SỞ GIÁ O DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NAM ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH

NĂM HỌC 2024 - 2025

ĐỊNH ĐỀ THAM KHẢO Môn: TIẾNG ANH – Lớp 8
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút.
Đề thi gồm: 08 trang.

Điểm bài thi Họ, tên và chữ ký 2 giám khảo SỐ PHÁCH

Bằng số: ............................. Giám khảo 1: ..................................

Bằng chữ: ........................... Giám khảo 2: ..................................

Thí sinh làm bài trưc tiếp vào đề thi này

PART A. LISTENING (5.0 POINTS)

Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:

- Nội dung phần nghe gồm 03 phần, mỗi thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy.
- Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc, hướng dẫn chi tiết đã có trong bài nghe.

I. You will hear Monica and her friend Jonathan talking about a holiday. Decide whether the
following statements are true or false. Write T (True) or F (False) in provided gaps (1.0 point)

Statements Answer
Question 1. Jonathan spent his holiday with his family in the USA
Question 2. They left on the 3rd and came back on the 13th of July
Question 3. Yellowstone Park is an old big national park.
Question 4. He is afraid of some dangerous snakes there.
Question 5. He is unhappy because he didn’t buy enough souvenirs
(From Ready for A2 Key for Schools)

II. You will hear a radio interview with an athlete called George. Listen and circle the correct
answer A, B or C. You will listen TWICE. (2.0 points)
Question 1. Which kind of event has George got medals lately?
A. national B. local C. international
Question 2. What was George like when he was a little kid?
A. He was very active B. He was talented C. He was pleased with his passion
Question 3. When did George first get interested in athletics?
A. at university B. at secondary school C. at primary school
Question 4. Who has helped George most with his athletics career?
A. his father B. his coach C. his friends
Question 5. How did George feel when he won his first gold medal?
A. excited B. tired C. surprised
Question 6. Why didn’t George realize he had won?
A. He focused on his race B. He got lost C. He thought that he lost
Question 7. What does George find difficult?
A. training B. travelling C. being away from his family

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Question 8. What does George really enjoy?
A. being on TV B. meeting new people C. giving interviews
Question 9. What does George think about being interviewed all the time?
A. It’s his part of job B. It is really interesting C. It is difficult for him
Question 10. What does George think he will do in the next few years?
A. work for TV B. teach C. retire and look after his children
(From B1 Preliminary Listening)

III. Listen to the audio and fill in the missing information in the numbered spaces. In each space,
write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD or A NUMBER. (2.0 points)
SOUTH CITY CYCLING CLUB
Membership
 Full membership costs $260 and this covers cycling and (1) all over
Australia
 Recreational membership costs $108
 Cost of membership includes the club fee and (2)
 The club kit is made by a company called (3)
Training rides
 Chance to improve cycling skills and fitness
 Level B: speed about (4) kph
 Weekly sessions
Tuesday at 5.30 am, meet at the (5)
Thursday at 5.30 am, meet at the entrance to the (6)
Further information
 Rides are about an hour and a half.
 Members often have a (7) together afterwards
 There is not always a (8) with the group in these rides
 Check and print the (9) on the website beforehand
 Bikes must have (10)
(From Cambrige Listening Practice Test)

PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (5.0 POINTS)

I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences (2.0
points)
Question 1. learning a foreign language, John is smarter than Tim although they are twins.
A. Regardness of B. In terms of C. With a view to D. In addition to
Question 2. Ha Long bay, one of new seven wonders of the world, consists of 1969 big and
small islands.
A. knows B. known as C. is known D. that known as
Question 3. Not everyone believes that technology has improved quality of people's
lives.
A. the / Ø B. Ø/ a C. the / the D. Ø / the
Question 4. Assistant: “Is there anything I can do for you, sir?”
Customer: “ ”
A. Yes, you’re welcome. B. Ok. Be my guest.
C. Not now. Thanks anyway. D. Sure. Go ahead, please.

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Question 5. Nothing could stop her from reaching her goal. She was .
A. determined B. dependable C. introversive D. responsible
Question 6. They received piece of advice from their parents that they became
successful.
A. so good B. so a good C. such a good D. such good
Question 7. Anyone scholastic record is above average can apply for the scholarship.
A. who has B. whose C. whom D. which
Question 8. Mr. Jone knew who had won the contest, but he kept it to himself until it was announced
publicly.
A. had a big mouth B. played it by ear
C. had his nose in a book D. keep it under his hat
Question 9. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to
make a meaningful exchange in the following question.
a. James: I’m free this weekend.
b. Sarah: How about going to the beach?
c. James: Sure, sounds fun!
d. Sarah: Do you have any plans for the weekend?
A. a – d – c – b B. d – a – b – c C. d – a – c – b D. a – b – d – c
Question 10. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences
to make a meaningful text in the following question.
a. Additionally, family traditions help create lasting memories and a sense of belonging.
b. Finally, spending quality time together as a family strengthens relationships and communication.
c. To begin with, family values play a crucial role in shaping a person's character and guiding their
actions.
d. Moreover, these values teach important life skills such as empathy, respect, and responsibility.
e. Family values are fundamental in building a strong and supportive family unit.
A. e – c – d – a – b B. c – e – d – a – b C. e – a – d – c – b D. c – d – e – a – b

II. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets. Write your answers in the blanks (2.0 points)
Question 1. I enjoy the of having my groceries delivered. CONVENIENT
Question 2. His boss told him off because he had behaved . RESPONSIBLE
Question 3. are doing their best to make us aware of the ENVIRONMENT
danger of all pollution.
Question 4. British airway apologized for the of the 5.40 to CANCEL
Bath.
Question 5 . The of the Toyota are widely consumed in PRODUCE
Vietnam.
Question 6. from family and friends can lead to feelings of ISOLATE
anxiety.
Question 7. Our country became totally in 1975 after decades DEPEND
of fighting for freedom.
Question 8. Please don’t serve Mrs. Thomson with meat. She is a VEGETABLE
.
Question 9. Sam was accused of stealing some documents CONFIDENCE
from the safe.
Question 10. During the lockdown, students have to learn online via Zoom or INTERACT
Microsoft Team, which provides classes.

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III. Choose the suitable phrasal verb to complete the sentences. Change the verb form if it’s
necessary. There is one extra phrasal verb which you do not need to use. (1.0 point)
break down back up get through
tell apart put off pack up
Question 1. I have to my files regularly, so that I don’t lose them when the
computer crashes.
Question 2. The car and we had to call someone to tow it away
Question 3. The twins look so much alike that almost no one can them .
Question 4. They happened to be in the city for a short holiday so they just
the meeting without calling in advance.
Question 5. I tried to call her mobile phone, but I couldn't . I must call her back
when we get to the office.

PART C. READING (5.0 POINTS)

I. Read the passage and decide whether the statements are True (T), False (F) or Not given (NG).
Write your answers in provided gaps (1.0 point)
THE INNER PLANETS
Planets are large bodies that rotate around the sun. The inner planets, or terrestrial planets, are
the four planets closest to the Sun: Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. Even though these planets are all
small and rocky, they have more differences than they have things in common.
Because Mercury is the closest to the sun, the side that faces the sun gets as hot as 427°
Celsius. At the same time, the side that faces away from the sun is a freezing -173° Celsius. The
extreme temperatures alone make it a very unlikely place for life. With an atmosphere too thin for
human breathing, it’s obvious that people won’t be living on Mercury any time soon.
The next planet from the sun is Venus. Below clouds of sulfuric gas lies 96% carbon dioxide
atmosphere. That might be nice for a plant, since a plant “breathes” carbon dioxide, but not for a
person. If you managed to survive the atmosphere, the surface of the planet is hot enough to melt solid
metal. Venus has a temperature that is maintained at 462° Celsius, no matter where you go on the
planet.
You are probably most familiar with Earth because it is your home planet. It has the perfect
conditions for life. Earth’s atmosphere and oceans help control the trickiest part of making a planet
life-friendly: temperature. Earth is the only planet known to have liquid water.
Mars is the fourth farthest from the sun. Some people think it may be possible for life to exist
there. Although scientists have not been able to find actual water on Mars, there seems to be evidence
of water erosion on its surface. Its canyons and mountains are very similar to those found on Earth.
The main difference is that there is no plant life. Some scientists believe that Mars may have been very
much like Earth until something happened that made the water supply evaporate.
(Adapted from https://courses.lumenlearning.com/)

T F NG
(True) (False) (Not
given)
Question 1. Mercury is far from the sun so people can’t live well on this
planet.
Question 2. Venus has an atmosphere whose composition is similar to
that of Earth.

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Question 3. The temperature on the surface of Venus is hot enough to
melt lead.
Question 4. Scientists have proved that life once existed on Mars.
Question 5. It seems that Mars once had liquid water on its surface.
II. Read the following passage and then circle A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable word or
phrase for each space. (2.0 points)
“A Kid in King Arthurs Court” is directed by Michael Gottlieb. The main (1) in the film
is a teenager called Calvin Fuller. Calvin is (2) Thomas Ian Nicholas. This film is a modern
retelling of Mark Twain’s (3) book Connecticut Yankee.
Calvin lives in California, USA. He is a very shy boy and he is not very good at sports. At the
beginning of the film, Calvin is playing baseball when there is a (4) earthquake. A hole opens in
the ground and Calvin falls through it. He lands in the past, in the (5) of King Arthur.
Calvin meets King Arthur and Merlin, the wizard. King Arthur is played by Joss Ackland and
Merlin is played by Ron Moody. They think that Calvin is (6) because he plays them modern
music on his CD player and he shows them (7) to make rollerblades and a mountain bike.
Calvin is trained to be a knight and he becomes more (8) . Calvin helps King Arthur to beat his
enemy, Lord Belasco, and then Merlin sends Calvin back to the future. Calvin finds himself back in
the baseball game, (9) this time he wins the game.
The special effects (10) A Kid in King Arthur’s Court are very good. Michael Gottlieb is
a great director and the actors’ performances are good. The film is funny and exciting. It’s a comedy, a
drama, and an action film all in one.
(Adapted from Use of English)
Question 1. A. author B. name C. character D. actress
Question 2. A. played B. did C. made D. created
Question 3. A. classify B. class C. classic D. classical
Question 4. A. terrify B. terrible C. terrifying D. terribly
Question 5. A. period B. decade C. moment D. time
Question 6. A. amazed B. amazing C. amaze D. amazes
Question 7. A. what B. whatever C. how D. which
Question 8. A. confident B. confidence C. confide D. confided
Question 9. A. although B. but C. despite D. owing to
Question 10. A. about B. to C. at D. in
III. Read the following passage and circle A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions. (2.0 points)
Do you feel like your teenager is spending most of the day glued to a phone screen? You’re not
too far off. A new survey from the Pew Research Center reveals the surprising ways that technology
intersects with teen friendships - and the results show that 57 percent of teens have made at least one
new friend online. Even more surprisingly, only 20 percent of those digital friends ever meet in
person.
While teens do connect with their friends face-to-face outside of school, they spend 55 percent
of their day texting with friends, and only 25 percent of teens are spending actual time with their
friends on a daily basis (outside of school hallways). These new forms of communication are key in
maintaining friendships day-to-day - 27 percent of teens instant message their friends every day, 23
percent connect through social media every day, and 7 percent even video chat daily. Text messaging
remains the main form of communication - almost half of survey respondents say it’s their chosen
method of communication with their closest friend.

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 When making new friends, social media has also become a major part of the teenage identity-62
percent of teens are quick to share their social media usernames when connecting with a new friend
(although 80 percent still consider their phone number the best method of contact). Despite the
negative consequences-21 percent of teenage users feel worse about their lives because of posts they
see on social media - teens also have found support and connection through various platforms. In fact,
68 percent of teens received support during a challenging time in their lives via social media platforms.
Just as technology has become a gateway for new friendships, or a channel to stay connected
with current friends, it can also make a friendship breakup more public. The study reveals that girls
are more likely to block or unfriend former allies, and 68 percent of all teenage users report
experiencing “drama among their friends on social media.”
(Adapt from https://www.realsimple.com)
Question 1. What is the main idea for the passage?
A. Teens prefer texting over face-to-face communication to maintain friendships.
B. Social media causes more harm than good in teen relationships.
C. Boys and girls use technology differently to build and sustain friendships.
D. Technology plays a significant role in shaping teen friendships.
Question 2. The word “digital” in the first paragraph refers to .
A. online B. numeracy C. numerous D. analogue
Question 3. The following sentences are true, EXCEPT .
A. New forms of communication play an important role in keeping friendships
B. Most teenagers use video chat to maintain relationship with friends
C. According to the survey, more than half of teens have ever made new friends online
D. Teens only meet face-to-face one-fifth of online friends they have made
Question 4. The word “intersects” in the first paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to .
A. interrupts B. generates C. maintains D. involves
Question 5. According to the passage, what is the proportion of teenagers experiencing daily online
communication?
A. 27 percent B. 57 percent C. 7 percent D. 23 percent
Question 6. According to the passage, what percentage of teens spend actual time with their friends?
A. 23 percent B. 25 percent C. 27 percent D. 55 percent
Question 7. What does the writer mean when saying: 68 percent of all teenage users report
experiencing “drama among their friends on social media”?
A. Most teenagers take part in drama on social media.
B. Most friends on social media of teens are reported in drama.
C. Most teenagers use their experience in drama with their friends on social media.
D. Most teenagers have ever had conflicts with friends on social media.
Question 8. The word breakup in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to .
A. marriage B. reconciliation C. connection D. union
Question 9. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. A larger number of teens are reluctant to give others their online usernames.
B. Most teenage users agree that social media has negative consequences in their lives.
C. More than two-thirds of teens are helped online when facing challenges in their lives.
D. It is less likely that boys are going to make new relationships faster than girls.
Question 10. In which paragraph does the writer mention the different friendship maintaining between
boys and girl?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4

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 PART D. WRITING (5.0 points)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the given
sentence, using the cues at the beginning of each sentence. Write your answers in the spaces
provided (1.6 points)
Question 1. I am afraid I am not patient enough to wait for my turn so long
 I am afraid I .
Question 2. My boss works better when he is pressed for time.
 The less .
Question 3. In spite of all our warnings, he walked into the woods alone
 Although .
Question 4. Experts believe that the landslides were caused by recent floods
 The landslides .
Question 5. We were late for the meeting because it rained heavily
 But for .
Question 6. The girl was so weak that she couldn’t keep on working
 Such .
Question 7. Go to the international ticket desk immediately on arrival.
 As .
Question 8. "You broke the glass while cooking dinner yesterday, Maria", said Peter.
 Peter accused .

II. Use the given word to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the original sentences. Do not change the form of the given word. (1.4 points)
Question 1. They were unable to finish their game of badminton because of the heavy rain. FROM

Question 2. She finally persuaded her father to lend her his car. INTO

Question 3. Hoa cannot get a good job because she does not have enough qualifications. IF

Question 4. Susan finds it easy to make friends at her new school. DIFFICULTY

Question 5. I was about to go out for dinner when he phoned. POINT

Question 6. They are building some new apartments in the suburbs. UNDER

Question 7. You can eat as much as you like for $5 at the new lunch-bar. LIMIT


III. Paragraph writing. (2.0 points)

Maintaining cultural traditions is important in a globalized world.
Do you agree or disagree with this statement? In about 150-180 words, write a paragraph to
show your opinion.

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-THE END-

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