SBI-Clerk- 6

SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Paper 2022 Mock 6
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons are going for a party in different months of a year viz. March, April, May, June, July, August,
September and October. S goes in a month which has 31 days. Three persons go for party in between R and
S. P goes for a party immediately before T but not in a month which has 31 days. Only two persons go for
party in between W and Q. T goes in a month before S. Only one person goes in between U and V. W goes
before S. U does not go after Q.
Q1. How many persons are going for party between P and Q?
(a) No one
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) More than Four
(e) None of these
Q2. Who among the following goes immediately before W?

(a) P
(b) T
(c) R
(d) U
(e) None of these
Q3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about U?

(a) U goes in the month which have even number of days.
(b) More than three persons go between U and R
(c) U goes immediate before S
(d) W goes immediate before U
(e) Both (b) and (d)
Q4. In which month Q goes for party?

(a) August
(b) July
(c) October
(d) September
(e) None of these
Q5. Who among the following going for party in October?

(a) V
(b) W
(c) S
(d) U
(e) None of these
1 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App
Directions (6-8): In these questions, relationship between different elements is show in the
statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given
statements and select the appropriate answer:
Q6.
(a) Both conclusions I and II are true

(b) Either conclusion I or II is true
(c) Only conclusion I is true
(d) Neither conclusions I nor II is true
(e) Only conclusion II is true
Q7.

(b) Only conclusion II is true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(d) Either conclusions I or II is true
(e) Only conclusions I is true
Q8.

(b) Either conclusion I or II is true
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(d) Only conclusion I is true
(e) Only conclusion II is true
Q9. How many such pairs of letters (both forward and backward direction) are there in the given
word ‘NIGHTMARE’ each of which has as many letters between them as they have in the English
alphabet?
(a) Three
(b) Seven
(c) Two
(d) Four
(e) One
Q10. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each one of them is of different heights. S is taller than Q. R is taller than
P. T is taller than only two persons. P is not the shortest and R is not tallest. Who among them is the
second tallest?
(a) Q
(b) S
(c) R
(d) T
(e) P
Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a linear arrangement but not necessarily in the same
order. Some of them face north while some of them face south direction. Only two persons sit between C
and D who sits at an extreme end of the row. H sits third to the right of F and B sits second to the left of H.
Both C and E are immediate neighbour of each other but both of them face opposite direction to each other.
F faces in north direction. B faces same direction as F but H faces its opposite direction. G is not an
immediate neighbour of B. Both D and G face same direction as H and Both E and A face same direction as
B.
Q11. How many persons sit between G and A?

(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) Five
(d) Four
(e) One
Q12. Who among the following sits third to the right of the one who sits second to the left of E?
(a) A
(b) H
(c) D
(d) G
(e) None of these
Q13. Who among the following is/are an immediate neighbor of F?

(a) The one who sits immediate left of A
(b) The one who sits second to the right of H
(c) The one who is immediate neighbor of B
(d) The one who sits third to the left of E
(e) Both (b) and (d)
Q14. Which of the following statement is true about A?

(a) A sits immediate right of H
(b) C is an immediate neighbor of A
(c) Not more than three persons sit between A and F
(d) A sits one of the extreme end of the row
(e) None of these
Q15. Who among the following sits third to the left of H?
(a) A
(b) G
(c) F
(d) B
(e) No one
Directions (16-18): In each of the questions below some statements are given followed by some
Conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q16. Statements:
Only a few Race are track
No track are Stadium
All track is Map
Conclusion:
I. Some race are stadium
II. No stadium is race
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
Q17. Statements:
All Party are Speech
Some Speech are Clinic
Only clinic are Home
Conclusion:
I. All Home can never be Speech
II. Some clinic can be Party
Q18. Statements:
Only a few Paper are News
No News is bad
Only a few bad are good
Conclusions:
I. Some paper are not bad
II. All good can be news
Directions (19-23): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
There are eight boxes J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are placed one above another but not necessarily in the same
order. One box is placed between Box P and Box L. Two boxes are placed between Box K and Box N. Box Q
is placed immediately below Box N. Box M is placed above the box N and below the box O. Box M is placed
neither just below nor just above the box O and N. Box J and Box O is not placed above Box P. Box L is placed
below box O.
Q19. Which of the following box is placed just below box L?

(a) N
(b) Q
(c) M
(d) J
(e) None of these
Q20. Which of the following box is placed just above box N?

(a) O
(b) L
(c) P
(d) J
(e) None of these
Q21. How many boxes are placed between box O and box N?
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Four
(e) None
Q22. What is the position of box M?

(a) Third from the topmost
(b) Second from the topmost
(c) Third from the bottommost
(d) Second from the bottommost
(e) None of these
Q23. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based from a group, find the one that does
not belong to that group?
(a) P-L
(b) O-K
(c) N-M
(d) L-N
(e) Q-J
Directions (24-26): Study the given information and answer the following question.
Point Y is 10m west of Point G. Point U is 8m north of O. Point G is 5m north of point D. Point D is 10m south
of F. Point J is 4m east of U. Point F is 6m east of point J.
Q24. What is the shortest distance between point O and point G?
(a) 10m
(b) 9m
(c) √109m
(d) 12m
(e) None of these
Q25. Point J is in which direction with respect to point D?

(a) South
(b) South-East
(c) North
(d) North-East
(e) None of these
Q26. If a point M is 8m north of point J, then what will be the shortest distance of point M with
respect to point F?
(a) 18m
(b) 10m
(c) 12m
(d) 15m
(e) None of these
Directions (27-31): Study the following alphanumeric symbol series and answer the questions given
below.
54BUM6⋆IA7$J#2RQDHLO@P%1TEF
Q27. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
followed by a number and also immediately preceded by a consonant?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) None of these
Q28. If we remove all the vowels from the series, then which of the following alphabet will be 5 th
from right end?
(a) P
(b) H
(c) D
(d) Q
(e) None of these
Q29. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
followed by a consonant and also immediately preceded by a symbol?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) None of these
Q30. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a consonant?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Four
(d) Three
(e) Two
Q31. If we remove all the vowels and symbols from the series, then which element will be 13th from
left end?
(a) L
(b) H
(c) D
(d) Q
(e) None of these
Directions (32-35): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, K and L are living in a five-storey building such that ground floor is
numbered as 1, above it is floor 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 5. Each of the floors has 2
flats in it as flat-1 and flat-2. Flat-1 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-1 of floor-1 and immediately below
flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. In the same way, flat-2 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-2 of floor-1 and
immediately below flat-2 of floor-3 and so on. Flat-1 is in the west of flat-2.
A lives on an even-numbered floor and in an even-numbered flat. One floor gap between A and L and both
of them live in same flat. B lives on an even prime numbered floor. There is two floors gap between B and
H. G and D lives on the same floor but below A. G does not live in the same flat as A. E lives immediately
below H but both are living in different flat. C and K live in the same flat but both live above L’s floor. C and
F doesn’t live on same floor.
Q32. How many floors are there between F and D?

(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Four
(d) Three
(e) None of these
Q33. Who among the following lives on flat-1 of floor 3?

(a) F
(b) E
(c) C
(d) K
(e) None of these
Q34. The number of floors between B and D is same as the number of floors between _____ and _____.
(a) G and A
(b) C and K
(c) H and K
(d) F and L
(e) None of these
Q35. Who among the following lives immediate above G’s floor?
(a) F
(b) L
(c) E
(d) B
(e) Both L and B
Q36. The ratio between the speed of a train and a bus is 8:5 respectively. Also, a car covered a
distance of 320km in 10hrs. The speed of car is half the speed of the train. Find the speed of bus.
(a) 40 km/hr
(b) 45 km/hr
(c) 48 km/hr
(d) 58 km/hr
(e) 50 km/hr
Q37. Raman’s present age is two-fifth of the age of his father. Find the age of Raman after 10 years if
the sum of present ages of Raman and his father is 63years.
(a) 18 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 28 years
(d) 16 years
(e) 14 years
Q38. Anurag buys an old laptop for Rs. 17500 and spends Rs. 2,500 for its repair. He is not satisfied
from his laptop and sells the laptop at Rs. 22,500. Find his profit percent?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Q39. In an examination, it is required to get 45% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 700
marks and has declared failed by 10% marks. What was the maximum aggregate marking a student
can get?
(a) 2000
(b) 1800
(c) 1500
(d) 2200
(e) 2500
Q40. Area of a rectangular field is 144 m² and ratio of its length to breadth is 9 : 4. Find cost of
fencing the field, if cost of wire which is to be fenced is 4 Rs/m?
(a) Rs 200
(b) Rs 216
(c) Rs 208
(d) Rs 202
(e) Rs 252
Q41. An amount is lent out at y% p.a. at S.I for 2 years. If it had been lent at 2y% p.a at S.I for ‘a’ more
years, then the interest would have been five times of the earlier interest. Find the value of ‘a’.(in
years)
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
(e) none of these
Q42. 20 boys go for dinner. 16 of them spent Rs. 64 each on their dinner and rest spent Rs 4 more
than the average expenditure of all 20. What was the total money (in Rs.) spent by them?
(a) 1200
(b) 1500
(c) 1800
(d) 1300
(e) None of these
Q43. If the difference between selling price of an article when sold at 20% profit and 20% loss is Rs
60, then what is the cost price of the article?
(a) Rs 180
(b) Rs 120
(c) Rs 160
(d) Rs 150
(e) Rs 200
Q44. 4 women can complete piece of work in 5 days, whereas 12 children take 10 days to complete
the same work. How many days will 5 women and 10 children together take to complete the piece
of work?
(a) 25 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 20 days
(d) 3 days
(e) 32 days
Q45. The speed of boat in upstream is thrice the speed of current and the speed of boat in
downstream is 30 km/hr. Then find the time taken by boat to travel 63 km in upstream.
(a) 3.5 hr
(b) 3 hr
(c) 4.5 hr
(d) 4 hr
(e) 5 hr
Directions (46-50): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The following table shows the total number of people who work in four different places in two
different years.

Q46. The number of people who work in Noida in 2020 is what percent less than the number of
people who work in Noida and Ghaziabad in 2019 together?
(a) 33⅓%
(b) 25%
(c) 35%
(d) 55%
(e) 40%
Q47. What is the difference between the sum of the number of people who work in Gurugram and
Janakpuri in 2019 together and the sum of number of people who work in Ghaziabad and Janakpuri
in 2020?
(a) 25
(b) 28
(c) 40
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Q48. Which work place shows maximum percentage increase in number of people who work from
2019 to 2020?
(a) Noida
(b) Gurugram
(c) Ghaziabad
(d) Both Noida and Janakpuri
(e) Both Ghaziabad and Noida
Q49. What is the average of the number of people who work in Noida in 2019, Gurugram in 2019,
Ghaziabad in 2020 and Janakpuri in 2020?
(a) 225
(b) 445
(c) 355
(d) 335
(e) 555
Q50. What is the ratio of the number of people who work in Gurugram and Janakpuri in 2020
together and the number of people who work in Ghaziabad and Noida in 2019 together
respectively?
(a) 2:3
(b) 5:8
(c) 10:11
(d) 11:10
(e) 3:2
Directions (51-64): What will come in the place of question mark in following questions.
Q51.
(a) 1080
(b) 1190
(c) 1000
(d) 1240
(e) 1680
Q52.
(a) 220
(b) 130
(c) 120
(d) 140
(e) 110
Q53.
(a) 50
(b) 65
(c) 60
(d) 55
(e) 45
Q54.
(a) 775
(b) 725
(c) 750
(d) 760
(e) 780
Q55.
(a) 6
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 5
(e) 8
Q56.
(a) 392
(b) 387
(c) 282
(d) 399
(e) 372
Q57.
(a) 389
(b) 289
(c) 300
(d) 299
(e) 378
Q58.
(a) 1420
(b) 1300
(c) 1520
(d) 1220
(e) 1200
Q59.
(a) 730
(b) 710
(c) 770
(d) 700
(e) 760
Q60.
(a) 44
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) 40
(e) 35
Q61.
(a) -134
(b) 130
(c) 124
(d) 154
(e) 120
Q62.
(a) 76.5
(b) 78.5
(c) 66.5
(d) 74.5
(e) 86.5
Q63.
(a) 770
(b) 720
(c) 760
(d) 780
(e) 750
Q64.
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) -8
(d) -1
(e) -5
Directions (65-70): In the following questions, there are two equations in x and y. You have to solve
both the equations and give answer.
Q65. I. 2x2 + 5x + 3 = 0
II. 3y2 + 5y + 2 = 0
(a) if x > y
(b) if x < y
(c) if x ≥ y
(d) if x ≤ y
(e) if x = y or there is no relation between x and y
Q66.
(a) if x > y
(b) if x < y
(c) if x ≥ y
(d) if x ≤ y
Q67.
(a) if x > y
(b) if x < y
(c) if x ≥ y
(d) if x ≤ y
Q68.
(a) if x > y
(b) if x < y
(c) if x ≥ y
(d) if x ≤ y
Q69.
(a) if x > y
(b) if x < y
(c) if x ≥ y
(d) if x ≤ y
Q70.
(a) if x > y
(b) if x < y
(c) if x ≥ y
(d) if x ≤ y
Directions (71-80): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. Some
words have been highlighted to aid in answering the questions.
Single-use plastics are goods that are made primarily from fossil fuel–based chemicals (petrochemicals)
and are meant to be disposed of right after use—often, in mere minutes. Many companies have touted their
products by packaging them in attractive single use plastic. Single-use plastics are most commonly used for
packaging and service ware, such as bottles, wrappers and bags. These single-use plastics impact
environment adversely. Instead of investing in quality goods that will last, we often _____________convenience
over durability and consideration of long-term impacts. Our reliance on these plastics means we are
accumulating waste at a staggering rate. We produce 300 million tons of plastic each year worldwide. That’s
nearly equivalent to the weight of the entire human population.
Plastics are actually valuable waste materials as they contain carbon and hydrogen and have a similar
energy content to fuels such as diesel. However, rather than focusing solely on the potential to generate
fuel from this waste plastic, Scientists have unveiled a technology to recover other higher-value
materials. This is where cold plasma pyrolysis came in. Pyrolysis is a method of thermal decomposition in
an environment with limited oxygen at temperatures between 400-650°C. The process can be used to
generate electricity and fuels, but when cold plasma is added to the equation it can convert waste plastics
into hydrogen, methane and ethylene. Hydrogen and methane can be used as clean fuels as they produce
minimal amounts of soot and carbon dioxide, while ethylene is the building block of most plastics. Instead
of wasting plastics, cold plasma pyrolysis can recover valuable materials, which can be used to produce
other plastic products in turn. While it can take hundreds of years for certain plastics to completely
degrade, cold plasma pyrolysis offers a quick alternative.
Q71. What is/are the characteristic(s) of single use plastic?

(a) This kind of plastic is flexible and can be molded in any shape
(b) It is mainly made up of fossil fuel-based chemicals
(c) This kind of plastic isn’t meant to be reused or recycled
(d) It takes only a few days to get decomposed
(e) Only (b) and (c)
Q72. As per the passage, what is the effect of our reliance on single use plastic?
(a) Plastic pollution is upsetting earth’s food chain by jeopardizing marine lives
(b) Soil has been contaminated the most by plastic waste and its fertility is declining
(c) Plastic equals to the weight of the entire human race is being produced annually.
(d) Many millions of dollars are wasted each year to decompose single-use plastic.
(e) None of these
Q73. Why is plastic considered as a valuable waste material in the passage?
(a) As plastic waste is used to make helium which is used in fuel tanks
(b) As recycling plastic waste is the most convenient and low-cost process among all the other
nondegradable things.
(c) Because like any other energy content to fuels, it has carbon and hydrogen.
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
Q74. For which specific purpose cold plasma is used in pyrolysis method?
(a) For tin coating on plastic utensils to avoid corrosion
(b) To produce electricity and fuels from plastic waste
(c) To turn plastic waste into hydrogen, methane and ethylene
(d) For making plastic a more flexible and synthetic material
(e) Both (b) and (c)
Q75. How cold plasma pyrolysis helps in addressing the plastic waste challenges?
(a) Using the cold plasma pyrolysis method, plastic is converted to silicon and rubber.
(b) With the cold plasma pyrolysis method, plastic is recycled into the new plastic product.
(c) Abundant plastic waste is decomposed instantly with cold plasma pyrolysis
(d) It is the technology that shreds plastic waste which is otherwise dumped in landfills
(e) None of these
Q76. Which of the following statements is true with reference to the passage?
(a) Hydrogen and methane produce very little carbon dioxide.
(b) Most companies avoid using plastic packaging for their products.
(c) Petrochemical is a fossil-fuel-based gas.
(d) In pyrolysis, methane is used at temperatures between 400-650°C.
(e) None of these
Q77. Which of the following words will be the most suitable for the blank?
(a) terminate
(b) constrain
(c) renounce
(d) prioritize
(e) None of these
Q78. Which of the following is the synonym of ‘touted’ given in the passage?
(a) palliated
(b) endorsed
(c) denied
(d) bothered
(e) None of these
Q79. Which of the following is an antonym of ‘impact’ given in the passage?

(a) hamper
(b) foment
(c) evade
(d) prompt
(e) None of these
Q80. Which of the following is the synonym of ‘unveil’ given in the passage?
(a) reveal
(b) underpin
(c) periled
(d) solemn
(e) None of these
Directions (81-85): Given below are five sentences which are part of a coherent narrative but not
necessarily in their correct order. Rearrange the sentences to form a meaningful narrative and
answer the questions that follow.
(A) Mangroves serve a multitude of purposes in their ecosystem, including coastal protection, filtration of
water, and disaster risk reduction.
(B) Mangrove is a tropical tree, essentially adapted to thrive near the coastline.
(C) A characteristic feature of mangroves is their tangled prop roots.
(D) These trees thrive in brackish water and loose and wet soil, and cannot survive in colder temperatures.
(E) These roots allow the trees to survive the daily tides and also capture sediments.
Q81. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q82. Which of the following is the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q83. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q84. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q85. Which of the following gives the correct order of sentences after the rearrangement?
(a) DCAEB
(b) BDCEA
(c) AEDCB
(d) CADEB
(e) ABCDE
Directions (86-90): Read the following passage and choose the word that most appropriately fills
the blanks corresponding to the question numbers.
Q86. Over the last few years, developed countries have insisted upon two points on the issue of climate
finance. First, they ____________________ (86) that their commitment to reaching the target of $100 billion in
climate finance a year for developing countries, first promised in 2009, is close to being met. Second, they
___________________ (87) the mobilisation of private finance as the critical component of climate finance
henceforth.
Developing countries have for a long time insisted that a significant portion of climate finance should come
from public funds as private finance will not ___________________ (88) their needs and priorities especially
related to adaptation. Climate finance already remains _____________________ (89) towards mitigation and
flows towards bankable projects with clear revenue streams. Adaptation is __________________ (90) to offer
commercially profitable opportunities for private financiers.
(a) focus
(b) indicate
(c) reduce
(d) maintain
(e) mediate
henceforth.
(a) attach
(b) remain
(c) examine
(d) challenge
(e) view
henceforth.
(a) concern
(b) address
(c) delay
(d) suggest
(e) discover
henceforth.
(a) bustling
(b) skewed
(c) abundant
(d) defiant
(e) descriptive
henceforth.
(a) distinct
(b) quick
(c) unlikely
(d) probable
(e) receptive
Q91. In each question, four sentences are given, in which only one is grammatically correct. Choose
the correct sentence as your answer choice. If all the given sentences are incorrect, choose “All are
incorrect” as your answer.
(a) She made no reference to her illness but only to her future plans.
(b) I still haven't finished paint the spare room.
(c) She seem almost embarrassed by her own outburst.
(d) Parents can unwilling transmit their own fears into their children.
(e) All are incorrect
(a) The project is no longer commercial viable
(b) Older craters on the Earth have been erase by weathering and by geological activity.
(c) Although the issue was not discussed, it was far at out of her mind.
(d) I advise you to withdraw your allegation before I contact my lawyer.
(a) The best sides of his character were his brilliant social gifts and his intense devotion to literature
(b) Babies are wonderful gift from God to cherish us.
(c) The carpenters tried to kept the dust level down, but it was impossible to avoid all of it.
(d) After Alex goes to work and Jonathan goes to school, Destiny and I did the chores.
(a) Megan looked ready to laugh but smiled widely instead of.
(b) She forced herself to breathe deeply and continued towards the distance road.
(c) As the fog cleared, the sight of several tall trees were emerging in the forest
(d) The substitute teacher found it quite difficult to subjugate a class of thirty middle school students.
(a) The villages are built on artificial mounds of earth, so as to raise it above the flood-level.
(b) Dean could saw nothing behind him, only the slope directly beneath his feet.
(c) The suitcase didn't seem that heavy at the time.
(d) With infinite patience, she explain the complex procedure to us.
Directions (96-98): In each question, a word is given in bold. Using that highlighted word four
sentences are given. Choose the statement that has the correct usage of the given word. If all the
sentences have the correct usage, choose ‘All are correct’ as your answer choice.
Q96. Devise
(a) If you wish good devise, consult an old man.
(b) I must devise sorrow into strength.
(c) The purpose of this meeting is to devise a strategy for our company to pay off its debt.
(d) All things invariably devise into two
(e) All are correct
Q97. Erupt
(a) We must erupt continuity of fuel supplies.
(b) The erupt was subdivided into four living areas.
(c) Some soils are not erupt for farming.
(d) An active volcano may erupt at any time
(e) All are correct
Q98. Lightening
(a) Against my wish, I began to smile, and he smiled back, the expression lightening his face.
(b) Without lightening rules civilized life would be impossible.
(c) Economists said the bad news was most pronounced, and most lightning, in manufacturing.
(d) Liberalization will change the technical lightening of electricity systems.
(e) All are correct
Directions (99-100): In each question four words are given in bold. In these four words, one may or
may not be correctly spelled or contextually inaccurate. Choose the incorrect word as your answer
choice. If all are correct, choose ‘All are correct’.
Q99. An earlier cigarette butt smoldered in the great.

(a) earlier
(b) cigarette
(c) smoldered
(d) great
(e) All are correct
Q100. It's quite common to see couples who dress like.

(a) quite
(b) common
(c) couples
(d) like
(e) All are correct
Solutions
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. (i) from the given information, S goes in a month which has 31 days. Three persons go for Party in
between R and S. T goes in a month before S. There are four possibilities-

(ii) P goes for a party immediately before T but not in a month which has 31 days. T goes in a month before
S. From this condition case-1 will be eliminated. W goes before S. Only two persons go for party in between
W and Q. From this condition case-3 and case -4 will be eliminated. Only one person goes in between U and
V. U does not go after Q. The final arrangement is-
S2. Ans.(b)
S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. (i) from the given information, S goes in a month which has 31
days. Three persons go for Party in between R and S. T goes in a
month before S. There are four possibilities-
S4. Ans.(d)

S5. Ans.(a)
S6. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S7. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S8. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S9. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. S > R > T > P > Q
S11. Ans.(d)
Sol. (i) from the given conditions, only two persons sit between C and D who sits at an extreme end of the
row. H sits third to the right of F and B sits second to the left of H. F faces in north direction. B faces same
direction as F but H faces its opposite direction. There are three possibilities-
(ii) Both C and E are immediate neighbor. G is not an immediate neighbour of B. From these conditions
case-2 and case-3 will be eliminated and in case-1, G is an immediate neighbor of D and A is an immediate
neighbor of B. Both D and G face same direction as H and Both E and A faces same direction as B. C and E
face opposite direction to each other. The final arrangement is-
S12. Ans.(b)
S13. Ans.(e)
S14. Ans.(c)
S15. Ans.(e)

Directions (16-18):
S16. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S17. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S18. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S19. Ans.(e)
Sol. (i) Form the given information; two boxes are placed between Box K and Box N. Box Q is placed
immediately below Box N. There are two possibilities. N is either placed above K or placed below K.
(ii) Box M is placed above the box N and below the box O. Box M is placed neither just below nor just above
the box O and N. Box J and Box O is not placed above Box P. From these conditions case-2 will be eliminated
because only eight boxes are given. In case-1 these is only possibility box M is placed immediate below box
K. One box is placed between Box P and Box L. Box L is placed below box O. The final arrangement is-
S20. Ans.(d)
S21. Ans.(d)

S22. Ans.(e)
S23. Ans.(d)

S24. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S25. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S26. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S27. Ans.(c)
Sol. Two- J#2, P%1
S28. Ans.(b)
S29. Ans.(a)
S30. Ans.(d)
Sol. RQD, QDH, DHL
S31. Ans.(a)
S32. Ans.(b)
Sol. (i) A lives on an even-numbered floor and in an even-numbered flat. One floor gap between A and L
and both of them live in same flat. B lives on an even prime numbered floor. There is two floors gap between
B and H. There are two possibilities.
(ii) E lives immediately below H but both are living in different flat. G and D live on the same floor but below
A. G does not live in the same flat as A. C and K live in the same flat but both live above L’s floor. C and F
doesn’t live on same floor. From these conditions, case-2 will be eliminated. The final arrangement is-
S33. Ans.(d)

S34. Ans.(d)
S35. Ans.(e)

S36. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S37. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S38. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S39. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S40. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S41. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S42. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S43. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S44. Ans.(d)
Sol. 4 women complete a work in 5days
So, 1 women complete work in 5×4 =20days
12 children complete a work in 10days
So, 1 child complete work in 12×10 = 120days
Let, Total work = 120 (L.C.M of 20 and 120)
So, efficiency of women = 120/20 = 6units/day
And efficiency of child = 120/120 = 1unit/day
Work done by 5 women and 10 children in 1 day = 5×6 +10×1=30+10 = 40units
So, time taken by 5 women and 10 children to complete the work = 120/40 = 3days.
S45. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S46. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S47. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S48. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S49. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S50. Ans.(d)
Sol. The number of people who work in Gurugram and Janakpuri in 2020 together
= 420 + 240 = 660
The number of people who work in Ghaziabad and Noida in 2019 together
= 280 + 320 = 600
So, required ratio = 660 : 600
= 11 : 10
S51. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S52. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S53. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S54. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S55. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S56. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S57. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S58. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S59. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S60. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S61. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S62. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S63. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S64. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S65. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S66. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S67. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S68. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S69. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S70. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S71. Ans.(e)
Sol. Statement (b) and statement (c) are correct with reference to the first paragraph which mentions,
“Single-use plastics are goods that are made primarily from fossil fuel–based chemicals (petrochemicals)
and are meant to be disposed of right after use—often, in mere minutes.”
S72. Ans.(c)
Sol. Refer to the last lines of first paragraph which mention, “Our reliance on these plastics means we are
accumulating waste at a staggering rate. We produce 300 million tons of plastic each year worldwide. That’s
nearly equivalent to the weight of the entire human population.”
S73. Ans.(c)
Sol. Refer to the second paragraph which mentions, “Plastics are actually valuable waste materials as
they contain carbon and hydrogen and have a similar energy content to fuels such as diesel.”
S74. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct choice can be inferred from the second paragraph which mentions, “Pyrolysis is a method
of thermal decomposition in an environment with limited oxygen at temperatures between 400-650°C. The
process can be used to generate electricity and fuels, but when cold plasma is added to the equation it can
convert waste plastics into hydrogen, methane and ethylene.”
S75. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct choice can be inferred from the second paragraph which mentions, “Instead of wasting
plastics, cold plasma pyrolysis can recover valuable materials, which can be used to produce other plastic
products in turn. While it can take hundreds of years for certain plastics to completely degrade, cold plasma
pyrolysis offers a quick alternative.”
S76. Ans.(a)
Sol. Only option (a) is correct.
For option (a), refer to the second paragraph, which mentions, “Hydrogen and methane can be used as clean
fuels as they produce minimal amounts of soot and carbon dioxide, while ethylene is the building block of
most plastics.”
For option (b), refer to the first paragraph, which mentions, “Many companies have touted their products
by packaging them in attractive single use plastic.”
For option (c), refer to the first paragraph, which mentions, “Single-use plastics are goods that are made
primarily from fossil fuel–based chemicals (petrochemicals) and are meant to be disposed of right after
use—often, in mere minutes.”
For option (d), refer to the second paragraph, which mentions, “Pyrolysis is a method of thermal
decomposition in an environment with limited oxygen at temperatures between 400-650°C.”
S77. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct word for the blank is ‘prioritize’.
terminate means bring to an end.
constrain means compel or force (someone) to follow a particular course of action.
renounce means formally declare one's abandonment of (a claim, right, or possession).
prioritize means designate or treat (something) as being very or most important.
S78. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Endorsed’ is a synonym of ‘touted’.
touted means attempt to sell (something), typically by a direct or persistent approach.
palliated means make (a disease or its symptoms) less severe without removing the cause.
endorsed means recommend (a product) in an advertisement.
denied means state that one refuses to admit the truth or existence of.
bothered means concerned about something.
S79. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Evade’ is an antonym of ‘impact’
hamper means hinder or impede the movement or progress of.
foment means instigate or stir up (an undesirable or violent sentiment or course of action).
evade means escape or avoid (someone or something), especially by guile or trickery.
prompt means cause or bring about (an action or feeling).
S80. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Reveal’ is a synonym of ‘unveil’.
reveal means make (previously unknown or secret information) known to others.
underpin means support, justify, or form the basis for.
periled means expose to danger; threaten.
solemn means formal and dignified.
S81. Ans.(d)
Sol. The order of the sentences which forms the most meaningful narrative is BDCEA.
The first sentence in the final order would be sentence (B) as it gives the best introduction for the narrative,
establishing the foundation by introducing the subject of discussion, mangrove trees. Looking further into
the passage allows the reader to establish what the text is about – the basic characteristics of the mangrove
trees and how these characteristics in their natural habitat help avoid many disasters. Thus, next is the
order is sentence (D) which gives the most basic characteristics of the tree, mentioning its habitat further,
continuing from sentence (B). Sentences (C) and (E) describe even more characteristics of the tree,
specifically the roots. The first of these sentences should be sentence (C) as (E) seems to be a continuation
of it. The final and the only remaining sentence, (A), gives the most appropriate summary of the text as it
states the benefits of these characteristics of the mangrove tree to the environment. Thus, the correct order
of the sentences after rearrangement is BDCEA.
S82. Ans.(e)
S83. Ans.(c)
S84. Ans.(b)
S85. Ans.(b)
S86. Ans.(d)
Sol. focus – to cause to be concentrated
indicate – to point out or point to
reduce – to draw together or cause to converge
maintain – to affirm in or as if in argument
mediate – occupying a middle position
The context of the sentence in question hints at the issues developing countries state they face with climate
finances, as can be understood from the starting lines of the passage and the entirety of the passage giving
a voice to these issues. To correlate the issue to developing countries as an argument or opinion, only the
verb “maintain” can be used, as is apparent from the given definitions.
S87. Ans.(e)
Sol. attach – to bring (oneself) into an association
remain – to be a part not destroyed, taken, or used up
examine – to inspect closely
challenge – to dispute especially as being unjust, invalid, or outmoded
view – regard in a particular light or with a particular attitude
The context of the sentence in question hints at the issues developing countries state they face with climate
finances, as can be understood from the starting lines of the passage and the entirety of the passage giving
a voice to these issues. To correlate the issue to developing countries as an argument or opinion, only the
verb “view” can be used, as is apparent from the given definitions.
S88. Ans.(b)
Sol. concern – to be about
address – to deal with
delay – the act of postponing, hindering, or causing something to occur more slowly than normal
suggest – to mention or imply as a possibility
discover – to make known or visible
The only word that fills the blank appropriately is “address” as it connects the effect of aid from climate
finances to the needs of developing countries.
S89. Ans.(b)
Sol. bustling – full of lively activity; busily astir
skewed – distorted from a true value or symmetrical form
abundant – existing or occurring in large amounts
defiant – full of or showing a disposition to challenge, resist, or fight
descriptive – presenting observations about the characteristics of someone or something
The only two adverbs that are appropriate for describing climate finance are thus “skewed” and “abundant”,
but the context requires a negative adverb as it states the problems with climate finances and the “already”
existing flaws in it, and thus, “skewed” is the correct word.
S90. Ans.(c)
Sol. distinct – presenting a clear unmistakable impression
quick – fast in development or occurrence
unlikely – not likely
probable – likely to be or become true or real
receptive – able or inclined to receive
The entirety of the second paragraph states the improbability of privately financed entities being successful
especially in regard to adaptation. The last statement, thus, can only mention the limitation of private
climate finances, acting as an extension of the previous statements and a conclusion to the passage by
nature anyway. Thus, the only word that can fill the blank appropriately is the word “unlikely”.
S91. Ans.(a)
Sol. Only option (a) is correct. In option (b), ‘painting’ should replace ‘paint’ as we need an object. In
grammar, we use the word 'object' to talk about the thing or person that the verb is done to, or who receives
the verb. It can be a noun, a noun phrase, a pronoun. Thus the required form should be noun(painting),
rather than verb(paint). In (c), ‘seems’ should replace ‘seem’ as after third person singular form we use -s
with the main verb (ex- sleeps, eats). In (d), ‘unwilling’ must be change to ‘unwillingly’ as the required form
is adverb here. It is modifying verb, thus adverb is needed.
S92. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct option is (d). In (a), an adverb(commercially) is needed as it is modifying a
adjective(viable). In (b), ‘erased’ should replace ‘erase’. The sentence is passive voice of present perfect
tense. When we have to talk about an object or give importance to an object in our conversation then those
sentences which contain ‘has/have +been+V3’ are used. In (c), ‘at’ must be replaced with ‘from’ ‘far from’
phrase’s meaning is tending to the opposite of what is expected.
S93. Ans.(a)
Sol. Only statement (a) is correct. In (b), gifts should be used instead of gift as ‘babies’ is plural here. In (c),
‘kept’ should be replaced with ‘keep’, as after ‘to’ base form of the verb is used. In (d), ‘did’ is wrong usage
and must be replaced with ‘do’ because the sentence is in simple present tense.
S94. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct option is (d). In (a), the phrase "instead of" is not necessary and is incorrect in this context.
The correct construction is to use "instead" alone to indicate an alternative action or choice. In (b), ‘distant’
is the correct usage instead of ‘distance’ as the required form is adjective(distant), not noun(distance). In
(c), ‘was’ should be used instead of ‘were’ because of the singular word(sight).
S95. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct option is (c). In (a), ‘it’ should be replaced with ‘them’, as it is referring ‘villages’ which is
plural. In (b), ‘saw’ must be changed to ‘see’ as after model verb (could/would/should), verb’s first form is
used. In (d), ‘explain’ must be changed to ‘explains’ as ‘she’ is singular here, thus need singular
verb(explains).
S96. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Devise’ means plan or invent (a complex procedure, system, or
mechanism) by careful thought. Thus, only option (c) is correct.
S97. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Erupt means break out suddenly and dramatically. Thus, only
option (d) is correct.
S98. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘lightening’ means make or become more cheerful or less serious.
Thus, only option (a) is correct.
S99. Ans.(d)
Sol. Here the usage of ‘great’ is wrong and it should be replaced with ‘grate’. ‘Grate’ means
the recess of a fireplace or furnace.
S100. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘alike’ should replace ‘like’. The need is adjective(alike) here, whereas ‘like’ is preposition.

SBI-Clerk- 6

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

SBI-Clerk- 6

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

SBI-Clerk- 6

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Paper 2022 Mock 6

Q2. Who among the following goes immediately before W?

Q3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about U?

Q4. In which month Q goes for party?

Q5. Who among the following going for party in October?

(a) Both conclusions I and II are true

(a) Both conclusions I and II are true

(a) Both conclusions I and II are true

Q11. How many persons sit between G and A?

Q13. Who among the following is/are an immediate neighbor of F?

Q14. Which of the following statement is true about A?

Q19. Which of the following box is placed just below box L?

Q20. Which of the following box is placed just above box N?

Q22. What is the position of box M?

Q25. Point J is in which direction with respect to point D?

Q32. How many floors are there between F and D?

Q33. Who among the following lives on flat-1 of floor 3?

9 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

Q71. What is/are the characteristic(s) of single use plastic?

Q79. Which of the following is an antonym of ‘impact’ given in the passage?

Q99. An earlier cigarette butt smoldered in the great.

Q100. It's quite common to see couples who dress like.

20 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

22 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

25 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

27 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

28 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

29 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

30 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

31 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

32 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

34 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

35 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

36 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

37 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

38 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

44 www.bankersadda.com | Adda247 App

You might also like