Fourth Year B. Pharm.

(Sem VIII) CBCS

BPH_E_807_T – Clinical Pharmacy

Sample MCQs for Practice

1. Which of the following responsibility of the clinical pharmacist is in direct

patient care area?
a) Supervision of drug administration techniques.
b) Providing drug information to physicians and nurses.
c) Identify drugs brought into the hospital by patients.
d) Reviewing of each patient’s drug administration forms periodically to ensure all
doses have been administered.

2. ____________ is the organization to manage the procurement, storage, preservation,

packaging, sterilization, compounding, preparation, dispensing or distribution of medicine.

a) Clinical Pharmacy.
b) Hospital Pharmacy.
c) Community Pharmacy.
d) Ambulatory Pharmacy.

3.Which of the following responsibility of community pharmacist is in dispensing area?

a) Reviews all doses missed, reschedule the doses as necessary & signs all drugs not
given notices.
b) Supervision of drug administration.
c) Ensures that establishes policies & procedures are followed.
d) Reviewing of each patient’s drug administration forms periodically to ensure all
doses have been administered.

4. Which of the following is verbal communication skill for effective patient counselling?

a) Language.
b) Proximity.
c) Facial expression.
d) Eye contact.

5. The most specific & sensitive method for assessment of compliance can be used to detect
potent therapeutic agent in body fluids is

a) Drug analysis.
b) Interrogation.
c) Urine marker.
d) Residual Tablet counting.

6. Which of the following reaction is called Augmented adverse drug reactions?

a) Genetically determined effects.

 b) Idiosyncracy.
c) Rebound effect on discontinuation
d) Allergic reactions & anaphylaxis.
7. Which one of these is a genetically determined adverse drug reactions?
a) Addication.
b) Teratogenecity.
c) Carcinogenicity.
d) Idiosyncracy.

8. _______________ is an example of Pharmacokinetic drug interaction.

a) Gastric motility changes.

b) Alteration of electrolyte levels.
c) Drugs having antagonist’s effects.
d) Interactions at receptor site.

9.________________ causes pharmacodynamic drug interaction.

a) Gastric motility changes.

b) Stimulation of metabolism.
c) Alteration of pH of GIT.
d)Interactions at receptor site.

10. The age related physiological change in geriatric patient which may affect drug distribution
is

a) Increased body mass.

b) Increased total body water.
c) Increased total body fat.
d) Increased serum albumin level.

11. Organogenesis occurs during ______________stage.

a) Pre-embryonic.
b) Embryonic.
c) Pre-Fetal.
d) Fetal.

12. ___________ absorption in infants and children is noticeably faster than in neonatal
period.

a) Oral.
b) Topical
c) Intravenous.
d) Intramuscular.

13.Which of the following drug does not require therapeutic drug monitoring?

a) Digitoxin.
 b) Gentamycin.
c) Phenytoin.
d) Paracetamol

14.The studies are to determine a pharmacological profile, safe dose and assess potential
toxicity of the product on laboratory animal is known as
a) Observation study.
b) Clinical study.
c) Preclinical study.
d) Statistical study.
15.Autonomy in clinical studied is defined as
a) Freedom, dignity and confidentiality of the subject; right to choose
i. whether or not to participate in the trial or to continue with it.
b) Motive to do good to the subject and/or the society at large.
c) Not to do harm or put the participant at undue risk/disadvantage.
d) Observance of fairness, honesty and impartiality in obtaining, analyzing
& communicating the data.
16.___________ is an example of latent adverse drug reactions.

a) Antibiotic-associated diarrhea
b) Tardive dyskinesia
c) Serum sickness
d) Severe bronchoconstriction

17. Drug increased risk of Reye's syndrome in children

a) Valproate
b) Mebendazole
c) Salicylate
d) sulfonamide

18.Mechanism by which adrenaline can prolong the duration of local anesthesia

a) Decreased permeability of the vascular endothelium
b) Precipitation of lidocaine
c) Changing the pH of the solution
d) Local Vasoconstriction

19.___________ antidiabetic drug is preferred for elderly patient

a) Gliclazide
b) Glibencamide
c) Metformin
d) Pioglitazone

20.Side effects of Valproic acid is ___________

a) Rhinitis
b) Thrombocytopenia
 c) Hypothyroidism
d) Confusion

21.___________ side effect is seen during the treatment with Levodopa

a) Dyskinesias
b) Bone marrow depression
c) Thombocytopenia
d) Impotence

22.___________ is a major role of clinical pharmacist.

a) Premarketing surveillance
b) Postmarketing surveillance
c) Preclinical study
d) Patient Counseling

23.___________ is not required in TDM

a) Dosing regimen
b) Preclinical research data
c) Time of the sample
d) Indication for therapy

24.___________ drug is usually avoided with breastfeeding.

a) Ibuprofen
b) propranalol
c) Methotrexate
d) Naproxe

25.The sponsor in clinical study is

a) Country.
b) Organisation.
c) Society.
d) Cohort.
26. The written details for conduct trails to ensure quality control of trail is known as
a) GCP.
b) SOP.
c) IEC.
d) ADR.
27.What is bioequivalence?
a) Comparison between 3-year-old drugs to the same new drug.
b) Comparison between drugs to another drug.
c) Comparison between a drug’s specific characteristics to a defined set of
Standards.
 d) Comparison between two or 3 characteristics of a drug to the same
characteristics of a different drug.
28.Science of collecting, monitoring, researching, assessing and evaluating information from
healthcare providers and patients on the adverse effects of medications is known as
a) Pharmacovigilance.
b) Clinical Trails.
c) Observational study.
d) Qualitative study.
29. Which of the following statements is true concerning epidemic diseases?
a) They are usually not very contagious.
b) At the end of an epidemic, a disease spreads at an increasing rate and then
i. abruptly disappears.
c) They usually appear and disappear seasonally.
d) It can be spread globally.
30.An epidemic that becomes unusually widespread and even global in its reach is referred to
as
a) Pandemic.
b) Hyperendemic.
c) Spanish flu.
d) Endodermic.
31.OECD stands for
a) Outcome economy committee development.
b) Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development.
c) Out entry contact dossier.
d) Organization for Evasive Co-operation and Development.
32.___________ drug is avoided in children’s under 4 years with diarrhea.

a) bisacodyl
b) loperamide
c) Bismuth subsalicylate
d) Ciprofloxacin

33.All are Selected Cytochrome P3A4 Inducer EXCEPT___________

a) Efavirenz
b) Erythromycin
c) Dexamethasone
d) Nevirapine

34.___________ is the common and dose related side effect of salbutamol.

a) Decrease in blood pressure

b) Muscle tremor
c) Central nervous system stimulation
d) Hyperglycaemia
35.According to Rawlins–Thompson classification Type D ADR includes___________

a) Carcinogenesis
b) Bradycardia associated with beta blockers
c) Anaphylaxis associated with penicillin
d) Opiate withdrawal syndrome

36. Which of the following promotes the excretion of basic drugs?

A)Tartrates
B)Citrates
C)Bicarbonates
D) Ammonium chloride

37. The comparison of bioavailability between two dosage forms is refereed as____________
A. Bioavailability
B. Biopharmaceutics
C. Biological
D. Bioequivalence

38. The highest serum drug concentration following a single dose or at a steady state within a
dosing interval is called ……….
A. Lead
B. Peak
C. Poison
D. Mechanisms

39. Why should care be taken when prescribing warfarin and amiodarone in combination?
A. Amiodarone and warfarin both have an anticoagulant effect.
B. Amiodarone may reverse the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
C. Amiodarone may increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
D. Warfarin may reverse the antiarrhythmic effect of amiodarone.

40. Which of the following drug causes Phocomelia?

A) Thalidomide
B) Paracetamol
C) Amoxicillin
D) Heparin

41. The substantial degradation of an orally administered drug caused by enzyme metabolism
in the liver before the drug reaches the systemic circulation.
A. First-pass metabolism
B. Disposition
 C. Antagonist
D. Hydrophilic

42. According to ICH GCP the investigator "should be qualified by...........................

A. Training and experience
B. Education, training and experience
C. Education and experience
D. Education and training

43. Pharmaceutical equivalent that produce the same effects in patients

A. Therapeutic equivalent
B. Therapeutic window
C. Minimum effective concentration (MEC)
D. Minimum toxic concentration (MTC)

44. How are prescription medicines different from OTC ones?

A. They contain much smaller amounts of active ingredients
B. They don't contain dyes or preservatives
C. They're unsafe for use without medical supervision
D. They can be toxic

45. Which of the following would be the most suitable course of action for a patient who
refuses to take their prescribed medicine?
A) Explain to the patient that the medicine should be taken as prescribed in order to get the
benefit of treatment and that the risk of harm from licensed medicines is very low.
B) Explore the reasons why they don't wish to take their medicine and explain the benefits
and risks of taking the medicine and the implications of not taking the medicine to the
patient.
C) Explore the reasons why they don't wish to take their medicine and try to convince them
that the benefits of treatment outweigh the risks.
D) Explain the benefits of taking the medicine and the implications of not taking the
medicine to the patient.

46. The _______________ is the heart of the patient counselling session

A) Preparing for the session.

B) Opening the session.

C) Counselling content.

D) Closing the session.

47. Which of the following drug is implicated in the causation of osteomalacia of the bone?

A. Steroid
B. Estrogen
C. Heparin
D. Phenytoin

48. Which of the following drug can result in cyanide poisoning?

A. Amyl nitrite
B. Hydroxycobalamine
C. Sodium nitroprusside
D. Sodium thiosulphate

49. According to the principles of ICH GCP what should be recorded, handled, and stored in
a way that allows its accurate reporting, interpretation and verification?
A. Data entered into the case report form
B. Source information
C. All clinical trial information
D. Essential documents

50. According to the principles of ICH GCP, what is the most important consideration when
conducting a clinical trial?
A. data accuracy
B. protection of trial subjects
C. Process adherence
D. Statistical quality checks

51. What is informed consent in a clinical trial?

a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive
b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses
c) Fake treatment
d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial procedures

52. How many people will be selected for phase II trial?

a) The whole market will be under surveillance
b) 500-3000 people
c) 100-300 people
d) 20-50 people

53. Which of the following is a valid therapeutic use of interaction?

A. Use of Probenecid with Penicillin
B. Giving Aspirin with warfarin
C. Instructing patient to take levofloxacin with milk or antacid
D. Treatment of depression of MAO Inhibitor and Citalopram

54. Prevention of absorption due to Complexation and chelation of drugs in gastrointestinal

tract is an example of……………….
A. Pharmacokinetic Interaction
B. Pharmacodynamics Interaction
C. Pharmaceutical Interaction
D. Metabolic Interaction

55. Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in the elderly
patients?

A. Amlodipine
B. Atenolol
C. Benazepril
D. Methyldopa

56. ______________ of clinical trial involves first time human trial in a small number of
patients.
a Phase I
b Phase II
c Phase III
d Phase IV

57. What does IRB Stand for?

a) Investigational Review Board
b) International Review Board
c) Institutional Review Board
d) Inter institute review board

58. GCP provides public assurance that

a) Rights and safety of participants are protected
b) The rights, safety and wellbeing of research participants are protected and that
research data are reliable.
c) Results are reliable
d) Safety of participant is observed and results are reliable

59. Which of the following is a technique pharmacists can use to humanize themselves to
their patients?
a) Using the patient's preferred name in conversation
b) Delegating as many tasks as possible to an assistant
c) Reading the text of a medication bottle verbatim to a patient
d) Providing business cards at the desk
60. Which of the following terms does not describe an Adverse Drug Reaction?
a) Idiosyncrasy
b) Anaphylaxis
c) Teratogenic effect
d) Placebo effect

61 A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to

treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels
were 10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before
the last dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse
drug reaction the patient was suffering from?
a) Type II allergic reaction
b)Type III allergic reaction
c) Pseudo allergic reaction
d) Overdose toxicity

62. Idiosyncrasy is_______________.

a) Type A ADRs
b) Type B ADRs
c) Type C ADRs
d) Type D ADRs

63. Which of the following drug is not needed to be TDM?

a) Carbamazepine.
b) Penicillin.
c) Digoxin.
d) Gentamicin.

64. Patient counselling helps to

a) Know chemical structure of drug
b) Develop business relations with pharmacist
c) Motivate the patient to take medicine for improvement of his/her health status.
d) Pass time at old age

65. Which of the following would you classify as a pharmacodynamics interaction?

a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening
hyperkalaemia
b) Antacids reduce the absorption of fluoroquinolones
c) Increased bleeding due to cimetidine and warfarin
d) Probenecid increases half-life of penicillin

66. Which of the following is Type B ADRS?

a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin
 b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine
c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine
d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics

67. Pharmacovigilance is done for monitoring of

a) Drug price
b) Unethical practises
c) Drug safety
d) Pharmacy students

68. GCP are seen in all of the following except

a) Phase I trial
b) Phase II trial
c) Preclinical trials
d) Phase IV trial

69. Which of the following adverse drug reactions would you report to the Medicines and
Healthcare Products regulatory Agency (MHRA) via the yellow card system for reporting?
a) A patient reports a skin rash after starting a course on amoxicillin capsules.
b) A patient reports experiencing dyspepsia when they take their indomethacin capsules.
c) A patient complains of a dry irritating cough since they have started taking ramipril.
d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

70. Which of the following patients are at the highest risk of suffering from an adverse drug
reaction?
a) An 8 month year old infant receiving a prescription for an antibiotic.
b) A 22 year old patient with asthma receiving prescriptions for inhalers to relieve and
prevent their asthma.
c) A 48 year old patient who has hypertension and receives a prescription for an ACE
Inhibitor.
d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic.

71. What is a semi-synthetic drug?

a) A drug isolated from nature and used without any further modification
b) A drug made entirely in a lab from scratch
c) The structure of a drug half-way through its preparation
d) A drug which has been -made by nature and partly-modified in a lab

72 Which of the following statements best describes a lead compound?

a) A compound that contains the element lead
b) A compound from the research laboratory that is chosen to go forward for preclinical and
clinical trials.
c) A molecule that shows some activity or property of interest and serves as the starting point
 for the development of a drug.
d) The first compound of a structural class of compounds to reach the market.

X---X---X