DPPs Chemistry (11th)

CHAPTER PG
1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 2

2 Structure of Atom 23
3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 46
4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 64
5 Thermodynamics (C) 89
6 Chemical Equilibrium 117
7 Ionic Equilibrium 144
8 Redox Reactions 167
9 p Block Elements (Group 13 & 14) 191
10 General Organic Chemistry 210
11 Hydrocarbons 238
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Marks Premium DPPs - Chemistry (11th)
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Easy Questions
Question 1
A carbon compound contains 12.8% of carbon, 2.1% of hydrogen and 85.1% of bromine. The
molecular weight of the compound is 187.9. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound.
(Atomic wts: H = 1.008, C = 12.0, Br = 79.9)
A. A) CH 3 Br
B. B) CH 2 Br 2 I
C. C) C 2 H 4 Br 2
D. D) C 2 H 3 Br 3
Question 2
The formation of CO and CO 2 illustrates the law of
A. A) reciprocal proportion
B. B) conservation of mass
C. C) multiple proportion
D. D) constant composition
Question 3
80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms as in

A. A) 80 g of hydrogen
B. B) 1 g of hydrogen
C. C) 10 g of hydrogen
D. D) 5 g of hydrogen
Question 4
5 m of 0.1M Pb(NO 3 ) 2 is mixed with 10ml of 0.02M KI. The amount of Pbl 2 precipitated will
be about
A. A) 10 −2 mol
B. B) 10 −4 mol
C. C) 2 × 10 −4 mol
D. D) 10 −3 mol
Question 5
What volume of oxygen gas (O 2 ) measured at 0 ∘ C and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1 L
of propane gas (C 3 H 8 ) measured under the same conditions?
A. A) 10 L
B. B) 7 L
C. C) 6 L
D. D) 5 L
Question 6
Empirical formula of a compound is CH 2 O and its molecular mass is 90 , the molecular formula
of the compound is
A. A) C 3 H 6 O 3
B. B) C 2 H 4 O 2
C. C) C 6 H 12 O 6
D. D) CH 2 O
Question 7
19.85 mL of 0.1 NNaOH reacts with 20 mL of HCl solution for complete neutralisation. The
molarity of HCl solution is
A. A) 9.9
B. B) 0.99
C. C) 0.099
D. D) 0.0099
Question 8
The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving only carbon dioxide) in the production of 270 kg of
a aluminium metal from bauxite by the Hall process is: (Atomic mass : A1 = 27)
A. A) 270 kg
B. B) 540 kg
C. C) 90 kg
D. D) 180 kg
Question 9
Which of the following has the largest number of atoms?
A. A) 1 g of Ag
B. B) 1 g of Fe
C. C) 1 g of Cl 2
D. D) 1 g of Mg
Question 10
The mole fraction of ethanol in water is 0.08. Its molality is
A. A) 6.32 mol kg −1
B. B) 4.83 mol kg −1
C. C) 3.82 mol kg −1
D. D) 2.84 mol kg
−1
Question 11
The system that contains the maximum number of atoms is
A. A) 4.25g of NH 3
B. B) 8g of O 2
C. C) 2g of H 2
D. D) 4g of He
Question 12
Which of the following has the largest number of moles?
A. A) 8 g of oxygen atoms
B. B) 16 g of oxygen gas
C. C) 14 g of nitrogen gas (N 2 )
D. D) All have the same number of moles
Question 13
10 g of MgCO 3 decomposes on heating to 0.1 mole CO 2 and 4 g MgO. The percent purity of
MgCO 3 is
(Given that atomic weights of Mg, C and O are 24, 12 and 16 u)
A. A) 44%
B. B) 54%
C. C) 74%
D. D) 84%
Question 14
1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O 2 in a closed vessel. Which reaction is left in excess
and how much? (At, wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)
A. A) Mg, 0.16 g
B. B) O 2 , 0.16 g
C. C) Mg, 0.44 g
D. D) O 2 , O. 28 g
Question 15
The number of hydrogen atoms present in 25.6 g of sucrose (C 12 H 22 O 11 ) which has a molar
mass of 342.3 g is
A. A) 22 × 10 23
B. B) 9.91 × 10 23
C. C) 11 × 10 23
D. D) 44 × 10 23
Question 16
The percentage of oxygen in CH 2 O is
A. A) 40%
B. B) 6.6%
C. C) 53.33%
D. D) 49%
Question 17
C 6 H 6 (liq) + 15
2 O 2 ( g) → 6CO 2 ( g) + 3H 2 O(liq) Benzene burns in oxygen according to the
above equation. What is the volume of oxygen (at STP) needed for complete combustion of 39
gram of liquid benzene?
A. A) 11.2 litre
B. B) 22.4 litre
C. C) 84 litre
D. D) 168 litre
Question 18
The mole fraction of benzene in a solution containing 39% by mass in an organic solvent of
molecular mass 122 is
A. A) 0.5
B. B) 0.6
C. C) 0.4
D. D) 0.35
Question 19
Suppose 60% w/w aqueous solution of glucose (C 6 H 12 O 6 ) and 20% w/w aqueous solution
of urea (NH 2 CONH 2 ) have equal molarity, then which solution has higher density:
A. A) Both have equal density

B. B) Glucose solution
C. C) Urea solution
D. D) Cannot be predicted
Question 20
The volume of CO 2 (incm 3 ) liberated at STP, when 1.06 g of anhydrous sodium carbonate is
treated with excess of dilute HCl is [atomic mass of Na = 23]
A. A) 112
B. B) 224
C. C) 56
D. D) 2240
Question 21
The normality of 30 volume H 2 O 2 is
A. A) 2.678 N
B. B) 5.336 N
C. C) 8.034 N
D. D) 6.685 N
Question 22
The haemoglobin from red blood corpuscles of most mammals contains approximately 0.33% of
iron by mass. The molecular mass of haemoglobin is 67200. The number of iron atoms in each
molecular of heamoglobin is [Given : Atomic mass of Fe = 56 g/mol]
Report your answer by rounding it upto nearest whole number.
Question 23
The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH 2 O and 180 g respectively.
The molecular formula of the compound will be
A. A) C 9 H 18 O 9
B. B) CH 2 O
C. C) C 6 H 12 O 6
D. D) C 2 H 4 O 2
Question 24
Concentrated of aqueous sulphuric acid is 98%H 2 SO 4 by mass and has a density of

1.80 g mL −1 Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1MH 2 SO 4 solution is:
A. A) 16.65 mL
B. B) 22.20 mL
C. C) 5.55 mL
D. D) 11.10 mL
Question 25
The mass of CaO obtained by heating 100 kg of 95% pure limestone (CaCO 3 ) is -
A. A) 56 kg
B. B) 28 kg
C. C) 53.2 kg
D. D) 50 kg
Question 26
The density of 1M solution of a compound ' X ' is 1.25 g mL −1 . The correct option for the
molality of solution is (Molar mass of compound X = 85 g )
A. A) 1.165 m
B. B) 0.858 m
C. C) 0.705 m
D. D) 1.208 m
Question 27
10 g of hydrogen and 64 of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water
produced in this reaction will be
A. A) 2 mol
B. B) 3 mol
C. C) 4 mol
D. D) 1 mol
Question 28
Which one of the followings has maximum number of atoms?
A. A) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]

B. B) 1 g of O 2 (g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
C. C) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
D. D) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
Question 29
A certain metal sulphide, MS 2 , is used extensively as a high temperature lubricant. If MS 2 is

40.06% by mass sulphur, metal M has atomic mass.
A. A) 160u
B. B) 64u
C. C) 40u
D. D) 96u
Question 30
The molarity of a NaOH solution by dissolving 4 g of it in 250ml water is
A. A) 0.4M
B. B) 0.8M
C. C) 0.2M
D. D) 0.1M
Moderate Questions
Question 31
1.6 g of an organic compound gave 2.6 g of magnesium pyrophosphate. The percentage of

phosphorus in the compound is
A. A) 45.38%
B. B) 54.38%
C. C) 37.76%
D. D) 19.02%
Question 32
A mixture of 1.0 mole of Al and 3.0 mole of Cl 2 are alloved to react as:
2Al(s) + 3Cl 2 (g) → 2AlCl 3 (g). Then moles of excess reagent left unreacted is:
A. A) 3.5
B. B) 1.0
C. C) 1.5
D. D) 2.5
Question 33
A compound of Xe and F is found to have 53.5% of Xe. What is oxidation number of Xe in this
compound?
A. A) -4
B. B) 0
C. C) 4
D. D) 6
Question 34
The mass percentage of nitrogen in Histamine is?
A. A) 18.92
B. B) 57.2
C. C) 37.84
D. D) 34.64
Question 35
How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg 3 (PO 4 ) 2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen
atoms?
A. A) 0.02
B. B) 3.125 × 10 −2
C. C) 1.25 × 10 −2
D. D) 2.5 × 10 −2
Question 36
What will be the normality of the salt solution obtained by neutralising x mL. y (N) HCl with y
mL x (N) NaOH, and finally adding (x + y)mL distilled water
A. A)
2(x+y)
xy N
B. B) 2(x+y) N
xy
C. C) ( x+y )N
2xy
D. D) ( xy )N
x+y
Question 37
20 mL of acetic acid reacts with 20 mL of ethyl alcohol to form ethyl acetate. The density of
acid and alcohol are 1 g/mL and 0.7 g/mL respectively. The limiting reagent in this reaction is
A. A) acetic acid
B. B) ethyl alcohol
C. C) acetic acid and ethyl alcohol
D. D) ester
Question 38
The mole fraction of a solute in a binary solution is 0.1. At 298 K, molarity of this solution is
same as as its molality. Density of this solution at 298 K is 2.0 g cm −3 . The ratio of molecular
weights of the solute and the solvent (M solute /M solvent ) is
A. A) 9
B. B) 19
C. C) 4.5
D. D) 4.5
1
Question 39
The mole fraction of a solute in a solution is 0.1. At 298 K, molarity of this solution is the same as
its molality. Density of this solution at 298 K is 2.0 g cm −3 . The ratio of the molecular weights of
the solute and solvent, ( MW solute ) , is
MW
solvent
Question 40
What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO 3 is mixed
with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution?
(Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)
A. A) 28 g
B. B) 3.5 g
C. C) 7 g
D. D) 14 g
Question 41
100 mL of N
5 HCl was added to 1 g of pure CaCO 3 . What would remain after the reaction?
A. A) 0.5 g of CaCO 3
B. B) Neither CaCO 3 nor HCl
C. C) 50 mL of HCl
D. D) 25 mL of HCl
Question 42
245 g impure sample of KClO 3 (s) on heating gives 12 g O 2 (g) according to

2 KClO 3 (s) → 2 KCl(s) + 3 O 2 (g)
Calculate % purity of sample ? If your answer is K, mark 2K as answer after rounding off to
nearest integer.
Question 43
An ideal gaseous mixture of ethane (C 2 H 6 ) and ethene (C 2 H 4 ) occupies 28 litre at 1 atm and
273 K. The mixture reacts completely with 128 g O 2 to produce CO 2 and H 2 O. Mole fraction
at C 2 H 6 in the mixture is:
A. A) 0.6
B. B) 0.4
C. C) 0.5
D. D) 0.8
Question 44
Number of atoms in 558.5 gram Fe (at.wt. of Fe = 55.85 g mol −1 ) is
A. A) twice that in 60 g carbon

B. B) 6.023 × 10 22
C. C) half that in 8g He
D. D) 558.5 × 6.023 × 10 23
Question 45
10 mL citric acid (H 3 C 6 H 5 O 7 ) is neutralised completely by 35.6 mL of 0.312 M NaOH solution.

The molarity of the solution of citric acid is
A. A) 1.11 M
B. B) 0.45 M
C. C) 0.11 M
D. D) 0.37 M
Question 46
In an experiment, 2.4 g of iron oxide on reduction with hydrogen gave 1.68 g of iron. In another
experiment, 2.9 g of iron oxide gave 2.09 g of iron on reduction. Which law is illustrated from the
above data?
A. A) Law of constant proportions

B. B) Law of multiple proportions
C. C) Law of conservation of mass
D. D) Law of reciprocal proportions
Question 47
The amount of H 2 O 2 present in 1 litre of 1.5 NH 2 O 2 solution, is:
A. A) 25.5 g
B. B) 3.0 g
C. C) 8.0 g
D. D) 2.5 g
Question 48
The molarity of NO 3 − in the solution after 2 L of 3MAgNO 3 is mixed with 3 L of 1MBaCl 2 is
A. A) 1.2M
B. B) 1.8M
C. C) 0.5M
D. D) 0.4M
Question 49
40% (w/v) of NaCl solution (specific gravity = 1.12) is equivalent to
A. A) 3.57 × 10 5 ppm
B. B) 3.57 × 10 6 ppm
C. C) 1 × 10 6 ppm
D. D) 4 × 10 5 ppm
Question 50
1.25 g of a sample of Na 2 CO 3 and Na 2 SO 4 is dissolved in 250ml solution. 25ml of this

solution neutralises 20ml of 0.1 NH 2 SO 4 . The % of Na 2 CO 3 in this sample is
A. A) 84.8%
B. B) 8.48%
C. C) 15.2%
D. D) 42.4%
Question 51
Calculate the molality of KI if the density of 20% (mass/mass) aqueous KI is 1.202 gmL-1. Report
your final answer by rounding off the molality correct upto one place of decimal and then
multiplying it by 10.
Question 52
Calculate the number of oxygen atoms required to combine with 7g of N 2 to form N 2 O 3 when
80% of N 2 is converted to N 2 O 3 .
A. A) 2.3 × 10 23
B. B) 3.6 × 10 23
C. C) 1.8 × 10 23
D. D) 5.4 × 10 21
Question 53
For the reaction Fe 2 O 3 + 3CO ⟶ 2Fe + 3CO 2 , the volume of carbon monoxide required to
reduce one mole of ferric oxide is
A. A) 22.4dm
3
B. B) 44.8dm 3
C. C) 67.2dm
3
D. D) 11.2dm 3
Question 54
A metal M forms the sulphate M 2 (SO 4 ) 3 . A 0.596 gram sample of the sulphate reacts with
excess BaCl 2 to give 1.220 g BaSO 4 . What is the atomic weight of M(in g/mol)?
A. A) 26.9
B. B) 69.7
C. C) 55.8
D. D) 23
Question 55
V 1 mL of NaOH of molarity X and V 2 mL of Ba(OH) 2 of molarity Y are mixed together. The
mixture is completely neutralized by 100 mL of 0.1N HCl. If V 1 /V 2 = 1/4 and X/Y = 4 then
what fraction of acid is neutralized by Ba(OH) 2
A. A) 0.5
B. B) 0.25
C. C) 0.33
D. D) 0.67
Question 56
20 mL of methane is completely burnt using 50 mL of oxygen. The volume of the gas left after
cooling to room temperature is
A. A) 40 mL
B. B) 60 mL
C. C) 30 mL
D. D) 80 mL
Question 57
0.30 g of an organic compound containing C, H and Oxygen on combustion yields 0.44 gCO 2
and 0.18 gH 2 O. If one mol of compound weighs 60, then molecular formula of the compound
is
A. A) CH 2 O
B. B) C 3 H 8 O
C. C) C 4 H 6 O
D. D) C 2 H 4 O 2
Question 58
Zinc and hydrochloric acid react according to the following reaction :

Zn(s) + 2HCl (aq. ) → ZnCl 2 (aq. ) + H 2 (g)
If 0.30 mole of Zn is added to 0.52 mole HCl, how many moles of H 2 is produced?
A. A) 0.2
B. B) 0.62
C. C) 0.6
D. D) 0.26
Question 59
Calculate the concentration (in percentage by weight) of a solution obtained by mixing
300 g 25% by weight solution of NH 4 Cl and 150 g of 40% by weight solution of NH 4 Cl .
Question 60
The ratio of number of oxygen atoms (O) in 16.0 g ozone (O 3 ), 28.0 g carbon monoxide (CO)
and 16.0 oxygen (O 2 ) is (Atomic mass : C = 12, O = 16 and Avogadro's constant
N A = 6.0 × 10 23 mol −1 )
A. A) 3 : 1 : 2
B. B) 1 : 1 : 2
C. C) 3 : 1 : 1
D. D) 1 : 1 : 1
Hard Questions
Question 61
A mixture of methane and ethene in a molar ratio of x : y has an average molecular mass of
20 u. The mean molar mass when they are mixed in the molar ratio of y : x will be -
A. A) 20 u
B. B) 25 u
C. C) 24 u
D. D) 15 u
Question 62
0. 765 g of an acid gives 0. 535 g of CO 2 and 0. 138 g of H 2 O. Then, the ratio of percentage of
carbon and hydrogen is
A. A) 19 : 2
B. B) 18 : 17
C. C) 20 : 17
D. D) 1 : 7
Question 63
1.0 g of Mg is burnt with 0.28 g of O 2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and
how much?
A. A) Mg, 5.8 g
B. B) Mg, 0.58 g
C. C) O 2 , 0.24 g
D. D) O 2 , 2.4 g
Question 64
29.2 % (w/w) HCl stock solution has a density of 1.25 g mL −1 . The molecular weight of HCl
is 36.5 g mol . The volume (mL) of stock solution required to prepare a 200 mL solution of 0.4
−1
M HCl is
Question 65
Calculate the number of moles of NaOH required to completely neutralise 100 g of 118% oleum
A. A) 2. 4
B. B) 1. 2
C. C) 4. 8
D. D) 8. 4
Question 66
30 mL of 0.2 N BaCl 2 is mixed with 40 mL of 0.3 N Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3 . How many g of BaSO 4 are
formed?
A. A) 0.10 g
B. B) 0.60 g
C. C) 0.90 g
D. D) 0.70 g
Question 67
A crystalline hydrated salt on being heated loses 45.6% of its weight. Percentage composition of
anhydrous salt is Al - 10.5 %, K - 15.1 %, S - 24.8 %, O - 49.6 %. Find molecular formula of salt
(hydrated) (M = 948 g/mol for hydrated salt).
A. A) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
B. B) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.12H2O
C. C) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.6H2O
D. D) K2SO4.Al4(SO4)6.48H2O
Question 68
Formation of polyethylene from calcium carbide takes place as follows

CaC 2 + 2H 2 O ⟶ Ca(OH) 2 + C 2 H 2
C2 H2 + H2 ⟶ C2 H4
nC 2 H 4 ⟶ (−CH 2 − CH 2 −) n
The amount of polyethylene obtained from 64.1 kg of CaC 2 is
A. A) 7 kg
B. B) 14 kg
C. C) 21 kg
D. D) 28 kg
Question 69
What are the final concentrations of all the ions when following are mixed? 50 mL of
0.12 M Fe(NO 3 ) 3 , 100 mL of 0.10M FeCl 3 and 100 mL of 0.26 M Mg(NO 3 ) 2 .
A. A) [Fe 3+ ] = 0.064M; [NO 3 ] = 0.28 M ; [Fe 3+ ] = 0.12 M; [Mg 2+ ] = 0.04 M
−
B. B) [Fe 3+ ] = 0.064M; [NO −

3 ] = 0.28 M ; [Fe ] = 0.12 M; [Mg ] = 0.104 M
3+ 2+
C. C) [Fe 3+ ] = 0.04M; [NO 3 ] = 0.28 M ; [Fe 3+ ] = 0.12 M; [Mg 2+ ] = 0.104 M

−
D. D) [Fe 3+ ] = 0.064M; [NO −

3 ] = 0.8 M ; [Fe ] = 0.12 M; [Mg ] = 0.104 M
3+ 2+
Question 70
The empirical formula of a non-electrolyte is CH 2 O. A solution containing 6 g of the compound

exerts the same osmotic pressure as that of 0.05M glucose solution at the same temperature.
The molecular formula of the compound is
A. A) C 2 H 4 O 2
B. B) C 3 H 6 O 3
C. C) C 5 H 10 O 5
D. D) C 4 H 8 O 4
Question 71
An unknown compound A C 8 H 10 O 3 on acetylation with CH 3 COCl/Py forms acetyl derivative

of A whose MW is 280. A on treat with CH 2 N 2 gives methyl ether of B having MW 182. If the
number of phenolic hydroxyls and alcoholic hydroxyls in the compound A are X and Y
respectively. Find the sum of X + Y here?
Question 72
What mass of 95% pure CaCO 3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0. 5 M HCl solution
according to the following reaction?
CaCO 3(s) + 2 HCl (aq) → CaCl 2(aq) + CO 2(g) + 2H 2 O (l)

[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]
A. A) 1. 32 g
B. B) 3. 65 g
C. C) 9. 50 g
D. D) 1. 25 g
Question 73
On electrolysis of water, a total of 1 mole of gases is evolved. The amount of water decomposed
is
A. A) 1 mol
B. B) 2 mol
C. C) 3 mol
1
D. D) 3 mol
2
Question 74
A mixture of 2. 3 g formic acid and 4. 5 g oxalic acid is treated with concentrate H 2 SO 4 . The
evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. What will be the weight in grams of
the remaining product at STP?
A. A) 2. 8
B. B) 3. 0
C. C) 1. 4
D. D) 4. 4
Question 75
100 ml of 5 m H 2 SO 4 of density 1 gm/ml is mixed with 100 ml of 8 m H 2 SO 4 of density

1.25 g/mL. If there is no change in volume of resulting solution due to mixing, the molarity of
the resulting mixture is-
A. A) 5.5 M
B. B) 6.5 M
C. C) 4.5 M
D. D) 5.26 M
Question 76
The maximum number of moles of Ba 3 (PO 4 ) 2 that can be formed if 2 mole BaCl 2 is mixed
with 1 mole Na 3 PO 4 is
A. A) 0. 7
B. B) 0. 25
C. C) 0. 33
D. D) 0. 50
Question 77
0.4 g of dihydrogen is made to react with 7.4 g of dichlorine to form hydrogen chloride. The
volume of hydrogen chloride formed at 273 K and 1 bar pressure is
A. A) 9.08 L
B. B) 4.67 L
C. C) 90.8 L
D. D) 45.4 L
Question 78
To a 25 mLH 2 O 2 solution, excess of acidified solution of KI was added. The iodine liberated
required 20 mL of 0.3 NNa 2 S 2 O 3 solution. The volume strength of H 2 O 2 solution is
A. A) 1.344 g/L
B. B) 3.244 g/L
C. C) 5.4 g/L
D. D) 4.08 g/L
Question 79
A mixture of CaCl 2 and NaCl weighing 4.44 g is treated with sodium carbonate solution to
precipitate all the Ca 2+ ions as calcium carbonate. The calcium carbonate so obtained is heated
strongly to get 0.56 g of CaO. The percentage of NaCl in the mixture (atomic mass of Ca = 40
) is
A. A) 75
B. B) 30.6
C. C) 25
D. D) 69.4
Question 80
An organic compound contains 80% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The
right option for the empirical formula of this compound is: [Atomic wt. of C is 12 and of H is 1]
A. A) CH
B. B) CH 2
C. C) CH 3
D. D) CH 4
Question 81
0.078 g of hydrocarbon occupy 22.4 mL of volume at 1 atm and 0°C. The empirical formula of
the hydrocarbon is CH . The molecular formula is -
A. A) C 2 H 2
B. B) C 4 H 4
C. C) C 6 H 6
D. D) C 8 H 8
Question 82
Mixture of 1 g each of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 is reacted with 0.1 N HCl. The quantity of 0.1 M HCl
required to react completely with the above mixture is
A. A) 15.78 mL
B. B) 157.8 mL
C. C) 198.4 mL
D. D) 308 mL
Question 83
A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H 2 SO 4 . The evolved
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP
will be
A. A) 2.8
B. B) 3.0
C. C) 1.4
D. D) 4.4
Question 84
Complete reaction of 2.0 g of calcium (at. wt. = 40 ) with excess HCL produces 1.125 L of H 2
gas. Complete reaction of the same quantity of another metal "M" with excess HCL produces
1.85 L of H 2 gas under indentical conditions. The equivalent weight of "M" is closest to
A. A) 23
B. B) 9
C. C) 7
D. D) 12
Question 85
0.7 grams of Na 2 CO 3 . xH 2 O were dissolved in water and the volume was made to 100 mL, 20
mL of this solution required 19.8 mL of N/10 HCl for complete neutralization. The value of x is
Report your answer by rounding it upto nearest whole number.
Question 86
A compound has the following composition by weight ;

Na = 18.60%, S = 25.80%, H = 4.02% and O = 51.58% Assuming that all the hydrogen
atoms in the compound are part of water of crystallization, the correct molecular formula of the
compound is
A. A) Na 2 S 2 O 3 ⋅ 3H 2 O
B. B) Na 2 SO 4 ⋅ 5H 2 O
C. C) Na 2 SO 4 ⋅ 10H 2 O
D. D) Na 2 S 2 O 3 ⋅ 5H 2 O
Question 87
10 ml of a gaseous hydrocarbon was burnt completely in 80 ml of O 2 at NTP. The remaining gas

occupied 70 ml at NTP. This volume become 50 ml on treatment with KOH solution. The
molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is
A. A) C 2 H 4
B. B) CH 4
C. C) C 2 H 2
D. D) C 2 H 6
Question 88
0.56 g of a lime stone was treated with oxalic acid to give CaC 2 O 4 . The precipitate
decolourized 45 mL of 0.2 N KMnO 4 in acid medium. Calculate % of CaO in the stone.
Question 89
The ammonia is prepared by treating ammonium sulphate with calcium hydroxide is completely
used by NiCl 2 ⋅ 6H 2 O to form a stable coordination compound. Assume that, both the reactions
are 100% completed. If 1584 g of ammonium sulphate and 952 g of NiCl 2 ⋅ 6H 2 O are used in
the preparation, the combined weight (in grams) of gypsum and the nickel ammonia coordination
compound produced is ____.
Atomic weights in g mol −1 :

H = 1; N = 14 O = 16; S = 32 Cl = 35 .5; Ca = 40 Ni = 59
Question 90
A 1.85 g sample of an arsenic-containing pesticide was chemically converted to AsO 4 3−

(atomic mass of As = 74.9) and titrated with Pb to form Pb 3 (AsO 4 ) 2 If 20 mL of
2+
is required to reach the equivalence point, the mass percentages of arsenic in the
2+
0.1MPb
pesticide sample is closest to
A. A) 8.1
B. B) 2.3
C. C) 5.4
D. D) 3.6
Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - C Q31 - A Q61 - C
Q2 - C Q32 - C Q62 - A
Q3 - D Q33 - D Q63 - B
Q4 - B Q34 - C Q64 - 8 (Num)
Q5 - D Q35 - B Q65 - A
Q6 - A Q36 - B Q66 - D
Q7 - C Q37 - B Q67 - A
Q8 - C Q38 - A Q68 - D
Q9 - D Q39 - 9 (Num) Q69 - B
Q10 - B Q40 - C Q70 - D
Q11 - C Q41 - B Q71 - 3 (Num)
Q12 - D Q42 - 25 (Num) Q72 - A
Q13 - D Q43 - B Q73 - D
Q14 - A Q44 - A Q74 - A
Q15 - B Q45 - D Q75 - C
Q16 - C Q46 - A Q76 - D
Q17 - C Q47 - A Q77 - B
Q18 - B Q48 - A Q78 - D
Q19 - A Q49 - A Q79 - A
Q20 - B Q50 - A Q80 - C
Q21 - B Q51 - 15.00 (Num) Q81 - C
Q22 - 4 (Num) Q52 - B Q82 - D
Q23 - C Q53 - C Q83 - A
Q24 - C Q54 - A Q84 - D
Q25 - C Q55 - D Q85 - 2 (Num)
Q26 - B Q56 - C Q86 - D
Q27 - C Q57 - D Q87 - A
Q28 - C Q58 - D Q88 - 45 (Num)
Q29 - D Q59 - 30 (Num) Q89 - 2992 (Num)
Q30 - A Q60 - D Q90 - C
Structure of Atom
Easy Questions
Question 1
Which of the following does not have valence electron in 3d-subshell?
A. A) Fe (III)
B. B) Cr (I)
C. C) Mn (II)
D. D) P(0)
Question 2
Amongst the following statements, select the set having statements which was proposed by
Dalton.
(1) All the atoms of a given element have identical properties including identical mass. Atoms of
different elements differ in mass.
(2) When gases combine or reproduced in a chemical reaction they do so in a simple ratio by
volume provided all gases are at the same T & P
(3) Chemical reactions involve reorganization of atoms. These are neither created nor destroyed
in a chemical reaction.
(4) Matter consists of indivisible atoms
A. A) (1), (2), (3)

B. B) (1), (3), (4)
C. C) (1), (2), (4)
D. D) (1), (2), (3), (4)
Question 3
If a species has 16 protons, 18 electrons and 16 neutrons, find the species and its charge
A. A) S 1−
B. B) Si 2−
C. C) P 3−
D. D) S 2−
Question 4
The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10 Js. The speed of light is 3 × 10 17 nms −1 . Which
−34
value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of

6 × 10 15 s −1 ?
A. A) 10
B. B) 25
C. C) 50
D. D) 75
Question 5
The correct set of four quantum numbers for the outermost electron of sodium (Z = 11) is
A. A) 3, 1, 1, 12
B. B) 3, 2, 1, 12
C. C) 3, 0, 0, 12
D. D) 3, 1, 0, 12
Question 6
In which one of the pairs of ion given, there is an ion that forms a co-ordination compound with
both aqueous sodium hydroxide and ammonia and an other ion that forms a co-ordination
compound only with aqueous sodium hydroxide?
A. A) Zn 2+ , Al
3+
B. B) Al 3+ , Cu 2+
C. C) Pb 2+ , Cu 2+
D. D) Cu 2+ , Zn 2+
Question 7
What is the [OH − ]in the final solution prepared by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.050MHCl with 30.0
mL of 0.10MBa(OH) 2 ? -
A. A) 0.12M
B. B) 0.10M
C. C) 0.40M
D. D) 0.0050M
Question 8
The magnetic moment of a transition metal ion is √15 BM. Therefore, the number of unpaired
electrons present in it, is
A. A) 3
B. B) 4
C. C) 1
D. D) 2
Question 9
For the Paschen series the values of n 1 and n 2 in the expression ΔE = Rhc ( 12 − 12 ) are
n1 n2
A. A) n 1 = 1, n 2 = 2, 3, 4 … …
B. B) n 1 = 2, n 2 = 3, 4, 5 … …
C. C) n 1 = 3, n 2 = 4, 5, 6 … …
D. D) n 1 = 4, n 2 = 5, 6, 7 … …
Question 10
Identify the wrong statement in the following.
A. A) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the
ionic radius
B. B) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic
radius
C. C) Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the Periodic
Table
D. D) Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2 nd
period of the Periodic Table
Question 11
Assertion : Absorption spectrum consists of some bright lines separated by dark spaces. Reason
: Emission spectrum consists of dark lines.
A. A) If both the assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but assertion is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
C. C) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.
Question 12
Maximum number of electrons in a subshell or an atom is determined by the following :
A. A) 2n 2
B. B) 4l + 2
C. C) 2l + 2
D. D) 4l − 2
Question 13
The angular momentum of electron in Li 2+ is found to be 14( 11 ). Calculated the potential

h
energy (in eV) of system.
A. A) 13.6 × ( 38 )
2
B. B) −13.6 × ( 38 )
2
C. C) −2 × 13.6 × ( 38 )
2
D. D) −2 × 13.6 × ( 83 )
2
Question 14
Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is
A. A) 14
B. B) 16
C. C) 10
D. D) 12
Question 15
An element undergoes a reaction as shown :
X + 2e − → X 2− , energy released = 30 .87 eV / atom. If the energy released is used to

dissociate 4 gms of H 2 molecules, equally into H + and H * , where H * is excited state of H
atoms where the electron travels in orbit whose circumference equal to four times its de Broglie's
wavelength. Determine the least moles of X that would be required:
Given: I.E. of H = 13 .6 eV / atom bond energy of H 2 = 4 .526 eV / molecule.

A. A) 1
B. B) 2
C. C) 3
D. D) 4
Question 16
If the radius of the hydrogen atom is 53pm, the radius of the He + ion is closest to
A. A) 108pm
B. B) 81pm
C. C) 27pm
D. D) 13pm
Question 17
Which of the following arrangements is possible?
A. A) (a)
B. B) (b)
C. C) (c)
D. D) (d)
Question 18
Quantum numbers of an atom can be defined on the basis of
A. A) Hund's rule
B. B) Pauli's exclusion principle
C. C) Aufbau's principle
D. D) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle.
Question 19
Based on equation E = −2.178 × 10 −18 J ( Zn2 ) certain conclusions are written. Which of
2
them is not correct?
A. A) The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of electron bound to the
nucleus is lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus
B. B) Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius
C. C) Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit
D. D) For n = 1 the electron has a more negative energy than it does for n = 6 which means
that the electron is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit
Question 20
nucleus absorbs a neutron and disintegrates in 54 Xe , 38 Sr 94 and x. What will be the

235 139
92 U
product x ?
A. A) 3 neutrons
B. B) 2 neutrons
C. C) α-particle
D. D) β-particle
Question 21
The correct set of four quantum numbers for outermost electron of potassium (Z = 19) is
A. A) 4, 1, 0, 12
B. B) 3, 1, 0, 12
C. C) 4, 0, 0, 12
D. D) 3, 0, 0, 12
Question 22
For principle quantum number n = 4, the total number of orbitals having l = 3 is
A. A) 3
B. B) 7
C. C) 5
D. D) 9 .
Question 23
Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following
A. A) 4l + 2
B. B) 2l + 1
C. C) 4l − 2
D. D) 2n 2
Question 24
An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that its kinetic energy changes from x to x9 . The
change in its potential energy (magnitude) will be-
A. A) x9
B. B) 9
16x
C. C) 9x
D. D) 16
9x
Question 25
Assertion : Ionisation potential of B (atomic no.5) is less than Be (atomic no. 4). Reason : The
first electron released from Be is of p-orbital but that from B is of s-orbital.
A. A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
C. C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Question 26
Spectrum of Li 2+ is similar to that of
A. A) H
B. B) Be
C. C) He
D. D) Ne.
Question 27
In Sommerfeld's modification of Bohr's theory, the trajectory of an electron in a hydrogen atom is
A. A) a perfect ellipse
B. B) a closed ellipse - like curve, narrower at the perihelion position and flatter at the aphelion
position
C. C) a closed loop on spherical surface
D. D) a rosette
Question 28
Which one of the following molecules contain no π-bond?
A. A) CO 2
B. B) H 2 O
C. C) SO 2
D. D) NO 2
Question 29
Maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the subshell with azimuthal
quantum number 1 = 4, is
A. A) 10
B. B) 8
C. C) 16
D. D) 18
Question 30
The ions O 2− , F − , Na , Mg and Al are isoelectronic. Their ionic radii show:

+ 2+ 3+
A. A) a significant increase from O 2− to Al

3+
B. B) a significant decrease from O 2− to Al

3+
C. C) an increase from O 2− to F − and then decrease from Na + to Al

3+
D. D) a decrease from O 2− to F − and then increase from Na + to Al 3+
Moderate Questions
Question 31
Incorrect set of quantum numbers from the following is
A. A) n = 4, l = 2, m l = −2, −1, 0, +1, +2, m s = −1/2

B. B) n = 5, l = 3, m l = −3, −2, −1, 0, +1, +2, +3, m s = +1/2
C. C) n = 4, l = 3, m l = −3, −2, −1, 0, +1, +2, +3, m s = −1/2
D. D) n = 5, l = 2, m l = −2, −1, +1, +2, m s = +1/2
Question 32
Spin only magnetic moment 2.84 BM is given by:
(Atomic Number of Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27)
A. A) Ni 2+
B. B) Ti 3+
C. C) Cr 2+
D. D) Co 2+
Question 33
Which of these species will have non-zero magnetic moment?
A. A) Na +
B. B) Mg
C. C) F −
D. D) Ar +
Question 34
Mg 2+ is isoelectronic with
A. A) Cu 2+
B. B) Zn 2+
C. C) Na +
D. D) Ca
2+
Question 35
The frequency radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a hydrogen atom
will be (Given ionization energy of H = 2.18 × 10 −18 Jatom −1 and h = 6.625 × 10 −34 Js) :
A. A) 1.54 × 10 15 s −1
B. B) 1.03 × 10
15
s −1
C. C) 3.08 × 10 15 s −1
D. D) 2.00 × 10
15
s −1
Question 36
o
A light of wavelength 3000 A falls on a metal surface. Ejected e − is further accelerated by a
potential difference of 2V , then final K.E of the e − is found to be 8 × 10 −19 J . If threshold
energy for the metal surface is 'ϕ eV . Then find the numerical value of 8ϕ
'
Question 37
The time taken for an electron to complete one revolution in Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is
A. A) 4m
2
πr 2
n2 h2
B. B) 4mr
n2 h2
2
C. C) 4πnh
2
mr 2
D. D) 4πnh
2 mr 2
Question 38
The energy required to break one mole of hydrogen-hydrogen bonds in H 2 is 436kJ. What is the
longest wavelength of light required to break a single hydrogenhydrogen bond?
A. A) 68.5nm
B. B) 137nm
C. C) 274nm
D. D) 548nm
Question 39
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A. A) 1M solution of glucose
B. B) 0.05M solution of glucose
C. C) 6% solution of glucose
D. D) 25% solution of glucose
Question 40
238
92 U emits 8α-particles and 6β-particles. The neutron/proton ratio in the product nucleus is
A. A) 60/41
B. B) 61/40
C. C) 62/41
D. D) 61/42.
Question 41
The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is −328 kJ mol ; hence the energy of
−1
fourth Bohr orbit would be
A. A) −41 kJ mol
−1
B. B) −82 kJ mol −1
C. C) −164 kJ mol
−1
D. D) −1312 kJ mol −1
Question 42
A body of mass 10mg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms −1 . The wavelength of de-Broglie
wave associated with it would be ( h = 6.63 × 10 Js )
−34
A. A) 6.63 × 10 −35 m
B. B) 6.63 × 10 −34 m
C. C) 6.63 × 10 −31 m
D. D) 6.63 × 10 −37 m
Question 43
Which of the following curve is correct for blackbody radiation?

(Given: T 1 < T 2 < T 3 < T 4 )
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 44
For an electron whose positional uncertainty is 1.0 × 10 −10 m, the uncertainty in the component
of the velocity in m s −1 will be
A. A) 5.8 × 10 5
B. B) 10 9
C. C) 10 2
D. D) 10 15
Question 45
The radial wave equation for hydrogen atom is

3
ψ=
2 x
1
( a1ο ) [(x−1)(x 2 −8x+12)]e − 2
16√4
where x = a2ro , a ο = radius of first bohr's orbit the minimum and maximum position of radial
nodes from nucleus are:
A. A) a ο , 3a o
B. B) 0.5a ο , 3a ο
C. C) 0.5a ο , a ο
D. D) 0.5a ο , 4a ο
Question 46
Which one of the following sets of ions represents the collection of isoelectronic species?
A. A) K + , Cl − , Mg 2+ , Sc 3+
B. B) Na + , Ca 2+ , Sc 3+ , F −
C. C) K + , Ca 2+ , Sc 3+ , Cl −
D. D) Na + , Mg 2+ , Al 3+ , Cl −
Question 47
Which of the following are not state functions? (I) q + W (II) q (III) W (IV) H − T S
A. A) (I) and (IV)

B. B) (II), (III) and (IV)
C. C) (I,) (II) and (III)
D. D) (II) and (III)
Question 48
The maximum probability of finding electron in the d xy orbital is:
A. A) along the x- axis

B. B) along the y- axis
C. C) at the angle of 45 ο from the x-and y-axis
D. D) at the angle of 90 ο from the x-and y-axis
Question 49
If it is assumed that 235

92 U decays only by emitting α and β particles, the possible product of the
decay is :
A. A) 225
89 Ac
B. B) 227
89 Ac
C. C) 230
89 Ac
D. D) 231
89 Ac
Question 50
The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum, which
is equal to 1 × 10 −18 g cm s −1 . The uncertainty in electron velocity is, (mass of an electron is
9 × 10 −28 g )
A. A) 1 × 10
11
cm s −1
B. B) 1 × 10 9 cm s −1
C. C) 1 × 10 6 cm s −1
D. D) 1 × 10 cm s −1
5
Question 51
If the uncertainty in the position of a particle is equal to its de-Broglie wavelength, the minimum
uncertainty in its velocity should be
A. A) 41π
B. B) 4vπ
C. C) 4πm
v
D. D) mv
4π
Question 52
A body of mass x kg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms −1 . Its de-Broglie wavelength is

6.62 × 10 −35 m. Hence, x is (h = 6.62 × 10 −34 Js )
A. A) 0.1 kg
B. B) 0.25 kg
C. C) 0.15 kg
D. D) 0.2 kg
Question 53
Which of the following pairs has the same size?
A. A) Fe 2+ , Ni 2+
B. B) Zr 4+ , Ti 4+
C. C) Zr 4+ , Hf 4+
D. D) Zn 2+ , Hf 4+
Question 54
A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be (h
= 6.6 × 10 −34 Js)
A. A) 6.6 × 10 −32 m
B. B) 6.6 × 10 −34 m
C. C) 1.0 × 10 −35 m
D. D) 1.0 × 10 −32 m
Question 55
According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise
to the least energetic photon?
A. A) n = 6 to n = 1
B. B) n = 5 to n = 4
C. C) n = 6 to n = 5
D. D) n = 5 to n = 3
Question 56
Which one of the following electronic arrangements is absurd?
A. A) n = 3, l = 1, m = −1
B. B) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0
C. C) n = 2, l = 0, m = −1
D. D) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0
Question 57
The vapour of Hg absorb some electrons accelerated by a potential difference of 4.5 volts from
rest as a result of which light is emitted. If the full energy of a single incident electron is supposed
to be converted into light emitted by electron in a single Hg atom, find the wave number ( λ1 ) of
the light
A. A) 3.63 × 10 m −1
6
B. B) 5.93 × 10 6 m −1
C. C) 5.93 × 10 cm −1
6
D. D) 5.62 × 10 6 m −1
Question 58
The two electrons have the following set of quantum numbers :
P = 3, 2, −2, + 12
Q = 3, 0, 0, + 12
Which of the following statement is true?
A. A) P and Q have same energy

B. B) P has greater energy than Q
C. C) P has lesser energy than Q
D. D) P and Q represent same electron
Question 59
When the azimuthal quantum number has the value of 2 , the number of orbitals possible are
A. A) 7
B. B) 5
C. C) 3
D. D) 0
Question 60
The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 ×10 −34 Js. The velocity of light is 3.0× 10 8 ms −1 . Which
value is closest to the wavelength in nanometers of quantum of light with frequency of
8 × 10 15 s −1 ?
A. A) 2 × 10 −25
B. B) 5 × 10 −18
C. C) 4 × 10 1
D. D) 3 × 10 7
Hard Questions
Question 61
The orbital angular momentum of an electron is 2s orbital is
A. A) 4hπ
B. B) zero
C. C) 2hπ
D. D) √2 ⋅ 2hπ
Question 62
The number of neutrons emitted when 235

92 U undergoes controlled nuclear fission to 54 Xe and
142
90
38 Sr is
Question 63
A metal surface is illuminated by light of two different wavelengths 248 nm and 310 nm. The
maximum speeds of the photoelectrons corresponding to these wavelengths are u 1 and u 2
respectively. If the ratio u12 = 21 and hc = 1240 eVnm, the work function of the metal is nearly
u
A. A) 3.7 eV
B. B) 3.2 eV
C. C) 2.8 eV
D. D) 2.5 eV
Question 64
For any given series of spectral lines of atomic hydrogen, let Δ v = v max − v min be the
− − −
difference in maximum and minimum wave number in cm −1 .
The ratio Δ v Lyman /Δ v Balmar is

− −
A. A) 5 : 4
B. B) 27 : 5
C. C) 4 : 1
D. D) 9 : 4
Question 65
Which of the following is an incorrect set of quantum members?
A. A) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0
B. B) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0
C. C) n = 3, l = 3, m = 0
D. D) n = 2, l = 1, m = 1
Question 66
The atomic masses of He and Ne are 4 and 20 a.m.u, respectively. The value of the de Broglie
wavelength of He gas at − 73 C is "M" times that of the de Broglie wavelength of Ne at 727 C .
o o
M is
Question 67
1 mole of photon, each of frequency 2500 S −1 , would have approximately a total energy of:
A. A) 1erg
B. B) 1 Joule
C. C) 1eV
D. D) 1MeV
Question 68
According to Bohr's theory E n = Total energy, K n = Kinetic energy, V n = Potential energy,

r n = Radius of nth orbit
A. A) (A) R, (B) Q, (C) P, (D) Q

B. B) (A) S, (B) R, (C) R, (D) S
C. C) (A) R, (B) Q, (C) P, (D) S
D. D) (A) S, (B) P, (C) R, (D) Q
Question 69
The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is [ a 0 is Bohr
radius of first shell of hydrogen atom]
A. A) h2
64π 2 ma 20
B. B) h2
32π 2 ma 20
C. C) 16π2 ma2
h2
0
D. D) 4π2hma2
2
Question 70
In case of photoelectric effect, slope of V 0 vs ν curve is (where V 0 - stopping potential,ν =

subjected frequency)
A. A) e
B. B) e
h
C. C) ϕ
D. D) h
Question 71
The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is [a 0 is Bohr
radius ] :
A. A) h2
4π 2 ma 20
B. B)
2
h
16π 2 ma 20
C. C) 32π2 ma2
h2
0
D. D) 64πh2 ma2
2
Question 72
Which one of the following corresponds to a photon of highest energy?
A. A) λ = 300mm
B. B) v = 3 × 10 4 s −1
C. C) v̄ = 30cm −1
D. D) ε = 6.626 × 10 −27 J
Question 73
In hydrogen atom, the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the second Bohr orbit is [Given
that, Bohr radius, a 0 = 52.9pm ]
A. A) 211.6pm
B. B) 211.6πpm
C. C) 52.9πpm
D. D) 105.8pm
Question 74
Which of the following exhibit only+ 3 oxidation state?
A. A) U
B. B) Th
C. C) Ac
D. D) Pa
Question 75
The limiting line in Balmer series will have a frequency of (Rydberg constant,
R ∞ = 3.29 × 10 15 cycles /s )
A. A) 8.22 × 10 14 s −1
B. B) 3.29 × 10 15 s −1
C. C) 3.65 × 10 14 s −1
D. D) 5.26 × 10 13 s −1
Question 76
Assuming that Hund's rule is violated, the bond order and magnetic nature of the diatomic
molecule B 2 is
A. A) 1 and diamagnetic
B. B) 0 and diamagnetic
C. C) 1 and paramagnetic
D. D) 0 and paramagnetic
Question 77
Which one of the following about an electron occupying the 1s orbital in a hydrogen atom is
incorrect? (The Bohr radius is represented by a 0 ).
A. A) The total energy of the electron is maximum when it is at a distance a 0 from the nucleus.
B. B) The electron can be found at a distance 2a 0 from the nucleus.
C. C) The probability density of finding the electron is maximum at the nucleus.
D. D) The magnitude of the potential energy is double that of its kinetic energy on an average.
Question 78
A gas absorbs a photon of 355 nm and emits at two wavelengths. If one of the emissions is at
680 nm, the other is at:
A. A) 325 nm
B. B) 743 nm
C. C) 518 nm
D. D) 1035 nm
Question 79
Paragraph: The hydrogen-like species Li 2+ is in a spherically symmetric state S 1 with one

radial node. Upon absorbing light the ion undergoes transition to a state S 2 . The state S 2 has
one radial node and its energy is equal to the ground state energy of the hydrogen
atom.Question: The state S 1 is
A. A) 1s
B. B) 2 s
C. C) 2p
D. D) 3 s
Question 80
The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and I : (a) n = 4, I = 1 (b) n = 4, l = 0 (c)

n = 3, I = 2 (d) n = 3, I = 1 Can be placed in order of increasing energy as:
A. A) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a)
B. B) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
C. C) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)
D. D) (a) < (c)< (b) < (d)
Question 81
An electron beam can undergo diffraction by crystals. The potential of 'V' volt should a beam of
electrons be accelerated so that its wavelength becomes equal to 1.0 Å . The value of 'V' is
Given: mh×e = 3 × 10 −18 J 2 s 2 kg −1 coulomb −1
2
Question 82
Impossible orbital among the following is
A. A) 3f
B. B) 2p
C. C) 4d
D. D) 2s
Question 83
Paragraph: The hydrogen-like species Li 2+ is in a spherically symmetric state S 1 with one

radial node. Upon absorbing light the ion undergoes transition to a state S 2 . The state S 2 has
one radial node and its energy is equal to the ground state energy of the hydrogen
atom.Question: Energy of the state S 1 in units of the hydrogen atom ground state energy is
A. A) 0.75
B. B) 1.50
C. C) 2.25
D. D) 4.50
Question 84
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
A. A) de-Broglie's wavelength is given by λ = mv , were m =mass of the particle,v =group

h
velocity of the particle.

B. B) The uncertainty principle is ΔE × Δt ≥ 4hπ .
C. C) Half-filled and fully-filled orbitals have greater stability due to the greater exchange energy,
greater symmetry and more balanced arrangement.
D. D) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of hydrogen-like
atoms.
Question 85
Statement 1 The plot of atomic number ( Y -axis) versus number of neutrons ( x-axis) for stable
nuclei shows a curvature towards X-axis from the line of 45 ∘ slope as the atomic number is
increased. Statement 2 Proton-proton electrostatic repulsions begin to overcome attractive forces
involving protons and neutrons in heavier nuclides.
A. A) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement

1.
B. B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
C. C) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
D. D) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
Question 86
Match the metal ions given in Column 'I' with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
Column 'II'.
Column I Column II
a. Co
3+
i. √8 B. M.
b. Cr 3+ ii. √35 B. M.
c. Fe
3+
iii. √3 B. M.
d. Ni 2+ iv. √24 B. M.
v. √15B. M
A. A)
a b c d
iv i ii iii
B. B)
a b c d
iii v i ii
C. C)
a b c d
i ii iii iv
D. D)
a b c d
iv v ii i
Question 87
Which of the following pairs of iron are isoelectronic and isostructural?
A. A) CO 3 , SO 3
2− 2−
B. B) ClO − 2−
3 , CO 3
C. C) SO 3 , NO 3
2− −
D. D) ClO 3 , SO 3
− 2−
Question 88
Statement I Band gap in germanium is small. Statement II The energy spread of each
germanium atomic energy level is infinitesimally small.
A. A) Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement

I
B. B) Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for
Statement I
C. C) Statement-I is true, Statement II is false
D. D) Statement-I is talse, Statement II is true
Question 89
If the radius of H is 0.53Ã …, then what will be the radius of 3 Li ?

2+
A. A) 0.17Ã …
B. B) 0.36Ã …
C. C) 0.53Ã …
D. D) 0.59Ã …
Question 90
Which of the following plots of radial-probability function 4πr 2 ψ 2 is/are correct
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
A. A) Only i
B. B) ii and iii
C. C) i and iii
D. D) all

Q1 - D Q31 - D Q61 - B
Q2 - B Q32 - A Q62 - 3 (Num)
Q3 - D Q33 - D Q63 - A
Q4 - C Q34 - C Q64 - D
Q5 - C Q35 - C Q65 - C
Q6 - A Q36 - 9.00 (Num) Q66 - 5 (Num)
Q7 - B Q37 - C Q67 - A
Q8 - A Q38 - C Q68 - C
Q9 - C Q39 - A Q69 - B
Q10 - A Q40 - C Q70 - B
Q11 - D Q41 - B Q71 - C
Q12 - B Q42 - C Q72 - A
Q13 - C Q43 - D Q73 - B
Q14 - A Q44 - A Q74 - C
Q15 - B Q45 - B Q75 - A
Q16 - C Q46 - C Q76 - A
Q17 - A Q47 - D Q77 - B
Q18 - B Q48 - C Q78 - B
Q19 - D Q49 - B Q79 - B
Q20 - B Q50 - B Q80 - B
Q21 - C Q51 - B Q81 - 150 (Num)
Q22 - B Q52 - A Q82 - A
Q23 - A Q53 - C Q83 - C
Q24 - B Q54 - C Q84 - D
Q25 - C Q55 - C Q85 - A
Q26 - A Q56 - C Q86 - D
Q27 - C Q57 - A Q87 - D
Q28 - B Q58 - B Q88 - C
Q29 - D Q59 - B Q89 - A
Q30 - B Q60 - C Q90 - C
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Easy Questions
Question 1
An element with atomic number 21 is a
A. A) halogen
B. B) representative element
C. C) transition element
D. D) alkali metal
Question 2
Which of the following pairs has both members from the same period of periodic table:
A. A) Na, Ca
B. B) Na, Cl
C. C) Ca, Cl
D. D) Cl, Br
Question 3
Which of the following is correct?
A. A) Ionic radius is proportional to atomic number.

B. B) Ionic radius is inversely proportional to atomic mass.
C. C) Ionic radius is inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge.
D. D) All are correct.
Question 4
Which of the following does not have valence electron in 3d -subshell?
A. A) Fe(III)
B. B) Mn(II)
C. C) Cr(I)
D. D) P(0)
Question 5
What is the symbol of element if it's atomic number is 116?
A. A) UuS
B. B) Uut
C. C) Uuh
D. D) Uun
Question 6
A radioactive substance 88 X 228 (IIA) emits 3α and 3β particles to form " Y ". To which group of
long form of the periodic table does " Y " belong ?
A. A) IVA
B. B) VA
C. C) VIA
D. D) VIIA
Question 7
The correct decreasing order of negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F and O is
A. A) F > O > C > Al > Ca

B. B) Ca > Al > O > F > C
C. C) Al > F > Ca > C > O
D. D) F > C > O > Ca > Al
Question 8
Which halogen has the highest value of negative electron gain enthalpy?
A. A) Fluorine
B. B) Chlorine
C. C) Bromine
D. D) Iodine
Question 9
For electron affinity of halogens which of the following is correct?

A. A) Br > F
B. B) F > Cl
C. C) Br > Cl
D. D) F > I
Question 10
Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is
A. A) Mg < Ca < Cl < P

B. B) Cl < P < Mg < Ca
C. C) P < Cl < Ca < Mg
D. D) Ca < Mg < P < Cl
Question 11
Consider the following changes $
M(s) ⟶ M(g) … (1)

M(g) ⟶ M 2+ (g) + 2e − … (2)
M(g) ⟶ M + (g) + e − … (3)
M + (g) ⟶ M 2+ (g) + e − … (4)
M(g) ⟶ M 2+ (g) + 2e − … (5)
$ The second ionisation energy of M could be determined from the energy values associated
with
A. A) 1 + 2 + 4
B. B) 1 + 5 − 3
C. C) 2 + 3 − 4
D. D) 5 − 3
Question 12
The atomic number of the element with highest ionisation energy among the following is
A. A) Z = 16
B. B) Z = 14
C. C) Z = 13
D. D) Z = 15
Question 13
The radionucleide 234
90 Th undergoes two successive β-decays followed by one α-decay. The
atomic number and the mass number respectively of the resulting radionucleide are
A. A) 94 and 230
B. B) 90 and 230
C. C) 92 and 230
D. D) 92 and 234
Question 14
The electronic configuration of elements A, B and C are [He]2s 1 , [Ne]3s 1 and [Ar] 4s 1
respectively, which one of the following order is correct for the first ionization potentials (in
kJmol −1 ) of A, B and C ?
A. A) A > B > C
B. B) C > B > A
C. C) B > C > A
D. D) C > A > B
Question 15
Which from following is a CORRECT decreasing order of ionisation enthalpy for different
elements?
A. A) Ar > Ne > S > Cl

B. B) Ne > Ar > Cl > S
C. C) Ne > S > Cl > Ar
D. D) Cl > S > Ne > Ar
Question 16
The values of electronegativity of atom A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage
of ionic character of A − B bond is nearly _____. Roundoff answer to nearest integer.
Question 17
Which of the following atoms should have the highest 1 ′′ electron affinity?
A. A) F
B. B) 0
C. C) N
D. D) C
Question 18
In graph of atomic volume versus atomic weight, the elements corresponding to peaks in the
curve belong to
A. A) Group 1
B. B) Group 18
C. C) Group 4
D. D) Group 14
Question 19
How many elements are there in 6 th period of periodic table?
A. A)
18
B. B)
8
C. C)
30
D. D)
32
Question 20
The screening effect of d -electrons is
A. A) Equal to p -electrons
B. B) Much more than p -electrons
C. C) Same as f -electrons
D. D) Less than p -electrons.
Question 21
Which of the following statements is not true for the reaction 2 F 2 + 2H 2 O → 4HF + O 2 ?
A. A) F 2 is more strongly oxidising than O 2

B. B) F − F bond is weaker than O = O bond
C. C) H − F bond is stronger than H − O bond
D. D) F is less electronegative than O
Question 22
Difference in atomic radius is maximum for
A. A) Rb − Cs
B. B) K − Rb
C. C) Na − K
D. D) Li − Na
Question 23
Which of the following sequence contains atomic number of only representative elements?
A. A) 55, 12, 48, 53

B. B) 13, 33, 54, 80
C. C) 3, 33, 53, 87
D. D) 22, 33, 55, 66.
Question 24
Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired ' d ' electrons?
A. A) Zn 2+
B. B) Fe 2+
C. C) Ni
3+
D. D) Cu +
Question 25
Second ionization potential value is lowest for -
A. A) Sodium
B. B) Magnesium
C. C) Fluorine
D. D) Oxygen
Question 26
To which group and period does the element belong if the electronic configuration of an element
in its -2 oxidation state is 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 ?
A. A) period 3, group 16
B. B) period 3, group 17
C. C) period 4, group 16
D. D) period 4, group 17
Question 27
The highest oxidation state in plutonium (At. No. = 94) is

A. A) +6
B. B) +4
C. C) +5
D. D) +7
Question 28
Assertion : H 2 Se is less acidic than H 2 S.Reason : S is less electronegative than Se.
A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
Question 29
Cobalt (60) isotope is used in the treatment of :
A. A) Heart diseases
B. B) Skin diseases
C. C) Diabetes
D. D) Cancer
Question 30
Which of the following orders regarding ionization energy is correct?
A. A) N > O > F
B. B) N < O < F
C. C) N > O < F
D. D) N < O > F
Moderate Questions
Question 31
Which of the following is the strongest acid?
A. A) CIO3(OH)
B. B) CIO2(OH)
C. C) SO(OH)2
D. D) SO2(OH)2
Question 32
The process that is NOT endothermic in nature is :
A. A) Ar (g) + e − → Ar −
(g)
B. B) H (g) + e − → H −
(g)
C. C) O − − 2−
(g) + e → O (g)
D. D) Na (g) → Na +
(g) + e
−
Question 33
The bond length (pm) of F 2 , H 2 , Cl 2 and I 2 , respectively is
A. A) 144, 74, 199, 267

B. B) 74, 144, 199, 267
C. C) 74, 267, 199, 144
D. D) 144, 74, 267, 199
Question 34
An element X belongs to fourth period and fifteenth group of the periodic table. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. A) It has completely filled s-orbital and a partialy filled d -orbital

B. B) it has completely filled s-and p -orbitals and a partially filled d -orbital
C. C) It has completely filled s - and p -orbitals and a hat filled d -orbital
D. D) It has a half filled p -orbital and completely fled s-and d -orbitals
Question 35
Among Me 3 N, C 5 H 5 N and MeCN (Me = methyl group) the electronegativity of N is in the

order
A. A) MeCN > C g H s N > Me 3 N

B. B) C 3 H 5 N > Me 3 N > MeCN
C. C) Me 3 N > MeCN > C 3 H s N
D. D) Electronegativity same in all
Question 36
Which of the following is the correct order of radius?
A. A) H − > H > H +
B. B) Na + > F − > O 2−
C. C) F − > O 2− > Na +
D. D) Al
3+
> Mg 2+ > N 3−
Question 37
The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn and Pb increases steadily in the sequence
A. A) $\mathrm{GeX}_2 \ll \mathrm{SiX}_2 \ll \mathrm{SnX_2} \ll \mathrm{PbX}_2$

B. B) SiX 2 ≪ GeX 2 ≪ PbX 2 ≪ SnX 2
C. C) SiX 2 ≪ GeX 2 ≪ SnX 2 ≪ PbX 2
D. D) PbX 2 ≪ SnX 2 ≪ GeX 2 ≪ SiX 2
Question 38
The characteristics of elements X, Y and Z with atomic numbers, respectively, 33, 53 and 83
are:
A. A) X and Y are metalloids and Z is a metal

B. B) X is a metalloid, Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal.
C. C) X, Y and Z are metals.
D. D) Xand Z are non-metals and Y is a metalloid
Question 39
Which pair of elements with the given atomic numbers is expected to have similar properties?
A. A) 40,72
B. B) 20,36
C. C) 10,28
D. D) 11,12
Question 40
The product Q and R in the following reactions respectively are

Lindlar′s catalyst O3
−
−
H 2 + CH 3 C ≡ CH →P →Q+R
Zn+H 2 O
A. A) Ethanol. Methanoic Acid

B. B) Ethanoic acid, Methanol
C. C) Ethanal, Methanal
D. D) Ethanoic acid, Methanoic acid
Question 41
The atomic radius of gallium is less than that of aluminium. This is due to
A. A) Greater shielding power of s-electrons of gallium atom

B. B) poor shielding power of s-electrons of gallium
C. C) Poor shielding power of d-electrons of gallium
D. D) Greater shielding power of d-electrons of gallium
Question 42
Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. A) Nitrogen cannot form dπ − pπ bond.

B. B) Single N − N bond is weaker than the single P − P bond,
C. C) N 2 O 4 has two resonance structures
D. D) The stability of hydrides increases from NH 3 to BiH 3 in group 15 of the periodic table
Question 43
Which from following statements is true for group 16 elements?
A. A) All elements of this group form EO 2 type oxides

B. B) It includes all the nonmetals
C. C) Oxides of all elements of this group are gaseous at room temperature
D. D) Reducing properties of dioxides of this group element decreases form SO 2 to TeO 2
Question 44
Among the isoelectronic ions(O 2− , N 3− , Mg , Na + ), the ions with the least and the
2+
highest ionic radius are, respectively
A. A) Mg
2+
, N 3−
B. B) Mg 2+ , O 2−
C. C) Na + , N 3−
D. D) Na + , O 2−
Question 45
Assertion : Dinegative anion of oxygen (O 2− ) is quite common but dinegative anion of sulphur
(S 2− ) is less common. Reason : Covalency of oxygen is two.
assertion.
assertion.
Question 46
Arrange the following ions in the order of decreasing X − O bond length, where X is the central
atom
A. A) ClO − 2− 3− −
4 , SO 4 , PO 4 , SiO 4
B. B) SiO 4− 3− 2− −
4 , PO 4 , SO 4 , ClO 4
C. C) SiO 4− 3− − 2−
4 , PO 4 , ClO 4 , SO 4
D. D) SiO 4− 2− 3− −
4 , SO 4 , PO 4 , ClO 4
Question 47
Let electronegativity, ionisation energy and electron affinity be represented as EN, IP and EA
respectively. Which one of the following equation is correct according to Mulliken?
A. A) EN = IP × EA
B. B) EN = EA
IP
C. C) EN = IP+EA
2
D. D) EN = IP − EA
Question 48
An aromatic compound ' A ' (C 7 H 9 N) on reacting with NaNO 2 /HCl at 0 ∘ C forms benzyl
alcohol and nitrogen gas. The number of isomers possible for the compound ' A ' is
A. A) 7
B. B) 06
C. C) 55
D. D) 13
Question 49
If the ionisation energy and electron affinity of an element are 275 and 86kcalmol −1
respectively, then the electronegativity of the element on the Mulliken scale is
A. A) 2.8
B. B) 0.0
C. C) 4.0
D. D) 2.6
Question 50
Volume occupied by single CsCl ion pair in a crystal is 7.014 × 10 −23 cm 3 . The smallest Cs−
Cs inter-nuclear distance is equal to length of the side of the cube corresponding to volume of
one CsCl ion pair. The smallest Cs − Cs inter-nuclear distance is nearly
A. A) 4.3Å
B. B) 4.5Å
C. C) 4.4Å
D. D) None of the above
Question 51
Assertion : E ∘ for Mn 3+ /Mn 2+ is more positive than Cr 3+ /Cr 2+ . Reason : The third
ionization energy of Mn is larger than that of Cr.
A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
C. C) If assertion is true, but reason is false
D. D) Both assertion and reason are false statements.
Question 52
Match the atomic numbers of the elements given in column I with the periods given in column II
and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I (Atomic number) Column II (Period)

(p) 31 (i) 5
(q) 50 (ii) 3
(r) 56 (iii) 4
(s) 14 (iv) 6
A. A) (p)-(i), (q)-(ii), (r)-(iii), (s)-(iv)

B. B) (p)-(ii), (q)-(i), (r)-(iv), (s)-(iii)
C. C) (p)-(iii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(i), (s)-(ii)
D. D) (p)-(iii), (q)-(i), (r)-(iv), (s)-(ii)
Question 53
Which one of the following correctly represents the variation of electronegativity (EN) with atomic
number (Z) of group 13 elements?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 54
The catenation tendency of C, Si and Ge is in the order Ge < Si < C. The bond energies (in
kJ mol −1 ) of C − C, Si − Si and Ge − Ge bonds are respectively ;
A. A) 348, 297, 260
B. B) 297, 348, 260
C. C) 348, 260, 297
D. D) 260, 297, 348
Question 55
The radius of La 3+ (Atomic number of La = 57 ) is 1.06Å. Which one of the following given
values will be closest to the radius of Lu 3+ (Atomic number of Lu = 71 ) ?
A. A) 1.40Å
B. B) 1.06Å
C. C) 0.85Å
D. D) 1.60Å
Question 56
Consider the following radioactive decays

−α
I. 92U → 90 Th and
−α
II. 90 Th → 88Ra
In which case group of parent and daughter elements remains unchanged.
A. A) In (I)
B. B) In (II)
C. C) Both in (I) and (II)
Question 57
In the graph between √v and Z for the Mosley' equation, √v = a(Z − b) , the intercept OX is 1
on √v axis.
What is the frequency v when the atomic number Z is 52?
A. A) 7.14 s −1
B. B) 7 s −1
C. C) 2401 s −1
D. D) 2601 s −1
Question 58
The first (Δ i H 1 ) and second (Δ i H 2 ) ionization enthalpies (in kJ mol −1 ) and the electron gain
enthalpy (Δ eg H) (in kJ mol −1 ) of the elements I, II, III, IV and V are given below
Element Δ i H 1 Δ i H 2 Δ eg H
I 520 7300 − 60
II 419 3051 −48
III 1681 3374 −328

IV 1008 1846 −295
V 2372 5251 +48
the least reactive non- metal and the most reactive metal of these are respectively
A. A) IV and V
B. B) II and V
C. C) V and III
D. D) V and II
Question 59
The atomic numbers of elements A, B, C and D are Z − 1, Z, Z + 1 and Z + 2, respectively.

If ' B ' is a noble gas, choose the correct answers from the following statements (1) ' A ' has
higher electron affinity (2) ' C ' exists in +2 oxidation state (3) ' D ' is an alkaline earth metal
A. A) (1) and (2)

B. B) (2) and (3)
C. C) (1) and (3)
D. D) (1), (2) and (3)
Question 60
The bond angle in NF 3 (102.3 ∘ ) is smaller than NH 3 (107.2 ∘ ). This is because of
A. A) large size of F compared to H

B. B) large size of N compared to F
C. C) opposite polarity of N in the two molecules
D. D) small size of H compared to N
Hard Questions
Question 61
In the following sets of reactants which two sets best exhibit the amphoteric character of Al2O3 .
xH2O ?
Set I Al 2 O 3 ⋅ xH 2 O (s) + OH −
(aq)
Set II Al 2 O 3 x ⋅ H 2 O (s) + H 2 O (l)
Set III Al 2 O 3 x ⋅ H 2 O (s) + H +
(aq)
Set IV Al 2 O 3 ⋅ xH 2 O (s) + NH 3(aq)
A. A) 2 and 4
B. B) 1 and 2
C. C) 1 and 3
D. D) 3 and 4
Question 62
Which of the following are correct? (i) First ionisation enthalpy of He < Second ionization
enthalpy of Li. (ii) Li has the highest second ionisation enthalpy. (iii) All d-block elements are
transition elements. (iv) The only alphabet not found in the periodic table is the letter ' J '. (v)
Francium concentration is ∼ 10 −18 ppm on Earth.
A. A) (i), (ii), (iv)

B. B) (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
C. C) (i), (ii), (v)
D. D) (iv), (v)
Question 63
The table gives the first four ionization energies in kJ mol −1 of four elements (the letters are not
the symbols for the elements). Which element occurs in Group 13 of the periodic table?
A. A)
IE 1 IE 2 IE 3 IE 4
Element P 502 4569 6919 9550
B. B)
IE 1 IE 2 IE 3 IE 4
Element Q 526 7305 11822 −
C. C)
IE 1 IE 2 IE 3 IE 4
Element R 584 1823 2751 11584
D. D)
IE 1 IE 2 IE 3 IE 4
Element S 796 1583 3238 4362
Question 64
The correct order of decreasing acidic nature of oxides
A. A) Li 2 O > BeO > CO 2 > B 2 O 3 > N 2 O 3

B. B) CO 2 > N 2 O 3 > B 2 O 3 > Li 2 O > BeO
C. C) CO 2 > BeO > Li 2 O > B 2 O 3 > N 2 O 3
D. D) N 2 O 3 > CO 2 > B 2 O 3 > BeO > Li 2 O
Question 65
N0/4 atoms of X(g) are converted into X+(g) by energy E1. N0 /4 atoms of X(g) are converted into
X–(g) by energy E2. Hence, ionisation potential and electron affinity of X(g) are :
A. A) 4E
4(E −E )
N
1
0
, N1 2 0
B. B) 4E 1 4E 2
N0 N0
,
C. C)
(E 1 −E 2 ) 4E 2
N0 , N0
D. D) None is correct
Question 66
Consider the following four elements, which are represented according to long form of periodic
table
Here W, Y and Z are left, up and right elements with respect to the element ‘X’ and ‘X’
belongs to 16 th group and 3 rd period. Then according to given information the incorrect
statement regarding given elements is
A. A) Maximum electronegativity : Y
B. B) Maximum catenation property : X
C. C) Maximum electron affinity : Z
D. D) Y exhibits variable covalency
Question 67
Four successive members of the first two transition elements are listed below with their atomic
numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionisation enthalpy?
A. A) vanadium (Z = 23)
B. B) chromium (Z = 24)
C. C) manganese (Z = 25)
D. D) iron (Z = 26)
Question 68
The periodic table consists of 18 groups. An isotope of copper, on bombardment with protons,
undergoes a nuclear reaction yielding element X as shown below. To which group, element X
belongs in the periodic table? 63 1 1 4 1
29 Cu + 1 H → 6 0 n + 2 α + 2 1 H + X
Question 69
Which of the following is the most basic oxide?
A. A) SO 3
B. B) SeO 3
C. C) POO
D. D) TeO
Question 70
The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence
A. A) Al < Ga < In < Tl

B. B) Tl < In < Ga < Al
C. C) In < Tl < Ga < Al
D. D) Ga < In < Al < Tl

Q1 - C Q25 - B Q49 - A
Q2 - B Q26 - A Q50 - D
Q3 - C Q27 - D Q51 - B
Q4 - D Q28 - C Q52 - D
Q5 - C Q29 - D Q53 - D
Q6 - D Q30 - C Q54 - A
Q7 - A Q31 - A Q55 - C
Q8 - B Q32 - B Q56 - A
Q9 - D Q33 - B Q57 - D
Q10 - B Q34 - D Q58 - D
Q11 - D Q35 - A Q59 - C
Q12 - D Q36 - A Q60 - C
Q13 - B Q37 - C Q61 - C
Q14 - A Q38 - B Q62 - B
Q15 - B Q39 - A Q63 - C
Q16 - 72 (Num) Q40 - C Q64 - D
Q17 - A Q41 - C Q65 - B
Q18 - A Q42 - D Q66 - D
Q19 - D Q43 - D Q67 - C
Q20 - D Q44 - A Q68 - 8 (Num)
Q21 - D Q45 - B Q69 - C
Q22 - C Q46 - B Q70 - A
Q23 - C Q47 - C
Q24 - B Q48 - C
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Easy Questions
Question 1
What type of orbital hybridisation is considered on P in PCl 5 ?
A. A) sp 3 d
B. B) dsp 3
C. C) sp 3 d
2
D. D) d 2 sp 3
Question 2
In the compound HC ≡ C − CH = CH 2 the hybridization of C − 2 and C − 3 carbons are

respectively:
A. A) sp 3 &sp 3
B. B) sp 2 &sp 3
C. C) sp 2 &sp
D. D) sp 3 &sp
Question 3
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing number of lone pair of electrons on the
central atom?
A. A) IF 5 < XeF 2 < IF 7 < ClF 3

B. B) IF 7 < ClF 3 < XeF 2 < IF 5
C. C) IF 7 < XeF 2 < ClF 2 < IF 5
D. D) IF 7 < IF 5 < ClF 3 < XeF 2
Question 4
Which one of the following does not follow octate rule?
A. A) PF 3
B. B) BF 3
C. C) CO 2
D. D) CCl 4
Question 5
Which of the following has highest second ionization energy?
A. A) Ni
B. B) V
C. C) Cr
D. D) Mn
Question 6
Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound:
A. A) SnCl 2
B. B) AlCl 3
C. C) MgCl 2
D. D) FeCl 2
Question 7
The number of σ and π-bonds in pent-2-yne is
A. A) 12 and 2
B. B) 11 and 2
C. C) 13 and 2
D. D) 12 and 3
Question 8
The numbers of lone pairs and bond pairs in hydrazine are, respectively
A. A) 2 and 4
B. B) 2 and 6
C. C) 2 and 5
D. D) 1 and 5
Question 9
Hybridization of C 2 and C 3 of H 3 C − CH = C = CH − CH 3 are
A. A) Sp, Sp 3
B. B) Sp 2 , Sp
C. C) Sp 2 , Sp 2
D. D) Sp, Sp
Question 10
Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and hybridization)?
A. A) [BCl 3 and BrCl −

3]
B. B) [NH 3 and NO −
3]
C. C) [NF 3 and BF 3 ]
D. D) [BF −
4 and NH 4 ]
+
Question 11
The correct statement with regard to H +

2 and H 2 is
−
A. A) both H +
2 and H 2 are equally stable
−
B. B) both H +
2 and H 2 do not exist
−
C. C) H −
2 is more stable than H 2
+
D. D) H +
2 is more stable than H 2
−
Question 12
Aσ bonded molecule MX 3 is T-shaped. The number of non bonded pair of electrons is

A. A) 0
B. B) 2
C. C) 1
D. D) can be predicted only if atomic number is known
Question 13
The number of antibonding electron pairs in O 2−

2 molecular ion on the basis of molecular orbital
theory is (Atomic number of O is 18 )
A. A) 5
B. B) 4
C. C) 3
D. D) 2
Question 14
The shape of the molecule CIF 3 is-
A. A) trigonal planar
B. B) pyramidal
C. C) T-shaped
D. D) Y-shaped
Question 15
The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing power. Which one of the following
sequences represents the increasing order of the polarizinig order of the polarizing power of the
cationic species, K + , Ca , Mg 2+ , Be 2+ ?
2+
A. A) Mg 2+ , Be 2+ , K + , Ca 2+
B. B) Be 2+ , K + , Ca 2+ , Mg 2+
C. C) K + , Ca 2+ , Mg 2+ , Be 2+
D. D) Ca 2+ , Mg 2+ , Be 2+ , K +
Question 16
In acetylene molecule, the two carbon atoms are linked by
A. A) three σ-bonds
B. B) three π-bonds
C. C) one σ-bond and two π-bonds
D. D) two σ-bonds and one π-bond
Question 17
The structure of orthophosphoric acid is
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 18
The total number of σ and π-bonds in pyrophosphoric acid are respectively
A. A) 8, 2
B. B) 10, 2
C. C) 12, 2
D. D) 8, 4
Question 19
Which of the following is isoelectronic?
A. A) CO 2 , NO 2
B. B) NO −
2 , CO 2
C. C) CN − , CO
D. D) SO 2 , CO 2
Question 20
+
Hybridisation in CH 3 , C H 3 and C 3 are respectively
–
A. A) sp 2 , sp 2 , sp 3
B. B) sp 2 , sp 3 , sp 3
C. C) sp 3 , sp 3 , sp 2
D. D) sp 3 , sp 2 , sp 2
Question 21
Which one the following does not have sp 2 hybridized carbon?
A. A) Acetone
B. B) Acetamide
C. C) Acetonitrile
D. D) Acetic acid
Question 22
The C-O bond length in CO, CO 2 and CO 3 2− follows the order -
A. A) CO < CO 2 < CO 3 2−
B. B) CO 2 < CO 3 2− < CO
C. C) CO > CO 2 > CO 2−
3
D. D) CO 3 2− < CO 2 < CO
Question 23
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. A) Hybrid orbitals do not form σ bonds

B. B) Lateral overlap of p-orbitals or p - and d-orbitals produces π-bonds
C. C) The strength of bonds follows the order \sigma_{p-p} < \sigma_{s-s} < \pi_{p-p}
D. D) s-orbitals do not form σ bonds
Question 24
According to MO theory which of the following lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of
increasing bond order ?
A. A) N − 2−
2 < N2 < N2
B. B) N 2− −
2 < N2 < N2
C. C) N 2 < N 2− −
2 < N2
D. D) N − 2−
2 < N2 < N2
Question 25
In PO 3−
4 , the formal charge on each oxygen atom and the P − O bond order respectively are
A. A) -0.75,0.6
B. B) -0.75,1.0
C. C) -0.75,1.25
D. D) -3,1.25
Question 26
Assertion : CHCl 3 and CH 3 OH are miscible. Reason : One of them is polar.
Assertion.
Question 27
An octahedral complex is formed when hybrid orbitals of the following type are involved
A. A) sp 3
B. B) dsp 2
C. C) d 2 sp 3
D. D) sp 2 d 2
Question 28
The overlapping of orbitals in benzene is of the type
A. A) sp-sp
B. B) sp2-sp3
C. C) sp 2 − sp 2
D. D) sp 3 − sp 3
Question 29
The BCl 3 is a planar molecule where as NCl 3 is pyramidal, because
A. A) B − Cl bond is more polar than N − Cl bond

B. B) N − Cl bond is more covalent than B − Cl bond
C. C) nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atoms
D. D) BCl 3 has no lone pair but NCl 3 has a lone pair of electrons.
Question 30
Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
A. A) 1,1 -dichloromethane
B. B) cis -1,2 -dichloroethene
C. C) trans -1,2 -dichloroethene
D. D) 1 -chloroethane
Moderate Questions
Question 31
Which of the following pairs of ions in iso-electronic and iso-structural?
A. A) CO 2− −
3 , NO 3
B. B) SO 2− −
3 , NO 3
C. C) ClO 3 , CO 3
− 2−
D. D) SO 2− 2−
3 , CO 3
Question 32
Which of the following statements is/are true? 1.PH 5 and BiCl 5 do not exist. 2.pπ − dπ bond is
present in SO 2 3.I +
3 has bent geometry. 4.SeF 4 and CH 4 , have same shape.
A. A) 1,2,3
B. B) 1,3
C. C) 1,3,4
D. D) 1,2,4
Question 33
Which one of the following properties is not shown by NO ?
A. A) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state

B. B) It is a neutral oxide
C. C) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide
D. D) It's bond order is 2.5
Question 34
After understanding the assertion and reason, choose the correct option.
Assertion: In the bonding molecular orbital (MO) of H 2 , electron density is increased between
the nuclei.
Reason: The bonding MO is ψ A + ψ B , which shows destructive interference of the combining
electron waves.
A. A) Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation for the
Assertion.
B. B) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.
C. C) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct.
D. D) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect.
Question 35
The correct bond order in the following species is:
A. A) O 2+ − +
2 < O2 < O2
B. B) O + − 2+
2 < O2 < O2
C. C) O − + 2+
2 < O2 < O2
D. D) O 2+ + −
2 < O2 < O2
Question 36
The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of the
following presents the correct description?
A. A) O −
2 , O 2 - Both diamagnetic
2−
B. B) O + , O 2−
2 - Both paramagnetic
C. C) O +
2 , O 2 - Both paramagnetic
D. D) O, O 2−
2 - Both paramagnetic
Question 37
The correct order of increasing C − O bond length CO, CO 2−

3 , CO 2 is:
A. A) CO < CO 2 < CO 2−
3
B. B) CO 2 < CO 3
2−
< CO
C. C) CO < CO 2−
3 < CO 2
D. D) CO 3
2−
< CO 3 < CO
Question 38
The covalent character of the following chlorides follow the order
A. A) HgCl 2 < CdCl 2 < ZnCl 2

B. B) ZnCl 2 < CdCl 2 < HgCl 2
C. C) CdCl 2 < ZnCl 2 < HgCl 2
D. D) HgCl 2 < ZnCl 2 < CdCl 22
Question 39
The compound in which the number of dπ - pπ bonds are equal to those present in ClO 4
−
A. A) XeF 4
B. B) XeO 3
C. C) XeO 4
D. D) XeF 6
Question 40
Stability of the species Li 2 , Li −

2 and Li 2 increases in the order of
+
A. A) Li 2 < Li − +
2 < Li 2
B. B) Li − +
2 < Li 2 < Li 2
C. C) Li 2 < Li + −
2 < Li 2
D. D) Li − +
2 < Li 2 < Li 2
Question 41
The F − Br − F bond angles in BrF 5 and the Cl − P − Cl bond angles in P Cl 5 ,

respectively, are
A. A) identical in BrF 5 but non-identical in P Cl 5

B. B) identical in BrF 5 and identical in P Cl 5
C. C) non-identical in BrF 5 but identical in P Cl 5

D. D) non-identical in BrF 5 and non-identical in P Cl 5
Question 42
Dipole moment of HCl = 1.03D, HI = 0.38D. Bond length of HCl = 1.3Å and HI = 1.6Å.
The ratio of fraction of electric charge, δ, existing on each atom in HCl and HI is
A. A) 12 : 1
B. B) 2.7 : 1
C. C) 3.3 : 1
D. D) 1 : 3.3
Question 43
Assertion : CH 3 OCH 3 and C 2 H 5 OH has comparable molecular weight but boiling point of
C 2 H 5 OH is more than dimethyl ether. Reason : C 2 H 5 OH forms intermolecular Hbonding while
CH 3 OCH 3 forms intramolecular H-bonding.
Assertion.
Question 44
The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by:
A. A) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl 2

B. B) BeCl 2 < LiCl < NaCl
C. C) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl 2
D. D) BeCl 2 < NaCl < LiCl
Question 45
Hydrogen bond is strongest in
A. A) S − H … O
B. B) O − H ⋯ S
C. C) F − H … F
D. D) O − H … − N
Question 46
The ion which is not tetrahedral in shape is
A. A) BF −
4
B. B) NH 4
+
C. C) Cu(NH 3 ) 4 2+
D. D) NiCl 2−
4 .
Question 47
The internuclear distances in O − O bonds for O +

2 , O 2 , O 2 and O 2 respectively are :
− 2−
A. A) 1.30 Å, 1.49 Å, 1.12 Å, 1.21 Å

B. B) 1.49 Å, 1.21 Å, 1.12 Å, 1.30 Å
C. C) 1.21 Å, 1.12 Å, 1.49 Å, 1.30 Å
D. D) 1.12 Å, 1.21 Å, 1.30 Å, 1.49 Å
Question 48
Which of the following has highest boiling point?
A. A) 1% urea solution
B. B) 1% sucrose
C. C) 1% NaCl solution
D. D) 1%CaCl 2 solution
Question 49
Which of the following has the highest dipole moment?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 50
Arrange the following in decreasing order of solubility in water
A. A) I > III > II

B. B) III > II > I
C. C) II > III > I
D. D) All are equally soluble
Question 51
Smallest intermolecular distance is found in
A. A) O 2
B. B) O 2
+
C. C) O −
2
D. D) O 2−
2
Question 52
Among the following atomic orhital overlap, the non-honding overlap is
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 53
Which of the following statements is true ?
A. A) HF is less polar than HBr

B. B) absolutely pure water does not contain any ions
C. C) chemical bond formation take place when forces of attraction overcome the forces of
repulsion
D. D) in covalency transference of electron takes place
Question 54
Which of the following has least bond energy?
A. A) N 2−
2
B. B) N 2
C. C) N +
2
D. D) N 2
Question 55
Which one of the following molecules is polar?
A. A) XeF 4
B. B) IF 5
C. C) SbF 5
D. D) CF 4
Question 56
The boiling point of the water is higher than liquid HF. The reason is that
A. A) Hydrogen bonds are stronger in water

B. B) Hydrogen bonds are stronger in HF.
C. C) Hydrogen bonds are larger in number in HF
D. D) Hydrogen bonds are larger in number in water
Question 57
During the formation of a chemical bond
A. A) energy decreases
B. B) energy increases
C. C) energy of the system does not change
D. D) electron-electron repulsion becomes more than the nucleus-electron attraction
Question 58
Assertion : Na 2 SO 4 is soluble in water while BaSO 4 is not. Reason : Lattice energy of BaSO 4
exceeds its hydration energy.
Assertion.
Question 59
Chlorine atom, in its third excited state, reacts with fluorine to form a compound X. The formula
and shape of X are :
A. A) ClF 5 , pentagonal
B. B) ClF 4 , tetrahedral
C. C) ClF 4 pentagonal bipyramidal
D. D) ClF 7 , pentagonal bipyramidal
Question 60
Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and hybridization)?
A. A) [BCl 3 and BrCl 3 ]

B. B) [NH 3 and NO −
3]
C. C) [NF 3 and BF 3 ]
D. D) [BF −
4 and NH 4 ]
+
Hard Questions
Question 61
The compound with more covalent character in the following is
A. A) FeF 3
B. B) VF 5
C. C) VF 2
D. D) TiF 2
Question 62
Which of the following statements are correct for butadiene
4 3 2 1
CH 2 = CH − CH = CH 2
(1) The C 1 − C 2 and C 3 − C 4 bonds are longer than a carbon-carbon double bond.
(2) The C 1 − C 2 and C 3 − C 4 bonds are shorter than a carbon-carbon double bond.
(3) The C 2 − C 3 bond is slightly shorter than a carbon-carbon single bond.
(4) The C 2 − C 3 bond is slightly longer than a carbon-carbon double bond.
A. A) 1, 2
B. B) 2, 3
C. C) 1, 3
D. D) 3, 4
Question 63
In the reactions I and II the covalencies of Be and Al in X and Y are respectively I
Be(OH) 2 + NaOH → X (excess) II Al(OH) 3 + NaOH → Y
(excess) (excess)
A. A) 4,6
B. B) 4,4
C. C) 6,4
D. D) 3,6
Question 64
According to molecular orbital theory, the species among the following that does not exist is:
A. A) He −
2
B. B) O 2−
2
C. C) He 2
+
D. D) Be 2
Question 65
Hybridisations of carbon- 2 in P and Q are respectively.
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 66
According to molecular orbital theory, antibonding molecular orbitals of O 2 contain
A. A) 4 electrons
B. B) 6 electrons
C. C) 10 electrons
D. D) 8 electrons
Question 67
In resonance hybrid of ozone molecule, 0 − 0 bond length is
A. A) 128pm
B. B) 134 ⋅ 5pm
C. C) 121pm
D. D) 148pm
Question 68
The species having pyramidal shape is
A. A) SO 3
B. B) BrF 3
C. C) SiO 3
2−
D. D) OSF 2
Question 69
The incorrect order of lattice energy is
A. A) AlF 3 > MgF 2

B. B) Li 3 N > Li 2 O
C. C) NaCl > LiF
D. D) TiC > ScN
Question 70
In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to the property
written against it?
A. A) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : increasing oxidising power
B. B) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acid strength

C. C) B < C < O < N : increasing first ionisation energy
D. D) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : increasing basic strength
Question 71
Among the species given below, the total number of diamagnetic species is ___.
H atom, NO 2 monomer, O − 2 (superoxide), dimeric sulphur in vapour phase,
Mn 3 O 4 , (NH 4 ) 2 [F eCl 4 ], (NH 4 ) 2 [NiCl 4 ], K 2 MnO 4 , K 2 CrO 4
Question 72
Identify the incorrect statement, regarding the molecules XeO 4 :
A. A) XeO 4 molecule is square planar

B. B) There are four pπ − dπ bonds
C. C) There are four sp 3 − p, σ bonds
D. D) XeO 4 molecule is tetrahedral
Question 73
The bond length of HCl molecule is 1.275Å and its dipole moment is 1.03D. The ionic character
of the molecule (in percent) (charge of the electron = 4.8 × 10 −10 esu ) is
A. A) 100
B. B) 67.3
C. C) 33.6
D. D) 16.83
Question 74
Identify all the species that do not exist \mathrm{H}_2^{+}, \mathrm{He}_2^{2+},

\mathrm{Li}_2^{2-}, \mathrm{Ne}_2, \mathrm{Be}_2^{-}, \mathrm{He}_2
A. A) He 2 , Ne 2 only
B. B) Li 2−
2 , Ne 2 , He 2 only
C. C) Be −
2 , He 2 , Ne 2 only
D. D) H +
2 , Li 2 only
2−
Question 75
N 2 and O 2 are converted to monopositive cations N +
2 and O 2 respectively. Which set is having
+
correct statements?
1. In O +
2 , paramagnetism decreases
2 becomes diamagnetic
2. N +
3. In O +
2 , the bond order increases
4. In N 2 the N − N bond is weakened.
+
A. A) 3, 4
B. B) 1, 4
C. C) 1, 3, 4
D. D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Question 76
The major product formed in the following reaction sequence is
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 77
The hybridization of the central atom and the shape of [IO 2 F 5 ] ion respectively, are -
2−
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 78
Among the following, the species with identical bond order are
A. A) CO and O 2−
2
B. B) O −
2 and CO
C. C) O 2−
2 and B 2
D. D) CO and N 2+
Question 79
Which of the following is a positive overlap that leads to bonding?
(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
A. A) I and II
B. B) II and III
C. C) III and IV
D. D) I and IV
Question 80
Match the following.

The correct match is A B C D
A. A) I V IV III
B. B) III IV V I
C. C) I V II IV
D. D) IV V I III
Question 81
Bond enthalpies of H 2 , X 2 and HX are in the ratio 2: 1: 2 . If enthalpy of formation of HX is

−50 kJ mol −1 , the bond enthalpy of X 2 is
A. A) 100 kJ mol −1
B. B) 300 kJ mol −1
C. C) 200 kJ mol −1
D. D) 400 kJ mol −1
Question 82
The H − C − H, H − N − H, and H − O − H bond angles (in degrees) in methane, ammonia

and water are respectively, closest to
A. A) 109.5, 104.5, 107.1

B. B) 109.5, 107.1, 104.5
C. C) 104.5, 107.1, 104.5
D. D) 107.1, 104.5, 109.5
Question 83
Match the orbital overlap figures shown in List-I with the description given in List-II and select the
correct
answer using the code given below the lists.
List – I List - II
A. P p − d π antibonding
B. Q d − d σ bonding
C. R p − d π bonding
D. S d − d σ antibonding
A. A) a-q;b-r;c-p;d-s;
B. B) a-r;b-q;c-p;d-s;
C. C) a-r;b-q;c-s;d-p;
D. D) a-p;b-s;c-r;d-q;
Question 84
Which of the following order is correct?
A. A) AlCl 3 < MgCl 2 < NaCl : Polarising power

B. B) CO > CO 2 >> HCO 2 > CO 3 : Bond length
− 2−
C. C) BeCl 2 < NF 3 < NH 3 : Dipole moment

D. D) H 2 S > NH 3 > SiH 4 > BF 3 : Bond angle
Question 85
What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting liquid
CH 3 OH to a gas ?
A. A) Hydrogen bonding
B. B) Dipole-dipole interaction
C. C) Covalent bonds
D. D) London dispersion force
Question 86
If an extra electron is added to the hypothetical molecule C 2 , this extra electron will occupy the
molecular orbital:-
A. A) π 2P
*
B. B) π 2P
C. C) σ 2P
*
D. D) σ 2P
Question 87
Assuming 2s – 2p mixing is NOT operative, the paramagnetic species among the following is
A. A) Be 2
B. B) B 2
C. C) C 2
D. D) N 2
Question 88
Match each of the diatomic molecules in Column I with its property/properties in Column II.
A. A) (A) q,t, (B) s,t, (C) r,t, (D) p,q,s

B. B) (A) p,q,s,t, (B) p,s,t, (C) p,q, (D) r,s
C. C) (A) p,r,t, (B) s,t, (C) p,q,r, (D) p,r,s
D. D) (A) p,q,s,t, (B) p,s,t, (C) p,q, (D) r,s
Question 89
Assertion: Both π (2p x ) and π ∗ (2p x ) MO's have one nodal plane each. Reason: All MO's
formed by side way overlapping of 2p-orbitals have one nodal plane.
A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Question 90
Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is
increasing in them.
A. A) NO < O − 2− +
2 < C 2 < He 2
B. B) O − 2− +
2 < NO < C 2 < He 2
C. C) C 2− + −
2 < He 2 < O 2 < NO
D. D) He + − 2−
2 < O 2 < NO < C 2

Q1 - A Q31 - A Q61 - B
Q2 - C Q32 - A Q62 - C
Q3 - D Q33 - A Q63 - B
Q4 - B Q34 - D Q64 - D
Q5 - C Q35 - C Q65 - A
Q6 - B Q36 - C Q66 - A
Q7 - A Q37 - A Q67 - C
Q8 - C Q38 - B Q68 - D
Q9 - B Q39 - B Q69 - C
Q10 - D Q40 - D Q70 - D
Q11 - D Q41 - D Q71 - 1 (Num)
Q12 - B Q42 - C Q72 - A
Q13 - B Q43 - C Q73 - D
Q14 - C Q44 - C Q74 - B
Q15 - C Q45 - C Q75 - C
Q16 - C Q46 - C Q76 - C
Q17 - A Q47 - D Q77 - D
Q18 - C Q48 - D Q78 - C
Q19 - C Q49 - A Q79 - B
Q20 - A Q50 - A Q80 - B
Q21 - C Q51 - B Q81 - A
Q22 - A Q52 - A Q82 - B
Q23 - B Q53 - C Q83 - A
Q24 - B Q54 - D Q84 - C
Q25 - C Q55 - B Q85 - A
Q26 - C Q56 - D Q86 - D
Q27 - C Q57 - A Q87 - C
Q28 - C Q58 - A Q88 - C
Q29 - D Q59 - D Q89 - D
Q30 - C Q60 - D Q90 - D
Thermodynamics (C)
Easy Questions
Question 1
For adiabatic process, which is correct?

A. A) ΔT = 0
B. B) ΔS = 0
C. C) q = 0
D. D) q p = 0
Question 2
The correct relationship between free energy change in a reaction and the corresponding
equilibrium constant K c is
A. A) −ΔG = RT ln K c
B. B) ΔG 0 = RT ln K c
C. C) −ΔG 0 = RT In K c
D. D) ΔG = RT ln K c
Question 3
For a process to occur spontaneously, the system free energy or chemical potential of the
system :
A. A) Must decrease
B. B) Must increase
C. C) Must remain stable
D. D) None of the given options
Question 4
At 25 ∘ C and 1 bar which of the following has a non-zero ΔH ∘f ?
A. A) Br 2 (ℓ)
B. B) C (graphite)
C. C) O 3 ( g)
D. D) I 2 ( s)
Question 5
The change in entropy when the pressure of perfect gas is changed isothermally from P 1 to P 2
is
A. A) ΔS = nRln(P 1 + P 2 )
B. B) ΔS = nRln(P 2 /P 1 )
C. C) ΔS = nRln(P 1 /P 2 )
D. D) ΔS = nRln( P1P+P2 )
2
Question 6
Enthalpy of a reaction at 27oC is 15 kJ mol-1. The reaction will be feasible if entropy is
A. A) 15 J mol-1 K-1
B. B) -50 J mol-1 K-1
C. C) Greater than 50 J mol-1 K-1
D. D) Less than 50 J mol-1 K-1
Question 7
Which of the following is an intensive property of the system?
A. A) Density
B. B) Volume
C. C) Total heat capacity
D. D) Mass
Question 8
In a process, 701 J of heat is absorbed by a system and 394 J of work is done by the system.
What is the change in internal energy (in J) for the process?
Question 9
Average C − H bond energy is 416 kJ mol −1 . Which of the following is correct?
A. A) CH 4 (g) + 416 kJ ⟶ C(g) + 4H(g)

B. B) CH 4 (g) ⟶ C(g) + 4H(g) + 416 kJ
C. C) CH 4 (g) + 1664 kJ ⟶ C(g) + 4H(g)
D. D) CH 4 (g) ⟶ C(g) + 4H(g) + 1664 kJ
Question 10
Which of the following are not a constant value between two given thermodynamic states of a
given system?
(I) q + w
(II) q
(III) w
(IV) H − TS
A. A) (I) and (IV)

B. B) (II), (III) and (IV)
C. C) (I), (II) and (III)
D. D) (II) and (III)
Question 11
Which law of the thermodynamics helps in calculating the absolute entropies of various
substances at different temperatures?
A. A) First law
B. B) Second law
C. C) Third law
D. D) Zeroth law
Question 12
Consider the reaction: N 2 + 3H 2 ⟶ 2NH 3 carried out at constant temperature and pressure.
If ΔH and ΔU are the enthalpy and internal energy changes for the reaction, which of the
following expressions is true?
A. A) ΔH = 0
B. B) ΔH = ΔU
C. C) ΔH < ΔU
D. D) ΔH > ΔU
Question 13
C+O 2 → CO 2 ; ΔH = X
1
CO + 2
O 2 → CO 2 ; ΔH = Y
Then the heat of formation of CO is
A. A) X − Y
B. B) Y − 2X
C. C) X + Y
D. D) 2X − Y
Question 14
An ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cycle. ABCDA as shown in figure. The work done
during the cycle is
A. A) -PV
B. B) -2PV
C. C) − 12 PV
D. D) 0
Question 15
Which one of the following has ΔS ∘ greater than zero?
A. A) CaO\[(s) + CO 2 \](g) ⇌ CaCO 3 (s)

B. B) NaCl (aq) ⇌ NaCl (s)
C. C) NaNO 3(s) ⇌ Na +
(aq)
+ NO −
3 (aq)
D. D) N 2(g) + 3H 2( g) ⇌ 2NH 3(g)
Question 16
Which of the following is an intensive property of the system?
A. A) Density
B. B) Volume
C. C) Total heat capacity
D. D) Mass
Question 17
For a reaction in which all reactants and products are liquids, which one of the following
equations is most applicable?
A. A) ΔH < ΔE
B. B) ΔH = ΔS
C. C) ΔH ≈ ΔE
D. D) Total W = 0
Question 18
Which of the following is always feasible?
A. A) ΔH = T ΔS
B. B) ΔH (+ve), T ΔS (-ve) and ΔH > T ΔS
C. C) ΔH (-ve), T ΔS (+ve) and ΔH < T ΔS
D. D) ΔH (-ve), T ΔS (-ve) and ΔH > T ΔS .
Question 19
Choose the correct answer- A thermodynamic state function is a quantity:
A. A) used to determine heat changes.

B. B) whose value is independent of path.
C. C) used to detemine pressure-volume work.
D. D) whose value depends on temperature only.
Question 20
Which one of the following is correct regarding ΔH :
A. A) ΔH = ΔE + 2RT
B. B) ΔH = ΔE − 2RT
C. C) ΔH = ΔE + RT
D. D) ΔH = ΔE − RT
Question 21
The internal energy change when a system goes from state A to B is 40 kJ/mole. If the system
goes from A to B by a reversible path and retums to state A by an irreversible path what would
be the net change in internalenergy?
A. A) > 40 kJ
B. B) < 40 kJ
C. C) Zero
D. D) 40 kJ
Question 22
Identify the correct statement regarding a spontaneous process
A. A) For a spontaneous process in an isolated system, the change in entropy is positive

B. B) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous
C. C) Exothermic processes are always spontaneous
D. D) Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the only criterion for spontaneity
Question 23
Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any
process is:
A. A) ΔS system + ΔS surrounding > 0

B. B) ΔS system − ΔS surrounding > 0
C. C) ΔS System > 0 only
D. D) ΔS Surroundings > only
Question 24
Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is correct?
A. A) For an isochoric process, ΔE = − q

B. B) For an adiabatic process, ΔE = − w
C. C) For an isothermal process, q = W
D. D) For a cyclic process, q = −W
Question 25
Match the column I with Column II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
(p) State function (i) At constant pressure
(q) ΔH = q (ii) Specific heat
(r) ΔU = q (iii) Entropy
(s) Intensive property (iv) At constant volume
A. A) (p)-(iii), (q)-(i), (r)-(iv), (s)-(ii)

B. B) (p)-(ii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(i), (s)-(iii)
C. C) (p)-(ii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(iii), (s)-(i)
D. D) (p)-(iii), (q)-(ii), (r)-(i), (s)-(iv)
Question 26
The work done in an open vessel at 300 K, when 112 g iron reacts with dil. HCl is (
R = 2 cal mol −1 K −1 )
A. A) 1200 cal
B. B) 600 cal
C. C) 300 cal
D. D) 200 cal
Question 27
An ideal gas expands in volume from 1 × 10 −3 m 3 to 1 × 10 −2 m 3 at 300 K against a

constant pressure of 1 × 10 5 Nm . The work done is
−2
A. A) −900 J
B. B) 900 kJ
C. C) 2780 kJ
D. D) −900 kJ
Question 28
What is the true regarding complete combustion of gaseous isobutane‐
A. A) ΔH = ΔE
B. B) ΔH > ΔE
C. C) ΔH = ΔE = 0
D. D) ΔH < ΔE
Question 29
In which of the following conditions, a reaction will definitely be spontaneous:
A. A) Exothermic and increasing disorder

B. B) Exothermic and decreasing disorder
C. C) Endothermic and increasing disorder
D. D) Endothermic and decreasing disorder
Question 30
(ΔH − ΔU) for the formation of carbon monoxide (CO) from its elements at 298 K is
(R = 8.314 J K −1 mol −1 )
A. A) −1238.78 J mol −1
B. B) 1238.78 J mol −1
C. C) −2477.57 J mol −1
D. D) 2477.57 J mol −1
Moderate Questions
Question 31
Combustion of Hydrogen in a fuel cell at 300 K is represented as

2H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → 2H 2 O(g).
If ΔH and ΔG are −241.60 kJ mol −1 and −228.40 kJ mol −1 are respectively for H 2 O then
the value of ΔS for the above process is
A. A) 4.4 J K
-1
B. B) −88 J K -1
C. C) +88 J K -1
D. D) −44 J K -1
Question 32
2 moles of the ideal gas at 27 ∘ C temperature is expanded reversibly from 2 L to 20 L. Find the
entropy change (R = 2calmol −1 K −1 ) :
A. A) 92.1
B. B) 0
C. C) 4
D. D) 9.2
Question 33
In isolated system, find the condition for spontaneous reaction.
A. A) ΔU = 0, ΔS = 0, ΔG = 0
B. B) ΔU < 0, ΔS > 0, ΔG < 0
C. C) ΔU = 0, ΔS > 0, ΔG < 0
D. D) ΔU < 0, ΔS < 0, ΔG < 0
Question 34
The enthalpy change (ΔH) for the reaction, \mathrm{N}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}+3

\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{~g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{NH}_{3(\mathrm{~g})} is −92.38 kJ at
298 K. The internal energy change ΔU at 298 K is
A. A) −92.38 kJ
B. B) −87.42 kJ
C. C) −97.34 kJ
D. D) −89.9 kJ.
Question 35
In an isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas against vacuum from 10 litre to 100 litre
at 27 o C , the quantity of heat absorbed by the gas is
Question 36
A gas expands from 3 dm 3 to 5 dm 3 against a constant pressure of 3 atm. The work done
during expansion is used to heat 10 mole of water at temperature 290 K. Calculate final
temperature of water. Specific heat of water = 4.184 J/ g/K.
[Given: 1 atm = 101.33 J]
A. A) 290.81 K
B. B) 290.61 K
C. C) 290.41 K
D. D) 290.21 K
Question 37
Combustion of Hydrogen in a fuel cell at 300 K is represented as

2 H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → 2 H 2 O(g). If ΔH and ΔG are −241.80 kJ mol −1 and
−228.60 kJ mol −1 respectively for H 2 O then the value of ΔS for the above process is:
A. A) +44. JK −1 mol −1
B. B) −88 JK −1 mol −1
C. C) +88 JK −1 mol −1
D. D) −44. JK −1 mol −1
Question 38
If enthalpies of formation of C 2 H 4 ( g), CO 2 ( g) and H 2 O(l) at 25 ∘ C and 1 atm pressure are

52,394 and −286 kJ/mol respectively, the change in enthalpy for combustion of C 2 H 4 is equal
to
A. A) −141.2 kJ/mol
B. B) −1412 kJ/mol
C. C) +14.2 kJ/mol
D. D) +1412 kJ/mol
Question 39
Calculate ΔH of for chloride ion from the following data:
1 1
2 H 2 (g) + 2 Cl 2 (g) → HCl(g) ; ΔH of = −92.4 kJ
HCl(g) + nH 2 O → H + (aq) + Cl − (aq) ; ΔH of = − 74.8 kJ

ΔH of of H + (aq) = 0.0 kJ
A. A) −167.2 kJ
B. B) −165.2 kJ
C. C) −157.2 kJ
D. D) −147.2 kJ
Question 40
ΔH fusion of a substance is ' x ' and ΔH vap is ' y ', then ΔH sublimation will be
A. A) x + y
B. B) x − y
C. C) x/y
D. D) y/x.
Question 41
Acyclicprocess ABCD is shown in P-V diagram for an ideal gas. Which of the following diagram
represents the same process?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 42
For which of the following reactions, ΔH is equal to ΔU?
A. A) N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) → 2 NH 3 (g)

B. B) 2 HI (g) → H 2 (g) + I 2 (g)
C. C) 2 SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → 2 SO 3 (g)
D. D) 2 NO 2 (g) → N 2 O 4 (g)
Question 43
Two moles of helium gas expanded isothermally and irreversibly at 27 o C from volume 1 dm 3 to
1 m 3 at constant pressure of 100 k Pa. Calculate the work done.
A. A) 99900 J
B. B) −99900 J
C. C) 34464.65 J
D. D) −34464.65 J
Question 44
Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
(p) H 2(g) + Br 2(g) → 2HBr (g) (i) ΔH = ΔU − 2RT
(q) PCl 5(g) → PCl 3(g) + Cl 2(g) (ii) ΔH = ΔU + 3RT
(r) N 2(g) + 3H 2(g) → 2NH 3(g) (iii) ΔH = ΔU
(s) 2N 2 O 5(g) → 4NO 2(g) + O 2(g) (iv) ΔH = ΔU + RT
A. A) (p)-(iii), (q)-(i), (r)-(ii), (s)-(iv)

B. B) (p)-(iii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(i), (s)-(ii)
C. C) (p)-(ii), (q)-(i), (r)-(iv), (s)-(iii)
D. D) (p)-(iv), (q)-(ii), (r)-(i), (s)-(iii)
Question 45
Find Work done in the irreversible process C → A .
A. A) 4.51 atm
B. B) Zero
C. C) 8.12 L atm
D. D) unpredictable
Question 46
In which of the following reactions, standard entropy change (ΔS ∘ ) is positive and standard
Gibb's energy change (ΔG ∘ ) decreases sharply with increasing temperature?
A. A) C (graphite) + 12 O 2 ( g) → CO(g)
B. B) CO(g) + 12 O 2 ( g) → CO 2 ( g)
C. C) Mg(s) + 12 O 2 ( g) → MgO(s)
D. D) 12 C (graphite) + 12 O 2 ( g) → 12 CO 2 ( g)
Question 47
A diatomic gas at pressure P , compressed adiabatically to half of its volume, what is the final
pressure?
A. A) (2) 1.4 P
B. B) P /(2) 1.4
C. C) (2) 5/3 P
D. D) P /(2) 5/3
Question 48
Assertion : During an adiabatic process, heat energy is not exchanged between system and its
surroundings. Reason : The temperature of a gas increases when it undergoes an adiabatic
expansion.
assertion.
assertion.
Question 49
One mol of an ideal gas was taken from A → B as shown in given figure. Magnitude of work
involved in process is (R = 25 J
3 mol K
):
A. A) 5 kJ
B. B) 7.5 kJ
C. C) 2.5 kJ
D. D) None of these
Question 50
The combustion of benzene (l) gives CO 2 (g) and H 2 O(l). Given that heat of combustion of
benzene at constant volume is −3263 .9 kJ mol −1 at 25°C; the heat of combustion
(in kJ mol −1 ) of benzene at constant pressure will be
(R = 8 .314 JK −1 mol −1 )
A. A) −3267.6
B. B) 4152.6
C. C) −452.46
D. D) 3260
Question 51
On the basis of the following thermochemical data: (ΔfG ∘ H +

(aq)
= 0)
H 2 O(ℓ) → H + (aq) + OH − (aq); ΔH = 57.32 kJ

1
H 2 ( g) + O 2 ( g) → H 2 O(ℓ); ΔH = −286.20 kJ
2
The value of enthalpy of formation of OH − ion at 25 ∘ C is:
A. A) −22.88 kJ
B. B) −228.88 kJ
C. C) +228.88 kJ
D. D) −343.52 kJ
Question 52
One mole of an ideal gas (C V = 20JK −1 mol −1 ) initially at STP is heated at constant volume
to twice the initial temperature. For the process, W and q will be-
A. A) W = 0; q = 5.46kJ
B. B) W = 0; q = 0
C. C) W = −5.46kJ; q = 5.46kJ
D. D) W = 5.46kJ; q = 5.46kJ
Question 53
Calculate the heat produced (in kJ ) when 224gm of CaO is completely converted to CaCO 3
by reaction with CO 2 at 27 o C in a container of fixed volume.
Given : ΔH of [CaCO 3 (s)] = −1207kJ/mol; ΔH of [CaO (s)] = −635kJ/mol
ΔH ∘f (CO 2 , g) = −394 kJ/mol ; [Use R = 8.3 K −1 mol −1 ]

A. A) -702.04 kJ
B. B) 721.96 kJ
C. C) 712 kJ
D. D) 721 kJ
Question 54
Standard entropies of X 2 , Y 2 and XY 3 are 60, 30 and 50 JK −1 mol −1 respectively. For the
reaction 12 X 2 + 32 Y 2 ⇌ XY 3 , ΔH = −30 kJ to be at equilibrium, the temperature should
be:
A. A) 1200 K
B. B) 1000 K
C. C) 750 K
D. D) 500 K
Question 55
A solution of 200 mL of 1 M KOH is added to 200 mL of 1 M HCl and the mixture is well shaken.
This rise in temperature T 1 is noted. The experiment is repeated by using 100 mL of each
solution and increase in temperature T 2 is again noted. Which of the following is correct?
A. A) T 1 = T 2
B. B) T 2 is twice as large as T 1
C. C) T 1 is twice as large as T 2
D. D) T 1 is four times as large as T 2
Question 56
In an isobaric process, when temperature changes from T 1 to T 2 , ΔS is equal to
A. A) 2.303C P log (T 2 /T 1 )
B. B) 2.303C P ln (T 2 /T 1 )
C. C) C P ln (T 1 /T 2 )
D. D) C V ln (T 2 /T 1 )
Question 57
The P-T graph as given below was observed for a process of an ideal gas, which of the following
statement is true?
A. A) w = +ve, ΔH = +ve
B. B) w = −ve, ΔH = −ve
C. C) w = −ve, ΔH = +ve
D. D) w = +ve, ΔH = −ve
Question 58
The total work done in the following PV curve is

25π
A. A) (150 − 2 ) L-atm
25π
B. B) (150 + 2 ) L-atm
25π
C. C) (− 2 ) L-atm
D. D) 150 L-atm
Question 59
Which of the following show an increase in entropy?
I. Boiling of water
II. Melting of ice
III. Freezing of water
IV. Formation of hydrogen gas from water
A. A) (I) and (II)

B. B) Only (III)
C. C) (I), (II) and (IV)
D. D) (III) and (IV)
Question 60
For the reaction,
A(g) + B(g) → C(g) + D(g), Δ H o and ΔS o are, respectively, −29.8 kJ mol −1 and
−0.100 kJ K −1 mol −1 at 298 K. The equilibrium constant for the reaction at 298 k is:
A. A) 1.0 × 10 −10
B. B) 10
C. C) 1
D. D) 1.0 × 10 10
Hard Questions
Question 61
Consider the reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas in a closed system at two different
temperatures T 1 and T 2 (T 1 < T 2 ) . The correct graphical depiction of the dependence of work
done (w) vs the final volume (V) is:
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 62
A gas occupies 2 litres at STP. It is provided 58.63 joule heat so that its volume becomes 2.5 litre
at 1 atm. Change in its internal energy in joules is
A. A) 8.63
B. B) 7.62
C. C) 12.9
D. D) 5.54
Question 63
The entropy change associated with the conversion of 1 kg of ice at 273 K to water vapours at
383 K is:
(Specific heat of water liquid and water vapour are 4.2 kJ K − and 2.0 kJ K −1 kg −1 ; heat of
liquid fusion and vaporization of water are 334 kJ kg −1 and 2491 kJ kg −1 , respectively). ( log
273 = 2.436, log 373 = 2.572, log 383 = 2.583 )
A. A) 9.26 kJ kg −1 K −1
B. B) 2.64 kJ kg −1 K −1
C. C) 8.49 kJ kg −1 K −1
D. D) 7.90 kJ kg −1 K −1
Question 64
The combination of plots which does not represent isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A. A) (A) and (D)
B. B) (B) and (C)
C. C) (B) and (D)
D. D) (A) and (C)
Question 65
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
A. A) (a)
B. B) (b)
C. C) (c)
D. D) (d)
Question 66
The reversible expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic and isothermal conditions is shown in
the figure. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. A) T 3 > T 1
B. B) T 1 = T 2
C. C) ΔU isothermal > ΔU adiabatic
D. D) W isothermal > w adiabatic
Question 67
A gas undergoes change from state A to state B. In this process, the heat absorbed and work
done by the gas is 5 J and 8 J, respectively. Now gas is brought back to A by another process
during which 3 J of heat is evolved. In this reverse process of B to A:
A. A) 6 J of the work will be done by the gas

B. B) 6 J of the work will be done by the surrounding on gas
C. C) 10 J of the work will be done by the surrounding on gas
D. D) 10 J of the work will be done by the gas
Question 68
A fixed mass m of a gas is subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N and back

to K as shown in the figure.
The succeeding operation that enable this transformation of state are
A. A) heating, cooling, heating, cooling

B. B) cooling, heating, cooling , heating
C. C) heating, cooling, cooling, heating
D. D) cooling , heating , heating , cooling
Question 69
Given, CH 3 COOH(aq) → CH 3 COO − (aq) + H + (aq)

ΔH orxn = 0.004 kcal gm −1
Enthalpy change when 1 mole of Ba(OH) 2 , a strong base, is completely neutralized by
CH 3 COOH(aq) is (ΔH ∘ of neutralization of strong acid with strong base is =
−13.7 kcal mol −1 )
A. A) −27.46 kcal/mol
B. B) 27.46 kcal/mol
C. C) −26.92 kcal/mol
D. D) −13.46 kcal/mol
Question 70
1 mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally reversibly from 2 litre to 4 litre and 3 moles of the
same gas expands from 2 litre to x litre and doing same work, what is ' x '?
A. A) (8) 1/3
B. B) (4) 2/3
C. C) 2
D. D) 4
Question 71
Data given for the following reaction is as follows :
FeO (s) + C (graphite) ⟶ Fe (s) + CO (g)

Substance Δ f H°(kJmol −1 ) ΔS°(Jmol −1 K −1 )
FeO (s) −266. 3 57. 49
C (graphite) 0 5. 74
Fe (s) 0 27. 28
CO (g) −110. 5 197. 6
The minimum temperature in K at which the reaction becomes spontaneous is_____.(Integer
answer)
Question 72
The Born-Haber cycle for KCl is evaluated with the following data:
Δ f H Θ for KCl = −436.7 kJmol −1 ; Δ sub H Θ for K = 89.2 kJmol −1 ;
Δ ionization H Θ for K = 419.0 kJ mol −1 ; Δ electron gain H Θ for Cl (g) = −348.6 kJmol −1
Δ bond H Θ for Cl 2 = 243.0 kJmol −1
The magnitude of lattice enthalpy of KCl in kJmol −1 is (Nearest integer)
Question 73
The variation of equilibrium constant with temperature is given below :

Temperature EquilibriumConstant
T 1 = 25°C K 1 = 10
T 2 = 100°C K 2 = 100
The values of ΔH°, ΔG° at T 1 and ΔG° at T 2 (in kJ mol −1 ) respectively, are close to [use
R = 8. 314 JK −1 mol −1 ]
A. A) 28. 4, −7. 14 and − 5. 71
B. B) 0. 64, −7. 14 and − 5. 71
C. C) 28. 4, −5. 71 and − 14. 29
D. D) 0. 64, −5. 71 and − 14. 29
Question 74
Match List - I with List - II.
List-I List-II
(A) Spontaneous process (I) ΔH < 0
Process with
(B) (II) ΔG T,P < 0
ΔP = 0, ΔT = 0
Isothermal and isobaric
process
(C) ΔH reaction (III)
[Bond energies of molecules

in reactants] -
(D) Exothermic Process
[Bond energies of product
(IV)
molecules]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. A) (A) − (III), (B) − (II), (C) − (IV), (D) − (I)

B. B) (A) − (II), (B) − (III), (C) − (IV), (D) − (I)
C. C) (A) − (II), (B) − (III), (C) − (I), (D) − (IV)
D. D) (A) − (II), (B) − (I), (C) − (III), (D) − (IV)
Question 75
For a diatomic ideal gas in a closed system, which of the following plots does not correctly
describe the relation between various thermodynamic quantities?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 76
The value of log K for the reaction A ⇌ B at 298 K is _______. (Nearest integer)
Given: ΔH°= −54. 07 kJ mol −1
ΔS°= 10 JK −1 mol −1
(Taken 2. 303 × 8. 314 × 298 = 5705 )
Question 77
The relation between pressure P and volume V is given by PV 4 = constant. If the percentage
1
decrease in volume is 14 , then the approximate percentage increase in pressure is
A. A) 16
1
B. B) 14
C. C) 18
D. D) 12
Question 78
The standard enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid and strong base is −57.3 kJ equiv −1 . If
the enthalpy of neutralization of the first proton of aqueous H 2 S is −33.7 kJmol −1 then the
(pK a ) 1 of H 2 S is
A. A) ( 23.6×10
3
−TΔS°
2.303RT )
B. B) ( 23.6−TΔS°
2.303RT
)
C. C) ( TΔS°−23.6
RT )
D. D) 2.303( TΔS°−23.6
RT
)
Question 79
A gas undergoes change from state A to state B. In this process, the heat absorbed and work
done by the gas is 5 J and 8 J, respectively. Now gas is brought back to A by another process
during which 3 J of heat is evolved. In this reverse process of B to A.
A. A) 6 J of the work will be done by the gas

B. B) 6 J of the work will be done by the surroundings on gas
C. C) 10 J of the work will be done by the surroundings on gas
D. D) 10 J of the work will be done by the gas
Question 80
The magnitude of work done by a gas that undergoes a reversible expansion along the path
ABC shown in the figure is _________.
Question 81
Given:
C(graphite) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g) ; Δ r H o = −393 .5 kJ mol −1
1
H 2 (g) + 2 O 2 (g) → H 2 O(l); Δ r H o = −285 .8 kJ mol −1
CO 2 (g) + 2H 2 O(l) → CH 4 (g) + 2O 2 (g); Δ r H o = +890 .3 kJ mol −1

Based on the above thermochemical equations, the value of Δ r H o at 298 K for the reaction
C(graphite) + 2H 2 (g) → CH 4 (g) will be:

A. A) +144 .0 kJ mol −1
B. B) −74 .8 kJ mol −1
C. C) −144 .0 kJ mol −1
D. D) +74 .8 kJ mol −1
Question 82
The heats of neutralisation of CH 3 COOH, HCOOH, HCN and H 2 S are -13.2,-13.4,-2.9 and
−3.8kCal per equivalent respectively. Arrange the acids in increasing order of acidic strength.
A. A) HCOOH > CH 3 COOH > H 2 S > HCN
B. B) CH 3 COOH > HCOOH > H 2 S > HCN
C. C) H 2 S > HCOOH > CH 3 COOH > HCN
D. D) HCOOH > H 2 S > CH 3 COOH > HCN
Question 83
Calculate heat of atomization of furan in KJmol-1 using the data
Heats of atomization of C, H, O are 717, 218, 249 KJmol-1 each. Fill your answer dividing by 100
If your answer is K, mark 2K as answer after rounding off to nearest integer.
Question 84
One mole of a monatomic gas at pressure 2 atm, 279 K taken to final pressure 4 atm by a
reversible path described by P/V = constant. Calculate the magnitude of ΔE
w for the process.
Question 85
An ideal gas is expanded from (p 1 , V 1 , T 1 ) to (p 2 , V 2 , T 2 ) under different conditions. The

incorrect statement among the following is?
A. A) The word done by the gas is less when it is expanded reversibly from V 1 to V 2 under
adiabatic conditions as compared to that when expanded reversibly from V 1 to V 2 under
isothermal conditions
B. B) The change in internal energy of the gas is (i) zero, if it is expanded reversibly with
T 1 = T 2 and (ii) positive, if it is expanded reversibly under adiabatic conditions with
T1 ≠ T2
C. C) If the expansion is carried out freely, it is simultaneously both isothermal as well as
adiabatic
D. D) The work done on the gas is maximum when it is compressed irreversibly from (p 2 , V 2 ) to
(p 1 , V 1 ) against constant pressure p 1
Question 86
An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in Figure.

$
ΔU BC = −5 kJ mol −1 , q AB = 2 kJ mol −1
W AB = −5 kJ mol −1 , W CA = 3 kJ mol −1
$ Heat absorbed by the system during process CA is:
A. A) −5 kJ mol −1
B. B) +5 kJ mol −1
C. C) 18 kJ mol −1
D. D) −18 kJ mol −1
Question 87
Two blocks of the same metal having same mass and at temperature T 1 , and T 2 , respectively,
are brought in contact with each other and allowed to attain thermal equilibrium at constant
pressure. The change in entropy, ΔS, for this process is :
2
A. A) C P ln [ 4 T1 T2 ]
(T 1 +T 2 )
B. B) 2C p ln [
(T 1 +T 2 ) 2
T1 T2 ]
C. C) 2C P ln ( 4TT
1 +T 2
T
)
1 2
D. D) 2C P ln [ 2TT
1 +T 2
T
]
1 2
Question 88
For this reaction (ring closure), ΔH = −49 kJ mol −1 , ΔS = −40.2 Jk −1 mol −1 upto what
temperature is the forward reaction spontaneous?
A. A) 1492°C
B. B) 1219°C
C. C) 946°C
D. D) 1080°C
Question 89
At 25 ∘ C, when 1 mole of butane is heated, CO 2 and liquid H 2 O are formed, then the work done
is
A. A) 75.6 L atm
B. B) 85.6 L atm
C. C) 50.3 L atm
D. D) none of these.
Question 90
One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is subjected to changes as shown in the graph. The
magnitude of the work done (by the system or on the system) is _______ J (nearest integer)
Given : log 2 = 0.3, ln 10 = 2.3

Q1 - C Q31 - B Q61 - D
Q2 - C Q32 - D Q62 - A
Q3 - A Q33 - C Q63 - A
Q4 - C Q34 - B Q64 - C
Q5 - C Q35 - 0 (Num) Q65 - D
Q6 - C Q36 - A Q66 - A
Q7 - A Q37 - B Q67 - B
Q8 - 307.00 (Num) Q38 - B Q68 - C
Q9 - C Q39 - A Q69 - C
Q10 - D Q40 - A Q70 - B
Q11 - C Q41 - C Q71 - 964 (Num)
Q12 - C Q42 - B Q72 - 718 (Num)
Q13 - A Q43 - B Q73 - A
Q14 - A Q44 - B Q74 - B
Q15 - C Q45 - C Q75 - C
Q16 - A Q46 - A Q76 - 10 (Num)
Q17 - C Q47 - A Q77 - A
Q18 - C Q48 - C Q78 - A
Q19 - B Q49 - C Q79 - B
Q20 - B Q50 - A Q80 - 48 (Num)
Q21 - C Q51 - B Q81 - B
Q22 - A Q52 - A Q82 - A
Q23 - A Q53 - A Q83 - 81 (Num)
Q24 - D Q54 - A Q84 - 3 (Num)
Q25 - A Q55 - A Q85 - B
Q26 - A Q56 - A Q86 - B
Q27 - A Q57 - C Q87 - A
Q28 - D Q58 - A Q88 - C
Q29 - A Q59 - C Q89 - B
Q30 - A Q60 - C Q90 - 620 (Num)
Chemical Equilibrium
Easy Questions
Question 1
If the reaction N 2 + 3H 2 = 2NH 3 occurs at 200 ∘ C and 1000 atm then the graph showing the
correct equilibrium yield at 400 ∘ C is
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 2
PCl 5 ⇌ PCl 3 + PCl 2 If the equilibrium constant (K C ) for the above reaction at 500 K is 1.79
and the equilibrium concentration of PCl 5 and PCl 3 are 1.41M and 1.59M, respectively, then
the concentration of Cl 2 is approximately.
A. A) 1.26M
B. B) 3.59M
C. C) 0.59M
D. D) 1.59M
Question 3
For the reaction, 2HI(g) ⇌ H 2 (g) + I 2 (g); −Q kJ, the equilibrium constant depends upon
A. A) temperature
B. B) pressure
C. C) catalyst
D. D) volume
Question 4
The yield of the product in the reaction \mathrm{A}_{2}(\mathrm{~g})+2 \mathrm{~B}
(\mathrm{~g}) \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{C}(\mathrm{g})+\mathrm{Q} \mathrm{kJ} would be
higher at
A. A) high temperature and high pressure

B. B) high temperature and low pressure
C. C) low temperature and high pressure
D. D) lowtemperature and low pressure
Question 5
For reaction, 2NOCl (g) ⇌ 2NO (g) + Cl 2(g) , K c at 427 ∘ C is 3 × 10 −6 L mol −1 . The value of
K p is nearly
A. A) 7.50 × 10 −5
B. B) 2.50 × 10 −5
C. C) 2.50 × 10 −4
D. D) 1.75 × 10 −4 .
Question 6
If the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2AB ⇌ A 2 + B 2 is 49 , what is the equilibrium
constant for AB ⇌ 12 A 2 + 12 B 2 ?
A. A) 7
B. B) 17
C. C) 24.5
D. D) 49
Question 7
In a reaction, A + B ⇌ C + D, 40% of B has reacted at equilibrium, when 1 mole of A was

heated with 1 mole of B in a 10 L closed vessel. The value of K C is
A. A) 0.44
B. B) 0.18
C. C) 0.22
D. D) 0.36
Question 8
Factors affecting K C is -
A. A) Increasing concentration of the reactant

B. B) Presence of catalyst
C. C) Method of writing balanced equation (or stoichiometry of reaction)
D. D) Time taken by the chemical reaction
Question 9
For the homogenous reaction,
4NH 3 (g) + 5O 2 (g) ⇌ 4NO(g) + 6H 2 O(g)
the equilibrium constant K c has the units
A. A) conc. +10
B. B) conc. +1
C. C) conc. −1
D. D) It is dimensionless
Question 10
Calculate K C for the reversible process given below if K P = 167 and T = 800 ∘ C
CaCO 3 ( s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO 2 ( g)
A. A) 1.95
B. B) 1.85
C. C) 1.89
D. D) 1.60
Question 11
Equivalent amounts of H 2 and I 2 are heated in a closed vessel till equilibrium is obtained. If 80%
of the hydrogen can be converted to HI, the Kc at this temperature is
A. A) 64
B. B) 16
C. C) 0.25
D. D) 4
Question 12
Which of the following is a characteristic of a reversible reaction?
A. A) It never proceeds to completion

B. B) It can be influenced by a catalyst
C. C) It proceeds only in forward direction
D. D) Number of moles of reactants and products are equal.
Question 13
In which of the following reaction K p > K c ?
A. A) PCl 3 + Cl 2 → PCl 5
B. B) H 2 + I 2 → 2HI
C. C) 2SO 3 → O 2 + 2SO 2
D. D) N 2 + 3H 2 → 2NH 3 .
Question 14
For the equilibrium, 2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl 2 (g), the value of the equilibrium constant, K C
is 3.75 × 10 −6 at 1069 K. The value of K p for the reaction at this temperature will be
A. A) 0.133
B. B) 1.242
C. C) 0.033
D. D) 0.00033
Question 15
Which of the following is not a characteristic of equilibrium?
A. A) Rate is equal in both directions.

B. B) Measurable quantities are constant at equilibrium
C. C) Equilibrium occurs in reversible condition.
D. D) Equilibrium occurs only in open vessel at constant temperature.
Question 16
Equilibrium constant for the reaction H 2 O(g) + CO(g) ⇌ H 2 (g) + CO 2 (g) is 81 . If velocity
constant of the forward reaction is 162 L mol −1 s −1 . What is the velocity constant (in
Lmol −1 s −1 ) for the backward reaction ?
A. A) 13122
B. B) 2
C. C) 261
D. D) 243
Question 17
At 60 ∘ and 1 atm, N 2 O 4 is 50% dissociated into NO 2 then K p is

A. A) 1.33 atm
B. B) 2 atm
C. C) 2.67 atm
D. D) 3 atm
Question 18
The volume percentage of Cl 2 at equilibrium in the dissociation of PCl 5 under a total pressure
of 1.5atm is (Kp = 0.202) ,
A. A) 74.5
B. B) 36.5
C. C) 63.5
D. D) 26.6
Question 19
If 1.0 mole of I 2 is introduced into 1.0 litre flask at 1000 K, at equilibrium (K c = 10 −6 ), which
one is correct?
A. A) [I 2 ( g)] > [I − (g)]

B. B) [I 2 ( g)] < [I − (g)]
C. C) [I 2 ( g)] = [I − (g)]
D. D) [I 2 ( g)] = 12 [I − (g)]
Question 20
In the equilibrium, AB ⇌ A + B, if the equilibrium concentration of A is double, then

equilibrium concentration of B will be
A. A) half
B. B) twice
C. C) 14 th
D. D) 18 th
Question 21
Determine the degree of association (polymerization) for the reaction in aqueous solution
6HCHO ⇌ C 6 H 12 O 6
If observed (mean) molar mass of HCHO and C 6 H 12 O 6 is 150:
A. A) 0.50
B. B) 0.833
C. C) 0.90
D. D) 0.96
Question 22
For a reversible reaction, if the concentration of the reactants is reduced to half, the equilibrium
constant will be.........
A. A) doubled
B. B) halved
C. C) reduced to one-fourth
D. D) remains same
Question 23
For the reaction CO(g) + (1/2)O 2 ( g) ⟶ CO 2 ( g), K p /K c is
A. A) RT
B. B) (RT) −1
C. C) (RT) −1/2
D. D) (RT) 1/2
Question 24
For a reaction, if K P > K C , the forward reaction is favoured by
A. A) low pressure
B. B) high pressure
C. C) high temperature
D. D) low temperature
Question 25
The relation between K P and K C for the reaction A(g)+B(g) ⇌ C(g)+2D(g) is-
A. A) K P = K C [RT]
–1
B. B) K P . K C –1 = RT
C. C) K C K P –1 = RT
D. D) K P = K C [RT]
3
Question 26
At 3000 K, the equilibrium partial pressure of CO 2 , CO and O 2 are 0.6, 0.4 and 0.2 atm
respectively. K p for the reaction, 2CO 2 ⇌ 2CO + O 2 is
A. A) 0.088
B. B) 0.0533
C. C) 0.133
D. D) 0.177
Question 27
The gaseous reaction A + B ⇌ 2C + D + Q is most favoured at
A. A) low temperature and high pressure

B. B) high temperature and high pressure
C. C) high temperature and low pressure
D. D) low temperature and low pressure
Question 28
By adding inert gas at a constant volume, which of the following equilibrium will not be affected?
A. A) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) ⇄ 2 Hl(g)

B. B) 3H 2 (g) + N 2 (g) ⇄ 2 NH 3 (g)
C. C) PCl 5 (g) ⇄ PCl 3 (g) + Cl 2 (g)
D. D) All the above
Question 29
Which of the following is not a characteristic property of chemical equilibrium ?
A. A) Rate of forward reaction is equal to rate of backward reaction at equilibrium.

B. B) After reaching the chemical equilibrium, the concentrations of reactants and products
remain unchanged with time.
C. C) For A(g) ⇌ B(g), K c is 10 −2 . If this reaction is carried out in the presence of catalyst,
the value of K c decreases
D. D) After reaching the equilibrium, both forward and backward reactions continue to take place
Question 30
The reaction, 2 \mathrm{~A}(\mathrm{~g})+\mathrm{B}(\mathrm{g}) \rightleftharpoons 3

\mathrm{C}(\mathrm{g})+\mathrm{D}(\mathrm{g}) is begun with the concentrations of A and B
both at an initial value of 1.00M. When equilibrium is reached, the concentration of D is
measured and found to be 0.25M. The value for the equilibrium constant for this reaction is
given by the expression
A. A) [(0.75) 3 (0.25)] ÷ [(1.00) 2 (1.00)]
B. B) [(0.75) 3 (0.25)] ÷ [(0.50) 2 (0.75)]
C. C) [(0.75) 3 (0.25)] ÷ [(0.50) 2 (0.25)]
D. D) [(0.75) 3 (0.25)] ÷ [(0.75) 2 (0.25)]
Moderate Questions
Question 31
For the reaction: \mathrm{CH}_{4(g)}+2 \mathrm{O}_{2(g)} \rightleftharpoons

\mathrm{CO}_{2(g)}+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l) ΔH r = −170.8 kJ mol −1 . Which of the
following statements is not true?
A. A) The reaction is exothermic

B. B) At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO 2(g) and H 2 O (h) are not equal
C. C) The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by K p = [CH4 ][O

[CO ]
2
2]
D. D) Addition of CH 4(g) or O 2(g) at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right
Question 32
The equilibrium constant, K C for 3C 2 H 2 ( g) ⇌ C 6 H 6 ( g) is 4 L 2 mol −2 . If the equilil rium

concentration of benzene is 0.5 mol −1 than what is the value of concentration of ethylene?
A. A) 0.05 mol/L
B. B) 0.5 mol/L
C. C) 0.25 mol/L
D. D) 0.025 mol/L
Question 33
The equilibrium constant for the given reaction is 100 . N 2 (g) + 2O 2 (g) ⇌ 2NO 2 (g) What is
the equilibrium constant for the reaction given below? NO 2 (g) ⇌ 12 N 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
A. A) 10
B. B) 1
C. C) 0.1
D. D) 0.01
Question 34
For the reaction 2 N 2 O 5 ⟶ 4NO 2 + O 2 . If inital pressure is 100 atm and rate constant k is
3.38 × 10 −5 s −1 . After 20 min the final pressure of N 2 O 5 will be
A. A) 96 atm
B. B) 50 atm
C. C) 70 atm
D. D) 60 atm
Question 35
A vessel of one litre capacity containing 1 mole of SO 3 is heated till a state of equilibrium is
attained. 2SO 3(g) ⇌ 2SO 2(g) + O 2(g) . At equilibrium, 0.6 moles of SO 2 had formed. The value
of equilibrium constant is
A. A) 0.18
B. B) 0.36
C. C) 0.45
D. D) 0.68
Question 36
K p for the conversion of oxygen to ozone at 400 K is 1.0 × 10 −30 , its standard Gibbs energy
change in kJmol −1 is approximately
A. A) 229.8
B. B) 114.9
C. C) -229.8
D. D) -114.9
Question 37
NH 4 HS (s) ⇌ NH 3 (g) + H 2 S (g)

In the above reaction, if the pressure at equilibrium and at 300 K is 100 atm then what will be
the equilibrium constant K p ?
A. A) 2500 atm 2
B. B) 50 atm 2
C. C) 100 atm 2
D. D) 200 atm 2
Question 38
The equilibrium constant for a reaction A + B ⇋ C + D is 1 × 10 −2 at 298 K and is 2 at

273 K. The chemical process resulting in the formation of C and D is:
A. A) Exothermic
B. B) Endothermic
C. C) Unpredictable
D. D) There is no relationship between ΔH and K
Question 39
The equilibrium constant at 850 K for the reaction N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ⇌ 2NO(g) is 0.5625 . The
equilibrium concentration of NO(g) is 3.0 × 10 −3 M. If the equilibrium concentrations of N 2 (g)
and O 2 (g) are equal, the concentrations of N 2 (g) in M is
A. A) 4.0 × 10 −3
B. B) 4.0 × 10 −2
C. C) 1.6 × 10 −3
D. D) 3.0 × 10 −3
Question 40
The equilibrium constants K P 1 and K P 2 for the reaction X ⇌ 2Y and Z ⇌ P + Q,

respectively are in the ratio of 1 : 9. If the degree of dissociation of X and Z be equal then the
ratio of total pressure at these equilibria is:
A. A) 1 : 36
B. B) 1 : 1
C. C) 1 : 3
D. D) 1 : 9
Question 41
NH 4 HS(s) ⇌ NH 3 (g) + H 2 S(g)

The equilibrium pressure at 25°C is 0.660 atm. What is K p for the reaction?
A. A) 0.109 (atm)
2
B. B) 0.218 (atm)
2
C. C) 1.89 (atm) 2
D. D) 2.18 (atm)
2
Question 42
For the chemical equilibrium, \mathrm{CaCO}_{3(s)} \rightleftharpoons

\mathrm{CaO}_{(s)}+\mathrm{CO}_{2(g)} \text {, } ΔH r∘ can be determined from which one of
the following plots?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 43
The initial concentration of X and Y were 2 and 4 mole/L respectively. For the following
equilibrium X + 2Y ⇌ Z which of the following relationship among equilibrium concentrations
of X, Y and Z is not feasible?
A. A) [X] < [Z]

B. B) [X] < [Y]
C. C) [X] > [Y]
D. D) [Y] > [Z]
Question 44
At 1000 K, if the equilibrium constant K p for the reaction. 2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl 2 (g) is
4.157 × 10 −4 bar, the K C ( in molL −1 ) is (R = 0.083 LbarK −1 mol −1 )
A. A) 4.16 × 10 −7
B. B) 4.16 × 10 −4
C. C) 50 × 10 −4
D. D) 50 × 10
−6
Question 45
Consider the following equilibrium, $
2No(g) ⇌ N 2 + O 2 ; K G1 = 2.4 × 10 20
1
No(g) + Br 2 ( g) ⇌ NoBr(g); K C2 = 1.4
2
$ Calculate K C for the reaction, 12 N 2 (g) + 12 O 2 (g) + 12 Br 2 (g) ⇌ NOBr(g)
A. A) 8.96 × 10 −11
B. B) 9.48 × 10 −θ
C. C) 8.08 × 10 −12
D. D) 8.96 × 10 11
Question 46
Equilibrium constant Kp for the reaction CaCO 3 ⇌ CaO + CO 2 is 0.82 atm at 727 ∘ C.
If 1 mole of CaCO3 is placed in a closed container of 20 L and heated to this temperature, what
amount of CaCO3 would dissociate at equilibrium?
A. A) 0.2 g
B. B) 80 g
C. C) 20 g
D. D) 50 g
Question 47
The reaction, SO 2 + Cl 2 ⟶ SO 2 Cl 2 is exothermic and reversible. A mixture of SO 2 ( g),

Cl 2 ( g) and SO 2 Cl 2 (l) is at equilibrium in a closed container. Now a certain quantity of extra
SO 2 is introduced into the container, the volume remaining the same. Which of the following
is/are true?
A. A) The pressure inside the container will not change.

B. B) The temperature will not change.
C. C) The temperature will increase.
D. D) The temperature will decrease.
Question 48
For the reaction 2HI(g) ⇌ H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) . The value of K c is 4. If 2 mol of H 2 , 2 mol of I 2
and 2 mol of HI are present in one litre container then moles of I 2 present at equilibrium is:
A. A) 0.8
B. B) 3.2
C. C) 2.4
D. D) 4.4
Question 49
The equilibrium constant for a reaction A + B ⇋ C + D is 1 × 10 −2 at 298 K and is 2 at

273 K. The chemical process resulting in the formation of C and D is:
A. A) Exothermic
B. B) Endothermic
C. C) Unpredictable
D. D) There is no relationship between ΔH and K
Question 50
If the equilibrium constants of the following equilibria

SO 2 + 1
2 O 2 ⇌ SO 3 and 2SO 3 ⇌ 2SO 2 + O 2 are given by K 1 and K 2 respectively, which
of the following relations is correct
2
A. A) K 2 = ( K1 )
1
3
B. B) K 1 = ( 1
K2 )
C. C) K 2 = ( K11 )
D. D) K 2 = (K 1 )
2
Question 51
1 mole of N 2 O 4 (g) at 300 K is kept in a closed container under 1 atm. It is heated to 600 K
when 20% by mole of N 2 O 4 (g) decomposes to NO 2 (g). The resultant pressure is
A. A) 1.2 atm
B. B) 2.4 atm
C. C) 2.0 atm
D. D) 1.0 atm
Question 52
The reaction, N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) ⇌ 2NH 3 (g) is exothermic and reversible. A mixture of
N 2 (g), H 2 (g) and NH 3 (g) is at equilibrium in a closed container. When a certain quantity of
extra H 2 (g) is introduced into the container, while keeping the volume constant, then which
statement among the following is true?
A. A) The pressure inside the container will not change.

B. B) Equilibrium condition will not change.
C. C) The temperature will increase.
D. D) The temperature will decrease.
Question 53
The following equilibrium constants are given:
N 2 + 3H 2 ⇌ 2NH 3 ; K 1
N 2 + O 2 ⇌ 2NO ; K 2
H 2 + 1/2 O 2 ⇌ H 2 O ; K 3
The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of 2 mole NH 3 by oxygen to give NO is

K 2 K 23
A. A) K1
K 22 K 3
B. B) K1
C. C) K1 K2
K3
K 2 K 33
D. D) K1
Question 54
For the reaction SO 2(g) + 12 O 2(g) ⇌ SO 3(g) , the percentage yield of product at different
pressures is shown in the figure. Then, which among the following is true?
A. A) Pressure has no effect

B. B) P 1 < P 2 < P 3
C. C) P 1 > P 2 > P 3
D. D) P 1 = P 2 = P 3 ≠ 0
Question 55
For the reaction, H 2 + I 2 ⇌ 2HI, K = 47.6. If the initial number of moles of each reactant and
product is 1 mole then at equilibrium
A. A) [I 2 ] = [H 2 ], [I 2 ] > [HI]
B. B) [I 2 ] = [H 2 ], [I 2 ] < [HI]
C. C) [I 2 ] < [H 2 ], [I 2 ] = [HI]
D. D) [I 2 ] > [H 2 ], [I 2 ] = [HI]
Question 56
The degree of dissociation of PCl 5 (α) obeying the equilibrium PCl 5 ⇌ PCl 3 + Cl 2 is related
to the equilibrium pressure by
A. A) α ∝ P14
B. B) α ∝ √1
P
C. C) α ∝ 1
P2
D. D) α ∝ P
Question 57
At 550 K, the K c for the following reaction is 10 4 mol −1 LX(g) + Y (g) ⇌ Z(g) At
equilibrium, it was observed that [X] = 12 [Y ] = 12 [Z] What is the value of [Z] (in molL −1 ) at
equilibrium?
A. A) 2 × 10 −4
B. B) 10 −4
C. C) 2 × 10 4
D. D) 10 4
Question 58
When pressure is increased at constant temperature
A. A) rate of Haber's process decreases

B. B) solubility of gas in liquid increases
C. C) solubility of solid in liquid increases
D. D) 2C (s) + CO 2(g) ⟶ 2CO (g) reaction moves in the forward direction.
Question 59
For A + B ⇌ C + D , if initially the concentration of A and B are equal but at equilibrium
concentration of D will be twice of that of A then what will be the equilibrium constant of
C + D ⇌ A + B reaction ?
A. A) 94
B. B) 97
C. C) 14
D. D) 4
Question 60
The equilibrium constant for the following reactions are given at 25 ∘ C $
2 A ⇌ B + C, K 1 = 1.0
2 B ⇌ C + D, K 2 = 16
2C + D ⇌ 2P, K 3 = 25
$ The equilibrium constant for the reaction P ⇌ A + 12 B at 25 ∘ C is
A. A) 20
1
B. B) 20
C. C) 42
1
D. D) 21
Hard Questions
Question 61
The equilibrium constant for the reaction N 2 ( g) + O 2 ( g) ⇌ 2NO(g) is 4 × 10 −4 at 2000 K.

In presence of a catalyst the equilibrium is attained 10 times faster. Therefore, the equilibrium
constant, in presence of the catalyst at 2000 K is
A. A) 4 × 10 −4
B. B) 4 × 10 −3
C. C) 4 × 10 −5
D. D) 2.5 × 10 −4
Question 62
The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB 2 can be represented as
2AB 2(g) ⇌ 2AB (g) + B 2(g)
The degree of dissociation is x and is small compared to 1 . The expression relating the degree
of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant K p and total pressure p is
A. A) (2K p /p)
1/2
B. B) K p /p
C. C) 2K p /p
D. D) (2K p /p) .
1/3
Question 63
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2 ) decomposes according to the equation
2H 2 O 2 ⇌ 2H 2 O(I) + O 2 (g)
From the following data at 25 ∘ C calculate the value of Kp at 400 K for the above reaction,
ΔH ∘ = −196 ⋅ 0 KJ ΔS ∘ = 125 ⋅ 65J/K.
[Given: 10 0.15 = 1.41]
A. A) 0.14 x 1032
B. B) 0.14 x 10-32
C. C) 0.14 x 103
D. D) 1.3 x 1015
Question 64
The following equilibrium constants are given $
N 2 + 3H 2 ⇌ 2NH 3 ; K 1
N 2 + O 2 ⇌ 2NO; K 2
$ H 2 + 12 O 2 ⇌ H 2 O; K 3 The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of 2 mole of NH 3 to give

NO is
A. A) K 1 ⋅ K
K3
2
K3
B. B) K 2 ⋅ K3
1
K2
C. C) K 2 , K21
D. D) K 22 K31
K
Question 65
PCl 5 vapour decomposes on heating according to the reaction:

PCl 5 (g) ⇌ PCl 3 (g) + Cl 2 (g)
The density of a sample of a partially dissociated PCl 5 at 1.0 atm and 500 K was found
4.8 g/L. Calculate the degree of dissociation and ΔG ∘ for the reaction at 500 K.
(Given: R = 0.082 LatmK −1 mol −1 , R = 8.314 JK −1 mol −1 , ln x = 2.303log 10 x) If your
answer is K, mark 2K as answer after rounding off to nearest integer.
Question 66
500 mL of 0.150 M AgNO3 solution were added in 500 mL of 1.09 M Fe2+ solution and the
reaction is allowed to reach an equilibrium at 25 ∘ C.
Ag + (aq) + Fe 2+ (aq) ⇌ Fe 3+ (aq) + Ag(s)
For 25 mL of the solution, 30 mL of 0.0832 M KMnO4 were required for oxidation. Calculate
equilibrium constant (M-1) of the reaction at 25 ∘ C.
[Report your answer by rounding it upto nearset whole number]
Question 67
Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
(p) Liquid ⇌ vapour (i) Saturated solution
(q) Solid ⇌ liquid (ii) Boiling point
(r) Solid ⇌ vapour (iii) Sublimation point

(s) Solute(s) ⇌ solute (solution) (iv) Melting point
A. A) (p)-(i), (q)-(iii), (r)-(ii), (s)-(iv)

B. B) (p)-(ii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(iii), (s)-(i)
C. C) (p)-(iv), (q)-(ii), (r)-(i), (s)-(iii)
D. D) (p)-(iii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(ii), (s)-(i)
Question 68
Which of the following lines correctly show the temperature dependence of equilibrium constant
K, for an exothermic reaction?
A. A) A and D
B. B) A and B
C. C) B and C
D. D) C and D
Question 69
Consider the reaction A ⇌ B at 1000 K. At time t ′ , the temperature of the system was
increased to 2000 K and the system was allowed to reach equilibrium. Throughout this
experiment the partial pressure of A was maintained at 1 bar. Given below is the plot of the
partial pressure of B with time. What is the ratio of the standard Gibbs energy of the reaction at
1000 K to that at 2000 K? If your answer is K, mark 8K as answer after rounding off to nearest
integer.
Question 70
At 800°C, the following equilibrium is established as

F 2 (g) ⇌ 2F(g)
The composition of equilibrium may be determined by measuring the rate of effusion of the
mixture through a pin hole. It is found that 800°C and 1 atm mixture effuses 1 .6 times as fast
as SO 2 effuses under the similar conditions. (At. wt. of F = 19). What is the value of K p (in atm)
?
A. A) 0.315
B. B) 0.685
C. C) 0.46
D. D) 1.49
Question 71
Equilibrium constants for the following reactions at 1200K are given

2H 2 O(g) ⇌ 2H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) K 1 = 6.4 × 10 −8 2CO 2 (g) ⇌ 2CO(g) + O 2 (g)
K 2 = 1.6 × 10 −6 The equilibrium constant for the reaction?
H 2 (g) + CO 2 (g) ⇌ CO(g) + H 2 O(g) at 1200K will be
A. A) 0.05
B. B) 20
C. C) 0.2
D. D) 5
Question 72
Which of the following is not a characteristic property of chemical equilibrium ?
A. A) Rate of forward reaction is equal to rate of backward reaction at equilibrium.

B. B) After reaching the chemical equilibrium, the concentrations of reactants and products
remain unchanged with time.
C. C) For A(g) ⇌ B(g), K c is 10 −2 . If this reaction is carried out in the presence of catalyst,
the value of K c decreases
D. D) After reaching the equilibrium, both forward and backward reactions continue to take place
Question 73
The oxidation of SO2 to SO3 is an exothermic reaction. The yield of SO3 will be maximum if:
A. A) Temperature is increased and pressure is kept constant

B. B) Temperature is reduced and pressure is increased
C. C) Both temperature and pressure are increased
D. D) Both temperature and pressure are reduced
Question 74
The equilibrium constants at 298 K for a reaction A + B ⇌ C + D is 100. If the initial

concentration of all the four species were 1 M each, then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol
L −1 ) will be
A. A) 1.182
B. B) 0.182
C. C) 0.818
D. D) 1.818
Question 75
The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB 2 can be represented as,

2AB 2 ( g) ⇌ 2AB(g) + B 2 ( g). The degree of dissociation is ' x ' and is small compared to 1.
The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant K P and total
pressure P is
A. A) ( P )
Kp
B. B) ( 2K
P
P
)
1/3
C. C) ( P P )
2K
1/2
D. D) ( P P )
2K
Question 76
For the reversible reaction, N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) ⇌ 2NH 3 (g) at 500°C , the value of K p is
1.44 × 10 −5 when partial pressure is measured in atmosphere. The corresponding value of K c
, with concentration in mole litre , is –
−1
A. A)
1.44×10 −7
(0.082×773) −2
B. B)
1.44×10 −5
−2
(0.082×773)
C. C)
1.44×10 −5
(8.314×500) −2
D. D)
1.44×10 −5
(0.082×500) −2
Question 77
18.4 g N 2 O 4 was placed in 1 L vessel at 400 K and allowed to attain the following equilibrium
N 2 O 4 (g) ⇌ 2NO 2 (g). If the total pressure at equilibrium was 10.64 bar, approximate K p is
(R = 0.083 L bar K −1 mol −1 ) (Assume N 2 O 4 , NO 2 as ideal gases)
A. A) 57.20
B. B) 24.24
C. C) 14.30
D. D) 6.64
Question 78
At 550 K, the K c for the following reaction is 10 4 mol −1 LX(g) + Y (g) ⇌ Z(g) At
equilibrium, it was observed that [X] = 12 [Y ] = 12 [Z] What is the value of [Z] (in molL −1 ) at
equilibrium?
A. A) 2 × 10 −4
B. B) 10 −4
C. C) 2 × 10 4
D. D) 10 4
Question 79
(i) H 3 PO 4 (aq) ⇌ H + (aq) + H 2 PO −

4 (aq) (ii) H 2 PO 4 (aq) ⇌ H (aq) + HPO 4 (aq) (iii)
− + 2−
HPO 2−4 (aq) ⇌ H (aq) + PO 4 (aq) The equilibrium constants for the above reactions at a
+ 3−
certain temperature are K 1 , K 2 and K 3 respectively. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
H 3 PO 4 (aq) ⇌ 3H + (aq) + PO 3− 4 (aq) in terms of K 1 , K 2 and K 3 is
A. A) K 1 + K 2 + K 3
B. B) K +K
K
1
2 3
C. C) K K
K
3
1 2
D. D) K 1 K 2 K 3
Question 80
Ag + + NH 3 ⇌ [Ag (NH 3 )] + ; k 1 = 3.5 × 10 −3

[Ag (NH 3 )] + + NH 3 ⇌ [Ag(NH 3 ) 2 ] + ; k 2 = 1.7 × 10 −3 then the formation constant of
[Ag(NH 3 ) 2 ] + is
A. A) 6.08 × 10 −6
B. B) 6.08 × 10 6
C. C) 6.08 × 10 −9
D. D) None of these
Question 81
Which of the following plots represent an exothermic reaction?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 82
At 1000 K, the partial pressures of CO 2 (g) and CO(g) for the reaction
CO 2 (g) + C(s) ⇌ 2CO(g) in a closed vessel at equilibrium are 0.15 and 0.60 bar
respectively. The K c for this reaction at the same temperature is approximately
A. A) 2.0 × 10 −4
B. B) 2.89 × 10 −2
C. C) 2.89 × 10
−3
D. D) 5.78 × 10 −3
Question 83
The equilibrium constant for the reaction SO 2 (g) + 12 O 2 (g) ⇌ SO 3 (g) is 5 × 10 −2 atm. The
equilibrium constant of the reaction 2SO 3 (g) ⇌ 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) would be
A. A) 100 atm
B. B) 200 atm
C. C) 4 × 10 2 atm
D. D) 6.25 × 10 4 atm
Question 84
For the gaseous reaction, C 2 H 4 + H 2 ⇌ C 2 H 6 , Δ H = −130 kJ mol −1 carried in a closed
vessel, the equilibrium concentration of the C 2 H 6 can definitely be increased by
A. A) Increasing temperature and decreasing pressure

B. B) Decreasing temperature and increasing pressure
C. C) Increasing temperature and pressure both
D. D) Decreasing temperature and pressure both
Question 85
The reaction between phosphorus (P4 ) and hydrogen (H2 ) can result in the formation of
phosphine (PH3 ) as shown :
P 4 (s) + 6H 2 (g) ⇌ 4PH 3 (g)
The graph shows the change in concentration of hydrogen for this reaction in which the system
was disturbed after four hours.
Which of the following could explain the change in hydrogen concentration at time = 4 hours?
A. A) The volume on the reaction vessel was decreased

B. B) A catalyst was added
C. C) The pressure on the reaction mixture was decreased
D. D) More phosphorus was added
Question 86
Using the data provided, find the value of equilibrium constant for the following reaction at 298 K
and 1 atm pressure. NO (g) + 12 O 2 ( g) ⇌ NO 2 ( g)
Δ f H 0 (NO (g) ) = 90 .4 kJ. mol −1
Δ f H 0 (NO 2 (g)) = 32 .48 kJ ⋅ mol −1
ΔS ∘ @298K = −70 .8 J ⋅ K −1 ⋅ mol −1
antilog(0 .50) = 3162
A. A) 3.162 × 10 4
B. B) 3. 162 × 10 −4
C. C) 3.162 × 10 6
D. D) 3.162 × 10 7
Question 87
The stepwise stability constants of a complex are given below. What is its overall reaction
M + L ⇌ ML; K 1 = 1.0 × 10 4
ML + L ⇌ ML 2 ; K 2 = 1.0 × 10 3
stability constant 4 ?
(β ) (Overall reaction :
ML 2 + L ⇌ ML 3 ; K 3 = 1.0 × 10 3
ML 3 + L ⇌ ML 4 ; K 4 = 1.0 × 10 2
M + 4L ⇌ ML 4 )
A. A) 1.0 × 10 12
B. B) 12.1 × 10 3
C. C) 1.0 × 10
6
D. D) 1.0 × 10 8
Question 88
For the gaseous reactions (I) and (II), the equilibrium constants are X and Y respectively. I.
1
2 N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ⇌ NO 2 (g) II. 2NO 2 (g) ⇌ N 2 O 4 (g) Using the above reactions the
equilibrium constant Z for the reaction (III) given below is III. N 2 O 4 (g) ⇌ N 2 (g) + 2O 2 (g)
A. A) Z = XY
B. B) Z = YX
2
C. C) Z = XY1
2
D. D) Z = X12 Y
Question 89
For the equilibrium AB(g) ⇌ A(g) + B(g) , at a given temperature 13 rd of AB is dissociated

then KPp will be numerically equal to
Question 90
Ammonium sulphide and ammonium selenide on heating dissociates as
(NH4)2S(s) ⇌ 2NH3(g)+ H2S(g); Kp1 = 9 × 10-3 atm3

(NH4)2Se(s) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + H2Se(g); Kp2 = 4.5 × 10-3 atm3
The total pressure over the solid mixture at equilibrium is
A. A) 0.15 atm
B. B) 0.3 atm
C. C) 0.45 atm
D. D) 0.6 atm

Q1 - A Q31 - C Q61 - A
Q2 - D Q32 - B Q62 - D
Q3 - A Q33 - C Q63 - A
Q4 - C Q34 - A Q64 - B
Q5 - D Q35 - D Q65 - 47 (Num)
Q6 - A Q36 - A Q66 - 3 (Num)
Q7 - A Q37 - A Q67 - B
Q8 - C Q38 - A Q68 - B
Q9 - B Q39 - A Q69 - 2 (Num)
Q10 - C Q40 - A Q70 - D
Q11 - A Q41 - A Q71 - D
Q12 - B Q42 - A Q72 - C
Q13 - C Q43 - C Q73 - B
Q14 - D Q44 - D Q74 - D
Q15 - D Q45 - A Q75 - C
Q16 - B Q46 - C Q76 - B
Q17 - B Q47 - C Q77 - B
Q18 - D Q48 - C Q78 - A
Q19 - B Q49 - A Q79 - D
Q20 - A Q50 - A Q80 - A
Q21 - D Q51 - B Q81 - A
Q22 - D Q52 - C Q82 - B
Q23 - C Q53 - D Q83 - C
Q24 - A Q54 - C Q84 - B
Q25 - B Q55 - B Q85 - A
Q26 - A Q56 - B Q86 - C
Q27 - D Q57 - A Q87 - A
Q28 - D Q58 - B Q88 - D
Q29 - C Q59 - C Q89 - 8.00 (Num)
Q30 - B Q60 - A Q90 - C
Ionic Equilibrium
Easy Questions
Question 1
The pOH value of a solution whose hydroxide ion concentration is 6.2 × 10 −9 mol/ litre is
A. A) 8.21
B. B) 6.21
C. C) 7.75
D. D) 7.21
Question 2
In a solution, 0.02M acetic acid is 4% dissociated. The [OH − ] in the solution is
A. A) 8 × 10 −4
B. B) 2 × 10 −14
C. C) 8 × 10 10
D. D) 1.25 × 10 −11
Question 3
The number of hydroxyl ions in 10 cm 3 of 0.2M HCl solution is
A. A) 5 × 10 −14
B. B) 3 × 10 9
C. C) 3 × 10 12
D. D) 5 × 10 −12
Question 4
Which of the following combinations would not result in the formation of a buffer solution?
A. A) NH 3 + HCl
B. B) NH 4 Cl + NH 3
C. C) CH 3 COOH + NaCl
D. D) NaOH + CH 3 COOH
Question 5
Which of the following is strongest Bronsted base?
A. A) ClO −
B. B) ClO −
2
C. C) ClO 3
−
D. D) ClO −
4
Question 6
If the concentration of [NH +

4 ] in a solution having 0.02 M NH 3 and 0.005 M Ca(OH) 2 is
a × 10 −6 M , determine a . [k b (NH 3 ) = 1.8 × 10 −5 ]
Question 7
Which is not an example of common ion effect?
A. A) NaCl + AgCl
B. B) H 2 S + HCl
C. C) CH 3 COOH + NaOH
D. D) NH 4 OH + NH 4 Cl
Question 8
Which has highest pH ?
A. A) CH 3 COOK
B. B) Na 2 CO 3
C. C) NH 4 Cl
D. D) NaNO 3
Question 9
The pH of the solution obtained on neutralisation of 40 mL 0.1 M NaOH with

40 mL 0.1 M CH 3 COOH is
A. A) 7
B. B) 8
C. C) 6
D. D) 3 .
Question 10
When 10 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid (pK a = 5) is titrated against 10 mL of 0.1 M ammonia

solution (pK b = 5), the equivalent point will occur at pH:
A. A) 5
B. B) 6
C. C) 7
D. D) 9
Question 11
Which has the highest pH ?
A. A) CH 3 COOK
B. B) Na 2 CO 3
C. C) NH 4 Cl
D. D) NaNO 3
Question 12
The solubility product of a salt having general formula MX 2 , in water is: 4 × 10 −12 . The
concentration of M 2+ ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is
A. A) 2.0 × 10 −6 M
B. B) 1.0 × 10 −4 M
C. C) 1.6 × 10 −4 M
D. D) 4.0 × 10 −10 M
Question 13
The Solubility of AB 2 is 0.05 g per 100 mL at 25 o C. Calculate K sp of AB 2 at 25 o C?

[Atomic mass of A = 20 amu, atomic mass of B = 40 amu]
A. A) 10 −3
B. B) 5 × 10 −7
C. C) 10 −6
D. D) 5 × 10 −3
Question 14
What is the concentration of H 3 O + ions in a solution having POH value 9 ?
A. A) 1.0 × 10 −5 M
B. B) 2.0 × 10 −5 M
C. C) 1.5 × 10 −5 M
D. D) 2.5 × 10 −5 M
Question 15
Solubility of Ca(OH) 2 is s mol L −1 . The solubility product (K sp ) under the same condition is
A. A) 4s 3
B. B) 3s 4
C. C) 4s 2
D. D) s 3
Question 16
The molar solubility (in mol L −1 ) of a sparingly soluble salt MX 4 is ′ S . The corresponding
solubility product is K sp . S in terms of ′ K ip ' s given by the relation
1/4
A. A) S = ( 128 )
K sρ
1/5
B. B) S = ( 256 )
K sp
C. C) S = (256K sp )
1/5
D. D) S = (128K sp )
1/4
Question 17
pH of soft drink is 3.6. Calculate the concentration of hydrogen ions in it.

A. A) 2.51 × 10 −4 M
B. B) 2.3 × 10 −3 M
C. C) 2.0 × 10 −3 M
D. D) 2.81 × 10 −4 M
Question 18
For a sparingly soluble salt A p B q , the relationship of its solubility product Ls → K sp with its
solubility (S) is
A. A) Ls → K sp = S pq (pq) P+q
B. B) Ls = S p+q ⋅ p p q q
C. C) Ls → K sp = S p+q ⋅ p q q p
D. D) Ls → K sp = S pq p P q q
Question 19
Which among the following salt solution in water shows pH less than 7 ?
A. A) CuCl 2
B. B) CH 3 COONH 4
C. C) Na 2 CO 3
D. D) KNO 3
Question 20
Using the Gibbs energy change, ΔG°= +63.3 kJ , for the following reaction,
Ag 2 CO 3 → 2Ag + (aq) + CO 2− 3 (aq)
the K sp of Ag 2 CO 3 (s) in water at 25 o C is
(R = 8.314 J K −1 mol −1 ){Given: 10 0.91 ≅8}
A. A) 7.9 × 10 −2
B. B) 8.0 × 10 −12
C. C) 2.9 × 10 −3
D. D) 3.2 × 10 −26
Question 21
What is the pH of 0.02MNaOH solution?
A. A) 10.3
B. B) 11.3
C. C) 11.7
D. D) 12.3
Question 22
Solubility product of AgBr is 4.9 × 10 −13 . What is its solubility?
A. A) 2.4 × 10 −7 moldm −3
B. B) 3.2 × 10 −7 moldm −3
C. C) 4.9 × 10 −7 moldm −3
D. D) 7.0 × 10 −7 moldm −3
Question 23
Which one of the following is not a buffer solution?
A. A) 0.8MH 2 S + 0.8MKHS
B. B) 2MC 6 H 5 NH 2 + 2MC 6 H 5 NH 3 + Br −
C. C) 3MH 2 CO 3 + 3MKHCO
D. D) 0.05MKClO 4 + 0.05MHClO 4
Question 24
The first and second dissociation constants of an acid H 2 A are 1.0 × 10 −5 and 5.0 × 10 −10
respectively. The overall dissociation constant of the acid will be
A. A) 5.0 × 10 −5
B. B) 5.0 × 10 15
C. C) 5.0 × 10 −15
D. D) 0.0 × 10 5
Question 25
A saturated solution of H 2 S in 0.1MHCl at 25 ∘ C contains S 2− ion concentration of

10 −23 mol L −1 . The solubility product of some sulphides are
CuS = 10 −44 , FeS = 10 −14 , MnS = 10 −15 , CdS = 10 −25 . If 0.01M solution of these salts in
1M HCl are saturated with H 2 S, which of these will be precipitated?
A. A) All
B. B) All except MnS
C. C) AU except MnS and FeS
D. D) Only-CuS
Question 26
The ionization constant of a weak monobasic acid is 25 × 10 –6 while the equivalent

conductance of its 0.01 M solution is 19.6 Scm 2 eq –1 . The equivalent conductance of the
electrolyte at infinite dilution (in Scm 2 eq –1 ) will be
A. A) 250
B. B) 196
C. C) 392
D. D) 384
Question 27
[In − ]
For the indicator, HIn; the ratio [HIn] is 7 .0 at pH of 4 .3. K In for the indicator is
[ Given: log 7 = 0 .845 and Antilog (−3.455) = 3.5 × 10 −4 ]
A. A) 3.5 × 10 −4
B. B) 3.5 × 10 −5
C. C) 3.5 × 10 −2
D. D) 3.5 × 10 −3
Question 28
20 mL of 0.2MNaOH is added to 50 mL of 0.2M acetic acid. The pH of this solution after

mixing is (K a = 1.8 × 10 −5 )
A. A) 4.5
B. B) 2.3
C. C) 3.8
D. D) 4
Question 29
pH of a saturated solution of Ba (OH) 2 is 12 . The value of its K sp is

A. A) 3. 3 × 10 −7 M 3
B. B) 5. 0 × 10 −7 M 3
C. C) 4. 0 × 10 −6 M 3
D. D) 5. 0 × 10
−6
M
Question 30
20ml of 0.1M acetic acid is mixed with 50 mL of potassium acetate. K a of acetic acid
= 1.8 × 10 −5 at 27 ∘ C. Calculate concentration of potassium acetate if pH of the mixture is 4.8.
A. A) 0.1M
B. B) 0.04M
C. C) 0.4M
D. D) 0.02M
Moderate Questions
Question 31
A buffer solution is prepared by mixing 0.01M weak acid and 0.05M solution of a salt of weak
acid and strong base. What is the pH of buffer solution? (pKa = 4.74)
A. A) 3.34
B. B) 4.80
C. C) 5.44
D. D) 6.93
Question 32
A 100 mL, 0.1 = M solution of ammonium acetate is diluted by adding 100mL of water. The pH
of the resulting solution will be (pK a of acetic acid is nearly equal to pK b of NH 4 OH )
A. A) 4.9
B. B) 5
C. C) 7
D. D) 10
Question 33
At 25 o C, pH range of phenolphthalein is 8 − 10. At 100 o C, pH range of phenolphthalein would

be -
A. A) pH range remain unaffected by the temperature

B. B) pH range is altered to 7 - 9
C. C) pH range is altered to 7 - 11
D. D) pH range is altered to 8 - 11
Question 34
The equilibrium constant for :
CN − + CH 3 COOH ⇌ HCN + CH 3 COO − is :
(Given pK b for CN − = 4.69 and pK b for CH 3 COO − = 2.25)

A. A) 3.7 × 10 4
B. B) 2.8 × 10 −5
C. C) 1.97 × 10 4
D. D) 0.5 × 10 −5
Question 35
The aqueous solution of which of the following salt will have the lowest pH ?
A. A) NaClO 3
B. B) NaClO
C. C) NaClO 4
D. D) NaClO 2
Question 36
The molar solubility product is K sp . ' s ' is given in terms of K sp by the relation
1/4
A. A) s = ( 128
K
sp
)
1/5
B. B) s = ( 256
K
sp
)
C. C) S = (256 K sp )
1/5
D. D) s = (128 K sp )
1/4
Question 37
At 25 ∘ C, pH of a 10 −8 M aqueous KOH solution will be
A. A) 6
B. B) 7.02
C. C) 8.02
D. D) 9.02
Question 38
At 25 ∘ C, the solubility product of Mg(OH) 2 is 1.0 × 10 −11 . At which pH, will Mg 2+ ions start
precipitating in the form of Mg(OH) 2 from a solution of 0.001MMg ions ?
2+
A. A) 9
B. B) 10
C. C) 11
D. D) 8
Question 39
An acid solution of pH = 6 is diluted 1000 times, the pH of the final solution becomes
A. A) 6.01
B. B) 9
C. C) 3.5
D. D) 6.99
Question 40
The percentage hydrolysis of 0.15M solution of ammonium acetate, K a for CH 3 COOH is

1.8 × 10 −5 and K b for NH 3 is 1.8 × 10 −5
A. A) 0.556
B. B) 4.72
C. C) 9.38
D. D) 5.56
Question 41
The degree of ionization of 0.4M acetic acid will be (K a = 1.8 × 10 −5 )
A. A) 6.71 × 10 −3
B. B) 1.6 × 10 −3
C. C) 0.4 × 1.8 × 10 −5
D. D) 1.8 × 10 −5
Question 42
The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in the order
A. A) NaCl < NH 4 Cl < NaCN < HCl

B. B) HCl < NH 4 Cl < NaCl < NaCN
C. C) NaCN < NH 4 Cl < NaCl < HCl
D. D) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH 4 Cl
Question 43
The solubility product of Ag 2 CrO 4 is 32 × 10 −12 . What is the concentration of CrO 2−

4 ions in
that solution?
A. A) 2 × 10 −4
B. B) 16 × 10 −4
C. C) 8 × 10 −4
D. D) 12 × 10
−4
Question 44
In an aqueous solution, the ionization constants for carbonic acid are
K 1 = 4.2 × 10 −7 and K 2 = 4.8 × 10 −11
Select the correct statement for a saturated 0.034 M solution of the carbonic acid:
A. A) The concentration of H + is double that of CO 2−

3 .
B. B) The concentration of CO 2−
3 is 0.034 M.
C. C) The concentration of CO 2−
3 is greater than that of HCO 3 .
−
D. D) The concentration of H + and HCO −

3 are approximately equal.
Question 45
What is the pH of 0.01M glycine solution? For glycine, K a1 = 4.5 × 10 −3 and
K a2 = 1.7 × 10 −10 at 298 K ?
A. A) 3.0
B. B) 10.0
C. C) 6.1
D. D) 7.2
Question 46
The correct order of increasing [H 3 O + ]in the following aqueous solutions is
A. A) 0.01MH 2 S < 0.01MH 2 SO 4 < 0.01MNaCl < 0.01MNaNO 2

B. B) 0.01MNaCl < 0.01MNaNO 2 < 0.01MH 2 S < 0.01MH 2 SO 4
C. C) 0.01MNaNO 2 < 0.01MNaCl < 0.01MH 2 S < 0.01MH 2 SO 4
D. D) 0.01MH 2 S < 0.01MNaNO 2 < 0.01MNaCl < 0.01MH 2 SO 4 .
Question 47
K a for HCN is 5 × 10 −10 at 25 ∘ C. For maintaining a constant pH = 9, the volume of

5MKCN solution required to be added to 10 mL of 2MHCN solution is
A. A) 4 mL
B. B) 2.5 mL
C. C) 2 mL
D. D) 6.4 mL
Question 48
The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH of an aqueous buffered solution of HA in which
50% of the acid is ionized is
A. A) 4.5
B. B) 2.5
C. C) 9.5
D. D) 7.0
Question 49
Solid Na 2 SO 4 is slowly added to a solution which is 0.020 M in Ba(NO 3 ) 2 and 0.020 M in

Pb(NO 3 ) 2 . Assume that there is no increase in volume on adding Na 2 SO 4 . There preferential
precipitation takes place. What is the concentration of Ba 2+ when PbSO 4 starts to precipitate?
[K sp (BaSO 4 ) = 1.0 × 10 −10 and K sp (PbSO 4 ) = 1.6 × 10 −8 ]

A. A) 5.0 × 10-9 M
B. B) 8.0 × 10-7 M
C. C) 1.25 × 10-4M
D. D) 1.95 × 10-8M
Question 50
At 80 ∘ C, distilled water has H + ions concentration equal to 1 × 10 −6 mole/ litre. The value of
K w at this temperature will be
A. A) 1 × 10 −6
B. B) 1 × 10 −12
C. C) 1 × 10 −9
D. D) 1 × 10 −15 .
Question 51
Calculate the pH of a buffer solution containing 0.01M salt and 0.004M weak acid.
(pK a = 4.762)
A. A) 4.36
B. B) 4.76
C. C) 5.16
D. D) 5.36
Question 52
2.5ml of 0.4(M) weak monoacidic base (k b = 1 × 10 −12 at 25 ∘ C) is titrated with 152

(M)HCl
in water at 25 C. The concentration of H at equivalence point is (k w = 1 × 10
∘ + −14
, at 25 ∘ C),
A. A) 3.7 × 10 −13 (M)

B. B) 3.2 × 10 −7 (M)
C. C) 3.2 × 10 −2 (M)
D. D) 2.7 × 10 −2 (M)
Question 53
4 ml of HCl solution of pH = 2 is mixed with 6 ml of NaOH solution of pH = 12. What would be the
final pH of solution? (log 2 = 0.3)
A. A) 10.3
B. B) 11.3
C. C) 11
D. D) 4.3
Question 54
A solution of NH 4 Cl and NH 3 has pH = 8.0. Which of the following hydroxides may be

precipitated when this solution is mixed with equal volume of 0.2 M of metal ion.
A. A) Ba(OH) 2 ( K sp = 1.1 × 10 −4 )
B. B) Mg(OH) 2 ( K sp = 3.5 × 10 −4 )
C. C) Fe(OH) 2 ( K sp = 8.1 × 10 −16 )
D. D) Ca(OH) 2 ( K sp = 2.1 × 10 −5 ) ).
Question 55
The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid HQ is 3 . The value of the ionization constant, Ka of
this acid is :
A. A) 3 × 10 −1
B. B) 1 × 10 −3
C. C) 1 × 10 −5
D. D) 1 × 10 −7
Question 56
Four species are listed below i. HCO 3 ii. H 3 O + iii. HSO 4 iv. HSO 3 F Which one of the
− −
following is the correct sequence of their acid strength?
A. A) iv < ii < iii < i

B. B) ii < iii < i < iv
C. C) i < iii < ii < iv
D. D) iii < i < iv < ii
Question 57
A substance containing hydrogen and releasing H + in aqueous medium is acid. Identify theory
suggesting this concept, from following.
A. A) Ostwald theory
B. B) Bronsted-Lowry theory
C. C) Arrhenius theory
D. D) Lewis theory
Question 58
Minimum moles of NH 3 required to be added to 1L solution so as to dissolve 0 .1 mol of
AgCl (K sp = 1 .0 ×10 −10 ) by the reaction is:
AgCl(s) + 2NH 3 ⇌ [Ag(NH 3 ) 2 ] + + Cl -
Given K f of [Ag(NH 3 ) 2 ] =10 8

+
A. A) 0 .5 mol
B. B) 1 .0 mol
C. C) 1 .1 mol
D. D) 1 .2 mol
Question 59
The pH of a solution obtained by mixing equal volume of solutions having pH = 3 and pH = 4.
[log 5.5 = 0.7404]
A. A) 3.26
B. B) 3.5
C. C) 4.0
D. D) 3.42
Question 60
What is the pH of 0.01M glycine solution? For glycine K a1 = 4.5 × 10 −3 and

K a2 = 1.7 × 10 −10 at 298 K.
A. A) 3.0
B. B) 10.0
C. C) 7.06
D. D) 8.2
Hard Questions
Question 61
Solubility of calcium phosphate (molecular mass, M) in water is W g per 100 mL at 25°C. Its
solubility product at 25°C will be approximately.
A. A) 10 7 ( W
3
M
)
B. B) 10 7 ( W
5
M
)
C. C) 10 3 ( W
5
M)
D. D) 10 5 ( W
5
M)
Question 62
Solubility product constant (K sp ) of salts of types MX, MX 2 and M 3 X at temperature ' T '
are 4.0 × 10 −8 , 3.2 × 10 −14 and 2.7 × 10 −15 , respectively. Solubilities (moldm −3 ) of the
salts at temperature ' T ' are in the order
A. A) MX > MX 2 > M 3 X
B. B) M 3 X > MX 2 > MX
C. C) MX 2 > M 3 X < MX
D. D) MX > M 3 X > MX 2
Question 63
A solution is 0. 1M in Cl − and 0. 001M in CrO 2−

4 .
Solid AgNO 3 is gradually added to it Assuming that the addition does not change in volume and
K sp (AgCl) = 1. 7 × 10 −10 M 2 and
K sp (Ag 2 CrO 4 ) = 1. 9 × 10 −12 M 3 .
Select correct statement from the following:
A. A) AgCl precipitates first because its K sp is high.

B. B) Ag 2 CrO 4 precipitates first as its K sp is low.
C. C) Ag 2 CrO 4 precipitates first because the amount of Ag + needed is low.
D. D) AgCl will precipitate first as the amount of Ag + needed to precipitate is low.
Question 64
The stoichiometry and solubility product of a salt with the solubility curve given below is,
respectively:
A. A) X 2 Y, 2 × 10 −9 M 3
B. B) XY 2 , 4 × 10
−9
M3
C. C) XY 2 , 1 × 10 −9 M 3
D. D) XY, 2 × 10 −6 M 3
Question 65
The dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1 × 10 −4 . In order to prepare a buffer solution with a
pH = 5, the [Salt]/ [Acid] ratio should be:
A. A) 4 : 5
B. B) 10 : 1
C. C) 5 : 4
D. D) 1 : 10
Question 66
Bromine in excess is dropped to a 0.01 M SO 2 . All of SO 2 is oxidized to H 2 SO 4 and the

excess Br 2 is removed by flushing with gaseous N 2 . Determine the pH of the resulting solution
assuming K a1 of H 2 SO 4 very large & K a2 = 10 −2 . Take the value of log (3. 24) = 0. 51. If
your answer is K, mark 2K as answer after rounding off to nearest integer.
Question 67
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) The pH of 1 × 10 –8 M HCl solution is 8.
(B) The conjugate base of H 2 PO is HPO 2−

4 .
4−
(C) K w increases with increase in temperature.
(D) When a solution of a weak monoprotic acid is titrated against a strong base at half
neutralisation point, pH = 12 pK a . Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A) (B), (C)
B. B) (A), (D)
C. C) (A), (B), (C)
D. D) (B), (C), (D)
Question 68
The ratio of volumes of CH 3 COOH 0.1 (N) to CH COONa 0.1 (N) required to prepare a buffer
solution of pH5.74 is (Given, pK a of CH 3 COOH is 4.74)
A. A) 10 : 1
B. B) 5 : 1
C. C) 1 : 5
D. D) 1 : 10
Question 69
The solubility (S) of a solute in water varies with temperature as given by S = Ae −ΔH/RT , ΔH
being the enthalpy of solution. For a given solute, variation of lnS with temperature is as shown in
figure. The solute is expected to be
A. A) CaO
B. B) MgSO 4
C. C) CuSO 4
D. D) CuSO 4 . 5H 2 O
Question 70
The standard half-cell reduction potential for Ag + ∣ Ag is 0.7991 V at 25 ∘ C. Given the

experimental value K sp = 1.56 × 10 −10 for AgCl, calculate the standard half-cell reduction
potential for the Ag ∣ AgCl electrode.
A. A) 0.2192 V
B. B) −0.2192 V
C. C) −1.2192 V
D. D) 1.2192 V
Question 71
At 25 ° C the pH of water is 7. When temperature of water is increased to 70 ° C than pH of water

and nature of water is
A. A) pH will decrease and the sample becomes acidic

B. B) pH will increase but the sample will remain neutral
C. C) pH will remain constant as 7.
D. D) pH will decrease but the sample will remain neutral.
Question 72
The Plot of pH-metric titration of weak base NH 4 OH vs strong acid HCl looks like
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 73
In qualitative analysis, the metals of group I can be separated from other ions by precipitating
them as chloride salts. A solution initially contains Ag + and Pb 2+ at a concentration of 0.10 M.
Aqueous HCl is added to this solution until the Cl − concentration is 0.10 M. What will the
concentration of Ag + and Pb 2+ be at equilibrium?
( K sp for AgCl = 1.8 × 10 −10 , K sp for PbCl 2 = 1.7 × 10 −5 )
A. A) [Ag + ] = 1.8 × 10 −7 M, [Pb 2+ ] = 1.7 × 10 −6 M

B. B) [Ag + ] = 1.8 × 10 −11 M, [Pb 2+ ] = 8.5 × 10 −5 M
C. C) [Ag + ] = 1.8 × 10 −9 M, [Pb 2+ ] = 1.7 × 10 −3 M
D. D) [Ag + ] = 1.8 × 10 −11 M, [Pb 2+ ] = 1.7 × 10 −4 M
Question 74
Under the same conditions, how many mL of 1 M KOH and 0.5 M H 2 SO 4 solutions, respectively,
when mixed to form at a total volume of 100 mL produces the highest rise in temperature?
A. A) 67, 33
B. B) 33, 67
C. C) 40, 60
D. D) 50, 50
Question 75
You are given a 10 −5 M NaCl solution and 10 −8 M AgNO 3 solution. They are mixed in 1: 1
volume ratio. K sp (AgCl) = 10 −5 M 2 . Choose the correct statement.
A. A) Precipitation will take place

B. B) Precipitation will not take place
C. C) Cannot be determined
D. D) After 1 hour precipitation will take place
Question 76
Calculate the solubility product of Co 2 [Fe(CN) 6 ] in water at 25° C.

Given, conductivity of saturated solutions of Co 2 [Fe(CN) 6 ] is 2.06 × 10 −6 Ω cm −1 and
−1
that of water used is 4.1 × 10 −7 Ω −1 cm −1 . The ionic molar conductivities of Co 2+ and

[Fe(CN) 6 ] 4− are 86.0 Ω cm 2 mol −1 and 444.0 Ω −1 cm 2 mol −1 , respectively.
A. A) 7.87 × 10 −17
B. B) 7.87 × 10 −6
C. C) 7.87 × 10 −8
D. D) 7.87 × 10 −9
Question 77
Acid Ka
HCN 6.2 × 10 −10
Values of dissociation constant, K a are given as follows : Correct order of
HF 7.2 × 10 −4
HNO 2 4.0 × 10 −4
increasing base strength of the base CN − , F − and NO −
2 will be :
A. A) F − < CN − < NO −
2
B. B) NO −
−
2 < CN < F−
C. C) F − < NO −
2 < CN
−
D. D) NO − −
2 < F < CN
−
Question 78
K c for the the reaction, [Ag(CN) 2 ] ⇌ Ag + + 2CN − , the equillibrium constant at 25 ∘ C is

4.0 × 10 −19 then the silver ion concentration in a solution which was originally 0.1 molar in
KCN and 0.03 molar in AgNO 3 is:
A. A) 7.5 × 10 18
B. B) 7.5 × 10 −19
C. C) 7.5 × 10 19
D. D) 7.5 × 10 −18
Question 79
H 3 PO 4 H 2 SO 4 H 3 PO 3
The total number of diprotic acids among the following is H 2 CO 3 H2 S2 O7 H 3 BO 3
H 3 PO 2 H 2 CrO 4 H 2 SO 3
Question 80
A weak acid of dissociation constant 10 −5 is being titrated with aqueous NaOH solution. The
pH at the point of one-third neutralisation of the acid will be
A. A) 5 + log 2 − log 3
B. B) 5 − log 2
C. C) 5 − log 3
D. D) 5 − log 6
Question 81
Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of solubilities of sparingly
soluble salts Hg 2 Cl 2 , Cr 2 (SO 4 ) 3 , BaSO 4 and CrCl 3 respectively?
A. A) BaSO 4 > Hg 2 Cl 2 > Cr 2 (SO 4 ) 3 > CrCl 3

B. B) BaSO 4 > Hg 2 Cl 2 > CrCl 3 > Cr 2 (SO 4 ) 3
C. C) BaSO 4 > CrCl 3 > Hg 2 Cl 2 > Cr 2 (SO 4 ) 3
D. D) Hg 2 Cl 2 > BaSO 4 > CrCl 3 > Cr 2 (SO 4 ) 3
Question 82
The titration curve of weak acid vs. strong base with phenolphthalein as indicator is shown below.
The K phenolphthalein = 4 × 10 −10
Given: log 2 = 0. 3
The number of following statement/s which is/are correct about phenolphthalein is _______
A. It can be used as an indicator for the titration of weak acid with weak base.
B. It begins to change colour at pH = 8. 4
C. It is a weak organic base
D. It is colourless in acidic medium
Question 83
During titration of acetic acid with aq. NaOH solution, the neutralisation graph has a vertical line.
This line indicates
A. A) alkaline nature of equivalence

B. B) acidic nature of equivalence
C. C) neutral nature of equivalence
D. D) depends on experimental proceeding.
Question 84
If equal volumes of BaCl 2 and NaF solutions are mixed, which of these combinations will not
give a precipitate?
Substance K sp
BaF 2 1.7 × 10 −7
A. A) 0.004 M BaCl 2 and 0.02 M NaF

B. B) 0.010 M BaCl 2 and 0.015 M NaF
C. C) 0.015 M BaCl 2 and 0.010 M NaF
D. D) 0.020 M BaCl 2 and 0.002 M NaF
Question 85
The solubility of a salt of weak acid (AB) at pH 3 is Y × 10 −3 mol L −1 . The value of Y is

____. (Given that the value of solubility product of AB(K sp ) = 2 × 10 −10 , and the value of
ionization constant of HB(Ka) = 1 × 10 −8 ) If your answer is K, mark 2K as answer after
rounding off to nearest integer.
Question 86
In qualitative analysis, the metals of group I can be separated from other ions by precipitating
them as chloride salts. A solution initially contains Ag + and Pb 2+ at a concentration of 0.10M.
Aqueous HCl is added to this solution until the Cl concentration is 0.10M. What will be the
−
concentration of Ag + and Pb 2+ be at equilibrium? ( K sp for AgCl = 1.8 × 10 −10 , K sp for

PbCl 2 = 1.7 × 10 −5 )
A. A) [Ag + ] = 1.8 × 10 −7 M; [Pb 2+ ] = 1.7 × 10 −6 M
B. B) [Ag ] = 1.8 × 10 −11 M; [Pb
+ 2+
] = 8.5 × 10 −5 M
C. C) [Ag + ] = 1.8 × 10 −9 M; [Pb 2+ ] = 1.7 × 10 −3 M
D. D) [Ag + ] = 1.8 × 10 −11 M; [Pb 2+ ] = 8.5 × 10 −4 M
Question 87
Incorrect statement for the use of indicator in acid-base titration is:
A. A) Methyl orange may be used for a weak acid vs weak bas titration.
B. B) Phenolphthalein may be used for a strong acid vs strong base titration.
C. C) Methyl orange is a suitable indicator for a strong acid vs weak base titration.
D. D) Phenolphthalein is a suitable indicator for a weak acid vs strong base titration.
Question 88
An acid type indicator, Hln differes in colour from its conjugate base (In − ) . The human eye is
sensitive to colour differences only when the ratio [In − ]/[HIn] is greater than 10 or smaller than
0.1. What should be the minimum change in the pH of the solution to observe a complete colour
change (K a = 1.0 × 10 −5 ) ?
A. A) 4
B. B) 2
C. C) 6
D. D) 1
Question 89
Zirconium phosphate [Zr3(PO4)4] dissociates into three zirconium cations of charge+4 and four
phosphate anions of charge -3. If molar solubility of zirconium phosphate is denoted by S and its
solubility product by Ksp then which of the following relationship between S and Ksp is correct ?
A. A) S = {K sp /6912}
7
B. B) S = {K sp /144}
1/7
C. C) S = {K sp /(6912)
1/7
}
D. D) S = (K sp /6912) 1/7
Question 90
The pH of an aqueous solution containing 1M benzoic acid (pK a = 4. 20) and 1M sodium
benzoate is 4. 5. The volume of benzoic acid solution in 300 mL of this buffer solution is
__________mL.

Q1 - A Q31 - C Q61 - B
Q2 - D Q32 - C Q62 - D
Q3 - C Q33 - B Q63 - D
Q4 - D Q34 - A Q64 - B
Q5 - A Q35 - C Q65 - B
Q6 - 36 (Num) Q36 - B Q66 - 3 (Num)
Q7 - C Q37 - B Q67 - A
Q8 - B Q38 - B Q68 - D
Q9 - B Q39 - D Q69 - D
Q10 - C Q40 - A Q70 - A
Q11 - B Q41 - A Q71 - D
Q12 - B Q42 - B Q72 - A
Q13 - B Q43 - A Q73 - C
Q14 - A Q44 - D Q74 - D
Q15 - A Q45 - C Q75 - B
Q16 - B Q46 - C Q76 - A
Q17 - A Q47 - C Q77 - C
Q18 - B Q48 - C Q78 - D
Q19 - A Q49 - C Q79 - 6 (Num)
Q20 - B Q50 - B Q80 - B
Q21 - D Q51 - C Q81 - B
Q22 - D Q52 - C Q82 - 2 (Num)
Q23 - D Q53 - B Q83 - A
Q24 - C Q54 - C Q84 - D
Q25 - C Q55 - C Q85 - 9 (Num)
Q26 - C Q56 - C Q86 - C
Q27 - A Q57 - C Q87 - A
Q28 - A Q58 - D Q88 - B
Q29 - B Q59 - A Q89 - D
Q30 - A Q60 - C Q90 - 100 (Num)
Redox Reactions
Easy Questions
Question 1
0.5 g of an acid is neutralised by 40cc of 0.125 NNaOH. The equivalent mass of the acid is
A. A) 50
B. B) 100
C. C) 40
D. D) 80
Question 2
The volume in mL of 0.1M solution of NaOH required to completely neutralise 100 mL of

0.3M solution of H 3 PO 3 is
A. A) 60
B. B) 600
C. C) 300
D. D) 30
Question 3
Which one of the following does not undergo disproportionation reaction?
A. A) ClO −
B. B) ClO −
3
C. C) ClO −
2
D. D) ClO 4
−
Question 4
When KMnO 4 reacts with KBr in alkaline medium gives bromate ion. Then oxidation state of
Mn changes from +7 to
A. A) +6
B. B) +4
C. C) +3
D. D) +2
Question 5
In aqueous alkaline solution, two electrons reduction of HO −

2 gives
A. A) HO
−
B. B) H 2 O
C. C) O 2
D. D) O −
2
Question 6
An oxide of the element contains 20%O 2 by weight. Calculate the equivalent weight of the
element.
A. A) 8
B. B) 16
C. C) 32
D. D) 12
Question 7
In which of the following reactions, H 2 O 2 is acting as a reducing agent?
A. A) H 2 O 2 + SO 2 → H 2 SO 4
B. B) 2KI + H 2 O 2 → 2KOH + I 2
C. C) PbS + 4H 2 O 2 → PbSO 4 + 4H 2 O
D. D) Ag 2 O + H 2 O 2 → 2Ag + H 2 O + O 2
Question 8
Acidified potassium dichromate is treated with hydrogen sulphide. In the reaction, the oxidation
number of chromium
A. A) Increases from +3 to +6
B. B) Decreases from +6 to +3
C. C) Remains unchanged
D. D) Decreases from +6 to +2
Question 9
The equivalent weight of a certain trivalent element is 20. Molecular weight of its oxide is
A. A) 152
B. B) 56
C. C) 168
D. D) 68
Question 10
The oxidation states of transition metal atoms in K 2 Cr 2 O 7 , KMnO 4 and K 2 FeO 4 ,

respectively, are x, y and z . The sum of x, y and z is______
Question 11
When CuSO 4 solution in water is treated with concentrated HCl it turns
A. A) Violet
B. B) Yellow
C. C) Purple
D. D) Green
Question 12
Assertion : In some cases oxygen shows positive oxidation number though it is an

electronegative element. Reason : Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen.
Assertion.
Question 13
Which of the following phosphorus oxyacids can act as a reducing agent?
A. A) H 3 PO 3
B. B) H 3 PO 4
C. C) H 2 P 2 O 6
D. D) H 4 P 2 O 7
Question 14
Which one of following is a disproportionation reaction?
A. A) 2AgNO 3 (aq) + Cu(s) ⟶ Cu(NO 3 ) 2 (aq) + 2Ag(s)

B. B) 3AgNO 3 (aq) + K 3 PO 4 (aq) ⟶ Ag 3 PO 4 ( s) + 3KNO 3 (aq)
C. C) 4KClO 3 ( s) ⟶ KCl(s) + 3KClO 4 ( s)

Δ
D. D) 4Fe(s) + 3O 2 ( g) ⟶ 2Fe 2 O 3
Question 15
The compound that cannot act both as oxidizing and reducing agent is
A. A) H 3 PO 4
B. B) H NO 2
C. C) H 2 SO 3
D. D) H 2 O 2
Question 16
What is the oxidation number of Br in KBrO 4 ?
A. A) +6
B. B) +7
C. C) +5
D. D) +8
Question 17
While titration dilute HCI solution with aqueous NaOH, which of the following will not be
required ?
A. A) Burette and porcelain tile

B. B) Pipette and distilled water
C. C) Clamp and phenolphthalein
D. D) Bunsen burner and measuring cyclinder
Question 18
If the molecular wt. of Na 2 S 2 O 3 and I 2 are M 1 and M 2 respectively, then what will be the
equivalent wt. of Na 2 S 2 O 3 and I 2 in the following reaction? 2 S 2 O 3 + I 2 ⟶ S 4 O 6 + 2I −
2− 2−
A. A) M 1 , M 2
B. B) M 1 , M 2 /2
C. C) 2M 1 , M 2
D. D) M 1 , 2M 2
Question 19
In the reaction of sodium thiosulphate with I 2 in aqueous medium the equivalent weight of
sodium thiosulphate is equal to
A. A) molar mass of sodium thiosulphate

B. B) the average of molr masses of Na 2 S 2 O 3 and I 2
C. C) half the molar mass of sodium thiosulphate
D. D) molar mass of sodium thiosulphate ×2
Question 20
Which one of the following is an example of disproportionation reaction?
3Cl 2 (g) + 6OH − (aq) ⟶ ClO − −

3 (aq) + 5Cl (aq)
A. A) + 3H 2 O(l)
B. B) Ag
2+
(aq) + Ag(s) ⟶ 2Ag + (aq)
C. C) Zn(s) + CuSO 4 (aq) ⟶ Cu(s) + ZnSO 4 (aq)
D. D) 2KClO 3 ( s) ⟶ 2KCl(s) + 3O 2 ( g)
Question 21
In the reaction 3Br 2 + 6CO 3 + 3H 2 O → 5Br

2− −
+ BrO − −
3 + 6HCO 3
A. A) Bromine is oxidised and carbonate is reduced.

B. B) Bromine is reduced and water is oxidised.
C. C) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidised.
D. D) Bromine is both reduced and oxidised.
Question 22
Volume of 3% solution of sodium carbonate necessary to neutralise a litre of 0.1 N sulphuric

acid
A. A) 176.66ml
B. B) 156.6ml
C. C) 116.0ml
D. D) 196.1ml
Question 23
How much solid oxalic acid (Molecular weight 126 ) has to be weighed to prepare 100 mL
exactly 0.1 (N) oxalic acid solution in water?
A. A) 1.26 g
B. B) 0.126 g
C. C) 0.63 g
D. D) 0.063 g
Question 24
The oxidation number of C atom in CH 2 Cl 2 and CCl 4 are respectively
A. A) −2 and −4
B. B) 0 and −4
C. C) 0 and 4
D. D) 2 and 4
Question 25
In organic reactions, sodium in liquid ammonia is used as
A. A) reducing agent
B. B) hydrating agent
C. C) oxidising agent
D. D) precipitating agent
Question 26
In the ionic equation −BiO 3 + 6H + + xe − ⟶ Bi the values of x is
− 3+
+ 3H 2 O,
A. A) 6
B. B) 2
C. C) 4
D. D) 3
Question 27
Copper is a divalent metal. The value of its electrochemical equivalent is 3.29 × 10 −4 g. Its
atomic mass is
A. A) 31.74 g
B. B) 63.5 g
C. C) 126.9 g
D. D) 15.87 g
Question 28
Which one of the following reactions does not come under hydrolysis type reaction?
A. A) SiCl 4(l) + 2H 2 O (l) → SiO 2(s) + 4 HCl (aq)

B. B) Li 3 N (s) + 3H 2 O (l) → NH 3(g) + 3 LiOH (aq)
C. C) 2F 2(g) + 2H 2 O (l) → 4 HF (aq) + O 2(g)
D. D) P 4 O 10(s) + 6H 2 O (l) → 4H 3 PO 4(aq)
Question 29
Out of the following outer electronic configurations of atoms, the highest oxidation state is
achieved by which one?
A. A) (n − 1)d 8 ns 2
B. B) (n − 1)d 5 ns 2
C. C) (n − 1)d 3 ns 2
D. D) (n − 1)d 5 ns 1
Question 30
When KBr is dissolved in water, K + ions are
A. A) oxidised
B. B) reduced
C. C) hydrolysed
D. D) hydrated
Moderate Questions
Question 31
For an ideal binary liquid mixture
A. A) ΔH (mix ) = 0; ΔS (mix ) < 0

B. B) ΔS (mix) > 0; ΔG (mix) < 0
C. C) ΔS (mix) = 0; ΔG (mix) = 0
D. D) ΔV (mix ) = 0; ΔG (mix ) > 0
Question 32
Number of moles of MnO −

4 required to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic
medium will be
A. A) 0.2 moles
B. B) 0.6 moles
C. C) 0.4 moles
D. D) 7.5moles
Question 33
2.68 × 10 −3 moles of a solution containing an ion A n+ require 1.61 × 10 −1 moles of MnO −

4
ion for the oxidation of A to AO 3 in acidic medium. What is the value of n?
n+ −
Question 34
KMnO 4 reacts with KI, in basic medium to form I 2 and MnO 2 . When 250 mL of 0.1MKI
solution is mixed with 250 mL of 0.02M KMnO 4 in basic medium, what is the number of moles
of I 2 formed?
A. A) 0.015
B. B) 0.0075
C. C) 0.005
D. D) 0.01
Question 35
KMnO 4 reacts with KI, in basic medium to form I 2 and MnO 2 . When 250 mL of 0.1MKI
solution is mixed with 250 mL of 0.02M KMnO 4 in basic medium, what is the number of moles
of I 2 formed?
A. A) 0.015
B. B) 0.0075
C. C) 0.005
D. D) 0.01
Question 36
1.520 g of hydroxide of a metal on ignition gave 0.995 g of oxide. The equivalent weight of metal
is:
A. A) 1.52
B. B) 0.995
C. C) 190
D. D) 9
Question 37
How much amount of CuSO 4 ⋅ 5H 2 O is required for liberation of 2.54 g of I 2 when titrated with
KI ?
A. A) 2.5 g
B. B) 4.99 g
C. C) 2.4 g
D. D) 1.2 g
Question 38
Which of the following can be oxidised by SO 2 ?
A. A) K 2 Cr 2 O 7
B. B) Mg
C. C) H 2 O
D. D) All of these
Question 39
The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions SO 3 , S 2 O 4 and S 2 O 6 follow the order
2− 2− 2−
A. A) SO 2− 2− 2−
3 < S2 O4 < S2 O6
B. B) S 2 O 2− 2− 2−
4 < S 2 O 6 < SO 3
C. C) S 2 O 2− 2− 2−
6 < S 2 O 4 < SO 3
D. D) S 2 O 4
2−
< SO 2− 2−
3 < S2 O6
Question 40
Assertion: The correct order of oxidising power is : VO 2 < Cr 2 O 7 4 Reason: The
+ 2−
< MnO −
oxidation state of Mn is +7 .
A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Question 41
One mole of N 2 H 4 loses 10 moles of electrons to form a new compound Z . Assuming that all
the nitrogens appear in the new compound, what is the oxidation state of nitrogen in Z ? (There
is no change in the oxidation state of hydrogen.)
A. A) −1
B. B) −3
C. C) +3
D. D) +5
Question 42
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the equation

MeCHO + [Ag (NH 3 ) 2 ] + + OH ⟶ MeCOO − + Ag
¯
A. A) The equivalent weight of MeCHO is 22 .

B. B) Three moles of OH are required in the reaction.
¯
C. C) MeCHO acts as an oxidising agent.
D. D) [Ag (NH 3 ) 2 ] gets reduced.
+
Question 43
Calomel (Hg 2 Cl 2 ) on reaction with ammonium hydroxide gives
A. A) HgNH 2 Cl
B. B) NH 2 − Hg − Hg − Cl
C. C) Hg 2 O
D. D) HgO
Question 44
Predict the product of reaction of I 2 with H 2 O 2 in basic medium.
A. A) I −
B. B) I 2 O 3
C. C) IO 3
−
D. D) I −
3
Question 45
When SO 2 is passed through acidified K 2 Cr 2 0, the process that takes place is
A. A) the solution turns blue

B. B) the solution is decolourised
C. C) SO 2 is reduced
D. D) green Cr 2 (SO 4 ) 3 is formed
Question 46
Consider the following reaction:

x MnO − 2− +
4 + y C 2 O 4 + zH ⟶ x Mn
2+
+ 2y CO 2 + z
2 H2 O
The values of x, y and z in the reaction are, respectively:
A. A) 2, 5 and 16
B. B) 5, 2 and 8
C. C) 5, 2 and 16
D. D) 2, 5 and 8
Question 47
The order of the oxidation state of the phosphorus atom in H 3 P O 2 , H 3 P O 4 , H 3 P O 3 and

H 4 P 2 O 6 is
A. A) H 3 P O 4 > H 4 P 2 O 6 > H 3 P O 3 > H 3 P O 2
B. B) H 3 P O 3 > H 3 P O 2 > H 3 P O 4 > H 4 P 2 O 6
C. C) H 3 P O 2 > H 3 P O 3 > H 4 P 2 O 6 > H 3 P O 4
D. D) H 3 P O 4 > H 3 P O 2 > H 3 P O 3 > H 4 P 2 O 6
Question 48
Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with
negative sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl ?
A. A) Cl < F < O < S

B. B) O < S < F < Cl
C. C) F < S < O < Cl
D. D) S < O < Cl < F
Question 49
The equivalent weight of KIO 3 in the given reaction is (M = molecular mass) :
2Cr(OH) 3 + 4OH − + KIO 3 → 2CrO 4 2− + 5H 2 O + KI
A. A) M
B. B) M/2
C. C) M/6
D. D) M/8
Question 50
50 cm 3 of 0.2 NHCl is titrated against 0.1 N NaOH solution. The titration is discontinued after
adding 50 cm 3 of NaOH. The remaining titration is completed by adding 0.5 NKOH. The
volume of KOH required for completing the titration is
A. A) 12 cm 3
B. B) 10 cm 3
C. C) 25 cm 3
D. D) 10.5 cm 3
Question 51
Consider the following reaction
xMnO − 2− +
4 + yC 2 O 4 + zH → xMn
2+
+ 2yCO 2 + z
2 H2 O
The values of x, y and z in the reaction are, respectively
A. A) 5, 2 and 8
B. B) 2, 5 and 8
C. C) 2, 5 and 16
D. D) 5, 2 and 16
Question 52
A. A) I 2 , IO 4
−
B. B) I 2 , IO 3
−
C. C) IO − −
3 , IO 3
D. D) IO 3 , I 2
−
Question 53
4 g of copper was dissolved in concentrated nitric aci(d) The copper nitrate solution on strong
heating gave 5g of its oxide. The equivalent weight of copper is
A. A) 12
B. B) 20
C. C) 23
D. D) 32
Question 54
100 mL of 0. 1 M HCl is taken in a beaker and to it 100 mL 0. 1 M NaOH of is added in

steps of 2 mL and the pH is continuously measured. Which of the following graphs correctly
depicts the change in pH ?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 55
The concentration of oxalic acid is ' x ' molL −1 . 40 mL of this solution reacts with 16 mL of
0.05M acidified KMnO 4 . What is the pH of ' x ' M oxalic acid solution ? (Assume that oxalic
acid dissociates completely)
A. A) 1.3
B. B) 1.699
C. C) 1
D. D) 2
Question 56
An alkali is titrated against acid with methyl orange as an indicator, which of the following is a
correct combination?
Base Acid End point
A. A)
Strong Strong Pink to colourless
B. B)
Base Acid End point
Weak Srtong Colourless to pink
Base Acid End point
C. C)
Strong strong Pinkish red to yellow
D. D)
Base Acid End point
Weak Strong Yellow to pinkish red
Question 57
Bleaching powder and bleach solution are produced on a large scale and used in several
household products. The effectiveness of bleach solution is often measured by iodometry.
Question: Bleaching powder contains a salt of an oxoacid as one of its components. The
anhydride of that oxoacid is
A. A) Cl 2 O
B. B) Cl 2 O 7
C. C) ClO 2
D. D) Cl 2 O 6
Question 58
The number of moles KMnO 4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic
solution is:
A. A) 4/5
B. B) 2/5
C. C) 1
D. D) 3/5
Question 59
For the reactions, C + O 2 ⟶ CO 2 ; ΔH = −393 J 2Zn + O 2 ⟶ 2ZnO; ΔH = −412 J
A. A) carbon can oxidise Zn

B. B) oxidation of carbon is not feasible
C. C) oxidation of Zn is not feasible
D. D) Zn can oxidise carbon
Question 60
50 cm 3 of 0.2 NHCl is titrated against 0.1 N NaOH solution. The titration was discontinued
after adding 50 cm 3 of NaOH. The remaining titration is completed by adding 0.5 NKOH. The
volume of KOH required for completing the titration is
A. A) 12 cm 3
B. B) 10 cm 3
C. C) 21.0 cm 3
D. D) 16.2 cm 3
Hard Questions
Question 61
The oxidation state of Cr in CrO 5 is
A. A) -6
B. B) +12
C. C) +6
D. D) +4
Question 62
Reaction of Br 2 with Na 2 CO 3 in aqueous solution gives sodium bromide and sodium bromate
with evolution of CO 2 gas. The number of sodium bromide molecules involved in the balanced
chemical equation is
Question 63
In the balanced chemical reaction \mathrm{IO}_3^{-}+a \mathrm{I}^{-}+b \mathrm{H}^{+}

\rightarrow c \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}+d \mathrm{I}_2 a, b, c and d respectively corresponds to
A. A) 5, 6, 3, 3
B. B) 5, 3, 6, 3
C. C) 3, 5, 3, 6
D. D) 5, 6, 5, 5
Question 64
From the given reactions identify the disproportionation reaction

i) Cl 2 (g) + 2 KI(aq) ⟶ 2 KCl(aq) + I 2 (s)
ii) Cl 2 (g) + 2 OH − (aq) ⟶ ClO − (aq) + Cl − (aq) + H 2 O(l)
iii) Mg(s) + 2 HCl(aq) ⟶ MgCl 2 (aq) + H 2 (g)
iv) 2H 2 O 2 (aq) ⟶ 2H 2 O(l) + O 2 (g)
A. A) (i) and (iv)

B. B) (ii) and (iv)
C. C) (ii) and (iii)
D. D) (i) and (ii)
Question 65
5. 00 mL of 0. 10 M oxalic acid solution taken in a conical flask is titrated against NaOH from
a burette using phenolphthalein indicator. The volume of NaOH required for the appearance of
permanent faint pink color is tabulated below for five experiments. What is the concentration, in
molarity, of the NaOH solution?
Exp. No. Vol. of NaOH (mL)

1 12. 5
2 10. 5
3 9. 0
4 9. 0
5 9. 0
If your answer is K, mark 10K as answer after rounding off to nearest integer.
Question 66
2.5 g of the carbonate of a metal was treated with 100 mL of 1 NH 2 SO 4 . After the completion
of the reaction, the solution was boiled off to expel CO 2 and was then titrated against
1 NNaOH solution. The volume of alkali that would be consumed, if the equivalent weight of the
metal is 20
A. A) 50
B. B) 25
C. C) 75
D. D) 100.
Question 67
What will be the value of x, y and z in the following equation?

H 2 C 2 O 4 + xH 2 O 2 → yCO 2 + zH 2 O
A. A) 2, 1, 2
B. B) 1, 2, 2
C. C) 2, 2, 1
D. D) 1, 2, 1
Question 68
Match the complexes in Column I with their properties listed in Column II. Indicate your answer
by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 × 4 matrix given in the ORS.
A. A) A-p; B-q; C-p; D-q, r

B. B) A-p, s; B-q, r; C-p, r; D-r, s
C. C) A-s; B-p; C-p; D-q
D. D) A-p, s; B-r; C-p, q; D-p, s
Question 69
Bleaching powder and bleach solution are produced on a large scale and used in several
household products. The effectiveness of bleach solution is often measured by iodometry.
Question: 25 mL of household solution was mixed with 30 mL of 0.50 M KI and 10 mL of 4 N
acetic acid. In the titration of the liberated iodine, 48 mL of 0.25 N Na 2 S 2 O 3 was used to
reach the end point. The molarity of the household bleach solution is
A. A) 0.48M
B. B) 0.96M
C. C) 0.24M
D. D) 0.024M
Question 70
On balancing the given redox reaction
a Cr 2 O 2− 2− + 3+ 2−
7 + bSO 3 (aq) + cH (aq) → 2 aCr (aq) + bSO 4 (aq) +
c
2 H 2 O(l)
The coefficients a, b, c are found to be respectively
A. A) 8, 1, 3
B. B) 1, 3, 8
C. C) 3, 8, 1
D. D) 1, 8, 3
Question 71
Which of the following combination of reagents does not undergo redox reaction in aqueous
medium?
A. A) SnCl 2 + HgCl 2
B. B) CuSO 4 + KCN
C. C) Pb(CH 3 COO) 2 + KI
D. D) Ag 2 O + SO 2
Question 72
A 2.0 g sample of a mixture containing sodium carbonate, sodium bicarbonate and sodium
sulphate is gently heated till the evolution of CO2 ceases. The volume of CO2 at 750 mm Hg
pressure and at 298 K is measured to be 123.9 mL. A 1.5 g of the same sample requires 150 mL
of (M/10) HCl for complete neutralization. Calculate the percentage composition of Na 2 SO 4 in
the original mixture. If your answer is K, mark 2K as answer after rounding off to nearest integer.
Question 73
In the following balanced reaction,

values of X, Y and Z respectively are
A. A) 2,5,16
B. B) 8, 2, 5
C. C) 5, 2, 16
D. D) 5, 8, 4
Question 74
Find out the compounds that will disproportionate in their aqueous solution.
+0.36V +0.33V +0.66V +0.40V +1.36V

(I)ClO −
−
−
−
−
− 4 → ClO −
3 → ClO 2 → OCl − → 12 Cl 2 → Cl −
+0.56V +2.22V +0.95V +1.55V −0.19V

(II)MnO −
−
−
−
−
− 4 → MnO 2−
4 → MnO 2 → Mn 3+ → Mn 2+ → Mn
A. A)
(I) (II)
ClO 2 , Cl 2 MnO 2−
4 , Mn
3+
B. B)
(I) (II)
ClO − −
3 , OCl MnO 2 , Mn
2+
C. C)
(I) (II)
OCl − only MnO 2 , Mn 2+
D. D)
(I) (II)
3 only MnO 2 only

ClO −
Question 75
A sample (5.6 g) containing iron is completely dissolved in cold dilute HCl to prepare a 250 mL
of solution. Titration of 25.0 mL of this solution requires 12.5 mL of 0.03MKMnO 4 solution to
reach the end point. Number of moles of Fe 2+ present in 250 mL solution is x × 10 −2
(consider complete dissolution of FeCl 2 ). The amount of iron present in the sample is y% by
weight.
(Assume: KMnO 4 reacts only with Fe in the solution Use: Molar mass of iron as 56 g mol
2+ −1
)
The value of y is________. Roundoff answer to nearest integer.
Question 76
KMnO 4 reacts with KI, in basic medium to form I 2 and MnO 2 . When 250 mL of 0.1 M KI
solution is mtextxed with 250 mL of 0.02 M KMnO 4 in basic medium, what is the number of
moles of I 2 formed?
A. A) 0.015
B. B) 0.0075
C. C) 0.005
D. D) 0.01
Question 77
Find the values of x, y, z in the given balanced equation

H 2 SO 4 + x HI → H 2 S + y I 2 + z H 2 O ,
A. A) x = 3, y = 5, z = 2
B. B) x = 4, y = 8, z = 5
C. C) x = 8, y = 4, z = 4
D. D) x = 5, y = 3, z = 4
Question 78
An equal volume of a reducing agent is titrated separately with 1 M KMnO4 in acid, neutral and
alkaline medium. The volumes of KMnO4 required are 20 mL in acid, 33.3 mL in neutral and 100
mL in alkaline media. Find out the volume (mL) of 1M K2Cr2O7 consumed, if the same volume of
the reducing agent is titrated in acid medium.
Report your answer by rounding it up to nearest whole number.
Question 79
Paragraph: Redox reaction play a pivotal role in chemistry and biology. The values of standard
redox potential (E ∘ ) of two half-cell reactions decide which way the reaction is expected to
proceed. A simple example is a Daniel cell in which zinc goes into solution and copper gets
deposited. Given below are a set of half-cell reactions (acidic medium) along with their E ∘ (V
with respect to normal hydrogen electrode) values. Using this data obtain the correct
explanations to Questions 14-19.
I 2 + 2e − ⟶ 2I − E ∘ = 0.54
Cl 2 + 2e − ⟶ 2Cl − E ∘ = 1.36
Mn 3+ + e − ⟶ Mn 2+ E ∘ = 1.50
Fe 3+ + e − ⟶ Fe 2+ E ∘ = 0.77
O 2 + 4H + + 4e − ⟶ 2H 2 O E ∘ = 1.23
Question: While Fe 3+ is stable, Mn 3+ is not stable in acid solution because

A. A) O 2 oxidises Mn 2+ to Mn 3+
B. B) O 2 oxidises both Mn 2+ and Fe 2+ to Fe 3+
C. C) Fe 3+ oxidises H 2 O to O 2
D. D) Mn oxidises H 2 O to O 2
3+
Question 80
In a titration experiment, 10 mL of an FeCl 2 solution consumed 25 mL of a standard

K 2 Cr 2 O 7 solution to reach the equivalent point. The standard K 2 Cr 2 O 7 solution is prepared
by dissolving 1. 225 g of K 2 Cr 2 O 7 in 250 mL water. The concentration of the FeCl 2 solution
is closest to
[Given : molecular weight of K 2 Cr 2 O 7 = 294 g mol −1 ]
A. A) 0. 25 N
B. B) 0. 50 N
C. C) 0. 10 N
D. D) 0. 04 N
Question 81
Balance the following equation by choosing the correct option.

xKNO 3 + yC 12 H 22 O 11 ⟶ p N 2 + qCO 2 + rH 2 O + s K 2 CO 3
A. A) (a)
B. B) (b)
C. C) (c)
D. D) (d)
Question 82
The table below gives the results of three titrations carried out with 0.200 M HCl to determine the
molarity of a given NaOH solution using phenolphthalein as indicator. NaOH was taken in the
burette and HCl was taken in a conical flask for the titrations
The actual molarity of the prepared NaOH solution was 0.220 mol dm-3. Which among the
following could be the reason for the wrong value obtained in titration III?
A. A) Number of drops of phenolphthalein added to the titration flask was more in this titration
B. B) The concentration of HCl was wrongly used as 0.250 M for the calculation of M NaOH
C. C) A few drops of NaOH solution were spilled outside the titration flask during titration
D. D) A few drops of the neutralized solution from titration II were left behind in the flask
Question 83
Formic acid is heated with conc. H 2 SO 4 at 100 ∘ C to form A and B. When Fe 2 O 3 is heated
strongly with B, the products formed are C and D. C can also be obtained by reacting CaCO 3
with dil.HCl. What is D ?
A. A) Fe
B. B) CO
C. C) CO 2
D. D) Fe 3 O 4
Question 84
MnO 2 when fused with KOH and oxidized in air gives a dark green compound X. In acidic X.
In acidic solution, X undergoes disproportion to give an intense purple compound Y and MnO 2 .
The compounds X and Y. respectively, are
A. A) K 2 MnO 4 and KMnO 4

B. B) Mn 2 O 7 and KMnO 4
C. C) K 2 MnO 4 and Mn 2 O 7
D. D) KMnO 4 and K 2 MnO 4
Question 85
Paragraph: Redox reaction play a pivotal role in chemistry and biology. The values of standard
redox potential (E ∘ ) of two half-cell reactions decide which way the reaction is expected to
proceed. A simple example is a Daniel cell in which zinc goes into solution and copper gets
deposited. Given below are a set of half-cell reactions (acidic medium) along with their E ∘ (V
with respect to normal hydrogen electrode) values. Using this data obtain the correct
explanations to Questions 14-19.
I 2 + 2e − ⟶ 2I − E ∘ = 0.54
Cl 2 + 2e − ⟶ 2Cl − E ∘ = 1.36
Mn 3+ + e − ⟶ Mn 2+ E ∘ = 1.50
Fe 3+ + e − ⟶ Fe 2+ E ∘ = 0.77
O 2 + 4H + + 4e − ⟶ 2H 2 O E ∘ = 1.23
Question: Sodium fusion extract, obtained from aniline, on treatment with iron (II) sulphate and
H 2 SO 4 in presence of air gives a prussian blue precipitate. The blue colour is due to the
formation of
A. A) Fe 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3
B. B) Fe 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 2
C. C) Fe 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 2
D. D) \mathrm{Fe}_3\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]_3
Question 86
25 mL of household bleach solution was mixed with 30 mL of 0.50 M KI and 10 mL of 4 N

acetic acid. In the titration of the liberated iodine, 48 mL of 0.25 N Na 2 S 2 O 3 was used to reach
the end point. The molarity of the household bleach solution is
A. A) 0.24 M
B. B) 0.48
C. C) 0.024 M
D. D) 0.96 M
Question 87
A compound contains three elements X, Y and Z. The oxidation number of X, Y and Z are
+3 , +5 and −2 respectively. The possible formula of the compound is
A. A) X 2 YZ
B. B) XYZ 3
C. C) X 3 (YZ 4 ) 3
D. D) X 2 Y 2 Z
Question 88
Assuming complete ionization, same moles of which of the following compounds will require the
least amount of acidified KMnO 4 for complete oxidation?
A. A) FeSO 4
B. B) FeSO 3
C. C) FeC 2 O 4
D. D) Fe(NO 2 ) 2
Question 89
25 mL of 0.08 N Mohr salt solution is oxidised by 20 mL of K 2 Cr 2 O 7 in acid medium. The

mass of Mohr's sallt present in 500 cc is
A. A) 15.68 g
B. B) 19.6 g
C. C) 39.68
D. D) 39.2 g
Question 90
The oxidation states of P atom in POCl 3 , H 2 PO 3 and H 4 P 2 O 6 , respectively, are
A. A) +5, +4, +4
B. B) +5, +5, +4
C. C) +4, +4, +5
D. D) +3, +4, +5

Q1 - B Q31 - B Q61 - C
Q2 - B Q32 - B Q62 - 5 (Num)
Q3 - D Q33 - 2.00 (Num) Q63 - A
Q4 - B Q34 - B Q64 - B
Q5 - A Q35 - B Q65 - 1 (Num)
Q6 - C Q36 - D Q66 - A
Q7 - D Q37 - B Q67 - B
Q8 - B Q38 - B Q68 - D
Q9 - C Q39 - D Q69 - C
Q10 - 19 (Num) Q40 - B Q70 - B
Q11 - B Q41 - C Q71 - C
Q12 - A Q42 - C Q72 - 63 (Num)
Q13 - A Q43 - A Q73 - A
Q14 - C Q44 - A Q74 - A
Q15 - A Q45 - D Q75 - 19 (Num)
Q16 - B Q46 - A Q76 - B
Q17 - D Q47 - A Q77 - C
Q18 - B Q48 - B Q78 - 17 (Num)
Q19 - A Q49 - C Q79 - D
Q20 - A Q50 - B Q80 - A
Q21 - D Q51 - C Q81 - B
Q22 - A Q52 - B Q82 - C
Q23 - C Q53 - D Q83 - A
Q24 - C Q54 - C Q84 - A
Q25 - A Q55 - A Q85 - A
Q26 - B Q56 - D Q86 - A
Q27 - B Q57 - A Q87 - C
Q28 - C Q58 - B Q88 - A
Q29 - B Q59 - D Q89 - A
Q30 - D Q60 - B Q90 - A
p Block Elements (Group 13 & 14)
Easy Questions
Question 1
Diborane reacts with ammonia under different conditions to give a variety of products. Which one
among the following is not formed in these reactions?
A. A) B 2 H 6 ⋅ 2NH 3
B. B) B 12 H 12
C. C) B 3 N 3 H 6
D. D) (BN) n
Question 2
What is the molecular formula of borazole?
A. A) B 2 H 6
B. B) B 6 N 6 H 6
C. C) B 3 N 3 H 6
D. D) B 3 N 3 H 3
Question 3
The liquefied metal expanding on solidification is
A. A) Ga
B. B) Al
C. C) Zn
D. D) Cu.
Question 4
The catenation tendency of C, Si and Ge is in the order Ge < Si < C. The bond energies (in
kJmol −1 ) of C − C, Si − Si and Ge − Ge bonds, respectively are
A. A) 167, 180, 348
B. B) 180, 167, 348
C. C) 348, 167, 180
D. D) 348, 180, 167
Question 5
Borax is used as a cleansing agent because on dissolving in water it gives
A. A) alkaline solution
B. B) acidic solution
C. C) bleaching solution
D. D) basic solution.
Question 6
Which of the following is similar to graphite
A. A) B
–
B. B) BN
C. C) B 2 H 6
D. D) B 4 C
Question 7
A group 13 element ' X ' reacts with chlorine gas to produce a compound XCl 3 . XCl 3 is
electron deficient and easily reacts with NH 3 to form Cl 3 X ← NH 3 adduct; however,
XCl 3 does not dimerize. X is:
A. A) B
B. B) Al
C. C) In
D. D) Ga
Question 8
Which of the following is the most basic oxide?
A. A) SeO 2
B. B) Al 2 O 3
C. C) Sb 2 O 3
D. D) Bi 2 O 3
Question 9
Among Al 2 O 3 , SiO 2 , P 2 O 3 and SO 2 , the correct order of acid strength is:
A. A) Al 2 O 3 < SiO 2 < SO 2 < P 2 O 3

B. B) SiO 2 < SO 2 < Al 2 O 3 < P 2 O 3
C. C) SO 2 < P 2 O 3 < SiO 2 < Al 2 O 3
D. D) Al 2 O 3 < SiO 2 < P 2 O 3 < SO 2
Question 10
Cyclo [18] carbon is an allotrope of carbon with molecular formula C 18 . It is a ring of 18 carbon
atoms, connected by single and triple bonds. The total number of triple bonds present in this
cyclocarbon are
A. A) 9
B. B) 10
C. C) 12
D. D) 6
Question 11
The correct statement about orthoboric acid is
A. A) It is a strong monobasic acid

B. B) It is not a proton donor, but a weak Lewis acid
C. C) It is a tribasic acid
D. D) It is harmful for eyes
Question 12
For making good quality mirrors, plates of float glass are used. These are obtained by floating
molten glass over a liquid metal which does not solidify before glass. The metal used can be
A. A) tin
B. B) sodium
C. C) magnesium
D. D) mercury
Question 13
Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF 3−
6 ion?
A. A) B
B. B) Al
C. C) Ga
D. D) In
Question 14
Graphite is a
A. A) molecular solid
B. B) covalent solid
C. C) ionic solid
D. D) metallic solid
Question 15
List-I List-II
(Compounds) (Molecular formula)
Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct

(a) Borax (i) NaBO 2
(b) Kernite (ii) Na 2 B 4 O 7 ⋅ 4H 2 O
(c) Orthoboric acid (iii) H 3 BO 3
(d) Borax bead (iv) Na 2 B 4 O 7 ⋅ 10H 2 O
answer from the options given below :
A. A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

B. B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
C. C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
D. D) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Question 16
Al 2 O 3 reacts with
A. A) only water
B. B) only acids
C. C) only alkalis
D. D) both acids and alkalis
Question 17
Hardest compound of boron is

A. A) magnesium boride
B. B) aluminium boride
C. C) boron nitride
D. D) boron carbide.
Question 18
Living in the atmosphere of CO is dangerous, because it
A. A) combines with O 2 present inside to form CO 2

B. B) reduces organic matter of tissues
C. C) combines with haemoglobin and makes it incapable to absorb oxygen
D. D) dries up the blood.
Question 19
Which of the following is stable (inert) to fire?
A. A) CCl 4
B. B) C 2 H 5 OH
C. C) CH 4
D. D) C 4 H 10
Question 20
Al 2 O 3 can be converted to anhydrous AlCl 3 by heating:

A. A) Al 2 O 3 with Cl 2 gas
B. B) Al 2 O 3 with HCl gas
C. C) Al 2 O 3 with NaCl in solid state
D. D) A mixture of Al 2 O 3 and carbon in dry Cl 2 gas
Question 21
Correct statements among regarding silicones are:
(a) They are polymers with hydrophobic character.
(b) They are biocompatible.
(c) In general, they have high thermal stability and low dielectric strength.
(d) Usually, they are resistant to oxidation and used as greases.

A. A) (a), (b) and (c) only
B. B) (a) and (b) only
C. C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
D. D) (a), (b) and (d) only
Question 22
The structure of diborane (B 2 H 6 ) contains
A. A) four 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-2e bonds

B. B) two 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds
C. C) two 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-3e bonds
D. D) four 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds
Question 23
Which of the following statements is not correct
A. A) Silicon is extensively used as a semiconductor

B. B) Carborundum is SiC
C. C) Silicon occurs in free state in nature
D. D) Mica contains the element silicon
Question 24
Thermite is a mixture of X parts of ferric oxide and Y parts of aluminium powder. X, Y

respectively are
A. A) 3, 1
B. B) 3, 2
C. C) 1, 1
D. D) 2, 3
Question 25
Assertion : Diamond is a bad conductor. Reason : Graphite is a good conductor.
assertion.
assertion.
Question 26
Ordinary glass is:
A. A) Sodium silicate
B. B) Calcium silicate
C. C) Sodium and calcium silicate
D. D) Mixed salt of Na and Ca
Question 27
Which of the oxide groups among the following cannot be reduced by carbon?
A. A) Cu 2 O, SnO 2
B. B) CaO, K 2 O
C. C) PbO, Fe 2 O 4
D. D) Fe 2 O 3 , ZnO
Question 28
Diamond is hard because
A. A) all the four valence electrons are bonded to each carbon atoms by covalent bonds
B. B) it is a giant molecule
C. C) it is made up of carbon atoms
D. D) it cannot be burnt
Question 29
Boron halides behave as Lewis acids because of their nature.
A. A) proton donor
B. B) covalent
C. C) electron deficient
D. D) ionising
Question 30
The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide are
A. A) One sigma, one pi

B. B) One sigma, two pi
C. C) Two sigma, one pi
D. D) Two sigma, two pi
Moderate Questions
Question 31
Select the element (M) whose trihalides cannot be hydrolysed to produce an ion of the form
[M(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+
A. A) Al
B. B) B
C. C) Ga
D. D) In
Question 32
The basic structural unit of silicates is
A. A) SiO
−
B. B) SiO 4
4−
C. C) SiO 2−
3
D. D) SiO 4
2−
Question 33
Assertion : Silicones are hydrophobic in nature. Reason : Si − O − Si linkages are moisture

sensitive.
A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
C. C) If assertion is true, but reason is false
D. D) Both assertion and reason are false statements.
Question 34
Identify the correct statement for B 2 H 6 from those given below.
(A) In B 2 H 6 , all B − H bonds are equivalent.
(B) In B 2 H 6 , there are four 3-centre- 2-electron bonds.
(C) B 2 H 6 is a Lewis acid.
(D) B 2 H 6 can be synthesized from both BF 3 and NaBH 4 .
(E) B 2 H 6 is a planar molecule.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A. A) (A) and (E) only
B. B) (B), (C) and (E) only
C. C) (C) and (D) only
D. D) (C) and (E) only
Question 35
The correct statement about silicone is
A. A) They are ketones with silyl group (SiH 3 ) similar to alkyl, (SiH 3 ) 2 CO
B. B) They are synthetic polymer containing repeated R 2 SiO 2 units.
C. C) They are formed by hydrolysis of R 2 SiCl 2 .
D. D) All of the above
Question 36
The gas produced by the passage of air over hot coke is
A. A) carbon monoxide
B. B) carbon dioxide
C. C) producer gas
D. D) water gas
Question 37
Which one of the following elements reacts with steam?
A. A) C
B. B) Ge
C. C) Si
D. D) Sn
Question 38
The order of acidic strength of boron trihalides
A. A) BF 3 < BCl 3 < BBr 3 < BI 3

B. B) BI 3 < BBr 3 < BCl 3 < BF 3
C. C) BCl 3 < BBr 3 < BI 3 < BF 3
D. D) BBr 3 < BCl 3 < BF 3 < BI 3
Question 39
Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. A) Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give blue solution
B. B) NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium silicate
C. C) Aluminium, reacts with excess NaOH to give Al(OH) 3
D. D) NaHCO 3 on heating gives Na 2 CO 3
Question 40
The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In and Tl increases in the sequence:
A. A) Ga < In < Al < Tl

B. B) Al < Ga < In < Tl
C. C) Tl < In < Ga < Al
D. D) In < Tl < Ga < Al
Question 41
Which of the following organic compounds could not be dried by anhydrous CaCl 2 ?
A. A) Ethanol
B. B) Benzene
C. C) Chloroform
D. D) Ethyl acetate
Question 42
Assertion : Stannous chloride gives grey precipitate with mercuric chloride, but stannic chloride
does not do so. Reason : Stannous chloride is a powerful oxidising agent which oxidises
mercuric chloride to metallic mercury.
assertion.
assertion.
Question 43
In BF 3′ the B − F bond length is 1.30Å, when BF 3 is allowed to be treated with Me 3 N, it

forms an adduct, Me 3 N → BF 3′ the bond length of B − F in the adduct is
A. A) greater than 1.30Å

B. B) smaller than 1.30Å
C. C) equal to 1.30Å
D. D) none of these.
Question 44
Which one of the following elements, when present as an impurity in silicon makes it a p-type
semiconductor?
A. A) As
B. B) P
C. C) In
D. D) Sb
Question 45
Which of these statements is not true ?
A. A) LiAlH4 is versatile reducing agent in organic synthesis.
B. B) NO+ is isoelectronic with O2
C. C) Boron is always covalent in its compounds
D. D) In aqueous solution, the Tl+ ion is much more stable than Tl (III)
Question 46
Identify the incorrect statement
A. A) CO is used in the manufacture of Urea

B. B) Quartz is used as a piezoelectric material
C. C) Silicones are used as electrical insulators
D. D) ZSM-5 is used to convert alcohols directly into gasoline
Question 47
The correct Lewis acid order for boron halides is
A. A) BBr 3 > BCl 3 > Bl 3 > BF 3

B. B) BI 3 > BF 3 > BBr 3 > BCl 3
C. C) BF 3 > BCl 3 > BBr 3 > Bl 3
D. D) BI 3 > BBr 3 > BCl 3 > BF 3
Question 48
Zeolites are shape selective structures because of

A. A) high adsorption capacity
B. B) three dimensional network of atoms
C. C) presence of aluminosilicates
D. D) honey comb like structure
Question 49
In reaction BF 3 + 3LiBH 4 → 3LiF + X; X is
A. A) B 4 H 10
B. B) B 2 H 6
C. C) BH 3
D. D) B 3 H 8
Question 50
Ge (II) compounds are powerful reducing agents whereas Pb (IV) compounds are strong
oxidants. It can be because
A. A) Pb is more electropositive than Ge.

B. B) ionisation potential of lead is less than that of Ge.
C. C) ionic radii of Pb and Pb are larger than that of Ge and Ge
2+ 4+ 2+ 4+
D. D) more pronounced inert pair effect in lead has.
Question 51
Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous
behaviour is that graphite
A. A) is an allotropic form of carbon

B. B) is a non-crystalline substance
C. C) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bond carbon atoms with
weak interplate bonds
D. D) has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers
Question 52
Which of the following does not contain silicon?
A. A) Kaoline
B. B) Agate
C. C) Ruby
D. D) Quartz
Question 53
The straight chain polymer is formed by
A. A) hydrolysis of (CH 3 ) 3 SiCl followed by condensation polymerisation

B. B) hydrolysis of CH 3 SiCl 3 followed by condensation polymerisation
C. C) hydrolysis of (CH 3 ) 4 Si by addition polymerisation
D. D) hydrolysis of (CH 3 ) 2 SiCl 2 followed by condensation polymerisation
Question 54
Which of the following reactions is not involved in serpeck's process of leaching of Al 2 O 3 from
white bauxite ore?
A. A) Al 2 O 3 + N 2 + 3C → 2AlN + 3CO
Δ
B. B) SiO 2 + C → Si + 2CO
Δ
C. C) Na 2 CO 3 + Al 2 O 3 → 2NaAlO 2 + CO 2
Δ
D. D) 2Al(OH) 3 → Al 2 O 3 + 3H 2 O
Δ
Question 55
Which element among the following cannot form an amphoteric oxide?
A. A) Al
B. B) Sn
C. C) Sb
D. D) P
Question 56
Heating an aqueous solution of aluminium chloride to dryness will give
A. A) AlCl 3
B. B) Al 2 Cl 6
C. C) Al 2 O 3
D. D) Al(OH)Cl 2
Question 57
The bond dissociation energy of B − F in BF 3 is 646 kJ mol −1 whereas that of C − F in CF 4

is 515 kJ mol −1 . The correct reason for higher B-F bond dissociation energy as compared to
that of C - F is :
A. A) smaller size of B-atom as compared to that of C-atom

B. B) stronger σ bond between B and F in BF 3 as compared to that between C and F in CF 4
C. C) significant pπ − pπ interaction between B and F in BF 3 whereas there is no possibility of
such interaction between C and F in CF 4 .
D. D) lower degree of pπ − pπ interaction between B and F in BF 3 than that between C and F
in CF 4 .
Question 58
SiCl 4 on hydrolysis forms ' X ' and HCl. Compound ' X ' loses water at 1000 ∘ C and gives ' Y
'. Compounds ' X ' and ' Y ' respectively are
A. A) H 2 SiCl 6 , SiO 2
B. B) H 4 SiO 4 , Si
C. C) SiO 2 , Si
D. D) H 4 SiO 4 , SiO 2
Question 59
AlCl 3 forms dimer in vapour phase but BCl 3 does not because
A. A) In Al there are vacant d orbitals in which it accommodates lone pair from chlorine atoms
B. B) In BCl 3 there is back bonding
C. C) There is hydrogen bonding in between two AlCl 3 molecules in vapour phase
Question 60
Which of the following statements is NOT true about polymorphism?
A. A) The existence of substance in more than one crystalline form.

B. B) Polymorphism occurring in element is called allotropy.
C. C) Polymorphic forms of a substance are formed under different conditions.
D. D) The crystal shape of polymorphic substances is identical to each other.
Hard Questions
Question 61
Assertion : SiF 6 2− is known but SiCl 6 2− is not. Reason : Size of fluorine is small and its lone
pair of electrons interacts with d-orbitals of Si strongly.
Question 62
When metal M is treated with NaOH, a white gelatinous precipitate X is obtained, which is
soluble in excess of NaOH. Compound X when heated strongly gives an oxide which is used in
chromatography as an adsorbent. The metal M is
A. A) Fe
B. B) Zn
C. C) Ca
D. D) Al
Question 63
Diborane reacts with ammonia under different conditions to give a variety of products. Which one
among the following is not formed in these reactions?
A. A) B 2 H 6 ⋅ 2NH 3
B. B) B 12 H 12
C. C) B 3 N 3 H 6
D. D) (BN) n
Question 64
Which one of the following elements reacts with steam?
A. A) C
B. B) Ge
C. C) Si
D. D) Sn
Question 65
Match List - I with List - II
List-II List-II
A N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) → 2 NH 3 (g) I Cu

B CO(g) + 3H 2 (g) → CH 4 (g) + H 2 O(g) II Cu /ZnO − Cr 2 O 3
C CO(g) + H 2 (g) → HCHO(g) III Fe x O y + K 2 O + Al 2 O 3
D CO(g) + 2H 2 (g) → CH 3 OH(g) IV Ni
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

A. A) (A) − (II), (B) − (IV), (C) − (I), (D) − (III)
B. B) (A) − (II), (B) − (I), (C) − (IV), (D) − (III)
C. C) (A) − (III), (B) − (IV), (C) − (I), (D) − (II)
D. D) (A) − (III), (B) − (I), (C) − (IV), (D) − (II)
Question 66
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. A) Moissan boron is amorphous

B. B) The reaction between boron and concentrated HNO 3 gives N 2 O
C. C) Amorphous boron on heating with oxygen forms B 2 O 3
D. D) Boron is a non-conductor of electricity
Question 67
Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristics for lead and tin respectively?
A. A) +2, +4
B. B) +4, +4
C. C) +2, +2
D. D) +4, +2
Question 68
The dissolution of Al(OH) 3 by a solution of NaOH results in the formation of:
A. A) [Al (H 2 O) 4 (OH) 2 ]
+
B. B) [Al (H 2 O) 3 (OH) 3 ]
C. C) [Al (H 2 O) 2 (OH) 4 ]
–
D. D) [Al (H 2 O) 6 (OH) 3 ]
Question 69
Al 2 O 3 was leached with alkali to get X. The solution of X on passing of gas Y, forms Z.
X, Y and Z respectively are
A. A) X = Al (OH) 3 , Y = CO 2′ , Z = Al 2 O 3
B. B) X = Na[Al (OH) 4 ], Y = SO 2 , Z = Al 2 O 3
C. C) X = Al (OH) 3 , Y = SO 2 , Z = Al 2 O 3 ⋅ xH 2 O
D. D) X = Na[Al (OH) 4 ], Y = CO 2 , Z = Al 2 O 3 , xH 2 O
Question 70
1000 ∘ C
Identify B in the following reaction H 4 SiO 4 ⟶ A ⟶ B + CO
Carbon
−H 2 O Δ
A. A) corundum
B. B) quartz
C. C) silica
D. D) carborundum
Question 71
Incorrect statement about Ge is
A. A) GeO 2 is weakly acidic

B. B) Ge(OH) 2 is amphoteric
C. C) GeCl 2 is more stable than GeCl 4
D. D) Ge − Ge bond energy is lesser than that of Si − Si.
Question 72
Identify the correct statements from the following.
i) Quartz is a piezoelectric material

ii) All group 14 tetrachlorides except CCl 4 are easily hydrolyzed in water.
iii) The C − C bond distance within the layer of graphite is 154 pm.
iv) SiO 2 is soluble in aqueous HCl solution.
A. A) i, iii
B. B) i, ii
C. C) iii, iv
D. D) ii, iv
Question 73
Statement I Boron always forms covalent bond Statement II The small size of B 3+ favours
formation of covalent bond.

I
Statement II
C. C) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
D. D) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
Question 74
All the compounds listed in Column I react with water. Match the result of the respective
reactions with the appropriate options listed in Column II.
A. A) (A) P,Q, (B) P,Q,R,T, (C) P,Q,T, (D) P

B. B) (A) P,Q, (B) P,Q,T, (C) P,Q,R,T, (D) Q
C. C) (A) P,S, (B) P,Q,R,T, (C) P,Q,T, (D) P
D. D) (A) P,S, (B) P,Q,T, (C) P,Q,R,T, (D) Q
Question 75
B(OH) 3 + NaOH ⇌ NaBO 2 + Na [B(OH) 4 ] + H 2 O. How can this reaction is made to

proceed in forward direction?
A. A) Addition of cis 1, 2 diol

B. B) Addition of borax
C. C) Addition of trans 1, 2 diol
D. D) Addition of Na 2 HPO 4
Question 76
The incorrect statement among the following is
A. A) C 60 is an allotropic form of carbon

B. B) O 3 is an allotropic form of oxygen
C. C) S 8 is only allotropic form of sulphur
D. D) red phosphorus is more stable in air than white phosphorus.
Question 77
When an inorganic compound X having 3c − 2e − as well as 2c − 2e − bonds react with NH3

gas at a certain temperature, gives a compound Y, isostructural with benzene. Compound X with
ammonia at a high temperature produces a substance Z, then
A. A) X is BH3, Y is B2N2H3, Z is inorganic Benzene
B. B) X is B2H6, Y is B3N3H6, Z is Boron nitride
C. C) X is borax, Y is B2O3, Z is inorganic Benzene
D. D) Reactions insufficient to predict
Question 78
Column i Column ii
A SO 2 I Photochemical smog
B PAN II Acid rain
C Smoke III Stratospheric pollutant
D CF 2 Cl 2 IV Particulate
A. A)
A B C D
IV III I II
B. B)
A B C D
III I IV II
C. C)
A B C D
IV I III II
D. D)
A B C D
II I IV III
Question 79
When borax is heated with CoO on a platinum loop, blue coloured bead formed is largely due to
A. A) B 2 O 3
B. B) Co (BO 2 ) 2
C. C) CoB 4 O 7
D. D) Co[B 4 O 5 (OH) 4 ]
Question 80
What is Z in the following reactions?
A. A) (CH 3 )BH 2
B. B) (CH 3 ) 4 B 2 H 2
C. C) (CH 3 ) 3 B 2 H 3
D. D) (CH 3 ) 6 B 2

Q1 - B Q28 - A Q55 - D
Q2 - D Q29 - C Q56 - C
Q3 - A Q30 - B Q57 - C
Q4 - A Q31 - B Q58 - D
Q5 - A Q32 - B Q59 - A
Q6 - B Q33 - C Q60 - D
Q7 - A Q34 - C Q61 - A
Q8 - D Q35 - C Q62 - D
Q9 - D Q36 - C Q63 - B
Q10 - A Q37 - D Q64 - D
Q11 - B Q38 - A Q65 - C
Q12 - D Q39 - C Q66 - B
Q13 - A Q40 - B Q67 - A
Q14 - B Q41 - A Q68 - C
Q15 - A Q42 - C Q69 - D
Q16 - D Q43 - A Q70 - C
Q17 - D Q44 - C Q71 - C
Q18 - C Q45 - B Q72 - B
Q19 - A Q46 - A Q73 - A
Q20 - D Q47 - D Q74 - C
Q21 - C Q48 - D Q75 - A
Q22 - A Q49 - B Q76 - C
Q23 - C Q50 - D Q77 - B
Q24 - A Q51 - C Q78 - D
Q25 - B Q52 - C Q79 - B
Q26 - A Q53 - D Q80 - B
Q27 - B Q54 - C
General Organic Chemistry

Easy Questions
Question 1
While assigning R and S configuration, the correct order of priority of groups attached to the
chiral carbon atom is
A. A) CONH 2 > COCH 3 > CH 2 OH > CHO

B. B) CONH 2 > COCH 3 > CHO > CH 2 OH
C. C) COCH 3 > CONH 2 > CHO > CH 2 OH
D. D) CHO > CH 2 OH > COCH 3 > CONH 3
Question 2
The IUPAC name of the compound
A. A) 1-bromo-1-chloro-4, 4 '-bicyclobutane
B. B) 4 -(4'-chlorocyclobutyl)-1-bromocyclobutane
C. C) 3 -bromo- 3 '-chloro-1, 1 '-bicyclobutane
D. D) 4-(4'-bromocyclobutyl)-1-chlorocyclo butane
Question 3
Natalite is a mixture of
A. A) Acetic acid and diethyl ether

B. B) Ethyl bromide and diethyl ether
C. C) Ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
D. D) Diethyl ether and ethyl alcohol
Question 4
Which of the following is most stable carbocation?
A. A) CH +
3
+
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 C H 2
+
C. C) CH 3 C HCH 3
D. D)
Question 5
An endothermic reaction with high activation energy for the forward reaction is given by the
diagram.
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 6
The number of enantiomers of the compound CH 3 CHBrCHBrCOOH is
A. A) 0
B. B) 1
C. C) 3
D. D) 4
Question 7
Correct pair of compounds which gives blue colouration/precipitate and white precipitate,
respectively, when their Lassaigne's test is separately done is
A. A) NH- NH 2 , HCl and CICH, COOH

B. B) NH 2 CSNH 2 and PhCH 2 Cl
C. C) NH 2 NH 2 , COOH and NH 2 CONH 2
D. D)
Question 8
The intermediate formed during the addition of HCl to propene in the presence of peroxide is
A. A) CH 3 CHCH 2 CI
B. B) CH 2 CHCH 3
C. C) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2
D. D) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2
Question 9
Which of the following is a nucleophile?
A. A) BH 3
B. B) NH 3
C. C) AlCl 3
D. D) All of these
Question 10
The IUPAC name of the compound CH 3 CH = CHC ≡ CH is
A. A) pent-4-yn-2-ene
B. B) pent-3-en-1-yne
C. C) pent-2-en-4-yne
D. D) pent-1-yn-3-ene
Question 11
The addition of HBr to 1-butene gives a mixture of products x, y and z
The mixture consists of
A. A) x and y as major and z as minor products

B. B) y as major, x and z as minor products
C. C) y as minor, x and z as major products
D. D) x and y as minor and z as major products
Question 12
Identify, which of the below does not possess any element of symmetry?
A. A) (+)- Tartaric acid

B. B) Carbon tetrachloride
C. C) Methane
D. D) Mesotartatric acid
Question 13
Friedel-Craft's reaction using MeCl and anhydrous AlCl 3 will take place most efficiently with
A. A) benzene
B. B) nitrobenzene
C. C) acetophenone
D. D) toluene
Question 14
\text { The geometrical isomerism is shown by }
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 15
What is IUPAC name of following compound?
A. A) 3-Carboxy-4-methyl benzoic acid

B. B) 5-Carboxy-4-methyl benzoic acid
C. C) 3-Formyl-6-methyl benzoic acid
D. D) 5-Formyl-2-methyl benzoic acid
Question 16
The correct order of acid strength of the following substituted phenols in water at 28 ∘ C is
A. A) p-nitrophenol < p-fluorophenol < p-chlorophenol

B. B) p-chlorophenol < p-fluorophenol < p-nitrophenol
C. C) p-fluorophenol < p-chlorophenol < p-nitrophenol
D. D) p-flurophenol < p-nitrophenol < p-chlorophenol
Question 17
The compound having only primary hydrogen atoms is
A. A) isobutene
B. B) 2,3-dimethylbutene
C. C) cyclohexane
D. D) propanol
Question 18
The exact order of acidity of the compounds p-nitrophenol, acetic acid, acetylene and ethanol is
A. A) p-nitrophenol < acetic acid < acetylene < ethanol

B. B) acetic acid < p− nitrophenol < acetylene < ethanol
C. C) acetylene < p-nitrophenol < ethanol < acetic acid
D. D) acetylene < ethanol < p-nitrophenol < acetic acid
Question 19
Which of the following order of basic strength is correct?
A. A) NH 3 < NH 2 OH < HN 3 < NH 2 − NH 2

B. B) NH 2 OH < HN 3 < NH 2 − NH 2 < NH 3
C. C) HN 3 < NH 3 < NH 2 OH < NH 2 − NH 2
D. D) HN 3 < NH 2 OH < NH 2 − NH 2 < NH 3
Question 20
The following two compounds are
A. A) enantiomers
B. B) diastereomers
C. C) identical
D. D) epimers
Question 21
Liebig's method is used for the estimation of
A. A) Nitrogen
B. B) Sulphur
C. C) Carbon and hydrogen
D. D) Halogens
Question 22
Which of the following compound is not aromatic?
A. A) 1,3 -cyclobutene
B. B) Pyridine
C. C) Furane
D. D) Thiophene
Question 23
Under identical conditions, the S N 1 reaction will occur most efficiently with
A. A) tert-butyl chloride
B. B) 1 -chlorobutane
C. C) 2 -methyl- 1 -chloropropane
D. D) 2 -chlorobutane
Question 24
The concentration of an organic compound in chloroform is 6.15 g per 100 mL of solution. A

portion of this solution in a 5 cm polarimeter tube causes an observed rotation of −1.2 ∘ . What is
the specific rotation of the compound?
A. A) +12 ∘
B. B) −3.9 ∘
C. C) −39 ∘
D. D) +61.5 ∘
Question 25
Among the following the strongest acid is
A. A) CH 3 COOH
B. B) C 6 H 5 COOH
C. C) m − CH 3 OC 6 H 4 COOH
D. D) p − CH 3 OC 6 H 4 COOH.
Question 26
Among the following the strongest nucleophile is
A. A) C 2 H 5 SH
B. B) CH 3 COO −
C. C) CH 3 NH 2
D. D) NCCH 2
−
Question 27
The optically active tartaric acid is named as D - (+) - tartaric acid because it has a positive
A. A) optical rotation and is drived from D - glucose

B. B) pH in organic solvent
C. C) optical rotation and is derived from D - (+) glyceraldehyde
D. D) optical rotation when substituted by deuterium
Question 28
The stability of Me C = CH 2 is more than that of MeCH 2 CH = CH 2 due to
A. A) inductive effect of the Me groups

B. B) resonance effect of the Me groups
C. C) hyperconjugative effect of the Me groups
D. D) resonance as well as inductive effect of the Me groups
Question 29
Which one of the following contain isopropyl group?
A. A) 2,2,3,3 -Tetramethylpentane
B. B) 2 -Methylpentane
C. C) 2,2,3 -Trimethylpentane
D. D) 3,3 -Dimethylpentane
Question 30
Select the correct statements(s).
A. A) LiAlH 4 reduces methyl cyanide to methyl amine

B. B) Alkane nitrile has electrophilic as well as nucleophilic centres
C. C) saponification is a reversible reaction
D. D) Alkaline hydrolysis of methane nitrile forms methanoic acids
Moderate Questions
Question 31
In Lassaigne's extract of organic compound both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives
blood-red colour with Fe 3+ due to the formation of
A. A) [Fe(SCN)]
2+
B. B) Fe 4 [Fe (CN) 6 ] 3 . xH 2 O
C. C) NaSCN
D. D) [Fe (CN) 5 NOS]
4−
Question 32
Nitrogen detection in an organic compound is carried out by Lassaigne's test. The blue colour
formed corresponds to which of the following formulae?
A. A) Fe 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 2
B. B) Fe 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3
C. C) Fe 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 2
D. D) Fe 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3
Question 33
In Dumas method, 0.3 g of an organic compound gave 45 mL of nitrogen at STP. The

percentage of nitrogen is
A. A) 16.9
B. B) 18.7
C. C) 23.2
D. D) 29.6
Question 34
In which of the following, ortho/para substitution by an electrophile is very facile?
A. A) Nitrobenzene
B. B) Phenol
C. C) Benzoic acid
D. D) Acetophenone
Question 35
Which one of the following methods is suitable to separate a mixture of n-pentane and toluene?
A. A) Steam distillation
B. B) Simple distillation
C. C) Sublimation
D. D) Vacuum distillation
Question 36
A. A) 1 4 3 5
B. B) 2 4 1 5
C. C) 5 1 4 2
D. D) 5 1 3 2
Question 37
0.16 g of an organic compound containing sulphur produces 0.233 g of BaSO 4 . Percentage of

sulphur in the compound is
A. A) 20
B. B) 80
C. C) 50
D. D) 10
Question 38
The functional groups present in 'salol' are
A. A) −NH 2 and −OR

B. B) OH and −COR
C. C) −NH 2 and −COOH
D. D) −OH and −COOR
Question 39
Which of the following compound does not exhibit geometrical Isomerism?
A. A) 2-Butene
B. B) 3-Hexene
C. C) But-2-enal
D. D) Styrene
Question 40
The correct order of acidity of the following is
A. A) III > II > I

B. B) II > III > I
C. C) I > II > III
D. D) III > I > II
Question 41
The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula CH ≡ C − CH = CH 2 is -
A. A) 1-butene-3-yne
B. B) 3-buten-1-yne
C. C) 1-butyn-3-ene
D. D) but-1-yn-3-ene
Question 42
Nitration of phenyl benzoate yields the product
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 43
Among the following four compounds A. Phenol B. Methyl phenol C. meta-nitrophenol D. para
nitrophenol the acidity order is
A. A) D > C > A > B

B. B) C > D > A > B
C. C) A > D > C > B
D. D) B > A > C > D
Question 44
In the following reaction product ' P ' is:
A. A) RCH 2 OH
B. B) RCOOH
C. C) RCHO
D. D) RCH 3
Question 45
Which of the following compound is most basic?

A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 46
Which of the following compound(s) has ' Z ' configuration?
A. A) (i) only
B. B) (ii) only
C. C) (iii) only
D. D) (i) and (iii)
Question 47
Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because:

A. A) In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to m-position.
B. B) In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive.
C. C) In spite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.
D. D) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.
Question 48
A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which
of the following?
A. A) +R effect of – CH 3 groups
B. B) –R effect of – CH 3 groups
C. C) Hyperconjugation
D. D) –I effect of – CH 3 groups
Question 49
Identify 'acetaldoxime'
A. A) CH 3 CH = N − NH 2
B. B) CH 3 CH = N − OH
C. C) (CH 3 ) 2 C = N − OH
D. D) CH 2 ≡ N − OH
Question 50
A. A) 1 4 3 5
B. B) 2 4 1 5
C. C) 5 1 4 2
D. D) 5 1 3 2
Question 51
The correct order of the stability of the following compounds based on hyperconjugation is
A. A) IV > III > II > I
B. B) IV > II > I > III
C. C) IV > II > III > I
D. D) IV > I > III > II
Question 52
Identify 'acetaldoxime'
A. A) CH 3 CH = N − NH 2
B. B) CH 3 CH = N − OH
C. C) (CH 3 ) 2 C = N − OH
D. D) CH 2 ≡ N − OH
Question 53
The number of possible aromatic benzenoid isomers for C 6 H 4 Cl 2 are
A. A) 2
B. B) 3
C. C) 4
D. D) 5
Question 54
Tropolone is
A. A) benzenoid and aromatic

B. B) non-benzenoid and not aromatic
C. C) non-benzenoid and aromatic
D. D) non-benzenoid and anti-aromatic
Question 55
Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 56
In phosphorous estimation, 0.31 g of an organic compound gave 0.444 g of magnesium
pyrophosphate (molar mass = 222 g mol ). The percentage of phosphorous in the compound
−1
is
A. A) 40
B. B) 30
C. C) 60
D. D) 20
Question 57
Which hormone tends to increase the blood glucose level in human?
A. A) Insulin
B. B) Glucagon
C. C) Epinephrine
D. D) Estrogen
Question 58
According to Cahn-Ingold-Prelog sequence rules, the correct order of priority for the given groups
is
A. A) −COOH > −CH 2 OH > −OH > −CHO

B. B) −COOH > −CHO > −CH 2 OH > −OH
C. C) Ni/140 ∘ C and Na/NH 3 (liq. )
D. D) Pd/BaSO 4 + H 2 and Na/NH 3 (liq.)
Question 59
Total number of aromatic compounds from below is
A. A) 2
B. B) 3
C. C) 4
D. D) 5
Question 60
Name of the compound given below is:

A. A) 4-ethyl-3-methyloctane
B. B) 3-methyl-4-ethyloctane
C. C) 2,3-diethylheptane
D. D) 5-ethyl-6-methyloctane
Hard Questions
Question 61
The rates of reaction of NaOH with:
follow the order:-
A. A) II > I > III

B. B) II > III > I
C. C) I > III > II
D. D) III > II > I
Question 62
Among the following, I

II
III
IV
V
the antiaromatic compounds are
A. A) I and IV
B. B) III and V
C. C) II and V
D. D) I and III
Question 63
If the reaction sequence given below is carried out with 15 moles of acetylene, the amount of the
product D formed (in g) is
The yields of A, B, C and D are given in parentheses.
[Given: Atomic mass of H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Cl = 35]
Roundoff answer to nearest integer.
Question 64
KI in acetone, undergoes SN2 reaction with each of P, Q, R and S. The rates of the reaction vary
as
A. A) P > Q > R > S

B. B) S > P > R > Q
C. C) P > R > Q > S
D. D) R > P > S > Q
Question 65
Paragraph: P and Q are isomers of dicarboxylic acid C 4 H 4 O 4 . Both decolorize Br 2 /H 2 O. On

heating, P forms the cyclic anhydride. Upon treatment with dilute alkaline KMnO 4 , P as well
as Q could produce one or more than one from S, T and U .
Question: Compounds formed from P and Q are, respectively
A. A) Optically active S and optically active pair (T,U)

B. B) Optically inactive S and optically inactive pair (T,U)
C. C) Optically active pair (T,U) and optically active S
D. D) Optically inactive pair (T,U) and optically inactive S
Question 66
Match the chemical substance in Column I with type of polymers/type of bonds in Column II.
Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 × 4 matrix given in the ORS.
A. A) A-p, r; B-p, q; C-p; D-q, r

B. B) A-p, s; B-p; C-p, s; D-q, r
C. C) A-p, q, s; B-q; C-r, s, s; D-r
D. D) A-r, s; B-q; C-p; D-p, q
Question 67
The most stable conformation of 2,3 -dibromobutane is −
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 68
The maximum number of isomeric ethers with the molecular formula C 4 H 10 O is
A. A) 2
B. B) 3
C. C) 4
D. D) 5
Question 69
The absolute configurations of the following compounds respectively, are
A. A) R and R
B. B) S and S
C. C) R and S
D. D) S and R
Question 70
The lower stability of ethyl anion compared to methyl anion and the higher stability of ethyl
radical compared to methyl radical, respectively, are due to
A. A) +I -effect of the methyl group in ethyl anion, σ → p -orbital conjugation in ethyl radical
B. B) −I -effect of the methyl group in ethyl anion and σ → σ * conjugation in ethyl radical
C. C) +I effect of the methyl group in both cases
D. D) +I - effect of the methyl group in ethyl anion and σ → σ * conjugation in ethyl radical
Question 71
Which of the following biphenyls is optically active?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 72
Amongst the following, the total number of compounds soluble in aqueous NaOH is
Question 73
In the following reaction, compound Q is obtained from compound P via an ionic intermediate.
What is the degree of unsaturation of Q?

Question 74
The IUPAC name of the following compound, is
A. A) 4-bromo-3-cyanophenol
B. B) 2-bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile
C. C) 2-cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene
D. D) 6-bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile
Question 75
The IUPAC name for the following compound is
A. A) 2 -propylhex-1-ene
B. B) 2 -butylpent-1-ene
C. C) 2-propyl-2- butylethene
D. D) Propy1-1-butylethene
Question 76
The total number of cyclic isomers possible for a hydrocarbon with the molecular formula C 4 H 6
is
Question 77
The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenol is:
A. A) Sublimation
B. B) Chromatography
C. C) Crystallisation
D. D) Steam distillation
Question 78
Among formic acid, acetic acid, propanoic acid and phenol, the strongest acid in water is
A. A) formic acid
B. B) acetic acid
C. C) propanoic acid
D. D) phenol
Question 79
The higher stabilities of tert-butyl cation over isopropyl cation and trans-2- butene over propene,
respectively, are due to orbital interactions involving
A. A) σ → π and σ → π *
B. B) σ → vacant p and σ → π
C. C) σ → σ * and σ → π
D. D) σ → vacant p and σ → π *
Question 80
The amonia evolved from 2 g of a compound in Kjeldahl's estimation of nitrogen neutralizes

10 mL of 2M H 2 SO 4 solution. The weight percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
A. A) 28
B. B) 14
C. C) 56
D. D) 7
Question 81
The chlorine atom of the following compound
that reacts most readily with AgNO 3 to give a precipitate is
A. A) Cl
a
B. B) Cl
b
C. C) Cl
D. D) Cl d
Question 82
Among
the compound which is not aromatic is
A. A) i
B. B) ii
C. C) iii
D. D) iv
Question 83
The total number(s) of stable conformers with non-zero dipole moment for the following
compound is(are)
Question 84
The order of S N 1 reactivity in aqueous acetic acid solution for the compounds
is
A. A) 1 > 2 > 3
B. B) 1 > 3 > 2
C. C) 3 > 2 > 1
D. D) 3 > 1 > 2
Question 85
Statement I p-hydroxybenzoic acid has a lower boiling point than o-hydroxybenzoic acid.
Statement II o-hydroxybenzoic acid has intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
I
Statement I
C. C) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
D. D) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
Question 86
Among the following.
the compounds which can exhibit optical. activity are :
A. A) only II, IV and V

B. B) only IV and V
C. C) only I, II and V
D. D) only I, II and IV
Question 87
The number of resonance structures for N is
Question 88
Among the following, the number of aromatic compound (s) is/are
Question 89
Two possible stereoisomers for
are
A. A) enantiomers
B. B) diastereomers
C. C) conformers
D. D) rotamers
Question 90
The Fischer projection of D-erythrose is shown below.
D-Erythrose and its isomers are listed as P, Q, R, and S in Column I. Choose the correct
relationship of P, Q, R, and S with D-erythrose from Column II.
Column - I Column -II

P. 1. Diastereomer
Q. 2. Identical
R. 3. Enantiomer
S.
A. A) P → 2, Q → 3, R → 2, S → 2
B. B) P → 3, Q → 1, R → 1, S → 2
C. C) P → 2, Q → 1, R → 1, S → 3
D. D) P → 2, Q → 3, R → 3, S → 1

Q1 - B Q31 - A Q61 - C
Q2 - C Q32 - B Q62 - B
Q3 - D Q33 - B Q63 - 136 (Num)
Q4 - D Q34 - B Q64 - B
Q5 - C Q35 - B Q65 - B
Q6 - D Q36 - B Q66 - C
Q7 - D Q37 - A Q67 - C
Q8 - B Q38 - D Q68 - B
Q9 - B Q39 - D Q69 - D
Q10 - B Q40 - C Q70 - A
Q11 - A Q41 - A Q71 - B
Q12 - A Q42 - C Q72 - 4 (Num)
Q13 - D Q43 - A Q73 - 18 (Num)
Q14 - D Q44 - C Q74 - B
Q15 - D Q45 - B Q75 - A
Q16 - C Q46 - D Q76 - 5 (Num)
Q17 - A Q47 - D Q77 - D
Q18 - D Q48 - C Q78 - A
Q19 - B Q49 - B Q79 - D
Q20 - A Q50 - B Q80 - A
Q21 - C Q51 - A Q81 - A
Q22 - A Q52 - B Q82 - B
Q23 - A Q53 - B Q83 - 3 (Num)
Q24 - C Q54 - C Q84 - C
Q25 - C Q55 - C Q85 - D
Q26 - A Q56 - A Q86 - A
Q27 - C Q57 - B Q87 - 9 (Num)
Q28 - C Q58 - D Q88 - 5 (Num)
Q29 - B Q59 - B Q89 - A
Q30 - B Q60 - A Q90 - C
Hydrocarbons
Easy Questions
Question 1
Which of the following compounds cannot be prepared singly by the Wurtz reaction?
A. A) C 2 H 6
B. B) (CH 3 ) 2 CHCH 3
C. C) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
D. D) All of the above can be prepared
Question 2
The chemicals and the reaction conditions required for the preparation of ethane are
A. A) C 2 H 5 I, Zn − Cu, C 2 H 5 OH
B. B) CH 3 Cl, Na, H 2 O
C. C) KOOC − CH = CH − COOK, electrolysis
D. D) CH 3 CO 2 Na, NaOH, CaO, Δ
Question 3
The reagent used in Clemmensen's reduction is
A. A) conc. H 2 SO 4
B. B) Zn − Hg conc. HCl
C. C) aqKOH
D. D) alc. KOH
Question 4
In the following reaction, \mathrm{C}_{6} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{CH}_{2} \mathrm{Br}

\frac{\text { (i) } \mathrm{Mg}, \text { Ether }}{\text { (ii) } \mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{O}^{+}}
\mathrm{X} the product ' X ′ is
A. A) C 6 H 5 CH 2 OCH 2 C 6 H 5
B. B) C 6 H 5 CH 2 OH
C. C) C 6 H 5 CH 3 ,
D. D) C 6 H 5 CH 2 CH 2 C 6 H 5
Question 5
The electrophile involved in the sulphonation of benzene is
A. A) SO 3
+
B. B) SO 2−
3
C. C) H +
3O
D. D) SO 3
Question 6
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 7
Two aromatic compounds having formula C 7 H 8 O which are easily identifiable by FeCl 3 solution
test (violet colouration) are
A. A) o- cresol and benzyl alcohol

B. B) m-cresol and p-cresol
C. C) o-cresol and p-cresol
D. D) methyl phenyl ether and benzyl alcohol
Question 8
Assertion : Trans-2-butene on reaction with Br 2 gives meso-2,3-dibromobutane. Reason : The

reaction involves syn-addition of bromine.
A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
Question 9
Among the following the most reactive towards alcoholic KOH is
A. A) CH 2 = CHBr
B. B) CH 3 COCH 2 CH 2 Br
C. C) CH 3 CH 2 Br
D. D) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Br.
Question 10
One mole of alkene X on ozonolysis gave one mole of acetaldehyde and one mole of acetone.
–
The IUPAC name of X is
–
A. A) 2-methyl-2-butene
B. B) 2-methyl-1-butene
C. C) 2-butene
D. D) 1-butene
Question 11
CH 3 CH = CHCH 3 + CHCl 3 + t − BuOK → A. A is

A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 12
The olefin, which on ozonolysis give CH 3 CH 2 CHO and CH 3 CHO is
A. A) But-1-ene
B. B) But-2-ene
C. C) Pent-1-ene
D. D) Pent-2-ene
Question 13
During the dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with conc. H 2 SO 4 , the initiating step is
A. A) elimination of water
B. B) protonation of an alcohol molecule
C. C) formation of an ester
D. D) formation of carbocation.
Question 14
What will be the product in the following reaction?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 15
The correct sequence of reactions to convert p-nitrophenol into quinol involves
A. A) reduction, diazotization and hydrolysis

B. B) hydrolysis, diazotization and reduction
C. C) hydrolysis, reduction and diazotization
D. D) diazotization, reduction and hydrolysis
Question 16
The organic compound obtained during the addition of HBr to propene in the presence of
peroxide catalyst is
A. A) 2-bromopropane
B. B) 2-bromopropene
C. C) 1-bromopropane
D. D) 1-bromopropene
Question 17
The false statement regarding alkane is
A. A) this does not perform polymerization reaction

B. B) this does not gives elimination reaction
C. C) it does not disappear the colour of dilute KMnO 4 solution
D. D) it does not decolourise bromine water
Question 18
The decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution of the following compounds is
A. A) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2

B. B) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2
C. C) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3
D. D) 1 > 4 > 3 > 2
Question 19
The reagent used in the Wolff-Kishner reduction is
A. A) H 2 N − NH 2 /KOH
B. B) H 2 /Ni
C. C) Sn/HCl
D. D) LiAlH 4
Question 20
Which one of the following compounds will react with methyl magnesium iodide?
A. A) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 21
In the Grignard reaction, which metal forms an organometallic bond?
A. A) Sodium
B. B) Titanium
C. C) Magnesium
D. D) Palladium
Question 22
By passing excess Cl 2 (g) in boiling toluene, which one of the following compounds is
exclusively formed?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 23
anhy ⋅AlCl 3
CH 2 = CH 2 + HCl ⟶ A + 2[H]
Identify ' B ' in the following reaction Zn−Cu
⟶ B + HCl
C 2 H 5 OH
A. A) CH 4
B. B) C 2 H 6
C. C) C 2 H 5 Cl
D. D) C 2 H 5 OH
Question 24
The function of AlCl 3 in Friedel-Craft's reaction is
A. A) to absorb HCl
B. B) to absorb water
C. C) to produce nucleophile
D. D) to produce electrophile
Question 25
675 K
CH 3 CH 3 + HNO 3 ⟶
A. A) CH 3 CH 2 NO 2
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 NO 2 + CH 3 NO 2
C. C) 2CH 3 NO 2
D. D) CH 2 = CH 2
Question 26
The reaction conditions used for converting 1, 2-dibromo ethane to ethylene are
A. A) Zn, alcohol, Δ
B. B) KOH, alcohol, Δ
C. C) KOH, water, Δ
D. D) Na, alcohol, Δ
Question 27
Ethelene can be separated from acetylene by passing the mixture through :
A. A) fuming H 2 SO 4
B. B) pyrogallol
C. C) ammoniacal Cu 2 Cl 2
D. D) Charcoal powder
Question 28
The number of double bonds in gammexane is:

A. A) 0
B. B) 1
C. C) 2
D. D) 3
Question 29
In Clemmensen's reduction, the catalyst used is
A. A) Zn − Hg+ Conc HCl

B. B) NH 2 NH 2 + C 2 H 5 ONa
C. C) PdCl 2 /H 2 O
D. D) (C 6 H 5 ) 3 P + C 2 H 5 ONa
Question 30
Name of following reaction is
A. A) Claisen Condensation
B. B) Diel's Alder reaction
C. C) Dieckmann cyclisation
D. D) Michael addition reaction
Moderate Questions
Question 31
2, 2-dichloropropane ⟶ A B, B is
Aq.KOH Clemmensen
. reduction
A. A) propanol
B. B) propene
C. C) propane
D. D) ethane
Question 32
The ease of dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halide with alcoholic KOH is
A. A) 3 ∘ < 2 ∘ < 1 ∘
B. B) 3 ∘ > 2 ∘ > 1 ∘
C. C) 3 ∘ < 2 ∘ > 1 ∘
D. D) 3 ∘ > 2 ∘ < 1 ∘
Question 33
Acetylene can be obtained by the reaction?

Electrolysis
A. A) HCOOK
− →
B. B) CHI 3 + Ag
Δ
− →
Conc.H 2 SO 4
C. C) CH 3 CH 2 OH
− →
443 K
D. D) Be 2 C + H 2 O →
Question 34
Which of the following gives propyne on hydrolysis?
A. A) Al 4 C 3
B. B) Mg 2 C 3
C. C) B 4 C
D. D) La 4 C 3
Question 35
∝ -butylene when subjected to hydroboration oxidation reaction, yields

A. A) iso-butyl alcohol
B. B) sec-butyl alcohol
C. C) n -butyl alcohol
D. D) tert-butyl alcohol
Question 36
In the following reaction, A and B respectively are A ⟶ C 2 H 5 Br ⟶ A

HBr B
A. A) C 2 H 4 and alcoholic KOH/Δ

B. B) C 2 H 5 Cl and aqueous KOH/Δ
C. C) C 2 H 2 and PBr 3
D. D) None of these
Question 37
Best reagent for nuclear iodination of aromatic compounds is
A. A) KI/CH 3 COCH 3
B. B) I 2 /CH 3 CN
C. C) KI/CH 3 COOH
D. D) I 2 /HNO 3
Question 38
The chemicals used for preparing acetophenone are (A) C 6 H 6 (B) CH 3 COCH 3 (C)
CH 3 COCl (D) Anhydrous AlCl 3
A. A) A, B, C
B. B) B, C, D
C. C) A, B, D
D. D) A, C, D
Question 39
Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The
product so obtained is diazotised and then heated with cuprous bromide. The reaction mixture so
formed contains
A. A) mixture of o - and m-bromotoluenes

B. B) mixture of o - and p-bromotoluenes
C. C) mixture of o - and p-dibromobenzenes
D. D) mixture of o - and p-bromoanilines.
Question 40
The chemicals used for preparing acetophenone are (A) C 6 H 6 (B) CH 3 COCH 3 (C)
CH 3 COCl (D) Anhydrous AlCl 3
A. A) A, B, C
B. B) B, C, D
C. C) A, B, D
D. D) A, C, D
Question 41
A. A)
B. B)
C. C) Both (a) and (b)

D. D) None is correct
Question 42
In which case the NO 2 will attack at the meta position
A. A) I, II, III
B. B) II, IV
C. C) II and III only
D. D) II only
Question 43
Reaction of benzene with Me 3 CCOCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl 3 gives
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 44
The reaction conditions used for converting 1, 2-dibromo ethane to ethylene are
A. A) Zn, alcohol, Δ
B. B) KOH, alcohol, Δ
C. C) KOH, water, Δ
D. D) Na, alcohol, Δ
Question 45
What type of hybridisation is present in carbocation formed during the alkaline hydrolysis of 1-
bromo -1- phenyl ethane?
A. A) SP 2
B. B) SP
C. C) d 2 SP 3
D. D) SP 3
Question 46
Al(c) KOH
D. The product D in the above sequence of
Dil. HCl PCl 5
CH 3 − CN ⟶ A ⟶ B ⟶ C ⟶
LiAlH 4
reactions is
A. A) acetaldehyde
B. B) ethyne
C. C) ethene
D. D) acetyl chloride
Question 47
When acetylene is passed through red hot iron tube, compound X is formed. Which one of the
following reactions will yield X as the major product?
A. A) C 6 H 5 OH + Zn
Distillation
⟶
B. B) C 6 H 5 SO 3 H + NaHCO 3 ⟶
C. C) C 6 H 12 + 3H 2 ⟶
Ni
D. D) C 6 H 5 Cl + H 2 O ⟶
Δ
Question 48
The product obtained is/are
A. A) o-product
B. B) m-product
C. C) o - and p-products
D. D) o−, m - and p-products.
Question 49
In a set of reactions acetic acid yielded a product D. \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COOH}

\stackrel{\mathrm{SOCl}_{2}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{A} \stackrel{\text { Berzene }}{\text { anhy.
AlCl }_{3}} \mathrm{~B} \stackrel{\text { HCN }}{\longrightarrow}\mathrm{C}
\stackrel{\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{D} The structure of D would be
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 50
Among the following compounds

2,3 - dimethylhexane is
A. A) i
B. B) ii
C. C) iii
D. D) iv
Question 51
CH 3 − CH 2 − OH ⟶ CH 3 − CH 2 − Cl ⟶ CH 2 = CH 2 ⋅ A and B in this sequence of

A B
reactions are
A. A) KOH(aq) and PCl 5

B. B) PCl 5 and KOH(aq)
C. C) Cl 2 and KOH( alc )
D. D) PCl 5 and KOH( alc )
Question 52
[4] Aqueous solution of an organic compound, ' A ' on electrolysis liberates acetylene and CO 2
at anode. ' A ' is
A. A) potassium acetate
B. B) potassium succinate
C. C) potassium citrate
D. D) potassium maleate
Question 53
The hydrolysis of optically active 2-bromobutane with aqueous NaOH result in the formation of
A. A) (+) butan-2-ol
B. B) (-) butan-2-ol
C. C) ( ± ) butan-1-ol
D. D) ( ± ) butan-2-ol
Question 54
What is obtained when nitrobenzene is treated sequentially with (i) NH 4 Cl/Zn dust and (ii)
H 2 SO 4 /Na 2 Cr 2 O 7 ?
A. A) meta-chloronitrobenzene
B. B) para-chloronitrobenzene
C. C) nitrosobenzene
D. D) benzene
Question 55
9.65C of electric current is passed through fused anhydrous magnesium chloride. The
magnesium metal thus, obtained is completely converted into a Grignard reagent. The number of
moles of the Grignard reagent obtained is
A. A) 5 × 10 −4
B. B) 1 × 10 −4
C. C) 5 × 10 −5
D. D) 1 × 10
−5
Question 56
The number of moles of hydrogen that can be added to 1 mole of an oil is the highest in
A. A) groundnut oil
B. B) sunflower seed oil
C. C) mustard oil
D. D) linseed oil
Question 57
End product of the following reaction is
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 58
Which one of the following reactions is expected to readily give a hydrocarbon product in good
yields?
A. A) RCOOK oxidation
Electrolytic
B. B) RCOO Ag
− + Br 2
⟶
C. C) CH 3 CH 3 hu2
Cl
D. D) (CH 3 ) 3 CCl ⟶
C 2 H 5 OH
Question 59
Consider the following reactions :

Y can be conserted to X on heating with at temperature :
A. A) Al 2 O 3 , 350 ∘ C
B. B) Cu, 300 ∘ C
C. C) Ca(OH) 2 + CaOCl 2 , 60 ∘ C
D. D) NaOH/I 2 , 60 C
∘
Question 60
Which is the major product formed when C 6 H 5 CONHC 6 H 5 undergoes nitration?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Hard Questions
Question 61
When acetylene is passed through red hot iron tube, compound X is formed. Which one of the
following reactions will yield X as the major product?
A. A) C 6 H 5 OH + Zn
Distillation
⟶
B. B) C 6 H 5 SO 3 H + NaHCO 3 ⟶
C. C) C 6 H 12 + 3H 2 ⟶
Ni
D. D) C 6 H 5 Cl + H 2 O ⟶
Δ
Question 62
The compounds P , Q and S

where separately subjected to nitration using HNO 3 /H 2 SO 4 mixture. The major product formed
in each case respectively, is
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 63
An organic compound X with molecular formula C 11 H 14 gives an optically active compound on

hydrogenation. Upon ozonolysis, X produces a mixture of compounds −P and Q. Compound P
gives a yellow precipitate when treated with I 2 and NaOH but does not reduce Tollen's reagent.
Compound Q does not give any yellow precipitate with I 2 and NaOH but gives Fehling's test.
The compound X is:
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 64
Assertion : HC ≡ C − is more stable than H 2 C = CH − .Reason : HC ≡ C − has more s-

character than H 2 C = CH
−
Question 65
Isomers of hexane, based on their branching, can be divided into three distinct classes as shown
in the
figure.
The correct order of their boiling point is
A. A) I > II > III

B. B) III > II > I
C. C) II > III > I
D. D) III > I > II
Question 66
In the following reactions, X, Y and Z are

A. A) X = CH 3 Cl; Y = anhydrous AlCl 3 ; Z = HNO 3 + H 2 SO 4
B. B) X = CH 3 COCl; Y = anhydrous AlCl 3 ; Z = HNO 3 + H 2 SO 4
C. C) X = CH 3 Cl; Y = conc. H 2 SO 4 ; Z = HNO 3 + H 2 SO 4
D. D) X = CH 3 Cl; Y = dil. H 2 SO 4 ; Z = HNO 3
Question 67
Cr 2 O 3 /Al 2 O 3 Br 2 /Fe
CH 3 (CH 2 ) 4 CH 3 ⟶ A ⟶ B
773 K,10−20 atm
H2 O Mg What is D ?
D ⟵ C ether
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 68
What are structures of X, Y and Z in the above given reaction sequence?
A. A)
[original image](https://cdn.mathpix.com/snip/images/PExSnIPqeu1c-hrdtSZ-
FgtnAWkn03M1j_wBYZ1HR4g.original.fullsize.png)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 69
Among the following reactions, a mixture of diastereomers is produced from
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 70
Observe the following conversion.
Which of following is best correct sequence of reaction for following conversion?
A. A) (i) Br 2 / FeBr 3 (1. eq) (ii) KMnO 4 /Δ (iii) Conc. HNO 3 + H 2 SO 4

B. B) (i) Conc. HNO 3 + H 2 SO 4 (ii) Br 2 / FeBr 3 (1. eq) (iii) KMNO 4 /Δ
C. C) (i) KMNO 4 /Δ (ii) Conc. HNO 3 + H 2 SO 4 (iii) Br 2 / FeBr 3 (1 eq. )
D. D) (i) Br 2 / FeBr 3 (1 eq. ) (ii) Conc. HNO 3 + H 2 SO 4 (iii) KMnO 4 /Δ
Question 71
A is an optically inactive alkyl chloride which on reaction with aqueous KOH gives B. B on
heating with Cu at 300 C gives an alkene C, what are A and C
∘
A. A) CH 3 CH 2 Cl, CH 2 = CH 2
B. B) Me 3 CCl, MeCH = CH ⋅ Me
C. C) Me 3 CCl, Me 2 C = CH 2
D. D) Me 2 CH. CH 2 ClMe 2 C = CH 2
Question 72
Which of the following reaction produce alkane as the product?
A. A) I, II, III
B. B) I, III, IV
C. C) I, II, IV
D. D) II, III, IV
Question 73
Consider the following reactions,

A and B are
A. A) A = C 2 H 4 , B = C 6 H 6
B. B) A = C 2 H 6 , B = C 6 H 5 NH 2
C. C) A = C 2 H 4 , B = C 6 H 5 NH 2
D. D) A = C 6 H 6 , B = C 6 H 5 NO 2
Question 74
Paragraph: An acylic hydrocarbon P , having molecular formula C 6 H 10 , gave acetone as the

only organic product through the following sequence of reactions, in which Q is an intermediate
organic compounds.
Question: \text { The structure of compound } P \text { is }
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 75
In the reaction,
The compound (C) is?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 76
The number of possible enatiomeric pair(s) produced from the bromination of I and II,
respectively, are
A. A) 0,1
B. B) 1,0
C. C) 0,2
D. D) 1,1
Question 77
Diels-Alder reaction will not take place with which of the following reactants?
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 78
\text { Match the reaction in Column I with appropriate options in Column II. }
A. A) (A) R,S, (B) R,T, (C) P, (D) T

B. B) (A) R,S,T, (B) R,T, (C) P,Q, (D) R
C. C) (A) R,S, (B) T, (C) P, (D) T
D. D) (A) R,S,T, (B) T, (C) P,Q, (D) R
Question 79
In the following reactions

X and Y, respectively, are
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 80
The major product of the following reaction is
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 81
Identify X and Y in the following reaction sequence X \stackrel{\mathrm{Zn}}{\longrightarrow} Y

\underset{\mathrm{Zn}-\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}}{\stackrel{\mathrm{O}_3}
{\longrightarrow}}\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{CO}+\mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{O} X
\quad Y
A. A)
\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{CHCH}_3
B. B) (CH 3 ) 2 CHCH 2 Br
C. C) (CH 3 ) 2 CBrCH 2 Br \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{CHCH}_3
D. D) (CH 3 ) 2 CHCHBrCHCH 2 (CH 3 ) 2 C = CH 2 (CH 3 ) 2 C = CH 2
Question 82
How many of the following compounds will form acetic acid on reaction with acidic KMnO 4 ?
Prop- 1 -ene, 2 -Methylbut- 2 -ene, 2 -Methylpropene, But- 2 -ene, Cyclohexene.
Question 83
The major products X and Y in the following sequence of transformations
are
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 84
Match the compounds in Column I with their characteristic test(s)/reactions(s) given in Column II.
Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 × 4 matrix given in the ORS.
A. A) (A) r,s, (B) p,q, (C) p,q,r, (D) p

B. B) (A) r, (B) p,q,s, (C) p,q,s, (D) p,q
C. C) (A) s, (B) q,r,s, (C) p,q,r,s, (D) p,q
D. D) (A) r,s, (B) p,q,s, (C) p,q,r, (D) p
Question 85
The synthesis of 3-octyne is achieved by adding a bromoalkane into a mixture of sodium amide
and an alkyne. The bromoalkane and alkyne respectively are
A. A) BrCH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 and \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{C} \equiv
\mathrm{CH}
B. B) BrCH 2 CH 2 CH 3 and \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{C} \equiv
\mathrm{CH}
C. C) BrCH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 and \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{C} \equiv \equiv \mathrm{CH}
D. D) BrCH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 and \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{C} \equiv
\mathrm{CH} a)
Question 86
Consider the following reactions :

Y can be conserted to X on heating with at temperature :
A. A) Al 2 O 3 , 350 ∘ C
B. B) Cu, 300 ∘ C
C. C) Ca(OH) 2 + CaOCl 2 , 60 ∘ C
D. D) NaOH/I 2 , 60 ∘ C
Question 87
In the reaction of 1-bromo-3-Chlorocyclobutane with two equivalents of sodium inether, the major
product is
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 88
Paragraph: P and Q are isomers of dicarboxylic acid C 4 H 4 O 4 . Both decolorize Br 2 /H 2 O. On

heating, P forms the cyclic anhydride. Upon treatment with dilute alkaline KMnO 4 , P as well
as Q could produce one or more than one from S, T and U .
H 2 /Ni
Question: In the following reaction sequences V and W are, respectively Q ⟶ V
Δ
A. A)
B. B)
C. C)
D. D)
Question 89
The total number of alkenes possible by dehydrobromination of 3-bromo-3-cyclopentylhexane

using alcoholic KOH is
Question 90
An organic compound X gives a red precipitate on heating with Fehling's solution. Which one of
the following reactions yields X as a major product?
A. A)
B. B) C 2 H 5 Br + AgOH ⟶
Δ
C. C) 2C 2 H 5 Br + Ag 2 O ⟶
Δ
D. D) C 2 H 2 + H 2 O
40%H 2 SO 4
⟶
1%HgSO 4 60 ∘ C

Q1 - B Q31 - C Q61 - A
Q2 - A Q32 - B Q62 - C
Q3 - B Q33 - B Q63 - A
Q4 - C Q34 - B Q64 - A
Q5 - D Q35 - C Q65 - B
Q6 - D Q36 - A Q66 - A
Q7 - A Q37 - D Q67 - A
Q8 - C Q38 - C Q68 - A
Q9 - D Q39 - B Q69 - A
Q10 - A Q40 - C Q70 - A
Q11 - B Q41 - A Q71 - C
Q12 - D Q42 - A Q72 - C
Q13 - B Q43 - B Q73 - D
Q14 - C Q44 - A Q74 - D
Q15 - A Q45 - A Q75 - B
Q16 - C Q46 - C Q76 - A
Q17 - B Q47 - A Q77 - A
Q18 - C Q48 - C Q78 - D
Q19 - A Q49 - B Q79 - A
Q20 - D Q50 - B Q80 - A
Q21 - C Q51 - D Q81 - C
Q22 - D Q52 - D Q82 - 3.00 (Num)
Q23 - B Q53 - D Q83 - D
Q24 - D Q54 - C Q84 - A
Q25 - B Q55 - C Q85 - D
Q26 - A Q56 - D Q86 - A
Q27 - C Q57 - D Q87 - D
Q28 - A Q58 - A Q88 - A
Q29 - A Q59 - A Q89 - 5 (Num)
Q30 - B Q60 - B Q90 - D

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CHAPTER PG

1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 2

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

The formation of CO and CO 2 illustrates the law of

80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms as in

Which of the following has the largest number of atoms?

The mole fraction of ethanol in water is 0.08. Its molality is

The system that contains the maximum number of atoms is

Which of the following has the largest number of moles?

The percentage of oxygen in CH 2 O is

A. A) Both have equal density

The normality of 30 volume H 2 O 2 is

Concentrated of aqueous sulphuric acid is 98%H 2 SO 4 by mass and has a density of

Which one of the followings has maximum number of atoms?

A. A) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]

A certain metal sulphide, MS 2 , is used extensively as a high temperature lubricant. If MS 2 is

The molarity of a NaOH solution by dissolving 4 g of it in 250ml water is

1.6 g of an organic compound gave 2.6 g of magnesium pyrophosphate. The percentage of

The mass percentage of nitrogen in Histamine is?

(Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)

245 g impure sample of KClO 3 (s) on heating gives 12 g O 2 (g) according to

Number of atoms in 558.5 gram Fe (at.wt. of Fe = 55.85 g mol −1 ) is

A. A) twice that in 60 g carbon

10 mL citric acid (H 3 C 6 H 5 O 7 ) is neutralised completely by 35.6 mL of 0.312 M NaOH solution.

A. A) Law of constant proportions

The amount of H 2 O 2 present in 1 litre of 1.5 NH 2 O 2 solution, is:

The molarity of NO 3 − in the solution after 2 L of 3MAgNO 3 is mixed with 3 L of 1MBaCl 2 is

40% (w/v) of NaCl solution (specific gravity = 1.12) is equivalent to

1.25 g of a sample of Na 2 CO 3 and Na 2 SO 4 is dissolved in 250ml solution. 25ml of this

Zinc and hydrochloric acid react according to the following reaction :

Formation of polyethylene from calcium carbide takes place as follows

The amount of polyethylene obtained from 64.1 kg of CaC 2 is

B. B) [Fe 3+ ] = 0.064M; [NO −

C. C) [Fe 3+ ] = 0.04M; [NO 3 ] = 0.28 M ; [Fe 3+ ] = 0.12 M; [Mg 2+ ] = 0.104 M

D. D) [Fe 3+ ] = 0.064M; [NO −

The empirical formula of a non-electrolyte is CH 2 O. A solution containing 6 g of the compound

An unknown compound A C 8 H 10 O 3 on acetylation with CH 3 COCl/Py forms acetyl derivative

CaCO 3(s) + 2 HCl (aq) → CaCl 2(aq) + CO 2(g) + 2H 2 O (l)

100 ml of 5 m H 2 SO 4 of density 1 gm/ml is mixed with 100 ml of 8 m H 2 SO 4 of density

A compound has the following composition by weight ;

10 ml of a gaseous hydrocarbon was burnt completely in 80 ml of O 2 at NTP. The remaining gas

Atomic weights in g mol −1 :

A 1.85 g sample of an arsenic-containing pesticide was chemically converted to AsO 4 3−

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Which of the following does not have valence electron in 3d-subshell?

A. A) (1), (2), (3)

value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of

Identify the wrong statement in the following.

Maximum number of electrons in a subshell or an atom is determined by the following :

The angular momentum of electron in Li 2+ is found to be 14( 11 ). Calculated the potential

energy (in eV) of system.

Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is

An element undergoes a reaction as shown :

X + 2e − → X 2− , energy released = 30 .87 eV / atom. If the energy released is used to

Given: I.E. of H = 13 .6 eV / atom bond energy of H 2 = 4 .526 eV / molecule.

Which of the following arrangements is possible?

Quantum numbers of an atom can be defined on the basis of

them is not correct?

nucleus absorbs a neutron and disintegrates in 54 Xe , 38 Sr 94 and x. What will be the

For principle quantum number n = 4, the total number of orbitals having l = 3 is