SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 9.

___ computer are specially designed for (c) Unique Automatic computer (d) unvalued
SECONDARY SCHOOL, complex calculations (a) server (b) super Automatic computer
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. computer (c) Laptop (d) mainframe 23. All the following are examples of input devices
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 10. The components that process data are located except__ (a) Scanner (b) mouse (c) keyboard
in the ___ (a) input devices (b) output device (d) printer
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION.
(c) system unit (d) storage component 24. ____ is used to choose command on the
SUBJECT. COMPUTER STUDIES
11. ___ is any part of the computer that you can screen using a mouse (a) pin (b) ruler(c) button
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR physically touch (a) hardware (b) a device (d) none of the above
(c) a peripheral (d) an application 25. An input device in the form of a light sensitive
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on 12. The brain of the computer system is___ word is called(a) monitor(b) light pen(c) mouse
this section (a) ALU (b) Memory (c) CPU (d) Control Unit (d) TV set
1. Data can be classifies as ___ (a) fact less fact 13. ___ help prevent power (a) surges suppressor 26. The first calculator was built by (a) Marie
(b) faceless fact (c) a fact on paper (b) spike protector (c) UPS system (d) High Jacquard (b)Blaise Pascal (c) Charles Babbage
(d) information in form of fact grade multi media (d) John Napier
2. One of the uses of data is ___ (a) making an 14. When did John Napier develop the Napier’s 27. A similarity between data and information is
informed decision (b) release a function bone? (a) 1416 (b) 1614 (c) 1617 (d) 1618 that both (a) can be displayed on the monitor
(c) deny information (d) all of the above 15. John Napier was born in the year___ (a) 1617 (b) both are computer inputs (c) both are
3. Data is a variable (a) it depends on the amount (b) 1550 (c) 1614 (d) 1416 processed data (d) both are computer results
(b) it depends on the context (c) never (d) it is 16. John Napier died in the year ______ (a) 1617 28. The computer hardware can be classified into
semi-important (b) 1550 (c) 1614 (d) 1416 (a) ALU and control unit (b0 system unit and
4. Which of the following is NOT correct about 17. The first mechanical calculating machine was peripheral (c) central processing unit and
information? (a) it is a data in context (b) it made by (a) William Oughhtned (b) Gottfried control Unit (d) input and output units
can be used to make informed decision (c) it is Leibnitz (c) Blaise Pascal (d) Charles Babbage 29. The outcome of a processed data in a
a form of knowledge (d) it is data 18. Punch card machine was developed in_____ computer is known as __ (a) raw fact
5. An example of information source is ___ (a) Germany (b) Nigeria (c) France (d) China (b) information (c) database (d) computer
(a) topology (b) Tippex (c) journal (d) fact 19. The earliest calculating devices is ___ EDSAC result.
finder (a) Abacus (b) clock (c) difference engine 30. Which of the following devices is not a
6. Government information, can be found in ___ (d) none of the Abacus microcomputer? (a) Notebook (b) Laptop
(a) bulletins (b) gazettes (c) websites (d) all of 20. Which of the following is still useful for adding (c) ENIAC (d) Desktop
the above numbers? (a) EDSAC (b) ENIAC (c) Abacus 31. Which of the following computing devices did
7. A digital devices that processes data is known (d) UNIVAC not exist in the pre-computing age to the 19th
as ___ (a) data processor (b) data entry 21. ENIAC was ___ (a) an electronic computer century? (a) Abacus and slide rule (b) Analytical
(c) DBMS (d) database (b) an Engine (c) a memory device (d0 an engine and slide rule (d) analytical Engine and
8. What does BIOS stands for? (a) Better electronic computer slide rule (d) Analytical and difference engine
Integrated Operating System (b) Basic Input 22. UNIVAC is ___ (a) universal Automatic 32. The computing device invented by Charles
output system (c) Basic draw back system computer (b) universal Array computer Babbage are (a) difference engine and Abacus
(d) Backup input output system. (b) Abacus and slide rule (c) analytical Engine
 and slide rule (d) Analytical and Difference 44. Napier’s bone was designed purposely for (b) Explain three uses of data and information
Engine calculation of (a) sum and quotient (b) sum 3marks
33. The ___ is found in the CPU of a computer and difference (c) product and quotient (c) State five classification of information 5mks
(a) Main Memory (b)Modem (c) Mother (d) difference and quotient 4. Write short note on the following
board (d) register 45. Data can be defined as (a) raw fact (b) mixed (a) Blaise Pascal Calculator 5marks
34. The Mechanical counting device called fact (c) facts on print (d) processed facts (b) Napier’s Bone 5marks
Pascaline was invented by ___ Pascal (a) Blaise 46. The pre-computing age device which made use 5. (a) Define the term Input device 2mark
(b) bloom (c John (d) Philip of beads and frame is (a) Abacus (b) Napier’s (b) List two examples of Input devices 2marks
35. A calculating machine that is made of hard bone (c) Leibnitz multiplier (d) Burrogh’s (c) Write short notes on the following
wood with cursor of glass and metal is called__ counting device i. Analog Computer 2marks
(a) Abacus (b)Difference Engine (c) Pascaline 47. All these are characteristics of a computer ii. Digital Computer 2marks
(d) slide rule except (a) speed (b) versatility (c) storage iii. Hybrid computers 2marks
36. Notebook is an example of ___ Computer (d)power 6. (a) Give five examples of data 5marks
(a) Macro (b) Mainframe (c) micro (d) mini 48. The mechanical adding machine was invented (b) Write three sources of Information 3marks
37. The common name for all input and output in the year (a) 1885 (b) 1985 (c) 1785 (d)1685 (c) Define Information 2marks
devices is (a) Keyboard (b) peripheral 49. Blaise Pascal invented the Pascal calculator at
(c) printer (d) storage device the age of (a) 14 (b) 13 (b) 15 (d) 12
38. Abacus is used for (a) addition (b) subtraction 50. The analytical Engine was designed in the year
(c) multiplication and division (d) addition and (a) 1812 (b) 1814 (c) 1833 (d) 1822
subtraction
39. Which of the following is not a not a mobile
input device (a) joystick (b) Light pen SECTION B(THEORY)
(c) Mouse (d) Scanner INSTRUSTION: Answer four questions from this
40. Which of the following is true about raw data? section. Question 1 is compulsory
(a) it is well categorized (b) it exist in oral form 1. (a) List three computing device that belong to
only (c) it exist in written form only (d) it each of
cannot be relied on to make decision i.19th Century
41. Which of the following was used by Marie ii. 20th Century 6marks
Jacquard in inventing loom? (a) punch card (b) (b) List three classes of Computer 3marks
smart card (c) smart chip (d) sound card (c) State six(6) Characteristics of computer
42. Which generation of computers used Vacuum 6marks
tube in their circuitry? (a) First generation 2. (a) Define Computer 2marks
(b) second generation (c) Third generation (b) State three differences between RAM and
(d) fourth generation ROM in a tabular form 6marks
43. The collection of the unorganized fact and (c) Write short note on the ALU 2marks
figure is called (a) data (b) file (c) information 3. (a) State two difference between data and
(d) variable Information 2marks
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 10. Which of the following options is a data type? 23. The output of an AND gate with three input,
SECONDARY SCHOOL, (a) alphabetic data (b) alphanumeric data A, Band C is high when__ (a) A=1, B=1, C=0
(c) numeric data (d) valid data (b) A=0,B=0, C=0 (c) A=1, B=1, C=1
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. 11. The algebraic expression for AND gate with (d) A=1, B=0, C=1
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR input variables A and B is (a) X = A.B 24. The output of an OR gate with three inputs A,
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. (b) X= A+B (c) X = A – B (d) X= A ÷B B and C, is low when (a) A=0,B=0, C=0
SUBJECT. COMPUTER STUDIES 12. One megabyte is equivalent to (a) 1000x1024 (b) A=0, B=1, C=1 (c) A=0, B=0, C
bytes (b) 1024 x 1024 bytes (c) 1024 x 1048 (d) all of the above
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR bytes (d) 1000 x 1000 x 1000byte 25. Output will be low for any case when one or
13. The output of a NAND gate is 1 when (a) all more inputs are zero in a(n) (a) OR gate
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this inputs are 0 (b) all inputs are 1 (c) any of the (b) NOT gate (c) AND gate (d) NOR gate
section input is 0 (d) any of the input is 1
1. One Megabyte is equivalent to ___ kilobyte 26. The binary language consist of ___ digits
14. Memory unit is part of __ (a) input device (a) 8 (b) 2 (c) 1000 (d) 1
(a) 1000 (b) 1024 (c) 1034 (d) 1204 (b) control unit (c) output device (d) CPU
2. The central processing unit is connected to the 15. The device that can understand the difference
27. ___ bits equal one byte (a) eight (b) two
(a) expansion board (b) expansion slot (c) one thousand (d) one million
between data and program is __ (a) input
(c) motherboard (d) system unit device (b) output device (c) memory 28. A byte can hold one __ of data (a) bit
3. The speed of a processor is measured in ___ (d) microprocessor (b) binary digit (c) character (d)Kilobyte
(a) kilobyte (b) kilohertz (c) megabyte 16. A normal CD-ROM usually can store up to 29. Main storage is also called __ (a) accumulator
(d) megahertz ___ data (a) 680KB (b) 680bytes (c) 680MB (b) control unit (c) Register Unit (d) memory
4. If P = 1 and Q = 1, find the value of NOT(p (d) 680GB 30. In a computer, __ is capable to store single
and Q (a) 0 (b) 0 and 1 (c) 1 (d) 1 and 0 17. The motherboard is the ___ (a) circuit board binary bits (a) capacitor (b) flip flop
5. What is the function of the control unit in the that houses peripherals devices (b) same as (c) register (d) inductor
CPU? It (a) decodes program instruction the CPU chips (c) the first chip that is
(b) generate data from the field (c)perform
31. A disk content that is recorded at the time of
accessed when the computer is turned on manufacture and that cannot be changed or
logic function (d) store program instruction (d) circuit board that contains a CPU and other erased by the user is (a) Memory only
6. If the output signal of any logic gate is fed into chips (b) write only (c) once only (d) Read only
an inverter, the result is (a) NOT gate 18. A DVD is an example of a(n) ___ (a) hard
(b) NOR gate (c) the inverse of the input 32. CPU stands for___ (a) control processing unit
disk (b) Optical disc (c) output device
signal (d) the same as the output (b) central power unit (c) central processing
(d) solid state storage device
7. Which of the following statement is not true unit (d) central powering unit
19. What is the permanent memory built into your
about secondary storage media? They (a) are computer called? (a) RAM (b) floppy (c) CPU 33. The CPU can also be referred to as the____
volatile (b) are non-volatile (c) are relatively (d) ROM (a) brain of the computer (b) hand of the
cheap (d) have storage capacity 20. Which of the following is not a storage computer (c) neck of the computer (d) body
8. The system unit houses the following device? (a) DVD (b) floppy disk (c) hard disk of the computer
components except (a) plotter (b) motherboard (d) Mouse 34. The two major types of memory are __
(c) floppy disk (d) central processing unit 21. The term Pentium is related to what?(a) mouse (a) junior and senior memory (b) small and
9. During program execution in the CPU, the (b) hard drive (c) microprocessor (d) DVD big memory (c) primary and secondary
instruction is interpreted by the __ 22. In computer, the smallest and basic unit of memory (d) long and short memory
(a) arithmetic logic (b) control unit(c) memory storage is ___ (a) bit (b) byte (c) newton 35. Which of the following is not a unit of
unit (d) register unit (d) megabyte storage?(a) bit (b) byte (c) thimble (d) Nibble
36. The following are examples of auxiliary 49. Address is a number used to___ a position in (c) Convert the following basic units
memory except (a) hard drive (b) optical disk memory (a) pin (b) anchor (c) search (d) locate i. 211bits to byte 2marks
(c) digital video disk (d) disco tape 50. When signals X = 0 and signals Y = 1, in an
37. One bit is equivalent to (a) 013byte(b)100byte AND gate, Signals Z = (a) 0.1 (b) 0 (c) 1 ii. 512 bits to nibble 2marks
(c) 5.21byte (d) 130byte (d) -1 6. (a)List 3 examples of auxiliary storage device
38. A logic circuit can be defined as an elementary 3marks
building __ of a digital circuit (d) block
(b) stone (c) sand (d) cement SECTION B (ESSAY) (b) Define Address 3marks
39. Which of the following is not a type of INSTRUTION: Answer any three questions in all,
question 1 is compulsory (c) List 4 types of Bus 4marks
standard single gate? 9a) NOT (b) XOR
(c) OR (d) none of the above
1. (a) Define Central processing Unit 3marks
40. __ is also known as an electronic circuit that
produces an inverted version of the input as an (b) State six (6) functions of ALU 6marks
output (a)OR gate (b) NOT gate (c) AND
(c) List six (6) functions of control unit 6mks
gate (d) all of the above
41. The equation T= A OR B is for __ (a) OR 2. (a) Write short note on the following
gate (b) NOT gate (c) AND gate (d) all of i. primary memory 1mark
the above
42. The following are types of alternative logic ii. Secondary Memory 1mark
gates except (a0 NAND (b) XOR (c) NOT (b) in a tabular form, state 4 differences
(d) NOR
between Primary and Secondary Memory
43. Boolean algebra was named after the
mathematician _ (a) Boole gate (b) George 4marks
Boole (c) Charles Babbage (d) None of the (c) State four basic unit of storage 4marks
above
44. The following are basic laws of Boolean 3. (a) Define Logic gate 1mark
algebra except __ (a) commutative laws (b) Write short notes on the following
(b) mathematical laws (c) distributive laws
(d) tautology laws i. AND gate 2marks
45. ___ is a very powerful law in Boolean algebra ii. NOT gate 2marks
(a) double complement laws (b) absorption
iii. OR gate 2marks
law (c) De morgan’s law (d) Associative law
46. ___ is a bus type (a) control bus (b) BRT bus (c) State three uses of Logic gate 3marks
(c) Civilian Bus (d) memory 4. (a) List 3types of alternative logic gate 3mks
47. The speed of the bus is measured in ________
(a) kilobyte (b) Hertz (c) kilometer (d) none (b) State 5uses of alternative logic gate 5mks
of the above (c) List 2 laws of Boolean algebra 2marks
48. The following items are type of registers 5. (a) What is registers? 2marks
except (a) 1A (b) accumulator (c) bus
register (d) instruction registers (b) List four types of registers 4marks
 SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (a) the weather is hot (b) the web browser is 20. Multiply 1012 by 112 (a) 10012 (b) 11012
SECONDARY SCHOOL, fast (c) multiple web pages are loading at the (c) 11102 (d) 11112
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. same time (d) connected between the client 21. The sum of 11012 and 10112 is (a) 100112
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR and saver has been lost (b) 101002 (c) 101012 (d) 110002
10. Which of the following is not a network 22. Data can be defined as (a) raw facts (b) mixed
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION.
device? (a) Hub (b) Modem (c) Port (d) Router facts (c) facts on point (d) processed facts
SUBJECT. COMPUTER STUDIES
11. In a database, a Primary key is a field which 23. Which of the following output devices was
CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR contains (a) Text only (b) Unique entries common among the computing devices of the
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this (c) duplicate value (d) numeric values only 19th century? (a) monitor (b) plotter (c) printer
section 12. Converting 4B716 to binary is (d) speaker
1. Given that 2610 = X2, X is (a) 11011 (b) 11010 (a) 0100101001112 (b) 0100101101112 24. The pre-computing age devices which made
(c) 11110 (d) 10111 (c) 010010001112 (d) 0100110001112 use of beads and frame is (a) Abacus
2. In hexadecimal number system, B,D,E 13. The decimal number 1024in hexadecimal (b) Napier’s bone (c) Leibnitz multiplier
represents (a) 13, 14, 15 respectively (b) 12, equivalent is (a) 2416 (b) 40016 (c) 3E816 (d) Burroughs’s counting device
14, 15 respectively (c) 11, 13, 14 respectively (d) 8BB16 25. The system unit houses the following
(d) 13, 14, 15 respectively 14. A computer that requires the service of components except (a) plotter (b) mother
3. The conversion of 110012 to base 10 3qual another computer on a network is called board (c) floppy drive (d) central processing
(a) 30 (b) 28 (c) 25 (d) 20 (a) client (b) host (c) master (d) server unit
4. The acronym HTTP stands for (a) Hyper Text 15. In a star network, each nodes must (a) be 26. During program execution in the central
Transfer Protocol (b) hyper transfer text connected directly to adjacent nodes (b) be processing unit, the instruction is interpreted
protocol (c) hand tax transfer protocol connected to a central network hub (c) be by the (a) arithmetic logic unit (b) control unit
(d) higher text transfer protocol connected directly be a common backbone (c) Memory unit (d) registers unit
5. In ring topology, the computer that is allowed cable (d)possess a token before it can transmit 27. The most important system software in a
to transmit data possesses the (a) packet signal to adjacent node computer is the (a) control program
(b) data (c) access method (d) token 16. Which of the following views is used to create (b) language translation (c) operation system
6. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary database object in Microsoft Access? (a) design (d) utility program
number 10110111? (a)180 (b) 181 (c) 183 view (b) Data sheet view (c) layout view 28. QBASIC keywords do not include (a) Find
(d) 184 (d) normal view (b) LET (c) REM (d) STOP
7. The colour Palette in Corel draw allows user to 17. A field chosen to uniquely identify every record 29. The largest component in a spreadsheet is
(a) arrange colour (b) draw in colour (c) pick in a database is (a) foreign key (b) local key (a) call (b) range (c) work book (d) work sheet
colour tools (d) choose different pre-set colour (c) Primary key (d) Secondary key 30. Warm boot in computer is as (a) debugging
palette 18. An icon, a graphic or a text in a document or a (b) hand shake (c) hard boot (d) soft boot
8. In a network, the workstation is usually web page that connects to another file or 31. The BASIC computer operation involves the
connected to the (a) Hub (b) modem (c) router object is called a (a) hyper link (b) domain following except (a) Access (b) input (c) output
(d) switch name (c) web browser (d) web server (d) process
9. When browsing on the internet, a possible 19. The number28ten in binary is (a) 1001two
reason for the message page not found in the (b) 11001two (c) 110011two (d) 11100two
32. The file that contains historical record is called 41. Which of the following network cable offers (c) Define Network Topology 3marks
(a) data file (b) master file (c) reference file the highest data transmission speed? (d) List any three Network topology 3marks
(d) transaction file (b) Coaxial (c) Fibre Optic (d) Twisted pair (e) State three benefits of networking 3marks
33. Random file Organization is also known as 42. The speed of data transfer in the computer 2. (a) Write short notes on each of the following
(a) direct file organization (b) indexed file can be determined in terms of (a) Protocol i. Home page 2½mks
Organization (c) serial file Organization and bus speed (b) bus speed and bus width ii. Website 2½mks
(d) sequential file organization (c) bus width and storage media (d) bus and (b) List five benefits of www 5marks
34. Which of the following option is not a data storage media 3. (a) Define the following
type? (a) Alphabetic data (b) Alphanumeric 43. The process of restarting the system is known i. DBMS 2½mks
data (c) Numeric Data (d) Valid data as (a) cool booting (b) hard booting (c) hot ii. RDBMS 2½mks
35. The major component of a computer system booting (d) warm booting (b) i. State 2examples of graphics package
are (a) firmware ad hardware (b) hardware 44. A row in a database table is referred to as ___ 2marks
and firmware (c) hardware and software (a) attribute (b) data item (c) field (d) record (b) ii. List three features of Corel Draw 3marks
(d) software and firmware 45. The conversion of readable data to unreadable 4. (a) Define (i) Programming Language 2½mks
36. The largest computer system in terms of code in order to prevent unauthorized access is (ii) High level Language 2½mks
processing power is (a) Laptop computer known as (a) authentication (b) encryption (b) List five features of BASIC programming
(b) Mainframe computer (c) Minicomputer (c) encoding (d) decryption Language 5marks
(d) super computer 46. The algebraic equation for the AND gate with 5. (a) What is number Bases? 2marks
37. The Logic gate below represents input variable A and B is (a) X=A.B (b) X=A+B (b) convert the following
(c) X=A-B (d) X=A/B i. 4016 to base 2 2marks
47. The command line prompt of MS-DOS ii. 1111012 to base 10 2marks
operating system is represented as (a) C : > iii. 1778 to base 10 2marks
(a) AND gate (b)NAND gate (c) NOR gate (b) C :\ (c) C : \> (d) C\ : > iv. 25610 to base 8 2marks
(d)OR gate 48. The process of testing the logic of program to 6. (a) Write short notes on the following
38. Identify the logic gate below ensure they give current result is known as (i) Protocol 2marks
(a) algorithm (b) desk checking (c) flow (ii) HTTP 2marks
chatting (d) table checking (iii) HTML 2marks
(a) AND gate (b) NAND gate (c) NOR gate 49. The MS-window shortcut keys to initiate warm (iv) SMTP 2marks
(d) OR gate booting is (a) ALT + F4 (b) CTRL + ALT + DEL (b) State two uses of world wide web 2marks
39. Which of the following program is an (c) CTRL +ESC (d) CTRL + SHIFT+ DEL
application specific? (a) Corel Draw 50. The shortcut key for copy is (a) ALT + F4
(b) Microsoft Access (b) Microsoft word (b) CTRL + C (c) CTRL +P (d) CTRL + A
(d) Payroll system
40. The following program is an application software SECTION B. (THEORY)
except (a) Corel Draw (b) Editor (c) MS Access INSTRUCTION: Answer question 1 and any other 3
(d) MS word 1. (a) What is computer Network? 3marks
(b) List three types of Network 3marks
 SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 12. If set a has all the element in B, then A and B 26. 2 √ 3 (a) √ 12 (b) √ 4 x 3 (c) √ 2 x 3 (d) all of
SECONDARY SCHOOL, are said to be __ (a) finite (b) infinite (c) the above
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. equal (d) null 27. 3 √ 5 (a) √ 12 (b) √ 75 (c) √ 45 (d) √ 98
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 13. When a set has no element, it is said to be ___ 28. 5 √ 3 (a) √ 12 (b) √ 75 (c) √ 45 (d) √ 98
set (a) Null (b) finite (c) infinite (d) equal 29. 7 √ 2 (a) √ 12 (b) √ 75 (c) √ 45 (d) √ 98
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION.
An operation * is defined on the set of real Write the conjugates of the following surds
SUBJECT. FURTHER MATHS
x+ y 30. √ 3− √ 2 (a) √ 3+ √ 2 (b) √ 2+ √ 3 (c)
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR numbers R such that if x, y ϵ R, then x*y =
2 √ 2−√ 3 (d) −√ 3+ √ 2
. Use this information to answer 14 – 17 31. 2 √ 5+ 3 √ 3 (a) −2 √ 5+ 3 √ 3 (b) 2 √ 5−3 √ 3
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on Determine
this section (c) −2 √ 5−3 √ 3 (d) 3 √ 3−2 √ 5
5
1. A clearly collection of things, objects or 14. 3*2 (a) (b) – ½ (c) 5 (d) ½ 2 √ 3+3 √ 2
2 32. Simplify (a) ⅕(3−√ 6 (b)
numbers is called__ (a) set (b) element 5 4 √ 3−3 √ 2
(c) collection (d) fact 15. 7*3 (a) (b) – ½ (c) 5 (d) ½ 1 1 1
2 (7− √ 6) (c) (7+ √ 6) (d) (3+7 √ 6)
2. If x is a set of all prime numbers and P=7, then
5 5 5 5
(a) P∈X (b) P∈ X (c) P ∈ X (d) P ∈ X 16. – 5*4 (a) ½ (b) (c0 – ½ (d) 5 x
33. Solve 9((3 x ¿¿ 2)=27 ¿, x = (a) – 1 or – 2
2
3. What is the cardinality of set A = {h,e,t,f,g,x} (b) 1 or – 2 (c) – 1 or 2 (d) 1 or 2
5
(a) n(A) = 3 (b) n(A) = 4 (c) n(A) = 6 (d) n(A) = 0 17. ½ * ½ (a) ½ (b) (c) – ½ (d) 5 34. An operation * on the set of integers is defined
2
4. If X = {2,4,6,8} and Y = {2,5,9,11,12}, then X∩Y by x*y = x2+y2, calculate (3*4)*5 (a) 61 (b) 461
An operation ∇ is defined on the set S =
= (a) {2,4,5,6,8,9,11,12} (b) {2,4,6,8} (c) {2} (c) 4661 (d) 661
{0,1,2,3,4,5} by x∇ y = x + y – xy , find
(d) none of the above 35. Find the value of tan22.5 ° in surd form
18. 2 ∇ 5 (a) 4 ∈ S (b) 3∈ S (c) 1 ∈S (d) – 11∈ S
5. Another name for index is (a) power (b) base (a) 1− √ 2(b) 1+ √ 2 (c) √ 2−1(d) −1− √ 2
19. 3 ∇ 1 (a) 3 ϵ S (b) 1 ϵ S (c) 4 ϵ S (d) 3 ϵ S
(c) root (d) number Given that U = { all the letters of the alphabet},
2
20. 0∇ 1 (a) – 11 ϵ S (b) 1 ϵ S (c) 4 ϵ S (d) 3 ϵ S
6. Solve 64 3 (a) 4 (b) 16 (c) 1 (d) 14 21. 4 ∇ 5 (a) 3 ϵ S (b) 3 ϵ S (c) – 11 ϵ S (d) – 11 ϵ X={a,e,I,o,u} and Y = {e,b,c,d,f,h}.Use the
7. Find the value of (0.001)3 (a) 10-9 (b) 109 S information above to answer question 36 – 39
(c) 10-6 (d) 106 22. Given that A = { natural whole numbers} then A 36. Find X ∪ Y (a) {a,b,c,d} (b) {e,c,h} (c) {e}
is said to be (a) finite (b) infinite (c) equal (d) {a,b,c,d,e,f,h,I,o,u}
8. Solve the equation 22 x +2 x+1−8=0 X =
(d) Null 37. Find X ∩Y (a) {e} (b) {a,e} (c) {e,f,h}
(a) – 3 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 2
23. In set theory, R represents (a) natural numbers (d){a,b,c,d,e,f,I,o,u}
9. If the element in A are found in the universal
(b) Real numbers (c) integers (d) such that 38. X ∩Y ' (a) {a,I,o,u} (b) {e} (c) {a,e,I,o,u} (d)
set, then the set is said to be (a) equal
24. Using table find the value of √ 923.8 (a) 30.4 none of the above
(b) finite (c) subset (d) none of the above
(b) 3.04 (c) 3004 (d) 304 39. Find (X ∩Y )' (a) {a,i.o,u} (b) {e}
10. If log232 = 5, than 32 = (a) 24 (b) 26 (c) 25
25. Solve the surd √ 162 (a) −9 √ 2 (b) 9 √ 2 (c) {a,b,c,d,e,f,h,i,o,u} (d) {a, b, c, d, f, g, h, I, j,
(d) 84
(c) 2 √ 9 (d) √ 9 √ 2 k, l, j, k, l, m, n, o, p, q, r, s,t,u,v,w,x,y,z}
11. If log2 ( x x +2 x+5 ) = 2, then x = (a) 1 (b) 2 (c)
Write the following Basic forms in their single 40. Venn diagram was developed by (a) John Venn
3 (d) 1 twice
surd form (b) Paul Venn (c) Mark Venn (d) Alex Venn
 2
41. Find 27 3 (a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 16 (d) 12 Find
1
i. X ∩Y '
42. Solve 32 5 (a) 9 (b) 16 (c) 2 (d) 3 2marks ii. (X ∩Y )'
43. 3(3) x =27 , x=¿ (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 7 (d) – 2 2marks iii. X ∩Y
44. Solve log 4 ( x2 +15 ) =3 (a) – 7 (b) 7 (c) – 1 2marks iv X ∪ Y

3. Solve the following indicial equation

2marks
(d) 1
45. Express 5 √ 7 as a single surd (a) √ 35 √ 5 x 7
(c) √ 30 (d) √ 7 (a) 22 x −6(2¿¿ x )+ 8=0 ¿ 5marks
2 x +1
46. Given that √ 2=1.414 and √ 3=1.732, (b) 2 −5(2¿¿ x )+ 2=0 ¿ 5marks
5 4. Using table evaluate the following
simplify (a) 3.535 (b) – 3.535 (c) 3.464
√2 (a) 13.81 x 142.8 5marks
(d) 4.949
5. Simplify by rationalizing the denominator
(b) 1.234 x 37.86 5marks
47. In set theory, N is the set of (a) Real number
(b) Integer (c) Natural number (d) universal set 3+ √ 2
48. A’ means (a) A compliment (b) cardinality of A (a) 5marks
√5+ √3
(c) subset of A (d) None of the above
3 √ 2+2 √ 3
49. A Ϲ B means (a) A is subset of B (b) A is a (b)
superset of B (c) A is a number of B (d) None 4 √2

6. (a) Find the mid-point of the lines joining the

of the above 5marks
50. What is the full name of your Further
Mathematics teacher? (a) Mr. Nwala Ibe following pair
(b) Mr. Emmanuel Akpehe (c) Mr. Nwala Alex i. A(3,2) and B(1,3) 2marks
(d) Mr. Nwagbara Alexander ii. P( - 1, 7)and Q ( - 3. – 5) 2marks
iii. C(4,4) and D (2, - 6) 2marks
SECTION B:(ESSAY) (b) Find the pair of distance between the
Instruction: Answer question 1 and any other three following
1. Solve the following i. A(3,2) and B(4,6) 2marks
(a) log 10 ( x 2−4 x+7 )=2 5marks ii. C( -1 , 3) and D(2,-7) 2marks
(b) log 10 ( x −3 x+ 12 )=1
2
5marks
(c) log 3 ( x +7 x+ 21 )=2
2
5marks
2. (a) What is Set? 2marks
(b) Given that U= {all the letters of alphabet}
X = {a , e , I , o, u}
Y = { e, b, c, d, f, h}
 6. The nearest planet to the sun is (a) Jupiter 18. The federal capital territory came to be on a 3rd
(b) Saturn (c) Mercury (d) Earth February 1979 (b) 3rd march, 1976 (c)3rd
7. The degree of Longitude through which the February 1996 (d) 3rd February,1976
earth spins within 3hours is (a)15° (b) 30° 19. The satellite of the earth is (a) the sun
(c) 45° (d) 60° (b) Jupiter (d) the stars
8. The planet which revolves round the sun in a 20. It takes the earth ___ days to complete its
clock-wise direction is (a) Jupiter (b)Mars revolution) (a) 88 (b) 365¼ (c) 365½ (d) 366
(c) Saturn (d)Uranus 21. The vegetation of FCT is made up of (a) forest
9. What is the shape of the earth? (a) Geoid and swamp (b) forest and desert (c) savanna
(b) eclipse (c) round (d) oval and desert (d) forest and savanna
10. When the moon comes between the earth and 22. The soil of FCT is made up of (a) basement
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR the sun in a perfect straight line, which of the complex and nupe sandstone (b) laterite and
SECONDARY SCHOOL, following eclipse occur? (a) partial (b) full clay (c) basement complex and sandy bar
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (c) solar (d) lunar (d) clay and sandy soil
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 11. Which of the following is a service industry? 23. The greatest hydroelectricity potential in
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. (a) banking industry (b) food producing Nigeria is found in the (a) Cross River basin
(c) cement factory (d) pharmaceutical (b) Sokoto plain (c) Niger Benue trough
SUBJECT. GEOGRAPHY industry (d) eastern highland
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR 12. Calculate the distance between the equator 24. The planet with the largest orbit around the
(latitude 0°) and a city Z in Egypt (latitude30°) sun is (a) the earth (b) Pluto (c) Jupiter
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this (a) 2,300km (b) 3000km (c) 3330km (d) Venus
section (d) 4430km 25. The local time of a place on longitude 64°E
1. When it is 9.00amin Munich Western 13. The envelope of gas surrounding the earth when the GMT is 10.00am is (a) 2.16am
Germany(long. 11°E) the time in Calcuta India crust is called (a) hydrosphere (b) barysphere (b)5.44am (c) 2.16pm (d)5.44pm
(long. 96°E) is (a) 2.40am (b) 4.20am (c) atmosphere (d) lithosphere 26. The planet often considered as the earth’s twin
(c) 5.40 am (d) 5.40pm 14. Which of the following is not a characteristics because of their close similarities in size, mass
2. What is the longitude of a place X whose time of line of longitude? They (a) run from east to and density is (a) Venus (b) Mercury
is 12noon when Greenwich Mean Time is west (b) converge at the poles (c) run from (c) Jupiter (d) Pluto
6pm? (a) 90°W (b) 90°E (c) 60°E (d) 60°W north to south (d) are used in calculating local 27. The planet with rings of circular light and dark
3. Which of the following type of sedimentary time bands is the (a) Mars (b) Saturn (c) Uranus
rock is paired with the wrong texture? (a) clay 15. The layer of the earth crust is called (d) Jupiter
– very fire particles (b) sandy – coarse (c) silt (a) hydrosphere (b) lithosphere (c) mesosphere 28. One of the advantages of solar energy is that
– medium grained (d0 gravel – rounded and (d) core (a) it is available 24hours of the day (b) it is
larger particles 16. A great circle can best be described as (a) line natural and does not require periodic
4. Which of the following minerals is most likely of longitude (b) circle whose plane passes maintenance (c) it is harnessed with the aid of
to be absent in a region consisting mainly of through the centre of the globe (c) the equator technology (d) it is cheap
igneous and metamorphic rocks? (a) Gold (d) the shortest distance between two points 29. Which of the following is mostly hindered by
(b) coal (c) Tin (d) diamond 17. All the following are major sources of air line squalls, harmattan haze and rainy season
5. Rock which do not allow water to pass pollution except (a) gas flaring (b)domestic cloud? (a) land transport (b) air transport
through them are (a) previous rocks (b) porous cooking (c) aviation combustion (d) industrial (c) water transport (d) rail transport
rocks (c) impermeable rocks (d) permeable furnance 30. The surface zone of the earth that is occupied
rocks by living organisms is referred to as
 (a) lithosphere (b) biosphere (c) hydrosphere (a) atmosphere (b) lithosphere (c) biosphere 1. (a) Explain 4 importance of Geography 4mrks
(d) barysphere (d) hydrosphere (b) Use 5 proof, including diagram to explain
31. Which of the following planets has no 41. Which of the following is not a metamorphic the shape of the earth 10mrks
satellite? (a) Uranus (b) Venus (c) Pluto rock? (a) grit (b0 schist (c) marble (d) slate
(c) Define Rock 1mrk
(d) Neptune 42. If the standard time of a country is GMT + 1
32. Which of the following is not true of the hour, which longitude local time is adopted by 2. (a) Write out three effects of rotation and three
relationship between the sun and the earth the country? (a) 60°W (b) 60°E (c) 15°E effects of revolution 6mrks
(a) earth is held by sun’s gravitational force (d) 15°W (b) State four differences between lines of
(b) sun supplies heat and light energy to the 43. Rocks that are formed by the cooling and Longitude and lines of Latitude 4mrks
earth (c) sun revolves round the earth (d) the solidification of molten magma are likely to be 3. (a) Explain the three types of rock 6mrks
distance from the earth to the sun is (a) Igneous rocks (b) sedimentary rocks (b) Draw a clear diagram of the structure of
148,800,000km (c) chemical rocks (d)mechanical rocks
the earth 4mrks
33. ___ which of the following is not a proof of 44. Which of the following minerals is most likely
the earth’s sphericity (a) deflection of wind to be absent in a region consisting mainly of 4. An international cricket match between
(b) circumnavigation (c) ships visibility igneous and metamorphic rocks (a) gold Gambia and India is scheduled to start in
(d) circular horizon (b) coal (c) tin (d) diamond Banjul (longitude 16°W) at 9.00am local time
34. Seasonal changes in weather and climate are 45. The angular distance of a point on the earth’s on 26th June. Calculate the time and day that
caused by (a) rotation of the earth on its axis surface measured in degree from the centre of listeners will have to tune their radio for the
(b) direct overhead sun on tropic of cancer the earth is known as (a) orbit (b) axis start of the commentary at (a) Bombary 74°E
(c) direct overhead sun on tropic of Capricorn (c) meridian (d) latitude
(b) Pitsburg 80°W 10marks
(d) revolution of the earth round the sun 46. They are form in layer and derived from old
35. What is the distance between a man standing rocks and the remains of dead organic 5. (a) Outline three major difference between
at latitude 16°N and another standing at materials. This description refers to sedimentary rocks and metamorphic rocks
latitude 26°S? (a) 4660km (b) 4662km (a) metamorphic rocks (b) igneous rocks 3marks
(c) 4626km (d) 4266km (c) sedimentary rocks (d) intrusive rocks (b) State four Uses of rocks 4marks
36. ___ refers to the brief period between sunrise 47. Igneous rock contains (a) humus (b) fossils (c) Outline three characteristics of Igneous
and full daylight (a) morning (b) twilight (c) strata (d) crystals rock 3marks
(c) dawn (d) evening 48. Which of the statement about Jupiter is not
6. (a) Briefly describe any 4 of the following
37. Sedimentary rocks are usually (a) crystalline true? It (a) is next planet to the earth
(b) impervious (c) stratified (d)alkaline (b) revolves round the sun (c) is the only i. core ii. Mantle iii. Hydrosphere
38. They are formed from the accumulation of planet with thirteen satellites (d) is the largest iv. Atmosphere (v) Hydrosphere
materials derived from other rocks which have planet in the solar system vi. Biosphere
been cemented together. This is a description 49. The line that divides the globe into two equal (b)Explain the following terms
of (a) metamorphic rock (b) plutonic rock part in latitude is (a) equator (b) Greenwich i. Time zone ii. Greenwich mean time
(c) organically formed sedimentary rocks (c) angular (d) degree iii. Standard time v. International date
(d) volcanic rock 50. Air pollution may cause (a) balanced energy
line
39. The earth’s movement from east to west on its system in the atmosphere (b) acid rain
axis is known as (a) rotation (b) revolution formation (c) increased photosynthesis
(c) friction (d) movement (d) increased evaporation
40. The surface zone of the earth that is occupied
by living organism is referred to as SECTION B (THEORY)
Instruction: Answer question 1 and any other three
 8. Which of the following settlement is not 19. During wave action, the rush of water onshore
visible from Bako? (a) Adub (b) Gode is called (a) long shore drift (b) swash
(c) Hamas (d) Odima (c) under tow (d) back swash
9. Which of the following is not likely to be 20. The cool temperature wood land is
occupation in the area? (a) farming characterized by (a) sparse undergrowth and
(b) lumbering (c) fishing (d) mining broad – leave deciduous trees (b) very sparse
10. The area covered by the map is approximately vegetation of terophytes plants (c) wiry grass
(a) 299km (b) 250km (c) 205km (d) 270km and shrubs (d) rolling grassland that are
11. Which of the following is the most important treeless
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR use of natural vegetation in savanna region? 21. Which of this is not a measure of
SECONDARY SCHOOL, (a) wildlife habitation (b) grazing (c) firewood environmental control? (a) preservation
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (d) hunting (b) stabilization (c) regradation
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 12. In koppen’s system ofclassification, the first (d) afforestation
member of the system represents the (a) dry 22. All the following are major source of air
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. climate (b) warm temperate climate pollution except(a) gas faring (b) domestic
SUBJECT. GEOGRAPHY (c) tropical rainy climate (d) polar climate cooking (c) aviation combustion (d) industrial
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR 13. Which of the following did the Greeks use in furnance
classifying the climate? (a) precipitation and 23. All the following can be made from the by-
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this temperature (b) latitude and temperature product of crude oil except (a) plastic
section (c) precipitation and latitude (d) temperature (b) synthetic rubber (c) glass (d) insecticide
Use the Map of Ududu District to answer only 24. The natural resources of the nation cannot be
questions 1 -10 14. Which of the following does not include the measured in terms of (a) forest (b) minerals
1. The scale of the map in representation fraction management of environmental hazard? (c) buildings (d) rivers
is (a) 1 : 50,000 (b) 1:100,000 (c) 1:150,000 (a) detection (b) response (c) planning 25. Which of the following poses the greatest
(d) 1:250,000 (d) prevention problem to agriculture in the north-eastern part
2. The bearing of Ududu from Achaka is 15. Which of the following is not an of Nigeria? (a) land tenure system (b) sparse
approximately (a) 25° (b) 115° (c) 155° environmental hazard? (a) flooding farming population (c) inadequate capital
(d) 205° (b) desertification (c) deforestation (d) urban (d) desert encroachment
3. The feature marked X is a good example of renewals 26. The soil in a tropical rainforest remains fertile
(a) cliff (b) saddle (c) knoll (d) carp 16. Environmental conservation is usually limited and suitable for arable agriculture because
4. The approximate distance from Fakal to to all except (a) wildlife (b) time (c) minerals (a) the vegetation is luxuriant (b) there is
Aduba as the crow flies is (a) 5km (b) 10km (d) deforestation abundant supply of sunshine and rainfall
(c) 12km (d) 15km 17. Soil conservation consist of all the following which leach the soil (c) the soil nutrient is
5. Bako is a good example of (a) confluence except (a) strip farming (b) terrace farming continuously being replenished by the decay
town (a) linear settlement (b) mining (c) planting of cover crops (d) irrigation of the dense under-growth and fallen level
town (d) conurbation 18. Which of the following is a method of water (d) the soil is well drained
6. The contour interval on the map is (a) 50m conservation (a) sale of package water 27. Which of the following does not intervene in
(b) 100m (c) 150m (d) 180m (b) indiscriminate digging of wells and the natural environment (a) construction
7. The feature A – D can best be described as boreholes (c) practice of irrigation (d) rain works (b) pollution (c) farming (d)
(a0 knoll (b) an inselberq (c) a plateau (d) a water collection harmattan
ridge
28. Water pollution is caused by all the following 39. Which of the following soil type is the most 50. The resources in the atmosphere include all the
except (a) sand filling (b) sewage disposal permeable? (a) loamy (b) clay (c) sandy following except (a) vegetation (b) rain
(c) industrial influence (d) mineral workings (d) laterite (c) wind (d) gases
29. Which of the following least affects the 40. Which of the following features is not
distribution of vegetation? (a) man (b) rainfall associated with coastal erosion (a) bay SECTION B: THEORY
(c) wind (d) soil (b) wave-cut (c) stack (d) geo
30. Which of the following environmental hazard 41. The word shore is best described as the zone Instruction: Answer question 1 and any other three
is due primarily to human activities? (a) water extends from the coastline on the sea
(a)earthquake (b) volcanic eruption (b) between high and low water levels at the 1. (a) Reproduce the map of Ududu district to a
(c) hurricane (d) ozone depletion coast (c) that marks the seaward limit of the scale of 1: 200, 000 2marks
31. The resources of the atmosphere include all coast (d) extending under the shallow water (b) In your outline, name and show
the following except (a) vegetation (b) rain 42. Temperature grassland are generally i. Area hable to flooding 1mark
(c) wind (d) gases important for (a) mining (b) grazing ii. Built – up area 1mark
32. Trees in a savanna region develop the (c) floating of logs (d) burning of grassland iii. A ridge 1mark
following adaptation to enable them survive for food (c) State the types of population 3marks
the long dry season except (a) shallow roots 43. A major characteristics of the tropical savanna (d) Explain any of the population using two
(b) long tap roots (c) thick barks (d) thin woodland vegetation is that (a) it contains tall point
leaves trees only (b) it is thick fire stead (c) the tree i. Causes ii. effect iii. Control 3marks
33. Which of the following is not a form of form a continuous canopy (d) tall grasses and 2. (a) Explain the Greeks system of classification
precipitation (a) had (b) dust (c) dew (d) snow scattered tree 6marks
34. The acacia tree is commonly found in the 44. The difference between high tide and low tide (b) State two cricisms of Greek classification
(a) coniferous forest (b) Mediterranean lands is referred to as (a) tidal gauge (b) tidal 2mark
(c) savanna land (d) mangrove forest height (c) tidal wave (d) tidal flow (c) Outline two reasons why Koppen’s system
35. African rivers exhibits the following 45. The most common environmental problem in of classification is most widely accepted 2mks
characteristics except (a) that they have their the Niger Delta is (a) deforestation (b) aridity 3. (a) Explain two types of environmental
sources in the interior high land (b) the (c) coastal flooding (d) volcanicity hazards 2marks
presence of rapid waterfalls on their courses 46. Which of the following occupation is not (b) Explain three ways of preventing desert
(c) that they exhibits seasonal variation in common among the people of southern environmental 6marks
water volume (d) that they have great depth coastland of Nigeria? (a) fishery (b) lumbering (c) State two causes of flooding 2marks
36. In tropical deserts , there is large divinal range (c) trading (d) cattle rearing 4. (a) State two reasons for environmental
of temperature because of the (a) absence of 47. Which major advantage does road transport conservation
radiation (b) scarcity of water (c) prevalence have over other means of transport? (a) it is (b) Write two importance of environmental
of strong wind (d) absence of highlands the cheaper means of transport (b) it is fast conservation
37. The major effect of drought in Nigeria is (c) it delivers door – to – door (d) it is (c) Mention two ways of conserving each of
(a) increased solar energy (b) population relatively safe the following
migration (c) the increased harvest yield per 48. The least important factor for the location of (i) Soil (ii) Mineral resources (iii) Forest
hectare (d) temperature inversion settlement is the availability of (a) water 5. (a) Highlight five terms associated with wave
38. The continuous circulatory movement of (b) land for building (c) communication 1 mark each
surface water in the ocean is termed (a) wave network (d) fertile soil (b) Explain the mechanisms of wave erosion
(b) tides (c) ripples (d) current 49. Which of the following resources is renewable 1mark each
(a) Petroleum (b) coal (c) natural gas (c) What are the agents of erosion mark
(d) hydro-electricity
6. (a) What is environmental resources 2marks 7. ___ is concerned with buying of goods in large construction (c) furniture construction
(b) State four environmental resources 4marks quantity (a) retail (b) commerce (c) trade (d) fishermen
(c) Explain atmosphere as a resource 2marks (d) wholesale 21. Commercial activities include the following
(d) differentiate between renewable and non- 8. Home trade is sub-divided into ___ (a) 4 (b) 2 except (a) banking (b) transportation
renewable resources (c) 3 (d) 6 (c) trading (d) worshiping
9. ___ makes funds available to trade 22. Examples of commercial workers includes the
(a) advertising (b)warehousing (c) banking following except (a) bankers (b) traders
(d) tourism (c) worshipers (d) insurance
10. ___ provides the means of carrying raw 23. There are__ types of service occupation (a) 2
material (a) transport (b) banking (c) tourism (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 3
(d) insurance 24. Examples of direct service workers include the
11. ___ is the security made against losses following except (a) barbers (b)soldiers
(a) banking (b) transport (c) tourism (c) steward (d) house maids
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (d) insurance 25. Examples of indirect service workers include
SECONDARY SCHOOL, 12. Foreign trade is sub-divided into __ (a) 4 the following except (a) housemaids (b)
(b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 3 soldiers (c) civil servant (d) policemen
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. 13. ___ is the sales of goods to other countries 26. Industrial production is sub-divided into ___
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR (a) trade (b) tourism (c) export (d) import (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 6
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. 14. __ is the act of buying goods from other 27. ___ production is concerned with the
SUBJECT. COMMERCE countries (a) import (b) export (c) wholesale extraction of raw materials (a) commercial
(d) retail (b) primary (c) secondary (d) services
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR 15. __ is the process of creating awareness about 28. ___ production involves the transformation of
goods to the public (a) warehousing raw materials into finished goods (a) services
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this (b) insurance (c) advertising (d) transportation (b) commercial (c) secondary (d) primary
section 16. __ is the process which ensures that goods 29. ___ production is concerned with the
1. The central focus of commerce is ___ produced are store until they are needed provision of commercial services (a) tertiary
(a) production (b) exchange (c) consumption (a) warehousing (b) tourism (c) insurance (b) primary (c) secondary (d) consumers
(d) product (d) communication 30. There are ___ factors of production (a) 2 (b) 5
2. Commerce involves time, place and ___ 17. Examples of industries occupation include the (c) 4 (d) 3
(a0 trade (b) product (c) utility (d) services following except (a) food processing 31. Land include the following except (a) forest
3. The scope of commerce include the following (b) extraction (c) construction (b) river (c) oceans (c) money
except (a) product (b) tourism (c) banking (d) manufacturing 32. The reward for land is ___ (a) salary
(d) trading 18. Industrial workers include the following (b) wages (c) rent (d) profit
4. Trade is divided into ___ (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 except (a) miners (b) goldsmith (c) fishermen 33. There are ___ types of labour (a) 2 (b) 3
(d) 2 (d) farmers (c) 5 (d) 4
5. There are __ main division of trade (a) 2 (b) 5 19. Examples of manufacturing occupation 34. The reward for labour is ___ (a) rent
(c) 3 (d) 4 include the following except (a) shoemaking (b) capital (c) profit (d) wages
6. __ is concerned with buying of goods in small (b) textile processing (c) farmers (d) plastic 35. __ factor of production is manmade (a) capital
quantity (a) trade (b) retail (c) wholesale processing (b) land (c) labour (d) entrepreneur
(d) commerce 20. Examples of constructive occupation include 36. The reword for capital is ___ (a ) profit
the following except (a) goldsmith (b) road (b) interest (c)rent (d) wages
37. There are __ types of goods (a) 4 (b)3 (c) 5 Instruction: Answer 4 question
(d) 2
38. Small scale retail include the following except 1. (a) Explain the meaning of commerce 2marks
(a) hawking (b) mobile shop (c) supermarket
(b) Illustrate the diagram of commerce 10mrks
(d) street trading
39. Large scale retail market (c) chain store (d) (c) State 3 importance of commerce 3marks
mail order
2. Explain 5 aids to trade 10marks
40. ___ is a type of labour requires no formal
education (a) skilled (b) semi-skilled 3. (a) Explain extractive occupation 5marks
(c) unskilled (d) specialize
(b) Explain Manufacturing occupation 5marks
41. ___ type of labour requires formed education
(a) semi-skilled (b) skilled (c) unskilled 4. (a) Explain the meaning of production 2marks
(d) specialize (
42. The reward for entrepreneur is ___ (a) profit
(b) rent (c) wages (d) interest b) Explain primary production 2marks
43. There are ___ types of want (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (c) Explain secondary production 2marks
(d) 5
44. __ is a form of trade in which traders move (d) State 4 factors of production 4marks
their goods from one toe another on their head 5. (a) Mention 5 types of small scale retail 5mrks
(a) shop (b) store (c) super market (d) hawking
45. ___ is the form of trade where goods are (b) State 5 types of large scale retail 5marks
arranged in a motor van (a) shop (b) hawking 6. (a) State 8 commercial activities 8marks
(c) mobile shop (d) market trading
46. ___ is a small store located in front of (b) Define trade 2marks
residential area (a) hawking (b) kiosk (c) store 7. (a) Explain two aids to trade 5marks
(d) shop
47. ___ is a large retail business unit selling (b) Mention 5 Capital goods 5marks
mainly household items (a) mail order
(b) super market (c) chain store (d) discount
houses
48. ___ is the act of attaching a trader name to a
product (a) advertising (c) insurance
(c) branding (d) transport
49. ___ is the means of sending and receiving
information (a) communication (b) advertising
(c) transport (d) warehousing
50. The name of Suzz Tenderly commerce teacher
isb___(a) Mr. Bisong (b) Mr. Ibe (b) Mr.
Williams (c) Chief Goje Thomas

SECTION B: THEORY
 6. ___ is a means of communication through the product (a) mass (b) direct (c) indirect
exchange of written document (a) written (d) persuasive
communication (b) talking drum (c) oral 20. __ advertising is aimed to a section (a) mass
communication (d) metal gong (b) direct (c) indirect (d) specific
7. __ traditional media of communication 21. __ advertising is directed to the totality of the
signifies peace during a period of chaos public (a) indirect (b) direct (c) Mass
(a) gun blast (b) palm frond (c) metal gong (d) specific
(d) talking drum 22. Advertising media include the following
8. Postal services include the following except except (a) library (b) radio (c) television
(a) radio telephone (b) parcel post (c) express (d) cinema
letter (d) ordinary letter 23. Advertising employs theatrical films
9. Computer services include the following (a) Television (b) radio (c) cinema
except (a) internet (b) E-mail (c) worldwide (d) newspaper
website (d) express letter 24. __ advertising media is verbal and has the
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 10. __ is a means of sending electronic letters widest reach in Nigeria (a) Radio (b) Cinema
SECONDARY SCHOOL, (a) express letter (b) internet (c) E-mail (c) television (d) press
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (d) world wide website 25. __ advertising media is in form of booklet
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 11. __ is the graphical multimedia portion of the which contain photographs (a) Radio
internet (a) E-mail (b) internet (c)website (b) catalogue (c) Cinema (d) Television
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. (d) telegram 26. __ are avenues for displaying goods to
SUBJECT. COMMERCE 12. ___ is a global network of computer promote sales (a) handbills (b) fliers (c) trade
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR (a) internet (b) website (c) Email (d) satellite faire (d) hoarding
13. __ is a communication equipment stationed in 27. __ is a medium of advertising which is audio-
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this the space to send signals (a) internet visual (a) radio (b) handbill (c) fliers
section (b) satellite (c) E-mail (d) website (d) television
1. Traditional media of communication include 14. Forms of telephone services include the 28. ___ is a form of outdoor advertising
the following except (a) Radio (b) palm following except (a) directories (b) telex (a) hoarding (b) radio (c) Cinema (d) handbills
frond (c) metal gong (d) talking drum services (c) parcel post (d) subscriber trunk 29. __ is any advert sent through the mail
2. ___ are people that pass information from one dialing (a) handbill (b) direct mail (c) Cinema
place to another on foot (a) town criers 15. There are __ types of advertising (a) 4 (b) 6 (d) radio
(b) metal gong (c) talking drum (d) gun blast (c) 5 (d) 2 30. __ are printed leaflets containing information
3. ___ traditional media is used to mark 16. __ advertising informs the public about the about a product which are distributed to people
traditional festival or burials (a) smoke signal existence of a product (a)persuasive (b0 mass (a) handbills (b) radio (c) cinema (d) hoarding
(b) metal gong (c) palm frond (d) gun blast (c) competitive (d) informative 31. Tourism is commonly associated with __
4. There are __ forms of communication (a) 4 17. __ advertising is used to introduce consumers travelling (a) home (b) local (c) international
(b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 3 (a) informative (b) persuasive (c) mass (d) domestic
5. ___ is a form of communication in which (d) specific 32. Types of tourism include the following except
people exchange information through spoken 18. __ advertising is good for products with close (a) life (b) sex (c) religious (d) cultural
words (a) talking drum (b) metal gong substitutes (a) persuasive (b) mass 33. There are __ types of trade (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6
(c) written communication (d) oral (c) competitive (d) specific (d) 2
communication 19. ___ advertising in which manufacture of 34. Home trade can be subdivided into ___ (a) 2
similar products jointly advertising their (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5
35. Commerce is divided into ___ (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6 50. Insurance agents can be subdivided into ____
(d) 2 (a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
36. There are ___ aids to trade (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4
(d) 5 SECTION B: ESSAY
37. Occupation is classified into ___ (a) 4 (b) 3 Instruction: Answer four questions. Question 1 is
(c) 5 (d) 2 compulsory
38. Non-insurance risk include the following 1. (a) Explain insurable risk 2marks
except (a) life insurance (b) gambling
(b) Explain non-insurable risk 2marks
(c) change in fashion (d) speculation
39. Insurable include the following except (c) State 6 insurable risk 6marks
(a) marine (b) motor (c) gambling (d) burglary
(d) State 5 non-insurable risk 5marks
40. There are __ principles of insurance (a) 7
(b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 14 2. Explain 5 types of Advertising 10marks
41. Motor vehicle insurance is subdivided into ___
3. Explain 5 traditional means of communication
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
42. __ is the compensation given to the insured by 10marks
the insurer (a) contribution (b) proximate
4. (a) Explain the meaning of Tourism 2marks
cause (c) subrogation (d) indemnity
43. __ insurance principle state that one only (b) State 5 types of Tourism 5marks
insure properties that will bring loss to himself
(c) Mention 2 importance of Tourism 2marks
upon destruction (a) insurable risk
(b) subrogation (c) utmost good faith 5. (a) Explain underwriting 2marks
(d) contribution
(b) Explain underwriter 2marks
44. __ insurance principle state that an insurance
company can take over the rights of the (c) Explain reinsurance 2marks
insured once he has been compensated
(d) Explain indemnity 2marks
(a) contribution (b) subrogation
(c) abandonment (d) indemnity (d) Explain subrogation 2marks
45. ___ insurance covers debts that may not be
6. Explain 5 advertising media 10marks
paid by the debtors (a) cash in transit (b) fire
(c) theft (d) bad debt 7. (a) State 8 scopes of Commerce 8marks
46. __ insurance policy provides compensation for
(b) Define Commerce 2marks
losses which may arise from goods stolen
through breaking into shop (a) burglary (b) fire
(c) motor (d) marine
47. Motor vehicle is sub-divided into ___ (a) 4
(b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 3
48. ___ insurance provides cover for loss caused
by burning (a) burglary (b) fire (c) marine
(d) motor
49. The middleman in insurance can be classified
into __ (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7
 of the vacuole and leaving the cytoplasm 15. The scientist who discovered the cell while
attached to the cell wall examining a thick slice of cork under the
5. Which of the following structure controls the microscope was (a) Antonvan Leevwenhook
activities of the living cell? (a) centrosome (b) Mathias Schleiden (c) Robert Hooke
(b) chloroplast (c) nucleus (d) golgi body (d) Theodor Schwann (e) Alexander Fleming
(e) mitochondrion 16. From what they discover cell (a) Bread
6. Most of the energy in the cell is produced in (b) Rice (c) Honey-comb (d) Mushroom
the (a) lysosome (b) mitochondrion (c) plastid 17. In what year Robert Hooke discovered cell
(d) golgi body (e) cytoplasm (a0 1675 (b) 1665 (c) 1685 (d) 1661
7. Which of the following pairs of organism are 18. They cell theory is grouped into how many
photosynthetic? (a) Amoeba and paramecium parts (a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4
(b) Volvox and phizopus (c) clamydomonas 19. All cells came from previously existing cells
and euglena (d) nostoc and plasmodium (a) true (b) false (c) all of the above (d) none
8. One important characteristics of green plant is of the above
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR that they (a) are autotrophic (b) possess 20. Which of these is forms in which living cells
SECONDARY SCHOOL, specialized sense organs (c) are usually motile exist? (a) as independent and free living
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (d) respond slowly to stimuli organism (b) as a family (c) as a group (d) as
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 9. A major difference between plants and a compound
animals is that (a) there is free movement in 21. A good example of free living organism is __
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. animals while this is limited in plants (b) there (a) Volvox (b) Amoeba (c) Spirogyra (d) man
SUBJECT. BIOLOGY is indefinite growth in animals only 22. Arrange these in ascending order (a) Cell –
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR (c) animals consume inorganic materials of tissues—organs – system (b) Tissues ---
food while plants consume organic (d) organs --- systems --- cells (c) cells ---- organs
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this animals give up CO2 as waste product of ---tissues --- systems (d) systems --- organs ---
respiration while plants do not tissues --- cells
section 10. Which of these organisms exist as a filament 23. ___ is the ability of an organism to move its
1. The protoplasm of a living cell is made up of (a) euglena (b) spirogyra (c) Volvox own whole body or part of its body from one
the nucleus and (a) vacuole (b) cytoplasm (d) diatom place to another (a) irritability (b) Nutrition
(c) cell wall (d) cell sap 11. All but one is not found in an animal cell (c) movement (d) growth
2. Which of the following is described as an (a) golgi body (b) chloroplast (c) endoplasmic 24. ___ is a basic unit of life (a) Tissue (b) Cell
increase in dry weight? (a) reproduction reticulum (d) mitochondrion (c) Organ (d)System
(b) growth (c) ingestion (d) absorption 12. The characteristics of living things include all 25. The cell theory are grouped into how many?
3. Which of the following pairs of organisms but one (a) respiration (b) growth (c) rotation (a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5
exist as colonies? (a) hydra and spirogyra (d) movement 26. Amoeba has __ shape (a) regular (b) spherical
(b) obelia and euglena (c) pandoria and 13. The scientist to discover the cell structure is __ (c) irregular (d) triangle
Volvox (d) chlamydomonas and Amoeba (a) Mathias Schleiden (b) Felix Dujardin 27. A good example of filament is ___ (a) Volvex
4. Which of the following statement defines (c) Robert Hooke (d) Theodor Schwann (b) Colony (c) Spirogyra (d) Amoeba
plasmolysis? (a) shrinking of a plant cell in a 14. The process of anaerobic respiration of yeast 28. Protoplasm is divided into __ (a) cytoplasm
solution (b) shrinking away of cytoplasm from in sugar solution is known as (a) oxidation and nucleus (b) mitochondrion and golgi body
an animal cell membrane (c) shrinking away (b) tissues (c) fermentation (d) alcohol (c) cell wall and nucleus (d) lysosomes and
of cytoplasm from the plant cell (d) shrinking production (e) decomposition ribosomes
29. __ is a process by which food is taken in by 41. Unit of life is ___ (a) organ (b) tissues (d) State 3 similarities between plant cell and
living organisms in order to supply the nutrient (c) system (d) cell animal cell 3marks
required for the continuous metabolic 42. The hereditary material in a living organism is 2. (a) with the aid of a well-labelled diagram,
reactions going on in the body (a) irritability located inside the (a) protein wall describe the structure of a plant cell 5marks
(b) Nutrition (c) growth (d) respiration (b) cytoplasm (c) nucleus (d) lysosomes (b) Give 5 different plant features in euglena
30. ___ is the source of nutrients (a) food 43. Respiration is an essential life process 5marks
(b) beans (c) starch (d) vitamin providing the cells with (a) Oxygen (b) sugars 3. (a) Define cell 2marks
31. ___ is the type of nutrition which organisms (c) energy (d) carbondioxide (b) State the cell theory 8marks
are able to manufacture their own food 44. The organelle involved in the transport of 4. (a) Define Nutrition 2marks
(a) heterotrophic nutrition (b) photosynthesis substances with a cell is (a) Golgi body (b) Mention types of nutrition and the classes
(c) chemosynthesis (d) autotrophic nutrition (b) endoplasm reticulum (c) ribosome of food 8marks
32. A good example of macro-nutrients is _____ (d) mitochondrion 5. Briefly describe the history of the cell together
(a) Boron (b) Oxygen (c) Helium (d) Iodine 45. The site for production of ATP in a cell is with the scientist 10marks
33. The process by which plant manufacture food (a) ribosome (b) mitochondrion (c) cytoplasm 6. Define the following
from carbondioxide and water using energy (d) Golgi body i. Science 2marks
from sun is termed (a)Chemosynthesis 46. The mode of nutrition common to green plant ii. Osmosis 2marks
(b) autotrophism (c) photosynthesis is (a) autotrophic (b) heterotrophic iii. Diffusion 2marks
(d) Heterotrophism (e) Transpiration (c) holozoic (d) saprophytic iv. Autotrophic 2marks
34. __ ia a plant group that belongs to monera 47. Amoeba moves by means of __ v. Heterotrophic 2marks
(a) Schizophyta (b) Thallophyta (c) bryophyte (a) Pseudopodia (b) cilia (c) chatae (d) flagella
(d) pteridophyta (e) spermotophyta 48. The first scientist to describe cell was
35. The process by which molecules or ions of a (a) Robert Hooke (b) Theodore Schwann
substance move from a region of high (c) Felix Dujardin (d) Mathias Schleiden
concentration to a region of low concentration 49. A bacterial cell differs from eukaryotic cells
is called__ (a) diffusion (b) osmosis by having no (a) cell wall (b) cell membrane
(c) plasmolysis (d) turgidity (e) active (c) nucleus material (d) cellulose cell wall
transport 50. Which of the following is not correct about the
36. All these are difference between plants and living cell (a) the basic unit of a living
animals except (a) growth is definite and organism (b) all living organisms are either
epical in plant (b) plants are not active single or groups of cells (c) all the cells in
(c) plants are autotrophic (d) plant can organisms are the same (d) there is no life
deficate apart from the life in cells
37. Which of these is one of the characteristics of
living things? (a) movement (b) house (c) sun SECTION B: ESSAY
(d) market INSTRUCTION. Answer four questions, question
38. How many kingdom do we have? (a) 6 (b) 5 1 is compulsory
(c) 4 (d) 3 1. (a) Define Biology 2marks
39. A good example of animalia is ___ (a) earth (b) Mention 5 characteristics of living things
(b) Lion (c) all animals (d) cell 5marks
40. ___ is defined as the structural and functional (c) State 5 differences between plants and
unit of living organism (a) House (b) School animals 5marks
(c) cell (d) tissues
 5. Data presented in tables are usually arranged 17. The most acceptable definition of Economics
in (a) rows and columns (b) rows and chart was by (a) Lionel Robins (b) J. S Mill
(c) column and horizontal (d) vertical and row (c) Adam Smith (d) professor Rashidat
6. The function of advertising in the chain of 18. Which of the following is a tertiary
(a) wholesaler (b) consumer (c) government production? (a) raw materials (b) fishery
(d) none (c) semi- finished goods (d) teacher
7. The factor of production that coordinates other 19. Human want are unlimited as the ______
factors production is ___ (a) entrepreneur (a) production is in adequate (b) need
(b) capital (c) labour (d) land decrease every day (c) needs are legal
8. The wholesaler and __ are the middle men in (d) resource for satisfy are unlimited
the chain of distribution (a) retailer 20. An arrangement of data in rows and column is
(b) consumer (c) producers (d) hawkers referred to as (a) graph (b) histogram (c) pie
9. All the following are measure of central chart (d) table
tendency except (a) variable (b) mode 21. Mode means (a) the highest frequency (b) the
(c) arithmetic mean (d) median lowest frequency (c) average of the middle
10. The concept of opportunity cost is also refers number (d) group in data
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR to as (a) alternative forgone (b) durable 22. Which of the following is for mining?
SECONDARY SCHOOL, forgone (c) concept forgone (d) variable (a) tertiary production (b) primary production
forgone (c) winner production (d) plot production
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. 11. In economics scarcity means (a) resources 23. Which of the following is true about land?
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR are limited (b) demand are unlimited (c) the (a) land is mobile (b) land is weak (c) land is
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. price of a commodity (d) the quantity of immobile (d) land is natural
SUBJECT. ECONOMICS goods 24. A normal demand curve slopes (a) upward
12. Distribution is part of production because it left (b) upward right (c) downward right to its
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR (a) makes goods available to final consumers curve (d) downward from left to right
(b) encourage manpower (c) discourage time 25. Bar graph can be grouped into __ (a) 2 (b) 5
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this factor (d) makes good and services have equal (c) 4 (d) 3
section price 26. How many types of good do we have? (a) 3
13. Land is often different from other factors of (b) 4 (c) 5 (d0 2
1. Economics is regarded as a science because it production because it (a) is free gift of nature 27. When the price of goods increase, there will be
(a) uses scientific method to explain human (b) is owned by individual (c) is owned by a __ in supply of commodity (a) lower
being (b) regulates movement (c) control group of people (d) none of the above (b) constant (c) instant (d) increase
human being (d) finance the institutes 14. The most basic concern of economist is to 28. Which of the following cannot be described as
2. Economics is studied in order to (a) enable (a) allocate scarce resource to satisfy human land? (a) forest (b) crude oil (c) diamond (d)
government to allocate resources (b) enable want (b) encourage production (c) discourage tariff
individual to retrieve their glory (c) increase human activities (d) use creativity 29. In demand, the higher the price, the ___ the
resources (d) none of the above 15. ___ buys goods in bulk from the manufacturer quantity demanded (a) constant (b) higher
3. What is the median of the score 5, 3, 2, 2, 1 (a) wholesaler (b) manufacturer (a) producer (c) middle (d) lower
(a) 2 (b) 2.8 (c) 3.5 (d) 2 (d) factories 30. Find the geometric of 6,8,4,2 (a)3.44 (b) 5.9
4. Calculate the mean of the following setoff 16. Ends in the definition of Economics by (c) 6.4 (d) 5.4
scores 5, 3, 2, 2, 2, 1 (a) 2.6 (b) 2.8 (c) 3.5 Professor Lord Lionel C Robins means 31. The following are durable goods except
(d) 2 (a) wants (b) choice (c) resources (d) output (a) drug (b) chair (c) television (d) fan
32. The father of Economics (a) Alfred Mashal (a) Macroeconomics (b) social economics 6. With the aid of diagram, explain the three
(b) Adam Lionel (c) Adam Smith (d) Lionel (c) micro economics (d) mini economics
types of bar chart 10marks
Robins Smith 48. Chart representing one component is referred
33. Example of primary production is as__ (a) mini bar chart (b) component bar
(a) extracting of raw material (b) finished chart (c) single bar chart (d) simple bar chart
goods (c) unwanted goods (d) Biscuit 49. The branches of economics that deals with
34. A pie chart has ___ degree (a) 460 (b) 350 large unit of the country is
(c) 360 (d) 370 (a) macroeconomics (b) mani economics
35. Production is the (a) creation of utility (c) mini economics (d) largest economics
(b) creation of choice (c) organization of 50. The mode of the following score
welfare (d) business activities 4,2,3,2,4,9,4,4,3 is (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 9
36. Want refers to (a) alternative (b) scarcity
(c) desire (d) choice
37. The reward for capital is (a) interest (b) rent
(c) profit (d) wages SECTION B: ESSAY
38. Economics belongs to group of subject called
(a) mathematics (b) English studies (c) social Instruction: Answer four questions, question one is
science (d) environment compulsory.
39. The equilibrium occurs when (a) demand is
equal to supply (b) supply is less than demand 1. The following table below are the scores of
(c) demand is less than supply (d) demand is
students in NECO examination
greater than supply
40. How many scientific method are adopted by 11-20 21-30 31-40 41-50 51-60 61-70 71-80
Economics? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 3 4 2 6 2 2 2 2
41. The formular to calculate ungrouped data is Find the mean 15marks
εx εx εx εx 2. (a) Define economics 2marks
(a) (b) (c) (d)
N f Nf fx
42. How many demand schedule do we have? (b) State 4 reasons why we study economics
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5 8marks
43. We study Economics to (a) equate (b) use to
identify (c) enable individual make rational 3. (a)What is demand and supply? 5marks
decision (d) analysis welfare (b) State the law of demand and supply 5mrks
44. Which of the following is not the factor
affecting supply (a) weather (b) level of 4. (a) What is demand schedule? 5marks
technology (c) taxation (d) socialism (b) Identify the two types of demand schedule
45. Chart representing three and above is called
(a) multiple chart (b) simple bar chart and explain 5marks
(c) harmonic chart (d) component bar chart 5. (a) What is production 4marks
46. Branches of Economics can be grouped into
(a)3 (b) 2 (c) 7 (d) 4 (b) List the two types of production and
47. Which of the following deals with smaller explain them 6marks
units of components of the Economy?
 5. Which of the following is regarded as fixed (a) agent (b) consumer (c) wholesaler
cost? (a) cost of land (b) cost of fuel (c) cost of (d) distributor
wages (d) cost of light 16. The following are agricultural product export
6. At the highest level of tota utility, marginal in Nigeria except (a) Cocoa (b) Palm kernel
utility is (a) diminishing (b) positive (c) Shogele (d) rubber
(c) increasing (d) equal 17. Which of the following is not a set of
7. The normal channel of distribution is measures of central tendency (a) mode and
(a) Manufacturer – wholesaler – retailer – mean (b) median and rectangle (c) median and
consumer (b) manufacturer – retailer – agent – mode (d) none of the above
consumer (c) manufacturer – agent – retailer – 18. Trade between two countries is called_____
consumer (d) wholesaler – agent – retailer – (a) uniform trade (b) bilateral trade (c) visible
consumer import (c) invisible import
8. The normal demand curve slope 19. A table which shows the price of a commodity
(a) downwards from left to right and the quality of it that is demanded per unit
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (b) downwards to the positive side (c) upwards is a (a) demand schedule (b) demand curve
SECONDARY SCHOOL, to the left (d) upward to the negative side (c) time schedule (d) demand series
9. When the price of a commodity increases and 20. When the demand for a commodity increases,
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. the quantity demanded also increases, this is a it means that there is (a) allocation of price
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR case of (a) exceptional demand (b) joint (b) increase in price (c) decrease in price
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. demand (c) incidency supply (d) incidency (d) evaluation of price of commodity
SUBJECT. ECONOMICS demand 21. The major currency used for granting credits
10. Which of the following does not change in to member countries is (a) dutch mark (b) US
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR short run? (a) fixed cost (b) variable cost dollar (c) Pound sterling (d) Canadian dollar
(c) marginal cost (d) average marginal 22. When the price for commodity A increases the
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 11. A change in supply implies a (a) shift in demand for commodity B decreases, then A
section supply curve to the left or to the right (b) shift and B are (a) close substitutes (b) Luxury
in price curve (c) shift in quantity supplied (complementary goods (d) supplementary
1. What is the correct term for this group of (d) movement commodity goods
export; tractors, television, drug, component, 12. Exceptional demand is also known as 23. Which of these factors does not cause a
car? (a) visible import (b) invisible export (a) abnormal demand (b) positive demand change in demand? (a) income (b) loan
(c) norminalize import (d) actual export (c) unkown demand (d) exceptional (c) population (d) taste and fashion
2. Goods for which demand rises as income rise marginalized 24. The demand schedule is (a) a table showing
are (a) abnormal goods (b) vertical goods 13. If a fall in price of a commodity leads to an the relationship between price and quantity
(c) consumable goods (d) horizontal goods increase in supply of another commodity, both demanded (b) a table showing only the price
3. Given the fixed cost is ₦ 500, variable cost is commodities have (a) long run supply (b) short of goods (c) a table showing the market
₦1,500 and output is 50units, what will be the supply (c) joint supply (d) equilibrium joint schedule (d) a table illustrating the vertical
average cost of producing one unit? (a) ₦300 14. A point where supply and demand equal price and horizontal price
(b) ₦60 (c) ₦200 (d) ₦40 together is called (a) variable price 25. If the output of a production cost is 4 and the
4. The slope of supply curve is (a) horizontal (b) negative point (c) equilibrium price total cost is 80, what is the average total cost?
(b) zero (c) equal (d) initary (d) constant price (a) 30 (b0 20 (c) 320 (d)200
15. Which of the following is the intermediary 26. The formular for calculating marginal cost is
between the producer and the retailer? (a) ∆ TC divided by ∆ output
 (b) ∆ TC divided by ∆ MC 37. A change in the quantity demanded of a 46. Which of the following is a function of
(c) ∆ output divided by FC commodity is determined by the (a) positive money? (a) relatively stable in value (a) a
(d) ∆ FC divided by ∆ output outcome of supply (b) constant supply standard of differed payment (c) an easily
27. Which of the following categories does not (c) scarcity of the commodity (d) price of the divisible item (d) none of the above
relate to PPC? (a) cost production (CP) commodity 47. The movement along the demand curve for
(b) marginal product (MP)(c) total product 38. If the marginal product is negative, the total some goods may be caused by a change in
(TP) (d) Average product (AP) product will be (a) falling (b) decreasing (a) consumer choice (b) consumer awareness
28. The total quantity of commodity produced at (c) constant (d) at a minimum (c) price of goods (d) consumer orientation
a particular time as a result of the combination 39. Which of the following is not a characteristics 48. The wholesaler provides all the following
of all factors of production is (a) total product of a developing country? (a) real per capital services to the manufacturer except
(b) variable product (c) marginal product income (b) level of illiteracy (c) population (a) warehousing (b) financing production
(d) total possibility curve growth (d) level of primary education (c) advertising (d) after sales services
29. PPC means (a) production possibility curve 40. Other things being equal, an increase in price 49. Which of the following factors will cause a
(b) production process curve (c) possibility will lead to (a) decrease in quantity supplied change in demand? (a) government agency
production curve (d) process possibility curve (b) demanding of goods (c) increase in (b) wholesaler (c) retailers (d) consumer
30. ___ is used when the data given are made up quantity demanded (d) increase in quantity 50. All the following factors will cause a change
of only one item or component (a) simple bar supplied in demand except (a) the free entry and exit
chart (b) multiple bar chart (c) component 41. The type of demand that exist between (b) the price of the commodity (c) the
chart (d) analing chart torchlight and battery is (a) joint demand consumer’s income (d) a change in population
31. If the price of a commodity X rises and (b) competitive demand (c) composite demand
consumer shift to commodity Y, then (d) derived demand SECTION B: ESSAY
commodity X and Y are (a) substitute 42. Which of the following is an example of fixed INSTRUCTION: Answer 4 questions in all,
(b) bought together (c) inferior goods cost? (a) expenses (b) plant and machinery question 1 is compulsory \
(d) tasteless goods (c) raw materials (d) expenditure 1. The following are age distribution of people
32. Palm oil and palm kernel are in (a) return 43. The diagram below represent that registered for a training established by a
supply (b) composite supply (c) joint supply governor of a particular state
(d) diminishing supply Age 20 30 40 50
33. Increase in supply of a product can be caused Frequency(F) 1 2 3 2
by (a) change in taste (b) fall in cost of
production (c) increase in the price of a Find the variance and standard deviation
product (d) none of the above 15marks
34. Which of the following is an example of (a) increase in supply (b) decrease in supply 2. (a) What is production possibility curve?
derived demand? (a) textbook (b) clock (c) increase in demand (d) decrease in demand 4marks
(c) staple food (d) labour 44. If the price of goods increase, the supply will (b) Explain the following
35. An outward shift of production possibility (a) fall (b) be constant (c) decrease i. Total product 2marks
curve shows that (a) factors of production are (d) increase ii. Average product 2marks
moving (b) resources are scarce (c) economic 45. The shift of the demand curve to the right iii. Marginal product 2marks
growth has taken place (d) resources are when the supply curve remains constant 3. (a) What is demand? 2marks
underutilized implies that (a) the price falls (b) both price (b) Define supply 2marks
36. The law of diminishing returns relate to and quantity demand will increase (c) only (c) Identify 3 factors affecting demand 6mks
(a) total utility (b) total product (c) average quantity decrease (d) only price increase 4. (a) State the law of demand and supply 6mks
utility (d) marginal product (b) List 4 types of demand 4marks
 5. (a) What is economic system? 4matks 4. __ is the removal of solid undigested food 15. All are organism that exhibits sucking
(b) Identify the 3 types of economic system substances which are not by-products of mechanism except (a) mosquito (b) butterfly
3marks metabolism (a) ingestion (b) excretion (c) housefly (d) tse-tse fly (e) grass hopper
(c) Explain the three types of economic (c) digestion (d) egestion (e) secretion 16. A tube-like structure which aids passage of
system 3marks 5. Flame cells is the excretory system of____ food is called (a) alimentary canal (b) mouth
(a) protozoa (b) Annelids (c) flatworms (c) gullet (d) bucal cavity (e) stomach
(d) insects (e)mammals 17. The process by which molecules or irons of a
6. What is the excretory organ for toad? (a) lungs substance move from a region of low
(b) kidney (c) Nephridia (d) fleme cells concentration is called (a) diffusion
(e)malphigian tubule (b) Osmosis plasmolysis (d) turgidity
7. All these are characteristics of living things (e) active transport
except (a) movement (b) growth (c) irritability 18. The following organisms exchanges gases
(d) osmosis (e) nutrition except (a) man (b) protozoa (c) Volvox
8. ___ is the breaking down of large molecules of (d) spirogyra (e) none of the above
food into simple and absorbable form for use 19. ___ are materials that are transported in
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR by the animals (a) reproduction (b) Growth animals except (a) food (b) oxygen
SECONDARY SCHOOL, (c) Excretion (d) digestion (e) respiration (c) carbon dioxide (d) urea (e) excess salt
9. Alimentary canals consist of all these except 20. One of these is not an example of blood vessel
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (a) mouth (b) epiglottis (c) rectum (d) stomach (a) arteries (b) capillaries (c) vein (d) fluid
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 10. Gaseous exchange takes place in the adult toad (e) arterioles
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. through (a) buccal cavity, bladder and lungs 21. The blood vessels that carry blood from the
SUBJECT. BIOLOGY (b) buccal cavity, skin and lungs (c) tympanic body to the heart is called (a) arteries
membrane, lungs and gills (d) buccal cavity, (b) capillaries (c) fluid (d) vein (e) lymph
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR kin and spiracle (e) gills, skin and buccal 22. Which of these blood cells has nucleus?
cavity (a) plasma (b) red blood cells (c) white blood
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 11. Which of the following blood component has cells (d) platelets (e) lymph
section the greatest affinity for Oxygen and 23. Which of the following is not correct about
1. The intercostal molecule relax during the Carbondioxide? (a) blood plasma platelets, they (a) are also known as
process of __ in man (a) inhalation (b) leukocyte (c) thrombocyte (d) erythrocyte thrombocytes (b) have no nucleus (c) are
(b) respiration (c) exhalation (d) inspiration (e) lymphocyte formed in the red bone (d) neutralizes the
(e) tissue 12. Animals that fees on any fluid material can be toxins in the blood (e) help in clothing of
2. __ is defined as the process by which waste classified as __ (a) wallower (b) sucker blood
products of metabolism are removed from the (c) fluid feeder (d) parasite (e)saprophytes 24. ___ is defined as the exchange of gases
body of living things (a) respiration 13. One of these is not a part of algae alimentary between the living and organism (a) external
(b) movement (c) excretion (d) reproduction canal (a) oesophagus (b) rectum (c) appendix respiration (b) Oxygen (c) carbondioxide
(e) digestion (d) anus (e) proventricule (d) internal respiration (e) external respiration
3. ___ is defined as a biochemical activity of the 14. Which of the following parts of the alimentary 25. The intercostal muscles contract during the
cell in which glucose is broken down by a system of a bird does grinding of maize occur? process of __ in man (a) exhalation
series of reactions controlled by enzymes to (a) gizzard (b) cloaca (c) stomach (d) crop (b) inhalation (c) respiration (d) breathing
release energy (a) respiration (b) growth (e) rectum (e) internal respiration
(c) excretion (d0 irritability (e)nutrition
26. The air left in the lungs is called _ (a) residual 37. Gullet is other name for __ (a) Oesophhagus organisms (a) blood (b) serum (c) cytoplasm
air (b) tidal air (c) oscillatory air (d) circular (b) stomach (c) caecum (d) rectum (d) plasma (e) lymph
air (e) random air (e) pancreas 48. Which of the following blood vessel carries
27. The function of the white blood cells is to 38. All these are examples of feeding habits oxygenated blood into the heart? (a) anterior
(a) absorb oxygen and release it where it is except (a) filter feeding (b) fluid feeding vena cava (b) pulmonary artery
needed (b) defend the body against diseases (c) parasitic feeding (d) absorbing (c) pulmonary vein (d) aorta (e) posterior vena
(c) help in the process of blood clothing (e) saprophytic feeding cava
(d) transport food to the cells (e) transport 39. __ is the movement of metabolic materials 49. The respiratory organ found in the cockroach
oxygen from the lungs to the cells from various parts of the organisms where is the (a) air sac (b) trachea (c) lung (d) lung
28. The following are components of blood except they are produced to the part where they are book (e) gill
(a) hemoglobin (b) plasma (c) platelets (d) red either used, stored or moved from the body 50. Which of the following juices contains the
blood cell (e) white blood cell (a) Reproduction (b) irritability (c) transport enzymes ptyalin? (a) gastric juice
29. Organs in the digestive system include all system (d) respiratory system (e) excretory (b) pancreatic (c) saliva (d) succus
except (a) Oesophagus (b) kidney (c) stomach system (d) duodenum
(d) duodenum (e) large intestine 40. All these are media of transportation except __
30. The excretory system involves organs that (a) cytoplasm (b) cell sap or latex (c) blood
remove metabolic waste products from the (d) plasma (e) thrombocyte
body. The lungs remove __ (a) sweat 41. The red colour of the cells is due to the
(b) carbon dioxide (c) salt (d) Urine (e) all of presence of iron compound called ______
the above (a) Oxygen (b) carbon dioxide (c) hemoglobin SECTION B: ESSAY
31. Respiration is an essential life process (d) platelets (e) calcium
providing the cells with (a) oxygen (b) sugars 42. Spider belongs to which of the following class Instruction: Answer four questions. Question 1 is
(c) energy (d) carbon dioxide (e) glucose (a) Chilopod (b) arachnida (c) crustacean compulsory
32. Which of the following substance is a common (d) insect (e)mollusca
excretory product in both plants and animals? 43. The mechanism of gaseous exchange in living 1. (a) Define Excretion 2marks
(a) urine (b) carbon dioxide (c) oxygen organism is essentially by (a) Osmosis (b) briefly state the importance of excretion
(d) mineral salt (e) Nitrogen (b) inhalation (c) diffusion (d) exhalation 5marks
33. Which of the following structures of the (e) breathing (c) Mention 5 organism with their excretory
human body provides the best surfaces for 44. The part of the alimentary system of a bird organ 5marks
diffusion? (a) skin (b) alveolus (c) stomach where grinding of maize occurs is the (a) crop 2. (a) Define digestion of food 2marks
(d) Oesophagus (e) intestine (b) stomach (c) gizzard (d) cloaca (e) rectum (b) List 8 parts of mammalian alimentary canal
34. In plants, respiration occurs in __ 45. Which of the following organism and organ of 8marks
(a) mesophyll cells only (b) the root only gaseous exchange are not appropriately 3. (a) What is transport system? 2marks
(c) the stomata and lenticels only (d) all living matched? (a) earthworm – body surface (b) List all the media of transportation in
cells (e) epidemis (b) fish – gills (c) adult toad – gills (d) living organism and explain two 8marks
35. Other name for small intestine is __ (a) colon grasshopper – trachea (e) Lizard – lungs 4. (a) Define respiration 2marks
(b) gullet (c) rectum (d) ileum (e) tube 46. Which of the following organs is special (b) Briefly describe
36. Other name for large intestine is ___ (a) ileum adopted for gaseous exchange in aquatic i. Expiration with example 4marks
(b) cloaca (c) caecum (d) colon (e) gall organism (a) lungs (b) trachea (c) gills ii. Inspiration with example 4marks
bladder (d) tracheoles (e) alveoli 5. (a) Distinguish between cellular respiration
47. Which of the foolowingis the medium of and breathing 5marks
transportation of nutrient within unicellular (b) What are the features that makes the gills
 of bony fishes efficient gaseous exchange 4. The functions of testes is __ (a) it produces the 17. __ is the process which involves the gradual
structure? 5marks sperms (b) it carries the egg (c) is an opening development of the embryo of the seed into a
6. List three functions of the kidney 3marks for discharge (d) it collects sperm (e) it serves seeding or a young plant (a) seeds (b) fruits
(b) Describe how the kidney carries out two of as a passage (c) germination (d) crops (e) pollination
its functions 2marks 5. The diameter of Ovum is about __ (a) 2.0mm 18. ___ and epigeal is the type of germination
(c) name all the kidney diseases 5maks (b) 0.1mm (c) 0.2mm (d) 1.0mm (e) 2.5mm (a) hypgeal (b) dicotyledon(c) monocot
6. The fusion of the sperm and the egg in the (d) epigeal (e) seed
fallopian tube of the female during mating is 19. ___ is defined as the type of germination in
called__ (a) fertilization (b) embryo (c) zygote which the cotyledons or seed leaves are
(d) foetus (e) semen created above the soil surface (a) micropyle
7. The result of fertilization is to form (a) embryo (b) helium (c) nucleus (d) epigeal (e) hypegeal
(b) zygote (c) Foetus (d) baby (e) placenta 20. A good example of epigeal germination is ___
8. Development of embryo starts from where? (a) millet (b)groundnut (c) maize (d) wheat
(a) Vagina (b) Uterus (c) Valva (d) fallopian (e) Guinue corn
tube (e) cevix 21. Which of the following is the condition
9. What helps to stimulate the female during necessary for germination? (a) water (b) salt
sexual intercourse (a) Valva (b) Clitoris (c) oil (d) orange (e) kerosene
(c) ovary (d) urethra (e) labia 22. Viable seeds means______ (a) alive (b) exist
10. What connects the embryo and the mother? (c) grow (d) good (e) decay
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (a) amnion (b) yolksac (c) placenta (d) clorion 23. ___ is a mature fertilized ovary of a flower
SECONDARY SCHOOL, (e) embryomic membrane containing one or more seeds orange (b) apple
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. 11. These are the nutrients that are being supplied (c) fruit (d) seeds (e) nut
to the embryo (a) Oxygen and Potassium 24. Partenocarpic fruits is known as__ (a) seeds
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR (b) Oxygen and Water (c) Calcium and (b) fruits which develop without fertilization
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen and Sulphur (c) fruit with seeds (d) both fruits and seeds
SUBJECT. BIOLOGY (e) Potassium and Oxygen (e) fruits with flower
CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR 12. What is the name of the fluid that is present in 25. The collective name for epicarp is ________
the amnion? (a) allantois (b) clorion (a) endocarpy (b) seedocarp (c) pericarp
(c) amniotic fluid (d) yolksac (e) seminal fluid (d) epically (e) cotyledon
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this
13. What helps to attach the embryo to the 26. Where is the seed location (a) inside the fruit
section
placenta? (a) rope (b) thread (c) oviduct (b) in mesocarp (c) outer part of pericarp
1. A fertilized mammalian ovum normally
(d) umblical cord (e) vas deference (d) in between endocarp and mesocarp
develop in the (a) cervix (b) fallopian tube
14. __ is the process of sexual reproduction in (e) in the cotyledon
(c) ovary (d) Urethra (e) Uterus
flowering plants (a) breeding (b) pollination 27. Fruits is divided into how many types? A 3
2. Which of the following is not part of the
(c) hybrid (d) germination (e) fruits (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2 (e) 6
female reproductive system? (a) Ovary
15. All these are structure of a mature ovule 28. __ is the type of fruit that develops solely from
(b) seminal vesicle (c) uterus (d) vagina
except (a) Hilum (b) integument (c) embryo a fertilized ovary (a) true fruit (b) false fruit
(e) fallopian tube
sac (d) Yolk sac (e) micropyle (c) simple fruit (d) fleshy fruit (e) dehiscent
3. Which of the following is the unit of
16. ___ is an opening into the ovule left by the fruit
transmission of hereditary traits in living
integuments (a) Nucleus (b) yolk sac 29. A false fruit is the type of fruit that is formed
organism? (a) nucleus (b) nucleolus
(c) micropyle (d) hilum (e) placenta from ___ and other ___ parts as well (a) seed
(c) gametes (d) genes (e) chromosomes
and fruit (b) Ovary and floral (c) Mesocarp
 and Endocarp (d) Ovary and seed (e) seed and 40. Which of the following is the type of display Instruction: Answer question 1 and any other 3
coryledon (a) dancing (b)pairing (c) stealing (d) eating
30. __ is developed from a flower with a single (e) sleeping 1. (a) Define the following terms
Ovary (a) dry fruit (b) fleshy fruit (c) 41. A good example of animal that practice i. Genetics 2marks
composite fruit (d) simple fruit (e) indehiscent territoriality most is ___ (a) Agama Lizard ii. Heredity 2marks
fruit (b) Wall ghecko (c) spider (d) goat iii. Variation 2marks
31. A good example of an aggregate fruit is _____ (e) crocodile (b) Mention things that are being transferred
(a) Kola (b) Apple (c) Pineapple (d) Cashew 42. Seasonal migration has these as an example from parents to the offspring. At least five
(e) Okro except___ (a) Agama Lizard (b) Insect human beings 5marks
32. ___ develops from an inflorescence or flowers (c) Birds (d) Fish (e) Crustaceans (c) Explain how the structure of the sperm cell
positioned very close to one another (a) simple 43. ___ is the transmission and expression of enables it to function 4marks
fruit (b) fleshy fruit (c) aggregate fruit characters or traits in organisms from parents 2. (a) What is courtship behaviour? 2marks
(d) composite fruit (e) Cowpea fruit to the offspring (a) genetics (b) fruits (b) List four types of courtship behaviour and
33. Fruits may be classified into ____ or dry (c) heredity (d) variation (e) chromosomes explain two 6marks
usually according to the nature of their 44. Transmittable characters in human beings is (c) Mention two things that can be displayed
pericarp (a) fleshy (b) simple (c) dry ___ (a) body stature (b) weight of fruit by the female animals or male animals 2mks
(d) composite (e) aggregate (c) type of car (d) size of shoe (e) size of bed 3. (a) What is germination? 2marks
34. ___ is the type of fruit in which the whole 45. ___ is the differences which exist between (b) List and state one function each for male
pericarp or at least one of its layers is thick, individuals of the same species (a) genetics reproductive organs at least five 5marks
soft and fleshy (a) simple fruit (b) fleshy fruit (b) heredity (c) chromosomes (d) variation (c) Mention 3 female reproductive organs
(c) composite fruit (d) aggregate fruit (e) dry (e) gene 3marks
fruit 46. All these are transmittable characters in plant 4. (a) What is a fruit? 2marks
35. All these are type of fleshy fruits except ____ except ___ (a) finger prints (b) height of plant (b) What are the differences between a fruit
(a) drupe fruit (b) berry fruit (c) simple fruit (c) size of leaf (d) leaf texture (e) size of fruit and a seed? At least three 3marks
(d) hesperidium fruit (e) nut fruit 47. ___ are rod or thread –like bodies found in the (c) Draw a mango fruit and label (6cm – 8cm)
36. ___ consist of instinctive behaviour in nucleus of a cell (a) chromosomes (b) genetics 5marks
response to certain external stimuli in animals (c) variation (d) heredity (e) gene 5. (a) What are the conditions necessary for
(a) courtship (b) reproduction (c) behaviour 48. The total number of chromosomes in man is germination of seeds at least four 4marks
(d) courtship behaviour (e) reproductive ___ (a) 19 chromosomes (b) 30 chromosomes (b) Write short notes on the following
behaviour (c) 46 chromosomes (d) 12 chromosomes i. True fruit 2marks
37. All these are types of courtship behaviour (e) 36 chromosomes ii. False fruit 2marks
except _ (a) pairing (b) display (c) territoriality 49. ___ is a branch of mathematics which can be iii. Composite Fruit 2marks
(d) meting (e) toad applied to those events that depends entirely 6. (a) State Mendel’s first and second laws of
38. Which of these is not an example of pairing? on chance (a) genetics (b) heredity inheritance 4marks
(a) pairing in winged termites (b) paining in (c) probability (d) evolution (e) differentiation (b) List five sex – linked characteristics of
fish (c) pairing in toad (d) paring of bags 50. ___ is the fertilization of a plant as a result of human being and discus them 6marks
(e) pairing in human the gametes from another plant but of the same
39. ___ is an elaborate process involving a series species (a) self-fertilization (b) inbreading
of fixed patterns of movement or attractive (c) out-breading (d) cross fertilization
exhibitions between mating partners (e) pollination
(a) pairing (b) seasonal migration (c)display
(d) territoriality (e) mating SECTION B: ESSAY
 accounting (b) data processing 17. Which of the following is not a subsidiary
(c) management accounting (d) cost book? (a) sales day book (b) trail balance
accounting (c) purchase day book (d) general journal
6. A sale day book is used for recording (a) credit 18. The guidelines that a professional need to
sales (b) cash sales (c) hire purchase (d) tools follow while practicing accounting is
7. Which of the following fixed assets is not (a) accounting poles (b) accounting ethics
depreciable? (a) land (b) motor van (c) tools (c) accounting confidence (d) none of the
(d) building above
8. The balance sheet is a statement showing 19. Debit the ___ and credit the ___ (a) giver,
(a) all assets and liabilities (b) all balance receiver (b) receiver, giver (c) giver, owner
(c) capital and liabilities (d) credit entry of his (d) owner, receiver
balance 20. Sold goods ₦300 on credit to Ajayi (a) debit
9. Which of the following does not lead to sales account and credit Ajayi’s account
depreciation of assets? (a) Devaluation on (b) debit Ajayi’s account and credit sales
Naira (b) wear and tear (c) passage of time account (c) debit goods account and credit
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (d) usage sales account (d) debit sales account and credit
SECONDARY SCHOOL, 10. Which of the following is the most liquid? goods account
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (a) cash and bank (b) machinery (c) goodwill 21. Purchase goods ₦100 on credit from Olotu
(d) land and building (a) credit Olotu account and debit purchase
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 11. The starting point of account can be linked to account (b) credit purchase account and debit
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. the (a) Malaysia (b) Merchant (c) England Olotu account (c) debit olotu account and
SUBJECT. ACCOUNTING (d) Wales credit, credit account (d) debit goods account
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR 12. The full meaning of ICAN is (a) institute of and credit purchase account
commercial accountants of Nigeria 22. The following are types of cash book except
(b) institute of chartered accountants of (a) double/two column cash book (b) thriple
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this
Nigeria (c) institute of chartered accountants column cash book (c) three column cash book
section
of Nation (d) institute of commercial (d) petty cash book
1. One of this is not a user of accounting
accountant of Nation 23. The book for recording small disbursement
information (a) marketer (b) bank (c) manager
13. Accounting information can be used for the that is expenses is called (a) single cash book
(d) competitor
following except (a) recording transaction (b) expenses cash book (c) petty cash book
2. A good accounting information must have this
permanently (b) directing equation (c) decision (d) all of the above
qualities except ___ (a) Lazy (b) Timeless
making (d) preventing fraudulent practice 24. The document sent by the seller to the
(c) reliable (d0 relevance
14. The difference between the preparation of two customers for reduction in the amount owned
3. The fundamental accounting equation is given
column cash book and three column cash book by hi is referred to as (a) invoice (b) cash note
as___ (a) Asset = capital + liabilities
is (a) particular (b) discount (c) folio (d) bank (c) owning note (d) credit note
(b) capital = asset + liabilities (c) liabilities =
15. Which of the following is not an expenses? 25. ICAN was established in Nigeria in the year
asset + capital (d) assets = liabilities – capital
(a) advertisement (b) machinery (c) salary and (a) 1965 (b) 1945 (c) 2000 (d) 1999
4. The three cash book contains column for ___
wages (d) office expenses Use the following table below to answer
(a) cash, bank and discount (b) asset, cash,
16. The following are examples of liability except questions 26 – 30
liabilities (c) bank, cash and asset (d) asset,
(a) bank overdraft (b) stock (c) local complete the gap in the following table
cash, return
(d) creditor Assets Liabilities Capital
5. The act of collecting, recording, processing
a. 500,00 300,000 ?
and interpreting account data is (a) financial
 b. ? 98,000 80,000 37. ___ introduced the double-entry system 48. The purpose of accounting record are as
c. 83,000 30,000 ? (a) Luccar Paciolo (b) Lucca Linioo (c) Linioo follows except (a) determine the profit
d. 100,000 ? 50,000 Palio (d) Palio Stone (b) record income and expenditure (c) help in
e. ? 50,000 30,000 38. The document sent by the seller to the buyer to re-arranging the building of the organization
26. In question “a” above, the capital is amounted correct an undercharge or when a goods are (d) help in preventing fraud
to __ (a) 100,000 (b) 200,000 (c) 50,000 not charged on the voice is known as ___ 49. ___ is an asset that last for a long period of
(d) 60,000 (a) petty note (b) avoid document (c) Debit time (a) current asset (b) loan (c) liability
27. In question “b” above, the assets is amounted concern (d) Debit note (d) fixed asset
to __ (a) 78,000(b) 28,000 (c) 178,000 39. The principle of double entry states that for 50. __ is an asset for short period of time (a) loan
(d) 18,000 every (a) debit entry, there must be a (b) capital (c) depreciation of cash book
28. In question “c” above the capital is amounted corresponding credit entry and vice versa (d) current asset
to ___ (a)83,000 (b) 30,000 (c) 82,000 (b) debit entry there must be a corresponding
(d) 113,000 debit entry and vice versa (c) credit entry there
29. In question “d” above the liabilities is must be a corresponding credit entry and vice ESSAY
amounted to _ (a) 80,000 (b) 20,000 (c) 30,000 versa (d) credit entry there must be a special SECTION B
(d) 50,000 account and vice versa Answer two questions from this section. Question
30. In question “e” above the assets is amounted 40. The column cash book is for only record of __ one is compulsory
to_ (a) 80,000 (b) 30,000 (c) 20,000 (d) 50,000 and ___ transaction (a) cash and private 1. (a) What is financial accounting and book
31. The amount invested by the owner in a (b) cash and bank (c) bank and private use
keeping 6marks
business is called (a) investment (b) ownership (d) cash and withdrawal from private pulse
(c) liability (d) capital 41. Cash transaction can be grouped into (a) cash (b) State two purpose of accounting and book
32. He purchase motor van ₦30,000 on credit. The in bank and cash receipt (b) cash at hand and
keeping 4mark
effects are (a) increase in liability and increase cash in bank (c) cash at hand and cash receipt
of assets (b) decrease in liability and decrease (d) none 2. Identify five accounting ethics 5marks
in assets (c) decrease in assets and decrease in 42. Assets of a business can be classified broadly
3. List any five sources of document 5marks
motor van (d) increase in liability and decrease into (a) fixed and floating assets (b) fixed and
in capitalist current assets (c) intangible and fixed assets 4. (a) What is subsidiary book? 3marks
33. The three column cash book has the following (d) investment and tangible assets
(b) Identify two division of subsidiary book
except (a) date, cash, book and folio (b) date, 43. The fixed amount of money set aside for petty
particular, bank and Folio (c)date, particular, expenses is called (a) float (b) fund (c) stock 2marks
Folio cash, bank, and discount (d) date, (d) bank
SECTION C
particular, folio, cash, bank 44. The following are examples of current assets
34. The “c” under folio in two or three column except (a) machinery (c) cash (c) stock Answer only one question in this section
cash book is called (a) contract (b) control (d) bank
5. The following information are the transaction
(c) consumed (d) central 45. Fixed assets include (a) land (b) stock
35. In preparing account of an organization, the __ (c) accrual (d) prepayment made in Rayshine Limited. Prepare a ledger
is separated from the business activities 46. Starting a business is known as (a) loan
for each transaction.
(a) ownership (b) assets (c) debtors (d) creditor (b) capital (c) profit (d) loss
36. The __ sets out the full debtors of goods 47. When a cheque is being given out to a person, January 1 Mr. Ojo started business with
showing the quantity, price, discount given it will be recorded in which account? (a) cash
₦4000 cash
and terms of payment (a) receipt (b) credit account (b) purchase account (c) bank account
note (c) cash (d) invoice (d) branch account January 2 paid ₦50 cash for rent
 January 3 received refund of insurance ₦300 January 12 banked cash ₦900
cash January 14 cash purchase ₦500
January 5 bought motor vehicle ₦600 paying January 16 bought goods by cheque ₦130
by cheque January 19 commission received by cheque
January 6 cash sales ₦100 ₦50
January 7 cash purchase ₦500 January 21 bought motor van by cheque ₦60
January 8 withdraw cheque for private use January 22 cash drawing by the proprietor
₦1500 ₦21
January 9 put cash ₦8000 into the bank January 24 we paid Biodun for goods bought
January 10 received commission ₦ 80 by ₦250, ₦150 in cash, ₦100 by cheque
cheque January 26 wages paid in cash ₦35
January 15 Goods worth ₦30 were returned to January 27 Bought stationary paying by cash
supplier Ojo ₦75
6. Write up a two – column cash book from the January 28 Withdraw ₦105 from bank for
following details and balance off as at the end private use
of the month. January 30 Rent eceived by cheque ₦45
January 1 started business with capital in cash January 31 cash sales ₦1000
₦3000
January 2 paid rent by cash ₦70
January 3 received loan from Pablo ₦800 by
cheque
January 5 we paid Olu by cheque ₦ 165
January 6 we paid general expenses in cash
₦300
January 9 withdraw ₦1000 from cash till and
paid into the bank account
January 10 cash sales paid directly into the
bank ₦3000
 participant (c) the commitment of the supply (c) fairly inelastic supply (d) perfectly
shareholders (d) government’s regulation of inelastic supply
their activities 14. If the marginal utility of a commodity is equal
5. In a pie chart, the population of city is to its price, then (a) the consumer is in
represented by a sector 45°. If the country has equilibrium (b) more of the commodity can be
a population of 10million people, then the consumed (c) total utility is also equal to its
city’s population is (a) 0.0045 million (b) 4.5 price (d) the market is not in equilibrium
million (c) 1.25 million (d) 16 million 15. A price floor is usually fixed (a) at the
6. A download sloping demand curve means that equilibrium and causes shortage (b) above the
(a) total revenue declines as price is lowered equilibrium and causes shortage (c) below the
(b) demand falls as output rises (c) demand equilibrium and causes surpluses (d) above the
falls as output falls (d) price must be lowered equilibrium and causes surpluses
to sell more 16. A market is in equilibrium when (a0 there is
7. If the price of commodity X rises and no government intervention (b) the demand is
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR consumers shift to commodity Y, then the same as the supply (c) buyers and sellers re
SECONDARY SCHOOL, commodities X and Y are (a) substitutes free to sell more goods (d) there is no free
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (b) complements (c) inferior goods (d) bought entry and exit
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR together 17. A firm’s average cost decrease in the long –
8. Goods whose demand vary directly with run because of (a) increase returns to scale
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. money income are called (a) inferior goods (b) diminishing average returns (c) decreasing
SUBJECT. ECONOMICS (b) complementary goods (c) substitute goods marginal returns (d) decreasing average fixed
CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR (d) normal goods cost
9. An exceptional demand curve can result from 18. “The larger a firm, the lower its cost of
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this (a) increase in price of raw materials (b) production”. This statement explains the
section increase in the size of the population (a) law of diminishing returns (b) concept of
1. Economics problems arise in all societies (c) expectation of future price increase economics of scale (c) law of comparative cost
because (a) resources are mismanaged by (d) change in taste of the consumer advantage (d) theory of division of labour
leader (b0 there is no proper planning 10. Palm oil and palm kernel are in (a) joint Use the table below to answer question 19 –
(c) resources are not in adequate supply (d) the supply (b) competitive demand (c) competitive 20
services of economist are not employed supply (d) complementary demand Quantit 1 2 3 4 6 7 8
2. Which of the following is not emphasized in a 11. Which of the following is true about supply of y
production possibility curve? (a) scarcity of land? It (a) is higher in the urban than rural Total 2 2 2 3 3 5 9 13
resource (b) economic development areas (b) varies with time (c) rises with cost 0 5 8 0 8 5 2 5
(c) inefficiency in the use of resources demand (d) is fixed
(d) unemployment of labour 12. The backward bending supply curve of labour 19. The total fixed cost is(a) $7.00 (b) $30.00
3. The organization of productive factor is the indicate (a) an abnormal supply situation (c) $20.00 (d) $135
responsibility of the (a) management (b) the law of supply (c) that labour supply and 20. At output level 5, the total variable cost is
(b) entrepreneur (c) production manager wages rate are directly related (d) that the $5.00(b) $ 20.00 (c) $55.00 (d) $35.00
(d) labour union elasticity of supply is uniform 21. In the long run. A firm must shut down if its
4. Producers operating in free market economy 13. A supply curve parallel to the X-axis indicates average revenue is (a) greater than the average
are mor efficient as a result of (a) the existence (a) fairly elastic supply (b) infinite elastic cost (b) less than average variable cost
of competition (b) the very few number of
 (c) equal to the minimum average cost 29. An industry is described as a group of firms increase their lending (d) money supply
(d) equal to the average cost (a) that provides job for many people increases
22. Public limited liability companies are (b) which uses advance technology in 38. Income is redistributed when the rich are
democratic in nature because (a) government production (c) which produces similar progressively taxed and (a) more private
appointees are members of the board (b) they products (d) that provides job for few people schools are established (b) subsidy is provided
are run by elected public officers (c) electoral 30. The largest component of national income in on petroleum products (c) more public goods
principles are adopted in the day – to – day developing countries consist of (a) profit are provided (d0 farmers are given guaranteed
management (d) shareholders elect the board (b) profit and rent (c) rent (d) wages and prices
of directors salaries 39. In order to increase revenue, government
23. In the event of bankruptcy, owners of joint – 31. A baker bought flour and other ingredient for should tax commodities for which demand is
stock companies lose (a) their private $250.00. spent $52.00 on distribution, sold the (a) perfectly price inelastic (b) price inelastic
properties (b) both company and private assets bread for $320.00. the value added by baker is (c) price elastic (d) unitary elastic
(c) only the capital invested (d) only their (a) $302.00 (b) $52.00 (c) $18.00 (d) $ 622.00 40. Which of the following activities will not lead
dividend 32. In a country with large population of full-time to economic growth? (a) massive importation
24. Wholesalers play an important role in the housewives, national income (a) will be of capital goods (b) intensive capital formation
distribution of goods and services because composed of goods produced by women locally (c) use of modern technology
they (a) are located very close to consumers (b) figures will be grossly over-stated (d) massive importation of consumer goods
(b) finance both producers and retailers (c) statistics will be difficult to calculate 41. The poorer the country, the larger the
(c) pass information on from retailers to (d) figures will be grossly under-stated percentage of labour force engaged in
consumers (d) sell a small units to consumers 33. Demand –pull inflation is likely to be caused (a) agriculture (b) mining (c) trading
25. If workers at the school canteen cannot sell by (a) an increase in the cost of factor inputs (d) manufacturing
during the holiday, his is an example of (b) increase in the income tax rate (c) increase 42. Which of following measures can be adopted
(a) structural unemployment (b) frictional in bank lending rates (d) increasingly large to stabilize the external value of the local
unemployment (c) seasonal unemployment budget deficit currency? (a) reduce the volume of exports
(d) residual unemployment 34. Holding money to take care of contingencies is (b) increase the demand for imports (c)
26. Positive checks as envisaged by Thomas (a) a speculative motive (b) a transactions increase domestic money supply (d) reduce the
Malthus can be prevented if (a) death rate is motive (c) a precautionary motive (d) an demand for imports
reduced (b) marriage is abolished (c) more expansionary motive 43. Which of the following is not a measure for
hospitals are built (d) moral restraint is 35. If a housewife has meat and wants tomatoes, reducing balance of payments deficit?
adopted she must find someone who has tomatoes to (a) export drive (b) reducing tariffs (c) adding
27. Which of the following factors is not a reason give and wants meat. This concept is described values to export goods (d) increasing local
for famer’s unstable incomes? (a) dependence as (a) scale of preference (b)opportunity cost production
on too many crops (b) poor storage facilities (c) complementary demand (d) double 44. Nations engage in external trade because of
(c) adverse weather condition (d) recession in coincidence of want differences in (a) comparative cost
the world economy 36. The stock exchange is an example of the (b) absolute cost (c) fixed cost (d) variable
28. Local firms can help in reducing (a) labour market (b) money market cost
unemployment in a country when (a0 land (c) commodity market (d) capital market 45. One disadvantage of international trade is that
acquisitions becomes centralized (b) imports 37. What happened when the central bank (a) prices of goods become stable (b) countries
of substitutes are reduced (c) waste in the firm increases the bank rate in an economy? becomes self-sufficient (c) goods consumed
is eliminated (d) subsidies to firms are (a) borrowing is discouraged (b) customers are produced at a very high cost (d) it makes
decreased. increase their borrowing (c0 banks can possible the consumption of variety of goods
46. Which of the following forms of economic increase from 100 to 150 tins due to the
integration is a member nation free to impose reduction in its price from ₦200 to ₦80.
duty against non-members (a) customs union (a) Present the above information in a table
(b) free trade area (c) common market 2marks
(d) economic community (b) Calculate the co-efficient of price elasticity
47. The international bank for reconstruction and of demand 11marks
development (IBRD) performs the following (c) State the nature of elasticity in “b” above
functions except (a) granting long-term loans and give two reasons 4marks
(b) assisting with technical expertise (d) State three factors that affect demand
(c) reducing tariff among members 3marks
(d) developing human resource
48. An electrical engineer who is teaching Physics SECTION C
in a secondary school is said to be Answer only five questions
(a) underemployed (b) unemployed (c) fully 3. Explain the following
employed (d) technologically unemployed CBN 1mark
49. One benefit a country can derive from the NDIC 1mark
extraction of crude oil is increase in SEC 1mark
(a) population (b) employment (c) money OPEC 1mark
(d) demand for imports ECOWAS 1mark
50. Which of the following cannot be classified as 4. (a) What is international trade 2marks
a natural resources? (a) iron rod (b) wild life (b) Identify three(3) barriers of international
(c) solar energy (d) gold trade 3marks
5. (a)define Export promotion 3marks
(b) State two(2) measures taken by
SECTION B government toward export promotion 2marks
Choose only one question from this section 6. Explain the following
1. The market for apples is represented by the (a) Balance of trade 2marks
following demand function below (b) Balance of payment 1mark
Qd = 21 – 3p (c) Favourable balance of payment 1mark
Price($) 0 1 3 4 5 6 (d) Unfavourable balance of payment 1mk
Quantity demanded 7. (a) Define economic development 2marks
(kg)
(b) State 3 features of under development
(a) Use the demand function to complete the 3marks
table 6marks 8. Identify five reasons why Nigeria is still a
(b) Draw the demand curve for the schedule developing country 5marks
in 1(a) 8marks 9. (a) Explain the meaning of Nationalism 3mks
(c) Outline any three factors affecting demand (b) State two reason for Nationalism 2marks
6marks
2. The supply situation of rice in country X over
a period is as shown in the table below. Use
the information below to answer the questions
that follows.
Information given that the demand for bread
 6. The threes bowed their head in shame character (c) how characters are depicted
illustrates (a) personification (b) alliteration (d) the roles played by the character
(c) assonance (d) paradox 18. In a literary work, the foil is one who
7. A character whose action are predictable in a (a) complements another character (b) contract
literary work is (a) sound character (b) a flat with another character (c) introduces the
character (c) the hero (d) the villain conflict (d) resolve the conflict
8. A scene in fiction enacting past events is 19. Dramatis personae refers to (a) audience
(a) allusion (b) foreshadow (c) flashback (b) characters (c) chorus (d) cast
(d) interlude 20. A literary device used to enhance sound effect
9. Poetic license is a term applied to a poet’s in poetry is (a) imagery (b) alliteration
(a) choice of work (b) choice of characters (c) refrain (d) symbol
(c) restrictions in the use of language PART II
(d) freedom in the use of language UNSEEN PROSE AND POETRY
10. The literary device used in the line above is Read the passage and answer question 21 –
(a) adie (b) apostrophe (c) soliloquy 25
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (d) suspense Mark lies sleepless, his supine eyes, rolling as
SECONDARY SCHOOL, 11. The extract above illustrate (a) epitaph he counts the rafter – vertically, horizontally,
(b) elegy (c) ballad (d) dirge diagonally – over and over. There is continual
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. 12. We live to die, we die to live is an example of rumbling in his belly lying so still, whom can
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR (a) paradox (b) hyperbole (c) inversion he blame now? Isn’t it his own fault to be like
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. (d) oxymoron this?
SUBJECT. LITERATURE Read the poem and answer questions 13 – Three months ago Atogo and Agbenya said
15 they were leaving town because “things have
CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR Here she lies a pretty bud become too hard” as they put it. They asked
Lately made of flesh and blood mark to come along. He declined saying that
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this Who as soon fell fast asleep he would have to prepare. Of course, he
section As her little eyes did peep simply could not go – dare no, he had pact
1. A literary work is intended to teach a moral Give her strewing but not stir with Akwele who sells kenkey down town
lesson (a) romantic (b) didactic (c) mimetic The earth that lightly covers her. eithercould leave town without the other. At
(d) moralistic 13. The poem is about a/an (a) flower (b) old the time Mark’s friends were ready, Akwele
2. A short account of an interesting event is woman (c) little child (d) traveler had travelled to Accra and would, unknown to
(a) tale (b) an anecdote (c) an episode (d) a 14. The person’s mood is one of (a) anger anyone not return in a hurry.
story (b) admiration (c) indifference (d) joy This is why Mark is lying dejected on his bed,
3. He is a citizen of no mean city illustrates 15. The rhyme pattern is (a)abc abc (b) aa bb cc a hungry man. Anyhow, he is not an angry
(a) bathos (b) euphemism (c) an episode (c) ab ab cc (d) aa bc bc man
(d) litotes 16. A play in which characters act through 21. … supine eyes… illustrate (a) oxymoron
4. The introductory part of a play, a novel or a gestures and facial expression is (b0 paradox (c) verbal irony (d) syneedoche
poem is the (a) epilogue (b) plot (c) setting (a) pantomime (b) burlesque (c) farce 22. Rumbling as used in the 1st paragraph is
(d) prologue (d) melodrama (a) onomatopoeic (b) metaphoric (c) ironic
5. An elegy is a poem of (a) mourning 17. Characterization refers to (a) how character (d) alliterative
(b) complaint (c) hope (d) joy are grouped (b) the readers’ opinion of the
23. The dominant them is (a) unrequited love But my good lord, I wot not by what power 43. What is the obvious device overwhelming
(b) loss of opportunity (c) lack of trust But by some power it is – my love to Hermia present in line 1? (a) alliteration
(d) insatiable hunger (Act IV, Scene I) (b) indentation (c) synecdoche (d) simile
24. The narrative technique is (a) third person 31. Who was the speaker? (a) Puck (b) Demetrius 44. What is the prominent imagery used in line 1?
(b) first person (c) interior – monologue (c) Lysander (d) Theseus (a) horse-ride (b) carjack (c) plane crash
(d) multiple narration 32. To who? (a) Theseus (b) Lysander (c) Queen (d) see-saw
25. The writer’s attitudes is one of (a) anger (d) Egeus 45. ‘he knows not the stop (line 1 – 2)is indicated
(b) indifference (c) sympathy (d) mockery 33. About who? (a) Helena (b) Hermia of (a) wonderment (b) blindness
Read the poem and answer question 26 – 30 (c) Lysander (d) Egeus (c) recklessness (d) hopelessness
Walker, stop and let me move and check you 34. Whose stalth? (a) Botton- Tetania (b) Oberon 46. Puck plays a trick on Bottom by
My sneaky fleeting moon of reckless birth – Titania (c) Demetrius – Helena (d)Lysander (a) transforming him into a strange animal
The light of hopes you flashed at dawn has – Hermia (b) stealing his cloths while he is bathing
dimmed 35. Iwot not… (line5) means (a) I work not (c) changing his head into that of a bird
And flickers weakly, so you squint at earth (b) I’m worth not (c) I known not (d) I care not (d) changing his head into that of an ass
36. “…in fancy (line 4) refers to (a) racing 47. One of these characters suggests that the
Walker, stand and let me sit and quiz you (b) love (c) hunting (d) forestry audience consider whether the entire play has
Will foes and friends be irked if mum you tell 37. In Act III, Titania fallsin love with (a) snug been a dream: (a) Robin Goodfellow (b) Robin
The bitter tale of woe behind you flu? (b) Mustard seed (c) Bottom (d) Peaseblossom Stravelling (c) Nick Bottom (d) Tom snout
The trickling tears unseen announce your age 38. Who makes Titania fall in love with the ass- 48. After Puck’s mischief, Bottom craves the
headed Bottom? 9a) Puck (b) Oberon following food: (a) garri (b) hay (c) meat pie
Walker, stay and let me come and tell you (c) Bottom (d) Cobweb (d) steak
My fleeting moon, I own you dim my light 39. At the end of the play, who does Demetrius 49. The following fellow reveals to Demetrius the
Your sparling blouse has turned a dark hue love? (a) Hermia (b) Hippolyta (c) Helena intended elopement of Lysander and Hermia:
You must, I guess have done a sleeple- chase (d) Titania (a) Helena (b) Puck (c) Hippolyta (d) Egeus
26. The stanzas are written in __ (a) quintets 40. Oberon asked for something which Titania is 50. What number of weddings take place before
(b) qualtrains (c) sestets (d) terceets not prepared to give (a) An Indian boy the play-within-a-play? (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 1
27. The recurrent device used is (a) synecdoche (b) magic juice (c) a maid (d) a wand
(b) apostrophe (c) metongymy (d) paradox THEORY
28. The mood of the post is (a) derisive Read the passage below and carefully answer Answer on one question from each section
(b) trochaic (c) lambic (d) anapaestic the questions 41 – 45 that follows
29. The opening line of the stanzas are (a) trochaic SECTION A: DRAMA
(b) ecstatic (c) regretful (d) melancholic He hath rid his prologue like a rough colt; he 1. Write short notes on the following
30. The first stanza rhymes (a) ab, ac (b) aba, b (c) Knows not the stop. A good moral, my lord; it (a) Barroka the ensnarer 5marks
ab cb (d) abba is not (b) Lakunle the fool 5marks
Enough to speak , but to speak true (c) Sidi, the ensnared 5marks
Read the passage below and carefully (Act V, Scene 1) 2. Discus madam Yoko as a tragic heroine in the
answer the questions 31 – 36 41. Who is the speaker? (a) Demetrius (b) Titania play “Let me diealone” 15marks
(c) Lysander (d) Theseus 3. What is the theme or one of the themes of
My Lord fair Helen told me of their stealth 42. Who does the speaker speak about (a) Quince Fences? 15marks
Of his their purpose hither in the wood (b) Puck (c) Pyramus (d) Flute
And I in fairy hither followed them SECTION B: PROSE
Fair Helena in fancy following e
4. Discus second-class citizen as a novel erected 2. In the past any person who angered the gods 13. His ___ to violet video games is something to
on conflict 15marks was made to ___ them (a) appease (b) reward worry about (a) devotion (b) attachment
5. How far is it to say that the new revolution (c) settle (d) beg (c) commitment (d) addiction
government in Ghana depicted in the Novel is 3. Rather than being sensitive to the plight of the 14. Most people think that ___ punishment should
a failure (unexpected joy at dawn) 15marks workers, the manager remained ___ be abolished, even in murder cases (a) fatal
6. Justify the tittle of the novel ‘Invisible Man (a) disdained (b) curious (c) negligent (b) capital (c) severe (d) corporal
15marks (d) indifferent 15. The president made a __ appeal for calm in the
4. A keen student makes progress but the ___ face of the crisis (a) passionate (b) zealous
SECTION C: POETRY one hardly does well (a) inactive (b) lowly (c) tactful (d) sensitive
7. Explore the various poetic devices or (c) nervous (d) reluctant 16. What I gave you was supposed to ___ your
techniques used in the poem “ Caged Bird) 5. Unlike you, I thought the message was given monthly earnings (a) expand (b) enlarge
15marks ___ not ambiguous (a) reasonable (b) clear (c) complete (d) augment
8. Comment on the use of imagery/symbolism in (c) apt (d) persuasive 17. The boy’s parents ___ a sigh of relief when he
the poem “The Grieved Land of Africa” 6. Good policies alleviate poverty whereas bad was found (a) raised (b) uttered (c) breathed
15marks ones ____ it (a) prolong (b) activate (d) heaved
9. Examine the pact’s use of alliteration and (c) aggravate (d) provoke 18. We ___ the meeting indefinitely because we
repetition in the poem ‘The song of the 7. One expects book in the library to be well ___ could not form a quorum (a) postponed
Woman of my Land’ 15marks not jumbled (a) numbered (b) documented (b) reconvened (c) adjourned (d) ended
(c) arranged (d) listed 19. The policeman tried to ___ money from the
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 8. Despite everything, I choose to keep rather motorist (a) exert (b) extort (c) exact
SECONDARY SCHOOL, than ___ the street (a) renounce (b) show (d) extract
(c) reveal (d) listed 20. They were given an ___ either to pay the rent
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. 9. Though the teachers ____ the idea, the or vacate the premises (a) ultimatum
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR principal was averse to it (a) welcomed (b) injunction (c) admonition (d) undertaking
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. (b) recognized (c) admitted (d) greeted
SUBJECT. ENGLISH LANGUAGE 10. It is only natural to feel nervous when you first SECTION 3
take the stage but you soon become ________
CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR (a) balanced (b) peaceful (c) normal After each of the following sentences, a list
(d) composed of possible interpretations is given. Choose
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this the interpretation that is most appropriate for
section SECTION 2 each sentence.
In each of the following sentences there is one From the word lettered A- D, chose the word 21. My school carried the day in the debate. This
underlined word and one gap, from the list of that best complete each of the following means that my school (a) missed the debate
words lettered A – D, choose the one that is most sentences (b) won the debate (c) chose the date for the
nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word 11. Don’t tell me you are ___ enough to believe debate (d) had very good point
and that will at the same time, correctly fill the his lies (a) credible (b) childish (c) modes 22. We covered much ground at the conference
gap in the sentence. (d) naïve yesterday. This means that we (a) discussed
12. The members of the parliament tabled on __ to some issues (b) treated many issues (c) used a
1. That road which used to be wide now appears the constitution (a) adjustment (b) amendment lot of space (d) argued about many things
____ because of the new drainage (a) winding (c) enactment (d) annulment 23. We saw Ada, of all people, dancing. This
(b) Limited (c) narrow (d) reduced means that (a) we saw Ada for the first time
(b) we saw Ada dancing with everyone
 (c) Ada didn’t want us to see her dancing 35. Quay (a) see (d) daze (c) fruit (d) play long, the surgery was completed.
(d) we were surprised to see Ada dancing
24. There are clear indication that Buba backed From the words lettered A – D, Choose the A B C D
the wrong horse. This means that Buba word that has the same consonant sound(s) 41. Chain Badge stethoscope watch
(a) supported the wrong person (b) argued as the one represented by the letter(s) 42. Aisle office room ward
blindly (c0 abandoned his position (d) bet on a underline 43. Patients client invalid customers
losing horse 36. Swing (a) snag (b) bank (c) wine (d) sign 44. Stretcher bed wheel choir bench
25. I know that they were being economical with 37. Dumb (a) flame (b) rubber (c) sing (d) funny 45. Breathing pulse response pressure
the truth. This means that they (a) were being 38. Theme (a) their smooth (c) theory (d) them 46. Experiment probes drills checks
honest (b) did not know enough about the 39. Phrase (a) cease (b) fleece (c) sees (d) price 47. Theatre Laboratory clinic casualty
matter (c) knew more than they were prepared 40. Tough (a) psyche (b) phonem (c) though 48. Orderliness matron midwives attendance
to say (d) did not know the truth (d) goiter 49. Baby child infant foetus
26. My mother wanted to know what was eating 50. Dripping pumping transfer transfusion
him. This means that she wanted to find out SECTION 5
(a) what had made him become lean (b) what In the following passage, the numbered gaps SECTION B: THEORY
he was spending his money on (c) why he was indicates missing words. Against each number PART 1
upset (d) why he ignored her is the list below the passage, four options are
27. People who tell lies make me see red. This given in column lettered A – D. Choose the Answer only one question from this part (20mks)
means that such people make me (a)dizzy word most suitable to fill the numbered gaps
(b) angry (b) sad (d) anxious in te passage 1. A friend of yours wants to study in your
28. After several attempts to claim the child, he school and has written to you for information
threw in the towel. This means that he The young doctor looked sprightly in his white and advice. Write a reply to him, telling him
(a) succeeded finally (b) accepted defeat coat. Displaying his _41_ very conspicuously all that he needs to know about the school.
(c) gained confidence (d) became indifferent on his neck, he walked through the _42_ 2. The parent – Teachers association of your
29. This is their third defeat in a row. This means greeting each of the _43_ who greeted him in school has decided to transform the school into
that they have (a) been defeated three time return. Then suddenly, his eyes caught a a single sex school. As the senior prefect,
(b) defeated three teams consecutively woman on nearby _44_. He went closer, held write a letter to the chairman giving at least
(c) been defeated by three teams (d) suffered her hand, feeling for her _45_, and carried out three reasons why you disagree with the
three consecutive defeats some other minor _46_. After he had elicited decision.
30. The company has been under siege from the one or two answers from the woman, the 3. You are the main speaker in a debate on the
public. This means that the company is being young doctor ordered, “stretcher, stretcher, topic: Education is the best legacy a parent can
(a) applauded (b) picketed (c) criticized quickly: take her to the _47_. Even the _48_ give to a child. Write your argument for the
(d) shielded who had been supervising her treatment were motion.
amazed. As the woman was being wheeled to 4. Write a story illustrate the saying: Pride goes
SECTION 4 the operation room, one of the nurses, asked; before fall.
From the words lettered A – D, choose the “Are you sure doctor that she is for surgery?”
word that has the same vowel sound as the one The young doctor did not mince words; he PART 2 (15MARKS)
represented by the letter(s) underlined said to her, “this is an ectopic pregnancy, no Read the following passage carefully and answer
31. Chick (a) breath (b) pick (c) hike (d) heard mistake about it. The _49_ must be taken out the questions on it.
32. Afford (a) enjoy (b) peck (c) water (d) grey promptly. “That was it. Within minutes, the
33. Says (a) fez (b) paid (c) watch (d) pride operation began. While this was going on, We believe that the teacher would not be home
34. Cook (a) stew (b) sew (c) book (d) pool blood was being prepared for _50_. Before that weekend. My father has strictly warned us not
to go out at night since recent happening had My mother, who had been awake all this while and v. spotted
shown that it was unsafe. However, the thought of listening to these exchanges, went into our room vi. Verify
those mouth-watering fruits in the teacher’s and verify the truth. My cousin pretended to be
compound made us spend many sleepless nights. fast asleep. When she discovered my absence, she PART 3: SUMMARY (10marks)
We decided that fateful night to sneak out and get gave a heart – rendering cry which at last brought
some delicious mangoes to feast on. my father out. He took the whole scene in at a The announcement in 2011 that the world
glance and stood speechless, gazing at me in shock population had hit the seven billion mark seemed
Toward midnight, my two cousins and I crept and disbelief. He thanked the teacher profusely. to have taken many people by surprise. Most
stealthily out of the house. The fresh air After my mother had bandaged my arm, my father people wondered how humanity could have grown
invigorated us. The moon shone with usual sat me down and rained abuses on me. I broke by a billion within two decades. However, anyone
brightness and that enabled us to see our way down in tears and made a clean confession. This conversant with the factors relevant to human
clearly and the ripe mangoes as well. We soon softened him but id not prevent him from giving growth should understand this phenomenant
reached the teacher’s house, a stone’s throw from my cousins the spanking of their lives. increase. Let us examine the factors that have
ours. We climbed over the wall, as nimbly as prompted the rise in population.
monkeys. Since I was skilled in climbing, my QUESTIONS
cousins asked me to go up the tree which was (a) Why did the writer’s father warned the boys To begin with, thinks of the health facilities
laden with ripe mangoes. In no time, I reached the against going out at night? 1mark obtainable come countries earlier compared with
branch which appeared to be most heavy with (b) Quote a phase in the second paragraph which how man’s knowledge of medical care was
fruits. I shocked it and many juicy mangoes fell to shows that the teacher’s house was not far appalling some countries ago. Toda with medical
the ground. My cousins gathered them into their from the writer’s own 1mark centers within easy reach of most people, and
bags and we blessed our staffs for this windfall. (c) What enabled the teacher to discover the boys? drugs available to combt virtual all forms of
1mark diseases, death rate had been drastically reduce,
Suddenly, the powerful head lights of an (d) Describe what led to the writer’s injury 1mark while expectancy has risen significantly in most
approaching car warned us of impending danger. (e) Why did the writer’s father refused to open the countries. This has caused the great reduction in
To our amazement, it was the teacher and he had door? 1mark infant mortality and subsequently increase in
already spotted us. In my haste to get down. I lost (f) …… an instant alarm……. number of senior citizens
my balance and fell heavily, injuring my arm. My i. what is the grammatical name to this
cousins ran like the wind and escaped, leaving me expression as it is used in the passage? Similarly, there is the vital role of education. The
to my fate. I attempted to run away but could not. ii. What is its function? 2marks spread of education has created a great level of
I lay on the ground groaning in pain. (g) …. Like the wind……. awareness about human welfare and health. Even
i. What figure of speech is contained in primary school pupils know, the danger drinking
The teacher raised an instant alarm and the the expression? unwholesome water, living in an unclean
neigbours came rushing to the scene. I pleaded Ii. What is its function? 2marks environment and ignoring simple rules of hygiene.
with them not to harm me. The teacher and another (h) For each of the following words find another Besides, education has deflated the various myths
man lifted me up and brought me to my father’s word of phrase which means the same and and superstitions that pervaded our father’s lives
house. The teacher called my father to open the which can replace it as it is used in the passage
door but he did not answer. Nutrition is also a significant contributors. As
i. recent agricultural practices continue to be aided by
We have your son hee he is wounded the teacher ii. Delicious serious research efforts, and as tools for farming
explained my son is sleeping peacefully in his iii. Stealthily the land continue to be more available, food
room, my father retorted. iv. Approaching supply has been greatly enhanced in an
unprecedented way. Today more food crops can be
available on less land area that was the case, thus, (b) In two sentences, one for each, summarize
the monster of hunger that used to cause starvation what is likely to follow the continuing rapid
and death is being progressively tamed. population growth 4marks

Finally, think of the relative security humanity has

enjoyed in the past few decades. In the past
centuries, major wars were a common
phenomenon. Was that ravaged Europe and Africa
for many decades have almost been forgotten.
Although there are still skirmishes in some parts of
the world, these have not been serious enough to
bring about a significant change in population.

What then is the net result? Each factor translates

to a healthier, safer and longer life consequently,
our population multiplies at a consistent rate. So,
we need not be surprise that the world population
is seven billion. Indeed, in the next quarter of a
century, another billion may be added and by the
end of this century we may have double the
present number. But in this lies another danger:
that of gross over-population. If the present trend
continues unabated, the planate earth may soon
become too small to house mankind. For example,
arable land may be grossly inadequate to support
food production for the very large population.
Also, if the population continues to grow
unchecked, there will be too many people who
may contribute to polluting the environment. Just
imagine the amount of waste that would be
generated daily by homes, industries and
institutions. These waster and debris, if not
collected regularly and disposed of properly, may
lead to environmental degradation. We should
therefore, watch it.

QUESTION
(a) In four sentences, one for each, summarize the
factors that have prompted the rapid increase
in world’s population. 6marks
 4. According to St. John’s gospel who among the 13. ___ is the substance of things hoped for and
following is a “vine dresser”? (a) Jesus the evidence of things not seen (a)love
(b) God (c) prophets (d) preacher (b) faith (c) charity (d) Healing
5. “I am the way the truth and life no one comes 14. The new commandment of Christ to us is to
to the father but by me” this statement was ___ one another (a) abide in the law (b) hate
made by Jesus Christ at the event of __ the poor (c) love (d) destroy
(a) Christ baptism (b) Jesus temptation (c) the 15. ___ can be defined as having strong affection
last supper (d) transfiguration of Christ for the good of the liked one (a) sharing
6. “ your brother will rise again” Jesus made this (b) prayer (c) love (d) endurance
statement at ___ (a) Cana of galilee (b) Judea 16. We combine faith and ___ to live as
(c) Bethany (d) Carpanaum practicing Christians (a) love (b) Hope
7. The two sisters of Lazarus were___ and ____ (c) work (d) struggle
(a) Ruth and Mary (b) Salome and Martha 17. God’s act of declaring the sinner righteous by
(c) Mary and Martha (d) Elizabeth and Mary granting him divine righteousness when he
8. “Behold the lamb of Gog”…. Jesus was shows faith in Jesus, the crucified son of God
compared to a lamb because he __ has a lamb is ___ (a) faithfulness (b) inspiration
that he’s taking care of (b) was to be (c) Justification (d) friendliness
humiliated by the Jews (c) was to bear the sin 18. The following are the ways of demonstrating
of the world on the cross (d) has features of a love for one another except ___ (a)sharing
sacrificial lamb (b) giving (c) tolerance (d) jealously
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 9. John the Baptist was to identify Jesus as the 19. The kind of love that is legitimately expressed
SECONDARY SCHOOL, lamb of God, in one of the following ways in marriage and which is the most often
(a) he would see a man casting out demons abused by ways of sexual immorality is called
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (b)Jesus will appear head and shoulder above ___ (a) storge love (b) agape love (c) eros love
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR the people (c) the spirit of the Lord would (d) real love
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. descend on Him like a dove and remain upon 20. ___ is the greatest spiritual endowment
SUBJECT. Christian Religious Studies him (d) he would see a lad coming to baptism (a) faith (b) hope (c) love (d) charity
with a lamb 21. God opposes the proud and gives grace to the
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR 10. The good shepherd according to John, ___ (a) humble (b) preacher (c) great
possessed the down line qualities except (d) upright
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this (a) enters the sheep fold by the door (b) he 22. “Lord, if you had been her my brother would
section climbs another way to the sheep fold (c) he not have died”. Who made this statement?
1. FOR God to show his love for the world, he calls his own sheep out by name (d) he seek (a) Mary (b) Martha (c) Elizabeth (d) Deborah
sent unto us ___ (a) John the Baptist (b) Elijah green pastures for his sheep 23. Before the resurrection of Lazarus, he had
(c) Jesus Christ (d) Isaiah 11. The fruit of justification include the following been buried in the tomb for __ days (a) six
2. The “living water” Jesus offered to the except ____ (a) peace (b) hope (c) endurance (b) four (c) three (d) five
Samaritan woman signified __ (a) her husband (d) luxurious life 24. The following are types of love except ____
(b) peaceful mind (c) true life (d) word of God 12. The main condition for justification according (a) agape love (b) Philia love (c) storage love
3. “Thou art my beloved son with whom I am to St. Paul is ___ (a) human merit (b) ability to (d) storge love
well pleased” this declaration was made at keep to the law (c) faith in Christ redemptive 25. Sin originated into the world through one man
Jesus (a) resurrection (b) trail (c) baptism work (d) possession of spirit named___ (a) Abraham (b) Jesus (c) Adam
(d) birth (d) Cain
26. ___ is a supernatural gift of favour from God 38. Sinners who repent from their sins and accept (a) leaves the sheep and flees at the sight of
to man’s salvation and sanctification (a) faith Christ as their Lord and Saviour, gain danger (b) owns the sheep and does not care
(b) Grace (c) Hope (d) law salvation through the ___ of God (a) love for them (c) is the gate-keeper, who shuts the
27. According to John, living water means water (b) grace (c) comfort (d) prayer sheep out. (d) cares for the sheep but does not
that (a) spring from Jacob well (b) is running 39. As John the Baptist, baptize with water for discipline them
down streams (c) wells up to eternal life repentance, in Christ baptism, He baptizes 49. The Christian concept of justification is that
(d) quenches thirst with the __ (a) fire of hell (b) gold and silver (a) by His natural wisdom a sinner could be
28. One’s old nature comprises of the following (c) Holy spirit (d) worldly possessions reconciled to God (b)through faith in Christ,
except__ (a) hatred (b) meekness (c) wrath 40. A person who prepares for the coming of an the sinner is regarded as guiltless before God
(d) anger important person is termed ____ (a) a (c) through His own knowledge, man can do
29. The new life in Christ operates through ____ sojourner (b) a guest (c) a forerunner (d) a what is pleasing to God (d) by one’s effort of
(a) humility (b) the name of Jesus dignitary keeping the law, man is perfect before God
(c) immortality (d) wisdom 41. All the following are incidence where Jesus 50. According to John, those who believe in the
30. All the following are characteristics of new described Himself as the light of the world light will become ___ (a) agent of light
life except___ (a) humility (b) proud (c) love except (a) Christ encounter with Nicodemus (b) people of light (c) light of life (d) sons of
(d) justice (b) when Jesus had discharged the woman light.
31. According to Paul grace is a ___ (a) right for caught in adultery (c) when Jesus feed the
all Christians to make wealth (b) privilege to multitude (d) when Jesus was questioned by SECTION B: ESSAY QUESTIONS
love long (c) right to gain eternal life (d) free His disciple of a man born blind
gift from God for the man of faith 42. God’s highest love for man is ___ (a) riches INSTRUCTION: Answer any four questions.
32. Paul said in Galatians that before faith come, (b) sacrifice of the only begotten son Question 1 is compulsory
we were confined under __ (a) grace (b) the (c) creation of man in God’s image (d) 1. (a) Define the term “Love” 2marks
law (c) love (d) sinful life freedom to live and die (b) State 4 types of love you know 8marks
33. New life in Christ means (a) paying your tithe 43. Love according to Paul’s epistle have the (c) Enumerate five characteristics of love as
timely (b) helping the poor among the needy following attributes except__ (a) patience given by St. Paul in 1st Corinthians 5marks
(c) being dead to sin (d) getting baptized (b) kindness (c) selfishness (d) 2. (a) Identify at least the three instances in the
34. In order to attain a true life in Jesus Christ we accommodation book of John where Jesus referred to Himself
have to put away (a)faith, love and charity 44. He who does not love according to John’s as the light of the world 6marks
(b) worldliness, meekness and patience epistle does not know __ (a) life (b) sin (c) (b) State clearly the response of Jesus to the
(c) stealing ,killing and hatred (d) forbearance, God (d) Christianity question by His disciples whether the man
charity and love 45. St. Paul advised Christians that the grace of bored blind was because of his sins or that of
35. God saves and protects his people as long as God in their lives should not be a reason for his parents 4msrks
they are ___ to him (a) arrogant (b) friendly their lives should not be a reason for them to 3. (a) Narrate the event where Jesus explained to
(c) faithful (d) religious continue in their___ life (a) Christian Martha the “He is the resurrection and the life
36. Our respond to God’s love should be in the (b) cheerful (c) sinful (d) wisdom 7marks
following ways except ___ (a) fighting one 46. The natural man is ___ (a) faithful (b) truthful (b) State three moral significance of the event
another (b) believing that Christ death paid for (c) hopeful (d) sinful to we Christians 3marks
our sin (c) doing the will of God (d) living 47. The powerful nature of God is brought into 4. (a) Define the concept “justification” in the
exemplary lives worthy of God’s children reality through ___ (a) faith (b) charity Christian contest 2marks
37. Another word for sanctification is ___ (a) love (c) church attendance (d) endurance (b) State and explain briefly any four fruits of
(b) jealousy (c) righteousness (d) holiness 48. In His teaching about Himself, Jesus said the justification 8marks
hireling is not a good shepherd because he
5. (a) How did Jesus describe Himself as the true vegetation and sea (c) aquatic animals and 16. Moses had a son through Zipporah, by name
vine 4marks birds of the air (d) heavenly bodies ___, meaning “ I have been a sojourner in a
(b) In what three ways is this message relevant 4. __ and __ were parents of Joseph (a) James / strange land” (a) Judah (b) Benjamin (c) Abel
to us as true Christians? 6marks Martha (b) Jonah / Jael (c) Jacob / Rachel (d) Gershon
6. (a) What circumstance led to Jesus teaching (d) Amram / Jochebed 17. “Fear not, stand firm and see the salvation of
about himself as the water? 6marks 5. When joseph cold not see his brothers while the Lord” This statement was made by Moses
(b) State any two moral significance of this grazing at Shechem, he met them at __ where at (a) the wilderness of sin (b) Meribah
event and teaching to our Christian faith 4mks he was directed (a) Egypt (b) Bethel (c) Arab (c) Egypt (d) Pinahiroth
(d) Dothan 18. At the time of Deborah’s reign as judge in
6. The land, the sea and vegetation were created Israel, she was a ___ (a) Medium (b) Sorcerer
on the __ day (a) seventh (b) third (c) sixth (c) priest (d) prophetess
(d) fourth 19. “The Lord will sell Sisera into the hand of a
7. In the second source of creation in the Bible, woman “this statement was made by Deborah
the job of naming other living creatures was to ___ (a) Barak (b) Jabin (c) Jael
done by (a) Angels (b) God (c) Man (d) Jesus (d) Lappidoth
8. According to Yahwistic source of creation, 20. Joel and Abijah were the sons of ___ (a) Eli
the river that flowed out of Eden to water the (b) Samuel (c) Saul (d) David
garden was divided into ___ (a) three (b) two 21. The Israelite rejected the rule of Samuel’s sons
(c) four (d) six because they (a) ran away from God (b) were
9. Joseph was sold to the Ishmaelite traders for faithful in their service (c) took bribe and
___ shekels of silver (a) ten (b) twenty perverted justice (d) lay with the woman at the
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (c) thirty (d) fifty altar
SECONDARY SCHOOL, 10. The second account of creation in the Bible is 22. Joshua’s farewell address to the elders of
centered on the creation of ___ (a) birds of the Israel took place at (a) Raphidim (b) Shiloh
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. air (b) firmament (c) man (d) the sea creatures (c) Bethel (d) Shechem
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 11. According to Joseph’s interpretation of 23. By removing his sandals before the burning
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. Pharaoh’s dream, the seven lean cows and thin bush, Moses was showing a sense of ______
SUBJECT. Christian Religious Studies ears of grains represented ___ (a) abundance (a) reverence and submissioneness (b) faith
(b) famine (c) plentiful (d) more farm yields and belief (c) honour and love (d) humility and
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR 12. God appeared to Moses in a burning bush on respect
mount ___ (a) Gilboa (b) Camel (c) Tabor 24. Deborah was a wife to ___ (a) Joshua
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this (d) Nebo (b) Moses (c) Lappidoth (d) Sisera
section 13. When Joseph brought his entire family down 25. “I AM WHO I AM” signifies that God is ____
1. There are basically ___ accounts of Biblical to Egypt, they were settled in one of the fertile (a) a wonder worker (b) an ancient God (c) an
stories of Christian (a) four (b) seven (c) two area in the Nile Delta called ___ (a) Dothan unchangeable God (d) a comforter of the Jews
(d) one (B) Goshen (c) Midian (d) Horeb 26. Which of the following tribes accompanied
2. According to Yahwistic source of creation, the 14. Moses as a baby was ___ months old when his Deborah and Barak to the war against Jabin
creation of ___ was first before other creatures parents could not hide him any longer (a) ten and Sisera? (a) Naphtali and Zebulum
(a) firmament (b) sea (c) man (d) birds (b) five (c) three (d) eight (b) Ephraim and Benjamin (c) Judah and
3. ___ creatures were created on the fifth day in 15. The name Moses means___ (a) baptized with Benjamin (d) Ephraim and Dan
accordance with the priestly account of water (b) drawn out of water (c) sank into the
creation in the bible (a) light (b) land, water (d) suffering in water
27. Joshua died at the age of __ years old 37. Moses asked Pharaoh to allow the Hebrew to 49. The two among the twelve spies sent by
(a) hundred and twelve (b) hundred and ten depart from Egypt to (a) buy more food from Moses who brought an encouraging report are
(c) hundred and forty (d) ninety the land of Canaan (b) fight the Jebusites (c) (a) Jacob and Esau (b) James and John
28. Joshua was a successful leader because he was rest in the wilderness (d) make a sacrifice to (c) Hophni and Phinehas (d) Joshua and Caleb
___ (a) chosen by Moses (b) a good spy the Lord in the wilderness 50. ___ was the first Canaanite tribe which was
(c) trustful in God (d) a brilliant soldier 38. Moses after killing the Egyptian and been destroyed for oppressed by Joshua. (a) Jericho
29. Eli, the priest in Shiloh, was condemned accused, fled to the land of ___ (a) Hittite (b) Jebusites (c) Amorites (d) Jerubabel
because he (a) officiated at the temple without (b) Philistine (c) Midian (d) Amorite
assistance (b) did not take God’s message 39. Who is Isaac’s wife? (a) Rebekah (b) Rachel
from Samuel (c) allowed his children to (c) Leah (d) Bilah
deprive God of his share of sacrifice 40. Joseph’s brothers hated him more because SECTION B: THEORY QUESTIONS
(d) disallowed the worship of Yahweh at the (a) of the coat Jacob bought for him (b) he was
temple the son of Rachel (c) of his dream (d) his Instruction: Answer any four questions. Question 6
30. The two sons of Eli were ___ and ___ father loved him is compulsory
(a) Hophni and Phinehas (b) Isau and Jacob 41. Moses led the children of Israel through the
(c) Joel and Abijah (d)Joseph and Benjamin (a) Sahara Desert (b) Dead sea (c) Red sea 1. (a) Give the summary of the detail creation by
31. Eli’s lack of parental responsibility led to the (d) valley of the shadow of death God in the Priestly source of creation in the
following except (a) institution of monarchy in 42. Who sold his birthright for a plate of pottage? Bible 6marks
Israel (b) death of Hophni and Phinehas (a) Daniel (b) Esau (c) Jacob (d) Isaac (b) In the Garden of Eden, the four tributes of
(c) capture of the ark of the covenant 43. God appeared to Moses in the burning bush at the river that watered it were ___, ___.___ and
(d) decisive defeat of Israel by philistiaan mount Horeb. Another name for it is _______ ____ 4marks
32. Which of the following was responsible for the (a) Mount Camel (b) mount Sinai (c) Mount 2. (a) Narrate how Joseph was elevated to the
misdeed of the sons of Eli? (a) their own Ghigal (d) Mount Raul governor of Egypt 7marks
stupidity (b) their father’s lack of parental 44. The new Pharaoh who did not know Joseph (b) What two main significance can we derive
responsibility (c) the absence of prophecy in oppressed the Israelites because (a) he did not as Christians? 3marks
Israel (d) their lack of religious and moral know Joseph and Jacob (b) they continued to 3. To what extent was the moral weakness of
education give birth to male children (c) he feared that Eli’s children due to their father’s lack of
33. ___ was Moses Father – in – law (a) Abraham they might join his enemies to fight him parental responsibility? How did God reacted
(b) Jethro otherwise Reuel (c) Reuben (d) the midwives did not kill the children at to his lapses? 10marks
(d) Judah birth 4. Who was king Asa? Suggest four among his
34. One of the brothers of Joseph who requested 45. ___ caused Joseph to be thrown into jail due to achievements which he did to please God
that he should be thrown into the pit rather false accusation (a) Joseph’s brother 10marks
than been killed was ___ (a) Judah (b) Potiphar’s wife (c) the butter (d) Benjamin 5. (a) Describe the crossing of the red sea and
(b) Benjamin (c) Reuben (d) Dan 46. ___ was an event and condition that made God’s role in the epistle 6mrks
35. ___ are set of principle or religious belief held Joseph’s brother to reunite with him (b) What two moral lesson did the Israelites
by any worshippers. (a) anthems (b) Creed (a) Conflicts (b) captivity (c) flood (d) famine learned from this experience which we as
(c) Hymns (d) Rituals 47. Moses was born by a couple from tribe of ___ Christians should also consider? 4marks
36. A tree in the garden of Eden, of the ___ of (a) Benjamin (b) Naphtali (c) Jericho (d) Levi 6. (a) Describe how Eli failed as a parent
good and evil was commanded by God not to 48. The Egyptian army and Pharaoh were finally 6marks
eat by Adam (a) righteousness (b) knowledge humiliated at ___ (a) River Nile (b)chariot (b) What five ways did Israel suffer as a result
(c)permanent (d) research mountain (c) the Red sea (d) the Beautiful of it? 5marks
Gate (c) State two moral lesson here 4marks
 (b) sentences and imprisoned (c) cast into a pit 14. The direct consequence of the behaaviour of
(d) molestate and raped the sons of Samuel was (a) their death in battle
4. Joseph earned his brother’s hatred because (b) that Israel rejected God (c) the capture of
(a) he carried ill report of them to Jacob (b) he the ark of God (d) Israel’s request for King.
was a dreamer (c) Jacob had more love for 15. The elders of Israel went to Samuel to request
Joseph (d)he did not join them to shepherd the for a king at (a) Jerusalem (b) Gilgal (c)
flocks Ramah (d) Ziph
5. As Joseph revealed himself to his brothers, he 16. Why did God commanded Saul to entirely
told them that God allowed him to be sold into destroy Amalek? (a) they were serving foreign
slavery so as to (a) stop he famine (b) preserve gods (b) they opposed the Israelites on the way
his life (c) punish them (d) seek revenge (c) they refuse male circumcision (d) they
6. The parents of Moses belongs to the tribe of offered false worship to God
(a) Judah (b) Benjamin (c) Levi (d) Ephraim 17. God repented that He made Saul king because
7. The parents of Moses did the following to he (a) utterly destroyed the Amalekite (b) told
ensure his survival except (a) casting him into the Kenites to depart from Amalek (c) did not
the river (b) hiding him for three months perform God’s commandment (d) set up a
(c) putting him in a padded basket (d) his sister monument at Camel
watching over him 18. God sent an evil spirit to torment Saul because
8. These are your gods, O Israel, who brought (a) he wanted to bring David into Saul’s life
you up out of Egypt! This statement was a (b) Saul had disobeyed Samuel (c) the Lord’s
manifestation of Israel’s (a) unfaithfulness spirit had departed from him (d) he wanted
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (b) immorality (c) adultery (d) idolatry Saul to enjoy the sound of the lyre
SECONDARY SCHOOL, 9. Before Joshua’s appointment as a successor to 19. Which of the following people was ready to
Moses, he was (a) commander of the army strike King Saul at the wilderness of Ziph?
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (b) servant in the temple (c) minister of Moses (a) Abishai (b) Abner (c) Ahimelech (d) Joab
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR (d) counsellor to the Israelite 20. David spared Saul’s life at Ziph because David
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. 10. Deborah, a prophetess who was a judge in (a) recognized the rules of engagement (b) was
SUBJECT. Christian Religious studies Israel was the wife of (a) Barak (b) Lappidoth a man after God’s heart (c) wanted to rebuke
(c) Joshua (d) Sisera Abner negligence ( d) recognized Saul as
CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR 11. The two sons of Eli were (a) Hophni and God’s anointed
Phinehas (b) Phinehas and Joel (c) Joel and 21. Prophet Nathan named David and Bathsheba’s
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this Abijah (d) Hophni and Abijah second child (a) Solomon (b) Jedidiah
section 12. The sons of Eli were worthless because they (c)Absalom (d) Adonijah
1. God created man and asked him to dominate (a) stole offering from the Lord’s house 22. At Gibeon, Solomon was promised all of the
all the following except (a) fish of the sea (b) treated the Lord’s offering with contempt following except (a) wise and discerning mind
(b) spirit of the earth (c) birds of the air (c) seized the Lord’s offering from the temple (b) the life of his enemies (c) long and
(d) creeping animals (d) took bribes and perverted justice fulfilling life (d) rich and honour.
2. Adam called Eve woman because she was 13. It is the Lord, let him do what seems good to 23. Which of the following were the immediate
(a) sentenced of man (b) a resemblance o man him. This statement by Eli shows that God effects of Ahab’s marriage to Jezebel? It
(c) a helper of man (d) made out of man (a) make the final decision (b) knows (a) made Israel politically weak (b) made
3. Which of the following experience did Joseph everything (c) is impartial (d) is the Alpha and Ahab a dictator (c) corrupted Israel’s social
not go through? He was (a) sold into slavery Omega system (d) gave foreign gods a stronghold
24. Elijah proclaimed drought in Israel as a statement means (a) discipleship demands total (b) by jumping over the city fence (c) by
punishment for (a) persecuting the prophets of commitment (b) a disciple must carry his cross disguising himself (d) through the basket over
God (b) worshipping Baal (c) Ahab marrying (c) a disciple must bear his problems alone the wall
Jezebel (d) the murder of Naboth (d) death on the cross awaits any true disciple 44. I was in the city of Joppa praying, and in a
25. The contest between Elijah and the Baal 34. The response to Peter’s question, Lord how trance I saw a vision… what was the outcome
prophets took place on/at (a) Mount Sinai often shall my brother sin against me, and I of this vision? (a) Peter ate forbidden fruit for
(b) Mount Camel (c)Book Cherith (d) Brook forgive him? Meant that forgiveness is the first time (b) Gentiles were circumcised for
Kishon (a) unconditional (b) limitless (c) conditional the first time (c) Peter was praised by believers
26. When Nehemiah received the report about the (d) countable in Jerusalem (d) Gentiles received the word of
ruin in Jerusalem, he (a) wept, fasted and 35. The prayer of Jesus at Gethsemane shows that God
prayed (b) put on sack clothes (c) refused to He (a) was in severe agony (b) wanted to 45. According to James, a true religion is the one
serve Artaxerxes (d) comforted the king escape death (c) needed the support of His that pays attention to (a) Orphans and widows
27. King Nebuchadnezzar issued a decree that no disciples (d) had been abandoned by God (b) performance of miracle (c) property of
one should speak against the God of Shadrach, 36. Which of these did not happen immediately members (d) praying and fasting
Meshach and Abednego because (a) He is God Jesus gave up the ghost? (a) the guards were 46. The person used by James to illustrate his
who destroys (b) no other god could deliver scared and fled (b) saints were risen (c) the teaching on prayer was (a) Rahab (b) Isaac
like Him (c) he listens to the cry of the curtain divided into two (d) earth shook (c) Job (d) Elijah
afflicted (d) He easily perform miracle 37. According to Mark, one of the women who 47. Peter described Christians as a chosen race
28. Before Amos became a prophet, he was a witness the burial of Jesus was Mary the because they(a) declare God’s wonderful
(a) Judge (b) seer (c) tent maker (d) farmer (a) sister of Martha (b) Mother of Philip deeds (b) have all been anointed (c) have
29. The name of Hosea’s daughter “not pitied” (c) mother of Jesus (d) mother of Joses become born again (d) well be honoured in
means God will (a) punish the house of Jehu 38. The prophesy of Peter denying his master was heaven
for the blood of Israel (b) no longer have pity fulfilled (a) during Christ’s arrest (b) during 48. Peter admonished Christians not to use their
on the house of Israel (c) no longer have pity Christ’s trial (c) on the day of crucifixion freedom as (a) license to disrespect authority
on the house of Judah (d) deny Judah His (d) on the resurrection day (b) pretext for evil (c)reason for discrimination
protective presence 39. Judas Iscariot was replaced by (a) Nicolaus (d) liberty to live carelessly
30. Jesus was baptized by John in order to (b) Bersabbas (c) Silas (d) Mathias 49. The very stone which the builders rejected has
(a) confirm John’s power (b) please the Jews 40. Ananias and Sapphire were punished because become the head of the corner. The head of the
(c) fulfill all righteousness (d) identify with the they (a) did not live as good couples (b) were corner stone refers to (a) Saul of Tarsus
sinners greedy and covetous (c) lied to the Holy spirit (b) Simon Peter (c) John the Baptist (d) Jesus
31. He will give His angels charge of you… and (d) lied to the apostles Christ
on their hands they will bear you up… what 41. The reason for appointing the seven deacons 50. According to Peter Christians should emulate
reply was given on this occasion? (a) you shall was to (a) spread the gospel (b) performed Christ because He (a) suffered for our sin on
not tempt the Lord your God (b) man shall not miracles (c) serve table (d) visit the converts the cross (b) was crucified unjustly
live by bread alone (c) you shall worship the 42. I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting… The (c) redeemed Christians by His blood
Lord your God (d) only God shall you serve men who were present with Saul were amazed (d) provide all our needs
32. Before the call of James and John, Jesus met because they (a) experienced the power of God
them helping their father to (a) catch fish in (b) heard the voice of an Angel (c) heard the SECTION B: ESSAY QUESTION
the sea (b) mend the fishing net (c) collect tax voice of God (d) witnessed the appearance of Instruction: Answer any four question from this
(d) bury the dead an Angel section. Question 4 is compulsory
33. Whoever does not bear his own cross and 43. To save Saul’s life in Damascus, the disciples
come after me cannot be my disciple. This helped him escape (a) through the city gate
1. (a) Narrate the event that led to the statement
“This is my beloved son with whom I am well
pleased” 6marks
(b) Discuss briefly for steps to take to become
committed to God 4marks
2. (a) Relate the trial of Jesus before the
Sanhedrin according to Mark’s gospel 7marks
(b) Give two reasons foe which people bear
false witness against others 3marks
3. (a) My soul is very Sorrowful, even to death;
remain here and watch with me. Give an
account of what happened to Jesus after he
made this statement 7marks
(b) Identify two ways by which one can assist
a fellow Christian going through challenges
3marks
4. (a) Describe the temptation of Jesus as
recorded in the gospel of Matthew 9marks
(b) In what three ways were the temptation
significant to Jesus in His ministry? 6marks
5. (a) Describe the communal living of the early
church 7marks
(b) What three lessons can be learnt from the
life of the early church? 3marks
6. (a) Highlight Jesus’ call of the twelve disciples
8marks
(b) Identify four good qualities of a Christian
leader 2marks
 implemented (d) order of judiciary and 11. The following are features of a state except
legislature (a) functional government (b) definite territory
3. Government is the machinery established to (c) unpatriotic citizen (d) permanence
organize and manage the affairs of ________ 12. Government as an academic field of study is
(a) rulers (b) aliens (c) the state (d) the popularly called___ (a) partisan politics
insurgence (b) political science (d) anthropology
4. The judicial organ of government is the body (d) sociology
which (a) implements the law (b) make the 13. ___ is the capacity to affect another person’s
law (c) rewards law makers (d) interpret the behaviour by the threat of sanction (a) Fascism
law (b) authority (c) power (d) capitalism
5. A government performs the following 14. ___ is the form of power which is acquired by
functions except (a) safeguarding life and one’s knowledge or intelligence (a) political
property (b) maintaining law and order power (b) export power (c) physical power
(c) providing basic welfare needs (d) military power
(d) providing all the needs of its citizens 15. All the following are sources of power except
6. All of the following are good reasons why we (a) faith (b) constitution (c) economic wealth
study government except (a) knowledge of an (d) force
individual’s right and duties (b) training in 16. Power plus legitimacy equals to __ (a) loyalty
good citizenship (c) knowledge of the (b) authority (c) power (d) anarchy
processes of government (d) knowledge on 17. ___ in simple terms implies a law abiding
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR ways to improve corruption citizen of a state (a) Anarchy (b) Fascism
SECONDARY SCHOOL, 7. Capitalism is an economic system in which (c) Legitimacy (d) gerrymandering
(a) the economy of the state is centrally 18. ___ is an independence of a state without an
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. planned and controlled (b) private persons are internal or external suppression in its affairs
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR permitted to undertake enterprises (a) sovereignty (b) constitutionalism
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. (c) accumulation of private property is (c) Nationalism (d) mobocracy
SUBJECT. GOVERNMENT forbidden (d) the means of production are 19. All are determinants of legitimacy except
owned and controlled by the state (a) free and fair election (b) government
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR 8. The political arrangement which emphasizes accountability (c) guarantee of fundamental
community feeling and togetherness is called human right (d) inadequate infrastructural
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this (a) socialism (b) communalism (c) nationalism facility
section (d) constitutionalism 20. One of the following is not a limitation of
1. Government refers to all the following except 9. A political system in which the state owns and sovereignty of a state (a) constitutional
(a) an institution of all state (b) the process of control the major means of production is restriction (b) public opinion (c) rulers will
rulng a political community (c) the exercise of known as (a) feudalism (b) socialism and desire (d) international laws
power and authority (d) activities of (c) capitalism (d) fascism 21. Democracy as a concept and practice,
parliamentary opposition 10. The process of taking part in the selection of originated from ___ (a) America (b) Greece
2. Government as the act of governing means the leaders in a country is political (c) Britain (d) China
(a)activities of pressure groups and political (a) socialization (b) participation 22. Democracy as defined in its original form as
parties (b) act of voting a bill (c) activities by (c) interaction (d) culture “government of the people by the people and
which governmental political are made and for the people” is an idea of ____ (a) A.V
 Dicey (b) Aristotle (c) Max Weber (c) ministers and the police (d) customs and 43. A government’s supreme power to demand
(d) Abraham Lincoln the police obedience from its citizens demonstrates the
23. For democracy to be sustainable in a state, it 33. Legitimacy is determined mainly by _____ notion of (a) rule of law (b) parliamentary
needs a ___ (a) partial electoral commission (a) charisma (b) influence (c) acceptance supremacy (c) sovereignty (d) separation of
(b) rich politicians c) large police force (d) force powers
(d) Well-informed electorate 34. Political socialization begins from ___ 44. Which of the following facilitates the working
24. Which of the following agent can be (a) adulthood (b) childhood (c) old age of a democratic government? (a) dormant
considered as the most effective agent of (d) manhood press (b) partial judiciary (c) vigilante group
political socialization? (a) the family (b) peer 35. Which of the following is a feature of (d) political parties
group (c) the school (d) the mass media democracy? (a( majority rule (b) election by 45. Right to rule based on norms, customs and
25. All the following are experienced by a society selected adult (c) quick decision making conventions of the people is referred to as
without government except (a) insecurity (d) rule by wealthy (a) Legal authority (b) charismatic authority
(b) lawlessness (c) planned development 36. In a parliamentary system, the executive is (c) rational authority (d) traditional authority
(d) political Anarchy weak because it is (a) accountable to the 46. Which of the following is a feature of
26. Which of the following hinders the parliament (b) responsible for its actions capitalism? (a) removal of social inequalities
establishment of a representative government (c) headed by the prime minister (d) the head (b) equitable re-distribution of property
in a state (a) mass illiteracy (b) existence of of state that controls the government (c) protection of workers (d) maximization of
pressure group (c) vibrant political culture 37. An advantage of a confederation over a profit
(d) independent electoral commission federation is that the component units ______ 47. The highest stage of socialism is (a) fascism
27. Power is transformed into legal authority (a) have the right to (b) share resources (b) communalism (c) communism
through (a) force (b) prayer (c) legitimacy equally (c) are politically stable (d) cooperate (d) feudalism
(d) influence freely with the centre 48. Communism was popularized by ___ (a) Karl
28. In a presidential system of government, the 38. Confederation was once practiced by _____ Marx and Fredrick Engels (b) Max Weber and
president can constitutionally be removed (a) Nigeria and Ghana (b) Senegal and the Aristle (c) Plato and Socrates (d) Harold and
from the office through (a) persuasion (b) coup Gambia (c) Mali and Cote d’ivoire (d) China Jean Bodin
d’atat (c) impeachment (d) vote-of – no and America 49. The modern idea of democracy includes all the
confidence 39. Absence of government in a state is referred to following except (a) developed unlimited
29. A notable feature of cabinet system of as (a) instability (b) electoral malpractice freedom (b) civil liberty (c) periodic elections
government is (a) collective responsibility (c) Anarchy (d) confusion (d) equality before the law
(b) the separation of powers (c) violation of 40. A sovereign power over a number of people in 50. Sovereignty ultimately resides in (a) the
human right (d) impeachment of the executive a specific geographical area is called ____ people within a political society (b) a
30. The set attitude and beliefs that determine the (a) society (b) region (c) state (d) nation country’s chief executive(c) the judges of the
behaviour of citizens in a political system is 41. A system of government in which the political supreme court (d) traditional ruler
called (a) socialization (b) political culture power is vested in the elected representatives
(c) devolution (d) representation government to decide on behalf of the people is known as
31. Political power could be acquired through (a) Oligarchy (b) fascism (c) Democracy SECTION B: ESSAY QUESTIONS
(a) persuasion (b) election (c) sanction (d) feudalism Instruction: Answer any four questions in all.
(d) nomination 42. A situation where all the citizens meet in an Question 1 is compulsory
32. Government protects the lives and property of open place to govern the state is called
the citizens of a state through __ (a) court and (a) direct democracy (b) electoral college 1. (a) State the three approaches to the definition
the police (b) legislature and prison (c) guided democracy (d) representative of government 3marks
democracy (b) State any three reasons why we study
 government 6marks
(c) Outline six features of a state you know
6marks
2. (a) Define distinguishly the concepts of power
and authority 2marks
(b) Mention and explain briefly four types of
power in relation to their sources of
acquisition 8marks
3. (a) Define these two economic political system
(i) Capitalism 2marks
(ii) Socialism 2marks
(b) Mention three main features of the above
system in each case 6marks
4. (a) What is unitary system of government
2marks
(b) Outline two merits and demerits of a
unitary state 8marks
5. (a) Distinguish the meaning of the presidential
system of government from the parliamentary
system of government 2marks
(b) In a tabular form, state four differences
between the two system of government above
8marks
6. (a) Define these forms of government
(i) Federalism
(ii) Confederation 2marks
(b) What are the four difference between the
federal system of government and the
confederation system of government 8marks
 major in the army (d) A pilot with the Nigerian service is known as (a) resource management
Airways (b) deconcentration(c) personal administration
3. The main duty of the civil service commission (d) general order
under the Nigerian republican constitution was 10. The rules and regulation in the civil service
(a) the retirement and settlement of pension for are generally known as (a) professional mode
federal civil servants (b) advising the (b) bureaucratic line (c) general order (d) civil
government on the establishment of new disobedience
ministries (c) the appointment and promotion 11. The tenure of members of the civil service in
of judges (d) the recruitment, discipline and the first instance is __ (a) five years (b) nine
promotion of civil servants years (c) seven years (d) three years
4. Neutrality of civil servants implies that they 12. Which of the following is true of a public
should (a) belong to political parties of their corporation? It is (a) set up to make profit for
choice (b) be recruited on the basis of merit the government (b) to promote essential
(c) not actively participating in partisan service for the people at low cost (c) owned by
politics (d) not liable to blame or praise for the minister (d) established by a bye-law
their actions 13. Local government is described as grass root
5. Government control to public corporation in government because (a) it is the nearest
Nigeria is mainly to (a) ensure public government to the people (b) its headquarters
accountability (b) allow freedom of action on is located in the villages (c) it is the first tier of
the part of the corporations (c) guarantee government (d) all the local people participate
adequate profit maximization of the in it
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR corporation (d) encourage ethic domination in 14. Public corporation are financed _______
SECONDARY SCHOOL, the establishment (a) by tax payers (b) with private funds
6. The main features that makes the civil service (c) with entrepreneurial funds (d) by political
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. not to be held responsible for any blame or parties
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR praise in their action is termed __ 15. Which of the following is an advantage of
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. (a) impartiality (b) permanence (c) anonymity local government in West Africa? Act as
SUBJECT. GOVERNMENT (d) meritocracy (a) agents of money based politics (b) agents
7. One of these functions is not foe the public of pressure groups (c) training ground for
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR policies (a) formation of government public political leaders (d) electoral commission
policies (b) preparation of budgets of the 16. Which of the following manages public
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this government (c) generation of revenue through corporation? (a) Chambers of commerce
section profit maximization (d) keep safety of (b) board of directors (c) an accountant general
1. ___ are body of persons that help the governmental documents which have useful (d) an auditor general
executive arm of government in the information 17. When public corporation enterprises have been
formulation and implementation of 8. The slow and difficult process in the shifted from service oriented venture to profit
government policies and programs (a) public implementation of government policies by oriented motives. It is refers to as
servant (b) non-governmental organization civil service is known as (a) political unrest (a) industrialization (b) commercialization
(c) civil service (d) corporate companies (b) Bureaucratic delay (c) bribery and (c) capitalism (d) socialism
2. Who among the following is a civil servant in corruption (d) political interference 18. When the government sells total or transfer the
Nigeria? (a) the managing director of a bank 9. The process of recruiting, deploying and equity of corporate enterprises under it, this
(b) A director in the ministry of defense (c) A developing human resources in the civil refers to __ (a) commercialization
 (b) privatization (c) deregulation 27. ___ is a pattern of administration involving 36. ___ is not a reason for establishment of public
(d) deconcentration government departments in which complicated corporation (a) provision of essential services
19. ___ is the values of a company’s shares official routine is observed in the conduct of at low cost for the public (b) improving the
(a) equity (b) values (c) debit (d) taxes public affairs and in activities of public official standard of living for only the wealthy class
20. All the following are good reasons for (a) privatization (b) bureaucracy (c) capitalism (c) to create adequate employment
privatization of corporate enterprise in Nigeria (d) restructuring opportunities (d) to undertake some strategic
except (a) ensuring full individual 28. ___ is in-charge of the recruitment, projects for security purposes
participation in economic activities through deployment, promotion and looking into the 37. Under ___ control measure of the public
ownership (b) to assist in total or partial condition of service for the civil servants corporations can courts declare any act made
removal of unproductive enterprise in the (a) Local government chairman (b) state by some corporations illegal or
economy (c) to finance private politicians governors (c) ministers (d) civil service unconstitutional (a) ministerial (b) judicial
ventures (d) to ensure effective and efficient commission (c) parliamentary (d) financial
management of enterprises in the state 29. The origin of the Nigerian civil service 38. A high level of privatization policy of the state
21. ___ refers to eradicating barriers to commission is dated as far back as in the year owned corporate enterprises can result to ____
competition to allow private competitors to ___(a) 1960 (b) 1989 (c) 1966 (d) 1963 (a) deregulation (b) serious government
engage into government corporations for 30. Section 151 of the Nigerian Constitution ownership (c) socialization (d) poor service
effective and adequate services for the public provides that the civil service commission be delivery
(a) commercialization (b) deregulation ___ members (a) ten (b) seven (c) thirteen 39. The control of high cost of services or
9c) socialism (d) capitalism (d) nine commodities in the state economy is called __
22. Under, the 1963 republican constitution in 31. One of these is not a code of conduct for civil (a) price mechanism (b) deregulation
Nigeria, local government authorities were servants (a) honesty (b) fairness and (c) privatization (d) commercialization
created to deal with matters at ___ level transparency (c) Partisan (d) competency 40. The major problem of the local government
(a) National (b) Grass root (c) market (d) party 32. One of the major problems hindering the administration in Nigeria is __ (a) tribalism
23. Laws which are made by the local government effectiveness of the Nigerian civil service is __ (b) corruption (c) low level of manpower
are classified under ___ (a) evolutionary law (a) low incentives (b) proper organization (d) zero-allocation
(b) acts of parliament (c) bye-laws (d) (c) partisan polities (d) too much workload 41. The third tier of government is known as ___
registered laws 33. The highest cadre in the civil service is the ___ (a) state government (b) federal government
24. Those who violate certain laws made by local class (a) clerical (b) executive (c) local government (d) none of the above
government are tried in __ courts (a) higher (c) administrative (d) professional 42. The major solution to solve the local
(b) supreme (c) customary (d) appeal 34. __ features of the civil service enables it to be government problems in the first instance is
25. ___ is not among the causes of bureaucracy in an unchangeable institution, whose tenure ensuring (a) financial authority to local
the civil service (a) complexities in the service does not ends with the government of the day governments (b) electing high class politicians
rendered (b) the issue of accountability and (a) Anonymity (b) Neutrality (c) permanence at local level (c) constant change of leadership
transparency (c) the idea of attainment to (d) impartiality at local government levels (d) improvement in
emergency (d) the idea of specialization and 35. An establishment set up to examine the staff strength at local level
expertise complaints of inefficient administration, 43. At the local government levels ___ are the
26. The appointment of personnel into the civil corruption and unjust treatment by over- major custodians of culture of the people.
service can be in two ways ___ and _____ zealous public authority or official against (a) state governor (b) Chairman (c) traditional
(a) political /personal grounds (b) spoils / citizens is___ (a) supreme court rulers (d) the ministers
merits (c) understanding/ misunderstanding (b) Ombudsman (c) federal character 44. For a civil servant to take an active part in
(d) temporary / permanent (d) federal executive councils partisan politics he/she must (a) be wealthy
and in influential (b) be famous and literate
 (c) resign his appointment or retire from 2. (a) What is local government? Identify four
service (d) be senior servant and specialist in
sources of revenue for local government
administration
45. One of the reasons for the establishment of 5marks
public corporation is to (a) undertake projects
(b) State five major reasons for local
that require huge sums of money (b) make
profit for the government (c) provide funds for government creation in a federal structure
the maintenance of political associations
5marks
(d) serve as agent of multi-national companies
46. Local government can raise funds through (a) 3. (a)Define Public corporations 2marks
exercise duties (c) import duties (c) property
(b) Outline four main reasons why public
rate (d) income tax
47. For purpose of local government elections, corporations are established 8marks
local government area are generally divided
4. (a) What is principle of commercializion
into (a) constituencies (b) zones (c) regions
(d) wards 2marks
48. The administrative head of a public
(b) State four major reasons why the
corporation in Nigeria is the (a) managing
director (b) secretary (c) chairman (d) board of government owned enterprises should be
directors
commercialized 8marks
49. Red-tapism in the civil service is referred to
(a) the use of tapes on legal documents 5. (a) What are five benefits of privatization in
(b) slowness of action (c) politicization of the
the Nigerian economy? 5marks
civil service (d) the co-operation between civil
servants and politicians (b) Enumerate five disadvantages of
50. Public complaints in West African countries
privatization policy in any west African
can be called ___ (a) Local Authority
commission (b) civil service commission countries 5marks
(c) ombudsman (d0 ministry of establishment
6. (a) What five major problems can hinder the
SECTION B: THEORY QUESTIONS effectiveness of public corporations in
Instruction: Answer any four questions in this
Nigeria? 5marks
section. Question is compulsory
(b) Suggest five possible solution to these
1. (a) Define the term “Civil Service” 2marks
problems pointed above 5marks
(b) Suggest four main features of civil service
and explain briefly 8marks
(c) State five functions of a modern civil
service 5marks
 2. The direction of Odu from Sofia is (a) tear faulting (b) reverse faulting (c) normal
(a) Southwest (b) east (c)northwest (d) south faulting (d) isotactic adjustment
3. What is the scale of the map expressed as 15. The section of the external structure of the
representation fraction (R.F)? (a) 1:25,000 earth that supports life is the (a) biosphere
(b) 1: 50,000 (c) 1: 100,000 (d) 1 : 250,000 (b) atmosphere (c) lithosphere (d) barysphere
4. What is the name of the relief features lettered 16. The name of the volcanic rock which often
w? (a) head land (b) conical hill (c) plateau forms the root of fold mountains is called
(d) lake (a) batholith (b) dyke (c) sill (d) lopolith
5. The symbol ∆ 1030 repersents (a) benchmark 17. Which of the following is the most important
(b) boundary pillar (c) trigonometric station weathering process in karst regions?
(d) beacon (a) hydrolysis (b) Oxidation (c) hydration
6. Which of the following industries could be set (d) Carbonation
up in Yapo? (a) saw milling (b) fruit canning 18. Which of the following is the mass wasting
(c) meat canning (d) oil refining process results in curved tree trunks and
7. The long stretch of highland to the north – learning telegraph poles (a) rock fall (b) earth
eastern part of the map is (a) Caldera flow (c) soil creep (d) mud flow
(b) canyon (c) ridge 9d) gorge 19. The process by which rocks are disintegrated
8. Which of the following area is best suited for by physical and chemical means in Situ is
sugar gain cultivation? (a) area around Segot known as (a) deposition (b) erosion
(b) area south of Yapo (c) the lowland of the (c) transportation (d) weathering
northeast (d) the forest area 20. Hail, fog, dew and frost are all forms of
9. From which of the following settlement is (a) rainfall (b) cloud (c) water vapour (d)
ODU visible? (a) Gamb (b) Segot (c)Yapo precipitation
(d) Sofia 21. Which of the following elements of
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 10. ODU is most likely to be important trading weathering and climate is matched with the
SECONDARY SCHOOL, center because it is (a) nodal center (b) fish wrong measuring (a) wind direction and wind
canning town (c) mining town (d) close to the vane (b) temperature and thermometer
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. port (c) humility and barometer (d) rainfall and rain
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 11. Which of the following planets is the farthest gauge
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. from the sun in the solar system? (a) Mars 22. Through which of the following processes
SUBJECT. GEOGRAPHY (b) Mercury (c) Neptune (d) Pluto does solar energy warm the earth’s surface
12. What will be the local time in Nigeria 15°E (a) refraction (b) convection (c) conduction
CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR when the time is 7.00pm in town Y 30°W (d) radiation
(a) 9.00am (b) 10.00pm (c) 10.35 am 23. The release of harmful substances into the
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this (d) 10.36pm environment is called (a) flooding (b) drought
section 13. What is the approximate distance between two (c) harnattan (d) pollution
Use the map of ODU DISTRICT to answer places if one is located on 11°N and the other 24. Which of the following is the most important
questions 1 – 10 on 5°S on the same longitude? (a) 211km agent of erosion in humid region? (a) fog
1. What is the approximate distance by rail from (b) 1,110km (c) 1,776km (d) 1,976km (b) wind (c) ice (d) running water
Kaba to Odu? (a) 9,0km (b) 8.0km (c) 6.0km 14. The horizontal displacement of blocks of the 25. Water pollution is caused by all the following
(d) 4.0km earth’s crust along a fault plane is called except (a) treated sewage (b) industrial waste
(c) oil spillage (d) fishing with chemicals
26. The climate is constantly warm, rainfall is emigration of people in all member state
relatively abundant with double maxima, there (d) have cultural and educational co-operation
is no month without rain. These are the 42. Which of the following does not contribute to
characteristics of the (a) monsoon climate 33. By how much is the export of Japan higher the high cost of building and maintaining
(b) warm temperate climate (c) equatorial than that of Ghana in 2009? (a) 1,500million roads in West Africa? (a) Swamp coastal area
climate (d) Mediterranean climate (b) 2,200million (c) 2,800million (b) numerous rivers to be crossed (c)
27. Which of the following criteria is not (d) 3,300million mountainous nature (d) infertility of some
important in distinguishing between village 34. How much did the United States of America lands
and a town? (a) geographical situation (U.S.A) spend on imports in 2009? (a) 3,000 43. Wheat can be grown in large quantities in all
(b) population size (c) social amenities million (b) 2, 500 million (c) 1,500 million the following states except (a) Kwara (b) Oyo
(d) variety of activities (d) 1,000 million (c) Rivers (d) Adamawa
28. Through which of the following sea routes is 35. The Statistical method used for representing 44. The greatest threat to the survival of
crude oil from west Africa transported to the above data is (a) pie chart (b) divided bar ECOWAS is the (a) different monetary system
European markets? (a) the panama canal route graph (c) histogram (d) line graph in use (b) large size of the sub-region (c) free
(b) the cape route (c) the Suez canal route 36. Which of the following best explains why movement of people within the sub-region
(d) the North Atlantic route limestone areas are often dry? (a) limestone (d) inability to implement agreed policies
29. Sills, dykes and batholith are examples of areas are subjected to excessive evaporation 45. An active volcano is one that (a) has not
(a) intrusive Volcanic landforms (b) extrusive (b) there is little rainfall in limestone area erupted recently (b) will not erupt (c) hard
volcanic landform (c) landforms from (c) rain water percolates easily through earlier erupted violently (d) are still erupting
earthquakes (d) depositional landforms limestone rocks (d) limestone areas have a lot 46. Which of the following represents the correct
30. The features formed by cooling of molten of springs sequence in which denudation occurs
magma across the bedding plane is (a) sill 37. Which objective of Economic Community of (a) weathering, erosion and deposition
(b) dyke (c) batholith (d) laccolith West African States (ECOWAS) is performed (b) deposition, weathering and erosion
31. Which of the following best describe the by WAFU? (a) Language integration (c) erosion, weathering and deposition
harmattan? It is (a) wet and cold (b) dry, cold (b) common currency (c) free movement (d) weathering, deposition and erosion
and wet (c) dry and dusty (d) of high relative (d) cultural integration 47. Which of the following soil is easily water –
humidity 38. The export trade of most West African logged? (a) sandy soil (b) clay soil (c) loamy
32. Swallow holes and disappearing stream are countries consist of (a) machines (b) primary soil (d) laterite soil
usually associated with (a) limestone products (c) processed goods (d) dairy product 48. Which of the following is not true of
(b) humid regions (c) upper course of rivers 39. The financial headquarters of the Economic stalagmites and stalacites? (a) stalagmites are
(d) desert region Community of West African States upward growing pillars while stalacites
Use the figure to answer question 33 – 35 (ECOWAS) is located at (a) Lome (b) Banjul downward growing (b) stalagmites are short
(c) Lagos (d) Cotonou and wide while stalacites are long and narrow
40. Which of the following does not intervene in (c) stalacites are formed on the floor of
the natural environment? (a) construction work limestone cave while stalagmites are formed
(b) pollution (c) harmattan (d) Land on roofs of limestone caves (d) stalacites are
reclamation longer than stalagmites
41. Which of the following is not one of the aims 49. A geyser is best described as a/an (a) pool of
and objectives of the ECOWAS? To (a) hot water (b) explosion of volcano (c) thermal
improve trade between the member states stream (d) fountain of super-heated stream
(b) have a common currency (c) encourage 50. Africa’s largest timber producer is (a) Zaire
(b) Ghana (c) Nigeria (c) Malawi
 5. (a) Highlight the sequence of denudation
5marks
SECTION B:
(b)Explain four factors affecting denudation
Answer any four questions from this section,
question one is compulsory 4marks
(c) What is denudation? 1mark
1. (a)i. on a sketch map of Nigeria, locate and
6. (a) Highlight three effects of climatic change
name four tourist attractions 5marks
3marks
ii. Name one town in each of the location
(b) Offer three remedies to the climatic change
2marks
3marks
(b) Explain four reasons for the low patronage
(c) Explain two agents of chemical weathering
of tourism in Nigeria 4marks
2marks
(c) Outline four possible solutions to the
(d) Explain two factors affecting weathering
problems mentioned in b above 4marks
1 mark each
2. (a) Define internal trade 2marks
(b) Explain four factors that encourage internal
trade in Nigeria 1mark each
(c) Discus four problems of internal trade
4marks
3. (a) List six objectives of ECOWAS 3marks
(b) Highlight three achievements of ECOWAS
3marks
(c) Explain four problems militating against
the achievement of ECOWAS objectives
4marks
4. (a) Define karst region 2marks
(b) Explain three characteristics of limestone
region 6marks
(c) Explain two underground features of a
karst region 2marks
 4. A short play lamenting the death of someone 19. The use of dialogue, creates a/an ___ effect
is a ___ (a) lyric (b) sonnet (c) ballad (a) humorless (b) poetic (c) ironic (d) dramatic
(d) threnody 20. The types of literary works are (a) eras
5. In a story, adversary of the protagonist is the (b) episodes (c) genres (d) cantos
(a) hero (b) heroine (c) antagonist (d)foil 21. The choice of words to create special effects is
6. The act of giving human attributes to non- called (a) Fallacy (b) atmosphere (c) diction
human object is (a) personification (d) mood
(b) allegory 22. Which of the following is not a type of drama?
7. A long narrative poem which deals with havoc (a) burlegue (b) resolution (c) tragedy
deed is __ (a) lyric (a) epic (c) Ode (d) pantomime
(d) euphony 23. The king has joined his ancestors is an
8. The most exciting and tense part of a story is example of ___ (a) euphemism (b) eulogy
the (a) epilogue (b) climax (c) prologue (c) malapropism (d) trilogy
(d) exposition 24. A question used for effect which does not
9. A dramatic performance with only bodily require an answer is ___ (a) Oratorial
movement and without words is (a) a mime (b) antithetical (c) antichimactic (d) rhetorical
(b) an aside (c) a soliloquy (d) an opera 25. “The pen is mightier than the sword” is an
10. A poem consisting of fourteen lines is (a) example of __ (a) Symbol (b) Metaphor
narrative (b) a sonnet (c) an ode (d) an elegy (c) Metonymy (d) Oxymoron
11. The attitude of a writer towards the subject 26. An Omniscient narrator ia a novel (a) detaches
matter is the __ (a) tone (b) plot (c) crisis himself from the story (b) know nothing about
(d) climax the characters and events (c) knows everything
12. The major genres of literature are (a) fiction, about the characters and events (d) is a
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR non-fiction , drama (b) prove, farce, comedy character in the story
SECONDARY SCHOOL, (c) prose, drama, poetry (d) poetry, prose and 27. One of the following makes use of gesture
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. fiction only (a) comedy (b) lampoon (c) mime
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 13. The central idea of a story or a poem is the (d) sature
(a) tittle (b) climax (c) theme (d) conflict 28. A character whose actions or qualities serve
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. 14. The timing and location of a literature work is to heighten those of the hero through contrast
SUBJECT. Literature in English (a) theme (b) plot (c) setting (d) atmosphere is (a) an adversary (b) a protagonist (c) an
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR 15. The major distinctive feature of drama is antaponist (d) a foil
(a) dialogue (b) setting (c) epilogue (d) plot 29. A character in the story who narrates what
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 16. A short introduction speech delivered as part happens to him or her is (a) a second person
section of a play is called (a) a preamble (b) a narrator (b) a first person narrator (c)an
1. The story of a person written by another prologue (c) an introduction (d) an epilogue omniscient narrator (d) a third person narrator
person is (a) History (b) autobiography 17. Pick the odd item from the options listed 30. In drama, the ___ creates humour (a) hero
(c) biography (d) anthology below (a) euphemism (b) Oxymoron (b) clown (c) villain (d) chonis
2. A folktale is a ___ (a) novel (b) work of (c) hyperbole (d) rhythm 31. ___ is the location of the action of a plot
fiction (c) biography (d) novelette 18. A major character whose flaws combines with (a) setting (b) narrative technique (c) point of
3. A poem written in an elaborate style to address external forces that lead to his downfall is a view (d) characterization
or celebrate an object or event is called (a) a (a) flat character (b) round character
ballad (b) an epic (c) a chige (d) an ode (c) romantic hero (d) traffic hero
32. A ballad is essentially a __ person 48. A play that thrives on exaggeration of humour,
(a) descriptive (b) dramatic (c) pastoral plot and character is a ___ (a) mime
(d) narrative (b) tragedy (c) farce (d) lampoon
33. A speech in a play in which a character speaks 49. An aside occurs when a speaker on stage
his or her thought alone is (a) a monologue (a) addresses another speaker (b) mumbles
(b) an aside (c) an epilogue (d) a soliloquy words intended for the audience (c)
34. “The sun smiled gently on the scene” 50. A word that sounds like what it names is a___
illustrates (a) paradox (b) euphemism (a) alliteration (b) assonance (c) Onatopocia
(c) hyperbole (d) personification (d0 rhyme
35. Poetry is written in (a) chapters (b) paragraphs
(c) scenes (d) lines
36. The ___ produces comic relief in drama
(a) chorus (b) protagonist (c) antaponist SECTION B: ESSAY QUESTIONS
(d) clown Answer all questions from this section, question
37. A short play is also called a ___ (a) farce one is compulsory
(b) novelette (b) playlet (d) slapstick
38. ___ refers to the structure of a work of art 1. Write short note on the following
(a) form (b) plot (c) setting (d) style i. Character 5marks
39. The character assumed by the author in the ii. Comic relief 5marks
writing is __ (a) protagonist (b) chorus iii. Cast 5marks
(c) persona (d) pseudonym 2. (a) What is prose? 1marks
40. An expression which creates a mental picture (b) Write short notes on the following
is known as (a) paradox (b) exaggeration i. Fiction 1½marks
(c) imagery (d) symbolism ii. Non – fiction 1½marks
41. A play on words is (a) inmiendo (b) humour (c) List and explain three types of fiction
(c) pun (d) jist 6marks
42. A play is fully realized when it is __(a) studied 3. (a) What is Literature? 3marks
(b) memorized (c) acted (d) read (b) List seven importance of Literature
43. An epitaph is ____ (a) poem of lamentation 7marks
(b) a poem of fourteen lines (c) an inscription 4. Write short notes on the following
on a tomb (d) the life history of an author i. Plot
44. The essential function of a tragedy is to make ii. Setting
people (a) laugh at mankind (b) think and feel iii. Suspense
more deeply (c) think and laugh (d) know their 5. (a) What is a Drama?
enemies (b) List the features of a tragedy
45. The ending of most comedies is (a) happy
(b) natural (c0 calm (d) uncertain
46. A stanza of four lines is a (a) octare
(b) couplet (c) quatrain (d) tercet
47. The main effect of comedy on an audience is
(a) anxiety (b) sadness (c) laughter
(d) suspense
 3. The term cultural means 9a) cultivation 17. Which of the following is not an example of
(b) crop production (c) culture (d) farming non – Agricultural land? (a) mining (b) market
4. Which of these is not a branch of agriculture? (c) wildlife conservation (d) sport centres
(a) farming culture (b) heliculture 18. The following are diseases of rice except
(c) apiculture (d) horticulture (a) rice smut 9b) rice blight (c) rice rust
5. Which of the following is not an importance of (d) brown leaf spot
agriculture? (a) provision of car (b) provision 19. Which of the following is not a pest of maize
of shelter (c) provision of food (a) grasshopper (b) stem borers (c) shoot
(d) development of town beetle (d) maize weevils
6. Heliculture means (a) snail rearing (b) bees 20. Cocoa belongs to (a) cereal (b) pulse
rearing (c) fish farming (d) fowl rearing (c) beverage (d) fibre
7. Crop pathology is the study of (a) crop disease 21. The following are examples of agricultural
(b) crop pest (c) crop farming (d) crops insects land except (a) all farming system
8. Entomology means (a) study of insect pest (b) construction (c) forestry (d) wildlife
(b) study of crop (c) study of crop disease conservation
(d) study of animals 22. Soya bean belongs to (a) Fibre crops (b) oil
9. Agronomy means (a) study of crops (b) study crops (c) spices (d) cereal crops
of crop disease (c) study of crop pest (d) study 23. Land use Act was stated which year? (a) 1967
of animals (b) 1978 (c) 1980 (d) 1997
10. ___ is not the problem of agriculture 24. Which of the following is not a variety of
development in Nigeria(a) good transportation Cocoa? (a)Amozon (b) Dura (c) Amechonada
network (b) inadequate land tenure system (d) Criollo
(c) poor market system (d) inadequate storage 25. The following are cultural practices of cocoa
facilities except (a) mulching (b) cover crop (c) pruning
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 11. ___ is not a tuber crop (a) yam (b) potatoes (d) shading
SECONDARY SCHOOL, (c) mango (d) cocoyam 26. Which of the disease is not caused by fungi?
12. ___ is not a cereal crops (a) rice (b) millet (a) maize rust (b) maize streak (c) leaf spot
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (c) orange (d) maize (d) rice smut
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 13. Wheat belong to which classes of crops 27. Oil palm tree required a temperature of
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. (a) pulses (b) vegetable (c) cereal (d) fruit (a) 18°C - 16°C (b) 18°C - 27°C (c) 17°C -
SUBJECT. Agricultural Science 14. Carrot belongs to which classes of crops 18°C (d) 19°C - 20°C
(a) fruit crop (b) pulses (c) rooted tuber crop 28. Tomatoes belongs to ___ (a) fibre crops
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR (d) vegetable crops (b) vegetable crops (c) fruit crop (d) pulses
15. ___ is the that law governs land and how it can 29. The temperature requirement for okra is ___
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this be used and acquired (a) agricultural law (a)18C – 20C (b) 18C-30C (c) 16C – 18C
section (b) law of the land (c) land use art (d) (d) 17C – 30C
1. The word ”ager” means (a) field (b) rearing constitutional law 30. The following are varieties of citrus (orange)
(c) agriculture (d) farming 16. The following are factors affecting land SSP except (a)sweet orange (b) bitter orange
2. ___ is the rearing of animals and cultivation availability for Agricultural purpose except. (c) lime orange (d) Lemon orange
for man’s use (a) Agriculture (b) farming (a) Ecological factor (b) topography 31. The following are diseases of cocoa except
(c) crop pathology (d0 farm animals (c) entomology (d) land degradation (a) blast disease(b) Anthracnose (c) freckle
disease (d) andrase
32. Rosette disease of groundnut is caused by (c) land tenure by gift system (d) land tenure 4. (a) Tate any five characteristics of Land
(a) fungi (b) nutrient deficiency (c) bacteria by inheritance
10marks
(d) virus 47. Land used act was promulgated by
33. Cassava mosaic disease is caused by (a) president Olusegun Obasanjo (b) President (b) Define the following
(a) nematode (b) fungi (c) bacteria (d) virus Ibrahim Babangida (c) president Muhammadu
i. Agriculture
34. The following are pests of yam crop except Buhari (d) General Olusegun Obasanjo
(a) yam tuber beetle (b) yam shoot beetle 48. The full meaning of C of O is __ (a) company ii. Land
(c) rodents (d) yam mosaic of organization (b) commodity of occupation
iii. Forestry
35. The temperature requirement of cassava is (c) certificate of organization (d) certificate of
(a) 21C – 25C (b) 31C - 35C (c) 21C – 29C occupancy iv. Disease
(d) 21C- 35C 49. The following are branches of Agriculture
v. Pest 5marks
36. Cassava is processed into the following except except (a) soil science (b) crop production
(a) Garri (b) foofoo (c) flour (d) soup (b) forestry (d) Agricultural lab 5. (a) State any five cultural practices of
37. Which of the following is not a variety of 50. Okra belongs to__ (a) fruit (b) pulses
groundnut 10marks
tomatoes (a) pork (b) valiant (c) dwarf gem (c) spices (d) vegetable
(d) dwarf maker (b) Explain the following terms
38. The temperature requirement of tomatoes is
i. Mulching
(a) 20C – 35C (b) 30C – 35C (c) 20C – 29C SECTION B: THEORY
(d) 20C – 25C Answer any three questions ii. Pruning
39. The following are pest of orange except 1. (a) Briefly explain any five branches of
(a) thrips (b) aphids (c) fruit borers (d) stem
Agriculture 5marks
borer
40. Which of the following crops that can be (b) State any four cassava processing product
propagated by seed and by vegetative part?
4marks
(a) maize (b) Rice (c) cashew (d) orange
41. ___ may be defined as the uppermost layer of (c) State three pest of Yam 6marks
the earth crust(a) clayed (b) Rock (c) plants
2. (a) State any five solution to Agricultural
(d) land
42. The following are farm land appreciation problems 10marks
values except (a) proper cultivation (b) proper
(b) State five importance of Agricultural
erosion control (c) through fallowing
(d) Erosion Science 5marks
43. The following are cash crops except (a) cotton
3. (a) Give another name for the following
(b) Rubber (c) Groundnut (d) rice
44. Which of the following is not a food crop i. Snail rearing
(a) rice (b)cowpea (c) cassava (d) cashew
ii. Bees farming
45. A land that owned by the community is refers
to as __ (a) Local land (b)lease land (c) gift iii. Study of crop disease
system (d) communal land
iv. Study of insect pest of crop
46. The type of land tenure in which land is
inherited from one’s parents is (a) land tenure v. study of crops 10marks
purchase (b) land tenure by free hold system
(b) State five importance of Agriculture
 3. Which of the following is not a type of forest 14. The following are examples of micro-nutrient
tree? (a) Obeche (b) Ebony (c) Opepe (d) except ___ (a) nitrogen (b) Manganese
Malnut (c) Magnesium (d) Sulphur
4. The method of removing excess water 15. Which of the following is not a method of
artificially from the surface of the land is replenishing lost nutrients in the soil? (a) crop
called (a) irrigation (b) surface irrigation rotation (b) crop removal (c) cover cropping
(c) surface leaching (d) surface drainage (d) liming
5. The following are importance of forest except 16. Which of these softens the soil for easy tillage
(a) provision of timber (b) provision of fuel (c) operation? (a) drainage (b) surface drainage
provision of food (d) provision of (c) irrigation (d) rain fall
transportation 17. The method of spraying water from the air is
6. Which of the following is not an example of referred to as (a) surface irrigation (b) surface
micro-nutrient? (a) Calcium (b) Baron drainage (c) sprinkler drainage (d) drip
(c) copper (d) iron irrigation
7. The following are factors influencing nutrient 18. The study of the farm and structure of the
available except__ (a) afforestation (b) soil pH body is referred to as __ (a) Medicine
(c) crop removal (d) leaching (b) Psychology (c) Anatomy (d) Physiology
8. The bye-law to prevent people from exploiting 19. The study of all the organs and tissues in the
forest resources is referred to as __ (a) forest body is called__ (a) Anatomy (b) Physiology
regulation (b) forest reserve (c) deforestation (c) Circulatory system (d) respiratory system
(d) forest maintenance 20. The most powerful organ I the circulatory
9. ___ is a process of establishing forest system is called __ (a) the blood cell
plantation (a) afforestation (b) deforestation (b) plasma (c) heart (d) the fluid
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (c) Forest regulation (d) taugya system 21. The study and management of forest and its
SECONDARY SCHOOL, 10. Which of these is not the importance of Agro – resources is referred to as (a) Physiology
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. forest? 9a) soil pH (b) production of forest (b) Silviculture (c) Forestry (d) forest
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR (c) Rearing of animals (d) provision of wind 22. All the organs and tissues associated with
break exchange of gases is referred to as _____
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. 11. The system of planting food crops and forest (a) reproductive system (b) circulatory system
SUBJECT. Agricultural Science trees on the same land is referred to as ______ (c) respiratory system (d) productive system
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR (a) crop rotation (b) Taugya system (v) mixed 23. Which of the following is the most important
farming (d) paste production organ of respiration? 9a) Heart (b) Urine
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 12. Which of the following is not type of agro- (c) Lung (d) Nostril
section forest? (a) Taugya system (b) fallow system 24. The release of toxic or harmful substance into
1. A large area of land covered with trees and (c) production of pasture (d) production of the environment is called (a) Circulatory
shrubs is called __ (a) Forestry (b) Farm land livestock system (b) respiratory pollution (c) agricultural
(c) Horticulture land (d) Forest 13. The process of removing excess water from pollution (d) industrial pollution only
2. The following is not a type of irrigation except the land, using title or perforated pipe is called 25. The process of removing nutrient from the top
(a) surface irrigation (b) sub-surface irrigation (a) drainage (b) sub-surface drainage soil to the inner part beyond the reach of the
(c) drip irrigation (d) pipe irrigation (c) surface drainage (d) sprinkler drainage root of plant is called___ (a) erosion (b) crop
removal (c) leaching (d) oxidation
26. Which of the following is not a source of 39. The process of dry leaves and decaying plant
pollution? (a) Air pollution (b) noise pollution to cover the soil is called (a) cover cropping
(c) water pollution (d) food pollution (b) mulching (c) organic manure (d) green SECTION B:
27. The type of irrigation where water discharges manure Answer only three questions in this section
through nozzles is called ___ (a) sprinkler 40. Which of the following is not type of nutrient 1. State three causes of pollution, with two
irrigation (b) surface irrigation (c) pipe cycle? (a) Carbon cycle (b) Calcium cycle examples each 15marks
irrigation (d) drip irrigation (c) Nitrogen cycle (d) Water cycle 2. Explain the following terma
28. The planting of different types of crops on the 41. The following are types of fertilizer except __ i. irrigation
same piece of land in a sequence is called ___ (a) nitrogen fertilizer (b) carbon fertilizer ii. Drainage
(a) liming (b) cover cropping (c) bush (c) single fertilizer (d) sodium nitrate iii. Nutrition
fallowing (d) crop rotation 42. Which of the following chemical symbols vi. Forestry circulatory system
29. The decay of plant and animal products to represents Ammonium Sulphate? (a) NaNO 15marks
supply nutrient to plants or crops is referred to (b) (NH4)SO (c) NH4NO (d) CO(NH) 3. Briefly explain any three types of irrigation
as___ (a) fertilizer (b) inorganic manure 43. Omo forest Reserve is found in ___ (a) Edo 15marks
(c) nitrogen (d) organic manure state (b) Ogun state (c) Oyo state (d) Plateau 4. State five factors influencing nutrient
30. Which of the following is not a type of soil? state availability in the soil 15marks
(a) sandy (b) Loamy (c) Clay (d) Sand 44. The following are common living materials 5. State five importance of forest 5marks
31. The study of forest trees and other related trees except (a) limestone (b) gravel (c) slaked lime 6. State five examples of micro nutrient
is referred to as ___ (a) Silviculture (d) gypsum
(b) horticulture (c) forestry (d) agriculture 45. The practice in which farm lands are left to lie
32. Manu river forest is found in ___ (a) Anambra one or more years of cultivation is called ____
state (b) Zamfara state (c) Edo state (d) Oyo (a) organic manure (b) bush fallowing (c) bush
state burning (d) cover cropping
33. The continuous removal of forest stand is 46. The process of planting certain plant mainly to
referred to as __ (a) deforestation cover soil surface is referred to as __ (a) cover
(b) afforestation (c) taugya system (d) weeding cropping (b) mulching (c) crop rotation (d)
34. The following are causes of deforestation bush burning
except (a) Atmospheric condition 47. The type of manure mainly concerned about
(b) unfavourable climate (c) man’s farming the combination of all animal waste is called
activities (d) Timber exploitation (a) farm yard manure (b) green manure (c)
35. Which of the following is no type of land composite manure (d) pit manure
pollution? (a) Ammonia gas (b) Refuse 48. The following are examples or sources of
(c) sewage (d) Pesticide irrigation water except__ (a) rain water
36. The following are types of organic manure (b) river (c) dam (d0 stream
except (a) green manure (b) Urea 49. Which of the following is a type of overhead
(c) composite manure (d) farm manure irrigation? (a) Drip irrigation (b) surface
37. The following are examples of cover crops irrigation (c) pipe irrigation (d) underground
except (a) beans (b) maize (c) sweet potatoes irrigation
(d) yam 50. The following are sources of air pollution
38. Which of the following is not type of water except __ (a) crude oil (b) dust particle
pollution? (a) pesticide (b) sewage (c) crude (c) Ammonial gas (d) animal dung
oil (d) faeces from farm animals
 2. Droopy feathers and wings are symptoms of 15. The following are methods of collecting
__ disease (a) fowl pox (b) Newcastle (c) fowl semen from a proven male except (a) artificial
typhoid (d) coccidiosis vagina (b) b massage method (c) exotic
3. Which of the following cattle diseases is method (d) electro-ejaculation
caused by nutritional disorder? (a) foot and 16. The mating of unrelated individual always
mouth (b) brucellosis (c) Mastitis (d) Bloat within the same breed is called (a) inbreeding
4. The keeping apart of important animals foe (b) out breeding (c) line breeding (d)cross-
examination before entering the country is breeding
termed (a) culling (b) isolation (c) vaccination 17. The mating of proven quality from different
(d) quarantine breed is called (a) breeding (b) cross-breeding
5. The common disease that attack the under of (c) selection (d) zygote
the cattle is (a) bebesiosis (b) bloat (c) mastitis 18. Which of the following is not a type of viral
6. All the following are diseases of poultry disease? (a) Rinderpest (b) Brucellosis (c)
except (a) Mastitis (b) bird flu (c) coccidiosis Newcastle (d) fowl pox
(d) Newcastle 19. The the following are factors that could
7. The following are aims of improving our crops predispose animal to disease except
except (a) to reduce the quality of produce (b) (a) management (b) age of animal (c) nutrition
to increase resistance to disease (c) o adapt to (d) sanitation
climate condition (d) to improve the quality of 20. Which of the following is a host tape worm?
crops (a) bird (b) pigs (c) rodent (d) snail
8. The term genes is referred to as __ (a) unit of 21. Which of the following is not an example of
inheritance (b) thread shape (c) nature sex cell fresh water (a) lake (b) pond (c) sea (d) stream
(d) single cell 22. Which of the following is not an example of
9. The physical and physiological expression trait bony fish? (a) Tilapia (b) mudfish (c) Dog fish
of an individual is called __ (a) phenotype (d) catfish
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (b) zygote (c) gamete (d) genr 23. The following are examples of fresh water fish
SECONDARY SCHOOL, 10. The sum of total of the genes inherited from except (a) pencil (b) carp (c) shark (d) mudfish
both parents is called (a) genotype (b) 24. The following are cartilaginous fishes except
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. dominant (c) zygote (d) gamete (a) shark (b) dolphin (c) catfish (d) rays
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 11. The offspring gotten from cross-breeding two 25. The following are fishing tools or gears except
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. pure varieties is called (a) zygote (b) gene (a) the net (b) the hook (c) matchet (d) trawler
SUBJECT. Agricultural Science (c) hybrid (d) chromosomes 26. The term aquarium refers to as __ (a) study of
12. The law of inheritance was stated by __ fish (b) group of fish (c) equipment (d)
CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR (a) Gregor Mendel (b) gadela Mendel (c) artificial fish pond
Mendel Lum (d) Louis mendel 27. The following are processes of crop
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 13. The process which involves the transferring of improvement except (a) introduction (b)
section inherited qualities from parents to offspring is breeding (c) selection (d) heterozygote
1. The causative organism of lupathy called __ (a) selection (b) bleeding (c) 28. The following are advantages of crop
trypanosomiasis is ___ (a) bacteria (b) fungus breeding (d) Artificial insemination introduction except (a) to introduce new
(c) virus (d) protozoa 14. Which of the following is a type of breeding? varieties (b) to upgrade the quality of the local
(a) inbreeding (b) line breeding (c) artificial varieties (c) absence of pest (d) possibility of
insemination (d) cross breeding introducing new crop disease
29. Which of the following is a method of 42. The use of fungus pathogens to control dodder 3. With the aid of a well – labeled diagram,
selection? (a) mass selection (b) pure line weed is __ method (a) biological (b) physical explain the life cycle of tapeworm 10marks
selection (c) pedigree selection (d) breeding (c) mechanical (d) cultural 4. From Mendel’s 1st law of segregation of genes,
30. In which of the following method of fish 43. Hybrid vigour in crop improvement is brought using a particular character like tallness,
preservation does the body weight mostly about through __ (a) cross breeding represented (AA) and shortness (aa) for a
reduced? (a) Refrigerator (b) frying (c) salting (b) introduction (c) mass selection beans crop. Calculate the first generation and
(d) smoking (d) inbreeding the second generation. The answer should be
31. Which of the following method is the best for 44. Which of the following structures is not a part summarized in genetic ratio 15marks
preserving farm products for long period of of the digestive tract of a pig? 5. Briefly explain the following terms
time? (a) drying (b) salting (c) smoking (a) preventriculus (b) duodenum (c) colon i. Disease
(d) canning (d) Osephagus ii. Irrigation
32. Which of these is not a traditional method of 45. The act of giving birth in farm animals is iii. Drainage
preserving farm produce? (a) smoking called (a) parturition (b) gestation (c) hatching iv. Aquarium
(b) salting (c) sun drying (d) canning (d) laying v. Genes 10marks
33. The following are processes of processing fish 46. The process of removing a young animal from 6. Enumerate five importance or effects of
except (a) country (b) refrigerator (c) freezing its mother is referred to as __ (a) weaning irrigation on crop production 10marks
(d) scanning (b) culling (c) breeding (d) isolation
34. Mastitis attach the pat called ___ (a) mouth 47. The vitamin which is essential for growth of
(b) foot (c) stomach (d) udder spermatozoa in male and development of fetus
35. Newcastle disease of poultry is caused by ___ in females is __ (a) Vitamin (b) Vitamin E
(a) bacterium (b) fungus (c) protozoa (d) virus (c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin A
36. The madness of cattle is called ___ 48. An unproductive animal permanently removed
(a) brucellosis (b) mastitis (c) bloat (d) ebola from a productive bock is said to be (a)isolated
37. Which of the following is not a disease- (b) cullect (c) disposed (d) quarantined
causing organism? (a) fungus (b) virus 49. Voiding of blood obtained through dropping
(c) Nematode (d) insect by birds is a symptom of __ (a) fowl typhoid
38. All the following are the disease of poultry (b) Coccidiosis (c) Newcastle (d) fowl cholera
except (a) Newcastle (b) coccidiosis (c) bird 50. Government ensures continuous availability of
flu (d) bird mouth fish through __ (a) fishing regulation (b) fish
39. Which of the following is not a leguminous marketing (c) fish feeding (d) fish processing
forage crop? (a) Punicum Mascinum
(b) Contoseva Pubesena (c) Stylosantues
grocilis (d) puerana phescoloides
40. Which of the following is a reason for SECTION B: THEORY (45MARKS)
afforestation? (a) population pressure (b) soil Answer question number four and any other three
fertility (c) wild life conservation
(d) prevention of animal hazard 1. (a) Define the term hybridization 1mark
41. Which of the following insect group readily (b)State three aims of crop improvement
attack dry grains? (a) boring insect (b) biting 9marks
insect (c) piercing insect (d) sucking insect 2. (a) differentiate between resistance to disease
and susceptibility 8marks
(b) List two types of bacterial disease 2marks
 Argungu fishing festival which starts from i. Tumble
February and spills over into March. The fishing ii. Start
festival takes place on the River Rima. Other iii. Spectacular
events that makes the Argungu cultural festival iv. Emerges
spectacular are the cultural displays, Exhibition of v. Allowed
hand crafts, archery, camel or donkey racing. vi. Ascertained
In the following passage the numbered gaps
But it is the fishing competition that is the icing on indicate missing words. Choose the word
the calce. And it takes pace on the very last day. which is most suitable to fill the numbered
Once the signal is given, all the participants makes gap in the passage.
a dash for the river, armed with their fishing Mr. Ojo is a retired banker. While in office, he
equipment, a net scoop and a large gourd amist bought a lot of __8__ and __9__ from various
cheering, singing and dancing until one of them companies. These days, he goes to the __10__
emerges from the river with a “catch” bigger than to monitor these __11__. He is always happy
that of anybody else. Once the angler emerges when any of his __12__ declares __13__
with a catch he feels is big enough to win the because he will get __14__. However, when
price, the fish is taken to te scale, where its the stock __15__ __16__ he loses part of his
weighted and the biggest is ascertained. __17__

The lucky fisherman wins a prize, then its A B C D

celebration all through. No fishing is allowed at 8. Bulls Stocks Bales Bears
the festival spot until the grand show comes 9. Shears Wares Shares Instruments
around the following year. 10. Stock warehouse factory plaza
exchange
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 1. Where and when does the Argungu cultural 11. Credit Securities Statement Balance
SECONDARY SCHOOL, festival take place? 12. Properties factories markets companies
2. What do the participants do before the signal 13. A gain A profit An increase An excess
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. is given to dash for the river? 14. Share Bonds Dividends Cash
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 3. Name two things that go on until one of the 15. Capital Market Exchange Buying
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. participants emerges with a catch 16. Drops Collapses Crashes Collides
SUBJECT. English Language 4. How is the winner of the fishing competition 17. Shares Investments Companies markets
chosen?
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR 5. An unexpected tumble in the village may land Choose the best word to complete each of the
you in Niger Republic, ‘why is it so’? following
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 6. “Where it is weighed 18. Food that fishermen use to attract fish is called
section i. What is the grammatical name given to __(a) tuna (b)trawl (c)shoal (d) bait (e)skipper
Read the following passage and carefully answer this expression as its used in the passage 19. Many kinds of fish moves about I the water in
the questions on it. ii. What is its function? __ (a) shoal (b) shawl (c) nets (d) lobster-pot
Argungu village in Kebbi state is located on the 7. For each of the following words or phrase, (e)waves
north western border of Nigeria. An unexpected find another word or phrase which means the 20. On a ___ trawler, fish can be processed into
tumble in the village may land you in Niger same and which can replace it as it is used in animal feed (a)refrigerated (b) factory
Republic. Argungu is home to the popular the passage. (c) freezer (d) refining (e) machine
 33. Our discussion about when to travel rests on 48. /Ʒ/ (a) sure (b) treasure (c) ship (d) fish
Fill the space I each of these sentences with the weather (a) relies (b) lies (c) depends 49. / j/ (a) your (b) just (c) juice (d) jump
the appropriate form of the verb supplied (d) leans 50. / n/ (a) note (b) spring (c) hung (d) ankle
21. The new books were __ to the principal’s 34. The mineral resources of the country are yet to
office (a) taking (b) taken (c) took (d) take be fully tapped (a) assessed (b) erase SECTION B
22. The gates were already __ before the visitor (c) correct (d) eradicate Answer one question from this section
arrived (a) locking (b) locks (c) lock 35. As soon as Shehu realized that he had made a (a) Write a letter to your sister who has just
(d) locked mistake he did everything to rectify it arrived Abuja to live with an uncle, advising
23. It ___ for many days before we could get out (a) destroy (b) erase (c) correct (d) eradicate her to be we behaved while I the city.
(a) has been raining (b) will be raining (c) is 36. He worked very hard all through his life but he (b) Describe to your fried how you spent the last
raining (d) had been raining died in penury (a) poverty (b) affluence Easter / EID –UL –FILTR break
24. Tunde ___ two kilometers to school every day (c) disappointment (d) anguish (c) Write a letter to the chairman of the Road
nowadays (a) walk (b) is walking (c) walks 37. The boss is quite inflexible once she has made Safety division in your country complaining
(d) walked up her mind (a) wicked (b) unyielding about the alarming rate at which road
25. Mrs. Obe ___ a new car since last year (c) relaxed (d) permanent accidents occur these days. Suggest at least
(a) buys (b) is buying (c) has bought (d) had 38. You will incur your father’s wrath if you do three ways by which the accidents can be
bought that (a) debt (b) anger (c) expenditure prevented
Choose the appropriate particle to complete (d) pleasure
each of these sentences SECTION C
26. The robber ran ___ with the stolen car (a) up Choose the word that is nearly opposite in Answer three questions from these sections
(b) off (c) out (d) down meaning to the word in bold print as it is used 1. (a) What is a noun phrase?
27. The clock alarm went ___ at exactly seven in the sentences (b) underline the noun phrase in the following
O’clock (a) on (b) off (c) down (d) away 39. It is unlikely that I will attend the party sentences
28. The player was tripped __ near the goal (a) true (b) sure (c) certain (d) probable i. Short people are dangerous
(a) down (b) away (c) up (d) in 40. He felt quite at home in the new office. ii. I want my dress
From the words lettered A to D below each of (a) alone (b) deceived (c) out of place iii. The man declared his letter to the
the following sentences, choose the word or (d) strange teacher
group of words that is nearest in meaning to 41. The fight was purely accidental, not in any iv. She gave the letter to the teacher
the boldly printed expression as it’s used in the way (a) purposeful (b)determined (c) planned v. He jumped into the deep river
sentences. (d) meant 2. Change the following Adjectives into noun
29. I told her to mind what she was doing i. Happiness
(a) object to (b) take care of (c) take care Pick out the odd item from the following ii. Abundant
(d) care about 42. Method (a) bath (b) think (c) smooth (d) theme iii. Bright
30. There were not many oranges left (a) a few 43. Massage (a) garage (b) beige (c) measure iv Honest
(b) few (c) little (d) scarcity (d) push v. Loyal
31. Now he has made a lot of money, he looks 44. Onion (a) your (b) yes (c) year (d) song 3. Give five examples each for the following
down on old friends who are still poor 45. Goes (a) Zoo (b) Craze (c) course (d) lazy sounds
(a) reject (b) tries to help (c) tries to find 46. Love (a) little (b) kid (c) double (d) ball i. ¿ θ/¿
(d) despises ii. ¿ z /¿
32. The Ife bronze are exhibited in the Ife Choose the word that has the same consonant 4. List ten words associated with Agriculture
Museum. (a) stored (b)cared for (c) displayed sound as the one above
(d) kept 47. ¿ θ/¿ (a) they (b) those (c) bath (d) smooth
 5. Give five example each for the following down and Alfred’s father lost his Job. As a result, 12. All __ the president said was reported in the
sounds Alfred’s father started counting the money in his dailies (a) what (b) which (c) that (d) these
i. ¿ j /¿ pocket as money becomes scarce for him. There 13. The members of the association were advised to
ii. ¿ l/¿ was then no chance for Alfred to steal and go cooperate with ___ (a) one another (b) each
undetected. The only other alternative was to sell other (c) themselves (d) on to the other
firewood in order to continue his habit. 14. ___ were selected to represent our school in the
form on blind abuse (a) Chris and I (b) Chris
Questions and myself (c) myself and Chris (d) I and Chris
1. Why did Alfred stop stealing from his father? 15. The dog barked angrily when Baniyo stepped
2. When did his dad start counting his money? on the __ tail (a) their (b) it (c) it’s (d) the
3. For what purpose did Alfred sell firewood? 16. The villagers will have to blame ___ for this
4. (a) State the grammatical name and function of year’s poor harvest (a) each other (b) ourselves
“to go to cinema”? (c) themselves (d) one another
(b) What is its function? 17. __ will have to take an important decision
5. Find another word or phrase which means the (a) you and me (b) you and I (c) you and myself
same and can replace each of the underlined (d) I and you
words as it is used in the passage above. 18. A bag of rice was given to __ (a) mum and I
i. Intensified (b) I and mum (c) I and my mum (d) mum and
ii. Scarce me
iii. Undetected 19. I got into the room and discovered that there
iv. Alternative wasn’t __ there (a) no one (b) someone
Vocabulary replacement test (c) anyone (d) none
When workers at the factory went on strike, the 20. The African extended family system gives
few policemen stationed there were unable to security to __ members (a) his (b her (c) its
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR man the situation, so they asked for re- (d) their
enforcement. The hostile workers forced their
SECONDARY SCHOOL, way into the manager’s office and damaged their After each of the following sentences, a list of
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. salaries. possible interpretations of all part of the
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 6. Incredible sentences is given. Choose the interpretation
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. 7. Close you consider most appropriate for each
8. An affluent sentence
SUBJECT. English Language
From the words or group of words lettered 21. Tunde is very troublesome and his neighbour
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR A to D, choose the one that best complete each of find it difficult to put up with him. This means
the following sentences that his neighbour (a) cannot live with him
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 9. My friend seemed to be having more fun than under the same roof (b) cannot rely on him
section (a) I (b) me (c) myself (d) them (c) cannot tolerate him (d) hate him immensely
Read the following passage and carefully answer 10. ___ I will never let out the secret (a) between 22. The president’s birthday party was attended by
the questions under it. you and I (b) between you and me (c) among the cream of society. This means that (a) the
Every weekend, Alfred stole money from his the two of us (d) amidst the two of us most important people were at the party (b) all
father’s pocket to go to cinema in 1999, the rebel 11. Mr. Temu told me that ___ built his house the civil servants were at the party (c) other
war intensified and the economic situation in the (a) himself (b) him alone (c) he himself presidents attended the party (d) only limited
country got worse. Then many companies closed (d) himself alone guest attended the party
23. The principal played the Ostrich when she got 35. Isay they did not steal the money,_____? (a) contmental (b) clever (c) rational
reports of malpractices in the examination hall. (a) did they (b) did I (c) didn’t I (d) didn’t it (d) unreasonable
(a) became vigilant (b) behaved like an Ostrich
(c) ignored the problem (d) denied the reports From the words or groups of words lettered A From the words or group of words lettered A to
24. Our uncle visits us only once in a blue moon. to D choose the one that best complete each of D choose the one that best complete each of the
This means that our uncle (a) visits us only the following sentences following sentences
when the moon is blue (b) seldom visits us 36. The teacher, as well as his students ___ 46. The family ___ dinner when we knocked at the
(c) visits us once a year (d) finds it difficult to working very hard (a) is (b) have been (c) are door (a) is having (b) was having (c) had
visit us (d) were (d) has had
25. The principal prompt intervention nipped last 37. All we need ____ dedicated teachers (a) are 47. My friend asked me if I would like to go to
week’s crises in the bud. This means that (b) was (c) is (d) were Laspalma for holiday and I said I ___ (a) will
(a) the crises was averted (b) the students were 38. The governor’s new year speech ___ at exactly (b) could (c) would (d) like
chased away (c) no one was willing to be part 6:30 pm (a) had been broadcast (b) have been 48. Ali dropped the pot accidentally and it ___
of the crises (d) the students decided to obey broadcast (c) was broadcast (d) is broadcast (a) was breaking (b) broke (c) breaks (d) had
the principal orders 39. The principal, together with the staff ___ broken
visited the sick students (a) did (b) were 49. By Christmas, I ___ for one year. (a) shall have
From the words or group of words lettered A to (c) have (d) has been working (b) was working (c) shall work
D, Choose the one that best complete each of 40. A crate of eggs now ___ at ₦2,000.00 (a) sells (d) have worked
the following sentences (b) sell 9c) are sold (d) are selling 50. As they___ the thieves broke into the house
26. We attend school from Monday to Friday ___ (a) had slept (b) are sleeping (c) have been
(a) didn’t we (b) don’t we (c) aren’t we (d) did In the following sentences, there is one word sleeping (d) were sleeping
we underlined from the list of words lettered A to
27. It seems that the children are not paying D, chose the word that is mostly nearly
attention ___? (a) aren’t they (b) doesn’t it opposite in meaning to the underlined word in
(c) isn’t it (d) don’t they each sentence. SECTION B
28. Fatima was the best behaved girl _________? 41. It is most inexpedient to fight an armed robber
(a) isn’t she (b) wasn’t she (c) isn’t it (d) is she with bare hands, the ___ thing to do is to seek Write on one of the following
29. Lets agree that the best way out is to resign, refuge somewhere (a) steadfast (b) wise
___? (a) will we (b) shall we (c) isn’t it (c) useful (d) realistic 1. (i) Your friend in another school has requested
(d) don’t we 42. While Yakubu is very courteous, most of his some information about your school to enable
30. The teachers don’t teach us, _____? (a) do they classmates are__ (a) genteel (b) wicked him decide on moving over to your school.
(b) don’t they (c) didn’t they (d) isn’t it (c) suave (d) impolite Write a letter to him discussing at least three
31. The African cup of Nations competition has 43. The new regime imposed o curfew from dust to areas in which your school excels
come and gone, ____? (a) hasn’t it (b) isn’t it __ (a) dark (b) dawn (c) moonlight (d) mid-day (ii) There has been a continuous discussion on
(c) didn’t it (d) hadn’t it 44. When the Juniour football team returned from the evils of unemployment. Write a letter to the
32. The car is not yours, ___? (a) isn’t it (b) is it Canada, the nation welcomed them with minister of Labour and productively highlight
(c) does it (d) was it commendation but when the senior team at least three of these evils and ways of
33. If it rains, the exhibition will be cancelled, returned from Chile, the got a ___ for their poor addressing them
____? (a wouldn’t it (b) isn’t it (c) won’t it performance (a) conviction (b) sentence (iii) Write a story illustrating the saying “ He
(d) can’t it (c) judgment (d) censure who laugh last laughs best
34. Monkey don’t talk, ______? (a) don’t they 45. To mos people, a serious reformer sounds 2. Write five examples each for the following
(b) they do (c) didn’t they (d) do they eccentric, but in actual fact he is perfectly ___ sounds |e| and |Ʒ:|
3. Give five examples each for the following 4. Which of the following has the same unit as 14. The correct relationship between displacement
sounds / u / and / u: / the moment of a force? (a) force (b) power (s) of a particle initially at rest in a linear
4. (a) What is a noun phrase? (c) work (d) impulse motion and time t, is (a) sαt−2 (b) sαt−1
(b) Identify the noun phrase in the following 5. Which of the following quantities are the same (c) sαt (d) sαt 2
sentences unit with energy? (a) power (b) work (c) force 15. A ball of bearing is projected vertically
i. The girl and her friends ate my oranges (d) momentum upwards from the ground with a velocity of
ii. The man is my uncle 6. A car accelerates uniformly from res at5 ms−2 . 15m/s. calculate the time taken by the ball to
iii. I hate the man Determine its speed after 10s (a) return to the ground [ g=10 ms−2] (a) 1.5s (b)
iv. I want my balls 50.0 ms
−1
(b) 25.0 ms
−1
(c) 2.0 ms
−1
3.0s (c) 5.0s (d) 7.5s
v. The company employed a clerk
(d) 0.5 ms−1 16. The slope of a straight line velocity time graph
5. (a) What are modifiers
7. A ball dropped from height 45m above the represents (a) uniform acceleration (b) uniform
(b) Identify the modifiers in the following
ground. Calculate the velocity of the ball just speed (c) total distance travelled (d) work done
sentences
before it strikes the ground. ( Neglect air 17. The area under a velocity time graph
i. It is really hot
ii. I am physically tired resistance and take g as 10 ms−2 represents (a) speed (b) acceleration
(a) 21.1 ms−1 (b) 30.0 ms−1 (c) 300.0 ms−1 (c) moment (d) distance
iii. Grant silently wrote his journal
18.
iv. Susan barely passed her Sciences (d) 450 ms−1
v. He appeared confused 8. An orange fruit drops to the ground from the
top of a tree 45m tall. How long does it take to
reach the ground? ( g=10 ms−2 ¿ (a) 30.0s
(b)4.5s (c) 6.0s (d) 7.5s
9. A bird flies at 10 ms−1 for 3sec, 15 ms−1 for
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 3sec, and 20 ms−1 for 4s. calculate the bird’s
SECONDARY SCHOOL, average speed (a) 4.5 ms−1 (b) 15.0 ms−1
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (c) 15.5 ms−1 (d) 51.7 ms−1 The diagram above represents the
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR displacement time graph of the motion of an
10. How far will a body move from rest if
object thrown upwards. The velocity of the
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. uniformly accelerates from rest at the rate of
object at the point p is (a) Maximum
−2
SUBJECT. Physics 2 ms ? (a) 32m (b) 24m (c) 16m (d) 1.2m (b) uniform (c) zero (d) terminal
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR 11. The time rate of increase in velocity is called 19. A body moving with uniform acceleration has
(a) force (b) momentum (c) acceleration two point (5,15) and (20,60) on the velocity
(d) speed time graph of its motion. Calculate the
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this
12. A car travelling at a uniform speed of acceleration 0.25 ms−2 (b) 3.00 ms−2
section −1
1. Which of the following is a derived unit? 120 kmh passes two stations in 4minutes. (c) 4.00 ms−2 (d) 9.00 ms−2
(a) metre (b) coulomb (c) kilogram (d) second Calculate the distance between the two
20.
2. Which of the following sets of quantities is stations (a) 8km (b) 15km (c) 22km (d) 30km
fundamental? (a) length, mass, time (b) speed, 13. A particle accelerates uniformly from rest at
−2
length and time (c) speed, mass and distance 6.0 ms for 8s and then decelerate uniformly
(d) distance, speed and time to rest in the next 5s. Determine the magnitude
3. The dimension of momentum are (a) MLT of the deceleration. (a) 9.6 ms−2 (b) 24.0 ms−2
(b) ML – 1 T – 1 (c) MLT – 1 (d) ML-1T (c) 30.0 ms−2 (d) 48.0 ms−2
 angular speed ω of a body moving uniformly 36. Potential energy in an elastic string of force
The diagram above illustrate the velocity – in a circle of radius r? (a) v=ωr (b) v=ω 2 r constant k which has been extended by x
time. Calculate the distance covered by the (c) v=ωr 2 (d) v 2=ωr metre is expressed as (a) ½kx2 (b) kx2 (c) ½kx
body during the motion (a) 15m (b) 84m 29. A body is rotating in a horizontal circle 2.5m (d) kx
(c) 12m (d) 48m 37. A body of mass 11kg is suspended from a
with an angular sperrd of 5 rads−1. Calculate
21. When a body is thrown vertically upwards its celling by an Aluminum wire of length 2m and
velocity at the maximum height is the magnitude of the radical acceleration of the diameter 2mm. calculate the elastic energy
(a) maximum (b) zero (c) double its initial body. (a) 62.50 ms−2 (b) 31.25 ms−2 (c) stored in the wire [young modulus of
−2 −2
value (d) half its initial value 12.05 ms (d) 10.00 ms aluminum =
22. A body of mass 20g projected vertically 30. A body circles continuously through a distance −1 −2 −2
7.0 x 10 Nm , g=10 ms , π=3.14 ] (a)
upwards returns to the point of projection after of 1.0km in 5minutes. Calculate his average −1 −2
1.1 x 10 j (b) 5.5 x 10 j (c) 11.0 x 10 j
−4

1.2s [ g=10 ms−2 ]. Calculate the speed of the speed (a) 0.3 ms−1 (b) 16.6 ms−1 (d) 5.5 x 10−5 j
projection (a) 0.6 ms−1 (b) 1.2 ms−1 (c) 20.0 ms−1 (d) 3.3 ms−1 38. The energy stored in a string stiffness constant
(c) 6.0 ms−1 (d) 12.0 ms−1 31. A body of mass m moving round a circle of −1
k =2000 Nm when extended by 4cm is
23. A stone is thrown horizontally with initial radius r with a uniform speed v experiences a (a) 0.16j (b)1.60j (c) 16.00j (d) 160.00j
velocity 15 ms−1 from a tower 20m high. How centripetal force F. the work done by the 39. An elastic string of force 200N/m is stretched
long does it takes to reach the ground [ centripetal force on it is (a) Fu (b) zero (c) Fmr through 0.8m within its elastic limit. Calculate
−2 (d) Fr/m the energy stored in the string (a) 64.0j
g=10 ms (a) 2s (b) 4s (c)5s (d) 1s 32. The magnitude of the force required to make
24. The angle at which a projectile must be fired (b) 80.0j (c) 128.0j (d) 160.0j
an object of mass m move with speed v in a 40. A spiral spring of natural length 30.0cm and
to cover maximum range is (a) 30° (b) 45° circular path of radius r is given by the
(c) 60° (d) 90° force constant of 20 Nm−1 compressed to
mr mr
2
mv
2
mv
25. A football is kicked at an angle 45° to the expression (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 20.0cm. calculate the energy stored in the
horizontal over a fence line up with velocity of v v r r string (a) 0.1j (b) 1.0j (c) 10.0j (d) 100j
−1
15 ms . Calculate the magnitude of 33. A stone tied to a string is made to reduce in a 41. Which of the following statements about the
horizontal velocity of the ball at its highest horizontal circle of radius 4m with an angular mouth piece of a telephone is correct? It
point [neglect friction, g=10 ms−2 speed of 2 rads−1. With what tangential converts sound energy into (a) acoustic energy
velocity will the stone move off the circle if (b) mechanical energy (c) electrical energy
(a) 0.0 ms−1 (b) 5.6 ms−1 (c) 10.6 ms−1
the string is cut? (a) 16.6 ms−1 (b08.0 ms−1 (c) (d) heat energy
(d) 15.0 ms−1 −1 −1 42. A device that converts mechanical energy into
26. A satellite in circular motion around the earth 6.0 ms (d) 2.0 ms
electrical energy is (a) a dynamo (b) an
does not have (a) a gravitational force acting 34. A particle of mass 2.5 x 10−6 kgrevolving
electric meter (c) an induction coil (d) a
on it (b) a uniform velocity (c) an acceleration around the earth has a radial acceleration of
7 −2 transformer
(d) a centripetal force acting on it 4 x 10 ms ms . What is the centripetal force 43. A ball is dropped and it hits the floor at
27. An object of mass 0.40kg attached to the end of the particle (a) 6.25 x 10−14 N appoint A. it rebounds upwards to a point B.
of a string is whirled round in a horizontal (b) 1.60 x 10−13 N (c) 5.00 x10N while moving from A to B (a) kinetic energy is
circle of radius 2.0m with a constant speed of increasing (b) potential energy is increasing
−1 (d) 1.00 x 102 N
8 ms . Calculate the angular velocity of the 35. The mass attached to a string is moving in a (c) potential energy is decreasing (d) kinetic
object. (a) 0.8 rads−1 (b) 2.0 rads−1 circular path. If the speed is double the tension energy remains constant
(c) 4.0 rads −1(d) 8.0 rads−1 in the string will be (a) doubled (b) halved 44. A stone of mass 0.5kg is dropped from a
28. Which of the following correctly give the (c) four times as great (d) one forth as mush height of 12m. calculate its maximum kinetic
relationship between linear speed v and
 energy [ g=10 ms−2] (a) 3.0j (b) 6.0j (c) 30.0j 1. i. Distinguish between fundamental and
(d) 60.0j derived quantities. Give two examples of each
45. An object of mass 0.25kg moves at a height h 5marks
above the ground with a speed of 4 ms−1. If its ii. How many seconds are there in
mechanical energy at this height is 12j, (a) 1 year
(b) 2days
determine the value of h [ g=10 ms−2]
(c) month of February 2023 6marks
(a) 0.8m (b) 4.0m (c) 4.8m (d) 5..6m
iii. What is the dimension of the following
46. Which of the following units is equivalent to
(a) Impulse
watts? (a) kgms−2 (b) kg m2 s−3 (b) Force
(c) kg m2 s−2 (d) kgm2 s−1 (c) velocity
47. A body is pulled through a distance of 500m (d) Pressure 4marks
by a force of 20N. if the fower developed is 2. List four types of motion and give an example
0.4kw. calculate the time for which the force of each 10marks
acts (a) 250.0s (b) 25.0s (c) 2.5s (d) 0.5s 3. Distinguish between
48. An engine raises 100kg of water through a (a) Distance and Displacement 5marks
height of 60m in 20s. what is the power of the (b) Speed and Velocity 5marks
engine? [ g=10 ms−2] (a) 120.000W 4. Use the information below to plot d – t graph
(b) 3000W (c) 333W (d) 300W
49. The engine ofa train produces a force of d(cm) 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
3000N when moving at 30 ms−1 . Calculate the
power of the engine (a) 1.00 x 102 w t(s) 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
(b) 3.00 x 10 2 W (c) 9.00 x 10 4 w Find the slope of the graph 10marks
(d) 3.00 x 105 W 5. (i) What is physics 2marks
50. A car travelling with a uniform velocity of (ii) Mention 5 career prospects in Physics
−1
30 ms along a horizontal road overcomes a 5marks
constant frictional force of 600N. calculate the (iii) What is your career 3marks
power of the engine of the car (a) 18Kw 6. (i) Define the following
(b) 20kw (c) 180kw (d) 200kw (a) Work
(b) Energy
(c) Power 3marks
(ii) A boy of mass 50kg runs up a set of steps
of total height 3.om. find the work done
against gravity 7marks

SECTION B: THEORY

Answer any 4 questions. Question 1 is compulsory

 FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR is 90°C. this thermometer reads 60°C when the
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. true temperature is 40°C. calculate the value of
x (a) 60°C (b) 48°C (c) 40°C (c) 30°C
SUBJECT. Physics 6. A platinum – resistance thermometer has a
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR resistance of 5ohms at 100°C. assuming that
resistance changes uniformly with
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this temperature, calculate the resistance of the
section thermometer when the temperature 45°C
1. Which of the following cannot be used to (a) 13.9ohms (b0 8.9ohms (c) 6.8ohms (d)
measure the temperature of a substance? 3.2ohms
(a) variation of pressure with temperature 7. The temperature of an object is raised by
(b) Expansion of a liquid (c) change in 120°C. the resulting increase in its absolute
resistance of a conductor (d) change in colour temperature is (a) 50k (b) 120K (c) 200k (d)
with temperature 393k
2. The diagram below represents six’s maximum 8. A faulty thermometer registers 102,5°C at
and minimum thermometer. If the temperature 100°C. if the thermometer has zero error, what
of the surrounding falls, which of the will it register at 55°C (a) 54.6°C (b) 55.0°C
following correctly state how the steel indices (c) 56.0°C (d) 56.4°C
in the thermometer would respond to the 9. An iron rod of mass 2kg and at a temperature
change in temperature? of 280°C is dropped into some quantity of
water initially at a temperature of 30°C. if the
temperature of the mixture is 70°C, calculate
the mass of the water. [Neglect heat losses to
the surrounding, specific heat capacity of iron
−1 −1
460 jkg k , specific heat capacity of water
−1 −1
4200 jkg k (a) 0.58kg (b) 0.77kg (c)
(a) S1 would move upwards but S2 would not 1.15kg (d) 1.50kg
move (b) S1 would not move but S2 would 10. An electric pressing iron is connected to the
move upwards (c) both S1 and S2 would move mains using an insulated wire. After some
upwards (d) S1 would move Upwards and S2 minutes, the wire becomes very hot. The heat
3. A thermometer has Qts stem marked in generated in he wire can be minimized by
millimeter instead of degree Celsius. The replacing the wire with one of (a) thinner
lower fixed point is 30mm and the upper fixed insulation (b) greater diameter (c) smaller
point is 180mm. calculate the temperature in diameter (d) thicker insulation
degree Celsius when the thermometer read 11. The heat capacity of a calorimeter is the
45mm. (a) 67.5°C (b) 25.0°C (c) 30.0°C amount of energy required to (a) change the
(d) 10.0°C temperature of 1kg of the calorimeter by 1k
4. An object is heated from 30°C to 57°C. the (b) change 1kg mass of the calorimeter to
increase in its temperature on the Kelvin Scale liquid at the same temperature (c) change the
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (a) 17k (b) 81k (c0 27k (d) 300k temperature of the calorimeter by 1k (d) melt
SECONDARY SCHOOL, 5. The ice point of an ungraduated mercury – in – the calorimeter into liquid at a constant
glass thermometer is X, while its steam point temperature
GWAGALADA. ABUJA.
12. Hot water at a temperature of t is added to point (d) when temperature is equal to the 26. A given mass of an ideal gas has a pressure of
twice that amount of water at a temperature of boiling point −2
500 Nm at - 13°C. if its volume remains
30°C. if the resulting temperature of the 20. Which of the following factors does not affect constant calculate its pressure at 247°C
mixture is 50°C, calculate t (a) 90°C (b) 80°C the role of evaporation of a liquid? (a) 25 Nm−2 (b) 5.0 Nm−2 (c) 500 Nm−2
(c) 50°C (d) 40°C (a) temperature (b) volume (c) wind
(d) 1000 Nm−2
13. The amount of energy required to change a (d) surface area
27. The pressure P, volume V and absolute
kilogram of ice block into water without a 21. A hygrometer is used for determining
temperature T of a given mass of an ideal gas,
change in temperature is (a) Heat capacity of (a) steam point (b) relative humidity (c) ice
changes simultaneously. Which of the
ice (b specific heat capacity (c) specific latent point (d) relative density
following equation is correct about the gas?
heat of vaporization of ice (d) specific latent 22. Dew point is not affected by (a) temperature
heat of fusion of ice (b) wind (c) the amount of water vapour in the constant P
(a) pv= (b¿ =constant
14. The amount of heat given out or absorbed atmosphere (d) atmospheric pressure T T
when a substance changes its state at a 23. The graph below illustrate the variation of P constant I constant
(c) = (d) =
constant temperature is known as (a) latent temperature θ with time t for a solid that is T T T PV
heat (b) hat capacity (c) specific latent heat being heated. Which processes take place at 28. A gas occupies a certain volume at 27°C. at
(d) specific heat capacity segments p and Q respectively (a) freezing and what temperature will its volume be three time
15. Calculate the heat required to convert 20g of vaporization (b) evaporation and solidification the original volume assuming that temperature
ice at 0°C to water at 16°C [specific latent heat (c) melting and boiling (d) condensation and remains constant? (a) 81°C (b) 162°C
of fusion of ice =336 jg −1, specific heat evaporation (c) 354°C (d) 627°C
capacity of water = 4.2 jg−1 k −1] 29. The diagram below shows the variation of
(a) 1.34 x 103 j (b) 5.38 x 103 j (c) volume V of a glass with temperature θ in a
3 Charles’ law experiment. The volume of the
6.70 x 10 j (d) 8.60 x 10 3 j
temperature at the point x is
16. Ice of mass 10g at - 50°C was completely 24. The pressure of a fixed mass of gass is
converted to water at 0°C , calculate the 5 −2
2.0 x 10 Nm at a known temperature.
quantity of heat used. [specific heat capacity
Assuming that the temperature remains
of ice =2.1 jg−3 k −1 , specific latent heat of
constant, what will be the pressure of the gas if
fusion of ice =336 jg −1 (a) 105j (b) 3255j its volume is halved? (a) 1.0 x 105 Nm−2 (a) - 32°C (b) - 100°C (c) – 273°C (d) - 373°C
(c) 3465j (d) 16821j 30. The volume of a fixed mass of gas varies
(b) 2.0 x 105 Nm−2 (c) 3.0 x 105 Nm−2
17. Thermal energy added or removed from a inversely as the pressure on it, provided the
substance that changes the state of the (d) 4.0 x 105 Nm−2 temperature is constant. This statement is
substance is called (a) latent heat (b) heat of 25. 500cm3 of a gas is collected at 0°C and at a (a) pressure law (b) Charles law (c) Boyles’
reaction (c) calorimetry (d) specific heat pressure of 70.0cm of mercury. What is the law (d) general gas law
18. Ether produces a cooling effect when it is volume of the gas at the same temperature and 31. Which of the following statement is true of the
poured on the hand because it has (a) low 76 x 500 3 diagram shown below?
at a pressure 76,0cm (a) cm
conductivity (b) high conductivity (c) high 72
latent heat of vaporization (d) low latent heat 72 x 500 3 72 x 76 3
(b) cm (c) cm (d)
of vaporization 76 500
19. The change of state from solid to liquid occurs 76 3
(a) at constant temperature (b) when cm (a) the two point A and B are in phase (b)
72 x 500
temperature is lower than the boiling point distance AB is half the wavelength of the
(c) when temperature is just near freezing
 wave (c) AC and BD are the amplitudes or the 44. Which of the following is a stringed 1. Explain why it is not advisable to sterilize a
wave (d) the wave has four crest instrument? (a) flute (b) trumpet (c) piano
clinical thermometer in boiling water at normal
32. The inverse of the time required for a wave to (d) drum
complete one full cycle is called 45. Which of the following is not a wind atmospheric pressure 10marks
(a) wavelength (b) period (c) frequency (d) instrument? (a) Guitar (b) organ (c) violin
2. (a) State two advantages of alcohol over
amplitude (d) xylophone
33. The S.I unit of frequency, period and 46. What is a wave front? (a) is the process of mercury as a thermometric 5marks
amplitude of a wave are respectively (a) Hertz, transferring a disturbance (b) is a transverse
(b) State two physical properties used for
second and centimeter (b) second, meter and wave (c) is a disturbance (d) a line or surface in
Hertz (c) Metre, hertz and second (d) Hertz, the part of an advancing wave on which all the measuring temperature 5marks
second and metre particles are in the same phase
3. The lower fixed point and upper fixed point of
34. A wave of wavelength 0.30m travels 900m in 47. What is a wave motion? (a) is a process of
3.0s, calculate its frequency (a) 68.0Hz transferring a disturbance from one point to resistance thermometer are 0.5ohms and
(b) 225.0Hz (c) 2700Hz (d) 1000.0Hz another in a medium without any transfer of the
35ohms respectively. If it records 2.5ohms in
35. In the wave equation φ=Esin(200 t−77 πx ), particle of the medium (b) is a reflection of
ϵ represents the (a) amplitude (b) frequency sound (c) is maximum displacement of a certain environment, what is the temperature of
(c) period (d) wavelength particle from its rest (d) none
the medium in kelvin?
36. In which of the following media is speed of 48. An example of a mechanical wave is
sound the least? (a) Air (b) Brass (c) water (a) water wave (b) radio wave (c) wave 4. Define the following terms
(d) wood propagation in stretched string (d)waves in a
(a) Amplitude (A)
37. In which of the following media would sound closed pipes
wave travel faster? (a) kerosene (b) Alcohol 49. What is a stationary wave? (a) is a wave setup (b) Wavelength
(c) water (d) iron when two equal progressive waves of equal
(c) period (T)
38. In which of the following media is the amplitude and frequency and travelling in
transmission of sound wave fastest? (a) vacuum opposite direction are supper posed (b) is a (d) Frequency (f)
(b) air (c) wood (d) iron point on a stationary wave where there is no
(e) Wave speed (v) 10marks
39. The ability of wave to spread around corners is movement (c) is an antinode (d) is a node of
called (a) polarization (b) dispersion equal frequency 5. The equation of a wave travelling along the
(c) diffraction (d) reflection 50. What is a progressive waves (a) is a wave
positive x direction is given by
40. Which of the following properties is not which continues to spread out transferring
−3
exhibited by sound? (a) diffraction (b) energy from the source of disturbance (b) is y=0.25 x 10 sin ⁡( 500t−0.25 x ). find the
polarization (c)interference (d) reflection superposition of two waves (c) is a point on a
stationary wave where there is no movement of angular frequency of the wave motion 10marks
41. The superposition of wave to produce
maximum effect at a point is (a) reflection the medium (d) is the ability of waves to bend 6. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 30° at
(b) refraction (c) interference (d) diffraction around an obstacle.
an air- glass interface
42. He amplitude of a sound wave determines its
(a) frequency (b) quality (c) loudness (d) pitch SECTION B THEORY (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the
43. The quality of a note depends on its
Answer 4 question, question 6 is compulsory deviation of theory in the glass
(a) frequency (b) pitch (c) overtone
(d) amplitude (b) Determine the angle of deviation
(ahg = 1.5). note Angle of deviation 5. The material used for constructing the core of
an electromagnet is (a) iron (b) carbon
d=i–r (15marks)
(c) copper (d) steel
6. Which of the following is not a component of
a d.c electric motor? (a) commutator (b) field
magnets (c) slip ring (d) armature
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 7. Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction is
SECONDARY SCHOOL, essentially a statement of the (a) inverse
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. square law of gravitation (b) inverse square
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR law of magnetism (c) inverse square law of
electrostatic (d) law of conservation of energy
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. 8. Which of the following devices works on the
SUBJECT. Physics principle of electromagnetic induction?
CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR (a) carbon microphone (b) electric heater
(c) moving iron ammeter (d) simple d.c motor
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 9. A transformer has 400turns and 200turns in
Section the primary and secondary winding
1. What is the total capacitance in the circuit respectively. If the current in the primary and
represented by the diagram below secondary winding are 3Aand 5A respectively,
calculate the efficiency of the transformer
(a) 85.0% (b) 83.3% (c) 37.5% (d) 30.0%
10. Which of the following is not part of an a.c
generator? (a) carbon brushes (b) slip ring
(c) commutator (d) field magnet
11. An alternating voltage with a frequency of
C2 50Hz has a period of (a) 002s (b) 0.05s
(a) C1 + C2 + C3 (b) C1 C2 C3 (c) (d) (c) 020s (d) 0.50s
C1 +C3 12. Calculate the inductive reactance of the circuit
1 shown below
C3
2. Which of the following components is used
for storing electric charges (a)inductors
(b) resistor (c) capacitor (d) electrometer
3. Fleming’s right hand rule is also called the
(a) motor rule (b) dynamo rule (c) screw rule
(d) thumb rule (a) 50.00 (b)5.00 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.5
4. An a.c generator can be converted to a d.c 13. The unit of inductance is (a) farad (b) Henry
generator by replacing the (a) commutator (c) Hertz (d) weber
with an armature (b) armature with a 14. An ammeter connected to an a.c circuit
commutator (c) commutator with slip ring records 55A. the peak current in the circuit is
(d) slip ring with a commutator (a) 7.8A (b)7.1A (c) 3.9A (d) 3.5A
15. In a R – C circuit (a) I rms leads V rms by 60° Determine the number of wavelength in it
(b) I rmsslags V rms by 60° (c) V rms lags I rms by (a) 4 (b) 3½ (c) 2½ (d) 2
(a) 0.100J (b) 0050J (c) 0010J (d) 0.00J 35. The pitch of a note is not affected by
90° (d) V rms leads I rms by 90°
25. A nuclide is presented by determine its (a) Frequency (b) Tension in the vibrating
16. In a series R – L – C circuit at resonance, neutron – proton ratio (a) 0 – 5 (b) 0 – 8 (c) 1 string (c) mass of a vibrating string
impedance is (a) maximum (b) minimum – 2 (d) 1 – 5 (d) amplitude of sound wave
(c) capacitive (d) inductive 26. The S.I unit of sound energy is (a) Hz (b) cb 36. A resistance with fixed resistance value is
17. The opposition offered to an alternating (c) db (d) J called (a) resistance box (b) standard resistor
current in a.c – R series is known as 27. The ice point on the absolute scale of (c) shunt (d) multiplier
(a) Impedance (b) Resistance (c) reactance temperature is (a) 0k (b) 32k (c) 100k (d) 273k 37. The opposition offered to an alternating
(d) friction 28. Which of the following is not correct about current in a C – R series circuit is known as
18. An inductorof inductance 10Hz is connected isotopes of an element? They have (a) the (a) impedance (b) Resistance (c) Reactance
across an a.c circuit source of 50v, 100Hz. same neutron number (b) the same proton (d) friction
What is the current in the circuit? [ π=3.14 ] number (c) the same number of electrons 38. A transformer connected to a 240 V rms has
(a) 0.200A (b) 0.070A (c) 0.050A (d) 0.008A (d) 3000 turns in its primary coil and 500 turns in
19. Which of the following radiation constitutes a 29. Bohr’s theory provides evidence for the its secondary coil. Calculate the output voltage
stream of electrons? (a) Gamma rays (b) X-ray (a) structure of the atom (b) positive charge of (a) 4000V (b) 400V (c) 40V (d) 4V
(c) cathode rays (d) radio waves an electron (c) existence of energy levels in 39. Which of the following object is not a
20. Which of the following is a pair of isotopes? the atom (d) positive charge on a proton conductor? (a) the earth (b) human body
(a) (b) 30. When an atom loses or gains a charge, it (c) iron rod (d) dry wood
becomes (a) an ion (b) an electron (c) a 40. The energy stored in a simple cell is
(c) (d) neutron (d) a proton (a) electrical (b) nuclear (c) thermal
21. When an atom is in the ground state, it is said 31. If the atom de-excites from n = 2, the (d) chemical
to be (a) grounded (b) exited (c) stable wavelength of the emitted radiation is 41. An ammeter can be adapted to measure
(d) Ionized
(a) 2.4 x 10−7 m (b) 1.2 x 10−7 m (c) potential difference by using a (a) shunt
22. When an atom losses or gains a charge, it −9 −9
2.4 x 10 m (d) 1.2 x 10 m (b) multiplier (c) Rheostat (d) resistance box
becomes (a) an ion (b) an electron (c) a
neutron (d) a proton 32. An electron of mass 9.1 x 10−31 kg moves with 42. A 15 μf capacitor is connected to a 240v, 50Hz
23. If the frequency of the a.c circuit illustrated a speed of 10 ms−1 . Calculate the wavelength a.c source. Calculate the resistance of the
below is 500 πHz . What would be the capacitor [ π=3.142] (a) 16ohms (b)
of the associated wave [6.6 x 10−34 JS ¿
reactance in circuit? 8ohms (c) 106ohms (d) 212ohms
(a) 9.10 x 10−24 m (b) 4.55 x 10−17 m 43. In a photocell, light energy is converted to
(c) 7.25 x 10−11 m (d) 6.20 x 10−8 m (a) electrical energy (b) chemical energy
33. Which of the following particles orrays have (c) heat energy (d) mechanical energy
the greatest penetrating power? (a) Beta 44. Calculate the energy carried by an X ray of
0.0009 particle (b) Alpha particle (c) Gamma particle wavelength 6.0 x 10−10 m [planks constant =
(a) (b) 900 (c) 1030 (d) 1400 (d) Electrons −34 8
6.6 x 10 JS , velocity of light = 3.0 x 10 J ]
π 34.
24. In the circuit diagram below, calculate the (a) 3.3 x 10−12 j (b) 3.3 x 10−16 j
energy stored in the inductor at resonance (c) 1.1 x 10−16 j (d) 3.3 x 10−24 j
45. The phenomenon of radioactivity was first
The diagram above illustrate a wave front. discovered by (a) Marie Curtie (b) Sir J.J
Thomson (c) Henri Bacqueral (d) Niels Bohr
46. Which of the following particles of rays have 4. State Heisenberg uncertainty principle give the 5. A poem in which a lone speaker seams to be
the greatest penetrating power? (a) Beta example s 10marks addressing someone else is a (a) pathetic
particle (b) Alpha particles (c) Gamma 5. (a) Define radioactivity and half-life 2marks fallacy (b) verbal irony (c) dramatic irony
particles (d) Electrons (b) The half–life of a radioactive material is (d) dramatic monologue
47. The half – life of a radioactive element is 5s. 6hours. What quantity of 1kg of the material 6. A literary work that vividly portrays life can
calculate its decay constant (a) 0.113 s−1 would decay in 24 hours? 8marks be describe as (a) realistic (b) romantic
(b) 0.136 s−1 (c) 0.139 s−1 (d) 0.1935 s−1 6. A photo emissive surface has a threshold (c) idealistic (d) sarcastic
48. Which of the following instruments is used to frequency of 4.0 x 1014 Hz . if the surface is 7. The repetition of the same vowel sound in a
determine the accurate value of the illuminated by light of frequency line is (a) alliteration (b) assonance
electromotive force of a cell? (a) voltammeter
15
5.0 x 10 Hz , calculate the (c) onomatopoeia (d) parallelism
(b) meter bridge (c) Ammeter (a) Threshold wavelength 8. A character in the story who narrates what
(d) potentiometer (b) Work function happens to him or her is (a) a second person
49. A simple pendulum makes 50 oscillation in (c) Kinetic energy of the emitted photo narrator (b) a first person narrator (c) an
one minutes. Determine its period of electron 10marks Omniscient narrator (d) a third person narrator
oscillation. (a) 0.40s (b) 0.83s (c) 1.20s 9. An unstatament is otherwise called (a) litotes
(d) 50.00s (b) conceit (c) pun (d) contrast
50. A 12ohms resistor dissipate 8kg of heat in 20s. 10. The loneliest people live in the most crowded
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR place illustrates (a) paradox (b) anecdote
calculate the current through the resistor SECONDARY SCHOOL,
(a) 5.8A (b) 6.9A (c) 30.0A (d) 33.3A (c) allegory (d) parody
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. 11. A person’s lite story written by another person
SECTION B: THEORY FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR is (a) a commentary (b) a biography (c) an
autobiography (d) an epistolary
Answer question 2 and any other three 2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. 12. A struggle between opposing forces in a story
1. In an a.c circuit the peak value of the potential SUBJECT. Literature in English
difference is 180v. what is the instantaneous or play is (a) denouement (b) conflict
1 CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR (c) comedy (d) tragedy
potential difference when it has reach th of a 13. An expression from which one derives a
8 mental picture is (a) paradox (b) exaggeration
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this
cycle 10marks (c) imagery (d) photograph
Section
2. (a)Define the following terms 14. A story which explains natural phenomenon is
1. A character whose actions o qualities save to
(a) Reactance 2marks (a) legend (b) parable (c) myth (d) fiction
heighten those of the hero through contrast is
(b) Impedance 2marks 15. A dirge is a poem sung (a) to send a child to
(a) an adversary (b) a protagonist (c) an
(c) Inductive reactance 2marks sleep (b) to make workers happy (c) at a
antagonist (d) a foil
(d) Inductance 2marks birthday party (d) at a funeral
2. One of the following is used to develop a
(e) Capacitive reactance 2marks 16. In drama ___ creates humour (a) hero
character? (a) climax (b) atmosphere
1 (b) clown (c) Villain (d) chorus
(b) Show that f o (c) setting (d) dialogue
2 π √ LC 3. A curtain raiser is an introductory performance 17. ___ is a literary device used to express
5marks that is (a) not part of the main play (b) the first unpleasant in a more acceptable manner
3. A 500kv is applied across an X – ray tube, part of the main play (c) not separate from the (a) epilogue (b) epigram (c) euphemism
calculate the maximum velocity of the electron play (d) the first party of the final scene (d) eulogy
produced [ Mc=9.1 x 10−31 kg , 4. A stanza of four lines is a (a) complet 18. A story in which characters or actions
−19
e=1.6 x 10 C ] (b) quintet (c) septet (d) quatrain represents abstract ideas or moral qualities is
10marks
 (a) an epic (b) a legend (c) a allegory (d) a 34. Conflict in a literary work begins to unfold 47. The author’s attitude towards the subject being
satire with (a) climax (b) episode (c) exposition treated is (s) mood (b) one (c) felling
19. The use of imagery in pros or verse (a) appeals (d) resolution (d) atmosphere
to the sense (b) develop the plot (c) creates 35. A short witty saying is a/an (a) epitaph 48. One of the following makes us of gesture only
confusion (d) obscures meaning (b) sonnet (c) limerick (d) epigram (a)comedy (b) lampoon (c) mime (d) solitaire
20. ___ is the location of the action of the plot 36. ‘The king has joined his ancestors’ is an 49. “Here comes the princess now heaven wakes
(a) setting (b) Narrative technique (b) point of example of (a) euphemism (b) eulogy on earth” illustrates the use of (a) contrast
view (d) characterization (c) malapropism (d) trilogy (b) metaphor (c) metonymy (d) meiosis
21. A ballad is essentially a _ poem (a) descriptive 37. A question used for effort does not require an 50. An ode is usually a poem written for
(b) dramatic (c) pastoral (d) narrative answer is (a) Oratorial (b) antithetical (a) condemnation (b) celebration
22. In literature, repetition is used essentially for (c) anti-climax (d) rhetorical (c) instruction (d) entertainment
(a) rhyme (b) suspense (c) allusion 38. “The pen is mightier than the sword” ia an
(d) emphasis example of (a) symbol (b) metaphor
23. A speech in a play which a character speaks (c) metonymy (d) oxymoron
his or her taught alone is (a) a monologue 39. In a play, unfolding events reach their peak in
(b) an aside (c) an epilogue (d) a soliloquy the (a) climax (b) denouement (c) catharsis
24. The performers in a play constitute the (d) conflict
(a) chorus (b) character (c) audience (d) cast 40. An Omniscient narrator in a novel (a) detaches
25. A poem that celebrates an object, person or himself from the story (b) knows nothing
event is (a) a sonnet (b) a dirge (c) an ode(d) a about the character and event (c) knows
ballad everything the character and events (d) is a SECTION B: THEORY
26. An __ is an indirect and usually unfavourable character in a story
remark (a) allusion (b) irony (c) aside 41. Blank verse has no (a) metre (b) rhyme Answer four questions in this section, question 1 is
(d) innuendo (c) rhythm (d) imagery compulsory
27. Many hands make light work illustrate the use 42. A very brief story is an (a) allusion
of (a) zeugma (b) hyperbole (c) metonymy (b) autobiography (c) allegory (d) anecdote
1. Highlight on the theme of beauty in the poem
(d) synecdoche 43. An epilogue (a) introduces a play (b) develops
28. “The sun smiled gently on the scene” illustrate characters (c) sums up a play (d) introduces “Black Woman” 15marks
(a) paradox (b) euphemism (c) hyperbole character
2. List and explain the poetic devices used by
(d) personification 44. The device used in “light as wind on water
29. Oral literature is part of (a) drama (b) follebre laid” is (a) rhyme (b) simile (c) onomatopoeia Leopold Sedar Senghor in the poem “Black
(c) poetry (d0 music (d) pun
woman” 10marks
30. Poetry is written in (a) chapter (b) paragraph 45. “The fire gnarred ceaselessly at the bark of the
(c) scenes (d) lines tree” illustrates (a) personification (b) eithet 3. Give a detailed summary of the poem “ Black
31. The ___ produces comic relief in drama (b) allusion (d) paradoc
Woman” 10marks
(a) chorus (b) protagonist (c) antagonist 46. The book should fill the memory, rule the
(d) clown heart and guide the fact. The above expression 4. Discuss on the use of imagery in the poem
32. A short play is also called a (a) farce illustrate the (a) repetition (b) synecdoche
”Black woman” 10marks
(b) novelette (c) play let (d) slapstick (c) metaphor refrain (c) synecdoche (d)
33. ___ refers to the structure of a work of art metaphor 5. Discuss the background and setting of the
(a) form (b)plot (c) setting (d) style
poem “Black woman” 10marks
 4. The following institutions are involved in
capital market except (a) central bank
(b) school (c) development bank (d) building
society
5. __ institution offers long – term loans to
depositors to enable them own their houses
(a) stock exchange (b) capital market
(c) development bank (d) building society
6. __ institution accept deposits from workers
which makes available to them when they
retire (a) NPF (b) Insurance (c) Money market
(d) Capital market
7. The following are examples of securities
except (a) shares (b) stocks (c) money (d)
debenture
8. ___ bank offers long – term loans for
development projects (a) commercial
(b) development (c) capital (d) central
9. ___ market is a market for short – term loans
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (a) capital (b) stock (c) shares (d) money
SECONDARY SCHOOL, 10. Giving Nigerian opportunity of ownership of
foreign business is a function of ___ market
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (a) money (b) stock (c) capital (d) commodity
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 11. The Nigerian stock exchange market is in __
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. state (a) Kaduna (b) Lagos (c) Abuja (d) Kano
SUBJECT. Commerce 12. Sales of securities is a function of __ market
(a) stock (b) commodity (c) money (d) capital
CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR 13. Shares of a well-known companies is called __
(a) cum div (b) ex div (c) blue chip (d) turn
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 14. ___ denotes price of which the holder of such
Section shares has the right to receive (a) Cum div (b)
Ex div (c) stock (d) share
1. __ market is for lending and borrowing of long 15. __ denotes price of which the holder of such
– term loans (a) money (b) commodity (c) has no right to receive (a) stock (b) share (c)
capital (d) stock Ex div (d) Cum div
2. Long- term fund mobilization is a function of 16. ___ note is a document sent by a broker to his
__ market (a) capital (b) stock (c) money client to confirm the purchase made on his
(d) commodity behalf (a) transfer (b) contract (c) share (d)
3. __ market is where investors can buy and sell jobber
securities (a) stock (b) money (c) capital 17. __ document is used to transfer ownership of
(d) commodity shares (a) contract note (b) invoice (c) receipt
(d) transfer form
18. ___ is the actual dealer in security (a) Jobber 35. ___ is in form of booklet which contain
(b) broker (c) client (d) bank coloured pictures of goods (a) Cinema
19. ___ is an agent who engaged in the purchase (b) radio (c) catalogue (d) television SECTION B;
and sells of securities (a) Jobber (b) Client 36. There are ___ types of trade (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 6
(c) broker (d0 bank (d) 3 Answer 3 question from this section
20. There are __ types of speculator (a) 4 (b) 2 37. Commerce is divided into ___ (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 3 1. (a) Explain the meaning of Capital 5marks
(c) 3 (d) 5 (d) 4
(b) Mention 4 institution involve in capital
21. ___ is a security issued by government 38. Occupation can be classified into __(a) 4 (b) 6
(a) Gilt –edged (b) share (c) stock ( c) 2 (d) 3 markets 5marks
(d) debenture 39. There are __ factors of production (a) 4 (b) 5
(c) State 2 functions of capital market 5marks
22. ___ speculator expect prices of securities to (c) 6 (d) 3
fall before delivery date (a) bull (b) stag 40. Home trade is sub-divided into (a) 4 (b) 2(c) 3 2. (
(c) bear (d) agent (d) 5
3. a) Define stock exchange market 5marks
23. On ___ the representatives of fifteen West 41. ___ is the free gift of nature (a) Labour
African Nation signed the treaty establishing (b) capital (c) entrepreneur (d) land (b) Mention 5 types of Securities 5marks
ECOWAS (a) 1974 (b) 1975 (c) 1973 (d) 1964 42. ___ is used to start a business (a) land
(c) State 4 members of the stock exchange
24. ECOWAS is made up of ___ member (b) labour (c) capital (d) money
countries (a) 13 (b) 18 (c) 20 (d) 15 43. __ is both the mental and physical effort put market 5marks
25. ECOWAS member countries include the into production (a) land (b) labour (c) capital
4. (a) explain the meaning of speculation 5marks
following except (a) Nigeria (b) Ghana (c) (d) entrepreneur
South Africa (d) Togo 44. Production can be classified into __ (a) 3 (b) 5 (b) State 3 types of speculation 6marks
26. The headquarters of ECOWAS is in ___ (c) 6 (d) 2
(c) Discuss two types of speculation 4marks
(a) Lome (b) Abuja (c) Ghana (d) Togo 45. There are __ types of transportation (a) 4 (b) 3
27. The seat of operation of fund of ECOWAS is (c) 2 (d) 5 5. (a) Discuss the formation of ECOWAS
in ___ (a) Abuja (b) Lome (c) Ghana (d) Togo 46. A business owned, financed and managed by
(b) List the 15 member state of ECOWAS
28. Lake Chad basin commission was established one person is known as ___ (a) partnership
in the year (a) 1968 (b) 1966 (c) 1961 (d) 1964 (b) co-operative society (c) sole proprietorship 6. (a) Explain lake Chad Basin commission
29. The headquarters of Lake Chad basin is in __ (d) public corporation
(b) Mention the four countries that make – up
(a) Abuja (b) Lome (c) Ndjamena (d) Niamey 47. A business owned, managed and financed by
30. The lake Chad Basin shares borders with __ two or more individuals is called ___ (a) sole the commission (L.C.B.C)
countries (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6 proprietorship (b) partnership (c) co-operative
7. (a) Discuss Niger Basin Commission
31. Niger Basin commission was established in societies (d) public corporation
the year __ (a) 1963 (b) 1968 (c) 1966 48. A business owned and managed by (b) State the nine countries that make – up
(d) 1962 government is called ___ (a) public
Niger Basin Commission
32. Niger basin commission is made up of ___ corporation (b) co-operation societies (c) one
countries (a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 9 man business (d) partnership
33. The headquarters of Niger Basin commission 49. ___ is a unit of capital owned by individual
is in __ (a) Niamey (b) Abuja (c) Ndjamena (a) stock (b) debenture (c) bond (d) share
(d) Ghana 50. The name of commerce teacher in Suzz
34. There are ___ types of adverting (a) 5 (b) 4 secondary school is ___ (a) Chief Ibe
(c) 3 (d) 2 (b) chief Bisong (c) Chief Goje (d) Mr.
Johnson
 4. Which of these statement is correct? (a)
political apathy natural democracy (b) political
apathy means everyone is fully participating
(c) political apathy increases cost of electoral
activities (d) political apathy destroy
democracy
5. A major consequence of political apathy is
(a) political violence (b) election of
incompetent (c) election of prudent leaders
(c) civic disturbance
6. Fundamental human right include all these
except (a) Right to personal liberty (b) right to
peaceful assembly and association (c) right to
freedom of discrimination (d)
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 7. Political apathy could be fought by (a) forcing
SECONDARY SCHOOL, all citizen to participate in politics (b) giving
financial reward to all vote during election
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (c) discouraging money politics and god father
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 8. A ban on public assembly will limit unit
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. (a) right to peaceful assembly and association
SUBJECT. Civic Education (b) right to speak against government (c) right
to (c) right to move at odd hour (d) right to
CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR participate in politics
9. Political participation involves the following
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this activities except (a) regular payment of tax
Section (b) voting during election (c) joining political
1. All these are major consequences of human parties (d) resisting electoral fraud
right abuse except (a) refusal of citizens to 10. Which of these statement is incorrect about
cooperate with leaders (b) violent protest by public service and civil services in Nigeria?
citizens (c) increase in lawyers income due to (a) public service is not the same as civil
increase in case of human right abuse (d) service (b) all public servants are civil servants
political and economic backwardness (c) all public servants are not civil servants (d)
2. A tye of law which helps people to enforce all civil servants are public servants
their right and get compensation for injuries 11. The administrative class of the public services
that other people have caused them is called includes all these except (a) directors
(a) civil law (b) people’s law (c) human right (b) confidential secretaries (c) permanent
law (d) criminal law secretaries (d) assistant directors
3. Imposition of curfew by government may lead 12. Which of these is not a reason for poor
to deprivation of citizens (a) freedom of voting performance of the public service in Nigeria
(b) freedom of movement (c) freedom of (a) corruption (b) poor condition of service
criticizing government (d) freedom to form (c) political interference (d) high salary
political parties payment
13. Inalienability of human right implies 23. The principle that public servants cannot be (b0 unfaithful political promises (c) bad
(a) dispensability of human right (b) held responsible for their official actions governance (d) cross carpeting phenomenon
indivisibility of human right (c) human right denotes (a) impartiality (b) accountability 35. Which of the following may prevent a citizen
cannot be withdrawn from any law abiding (c) Neutrality (d) anonymity from voting in a general election? (a) lack of
citizens (d) human right if forever 24. The most popular means through which stable income (b) high cost of living (c) non
14. All these are modern mode of popular citizens of a country van participate in politics registration (d) political neutrality
participation except (a) public debates on by (a) being members of political parties (b) 36. The highest class in the public service in
natural issues (b) joining political parties engaging in constructive criticism (c) Nigeria is the (a) clerical (b0 manipulative
(c) protest leading to destruction of life and engaging in political debates (d) voting in (c0 technical (d) administrative
properties (d) contesting an election election 37. The smooth operation of public service in
15. Right to petition is (a) political right (b) united 25. The right of an individual to seek redress in a Nigeria is being hampered by (a) debt burden
nation’s right (c) civic right (d) international law court is categorized under (a) social (b) adequate training (c) privatization (d)
right (b) economics (c) procedural (d) political bribery and corruption
16. The first generation right are also known as 26. In the civil service, cleaners, drivers and 38. An organized group that is independent of the
(a) constitutional right (b) liberty oriented security belongs to __ class (a) Administrative state could be described as (a) civil defense
right (c) universal right (d) indivisible right (b) clerical (c) lower (d) professional (b) pressure group (c) community group
17. Political apathy often leads to (a) political 27. The united nations universal declaration on (d) civil society
stability (b) good governance (c) low level of human right was proposed in the year (a) 1948 39. The public service can perform all these
participation (d) low literacy level (b) 1950 (c) 1952 (d) 1954 functions except (a) advise government on
18. Inalienable rights and privileges enjoyed by 28. Citizens can be deprived of their rights during policy (b) keeping of government records
the citizens of a country is called (a) Human (a) public holidays (b) Democracy regime (c) provision of social service (d) budget
right (b) constitutional right (c) civic right (c) political campaign (d) emergency rule approval for implementation
(d) Political right 29. Political apathy can be discouraged through 40. Which of the following may prevent a citizen
19. In Nigeria, public servants are expected to be the following except (a) educating the from voting in an election? (a) lack of stable
(a) non-partisan (b) political (c) ambitious (d) electorate (b) good governance (c) income (b) high cost of living (c) non
A political postponement of election (d) independent registration (d) political neutrality
20. A situation whereby most citizens fails to vote judiciary 41. Which of the following concepts can
in election could be described as political 30. The public service is a branch of ___ arm of guarantee adherence to the rule of law?
(a) socialization (b) electoral rigging (c) government (a) civilian (b) executive (c) (a)political immunity (b) political
inconclusive election (d) apathy judiciary (d) legislature gerrymandering (c) national development
21. __ and __- is the reason why these rights are 31. The effect of queuing up in public places is (d) representative democracy
formed (a) employment and promotion (b) for (a) orderliness (b) transparency (c) Honesty 42. In a democratic government, franchise is given
checkmating and relationship (c) for (d) Humility to all (a) party members (b) resident adults
protecting anyone who wants to harm and 32. A father that effectively discharges his duty (c) adult citizens (d) opinion leaders
violate someone right of living (d) for conflict towards his children could be described as 43. A body established and entrusted with the
and resolution (a) philanthropist (b) celebrity (c) responsible power and authority to direct the affairs of a
22. Which of the following is not necessary for parents (d) permissive father state is called (a) federal executive council
public servant to perform effectively (a) in- 33. Testing of blood before transfusion will (b) state legislative council (c) trusteeship
service training (a) appointment based on greatly help to prevent (a) spread of HIV (b) (d) government
nepotism (c) value re-orientation for public control HIV (c) eradicate HIV (d) prevent HIV 44. One of the following of local government is
servants (d) incentives for meeting set goals 34. Which of the following is not a major reason (a) settlement of intra party crises (b) making
for political apathy? (a)political violence
 bye laws (c) formation of monetary policies 5. (a) Define two types of popular participation 5. Citizens that are not enthusiastic to achieve
(d) denomination of constituencies (b) State five functions of civil society anything for the country can be described as
45. The best means through which individual right organization (a) patriotic citizen (b) bad citizen (c) active
can be safeguarded is (a) knowledge (c) Highlight five problems of civil society citizens (d) passive citizens
acquisition (b) judicial dependence (c)freedom organization 6. Citizenship by registration is normally handled
of the press (d) improved standard of living in (a) ministry of foreign affairs (b) ministry of
46. President Muhammadu Buhari hailed from internal affairs (c) ministry of international
which state (a) Kano (b) Katsina (c) Kebbi (d) affairs (d) ministry of immigration
Kaduna 7. Which of these is not a feature of democracy
47. The immediate past minister of finance in (a) existence of only one party (b) existence of
Nigeria Mrs. Kemi Adeosun resigned due to rule of law (c) free and fair election (d) secret
an alleged (a0 WAEC certificate scandal voting
(b) NYSC exemption certificate scandal SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 8. The qualities of a good citizen are these except
(c) money laundering scandal (d) bribery and SECONDARY SCHOOL, (a) respect for national symbols (b) partial
corruption loyalty to his country (c) patriotism to the
48. Which of the following is not a skill for GWAGALADA. ABUJA. nation (d) obedience to the law of the land
resolving inter-communal conflict? (a) war FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 9. HIV /AIDS can be contracted through all these
(b) dialogue (c) meditation (d) arbitration 2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. means except (a) transfusion of infected blood
49. The class that controls and supervised the SUBJECT. Civic Education (b) unsafe sex (c) sharing of sharp objects with
activities of the executive class in the civil an infected person (d) eating with an infected
service is (a) clerical class (b) manipulative CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR person
class (c) professional class (d) administrative 10. The type of law that regulates the relationship
art INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this between the various arms ad tiers of
50. On which of the following grounds can a Section government is called (a) civil law
citizen abstain from voting (a) religion (b) 1. An active citizen is known as all the following (b) constitution (c) criminal law (d) public law
except (a) paying his tax 9b) wining laurels 11. Failure to carry out our obligation may result
SECTION B: ESSAY (c) partially obeying traffic laws (d) displaying to (a) respect for traditional rulers (b)
Answer only three questions high level of patriotism maintenance of public property (c) respect for
1. (a) Explain the term human right 2. A type of citizen in which a foreigner is made our parents 9d) voting during election
(b) Discuss five characteristics of human right the citizen of a country without fulfilling 12. All these will promote national unity except
(c) Highlight the categories of human rights normal conditions for becoming the citizen of (a) religious tolerance (b) discrimination
2. (a) Explain the meaning of political apathy the country is called (a) honorary citizenship (c) inter-marriage (d) Hospitality
(b) Explain five causes of political apathy (b) diplomatic citizenship (c) citizenship by 13. A citizen can work for the progress of the
(c) State five ways of fight political apathy nationalization (d) citizenship by registration nation by doing all these except (a) prompt
3. (a) Define the term “public service’ 3. A non-citizen of a country is called (a) an payment of tax (b) voting during election
(b) Explain five ways of improving public alien (b) an ambassador (c) a diplomat (d) a (c) stealing government fund (d) obeying
service in Nigeria refugee traffic rules
(c) State five ways of fighting Political apathy 4. A legal member of a country with full 14. National unity is important because (a)it
4. (a) What is popular participation? constitutional right is called (a) an alien in a promotes political stability (b) it related to
(b) Explain five reasons why some don’t in country (b) a foreigner in a country (c) a economic growth (c) it fosters tribalism and
Nigeria politics citizenship of a country (d) a diplomat of a nepotism (d) it enhances succession
(c) State two types of popular participation country
15. All these are bad citizen except (a) internet 23. In capitalist democracy, economic decision are 31. Which of the following is an acceptable
fraudsters (b) advances free fraudsters (c) a made through (a) regular voting by electorates societal value? (a) Honesty (b) merriment
man who refuses to join a political party (b) forces of demand and supply (c) the capital (c) praise singing (d) family planning
(d) street urchins disturbing public peace market (d) the executive and judiciary 32. Which of the following is an effective way of
16. Democratic governance is usually 24. Our traditions and belief can be promoted resolving inter-communal conflict?
characterized by (a) free, fair and credible through all the following except (a) drama (a) meditation (b) dialogue (c) litigation
(b) buoyant and competitive economy presentation (b) cultural exhibitions at home (d) avoidance
(c) accessible employment opportunities and abroad (c) observance of cultural and 33. When there is a dispute in a community
(d) thuggery, youth involvement and election national days (d) western films acted by members should (a) be indifferent to the issues
rigging Nigerian (b) co-operate with others (c) leave the
17. Political apathy often leads to (a) low level of 25. Political apathy includes the following except community entirely without violence (d)
participation (b) good governance (c) political (a) participating in voting (b) refused to exceptional performance of leaders in power
stability (d) low literacy level register (c) lukewarm participation in party 34. Community development projects can best be
18. Our constitutional responsibility include the activities (d) lack of readiness to fight achieved if people are (a) cooperative
following except (a) observing environmental electoral malpractice (b) religious (c) optimistic (d) knowledgeable
sanitation (b) voting during election (c) joining 26. Non – chalant attitude to politics may not be 35. Which of the following is a major problem of
the army during war (d) payment of tax when caused by all the following except (a) the Nigerian civil service? (a) Neutrality
we want economic problem (b) literacy (c) political war (b) red tapism (c) partiality (d) anonymity
19. The military functions in national security (d) payment of tax when we want 36. The civil obligation of a citizen include
includes all these except (a) fighting for good 27. The best way our political leaders can promote (a) political socialization (b) political
governance through coup (b) suppressing our culture and belief is through participation (c) engaging in family planning
insurrection and restoration of order during (a) communication with other international (d) engaging in business ventures
serious violence in the society (c) maintaining leader in any Nigerian language or 37. The following are goals of citizenship
Nigeria territory integrity (d) defending (b) encouraging foreigners to wear Nigeria education except (a) preparing learners for
Nigeria from external aggression dresses (c) making all students to wear Nigeria leadership (b) developing appropriate attitude
20. Political decision under capitalist democracy attires as school uniform (d) wearing Nigerian in the learners (c) creating job opportunities
are usually made through (a) regular voting by attires as official dresses (d) providing social amenities
electorates (b) the capital market (c) forces of 28. Which of these can best influence any child in 38. HIV/AIDS is spread mainly through (a)
demand and supply (d) the executive and imbibing Nigerian cultural beliefs (a) the indiscriminate sexual intercourse (b) kissing
judiciary family (b) political leaders (c) the military and hugging (c) sharing toilets with victims
21. Citizenship education has to do with forces (d) the teachers (d) hand shake with victims
(a) learning about our culture (b) studying our 29. Political apathy could be fought by (a) forcing 39. People living with HIV/AIDS could be
environment (c) making effort to provide all citizens to participate in politics (b) living assisted by (a) isolating them (b) shoeing them
tribalism (d) learning how to be good citizens financial rewards to all voters (c) sacking all love (c) blaming them (d) avoiding them
and responsible leaders public servants that refuses to vote during 40. Which of the following does not promote
22. Which of these may not make a leader in election (d) discouraging money politics and national consciousness? (a) respect for the
protecting the interest of those who vote for god fatherism symbols and identities of the country
him? (a) misplacement of priority 30. Which of these is not good for capitalist (b) promoting of people’s culture and tradition
(b) sensitivity to people’s problems democracy? (a) equality of voters (c) appropriate use of the mass media (d) be
(c) greediness on the part of leaders (b) entrenchment of rule of law principles resolute to their causes
(d) faithfulness to god fathers (c) imposition of one party system (d) press 41. Modern countries adopt rule of laws in order
freedom to make (a) lawyers independent (b) the law
 supreme (c) the judiciary part of legislature (b) create job opportunity (c) cause conflict 5. (a) Define Political Apathy
(d) laws in parliament (d) provide people with genuine information
(b) Explain five reasons for political
42. The habit of obeying traffic regulations helps
the individual to (a) report late at work apathy
(b) avoid unnecessary accident (c) be lazy at
(c) State 5 forms of political apathy
work (d) use unauthorized route
43. Which of the following roles should be a
parent responsibility? (a) sending of the
children to hawk on the street (b) instilling in
children appropriate values and attitudes
(c) encouraging early marriage (d) showing
favour to a particular child
44. A challenge facing the protection of human
SECTION B; THEORY
right in Nigeria is (a) absence of public
compliant commission (b) failure of leaders to Answer any three questions
promote rule of law (c) independence of the
1. (a) Define citizenship education
judiciary (d) press freedom
45. Election is a key pillar of democracy because (b) Explain five importance of citizenship
it helps to (a) determine the legitimacy of
education
government (b) unite the country against
external aggression (c) create goodwill and (c) State five duties and obligations of a
unite among political parties (d) identify the
responsible Nigerian citizen democracy
richest political party in Nigeria
46. Members of a society are expected to adhere 2. (a) What is capitalist democracy?
to societal values for the following reasons
(b) Explain five characteristics of
except (a) enhancement of development
(b) improvement of self-dignity (c) reduction capitalist democracy
of social vices (d) regulation of morality
3. (a) Define Human trafficking
47. Discipline is described as the (a) ability to
show hospitality (b) state of quality being (b) List three causes, effect and
brave (c) tendency to fight (d0 ability to
consequences of human trafficking
behave in a controlled manner
48. The defense of the territorial integrity of a (c) Explain the roles of social
country by her citizens is a part of (a) political
organization and the effect to stop human
participation (b) self-determination
(c) political culture (d0 duties and obligation trafficking
49. The best means through which individual right
4. (a) What is poverty alleviation?
can be safe guarded is (a) knowledge
acquisition (b) judicial independence (c) press (b) Explain 5 factors that promotes and
censorship (d) improved standard of living
guarantee employment
50. An enlightenment and awareness campaign on
HIV/AIDS could (a) lead to discrimination (c) State 5 benefits of employment
 7. In a calculation, if the result is 5.48 rounded to
three significant figures, what was the original
number? A) 5.475 B) 5.485 C) 5.487 D) 5.489
8. The measured value is 75.0 cm with a 1.5%
error. What is the actual value? A) 73.5 cm B)
76.5 cm C) 76.0 cm D) 74.5 cm
9. The following are the laws of logarithm
except? A) Addition B) Power C) Power of
the base D) Division
10. Express 0.0021 in standard form. A) 2.1 × 10²
B) 2.1 × 10⁻³ C) 2.1 × 10⁻² D) 2.1 × 10
11. In a calculation, if the result is 7.875 rounded
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR to three significant figures, what was the
SECONDARY SCHOOL, original number? A) 7.874 B) 7.877 C) 7.876
D) 7.879
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. 12. How many cases as Multiplication law? A) IV
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR B) III C)I D) VI
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. Sequences and Series
SUBJECT. Mathematics 13. In an arithmetic progression (A.P.) with a = 5
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR and d = 3, what is the 7th term? A) 17 B) 20
C) 21 D) 22
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 14. In an A.P., if the 4th term is 12 and the sum of
Section the first 12 terms is 90, what are the first term
Section A (a) and the common difference (d)? A) a = 4, d
Logarithms, Approximations, and Significant = 8 B) a = 6, d = 6 C) a = 8, d = 4 D) a = 10, d
Figures =2
1. Calculate log (0.001). A) -3 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 15. Calculate the sum of the first 15 terms of the
2. Express 0.0045 in standard form. A) 4.5 × 10² geometric progression: 2, 6, 18, ... A) 13106
B) 4.5 × 10⁻³ C) 4.5 × 10⁻² D) 4.5 × 10 B) 19684 C) 26244 D) 32768
3. If (12.356 × 0.0092) ÷ 3.4 is calculated, 16. In a geometric progression, the 4th term is 16,
rounded to three significant figures, what is and the common ratio is 2. Find the first term
the result? A) 0.32 B) 0.327 C) 0.328 D) 0.329 (a) and the sum of the first 5 terms. A) a = 2,
4. The measured value is 50.0 cm with a 2.5% sum = 62 B) a = 8, sum = 62 C) a = 2, sum =
error. What is the corrected value? A) 49.0 cm 126 D) a = 8, sum = 126
B) 51.25 cm C) 51.75 cm D) 51.5 cm 17. In an arithmetic progression (A.P.) with a = 8
1 32 1 and d = -2, what is the 10th term? A) 26 B) 28
5. Calculate log 2( ¿. A) B) C) 4 D 24 C) 22 D) 24
32 5 32
6. Express 0.00785 in standard form. A) 7.85 × 18. If the 5th term of an A.P. is 15 and the sum of
10² B) 7.85 × 10⁻³ C) 7.85 × 10⁻² D) 7.85 × the first 8 terms is 100, what are the first term
(a) and the common difference (d)? A) a = 5, d
10⁴
= 2 B) a = 2, d = 5 C) a = 8, d = -2 D) a = 10, d
= -5
19. Calculate the sum of the first 20 terms of the 30. Find the value of x2 – 7x + 6 = 0. A) 1, 6 B) 2, 44. How many types of simultaneous equation do
geometric progression: 3, 6, 12, ... A) 12,285 4 C) -4, 2 D ) 1, 0 we have? A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 7
B) 14,349 C) 16,383 D) 18,417 31. Sole, x + y = 7 and x – 2y = -5 simultaneously: 45. Who is often referred to as the "Father of
20. In a geometric progression, the 3rd term is 27, A) x=3, y=4. B) x =1, y =4 C) x =5, y = -2 D) Geometry" and is known for his work in
and the common ratio is 3. Find the first term x = 9.0 y = -2 mathematics, including the creation of
(a) and the sum of the first 5 terms. A) a = 3, 32. Find the solutions to the equation x² - 5x + 6 = Euclidean geometry? A) Isaac Newton
sum = 364 B) a = 1, sum = 364 C) a = 3, sum 0. A) x = 2, x = 3 B) x = 3, x = 4 C) x = 1, x = B) Archimedes C) Pythagoras D) Euclid
= 273 D) a = 1, sum = 273 6 D) x = 6, x = 1 46. Who often bring ladder to teach Geometry in
21. In an arithmetic progression (A.P.) with a = 12 Straight Line Graphs class? A) Euclid B) Emmy Nother C)
and d = -3, what is the 15th term? A) 39 B) 42 33. Find the gradient of the line passing through Pythagoras D) Archimedes
C) 45 D) 48 the points (2, 4) and (5, 9). A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 47. Why did Pythagoras do so well in math class?
22. If the 6th term of an A.P. is 18 and the sum of 34. A line with a gradient of -2 passes through the A) Because he had all the right angles. B)
the first 10 terms is 90, what are the first term point (3, 5). What is the equation of the line? Because he was a genius. C) Because he loved
(a) and the common difference (d)? A) a = 2, d A) y = -2x + 11 B) y = -2x - 11 C) y = 2x + 11 studying triangles.
= 2 B) a = 4, d = 4 C) a = 8, d = -4 D) a = 10, d D) y = 2x – 11 D) Because he was always a square!
= -2 35. If the equation of a curve is y = 3x² - 2x + 4, 48. How many types of set do we have? A) 3 B) 7
23. Calculate the sum of the first 30 terms of the what is the gradient of the curve at the point C) 9 D) 8
geometric progression: 4, 8, 16, ... A) (2, 7)? A) 8 B) 10 C) 12 D) 14 49. Why did Archimedes insist on taking a bath
2,147,483,648 B) 4,294,967,296 C) 36. What is the condition for perpendicularity? A) before his famous "Eureka!" moment? A) He
8,589,934,592 D) 17,179,869,184 m1m2 = -1 B) m2 = -5 C) m1 = -2 D) m1 = 3 wanted to make sure he was in a "clean slate"
24. In a geometric progression, the 6th term is 37. Find the gradient of the line passing through state of mind.
243, and the common ratio is 3. Find the first the points (3, 7) and (6, 10). A) 0 B) 1 C) 3 D) B) He was conducting "fluid dynamics"
term (a) and the sum of the first 7 terms. A) a 2 research in the tub. C) He believed that
= 1, sum = 3,129 B) a = 3, sum = 4,095 C) a = 38. A line with a gradient of 1/3 passes through brilliant ideas were more likely to "bubble up"
9, sum = 3,873 D) a = 27, sum = 4,095 the point (4, 5). What is the equation of the in the bath.
Quadratic Equations and Simultaneous line? A) y = (1/3)x - 1 B) y = (1/3)x + 1 C) y = D) He was hoping for a "wave" of inspiration.
Equation 3x - 1 D) y = 3x + 1 50. Who is the mother of modern algebra? A)
25. If the sum of the roots of a quadratic equation 39. If the equation of a curve is y = -x² + 2x + 5, Emmy Noether B) Emmily Nother C)
is 8 and the product of the roots is 15, what is what is the gradient of the curve at the point Srinivanas Ramanujan D) Archimedes
the equation? A) x² - 8x + 15 = 0 B) x² + 8x + (3, 8)? A) -2 B) -3 C) -4 D) -5
15 = 0 C) x² - 8x - 15 = 0 D) x² + 8x - 15 = 0 40. What is the condition for parallelity? A)
26. The product of two consecutive integers is 56. M1M2 = -1 B) m1 = m2 C) m2 =2 D) m1 = 2 SECTION B: THEORY
Find the integers. A) x² - 56 = 0 B) x² + x - 56 41. Find the gradient of the line passing through Answer question 1 and any other three (3)
= 0 C) x² - x - 56 = 0 D) x² + x + 56 = 0 the points (1, 3) and (5, 7). A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 question
27. Solve the system of simultaneous equations 42. If the equation of a curve is y = 2x² - x + 3, 1. (a) write out the names of prominent
using the elimination method: 2x + 3y = 13, 4x what is the gradient of the curve at the point mathematicians and their contributions
- 2y = 2. A) x = 3, y = 1 B) x = 2, y = 2 C) x = (1, 4)? A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4 (b) Define simultaneous Equation
4, y = 1 D) x = 5, y = 0 General i. State the types with examples
28. Solve the equation, x² - 4x - 5 = 0. A) x = 1, 2 43. Who propounded “partial fraction”? A) ii. Mention all the known methods used in
B) x = 1,-2 C) x = 1, 4 D) x = 0.5,-5 Gottfried leibniz B) Johanna Leibniz C) solving simultaneous equation.
29. Find the roots of the equations. X2 + 6x + 5 = Abolaji O.T D) Gottfried bernourly (b) Write out the formulars of the following
0. A) 2, 3 B) -2, -3 C) 1,5 D) -4, 1 and explain each terms in sequence and series
 i. Arithmetic progression 5. If (9 + 3) mod 7 = x, what is the value of x? A)
ii. Sum of A.P 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
iii. Geometric progression 6. Add 2345 and 4375 A) 1225 B) 1465 C) 2345 D)
iv. Sum of G.P 2345
v. Sum of Infinity 7. What is the value of 50? A) 0 B) 1 C) 5 D) 25
2. Evaluate with log table 8. Write 0.00456 in standard form. A) 4.56 × 10^3
i. √ 6147 x ¿ ¿ B) 4.56 × 10^-3 C) 4.56 × 10^4 D) 4.56 × 10^-
√17.45 x (35.2)2 4
ii. 9. Express 8.5 × 107 in ordinary decimal notation.
(3.15) 4 x 8.15 A) 850,000,000 B) 8,500,000 C) 85,000,000 D)
3. Mathematically express all the laws of indices 850,000
(a) Find the value of a in the following 10. If log₅ (25) = x, what is the value of x? A)
i. 2 x 4a−3=16a ÷ 81−a ii. 2 B) 1 C) 5 D) 10
2 x +3
(0.25) =16 11. Solve for x: 23x = 8. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
4. Solve for x in the following 12. Convert the hexadecimal number 3F to its
i. log ( x +2 ) +log ( x−1 )=1 ii. binary equivalent. A) 11011 B) 11111 C) 10111
log 5 ( 3 x−8 ) =2 D) 10011
13. Express the decimal number 56 in
1 1
iii. log 0.25 = x quaternary base. A) 110 B) 130 C) 200 D) 220
4 2 SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 14. Find the result of 28 modulo 6. A) 4 B) 6
5. Simplify the following fraction C) 2 D) 0
2 p−3 p+ 2 SECONDARY SCHOOL,
i. ÷ 15. If the bases are the same, choose one then
3 p−1 3 p−1 GWAGALADA. ABUJA. add the powers is what case of the
ii. FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR multiplication law?
2
x −4 xy + 4 y x +3 xy
2 2
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. A) case I B ) case II C) case III D)case IV
÷ 2 16. The following are the laws of Indices
2
x + xy−6 y
2
x +6 xy +9 y
2 SUBJECT. Mathematics
except? A) Multiplication B) Production C)
6. i. A girl is 3years older than her brother, the CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR Division D) Fractional index
product of their age is 54. Find the age of the
brother
log 8
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 17. Evaluate A) 3/2 B) -4 C) 6 D) -
ii. A number is made up of two digits, the sum log 1/4
Section
of the digits is 11. If the digit are interchanged, 3/2
1. Without using calculator evaluate
the original number is increase by 9. Find the 18. Write 0.000725 in standard form. A) 7.25 × 103
( 35.20 )2 x ( 17.45 ) 1 /2 B) 7.25 × 10-3 C) 7.25 × 104 D) 7.25 × 104
numbers A) 6.09 B) 6.499 C)
( 3.15 ) 4 x 8.150 Use the instruction below to answer question
5.34 D) 1.23 19-22 Determine the
2. Convert the hexadecimal number 2A to its characteristics of the following numbers
binary equivalent. A) 1010 B) 1100 C) 10010 19. 3.245 A) 0 B) -3 C) 2 D) 1
D) 10110 20. 234.12 A) 2 B) -2 C) 3 D) -2
3. Express the decimal number 75 in quinary base. 21. 0.000000000003421 A) -12 B) -3 C) 2 D -13
A) 100 B) 111 C) 300 D) 120 22. 0.0000000567 A) -4 B) -6 C) -8 D) -7
4. Find the result of 17 modulo 5. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 23. If log₂(64) = x, what is the value of x? A) 1 B) 2
D) 1 C) 3 D) 6
24. Solve for x: 32x = 9. A) 0.5 B) 1 C) 1.5 D) 2 41. If log₆(36) = x, what is the value of x? A) 0 B) logarithm
25. If log₄(16) = y, what is the value of y? A) 1 B) 2 1 C) 2 D) 6
(c) write notes on the concept of logarithm of
C) 3 D) 4 42. Solve for x: 42x = 16. A) 0.5 B) 1 C) 1.5 D) 2
26. Solve for y: log₅(y) = 2. A) 5 B) 25 C) 50 D) 43. If log₃(81) = y, what is the value of y? A) 2 B) 3 numbers
100 C) 4 D) 5 2. Convert the following numbers to decimal
27. If log₈(64) = z, what is the value of z? A) 1 B) -1/2
2 1
2 C) 3 D) 4 44. Evaluate 2a = 14 A) 49 B) 7 C) D) i. 11011two
3 49
28. Solve for z: log₉(z) = 0.5. A) 3 B) 9 C) 6 D) 81 Solve for z: log₄(z) = 1.5. A) 2.25 B) 6 C) 16
Convert the binary number 11001 to its decimal
45.
ii. 2 AF 6sixteen
29. D) 64
equivalent. A) 12 B) 19 C) 25 D) 30 46. Who is the "Father of Mathematics”? A) iii. 10110.110two
30. What is the octal equivalent of the decimal Archimedes B) Pascal C) Pythagoras D)
number 62? A) 74 B) 76 C) 100 D) 114 Abolaji 3. Sum up the following
31. Convert the hexadecimal number 1A to its 47. Who is the “Mother of modern Algebra”? A) i. 8 and 13 (mod 6)
binary equivalent. A) 11010 B) 11100 C) 10110 Mary Ross B) Diana C) Emmy Noether D)
D) 10011 Emmily Ross ii. (3x + 6) and (6x + 2) (mod 7)
32. Express the decimal number 48 in seneray base. 48. Who was the “Man who knew infinity”? (b) Divide 6 and 7 (mod 9)
A) 60 B) 80 C) 100 D) 120 A)Archimedes B) Srinivasa Ramanujan C)
33. Find the result of 35 modulo 7. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 4. Find the value of the unknown in the
Abolaji O.T D) Archimedes E) Pythygoras
D) 4 Why did Archimedes insist on taking a bath −x 1+ x
49. 4 x2 1
34. If (15 + 8) mod 9 = x, what is the value of x? before his famous "Eureka!" moment? A) He following i. x+2
= x
A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 16 4
wanted to make sure he was in a "clean slate"
35. Who is the master of measurement? A) of mind. 1
2 (x+1) 2 2x
Archimedes B) Euclid C) Pythagoras D ) B) He was conducting "fluid dynamics" ii. 4 x2 ÷4 =
Emmy Noether 16
research in the tub. C) He believed that brilliant
36. Ax x Ay = Ax+y is what law in indices? A) ideas were more likely to "bubble up" in the iii. 4 2 x =0.25
Index B) multiplication C) Division D) bath.
Negative index 5. Simplify the following without using
D) He was hoping for a "wave" of inspiration.
37. Evaluate with the use of four figure table 50. What is the name of your mathematics teacher? calculator or four figure table
21.12 x 0.00234 A) Mr. Abolaji O.T B) Mr. Bolaji O.T C) Mr.
A) 28375 B) 2345 C) 1234 log 27
0.001 x 0.0021 Chucks D) Mr. Chorinster i.
D) 3453 log 81
38. Evaluate without the use of calculator log 8

√
2.34
9.6230 x 2.340
5.310 x 3.721
A) 1.45 B) 3.23 C) 1.07 D) SECTION B: THEORY
Answer question 1 and any other three
ii.
log
1
4
39. The following are the laws of logarithm except? questions 423.1 x 1.014
(b)
A) Logarithm of 1 B) logarithm to its own base 23.2 x 4.23
C) Addition D) Multiplication 1. (a) Write all the 28 names of number bases
6. Write out the names of six prominent
40. Express 5.25×108 in ordinary decimal notation. that you know and their numeric values
A) 525,000,000 B) 5,250,000 C) 52,500,000 D) mathematicians in the world and their
525,000 (b) Mathematically express the laws of
contributions
(b) Given that log 10 2=0.3010 and 3. One of these profession has no need for
chemistry (a) miner (b) engineer
log 10 3=4711. Calculate without using table (c) philosopher (d) geologist
the value of 4. Atom is __ (a) the smallest part of a substance
that can take part in a chemical change (b) the
i. log 10 54 smallest part of an element which can take part
in a chemical change (c) he smallest part of a
ii. log 10 27 compound which can take pat in a chemical
change (d) the smallest part of lattice which
can take part in a chemical change
5. Which of the following element is not a metal?
(a) aluminum (b) Sodium (c) Chlorine
(d) magnesium
6. All physical changes are __ (a) non-reversible
(b) easily reversible (c) dark (d) spontaneous
7. The content of mixture are ___ combined
(a0 physically (b) chemically (c) biologically
(d) mentally
8. All chemical changes are ___ (a) non
reversible (b) basically reversible
(c) spontaneous (d) dark
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 9. Scientific approach to discoveries follows the
SECONDARY SCHOOL, order which includes (a) further experiment
and problem solving (b) theory, negative and
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. positive results and experiments
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR (c) experiments, hypothesis and results
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. (d) observation, hypothesis and experiment
SUBJECT. Chemistry 10. Studying chemistry trains us in __ (a)
scientific method (b) burning field (c) oil and
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR margarine (d) rotting leaves
11. A __ is established only after the theory has
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this been carefully tested and proven true without
Section any exception (a) theory (b) hypothesis
1. Chemistry is best defined as __ (a) a branch of (c) medicine (d) law
knowledge which produces chemicals (b) a 12. These are adverse effects of chemistry except
branch of science which makes physics and (a)population (b) pollution (c) corrosion
biology clearer (c) the oldest branch of science (d) drug abuse
(d) the branch of science which deals with the 13. ___has helped to increase food production
change in matter (a) mobile (b) fertilizer (c) man-made fibres
2. The symbol for element potassium is ___ (a) k (d) space science
(b) P (c) Pt (d) Cr
14. Which of the following is a carrier in 26. The separation of petroleum fractions 36. An atom can be defined as (a) the smallest part
chemistry? (a) oil spillage (b) philosophy depended on ___ (a) boiling points (b) molar of a substance that can take part in a chemical
(c) medicine (d) lawyer masses (c) melting points (d) solubility change (b) the smallest part of an element that
15. We study chemistry to acquire the knowledge 27. Which of the following elements is diatomic? can take part in chemical change (c)the
of __ (a) teaching (b) theory (c) matter (a) Sodium (b) Oxygen (c) Iron (d) neon smallest indivisible element (d)mixture of
(d) hypothesis substance
16. A chemical change can be seen in ___ 37. Modern standard element with which chemist
(a) dissolution of salt in water (b) rusting of define relative mass is __ (a) 13C (b) 3H
iron (c) melting of ice (d) distillation (c) 12C (d) 14C
17. A heterogeneous mixture is known for ____ 38. The relative molar mass of lead II trioxonitrate
(a) uniform composition (b) lack of uniform V ¿ ¿ is __ ( Pb = 108, N = 14, O = 16)(a) 170
composition (c) solid, liquid formation The diagram above represents the state of (b) 222 (c) 232 (d) 132
(d) solute, solvent formation matter as represented in the sketch 39. The percentage of Oxygen in Sulphur IV
18. ___ is a physical change (a) burning of coal 28. Stage X represents the process of__(a) boiling Oxide SO2 is ___ (S = 32, O = 16) (a) 5%
(b) rusting of iron (c) freezing of water (b) constensation (c) melting (d) sublimation (b) 50% (c) 500% (d) 25%
(d) burning of wood 29. Point Y represent (a) boiling point (b) melting 40. Valency is the combing power of ___
19. Which of he following substance is not a point (c) sublimation point (a) distillation (a) a compound (b) an element (c) a mixture
homogeneous mixture? (a) sand (b) blood point (d) an isotope
(c) sea water (d) air 30. Which of the following can be used to separate 41. Complete the table
20. ___ is an industry that employ filtration as a mixture of two miscible liquid with different Element Latin Name Symbol
their separation techniques (a)water purifying boiling points? (a) decantation (b) distillation ______ Aurum Au
industries/breweries (b) textile industries (c)evaporate (d) evaporation Iron Ferrum ______
frying industries (d) mining industries 31. A chemical industry use ___ principles to 42. The number of atoms in a single molecule of
21. Mixture of sand and water can be separated by converting raw materials into useful products an element is known as __ (a) valence (b)
__ (a) sublimation (b) chromatography ( a) geography b) technical drawing Isotope (c) empirical (d) atomicity
(c) decantation (d) distillation (c) economics (d) chemistry 43. A molecule is the smallest particle of (a) a
22. The chromatography separation of ink is based 32. Examples of heavy chemicals include the matter that can exist in free state (b) an
on the ability of the components to __ following except (a) H 2 SO 4 (b) NaOH element that can exist in free state (c) a radical
(a) react with each other (b) react with the (c) NH 3 () H 2O that can exist in free state (d) a cattice that can
solvent (c) dissolve in each other in the 33. Metallogg is the science that deals with exist in free state
column (d)move at different speed in the extraction of ___ (a0 metal from their Ore 44. 3 NH 3 shows ___ (a) three moles of ammonia
column (b) metal to atmospheric oxygen (c) Sulphur (b) three moles of ammonium (c) six moles of
23. When a solid substance completely changes to (d) potassium ammonia (d) six moles of ammonium
gas on heating, it is said to have undergone __ 34. Fine chemicals have the following 45. We can use __ to recover salt from its solution
(a) evaporation (b) crystallization characteristics except (a) the are chemically (a) melting (b) evaporation (c) freezing
(c) sublimation (d) sieving puns (b) they are produced by batch process (d) filtering
24. Sieving is a technique use to separate mixtures (c) they are produced in large quantity of high 46. Elements are classified as ____ , ____ and ___
solid particle of __ (a) small size (b) large size applicability (d) they are produced in small (a) metals, calcium , chlorine (b) Metalloid,
(c) the same size (d) different size quantity because of limited applicability Potassium and sulphur (c) Metal, Metalloid
25. Which of the following is a compound (a) 35. These are examples of chemical industries and non-metal (d) non- metal, metal and
common salt (b)Urine (c) air (d) soil except (a) pharmaceutical (b) glass Fluorine
(c) ceramics (d) banking
47. Metals are electron __ (a) donors (b) receivers 4. Whichone of the following compounds is
(c) destroyers (d) preservers obtained by the oxidation of primary alcohol
48. A compound contains two or more elements with nascent oxygen? (a)alkanal (b) alkanone
___ together (a) physically combined (c) ether (d) amine
(b) chemically combined (c) artificially 5. The reaction of carboxylic acid with alcohol
combined (d) loosely combined catalysed by conc. H 2 SO 4 is called ______
49. A compound is formed as a result of a ____ (a) delydration (b) saponification (c)
(a) special change (b) physical change esterification (d) neutralization
(c) chemically change (d) loose change 6. Which of the following alcohols would be
50. Water is a compound formed when ___ and soluble in water? (a) propanol (b) hexanol (c)
___ combine together (a) Hydrogen and pentanol (d) ethanol
oxygen (b) Hydrogen and Sulphur 7. Which of the following compounds is formed
(c) Hydrogen and Carbon (d) Oxygen, by the oxidation of secondary alcohols
Hydrogen and Carbon (a)ketone (b) aldedyde (c) ether (d) amine
SECTION B : THEORY 8. What type of alcohol can this structure be
Answer four questions, classified?
1. (a) Define chemistry R
(b) Explain the concepts of scientific approach
(c) Who is a chemist R C OH
2. (a) Mention and explain five prospect carrier
of chemistry H
(b) Differentiate between heavy and fine (a) tertiary (b) quatemary (c) primary (d)
chemicals SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR secondary
(c) Mention three adverse effects of chemicals SECONDARY SCHOOL, 9. Which of the following groups elements have
3. (a) What are elements? smaller atomic radii? (a) Group 1 elements
(b) Mention the first 10 elements in the GWAGALADA. ABUJA.
(b) group 2 elements (c) group 3 elements
periodic table and give their symbols FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR (d) all have the same atomic cell
4. (a) What is a chemical industry? 2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. 10. The ionization energy __ down the group
(b) List 5 chemical industries you know SUBJECT. Chemistry (a) increases (b) decreases (c) constant (d) is
(c) Discuss the role of a pharmaceutical regular
industry CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR
11. Which of the following elements exhibits +3
5. (a) What is a mixture? oxidation state only? (a) Gallium (b) Thallium
(b) In a tabular form differentiate mixture INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this
(c) indium (d) Aluminum
from compound Section
12. What is the chemical formula for Aluminum
(c) List 5 examples of compound 1. What is the general formula for alkanol?
carbide? (a) AlC (b) AlC 3 (c) AlC 2 (d) AC 3
6. (a) List and discuss three separation (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. Give the formula of propanol and indicate the 13. What forms when Boron reacts with Nitrogen?
techniques you studied (a) Boron Oxide (b) Boron nitrate (c) Boron
(b) Draw and label the simple apparatus used alkyl group
3. When ethanol is heated with excess hydrite (d) Boron nitrite
in Laboratory distillation. 14. The compounds formed by the Boron family
concentrated tetraoxosulphate(vi) acid, the
organic product formed is __ (a) ethanal are __ (a) ionic (b) covalent (c) both ionic and
(b) ethanoic acid (c) ethane (d) ethene covalent (d) neither ionic nor covalent
15. The alkali metal with the lowest melting point concentrated (c) the acid is completely ionized 39. The following are characteristics of transition
is __ (a) Rubidium (b) cesium (c) Potassium in aqueous solution (d) the acid is corrosive elements except __ (a) coloured ions (b)
(d) Sodium 28. When producing a soluble salt in a reaction variable oxidation state (c) high tendency to
16. Which of the following gases is not inert gas? between an acid and an alkali, how can you catenate (d) complex ion formation
(a) Helium (b) Neon (c) Radom (d) Hydrogen prepare dry solid crystals from the solution 40. Rough iron is the __ form of iron (a) most
17. To which of the following family of elements (a) filtration (b) chromatography (c) impure (b) most brittle (c) most carbon free
does potassium belong? (a) alkali metals evaporation (d) decantation (d) purest
(b) noble gases (c) alkaline earth metal (d) 29. The only liquid metal on earth is _________ 41. If the ∆ H for a reaction is negative, it means
Halogens (a) Sodium (b) Carbon (c) Mercury (d) Gold that the heat reaction is __ (a) endothermic
18. One of the following is not common to the 30. Which of the following is not a metal? (b) ecothermic (c) slow (d) spontaneous
elements in group 1 of the periodic table (a) (a) Aluminum (b) Sodium (c) Chlorine 42. Which of the following is the most common
they are good conductors of electricity (b) they (d) Magnesium iron ore? (a) magnetite (b) spaothic iron ore
have one valence electron (c) they are reactive 31. All are laboratory apparatus except (a) Lucker (c) Haematite (d) dolomite
(d) they are gases at room temperature (b) beaker (c) round bottom flask (d) flat 43. The reaction represented by the equation
19. While going up in a group of periodic table, bottom flask zymase
the metallic quality ___ (a) increase (b) remain 32. The elements in the periodic table are arranged C 6 H 12 O6 2C 2 H 5 OH + 2CO 2 is
25° C
the same (c) decreases (d) increase and later in order of their (a) mass number (b) orbital known as (a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation (c)
decease valence (c) atomic number (d0 molecular Reduction (d) fermentation
20. In which group of the periodic table (modern) number 44. Equilibrium is said to be attained in a reverse
are hydrogen placed (a) 16th (b) 18th (d) 1st 33. Elements in the same group of periodic table reaction when (a) all the reactants have been
(d) 17th have (a) the same number of valency electron used up (b) all the products have been formed
21. Which of these is not correct about the modern (b) similar electronic configuration (c) the (c) there is no further change in temperature
periodic table (a) it has 15 columns (b) the same number of electron (d) similar orbital (d) The rate of the forward and backward
atomic number increase from left to right configuration reaction are equal
across a period (c) columns are called groups 34. S-block of the periodic table are made up of 45.
(d) rows are called periods (a) group 1, 2, 3 (b) group 3 and 4 (c) group 7
22. Metals with more than one oxidation number (d) group 1 and 2
found in-between __ are called __- 35. Al these properties belong to the halogens
23. Which of the following elements has zero except (a) they are non – metals (b) they are
valency? (a) Lithium (b) Beryllium (c) Helium coloured (c) they exist as diatomic molecules
(d) Fluorine (d) they do not ionize to form univalent
24. The most electronegative halogen is ___ negative ions
25. The modern periodic law was given by ___ 36. Citric acid appears in unripe orange while The diagram above represents ____ (a) a
(a) Dalton (b) Mendeleev (c) Graham ethanoic acid appears in __ (a) unripe pawpaw catalyzed reaction (b) a reaction with a very
(d) Mosley (b) carrot (c) ethanol sourced (d) vinegar high activation energy (c) an endothermic
26. Which of the following elements has the 37. All carbohydrate contains___ (a) carbon and reaction (d) an exothermic reaction
atomic number of 12? (a) Sulphur (b) Chlorine oxygen (b) carbon and hydrogen (c) carbon, 46. Which of the following is true of an
(c) Magnesium (d) Sodium oxygen and hydrogen (d) carbon, sulphur and endothermic reaction? (a) Heat energy is
27. Which of the following statements explain hydrogen absorbed (b) a catalyst is required (c) it occurs
why tetraoxosulphate (vi) acid is regarded as a 38. These are not true transition elements except reversible (d) activation energy is high
strong acid (a) it is dibasic (b) it is (a) Zn (b) Sc (c) Cu (d) N
 and the relative atomic mass is 28. How many 2. Metal mostly exist in nature as __ (a) oxides
protons and electrons does it have? (b) ores (c)alloys (d) resins
4. (a) Elements in the periodic table are classified 3. Iron from its ore is converted to pig iron in a
into groups and periods. Discuss __ (a) open heaith furnace (b) electrical
(b) Write short notes on the following family furnace (c) blast furnace (d) cupola furnace
of elements 4. The most abundant meta in the earth crust is
The figure above is a diagram of part of the i. alkali metals (a) Tin (b) Lead (c) Copper (d) Aluminum
periodic table. Use it to answer question 47-48 ii. alkaline earth metals 5. Which of the following metals is the purest
47. The collective name for elements in group I is iii. Halogens form of iron? (a) cast iron (b) Wrough Iron
(a) halogens (b) gas (c)alkali earth metal (d) iv. Transition elements (c) grey cast iron (d) white cast iron
alkali metals 5. (a) What is relative atomic number? 6. Which of these metal exist in their original
48. The elements of group VII are known for ____ (b) Calculate the relative atomic numbers of state? (a) copper (b) Platinum (c) Iron
(a) high Wanda weal bonds (b) melting point the following (d) Potassium
(c) good conductors of electricity (d) high i. Nacl 7. Which of the following metal does not react
electronegativity ii. H 2 O with air? (a) Gold, Platinum (b) Silver,
49. The transitional elements are found in between iii. CaCO3 Platinum (c) Potassium, Nickel (d) Gold,
___ on the periodic table (a) group VIII and [Na = 23, C = 12, cl = 35.5, H = 1, O = Sodium
VIII (or 0) (b) Group III and IV (c) group I, IV 16,Ca = 40] 8. Calamine is an ore of ___ (a) Tin
and V (d) group II and III of the periodic table 6. (a) What is a chemical reaction? (b) Magnesium (c) Zinc (d) Copper
50. The rate of a chemical reaction depends on (b) Define the following terms 9. Which of the following is combined to form
___ one of the following (a) product formed i. Rate of reaction solder? (a) Lead and copper (b) Tin and Iron
(b) mixture formed (c) compound formed ii. Endothermic reaction (c) Lead and Iron (d) Lead and Tin
(d) nature of reactants iii. Exothermic reaction 10. Metals are good conductors of electricity
because ___ (a) they contains free electrons
SECTION B: THEORY (b) the atoms are lightly packed (c) they have
Answer question 1 and any other three high melting point (d) all of the above
1. (a) Define the terms mixture and compound 11. Metals can be sharpened according tour needs
(b) Classify the following as a mixture or a SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR because they are ___ (a) ductile and good
compound i. sugar ii. Air iii. Milk iv. Urine SECONDARY SCHOOL, conductors (b) malleable and sonorous
v. sand vi. Soil vii. Gold viii. Diamond ix. GWAGALADA. ABUJA. (c) malleable and ductile (d) good conductor
Nacl x. salt and water xi. Blood xii. Crude oil FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR and sonorous
xiii. Brass xiv. Palm oil xv. Limestone 12. The most malleable metal is ___ (a) silver
xvi. Common salt
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. (b) Iron (c) Aluminum (d) Gold
2. Describe the following separation techniques SUBJECT. Chemistry 13. Which of the following is not an alloy?
i. Filtration CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR (a) solder (b) Silver (c) Brass (d) Bronze
ii. Evaporation 14. Which of the following statement is incorrect
iii. Sieving INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this about metals? (a) metals have high melting
iv. Sublimation Section point (b) metals are good conductors of heat
3. (a) What is the atomic number of an element? 1. Metals are known for these except (a) high (c) Lead and Mercury are best conductors of
(b) Define the periodic law of elements electropositive (b) high boiling and melting heat (d)pure metals have shining surface
(c) the atomic number of an element X is 14 points (c) conductors of heat and electricity 15. Which of the following is the most ductile
(d) high electronegative metal? (a) Gold (b) Copper (c) Silver (d) Iron
16. Which of the metals below reacts vigorously manufactured by cold process (d) hard soap sufficient electrons to become neutral
with oxygen and water? (a) Sodium are manufactured by hot process (c) positive ions are discharged at the anode by
(b) Potassium (c) Calcium (d) Magnesium 31. Which of the following is the residual in the losing sufficient electrons to become neutral
17. Sodium is stored in ___ (a) water (b) alcohol formation of soap? (a) Glyceraldehyde (d) negative ions are discharged at the anode
(c) kerosene (d) ether (b) glycerol (c) glycerin (d) acrylonitrile by losing sufficient electrons to become
18. Oxide of metals are ___ in nature (a) basic 32. In the periodic table, what is the property that neutral
(b) acidic (c) neutral (d) all of the above decreases along the period and increase down 41. In the extraction of Iron, which of the
19. Oxides of non-metals are ___ in nature the group? (a) atomic number (b) electron following does not take place in the blast
(a) neutral (b) bitter (c) acidic (d) basic affinity (c) ionization potential (d) atomic furnace (a) CO 2+C →2 CO (b)
20. When sulphur reacts with oxygen they form radius 2 Fe2 O3 +3 C → 4 Fe 3 CO 2 (c)
(a) sulphuric acid (b) sulphur trioxide 33. The reaction of a alkanol with an alkanoic acid Fe2 O3+ 3C →2 Fe+CO 2 (d)
(c) sulphurous acid (d) sulphur dioxide the presence of concentrated H 2 SO 4 will
21. The metals that produces ringing sounds are Ca+SiO 2 → Ca SiO3
produce an __ (a) alkanal (b) alkanoate
said to be ___ (a) malleable (b) sonorous (c) (c) alkanons (d) alkyne 42. If an organic compound decolourizes bromine
lustre (d) hard 34. Which of these is not a member of water, then the compound is (a) saturated
22. Melting point of fat is ___ and that of oil is __ homologous series of the paraffin (alkanes) (b) supersaturated (c) unsaturated (d) a solid
(a) higher, higher (b) lower, lower (c) higher, 43. Sodium Chlorine can be obtained from brime
(a) C 3 H 8 (b) C 5 H 12 (c) C 24 H 43 (d) C 7 H 16
lower, (d) lower, higher by (a) evaporation (b) decantation
35. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to (c) distillation (d) sublimation
23. Which of the following is an example of fats? Iron(ii) sulphate, the gas evolved will (a) turn
(a) glyceryl triolate (b) vegetable ghee 44. The formation of green gelatineous precipitate
moist red litmus paper blue (b) turn lime water on drop wise and insoluble in excess NaOH,
(c) coconut oil (d) groundnut oil milky (c) blacken lead acetate (d) rekindle a
24. Which of the following is not suitable solvent gives the presence of (a) Iron (II) ions
glowing splint
for fat and oil? (a) Benzene (b) CCl 4 (b) iron (III) ions (c) Fe2 O 3 (d) CO 2
36. The best way of collecting chlorine is (a) by
(b) CHCl 3 (d) water downward displacement of air (b) by upward 45. Alkaline hydrolysis of naturally occurring fat
25. Saponification is hydrolysis (a) by alkalis displacement of air (c) over water (d) under and oil yields___ (a) fats and oil (b) soap and
(b) in digestive tracts of human being (c) by water glycerol (c) margarine and butter (d) esthers
acid (d) by salt 37. In the preparation of ammonia, which of the 46. When the kerosene fraction from petroleum is
26. Hydrogenation is the conversion of following is used as the drying agent? (a) CaO heated at high temperature, a lower boiling
liquid is obtained. This process is known as
unsaturated acid group into the saturated one (b) CaCl2 (c) conc. H 2 SO 4 (d) H 3 PO 4
by a catalyst ___ (a)Ti (b) Pb (c) Ni (d) Sn (a) polymerization (b) refining
38. Allotropes are elements having (a) different (c) hydrogenation (d) Cracking
27. Vegetable ghee is manufactured by ____ physical properties (b) different physical but
(a) saponification (b) hydrogenation 47. The name of the compound
same chemical properties (c) the same O
(c) polymerization (d) hydrolysis physical and chemical properties (d) the same
28. Soap are ___ based soapy detergents (a) water CH 3−¿ CH 2 −¿ C
position in the periodic table
(b) Kerosene (c) oil (d) acid 39. Oxidation is the process of ___ (a) electron OH is
29. The saponification of a fat or oil is done using gain (b) electron loss (c) hydrogen gain (a) acetic acid (b) propanol (c) ethanol
__ solution for hot process (a) KOH (b) (d) oxygen loss (d) propanoic acid
NaOH (c) HCl (d) NaCL 40. Which of the following process takes place 48. Nitrogen can best be obtained from a mixture
30. One of the following is incorrect (a) hard soap during electrolysis (a) positive ions are of oxygen and Nitrogen by passing the
are the sodium carbonate (b) soft soap are discharged at the anode by gaining sufficient mixture over ___ (a) potassium hydroxide
potassium carbonate (c) hard soap are electron to become neutral (b) negative ions (b) heated gold (c) heated magnesium
are discharged at the anode by gaining (d) calcium Chloride
49. The movement of liquid molecules from the 4. (a) What brings about rust? 1. Family members requires not one of these
surface of the liquid to the gaseous phase things as family needs (a) good food (b)
(b) discuss four ways we can prevent rust
above it is known as ___ (a) Brownian relaxation (c) shelter (d) clothing
movement (b) condensation (c) evaporation (c) State three chemical properties of Iron 2. In order to satisfy needs, family uses one of
(d) liquefaction these resources to acquire that (a) abilities
5. (a) Write a balance equation to illustrate the
50. Which of the substance is the most abundant (b) goods (c) limited (d) wants
in the universe? (a) carbon (b) Air (c) Water reaction of Al2 O3 with dilute 3. One of these is not important of home
(d) Hydrogen management (a) helps to be wasteful
i. HCl (b) teaches how to raise family (c) brings
ii. NaOH happiness in the home (d) prepares individual
to read
SECTION B: THEORY 6. Give the IUPAC name of the each of the 4. One of these is not the steps in home
following substances management processes (a) implementing
Answer question one and any other three (b) organizing (c) evaluating (d) scheduling
i. CuSO 4 .5 H 2 O 5. Which of the step in home management
1. (a) What is Iron? process is the third step (a) evaluating
ii. CaCO3
(b) Outline types of Iron (b) implementing (c) planning (d) organizing
iii. KMnO 4 6. ___ involves the appraisal of the entire
(c)With a diagram, describe the process of management procedure (a) organizing
extraction of iron, Stating what happened at (b) Evaluating (c) implementing (d) planning
7. The action taken in selecting alternative course
each stage and writing equation for the of action is called (a) appraisal taking
reaction (b) implementing (c) decision making
(d) decision taking
2. (a) Define Saponification 8. ___ can only take place when these are two
(b) Discuss how a sodium soap may be things to choose from (a) choosing
(b) decision taking (c)decision making
prepared in the laboratory (d) pointing
(c) write the advantages of detergent over soap SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 9. Which of the following is a mental process?
SECONDARY SCHOOL, (a) decision making (b) brain storming
3. (a) What is titration? (c) thinking (d) decision
GWAGALADA. ABUJA.
(b) Draw and describe how it is run in the 10. One of these is not a factor that affect decision
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR making (a) friends (b) relationship (c) money
laboratory 2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. (d) family
(c) Mention the indicators for the following SUBJECT. Home Economics 11. Resources available always influence ______
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR (a) needs (b) wants (c) decision (d) knowledge
reactions 12. The decision you make are always based on
I Strong acid against strong base what you consider important that is _______
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this
(a) standard (b) goal (c) value (d) needs
ii. Strong acid against weak base Section
13. There are ___ areas of decision making (a) 5
iii. Weak acid against strong base (b) 4 (c) 6 (d)3
14. The first goal a family sets but may be the last 28. One of these is not a characteristics of development (b) change in home (c) change in
to be realized is called (a) middle term goal resources (a)accessibility (b) legibility size (d) change in attitude
(b) short term goal (c) long term goal (c) utility (d) manageability 42. Parental attitude to their children affects
(d) distance term goal 29. There are ___ examples of resources that exist family __ (a) love (b) relationship (c) growth
15. The things that individual families are willing within individuals (a) 3 () 5 (c) 2 (d0 4 (d) living
to work for is called ___ (a) standard (b) goal 30. ____ is an important resources which we use 43. The general condition existing in a home
(c) values (d) time to buy most things (a) money (b) resources affects the __ of the family members (a)
16. There are different reasons people spend time (c) skills (d0 energy relationship (b0 growth (c) love (d) standard
on different activities like picnic, these reasons 31. ___ are persons united by ties of marriage, 44. There are __ stages of family life style (a) 4
are called ___ (a) motivation (b) incentive blood or adoption (a) friends (b) groups (c) (b) 3 (d) 2 (d) 5
(c) success (d)standard family (d) neighbour 45. ___ family is the short state of family life
17. The A’s you want to achieve in your 32. ___ is not a type of family (a) polygamy (b) cycle (a) expanding (b) beginning (c)
examination is called your ___ (a) value monogamy (c) polymonogamy (d) nuclear convecting (d) contracting
(b) goal (c) success (d) standard 33. Arrange the steps in home management 46. One of the problems of the family is ___ (a)
18. Goals can be classified into ___ (a) 2 (b) 4 process in descending order (I) implementing the couple learn to know each other (b)
(c) 5 (d) 3 (II) Evaluating (III) Planning (IV) organizing couples know each other (c) there is no time
19. The simple immediate goal which can be (a) II, I, IV, III (b) III,IV, I, II (c) IV, I, II, III (d) there is no children
organized as step taken to achieve the more (d) I, II, III, IV 47. Which of the family involve two old people?
complex goal is called ___ (a) mid – term goal 34. One of the advantages of polygamous family (a) contacting family (b) expanding family (c)
(b) instrumental goal (c) short term goal is hat (a) childlessness is not a problem in the contracting family (d) beginning family
(d) long term goal family (b) childlessness is a problem in the 48. The expanding family is made up of ___
20. ___ is a measure of worth (a) standard family (c) the size of the family is usually stages (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5
(b) values (c) goal (d0 motivation small (d) the size of the family is usually large 49. Which of the following stages of family has
21. ___ is used to measure value of something 35. One of these is not a role of the family as a financial adjustment? (a) expanding family
such as an activity (a) value (b) standard group (a0 socialization (b) religious (b) contacting family (c) contracting family
(c) goal (d) needs orientation (c) belief role (d) protection (d) legible family
22. Standards are classified into __ (a) 3 (b) 2 36. Husband and wife relationship must be 50. The ___ period is when th formal education of
(c) 4 (d) 1 strengthened through __ (a) child bearing a child starts (a) Nursery school b primary
23. One of these is not a type of standard (b) affection (c) food preparation (d) education school (c) secondary school (d0 tertiary school
(a)flexible standard (b) content standard 37. Parent child relationship can be broken down
(c) rigid standard (d) standard of living into ___ sub-relationship (a) 4(b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 3 SECTION B: THEORY
24. ___ is an example of tangible standard 38. Individual difference exist not among siblings
(a) flexible (b) goods and services (c) level of in (a) size (b) intelligence (c) voice (d) special Answer question 1 and any other 3
living (d) standard of living talents
25. There are __ types of needs (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 4 39. When the pattern of love changes from being 1. (a) Explain Goal, value and standard 6marks
(d) 3 in love to marital love it is called ___ (b) What is family? 2marks
26. ___ are the primary reasons of our action (a) relationship (b0 companionship (c) (c) List and describe the three types of families
(a) standard (b) values (c) goal (d) needs affection (d) platinum 7marks
27. ___ are the things which the families use to 40. Siblings give each other ___ (a) affection 2. (a) Explain any four problems of the
meet their needs and reach their goals (a) (b) love (c) companionship (d) instruction retirement period. In what ways can the retired
money 9b0 resources (c) values (d) access 41. Factors that influence family relationship couples overcome these problems 8marks
include (a) change due to growth and (b) What is motivation? 2marks
3. (a) Explain the meaning of home management 1. What chapter is suradul Qari’ah in the Qur’an?
2marks (a) 102 (b) 78 (c) 101 (d) 20
(b) Explain the home management processes 2. How many verses dos suardul Qari’ah has?
8marks (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 11 (d) none of the above
4. What is the difference between standard and 3. Suradul Qari’ah was revealed in ____? (a)
level of living? Illustrate your answer with the Abuja (b) Makkah (c) Madinah (d) Togo
standard and level of living of your family 4. Equity is a quality of being fair and impqrtial
5. (a) Explain the steps/processes of decision true or false? (a) true (b) false (c) all of the
making 8marks above
(b) State any two factors that influence family 5. The Holy Qur’an warned us not to be
relationship 2marks prejudice against any person true or false
(a) True (b) none of the above (c) false
6. Suratul Asr has how many verses? (a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 20 (d) 10
7. What chapter is suratul takathur in the Qur’an?
(a) 101 (b) 103 (c) 102 (d) 300
8. Suratul Takathur has how many verses? (a) 10
(b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 11
9. The four rightly guided caliphs are (a)
Abubakar, Uthman< Umar and Ali (b)
Suleiman, Umar, Hussain and Abubakar
(c) Umar, Bilal, Dawud and Uthman (d) all of
the above
10. In Hadith II of an-nawawi collection, Allah
command us to stop what one doubt and go for
undoubted one True or False (a) True (b) false
(c) all of the above
11. What chapter of the Que’an is suaratul Asr?
(a) 103 (b) 10 (c0 20 (d) 17
12. Suratul Qarilah is talking about the days of
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR resurrection true or false (a) false (b) true (c)
SECONDARY SCHOOL, all of the above
13. Hadith II of an-nawawi collection was
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. reported by who? (a) Tirmidlu (b) Bukhari
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR (c) Muslim (d) all of the above
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. 14. Sawm means___ (a) prayer (b) pilgrimage (c)
SUBJECT. Islamic Religiou Studies fasting (d) none of the anove
15. Among those exempted for fasting is ___
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR (a) sickones (b) healthy ones (c) youths
(d) wealthy ones
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 16. Fasting is done from dawn to __ with intention
Section (a) dawn (b) sunset (c) sunrise (d) noon
17. Fasting is an act of worship (a) true (b) all of 33. Suratul Takathur was revealed in Medinah
the above (c) false (d) no True/False
18. Suratul ASr is talking about (a) hour (b) dawn 34. Hadith 14 of annawawi collection was SECTIONB: ESSAY
(c) separation (d) time reported by Bukhari and Muslim True/False Answer four questions question 2 is compulsory
19. Actions are judged according to intention a) 35. Hadith 14 istalkig about the penalty for
true (b) false (c) I don’t know (d) all of the murder, adultery and one who denounces his 1. (a) Define fasting 2marks
above religion True/false
(b) mention 3 moral obligations of fasting
20. The wor “Riba” means (a) business (b) Halal 36. Whether rich or poor, Islam believes that it is a
(c) Usury or interest (d) gain fundamental right of every person to be given 3marks
21. What is halal in Islam? (a) lawful things (b) fair and equal treatment True/False
(c) List 5 spiritual objectives of fasting
unlawful things (c) prohibited things (d) dirty 37. One should leave what he is doubting about
things and go for what he is not doubting about is 5marks
22. Fasting is done from dawn to sunset together Hadith 11 of an-nawawi collection True/False
2. Write the Arabic text of any of the following
___ (a) reciting (b) sleeping (c) intention (d) 38. Speak God or be silent, honor your neighour
none of the above and honor your guest is Hadith15 of an- surahs:
23. Haram in Islam is what? (a) lawful (b) nawawi collection True/False
(a) Suratul Quari’ah
prohibited (c) unlawful (d) accepted 39. Hadith 15 of an-nawawi collection was
24. Tatfif means (a) Halal (b) Haram (c) dirty (d) reported by Bukhari and Muslim True/False (b)Suratul Takathur
hoarding goods 40. Islam instructs usto fastduring themoth of
(c) Suratul Asr 5marks each
25. Riba in Islam is considered ___ (a) Haram Ramadam True/False
(b) halal (c) good (d) I don’t know 41. One must not fast when he or she is sick 3. Discuss the Islamic economic system with
26. ____ denotes that everybody should be treated True/False
references to Halal, Haram and Tatff 1mk each
equal and judged with justice (a)honest (b) 42. Fasting is not a pillar of Islam True/False
equity and justice (c) obedience (d) none of 43. Fasting purifies the body and soul of 4. Write the Hadith 11 and 12 of an-nawawi
the above individual Tue/False
collection 5marks each
27. What is the similarities between the political 44. One must not miss fasting without any
administration and the right guided caliphs tangible reason True/False 5. Discuss the political administration of either
(a) they rule on their own (b) the judge 45. Imam means (a) worship (b) faith (c)
the prophet Muhammad (SAW) or the four
according to the prophet’s judgment (c) they forgiveness (d) none of the above
followed their wives (d) all of the above 46. Picking harmful objects on the road is rightly guided caliphs 10marks
28. Hadith 13 of an-nawawi collection was regarded as? (a) sadaqah (b) stealing (c) hajj
reported by ___ (a) Ibn Majah (b) Bukhari (d) all of the above
(c) Muslim (d) Bukhari and Muslim 47. Salatul janazah is performed on (a) Friday (b)
29. The theme of hadith 13 is (a) peaceful co- on a dead Muslim (c) Animal (d) all of the
existence an equality (b) backbiting above
(c) doubting (d) all of the above 48. Backbiting in Islam is Halal (b) Haram (c)
30. Abubakar is one of the rightly guided caliphs good (d) yes
True/false 49. Allah is just, so He likes people that are
31. When fasting, it is allowed to drink water (a0 impartial (b) liers (c) slanderers (d) partial
True/false 50. Qur’an chapter 101 is (a)suratul falaq (b)
32. Suratul Asr was revealed in Makkah suratul Nas (c)suratul Qari’ah (d) Suratul
True/False llahlas
 2. Allah’s attributes are __ in number (a) 88 (b)
66 (c) 99 (d) 20
3. The glorious Qur’an was revealed in the
month of (a0 may (b) sha’aban (c) Ramadam
(d) Rajab
4. Prophet Muhammad (SAW) was set to (a) The
whole mankind (b) people of Makka (c)
people of medina (d) all of the above
5. The Makkan surahs are __ in number (a) 66
(b) 77 (c) 99 (d) 88
6. The compilation of the Qur’an started during
the reign of which Khalifa? (a) Umar Bin
Khattah (b) Ah-bin-talib (c) Uthman bin Affab
(d)Abubakar
7. Worshiping things other than Allah is called
(a) Riba (b) shirk (c) zina (d) none of the
above
8. Prophet Muhammad (SAW) was born in the
year of () cow (b)Elephant (c)Horses (d) bees
9. Which of the following is the greatest sn in
Islam? (a)Riya (b)shirk (c) Zina (d) Riba
10. Prophet Muhammad (SAW) was nicknamed
(a) Al-wuded (b) Al-Amin (c)Al- Rahim
(d)As-Salam
11. The medina surahs are ___ in number (a)25
(b) 26 (c)27 (d) 28
12. Which of the following is Makkan surah?
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (a) suratul Nas (b) suratul Hajj (c) Suratul
SECONDARY SCHOOL, fatha (d) suratul Taubah
13. Arab before Islam was known as (a)
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. knowledge period (b) satanic period (c)
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR Jahiliyya period (d) wisdom period
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. 14. The Qur’an was written on the following items
SUBJECT. Islamic Religious Studies except (a) bones (b) stones (c) leaves (d)
scribes
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR 15. Which of the following is a medina surah?
(a) suratul Falaq (b) suratul fatiha (c) suratul
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this jumu’at (d) suratul masad
Section 16. Hadith is ___, ___ and ___ of the prophet
1. Kalimatush-sgahada is the key for entering (a) sayings, deeds and silent approval (b)
(a) house (b) Makkah (c) Islam (d) toilet actions, sayings and deeds (c) deeds,
disapprovals and actions (d) all of the above
17. The Arabs before Islam engaged in all the 34. Suratul Nas has how many verses? (a) 10 (b) 6
following activities except (a) drinking alcohol (c) 7 (d) 8
(b) Zina (c)idol worship (d) salat 35. What chapter of the Qur’an is suratul Baqarah SECTION B: ESSAY
18. There are ___ parts of hadith (a) 2 (b)3 (c) 4 (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5 Answer four questions in all question one is
(d) 5 36. One of these is not among the rightly guided compulsory
19. Suratul Baqarah contains __ verses (a) 286 caliphs (a) Musa (b) Umar (c) Abubakar (d)
(b) 276 (c) 266 (d) 256 Ali 1. (a) Define Shirk 2marks
20. Al Gaffar means (a) the protector (b) the 37. Kalimatush shahada is recited everyday in our
(b) Mention 5 kinds of shirk 5marks
foreigner (c) the merciful (d) the majesty salat True/false
21. The two types of shirk are (a) small and big 38. Kalimatush shahada is the basic foundation of (c) Explain Hero worship as a form of shirk
(b) minor and major (c) great and small (d) Islam True/False
with relevant examples 5marks
none of the above 39. Surat Ikhlas was revealed in Makkah
22. The second pillar of Islam is __ (a) salat True/False (d) Define idol worship with relevant example
(b) zakat (c) Hajj (d) sawn 40. How many verses does suratul Ikhlas have?
3marks
23. There are ___ Pillars of Islam (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5
(d) 7 41. Da’if hadith means (a) good (b) weak (c) 2. Write short notes on the following
24. Te sound (d) popular
(a) Hadith 2marks
25. The people of Arabia engaged in the following 42. The standardization of the Qur’an was during
activities except (a) killing (b) idolatry (c) which caliph administration? (a) Uthman (b) Shariah 2marks
gambling (d) praying (b)Abubakar (c) Ali (d) Musa
(c) Arabs before Islam 6marks
26. Which of these was the reason for the 43. Hadith is very important because (a) it
compilation of the Qur’an (a) death of the explains the Qur’an (b) saying of sahaba 3. (a)Explain the compilation of the Qur’an 5mks
memorizers of the Qur’an (b) to ensure (c) sayings of Abubakar (d) all of the above
(b) Mention 5 lessons learnt from hadith one
convenience (c) to ensure nothing was lost or 44. The standardization of the Qur’an was led by
tampered with in the Qur’an (d)all of the (a) Abu Hurira (b) Zayd bin harith (c) Umar of an-nawawi collection 5marks
above bin Khattab (d) Zayd bi Ahabit
4. Write the biography /life of the prophet (P B U
27. The fourth Khalifat is ___ (a) Uthman 45. The last month of Islamic calendar is (a) saffar
(b) Abubakar (c) Umar (d) Ali bin Talib (b) rabi’ul-anwal (c) zhul-hajj (d)muharram H) and his mission 10marks
28. Khadijat got married to the prophet at what 46. There ar ___ names of Allah (a)10 (b) 100 (c)
5. (a) Define the standardization of the Qur’an
age? (a) 50 (b) 40 (c) 30 (d) 60 99 (d) 89
29. ___ is the Islamic law regarding the way of 47. The third pillar of Islam is (a) swan (b) Zakkat (b) Mention six un-Islamic behaviours
life teaching towards Allah (a) Act (b) Bidi’a (c) Hajj (d) salat
exhibited by the Arabs during theperiod of
(c) shari’ah (d) constitution 48. Prophet Muhammad (SAW) was born in
30. Shaytan was created from ___ 9a) fire (b) mud which year (a) year of elephants (b) year of Jahiliyya
(c) light (d) water celebration (c) year of monkey (d) none of the
(c) Write the difference between the Makkah
31. Which of the prophets had no parents (a) Musa above
(b) Adam (c) Ibrahim (d) Yusuf 49. The people of Arabia practiced __ religion and Madinah surahs 10marks
32. Suratul Nas was revealed in __ (a) medina before the coming of Islam (a) Christianity (b)
(b) Makkah (c) India (d) Arabia paganism (c) Islam (d) none of the above
33. Islam is a religion of peace (a) true (b) yes 50. Ar-Rahman means (a) the benevolent (b) the
(c) false (d) all of the above forgiving (c) the beneficent (d) none of the
above
 3. A waiting period of a woman after divorce of
death of her husband is termed ___ (a) Nikkah
(b) Talaq (c) idolah (d) qiyas
4. ____ is the association of partners with Allah
in worship (a) Dhikr (b) Da’awah (c) shirk
(d) sawn
5. Talaq means __ (a) marriage (b) Divorce
(c) Da’awah (d) all of the above
6. Incase of the death of her husband, Idolah is
__ month and ten days(Q2:234) (a) four (b) six
(c) three (d) five
7. ___ is among the companion of prophet
(SAW) (a) Noah (b) Abubakaer (c0 Hud (d)
Ayub
8. Hadith N0. 26of An-Nawawi’s collection was
narrated by __ (a) Abu Huraira (b) Ibn Umar
(c) Abu Dawud (d) Muslim
9. Surat Nas has __ verses (a) 4 (b) 10 (c) 6(d) 5
10. Suratul Nas is what chapter (a) 114 (b) 101 (c)
112 (d) 103
11. Suratul Falaq has __ verses (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d)
3
12. Falaq means __ (a) the mankind (b) the day
break (c) the succor (d) none of the above
13. Idolah means __ (a) Divorce (b) waiting
period (c) marriage (d) none of the above
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR 14. Hadith N0 23 of an-nawawi’s collection was
SECONDARY SCHOOL, transmitted by (a) Muslim (b) Bukhari (c)
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. Bukhari and Muslim (d)Titmdhi
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 15. Angel __ is in charge of rain (a) Jibril (b)
Malik (c) Minka’il (d) Raqib
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. 16. Zakat is __ pillar of Islam (a) 1 (b)2 (c) 3 (d)
SUBJECT. Islamic Religious Studies 4
CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR 17. Muslims are expected to base their ways of
life on the teachings of the __ and __
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this (a) Qur’an and hadith (b) Qur’an and shariah
Section (c) Zabur and injil (d) all of the above
1. Yaumul qiyama means ___ (a) day of eid 18. The fist migration of the prophet(SAW) was
(b) day of fasting (c) day of judgment (d) all of from __ to ___ (a) Makkah to China
the above (b) Makkah to Medina (c) Makkah to Kenya
2. Nikkah means __ (a) Divorce (b) waiting (d) all of the above
period (c) Marriage (d) spinster
19. The Holy Qur’an was revealed in the month of 35. ___ is a duty at least once a life time, for a SECTION B: ESSAY
(a) Ramadam (b) Shawwal (c) Sha’aban (d) Muslim who are physically and financially
Muharram able (a) fasting (b) Hajj (c) salat (d0 umrah Answer four questions from this section. Question
20. One of the following is not among the four 36. Fasting is __ pillar of Islam (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 three is compulsory
rightly guided caliphs (a) Jubril (b) Ali bin (d) 5
butahib (c) Uthman Bin Affan (d) Abubakar 37. __ is the act of marrying two wives at the 1. (a) Define Nikkah 2marks
As-sideeq same time (a) polygamy (b) monogamy
(b) List five importance of Nikkah 5marks
21. The prophet (SAW) was called Al-Amin (c) Nikah (d) Idolah
which means the __ (a) Trustworthy (b) 38. ___ means dissolution of marriage (a) Nikkah (c) State the rules and regulations governing
Truthful (c) honest (d) chief (b) Divorce (c) Idolah (d) none of the above
the validity of divorce 3marks
22. Sheikh Uthman Dan Fodio was born in ____ 39. ___ is the divorce by mutual agreement
(a) Maratta (b) Sokoto (c) Kano (d) Gobir between husband and wife (a) Talaq (b) 2. (a) What is Divorce 2marks
23. Ibn Sina was born in the year ___ (a) 980CE mubara’ah (c) faskh (d) khul
(b) Explain 4 types of divorce 8marks
(b) 981CE (c) 982CE (d) 983CE 40. In case of a woman who is menstruating,
24. ___ is an importance of marriage (a) sense of idolah is __ period (a) 3 monthly cycle (b) 3 3. Write the following surah in Arabic
security (b) sexual satisfaction (c) formation month (c) four and ten days (d) all of the
i. Suratul Ikhlas
of family life (d) all of the above above
25. There are ___ types of divorce (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 41. In case of a pregnant woman, Idolah lasts until ii. Suratul Falaq
(d) 7 __ (a) delivery (b) 3 month (c) 3 monthly
iii. Suratul Nas 5marks each
26. The divorce whereby a woman requests for cycle (d) none of the above
separation is called __ (a) Talaq (b) Faskh (c) 42. If a marriage is not yet consummated Idolah is 4. (a) Define Idolah 2marks
Khul (d) Mubara’ah (a) no Idolah (b) 2 weeks (c) 3 months (d) 4
(b) Explain four of the duration of Idolah
27. Suratul Ikhlas has how many verses (a) 3 (b) 4 months
(c) 2 (d) 5 43. Leadership is a form of ___ (a) guardianship 2marks each
28. Suratul Ikhlas teaches (a) oneness of Allah (b) (b) authority (c) kingship (d) all of the above
5. Write short notes on the following
shirk (c) sawn (d) allof the above 44. Halal means (a) lawful (b) un lawful
29. Islam teaches us __ in dressing and behaviour (c) acceptance (d) all of the above (a) Honesty in the words and deeds
(a) modesty (b) sincerity (c) Honesty (d) 45. Amanah means (a) trust (b) hatred (c)
(b) Kindness to parents
impartiality kindness (d) none of the above
30. Ar-Razi was born in ___ (a) Persia (b) 46. ___ is not an angel of Allah (a) Jibril (b) (c) Polygamy
Bukhara (c) Makkah (d) Rayy Azra’il (c) Umar (d) minka’il
(d) Dignity of Labour
31. Islam means (a) peace (b) war (c) disaster (d) 47. ___ is not a prophet of Allah. (a) Adam (b)
conflict Musa (c) Isah (d) Ali (e) Amanah (trust) 2marks each
32. The first Article of faith in Islam is belief in __ 48. Haram is anything that is ___ (a) un lawful (b)
(a) Allah (b) Angel (c) prophets (d) book lawful (c) Acceptance (d) none of the above
33. The following are required for a valid 49. Jabir bn Hayyan is the father of __ (a) physics
marriage except (a) Lawyer (b) dowry (c) two (b) chemistry (c) alchemy (d) none of the
witnesses (d) wali above
34. The type of divorce where the husband asked 50. Sheikh Uthman Dan Fodio in died Sokoto at
for separation is called (a) Faskh (b) khul (c) the age of __ (a) 70 (b) 62 (c) 65 (d) 80
talaq 9d) Mubara’ah
 3. The quality pof person who is more focused
on the needs of others, rather than his or her
own is (a) courage (b) contentment (c)
selflessness (d) honesty
4. All these are attributes of selflessness except
(a) time (b) love (c) focusing on others (d)
focusing on self
5. ___ is the state of being truthful and straight
forward in whatever we are doing (a) Honesty
(b) love (c) justice (d) truthfulness
6. One of these is not an attribute of honesty
(a) truthfulness (b) disloyalty(c) reliability
(d) courage
7. ___ is the state of being honesty completely
(a) truthfulness (b) fair play (c) probity
(d) contentment
8. ___ is the ability to stick to sound moral
principles at all times (a) loyalty (b) courage
(c) sticking (d) integrity
9. The act of giving treatment to everybody
irrespective of age, gender, tribe, religion is
known as __ (a) fair play (b) foul play (c)
equal treatment (d) non-discrimination
10. One of these is not an important features of
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR integrity (a) it brings about development (b) it
SECONDARY SCHOOL, brings about under-development (c) it
eradicates corruption (d) it gives room for
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. character formation
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR 11. One of these is not an attribute of a
2022/2023 ACADEMIC SESSION. courageous person (a) he must be optimistic
SUBJECT. Civic Education (b) he must be brave (c0 he must be wicked
(d) must have the ability to endure
CLASS: SS1 TIME: 2HR 12. ___ is the concept of rightness based on ethic,
nationality, law religion or right (a) honesty
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this (b) integrity (c) law (d) justice
Section 13. All these are types of justice except (a) fair
1. ___ is the normal principles and standard justice (b) distributive justice (c) procedural
which guide our interaction with people in the justice (d) restorative justice
society (a) value (b) honesty (c) justice 14. The act of speaking the truth always is (a) fair
(d) discipline play (b) truthfulness (c) contentment (d)
2. All these are types of values except (a)honesty probity
(b) injustice (c) courage (d) contentment
15. __ is the state of being happy and satisfy with (a) laziness (b) indiscipline (c) corruption 37. One of these examples of youth empowerment
what we have (a) fair play (b) truthfulness (d) loss of values skill is (a) manipulative skills (b) reading
(c) contentment (d) probity 28. One of these is an example of the dangers of skills () writing skills (d) business skills
16. ___ justice is the process of appeasing an dishonesty (a) good governance (b) justice 38. The following are examples youth
individual that has been betrayed or cheated (c) contentment (d) loss of value empowerment except (a) create job
through some form of restriction 29. A person who will not put in any effort in opportunities (b) expansion of warehouse
(a) distributive (b) procedural (c) retributive doing something is called (a) an indolent (c) reduction in crime(d)expansion of
(d) restorative person (b)a bad person (c)an indiscipline economic activities
17. All these are attributes of contentment except person (d) a dishonest person 39. One of these ia the type of skills the youths
(a) love for greed (b) humility (c) satisfaction 30. For every society to be developed, that society can enrolled in (a) budget (b) writing
(d) shuns envy must be free from (a) impersonation (b) (c) tailoring (d) creating skills
18. Lack of contentment can lead to all these corruption (c) cultism (d) dubbing 40. Youth empowerment create__ for others
except (a) corruption (b) satisfaction (c) greed 31. HIV means (a) Human investment venture youths (a) training (b) life style (c) attention
(d) theft (b) Health immune virus (c) Human immune (d) mentors
19. ___ is one’s ability to control his/her own deficiency virus (d) Hormone immune 41. The right which every member of a country
behaviour (a) cheating (b) control (c) syndrome has is called ___ (a) citizenship (b)
discipline (d) humility 32. AIDS means (a) Advance immune syndrome qualification (c) membership (d)
20. All these are attributes of discipline except (b) accounting investment and services (c) all nationalization
(a) self-control (b) modesty (c) moderation acquired disease syndrome (d) Acquired 42. Citizenship is acquired by (a) emigration (b)
(d) envy immune deficiency syndrome nationalization (c) immigration (d) child
21. ___ is deliberate effort to avoid behaving 33. Major signs of Aids include the following trafficking
anyhow which can cause one or others people except (a) severe fever, diarrhea, cough and 43. The two types of law governing citizenship are
unnecessary embarrassment (a) self-control red eyes (b) bend legs, weight loss, lungs (a) common law and civil law (b) common law
(b) satisfaction (c) humility (d) corruption damage (c) mouth and throat infection, loss of and private law (c) the constitution and
22. The following are types of courage except hair and swollen hand (d) brain damage, international law (d) case law and statute law
(a) moral courage (b) immoral courage cancer and slighter stomach ache 44. The law which require the activities of the
(c) spiritual courage (d) physical courage 34. HIV/AIDS can be diagnosed through all but government of a country is called (a) civil law
23. ___ is the ability to do what is right one of the following ways (a) loss of weight (b) cannon law (c) international law (d)
irrespective of pressure to do otherwise (b) laboratory (c) looking at the patient (d) constitutional law
(a) physical courage (b) spiritual courage talking with the patient 45. The right which accrues to citizens to enjoy
(c) moral courage (d) strong courage 35. HIV/AIDS can be prevented through all but transactions between member countries is
24. Values are maintained to ensure __ in every one of the following ways (a) none sharing of called (a) international economic right (b)
community (a) dispute living (b) selfish living needles and syringes (b)none tested blood human right (c) economic / business right (d)
(c) disorderly living (d) orderly living transfusion (c) none shaking of hands, eating civil right
25. One of the following is a type of values with affected persons (d) razor blades and 46. Which of these is not part of individual right
(a) contentment (b) arrangement (c) injustice some other skin cutting of citizens of a country? (a) right to property
(d) dishonesty 36. Youth empowerment is manipulative when the (b) right to bribe (c) right to information (d)
26. The attributes of values include the following youths becomes ___ in areas they have been righto fair hearing
except (a) obedience (b) injustice trained (a) master (b) intellectual (c) 47. All these are obligations of citizens towards
(c) contentment (d) diligence empowered (d) skilled the government except (a) respect and obeying
27. An act where a person in authority changes all the laws in a country (b) payment of taxes
from a moral act to an immoral act is called (c) sedition (d) voting
48. The arms of government in Nigeria are (a) 5 entitled to the same rights. State any 3 such participate in governance (d) stand aloof on
(b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 3 right 3marks issues of national interest
49. The executive arm of government performs 2. The first political party that was formed in the
one of these functions (a) maintain law and Nigerian history was (a) Nigeria national
order (b) deprive citizens right (c) interpret the democratic party (NNDP) (a) Nigeria Youth
law (d) make or formulate the law Movement (NYM) (c) Action group (AG)
50. One of the following has the power to conduct (d) Northern People’s congress
investigation in respect to law (a) executive 3. ___ is known as the father of Nigerian
(b) judiciary (c) legislature (d) all of the above nationalism 9a) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe (b) Sir
Herbert Macauley (c) Chif Obafemi Awolowo
SECTION B: THEORY (d) Alhaji Ahmadu Bello
Answer four questions in all, question 1 is 4. One of these is not among the national
compulsory objectives of NNDP as postulated 9a) the
1. (a) What is selflessness? 6marks development of higher education through out
(b) List the four attributes of selflessness you Nigeria (b) the development of the national
know 4marks resources in the country (c) Africanization of
(c) State any 5 attributes of honesty 5marks the civil service (d) colonization of smaller
2. (a) Mention 4 types of justice you know 4mks territories in Africa
(b) State 3 importance of contentment 3marks 5. Most of the first generation political parties
(c) State any 3 effects of contentment 3marks were highly accused of ___ problems (a)
3. (a) What is discipline? 4marks decolonization attempt (b) regionally based in
(b) Mention any 3 attributes of discipline scope (c) highly corrupt officials (d) under-
3marks staffed
(c) Explain one of the attributes you 6. ___ was a political party that started in a
mentioned above 3marks students’ movement in the kings college in the
4. (a) List any 3 types of courage you know year 1934 (a) AG (b) NYM (c) NPC (d)
3marks SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR NCNC
(b) Mention any 3 importance of opportunity SECONDARY SCHOOL, 7. ____ was an ethnic organization which
to defend oneself 3marks brought the Yoruba elite together to form AG
(c) Give 3 examples of community service GWAGALADA. ABUJA. as political party (a) Egbe Omo Oduduwa (b)
projects you know 4marks FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR Otu EdoCongress (v) Oba group (d) Yoruba
5. (a) Give the full meaning of the following 2023/2024 ACADEMIC SESSION. youth union
i. HIV 2marks SUBJECT. Government 8. The Northern people’s congress was started by
ii. AIDS 2marks ___ the first medical doctor in the region
iii. STD 2marks CLASS: SS3 TIME: 2HR (a) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe and JosephAbbe (b)
(b) State any four causes of HIV/AIDS 4marks Dr. Dikko and Alhaji Rafih (c) Dr. Michael
6. (a) Mention any 3 youth empowerment skills INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this Okpara and Mr. chinedu (d) Alhaji Bawa and
you know 3marks Section Dr. Suleiman Adamu
(b) State any 3 types of law you know 3marks 1. Political parties provides avenue for citizens of 9. The motto off the NPC was ___ (a) “one
(c) According to section IV of the 1999 a state to (a) attack their political opponents North one people irrespective of rigion rank or
Nigerian constitution, Nigerian citizens are (b) organize subversive activities (c) tribe (b) “No victory no vanquish for the
 North” (c) “North all region belonging to us” (a) NEPU and AG (b) NCNC and NEPU (c) 26. Which of these is a problem of civil service?
(d) “ Great Northern people congress” NPC and NEPU (d) NPC and NCNC (a) red-tapism (b) offering professional advice
10. One of these is not a source of revenue which 18. Which of the following political parties to political leaders (c) changing government
was available for NPC as a political party in produced our ministers in National through elections (d) continuous keeping of
the Northern region (a) membership government of 1957 in Nigeria ? (a) AG (b) records of government business
subscription (b) donations made to it (c) NCNC (c) NPC (d) NEPU 27. ___ was the major leader of the Eastern region
proceeds from sales of items (d) aids from the 19. In a presidential system of government, the who rejected the results of the 1963 census (a)
national commercial bank head of the government is called the (a) prime Chief Obafemi Awolowo (b) Dr. Nnamdi
11. The first Head of state and Head of minister (b) executive president (c) governor – Azikiwe (c) Dr. Michael Okpara (d) Dr.
government in Nigeria was (a) Lord Fredrick general (d) Major Adamu Chiroma
Lugard (b) Alhaji Abubakar Tafawa Balewa 20. An electoral college refers to __ (a) training 28. One of these was not a cause for the action
(c) Major Kaduna Nzogwu (d) Alhaji Shehu school (b) place where public opinion is group (AG) crises of 1962 (a) personality
Shagari formed (c0 process by which party leaders clash (b) faction in the party (c) free and fair
12. Between 1960 and 1980, Nigeria experienced acquire knowledge (d) Medium of indirect election elects (d) adoption of a new ideology
the following system of government except election 29. The leadership tussle in NPP results in the
(a) Unitary (b) Federal (c) con-federal (d) 21. Which of the following is a pre-independence formation of ___ as a political party which
parliamentary political party in Nigeria? (a) Unity party of was headed by Waziri Ibrahim (alh.) (a) GNPP
13. A condition coalition government can be Nigeria (UPN) (b) Nigerian youth Movement (b) PRP (c) NCNC (d) APC
described as one which (a) is made up of more (NYM) (c) Northern elements progressive 30. In the Nigerian 2nd republic, ___ party system
than one political party (b) is formed by the union (d) united progressive grand alliance was practiced (a) one party system (b) two
political party that won election (c) can (UPGA) party system (c) multi-party system (d) zero
enforce the law enacted by the legislative (d) 22. Whichof the following political parties entered party system
can effectively defend the nation into an accord at the cetre after the 1979 31. Who was declared winner of the 1979 election
14. The geographical units into which a country is general election in Nigeria? (a) NPN and NPP as the president which was seen as
divided for the purpose of elections are called (b) NPP and UNPC (c) NPN and UPN (d) controversial in nature? (a) general I.B.B
9a) constituencies (b) local government area UPN and PRP (b) Alhaji. Shehu shagari (c) Gen. Olusegun
(c) polling areas (d) country council 23. Who raised the motion for self-government Obasanjo (d) M.K.O Abiola
15. He immediate cause of Kano riot of 1953 was which in 1953 that later brought about the 32. ___ were the official recognized number of
the (a) NCNC tour of Northern Nigeria led by political indifference between the Northern political parties which contested in the 1979
Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe (B) action group tour of and southern political leaders? (a) chief general elction (a) two (b) ten (c) five (d)
Northern Nigeria led by Chief S.LL Akintola Obafemi Awolowo (b) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe ninety – one
(c) Mobbing of Northern leaders at Lagos (c) Anthony Enahoro (d) Alhaji Ahmadu Bello 33. ___ was the elected governor of Kaduna state
(d) issues of the administrative position in 24. The Nigerian youth movement (NYM) in the 1979 election who encountered serious
Lagos collapsed because of (a) leadership struggle challenges because his party PRP was in the
16. The political party that was transformed frop a (b) the ban on the press by the government minority of the state’s assembly (a) Alhaji
cultural organization known as the Jam’iyyar (c) high handedness by the leadership (d) Garba Rafi (b) Alhaji Balarabe Musa (c)
Matanen Arewa was the (a) NEPU (b) NCNC corruption and nepotism Alhaji Sanda Husani (d) Alhaji Jubril Gani
(c) NPC (d) AG 25. The first –past – the post system of voting is 34. theNigerian civil war started on ___ and in
17. The political parties which formed a coalition also called (a)second ballot system (b) ___ year (a) 7th April, 1982 (b) 6th July 1967
government at the centre after the 1954 proportional representation (c) simple majority (c) 29th may 1999 (d) 1st January 1960
general elections in Nigeria were the ----------- system (d) alternative vote system 35. the Eastern region were demanding for ___
republic which eventually resulted to the
 Nigerian civil war (a) Congo (b) Biafra (c) 43. The Nigerian civil war was fought in order to 1. (a) Mention the two political parties which
Niger (d) Chad (a) test Nigeria’s military strength (b) pressure
were pre-independence political parties that
36. The key actors in the Nigerian civil war were the unity of the country (c) protect Nigeria
___ and ___ (a) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe and from external invasion (d) prevent the had their formation from cultural organization
Chief Obafemi Awolowo (b) Alhaji Ahmadu emergence of a dictator
and the year they were formed 5marks
Bello and Dr. Michael Okpara Lt. Col. 44. An election in which people vote for issues of
Yakubu Gowon and Lt. col. Odumegwu public policy rather than candidates is known (b) State five main sources of revenue for the
Ojukwu (D) Gen. Olusegun Obasanjo and as a___ (a) mini – election (b) bye – election
action group (AG) as a political party 5marks
Gen. Ibrahim Babangida (c) general election (d) referendum
37. The first military coup was staged and headed 45. Who among the following was dismissed from (c) Suggest two major problems that were
by ___ (a) Gen. Yakubu Gowon (b) Gen. action group at Jesus congress of February
faced by National council of Nigeria and
J.T.U Aguiyi Ironsi (c) Major J.T.Orkaa 1962? (a) Anthony Enahoro (b) Dauda
(d) Gen. I.B.B Adegbenro (c) Ladoke Akintola (d) Adesoji Cameroon 5marks
38. All the following were frontline fighters for Aderemi
2. (a) Give an account of the evolution of the
Nigerian independence except (a) Obafemi 46. The law – making body in Nigeria is called the
Awolowo (b) Nnamdi Azikiwe (c) Herbert (a) congress (b) National Assembly first political party which was established in
Macauley (d) Lateef Jakande (c) Parliament (d) presidium
Nigeria 4marks
39. Legitimacy means the ____ (a) seizure of 47. The power of the electorate signifies ______
power of government by force (b) separation (a) political sovereignty (b) legal sovereignty (b) State any three national objectives of the
of the organs of government (c) sovereignty of (c) external sovereignty (c) internal
party 6marks
parliament (d) acceptance of the right rules sovereignty
40. Which of the following is not true of Herbert 48. Public corporation are set up by _____ (a) a 3. (a) Identify the two main actors in the
Macauley? (a) He was the co-founder of the minister (b) a director (c) an act of parliament
Nigerian civil war 2marks
NYSC (b) founder of the Nigerian National (d) a permanent secretary
democratic party (c) founder of the national 49. Measuring public opinion becomes highly (b) Discuss any four major crises that led to
congress of British west Africa (NCBWA) expensive when (a) public debates are held (b)
the Nigerian civil war 8marks
(d) the first founder of a political party in the a referendum is held (c) public opinion poll is
country Nigeria conducted (d) mass media reports are 4. (a) what three sources of finance were
41. The Nigerian advance party (NAP) of the evaluated
common for all the political parties in second
second republic was led by ___ (a) Adisa 50. The earliest agent in the formation of public
Akinloye (b) Tunji Braithwaite (c) Waziri opinion is the (a) family (b) hospital republic? 3marks
Ibrahim (d) Obafemi Awolowo (c) political party (d) school
(b) mention seven political parties which were
42. The major cause of the action group crises of
1952 was the (a) personal hatred of chief in existence in the second Republic and the
Awolowo for chief S.L Akintola (b) infighting
year of their evolution 7marks
between chief S.L Akintola and Sir
AdesojiAdereme, the then governor of 5. (a) Discuss entirely the major causes of Kano
Western region (c) poor performance of thr SECTION B: THEORY
riots 7marks
action group in the 1959 general elections
(d) proposal to change the party’s ideology Answer any four questions in all. Question 1 is (b) State three political implications of the
towards a socialist orientation compulsory
Kano riots 3marks
6. (a) Identify five main causes of the Action 1. Factorize the equation x 2−4 x−21 (a) (x+3)
group (AG) crises 5marks (x – 7) (b) (x +1)2 (c) (x – 1)(x + 2) (d)
2
(b) Explain clearly the five main causes which (2 x+ 1)
2. x 2−6 x−5 (a) (x – 5)(x – 1) (b) (x – 1)(x + 5)
are mentioned above 5marks (c) (x – 1)(x – 5) (d) (x + 1)(x – 5)
2
3. x −4 x+3 (a) (x+1)(x +3) (b) (x – 1)(x +3)
(c) (x -1)(x – 3) (d) ( x−1)2
2
4. x −5 x−36 (a) (x – 4)(x – 9) (b) (x + 4)(x –
9) (c) (x +5)2 (d) (x + 4)(x – 9)
2
5. x −11 x−12 (a) (x+1)(x+14) (b) (x – 1)(x –
12) (c) (x + 1)(x + 12) (d) (x +1)(x – 12)
2
6. x −9 x +14 (a) (x – 9)(x+14) (b) (x – 2)(x –
7) (c) (x + 2)(x + 7) (d) (x−9)2
2
7. x + 8 x+15 (a) (x + 8)(x+15) (b) (x – 8)(x +
15) (c) (x + 3)(x + 5) (d) (x – 3)(x – 5)
2
8. x + 12 x +32 (a) (x + 12)(x + 32) (b) (x + 32)
(x – 12) (c) (x – 4)(x – 8) (d) (x + 4)(x + 8)
2
9. x + 4 x−21 (a) (x – 3)(x + 7) (b) (x + 3)(x –
7) (c) (x – 4)(x + 7) (d) (x + 20)( x – 1)
2
10. x + 8 x−9 (a) (x – 1)(x – 9) (b) (x – 1)(x+9)
(c) (x – 8)(x + 1) (d) (x + 8)(x – 9)

Solve each of the following quadratic

equations
11. (x – 3)(x + 4) (a) – 3, - 4 (b) 3, 12 (c) 3, - 4
(d) 8,3
12. (x + 11)(x – 3) (a) -3,-11 (b) 11, - 3 (c) 33, 3
SUZZ TENDERLY SENIOR (d) 3, - 11
SECONDARY SCHOOL, 5 1 3 5
13. (2x – 1)(3x – 5) (a) , (b) ,− (c)
GWAGALADA. ABUJA. 3 2 2 3
−1 5
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION FOR , (d) 3, 1
2 3
2023/2024 ACADEMIC SESSION. 8 3 3 5
SUBJECT. Further Mathematics 14. (x + 8)(2x +5) (a) , (b) , 5 (c) 8 ,− (d)
5 4 8 2
CLASS: SS2 TIME: 2HR −8
,2
5
INSTRUCTION:- Answer all questions on this 15. x 2−9 x−10=0 (a) -1, -10 (b) 9, 10 (c) -1,10
Section
(d) 1, -10
16. x 2−x−20=0 (a) -9,5 (b) 8,5 (c) 20,1 (d) -4,5 100 27 11 10 40. A fair coin was thrown once, find the
31. ∝3 + β 3 (a) (b) (c) (d) 3
17. x 2+ x−56=0 (a) 1,56 (b) 6,5 (c) 14,1 (d) -7,8 29 10 3 9 probability that a head will appear (a) ¼ (b)
18. x 2−9 x +10=0 (a) 2,5 (b) -7,10 (c) 10.1(d) 28 2 3 2
32. ∝−β (a) (b) √ 7(c) (d) 9 8
10 7 9 3 4 (c) (d) ½
, 1 1 5 4 −1 11
2 10 33. + (a) (b) 2 (c) (d)
19. x 2−5 x−24=0 (a) 3,5 (b) 4,5 (c) 3,10 (d) - ∝+1 β+1 3 3 3
8,3 If α and β are the roots of a quadratic equation
2
2
20. x + 3 x −10=0 (a) 2, -5 (b) 2, 5 (c) 3, 10 (d) ax +bx +c=0 where a, b, and c are constants
7, 8 such that a = 0, find in terms of a, b and c
Using completing the square method solve the expressions for
2
following 1 1 b−2a 4 b−3 a b −2 ac
34. 2
+ 2 (a) (b) 2 (c)
21. x 2+ 4 x +1 (a) ( x +4 )2−3 (b) ( x +2)2+3 (c) ∝ β c c c
2

( x +2 )2−3(d) ( x +2)2+1 a+b 2

(d) SECTION B: THEORY
22. x 2−3 x+ 2 (a) ( x +4 )2+ 1 (b) ( x +2 )2−3 (c) √c Answer question number 1 any other 3
2
3 bc−b
( ) ( )
2 2
3 1 3 3 3 ba−b
x− − (d) x + − 3 3
35. ∝ + β (a) (b) (c) −b+ √ D −b−√ D
2 4 2 2 a
2
b
3
1. (a)Show that ∝= and β=
3 3 2
2a 2a
( )
2
4 3 abc−b 4 ac −b
23. x 2−4 x−13 (a) ( x−4 )2 +13 (b) x− +13 3 (d) 4
3 a c
5marks (b) Find the sum of the roots
( ) ( )
2 2
3 1
(c) x− + 4(d) 4 x− −14 36. If six fair coins are tossed, what is the
2 2 α + β 5marks (c) Find the product of the
2 probability that at least one head appears?
24. 2 x −5 x −3=0 (a) 3, ½ (b) 3, - ½ (c) 4, ½ 64 4 8 63 roots αβ
5 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) 3, 63 3 5 64 2. (a) If α = 3 and β= - 3, form a quadratic
2 From the statement below solve questions 37 –
25. 3 x 2+ 6 x −9=0 (a) 3, -1 (b) 4, 5 (c) 1, -3 (d) 39 equation 5marks
3, 5 If in a single throw of two fair coins, find the (b) Write down of the roots when
α and β are the roots of 3 x 2−4 x −1=0, find probability that
1 2 8 i. D > 0
the value of
37. Two head appear (a) ¼ (b) (c) (d)
4 10 4 16 ii. D < 0
26. α + β (a) 3, (b) 5 (c) 8 (d)
3 1 22 4 iii. D = 0 5marks
38. Two tails appear (a) (b) ¼ (c) (d)
8 11 33 11
27. αβ(a) ½ (b) (c) - ⅓ (d) ⅓ 3. Given that
4 4 3 4
39. One head one tail appear (a) (b) (c)
2 2 16 2 22 9 31 11 5 3 2 2
P1 ( x ) =7 x −4 x +3 x+ 4 , P2 ( x ) =5 x +6 x +1
28. ∝ + β (a) (b) (c) (d)
9 3 9 22 4
(d) , Find (a) P1 ( x ) + P2 ( x )
1 1 4 −1 11
29. + (a) (b) (c) 8 (d) – 4
∝ β 3 3 5marks (b) P1 ( x ) −P 2 ( x )
∝ β 22 −1 −22 69
30. + (a) (b) (c) (d) 5marks
β ∝ 9 3 3 9
4. Divide 4 x3 +6 x 2−2 x +7 by 2 x−3 , hence
find the quotient and the remainder 10marks
5. Show that x + 1 is a factor of
(a) f ( x )=2 x 3 +2 x 2−5 x−6 5marks

(b) f ( x )=x 3 +2 x 2−5 x−6 5marks

MATHEMATICS SS3
THEORY
Answer question 3 and any other four questions
1. (a)

Given the diagram above, calculate

i. the curved surface area of the frustum
ii. the volume of the frustum

(b) Solve using any method of your choice

 x+y=5 5
y¿ 4
2x – 3y = -5 x
2
2. (a) Write all the formulas of co-ordinate y=5 x +5
geometry 6. (a) Fide the slope joining the two points
(b) From the equation which passes through i. A(4, -3) and B ( - 1, 4)
the points (- 2, 3) and parallel to 2y + 3x = 7 ii. A(3, 5) and B (1, 6)
3. Prepare a table of values for which (b) From the straight line equation that passes
0 ° ≤θ ≤ 360 ° using interval of 30°,then the point (5,2) and slope, m1=5
sketch the graph of y=sinθ ii. Find the equation that passes through the
(b) Differentiate the following points (4, 2) which is perpendicular to 3y +
with respect to x 4x = 8
(a) y=3 x 2 +5 x 7. Write out all the prominent Mathematicians

(b) y=−4 x 2−2 x and their contributions

(b) The sum of a two-digits number is 12. If
(c) y=5 x 4 +3 x 2−8
the digit are interchanged the number FURTHER MATHEMATICS
4. Write short note on matrices and determinant
decreases by 36. Find the number THEORY
under the following sub-heading with
Answer any four questions
relevant examples
1. Explain with relevant examples the concept
i. Definition of Matrices
of partial fraction
ii. order of notation of matrix
11−3 x
iii. Types of matrices (b) Resolve 2 into partial fraction
x +2 x−3
iv. Transpose mstrices
2. Using Grammer’s rule solve the following
v determinant matrices
simultaneous equation
5. Differentiate the following with respect to x
(a) 5x + 2y = 4
y=(x ¿¿ 2+4 x )(2 x−8)¿
x – 4y = - 10
2
y=(x ¿¿ 2−4 x)(3 x +35)¿ (b) 5x + 2y = 13
1 x + 3y = 13
y= 3
x
3. Integrate the following (c) x 2+ 7 x+10=0
❑
(a) ∫ ( 5 x +2 x+6 ) dx
2 (d) x 2−2 x+1=0
❑
❑
(b) ∫ (5 x −¿ 3 x + 2 x +8)dx ¿
4 2

( )
❑
1
(c) ∫ 2
dx
❑ 4x
4. Write short notes on Matrices and
determinants under the following sub-
headings with relevant examples
(a) Definition of Matrices
(b) Order and notation of Matrices
(c) Types of matrices
(d) Transpose of matrices
€ Determinant of a matrix
5. Solve the following definite integrant
4
(a) ∫ ( 5 x +3 x ) dx
2

1
(b)∫ ( 3 x −8 x + 4 ) dx
2

3
(c) ∫ (4 x−8)
1

2
(d) ∫ ( 3 x 2+ 4 x +9 ) dx
−1

6. Factorize the following quadratic equations

(a) (x ¿¿ 2+7 x+ 12)=0 ¿
(b) x 2+ 2 x−0