermostatic
trap.
a. True
*b. False
739. In some systems where the temperature from one condensate stream is
___________ than ______________, a small ____________________ is used to ________
the cooler condensate.
*a. much cooler, another stream, steam heat exchanger, heat up

b. hotter, water, steam injection, change
c. colder, steam, temperature gauge, measure
d. smaller, the other, time count, blend
740. What checks will be made to ensure a line is completely drained of condensate?
A. Make sure that the line is completely blocked in at both ends

B. Slowly open each low point drain on the steam line. Be sure the drain lines
are free and clear of any blockage
C. Open downstream flange
D. Check that each trap is in service
E. Ensure all condensate has been drained from the pressurized side of the
steam supply valve
*a. A, B, D, E
b. A, B, C, D, E
c. A, B, E
d. A, B
741. List three purposes of insulation.
1) Retains the heat in the hot lines

2) Protects the metal surfaces from rust
3) Prevents the temperature inside the power plant building from becoming
uncomfortably high
4) Insulating of hot pipelines will prevent injury to personnel due to
contact with the bare surfaces of the pipe.
a. 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
*c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4
742. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of a material is a measure of the

amount of heat that will be transmitted through this material. Therefore, the
higher the value of thermal conductivity for a material, the better will be its
insulating ability.
a. True
*b. False
743. What type of insulation will most likely be used for HP steam piping?
a. Fiberglass
b. Cloth
*c. Calcium silicate
d. Refractory fiber
744. Piping insulation is normally fabricated in half-cylindrical sections for

fitting over the pipe. It is held together by __________ or _______, and then
________ with ______ _____, ___________ or galvanized steel.
a. glue, tape, covered, fabric, sheeting

*b. metal wire, bands, covered, sheet metal, aluminum
c. gravity, weight, pasted, plaster, sheeting
d. friction, tightness, closed, paint, tar
745. The environment determines whether to use aluminum or stainless steel

cladding. If metal cladding is used in a chemical installation where there are
caustic lines, the insulation is covered or wrapped with stainless steel. This
is done to prevent damage to the covering in the event of a leak or spill.
*a. True
b. False
746. Insulating blankets are used in various applications. They are difficult to
install and remove for maintenance. They are very convenient for use with expansion
joints, valves, steam traps and other odd shaped vessels, and they can be used
in high temperature applications.
a. True
*b. False
747. In valve selection an examination of the fluid to be handled is made to

determine its ___________ and __________.
a. mass, viscosity
*b. properties, characteristics
c. texture, corrosiveness
d. color, odor
748. Fluid friction loss and pressure drop are inherent losses that are responsible
for a major portion of the total energy loss in many fluid-handling systems.
*a. True
b. False
749. The gate valve, consists of a gate-like ______, actuated by a screwed stem
and hand wheel, which moves up and down at _________ ________ to the flow.
*a. disc, right angles

b. stopper, close proximity
c. metal, slow speed
d. device, more distance
750. Globe valves have the largest pressure drop or head loss of the valve types
*a. True
b. False
751. Valve sizes are selected in accordance with the _______ needed and permissible
fluid-friction _______.
a. size, characteristics
*b. capacity, losses
c. service, numbers
d. agency, advantage
752. List factors involved in valve selection:
A. Economics
B. Corrosion
C. Shape
D. Valve lifespan
E. Process reliability
a. A, B
b. A, B, C, D
c. A, B, C, E
*d. A, B, D, E
753. The valve trim refers to the valve _____ and ______.
a. wheel, stem
b. bonnet, packing
*c. disc, seat
d. inlet, outlet
754. Variables effecting material selection are:
A. The process fluid and its temperature.

B. The pressure range that the system will operate in.
C. The ambient temperature.
D. If the process fluid is very corrosive.
*a. A, B, D
b. A, B, D
c. A, B
d. B, C, D
755. All valves must be properly identified as to the material of construction

and the service conditions for which they are designed, the following basic
information:
1) Manufacturer's name or trademark

2) Type of weather proof insulation required
3) Service designation, for example, pressure-temperature for which the
fitting is designated
4) Material designation, for example, steel or cast iron, and ASTM Number
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
*d. 1, 3, 4
756. Generally, in gate valves, the parts most severely worn are the discs and
seats.
*a. True
b. False
757. ________ valve bodies in general can be used on water service up to

temperatures of about 250°C.
a. Brass
b. Steel
c. Steel alloys
*d. Cast-iron
e. Stainless steel
758. Name 3 types of gate design __________ __________ ____________.
a. flexible, full, split

*b. solid, flexible, split
c. solid, flexible, hinged
d. solid, movable, split
759. A V-shaped insert type of valve would be used as a control valve as flow
characteristics are usually more __________ .
a. straight
b. flatter
*c. linear
d. mixed
760. In the outside screw and yoke valve, the stem threads are outside of the valve,
and therefore, are subject to extreme temperature changes with resulting galling.
a. True
*b. False
761. A valve that the handwheel and stem rise as the handwheel is turned is called
a ____________.
a. hand lever
b. outside screw threads
*c. rising stem
d. inside screw threads
e. disk rising on stem
762. List 4 methods of attaching a bonnet to a valve body:
A. Welded
B. Union
C. Flanged
D. Threaded
E. Molded
F. Compression fit
a. A, B, C, E, F
b. B, C, E, F
c. A, B, C
*d. A, B, C, D
763. Globe valves are used for:
A. Throttling
B. Controlling fluid flow
C. Positive isolation
D. Quick opening
E. Abrasive fluids
*a. A, B
b. A, B, C
c. A, B, C, D
d. A, B, C, D, E
764. The conventional disc globe valve is fairly ________ and popular in
low-pressure service where severe __________ is not required.
*a. cheap, throttling

b. small, space
c. expensive, temperature
d. reasonable, costs
765. The composition disc valve, is an improvement over the ball type disc for
many services, and is most suitable for throttling purposes.
a. True
*b. False
766. The plug type globe valve is the best of the three types for ________ and
______ service.
a. cost, maintenance
*b. throttling, hard
c. size, hot
d. strength, wide
767. High-pressure single-ported globe bodies, or plug type, are often used in
production of _____ and __________.
a. steam, boiler feed water

*b. oil, gas
c. acid, caustic
d. butane, propane
768. Balance valves have nearly the same pressure on the top and bottom of the
valve plug. This greatly reduces the mechanical effort required to move the valve
or to hold it in a steady position.
*a. True
b. False
769. The single seated balance valve, has a _______ _______ moving inside a
removable cage, which holds down a seating ring.
a. large hole
*b. valve plug
c. tapered stem
d. round disc
770. Describe the double seated balance valve.
a. It has a valve plug that moves inside a removable cage, which holds down
a seating ring.
b. A valve body with cage-style trim, balanced plug and soft seat. It is
single-ported as only one seat ring is used.
*c. It can pass up to twice as much fluid as a single port valve. It generally
divides the flow in half through two control ports.
d. Downstream pressure acts on both the top and bottom of the valve plug,
thereby equalizing most of the forces.
771. In a balance plug design, downstream __________ acts on both the top and bottom
of the valve plug, there by __________ most of the forces.
a. flow, parting
b. temperature, maintaining
*c. pressure, equalizing
d. fluid, creating
772. Match the Valves with their descriptors:
A. Single seated balance valve

B. Double seated balance valve
C. Balanced plug
1) Cage-style trim is used to provide valve plug guiding, seat ring
retention, and flow characterization.
2) Has a valve plug that moves inside a removable cage, which holds down
a seating ring.
3) Divides the flow in half through two control ports.
a. A/1, B/2, C/3

b. A/2, B/1, C/3
c. A/3, B/2, C/1
*d. A/2, B/3, C/1
773. Plug Valves consist of a tapered or straight vertical cylinder _________ into
a valve body.
a. welded
b. threaded
c. pressed
*d. inserted
774. The plug turns with the help of a _______ or is ______ operated.
a. motor, manual
*b. wrench, gear
c. piston, automatically
d. wheel, gear
775. List plug valve gland types:
A. Single gland
B. Double gland
C. Button gland
D. Bolted gland
E. Piston gland
F. Screwed gland
a. A, C, D, F
*b. A, D, F
c. A, B, D, F
d. A, C, D, E
776. T-ported plug valves have ports in the plug in the shape of a cross.
a. True
*b. False
777. The eccentric plug valve, is specially designed for ___________________.
a. tight spaces, as the body is very small

b. applications when 4 or more systems must be connected
*c. severe rotary applications, as it features tight shut off with globe
style seating
d. large oil and gas facilities
778. What is the purpose of the bolted jacket/s?
a. To strengthen the valve body

b. Prevent valve leaks
c. Provide a smooth surface for painting
*d. Apply heat to the valve body
779. The mixing valve is designed with two ______ and one __________ for blending
two fluids.
a. flanges, drain
*b. inlets, discharge
c. stems, gate
d. glands, body
780. Regarding a mixing valve, when the plug is fully down then the bottom inlet
is open. When the plug is fully raised, the side inlet flow is shut off.
*a. True
b. False
781. The diverting valve is a three-way valve, with _____ inlet and _____ outlets,
a. two, one
b. small, large
*c. one, two
d. one, three
782. Describe the diverter valve operation.
a. Moving the valve stem varies the proportion of liquid or gas entering
each of the inlets. There is a continuous flow from the outlet regardless
of the valve plug position.
*b. The inlet pressure acts equally on both valve plugs, reducing the force
needed to move the valve stem. An unbalanced force will be produced if one
discharge line has a higher pressure than the other discharge line.
c. When the plug is fully down, the bottom inlet is shut off. When the plug
is fully raised, the side inlet flow is shut off. Any intermediate position
proportions the two inlet flows to meet the operating needs.
d. The valve may maintain a constant level of fluid in a vessel, but if the
inlet flow is too high when the level is maximum, the excess input can be
diverted to another vessel.
783. Describe Diaphragm Valve applications.
A. Flow control service when handling corrosive and toxic fluids.

B. Used extensively in raw water treatment plants, in sulfuric acid
applications.
C. A stream lined valve for installation in small places.
D. Generally in services where bubble-tight or drip-tight closure is
mandatory.
E. Mostly used for boiler feed water ingestion.
*a. A, B, D
b. A, B, C, D
c. A, B, E
d. B, C, D, E
784. Diaphragm valves have three basic parts: the valve _____, the valve _____
assembly, and the flexible disc or _________ .
a. actuator, stem, body

*b. body, bonnet, diaphragm
c. body, seat, packing
d. inlet, outlet, seat
785. Diaphragms are made of any of materials resistant to the particular fluids
being transported. Choose four:
A. Rubber
B. Neoprene
C. Cloth
D. Stainless steel
E. Polyethylene
F. Tin foil
a. B, C, D, E
b. B, D, E
c. A, B, C, E
*d. A, B, D, E
786. Maximum temperature of fluids handled must be below the temperature limit
for the diaphragm material.
*a. True
b. False
787. List advantages of diaphragm valves:
1) The diaphragm is separated from the fluid and no packing material is

required as in conventional valves.
2) Maintenance costs are much lower than conventional valves.
3) The bonnet assembly can be removed for cleaning or lubricating without
shutting off the fluid in the line.
4) A positive tight seal is always maintained.
5) Diaphragm valves can be used in all services.
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
*c. 1, 3
d. 3, 4
e. 2, 5
788. The butterfly valve is often used as a final control element in ____ or large
______ piping systems.
*a. air, water

b. gas, bore
c. water, diameter
d. oil, fluid
789. List the two ways butterfly valves are installed into a piping system:
1) Welded
2) Unions
3) Flanged
4) Wafer
5) Glues
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
*c. 3, 4
d. 4, 5
e. 1, 5
790. List the three subcategories of butterfly valves.
1) Swing-through
2) Large
3) Small
4) Lined
5) High performance
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 3, 4, 5
*c. 1, 4, 5
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 3, 5
791. High performance butterfly valves have an eccentric shaft mounting allowing
the disc to swing clear of the seal to minimize wear and torque.
*a. True
b. False
792. Gears provide a mechanical advantage permitting _____ _____ to operate the
valve, where ____ might otherwise be needed.
a. small people, large

*b. one person, two
c. large valves, small valves
d. motors, manual
793. In a direct-operating valve, the solenoid plunger is used in place of a valve

stem and hand-wheel. The plunger is connected directly to the disc of a globe valve.
As the solenoid coil is energized or de-energized, the plunger rises or falls,
opening or closing the valve.
*a. True
b. False
794. Where are Solenoid valves used?
1) Small size systems where on and off operation is required>

2) Fuel gas systems as the latching valve
3) Cooling water systems
4) Continuous flow control
a. 1, 4
b. 2, 4
*c. 1, 2
d. 2, 3
e. 3, 4
795. What are the advantages of electrical valve operators?
1) Can be set up for operation from several different locations; remotely

operated.
2) Remote indicating devices can be installed to show the position of the
valve at any operating station.
3) Valve operating speeds (to close the valve) from two seconds for some
units, to four minutes can be reached.
4) Valves can be operated without personnel having to climb ladders or
enter dangerous locations.
*a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4
d. 4
796. Which best describes a spring-loaded diaphragm actuator?
*a. It a diaphragm and a diaphragm plate connected to an actuator stem.

b. The adjusting spring allows external setting or adjustment of the initial
spring compression.
c. Has no springs and are often used in applications requiring a valve
positioner.
d. Are employed in small size systems where on and off operation is required.
797. Pneumatic or hydraulic piston actuators are used when the force required in
moving a valve or a damper is higher than that which can be provided by a diaphragm
actuator.
*a. True
b. False
798. Resistance:
1) Limits current flow

2) Depends on material
3) Depends on temperature
4) Depends on dimensions
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
*e. 1, 2, 3, 4
799. Conductive materials.
1) Gain resistance while temperature rises while others lose resistance

2) Have no resistance change with temperature change
3) Always have resistance changing directly with temperature
4) Can vary resistance directly or inversely with temperature
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 2, 3
c. 2, 4
*d. 1, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
800. Free valence electrons flow from _______ when connected to an electrical
supply.
a. positive to negative
*b. negative to positive
c. positive to proton
d. negative to proton
e. positive to neutron
801. The free valence electrons of a conductor, when connected to the poles of
a battery will move towards ______________.
a. both poles at the same time

b. the negative pole
*c. the positive pole
d. either or both poles, quite randomly
e. the cathode
802. An electrical source could be in the form of a:
1) Battery
2) Magnet
3) Flux
4) Generator
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 2, 3
*c. 1, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
803. What practical unit is used to represent resistance?
a. Watt
b. Amp
*c. Ohm
d. Microhms
e. Henry
804. The Electric current flow depends on the number of charges

___________________.
a. between two points

b. per second
*c. in motion
d. as a potential
e. per mechanical power output
805. The power source must maintain a potential difference _____________________.
*a. between two points

b. across the emf
c. across the short circuit
d. within the load
e. between the prime mover and generator
806. What factors determine the resistance of a conductor?
a. Weight, length, diameter and temperature.

*b. Type of material, length, diameter and temperature.
c. Weight, type of material, length and diameter.
d. Weight, type of material, length, diameter and temperature.
e. Weight, length, temperature and diameter.
807. A conductor's resistance to current flow is dependent on the following

factors.
a. Weight, length, diameter and temperature.

*b. Type of material, length, diameter and temperature.
c. Weight, type of material, length and diameter.
d. Weight, type of material, length, diameter and temperature.
e. Weight, type of material, length and temperature.
808. In a magnetic circuit, the magnetic flux is the equivalent of electric

_____________ in an electric circuit.
a. voltage
b. reluctance
*c. current
d. resistance
e. inductance
809. When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, the field
produced by the conductor __________ the magnetic field between the poles.
a. adds to
b. subtracts from
*c. distorts
d. crosses
e. straightens
810. When a loop of current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, the
wire loop will ____________________.
a. turn clockwise
b. generate a current
*c. have a torque produced on it
d. turn counter-clockwise
e. straightens itself out
811. If a conductor is moved relative to a magnetic field so as to "cut" the magnetic

flux then an _______________ will be induced in the conductor.
*a. emf
b. current
c. reluctance
d. back emf
e. inductance
812. A magnetic field is always considered to travel from _____________.
a. positive to negative
b. negative to positive
c. upward to downward
d. south to north
*e. north to south
813. In a generator, the direction of the induced emf can be determined by applying
Fleming's ________ Hand Rule.
a. Back
b. Two
c. Inverse
d. Left
*e. Right
814. If the current in the conductor is reversed, or if the direction of the main
field is reversed, then the force on the conductor will be reversed.
*a. True
b. False
815. When a current carrying conductor forming a loop is placed inside an external
magnetic field, then the external field will cause the loop to______________.
a. vibrate
b. generate an AC current
*c. produce a torque
d. generate a DC current
e. generate a DC voltage
816. The magneto motive force in a magnetic circuit has its equivalent in an
electric circuit which is the _____________.
*a. voltage
b. magnetic flux
c. electric current
d. reluctance
e. inductance
817. The armature of a DC generator is wrapped with field windings.
*a. True
b. False
818. The air gaps between the poles and the armature are _____________.
a. filled with insulation

b. subject to sparking
c. increased with speed
*d. kept comparatively small
e. to insulate the poles from the armature
819. What is the yoke in a DC machine is usually made of?
*a. Steel
b. Copper
c. Aluminum
d. Insulation
e. Semi-conducting materials
820. What should the end shields hold?
a. The armature conductors at the ends of the armature.

b. The field windings tightly to the field poles.
c. The brushes in contact with the armature.
d. The rotor and the armature together.
*e. The bearing housings.
821. Whaat is the armature core made of?
a. Copper
b. Copper laminations
c. Hard steel laminations
*d. Soft iron or mild steel laminations
e. Stainless steel laminations
822. The assembled armature core_____________.

a. is wrapped with field windings
*b. has axial slots around its periphery
c. contacts the brushes
d. is constructed of hard-drawn copper bars
e. is connected with the rotor
823. The displacement between the centers of adjacent poles in an armature is

_____________________.
*a. one pole pitch

b. 360 electrical degrees
c. 180 mechanical degrees
d. 90 electrical degrees
e. 120 electrical degrees
824. The displacement between the centers of adjacent poles in an armature

are_____________________.
a. 360 mechanical degrees

b. 360 electrical degrees
c. 180 mechanical degrees
*d. 180 electrical degrees
e. 90 electrical degrees
825. Neutral axis refers to?
a. A position of the stator causing maximum sparking.

b. A position of the stator causing minimum sparking.
*c. A position of the brushes causing minimum sparking.
d. A position of the brushes causing maximum sparking.
e. A position of the rotor causing minimum sparking.
826. With regard to the air gaps between the poles and the armature, such gaps
must be ____________________.
a. filled with insulation

b. kept large to prevent sparking
c. increased with speed
*d. kept comparatively small
e. kept large to prevent short circuiting
827. The torque produced by the armature conductors in a generator:
1) Increases with load

2) Decreases with load
3) Opposes the driving torque
4) Is load torque
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
*c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
828. The emf induced in a moving conductor depends on__________________.
a. the load
b. the back emf
c. the temperature
d. the counter current
*e. the speed of the moving conductor
829. Armature reaction _______________ the main field.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. reverses
*d. distorts
e. restores
830. Interpoles carry _______________ current.
a. field
b. load
c. flux
*d. armature
e. stator
831. Interpoles are connected in series with the ___________:
a. field coils
b. load
*c. armature
d. field poles
e. stator
832. A way of overcoming armature reaction is by________________________.
a. placing the brushes at the air gaps

b. feeding AC current into the brushes
*c. inserting interpoles between the main poles
d. reversing the brushes of the armature conductors
e. correcting the positions of the poles
833. The separately excited generator has a _______________ load characteristic.
a. rising
b. level
*c. falling
d. series
e. parallel
834. The manner in which the terminal voltage varies with a varying load current
is called the _____________________.
*a. percentage voltage regulation

b. external characteristic
c. internal characteristic
d. no-load characteristic
e. full-load characteristic
835. The shunt generator has a no-load characteristic similar to that of the
_________________ generator.
a. series
b. parallel
c. compound
*d. separately-excited
e. internally-excited
836. The three basic ways in which a self-excited generator can be connected are
classified as:
1) Shunt generator
2) Compound generator
3) Series generator
4) Parallel generator
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4
*d. 1, 2, 3
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
837. In a series generator, the load current and generated voltage increase in
inverse ratio to the load resistance until ________________.
a. the machine reaches maximum speed

*b. the magnetic saturation of the poles is reached
c. the generator stops
d. the generator reaches its maximum operating temperature
e. the generator reaches its minimum operating temperature
838. For DC generators the nearer to zero the percentage voltage regulation is
then _______________.
a. the poorer the voltage regulation
b. the greater the voltage regulation
c. the higher the operating temperature possible
*d. the better the voltage regulation
e. the lower the operating temperature possible
839. Excitation of the shunt field is controlled by?
*a. A regulating rheostat

b. A mechanical governor
c. A converter
d. A long shunt
e. A short shunt
840. Series motor speed, a DC motor only takes the amount of current it requires
to handle the load it is driving. Hence, the current is very low, and as the speed
is inversely proportional to the field flux, the speed can become dangerously high.
For this reason the series motor must never be operated without a load.
*a. True
b. False
841. The behavior of the separately excited generator with regard to its load
characteristic is that as load increases, its delivery voltage _______________.
a. steeply rises
*b. remains constant
c. slightly falls
d. slightly fluctuates
e. slightly above normal
842. In a shunt motor, if the field becomes disconnected during operation the motor
will _______________.
*a. over speed

b. under speed
c. slow down
d. stop
e. not change
843. Some of the characteristics of the series direct current motor include:
1) A small current at no-load conditions

2) The danger of overspeed as the load is removed
3) The load current equals the excitation current
4) Its speed is directly proportional to field flux
*a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
844. Speed control is usually restricted to ________ motors:
1) Series
2) Shunt
3) Residual
4) Compounded
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 4
d. 2, 3
*e. 2, 4
845. Where high starting torques are required but the running load may be small
the DC motor to use would be the?
a. Series
b. Shunt
*c. Compound
d. Under compounded
e. Over compounded
846. In a shunt motor torque is proportional to _________________.
*a. the armature current

b. the armature voltage
c. the square of the armature current
d. the length of the armature
e. the diameter of the armature
847. When high starting torque is desired a _____________ DC motor is best.
*a. Series
b. Shunt
c. Compound
d. Three phase
e. Manual start
848. DC motors are restricted to a starting current of about _______ percent of

full load current.
a. 50
b. 100
*c. 150
d. 200
e. 250
849. The three-point starter for DC motors has connections for:
1) Line
2) Positive
3) Negative
4) Field
5) Armature
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 3
*e. 1, 4, 5
850. Where approximate constant speed is to be maintained between no-load and

full-load the DC motor to use would be the______________.
a. Series
*b. Shunt
c. Compound
d. Separately-excited
e. Self-excited
851. Where a large starting torque is of prime importance the DC motor to use would
be the _________________.
*a. Series
b. Long-shunt
c. Short-shunt
d. Compound
e. Cumulative compound
852. As the flux of a shunt motor remains constant its torque is

________________________.
a. inversely proportional to armature current

*b. proportional to armature current
c. increased
d. decreased
e. unchanged
853. The voltage drop at the armature of a shunt DC motor is a percentage that
normally does not exceed _________.
a. 0.05%
b. 0.5%
c. 0.9%
*d. 5.0%
e. 50%
854. The most common type of industrial electrical generation is the _____________.
a. single phase
b. two phase
*c. three phase
d. DC generators
e. AC motors
855. When you are synchronizing an electrical generator and the synchronizing lamps
are dark, you ________________.
*a. should have higher voltage ratings than the line system
b. have lower voltage rating
c. have two or more lamps connected in parallel
d. should have colored glass
e. should have higher current ratings than the line system
856. Modern alternators consist of a rotor on which the AC voltage producing

windings are placed and a rotating stator on which a DC excitation winding is
placed.
a. True
*b. False
857. In the case of the single-phase alternator, the coil windings are connected
in three different groups, one for each phase.
a. True
*b. False
858. An alternator is a ___________________.
a. three phase AC converter

b. DC generator
c. wound rotor motor
*d. AC generator
e. single phase AC converter
859. Alternators __________________________.
a. have AC excitation on the rotor

b. DC excitation voltage on the stator
*c. have a rotating armature on which a DC excitation winding is placed
d. slip rings on the stator
e. split ring on the rotor
860. Salient pole rotors _________________________.
a. are used on high speed alternators

*b. are used on alternators not exceeding 1800 rpm
c. require no maintenance
d. are used on only single phase generators
e. are used on only three phase generators
861. What is the most common frequency of AC generators in North America?
a. 40 hertz
b. 120 hertz
c. 110 hertz
d. 55 hertz
*e. 60 hertz
862. The best method of synchronizing an alternator to a system is

____________________.
*a. by using the synchroscope

b. by using the dark lamp
c. by using one dark, and two bright rotating brushes
d. by using the phase indicator
e. by using all dark rotating brushes
863. Paralleling alternators require the following conditions:
1) It must be in phase with the system

2) The incoming alternator must be the same voltage as the system
3) Its phase sequence must be the same as the system
4) Alternator frequency and system frequency must be the same
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4
*e. 1, 2, 3, 4
864. To take an alternator off the line in a system involving two or more
alternators, the driving torque of the prime mover of the alternator to be removed
should be reduced until it is supplying no current to the busbars.
*a. True
b. False
865. For paralleling alternators, the incoming alternator must be the same
___________ as the system voltage.
a. manufacturer
b. conductance
*c. voltage
d. amperage
866. The most common type of rotor used in induction motors is the squirrel cage
rotor.
*a. True
b. False
867. The stator of the induction motor is identical to that of the three-phase
alternator.
*a. True
b. False
868. Wound rotor induction motors ___________________.
a. require less maintenance than squirrel cage motors

b. are less complicated in construction than other motors
c. are more reliable
d. are not very reliable
*e. are used to control speed
869. Synchronous motors ______________________________.
a. have a lagging power factor

b. depend on slip for its torque
c. are only single phase
*d. can be run at a leading power factor
e. can be run at a lagging power factor
870. Synchronous motors _____________________________.
a. can be run at very high speeds

*b. can be run as an alternator or a motor
c. are very expensive compared to other motors
d. do not require brushes or slip rings
e. are low speed machines
871. Synchronous motors _____________________________.
*a. require DC power supply to the rotor

b. require DC power supply to the stator
c. require a high slip to control speed
d. require a starting motor
e. are self-starting
872. Synchronous motors ____________________________.
a. are used in small plants to cut costs

b. usually are very small and compact compared to three phase induction
motors
c. require higher rated insulation values than other motors
*d. can be used to help correct power factor
e. can not be used to help correct power factor
873. One of the main advantages of the synchronous motor is that it can be run
at lagging power factor unlike other motors, which run at a leading power factor.
a. True
*b. False
874. The synchronous motor is _________________________.
a. self starting
*b. not self starting
c. used to create a lagging power factor
d. a split phase type motor
e. used to decrease the power factor
875. Starting methods and devices used on electric motors are used to
____________________________.
a. increase voltage during start up

b. increase power factor
c. increase current when starting
d. increase starting torque
*e. reduce voltage during start up
876. Line impedance starters __________________________.
*a. use resistors or inductors in series with each phase in order to reduce
the starting current
b. open relays for starting
c. reverse the polarity
d. increase the conductance for starting
e. increase the line frequency
877. Star-delta starting _____________________________.
a. is used for any type of starting

*b. is used on motors designed to run as delta connected machines
c. is used only for synchronous motors
d. can be used for only DC machines
e. can be used for AC or DC generators
878. The autotransformer is used to step down voltage, the entire winding acts
as the primary and part of the winding acts as the secondary. The action of the
autotransformer is similar to the two winding transformer.
*a. True
b. False
879. Synchronous motors are started by ____________________.
*a. the amortisseur winding

b. the shunt winding
c. the capacitor
d. the delta winding
e. the wye winding
880. Line impedance starters; this method of starting is relatively more expensive
but gives a lower starting torque than other methods.
a. True
*b. False
881. Induction motor starting when directly connected to the source

_______________________________.
a. require very little current starting up

b. need slightly more current for start up
c. need only normal current and voltage for starting
*d. require up to six times its full-load current when starting
e. require a starting motor
882. In a variable frequency driver, in general, the percentage drop in frequency

is proportional to the percentage drop in motor speed. For example, an induction
motor rotates at 1725 r/min when supplied with ac power at 60 Hz, will operate
at 1581 r/min.
*a. True
b. False
883. Transformers are used for:
1) Stepping up AC voltage
2) Stepping down AC voltage
3) Transforming AC voltage to DC voltage
4) Rectifying DC voltage to AC voltage
*a. 1, 2
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
884. Transformers function on the principle of __________________________.
a. conductance
b. high resistance to DC current
c. interaction of residual magnetism
*d. mutual inductance
e. mutual conductance
885. Auto-transformers _______________________________.
*a. can use less copper

b. use more copper
c. have large ratios of transformation
d. use two windings for primary and secondary circuits
e. have a lower ratios of transformation
886. Current transformers are __________________________.
a. power step-up transformers

b. current step-up transformers
c. rectifying transformers
d. high power factor transformers
*e. voltage step-up transformers
887. Modern transformers are very efficient devices with large industrial
transformers often better than 95% efficient.
*a. True
b. False
888. Three phase systems often use banks of _______ ________ transformer to replace
three-phase transformers.
a. double phase
*b. single phase
c. step down
d. step up
889. If the number of secondary turns is such that the secondary voltage is smaller
than the primary voltage, then the transformer is a __________ ___________
transformer.
a. small scale
b. ramp up
c. quick step
d. step up
*e. step down
890. Transformers are cooled by:
1) Spraying water over the coils

2) Placing the core in an oil filled tank
3) Forced cooling by fans
4) Using pyrene as a coolant
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 4
*c. 2, 3
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
891. In a single-phase transformer, it can be assumed that all the flux produced
by the primary cuts every turn of both the primary and secondary winding, thereby
inducing the same voltage in every turn. If the number of secondary turns is less
than the number of primary turns, then the voltage induced in the secondary will
be larger than that induced in the primary
a. True
*b. False
892. The main function of a power distribution system is to provide electrical

power, for whatever need, in a safe and dependable manner.
*a. True
b. False
893. A dual supply system is one in which two independent power lines are used
to __________ the same load.
a. make
*b. supply
c. balance
d. carry
894. Under normal operation, both incoming breakers, are ______ and the tiebreaker
is ______.
a. closed, closed
b. open, closed
*c. closed, open
d. open, open
895. Describe Kilowatt hours meter.
a. This is an indication of the AC kilowatts that the generator is producing.

*b. This is a meter that measures and records the amount of power produced
by the generator.
c. This gives an indication of the DC voltage that is being supplied to the
generators field windings.
d. This is a measurement of the reactive power being generated by the AC
generation system.
896. Describe exciter field voltage meter.
a. This is an indication of the AC kilowatts that the generator is producing.

b. This is a meter that measures and records the amount of power produced
by the generator.
*c. This gives an indication of the DC voltage that is being supplied to
the generators field windings.
generation system.
897. Describe exciter field current meter.
a. This is a meter that measures and records the amount of power produced
by the generator.
*b. This gives an indication of the DC current that is being supplied to
the generators field windings.
c. This is a measurement of the reactive power being generated by the AC
generation system.
generation system.
898. Describe AC Kilovars:
by the generator.
b. This gives an indication of the DC current that is being supplied to the
*c. This is a measurement of the reactive power being generated by the AC
generation system.
d. This is an indication of the AC kilowatts the generator is producing.
899. Describe A, B & C Phases in a three phase generator.
*a. These are an indication of the AC current, expressed in amps, being

produced by the three-phase generator.
by the generator.
generation system.
900. Describe the purpose of the voltage adjust.
a. This is to adjust the generator output voltage.

*b. This is to adjust the generator excitation voltage.
c. This is to adjust the generator output phase voltage.
d. This is to adjust the generator output current.
901. Describe the purpose of the frequency meter:
by the generator.
b. This gives an indication of the DC current that is being supplied to the
c. This is a measurement of the reactive power being generated by the AC
generation system.
*d. This is an indication of the frequency of the power being produced. It
is expressed in hertz's.
902. Describe the purpose of the power factor meter.
*a. This is a meter to check the power factor of the generating system.
by the generator.
generation system.
903. Describe the purpose of the AC volt meter.
by the generator.
b. This gives an indication of the DC voltage that is being supplied to the
*c. This is an indication of the AC voltage, expressed in volts, which is
being produced by the three-phase generator.
generation system.
904. Describe the purpose of the AC kilovars meter.
*a. This is a measurement of the reactive power being generated by the AC

generation system.
b. This gives an indication of the DC voltage that is being supplied to the
c. This is an indication of the AC voltage, expressed in volts, which is
being produced by the three-phase generator.
generation system.
905. Describe the purpose of the voltmeter selector.
a. This is to adjust the generator output voltage.

b. This is to adjust the generator excitation voltage.
*c. This is used to check and verify the voltage on each phase of the
generator.
d. This is to adjust the generator output phase voltage.
906. The fuse link is so sized that the heat created by the normal flow of voltage
through it is not sufficient to fuse or melt the metal.
a. True
*b. False
907. Cartridge fuses are used on circuits with voltage ratings up to ____ volts,
the standard voltage ratings of these fuses being ____ and ____ volts.
a. 110, 50, 110

*b. 600, 250, 600
c. 24, 5, 24
d. 110, 220, 110
908. Time lag fuses have two parts, a _______ cutout part and a _____ link.
a. timer, reset
b. metal. Powder
*c. thermal, fuse
d. voltage, amp
909. What is a Safety switch device used for?
a. Protection of low current flow.

b. Detecting the voltage of circuit.
c. Current flow indication.
*d. Isolating parts of an electric circuit.
910. A circuit breaker is an automatic device that ______________________.
a. indicates circuit status

b. opens under abnormally high current conditions
c. provides a circuit junction box
*d. Both A /B
911. Relay systems may cause circuit breakers to open due to changes in ________,
________ or ________.
a. voltage, amperage, resistance

*b. frequency, voltage, current
c. power factor, impedence, resistance
d. resistance, conductance, reluctance
912. When a ___________ generator loses excitation, the rotor accelerates and it
operates as an induction generator, running above __________ speed.
a. three phase, rated

*b. synchronous, synchronous
c. AC, governor
d. DC, generator
913. Over excitation most often occurs:
1) During start up / shutdown

2) Operating at reduced frequency
3) Complete load rejection
4) A failure in the excitation system
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 2, 3
*c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 4
914. Generator over voltage may occur during:
1) Load rejection
2) High generator speed
3) Low frequency
4) Excitation control failure
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
*c. 1, 4
d. 4
915. If a dead generator is accidentally energized, while on turning gear, it will

start and behave as an ________ _______.
a. AC generator
b. DC generator
*c. induction motor
d. prime mover
916. Excess power results in an _______ _______ condition with a possible
overvoltage from reduced load demands.
a. under frequency
*b. over frequency
c. surge like
d. over excitation
917. A second stator ground fault will cause extensive damage by:
1) Shorting out parts of the field winding

2) Causing high unit vibrations
3) Causing rotor heating from unbalanced currents
4) Arc damage at the points of the fault
5) No real damage at all
6) Cause the generator to produce single phase power
*a. 1, 2, 3,
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
d. 4, 5, 6
918. An uninterruptible power supply is required for plant systems that cannot
tolerate a momentary loss of ________ and/or ________.
a. power, lights
b. current, voltage
c. production, down time
*d. voltage, frequency
919. Consider all circuits to be alive unless one is certain that they are _____
and cannot, by some human error, be made _____.
a. isolated, connected
*b. dead, live
c. not, open
d. 220 V, 110 V
920. An operator must isolate all equipment, such as pumps, before maintenance
is started. All switches must be locked open, at the source of the power.
*a. True
b. False
921. List sequence of events for equipment isolation:
A. Consider all circuits to be alive unless one is certain that they are dead
and cannot, by some human error, be made live.
B. Place tags that show equipment is out of service for maintenance when opening
an electrical circuit. The tag should bear the name of the person who put it there
and should only be removed by this person and the switch reclosed by that person.
An operator should isolate all equipment, such as pumps, before maintenance is
started.
C. All switches must be locked open, at the source of the power.
D. Test the equipment, after isolation, by attempting to start it at the

start/stops station. The circuit may be open but charged capacitors can injure
a person. Always open switches completely before removing fuses.
E. If it is necessary to change a fuse in a live circuit, use approved fuse

pullers that can withstand the line voltage.
F. When removing fuses of live circuits, break contact with the line side first.
Make contact with the line side first when inserting a new fuse.
G. Switches should be opened in a firm, positive manner to prevent arcing.
a. A, B, C, D, E, F, G
b. F, G, E, A, B, C, D
*c. A, G, C, D, B, E, F
d. A, G, C, B, E, D, F
922. Ohm's Law can be used to ________________________.
a. calculate current flow if the applied emf and resistance are known
b. calculate the required emf to cause a required current to flow through
a known resistance
c. calculate the required circuit resistance if the voltage and current flow
are known
923. A DC circuit has 12 volts and a resistance of 300 ohms. The current flowing
is___________.
a. 0.4 amps
*b. 40 milliamps
c. 400 milliamps
d. 3600 amps
e. 25 milliamps
924. Circuit voltage is 24. Current is 10 amps. The resistance is ___________.
a. 240 ohms
b. 0.240 micro-ohms
*c. 2.4 ohms
d. 0.416 ohms
e. 24 ohms
925. According to Ohm's Law __________________________.
*a. if you raise E, I will go up

b. if you raise E, I will go down
c. if you raise R, I will go up
d. if you lower R, I will go down
e. if you raise I, R will go up
926. If a light bulb in a circuit has a resistance of 100 ohms and 1 ampere of
current flows in the circuit when the switch is closed, what is the voltage output
of the battery?
a. 10 volts
b. 110 volts
c. 120 volts
d. 200 volts
*e. 100 volts
927. If the resistance in a circuit was kept constant and the applied voltage was
increased, there would be ___________________.
a. a corresponding decrease in current

b. no change in current
*c. a corresponding increase in current
d. no change in resistance
e. a corresponding decrease in resistance
928. The quantity of current flow depends on _________________________.
a. the intensity of the emf

b. the conventional current flow
c. electron theory
d. the resistance in amps
*e. the intensity of the resistance
929. If the resistance of a circuit is decreased to 1/4 of its original value,

what happens to the current if the supply voltage is unchanged?
a. The current is 1/4 of original voltage.

b. The current remains the same.
c. The current is 1/2 of original voltage.
*d. The current is 4 times its original voltage.
e. The current is 5 times its original voltage.
930. If the resistance of a circuit is decreased to 1/4 of its original value,

what circuit change can be made to maintain the original circuit current?
*a. The voltage would be 1/4 of original.
b. The voltage would be 4 times original.
c. The voltage would be 1/2 of original.
d. The voltage would remains constant.
e. The voltage would be doubled.
931. A simple electric circuit consists of _________________.
a. source, load, resistance

*b. conductor, load, source
c. current, resistance, conductor
d. voltage, current, conductor
e. voltage, inductance, conductance
932. Doubling both the voltage and resistance in a circuit has what effect on the
current?
a. Current is doubled
b. Current is reduced by half
c. Current is reduced to 1/4
*d. Current remains the same
e. Current is tripled
933. According to Ohm's Law _________________________.
a. if you raise I, R will go up

b. if you raise E, I will go down
*c. if you raise R, I will go down
d. if you lower R, I will go up
e. if you raise E, I will go down
934. For a parallel circuit:
1) The same voltage is applied across all resistors

2) The current flow in each branch is directly proportional to the
resistance in that branch
3) The total resistance of the parallel is always less than the smallest
parallel resistance
4) The sum of the currents flowing in each path is equal to the supply
current
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4
*d. 1, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
935. Two lamps in a series circuit have equal and unknown resistance. Voltage is
220 and 2.75 amps. The resistance of each lamp is ____________.
a. 10 ohms
b. 80 ohms
*c. 40 ohms
d. 30 ohms
e. 20 ohms
936. In a Wheat stone bridge the applied voltage is 40 volts, resistance one is
350 ohms, resistance two is 250 ohms and resistance four is 100 ohms. Calculate
the value in ohms of resistance three required to balance the bridge.
a. 400 ©
*b. 480 ©
c. 450 ©
d. 300 ©
937. Wheatstone Bridge , where the applied voltage E = 24 V, R1 = 400 Ω, R2 = 500

Ω, and R4 = 200 Ω. Calculate the value of R3 required to balance the bridge.
a. 100 Ω
b. 250 Ω
c. 200 Ω
*d. 160 Ω
938. The measuring instrument used with a Wheatstone bridge circuit is a

______________.
a. Megger
*b. Galvanometer
c. Ohm-meter
d. Ammeter
e. Voltmeter
939. When a Wheatstone bridge is balanced, the meter will read

______________________.
a. full scale positive

b. full scale negative
c. 100 percent
*d. zero
e. 3/4 scale positive
940. The Wheatstone bridge accurately measures?
*a. Resistances
b. Voltage
c. Watts
d. Current
e. Inductance
941. A Wheatstone bridge has R1 of 3000 ohms, R2 of 8000 ohms, R3 variable, and
R4 of 15 ohms, the R3 would balance at __________.
a. 1.6 megohms
b. 40 ohms
*c. 5.625 ohms
d. 56.25 ohms
e. 562.5 ohms
942. The power used by an electric heater drawing 5 amps at 110 volts is
______________.
a. 550 kilowatts
b. 55 watts
c. 22 watts
*d. 550 watts
e. 550 Mega watts
943. An electric kettle is rated at 1500 W at 120 volts. The resistance would be
_________.
a. 96 ohms
b. 12.5 ohms
c. 180 ohms
d. 24 ohms
*e. 9.6 ohms
944. The amount of energy in kilowatt-hours used by a 700-watt block heater in

6 hours is ___________.
a. 116.67 kWh
b. 4200 kWh
c. 175 kWh
*d. 4.2 kWh
e. 42 kWh
945. The power dissipated in a resistor is 60 watts at 110 volts. The resistance
is ___________.
a. 6600 ohms
*b. 201.66 ohms
c. 183.33 ohms
d. 32.73 ohms
e. 327.3 ohms
946. A resistor has a maximum loading current of 2 amps and a power rating of 1.5
watts. The resistance is ________.
*a. 375 milliohms
b. 3 ohms
c. 0.75 ohms
d. 75 milliohms
e. 7.5 ohms
947. In the formula for work, W = EIT, the W equals ________.
a. Watts
*b. Watt seconds
c. Watt hours
d. Watt joules
e. Watt minutes
948. One-watt hour equals?
a. 3600 kJ
*b. 3.6 kJ
c. 60 J
d. 36 MJ
e. 36 J
949. Electric cost is 10 cents per kWh. Resistance is 10 ohms at 110 volts. Time
is 2 hours. The cost is ___________.
a. 22 cents
b. 12.1 cents
c. 11 cents
*d. 24.2 cents
e. 26.2 cents
950. A 3-ohm resistor has a power rating of 1.5 watts. The maximum loading is
______________.
*a. 0.707 amps

b. 0.05 amps
c. 4.5 amps
d. 20 amps
e. 22 amps
951. The greatest instantaneous value of AC is ________________.
a. multitude
*b. amplitude
c. two times the effective value
d. root-mean square
e. magnitude
952. A lagging current means:
*a. Voltage peaks before the current

b. The current is less than the voltage
c. The current peak precedes the voltage peak
d. Voltage and current are in phase
e. The residual current is less than the voltage
953. For an AC circuit to be purely resistive, we must have:
1) No inductance
2) Current and voltage in phase
3) No capacitance
4) No lagging or leading current
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
*c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 4
954. In a purely inductive AC circuit the current ______________.
a. leads voltage by 90 degrees

b. is out of phase by 45 degrees
c. can lead or lag voltage
*d. lags voltage by 90 degrees
e. is in phase with the voltage
955. In a purely capacitive AC circuit the current _________________.
*a. leads the voltage by 90 degrees

b. is out of phase by 45 degrees
c. can lead or lag voltage
d. lags voltage by 90 degrees
e. is in phase with voltage
956. If an ac voltage is applied to a circuit it will produce an ac current flow.

If the voltage and the current reach their maximum values at the same time they
are said to be ________.
a. out of phase
*b. in phase
c. AC current
d. DC current
957. What is the period of a 60 Hz wave?

a. 0.02 sec
b. 0.018 sec
*c. 0.016 sec
d. 0.01 sec
958. What is the frequency of a wave, which has a period of 2 µ sec?
a. 1.0 MHz
b. 0.25 MHz
c. 0.75 MHz
*d. 0.5 MHz
959. The root-mean-square value is:
1) 70.7% of the amplitude

2) 70.7% of the maximum instantaneous current
3) Termed the effective value
4) The amount of AC which will produce the same as a given amount of DC
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4
*e. 1, 2, 3, 4
960. The instantaneous maximum voltage is 240. The RMS value is ___________.
a. 160 V
*b. 169.68 V
c. 4 V
d. 339.46 V
e. 33.9 V
961. The instantaneous maximum voltage is 135. The RMS value is __________.
a. 160 V
*b. 95.45 V
c. 4 V
d. 339.46 V
e. 33.9 V
962. RMS current is 35 amps. The peak-to-peak value is ___________.
a. 24.75 amps
b. 49.5 amps
c. 70 amps
*d. 99 amps
e. 9.9 amps
963. What are the peak-to-peak and rms values of voltage with a maximum value 170
V?
a. 300 V peak to peak, 100.05 V rms

b. 280 V peak to peak, 80.25 V rms
*c. 340 V peak to peak, 120.19 V rms
d. 350 V peak to peak, 110.75 V rms
964. What are the peak-to-peak and the maximum values of an alternating current
if the rms value is 12 A?
*a. 16.97 A, 33.94 A

b. 20.25 A, 45.55 A
c. 15.75 A, 30.15 A
d. 25.68 A, 50.55 A
965. What are the peak-to-peak and rms values of voltage with a maximum value of
311 V?
a. 550 V peak to peak, 210 V rms

*b. 622 V peak to peak, 220 V rms
c. 650 V peak to peak, 235 V rms
d. 610 V peak to peak, 215 V rms
966. What are the peak-to-peak and the maximum alternating current values if the
rms current value is 20 A?
a. 25.22 A max., 55.00 A peak to peak

b. 30.25 A max., 62.75 A peak to peak
*c. 28.29 A max., 56.57 A peak to peak
d. 35 A max., 65 A peak to peak
967. A coil with an inductance of 0.2 H is connected to a 120 V, 60 Hz supply.

Find:
(a) The inductive reactance of the coil.

(b) The current flowing through the coil.
a. (a) 70.0 ©, (b) 2.0 A

b. (a) 68.5 © , (b) 1.25 A
c. (a) 65 ©, (b) 1.05 A
*d. (a) 75.4 ©, (b) 1.59 A
968. A coil has an inductance 20 mH. The inductive reactance is 100 Ω. Find the
line frequency.
a. 750 Hz
*b. 796 Hz
c. 722 Hz
d. 600Hz
969. What current will flow when a 10 µF capacitor is connected to a 240 V, 60

Hz supply?
a. 1.25 A
b. 1.0 A
*c. 0.9 A
d. 0.75 A
970. A resistance of 50 Ω is connected in series with an inductive reactance of

70 Ω and a capacitive reactance of 20 Ω. What is the impedance of the circuit?
*a. 70.71 Ω
b. 75 Ω
c. 65.21 Ω
d. 78.54 Ω
971. What current will flow when a 10 µF capacitor is connected to a 120 V, 60

Hz power supply?
a. 0.075 A
*b. 0.0452 A
c. 0.0688 A
d. 0.124 A
972. A resistance of 60 Ω is connected in series with an inductive reactance of

50 Ω and a capacitive reactance of 40 Ω. What is the impedance of the circuit?
a. 75 Ω
*b. 60.83 Ω
c. 65.02 Ω
d. 70.25 Ω
973. Inductive reactance opposes ______________.
a. resistance
*b. current flow
c. capacitance
d. voltage
e. conductance
974. Impedance is_____________________________.
*a. the combined effect of reactance and resistance

b. the lesser of capacitive reactance and inductive reactance
c. measured in ohms
d. current divided by voltage
e. the combined effect of inductance and conductance
975. The frequency of a wave having a period of 3 microseconds is _____________.
a. 6000 Hz
b. 33.33 MHz
*c. 333.33 kHz
d. 600 Hz
e. 333.33 Hz
976. A solenoid has 60 Hz supplied at 110 V and inductance of 0.6 H.

The inductive resistance is:
a. 39 ohms
*b. 226.08 ohms
c. 266.08 ohms
d. 39.60 ohms
e. 396 ohms
977. A solenoid has 60 Hz supplied at 110 V and inductance of 0.6 H. The current
flowing is _________________.
a. 0.4866
*b. 48.66 amps
c. 0.4866 amps
d. 48.66 milliamps
e. 4.866 amps
978. A single-phase circuit has meter readings of 20 A, and 220 V. The power factor
is 78.8%. Calculate:
(a) The real power of the circuit

(b) The imaginary power of the circuit
a. (a) 3200 W, (b) 2500 W

b. (a) 3250 W, (b) 2652 W
*c. (a) 3467 W, (b) 2709 W
d. (a) 2859 W, (b) 2454 W
979. The following meter readings were taken in an inductive single-phase circuit:
wattmeter 2400 W; voltmeter 240 V; ammeter 15 A, frequency meter, 60 Hz. Note that
a wattmeter indicates the active power and voltmeters and ammeters indicate
effective (rms) values. Find:
(a) The apparent power (VA)
(b) The power factor of the circuit
*a. (a) 3600 VA, (b) 67 %

b. (a) 2800 VA, (b) 65 %
c. (a) 2500 VA, (b) 70 %
d. (a) 3200 VA, (b) 62 %
980. The following meter readings were taken in an inductive single-phase circuit:
wattmeter 2800W; voltmeter 120 V; ammeter 25 A, frequency meter, 60 Hz. Find:
(a) The apparent power
(b) The power factor
a. (a) 2500VA, (b) 90 %

b. (a) 2600 VA, (b) 91 %
*c. (a) 3000 VA, (b) 93.3 %
d. (a) 3500 VA, (b) 95.5 %
981. There are two possible methods of connecting up three-phase generator

windings. These are known as the _____ and the ______ connections.
a. advanced, simple
*b. star, delta
c. temporary, permanent
d. tight, loose
982. A three phase generator has a terminal voltage of 480 V and delivers full
load current of 300 A per terminal at a lagging power factor of 75 percent.
Calculate:
(a) The apparent power in kilovoltamperes
(b) The full load real power in kilowatts
a. (a) 252.25 kVA, (b) 192.88 kW

*b. (a) 249.12 kVA, (b) 186.84 kW
c. (a) 260.55 kVA, (b) 200.78 kW
d. (a) 275.89 kVA, (b) 210.94 kW
983. A three phase generator has a terminal voltage of 600 V and delivers full
load current of 200 A per terminal at a lagging power factor of 80 percent. Find:
(a) The apparent power in kilovoltamperes
(b) The full load real power in kilowatts
a. (a) 252.25 kVA, (b) 192.88 kW

b. (a) 249.12 kVA, (b) 186.84 kW
c. (a) 260.55 kVA, (b) 200.78 kW
*d. (a) 207.6 kVA, (b) 166.08 kW
984. The control loop is made up of four basic functional blocks:
1) Process
2) Process Variable
3) Measurement
4) Automatic controller
5) The final control element
*a. 1, 3, 4, 5
b. 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
985. For purposes of control theory, a process can be defined as an action in which
material and/or ________ is modified to a different form.
a. fluids
*b. energy
c. gas
d. oil
986. Flow rate is often measured with a _________________.
a. pedometer
b. ultrasonic meter
*c. orifice plate
d. velocity meter
987. Process parameters such as temperature, pressure, and flow require continuous
measurements in real time. If review of the measurements is desired, provision
must be made to capture the parameters with respect to time.
*a. True
b. False
988. List the four types of final actuators:
1) Conveyor belt
2) Flapper valve
3) Globe valve
4) A louver
5) Motor's variable speed drive
6) A compressor's inlet guide vanes
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 6
c. 4, 5, 6
*d. 1, 4, 5, 6
989. Pneumatic systems can operate on:
1) Compressed air
2) Hydraulic fluid
3) Nitrogen
4) Water
5) Methane
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
*b. 1, 3, 5
c. 1, 5
d. 1, 2, 5
990. Transmitters convert a process physical quantity such as level, pressure,

flow, or temperature into a representative pneumatic analog signal, usually
________.
a. 0 - 25 kpa
*b. 20 - 100 kPa
c. 4 - 20 mA
d. 1 - 100 %
991. Control valves are responsible for providing process changes by manipulating
fluid flow in a pipeline. They are called a “Primary Control Element” (PCE), as
they are the final devices that the controller uses to affect corrective action
to the process.
a. True
*b. False
992. Pneumatic level switches are available for:
1) Level
2) Pressure
3) Viscosity
4) Temperature
5) Density
6) Flow
a. 1
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 4, 5, 6
*d. 1, 2, 4, 6
993. List the three main elements of an Analog Instrumentation Loop.
1) Process setpoint
2) Transmitter
3) Controller
4) Instrument air
5) Final control element
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
*b. 2, 3, 5
c. 1, 3, 4,
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
994. __________ are used to convert physical quantities of flow, level,

temperature, pressure, and weight into electrical signals that represent those
quantities as accurately as possible.
a. Controllers
b. Control valves
*c. Transmitters
d. Level switches
995. Square root extractors are used to convert squared signals from __________
flowmeters to ________ flow signals.
a. digital, analog
*b. differential, linear
c. normal, normal
d. steam, boiler feedwater
996. The controller uses an operational amplifier to perform a mathematical

summation, in order to compare the input signal (process variable) with a setpoint
that is established by operations personnel. If the process is not at the set value,
the mathematical functions present in the controller will produce an output signal
that will correct the process.
*a. True
b. False
997. A typical controller station allows the operator to:
1) View and change the setpoint

2) View feed forward settings
3) View the process variable
4) Switch from Auto to manual
5) View process history
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
*c. 1, 3, 5
d. 1, 2
998. The main devices used as final control elements are:
1) Control valves
2) Variable speed motor drives (VSDs)
3) Steam flow
4) Speed governors
5) Level switches
6) Damper positioners
a. 1, 6
b. 4, 5, 6
c. 1, 2, 6
*d. 1, 2, 4, 6
999. The term “digital” describes computer systems that use the binary number
system of _____ and _____.
a. zeros, tens
*b. ones, zeros
c. tens, one hundreds
d. disc, hard drives
1000. Large control rooms almost invariably contain a number of video ________
consoles attached to a large distributed control system data highway.
a. game
b. display
*c. operator
d. digital
1001. Smart transmitters transmit process information in either a digital or the

4 - 20 milliamp analog format. They can be re-zeroed and rearranged remotely, using
a hand-held calibrator.
*a. True
b. False
1002. The smart transmitter is really a digital device, containing an on-board

___________ complete with memory.
*a. microprocessor
b. calibrator
c. video
d. process variable
1003. The majority of final control elements are, and will continue to be
____________________.
*a. control valves

b. microprocessors
c. hand held computers
d. globe valves
1004. In on-off control, the controller signal to the final control element is
either ______ positive or ________ negative.
a. 0 %, 100 %
b. 0 %, 50 %
*c. 100 %, 100 %
d. 100 %, 24 %
1005. Most common three examples of on-off control are:
1) Temperature controlled exhaust fan in a compressor building

2) Boiler feedwater to a boiler
3) A thermostat controlled forced air furnace
4) Boiler fuel gas flow
5) The compressed air supply to a storage tank
a. 1, 2, 5
*b. 1, 3, 5
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 4, 5, 6
1006. The difference between the set point and the actual value of the process
variable is known as offset. Offset is an inherent characteristic of all reset
only controllers.
a. True
*b. False
1007. The percent of the process variable range that causes _____ change in
controller output is often called the proportional band.
a. 25%
*b. 100%
c. 20%
d. 75%
1008. Integral control, often called reset, responds to both the _______ and ______
duration of the deviation.
a. offset, span
b. speed, magnitude
*c. amount, time
d. error, reset
1009. Reset on integral time can be varied by manipulating the integral adjustment
valve.
*a. True
b. False
1010. The difference between feedback and feedforward control is apparent.
Feedback control works to eliminate errors, whereas feedforward control operates
to prevent errors from occurring in the first place.
*a. True
b. False
1011. In a closed-loop control configuration, a measurement is made of the

controlled variable, and this is compared with the desired ______ or ____ .
a. output, signal
*b. value, setpoint
c. PV, SP
d. Product, material
1012. The difference between feedback and feedforward in a controller is; Feedback
control works to eliminate errors, where feedforward control operates to prevent
errors from occurring in the first place.
*a. True
b. False
1013. Cascade control is achieved by the use of two controllers, but only one
_________.
a. SP
b. PV
c. OP
*d. final control element
1014. Ratio control is often associated with process operations when it is

necessary to continuously mix two or more streams together in order to maintain
steady composition of the resulting mixture.
*a. True
b. False
1015. The Auto-Select loop control allows the automatic selection between one or
more measured or controlled variables to produce a _______ output that is used
as a controlled variable.
a. double
*b. single
c. triple
d. strong
1016. Loop alarms are devices that signal the existence of an abnormal condition
by means of an audible or visible discrete change, or both, intended to attract
attention
*a. True
b. False
1017. Emergency Shutdown (ESD) devices are operated by ___________________.
a. air & hydraulics

b. hydraulics, electricity and air
*c. air, hydraulics, electricity or combinations of all three
1018. The two most common reasons to active an ESD's are: 1. Shutdown and isolate
rotating equipment 2. Shutdown and depressure
*a. True
b. False
1019. An emergency shutdown could be activated __________ or __________.
a. locally, remotely
b. fast, slow
*c. automatically, manually
d. full, partial
1020. What are the most common conditions monitored by a sensor and that activate
shutdowns:
1) High or low temperature

2) Loss of lubricating oil
3) Vibration
4) Low flow
5) High or low level
6) High or low pressure
7) Combustible or Toxic gas
a. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 4, 5, 6, 7
c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6

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1.

The types of expansions or compressions that may be represented by

3. Find the antilogarithm of the number 3.3522.

4. The natural or Naperian logarithm of 0.00478 is?

5. Find the natural antilogarithm of the number 13.4146.

6. The antilog of 1.5323 is:

7. The common system of logarithms uses _____________ as the base number.

9. The logarithm of 135 is:

10. The logarithm of the number 0.00347 is:

11. What is the value of X in the following fractional equation:

15. As the cosine decreases the:

a. The value of the angle decreases.

16. Trigonometry may be defined as:

a. The study of angles.

17. As the value of the sine of an angle decreases, the angle:

a. 45°, 45° and 60°.

19. By definition, an example of an obtuse angle would be the one of?

21. An acute angle, by definition, may have a measurement of?

22. One radian is:

a. A single visitor from outer space.

25. When measuring angles one radian is equal to?

26. The tangent of 65° 10 minutes is:

*a. 43.96 radians

33. A smokestack 60 m high is stayed by guy wires of 58 m length, which make an

40. The Theorem of Pythagoras states:

a. b = 5.85 cm, c = 6.81 cm

49. A plane figure is:

*a. no two sides that are parallel.

a. All sides parallel.

58. A rhombus is a plane figure. It has four (4) sides:

a. All sides are parallel.

59. The area of a trapezium can be determined by the formula:

a. A = 42.76 m2, h = 6.00 m

a. All sides are parallel.

62. A rhombus is a rhomboid having:

*a. All sides of equal length

64. A polygon is a figure bounded by:

*a. 9.80 km2

68. The area of a sector of a circle can be determined by:

a. Area of circle minus area of triangle

73. A horizontal boiler shell is 180 cm in diameter and 5 m long. It is filled

75. A reinforced concrete beam requires a cross-sectional area of reinforcing steel

76. Plane figures have length and width with:

79. The difference between a vector and a scalar is that:

a. The scalar is a quantitive measure while vector is a sign only.

81. The equilibrant is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the

84. A displacement of 9 m north of point A, and another of 6 m west of point A

85. Three different methods of constructing the vector diagram are: 1.

*a. 94 km/h west

97. One of the conditions that a force system in equilibrium is:

98. One of the conditions of a force system in equilibrium is:

a. There are no forces acting parallel to each other.

a. The wooden box will move faster at steady velocity.

102. A body of a gravitational force of 2000 N is pulled along a horizontal surface

*a. 7931 N, 26.10°

109. A block of stone of 40 kg is hauled along a horizontal floor by a force inclined

110. Force of friction always?

a. Goes along with the applied force.

112. To increase the frictional force, it is necessary to?

*a. Increase the roughness of at least one of the surfaces in contact.