Final Revision MCQ Questions Ob

Faculty of Economics and Business Administration
ABI 311 (Organizational Behavior) final revision

Lecturer: Dr. Noran Abdelrahman
1. Which of the following activities is NOT typically associated with
management?
A) Allocating resources B) Making decisions
C) Directing activities of others
D) Performing tasks without collaboration
2. Which statement best defines a manager?
A) A person who works alone to achieve success
B) An individual who achieves goals through others
C) Someone who only supervises employees
D) A worker who focuses on their own tasks
3. In the context of management, what does "allocating resources" refer to?
A) Choosing which employees to fire
B) Distributing resources effectively
C) Investing money in personal ventures
D) Hoarding resources to minimize costs
4. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an organization?
A) Composed of two or more people
B) Functions on a relatively continuous basis
C) Operates in isolation without goals
D) Aims to achieve a common goal or set of goals
5. What does the planning function of management primarily involve?
A) Monitoring activities to ensure they are accomplished
B) Defining goals and establishing strategies
C) Assigning tasks and determining reporting relationships
D) Motivating employees and resolving conflicts
6. What is the primary role of the leading function in management?
A) Monitoring performance against established standards
B) Establishing strategies for achieving goals
C) Motivating employees and directing their activities
D) Grouping tasks and determining reporting relationships
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7. Which management function is concerned with correcting significant
deviations from plans?
A) Organizing B) Leading
C) Planning D) Controlling
8. Which management function focuses on determining what tasks are to be
done and who will do them?
A) Leading B) Controlling
C) Organizing D) Planning
9. Which management function focuses on determining what tasks are to be
done and who will do them?
A) Leading B) Controlling
C) Organizing D) Planning
10. A sales manager's responsibility to connect with clients for insights
exemplifies which of the following roles?
A) Figurehead B) Leader
C) Liaison D) Monitor
11. What characterizes the figurehead role of a manager?
A) Making strategic decisions for the company
B) representing the organization
C) Resolving conflicts among employees
D) Delegating tasks to team members
12. Which role of a manager involves collecting information from external
organizations and institutions?
A) Spokesperson role B) Disseminator role
C) Monitor role D) Leader role
13. When a manager communicates the organization’s goals to the public,
which role are they fulfilling?
A) Leader B) Disseminator
C) Monitor D) Spokesperson
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14. Which decisional role involves managers initiating and overseeing new
projects to improve organizational performance?
A) Disturbance handler B) Resource allocator
C) Entrepreneur D) Negotiator
15. When managers negotiate issues and bargain with other units to gain
advantages for their own units, they are fulfilling which role?
A) Entrepreneur B) Negotiator
C) Disturbance handler D) Resource allocator
16. If a manager has to address an unexpected crisis, which decisional role are
they likely to be performing?
A) Negotiator B) Resource allocator
C) Entrepreneur D) Disturbance handler
17. Technical skills are typically developed through:
a) Extensive formal education b) Mentorship programs
c) Personal relationships d) On-the-job training
18. Human skills involve:
a) Applying specialized knowledge
b) Communicating and motivating others
c) Diagnosing complex conflicts and problems
d) Organizing resources effectively
19. Conceptual skills involve the ability to:
a) Communicate effectively with team members
b) Apply specialized expertise in a technical area
c) Analyze and diagnose complex situations
d) Develop close relationships with colleagues
20. Which type of skills are most important for senior managers?
a) Technical skills b) Human skills
c) Conceptual skills d) Interpersonal skills
21. Which of the following disciplines contributes least to the study of OB?
a) Psychology b) Sociology
c) Economics d) Physics
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22. An OB researcher would be most likely to study:
a) How organizational culture influences group dynamics
b) How to develop new technologies for organizational growth
c) How macroeconomic policies affect the organization
d) How organizations expand in international markets
23. Workforce diversity acknowledges differences based on all the following
EXCEPT:
a) Gender b) Race and ethnicity
c) Social class d) Physical and psychological abilities
24. What is one reason organizations fail in customer service?
a) Lack of employee motivation
b) Failure to satisfy customer needs
c) Poor financial management
d) High employee turnover
25. OB examines behavior at three levels: individuals, groups, and ______.
a) Communities b) Organizations
c) Culture d) Structure
26.What are the three key elements of motivation?
A. Desires, rewards, and outcomes B. Needs, drives, and incentives
C. Goals, ambitions, and satisfaction D. Feelings, emotions, and behaviors
27.Which of the following is an example of a need?
A. Recognition from peers B. Eating food when hungry
C. A drive to achieve success D. The need for food and water
28.What is the role of incentives in motivation?
A. Incentives reduce the need for action.
B. Incentives alleviate needs and reduce drives.
C. Incentives create an imbalance in psychological states.
D. Incentives increase physiological drives.
29.What is the primary focus of the traditional approach to motivation?
A. Providing employees with social recognition
B. Using money as the primary motivator
C. Enhancing employee creativity
D. Offering a balance between work and personal life
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30.According to the human relations approach, which of the following is more
important than money in motivating employees?
A. Organizational structure
B. Strong social needs and a sense of importance
C. Individual performance reviews
D. Opportunities for monetary incentives
31.What is the primary assumption of the Human Resources Approach to
motivation?
A. People are primarily motivated by monetary rewards.
B. Employees are best motivated through strict supervision and control.
C. People are capable of making genuine contributions to organizations.
D. Employees require minimal engagement to achieve organizational goals.
32.Which of the following is a key characteristic of primary motives?
A. They must be unlearned and physiologically based.
B. They are primarily influenced by social experiences.
C. They focus on achievements and personal growth.
D. They are entirely learned through interactions.
33.Which of the following is an example of a secondary motive?
A. Avoidance of pain B. Hunger
C. Desire for power D. Thirst
34.What is the primary source of intrinsic motivation?
A. External rewards like promotions and pay raises
B. Tangible benefits provided by others
C. Visible recognition in the workplace
D. Internal feelings associated with the task or job itself
35.What characterizes extrinsic motivation?
A. It is derived from internal satisfaction.
B. It involves tangible rewards distributed by others.
C. It focuses solely on feelings of personal growth.
D. It results only from internal competition.
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36.How do intrinsic and extrinsic motives differ?
A. Intrinsic motives are generated externally, while extrinsic motives are internal.
B. Intrinsic motives are related to the task, while extrinsic motives are linked to
external rewards.
C. Intrinsic motives are always and tangible visible, while extrinsic motives are
hidden.
D. Intrinsic motives depend on rewards, while extrinsic motives are unrelated to
outcomes.
37.Which of the following reflects the philosophy of Theory Y?
A. Employees need to be closely monitored at all times.
B. Employees only work hard when threatened with punishment.
C. Employees are naturally self-engaged and responsible.
D. Employees dislike any form of work.
38.How does Theory X view employee motivation?
A. Motivation is driven by a desire for self-actualization.
B. Motivation depends on external rewards and punishments.
C. Motivation arises from employees’ internal sense of responsibility.
D. Motivation is irrelevant as employees naturally enjoy their tasks.
39. What is an example of an esteem need?
A. Achieving personal growth
B. Feeling safe in the workplace
C. Developing close relationships
D. Earning recognition for achievements
40.What does the safety level in Maslow’s hierarchy correspond to?
A. The need for physical security only
B. The need for recognition and status
C. The need for security
D. The need for love and belonging
41.According to Maslow, what happens when a lower-level need is satisfied?
A. It continues to motivate behavior.
B. It no longer motivates, and the next level becomes active.
C. It prevents higher-level needs from being activated.
D. It leads to a regression to even lower needs.
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42.What is the main premise of need-based theories of motivation?
A. Behavior is driven by learned skills.
B. Need deficiencies cause behavior.
C. Motivation arises solely from external rewards.
D. People are naturally self-motivated.
43.How are Maslow’s hierarchy and McGregor’s Theory Y related?
A. Both suggest employees dislike work and need external motivation.
B. Both emphasize the role of intrinsic motivation in higher-level needs.
C. Both are focused exclusively on safety and physiological needs.
D. Both suggest that external rewards are sufficient to motivate employees.
44.What is the need for achievement in Acquired Needs Theory?
A. The desire to excel and overcome obstacles
B. The desire to maintain social relationships
C. The desire to influence and teach others
D. The desire for basic survival
45.What does the need for power represent in Acquired Needs Theory?
A. The desire for physical security
B. The desire to relate to others and maintain friendships
C. The desire to excel in competitive situations
D. The desire to influence, teach, or coach others
46.Someone who prioritizes being liked by colleagues and joining social groups
is driven by which need?
A. Need for achievement B. Need for affiliation
C. Need for power D. Safety needs
47.Which needs are included in the growth category of ERG Theory?
A. Physiological and safety needs
B. Social and security needs
C. Achievement and affiliation needs
D. Self-esteem and self-actualization needs
48.What happens according to the frustration–regression component of ERG
Theory?
A. People move to a higher-level need when one is frustrated.
B. People regress to a lower needs when higher needs cannot be met.
C. People avoid satisfying lower-level needs to focus on growth.
D. Frustration leads to permanent disengagement from all needs.
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49.How does the existence category in ERG Theory relate to Maslow’s
hierarchy?
A. It corresponds to safety and social needs.
B. It corresponds to esteem and self-actualization needs.
C. It corresponds to achievement and power needs.
D. It corresponds to physiological and security needs.
50.According to Equity Theory, which of the following is NOT a response to
perceived inequity?
A) Change inputs B) Distort perceptions of self
C) Leave the organization D) Ignore the inequity
51.Which component of Organizational Justice refers to fairness in
interpersonal treatment?
A) Distributive justice B) Interactional justice
C) Procedural justice D) Managerial justice
52.Which of the following is a component of Distributive Justice?
A) Fairness of decisions
B) Fairness of outcomes
C) Fairness of resource allocation
D) Fairness of the decision-making process
53.Which of the following is true in Expectancy Theory?
A) The higher the valence, the more motivated an employee is.
B) Effort always leads to performance.
C) The performance-reward relationship is irrelevant.
D) Expectancy is only relevant to intrinsic rewards.
54.What is the primary idea behind Goal-Setting Theory?
A) Goals must be vague to improve performance.
B) Specific and difficult goals lead to higher performance.
C) Employees are motivated by external rewards only.
D) Goal setting is irrelevant for employee motivation.
55.In Goal-Setting Theory, goal specificity refers to:
A) How challenging the goal is.
B) The degree to which the goal aligns with company objectives.
C) Whether the goal is quantifiable.
d) The ease of achieving the goal.
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56.According to Goal-Setting Theory, goals help by:
A) Directing attention toward goal-relevant activities
B) Decreasing persistence
C) Reducing effort over time
D) Reducing employee involvement in decision making
57.In Goal-Setting Theory, persistence is defined as:
A) The motivation to complete an assigned task.
B) The ability to achieve unrealistic goals.
C) The effort expended on a task over an extended period.
D) The ability to delegate tasks.
58.Which theory focuses on the belief that people are motivated by fairness?
A) Expectancy Theory B) Equity Theory
C) Goal-Setting Theory D) Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
59.What is a key difference between Equity Theory and Expectancy Theory?
A) equity focuses on fairness, while Expectancy focuses on effort-reward
relationships
B) Expectancy Theory focuses on goal-setting
C) Equity Theory is unrelated to job satisfaction
D) Expectancy Theory is based on job equity comparisons
60.Which component of Organizational Justice refers to the fairness of the
process used to make decisions?
A) Distributive justice B) Interactional justice
C) Procedural justice D) Reward fairness
61. According to Goal-Setting Theory, what is essential for goal-setting to be
effective?
A) Goals must be vague and non-specific
B) Employees must have the ability and resources to achieve the goals
C) Employees should not receive performance feedback
D) Goals should be set without participation from employees
62.Which of the following defines a group?
A) Two or more people physically near each other
B) Two or more people interacting and influencing each other
C) Two coworkers working side by side on different tasks
D) A collection of people at a meeting
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63.Informal groups typically arise from:
A) Organizational assignments
B) The need for social contact
C) Leadership directives
D) Role conflicts within teams
64.During the norming stage, a group is characterized by:
A) Uncertainty about roles
B) Conflict over leadership
C) Close relationships and cohesiveness
D) Task completion and focus
65.Which stage of group development focuses on achieving the task at hand?
A) Forming B) Storming
C) Performing D) Adjourning
66.Task roles within a group primarily:
A) Focus on interpersonal relationships
B) Define and clarify group objectives
C) Address personal conflicts among members
D) Maintain group harmony
67.Maintenance roles focus on:
A) Enhancing group performance
B) Constructive interpersonal relationships
C) Managing project deadlines
D) Achieving organizational goals
68.Role conflict occurs when:
A) An individual struggles to meet task deadlines
B) There are divergent role expectations for an individual
C) A group cannot form strong norms
D) Interpersonal relationships break down
69.Status is:
A) A measure of task performance
B) A socially defined position or rank in a group
C) A reflection of group size
D) Determined solely by organizational structure
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70.Which factor determines an individual’s status in a group?
A) Physical proximity to others
B) Their ability to contribute to group goals
C) The size of the organization
D) The group's overall performance
71.Smaller groups are generally:
A) Slower at completing tasks B) Better at problem-solving
C) Faster at completing tasks D) More prone to role conflicts
72.In the storming stage, group members experience:
A) Task completion B) Intragroup conflict
C) Interpersonal harmony D) Role ambiguity resolution
73.Group cohesiveness is highest during:
A) Forming B) Storming
C) Norming D) Adjourning
74.Adjourning is most common in:
A) Permanent workgroups
B) Temporary committees and task forces
C) Groups with undefined goals
D) Informal social groups
75.Which of the following does NOT encourage group cohesiveness?
A) Making the group smaller
B) Rewarding individual instead of the group
C) Increasing the group’s status
D) Physically isolating the group
76.Problem-solving teams typically consist of:
A) Employees from different hierarchical levels meet to discuss
improvements
B) Employees from the same department meet to discuss improvements
C) Virtual members tied together through technology meet to discuss
improvements
D) Employees who manage their own work
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77.Self-managed work teams:
A) Take on the responsibilities of their former supervisors
B) Focus on solving specific organizational problems and conflicts
C) Include employees from different organizations
D) Operate and work exclusively in virtual environments
78.Cross-functional teams are characterized by:
A) Employees from the same department
B) Employees from different hierarchical levels working on similar tasks
C) Employees from diverse work areas collaborating on a task
D) Teams working entirely remotely
79.Virtual teams use technology to:
A) Improve group cohesiveness
B) Replace leadership roles
C) Tie together physically dispersed members
D) Solve routine organizational problems
80.To ensure team effectiveness, leadership should:
A) Retain all decision-making authority
B) Empower teams by delegating responsibility
C) Focus only on conflict resolution
D) Minimize team communication
81.Which of the following is a key factor in team composition?
A) The diversity of roles
B) The ability of members to work independently
C) The personality of team leaders only
D) Strict homogeneity among team members
82.Teams perform best when they have:
A) A vague sense of their mission
B) Clear and specific performance goals
C) Minimal communication during tasks
D) Large groups with diverse goals
83.Social loafing is most likely to occur when:
A) Team members are highly motivated
B) Individual contributions are not identifiable
C) Roles are clearly defined
D) The team size is small
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84.Effective teams reduce social loafing by:
A) Assigning tasks to the entire team
B) Holding members jointly and individually accountable
C) Increasing group size
D) Reducing rewards for group outcomes
85.What is the sequence in which attitudes are generally formed?
A. Cognition → Behavioral Intention → A ect
B. Affect → Cognition → Behavioral Intention
C. Behavioral Intention → Cognition → A ect
D. Cognition → A ect → Behavioral Intention
86.Why are attitudes important?
A. They determine a person's intelligence B. They reflect a person's social
status
C. They influence our behavior D. Help in financial decision-
making
87.In attitude formation, which component involves emotional responses?
A. Cognition B. Affect
C. Behavioral Intention D. Motivation
88.What does the cognitive component of an attitude reflect?
A. Our feelings or emotions about an object or situation
B. The way we intend or expect to act
C. Our beliefs or ideas about an object or situation
D. The unconscious reactions to a situation
89.Which statement best represents the affective component of an attitude?
A. "I think this product is overpriced."
B. "I feel happy when I use this product."
C. "I plan to buy this product next week."
D. "I have no idea what this product is about."
90.Which of the following is an example of the cognitive component of an
attitude?
A. "I believe that exercise improves health."
B. "I feel energized after exercising."
C. "I plan to exercise three times a week."
D. "I avoid exercising during weekends
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91. How can individuals reduce cognitive dissonance?
A. By rationalizing the discrepancy
B. By altering either their attitudes or their behavior
C. By seeking consistency between attitudes and behavior
D. All of the above
92. What is job satisfaction?
A. A neutral feeling about work resulting from job duties
B. A positive feeling about one’s job .
C. A sense of dissatisfaction with work tasks
D. A feeling of being overburdened at work
93. What is the relationship between job satisfaction and employee motivation?
A. Negative correlation B. No correlation
C. Positive correlation D. Inverse correlation
94. What are withdrawal cognitions?
A. Thoughts and feelings about quitting a job
B. An employee’s decision to engage more in work tasks
C. Feelings of job involvement and satisfaction
D. The process of adapting to a stressful situation
95. What is the relationship between perceived stress and job satisfaction?
A. Strong negative relationship B. Strong positive relationship
C. No relationship D. Weak positive relationship
96. What is one of the most significant contributors to withdrawal cognitions?
A. High levels of job involvement B. Low job satisfaction
C. Increased motivation D. Reduced workload
97. What is the relationship between job satisfaction and job performance?
A. Negative correlation B. No relationship
C. Positive correlation D. Inverse proportionality
98. Which of the following behaviors reflects (OCB)?
A. Helping a coworker meet a tight deadline
B. Ignoring organizational goals and working independently
C. Reporting late to work regularly
D. Criticizing team efforts without constructive feedback
99. Which of the following is a destructive and passive response to dissatisfaction?
A. Voice B. Loyalty
C. Neglect D. Exit
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100. Which response to dissatisfaction involves constructive actions to improve
conditions?
A. Voice B. Exit
C. Neglect D. Loyalty
101. What is employee engagement?
A. An emotional and intellectual connection to the job
B. The extent to which an employee follows their job description
C. The commitment to stay with an organization due to economic reasons
D. A formal contract that outlines job responsibilities and expectations
102. Which of the following is not an outcome of high Perceived Organizational
Support (POS)?
A. Higher levels of organizational citizenship behavior
B. Lower levels of tardiness
C. Higher levels of service performance
D. Increased stress and burnout
103. Which of the following is most likely to decrease employee engagement?
A. Timely and constructive feedback
B. Supportive and caring leadership
C. High levels of stress and poor work-life balance
D. Opportunities for learning and growth
104. Which of the following is not a dimension of organizational commitment?
A. Affective commitment B. Normative commitment
C. Continuance commitment D. Behavioral commitment
105. Which of the following environmental forces deals with implementing
new systems like automation, artificial intelligence to improve productivity?
A) Technology B) Diversity
C) Ethics and Corporate Governance D) Globalization
106. The rise of flexible work environments, , and the need to manage remote
teams are driven by which environmental force?
A) Technology B) Globalization
C) New Employment Relationships D) Ethics and Corporate Governance
107. Which of the following is a key challenge of managing diversity in an
organization?
A) Ensuring that all employees have the same job roles regardless of their differences.
B) Creating an inclusive environment eliminates unfair discrimination.
C) Treatdiversity management as a secondary concern to the company’s profitability.
D) Focusing only on demographic differences such as race and gender.
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108. Which of the following is an example of unfair discrimination in the
workplace?
A) Hiring employees based on their relevant job skills and experience.
B) Assuming all members of a particular racial group share the same work ethic.
C) Promoting individuals based on their performance evaluations.
D) Offering training programs to all employees to enhance skills.
109. Unfair discrimination is harmful to organizations because:
A) It leads to increased creativity and innovation.
B) It encourages employees to perform based on merit alone.
C) It can reduce employee morale.
D) It ensures that all employees receive the same opportunities.
110. Which of the following is NOT considered part of surface-level diversity?
A) Physical abilities B) Ethnicity
C) Gender D) Personality traits
111. Which of the following is NOT considered part of surface-level diversity?
A) Physical abilities B) Ethnicity
C) Gender D) Personality traits
112. Which of the following is a consequence of racial and ethnic discrimination
in the workplace?
A) Enhanced teamwork among diverse employees.
B) Improved employee morale.
C) Increased job satisfaction for minority groups.
D) Negative workplace outcomes.
113. What positive qualities do employers associate with older workers?
A) the decreasing desire for change or the resistance to change.
B) Lack of experience.
C) Strong work ethic and commitment to quality.
D) Unwillingness to adapt to new technologies.
114. In traditionally male-dominated fields, how are successful women often
perceived?
A) As ideal supervisors.
B) As less competent than their male counterparts.
C) As more hostile and less desirable as supervisors.
D) As having no impact on workplace dynamics.
115. Overall abilities are made up of which two sets of factors?
A) Mental and emotional. B) Physical and social.
C) Intellectual and physical. D) Practical and theoretical
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116. Intellectual abilities are essential for which of the following activities?
A) Performing manual labor.
B) Physical fitness training.
C) Thinking, reasoning, and problem-solving.
D) Repetitive tasks that require minimal thought.
117. How does effective diversity management contribute to an organization's
success?
A) It decreases the need for communication.
B) It ensures compliance with regulations only.
C) It enhances team collaboration and innovation.
D) It focuses solely on the needs of management.
118. Why have many organizations begun assigning mentors specifically to women
and minorities?
A) To limit their opportunities in the workplace.
B) To help support and advance members of diverse groups.
C) To create competition among different demographic groups.
D) To isolate these individuals from the rest of the workforce
119. Which of the following is a benefit of mentoring for diverse employees?
A) It creates more barriers to advancement.
B) It increases feelings of isolation in the workplace.
C) It helps in improving their chances for development and advancement.
D) It focuses solely on improving technical skills.
120. Which of the following is a benefit of training diverse employees?
A) It creates more barriers to collaboration.
B) It helps employees to understand their responsibilities.
C) It minimizes the need for management oversight.
D) It primarily focuses on theoretical knowledge only.
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Faculty of Economics and Business Administration

ABI 311 (Organizational Behavior) final revision

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