[LJ 674] AUGUST 2016 Sub.

Code: 4222

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM

(Common to Final Year Paper VI - Modified Regulation III Candidates and
Final Year Paper VII - New Modified Regulation Candidates)

PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum : 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order

Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary

I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Define cyst. Classify odontogenic cyst of jaws. Write in detail

clinical features, radiographic features and management of
odontogenickeratocyst.

2. Classify mandibular fractures. Describe in detail signs symptoms,

radiological features and management of bilateral condylar
fracture.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Lefort I fracure and management.

2. Kaban’s protocol.
3. Composition of cornoys solution and its use.
4. Boundaries of canine space and its contents.
5. Various extra oral approaches to the temporomandibular joint.
6. Kelsey fry’s technique.
7. Garres Osteomyelitis.
8. Genioplasty.
9. Anterior superior alveolar nerve block.
10. Ashley’s flap.

*******
[LK 674] FEBRUARY 2017 Sub. Code: 4222

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM

(Common to Final Year Paper VI - Modified Regulation III Candidates and
Final Year Paper VII - New Modified Regulation Candidates)

PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum : 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order

Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary

I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Define and classify ankylosis. Describe in detail about the etiology,

pathogenesis, clinical features, radiographic features and surgical
management of bilateral ankylosis.

2. Classify fracture mandible. Discuss in detail the etiology, clinical and

radiological features and management of # of the angle of the
mandible.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Alveolar osteitis.
2. Oro antral fistula.
3. War lines.
4. CSF rhinorrhea.
5. Bi-rotational Insertion technique.
6. Eutectic mixture of local anesthetic.
7. Lingual split technique.
8. Moist heat sterilization.
9. Kazanjian procedure.
10. Tic doulereaux.

*******
[LL 674] AUGUST 2017 Sub. Code: 4222

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM

(Common to Final Year Paper VI - Modified Regulation III and
Final Year Paper VII - New Modified Regulation Candidates)

PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum : 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order

Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary

I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Define TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA. Discuss in detail about causes,

clinical features and medical/surgical management of the trigeminal
neuralgia.

2. Discuss surgical anatomy of maxillary sinus. Elaborate on various

methods of closure of oro antral fistula.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Pell and Gregory classification of impacted lower third molar.

2. Posterior superior Alveolar nerve block.
3. Tracheostomy.
4. Marsupialisation.
5. TNM classification.
6. Gilley’s temporal approach.
7. Pre anaesthetic medication.
8. Dry socket.
9. Pleomorphic adenoma.
10. Ludwig’s Angina.

*******
[LM 674] FEBRUARY 2018 Sub. Code: 4222

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM

(Common to Final Year Paper VI - Modified Regulation III and
Final Year Paper VII - New Modified Regulation Candidates)

PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum : 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Enumerate the causes of intra operative and post extraction

haemorrhage. Write in detail the management of intraoperative
haemorrhage.

2. Define and classify ankylosis of Temporomandibular joint. Describe

the etiology, clinical and radiological features and management of
unilateral bony ankylosis in a 10-year-old child.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis.

2. Marsupialization.
3. TNM classification.
4. Methods of fixation of jaw fractures.
5. Etiology, clinical features and management of Pterygomandibular
space infection.
6. Composition of local anesthesia.
7. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
8. Oral manifestations of HIV.
9. Bilateral Sagittal Split Osteotomy.
10. What are the types of Biopsy? Add a note on FNAC.

*******
[LN 674] AUGUST 2018 Sub. Code: 4222

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM

(Common to Final Year Paper VI - Modified Regulation III and
Final Year Paper VII - New Modified Regulation Candidates)

PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum : 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Classification of mandibular fractures. Elaborate on surgical

approaches and management of unfavourable mandibular angle
fracture.

2. Classify odontogenic tumors. Define ameloblastoma and discuss

the diagnosis and treatment of unicystic amelobalstoma.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Cardio pulmonary resuscitation.

2. Classification of suture materials.
3. Indications and surgical steps in alveoloplasty.
4. Caldwell luc procedure.
5. Management of primary haemorrhage during extraction of teeth.
6. Local and Systemic actions of Lidocaine.
7. WAR lines and it’s implications.
8. MARX protocol in the treatment of osteoradionecrosis (ORN).
9. Surgical options for prognathic mandible.
10. Plunging Ranula.

*******
[LO 674] FEBRUARY 2019 Sub. Code: 4222

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM

(Common to Final Year Paper VI - Modified Regulation III and
Final Year Paper VII - New Modified Regulation Candidates)

PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum : 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Classify Le fort fractures. Discuss in detail about clinical features

and surgical management of Le fort II fractures.

2. Classify Pre-prosthetic procedures. Write in detail about the

indications and surgical steps in vestibuloplasty procedures.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Emergency drugs used in dental practice.

2. Carnoy’s solution.
3. Clinical features and surgical management of chronic osteomyelitis
of the jaw.
4. Basic life support.
5. Landmarks and technique of Inferior alveolar block.
6. Partsch 2 procedure.
7. Genioplasty.
8. Local hemostatic agents.
9. Universal infection control precautions.
10. Anterior maxillary segmental osteotomy (AMO).

*******
[LP 674] AUGUST 2019 Sub. Code: 4222

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM

(Common to Final Year Paper VI - Modified Regulation III and
Final Year Paper VII - New Modified Regulation Candidates)

PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Q.P. Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum: 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Discuss in detail the surgical management and the complication of

disto angularly impacted lower third molar.

2. Classify zygomatic complex fractures. Discuss various modalities

in treating zygomatic complex fractures.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Cryosurgery.
2. Principles of Elevator.
3. Mental nerve block.
4. Dentigerous cyst.
5. Leukoplakia.
6. Miniplate Osteosynthesis.
7. Dry socket.
8. Frey’s syndrome.
9. Gow gates technique.
10. Bone grafts

*******
[LQ 674] FEBRUARY 2020 Sub. Code: 4222

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM

(Common to Final Year Paper VI - Modified Regulation III and
Final Year Paper VII - New Modified Regulation Candidates)

PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum: 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Classify midface fractures. Discuss in detail etiology, signs, symptoms

and management of Le fort 1 fracture.

2. What are the common medical emergencies in dental practice? How

would you manage?

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Enucleation.
2. Ossifying fibroma.
3. Internal derangement.
4. Trans alveolar extraction.
5. Local complications of local anesthesia.
6. Fibrous dysplasia.
7. Sub mandibular space infection.
8. Hyperbaric O2 therapy.
9. Osteoradionecrosis.
10. Bell’s palsy.

*******
[LR 674] NOVEMBER 2020 Sub. Code: 4222
(AUGUST 2020 SESSION)

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM

(Common to Final Year Paper VI - Modified Regulation III and
Final Year Paper VII - New Modified Regulation Candidates)

PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum: 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Classify Midface Fractures. Discuss in detail etiology, signs, symptoms and

Management of Le fort 1 Fracture.

2. What are the common Medical Emergencies in Dental Practice? How would
you Manage?

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Enucleation.
2. Gow Gates Technique.
3. Internal Derangement.
4. Trans Alveolar Extraction.
5. Local Complications of local Anesthesia.
6. Fibrous Dysplasia.
7. Sub Mandibular Space Infection.
8. Dry Socket.
9. Osteoradionecrosis.
10. Bell’s Palsy.
*******
 [BDS 0921] SEPTEMBER 2021 Sub. Code: 4222
(FEBRUARY 2021 SESSION)

FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM

(Common to Final Year Paper VI - Modified Regulation III and

Final Year Paper VII - New Modified Regulation Candidates)

PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum: 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Define TMJ Ankylosis and discuss the various methods of management.

2. Classify Facial Spaces and discuss in detail about Space Infection and
Ludwigs Angina in detail.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor.

2. Condylar Fracture and its management.
3. Dry Socket.
4. Caldwell Luc Procedure.
5. Bilateral Sagittal Split Osteotomy.
6. Wound Healing.
7. Osteoradionecrosis.
8. Champy’s Principle.
9. TNM Classification.
10. Gorlin Goltz Syndrome.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[BDS 1221] DECEMBER 2021 Sub. Code: 4222
(AUGUST 2021 SESSION)
FOURTH YEAR B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM

(Common to Final Year Paper VI - Modified Regulation III and

Final Year Paper VII - New Modified Regulation Candidates)

PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum: 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Classify Odontogenic Tumors. Define Ameloblastoma and discuss its

various treatment modalities.

2. Discuss in detail about Maxillary fractures and its management.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Dentigerous cyst.
2. Mandibular angle fracture and its management.
3. Submandibular space – boundaries, infection and its management.
4. Cavernous sinus thrombosis.
5. Vestibuloplasty.
6. AIDS.
7. Osteomyelitis.
8. Nerve injury.
9. Winter’s WAR lines
10. Principles of extraction.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[BDS 0522] MAY 2022 Sub. Code: 4222

(FEBRUARY 2022 SESSION)
B.D.S. DEGREE EXAM
(Common to Final Year Paper VI Modified Regulation III and
Final Year Paper VII New Modified Regulation Candidates)
FINAL YEAR
PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY
Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum: 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Define Local Anesthesia. Describe in detail the Classification and

Mechanism of Action of Local Anaesthesia.

2. Classify Fascial Spaces. Describe in detail about causes, Clinical Signs and
Symptoms and Management of Ludwig’s Angina.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Sterilization and Disinfection.
2. Principles of Elevators.
3. Sialolithiasis.
4. Trigeminal Neuralgia.
5. CSF Rhinorrhea.
6. Complications of Fracture.
7. Oroantral Fistula.
8. Anatomy of T M Joint.
9. Shock.
10. Ranula.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[BDS 1022] OCTOBER 2022 Sub. Code: 4222

(AUGUST 2022 SESSION)
B.D.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(Common to Final Year Paper VI Modified Regulation III and
Final Year Paper VII New Modified Regulation Candidates)
FINAL YEAR
PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY
Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum: 70 Marks

Answer all questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Classify cysts and discuss in detail about dentigerous cyst.

2. Classify Mandibular fractures and discuss in detail about management of
condylar fractures in adult and children.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Odontogenic keratocyst.
2. Zygomatic fracture and its management.
3. Ludwig’s angina.
4. Pterygomandibular space.
5. Oro-antral fistula
6. Genioplasty.
7. Antibiotic prophylaxis
8. Suture materials
9. Tic douloureux
10. Needle stick injury.
*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[BDS 0223] FEBRUARY 2023 Sub. Code: 4222

B.D.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

(Common to Final Year Paper VI Modified Regulation III and
Final Year Paper VII New Modified Regulation Candidates)
FINAL YEAR
PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY
Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum: 70 Marks

Answer all questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)
1. Write in detail the Local Complications of Extraction of Teeth.
2. Define Impaction. Discuss in detail the Etiology Radiological examination
and Surgical Removal of Mesioangularly Impacted Mandibular Third Molar.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Dry Socket.
2. Classify Nerve Injuries.
3. Syncope
4. Gow Gates Technique.
5. Le Fort I Fracture.
6. Osteoradionecrosis.
7. Dentigerous Cyst.
8. Sialogram
9. Alveoloplasty.
10. Ossifying Fibroma.
*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[BDS 0723] JULY 2023 Sub. Code: 4222

B.D.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

(Common to Final Year Paper VI Modified Regulation III and
Final Year Paper VII New Modified Regulation Candidates)
FINAL YEAR
PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY
Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum: 70 Marks

Answer all questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Classify Condylar fractures. Discuss clinical features, management and

complications of Bilateral Condylar fractures.

2. Define Cyst. Discuss in detail clinical features, investigations and management of

Odontogenic Keratocyst.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Ridge extension procedures.

2. Complication of Exodontia.
3. Specific receptor theory.
4. NSAIDS.
5. Post Exposure Prophylaxis.
6. WAR lines.
7. Trans Alveolar extraction.
8. Champy’s line of Osteosynthesis.
9. Oroantral Fistula.
10. Sialolithiasis.
*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[BDS 1023] OCTOBER 2023 Sub. Code: 4222

(AUGUST 2023 EXAM SESSION)

B.D.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

(Common to Final Year Paper VI Modified Regulation III and
Final Year Paper VII New Modified Regulation Candidates)
FINAL YEAR
PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY
Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum: 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Classify Odontogenic Tumours. Enumerate the clinical features, diagnosis and

surgical management of Ameloblastoma involving the angle of Mandible.

2. Discuss the clinical characteristics, etiology, management approaches, techniques

and long-term considerations association with Le Fort III fractures.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Treatment options available for managing Myofascial pain.

2. Composition and clinical application of cornoy’s solution in oral surgery.
3. Key steps and technique of BLS in cardiac arrest management.
4. What are the key principles and parameters of autoclave sterilization in oral surgery?
5. Describe the sensory and motor functions associated with the Trigeminal nerve.
6. Explain the process of extraction socket healing.
7. Role of Glasgow Coma Scale in neurological status assessment.
8. Vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia.
9. Primary treatment approaches for TMJ Ankylosis.
10. Clinical signs and management consideration of orbital blow out fractures.

*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[BDS 0824] AUGUST 2024 Sub. Code: 4222

B.D.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

FINAL YEAR
PAPER VII – ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY
Q.P Code: 544222

Time: Three Hours Maximum: 70 Marks

Answer All questions in the same order
Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 10 = 20)

1. Discuss the etiology, classification, clinical features, diagnosis and surgical

management of Unilateral TMJ Ankylosis.

2. Discuss the clinical presentation, radiographic features, differential diagnosis and

management strategies for Pleomorphic adenoma. Include considerations for
diagnosis, surgical treatment and post-operative care.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Key principles of aseptic technique in oral surgery.

2. Surgical management of radicular cyst in maxilla.
3. Steps in mandibular sagittal split osteotomy.
4. Common complications associated with dental implant surgery.
5. Anatomy and function of TMJ.
6. Lingual nerve injury – Causes and Management.
7. Significance of informed consent in oral surgical procedures.
8. Concept of “buffering” in local anesthesia.
9. Importance and types of biopsies in oral cancer detection.
10. Dental Extraction socket preservation.

*********