SỞ GD&ĐT BẠC LIÊU KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 VÒNG TỈNH

NĂM HỌC 2020-2021

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (BẢNG A)
(Gồm 14 trang) Ngày thi: 05/11/2020
Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Part A. LISTENING
I. Listen to Amanda talking to a friend about a birthday party. For each question, circle the best answer
(A, B, C). You will hear the conversation twice. (0) is as an example. (1 point)
Example:
0. How many people can come to the party?
A. 8 B. 11 C.18
1. Which ice cream will they have at the party?
A. coffee B. lemon C. apple
2. What is broken?
A. the CD player B. the cassette recorder C. the guitar
3. Whose birthday is it?
A. Emma's B. Joan's C. Amanda's sister's
4. What present has Amanda bought?
A. a camera B. a video C. a football
5. What time should people arrive at the party?
A. 8 p.m. B. 8.30 p.m. C. 9.30 p.m.

II. Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for each
answer. You will hear twice. (2 points)
WEST BAY HOTEL - DETAILS OF JOB
• Newspaper advert for temporary staff
• Vacancies for (1) _____________
• Two shifts
• Can choose your (2) _____________ (must be the same each week)
• Pay: £5.50 per hour, including a (3) _____________
• A (4) _____________ is provided in the hotel
• Total weekly pay: £231
• Dress: a white shirt and (5) _____________ trousers (not supplied) a (6) _____________ (supplied)
• Starting date: (7) _____________

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• Call Jane (8) _____________ (Service Manager) before (9) _____________ tomorrow (Tel: 832009)
• She'll require a (10) _____________

Part B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR

I. Circle the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each unfinished sentence. (1 point)
1. I love this painting of an old man. He has such a _____________ smile.
A. childhood B. childish C. childless D. childlike
2. You’d better leave for the airport now _____________ there’s a lot of traffic on the way.
A. in fact B. in time C. in order D. in case
3. I would like to thank you, _____________ my colleagues, for the welcome you have given us.
A. on account of B. on behalf of C. because of D. instead of
4. The poor child was in floods of _____________ because his bicycle had been stolen.
A. weeping B. tears C. crying D. unhappiness
5. The soldier was punished for _____________ to obey his commanding officer’s orders.
A. refusing B. regretting C. objecting D. resisting
6. She _____________ her husband’s job for his ill health.
A. accused B. blamed C. caused D. claimed
7. It’s time we _____________ this old car and bought a new one.
A. will B. had sold C. have sold D. sold
8. The project was rejected because of _____________ funds.
A. unavailable B. inconsiderable C. incomplete D. insufficient
9. Please leave this space _____________ on the enrolment form.
A. absent B. blank C. missing D. undone
10. You shouldn’t have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely _____________ of you.
A. unfortunate B. insensitive C. insensible D. unconscious
11. Phone me before ten; _____________, I’ll be too busy to talk to you.
A. Unless B. whether C. otherwise D. if
12. According to the _____________ of the contract, tenants must give six months’ notice if they intend to
leave.
A. laws B. rules C. terms D. details
13. The injured man was taken to hospital and _____________ for internal injuries.
A. cured B. healed C. operated D. treated
14. The door hinges had all been oiled to stop them _____________.
A. squeaking B. screeching C. shrieking D. squealing

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15. Mary attempted to _____________ herself with her new boss by volunteering to take on extra work
A. gratify B. please C. ingratiate D. commend
16. You are under no obligation _____________ to accept this offer.
A. indeed B. eventually C. apart D. whatsoever
17. Wasn’t it you yourself _____________ the door open?
A. to be left B. were left C. who left D. that should leave
18. If only motorists _____________ drive more carefully!
A. must B. shall C. would D. will
19. It is regretted that there can be no _____________ to this rule.
A. exclusion B. alternative C. exception D. deviation
20. Complete the form as _____________ in the notes below.
A. insisted B. specified C. implied D. devised

II. In the passage below some lines are correct but some have a word that should not be there. Indicate
the correct lines with a tick (√). For the incorrect lines, write the words that should not be there. (1 point)
Many species of animals, birds and even that insects are in danger of disappearing from the earth off.
Every day construction in the rainforests destroys the habitats of these creatures. They cannot survive in other
environments. They rely on about the food and shelter being in their own habitats. Each time a habitat is
destroyed, the animals must have search for a new place.
Luckily, there are some people who they are doing something about this situation. Animal protection
societies are helping for the world to learn more than about endangered species. When people know more,
they can fight to protect and save the animals.

III. Choose the right tenses to complete the following passage. (1 point)
Traditionally, universities (1. carry out) _____________ two main activities: research and teaching.
Many academics would argue that both these activities play a critical role in serving the community. The
fundamental question, however, is: how does the community want or need (2. serve) _____________?
In recent years, universities have been coming under (3. increase) _____________ pressure from both
governments and the public (4. ensure) _____________ that they do not remain “ivory towers” of study
divorced from the realities of everyday life. University teachers (5. encourage) _____________, and in some
cases constrained, to provide more courses which produce graduates with the technical skills (6. require)
_____________ for the commercial sector and research that has practical benefits which are commercially
exploitable. If Aristotle (7. want) _____________ to work in a tertiary institution in the UK today, he would
have a good chance of teaching computer science but would not be so readily employable as a philosopher.

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 A post-industrial society (8. require) _____________ large numbers of computer programmers,
engineers, managers and technicians to maintain and develop its economic growth but man, as the Bible says
“does not live by bread alone”. Apart from requiring medical and social services which do not directly
contribute to economic growth, it (9. be) _____________ an impoverished society that did not value and enjoy
literature, music and the arts. In these cost- conscious times, it even (10. point out)_____________
in justification for the funding of the arts that they can be useful money earners. A successful musical, for
instance, can contribute as much to the Gross Nation Product through tourist dollars as any other export
initiative.

IV. Use the correct form of the word in capitals to fit each gap. (1 point)
Interviews are an imperfect method of choosing the best people for jobs, yet human (1. BE)
_____________ like to examine each other in this way. One of the many problems of (2. SELECT)
_____________ as it is commonly practised is that the forms filled in by (3. APPLY) _____________ often
fail to show people as they really are. This means that you can follow all the best (4. ADVISE) _____________
when completing your form and still find that you are (5. SUCCESS) _____________ at the next stage - the
interview. (6. SIMILAR) _____________, in the rare cases where interviewers are automatic, a candidate
with an (7. ADEQUATE) _____________ form may do surprisingly well. Of course, your forms need to
show that you have (8. CONFIDENT) _____________ in your (9. ABLE) _____________ to do the job,
but don’t try to turn yourself into someone else – a person you have to pretend to be at the interview. Realism
and (10. HONEST) _____________ are definitely the best approach.

V. Choose the correct prepositional phrase from the box to complete the following sentences. You may
not use one phrase. (1 point)
on good terms independent of tired of out of
ashamed of on the whole capable of at most
for safe keeping out of order for a
1. She was _____________ her poor exam results.
2. He gave his watch and wallet to me _____________ while he went for a swim in the lake.
3. You are _____________ better work than this.
4. The piano is _____________ again. It sounds terrible.
5. She is old enough to be _____________ her parents.
6. Despite many disagreements, they’re now _____________ with their next- door neighbours.
7. I’m _____________ doing the same thing every day.
8. There weren’t many passengers on the bus – twelve _____________.

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9. Parts of the play were boring, but _____________ I quite enjoyed.
10. You’ll have to use the stairs. The lift is _____________.

VI. Insert a, an or the if necessary. Write O if there is no article. (1 point)

In (1) _____________ summer of 1907, I was living in (2) _____________ little cottage in (3)
_____________ country, at (4) _____________ small distance from (5) _____________ sea. Half (6)
_____________ mile from my cottage there was (7) _____________ school, The Grables, where Harold
Stackhurst, (8) _____________ headmaster, and several other teachers taught students and prepared them
for various professions. Stackhurst and I went on friendly terms and he was (9) _____________ only
man in _____________ (10) neighbourhood who sometimes called at my cottage.

PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage. Circle the best answers (A, B, C or D) to complete the passage. (1 point)
Smoking causes lung cancer, heart disease, and breathing problems. Worldwide, about three million
people die every year because of smoking - that's about one (1) _____________ every ten seconds ! In
fact, smoking is the (2) _____________ of almost 20 percent of all deaths in the developed countries of the
world. Smoking doesn't just (3) _____________ the smoker, it hurts other people, too. When a pregnan 4)
_____________ smokes, she is hurting her developing (5) _____________. When a man (6) _____________
at home, his wife and children are also breathing in smoke and can become sick. Even though most people
understand the (7) _____________ effects of smoking, they continue to smoke. The (8) _____________ of
women and teenagers who smoke is increasing. Cigarette companies make advertisements that (9)
_____________ these groups of people so that they (10) _____________ to buy cigarettes.
1. A. death B. end C. loss D. decrease
2. A. origin B. reason C. cause D. basis
3. A. injure B. danger C. destroy D. hurt
4. A. child B. man C. woman D. wife
5. A. baby B. children C. love D. youth
6. A. relax B. enjoy C. cigarettes D. smokes
7. A. beneficial B. harmful C. harmed D. profitable
8. A. number B. amount C. quantity D. total
9. A. interest B. concern C. matter D. worry
10. A. retain B. maintain C. continue D. preserve

II. Read the passage below. Then circle the best option (A, B, C or D) to answer each question. (1 point)

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 Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and
zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired
by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but
sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea Around Us, which provided
a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine
biology. Her imaginary and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printing sources.
She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always
realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how
much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poisoned the
food supply of animals, killed birds and fish, and contaminated human food. At the time, spokesmen for the
chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings
were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory
Committee.
1. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work _____________.
A. as a researcher B. at college
C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer
2. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
A. oceanography B. history C. literature D. zoology
3. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of _____________.
A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 35
4. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind _____________.
A. was outdated.
B. became more popular than her other books.
C. was praised by critics.
D. sold many copies.
5. Which of the following was Not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around
Us?
A. printed matter B. talks with experts
C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists
6. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around Us?
A. highly technical B. poetic
C. fascinating D. well-researched

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7.The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible
8. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily _____________.
A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food.
B. a discussion of the hazards insects posing to the food supply.
C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides.
D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry.
9. The word “flawed” is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive
10. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’ s Science Advisory Committee?
A. To provide an example of government propaganda.
B. To support Carson’s ideas.
C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment.
D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims.

II. Read the text below carefully and then do the following exercises. (1 point)
Testing 1, 2, 3,
…
A. These are testing times. In both education and the field of work, the prevailing wisdom apears to be: if it
moves, test it and if doesn’t, well, test it anyway. I say wisdom, but it has become rather an absession. In
addition to the current obstacles, like GCSEs, A-levels, GNVQs, ONDs, and HNDs, not to mention the
interviews and financial hurdles that school-leavers have to overcome in order to access higher education,
students are facing the threat of “new tests”, Scholastic Aptitude Tests (SATs)
B. SATs are being imported from the United States, where they have been in use for nearly a hundred years.
As a supplement to A-levels, the tests purport to give students from poor backgrounds a better chance of
entering university. SATs are intended to remove the huge social class bias that exists in British universities.
But, in fact, they are, no more than an additional barrier for students. The tests, which masquerade as IQ tests,
are probably less diagnostic of student potential than existing examinations, and, more seriously, are far from
free of the bias that the supporters pretend.
C. First of all, as for any other tests, students will be able to take classes to cram for SATs, which again will
advantage the better-off. At a recent conference of the Prefessional Association of Teachers, it was declared
that school exams and tests are biased toward middle-class children. Further, the content of the tests in question
is not based on sound scientific theory, merely on a pool of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), set up by a
group of item writers.

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D. The questions in SATs are tested on a representative sample of children. Those which correlate with the
school grades of the children are kept, and the rest discarded. This is highly unsatisfactory. There is also
evidence that in MCQs tests women are at a disadvantage, because of the way they think, i.e. they can see a
wider picture. And it is worth noting that MCQs are only as good as the people who write them; so, unless the
writers are highly trained, those who are being tested are being judged against the narrow limitations of the
item writers.
E. Globalisation has introduced greater flexibility into the workplace, but the educational system has not been
so quick off the mark. But there are signs that times are a changing. Previously, students took exams at the end
of academic terms, or at fixed dates periodically throughout the year. Now, language examinations like the
TOEFL, IELTs and the Pitman ESOL exams can be taken much more frequently. The IELTs examination, for
example, is run a test centre throughout the world subject to demand. Where the demand is high, the test is
held more frequently. At present, in London, it is possible for students to sit the exam about four times a week.
F. Flexible assessment like the IELTs has been mooted in other areas. It has been suggested that the students
may in future be able to walk into a public library or other public building and take assessment test for a
range of skills on a computer. The computer will dispense an instant assessment and a certificate. The beauty
of this system is the convenience.
Questions 1 – 5: This reading passage has 6 paragraphs (A-F). Choose the most suitable heading for
each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate number (1-10) next to the
paragraph. One of the headings has been done for you.
Note: There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them. YOU MAY USE ANY
HEADING MORE THAN ONCE
Paragraph A _______9______ Paragraph B _____________ Paragraph C _____________
Paragraph D _____________ Paragraph E _____________ Paragraph F _____________
List of Headings
1. Assessment in the future
2. The theory behind MCQs
3. Problem with SATs
4. Misuse of testing in School
5. The need for computer assessment
6. The benefits of SATs
7. Testing in workplace
8. The sortcoming of MCQs
9. Too much testing
10. Flexibility in language tesing

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Question 6- 10: Read the passage again and then decide whether the following statements agree with the
information in the Reading or not. Write:
Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage
No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
No Information if there is no information about the statement in the passage
Example:
0. SATs is the abbreviation of Scholastic Aptitude Tests. - Answer: Yes
6. In the fields of education and work the prevailing wisdom seems to be to test everything.
7. Research in genetics refutes the theory that people are predestined to follow certain careers.
8. Psychometric testing is favoured by headmaster and mistresses in many high schools.
9. The writer of this article is in favour of testing in general.
10. According to the writer, students get benefits from SATs

III. You are going to read an article about the Beatles Band. Ten sentences or phrases have been removed
from the article. Choose from the sentences or phrases A- J the one which fits each gap (1-10). (1 point)
The Beatles were an English rock band, active throughout the 1960s and (1) _____________.
Formed in Liverpool, by 1962 the group consisted of John Lennon (rhythm guitar, vocals), Paul McCartney
(bass guitar, vocals), George Harrison (lead guitar, vocals) and Ringo Starr (drums, vocals). Rooted in skiffle
and 1950s rock and roll, (2) _____________. The nature of their enormous popularity, which first emerged as
"Beatlemania", transformed as their songwriting grew in sophistication. They came to be perceived as the
embodiment of ideals of the social and cultural revolutions of the 1960s.
Initially a five-piece line-up of Lennon, McCartney, Harrison, Stuart Sutcliffe (bass) and Pete Best
(drums), (3) _____________. Sutcliffe left the group in 1961, (4) _____________. Moulded into a
professional outfit by their manager, Brian Epstein, their musical potential was enhanced by the creativity
of producer George Martin. (5) _____________. Gaining international popularity and acquiring the
nickname "Fab Four" the following year, they toured extensively until 1966. During their subsequent "studio
years", they produced what critics consider some of their finest material including the album Sgt. Pepper's
Lonely Hearts Club Band (1967), (6) _____________. After their break-up in 1970, the band members all
found success in independent musical careers. (7) _____________. McCartney and Starr remain active.
The Beatles are the best-selling band in history, (8) _____________. They have had more number one
albums on the UK charts, (9) _____________. According to the RIAA, they have sold more albums in the
United States than any other artist, and they headed Billboard magazine's list of all-time top Hot 100 artists in
2008. They have received 7 Grammy Awards from the American National Academy of Recording Arts and

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Sciences and 15 Ivor Novello Awards from the British Academy of Songwriters, Composers and Authors. (10)
_____________.
A. They were collectively included in Time magazine's compilation of the 20th century's 100 most influential
people.
B. the group later worked in many genres ranging from pop ballads to psychedelic rock, often incorporating
classical and other elements in innovative ways.
C. and Best was replaced by Starr the following year.
D. They achieved mainstream success in the United Kingdom in late 1962, with their first single, "Love Me
Do".
E. Lennon was murdered outside his home in New York City in 1980, and Harrison died of cancer in 2001.
F. one of the most commercially successful and critically acclaimed acts in the history of popular music.
G. they built their reputation playing clubs in Liverpool and Hamburg over a three- year period from 1960
H. which was widely regarded as a masterpiece.
I. and they have held the top spot longer than any other musical act.
J. and over four decades after their break-up, their recordings are still in demand.

PART D. WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences, so that their meaning stay the same, using the exact words given. (1
point)
1. He stood no chance of passing his exams. INEVITABLE
→ .....................................................................................................................................................................
2. I am sure that he missed the eleven o’clock train. CAN’T
→ .....................................................................................................................................................................
3. Not a word came out of her mouth. LOST
→ .....................................................................................................................................................................
4. I am not a solitary person, I’m sociable. RATHER
→ .....................................................................................................................................................................
5. You cannot choose which hotel you stay at on this package holiday. OPTION
→ .....................................................................................................................................................................
6. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning. QUESTION
→ .....................................................................................................................................................................
7. You couldn’t do anything more stupid than to give up your job now. HEIGHT
→ .....................................................................................................................................................................
8. I really don’t know what you are talking about. FAINTEST

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→ .....................................................................................................................................................................
9. I have hardly done anything today. NEXT
→ .....................................................................................................................................................................
10. Many people will congratulate her if she wins. SHOWERED
→ .....................................................................................................................................................................

II. The table below shows the consumer durables (telephones, refrigerators…) owned in the country of
Paraland from 1998 to 2005. Write a report describing the information shown below.
You should write at least 150 words. (2 points)
Consumer 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005
Percentage of
households with:
Televisions 93 94 94 95 95 96 97 98
Videos 18 20 22 22 25 30
Washing machines 37 40 43 50 55 60 65 70
Vacuum cleaners 65 65 68 72 73 75 77 79
Dish washers 26 26 28 30 30 32 33 35
Refrigerators 60 62 68 70 73 75 78 85
Telephones 42 50 54 60 66 75 80 92

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III. Some people think that family is the most important influence on young adults. Other people think
that friends are the most important influence on young adults. Which view do you agree with? Use
examples to support your opinion.
You should write at least 250 words. (3 points)
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THE END

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