*6201CMD30302524REV07*

(6201CMD30302524REV07) Test Pattern

English

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MINOR
(Academic Session : 2024-2025) 24-12-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST - REVISION TEST

IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No. in OMR.
For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678.
Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 24 pages.

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fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
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single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Biology-I and Biology-II). 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
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200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question
paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2025
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Topic : 11th Syllabus - Thermal Physics, KTG & Thermodynamics

12th Syllabus - Ray optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics, Modern Physics & Semiconductors

SECTION - A ( PHYSICS ) 4. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the

following diagram
1. A brass rod and lead rod each 80 cm long at 0°C
are clamped together at one end with their free ends
coinciding. If the system is placed in a steam bath
then the separation of free ends of the rod is :
( α Brass = 18 × 10−6 /∘ C and α Lead = 28 × 10−6 /∘ C )

(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.8 mm

(3) 1.4 mm (4) 1.6 mm

2. Heat is supplied to a diatomic gas at constant

pressure. The ratio of Δ Q : Δ U : Δ W is :-
Match the following:
(1) 5 : 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 2 : 3
Column-I Column-II
(3) 7 : 5 : 2 (4) 7 : 2 : 5
P. Process I a. Adiabatic
3. A source of heat, supplies heat at a constant rate to Q. Process II b. Isobaric
a solid cube. The slope of portion CD of the graph
gives :- R. Process III c. Isochoric
S. Process IV d. Isothermal

(1) P-d, Q-b, R-a, S-c (2) P-a, Q-c, R-d, S-b

(3) P-c, Q-a, R-d, S-b (4) P-c, Q-d, R-b, S-a

5. When yellow light is incident on a surface, no

electrons are emitted, while green light can emit. If
red light is incident on the surface, then
(1) Latent heat of fusion
(1) No electrons are emitted
(2) Latent heat of vapourisation
(2) Photons are emitted
(3) Thermal capacity of liquid
(3) Electrons of higher energy are emitted
(4) Thermal capacity of vapour
(4) Electrons of lower energy are emitted

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6. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis 12. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the
perpendicular to each other. Unpolarisesd light of graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons
intensity I0 is incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is-
kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes
an angle 45° with that of P1. The intensity of
transmitted light through P2 is :-
(1) (2)
I0 I0 I0 I0
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 16 2
7. The energy of hydrogen atom in nth orbit is En, then
the energy in nth orbit of singly ionised helium
atom will be :-

(1) 4En (2) En/4 (3) 2En (4) En/2 (3) (4)
8. When light of a certain wavelength is incident on a
plane surface of a material at a glancing angle 30°,
the reflected light is found to be completely plane
polarised. Determine angle of refraction.
13. What will be wavelength of photon emitted when
electron of Li2+ transit from n = 3 to n = 1
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(where R = Rydberg constant)
(3) 60° (4) None

9. A slit of width 12 × 10−7 m is illuminated by light of

(1) 114 Å (2) 8208 Å
wavelength 6000 Å. The angular width of central
maximum is approximately - (3) 6566 Å (4) None of these

(1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 0° 14. Statement-1 : Density of water is maximum at 4°C.

10. For P-N Junction, incorrect statement is :-

Statement-2 : Water has both positive and negative
temperature coefficients of volumetric expansions
(1) Majority charge carriers diffuse due to depending on the temperature range.
concentration difference
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true
(2) Direction of diffusion current is P to N
(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(3) in P-N junction, P side is at high potential and
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
N side is at low potential
(4) internal electric field support the motion of (4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false
minority charge carrier
11. In a double slit experiment if light of wavelength
5000 Å is used then fringe width of 1 mm is
obtained. If now light of wavelength 6000 Å is
used without altering the system then new fringe
width will be :
(1) 1 mm (2) 0.5 mm

(3) 1.2 mm (4) 1.5 mm

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15. Assertion(A) :- The ratio of specific heat of a gas 18. Match the following columns for the processes
at constant pressure and specific heat at constant with ideal gas :-
volume for a monoatomic gas is more than that Column-I Column-II
those of a diatomic gas.
Reason(R) :- The molecules of a monoatomic gas
(A) Isothermal process (1) ΔQ = ΔU
have more degree of freedom than those of a (B) adiabatic process (2) ΔQ = 0
diatomic gas.
(C) Isochoric process (3) ΔU = 0
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A) (D) Cyclic process (4) Δ Q = Δ W
Choose the correct option regarding above
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
columns.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
A B C D
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (1) 2,3 1 2 3,4
correct explanation of (A)
(2) 3,4 1 2 1,2
16. Assertion (A) :- The value of specific heat at
(3) 3,4 2 1 3,4
constant pressure is more than that at constant
volume. (4) 1,2 2 1 3,4
Reason (R) :- The energy required to raise
temperature by a unit at constant pressure is greater
19. If a thermometer reads freezing point of water as
20° and boiling point as 150°, How much
because some amount of heat is used in doing work.
thermometer read when the temperature is 60°C
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(1) 98° (2) 110° (3) 40° (4) 60°
the correct explanation of (A)

(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

20. Match Column-I and Column-II and choose the
correct match from the given choices.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct Column-I Column-II
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the Root mean square speed 1
(A) (P) nmv−2
correct explanation of (A) of gas molecules 3

17. Statement I :- Mean free path of gas molecules,

(B) Pressure exerted by ideal gas (Q) √
3RT
varies inversely as density of the gas. M
Statement II :- Mean free path of gas molecules is Average kinetic energy of a 5
(C) (R) RT
defined as the average distance travelled by a molecule 2

molecule between two successive collisions. Total internal energy of 1 3

(D) (S) k T
(1) Both the statements are correct mole of a diatomic gas 2 B

(2) Both the statements are incorrect (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)

(3) Only statement-I is correct. (2) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)

(4) Only statement-II is correct. (3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)

(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)

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21. One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas is mixed 26. An ideal gas at 27° C is compressed adiabatically
with one mole of a diatomic ideal gas. The 8 5
to of its original volume. If γ = , then the rise
27 3
molar specific heat of the mixture at constant in temperature is :
volume is
(1) 450 K (2) 375 K
3
(1) 8 (2) 2
R
(3) 225 K (4) 405 K
(3) 2R (4) 2.5 R 27. In a thermodynamics process, pressure of a fixed
22. In the adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that the
select the incorrect statement. gas molecule gives out 20 J of heat and 10 J of
work is done on the gas. If the initial internal
(1) There is decrease in temperature of the gas
energy of the gas was 40 J, then the final internal
(2) There is decrease in internal energy of the gas energy will be :
(3) The work done is positive (1) 30 J (2) 20 J (3) 60 J (4) 40 J

(4) The work done by gas is equal to heat supplied 28. P-T diagram is shown in given figure. Choose the

23. Three identical rods made of same material are

corresponding V-T diagram.

connected as shown in the figure, then find the

temperature of junction.

(1) 30°C (2) 50°C

(3) 60°C (4) 70°C

(1) (2)
24. Rate of heat flow through a cylindrical rod is H1.
Temperatures of ends of rod are T1 and T2. If all
the dimensions of rod become double and
temperature difference remains same and rate of
(3) (4)
heat flow becomes H2 . Then

(1) H2 = 2H1 (2) H2 = H1

29. A flask is filled with 13 g of an ideal gas at 27°C
H1
(3) H2 = 4 (4) H2 = 4H1 and its temperature is raised to 52°C. The mass of

25. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a

the gas that has to be released to maintain the
temperature of gas in flask at 52°C, the pressure
diatomic gas is ν . When the temperature is remaining the same is :-
doubled, the molecule dissociate into two atoms.
The new root mean square speed of the atom is: (1) 2.5 g (2) 2 gm (3) 1.5 g (4) 1 g

(1) √ 2ν (2) ν (3) 2 ν (4) 4 ν

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30. 5 g of ice at 0°C is dropped in a beaker containing SECTION - B ( PHYSICS )

20 g of water at 40°C. The final temperature will be

(1) 32°C (2) 16°C

36. Molecular hydrogen at one atmosphere and helium
at two atmospheres occupy volume V each at the
(3) 8°C (4) 24°C same temperature. The rms velocity of hydrogen
31. To what temperature should the hydrogen at 327°C molecules is x times the rms velocity of helium
be cooled at constant pressure, so that the root molecules. What is the value of x ?
mean square velocity of its molecules become half (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) √ 2 (4) √ 3
of its previous value ?
37. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4
(1) – 123°C (2) 123°C moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all
(3) – 100°C (4) 0°C vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the

32. The volume of a block of a metal changes by

system is :-

0.12% when it is heated through 20°C. The (1) 15 RT (2) 9 RT (3) 11 RT (4) 4 RT
coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is :- 38. The circuit is equivalent to :-
(1) 2.0 × 10 – 5 per °C (2) 4.0 × 10 – 5 per °C

(3) 6.0 × 10 – 5 per °C (4) 8.0 × 10 – 5 per °C

33. A ray of light gets reflected from the plane mirror. The (1) OR (2) NOR
incident ray and the reflected ray are perpendicular to (3) AND (4) NAND
each other. The angle of incidence is :
39. In a Y.D.S.E, light has a frequency of 9 × 1014 Hz.
(1) 60° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 0° The distance between the centres of adjacent bright
34. A clock hung on a wall has marks instead of fringes is 1 mm. If the screen is 2m away then find
numbers on its dial. On the opposite wall there is a the distance between the slits.
mirror, and the image of the clock in the mirror if 2
(1) × 10−2 m −3
(2) 2 × 10 m
read, indicates the time as 8.20. What is the time in 3
the clock- −3 2
(3) 3 × 10 m (4) × 10−3 m
3
(1) 3.40 (2) 4.40 (3) 5.20 (4) 4.20 40. A vessel is quarter filled with a liquid of refractive
35. A concave mirror for viewing has focal length of index μ . The remaining parts of the vessel is filled
0.4 m. The distance at which you hold the mirror 3
with an immiscible liquid of refractive index μ.
2
from your face in order to see your image upright
The apparent depth of the vessel is 50% of the
with a magnification of 5 is : –
actual depth. The value of μ is :-
(1) 0.16 m (2) 1.60 m 3 2 4
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4)
2 3 3
(3) 0.32 m (4) 0.24 m
41. If a light ray incident on an equilateral prism
suffers minimum deviation at an angle 30°, then
speed of light in the prism will be ?
3 1
(1) × 108 m/s (2) × 108 m/s
√ 2 √ 2
2 2
(3) × 108 m/s (4) × 108 m/s
√ 3 3

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42. A large glass slab ( μ= 5
3
) of thickness 8 cm is
46. Which of the following does not support the wave
nature of light :-
placed over a point source of light on a plane
surface. It is seen that light emerges out of the top (1) Interference (2) Diffraction
surface of the slab from a circular area of radius R (3) Polarization (4) Photoelectric effect
cm. What is the value of R?
47. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6 transition from n = n1 to n = n2 state. The time
43. The focal lengths of the objective and the eye-piece period of the electron in state n1 is eight times that
of a compound microscope are 2.0 cm and 5.0 cm in state n2. The possible values of n1 and n2 are
respectively. The distance between the objective (1) n1 = 8, n2 = 1 (2) n1 = 4, n2 = 1
and the eye-piece is 17.0 cm. The final image
formed by the eye-piece is at infinity. Calculate (3) n1 = 4, n2 = 2 (4) n1 = 2, n2 = 4
M.P. of microscope? 48. Maximum velocity of photoelectrons emitted by a
(1) 25 (2) 34 (3) 30 (4) 40 metal surface is 1.2 × 106 ms – 1. Assuming the
specific charge of the electron to be 1.8 × 1011 C kg – 1,
44. What should be the value of distance d so that final
the value of the stopping potential (in volt) will be :-
image is formed on the object itself. (focal lengths
of the lenses are written on the lenses). (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6
49. A nucleus m
nX emits one α particle and two β –
particles. The resulting nucleus is :-
m−6 m−6 m−4 m−4
(1) n−4 Z (2) n Z (3) n X (4) n−2 Y

50. Which statement is correct :-

(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
(1) N-type germanium is negatively charged and
(3) 5 cm (4) None of these P-type germanium is positively charged
45. Plane wavefronts are incident on a spherical mirror (2) Both N-type and P-type germanium are neutral
as shown. The reflected wavefronts will be :-
(3) N-type germanium is positively charged and
P-type germanium is negatively charged

(4) Both N-type and P-type germanium are

negatively charged

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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Topic : Redox, Chemical Equilbrium, Hydrocarbon.

SECTION - A ( CHEMISTRY ) 57. Which of the following is not an example of redox

reaction?
51. Choose an incorrect option for the following
(1) CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
reaction
2H2 O( ℓ ) → 2H2(g) + O2(g) (2) Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2

(1) It is intramolecular redox reaction (3) 2K + F2 → 2KF

(2) n-factor of O2 is 4 (4) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl

(3) Oxidation state of hydrogen is +1 in H2O 58. In the reaction 2 Na + H2 → 2 NaH, Which
statement is correct?
(4) It is a disproportionation reaction

52. In the reaction

(1) Sodium is reduced and hydrogen is oxidized.

8Al + 3F e3 O4 → 4Al2 O3 + 9F e (2) Sodium is oxidizing agent.

the number of moles of electrons transfered by 1 (3) Oxidation number of H in NaH is – 1.
mol of reductant
(4) Reaction is not redox
(1) 24 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 12
59.
53. In acidic medium, H2O2 changes Cr2 O2−
7 to CrO5
Equivalent weight of FeS2 in the half reaction,
FeS2 → Fe2O3 + SO2 is
which has two (—O—O—) bonds. Oxidation state
of Cr in CrO5 is (1) M/10 (2) M/11 (3) M/6 (4) M/1

(1) + 5 (2) + 3 (3) + 6 (4) − 10

60. In which change, transfer of five electrons takes

54. The value of n in the following reaction is

place ?

(1) CrO42 – → Cr+3

NO2 – + H2O → NO3 – + 2H+ + ne –
(2) MnO4 – → MnO2
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5
55. A compound contains atoms of three elements A, (3) Cr2O72 – → 2Cr+3
B, and C. If the oxidation number of A is +2, B is (4) MnO4 – → Mn2+
+5 and that of C is −2, the possible formula of the
compound is
61. In which of the following the oxidation number of
oxygen has been arranged in increasing order ?
(1) A3(BC4)2 (2) A3(B4C)2
(1) OF2 < KO2 < BaO2 < O3
(3) ABC2 (4) A3(BC3)2
(2) BaO2 < KO2 < O3 < OF2
56. How many electrons are involved in the following
(3) BaO2 < O3 < OF2 < KO2
redox reaction?
Cr2O72 – + Fe2+ + C2O42 – → Cr3+ + Fe3+ + CO2 (4) KO2 < OF2 < O3 < BaO2
(Unbalanced) 62. In balancing the half reaction, S2O32 – → S, the
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 5 number of electrons that must be added is

(1) 2 on the right (2) 2 on the left

(3) 4 on the left (4) 4 on the right

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63. In alkaline medium KMnO4 reacts as follows 69. If the value of Kc for the reaction is 10 – 2 and that
2KMnO4 + 2KOH → 2K2MnO4 + H2O + O2 of Kf is 10 – 1, the rate constant for the backward
Therefore its equivalent mass will be reaction will be
P+Q⇌R+C
(1) 31.6 (2) 52.7 (3) 79 (4) 158
64. In which reaction H2O2 acts as reducing agent?
(1) 10 times of Kc (2) Equal to Kc

(3) 1000 times of Kc (4) None of these

(1) Ag2O + H2O2 → 2Ag + H2O + O2

(2) 2KI + H2O2 → 2KOH + I2

70. Statement-I : A catalyst does not influence the
value of equilibrium constant.
(3) PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H2O Statement-II: Catalysts influence the rate of both
(4) H2O2 + SO2 → H2SO4 forward and backward reactions equally.

65. For the reaction; 3X(g)+ Y(g)⇌ X3Y(g), the amount (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
of X3Y at equilibrium is affected by (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(1) Temperature and pressure incorrect

(2) Pressure only (3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is

incorrect
(3) Temperature only
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is
(4) Temperature, pressure and catalyst correct
66. In system A(s)⇌ 2B(g) + 3C(g) at equilibrium if 71. Statement -I : At equilibrium, rate of forward
concentration of 'C' is doubled then concentration reaction is equal to rate of backward reaction.
of B at equilibrium. Statement -II : It is due to static equilibrium that
there is no change in concentration of various
(1) Double its original concentration
species in reaction mixture.
(2) Half its original concentration
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(3) 2√2 its original concentration
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
1
(4) its original concentration
2 √2 (3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
67. In the reaction PCl5(g)⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) the partial (4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
pressure of PCl3, Cl2 and PCl5 are 0.3, 0.2 and 0.6
atm respectively at equilibrium. If partial pressure
72. How many moles of oxalate ion oxidised by 1 mole
MnO−4 in acidic medium ?
of PCl3 and Cl2 was increased twice, what will be
the partial pressure of PCl5 is in atm at new (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 2.5
equilibrium condition? 73. In which of the following reactions, the
(1) 0.3 (2) 1.2 (3) 2.4 (4) 0.15 concentration of the product is higher than the

68. KC for the esterification reaction :

concentration of reactant at equilibrium? (K =
equilibrium constant)
CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⇌ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O is
4. If 4 mol each of acid and alcohol are taken (1) A ⇌ B ; K = 0.001 (2) M ⇌ N ; K = 10
initially, what is the equilibrium concentration of
(3) X ⇌ Y ; K = 0.005 (4) R ⇌ P ; K = 0.01
the acid
2 4 3 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 4 2

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74. Assertion : – For the reaction 78.

Reason : – Kp of all gaseous reactions is equal to Kc. 'X' is
(1) Both Assertion&Reason are True&the Reason
is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1) (2)
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (3) (4)

(4) BothAssertion&Reason are false. 79. Which gives maximum yield of C2H5Cl?
75. Assertion (A) : In the dissociation of PCl5(g) at
constant pressure and temperature, addition of (1)
helium at equilibrium increases the dissociation PCl5.
Reason (R) : Helium reacts with C ℓ 2(g) and hence
shifts the equilibrium in forward direction. (2)

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A (3)

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct

(4)
explanation of A

(3) A is correct but R is incorrect

80. Match the column-I with column-II :-
Column- Column-
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct
I (Reaction) II (Product)
76. 1 mol of XY(g) and 0.2 mol of Y(g) are mixed in 1 L 2CH3CH2Br
vessel. At equilibrium, 0.6 mol of Y(g) is present. (a) (p)
The value of K for the reaction
is CH3COO⊝Na ⊕
(b) (q) CH3CH2CH2CH3
(1) 0.04 mol L – 1 (2) 0.06 mol L – 1

(3) 0.36 mol L – 1 (4) 0.40 mol L – 1 CH3(CH2)4CH3

77. The partial pressure of carbon monoxide from the (c) (r) 2CH3OH
following data will be
Δ
CaCO ⇌ CaO + CO
3(s) (s) ; K = 8 × 10 – 2
2(g) ↑ P1
2CH4 + O2
CO2(g) + C(s) ⇌ 2CO(g) ; KP2 = 2
(d) (s) CH4
(1) 0.2 atm (2) 0.6 atm

(3) 0.8 atm (4) 0.4 atm (1) a – q, b – p, c – r, d – s

(2) a – q, b – s, c – p, d – r

(3) a – q, b – p, c – s, d – r

(4) a – p, b – q, c – r, d – s

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81. Reductive Ozonolysis product of 2-methylbut-2- 84. Given below are two statements:
ene is Statement-I : p – H3C – C6H5 – NO2 is more reactive
than p – O2N – C6H5 – NO2 towards electrophilic
(1) (2) Only substitution reaction.
Statement-II : – CH3 is ortho/para directing group
while – NO2 is meta directing group when attached

(3) (4) to benzene ring.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most

82.
appropriate answer from the options given below:
Given below are two statements; one is labelled as
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R) .
(2) Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
Assertion: If benzene is treated with 1-chloropropane
in presence of anhydrous AlCl3, Isopropyl benzene is (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
major product not n-propyl benzene. (4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
Reason : The reaction mentioned in assertion occurs 85. What is the final product (B) in the following
via rearrangement of carbocation. reaction?
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (1) (2)
correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (4)
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

83. Statement-I : Hydrogenation of 2-Butyne in SECTION - B ( CHEMISTRY )

presence of Pd/BaSO4 gives trans-2-Butene
Statement-II : Trans-2-butene is more stable than 86. In the following reaction:
cis-2-butene

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

The major product is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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87. In the following compounds the decreasing order of 90. In the given reaction
boiling point is

the product P is

(1) (2)

(1) (I) > (II) > (III) (2) (I) > (III) > (II)

(3) (II) > (III) > (I) (4) (III) > (II) > (I)

88. Consider the following compounds :

(3) (4)

Correct order of their reactivity in electrophilic

91. The preparation of SO3(g) by reaction
1
substitution reactions would be SO2(g) + O → SO3(g)
2 2(g)
is an exothermic reaction.
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I
If the preparation follows the following
(3) III > II > I > IV (4) III > IV > I > II temperature-pressure relationship for its % yield,
89. What is the product formed when benzene is than for temperatures T1 , T2 and T3.
reacted with chlorine in presence of sunlight ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) The correction option is

(1) T3 > T2 > T1
(2) T1 > T2 > T3
(3) T1 = T2 = T3
(4) Nothing could be predicted about temperature
through given information

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92. The reagent, which is used to distinguish 1- butyne 96. Consider the reaction :
from 2-butyne is (i) 2CO(g) + 2H2O(g) 2CO2(g) + 2H2(g);
(1) Bromine in CCl4 Equilibrium constant = K1
(ii) CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g);
(2) HBr
Equilibrium constant = K2
(3) dil. H2SO4, dil. HgSO4 (iii) CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) CO2(g) + 4H2(g);
(4) Ammoniacal Cu2Cl2 Equilibrium constant = K3
93. Assertion: Nitration of benzene is carried with Which of the following relation is correct ?
mixture of concentrated nitric acid and 1 K 1K2
concentrated sulphuric acid. (1) K3 = K2 (2) K3 = K 2
2
Reason: The mixture of concentrated sulphuric acid
(3) K3 = K1K2 (4) K3 = √
K1 K2
and concentrated nitric acid produces the
electrophile, NO+2 . in the nitration of benzene. 97. When BrO3 – reacts with Br – in acidic medium,
Br2 is liberated. The equivalent weight of Br2 in
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the
this reaction is
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. 5M 5M 3M 4M
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 3 5 6
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but 98. How many grams of I2 are present in a solution
Reason is not a correct explanation of the which requires 40 mL of 0.11 N Na2S2O3 to react
Assertion. with it?
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. I + S O 2 – → S O 2 – + 2I –
2 2 3 4 6

(4) Assertion is False but Reason is TRue. (1) 12.7g (2) 0.558g

94. Find A and B in following reactions (3) 25.4 g (4) 11.4g

Re d hot Fe tube
CaC2 + 2H2O → (A) −−−−−−−−−−−→ (B) 99. The function of anhydrous AlCl3 in the Friedel
(A) (B) craft's reaction

(1) To absorb water

(1) CH2=CH2
(2) To absorb HCl

(3) To produce electrophile

(2) CH ≡ CH
(4) To produce Nucleophile

(3) CH ≡ CH 100. major product.

(4) CH ≡ CH CH3 – C ≡ CH The major product A is

95. When benzene is heated with acetic anhydride in
(1) CH3 – CH=CH – OH (2)
presence of anhydrous AlCl3, the product formed is
(1) Benzoic acid (2) Acetophenone
(3) (4)
(3) Ethylphenyl ketone (4) Benzophenone

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Topic : Respiration in Plants,Plant Growth And Developments,Ecosystem,Biodiversity

SECTION - A ( BOTANY ) 107. Hormone responsible to promote female flower

formation in cucumber is
101. There are three major ways in which different cells
(1) Ethylene (2) Auxins
handle pyruvic acid produced by glycolysis (lactic
acid fermentation, Alcoholic fermentation and link (3) GA (4) ABA
reaction). How many pathways out of these are 108. Select the incorrect statement
independent and dependent on oxygen respectively?
(1) Amazonian forest in South America has the
(1) 1,2 (2) 2,1 (3) 3:0 (4) 0:3 greatest biodiversity on Earth
102. At what minimum percent of alcohol concentration (2) Constant environment provides niche
do the yeast cells get killed during fermentation? specialisation and leads to greater species diversity

(1) 31 (2) 13 (3) 50 (4) 25 (3) More than 70% of all the species recorded are
103. During the tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA), a animals

molecule of GTP is synthesized during conversion of (4) Species diversity increases as we move away
from equator towards the poles
(1) α -Ketoglutaric acid to succinyl-CoA

(2) Succinic acid to fumaric acid

109. Which of the following area in Rajasthan have
"Sacred groves"?
(3) Succinyl CoA to succinic acid
(1) Chanda & Bastar
(4) Malic acid to oxaloacetic acid
(2) Western ghats
104. In ETS, which of the following are the components
(3) Khasi & Jaintia hills
of complex-IV
(4) Aravalli hills
(1) Cytochrome reductase

(2) Cytochrome a and a3

110. Choose the odd one w.r.t. Alien species
(1) Cichlid fish (2) Nile perch
(3) Cytochrome b and c1
(3) Parthenium (4) Clarius gariepinus
(4) ATP synthase

105. Under starvation, fats enter into the respiratory

111. Relation between species richness and area was
first determined by
pathway
(1) Paul Ehrlich
(1) Before glycolysis (2) After TCA-cycle
(2) Alexander Von Humboldt
(3) During ETS (4) during glycolysis

106. Net production through glycolysis is

(3) Edward Wilson

(4) Alexander Flemming

(1) 4 ATP, 2 NADH & 2 pyruvate

(2) 2 ATP, 2 NADH & 2 pyruvate

(3) 2 ATP, 4 NADH & 1 pyruvate

(4) 4 ATP, 4 NADH & 2 pyruvate

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112. The rate of biomass production is expressed in 118. In plants, ethylene
terms of
(1) Is a derivative of carotenoids
−2 −2 −1
(1) gm (2) gm yr
(2) Causes dormancy
−2 −1
(3) ( kcalm ) yr (4) Both 2 and 3
(3) Is the only gaseous hormone
113. Out of four major causes of biodiversity loss,
(4) Responsible for bolting
which is responsible for extinction of Steller's sea
cow? 119. Arrange the following substrates in ascending order

(1) Over exploitation by humans w.r.t. their R.Q values

(a) Tripalmitin (b) Proteins
(2) Coextinction
(c) Malic acid (d) Glucose.
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(1) a, b, d & c (2) b, d, a & c
(4) Alien species invasions

114. (3) a, b, c & d (4) d, a, b & c

120.
India has only ___A___ percent of the world's land
area, It's share of the global species diversity is an Natural cytokinins are found in
impressive ___B___ percent. (a) Young fruits.

(1) A - 1.2, B - 8.1 (2) A - 2.4, B - 4.1 (b) Developing shoot buds.
(c) Root apices.
(3) A - 8.1, B - 2.4 (4) A - 2.4, B - 8.1

115. The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest in South

(1) Only a (2) Only b and c

America (3) Only c (4) All a, b and c

(1) Has 427 species of mammals 121. A farmer sprayed a commercial plant
growth hormone and found that his cabbage plant
(2) Has 3000 species of birds
grew into a herb with long internodes. Which of
(3) Has 378 species of fishes
the following growth promoter was used
(4) Is home to 40000 plants

116.
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin
When apical bud of a plant is removed then
(3) Gibberellic acid (4) Abscisic acid
(1) Auxin shows apical dominance
122. Read the following statement.
(2) Cytokinin is removed along with auxin
A. NAA and IAA both are natural auxins.
(3) More lateral branches will be seen B. Auxins is responsible for synchronising fruit-set
(4) Root elongation is promoted in pineapple.

117. Which of the given plants form leaves of different

C. Auxin induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes

shapes in different environmental conditions? D. Auxins help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at
early stage.
(1) Cotton (2) Coriander
How many statement are correct ?
(3) Buttercup (4) Larkspur
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

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123. Identify the plant hormone which is known as 129. The common phase possible in both aerobic &
stress hormone and is anti transpirant anaerobic respiration is

(1) ABA (2) GA3 (3) CK (4) IAA (1) TCA cycle (2) Kreb's cycle

124. The flow of energy in an ecosystem is (3) Glycolysis (4) Photo respiration

(1) Bidirectional (2) Multidirectional 130. Humus is

(3) Unidirectional (4) Undefinable (1) Dark coloured amorphous substance and

125. In general, it is possible to calculate the net gain of

highly susceptible to microbial action

ATP for every glucose molecule oxidized as 38. (2) Light coloured amorphous substance and
However, these calculations would be correct based highly resistant to microbial action
on the assumptions given below, except that (3) Dark coloured amorphous substance and
(1) All the reactions in a pathway and all the highly resistant to microbial action
pathways occur in a sequential manner (4) Light coloured amorphous substance and
(2) Only glucose is being used and no other highly susceptible to microbial action
alternate substrates enter the pathway at any 131. The first member of the TCA cycle is
of the intermediate stages
(1) Acetyl CoA (2) Citric acid
(3) None of the coenzymes are reduced during
aerobic respiration (3) OA A (4) Pyruvic acid

(4) The NADH synthesized in glycolysis is 132. What proportion of the PAR (photo synthetically
transferred to mitochondria and the same active radiation) is captured by plants ?
undergoes oxidative phosphorylation (1) 1 – 10% (2) 2 – 10%
126. Which of the following are structural features of (3) 5 – 15% (4) 5 – 25%

133.
ecosystem?
Which is not a character of arithmetic growth?
(1) Productivity, Decomposition
(1) Constant growth rate
(2) Energy flow, Nutrient recycling
(2) Linear growth curve
(3) Productivity, Energy flow
(3) Presence of stationary phase
(4) Species composition, Stratification

127. The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally

(4) Commonly seen in root meristems

______ because the biomass of fishes far exceeds 134. Strict protection of the biodiversity hot spots can
that of phytoplankton. reduce the ongoing mass extinction by about

(1) Upright (2) Inverted (1) 25% (2) 20% (3) 19% (4) 30%

(3) Bell shaped (4) Spindle shaped 135. In grassland ecosystem the number of primary

128. The amount of energy __________ at successive

producers is about 6 million. The number of top
carnivore supported by it would be :
trophic levels.
(1) 60 (2) 30 (3) 6 (4) 3
(1) Increases (2) Remains same

(3) Decreases (4) Both (1) and (3)

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SECTION - B ( BOTANY ) 141. Read the following statement A to D.
(1) An ecosystem can be visualised as a functional
136. Tropics show rich biodiversity because, unit of nature.
(1) Tropical areas receive more solar energy (2) Ecosystem varies greatly in size from a small
pond to a large forest or a sea.
(2) Tropical environment are relatively more
constant and predictable (3) Many ecologists regard the entire biosphere as a
global ecosystem
(3) Tropical environment is less seasonal
(4) Crop field & an Aquarium may also be
(4) More than one option is correct considered as natural ecosystem
137. When two molecules of acetyl-CoA enter the TCA How many of the above statements are correct.
cycle, net gain at the end of the cycle is :- (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 2NADH2 + 2FADH2 + 1GTP
(3) 3 (4) all are correct
(2) 3NADH2 + 2FADH2 + 2GTP 142. Development is the sum of two processes. These are :
(3) 6NADH2 + 2FADH2 + 2GTP (1) Growth + Metabolism

(4) 3NADH2 + 1FADH2 + 4GTP (2) Growth + Differentiation

138. Match the column I with column II.

(3) Differentiation + Metabolism
(4) Growth + Catabolism
Column I Column II
(a) Thylacine (i) Russia
143. Elongation of internode just before flowering is called

(1) Dedifferentiation (2) Bolting

(b) Dodo (ii) Mauritius
(c) Quagga (iii) Australia (3) Plasticity (4) Senescence

(d) Steller's sea cow (iv) Africa 144. In the leaf A and B what is the value of AGR
(average growth rate) and RGR (relative growth
rate)
(1) a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv

(2) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

(3) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i

(4) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i

139. In an aquatic ecosystem, the organisms present at

the level equivalent to cows in grasslands is :-
(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Large fishes
A-Leaf B-Leaf
(3) Seagulls (4) Zooplanktons

140. Nepenthes (Insectivorous pitcher plant) is :

AGR RGR AGR RGR
(1) 1% 1 2% 2
(1) Producer
(2) 100% 5 10% 5
(2) Primary consumer
(3) 5 100% 5 10%
(3) Secondary consumer
(4) 0.5 100% 1.5 100%
(4) Both (1) and (3)

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145. Match the columns w.r.t. precursors of PRGs 148. When a threatened plant or animal needs urgent
Column I Column II measures to save it from extinction, the desirable
approach is
(A) ABA (i) Terpene derivative
(1) in-situ conservation
(B) Auxin (ii) Gaseous hormone
(2) ex-situ consservation
(C)
(iii) Indole compounds
Gibberellin (3) cryopreservation
(iv) Carotenoid (4) biopreservation
(D) Ethylene
derivative
149. The amazon rain forest harbouring probably
millions of species is being cut and cleared for
(1) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii cultivating ......(a)....... or for conversion to .......
(b)...... for beef cattle. Here (a) and (b) are :
(2) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv
(1) (a) Wheat ; (b) Fodder
(3) a - i, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii
(2) (a) Bajra ; (b) Agriculture land
(4) a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i

146. Which of the following is not required for link

(3) (a) Soyabean ; (b) Grassland

reaction? (4) (a) Maize ; (b) Dairy industry

(1) Mg2+ 150. Which of the following acts as a mobile carrier for
transfer of electrons between complex III and IV?
(2) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(1) Cytochrome c
(3) NADP+
(2) Cytochrome b
(4) CO-A

147. In Embden, Meyerhof and Parnas pathway

(3) Cytochrome a

respectively at how many steps ATP is synthesised, (4) Cytochrome a and c3

NAD+ is reduced and ATP is utilised ?

(1) Two, One and Two

(2) One, Two and One

(3) Five, Two and Two

(4) Three, One and Two

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Topic : Biomolecules,,Human health and diseases,Biotechnology principles and processess,Biotechnology Application

SECTION - A ( ZOOLOGY ) 156. The advancements made in biological science have

armed us to effectively deal with
151. Statement-A: Only some portions of the protein
(1) Infectious diseases
thread are arranged in the form of a helix.
Statement-B: A protein thread does not exist (2) Non-infectious diseases
throughout as an extended rigid rod. (3) Vector-borne diseases
(1) Both A and B are correct (4) Allergies
(2) Only A is correct 157. Which of the following is essential before
(3) Only B is correct undertaking any graft/transplant

(4) Both A and B are incorrect (1) Humoral immune response

152. In the concept of activation energy, If "P" is at (2) Tissue match

lower level than "S", then the reaction is an (3) Cell-mediated immune response
(1) Exothermic reaction (4) Immunity match
(2) Endothermic reaction 158. Identify the diseases which spread through
(3) Both (1) and (2) contaminated food and water?

(4) None of the above (a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia

153. One of the following element is negligible in living

(c) Common cold (d) Ascariasis
(e) Typhoid
organisms
(1) a, b, d, e (2) b, d, e
(1) Silicon (2) Magnesium

(3) Sulphur (4) Sodium (3) a, d, e (4) All the above

154. Choose the incorrect statement regarding secondary

159. In AIDS due to decrease in number of helper T-
metabolites. lymphocytes person starts suffering from which of
the following parasite
(1) Only plant tissues produce secondary metabolites
(1) Ascaris
(2) The majority of their functions are unknown
(2) Toxoplasma
(3) Abrin and ricin are toxins
(3) Wuchereria bancrofti
(4) Some secondary metabolites have ecological
importance (4) Wuchereria malayi

155. Polymer of fructose is 160. Find out the appropriate option for the most
common warning signs of drug & alcohol abuse
(1) Galactose (2) Insulin
among youth
(3) Inulin (4) Arabinose
(1) Fluctuation in weight

(2) Fluctuation in appetite

(3) Withdrawl

(4) All of the above

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161. Find out the diseases that are transferred from 166. Assertion (A): The first restriction endonuclease is
mother to child, through placenta & sexual contact Hind-II and cuts specific sequence of six base pairs.
& infected blood. Reason (R): Exonuclease removes nucleotides from

(a) Hepatitis-B (b) Gonorrhoea the ends of DNA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(c) HIV infection (d) Chlamydiasis
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(e) Trichomoniasis.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(1) a, b, e (2) a, c
correct explanation of (A)
(3) b, c, d, e (4) a, b, c, d (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
162. Smoking is associated with increased incidence of
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
cancers of
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the
(1) lung (2) urinary bladder
correct explanation of (A)
(3) throat (4) all the above 167. Select the incorrect statement(s)
163. Which measure would be particularly useful for (1) A foreign DNA can be ligated at the BamHI
prevention and control of alcohol and drug abuse site of ampicillin resistance gene in the vector
among adolescents? pBR 322
(a) Avoid undue peer pressure.
(2) Some plasmids may have only one or 2
(b) Seeking professional and medical help.
copies per cell whereas others may have 15-
(c) Looking for danger sign.
100 copies per cell
(d) Education and counselling.
(e) Seeking help from parents and peers. (3) In almost all recombinant technologies, the
ultimate aim is to produce a desirable protein
(1) a, b, d (2) a, c, d, e
(4) All of the above
(3) c, e (4) a, b, c, d, e
168.
164.
Find the incorrect match
DNA cannot pass through cell membrane as it is:
Disarmed retroviruses - Deliver desirable
(1) Hydrophilic (2) Hydrophobic (1)
genes into animal cells
(3) Lipophilic (4) All the above (2) Biolistics - vectorless gene transfer
165. Given below are two statements:
(3)
Natural genetic engineer - Agrobacterium
Statement-I: Agrobacterium tumefaciens a pathogen tumefaciens
of several monocot plants. Insertional inactivation of β −galactosidase -
Statement-II: Retroviruses in animals have the ability (4)
Blue colonies indicate recombinants
to transform cancerous cells into normal cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statemement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

(4) Both Statemement-I and Statement-II are correct

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169. Assertion (A): In recombinant DNA technology, 174. Assertion : Protein is a heteropolymer.
rDNA are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) Reason : Protein is a polymer of 20 different types

or yeast (eukaryote). of amino acids.

Reason (R): Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
to form huge population to express the desired gene. Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
correct explanation for (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

correct explanation for (A) (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect 175. Which of the following statement is true with
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct regards to polysaccharide?

170. In PCR-technology primer is a:

(1) Polysaccharides are components of cell wall
in plant and fungi.
(1) Small chemically synthesized oligonucleotide
(2) Polysaccharides are components of the
that are complementary to region of DNA
exoskeleton of arthropods.
(2) Large chemically synthesized oligonucleotide
(3) They are storage forms of energy.
that are identical to region of DNA
(3) Small segment of RNA (4) All of the above

(4) None of these 176. Following are the statements with reference to ‘lipids’.

171. Which of the following nutrients are found in the

(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called

nutrient medium of tissue culture technology unsaturated fatty acids.

(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(1) Vitamins, amino acids, sucrose
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(2) Minerals, amino acids, Maltose
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
(3) Vitamins, proteins, sucrose carboxyl carbon.
(4) Minerals, proteins, Maltose (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
172. Pitch of B-DNA is Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) 3.4 Å (2) 34 Å

(3) 0.34 nm (4) Both 2 & 3 (1) (b) and (c) only (2) (b) and (e) only

173. Choose the mismatch w.r.t average composition of cells (3) (a) and (b) only (4) (c) and (d) only

(1) Protein - 10-15%

(2) Lipids - 3%

(3) Nucleic acids - 5-7%

(4) Water - 70-90%

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177. Match the column : 182. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of
Column I Column II (1) Tobacco (Chewing) (2) Cocaine
(Category) (Secondary Metabolites)
(3) Opium (4) Alcohol
A. Pigments 1. Concanavalin A

B. Terpenoids 2. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes

183. The common cold is caused by

(1) Rhino viruses

C. Alkaloids 3. Morphine, Codeine
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Lectins 4. Carotenoids, Anthocyanin
(3) Salmonella typhimurium
E. Toxins 5. Abrin and Ricin

F. Drugs 6. Vinblastin, Curcumin (4) Plasmodium vivax

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5, F-6

184. Biotechnology essentially deals with industrial
scale production of biopharmaceuticals and
(2) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1, E-5, F-6 biologicals using

(3) A-3, B-4, C-6, D-5, E-1, F-2 (1) GM Bacteria (2) GM Fungi

(4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3, E-5, F-6 (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) GM Algae
178. Reducing sugars are those which can reduce Cu+2 185. Identify A and B in the diagram.
ions to Cu+ state. On that basis which of the
following can be considered as a non-reducing
sugar ?

(1) Sucrose (2) Maltose

(3) Glucose (4) Fructose

179. Correct sequence of Element in earth crust is

(1) Ca > S > N > H (2) N > Ca > H > S (1) A:Fully mature cotton boll, B: Destroyed by
bollworms
(3) Ca > Na > Mg > Si (4) C > H > N > Si

180. Which constitutes about 50% of lymphoid tissue

(2) A:Destroyed by bollworms, B: Fully mature
cotton boll
in human body?
(3) A: Destroyed by virus, B: Immature cotton boll
(1) Spleen
(4) A: Immature normal cotton boll, B: Destroyed by virus
(2) Lymph nodes

(3) Thymus

(4) MALT (Mucosal Associated Lymphoid

Tissue)
181. Which cell works as HIV factory?

(1) Macrophage (2) T-helper

(3) T-cytotoxic (4) Neutrophils

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SECTION - B ( ZOOLOGY ) 190. RNAi technology involves the silencing of

186. Find the correct match:

(1) Replication (2) Transcription

(3) Translation (4) Post translation

Column-I Column-II

(a) Army worm (i) Dipteran

191. Assertion (A): Transgenic mice are being developed
for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they
(b) Flies (ii) Lepidopterans are used on human.
(c) Beetles (iii) Coelopterans Reason (R): Transgenic mice are not being used to

(d) Mosquitoes test the safety of polio vaccine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(e) Tobacco budworm appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - i, e - iii (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(2) a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - i, e - i correct explanation for (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(3) a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iii, e - ii
correct explanation for (A)
(4) a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - i, e - ii
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
187. Transgenic animals that produce useful biological
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
products can be created by the introduction of the
portion of DNA (or genes) which codes for a 192.
particular product to treat
(a) Emphysema
(b) Cystic fibrosis
(c) Phenylketonuria (PKU)
(d) Alzheimer's.

(1) a, b and c (2) a and c The correct combination is

A B C
(3) a and b (4) a, b, c and d

188. Cry IAc and cry IAb produce toxins that control
(1)
Adenine Adenosine
Adenylic
acid
respectively (N-base) (Nucleotide)
(Nucleoside)
(1) Cotton boll worms and corn borer Adenylic
Adenine Adenosine
(2) Corn borer and cotton boll worms (2) acid
(N-base) (Nucleoside)
(Nucleotide)
(3) Tobacco bud worms and nematodes
Adenylic
(4) Nematodes and tobacco bud worms Adenosine Adenine (N-
(3) acid
189. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop which
(Nucleoside)
(Nucleotide)
base)

help in Adenylic
Adenosine
(1) Producing a petrol-like fuel from rice (4) Uracil acid
(Nucleoside)
(Nucleotide)
(2) Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency

(3) Pest resistance

(4) Herbicide tolerance

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193. Statement-I: HIV is a malady that can only be 195. GM crop plants with improved nutritional value of
tackled, by the society and medical fraternity, to foods and reduce the reliance on ___________
cure this disease.
(1) Chemical pesticides (2) Bio pesticides
Statement-II: There is always a time-lag between
the infection and apearance of AIDS symptoms. (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Natural pesticides

(1) Both statement I and II are correct 196. Milk of transgenic cow "Rosie' contains a
substance that was nutritionally more balanced
(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
product for human babies is:
incorrect
(1) α −lactalbumin (2) β −lactalbumin
(3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
correct (3) γ −lactalbumin (4) δ −lactalbumin

(4) Both statemements I and II are incorrect 197. A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for

194. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) given below and
achieving the desired product by providing
optimum growth conditions like
select the right option giving their source and use.

How many are included

(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 9

(a) 198. Which of the following restriction enzyme is
present with in rop site of pBR322?
(1) Pst-I (2) Pvu-I

(3) Pvu-II (4) BamH-I

199. Most common matrix is agarose a natural polymer

used in gel electrophoresis is extracted from:

(1) An animal (2) A fungus

(3) Sea weeds (4) None of these

200. What does stirrer facilitates in stirred tank

Molecule Source Use bioreactor
Accelerates (1) Even mixing of content
Erythroxylum
(1) (a) Cocaine the transport
coca (2) Oxygen availability throughout bioreactor
of dopamine
(b) Cannabis Effects on (3) Both (1) & (2)
(2)
Cannabinoid sativa C.V.S (4) Control foam
(b) Atropa Produces
(3)
Cannabinoid belladonna hallucinations

(a) Papaver Stimulant and

(4)
Morphine somniferum pain killer

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