NEET (2025)

PRACTICE TEST - 20

DURATION
DURATION ::200
90 Minutes
Minutes DATE : M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics: Unit and Measurements and Motion in a Straight Line
Chemistry: Solutions (Complete Chapter), Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry (Complete Chapter), Redox
Reaction (Complete Chapter)
Biology: (Botany): Cell Cycle and Cell Division; The Living World; Biological Classification (till Kingdom
Protista)
(Zoology): Structural Organization in Animals (Complete Chapter), Breathing and Exchange of Gases,
(Complete Chapter)"

General Instructions:
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2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions are compulsory) and
Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
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 Unit and Measurements and Motion in a Straight Line

SECTION-(I) PHYSICS
SECTION-A 8. If the initial speed of a particle is u and its
1. Which of the following combinations of three acceleration is given as a = At3, where A is
dimensionally different physical quantities P, Q, constant and t is time, then its final speed v will be
R can never be a meaningful quantity? given as:
PQ At 4
(1) PQ – R (2) (1) u + At 4 (2) u +
R 4
3
At
P–Q PR – Q2 (3) u + At3 (4) u +
(3) (4) 3
R QR
9. Choose the correct statement.
2. The number of significant figures in a pure (1) Average velocity is a vector quantity.
number 410 is: (2) Average speed does not have direction.
(1) two (2) three (3) Distance covered cannot be less than the
(3) one (4) infinite magnitude of displacement.
(4) All of these
3. The percentage error in the measurement of the
voltage V is 3% and in the measurement of the 10. Galileo’s law of odd numbers reflects that a
particle starting from rest with uniform
current is 2%. The percentage error in the
measurement of the resistance is  R =  :
V acceleration covers distance (in equal time
intervals in straight line motion) in the ratio.
 I 
  (1) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(1) 3% (2) 2% (3) 1 : 2 : 4 : 8 (4) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
(3) 1% (4) 5%
11. If a particle is at rest then it:
4. Round off the value 2.845 to three significant (1) may be accelerated.
figures. (2) must be accelerated.
(1) 2.85 (2) 2.84 (3) may not be accelerated.
(3) 2.80 (4) 2.83 (4) Both (1) and (3)

5. A vernier callipers has 1 mm marks on the main 12. Two graphs between velocity and time of particles
scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the Vernier A and B are given. The ratio of their acceleration
aA
scale which match with 16 main scale divisions. is:
aB
For this Vernier callipers, the least count is:
(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.1 mm
(4) 0.2 mm

6. Which is a supplementary unit? 3 1

(1) (2)
(1) radian
2 3
(2) steradian
2
(3) candela (3) 3 (4)
(4) Both (1) and (2) 3

7. Motion of a particle is given by equation 13. A person travelling in a straight line moves with a
s =(3t3 + 7t2 +14t + 8)m constant velocity v1 for certain distance ‘x’ and
The value of acceleration of the particle at t = 1s with a constant velocity v2 for next equal distance.
is: The average velocity v is given by the relation.
(1) 10 m/s2 (1) 1 = 1 + 1 (2) 2 = 1 + 1
(2) 32 m/s2 v v1 v2 v v1 v2
(3) 23 m/s2 v v1 + v2
(3) = (4) v =
(4) 16 m/s2 2 2
14. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same 21. A force F is given by F = at + bt2, where t is time.
time in a straight line and their positions are What are the dimensions of a and b?
represented by xP(t) = at + bt2 and xQ(t) = ft – t2. (1) [MLT–3] and [ML2T–4]
At what time do the cars have the same velocity? (2) [MLT–3] and [MLT–4]
(1) a − f (2) a + f (3) [MLT–1] and [MLT0]
(4) [MLT–4] and [MLT1]
1+ b 2(b −1)
a+ f f −a 22. The density of a material in CGS system of units
(3) (4)
2(1 + b) 2(1 + b) is 4 g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the
value of density of material will be:
15. A particle shows distance-time curve as given in
(1) 400 (2) 0.04
this figure. The maximum instantaneous velocity (3) 0.4 (4) 40
of the particle is around the point.
23. An equation is given here (P + (a/V2)) = b(/V)
where P = Pressure, V = Volume and  = Absolute
temperature. If a and b are constants, the
dimensions of a will be:
(1) [ML–5T–1] (2) [ML5 T1]
5 –2
(1) A (2) B (3) [ML T ] (4) [M–1 L5T2]
(3) C (4) D
24. A body dropped from top of a tower fall through
40 m during the last two seconds of its fall. The
16. Which of the following speed-time (v - t) graphs is
height of tower is: (g = 10m/s²)
physically not possible?
(1) 60 m (2) 45 m
(3) 80 m (4) 50 m
(1) (2)
25. The position x of a particle varies with time, (t) as
x = at2 – bt3. The acceleration will be zero at time t
is equal to:
(3) (4) All of these (1) a/3b (2) zero
(3) 2a/3b (4) a/b

26. The distance x (in metre) travelled by a particle in

17. The dimensions of potential energy of an object in time t (in second) moving along a straight line is
mass length and time are respectively. given by x = 4t – t2 .How long would the particle
(1) 2, 2, 1 (2) 1, 2, –2 travel before coming to rest?
(3) –2, 1, 2 (4) 1, –1, 2 (1) 2 m (2) 3 m
(3) 4 m (4) 5 m
18. What is the dimension of surface tension?
(1) [ML1T0] (2) [ML1T–1] 27. Dimensions of frequency are:
1 1 –2
(3) [M L T ] (4) [M1L0T–2] (1) [M0 L–1 T0]
(2) [M0 L0 T–1]
19. Which of the following velocity-time graph shows (3) [M0 L0 T]
a realistic situation for a body in motion? (4) [MT–2]

28. When a particle returns to its initial point, its

(1) (2) (1) displacement is zero
(2) average velocity is not zero
(3) distance is zero
(3) (4) (4) average speed zero

29. A car travels from A to B at a speed of 20 km/hr

and returns at a speed of 30 km/hr. The average
20. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by speed of the car for the whole journey is:
v = at + (b/(t + c)), where a, b and c are constants. (1) 25 km/hr
The dimensions of a, b and c are: (2) 24 km/hr
(1) L, LT and LT–2 (2) LT–2, L and T (3) 50 km/hr
(3) L2, T and LT2 (4) LT2, LT and L (4) 5 km/hr
30. Find the ratio of the distance travelled by a freely SECTION-B
falling body during the first and third second of its 36. Starting from a point on circumference of a circle
fall. of radius ‘r’, a person moves to a point which is
(1) 1:3 diametrically opposite its initial position. The
(2) 3:5 distance travelled and displacement are
(3) 1:5 respectively:
(1) 2πr, 0
(4) 2:3
(2) πr, 2r
(3) 2r, 2πr
31. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2, where A (4) 2r, πr
and B are constants, then the distance travelled by
it between 1 s and 2 s is: 37. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
3 Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) A + 4B Assertion A: The displacement-time graph of a
2
body moving with uniform acceleration is a
(2) 3A + 7B straight line.
3 7
(3) A+ B Reason R: The displacement is proportional to
2 3 square of time for uniformly accelerated motion.
A B In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) + correct answer from the options given below:
2 3
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
32. The motion of a particle is described by the equation (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
x = a + bt 2 , where a = 10 cm, b = 15 cm s–2. Its explanation of A.
instantaneous velocity at t = 3 second will be? (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(1) 10 cms–1 correct explanation of A.
(2) 20 cms–1
38. The speed-time graph of a particle along a fixed
(3) 60 cms–1 direction is shown below. The distance traversed by
(4) 90 cms–1 the particle between t = 0 s and t = 10 s will be:

33. The distance travelled by an object along a straight

line in time t is given by s = 3 – 4t + 5t2, the initial
velocity of the object is:
(1) 3 unit
(2) – 3 unit
(3) 4 unit (1) 120 m
(2) 90 m
(4) – 4 unit
(3) 60 m
(4) 30 m
34. The area under the acceleration time graph represents:
(1) the displacement 39. The position - time (x – t) graph for motion of a
(2) velocity body is given below:
(3) change in velocity
(4) distance travelled

35. The displacement x of a particle along a straight

line at time t is given by x = a0 + a1t + a2t 2 . The
acceleration of the particle is: Which one among the following is depicted by the
above graph?
(1) a0
(1) position acceleration
(2) a1 (2) negative acceleration
(3) 2a2 (3) zero acceleration
(4) a2 (4) None of the above
40. The acceleration of a moving body can be found 45. Given below are two statements:
from: Statement I: All bodies fall freely with the same
(1) area under velocity-time graph acceleration.
(2) area under distance-time graph Statement II: The acceleration of the falling
(3) slope of the velocity-time graph bodies depends on the mass of the body.
(4) slope of distance-time graph In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
41. Match List-I with List-II: below:
List-I List-II (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(A) Positive (I) (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
acceleration incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(B) Negative (II) (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
acceleration incorrect.

(C) Zero acceleration (III) 46. Match List-I with List-II:

A particle moves along a straight line such that its
displacement S varies with time t as S =  + 𝛽t + t2
Choose the correct answer from the options given List-I List-II
below: (A) Acceleration at t = 2s (I)  + 5
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III (B) Average velocity (II) 2
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II during third second
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III (C) Velocity at t = 1s (III) 
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I (D) Initial displacement (IV)  + 2
Choose the correct answer from the options given
42. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus below:
time (t) is as shown in the figure. The maximum (1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
speed of the particle will be: (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

47. A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches

the ground in 4 sec. The height of the tower is
about: (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 80 m (2) 40 m
(3) 20 m (4) 160 m
(1) 150 m/s
(2) 75 m/s
48. A ball is released from certain height h reaches
(3) 37.5 m/s ground in time T. Where will it be from the
(4) 45 m/s ground at time 3T/4?
9h 7h
43. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the (1) (2)
16 16
top of the tower reaches the ground with a
3h 27h
velocity 3u. The height of the tower is: (3) (4)
4 64
(1) 3u2/g
(2) 4u2/g 49. Two bodies, A (of mass 1 kg ) and B (of mass
(3) 6u2/g 3 kg) are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m,
(4) 9u2/g respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them
to reach the ground is:
44. The displacement of a particle is given by (1) 5/4 (2) 12/5
y = a + bt +ct2 – dt4. The initial velocity and (3) 5/12 (4) 4/5
acceleration are respectively.
(1) b, − 4d 50. A particle starts moving from rest with uniform
(2) −b, 2c acceleration. It travels a distance x in first 2s and
distance y in the next 2s. Then:
(3) b, 2c (1) y = 3x (2) y = 4x
(4) 2c, − 4d (3) y = x (4) y = 2x
 Solutions (Complete Chapter), Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry (Complete Chapter), Redox Reaction (Complete Chapter)

SECTION-(II) CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 57. 1 mole glucose is added to 1L of water. If

51. Molarity of H2SO4 solution is 18 M. If density of Kb (H2O) = 0.512 K kg mol–1, then boiling point
solution is 1.8 g/cm3, then molality of solution of solution will be;
will be; (Molar mass of H2SO4 = 98 g/mol) (Molar mass of glucose = 180 g /mol)
(1) 100 m (2) 500 m (1) 373.512°C (2) 100.512°C
(3) 99.488°C (4) 372.488°C
(3) 200 m (4) 300 m
58. Given below are two statements:
52. Calculate mole fraction of ethyl alcohol and water Statement I: On adding NaCl to water its vapour
in a solution containing 46 g ethyl alcohol and pressure increases.
36 g water. Statement II: Addition of non-volatile solute
(Molar mass of ethyl alcohol = 46 g/mol) decreases the vapour pressure.
(Molar mass of H2O = 18 g/mol) In the light of the above statements, choose the
1 2 most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) C2 H5OH = ,  H2O = below:
3 3
1 1 (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) C2 H5OH = ,  H2O = incorrect.
2 2
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
1 3
(3) C2 H5OH = ,  H2O = correct.
4 4 (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
3 1 correct.
 = , =
(4) C2 H5OH 4 H2O 4 (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
53. The temperature at which the vapour pressure of a
59. 3 g urea is dissolved in 45 g of water. The relative
liquid equals external pressure is called; lowering of vapour pressure is;
(1) freezing point (2) boiling point (Molar mass of urea = 60 g/mol)
(3) melting point (4) critical temperature (Molar mass of H2O = 18 g/mol)
(1) 0.05 (2) 0.04
54. Vapour pressure is the pressure exerted by (3) 0.02 (4) 0.01
vapours;
(1) in equilibrium with liquid. 60. The amount of urea to be dissolved in 500 cc of
(2) in any condition. water (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1) to produce a depression
of 0.186°C in the freezing point is;
(3) in an open system.
(molar mass of urea = 60 g/mol)
(4) in atmospheric conditions. (1) 9 g (2) 6 g
(3) 3 g (4) 0.3 g
55. A sample of toothpaste weighing 500 g on
analysis was found to contain 0.2 g of fluorine. 61. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
The concentration of fluorine in ppm is; Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) 4 × 103 (2) 4 × 102 Assertion A: 0.1 M solution of NaCl has greater
(3) 4 × 10 (4) 2 × 102 osmotic pressure than 0.1 M solution of glucose at
same temperature.
Reason R: In solution, NaCl dissociates to
56. Any solution (A) with osmotic pressure 1 is
produce more number of particles.
separated from another solution (B) with osmotic In the light of the above statements, choose the
pressure 2 by SPM, if solvent flows from A →B, correct answer from the options given below:
then; (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
(1) 1  2 .
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) 1  2 . explanation of A.
(3) solution are isotonic. (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(4) solutions are ideal. explanation of A.
62. Match List-I with List-II. 66. Which of the following aqueous solutions has the
List-I List-II highest freezing point?
(A) C2H5OH + H2O (I) Molal elevation (1) 0.1 molal Al2(SO4)3
constant (2) 0.1 molal BaCl2
(B) Ebullioscopic (II)
Molal depression (3) 0.1 molal AlCl3
constant constant (4) 0.1 molal NH4Cl
(C) Cryoscopic (III) Non-ideal
constant solution with 67. For O2 and N2, Henry’s law constants are given at
positive deviation different temperature. Thus
Gas Temperature/K KH/kbar
(D) H2O + H2SO4 (IV) Non-ideal N2 293 76.5
solution with N2 303 88.5
negative deviation O2 293 35
Choose the correct answer from the options given O2 303 47
below: (1) Solubility of gases decreases with increase in
(1) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III temperature.
(2) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV (2) When dissolved, the gas molecules are present
(3) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV in liquid phase and the process of dissolution
(4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D –III can be considered similar to condensation in
which heat is evolved (H < 0)
(3) Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold
63. The number of pairs of the solution having the
water rather than in warm water.
same value of the osmotic pressure from the
(4) All of these
following is . (Assume 100% ionization)
A. 0.50 M C2H5OH(aq) and 0.25 M KBr
68. Molar solution means 1 mole of solute present in;
B. 0.10 M K4[Fe(CN)6](aq) and 0.10 M (1) 1000 g of solvent .
FeSO4. (NH4)2SO4(aq) (2) 1 litre of solvent.
C. 0.05 M K4[Fe(CN)6](aq) and 0.25 M NaCl(aq) (3) 1 litre of solution.
D. 0.15 M NaCl(aq) and 0.1 M BaCl2(aq) (4) 1000 g of solution.
E. 0.02 M KCl.MgCl2.6H2O(aq) and 0.05M KCl(aq)
(1) 2 (2) 3 69. How many moles and how many grams of NaCl
(3) 4 (4) 5 are present in 250 mL of a 0.5 M NaCl solution?
(molar mass of NaCl = 58.5 g/mol)
64. Consider the following for a non-volatile solute: (1) 0.125 mol; 7.32 g
(2) 7.32 mol; 0.125 g
A. vapour pressure of solute is zero
(3) 0.125 mol; 0.125 g
B. vapour pressure of solution = vapour pressure
(4) 7.32 mol; 7.32 g
of pure solvent
C. vapour pressure of solution = vapour pressure 70. The density (in g mL–1) of a 3.6 M sulphuric acid
of solvent in solution solution, having 29% H2SO4 by mass will be:
Now, choose the correct option; (Molar mass of H2SO4 = 98 g/mol)
(1) Only (A) is correct (1) 3.45 (2) 2.64
(2) Both (A) and (C) are correct (3) 1.88 (4) 1.22
(3) Only (B) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct 71. 0.75 mole of an ideal gas expands at 27°C from 15 L
to 25 L, then maximum work done is;
65. The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the 25
elevation in boiling point to; (R = 8.314 J mol–1 k–1, log = 0.22 )
15
(1) molarity. (1) –914 J
(2) molality. (2) –923 J
(3) mole fraction of solute. (3) –947.79J
(4) mole fraction of solvent. (4) –975 J
72. For the reaction, 82. If, combustion of 4 g of CH4 liberates 2.5 kcal of
PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g); heat, the heat of combustion of CH4 is;
(1) H = E (2) H > E (1) –20 kcal (2) –10 kcal
(3) H < E (4) None of these (3) 2.5 kcal (4) –5 kcal

83. AB, A2 and B2 are diatomic molecules. If the

73. In an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas;
bond enthalpies of A2, AB and B2 are in the
(1) T = 0 (2) E = 0
(3) q = 0 (4) Both (1) and (2) ratio 1:1:0.5 and the enthalpy of formation of
AB from A2 and B2 is –100 kJ mol–1, what is the
74. Which of the following is correct option for free bond enthalpy of A2?
expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition? (1) 400 kJ mol–1
(1) q = 0, T < 0, w  0 (2) 200 kJ mol–1
(2) q = 0, T  0, w = 0 (3) 100 kJ mol–1
(3) q  0, T = 0, w = 0 (4) 300 kJ mol–1
(4) q = 0, T = 0, w = 0
84. Which reaction is endothermic in nature?
75. A system absorbs 20 kJ heat and does 10 kJ of (1) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
1
work. The internal energy of the system; (2) C + O2 → CO
(1) increases by 10 kJ. 2
(2) decreases by 10 kJ. (3) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
(3) increases by 30 kJ. (4) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
(4) decreases by 30 kJ.
85. Which plot represents for an exothermic reaction?
76. Which of the following is an intensive property?
(1) mass (2) volume (1) (2)
(3) density (4) moles

77. Tea placed in a kettle is an example of;

(1) closed system. (2) open system.
(3) isolated. (4) None of these
(3) (4)

78. For a chemical reaction at constant P and V, H is

equal to;
(1) E (2) zero
(3) E + PV (4) P/T SECTION-B
86. The occurrence of a reaction is impossible if;
79. A gaseous system absorbs 10 kJ of heat at (1) H is +ve; S is also +ve bu H < TS
constant volume and its temperature rise from (2) H is –ve; S is also –ve but H > TS
27°C to 37°C. Find the value of E gas is; (3) H is –ve; S is +ve
(1) 100 kJ (2) 10 kJ (4) H is +ve; S is–ve
(3) 0 kJ (4) 1 kJ
87. For which reaction from the following, S will be
80. For the reaction, maximum?
C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l) at 1
(1) Ca ( ) O2 ( g ) → CaO(s)
s +
constant temperature H – E is; 2
(1) + R (2) – RT (2) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(3) + 3RT (4) – 3RT (3) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)
81. The heats of neutralisation of four acids A, B, C
and D are –13.7, –9.4, –11.2 and –12.4 kcal 88. In which of the following entropy decreases?
respectively when they are neutralised by a
(1) Crystallization of sugar from solution
common base. The acidic character obeys the
order; (2) Rusting of iron
(1) A > B > C > D (2) A > D > C > B (3) Melting of ice
(3) D > C > B > A (4) D > B > C > A (4) Vaporization of camphor
89. Enthalpy of formation of two compounds x and y 94. Consider the reaction,
are –84 kJ and –156 kJ respectively. Which of the Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
With reference to the above, which one of the
following statements is correct?
following is the correct statement?
(1) x is more stable than y
(1) Zn is reduced to Zn2+
(2) x is less stable than y (2) Zn is oxidised to Zn2+
(3) Both x and y are unstable (3) Zn2+ is oxidised to Zn
(4) x and y are endothermic compounds (4) Cu2+ is oxidised to Cu.

95. Which reaction does not represent dis-

90. From the following bond energies; proportionation reaction;
H–H bond energy: 431.37 kJ mol−1 (1) Cl + OH– → Cl– + ClO− + H
2 3 2
C = C bond energy: 606.10 kJ mol−1 (2) 2H O → H O + O
2 2 2 2
C – C bond energy: 336.49 kJ mol−1 (3) 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu
C – H bond energy: 410.50 kJ mol−1 (4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
Enthalpy for the reaction,
96. Which of the following behaves as both oxidising
and reducing agents?
(1) H2SO4 (2) SO2
(3) H2S (4) HNO3

will be: 97. When HNO3 is converted into NH3, the equivalent
(1) 1523.6 kJ mol–1 weight of HNO3 will be;
(2) –243.6 kJ mol–1 (1) M/2 (2) M/1
(3) M/6 (4) M/8
(3) –120.0 kJ mol–1
(M = molecular weight of HNO3)
(4) 553.0 kJ mol–1
98. The oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is;
91. The oxidation number of oxygen in Na2O2 is; (1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 10 (4) 5
(1) + 1
(2) + 2 99. For the redox reaction,
(3) – 2 MnO−4 + C2 O2−
4 + H → Mn
+ 2+
+ CO 2 + H 2O,
(4) – 1 the correct stoichiometric coefficients of MnO 4–,
C2O42– and H+ are respectively;
(1) 2, 5, 16 (2) 16, 5, 2
92. Which of the following is a redox reaction?
(3) 5, 16, 2 (4) 2, 16, 5
(1) NaCl + KNO3 → NaNO3 + KCl
(2) CaC2O4 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2C2O4 100. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(3) Mg(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl → MgCl2 + 2NH4OH
Assertion A: F2 does not undergo
(4) Zn + 2AgCN �⎯� 2Ag + Zn(CN)2 disproportionation reactions.
Reason R: Fluorine is highly electronegative
shows only 0 and –1 oxidation states.
93. A reducing agent is a substance;
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) in which an element undergoes increase in correct answer from the options given below;
oxidation number. (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) in which an element undergoes decrease in (2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
oxidation number.
explanation of A.
(3) which gains electron(s) (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(4) which shares electron(s) explanation of A.
 Cell Cycle and Cell Division; The Living World; Biological
Classification (till Kingdom Protista)

SECTION-(III) BOTANY
SECTION-A 106. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
101. Identify the stage of karyokinesis which is marked
(A) Leptotene (I) Condensation of
by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal
chromatin fibres
material. begins
(1) Anaphase (B) Diakinesis (II) Occurrence of synapsis
(2) Metaphase (C) Diplotene (III) Terminalisation of
(3) Prophase chiasmata
(4) Telophase (D) Zygotene (IV) Chiasmata formation
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
102. The M phase starts with the: (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(1) cytokinesis. (2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(2) karyokinesis. (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) synthesis of proteins. (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) replication of DNA.
107. After telophase II in meiosis, cytokinesis produces:
(1) two haploid daughter cells.
103. The stage between the two meiotic divisions is (2) two diploid daughter cells.
called: (3) four haploid daughter cells.
(1) cytokinesis. (4) four diploid daughter cells.
(2) interphase.
(3) interkinesis. 108. Read the following and identify the correct
(4) quiescent phase. statements.
A. Heart cells in the adult animals appear to
exhibit division.
104. Given below are two statements: B. Cells in G0 stage remain metabolically active
Statement I: Cell growth results in disturbing the but no longer proliferate.
ratio between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. C During the G2 phase, proteins are synthesised
Statement II: Cycles of growth and division allow in preparation for mitosis.
a single cell to form a structure consisting of D. During G1 phase the cell is metabolically
millions of cells. inactive and continuously grows.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
most appropriate answer from the options given
below: (1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) C and D only
incorrect.
(4) A and D only
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
109. The diagram given below represents which phase
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. of meiosis?
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.

105. A diploid cell had 2n number of chromosomes at

G1, then after S phase the number of chromosomes
will be:
(1) n.
(1) Prophase II
(2) 2n. (2) Metaphase II
(3) 4n. (3) Anaphase I
(4) 8n. (4) Anaphase II
110. Which of the following processes occur during cell 117. Given below are two statements:
cycle? Statement I: For plants, scientific names are based
A. Centriole duplication on agreed principles and criteria, which are
B. DNA replication provided in ICBN.
C. Protein synthesis Statement II: The word systematics is derived
D. Organelles duplication from the Latin word ‘systema’ which means
systematic arrangement of organisms.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) A and D only
below:
(2) B and D only (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) B, C and D only incorrect.
(4) A, B, C and D (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
111. Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
the microscope do not show: (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) centrosome. incorrect.
(2) spindle fibres.
(3) chromosomes. 118. How many of the following taxa represents
(4) nuclear envelope. hierarchy above family?
Canidae, Polymoniales, Hominidae, Diptera,
112. During which of the following stages of division, Poales, Anacardiaceae
the homologous chromosomes separate, while (1) Two (2) Three
sister chromatids remain associated at their (3) Four (4) Five
centromeres.
(1) Metaphase I 119. Who had used Systema Naturae as the title of his
(2) Anaphase I publication?
(3) Prophase I (1) Ernst Mayr (2) Carolus Linnaeus
(4) Anaphase II (3) R.H. Whittaker (4) Aristotle

113. Which of the following does not belong to 120. Match List-I with List-II:
Kingdom Animalia? List-I List-II
(1) Panthera (A) Homo (I) Anacardiaceae
(2) Musca (B) Musca (II) Poaceae
(3) Felis (C) Triticum (III) Muscidae
(4) Solanum (D) Mangifera (IV) Hominidae
Choose the correct answer from the options given
114. Plant families like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae below:
are included in the order Polymoniales mainly (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
based on the: (2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(1) floral characters. (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) root characters. (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) stem characters.
(4) leaf characters. 121. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
115. Identify the mismatched pair. Assertion A: All taxonomic categories together
(1) Cat – Canidae constitute the taxonomic hierarchy.
(2) Potato – Solanaceae Reason R: Each taxonomic category represents a
rank and is commonly termed as taxon.
(3) Lion – Felidae
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) Man – Hominidae
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false.
116. Diptera is the order of: (2) A is false but R is true.
(1) mango. (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) wheat. explanation of A.
(3) housefly. (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(4) humans. explanation of A.
122. Taxonomic category, which is the assemblage of 130. Slime moulds are:
families exhibiting a few similar character is: (1) the members of chrysophytes.
(1) class. (2) division. (2) saprophytic protist.
(3) order. (4) phylum. (3) included in Kingdom Monera.
(4) photosynthetic organism.
123. Fishes, amphibians, reptiles and birds belong to the
same:
131. The shape of cocci bacteria is:
(1) kingdom. (2) family.
(1) rod-shaped.
(3) order. (4) genus.
(2) comma-shaped.
124. Which of the following statement is incorrect (3) spherical-shaped.
regarding chrysophytes? (4) spiral-shaped.
(1) They include both diatoms and desmids.
(2) They are microscopic and float passively in 132. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t
water currents. eubacteria?
(3) They belong to Kingdom Protista. (1) The cyanobacteria are also referred to as blue-
(4) Most of them are heterotrophs. green algae.
(2) Some members play a great role in recycling
125. The kingdom system that did not distinguish nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron and
between the prokaryotes and eukaryotes organisms sulphur.
and unicellular and multicellular was given by: (3) The colonies of Nostoc are generally
(1) Aristotle. (2) Linnaeus. surrounded by gelatinous sheath.
(3) Stanley. (4) Whittaker. (4) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria form
blooms in polluted water bodies.
126. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Euglenoids have pigments identical 133. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
to those in higher plants. Protista?
Reason R: Euglenoids always behave as (1) Possess membrane bound organelles.
autotrophs. (2) Primarily aquatic.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) Absence of well defined nucleus.
correct answer from the options given below: (4) Single-celled eukaryotes.
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true. 134. Read the following and identify the incorrect
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct statements.
explanation of A. A. Aristotle used simple morphological
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct characters to classify plants.
explanation of A. B. The main criteria of classification used by
R.H. Whittaker does not include reproduction
127. Dinoflagellates differ from euglenoids, as the and phylogenetic relationship.
former: C. In earlier classification system, Paramoecium
(1) can predate on other smaller organisms. and Amoeba were placed under Protista.
(2) have majority of members that are fresh water D. Bacteria are the sole members of the Kingdom
organisms. Monera.
(3) have cell wall with stiff cellulose plates on the
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
outer surface.
options given below:
(4) have two flagella.
(1) A and B only
128. The protozoan which causes sleeping sickness is (2) B and C only
a/an: (3) A, C and D only
(1) sporozoan. (4) B, C and D only
(2) ciliated protozoan.
(3) flagellated protozoan. 135. The Kingdom Protista forms a link with Kingdom:
(4) amoeboid protozoan. (1) Plantae. (2) Fungi.
(3) Animalia. (4) All of these
129. Identify the correct statement regarding
cyanobacteria. SECTION-B
(1) Are filamentous heterotrophic bacteria 136. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage
(2) Lack chlorophyll a pigment of meiosis?
(3) Show photosynthesis (1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene
(4) Have membrane bound organelles (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
137. In anaphase I, each chromosome is composed of: 144. The walls of diatoms are embedded with A thus
(1) one chromatid. (2) two chromatids. the walls are B . Identify A and B respectively.
(3) four chromatids. (4) many chromatids. A B
(1) cellulose destructible
138. The diagram shows the nuclear contents of a cell. (2) cellulose indestructible
(3) silica destructible
(4) silica indestructible

145. Which of the following protist releases toxins that

may even kill fishes and other marine animals?
Which one of the following options is correct? (1) Euglena (2) Gonyaulax
Number of Number of Numbers of
(3) Paramoecium (4) Plasmodium
pairs of chromatids centromeres
homologous
chromosomes 146. Citrus canker is a:
(1) 3 6 12 (1) viral disease. (2) bacterial disease.
(2) 3 12 6 (3) fungal disease. (4) protozoan disease.
(3) 6 6 12
147. Match List-I with List-II:
(4) 6 12 6
List-I List-II
(A) Diatoms (I) Forms fruiting
139. A single cell containing large number of nuclei is bodies
called:
(B) Protozoans (II) Primitive relatives
(1) syncytium. (2) nucleolus. of animals
(3) multicellular. (4) bivalent.
(C) Slime moulds (III) Found in stagnant
water
140. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(D) Euglenoids (IV) Chief producer in
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: the oceans
Assertion A: Spindle fibres are attached to small
disc shaped structures at the surface of centromeres Choose the correct answer from the options given
called kinetochores. below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Reason R: The plane of alignment of
chromosomes at metaphase is referred to as the (2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
metaphase plate. (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false. 148. Given below are two statements:
(2) A is false but R is true. Statement I: The Mycoplasma are pathogenic
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct organisms that completely lack a cell wall.
explanation of A. Statement II: Heterotrophic bacteria are most
abundant in nature.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A. In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
141. Which of the following taxonomic category is
common for Petunia and Datura? (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(1) Genus (2) Family
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) Species (4) Variety
correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
142. Which of the following is a taxonomic category (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
related to wheat? incorrect.
(1) Dicotyledonae
(2) Sapindales 149. Methanogens belong to:
(3) Mangifera (1) eubacteria. (2) archaebacteria.
(4) Poaceae (3) dinoflagellates. (4) slime moulds.

143. When a scientific name is hand written, then: 150. Red tide causing organism:
(1) specific epithet starts with capital letter. (1) are only fresh water forms.
(2) both words should be separately underlined. (2) have soap box like cell wall.
(3) both words should be written in italics. (3) form diatomaceous earth.
(4) generic name starts with small letter. (4) are unicellular like Gonyaulax.
 Structural Organization in Animals (Complete Chapter), Breathing and Exchange of Gases (Complete Chapter)

SECTION-(IV) ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A 157. Which of the following mouth part act as tongue

in cockroach?
151. The cilliated epithelial cells are required to move
(1) Labium (2) Hypopharynx
particles or mucus in a specific direction. In
humans, these cells are mainly present in: (3) Maxillae (4) Labrum
(1) salivary duct. (2) pancreatic duct.
(3) alveoli. (4) bronchioles. 158. How many of the given structures in the box
below is/are surrounded by incomplete cartilaginous
152. Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid rings?
artery can recognise changes in concentration of: Trachea, Pharynx, Secondary bronchi, Primary
(1) O2 only. (2) H+ only. bronchi, Alveoli
(3) O2 and CO2. (4) CO2 and H+.
(1) One (2) Four
(3) Three (4) Two
153. Which of the following is incorrect statement
about Periplaneta americana?
(1) Cockroaches are dioecious. 159. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t Rana
(2) Next to last nymphal stage has wing pad. tigrina.
(3) Many species of cockroaches are wild and (1) Pancreas produces digestive juices.
are no economic importance. (2) Bile emulsifies carbohydrates.
(4) Head lies posteriorly at right angles to the (3) Wall of stomach secrete HCl.
longitudinal body axis.
(4) Food is captured by bilobed tongue.
154. Match the List-I with List-II w.r.t frog.
List-I List-II 160. Which of the following is present between the
(A) Sensory papillae (I) Hearing adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
(B) Taste buds (II) Smell (1) Smooth muscle (2) Intercalated discs
(C) Nasal epithelium (III) Taste (3) Cartilage (4) Areolar tissue
(D) Internal ear (IV) Touch
Choose the correct answer from the option given 161. Given below are two statements:
below. Statement I: The lungs are situated in the
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I thoracic chamber.
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I Statement II: Pressure contributed by an
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III individual gas in a mixture of gases is called
partial pressure.
155. Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the mid- In the light of the above statements, choose the
thoracic cavity which divides at the level of: most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) 5th thoracic vertebrae. below.
(2) 4th thoracic vertebrae. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) 3rd thoracic vertebrae.
incorrect.
(4) 7th thoracic vertebrae.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
156. Read the given following statements and choose correct.
the correct option. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
A. The intercellular material of cartilage is correct.
solid and pliable. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
B. The smooth muscle fibres taper at both ends. incorrect.
C. Cells of bone is called osteocytes.
D. Loose connective tissue has a semi-fluid 162. In all connective tissues except ,the
ground substance. cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
E. The excess of nutrients which are not used collagen or elastin.
immediately are converted into protein and Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
get stored in specialised tissue.
(1) bone
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below: (2) cartilage
(1) A, B and D only (2) A, C and E only (3) blood
(3) B, C and E only (4) A, B, C and D only (4) muscles
163. Testes in male frogs adhere to the upper part of (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
the kidneys by: incorrect.
(1) vasa efferentia. (2) urinary bladder. (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) mesorchium. (4) cloaca. correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
164. Which of the following structures are involved in correct.
the formation of thoracic chamber? (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
A. Vertebral column incorrect.
B. Sternum
C. Ribs 170. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of
D. Diaphragm mechanism of breathing.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) A and B only (2) A, B and C only
(3) B, C and D only (4) A, B, C and D

165. How many molecules of O2 can be carried by a

single molecule of haemoglobin?
(1) Four (2) Five
(3) Eight (4) Six Choose the correct interpretation of the above
diagram.
166. The outer pleural membrane is in close contact (1) Diaphragm, becomes dome shaped due to
with X , and inner pleural membrane is in contraction of its muscles and decreases the
close contact with Y . volume of thoracic cavity.
Choose the correct option to fill the blanks. (2) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases due to
(1) X-thoracic lining, Y-lung surface contraction of external intercostal muscles.
(2) X-lung surface, Y-thoracic lining (3) Diaphragm is relaxed and arched upwards
(3) X-alveoli, Y-lung surface which decreases the volume of thoracic
(4) X-lung surface, Y-alveoli
cavity.
(4) Contraction of external intercostal muscle
167. Function of the gap junction is to:
(1) facilitate communication between adjoining shifts the ribs inwards and downwards.
cells by connecting the cytoplasm.
171. A specialised centre in brain called respiratory
(2) separate two cells from each other.
(3) stop substance from leaking across a tissue. rhythm centre which regulates breathing is present
(4) performing cementing to keep neighbouring in:
cells together. (1) pons.
(2) medulla oblongata.
168. Which of the following characteristics is (3) cerebrum.
incorrect with respect to cockroaches? (4) cerebellum.
(1) Besides malpighian tubules, fat body,
nephrocytes and urecose glands help in 172. Branchial respiration occurs in:
excretion. (1) fishes. (2) aquatic arthropods.
(2) 7th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous (3) molluscs. (4) all of these
structures called anal cerci.
(3) Anterior part of female genital pouch 173. Match the List I with List II.
contains female gonopore, spermathecal
List-I List-II
pores and collaterial glands.
(A) Larynx (I) Lid of glottis
(4) Visceral organs are located in haemocoel.
(B) Trachea (II) Air sacs
(C) Alveoli (III) Voice box
169. Given below are two statements:
(D) Epiglottis (IV) Wind pipe
Statement I: In frogs, dissolved oxygen in water
is exchanged through skin by diffusion. Choose the correct answer from the options given
Statement II: In frogs, brain is enclosed in a bony below.
structure called brain box. (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
In the light of the above statements, choose the (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
most appropriate answer from the options given (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
below. (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
174. Consider the following chemical reaction. 180. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
⎯→ (1) Frogs have vertebral column.
CO2 + H2O ⎯
⎯ H2CO3
Carbon dioxide Water Carbonicacid (2) Frogs are ureotelic.
The enzyme responsible to carry out the above (3) Tadpole undergoes metamorphosis to form
reaction is; the adult.
(1) carbonic anhydrase. (4) The hindbrain of frogs is characterised by a
(2) succinic anhydrase.
pair of optic lobes.
(3) carboxylase.
(4) kinases.
181. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
175. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a Assertion A and the other is labelled as
normal expiration is called as: Reason R.
(1) expiratory capacity. Assertion A: Epithelial tissue provides a covering
(2) functional residual capacity. or a lining for some part of the body.
(3) vital capacity.
Reason R: This tissue has a free surface, which
(4) total lung capacity.
faces either a body fluid or the outside
176. Given below are two statements: environment.
Statement I: Insects have a network of tubes to In the light of the above statements, choose the
transport atmospheric air within the body. correct answer from the options given below.
Statement II: Amphibians can respire through (1) A is true but R is false.
their moist skin. (2) A is false but R is true.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
most appropriate answer from the options given explanation of A.
below. (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is explanation of A.
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct. 182. Contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are thoracic chamber in the:
correct. (1) antero-posterior axis.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (2) dorso-ventral axis.
incorrect. (3) ventro-lateral axis.
(4) dorso-lateral axis.
177. Wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles is found in:
183. A epithelium is composed of more than
(1) pneumonia. (2) asthma.
one layers of cells and is B in function.
(3) tuberculosis. (4) fibrosis.
Choose the option that correctly fill the blanks A
178. Choose the odd one w.r.t secretions of exocrine and B, respectively.
glands. (1) A - Simple, B - secretory
(1) Mucus (2) Saliva (2) A - Compound, B - protective
(3) Hormones (4) Ear wax (3) A - Squamous, B - excretory
179. Read the following statements w.r.t. frog. (4) A - Columnar, B - absorptive
A. Chyme is passed from stomach to the second
part of the small intestine. 184. Which of the following statements is not correct
B. Undigested liquid waste moves into the
regarding neural tissue?
rectum and passes out through cloaca.
C. Lymph lacks few proteins and RBCs. (1) Neurons are the unit of neural system.
D. Only skin and lungs act as the respiratory (2) Neuroglial tissues are more than half the
organs on land. volume of neural tissues of body.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(1) A, B and D only (3) Neural tissue exerts the greatest control over
(2) B and D only the body’s responsiveness.
(3) A and C only (4) Both neurons and neuroglial cells are
(4) A, B, C and D only excitable cells.
185. Which of the following factor/s affect the rate of In the light of the above statements, choose the
diffusion through the diffusion membrane?
most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) Pressure gradient of respiratory gases.
below:
(2) Solubility of gases. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Thickness of the membrane involved in incorrect.
diffusion.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) All of these correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
SECTION-B
correct.
186. Which of the following conditions promote CO2 (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
to bind with haemoglobin in tissues?
incorrect.
(1) High pCO2 and low pO2
(2) Low pCO2 and high pO2
(3) Low pCO2 and low pO2 192. Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and of
(4) High pCO2 and high pO2 pancreatic ducts is lined by:
(1) squamous epithelium.
187. Each muscle is made of many long, cylindrical
fibres arranged in parallel arrays. These fibres are (2) ciliated epithelium.
composed of numerous fine fibrils called: (3) columnar epithelium.
(1) elastin fibres. (2) myofibrils. (4) compound epithelium.
(3) neurofibrils. (4) collagen fibres.

188. Hindwings in cockroach arises from: 193. The given diagram is of female reproductive
(1) prothorax. system of frogs. Identify the structure responsible
(2) mesothorax. for transporting faeces, urine and gametes.
(3) metathorax.
(4) both (2) and (3)

189. Arrange the following respiratory volumes in the

order of increasing volume .
I. Tidal volume
II. Inspiratory reserve volume
III. Expiratory reserve volume
IV. Vital capacity
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) I < III < II < IV
(3) I < IV < III < II (4) I < IV < II < III

(1) I
190. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Female cockroach possesses sixteen (2) II
ovarioles in the ovaries. (3) III
(2) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with less (4) IV
sensitivity and more resolution.
(3) A mushroom-shaped gland is present in male
194. Which of the following statements is incorrect
cockroach.
(4) All of these w.r.t frog?
191. Given below are two statements. (1) The hind limbs are larger and muscular than
Statement I: In unicellular organisms, all fore limbs.
functions are performed by a single cell. (2) Frogs do not have renal portal system.
Statement II: In the complex body of
(3) The lungs of frogs are a pair of elongated,
multicellular animals, the same basic functions are
carried out by different groups of cells in a well pink coloured sac-like structures.
organised manner. (4) Male frogs have copulatory pads.
195. Match the List-I with List-II. 198. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
List-I List-II damaged due to cigarette smoking is:
(A) Cuboidal (I) Wall of intestine (1) asthma.
epithelium (2) allergy.
(B) Ciliated (II) Moist surface of (3) emphysema.
epithelium buccal cavity (4) occupational respiratory disorder.
(C) Columnar (III) Fallopian tube
epithelium 199. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
(D) Compound (IV) PCT
R:
epithelium
Assertion A: The movement of air into and out of
Choose the correct answer from the option given the lungs is carried out by creating a pressure
below. gradient between the lungs and the atmosphere.
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV Reason R: The diaphragm and external
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I intercostals muscles between the ribs only, help in
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II generation of such gradients.
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
196. Select the incorrectly matched pair. (1) A is true but R is false.
(1) Collagen - Structural protein (2) A is false but R is true.
(2) Platelets - Blood
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) Fibroblasts - Areolar tissue
explanation of A.
(4) Chondrocytes - Smooth muscle cells
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
197. Which of the following are the functions of
conducting part of the respiratory system?
200. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
A. Transportation of the atmospheric air to the Assertion A and the other is labelled as
alveoli. Reason R.
B. Clears atmospheric air from foreign particles. Assertion A: Cell junctions are present in the
C. Humidifies atmospheric air. epithelium tissue only.
Reason R: Cell junctions provide both structural
D. Brings the atmospheric air to body and functional links between its individual cells.
temperature. In the light of the above statements, choose the
E. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and correct answer from the options given below.
atmospheric air. (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
option given below:
explanation of A.
(1) A, B and C only (2) A, B, C and D only
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(3) A, B, C, D and E (4) A, B, C and E only explanation of A.

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