Mock CLAT 47 Question Paper - FINAL5704680

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25

MOCK CLAT 47
TR ID.
(In Figures)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
c o m
Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)
1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader
rs . Maximum Marks : 120

10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
e
(OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy response Sheet.
has to be detached and taken by the
candidates.
an
2. In case of any discrepancy in the question k
11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for
shading the circles. Indicate only the most
appropriate answer by shading from the
p r
booklet (QB), please request the invigilator for
replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR.
Do not use the previous OMR response Sheet
options provided. The answer circle should be
shaded completely without leaving any space.
12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected
To
for a fresh booklet so obtained.
3. Candidates will not be given a second blank
OMR response Sheet under any circumstance.
Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled
carefully.
on the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have
to take necessary precautions before marking
the appropriate circle.
13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card
duly Signed by the invigilator, as the same has
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be to be produced at the time of Admission.
sought on the Questions Paper 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is not fold.
strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate5H7B0A4H6B8C0A the space provided on the OMR response
tr-
shall result in the cancellation of his/her Sheet. Candidate should sign in the space
examination. provided on the OMR response Sheet.
7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, 16. The candidate should write Question Paper
apart from disqualification, will be liable to be booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No.,
prosecuted. and sign in the space/column provided in the
8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law attendance sheet.
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response
multiple Choice Questions. Sheet to the invigilator after the examination.
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks OMR response Sheet other than the details
will be deducted for every wrong answer or tr-5S7Q0Q4S 6L 8M 0T
required and in the spaces provided for.
where candidates
8M0T have marked more than one
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
response.
CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER
Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-52 9
Legal Reasoning 53-84 15
Logical Reasoning 85-108 26
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 32
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
T
6B8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 36
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.3): AT MIDNIGHT THE CAFÉ was crowded. By some chance the little table at which I sat
had escaped the eye of incomers, and two vacant chairs at it extended their arms with venal hospitality to the
influx of patrons.
And then a cosmopolite sat in one of them, and I was glad, for I held a theory that since Adam no true citizen of
the world has existed. We hear of them, and we see foreign labels on much luggage, but we find travellers instead
of cosmopolites. I invoke your consideration of the scene - the marble-topped tables, the range of leather-
upholstered wall seats, the gay company, the ladies dressed in demi-state toilets, speaking in an exquisite visible
chorus of taste, economy, opulence or art, the sedulous and largess-loving garçons, the music wisely catering to
all with its raids upon the composers; the mélange of talk and laughter - and, if you will, the Würzburger in the
by a sculptor from Mauch Chunk that the scene was truly Parisian.
c o m
tall glass cones that bend to your lips as a ripe cherry sways on its branch to the beak of a robber jay. I was told
rs .
My cosmopolite was named E. Rushmore Coglan, and he will be heard from next summer at Coney Island. He
is to establish a new 'attraction' there, he informed me, offering kingly diversion. And then his conversation rang
along parallels of latitude and longitude. He took the great, round world in his hand, so to speak, familiarly,
k e
contemptuously, and it seemed no larger than the seed of a Maraschino cherry in a table-d'hôte grape fruit. He
spoke disrespectfully of the equator, he skipped from continent to continent, he derided the zones, he mopped
n
up the high seas with his napkin. With a wave of his hand he would speak of a certain bazaar in Hyderabad.
a
Whiff! He would have you on skis in Lapland. Zip! Now you rode the breakers with the Kanakas at Kealaikahiki.
p r
Presto! He dragged you through an Arkansas postoak swamp, let you dry for a moment on the alkali plains of
his Idaho ranch, then whirled you into the society of Viennese archdukes. Anon he would be telling you of a
o
cold he acquired in a Chicago lake breeze and how old Escamila cured it in Buenos Ayres with a hot infusion of
the chuchula weed. You would have addressed the letter to 'E. Rushmore Coglan, Esq., the Earth, Solar System,
1. T
the Universe,' and have mailed it, feeling confident that it would be delivered to him.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “A Cosmopolite in a Café”, by O. Henry
What was the narrator's initial perception of E. Rushmore Coglan after their interaction in the café?
(a) The narrator doubts Coglan's extensive travel claims, feeling they might be exaggerated.
(b) The narrator is overwhelmed by Coglan's rapid topic changes and struggles to keep up.
(c) The narrator is impressed and convinced by Coglan's worldly knowledge and experiences.
(d) The narrator finds Coglan's stories interesting but too fantastical to believe completely.
6B8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H
2. Which aspect of the café does the narrator highlight as contributing to its vibrant and worldly charm?
(a) The marble-topped tables and leather-upholstered wall seats.
(b) The fashionable and diverse attire of the patrons, adding a visual chorus of taste and style.
(c) The range of music catering to varied tastes.
(d) All of the above.
3. What does the word "cosmopolite" imply about E. Rushmore Coglan's character in the passage?
(a) He is primarily interested in his local traditions and seldom travels abroad.
(b) He is a world traveler with a broad, global perspective.
(c) He has a superficial knowledge of places but lacks deep cultural understanding.
tr-5S7Q0Q 4S6L8M0T
(d) He is skeptical about the benefits of international travel and global exposure.
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
Passage (Q.4 and Q.5): The purpose of a university is to teach and mentor future citizens; and to acquire and
create knowledge through research. Research and teaching are two sides of the education coin: knowledge
creation and dissemination. A university needs to excel in both in order to fulfil its obligations to students and
society. Through its activities, a university also has social and economic impacts. It is impossible to capture a
university’s multidimensional nature with a single metric, represented by a global or national rank.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “An obsession with ranking is harming India’s universities”, by
Swaminathan S, The Hindu
4. According to the passage, what is described as the dual responsibility of a university?
(a) To mentor future citizens and measure the economic impacts of education
(b) To educate and guide the next generation as well as engaging in the development and innovation of
knowledge through research.
(c) To create knowledge and rank globally based on teaching effectiveness
(d) To disseminate knowledge and focus solely on student obligations
c o m
5.
(a) It is an effective method as it simplifies the assessment process
(b) It is inadequate because universities have complex, multifaceted roles.
rs .
What does the passage imply about the effectiveness of using a single metric to evaluate a university?
(c) It is preferred for highlighting a university’s economic impact

(d) It exclusively focuses on the social impacts of a university’s activities
k e
n
Passage (Q.6-Q.8): In the 1930s and 40s, the art deco style was a huge trend in Europe, but it had not yet
a
permeated the architectural landscape of India. But the sons of many of India's maharajas were exposed to the
style when they travelled abroad to study.
r
o p
And so, when Maharaja Mahendrasinhji's son was building a new palace in Morvi (now Morbi) - which he
christened The New Palace - he wanted it designed and furnished in the art deco style.
T
He tasked the artist Stefan Norblin with beautifying the interiors of the place with his paintings. He made massive
murals depicting hunting scenes, Hindu god Shiva lost in prayer, portraits of the ruler's ancestors and imagery
that captured the flora and fauna of the area. His human figures have a mix of dark and light complexions and a
mystical, nymph-like quality.
Most captivating are his murals of the goddess Durga, who is often depicted riding a lion and slaying a demon.
The goddess is also depicted having many hands, each carrying a lethal weapon.
In one of Norblin's paintings of Durga, the goddess 6B8C0A
looks almost like an Egyptian princess; in another, strokes
tr-5H7B0A4H
of black paint give shape to the goddess, making her look almost like a shadow streaking across the wall.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “The Polish artist who painted Hindu gods in Indian palaces”,
by Cherylann Mollan, BBC
6. How are the human figures represented in Stefan Norblin's murals at The New Palace as described in the passage?
(a) The human figures are depicted with realistic and detailed facial features, focusing on accurate skin tones.
(b) The figures are illustrated as warriors from medieval Europe, featuring heavy armor and swords.
(c) The figures in the murals are characterized by an ethereal, fairy-like quality and vary in complexion from
dark to light.
(d) The human figures are portrayed as abstract forms with minimal detail and exaggerated proportions.
6L8M0T tr-5S7Q0Q4S
7. What would8Mbe0Ta suitable title for the passage describing Stefan Norblin's murals at The New Palace?
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
(a) Modern Art Techniques in Traditional Settings
(b) Stefan Norblin’s Ethereal Creations at The New Palace
(c) Norblin's Murals at the New Palace: Delineating Mythology
(d) The Fusion of East and West in Palace Art
8. In the context of the passage, what does the word "permeated" most closely mean?
(a) Spread throughout or pervaded (b) Blocked or obstructed
(c) Diluted or weakened (d) Accelerated or quickened
Passage (Q.9-Q.11): Miss Manette had taken some refreshment on the road, and required none then, and was
extremely anxious to see the gentleman from Tellson’s immediately, if it suited his pleasure and convenience.
The gentleman from Tellson’s had nothing left for it but to empty his glass with an air of stolid desperation,
settle his odd little flaxen wig at the ears, and follow the waiter to Miss Manette’s apartment. It was a large, dark
room, furnished in a funereal manner with black horsehair, and loaded with heavy dark tables. These had been
oiled and oiled, until the two tall candles on the table in the middle of the room were gloomily reflected on every
them until they were dug out.
c o m
leaf; as if they were buried, in deep graves of black mahogany, and no light to speak of could be expected from
rs .
The obscurity was so difficult to penetrate that Mr. Lorry, picking his way over the well-worn Turkey carpet,
supposed Miss Manette to be, for the moment, in some adjacent room, until, having got past the two tall candles,
he saw standing to receive him by the table between them and the fire, a young lady of not more than seventeen,
k e
in a riding-cloak, and still holding her straw travelling-hat by its ribbon in her hand. As his eyes rested on a short,
slight, pretty figure, a quantity of golden hair, a pair of blue eyes that met his own with an inquiring look, and a
n
forehead with a singular capacity, of rifting and knitting itself into an expression that was not quite one of
a
perplexity, or wonder, or alarm, or merely of a bright fixed attention, though it included all the four expressions—
p r
as his eyes rested on these things, a sudden vivid likeness passed before him, of a child whom he had held in his
arms on the passage across that very Channel, one cold time, when the hail drifted heavily and the sea ran high.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “A TALE OF TWO CITIES”, by Charles Dickens
9.
10.
(c) Comfort and warmth
o
What is the primary emotion conveyed by the setting in which Mr. Lorry meets Miss Manette?
T
(a) Festivity and lightness (b) Gloom and foreboding
(d) Elation and brightness
According to the passage, what does the phrase "an air of stolid desperation" suggest about the gentleman from
Tellson’s behavior or emotional state?
(a) He exhibited a misleading cheerfulness, pretending eagerness where there was none.
(b) He showed signs of distress and panic, visibly struggling with his emotions.
(c) He maintained a careful composure, managing0A his 6B
actions
8C0A with deliberate precision.
tr-5H7B 4H
(d) He demonstrated a quiet resignation, facing his situation without displaying emotion.
11. What challenge does Mr. Lorry face as he navigates to meet Miss Manette in the room?
(a) He struggles with the dimly lit surroundings that obscure his path.
(b) He slips on the polished mahogany floors of the room.
(c) He dodges furniture that blocks his direct path to Miss Manette.
(d) He is distracted by the reflections in the oiled tables.
Passage (Q.12-Q.14): In India’s Kulsi river, the already-endangered Gangetic river dolphin is losing habitat to
wide scale sand mining. Similar ecological damage has been reported in the Mekong River, a boundary river in
East Asia and Southeast Asia, where massive sand0Q4S extraction
6L8M0T operations have upended a biodiverse river
tr-5S7Q
ecosystem. Illegal sand extraction also has massive social impacts. Damage to riverbeds can imperil local
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L such as bridges, and pollution from equipment fuel spills can destroy fisheries and threaten water
infrastructure
for drinking and for agriculture. Along a part of the coastline of Tamil Nadu in India, entire villages have been
abandoned due to the threat of erosion.
Mafias also threaten, intimidate, and abuse people living in the communities where they work—not just
journalists, but farmers, NGO workers, community leaders, and even some local police officers. Hundreds of
people have reportedly died in conflicts over sand in India, Kenya, and Nigeria. For sand mining laborers,
working conditions are dangerous. In the case of Vasai Creek in Mumbai, miners report that their fellow miners
have sometimes got buried in underwater sand dunes and simply never returned . Even though sand has built
almost everything in modern life, few people realize the extent of its use—or the violence kicked up by its
extraction.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “Sand mafias battle for the new gold”, by Katherine Gammon,
Big Think
12. The author’s views on sand mining, as presented in the passage, appear to be -
(a) Critical of sand mining because of the detrimental effect it has on the national economy.
(b) Unbiased in assessing the repercussions of sand mining activities.
(c) Disapproving of sand mining due to its adverse environmental and social impacts.
(d) Apathetic regarding the effects of sand mining on community welfare.
c o m
13.
rs
What is a significant environmental impact of sand mining as described in the passage?
(a) It increases fish populations by providing them with more nesting areas.
.
e
(b) It destroys river ecosystems, leading to the loss of habitats in rivers.
k
(c) It causes river-pollution by decreasing the temperature of the river water.
(d) It promotes the growth of mangrove forests along riverbeds.
14.
an
What can be inferred about the safety and working conditions of sand miners in India based on the passage?
r
(a) Sand miners are likely to work under conditions that are well-regulated and monitored by authorities.
p
(b) Sand miners seem to be exposed to potentially fatal risks without adequate safety measures in place.
o
(c) Sand miners appear to benefit from community support that mitigates the dangers of their work.
(d) Sand miners primarily encounter discomfort due to poor working conditions but rarely face serious harm.
T
Passage (Q.15 and Q.16): A friend recently joked about needing more young people on his team. “The rest of
us,” he declared, half joking, “are uncles”. I asked him what he meant. “Uncles hold on to the ‘me’ factor,” he
elaborated, a feeling that ‘you cannot reach anywhere without me’, whether it’s at work or in life.
Said friend, let’s call him Samarth, based in Kerala, introspected: “I think it [uncle-dom] starts with a lack of
understanding of new beliefs, and then goes into dislike, and then even resentment.” This deteriorates into being
ill-tempered and writing off an entire generation as useless. It also springs from “experience and self-proclaimed
seniority”. 6B8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “ Indian Uncles Inc.”, by Sunalini Mathew, The Hindu
15. According to Samarth, how does "uncle-dom" typically progress in attitude towards new beliefs?
(a) It starts with an outright rejection of new ideas to being adamant at enforcing the old ideas.
(b) It progresses from unfamiliarity with new concepts to a dismissive and possibly antagonistic view.
(c) It starts with strong support for younger generations but gradually becomes indifferent.
(d) It begins as a balanced perspective that respects both traditional and modern beliefs.
16. What does the phrase "It also springs from 'experience and self-proclaimed seniority'" imply in the context of
the passage?
(a) A tendency to seek validation for one’s achievements from
8M0T peers.
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
(b) A desire to share wisdom with younger generations for their benefit.
0T
7Q0Q4S6L8M
tr-5SA
(c) belief that one's own experience justifies an attitude of superiority over others.
(d) An assumption that experience naturally is eclipsed by new ideas.
Passage (Q.17 and Q.18): While bingeing on Harry Potter fanfiction, I was taking courses at high school, then
university, in classical and mediaeval literature. I learned Latin, and read Virgil, Cicero and St Augustine in the
original language. I wrote cold, sober, critical essays, but stayed up late into the night with fanfiction, my guilty
pleasure, seemingly as far removed from the study of literature as it was possible to be. I moved to Canada to go
to graduate school. By then I knew that fantasising about meeting Geoffrey Chaucer, or imagining what Queen
Eleanor of Aquitaine might do if she met Sir Lancelot, was not the way serious readers did it. But I struggled
with cognitive dissonance, since it was obvious to me that fanfiction had made me good at reading.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “ Full-body reading”, by Anna Wilson ,aeon
17. What does the author’s experience reveal about her relationship with fanfiction and academic literature?
(a) The author views fanfiction as a useful tool for enhancing her understanding of classical literature.
(b) The author sees no difference between reading fanfiction and reading classical texts like Virgil or St.
m
Augustine.
(c) The author feels conflicted about her enjoyment of fanfiction, feeling that it contrasts sharply with the
seriousness of academic literature.
.c o
(d) The author believes that her studies of classical and medieval literature validate their passion for fanfiction.
rs
18. What is implied about the author's perception of “serious readers” in the context of the passage?
(a) Serious readers are those who engage in both fanfiction and traditional literature without any sense of conflict
or guilt.
k e
(b) The author believes that serious readers are defined by their ability to analyze and critique classical works,
n
avoiding any imaginative play with characters.
a
(c) Serious readers are those who read a wide range of genres, including both classical texts and fanfiction, with
equal enthusiasm.
p r
(d) The author views serious readers as people who acknowledge the importance of fanfiction in understanding
and analyzing classical literature deeply.
o
Passage (Q.19-Q.21): Distinguishing memories of things that really happened from those that did not is a mental
T
process known as reality monitoring. When we look at something in the environment, powerful signals from the
eyes make their way up through the visual cortex, leading to recognition in higher-order parts of the brain. During
imagination, the information comes from the other direction: Higher-order areas of the visual cortex are activated
first. Because imagination is often deliberate, we also see more recruitment of the frontal cortex, important for
cognitive control.
These distinctions are key when it comes to determining the source of memories, a task in which the anterior
medial prefrontal cortex—thought to be critical to attention,0A
and to working, spatial, and long-term memory—
7B0A4H6B8C
tr-5Hof
seems to play an important role. When this part the mind is doing its job, we are pretty good at distinguishing
memories of what we saw from what we imagined.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “What makes a memory real?”, by Jim Davies, Big Think
19. According to the passage, what role does the anterior medial prefrontal cortex play in reality monitoring?
(a) It is responsible for initiating visual signals from the eyes during real-life events.
(b) It controls the direction of signal flow between higher-order visual areas and the frontal cortex.
(c) It plays a critical role in distinguishing between memories of real experiences and imagined scenarios.
(d) It is the main part of the brain involved in imagination without any connection to real-life memory.
20. What is the most accurate definition of the term "cognitive"?
4S6L8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Qin
(a) Relating to the processes of emotions and feelings decision-making.
8M0T
(b)
tr-5SPertaining
7Q0Q 4S 6L to the mental processes involved in acquiring knowledge and understanding.
(c) Associated with physical abilities and coordination rather than mental functions.
(d) Referring to external factors influencing behavior and decision-making.
21. What is the central idea of the passage ?
(a) The passage examines various methods for enhancing memory capacity and mental acuity.
(b) The passage elucidates the mechanism of reality monitoring by highlighting how specific brain regions help
differentiate actual from fictional memories.
(c) The passage details the mechanisms of memory creation, focusing on the vital role played by the visual
cortex in interpreting stimuli from the environment.
(d) The passage discusses the effects of imagination on psychological behaviors and the choices individuals
make.
Passage (Q.22-Q.24): When it comes to human aggression, violence and war, there simply is no unitary direction
impelled by evolution. On the one hand, we are capable of despicable acts of horrific violence; on the other, we
evince remarkable compassion and self-abnegation. Our selfish genes can generate a wide array of nasty,
m
destructive and unpleasant actions; and yet, these same selfish genes can incline us toward altruistic acts of
o
extraordinary selflessness. It is at least possible that our remarkably rapid brain evolution has been driven by the
c
pay-off derived by successful warlike competition with other primitive human and humanoid groups. But it is
taking.
rs .
equally possible that it was driven by the pay-off associated with co-operation, co‑ordination and mutual care-
e
Indeed, it is easy to develop models whereby animals and people who are adroit at these tasks — along with
genes that predispose in such directions — will be favoured by natural selection over alternative individuals and
alleles that are comparatively more bellicose.
an k
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “ Is there a war instinct? ”, by David P Barash ,aeon
22.
r
How does the passage describe the relationship between "selfish genes" and human behaviors?
p
(a) Selfish genes predominantly produce behaviors that are geared towards personal survival without regard for
others.
evolutionary success.
To
(b) Selfish genes exclusively propel individuals towards competitive and hostile interactions to maximize
(c) Selfish genes limit an individual's capacity to engage in altruistic acts, as they prioritize personal genetic
propagation.
(d) Selfish genes can lead to a spectrum of behaviors, from destructive actions to altruistic acts.
23. The word "bellicose" means:
(a) Demonstrating aggression and a willingness to fight.
(b) Exhibiting calmness and peaceful behavior in all interactions.
6B8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H
(c) Focused on negotiation and diplomacy in resolving conflicts.
(d) Interested in artistic pursuits and cultural activities.
24. What is the central idea of the passage?
(a) Evolution has solely propelled humans towards increased cooperation and mutual care-taking to ensure
survival.
(b) Human aggression, violence, and war are inherent traits driven by evolutionary forces that cannot be
mitigated.
(c) Human behavior, including aggression and altruism, is influenced by evolutionary processes that can result
in both destructive and cooperative behaviors.
0T
(d) The rapid evolution of the human brain was 7Q0Q4S6L8M
tr-5Suniquely driven by the need to compete and dominate other
tr-5Sgroups
7Q0Q4S6Lthrough warfare.
8M0T
SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.25-Q.52): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.25-Q.30): US Election and related Electoral Aspects in India
A new poll confirmed Sunday, August 4, 2024, that Kamala Harris -- set to name her vice presidential pick
imminently -- has drawn level with Donald Trump, transforming a White House race that the Republican had
been increasingly confident he was going to win. As the November 5 election rapidly approaches, Harris has
erased the growing lead that Trump was building before President Joe Biden dropped his re-election bid.
According to the CBS News/YouGov poll released Sunday, Harris has a one percent advantage on Trump
nationwide -- compared to Trump's previous five-point edge on Biden.
In the swing states that decide the Electoral College contest in US elections, Harris and Trump -- who shocked
m
the world with his 2016 presidential victory but was beaten by Biden in 2020 -- are equal. These are considered
good numbers for a Democratic candidate who parachuted into the race only last month, when Biden bowed to
.c o
mounting concerns over his mental acuity and ability at 81 years old to serve a second term.
But Harris, who is Biden's vice president and the first Black and South Asian woman ever in the role, is in a sprint to
rs
define herself to voters before Trump does. A big moment in that process will be when Harris announces her choice
for running mate in a historic bid to become America's first female president. This could happen as early as Sunday
k e
or Monday. Expectations are that Harris will pick a white man to balance the ticket -- and likely a moderate Democrat
who would help counterweigh attacks on Harris from Republicans that she is too far to the left.
25.
n
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://www.thehindu.com
a
Consider the following statements about the process of selecting a party’s presidential candidate in the United
States:
r
candidate.
o p
1. A nominee must win a simple majority of delegates on the convention day to become the party’s presidential
T
2. Each political party determines how many delegates to allocate to each state and territory.
3. Delegates are chosen by the national party leaders without involvement from the public.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
26. Which American political movement is known for its conservative positions, significant role within the
Republican Party, advocacy for reducing the national debt and federal budget deficit, opposition to government-
sponsored universal healthcare, and is described as a mixture of libertarian, populist, and conservative activism?
(a) Progressive Movement (b) Green
tr-5H7B0A4H
Party
6B8C 0A
(c) Tea Party (d) Libertarian Movement
27. "A Promised Land" is a memoir written by which of the following Former American Presidents, published in
2020, which details his early political career and his first term as President of the United States?
(a) George W. Bush (b) Bill Clinton (c) Barack Obama (d) Jimmy Carter
28. Comparing the election and voting rules between the US and India, which of the following statements is
CORRECT?
(a) In both the US and India, a person can be president for only two terms.
(b) In India, prisoners are allowed to vote, but in the US, they are not allowed to vote in any state.
(c) A person convicted of certain offences can be disqualified
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T from contesting elections in India, but this
disqualification
8M0T
does not exist in the US.
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
(d) A person convicted of certain offences can be disqualified from contesting elections in USA, but this
disqualification does not exist in the India.
29. Tim Walz, recently chosen as Kamala Harris's running mate for the Democratic ticket, is the governor of which
US state?
(a) Michigan (b) Wisconsin (c) Minnesota (d) Ohio
30. Which of the following statements about the powers of the Vice President in India and the United States is
CORRECT?
(a) The Vice President of India can veto bills passed by the Parliament, similar to the Vice President of the
United States.
(b) Both the Vice President of India and the Vice President of the United States serve as the head of their
respective governments when the President is absent.
(c) The Vice President of India does not have any legislative role, unlike the Vice President of the United States
who serves as the Speaker of the House of Representatives.
m
(d) The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, while the Vice President of the
United States serves as the President of the Senate.
Passage (Q.31-Q.36): State Elections and the Election Commission
.c o
The new Assembly (or Lok Sabha) has to be in place before the end of the current Assembly’s term, which
rs
means the election process, including giving certificates of election to the winners and the completion of all
formalities, has to be completed before that date. The ECI works backwards from that date, planning the schedule
k e
based on the weather, availability of security forces, festivals, training of officers, procurement of EVMs, etc.
Before finalising the schedule, the ECI visits the state to take inputs from the administrative and police
n
machinery. It also tries to club together voting in all states where polls are due around the same time.
a
Delhi is not preoccupying the ECI currently. The ECI is currently engaged in conducting the Jammu and Kashmir
r
Assembly election, where voting in the first phase will take place on September 18. Two more phases will be
o p
held on September 25 and October 1. Voting in Haryana will follow on October 5, and counting in both Haryana
and J&K will be held on October 8. Elections to the Maharashtra and Jharkhand Assemblies are due next; the
T
terms of these two Houses will end in November and January 2025 respectively.
Usually, a special summary revision of the electoral roll starts a few months before elections are due. The
electoral roll of Maharashtra has already been published with the eligibility date of July 1, which means those
who have turned 18 by that date have had a chance to enrol. The rolls of J&K, Haryana, Maharashtra, and
Jharkhand were published in August. For all other states and UTs, including Delhi, the annual revision with the
eligibility date of January 1, 2025 will be published on January 6, 2025, as per instructions issued by the ECI.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://indianexpress.com
8C
0A4H6Band 0A
31. Which of the following statements regarding tr-
the powers
5H7B processes related to elections in India is/are TRUE?
1. Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the powers of superintendence, direction, and control of elections are
vested in the respective State Election Commission in which the election is to be held.
2. Section 15(2) of The Representation of the People Act, 1951, says the election cannot be notified less than
six months before the end of the term of the Assembly unless the Assembly is dissolved before its term ends.
3. The Chief Minister has the authority to directly dissolve the Legislative Assembly at any time.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) All 1, 2, and 3
32. Which of the following committees was set up to explore the feasibility of the 'one nation, one election' (ONOE)
plan in India?
(a) Sarkaria Commission (b) S Balakrishnan
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T Committee
(c) Kovind 8MCommittee
0T
(d) Punchhi Commission
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
33. Which Chief Election Commissioner of India filed a case against the appointment of additional Election
Commissioners by the government in 1993, alleging that the move was intended to curb his powers?
(a) M S Gill (b) G V G Krishnamurthy
(c) T N Seshan (d) S Y Quraishi
34. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment and tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner
(CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs):
1. The Prime Minister appoints the CEC and ECs as per the CEC and Other ECs (Appointment, Conditions of
Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023.
2. They have a fixed tenure of 6 years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is later.
3. The salary and conditions of service of the CEC and ECs are equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
35.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only
o m
In which of the following landmark judgments of the Supreme Court, the minority opinion held that the Speaker
c
.
of the Lower House, due to being dependent on the support of the majority in the House, may not serve as an
rs
independent adjudicatory authority in matters related to disqualification?
(a) Sri Sankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India and State of Bihar
e
(b) Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu And Others
k
(c) State of Kerala Vs. K. Ajith and Others
(d) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
36.
an
Consider the following statements about the 15 amendments recommended in the Constitution of India, proposed
r
by the committee on One Nation, One Election to facilitate simultaneous elections:
p
1. Article 82A would be inserted to synchronise the election cycles of the Lok Sabha and state Assemblies.
o
2. Article 324A would empower Parliament to make laws ensuring that municipal and panchayat elections are
held simultaneously with Lok Sabha and Assembly elections.
(a) 1 only
T
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage (Q.37-Q.42): Abortion- France's constitution and India’s Position
The decision by the U.S. Supreme Court to strip women of the right to abortion has reverberated across Europe’s
political landscape, forcing the issue back into public debate in France at a time of political upheaval. Mathilde
Philip-Gay, a law professor and a specialist in French and American constitutional law, warned against easing
the pressure on legislators for women's rights as far-right parties — determined to curtail women's rights — gain
6B8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H around Europe and elsewhere.
political influence and are elected to form governments
"It may not be an issue in France, where a majority of people support abortion,” Ms. Philip-Gay said. “But those
same people may one day vote for a far-right government, and what happened in the U.S. can happen elsewhere
in Europe, including in France.” Inscribing abortion into the French Constitution "will make it harder for abortion
opponents of the future to challenge these rights, but it won't prevent them from doing it in the long run, with
the right political strategy,” Ms. Philip-Gay added.
"It only takes a moment for everything we thought that we have achieved to fade away,” said Yael Braun-Pivet,
the first female President of the French parliament, in her address to the joint session. Amending the constitution
is a laborious process and a rare event in France. Since it was enacted in 1958, the French Constitution has been
tr-5S7Q0Q 4S6L8M0T
amended 17 times. The last time was in 2008, when parliament was awarded more powers and French citizens
were
tr-5S7Qgranted
0Q 4S 6L the
8M0T right to bring their grievances to the Constitutional Court.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://www.thehindu.com
37. Which article of the French Constitution has been amended to guarantee a woman's right to voluntarily terminate
a pregnancy?
(a) Article 12 (b) Article 21 (c) Article 34 (d) Article 55
38. Which of the following is CORRECT about the Medical Termination of Pregnancy in India as per the latest
laws?
(a) The opinion of one Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP) is required for termination of pregnancy up to 24
weeks of gestation.
(b) The opinion of two Registered Medical Practitioners (RMPs) is required for termination of pregnancy up to
20 weeks of gestation.
(c) The opinion of two Registered Medical Practitioners (RMPs) is required for termination of pregnancy
between 20-24 weeks of gestation.
m
(d) The opinion of the State-level medical board is required for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of
gestation.
39.
c o
Which of the following committees was responsible for recommending the enactment of the Medical
Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971 in India?
.
rs
(a) Mudaliar Committee (b) Shantilal Shah Committee
(c) Verma Committee (d) Ashok Mehta Committee
40.
k e
In which of the following landmark judgements did the Andhra Pradesh High Court uphold an individual's
reproductive autonomy as part of the right to privacy?
n
(a) B. K. Parthasarthi v. Government of Andhra Pradesh
a
(b) Mohini Kuruvellam v. Government of Andhra Pradesh
(c) Olga Tellis v. Government of Andhra Pradesh
r
41.
o p
(d) K. S. Rajaswami v. Government of Andhra Pradesh
In 2022, the US Supreme Court in Dobbs v. Jackson Women's Health Organization overturned a landmark 1973
42.
(c) Roe v. Wade
T
judgment that gave women in America the right to have an abortion before the foetus is viable outside the womb
(before the 24–28-week mark). Which judgment is being referred to?
(a) Plessy v. Ferguson (b) Brown v. Board of Education
(d) Miranda v. Arizona
Which of the following statements regarding the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act in India is/are TRUE?
1. Abortion after 24 weeks is allowed only in cases where a Medical Board diagnoses substantial foetal
abnormalities.
8C0A
2. In cases of pregnancy exceeding 24 weeks due
tr-5H7B to6Brape,
0A4H the only recourse for abortion is through a Writ
Petition.
3. The Act requires abortion to be performed only by doctors with specialisation in gynaecology or obstetrics.
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All 1, 2, and 3
Passage (Q.43-Q.47): PM Vatsalya Yojana
In the Union Budget 2024-25, the Central Government had announced the Vatsalya Yojana. Union Finance and
Corporate Affairs Minister Nirmala Sitharaman will launch the NPS Vatsalya Yojana in the capital New Delhi
on 18 September. This scheme will be launched as per the announcement made in the Union Budget 2024-25.
School children will also participate in this launch program.
8M 0T
The Finance Ministry said that the Union Finance 7Q0Q4S6Lwill
Minister
tr-5S launch an online platform for taking membership
of NPS
tr-5S7Q0QVatsalya.
4S 6L 8M0T On this occasion, the Finance Minister will release the brochure of the scheme and will also
distribute Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN) cards to new minor subscribers. According to the
ministry, as part of its launch in the capital New Delhi, NPS Vatsalya programs will be organised simultaneously
at 75 nearby locations across the country. Along with this, people will join the program through video
conferences from other places and PRAN membership will also be distributed to new minor subscribers at that
place.
This new initiative has been launched to secure the financial future of children, which is a significant step in
India's pension system. The scheme will be run under the National Pension System. NPS Vatsalya will allow
parents to save for their children's future as well as ensure long-term wealth by investing in a pension account.
NPS Vatsalya will offer flexible contribution and investment options, allowing parents to invest as little as Rs
1,000 annually in the name of the child, making it accessible to families from all economic backgrounds.
Extracted with edit and revisions from https://ddnews.gov.in
43. According to the NPS Vatsalya Scheme, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(a) Parents or guardians can open an account for their minor children, and the contributions accumulate until the
child turns 18.
o m
(b) The scheme allows the accumulated amount to be transferred to a standard NPS account once the child
reaches adulthood.
c
(c) Contributions are invested exclusively in government bonds, ensuring a fixed return.
rs .
(d) The Vatsalya Scheme is part of the National Pension Scheme (NPS), which helps individuals build a
retirement corpus through market-linked investments.
44. What is the meaning of an Interim Budget in India?
k e
(a) A budget that covers the entire fiscal year and outlines long-term policies for economic growth.
n
(b) A budget that focuses only on the financial needs of certain sectors like agriculture and healthcare.
a
(c) A budget that deals with the immediate financial requirements for a few months until a new government is
formed.
r
45.
o p
(d) A budget that is implemented by state governments and focuses on short-term financial projects.
Which of the following is TRUE about the Union Budget as per Article 112 of the Indian Constitution?
Constitution. T
(a) The Union Budget is presented every two years and is referred to as the Annual Financial Review.
(b) The Union Budget outlines estimated receipts and expenditure for the next five years, as required by the
(c) The Union Budget only includes the government’s revenue receipts and does not mention any expenditures.
(d) The Union Budget covers the government’s estimated receipts and expenditure for a Financial Year starting
from 1st April to 31st March.
46. Who holds the record for presenting the most Union Budgets in India?
6B8C0A
(a) Morarji Desai (b)
tr-5H P.4HChidambaram
7B0A
(c) Manmohan Singh (d) Nirmala Sitharaman

47. Which of the following is TRUE about the withdrawal rules for the National Pension System (NPS) Vatsalya
scheme?
(a) Partial withdrawals are allowed without any restrictions from the date of account opening.
(b) Up to 50% of the total contributions can be withdrawn for any purpose, with no limitations on the number
of withdrawals.
(c) Up to 25% of the total contributions can be withdrawn up to three times, after three years, for purposes like
education, disability, or specific illness.
(d) The account can be withdrawn entirely in a tr-lump sum once
5S7Q0Q4S6L8M
0T the account holder turns 18.
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
Passage (Q.48-Q.52): Hockey Asian Championship 2024
In the intense match of Asian Champions Trophy Hockey Event 2024, the Indian hockey team emerges as the
strongest team in the entire tournament, showcasing exceptional skills and teamwork. In today's match, i.e.,
September 14, 2024, with Pakistan, the Indian hockey team showed exceptional skills on the field, dominating
the game with their strategic plays and precise execution.
The Indian hockey team defeated Pakistan 2-1 to advance to the Asian Champions Hockey Event semi-finals.
The team has already won bronze in the Summer Olympics 2024. The team's stellar performance has solidified
their reputation as a force to be reckoned with in international hockey competitions.
This time too, Harmanpreet Singh appeared as the star of the match, scoring both goals for India and leading the
team to victory. Although he was given a 5-minute suspension with 2 minutes left in the game. This means that
there are 10 men on the field, but the team managed to hold off Pakistan's last-minute attempts to score, securing
m
their spot in the semi-finals. India and Pakistan have secured their spots in the semi-finals, whereas the other 4
o
pool teams (Japan, China, Malaysia, and South Korea) will now compete for the remaining two spots. This sets
c
the stage for an exciting finish to the tournament, with all teams vying for a chance to compete for the gold
medal.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://www.jagranjosh.com
rs .
e
48. Who was the top goal scorer of the tournament with 9 goals?
k
(a) Jugraj Singh (b) Hanan Shahid (c) Wang Caiyu (d) Yang Jihun
n
49. According to the details of the Asian Men's Hockey Champions Trophy, which of the following statements is
a
CORRECT?
p r
(a) The Men's Asian Champions Trophy was first held in 2015, with Japan winning the inaugural tournament.
(b) The Asian Hockey Federation, which governs the tournament, has 20 member associations and is affiliated
o
with the International Hockey Federation (FIH).
(c) India won the first edition of the Asian Men's Hockey Champions Trophy in 2011 by defeating Pakistan in
50.
a penalty shoot-out.
T
(d) South Korea was the first team to win the Asian Champions Trophy by defeating China in the final.
Who did India defeat in the final of the Men's Asian Champions Trophy 2024 to win the title?
(a) Japan (b) South Korea (c) Pakistan (d) China
51. Who is the captain of the Indian men's hockey team that won a bronze medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics and
was also the top goal-scorer?
(a) Manpreet Singh (b) PR 6B
Sreejesh
8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H
(c) Harmanpreet Singh (d) Rupinder Pal Singh
52. Consider the following statements about the Asian Men's Hockey Champions Trophy and its sponsorship:
1. India has won the most titles in the Asian Men's Hockey Champions Trophy, with 5 victories.
2. Pakistan has won 3 titles, including one shared with India.
3. The Odisha Mining Corporation Ltd (OMC) is an official sponsor of Hockey India.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.53-Q.84): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.53-Q.57): The US Supreme Court refused to block a Texas anti-abortion law that bans termination
of pregnancy after six weeks. The Act, which took effect at midnight on September 1, makes it unlawful for
physicians to perform abortions even when they either detect cardiac activity in an embryo or fail to perform a
test to detect such activity post 6 weeks, even though this could be months before a viable foetus develops. Legal
experts have noted that the wording is designed to make it very difficult to challenge the law in courts.
Laws that outlaw an activity are enforced by the state. However, according to The New York Times, the Texas
law gives rights to private citizens to “sue anyone who performs an abortion or ‘aids and abets’ a procedure.
Plaintiffs who have no connection to the patient or the clinic may sue and recover legal fees, as well as $10,000
if they win”. On both moral and religious grounds, a strong anti-abortion movement is in place in the US. In
India, the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act allows abortion up to 24 weeks of pregnancy.
o m
In a 5-4 majority opinion, it has refused to block or grant a preliminary injunction against the law despite a
c
constitutional right to abortion that the US Supreme Court had recognised in the 1973 verdict Roe v Wade. Other
rs .
Republican states, too, have introduced similar laws but these have not yet been implemented as they are
challenged in courts. According to The NYT, these include Georgia, Mississippi, Kentucky and Ohio.
e
The obvious fallout is the enforcement of a regressive anti-abortion regime that would violate the rights of
women. Another question raised is about the US Supreme Court’s practice of handing out preliminary or
k
summary rulings that could vastly affect civil liberties — a practice that is referred to as “shadow docketing.”
n
Unlike the Indian Supreme Court, the US Supreme Court hears only about 60-70 cases in a year which it carefully
a
chooses. The cases chosen are put in the “merit docket”. For cases that do not make it to the docket, the court
p r
does not cite reasons or issue a signed reasoning. This practice is referred to as “shadow docketing”.
SOURCE: Indian Express “Reading US Supreme Court’s refusal to block Texas anti-abortion law”
53.
To
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-new-abortion-law-texas-us-7484833/
Greg Abbott, a Texas citizen, is famous for poking his nose into his neighbor's personal matters. As a result, he
found out that his neighbor Elisa had an abortion after 7 weeks at a Texas medical abortion clinic named "Good
News." At the time of her abortion, Texas's anti-abortion law was in effect. Hoping to earn money through
compensation, Greg Abbott sued the "Good News" medical abortion clinic for performing an illegal abortion.
Greg is a third party. Does he have the right to sue the medical clinic?
(a) Greg Abbott has no right to sue the medical clinic as a third party has no standing to sue and benefit from
legal matters.
(b) Greg Abbott has the right to sue the medical clinic 6B
tr-5H7B0A4H
because
8C0A abortion is a crime and a public wrong.
(c) Greg Abbott has the right to sue the medical clinic because Texas's anti-abortion law grants him eligibility.
(d) Greg Abbott has no right to sue the medical clinic because he is neither a relative nor connected to Elisa.
54. Jon and his wife Cherry, from Texas, have been trying to have a healthy child for 5 years of their marriage.
Fortunately, they have been blessed, and Cherry is now 4 months pregnant in October 2021. However, during a
sonography, a severe brain injury was detected in the fetus, which could result in the child being mentally
disabled for life. Jon and Cherry are aware of the Texas anti-abortion law; therefore, in November 2021, they
became citizens of India through diplomatic means. Can Jon and Cherry now legally abort the child in India?
(a) Texas anti-abortion law bans termination of pregnancy after six weeks and Cherry is 12 weeks pregnant.
Hence they are not eligible to abort the child.
5S7Q 0Q4S6L8M0T
(b) In India, they are eligible to legally undergotr-an abortion.
4S6L8M0T
(c)
tr-5SIn India,
7Q0Q also they are not eligible to do abortion because married women cannot plead mental disability of
child as a ground for abortion.
(d) Child is fully developed and heartbeat is detectable so in both the countries they are not eligible to abort the child.
55. Maria is an unmarried woman who is 5 weeks pregnant and lives in Texas. She visited a reputed abortion clinic
in Texas for an abortion, but the physicians detected cardiac activity in the fetus and refused to perform the
abortion. Maria is confused and unable to find a solution. Help her by answering her query: Can she legally have
an abortion under Texas anti-abortion law?
(a) Texas anti-abortion law bans termination of pregnancy after six weeks; therefore, Maria cannot abort the
child.
(b) Texas anti-abortion law bans termination of pregnancy after six weeks if physicians are able to detect cardiac
activity in the child.
(c) Maria is an unmarried woman and Texas anti-abortion law is applicable to married women only. Hence she
can do an abortion.
(d) Maria can legally have an abortion because she is only 5 weeks pregnant, and the law bans abortion after six
m
weeks of pregnancy.
o
56. Why according to the passage it is difficult to challenge the Texas anti-abortion law?
c
(a) The practice of shadow docketing by the US Supreme Court makes it difficult to challenge Texas anti-
abortion law.
(b) Due to legal wordings of the Act, it is difficult to challenge the law.
rs .
(c) Due to the lack of support of women it is difficult to challenge Texas anti-abortion law.
57.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
k e
Jon and his wife Cherry are from Georgia, a Republican state, have been trying to have a healthy child for 5
n
years of their marriage. Fortunately, in October 2021, Cherry is 6 months pregnant, but unfortunately, a severe
a
brain injury was detected in the fetus during a sonography, which could result in the child being mentally disabled
r
for life. Jon and Cherry want to abort the child. Decide:
(a) They may be eligible to abort the child.
o p
(b) Texas anti-abortion law bans termination of pregnancy after six weeks; therefore, they cannot abort the child.
T
(c) Physicians are able to detect cardiac activity in the fetus; hence, they cannot abort the child.
(d) Women have the constitutional right to an abortion; therefore, Cherry can abort the child.
Passage (Q.58-Q.62): In overturning the election results for the post of Mayor of the Chandigarh Municipal
Corporation, the Supreme Court invoked the sweeping powers conferred on the court under Article 142 of the
Constitution.
Article 142 provides a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do "complete justice" between the parties, where,
at times, the law or statute may not provide a remedy. In those situations, the court can extend itself to put an
4H6B8C0A
7B0Aof
end to a dispute in a manner that would fit the facts
tr-5H the case.
While the powers under Article 142 are extraordinary in nature, the apex court has defined its scope and extent
through its judgments over time.
In the Prem Chand Garg case, the court held that an order to do complete justice between the parties "must not
only be consistent with the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution, but it cannot even be inconsistent
with the substantive provisions of the relevant statutory laws," referring to laws made by Parliament.
Deeming the power under Article 142 to be "at an entirely different level and of a different quality", the court in
Union Carbide Corporation vs Union of India clarified that "prohibitions or limitations on provisions contained
in ordinary laws cannot, ipso-facto, act as prohibitions or limitations
8M0T on the constitutional powers under Article
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
142".
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
Adding that it would be "wholly incorrect" to say that powers under Article 142 are subject to express statutory
prohibitions, the court reasoned that doing so would convey the idea that statutory provisions override a
constitutional provision.
In 1998, the apex court in 'Supreme Court Bar Association vs Union of held that Article 142 is meant to support
the existing legal framework, not to create new legal principles or build an entirely new structure where the law
is silent or absent.
The court said that the powers conferred by Article 142 are curative and cannot be construed as powers "which
authorise the court to ignore the substantive rights of a litigant while dealing with a cause pending before it".
Adding that Article 142 cannot be used to build a new edifice, ignoring statutory provisions dealing with a
subject, the court also said that the provision cannot be used "to achieve something indirectly which cannot be
achieved directly"
o m
Concluding the debate pertaining to Article 142 and statutory laws, the Supreme Court held that when a statute
c
requires a particular thing to be done in a particular manner, it must be done in that manner or not at all, and
other methods of performance are necessarily forbidden.
rs .
In 'A. Jideranath v. Jubilee Hills Co-op House Building Society, the Supreme Court discussed the scope of the
e
power here, holding that in its exercise no injustice should be caused to a person not party to the case.
Source: Extracted (with edits and revisions) from an article titled "What is Article 142, invoked by Supreme
58.
a k
Court to overturn Chandigarh mayoral poll results?" published in the Indian Express.
n
Decide in which of the following scenarios the Supreme Court's invocation of Article 142 to provide "complete
r
justice" would not be appropriate?
p
(a) The Supreme Court overturns a lower court's decision that failed to adequately consider a party's fundamental
rights, invoking Article 142 to ensure justice is served despite the lower court's procedural errors.
o
(b) The Supreme Court, in a case involving electoral malpractices, uses Article 142 to appoint an interim Mayor
T
after invalidating the election results, asserting that it is necessary to restore public confidence in the electoral
process.
(c) The Supreme Court orders the state to provide proper compensation to victims of a natural disaster to justify
complete justice under Article 142, as statutory framework didn’t provide for adequate compensation,
(d) The Supreme Court issues directions under Article 142 to modify the procedure for filing appeals in certain
cases, disregarding existing statutory provisions that govern the appeals process.
59. In a landmark judgment, the Supreme Court overturned the election results for the post of Mayor of the
0A4H6B8C 0A
Chandigarh Municipal Corporation, invokingtr-the powers
5H7B conferred under Article 142 of the Constitution. Article
142 allows the Supreme Court to do "complete justice" in situations where the law may not provide a remedy.
Based on the Supreme Court’s interpretations of Article 142, decide which of the following statements is true
regarding its powers and limitations.
(a) The powers under Article 142 can be used to override substantive laws as long as it leads to complete justice
between the parties.
(b) The Supreme Court clarified that powers under Article 142 are supplementary in nature and cannot supplant
existing statutory provisions.
(c) The exercise of powers under Article 142 allows the court to ignore the fundamental rights guaranteed by
the Constitution if it is in pursuit of achieving justice.
8M0T
5S7Q0Q4S6Lthat
(d) Article 142 can be used to create new legal tr-provisions do not exist in current statutory laws.
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
60. If a statutory law prescribes a specific procedure to resolve a dispute, how does the Supreme Court's
interpretation of Article 142 affect the application of that law?
(a) The court must adhere strictly to the procedure outlined in the statute without exception.
(b) The court can ignore the statutory procedure if it believes that a different approach under Article 142 will
yield better justice.
(c) The court may use Article 142 to supplement the statutory process but cannot entirely bypass it.
(d) The court has complete discretion to decide the procedure without regard to statutory requirements.
61. Considering the judgment in Union Carbide Corporation vs. Union of India, how does the Supreme Court view
the relationship between statutory laws and the powers conferred by Article 142?
(a) Statutory laws must always take precedence over constitutional provisions like Article 142.
(b) Powers under Article 142 cannot be restricted by ordinary laws and must be treated as superior.
(d) Article 142 can only be invoked when there is explicit legislative approval.
c o m
(c) The Supreme Court has no authority to apply Article 142 in cases already governed by statutory provisions.
.
62. Assertion: The Supreme Court has the power to ignore statutory provisions while exercising its powers under
rs
Article 142.
Reason: Article 142 confers on the Supreme Court the power to do "complete justice" between the parties, even
e
if it requires ignoring statutory provisions.
k
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is false.
r an
p
Passage (Q.63-Q.66): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), police officers are required to
o
register FIRs even if the incident is outside their jurisdiction, using a zero FIR system and then transfer it to the
appropriate police station. Section 173 mandates this practice, with non-compliance attracting penalties. FIRs
T
can be submitted orally, in writing, or electronically through designated platforms like the CCTNS portal, and
must be signed by the informant within three days.
The BNSS also stipulates mandatory videography for police searches and crime scene documentation, as
specified under Sections 185, 176, and 105. Tools like the eSakshya app support this requirement by allowing
officers to capture geo-tagged and time-stamped evidence, facilitating integration with other criminal justice
systems. Arrest protocols under the BNSS have also been updated. Information about arrested individuals must
be publicly displayed at police stations, as dictated by Section 37. There are restrictions on arresting elderly
6B8C0A
7B0A4Hauthorization,
(above 60 years) or infirm individuals without higher
tr-5H as noted in Section 35(7), and handcuff use
is restricted to situations where there is a risk of escape or harm.
Medical examination reports for rape victims must be submitted within seven days as per Section 184(6),
emphasizing the importance of timely medical and legal responses, particularly in POCSO cases where
investigations are bounded by a two-month completion requirement.
Finally, Section 193(3)(h) addresses the custody of electronic devices, underscoring the need for a clear chain of
custody to protect the integrity of digital evidence. The BNSS also introduces Section 113, defining ‘terrorist
acts’ and delegating the responsibility to senior officers to determine the applicability of stringent laws like the
UAPA based on various criteria including the associated terrorist organization and the potential threat posed by
8M0T
the accused. tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
[Extracted,
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6Lwith edits and revisions, from “https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-are-new-provisions-
8M0T
for-police-officers-explained/article68382550.ece”]
63. Amit, a tourist from Delhi, was visiting Mumbai. He reports the incident to the local police station in Mumbai,
explaining that he was robbed just outside his hotel in Delhi. The officer in charge at the Mumbai police station
initially hesitates to register the FIR, citing jurisdiction issues. However, Amit insists, referencing the provisions
of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS).
What should the officer do according to the BNSS?
(a) Refuse to register the FIR since the crime did not occur within his jurisdiction.
(b) Register the FIR as a zero FIR and then transfer it to the appropriate police station in Delhi.
(c) Advise Amit to contact the Delhi police directly, as it is their responsibility.
(d) Take a written note of the incident but wait for confirmation from Delhi police before registering the FIR.
64. Rahul, a resident of Kolkata, was a victim of online fraud where an unknown party illegally accessed his bank
account and transferred a significant sum to another account based in Mumbai. He learned of the fraud late at
m
night and immediately used the official police app to electronically report the incident, attaching the fraudulent
transaction details. However, Rahul was traveling and could only return to Kolkata a week later. Upon his return,
.c o
he went to the local police station to sign the FIR but was informed that his FIR is dismissed due to non-
appearance of complainant under the required time. According to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
rs
(BNSS), what is the status of his FIR submission?
(a) The FIR is valid as it was submitted electronically within the stipulated time, and signing can occur any time
after submission.
k e
(b) The FIR is pending validation until signed, due the delay beyond three days which renders the initial
electronic submission in suspension.
signing period.
r n
(c) The FIR is valid, and signing it on the fourth day is permissible as electronic submissions have a flexible
a
(d) The FIR is invalid because it was not signed within three days of submission, as required by the BNSS.
65.
o p
During a routine operation in Jaipur, a team of police officers, led by Inspector Rajeev, conducts a raid on a
suspected drug trafficking den. Based on a tip-off, the raid targets a secluded warehouse in an industrial area.
T
Upon arrival, the officers encounter resistance from the suspects who attempt to destroy evidence. Inspector
Rajeev realizes that the videography equipment meant to record the raid has malfunctioned. In the heat of the
moment, he decides to proceed with the search and seizure without videographic documentation, leading to the
recovery of significant quantities of illegal substances and the arrest of five suspects. What are the implications
of this action according to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)?
(a) The failure to document the raid with videographic evidence constitutes a violation of requirement specified
under Sections 185, 176, and 105.
(b) The raid is still considered valid as the primary objective
tr-5H7B0A 4H6B8C0A to recover illicit drugs was achieved, regardless of
videography.
(c) The lack of videography can be excused if the police provide a valid reason for the malfunction, ensuring
the evidence remains admissible.
(d) The raid can proceed without videography if the suspects were visibly destroying evidence, justifying an
immediate search.
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
66. In the city of Pune, an 85-year-old retired professor named Gopal Krishnan, who is battling Parkinson's disease,
is accused of fraudulently obtaining funds from a charity organization through deceptive emails. During the
investigation, a young officer at the local police station decides to arrest Professor Krishnan without consulting
his superiors. The arrest is made publicly in the neighborhood, causing distress and public outcry given the
professor's age and health condition. Was the arrest conducted appropriately according to the Bharatiya Nagarik
Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)?
(a) Yes, because the seriousness of the fraud warrants immediate arrest irrespective of the suspect’s age or
health.
(b) No, because arresting an individual above 60 years of age with an infirm condition without higher
authorization is against the provisions of the BNSS.
(c) Yes, because the police have the discretion to arrest suspects based on the evidence available without
m
considering the age or health of the suspect.
(d) No, because the officer should have issued a warning instead of arresting an elderly and infirm individual.
c o
Passage (Q.67-Q.70): The Kerala High Court recently dismissed an appeal filed by a woman who accused a
.
doctor and a nurse of medical negligence during her delivery, resulting in the infant's death. The woman alleged
rs
that her baby died during delivery and pursuant to this, a hysterectomy was performed on her without her
knowledge or consent or of her family members. She further alleged that she was not given proper medical care
k e
and attention and that the delivery was carried out in a most negligent manner as a result of which she lost her
child. While noting that the complainant had not produced any credible opinion pointing to such
n
negligence, Justice KauserEdappagath reiterated: "...a private complaint alleging medical negligence may not be
a
entertained unless the complainant has produced prima facie evidence before the court in the form of a credible
r
opinion given by another competent doctor to support the charge of rashness or negligence on the part of the
accused doctor."
o p
Medical Negligence basically is the misconduct by a medical practitioner, doctor or hospital by not providing
T
enough care resulting in breach of their duties and harming the patients who are their consumers. Even, consent
of patients cannot absolve the hospital or doctors of their aforementioned duty of care. The Judge further noted
that in Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab, it was held that as long as the doctor follows a practice acceptable to
the medical profession of that day, he cannot be held liable for negligence merely because a better alternative
course or method of treatment was also available or simply because a more skilled doctor would not have chosen
to follow or resort to that practise or procedure which the accused followed.
67. A newly born child was found missing from the bed in a hospital. The child was found bleeding and near the
wash-basin of the bathroom. The hospital authorities
tr-5H7B0A4H
argued
6B8C0A that the child had been taken away by a cat which
caused the injuries to him. Can the hospital be booked for medical negligence?
(a) Yes, as the hospital authorities failed to take due care and precaution.
(b) No, because the hospital had discharged its responsibilities after the birth of the child and it cannot be
expected to be responsible for everyone in the hospital premises.
(c) Yes, as the hospital would be vicariously liable for the failure of the doctor to take proper care.
(d) No, as only the doctor owes a duty of care and precaution in cases of medical negligence and not the hospital authorities.
68. Considering the facts in previous question, consider that the hospital authorities had earlier signed a consent
form that they won’t be responsible for any injury sustained during the delivery or later procedures. Can the
hospital still be booked for medical negligence?
0Q4S6L8M0T
for7Qanything
(a) Yes, as the hospital is by default responsibletr-5S that happens within its premises.
8M0T
(b)
tr-5SYes,
7Q0Q as the consent form did not absolve the hospital from all its responsibilities towards the patient.
4S 6L
(c) No, as negligence does not take the element of consent into consideration.
(d) No, as the principle of strict liability would be applicable here to make the hospital liable.
69. A patient had come to seek treatment for abdominal pain. During this time her kidneys were examined and there
were no kidney ailments found. She was declared fit. The doctor then made a vascular procedure used to access
blood for hemodialysis treatment in patients with kidney disease and performed a dialysis treatment on her.
However, the woman after consulting with another doctor has stated, as a prima facie evidence that she did not
suffer from any kidney ailments. Can the doctor be booked for medical negligence?
(a) Yes, as the doctor is liable and the patient needs to be compensated for unfairly being put under a procedure
that wasn’t necessary.
(b) Yes, as the hospital can be made vicariously liable for the acts of the doctor and his failure to take due care.
(c) Yes, as the doctor performed the surgery that was generally required to be performed.
(d) No, as the doctor performed the surgery thinking it to be the best possible option.
70. Assertion: The Kerala High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the woman alleging medical negligence because
she failed to produce credible evidence supporting her claims.
o m
Reason: According to legal standards, a private complaint of medical negligence requires the complainant to
c
provide no prima facie evidence in the form of an expert opinion from another competent doctor to substantiate
allegations of negligence against the accused practitioner.
rs .
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
(d) The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.
k e
n
Passage (Q.71-Q.75): In the case of Govind v. State, considered the constitutionality of various evidence
a
gathering techniques including narcoanalysis, BEAP (Brain Electrical Activation Profile) or ‘brain mapping’,
r
and polygraph tests. The Court ruled that the use of such neuro-scientific investigative techniques constituted
o p
testimonial compulsion and violated an accused person’s right against self-incrimination under Article 20(3),
and their right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution.
T
The Court held that the protection against self-incrimination under Article 20(3) of the Constitution would have
to be read considering the multiple dimensions of personal liberty under Article 21 such as the right to a fair trial
and substantive due process. It also held that this would be applicable to the accused, suspects and witnesses,
and would not be confined to the courtroom, but would be applicable in all cases where the charge may end in a
prosecution. The right to privacy includes the ability to move freely in public without undue surveillance,
especially when there is no immediate threat to public safety. Surveillance refers to the continuous monitoring
or observation of an individual by law enforcement authorities. This includes tracking a person's movements and
activities to ensure compliance with legal requirements or to prevent potential criminal behaviour.
6B8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H
The Court, after tracing the jurisprudence of the right to privacy in India discussed the importance of mental
privacy and the choice to speak or stay silent, as well as their intersection with personal autonomy as aspects of
the right to privacy. The Court observed that the right to privacy under Article 21 should account for interaction
with Article 20(3), the right against self-incrimination. The Court further held that drug induced revelations and
measurement of physiological responses would amount to an intrusion into the mental privacy of the subject and
that forcible extraction of testimonial responses was not provided for under any statute and could not be a
reasonable exercise of policing functions. The Court therefore ordered that these tests could not be administered
without the valid consent of the accused.
71. Mangesh lives in Bangalore, and has been arrested a few times in the past for petty offences like pickpocketing.
4S6L8M0T
5S7Qa0Qsmall
He claims to have changed his ways, and now tr- runs trading business. He was visiting Mumbai recently
8M0T
on work,
tr-5S7Q0Q and while he was in Mumbai, the police followed him around the city, to ensure he did not commit any
4S 6L
crimes while in the city. Would Mangesh succeed if he filed a case claiming the Mumbai police violated his
fundamental rights?
(a) Yes, since actions of the Mumbai police can be seen as an infringement on his right to privacy and personal
liberty.
(b) Yes, since the police are being biased against him.
(c) No, since he had a history of committing criminal offences.
(d) No, since the police did not visit his home, but only followed him around in public places.
72. Rita is a member of a religious organisation that has often been involved in communal riots in the past. Rita
herself had been suspected of inciting such riots in the past, but has never been convicted. The day before the
Supreme Court was to pronounce its judgment on a very important case involving religious issues, Rita made a
public statement to the effect that she and her organisation would “burn the city to the ground” if the decision
was not rendered in favour of the parties from their religion. The night before the Supreme Court decision, the
police station two constables outside her home; these constables are replaced in shifts and the police remain
m
outside her home for the entire day of the Supreme Court pronouncement. Rita claims the police have violated
her fundamental rights. Will she succeed?
(a) No, since the day of the Supreme Court judgment was fraught with communal tension.
(b) Yes, since she had never been convicted of inciting communal riots in the past.
.c o
rs
(c) No, since her statements showed there was a possibility of a threat to public safety and security.
(d) Yes, since her organisation had been involved in criminal riots and not Rita personally.
73.
e
Which of the following, if true, would be a strong argument opposing the decision in the Govind case?
k
(a) The police often monitor the movements of past convicts when they do not have any other leads.
offence.
r n
(b) Records show that once a person is convicted of an offence, they are highly unlikely to commit another
a
(c) Conducting surveillance on a person ensures that they would not commit an offence against public safety.
74.
o p
(d) The government should not place any restrictions on the fundamental rights of citizens.
Assertion (A): The Supreme Court in Govind v. State ruled that neuro-scientific investigative techniques like
T
narcoanalysis and polygraph tests violate the accused person's right against self-incrimination under Article 20(3)
of the Constitution.
Reason (R): The Court held that these techniques amount to testimonial compulsion, infringe upon personal
liberty, and cannot be administered without the valid consent of the accused.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
6B8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H
75. Pallavi is arrested on the suspicion of causing grievous bodily harm to her husband. Pallavi claims that her
husband was abusive, and that she hurt him in self-defence. Her lawyers plead for her to be released on bail
awaiting the trial; the judge grant bail, but imposes a condition for the bail, which is that Pallavi must report to
the police station nearest to her house every week. Pallavi claims that this condition violates her fundamental
rights, and would amount to illegal surveillance by the police. Will she succeed?
(a) No, since the condition is imposed by the judge, and not the police.
(b) No, since requiring her to report to the police station once a week does not constitute surveillance.
(c) Yes, since this would effectively amount to surveillance as the police would know her whereabouts.
(d) Yes, since she has not even been convicted of the offence she was charged with.
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
Passage (Q.76-Q.79): A maxim is a rule or saying or a principle. Maxims are used in various branches of law
to make a particular point to understand clearly and provide a proper solution to the case. Maxims are widely
used in the Law of Torts. Ubi jus ibi remedium: 'For every wrong law, provides a remedy.' Ubi jus ibi remedium
is a Latin phrase which means where there is a wrong, there is a remedy. It is even one of the essentials of law
of torts. Where one's right has been denied or invaded, the law provides a definite structure to safeguard the
rights of that person.
Actio personalis moritur cum persona: 'A personal right of action dies with a person'. The actions of torts are destroyed
by the death of injured or the injuring party. The cases cannot be passed over to the next person, other than the person
himself. Besides this, an action may be brought by the personal representatives of the deceased plaintiff.
Ex turpi causa non oritur actio: 'From a dishonorable cause, an action does not arise'. Ex turpi causa non-oritur
actio is a Latin phrase which means that the plaintiff would not be able to recover damages, if these arise in
m
connection with illegal activity. This maxim is also called illegality defence.
o
Innuendo: 'Something not explicitly stated, but has the secondary defamatory meaning'. Innuendo is a defamatory
c
statement made by the defendant, which may not be a defamatory one, but an innocent one, but which contains
a secondary meaning, enough to make it a defamatory and derogatory statement.
.
rs
Res ipsa loquitur: 'Things speak for themselves'. Res ipsa loquitur is used in the cases of negligence, where
proper evidence is not stated, but the facts are enough to decipher the negligence and prove the defendant guilty.
76.
k e
Mr. Bheem was picked as a candidate for the position of Mayor. Mr. Bheem was prevented from voting, citing
the fact that he himself cannot contribute a vote to his winning, which would be biased. Despite this, he won the
cast a vote?
r n
election by a mere two votes. Can Mr. Bheem sue for damages in this case as he was denied of his legal right to
a
(a) Yes, since there was no damage incurred to Mr. Bheem, he cannot have any claim in the present case.
o p
(b) Yes, since Mr. Bheem has been denied his right to cast a vote, therefore the defendant must pay the damage.
(c) No, as Mr. Bheem was lawfully prevented from casting a vote as he himself cannot contribute a vote to his
T
winning, which would be biased.
(d) No, as Mr. Bheem is not eligible for any damage as he failed to procure any document to show that he was
eligible to caste the vote.
77. Mr. Jethalal was liable to pay Rs. 5 lakh in damages to Mr. Popatlal for defamation since he alleged that Popatlal
is a scam journalist and all the prizes that he proudly claims in all his speeches are fake and purchased, according
to an email sent to all society members. However he died before paying the damages for tort of defaming
Popatlal. Can this money be recovered from Jethalal's asset?
(a) With the death of Mr. Jethalal, the personal right of6Baction
tr-5H7B0A4H
8C0A died and money cannot be recovered.
(b) Money can very well be recovered from the asset of Mr. Jethalal.
(c) A fresh suit of defamation can be brought against the legal representatives of Mr. Jethalal.
(d) Mr. Popatlal can opt for the decree of court to enforce the charges on the asset of Mr. Jethalal.
78. B convinced A to assist him in a break-in at C's house, and in return he will be given 50% of the total looted
goods; all he needs to do is keep a watchful check on C's home and let them know precisely when C departs. A
first agrees, but subsequently declines to participate in the scheme and makes a covert complaint against B. He
goes and complains about B to the nearest police station. B filed an action for tort of negligence against A.
Decide the outcome of the case.
(a) B will succeed because there is damage, and wherever there 0T
is damage, there is compensation.
5S7Q0Q4S6L8M
(b) B will not succeed because it is the perfect tr-
case of contributory negligence as both of them have decided to
4S6L 8M0T
tr-5Srob
7Q0QC together.
(c) B will succeed because A was negligent in his work.
(d) B will not succeed because from a dishonourable cause, an action does not arise.
79. A Verified account user on Chatgarm, a social media website said that Mrs. Kapoor had given birth to twins
when, in reality, she had only recently got married i.e., only 3 months ago. Mrs. Kapoor was quite embarrassed
and disreputed as a result. Does she have any legal recourse against the newspaper?
(a) It was a case of innocent mistake, hence no claim will lie against the newspaper.
(b) No action will lie against the User because there is nothing wrong about having a baby in three months of
the marriage.
(c) A case of defamation via innuendo can be brought against the newspaper.
(d) No action can be bought against the defendant as the statement is not defamatory.
Passage (Q.80-Q.84): The Central Government of a secular country "Syindia" brings a law that is perceived by
the public as highly communalizing and against the ethos of the foundation of "Syindia". This leads to a lot of
widespread protests. Nimakiya gets influenced by the protests and delivers a speech that comes under the scanner
m
of the law enforcement. The major points of her speech were— (i) I propose for a big chakka-jaam to cut-off
communications between the Government and the border state of "Syindia" (the state which will be most affected
.c o
by the law). Only then will the Government understand our demands, otherwise this Government will just pay a
deaf year to our problems (ii) We will cut the railway tracks and roads, burn down government buildings so that
rs
it takes them (the government) at least a month to clear things on the ground. It is our responsibility to isolate
the state from "Syindia". (iii) This is important that we oppose this law productively. It is bad for both Hindus
and Muslims.
k e
Article 17(2) of the nation's Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and expression to all citizens of
n
"Syindia". This article is subjected to certain restrictions, namely, sovereignty and integrity of India, the security
a
of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt
r
of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
o p
As per Section 178 of the nation's Penal Code- Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by
visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to
T
excite disaffection towards the Government established by law in "Syindia" shall be punished with imprisonment
for life, to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment which may extend to three years, to which fine may
be added, or with fine. Citing these laws, Nimakiya was arrested by the authorities on charges of sedition though,
which restricted any violence breaking out due to inspiration from her speech and hence, no violence occurred.
80. Are authorities incorrect in accusing Nimakiya of sedition because of her speech? Select an appropriate statement
(a) Yes, the authorities' actions are in accordance with Article 17(2) of the Constitution.
(b) No, the authorities' action is in accordance with Section 178 of the country's Penal Code.
(c) No, Nimakiya was simply exercising hertr-right to free8Cexpression,
5H7B0A4H6B
0A according to Article 17(2).
(d) Yes, the authorities' action is in accordance with Section 178 of the country's Penal Code.
81. The laws of "Syindia" define violence as "a behavior by a person or persons, against a person or persons or
property that intentionally threatens, attempts, or actually inflicts physical harm." Do the actions suggest in
Nimakiya’s speech fall under the category of violence?
(a) Yes, Nimakiya is asking to isolate the country from the state and mere threatening cannot be cited as violence
(b) No, Nimakiya has not asked to inflict any physical harm to anyone and thus cannot be cited as violence
(c) Yes, Nimakiya has asked to cut-off railway tracks and roads and thus can be cited as violence.
(d) No, even if Nimakiya has just given a speech, which cannot cause anyone or anything physical harm it will
be cited as violence
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
82. Nimakiya’s defence counsel brought forth a previous Supreme Court judgement where it said, "sedition is not
the same thing as a strong criticism of the government established by law upon the measures or acts of
Government by lawful means if it is for the betterment of the society". Can the lawyers of Nimakiya ask the
Supreme Court to follow this judgement as rule of precedent and acquit Nimakiya ?
(a) Yes, Nimakiya in her speech mentions that what he proposes it for the benefit of the Hindus and Muslims,
thus she wants the betterment of the condition of the people
(b) Yes, Nimakiya doesn't advocate riots or violence against civilians in his speeches and these methods were
used by the freedom fighters of XYZ when it was under colonial rule.
(c) No, Nimakiya’s speech does suggests non-violent methods to be followed by the protestors.
(d) Yes, the motive of the speech is only to protest against the law brought by the Government and not the
removal of the Government itself
83.
c o m
In a separate incident, Monty is charged with sedition by the government for depicting the Parliament and a map
of the country covered in hard earned money of the citizens in blood in a cartoon. He did this to protest the
corruption of the previous government. Is it correct for the government to charge him with sedition?
(a) No, Monty has drawn the cartoon, so pictorial depiction won't come under sedition.
(b) No, as his pictures didn't incite or recommend violence against the State.
rs .
(c) Yes, as per the limitation to Article 17(2), it was an indecent depiction of a national symbol of India
84.
(d) No, it was his right of expression and he was just exercising the right
k e
If the Supreme Court in one of its earlier judgments had mentioned that "A speech, whatever its content maybe
defence get strengthened by this ruling?
r n
can be termed seditious only if it has led to violence", if the law of precedence is applied then will Nimakiya’s
a
(a) No, his speech had mentions of committing violent acts.
o p
(b) Yes, his speech hasn't led to any violent acts.
(c) No, his speech could have led to violent acts, but he was apprehended before that.
T
(d) Yes, as his speech is an attempt to bring violence and contempt towards the government
6B8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.85-Q.87): While popular students may take the camaraderie and comfort of friends for granted, not
everyone is able to forge friendships in adulthood. Psychologist Marisa Franco confesses that she was often
lonely in college. Though she went on to author a book on the psychology of friendship later, she rues that, as a
college student, she had “no idea how to form connections”. In fact, the naïve belief that friendships “just
happen” can curb a person’s ability to fashion meaningful ties with others.
First, know that making friends entails effort. Franco cites a study that found a correlation between loneliness
and believing that forming friends happens by chance. Like all self-fulfilling prophecies, if you maintain that
friendship is based on luck, then you are less likely to exert effort into cultivating relationships.
If you want to make friends, show up at group events. But, your mere presence isn’t going to guarantee making
m
a friend. Franco discusses overt and covert avoidance, a distinction that author Ellen Hendriksen also points out.
o
Not attending clubs or events constitutes overt avoidance. The subtler form, covert avoidance, entails not
c
interacting with others during social events. If you are keen to make friends, then you need to take an active role
and introduce yourself to others.
rs .
But what if you feel diffident? Or scared of being rebuffed? Interestingly, our “perceptions of the social
of people is frosty or warm.
k e
environment” is linked with our own behaviour. Thus, our own actions may determine whether we feel a group
n
If you feel a group is unfriendly, ask yourself if you have tried to reach out. If your overtures are not reciprocated,
a
then they might not be the right fit, and you can move onto befriending others. However, if you haven’t
r
approached them, don’t wait for them to initiate contact.
o p
Franco offers one more suggestion that can help you get through the awkward initial phase when people don’t
know each other. If you keep meeting the same people regularly, chances are that with time they will grow to
T
like you, and vice versa. However, ensure that you aren’t emitting negative or hostile signals, either explicit or
implicit. To guard against this, reframe cynical thoughts with more salubrious ones. Reassure yourself that
making friends takes time. Finally, give others the benefit of the doubt, especially when you are unsure of how
to read a situation.
85. Which of the following statements is being said by the author while forging friendship?
I. There’s a good chance that familiarity shall breed affinity.
II. We should avoid being misled by our presumptions.
Select the correct answer by using the given tr-
codes:
5H7B0A4H6B
8C0A
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
86. Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the process of making friends?
(a) The process of forming friendships is primarily based on chance, and effort plays a secondary role.
(b) People who struggle to make friends likely do not attend enough social events, which can cause loneliness.
(c) Perceiving a group as unfriendly might be influenced by one's own behavior, suggesting that personal actions
can affect how social situations are interpreted.
(d) People who fail to form friendships often give up too quickly, without considering that repeated exposure
could lead to closer ties over time.
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
87. Which of the following is/are assumption(s) on which the author’s argument depends?
I. Friendships form naturally without any effort as long as individuals are in the same social setting regularly.
II. Making the initial effort to reach out is necessary to assess whether a group is friendly or not.
III. Without the belief that making friends requires active engagement, individuals may be less likely to make
the necessary efforts to form connections.
(a) Only I and III (b) Only I and II (c) Only II and III (d) None of the options
Passage (Q.88 and Q.89): Life again and again reminds you of the truth that life is beyond your logic. If you
lose your job, suddenly you see that life is not under your control. Then you start seeking the Truth. Whenever
some incident happens that is beyond your logic that is not under your control, you are totally shaken.
88. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the passage?
I. Humans seek stability and predictability
II. Humans exhibit their philosophical inquiry during times of control.
III. Life's unpredictability is an essential aspect of the human experience.
c o m
.
Choose the correct answer by using the given codes:
rs
(a) Only I and II (b) Only II and III (c) Only I and III (d) Only I
89. The author assumes that:
(a) people by nature strive to comprehend and manage their own life situations.
k e
(b) individuals predominantly seek comfort in philosophical musings when life proceeds as planned.
n
(c) people's actions are mostly influenced by external societal standards.
a
(d) personal development primarily occurs in the absence of challenges.
p r
Passage (Q.90-Q.92): An entire ecosystem of producers, lenders, service-providers, tax collecting governments,
benefit from the pushing out frugality. It’s tempting to swipe off this tendency as consumerism and begin listing
To
the ills. We could also benefit from seeing the socio-economic preferences that develop with plenty and
prosperity. The world might be a better place for this change in mindset, if we also solved for wastages, trash,
recycling and such social costs of this behaviour. But there also this point - tremendous damage to our ecosystems
has been inflicted from a scarcity mindset that characterised the limited income, scarce resources, shortage and
rationing systems that existed many years ago. Punishing frugality and settling for compromises in quality,
efficiency, and speed were part of the mindset that presumed one must make do. An earlier generation might be
stuck in this narrative. We may be shifting towards a generosity mindset believing there is enough for everyone.
90. Which of the following attitudes does the author exhibit towards consumerism?
(a) The author is critical of consumerism due to its0Aextensive
6B8C0A environmental impact.
tr-5H7B 4H
(b) The author views consumerism through a pragmatic lens, acknowledging its socio-economic benefits.
(c) The author wholly supports consumerism as a means to drive economic growth without reservations.
(d) The author is indifferent to the effects of consumerism on society and the environment.
91. Which of the following is most definitely being implied in the passage?
(a) A generous mindset increases consumer spending without regard to environmental consequences.
(b) Socio-economic advancements necessitate the abandonment of all traditional economic practices.
(c) Prosperity inevitably leads to significant environmental and social costs.
(d) Moving beyond frugality can remedy the environmental and systemic inefficiencies created by a scarcity
mindset.
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
92. Which of the following arguments can undermine the author's stance?
(a) Increased consumption is necessary for driving technological advancements that can solve environmental
problems.
(b) A shift towards a generosity mindset can foster economic growth and create new job opportunities.
(c) Case studies where increased consumption has led to severe environmental degradation.
(d) A generosity mindset will lead to better recycling technologies and waste management practices.
Passage (Q.93-Q.95): Prompt and effective efforts must be made to meet India’s ambitious goal of having a
net-zero carbon economy in a few decades. However, one of the greatest challenges is to reduce emissions from
the energy infrastructure that are currently in existence, like steel mills, coal plants, and other factories. It is,
therefore, important that companies choose a way to switch to cleaner technologies.
Choosing cleaner energy to power their offices, factories, and warehouses; purchasing raw materials locally; and
investing in smart and automated technologies should be made mandatory.
o m
Energy efficiency and conservation are some seriously challenging tasks, but by implementing a few simple
c
.
changes to our daily lives, they can be accomplished easily. On an individual level, one must educate themselves
rs
and our society on adopting cleaner, greener, and more sustainable alternatives. Similarly, leaders from all
sectors should commit to developing policies and strategies for reducing the inefficient use of energy. As we
e
observe National Energy Conservation Day, let us all pledge to choose a path that will help us mitigate climate
k
change and conserve energy for future generations.
n
93. Which of the following assumptions has been made by the author in the passage?
a
1. Cleaner technologies are available and feasible for implementation.
p r
2. Individuals and corporations are currently not doing enough to reduce energy wastage.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
o
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
94. Which of the following is the crux of the passage?
T
(a) Global cooperation is necessary to implement energy conservation practices effectively.
(b) Mandatory changes in energy usage and technology for both corporations and individuals are critical to
combating climate change.
(c) Energy conservation can be achieved primarily through voluntary public participation.
(d) The transition to renewable energy is dependent on governmental policy reforms alone.
95. Which of the following is the author's conclusion in the passage?
(a) Innovative technology and local production are0Apivotal for economic growth.
6B8C0A
tr-5H7B 4H
(b) Implementing stricter energy regulations is the only way to ensure environmental preservation.
(c) Societal education on sustainability significantly enhances environmental policies.
(d) Adopting cleaner energy and smarter technologies is crucial for mitigating climate change and conserving
energy.
Passage (Q.96-Q.98): We all have grown up listening to a few phrases which mention the importance of time.
The two most important and life-changing are; ‘the show must go on’ and ‘time flies’ etc.
Life has become tough for everyone, from a five-year-old school-going kid to a 50-year-old working person. No
one has time for themselves, their families, or their other work. Everything has become more chaotic and messy.
To get over these issues one needs to learn goodtr-time 4S6L8M0T
management
5S7Q0Q so that one can have time for everything.
4S6L8M 0T
Do 7Q0Qever
tr-5Syou feel like 24 hours per day is very less? Like managing, life has almost become impossible.
But you have to understand that we all get the exact 24 hours. But why do some people seem to perform better
with their time than others?The answer is good time management.
Time management is the technique of organizing your time in a way that you can give sufficient time to all your
activities.
96. Which of the following is being implied by the author in the passage?
(a) A balanced life necessarily requires sacrificing personal interests.
(b) Effective time management is key to avoiding an overwhelming chaos in daily life.
(c) Everyone inherently possesses adequate skills for managing time efficiently.
(d) The complexity of modern life is overstated and can be managed without any specific strategies.
97. Which of the following situations can WEAKEN the author's assertions?
(a) Time management doesn’t allow all tasks to be completed simultaneously and some tasks are pushed down
the priority list of tasks.
o m
(b) Despite practising excellent time-management skills, the burnout rates among employees continue to rise.
c
(c) Time-management doesn’t work when employees take too many tasks beyond the capacity of an ordinary
person.
rs .
(d) When employees feel the burnout while preforming and navigating tasks, the employees prefer relaxing
e
instead of taking another task.
98. Which of the following statements will the author MOST DEFINITELY agree with?
an k
(a) Some individuals are more adept at managing their time effectively than others.
(b) Time management is an innate skill that does not require training or practice.
p r
(c) The concept of time management is outdated and irrelevant in the modern digital age.
(d) Managing time effectively has little to no impact on one's professional success.
To
Passage (Q.99 and Q.100): The problem is that if you don’t have a job, you desperately want one. Most often
it has to do with the fact that you need an income, but equally often these days, it is also about a sense of self-
actuality. It used to be that you studied through school to get into college and worked towards a degree.
Sometimes you’d need a second degree because only that would get you closer to that job that you dreamt of.
The rest was up to the competitive exams you wrote, the interviews you gave, and the connections you had or
the luck of the draw. But to get a job you would have to because that’s what you were chasing.
99. Which of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage?
(a) Jobs are primarily sought for their economic benefits alone.
(b) Employment serves both as a means for financial stability
6B 8C0A and as a vehicle for achieving personal identity
tr-5H7B0A4H
and societal status.
(c) Educational qualifications are unnecessary for achieving success in obtaining employment.
(d) The majority of job seekers rely solely on luck to find employment.
100. Which of the following statements would the author MOST LIKELY AGREE with?
1. Everyone has an equal chance at securing a job, regardless of background.
2. Education is perceived as the route to secure employment.
Select the correct answer by using the given codes:
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
Passage (Q.101-Q.103): Luck is just another word for timing. If you are in the right place, at the right time, with
the right people, you are lucky. If the place, timing, or people are wrong, then you are unlucky. This definition
of luck makes it circumstantial and less deterministic. It also means that being lucky is a waiting game. You
must wait for the right conditions to make your move. This characterisation makes luck less a providential whim
and puts the onus on the individual to be alert and constantly on the lookout for opportune occurrences. It also
presupposes that lucky circumstances present themselves several times in one’s lifetime. It is clearly up to the
individual to realize when the time, place and people are right for affirmative action.
101. Which of the following statements would the author DISAGREE with?
(a) Success often depends on being observant and ready to seize opportunities when they arise.
(b) Luck is predominantly influenced by the convergence of appropriate timing, suitable location, and supportive
acquaintances.
m
(c) Individuals generally experience only one significant opportunity to be lucky in their lifetime.
(d) Awareness and preparation can enhance one's chances of experiencing favorable circumstances.
102. Which of the following situations, if true, can WEAKEN the author's assertions?
.c o
(a) Psychological studies demonstrate that the majority of lucky occurrences are the result of random chance
rs
rather than strategic positioning.
(b) Numerous testimonials exist of individuals who became successful by intentionally positioning themselves
in the right places at the right times.
k e
(c) A recent survey found that people who are more aware of their surroundings are more likely to capitalize on
opportunities.
an
(d) Historical examples show that many successful leaders were able to utilize their social networks to create
favorable outcomes.
r
103. The author assumes that:
o p
(a) Individuals frequently miss opportunities due to a lack of understanding of what constitutes a lucky situation.
T
(b) People can recognize when the timing, location, and social environment are conducive to taking successful action.
(c) Luck is an entirely random phenomenon that cannot be influenced by individual behavior.
(d) Most people believe that luck plays no significant role in achieving success.
Passage (Q.104-Q.106): Modernization is that process by which a country becomes conscious of itself and its
processes, and of the kind of country that it is possible for it to become, and by which it finds or constructs the
technical means for executing such choices as it consciously or unconsciously makes. Modernity in the world at
large is a process of rendering feasible the gradual transformation of human life from what it has been into what
we choose to make it. Our awareness that this is so, our
tr-5H7B0A4H
choosing
6B8C 0A that we will strive for one thing rather than
another (whatever the choice, it has to be made), and our ability to implement our decision technically — these
are the measures of our being modern.
104. The author assumes which of the following:
1. Societies seldom posses the capability to reflect on their conditions and futures.
2. Choices about societal development are necessary and inevitable.
Select the correct answer by using the given codes:
105. Which of the following is MOST DEFINITELY being IMPLIED by the author?
(a) Societies that fail to use technology remain tr-stagnant in thought.
5S7Q0Q4S6L8M
0T
(b) Societies8Mmust
0T
prioritize technological investments to be seen as modern.
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
(c) The process of modernization is solely dependent on a society’s technological knowledge.
(d) Choosing a path of transformation is essential for a society to truly modernize.
106. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?
(a) Modernization requires a nation to reflect on its historical context and cultural legacy.
(b) Modernization is about deliberate transformation, facilitated by technological means.
(c) The technical advancement of a country solely determines its ability to modernize effectively.
(d) Societal progress is inherently dependent on the economic stability of a nation.
Passage (Q.107-Q.108): It seems that every business has an active marketing effort these days. Marketing
departments and advertising agencies become increasingly zealous in their "sell, sell, sell" approach, whether it
be comedic advertisements, "sadvertising", or just plain touting on television. However, even in the rough-and-
tumble that is our marketplace, there should be limits to what advertisers can do. We can agree that outright
falsehoods and deceptive messages are detrimental to the market. Consumers should have the ability to make
informed decisions. However, the boundaries sometimes become blurred. Social media are increasingly used by
m
marketers to reach out and access consumers instantly with a few strikes on the keyboard, at any time and from
any location on earth. Such power presents numerous traps for the unaware, and the content often escapes the
ordinary vetting applied to conventional advertising.
.c o
107. Considering the argument from the passage "we can agree that outright falsehoods and deceptive messages are
rs
detrimental to the market. Consumers should have the ability to make informed decisions," the following
assumptions are formed
II. Access to accurate information enables consumers to make informed decisions.
k e
I. Consumers are capable of recognizing falsehoods and deceptive messages when they encounter them.
n
III. Consumers sometimes believe the wrong information while making decisions.
a
IV. Advertisers prioritize their own interest over the accuracy of the information they present to consumers.
Which of the following assumptions are valid?
r
(a) II and III only
(c) I III and IV only
o p
(b) II III and IV only
(d) I and II only
T
108. Each of the following arguments, if true, can go against the author's ideas EXCEPT that
I. Increased competition among advertisers leads to more accurate and honest marketing practices.
II. Consumers often seek additional information to verify the claims made in advertisements before making
purchasing decisions.
III. Few advertisers have chosen to voluntarily adopt ethical marketing practices.
(a) All of the above (b) Only II and III
(c) Only II (d) Only I and II
6B8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.109-Q.114): Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.
Four film producers: Sajid Nadiadwala, Karan Johar, Sanjay Leela Bhansali and Ekta Kapoor produced different
number of Action movies, Drama movies and Romantic movies. Total number of movies produced by a producer
is equal to the number of Action, Drama and Romantic movies produced by him. Total number of movies
produced by Sajid Nadiadwala, Karan Johar, Sanjay Leela Bhansali and Ekta Kapoor are in the ratio of 9:11:15:8
respectively. Number of Action, Drama and Romantic movies produced by Sanjay Leela Bhansali is in the ratio
of 2:5:3 respectively. Number of Action movies produced by Karan Johar are equal to the number of Romantic
movies produced by Sanjay Leela Bhansali. Number of Romantic movies produced by Karan Johar are 90 less
than the number of Drama movies produced by him. Number of Drama movies produced by Sajid Nadiadwala
are equal to the number of same type of movies produced by Karan Johar. Number of Action movies produced
m
by Sajid Nadiadwala are 100 less than the number of Drama movies produced by him. Number of Romantic
o
movies produced by Sajid Nadiadwala are 10% less than the number of Action movies produced by him. Number
c
of Action, Drama and Romantic movies produced by Ekta Kapoor are in the ratio 1:2:1 respectively. Average
produced by Sajid Nadiadwala.
rs .
number of Romantic movies produced by the four producers is 20 more than the number of Action movies
109. Find the average of number of movies produced by all the four producers.
(a) 1465 (b) 1525 (c) 1485 (d) 1505
k e
Drama movies produced by Karan Johar?
(a) 40% (b) 44% (c) 48%
r an
110. Number of Romantic movies produced by Ekta Kapoor are how much percent more/less than the number of
(d) 52%
produced by Sajid Nadiadwala.
o p
111. Find the ratio of the number of Action movies produced by Karan Johar to the number of Romantic movies
T
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 7 : 4 (d) 9 : 5
112. Find the difference between the number of Drama movies produced by Sanjay Leela Bhansali and Ekta Kapoor
together and the number of Romantic movies produced by Sajid Nadiadwala and Karan Johar together.
(a) 840 (b) 850 (c) 860 (d) 870
113. The number of Drama movies produced by Sajid Nadiadwala is approximately what percentage of the total
number of Movies produced by Karan Johar?
(a) 30% (b) 34% (c) 38% (d) 32%
6B8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H
114. Find the sum of the number of Action movies produced by Sajid Nadiadwala and the number of Romantic movies
produced by Karan Johar together.
(a) 810 (b) 790 (c) 820 (d) 770
Directions (Q.115-Q.120): Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.
There are 3000 people in a town and there are 3 banks in that town. 200 people in town do not have any accounts
in any bank. 20% people of the town opened their accounts in only SBI bank. 10% people of the town opened
their accounts in only HDFC and ICCI. The average of people who have opened their accounts in exactly two
banks is 220. The total number of people who have opened their accounts in only SBI and ICCI is 80% of the
people who have their accounts in only SBI and HDFC. The total number of people who have opened their
4S6L8M0T
accounts in only ICCI is 25% more than the number of0Qpeople
tr-5S7Q who have opened their accounts in only SBI bank.
The total
tr-5S7Q 0Q 4S number
6L 8M0T of people who have opened their accounts in only HDFC is 310 more than the number of
people who have open their accounts in all three banks.
115. Find the number of people who have opened their accounts in all three banks.
(a) 440 (b) 240 (c) 300 (d) 330
116. The total number of people who have opened their accounts in only HDFC is what percent of the people who
have opened their accounts in only ICCI?
1 1 1 1
(a) 73 % (b) 63 % (c) 77 % (d) 83 %
3 3 3 3
117. Find the total number of people who have opened their accounts in at least two banks.
(a) 1000 (b) 750 (c) 900 (d) 850
118. Find the total number of people who have opened their account in HDFC bank.
(a) 1920 (b) 1190 (c) 1890 (d) 1290
119. Find the ratio of the people who have their accounts in SBI bank and the people who have their account in ICCI.
(a) 28 : 29 (b) 24 : 19 (c) 24 : 29 (d) 29 : 24
o m
120. Find the difference between the number of people who have opened their accounts in at least one bank and
c
the number of people who have opened their accounts in all three banks.
(a) 2640 (b) 2560 (c) 2720 (d) 2880
rs .
k e
r an
o p
T
6B8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
Notes:
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
T
6B8C0A
tr-5H7B0A4H
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
Notes:
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
T
0A
tr-5H 7B0A4H6B8C
Mock Objection Form (MOF)
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
8M0T
tr-5S7Q0Q4S6L
SELF-ASSESSMENT PAGE
1. My sequence in today's Mock (write 1-5 in the box):
English Language Logical Reasoning Legal Reasoning
General Knowledge and Current Affairs Quantitative Techniques
2. Approx time devoted to each section:
c o m
English Language Logical Reasoning
rs . Legal Reasoning
General Knowledge and Current Affairs
k e
Quantitative Techniques
r an
3. I:
◻
o
was too distracted during the Mock today
p
◻
◻


T
think I used the wrong sequence
wrote today's Mock without any defined strategy around sequence, attempts etc in mind.
spent a lot of time on ____________________________________________ section.
spent insufficient time on _______________________________________ section.
 couldn't understand the passage properly of these genres _______________, ________________, _______________.
Write a quick explanation of your mistakes. 6B8C0A

tr-5H7B0A4H
That's it! Now go through this page before you write your
tr-5S7Q0Q 4S6Lnext
8M0T Mock and ensure we don't repeat the same
4S6L8M0T
mistakes.
tr-5S7Q0Q

Mock CLAT 47 Question Paper - FINAL5704680

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Mock CLAT 47 Question Paper - FINAL5704680

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Mock CLAT 47 Question Paper - FINAL5704680

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25

rs . Maximum Marks : 120

Subject Q. No. Page No.

(c) It is preferred for highlighting a university’s economic impact

them until they were dug out.

Extracted with edits and revisions from https://www.thehindu.com

(c) Manmohan Singh (d) Nirmala Sitharaman

defence get strengthened by this ruling?

of people is frosty or warm.

II. Access to accurate information enables consumers to make informed decisions.

produced by Sajid Nadiadwala.

produced by Sajid Nadiadwala.

people who have open their accounts in all three banks.

General Knowledge and Current Affairs Quantitative Techniques

2. Approx time devoted to each section:

General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Write a quick explanation of your mistakes. 6B8C0A

You might also like