WS-17-CLASS XI (MEDICAL)

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 PHYSICS
Topics : PROPERTIES OF BULK MATTER
PAG
Choose the correct answer : 7. A spherical ball is compressed by 0.01% when a
1. A force of 600 kg-wt can break a wire. The force pressure of 100 atmosphere is applied on it. Its bulk
necessary to break another wire of half the cross- modulus of elasticity in dyne/cm 2 will be
sectional area will be - approximately -
(1) 120 kg-wt (2) 300 kg-wt (1) 10 12 (2) 1014
(3) 150 kg-wt (4) 900 kg-wt (3) 106 (4) 1024
2. A metal wire of length L and radius r is clamped rigidly 8. A stress of 2kg/mm2 is applied on a wire. If Y = 1012
at one end. A force F is applied at another end so dyne/cm2 then the percentage increase in its length
that its length increases by L. The increase in length will be -
of another wire of same material, whose length is
2L and radius 2r and when stretched by a force 2F, (1) 0.196% (2) 19.6%
will be - (3) 1.96% (4) 0.0196%
(1) 2L (2) L 9. The breaking stress of a material is 109 pascal. If the
(3) L/2 (4) L/4 density of material is 3 × 103 kg/m3. The minimum
length of the wire for which it breaks under its own
3. The length of a wire increases by 1% by a load
weight will be -
of 2 kg-wt. The linear strain produced in the wire
will be - (1) 3.4 m (2) 3.4 × 104 m
(1) 0.02 (2) 0.001 (3) 3.4 × 105 m (4) 3.4 × 103 m
(3) 0.01 (4) 0.002 10. Equal weights are suspended from the wires of same
4. A load of 25 kg-wt is applied on a wire of diameter material and same lengths but with radii in the ratio 1
0.4 cm due to which its length increases from 100 : 2. The ratio of extensions produced in them will be -
cm to 102 cm, then the Young’s modulus of wire will
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
be -
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
(1) 9.75 × 109 dyne/cm2
(2) 9.75 × 109 N/m2 11. Two identical wires of different materials have
Young’s modulii of elasticity as 22 × 1010 N/m2 and
(3) 5.79 × 108 dyne/cm2 11 × 1010 N/m2 respectively. If these are stretched
(4) 5.79 × 108 N/m2 by equal loads then the ratio of extensions produced
in them will be
5. One litre of a gas is maintained at pressure 72 cm
of Hg. It is compressed isothermally so that its volume (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
becomes 900 cm3. The values of stress and strain
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
will be respectively -
(1) 10662.4 N/m2 and 0.1 12. A 10 meter long thick rubber pipe is suspended from
one of its ends. The extension produced in the pipe
(2) 106.24 N/m2 and 0.1 under its own weight will be
(3) 1.06 N/m2 and 0.1 (Y = 5 × 106 N/m2 and density of rubber = 1500 kg/
m3)
(4) 0.106 N/m2 and 0.1
(1) 1.5 m (2) 0.15 m
6. How many times is the adiabatic modulus of elasticity
of a gas as compared to its isothermal modulus of (3) 0.015 m (4) 0.0015 m
elasticity
13. Two wires of same length and same radius (one of
(1) two times (2) three times copper and another of steel) are welded to form a
long wire. An extension of 3cm is produced in it on
1 applying a load at one of its ends. If the Young’s
(3) times (4)  times
modulus of steel is twice that of copper, then the
extension in the steel wire will be -

2
 18. A solid rubber ball is carried from the surface to the
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm bottom of a 200 meter deep pond as a result of which
(3) 1.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm its volume decreases by 0.1%. The density of pond
water is 1.0 × 103 kg/m3 . If g = 10 m/s2 then the
14. A steel girder can bear a load of 20 tons. If the height bulk modulus of elasticity of rubber will be in N/
of girder is doubled, then for the same depression it m2 -
can bear a load of -
(1) 103 (2) 2 × 102
(1) 40 ton (2) 80 ton
(3) 109 (4) 2 × 109
(3) 160 ton (4) 5 ton
19. The force required to break a wire of radius R is F.
15. When the pressure on a sphere is increased by 80 The force necessary to break another wire of radius
atmospheres then its volume decreases by 0.01%, 2R will be
then the bulk modulus of elasticity of the material of
sphere in MKS units will be - F
(1) (2) 2F
2
(1) 8 × 102 (2) 8 × 104
(3) 8 × 1010 (4) 9 × 1011 F
(3) 4F (4)
4
16. When a 10kg-wt is applied on a wire of length 4m
and cross sectional area 2 mm2 then its length increases 20. The relation between Y,  and K is -
by 0.05% (g = 980 cm/s2). The Young’s modulus of
elasticity of the material of wire in MKS unit will be 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1)   (2)  
- Y 3 9K  3Y 9K
(1) 98 × 109 (2) 98 × 104
1 1 1 1 1 1
(3)   (4)  
(3) 98 × 107 (4) 98 × 105 K 3Y 9 9Y 3 K
17. The ratio of Young’s modulii for two wires is 3 : 2,
ratio of their lengths is 3 : 2 and the ratio of their radii
is 1 : 2. If the wires are stretched by same force and
if extension produced in first wire is 4 mm then the
extension in second wire will be -
(1) 8 mm (2) 16 mm
(3) 18 mm (4) 1 mm

PHYSICS : ANSWERS
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (1)
6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (3)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (1)

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 CHEMISTRY

Topics : Hydrocarbons CN

Choose the correct answer : 6. A hydrocarbon of formula C6H10 absorbs only one
1. The reduction of an alkyne to alkene using Lindlar’s molecule of H2 upon catalytic hydrogenation. Upon
catalyst results into: ozonolysis the hydrocarbon yields,
(1) cis addition of hydrogen atoms H H
(2) trans addition of hydrogen atoms O  C  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  C  O
(3) a mixture obtained by cis and trans additions
The hydrocarbon is:
of hydrogen which are in equilibrium with each
(1) Cyclohexane (2) Benzene
other
(3) Cyclohexene (4) Cyclobutane
(4) a mixture obtained by cis and trans additions
7. Identify Z in the sequence,
of hydrogen atoms which are not in equilibrium
with each other CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2 HBr/
 H 2O 2
Y
2. Cyclopentene on treatment with alkaline KMnO4 C H O  Na 
gives:    Z:
2 5

(1) cyclopentanol (1) CH 3  CH  CH 2  O  CH 2  CH 3

(2) trans-1,2-cyclopentanediol CH 3
(3) cis-1,2-cyclopentanediol
(4) 1: 1mixture of cis- and trans- 1, (2) CH 3  CH 2  CH  O  CH 2  CH 3
2 - cyclopentanediol CH 3
3. Propene on reaction with methylene iodide in presence
of Zn-Cu couple gives: (3) CH 3  (CH 2 ) 3  O  CH 2  CH 3

(1) cyclopropane (4) CH 3  (CH 2 ) 4  O  CH 3

(2) cyclopropene 8. The compound X(C5H8) reacts with ammoniacal
(3) methyl cyclopropane AgNO3 to give a white precipitate and reacts with
excess of KMnO4 to give the acid, (CH3)2CH–COOH.
(4) cyclobutene
Therefore, X is:
4. Addition of one equivalent of bromine to 1, 3-butadiene
(1) CH2 = CH – CH = CH – CH3
produces:
(2) CH3(CH 2)2C  CH
(1) 4, 5-dibromo-2-butene
(3) (CH3)2CHC  CH
(2) 1,4-dibromo-2-butene
(4) (CH3)2C = C = CH2
(3) 3, 4-dibromobutene
9. Action of Br2 on cyclopentene gives:
(4) 3, 4-dibromo-2-butene
(1) 1,2-dibromo cyclopentane
5. = CH 2 on ozonolysis gives:
(2) cyclopentyl bromide
(3) cyclopentyl dibromide
=O (4) no reaction
(1) + HCHO
10. The principal organic product formed in the reaction,
(2) CHO CH 2  CH(CH 2 ) 8 COOH  HBr Peroxide
 

...... is:
(3) COCH 3 (1) CH3 – CHBr(CH2)8COOH
(2) CH2 = CH(CH2)8COBr
(4) None

4
 (3) CH 2BrCH2(CH 2) 8COOH (1)
Ba 2
(4) CH2 = CH(CH2)7CHBrCOOH
11. A hydrocarbon reacts with HI to give (X) which (2) Acrylic acid KCN

on reacting with aqueous KOH forms (Y). Oxidation
of (Y) gives 3-methyl, 2-butanone. The hydrocarbon (3) Ethyne KCN

is:
(4) Ethyne HOCl

CH 3
16. 10 mL of a certain hydrocarbon require 25 mL of
(1) CH 3CH  C  CH 3 oxygen for complete combustion and the volume of
O2 produced is 20 mL. What is the formula of
(2) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 3 hydrocarbon:
CH 3 (1) C 2H 2 (2) C 2H 4
(3) CH 4 (4) C 2H 6
(3) CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 2 17. If 20 cm of methane (CH4) is burnt using 50 cm3 of
3

CH 3 oxygen. The volume of the gases left after cooling to

the room temperature will be:
(4) CH  C CH  CH 3 (1) 60 cm3 (2) 70 cm3
CH 3 (3) 30 cm3 (4) 50 cm3

12. The reaction, 18. Hydroxylation of in presence of H2SO4/

2 RC  CH CuX
2  R  C  C  C  C  R HgSO4 gives :
Pyridine

CH 2 CHO
is called: (1) (2)
(1) Eglinton’s reaction
(3) (4) CH 2 CHO
(2) Glaser reaction
(3) Gomberg-Beckmann’s reaction 19. Electrolysis of a concentrated solution of sodium
(4) Leuckart reaction fumarate gives:
13. Hydroxylation of propyne in the presence of HgSO4/
H2SO4 is initiated by the attack of: (1) fumaric acid (2) ethylene
(1) carbene (2) free radical (3) ethane (4) acetylene
(3) electrophile (4) nucleophile
20. Ozonolysis of will give:
14. The alkyne which gives pyruvic acid (CH3COCOOH)
on oxidation with alk. KMnO4
(1) +
is:
OC CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CO
(1) CH  CH (2) CH 3 C  CH
(2)
CH 2 CH 2 CH 2
(3) CH 3 C  C  CH 3 (4) CH 3  CH 2  C  CH
O
15. Which reaction produces acrylonitrile
(3)
(CH2=CHCN) :
(4) None

CHEMISTRY : ANSWERS
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (1)
16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (2)

5
 BOTANY

Topics : PHOTOSYNTHESIS
B RC

1. Photosynthesis is a (1) A (2) B

(1) Physical process (3) C (4) D

(2) Chemical process 7. Within chloroplast, the membranous system is made up of

(3) Physicochemical process (1) Grana (2) Stroma lamellae

(4) Physiological process (3) Stroma (4) Both (1) and (2)

2. Half leaf experiment proved that ___ is required for 8. Match the columns. Pigment Colour (in chromatogram)
photosynthesis.
(A) Chlorophyll a (i) Bright or blue green
(1) CO2 (2) Chlorophyll
(B) Chlorophyll b (ii) Yellow
(3) Light (4) All of these
(C) Xanthophylls (iii) Yellow-Green
3. Who among the following proved that light is essential
for plant process that purifies foul air by placing Priestly (D) Carotenoids (iv) Yellow to yellow
setup once in light and once in dark?
Orange
(1) Jan lngenhousz
(1) A -i, B -ii, C -iii, D -iv
(2) Joseph Priestley
(2) A -i, B -iii, C -ii, D -iv
(3) Julius con Sachs
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4) Cornelius van Niel
(4) A-iii, B -ii, C -i, D -iv
4 Anoxygenic photosynthesis is shown by
9. The chief pigment associated with photosynthesis is
(1) Purple sulphur bacteria
(1) Chlorophyll b (2) Chlorophyll a
(2) Green sulphur bacteria
(3) Xanthophyll (4) Carotenoid
(3) BGA
10. Which of the following is incorrect about photosystem?
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) There are two photosystems (PS I and PS II).
5 C. B. Van Neil was a
(2) PS I and PS II are named in sequence of their discovery
(1) Physicist (2) Microbiologist
(3) LHC is made up of hundreds of pigment molecules,
(3) Biochemist (4) Chemist which are bounded to proteins.

6. Assertion :- Photosynthesis is a physico-chemical (4) Each photosystem has all the pigments (except one
process. molecule of chlorophyll ‘b’).

Reason :- In photosynthesis transfer of light is a physical 11. In PS I, the reaction centre is

process, while synthesis of carbohydrate is a chemical
(1) P700 (2) P830
process.
(3) P673 (4) P500
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is
a correct explanation of the Assertion. 12. Select the correct sequence of electron transfer in Z-scheme
of light reaction.
(B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is
not a correct explanation of the Assertion. (1) e-Acceptor  ETS (made of cytochrome)  PS II 
NADP+ PS I  e-Acceptor
(C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(2) PS II  e-Acceptor  ETS (made of cytochrome) 
(D) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
PS I  e-Acceptor  NADP+

6
 (3) ETS (made of cytochrome)  PS I  e - Acceptor  (C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
PS II  e-Acceptor  NADP+
(D) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
(4) e-Acceptor  PS I  PS II  e-Acceptor  ETS
(made of cytochrome)  NADP+ (1) A (2) B

13. The place where cyclic flow of electrons occur is (3) C (4) D

(1) Thylakoid of grana 17. If light is available for a given duration and then again
unavailable, then the biosynthetic process will
(2) Stroma
(1) Continue for long duration.
(3) Stroma lamellae
(2) Continue for unlimited time.
(4) All of these
(3) Continue for short duration.
14. In light reaction of photosynthesis, chlorophyll is
subjected to (4) Will stop immediately.

(1) Destruction 18. Regarding photosynthesis, Jan Ingenhousz established

the essentiality of sunlight and green colour respectively
(2) Permanent reduction by using
(3) Oxidation and reduction (1) Bell jar setup and an aquatic plant
(4) Neutralization (2) An aquatic plant and radioisotopic technique
115 The process for which manganese and chloride ions are (3) Cladophora algae and purple sulphur bacteria
required is
(4) Bell jar setup and green sulphur bacteria
(1) Photolysis of water.
19. “Only green part of the plants could release oxygen” this
(2) For transfer of H+ ion to NADP+. is shown by –
(3) For transfer of charge of hydroxyl ion to chlorophyll. (1) Priestley (2) Moll
(4) None of the above (3) Ingenhousz (3) Julius Van Sachs
116. Assertion :- In photosynthesis there is synthesis of 20. In photosynthesis during ATP formation accumulation of
glucose but it is stored in form of starch. protons occurs :-
Reason :- Glucose is osmotically active while starch is (1) in lumen of thylakoid
osmotically inactive
(2) in stroma of chloroplast
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is
a correct explanation of the Assertion. (3) in stroma lamellae

(B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is (4) at outer surface of thylakoid
not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

BOTANY : ANSWERS
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (2)
6. (1) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (1)
16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (1)

7
 ZOOLOGY

Topics : Respiration ZH

Choose the correct answer :

7. pH of blood in arteries and veins is
1. How many lobes are respectively found in the right
(1) Same
and left lung of human?
(2) More in arteries and less in veins
(1) 2, 3 (2) 3, 2
(3) More in veins and less in arteries
(3) 2, 2 (4) 3, 3
(4) None of the above
2. Carbon-di-oxide in blood is chiefly transported as
8. Ventilation movements of lungs in mammals are
(1) Bicarbonates governed by
(2) Carbonates (1) Muscular wall of lungs
(3) carbamino haemoglobin (2) Intercostal muscles
(4) Carbamino proteins (3) Diaphragm
3. The switch off point of inspiration is controlled by
(4) Diaphragm and intercostal muscles
(1) Pneumotaxic centre
9. The mode of respiration which is most vital for frog
(2) Expiratory centre for existence is
(3) Pons varoli (1) Pulmonary (2) Cutaneous
(4) None of these (3) Bucco-pharyngeal (4) All of the above
4. When a person breathes normally, then the amount 10. As the pCO2 of the venous blood increases
of air which remains in the lung after normal expiration
is called (1) The concentration of HCO3– decreases

(1) Residual volume (2) The concentration of H+ in the RBC decreases

(2) Expiratory reserve volume (3) Hb releases O2 more readily

(3) Functional residual capacity (4) The affinity of Hb for O2 increases
(4) Vital capacity 11. The volume of air present in the lungs after forceful
5. Respiratory distress syndrome occur in patients which expiration is called as
lack (1) Tidal volume
(1) Larynx (2) Dipalmitoyl lecithin (2) Residual air

(3) Surfactant (4) Both (2) and (3) (3) Complementary air

6. Heart of a fish is special, as it has (4) None of these

(1) No blood at all 12. Breathing in pregnant women is chiefly brought out
by
(2) Aterial blood only
(1) Trachea
(3) Venous blood only
(2) Uterus
(4) Mixed blood

8
 (3) Intercostal mucles 17. Respiratory pigment is absent in

(4) Diaphragm (1) Earthworm (2) Rabbit

13. Inhalation centre of man is (3) Cockroach (4) Rat

(1) Pons varolii 18. The correct sequence of different parts of

mammalian respiratory tract is
(2) Medulla oblangata
(1) Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea,
(3) Cerebrum
bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli
(4) Hypothalamus
(2) Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi,
14. Respiratory system is derived from bronchioles, alveoli

(1) Ectoderm (2) Mesoderm (3) Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi,
alveoli
(3) Endoderm (4) None of these
(4) Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea,
15. Due to contraction of External inter costal muscles bronchioles, alveoli.
(1) Ribs move upwards and forward 19. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) in represented
(2) Ribs move upwards and backward by

(3) Ribs move upwards and backward (1) ERV + RV (2) IRV+TV

(4) Ribs move downwards and forward (3) IRV+RV (4) ERV+TV

16. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, breathing 20. If a man goes, from sea coasts of Kerala to mount
becomes everest, his breathing rate

(1) Slow and deep (1) And heart-beat will increase

(2) Faster and deeper (2) And heart beat will decrease

(3) Shallower and slow (3) Will increase, but heart beat will decrease
(4) Will decrease but heart beat will increase
(4) There is no effect on breathing

ZOOLOGY : ANSWERS
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (4)
6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (1)
16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (1)