Entrance Test for Enrollment in Ph.I).

Programme
Jut@12
Time: 120 Mins. Max. Marks: 120
Stream : Engineering Discipline : Electrical Engineering Set :A Test lD : 21
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Driving License, PAN Card or Passport along with ADMIT CARD.
. Study the instructions carefully before the start of examination.
. Thetime duration forthetestwill be l2Ominutes.
. You must report at examination centre 30 minutes priorto examination.
. Test will comprise of two sections. The Section-l will comprise of Research Methodology and section-ll
will be Subject specific. Each Section willcomprise of 60 questions carrying each making total paper of
120 marks.
. lt will be compulsory for the candidate to secure minimum passing marks in each section (which
amounts to be 50% i.e. 30 marks for the general category and 45% i.e.27 for reserved categories
in each section). The passing marks will be 50% of the total i.e. 60 marks for general category and 45o/o
for reserved categories i.e. 54 marks.
. The questions paperwill compriseof Multiple Choice Questions.
. Each question will have only one right answer.
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evaluated
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. The medium of the examination is English only.
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roughwork.
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allowed.
 Research MethodologY

Section -l
1. Which of the following is the best way to test a hypothesis according to the hypothetico-deductive
method?
a. By finding evidence which supports the hypothesis.
b. By repeating a study looking for consistency in outcomes.
c. By rejecting the hypothesis.
d. By lookingfor instances where the hypothesis fails.
2. Which of the following are the most similar?
a. Ordinal, interval and ratio data
b. Nominal, ratio, and interval data
c. Nominal and ratio data
d. Nominal, ordinal and ratio data
3. What sort of variable is dress size?
a. Ordinal
b. Ratio
c. Nominal
d. Dependent
4. What is deemed a good measure of the quality of a journal?
a. The intake factor.
b. The impact factor.
c. The OPAC factor.
d. The influence factor.
5. Variables in a cross-sectionaldesign are:
a. nominal data.
b. a mixture of both score and nominal data.
c. frequencies.
d. score data
5. Studies which measure the same variables in the same cases over time are called:
a. lagged.
b. panel.
c. cross-lagged.
d. synchronous.
7. Response rate refers to:
a. how confident you want to be about your results.
b. how variable participants' responses are.
c. the proportion of people who take part in a study.
d. how big a population is.
8. The difference between the mean of a researcher's sample and the mean of the population of the samph is
known as the:
a. sampling error.
b. significance level.
c. confidenceinterval.
d. standard deviation.
9. The purpose of research is:
a. to extend the conceptua] understanding of a topic.
 b. that the empirical work should be testing a theory.
c. primarily to get more data.
d. to produce work of publishable quality.
10. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
a. Searching sources of information to locate problem.
b. Survey of related literature
c. ldentification of problem
d. Searching for solutions to the problem
11. Questionnaire is a
a. Research method
b. Measurementtechnique
c. Toolfor data collection
d. Data analysis technique
12. Which of the following is not covered under lntellectual property Rights ?
a. Copyrights
b. Patents
c. Trade Marks
d. Thesaurus
13. Field study is related to
a. real life situations
b. experimentalsituations
c. laboratorysituations
d. none ofthe above
14. Which of the following is a non-probability sample ?
a. Quota sample
b. Simple random sample
c. Purposive sample
d. (a) and (c) both
15. Formulation of hypothesis may not be necessary in
a. survey studies
b. fact finding (historical) studies
c. normative studies
d. experimentalstudies
1,6. All are causes of non sampling errors except
a. faulty tools of measurement
b. inadequate sample
c. non response
d. defect in data collection
17. The review of the related study is important while undertaking a research because
a. it avoids repetition or duplication
b. it helps in understanding the gaps
c. it helps the researcher not to draw illogical conclusions
d. all of above
18. Of all of the steps in the research process, the one that typically takes the most time is
a. selecting a research method.
b. developing a hypothesis.
c. data collection.
d. formulating the problem.
19. A mean, median and mode are all examples of
a. measures of correlation
b. measures of enumeration
c. measures of coefficients
d. measures of centraltendencY
20. Research carried out to portray accurately the characteristics of a particular individual, situation or a group
are termed as
a. Exploratory
b. Descriptive
c. Diagnostic
d. None ofthese
2t. A is conducted to detect weaknesses in research instrument's design
a. Pilot study
b. Questionnaire
c. Interview
d. Sampling
22. One of the important characteristics of a good research is that the purpose of the research is

a. Clearly defined
b. Vaguely defined
c. Not defined
d.All of the above
23. ln order to deliver a good research, a researcher should confine the conclusions to those justified by
a. The Data
b. The Perception of Researcher
c. The Intuition
d.The Guide
24. The research plan should include
a. Research objective
b. Research Methods
c. Sampling Plan
d. All of these
25. Which of the following are excellent sources for research topics?
a. Theory
b. Personal experience
c. Replication of prior research
d. All of the above
26. A review of the literature should enable an investigator to do which of the following?
a. Ascertain what is already known about a topic.
b. ldentify methodological strategies for designing the study.
c. Provide the insight necessary to develop a logical framework into which the topic fits.
d. Allof the above.
27. The lnternet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the
following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the lnternet?
a. The number of "hits" for the site
b. The honesty with which information is reported and presented
c. The authenticity of the information
d. The lack of bias
28. A literature review s.hould be characterized by a[] of the following EXCEPT
 a. summarize and report each article.
b. use important topics as the organizing structure of the review.
c. analyze all articles for similarities and differences related to major topics.
d. discuss implications relative to the research problem.
29. Which of the following is the BEST hypothesis?
a. Students taking formative quizzes will perform better on chapter exams than students not taking
these quizzes.
b. Taller students will have higher test scores than shorter students.
c. Students taught in a cooperative group setting should do better than students in a traditional class.
d. Students using laptops will do well.
30. Which of the following statistics is most closely related to the standard error of the mean?
a. Mean
b. Standard deviation
c. Z score
d. Correlation
31. A significant result of a chi square test of significance would suggest the researcher should
a. accept the null hypothesis.
b. reject the null hypothesis.
c. reject the alternative hypothesis.
d. replicate the study.
32. Ram has set a very conservative alpha level of .001for his analysis. He is likely concerned about a
a. Type I error.
b. Type ll error.
c. standard error.
d. test of significance.
33. Mr. Sham has identified two groups of students to participate in his study examining the effectiveness of
using algebra tiles. One group will use these manipulatives while a second group will receive a traditional
lecture approach. Which test should be used to test the differences between the mean scores for the two
classes?
a. t test for dependent samples
b. t test for independent samples
c. Chi square
d. Scheff6 post hoc comparison
34. Which of the following is a common post hoc test?
a. Scheff6
b. Tukey HSD
c. Duncan's Multiple Range Test
d. All of the above
35. Ms. Rani is making decisions to accept students into her college based on a prediction of a student's future
performance derived from his or her high school GPA, ACT score, and college placement test score. Which
statistical procedure did she use to develop this predictive process?
a. ANOVA
b. ANCOVA
c. Multiple regression
d. Chi square
36. Which section of a research report sets the stage for the report and indicates where in the report each
component, tables, and figures can be found?
a. Preliminary pages
 b. Table of contents
c. Main body
d. Appendices
37. In which section is the researcher allowed greater flexibility to express opinions, discuss implications for
educational practice, and suggest additional research?
a. Review of the literature
b. Significance of the study
c. Results
d. Discussion
38. An unhypothesized result represents a(n)
a. accepted null hypothesis.
b. rejected null hypothesis.
c. unintended result that appeared in the study.
d. statistical error.
39. The purpose of random sampling is to ensure
a. a sufficient sample size.
b. a clearly defined target population.
c. representativeness of the sample.
d. representation of specific subgroups in the population.
40. Which of the following is NOT a random sampling technique?
a. Purposive sampling
b. Stratified sampling
c. Cluster sampling
d. Systematic sampling
4L. The logic of purposive sampling is
a. that a random sample can generalize to a population.
b. that a few information-rich participants studied in depth yield many insights about a topic.
c. to include all participants, even though they are not all relevant to the problem.
d. to use participants because the researcher has access to them.
42. Which of the following is a characteristic of a standardized test?
a. The administration of the test is controlled carefully to ensure that all examinees experience the
same conditions.
b. The test is developed by experts to ensure it is technically sound.
c. The scores are interpreted in standard ways.
d. All of the above.
43. Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?
a.lt relies on disciplined inquiry.
b. lt uses random sampling techniques.
c. lt uses a static, fixed research design.
d. lt is deductive in orientation
44. Memo writing helps accomplish all of the following EXCEPT
a. identify topics or issues for further exploration.
b. select appropriate participants.
c. identify areas that could provide focus for the forrnal data analysis.
d. provide opportunities to reflect on methodology.
45. Which of the foHowing represents excellent advice for conducting an interview?
a. Listen more and talk less.
b. Don't interrupt.
 c. Don't be judgmental about the interviewee's beliefs or views.
d. All ofthe above.
45. Which of the following types of items is likely to result in the most objective score?
a. Open-ended
b. Short answer
c. Multiple choice
d. Essay
47. Measures of variability indicate
a. the average score.
b. the central tendency of scores.
c. the extent to which scores differ from one another.
d. the relationships between variables.
48. Approximately what percentage of scores in a normal distribution fall between +1 and -1 standard
deviations?
a. 50
b. 68
c. 75
d. 99
49. Mr. Ram has ranked the students in his class on the basis of their math scores. He wants to compare these
ranks with the ranks of the same students in Ms.Rani's English class. Which correlation coefficient is
appropriate for Mr. Ram to use?
a. Pearson r
b. Spearman rho
c. Mean
d. Quartile deviation
50. Primary data which is gathered by observing relevant actions and people is called
a. experimental research
b. ethnographicresearch
c. observational research
d. survey research
51. ldea generation by two or more people thinking as freely as possible is formally known as:
a. brainstorming.
b. the learning curve.
c. forcedrelationships.
d. clap-trapping.
52. Which ONE of these is an example of processed data?
a. Number of visitors to a store.
b. Tables from surveys.
c.Customer comments.
d.CCTV recordings of shopper visits.
53. Which ONE is an advantage of secondary data?
a. May be outdated.
b. May not be accurate.
c. Expensive.
d. Already exist.
54. With efficient IPR system, lndia becomes prosperous in terms of "Knowledge Economy", which is a
boon towards the goal of VISION-_?
a. 2O2O
 b. 2030
c. 2040
d. 2050
55. The copyrights does not include rights in form of
a. news-paper items,
b. land ownership
c. story books,
d. poetry books,
56. In India, Patent rights are governed by
a. Patent Act, 1970
b. Patent Act, 1980
c. Patent Act, 1990
d. Patent Act, 1950
57. A mark shall not be registered as a trade mark if
a. lt is of such nature as to deceive the public or cause confusion:
b. lt contains or comprises of any matter likely to hurt the religious susceptibilities
of any class or section of the citizens of lndia;
c. lt comprises or contains scandalous or obscene matter
d. All of these
58. Computer programmes are protected under the
a. Copyright Act
b. Trademark Act
c. Patent Act
d. All of these
59. The general rule is that copyright lasts for
a. 45 Years
b. 50 Years
c. 55 Years
d. 60 Years
60. The existing legislation on industrial designs in India is contained in the New
a. Designs Act, 2000
b. Designs Act, 2009
c. Designs Act,1995
d. Designs Act, 2015
 Section - II Electrical Engineering
6l A Laplace Transform exists when
l)the function is piece-wise
2) the function "ontinuous
is of exponential order
3) the function is piecewise discrete
4) the function is of differential order
(A) | &2
(B)3&4
(c)r&4
(D)2 &3
62 What is the derivative of f(x) = I x I at x:0
(A) I
(B) -1
(c) 0
(D) does not exist
63 Causal systems are the systems in which
(A) the output of the system depends on the present and the past inputs
@) the output of the system depends only on the present inputs
(C) the output of the system depends only on the past inputs
(D) the output of the system depends on the present input as well as the previous outputs
64 There are four bus lines between A and B; and three bus lines between Band C. The number of
way a person roundtrip by bus from A to C by way of B will be
(A) 12
(B) 48
(c) r44
(D)264
65 In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the
probability that it is neither red nor green?
(A) 1/3
(B>3t4
(c) 7lre
(D) 8/21
66 Given that y(x) is the soluti onto y3 + 2, y(0) : 3 the value of y(0.2) from
ff= a second order
Taylor polynomial around x:0 is
(A) 4.400
(B) 8.800
(c) 74.46
(D) 2e.00
67 Kirchhoffs second law is based on law of conservation of
(A) charge
(B) energy
(C) momentum
(D) mass
68 The superposition theorem is applicable to
(A) current only
(B) voltage
(C) both current and voltage
(D) current, voltage and power
 resistances are connected as shown in figure below. The equivalent resistance between
the
69 Five
points A and B will be
7r|

3I) rq

100
(A) 35 ohms
(B) 25 ohms
(C) 15 ohms
(D) 5 ohms
70 An ideal voltage source
(A) has terminal voltage in proportion to current
(B) has terminal voltage in proportional to load
(C) has zero internal resistance
(D) has open circuit voltage nearly equal to the voltage on full load
7T When a source is delivering maximum power to a load, the efficiency of the circuit
(A) is always 50 %
(B) depends on the circuit parameters
(C) is alwaysT5 %o
(D) is always25 o/o
72 The magneto-motive force is
(A) the voltage across the two ends of exciting coil
(B) the flow of an electric current
(C) the sum of all currents embraced by one line of magnetic field
(D) the passage of magnetic field through an exciting coil
73 For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment should be zero ?
(A) diamagnetic materials
(B) fenimagnetic materials
(C) anti-fenomagnetic materials
(D) anti-fenimagnetic materials
74 In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to
(A) rapid reversals of its magnetisation
(B) flux density lagging behind magnetising force
(C) molecular friction
(D) it high retentivity
75 Which of the following is not a vector?
(A) linear momentum
(B) angular momentum
(C) electric field
(D) electric potential
76 "The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the amount of
charge enclosed". This statement is associated with
(A) Coulomb's square law
(B) Gauss's law
(C) Maxwell's first law
(D) Maxwell's second law

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77 The Biot-savart's law is a general modification of
(A) Kirchhoffs law
@) Lenz's law
(C) Ampere's law
(D) Faraday's laws
78 which of the following inductor will have the least eddy current losses?
(A) air core
. (B) laminated iron core
(C) iron core
(D) powdered iron core
79 T\e core used in high frequency transformer is usually
(A) copper core
(B) cast iron core
(C) air core
@) mild steel core
80 An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted primarity to measure
(A) insulation resistance
@) copper loss
(C) core loss
(D) efficiency
81 Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of variations in
(A) speed
(B) load
(C) voltage
@) speed and voltage
82 Wave wound 8 pole DC motor has 360 conductors. Number of parallel path between the conductors are
(,4^J2
(B) 4
(c) 6
(D) 8
83 Which of the following DC motor is never allowed to run at No-Load condition?
(A) shunt
(B) series
(C) compound
(D) separately excited
84 A 3-pha*' 440 V, 50 FIz induction motor has 4%o slip. The frequency of rotor e.m.f. will be
(/t)200H2
(B)20H2
(C)2Hz
(D) 0.2H2
85 Change of 4Yo of supply voltage to induction motor will produce a change of %o in rotor torque
(A) 4
(B) 8
(c) r2
(D) 16

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86 A synchronous machine
(A) can operate at unitY Pf
(B) can operate at leading pf
(C) can operate at lagging Pf
(D) can operate at any Pf
87 India's first Nuclear Power Plant was installed at
(A) Kota
(B) Tarapore
(C) Kalpakkam
(D) Durgapur
88 Out of following which one is over-current relay?
(A) IDMr
(B) Buchlotz
(C) Mho
(D) Differential
89 Plug setting of a relay can be altered by varying
(A) air gap of magnetic path
(B) no. of ampere-turns
(C) adjustable back up stop
(D) all of these
90 In which of the following given faults, all the sequence currents are equal?
(A) line to ground
(B) double line to ground
(C) 3-phase
(D) line to line
9l In a 3-phase, 5 kV, 5 MVA system, what is the base impedance?
(A) 5 ohm
(B) 500 ohms
(C) 0.5 ohm
(D) 50 ohms
92 Making and breaking currents of 3 phase AC circuit breakers in power system are respectively
in what form?
(A) RMS and RMS value
(B) Instantaneous and RMS value
(C) RMS and Instantaneous value
(D) Any of the above
93 In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the
system will
(A) decrease
(B) increase
(C) be unaffected
(D) any of the above

T2
94 Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain margin close to unity or a
phase margin close to zero?
(A) the system is relatively stable
(B) the system is highly stable
(C) the system is highly oscillatory
(D) the system is marginally stable
95 The transfer function is applicable to which of the following?
(A) linear and time-in variant systems
(B) linear and time-variant systems
(C) linear systems
(D) non-linear systems
96 Phase margin of a system is used to speciff which of the following?
(A) frequency response
(B) absolute stability
(C) relative stability
(D) time response
97 Control systems are normally designed with damping factor
(A) less than unity
(B) more than unity
(C) zero
(D) unity
98 In Routh Hurwitz Criterion if there are changes of signs in the elements of the first column then
the number of sign changes indicates
(A) the number of roots with negative real parts
(B) the number of roots with positive real parts
(C) the number of pair of roots of opposite sign
(D) the number of pair of roots of same sign
99 If the gain of the open loop system is doubled the gain margin
(A) is not affected
(B) gets doubled
(C) becomes half
(D) becomes one fourth
l00The sweep generator of a CRO is used to produce
(A) sinusoidal voltage for the horizontal deflection of electron beam
(B) saw tooth voltage for the vertical deflection of electron beam
(C) sinusoidal voltage for the vertical deflection of electron beam
(D) saw tooth voltage for the horizontal deflection of electron beam
l0lrhe resistances of potential transforrner winding is minimized by using
(A) thick conductors and small length of turns
(B) thin conductors and srnall length of tums
(C) thin conductors and large length of tums
(D) thick conductors and large length of turns

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l02The Maxwell's Inductance-Capacitance bridge is not suitable for the measurement inductance of
coil if the Q factor is
(A) less than I
(B) between I to l0
(C) more than l0
(D) both A and C
1g3Which of the following transistor configuration is much less temperature dependent?
(A) common base
(B) common emitter
(C) common collector
(D) none of the above
104The input offset current in operational amplifier equals the
(A) difference between the two base currents
(B) average of the two base currents
(C) collector current divided by current gain
@) difference between the two base-emitter voltages
I05A74l C has
(A) a voltage gain of 100,000
(B) an input impedance of 2 MQ
(C) an output impedance of 75 C)
(D) all of the above
106The register in the 80854 that is used to keep track of the memory address of the next op-code
to be run in the program is the
(A) stack pointer
(B) program counter
(C) instruction pointer
@) accumulator
l07Convert the hexadecimal number 16 to decimal
(A) 10
(B)22
(c) 32
(D) 100
l0Slnverse Fourier transform of sgn (co) is
i
(A) ;
(B) I
(c) u(t)
(D)3
.-jt
l0glnverse Laplace transform of ffi is

(A) 2 exp (-2.50 cosh (0.51)

(B) exp (-2t1+ exp (-3t)
(C) 2 exp (-2.5t) sinh (0.5t)
(D) 2 exp (-2.51) cos (0.5t)
l l0What is the nature of the following function: y[n] : y[n-l] + x[n]?
(A) Integrator
(B) Differentiator

T4
 (C) Subtractor
@) Accumulator
I l lWhat is the period of the sinusoidal signal x(n) : 5 cos [0.22] ?
(A) l0
(B) s
(c)2
(D) I
I l2The trignomehic Fourier series of an even function of time does not have
(A) dc term
(B) cosine term
(C) sine term
(D) odd harmonic terms
ll3A conducting SCRcan be opened by reducing to zero.
(A) supply voltage
(B) gate voltage
(C) gate current
(D) anode current
I I4A Gate-turn-off thyristor
(A) requires a special turn-offcircuit like a thyristor
(B) can be turned-off by removing the gate-pulse
(C) can be turned-off by a negative current pulse at the gate
(D) can be turned-off by a positive current pulse at the gate
I l5The on-state voltage drop across the IGBT is
(A) Iess than that across the MOSFET
(B) greater than that across the MOSFET
(C) equal to that of MOSFET
(D) zero
I l6In a 3-phase full-converter, the output voltage is at a frequency equal to
(A) supply frequency f
(B)2t
(c) 3f
(D) 6f
I lTThe single pulse modulation of PWM inverters, 3'd harmonic can be eliminated if pulse width is
equal to
(A) 3oo
(B)600
(c) l20o
(D) l80o
I l8A voltage source inverter is normall.y employed when
(A) source inductance is large and load inductance is small
(B) source inductance is small and load inductance is small
(C) both source and load inductance are small
(D) both source and load inductances are large
I l9lnput impedance of MOSSFET is
(A) less than that of FET but rnore than BJT
(B) more than that of FET and B.IT
(C) more than that of FET but less than BJT
(D) less than that of FET and BJT

15
120If the line frequency is 50 Hz, the output frequency of bridge rectifier is
(1r)25 Hz
(B) 50 Hz
(C) 100 Hz
(D) 200 Hz

16