Sample Paper – 1 Year Medical Program

NATIONAL ADMISSION TEST

Duration: 2.5 Hrs Maximum Marks: 320

PAPER SCHEME :
• The paper contains 80 Objective Type Questions divided into three sections: Section - I (Physics),
Section - II(Chemistry) and Section - III (Biology).
• Section I and II contain 20 Multiple Choice Questions each and Section III contains 40 questions. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLYONE CHOICE is correct.

MARKING SCHEME:
• For each question in Section-I, II and III, 4 marks will be awarded for correct answer and –1 negative
marking for incorrect answer.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
• For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET (OMR SHEET) is provided separately. Please fill your
Name, Roll Number, Seat ID, Date of Birth and the PAPER CODE properly in the space provided in the
ANSWER SHEET. IT IS YOUR OWN RESPONSIBILITY TO FILL THE OMR SHEET CORRECTLY.
• The use of log tables, calculator and any other electronic device is strictly prohibited.
• Violating the examination room discipline will immediately lead to the cancellation of your paper and no
excuses will be entertained.
• No one will be permitted to leave the examination hall before the end of the test.
• Please submit both the question paper and the answer sheet to the invigilator before leaving the
examination hall.
 1 Year Medical | NAT Sample Paper 2

SUGGESTIONS:
• Before starting the paper, spend 2-2.5 minutes to check whether all the pages are in order and report
any issue to the invigilator immediately.
• Try to attempt the Sections in their respective order.
• Do not get stuck on a particular question for more than 1-1.5 minutes. Move on to a new question as
there are 80 questions to solve.

SECTION – I [PHYSICS]
1. Suppose the kinetic energy of a body oscillating with amplitude A and at a distance x is given by
Bx
K= 2 . The dimensions of B are the same as that of:
x + A2
(A) work/time (B) work  distance (C) work/distance (D) work  time
2. An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and then x is calculated as x = ab2/c3. If the percentage errors
in a, b, care 1%,  3% and  2% respectively, the percentage error in x can be:

(A)  13% (B)  7% (C)  4% (D)  1%

3. A block is initially at rest. The friction force acting on the block at time t = 4 sec will be:

(A) 50 N (B) 30 N (C) 25 N (D) 40 N

4. A spring of spring constant k is broken in the length of ratio 1: 3. The spring constant of larger part will
be:
4k 2k k 5k
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3 3

5. The adjacent sides of a parallelogram is represented by vectors 2iˆ + 3 ˆj and iˆ + 4 ˆj. The area of the
parallelogram is:
(A) 5 units (B) 3 units (C) 8 units (D) 11 units

6. A wire has a mass (0.3  0.003) g, radius (0.5  0.005) mm and length (6  0.06) cm. The maximum
percentage error in the measurement of density is:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
7. A body is released from the top of a tower of height H metre. After 2 seconds it is stopped and then
instantaneously released. What will be its height after next 2 seconds?
(A) (H – 5) metre (B) (H – 10) metre (C) (H – 20) metre (D) (H – 40) metre
8. A metal ball falls from a height of 32 metre on a steel plate. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, to what
height will the ball rise after second bounce?
(A) 2m (B) 4m (C) 8m (D) 16m
9. A ball of mass m1 makes a head on elastic collision with a ball of mass m2 which is initially at rest. The
transfer of kinetic energy to the second ball is maximum when:

(A) m1  m2 (B) m1 = m2 (C) m1  m2 (D) m1 m2


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1 Year Medical | NAT Sample Paper 3

10. If  be the angle between two vectors P and Q , then P  (Q  P) is equal to

(A) zero (B) P2Qcos (C) PQ2 sin  (D) PQ2

11. If a vector P making angles ,  and  respectively with the X, Y and Z axes respectively. Then
sin 2  + sin 2  + sin 2  =
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
12. The displacement-time graph for two bodies P and Q are straight lines inclined at angles of 30° and 60°
with the time-axis. Then the ratio of their velocities is respectively equal to

(A) 1: 3 (B) 1:2 (C) 3 :1 (D) 1:3

13. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate ‘A’ for some time, after which it decelerates at a constant
rate ‘B’ and comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is T, then the maximum velocity acquired by the car
is:

 A 2 + B2   A 2 − B2   A+B ABT
(A)   (B)  T (C)  T (D)
 AB   AB   AB  A+B

14. A reference frame attached to the earth:

(A) is an inertial frame by definition
(B) cannot be an inertial frame because the earth is revolving round the sun
(C) is an inertial frame because Newton’s law are applicable in this frame
(D) is an inertial frame because the earth is rotating about its own axis

The time (t) is expressed as a function of distance (x) as, t = x + x, where  and  are constants.
2
15.
Then the retardation is given by
(A) 2v2 2v3
(B) (C) 2 v3 (D) none of these
16. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water is H below the top of the well. If u is velocity
of sound, the time t after which the splash is heard is given by

2H 2H H 2H H
(A) t= (B) t= + (C) t= + (D) None of these
u g u u g
17. The displacement (x) versus time (t) graph of a moving particle is shown below. The instantaneous
velocity of the particle is negative at the point

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

18. Three forces acting on a body are shown in figure. To have the resultant
force only along the y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional
force needed is:
3
(A) N (B) 3N
4
(C) 0.5 N (D) 1.5 N

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1 Year Medical | NAT Sample Paper 4

19. A cylinder of height h is placed on an inclined plane, the angle of inclination of which is slowly
increased. It begins to topple when the angle of inclination is 45°. What is the radius of the cylinder?
3 1 1
(A) h (B) h (C) h (D) h
4 2 4
20. A particle of mass 4 m at rest explodes into three fragments. Two of the fragments each of mass m each
move with speed v at right angles to each other. The kinetic energy released in the process is:
3 2 1
(A) 2 mv2 (B) mv (C) mv 2 (D) 3 mv2
2 2
SECTION – II [CHEMISTRY]
21. Ce (58) is a member of:
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block

22. Which of these is the best oxidizing agent?

(A) F2 (B) O2 (C) Cl2 (D) O3

23. Which of these is linear?

−
(A) ICl3 (B) I3 (C) ICl5 (D) SF6

24. Which of the following shows geometrical isomerism?

(A) 1–Butene (B) 2–Butene (C) Propene (D) 1–Pentene

25. Which of the following elements are bridge elements?

(A) Li (B) C (C) B (D) All of these
26. Which of these is has Z–configuration?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

27. Electron affinity is numerically the greatest for:

(A) O (B) Cl (C) F (D) Na
28. Which of these radial probability density plots is correct for 2s-orbital?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

29. Out of the following which is correct?

(A) Molecular orbitals are more stable than atomic orbitals
(B) Molecular orbitals have different shape than atomic orbitals
(C) Electron cloud extends all around the nuclei of bonded atoms in the molecules
(D) All are correct

30. Ionic hydrides are formed by:

(A) transition metals (B) elements of very high electro-positivity
(C) elements of very low electro-positivity (D) metalloids

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1 Year Medical | NAT Sample Paper 5

31. 2-ethenyl-3-methyl-cyclohexa-1,3-diene will be

(A) (B) (C) (D)

32. Number of moles of K 2Cr2O7 reduced by one mole of Sn +2 will be:

(A) 1/3 (B) 3 (C) 1/2 (D) 6
33. The correct IUPAC name of

, will be

(A) 1–(2–cyclohexanone–enyl)–2–butanone (B) 1–(2–oxobutyl)–cyclohexanone

(C) 1–(2–cyclohex–2–one–1–enyl)butanone (D) 2–(3–oxobutyl)–cyclohexanone
34. One fermi is:
(A) 10−13 cm (B) 10−15 cm (C) 10−10 cm (D) 10−12 cm
35. A picometre is written as:
(A) 10−9 m (B) 10−10 m (C) 10−11 m (D) 10−12 m
36. One atmosphere is equal to:
(A) 101.325 K pa (B) 1013.25 K pa (C) 105 Nm (D) None of these
37. The violet colour obtained with sodium nitroprusside in the test of sulphur in organic compounds is due
to the formation of:
(A) Na3[Fe(CN)6 ] (B) Na 4[Fe(CN)5 NOS]
(C) Na 2[Fe(CN)5 S] (D) Na 4[Fe(CN)6 ]
38. The maximum number of stereoisomers possible for 3-hydroxy-2-methyl butanoic acid is:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

39. Which one of the following compounds is the most acidic?

(A) HO − CH2 − COOH (B) O2 N − CH2 − COOH
(C) Cl − CH2 − COOH (D) NC − CH2 − COOH

40. According to the Huckel’s rule, which of the following species will be aromatic?


(I) (II) (III) (IV)


(A) (I) (B) (II) (C) (III) (D) (IV)

SECTION – III [BIOLOGY]

41. Which of the following represents characteristic feature but not defining property of living organisms?
(A) Cellular organization (B) metabolism
(C) reproduction (D) consciousness
42. Scientific name of any organism consist of _______________ words:
(A) one (B) two (C) three (D) none

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1 Year Medical | NAT Sample Paper 6

43. Houseflies are included in family

(A) Musca (B) Muscidae (C) Diptera (D) Insecta
44. Artificial system of classification is based on:
(A) anatomy and cytology (B) Visible morphological characters
(C) chemical composition (D) evolution
45. Glycocalyx capsule in bacteria:
(1) is required for virulence
(2) is absolutely essential for survival of bacteria
(3) hides bacteria from host immunity
Find the correct option regarding above statements
(A) Only Statement 1 is correct (B) Only statement 3 is incorrect
(C) Only statement 2 is incorrect (D) All statements are correct
46. Which statement correctly represents kingdom Protista?
(A) its boundaries are not well defined
(B) it includes both unicellular eukaryotes and prokaryotes
(C) all members of this kingdom are of animal in nature
(D) this kingdom does not include saprophytes
47. In which of the following group of plants have invisible sex organs?
(A) gymnosperms (B) angiosperms
(C) phanerogams (D) pteridophyte
48. Find the correct statement regarding Rhodophyta:
(A) reproductive stage is represented by motile spore
(B) main plant body is flagellated
(C) they are motile in there embryonic stage only
(D) motile or flagellated stage in the life cycle is absent
49. Bryophytes are also considered as amphibians of plant kingdom because:
(A) They are exclusively aquatic in nature
(B) They live in water during day and on land during night
(C) They need water for fertilization of gametes
(D) They live in water and becomes during reproductive period
50. Identify the first embryophytes:
(A) algae (B) fungi (C) gymnosperms (D) bryophytes
51. Which of the following represent first vascular cryptogamae?
(A) Pteridophytes (B) angiosperms (C) gymnosperms (D) bryophyte
52. Which of the following is a false fruit?
(A) pea (B) papaver (C) apple (D) mango
53. Which part of apple is edible?
(A) ovary (B) thalamus (C) ovule (D) testa
54. Banana is a kind of _______ fruit.
(A) parthenocarpic (B) pome (C) pepo (D) balausta

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1 Year Medical | NAT Sample Paper 7

55. Tap root system in dicots develops from of embryo:

(A) plumule (B) radicle (C) epicotyl (D) hypocotyl
56. The number of species that are known and described range between _________. Fill in the blanks with
the correct option from the following.
(A) 1.4 to 1.5 million (B) 1.6 to 1.7 million
(C) 1.7 to 1.8 million (D) 1.9 to 2 million
57. Growth in living organisms is from:
(A) outside (B) inside (C) both a and b (D) none of these
58. Growth cannot be taken as a defining property or feature of living organisms because:
(A) all living organisms do not show growth
(B) non-living things grow from inside
(C) non-living things also grow
(D) some living organisms do not show the process of reproduction
59. Which of the following group of organisms can be present in deep sea water?
(A) Eubacteria (B) Blue-green algae
(C) Saprophytic fungi (D) Red Algal
60. Read the following statements and identify the correct option regarding fungi.
(A) They are autotrophic (B) They lack a rigid cell wall
(C) They are heterotrophs (D) They lack a nuclear membrane
61. Which of the following organism show true Coelom?
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Aschelminthes (C) Annelids (D) Coelenterates
62. Which of the following exhibit bilateral symmetry?
(A) Jelly fish, Comb jelly (B) Earthworm, Round worm
(C) Tape worm, star fish (D) sponge, sea anemone
63. Which of the following organisms have flame cells as excretory cells?
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Annelids (C) Mollusca (D) Arthropoda
64. Which of the following animal is a vertebrate but lacks jaws?
(A) Petromyzon (B) Dog fish (C) Seals (D) Snakes
65. Which of the following is a correct difference between cartilaginous and bony fishes?
(A) Bony fish have placoid scales, but cartilaginous fish do not
(B) Bony fishes are marine but cartilaginous fish are not
(C) Bony fishes have separate sexes but cartilaginous fish do not
(D) Bony fishes gills are covered by operculum but gills of cartilaginous fish are exposed.
66. Which of the following is a property only of mammals?
(A) Presence of ear for hearing (B) Warm blooded
(C) Hair on body (D) Viviparity
67. Which of the following structure has ciliated epithelia?
(A) fallopian tube only (B) Bronchioles and fallopian tube
(C) fallopian tube and Bowman’s capsule (D) Bowman’s capsule only
68. Which of the following tissue stores fat?
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Epithelial tissue
(C) Dense regular connective tissue (D) Muscular tissue

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1 Year Medical | NAT Sample Paper 8

69. Which of the following junctions prevent leakage from one cell to another?
(A) Gap Junction (B) Plasmodesmata (C) Tight Junction (D) Adhering Junction
70. Which of the following muscles are involuntary with cylindrical shape?
(A) Muscles of Jaws (B) Muscles of Heart (C) Muscles of Intestine (D) Muscles of Shoulder
71. Which of the following is not function of a neuron?
(A) Inhibiting another neuron (B) Stimulating another neuron
(C) Forming myelin sheath on another neuron (D) Both (A) and (C)
72. Which of the following structure joins bone to muscle?
(A) Ligament (B) Tendon
(C) Loose connective tissue (D) Both (B) and (C)
73. Which of the following phylum show alternation of generation?
(A) Mollusca (B) Echinodermata (C) Coelenterate (D) Platyhelminthes
74. Which of the following is also known as saw fish?
(A) Octopus (B) Lepisma (C) Trygon (D) Pristis
75. Which cell organelle is responsible for packaging of secretory proteins?
(A) Ribosome (B) Nucleus (C) Golgi body (D) Mitochondria
76. An enzyme is
(A) Biological catalyst (B) Mostly protein in nature
(C) Mostly heat labile (D) All of these
77. The small unit of eukaryotic ribosome is:
(A) 30 s (B) 40 s (C) 60 s (D) 80 s
78. Glucose is not:
(A) A monosaccharide (B) monomer of Glycogen
(C) sweet sugar (D) a pentose
79. According to Singer and Nicholson the structure of plasma membrane is:
(A) Fluid (B) solid
(C) Quasi fluid (D) Liquid of very low viscosity
80. Which of the following is a double walled structure in an animal cell?
(A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplast (C) Ribosome (D) Both (A) and (B)

End of NAT Sample Paper | 1 Year Medical 

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 1Year Medical Sample Paper | Answer Key
Code - A Code-A Code-A
S.No Code A Difficulty Code-A Subject Topics Code-A Skill
Answer +ve marks -ve marks
1 C Moderate Physics Units and measurement Numerical 4 1
2 A Moderate Physics Units and measurement Application 4 1
3 D Moderate Physics Laws of Motion Numerical 4 1
4 A Moderate Physics Laws of Motion Application 4 1
5 A Easy Physics Vectors Memory 4 1
6 D Moderate Physics Units and measurement Numerical 4 1
7 A Moderate Physics Motion in a straight line Numerical 4 1
8 A Moderate Physics Work, Energy and Power Numerical 4 1
9 B Difficult Physics Work, Energy and Power Application 4 1
10 A Easy Physics Vectors Application 4 1
11 C Difficult Physics Vectors Application 4 1
12 D Difficult Physics Motion in a straight line Application 4 1
13 D Moderate Physics Motion in a straight line Application 4 1
14 B Easy Physics Laws of Motion Conceptual 4 1
15 B Difficult Physics Motion in a straight line Numerical 4 1
16 B Moderate Physics Motion in a straight line Numerical 4 1
17 C Moderate Physics Motion in a straight line Numerical 4 1
18 C Moderate Physics Laws of Motion Numerical 4 1
19 C Moderate Physics Laws of Motion Numerical 4 1
20 B Moderate Physics Work, Energy and Power Numerical 4 1
21 D Easy Chemistry Periodic Properties Memory 4 1
22 A Easy Chemistry Redox reactions Memory 4 1
23 B Easy Chemistry Chemical Bonding Application 4 1
24 B Easy Chemistry GOC (Isomerism) Application 4 1
25 D Easy Chemistry Periodic Properties Conceptual 4 1
26 C Easy Chemistry GOC (Isomerism) Application 4 1
27 B Easy Chemistry Periodic Properties Memory 4 1
28 C Moderate Chemistry Structure of atom Conceptual 4 1
29 D Easy Chemistry Chemical Bonding Memory 4 1
30 B Moderate Chemistry Chemical Bonding Calculation 4 1
31 C Easy Chemistry GOC (Nomenclature) Application 4 1
32 A Easy Chemistry Redox reactions Application 4 1
33 D Easy Chemistry GOC (Nomenclature) Application 4 1
34 A Moderate Chemistry Some Basic Concept of Chemistry Conceptual 4 1
35 D Easy Chemistry Some Basic Concept of Chemistry Memory 4 1
36 A Easy Chemistry Some Basic Concept of Chemistry Calculation 4 1
37 B Easy Chemistry GOC (Purification) Memory 4 1
38 D Easy Chemistry GOC (Isomerism) Application 4 1
39 B Moderate Chemistry GOC Memory 4 1
40 B Easy Chemistry GOC Memory 4 1
41 C Easy Biology Living World Memory 4 1
42 B Easy Biology Living World Conceptual 4 1
43 B Easy Biology Living World Memory 4 1
44 B Moderate Biology Plant Kingdom Memory 4 1
45 C Difficulty Biology Biological Classification Memory 4 1
46 A Moderate Biology Biological Classification Memory 4 1
47 D Easy Biology Plant Kingdom Memory 4 1
48 D Moderate Biology Plant Kingdom Memory 4 1
49 C Easy Biology Plant Kingdom Concptual 4 1
50 D Easy Biology Plant Kingdom Concptual 4 1
 Code - A Code-A Code-A
S.No Code A Difficulty Code-A Subject Topics Code-A Skill
Answer +ve marks -ve marks
51 A Easy Biology Plant Kingdom Memory 4 1
52 C Easy Biology Morphology of Flowering Plants Memory 4 1
53 B Easy Biology Morphology of Flowering Plants Memory 4 1
54 A Easy Biology Morphology of Flowering Plants Memory 4 1
55 B Easy Biology Morphology of Flowering Plants Concptual 4 1
56 C Easy Biology Living World Concptual 4 1
57 B Easy Biology Living World Concptual 4 1
58 C Moderate Biology Living World Concptual 4 1
59 D Moderate Biology Biological Classification Memory 4 1
60 C Easy Biology Biological Classification Memory 4 1
61 C Easy Biology Animal Kingdom Application 4 1
62 B Easy Biology Animal Kingdom Conceptual 4 1
63 A Easy Biology Animal Kingdom Memory 4 1
64 A Easy Biology Animal Kingdom Conceptual 4 1
65 D Easy Biology Animal Kingdom Memory 4 1
66 C Moderate Biology Animal Kingdom Conceptual 4 1
67 B Easy Biology Structure Organism in Animal Memory 4 1
68 A Easy Biology Structure Organism in Animal Memory 4 1
69 C Easy Biology Structure Organism in Animal Memory 4 1
70 B Moderate Biology Structure Organism in Animal Memory 4 1
71 C Easy Biology Structure Organism in Animal Conceptual 4 1
72 B Easy Biology Structure Organism in Animal Memory 4 1
73 C Moderate Biology Animal Kingdom Conceptual 4 1
74 D Moderate Biology Animal Kingdom Conceptual 4 1
75 C Moderate Biology Cell – The unit of life Application 4 1
76 D Easy Biology Cell – The unit of life Conceptual 4 1
77 B Easy Biology Cell – The unit of life Conceptual 4 1
78 D Easy Biology Bio Molecule Conceptual 4 1
79 C Easy Biology Cell – The unit of life Memory 4 1
80 A Easy Biology Cell – The unit of life Memory 4 1
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