UCO Bank LBO Sample Paper

Directions (1-7) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words have been given in bold to help you locate them, while answering some of the
questions.

India’s consumer behaviour has experienced a radical transformation at the most fundamental levels.
The rise in smartphone use fuelled by affordable data plans has catalysed an online revolution in the
country. The novel coronavirus pandemic has further accelerated the process of digital inclusion, and it
is now not only routine to transact online and have food, personal care items or anything else delivered
at the one’s doorstep, but it is also common to learn online, have medical consultations online, and even
resolve disputes online. These realisations have given India the opportunity to disrupt the status quo
with its innovative abilities.
Despite the rapid advancement of digital platforms on the one hand and the pervasiveness of the
Internet-enabled phone on the other, small enterprises such as local kirana stores have not gained from
this. Online purchases from “near and now” inventory from the local store remain in a digital vacuum.
This is because, to sell on numerous platforms, sellers must maintain a separate infrastructure, which
only adds costs and limits participation. The distinct terms and conditions of each platform further limit
the sellers’ flexibility. Consequently, small and medium-sized businesses have lost their freedom to
choose and participate in the country’s e-commerce system at their will and on their terms. Alarmingly,
centralising digital commerce transactions on a single platform creates a single point of failure. Given
this objective, the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) of the Government
of India established the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) to level the playing field by
developing open e-commerce and enabling __________________ to small businesses and dealers. The ONDC
network makes it possible for products and services from all participating e-commerce platforms to be
displayed in search results across all network apps. For instance, a consumer shopping for a product on
an e-commerce app named “X” would also receive results from e-commerce app named “Y”, if both X
and Y integrated their platforms with the ONDC. This achieves the dual objective of wider choice for
consumers on the one hand and access to a wider consumer base for sellers on the other.

Q1. Which of the following has/have brought the online revolution?

(a) High availability of cheaper smartphones even in the remote and urban areas
(b) The government’s promotion of Digital India is the only cause of the online revolution
(c) Inexpensive data plans which have been the flourishing ground to increase smartphone usage
(d) Commencement of new telecom companies and launch of government’s free WiFi services
(e) None of these

Q2. According to the passage, how the coronavirus pandemic has elevated the usage of the internet?
(a) Provision of online services such as online education and medical consultation started prevailing in
people’s life
(b) People started using digital platforms to get needed goods delivered to their doorstep
(c) People started spending more time on social media for entertainment and communication
(d) Only (a) and (b)
(e) All of these

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Q3. Why is it correct to say that the advancement of digital platforms isn’t propitious for local grocers?
(a) Different terms and conditions of different platforms restrict local grocers' flexibility
(b) Managing separate infrastructure for different platforms are surcharge for sellers
(c) Local sellers don’t have the opportunity to indulge in e-commerce as per their conditions
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

Q4. How is Open Network for Digital Commerce designed to work?

(a) ONDC will guide to use the of the digital platforms in order to promote e-commerce in rural areas
(b) It will be used mainly to compare the prices of the same good on the different digital platforms
(c) It fetches and exchanges search information among two or more platforms that are integrated with
it
(d) It promotes offline shopping of goods and services in order to sustain local sellers in the market
(e) None of these

Q5. Which of the following can be used to fill the blank given in the passage in order to make a
grammatically correct and contextually meaningful sentence?
(a) ruckus
(b) access
(c) excess
(d) badass
(e) None of these

Q6. Which of the following is a synonym of ‘transformation’ given in the passage?

(a) conservation
(b) conversion
(c) impulsion
(d) illusion
(e) None of these

Q7. Which of the following is an antonym of ‘pervasiveness’ given in the passage?

(a) sparse
(b) vicious
(c) dampen
(d) volatile
(e) None of these

Directions (8-10) : A word has been given in each question

and has been used in the sentences given below. Identify the
statements where the word has been used in a contextually
and grammatically correct manner. If the word has been used
incorrectly in all the statements, mark “None of these” as the
answer.

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Q8. Engage
(i) Robot is designed to engage with human beings in a personalized way
(ii) Democracy aims to empower the individual to engage the kind of life that he or she values.
(iii) The ability to retain and engage employees will play a key role in whether or not a company thrives.
(a) only (i)
(b) only (ii)
(c) both (iii) and (i)
(d) both (ii) and (iii)
(e) none of these

Q9. Vital
(i) Weavers are hesitant to join online bandwagon and believe that offline handloom trade is vital.
(ii) Scientists have restored vital cellular functions to pigs one hour after death.
(iii) The demand for minor minerals such as sand and gravel has vital 60 million metric tons.
(a) only (i)
(b) only (ii)
(c) both (iii) and (i)
(d) both (ii) and (i)
(e) none of these

Q10. Entrust
(i) The situation now entrust that the problem is even more complex
(ii) The focus must now entrust to cooling the temperatures.
(iii) I have been entrusted with the task to bring groceries monthly.
(a) only (i)
(b) only (iii)
(c) both (iii) and (i)
(d) both (ii) and (i)
(e) none of these

Directions (11-15) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or
idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part
is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is ‘e’) . (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q11. Both Rose as well as (A) / Jack are going to (B) / start their startups (C) / in recent months. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

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Q12. The reason he is (A) / not talking to anyone (B) / is because he is (C) / emotionally disturbed today.
(D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Q13. Simla and their surrounding (A) /areas experienced the (B) /heaviest snowfall of (C) / the season
last night. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Q14. No sooner did I see (A) /my younger brother’s low (B) / grades then I started (C) /worrying about
his future. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Q15. The world needs to (A) / get together at this (B) / crucially hour to defuse the (C) /tensions
between Russia and Ukraine. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Directions (16-20) : Answer the following questions after rearranging the given sentences into a
coherent paragraph.
(A) However, there is a long way to go for the country to achieve stability in population.
(B) Thus population will be one-third more the population India will have in 2025.
(C) This is expected to be achieved no later than 2064 and is projected to be at 170 crore.
(D) In its 75-year journey since Independence, the country has seen a sea change in its demographic
structure.
(E) At the current rate of growth, this is expected to fall to 1% by 2025.
(F) In the 1960s, India had a population growth rate of over 2%.

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Q16. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) F
(d) E
(e) D

Q17. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) E
(b) F
(c) D
(d) B
(e) A

Q18. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) B
(d) D
(e) C

Q19. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) B
(d) A
(e) C.

Q20. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) B
(e) D

Directions (21-25): In these questions, the relationship

between different elements is shown in the statements. The
statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the
conclusions based on the given statement and select the
appropriate answer.

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Q21. Statements: I > P ≥ O < R; T ≥ M < N ≤ S; A > M ≤ P > E
Conclusions: I. O > N II. T > I
(a) If only conclusion I is true
(b) If only conclusion II is true
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If both conclusions I and II are true

Q22. Statements: R < F ≥ C < D = E; A ≥ H < C ≤ B > K

Conclusions: I. D ≤ K II. E > K
(a) If only conclusion I is true
(b) If only conclusion II is true
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If both conclusions I and II are true

Q23. Statements: 7 ≤ 5 < 4 > 3 < 2; 6 ≥ 8 > 3 < 9 = 1

Conclusions: I. 7 = 6 II. 1 > 2
(a) If only conclusion I is true
(b) If only conclusion II is true
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If both conclusions I and II are true

Q24. Statements: A > B < G ≤ J < I; M ≥ K < B > O ≥ P

Conclusions: I. I > O II. M > A
(a) If only conclusion I is true
(b) If only conclusion II is true
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If both conclusions I and II are true

Q25. Statements: 8 > 5 ≤ 6 < 9 > 3; 1 ≤ 7 < 9 > 4 ≥ 2

Conclusions: I. 8 < 1 II. 2 > 3
(a) If only conclusion I is true
(b) If only conclusion II is true
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If both conclusions I and II are true

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Directions (26-30) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Six persons i.e., N, M, D, R, A and G are living in a six-storey building (but not necessarily in the same
order) such that the ground floor is numbered as 1, just above it is floor 2 and the topmost floor is
numbered as 6. Each person belongs to a different state i.e., Punjab, Haryana, Gujarat, Karnataka, Sikkim
and Tripura but not necessarily in the same order) .
One person lives between A and the person who belongs to Tripura. The person who belongs to Tripura
lives on the third floor. Two persons live between A and R who belong to Punjab. One person lives
between D and the person who belongs to Sikkim. R lives above D. A does not belong to Sikkim. The
person who belongs to Gujarat lives just above M. The number of persons lives between G and the person
who belongs to Punjab is equal to the number of persons lives between N and R. G and A do not live on
the adjacent floors. N does not belong to Haryana.

Q26. Who among the following persons lives on the second floor?
(a) The person who belongs to Sikkim
(b) D
(c) The person who belongs to Karnataka
(d) R
(e) None of these

Q27. How many persons live below R?

(a) Two
(b) None
(c) Three
(d) One
(e) None of these

Q28. Who among the following persons lives just above D?

(a) The person who belongs to Karnataka
(b) G
(c) M
(d) R
(e) None of these

Q29. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

(a) N lives on the third floor
(b) The person who belongs to Gujarat lives on the first floor
(c) D belongs to Tripura
(d) G lives just above the person who belongs to Haryana.
(e) All are true

7
Q30. Who among the following persons belongs to Haryana?
(a) D
(b) M
(c) A
(d) G
(e) None of these

Directions (31-33) : Study the given information and answer the following questions:
Komal walks 12m east from her home, and reaches at B. She turns left from B, and walks 5m to reach R.
Now, she walks 20m towards north from R, to reach U. From U, she takes two consecutive left turns of
7m and 15m to reach P and D respectively. Now, she takes a final right turn from D and reaches school,
after walking 9m.

Q31. What is the total distance travel by Komal from her home to P?
(a) 34m
(b) 38m
(c) 39m
(d) 44m
(e) 51m

Q32. In which direction is Komal’s home with respect to D?

(a) South-west
(b) South
(c) North-west
(d) North
(e) None of these

Q33. In which direction is U with respect to Komal’s school?

(a) North-west
(b) North-east
(c) East
(d) South-east
(e) None of the above

Directions (34-38) : Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:
Ten persons sit in two parallel rows, such that five persons sit in each row. The persons of row 1 face
north and the persons of row 2 face south. Persons of both rows face each other.
N is the only neighbor of M. B faces the one who sits third to the left of N. One person sits between B and
O. V and O do not sit in same row. H faces the one who sits just right of V. S faces south. S neither faces N
nor sits left of N. D sits just left of F. P is one of the persons.

8
Q34. Four of the following five are similar in a certain way, who among the following is dissimilar
to others?
(a) B
(b) V
(c) S
(d) M
(e) F

Q35. What is the position of P with respect to H?

(a) Immediate left
(b) Second to the left
(c) Third to the right
(d) Immediate right
(e) Second to the right

Q36. Who among the following sit in row 2?

(a) D
(b) F
(c) V
(d) P
(e) N

Q37. Who among the following person faces O?

(a) P
(b) D
(c) F
(d) H
(e) B

Q38. How many persons sit to the left of the one, who faces P?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four

Directions (39-40) : In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by two
conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

9
Q39. Statements: Only a few Laptop is TV
Some TV is Smart
Only a few Smart is Hybrid
Conclusions: I. Some Laptop is Smart
II. All Hybrid can be TV
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow

Q40. Statements: Only a few Aces are Spades

All Spades are Queen
Some Queen is Jack
Conclusions: I. Some Aces are Queen
II. No Jack is Aces
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow

Direction (41-44) : Find out the missing number in the given number series.

Q41. 197, 184, 158, 119, ?, 2

(a) 67
(b) 61
(c) 54
(d) 72
(e) 77

Q42. ? 132, 110, 90 72 56

(a) 150
(b) 165
(c) 156
(d) 144
(e) 121

Q43. 247, 123, 60, 34, 27, ?

(a) 25
(b) 24
(c) 28
(d) 27
(e) 22
10
Q44. ?, 2, 3, 8, 35, 204
(a) -2
(b) 1.5
(c) 1
(d) 2
(e) 0.5

Directions (45-47) : Read the following pie chart carefully and answer the questions given below.
The pie chart shows percentage or degree distribution of total vehicles (cars + bikes) sold by four (P, Q,
R & S) different companies.

25% P
Q
R
360
S
1260

Note: (i) Percentage of cars sold by each company is 40% of the total vehicles sold by each company.
(ii) Total vehicles sold by company S are 240.

Q45. Buses sold by company Q are 60% of the total vehicles sold by company S. If the ratio of
buses and scooters sold by company Q is 36:19, then buses and cars sold by company Q is what
percentage of scooters and bikes sold by the company (approx) .
(a) 157%
(b) 153%
(c) 145%
(d) 149%
(e) 142%

Q46. Cars sold by companies Q & S together is how much percentage more or less than the total
vehicles sold by company P?
(a) 54%
(b) 36%
(c) 24%
(d) 42%
(e) 12%

11
Q47. Find the ratio between average number of bikes sold by companies P, R and S to number of
cars sold by company Q.
(a) 9:2
(b) 5:7
(c) 2:9
(d) 1:6
(e) 6:1

Q48. A man spends 20% of his monthly income on house rent, 20% of the remaining on food and
remaining amount he spends on clothing and sip investment in the ratio of 7: 9. If the difference
between expenditure on food and clothing is Rs.10800, then find his annual income of the man.
(a) Rs.1080000
(b) Rs.700000
(c) Rs.680000
(d) Rs.960000
(e) Rs.720000

Q49. P, Q and R started a business with investment of Rs.28000, Rs.16000 & Rs.20000
respectively. After six months, P added 25% of his initial investment more and Q withdrew
Rs.6000. At the end of the year, the profit earned by R is Rs.3120. Find the difference between
profit share of P and of Q
(a) 𝑅𝑠. 1486
(b) 𝑅𝑠. 2676
(c) 𝑅𝑠. 2006
(d) 𝑅𝑠. 2886
(e) 𝑅𝑠. 2216

𝟔𝟓
Q50. A shopkeeper has two watches (Analog and Digital) . Cost price of an analog watch is %
𝟐
more than cost price of a digital watch. The cost price of analog watch is increased by 30% and
sold in Rs.2067, then shopkeeper received a profit of 25%. If digital watch marked up 15% above
cost price, then find the marked price of digital watch (in Rs.) .
(a) 1208
(b) 1104
(c) 1076
(d) 1152
(e) 988

Q51. Harsh and Dev planned to meet each other. Dev starts to travel from point A to B at the speed
of 42 kmph at 10:00 AM and Harsh starts from point B to A at the speed of 28 kmph at 12:00 PM.
If they meet at 2: 30 PM, then find the distance between A and B.

12
(a) 216 km
(b) 259 km
(c) 244 km
(d) 263 km
(e) 228 km

Q52. Four years ago, the ratio of age of Sheetal and Reena was 3: 2 respectively. Eight years ago,
the ratio of age of Reena and Ritu was 1: 2 respectively. If Ritu is 12 years older than Sheetal, then
find the age of Reena after seven years?
(a) 71 years
(b) 59 years
(c) 43 years
(d) 29 years
(e) 57 years

Q53. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 13:17 respectively. If 180 ml of mixture is
taken out and then 12 ml of milk and 24 ml of water is added into the remaining mixtures such
that the ratio of milk and water becomes 5:7 respectively. Find the original quantity of the
mixture.
(a) 345ml
(b) 480ml
(c) 360ml
(d) 520ml
(e) 640ml

Q54. A can complete a piece of work in 8 days, A and B together can complete same work in 4.8
𝟒𝟎
days and A, B and C together complete the work in 𝟏𝟏 days. Find the time taken by A and C together
to complete the whole work?
120
(a) days
23
(b) 12 days
(c) 17.5 days
120
(d) days
29
(e) 20 days

Q55. Train A, whose length is 40 meters less than length of train B overtakes it in 88 sec. Speed
of train A and train B is 54 kmph and 36 kmph respectively. Find the time taken by train B to
cross a platform whose length is 120 meters more than length of train B.
(a) 72 sec
(b) 60 sec
(c) 120 sec
(d) 90 sec
(e) 150 sec

13
Directions (56 – 60) : Find the approximate value of question mark (?) in the following questions.

Q56. 1259.909 ÷ 12.106 ÷ 6.979 + 37.8982 – 29.9023 = ?

(a) 28
(b) 11
(c) 19
(d) 15
(e) 23

Q57. ? +205.901– 506.109 = (7.01)3 − 50.01% 𝑜𝑓 85.99

(a) 500
(b) 600
(c) 550
(d) 510
(e) 660

3
Q58. 24.01% of 449.98 + ?2 = (16.01) 2 – √63.93
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 9
(e) 14

Q59. ? × (44.01 % of 750.01 + 110.01) = 87.99% of 2499.98

(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 13
(d) 5
(e) 8

Q60. 4.01? + 79.98% of 980.03 = 1039.99

(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these

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 SOLUTIONS:
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct choice is option (c) which can be inferred from the first paragraph which mentions,”
The rise in smartphone use fuelled by affordable data plans has catalysed an online revolution in the
country”

S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct choice is option (d) which can be inferred from the first paragraph which mentions,”
The novel coronavirus pandemic has further accelerated the process of digital inclusion, and it is now
not only routine to transact online and have food, personal care items or anything else delivered at the
one’s doorstep, but it is also common to learn online, have medical consultations online, and even
resolve disputes online.”

S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. To validate the answer, refer to the lines of the second paragraph, “This is because, to sell on
numerous platforms, sellers must maintain a separate infrastructure, which only adds costs and limits
participation. The distinct terms and conditions of each platform further limit the sellers’ flexibility.
Consequently, small and medium-sized businesses have lost their freedom to choose and participate in
the country’s e-commerce system at their will and on their terms.”

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct choice is option (c) which can be concluded from the last lines of the second paragraph
which mentions, “The ONDC network makes it possible for products and services from all participating
…………………………This achieves the dual objective of wider choice for consumers on the one hand and
access to a wider consumer base for sellers on the other.”

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct word for the given blank is ‘access’.
ruckus means a row or commotion.
access means the process of obtaining or retrieving information stored in a computer's memory
excess means an amount of something that is more than necessary, permitted, or desirable.
badass means a tough, uncompromising, or intimidating person.

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Conversion’ is a synonym of ‘transformation’
conversion means the process of changing or causing something to change from one form to another.
conservation means preservation, protection, or restoration of the natural environment and of wildlife.
impulsion means a strong urge to do something.
illusion means an instance of a wrong or misinterpreted perception of a sensory experience.

15
S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Sparse’ is an antonym of ‘pervasiveness’ given in the passage.
Pervasiveness means the quality of spreading widely or being present throughout an area or a group of
people sparse means scanty; in short supply.
vicious means deliberately cruel or violent.
dampen means make less strong or intense.
volatile means liable to change rapidly and unpredictably, especially for the worse.

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Engage’ means ‘participate or become involved in’ hence its usage is correct in statements (i) and (iii) .

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Vital’ means ‘absolutely necessary; essential’ hence its usage is correct in statements (i) and (ii) .

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Entrusted’ means ‘assign the responsibility for doing something to (someone) ’ hence its usage is correct
only in statement (iii) .

S11. Ans.(a)
Sol. The error lies in part (A) . Here ‘as well as’ should be replaced with ‘and’ because we always use ‘and’ with
‘both’.

S12. Ans.(c)
Sol. The error lies in part (C) . Here ‘because’ should be replaced with ‘that’ because “the reason” itself mentions
the reason and use of ‘because’ is redundant here.

S13. Ans.(a)
Sol. The error lies in part (A) . Here possessive pronoun ‘their’ should be replaced with ‘its’ for the singular noun
‘Shimla’.

S14. Ans.(c)
Sol. The error lies in part (C) . Here ‘then’ should be replaced with ‘than’ because if the second event occurs
immediately after the first, we can express that idea using the structure no sooner … than.

S15. Ans.(c)
Sol. The error lies in part (C) . Here ‘crucially’ (adverb) should be replaced with ‘crucial’ (adjective) to modify
noun ‘hour’.

S16. Ans.(c)
Sol. Sentence (D) will be the introductory sentence as it best starts the theme of the paragraph which is
demographic structure. Now, sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (F) which mentions the
population growth in India in 1960. Now, sentence (F) will be followed by sentence (E) as it further
discusses the plunge in growth rate in 2025. Now, sentence (E) will be followed by sentence (A) as it
mentions that stability in population isn’t around the corner. Finally, sentence (A) will be followed by
sentence (C) as it further adds the details about the expected time of population stability achievement.
The last sentence will be sentence (B) . Thus, the correct rearrangement of the sentences would be
‘DFEACB’.

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S17. Ans.(c)
Sol. Sentence (D) will be the introductory sentence as it best starts the theme of the paragraph which is
demographic structure. Now, sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (F) which mentions the
population growth in India in 1960. Now, sentence (F) will be followed by sentence (E) as it further
discusses the plunge in growth rate in 2025. Now, sentence (E) will be followed by sentence (A) as it
mentions that stability in population isn’t around the corner. Finally, sentence (A) will be followed by
sentence (C) as it further adds the details about the expected time of population stability achievement.
The last sentence will be sentence (B) . Thus, the correct rearrangement of the sentences would be
‘DFEACB’.

S18. Ans.(b)
Sol. Sentence (D) will be the introductory sentence as it best starts the theme of the paragraph which is
demographic structure. Now, sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (F) which mentions the
population growth in India in 1960. Now, sentence (F) will be followed by sentence (E) as it further
discusses the plunge in growth rate in 2025. Now, sentence (E) will be followed by sentence (A) as it
mentions that stability in population isn’t around the corner. Finally, sentence (A) will be followed by
sentence (C) as it further adds the details about the expected time of population stability achievement.
The last sentence will be sentence (B) . Thus, the correct rearrangement of the sentences would be
‘DFEACB’.

S19. Ans.(e)
Sol. Sentence (D) will be the introductory sentence as it best starts the theme of the paragraph which is
demographic structure. Now, sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (F) which mentions the
population growth in India in 1960. Now, sentence (F) will be followed by sentence (E) as it further
discusses the plunge in growth rate in 2025. Now, sentence (E) will be followed by sentence (A) as it
mentions that stability in population isn’t around the corner. Finally, sentence (A) will be followed by
sentence (C) as it further adds the details about the expected time of population stability achievement.
The last sentence will be sentence (B) . Thus, the correct rearrangement of the sentences would be
‘DFEACB’

S20. Ans.(a)
Sol. Sentence (D) will be the introductory sentence as it best starts the theme of the paragraph which is
demographic structure. Now, sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (F) which mentions the
population growth in India in 1960. Now, sentence (F) will be followed by sentence (E) as it further
discusses the plunge in growth rate in 2025. Now, sentence (E) will be followed by sentence (A) as it
mentions that stability in population isn’t around the corner. Finally, sentence (A) will be followed by
sentence (C) as it further adds the details about the expected time of population stability achievement.
The last sentence will be sentence (B) . Thus, the correct rearrangement of the sentences would be
‘DFEACB’.

S21. Ans.(d)
Sol. I. O > N (False) II. T > I (False)

17
S22. Ans.(c)
Sol. I. D ≤ K (False) II. E > K (False)

S23. Ans.(d)
Sol. I. 7 = 6 (False) II. 1 > 2 (False)

S24. Ans.(a)
Sol. I. I > O (True) II. M > A (False)

S25. Ans.(d)
Sol. I. 8 < 1 (False) II. 2 > 3 (False)

Directions (26-30) :
Final arrangement:
Floors Persons States
6 G Gujarat
5 M Sikkim
4 R Punjab
3 D Tripura
2 N Karnataka
1 A Haryana
Clues: One person lives between A and the person who belongs to Tripura. The person who belongs to Tripura
lives on the third floor. Two persons live between A and R who belong to Punjab.
Inference: From the above conditions there are two possibilities i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

Case 1 Case 2
Floors Persons States Persons States
6
5 A
4 R Punjab
3 Tripura Tripura
2 R Punjab
1 A
Clues: One person lives between D and the person who belongs to Sikkim. R lives above D. A does not belong to
Sikkim.
Inference: From the above conditions Case 2 is cancelled here as there is no place for D and the person who
belongs to Sikkim.

Case 1 Case 2
Floors Persons States Persons States
6
5 Sikkim A
4 R Punjab
3 D Tripura Tripura
2 R Punjab
1 A
18
Clues: The person who belongs to Gujarat lives just above M. The number of persons lives between G and the
person who belongs to Punjab is equal to the number of persons lives between N and R. G and A do not live on
the adjacent floors. N does not belong to Haryana.
Inference: From the above conditions it is clear that G, M and N belong to Gujarat, Sikkim and Karnataka. So, the
Final arrangement is:

Floors Persons States

6 G Gujarat
5 M Sikkim
4 R Punjab
3 D Tripura
2 N Karnataka
1 A Haryana

S26. Ans.(c)
Sol. The person who belongs to Karnataka lives on the second floor

S27. Ans.(c)
Sol. Three persons live below R

S28. Ans.(d)
Sol. R lives just above D

S29. Ans.(c)
Sol. The statement given in option (c) is true

S30. Ans.(c)
Sol. A belongs to Haryana

Directions (31-33) :
Sol.

19
S31. Ans.(d)
Sol. Required distance = 12 + 5 + 20 + 7 = 44m

S32. Ans.(a)
Sol. Komal’s home is in south-west with respect to D.

S33. Ans.(b)
Sol. U is in north-east with respect to Komal’s school.

Directions (34-38) :
Final arrangement:

Clues: N is the only neighbor of M. B faces the one who sits third to the left of N. One person sits between B and
O.
Inference: Two possible cases will come out here.

Clues: V and O do not sit in same row. H faces the one who sits just right of V. S faces south. S neither faces N nor
sits left of N.
Inference: Case 1 will cancel here as there is no place for S.

Clues: D sits just left of F. P is one of the persons.

Inference: Now, the final arrangement is:

20
S34. Ans.(e)
Sol. Except F, all persons sit at the ends of the row.

S35. Ans.(b)
Sol. P sits second to the left of H.

S36. Ans.(d)
Sol. P sits in row 2, among the given options.

S37. Ans.(c)
Sol. F faces O.

S38. Ans.(d)
Sol. Three persons sit to the left of N who faces P.

S39. Ans.(b)
Sol. I. does not follow – As there is no direct relation between Laptop and Smart. So, any
definite relation does not follow
II. follow – As there is no direct relation between Hybrid and TV. So, any definite relation does not follow but is
true in the possibility

S40. Ans.(a)
Sol. I. follow – Some Aces are Spades and all Spades are Queen. So, Some Aces are also Queen
II. does not follow - As there is no direct relation between Jack and Aces. So, any definite relation does not follow

21
S41. Ans.(a)
Sol. Here the pattern is:
197-13 = 184
184-26 = 158
158-39 = 119
119-52 = 67
67-65 = 2
So, 67 would be the missing term.

S42. Ans.(c)
Sol. Here the pattern is:
13x12 = 156
12x11 = 132
11x10 = 110
10x9 = 90
9x8 = 72
8x7 = 56
So, 156 would be the missing term

S43. Ans.(d)
Sol. Here the Pattern is:
247 – (53-1) = 123
123 – (43 -1) = 60
60 – (33 – 1) = 34
34 – (23 – 1) = 27
27 – (13-1) = 27

S44. Ans.(d)
Sol. Pattern of series-

So, missing number is 2.

Solutions. (45-47) :
36
Percentage of total vehicles sold by company Q = 360 × 100 = 10%
126
Percentage of total vehicles sold by company R = 360 × 100 = 35%
Percentage of total vehicles sold by company S = (100 − (25 + 10 + 35)) = 30%
Let total vehicles sold by all four companies be 100x
30
100𝑥 × = 240
100
𝑥=8

22
Total vehicles sold by all four companies = 100x = 800
25
Total vehicles sold by company P = 800 × 100 = 200
40
Cars sold by company P = 200 × 100 = 80
Bikes sold by company P = 200 − 80 = 120
10
Total vehicles sold by company Q = 800 × 100 = 80
40
Cars sold by company Q = 80 × 100 = 32
Bikes sold by company Q = 80 − 32 = 48
35
Total vehicles sold by company R = 800 × 100 = 280
40
Cars sold by company R = 280 × 100 = 112
Bikes sold by company R = 280 − 112 = 168
30
Total vehicles sold by company S = 800 × = 240
100
40
Cars sold by company S = 240 × 100 = 96
Bikes sold by company S = 240 − 96 = 144
Companies Total vehicles Cars Bikes
sold sold sold
P 200 80 120
Q 80 32 48
R 280 112 168
S 240 96 144

S45. Ans.(e)
60
Sol. Buses sold by company Q = 100 × 240 = 144
19
Scooters sold by company Q = 36 × 144 = 76
Buses and cars sold by company Q = 144 + 32 = 176
Scooters and bikes sold by company Q = 76 + 48 = 124
176
Required percentage = 124 × 100 = 141.93 ≈ 142%

S46. Ans.(b)
Sol. Cars sold by companies Q & S = 32 + 96 = 128
Total vehicles sold by company P = 200
200−128
Required percentage = × 100 = 36%
200

S47. Ans.(a)
120+168+144
Sol. Required ratio = ∶ 32
3
= 144 ∶ 32
= 9: 2

23
S48. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let his monthly income be Rs.100x.
Expenditure on house rent = 20𝑥
20
Expenditure on Food = 100 × (100𝑥 − 20𝑥) = 16𝑥
Remaining amount = 100 − 20 − 16 = 64𝑥
7
Amount spent on clothing = 64𝑥 × 16 = 28𝑥
ATQ
28𝑥 − 16𝑥 = 10800
𝑥 = 900
So, Annual income = 900 × 100 × 12 = 𝑅𝑠1080000

S49. Ans.(d)
125
Sol. Profit sharing ratio of P, Q & R = 28000 × 6 + (28000 × 100) × 6: 16000 × 6 + 10000 × 6 ∶
20000 × 12
= 378000 ∶ 156000 ∶ 240000
= 63 ∶ 26 ∶ 40
3120
Required difference = × (63 − 26) = 𝑅𝑠. 2886
40

S50. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let cost price of digital watch = 100x
So, cost price of analog watch = 132.5x
New cost price of analog watch = 132.5x × 1.3 = 172.25x
Selling price of analog watch = 172.25x × 1.25 = 215.3125x
132.5𝑥
Cost price of analog watch = 2067 × 215.3125𝑥
= Rs.1272
100𝑥
Cost price of digital watch = 1272 × 132.5𝑥 = Rs.960
115
Marked price of digital watch = 960 × 100 = 𝑅𝑠. 1104

S51. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let required distance be D km.
Distance covered by Dev till 12:00 PM = 42 × 2 = 84 km
𝐷−84
Time taken by them to meet each other = 42+28 = 2.5
So, required distance = 𝐷 = 2.5 × 70 + 84 = 259 𝑘𝑚

S52. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let present age of Sheetal be 3x + 4 years
And present age of Reena = 2x + 4 years

24
Present age of Ritu = 2 × (2𝑥 + 4 − 8) + 8
= 4𝑥
ATQ, 4𝑥 − 3𝑥 − 4 = 12
𝑥 = 16
So, required age = 2𝑥 + 4 + 7 = 43 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠

S53. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let the original quantity of milk be 13x and water be 17x
So, total original quantity = 30x
If 180ml mixture is taken out then remaining quantity of milk and water
= 13x – 78 and 17x – 102
ATQ,
13𝑥−78+12 5
=
17𝑥−102+24 7
7(13x – 66) = 5(17x – 78)
91x – 462 = 85x – 390
91x – 85x = 462 – 390
6x = 72
x = 12
So, original quantity = 30x = 30×12 = 360ml

S54. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let total work be 120 units (LCM of 8,4.8 and 40/11)
120
So, efficiency of A = = 15 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠/𝑑𝑎𝑦
8
120
Efficiency of A + B = = 25 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠/𝑑𝑎𝑦
4.8
11
Efficiency of A + B + C = 120 × 40 = 33 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠/𝑑𝑎𝑦
And, efficiency of C = 33 − 25 = 8 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠/𝑑𝑎𝑦
120
So, required time = 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
23

S55. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let length of train A be ‘l’ meter
And length of train B = ‘l+40’ meter
ATQ
𝑙+𝑙+40
5 = 88
(54−36)×
18

2𝑙 + 40 = 440
2𝑙 = 400
𝑙 = 200
Length of train B = 240 meter
Length of platform = 240 + 120 = 360 𝑚eter
(240+360)×18
So, required time = = 60 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠
36×5

25
S56. Ans.(e)
Sol. 1260 ÷ 12 ÷ 7 + 38 − 30 =?
? = 15 + 38 − 30
? = 23

S57. Ans.(b)
50
Sol. ? = 300 + 343 - 86 ×
100
? = 600

S58. Ans.(b)
Sol.
24
× 450 + ?2 = 256 – 4
100
?2 = 252 – 108
? = 12

S59. Ans.(d)
44 88
Sol. ? × (100 × 750 + 110) = 100 × 2500
? × 440 = 2200
?=5

S60. Ans.(a)
80
Sol. 4? + 100 × 980 = 1040
4? + 784 = 1040
4? = 256
?=4

26