WET-13

NEET WEEKEND TEST - 13 (18-11-2024)

JR NEET MPL
SYLLABUS
Botany: Cell - The Unit of Life and Biomolecules: From the beginning of chapter to 9.4 Proteins
Zoology: Organisms and Populations and Eco system: Ecosystem – Structure and function and decomposition
Physics : Track-1 (30Q): System of particles and Rotational motion : Definition, co-ordinates of centre of mass, Velocity,
acceleration, momentum, force, characteristics of center of mass, Centre of mass & centre of gravity, Methods of
determining C.M, Pappus theorem - application of center of mass, vector product, Torque & applications – Problems,
Equilibrium of particle (conditions for equilibrium) and Moment of Inertia (definition)
Track-2(15Q): Kinetic Theory of Gases and Mechanical properties of Solids: Definitions of stress, strain and their types,
SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & MPL
Hooke’s law, Modulus of elasticity (Y, n and K), Possions ratio (σ) definitions, Applications of Young's modulus -
Problems
Chemistry: Track-1(30Q): Organic Chemistry: Nomenclature of organic compounds, Structural isomerism and Stereo isomerism (
brief idea about Geometrical and optical isomerism) and Electron migration effects: Inductive effect, electromeric effect,
mesomeric effect, resonance and Hyper conjugation and applications
Track-2 (15Q): Thermodynamics: Thermodynamics terms :Types of systems, Processes, Extensive & Intensive properties,
Reversible and Irreversible processes , Work , Heat & Energy, Internal energy & Enthalpy, 1st Law of Thermodynamics
and Numerical, Types of reactions, Heat of reaction and Heat of formation, combustion & Solution, Bomb calorimeter.
Enthalpy of dissociation, atomisation, Hydration & Phase transition & ionisation in aqueous solution
Guidelines :
1. Duration of the Exam is 3 Hours.
2. The question paper consists of 180 questions, comprising of 45 questions in each subject.
3. Each question carries four marks. One mark will be deducted for every incorrect response from the total score.
Maximum marks are 720.

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 NEET WET - 13 (18-11-24)
BOTANY 4. Plant cell differs from animal cell by
1. Select the incorrect statement 1) Absence of cell wall
1) Any thing less than a complete structure 2) Presence of vacuoles
of a cell does not ensure independent living 3) Presence of cell wall and chloroplast
2) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek first saw and 4) Absence of chloroplast
described a living cell 5. Omnis cellula – e cellula is generalization
3) Robert Brown discovered cell given by
4) Cell is the basic unit of structure and 1) Lamarck
function of all organisms 2) Dutrochet
2. Match the coloun I with Column II and 3) Leeuwenhoek
select the correct option from the codes 4) Virchow
given below 6. Different cells have different sizes. Arrange
the following cells in as ascending order of
Column I Column II their size. Choose the correct option among
A. Leeuwenhoek (i) First saw the following
and i. Mycoplasma
described a ii. Ostrich eggs
living cell iii. Human RBC
B. Robert (ii) Presence iv. Bacteria
Brown of cell wall 1) i,iv,iii&ii
is unique 2) i,ii,iii&iv
to plant 3) ii,i,iii&iv
cells 4) iii,ii,i&iv
C. Schleiden (iii) Discovered 7. Assertion (A): RudolfVirchow modified the
the nucleus hypothesis of cell theory given by Schleiden
D. Schwann (iv) All plants and Schwann.
are Reason(R) : Modified cell theory says that
composed all cells arise from pre- existing cells.
of different 1) If both A and R are true and the R is a
kind of correct explanation of the A.
cells 2) If both A and R are ture but R is not a
correct explanation of the A
1) A-(i), B-(iii),C- (iv), D-(ii) 3) If A is true but the R is false
2) A-(i), B-(iii),C- (ii), D-(iv) 4) If both A and R are false
3) A-(iii), B-(i),C- (iv), D-(ii) 8. Assertion(A) : Cells vary greatly in their
4) A-(i), B-(iv),C- (ii), D-(iii) shape.
3. Which of the following statements was not Reason (R) : The shape of cell does not
explained in the cell theory given jointly by depend on the function they perform.
Schleiden and Schwann ? 1) If both A and R are true and the R is a
1) All living organisms are composed of correct explanation of the A.
cells and products of cells 2) If both A and R are ture but R is not a
2) Cell is the structural and functional unit of correct explanation of the A
living organisms 3) If A is true but the R is false
3) Explanation of formation of new cells 4) If both A and R are false
4) None
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9. Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are C) Internal compartmentalization causes the
stored in the cytoplasm in the form of division of labour within eukaryotic cells
1) Pyrenoid that greatly increases overall cellular
2) Paramylum bodies function
3) Inclusion bodies which are bounded by D) Prokaryotic cells have various types of
single membrane cells organelles
4) Inclusion bodies which are not bounded 1) One
by any membrane system 2) Three
10. Read the following statement and find out 3) Four
the incorrect statement 4) Two
1) Prokaryotes are generally smaller and 13. Which of the following is the correct
multiply more rapidly than the eukaryotic sequence/route of the secretory product ?
cells 1) ER  Vescicles  cis region of GB 
2) Glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called Trans region of GB  Vescicles  Plasma
slime layer in some, while in other it is tough membrane
called the capsule 2) RER  GB  Lysosome  Nuclear
3) The plasma membrane of prokaryotes is membrane  Plasma membrane
structurally dissimilar to that of eukaryotes 3) ER  Vescicles  Trans region of GB
4) Chromatophores are the membranous  cis region of GB  Vescicles  Plasma
extension into the cytoplasm of membrane
cyanobacteria which contain pigments 4) Lysosome  ER  GB  Cell membrane
11. Assertion (A): The fimbriae are elongated 14. Most hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes
tubular structures made of a special protein. function at
1) Basic pH
Reason(R) : The pili are small bristle like
2) Acidic pH
fibres sprouting out of the cell are meant for 3) Any pH
locomotion. 4) Neutral pH
1) If both A and R are true and the R is a 15. Choose the correct statements
I. Mitochondria and chloroplast transfer
correct explanation of the A. energy
2) If both A and R are ture but R is not a II. Mitochondria is a power house of cell as
correct explanation of the A it produces most of the cellular ATP
III. Mitochondria and chloroplast are found
3) If A is true but the R is false
in all eukaryotic cells
4) If both A and R are false
IV. Mitochondria are the sites of anaerobic
12. Read the following statements (A-D) and
respiration
find out the number of incorrect statements.
V. The matrix of mitochondria posses a
A) Mitochondria and chloroplast are energy
single linear DNA, Many RNA molecules,
transducers 80S ribosomes
B) The functions of mitochondria, 1) IV and V
chloroplast and peroxisome are not 2) I, II
coordinated with ER, GB, lysosome and 3) II, IV and V
vacuoles, so they are a part of the 4) III and V
endomembranous system.
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16. Match the cell oraganelles given in Column- I. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum makes
I with cellular processes in Column-II and lipids
select the correct option from the codes II. It is also called the control centre of the
given below cell
Column I Column –II III. Endoplasmic reticulum is present in
A. Lysosomes i. Protein synthesis eukaryotes
B. Ribosomes ii. hydrolytic activity IV. It arises from nuclear membrane
C. Smooth iii. Steriod synthesis 1) I, II and III
endoplasmic 2) I, III and IV
reticulum 3) I, II and IV
D. Centriole iv. Formation of 4) All are correct
spindle 20. One of the following is not the feature of
1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv centriole
2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-ii 1) It has an organization like the cartwheel
3) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii 2) It consists of hub and spokes made of
4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii protein
17. Identify A and B in the given figure and 3) It is a site for rRNA synthesis
select the correct option 4) Form the basal body of cilia and flagella
21. Consider the following statements
a) Plant cells have centrioles which are
absent in almost all animals cells
b) Ribosomes are the site of protein
sysnthesis
c) The middle lamella is the layer mainly of
A B
calcium carbonate which holds the different
1) Grana thylakoid Stroma thylakoid
neighbouring cells together
2) Stroma thylakoid Grana thylakoid
d) In animals cells lipid like steroidal
3) Granum Stroma
hormones are synthesized by
4) Stroma Granum
smoothendoplasmic reticulum.
18. I. Cilia / Flagellum contains an outer ring of
Of the above statements
nine doublet microtubules surrounding two
1) a and b only are correct
single microtubules
2) a and d are only correct
II. Cilia are smaller which works like oars,
3) b and d only are correct
causing the movement of either the cells or
4) c and d only are correct
surrounding fluid
22. Read the following statements and find out
III. Flagella are comparatively longer and
the incorrect statement
responsible for cell movement
1) of the two membranes of chloroplast, the
IV. Cilium and flagellum ae covered with
outer membrane is relatively less permeable
plasma membrane
2) Thylakoids are arranged in stacks like
Which of the above statement is correct ?
piles of coins called granum or intergranal
1) I, II
thylakoids
2) I, II, III, IV
3) The stroma of chloroplast contains
3) I, IV
enzymes required for the synthesis of
4) II, III
carbohydrates and proteins
19. Which of the following statements are true
4) None of the above
about endoplasmic reticulum ?
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23. Read the following statements and find out 3) a, b, c
the correct statement 4) b, c, e, f
a. Mitochondria is typically sausage shaped 26. Cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole
or cylindrical like structure called
b. The inner compartment of the 1) Centrosome
mitochondria is called stroma and of 2) Kinetochore
chloroplast is called matrix 3) Basal body
c. Mitochondria and bacteria both divide by 4) Centromere
fission 27. Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of
d. Chromoplasts have fat insoluble plasma membrane ?
carotenoid pigments like carotene and 1) Camillo Golgi
xanthophylls 2) Schleiden and Schwann
e. Plastids are found in all plant cells and 3) Singer and Nicolson
euglenoids 4) Robert Brown
1) b, c, e 28. What is a tonoplast ?
2) a, b, d 1) Outer membrane of mitochondria
3) c, d, e 2) Inner membrane of chloroplast
4) a, c, d 3) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of
24. In 70S and 80S ribosomes, 'S' stands for plant cells
1) Sedimentation coefficient and called 4) Cell membrane of a plant cell
Svedberg unit 29. Which of the following is not true of a
2) Sedimentation rate and called Svedberg eukaryotic cell?
unit 1) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the
3) Svedberg coefficient and called mitochondria
sedimentation unit 2) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the
4) Svedberg unit and called sedimentation cytoplasm
rate 3) Mitochondria contain circular DNA
25. Read the statements and find out the correct 4) Membrane bound organelles are present
statement 30. Which of the following is not a function of
a. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella are cytoskeleton in a cell?
structurally similar 1) Intracellular transport
b. Cilia work like oars and comparatively 2) Maintenance of cell shape and structure
smaller than flagella 3) Osmo regulation
c. The core of cilium or flagellum is called 4) Cell motility
axoneme 31. Assertion (A) : The cells that have
d. Central tubules are connected by membrane bound organelles are called
interdoublet bridges and is enclosed by eukaryotic
central sheath Reason (R) : The cells that lack membrane
e. Central sheath is connected to one of the bond organelles are called prokaryotic
tubules of each peripheral doublets by a 1) If both A and R are true and the R is a
radial spoke. There are nine radial spokes correct explanation of the A.
f. Peripheral doublets are also interconnected 2) If both A and R are ture but R is not a
by linkers correct explanation of the A
1) b, d, e, f 3) If A is true but the R is false
2) c, d, e 4) If both A and R are false

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32. In which type of chromosome, one arm is 3) Polymeric substance
very long and one arm is very short ? 4) Primary metabolities
1) Acrocentric 38. Molecules having charged groups of
2) Metacentric opposite polarity are
3) Sub-metacentric 1) Anions
4) Telocentric 2) Zwitter ions
33. Read the following statements and find out 3) Negative ions
the incorrect statement 4) Catiions
1) All the elements present in sample of 39. Arachidonic acid and palmitic acids have
earth’s crust are also present in a sample of how many carbons is each of them
living tissue 1) 18, 18
2) During chemical analysis trichloroacetic 2) 20, 16
acic (Cl3CCOOH) is used 3) 16,16
3) Realtive abundance of carbon and 4) 16, 20
hydrogen with respect to other element is 40. Fill in the blanks
hight in earth’s crust than in any living I. Based on the nature of …a… there are 20
organisms amino acids
4) All of the above II. Based on number of …b… and ….c…
34. Elements that are found more abundant in groups, there are acidic, basic and neutral
earth’s crust than in human body are amino acids
1) Si, H, Mg, O III. The R group in serine is ….d…
2) S, Na, Ca, N 1) a-carboxyl, b-amino, c-R-group, d-
3) Na, Si, Ca, Mg hydroxy methyl
4) C, H, O, N, S 2)a- R-group, b- carboxyl, c-amino, d-
hydroxy methyl
35. Lipid come under acid insoluble fraction
3) a-amino, b-R-group, c-carboxyl, d-methyl
during analysis of chemical composition of 4) a-R group, b-carboxyl, c-amino, d-methyl
tissues. Why ? 41. All of the following statements are correct
1) It has high molecular weight except
2) It has low molecular weight 1) Analysis for compound gives an idea of
3) On grinding, the biomembranes are the kind of organic and inorganic
broken into pieces and form insoluble constituents present in living tissues
2) Elemental analysis gives elemental
vesicles
composition of living tissues
4) It is polymer 3) In plant ash contains carbon in maximum
36. The inorganic compounds like sulphate, amount
phosphate, etc, are found in 4) Both 1 and 2
1) Not found in cellular pool 42. A basic amino acid is
2) Acid soluble pool 1) Aspartic acid
3) Both acid and soluble pool and acid 2) Lysine
insoluble fraction 3) Leucine
4) Acid insoluble fraction 4) Methionine
37. The compound having identifiable functions 43. The physical and the chemical properties of
amino acids are essentially of the
and play known roles in normal
1) Only the carboxyl group
physiological processes are called
2) Amino, carboxyl and R groups
1) Secondary metabolities
3) Only the R functional group
2) Biomacromolecules
4) Only amino group
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44. Peptide bond is formed when the 2) b and c
1) Carbocyl group of one amino acid reacts 3) c and d
with the carboxyl group of the next amino 4) a,b,c and d
acid 49. Percent individuals of a given age or age
2) Amino group of one amino acid reacts group is called
with the amino group of the next amino acid 1) Age distribution
3) Carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts 2) Age pyramid
with amino group of the next amino acid 3) Sex ratio
4) Amino group of one amino acid reacts 4) Both 1 and 3
with carboxyl group of the next amino acid 50. Match the column I and II, and choose the
45. Given below are two statements A and B. correct combination from the options given
Choose the correct answer related to the Column – I Column – II
statements i. Mortality 1. b
Statement A : Amino acids are basic in ii. Natality 2. B
nature iii. Birth rates 3. d
Statement B : Amino acids are not ionized in iv. Death rates 4. D
solutions i ii iii iv
1) Both the statements A and B are wrong 1) 3 1 2 4
2) Statement A is wrong, statement B is 2) 4 1 2 3
correct 3) 3 2 1 4
4) 4 2 1 3
3) Both the statements A and B are correct
51. Population density is designated as
4) Statement A is correct, statement B is 1) D
wrong 2) p
ZOOLOGY 3) N
46. Ecology is study of relationships of 4) d
1) Members of a family 52. The most appropriate measure of population
2) Man and environment density is generally
3) Organisms and environment 1) Number
4) Soil and water 2) Biomass
47. Which of the following example signifies a 3) Per cent cover
population ? 4) All of the above
a. All the cormorants in a wetland 53. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
b. Rats in an abandoned dwelling matching
c. Teakwood trees in a forest tract
d. Bacteria in a culture plate
e. All the animals in a forest
f. Lotus plants in a pond
1) a, b, c, d and f
2) b, c, d and e
3) a, b, c, d, e and f
4) b, d, e and f
48. A population has certain attributes that an
individual organism does not. These are 1) a-B, b-E, c-D, d-I
a. Birth rate b. Death rate 2) a-D, b-E, c-B, d-I
c. Sex raio d. Age distribution 3) a-D, b-I, c-B, d-E
1) a and b 4) a-B, b-I, c-D, d-E
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54. In an area, if there are 200 Parthenium plants 59. Match the column-I and II, and choose the
but only a single huge banyan tree with a correct combination from the options given
large canopy, the population density is Column-I Column-II
measured in terms of
a. Breed only once in 1. Bird and
1) Number or biomass
2) Number or per cent cover life time mammals
3) Biomass or per cent cover b. Breed many times 2. Oysters and
4) Number, biomass or per cover in their lifetime pelagic fishes
55. Match the column-I and II, and choose the c. Produce large 3. Bamboo
correct combination from the options given number of small
Column – I Column-II
sized offsprings
a. B + I > D + E 1. N increases
b. B + I < D + E 2. N decreases d. Produce small 4. Pacific salmon
c. B + I = D + E 3. N stable number of large- fish
a b c sized offsprings
1) 1 2 3 a b c d
2) 2 1 3 1) 3 1 2 4
3) 3 2 1 2) 4 1 2 3
4) 1 3 2 3) 3 4 2 1
56. If a new habitat is just being 4) 3,4 1 2 1
colonized,....1… may contribute more 60. At asymptote stage, the population is
significantly to population growth than 1) Stabilised
….2…. (where b = birth rate, E = 2) Increasing
Emigration, I = Immigration) 3) Decreasing
1) 1-b, 2-E 4) Changing
2) 1-I, 2-b 61. The interacting species (A and B) live
3) 1-I, 2-E closely together in
4) 1-b, 2-I 1) Predation, parasitism and competition
57. Match the columns I and II, and choose the 2) Mutualism, competition and amensalism
correct combination from the options given 3) Predation, competition and
Column-I Column-II commensalism
‘r’ values Organism 4) Predation, parasitism and commensalism
a. 0.12 1.Human population 62. Read the following statements and find out
in India in 1981 the incorrect statements
b. 0.015 2. Norway rat a. Predation is nature’s way of transferring to
c. 0.0205 3. Flour beetle higher trophic levels the energy fixed by
a b c plants
1) 1 2 3 b. Prey keep predator population under
2) 3 1 2 control
3) 2 3 1 c. Biological control methods adopted in
4) 3 2 1 agricultural pest control are based on the
58. A population has more young individuals ability of the prey to regulate the predator
compared to the older individuals. What population
would be the status of the population after d. Predators help in maininting species
some years ? diversity in a community by inducing the
1) It will declane intensity of competition among competing
2) It will stabilise prey species
3) It will increase 1) a and b
4) It will first decline and then stabilise 2) b and c
3) b, c and d
4) None of the above
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63. The prickly pear cactus in the entry 1920’s 2) Connell
introduced into 3) Mac Arthur
1) American Pacific coast 4) Verhulst - Pearl
2) Rocky sea coasts of scotland 68. Read the following statements and find out
3) Galapagos Islands the incorrect statement(s)
4) Australia a. parasitic mode of life ensures free lodging
64. In a field experiment, when all the starfish and meals so parasitism has evolved in so
Pisaster were removed from an enclosed many taxonomic groups from plants to
intertidal area, more then …a… species of higher vertebrates.
…b… become extinct within …c… because b. Many parasites have evolved to be host
of …d…. specific, i.e they can parasitise only a single
1) a-200, b-vertebrates, c-a year, d- species of host
interspecific predation c. The life-cycle of parasites are often
2) a-10, b- vertebrates, c- a decade, d- complex, involving one or two intermediate
interspecific cific predation host or vectors to facilitate parasitisation of
3) a-10, b-invertebrates, c-a decade, d- its secondary host.
interspecific competition d. All of the parasites harm the host.
4) a-10, b-invertebrates, c-a year, d- e. Lice on dogs and ticks on humans are
interspecific competition familiar examples of ectoparasites
65. The monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to 1) a, b and c
its predator (bird) because of a special 2) b, c and d
chemical present in its body. The butterfly 3) c, d and e
acquires this chemical during its 4) a, b and d
1) Larval stage by feeding on a poisonous 69. Which of the following plant do not offer
seed reward and employs sexual deceit to get
2) Caterpillar stage by feeding on a pollination done by a species of bee ?
poisonous seed 1) Ophrys species
3) Caterpilar stage by feeding on a 2) Mediterranean orchid
poisonous weed 3) Pronuba
4) Any of the above 4) Both 1 and 2
66. Two closely related species competing for 70. Select the incorrect statement
the same resources cannot co-exist 1) Orchid epiphytic on mango is commensal
indefinitely and the competitively inferior 2) Bird laying eggs in the nest of another for
one will be eliminated eventually. This is the incubation shows brood parasitism
conclusion of 3) Most animals and plants maintain a
1) Connell;s elegant field experiment constant internal temperature
2) Gause’s competitive exclusion principle 4) Warbler’s chose resource partiotioning
3) Mac Arthur experiment 71. In commensaliam
4) Competitive release
1) Both partners are benefitted
67. Who showed that five closely related species
of warblers living on the same tree were able 2) Both partners are harmed
to avoid competition and co-exist due to 3) Weaker is benefitted while stronger
behavioural differences in their foraging
unharmed
activities ?
1) Gause 4) None of the above

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72. Assertion (A) : For human population, the 3) If A is true but the R is false
age pyramids generally show age 4) If both A and R are false
distribution of males and females in a 76. Global ecosystem is too much big and
combined diagram complex to be studied at one time, it is
Reason ( R) : The shape of age pyramid convenient to divide it into two basic
reflects the growth status of the population, categories, namely the
whether it is growing, stable or declining 1) Natural and man-made ecosystems
1) If both A and R are true and the R is a 2) Biotic and abiotic ecosystems
correct explanation of the A. 3) Terrestrial and aquatic ecosystem
2) If both A and R are ture but R is not a 4) Both B and C
correct explanation of the A 77. Match the column-I and II and choose the
3) If A is true but the R is false correct combination from the options given
4) If both A and R are false Column-I Column-II
73. Which is appropriately defined ? a. Forest 1. Terrestrial
1) Host is an organism which provides food ecosystem
to another organism b. Estuary 2. Aquatic ecosystem
2) Amensalism is relationship in which one c. Grassland 3. Man-made
species is benefitted while the other is ecocystem
unaffected d. Wetland
3) Predator is an organism that catches and e. Aquarium
kills other organisms for food a b c d e
4) Predator is an organism which always 1) 1 2 1 1 3
lives inside the body of another organism 2) 1 1 2 2 3
and may kill it 3) 3 2 1 1 2
74. Verhulst – Pearl is associated with the 4) 1 2 1 2 3
equation 78. Which is incorrect about a small pond
dN  K  N ecosystem ?
 rN 
 K 
1)
dt 1) This is fairly a self-sustainable unit
dN  K N 2) All the four basic components of an
 tN 
 K 
2) ecosystem are well exhibited
dt
3) The abiotic component is the water with
dN  K  N
 rN  all the dissolved organic and inorganic
 N 
3)
dt substances and the rich soil deposit at the
dN  K N bottom of the pond
 tN 
 N 
4) 4) This ecosystem performs all the functions
dt
of any ecosystem expect the unidirectional
75. Assertion (A) : Predators in nature are flow of energy
‘prudent’ 79. The functional components of the
Reason (R) : If a predator is too efficient and ecosystems are
overexploits its prey, then the prey might a. Productivity b. Decomposition
become extinct and following it, the predator c. Nutrient cycling d. Energy flow
will also become extinct for lack of food. e. Succession d. Stratification
1) If both A and R are true and the R is a 1) a, b and c
correct explanation of the A. 2) a, b, c and d
2) If both A and R are ture but R is not a 3) a, b, c , d and e
correct explanation of the A 4) a,b, c, d and f
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80. The consumers of the pond ecosystem 86. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down
include into soil horizon and get precipitated as
1) Zooplanktons unavailable salts by the process of
2) Free-swimming forms 1) Fragmentation
3) Bottom-dwelling forms 2) Leaching
4) All of the above 3) Catabolism
81. The basic requirement for any ecosystem to 4) All of the above
function and sustain is 87. Read the following statements and find out
1) Photosynthesis the incorrect statement(s)
2) Decomposition 1) In a particular climatic condition,
3) A constant input of solar energy decomposition rate is slower if detritus is
4) Unidirectional flow of energy in food rich in nitrogen and water soluble
chain compounds like sugar
82. Which of the following statements about 2) Rate of decomposition is quicker if
productivity is true ? detritus is richin lignin and chitin
1) Primary productivity of all ecosystems in 3) Warm and moist environment inhibit
constant decomposition
2) Annual net primary productivity of the 4) All of the above
whole of the biosphere is 170 billion tons 88. Decomposition rate is slow if detritus is rich
(dry weight) of organic matter in
3) Gross primary productivity is the amount 1) Nitrogen
of biomass available for consumption to 2) Humus
carnivores 3) Sugars
4) Primary productivity depends upon the 4) Lignin and chitin
animal species inhabiting a particular area 89. The process of mineralization by micro-
83. The breakdown of complex organic matter organisms helps in the release of
into inorganic substances like carbon 1) Inorganic nutrients from humus
dioxide, water and nutrients is called 2) Both organic and inorganic nutrients from
1) Fragmentation detritus
2) Catabolism 3) Organic nutrients from humus
3) Metabolism 4) Inorganic nutrients from detritus and
4) Decomposition formation of humus
84. Which is the raw material for decomposition 90. Assertion (A) : Low temperature and
? anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition resulting
1) Carbon dioxide and water in build up of organic materials
2) Any inorganic compound Reason (R) : Decomposition is largely an
3) Detritus oxygen requiring process
4) Both 1 and 2 1) If both A and R are true and the R is a
85. Which of the following is an enzymatic correct explanation of the A.
process ? 2) If both A and R are ture but R is not a
1) Fragmentation correct explanation of the A
2) Leaching 3) If A is true but the R is false
3) Catabolism 4) If both A and R are false
4) All of the above PHYSICS

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91. Moment of inertia of a body is independent each other under mutual force of attraction
of the position of the point where they meet is
1) Mass of the body 1) 12m from 4kg body
2) 12 m from 6kg body
2) Distribution of mass of the body
3) 8m from 4kg body
3) Temperature of the body 4) 10 m from 4kg body
4) Angular velocity of the body 97. The velocity of three particles of masses
92. A hollow sphere is filled with water. Which 20g, 30g and 50g are 10i, 10j and 10k
of the following points the position of C.M. respectively. The velocity of the centre of
of the system shown in the figure mass of the three particles is
1) 2i  3 j  5k
2) 10(i  j  k )
3) 20 i  30 j  5k
4) 20 i  30 j  50k
1) A 98. Three identical spheres each of radicu ‘R’
2) B are placed touching each other so that their
3) C centres A,B and C lie on a straight line, the
4) D position of their centre of mass from A is
93. Three vectors satisfy the relation A.B  0 1)
2R
and A.C  0 , then A is parallel to 3
1) C 2) 2 R
2) B 5R
3)
3) B  C 3
4) B.C 4R
4)
94. A rod of weight W is supported by two 3
parallel knife edges A and B is equilibrium 99. A system consista of two identical particles
in a horizontal position. The knifes are at a one particle is at rest and the other particle
dist once d from each other. The centre of has an acceleration ‘a’. The centre of mass
mass of the rod is at distance x from A. The of the system has an acceleration of
normal reaction on A is
1) 2a
W (d  x)
1) 2) a
d 3) a / 2
Wx 4) a / 4
2)
d 100. Four particles of masses 2,2,4,4 kg are
Wd arranged at the corners A,B,C,D of a square
3) ABCD of side 2m as shown in the figure.
x
W (d  x) The perpendicular distance of their centre of
4) mass from the side AB is
x
95. A uniform metre stick is placed vertically on
a horizontal frictionless surface and released.
As the stick is in motion, the centre of mass
moves
1) Vertically up
2) Vertically down
3) In a parabolic path 1) 1.33 m
4) Horizontally 2) 1 m
96. Two particles of masses 4 kg and 6kg are at 3) 1.5 m
rest separated by 20 m. If they move towards 4) 0.5 m
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 NEET WET - 13 (18-11-24)
101. Three particles of masses 8kg, 4kg and 4kg L
4)
situated at (4, 1), (-2, 2) and (1, -3) are acted 3
upon by external forces 6 jN ,  6 iN and 105. Two particles each of the same mass move
14iN . The acceleration of centre of mass of due north and due east respectively with the
the system is same velocity ‘V’. The magnitude and
1) 0.625 ms-2 direction of the velocity of centre of mass is
2) 6.25 ms-2 V
1) NE
3) 2.2 ms-2 2
4) 22 ms-2 V
2) SW
102. Two particles A and B initially at rest move 2
towards each other under a mutual force of 3) 2V SW
attraction. At the instant when the speed of
4) 2V NE
A is V and the speed of B is 2v, the speed of
the centre of mass of the system is 106. The cross product of the vectors (2i – 3j +
1) 0 4k) and (i + 4j – 5k) is
2) V 1) iˆ  14 ˆj  11kˆ
3) 1.5 V 2) iˆ  14 ˆj  11kˆ
4) 3 V
3) iˆ  14 ˆj  11kˆ
103. A thin uniform rod of length L is bent at its
mid point as shown in the figure. The 4) iˆ  14 ˆj  5kˆ
distance of centre of mass from the point ‘O’ 107. The adjacent sides of a parallelogram are
is P  2i  3 j  k and Q  2i  4 j  k . What
is the area of the parallelogram ?
1) 4 units
2) 7 units
3) 5 units
L 
1) cos 4) 8 units
2 2
108. The magnitude of scalar and vector products
L 
2) sin of two vectors are 48 3 and 144
4 2
respectively. What is the angle between the
L 
3) cos two vectors ?
4 2
1) 30°
L 
4) sin 2) 45°
2 2
3) 60°
104. A uniform wire of length L is bent in the 4) 90°
form of a circle. The shift in its centre of
109. If A  2iˆ  3 ˆj  6kˆ and B  3iˆ  6 ˆj  2kˆ
mass is
L then vector perpendicular to both A and B
1)
 has magnitude K times that of 6iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ .
2L Then K =
2)
 1) 1
L 2) 3
3)
2 3) 7
4) 9

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110. A force of  Fkˆ acts on O, The origin of the B. For rotational q. Angular
coordinate system. The torque aboue the Equilibrium acceleration
point (1, -1) is C. Moment of inertia
of a body r.  F  0
d. Torque is required
to produce s.    0
1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-r
2) A-q, B-r, C-s, D-p
3) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-s
1) F (iˆ  ˆj ) 4) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-q
114. A boy and a man carry a uniform pole of
2)  F (iˆ  ˆj )
length 8m and of mass 60kg by supporting it
3) F (iˆ  ˆj ) on their shoulders. They are located at the
4)  F (iˆ  ˆj ) ends of the pole. Where should a load of 90
111. A boy and a man carry a uniform rod of kg be suspended from boys end so that boy
length ‘L’ horizontally in such a way that the carries only one-third of the total load ?
boy get ¼ of the load. If the boy is at one 1) 6.22 m
end of the rod, the distance of the man from 2) 6 m
the other end is 3) 5.9 m
1) L/6 4) 5.95 m
2) L/6 115. A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at
3) L/4 its centre when two coins, each of mass 5g
4) L/3 are put one on top of the other at the 12cm
112. ‘O’ is the centre of an equilateral triangle mark. The stick is found to be balanced at 45
ABC F1 and F2 and F3 are three forces acting cm. What is the mass of the metre stick ?
along the sides A, BC and AC as shown in 1) 60 gm
figure. What should be the magnitude of F3, 2) 66 gm
so that the total torque about ‘O’ is zero ? 3) 65 gm
4) 70 gm
116. A cubical block of side ‘L’ rests on a rough
horizontal surface with coefficient of friction
 , A horizontal force F is applied on the
block as shown in figure. The minimum
force required to topple the block is

F1  F2
1)
2
2) 2( F1  F2 )
3) ( F1  F2 ) 1) Infinitesimal
mg
4) ( F1  F2 ) 2)
4
113. Match the column-I with column-II mg
Column-I Column-II 3)
2
A. For transitional
4) mg (1  )
Equilibrium p. Mk2
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 NEET WET - 13 (18-11-24)
117. The C.M of a uniform card board cut in ‘T’ 4) Young’s law
shape as shown in figure is 123. A metallic ring of radius ‘r’ and cross
sectional area A is fitted into a wooden
circular disc of radius R ( R > r). If the
Young’s modulaus of the material of the ring
is Y, the force with which the metal ring
expands is
AYR
1) 4 cm from A towards B 1)
r
2) 4 cm from B towards A AY ( R  r )
3) 3 cm from B towards A 2)
r
4) 3 cm from A towards B
Y (R  r)
118. Two particles of equal mass have velocities 3)
Ar
V1  4 i and V2  4 j ms 1 . First particle has
YR
4)
an acceleration a1  (5i  5 j ) ms 2 while AR
the acceleration of the other particle is zero. 124. When the tension on a wire is 4N its length
The centre of the two particle moves in a is l1 . When the tension on the wire is 5N its
length is l2. Find its natural length
path of
1) 5l1  4l2
1) Straight line
2) Parabola 2) 4l1  5l2
3) Circle 3) 10l1  8l2
4) Ellipse 4) 8l1  10l2
119. Dimention of the moment of inertia 125. Two wires of same length and thickness are
1) M1L2T0 joined end to end. Their Young’s moduli are
2) M1L2T2 15 x 1010 pa and 20 x 1010 pa. If the
combination is stretched by a certain load,
3) M2L1T0
the elongations of these wires will be in the
4) M2L0T1 ratio
120. A bomb moving in a parabolic path explodes 1) 3 : 4
into two fragments of equal masses. The 2) 4 : 3
acceleration of the centre of mass of the 3) 1 : 1
fragments when both are in air is equal to 4) 1 : 2
1) g/2 126. Two wires of the same material have masses
in the ratio 3 : 4. The ratio of their
2) 2g
extensions under the same load if their
3) g lengths ae in the ratio 9 : 10 is
4) zero 1) 5 : 3
121. The Young’s modules of a perfect rigid body 2) 27 : 40
is 3) 6 : 5
1) 1 4) 27 : 25
2) 0 127. The following four wires are made of the
3) infinity same material. Which of these will have the
4) none of these largest elongation when the same tension is
122. The law which governs the working of a applied
spring balance is 1) l = 50 cm and diameter 0.5 mm
1) Kepler’s law 2) l = 100 cm and diameter 1.0 mm
2) Robert Hooke’s law
3) l = 200 cm and diameter 2.0 mm
3) Newton’s law
4) l = 300 cm and diameter 3.0 mm
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 NEET WET - 13 (18-11-24)
128. There are wires of same material. Their radii 2
2)
and lengths are both in the ratio 1 : 2, If the  1
extensions produced are equal, what is the 9
ratio of the loads ? 3)    1
2
1) 1: 2
25
2) 2: 1 4)    1
2
3) 1 : 4
132. At a given temperature the root mean square
4) 4 : 1
velocities of oxygenand hydrogen molecules
129. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of
are in the ratio
two materials A and B are as shown in the
1) 16 : 1
figure. If YA and YB are the Young’s modulii
2) 1 : 16
of the materials, then
3) 4 : 1
4) 1 : 4
133. Given is the graph between PV/T and P for
1gm of oxygen gas at two different
temperatures T1 and T2 (Given : density of
oxygen = 1.429 kg/m3). The value of PV/T
at the point A and the relation between T1
1) YA = 12YB
and T2 are respectively
2) YA = YB
3) YB = 3YA
4) YA = 3YB
130. Two wires of diameter 0.25 cm. One made
of steel and the other made of brass are
loaded as shown in figure. The length of
steel wire 1.5m and that of brass is 1.0m. the
1) 0.256 JK-1 and T1 < T2
elongation in steel wire is ( x 10-4 m)
2) 8.316 mol-1 K-1 and T1 > T2
(Ysteel = 2.0 x 1011 pa, Ybrass = 0.91 x 1011 pa)
3) 0.256 JK-1 and T1 > T2
4) 4.28 JK-1 and T1 < T2
134. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased
from 27°C to 927°C. the rms speed of its
molecules will becomes
1) Twice
2) Half
3) Four times
1) 1.5 4) One fourth
2) 3.0 135. In kinetic theory of gases, a molecule of
3) 2.5 mass m of an ideal gas collided with a wall
4) 5.0 of vessel with velocity V. The change in the
131. For a gas of ratio of specific heats at linear momentum of the molecule is
constant pressure and volume is  then 1) 2 mV
value of degree of freedom is 2) mV
3) – mV
3  1
1) 4) zero
2  1
CHEMISTRY
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 NEET WET - 13 (18-11-24)
136. Among the following which is a state  H 
142. For one mole of an ideal gas 
 T  P
is 16
variable ?
1) P  E 
2) V cal. K-1mol-1. For the same gas   is __
 T  V
3) T
cal. K-1 mol-1.
4) All 1) Zero
137. In which of the following sets, all the 2) 14
properties belong to same category (all 3) 16
extensive or all intensive) 4) 18
1) Mass, Volume, Specific heat 143. the workdone in an open vessel when 13.08
2) Temperatrue, Pressure, Volume g of Zn(s) react with excess dil. H2SO4 to
form ZnSO4 at 27°C will be (Given : Molar
3) Heat capacity, Density, Entropy
mass of Zn = 65.4 gm mol-1 (1))
4) Enthalpy, Internal energy, Volume 1) W = - 60 cal
138. The incorrect expression for work done in an 2) W = - 20 cal
isothermal reversible process is 3) W = - 120 cal
Vf 4) W = - 30 cal
1) W    Pext dv 144. The molar heat capacity of wate at constant
Vi pressure P, is 75 JK-1 mol-1. When 1.0 kJ of
heat is supplied to 100 g of water which is
 Vi 
2) W  2.303nRT log   free to expand, the increase in temperature of
 Vf  water is
 Vf  1) 1.2 K
3) W   nRT ln   2) 2.4 K
 Vi 
3) 4.8 K
 Vf  4) 6.6 K
4) W  2.303 nRT log  
 Vi  145. Work done during the combustion of one
-3 3
139. An ideal gas expands from 10 m to 10 m -2 3 mole of CH4 in bomb calorimeter is
1) – 101 J
at 300 K against a constant pressure of 105
2) – 24.2 J
Nm-2. The work done is 3) – 1 J
1) – 103 kJ 4) zero
2) – 102 kJ 146. During isothermal expansion of an ideal gas,
3) – 0.9 kJ its internal energy ?
4) – 900 kJ 1) Decreases
140. When 8 gm O2 at STp expands against 0.5 2) Increases
atm pressure. Then work done is 3) may increases or decrease
1) – 2.8 lit – atm 4) remains unchanged
2) + 2.8 lit – atm 147. Regarding internal energy some statements
3) – 11.8 lit – atm are given below
4) +11.2 lit – atm A. The absolute internal energy of a system
141. Two litres of an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 cannot be determined
B. Internal energy is an extensive property
atm expands isothermally into vacuum until
C. In isothermal reversible expansion of an
its total volume is 10 litres. The work done is ideal gas U  0
the expansion is D. Internal energy is a state function
1) – 800 J The correct statements are
2) + 800 J 1) A, B, C only
3) Zero 2) B, C, D only
4) – 100 J 3) A, B, D only
4) A, B, C, D
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 NEET WET - 13 (18-11-24)
148. For which one of the following system 154. One mole of methanol, when burnt in
E   H oxygen, gives out 723 kJ mol-1 heat. If one
1) 2SO2 ( g )  O2 ( g )  2SO3 ( g ) mole of oxygen is used , what will be the
amount of heat evolved ?
2) N 2 ( g )  O2 ( g )  2 NO( g ) 1) 723 kJ
3) 2 NH 3 ( g )  N 2 ( g )  3H 2 ( g ) 2) 964 kJ
3) 482 kJ
4) H 2 ( g )  I 2 ( g )  2 HI ( g ) 4) 241 kJ
149. The heat of combustion of solid benzoic acid 155. the heats of combustion of hydrogen, carbon
at constant volume is – 321.30 kJ at 27°C. monoxide and methane are – 285, - 284 and
the heat of combustion at constant pressure -890 kJmol-1. The calorific value is
maximum for
is 1) H2
1) – 321.30 – 300 R 2) CO
2) – 321.30 + 300 R 3) CH4
3) – 321.30 – 150 R 4) Cannot be predicated as information is
4) – 321.30 + 900 R incomplete
150. A system aborbs 600 J energy and 200 J 156. Cgraphite  O2( g )  CO2( g ) ;
work is done on it by surrounding. Find out H  393.5kJ , H of the above reaction
the change in internal energy cannot be
1) 400 J 1) Heat of formation of CO2
2) – 400 J 2) Heat of combustion of C
3) Heat of reaction
3) – 800 J
4) Heat of transition
4) 800 J 157. The heat of atomization of PH3 is 228 K.Cal
151. H and E for the reaction, mol-1 and that of P2H4 (g) is 335 K.Cal
3 mol-1. The energy of the P-P bond is (in
S( s )  O2( g )  SO3( g ) are related as K.Cal)
2
1) 102
1) H  E  0.5 RT
2) 51
2) H  E  1.5 RT 3) 26
3) H  E  RT 4) 204
158. Which of the following reaction defines
4) H  E  1.5RT
H  f ?
152. The enthalpy of formation of ammonia is – 1
46.0 kJ mol-1. The enthalpy change of the 1) CO( g )  O2( g )  CO2( g )
2
reaction 2 NH 3 ( g )  2 N 2 ( g )  3H 2 ( g ) is 2) N 2( g )  3H 2( g )  2 NH 3( g )
1) 46.0 kJ mol-1
3) C( diamond )  2 H 2( g )  CH 4( g )
2) 92.0 kJ mol-1
3) – 23.0 kJ mol-1 1 1
4) H 2( g )  F2( g )  HF( g )
4) – 92.0 kJ mol-1 2 2
153. The species which by definition has ZERo 159. A carbon compound has many functional
groups, then order of preference while
standard molar enthalpy of formation at 298
naming it according to IUPAC nomenclature
K is is
1) Br2(g) 1) –CHO > –COOH > –OH > –NH2
2) Cl2(g) 2) –COOH > –CHO > –NH2 > –OH
3) H2O(g) 3) –COOH > –OH > –NH2 > –CHO
4) CH4(g)
4) –COOH > –CHO > –OH > –NH2

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 NEET WET - 13 (18-11-24)
160. IUPAC name of CH2 = CH – group is 2) 1, 1 - demethyl - 3 – hydroxyl
1) Vinyl cyclohexane
2) Ethyl 3) 3, 3 - dimethyl - 1 – hydroxyl
3) Ethenyl cyclohexane
4) Ethynyl 4) 1, 1 - dimethyl - 3 - cyclohexanol
161. IUPAC name of the compound OH
CH  C  CH 2  CH 2  CH  CH 2 is COOH
1) 1-yne-5 - hexene
2) Hex-5-en-1 - yne
3) Hex-5-yne -l - ene 166. IUPAC name of Br
4) Hex-l-en-5-yne is
162. The IUPAC name of the compound is 1) 4 – bromo 2 – hydroxy benzene
carboxylic acid
2) 1 – bromo 3 – hydroxy benzene
carboxylic acid
3) 1 – bromo 3 – hydroxy benzoic acid
1) 2,4,5,6-tetramethyl -7-ethyl deca -1,7- 4) 1 – carboxy 2 – bromo phenol
diene 167. Chain isomer of 1- butyne is
2) 2,4,5,6-tetramethyl deca-1,8 – diene 1) 2- methyl -1- propyne
3) 4-ethyl -5,6,7,9-tetramethyl deca – 2,9- 2) 2- butyne
diene 3) 3- methyl -1- propyne
4) 4-ethyl -5,6,7,9-tetramethyl deca diene 4) cannot form chain isomer
163. The correct IUPAC name of (C2H5)4C is 168. Number of chain isomers for C6H14

1) Tetraethyl methane 1) 5
2) 2-Ethylpentane 2) 7
3) 3, 3-Diethylpentane 3) 6
4) 2, 2-Diethylpentane 4) 9
164. IUPAC name of 169. Isobutyl chloride and tert-butyl chloride are
a pair of
CH 3  CH 2  CH 3  CH  CH 3
| is 1) Position isomers
H 3C  CH  CH 3 2) Chain isomers
1) 2, 3-Dimethyl hexane 3) Functional isomers
2) 2 – methyl -3-propylbutane 4) Geometric isomers
3) 2 – isopropylpentane 170. Number of possible positional isomers for
4) Nonane C3H5Cl3
165. The IUPAC name of the compound is 1) 2
2) 5
3) 6
4) 4
171. Methyl propyl ether and diethyl ether are
1) Chain isomers
HO 2) Metamers
1) 3, 3 - dimethyl - 1 - cyclohexanol 3) Geometrical isomers
4) Optical isomers

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 NEET WET - 13 (18-11-24)
172. Which of the following pairs of compounds a) CH 3CH 2CH 2COOH
are not metamers ? b) CH 3CH 2CHClCOOH
1) CH3OCH 2CH 2CH3 and CH 3CH 2OCH 2CH 3 c) CH 3CHClCH 2COOH
CH3CH 2OCH 2CH3 CH3OCH CH3 2
2) and d) CH2Cl CH2CH2COOH
1) a > b > c > d
3) CH3 NHCH 2CH 2CH3 and CH3CH 2 NHCH 2CH3
2) b > c > d > a
4) CH3 NHCH 2CH 2CH3 and CH3 NHCH CH3 2 3) b > d > c > a
173. The number of structural isomers possible 4) b > a > c > d
from the molecular formula C3 H 9 N is 179. Which of the following alkenes attains
1) 4 maximum stabilisation through
2) 5 hyperconjugation?
1) CH3CH CH 2
3) 2
4) 3 CH 3 C CH 2
2) 2

174. Total number of structural alcoholic isomers 3) CH 3 3 C CH CH 2

with the formula C4 H10O 4) CH3CH 2CH CH 2

1) 7 180. Which of the following is not expected to
2) 4 exhibit resonance?
3) 3 1) CH 3OCH CH 2
4) 2
175. Which of the following does not show 2) CH3CH 2OCH3
tautamerism ?
3) CH3 C HOCH3
1) C6 H 5COCH 3
4) CH 2 CHCl
2)
CH 3CHO

3) CH 3COCH 3
C H COC CH 
4) 6 5 3 3

176. Which of the following alkyl groups has the

maximum effect +I?
1)  CH 3 2 CH 

2)
 CH 3 3 C 
3) CH 3CH 2 

4)
CH 
3

177. Decreasing - I effect of given groups is

i) Cl ii) F iii) Br iv) I
1) iii > ii > i > iv
2) ii > iii > iv > i
3) iii > ii > iv > i
4) ii > i> iii > iv
178. The correct decreasing order of acidic nature
of

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