ODM SCHOLARSHIP ADMISSION TEST 2019

OSAT | SCIENCE

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

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 (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) only
SECTION – A
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
01. Neutrons are present in all atoms except
08. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition re-
(a) H. (b) C. (c) He. (d) Ne
action. The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxy-
02. All the statements about electron are true gen gases liberated during electrolysis of
except water is
(a) it is negativity charged particle (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
(b) it is a basic constituent of all atoms 09. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solu-
(c) it is a constituent of cathode rays tion blue. Excess addition of which of the fol-
(d) the mass of electron is equal to the mass lowing solution would reverrse the change ?
of proton. (a) Baking powder (b) Lime
03. Which conclusion was a direct result of the
(c) Ammonium hydroxide solution
gold foil experiment ?
(a) An atom is mostly empty space with a (d) Hydrochloric acid
dense, positively charged nucleus. 10. Which of the following salts does not contain
(b) An atom is composed of at least three water of crystallisation ?
types of subatomic particles.
(a) Blue vitriol (b) Baking soda
(c) An electron has a positive charge and is
located inside the nucleus. (c) Washing soda (d) Gypsum
(d) An electron has properties of both waves 11. A sample of soil is mixed with water and al-
and particles lowed to settle. The clear supernatant solu-
tion turns the pH paper yellowish-orange.
04. How many H atoms are in 3.4 g of C12 H 22 O11 ? Which of the following would change the
colour of this pH paper to greenish-blue ?
(a) 6.0 1023 (b) 1.3  1023
(a) Lemon juice (b) Vinegar
(c) 3.8 1022 (d) 6.0 1023
(c) Common salt (d) An antacid
05. Which of the following statements is false ?
12. Which of the following gives the correct in-
(a) Melting and freezing point of a substance
creasing order of acidic strength ?
are the same.
(b) Evaporation of liquid takes place only at (a) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
its boiling point (b) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid
(c) Pure water has no taste
(c) Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid
(d) Water allows sunlight to pass through it
(d) Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid
06. Which of the following are exothermic pro-
13. To protect tooth decay we are advised to
cesses ?
brush our teeth regularly. The nature of the
(i) Reaction of water with quick lime tooth paste commonly used is
(ii) Dilution of an acid (a) acidic (b) neutral
(iii) Evaporation of water (c) basic (d) corrosive
(iv) Sublimation of camphore (crystals) 14. Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) from rusting by coating with a thin layer of
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) (a) Gallium (b) Aluminium
07. Which among the following is (are) double
(c) Zinc (d) Silver
displacement reaction(s) ?
15. Silver articles become black on prolonged
(i) Pb  CuCl 2  PbCl2  Cu exposure to air. This is due to the formation
(ii) Na 2SO 4  BaCl2  BaSO 4  2NaCl of
(a) Ag 3 N (b) Ag 2 O
(iii) C  O 2  CO 2
(c) Ag 2S (d) Ag 2S and Ag 3 N
(iv) CH 4  2O 2  CO 2  2H 2 O

OSAT - 2019 - SCIENCE Set - 1 - Page - 1 of 10

 16. 2 mL each of concentrated HCl, HNO3 and a 23. Which of the following represents saponifi-
cation reaction ?
mixture of concentrated HCl and
concentreated HNO3 in the ratio of 3 : 1 were (a) CH3COONa  NaOH 
CaO
 CH 4
taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C. A  Na 2 CO3
small piece of metal was put in each test tube.
No change occured in test tubes. A and B (b) CH3COOH  C2 H 5OH 
H 2SO4
 CH 3
but the metal got dissolved in test tube C re-
spectively. The metal could be COOC 2 H 5  H 2 O
(a) Al (b) Au (c) Cu (d) Pt (c) 2CH 3 COOH  2Na  2CH 3 COONa  H 2
17. Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal
with a metal or non-metal. Which among the (d) CH 3COOC 2 H 5  NaOH  CH 3COONa
following alloys contain non-metal as one of  C 2 H 5 OH
its constituents ?
24. In Mendeleev’s Periodic Table, gaps were left
(a) Brass (b) Bronze for the elements to be discovered later. Which
(c) Amalgam (d) Steel of the following elements found a place in the
18. CH 3  CH 2  OH 
Alkaline KMnO 4  Heat
 CH 3  COOH periodic table later
(a) Germanium (b) Chlorine
In the above given reaction, alkaline KMnO 4
acts as (c) Oxygen (d) Silicon
(a) reducing agent (b) oxidising agent 25. Which of the given elements A,B,C,D and E
(c) catalyst (d) dehydrating agent with atomic number 2,3,7,10 and 30 respec-
tively belong to the same period ?
19. In which of the following compounds, -OH is
the functional group ? (a) A,B,C (b) B,C,D
(a) Butanone (b) Butanol (c) A,D,E (d) B,D,E
(c) Butanoic acid (d) Butanol 26. An element which is an essential constituent
20. Identify the unsaturated compounds from the of all organic compounds belongs to
following (a) group 1 (b) group 14
(i) Propane (ii) Propene
(c) group 15 (d) group 16
(iii) Propyne (iv) Chloropropane
27. Which of the following is the outermost shell
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
for elements of period 2 ?
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
21. Vinegar is a solution of (a) K shell (b) L shell
(a) 50% - 60% acetic acid in alcohol (c) M shell (d) N shell
(b) 5% - 8% acetic acid in alcohol 28. Which of the following gives the correct in-
(c) 5% - 8% acetic acid in water creasing order of the atomic radii of O,F and
(d) 50% - 60% acetic acid in water N?
22. Which among the following are unsaturated (a) O,F,N (b) N,F,O
hydrocarbons ?
(c) O,N,F (d) F,O,N
(i) H 3 C  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
29. Which among the following elements has the
(ii) H 3 C  C  C  CH 3 largest atomic radii ?
(a) Na (b) Mg (c) K (d) Ca
(iii) H 3C  CH  CH 3
30. The element with atomic number 14 is hard
CH3 and forms acidic oxide and a covalent ha-
lide. To which of the following categories does
(iv) H 3C  C  CH 2
the element belong ?
CH 3 (a) Metal (b) Metalloid
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) Non-metal
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) (d) Left-hand side element

OSAT - 2019 - SCIENCE Set - 1 - Page - 2 of 10

 31. Three liquids of densities d, 2d and 3d are 38. Rays from Sun converge at a point 15 cm in
mixed in equal volumes. Then the density of front of a concave mirror. Where should an
object be placed so that size of its image is
the mixture is
equal to the size of the object ?
(a) d (b) 2d (c) 3d (d) 5d (a) 15 cm in front of the mirror
32. Which of the following is different from others (b) 30 cm in front of the mirror
(a) Velocity (b) Wavelength (c) between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the
mirror
(c) Frequency (d) Amplitude (d) more than 30 cm in front of the mirror
33. The minimum audible wavelength at room 39. A person cannot see distinctly kept beyond
temperature is about 2m. This defect can be corrected by using a
lens of power
(a) 0.2 Å (b) 5 Å
(a) +0.5 D (b) –0.5D (c) +0.2D (d) - 0.2 D
(c) 5 cm to 2 metre (d) 20 mm
40. Which of the following phenomena of light are
34. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a involved in the formation of a rainbow ?
constant velocity of 10 m/s. When a constant (a)Reflection, refraction and dispersion
force acts for 4 seconds on it, it moves with
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal
a velocity 2 m/sec in the opposite direction. reflection
The acceleration produced in it is
(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
(a) 3 m/sec 2
(b) – 3m/sec 2
(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal
(c) 0.3 m/sec2 (d) – 0.3 m/sec2 reflection
41. The danger signals installed at the top of tall
35. A cold soft drink is kept on the balance. When
buildings are red in colour. These can be
the cap is open, then the weight easily seen from a distance because among
(a) Increases all other colours, the red light
(b) Decreases (a) is scattered the most by smoker or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(c) First increases then decreases
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(d) Remains same
(d) moves fastest in air
36. A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in
front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image 42. The focal length of the eye lens increases
of the awl pin is formed at 30 cm in front of when eye muscles
the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is (a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
(a) - 30 cm (b) -20 cm (b) contract and lens becomes thicker
(c) -40 cm (d) -60 cm (c) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker
37. Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from (d) contract and lens becomes thinner
medium A to medium B. Refractive indexof 43. What is the maximum resistance which can
the medium B relative to medium A is : be made using five resistors each of 1 / 5  ?
(a) 1 / 5  (b) 10  (c) 5  (d) 1 
450 44. Which of the following represents voltage ?
450 Medium B
Work done
300 (a)
Current  Time
Medium A
60 0
(b) Work done Charge

Work done  Time

(a) 3/ 2 (b) 2/ 3 (c)
Current
(c) 1 / 2 (d) 2 (d) Work done Charge Time

OSAT - 2019 - SCIENCE Set - 1 - Page - 3 of 10

 45. A student carries out an experiment and plots
the V-I graph of three samples of nichrome N
wire with resistances R 1 , R 2 and R 3 respec-
tively figure. Which of the following is true ? W E

R1 S
W E
I ampere  R2
(a) directly above the wire
R3 (b) directly below the wire
(c) at a point located in the plane of the pa-
per, on the north side of the wire
V volts  (d) at a point located in the plane of the pa-
per, on the south side of the wire
(a) R 1  R 2  R 3 (b) R 1  R 2  R 3 50. The strength of magnetic field inside a long
current carrying straight solenoid is
(c) R 3  R 2  R 1 (d) R 2  R 3  R 1 (a) more at the ends than at the centre
46. In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 (b) minimum in the middle
and 4 respectively are connected in series (c) same at all points
to a 6 V battery. The heat dissipated by the
(d) found to increase from one end to the
4 resistor in 5 s will be other
(a) 5 J (b) 10 J (c) 20 J (d) 30 J 51. To convert an AC generator into DC genera-
tor
47. An electric kettle consumes 1 kW of electric
power when operated at 220 V. A fuse wire of (a) split-ring type commutator must be used
what rating must be used for it ? (b) Slip rings and brushes must be used
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A (c) 4 A (d) 5 A (c) a stronger magnetic field has to be used
48. For a current in a long straight solenoid N- (d) a rectangular wire loop has to be used
and S-poles are created at the two ends. 52. Which one of the following forms of energy
Among the following statements, the incor- leads to least environmental pollution in the
rect statement is : process of its harnessing and utilisation ?
(a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in (a) Nuclear energy (b) Thermal energy
the form of straight lines which indicates that
the magnetic field is the same at all points (c) Solar energy (d) Geothermal energy
inside the solenoid 53. Ocean thermal energy is due to
(b) The strong magnetic field produced in- (a) energy stored by waves in the ocean
side the solenoid can be used to magnetise (b) temperature difference at different levels
a piece of magnetic material like soft iron, in the ocean
when placed inside the coil
(c) pressure difference at different levels in
(c) The pattern of the magnetic field associ- the ocean
ated with the solenoid is diffrent from the pat-
(d) tides arising out in the ocean
tern of the magnetic field around a bar mag-
net. 54. The major problem in harnessing nuclear
energy is how to
(d) The N- and S-poles excahnge position
when the direction of current through the so- (a) split nuclei ?
lenoid is reversed. (b) sustain the reaction ?
49. A constant current flows in a horizontal wire (c) dispose off spend fuel safely ?
in the plane of the paper from east to west (d) convert nuclear energy into electrical en-
as shown in figure. The direction of magnetic ergy ?
field at a point will be North to South.

OSAT - 2019 - SCIENCE Set - 1 - Page - 4 of 10

 55. In a hydroelectric power plant more electri- Direction : Find the wrong term ?
cal power can be generated if water falls from 61. 9, 54, 44, 264, 254, 1520, 1514
a greater height because (a) 1514 (b) 1520 (c) 264 (d) 44
(a) its temperature increases Direction (62-63) : Find the missing term ?
(b) larger amount of potential energy is con- 62. CK 16 9 JR
verted into kinetic energy
OS 24 19 TX
(c) the electricity content of water increases
with height KM ? ? PV
(d) more water molecules dissociate into ions (a) 56, 84 (b) 84, 56
56. Excessive exposure of humans to U V -rays (c) 21, 14 (d) 14, 21
results in
(i) damage to immune system 63.
(ii) damage to lungs
(iii) skin cancer (a) 33 (b) 23 (c) 22 (d) 14
(iv) peptic ulcers 64. If MOON is coded as 19 and RED is coded
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) as 9, how would you code SISA in the same
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv) code language ?
57. The percentage of solar radiation absorbed (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 13 (d) 18
by all the green plants for the process of pho- Direction : (65) Read the following informa-
tosynthesis is about tion carefully and answer the questions.
(a) 1 % (b) 5% (c) 8 % (d) 10%
(i) Six flats on a floor in two rows, facing east
58. The pH of water sample collected from a river and west are allotted to Q,R,S,T,U and V.
was found to be acidic in the range of 3.5 -
4.5 , on the banks of the river were several (ii) R gets east side facing and not next to T.
factories that were discharging effluents into (iii) T and V get diagonally opposite flats
the river. The effluents of which one of the (iv) S next to V gets a west facing flat
following factories is the most likely cause (v) U gets a east facing flat
for lowering the pH of river water ?
65. Which of the following combination gets west
(a) Soap and detergent factory
facing flats ?
(b) Lead battery manufacturing factory
(c) Plastic cup manufacturing factory (a) SQR (b) RTS (c) STU (d) QSV
(d) Alcohol distillery Directions (66) : In each of the following
59. Choose the incorrect statement questions, two statements are given followed
(a) Fleming’s right-hand rules is a simple rule by three or four conclusions numbered I, II, III
to know the direction of iduced current and IV. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance
(b) The right-hand thumb rule is used to find
from the commonly known facts and then
the direction of magnetic fields due to cur-
decide which of the given conclusions logi-
rent carrying conductors
cally follows from the given statements dis-
(c) The difference between the direct and al-
regarding commonly known facts.
ternating currents is that the direct current
always flows in one direction, whereas the 66. Statements : All politicians are honest. All
alternating current reverses its direction pe- honest are fair.
riodically Conclusions : I. Some honest are politician.
(d) In India, the AC changes direction after II. No honest is politician.
1 III. Some fair are politician.
every second
50 IV. All fair are politician
60. A cylindrical conductor of length l and uni- (a) None follows
form area of cross section A has resistance
R. Another conductor of length 2l and resis- (b) Only I follows
tance R of the same material has area of (c) Only I and II follow
cross section
(d) Only I and III follow
(a) A/2 (b) 3A/2 (c) 2A (d) 3A

OSAT - 2019 - SCIENCE Set - 1 - Page - 5 of 10

 Directions : (67) Read the following infor- 75. Statements : All terrorists are guilty. All ter-
mation and answer the questions that follow. rorists are criminals.
At a Railway station, P family is saying good- Conclusions : I. Either all criminals are guilty
bye to R family. We do not know who is leav- or all guilty are criminals.
ing and who is seeing the other family off. II. Some guilty persons are criminals.
Each memeber of P family says farewell to
III. Generally criminals are guilty.
each member of R family. To say good-bye,
two men shake hands and a man and women IV. Crime and guilt go together.
and two women hug each other. An eyewit- (a) Only I follows
ness to the event counted 21 handshakes (b) Only I and III follows
and 34 hugs. (c) Only II follows
67. How many women were there ? (d) Only II and IV follow
(a) 13 (b) 6 76. In direction for questions no. 67 How many
(c) 34 (d) Can be b or c men were there ?
68. If Sripal’s birthday falls on Thursday 20th (a) 10 (b) 6
March, 2000, then on which day of the week (c) 22 (d) Can be a or c
his birthday falls in the year 2001 ? 77. The day before yesterday I was 25 and the
(a) Wednesday (b) Friday next year I turn 28. On what date did I give
(c) Saturday (d) Sunday that statement ?
69. The number opposite to 3 is (a) 1 January (b) 28 February
(c) 29 February (d) 31 December
78. Two different positions of a dice are shown
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6 below. Which number will appear on the face
opposite the number 4 ?
70. Find the missing term ; 3, 5 ,9 ,17, 33, ?
(a) 49 (b) 51 (c) 57 (d) 65
Direction (71) : Find the wrong term ?
71. AIU, EOA, IUE, OAI, UEO (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 3
(a) AIU (b) EOA (c) IUE (d) OAE 79. In a certain code SEVEN is written as LKJYO
Direction (72) : Find the missing term ? how will you encode FOUR ?
(a) ACUS (b) AUCS (c) APCZ (d) PACZ
72. 80. In direction for question no. 65 If the flats
of U and Q are interchanged then whose flat
will be opposite to the flat of U ?
(a) 7 (b) 25 (c) 129 (d) 625 (a) V (b) Q (c) T (d) S
73. In a certain code, 01234 is coded COUNT, 81. Two trains running in opposite directions
4765 as TRAY, how is 0123475 coded ? cross a man standing on the platform in 27
(a) COUNTRY (b) TRYCOUN seconds and 17 seconds respectively and
they cross each other in 23 seconds. The
(c) RYCOUNT (d) YRCOUNT
ratio of their speeds is:
74. In direction for question no.65 Whose flat
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 2
is between R and T ?
(c) 3 : 4 (d) None of these
(a) Q (b) S (c) U (d) V
82. What was the day of the week on 28th May,
Direction (75) In each of the following ques-
2006?
tions, two statements are given followed by
three or four conclusions numbered I, II, III (a) Thursday (b) Friday
and IV. You have to take the given statements (c) Saturday (d) Sunday
to be true even if they seem to be at variance 83. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the
from the commonly known facts and then sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling
decide which of the given conclusions logi- is equal to the sum of the areas of four walls,
cally follows from the given statements dis- the volume of the hall is:
regarding commonly known facts. (a) 720 (b) 900 (c) 1200 (d) 1800

OSAT - 2019 - SCIENCE Set - 1 - Page - 6 of 10

 84. 50 men took a dip in a water tank 40 m long 93 Which is the correct sequence of air pas-
and 20 m broad on a religious day. If the av- sage during inhalation ?
erage displacement of water by a man is 4 (a) Nostrils  larynx  pharynx  trachea
m3, then the rise in the water level in the tank  lungs
will be:
(b) Nasal passage  trachea  pharynx 
(a) 20 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 35 cm(d) 50 cm larynx  alveoli
85. It is being given that (232 + 1) is completely (c) larynx  nostrils  pharynx  lungs
divisible by a whole number. Which of the fol-
lowing numbers is completely divisible by this (d) Nostrils  pharynx  larynx  trachea
number?  alveoli
94. During respiration exchange of gases take
(a) (216 + 1) (b) (216 - 1)
place in
(c) (7 x 223) (d) (296 + 1) (a) trachea and larynx (b) alveoli of lungs
86. The largest 4 digit number exactly divisible (c) alveoli and throat (d) throat and larynx
by 88 is: 95. In which of the following vertebrate group/
(a) 9944 (b) 9768 (c) 9988 (d) 8888 gorups, heart does not pump oxygenated
87. On dividing a number by 56, we get 29 as blood to different parts of the body ?
remainder. On dividing the same number by (a) Pisces and amphibians
8, what will be the remainder ? (b) Amphibians and reptiles
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (c) Amphibians only (d) Pisces only
88. 3 pumps, working 8 hours a day, can empty 96. During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of hu-
a tank in 2 days. How many hours a day must man beings, pyruvic acid is converted into
4 pumps work to empty the tank in 1 day? lactic acid in the
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12 (a) cytoplasm (b) chloroplast
(c) mitochondria (d) golgi body
89. 39 persons can repair a road in 12 days,
working 5 hours a day. In how many days will 97. Posture and balance of the body is controlled
30 persons, working 6 hours a day, complete by
the work? (a) cerebrum (b) cerebellum
(a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 (c) medulla (d) pons
90. In a camp, there is a meal for 120 men or 98. Spinal cord originates from
200 children. If 150 children have taken the (a) cerebrum (b) medulla
meal, how many men will be catered to with (c) pons (d) cerebellum
remaining meal? 99. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) 50 hormone ?
SECTION - B (a) Adrenaline (b) Thyroxin
91. In which of the following groups of organisms, (c) Auxin (d) Insulin
100. The growth of tendril in pea plants is due to
food material is broken down outside the body
(a) effect of light (b) effect of gravity
and absorbed ?
(c) rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that
(a) Mushroom, green plants, Amoeba are away from the support
(b) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould (d) rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells in
contact with the support
(c) Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta
101. If a man with blood group O is married with a
(d) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm female having blood group AB, which blood
92. The inner lining of stomach is protected by group is not possible in their child?
one of the following from hydrochloric acid. (a) Only blood group O.
Choose the correct one (b) Only blood group AB.
(a) Pepsin (b) Mucus (c) Only blood group B
(d) Both blood groups AB and O.
(c) Salivary amylase (d) Bile

OSAT - 2019 - SCIENCE Set - 1 - Page - 7 of 10

 102. In which part of body of human being “ C- 110. W hich statement is correct about
shaped incomplete cartilaginous ring is found ? respiration?
(a) Intestine. (b) Urinary tract. (a) Fermentation is an example of aerobic
(c) Trachea. respiration.
(d) Both Trachea and Esophagus. (b) Respiration in absence of O2 may be said
103. The theory that “The organs which in as anaerobic respiration.
continuous use develops more vigorously and (c) Aerobic respiration takes place in
those which in less use gradually becomes cytoplasm.
non functional” is given by
(d) All of the above statements are incorrect.
(a) Darwin. (b) Linnaeus.
111. Process of exchange of gasses between
(c) Lamarck. (d) Pasteur.
surrounding environment and lungs may be
104. Human brain is located in cranium of skull. It
said as
is covered by a tissue which is known as
(a) Cellular respiration. (b) Glycolysis.
(a) Pia matter. (b) Meninges.
(c) Krebs cycle. (d) Ventilation.
(c) Peritonium
112. Which of the following ion is involved in the
(d) Pericrinal membrane.
blood clotting mechanism?
105. W ho is regarded as father of modern (a) Mg2+ (b) Ca2+
genetics?
(c) Phosphate. (d) All of the above.
(a) Lamarck. (b) T.H. Morgan.
113. Deficiency of which of the following vitamin
(c) Darwin. (d) Mendel. causes anemia?
106. The flowering plants with covered seed are (a) Vit. B1. (b) Vit. B2.
regarded as (c) Vit. B12. (d) Vit. C.
(a) Gymnosperm plant. 114. Which of the following is correct for protein?
(b) Angiosperm plant. (a) Protein is polypeptide chain.
(c) All the phenerogamous plants (b) There are at least 20 amino acids are
(d) All of the above statements are correct. found in protein.
(c) Proteins are synthesized on m-RNA.
107. Which of the following physiological process
is responsible for loss of extra water (d) All the above statements are correct.
absorbed by plants? 115. Which of the following is correct for Jaundice?
(a) Photosynthesis. (b) Cell respiration. (a) Liver is affected.
(c) Transpiration. (d) Excretion. (b) Water born disease.
108. Which of the following cell organelle shows (c) In this disease bile pigment is get stored
polymorphism? under skin and cornea.

(a) Lysosome. (b) Mitochondria. (d) All of the above statements are correct.
116. Which of the following group of organisms
(c) Golgi complex. (d) None of the above.
belongs from division Thallophyta?
109. Site of Krebs cycle is
(a) Cladophora, Marsiela, Chara.
(a) Stroma of mitochondria. (b) Cladophora, Ipomoea, Marsiela.
(b) Inner side of inner mitochondrial (c) Cladophora, Ulothrix, Ipomoea.
membrane. (d) Cladophora, Chara, Ulothrix.
(c) Outer side of inner mitochondrial 117. Study of bone is known as
membrane (a) Chondriology. (b) Opthalmology.
(d) Matrix of mitochondria.. (c) Osteiology. (d) Nephrology.

OSAT - 2019 - SCIENCE Set - 1 - Page - 8 of 10

 118. At first the true coelom appears in then the number of Re 1 and Rs 2 coins are,
(a) Phylum- Arthropoda. respectively.
(b) Phylum Annelida. (a) 35 and 15 (b) 35 and 20
(c) Phylum- Porifera. (c) 15 and 35 (d) 25 and 25
(d) Phylum- Cnideria. 96. The father’s age is six times his son’s age.
Four years hence, the age of the father will
119. Which kind of blood vascular system is be four times his son’s age. The present
found in cockroach? ages, in years, of the son and the father are,
(a) Closed vascular system. respectively.
(b) Lymphatic system. (a) 4 and 24 (b) 5 and 30
(c) Open circulatory system. (c) 6 and 36 (d) 3 and 24
(d) Both (a) and (c). 97. Which of the following equations has no real
120. Which of the following is chief stored food roots ?
material in fungi? (a) x 2  4x  3 2  0 (b) x 2  4x  3 2  0
(a) Starch. (b) Maltose.
(c) x  4x  3 2  0 (d) 3x  4 3x  4  0
2 2
(c) Glycogen. (d) Glucose.
98. The 21st term of the AP whose first two terms
SECTION–C are -3 and 4 is :
91. If two positive integers a and b are written as : (a) 17 (b) 137 (c) 143 (d) -143
a  x 3 y2 and b  xy3 , x, y are prime numbers, 99. Two APs have the same common difference.
The first term of one of these is -1 and that of
then HCF (a,b) is
the other is -8. Then the difference between
(a) xy (b) xy2 (c) x 3 y3 (d) x 2 y2 their 4th terms is :
92. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial (a) -1 (b) -8 (c) 7 (d) -9
x 2   a  1 x  b are 2 and -3, then
100. The sum of first 16 terms of the AP: 10, 6, 2,
... is
(a) a  7, b  1 (b) a  5, b  1 (a) -320 (b) 320 (c) -352 (d) -400
(c) a  2, b  6 (d) a  0, b  6 101. The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus
are 16cm and 12 cm. Then, the length of the
93. Which of the following is not the graph of a
side of the rhombus is
quadratic polynomial ?
(a) 9 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 20 cm
102. In triangles,ABC and DEF,
(a) (b) B  E, F  C and AB  3 DE . Then,
the two triangles are
(a) congruent but not similar
(b) similar but not congruent
(c) neither congruent nor similar
(c) (d) (d) congruent as well as similar
103. AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices
are vertices A  0,3 ,O  0,0  and B  5,0  . The
94. The pair of equations x  2y  5  0 and
length of its diagonal is :
3x  6y  1  0 have
(a) a unique solution (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 34 (d) 4
(b) exactly two solutions 104. The fourth vertex D of a parallelogram ABCD
(c) infinitely many solutions whose three vertices are A  2,3 ,B  6,7 
and C  8,3 is :
(d) no solution
95. Aruna has only Rs 1 and Rs 2 coins with her.
If the total number of coins that she has is 50 (a)  0,1 (b)  0, 1 (c)  1,0  (d) 1,0 
and the amount of money with her is Rs 75,

OSAT - 2019 - SCIENCE Set - 1 - Page - 9 of 10

 105. A line intersects the y-axis and x-axis at the (a) 306 m2 (b) 218 m2
points P and Q, respectively. If  2, 5  is the (c) 356 m 2
(d) None
mid-point of PQ, then the coordinates of P 114. ABC is a right triangle such that AB = AC and
and Q are, respectively bisector of angle C intersects the side AB at
(a)  0, 5  and  2,0  (b)  0,10  and  4,0  D.

(c)  0, 4  and  10,0  (d)  0, 10  and  4,0 

Then AC + AD =
(a) ½BC (b) ¼ BC
106. The area of a triangle with vertices
 a, b  c  ,  b,c  a  and  c,a  b  is
(c)BC (d)None of these
115. If bisectors of A and B of a quadrilateral ABCD
(a)  a  b  c  (b) 0 intersect each other at P, of B and C at Q, of
2

(c) a  b  c (d) abc C and D at R and of D and A at S, then PQRS

is a
107. If cos 9  sin  and 9  900 , then the value
(a) rectangle (b) rhombus
of tan 5 is :
(c) parallelogram
1 (d) quadrilateral whose opposite angles are
(a) (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 0
3 supplementary
108. If sin A  sin 2 A  1 , then the value of the ex- 116. S is any point in the interior of PQR. Then
pression  cos A  cos A  is : which of the following option is correct ?
2 4

(a) SQ + SR < PQ + PR
1
(a) 1 (b)(c) 2 (d) 3 (b) SQ + SR > PQ + PR
2
(c) SQ + SR = PQ + PR
109. In figure, if O is the centre of a circle, PQ is a
chord and the tangent PR at P makes an (d) None of these
angle of 500 with PQ, then POQ is equal to 117. In a circle if a chord AB is nearer to the centre
O than the chord CD then
P
(a) AB = CD (b) AB>CD
500 R
(c) AB < CD (d) AB CD
O 118. The number of planks of dimensions (4 m ×
Q 50 cm × 20 cm) that can be stored in a pit
which is 16 m long, 12m wide and 4 m deep
(a) 1000 (b) 800 (c) 900 (d) 750 is :
110. If the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a (a) 1900 (b) 1920 (c) 1800 (d) 1840
square, then the ratio of their areas is: 119. In the given figure if ABC is an equilateral
(a) 22 : 7 (b) 14 : 11
(c) 7 : 22 (d) 11 : 14 triangle then the value of BEC is
111. The area of the circle that can be inscribed
in a square of side 6 cm is:
(a) 36  cm2 (b) 18  cm 2
(c) 12  cm 2 (d) 9  cm2
112. A cone is cut through a plane parallel to its
base and the cone that is formed on one side
of that plane is removed. The new part that (a) 30º (b) 60º
is left over on the other side of the plane is (c) 120º (d) 180º
called 120. The surface area of a sphere of radius 5 cm
(a) a frustum of a cone (b) cone
(c) cylinder (d) sphere is five times the area of the curved surface
113. Find the area of quadrilateral PQRS whose of a cone of radius 4 cm. Find the volume of
sides are 9m, 40m, 28m and 15m the cone (taking  =22/7)
respectively and the angle between first two (a) 55.29 cm3 (b) 50.29 cm3
sides is a right angle. (c) 60.29 cm3 (d) 72.29 cm3

OSAT - 2019 - SCIENCE Set - 1 - Page - 10 of 10

 ODM SCHOLARSHIP ADMISSION TEST 2019

OSAT | Nucleus 40

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

www.odmps.org admission@odmegroup.org
 SECTION – A 08. A metallic block of density 5 gm cm 3 and
01. The acceleration of a moving body can be having dimensions 5 cm × 5 cm × 5 cm is
found from weighed in water. Its apparent weight will be
(a) Area under velocity-time graph (a) 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 gf (b) 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 gf
(b) Area under distance-time graph (c) 5 × 4 × 4 × 4 gf (d) 4 × 5 × 5 × 5 gf
(c) Slope of the velocity-time graph 09. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have
(d) Slope of distance-time graph equal kinetic energies. If p1 and p2 are their
respective momentum, then ratio p1: p2 is
02. A cricket ball of mass 250 g collides with a equal to
bat with velocity 10 m/s and returns with the
(a) m1 : m2 (b) m2 : m1
same velocity within 0.01 second. The force
acted on bat is (c) m1 :m2 (d) m12 : m22
(a) 25 N (b) 50 N (c) 250 N (d) 500 N
10. The depth d at which the value of acceleration
03. The gravitational force between two stones due to gravity becomes 1n times the value
of mass 1 kg each separated by a distance at the surface, is
of 1 metre in vacuum is
[R = radius of the earth]
(a) Zero (b) 6.675x10–5 N
(c) 6.675x10–11N (d) 6.675x10–8 N R  n  1
(a) (b) R  
04. The kinetic energy acquired by a body of n  n 
mass m is travelling some distance s,
R  n 
starting from rest under the actions of a (c) (d) R  
constant force, is directly proportional to
n2  n  1

(a) m0 (b) m (c) m2 (d) 11. A stone tied to the end of a string 80 cm is
m
whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant
05. A particle experiences a constant
speed. If the stone makes 14 revolutions in
acceleration for 20 sec after starting from rest.
25 sec. What is the magnitude of the angu-
If it travels a distance S1 in the first 10 sec
lar speed ?
and a distance S2 in the next 10 sec, then
(a) 2.54 rad/s (b) 3.52 rad/s
(a) S1=S2 (b) S1=S2 /3
(c) 1.34 rad/s (d) 4.78 rad/s
(c) S1= S2 /2 (d) S1=S2 /4
06. A thief stole a box full of valuable articles of 12. A particle of mass m1 moving with velocity v
weight W and while carrying it on his back, collides with a mass m 2 at rest, and it is found
he jumped down a wall of height ‘h’ from the that the moving mass embeds itself in the
ground. Before he reached the ground he second mass at rest. Just after collision, ve-
experienced a load of locity of the system.

(a) 2W (b) W (c) W/2 (d) Zero (a) Increases (b) Decreases
07. Two planets have the same average density (c) remains constant (d) becomes zero
but their radii are R1 and R2 . If acceleration
13. If the value of ‘g’ (acceleration due to gravity)
due to gravity on these planets be g1 and g2
at a height h above the surface of the earth is
respectively, then
the same as at a depth d below it, then (As-
g1 R1 g1 R2 sume that h and d << R where R = earth’s
(a)  (b) 
g2 R2 g2 R1 radius):
(a) h  d (b) h  d / 2
g1 R12 g1 R13
(c)  (d) 
g2 R 22 g2 R32 (c) d  2h (d) d  h 2

OSAT - 2019 - NUCLEUS-40 Set - 2 - Page - 1 of 8

14. An empty chamber of petrol of volume 50 li- 21. The lungs perform 2.4 J of work during each
tre has a mass 8 kg. It is filled with petrol of expansion. How many times they expand per
relative density 0.7. The mass of the petrol minute if their power is 4 Watt ?
chamber is : (a) 100 (b) 50 (c) 72 (d) 36
(a) 23 kg (b) 33 kg (c) 43 kg (d) 53 kg 22. A man standing on a cliff claps his hand hears
15. A force acts on a 30 gm particle in such a its echo after 1 sec. If sound is reflected from
way that the position of the particle as a func- another mountain and velocity of sound in air
is 340 m/sec. Then the distance between the
tion of time is given by x  3t  4t  t ,
2 3
man and reflection point is :
where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The
work done during the first 4 seconds is : (a) 680 m (b) 340 m (c) 85 m (d) 170 m
(a) 5.28 J (b) 6.28 J (c) 10 J (d) 8.85 J 23. A car moves a distance of 200 km. It covers
the first half of the distance at speed 40 km/
16. Ultrasonic, infrasonic and audible waves
h and second half of the distance by speed
travel through a medium with speeds
v. The average speed is 48 km/h. Find the
v u , vi and v a respectively, then : value of v.
(a) 56 km/h (b) 60 km/h
(a) v u  vi  v a (b) v u  vi  v a
(c) 50 km/h (d) 58 km/h
(c) v u  vi  v a (d) vi  v a  v u 24. A player stops a football weighing 0.5 kg which
comes flying towards him with a velocity of
17. The coordinates of a moving particle at any
10 m/s. If the impact lasts for 1/ 50 th sec.
time ‘t’ are given by x  at 2 and y  bt 2 . The
and the ball bounces back with a velocity of
speed of the particle at any moment is : 15 m/s, then the average force involved is :

(a) 2t  a  b  a  b2 
(a) 250 N (b) 1250 N
(b) 2t
2
(c) 500 N (d) 625 N

a  b2 
25. Four particles each of mass m, are placed
(c) t a 2  b 2 (d) 2t
2
at the vertices of square and are moving along
a circle of radius r under the influence of mu-
18. Gravels are dropped on to a conveyor belt at
tual gravitational attraction. The speed of each
the rate of 0.5 kgs 1 . The extra force (in new- particle will be :

 
ton) required to keep the belt moving at
Gm Gm
2 ms 1 is : (a) 2 2 1 (b)
r r
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5
19. The acceleration due to gravity on the sur-
face of the moon is one sixth that on the sur-
(c)
Gm
r

2 2 1  (d) 2 2
Gm
r
face of earth’s and the diameter of the moon
26. The pressure at the bottom of the four ves-
is one fourth of that of earth. The ratio of es-
cape velocity on moon and earth will be : sels filled with water to the same level is
P1 , P2 , P3 and P4 respectively. Then which of
1 2 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) the following conclusion is correct.
24 16 3 24
20. A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel which is
being rotated about a vertical axis through the
centre of the circular base. If the radius of
the vessel is r and angular velocity of rota-
tion is  , then the difference in the heights
of the liquid at the centre of the vessel and
the edge is

r 22 r 22 r 22 r 22

(a) (b) (c) (d)
4g 2g 8g 6g

OSAT - 2019 - NUCLEUS-40 Set - 2 - Page - 2 of 8

 (a) P1  P2  P3  P4 (b) P1  P2  P3  P4 34. The principle used in diagnostic laboratories
for blood and urine tests is
(c) P1  P4  P2  P3 (d) P1  P2  P3 P4 (a) Chromatography (b) Evaporation
(c) Filtration (d) centrifugation
27. 3.01  10 23 molecules of elemental Sulphur
will react with 0.5 mole of oxygen gas com- 35. Fusion is the process of conversion of
pletely to produce (a) liquid into gas (b) solid into gas
(c) solid into liquid (d) liquid into solid
(a) 6.02  10 23 molecules of SO3
36. Which of the following statements is/are cor-
(b) 6.02  10 23 molecules of SO 2 rect ?
(a) Intermolecular forces of attraction in sol-
(c) 3.01  10 23 molecules of SO3
ids are maximum.
(d) 3.01 1023 molecules of SO 2 (b) Intermolecular forces of attraction in gases
are minimum.
28. The element X which form a stable product
(c) Intermolecular spaces in solids are mini-
of the type XCl 4 is : mum.
(a) Al (b) Na (c) Ca (d) Si (d) All of the above
29. One mole of CO 2 means : 37. Which of the following is a characteristic
property of both mixtures and compounds ?
(a) 4.4 gm CO 2 (b) STP (a) Their properties are same as those of their
components
(c) CO 2  6.022  10 23 (d) 22 gm CO 2
(b) Energy is released when they are formed
30. Alpha particles are (c) Their masses are equal to the sum of the
(a) helium atom (b) helium gas masses of their components.
(c) positively charged helium ions (d) They contain the components in fixed
(d) helium electrons propertions.
31. A proton is actually a 38. Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of
(a) hydrogen atom which has lost its elec- 1 : 8 by mass to form water. What mass of
tron oxygen gas would be required to react com-
(b) helium atom which has gained one elec- pletely with 3g of hydrogen gas ?
tron (a) 24 g (b) 27 g (c) 21 g (d) 3 g
(c) helium atom which has lost its electron 39. The mass of a proton is :
(d) hydrogen atom which has gained one (a) 1.6725 10 24 g (b) 9.1090 10 28 g
electron
32. When a paper is burnt it is considered a (c) 1.6725 10 24 g (d) None of these
chemical change because
40. Which element has a definite volume but no
(a) the change is temporary shape ?
(b) there is no change in mass
(a) Mercury (b) Iron
(c) the volume is changed
(c) Tin (d) Steel
(d) the chemical composition changes and
the change is permanent 41. Which of the following is a heterogeneous
mixture ?
33. A mixture of chalk powder and water can be
separated by using the technique of filtration (a) Air (b) Brass
because (c) Iodised table salt (d) Steel
(a) chalk powder remains suspended in wa- 42. A chemical equation is always balanced to
ter fulfill the condition of
(b) they form a miscible solution (a) Law of constant proportions
(c) the mixture can easily pass through filter (b) Law of multiple proportions
paper
(c) Law of conservation of mass
(d) Water acts as a good solvent
(d) All of these

OSAT - 2019 - NUCLEUS-40 Set - 2 - Page - 3 of 8

43. What is the chemical formula of Sodium 54. The bisectors of angles of a parallelogram
phosphate ? makes a figure which is
(a) Na 3 PO 4 (b) Na 3 PO3 (a) Rectangle (b) Circle

(c) Na 3 PO 2 (d) NaPO 4 (c) Pentagon (d) Octagon

55. The figure obtained by joining the mid-points
44. Ice floats on water because :
of the adjacent sides of a rectangle of sides
(a) density of ice is higher than water
8 cm and 6 cm is :
(b) density of ice is lower than water
(a) a rectangle of area 24cm2
(c) temperature of ice is lower than water
(d) temperature of water is higher than ice (b) a square of area 25cm2
45. Presence of impurities : (c) a trapezium of area 24cm2
(a) lowers the boiling point of liquid (d) a rhombus of area 24cm2
(b) increases the melting point of solid 56. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle
(c) increases the boiling point of liquid and BAC =nº, OCB =mº, then :
(d) none of these
46. A chemical equation is balanced in accor-
dance with the law of :
(a) conservation of mass
(b) multiple proportion
(c) constant proportion
(a) m + n = 90º (b) m + n = 180º
(d) reciprocal proportion
47. Which of the following has 4-electrons in its (c) m + n = 120º (d) m + n = 150º
valence shell ?
6 3
2
(a) He (b) Si (c) Be (d) Li
The value of 
27  6 
48. The smell of perfume spreads out by a pro-
57.
 4 
cess known as :
(a) evaporation (b) diffusion 3 3
3 3
(c) condensation (d) fusion (a) (b) (c) (d)
2 4 2 4
49. Which of the following will diffuse faster ?
58. A cone is 8.4 cm high and the radius of its
(a) H 2 (b) Fe (c) Na (d) Hg base is 2.1 cm. It is melted and recast into a
50. Which of the following atoms contain least sphere. The radius of the sphere is :
number of neutrons ?
(a) 4.2 cm (b) 2.1cm
(a) 235
92 U (b) 238
92 U (c) 239
93 Np (d) 240
93 Np (c) 2.4 cm (d) 1.6 cm
SECTION – B ( 51 TO 75 ) 59. A bag contains 20 balls of different colours.
51. If 2 – 2
x x–1
= 16, then the value of x is : 2 The probability of drawing a black ball is 4/5
then number of black balls in the bag is :
(a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 16 (d) 25
52. The remainder obtained when t6+3t2+10 is (a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 20
divided by t3 + 1 is : 60. If R1 and R2 are remainders when x3 + 2x2 –
(a) t2 – 11 (b) 3t2 + 11 5ax – 7 and x3+ ax2 – 12ax + 6 are divided by
(c) t3 – 1 (d) t4 + 1 x + 1 and x – 2 and if 2R1 + R2 = 6 ,then the
value of a is -
53. The reflection of the line y = – 3 on the x-
axis is, (a) –2/5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) x = – 3 (b) x = 3 61. The line x + 5y – 20 = 0 passes through
(c) y = 3 (d) y = 0 (a) (5,1) (b) (5,3) (c) (5,–3) (d) (3,5)

OSAT - 2019 - NUCLEUS-40 Set - 2 - Page - 4 of 8

62. Find the measure of an angle, if seven 71. An isosceles triangle have equal sides 12 cm
times its complement is 10º less than and base is 18 cm. Then the height of the
three times its supplement. triangle corresponding to the base (in cm) is :
(a) 40º (b) 25º (c) 30º (d) 15º (a) 3 (b) 3 7 (c) 3 11 (d) 6
63. The sides of a triangle are 10 cm, 24 cm and 72. E is the mid-point of a median AD of ABC
26 cm. Find its longest altitude. and BE is produced to meet AC at F.
(a) 36 cm (b)24cm Then AF =
(c) 48 cm (d) None
(a) 12 AC (b) 13 AC
64. One fourth of one third of one half of a number
is 12, then number is : 1
(c) 4 AC (d) None of these
(a) 284 (b) 286 (c) 288 (d) 290
65. One angle of a cyclic quadrilateral is twice 1
73. If x = 2+ 3 then x  
2

its opposite angle. Then the smaller of the x2

two angles is (a) 14 2 (b) 12 2
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 12 (d) 14
(d) 60° (d) None of these 74. The value of
66. If 14  6 5  a  b , then find value of a+b.
(a) 3  5 (b) 3 5 (a1/8+a–1/8)(a1/8– a–1/8)(a1/4+a–1/4)(a1/

(c) 8 (d) 5 5 2+a–1/2) is :

67. The radii of two cylinders are in the ratio of (a) (a + a–1) (b) (a – a–1)
2:3 and their heights are in the ratio of 5:3.
(d) (a2 – a–2) (d) None of these
The ratio of their volumes is :
(a) 10 : 17 (b) 20 : 27 75. The radius of a sphere is increased by
10%. Then the percentage increase in
(c) 17 : 27 (d) 20 : 37
volume will be approximately.
68. Cards marked with the numbers 2 to 101 are
(a) 30.1 % (b) 33.1 %
placed in a box and mixed thoroughly. One
card is drawn from this bag. The probability (d) 31.5 % (d) 36.33 %
that the number on the card is a prime less SECTION – C ( 51 to 90 )
than 50 is : 51. Haploid number of chromosome in onion is

3 1 7 11 (a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 16 (d) 18

(a) (b) (c) (d)
20 20 20 20 52. In human body the digestion of protein starts
69. D and E are the mid-points of the sides AB in
and AC respectively of ABC. DE is produced (a) Mouth cavity (b) Small intestine
to F. To prove that CF is equal and parallel to
DA, we need an additional information which (c) Stomach (d) Liver
is : 53 Which of the following enzyme is secreted
(a) DAE = EFC (b) AE = EF by liver in human being
(c) DE = EF (d) ADE = ECF (a) Lysozyme (b) Lipase
70. Ray OS stands on a line POQ. Ray OR and (c) Protease
ray OT are angle bisectors of POS and
SOQ, respectively. If POS = x, find
(d) No enzyme is secreted by the liver

ROT.. 54. A normal man is married with a normal but

(a) 60º (b) 80º carrier color blind female. What is probability
of color blind female offspring.
(c) 90º (d) None of these

OSAT - 2019 - NUCLEUS-40 Set - 2 - Page - 5 of 8

 (a) 50% will be color blind 63. Which of the following is main function of
(b) 50% will be normal but carrier female off Intergovernmental panel on climate change?
spring (a) Regular assessment of concentration of
(c) No female off spring will be color blind Ozone in environment and recording their
(d) Data given is insufficient impact on global environment
55. Schizocoelom may be found in (b) Regular assessment of concentration of
(a) Cockroach (b) Star fish green house gases and recording their
(c) Human being (d) All of the above impact on global environment
56. W hich of the following cannot be the (c) Regular assessment of biomagnifications
characteristics of skeletal muscle and recording their impact on global
environment
(a) Syncytial (b) Striation absent
(d) Assessment of flow of energy in
(c) Usually unbranched
environment
(d) Under control of our will
57. Which of the following cell organelle is 64. The phenomenon of progressive increase in
responsible for detoxification? concentration of harmful non-biodegradable
chemicals at different trophic level in food
(a) Lysosome (b) G. complex
chain is known as
(c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(a) Eutorification (b) Littering
(d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
58. The fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane (c)Biomagnification (d) Biodegradation
was given by 65. The average temperature of earth’s surface
(a) Danielli and Davson is about
(b) Robertson (a) 15 degree Centigrade
(c) Michell (b) 20 degree Centigrade
(d) Singer and Nicolson (c) 30 degree centigrade
59. Which of the following plant tissue has ability
(d) Does not remain fixed
to divide
66. Which of the following group of gases are
(a) Parenchyma tissue
green house gases?
(b) Meristematic tissue
(c) Chlorenchyma tissue (a) CH4 , CO2, and SO2

(d) Collenchyma tissue (b) CH4 , CO2, and N2O

60. A child has blood group O. Which of the (c) CFC , CO2, and SO2
following antigen is found at the surface of (d) All of the above
plasma membrane of his RBC ?
67. Which of the following is correct expansion
(a) A (b) A
of IUCN?
(c) AB (d) None of the above
(a) International union for conservation of
61. Which of the following is surgical technique
nature and natural resources
used in male to prevent pregnancy?
(b) International unity of nations
(a) IUDs (b) Tubectomy
(c) Vasectomy (d) All of the above (c) International university of nature and
natural resources
62. Energy flow in food chain follows
(a) 90% rule (b) 25% rule (d) International union of nations for
conservation of natural resources
(c) 100% rule (d) 10% rule

OSAT - 2019 - NUCLEUS-40 Set - 2 - Page - 6 of 8

68. W hich of the following organization is (c) Depicts divergent evolution or adaptive
responsible to regulate international trades radiation
of wild flora and fauna? (d) None of the above
(a) CITES (b) IUCN 75. Which of the following is vestigial organ in
(c) IBWL (d) All of the above human beings
69. Pick the right combination of terms which has (a) Wisdom tooth
no fossil fuel. (b) Nictitating membrane
(a) Wind, Ocean and Coal (c) Vermiform appendix
(b) Kerosene, Wind, and Tide
(d) All of the above
(c) Wind, Wood, Sun
76. The multicellular organism that reproduces
(d) Petroleum, Wood and Sun by budding is
70. Which of the following is correct expansion (a) Rhizopus (b) Agaricus
of CNG
(c) Hydra (d) Yeast
(a) Combined natural gas
77. Which of the following is not function of testes
(b) Compressed natural gas at puberty?
(c) Compressed normal gas I. Formation of germ cells
(d) Combined natural gases II. Secretion of testosterone
71. If the testa is removed from water soaked III. Development of placenta
gram seed the remaining structure is IV. Secretion of Oestrogen
(a) Full mature embryo (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(b) Cotyledon with endosperm (c) (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
(c) Cotyledon filled with starch 78. Choose the name of disease which is not
STD
(d) Half mature embryo
(a) Syphillis (b) Hepatitis
72. The differences in the traits shown by the
(c) HIV-AIDS (d) Gonorrhoea
individuals of a species is reffered as
79. If 2N number of chromosome in the skin cell
(a) Heredity (b) Evolution
of an organism is 36. How many
(c) Variation (d) Genetics
chromosome will be found in their unfertilized
73. Which of the pair of structures have different egg and zygote respectively
embryonic origin but they are adapted to
(a) 36 and 36 (b) 18 and 18
perform same function?
(c) 36 and 18 (d)18 and 36
(a) Tendril of Passiflora and Thorn of
Bougainvillea 80. Which of the following is largest endocrine
(b) Potato and Sweet potato gland of our body?
(c) Fore limb of Birds and Fore limb of Tiger (a) Pancreas (b) Liver
(d) Brain of Frog and Brain of Rabbit (c) Thyroid (d) Adrenal gland
74. Which of the following is not correct for the 81. Which of the following is regarded as master
homologous organs? of all endocrine glands?
(a) Perform different function (a) Pineal gland (b) Parathyroid gland
(b) Having different basic plan but similar
origin (c) Pancreas (d) Pituitary gland

OSAT - 2019 - NUCLEUS-40 Set - 2 - Page - 7 of 8

82. Mineralocorticoid is a hormone which may 86. Which of the following is correct for the
also be known as Aldosterone. It regulates voluntary muscle?
the water balance in our body. This hormone (a) Also known as striated muscle
may be secreted by
(b) Associated with skeletal system
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Adrenal medulla (c) Under control of our will
(c) Adrenal cortex (d) Parathyroid gland (d) All of the above

83. Which of the following is said as fight and 87. In human beings the heart is
flight hormone? (a) Neurogenic (b) Myogenic
(c) Neuro-myogenic(d) None of the above
(a) Glucocorticoids (b) Mineralocorticoids
88. Which of the following tissue in higher plants
(c) Androgen (d) Adrenalin
is responsible for translocation of food?
84. Movement of curvature in plants due to turgor (a) Xylem and Phloem (b) Only Xylem
change may be known as
(c) Only Phloem (d) Parenchyma
(a) Tropic movement (b) Nastic movement 89. The bicuspid valve in human heart is found
(c) Locomotion (d) All of the above in between

85. Which of the following organ system is (a) Right and left auricle
responsible for chemical control and (b) Left and right ventricles
coordination of our body? (c) Left artery and left vein
(a) Nervous system (d) Left auricle and left ventricle

(b) Muscular system 90. Structural and functional unit of kidney is

(a) Neuron (b) Nephron
(c) Endocrine system
(c) Glomerulus (d) Both (b) and (c)
(d) Skeletal system

***

OSAT - 2019 - NUCLEUS-40 Set - 2 - Page - 8 of 8

 ODM SCHOLARSHIP ADMISSION TEST 2019

OSAT | COMMERCE

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

www.odmps.org admission@odmegroup.org
 ENGLISH 11. Supply suitable articles/ determiners in the
following questions:
Pick out the most appropriate option from the
choices to find words similar in meaning to He is __________ MP.
the words given in the question below: (a) a (b) an
01. Rite (c) the (d) None of the above.
(a) justice (b) straight 12. She has done the work __________ .
(c) Solemn activity (d) Faith (a) Himself (b) Herself
02. Err (c) Yourself (d)None of the above
(a) To waver (b)To makes mistake 13. There is __________ sense in what he says.
(c) to delay (d) None of the above. (a) Not (b) Lot
03. Respite (c) Neither (d) Little
(a) Interval or rest (b) Breathe 14. He is speaking like __________ Kalidas.
(c) Fatigue (d) Tolerate. (a) The (b) a (c) An (d) that
04. Regime 15. __________ of these mangoes is good.
(a) order of procedure (a) All (b) No (c) none (d) Some
(b) System of government Fill in the blanks with the right choice from
(c) Recipe for cooking (d) Peacefulness the options given under each questions.

05. Berign 16. Do not forget __________ the door when you
go out
(a) Radiant (b) Religion
(a) Lock (b) Locked
(c) Hopeful (d) Kindly
(c) To lock (d)None of the above
Pick out the most appropriate option from the
choices to find words opposite in meaning to 17. He has not __________ to complete the task.
the words given in the question below: (a) Forgotten (b) Forget
06. Alert (c) Forgetting (d)None of the above
(a) Cautious (b) Strong 18. Mother __________ tea for five minutes.
(c) Dormant (d) Poor. (a) Has prepared (b) Preparing
07. Barbarous (c) Has been preparing (d)None of the above
(a) Civilized (b) Inimical 19. He will not come to the function unless he
(c) Basic (d) Evil. __________.
08. Abandon (a) invited (b) was invited
(a) Forgive (b) For sake (c) must invite (d) is invited
(c) Sympathise (d) Progress 20. No news __________ good news.
09. Adversity (a) Are (b) Is
(a) Priority (b) Popularity (c) Can (d) None of the above
(c) Prosperity (d) Adequacy. Fill in the blanks with correct prepositions
10. Blame from the choice given below:
(a) Define (b) Appreciate 21. The pond is devoid __________ water.
(c) Criticize (d) Scrutinize (a) To (b) By (c) Of (d) On

OSAT - 2019 – COMMERCE Set - 1 - Page - 1 of 6

22. He has promised to abstain __________ 34. __________ teaching English, she also
liquor. writes children’s book.
(a) On (b) From (c) To (d) By. (a) moreover (b) as well as
23. His current statement is contradictory (c) in addition (d) Apart.
__________ his yesterday’s statement. 35. She had changed so much that __________
(a) On (b) By (c) To (d) In anyone recognize her.
(a) almost (b) hardly (c) Not (d) nearly.
24. They prefer tea __________ coffee.
36. Fortunately __________ from a bump on the
(a) Of (b) For (c) In (d) To
head, she suffered no seriopus injuries from
25. You have to bear __________ the loss. her fall.
(a) For (b) With (c) In (d) On (a) other (b) except (c) besides (d) apart.
26. You ought to take up swimming for the 37. He spent a long time looking for a tie which
__________ of your health. __________ with the new shirt.
(a) Concern (b) Relief (a) fixed (b) made (c) Went (d) wore
(c) sake (d) cause 38. Don’t make such a __________ , the dentist
27. My remarks were __________ as a joke, but is only going to look at your teeth.
she was offended by them. (a) fuss (b) trouble
(a) pretended (b) thought (c) worry (d) reaction.
(c) meant (d) Supposed 39. She came to live here __________ a month
28. I suggest , we __________ outside the ago.
stadium tomorrow at 8.30. (a) quite (b) beyond (c) already (d) almost
(a) meeting (b) meet (c) met (d)Will meet 40. I have always __________ you as my friend.
29. Jane remained clam when she won the lottery (a) regarded (b) thought
and __________ about her business as if (c) meant (d) waste.
nothing had happened. 41. Because it had not rained for several months,
(a) came (b) Brought (c) went (d) Moved there was a __________ of water.
30. National leaders from all over the world are (a) shortage (b) drop
expected to attend the __________ meeting. (c) scarce (d) waste
(a) peak (b) summit (c) Top (d) apex 42. The singer ended the concert __________
31. Mary was disappointed with her new shirt as her most popular song.
the colour __________ very quickly. (a) by (b) with (c) in (d) as
(a) bleached (b) died 43. My holiday in Paris gave me a great
__________ to improve my French accent.
(c) Vanished (d) Faded.
(a) occassion (b) chance
32. The books __________ of ten chapters, each
(c) hope (d) possibility
one covering a different topic.
44. I will give my spare keys in case you
(a) comprises (b) includes
__________ home before me.
(c) consists (d) Contains.
(a) would get (b) got
33. It was clear that the young couple were (c) will get (d) get
__________ of taking charge of the 45. The children won’t go to sleep__________
restaurant. we leave a light on outsight their bedroom.
(a) responsible (b) reliable (a) except (b) otherwise
(c) capable (d) able (c) unless (d) But.

OSAT - 2019 – COMMERCE Set - 1 - Page - 2 of 6

 Read the paragraph carefully and fill in 56. Who has the sole right to issue bank notes
the blanks from the following questions: of all denominations?
Older Britons are the worst in Europe, when (a) SBI (b) RBI
it comes to keeping their teeth, but British (c) Finance Ministry
young stars. (d) Planning Commission
46. __________ more to smile about because . 57. How many languages are printed on Indian
(a) getting (b) got (c) have (d) having currency?
47. __________ teeth are among the best. (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 17
Almost 80% of Britona over 65 have lost all 58. Which of the following controls the share
or some. market in India?
(a) their (b) his (c) them (d) theirs (a) BIFR (b) FERA

48. __________ their teeth, according to WHO (c) SEBI (d) MRTP Act.
survey. Eating too. 59. GST council is chaired by whom?
(a) from (b) of (c) among (d) between (a) President (b) Prime minister
49. __________ sugar is part of problem among. (c) Finance Minister
(a) much (b) lot (c) many (d) Deal (d) Union commerce minister
50. __________ , 12 years olds have an average 60. The Indian economy is characterized as a
on three missing, decayed or filled teeth. (a) Socialistic form of economy
(a) person (b) people (b) Capitalistic pattern
(c) children (d) Family (c) Mixed economy (d) None of the above

ECONOMICS 61. COKE & PEPSI are substitute to each other.

With the increase in price of Pepsi the
51. Who mints the coins in India?
demand for coke will __________?
(a) Ministry of finance
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Constant (d)None of the above.
(c) Prime minister of India
62. Expenditure incurred in the process of
(d) Ministry of commerce and industry.
productio0n is called __________ ?
52. Who is the current Governor of Reserve Bank
of India? (a) Profit (b) Revenue
(a) Bimal Jalan (b) C D Desmukh (c) Cost (d) None of the above.
(c) Urjit Patel (d) Shaktikant das 63. Continuous increase in general price level
53. Currently what is the share of agriculture and fall in value of money is a situation of :
sector in the Indian Economy? (a) Defletion (b) Inflation
(a) 53% (b) 25% (c) 17% (d) 33% (c) Stagnation (d)None of the above
54. Which of the following sector has highest 64. If the demand for a product increases over
share in the total import of India during the the supply of the product in the market the
period of April to Nov, 2017-18. price of the product will:
(a) chemical related product (a) remain constant (b) decrease
(b) petrolium product (c) increase (d)none of the above.
(c) gems and jewellery 65. KALIA yojona in Odisha associated with
(d) electronics goods. __________.
55. Who is the chairman of planning commission ? (a) industrial sector (b) service sector
(a) President of India (b) Prime minister (c) upliftment of BPL class people
(c) Vice president (d) Finance minister. (d) agriculture sector.

OSAT - 2019 – COMMERCE Set - 1 - Page - 3 of 6

66. Which of the following state has launched the MATHMATICS
PEETHA scheme?
76. A,B & C rent a pasture. A puts 10 Oxen for 7
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka months, B puts 12 months for 5 months and
(c) Odisha (d) West Bengal C puts 15 oxen for 3 months for gazing. If the
67. Which country is not a member of SAARC? rent of the pasture is Rs 175, how much C
(a) Pakistan (b) Myanmar pays as his share of rent?
(c) India (d) Bangladesh (a) 45 (b) 50 (c) 55 (d) 60
68. Which of the following is the objective of 77. If 4 x A;s capital= 6 X B;s capital= 10 x C’s
social foresty started by Govt of India? capital. Then out of the profit of Rs 4650, c’s
(a) To increase green coverage share will be __________.
(b) To reduce urbanization in rural area (a) 700 (b) 800 (c) 900 (d) 1000
(c) To create employment opportunity 78. A merchant marks his goods 10% above the
(d) To produce raw material for rayon and cost price. What is the maximum % discount
match factory. that he can offer so that he ends up selling at
69. An economy is at the take off stage on its no profit or loss?
path to development when it—. (a) 10% (b) 9.09% (c) 9.99% (d) 10.99%
(a) begins steady growth 79. By what percentage above the cost price. A
(b) becomes stagnant merchant should mark his goods, so that after
(c) is liberalized allowing a discount of 20% he will get a profit
(d) Gets maximum foreign aid. of 20%?
70. What is the rank of India production of egg in (a) 40% (b) 30% (c) 20% (d) 50%
the world? 80. With the increase in rate of interest from 7%
(a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) 4th the borrower has to pay Rs 240 more in three
71. Which state is the largest producer of years on his borrowings. Find out the amount
banana in India? of borrowings?
(a) Maharastra (b) Kerala (a) 7000 (b) 4000 (c) 5000 (d) 6000
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh 81. A sum of money will be doubled in what time,
when the interest is simple interest and rate
72. Median is the __________.
of interest is 12% pa
(a) average of all the data in the series
(a) 8 years
(b) the largest data in the series
(b) 8 years 3 months
(c) data having highest frequency in the series
(c) 8 years 4 months
(d) middle most data in the series
(d) 8 years and 6 months.
73. In a moderately symmetrical distribution
mode can be calculated by using the formula 82. The difference between simple and
compound interests compounded annually on
__________.
a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% p.a
(a) 3 medians - 2 mean
is Rs 1. The sum is
(b) 2 medians - 3 means
(a) 625 (b) 630 (c) 640 (d) 650
(c) 3 medians + 2 means
83. If a & b are the roots of the equation
(d) 3 medians X 2 means.
X2- 5x + 6 = 0, then the value of (a2 + b2) are
74. On the basis of area, India ranks __________
(a) 6 (b) 13 (c) 24 (d) 36
largest country in the world.
84. A can do a work in 14 days and working
(a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 5th (d) 7th
together A & B can do the same work in 14
75. The headquarter of world bank is in
days, In what time B alone do the work?
(a) Wasington D C (b) New York
(a) 25days (b) 30 days
(c) Chicago (d) Philadelphia.
(c) 23 days (d) 35 days.

OSAT - 2019 – COMMERCE Set - 1 - Page - 4 of 6

85. Find the value of the following: MENTAL ABILITY
1 1 1 1 1 1 96. Find out the missing number.
    
2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6  7 7  8 16, 19, 22, 25, __________.
1 1 (a) 27 (b) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30
   ____________.
8  9 9 10 97. Find the missing letter.
(a) 2/5 (b) 5/2 B, E, H, __________.
(c) 1 (d) none of the above (a) I (b) J (c) K (d) L
86. What least number must be added to 1056, 98. Find the wrong term(s)
so that the sum is completely divisible by 23? ABD, DGK, HMS, NTB, SBL, LKW.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 18 (d) 21 (a) ABC (b) XYZ (c) NTB (d) PRS
87. What is the unit digit in 99. If in any code language, NATIONAL is written
(6374) x (625) x (341)
317 491 1793
as MZGRLMZO; then how JAIPUR is written
(a) Cannot be determined in the same language?
(b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 7 (a) AXZNOT (b) QZRKFI
88. 25% profit on cost price = __________ profit (c) NQRSTZ (d) BFJLQN
on sell price. 100. If RAT= 42 & CAT= 57, then LATE=?
(a) 25% (b) 20% (c) 30% (a) 11 (b) 33 (c) 66 (d) 70
(d) can not be calculated 101. If ANCE is coded as 3,7,29,11 then BIOL will
89. If 20% of a = b then b% of 20 is the same as be coded as what?
(a) 20% of a (b) 55 of a (a) 5,31,19,25 (b) 6,13,19,25
(c) 4% of a (d) None of the above. (c) 1,3,5,7 (d) 8,10,23,56
102. If air is called water, water is called green,
90. From the following data find the value of the
green is called as dust, dust is called yellow&
mode.
yellow is called cloud, which of the following
X:12,8,4,8,1,8,9,10,12,8
does fish live in?
(a) 12 (b) 1 (c) 6.5 (d) 8
(a) GREEN (b) WATER
91. The following observations are arranged in
(c) YELLOW (d) DUST
ascending order. The median of the data is
103. In certain code XZM means he is bright,
25. Find the value of X.
TCZO means every law in green, OQCN
17 X 24 X + 7 35 36 46
every wall was green, which of the following
(a) 29 (b) 18 (c) 35 (d) 14.5
does means every lawn is bright in that code?
92. The 11 and 13 terms of an AP are 35 and
TH TH
(a) CANNOT BR DETERMINED
41 respectively. Its common difference is
(b) ANMO (c) PQRS (d) TZRS
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 38 (d) 32
104. Arrange the alphabetical order & find which
93. The probability that a prime number selected word comes in middle .
at random from the number 1,2,3,4……….50
Select, seldom, selfish, seller, send, second,
is
section.
(a) 1/2 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 3/10
(a) SELECT (b) SELLER
94. What will be the value of 1175 X 1175 – 25 x (c) SECTION (d) SELDOM
25?
105. How many even numbers are there in the
(a) 1485000 (b) 1480000 above sequence which are immediately
(c) 1385000 (d) 1380000 pceeded by an odd number & immediately
95. What is the longest pole that can be put in a followed by an even number?
wooden box of dimensions of length-10cm, 5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5
breadth- 10cm, height- 5 cm? 2 2 4 3 4 9 6
(a) 10cm (b) 15cm (c) 50 cm (d) 500cm. (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 4

OSAT - 2019 – COMMERCE Set - 1 - Page - 5 of 6

106. Get the rule a find the proper option for the 114. Pointing towards a man in the photograph, a
blank cell. lady said the father of his brother is the only
son of my mother. How is the man related to
4 9 20 the lady?
8 5 14 (a) Brother (b) Son
10 3 ?
(c) Cousin (d) Nephew.
(a) 8 (b) 11 (c) 14 (d) 15 115. Ravi travelled 4 km straight towards south.
107. Rajesh is elder 3 days 10 hours from Vikas. He turned left and travelled 6 km straight, then
The date of birth of Vikas is 21st November turned right and travelled 4 km straight. How
at 7 AM, then what will be the date of birth of far is he from the starting point?
Rajesh?
(a) 8km (b) 10km (c) 12km (d) 18km.
(a) 16th November (b) 17th November
116. Soap is to Dirt as petrol is to __________.
(c) 18th November (d) 19th November
108. Find the wrong term. (a) Dry cleaner (b) Grease
105, 85, 60, 30, 0, -45, -90. (c) Car (d) Clothes.
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) 3 117. Get the rule and find the missing digit.
109. If in any code language, CLERK is coded as
AHYJA. How JOB is coded in that language. 8 10 9
(a) HKV (b) KVH (c) HKF (d) VHK ? 15 28
110. Arrange the given words in sequence in the 7 12 13
way they occur in dictionary.
i. Precede, ii.precision, iii.precise, iv.precept, (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12
v.preach, vi. prelude. 118. In the group of 26 girls Rekhas position is 7th
(a) 531426 (b) 514326 from the bottom. What is the position of
(c) 513426 (d) 514236 Rekha from the top of the group?

111. __________ is to Goat is milk is to child. (a) 20th (b) 21st (c) 22nd (d) 17th
(a) Fodder (b) Graze 119. Soni, who is Dubey’s daughter, says to Preeti,
(c) Shepherd (d) Grain yours mother Shyama is the Youngest sister
of my father, Dubey’s father third child is
112. Get the rule and find the missing digit.
Prabhat. How is Prabhat related to Preeti?
? 1 1 (a) Uncle (b) Father
9 4 4 (c) Grandmother (d) Father-in-law.
2 3 5
120. A man is facing North- West. He turns 90
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 16 degree in the clock wise direction and then
another180 degree in antilock wise direction
113. First day of the month is Wednesday & last
and then 90 degree in the same direction.
day of the same month is Tuesday then which
Which direction is he facing now?
one will be that month?
(a) January (b) February (a) South (b) South-West
(c) March (d) August. (c) West (d) South-East.

***
OSAT - 2019 – COMMERCE Set - 1 - Page - 6 of 6