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Model Test 102

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
37 views12 pages

Model Test 102

Uploaded by

Krishna Salla
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst.

PRELIMS MT - 102

SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MODEL TEST-102


ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-5): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by

r’s
(A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error” i.e. (5).
Ignore the errors of punctuation of any.
1. The private forests are protected from abusing chiefly /A/ by the important
ha
legislation of 1903, which /B/ prescribes penalties for excessive lumbering and
any /C/ action liable to endanger the re-growth of wood. /D/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
2.

E
The exhaust from the planes /A/ that ferried ministerial delegates /B/ to the
Baku for the climate conference, /C/ which concluded on Sunday, had barely
settled. /D/
d
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
3. The INDIA bloc parties, which met in /A/ morning to discuss their floor strategy /
B/, decided to raise the Adani issue /C/ and demand an immediate discussion. /
ee

D/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
4. The apex court, in its seven-page order, said /A/ the case was not worthy detailed
C
/B/ adjudication as the flaws in the /C/ petitioners’ arguments were manifest. /
D/
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1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
5. The land allocated was by the /A/ government of the day within /B/ the Greater
Hyderabad /C/ Municipal Corporation limits./D/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (6-13): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
C
answering some of the questions.
The Dust Bowl was the name given to the drought-stricken southern plains
region of the United States, which suffered severe dust storms during a drought
in the 1930s. As high winds and choking dust swept the region from Texas to
Nebraska, people and livestock were killed and crops failed across the entire
region. The Dust Bowl intensified the crushing economic impacts of the Great
Depression and drove many farming families on a desperate migration in search
of work and better living conditions.
The Dust Bowl was caused by several economic and agricultural factors,
including federal land policies, changes in regional weather, farm economics and
other cultural factors. After the Civil War, a series of federal land acts coaxed
pioneers westward by incentivizing farming in the Great Plains.
The Homestead Act of 1862, which provided settlers with 160 acres of public
land, was followed by the Kinkaid Act of 1904 and the Enlarged Homestead Act of
1909. These acts led to a massive influx of new and inexperienced farmers across
the Great Plains.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 102

Many of these late 19th and early 20th-century settlers lived by the
superstition “rain follows the plow.” Emigrants, land speculators, politicians and
even some scientists believed that homesteading and agriculture would
permanently affect the climate of the semi-arid Great Plains region, making it
more conducive to farming.
This false belief was linked to Manifest Destiny—an attitude that Americans
had a sacred duty to expand west. A series of wet years during the period created
a further misunderstanding of the region’s ecology and run into the intensive
cultivation of increasingly marginal lands that couldn’t be reached by irrigation.
Rising wheat prices in the 1910s and 1920s and increased demand for wheat

r’s
from Europe during World War I encouraged farmers to plow up millions of acres
of native grassland to plant wheat, corn and other row crops. But as the United
States entered the Great Depression, wheat prices plummeted. In desperation,
farmers tore up even more grassland in an attempt to harvest a bumper crop and
break even.
ha
Crops began to fail with the onset of drought in 1931, exposing the bare,
over-plowed farmland. Without deep-rooted prairie grasses to hold the soil in
place, it began to blow away. Eroding soil led to massive dust storms and economic

E
devastation—especially in the Southern Plains.
The Dust Bowl, also known as “the Dirty Thirties,” started in 1930 and
d
lasted for about a decade, but its long-term economic impacts on the region lingered
much longer.
Severe drought hit the Midwest and southern Great Plains in 1930. Massive
ee

dust storms began in 1931. A series of drought years followed, further exacerbating
the environmental disaster.
By 1934, an estimated 35 million acres of formerly cultivated land had been
C
_____________ (A), useless for farming, while another 125 million acres—an area
roughly three-quarters the size of Texas—was rapidly losing its topsoil.
Sr

6. Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT TRUE based on the given passage?
1) The Dust Bowl primarily affected the southern plains region of the United
States, including Texas and Nebraska.
2) The belief that “rain follows the plow” was scientifically proven during the Dust
Bowl era.
3) Rising wheat prices during World War I encouraged farmers to cultivate more
land in the Great Plains.
C
4) By 1934, over 125 million acres of farmland had been rendered completely
useless for farming.
5) 2 & 4
7. What belief led settlers to believe farming would permanently change the climate
of the Great Plains?
1) “Rain follows the plow” 2) “Farming fuels the future”
3) “Prairie farming never fails” 4) “The soil is always fertile”
5) “Wind protects the land”
8. How did World War I contribute to the Dust Bowl?
1) It caused massive droughts in the Great Plains
2) It increased demand for wheat, leading to over-plowing
3) It brought foreign farming techniques to the U.S.
4) It forced settlers to abandon their farms
5) It caused a rise in wheat prices during the Dust Bowl
9. What was the primary crop farmers planted after plowing native grasslands?
1) Corn 2) Barley 3) Wheat 4) Soybeans 5) None

2
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 102

10. Choose the word which expresses nearly the opposite meaning of the given bolded
word “lingered”.
1) loitered 2) strolled 3) scurried 4) stalled 5) delayed
11. Choose the word which expresses nearly the similar meaning of the given bolded
word “coaxed”.
1) wheedled 2) pestered 3) intimidated 4) nagged 5) obliged
12. Fill in the blank (A) with suitable word from the given alternatives.
1) tainted 2) incorporated3) blended 4) rendered 5) soiled
13. In this passage there is a phrase which is highlighted and italic, replace the
phrase with best suitable phrase from the given option.

r’s
1) leading to 2) led into 3) led away 4) None 5) led to
Directions (14-18): The sentence has a blank which indicates something has
been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence fits the
blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully?
14. He caught a faint ________of the deer as it darted through the dense forest, its
graceful movements barely visible through the thick foliage.

15.
1) peek
ha
2) glance 3) dip 4) glimpse 5) peak
He believed in the power of ________ deeds to create a better world for future
generations.

16.
1) innocent

E
2) virtuous 3) reputable 4) sinful 5) scrupulous
The UGC on Thursday _____________ the draft regulations that are being set as
d
the minimum standards of instruction for the grant of undergraduate and
postgraduate degrees.
1) declared 2) noticed 3) announced 4) reported 5) broadcast
ee

17. The High Court passed interim orders on a petition filed by the leader,
______________ orders to quash the case booked against him.
1) seeking 2) searching 3) pursuing 4) chasing 5) looking
C
18. ____________those eight hours of sleep can have linguistic benefits, according to
a study that found it helped adults speak a new language.
1) Receiving 2) Securing 3) Acquiring 4) Obtaining 5) Getting
Sr

Directions (19-23): In this question, words (A), (B), (C), and (D) are given in bold.
If two of these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful and
grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words, if interchanged which will make
the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. That pair is your answer. If
all the words are appropriate then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
19. Despite the challenges (A) that had long plagued his endeavors, the scholar’s
C
reshaping (B) commitment to his work eventually (C) led to groundbreaking
discoveries, unwavering (D) the entire field in ways no one had anticipated.
1) AD 2) CA 3) DB 4) AB 5) All Correct
20. The intricacies of human perception (A), when explored through the lens of
philosophy, reveal a complex interplay (B) between individual emotions (C) and
collective experience (D), where each thought, no matter how fleeting, holds the
potential to shape the world around us.
1) DA 2) BC 3) DB 4) AC 5) All Correct
21. As the world increasingly (A) gravitates towards technological advancements,
the ethical deliberation (B) of artificial intelligence demand careful considerations
(C), as decisions made today will inevitably (D) shape the social fabric of tomorrow.
1) CB 2) CA 3) DB 4) DA 5) All Correct
22. Though the poet’s words seemed (A) to drift into the realm of abstraction, there
was an underlying (B) resonance that connected the confront (C) parts of the
soul, prompting readers to deepest (D) their own truths in ways that could not be
undone.
1) DA 2) CA 3) DB 4) DC 5) All Correct

3
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 102

23. The debate surrounding climate change continues (A) to be one of the most
contentious of our time, with some arguing (B) vehemently for drastic action,
while others question the reliability (C) of the data, making it all the more
essential (D) to seek common ground grounded in scientific integrity.
1) DA 2) CA 3) DB 4) BC 5) All Correct
Direction (24): In this question two tables are given, Table 1 consists of columns
I, II and III and three sentences are given, which are divided in three parts along
with blanks denoted by P and Q , indicating that something has been omitted.
Column I (A, B & C) consists of the first part of each sentence, Column II (Blank
denoted by (P), D & E) consists of the second part of each sentence, and Column

r’s
III (F, Blank denoted by (Q) & G) consists of the last part of each sentence. Table
Z consists of Columns IV and V which has group of words that can fill in the
blanks denoted by P and G respectively. You have to select the group of words that
fits the respective blank both grammatically and meaningfully and in turn, can
help complete the sentence in Table I. Match Column I with Column II and Column
ha
III so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct.
In the options various combinations are given. Choose the option that consists of
the combination(s) that form both meaningful and grammatically correct
sentence(s).

E
d
Table 1:

Column I Column II (P) Column III (Q)


ee

A) As the storm F) spreading fear


P) ______
raged and panic.
C
B) The artist E) on a canvas
Q) ______
painted depicting
Sr

C) People huddled
together D) in makeshift G) to escape the
shelters fury of nature.

Table 2:
C
Column IV (P) Column V (Q)

i) with lightning striking iii) a chaotic scene of


despair
ii) beneath a darkened sky
iv) the tranquillity of a
meadow

1) A-P(ii)-F & C-D-G


2) A-P(i)-F, B-E-Q(iv) & C-P(ii)-Q(iii)
3) A-P(i)-F & B-E-Q(iii)
4) A-P(ii)-F, B-E-Q(iv) & C-D-G
5) A-P(ii)-F, B-E-Q(iv) & C-P(ii)-Q(iv)

4
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 102

Direction (25): In the following question, a word is given that is followed by three
statements. All these three statements carry the given word. Identify the
sentence(s) in which the word fits to make them grammatically correct and
meaningful.
25. PATRON
I. There was no strange car, so he assumed the patron had already left.
II. There the Cartesian innovations had found a patron in Adrian Heerebord, and
were openly discussed in theses and lectures.
III. He was the friend and patron of scholars, caused manuscripts to be copied
and medieval poems to be collected.

r’s
1) Only I 2) only II 3) only III 4) I and II 5) All
Directions (26-30): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and
(E) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the
given question.
A. The fallout has sparked widespread protests, calls for his resignation, and
ha
even moves toward impeachment. Yoon declared martial law, citing national
security concerns and the need to eliminate “anti-state elements.”
B. The South Korean President Yoon Suk Yeol took this extreme step to preserve

E
his position amid falling popularity.
C. However, many viewed the measure as a desperate attempt to consolidate
power amid mounting political and personal scandals.
d
D. A brief martial law was imposed in South Korea, a country known to have a
stable democracy and prosperity to vie for.
E. He faces the toughest challenge of his presidency after a controversial decision
ee

to impose martial law backfired spectacularly, plunging the nation into a deep
political crisis.
26. Which of the following will be THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
C
1) E 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) A
27. Which of the following will be SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
Sr

1) A 2) B 3) E 4) D 5) C
28. Which of te following will be FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) D 2) E 3) C 4) A 5) B
29. Which of the following will be FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) E 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) A
30. Which of the following will be FIFTH (last) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) E 4) D 5) C
C
NUMERICAL ABILITY
Direction (31-35) : Based on the following table answer the given question.

Universities Total number of Percentage of Number of


Faculty members Assistant professors associate professors
J 250 60 75
K 180 75 24
L 150 80 16
M 100 63 21

Note : The Faculty members include Assistant Professors, Associate Professors


and Professors only.
31. What is the difference between the total number of Associate Professors in
Universities J and M together and the total number of Professors in the same
Universities together ?
1) 68 2) 58 3) 54 4) 55 5) 70

5
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 102

8 3
32. In University M, of the Assistant Professors are males and in University L, of
21 5
the Assistant Professors are males. What is the respective ratio between male
Assistant Professors in University M and that in University L ?
1) 2:5 2) 2:7 3) 1:4 4) 1:3 5) 3:5
33. In University J, 72% faculty members are females. If three-fifth of the total
Assistant Professors are females, what percent females are either Associate
Professors or Professors ?
1) 40 2) 50 3) 60 4) 33.33 5) 25

r’s
34. The total number of Professors In Universities J and K together is approximately
what percent less than the number of Assistant Professors in University M ?
1) 35 2) 22 3) 40 4) 27 5) 16
35. What is the average number of Assistant Professors in Universities K, L and M ?
1) 104 2) 106 ha 3) 105 4) 102 5) 108
36. Two years hence, the respective ratio between A’s age at that time and B’s age at
that time will be 5:9. A’s age three years ago was 13 years less than B’s age six
years ago. What is B’s present age ?

37.
1) 34 years 2) 36 years

E 3) 30 years 4) 38 years 5) 32 years


A and B both start a small business with an investment of Rs. 3500 and Rs. 4200
respectively. At the end of few months from the start of business, A withdrew
d
from the business completely. If the annual profit was divided between A and B in
the respective ratio of 5:12, then after how many months from the start of the
ee

business, did A leave the business ?


1) Six 2) Nine 3) Ten 4) Five 5) Seven
4 5
C
38. B is times as efficient as A. If A can complete th of a given task in 15 days,
3 8
what fraction of the same task would remain incomplete, if B works on it
Sr

independently for 10 days only ?


5 4 2 5 3
1) 2) 3) 4) 9 5)
8 9 3 4
39. The sum of the dimensions of a room (i.e. length, breadth and height) is 18
metres and its length, breadth and height are in the ratio of 3:2:1 respectively. If
the room is to be painted at the rate of Rs. 15 per m2, what would be the total cost
C
incurred on painting only the four walls of the room (in Rs.) ?
1) 2210 2) 1350 3) 2445 4) 2940 5) 2700
40. At 80% of its usual speed, a train of length L meters crosses a platform 240
metres long in 15 seconds. At its usual speed, the train crosses a vertical pole in
6 seconds. What is the value of L (in metres) ?
1) 240 2) 220 3) 225 4) 270 5) 180
41. In a class, the average weight of 60 boys is 64 Kg and that of 75 girls is 70 Kg.
After a few days, 60% of the girls and 30% of the boys leave. What would be the
new average weight of the class (in Kg)? (Note: Assume that the average weight
of the boys and girls remains constant throughout.)
1) 57.5 2) 63 3) 65.5 4) 66.5 5) 16.5
42. Jar A has 80 litres of mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 5 : 3. Jar
B which had 20 litres of mixture of milk and water, was emptied into jar A, and as
a result in jar A, the respective ratio of milk and water becomes 13 : 7. What was
the quantity of water in Jar B ?
1) 5 litres 2) 6 litres 3) 1 litres 4) 9 litres 5) 10 litres
6
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 102

43. A boat takes a total time of eight hours to travel 64 kms upstream and the same
distance downstream. The speed of the the boat in still water is three times of
the speed of the current. What is the speed of the boat in still water ? (in km/hr)
1) 20 2) 15 3) 18 4) 32 5) 6
44. P, Q and R have a certain amount of money with themselves. Q has 20% more
1
than what P has, and R has th of what Q has. If P, Q and R together have Rs.
6
240, then how much money does R alone have ? (in Rs.)
1) 120 2) 70 3) 20 4) 60 5) 100

r’s
45. The sum of a series of 5 consecutive odd numbers is 205. The second lowest
number of this series is 13 less than the second highest number of another
series of 5 consecutive even numbers. What is 50% of the second lowest number
of this series of consecutive even numbers ?
1) 36 2) 28 3) 33 4) 24 5) 22
ha
Direction (46-50) :What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given
number series ?
46. 3 2 3 6 14 ?

47.
1) 37.5
124.5 120
2) 36.5
111

E 97.5
3) 38
? 57
4) 35 5) 38.5
d
1) 78.5 2) 78 3) 76.5 4) 81.5 5) 79.5
48. 560 860 570 840 610 ?
1) 660 2) 760 3) 720 4) 740 5) 780
ee

49. 446 222 110 54 26 ?


1) 14 2) 11 3) 12 4) 13 5) 10
50. 500 498 492 480 ?
C
1) 450 2) 460 3) 445 4) 470 5) 440
Direction (51-55) : In this question two equations numbered I & II are given. You
Sr

have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option :
51. I. 2X2 - 19X + 42 = 0
II. 2Y2 - 13Y + 21 =0
1) X < Y 2) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established.
3) X  Y 4) X > Y 5) X  Y
2
52. I.60X - 19X + 1 =0
C
II. 6Y2 - 5Y + 1 = 0
1) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established.
2) X > Y 3) X  Y 4) X < Y 5) X  Y
2
53. I. 10X + 17X + 7 = 0
II. 3Y2 + 10Y + 8 = 0
1) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established.
2) X  Y 3) X < Y 4) X > Y 5) X  Y
2
54. I. 9X + 19X + 10 = 0
II. 3Y2 + 19Y + 30 = 0
1) X  Y 2) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established.
3) X  Y 4) X > Y 5) X > Y
2
55. I. X - 16X + 63 = 0
II. Y2 - 15Y + 56 = 0
1) X > Y 2) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established.
3) X  Y 4) X  Y 5) X > Y

7
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 102

Direction (56-65): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given
question ?
5 1 1
56. 1  24  ?
6 13 78
1) 3440 2) 3465 3) 3443 4) 3415 5) 3428
3 1 1 1
57. 3  1  ? 3 
5 10 10 20
2 13 2 13 4

r’s
1) 6 2) 5 3) 1 4) 2 5) 2
15 20 5 15 15
58. 4.2  45  18  14 2  ?2
1) 5 2) 6 3) 2 4) 3 5) 9

59. ? of
5
of
13 15
11 3
of of 1170=165
5
ha
5 4 1 5 1
1)
6
2)

60. 738.1 - 259.6 = 443.8 + ?


7

E 3)
6
4)
7
5)
7
d
1) 47.8 2) 34.7 3) 55.6 4) 65.4 5) 28.9
61. 4.665 - 1.65 - 1.45 + 1.665 - 1.445 - ? = 1
ee

1) 1.758 2) 0.785 3) 1.785 4) 0.175 5) 0.485


62. 82  2709  43  305  ?
1) 56 2) 54 3) 72 4) 69 5) 63
C
63. 260% of 185 - 75% of 380 = ?
1) 184 2) 145 3) 172 4) 154 5) 196
Sr

64. ?2  25  11 - 413 = 126


1) 35 2) 25 3) 45 4) 55 5) 50
65. 5.6  340.2  5.4  0.09 = ?
1) 3920 2) 3650 3) 3170 4) 3620 5) 3400
REASONING
Direction (66-70): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
C
questions:
Six people namely J, K, L, M, N and O live on three different floors of a three
storeyed building where the lowermost floor is numbered as one, the one above
that is numbered as two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as three.
i. On each floor there are two flats viz. Flat P and flat Q such that flat P is
exactly to the west of flat Q.
ii. Flat P of floor numbered two is immediately above flat P of floor numbered
one. Similarly, flat Q of floor numbered three is immediately above flat Q of
floor numbered two and so on.
iii. Area of each flat on each floor is same.
iv. Only two people live on each floor and only one lives in each flat.
O lives on an even numbered floor. M lives to the south-east of L. Only
one floor is between K and N. K lives to the south of O. M does not live on an even
numbered floor.
66. Who amongst the following person live on flat – Q of 2nd floor?
1) L 2) N 3) K 4) O 5) J

8
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 102

67. L lives on which of the following floor and flat?


1) 2nd floor – flat P 2) 1st floor – flat Q 3) 3rd floor – flat Q
st rd
4) 1 floor – flat P 5) 3 floor – flat P
68. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as per the given arrangement?
1) M lives on flat Q. 2) J lives to the north-east of L.
3) N lives to the north of M. 4) Both 1 and 3 are true
5) All the statements are true
69. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does

r’s
not belong to that group?
1) K – N 2) L – J 3) J – K 4) L – N 5) O – M
70. Who lives to the south-west of N?
1) O 2) J ha 3) L 4) K 5) Both 1 and 4
71. If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word with the
fifth, the seventh, the ninth and the tenth letters of the word “SWITCHBOARD”
using each letter only once, when counted from left to right, which of the following

E
will be the third letter of the word so formed from the left end? If no such word
can be formed give Y as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed
d
give Z as your answer.
1) R 2) A 3) Z 4) X 5) C
Direction (72-74): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
ee

questions:
There are six persons namely – J, K, L, M, N and O. They all earn different
salaries. M earns more salary than only two people. J earns more salary than K
C
but less than N. L earns less salary than only one person. The second highest
person earns 46k. The one who earns second least salary is 18k. No one earns
Sr

less salary than O.


72. Who amongst the following person earns the third highest salary?
1) M 2) J 3) K 4) N 5) L
73. What will be the possible salary of O?
1) 25k 2) 34k 3) 42k 4) 31k 5) 14k
74. If M earns 35k salary then, what will be the possible salary of J?
C
1) 41k 2) 32k 3) 48k 4) 21k 5) 14k
Direction (75-78): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each with
equal distance between adjacent people. In row I – A, B, C and D are seated and
all of them are facing North. In row II – E, F, G and H are seated and all of them
are facing South. Thus in the given arrangement each member seated in a row
faces another member of the other row. G sits second to the right of H. Only one
person sits between B and the one who faces G. D sits immediate left of B. E sits
second to the left of the one who faces C.
75. Who amongst the following person sits immediate left of the one who faces E?
1) D 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) Either 2 or 3
76. How many people sit between G and the one who faces D?
1) Two 2) No one 3) One 4) Either 1 or 3 5) Either 2 or 3

9
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 102

77. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as per the given arrangement?
1) Only two people sit between F and E.
2) G sits immediate left of the one who faces D.
3) E sits immediate right of H. 4) A faces F.
5) All the statements are true
78. Who sits diagonally opposite to B?
1) H 2) G 3) E 4) F 5) Either 2 or 3
Direction (79-81): Study the given arrangement of symbol, letter and digits carefully
to answer the given question:
H R & C 3 * ~ X U 7 $ K 9 Q # A % 2 V G ^ M 5 ¥ T 6 W E @ L

r’s
8 B O 4
79. Which of the following is the ninth element to the right of the twenty-fourth
element from the right end of the given arrangement?
1) V 2) ^ 3) G 4) 2 5) %
80. How many such consonants are there in the given arrangement each of which is
ha
immediately followed by a letter which appears after P in the English alphabetical
order?
1) Three 2) One 3) None 4) Two 5) More than three

E
81. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
d
1) ~UK 2) M¥W 3) ELO 4) V^5 5) 9#2
Direction (82-84): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
ee

Raju starts walking from point N and walks 8m east to reach point P, then
he takes left turn and walks 6m to reach point K. From point K, he walks 5m east
to reach point B, then he takes right turn and walks 14m to reach point S, then
C
he takes again right turn and walks 7m to reach point A. From point A, he walks
11m north to reach point G, then he takes left turn and walks 13m to reach point
Sr

M, then he takes the final left turn and walks 9m to reach the point R.
82. Point R is in which direction with respect to point A?
1) West 2) South-East 3) North-West
4) South-West 5) North-East
83. If point V is to the north of point A and to the west of point P, then what is the
distance between point G and point V?
1) 2m 2) 4m 3) 1m 4) 5m 5) 3m
C
84. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) R – P 2) G – K 3) S – M 4) A – P 5) N – B
Direction (85-89): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Seven people viz. K, L, M, N, O, P and Q were born on seven different months
viz. January, March, April, May, July, October and November of the same year.
Only one person was born in each month. No other person was born in the given
year.
O was born in a month having 30 days. Only one person was born between O
and L. N was born immediately before L. As many people were born between K
and M as between K and P. Only three people were born between K and Q. At
least two people were born between L and P.
85. How many people were born between M and Q?
1) Three 2) No one 3) One 4) Two 5) More than three

10
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 102

86. Who amongst the following person was born in January?


1) K 2) M 3) P 4) Q 5) N
87. Which of the following statement is not true as per the given arrangement?
1) L was born after K.
2) Only one person was born between Q and N.
3) K was born in March.
4) M was born in a month having 31 days.
5) M was born immediately before N.
88. As many people were born after K as before _____.

r’s
1) P 2) N 3) O 4) Q 5) L
89. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) N – May 2) O – November 3) L – July
4) M – April
ha 5) L – October
Direction (90-92): In the question three statements followed by two conclusions I
and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if

E
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding
d
commonly known facts.
90. Statements: All Rats are Pigs Some Dogs are Pigs
Only a few Pigs are Cats
ee

Conclusion I: All Dogs are Cats is a possibility.


Conclusion II: All Cats are Pigs is a possibility.
1) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
C
3) Both conclusions I and II follow 4) Either conclusion I or II follows
5) Only conclusion I follows
Sr

91. Statements: Some Pencils are Erasers No Sharpener is Pencil


Some Pens are Sharpeners
Conclusion I: Some Pens can be Erasers.
Conclusion II: No Pencil is Pen.
1) Both conclusions I and II follow 2) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3) Only conclusion II follows 4) Only conclusion I follows
C
5) Either conclusion I or II follows
92. Statements: All Grapes are Sapotas Some kiwis are Grapes
Some Mangoes are kiwis
Conclusion I: No Mango is Grape.
Conclusion II: All kiwis are Sapotas.
1) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Both conclusions I and II follow 4) Either conclusion I or II follows
5) Only conclusion I follows
Direction (93-95): The given information is based on the following five 3-letter
words:
TEG MUD JAP XER POC
93. If the positions of the first and the third letter of all the words are interchanged,
then how many words thus formed will be meaningful as per the English
Dictionary?
1) Three 2) None 3) Two 4) One 5) More than three

11
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 102

94. If the first letter of all the words are changed to next letter according to the
English alphabetical series, then how many words will have more than one vowel
(same or different vowel)?
1) Two 2) One 3) None 4) Three 5) More than three
95. If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word
from left to right), how many words will remain unchanged?
1) Three 2) One 3) Two 4) None 5) More than three
Direction (96-100): Study the given information carefully to answer the given

r’s
questions:
A Certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only
two people sit between G and S. P sits second to the right of S. As many people sit
between M and R as between D and L. Only one person sits to the right of K. Only
one person sits between G and D. K sits immediate right of M. S sits exactly
ha
between R and G. Only three people sit between K and R. J sits at one of the
extreme ends of the line. L does not sit immediate to G. Only one person sits
between J and L.
96.
2) 20

E
How many people are sitting in a line as per the given arrangement?
1) 18 3) 19 4) 17 5) 15
d
97. How many known people sit between D and R?
1) Seven 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) Three
ee

98. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as per the given arrangement?
1) Even number of people sit between M and S.
2) L sits fifth to the left of G.
C
3) Only one person sits between M and R.
Sr

4) R sits exactly between K and S.


5) All the statements are true
99. What is the position of D with respect to P?
1) Third to the left 2) Sixth to the left
3) Seventh to the left 4) Fifth to the left 5) Fourth to the left
C
100. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) L – G 2) S – D 3) P – K 4) M – R 5) J – D

KEY
1.1 2.3 3.2 4.2 5.5 6.5 7.1 8.2 9.3 10.3 SCAN QR FOR
11.1 12.4 13.5 14.4 15.2 16.3 17.1 18.5 19.3 20.4 OUR RESULTS
21.1 22.4 23.5 24.4 25.5 26.1 27.2 28.4 29.3 30.5
31.4 32.4 33.2 34.4 35.2 36.1 37.1 38.2 39.2 40.1
41.4 42.1 43.3 44.3 45.4 46.1 47.5 48.2 49.3 50.2
51.3 52.4 53.4 54.4 55.2 56.3 57.2 58.1 59.1 60.2
61.2 62.1 63.5 64.1 65.1 66.5 67.5 68.4 69.4 70.5
71.3 72.2 73.5 74.1 75.3 76.2 77.3 78.4 79.3 80.4
81.4 82.3 83.5 84.3 85.4 86.3 87.4 88.4 89.5 90.3
91.4 92.1 93.5 94.2 95.4 96.3 97.5 98.2 99.3 100.4

12

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