Competency Based Questions XII Physics

Competency Based Questions
SESSION: 2023-24, CLASS: XII

SUBJECT: PHYSICS
CONTENT
S.N. TOPIC PAGE
1 ELECTRIC CHARGES & FIELD 3
2 ELECTRIC POTENTIAL & CAPACITANCE 8
3 CURRENT ELECTRICITY 12
4 MOVING CHARGES & MAGNETISM 14
5 MAGNETISM & MATTER 18
6 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION 20
7 ALTERNATING CURRENT 24
8 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES 30
9 RAY OPTICS & OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS 33
10 WAVE OPTICS 37
11 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION & MATTER 42
12 ATOM 45
13 NUCLEI 48
14 SEMICONDUCTORS 54
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Chapter 01: Electric Charge & Field (SET-1)
A. Multiple Choice Question (1 Marks)
1. A simple pendulum bob of mass 100g & charge 10 -6 be placed in a uniform magnetic field of strength 100N/c
,then at equilibrium how much angle the thread of pendulum will make with horizontal.
(i) tan -1 (10-3) (ii) tan -1 (10-4) (iii) tan -1 (10-2) (iv) cot -1 (10-3)
2. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q are separated by a distance d .If F is the force of repulsion between
the ions ,the number of electrons missing from each ion will be _______
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

3. Two point charge A & B, having charges +Q & -Q respectively are placed at certain distance apart and force
acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then force between the charges
becomes___________.
(i) 4F/3 (ii)F (iii)9F/16 (iv)16F/9
4. Point charge +4q,-q & +4q are kept on the X axis at point x=0,x=a,x=2a respectively. Then
(i) only -q is in stable equilibrium
(ii) All the charges are in stable equilibrium
(iii) All the charges are in instable equilibrium
(iv) None of the charges are in equilibrium
5. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge density +𝜆 𝐶/𝑚 & − 𝜆 𝐶/𝑚 are placed at a distance of
2R in free space. What is the electric field midway between the two-line charges?
(i) 𝑁/𝑐 (ii) 0 (iii) 𝑁/𝑐 (iv) 𝑁/𝑐
6. Two identical spherically charged metallic spheres are hung strings & make 60 with each other in vacuum
when the whole arrangement is kept in a liquid of density 0.5g/cc, the angle remains same. The dielectric
constant of fluid________(density of sphere=1.5g/cc)
(i)2 (ii)1.5 (iii)2.5 (iv)3
B. Assertion & Reason

a. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
c. Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
d. Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.
1) Assertion: A deuteron and alpha particle are placed in an electric field. If F1 & F2 be the forces acting on them
and a1 & a2 be their accelerations respectively then a1 = a2
Reason: Forces will be same in electric field.
2) Assertion: A point charge is brought in an electric field. The field at nearby point will increase, whatever be the
nature of the charge.
Reason: The electric field is independent of the nature of charge.
3) Assertion: On bringing a positively charged rod near the uncharged conductor, the conductor gets attracted
towards the rod.
Reason: The electric field lines of the charged rod are perpendicular to the surface of conductor.
4) Assertion: When charges are shared between any two bodies, no charge is really lost. Some loss of energy does
occur.
Reason: Some energy disappears in the form of heat sparkling etc.
5) Assertion: The surface charge densities of two spherical conductors of different radii are equal. Then the electric
field intensities near their surface are also equal.
Reason: Surface charge density is equal to charge per unit area.
Case Based Question:

(A) The electric field due to a charge configuration with total charge zero is not zero, but for distances large
compared to the size of the configuration, its field falls off faster than 1/r2,typical of the field due to a single charge.
An electric dipole is the simplest example of this fact. An electric dipole is a pair of equal and opposite charges
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separated by some distance 2a.Its dipole moment vector P has magnitude 2qa and its direction is from -q to +q .The
electric field of the pair of charges can be fount out from coulomb’s law and the superposition principle. The
magnitude and the direction of the dipole field depend only on the distance r but also on the angle between the
position vector r and dipole moment P. According to dipole moment we can categorize for polar and non-polar
molecule.
I. What will be the value of electric field at the center of the electric dipole?
II. An electric dipole coincides on Z axis and its mid point is on origin of the coordinate system. The electric field
at an axial position at a distance z from the origin is Ez ,and electric field at an equatorial point at a distance
is y from the origin is Ey. Here z=y>>a ,so (Ez/Ey)=_______
III. If x is the bond length of hydrogen molecule ,and e is the electronic charge ,then dipole moment of H2 molecule
is equal to_______
IV. An electric dipole moment p is placed in uniform field E. The maximum torque produced will be__
Case Based Question:

(B) The term electric flux implies some kind of flow. Flux is the property of any vector field .Electric flux is a
property of electric field .It is equal to the product of the given area and the normal component of the electric field
through it. Gauss theorem gives a relationship between the total flux passing through any closed surface S and the
charge q enclosed with in the surface. It state that the total flux through a closed surface is 1/𝜖 times net charge.
I.For a given surface 𝑖𝑓 ∮ 𝐸, 𝑑𝑠 = 0 ,so the total flux through the surface is zero, True or false
II.In order to estimate the electric field due to thin finite metal plate, the Gaussian surface is considered to
be__________.
III.How coulombs law can be derived from Gauss law.
ANSWER KEYS
1. (i) tan -1 (10-3)
2. (iii)
3. (iii) 9F/16
4. (iii) All the charges are in instable equilibrium
5. 𝑁/𝑐
6. (ii) 1.5
7. Assertion & Reasoning
Answers: c, d, b, a, b
8. Case based Question:
A) 0, 2, 0, P.E.
B) True, Cylindrical, Correct Proof
Chapter 1: Electric Charges and Field (SET-2)

General Instructions
 Question number-1 is MCQ carries 1 mark.
 Question numbers-2 and 3 are Assertion and reason type carries 1 marks each.
 Question number-4 carries 2 marks.
 Question number -5 carries 3 marks.
 Question number-6 is case based carries 4 mark.
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1. The total flux through the faces of the cube with side of length a if a charge q is
placed at corner A of the cube is
Assertion and reason type

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason in the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
2. Assertion (A): The surface densities of two spherical conductors of different radii are equal. Then the
electric field intensities near their surface are also equal.
Reason (R): Surface density is equal to charge per unit area.
3. Assertion (A): A small metal ball is suspended in a uniform electric field with an insulated thread. If high
energy X-ray beam falls on the ball, the ball will be deflected in the electric field.
Reason (R): X-rays emits photoelectron and metal becomes negatively charged.
4. Five charges, q each, are placed at the corners of a regular pentagon of side ‘a’.
(a) What will be the electric field at 0, the centre of the pentagon?
(b) What will be the electric field at 0 if the charge from one of the corners (say A) is
removed?
(c) What will be the electric field at 0 if the pentagon is replaced by an n-sided regular
polygon with charge q at each of its corners?
5. Three point charges of +2 μC, –3 μC and –3 μC are kept at the vertices A, B and C
respectively of an equilateral triangle of side 20 cm as shown in the figure. What should
be the sign and magnitude of the charge to be placed at the mid-point (M) of side BC so
that the charge at A remains in equilibrium?
6. CASE BASED QUESTIONS

When electric dipole is placed in uniform electric field, its two charges
experience equal and opposite forces, which cancel each other and hence net force
on electric dipole in uniform electric field is zero. However these forces are not
collinear, so they give rise to some torque on the dipole. Since net force on electric
dipole in uniform electric field is zero, so no work is done in moving the electric
dipole in uniform electric field. However some work is done in rotating the dipole
against the torque acting on it.
(i)The dipole moment of a dipole in a uniform external field 𝐸⃗is 𝑃⃗ . Then the torque τ acting on the dipole is
(a) 𝜏⃗=𝑃⃗x𝐸⃗
(b) ) 𝜏⃗=𝑃⃗. 𝐸⃗
(c) 𝜏⃗= 2(𝑃⃗+ 𝐸⃗)
(d) 𝜏⃗= (𝑃⃗+ 𝐸⃗)
(ii) An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges, each of magnitude 1.0 μC separated by a distance of 2.0
cm. The dipole is placed in an external field of 105 NC-1. The maximum torque on the dipole is
(a) 0.2 x 10-3 Nm
(b) 1x 10-3 Nm
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(c) 2 x 10-3 Nm
(d) 4x 10-3 Nm
(iii)Torque on a dipole in uniform electric field is minimum when θ is equal to

(a) 0°
(b) 90°
(c) 180°
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(iv)When an electric dipole is held at an angle in a uniform electric field, the net force F and torque τ on the dipole
are
(a) F= 0, τ = 0
(b) F≠0, τ≠0
(c) F=0, τ ≠ 0
(d) F≠0, τ=0
OR
An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a position such that
the axis of the dipole makes an angle θ with the direction of the field. Assuming that potential energy of the dipole
to be zero when θ = 90°, the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will respectively be
(a) pEsinθ, -pEcosθ
(b) pEsinθ, -2pEcosθ
(c) pEsinθ, 2pEcosθ
(d) pEcosθ, – pEsinθ
ANSWERS KEYS
1. a
2. b
3. c
4. (i) The point is O is placed equally from every charge at the endpoint of the pentagon. Therefore, because of
symmetry, the forces due to every charge are cancelled out. As a consequence, the electric field is zero.
(ii) When charge q is taken away, a negative charge will arise at A lending electric field,
(iii) If charge q is replaced by charge -q, then two negative charges -2q will be there. So, the value of the electric
field is
When the pentagon is replaced by an n-sided polygon with the charge at every corner, the electric field at point
O continues to be zero as the charges’ symmetricity is due to the regularity of the polygon shape. In fact, it
doesn’t rely on the number of sides or the charge numbers.
5.
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6. (i) a
(ii) c
(iii) d
(iv) c (OR) a
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Chapter 02: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance (SET-1)
1. A bullet of mass 2 g is having a charge of 2 μC. Through what potential difference must it be accelerated, starting
from rest, to acquire speed of 10 m/sec
(a) 5 kV (b) 5 V (c) 50 kV (d) 50 V
2. An electric field 𝐸⃗ = (20𝚤 + 30𝚥 ) N/C exists in the space. If the potential at the origin is taken to be zero, the
potential at the point (2m, 2m) is
(a) -50 V (b) -100 V (c) 100 V (d) 200 V
For Questions 3 and 4, two statements are given -one labelled Assertion (A) and other labelled Reason (R). Select
the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
3. Assertion: A parallel plate air capacitor is charged using a battery and a dielectric slab is then inserted in the whole
space between its plates without disconnecting the battery. Consequently, charge on the capacitor increases but
electric field strength between the plates will not change.
Reason: Electric energy stored in the capacitor will decrease as a result of inserting the dielectric without
disconnecting the battery.
4. Assertion: For practical purposes, the Earth is used as a reference at zero potential in electrical circuits.
Reason: The electrical potential of a sphere of radius. R with charge Q uniformly distributed on the surface is
given by Q / 4πε0 R
5.
(a)
(b)
(c)
6. The distance between the plates of a parallel plate Capacitor is 0.05 m. An electric field of 3× 104 V/m is
established between the plates. It is then disconnected from the battery and an uncharged metal plate of thickness
0.01m is inserted into the capacitor Parallel to the plates.
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(i) The Potential difference between the plates before the insertion of the metal plate is
(a) 1000 V (b) 1200 V (c) 750 V (d) 1500V.
(ii) The potential between the plates after the insertion of the metal plate is
(a) 600V (b) 1000 V (c) 1200V (d) 1500V
(iii) The potential difference between the plates, when a dielectric of K = 2 Slab of same thickness replaces the
metal plate, is
(a) 1350V (b) 675 V (c) 1200 V (d) 900 V
(iv) The potential difference between the plates, when both the above plates are inserted between the plates of the
capacitor, is
(a) 950 v (b) 1050V (c) 1150V (d) 1250V
ANSWER KEYS
1. b
2. c
3. c
4. a
5. d
6. i. d
ii. c
iii. a
iv. b
Chapter 02: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance (SET-2)

1. Figure given below shows two identical parallel plate capacitors connected to a
battery with switch S closed. The switch is now opened and the free space
between the plates of capacitors is filled with a dielectric of dielectric
constant 3. What will be the ratio of total electrostatic energy stored in both
capacitors before and after the introduction of the dielectric? [1 MARK]
A. 3: 1 B. 5 : 1 C. 3 : 5 D. 5 : 3
ANS: C
2. When an uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor then
A. Potential of charged conductor remain unchanged [1 MARK]
B. Potential of charged conductor decreases
C. Potential of charged conductor increases
D. None of the above
ANS: B
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3. ASSERTION : In a region if potential is zero electric field may not be zero [1 MARK]
REASON: Electric field is obtained from negative electric potential gradient

Ans B
4. Determine the electrostatic potential energy of a system consisting of two charges 7 µC and –2 µC with an
external electric field placed at (–9 cm, 0, 0) and (9 cm, 0, 0) respectively. If the external electric field E = A
(1/r 2 ); A = 9 × 105 NC–1 m2 . What would the electrostatic energy of the configuration?
ANS: [2 MARKS]
5. Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the other of radius 2R, both have the same surface charge density σ.
They are brought in contact and separated. What will be the new surface charge densities on them?
Answer: [3 MARKS]
Following are the charges on the metal sphere before contact
Q1 = σ.4πR2
Q2 = σ.4π(2R)2 = 4Q1
Q1’ and Q2’ are the charges on the metal sphere after contact
Q1’ + Q2’ = Q1 + Q2 = 5Q1
When the metal spheres are in contact, the following is the potentials acquired by them
Q1’ = Q2’/2
Solving the equations we
σ1 = 5 σ/3
σ2 = 5 σ/6
6. CASE BASED QUESTION [4 MARKS]
Dielectrics are of two types:

 Polar Molecules: Polar Molecules are those types of dielectrics in which the chances of positive and
negative molecules colliding are nil or zero. This is because they are all asymmetrical in form. H2O,
CO2, NO2, and other gases are examples. When there is no electric field, the electric dipole moment of
these molecules moves in an unpredictable direction. The average dipole moment is 0 as a result of this.
If there is an external electric field, the molecules will assemble in the same direction as the electric
field.
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 Non-Polar Molecule: Unlike polar molecules, the centre of positive and negative charge in non-polar
molecules does not coincide, i.e., zero. There is no longer any persistent (or inherent) dipole moment
in the molecule. Examples include O2, N2, H2, and others.
Fig (A) Fig (B)

(i) The polarization of H2 and H2O are presented in figure A and figure B. Recognise them.
Ans: figure A is meant for H2O and figure B is H2 [1 MARK]
(ii) Name the two mutually opposing factors on which the degree of polarisation depends
Ans: Thermal energy & electrostatic potential energy. [1 MARK]
(iii) Given two parallel conducting plates of area A and charge densities +σ and
–σ. A dielectric slab of constant K and a conducting slab of thickness d each are
inserted in between them as shown. Find the potential difference between the
plates. [2 MARKS]
OR
Plot E versus x graph, taking x = 0 at positive plate and x = 5d at negative plate.
[2 MARKS]
ANS: P.D. between the plates of a capacitor is calculated as
OR
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Chapter 03: Current Electricity (SET-1)
1. A cell having an emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external resistance R. As the
resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is given by
2. The charge flowing in a conductor varies with time as:

q= at+ 1/2bt2+1/6ct3 where a, b, c are positive constants. The maximum value of current (Imax) is given by
the condition
(a) 𝐼 =𝑎−
(b) 𝐼 =𝑎−
(c) 𝐼 =𝑎−
(d) 𝐼 =𝑎−
3. For which of the following dependency of drift velocity with electric field E , the Ohm’s law will be
obeyed.
(a) vd < √E
(b) vd ∝ E2
(c) vd ∝ E
(d) vd = constant
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are false.
4. Assertion (A): The temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for metals and negative for p-type
semiconductor.
Reason (R): The effective charge carriers in metals are negatively charged whereas in p- type semiconductor
they are positively charged.
5. Assertion (A): Kirchhoff’s voltage law indicates that the electric field is conservative.
Reason (R): Potential difference between two points in a circuit does not depend on the path.
6. Assertion (A): The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature.
Reason (R): atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitude at higher temperatures thereby
increasing its resistivity.
ANSWER KEYS
1. b
2. a
3. c
4. b
5. a
6. d
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Current Electricity (SET-2)
1. In the diagram, what to be done (with resistance value) to maintain the
ammeter reading constant if temperature increase. When S is
(a) Metal
(b) Semiconductor
(c) Made of manganin
Justify your answer in each case. [3]
2. In the circuit shown in the figure if power dissipated in 9Ω resistor is
144W, then potential difference across 3.6Ω resistor will be
(a) 9 V
(b) 18V
(c) 36V
(d) Zero [1]
Ans-c
3. A & B are two conductors which has more resistance. Justify [1]
4. Consider a current carrying wire in the shape of a circle. Note that as the
current progresses along the wire, the direction of j (current density)
changes in an exact manner, while the current I remain unaffected. Write the
agent who essentially responsible for this. Justify. [2]
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
5. Assertion: The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire will decrease, if the temperature of the wire is
increased. [1]
Reason: On increasing temperature, conductivity of metallic wire decreases.
Ans: b
6. Assertion: Electric field outside the conducting wire which carries a constant current is zero.
Reason: Net charge on conducting wire is zero. [1]
Ans: a
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Chapter 04: Moving Charges & Magnetism (SET-1)
For Question No-1 to 3 choose the correct option.
1. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 100 ohm gives a full-scale deflection, when a current of 1 mA is
passed through it. The value of the resistance, which can convert this galvanometer into ammeter giving a
full-scale deflection for a current of 10 A, is:
(a) 0.01 ohm (b) 2 ohm (c) 0.1 ohm (d) 3 ohm
2. Three infinitely long parallel straight current carrying wires A, B and C are kept
at equal distance from each other as shown in the figure. The wire C experiences
net force F .The net force on wire C, when the current in wire A is reversed will
be
(a) zero (b) F/2 (c) F (d) 2F
3. A rigid circular loop of radius r and mass m lies in the x-y plane of a flat table and has a current 𝐼 flowing in
it. At this particular place the earth’s magnetic field is 𝐵⃗ = 𝐵 𝚤̂ + 𝐵 𝑘 .The value of I so that the loop starts
tilting is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
For Questions 4 to 5, two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other labelled Reason (R).
Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
4. Assertion (A): The magnetic field at the end of a very long current carrying solenoid is half of that at the
centre.
Reason (R): For a sufficiently long solenoid carrying current, the magnetic field within the solenoid is
uniform.
5. Assertion (A): When two long parallel wires, hanging freely are connected in parallel to a battery, they come
closer to each other.
Reason (R): Wires carrying current in opposite direction repel each other.
6. Mass Spectrometer
Various methods can be used to measure the mass of an atom.
One possibility is through use of mass spectrometer. The basic
feature of a Bainbridge mass spectrometer is illustrated in
figure. A particle carrying a charge +𝑞 is first sent through a
velocity selector and comes out with velocity = . The applied
electric and magnetic field satisfy the relation 𝐸 = 𝑣𝐵 so that
the trajectory of the particle is a straight line. Upon entering a
region where a second magnetic field 𝐵 pointing into the page
has been applied, the particle will move in a circular path with
radius r and eventually strike the photographic plate.
(i) In mass spectrometer, the ions are sorted out in which of the
following ways?
(a) By accelerating them through electric field.
(b) By accelerating them through magnetic field
(c) By accelerating them through electric and magnetic field.
(d) By applying high voltage.
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(ii) Radius of particle in second magnetic field 𝐵 is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) which of the following will trace a circular trajectory with largest radius?
(a) Proton
(b) 𝛼-particle
(c) Electron
(d) a particle with charge twice and mass thrice that of electron
OR
Mass of the particle in terms of 𝑞, 𝐵 , 𝐵, 𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐸 is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) The particle comes out of velocity selector along a straight line , because
(a) electric force is less than magnetic force
(b) electric force is greater than magnetic force
(c) electric and magnetic force balance each other
(d) can’t say
ANSWER KEYS
1. Ans: ( A) 0.01 ohm

Explanation:
When full-scale current is flowing, potential difference,
V=10−3×100=0.1 V
Let shunt resistance be R. Current flowing through R in full scale reading is
𝑰𝒔𝒉 =10−0.001=9.999 A
𝑽 = 𝑰𝒔𝒉 𝑹
0.1=9.999R
R≈0.01 ohm
2. Ans; (a) Zero
Explanation:
If direction of current in wire A is reversed
The force per unit length on wire C due to current in wire A is
( )( )
𝐹 = ( )
= towards right hand side
The force per unit length on wire C due to current in wire B is
( )( )
𝐹 = ( )
= towards left hand side
Net Force on wire C = 𝐹 −𝐹 =0
3. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
𝑀⃗ = 𝐼𝐴⃗ = 𝐼𝜋𝑟 𝑘
𝐵⃗ = 𝐵 𝚤̂ + 𝐵 𝑘
𝜏⃗ = 𝑀⃗ × 𝐵⃗ = 𝐼𝜋𝑟 𝐵 𝚥̂
Torque due to weight of the loop= 𝑚𝑔𝑟
Hence 𝐼𝜋𝑟 𝐵 = 𝑚𝑔𝑟
𝑚𝑔
𝐼=
𝜋𝑟𝐵
4. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
5. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
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6. (c) By accelerating them through electric and magnetic field
(ii) Answer (c)
Explanation:
As = 𝑞𝑣𝐵
𝑚𝑣
𝑟=
𝑞𝐵
(iii) Answer (b) 𝛼-particle
Explanation: 𝐴𝑠 𝑟 ∝
Radius will be maximum for 𝛼 particle.
OR
Answer (b)
Explanation:
𝑟= 𝑚=
As 𝑣 = , 𝑚=
(iv) Answer (c)
Explanation: From the relation 𝑣 = it is clear that electric and magnetic force balance each other.
Chapter 04: Moving Charges & Magnetism (SET-2)

1. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 10Ω and the meter shows full scale deflection for a current of 1mA.
The shunt resistance required to convert the galvanometer into an ammeter of range0-100 mA is about
a)10Ω b)1Ω c)0.1Ω d)0.01Ω
2. Assertion- If a charged particle is projected in a region, where B is perpendicular to velocity of projection,
then the net force acting on the particle is independent of its mass.
Reason -The particle is performing uniform circular motion and force acting on it is
(a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A & R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
3. Electron Moving in Magnetic Field
An electron with a speed 𝑣 (<<c) moves in a circle of radius r0, in a uniform magnetic field. This electron is
able to travel in a circular path as magnetic field is perpendicular to the velocity of the electron. The time
required for one revolution of the electrons is T0. The speed of the electron is now, doubled to 2𝑣 .
I. The radius of circle change to
(a) 4r0 (b)2r0 (c)r0 (d) r0/2
II. The time required for one revolution of the electron will change to
(a)4T0 (b)2T0 (c)T0 (d)T0/2
III. A charged particles is projected in a magnetic field 𝐵 = 2𝐼 + 4𝐽 × 10 T. The acceleration of the
particle is found to be 𝑎 = (𝑥𝚤̂ + 2𝚥̂)𝑚𝑠 .Find the value of x.
(a)4 (b)-4 (c)-2 (d)2
IV. If the given electron has a velocity not perpendicular to B, then the trajectory of the electron is
(a) Straight line (b) circular (c) helical (d) zig-zag
OR
Page | 16
If this electron of charge (e) is moving parallel to uniform magnetic field with constant velocity v. The force
acting on the electron is
(a)Bev (b) (c) (d) zero

4. Write the expression for Lorentz magnetic force on a particle of charge ‘q’ moving with velocity 𝑣⃗ in a magnetic
field 𝐵⃗. Show that no work is done by this force on the charged particle. [2]
5. Applying Biot-Savart law find the magnetic field due to a circular current carrying loop at a point on the axis
of the loop. State the direction of the magnetic field. [3]
6. (i) Two long straight parallel current carrying conductors are kept ‘a’ distant apart in air. The direction of current
in both the conductors is same. Find the magnitude of force per unit length and direction of the force between
them. Hence define one ampere.
(ii) Two long and parallel straight wires carrying currents of 2A and 5A in the opposite directions are separated
by a distance of 1 cm, find the nature and magnitude of the magnetic force between them. [5]
ANSWER KEYS
1. A
2. C
3. I. b
II. c
III. b
IV. c OR d
Page | 17
Chapter 05: Magnetism & Matter
Q1. The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is: (1)
(a) much greater than 1
(b) equal to 1
(c) lying between 0 and 1
(d) equal to 0
Ans: (d) equal to 0
Q2.A ball made up of super conducting material is dipped in liquid nitrogen and placed near a bar magnet. (2)
(a) In which direction will it move?
(b) What will be the direction of its magnetic moment?
Ans: (a) move away from the magnet.
(b) Magnetic moment will be opposite to that of magnetic field supplied.
Q3. The given figure represents the graph for intensity of
magnetisation versus magnetic intensity for three sample Copper,
Nickel and Bismuth. Identify the graph representing each of these
elements. Draw magnetic lines of force for these elements when they
are kept in an external magnetic field. (3)
Ans: X: diamagnetic substance
Y: ferromagnetic substance
Z: Paramagnetic substance
Q4.Find the percentage increase in the magnetic induction B when the space within a current-carrying toroid is
filled with aluminium. The magnetic susceptibility of aluminium is 2.1 × 10 (3)
Ans:
Data: χ= 2.1 × 10-5 (positive, since aluminium is paramagnetic)
∆
aluminium core= × 100 = × 100
= = 𝜒 × 100 = 2.1 × 10
Q5. Let us consider an air cored solenoid carrying current I. When the solenoid is filled by a magnetic material as
core, a magnetic field is induced inside it. Here the magnetic material is getting magnetised under the effect of
supplied magnetising field. The magnetic field induced within the substance is given as 𝐵 = 𝜇 𝑛𝐼 . Here 𝐼 is the
magnetisation current arising on account of magnetisation of the material. Net magnetic field developed inside the
Page | 18
material is B =𝐵 + 𝐵 .Based on the magnetic behaviour of the substance it
can be classified into three types. They are paramagnetic, ferromagnetic and
diamagnetic substance. Para magnetic substances are feeble magnetised in the
same direction of supplied magnetising field. Ferro magnetic substances are
strongly magnetised in the same direction of supplied magnetising field. Dia
magnetic substances are feeble magnetised in the opposite direction of
supplied magnetising field.
(i)A mong the following figure which one represent diamagnetic substance?
Ans: (b)
(ii) The effective length of a magnet is 31.4cm and its pole strength is 0. 8Am.The magnetic moment, if it is bent
in the form of a semicircle is
(a) 1.2A𝑚
(b) 1.6A𝑚
(c) 0.16A𝑚
(d) 0.12A𝑚
Ans: (c) 0.16A𝑚
(iii) When a paramagnetic sample is kept within an non uniform magnetic field, it :
(a) moves from weaker to stronger region
(b) moves from stronger to weaker region
(c) moves about its own axis in a circular path
(d) remains stationary
Ans: (a) moves from weaker to stronger region
(iv) When a super conductor at very low temperature is kept within a magnetic field it behaves as:
(a) paramagnet
(b) diamagnet
(c) ferromagnet
(d) anti ferromagnet.
Ans: (b) diamagnet
Q6. While answering this question, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
Assertion: Ferro-magnetic substances become paramagnetic above Curie temperature.
Reason: Domains are destroyed at high temperature.
Answer: (a)
Page | 19
Chapter 06: Electromagnetic Induction (SET-1)
1. If number of turns per unit length of a coil of a solenoid is doubled, its self-inductance will
(a) remains constant (b) be doubled
(c) be halved (d) be four times
[1]
2. The phase difference between the flux linked with a coil rotating in a uniform magnetic field and induced
emf produced in it is [1]
(a) (b) (c) − (d) π
Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
3. Assertion: Faraday’s laws are consequence of the conservation of energy.

Reason: The presence of large magnetic flux through a coil maintains a current in the coil, if the circuit is
continuous. [1]
4. Assertion: A current can be induced in the coil if a bar magnet is rotated about its axis.
Reason: The magnetic flux linked with the circular coil changes. [1]
5. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow. [4]
Lenz's law states that the direction of induced current in a circuit is
such that it opposes the change which produces it. Thus, if the
magnetic flux linked with a closed circuit increases, the induced
current flows in such a direction that magnetic flux is created in the
opposite direction of the original magnetic flux. If the magnetic flux
linked with the closed circuit decreases, the induced current flows
in such a direction so as to create magnetic flux in the direction of
the original flux.
i. Predict the direction of induced current in upper and lower metal rings when current I in the wire is steadily
decreasing
(a) Clockwise in upper ring and anticlockwise in lower ring
(b) Clockwise in both upper ring and lower ring I
(c) Anticlockwise in both upper ring and lower ring
(d) Anticlockwise in upper ring and clockwise in lower ring
ii. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) mass (b) charge (c) energy (d) momentum
iii. Which of the following is correct
(a)The induced emf is not in the direction opposing the change in magnetic flux so as to oppose the cause
which produces it
(b)The relative motion between the coil and magnet produces change in magnetic flux
(c) Emf is induced only if the magnet is moved towards the coil.
(d) Emf is induced only if the coil is moved towards the magnet.
OR
A metal ring is held horizontally and bar magnet is dropped through the ring with its length along the axis of
ring. The acceleration of the falling magnet is
(a) equal to g (b) less than g (c) more than g (d) either (a) or (c)
iv. The polarity of induced emf is given by
(a) Faraday’s Law (b) Ampere’s Circuital Law
Page | 20
(c) Lenz’s Law (d) Biot Savart’s Law
6. Justify.
(i) A closed loop is held stationary in the magnetic field between the north and south poles of two permanent
magnets held fixed. Can we hope to generate current in the loop by using very strong magnets?
(ii) A closed conducting loop moves normal to the electric field between the plates of a large capacitor. Is a
current induced in the loop when it is wholly inside the capacitor? [3]
ANSWER KEYS
1. (d) L α n2
2. (a) [𝜑 = 𝐵𝐴 cos 𝜔𝑡 , 𝜀 = 𝐵𝐴𝜔 cos 𝜔𝑡 − ]
3. (c)Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction concern with the conversion of mechanical energy into
electrical energy in accordance with the law of conservation of energy. If there is no change in the magnetic
flux linked with the coil, there is no induced current.
4. (d) There is no change of flux. So there will be no induced current.
5. i.(a) ii.(c) iii.(b) OR iii.(b) iv.(c)
6. (i) No. A strong magnet will only provide a large flux but current is induced only if there is a change of
magnetic flux. For this change, either the magnet or the loop has to be moved.
(ii) No current is induced. Current is only induced due the change in magnetic flux and not due to the change
in electric flux.
Chapter 06: Electromagnetic Induction (SET-2)

1. Two different loops are concentric and lie in the same plane. The current in the outer loop is clockwise and
increasing with time. The induced current in the inner loop then, is
(a) Clockwise
(b) Zero
(c) Counter clockwise
(d) In a direction that depends on the ratio of the loop radii

2. A conducting rod AC of length 4l is rotated about a point O in a uniform magnetic field B directed into the paper.
AO = l and OC = 3l. Then × × × × × × 
B l 2
(a) VA  VO  (c) VA  VC  4 B l 2 × × O × ×
BC
×
2 A
× × × × × ×
7 9 
(b) VO  VC  B l 2 (d) VC  VO  B l 2 × × × × × ×
2 2
Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason(R). Select the correct
answer to these questions from the options as given below.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
3. Assertion: An artificial satellite with a metal surface is moving above the earth in a circular orbit. A current
will be induced in satellite if the plane of the orbit is inclined to the plane of the equator.
Reason: The current will be induced only when the speed of satellite is more than 8 km/sec.
4. Assertion: Self-inductance is called the inertia of electricity.
Page | 21
Reason: Self-inductance is the phenomenon, according to which an opposing induced e.m.f. is produced in a
coil as a result of change in current or magnetic flux linked in the coil.
5. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
Definition:
Mutual Inductance between the two coils is defined as the property of the coil due to which it opposes the change of
current in the other coil, or you can say in the neighbouring coil. When the current in the neighbouring coil changes,
the flux sets up in the coil and because of this, changing flux emf is induced in the coil called Mutually Induced emf
and the phenomenon is known as Mutual Inductance. The value of Mutual Inductance (M) depends upon the
following factors 1. Number of turns in the secondary or neighboring coil 2. Cross-sectional area 3. Closeness of the
two coils
Mutual Coupling In the Magnetic Circuit
When on a magnetic core, two or more than two coils are wound, the coils are said to be mutually coupled. The
current, when passed in any of the coils wound around the magnetic core, produces flux which links all the coils
together and also the one in which current is passed. Hence, there will be both self-induced emf and mutual induced
emf in each of the coils. The best example of the mutual inductance is the transformer, which works on the principle
of Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction states that “ the
magnitude of voltage is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux.” which is explained in the topic Faraday’s
Law of Electromagnetic Induction.
(i). The phenomenon due to which there is an induced current in one coil due to current in a neighbouring coil is?
A. Electromagnetism
B.Susceptance
C.Mutual inductance
D.Steady current
(ii) Mutual inductance between two magnetically coupled coils depends on
A. Permeability of the core material
B. Number of turns of the coils
C. Cross sectional area of their common core
D. All of the above
(iii). Which of the following is unit of inductance?
A. Ohm
B. Henry
C. Ampere turns
D. Webers/meter
(iv). Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current?
A. Capacitance
B. Inductance
C. Resistance
D. All of the above
OR
If in an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so as to make the air cored coil, the inductance of the coil will be
A. More
B. Less
C. The same
D. None of these
6. An athlete peddles a stationary tricycle whose pedals are attached to a coil having 100 turns each of the area
0.1 m2. The coil, lying in the XY – plane is rotated, in this plane at the rate of 50 rpm about the Y-axis, in a
reason where a uniform magnetic field, B = (0.01) k ̂ tesla, is present. Find the (i) maximum emf (ii) average
emf generated in the coil over one complete revolution.
ANSWER KEYS
7. (C)
8. (C)
9. (C)
Page | 22
10. (B)
11. i. (C) ii. (D) iii.(B) iv.(B) OR (B)
12.
Page | 23
Chapter 07: Alternating Current (SET-1)
1. An alternating current generator has an internal resistance Rg and an internal reactance Xg. It is used to supply power
to a passive load consisting of a resistance Rg and a reactance XL. For maximum power to be delivered from the
generator to the load, the value of XL is equal to
(a) zero (b) Xg. (c) - Xg. (d) Rg
Ans- (c)
The condition for the power to be maximum, the reactance should be zero. Xg + XL=0 or XL=−Xg
2. To reduce the resonant frequency in an LCR series circuit with a generator.
(a) The generator frequency should be reduced.
(b) Another capacitor should be added in parallel to the first.
(c) The iron core of the inductor should be removed.
(d) Dielectric in the capacitor should be removed.
Ans- (b)
Resonant frequency in series LCR circuit is
𝟏
𝒇𝒓 = If capacitance C increases the resonant frequency will reduce, which can be achieved by adding
𝟐𝝅√𝑳𝑪
another capacitor in parallel to the first.
3. Which of the following combination should be selected for better turning of an L.C.R circuit used for
communication?
(a) R=25Ω, L=1⋅5H, C=45μF
(b) R=25Ω, L=1⋅5H, C=35μF
(c) R=25Ω, L=2⋅5H, C=45μF
(d) R=15Ω, L=3⋅5H, C=30μF
Ans- (d)
For tuning an LCR circuit, its selectivity should be high. High selectivity is observed in circuits with high-quality
factor.
√𝑳
𝑸=
𝑹 √𝑪
Hence, option (d) is the best combination.
4. An inductor of reactance 1Ω and a resistor of 2Ω are connected in series to the terminals of a 6V (rms) a.c. source.
The power dissipated in the circuit is
(a) 8W (b) 7.2W (c) 14.4W (d) 18W
Ans- (c)
Page | 24
5. With increase in frequency of an A.C. supply, the impedance of an L-C-R series circuit
(a) remains constant
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) decreases at first, becomes minimum and then increases.
Ans- (d)
6. In a series LCR circuit with an ac source of effective voltage 50 V, frequency ν =50/π Hz, R = 300 ohm, C =
20 µF and L = 1.0 H. Find the rms current in the circuit.
7. The figure shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency 230 V source.
(a) Determine the source frequency which drives the circuit in resonance.
(b) Calculate the impedance of the circuit and amplitude of current at resonance.
Ans-
8. In a series LR circuit XL = R and power factor of the circuit is P1. When capacitor with capacitance C such
that XL = XC is put in series, the power factor becomes P2. Calculate .
Ans-
Page | 25
9. A device ‘X’ is connected to an ac source V = V0 sin ωt. The variation of voltage, current and power in one
cycle is show in the following graph:
(a) Identify the device ‘X’.

(b) Which of the curves, A, B and C represent the voltage, current and the power consumed in the circuit?
Justify your answer.
(c) How does its impedance vary with frequency of the ac source?
Ans-
(a) The device ‘X’ is a capacitor.
(b) Curve B : Voltage
Curve C : Current
Curve A : Power consumed in the circuit
Reason : This is because current leads the voltage in phase by for a capacitor.
(c)
10. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source (200 V, 50 Hz). The voltages across the resistor, capacitor
and inductor are respectively 200 V, 250 V and 250 V.
(i) The algebraic sum of the voltages across the three elements is greater than the voltage of the source. How
is this paradox resolved?
(ii) Given the value of the resistance of R is 40 ohm, calculate the current in the circuit.
Ans-
Page | 26
Chapter 07: Alternating Current (SET-2)
1. In an LCR- circuit, capacitance changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain unchanged the
inductance should be changed from L to (1)
(a) 4L (b) 2L (c) L/2 (d) L/4
2. In a series LCR- circuit, the voltage across R is 100V and R=1KΩ, C=2Μf. The resonant frequency ω is 200
rad/sec. At resonance the voltage across L is (1)
(a) 40V (b) 250 V (c) 4x10-3V (d) 2.5X10-2V
3. In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement
of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as (1)
(i) If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the true explanation of the assertion.
(ii) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the true explanation of the assertion.
(iii) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(iv)If both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: We use a thick wire in the secondary of a step down transformer to reduce the production heat.
Reason: When the plane of the armature is parallel to the line of force of magnetic field, the magnitude of induced
e.m.f. is maximum.
4. At power plant transformer increases the voltage of generated power by 1000s of volts so that it can be sent of
long distances through high voltage transmission power lines. Transmission lines are bundles of wires that carry
electric power from
power plants to
distant substations.
At substations,
transformers lower
the voltage of
incoming power
make it acceptable
for high volume delivery to nearby end users. Electricity is sent at extremely high voltage because it limits so called
line losses. Very good conductors of electricity also offer some resistance and this resistance becomes considerable
over long distances causing considerable loss.
At generating station, normally voltage is stepped up to around 1000s of volts. Power losses increase with the square
of current. Therefore, keeping voltage high current becomes low and loss is minimized. Another option of minimising
loss is the use of wires of superconducting material. Super conducting materials capable of conducting without
Page | 27
resistance, they must be kept extremely cold, nearly absolute zero, and this requirement makes the super conducting
material impractical to use. However recent advances in the super conducting materials have decreased the cooling
requirement. in Germany recently 1km of super conducting cable have been installed connecting the generating
station and the destination . It has eliminated the line loss and capable of sending five times more electricity than the
conventional cable. Using super conducting cable Germany has also get rid of the need of costly transformer.
Transformers generate waste heat when they are in operation and oil is the coolant of choice. It transfers the heat
through convection to the transformer housing, which has cooling fins or radiators similar to heat exchangers on the
outside. Flashpoint is a very important parameter of transformer oil. Flash point of an oil is the temperature at which
the oil flashes and continuously burns. This must be very high for chosen oil (not less than 200 0C).
(i) What are the advantages of Superconducting transmission line? (1)

(ii) In which process Oil transfers heat from transformer winding? (1)
(iii)What are losses occurred in a transformer? (2)
Or
Transformer works on which principle?
5. An LCR series circuit L=100mH, C=100μF, R=120Ω is connected to an a.c. source of emf E=30 sin 100t volt.
Find the impedance, peak current and resonant frequency of the circuit. (2)
𝟐 𝟏𝟎𝟎
6. A series LCR circuit is made by taking R=100Ω, L= H, C= μF. This series combination is connected across an
𝛑 𝛑
a.c. source of 220v, 50 Hz. Calculate
(i) The impedance of the circuit and
(ii) The peak value of current flowing in the circuit. Calculate the power factor of the circuit and compare this value
with the one at its resonant frequency.
ANSWER KEYS
1. (c) L/2
2. (b) S250 V
3. (ii) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the true explanation of the assertion.
4. (i) there is no I2R loss, no requirement of costly step-up and step-down transformer, capable of sending more
electricity
(ii) Convection
(iii) Hysteresis loss, eddy current loss, copper loss, stray loss, dielectric loss
OR
A transformer is an electrical device which is used for changing the ac voltage. It is based on the phenomenon of
mutual induction. Whenever the amount of magnetic flux linked with a coil changes an emf is induced in the
neighbouring coil.
5. E0= 30 V, ω= 100 rad/sec
𝟏
Reactance X= – ωL
𝛚𝐂
={1/(100X100X10-6)} – 100X100X10-3= 100-10= 90Ω
Impedance Z= (R2+X2)1/2 =(1202+902)1/2= 150𝛀
Peak current I0= E0/Z= 30/150=0.2A
𝟏
Resonant frequency= fr= = 50 Hz
𝟐𝛑√𝐋𝐂
𝟐 𝟏𝟎𝟎
6. Here R= 100Ω, L= H, C= Μf, Erms=220 V, f= 50Hz
𝛑 𝛑
𝟐
XL=2πfL= 2Πx50x =200Ω
𝛑
Page | 28
𝟏 𝟏𝟎𝟎
X C= = 1/(2Πx50x x10-6)=100Ω
𝟐𝛑𝐟𝐂 𝛑
Impedance
Z={R2+(XL-XC)2}1/2= {1002+(200-100)2}1/2= 141.4Ω
Peak value of current

I0=E0/Z= √𝟐Erms/Z= (√𝟐X220)/100√𝟐= 2.2A
Power factor of the given circuit

Cos 𝜃= R/Z= 100/100√𝟐= 1/√𝟐
At resonance frequency Z=R, so power factor Cos 𝜃 = R/Z=R/R=1
Page | 29
Chapter 08: Electromagnetic Wave
1. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and separation between the plates d, is charged by a constant current
i. Consider a plane surface area A/2 parallel to the plates and drawn simultaneously between the plates. The
displacement current through the area is
A. i
B. i/2
C. i/4
D. i/8
2. The voltage between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 2.0𝜇𝐹 is changing at a rate of 3V/s.
What is the displacement current in the capacitor?
A. 5 𝜇A
B. 2 𝜇A
C. 6 𝜇A
D. Zero
3. Electromagnetic waves travelling in a medium having relative permeability μr = 1.3 and relative permittivity
𝜀 = 2.14. The speed of electromagnetic waves in medium must be
A. 1.8 × 108 ms-1
B. 1.8 × 104ms1
C. 1.8 × 106ms1
D. 1.8 × 10² ms-1
4. The diagram below shows the electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) components
of an electromagnetic wave at a certain time and location. What is the direction of
propagation of the em wave?
A. perpendicular to E and B and out of the plane of the paper
B. perpendicular to E and B and into the plane of the paper
C. parallel and in the same direction as E
D. parallel and in the same direction as B
5. An electromagnetic wave propagates along z-direction. The corresponding electric field is along x-direction.
Which if the following is an acceptable direction for the magnetic field, considering x, y and z to be the unit vectors
in a Cartesian coordinate system?
A. (x + z)
{ }
B. { }
(y + z)
C. { }
(x + y + z)
D. { }
(x + y)
6. A plane EM wave travelling in vacuum along z direction is given by
𝐸⃗ = 𝐸 sin(𝑘𝑧 − 𝜔𝑡) 𝚤̂ and 𝐵⃗ = 𝐵 sin(𝑘𝑧 − 𝜔𝑡) 𝚥̂.
(i) Evaluate ∮ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑙⃗ over the rectangular loop 1234 shown in the diagram
(ii) Evaluate ∫ 𝐵⃗. 𝑑𝑠⃗ over the surface bounded by the loop 1234.
(iii) Use the equation ∮ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑙⃗ = − to prove =𝑐
Page | 30
ANSWER KEYS
1) The electric field between plates of the capacitor,
2)
3)
4) Perpendicular to E and B and into the plane of the paper (direction of propagation will be along 𝐸⃗ × 𝐵⃗ )
5) (x + y)
{ }
Page | 31
6)
Page | 32
Chapter 09: Ray Optics (SET-1)
Q N. Marks
Two identical glass (μg = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of focal length f are kept in contact. The space 1
between the two lenses is filled with water (μw=4/3). The focal length of the combination is
1
a. f b. c. d.
Read the Assertion and Reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options 1
given below:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
2
the Assertion.
Assertion (A) : Endoscopy involves use of optical fibres to study internal organs.
Reason (R) : Optical fibres are based on phenomena of total internal reflection.
A beam of light converges at a point P. Now a lens is placed in the path of the convergent 2
3 beam 12 cm from P. At what point does the beam converge if the lens is (a) a convex lens of
focal length 20 cm, and (b) a concave lens of focal length 16 cm?
A jar of height h is filled with a transparent liquid of refractive index μ. At the centre of 3
4 the jar on the bottom surface is a dot. Find the minimum diameter of a disc, such that
when it is placed on the top surface symmetrically about the centre, the dot is invisible.
Case Study : 4
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
A number of optical devices and instruments have been designed and developed such as
periscope, binoculars, microscopes and telescopes utilising the reflecting and refracting
properties of mirrors, lenses and prisms. Most of them are in common use. Our
knowledge about the formation of images by the mirrors and lenses is the basic
requirement for understanding the working of these devices.
(i) Why the image formed at infinity is often considered most suitable for viewing.
5
Explain
(ii) In modern microscopes multicomponent lenses are used for both the objective and
the eyepiece. Why?
(iii) Write two points of difference between a compound microscope and an astronomical
telescope
OR
(iii) Write two distinct advantages of a reflecting type telescope over a refracting type
telescope.
(a)Draw a ray diagram of compound microscope for the final image formed at least 5
distance of distinct vision?
(b) An angular magnification of 30X is desired using an objective of focal length 1.25
cm and an eye piece of focal length 5 cm. How will you set up the compound
microscope for the final image formed at least distance of distinct vision?
OR
6
(a) Draw a ray diagram of an astronomical telescope for the final image formed at least
distance of distinct vision?
(b) An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant
objects. The separation between the objective and an eye piece is 36 cm and the final
image is formed at infinity. Calculate the focal length of the objective and the focal
length of the eye piece?
ANSWER KEYS
Q No. Marks
1 (d) 1
2 (a) 1
Page | 33
1
3
1
Let d be the diameter of the disc. The spot shall be invisible if the incident rays from the 3
dot at O, at the center of the disc, are incident at the critical angle of incidence Let i be
the critical angle of incidence.
(i) When the image is formed at infinity, we can see it with minimum strain in the ciliary 1
muscles of the eye.
(ii) The multi-component lenses are used for both objective and the eyepiece to improve 1
image quality by minimising various optical aberrations in lenses.
(iii) (a)The compound microscope is used to observe minute nearby objects whereas the 2
5 telescope is used to observe distant objects.
(b) In compound microscope the focal length of the objective is lesser than that of the
eyepiece whereas in telescope the focal length of the objective is larger than that of the
eyepiece.
OR
Page | 34
(iii) (a) The image formed by reflecting type telescope is brighter than that formed by
refracting telescope.
(b) The image formed by the reflecting type telescope is more magnified than that
formed by the refracting type telescope.
Chapter 09: Ray Optics (SET-2)

1. A thin lens has refractive index 1.5 and focal length of 20cm in air has two
different medium of refractive index 1.2 and 2.5 respectively as shown in the figure.
What is the number of complete images it forms?
(i) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) 3 (iv) 0
2. A mark in the glass (µ =1.5) is at a distance of 2 cm from a convex

surface of diameter 8 cm as shown in the image. At what distance from the
surface the image appear
3. A mark on the surface of a glass sphere of refractive index 1.5 is viewed

from a diametrically opposite
position . It appear to be at a distance of 10cm from its actually position find the radius of sphere. (2)
4. A convex lens and a concave lens of focal length of 20 cm each are placed coaxially separated by a
Distance of 8 cm . A point object is placed at a distance of 40cm from the convex lens find the position of
image. (2)
Page | 35
5. A convex lens of focal length 5cm in front of a concave spherical mirror of radius of curvature of 30cm at
a distance of 20cm coaxially . If an object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from lens in opposite side of
mirror find the position of final image formed. (3)
6. A biconvex lens of focal length 20cm is silvered at one surface of radius of
curvature of 30cm as shown in diagram . A point object is placed at a distance
of 20cm from the lens . Find the position of final image formed. (3)
ANSWER KEYS
1. Ans: (ii) 2
2. Ans : As object is within the glass and light is going from glass to air
µ µ µ −µ
− =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑅
. .
− = V= -1.6cm
3. Ans: As image is 10 cm from opposite side of sphere its distance from 1st surface is (2R+10)
. . .
( )
− = , ( )
+ = , R= 5 CM
4. Ans: The image of 1st lens act as a object for second lens.
For 1st lens object distance is 20 cm
= − V1= 40cm
This image act as virtual object for second lens
= − V2= -53.33cm
5. Ans: It is a combination of a lens and mirror , Image of lens act as object for mirror
For lens
= − = − v=7.5cm
For mirror object position is 20-7.5=12.5cm
= + .
V= 75cm
For lens the image of mirror act as object so final image forms at.
= − v= 5.3cm from lens .
6. This behave as combination of lens and concave mirror in contact

The combined focal length is
= +
As it refeact twice in lens.
= + =
= + V=8.57 cm.
Page | 36
Chapter 10: Wave Optics (SET-1)
A.Case study
The principle of superposition is used to understand the phenomenon of interference of light waves. The
principle states that at a particular point, the resultant displacement produced by a number of waves is the vector
sum of the displacements produced by each wave. Light waves from two coherent sources produce interference
pattern. Thomas Young devised a way to obtain two coherent sources using two identical pinholes ( S 1 and S2)
illuminated by a single monochromatic pinhole source S. Using these sources in his experiment known as
Young’s double slit experiment., Young studied the interference pattern. The pattern consists of alternate bright
and dark fringes. The distance between two successive bright or dark fringes depends on the distance between S1
and S2, the distance of the screen from the plane of S1S2 and the wavelength of light used.
1. Consider the following waves:
𝝅
(i) y1=a sin ωt (ii) y2=a sin 2ωt (iii) y3=a sin(2ωt+ϕ) (iv) y4=a sin(4ωt+ )
𝟐
Which pair of the waves coming from the sources S1 and S2 will produce interference ?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv) and (i)
𝝀
2. Two light waves of same intensity Io each, having a path difference of , emanating from two coherent
𝟒
sources, meet at a point. The resultant intensity at the point will be
(a) zero (b) Io (c) 2 Io (d)4 Io
3. Manish performs Young’s double slit experiment by using orange, green and red light sources respectfully. If
the fringe width measured in the tree cases are ω1, ω2 and ω3 respectively, then which of the following is correct?
(a) ω2>ω1 > ω3 (b) ω1>ω2 > ω3 (c) ω2>ω3 > ω1 (d) ω3>ω1 > ω2
4. Consider the effect on the angular separation of the fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment due to the
following operations:
(i) the screen is moved away from the plane of the slits.
(ii) the separation between the two slits is increased till fringes are observed.
Which of the following option is correct?
(a) It remains constant in both cases.
(b) It decreases in both cases.
(c) It remains constant in (i), but decreases in (ii).
(d) It decreases in (i) but remains constant in (ii).
Answers:
1.(b)
Explanation:
Interference occurs between the waves y2 and y3 because phase difference ϕ between them remains constant.
2. (c)
Explanation:
Given:
Δx=λ/4
Phase difference between the waves at a point is given by,
Δϕ=(2π/ λ )×Δx
Δϕ=(2π/ λ) )× λ/4
⇒Δϕ=(2π/4)rad=90∘
Page | 37
The resultant intensity is given by,
IR=4I0cos2(ϕ/2)
⇒IR=4I0 cos2(90°)
=4I0 cos 45º
𝟏
=4Io× ( )2
𝟐
∴IR =2I0
3.(d)
Explanation:
𝑫𝝀
Fringe width 𝜷 =
𝒂
Therefore for the same setup but different colours, 𝜷 ∝ 𝝀.
So larger is the wavelength, larger is the fringe width.
1. (c)
Explanation: The angular separation 𝜽 is independent of D and inversely proportional to a. Hence a separation
between the two slits is increased, angular separation 𝜽 decreases.
B. SA-1
Light from a monochromatic source, is made to fall
on a single slit of variable width. An experimentalist
records the following data for the linear width of the
principal maxima on a screen kept at a distance of 1
m from the plane of the slit.
Use any two observation from the data to estimate
the value of wavelength of light used.
Answers:
Linear width of principal maxima ,
𝟐𝑫𝝀 𝜷𝟎 𝒂
𝜷𝟎 = 𝒂
∴𝝀= 𝟐𝑫
From observation at S. No -1:

𝒂 = 𝟎. 𝟏 𝒎𝒎, 𝜷𝟎 = 𝟔 𝒎𝒎, 𝑫 = 𝟏𝒎
𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎 𝟑 × 𝟎. 𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎 𝟑
∴𝝀= = 𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎 𝟕 𝒎
𝟐×𝟏
C.Assertion and reason
Directions:
These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these
questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct
1. Assertion: Coloured spectrum is seen when we look through a muslin cloth.
Reason: It is due the interference of white light on passing through fine slits.
2. Assertion: Wavefront emitted by a point source of light in an isotropic medium is spherical.
Page | 38
Reason: Isotropic medium has same refractive index in all directions.
Answers:
1.(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
It is quite clear that the coloured spectrum is seen due to diffraction of white light on passing through fine slits
made by fine threads in the muslin cloth.
2. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Explanation: If a medium has same refractive index at every point in all directions, then the waveform obtained
from a point source in such a medium is spherical since wave travels in all direction with same speed. Such a
medium is known as isotropic medium. So, the assertion and reason both are true and the reason explain the
assertion properly.
D. MCQs
1. In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of the first minima
formed on a screen placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What will be the angular width of the first minima, if
the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water? (R.I. of water = 4/3)
(a) 0.1° (b) 0.266° (c) 0.15° (d) 0.05°

2. A parallel beam of fast-moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed
at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statements is
correct?
(a) The angular width of the central maximum will decrease.
(b) The angular width of the central maximum will be unaffected.
(c) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons.
(d) The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase.
Answers:
𝝀
1. (c): Angular width for first minima in Young’s double slit experiment, 𝜽 =
𝒂
For given value of a, 𝜽 ∝ 𝝀

𝛉 𝛌 𝛌
= = =𝛍
𝛉𝐰 𝛌𝐰 𝛌
𝛍
𝛉 𝟎. 𝟐°
⇒ 𝛉𝐰 = = = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟓°
𝛍 𝟒
𝟑
𝒉
2. (a) : We know that 𝝀 =
𝒎𝒗
𝟐𝝀
Also for angular width 𝝎 =
𝒅
𝟏
So we can say 𝝎 ∝ 𝝀 ∝
𝒗
So if the velocity increases, the angular width of the central maximum will decrease.
Chapter 10: Wave Optics (SET-2)

MCQ
1. A parallel monochromatic beam of light is incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is formed on
a screen placed perpendicular to the direction of incident beam. At the first maximum of the diffraction pattern
the phase difference between the rays coming from the edges of the slit is.
Page | 39
a) 0
b) π/2
c) π
d) 2π
ANSWER--d
The phase difference (φ) between the wavelets from the top edge and the bottom edge of the slit is φ=2π/λ(d.sinθ)
where d is the slit width. The first minima of the diffraction pattern occurs at sinθ=λ/d so φ=2π/λ(d×λ/d) =2π
2. Which one of the following phenomena is not explained by Huygen's construction of wavefront
(a) Refraction (b) Reflection
(c) Diffraction (d) Origin of spectra
ANSWER--d
ASSERTION AND REASON

Given two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii)A is true but R is false.
(iv) A is false and R is also false.
1. Assertion : No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources are infinitely close to each other.
Reason : The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between the two slits.
ANSWER--ii
2. Assertion : When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from some distance, a bright spot is
seen at the centre of shadow of the obstacle.
Reason : Destructive interference occurs at the centre of the shadow.
ANSWER -iii
2 MARK QUESTION
If two waves represented by 𝑦 = 4 sin 𝜔𝑡 and𝑦 = 3 sin 𝜔𝑡 + interfere at a point, Find the amplitude of the
resulting wave.
ANSWER--
   / 3, a1  4 , a 2  3
A a12  a 22  2 a1 .a 2 cos   A  6
5 MARKS QUESTION
1. (a) There are two sets of apparatus of Young’s double slit experiment. In set A, the phase difference between
the two waves emanating from the slits does not change with time, whereas in set B, the phase difference
between the two waves from the slits changes rapidly with time. What difference will be observed in the
pattern obtained on the screen in the two set ups?
(b) Deduce the expression for the resultant intensity in both the above mentioned set ups (A and B) assuming
that the waves emanating from the two slits have the same amplitude a and same wavelength λ.
Ans.
(a) Set A: Stable interference pattern, the positions of maxima and minima do not change with time.
Page | 40
Set B: Position of maxima and minima will change rapidly with time and average uniform
intensity distribution will be observed on the screen.
(b) Expression for intensity of stable interference pattern in set –A.
If the displacement produced by slit S1 is y1 = a.cos wt
then, the displacement produced by S2 would be
y2 = acos (wt + ɸ)
and the resultant displacement will be given by
y = y1 + y2
= a (cos wt + cos (wt + ϕ))
= 2acos (ϕ/2)cos(wt + ϕ/2)
The amplitude of the resultant displacement is 2acos (ϕ/2) and therefore the intensity at that point will
be
I = 4I0 cos2 (ϕ/2)
ɸ= 0
I = 4I0
In set B, the intensity will be given by the average intensity
I = 4I0 cos2 (ϕ/2)
I = 2I0
Page | 41
Chapter 11: Dual Nature of Radiation & Matter
Question 1. (MCQ)
The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths of molecules of hydrogen and helium which are at temperature 27°C and 127°C
respectively is
A) ½ C) 1 B)√( ) D)√( )
Ans: (B) √( )
Question 2. (MCQ)
Photoelectric emission is observed from a metallic surface for frequencies v1 and v2 of the incident light rays (v1>
v2). If the maximum values of kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted in the two cases are in the ratio of 1 : k,
then the threshold frequency of the metallic surface is
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans: (B)
Guidelines:-
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
Question 3
Assertion: Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
Reason: The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light.
Ans: (d)
Question 4. (2 marks)
Show graphically, the variation of the de- Broglie wavelength (λ) with the potential (V) through which an electron
is accelerated from rest.
Ans:
(1 mark for the graph + 1 mark for the calculation)
Page | 42
Question 5. (3 Marks)
Draw a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with frequency of the incident radiations. What does the
slope of the line with the frequency axis indicate? Hence, define the threshold frequency.
Question 6. (Case-based Study)

Light waves are nothing but the electromagnetic waves which are having dual nature. That means particle as well as
wave nature. The phenomenon like interference, diffraction and polarisation of light explains the wave nature of
light. While the phenomenon like photoelectric effect, Compton Effect explains the particle nature of light. The
physicist de Broglie proposed that every moving particle of matter is associated with wave. He gave the wavelength
of that wave in terms of momentum as given below.
Wavelength = h/p = h/mv
Where, h is Planck’s constant
M is the mass of the particle

And v is the speed of the particle.
And the wave associated with the matter is called as matter wave having wavelength called as de Broglie wavelength.
The most important application of photoelectric effect is the photocell. It works on the phenomenon of photoelectric
effect and converts light energy into an electrical energy. The de Broglie wavelength can be measured in elementary
particles like electrons, protons etc. And due to huge mass of macroscopic particles or bodies it cannot be determined
in them significantly. As the wavelengths associated with macroscopic particles in our daily life is not measurable
hence they doesn’t show the wave like nature. And in the microscopic particle or at atomic level the particles are
having suitable wavelength which explains the wave nature associated with them.
Q i.) The de Broglie wavelength is independent of ___

a) mass of the particle
b) momentum of the particle
c) charge and nature of the particle
d) both a and b
Q ii.) Photoelectric current depends on the___

a) intensity of incident light
b) potential difference between two electrodes
c) nature of the emitter plate material
d) all of the above
Q iii.) If the electron is accelerated with a potential V = 54 V then what is its de Broglie wavelength?
a) 0.1667nm
b) 0.2 nm
c) 1 nm
d) 0.05 nm
Q iv.) When the momentum of a proton is changed by an amount P0, the corresponding change in the de-Broglie
wavelength is found to be 0.25%. Then, the original momentum of the proton was
a) 𝑝
b) 100 𝑝
c) 400 𝑝
Page | 43
d) 4 𝑝
OR
In a photo-emissive cell with executing wavelength λ, the fastest electron has speed If the exciting wavelength is
changed to 3λ/4, the speed of the fastest emitted electron will be
/
a) v( )
/
b) v( )
/
c) More than v( )
/
d) Less than v( )
Answers –
i. c
ii. d
iii. a
iv. c
Page | 44
Chapter 12: Atoms (SET-1)
MCQ TYPE
1. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom, then energy required to remove an electron from
n = 2 is
(a) 10.2 eV (b) 0 eV (c) 3.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV.
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE

2. Assertion : Between any two given energy levels, the number of absorption transitions is always less than
the number of emission transitions.
Reason : Absorption transitions start from the lowest energy level only and may end at any higher energy
level. But emission transitions may start from any higher energy level and end at any energy level below it.
3. Assertion : In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum and maximum wavelength is 3/4
Reason : Lyman series constitute spectral lines corresponding to transition from higher energy to ground
state of hydrogen atom.
VSA-I
4. The energy levels of an atom are
given below in the diagram.
Which of the transitions belong to
Lyman and Balmer series?
Calculate the ratio of the shortest
wavelengths of the Lyman and the
Balmer series of the spectra.
5. When an electron in hydrogen
atom jumps from the third excited
state to the ground state, how would the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electron change? Justify
your answer.
VSA-II
6. A hydrogen atom initially in its ground state absorbs a photon and is in the excited state with energy 12.5 eV.
Calculate the longest wavelength of the radiation emitted and identify the series to which it belongs.
[Take Rydberg constant R = 1.1 × 107 m–1]
7. The short wavelength limit for the Lyman series of the hydrogen spectrum is 913.4 Å. Calculate the short
wavelength limit for Balmer series of the hydrogen spectrum.
CASE BASED QUESTIONS

At room temperature, most of the H-atoms are in
ground state. When an atom receives some
energy (i.e., by electron collisions), the atom may
acquire sufficient energy to raise electron to
higher energy state. In this condition, the atom is
said to be in excited state. From the excited state,
the electron can fall back to a state of lower
energy emitting a photon equal to the energy
difference of the orbit. In a mixture of H-He+ gas
(He+ is single ionized He atom), H-atoms and
He+ ions are excited to their respective first
excited states. Subsequently, H-atoms transfer
their total excitation energy to He+ ions (by
collisions).
(i) The quantum number n of the state finally populated in He+ ions is
(a)2 (b)3 (c) 4 (d) 5
(ii) The wavelength of light emitted in the visible region by He+ ions after collisions with H-atoms is
Page | 45
(a) 6.5 x 10-7 m (b)5.6 x10-7m (c) 4.8 x 10-7m (d)4.0 x 10-7m
(iii) The ratio of kinetic energy of the electrons for the H-atoms to that of He+ ion for n = 2 is
(a) ¼ (b) ½ (c) 1 (d) 2
(iv) The angular momentum of an electron in first excited state is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
LONG TYPE QUESTION

1. (a)Using Bohr’s second postulate of quantization of orbital angular momentum. Show that the
circumference of the electron in the nth orbital state in hydrogen atom is ‘n’ times the de-Broglie
wavelength associated with it.
(b) The electron in hydrogen atom is initially in the third excited state. What is the maximum number of
spectral lines which can be emitted when it finally moves to the ground state?
Chapter 12: Atoms (SET-2)

1. If n is principal quantum number, which of the following statements is true for hydrogen atom?
(a) Angular momentum ∝ (b) Linear momentum ∝
(c) Radius ∝ (d) Energy ∝
2. One requires energy E1 to remove a nucleon from a nucleus and energy E2 to remove an electron from the
orbit of an atom. Then
(a) E1 ≥ E2 (b) E1 = E2 (c) E1 < E2 (d) E1 > E2
3. Assertion: Second orbit circumference of hydrogen atom is two times the de-Broglie wavelength of electrons in
that orbit.
Reason: de-Broglie wavelength of electron in ground state is minimum
4. Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom corresponding to increasing values of energy i.e. E A< EB< EC. If λ1, λ2
and λ3 are the wavelengths of the radiations corresponding to transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively,
find the relation between them.
5. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. If an electron transition takes place from a level (i) -0.85
eV to -3.4 eV and (ii) -1.5 eV to -3.4 eV, calculate the wavelength of the spectral lines emitted. To which series
of hydrogen spectrum, does these wavelengths belong?
6. Line and Continuous Spectrum
The lines in Spectra are caused by electrons moving in
between energy levels. When atoms are excited they
emit light of certain wavelengths corresponds to
different colours. The emitted light can be observed as
a series of coloured lines with dark spaces in between:
this series of coloured lines is called a line or atomic
spectra. Each element produces a unique set of spectral
lines. Since no two elements emit the same spectral
lines, elements can be identified by their line spectrum.
Energy of emitted photon, ℎ𝜈 = 𝐸 − 𝐸
Where E2=energy of electron in higher energy state.
E1=energy of electron in lower energy state.
A continuous spectrum consists of all wavelengths within a certain range, rather than only certain discrete
wavelengths. This spectrum looks like a rainbow. Hot, dense light sources like stars emit a nearly continuous
spectrum of light which travels out in all directions and interacts with other materials in space. The broad range
of colours that a star emits depends upon its temperature.
(i) Line spectra are due to
Page | 46
(a) Hot solids (b) Atoms in gaseous state
(c) Molecules in gaseous state (d) Liquid at low temperature
(ii) Select the incorrect from the following options
(a) Emission spectrum results when an electron in an atom undergoes a transition from excited state to
the ground state
(b) In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with the emission of a photon of energy hν
(c) In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with the absorption of a photon of energy hν
(d) All of the above
(iii) In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of longest wavelength in Lyman series to the longest wavelength in
Balmer series is
(a) 27:5 (b)5:27 (c) 4:9 (d) 9:4
(iv) A continuous spectrum is the characteristic of matter which is present in
(a) Independent units (b) space (c) bulk (d) gases
(v) As the orbit number of the electron increases in a hydrogen atom, the energy of
electron_______
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains constant (d) electron energy is always zero
ANSWER KEYS
1. b
2. d
3. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
4. 𝐸 − 𝐸 = 𝐸 − 𝐸 + 𝐸 − 𝐸
Or, = +
Or, = +
5. (i) ℎ𝜈 = 𝐸 − 𝐸 = −0.85 − (−3.4) = 2.25 𝑒𝑉
Or, = 2.25 × 1.6 × 10 J
. × × ×
Or, 𝜆 = =4850 A0
. × . ×
It corresponds to Balmer series
(ii) ℎ𝜈 = 𝐸 − 𝐸 = −1.5 − (−3.4) = 1.9𝑒𝑉
Or, = 1.9 × 1.6 × 10 J
. × × ×
Or, 𝜆 = =6510A0
. × . ×
It corresponds to Balmer series
6. i. b
ii. c
iii. b
iv. c
v. a
Page | 47
Chapter 13: Nuclei (SET-1)
1) If the nuclear radius of 27 Al is 3.6 fermi , the approximate nuclear radius of 64Cu in Fermi is :
(a) 2.4 (b) 1.2 (c) 4.8 (d)3.6
SA-I (2 MARK)
2) A radioactive nucleus ‘A’ decays as given below:
β γ
A-------------A1 ------------A2
If the mass number & atomic number of A1 are 180 &73 respectively, find the mass number &atomic number of
A and A2.
SA-II (3 MARK)
3) (a) Draw a graph showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) vs mass number A for the nuclei
in 20 ≤ A ≤ 170.
(b) A nucleus of mass number 240 and having binding energy/nucleon 7.6 MeV splits into two fragments Y, Z of
mass numbers 110 and 130 respectively. If the binding energy/ nucleon of Y, Z is equal to 8.5 MeV each, calculate
the energy released in the nuclear reaction.
LQ (5 MARK)
4) a) Define the term ‘activity’ of a given sample of radionuclide. Write the expression for the law of radioactive
decay in terms of the activity of a given sample.
(b) A radioactive isotope has a half life of T years. How long will it take the activity to reduce to 3.125% of its
original value?
(c) When a nucleus (X) undergoes β-decay, and transforms to the nucleus (Y), does the pair (X, Y) form isotopes,
isobars or isotones? Justify your answer.
ASSERTION AND REASON

5) Two statements are given, one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer
to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is also false
(i)Assertion: It is not possible to use 35Cl as the fuel for fusion energy.
Reason: The binding energy of 35Cl is too small.
(ii)Assertion: Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared to protons.

Reason: Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons.
6. CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

Neutrons and protons are identical particle in the sense that their masses are nearly the same and the force,
called nuclear force, does into distinguish them. Nuclear force is the strongest force Stability of nucleus is determined
by the neutron proton ratio or mass defect or packing fraction. Shape of nucleus is calculated by quadrupole moment
and spin of nucleus depends on even or odd mass number. Volume of nucleus depends on the mass number: Whole
mass of the atom (nearly 99%) is centred at the nucleus
(i)The correct statements about the nuclear force are

(a) change independent (b) short range force
Page | 48
(c) non-conservative force (d) all of these.
(ii)The range of nuclear force is the order of

(a) 2 x 10 -10 m (b) 1.5 x 10 -20 m (c) 1.2 x 10 -4 m (d) 1.4 x 10 -15 m
(iii) A force between two protons is same as the force between proton and neutron. The nature of the force is
(a) electrical force (b) weak nuclear force
(c) gravitational force (d) strong nuclear force
(iv) Two protons are kept at a separation of 40 A0.Fn is the nuclear force and Fe is the electrostatic force between
them. Then
(a) Fn˂˂ Fe (b) Fn=Fe (c) Fn˃˃Fe (d) Fn˜Fe
(v) All the nucleons in an atom are held by

(a) Nuclear forces (b) van der Waal's forces (c) Gravitational forces (d) coulomb force
ANSWER KEYS
Q1 (c) 4.8 1
Q2 As we know, mass and charge of
β=0 and −1 1
γ=0 and 0
β γ
A-------------A1 ------------A2
m 180 180 180
e 72 73 73
So mass and charge of A is 180 & 72. 1
mass and charge of A2is 180 & 73
Q3 2
Energy released per fission=(110+130) x 8.5 -240 x 7.6=216 MeV 1

Q4 Activity of a radio nuclide is defined as the rate of disintegration of the given sample of radio nuclide.
Thus, activity R = − dN/dt
Rt=R0e-λt
Page | 49
2
Q5 a Correct Answer: C
Solution : In fusion, lighter nuclei are used so, fusion is not possible with 35Cl. Also binding 1
energy of 35Cl is not too small.
b Correct Answer: B
Solution : Neutron is about 0.1 more massive than proton. But the unique thing about the
neutron is that while it is heavy, it has no charge (it is neutral). This lack of charge gives it the 1
ability to penetrate matter without interacting as quickly as the beta particles or alpha
particles.
Q6 i d 1
All options are basic properties of nuclear forces.
ii D 1
Nuclear force is a short range force.
iii D 1
iv A 1
Nuclear force is much stronger than electrostatic force.
v A 1
Chapter 13: Nuclei (SET-2)

1. Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons. This is because of the fact that:
(a) neutrons are heavier than protons
(b) electrostatic forces between protons are repulsive
(c) neutrons decay into protons through 𝛽 decay
(d) nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker than that between protons.
2. The radius of a nucleus with mass number 16 is 3 fm. The radius of another nucleus with mass number 128
is
(a) 6 fm (b) 12 fm (c) 18 fm (d) 24 fm
3. If 200 MeV of energy is released in the fission of one nucleus of 𝑈, how many nuclei must fission per
second to produce a power of 1 kW?
4. Draw a graph showing the variation of potential energy between a pair of nucleons as a function of their
separation. Indicate the regions in which the nuclear force is (i) attractive, (ii) repulsive.
Write two important conclusions which you can draw regarding the nature of the nuclear forces.
5. Draw the graph showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon with the mass number for a large number
of nuclei 2< A < 240. What are the main inferences from the graph? How do you explain the constancy of
Page | 50
binding energy in the range 30 < A < 170 using the property that the nuclear force is short-ranged? Explain
with the help of this plot the release of energy in the processes of nuclear fission and fusion.
6. In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(a) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(b) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.
ASSERTION: Energy is released in nuclear fission as well as nuclear fusion.
REASON: In both processes the total binding energy of daughter nuclei is larger than the total binding energy
of parent nucleus.
7. CASE STUDY:
The nucleus is made up of neutrons and protons. Therefore, it may be expected that the mass of the nucleus
is equal to the total mass of its individual protons and neutrons. However, the nuclear mass M is found to be
always less than this. The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents, ∆M, is called the mass defect,
and is given by
∆M = [Z mp + (A-Z) mn] – M
The energy equivalent to the corresponding mass difference is known as the binding energy of the nucleus.
It may also be defined as the surplus energy which the nucleons give up by virtue of their attractions when
they become bound together to form a nucleus.
The binding energy of a nucleus X is given by, ∆Eb = ∆M c2 = [Z mp + (A-Z) mn – M] c2
(i) The energy equivalent of one atomic mass unit is
(a) 1.6 × –19 J
(b) 6.02 × 1023 J
(c) 931 MeV
(d) 9.31 MeV
(ii) The binding energy of a nitrogen nucleus in MeV from the following data: m H = 1.00783 u, mn =
1.00867 u, m ( N) = 14.00307 u.
(a) 104.7 MeV
(b) 107.4 MeV
(c) 0.11243 MeV
(d) 0.12243 MeV
(iii) The mass of  -particle is
(a) less than the sum of the masses of two protons and two neutrons
(b) equal to the mass of four protons
(c) equal to the mass of four neutrons
(d) equal to the sum of the masses of two protons and two neutrons
(iv) For atomic nuclei, the binding energy per nucleon
(a) increases continuously with increases in mass number
(b) decreases continuously with increase in mass number
(c) remains constant with increases in mass number
(d) first increases and then decreases with increase in mass number
(v) Mass defect of an atom refers to
(a) inaccurate measurement of mass of nucleons
(b) mass annihilated to produce energy to bind the nucleus
(c) packing fraction
(d) difference in the number of neutrons and protons in the nucleus
Page | 51
ANSWER KEYS
Q.N. Value points Marks

allotted
1 b 1
2 a 1
3 Let the number of nuclei that must fission per second be n. 1
Then 200 × 1.6 × 10–13 n = 1000
On solving, n = = 3.125 × 1013 1
4
1+1
Conclusions: (any two)

(i) The potential energy is minimum at a distance r0 of about 0.8 fm.
½+½
(ii) Nuclear force is attractive for distance larger than r0.
(iii) Nuclear force is repulsive if two are separated by distance less than r0.
(iv) Nuclear force decreases very rapidly at r0/equilibrium position.
5 The variation of binding energy per nucleon versus mass number is shown in figure.
Inferences from graph ( Any two)

1. The nuclei having mass number below 20 and above 180 have relatively small binding
energy and hence they are unstable.
2. The nuclei having mass number 56 and about 56 have maximum binding energy – 8·8
MeV and so they are most stable.
3. Some nuclei have peaks, e.g., He, , C, O this indicates that these nuclei are relatively ½ + ½
more stable than their neighbours.
(i) Explanation of constancy of binding energy: Nuclear force is short ranged, so every 1
nucleon interacts with its neighbours only, therefore binding energy per nucleon remains
constant.
(ii) Explanation of nuclear fission: When a heavy nucleus (A ≥ 235 say) breaks into two
lighter nuclei (nuclear fission), the binding energy per nucleon increases i.e, nucleons get
more tightly bound. This implies that energy would be released in nuclear fission. 1
Page | 52
(iii) Explanation of nuclear fusion: When two very light nuclei (A ≤ 10) join to form a
heavy nucleus, the binding is energy per nucleon of fused heavier nucleus more than the
binding energy per nucleon of lighter nuclei, so again energy would be released in nuclear
fusion. 1
6 (a) both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the 1
assertion
7 (i) c 1
(ii) a 1
(iii) a 1
(iv) d 1
(v) b 1
Page | 53
Chapter 14: Semiconductors (SET-1)
1. At equilibrium in p-n junc on diode the net current is
(a) due to diffusion of majority charge carriers.
(b) due to dri of minority charge carriers.
(c) zero as dri current and diffusion current are equal and opposite.
(d) zero as no charge carriers crosses the junc on.
2. Pure Si at 500K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentra on of 1.5 X 1016 m-3. Doping by
indium increases nh to 4.5 x 1022 m-3. The doped semiconductor is of
(a) p-type having electron concentrations ne = 5 x 109 m-3
(b) n-type having electron concentrations ne = 5 x 1022 m-3
(c) p-type having electron concentrations ne =2.5 x 1010 m-3
(d) n-type having electron concentration ne = 2.5 x 1023m-3
3. In n-type semiconductor, the donor energy level lies

(a) at the center of the energy gap. (b) just below the conduc on band
(c) just above the valence band. (d) in the conduc on band.
4. If the ra o of the concentra on of electrons to that of holes in a semiconductor is 7/5 and the ra o of
currents is 7/4 , then the ra o of their dri veloci es is
(a) 5/4 (b)5/8 (c) 4/5 (d)4/7
5. To a germanium sample, traces of gallium are added as an impurity. The resultant sample would behave
like (a) a
conductor (b) a p-type semiconductor (c) an
n- type semiconductor (d) an insulator
6. Asser on: Insulators do not allow flow of current through themselves.

Reason: They have no free electrons in conduc on band.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explana on of A.
(b)Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explana on of A.
7. Asser on: An n-type semiconductor has a large number of electrons but s ll it is electrically neutral.
Reason: An n-type semiconductor is obtained by doping an intrinsic semiconductor with a pentavalent
impurity.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explana on of A.
(b)Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explana on of A.
8. CASE STUDY (CONVERSION OF AC INTO DC)
Due to the unidirectional characteristic of the p-n junction so called
crystal diode use to convert AC to DC called as rectification. An
ideal diode is forward biased when p-type connected with +ve
terminal and n-type connected with –ve terminal and resistance is
very less. It is reverse biased when p-type connected with –ve and
Page | 54
n-type connected with +ve terminal and almost behaves like a insulator. The output of a full wave rectifier is
not pure dc. To reduce the ac component the output of rectifier again passes through filter circuit.
Based above the paragraph answer the following questions.
(a) What is the out put frequency of a full-wave rec fier if the input main have frequency is 50Hz?
(i) 100 Hz (ii) 200 Hz (iii) 50 Hz (iv) 0 Hz
(b) Find the current drawn from the cell in the given circuit considering the forward
resistance of diode is zero.
(i) 6/7 A (ii) 6/9 A (iii) 9/6 A (iv) 13/6 A
(c) To reduce the ripples in a rectifier circuit with capacitor filter-

(i) RL should be increased
(ii) Capacitors with high capacitance should be used
(iii) Input frequency should be increased
(iv) all of the above
(d) When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, it

(i) raises the poten al barrier
(ii) reduces the majority carrier current to zero
(iii) lowers the poten al barrier
(iv) none of the above
(e) The capacitance of a reverse biased PN junction

(i) Increases as reverse bias is increased
(ii) Decreases as reverse bias is increased
(iii) Increases as reverse bias is decreased
(iv) Is insignificantly low
ANSWER KEYS
1) (d) zero as no charge carriers crosses the junc on.
2) (a) p-type having electron concentra ons ne = 5 x 109 m-3
3) (b) just below the conduc on band
4) (c) 4/5
5) (b) a p-type semiconductor
6) (a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explana on of A.
7) (b)Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explana on of A.
8) (a) -(i) 100Hz
(b)-(ii) 6/9 A
(c)-(iv) all of the above
(d)-(iii) lowers the poten al barrier
(e)- (iii) Increases as reverse bias is decreased
Chapter 14: Semiconductors (SET-2)

Q.1. In a semiconductor
(a) there are no free electrons at 0 K
(b) there are no free electrons at any temperature
Page | 55
(c) the number of free electrons increases with pressure
(d) the number of free electrons is more than that in a conductor
Q.2. Let nh and ne be the number of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsic semiconductor. Then
(a) nh > ne (b) nh = ne (c) nh < ne (d) nh ≠ ne
Q.3. A p-type semiconductor is
(a) positively charged
(b) negatively charged
(c) uncharged
(d) uncharged at 0K but charged at higher temperatures
Q.4. Electric conduction in a semiconductor takes place due to
(a) electrons only
(b) holes only
(c) both electrons and holes
(d) neither electrons nor holes
Q.5. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon may be doped to make it a p-type semiconductor are those of
(a) phosphorus (b) boron (c) antimony (d) nitrogen
Q.6. The electrical conductivity of pure germanium can be increased by
(a) increasing the temperature
(b) doping acceptor impurities
(c) doping donor impurities
(d) All of the above
Q.7. Assertion: A pure semiconductor has negative temperature coefficient of resistance.
Reason: In a semiconductor on raising the temperature, more charge carriers are released, conductance
increases and resistance decreases.
Q.8. Assertion: The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the p-side to the n-side.
Reason: The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current when the junction is in forward
biased.
CASE BASED QUESTIONS

When the diode is forward biased, it is found that beyond forward voltage V = V k, called knee voltage, the
conductivity is very high. At this value of battery biasing for p-n junction, the potential barrier is overcome and the
current increases rapidly with increase in forward voltage. When the diode is reverse biased, the reverse bias voltage
produces a very small current about a few microamperes which almost remains constant with bias. This small current
is reverse saturation current.
Page | 56
(i) In which of the following figures, the p-n diode is forward biased.
(ii) The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. The ratio of forward to reverse bias resistance is
(a) 100 (b) 106 (c) 10 (d) 10-6
(iii) In the case of forward biasing of a p-n junction diode, which one of the following figures correctly depicts the
direction of conventional current (indicated by an arrow mark)?
(iv) If an ideal junction diode is connected as shown, then the value of the current I is
(a) 0.013 A (b) 0.02 A (c) 0.01 A (d) 0.1 A
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. Explain how a depletion region is formed and a potential barrier is created in a
junction diode.
2. Assuming that the two diodes D1 and D2 used in the electric circuit shown in the
figure are ideal, find out the value of the current flowing through 2.5 Ω resistor.
ANSWER KEYS
1. a
2. d
3. c
Page | 57
4. c
5. b
6. d
7. a
8. b
CASE BASED QUESTION

(i) (c)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (d)
(iv) (c)
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1) As soon as a p-n junction is formed, the majority charge
carriers begin to diffuse from the regions of higher
concentration to the regions of lower concentrations. Thus
the electrons from the n-region diffuse into the p-region and
where they combine with the holes and get neutralised.
Similarly, the holes from the p-region diffuse into the n-
region where they combine with the electrons and get
neutralised. This process is called electron-hole
recombination.
The p-region near the junction is left with immobile -ve ions
and n-region near the junction is left with +ve ions as shown
in the figure. The small region in the vicinity of the junction which is depleted of free charge carriers and has only
immobile ions is called the depletion layer. In the depletion region, a potential difference VB is created, called
potential barrier as it creates an electric field which opposes the further diffusion of electrons and holes.
2) Total resistance, R = (3x3/3+3) + 2.5 =4 Ohm. As 2.5 Ohm is in series, so value of the current flowing through
2.5 Ω resistor = 10/4=2.5 A
Page | 58

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Competency Based Questions

SESSION: 2023-24, CLASS: XII

2 ELECTRIC POTENTIAL & CAPACITANCE 8

4 MOVING CHARGES & MAGNETISM 14

5 MAGNETISM & MATTER 18

9 RAY OPTICS & OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS 33

11 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION & MATTER 42

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

B. Assertion & Reason

Case Based Question:

Case Based Question:

Chapter 1: Electric Charges and Field (SET-2)

Assertion and reason type

6. CASE BASED QUESTIONS

(iii)Torque on a dipole in uniform electric field is minimum when θ is equal to

Chapter 02: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance (SET-2)

REASON: Electric field is obtained from negative electric potential gradient

Following are the charges on the metal sphere before contact

Q1’ + Q2’ = Q1 + Q2 = 5Q1

Solving the equations we

6. CASE BASED QUESTION [4 MARKS]

Dielectrics are of two types:

Fig (A) Fig (B)

2. The charge flowing in a conductor varies with time as:

1. Ans: ( A) 0.01 ohm

Chapter 04: Moving Charges & Magnetism (SET-2)

(a)Bev (b) (c) (d) zero

3. Assertion: Faraday’s laws are consequence of the conservation of energy.

2. (a) [𝜑 = 𝐵𝐴 cos 𝜔𝑡 , 𝜀 = 𝐵𝐴𝜔 cos 𝜔𝑡 − ]

Chapter 06: Electromagnetic Induction (SET-2)

(a) Identify the device ‘X’.

(i) What are the advantages of Superconducting transmission line? (1)

Impedance Z= (R2+X2)1/2 =(1202+902)1/2= 150𝛀

Peak current I0= E0/Z= 30/150=0.2A

Peak value of current

Power factor of the given circuit

Chapter 09: Ray Optics (SET-2)

2. A mark in the glass (µ =1.5) is at a distance of 2 cm from a convex

3. A mark on the surface of a glass sphere of refractive index 1.5 is viewed

This image act as virtual object for second lens

For mirror object position is 20-7.5=12.5cm

= − v= 5.3cm from lens .

6. This behave as combination of lens and concave mirror in contact

As it refeact twice in lens.

From observation at S. No -1:

(a) 0.1° (b) 0.266° (c) 0.15° (d) 0.05°

For given value of a, 𝜽 ∝ 𝝀

Chapter 10: Wave Optics (SET-2)

ASSERTION AND REASON

(1 mark for the graph + 1 mark for the calculation)

Question 6. (Case-based Study)

Wavelength = h/p = h/mv

Where, h is Planck’s constant

M is the mass of the particle

Q i.) The de Broglie wavelength is independent of ___

Q ii.) Photoelectric current depends on the___

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

(iv) The angular momentum of an electron in first excited state is

LONG TYPE QUESTION