College Final Supp. Paper 1

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AMREF VIRTUAL TRAINING SCHOOL

COLLEGE FINAL SUPPLEMENTARY EXAMINATION: PAPER ONE


DATE: WEDNESDAY 16th MAY 2012

TIME ALLOWED: 3 HOURS TIME: 9:00 AM- 12:00


NOON

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1. Read the questions and answer only what is asked.

2. ENTER YOUR examination NUMBER AND QUESTION NUMBER IN THE space

provided for each sheet of paper used.

3. All questions are compulsory.

4. For Part 1 (M.C.Qs)

Write your answers in the spaces provided on the answer sheet.

5. Each M.C.Q is 1 mark

6. For Part II (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)

Answers to these questions should follow each other on the provided sheets of

paper.

7. For Part III (ESSAY/LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS)

Answers to each question must be on a separate sheet of paper.

8. Omission of wrong numbering of examination papers, questions or parts of the

question will result in 10% deduction of the marks scored from the relevant

part.

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PART I: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (20 mrks)

Q:1. Aspiration pneumonia may arise from:-

a) Oesophageal disease, aspiration, pneumococci


b) Pneumococci, lung abscess, oesophageal disease
c) Lung abscess, oesophageal disease, kerosene inhalation
d) Kerosene inhalation, pneumococci, oesophageal disease.

Q:2. The genus Neiseria has bacilli that are:-

a) Non-motile, spore forming


b) Non-motile, non-spore forming
c) Non-motile, capsulated
d) Motile, capsulated

Q:3. Third space losses of Na+ and H2O include:-

a) Vomiting,diarrhea and Bleeding


b) Burns,ascites and edema
c) Haematoma, Lipoma and Fistula drainage
d) Burns, laxative abuse and diarrhea

Q:4. Finger clubbing is a clinical feature in:-

a) Chronic bronchitis, Crohn’s disease, fibrosing alveolitis


b) Chronic bronchitis, aortic aneurysm, Crohn’s disease.
c) Crohn’s disease, aortic aneurysm, fibrosing alveolitis
d) Aortic aneurysm, chronic bronchitis, fibrosing alveolitis

Q:5. When taking a wound swab:-

a) The procedure should be as clean as possible


b) The swab should be rotated along the edges of the wound
c) The swab should be delivered to the laboratory within 24hrs
d) The nurse should avoid moistening the swab with a transport medium

Q:6. In stage 2 of a pressure sore formation:-

a) The sore has irregular contour and extends under the skin edge
b) No ulcer is present but tissues are non-blunching
c) The patient incurs superficial wounds
d) There is formation of deep wounds with injury to the subcutaneous tissue

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Q:7. Indiscriminate use of eye preparations with steroids should be discouraged to avoid
risk of:-

a) Glaucoma, blindness
b) Glaucoma, cataract
c) Increased fungal infection, blindness
d) Worsening infection, glaucoma

Q:8. In pustular psoriasis:-

a) An associated arthritis occurs


b) Lesions are confined to the soles of feet
c) Pustules are sterile
d) There is often an eruption in the mouth

Q:9. The following statement is TRUE of intestinal obstruction:-

a) Mechanical type complicates with paralytic obstruction


b) Is said to be mechanical when strangulation occurs.
c) Is unlikely to be due to hernia in an elderly patient
d) The paralytic type presents like the mechanical type

Q:10. Acute Leukaemia commonly presents with:-

a) Anaemia,Leucopenia and Thrombocytopnenia


b) Bleeding, respiratory distress and agranulocytosis
c) Opportunistic infections, anemia and leucopenea
d) Haemathrosis, granulocytosis and bleeding gums

For questions 11 and 12, indicate whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE
by putting a tick (√) in the answer sheets provided.
Q: 11
a. Blood transfusion is indicated whenever platelet count is below 10,000/mm3.
b. Antispasmodics should not be used in bladder irritability as they may
predispose one to urinary retention.
Q: 12
a. Protein intake is restricted in nephrotic syndrome when renal insufficiency
develops
b. In acute glomerulonephritis the kidneys become large, swollen and congested
due to loss of filtering surface

Q: 13. Range of movement (ROM) exercises should be performed in the order of:-

a) Active-assistive, passive and active


b) Active, passive, active-assistive.
c) Passive, active-assistive, active
d) Passive, active, active-assistive

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Q: 14. The post operative nursing care of a patient after total hip replacement includes
elevation of the:-

a) Bed to 50˚, abduction of limbs at 45˚


b) Bed to 45˚, abduction of lower limbs to 50˚
c) Bed to 45˚, abduction of lower limbs to not more than 45˚
d) Bed to over 45˚, abduction of lower limbs

Q: 15. Delayed complications after reduction of a fracture include:-

a) Fat embolism syndrome, non-union, avascular necrosis.


b) Avascular necrosis, non-union, shock
c) Shock, fat embolism syndrome, avascular necrosis
d) Avascular necrosis, delayed union, non-union

Q: 16. When nursing a patient with extensive burns:-

a) Exposure method is used to control bacterial colonization by exposing to light


b) A mask and sterile gloves are worn to prevent infection of wound by
Escherichia Coli (E. coli).
c) Topical antibiotic therapy used should be effective against gram-positive
organisms like pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Where fingers are burned they should be bandaged together for faster healing

Q: 17. A patient may have reduced hearing for several weeks post ear surgery as a
result of:-

a) Dressing pack, tinnitus


b) Oedema, increased ear pressure
c) Accumulation of drainage, tinnitus
d) Oedema, accumulation of drainage

Q: 18. Body temperature must be maintained at:-

a) 35 to 36.6 0C
b) 36 to 37.50C
c) 36.5 to 37.5 0C
d) 35.5 to 370C

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Q: 19. The following actions apply when two nurses performs external cardiac
Compression on a patient:-

a) Both nurses perform cardiac compression at the same time


b) One nurse performs cardiac compression while the other elevates the patients
head.
c) One nurse monitors the pulse while the other performs cardiac compression
d) One nurse performs cardiac compression while the second ventilates the
patient

Q: 20. The following statements is true about prostatic cancer:-

a) Commonly metastasis to bones, lymph nodes and brain


b) Has obstructive symptoms occurring early in the condition
c) It is best treated by prostatectomy regardless of the stage
d) It is self limiting after metastasis

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PART II: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (40 mrks)

Q:1. State four (4) predisposing factors to ectopic pregnancy (4mks)

Q:2. State four (4) functions of glucocorticoids (4mks)

Q:3. Explain five (5) specific nursing responsibilities for a patient with gastritis. ( 5mks)

Q:4. Outline four (4) specific pre-operative nursing interventions for a patient to
undergo intra-ocular surgery ( 4mrks)

Q:5. State any four (4) nursing diagnosis for unconscious patient (4mrks)

Q:6. State five (5) measures you would take to prevent the spread of infection in
operating theatre (5mrks)

Q:7. Explain six (6) specific roles of a nurse while caring for a patient with Heart
failure (6 marks)

Q:8. Draw and label a diagram to illustrate the internal ear structures (5mks)

Q:9. List three (3) emergency drugs and give one indication for each (3mrks)

PART III: LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (40 marks)

Q:1. Mr. Mai aged 45 years is admitted in a medical ward and diagnosed to have
Diabetes Keto-acidosis (DKA)

a) List four(4) sites for insulin injection (2mks)

b) Describe the pathophysiology of DKA ( 5mks)

c) Describe the management for Mr. Mai for the first 24hrs ( 13mks)

Q:2. Mrs. Owi 40 years old is admitted into a surgical ward for laminectomy following
a spinal injury

a) Draw and label a diagram illustrating a cross-section of a spinal cord (4mrks)

b) State four (4) clinical features Mrs. Owi may have presented with (4mrks)

c) Describe the specific management of Mrs. Owi pre and post-operatively


(12mrks)

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