1.

Crime is a
a) Private wrong
b) Public wrong
c) Private as well public wrong
d) None of the above
2. The Indian Penal Code came into effect from
a) 6th October 1860
b) 1st September 1872
c) 1st July 1882
d) None of the above
3. The draft of the I.P.C was prepared by
a) Dr. Hari Singh Gaur
b) Lord Macaualy
c) D.F. Mulla
d) Kenny
4. Indian Penal Code is divided into
a) XXI Chapters and 503 Sections
b) XXIII Chapters and 511 Sections
c) XXII Chapters and 511 Sections
d) XXIII Schedules and 511 Sections
5. If a person who is a citizen of India commits any offence out of India, he
a) Cannot be prosecuted in India, as the act was not committed in India
b) Can be prosecuted in the country where he offence was committed
c) Can be prosecuted in India in any place in which he may be found
d) Cannot be prosecuted neither in India, nor in the country, where the crime was
committed
6. Under which of the following situations would Indian Courts have jurisdiction?
I. Crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country
II. Crime committed by a foreigner in India
III. Crime committed by a person on an Indian ship.
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) II alone
d) I, II, III
7. Special law is defined in section 41, IPC means
a) A law applicable to a particular subject
b) A law applicable to a particular part of India.
c) A law applicable to a class
d) A law applicable to a local community.
8. Local law as defined in section 42 IPC means
a) A law applicable to a particular subject
b) A law applicable to a particular part of India.
c) The municipal law
d) A law applicable to a local community.
9. The term illegal means everything which
a) Is an offence
b) Is prohibited by law.
c) Furnishes a ground for civil action
d) All are correct
10. The term injury means
a) Any harm illegally caused to a person in body and mind
b) Any harm illegally caused to a person in body and property
c) Any harm illegally caused to a person in body, mind, reputation or property
d) None of the above
11. The term offence means
a) A thing made punishable by the Penal Code
b) A thing made punishable by the Penal Code or any special or local law in
certain case
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
12. The essential ingredients of crime are:
a) Motive, mens rea and actus reus
b) Motive, intention and knowledge
c) Mens rea and actus reus
d) Knowledge, intention and action.
13. The maxim ‘ Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea’ means
a) Guilty mind gives birth to crime
b) There can be no crime without a guilty mind
 c) Crime is a child of guilty mind.
d) Criminal mind lead to crime.
14. The above maxim was established by
a) Roman law
b) Equity principle
c) Common law courts
d) House of lords
15. General exception are laid down in the IPC in
a) Chapter VI
b) Chapter IV
c) Chapter IV and Chapter VI
d) Chapter VIII
16. The onus of proving exception lies on the
a) Prosecution
b) Accused
c) Prosecution in certain cases and accused in other cases
d) None of the above.
17. A person will not be liable for any act if he acts in good faith believing himself to be
bound by law to do it, by reason of
a) Mistake of fact
b) Mistake of law
c) Mistake of fact and Mistake of law
d) Mistake of fact or Mistake of law
18. An act will not be an offence, 1f it is done by
a) accident or misfortune.
b) accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge
c) accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge of a
lawful act in a lawful manner
d) accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge of a
lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means, and with proper care and
caution.
19. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is a
a) 100-year-old man.
b) 6-year-old boy.
 c) 12-year-old girl.
d) 18-year-old girl.
20. A takes a girl out of the custody of her lawful guardians. Which of the following
statements is a complete defence if A is charged under Sec. 361, IPC for kidnapping
on the ground that the girl was below the age of 18 years when taken away?
a) The girl was a college student and could understand what was right or wrong
for her.
b) The girl was maltreated by her guardians and A promised her a better life.
c) The girl looked more than 18 years of age and the accused had satisfied
himself that she was more than 18 years of age.
d) None of the above
21. An 11 -year old boy picked up a knife and threatened to cut the deceased to pieces,
and actually kill him.
a) The boy is no guilty, as lacked sufficient maturity of understanding.
b) The boy is guilty, as he did what he intended to do, and that he knew, all
along, that one blow inflicted with a knife would effectuate his intention, thus
he possessed sufficient maturity of understanding.
c) The boy is not guilty, as he was below 12 years of age.
d) None of the above is correct.
22. A soldier fires on a mob by the order of the superior officer in conformity with the
commands of the law.
a) A will be guilty of the offence of murder.
b) A and his superior officer both will be guilty.
c) A will not be liable, as the act has been done in good faith believing himself to
be bound in law to do it.
d) None of the above is correct.
23. To succeed in the defence of insanity, the accused has to show that he was of unsound
mind
a) at the time of commission of the act.
b) after the commission of the act.
c) before the commission of the act.
d) at any time in his life.
24. A stabbed the daughter of his neighbour, then returned to his house and bolted the
front door. When a crowd collected outside the door, he went out back door and
 attacked neighbours in the process. He then ran back to his house and started throwing
brick bats from the roof. A was prone to lose temper and was cured of the mental
disorder (delusion)
a) A is not guilty of murder as he was a person of unsound mind.
b) A is guilty of murder as he was not a person of unsound mind.
c) A is not guilty of any offence.
d) None of the above is correct.
25. A is intoxicated with alcohol. He takes a large knife and is going along the road. B
tries to pacify him, but A declares his intention to kill him follows him and inflict
injuries on B of which he dies
a) A is guilty of murder, as he got drunk voluntarily.
b) A is not guilty of murder , as he was under intoxication.
c) A is not guilty of any offence.
d) None of the above is correct.
26. Good faith within the meaning of Indian Penal Code means
a) An act done with due care and caution
b) An actual belief that the act done is not contrary to law
c) An act, in fact, done honestly.
d) An act done under bona fide belief.
27. A, a surgeon, knowing fully well that except a miracle, nothing can save X, who is
ailing from a disease. In good faith, if the surgeon operated on X, but as a
consequence of that operation X died, then which one of the following statements
would be correct?
a) A is guilty of murder for knowing well that X will not survive
b) A is guilty of murder because the death is direct consequence of the operation.
c) A is not guilty because he had acted in good faith
d) The matter being subjective, no specific decision can be given.
28. A, an officer of a court of justice is ordered to arrest Y by the court. He arrests Z after
due inquiry believing Z to be Y.
a) A has committed the offence of wrongful confinement.
b) A is guilty of criminal negligence.
c) A has committed no offence, because he is protected by section 76 of IPC.
d) None of the above is correct.
29. A and B went to a jungle to shoot porcupines. They agreed to take up certain positions
to lie in wait for the game. After a while, A hearing the rustle and believing it was a
porcupine, fired in that direction. The shoot hit B and killed him.
a) A is guilty of murder.
b) A not guilty of any offence, as it was a case of pure accident under section 80
IPC.
c) A is guilty of criminal negligence.
d) None of the above is correct.
30. Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from de minimis non curat lex?
a) Necessity knows no law.
b) Nothing is an offence done by a child under 7 years of age.
c) Every person is liable for his own acts.
d) Trifling acts do not constitute an offence.
31. A, a snake charmer, persuaded B to allow himself to be bitten by a poisonous snake,
inducing B to believe that he had power to protect B from harm. B consented, and as a
a result died.
a) A is not liable, as B consented to suffer the harm
b) A is liable, as although B consented, such consent was founded on
misconception of fact (that is A had the power to cure snake bites)
c) A is liable for murder and not culpable homicide
d) None of the above is correct.
32. A is in house which is on fire, with Z, a child. People below hold out a blanket. A
dops the child in good faith intending the child’s benefit. But the child is killed by the
fall. A has committed
a) Murder
b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c) Culpable homicide as an exception to section 300
d) No offence.
33. Voluntary intoxication
a) Makes an offence more serious or increases the gravity of an offence
b) Is a weak defence to a criminal charge
c) Is no excuse for the commission of an offence
d) Reduces the gravity of all the offences.
34. A, armed with a sword, is at a great distance from B. A threatened to kill B. B shot at
A, and killed him.
a) B could plead private defence, as he has a reasonable apprehension of being
attacked by A’s sword.
b) B could not plead private defence, as it cannot be said that he has a present
and reasonable apprehension of being attacked by A.
c) B could not plead private defence, as such right is available only when one is
being attacked by another.
d) None of the above.
35. ‘A’ in his madness, attempts to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ hits A with an iron rod seriously injuring
him.
a) B has no right of private defence since A is mad
b) B has a right of private defence even though A is mad
c) B is guilty of inflicting grievous injury on A
d) None of the above.
36. Every person has a right to defend his own body
a) Against any offence affecting the human body
b) And the body of his friends, against any offence affecting the human body
c) And the body of any person, against any offence affecting the human body
d) And the body of his blood relatives, against any offence affecting the human
body
37. Some militants are hiding in a house occupied by an individual. Militants are engaged
in an attack on the police party by firing from the house. The police persons, to defend
themselves, fire towards the house and an innocent person in the house is hit by the
bullet and dies as a result. The police persons are guilty of
a) No offence
b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c) Murder
d) Death by rash or negligent act.
38. In which of the following cases , A has no right to cause death of B.
a) A and B were quarrelling and B was bent to kill A.
b) A refused to do some work of B. At this, B, in a fit of anger, with a knife in his
hand, and saying words to kill A, attacks him.
c) B wants to rape A.
 d) A and B are on a ship which has lost his way in the sea. Both are very hungry,
and to survive, the only option left is to kill other and consume his flesh.
39. Which section of the IPC based on the maxim ‘ Furiosi nulla voluntas est is
a) Section 85
b) Section 82
c) Section 83
d) Section 84
40. Section 82 lays down the rule of
a) Wholly incapax
b) Partially incapax
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of the above.
41. X, a surgeon, amputates the right hand index finger of ‘Y’ , a 14 year old beggar with
Y’s consent, and in good faith that this would enable ‘Y’ to get more alms.
a) X commits no offence as the act was done with the consent of Y
b) X commits an offence as the consent of a child of 14 years is no avail.
c) X commits no offence as the act was done in good faith for the benefit and
with the consent of Y
d) X is not exempted from criminal liability as the act was done not in good faith
within the meaning of IPC.
42. A hangman who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the order of the court is exempt from
criminal liability by virtue of
a) Section 77, IPC
b) Section 78, IPC
c) Section 79, IPC
d) Section 76, IPC
43. A person who commits an offence in a state of voluntary intoxication shall be liable to
be dealt with as if he had
a) The same intention as he would have had if he had not been intoxicated.
b) The same knowledge as he would have had if he had not been intoxicated
c) The same intention and knowledge as he would have had if he had not been
intoxicated.
d) Not the same intention and knowledge as he would have had if he had not
been intoxicated.
44. The right to private defence is
a) Unrestricted
b) Subject to restrictions contained in section 100 of IPC
c) Subject to other provisions
d) Subject to restrictions contained in section 99 of IPC
45. In which of the following, the right of private defence do not extend to cause death of
the offender?
a) Rape
b) Gratifying unnatural lust
c) Causing miscarriage
d) Kidnapping.
46. Every person has right to defend his own property under the following types of
offences except
a) Theft
b) Robbery
c) Criminal trespass
d) Criminal intimidation
47. A is attacked by a mob who attempt to murder him. He cannot effectually exercise his
right of private defence without firing on the mob and he cannot fire without risk of
harming young children who are mingled with the mob.
a) A commits no offence if by so firing he harms any of the children
b) A will be guilty of murder, because the right of private defence does not
empower him to cause harm to innocent children
c) A will be guilty of murder, because the right of private defence does not
empower him to cause death of anyone.
d) None of the above.
48. A enters by night a house which he is legally entitled to enter. Z in good faith, taking
A for a house breaker attacks A.
1. Z will not be guilty as he acted under a misconception of fact
2. Z will be guilty as he has not acted in good faith
3. A has the right to private defence against Z.
4. A do not have the right of private defence against Z.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 a) I and II
b) I and III
c) I and IV
d) II and III
49. Which of the following a leading case law on insanity as a defence?
a) R v. Dudley & Stephen
b) R v Govinda
c) State V. K.M. Nanavati
d) R. v McNaughten
50. XYZ, the person having sufficient food but does not provide some food to a beggar
who dies of hunger. XYZ is guilty of
A) Murder
B) Attempt to murder
C) Causing death by rash or negligent act
D) No offence
51. For abetment by conspiracy
A) One person must instigate the other for the commission of an offense.
B) There must be an intentional aid by one person to another for the doing of an
offense.
C) Some act or illegal omission must take place in pursuance of an engagement
between two or more persons to do an unlawful act.
D) None of the above
52. A and B agreed to commit the murder of C by poisoning and D was to procure poison,
but he did not procure it. A and B are guilty of
A) No offence
B) Criminal conspiracy to murder C
C) Abetment of murder by conspiracy
D) Attempt to murder with the aid of section 34 Indian Penal Code
53. X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y gives him money. He
thus induces Y to give him money. Here X has committed the offense of
A) Defamation
B) Mischief
C) Criminal intimidation
D) Extortion
54. Criminal conspiracy is an agreement between two or more persons to
A) To do or cause to be done an illegal act
B) Do or cause to be done an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal by illegal
means.
C) Commit an offense
D) None of the above
55. How many types of punishment have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code
1860
(a) Four.
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Three
56. A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. This agreement implies the
consent of each to suffer any harm which, in the course of such fencing, may be
caused without foul play. A while playing fairly, hurts Z and as a result, Z dies. A is
liable
(a) For causing hurt to Z
(b) For murder to Z by negligence
(c) For no offence
(d) For culpable homicide not amounting to murder
57. Which one of the following is an essential ingredient of sedition?
(a) Dishonest intention
(b) Mala fide intention
(c) Words spoken must cause public disorder by acts of violence
(d) Exciting disaffection towards the government
58. Under the Indian Penal Code, the right of Private defence of property extends to
causing death if the offence is:
(a) House-breaking by night
(b) Robbery
(c) Mischief by fire committed on any building
(d) All of the above
59. The abetment of offence is completed as soon as:
(a) The offence abetted has been committed
(b) The abettor has incited another person to commit an offence
 (c) The person abetted has done some overt act towards the commission of the
offence
(d) The abettor has done something at the time of commission of the offence itself to
help its commission
60. A makes a false entry in his shop-book for the purpose of using it as corroborative
evidence in a court of justice. ‘A’ is guilty of:
(a) Fabricating false evidence
(b) Giving false evidence
(c) Abetment
(d) Criminal conspiracy
61. Right of private defence of the body begins:
(a) When a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises
(b) Where there is an attack on the body
(c) When public authorities have refused protection
(d) When mental peace gets disturbed
62. Which of the following is/are true in the context of abetment? ‘A’ says to ‘B’- I intend
to kill ‘C’. ‘B’ says, “do as you like”, ‘A’ kills ‘C’. ‘B’ is guilty of:
(a) Attempt
(b) Instigation
(c) Abetment to murder
(d) None of the above
63. Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code (Adultery) was struck down by the Supreme
Court in which of the following case?
(a) Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI
(b) Joseph Shine v. UOI
(c) T. S Poonawala v. UOI
(d) Naz Foundation Trust v. Suresh Kumar Kaushal
64. Which section of the Indian Penal Code codifies, in the field of criminal law, the
maxim: ‘de minimus non curat lex’?
(a) Section 95
(b) Section 96
(c) Section 97
(d) Section 98
65. As per the Indian Penal Code, gang rape is punished under:
 (a) Section 376 A
(b) Section 376 C
(c) Section 376 D
(d) Section 376 E
66. In which of the following case was it held that death penalty shall be inflicted only in
the rarest of rare cases?
(a) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
(b) Machhi singh v. State of Punjab
(c) Balwant Singh v. UOI
(d) Rajendra Prasad v. State of UP
67. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court make it clear that ‘mere
criticism or comments on government would not amount to the offence of sedition’?
(a) Ranbir Singh v. State of Haryana
(b) Gyan Kaur v. State of Punjab
(c) Kedarnath v. State of Bihar
(d) Shreya Singhal v. UOI
68. The cardinal principle of Criminal law principle- Nullum crimen sine lege, nulla
poena sine lege means:
(a) No crime or punishment can exist without a pre-existing penal law
(b) A man is presumed to be innocent until proven guilty
(c) Ignorance of law is no excuse
(d) An act must be accompanied by a criminal intent to constitute an offence
69. In which one of the following circumstances, the right of private defence of the body
extends to causing death?
(a) Reasonable apprehension to cause simple hurt
(b) Reasonable apprehension to cause theft
(c) Reasonable apprehension to cause wrongful restraint
(d) An act of throwing or administering acid of such an attempt that reasonably
causes apprehension of grievous hurt
70. ‘X’, a doctor, informs his patient ‘Y’ that he has cancer of the last stage. ‘X’ request
‘Y’ to arrange his family affairs since ‘Y’ will not be able to survive beyond a few
more weeks. On hearing this ‘Y’ dies of shock. ‘X’ is
(a) Guilty of murder as he knew that such a disclosure will cause death
(b) Guilty of causing death by negligence
 (c) Not guilty since communication was made in good faith for the benefit of ‘Y’
(d) Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder as he knew that such
disclosure is likely to cause death
71. A intentionally causes B’s death, partly by illegally omitting to give food to him, and
partly by beating him. A has committed –
(A) Culpable homicide
(B) Attempt to murder
(C) Murder
(D) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
72. The jurisdiction to try a person for an offense depends upon, under the general
principle of criminal law is
A) Place of commission of crime, within local area of such jurisdiction.
B) A place where such person is found
C) Nationality of the person
D) None of the above
73. In which one of the following mens rea is not an ingredient
(a) Strict or absolute liability
(b) Public nuisance and kidnapping
(c) Ignorance of the law is no excuse – maxim
(d) All are correct
74. A, the captain of a steam vessel, suddenly and without any fault or negligence on his
part, finds himself in such a position that before he can stop his vessel, he must
inevitably run down a boat B, with twenty to thirty passengers on board, unless he
changes the course of his vessel, and that by changing his course, he must incur risk
of running down a boat C with only two passengers on board, which he may possibly
clear. Here if A alters his course without any intention to run down the boat C and in
good faith for the purpose of avoiding the danger to the passengers in boat B. But in
the course of this action A runs down boat C.
A) A is guilty
B) A is not guilty of any offence
C) A did not intentionally run down boat C
D) Both (A) and (C)
75. A person abets some crime by aiding
(a) Either prior to or at the commission of an act.
 (b) At the time of commission of an act.
(c) Prior to the act is done.
(d) Either prior to or posterior or a the time of commission of an act.
76. A instigated B to murder C. B refuses to do so
(a) A is guilty of abetting B.
(b) A is not guilty of abetting B.
(c) A is not guilty as C is not murdered.
(d) None of the above.
77. Fracture or dislocation of a tooth is
(a) Simple hurt
(b) Greivous hurt
(c) Assault
(d) None of the aboce
78. A leading case on grave and sudden provocation is
(a) Jagrup Singh V. State of Haryana
(b) K.M Nanavati V. State of Maharashtra
(c) Dasarath V. State of Bihar
(d) Ujagar Singh V. Emperor
79. A instigates B to murder C. B stabbed C but C recovers from the wound.
(a) A is not guilty of instigation as desired result not obtained.
(b) A is guilty of abetting B to commit murder.
(c) A is guilty of abetting B to commit grievous hurt
(d) None of these
80. X and Y, swimming the sea, after shipwreck got hold of a plank. The plank was not
large enough to support both. X, with no other option pushed Y, who was drowned. X
has committed
(a) Culpable homicide
(b) Murder
(c) The offence of causing death by negligence
(d) No offence
81. A, with the intention of murdering Z, instigates B (a lunatic) to give poison to Z. B,
however, takes poison himself
(a) A is guilty of abetment
(b) A is guilty of causing death of lunatic B.
 (c) A is not guilty as B. a lunatic, cannot be an offender in the eyes of law.
(d) None of these
82. A, a self-styled expert in family planning, gave B some chemical after the
consumption of which the child in the womb of B died in the womb
(a) A has committed the offence of murder.
(b) A has committed the offence of culpable homicide
(c) A has committed the offence of causing miscarriage
(d) No offence.
83. A struck B on the head a simple blow with a piece of firewood. B fell down bleeding
from nose and become senseless. A and his wife thought that B was dead, hence they
placed B on the wooden pyre and set fire to it which actually caused B’s death. A and
his wife are guilty of
(a) Grievous hurt
(b) Simple hurt
(c) Murder
(d) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
84. A instigates B to cause grievous hurt to Z. B does so, but Z died
(a) A is not liable for punishment for murder
(b) A is liable for punishment for murder
(c) A is not liable for any punishment.
(d) None of these.
85. Culpable homicide is not murder if it is committed
(a) With the consent of the victim who has completed 12 years of age.
(b) With the consent of the victim who has completed 18 years of age
(c) When the offender is acting under spell of madness
(d) When the offender is acting in anger
86. A, a public officer is authorized by a court of justice to apprehend Z. B knowing that
fact and also that C is not Z, willfully represents to A that C is Z and thereby
intentionally causes A to apprehend C. B commits the offence of
(a) Attempt
(b) Abetment
(c) Perjury
(d) None of the above
87. X, on receiving grave and sudden provocation from Z, intentionally cause the death of
Y, who is Z’s brother. X has committed the offence of
(a) Murder
(b) Grievous hurt
(c) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(d) Attempt to murder.
88. X attempts to horsewhip Y, not in such a manner as to cause grievous hurt to Y. Y
draws a pistol while X persists in the assault. Y finding no other alternative to escape
shoots X dead. What offence has Y committed?
(a) No offence as Y only exercised right of private defence
(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder for exceeding the right of private
defence
(c) Murder since Y dis not have any right of private defence against X fore such a
minor assault,
(d) Attempt to murder.
89. X and Y agree to commit theft in Z’s house, but no theft is actually committed. They
are guilty of
(a) No offence
(b) Criminal conspiracy
(c) Abetment by conspiracy
(d) Abetment by instigation.
90. Grave and sudden provocation converting murder into culpable homicide should not
be
(a) Voluntarily provoked by the offender
(b) By anything done in obedience to the law
(c) By public servant in the lawful exercise of the powers of such public servant
(d) All are correct.
91. ‘A’, aged 25 years, and his girl friend ‘B’, aged 21 years, agreed to commit suicide. A
kills B first, but could not kill himself because of his inability to overcome the will
power. A commits the offence of
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(c) Attempt to suicide
(d) No offence.
92. X with the intention of causing Z’s death gave him sever blow on his head. Z became
unconscious. X believing Z to be dead and with a view to fabricate the evidence,
throws X into a pond. It was found that Z died because of drowning. X is guilty of
(a) Attempts to commit murder
(b) Committing murder
(c) Committing culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(d) No offence
93. X’ committed theft in a government building. ‘Z’ a chowkidar of the building, kept
the gate of the building open with the intention to facilitate X’s safe return with the
stolen property and thereby facilitated his retreat. Z is
(a) Guilty of abetment by theft by intentional aiding
(b) Guilty of theft by instigation
(c) Not guilty of abetment
(d) Guilty of theft
94. When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace,
they are said to commit
(a) An affray
(b) An assault
(c) Rioting
(d) Unlawful assembly
95. When force or violence is used by an unlawful assembly or by any member thereof, in
prosecution of the common object, every member is guilty by
(a) Rioting
(b) Affray
(c) Unlawful assembly
(d) Assault
96. The offence of giving the false evidence is also known as
(a) Perjury
(b) Blackmail
(c) Perjury to English law
(d) None of the above
97. A puts jewels into a box belonging to Z, with the intention that they may be found in
that box, and that this circumstance may cause Z to be convicted of theft
(a) A is guilty of fabricating false evidence
 (b) A is not guilty of fabricating false evidence
(c) A is guilty of fabricating false evidence as well as theft
(d) None of the above.
98. A police officer arrested and detained a person in the lockup despite production of a
bail order from the Court. Police officer is guilty of
(a) Wrongful restraint
(b) Wrongful confinement
(c) Abduction
(d) Kidnapping
99. What must be the age of minor with regard to the offence of kidnapping?
(a) Sixteen years
(b) Eighteen years
(c) Under sixteen years of age, if a male, and under 18 years of age, if a female
(d) Under 21 years of age, if a male, and under 18 years of age, if a female.
100. Sexual intercourse by a man with his own wife is not rape, if the wife is above
(a) 18 years of age
(b) 15 years of age
(c) 16 years of age
(d) 14 years of age
101. The essence of the offence of cheating is
(a) Deception
(b) Trick or sham
(c) Dishonest concealment of facts.
(d) All of the above
102. Mischief is an offence dealing with the
(a) Damage to property
(b) Damage to person
(c) Damage to person or property
(d) None of the above.
103. A, in good faith, says of a book published by Z: Z’s book is indecent, Z must
be a man of impure mind.” Is this defamation under I.P.C
(a) Yes, because the opinion respect’s Z’s character
(b) No, because it falls within one of the exceptions
(c) No, because it is slander.
 (d) No, because it has not been repeated.
104. Solitary confinement
(a) Means keeping a prisoner thoroughly isolated from any kind of contact with the
outside world
(b) Has not been abolished in India
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect.
105. Offence of theft is related to
(a) Movable as well as immovable
(b) Movable property only
(c) Immovable property as long as it is severed from the earth
(d) Both (b) and (c)
106. A meets B and his child in a jungle. A takes the child and threatens to kill him
unless B delivers his purse. A has committed
(a) Extortion
(b) Theft
(c) Robbery
(d) Dacoity.
107. Which of the following is an offence which is punishable in four stages:
(Assembling, preparation, attempt and actual commission of crime)
(a) Robbey
(b) Dacoity
(c) Murder
(d) Rape
108. X' along with four other armed hoodlums seizes the child of 'Y' and threatens
to kill him unless 'Y' parts with his watch and diamond ring. 'X' has committed the
offence of
(a) Robbery
(b) Dacoity
(c) Attempt to murder
(d) Theft
109. Which of the following factors separates robbery from dacoity
(a) Time
(b) Property
 (c) Place
(d) Number
110. In which of the following cases, criminal misappropriation of property takes
place:
(a) P finds a rupee coin lying on the footpath not knowing as to whom it belongs,
picks it up and keeps it in his pocket.
(b) P finds a purse lying in the highway; he picks it up and keeps it trying to trace its
owner even though he finds address in the pockets of the purse.
(c) P finds a promissory note belonging to Z bearing a blank endorsement. He pledges
it with a bank to secure a loan with clear intention that he would return it to Z after
one year.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
111. A' finds a watch on the floor of a State Transport bus while he was leaving it
as the last passenger. He picked it up and kept it in his pocket instead of returning it to
the State Transport authorities. Next day he sold it. 'A' is liable for
(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) Criminal breach of trust
(d) Criminal misappropriation of property
112. Which of the following is not an essential ingredient of criminal breach of
trust:
(a) Misappropriation
(b) Entrustment
(c) Negligence
(d) Disposal of property

113. X, a Hindu, turned his wife out of the marital home and refused to return her
ornaments, money and clothes despite her repeated demands. What offence, if any,
has X committed?
a) Theft
b) Cheating
c) Criminal breach of trust
d) Criminal intimidation
114. Common intention under section 34 implies:
 a) Similar intention
b) Pre-arranged planning
c) Presence of common knowledge
d) Common designs for common objects
115. Z takes away a golden chain of his wife which was given by her father as
Stridhan, without her consent, and pledges 1t to raise money for domestic use. Z is
a) not guilty of theft as the chain was their joint property
b) not guilty of theft as the property was temporarily taken away.
c) guilty of theft.
d) guilty of criminal misappropriation.
116. For the offence of theft, the taking of property should be
a) Permanent
b) Temporary
c) Either permanent or temporary
d) Neither permanent nor temporary
117. A took away three cows belonging to B without his consent and distributed
them to his (B's) creditors.
a) A is guilty of theft as it is causing wrongful loss to B even if there is no
wrongful gain to A.
b) not guilty of theft because it is not causing wrongful gain to him.
c) guilty of extortion
d) guilty of criminal misappropriation.
118. Under Sec. 34
a) physical presence is necessary.
b) physical presence is not necessary at all.
c) physical presence is necessary for participation but not in all cases
d) none of these
119. A threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Z unless Z gives money
to him and induces Z to give money. A has committed
a) Theft
b) Extortion
c) Robbery
d) Dacoity.
120. A cuts down a tree on B's land with the dishonest intention of taking the tree
out of B’s possession without B’s consent. A commits
a) No offence until the tree is taken away
b) The offence of criminal misappropriation of property
c) The offence of criminal breach of trust
d) The offence of theft, as soon as severance of the tree from the ground is
complete,
121. A had a consensual sexual relationship with Z’s wife. She gives to ‘A’ a
valuable property which ‘A’ knows to belong to her husband ‘Z’ and she has no
authority from Z to give. A takes the property dishonestly. ‘A’ has committed the
offence of
a) Criminal breach of trust and misappropriation
b) Theft and criminal breach of trust
c) Theft
d) Criminal breach of trust
122. Y owed some-money to X. X removed the bullock of Y, grazing by the side
of a stream and kept it tied in his own house. When Y asked him to release the
bullock, X told him that he would do so when the money was paid. X is guilty of
a) criminal breach of trust.
b) criminal misappropriation.
c) extortion.
d) theft.
123. 'X' finds 'Y' alone late in the night at a lonely place. He shows him a revolver
and demands his purse, watch and gold ring. 'X' warns 'Y' that if he does not hand
over these things, he would kill him. Fearing injury or death, 'Y' hands over the
valuables to 'X'. 'X' is
a) guilty of theft because he has caused wrongful loss to 'Y'.
b) guilty of robbery because he has caused wrongful loss to ,'Y' by threatening to
cause injury or death.
c) guilty of dacoity because he has caused wrongful loss to 'Y' with the help of a
firearm.
d) not guilty since 'Y' has given the property voluntarily.
124. The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is
a) coupled with force.
 b) committed by two or more but less than five persons.
c) committed by five or more persons.
d) coupled with imminent danger to life.
125. In the offence of dacoity
a) when 5 or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit robbery all of
them are equally liable for the offence even though their parts are different.
b) When 5 or more persons in the process of committing robbery commit
different offences, each is liable to the offence he has committed.
c) All the persons committing the offence are not equally liable.
d) None of the above.
126. In which offence, preparation whereof is also punishable?
a) Theft
b) Dacoity
c) Murder
d) Rape
127. In which of the following case(s) a dishonest misappropriation has not been
committed?
A' takes a book from his friend B's library for reading it overnight. 'B' was not present
when 'A' took the book. The next day while coming to return the book, 'N was
tempted to see a cinema but had no money, so pawned the book to pay for the cinema
ticket.
'A' and 'B' were joint owners of a horse. 'A' took the horse to another station for his
exclusive use, without informing 'B'. Later inspite of demands from 'B', 'A' did not
return the horse and when it grew old, 'A' sold it and pocketed the money.
A' found a purse on the road, he picked it up and kept it in his pocket. Immediately, he
was arrested and the purse was recovered.
Codes:
a) I and II
b) II and III.
c) III alone.
d) I, II and III.
128. Which of the following is not an essential ingredient of criminal breach of
trust:
Misappropriation
 Entrustment
Negligence
Disposal of property
129. A servant collected money from the debtor of his master as authorized by
him. The servant retained the money in his hands because it was due to him as wages.
He commits
a) criminal breach of trust.
b) theft.
c) no offence.
d) criminal misappropriation.
130. Assertion (A): There is either theft or extortion in robbery.
Reason (R): Theft or extortion precedes robbery.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
131. X' an employer, deducts a certain percentage from the salary of his employees
telling that it is their contribution n to the provident fund but fails to credit it in the
fund. 'X' commits
(a) criminal breach of trust.
(b) criminal misappropriation
(c) theft
(d) cheating
133. The essence of offence of cheating is:
a) Moving of property
b) Misappropriation or conversion of property
c) Deception
d) Dishonest concealment of facts.
132. Stolen property is
Property the possession of which has been transferred by theft, extortion or robbery
Property criminally misappropriated
Property in respect of which criminal breach of trust has been committed.
All of the above.
133. A by putting Z in fear of grievous hurt dishonestly induces Z to sign or affix
his seal in a blank paper, and delivers it to A. Z signs and delivers the paper to A. A
has committed
a) Extortion
b) Robbery
c) Dacoity
d) Theft.
134. A projected himself as a Scheduled Caste candidate and drew out some
additional advantages from U.P.S.C. and Govt. of India to which he hasn't legally
entitled as a general candidate. By taking advantage of his being a SC candidate he
appeared at the IAS exams and also got appointed in that cadre on the aforesaid false
representation and drew out his salaries from Govt. of India year to year.
a) A is guilty of cheating
b) A is guilty of cheating and forgery
c) A is guilty of forgery
d) None of the above.
135. Savitry pledged her 15 carat gold chain with Amal as security for a loan to be
repaid within two months. Before the expiry of the said two months period, Amal
induced Beena to purchase that gold chain by misrepresenting to her that it was 22
carat gold. What offence/s is/are committed by Amal?
a) Criminal breach of trust and cheating
b) Criminal misappropriation and cheating
c) Cheating
d) Criminal breach of trust and misappropriation.
136. A voluntarily throws into a river a ring belonging to B with intention thereby
causing wrongful loss to B. A has committed:
a. Theft
b. Extortion
c. Robbery
d. Mischief
137. A person commits 'criminal trespass' if he
(a) lawfully or unlawfully enters into or upon property in possession of another and
unlawfully remains there with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or
annoy any person in possession of such property.
(b) lawfully enters into or upon property in possession of another and unlawfully
remains there with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult, annoy any
person in possession of such property
(c) unlawfully enters into or upon property in possession of another and unlawfully
remains there with intent to commit an offence, or to intimidate, insult or annoy any
person possession of such property,
(d) none of the above.