1 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Introduction
Reproduction is a vital process without which species cannot survive for long. An individual increases
it number by asexual or sexual means. Sexual mode of reproduction enables creation of new variants
so that survival advantage is enhanced. All flowering plants shows sexual reproduction. A look at the
diversity of structures of the inflorescence, flowers and floral parts, shows an amazing range of
adaptations to ensure formation of the end products of sexual reproduction, the fruits and seeds.
This chapter deals with morphology, structure and processes of sexual reproduction in flowering plants
(angiosperms).
Flower - A Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms:
Flowers are object of aesthetic, ornamental, social, religious and cultural value. Flowers are morphological
and embryological marvels and the sites of sexual reproduction in angiosperms.

A typical angiospermic flower consists of four whorls floral appendages attached on the receptacle.
1. Calyx (consists of sepals): Non-essential whorl (sterile)
2. Corolla (consists of petals): Non-essential whorl (sterile)
3. Androecium (consists of stamens) - Male unit: Essential whorl (fertile)
4. Gynoecium (consists of carpels) - Female unit: Essential whorl (fertile)
Flower is A Modified Shoot:
Flower has a small or long stalk like – structure called pedicel. Free end of the pedicel is flattened
or dome shaped is called thalamus. The thalamus is a type of modified stem, on which nodes and
internodes are present.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 1

 Pre-Fertilization - Structures and Events:
Much before the actual flower is seen on a plant, the decision that the plant is going to flower has take
place. A number of hormonal and structural transformations occur prior to initiation of flowering.

Stamen, Microsporangium and Pollen Grain

Group of stamens called as androecium
A typical stamen shows the two parts the long and slender stalk called the filament, and the
terminal generally bilobed structure called the anther. The proximal end of the filament is attached
to the thalamus or the petal of the flower. The number and length of stamens are variable in
flowers of different species. If you were to collect a stamen each from ten flowers (each from
different species) and arrange them on a slide, you would be able to appreciate the large variation
in size seen in nature. Careful observation of each stamen under a dissecting microscope and
making neat diagrams would elucidate the range in shape and attachment of anthers in different
flowers.
A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed with each lobe having two theca, i.e., they are dithecous.
Often a longitudinal groove runs lengthwise separating the theca. Let us understand the various
types of tissues and their organisation in the transverse section of an anther. The bilobed nature
of an anther is very distinct in the transverse section of the anther. The anther is a four-sided
(tetragonal) structure consisting of four microsporangia located at the corners, two in each lobe.
The microsporangia develop further and become pollen sacs. They extend longitudinally all through
the length of an anther and are packed with pollen grains.

2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

 Figure: (a) Transverse section of young anther; (b) Enlarged view of one microsporangium showing
wall layers; (c) A mature dehisced anther

Structure of microsporangium: (Structure of Anther) In a transverse section, a typical

microsporangium appears near (a) (b) circular in outline. It is generally surrounded by four wall
layers–the epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and the tapetum. The outer three wall layers
perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen. The
innermost wall layer is the tapetum. It nourishes the developing pollen grains. Cells of the tapetum
possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.

When the anther is young, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells called the sporogenous
tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium.
• The primary sporogenous cells divide twice or more than two by mitotic division to form

sporogenous cells and later sporogenous differentiated into microspore mother cells during the
formation of wall of pollen sac.-

• Microsporogenesis : As the anther develops, the cells of the sporogenous tissue undergo meiotic

divisions to form microspore tetrads.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 3

• As each cell of the sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad. Each one is

a potential pollen or microspore mother cell. The process of formation

of microspores from a pollen mother cell (PMC) through meiosis is
called microsporogenesis. The microspores, as they are formed, are
arranged in a cluster of four cells–the microspore tetrad. As the
anthers mature and dehydrate, the microspores dissociate from each
other and develop into pollen grains. Inside each microsporangium
several thousands of microspores or pollen grains are formed that are
released with the dehiscence of anther.

• At the initial stage all four microspores are attached together with the

help of callose layer. This group of microspores is called tetrad. After

some time, this callose layer dissolve by callase enzyme. Which is
secreted by tapetum.

(C) Structure of Microspore or Pollen Grain:

Pollen grains represent the male gametophyte,
It is also termed as immature male gametophyte. Usually, they are in round shape. Pollen grain
surrounded by two distinct layers. The outer layer (wall) is thick, rigid and ornamented, called
exine. Sporopollenin is highly resistant material. It is non-biodegradable.

• Due to the presence of sporopollenin, fossils of pollen grain are always found in good condition.

The presence of fossils of pollengrains can forecast the presence of natural resources like
petroleum, coals etc. in the earth.

• The internal layer is thin, soft and elastic in nature. It is called

intine. It is made up of pectin and Cellulose or pecto- cellulose.

• Usually, at few places on outer surface exine is absent or present

in the form of thin layer. These thin places are called germ pore.
The intine comes out through the any one during the germination
of pollen grain in the form of pollen tube.

• The number of germpore, structure and ornamentation of exine is a significant feature of taxonomy.

• The plants in which pollination takes place by insects, their pollen grains having oily layer around
the pollen grain. It is called pollen-kitt. It is composed of lipids and carotenoids.
Function of Pollen Kitt:
(i) This oily layer protects the pollen grain from the harmful ultraviolet rays.
(ii) Its sticky surface helps to attach with the insects.
(iii) Its yellow colour attracts the insects. Pollen kit is present on the pollens of Capsella.

4 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

(D) Dehiscence of Anther:
During the maturation of anther, various changes are takes place in walls of anther.
• In the beginning, middle layer degenerates due
to absorption of food by tapetum.
• When the microspores are formed inside the
pollen sacs, exine is formed around pollen.
• In this way, in a mature anther only two layers
epidermis and endothecium are present in the
form of outer covering.

(E) Micro-Gametogenesis or Development of

Male Gametophyte [Pollen Grain] :
In flowering plants, pollen grain or microspore considered as first cell of male gametophyte.
Germination or development of pollen grain takes place before dehiscence of anther. Development
of pollen also takes place at mother place [inside pollen sac of anther] is called In-situ
development.
(i) Pre Pollination Development:
In the beginning of the the process, only nucleus of pollen grain divided by unequal mitotic
division, resulting two unequal size of nucleus are formed. Small nucleus present near the wall
is called generative nucleus and large nucleus present inside the cytoplasm is called Tube or
Vegetative nucleus.
Both the nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm and it becomes dense, then followed by unequal
cytokinesis, resulting two unequal size of the cells are formed.
larger cell in which large nucleus is present known as Vegetative cell, and smaller cell in which
small nucleus is present, called Generative cell.
Now pollen grains come in bicelled and binucleated stage. In Angiosperms pollination of pollen
grains take place in bicelled and binucleated stage in 60% Angiosperms and in 40% Angiosperms
pollination occurs at 3-celled stage. In this generative cell divides and form two male gametes.
This stage of pollen grain is called immature or partially developed male gametophyte.
Generative cell detached from the wall and changed into or spindle shaped structure and enter
inside the vegetative cell.

Figure: (a) Enlarged view of a pollen grain tetrad.

(b) Stages of a microspore maturing into a pollen grain.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 5

(ii) Post Pollination Development:
Further development of pollen grain [Immature male gemetophyte] takes place on the stigma of
Carpel after pollination. Pollens absorb moisture and sugar content from the stigma. Due to this
volume of internal contents of cytoplasm increased. It exerts pressure on the both outer layers.
Because of this pressure intine comes out through any one germpore in the form of tube like
structure called pollen tube.
First of all vegetative nucleus enter into the pollen tube and assumes terminal [tips] position. This
spindle shaped generative now enter into the pollen tube. Inside the pollen tube, generative cell
divides mitotically and to form a two non motile male gametes. Now male gametophyte comes in
three celled structure in which one vegetative cell and two male gametes are present.
This three celled stage represents the mature male gametophyte of Angiosperm.

Note - Pollen grains of many plants are rich in nutrients. It has becomes a fashion in recent
years to use pollen tablets as food supplements. In western countries, a large number of pollen
products in the form of tablets and syrups are available in the market. Pollen consumption has
been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and race horses.
When once they are shed, pollen grains have to land on the stigma before they lose viability if
they have to bring about fertilisation. How long do you think the pollen grains retain viability?
The period for which pollen grains remain viable is highly variable and to some extent depends
on the prevailing temperature and humidity. In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen
grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their release, and in some members of Rosaceae,
Leguminoseae and Solanaceae, they maintain viability for months. You may have heard of
storing semen/ sperms of many animals including humans for artificial insemination. It is
possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in liquid nitrogen (-1960C).
Such stored pollen can be used as pollen banks, similar to seed banks, in crop breeding
programmes.

The Pistil, Megasporangium (ovule) and Embryo sac :

(A) The Megasporangium:

The gynoecium represents the female reproductive part of the flower. The gynoecium may consist
of a single pistil (monocarpellary) or may have more than one pistil (multicarpellary). When there
are more than one, the pistils may be fused together (syncarpous) or may be free (apocarpous).
Each pistil has three parts (Figure 2.7a), the stigma, style and ovary. The stigma serves as a landing
platform for pollen grains. The style is the elongated slender part beneath the stigma. The basal
bulged part of the pistil is the ovary. Inside the ovary is the ovarian cavity (locule). The placenta
is located inside the ovarian cavity. Recall the definition and types of placentation that you studied
in Class XI. Arising from the placenta are the megasporangia, commonly called ovules. The number
of ovules in an ovary may be one (wheat, paddy, mango) to many (papaya, water melon, orchids).

A ridge or stalk like out growth is formed from the placenta of the ovary on which body of ovules
are present. Each ovule attached to the placenta by means of a thin stalk called funicle or
funiculus/Funiculum.

6 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

 The point of attachment of the funicle with the ovule is called hilum.
The main region of the ovule is composed by mass of parenchymatous cells called nucellus.
Nucellus is the main part of ovule. The nucellus is covered by one or two coats called integuments.

(a) A dissected flower of Hibiscus showing pistil (other floral parts have been removed):
(b) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Papaver :
(c) A multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium of Michela;
(d) A diagrammatic view of a typical anatropous ovule

• In most of the ovule, funicle is attached to the main body of ovule for some distance (at lateral

side) to form a ridge like structure known as Raphe.

• Vascular tissues are present inside the funiculus which supply food material from the placenta to

the body of ovule.

• A place from where funicle and integuments arise is called Chalaza.

Integument is absent just opposite to the chalaza, so that a narrow passage (pore) is formed which

is called micropyle.

• In most of the Angiosperm entire part of the nucellus is utilized by developing embryo sac but in

some of the Angiosperm some part of the nucellus remain inside the ovules that part of the

nucellus present inside the seed in the form of a thin layer known as perisperm. Perisperm is

commonly found in Black Pepper and Beet.

e.g.- Black Pepper (Piper Nigrum) and Zingiberaceae Family (Turmeric, Ginger) and Beet.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 7

(B) Megasporogenesis:
The process of formation of megaspores
from the megaspore mother cell is
called megasporogenesis. Ovules
generally differentiate a single
megaspore mother cell (MMC) in the
micropylar region of the nucellus. It is
a large cell containing dense cytoplasm
and a prominent nucleus. The MMC
undergoes meiotic division. What is the
importance of the MMC undergoing
meiosis? Meiosis results in the
production of four megaspores.

(C) Development of Embryosac or Female Gametophyte:

Female Gametophyle : In a majority of flowering plants, one of the megaspores is functional while
the other three degenerate. Only the functional megaspore develops into the female gametophyte
(embryo sac). This method of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is termed monosporic
development. What will be the ploidy of the cells of the nucellus, MMC, the functional megaspore
and female gametophyte?
Let us study formation of the embryo sac in a little more detail. The nucleus of the functional
megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei which move to the opposite poles, forming the 2-
nucleate embryo sac. Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the formation of the
4-nucleate and later the 8-nucleate stages of the embryo sac. It is of interest to note that these
mitotic divisions are strictly free nuclear, that is, nuclear divisions are not followed immediately by
cell wall formation. After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are laid down leading to the organisation
of the typical female gametophyte or embryo sac. Observe the distribution of cells inside the
embryo sac. Six of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and organised into cells; the
remaining two nuclei, called polar nuclei are situated below the egg apparatus in the large central cell.
There is a characteristic distribution of the cells within the embryo sac. Three cells are grouped
together at the micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus. The egg apparatus, in turn,
consists of two synergids and one egg cell. The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the
micropylar tip called filiform apparatus, which play an important role in guiding the pollen tubes
into the synergid. Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals. The large central
cell, as mentioned earlier, has two polar nuclei. Thus, a typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity,
though 8-nucleate is 7-celled.

8 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

 Figure: (a) Parts of the ovule showing a large megaspore mother cell, a dyad and a tetrad of megaspores;
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 8-nucleate stages of embryo sac and a mature embryo sac;
(c) A diagrammatic representation of the mature embryo sac.

Therefore, seven cells and eight nucleated structure is formed is called female gametophyte or
embryosac of Angiosperms. This type of embryosac is known as "polygonum type" Polygonum type
embryosac is most common type in Angiosperms.

• Fingers like processes are produced from the outer wall of the synergids are known as filiform
apparatus. With the help of these structures, synergids absorb food from the nucellus and
transfer to the embryosac. Filiform apparatus is less developed in antipodal cells. Filiform also
secrete chemicals which attracts the pollen tube.

Difference Between Male and Female Gametophyte

S.
Male Gametophyte Female Gametophyte
No.
1 It is developed from microspore It is developed form megaspore.
2 It does not remain embedded permanently It remains embedded permanently
in microsporangium. in megasporangium.
3 Male gametes come out of pollen grain due Female gamete always remains inside,
to the formation of pollen tube. megasporangium.
4 There are two phases of growth - Only single phase of growth.
prepollination and post pollination.
5 It is three celled structure in mature stage. It has seven cells in mature stage (mostly)
And two celled in immature at stage
6 It will disintegrate after fertilization. Two new structures are formed after
fertilization, that is endosperm and oospore.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 9

 Pollination:
Pollination is the mechanism to achieve this objective. Transfer of pollen grains (shed from the
anther) to the stigma of a pistil is termed pollination. Flowering plants have evolved an amazing
array of adaptations to achieve pollination. They make use of external agents to achieve pollination.
Can you list the possible external agents?
Kinds of Pollination : Depending on the source of pollen, pollination can be divided into three types.
(i) Autogamy : In this type, pollination is achieved within the same flower. Transfer of pollen grains
from the anther to the stigma of the same flower. In a normal flower which opens and exposes
the anthers and the stigma, complete autogamy is
rather rare. Autogamy in such flowers requires
synchrony in pollen release and stigma receptivity
and also, the anthers and the stigma should lie close
to each other so that self-pollination can occur.
Some plants such as Viola (common pansy), Oxalis,
and Commelina produce two types of flowers
chasmogamous flowers which are similar to flowers
of other species with exposed anthers and stigma,
and cleistogamous flowers which do not open at all.
In such flowers, the anthers and stigma lie close to
each other. When anthers dehisce in the flower
buds, pollen grains come in contact with the stigma
to effect pollination. Thus, cleistogamous flowers
are invariably autogamous as there is no chance of
cross-pollen landing on the stigma. Cleistogamous
flowers produce assured seed-set even in the Commelina Plant
absence of pollinators.
(ii) Geitonogamy – Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the
same plant. Although geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination involving a pollinating agent,
genetically it is similar to autogamy since the pollen grains come from the same plant.
(iii) Xenogamy – Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a different plant. This is the
only type of pollination which during pollination brings genetically different types of pollen
grains to the stigma.

Special Point

Contrivances or Adaptation for Self Pollination:

(i) Monocliny (Bisexuality) - It means flowers are bisexual.

(ii) Cleistogamy: In some plants bisexual flower are formed which never opens throughout the
life. Such flowers are called cleistogamous flowers, such as Commelina, Viola (Common
pansy), Oxalis, have two types of flowers. One type of flowers are cleistogamous and another
are chasmogamous flowers.

(iii) Bud Pollination: This pollination occurs in bud stage before the opening of flowers. e.g. Wheat, Rice.

Out breeding Devices :-

(i) Dicliny (Unisexuality): Presence of unisexual flowers confirm cross-pollination. Self pollination
never takes place in these flowers. It means allogamy becomes compulsory.

10 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

 (ii) Dichogamy: In many bisexual flowers of the plants, stamens and carpels of a flower do not
mature at the same time. Dichogamy is of two types –
(a) Protandry: The anther of a flower mature earlier than carpels, is called protandry. Many
plants of Angiosperms are cross pollinated only because of protandrus condition.
(b) Protogyny: The carpels of the flower mature earlier than stamens. It occurs in few plants
(iii) Herkogamy:
(iv) Heterostyly: e.g. Primrose, Linum, Primula.
(v) Self Sterility or Self Incompatibility or Intraspecific Incompatibility: In this condition the
pollen grains of the flower can not germinates on the stigma of the same flower. This condition
is called self sterility. This is a parental [Genetical] characteristic feature which is controlled
by genes.
Agents of Pollination : Plants use two abiotic (wind and water) and one biotic (animals) agents to
achieve pollination. Majority of plants use biotic agents for pollination. Only a small proportion of
plants use abiotic agents. Pollen grains coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor in both
wind and water pollination. To compensate for this uncertainties and associated loss of pollen
grains, the flowers produce enormous amount of pollen when compared to the number of ovules
available for pollination.

Agencies of Cross Pollination :

Pollinating agents

Abiotic Agents Biotic Agents

Air Water Insects Other Animals

(Anemophily) (Hydrophily) (Entomophily) (Zoophily)

1. Anemophily:
When the pollen grains are transfer from one flower to the another flower through the air is called
anemophily and flower is known as anemophilous flowers. Such as Cereal plants: Maize etc.
Anemophily is also found in all Gymnosperms. The anemophilous plants produce enormous amount
of pollen grains. The pollen grains are very small, light weight and dry and their stigma is hairy.
Anemophilous flowers are neither attractive nor with fragrance. They do not have nectar glands.
Anemophilous flowers are generally unisexual.
e.g.: Sugar cane, Bamboo, Coconut, Grasses, Date palms, Cucumber.
• Wind pollination is quite common in grasses.
• Maximum loss of pollen grains takes place only in this pollination. It is completely non
directional process.
2. Hydrophily:
When the pollination brings by water is known as hydrophily. It is of two types.
(i) Epihydrophily: When the pollination takes place on the surface of water is called epihydrophily
e.g. Vallisneria (Fresh water form)
(ii) Hypohydrophily: When the pollination takes– place inside the water is called hypohydrophily.
e.g. Zostera (Sea grasses) and Specific gravity is found in pollen grains so they remains
suspended in water.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 11

3. Pollination by Animals :-
Majority of flowering plants use a range of animals as pollinating agents. Bees, butterflies, flies,
beetles, wasps, ants, moths, birds (sunbirds and humming birds) and bats are the common
pollinating agents. Among the animals, insects, particularly bees are the dominant biotic pollinating
agents. Even larger animals such as some primates (lemurs), arboreal (tree-dwelling) rodents, or
even reptiles (gecko lizard and garden lizard) have also been reported as pollinators in some
species.
Often flowers of animal pollinated plants are specifically adapted for a particular species of animal.
Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar. When the
flowers are small, a number of flowers are clustered into an inflorescence to make them
conspicuous. Animals are attracted to flowers by colour and/or fragrance. The flowers pollinated
by flies and beetles secrete foul odours to attract these animals. To sustain animal visits, the
flowers have to provide rewards to the animals. Nectar and pollen grains are the usual floral
rewards. For harvesting the reward(s) from the flower the animal visitor comes in contact with the
anthers and the stigma. The body of the animal gets a coating of pollen grains, which are generally
sticky in animal pollinated flowers. When the animal carrying pollen on its body comes in contact
with the stigma, it brings about pollination.
In some species floral rewards are in providing safe places to lay eggs; an example is that of the
tallest flower of Amorphophallus (the flower itself is about 6 feet in height). A similar relationship
exists between a species of moth and the plant Yucca where both species – moth and the plant –
cannot complete their life cycles without each other. The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of
the ovary and the flower, in turn, gets pollinated by the moth. The larvae of the moth come out of
the eggs as the seeds start developing.

Difference Between Self and Cross Pollination

S. No. Self Pollination Cross Pollination

1. Pollen grains are transferred to stigma of same Pollen grains are transferred to stigma of
or genetically similar flower. genetically different flower.
2. Anthers and stigma mature simultaneously. They mature at different time i.e.
protandry and protogyny.
3. It occurs in open as well as closed flower. It occurs in only open flower.
4. It is very economical for plants. It is not economical as the plant has to
produce large number of pollen grains,
nectar, scent and colouration .
5. External agencies are not required. It is essential i.e. depends on agencies.
6. Young ones are homozygous. Young ones are heterozygous.
7. It produces pure lines because of the non It produces variations due to genetic
occurrence of genetic recombinations. recombinations.
8. It cannot eliminate harmful traits. It can eliminate harmful traits.
9. Useful characters are preserved. Not preserved.
10. No adaptability in the changing environment. It provides adaptability.
11. It cannot introduce new traits. It can introduce new traits.
12. Disease resistance is low. Disease resistance is optimum.
13. There is decrease in yield. It increase the yield.
14. It does not help in the development of Helps in the development of new species.
new species.

12 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

 Pollen Pistil Interaction:

The fusion of male gamete with female gamete is called fertilization. First of all, fertilization was

discovered by Strasburger (1884) in Monotrapa plant. All the events from pollen landing on stigma

to entry of pollen tube into ovule is called pollen-pistill interaction. This process is completed in

the following steps:

(A) Germination of Pollen Grains:

After pollination, pollen grains germinate on the stigma. They absorb moisture and sugar contents

from stigma and swell up. The intine of pollen grain grows out through the any one germinal pore

of exine, in the form of tube like out growth is called pollen tube. One pollen tube develops in

Capsella and most of Angiosperms is called monosiphonous condition, but more than one pollen

tubes develops in Malvaceae and Cucurbitaceae family.

• Boron and calcium ions (mainly Boron) are essential for the growth of pollen tube and best

temperature for growth of pollen tubs is 20–300C. Pollen tube shows apical growth and

chemotropic movement.

(B) Entry of Pollen Tube into Embryosac:

Pollen tube can enter into the ovule through the any passage but inside embryosac, it enter only

through the egg apparatus. After the entrance inside the ovule, it grows towards the egg apparatus

because synergids cells secrete the chemical (hormones) which attracts the growth of pollen tube.

It means pollen tube shows chemotropic movement in ovule.

• Any one synergid starts degenerating when the pollen tube comes near egg apparatus. The

pollen tube enter into the embryosac through the degenerating synergids.

• When tip of the pollen tube enters into the embryosac vegetative nucleus degenerates. The tip

of the pollen tube swells and burst [Endosmosis] after reaching inside the embryosac. The

pollen tube released all contents including both male gametes inside the degenerating synergids

of embryosac.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 13

Figure: (a) Pollen grains germinating on the stigma; (b) Pollen tubes growing through the style; (c) L.S.

of pistil showing path of pollen tube growth; (d) enlarged view of an egg apparatus showing entry of

pollen tube into a synergid; (e) Discharge of male gametes into a synergid and the movements of the

sperms, one into the egg and the other into the central cell

Pollen-pistil Interaction : Pollination does not guarantee the transfer of the right type of pollen

(compatible pollen of the same species as the stigma). Often, pollen of the wrong type, either from

other species or from the same plant (if it is self-incompatible), also land on the stigma. The pistil has

the ability to recognise the pollen, whether it is of the right type (compatible) or of the wrong type

(incompatible). If it is of the right type, the pistil accepts the pollen and promotes post-pollination

events that leads to fertilisation. If the pollen is of the wrong type, the pistil rejects the pollen by

preventing pollen germination on the stigma or the pollen tube growth in the style. The ability of the

pistil to recognise the pollen followed by its acceptance or rejection is the result of a continuous

dialogue between pollen grain and the pistil. This dialogue is mediated by chemical components of the

pollen interacting with those of the pistil. It is only in recent years that botanists have been able to

identify some of the pollen and pistil components and the interactions leading to the recognition,

followed by acceptance or rejection.

14 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

As mentioned earlier, following compatible pollination, the pollen grain germinates on the stigma to
produce a pollen tube through one of the germ pores. The contents of the pollen grain move into the
pollen tube. Pollen tube grows through the tissues of the stigma and style and reaches the ovary. You
would recall that in some plants, pollen grains are shed at two-celled condition (a vegetative cell and
a generative cell). In such plants, the generative cell divides and forms the two male gametes during
the growth of pollen tube in the stigma. In plants which shed pollen in the three-celled condition,
pollen tubes carry the two male gametes from the beginning. Pollen tube, after reaching the ovary,
enters the ovule through the micropyle and then enters one of the synergids through the filiform
apparatus. Many recent studies have shown that filiform apparatus present at the micropylar part of
the synergids guides the entry of pollen tube. All these events–from pollen deposition on the stigma
until pollen tubes enter the ovule–are together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction. As pointed out
earlier, pollen-pistil interaction is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by promotion
or inhibition of the pollen. The knowledge gained in this area would help the plant breeder in
manipulating pollen-pistil interaction, even in incompatible pollinations, to get desired hybrids.

Artificial hybridisation is one of the major approaches of crop improvement programme. In such
crossing experiments it is important to make sure that only the desired pollen grains are used for
pollination and the stigma is protected from contamination (from unwanted pollen). This is achieved
by emasculation and bagging techniques. If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of
anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces using a pair of forceps is necessary. This step
is referred to as emasculation. Emasculated flowers have to be covered with a bag of suitable size,
generally made up of butter paper, to prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen. This
process is called bagging. When the stigma of bagged flower attains receptivity, mature pollen grains
collected from anthers of the male parent are dusted on the stigma, and the flowers are rebagged, and
the fruits allowed to develop. If the female parent produces unisexual flowers, there is no need for
emasculation. The female flower buds are bagged before the flowers open. When the stigma becomes
receptive, pollination is carried out using the desired pollen and the flower rebagged.

Double Fertilization
• Before or after the entrance of pollen tube into the embryosac, both polar nuclei of the central cell
fused together to form a diploid nucleus. It is known as secondary nucleus or definitive nucleus.
• Out of two, one male gamete fertilized with egg cell and to form a diploid zygote. This fusion is
known as syngamy. This is true mechanism of fertilization process.
• The second male gamete fused with diploid secondary nucleus which is formed by the fusion of
two polar nuclei. This fusion is known as triple fusion resulting, a triploid (3n) structure is formed.
It is called primary endosperm nucleus.
• Syngamy and triple fusion is the specific or universal characteristic of Angiosperm. There are five
nuclei and three gametes participate in double fertilization.
• A zygote is formed by true fertilization (syngamy] develops into embryo. Triploid primary endosperm
nucleus is formed by triple fusion develops into the endosperm which is used as nutrition for
growing embryo.
• All the remaining cells of embryosac like antipodal cells, synergids degenerate excluding zygote
and primary endosperm nucleus after the fertilization. At this time, zygote obtains food from
degenerating synergids and antipodal cells.
• The fertilization in which non-motile gametes are carried to female gamete through pollen tube is
known as "Siphonogamy".

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 15

• Entry of more than one pollen tube into the ovule leading to occurrence of super numerary male
gametes is called "Polyspermy."
Post-Fertilization: Structures and Events :
The post fertilization event includes:
I. Endosperm development
II. Embryo development
III. Ovules maturing into seed
IV. Ovary maturing into fruit

Endosperm
First of all endosperm develops from the primary endosperm nucleus after the fertilization which
stored food materials. It is utilized by the embryo during the early development then after at the time
of seed germination. Food is present in the form of starch in endosperm. The endosperm is of three
types on the basis of development:

1. Nuclear Endosperm (Free Nuclear Endosperm):-

• This type of endosperm mostly found in Dicotyledons [Polypetalae].
Such type of endosperm develops by free nuclear divisions of nucleus of primary endosperm
nucleus, Thus a multinucleated endosperm is formed. Later on cytokinesis takes place, so
that multicellular endosperm is formed.
• This type of endosperm is the most common in Angiosperms.

• The milky fluid is found in green Coconut is example of nuclear endosperm, which is called
liquid syncytium.

2. Cellular Endosperm:
• During the development, each division of primary endosperm nucleus is followed by
cytokinesis. So that endosperm is remains cellular from the beginning.

Embryo Development (Embryogenesis):

Development of Embryo in Dicot:
Embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated. Most
zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed. This is an adaptation to provide
assured nutrition to the developing embryo. Though the seeds differ greatly, the early stages of
embryo development (embryogeny) are similar in both monocotyledons and dicotyledons. depicts
the stages of embryogeny in a dicotyledonous embryo. The zygote gives rise to the proembryo and
subsequently to the globular, heart-shaped and mature embryo.
A typical dicotyledonous embryo, consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons. The portion
of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which terminates with the plumule
or stem tip. The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl that terminates at
its lower end in the radicle or root tip. The root tip is covered with a root cap.

16 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

 Stages in the Development of Embryo in A Dicot

Plumule

Cotyledons

Hypocotyl

Radicle
Root cap

Fig. : A typical dicot embryo.

Fig. A Typical Dicot Embryo

Development of Embryo in Monocotyledon:

Embryos of monocotyledons possess only one cotyledon. In the grass family the cotyledon is called
scutellum that is situated towards one side (lateral) of the
embryonal axis. At its lower end, the embryonal axis has the radical
and root cap enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath called
coleorrhiza. The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of
attachment of scutellum is the epicotyl. Epicotyl has a shoot apex
and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure, the
coleoptile.

Seed:
Definition: A fertilized ovule is called a seed.
Seeds may be:
(1) Endospermic/Albuminous Seeds: e.g., Wheat, maize, barley, sunflower, coconut, castor.
(2) Non-endospermic/Exlbuminous Seeds: e.g., Pea, bean, groundnut.
(3) Perispermic seeds: Speeds in which remains of nucellus is seen. the residual, persistent
nucellus is called perisperm, e.g., Black pepper, beet.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 17

 Structure of Seed:
A Typical Seed Consists of:
(1) Seed Coat: Formed from integuments of ovule. Its function is to give protection to the embryo.
The outer layer of seed coat is called as testa and the inner one is called tegmen. The micropyle
remains as a small pore in the seed coat. This facilitates entry of O 2 and water into the seed
during germination.
(2) Endosperm: Present or absent.
(3) Embryo: It gives rise to the mature plant and maintains continuity of generation.
Dicots

Monocots

Fig.: Structure of some seeds

Dormancy and Seed Germination:
(1) Dormancy: It is a state of inactivity of embryo when the seed is not able to germinate. The
moisture content of seed-decreases and reaches 10-15%.
(2) Germination: The ability of a seed to produce a seedling in presence of favourable environmental
condition like adequate moisture, oxygen and suitable temperature

Advantage of Seed to Angiosperms:

(1) Seed have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitat.
(2) It has sufficient food reserves for nourishment of young seedlings.
(3) Protection is provided to young embryo by the hard seed coat.
(4) Generate new genetic recombination as it is a product of sexual reproduction.

Seed - Basis of our Agriculture:

Seeds form the basis of our agriculture as they show:
(1) Dehydration
(2) Dormancy
These two features help in storage of seeds which can be used as food throughout the year and
also to raise crops in the next season.

18 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

 Seed Viability:
The period for which the seeds retain their power of germination is called seed viability.
There are examples where seed lose viability within few months, e.g., Oxalis. Seeds of a large
number of species live for several years. Some seeds can remain alive for hundreds of years. There
are several records of very old yet viable seeds:

(1) The oldest is that of a lupine, Lupinus arcticus excavated from Arctic Tundra.
The seed germinated and flowered after an estimated record of 10,000 years of dormancy.
(2) During an archaeological excavation of King Herod’s Palace near the Dead Sea, a 2000 years old
viable seed of date palm, Phoenix dactylifera was found.

Special Points:
The number of seeds in a fruit is generally equal to or less than the number of ovules in a ovary.
It never exceeds the number of ovules.
(1) Orchid’s fruit contains thousands of tiny seeds.
(2) Parasitic species like Orobanche and Striga also contain many tiny seeds.

Difference Between Monocotyledonous and Dicotyledonous Seed

S. No. Monocotyledonous Seeds Dicotyledonous Seeds
1. Only single cotyledon is present with embryo Two cotyledon are present with embryo
2. Generally cotyledon is thin or papery Cotyledons are thick
3. Generally seeds are endospermic (except orchids) Generally seeds are non endospermic,
some times may be endospermic (castor,
solanaceae)
4. Cotyledon is also called scutellum Not called by this name
5. In seed plumule is covered by coleoptile and Coleoptile and coleorhiza are not
radicle is covered by coleorrhiza. formed.
6. Plumule is in lateral position and cotyledon are Plumule is in terminal position and
is in terminal position cotyledons are present in lateral position
7. Radicle degenerates after sometime and Radicle is responsible to form primary
adventitious roots are formed at that place. root.
8. In some of the seeds, seed coats and cotyledon Such types of seed are not found.
fused together e.g. Wheat etc.

Fruit:
(1) A ripened ovary is called a fruit.
(2) The wall of the ovary forms the wall of the fruit which is called as pericarp.
(3) Fruits may be:
(i) True Fruit: Fruit which develops from the ovary, e.g., Mango.
(ii) False Fruit: Fruit which develops from other floral parts and thalamus along with the
development of ovary wall, In Apple, Strawberry and Cashewnut, Thalamus, Contributes to
fruit formation.
(iii) Parthenocarpic Fruit: When fruits develop without the process of fertilization. These fruits are
seedless and can be produced through application of growth hormones like auxins, e.g., Banana.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 19

 The first stimulus for fruit development comes from pollination while second stimulus is received
from developing seeds and the third stimulus is provided by the availability of nutrients.
Apomixis and Polyembryony:
Apomixis:
Although seeds, in general, are the products of fertilisation, a few flowering plants such as some
species of Asteraceae and grasses, have evolved a special mechanism, to produce seeds without
fertilisation, called apomixis. It is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
Types of Apomixis:
1. Adventive Embryony (Sporophytic budding): Embryo arises from diploid sporophytic cells such
as nucellus or integuments (other than egg), e.g., Citrus, Opuntia, Mango.
2. Recurrent Agamospermy: In this method, a diploid embryo sac is formed from megaspore
mother cell of nucellar cell which has a diploid egg or oosphere. The diploid egg develops into
a diploid embryo, e.g., Apple, Pear.
Polyembroyony :
• Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is referred as polyembryony.
• More often, as in many Citrus & mango varieties, some of the nucellar cells surrounding the
embryo sac starts dividing, protrude into the embryo sac & develop into the embryos. In
such cases, each ovule contains many embryos.

Fig. Polyembryony
The diagram above shows several embryo formation.

20 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

 The embryos shown are:
1. Zygotic
2. Nucellar
3. Integumentary
The nucellar and integumentary embryos are apomictic. The genetic nature of these embryo is
diploid (2n) and they would be genetically identical to each other and can be called as a clone.
Potential of Apomictic Polyembryony:
Hybrid varieties are preferred by agriculturists because of their higher yield, vigour and resistance
to stresses. They have increased crop productivity, e.g., Maize, Tomato, Cauliflower etc.

Major problem of using hybrid varieties:

Hybrid characters are not maintained because they segregate in the progeny in the second
generation. So, in order to obtain higher yield hybrid seeds have to be produced every year. It is not
economical for the farmers.
Therefore, agricultural scientists are for the search of various methods to maintain hybrid traits
indefinitely. One of the possible methods is development of seeds through apomixis. Since embryo
in apomictic seeds often develops from diploid cells, segregation of traits will not occur and the
new seeds will contain all the traits of the hybrid variety.
Apomixis is genetically controlled. Genes controlling apomixis are being searched. As soon as they
are located, efforts will be made to transfer them into hybrid varieties.

Life cycle of an angiosperm

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 21

 Exercise – I
Stamen, Microsporangium, Pollen grain 9. In 60% angiosperms, the pollen grains
are shed at: -
1. A typical angiosperm anther is __________ (1) Four-celled stage
and ________. (2) Three-celled stage
(1) Bilobed, tetrasporangiate (3) Two-celled stage
(2) Bilobed, monosporangiate (4) Five-celled stage
(3) Bilobed, bisporangiate 10. Pollen allergy is caused by pollens of: -
(4) Tetralobed, monosporangiate (1) Rose (2) Clematis
2. The innermost wall layer of anther: - (3) Parthenium (4) Sunflower
(1) Is nutritive in function 11. The pollen viability period of rice and
(2) Helps in dehiscence of anther pea respectively, is: -
(3) Is haploid and protective in function (1) 30 minutes and several months
(4) Forms microspores (2) Several months and 30 minutes
3. The process of formation of microspores (3) Few days and few months
from a pollen mother cell is called: - (4) Few days in both the cases
(1) Megasporogenesis 12. Which part of the reproductive structure
(2) Microsporogenesis produces both enzyme & hormones -
(3) Megagametogenesis (1) Archesporium (2) middle layer
(4) Microgametogenesis (3) Tapetum (4) Endo thecium

4. The pollen grain represents: - 13. Tapetum is: -

(1) Male gamete (1)Parietal in origin usually the inner
(2) Male gametophyte most layer of anther wall.
(3) Microsporophyll (2) Modified endothecium of anther
(4) Microsporangium wall
(3) Outer most layer of sporogenous
5. The most resistant organic material tissue modification
known which makes up the outermost (4) Parietal in origin and is the inner
layer of pollen wall is: - most layer of ovule wall
(1) Pectin (2) Cellulose 14. Example of polyploid tissue present in
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Lignin an angiosperm plant is
(1) Perisperm (2) Embryo
6. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the
(3) Tapetum (4) Placenta
function of the germ pore: -
(1) It allows growth of pollen tube 15. A microspore is a first cell of
(2) It allows water absorption in seed (1) Female gametophyte
(3) It helps dehiscence of pollen grain (2) Male gametophyte
(4) More than one option are correct (3) Sporophyte
(4) Anther
7. The thin and continuous wall layer of
pollen is: - 16. Anther is generally composed of
(1) Exine (2) Intine (1) One sporangium
(3) Germ pore (4) Endothecium (2) Two sporangium
8. The two-celled stage of mature pollen (3) Three sporangium
(4) Four sporangium
grain consists of: -
(1) Vegetative cell, generative cell 17. How many cells or nuclei are present in
(2) Vegetative cell, one male gamete male gametophyte of angiosperms -
(3) Two male gametes (1) One (2) Two
(4) Generative cell, one male gamete (3) Three (4) Many

22 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

18. How many and what type of male 27. Each sporogenous tissue is potential
gametes are produced by the male pollen or microspore mother cell;
gametophyte of angiosperms division taking place in sporogenous cell
(1) One,. multi-cilliated is: -
(2) Two, biciliated (1) Meiosis (2) Mitosis
(3) Two, multi-ciliated (3) Endomitosis (4) Amitosis
(4) Two, non-motile
28. Pollen grains of many species cause
19. Most reduced size gametophyte is of
severe allergies & bronchial afflictions in
(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophyte
some people often leading to chronic
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Angiosperm
respiratory disorder such as: -
20. Essential whorls of a flowers (1) Asthma (2) Bronchitis
(1) Calyx and Corolla (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Emphysema
(2) Corolla and Gynoecium
(3) Androecium and Gynoecium 29. In a pollengrain the small cell which is
(4) All the above spindle shaped, with dense cytoplasm
is: -
21. Microsporophyll of Angiosperms is (1) Vegetative cell (2)Generative cell
known as:
(3) Tube cell (4) None
(1) Androecium (2) Anther
(3) Filament (4) Stamen The pistil, Megasporangium (Ovule), Embryo
sac
22. Main function of endothecium (in anther) is:
(1) Mechanical (2) Nutritive 30. Integumented megasporangium is: -
(3) Dehiscence (4) None of above (1) Ovule (2) Pollen sac
23. Which of the following is wrong statement: (3) Pollen grain (4) Embryo sac
(1) Monothecous anthers are found in
31. The nutritive tissue present in the ovule
Malvaceae family
is called: -
(2) Middle layer is ephemeral
(1) Nucellus (2) Funicle
(3) Amoeboid tapetum releases ubisch
(3) Embryo (4) Integuments
bodies
(4) Banana is a monocarpic plant 32. The number of embryo sac in an ovule is
24. Endothecium, middle layer and tapetum generally: -
in anther are derived from: - (1) One (2) Many
(1) Primary sporogenous layer (3) Four (4) Three
(2) Primary parietal layer
33. The role of triple fusion in angiosperms
(3) Both
is to produce: -
(4) None of the above
(1) Cotyledons (2) PEN
25. How many pollen sacs are present in a (3) Endocarp (4) Seed
mature anther?
34. The ploidy level of nucellus and female
(1) 4 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 2 gametophyte respectively is: -
(1) n, n (2) n, 2n
26. The special features of the endothecium (3) 2n, n (4) 2n, 2n
of anther of angiosperms: –
(1) Radially elongated 35. The number of nuclei in a mature
(2) Thickening of cellulose embryo sac are: -
(3) Hygroscopic (1) Eight (2) Seven
(4) All of the above (3) Six (4) Four

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 23

36. The largest cell of the mature embryo 42. Just before fertilization, the diploid
sac is: structure in the ovule of Angiosperm is
(1) Pollen tube
(1) Antipodal cells (2) Synergids
(2) Secondary nucleus
(3) Central cell (4) Egg cell
(3) Synergids
37. The structures which guide the pollen (4) Antipodals
tube into synergid is: 43. Filiform apparatus are found in
(1) Antipodals (1) Antipodal cell
(2) Egg cell
(2) Germ pore
(3) Secondary nucleus
(3) Aril
(4) Synergids
(4) Filiform apparatus
44. Megasporophyll is called:
38. Which one is female gametophyte of (1) Gynoecium (2) Carpel
angiosperm plants (3) Ovary (4) Stigma
(1) Embryo (2) Embryosac 45. Which structure of the ovule will change
(3) Endosperm (4) Pistil after fertilization?
(1) Embryosac
39. The embryo sac of Angiosperm derives (2) Integuments
it's nutrition from- (3) Central cell
(1) Sporogenous (2) Tapetum (4) All of the above
(3) Epithecium (4) Nucellus 46. The type of cells under going meiosis in
the flowers are
40. The functional megaspore in Polygonum
(1) Microspore mother cell & megaspore
type embryo sac formation belongs to end mother cell
(1) Micropylar and (2) Chalazal (2) Ovule & stamen
(3) funicle (4) Integumgeus (3) Tapetal cells
(4) Placental cell
41. Go through the figure showing a
47. A typical angiosperm embryosac at maturity
dissected flower of Hibiscus showing have:
pistil. (1) 7 celled - 8 nucleate
Identify A, B, C and D repectively. (2) 9 celled - 7 nucleate
(3) 3 celled - 3 nucleate
(4) 2 celled - 2 nucleate
48. Arising from placenta is
megasporangium which is commonly
known as:
(1) Ovule
(2) Ovary
(3) Ovarian cavity
(4) Stamen
Pollination

(1) Hilum,carpel, ovary and thalamus 49. Geitonogamy is: -

(1) Genetically Self Pollination
(2) Stigma, style, ovary and thalamus
(2) Ecologically Self Pollination
(3) Anther, style, ovary and placenta (3) Genetically cross Pollination
(4) Stigma, style, Gynophore and anthopore (4) Functionally cross Pollination

24 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

50. Which of the following plant provides 56. Repeated self pollination over the generation
safe place to insect for laying eggs? produces:
(1) Sage plant (1) New species
(2) Amorphophallus (2) Better progenies
(3) Ophrys (3) Inbreeding depression
(4) Elimination of weak traits
(4) Mango
57. Chasmogamy refers to the condition
51. Examples of water pollinated flowers
where
are :
(1) Flowers remains closed
(1) Zostera, Lotus, water lily
(2) Flowers absent
(2) Lotus, Vallisneria, Hydrilla (3) Flowers open
(3) Potamogeton, Vallisneria, Lotus (4) Flowers gamopetalous
(4) Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera
58. When pollen grains of a flower are
52. Which of the following is not a transferred to stigma of another flower
characteristic feature of insect on a different plant, the process is
pollinated flowers? called -
(1) Fragrance (1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy
(2) Nectaries (3) Autogamy (4) Homogamy
(3) Foul odour 59. When anther and stigma mature at the
(4)Mucilaginous covering on pollen same time is called as
grains (1) Dichogamy (2) Allogamy
(3) Xenogamy (4) Homogamy
53. After culturing the anther of a plants
few diploid plant were got along with 60. Self-pollination means
haploid plant. Which of the following (1) Transfer of pollen from anthers to
stigma in the same flowers
part might have given rise to diploid
(2) Transfer of pollen from one flowers to
plant -
another on the different plant
(1) Vegetative cell of pollen
(3) Occurrence of male and female sex
(2) Exine of pollen wall
organ in the same flowers
(3) Cells of anther wall (4) Germination of pollen
(4) Generative cell of pollen
61. Maize is best example of:
54. Which type of gametes are present in (1) Anemophily (2) Ornithophily
angiosperms? (3) Entomophily (4) Hydrophily
(1) Flagellated
62. The most common mode of pollination
(2) Motile
is -
(3) Non-motile (1) Entomophily (2) Anemophily
(4) None of these (3) Hydrophily (4) None of the above
55. Cleistogamous flower produce assured 63. Insect pollinated flowers usually possess
seed-set even in the absence of (1) Brightly coloured pollens in large quantity
pollinator, why? (2) Dry pollens with smooth surface
(1) Because they have fragrance (3) Sticky pollen and rough surface
(2) Because they remain open stigma
(3) Because they are autogamous (4) Light coloured scented pollen covered
(4) Because they are coloured with nectar

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 25

64. A close relation between a flower and a 72. Free nuclear division in an angiosperm
pollinating agent is best examplified by takes place during
(1) Cocos (2) Salvia (1) Gamete formation
(3) Yucca (4) Avena (2) Endosperm formation
65. Chasmo-cliestogamous flowers are (3) Embryo formation
present in: (4) Flower formation
(1) Viola (common pansy)
(2) Oxalis Embryo
(3) Commelina 73. The single cotyledon in monocots is: -
(4) All the above (1) Scutellum which is lateral in position
Double Fertilization (2) Aleurone layer which is terminal in
position
66. The central cell after triple fusion
(3) Scutellum which is centrally placed
becomes the: -
(4) Epiblast which is haploid and lateral
(1) PEC (2) PEN
(3) Endosperm (4) Embryo in position

67. Which is the most logical sequence with 74. The sheath enclosing plumule and
reference to the life cycle of angiosperm radicle respectively in monocot seed
(1) Germination, endosperm formation, are: -
seed dispersal, double fertilization. (1) Coleoptile and coleorhiza
(2) Cleavage, fertilization, grafting, fruit (2) Coleorhiza and coleoptile
formation (3) Scutellum and epiblast
(3)Pollination fertilization, seed
(4) Aleurone layer and pericarp
formation & germination
(4) Maturation, mitosis, differentiation 75. Single shield shape cotyledon of grass is
known as:
68. The diploid and triploid product of
(1) Tigellum (2) Scutellum
double fertilization respectively are:-
(1) Zygote and primary endosperm (3) Coleoptile (4) None
nucleus 76. Epicotyl has a shoot apex and few leaf
(2) Endosperm and cotyledons
primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar
(3) Embryo and perisperm
structure known as: -
(4) Zygote and scutellum
(1) Coleoptide (2) Coleorhiza
69. Pollen robbers: - (3) Scutellum (4) Tigellum
(1) Consume pollen or nectar
(2) Are effective in bringing about Seed
pollination 77. Ex-albuminous seeds are found in: -
(3) Do not visit flowers for pollen (1) Wheat, pea, groundnut
(4) Take pollen from other insects
(2) Castor, pea, groundnut
70. Dioecious condition prevents: - (3) Pea, groundnut, beans
(1) Autogamy (2) Geitonogamy (4) Wheat, castor, rice
(3) Xenogamy (4) Both (1) & (2)
78. Perispermic seeds are: -
Endosperm (1) Castor, sunflower
71. Double endosperm is found in: - (2) Black pepper, beet
(1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Maize, beet
(3) Pea (4) Coconut (4) Barley, maize

26 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

79. Perisperm is Apomixis and Polyembryony
(1) Persistant nucellus in seed
83. In many plants, the sexual reproduction
(2) Ovule wall
replaced by asexual reproduction it is called
(3) Ovule coat
(1) Semigamy (2) Apospory
(4) Fossil of haustoria
(3) Apomixis (4) Amphimixis
80. Micropyle in seed helps in the entry of
84. Production of seed without fertilization
(1) Male gamete (2) Pollen tube is called: -
(3) Water & air (4) All (1) Parthenocarpy
(2) Parthenogenesis
81. Although in most of species fruits are
(3) Apomixis
result of fertilisation, there are a few
(4) Apogamy
species in which fruit develop without
85. Which of the following is a parthenocarpy
fertilisation - process is known as:
fruit?
(1) Parthenocarpy
(1) Banana (2) Apple
(2) Parthenogenesis
(3) Strawberry (4) Pomegranate
(3) Amphimixis
(4) Apomixis

82. Non-albuminous seeds are present in: -

(1) Pisum (Pea)
(2) Ground nut (Arachis)
(3) Both
(4) None

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 27

 Exercise – II
1. Pollen grains are generally _______ in 8. Hydrophily is limited to 30 genera which
outline measuring ________ micrometers are mostly: -
in diameter: -
(1) Gymnosperms
(1) Spherical, 25-50
(2) Monocots
(2) Oblong, 25-50
(3) Oval, 10-25 (3) Dicots
(4) Spherical, 75-100 (4) More than one option is correct

2. The vegetative cell is: - 9. Common floral reward provided by

(1) Small, has large irregularly shaped
plants to pollinator are: -
nucleus
(2) Large, has large irregularly shaped (1) Nector and pollen
nucleus (2) Pollen and enzymes
(3) Large with spindle shaped nucleus (3) Hormones and nectar
(4) Small, spindle shaped nucleus (4) All of these
3. Choose the odd one w.r.t. gynoecium: -
10. Pollen pistil interaction is: -
(1) Gynoecium represents the female
reproductive part of flower (1) Chemically mediated process
(2) The gynoecium may be syncarpous (2) Dynamic process
orapocarpous (3) Genetically controlled process
(3) The number of ovules in papaya and (4) More than one option is correct
mango is one
(4) The ovules are attached to placenta. 11. The cylindrical portion below the level of
4. The number of mitotic generations cotyledons on embryonal axis is: -
required to form a mature embryo sac in (1) Epicotyl
most of the flowering plants is: - (2) Hypocotyl
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
(3) Radicle
5. The types of flowers which always (4) Plumule
produce seeds even in the absence of
pollinators: - 12. Suitable environmental conditions for
(1) Chasmogamous flowers seed germination are: -
(2) Cleistogamous flowers (1) Adequate moisture, light, anaerobic
(3) Bisexual flowers
conditions
(4) Unisexual flowers
(2) Adequate moisture, low temperature,
6. The type of pollination which brings
light
genetically different types of pollen on
(3) Adequate moisture, suitable
the stigma is: -
(1) Autogamy (2) Xenogamy temperature and oxygen
(3) Geitonogamy (4) Cleistogamy (4) Light, water, absence of oxygen

7. Feathery stigma and versatile anthers 13. Pericarp is dry in: -

are characteristic of: -
(1) Guava, mango, mustard
(1) Wind pollinated flowers
(2) Mango, groundnut, orange
(2) Insect pollinated flowers
(3) Water pollinated flowers (3) Groundnut, mustard
(4) Bat pollinated flowers (4) Orange, guava, mango

28 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

14. Mark the incorrect statement: - 17. In papaya, male and female flowers are
present on different plants. It permits: -
(1) Outer three layers of anther wall are (1) Autogamy
protective in function (2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(2) Sporogenous tissue, occupies the (4) Xenogamy
centre of each microsporangium 18. Examine the figure given below and
select the right option giving all the four
(3) Cells of tapetum and endothecium parts a, b, c and d Correctly identify: -
show increase in DNA contents by
endomitosis and polyteny
(4) Ploidy level of microspore tetrad is
haploid
15. Which of the following statement is
applicable for all flowering plants?
(1) Monosiphonous pollen tube a b c d
Microspore Middle
(2) Non-motile and morphologically (1) Endothecium Tapetum
mother cell layers
dissimilar gemetes Microspore
Middle
(2) Tapetum Endothecium mother cell
(3) Presence of pollinium layers

(4) Division of generative cell after Middle Microspore

(3) Endothecium Tapetum
layer mother cell
pollination
Microspore Middle
(4) Endothecium Tapetum
mother layer layer
16. Which is incorrect statement?
19. Examine the figure given below and
I. Each cell of sporogenous tissue in select the right option giving all the four
parts a, b, c and d Correctly identify: -
anther is capable of giving rise to
microspore tetrad.
II. The pollen grain represent male
gametophyte.
III. Pollen grains are usually triangular
and 10-15 mm in diameter.
IV. Sporopollenin in one of the most
resistance organic material which a b c d
can be destroyed only by strong Antipodal Polar Filiform
(1) Synergids
cells nuclei apparatus
acids and alkali.
Filiform Polar Nucellus
(2) Egg
(1) I, II are incorrect but III, IV are correct apparatus nuclei
(2) III, IV are incorrect but I, II are correct Filiform Polar Antipodal
(3) Synergids
apparatus nuclei cell
(3) I, III are incorrect but II, IV are correct
Polar Filiform Antipodal
(4) Synergids
(4) I, IV are correct but I, III are incorrect Nuclei apparatus cell

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 29

20. The devices to discourage self pollination 24. Examine the figure given below and
are: select the right option giving all the four
parts a, b, c and d. Correct 0identify: -
(1) Pollen release and sigma receptivity
is not synchronised
(2) Anther and stigma are placed at
different position
(3) Rejection of pollen by stigma of the
same flowers
(4) All of these
a b c d
21. In monoecious plant like castor and
(1) Suspensor Radicle C otyledons Plumule
maize:-
(2) Plumule C otyledons Radicle Suspensor
(1) Autogamy and allogamy are not (3) Suspensor Plumule Radicle C otyledons
prevented (4) Radicle Plumule C otyledons Suspensor
(2) Geitonogamy is prevented
25. Examine the figure given below and
(3) Autogamy is not prevented select the right option giving all the four
(4) Geitonogamy is not prevented parts a, b, c and d. Correctly identify: -

22. Select incorrect statement (w.r.t. artificial

hybridisation): -
(1) Emasculation is removal of anther in
their mature condition from bisexual
flower
(2) Emasculation is not required in male
sterile plants
a b c d
(3) Unisexual female flower is bagged in (1) Coleoptile Scutellum Radicle Coleorrhiza
bud condition to prevent (2) Coleorrhiza Radicle Scutellum Coleoptile
(3) Scutellum Coleorrhiza Radicle Coleoptile
contamination
(4) Radicle Scutellum Coleoptile Suspensor
(4) Emasculated flowers are bagged in
bud condition 26. Choose the correct option from the
following-
23. Which of the following incorrect I. Dehydration and dormancy of mature
seed are crucial for seed storage.
statement: -
II. Seed of Lupinus arcticus is the oldest
(1) Double fertilization is unique to one which germinated after 2000
angiosperms year
III. Orchid seed is one of largest seed in
(2) Sequoia, a gymnosperm, is one of
plant kingdom
the tallest tree IV. Seeds of parasitic plants Orobanche
(3) Exine has apertures where and Striga are tiny seeds.
(1) I, II are correct but III, IV are incorrect
sporopollenin is present
(2) I, IV are correct but II, III are incorrect
(4) Exine of pollen grains is made up of (3) III, IV are correct but I, II are incorrect
sporopollenin (4) II, III are correct but I, IV are incorrect

30 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

27. Examine the figure given below and 32. Example of Epihydrophily is: -
select the right option giving all the four (1) Zostera (2) Vallisneria
parts a, b, c and d. Correct identify: (3) Ceratophyllum (4) Nymphea

33. Pollination in Yucca plant takes place by:

(1) Honey bee (2) Butter fly
(3) Pronuba (4) Bird

34. The primary Endosperm nucleus in

Polygonum type of Embryosac is:
(1) Haploid (2) Diploid
a b c d (3) Triploid (4) Tetraploid
(1) Thalamus Seed Endocarp Mesocarp
35. Which of the following nuclei participate
(2) Thalamus Seed Mesocarp Endocarp
(3) Mesocarp Seed Endocarp Thalamus in double fertilization?
(4) Endocarp Seed Thalamus Mesocarp (1) The egg
(2) The secondary nucleus
28. Choose the correct option from the
(3) The two male nuclei
following statements: -
(4) All of the above
I. Apomixis is form of asexual reproduction
which mimics sexual reproduction. 36. Perisperm is -
II. In Apomixis seeds develop either (1) Degenerate secondary nucleus
from diploid egg cell or from cells of (2) Remnant of nucellus
nucellus. (3) Peripheral part of endosperm
III. Seeds collected from hybrids plant (4) Degenerate synergids
maintain hybrid character for a
longer times. 37. The main embryo developed from the
IV. In Apomixis, there is segregation of structure formed as a result of
character (1) Double fertilization
(1) All are correct (2) Triple fusion
(2) All are correct (3) Syngamy
(3) Only I and II are correct (4) fusion of two polar nuclei of an
(4) Only II, IV are correct embryosac

29. Pollen tube develops from 38. After fertilization the outer integument
(1) Generative cell of ovule changes into -
(2) Male gametes (1) Testa (2) Tegmen
(3) Vegetative cell (3) Fruit (4) Seed
(4) Vegetative nucleus
39. In angiosperms, the pollen tube enters
30. Longest pollen tube is found in: through the micropyle, therefore
(1) Wheat (2) Maize fertilization is -
(3) Barley (4) Rice (1) Porogamous (2) Chalazogamous
(3) Mesogamous (4) Basigamous
31. Tegmen of the seed develops from:-
(1) Perisperm 40. After fertilization, the seed is developed
(2) Funiculum from -
(3) Inner integument (1) Ovule (2) Ovary
(4) uter integument (3) Embryo (4) Endosperm

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 31

41. Double fertilization means - 48. The function of suspensor is -
(1) Fusion of male gametes and ovum (1) To provide water
(2) Fusion of two polar bodies (2) To provide oxygen
(3) A male gamete fused with egg and (3) To thrust the embryo towards
second male gamete fused with endosperm to provide more food
secondary nucleus (4) To suck food
(4) All the above
49. Tigellum is known as -
42. Development of embryo occurs from -
(1) Testa
(1) Two polar nuclei of embryosac
(2) Tegmen
(2) Secondary nucleus and male
gametes (3) Both of the above
(3) Egg cell and male gamete (4) Main axis of the embryo
(4) Synergids 50. Haploid, diploid and triploid conditions
43. The fusion product of polar nuclei and respectively can be traced in -
male gamete is :- (1) Egg, Nucellus, Endosperm
(1) Nucellus (2) Antipodal, Egg, Endosperm
(2) Primary endosperm nucleus (3) Endosperm, Nucellus, Synergids
(3) Zygote (4) Antipodal, Synergids & Integuments
(4) Secondary nucleus
51. If the leaf of Angiospermic plant has 46
44. When a diploid male plant is crossed number of chromosomes then how
with a tetraploid female plant, the
many chromosomes number will be
endosperm will be :
there in endosperm -
(1) Diploid (2) Triploid
(1) 46 (2) 23
(3) Tetraploid (4) Pentaploid
(3) 69 (4) 138
45. Stigma of the entomophilous flower is: -
(1) Sticky (2) Rough 52. If the nucellus cell of an angiosperm
(3) Hairy (4) Smooth contains 24 chromosomes the number
of chromosomes present in pollen grain,
46. Synergids help in -
(1) Pollen entry into embryosac endosperm & embryo will be -
(2) Endosperm formation (1) 24, 36, 24 (2) 12, 36, 24
(3) Embryosac nutrition (3) 12, 24, 36 (4) 24, 12, 12
(4) Both (1) & (3) 53. How many meiotic divisions are required
47. Go through the following statements : to produce 40 seeds in the Capsella
I. Flowers are small. They are often plant -
packed in inflorescence. (1) 50 (2) 40
II. Flowers are colourless, nectarless (3) 80 (4) 20
and odouless
III. Well exposed stamens 54. The number of nuclei taking part in
IV. Pollen grains are produced in large double fertilization are -
numbers which are light and non-sticky (1) Two (2) Three
V. Flower often have a single ovule in (3) Four (4) Five
each ovary
55. In Angiosperm, if haploid number of
VI. Stigma is large and often feathery
chromosome is 12 then what will be the
The above contrivances favour :
(1) Cross pollination no. of chromosomes in integuments and
(2) Anemophily (pollination by wind) synergids:
(3) Ornithophily (pollination by birds) (1) 12, 12 (2) 24, 12
(4) Entemophily (pollination by insects) (3) 24, 24 (4) 12, 24

32 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

56. How many meiotic divisions are required 61. One of the male gamete moves towards
for the formation of 200 seeds of maize: the egg cell & fuses with its nucleus; the
(1) 200 (2) 400 process is known as: -
(3) 250 (4) 300 (1) Syngamy
(2) Triple fusion
57. In Angiosperm, if number of
(3) Double fertilization
chromosomes in endosperm is 30, what
(4) None
will be the no. of chromosomes in
nucellus - 62. Endosperm development precedes
(1) 15 (2) 30 embryo development, the endosperm of
(3) 20 (4) 40 angiospermic plant is: -
(1) Triploid (2) Diploid
58. Self-incompatibility :
(3) Haploid (4) Tetraploid
I. is a device to prevent inbreeding
II. provides a biochemical block to self 63. The part of pistil which acts as landing
fertilization platform for pollen grain: -
III. ensures cross fertilization (1) Stigma (2) Style
IV. is governed by pollen-pistil interaction (3) Ovule (4) Overy
V. is governed by series of multiple
64. The inner most wall layer of anther is
alleles
tapetum; the main function of tapetum
VI. prevents self pollen (from the same
is: -
flower or other flowers of the same
(1) Divison (2) Support
plant) from fertilising the ovules by
(3) Nutrition (4) None
inhibiting pollen germination of
pollen tube growth in the pistil. 65. Two non-motile male gamete in
(1) All are correct angiosperm is produced by: -
(2) All are wrong (1) Generative cell
(3) Only I, II, III are incorrect (2) Microspore mother cell
(4) IV and V are wrong (3) Vegetative cell
(4) Tube cell
59. Endosperm is completey consumed by
developing embryo before the seed 66. Which one of the following is false fruit?
maturation or ex-albuminous/non- (1) Apple (2) Straw berry
endospermic seeds are found in: (3) Cashew (4) All
(1) pea, ground nut, beans
67. Aleurone layer that is protein rich found
(2) coconut, castor
in some cereals is a part of: -
(3) maize, wheat, pea
(1) Endosperm (2) Embryo
(4) coconut, wheat
(3) Tegmen (4) Testa
60. In albuminous seed, the food is stored
in-
(1) Testa (2) Plumule
(3) Cotyledon (4) Endosperm

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 33

 Exercise – III
1. How many meiosis and mitosis occur to 6. Consider the following adaptation w.r.t.
form embryo sac from megaspore Entomophily.
mother cell (I) Enough pollen or nectar must be
(1) one meiosis one mitosis produced within flower.
(2) two mitosis one meiosis (II) Location and richness of these
(3) one meiosis three mitosis storehouse of pollen and nectar
(4) two meiosis two mitosis must be advertised.
2. Consider following statements: Options-
(I) E. Hanning started embryo culture (1) Only I is true
technique. (2) Only II is true
(II) Guha and Maheshwari develops (3) Both I and II are true
pollen culture in Datura. (4) Both I and II are false
(1) I and II are false
7. Pollen Grain or __(A)__ are formed inside
(2) I and II are correct
Anther, Which is the fertile portion of
(3) I is correct II is incorrect
_____(B)_____ or microsporophyll.
(4) I is incorrect II is correct
Fill the blank (A) and (B) with suitable
3. Consider the following statements. words
(I) Sepal release N2-substances for post (A) (B)
fertilization development of ovary (1) Microspore Anther
(II) In angiosperm, main plant is (2) Microspore Stamen
gametophyte.
(3) Male gamete Pollen sac
(III)Flower have highly condensed nodes.
(4) Male gamete Anther
(1) Only I is incorrect
(2) Only I is correct 8. Find true statement.
(3) Both I, II is correct (I) Formation of microspores is called
(4) Both I and II is incorrect micro gametogenesis.
4. Consider the following statement. (II) Microspore is formed by mitotic
(I) Stamens are unit of Androecium division.
(II) Androecium is part of Anther (III) Each anther lobe contain 4
(III) Microspore is diploid in ploidy. microsporangia/Pollen sac
Options: Options-
I II III (1) I is true only
(1) True False True (2) II and III are true only
(2) True True False (3) I, II and III are true
(3)True False False (4) I, II and III are false
(4) False True False
9. Find incorrect match.
5. Find incorrect Homology w.r.t. of flower. (1) Mustard – dithecous anther
Column I Column II (2) China rose – Monothecous anther
(1) Carpel Megasporophyll
(3) Arceuthobium – Bisporangiate
(2) Ovule Megasporangium
Condition
(3) Embryo sac Mega sporophyte
(4) Datura – Tetrasparangiate condition
(4) Egg Female gamete

34 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

10. Consider the following characters. 14. (I) Pollens have 7-26% of proteins in
A. Large nuclei their composition.
B. Dense cytoplasm (II) Study of pollen grain is called
C. High DNA content
Polynology.
D. Multinucleate condition
E. Polyploidy (III) Ubisch bodies are only secreted by
F. Fibrous thickening Amoeboid Tapetum.
G. Hygroscopic (1) I is false only
Which of the above characters are true (2) I and II are true III is false.
for Tapetum. (3) I, II and III are false
(1) All except G (4) I, II and III are true
(2) All except F and G
(3) Only A, B, C and D 15. Consider the following statements.
(4) All are correct (I) Microspore is the first cell of male
11. Match the following gametophytic generation.
Column I Column II (II) Microspore undergoes only two
(A) Large mitotic divisions to form fully
polyploid nucleus (i) Polyteny developed male gametophyte.
(B) Increase number
Option:
of chromonemata (ii) Endomitosis
(C) Two set of (iii) Restitution (1) I and II are false
Character nuclei (2) I and II are correct
in common (3) I is false II is correct
nuclear membrane (4) I is correct II is false
Option:
(A) (B) (C) 16. Gynoecium or Pistiel have specific unit
(1) ii I iii called ____(A)____. Carpel is also known
(2) I ii iii as ____(B)____. Its Fertile part is called
(3) ii iii i as ____(C)____.
(4) iii I ii
Fill the blanks.
12. Inside the wall layers ____(A)____ are (1) A-Carpel; B-Megasporophyll; C-Ovary
there in which archesporial tissue (2) A-Megasporangia; B-Megasporophyll;
present which give rise to ____(B)____ C-Ovam
via ____(C)____. (3) A-Carpel; B-Microsporophyll;
Fill in the blanks with suitable words. C-Egg
(1) A-Microsporangia; B-Microspores;
(4) A-Carpel; B-Megasporophyll;
C-Microgametogensis
(2)A-Pollen sac; B-Pollens; C-Strigma
C-Microsporogenesis 17. Fill the blank with suitable words.
(3) A-Megasporangia; B-Microspores;
____(A)____ is arrangement of ovule
C-Microsporogenesis
(4) A-Pollen chamber; B-Pollen; inside ovary. The main body of ovule is
C-Megasporogenesis mode up of ____(B)____ cells called
____(C)____.
13. During microsporogenesis two types of
Options
cytokinesis takes place i.e. successive
type and simultaneous type. (1) A-Placentation; B-Cellenchymatous
(I) Successive type – Monocot – C-Nucellus
Tetrahedral tetrad (2) A-Ovule arrangement
(II) Simultaneous – Dicot – Isobilateral B-Sclerenchymalous; C-Funicle
tetrad. (3) A-Placentation; B-Parenchymatous;
(1) I and II are true C-Hilum
(2) I and II are false
(4) A-Placentation; B-Parenchymatous;
(3) Only I is true
(4) Only II is true C-Nucellus

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 35

18. Match the following. 23. Embryonal axis above the level of
Column I Column II scutellum is called ____A____ which
(I) Ovary wall (A) Pericarp terminate into ____B____ while below
(II) Double Fertilization (B) Nutritive
tissue part of scutellum is called ____C____
(III) Endosperm (C) Angiosperm which terminate into ____D____.
(IV) Zygote (D) Embryo (1) A-Epicotyl; B-radicle;
Option: C-Hypocotyl; D-Plumule
I II III IV
(2) A-Epicotyl; B-plumule;
(1) A B C D
(2) A C B D C-Hypocotyl; D-radicle
(3) B C D A (3) A-Hypocotyl; B-Radicle;
(4) D B C A C-Epicotyl; D-Plumule
19. If number of chromosome in leaf cell is (4) A-Epicotyl; B-Plumule;
50 then the number of chromosome in C-Hypocotyl; D-Radicle
Egg, Nucellur and Endosperm will be-
(1) 50, 50, 75 (2) 25, 50, 50 24. Correctly define the number of
(3) 25, 50, 75 (4) 50, 100, 125 chromosome in following structure,
20. Find the correct match. sequentially.
Column I Column II Nucellus, Integument, Megaspore
I. Monosporic type a. Adoxa mother cell, Endosperm, Synergies
II. Bisperic type b. Polygonum
(1) 2n n 2n 3n n
III. Tetranporic c. Allium
Option- (2) 2n 2n 2n 3n n
I II III (3) 2n 2n n 3n n
(1) c b a (4) 2n 2n 2n 3n 2n
(2) b c a
(3) a b c 25. Assertion (A): In western countries a
(4) b c a large number of pollen products in form
21. Consider the following statements of tablets and syrups are available.
about cross-pollination. Reason (R): Pollen grains are rich in
(I) Also called xenogamy
nutrients and used as food supplement.
(II) it is a rule in unisexual flower.
(III) It is completed by Homogamy. (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
Option- the correct explanation of the (A)
(1) Only I is correct (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(2) only I and II are correct
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) I, II and II are correct
(4) I, I and II are wrong. (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
22. Find correct match with respect to (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
types of endosperm and their example
26. Assertion (A): During embryo sac formation
families.
Column I Column II megaspore divides by incomplete mitotic
(I) Nuclear (a) Butomaceae, division.
Type Alismaceae Reason (R): In these mitotic divisions
(II) Cellular (b) Acanthaceae, karyokinesis is not immediately followed
Type Magnoliaceae by cytokinesis.
(III) Halobial (c) Cucurbitaceae,
Type Malvaceae (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
Option- the correct explanation of the (A)
I II III (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(1) a b c not the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) c b a
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) b c a
(4) a c b (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

36 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

24. Assertion (A): Geitonogamy is functionally 31. Assertion (A): Most zygotes divide only after
cross pollination and genetically self certain amount of endosperm is formed.
Reason (R): This is an adaptation to provide
pollination.
assured nutrition to the developing
Reason (R): It involves pollinating agent embryo.
but pollen grains come from same plant. (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
the correct explanation of the (A) (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
not the correct explanation of the (A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
32. Assertion (A): Strawberry and cashew are
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false false fruits.
Reason (R): They arise before fertilization.
28. Assertion (A): All aquatic plants use
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
water for pollination. the correct explanation of the (A)
Reason (R): In aquatic habitat, water is (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
the only medium for transfer of gametes. not the correct explanation of the (A)
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (3)(A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is 33. Assertion (A): Seed is the basis of agriculture.
Reason (R): Due to dehydration and
not the correct explanation of the (A)
dormancy mature seed can be stored for
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false next season.
(4)Both (A) and (R) are false (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A)
29. Assertion (A): Self incompatibility is one (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
of the device to prevent inbreeding. not the correct explanation of the (A)
Reason (R): This is physiological process (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
which prevents cross pollination. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is 34. Assertion (A): Active research is going on
the correct explanation of the (A) in many laboratories around the world to
understand the genetics of apomixis.
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
Reason (R): If hybrids are made into
not the correct explanation of the (A) apomictics, there is no segregation of
(3)(A) is true but (R) is false characters.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A)
30. Assertion (A): Dynamic process pollen (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
pistil interaction can help to overcome not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
incompatibility barriers.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R): Knowledge gained in this
area would help the plant breeders in 35. Assertion (A): Clone is formed by
amphimixis.
manipulating pollen-pistil interaction.
Reason (R): In amphimixis, new plants are
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is formed without fertilization and meiosis.
the correct explanation of the (A) (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
not the correct explanation of the (A) (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 37

36. Assertion (A): Pollen tube shows apical 38. Assertion (A): Nucellus plays important
growth. role for developing embryo sac.
Reason (R): Growth of pollen tube is Reason (R): Nucellus is nutritive tissue
controlled by generative nucleus. have abundant reserve food material.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A)
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
39. Assertion (A): Pollen pistil interaction is
37. Assertion (A): In Angiosperms, sexual a safety measure to ensure that
reproduction take place through the flower. illegitimate crossing do not occur.
Reason (R): All the parts of the flower Reason (R): Compatibility and
incompatibility of pollen pistil is
are modification of stem.
determined by special proteins.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A)
the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A)
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

38 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

 Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)

[NEET 2013] [NEET 2014]

1. Megasporangium is equivalent to: 7. Perisperm differs from endosperm in:
(1) Fruit (2) Nucellus (1) Having no reserve food
(3) Ovule (4) Embryo sac (2) Being a diploid tissue
(3) Its formation by fusion of secondary
2. Advantage of cleistogamy is:
nucleus with several sperms
(1) More vigorous offspring
(4) Being a haploid tissue
(2) No dependence on pollinators
(3) Vivipary [Re AIPMT 2015]
(4) Higher genetic variability 8. Male gametophyte in angiosperms
produces
3. Which one of the following statements
is correct? (1) Three sperms
(1) Sporogenous tissue is haploid (2) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
(2) Endothecium produces the microspores (3) Single sperm and a vegetative cell
(3) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen (4) Single sperm and two vegetative cells
(4) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine
9. Coconut water from a tender coconut is:
(1) Degenerated nucellus
[AIPMT 2014]
(2) Immature embryo
4. Geitonogamy involves: -
(3) Free nuclear endosperm
(1) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen
from another flower of the same plant (4) Innermost layers of the seed coat

(2) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen 10. Filiform apparatus is characteristic

from the same flower
feature of:
(3) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen
(1) Synergids (2) Generative cell
from a flower of another plant in the
(3) Nucellar embryo (4) Aleurone cell
same population
(4) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen 11. The wheat grain has an embryo with one
from a flower of another plant large shield-shaped cotyledon known as:
belonging to a distant population
(1) Coleoptile (2) Epiblast
5. Pollen tablets are available in the (3) Coleorrhiza (4) Scutellum
market for: -
12. Which one of the following fruits is
(1) In vitro fertilization
parthenocarpic?
(2) Breeding Equisetum
(1) Banana (2) Brinjal
(3) Supplementing food
(3) Apple (4) Jackfruit
(4) Ex situ conservation
13. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and,
6. Function of filiform apparatus is to:-
megasporogenesis: -
(1) Recognize the suitable pollen at
stigma (1) Occur in ovule
(2) Stimulate division of generative cell (2) Occur in anther
(3) Produce nectar (3) Form gametes without further divisions
(4) Guide the entry of pollen tube (4) Involve meiosis

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 39

 [AIPMT 2015] 20. Pollination in water hyacinth and water
14. Which one of the following statements lily is brought about by the agency of:-
is not true? (1) Water (2) Insects or wind
(3) Birds (4) Bats
(1) Honey is made by bees by digesting
pollen collected from flowers 21. The ovule of an angiosperm is
(2) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, technically equivalent to:-
and they are used in the form of (1) Megasporangium
(2) Megasporophyll
tablets and syrups
(3) Megaspore mother cell
(3) Pollen grains of some plants cause (4) Megaspore
severe allergies and bronchial
affictions in some people [NEET 2016]
22. Which one of the following statements
(4) The flowers pollinated by flies and
is not true?
bats secrete fould odour to attract (1) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can
them be used in the crop breeding
programmed
15. The hilum is a scar on the:-
(2) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of
(1) Seed, where micropyle was present anther
(2) Seed, where funicle was attached (3) Exine of pollen grains is made up of
(3) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel sporopollenin
(4) Pollen grains of many species cause
(4) Fruit, where style was present
severe allergies
16. Which one of the following may require 23. Proximal end of the filament of stamen
pollinators, but is genetically similar to is attracted to the:-
autogamy? (1) Thalamus or petal (2) Anther
(1) Cleistogamy (2) Geitonogamy (3) Connective (4) Placenta
(3) Xenogamy (4) Apogamy 24. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
17. Which of the following are the important (1) Some reptiles have also been
floral rewards to the animal pollinations? reported as pollinators in some plant
(1) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates species
(2) Colour and large size of flower (2) Pollen grains of many species can
germinate on the stigma of a flower,
(3) Nectar and pollen grains
but only one pollen tube of the same
(4) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals species grows into the style
(3) Insects that consume pollen or
18. Transmission tissue is characteristic
nectar without bringing about
feature of: -
pollination are called pollen/nectar
(1) Wet stigma (2) Hollow style robbers
(3) Solid style (4) Dry stigma (4) Pollen germination and pollen tube
growth are regulated by chemical
[NEET (Phase II) 2016] components of pollen interacting with
19. In majority of angiosperms: - those of the pistil.
(1) Egg has a filiform apparatus 25. Seed formation without fertilization in
(2) There are numerous antipodal cells flowering plants involves the process of
(3) Reduction division occurs in the (1) Apomixis
megaspore mother cells (2) Sporulation
(4) A small central cell is present in the (3) Budding
embryo sac (4) Somatic hybridization

40 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

 [NEET 2017] 35. Double fertilization is:
26. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm (1) Fusion of two male gametes of a
develops into? pollen tube with two different eggs.
(1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac (2) Fusion of one male gamete with two
(3) Embryo (4) Ovule polar nuclei.
(3) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg.
27. Attractants and rewards are required for:
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion.
(1) Entomophily (2) Hydrophily
(3) Cleistogamy (4) Anemophily 36. Which one of the following plants show
a very close relationship with a species
28. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
of moth, where none of the two can
(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy
complete its life cycle without the other?
(2) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
(1) Hydrilla (2) Yucca
(3) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
(3) Banana (4) Viola
(4) Autogamy and xenogamy
[NEET 2019]
29. The morphological nature of the edible
37. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known
part of coconut is:
as:
(1) Cotyledon (2) Endosperm
(1) Hilum (2) Tegmen
(3) Pericarp (4) Perisperm
(3) Chalaza (4) Perisperm
30. Double fertilization is exhibited by :
38. In some plants, the female gamete
(1) Algae (2) Fungi
develops into embryo without
(3) Angiosperms (4) Gymnosperms
fertilization. This phenomenon is known as:
31. Flowers which have single ovule in the (1) Syngamy
ovary and are packed into inflorescence (2) Parthenogenesis
are usually pollinated by: (3) Autogamy
(1) Bee (2) Wind (4) Parthenocarpy
(3) Bat (4) Water 39. What is the fate of the male gametes

[NEET 2018] discharged in the synergid?

(1) One fuses with the egg, other(s)
32. Which of the following has proved
helpful in preserving pollen as fossils? fuse(s) with synergid nucleus.
(1) Pollenkitt (2) One fuses with the egg and other
(2) Cellulosic intine fuses with central cell nuclei.
(3) Oil content (3) One fuses with the egg, other(s)
(4) Sporopollenin degenerate(s) in the synergid.
33. Winged pollen grains are present in: (4) All fuse with the egg.
(1) Mustard (2) Cycas
40. Which one of the following statements
(3) Mango (4) Pinus
regarding post-fertilization development
34. Pollen grains can be stored for several in flowering plant is incorrect?
years in liquid nitrogen having a (1) Central cell develops into endosperm
temperature of : (2) Ovules develop into embryo sac
(1) – 120°C (2) – 80°C (3) Ovary develops into fruit
(3) – 196°C (4) – 160°C (4) Zygote develops into embryo

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 41

 [NEET(UG)-2019] 46. The plant parts which consist of two
41. Which is the most common type of generations one within the other:
embryo sac in angiosperms? (a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(1) Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of (b) Germinated pollen grain with two
divisions
male gametes
(2) Monosporic with three sequential
(c) Seed inside the fruit
mitotic divisions
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
(3) Monosporic with two sequential
mitotic (1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) only
(4) Bisporic with two sequential mitotic (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
divisions
47. Which of the following is incorrect for
42. What type of pollination takes place in wind pollinated plants?
Vallisneria? (1) Well exposed stamens and stigma
(1) Pollination occurs in submerged
(2) Many ovules in each ovary
condition by water
(3) Flowers are small and not brightly
(2) Flowers emerge above surface of
coloured
water, and pollination occurs by insects.
(3) Flowers emerge above water surface, (4) Pollen grains are light and non-sticky
and pollen is carried by wind.
[NEET(UG) 2021]
(4) Male flowers are carried by water
currents to female flowers at surface 48. The term used for transfer of pollen
of water grains from anthers of one plant to
stigma of a different plant which, during
43. In which one of the following, both pollination, brings genetically different
autogamy and geitonogamy are
types of pollen grains to stigma, is: -
prevented?
(1) Xenogamy (2) Geitonogamy
(1) Wheat
(3) Chasmogamy (4) Cleistogamy
(2) Papaya
(3) Castor 49. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at
(4) Maize maturity is:

[NEET(UG) 2020] (1) 8–nucleate and 7–celled

44. In water hyacinth and water lily, (2) 7–nucleate and 8–celled
pollination takes place by: (3) 7–nucleate and 7–celled
(1) insects and water (4) 8–nucleate and 7–celled
(2) insects or wind
(3) water currents only 50. In some members of which of the
(4) wind and water following pairs of families, pollen grains
retain their viability for months after
45. The body of the ovule is fused within the
release?
funicle at:
(1) Poaceae; Rosaceae
(1) Chalaza
(2) Poaceae; Leguminosae
(2) Hilum
(3) Micropyle (3) Poaceae; Solananceae
(4) Nucellus (4) Poaceae; Leguminosae

42 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

 NEET-2022 [NEET(UG) 2023]
51. Identify the incorrect statement related
54. Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with
to Pollination:
nectar are seen in:
(1) Pollination by water is quite rare in
(1) insect pollinated plants
flowering plants
(2) bird pollinated plants
(2) Pollination by wind is more common
(3) bat pollinated plants
amongst abiotic pollination
(4) wind pollinated plants
(3) Flowers produce foul odours to
attract flies and beetles to get 55. What is the function of tassels in the
pollinated corn cob?
(4) Moths and butterflies are the most (1) To attract insects
dominant pollinating agents among (2) To trap pollen grains
insects (3) To disperse pollen grains
52. Given below are two statements: (4) To protect seeds
Statement I: 56. In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and
Cleistogamous flowers are invariably triploid structures of a fertilized embryo
autogamous sac sequentially are:
Statement II: (1) Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus
Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there and zygote
is no chance for cross pollination (2) Antipodals, synergids, and primary
In the light of the above statement, endosperm nucleus
choose the correct answer from the (3) Synergids, Zygote and Primary
options given below: endosperm nucleus
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II (4) Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei
are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II 57. Given below are two statement: One is
are incorrect labelled as Assertion A and the other is
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement labelled as Reason R.
II is incorrect Assertion A: In gymnosperms the pollen
(4) Statement I is incorrect but grains are released from the
Statement II is correct microsporangium and carried by air
currents.
53. Which part of the fruit, labelled in the
Reason R: Air currents carry the pollen
given figure makes it a false fruit?
C grains to the mouth of the archegonia
D where the male gametes are discharged
and pollen tube is not formed.
In the light of the above statements,
choose the Correct answer from the
options given below:
B (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
A correct explanation of A.
(1) A → Mesocarp (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT
(2) B → Endocarp the correct explanation of A.
(3) C → Thalamus (3) A is true but R is false.
(4) D → Seed (4) A is false but R is true.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 43

58. Given below are two statement: One is 62. In angiosperms the correct sequence of
labelled as Assertion A and the other is events in formation of female gametophyte
labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: A flower is defined as in the ovule is :
modified shoot wherein the shoot apical (A) 3 successive free nuclear divisions
meristem changes to floral meristem. functional megaspore.
Reason R: Internode of the shoot gets (B) Degeneration of 3 megaspores.
condensed to produce different floral
appendages laterally at successive (C) Meiotic division in megaspore mother
nodes instead of leaves. cell.
In the light of the above statements, (D) Migration of 3 nuclei towards each
choose the Correct answer from the
pole.
options given below:
(E) Formation of wall resulting in seven
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A. celled embryo sac.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT Choose the correct answer from the
the correct explanation of A. options given below :
(3) A is true but R is false. (1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
(4) A is false but R is true.
(2) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
Manipur NEET-2023 (3) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)
59. In which of the following sets of (4) (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)
families, the pollen grains are viable for
months?
(1) Solanaceae, Poaceae and Liliaceae
(2) Brassicaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
(3) Rosaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
(4) Leguminosae, Solanaceae and Rosaceae

60. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to

stigma of another flower of same plant
is known as :
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy
(3) Autogamy (4) Cleistogamy

61. Plants offer rewards to animals in the

form of pollen and nectar and the
animals facilitate the pollination
process. This is an example of :
(1) Amensalism (2) Competition
(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism

44 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

 ANSWER KEY

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Exercise - I

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 1 2 2 3 1 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 3 2 4 3 4 4 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 3 3 2 4 4 1 3 2 1 1 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 4 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 4 2 4 1 1 1 1 1 4 4 3 3 3 1 3 2 4 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 1 1 3 1 4 1 3 1 1 4 4 1 1 1 2 1 3 2 1 3
Que. 81 82 83 84 85
Ans. 1 3 3 3 1

Exercise - II

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 2 3 3 2 2 1 2 1 4 2 3 3 3 2 2 4 3 3 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 1 3 1 1 2 1 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 4 2 3 1 1 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 4 1 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 1 1 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67
Ans. 1 1 1 3 1 4 1

Exercise – III
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 4 2 3 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
Ans. 2 3 2 2 1 1 1 4 3 1 1 3 1 1 4 3 3 1 1

Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 2 3 1 3 4 2 2 3 1 4 1 4 1 2 2 3 3 3 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 3 2 4 4 3 4 2 4 2 2 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 4 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 4 4 1 3 1 2 3 3 1 4 1
Que. 61 62
Ans. 4 4

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 45

 2 Human Reproduction

Introduction

Humans are sexually reproducing and viviparous organisms. Their reproductive events include: -
• Formation of gametes (gametogenesis), i.e., sperms in males and ovum in females.
• Transfer of sperms into the female genital tract (insemination) and fusion of male and female
gametes (fertilisation) leading to formation of zygote.
• This is a followed by formation and development of blastocyst and its attachment to the uterine
wall (implantation), embryonic development (gestation) and delivery of the baby (parturition).
These reproductive events occur after puberty. There are remarkable differences between the
reproductive events in the male and in the female, for example, sperm formation continues
even in old men, but formation of ovum ceases in women around the age of fifty years.

Male Reproductive System

• The male reproductive system is located in the pelvic region.
• It includes pair of testes along with accessory ducts, glands and the external genitalia.
• Both testes are situated out side the abdominal cavity with in a pouch called as scrotum or
scrotal sac so the testes of human males are extra-abdominal.
• The temperature of scrotum is 2–2.5°C lesser than body temperature. It is necessary for
spermatogenesis.

Fig. Diagrammatic view of male reproductive system

(part of testis is open to show inner details)
Internal Structure of Testis:

• Each testis is oval in shape with a length about 4 to 5 cm and a width of about 2 to 3 cm.
• Testis is covered by three coats. Outer most is tunica vaginalis. Middle coat is tunica albuginea
& inner most is tunica vasculosa.

Human Reproduction 1
• The Tunica albuginea is a dense, white fibrous coat covering the testis all around. The posterior
border tunica albuginea is thickened to form vertical septum called the Mediastinum testis.
• Tunica vasculosa is the inner most vascular coat of the testis lining testicular lobules.
• Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules.
• Each lobule has 1 to 3 highly coiled seminiferous tubules, in which sperms are produced.
• Total number of seminiferous tubules in each testis is about 750 to 1000.

Internal structure of Seminiferous Tubule:

Fig. Sectional view of seminiferous tubule

• While inner surface of seminiferous tubule cuboidal is lined by germinal epithelium.
• In germinal epithelium two types of cells present (i) male germ cells (spermatogonia) (ii) Sertoil
cells.
• Spermatogonia give rise to spermatozoa which are released into the lumen of the tubule. In
between spermatogenic cells, Sertoil or sustentacular or nurse cells are present which provide
nourishment to developing spermatozoa.
• The regions outside the semniferous tubules called interstitial spaces, contain small blood
vessels and groups of cells called Interstitial cells or Leydig cells, are located in the connective
tissue around the seminiferous tubules. They constitute the endocrine tissue of the testis.
Leydig cells synthesis and secrete testicular hormones called Androgens into the blood. Other
immonologically competent cells are also present.
• These vasa efferentia come out from upper dorsal surface of testis & open into epididymis. This
epididymis is responsible for functional maturation of sperm. It is located along the posterier
surface of each testis.

2 Human Reproduction
• Vas deferens runs upward & enter into abdominal cavity. Both vas deferens coil around the
ureter of their respective sides and then dilate to form ampulla. Ampulla of each side receives
the duct of seminal vesicle of that side and forms ejaculatory duct and opens into prostatic
urethra.
• The male accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, Epididymis and vas deferens.
Urethra:
• The urethra originates from the urinary bladder and extends through the penis to its external
opening called urethral meatus.
• Male urethra provides a common pathway for the flow of urine and semen. It is much longer in
male than in female.

Parts of Urethra:
1. Prostatic Urethra
2. Membraneous Urethra
3. Penial Urethra

Path of Sperm through the Male Body:

Fig. Diagrammatic sectional view of male pelvis showing reproductive system

Penis:
• The Penis is the male external genitalia or copulatory organ of man.
• Terminal part of penis is bulging, it is called as Glans penis. This glans penis is covered by a
movable skin called as prepuce or foreskin.
• It is made up of special tissue that helps in erection of the penis to facilitate insemination.
• Penis is composed of three longitudinal cylindrical cords of erectile tissue. These cords are the
right & left corpora cavernosa & a median corpus spongiosum. The two corpora cavernosa do
not reach the end of the penis. Each of them terminates under cover of the glans penis. The
corpus spongiosum continues further, its terminal part is expanded to form a conical
enlargement called the glans penis. Urethra runs through this cord. External opening of penis
is called penile/urethral meatus.

Human Reproduction 3
• Erection of Penis: Erection of penis is purely vascular phenomenon and is controlled by A.N.S.
It occurs due to increase of blood supply, due to dilation of penile arteries causing enlargement
and hardening of penis. During this time the muscles of Penis are relaxed.
Accessory Reproductive Glands:
The substances secreted by the accessary reproductive glands help in reproduction, these are –
1. Seminal vesicle: These are paired, tubular, coiled glands situated behind the bladder. Internally,
it is lined by glandular epithelium which secretes seminal fluid, which is lubricating, transparent
& jelly like substance, which makes 60–70% part of semen. It is slightly alkaline (pH 7.3).
Fructose is found in seminal fluid, it act as fuel to sperm.
2. Prostate gland: This gland is unpaired and located below the urinary bladder. It secretes
prostatic fluid which is milky, thick, sticky or jelly like. It makes about 30% part of semen and
helps in sperm activation.
In the secretion of prostate-gland Calcium and clotting enzyme are present. The secretion of the
prostate gland combines with the secretion of seminal vesicle and so the semen gets coagulated. In
the coagulated semen, the mobility of sperms is reduced and so their energy is conserved.
3. Cowper's glands: It is a pair of glands found on lateral side of urethra. It is also called as
bulbourethral gland. It secretes transparent, slimy, jelly like fluid Mucus. It is slightly alkaline
(pH is 7.2). This destroys the acidity of the urethra and cleans it for the movement of sperms.
The secretions of bulbourethral glands also helps in the lubrication of the penis.
• Secretious of Seminal vesicle Prostate Gland, Vas Deferens & Epididymis have essential role in
maturation & Motility of sperm
Semen – Semen = Sperm + Accessory reproductive gland fluid (Seminal Plasma)
Volume = 3 to 4 ml.
pH = 7.3 - 7.5 (Slightly alkaline)
Oligospermia < 20 million/ml.
Azospermia – either absence or near absence of sperms.
Male human ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperms during a coitus of which, for normal
fertility, at least 60 percent sperms must have normal shape and size and for at least 40 per
cent of them must show vigorous motility.
• Secretions of these glands constitute the seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium and
certain enzymes.

Concept Builder

1. The male sex accessory ducts do not include –

(1) Rete testis (2) Vasa efferentia (3) Epididymis (4) Ureter
2. Which of the following structure is paired –
(1) Ejaculatory duct (2) Prostate (3) Urethral meatus (4) Urethra
3. Epididymis is located in ____ of testis.
(1) Anterior surface (2) Posterior surface (3) Lateral surface (4) Anterolateral surface
4. Function of bulbourethral gland secretion is –
(1) Nourishes sperms (2) Form major part of semen
(3) lubrication of Penis (4) Enhancing the motility of sperms
5. Tubuli recti of semniferous tubules open into –
(1) Epididymis (2) Vasa efferentia (3) Vasa deferentia (4) Rete testis
Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. 4 1 2 3 4

4 Human Reproduction
Female Reproductive System
The female reproductive system consists of a pair of ovaries, a duct system consisting of a pair of
fallopian tubes (oviducts), a uterus, cervix and vagina. A pair of mammary glands are accessory genital
glands.

Fig. Sectional view of the female reproductive system

Ovaries:
• The ovary is the primary female sex organ. It produces ova and secretes the female sex
hormones, estrogens and progesterone which are responsible for the development of secondary
female sex characters and cause marked cyclic changes in the uterine endometrium. The human
ovaries are small about 2 to 4 cm in length and is connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by
ligaments.
• Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium which encloses the ovarian stroma. The stroma is
divided into two zones – a peripheral cortex and an inner medulla.
Fallopian Tubes (Oviducts):
• These are one pair of long (10 to 12 cm), ciliated muscular and tubular structures which extend
from the periphery of each ovary to the uterus.
• Each oviducts is differentiated into three parts:
(i) Infundibulum: The part of oviduct closer to the ovary is the funnel shaped infundibulum.
The edges of infundibulum possess finger-like projections called fimbriae. Fimbriae help in
the collection of the ovum after ovulation. Infundibulum opens into the abdominal cavity by
an apperture called ostium.
(ii) Ampulla: The infundibulum leads to a wider part of the oviduct called ampulla.
(iii) Isthmus: It is the last and narrow part having narrow lumen that links to the uterus.
• This tube is involved in conducting of ovum or zygote towards the uterus by peristalsis and
ciliary action. It is also the site of fertilization. (Fertilization occurs in ampulla).

Uterus (Hystera/Womb):
• It is a large hollow, muscular, highly vascular and inverted pear shaped structure present in the
pelvis between the urinary bladder and rectum.
• It has the following three parts: -
(i) Fundus: It is upper, dome-shaped part above the opening of fallopian tubes.
(ii) Corpus/Body: It is the middle and main part of uterus.
(iii) Cervix: It is lower, narrow part which opens in body of uterus by internal os and in vagina
through external os. The cavity of cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina
forms the birth canal.

Human Reproduction 5
• Wall of uterus: The wall of uterus is formed of three layers: -
(i) Outer peritoneal layer, perimetrium.
(ii) Middle muscular myometrium of smooth muscle fibres.
(iii) Inner highly vascular and glandular endometrium.
• The endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during menstrual cycle while myometrium exhibits
strong contractions during delivery of the baby.
• Implantation of embryo occurs in uterine fundus.
• It is the site of foetal growth during pregnancy. It also takes part in placenta formation and
expulsion of the baby during parturition.

Fig. Diagrammatic sectional view of female pelvis showing reproductive system

Vagina:
• It is a long fibro-muscular tube. It extends backward in front of rectum and anal canal from
cervix to the vestibule. It is a highly vascular tube lined internally by mucus membrane which
is raised into transverse folds called vaginal rugae. It is lined with stratified squamous
epithelium (Non Keratinised).
• Vagina acts both as copulation canal (as it receives the sperms from penis during copulation)
and as birth canal along with cervix (during parturition).
External Genitalia/Vulva :
External genitalia of female include mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, hymen and clitoris.
1. Mons pubis: It is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hairs in adult female.
2. Labia Majora: Fleshy folds of tissue, which extend down from the mons pubis and surround
the vaginal opening. It is homologous to the scrotum.
3. Labia Minora: Paired folds of tissue under the labia majora.
4. Clitoris: A tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora
above the urethral opening. Clitoris is a homologous to the penis in the male.
5. Hymen: The opening of the vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called hymen.
The hymen is often ruptured during the first coitus (intercourrse). However, it can also be
broken by a sudden fall or jolt, insertion of a vaginal tampon, active participation in some
sports like horseback riding, cycling etc. In some women the hymen perists even after coitus,
in fact, the presence or absence of hymen is not reliable indicator of verginity or sexual
experience.
Bartholin Glands:/Greater Vestibular gland
• It is similar/Homologous to Cowper’s gland of male.
• 1 pair Bartholin gland is found on lateral side of vagina and bartholin duct opens into vaginal
vestibule.

6 Human Reproduction
Mammary Glands

Fig. A diagrammatic sectional view of Mammary gland

• There are a pair of rounded prominences present over the pectoralis major muscles on the
front wall of the thorax. These remain in rudimentary form in male. In females, these remain
undeveloped till puberty. At puberty, these start developing under the influence of oestrogen
and progesterone hormones. In the external side, each breast has a projection, the ‘nipple’
surrounded by rounded hyperpigmented are called areola and appear deep pink or light brown.
Note:
• Each breast contain glandular tissue and variable amount of fat. The glandular tissue comprises
about 15-20 lobes in each breast. Each lobule is composed of grapelike clusters of milk secreting
cell termed alveoli. The cells of alveoli secretes milk which is stored in the cavity of alveoli.
When milk is produced it passes from the alveoli in the mammary tubules and then into the
mammary ducts. Near the nipple, mammary ducts expand to form mammary ampulla (=
lactiferous sinuses) where some milk may be stored before going to lactiferous ducts. Each
lactiferous duct typically carries milk from one of the lobes to exterior.
Mammary alveoli → Mammary Tubule → Mammary Duct → Mammary Ampulla → Lactiferous Duct

Concept Builder

1. Bartholin's glands are situated –

(1) On medial side of vagina (2) On lateral side of vagina
(3) On lateral side of clitoris (4) On medial side of labia majora
2. The female external genitalia include –
(i) Ovary (ii) Mammary gland (iii) Mons pubis
(iv) Clitoris (v) Labia majora
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii) (3) (iii), (iv) & (v) (4) (ii), (iii) & (v)
3. Lower narrow end of uterus is called –
(1) Urethra (2) Cervix (3) Clitoris (4) Vulva
4. Ovaries connected to the pelvic wall & uterus by –
(1) Ligaments (2) Connective layer (3) Epithelium layer (4) Muscular filament
5. The wall of the uterus is made of _____ layer –
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. 2 3 2 1 1

Human Reproduction 7
Gametogenesis
• Formation of gametes is called gametogenesis. The primary sex organs the testis in males and
the ovaries in the females produce gametes sperm and ovum respectively.
• GnRH, FSH, LH regulates gametogenesis.
• Gametogenesis is divided in three stages:
(i) Multiplication phase (ii) Growth phase (iii) Maturation phase.

• As there are two types of gametes, the spermatozoa and ova, gametogenesis can be studied
under two broad headings: spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Spermatogenesis is the formation
of spermatozoa, whereas oogenesis is the formation of ova.
• Spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the testes and oogenesis occurs in the
follicles of ovary. Formation of gametes starts at puberty.

(a) (b)
Fig. Schematic representation of (a) Spermatogenesis; (b) Oogenesis

Spermatogenesis
• In testis, the immature male germ cells (spermatogonia) produce sperms by spermatogenesis
that begins at puberty.
• Mammalian testes contain seminiferous tubules and wall of seminiferous tubule is composed
of germinal epithelium. It contains some special types of cells called primordial germ cells and
these cells start spermatogenesis. On the basis of origin, primordial germ cells are extra
embryonic mesodermal. Besides these cells, germinal epithelium contains some large sized cell
called sertoli cells. Occurrence of sertoli cells is the unique feature of mammalian testis. Sertoli
cells provide nutrition to developing sperm. Sperms are embedded in cytoplasm of sertoli cells
and absorb nutrition. After maturation sperms comes out from sertoli cells and librate in
seminiferous tubules.

• After spermatogenesis the sperms heads become embedded in the sertoli cells and are finally
released from the seminiferous tubules by the process called spermiation-
• Liberation of sperms from testes is called semination.
• Liberation of sperms from body of male is called ejaculation .
• Mammalian sperms are transferred to vagina of female by the process called insemination.

8 Human Reproduction
• Sertoli cells form 'blood testes barrier' and protect the sperm from immune system of the body
because antibody may attack on haploid cells and destroy them. (Sperms are haploid and other
cells of body are diploid).
• Spermatozoa are formed in the wall of the seminiferous tubules of the testes. The various cell-
stages in spermatogenesis are as follows ( the number of chromosomes at each stage is given
in brackets)
A. The spermatogonia (type A) or germ cells (44+X+Y) divide mitotically, to give rise to more
spermatogonia of type A (spermatogenic lineage) and also spermatogonia of type B. Each
spermatogonia is diploid and contain 46
chromosomes. Type A act as stem cells.
B. The spermatogonia (type B) (44 + X + Y)
enlarge, to form primary spermatocytes.
C. The primary spermatocytes (44 + X + Y) now
divide by meiosis into two secondary
spermatocytes. This is the first meiotic
division: it reduces the number of
chromosomes to half (reduction division).
Secondary spermatocytes are haploid cells
which have 23 chromosomes.
D. Each secondary spermatocyte has 22 + X or
22 + Y chromosomes. It divides to form two
spermatids. This is the second meiotic
division and this time there is no reduction in
chromosome number
E. Transformation of spermatid into sperm is
termed spermiogenesis.
After spermiogenesis the sperm heads
become embedded in the Sertoli cells, and
are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process celled spermiation.

Male Reproductive Hormones

FSH = Binds with FSH receptors attached to sertoli cells. FSH causes to grow and secrete various
spermatogenic substances and androgen binding
proteins (ABP).
ABP: Concentrates the testosterone inside seminiferous
tubules.(Androgens)
LH / ICSH: It stimulates the Leydig cells to secrete
testosterone. Inhibin: It is secreted by Sertoli cells in
response to excess spermatogenesis. The inhibin gives a
negative feedback to the hypothalamus and anterior
pituitary, this results in suppression of synthesis and
release of FSH (so spermatogenesis decreases).
Testosterone: Secreted by Leydig cells. It is essential for
(i) Stimulate spermatogenesis
(ii) Development of secondary sexual characters
(iii) ABP secretion
(iv) It also gives –ve feedback to hypothalamus and anterior pituitary in its excess concentration to
suppress GnRH, FSH & LH release.
(v) It is secreted in foetal stage in as low as 30 ng/ml plasma concentration to cause descent of
testis in last trimester of intrauterine life.

Human Reproduction 9
 Knowledge Booster

Structure of Sperm
• Mature sperm cell consists of a head, a neck, a middle piece and a tail.
• A plasma membrane envelops the whole body of sperm. The sperm head contains a very little
cytoplasm, an elongated haploid nucleus, the anterior portion of which is covered by a cap-like
structure, acrosome. Nuclear part of head of spermatozoa consist of chromatin (mostly DNA)
that is extremely condensed. The acrosome is filled with enzymes that help in fertilisation of
ovum. These enzymes called sperm lysins that dissolve the membranes enveloping the ovum
and help the sperm to enter the ovum. Acrosome is derived from Golgi apparatus. Its membrane
extends down the outer surface of nucleus.
• The short neck, contains two distinct granules- the proximal and distal centrioles. The proximal
centriole plays a crucial role during the first cleavage of the fertilized ovum. The distal centriole
gives rise to the axial filament of the long tail of the sperm.

Fig. Structure of a sperm

10 Human Reproduction
• The middle piece possess spiral sheath of numerous mitochondria (25 to 30 arranged spirally)
called Nebenkern sheath, which produce energy for the movement of tail that facilitates sperm
motility essential for fertilisation, that is why is called as the power house of the sperm.
• At the point where the middle piece joins the tail, this axial filament passes through a ring-like
structure called the annulus or ring centriole.
• The tail is made up of a central axial filament surrounded by a small amount of cytoplasm and
cell membrane as external sheath. Tail is the longest part of sperm. Sperm move by the help of
tail.
Oogenesis
• The process of formation of a mature female gamete is called oogenesis. It is initiated during
the embryonic development stage when a couple of million gamete mother cell (oogonia) are
formed with in each foetal ovary, no more oogonia are formed after birth. Scattered ovarian
follicles are embedded in the stroma of cortex.

• Oogenesis process can be divided into three stages:

(A) Multiplication phase (B) Growth phase (C) Maturation phase

(A) Multiplication phase: In this stage primordial germ cells or ovum mother cells repeatedly
divide by mitosis to form large number of diploid oogonia.
This process completes in embryo stage of female in most higher animals.

(B) Growth phase: Like spermatogenesis, in this process oogonia grow in size and form primary
oocytes. The growth phase is the longest phase in oogenesis in oviparous animals. During
growth phase size of egg increases many times. In this phase yolk is formed.

Human Reproduction 11
 (C) Maturation phase: It is the longest phase in human. By the time the foetus is 25 weeks old,
all the oogonia that she will ever produce, are already formed by mitosis. Hundreds of these
diploid cells develop into primary oocytes, begin the first steps of the first meiotic division,
proceed up to diplotene and then stop any further development. The oocytes grows much
larger and completes the meiosis I, forming a large secondary oocyte and a small polar body
that receives very little amount of cytoplasm but one full set of chromosomes.
• In humans (and most vertebrates), the first polar body does not undergo meiosis II, whereas
the secondary oocyte proceeds as far as the metaphase stage of meiosis II. However, it then
stops advancing any further, it awaits the arrival of the spermatozoa for completion of second
meiotic division. Entry of the sperm restarts the cell cycle breaking down MPF (M-phase
promoting factor) and turning on the APC (Anaphase promoting complex). Completion of meiosis
II converts the secondary oocyte into a fertilised egg or zygote (and also a second polar body)
• Ova are derived from oogonia present in the cortex of ovary.
• Some important differences between oogenesis and spermatogenesis are
(i) Whereas one primary spermatocyte gives rise to four spermatozoa, one primary oocyte
forms only one ovum.
(ii) When the primary spermatocyte divides, its cytoplasm is equally distributed between the
two secondary spermatocytes formed. However, when the primary oocyte divides, almost
all its cytoplasm goes to the daughter cell which forms the secondary oocyte. The other
daughter cell (first polar body), receives half the chromosomes of the primary oocyte, but
almost no cytoplasm.
The first polar body is, therefore, formed merely to get rid of unwanted chromosomes.

Structure of Ovary
• Outer most layer of ovary is called germinal epithelium while the inner layer called Tunica
albuginea is made up of White fibrous connective tissue.
• The inner part of ovary is called as stroma. it is differentiated into 2 parts, outer peripheral part
is cortex & inner part is called medulla. Stroma consists of follicular cells, connective tissues,
blood vessels & lymphatics.
• Numerous oogonia are found in cortical region in intrauterine life. In early stage of intra uterine
life, they proliferate by mitosis, after which meiosis-I starts in them and proceeds upto
prophase-I stage & halts there itself up to puberty (when the ovulation starts). Now the halted
meiosis-I process restart at puberty causing primary oocyte to convert into secondary oocyte
just before ovulation. With this the Ist meiotic division completes and first polar body is formed.
In secondary oocyte immediately begins the second meiotic division but this division stops again
at metaphase stage. It proceeds further only when a sperm penetrates the oocyte.

Fig. Sectional view of ovary

12 Human Reproduction
Formation of ovarian or Graafian follicle:
Ova develop from oogonia present in the cortex of the ovary. The oogonia are surrounded by other cells
that form a stroma for them. These stromal cells form the ovarian or Graafian follicle that surrounds
the ovum and protects it.
The stages in formation of Graafian follicle are as follows:
(1) Firstly some cells of the stroma become flattened and surround a primary oocyte (which
develops from oogonia). These flattened cells ultimately form the ovarian follicle and are
therefore called follicular cells.
(2) The flattened follicular cells now
become columnar. Follicles upto this
stage of development are called
primordial follicle.
(3) A membrane called the zona
pellucida, now appears between the
follicular cells and the oocyte.
(4) The follicular cells proliferate now to
form several layers of cells to form
the membrana granulosa. These cells
are now called granulosa cells.
(5) As the follicle expands, the stromal cells surrounding the membrana granulosa become
condensed to form a covering called the theca Interna. The cells of theca internal (Thecal
cells) afterwards secrete a hormone called oestrogen. Outside the theca interna some
fibrous tissue become condensed to form another covering called the theca Externa. This
is called secondary follicle.
(6) A cavity appears within the membrana granulosa. It is called the antrum. With the
appearance of this cavity, the Tertiary follicle is formed.
• Presence of antrum (Follicular cavity) is character feature of Tertiary follicle.

Human Reproduction 13
(7) The cavity of the Tertiary follicle rapidly increases in size and gets filled with a fluid called
liquor folliculi. Due to increase in the size of the cavity the wall of the follicle (formed by
granulosa cells) becomes relatively thin. The oocyte now lies eccentrically in the follicle,
surrounded by some granulosa cells that are called as cumulus oophoricus. The cells that
attached to the wall of the follicle are called as discus proligerus or Germ hill. The ovarian
follicle is now fully formed and is now called the Graafian follicle.
• The granulosa cells lying in
the close vicinity of the ovum
(secondary oocyte) and zona
pellucida, become elongated
to form the corona radiata.
• After 13 days of menstrual
cycle (on 14th day when cycle
is ideally for 28 days) Graafian
follicle is ruptured & egg is
released.
• After ovulation the ruptured
Graafian follicle is called
corpus luteum. Soon after
ovulation, the granulosa cells
of Graafian follicle proliferate
& these cells look yellow due to accumulation of pigment called Lutein. These cells are called
lutein cells.
• Before ovulation the follicle was avascular but soon after ovulation blood vessels grow & corpus
luteum becomes filled with blood. Central part filled with blood is called corpus
haemorrhagicum. Lutein cells synthesis the progesterone hormone.
• If fertilization occurs in fallopian tube, the corpus luteum then becomes stable for next nine
months. If fertilization does not occur then the corpus luteum starts degenerating after about
9 days of it's formation. The degeneration is completed by 14 days to form corpus albicans,
which gradually disappears.
• Progesterone hormone maintains pregnancy and repairs the wall of uterus to make its surface
adhesive to help in implantation.
• A large number of follicles degenerate from birth to puberty. Degeneration of ovarian follicle is
called follicular atresia and their disposal is done by phagocytes. Therefore, at puberty only
60000 to 80000 primary follicles are left in each ovary. Generally, only one ovum is liberated in
each menstrual cycle, by alternate ovaries. Only about 450 ova are produced by a human female
over the entire span of her reproductive life which lasts till about 40-50 years of age.
• In human female ovulation occurs in presence of FSH & LH. Coitus is not necessary for inducing
ovulation. Such a female is called as spontaneous ovulator. (Induce/Relax ovulator)
• Sometimes, two or more follicles reach maturity in one month or cycle, so more than one oocyte
may be ovulated. This is the commonest cause of multiple births. In such cases the sibling are
fraternal, not identical.

14 Human Reproduction
 Concept Builder

1. Release of sperm from testes is called:

(1) Spermiation (2) Semination (3) Insemination (4) Ejaculation
2. At the end of first meiotic division, male germ cell differentiates into:
(1) Secondary spermatocyte (2) Primary spermatocyte
(3) Spermatogonium (4) Spermatid
3. How many ova are produced by 10 primary oocytes.
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 40
4. During which stage of gametogenesis meiosis occurs:
(1) Growth phase (2) Multiplication phase
(3) Maturation phase (4) None of the above
5. How many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have:-
(1) 34 (2) 44 (3) 54 (4) 33
Concept Builder (Answer-Key)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. 2 1 2 3 2
Menstrual Cycle
• This is exhibited by primate group of animals. In this cycle the female body prepares itself for
a possible pregnancy. If the pregnancy does not occur then the body aborts all preparation done
and restarts the preparation for pregnancy again in a monthly cyclic manner.
• First menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche.
• Menstrual cycle has three main phases:
(i) Bleeding phase or menstruation phase.
(ii) Proliferative/preovulatory/follicular phase or oestrogenic phase.
(ii) Secretory/post ovulatory/luteal phase or progesteronic phase.
(i) Bleeding Phase / Menstruation phase:
The cycle starts with bleeding phase in its first 3 to 5 days. During this bleeding phase the part
of the layer of endometrium gets shed off. Total loss of blood per day is about 20 ml, so an average
of 40 to 80 ml blood/cycle is lost. This blood can not clot due to presence of Fibrinolytic enzymes.

Human Reproduction 15
(ii) Preovulatory/Proliferative phase / Follicular phase.
• After first four or five days this phase begins. During this phase, Due to release of GnRH, Pituitary
secretes FSH and LH to stimulate the ovarian follicle. The ovarian follicle now begins to develop.
Developing follicle now starts secreting an increasing amount of oestrogen.
• The rising level of oestrogen causes the endometrium to proliferate and thicken. It also causes
increase in the vascularity and glandularity of the endometrium.
• Due to this, the hypothalamus releases more of GnRH. This GnRH induces the pituitary to
release more of FSH. The rising FSH levels now cause:
(i) further growth and development of ovarian follicle to form Graafian follicle
(ii) even further release of oestrogen from the theca interna of this developing follicle.
• As the oestrogen level goes on rising, by the end of 10 day the extreme levels of oestrogen
(which have by then caused maturation of Graafian follicle and growth of endometrium) now
give a positive feedback of high concentration of oestrogen causing a rise in GnRH and LH
secretion but due to release of inhibin by graffian follicle, FSH is not comparatively rised
therefore the LH secretion from the pituitary goes on rising. This abrupt rise (on 11th to 13th
day) in LH concentration in blood is called as LH surge.
• This LH now causes the Graafian follicle to rupture after partial completion of II meiotic division
in oocyte and thus the secondary oocyte (metaphase stage) released. The release of egg
(secondary oocyte) which occurs around 14 day is called as ovulation.
(iii) Post ovulatory/secretory phase/ Luteal Phase:
• Luteal phase last for 14 days. During this phase the level of Estrogen and progesterone will rise
while FSH and LH levels drop.
• If pregnancy does not occur after ovulation, then as the progesterone level rise, its rising levels
inhibits the release of GnRH from hypothalamus by negative feed back. Due to this FSH, LH
secretion by pituitary falls and thereby progesterone secretion by the corpus luteum (which
was due to influence of LH) also now falls.
• As the progesterone level drops, the corpus luteum begins to degenerate and transform in
corpus albicans (which can not secrete progesterone). Due to the lack of progesterone.
(i) The overgrown endometrium now begin to break and separate from the inner uterine wall
causing bleeding.
(ii) The uterine contraction (which was till now inhibited due to presence of progesterone) now
start. Thus the separated endometrium along with blood is now being passed out via vaginal
route. This is again the beginning of next menstrual or bleeding phase.
• The period between ovulation and next menstrual bleeding (post ovulatory period) is always
constant (i.e. 14 days). However, the ovulation date may vary (causing a change in pre ovulatory period).
• In human beings, menstrual cycle ceases around 50 years of age, termed as menopause. Cyclic
menstruation is an indicator of normal Reproductive phase and extends between menarche and
menopause.
Menstrual Hygiene:
Maintenance of hygiene and sanitation during menstruation is very important. Take bath and clean
yourself regulatory. Use sanitary napkins or clean homemade pads. Change sanitary napkins or
homemade pads after every 4–5 hrs. as per the requirement. Dispose of the used sanitary napkins
properly wrapping it with a used sanitary napkins properly wrapping it with a used paper. Do not throw
the used napkins in the drainpipe of Toilets or in the open area. After handling the napkin wash hands
with soap.

16 Human Reproduction
 Knowledge Booster

Concept Builder

1. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of menstruation –

(1) Progesterone (2) Estrogen (3) FSH (4) FSH – RH

2. Repair of endometrium is undertaken by –

(1) LH (2) FSH (3) Estrogen (4) Prolactin

3. Luteal phase is the other name of:

(1) Follicular phase (2) Proliferative phase
(3) Menstrual flow phase (4) Secretory phase

4. If the menstrual cycle is of 35 days then what is risk period (cycle start on 1 st day):
(1) 9th to 17th days (2) 11th to 18th days
(3) 16th to 24th days (4) 18th to 35th days

5. After ovulation graafian follicle converted into:

(1) Corpus luteum (2) Corpus albicans
(3) Corpus cavernosa (4) Corpus callosum
Concept Builder (Answer-Key)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. 1 3 4 3 1

Human Reproduction 17
Fertilization
1. During copulation (coitus) semen is released by the penis into the vagina of female, called
insemination. Prostaglandins of semen help in the movement of spermatozoa.
2. Sperm swim through the vagina, cervix, uterus and finally reach the ampulla of the fallopian
tubes. The ovum released by the ovary is also transported to the ovum is released in the
secondary oocyte stage (arrested in metaphase-II). Due to ciliary current produced by fimbriae
portion of oviduct, ovum is drawn in through ostium. It reaches ampulla, the site of fertilization,
by the ciliary action of ciliated columnar epithelial lining of oviduct.
3. Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and the sperms are transported simultaneously to the
ampulla. This is the reason why not all copulations lead to fertilisation and pregnancy.
4. Mammalian sperms acquire activity at two places. First-epididymis and second-female
reproductive tract. Vaginal secretion make the sperm highly active and sperm acquire capacity
of fertilization is called capacitation.
5. The process in which union of male and female gametes (formed by gametogenesis) and fusion
of pronuclei of sperm and ovum takes place thus diploid zygote is formed, is called fertilization.
Fertilization has following processes:- The union of male and female gametes is called
Syngamy, where as intermixing of their cytoplasm is called plasmogamy. The fusion of pronuclei
of sperm and ovum is called karyogamy. The intermingling of their chromosomes is called
amphimixis.

Ovum surrounded by few sperms

6. A number of sperms adhere to the surface of egg (Agglutination). The acrosome starts releasing
its hydrolytic enzymes of sperms lysins which include.
(a) Hyaluronidase: Dissolves the hyaluronic acid responsible for cementing of follicle cells or
granulosa cells.
(b) Zona lysin /Acrosin: Digests the zona pellucida.
7. The entry of sperm into the ovum induces completion of the meiotic division of the secondary
oocyte. Entry of sperm causes breakdown of metaphase promoting factor (MPF) and turns on
anaphase promoting complex (APC). This results in completion of meiosis-II. The second meiotic
division is also unequal and results in the formation of a second polar body and a haploid ovum
(ootid). Soon the haploid nucleus of the sperm and that of ovum fuse together to form a diploid
zygote.

18 Human Reproduction
8. At the point of contact with sperm and plasma-membrane of egg a cone-like structure is
formed called reception cone. After some time reception cone sinks in egg cytoplasm along
with sperm (entry of sperm is a type of phagocytosis).
With the entry of sperm all the cortical granules burst and secrete a membrane around the egg
is called fertilization membrane (cortical reaction). It is secreted on inner surface of primary
egg membrane and perivitelline space become more wide and amount of perivitelline fluid is
also increase. Function of perivitelline fluid and fertilization membrane is to prevent the entry
of sperm in egg. so normally only one sperm enter inside the egg (monospermy). Sometimes
more than one sperm enter inside the egg (polyspermy).

General Stages of Embryonic Development

1. Cleavage – The mitotic division starts as the zygote moves through the isthmus of the oviduct
called cleavage towards the uterus and forms 2, 4, 8, 16, daughter cells called blastomeres. The
embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a morula.
2. Morula - As a result of segmentation or cleavage activities, unicellular zygote changes into a
solid ball like multicellular structure. In the later stage of cleavage, clusters of sticky, cohering,
protruding (outside) blastomeres are produced, which look like mulberry. This 8-16 celled stage
is termed as morula stage.
3. Blastocyst Formation- Blastula of Eutherian & Metatherian mammals is called Blastocyst,
because blastula is in the form of a cyst.
• The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast and
an inner group of cells attached to trophoblast called the inner cell mass (embryonal knob).
The trophoblast layer then gets attached to the endometrium and the inner cell mass gets
differentiated as the embryo.
• After attachment, the uterine cells divide rapidly and covers the blastocyst. As a result, the
blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus. This is called implantation
and it leads to pregnancy.
• In human, the site of implantation is generally mid-dorsal/fundus part of uterus.
• Implantation of blastocyst takes about 7-8 days after fertilization in human and by 12th day
it is completely buried in the wall of the uterus.
• After implantation, the wall of uterus is called as decidua, instead of endometrium.
Decidua also comes out from uterus at the time of parturition.

Fig. Transport of ovum, fertilization and passage of growing embryo through fallopian tube

Human Reproduction 19
Summary of developmental stages in human

• The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by listening to the heart sound carefully
through the stethoscope.
• After one month of pregnancy, the embryo's heart is formed.
• By the end of the second month of pregnancy the foetus develops limbs and digits.
• By the end of 12 weeks (First trimester), most of the major organ system are formed. for
example, the limbs and external genital organs are well developed
• The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed
during the fifth month.
• By the end of 24 weeks (Second trimester), the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids
separate and eye lashes are formed.
• By the end of nine months of pregnancy, the foetus is fully developed and is ready for delivery.

Extra Embryonic Membranes and Placenta

Fig. Formation of extraembryonic membranes in human

1. Amnion: With a gradual increase in size the amnion covers the embryo from all sides. After
about eight weeks of fertilization, amnion is completely incorporated into connecting stalk,
which finally forms the umbilical cord. Embryo, in this stage, is called as foetus remains
hanging in amniotic fluid.
2. Chorion: After implantation of blastocyst, the trophoblast gives out several finger like
processes, the chorionic villi which get embedded into uterine endometrium Mesoderm also
contributes in the formation of these villi. After a period of four month these villi disappear
from all parts except the connecting stalk where they grow rapidly and participate in the
formation of placenta.
3. Yolk sac: Initially the size of yolk sac is larger as compared to that of the embryo. About
eight weeks after fertilization, the yolk is reduced in size and changes into a tubular
structure. Ultimately a placenta is developed with the incorporation of yolk sac and
mesodermal connecting stalk with the amnion and chorion.
4. Allantois: The mesoderm of allantois forms many small blood vessels in this region. These vessels
connect the embryo with placenta and ensure nutritional and respiratory supply to embryo. In
human, allantois does not function to store the excretory wastes as it does in reptiles and birds.

20 Human Reproduction
Pregnancy and Embryonic Development

Placenta
• After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi which
are surrounded by the uterine tissue and maternal blood. The chorionic villi and uterine tissue
become interdigitated with each other and jointly form a structural and functional unit between
developing embryo (foetus) and maternal body called placenta.
• Placenta is found in all viviparous animals. Exept sub-class-prototheria;
• The placenta facilitate the supply of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo and also removal of
carbon dioxide and excretory/waste materials produced by the embryo.
• The placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord which helps in the transport
of substances to and from the embryo.
• Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL), estrogens, progestogens, etc. In the later
phase of pregnancy, a hormone called relaxin is also secreted by the placenta.
• HCG, HPL and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy.
• In addition, during pregnancy the levels of other hormones like estrogens, progestogens,
cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine, etc., are increased several folds in the maternal blood. Increased
production of these hormones is essential for supporting the fetal growth, metabolic changes
in the mother and maintenance of pregnancy.

Fig. The human foetus within the uterus

Parturition
• The average duration of human pregnancy is about 9 months which is called the gestation
period.
• Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the end of pregnancy causes expulsion/delivery of the
foetus. This process of delivery of the foetus (childbirth) is called parturition.
• Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.
• The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta which
induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex.

Human Reproduction 21
• This triggers release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary. Oxytocin acts on the uterine
muscle and causes stronger uterine contractions, which in turn stimulates further secretion of
oxytocin. The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion
continues resulting in stronger and stronger contractions. The labour pain during child birth, is
due to this hormone. Oxytocin is the main parturition hormone. Oxytocin stimulates milk let
down by milk ejection reflex.
• Relaxin hormone is secreted by the placenta and the ovary of pregnant female. This hormone
relaxes the public symphysis i.e. the joint between the pelvic girdles. So more space is available
to the foetus to move out.
• Soon after the infant is delivered, the placenta is also expelled out of the uterus.

Lactation
• The mammary glands of the female undergo differentiation during pregnancy and starts
producing milk towards the end of pregnancy by the process called lactation. This helps the
mother in feeding the newborn.
• The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum which contains
several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new-born babies. Breast-
feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing up a
healthy baby.
Special Points
Gynaecomastia – Development of breast in the male.
Amenorrhoea – Absence of menstruation cycle.
Hysterectomy – Surgical removal of uterus.
Oopherectomy – Removal of ovaries.

Concept Builder

1. The average duration of human pregnancy is about –

(1) 10 weeks (2) 28 weeks (3) 32 weeks (4) 9 months
2. Mammary glands of the female undergo differentiation during pregnancy & starts producing milk –
(1) At the end of pregnancy (2) At the end of 1st trimester
(3) During pregnancy (4) Before pregnancy
3. Breast feeding during initial period is –
(1) Good for healthy baby
(2) Recommended by doctors
(3) Essential to develop resistance to the new born babies
(4) All of these
4. The role of placenta is –
(1) To convey nerve impulses (2) To act as storage organ
(3) To protect mother from shocks (4) To provide nutrition for developing embryo
5. Placenta produce which hormone
(1) ACTH (2) Progesterone (3) GH (4) Gastrin

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. 4 1 4 4 2

22 Human Reproduction
 Exercise - I
Male Reproductive System 9. Temperature in scrotum necessary for
sperm formation should be:
1. Cauda epididymis leads to:
(1) Rete testis (2) Vas efferens (1) 2°C above than body temperature
(3) Vas deferens (4) Ejaculatory duct (2) 2-2.5°C below than body
temperature
2. The urethra originates from the …a…
(3) 8°C above than body temperature
and extends through the …b… to its
(4) 8°C below than body temperature
external opening called …C…
(1) a–ureters, b–urinary bladder, c– 10. Epididymis is:
urethral sphincter (1) Network of sinuses between
(2) a–urinary bladder, b–testis, c– seminiferous tubules and vasa efferentia
urethral meatus (2) Intermidiate structure between rete
(3) a–penis, b–urinary bladder, c– testis and vasa effferentia
urethral meatus (3) A long coiled tube between vasa
(4) a–urinary bladder, b–penis, c– efferentia and vas deferens
urethral meatus (4) Connection between vas deferens
3. In male, the acidity in the urethra is and seminal vesicle
neutralized by the secretions of:
11. Each testis has how many testicular
(1) Cowper's gland (2) Bartholin glands
(3) Perineal glands (4) Leydig cells lobules:
(1) 100 (2) 150 (3) 250 (4) 750
4. Seminal plasma contains the secretions of:
(1) Follicles, uterus and prostate gland 12. Which of the following duct stores
(2) Prostate, Cowper's and Bartholin's gland sperm?
(3) Seminal vesicle, uterus and prostate (1) Vasa efferentia (2) Rete testis
gland (3) Epididymis (4) Vas deferens
(4) Seminal vesicle, prostate and
13. Spermatogenesis start at puberty due to
Cowper's gland
significant increase in the secretion of:
5. Which one is unpaired gland in male (1) GnRH (2) Estrogen
reproductive system ?
(3) Oxytocin (4) Progesterone
(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Cowper's gland
(3) Prostate gland (4) Lacrimal gland 14. For normal fertility, how many
percentage of sperm must have normal
6. Sugar fructose is present in the
shape and size:
secretion of:
(1) 50% (2) 25% (3) 40% (4) 60%
(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Perineal gland
(3) Cowper's gland (4) Bartholin's gland 15. What does '?' represent?
7. What would happen if vas deferens of
man are cut?
(1) Semen is not formed
(2) Spermatogenesis does not occur
(3) Semen is without sperms
(4) Sperm are non motile
8. Leydig cells are found in:
(1) Seminiferous tubules (1) Ureter
(2) Testis (2) Ejaculatory duct
(3) Ovary (3) Bulbourethral gland
(4) Epididymis (4) Urethra

Human Reproduction 23
16. Luteinizing hormone (LH) acts on ____ 24. Accessory glands of male reproductive
cells and stimulates synthesis and system are:
secretion of ____. (1) Prostate and seminal vesicles
(1) Leydig cells, FSH (2) Prostate, Bartholin’s and seminal
(2) Interstitial cells, androgens vesicles
(3) Leydig cells, GnRH (3) Seminal vesicles and Bartholin’s
(4) None of these (4) Prostate, Cowper’s and seminal
vesicles
17. Common duct formed by the union of
vas deferens & duct of seminal vesicle is – 25. If Cowper’s gland is removed, then which
(1) Urethra of the following would be affected?
(2) Ureter (1) Sexual attraction
(3) Ejaculatory duct (2) Capacitation of sperms
(4) Spermatic duct (3) Copulation and fertilization
(4) Hardness of penis
18. Sperms are stored & nourished inside –
26. Function of prostate glands is:
(1) Cowper's gland
(1) Storage of semen
(2) Epididymis
(2) Provide motility to sperms
(3) Seminiferous tubules
(3) Formation of sperm
(4) Vasa efferentia
(4) Release of hormones
19. Role of leydig cells of testis is –
27. Which one of the following is not a male
(1) Provide nourishment to sperms
accessory gland ?
(2) Provide motility to sperms
(1) Seminal vesicle
(3) Bring about maturation of sperms
(2) Ampulla
(4) Synthesis of testosterone hormone
(3) Prostate
20. Vas deferens arises from – (4) Bulbourethral gland
(1) Cauda epididymis
28. The head of the epididymis at the head
(2) Caput epididymis of the testis is called:
(3) Corpus epididymis (1) Cauda epididymis
(4) Rete testis (2) Vas deferens
21. Which one of the following is not an (3) Caput epididymis
accessory male duct in context of male (4) Gubernaculum
reproductive system? Gonads - Testes
(1) Rete testis (2) Testes
29. The tunica albuginea is a covering
(3) Epididymis (4) Vas deferens
around the:
22. In male, penis is covered by a loose fold (1) Testes (2) Kidneys
of skin called as: - (3) Uterus (4) Epididymis
(1) Foreskin
30. Testosterone is a/an:
(2) Urethral meatus
(1) Steroid (2) Protein
(3) External genitalia
(3) Octapeptide (4) Glycoprotein
(4) Fimbriae
31. The primary regulator of Leydig cell
23. Which is not a secondary sex organ ?
secretion is:
(1) Vagina (1) FSH releasing factor
(2) Penis (2) Androgen-binding protein
(3) Prostate gland (3) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(4) Mammary gland (4) Follicle stimulating hormone

24 Human Reproduction
32. Testosterone is secreted by: 41. Spermatogenesis and sperm differentiation
(1) Leydigs cells (2) Sertoli cells are under the control of:
(3) Pituitary gland (4) Testis (1) FSH
(2) TSH
33. Which of the following group of (3) Progesterone
hormones are produced in women only (4) Parathyroid Harmone
during pregnancy ?
42. Testes descend into scrotum in
(1) hCG, hPL relaxin
mammals for:
(2) Estrogen, progesterone, hCG
(1) Spermatogenesis
(3) Cortison, prolactin, thyroxine
(2) Fertilization
(4) Prolactin, progesterone, hCG (3) Development of sex organs
34. Scrotal sacs of man are connected with (4) Development of visceral organs
the abdominal cavity by: 43. Which cells are found in between
(1) Inguinal canal (2) Haversian canal spermatogonia?
(3) Vagina cavity (4) Spermatic canal (1) Germinal cells (2) Epithelial cells
(3) Sertoli cells (4) Lymphatic space
35. Partitions of testis develop from: -
(1) Tunica vasculosa 44. Formation of sperms occurs in: -
(2) Tunica albuginea (1) Rete testis
(3) Tunica vaginalis (2) Seminiferous tubules
(4) Rete testis (3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Mediastinum testis
36. Two types of cells present in the lining
45. The fusion of male and female gametes
of seminiferous tubules are __ and ___.
is known as
(1) Leydig cells, sertoli cells. (1) Insemination (2) Fertilization
(2) Male germ cells, sertoli cells. (3) Implantation (4) Parturition
(3) Spermatogonium, spermatids.
46. Which is not correct about sertoli cells ?
(4) Primary oocyte, leydig cells.
(1) It is situated in between the
37. Increased secretion of which hormone germinal epithelial cell
start the process of sperm formation at (2) It is related with the nutrition of
the time of puberty? sperm
(1) GH (2) TSH (3) It forms blood testis barrier
(3) PRL (4) GnRH (4) It secretes testosterone

38. Sertoli cells are found in: 47. Synthesis of testosterone by Leydig cells
(1) Testis of mammal is stimulated by:
(2) Ovary of mammal (1) GH (2) TSH (3) FSH (4) ICSH
(3) Testis of Ascaris 48. The cells which secrete androgens are
(4) Pancreas of frog (1) Spermatozoa
(2) Interstitial cells
39. Which of the following controls the
(3) Sertoli cells
function of Sertoli cells ?
(4) Germ cells
(1) FSH (2) ICSH
(3) Oestrogen (4) Testosterone 49. If A stands for seminal vesicles, B stands
for bulbourethral glands, C stands for
40. Which of the following releases inhibin prostate gland, then which of the
to control spermatogenesis ? following is true?
(1) Rete testis (1) A and C occurs in pair
(2) Follicular cells (2) A and B occur in pair
(3) Leydig's cells (3) B and C occur in pair
(4) Sertoli cells (4) None of these

Human Reproduction 25
 Female Reproductive System 57. The fimbriae help in:
(1) Collection of the ovum after ovulation
50. Egg is liberated from ovary in
(2) Maintain the shape of ovary
(1) Secondary oocyte stage
(3) Provide the path to sperm during
(2) Primary oocyte stage
fertilization
(3) Oogonial stage
(4) Release of ovum from ovary.
(4) Mature ovum stage
Female External Genitalia
Figure given for question 51 to 52.
58. Identify the odd one from the following:
(1) Labia minora (2) Fimbriae
(3) Infundibulum (4) Isthmus
59. Endometrium is lining of:
(1) Testis (2) Urinary bladder
(3) Uterus (4) Ureter
60. Which of the following is not related to
vulva ?
51. In the figure, identify the structure 'F' (1) Mons-pubis (2) Clitoris
which consists of 'G' and 'H'. (3) Labia majora (4) Cervix
(1) Ovary (2) Fallopian tube
(3) Uterus (4) Cervix 61. When both ovary are removed from
human then which hormone is
52. What does 'D' represent in the figure? decreases in blood ?
(1) Pericardium (2) Perimetrium (1) Oxytocin
(3) Peritoneum (4) Epimetrium (2) Prolactin
53. What is indicated by 'B' in the figure? (3) Estrogen
(1) Villi (2) Endothelium (4) Gonadotrophic releasing factor
(3) Endometrium (4) Epithelium 62. Womb is the another name of:
54. It is a middle thick layer of smooth (1) Vagina (2) Cervix
muscle, which exhibits strong (3) Oviduct (4) Uterus
contraction during delivery of the baby – 63. Identify the structure belongs to female
(1) Endometrium (2) Myometrium external genitalia:
(3) Epimetrium (4) Perimetrium (1) Labia minora (2) Fimbriae
55. Correct sequence of different layers of (3) Infundibulum (4) Isthmus
uterine wall is (respectively from outside 64. Which part of vulva is considered
to inside) :- equivalent or homologous to the male
(1) Perimetrium → Endometrium → penis –
Myometrium (1) Clitoris (2) Hymen
(2) Myometrium → Perimetrium → (3) Labia minora (4) Mons pubis
Endometrium
(3) Endometrium → Myometrium → 65. Secondary sex organ is:
Endometrium (1) Testis (2) Ovary
(4) Perimetrium → Myometrium → (3) Beard (4) Vasa deferens
Endometrium Female Accessory Glands
Fallopian Tube 66. During puberty stage, which sex
56. The part of fallopian tube closer to hormone stimulate the enlargement of
ovary: breast –
(1) Ampulla (2) Isthmus (1) FSH & LH (2) Estrogen
(3) Infundibulum (4) Fundus (3) Testosterone (4) Androgens

26 Human Reproduction
67. In mammals the female secondary Spermatogenesis
sexual characters are developed mainly
73. For normal fertility:
by the hormone
(1) At least 60% sperm must show
(1) Relaxin (2) Estrogens
vigrous motility
(3) Progesterone (4) Gonadotropins (2) At least 40% sperm must have
Mammary Gland normal shape and size
(3) At least 30% sperm must have
68. Which gland of female undergo normal activity and function
differentiation during pregnancy ? (4) At least 40% sperm must show
(1) Thyroid (2) Mammary vigrous motility or 60% sperm must
(3) Pituitary (4) Thymus have normal shape and size
69. Several mammary ducts join to form 74. Correct order of spermatogenesis is:
(1) Mammary lobe (1) Primary Spermatocytes → Spermatogonia
(2) Alveoli → Spermatid → Sperm
(3) Mammary ampulla (2) Spermatogonia → Spermatid →
(4) Lactiferous duct
Spermatocytes → Sperm
Figure given for question 70 to 71. (3) Spermatid → Spermatogonia →
Spermatocytes → Sperm
(4) Spermatogonia → Primary Spermatocytes
→ Secondary Spermatocytes → Spermatid
→ Sperm
75. ‘Spermiogenesis’ is a process in which: -
(1) Spermatocytes give rise to
spermatozoa
(2) Spermatogonium produces a spermatid
(3) Spermatids are changed into
70. What is indicated by 'A' in the figure?
spermatozoa
(1) Nipple
(4) Dormant spermatozoa become
(2) Areola
active just before ejaculation
(3) Laticiferous duct
(4) Breast 76. During spermatogenesis how many
sperms are formed from a single primary
71. What does 'B' represent in the figure?
spermatocyte:
(1) Laticiferous duct
(1) 1 (2) 2
(2) Ampulla (3) 4 (4) 8
(3) Mammary duct
(4) Areola 77. How many secondary spermatocytes
will form 400 spermatozoa?
72. The mammary glands are paired (1) 100 (2) 400
structure (breasts) that contain (3) 40 (4) 200
glandular tissue and variable amount of 78. Identify the stage of sperm formation
fat. The glandular tissue of breast is during which the cytoplasmic volume of
divided into spermatid reduces:
(1) 10–12 mammary lobes (1) Spermiogenesis
(2) 12–16 mammary tubules (2) Spermatidogenesis
(3) 15–20 mammary alveoli (3) Spermatocytogenesis
(4) 15–20 mammary lobes (4) Spermiation

Human Reproduction 27
79. A complicated process of growth & 85. Which of the following is haploid ?
change converts the spermatid into a:- (1) Primary spermatocytes & primary
(1) Spermatogonia Oocytes
(2) Primary spermatocyte (2) Secondary spermatocytes & secondary
(3) Secondary spermatocyte Oocytes
(4) Functional sperm or spermatozoa (3) Spermatogonia and Oogonia
(4) Spermatogonia and secondary
80. Ejaculation of human male contains
oocyte
about 200 – 300 million sperms, of
which for normal fertility ____ % sperms 86. How many sperm and ova will be formed
must have normal shape and size and at from 50 secondary oocytes and 50
least ____% must show energetic secondary spermatocytes ?
motility. (1) 50 ova & 200 sperm
(1) 40, 60 (2) 50, 50 (2) 50 ova & 100 sperm
(3) 60, 40 (4) 30, 70 (3) 100 ova & 200 sperm
(4) 100 ova & 400 sperm
81. Which is unique in the process of
oogenesis as compare to process of 87. The process of spermatogenesis and
spermatogenesis – oogenesis in most vertebrates are under
(1) Polar body formation the influence of which hormone:
(2) Meiotic division (1) Oxytocin (2) FSH
(3) Equal cytoplasmic division (3) ACTH (4) LH
(4) Mitotic division
Structure of Sperm
82. Which of the following is diploid ?
88. Which piece of a sperm is called power
(1) Secondary spermatocytes, oogonia
house ?
(2) Spermatozoa & ova
(1) Head piece (2) Neck piece
(3) Spermatogonia, Oogonia, Primary
(3) Middle piece (4) Tail piece
spermatocyte
(4) Secondary oocytes, Primary
Figure given for question 89 & 90.
Spermatocyte

83. Spermatogenesis starts at the age of

puberty due to significant increase in the
secretion of
(1) Somatostatin from hypothalamus
(2) GnRH from hypothalamus
(3) GnRH from anterior pituitary gland
(4) GnRH from posterior pituitary gland

84. In spermatogenesis, reduction division

of chromosomes occurs during
89. What does 'C' represent in the figure?
conversion of
(1) Middle piece (2) Mitochondria
(1) Primary spermatocytes to secondary
(3) Neck (4) Tali
spermatocytes
(2) Spermatogonia to primary 90. What is indicated by 'D' in the figure?
spermatocytes (1) Plasma membrane
(3) Spermatids to sperms (2) Nuclear membrane
(4) Secondary spermatocytes to (3) Acrosome
spermatids (4) Hyaluronidase

28 Human Reproduction
91. Acrosome formation in spermatogenesis 99. Eggs librated from ovary in human is:
occurs in which stage? (1) Secondary oocyte stage
(1) Spermiogenesis (2) Primary oocyte stage
(2) First meiotic division (3) Oogonial stage
(3) Growth phase (4) Mature ovum stage
(4) Spermiogenesis 100. Number of eggs released in the life time
92. The head of a mature sperm is mainly of a woman is approximately :
composed of: (1) 4,00,000 (2) 450
(1) Elongated nucleus and acrosomal (3) 4000 (4) 1,60,000
material 101. At what stage of life is oogenesis
(2) Mitochondria, cytoplasm & nucleus initiated in a human female ?
(3) Two centriole & the axial filament (1) At puberty
(4) All of the above (2) During menarch
93. The acrosome plays a role in: (3) During menopause
(4) During embryonic development
(1) Fusion of nuclei of gametes
(2) Motility of sperm 102. How many ova are formed in oogenesis -
(3) Penetration of sperm in to ovum (1) Only one (2) Two
(4) All of the above (3) Three (4) Four

94. Part of sperm involved in penetrating Ovaries

egg membrane is: 103. The ovaries are located one on each side
(1) Tail (2) Acrosome of the lower abdomen and is connected
(3) Middle Piece (4) Centriole to the pelvic wall and uterus by
Oogenesis (1) Ligaments
(2) Tendons
95. Cytoplasm of ovum does not contain:
(3) Loose connective tissue
(1) Ribosomes (2) Mitochondria (4) Dense irregular connective tissue
(3) Goldi bodies (4) Centrosomes
104. Abdominal ostium is the aperture
96. The minute cells which separate from present in: -
the developing ova during their (1) Oviduct
maturation are called (2) Fimbriated fallopian funnel
(1) Primary Oogonia (3) Ovary
(2) Secondary Oogonia (4) Cloaca
(3) Polar bodies
105. The mitotic division start as the zygote
(4) Primary spermatogonia
moves through the ______ of the oviduct
97. Polar body is produced during the called cleavage towards the uterus.
formation of: (1) Isthmus (2) Ampulla
(1) Sperm (2) Secondary oocyte (3) Fimbriae (4) Infundibulum
(3) Oogonium (4) Spermatocytes
106. Expanded proximal part of oviduct in
98. A human female has the maximum female is:
number of primary oocytes in her (1) Uterus (2) Ampulla
ovaries: (3) Isthmus (4) Infundibulum
(1) At menopause 107. Which temporary endocrine gland forms
(2) At Puberty in ovary after ovulation ?
(3) At Birth (1) Corpus callosum (2) Corpus albicans
(4) Early in her fertile years (3) Corpus luteum (4) Corpus striata

Human Reproduction 29
108. Corpus luteum secretes: 116. What does 'B' represent in the figure?
(1) LH (2) Oxytocin (1) Ovum (2) Oogonium
(3) Progesterone (4) FSH (3) Mature follicle (4) Zona pellucida
109. Corpus luteum is: Menstrual Cycle
(1) Excretory (2) Endocrine
117. When do both LH & LSH attain a peak
(3) Digestive (4) Reproductive
level in a menstrual cycle.
110. A glycoprotein non-cellular membrane (1) In last week of the cycle
which normally surrounds the ovum of a (2) In mid of the cycle
mammal: (3) During Initial days of cycle
(1) Corona radiata (4) On 4th day of cycle
(2) Jelly envelope
118. The wall of the uterus has three layers
(3) Zona pellucida
of tissue. The layer which undergoes
(4) Granulosa membrane
cyclical change during menstrual cycle
111. Fertilization occurs in :– is:
(1) Oocyte (2) Uterus (1) Perimentrium (2) Myometrium
(3) Ovary (4) Oviduct (3) Endometrium (4) Both (2) & (3)

112. The ovarian stroma is divided into zones 119. First menstruation begins at puberty
(1) Peripheral medulla and inner cortex and is called:
(2) Peripheral epithelia and inner (1) Menses (2) Menopause
endothelia (3) Menarche (4) Implantation
(3) Peripheral cortex and inner medulla 120. In Human, duration of menstrual cycle is:
(4) Peripheral endothelia and inner
(1) 21 days (2) 28 days
epithelia
(3) 38 days (4) 40 days
113. The primary and secondary follicle are 121. Stages in menstrual cycle are:
surrounded by cells known as (1) Recovery and proliferative phase
(1) Granulosa (2) Mucosa (2) Proliferative and secretory phase
(3) Serosa (4) Granuloma (3) Proliferative, secretory and
114. The tertiary follicle in ovary is menstrual phase
characterized by the presence of (4) Recovery phase, secretory phase and
(1) Fundus (2) Antrum phase of menstrual flow
(3) Vacuole (4) Cavity 122. Cessation of menstrual cycle is called:
Figure given for question 115 to 116. (1) Ovulation (2) Menopause
(3) Menarche (4) Menses
123. Phase of menstrual cycle in human that
lasts for 7-8 days is:
(1) Follicular phase (2) Ovulatory phase
(3) Luteal phase (4) Menstruation
124. Progesterone level falls leading to:
(1) Gestation (2) Menopause
115. What does 'A' represent in the figure? (3) Lactation (4) Mensturation
(1) Antrum 125. If menstual cycle is 30 days & bleeding
(2) Corpus luteum start on Ist day then ovulation occur on:
(3) Corpora cavernosa (1) 14th day (2) 18th day
(4) Ovum (3) 30th day (4) 16th day

30 Human Reproduction
126. Which of the following hormone initiates 135. Which of the facts is true about
a metabolic rise that results into the menstruation?
rupture of graafian follicle? (1) It occurs only when the released
(1) Prolactin (2) HCG ovum is not fertilized.
(3) FSH (4) LH (2) It occurs due to the breakdown of
127. Level of estrogen and progesterone are endometrial lining.
minimum at the time of: (3) Menstrual flow lasts for 3 to 5 days.
(1) Follicular phase (2) Ovulation (4) All the above
(3) Secretory phase (4) Menses
136. In 28-day human ovarian cycle,
128. In which phase of menstrual cycle Graafian ovulation occurs on
follicle is transformed into corpus luteum?
(1) Day (2) Day 5
(1) Proliferative phase
(3) Day 14 (4) Day 28
(2) Luteal phase
(3) Growth phase 137. Events of menstrual cycle are the cyclic
(4) Follicular phase changes in the –
129. Ovulation is: (1) Myometrium (2) Perimetrium
(1) Releasing of secondary oocyte from ovary (3) Endometrium (4) Epimetrium
(2) Releasing of primary oocyte from ovary 138. In menstrual cycle on which day
(3) Releasing of polar body
progestrone level rises –
(4) Releasing of graffian follicle
(1) 1st to 5th day (2) 6th to 14th day
130. In which phase of menstrual cycle Graffian (3) 13th to 14th day (4) 15th to 28th day
follicle transform as the corpus luteum.
(1) Luteal (2) Proliferation 139. Period of the cycle is know as the
(3) Follicular (4) Growth proliferative phase is:-
(1) 1st to 5th day (2) 6th to 13th day
131. Which hormones is essential for
(3) 15th to 28th day (4) 14thto 15th day
maintenance of the endometrium?
(1) FSH (2) LH 140. In what stage of menstrual cycle does
(3) Progesterone (4) Testosterone the corpus luteum form:-
132. Which of the following is an indicator of (1) Proliferative phase
normal reproductive phase and extends (2) Follicular phase
between menarche and menopause? (3) Menses
(1) Menstruation cycle (4) Luteal phase
(2) Estrous cycle
141. How many polar bodies are produced
(3) Ovulation
during the entire process of oogenesis in
(4) Implantation
virgin human female?
133. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of (1) Three (2) Two
(1) Pregnancy
(3) Four (4) One
(2) Routine work stress
(3) Poor health 142. Which of the following is an indicator of
(4) All of these normal reproductive phase and extends
134. In females, gonadotropins attain a peak between menarche and menopause.
level at about ____ day of the menstrual (1) Menstruation cycle
cycle. (2) Estrous cycle
(1) 15th (2) 14th (3) Ovulation
(3) 28th (4) 29th (4) Implantation

Human Reproduction 31
 Fertilization 151. Implantation leads to
(1) Formation of trophoblast in blastocyst
143. Site of fertilization in mammal is:
(2) Formation of inner cell mass in blastocyst
(1) Ovary (2) Uterus
(3) Pregnancy
(3) Vagina (4) Fallopian tube (4) All the above
144. Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggeres: 152. If fertilization does not occur corpus
(1) Capacitation luteum ____.
(2) Release of zona lysin (1) Proliferates (2) Degenerates
(3) Influx of Na+ (3) Regenerates (4) Divides
(4) Release of fertilizin.
Figure given for question 153 to 154.
145. Which of the following enzyme helps
sperm to penetrate zona pellucida ?
(1) Hyaluronidase
(2) Neuraminidase
(3) Acrosin/zonalysin
(4) Corona penetrating enzyme

146. Intermixing of cytoplasm of sperm and

egg is known as: – 153. What is indicated by 'B' in the figure?
(1) Syngamy (2) Karyogamy (1) Ovum
(3) Amphimixis (4) Plasmogamy (2) Cells of corona radiata
(3) Perivitelline space
147. The fertilized egg in human female is
(4) Zona pellucida
implanted in the uterus after:
(1) One month of fertilization 154. What does 'A' represent in the figure?
(2) Two months of fertilization (1) Cells of corona radiata
(3) Three weeks of fertilization (2) Sperm
(4) About seven days of fertilization (3) Perivitelline space
(4) Zona pellucida
148. Fertilization takes place at:
(1) Cervix Cleavage
(2) Ampullary region of fallopian tube 155. What does '?' represent in this figure?
(3) Infundibulum region of fallopian tube
(4) Uterus

149. During fertilization, a sperm comes in

contact with which layer of the ovum.
(1) Jelly coat
(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Vitelline membrane
(4) Perivitelline space

150. The transfer of sperms into the female

genital tract is called
(1) Insemination (1) Blastocyst
(2) Gametogenesis (2) Blastocyst implantation
(3) Fertilization (3) Morula
(4) Gestation (4) Cells

32 Human Reproduction
156. After formation of zygote, it cleaves into 166. Stage of embryonic development in
2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells called which differentiation of cell occurs:
(1) Blastocyst (2) Morula (1) Blastula (2) Morula
(3) Trophoblast (4) Blastomere (3) Gastrula (4) Neurula

Gastrulation 167. During pregnancy, the urine of female

would contain:
157. Development of foetus takes place in:
(1) LH (2) Progesterone
(1) Vagina (2) Uterus (3) FSH (4) hCG
(3) Ovary (4) Oviduct
168. Which germ layer develops first during
158. Stem cells are found in: - embryonic development ?
(1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm (1) Ectoderm (2) Mesoderm
(3) Inner cell mass (4) Mesoderm (3) Endoderm (4) Both (2) and (3)
159. Pregnancy hormone is: 169. In human embryo the extra embryonic
(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone membrane are formed by:
(3) Oxytocin (4) FSH (1) Inner cell mass (2) Trophoblast
(3) Formative cells (4) Follicles cells
160. Stage of embryo development at which
implantation occurs in human female is: 170. If pergnancy does not occur, the corpus
(1) Morula (2) Zygote luteum will disintegrate & turn into:-
(3) Blastocyst (4) Gastrula (1) Corpus callosum
(2) Corpus albicans
161. Which hormone is secreted in women
(3) Corpus cavernosa
only during the pregnancy?
(4) Corpus Epididymis
(1) Progesterone (2) hPL
(3) Estrogen (4) Thyroxin 171. Villi of human placenta develop from:
(1) Chorion (2) Allantois
162. Three germ layers are formed during (3) Yolk sac (4) Amnion
which stage of Embryonic development:
(1) Morula (2) Blastrula 172. Correct sequence in development is:
(3) Gastrula (4) In any two stages (1) Fertilization → Zygote → Cleavage
→ Morula → Blastula → Gastrula
163. The first movements of the foetus and (2) Fertilization → Zygote → Blastula
apperance of hair on the head are → Morula → Cleavage → Gastrula
usually observed during the: (3) Fertilization → Cleavage → Morula
(1) 3rd month (2) 4th month → Zygote → Blastula → Gastrula
(3) 5th month (4) 8th month (4) Cleavage → Zygote → Fertilization
164. Which of the following hormones level is → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula
increased during pregnancy in the Placenta
maternal blood ?
173. Function of placenta is:
(a) FSH (b) Progesterone
(1) Supply of O2 to embryo
(c) Thyroxin (d) Cortisol
(2) Removal of CO2 produced by the embryo
(e) LH (f) Estrogen
(3) Produces several hormones
(1) a, b, e, f (2) a, b, c, d, e
(4) All of above
(3) c, d, a (4) b, d, c, f
174. Placenta contains:
165. Cells formed as a result of cleavage are (1) Only chorionic villi
called as :– (2) Only uterine tissue
(1) Megameres (2) Micromeres (3) Chorionic villi + uterine tissue
(3) Blastocyst (4) Blastomeres (4) Trophoblast + chorionic villi

Human Reproduction 33
175. Placenta also acts as a/an tissue. 185. After implantation the finger-like
(1) Endocrine (2) Exocrine projections on the trophoblast are
(3) Paracrine (4) Mepacrine surrounded by
176. Which of the following hormone is (1) Uterine tissue (2) Maternal blood
released by placenta? (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Either (1) and (2)
(1) FSH (2) hCG
186. The second trimester of human
(3) Relaxin (4) LH
pregnancy is characterized by
Parturition (1) Appearance of heart and aorta
(2) Appearance of external genital organs
177. Which hormone acts on uterine
myometrium during parturition? (3) Appearance of fine hair, eye-lashes
(1) LH (2) Estrogen on the eye-lids
(3) Relaxin (4) Oxytocin (4) Appearance of limbs and digits

178. The expulsion of completely developed Parturition

foetus from the uterus is known as:
187. Birth canal is formed by
(1) Ovulation (2) Oviposition
(1) Cervical canal + Uterus
(3) Gestation (4) Parturition
(2) Cervical canal + Vagina
179. Which of these in not an important (3) Cervical canal + Isthmus
component of initiation of parturition in
(4) Cervical canal + Fallopian tube
humans ?
(1) Synthesis of prostaglandins 188. Parturition is induced by:
(2) Release of oxytocin (1) A complex neuroendocrine mechanism
(3) Release of prolactin (2) A simple neuroendo crine mechanism
(4) Increase in estrogen and (3) A neuro exocrine mechanism
progesterone ratio (4) A physio-chemical mechanism
180. The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is
189. Which hormon acts on the uterus during
called:
parturition ?
(1) Morula (2) Blastula
(3) Gastrula (4) Foetus (1) Oxytocin (2) LH
(3) Estrogen (4) Relaxin
181. The average duration of human
pregnancy is about nine months which is 190. During parturition, the mild uterine
called: contractions which lead to expulsion of
(1) Gestation period (2) Parturition the foetus is known as
(3) Lactation (4) Implantation (1) Foetal ejection release
182. The outer layer of blastocyst is known as (2) Foetal ejection reflex
(1) Zona pellucida (2) Trophoblast (3) Foetal uterine reflex
(3) Blastomere (4) Corona radiata (4) Foetal placental reflex
183. Stem cells which have the potential to 191. Which hormone is responsible for severe
produce all types of cells, tissues and uterine contractions during parturition?
organs are present in (1) Oestrogen (2) Oxytocin
(1) Ectoderm (2) Inner cell mass (3) Progesterone (4) Relaxin
(3) Trophoblast (4) Endoderm
Lactation
184. After implantation the finger-like
projection which appears on the 192. The milk produced during the initial days
trophoblast are known as of lactation is called
(1) Intestinal villi (2) Ampullary villi (1) Menstrum (2) Colostrum
(3) Chorionic villi (4) Amniotic villi
(3) Gynostrum (4) None of these

34 Human Reproduction
 Exercise - II
1. Read the following statement carefully 6. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of
and choose the incorrect statements: a portion of human male reproductive
(1) The secretions of prostate glands
system. Select the correct set of names
also helps in the lubrication of the
penis. of the parts labelled A, B, C, D.
(2) The stroma of ovary divided into two
zones – a peripheral cortex and an
inner medulla.
(3) In between seminiferous tubules
leydig cells and some immunologically
competent cells are present.
(4) By the end of the second month of
pregnancy, the foetus develops
limbs and digits.

2. The __________ lead to vas deferens that

ascends to the ______ and loops over
the __________. (1) A: Vas deferens, B: Seminal vesicle, C:
(1) prostate, stomach, urinary bladder. Prostate, D: Bulbourethral gland
(2) epididymis, abdomen, urinary
(2) A: Vas deferens, B: Seminal vesicle,
bladder.
C: Bulbourethral gland, D: Prostate
(3) vas efferentia, abdomen, ureter.
(4) urinary bladder, ejaculatory duct, (3) A: Ureter, B: Seminal vesicle, C:
abdomen. Prostate, D: Bulbourethral gland

3. Seminiferous tubules is known for (4) A: Ureter, B: Prostate, C: Seminal

(1) Spermatogenesis vesicle, D: Bulbourethral gland
(2) Fertilization
(3) Ovulation 7. Which of the following is true regarding
(4) Insemination
the male reproductive system?
4. "Spermiogenesis" is a process in which: (1) Sperms are diploid.
(1) Spermatids change into spermatozoa
(2) It includes testes, accessory ducts
(2) Spermatogonia produce a spermatid
(3) Spermatocytes give rise to spermatozoa and glands, and oviducts.

(4) Dormant spermatozoa become active (3) The scrotum keeps the testes
just before ejaculation. warmer, thus helping it to promote
5. The ploidy of spermatogonia, primary the sperm formation.
spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte
(4) Sertoli cells are found in
and spermatid is
seminiferous tubules and provide
(1) 2n, 2n, 2n, n (2) n, 2n, 2n, n
(3) n, 2n, n, n (4) 2n, 2n, n, n nutrition to germ cells

Human Reproduction 35
8. Given below is the diagrammatic 10. The figure given below shows the
structure of sperm. Identify the correct
sectional view of seminiferous tubule
feature corresponding to the marked
with their parts marked as A, B, C, and structure A, B, C and D.

D. Select the option which shows the

correct identification of the structure

with its characteristics.

(1) A – Head: Its anterior portion is

covered by a structure filled with
enzymes that help in the fusion of
male and female gametes.
(1) A: Spermatozoa, secretes testicular (2) B – Middle piece: It contains a
haploid nucleus.
hormones that control spermatogenesis.
(3) C – Neck: It possesses few ribosomes
(2) B: Spermatogonium, it is also called which produces energy for the
process of fertilization.
male germ cells which undergo
(4) D – Tail: It releases energy source for
meiotic division to from spermatozoa. swimming of sperm.
(3) C: Interstitial cells, present in the 11. The hymen can be torn by
a. First coitus (intercourse)
interstitial spaces and store and
b. Sudden fall or jolt
transport the sperms from the testis c. Insertion of vaginal tampon
d. Active participation in cycling and
to the outside through the urethra.
horseback riding
(4) D: Sertoli cells, it maintains low (1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d (4) a, b, c and d
temperature of the testis
12. After the transformation of spermatids
9. The cellular layer that disintegrate and into sperm, their heads become embedded
in a cell called “X” and are finally released
regenerate again and again in human is:- from the “Y” by the process called “Z”.
(1) Endothelium of blood vessels Identify X, Y and Z.
X Y z
(2) Germinal epithelium of ovary (1) Spermatogonium Epididymis Insemination
(2) Leydig Vas deferens Parturition
(3) Tunica propria of seminiferous
Seminiferous
(3) Sertoli Spermiation
tubules tubule
Seminiferous
(4) Spermatocyte Spermiogenesis
(4) Endometrium of uterus tubule

36 Human Reproduction
13. Given below is a statement with some 15. Which is correct for colostrum ?
blanks. Fill up the blanks correctly - (1) It contains severel antibodies
The male reproductive system consists of (2) It produced during the last days of
two testes. Each testis contains thin folded lactation
tubes called the __A__ which meiosis takes (3) It is a pheromone
place to produce the male gametes, the
(4) It is white in colour
sperms. These sperms move to the ___B__.
(a highly coiled tube formed from the merging 16. If the epididymis is being removed, then
of the seminiferous tubules), and then to what will happen ?
the ___C___ or sperm duct. The two vasa (1) Short life span of sperm
deferentia merge to form the urethra, (2) Early cross the pathway
which travels to the outside of the body through
(3) Sperm will be incapable for fertilization
the penis The cells located between the
(4) Functional maturation is early
seminiferous tubules are called __D__. cells
and they are responsible for the formation 17. Bartholin’s glands occur in: –
of the male hormone, ___E___. (1) Females and produce oestrogen for
(1) A - Seminiferous tubules; regulating secondary sexual characters
B - epididymis; C - vas deferens;
(2) Males and form liquid part of semen
D - interstitial cells; E - testosterone
(3) Females and help in vestibular lubrication
(2) A - Seminiferous tubules;
B - epididymis; C - ejaculatory duct; (4) Males and produce alkaline fluid for
D - interstitial cells; E - testosterone neutralising urethral acidity.
(3) A - Seminiferous tubules; 18. Abnormal conditioning when the mammary
B - epididymis; C - vas deferens;
glands of man become female like is
D - interstitial cells;
called:
E - progesterone
(4) A - Uriniferous tubules; (1) Feminization
B - epididymis; C - vas deferens; (2) Gonochorism
D - interstitial cells; E – testosterone (3) Gynacomastism
(4) Gynoecism
14. Identify the structure marked as “X” and
its function in the given figure of male 19. Correctly matched pairs are:
reproductive system. 1. Clitoris - Erectile body in female
homologous to penis of male
2. Sexual intercourse - coitus
3. Colostrum - Secretion found in
seminal fluid
4. Areola - Pigmented circular area
around the nipple.
Answer codes:
(1) 1 and 2 are correct
(2) 2 and 4 are correct
(1) Rete testis: It helps seminiferous (3) 1 and 3 are correct
tubule to open into vas efferentia. (4) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(2) Bulbourethral gland: It secretes
alkaline mucus for lubricating the 20. First meiotic division during Oogenesis
reproductive tract. occurs in:
(3) Vas efferentia: They have contractile (1) Oogonia
mechanism that aids in the emission (2) Second polar body
of seminal fluid. (3) Primary oocytes
(4) Seminal vesicle: It synthesizes and (4) Secondary oocytes
secrete testicular hormone

Human Reproduction 37
21. Oocyte is liberated from ovary under the 25. Read the following statements (i to v)
influence of LH, after completing: and answer the following question.
(1) Meiosis I and after liberating second (i) This structure is also called womb.
(ii) Its shape is like an inverted pear.
polar bodies
(iii) The process of fertilization takes
(2) Meiosis I and before liberating
place in this structure.
second polar bodies (iv) The wall of this structure has three
(3) Meiosis II and liberating second polar layers of tissue.
bodies (v) It secretes several steroid hormones.
(4) Meiosis II after release of first polar Identify the correct characteristics
feature regarding uterus from the above
body
statements.
22. Which of the following statements is (1) (i) and (iv)
wrong? (2) (iii) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(1) Mammary lobes contain clusters
(4) All the five statements
called as alveoli.
(2) The last part of the oviduct is called 26. Which of the following statements
regarding mammary gland is incorrect?
as ampulla.
(1) They are paired glandular structure
(3) Stroma of ovary is divided into two
that lies over the pectoral muscles.
zone (2) Each gland has 100 – 500 lobulated
(4) Uterus is also called as womb. milk glands each having a number of
lobules containing number of alveoli.
23. The only statement correct about (3) The cells of alveoli secrete milk
hymen is which is stored in the cavity of the
(1) It is an opening of cervix. alveoli.
(2) It is a reliable indicator of virginity. (4) Each milk gland or lobules has
(3) It is always torn after first coitus. lactiferous ducts that drain into
openings in the nipple
(4) It can be broken by a sudden fall or
jolt, insertion of vaginal tampon, 27. Select the correct statements regarding
cycling, etc. oogenesis.
(i) It is initiated during the embryonic
24. Which fact about the mammary glands development stage when millions of
in humans is false? oogonia are formed within each
ovary.
(1) A non-functional mammary gland is
(ii) Graafian follicle releases primary
the characteristic of all male
oocyte from the ovary by ovulation.
mammals. (iii) At puberty only 60,000 – 80,000
(2) Mammary glands are paired primary follicles are left in each
structures. ovary.
(3) It is a glandular tissue containing (iv) Secondary oocyte within tertiary
fixed amount of fat. follicles grows in size and completes
its second meiotic division.
(4) Glandular tissue of each breast is
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
divided into 15 to 20 mammary lobes (2) (i) and (iii)
containing clusters of cells called (3) (ii) and (iv)
alveoli. (4) All the four statements

38 Human Reproduction
28. Which of the following statement 30. Refer the figure of mammary gland with
regarding female reproductive system is
few structures marked as A, B, C and D.
(are) correct?
(i) Myometrium undergoes strong Which structure contains clusters of
contraction at the time of delivery of milk secreting cells?
baby.
(ii) Ovary is secondary female sex organ
which produces female gamete and
steroid hormones.
(iii) Ovarian stroma is divided into two
zones: inner cortex and outer medulla.
(iv) Infundibulum possess finger like
projections which help in collection
of ovum after the release of
secondary oocyte.
(v) A functional mammary gland is the
characteristics of all the mammals
(including male and female). (1) A (2) B
(1) (i) and (iv) (3) C (4) D
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv) and (v)
31. Study the statement given below and answer
(4) All the five statements
the question. “Vigorous contraction of
29. The given figure shows the diagrammatic
sectional view of female reproductive the ‘X’ at the end of the ‘Y’ causes
system with few structures marked as expulsion of the foetus.” Identify X and Y.
A, B, C, D, E and F.
(1) X -Vagina ; Y - Fertilization
(2) X - Uterus ; Y - Pregnancy
(3) X - Placenta ; Y - Implantation
(4) X - Embryo ; Y – Ovulation

32. “A” cells start division and enter in “B”

stage of meiotic division and get
Which of the following options shows temporarily “C” at this stage, called “D”.
the correct labeling of A–F?
Identify A, B, C and D.
(1) A→ Myometrium, B→ Isthmus,
C→ Endometrium, D→ Perimetrium, (1) A: Oogonia; B: Metaphase I;
E→ Ampulla, F→ Infundibulum C: Arrested; D: Primary oocyte.
(2) A→ Infundibulum, B→ Perimetrium,
(2) A: Oogonia; B: Anaphase I;
C→ Endometrium, D→ Myometrium,
E→ Ampulla, F→ Isthmus C: Released; D: Secondary oocyte.
(3) A→ Endometrium, B→ Myometrium,
(3) A: Oogonia; B: Prophase I;
C→ Perimetrium, D→ Isthmus,
E→ Ampulla, F→ Infundibulum C: Arrested; D: Primary oocyte.
(4) A→ Perimetrium, B→ Endometrium, (4) A: Oogonia; B: Telophase I;
C→ Isthmus, D→ Infundibulum,
C: Released; D: Secondary oocyte.
E→ Ampulla, F→ Myometrium

Human Reproduction 39
33. Fill up the blanks - (1) A-mons pubis, B - labia majora,
A functional mammary gland is characteristic C - labia minora, D - hymen,
of all female __A__. The mammary glands E - clitoris
are paired structures (breasts) that contain (2) A - mons pubis, B - labia minora,
glandular tissue and variable amount of fat. C - labia majora, D - hymen,
The glandular tissue of each breast is divided E - clitoris
into 15-20 mammary lobes containing (3) A- mons pubis, B - labia majora,
clusters of cells called __B__. The cells C - labia minora, D - clitoris,
of ___C___ secrete milk, which is stored E - hymen
in the cavities (lumens) of alveoli. The (4) A- mons pubis, B - labia minora,
alveoli open into mammary tubules. The C - labia majora, D - clitoris,
tubules of each lobe join to form a __D__
E – hymen
duct. Several __E__ ducts join to form a
wider mammary ampulla which is 35. The given figure shows the diagrammatic
connected to ___F___ duct through sectional view of female reproductive
which milk is sucked out. system with few structures marked as
(1) A - vertebrates, B - alveoli, A, B, C, and D. Select the option which
C - alveoli, D - mammary, shows the correct identification of the
E - mammary, F - lactiferous. structure with its characteristics.
(2) A - mammals, B - lactogen,
C - alveoli, D - mammary,
E - mammary, F - lactiferous.
(3) A - mammals, B - alveoli, C - alveoli,
D - mammary, E - mammary,
F - lactiferous.
(4) A - mammals, B - alveoli, C - alveoli,
D - mammary, E - lactiferous,
F - mammary. (1) A: Infundibulum, funnel shaped structure
surrounded by finger like projection.
34. Fill up the blanks - (2) B: Ampulla, wider part of oviduct
The female external genitalia include where fertilization occurs.
mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, (3) C: Isthmus, it has a narrow lumen
hymen and clitoris. ___A___ is a cushion and joins with uterus.
of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic
(4) D: Fimbriae, it collects ovum before
hair. The _B__ are fleshy folds of tissue,
ovulation.
which extend down from the mons
pubis and surround the vaginal opening. 36. Which statement is not correct ?
The __C_ are paired folds of tissue under (1) In the absence of fertilization, the
the labia majora. The opening of the corpus luteum degenerates
vagina is often covered partially by a (2) During pregnancy all events of
membrane called __D__. The __E___ is a menstrual cycle stop
tiny finger-like structure which lies at (3) The secretion of LH & FSH decreases
the upper junction of the two labia gradually during the follicular phase
minora above the urethral opening. The (4) The menstrual flow results due to
__D__ is often torn during the first coitus breakdown of endometrial lining
(intercourse). However, it can also be
broken by a sudden fall or jolt, insertion 37. Primary sex organ differ from the secondary
of a vaginal tampon, active participation sex organs in all the following except:
in some sports like horseback riding, (1) They produce gametes
cycling, etc. In some women the __D__ (2) They secrete sex hormones
persists even after coitus. In fact, the (3) They are concerned with the conduction
presence or absence of __D__ is not a of gametes
reliable indicator of virginity or sexual (4) Testes in male and ovaries in female are
experience. the examples of primary sex organs

40 Human Reproduction
38. The organ which produces gametes are 42. Which one holds corona radiata cells
called ..A.. and which neither produces together ?
gametes nor hormones are called ..B.. . (1) Lipoprotein
Here A and B represent. (2) Liposaccharide
(1) A – primary sex organs;
(3) Oligosaccharide
B – Secondary Sex organs
(4) Mucopolysaccharide
(2) A – Secondary sex organs;
B – Primary Sex organs 43. Which is the correct sequence of layers
(3) A – Tertiary sex organs; in the mammalian egg from outside to
B – Secondary Sex organs inside?
(4) A – Secondary sex organs;
(1) Zona pellucida, corona radiata,
B – Tertiary Sex organs
plasma membrane
39. In gametogenesis, reduction division (2) Corona radiata, zona pellucida,
take place during: plasma membrane
(1) Multiplication phase (3) Plasma membrane, zona pellucida,
(2) Growth phase
corona radiata
(3) First maturation division
(4) Corona radiata, Plasma membrane,
(4) Second maturation
Zona pellucida,
40. Which one of the following is incorrect ?
(1) Fertilization follows capacitation 44. The figure given below shows the
(2) Cleavage of fertilized ovum results in sectional view of ovary. Select the
blastula option which gives correct identification
(3) Fusion of sperm and ovum occurs in of marked structure (A to D) and its
fallopian tube feature
(4) Cleavage leads to increase in the
mass of protoplasm
41. The figure given below shows a
flowchart on spermatogenesis. Identify
the correct label marked as A, B, C and D

(1) A: Primary follicle, it is also called

gamete mother cell.
(2) B: Corpus luteum, it cannot be
formed and added after birth.
(3) C: Graafian follicle, mature follicle
which ruptures to release secondary
oocyte.
(4) D: Tertiary follicle, a large number of
this follicle degenerates during the
(1) A: Ist meiotic division; B: 2nd meiotic
division; C: Differentiation; D: 23. phase from birth to puberty.
(2) A: 2nd meiotic division; 45. Which hormone level reaches peak
B: Differentiation; C: Ist meiotic
during the luteal phase of menstrual
division; D: 46.
cycle?
(3) A: Differentiation; B: 2nd meiotic
division; C: Ist meiotic division; D: 46. (1) Luteinising hormone
(4) A: Mitosis differentiation; B: Ist (2) Progesterone
meiotic division; C: 2nd meiotic (3) FSH
division; D: 23. (4) Estrogen

Human Reproduction 41
46. Some important events in the human 50. The ____ lead to vas deferens that ascends
female reproductive cycle are given to the ____ and loops over the ______.
below. Arrange the events in a proper (1) Prostate, stomach, urinary bladder.
sequence: (2) Epididymis, abdomen, urinary bladder.
A - Secretion of FSH, (3) Vas efferentia, abdomen, ureter.
B - Growth of corpus luteum, (4) Urinary bladder, ejaculatory duct,
C - Growth of the follicle and oogenesis, abdomen
D - Ovulation, 51. A sac shaped like an upside down pear
E - Sudden increase in the levels of LH with a thick lining and muscles in the
(1) ADCEB (2) BACDE pelvic area where a fertilized egg or
(3) ACEDB (4) CADBE zygote comes to grow into a baby is
47. Which one of the following statements called _______.
is incorrect about menstrual cycle ? (1) Oviduct (2) Uterus
(3) Vagina (4) Vulva
(1) The first menstruation begins at the
puberty and is called menarche. 52. The sperm and the egg make different
(2) Lack of menstruation may also occur contributions to zygote. Which of the
due to some factors like stress, poor following statements about their
health. contributions are true?
(3) Corpus luteum secretes large (i) Sperm contributes most of the
amounts of progesterone which is mitochondria.
essential for maintenance of (ii) Egg contributes most of the cytoplasm.
endometrium (iii) Both sperm and egg contribute
(4) In absence of fertilisation, corpus haploid nucleus.
luteum degenerates in luteal phase (iv) Both sperm and egg contribute
and new folicles starts developing centrioles.
immediately due to progesterone. (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iiii) and (iv) (4) All of these
48. Ovulation in the human female normally
takes place during the menstrual cycle: 53. Read the following statements (i to v)
(1) At the end of the proliferative phase and answer the following question.
(2) At the mid secretory phase (i) Each testes has highly coiled 250
compartments called seminiferous
(3) Just before the end of the
tubules.
seecretory phase
(ii) Erection of the penis due to presence
(4) At the beginning off the proliferative
of special tissues facilitates insemination.
phase
(iii) Immunologically competent cells are
49. The cause of sudden increase of the LH also present in the interstitial spaces
hormone in the middle of the cycle of seminiferous tubules.
(about 14th day) is: (iv) Testes lie outside the abdominal
(1) Negative feedfack of progesterone cavity in a thin pouch like skin called
on the hypothalamus scrotum.
(2) Negative feedback of estrogen on (v) Bulbourethral gland is a single
the anterior lobe of pituitary accessory gland.
(3) Positive feedback of FSH on the How many of the above statements are
overy incorrect?
(4) Positive feedback of estrogen on the (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (iii) and (v)
anterior lobe of pituitary (3) (i) and (v) (4) (ii), (iv) and (v)

42 Human Reproduction
54. Fertilization is: 59. What happens during fertilization in
(1) Union of diploid spermatozoa with humans after many sperms reach close
diploid ovum to form diploid zygote
to the ovum?
(2) Union of haploid sperm with haploid
(1) Cells of corona radiata trap all the
ovum to form haploid zygote
(3) Union of haploid sperm with haploid sperms except one
ovum to form diploid zygote (2) Only the closest sperm to the ovum
(4) Union of diploid sperm with haploid penetrates the zona pellucida.
ovum to form triploid zygote
(3) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm
55. Why do all copulations not lead to fertilisation enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona
and pregnancy ? The root cause is .......
pellucida and plasma membrane.
(1) Due to numerous sperms and one ovum
(4) All sperms except the one nearest to
(2) Due to less progesterone
(3) Ovum and sperms are not the ovum lose their tails.
transported simultaneously to the
60. Study the following statements and
ampullary region.
(4) Due to non-formation of corpus luteum answer the question.
In a process called ‘A’, ‘B’ division starts
56. A sac shaped like an upside down pear
with a thick lining and muscles in the pelvic as the zygote moves through the ‘C’ of
area where a fertilized egg or zygote comes the ‘D’ towards the ‘E’.
to grow into a baby is called _______. Identify A, B, C, D and E.
(1) Oviduct
(1) A → Blastulation, B → Meiotic,
(2) Uterus
(3) Vagina C → Ampulla, D → Fallopian tube,
(4) Vulva E → Uterus
(2) A → Parturition, B → Meiotic,
57. Once a sperm fuses with an ovum, the
remaining sperms cannot fertilize ovum. C → Infundibulum, D → Uterus,
What changes are responsible for such E → Vagina
phenomenon? (3) A → Implantation, B → Mitotic,
(1) Selective permeation through ovum.
C → Fimbriae, D → Ovary, E → Cervix
(2) Specific spatial arrangement of
corona radiata cells. (4) A → Cleavage, B → Mitotic,
(3) Change in the membrane zona C → Isthmus, D → Oviduct, E → Uterus
pellucida.
(4) Ovum releases toxic substances 61. If testes of a male are not transferred
thereby killing other sperms. from abdominal cavity to scrotal sac
then:
58. After entry of sperm into cytoplasm of
ovum which of the following event takes (1) Person dies
place? (2) Absence of male characters
(1) Mitotic division of secondary oocyte (3) Development of male reproductive
(2) Meiotic division of primary oocyte
system will not occur
(3) Mitotic division of secondary oocyte
(4) Meiotic division of secondary oocyte (4) Sperms will not form

Human Reproduction 43
62. After one month of pregrancy, the 65. Which of the following human
embryo’s ..A.. is formed. By the end of developmental stage becomes
the ..B.. month of pregnancy , the foetus embedded in the uterine endometrium
develops limbs and digits. By the end of by a process called implantation and
leads to pregnancy?
..C.. most of the major organ systems
are formed for example, the limbs and
external genital organs are well-
developed. By the end of ..D.. the body (1) (2)
is covered with fine hair, eyelids
separate, and eyelashes are formed.
Here A to D refers to
(1) A–heart, B–second, C–first trimester,
D–second trimester (3) (4)

(2) A–heart, B–second, C–first month,

D–second month
66. The given figure represent a stage of
(3) A–heart, B–second, C–first week,
embryonic development. Identify the
D– second week
stage with its feature.
(4) A–heart, B–fourth, C–first trimester,
D–second trimester

63. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t.

development in humans:
(1) By the end of 24 weeks – Eye lids
separate and eyelashes are formed
(2) By the end of 8 weeks – Appearance
of hair on head and first movement
(1) Blastocysts, ready to fertilize with
of foetus
sperm.
(3) By the end of 12 weeks – Limbs and (2) Secondary oocyte, implants on
external genital organs are well endometrial layer of uterus.
developed (3) Morula, formed by mitotic division of
(4) By the end of 4 weeks – Heart is zygote.
formed (4) Ovary, produce female gamete and
secretes hormones like estrogen etc
64. Which of the following is required for the
increased production of estrogen, 67. Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue and
progestogens, cortisol, prolactin and produces several hormones like:
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
thyroxine etc. in the maternal blood?
B. Human placental lactogen (hPL)
(i) Metabolic changes in the mother.
C. Estrogens
(ii) Maintenance of pregnancy.
D. Progesterone
(iii) Supporting the foetal growth E. FSH
(iv) Destruction of Graafian follicle F. LH
(1) (iii) and (iv) (1) A, B, E & F
(2) (i), (iv) and (v) (2) B only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) A, B & C
(4) All the four statements. (4) A, B, C & D

44 Human Reproduction
68. Placenta is the region where: 71. Which of the following statements
(1) Foetus is attached to mother by regarding parturition is incorrect?
spermatic cord (1) Prolactin induces uterine
(2) Foetus is provided with mother's contraction.
blood (2) It is induced by neuroendocrine
(3) Foetus receives nourishment from mechanism.
(3) Uterine contraction leads to
mother's blood
expulsion of baby through the birth
(4) Foetus is covered by membranes.
canal.
69. Read the following statements (i to v) (4) Oxytocin plays an important role in
and answer the question. the contraction of uterus
(i) It produces several hormones like
72. Given below are ten statements (A to J),
hCG, hPL, estrogens, progestogens etc.
each with one blank. Select the option
(ii) It differentiates into three embryonic which correctly fill up the blanks in all
membranes–ectoderm, endoderm and statements -
mesoderm. Statements :
(iii) It undergoes mitotic division. A. Humans reproduce ______________
(iv) It is the organ, formed in the lining (asexually/sexually)
of the uterus by the union of the B. Humans are ____________ (oviparous,
uterine mucous membrane with the viviparous, ovoviviparous)
membranes of the foetus. C. Fertilisation is __________ in humans
(v) It develops at a point of implantation (external/internal)
and providing oxygen and nutrients D. Male and female gametes are
for the foetus and transfer of waste ____________ (diploid/haploid)
products from the foetal to the E. Zygote is_________ (diploid/haploid)

maternal blood circulation. A B C D E

(1) Asexually Viviparous External Diploid Haploid
Identify the correct characteristics
(2) Sexually Viviparous External Haploid Diploid
feature regarding placenta from the
(3) Asexually Viviparous Internal Haploid Diploid
above statements.
(4) Sexually Viviparous Internal Haploid Diploid
(1) (iii) and (v)
(2) (i), (iv) and (v) 73. The first sign of growing foetus may be
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) noticed by:
(4) all the four statements. (1) Listening to the heart sound
carefully through the stethoscope
70. In parturition process, which of the (2) Apperance of hair
following does not happen: (3) Apperance of head
(1) Oxytocin Hormone is secreted by (4) Apperance of eye lids
posterior pituitory
74. Placenta does not perform which of the
(2) Relaxin hormone responsible for
following function?
narrowing of pelvic cavity
(1) Supply of O2
(3) Progesterone hormone secretion is (2) Supply of excretory materials
stopped (3) Supply of nutrients
(4) Vigorous contractions of the uterus (4) Removal of CO2

Human Reproduction 45
75. The given figure shows the human
foetus within the uterus. Identify the
marked label (A to D) through which
placenta is connected to the embryo.

Which of the following options shows

the correct labeling?
(1) A→Umbilical cord with its veins, B→
Chorionic villi, C→Antrum, D→Plug of
mucus in cervix
(2) A→Umbilical cord with its vessels,
B→Fimbriae, C→ Oocyte, D→Plug of
mucus in vagina
(3) A→Umbilical cord with its vessels,
B→Placental villi C→Yolk sac,
D→Plug of mucus in cervix
(4) A→Umbilical cord with its veins,
B→Placental villi C→Trophoblast,
D→Plug of mucus in vagina

46 Human Reproduction
 Exercise - III
1. Match the following: 3. Match the hormones in Column I with
their functions in Column II. Choose the
Set I Set II answer, which given the correct
A. Inguinal 1. Network of channels combination of the two columns.
canal after seminiferous
Column I Column II
tubules
Perpare endometrium wall
B. Rete 2. Androgen A. FSH 1.
for implantation
testis
Develops female
C. Leydig 3. For descending of
B. LH 2. secondary sexual
cells testis
characters
D. Prepuce 4. Dorsal bundles of
spongy tissues C. Progesterone3. Contraction of uterine wall
E. Corpora 5. Terminal skin of penis
Development of corpus
cavernosa D. Oestrogen 4.
luteum
Maturation of Graafian
(1) A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 5, E = 4 5.
follicle
(2) A = 3, B = 1, C = 4, D = 2, E = 5
A B C D
(3) A = 2, B = 4, C = 3, D = 5, E = 1 (1) 5 4 1 2
(4) A = 3, B = 1, C = 2, D = 5, E = 4 (2) 4 5 2 1
(3) 4 3 2 5
(4) 5 1 2 4
2. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : Parturition is induced by a 4. Given below are two statements:
complex neuroendocrine mechanism. Statement-I : The blastomeres in the
blastocyst are arranged into an inner
Statement-II : The signals for parturition
layer called trophoblast and an outer
originate from the fully developed
group of cells attached to trophoblast
foetus and placenta. called the inner cell mass.
In the light of the above statements, Statement-II : The embryo with 8 to 16
choose the most appropriate answer blastomerres is called blastula.
In the light of the above statements,
from the options given below:
choose the most appropriate answer
(1) Both Statement-I and II both are
from the options given below:
incorrect. (1) Both Statement-I and II both are
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement- incorrect.
II is incorrect. (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-
II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and
Statement-II is correct.
Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct. are correct.

Human Reproduction 47
5. Match the following and choose the 7. Match the following correctly.
correct options: Column–I Column–II
1. Gestation A. Fusion of male
Set-I Set-II and female
Embedding of gametes
A. Trophoblast (i) blastocyst in the 2. Parturition B. Formation of
endometrium gametes
Group of the cells that 3. Gametogenesis C. Attachment to
B. Cleavage (ii) would differentiated as the uterine wall
embryo 4. Implantation D. Delivery of the
baby
Inner cell Outer layer of blastocyst E. Embryonic
C. (iii)
mass attached to the endometerium development

D. Implantation (iv) Mitotic division of zygote (1) 1 : A, 2 : C, 3 : C, 4 : D

(2) 1 : E, 2 : D, 3 : A, 4 : C
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (3) 1 : E, 2 : D, 3 : B, 4 : C
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (4) 1 : C, 2 : D, 3 : A, 4 : C

(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii 8. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : In adults, each testis is
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
oval in shape, with a length of about 2
to 3 cm and a width of about 4 to 5 cm.
6. Given below are two statements: Statement-II : Each testis has about 250
Statement-I : LH act on leydig cells and compartment called testicular lobules.
In the light of the above statements,
stimulates synthesis and secretion of
choose the most appropriate answer
androgens. from the options given below:
Statement-II : FSH acts on the sertoli (1) Both Statement-I and II both are
incorrect.
cells and stimulates secretion of some
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-
factors which help in the process of II is incorrect.
spermiogenesis. (3) Statement-I is incorrect and
Statement-II is correct.
In the light of the above statements, (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
choose the most appropriate answer are correct.
from the options given below: 9. Match the following correctly.
(1) Both Statement-I and II both are Column I Column II
I. Proliferative (A) Testosterone
incorrect.
phase
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement- II. Leydig’s cell (B) Estrogen
II is incorrect. III. Spermiogenesis (C) Progesterone
IV. Secretory phase (D) Spermatid
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and
Statement-II is correct. (1) I–B, II–A, III–D, IV–C
(2) I–D, II–B, III–C, IV–A
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(3) I–D, II–C, III–B, IV–A
are correct. (4) I–D, II–C, III–A, IV–B

48 Human Reproduction
10. Given below are two statements: one is 13. Match the following correctly.
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is Column I Column II
labelled as Reason (R). I. Morula (A) Fertilization
Assertion (A): The presence or absence
Membrane
of hymen is not a reliable indicator of
II. Polyspermy (B) Solid ball of cells
virginity of sexual experience.
Reason (R): Hymen can also be broken III. Implantation (C) Mammary gland
by a sudden fall or jolt, insertion of a IV. Prolactin (D) Endometrium
vaginal tampon, active participation in (1) I–B, II–A, III–D, IV–C
some sports like horseback riding, (2) I–D, II–B, III–C, IV–A
cycling etc. In some women the hymen (3) I–D, II–C, III–B, IV–A
persists even after coitus. (4) I–D, II–C, III–A, IV–B
In the light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer 14. Given below are two statements: one is
from the options given below : labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) labelled as Reason (R).
is not the correct explanation of (A). Assertion (A) : During fertilisation, a
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) sperm comes in contact with zona
is the correct explanation of (A).
pellucida layer of the ovum and induces
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
changes in the membrane that block the
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
entry of additional sperms.
11. Match the following correctly. Reason (R) : The mitotic division starts
Column I Column II as the zygote moves through the
I. Acrosome (A) Rudimentary
isthmus of the oviduct called cleavage
erectile tissue
towards the uterus and forms 2, 4, 8, 16
II. Endometrium (B) Uterus
daughter cells called blastomeres.
III. Polar body (C) Oogenesis
In the light of the above statements,
IV. Clitoris (D) Spermatozoan
(1) I–B, II–A, III–D, IV–C choose the most appropriate answer
(2) I–D, II–B, III–C, IV–A from the options given below :
(3) I–D, II–C, III–B, IV–A (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)
(4) I–D, II–C, III–A, IV–B is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
12. Given below are two statements: one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is is the correct explanation of (A).
labelled as Reason (R). (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
Assertion (A) : Placenta acts as an (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
endocrine tissue.
15. Match the following correctly.
Reason (R) : Placenta produces several
hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, Column I Column II
progestogens etc. I. Semen (A) Clitoris
In the light of the above statements, II. Birth canal (B) Testicular lobules
choose the most appropriate answer III. Penis (C) Vagina
from the options given below : IV. Seminiferous (D) Prostate gland
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)
tubule
is not the correct explanation of (A).
(1) I–B, II–A, III–D, IV–C
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A). (2) I–D, II–B, III–C, IV–A
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (3) I–D, II–C, III–B, IV–A
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (4) I–D, II–C, III–A, IV–B

Human Reproduction 49
16. Given below are two statements: one is 19. Match the following correctly.
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is Column I Column II
labelled as Reason (R). I. Acrosome (A) Ovary
Assertion (A) : The menstrual flow results II. Leydig’s cells or (B) Vagina
due to breakdown of endometrial lining of interstitial cells
the uterus and its blood vessels which forms III. Graafian follicles (C) Sperm
liquid that comes out through vagina. IV. Hymen (D) Testis
Reason (R) : The ovulatory phase is followed
(1) I–B, II–A, III–D, IV–C
by the follicular phase during which the
(2) I–C, II–D, III–A, IV–B
remaining part of the graafian follicle
(3) I–D, II–C, III–B, IV–A
transform as the corpus luteum.
(4) I–D, II–C, III–A, IV–B
In the light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer 20. Given below are two statements:
from the options given below : Statement-I : The milk producing during
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) the initial few days of lactation is called
is not the correct explanation of (A). colostrum.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) Statement-II : The mammary glands of
is the correct explanation of (A). the female undergo differentiation
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. during pregnancy and starts producing
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. milk towards the end of pregnancy by
17. Match the following correctly. the process called lactation.
Column I Column II In the light of the above statements,
I. Hyaluronidase (A) Graafian follicle choose the most appropriate answer
II. Corpus luteum (B) Mammary gland from the options given below:
III. Colostrum (C) Progesterone (1) Both Statement-I and II both are
IV. Antrum (D) Acrosomal reaction incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-
(1) I–B, II–A, III–D, IV–C
(2) I–D, II–B, III–C, IV–A II is incorrect.
(3) I–D, II–C, III–B, IV–A (3) Statement-I is incorrect and
(4) I–D, II–C, III–A, IV–B Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
18. Given below are two statements: one is are correct.
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R). 21. Match the following correctly.
Assertion (A) : The male accessary glands Column I Column II
include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate I. Endometrium (A) Copulation chamber
and paired bulbourethral glands. in female
Reason (R) : Secretion of these glands II. Menopause (B) Site of implantation
constitute the seminal plasma which is rich of zygote
in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. III. Fallopian (C) Cessation of
In the light of the above statements, tube menstrual cycle
choose the most appropriate answer in female
from the options given below : IV. Vagina (D) Site of fertilization
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) in female
is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) (1) I–B, II–C, III–D, IV–A
is the correct explanation of (A). (2) I–D, II–B, III–C, IV–A
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (3) I–D, II–C, III–B, IV–A
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (4) I–D, II–C, III–A, IV–B

50 Human Reproduction
22. Given below are two statements: 25. Match the following correctly.
Statement-I : hCG, hPL and relaxin are
produced in women only during pregnancy. Column I Column II
Statement-II : By end of about 12 weeks, I. Urethra (A) Interstitial
the body of foetus is covered with hairs, cells
eye-lids separate, and eye lashes are II. Androgen/ (B) Corpus
formed.
Testosterone Luteum
In the light of the above statements,
III. Lutein cells (C) Passage for
choose the most appropriate answer
urine
from the options given below:
and sperms
(1) Both Statement-I and II both are
IV. Ovary (D) Oogenesis
incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement- (1) I–B, II–A, III–D, IV–C
II is incorrect. (2) I–D, II–B, III–C, IV–A
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and (3) I–C, II–A, III–B, IV–D
Statement-II is correct. (4) I–D, II–C, III–A, IV–B
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
26. Given below are two statements:
are correct.
Statement-I : The edge of the
23. Match the following correctly. infundibulum posses finger like
Column I Column II projections called fimbriae, which helps
I. Inguinal (A) Homologous to in collection of ovum after ovulation.
canal penis Statement-II : Uterus is supported by
II. Clitoris (B) Testis tendons attached to the pelvic wall.
III. Seminiferous (C) Connection of In the light of the above statements,
tubules scrotum with choose the most appropriate answer
abdomen from the options given below:
IV. Polar body (D) Oogenesis (1) Both Statement-I and II both are
(1) I–B, II–A, III–D, IV–C incorrect.
(2) I–D, II–B, III–C, IV–A (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-
(3) I–D, II–C, III–B, IV–A II is incorrect.
(4) I–C, II–A, III–B, IV–D (3) Statement-I is incorrect and
24. Given below are two statements: Statement-II is correct.
Statement-I : Cyclic menstruation is an (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
indicator of normal reproductive phase are correct.
which extends between menarche and
27. Match the following correctly.
menopause.
Statement-II : The first menstruation beings Column I Column II
at puberty and is called menarche. I. Testis (A) Calcium and
In the light of the above statements, certain enzyme
choose the most appropriate answer II. Vulva (B) Oogenesis
from the options given below: III. Prostatic (C) Contain in
(1) Both Statement-I and II both are
fluid scrotum
incorrect.
IV. Production (D) Labia majora
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-
of ova
II is incorrect.
(1) I–C, II–D, III–A, IV–B
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and
Statement-II is correct. (2) I–D, II–B, III–C, IV–A
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (3) I–D, II–C, III–B, IV–A
are correct. (4) I–D, II–C, III–A, IV–B

Human Reproduction 51
28. Statement I: All copulations not lead to 30. Statement I: Ovulation occurs on the 14th
fertilization and pregnancy. day of menstrual cycle in a human female.
Statement II: Fertilization can only occur if Statement II: The high level of estrogen
the ovum and sperms are transported is controlled 2 or 3 days before this
simultaneously to the ampullary region. event due to negative feed back.
(1) If both Statement-I & Statement-II (1) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
are True & the Statement-II is a correct are True & the Statement-II is a correct
explanation of the Statement-I. explanation of the Statement-I.
(2) If both Statement-I & Statement-II (2) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
are True but Statement-II. is not a
are True but Statement-II. is not a
correct explanation of the Statement-I.
correct explanation of the Statement-I.
(3) If Statement-I is True but the
(3) If Statement-I is True but the
Statement-II is False.
Statement-II is False.
(4) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
(4) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
are False.
are False.
31. Match the following correctly.
29. In the given columns, column–I contain
Column I Column II
structures of female reproductive
(Structure of Male (Features)
system and column–II contain its Reproductive
feature. Select the correct match from System)
the option given below:
A. Seminiferous I. Network of
Column–I Column–II tubule seminiferous tubule
(Structure of female (Features) B. Rete testis II. Secondary sexual
reproductive system) characters
A. Ampulla I. It undergoes cyclical C. Leydig cells III. Meiosis and sperm
changes during formation occurs
menstrual cycle. D. Prepuce IV. Place of
B. Labia majora II. It helps in collection implantation
of ovum after V. Terminal skin of
ovulation. penis
C. Oviduct III. Wider part of (1) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V
fallopian tube where (2) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V
fusion of male and (3) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
female gametes (4) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V
takes place.
32. Statement I: After fertilization corpus
D. Fimbriae IV. Larger hairy folds
luteum is stable till parturition.
which extend down
Statement II: After 3 months of
from the mons
intrauterine life, it dominantly secretes
pubis and surrounds
progesterone.
the vaginal opening.
(1) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
E. Endometrium V. Also called fallopian
are True & the Statement-II is a correct
tubes, which extend
explanation of the Statement-I.
from the periphery
(2) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
of each ovary to the
are True but Statement-II. is not a
womb.
correct explanation of the Statement-I.
(1) A–I; B–II; C–III; D–V; E–IV (3) If Statement-I is True but the
(2) A–III; B–I; C–II; D–V; E–IV Statement-II is False.
(3) A–III; B–IV; C–V; D–II; E–I (4) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
(4) A–III; B–IV; C–V; D–II; E–I are False.

52 Human Reproduction
33. In the given columns, column-I contain 34. Statement I: All eutherian are placental
various phases of menstrual cycle and mammals.
column -II contain its features. Select
Statement II: All placental mammals
the correct match from the options
have menstrual cycle.
given below.
(1) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
Column-I Column-II are True & the Statement-II is a correct
Phases of (Features) explanation of the Statement-I.
Menstrual cycle)
(2) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
A. Menstrual I. Breakdown of
are True but Statement-II. is not a
phase endometrial lining
of uterus along correct explanation of the Statement-I.
with its blood (3) If Statement-I is True but the
vessels which Statement-II is False.
form liquid that
(4) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
comes out of
are False.
vagina
B. Luteal II. A temporary
35. In the given columns, column-I contain
phase endocrine gland is
features of developing child and
formed and
secretes a column-II contain the time of their
hormone which occurrence. Select the correct match.
maintains Column-I Column–II
endometrium and
(Features of (Time of there
implantation of
developing child) occurrence)
fertilized ovum
and other events A. Heart sound I. By the end of the
of pregnancy. second month of
C. Follicular III. Secretion of pregnancy
phase luteinizing B. Foetus develops II. During the fifth
hormone at its limbs and digit month
maximum level
C. Formation of III. First sign of
and induces
major organ growing foetus
breakdown of
mature follicle to system
release the female D. First movement IV. By the end of 12
gamete of foetus and weeks
D. Ovulatory IV. Formation of appearance of
phase mature Graafian
hair and head
follicle and
E. Body covered with V. By the end of 24
regeneration of
endometrium of hair, eyelid separate, weeks
uterus. eyelashes are formed
(1) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(1) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I (2) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V
(2) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(3) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV
(3) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(4) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III (4) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I

Human Reproduction 53
36. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen 39. Match the column-I with column-II and
is contributed by :– select the correct option.
(I) Seminal Vesicle (II) Prostate Gland Column–I Column–II
(III) Urethra (IV) Cowper's Gland A. Fertilization I. Mitotic division
(1) I and II (2) II, III & IV B. Implantation II. Embryo with 8 to 16
(3) I, II and IV (4) I & IV blastomeres
C. Cleavage III. Ampullary region
37. Match the hormones given in column-I D. Morula IV. Inner cell mass
with their functions given in column-II E. Blastocysts V. Embedding of
and select the correct option. blastocysts in the
endometrium
Column–I Column–II
(Hormones) (Functions) (1) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – V; E – III
(2) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V
A. Luteinizing I. Develop corpus
(3) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – II
hormone Luteum (4) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – IV
B. Progesterone II. Essential for
40. Statement I: Foetal ejection reflex
maintenance of triggers release of oxytocin from the
uterine layer maternal pituitary.
(called endometrium) Statement II: Signals for parturition
C. Estrogen III. Develops female originate from fully developed foetus
alone.
secondary sexual
(1) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
characters are True & the Statement-II is a correct
D. Follicle IV. Maturation of explanation of the Statement-I.
stimulating Graafian follicle (2) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
hormone are True but Statement-II. is not a
correct explanation of the Statement-I.
E. Oxytocin V. Causes uterine
(3) If Statement-I is True but the
contraction. Statement-II is False.
(1) A – I; B – V; C – III; D – II; E – IV (4) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
are False.
(2) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV; E – V
(3) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V 41. Match the columns:
(4) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V; E – IV Column I Column II
a. Parturition p. Attachment of zygote
38. Statement I: Breast-feeding during the to endometrium
initial period of infant growth is b. Gestation q. Release of egg from
recommended by doctors. Graafian follicle
Statement II: The milk produced during c. Ovulation r. Delivery of baby form
initial few days contains several uterus
d. Implantation s. Duration between
antibodies.
fertilization and birth
(1) If both Statement-I & Statement-II e. Conception t. Formation of zygote
are True & the Statement-II is a correct by fusion of egg and
explanation of the Statement-I. sperm
(2) If both Statement-I & Statement-II u. Stoppage of
are True but Statement-II. is not a ovulation and
menstruation
correct explanation of the Statement-I.
a b c d e
(3) If Statement-I is True but the (1) q s p t r
Statement-II is False. (2) r r p t r
(4) If both Statement-I & Statement-II (3) r q s p t
are False. (4) r s q p t

54 Human Reproduction
42. Statement I: The levels of hormone like 44. Statement I: The changes in the ovarian
cycle as well as uterine cycle are
estrogens, progestogens, cortisol,
induced by changes in the level of
Prolactin, thyroxin etc. are increased pituitary and ovrian hormones.
several folds in the maternal blood Statement II: The secretion of LH & FSH
increases gradually during the follicular
during pregnancy.
phase and estrogen also secreated by
Statement II: Increased level of these developing follicle.
hormones is essential for supporting the (1) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
are True & the Statement-II is a correct
foetal growth and maintenance of pregnancy. explanation of the Statement-I.
(1) If both Statement-I & Statement-II (2) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
are True but Statement-II. is not a
are True & the Statement-II is a correct
correct explanation of the Statement-I.
explanation of the Statement-I. (3) If Statement-I is True but the
(2) If both Statement-I & Statement-II Statement-II is False.
(4) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
are True but Statement-II. is not a
are False.
correct explanation of the Statement-I.
45. Match the columns and find the correct
(3) If Statement-I is True but the combination:
Statement-II is False. Column I Column II
a. Hypothalamus 1. Sperm lysins
(4) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
b. Acrosome 2. Estrogen
are False. c. Graafian follicle 3. Oxytocin
d. Leydig cells 4. GnRH
43. Match the following columns and select e. Parturition 5. Testosterone
the correction option :– a b c d e
(1) 2 1 4 3 5
Column-I Column-II (2) 4 1 2 5 3
(3) 2 1 5 4 3
(a) Ovary (i) Human (4) 4 1 2 3 5
chorionic 46. Statement I: During follicular phase, the
Gonadotropin primary follicles in the ovary grow to
become a fully mature Graafian follicle.
(b) Placenta (ii) Estrogen &
Statement II: Endometrium of uterus
Progesterone regenerates during follicular phase due
(c) Corpus (iii) Androgens to increasing level of progesterone.
(1) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
luteum
are True & the Statement-II is a correct
(d) Leydig (iv) Progesterone explanation of the Statement-I.
cells only (2) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
are True but Statement-II. is not a
(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)-(i) correct explanation of the Statement-I.
(3) If Statement-I is True but the
(2) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
Statement-II is False.
(3) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv) (4) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii) are False.

Human Reproduction 55
47. Match the columns: 49. Statement I: Corpus albicans is an inactive
Column I Column II structure which is found in the ovary.
a. Oxytocin p. Stimulates ovulation Statement II: Corpus albicans secretes
b. Prolactin q. Implantation and the progesterone hormone after
maintenance ovulation.
c. Luteinising r. Lactation after (1) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
hormone child birth are True & the Statement-II is a correct
d. Progesterone s. Uterine contraction explanation of the Statement-I.
during labour (2) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
t. Reabsorption of are True but Statement-II. is not a
water by nephrons correct explanation of the Statement-I.
a b c d (3) If Statement-I is True but the
(1) s r p q Statement-II is False.
(2) s r p s (4) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
(3) s q r t are False.
(4) t p s r 50. Statement I: Corpus luteum is present in
48. Statement I: Cervix contains most weak proliferative phase of menstrual cycle.
sphincter muscle in the body. Statement II: High concentration of
Statement II: Cervix open into Fallopian progesterone is present in proliferative
tube by osexternal phase.
(1) If both Statement-I & Statement-II (1) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
are True & the Statement-II is a correct are True & the Statement-II is a correct
explanation of the Statement-I. explanation of the Statement-I.
(2) If both Statement-I & Statement-II (2) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
are True but Statement-II. is not a are True but Statement-II. is not a
correct explanation of the Statement-I. correct explanation of the Statement-I.
(3) If Statement-I is True but the (3) If Statement-I is True but the
Statement-II is False. Statement-II is False.
(4) If both Statement-I & Statement-II (4) If both Statement-I & Statement-II
are False. are False.

56 Human Reproduction
 Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)
(AIPMT 2014) (Re-AIPMT 2015)

1. The shared terminal duct of the 7. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as:
reproductive and urinary system in the (1) Pregnancies terminated due to
human male is: hormonal imbalance
(1) Urethra (2) Ureter (2) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality
(3) Vas deferens (4) Vasa efferentia (3) Implantation of embryo at site other
2. Select the correct option describing than uterus
gonadotropin activity in a normal (4) Implantation of defective embryo in
pregnant female: the uterus
(1) High level of FSH and LH stimulates 8. Which of the following events is not
the thickening of endometrium. associated with ovulation in human
(2) High level of FSH and LH facilitate
female?
implantation of the embryo.
(1) LH surge
(3) High level of hCG stimulates the
(2) Decrease in estradiol
synthesis of estrogen and
(3) Full development of Graafian follicle
progesterone.
(4) Release of secondary oocyte
(4) High level of hCG stimulates the
thickening of endometrium. 9. In human females, meiosis-II is not
completed until:
(AIPMT 2015)
(1) Birth
3. Hysterectomy is surgical removal of: (2) Puberty
(1) Mammary glands (3) Fertilization
(2) Uterus (4) Uterine implantation
(3) Prostate glands
(4) Vas-deference 10. Which of the following layers in an antral
follicle is acellular?
4. Which of these is not an important (1) Zona pellucida (2) Granulosa
component of initiation of parturition in
(3) Theca (4) Stroma
humans ?
(1) Release of prolactin (NEET 2016)
(2) Increase in estrogen and
11. Fertilization in humans is practically
progesterone ratio
feasible only if:
(3) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(1) The sperms are transported into
(4) Release of oxytocin
vagina just after the release of ovum
5. Capacitation refers to changes in the: in fallopian tube
(1) Sperm after fertilization (2) The ovum and sperms are
(2) Sperm before fertilization transported simultaneously to
(3) Ovum before fertilization ampullary isthmic junction of the
(4) Ovum after fertilization fallopian tube
6. Which of the following cells during (3) The ovum and sperms are transported
gametogenesis is normally diploid ? simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic
(1) Secondary spermatocyte junction of the cervix.
(2) Primary polar body (4) The sperms are transported into
(3) Spermatid cervix within 48 hrs of release of
(4) Spermatogonia ovum in uterus.

Human Reproduction 57
12. Select the incorrect statement: 17. Identify the correct statement on
(1) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells 'inhibin':-
which help in spermiogenesis (1) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and
Prolactin.
(2) LH triggers ovulation in ovary
(2) Is produced by granulose cells in
(3) LH and FSH decrease gradually
ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.
during the follicular phase (3) Is produced by granulose cells in
(4) LH triggers secretion of androgens ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH.
from the Leydig cells (4) Is produced by nurse cells in testes
and inhibits the secretion of LH.
13. Which of the following is incorrect
(NEET 2017)
regarding vasectomy ?
(1) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied 18. Capacitation occurs in:
(1) Rete testis
(2) Irreversible sterility
(2) Epididymis
(3) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid (3) Vas deferens
(4) No sperm occurs in epididymis (4) Female Reproductive tract
14. Which of the following dipicts the correct 19. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed
pathway of transport of sperms ? in reproduction, acts on:
(1) Anterior pituitary gland and
(1) Rete testis → Vas deferens →
stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.
Efferent ductules → Epididymis (2) Posterior pituitary gland and
(2) Efferent ductules → Rete testis → stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
Vas deferens → Epididymis (3) Posterior pituitary gland and
(3) Rete testis → Efferent ductules → stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin.
(4) Anterior pituitary gland and
Epididymis → Vas deferens
stimulates secretion of LH and
(4) Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent oxytocin.
ductules → Vas deferens
(NEET 2018)
15. Match Column-I with Column-II and 20. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
maintain pregnancy are:
select the correct option using the
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
codes given below:
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
Column I Column II (3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
a Mons pubis i Embryo formation (4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
b Antrum ii Sperm glucocorticoids
Female external 21. The difference between spermiogenesis
c Trophectoderm iii and spermiation is:
genitalia
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are
d Nebenkern iv Graffian follicle formed, while in spermiation
Codes: spermatozoa are formed.
a b c d (2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
(1) iii i iv ii formed, while in spermiation
(2) i iv iii ii spermatids are formed.
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
(3) iii iv ii i
sertoli cells are released into the
(4) iii iv i ii cavity of seminiferous tubules, while
16. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, in spermiation spermatozon are
formed.
estrogen, progesterone are produced by:
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
(1) Fallopian tube formed, while in spermiation
(2) Pituitary spermatozoa are released from
(3) Ovary sertoli cells into the cavity of
(4) Placenta seminiferous tubules.

58 Human Reproduction
22. Match the items given in Column I with (NEET(UG) 2019 (Odisha))
those in column II and select the correct
25. No new follicles develop in the luteal
option given below: phase of the mensturual cycle because:
Column-I Column-II (1) Follicles do not remain in the ovary
Breakdown of after ovlation
a. Proliferative Phase i. endometrial (2) FSH levels are high in the luteal
lining phase
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase (3) LH levels are high in the luteal phase
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase (4) Both FSH and LH levels are low in
a b c the luteal phase
(1) iii i ii
(NEET 2020)
(2) iii ii i
(3) ii iii i 26. Which of the following hormone levels
will cause release of ovum (ovulation)
(4) i iii ii
from the graffian follicle ?
(NEET 2019) (1) High concentration of Progesterone
(2) Low concentration of LH
23. Select the correct sequence for
(3) Low concentration of FSH
transport of sperm cells in male (4) High concentration of Estrogen
reproductive system.
27. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte
(1) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa
is completed:
efferetia Epididymis → Inguinal
(1) At the time of copulation
canal → Urethra (2) After zygote formation
(2) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa (3) At the time of fusion of a sperm with
efferentia → Vas deferens → an ovum
Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal → (4) Prior to ovulation

Urethra → Urethral meatus 28. Match the following columns and select
(3) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa the correct option.
efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal Column-I Column-II
canal → Urethra (a) Placenta (i) Androgens
(4) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis (b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Choronic
Gonadotropin
→ Vasa efferentia → Epididymis →
(hCG)
Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct →
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the
Urethra → Urethral meatus glands ovum

24. Extrusion of second polar body from egg

(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
nucleus occurs:
Penis
(1) Before entry of sperm into ovum
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Simultaneously with first cleavage
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (iv)
(3) After entry of sperm but before
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
fertilization (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) After fertilization (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Human Reproduction 59
 (NEET 2020 (Covid-19)) 34. Which of the following secretes the
29. In human beings, at the end of 12 weeks hormone, relaxin, during the later phase
(first trimester) of pregnancy, the of pregnancy?
following is observed: - (1) Graafian follicle (2) Corpus luteum
(1) Eyelids and eyelashes are formed (3) Foetus (4) Uterus
(2) Most of the major organ systems are (NEET 2022)
formed 35. At which stage of life the oogenesis
(3) The head is covered with fine hair process is initiated?
(4) Movement of the foetus (1) Puberty
(2) Embryonic development stage
30. Select the correct option of haploid cells (3) Birth
from the following groups: – (4) Adult
(1) Primary oocyte, Secondary oocyte,
Spermatid 36. Which of the following statements are
true for spermatogenesis but do not
(2) Secondary spermatocyte, First polar
hold true for Oogenesis?
body, Ovum
(a) It results in the formation of haploid
(3) Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocyte,
gametes
Spermatid (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs
(4) Primary spermatocyte, Secondary after the completion of meiosis
spermatocyte, Second polar body (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a
31. Match the following columns and select mitotically dividing stem cell
population
the correct option: –
(d) It is controlled by the Luteinising
Column - I Column - II
hormone (LH) and Follicle
Human chorionic Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted
(a) Ovary (i)
Gonadotropin by the anterior pituitary
Estrogen & (e) It is initiated at puberty
(b) Placenta (ii)
Progesterone Choose the most appropriate answer
(c) Corpus luteum (iii) Androgens from the options given below:
(d) Leyding cells (iv) Progesterone Only (1) (c) and (e) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(3) (b), (d) and (e) only
(2) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(4) (b), (c) and (e) only
(3) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii) 37. Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
(NEET 2021) The release of sperms into the
seminiferous tubules is called
32. Receptors for sperm binding in
spermiation.
mammals are present on:
Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the
(1) Corona radiata
process of formation of sperms from
(2) Vitelline membrane spermatogonia.
(3) Perivitelline space In the light of the above statements,
(4) Zona pellucida choose the most appropriate answer
33. Which of these is not an important from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II
component of initiation of parturition in
are correct
humans?
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II
(1) Increase in estrogen and
are incorrect
progesterone ratio (3) Statement I is correct but
(2) Synthesis of prostaglandins Statement II is incorrect
(3) Release of Oxytocin (4) Statement I is incorrect but
(4) Release of Prolactin Statement II is correct

60 Human Reproduction
 (Re-NEET 2022) [NEET 2023]

38. Arrange the components of mammary 41. Which of the following statements are
gland. (from proximal to distal) correct regarding female reproductive
(a) Mammary duct cycle?
(b) Lactiferous duct A. In non-primate mammals cyclical
(c) Alveoli
changes during reproduction are
(d) Mammary ampulla
called oestrus cycle.
(e) Mammary tubules
B. First menstrual cycle begins at
Choose the most appropriate answer
puberty and is called menopause.
from the options given below :
C. Lack of menstruation may be
(1) (c) → (a) → (d) → (e) → (b)
indicative of pregnancy.
(2) (b) → (c) → (e) → (d) → (a)
D. Cyclic menstruation extends
(3) (c) → (e) → (a) → (d) → (b)
between menarche and menopause.
(4) (e) → (c) → (d) → (b) → (a)
Choose the most appropriate answer
39. How many secondary spermatocytes are
from the options given below:
required to form 400 million spermatozoa ?
(1) A and B only
(1) 50 million
(2) A, B and C only
(2) 100 million
(3) A, C and D only
(3) 200 million
(4) A and D only
(4) 400 million

40. Given below are two statements : one is 42. Given below are two statements : one is

labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason (R). labelled as Reason R?
Assertion (A) : Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary
During pregnancy the level of thyroxine for implantation of blastocyst.
is increased in the maternal blood. Reason R: In the absence of fertilization,
Reason (R) :
the corpus luteum degenerates that
Pregnancy is characterised by metabolic
causes disintegration of endometrium.
changes in the mother.
In the light of the above statements,
In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the
choose the most appropriate answer
option given below:
from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the

is the correct explanation of (A) correct explanation of A.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) (2) A is true but R is false.
is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) A is false but R is true.
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4) Both A and R are true and R is the
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is corrects correct explanation of A.

Human Reproduction 61
43. Given below are two statements?
Statement I: Vas deferens receives a
duct from seminal vesicle and opens
into urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
Statements II: The cavity of the cervix is
called cervical canal which along with
vagina forms birth canal.
In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II
are false.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is false.
(3) Statement I incorrect but Statement
II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II
are true.

[NEET 2023] MANIPUR

44. Given below are two statements

regarding oogenesis:
Statement I: The primary follicles get
surrounded by more layers of granulosa
cells, a theca and shows fluid filled
cavity antrum. Now it is called
secondary follicle.
Statement II: Graffian follicle ruptures
to release the secondary oocyte from
the ovary by the process called
ovulation.
In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is false.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II
are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II
are false.

62 Human Reproduction
 ANSWER KEY

Human Reproduction
Exercise - I

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 4 1 4 3 1 3 2 2 3 3 3 1 4 3 2 3 2 4 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 4 4 3 2 2 3 1 1 3 1 1 1 2 2 4 1 1 4
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 1 3 2 2 4 4 2 2 1 2 2 3 2 4 3 1 1 3 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 4 1 1 4 2 2 2 3 1 2 4 4 4 2 3 4 1 4 3
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 1 3 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 2 4 3 2 3 1 2
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 4 1 1 2 1 4 3 3 2 3 4 3 1 2 2 1 2 3 3 2
Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 3 2 1 4 4 4 4 2 1 1 3 1 4 2 4 3 3 4 2 4
Que. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 4 1 4 2 3 4 4 2 2 1 3 2 3 1 2 4 2 3 2 3
Que. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 2 3 3 4 4 3 4 3 2 2 1 1 4 3 1 2 4 4 3 1
Que. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192
Ans. 1 2 2 3 3 3 2 1 1 2 2 2

Exercise - II

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 2 1 1 4 1 4 2 4 1 4 3 1 1 1 3 3 3 4 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 2 4 3 3 2 2 1 3 1 2 3 3 1 2 3 3 1 3 4
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 4 2 3 2 3 4 1 4 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 3 4 3 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 4 1 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 2 1 4 1 2 3

Exercise – III

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 1 1 2 4 3 3 1 2 2 2 1 1 4 3 3 1 2 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 2 4 4 3 2 1 1 4 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 1 4 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 4 1 4 1 2 3 1 4 3 4

Human Reproduction 63
 Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 3 2 1 2 4 3 2 3 1 2 3 4 3 4 4 2 4 1 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 3 4 3 4 4 3 3 2 2 4 4 4 2 2 4 3 3 3 1
Que. 41 42 43 44
Ans. 3 1 4 2

64 Human Reproduction
 3 Reproductive Health
Introduction

According to the World Health Organization (WHO), reproductive health means a total well-being in all
aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioral and social. Therefore, a society with people
having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs and normal emotional and behavioral
interactions among them in all sex-related aspects might be called reproductively healthy.

Reproductive Health - Problems & Strategies

• India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programs at a national
level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal. These programs called ‘family planning’
were initiated in 1951 and were periodically assessed over the past decades. Improved programmes
covering wider reproduction-related areas are currently in operation under the popular name
‘Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes’.

Objectives of Reproductive and child health care (RCH) programme:-

General Awareness
• With the help of audio-visual and the print-media governmental and non-governmental agencies
have taken various steps to create awareness among the people about reproduction related
aspects. Parents, other close relatives, teachers and friends, also have a major role in the
dissemination of the above information.
Introduction of Sex Education
• Introduction of sex education in schools should also be encouraged to provide right information to
the young so as to discourage children from believing in myths and having misconceptions about
sex-related aspects
• Proper information about reproductive organs, adolescence and related changes, safe and hygienic
sexual practices, sexually transmitted diseases (STD), AIDS, etc., would help people, especially
those in the adolescent age group to lead a reproductively healthy life.
• Educating people, especially fertile couples and those in marriageable age group, about available
birth control options, care of pregnant mothers, post-natal care of the mother and child,
importance of breast feeding, equal opportunities for the male and the female child, etc., would
address the importance of bringing up socially conscious healthy families of desired size.
Awareness of problems and consequences due to Uncontrolled Population
• Awareness of problems due to uncontrolled population growth, social evils like sex-abuse and sex-
related crimes, etc., need to be created to enable people to think and take up necessary steps to
prevent them and thereby build up a socially responsible and healthy society.
• Statutory ban on amniocentesis (a foetal sex determination test based on the chromosomal pattern
in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo) for sex-determination. In aminocentesis
some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus is taken to analyse the fetal cells and dissolved
substances. This procedure is used to test for the presence of certain genetic disorders such as,
down syndrome, hemophilia, sickle-cell anemia, etc., determine the survivability of the foetus.

Reproductive Health 1
Research
• Research on various reproduction-related areas are encouraged and supported by governmental
and non-governmental agencies to find out new methods and/or to improve upon the existing ones.
Do you know that ‘Saheli’–a new oral contraceptive for the females–was developed by scientists
at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, India?
Information about reproduction related problems
• Successful implementation of various action plans to attain reproductive health requires strong
infrastructural facilities, professional expertise and material support. These are essential to
provide medical assistance and care to people in reproduction-related problems like pregnancy,
delivery, STDs, abortions, contraception, menstrual problems, infertility, etc.
Medical facility
• Better awareness about sex related matters, increased number of medically assisted deliveries and
better post-natal care leading to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates, increased number
of couples with small families, better detection and cure of STDs and overall increased medical
facilities for all sex-related problems, etc. all indicate improved reproductive health of the society.

Population Stabilization and Birth Control

• In the last century an all-round development in various fields significantly improved the quality of
life of the people. However, increased health facilities along with better living conditions had an
explosive impact on the growth of population.
• The world population which was around 2 billion (2000 million) in 1900 rocketed to about 6 billion
by 2000 and 7.2 Billion in 2011. A similar trend was observed in India too. Our population which was
approximately 350 million at the time of our independence reached close to the billion mark by
2000 and crossed 1.2 billion in May 2011.
• A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate (IMR) as well
as an increase in number of people in reproducible age are probable reasons for this. Through our
RCH programmes, though we could bring down the population growth rate, it was only marginal.
• According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate was less than 2 percent i.e. 20/1000
/year, a rate at which our population could increase rapidly. Such an alarming growth rate could
lead to an absolute scarcity of even the basic requirements, i.e., food, shelter and clothing, in spite
of significant progress made in those areas. Therefore, the government was forced to take up
serious measures to check this population growth rate.
• The most important step to overcome this problem is to motivate smaller families by using various
contraceptive methods. You might have seen advertisements in the media as well as posters/bills,
etc., showing a happy couple with two children with a slogan Hum Do Hamare Do (we two, our
two). Many couples, mostly the young, urban, working ones have even adopted an ‘one child norm’.
Statutory raising of marriageable age of the female to 18 years and that of males to 21 years, and
incentives given to couples with small families are two of the other measures taken to tackle this
problem.

2 Reproductive Health
 Concept Builder

1. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), reproductive health means a total well-
being in all aspects of reproduction, that is:
(1) Physical (2) Social
(3) Emotional and behavioral (4) All of the above
2. The first nation in the world to initiate various action plans at national level towards attaining
a reproductively healthy society is:
(1) India (2) China (3) USA (4) Norway
3. By which name "family planning" is currently popular?
(1) Family and child care (2) Reproductive and child care
(3) Reproductive and child health care (4) Reproductive and child health

4. In India, marriageable age for boys is.......and girls is .......respectively.

(1) 21, 18 years (2) 15, 14 years (3) 15, 18 years (4) 18, 21 years

5. RCH could help in

(1) Increasing female sex ratio (2) Building up reproductively healthy society
(3) Increase male sex ratio (4) Providing housing and food

6. The technique which makes use of amniotic fluid for the detection of prenatal disorder is called
as:
(1) Laproscopy (2) Ultrasound (3) Endoscopy (4) Amniocentesis

7. According to the _____________ reproductive health means a total well being in all aspects of
reproduction i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural and social.
(1) ICBN (2) IUCN (3) WHO (4) ICZN

8. Which of the following statement is false?

(1) RCH is a popular contraceptive method
(2) WHO has defined reproductive health as a total well being in physical, emotional, behavioral
& social aspects of reproduction
(3) In 2011, the population growth rate was less than 2 percent.
(4) Family planning was initiated in 1951 in India
Concept Builder (Answer-Key)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 4 1 3 1 2 4 3 1

Let us describe some of the commonly used contraceptive methods, which help
prevent unwanted pregnancies.
• The method which prevent unwanted birth or pregnancies are called contraceptive methods.
• Characteristics of an ideal contraceptive should be :-
(i) User friendly,
(ii) Easily available
(iii) Effective
(iv) Reversible with no or least side effects
(v) It should not interfere with the sexual drive, desire and/or the sexual act of the user.

Reproductive Health 3
• A wide range of contraceptive methods are presently available which could be broadly grouped into
the following categories, namely: Natural/Traditional method, Barrier method, IUD’s, surgical
method, hormonal method.
(1) Natural or Traditional Method:
(i) Working Principle : Avoid chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
(ii) Side effect almost nil, as no medicines.
(iii) Chances of failure is high.
Example of Natural Methods:
(a) Periodic abstinence
(i) It is one such method in which the couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of
the menstrual cycle when ovulation could be expected.
(ii) As chances of fertilization are very high during this period, it is called the fertile period.
(iii) Therefore, by abstaining from coitus during this period, conception could be prevented.
(iv) The period except 10 to 17 days of Menstrual Cycle is considered as safe period.
(b) Withdrawal or coitus interruptus
(i) It is another method in which the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just
before ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
(ii) Success rate is not very high.
(c) Lactational Amenorrhea
(i) This (absence of menstruation) method is based on the fact that ovulation and therefore the
cycle do not occur during the period of intense lactation following parturition.
(ii) Therefore, as long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are
almost nil. However, this method has been reported to be effective only upto a maximum
period of six months following parturition.

(2) Barrier Methods:

In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help of
barriers. Such methods are available for both males and females.
(a) Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath that are used to cover the penis in
the male or vagina and cervix in the female, just before coitus so that the ejaculated semen
would not enter into the female reproductive tract. This can prevent conception
(Fertilization). ‘Nirodh’ is a popular brand of condom for the male. Use of condoms has
increased in recent years due to its additional benefit of protecting the user from
contracting STDs and AIDS. Both the male and the female condoms (Fem shield) are
disposable, can be self-inserted and thereby gives privacy to the user.

Condom for male Condom for Female

(b) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are also barriers made of rubber that are inserted into
the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus. They prevent conception by
blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix. They are reusable. Spermicidal creams,
jellies and foams are usually used along with these barriers to increase their contraceptive
efficiency.

4 Reproductive Health
 Diaphragm Cervical Cap Vault Cap

Knowledge Booster:
Chemical Method:
In this method chemicals are used which are spermicidal agent or surface active agents which
kill sperm. These medicines are composed of chemicals like ZnSO 4, KMnO4, Boric acid, Lactic
acid, Citric acid. These chemicals destroy sperms so they are called as spermicides.
Example = Cream - (delfen) , Jelly - (Perceptin, volpar paste), Sponge Today (contain nonoxinol-
9), Vaginal Foam (e.g. Chlorimine-T or contab)

(3) Intra Uterine Devices (I.U.D.):

• These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina. These
devices are made of plastic, metal or a combination of the two and are inserted into the
uterus to prevent conception.
• These Intra Uterine Devices are 3 types
(a) Non-Medicated IUDs (e.g. Lippes loop) = increase phagocytosis of sperms within the
uterus. These devices are made of plastic with barium sulfate or stainless steel only.
(b) Copper Releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375) = Release copper ions which suppress
sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms.
(c) Hormone Releasing IUDs (Progestasert, LNG 20) = make the uterus unsuitable for
implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms.
• IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space
children. It is one of most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.

(4) Hormonal Method:

This is the most effective method Most widely used contraceptive method. In this method oral
pills, injections and implants are used.
Contraceptive Pills
• Mala D → Daily Oral Pills.
• Oral administration of small doses of either progestogens or progestogen–estrogen
combinations is another contraceptive method used by the females.
• They are used in the form of tablets and hence are popularly called the pills. Pills have to
be taken daily for a period of 21 days starting preferably within the first five days of
menstrual cycle.
• After a gap of 7 days (during which menstruation occurs) it has to be repeated in the same
pattern till the female desires to prevent conception.

Reproductive Health 5
 • Pills are very effective with lesser side effects and are well accepted by the females.
• They inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical mucus to
prevent/retard entry of sperms.
• Saheli– the new oral contraceptive for the females contains a non-steroidal preparation.
❖ It is a ‘once a week’ pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
❖ It is developed by scientists at CDRI Lucknow.
❖ Saheli blocks the estrogen receptors present in the wall of uterus and hence it
prevent implantation. (i.e. it is anti estrogenic drug.)
• Injection/Impants– Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can also be used
by females as injections or implants under the skin.
Their mode of action is similar to that of pills and their effective period are much longer.
❖ An injection of depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) provides protection
against pregnancy for three months.
❖ Implants are hormone containing devices which are implanted sub dermally for
providing long term contraception.
❖ Norplant is progestin only device having six small permeable capsules. They are
inserted under the skin in a fan shaped manner inside upper arm or forearm through
a small incision. Suturing is not required. Norplant remains effective for about 5 year.

Implants
• Emergency Contraceptive Methods which are used within 72 hours of unprotected sexual
intercourse. Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs
within 72 hours of coitus have been found to be very effective as emergency contraceptives
as they could be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or casual unprotected
intercourse.
Example: i-pill, unwanted-72, Mifepristone are emergency contraceptive pills.

(5) Surgical Method:

Surgical methods, also called Sterilization or Terminal method, are generally advised for the
male/female partner as a terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies. Surgical
intervention blocks gamete transport and thereby prevent conception.
• Sterilization procedure in the male is called ‘vasectomy’ and that in the female, ‘tubectomy’.
In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision
on the scrotum. Whereas in tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied
up through a small incision in the abdomen or through vagina. These techniques are highly
effective but their reversibility is very poor.

6 Reproductive Health
 Concept Builder

1. Terminal Methods of Family Planning is

(1) Vasectomy (2) Tubectomy (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) MTP
2. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is:
(1) Ovariectomy (2) Hysterectomy (3) Castration (4) Vasectomy
3. Oral contraceptive pills help in birth control by
(1) Killing sperms (2) Preventing ovulation
(3) Killing ova (4) Forming barrier between sperms and ova
4. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are
(1) For males only (2) For females only
(3) For females & males (4) None
5. Male withdraws his penis just before ejaculation this method is know as –
(1) Periodic abstinence (2) Coitus interruptus
(3) Barrier methods (4) Lactational amenorrhea
6. Cu ions released from copper releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs):
(1) Prevent ovulation (2) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) Increase phagocytosis of sperms (4) Suppress sperm motility
7. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons:
(1) These are effective barriers for insemination
(2) Self inserted & gives privacy to users
(3) These help in reducing the risk of STDs
(4) All of the above
8. Identify method of contraception which is highly effective but has poor reversibility –
(1) IUD (2) Barrier method (3) Sterilization (4) Oral pills
9. A popular brand "Nirodh" is know for –
(1) IUD (2) Diaphragm (3) Contraceptive pill (4) Condom
10. Administration of progestogens or progestogen – estrogen combination or IUDs are very
effective contraceptive methods if taken within ____ of coitus as they could be used to avoid
possible pregnancy due to rape or casual unprotected intercourse.
(1) 30 days (2) 15 days (3) 5 days (4) 72 hours
Concept Builder (Answer-Key)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 4 2 2 2 4 4 3 4 4

Reproductive Health 7
Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
• Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called medical termination of
pregnancy (MTP) or induced abortion.
• Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world which accounts to 1/5th of
the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
• Whether to accept/legalise MTP or not is being debated upon in many countries due to emotional,
ethical, religious and social issues involved in it.
• Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse.
Such restrictions are all the more important to check indiscriminate and illegal female foeticides
which are reported to be high in India.
• Why MTP? Obviously the answer is –to get rid of unwanted pregnancies either due to casual
unprotected intercourse or failure of the contraceptive used during coitus or rapes. MTPs are also
essential in certain cases where continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful even fatal either
to the mother or to the foetus or both.
• MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., upto 12 weeks of pregnancy.
Second trimester abortions are much more riskier.
• One disturbing trend observed is that a majority of the MTPs are performed illegally by unqualified
quacks which are not only unsafe but could be fatal too. Another dangerous trend is the misuse of
amniocentesis to determine the sex of the unborn child. Frequently, if the foetus is found to be
female, it is followed by MTP- this is totally against what is legal. Such practices should be avoided
because these are dangerous both for the young mother and the foetus.
 Effective counselling on the need to avoid unprotected coitus and the risk factors involved in
illegal abortions as well as providing more health care facilities could reverse the mentioned
unhealthy trend.

Medical Termination of Pregnancy:

The Medical Termination of pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 was enacted by the government of
India with the intension of reducing the incidence of illegal abortion and consequent maternal
mortality and morbidity. According to this Act, a pregnancy may be terminated on certain
considered ground within the first 12 weeks of pregnancy on the opinion of one registered medical
practitioner. If the pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks, two
registered medical practitioners must be of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the required
grounds exist. The grounds for such termination of pregnancies are:
(i) The continuation of the pregnancy would involve a risk to the life of the pregnant woman or of
grave injury physical or mental health; or
(ii) There is a substantial risk that of the child were born, it would suffer from such physical or
mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped.

Condition of MTP:
(i) When pregnancy might endanger to mother’s life.
(ii) When child being born with serious illness.
(iii) Where pregnancy is of rape.
(iv) If mother is having more than 2 to 3 child.
(v) Failure of contraceptive devices.
❖ Drug for non surgical abortion is RU486 (French drug)- Misoprostol (a prostaglandin) along with
mifepristone (antiprogesterone)
❖ Vacuum aspiration and surgical procedures are adopted thereafter.

8 Reproductive Health
 Concept Builder

1. Government of India Legalized MTP in

(1) 1972 (2) 1973 (3) 1970 (4) 1971

2. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first

(1) 24 Weeks (2) 12 Weeks (3) 56 Weeks (4) 48 Weeks

3. ____________ abortions are much more riskier

(1) 3rd Week (2) Second trimester (3) 1st Week (4) 2nd Week

4. Which of the following statements is wrong regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy

(MTP)?
(1) In India it is legal up to the 24th week of pregnancy.
(2) MTPs are considered to be relatively safe during the first trimester.
(3) MTPs can’t be done without surgery
(4) It needs the assistance of qualified medical practitioners.

5. Nearly ________________ Million MTPs are performed in a Year

(1) 10-15 (2) 45-50 (3) 25-30 (4) 15-20

6. Among the following, illegal female foeticides are reported to be high in

(1) USA (2) China (3) India (4) Germany

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6
Ans. 4 2 2 3 2 3

Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)

• Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called
sexually transmitted infections (STI) or venereal diseases (VD) or reproductive tract infections(RTI).
• Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis, genital warts, trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B and off
course, the most discussed infection in the recent years, HIV leading to AIDS are some of the
common STIs. Among these, HIV infection is most dangerous.
• Some of these infections like hepatitis–B and HIV can also be transmitted by sharing of injection
needles, surgical instruments, etc., with infected persons, transfusion of blood, or from an infected
mother to the foetus too.
• Except for hepatitis-B, genital herpes and HIV infections, other diseases are completely curable if
detected early and treated properly.
• Early symptoms of most of these are minor and include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain,
swellings, etc., in the genital region. Infected females may often be asymptomatic and hence, may
remain undetected for long. Absence or less significant symptoms in the early stages of infection
and the social stigma attached to the STIs, deter the infected persons from going for timely
detection and proper treatment. This could lead to complications later, which include pelvic
inflammatory diseases (PID), abortions, still births, ectopic pregnancies, infertility or even cancer
of the reproductive tract.
• STIs are a major threat to a healthy society. Therefore, prevention or early detection and cure of
these diseases are given prime consideration under the reproductive health-care programmes.

Reproductive Health 9
• Though all persons are vulnerable to these infections, their incidences are reported to be very high
among persons in the age group of 15-24 years – the age group to which you also belong. Don’t
panic. Prevention is possible.
• One could be free of these infections by following the simple principles given below :-
(i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
(ii) Always use condoms during coitus.
(iii) In case of doubt, go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete treatment if
diagnosed with disease.

Name of STD Pathogen

(1) Gonorrhoea Neisseria gonorrhoeae (bacterium)

(2) Genital herpes Herpes simplex virus

(3) Genital warts Human papilloma virus (HPV)

(4) Syphilis Treponema pallidum (bacterium)

(5) Trichomoniasis Trichomonas vaginalis (protozoan)

(6) Chlamydiasis Chlamydia trachomatis (bacterium)

(7) Hepatitis-B HBV
(8) HIV infection /AIDS HIV = LAV

Concept Builder

1. HIV is similar in its transmission from one infected person to another to the organism which
causes
(1) Gonorrhea (2) Genital harpes (3) Hepatitis-B (4) Syphilis
2. AIDS is caused by
(1) HDV (2) HEV (3) HPV (4) HIV
3. Which of the following sexually transmitted disease (STDs) is not a viral disease?
(1) Syphilis (2) Genital herpes (3) AIDS (4) Hepatitis
4. Causative organism for Trichomoniasis is a
(1) Virus (2) Bacteria (3) Protozoan (4) Fungus
5. Incidence of STDs is very high among individuals of age group
(1) 8-12 years (2) 55-65 years (3) 35-45 years (4) 15-24 years
6. Hepatitis-B is spread by
(1) Only infected syringes (2) Mosquito bite
(3) Infected blood or STD (4) Droplet infections
7. Genital Warts is caused by
(1) HAV (2) HCV (3) HPV (4) HBV
8. Which of the following can be taken as the complications of sexually transmitted diseases?
(1) Pelvic inflammatory diseases (PIDs) (2) Infertility
(3) Still birth (4) All of these

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 3 4 1 3 4 3 3 4

10 Reproductive Health
 Infertility
• A large number of couples all over the world including India are infertile, i.e., they are unable to
produce children inspite of unprotected sexual, co-habitation, even after 2 years of marriage. The
reasons for this could be many–physical, congenital, diseases, drugs, immunological or even
psychological.
• In India, often the female is blamed for the couple being childless, but more often than not, the
problem lies in the male partner. Specialised health care units (infertility clinics, etc.) could help in
diagnosis and corrective treatment of some of these disorders and enable these couples to have
children.
• The couples could be assisted to have children through certain special techniques commonly known
as assisted reproductive technologies (ART).
These technologies are of two type:
(1) In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) – If fertilization occur outside the body of female in almost similar
conditions as that in the body and after it embryo transfer (ET) into uterus or fallopian tube of
surrogate mother or same mother then it is called In Vitro Fertilization.
• In this method, popularly known as test tube baby programme, ova from the wife/donor (female)
and sperms from the husband/donor (male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under
simulated conditions in the laboratory.
Knowledge Booster
First test tube baby was “LOUISE JOY BROWN” under the supervision of Dr. Patrick Steptoe & Dr.
Edward in 1978.
(a) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT): The zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres)
could then be transferred into the fallopian tube.
(b) Intra uterine transfer (IUT): If embryo with more than eight blastomers (commonly 32 cells
stage) is transfer into uterus, this is called IUT.
(c) Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI): It is an another specialised procedure to form an
embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected into the cytoplasm of ovum.
(2) In vivo Fertilization - If fertilization occurs inside the body of female either natural or artificial this
is called in vivo fertilization (fusion of gametes within the female)
(a) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT) - Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the
fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one, but can provide suitable environment
for fertilisation and further development of an embryo.
(b) Artificial Insemination - Due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to
very low sperm counts in the ejaculates, could be corrected by artificial insemination (AI)
technique. In this technique, the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor
is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI – intra-uterine
insemination) of the female.
All these techniques required extremely high precision handling by specialized professionals and
expensive instrumentation.
• Therefore, these facilities are presently available only in very few centers in the country.
Emotional, religons and social factors are also deterrents (discourage) in the adaptation of these
methods.

Reproductive Health 11
 Concept Builder

1. When the correction of infertility is not possible in infertility clinics then the couples could
be assisted to have children through certain special technique commonly called as:
(1) RCH (2) ART (3) MTP (4) RTI

2. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is
called?
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT (3) ICSI (4) ET

3. In which of the following technique is in-vivo:

(1) ZIFT (2) GIFT (3) ICSI (4) IUT

4. IVF technique includes:

(1) GIFT (2) A.I. (3) IUT (4) All the above

5. Artificial insemination means

(1) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
(2) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
(3) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
(4) Introduction of sperms of healthy donor directly into the ovary

6. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full
form of this technique is:
(1) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
(2) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(3) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
(4) Gamete inseminated fallopian

7. The test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of the following techniques?
(1) Zygote intra fallopian transfer
(2) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
(3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
(4) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Ans. 2 3 2 3 2 2 1

12 Reproductive Health
 Exercise – I
Reproductive Health – Problems and 8. Vasectomy is:
Strategies (1) Cutting of fallopian tube
1. Amniocentesis is used for determining: (2) Cutting of vasdeferens
(1) Heart diseases (3) Factor of population growth
(2) Brain diseases
(4) Removing of uterus
(3) Hereditary diseases of embryo
(4) All the above 9. An IUD is:
2. Unsafe abortions are still prevalent in (1) Vasectomy (2) Copper T
our country because: (3) Condom (4) Diaphragm
(1) Public ignorance of the law and lack
10. A contraceptive is:
of information about the available
government (1) Condom, cervical cap and diaphragm
(2) In rural areas, govt. hospital abortion (2) Intrauterine device
services are not readily available (3) Pill
(3) Unmarried girls may be reluctant to (4) All the above
go to the hospitals
(4) all of these 11. A contraceptive pill contains -
(1) Progesterone and estrogen
Population Stabilisation and Birth Control
(2) Spermicidal salts
3. Sterilisation prevents (3) Chemicals that cause automatic
(1) Ovulation (2) Conception
abortion
(3) Spermiation (4) Menstruation
(4) Chemicals that prevent fertilization
4. Choose the right one among the of ovum
statements given below:
(1) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction 12. A contraceptive pill prevent ovulation by:
in the uterus (1) Blocking fallopian tube
(2) IUDs are generally inserted by the (2) Inhibiting release of FSH & LH
user herself (3) Stimulating release of FSH & LH
(3) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
(4) Causing immediate degeneration of
(4) IUDs once inserted need not be
released ovum
replaced
5. In the rhythm method of birth control, 13. Oral contraceptives contain:
the couple abstain from intercourse: (1) Progesterone (2) LH
(1) One day before and after ovulation (3) Oxytocin (4) Steroles
(2) Two days before and after ovulation
(3) Three days before and after ovulation 14. Tubectomy, a method of population
(4) One week before and after ovulation control is performed on:
6. Which of the following is a reusable (1) Both males & females
contraceptive device made up of soft (2) Males only
rubber? (3) Females only
(1) Condom (2) Implant (4) Only pregnant females only
(3) Progestasert (4) Diaphragm
15. Which is related to males?
7. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent:
(1) IUD's
(1) Egg formation
(2) Embryonic development (2) Tubectomy
(3) Fertilization (3) Vasectomy
(4) Coitus (4) Cervical cape

Reproductive Health 13
16. In which method no medicine or device 23. Emergency contraceptives are effective
are used? if used within:
(1) Barrier Method (1) 72 hrs of coitus
(2) Surgical Method (2) 12 hrs of ovulation
(3) Oral Contraceptive (3) 72 hrs of menstruation
(4) Natural Method (4) 72 hrs of implantation
17. Sterilization procedures are very effective 24. There is no menstruation and ovulation
in preventing pregnancy as they: during intense lactation following parturition.
(1) Block gamete transport and hence This can be used as a method of
prevent fertilization contraception which is effective only upto
(2) Prevent gametogenesis maximum period of:
(3) Prevent release of gonadotropic (1) 6 weeks (2) 8 weeks
hormones (3) 12 months (4) 6 months
(4) Their reversibility is high
25. Which of the following contraceptive
18. Lactational amenorrhoea, is a natural
device is inserted by the doctor or
way of birth spacing. It is due to the high
trained nurse in the uterus through the
level of
vagina?
(1) FSH and LH hormones
(1) Condom (2) Vault
(2) Estrogen
(3) Diaphragm (4) Cu-T
(3) Progesterone
(4) Prolactin 26. Which of the following is an incorrect
statement for periodic abstinence?
19. Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams
(1) The couple should abstain from
are usually used along with the barrier
coitus from day 10 to 17 of the
methods to:
menstrual cycle when ovulation
(1) Increase their conception efficiency
(2) Decrease their conceptive efficiency could be expected
(3) Increase their contraceptive efficiency (2) 10th to 17th day of the cycle is fertile
(4) Provide motility to sperms period, when the chances of
fertilisation are high
20. Emergency contraceptive could be used (3) In this method, the ovum and sperms
to avoid possible pregnancy due to: are prevented from physically
(1) Casual unprotected intercourse
meeting with the help of barriers
(2) Rape
(4) This prevents the chances of union
(3) MTP
of male and female gametes
(4) Both (1) and (2)
27. Which of the following contraceptive
21. Which of the following is a terminal
method has maximum chances of
method of contraception to prevent any
failure?
more pregnancies?
(1) IUDs
(1) Hormonal method
(2) Hormonal
(2) Sterilisation method
(3) Barrier
(3) Barrier method
(4) Coitus-interruptus
(4) IUD
28. For delaying pregnancy or spacing
22. Intensely lactating mothers do not
children the ideal contraceptive is
generally conceive due to the:
(1) Vasectomy
(1) Suppression of gonadotropins
(2) Hypersecretion of gonadotropins (2) Tubectomy
(3) Suppression of gametic transport (3) Oral Contraceptive
(4) Suppression of fertilization (4) IUD

14 Reproductive Health
 29. Use of spermicidal creams, jellies and 36. Lactational amenorrhoea occurs as
foams along with diaphragms, cervical prolactin directly:
caps and vaults leads to (1) inhibits the secretion of LH
(1) Prevention of implantation (2) inhibits the secretion of GnRH
(2) Increased sexual desire and drive (3) stimulates estrogen secretion
(3) Increased contraceptive efficiency
(4) increases the secretion of inhibin
(4) Prevention of ovulation
37. Minipill contains:
30. Which of the following is not a copper
releasing IUD? (1) Only estrogens
(1) Cu-7 (2) Cu-T (2) Only progesterones
(3) LNG-20 (4) Multiload-375 (3) Both estrogens and progesterones
(4) Herbal formulations
31. The diaphragm is a rubber dome shaped
structure and stops the sperms from 38. Which of the following is not an
entering into advantage of the IUDs?
(1) Vestibule (2) Vagina (1) The IUD doesn't require regular
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Cervix supply nor there is any problem of
32. Which of the following is not included disposal affecting privacy.
under barrier methods of birth control? (2) It doesn't have any systemic side
(1) Cervical cap (2) Implant effects and it works as soon as it is
(3) Vaginal pouch (4) Diaphragm inserted.
33. A birth control implant having six small, (3) The return of fertility of following
plastic cylinders and with the effective removal is immediate.
period much longer upto 5 years is (4) It protects from sexually transmitted
(1) Multiload-375 diseases
(2) Injectable
(3) Norplant/implant 39. Which of the following approaches does
(4) LNG-20 not give the defined action of
contraceptive?
34. Implant ‘Norplant’ is the new form of
birth control and it (1) Intra uterine devices Increase
(1) Allows ovulation but doesn’t allow phagocytosis of sperms, suppress
fertilization sperm motility and fertilising
(2) Has progestin as the active ingredient capacity of sperms
(3) Makes the cervical mucus thin (2) Hormonal contraceptives Prevent/
making sperm entry into the uterus retard entry of sperms, prevent
difficult ovulation and fertilisation
(4) Is effective for a maximum of one year (3) Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis
35. Lactational amenorrhea method of (4) Barrier methods Prevent fertilisation
contraception is based on the fact that: 40. Birth control pills contain synthetic
(1) Ovulation and menstrual flow does
estrogen and progesterone. How might
not occur post conception during
these hormones prevent pregnancy?
intense lactation
(1) They cause the corpus luteum to
(2) The cervix mucus becomes hostile to
sperms after parturition during degenerate.
intense lactation (2) They inhibit the pituitary from
(3) Ovulation and menstrual flow does secreting FSH and LH, so ovulation
not occur post-partum during does not occur.
intense lactation (3) They cause the lining of the uterus to
(4) The endometrium is reabsorbed be sloughed off.
rather than sloughed off during (4) They trigger premature ovulation,
intense lactation before an egg is mature.

Reproductive Health 15
 Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) 46. All the following statements about ZIFT
are correct, but one is wrong. Which one
41. The partner responsible for sex of the
is wrong?
child is -
(1) It is zygote intra fallopian transfer
(1) Male
(2) Zygote is transferred into the
(2) Female
fallopian tube after IVF
(3) Both
(3) Early embryos upto 8 blastomeres
(4) Some times male & some times female
can also be transferred into the
42. MTP is: fallopian tubes
(1) Multi trade practices (4) Embryos with more than 8
(2) Malthusian treatise on population blastomeres are also transferred
(3) Multiple temporary frequency into the fallopian tubes.
(4) Medical termination of pregnancy 47. Which of the following is the most
43. Consider the following statements with appro-priate statement defining
two blanks A and B. Select the option infertility?
which correctly fills up these blanks. (1) It is the inability to produce a viable
Government of India legalised MTP in A offspring and is always due to
with some strict conditions to avoid its defects abnormalities in the female
misuse. Such restrictions are all the partner
more important to check indiscriminate (2) Infertility is due to immature sex
and illegal B foeticides which are organs
(3) Couple is unable to produce children
reported to be high in India.
inspite of unprotected sexual
A B
cohabitation even after two years
(1) 1951 Female
(4) Infertility cannot be helped by ART
(2) 1971 Male
(3) 1971 Female 48. Gamete intra-fallopian transfer involves:
(4) 1951 Male (1) Collection of zygote from donor
(2) Transfer of ovum collected from a
Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIS)
donor into the fallopian tube of
44. STDs lead to: recipient female.
(1) Itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, (3) Both (1) and (2)
swellings, etc. (4) More than 8 Blastomeres transfer to
(2) Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases (PID), fallopian tube.
ectopic pregnancies, still births,
49. Which method can be used for women
infertility, abortions, etc. that cannot produce ovum but can
(3) Both (1) and (2) provide suitable environment?
(4) None of the above (1) IUD (2) GIFT (3) IUI (4) ICSI
Infertility 50. Choose the correct statement regarding
45. What is correct about test tube baby? the ZIFT procedure:
(1) Fertilization inside female genital (1) Ova collected from a female donor
tract and growth in test tube are transferred to the Fallopian tube
(2) Rearing of prematurely born baby in to facilitate zygote formation.
incubator (2) Zygote is collected and transferred
(3) Fertilization outside and gestation to the Fallopian tube.
inside womb of mother (3) Zygote is collected from a female
(4) Both fertilization and development donor and transferred to the uterus.
are effected outside the female genital (4) Ova collected from a donor and
transferred to the uterus.
tract

16 Reproductive Health
 Exercise – II

1. Among the following methods, which 9. Which of the following contraceptive

one has the highest failure rate? method make uterus unsuitable for
(1) Diaphragm with spermicide implantation?
(2) Condom (1) Diaphragm (2) Condom
(3) Intrauterine device (3) IUD (4) Natural method
(4) Rhythm method 10. Which of the following is natural method
2. Which of the following is an abortion of contraception?
pill? (1) Sterilization
(1) Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (2) IUD
(2) RU486 (3) Diaphragm
(3) Norethisterone enanthate (4) Periodic abstinence
(4) Nonoxynol-9 11. Implants under the skin are used as
3. One of amongst first countries of world contraceptive device. These devices has:
which adopt family planning programme (1) Progestogens alone
(1) Japan (2) USA (2) Estrogen alone
(3) India (4) Bangladesh (3) Progestogen–estrogen combination
(4) Progestogens alone or Progestogen –
4. Govt. sponsored “family planning estrogen combination
programme” in:
12. Which of the following can be used as
(1) 1947 (2) 1951
an emergency contraceptive?
(3) 1977 (4) 1965
(1) Mala-D (2) Saheli
5. Saheli, A female antifertility pills is used (3) i-pills (4) Condom
(1) Daily (2) Weekly
13. Which of the following method of
(3) Quarterly (4) Monthly
contraception has least side effect?
6. Test tube baby means a baby born (1) IUD
when: (2) Pills
(1) It is developed in a test tube (3) Coitus interruptus
(2) It is developed through tissue culture (4) Cervical cap
method
14. Which of the following methods of
(3) The ovum is fertilised externally and
contraception prevents ovulation?
there after implanted in the uterus
(1) Pills (2) Depo-provera
(4) It develops from a non-fertilzed egg
(3) Norplant (4) All the above
7. What is the work of copper-T?
15. In which of the following methods
(1) To inhibit ovulation zygote upto 32 blastomere is transferred
(2) To prevent fertilization into the uterus:
(3) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst (1) IUT (2) ZIFT
(4) To inhibit gametogenesis (3) GIFT (4) ICSI
8. Which of the following is a nonsteroidal 16. A contraceptive pill developed by the
pill? scientists of CDRI Lucknow is:
(1) Mala-D (2) Mala-N (1) Mala-D (2) Mala-N
(3) Saheli (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Saheli (4) Quinestrol

Reproductive Health 17
 17. If male is impotent and female is normal 25. Day of periodic abstinence is:
then which of the following technique (1) 10-11 days of menstrual phase
can be used? (2) 10-17 days of menstrual phase
(1) ICSI (3) 17-20 days of menstrual phase
(2) ZIFT (4) 20-28 days of menstrual phase
(3) GIFT
26. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian
(4) Artificial insemination
Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for the
18. Which contraceptive method provides females
some protection against HIV? (1) Who can’t produce an ovum
(1) IUD (2) Who can’t retain the foetus inside
(2) Pills the uterus
(3) Condom (3) Whose cervical canal is too narrow
(4) Periodic abstinence to allow the passage for the sperms
(4) Who can’t provide suitable environment
19. Which of the following is not included
for fertilisation
under barrier methods of birth control?
(1) Vaults (2) Diaphragm 27. Which hormone of the female body is
(3) Cervical cap (4) Implant suppressed by the oral contraceptive
20. Which one of the following is the most pills?
widely used method of contraception by (1) FSH (2) Estrogen
females in India? (3) Progesterone (4) Testosterone
(1) Oral contraceptive pills 28. A contraceptive method in which the
(2) Condoms couples avoid or abstain from coitus from
(3) IUDs day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when
(4) Sterilisation ovulation could be expected, is called:
21. The latest technique to produce a child (1) Lactational amenorrhea
is GIFT. The full form is: (2) Periodic abstinence
(1) Gametic Internal Fertilisation and (3) Coitus interruptus
Transfer (4) Multiload
(2) Gametic Intra Fallopian Transfer 29. Nearly ...a... million MTPs are performed
(3) Gametic Inter Fallopian Transfer in a year all over the world which
(4) General Internal Fallopian Transfer accounts to ...b... of the total number of
22. RCH Stands of: conceived pregnancies in a year.
(1) Reproductive and child Health care (1) a–40 to 50, b–1/4th
(2) Reproductive Cum Hygiene (2) a–50 to 60, b–1/5th
(3) Reproductive Check-up of Health (3) a–45 to 50, b–1/4th
(4) Reproductive of Child Health and Care (4) a–45 to 50, b–1/5th

23. If vasectomy is done, then which 30. Which is wrongly matched?

condition would occur in a male? (1) ICSI–Sperm directly injected into ovum
(1) Teratospermia (2) Asthenospermia (2) AI–Sperm is introduced into vagina
(3) Azospermia (4) Both (1) and (2) artificially.
(3) GIFT–Embryo with more than 8
24. Example of the non-medicated IUD is:
blastomeres transferred into
(1) Cu-T (2) Cu-7
fallopian tube
(3) Multiload-375 (4) Lippes loop
(4) IVF–Fertilization outside the body

18 Reproductive Health
 Exercise – III

1. Consider the following four statements 4. Sterilisation techniques are generally

A, B, C and D and state whether they are fool proof methods of contraception
true (T) or false (F):
with least side effects. Yet, this is the
(A) STDs are reported to be very high
among persons in the age group of last option for the couples because:
15-24 years. (i) It is almost irreversible
(B) MTP has a significant role in (ii) It is highly effective.
decreasing the population through it
(iii) It is a surgical procedure
is not meant for that purpose.
(C) Vasectomy and Tubectomy are (iv) Blocks gametes transport and there
highly effective but their reversibility by prevent conception.
is very poor. Choose the correct option:
(D) Copper releasing IUDs are CuT, Cu7,
(1) i and iii (2) ii and iii
LNG-20
A B C D (3) ii and iv (4) i, ii, iii and iv
(1) T T T T
(2) T F T F 5. Select correct matching Method and
(3) T T T F Mode of action
(4) T F F T (A) LNG-20 (a) Prevent ovulation
2. Which of the following technique involves (B) CuT (b) Prevent fertilization
in vivo fertilization? (C) MALA-N (c) Prevent sperms
(a) GIFT
reaching in cervix
(b) IUI
(c) ICSI (D) Nirodh (d) Prevent implantation
(d) Test-tube baby programme (1) A-d. B-b, C-a, D-c
Choose the correct option:- (2) A-d, B-c, C-a, D-b
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) A-c, B-a, C-b, D-d
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) Only (a) (4) A-d, B-b, C-c, D-a
(4) (a) and (b)
6. I. Rapid decline in death rate.

3. What is true about "Saheli"? II. Rapid increase in MMR and IMR
(i) Developed at the CDRI, Lucknow III. Rapid decline in MMR and IMR
(ii) Contains a steroidal preparation IV. Increase in number of people in the
(iii) "Once-a-week" pill reproductive age group
(iv) Many side effects
V. Rapid increase in the death rate
(v) High contraceptive value
What are the causes of higher population
(vi) Very few side effects
growth?
(vii) Low contraceptive value
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi) (1) All

(2) (i), (iii), (v), (vi) (2) I, II, IV

(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (3) III, IV, V
(4) (i), (iii), (iv), (v) (4) I, III, IV

Reproductive Health 19
7. Identify the true statements from the 10. Given below are four methods (A - D)
below statements and their modes of action (a-d) in
I. There are many side effects of
achieving contraception. Select their
tubectomy and vasectomy.
correct matching from the four options
II. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent
that follow:
egg formation.
III. The most important component of Method Mode of Action

the oral contraceptive pills is A. The pill (a) Prevents

progesterone. Sperms reaching
IV. Contraceptive oral pills help in birth
cervix
control by preventing ovulation.
B. Condom (b) Prevents
V. Genital warts is a sexually
implantation
transmitted disease caused by
herpes virus. C. Vasectomy (c) Prevents

VI. In India, there is rapid decline in ovulation

infant mortality rate and MMR. D. Copper T (d) Semen
(1) III, IV and VI (2) IV, V and VI
contains no
(3) I, II and III (4) I, II and V
sperms
8. Which of the following statement is/are (1) A-(b), B-(c), C-(a), D-(d)
correct about diaphragms, cervical caps
(2) A-(d), B-(a), C-(b), D-(c)
and vaults?
(3) A-(c), B-(d), C-(a), D-(b)
A. Barrier methods of contraception
(4) A-(c), B-(a), C-(d), D-(b)
B. Cover the cervix during coitus
C. Protect the user from contracting
11. What is true for an ideal contraceptive?
STDs D. They are reusable
I. It should be user-friendly.
(1) A & B only (2) A, B & D
(3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D II. It should be easily available

III. It should be ineffective and reversible

9. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices
with least side effects
used by the females. Choose the correct
option from the statements given below: IV. It should effective and reversible with

i. They are introduced into the uterus least side effects.

ii. They are placed to cover the cervical V. It should interfere with the sexual act
region of the user
iii. They act as physical barriers for
(1) I, II, IV
sperm entry
(2) I, II, III
iv. They act as spermicidal agents
(1) i and ii (2) i and iii (3) I, II, IV, V

(3) iii and iv (4) ii and iii (4) All of these

20 Reproductive Health
12. Select the option which correctly fills up 14. Consider the two surgical procedures
the blanks in the following statements. given below and choose the correct
Statements: statement:
A. Destruction of embryo or foetus in
the uterus is called ___________.
B. Government of India legalised MTP in
the year ___________.
C. Natural family planning method is
also called __________.
D. ______ is a method in which the male
(1) A is a more difficult procedure than
partner withdraws his penis from
B.
vagina just before ejaculation.
(2) The reversibility of A is good but that
E. ___________ is the copper releasing
of B is very poor.
and _________ is a hormone
(3) A will make the male impotent and
releasing intra uterine devices.
B will make the female infertile.
Options:
(4) Both A and B can be called
(1) A-Foeticide, B-1961, C-Rhythm sterilization procedures.
Method, D-Coitus interruptus, E-
Multiload 375, LNG-20 15. What is the figure given below showing
(2) A-Foeticide, B-1965, C-Rhythm particular?

Method, D-Coitus interruptus, E-

Multiload 375, LNG-20
(3) A-Foeticide, B-1982, C-Rhythm
Method, D-Coitus interruptus, E-
Multiload 375, LNG-20
(1) Ovarian cancer (2) Uterine cancer
(4) A-Foeticide, B-1971, C-Rhythm
(3) Tubectomy (4) Vasectomy
Method, D-Coitus interruptus, E-
Multiload 375, LNG-20 16. Match the following column-1 with
column-2
13. Sterilisation techniques are generally
Column-I Column-II
fool proof methods of contraception
A. Lippes loop I. Non- medicated
with least side effects. Yet, this is the
IUDs
last option for the couples because:
B. Multiload II. Hormone
i. It is almost irreversible
375 Releasing IUDs
ii. Of the misconception that it will
C. CuT III. Copper
reduce sexual urge/drive
Releasing IUDs
iii. It is a surgical procedure
D. Cu7
iv. lack of sufficient facilities in many E. LNG-20
parts of the country F. Progestasert
Choose the correct option: The correct match is:
(1) ii and iii (1) I – A; II – B; F; III – C, D, E
(2) i and iii (2) I – A; II – E, F; III – B, C, D
(3) ii and iv (3) I – B; II – E, F; III – A, C, D
(4) i, ii, iii and iv (4) I - B, II – A, F; III – C, D, E

Reproductive Health 21
17. Choose the correct option: 21. Match column-I with column-II and
I. RTI- Reproductive Tract Infections choose the correct option:
II. VD-Venereal Diseases Column-I Column-II
III. STD - Sexually Transmitted Diseases (a) Legalisation of (i) 2017
IV. IVF - Intra Vaginal Transfer MTP in India
(1) II and IV only (2) I, II, III
(b) Initiation of (ii) 1971
(3) II, IV (4) III, IV
'family planning
18. programs'
(c) India's Growth (iii) Less than 2%
rate
(d) MTP amendment (iv) 1951
act

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

22. Match column-I with column-II and

select the correct option.
I. Tubectomy II. Vasectomy
Column-I Column-II
III. Implants V. Copper T
(a) (i) implant
IV. Condoms VI. Cervical caps
(1) A – VI; B – V; C – III; D – II; E – I
(2) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – I; E – II (b) (ii) Copper T
(3) A – IV; B – V; C – III; D – II; E – I
(4) A – VI; B – V; C – IV; D – I; E – II

19. Consider the given sexually transmitted

infections:
(c) (iii) Condom
Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes,
for
Chlamydiasis, Genital warts, Trichomoniasis,
male
Hepatitis — B, HIV
How many of these diseases are caused
by bacteria?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1

20. In vitro fertilization (IVF) is a four stage (d) (iv) Condom

procedure. The correct sequence is: for
I. Egg (oocyte) retrieval female
II. Ovarian stimulation and monitoring
III. Fertilization (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
IV. Embryo transfer (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) IV, III, II, I (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) II, III, I, IV (4) II, I, III, IV (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

22 Reproductive Health
23. Consider the following statements. 27. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices
(a) AIDS and Hepatitis B are STIs which used by the females. Choose the correct
are caused by virus. option from the statements given below:
(b) Gonorrhoea and syphilis are caused (i) They are introduced into the uterus
by bacteria. (ii) They are placed to cover the cervical
Select the correct option. region
(iii) They act as physical barriers for
(1) a is true, b is false
sperm entry
(2) a is false, b is true
(iv) They act as spermicidal agents
(3) Both a and b are false
(1) i and ii (2) i and iii
(4) Both a and b are true (3) ii and iii (4) iii and iv
24. Which of the following statement is/are 28. Following statements are given regarding
correct about diaphragms, cervical caps MTP. Choose the correct options given
and vaults? below:
A. Barrier methods of contraception (i) MTPs are generally advised during first
B. Cover the cervix during coitus trimester
C. Protect the user from contracting (ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive
STDs method
D. They are reusable (iii) MTPs are always surgical
(1) A & B only (2) A, B & C (iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified
medical personnel
(3) A, B & D (4) A, B, C & D
(1) ii and iii (2) ii and iii
25. Read the following statements and find (3) i and iv (4) i and ii
out the incorrect statement.
29. Assertion (A) A person should be
a. Surgical method of contraception considered reproductively healthy, if he
prevent gamete formation has healthy reproductive organs, but is
b. All sexually transmitted diseases are emotionally imbalanced.
completely curable Reason (R) It is significant to maintain
c. Oral pills are very popular contraceptives reproductive health of people and society.
among the rural women (1) If both A and R are true and R is the
d. In Embro Transfer techniques, correct explanation of A
embryos are always transferred into (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
the uterus correct explanation of A
(1) a and c (2) b and d (3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true
(3) b, c and d (4) a, b, c and d
30. Assertion (A) Family planning is an action
26. Use of which of the following has been
plan to attain reproductive health.
found to be very effective as emergency
Reason (R) Some additional improved
contraceptive:
programmes covering reproduction related
(a) IUD areas are currently in operation under the
(b) Tubectomy Reproductive and Child Health care
(c) Progestogen-estrogen combinations Programmes.
(d) Cervical cap (1) If both A and R are true and R is the
(e) Today tablet correct explanation of A
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not
(2) (b), (d) & (e) the correct explanation of A
(3) (a) & (c) (3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) (c), (d) & (e) (4) If A is false, but R is true

Reproductive Health 23
31. Assertion (A) Reproductive and Child 35. Assertion (A): In barrier methods ovum
Healthcare Programme is for reproduction and sperms are prevented form
related areas. physically meeting with the help of
Reason (R) It deals with creating barriers.
awareness among various reproduction Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps
related aspects. an and vaults are barrier made of rubber
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the that are inserted into the female
correct explanation of A reproductive tract.
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
correct explanation of A the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) If A is true, but R is false (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(4) If A is false, but R is true not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
32. Assertion (A) Amniocentesis is often (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
misused.
36. Assertion (A): Periodic abstinence is a
Reason (R) It is meant for determining the
natural method, where couples abstain
genetic disorders in the foetus, but it is
from coitus.
being used to determine the sex of the
Reason (R): Coitus from day 5-10 of the
foetus, leading to increase in the female
menstrual cycle should be avoided,
foeticide.
because this is the time of ovulation.
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
correct explanation of A the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
correct explanation of A not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) If A is true, but R is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
33. Assertion (A) Rapid decline in death rate, 37. Assertion (A): Contraceptive pills inhibit
MMR and IMR have lead to staggering rise ovulation and implantation as well as
in population. alter the quality of cervical mucus to
Reason (R) Such an alarming growth rate prevent or retard the entry of sperms.
has lead to an absolute scarcity of even the Reason (R): 'Saheli' a new oral
most basic requirements, i.e. food and contraceptive for females is once a
shelter. week pill with very few side effects and
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the contains a non steroidal preparation.
correct explanation of A (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the the correct explanation of the (A)
correct explanation of A (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(3) If A is true, but R is false not the correct explanation of the (A)
(4) If A is false, but R is true (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
34. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II 38. Assertion (A): Surgical method blocks
(STDs) (Causal agents) gamete transport and thereby prevent
A. Chlamydiasis 1. Chlamydia trachomatis conception.
Reason (R): Surgical method are highly
B. Syphilis 2. Treponema pallidium
effective but their reversibility is very
C. Trichomoniasis 3. Trichomonas vaginalis
poor.
D. Genital herpes 4. Herpes simplex virus
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
Codes the correct explanation of the (A)
(1) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4 (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(2) A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2 not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4 (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3 (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

24 Reproductive Health
 Exercise – IV(Previous Year Questions)

[AIPMT-2013] [NEET 2016]

6. Which of the following approaches does
1. Artificial insemination means:
not give the defined action of
(1) Introduction of sperms of a healthy contraceptive?
donor directly into the ovary (1) Barrier Prevent fertilization
(2) Transfer of sperms of a healthy (2) methods
Intra uterine Increase phagocytosis
donor to a test tube containing ova devices of sperms, suppress
sperm motility and
(3) Transfer of sperms of husband to a
fertilizing capacity of
test tube containing ova
sperms
(4) Artificial introduction of sperms of a (3) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry
healthy donor into the vagina contraceptives of sperms, prevent
ovulation and
[AIPMT-2014] fertilization
2. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization (4) Vasectomy Prevents
spermatogenesis
in which:
(1) Small part of the fallopian tube is 7. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres
removed or tied up formed due to in vitro fertilization is
(2) Ovaries are removed surgically. transferred into:
(1) Fimbriae (2) Cervix
(3) Small part of vas deferens is (3) Uterus (4) Fallopian tube
removed or ties up
[NEET 2017]
(4) Uterus is removed surgically.
8. The function of copper ions in copper
3. Which of the following is a hormone releasing IUD's is:
(1) They suppress sperm motility and
releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)?
fertilising capacity of sperms
(1) Multiload 375 (2) LNG-20 (2) They inhibit gametogenesis
(3) Cervical cap (4) Vault (3) They make uterus unsuitable for
impanation
4. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF (4) They inhibit ovulation
involves transfer of:
9. In case of a couple where the male is
(1) Ovum into the fallopian tube having a very low sperm count, which
(2) Zygote into the fallopian tube technique will be suitable for
fertilisation?
(3) Zygote into the uterus
(1) Intrauterine transfer
(4) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the (2) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian
fallopian tube transfer
(3) Artificial Insemination
[AIPMT-2015] (4) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
[NEET 2018]
5. A childless couple can be assisted to
10. The contraceptive 'SAHELI':
have a child through a technique called (1) blocks estrogen receptors in the
GIFT. The full form of this technique is: uterus, preventing eggs from getting
(1) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer implanted.
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen
(2) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
and prevents ovulation in females.
(3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (3) is an IUD.
(4) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer (4) is a post-coital contraceptive.

Reproductive Health 25
 [NEET 2019] [NEET 2023]
11. Select the hormone-releasing Intra- 17. Match List – I with List – II with respect
Uterine Devices. to methods of Contraception and their
(1) Progestasert, LNG-20 respective actions.
(2) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
(3) Vaults, LNG-20 List-I List-II
(4) Multiload 375, Progestasert (a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit
12. Which of the following contraceptive ovulation
methods do involve a role of hormone? and
(1) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives Implantation
(2) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier (b) Contraceptive (ii) Increase
methods pills phagocytosis
(3) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency
of sperm
contraceptives
with Uterus
(4) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea,
Pills (c) Intra Uterine (iii) Absence of
[NEET 2020] Devices Menstrual
13. In which of the following techniques, the cycle and
embryos are transferred to assist those ovulation
females who cannot conceive? following
(1) GIFT and ZIFT (2) ICSI and ZIFT parturition
(3) GIFT and ICSI (4) ZIFT and IUT
(d) Lactational (iv) They cover
[NEET 2021] Amenorrhea the cervix
14. Which one of the following is an example locking the
of Hormone releasing IUD ? entry of
(1) CuT (2) LNG 20 sperms
(3) Cu 7 (4) Multiload 375
Choose the correct answer from the
15. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II options given below :
(a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through (1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
Cervix is blocked (2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas deferens (3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
(c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms (4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
within the Uterus
(d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube 18. Match the column
Choose the correct answer from the Column-I Column-II
options given below. a. Vasectomy (i) Oral method
(a) (b) (c) (d) b. Coitus (ii) Barrier method
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) interruptus
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
c. Cervical (iii) Surgical method
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
caps
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
d. Saheli (iv) Natural method
[NEET 2022]
Choose the correct answer from the
16. Lippe’s loop is a type of contraceptive
options given below:
used as:
(1) Cervical barrier (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(2) Vault barrier (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Non-Medicated IUD (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Copper releasing IUD (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

26 Reproductive Health
19. Which of the following common sexually 23. Given below are two statements: one is
transmitted diseases is completely labelled as Assertion A and the other is
curable when detected early and treated labelled as Reason R.
properly? Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex
(1) HIV infection (2) Genital herpes determination is one of the strategies of
Reproductive and Child Health Care
(3) Gonorrhoea (4) Hepatitis-B
Programme.
20. Assertion: Aminocentesis for sex Reason R: Ban ion amniocentesis checks
determination is one of strategies of increasing menace of female foeticide.
Reproductive and Child Health Care In the light of the above statements,
Program. choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
Reason: Ban on amniocentesis checks
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
increasing menace of female foeticide.
correct explanation of A.
In the light of the above statements, (2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT
choose the correct answer from the the correct explanation of A.
options given below: (3) A is true but R is false.
(1) Assertion is false but reason is true. (4) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true
[NEET 2023] MANIPUR
and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. 24. Match List-I with List-II.
(3) Both assertions and reason are true List-I List-II
(A) Non-medicated IUDs (I) Multiload 375
but reason is not correct explanation
(B) Copper releasing IUDs (II) Rubber barrier
of assertion. (C) Hormone releasing (III) Lippes loop
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. IUDs
(D) Vaults (IV) LNG-20
[NEET 2023]
Choose the correct answer from the
21. Which one of the following common options given below :
sexually transmitted diseases is (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
completely curable when detected early (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
and treated properly?
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(1) Genital herpes
(2) Gonorrhoea 25. Given below are two statements:
(3) Hepatitis-B Statement I: Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm
(4) HIV Infection Injection (ICSI) is another specialised
procedure of in-vivo fertilisation.
22. Match List I with List II. Statement II: Infertility cases due to
List I List II inability of the male partner to inseminate
A. Vasectomy I. Oral method female can be corrected by artificial
B. Coitus interruptus II. Barrier method insemination (AI).
In the light of the above statements,
C. Cervical caps III. Surgical
choose the correct answer from the
method
options given below:
D. Saheli IV. Natural (1) Statement I is correct but statement
method II is false
Choose the correct answer from the (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement
options given below:- II is true
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I true
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III false.

Reproductive Health 27
28 Reproductive Health
 ANSWER KEY

Reproductive Health
Exercise - I

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 4 2 1 3 4 3 2 2 4 1 2 1 3 3 4 1 4 3 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 1 4 4 3 4 4 3 3 4 2 3 2 3 2 2 4 3 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 1 4 3 3 3 4 3 2 2 2

Exercise - II

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 1 3 4 3 4 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 1 3 4 2 1 1 2 4 3

Exercise – III
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 2 4 1 4 1 2 4 4 1 4 1 4 3 2 2 3 2 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
Ans. 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 1 3 2 2

Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 1 2 2 3 4 3 1 3 1 1 3 4 2 2 3 2 3 3 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 2 2 4 3 2

Reproductive Health 29
 1 Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Genetics
Genetics: A branch of biology deals with the heredity and variation.
• The word genetics was introduced in 1905 by English biologist William Bateson.
• The word genetics comes from the word “Gene” and genes are the focus of the subject.

Heredity: Heredity is the study of transmission of genetic characteristics from parents to offspring.
Inheritance: Inheritance is the process by which genetic characters are passed on from parent to
progeny.
• Inheritance is the basis of heredity.

“Like begets like’ is due to inheritance.

Variation: Variation is the degree by which progeny differ from their parents.
Reasons for variation.
1. Crossing over
2. Independent assortment
3. Mutation

Gene: Term was given by Johannsen.

• Mendel called it factor or element.
• Functional unit of inheritance.
• A segment of DNA which express itself in form of a character.

Important researchers in genetics:

(a) G.J. Mendel : Father of Genetics.
(b) W. Bateson : He gave the term Genetics, Homozygous, Heterozygous and Allele.
(c) Morgan : Father of Experimental genetics.
• He performed experiment on Drosophila & proposed various concepts, like Linkage, Sex
linkage, Crossing over, Criss - cross inheritance.

(d) A. Garrod : Father of human genetics & Biochemical genetics.

Garrod discovered first human Metabolic genetic disorder which is called alkaptonuria
(Black urine disease).

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 1

Some Genetical Terms
1. Factors: Unit of heredity which is responsible for inheritance and appearance of characters.
These factors were referred to as genes by Johannsen (1909). Mendel used term "element" or "factor".

2. Allele: Alternative forms of a gene which are located on same position [locus] of the homologous
chromosome is called Allele.

Allele arise due to mutation.

Frequency of an allele in a population must be greater than 0.01.

3. Homozygous: A zygote formed by fusion of two gametes having identical factors is called
homozygote and organism developed from this zygote is called homozygous. Ex. TT, RR, tt

4. Heterozygous: A zygote formed by fusion of two different types of gamete carrying different
factors is called heterozygote (Tt, Rr) and individual developed from such zygote is called
heterozygous.

5. Hemizygous: If diploid individual contains only one gene of a pair then individual said to be
Hemizygous. Male individual is always Hemizygous for sex linked gene.
EX. Colourblindness, Haemophillia

6. Dominant: The character expresses itself in both homozygous as well as heterozygous

condition.
Ex. Tallness in pea plant appears both in “TT” and “Tt”.

7. Recessive: The character which expresses itself only in homozygous condition.

Ex.: Dwarfness in pea plant appears in “tt” only.
It is also expressed in hemizygous condition.

8. Phenotype: It is the external and morphological appearance of an organism for a particular character.
Ex. Tall, Dwarf.

9. Genotype : The genetic constitution or genetic make-up of an organism for a particular character.
Ex. TT, Tt, tt
Genotype & phenotype terms were coined by Johannsen.

10. Phenocopy : If different genotypes are placed in different environmental conditions then they
produce same phenotype. Then these genotypes are said to be Phenocopy of each other.

11. Hybrid vigour/Heterosis : Superiority of offsprings over it's parents is called as Hybrid vigour
• It develops due to Heterozygosity.
• Hybrid vigour can be maintained for long time in vegetatively propagated crops.
• Hybrid vigour can be lost by inbreeding (selfing) because inbreeding induces the
homozygosity in offsprings.
• Loss of Hybrid vigour due to inbreeding, is called as inbreeding depression.

2 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

 Concept Builder

1. Alleles are:–
(1) Alternate forms of a gene (2) Homologous chromosome
(3) Pair of sex chromosome (4) None of these

2. The ultimate biological unit which controls heredity, is called

(1) Genome (2) Chromosome (3) Genotype (4) Gene

3. Recessive allele express itself in following condition.

(1) Homozygous (2) Heterozygous (3) Hemizygous (4) Both (1) and (3)

4. Transmission of genetic characters from parents to offspring is

(1) Variation (2) Heredity (3) Blending (4) Mutation

5. Phenotype of an organism is the result of:

(1) Mutations and linkages
(2) Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
(3) Environmental changes and sexual dimorphism
(4) Genotype and environment interactions

6. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F 1 hybrid is often
superior to both its parents. This phenomenon is called :
(1) Heterosis (2) Transformation (3) Splicing (4) Metamorphosis

Concept Builder (Answer key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6
Ans. 1 4 4 2 4 1

Concept of Dominance:
Q. What exactly is dominance?

Q. Why are some alleles dominant and some recessive?

To tackle these questions, we must understand what a gene does.

Every gene, as you know by now, contains the information to express a particular trait.
1. In a diploid organism, there are two copies of each gene, i.e., as a pair of alleles.
2. Now, these two alleles need not always be identical, as in a heterozygote.
3. One of them may be different due to some changes that it has undergone (about which
you will read further on, and in the next chapter) which modifies the information that
particular allele contains.

CASE 1: THE NORMAL/LESS EFFICIENT ENZYME

Let us assume (as is more common) that the normal allele produces the normal enzyme
that is needed for the transformation of a substrate S. Theoretically, the modified allele
could be responsible for production of – The normal/less efficient enzyme.

In the first case, the modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele, i.e., it will produce
the same phenotype/trait, i.e., result in the transformation of substrate S. Such equivalent
allele pairs are very common.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 3

CASE 2: A NON-FUNCTIONAL ENZYME, OR (III) NO ENZYME AT ALL
But, if the allele produces a non-functional enzyme or no enzyme, the phenotype may be
effected. The phenotype/trait will only be dependent on the functioning of the unmodified
allele. The unmodified (functioning) allele, which represents the original phenotype is the
dominant allele and the modified allele is generally the recessive allele. Hence, in the
example above the recessive trait is seen due to non-functional enzyme or because no
enzyme is produced.

Concept Builder

1. The phenotype of any character will be affected if the modified allele produces–
(1) Normal enzyme (2) Non-functional enzyme
(3) No-enzyme at all (4) 2 and 3 both

2. The phenotype of any character remains unaffected if the allele is

(1) Unmodified allele
(2) Modified allele equivalent to unmodified allele
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Modified allele

Concept Builder (Answer key)

Que. 1 2
Ans. 4 3
Mendelism
Gregor Johann Mendel was the first to demonstrate the scientific basis of inheritance and
variation by conducting hybridisation experiment. But it should be very much clear that he was
not the first to conduct these experiments, rather he was the first to consider one to three
characters at one time and this was perhaps the secret of his success. His experiments were
in fact the extension and development of hybridisation experiments on pea.
Gregor Johann Mendel (1822 - 1884):

• Mendel was born on July 22,1822 at Silesian village, Heinzendorf state in Austria.
• Mendel worked in Augustinian Monastery as monk at Brunn city, Austria.
• Mendel performed hybridization experiments on garden pea plant (Pisum sativum) for 7 years
(1856-1863).
• Work started:- 1856
• Work completed:- 1863
• Work published:- 1865
• Journal- "Nature for schender varien:.
• Journal was published by:- Natural History Society of Brunn
• Title of his paper was:-"Experiments on plant hybridization"
• Without recognition of his work, he died in 1884 due to a kidney disease

4 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

WHY MENDEL’s WORK UNRECOGNISED :
Mendel published his work on inheritance of characters in 1865 but for several reasons, it remained
unrecognised till 1900.
(1) Firstly, communication was not easy (as it is now) in those days and his work could not be widely
publicised.
(2) Secondly, his concept of genes (or factors, in Mendel’s words) as stable and discrete units that
controlled the expression of traits and, of the pair of alleles which did not ‘blend’ with each other,
was not accepted by his contemporaries as an explanation for the apparently continuous variation
seen in nature.
(3) Thirdly, Mendel’s approach of using mathematics to explain biological phenomena was totally new
and unacceptable to many of the biologists of his time.
(4) Finally, though Mendel’s work suggested that factors (genes) were discrete units, he could not
provide any physical proof for the existence of factors or say what they were made of.

REDISCOVERY OF MENDEL’ S WORK:-

• After 16 years of Mendel's death in 1900, Mendel's postulates were rediscovered.
• Rediscovery was done by three scientists independently.

1. Carl Correns : Germany : (Experiment on Maize).

He made two laws of Mendelism.
(i) Law of seggregation
(ii) Law of independent assortment

2. Hugo deVries : (Holland) (Experiment on Evening Primerose)

He republished the Mendel's results in 1901 in Flora magazine.

3. Erich von Tschermak : (Austria) (Experiment on different flowering plants).

Mendel’s Experimental Materials and Reason for selection:

• He selected Pisum sativum (Garden Pea) plant for his study.

• The main reasons for adopting garden pea for experiments were as follows :
(i) Pea plant is easy to cultivate.
(ii) Pea plant is annual plant with short life cycle of 2-3 months so large number of offsprings can
be analysed within a short period of time.
(iii) It has many contrasting traits.
(iv) Natural self pollination is present in pea plant.
(v) Cross pollination can be performed in it artificially so hybridization can be made possible.
Mendel studied 7 characters in pea plant for carrying out hybridization experiments.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 5

 N te D in nt e essi e

ength of lant Tall warf

lower osition ial Terminal

ha e of od n ated onstricted

olour of od Green ellow

ha e of seed ound rin led

olour of cot ledon ellow Green

olour of ower iolet hite

Special Point

• S. Blixt concluded that the genes studied by Mendel are located on four different pairs of

chromosomes.

• These are chromosome 1st, 4th, 5th, 7th

• Gene which controls more than one character is called as pleiotropic gene.

• In Pea plant seed coat colour and Flower colour & red spots in leaf axil are regulated by

same gene.

• Similarly seed shape and size of starch grains characters are regulated by same gene.

• Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds due to absence of Starch Branching enzyme (SBE)

6 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Technique of Mendel:
Mendel conducted such artificial pollination/cross pollination
experiments using several true-breeding pea lines. A true –
breeding line is one that, having undergone continuous self-
pollination, shows the stable trait inheritance and expression
for several generations. Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea
plant varieties, as pairs which were similar except for one
character with contrasting traits.
Flowers of pea plant are bisexual. In this method one
considered as male and another as female.
• Stamens of the plant which is used as female, are removed
at juvenile stage, this is called Emasculation. (Emasculation
is done to prevent self pollination.)
• Emasculated flowers covered by bags, this is called bagging.
• Bagging is only used to prevent undesirable cross pollination.
• Mature pollen grains are collected from male plants and
spread over emasculated flower.
• Seeds are formed in the female flower after pollination.
The plants that are obtained from these seeds are called First
Filial generation or F1 generation according to Mendel.
The plants of F1 generation are self pollinated & F2 generation
is produced.

Monohybrid Cross :–
• When we consider the inheritance of one character at a time in a cross this is called monohybrid
cross.

arent Tall warf

Generation ll Tall
elf ollination

Generation Tall warf

henot e ratio Tall warf

Genot ic ratio TT Tt tt

Fig. (a) Punnett square analysis and (b) symbolic representation of the cross between tall and dwarf
peas.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 7

Conclusions of Monohybrid Cross
st
I Conclusion (Postulate of Paired Factors):
 According to Mendel each genetic character is controlled by a pair of unit factor.
 In this pair one comes from male parent and other from female parent.

nd
II Conclusion (Postulate of Dominance):
 This conclusion is based on F1 - generation.
 When two different unit factors are present in single individual, only
one unit factor is able to express itself and known as dominant unit
factor. Another unit factor fails to express is the recessive factor.
 There are two exceptions of law of dominance.
[A] Incomplete dominance, [B] Co-dominance,
rd
III Conclusion (Law of Segregation):
This conclusion is based on F2 generation of monohybrid cross.
 It is universal law.
 Factors do not show any blending.
 During gamete formation the factors of a pair segregate from each other such that a gamete receive
only one of the two factors.
 Each gamete receives only one factor of a pair; So gametes are pure for a particular trait. It is
known as law of purity of gametes.
 The segregation is essential during the meiotic division in all sexually reproducing organisms.
 Nondisjunction is the exception of this law.

Method for Gametes Formation

n
Type of gametes = 2
n = Number of heterozygous pair.
To find out the composition of factors inside the gamete, we use fork line method.

8 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

 omo gous

etero gous

a b t es of gamete

b– b

–a

b – ab

Concept Builder

1. In F2 generation of monohybrid cross dwarf plant is obtain due to–

(1) Dominance (2) Linkage (3) Segregation (4) All of these
2. In F2 generation of monohybrid cross phenotypic ratio 3 : 1 obtain due to–
(1) Dominance (2) Segregation (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) None of the above
3. Gregor Mendel conducted hybridization experiment on garden pea for–
(1) Six years - 1856 to 1863 (2) Seven years - 1856 to 1863
(3) Eight years - 1856 to 1863 (4) Nine years - 1856 to 1864
4. Mendel selected how many true-breeding pea plant varieties?
(1) 7 (2) 14 (3) 21 (4) 28
5. Which law of Mendel is still universal in nature?
(1) Law of dominance (2) Law of independent assortment
(3) Law of segregation (4) Linkage
6. Mendel proposed law of dominance and law of segregation based on his observation on
(1) Monohybrid cross (2) Dihybrid cross (3) Trihybride cross (4) Out cross
7. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC ?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Nine (4) Two
8. Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance ?
(1) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation
(2) Factors occur in pairs
(3) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
(4) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other recessive

Concept Builder (Answer key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 3 3 2 2 3 1 4 1

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 9

Dihybrid Cross
• Study of inheritance of two characters or two pairs of contrasting traits is called dihybrid
cross.
[1] Colour of seed (cotyledons) → Yellow (Y) & Green (y)
[2] Seed shape → Round (R) and Wrinkled (r)
• Mendel wanted to observe the effect of inheritance of one character on other character.
• Through dihybrid crosses Mendel crossed, yellow and round seeded plants with green
and wrinkled seeded plants.
• All the plants in F1– generation have yellow and round seeds. When F1 plants were self
pollinated to produce F2 generation. Four kinds of plants in the ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 are
produced in F2 generation.

10 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Phenotypic Ratio : (9:3:3:1)
Round Yellow : Round Green : Wrinkled Yellow : Wrinkled Green
9 : 3 : 3 : 1

Genotypic Ratio : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1

Parental : Recombinants
10 : 6

• A dihybrid cross is multiple of two monohybrid cross.

(3 : 1) (3 : 1) = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(1 : 2 : 1) (1 : 2 : 1) = 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1

Conclusion (Law of Independent Assortment):

• It was given on the basis of dihybrid cross.
• Inheritance of different characters is independent from each other in plants.
• When two or more characters inherit simultaneously then inheritance of one character is
independent from another character it is called law of independent assortment.
• Those genes which show independent assortment are present on different chromosomes/ Non-
homologous chromosomes.
• Linkage is exception of this law.
The Punnett square can be effectively used to understand the independent segregation of the
two pairs of genes during meiosis and the production of eggs and pollen in the F1 RrYy plant.
Consider the segregation of one pair of genes R and r. Fifty per cent of the gametes have the
gene R and the other 50 per cent have r. Now besides each gamete having either R or r, it should
also have the allele Y or y. The important thing to remember here is that segregation of 50 per
cent R and 50 per cent r is independent from the segregation of 50 per cent Y and 50 per cent y.
Therefore, 50 per cent of the r bearing gametes has Y and the other 50 per cent has y. Similarly,
50 per cent of the R bearing gametes has Y and the other 50 per cent has y. Thus there are four
genotypes of gametes (four types of pollen and four types of eggs). The four types are RY, Ry, rY
and ry each with a frequency of 25 per cent or 1/4th of the total gametes produced. When you
write down the four types of eggs and pollen on the two sides of a Punnett square it is very easy
to derive the composition of the zygotes that give rise to the F2 plants.

Back Cross:
A back cross is a cross in which F1 individuals are crossed with any of their parents.
(1) Out Cross:
When F1 hybrid is crossed with dominant parent then it is termed out cross. The progeny
generation obtained from this cross, possesses only dominant character. So any analysis can
not be possible in F1 generation.

(2) Test Cross:

When F1 hybrid is crossed with recessive parent then it is called test cross. In the progeny
generation obtained from this cross, 50% have dominant character and 50% have recessive
character.

Test cross helps to find out the genotype of unknown dominant individual.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 11

[a] Monohybrid Test Cross:

Fig. Diagrammatic representation of a test cross

[b] Dihybrid Test Cross:

The progeny obtained from dihybrid test cross are of four types and each of them is 25%.
F1 - dihybrid Recessive parent
TtRr × ttrr
 
TR Tr tR tr tr

TtRr Ttrr ttRr ttrr

Phenotypic ratio → 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Genotypic ratio → 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

Reciprocal Cross
A cross in which phenotypes of male and female parents are reversed with respect to another
cross.

Mendel want to know the effect of parental phenotype on inheritance of character w.r.t. sex of
the parents.

Tall × Dwarf Tall × Dwarf

(Female) (Male) (Male) (Female)
 
All Tall All Tall

• Mendelian characters are autosomal characters.

• Characters which are controlled by autosomal are not affected by Reciprocal cross.
• In case of Cytoplasmic inheritance and Sex linkage, reciprocal cross gives different results.

12 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Reasons for Mendel's Success:
1. Selection of pea plant for study.
2. Mendel studied the inheritance of one or two characters at a time unlike his predecessors who
had considered many characters at a time.
3. Use of mathematics and statistics in his experiment.
4. Mendel quantitatively analysed the inheritance of qualitative characters.
His experiments had a large sampling size, which gave greater credibility to the data that he
collected. Also, the confirmation of his inferences from experiments on successive generations
of his test plants, proved that his results pointed to general rules of inheritance rather than
being unsubstantiated ideas. Mendel investigated characters in the garden pea plant that were
manifested as two opposing traits, e.g., tall or dwarf plants, yellow or green seeds. This allowed
him to set up a basic framework of rules governing inheritance, which was expanded on by later
scientists to account for all the diverse natural observations and the complexity inherent in
them.

Concept Builder

1. Which of the following phenotypic ration was found by Mendel in F 2 generation of a dihybrid
cross?
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1: 2: 4: 2: 1: 2: 1
(3) 9: 3: 3: 1 (4) 12: 4
2. Select the correct option w.r.t. law of independent assortment
(1) It can be explained by using monohybrid cross
(2) Inheritance of one character is dependent on another character
(3) This law is not applicable universally
(4) It was given by Morgan
3. Segregation of genes take place during:
(1) Metaphase (2) Anaphase (3) Prophase (4) Embryo formation
4. A test cross is performed:
(1) By selfing of F2–generation plants
(2) By selfing of F1– generation plants
(3) To determine whether F2–tall is homozygous or heterozygous
(4) Between a homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive plant
5. If selfing occurs in the plant having genotype AaBb, then ratio of given genotype will be – AABB,
AaBB, AABb, AaBb.
(1) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 2 : 2 : 2
6. Test cross involves :
(1) Crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
(2) Crossing between two F1 hybrids
(3) Crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
(4) Crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait
7. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by :
(1) Pedigree analysis (2) Back cross (3) Test cross (4) Dihybrid cross
8. Test cross is used to determine:–
(1) Tt & tt (2) TT & Tt (3) TT & tt (4) Both (2) and (3)

Concept Builder (Answer key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 3 3 2 3 1 3 3 2

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 13

Post–Mendelism:–
ene nte ti n

lleli nt geni N n lleli nte geni

n lete d in n e le ent genes
d in n e E ist sis
3. Multiple Allelism
lei t i gene
Allelic Interaction/Intragenic Interaction:
Allelic interaction takes place between allele of same gene which are present at same locus.
Example of Allelic interaction are as follows:

[1] Incomplete Dominance:

Also called monogenic quantitative inheritance.
According to Mendel's law of dominance,
dominant character must be present in F1
generation. But in some organisms, F1
generation is different from the both parents.
Both factors such as dominant and recessive
are present in incomplete dominance but
dominant factors is unable to express its
character completely, resulting in Intermediate
phenotype which is different from both the
parents. Some examples are :

(a) Flower Colour in Mirabilis Jalapa :

Incomplete dominance was first discovered by
Correns in Mirabilis jalapa. This plant is called
as '4 O' clock plant 'or' Gul-e-Bans'. Three
different types of plant are found in Mirabilis
on the basis of flower colour, such as red, white
and pink. When plants with red flowers is
crossed with white flower, plants with pink
flower obtained in F1 generation. The reason of
this is that the genes of red colour is
incompletely dominant over the genes of white colour. When, F1 generation of pink flower is
self–pollinated then the phenotypic ratio of F2 generation is red, pink, white is 1 : 2 : 1 ratio in
place of normal monohybrid cross ratio 3 : 1.
The ratio of phenotype and genotype of F2 generation in incomplete dominance is always same.

(b) Flower Colour in Antirrhinum Majus :

Incomplete dominance is also seen in flower colour of this plant. This plant is also known as
'Snapdragon ' or 'Dog flower'. Incomplete dominance is found in this plant which is the same
as Mirabilis.

(c) Size of Starch Grain in Pisum Sativum:

14 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

[2] Co-Dominance:
In this phenomenon, both the gene expressed for a particular character in F1 hybrid progeny.
There is no blending of characters, whereas both the characters expressed equally.
Examples :- Co-dominance is seen in animals for coat colour.
When a black parent is crossed with white parent, a roan colour F1 progeny is produced.
When we obtain f2 generation from the F1 generation, the ratio of black ; black-white (Roan) ;
white animals is 1 : 2 : 1

Note : F generation is obtained in animals by sib-mating cross.

2

BLACK × WHITE
R1R1  R2R2
F1 generation R1R2 (Roan)
R1 R2
R1 R1 R1 R1 R2
R2 R1 R2 R2 R2

R1R1 = Black -1 R1R2 = Roan - 2 R2R2 = White – 1

It is obvious by above analysis that the ratio of phenotype as well as genotype is 1:2:1 in
co-dominance.

Special Point

In incomplete dominance, characters are blended phenotypically, while in co-dominance, both the
genes of a pair exhibit both the characters side by side and effect of both the character is
independent from each other.
Other Examples of Co-dominance:
AB blood group inheritance (IAIB)
Carrier of Sickle cell anaemia (HbA HbS)

[3] Multiple Allele :

• More than 2 alleles of same gene are called multiple allele.
• Multiple alleles are formed due to mutation.
• Multiple alleles are located on same locus of homologous chromosome.
• Study of population is essential for multiple allelism.
• A diploid individual contains maximum two alleles and gamete contains one allele for a character.

• If n is the number of allele of a gene then number of different possible genotype 

(
n n+ 1 )
2
Example of Multiple Allele :
1. ABO Blood Group : In humans being blood group is regulated by A and B antigen present on
surface of RBC.
In humans being blood group is regulated by I gene.
I gene regulate attachment of specific sugar on surface of RBC.
I gene has three alleles.
A
I = dominant produce A type of sugar.
B
I = dominant Produce B type of sugar.
O
I = recessive
Possible phenotypes - A, B, AB, O
Possible genotype number = 3 (3+1)/2 = 6 genotype

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 15

[4] Pleiotropic gene :
Gene which controls more than one character is called pleiotropic gene.
This gene shows multiple phenotypic effect.
(1) In Pea plant: Single gene influences
(i) Seed coat colour (ii) Red spot in the axil of leaf (iii) Flower colour
(2) In Pea plant: Single gene influence–
(i) starch grain size (ii) Seed shape
(3) Examples of pleiotropic gene in human - Most of genetical disorders.

Occasionally, a single gene product may produce more than one effect. For example, starch
synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one gene. It has two alleles (B and b). Starch is
synthesised effectively by BB homozygotes and therefore, large starch grains are produced. In
contrast, bb homozygotes have lesser efficiency in starch synthesis and produce smaller starch
grains. After maturation of the seeds, BB seeds are round and the bb seeds are wrinkled.
Heterozygotes produce round seeds, and so B seems to be the dominant allele. But, the starch
grains produced are of intermediate size in Bb seeds. So if starch grain size is considered as
the phenotype, then from this angle, the alleles show incomplete dominance.
Therefore, dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has
information for. It depends as much on the gene product and the production of a particular
phenotype from this product as it does on the particular phenotype that we choose to
examine, in case more than one phenotype is influenced by the same gene.

Sickle Cell Anaemia –

• Gene HbS provide a classical example of pleiotropy. It not only causes haemolytic anaemia
but also results increased resistance to one type of malaria that caused by the parasite
Plasmodium falciparum.
• The sickle cell Hbs allele also has pleiotropic effect on the development of many tissues
and organs such as bone, lungs, kidneys, spleen, heart.
• The defect is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth
position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule.
• The substitution of amino acid in the globin protein results due to the single base
substitution at the sixth codon of the mRNA from GAG to GUG.
• The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerization under low oxygen tension
causing the change in the shape of the RBC from biconcave disc to elongated sickle like
structure .

16 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

 (A) (B)
Fig. Micrograph of the red blood cells and the amino acid composition of the relevant portion of -chain
of haemoglobin: (a) From a normal individual; (b) From an individual with sickle-cell anaemia

Do You Know?

Cytoplasmic Inheritance:
Inheritance of characters which are controlled by cytogene is called cytoplasmic inheritance. During
fertilization, female gamete contribute both cytoplasm (cytogenes) & Nucleus (karyogenes), while
male gamete contribute only nucleus (karyogenes) in the formation of zygote.
Thus, inheritance of cytogene occurs only through female. (also called maternal inheritance)
If there is a reciprocal cross in this condition, then results will be affected.
Cytoplasmic inheritance is due to cell organelles like, Plastid and Mitochondria.
Cytoplasmic inheritance was first discovered by Correns in Mirabilis jalapa.
Example of Cytoplasmic Inheritance;
Plastid inheritance: Leaf/Branch colour in Mirabillis jalapa, Albinism in plants.
Mitochondrial inheritance: Male sterility in Maize.

Concept Builder

1. Both phenotypic and genotypic ratio of F2 are same in

(1) Co-dominance (2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Out crosses (4) More than one option is correct

2. Which cross yields red, white and pink flower variety of Snapdragon flower.
(1) RR × Rr (2) Rr × RR (3) Rr × Rr (4) Rr × rr

3. In mother has blood group AB, father has A group then which of the following blood group will
not found in the offspring.
(1) A (2) B (3) AB (4) O

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 17

4. Find the incorrect match
(1) Gamete : Pure for a trait
(2) Co-dominance : Flower colour in Snapdragon
(3) Recessive gene : Expressed in homozygous
(4) Incomplete dominance : Carl Correns

5. Incomplete dominance occurs in

(1) Pea plant (2) Mirabilis (3) Antirrhinum (4) All of these

6. The ability of a gene to have multiple phenotypic effects is known as

(1) Pleiotropy (2) Co-dominance
(3) Incomplete dominance (4) Complete dominance

7. Sickel cell anaemia is a

(1) Quantitative disorder (2) Qualitative disorder
(3) Autosomal disorder (4) Both 2 and 3

8. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I. It has three alleles - IA, IB and i. Since
there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes
can occur?
(1) Four (2) Two (3) Three (4) One
9. Sickle cell anaemia is :
(1) Characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus
(2) An autosomal linked dominant trait
(3) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
(4) Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

10. The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC,
because "O" in it refers to having :
(1) No antigens A and B on RBCs
(2) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
(3) Overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types
(4) One antibody only - either anti-A or anti-B on the RBCs

Concept Builder (Answer key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 4 3 4 2 4 1 4 1 4 1
Polygenic Inheritance
• When one character is controlled by many genes.
• In this type of inheritance phenotype is dependent on number of dominant alleles.
• Each dominant allele has contribution in development of phenotype.
• Maximum expression– All alleles of all genes are dominant.
• Minimum expression – All alleles of all genes are recessive.
• It is highly influenced by environment.
• Types of phenotype = 2n+1

1. Kernal colour of wheat :

• Polygenic inheritance first described in kernal colour of wheat.
• kernal colour of wheat is regulated by two pairs of gene.

18 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

2. Colour of the skin in Human.
Skin colour in human is regulated by three pairs of genes.
When a Negro Black (AABBCC) phenotype is crossed with white (aabbcc) phenotype,
intermediate phenotype produced in F1 generation.
arents aabbcc
egro lac hite

Gamete abc

generation b ntermediate

c b bc a a c ab abc
o. of dominant
allele

ABC ABc AbC aBC Abc aBc abC abc

(3) (2) (2) (2) (1) (1) (1) (0)
ABC
6 5 5 5 4 4 4 3
(3)
ABc
5 4 4 4 3 3 3 2
(2)
AbC
5 4 4 4 3 3 3 2
(2)
aBC
5 4 4 4 3 3 3 2
(2)
Abc
4 3 3 3 2 2 2 1
(1)
aBc
4 3 3 3 2 2 2 1
(1)
abC
4 3 3 3 2 2 2 1
(1)
abc
3 2 2 2 1 1 1 0
(0)
Fig. : Polygenic inheritance in human skin pigmentation

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 19

Phenotypic Ratio Will Be :

Concept Builder

1. Select the odd one out w.r.t. polygenic inheritance

(1) Bell-shaped curve is obtained
(2) Also called quantitative inheritance
(3) Recessive alleles show cumulative effect
(4) Intermediate phenotypes are more frequent

2. Which one carries extra nuclear genetic material

(1) Plastids (2) Ribosomes (3) Chromosomes (4) Golgi-complex

3. Polygenic genes show:

(1) Identical phenotype (2) Identical biochemistry
(3) Different phenotype (4) Identical genotype

4. In mango, genotype aabbcc produce 120g mango and AABBCC produce 300g mango. What is
contribution of each polygene in the production of mango:
(1) 10g (2) 20g (3) 30g (4) 40g

Concept Builder (Answer key)

Que. 1 2 3 4
Ans. 3 1 3 3

Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance:

• This theory was proposed by Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri (1902).
• In 1900, three Scientists (de Vries, Correns and von Tschermak) independently rediscovered
Mendel’s results on the inheritance of characters. Also, by this time due to advancements in
microscopy that were taking place, scientists were able to carefully observe cell division. This led
to the discovery of structures in the nucleus that appeared to double and divide just before each
cell division. These were called chromosomes (colored bodies, as they were visualised by staining).
By 1902, the chromosome movement during meiosis had been worked out.

• Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri noted that the behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to the
behaviour of genes and used chromosome movement to explain Mendel’s laws.
Recall that you have studied the behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis (equational division)
and during meiosis (reduction division). The important things to remember are that chromosomes
as well as genes occur in pairs. The two alleles of a gene pair are located on homologous sites
(same locus) on homologous chromosomes.

20 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

 Fig. Mendel’s law of segregation and chromosomes behavior.

During Metaphase of meiosis I, the two chromosome pairs can align at the metaphase plate
independently of each other. To understand this, following diagram can be observed.

Gene Chromosome
Occur in pairs Occur in pairs
Segregate at the time of gamete formation Segregate at gamete formation and only one
such that only one of each pair is of each pair is transmitted to a gamete
transmitted to a gamete
Independent pairs segregate independently One pair segregates independently of another
of each other pair
Can you tell which of these columns A or B represent the chromosome and which represents
the gene? How did you decide?

Fig. Independent Assortment of Chromosomes

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 21

 • Sutton and Boveri argued that the pairing and separation of a pair of chromosomes would
lead to the segregation of a pair of factors they carried. Sutton united the knowledge of
chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principles and called it the chromosomal theory
of inheritance.
• Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of

inheritance was given by Thomas Hunt Morgan and his colleagues,

led to discovering the basis for the variation that sexual

reproduction produced. Morgan worked with the tiny fruit files,

Drosophila melanogaster, which were found very suitable for such

studies. They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in the
laboratory. They complete their life cycle in about two weeks, and

a single mating could produce a large number of progeny flies. Also, there was a clear
differentiation of the sexes – the male and female flies are easily distinguishable. Also, it

has many types of hereditary variations that can be seen with low power microscopes.

Linkage
• Collective inheritance of characters is called linkage.
• Linkage first time seen by Bateson and Punnett in Lathyrus odoratus and gave coupling and
repulsion phenomenon. But they did not explain the phenomenon of linkage.
• Linkage was first discovered by Morgan in Drosophila, he also coined the term linkage. He proposed
the theory of linkage.
• Linkage and independent assortment can be represented in dihybrid plant, as –
•
In case of complete linkage in dihybrid. In case of independent assortment in dihybrid
(AaBb) (AaBb)

It produces two types of gamete It produces four types of gamete

AB : ab AB : ab : aB : Ab

Theory of linkage:
• Linked genes are linearly located on same chromosome. They get separated if crossing over
takes place between them.
• Strength of linkage inversely related to distance between the genes. It means, if the distance
between two genes is increased then strength of linkage is reduced and it proves that
greater is the distance between genes, the greater is the probability of their crossing over.

22 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

 • Crossing over is opposite phenomena of linkage.
• Linkage group :
• All the genes which are located on one pair of homologous chromosome form one linkage
group.
• Genes which are located on homologous chromosomes inherit together so we consider one
linkage group.
• No. of Linkage group = haploid no. of chromosomes/Homologous pair of chromosome

2n n Linkage group

Pea 14 7 7

Maize 20 10 10

Drosophila 8 4 4
Female

Drosophila 8 4 5
male

Human Male 46 23 24

Human Female 46 23 23

Bacteria - - 1

Factors Affecting Crossing Over (C.O):

S.No. Factors Crossing over Linkage

(1) Distance  More Less

(2) Euchromatin More Less

(3) Heterochromatin Less More
(4) Age  Less More

(5) Sex-male (Human) Less More

(6) Sex-female (Human) More Less

Arrangement of linked Genes on Chromosomes:

The arrangement of linked genes in any dihybrid plant is two types.

[a] Cis - Arrangement: When, two dominant genes located on one chromosome and
both recessive genes located on another chromosome, such type of arrangement is
termed as cis-arrangement.
Cis-arrangement is an original arrangement.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 23

[b] Trans-Arrangement: When a chromosome bears one dominant and one recessive

gene, and another chromosome also possess one dominant and one recessive gene,

such type of arrangement is called trans-arrangement.

Trans-arrangement is not an original form. It is due to crossing over.

Types of Linkage :- There are two types of linkage :

1. Complete Linkage:

• Linkage in which genes always show parental combination.

• Crossing over is absent in it.

• It never forms new combination.

• Such genes are located very close on the chromosomes. Such type of linkage very rare in

nature. e.g. few genes of male Drosophila.

2. Incomplete Linkage:

• When new combinations also appear along with parental combination in offsprings, this type

of linkage is called incomplete linkage.

• The new combinations form due to crossing over.

Parental type  Recombinants

Frequency of Crossing over  50%

1 1
Strength of linkage  
Distance between linked gene Crossing over

Genetic Map/Linkage Map/Chromosome Map

● Alfred Sturtevant used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same
chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes and ‘ma ed’ their position on

the chromosome. Today genetic maps are extensively used as a starting point in the

sequencing of whole genomes as was done in the case of the Human Genome Sequencing

Project, described later.

● In genetic map different genes are linearly arranged according to % of recombination

between them. With the help of genetic map we can find out the relative position of a

particular gene on chromosome.

It's unit is centi Morgan/ map unit.

24 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Fig. Linkage: Results of two dihybrid crosses conducted by Morgan. Cross A shows crossing between
gene y and w; Cross B shows crossing between genes w and m. Here dominant wild type alleles
are represented with (+) sign in superscript Note: The strength of linkage between y and w is
higher than w and m.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 25

 Concept Builder

1. Genes which are tightly linked on chromosome

(1) Very low recombination (2) High recombination
(3) Very low parental combination (4) Independent assortment

2. Female Drosophila is
(1) Smaller in size than male
(2) Larger in size than male
(3) Larger in size with shorter life span than male
(4) Having heteromorphic sex chromosomes

3. How many linkage groups are present in human male?

(1) 24 (2) 23 (3) 46 (4) 22

4. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly is due to:
(1) Crossing over (2) Repulsion (3) Recombination (4) Linkage

5. Frequency of crossing over will be relatively more if:

(1) Distance between the two genes is less
(2) Distance between the two genes is more
(3) Linked genes are more
(4) Both 2 and 3

6. Presence of recombinants is due to:

(1) Crossing over (2) Linkage
(3) Lack of independent assortment (4) All of the above

7. The experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by:
(1) Boveri (2) Sutton (3) Morgan (4) Bateson

8. Which one of the following is the most suitable medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster?
(1) Moist bread (2) Agar-agar
(3) Ripe banana (4) Cow dung

9. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant.
When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 generation will show:
(1) Higher number of the recombinant types.
(2) Segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio.
(3) Segregation in 3 : 1 ratio.
(4) Higher number of the parental types

10. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross :
(1) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombination as the tightly
link ones
(2) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombination
(3) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombination
(4) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombination
Concept Builder (Answer key)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1 2 1 4 2 1 3 3 4 2

26 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Sex Linkage
When the genes are present on sex-chromosome is termed as sex linked gene and their linkage
is known as sex-linkage.
Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were sex-linked.
The crosses were similar to the dihybrid crosses carried out by Mendel in peas. For example
Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed females to brown-bodied, red-eyed males and
intercrossed their F1 progeny. He observed that the two genes did not segregate independently
of each other and the F2 ratio deviated very significantly from the 9:3:3:1 ratio (expected when
the two genes are independent). He found that the genes white and yellow were very tightly
linked and showed only 1.3 per cent recombination while white and miniature wing showed 37.2
per cent recombination.

Types of sex linkage:

1. X-linkage.
• Genes of some characters are found on X-chromosome. These genes are called X-linked
genes.
• The inheritance of X-linked character may be through the males and females.
Example of X-linkage :

[i] Eye colour in Drosophila :- Eye colour in Drosophila is controlled by a X–linked gene.
If a red eyed colour gene is represented as 'W+/+' and white eyed colour represented as 'w',
then on basis of this different type of genotypes are found in Drosophila.

Genotypes of Female
+ +
X X = Homozygous dominant – Red eyed female
+ w
X X = Heterozygous (carrier) – Red eyed female
w w
X X = Homozygous recessive – White eyed female
Genotypes of Male
+
X Y = Hemizygous dominant – Red eyed male
w
X Y =Hemizygous recessive – White eyed male

[ii] Haemophilia :
• Haemophilia is also called "bleeder's disease".
• The gene of haemophilia is present on X-chromosome.
• It is X-linked recessive disease.
• In this disease, a single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteins involved in the
clotting of blood is affected.

Genotypes of Female
h h
X X = Affected female (Death in embryonic stage)
h
X X = Normal but carrier female
X X = Normal female.
Genotypes of Male
h
X Y = Affected Male
X Y = Normal Male

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 27

Types of Haemophilia :
(I) Haemophilia : A (Royal disease) - It is due to lack of factor -VIII (Antihaemophilic globulin
AHG).
(II) Haemophilia : B (Christmas disease) - It is due to lack of factor - IX (Plasma thromboplastin
component)

[iii] Colour Blindness :

• It is a sex-linked recessive disorder due to defect in either red or green cone of eye resulting
in failure to discriminate between red and green colour.
• This defect is due to mutation in certain genes present in the X chromosome.
• It occurs in about 8 percent of males and only about 0.4 percent of females.

Genotypes of Female
C C
X X = Affected female
C
X X = Normal but carrier female
X X = Normal female.
Genotypes of Male
C
X Y = Affected Male
X Y = Normal Male

2. Y-linkage:
• Genes of some characters are located on Y- chromosome. The inheritance of such type of
character is only through the males.
• Such type of character is called Holandric character.
• These characters found only in male. Gene which is located on differential region of Y-
chromosome is known as Holandric gene.
e.g. (1) TDF /sry-gene
(2) Hypertrichosis (excessive hair on ear pinna.)

3. X-Y linkage : Genes of some characters are located on homologous region of X & Y chromosome.
The inheritance of such characters is through male & female both.

Type of Inheritance of sex linked character :

1. Criss cross inheritance (Morgan) :
In criss-cross inheritance male or female parent transfer a X- linked character to grandson or
grand–daughter through the offspring of opposite sex.

(a) Diagenic (Diagynic) : Father → Daughter → Grandson.

(b) Diandric : Mother → Son → Grand-daughter.

2. Non criss-cross inheritance :

In this inheritance male or female parent transfer sex linked character to grand–son or grand–
daughter through the offspring of same sex.

(a) Hologenic (Hologynic) :- Mother → Daughter → Grand-daughter (female to female)

(b) Holandric : Father → Son → Grand-son (male to male)

28 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

 Concept Builder

1. In which of the following the inheritance takes place only by male

(1) Nuclear (2) Cytoplasmic (3) Co-dominance (4) Holandric inheritance

2. A normal woman, whose father was colour-blind is married to a normal man. The son would
be
(1) All colour-blind (2) 75% colour-blind
(3) 50% colour-blind (4) All normal

3. In a linear chromosome map distance between four loci are as follows

p-q=20, q-r = 8, p-s = 6, p-r = 12
the cross over frequency between r & s is
(1) 3% (2) 18% (3) 6% or 18% (4) 6%

4. In a cross between individuals homozygous for (a, b) and wild type (+ +). In this cross 600 out
of 1000 individuals were of parental type. Then the distance between a and b is
(1) 40 centi Morgan (2) 30 centi Morgan
(3) 20 centi Morgan (4) 50 centi Morgan

Concept Builder (Answer key)

Que. 1 2 3 4
Ans. 4 3 3 1
Sex Determination:

Establishment of sex through differential development in an individual at an early stage of life,

is called sex determination. The mechanism of sex determination has always been a puzzle

before the geneticists. The initial clue about the genetic/ chromosomal mechanism of sex

determination can be traced back to some of the experiments carried out in insects. In fact,

the cytological observations made in a number of insects led to the development of the concept

of genetic/chromosomal basis of sex-determination.

• Sex-Determination on the Basis of Fertilization of three types :

1. Progamic : Sex is determined before fertilization.

eg. : Drone in honey bee

2. Syngamic : Sex is determined during fertilization.

eg. : Most of plants & animals

3. Epigamic : Sex is determined after fertilization.

eg. : Female in honey bee.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 29

Mechanism of Sex Determination :
[1] Chromosomal theory of sex determination (Allosomic determination of sex) :
Wilson & Stevens proposed chromosomal theory for sex determination.
Chromosomes are of two types :
(a) Autosomes :
Usually regulate characters other than sex determination.
(b) Allosomes or Heterosomes or Sex chromosomes :
• These chromosomes are associated with sex determination.
• X-Chromosome discovered by "Henking" and called 'X-body'.

(i) XX Female and XY Male Type or Lygaeus Type: This type of sex determination first observed by
Wilson & Stevens in Lygaeus insect.
In this type of sex determination female is Homogametic i.e produces only one type of gamete

emale → gametes

Male is heterogametic (male produces two types of gamete)

G nos erm
Male → gametes
ndros erm

Sex Determination In Humans

It has already been mentioned that the sex determining mechanism in case of humans is XY
type. Out of 23 pairs of chromosomes present, 22 pairs are exactly same in both males and
females; these are the autosomes. A pair of X-chromosomes are present in the female, whereas
the presence of an X and Y chromosome are determinant of the male characteristic. During
spermatogenesis among males, two types of gametes are produced. 50 per cent of the total
sperm produced carry the X-chromosome and the rest 50 per cent has Y-chromosome besides
the autosomes. Females, however, produce only one type of ovum with an X-chromosome. There
is an equal probability of fertilisation of the ovum with the sperm carrying either X or Y
chromosome. In case the ovum fertilises with a sperm carrying X-chromosome the zygote
develops into a female (XX) and the fertilisation of ovum with Y-chromosome carrying sperm
results into a male offspring. Thus, it is evident that it is the genetic makeup of the sperm that
determines the sex of the child. It is also evident that in each pregnancy there is always 50 per
cent probability of either a male or a female child. It is unfortunate that in our society women
are blamed for producing female children and have been ostracised and ill-treated because of
this false notion.

30 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

(ii) ZW female and ZZ male : In this type
of sex determination female is
Heterogametic i.e produces two types of
gamete and male individual is
homogametic i.e produces one type
of gamete. It is found in some insects like
butter flies, moths and vertebrates like
birds.

(iii) XX female and XO male : In this type

of sex determination deficiency of one
chromosome in male. In this type,
female is homogametic and male is
heterogametic.
e.g. Grass hopper, Cockroach.

emale

(Homogametic)

Male

(Heterogametic)

(2) Haploid - diploid mechanism :

• Sex determination takes place by number of sets of chromosomes.
• The sex determination in honey bee is based on the number of sets of chromosomes an
individual receives. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and an egg develop as a
female (queen or worker), and an unfertilised egg develops as a male (Drone) by means of
parthenogenesis. This means that the males have half the number of chromosomes than
that of a female. The females are diploid having 32 chromosomes and males are haploid,
i.e., having 16 chromosomes. This called as haplodiploid sex determination system and has
special characteristic features such as the males produce sperms by mitosis, they do not
have father and thus cannot have sons, but have a grandfather and can have grandsons.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 31

 Concept Builder

1. In the XX-XO type of sex determination

(1) Females produce only one type of eggs (2) Female have only one X-chromosomes
(3) Males have two X-chromosomes (4) Males are homogametic

2. Which chromosome set is found in male grass hopper

(1) 2A + XY (2) 2A + XO (3) 2A + YY (4) 2A + XX

3. Which of the following symbols are used for representing sex chromosome of birds
(1) ZW-ZZ (2) XX-XY (3) XO-XX (4) ZZ-WW

4. Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal
human female child ?
(1) One X and one Y chromosome (2) Two X chromosome
(3) Only one Y chromosome (4) Only one X chromosome

Concept Builder (Answer key)

Que. 1 2 3 4
Ans. 1 2 1 2
Human Genetics:
In human direct genetical studies are not possible. The following problems are faced in studying
human genetics:
1. Cells of human body are relatively smaller and number of chromosomes present in them is
more.
2. It is not possible to perform various experiments on humans in the laboratory.
3. Due to greater life span of humans, a lot of time is required to study their genetic
characteristics.
4. Rate of reproduction is slow in humans.
5. Individuals of human species are generally heterozygous for various characters and it is very
difficult to find homozygous individuals.
6. Controlled genetic cross is not possible in human beings.

Character Dominant Recessive

Eye colour Brown/ Black Blue
Ear lobes Free Fused
Hair Curly hair Straight
Rolling of tongue Rollar Non Rollar
Rh factor Rh+ Rh–
PTC (Phenyl thiocarbamide) taster Taster Non Taster
Skin pigmentation Normal Albino

Methods of Human Genetical Studies :

The study and analysis of human genetics is performed by many methods like pedigree analysis,
study of population and human karyotyping. Of these the important ones, that is, pedigree
analysis is being described here.

32 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

1. Pedigree Analysis :

• It is the study of genetic characters or disorders in a family for many generation by using

specific symbols. Dwarfism, albinism, colour blindness, haemophilia etc. are genetically

transmitted characters. To study and analyse them a pedigree of genetic facts/data and

following symbols are used.

Symbol used in Pedigree :

ected Male
ormal Male

ormal emale ected emale

Mating arrier emale for

se lin ed character
etero gous indi iduals
arents with male
child a ected with bortion or still birth
disease

eath

onsanguineous
i gotic marriage
non identical twins marriage of blood relati e

arents abo e and

children below
in order of birth left to right

Mono gotic
identical twins ected indi iduals

i e una ected o s ring

e uns eci ed

• Pedigree analysis provides valuable information regarding genetical make up of human

beings. If any genetic disease is occurring in a family, then pedigree analysis provides

guidance to forthcoming parents about their future progenies.

• A representative pedigree is shown in for dominant and recessive traits.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 33

 b
e esent ti e edig ee n l sis t s ld in nt t it e le
M t ni d st b t s l e essi e t it e le i kle ell n e i

Genetic Disorder

Mendelian Disorder Chromosomal Disorder

(1) Mendelian disorder:

• Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in the single
gene.
• These disorders are transmitted to the offspring on the same lines as we have studied
in the principle of inheritance.
• The pattern of inheritance of such Mendelian disorders can be traced in a family
by the pedigree analysis.
• Most common and prevalent Mendelian disorders are Haemophilia, Cystic
fibrosis, Sickle cell anaemia, colour blindness, Phenylketonuria, Thalassemia, etc.
• It is important to mention here that such Mendelian disorders may be dominant
or recessive. By pedigree analysis one can easily understand whether the trait in
question is dominant or recessive. Similarly, the trait may also be linked to the
sex chromosome as in case of haemophilia. It is evident that this X-linked
recessive trait transmission from carrier female to male progeny.

(i) Phenylketonuria :

• This inborn error of metabolism is also inherited as the autosomal recessive trait.
• The affected individual lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into
tyrosine. As a result of this phenylalanine is accumulated and converted into
phenylpyruvic acid and other derivatives.
• Accumulation of these in brain results in mental retardation. These are also excreted
through urine because of its poor absorption by kidney.

34 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

(ii) Thalassemia:
• This is also an autosome-linked recessive blood disease transmitted from parents to the
offspring when both the partners are unaffected carrier for the gene (or heterozygous).
• The defect could be due to either mutation or deletion which ultimately results in reduced
rate of synthesis of one of the globin chains (α and β chains) that make up haemoglobin.
• This causes the formation of abnormal haemoglobin molecules resulting into anaemia which
is characteristic of the disease.
• Thalassemia can be classified according to which chain of the haemoglobin molecule is
affected. In α Thalassemia, production of α globin chain is affected while in β Thalassemia,
production of β globin chain is affected. α Thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked
genes HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome 16 of each parent and it is observed due to mutation
or deletion of one or more of the four genes. The more genes affected, the less alpha globin
molecules produced. While β Thalassemia is controlled by a single gene HBB on chromosome
11 of each parent and occurs due to mutation of one or both the genes.
• Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that the former is a quantitative problem of
synthesising too few globin molecules while the latter is a qualitative problem of
synthesising an incorrectly functioning globin.

2. Chromosomal Disorders
• The chromosomal disorders on the other hand are caused due to absence or excess or
abnormal arrangement of one or more chromosomes.
• Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division
cycle results in the gain or loss of a chromosome(s),
called aneu loid . or e am le, own’s s ndrome
results in the gain of extra copy of chromosome 21.
imilarl , Turner’s s ndrome results due to loss of an X
chromosome in human females.
• Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell
division results in an increase in a whole set of
chromosomes in an organism and, this phenomenon is
known as polyploidy. This condition is often seen in
plants.
• The total number of chromosomes in a normal human
cell is 46 (23 pairs). Out of these 22 pairs are autosomes
and one pair of chromosomes are sex chromosome.
Sometimes, though rarely, either an additional copy of
a chromosome may be included in an individual or an
individual may lack one of any one pair of chromosomes.
• These situations are known as trisomy or monosomy of
a chromosome, respectively. Such a situation leads to
er serious consequences in the indi idual. own’s
s ndrome, Turner’s s ndrome, Klinefelter’s s ndrome
are common examples of chromosomal disorders.

(i) D wn’s nd e
• The cause of this genetic disorder is the presence of an additional copy of the chromosome
number 21 (trisomy of 21).
• This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
• The affected individual is short statured with small round head, furrowed tongue and
partially open mouth. Palm is broad with characteristic palm crease. Physical, psychomotor
and mental development is retarded.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 35

(ii) Kline elte ’s nd e
This genetic disorder is also caused due to the presence of an additional copy of X–chromosome
resulting into a karyotype of 47, XXY. Such an individual has overall masculine development,
however, the feminine development (development of breast, i.e., Gynaecomastia) is also
expressed. Such individuals are sterile.

(iii) T ne ’s nd e
Such a disorder is caused due to the absence of one of the X chromosomes, i.e., 45 with X0,
Such females are sterile as ovaries are rudimentary besides other features including lack of
other secondary sexual characters.

Population Genetics:
• Study of population is essential
(1) To find out frequency of an allele
(2) For Multiple allelism

Gene pool – A gene pool is the sum total of genes in reproductive gametes of a population.
Gene frequency – Gene frequency is defined as proportion of different alleles of a gene in a population.
Genome – Total genetic material present in a haploid cell.

Ex. In a population of 100 Mirabilis plants 50 are Red, 20 Pink, 30 White.

Find out the frequency of R & r.
RR (Red) – 50
Rr (Pink) – 20
rr (White) – 30
Total R gene – 50 × 2 + 20 = 120
Total r gene – 30 × 2 + 20 = 80
Total gene – 100 × 2 = 200
120
Freq. of R gene = = 0.6
200
80
Freq. of r gene = = 0.4
200

36 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Q. In a random population frequency of recessive phenotype is 0.25. What is the frequency of
heterozygous genotype?
2
Sol. q = 0.25
q = 0.5
p=1–q
p = 1 – 0.5 = 0.5
Frequency of heterozygote = 2pq = 2 × 0.5 × 0.5 = 0.50 = 50%

Concept Builder

1. Which of the following symbols and its representation, used in human pedigree analysis is correct?

(1) = Male affected (2) = Mating between relatives

(3) = Unaffected male (4) = Unaffected female

2. Study the pedigree chart given below :

What does it show :

(1) Inheritance of a recessive sex- linked disease like haemophilia
(2) Inheritance of a sex-lined inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
(3) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
(4) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible

Concept Builder (Answer key)

Que. 1 2
Ans. 2 3

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 37

 Exercise – I
7. The phenotype of an individual may be
INTRODUCTION, VARIATION
affected if the modified allele produces:
1. Genetics deals with: (a) No enzyme at all
(1) Interspecific interactions (b) The normal/less efficient enzyme
(2) Heredity (c) A non-functional enzyme
(3) Variations (1) Only (a) is correct
(4) heredity and Variations (2) (a) and (c) are correct
(3) (b) and (c) are correct
2. The hereditary variations are due to:
(4) Only (c) is correct
(1) Asexual reproduction
(2) Sexual reproduction 8. Allele is the:
(3) Vegetative reproduction (1) Alternative form of gene
(4) All of these (2) Total number of genes for a trait
(3) Total number of chromosomes of a
3. Sahiwal cow in ....a.... was developed
by ...b... : haploid set
(1) a–Punjab, b–Natural Selection and (4) Total number of genes present on a
Domestication chromosome
(2) a–Haryana, b–Natural Selection and 9. Genetic constitution of an individual is
Artificial Selection represented by :
(3) a–Haryana, b–Artificial Selection (1) Genome (2) Genotype
and Domestication (3) Phenotype (4) Karyotype
(4) a–Punjab, b–Artificial Selection and
Domestication 10. Genes do not occur in pairs in :
(1) Zygote (2) Somatic cell
GENETICAL TERMS (3) Endosperm cell (4) Gametes
4. The condition in which only one allele of 11. A gene said to be dominant if :
a pair is present in diploid organism is (1) It express it's effect only in
called. homozygous condition.
(1) Homozygous (2) It expressed only in heterozygous
(2) Hemizygous condition
(3) Heterozygous (3) It expressed both in homozygous
(4) Incomplete dominance and heterozygous condition.
5. A wild allele is (4) It never expressed in any condition.
(1) The allele found most commonly in 12. When two different genotypes produce the
nature same phenotype due to environmental
(2) Mostly dominant allele difference, then each one is known as :
(3) Designated by a small letter if it is (1) Phenotype
recessive or a capital letter if it is (2) Phenocopy
dominant (3) Progeny
(4) All of the above (4) Independent offspring
6. Phenotype of an organism is the result of 13. Marriages between close relatives should
(1) Mutation and linkage be avoided because it includes more:
(2) Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition (1) Recessive alleles to come together
(3) Environmental changes and sexual (2) Mutations
dimorphism (3) Multiple births
(4) Genotype and environment interactions (4) Blood group abnormalities

38 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

14. An inherited character and its 19. Given below is the diagrammatic
detectable variant is termed as : representation of a monohybrid cross. In
(1) Unit factor this, find out the genotypes of tall plants
(2) Trait in all the given generations :-

(3) Genetic profile

(4) Genotype

15. According to Mendel, "factors" or "genes":

(1) Are the units of inheritance
(2) Contain information that is required
to express a particular trait
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) None of the above

16. The phenotype of any character will not

be affected if the modified allele
produces:
(1) Normal enzyme
(2) Non-functional enzyme
(3) No-enzyme at all
(4) 2 and 3 both A B C
Parents F1 – F2–
Mendelism : generation generation
Monohybrid cross & conclusions (1) TT TT, Tt TT, Tt
(2) Tt Tt TT, Tt
17. Mendel's principle of segregation was
(3) TT Tt TT, Tt
based on the separation of alleles in the
(4) TT TT Tt
garden pea during:
(1) Pollination 20. How did Mendel's studies in genetics
differ from earlier studies of breeding
(2) Embryonic development
and inheritance?
(3) Seed formation
(1) Mendel worked with plants; earlier
(4) Gamete formation
studies used animals
18. Which statement describes the work of (2) Mendel was able to explain the
'blending' hypothesis
Gregor Mendel?
(3) Mendel's studied inheritance of one
(1) He developed some basic principles
character at a time
of heredity without having
(4) Mendel worked with wild species,
knowledge of chromosomes not the domesticated ones
(2) He developed the microscope for the
21. Mark the odd one (with respect to true
study of genes in pea plants
breeding line):
(3) He explained the principle of
(1) Shows the stable trait inheritance
dominance on the basis of the gene-
(2) Shows expression for few
chromosome theory generations only
(4) He used his knowledge of gene (3) Undergone continuous self-
mutations to explain the appearance pollination
of new traits in organisms (4) Both (1) & (3)

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 39

22. Mendel published his work on 27. In monohybrid cross what is the ratio of
inheritance of characters in 1865 but it homozygous dominant and homozygous
remained unrecognised till 1900 because: recessive individuals in F2–generation :
(a) He could not provide any physical (1) 1 : 2 :1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
proof for the existence of factors 28. Who rediscovered the results of
(b) His concept of factors as stable, discrete Mendel's experiments :
units that controlled the expression (1) DeVries, Tschermak, Correns
of traits did not find acceptance (2) DeVries, Tschermak, Morgan
from the biologist contemporaries (3) Tschermak, Morgan, Correns
(c) Mendel’s approach of using (4) Tschermak, Bateson, Punnet
mathematics to explain biological
29. If 120 Plants are produced on crossing
phenomena was totally old
pure red and pure white flowered
(d) Communication was not easy (as it
plants, then the ratio of offsprings will
is now)
be :
(1) (a), (b) & (c) are correct
(1) 90 Red : 30 White
(2) (c) & (d) are correct
(2) 30 Red : 90 White
(3) (a), (b) & (d) are correct
(3) 60 Red : 60 White
(4) Only (a) is correct
(4) All Red
23. Mendel studied seven pair of contrasting 30. In a cross 45 tall & 14 dwarf plants were
traits in Pea plant. Which are correct obtained, the genotype of parents was :
option in given alternatives? (1) TT X TT (2) TT X Tt
(1) 2 character flower based, 2 colour (3) Tt X Tt (4) TT X tt
based, 3 seed based, 1 height based
(2) 2 character flower based, 3 colour 31. Which technique is used by Mendel for
hybridisation :
based, 1 height based, 2 seed based,
(1) Emasculation
2 pod based
(2) Bagging
(3) 3 colour based, 1 flower based, 3
(3) Protoplast fusion
height based
(4) 1 & 2 both
(4) 3 Character pod based, 2 stem
based, 1 height based, 3 colour based 32. When flowers are unisexual then
emasculation is done in :
24. During breeding the removal of anthers
(1) Female (2) Male
from a flower is called : (3) 1 & 2 both (4) None of these
(1) Anthesis (2) Pollination
(3) Emasculation (4) Vasectomy 33. From a single ear of corn, a farmer
planted 200 kernels which produced 140
25. When a heterozygous tall pea plant of F1 tall & 40 short plants. The genotypes of
generation upon self fertilization these offsprings are most likely :
produces tall and dwarf phenotypes it (1) TT, Tt & tt (2) TT & tt
proves the principle of : (3) TT & Tt (4) Tt & tt
(1) Dominance
34. A pure tall plant can be differentiated
(2) Segregation
from a hybrid tall plant :
(3) Independent assortment
(1) By measuring length of plant
(4) Inheritance & purity of gametes
(2) By spraying gibberellins
26. Mendel formulated the law of purity of (3) If all plants are tall after self-
gametes on the basis of : pollination
(1) Dihybrid cross (2) Monohybrid cross (4) If all plants are dwarf after self-
(3) Back cross (4) Test cross pollination

40 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

35. One of the following did not constitute 41. Segregation of genes take place during :
the seven contrasting pairs of (1) Metaphase–I
characters noticed by Mendel : (2) Anaphase–I
(1) Height of the plants (3) Prophase–I
(2) Shape of the leaves (4) Embryo formation
(3) Shape of pod
42. If a dwarf plant is treated with
(4) Colour of pod
gibberellins it becomes tall and this tt
36. According to Mendelism which character plant now crosses with pure tall plant
is showing dominance: then progeny of first generation (F1) is:
(1) Terminal position of flower (1) All dwarf
(2) Green colour in seed coat (2) All tall
(3) Wrinkled seeds (3) 75% tall and 25% dwarf
(4) Green pod colour (4) 75% dwarf and 25% tall

37. Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea 43. If a cross is made between AA and aa,
due to deposition of sugars instead of the nature of F1 progeny will be:
starch. It was due to: (1) Genotypically AA, phenotypically a
(1) Amylase (2) Genotypically Aa, phenotypically a
(2) Invertase (3) Genotypically Aa, phenotypically A
(3) Diastase (4) Genotypically aa, phenotypically A
(4) Absence of starch branching enzyme
44. Mendel observed that all the F1 progeny
38. Which one of the following traits of plants :
garden pea studied by Mendel, was a (1) Resembled either one of the parents
recessive feature : (2) Resembled neither of the parents
(1) Axial flower position (3) Resembled both of the parents
(2) Green seed colour (4) Shows 3 : 1 ratio
(3) Green pod colour 45. The segregation of alleles is a random
(4) Round seed shape process and so there is a ______ chance
39. How is the arrangement of Mendel’s of a gametes containing either allele:
selected seven characters on four (1) 25% (2) 50%
chromosomes : (3) 75% (4) 100%
(1) One in ch. no. 1, 4 in ch. no. 4, one 46. If a normal woman marries an albino
in ch. no. 5, and one in ch. no. 7 man and their offsprings are half albino,
(2) 2 in ch. no. 1, 3 in ch. no. 4, one in half normal the woman is :
ch. no. 5 and one in ch. no. 6 (1) Homozygous normal
(3) 3 in ch. no. 1, 1 in ch. no. 4, 2 in ch. (2) Heterozygous normal
no. 5 and one in ch. no. 7 (3) Homozygous recessive
(4) 2 in ch. no. 1, 3 in ch. no. 4, 1 in ch. (4) Homozygous dominant
no. 5 and 1 in ch. no. 7
47. If a cross is made between two
40. Genes controlling seven traits in pea individuals each having genotype Bb, two
studied by Mendel were actually located offsprings are obtained. Out of these
on : first has dominant trait. What is the
(1) Seven chromosomes probability that the second offspring will
(2) Six chromosomes exhibit recessive trait :
(3) Four chromosomes (1) 1/4 (2) 100
(4) Five chromosomes (3) Zero (4) 3/4

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 41

48. In human right handedness is dominant 55. When Mendel self hybridised the F1
over left handedness. What offsprings plants (RrYy), he found that dominant
would be expected from two left handed and recessive traits of one character are
parents : segregated in a :
(1) Only left handed (1) 9 : 1 ratio (2) 3 : 3 ratio
(2) Only right handed (3) 10 : 6 ratio (4) 3 : 1 ratio
(3) Left handed & right handed both
56. Heterozygous tall and violet flowered
(4) Neither left handed nor right handed
pea plants were selfed and total 512
Mendelism Dihybrid cross, seeds are collected.
Trihybrid cross and Special cross What will be total number of seeds for
both heterozygous traits?
49. A diploid organism is heterozygous for
(1) 128 (2) 256
five loci and homozygous for 2 loci, how (3) 384 (4) 64
many types of gametes can be
produced? 57. Mark the odd one (with respect to F2
(1) 128 (2) 32 (3) 4 (4) 14 generation of Mendelian dihybrid cross):
(1) Frequency of TtRR genotype = 12.5%
50. AABbCc genotype forms how many (2) Frequency of ttrr genotype = 6.25%
types of gametes : (3) Frequency of TTRR genotype = 6.25%
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 6 (4) Frequency of ttRr genotype = 25%
51. The percentage of ab gametes produced 58. Which of the following statement is
by AaBb parent will be : correct?
(1) 12.5 (2) 25 (3) 50 (4) 75 (1) Each back cross is a test cross
52. If the cell of an organism heterozygous (2) Each test cross is a back cross
(3) Both statements have the same
for two pairs of genes represented by
meaning
AaBb, undergoes meiosis, then the
(4) Reappearance of similar characters
possible genotypic combination of
in a test cross is called a back cross
gametes will be :
(1) AB, Ab, aB, ab (2) AB, ab 59. Find out the frequency of AabbCcDdee if
(3) Aa, Bb (4) A, a, B, b parents are AabbCCddEe and AabbccDdee :
(1) 0.78% (2)12.5%
53. A male human is heterozygous for (3) 25% (4) 50%
autosomal genes A and B and is also
60. How many types of zygotic
hemizygous for homophilic gene h. What
combinations are possible between a
proportion of his sperms will be abh: cross Aa BB Cc Dd x AA bb Cc DD?
1 1 (1) 32 (2) 128 (3) 64 (4) 16
(1) (2)
4 8 61. In F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid
1 1 cross (TTRR x ttrr) :
(3) (4) (1) Tall plants and violet flowered
3 1
plants are obtained in 1 : 1
54. F1 progeny of Mendelian dihybrid cross frequency
produces : (2) Ratio of parental and non-parental
(1) Two types of pollen grains plants is 1 : 15
(2) Four genotypes of gametes (3) Recombinant plants are obtained in
(3) Two types of eggs 1 : 1 frequency
(4) Four types of pollens only (4) More than one option is correct

42 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

62. A cross between AaBB X aaBB yields a 71. Crossing AABB & aabb, the probability of
genotypic ratio of : AaBb would be in F2 generation:
(1) 1 AaBB: 1 aaBB (1) 1/16 (2) 2/16
(2) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB (3) 8/16 (4) 4/16
(3) 3 AaBB : 1 aa BB
72. When two hybrids Ttrr & ttRr are
(4) All AaBb
crossed, the phenotypic ratio of
63. The cross between recessive to it’s offspring shell be :
hybrid or it’s F1 plant is called : (1) 3:1 (2) 1:1:1:1
(1) Back cross (3) 1:1 (4) 9:3:3:1
(2) Test cross
(3) Monohybrid cross 73. A useful process for determining
(4) Dihybrid cross whether an individual is homozygous or
heterozygous is :
64. What is the genotypic and phenotypic (1) Cross-breeding
ratio of monohybrid test cross : (2) Self fertilization
(1) 1:1 (2) 1:2 (3) Back - crossing
(3) 3:1 (4) 1:2:1 (4) Test cross
65. Dihybrid cross proves the law of : 74. In order to find out the different types
(1) Segregation of gametes produced by a pea plant
(2) Purity of gametes having the genotype AaBb, it should be
(3) Dominance
crossed to a plant with the genotype :
(4) Independent assortment
(1) AaBb (2) aabb (3) AABB (4) aaBB
66. How many gametes are produced in F1
75. Two crosses between the same pair of
generation of a trihybrid :
genotypes or phenotypes in which the
(1) 3 (2) 4
sources of the gametes are reversed in
(3) 8 (4) 16
one cross, is known as:
67. Which genotype represents a true (1) Test cross
dihybrid condition : (2) Reciprocal cross
(1) tt rr (2) Tt rr (3) Dihybrid cross
(3) Tt Rr (4) TT Rr (4) Reverse cross

68. Mendelian ratio 9:3:3:1 is due to: Cytoplasmic Inheritance

(1) Law of segregation
(2) Law of purity of gametes 76. Cytoplasmic Inheritance is responsible
(3) Law of independent assortment for -
(4) Law of unit characters (1) Branch colour in mirabilis
(2) Albinism in plants
69. In a cross between a pure tall plant with (3) Male sterility in maize
green pod & a pure short plant with (4) All of the above
yellow pod. How many short plants are
produced in F2 generation out of 16 : 77. When certain character is inherited only
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 9 through the female parent, it probably
represents the case of :
70. In a dihybrid cross between AABB and
(1) Mendelian nuclear inheritance
aabb the ratio of AABB, AABb, aaBb,
aabb in F2 generation is: (2) Multiple plastid inheritance
(1) 9:3:3:1 (2) 1:1:1:1 (3) Cytoplasmic inheritance
(3) 1:2:2:1 (4) 1:1:2:2 (4) Incomplete dominance

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 43

78. Extranuclear inheritance is a 84. In case of incomplete dominance the
consequence of presence of genes in : ratio of phenotypes in F2 generation is :
(1) Lysosomes and ribosomes
(1) 1:2:1 (2) 3:1:1
(2) Mitochondria and chloroplasts
(3) 9:3:3:1 (4) 2:3:1
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum and
mitochondria 85. When the phenotypic and genotypic
(4) Ribosomes and chloroplast ratios resemble in the F2 generation it is
an example of :
79. Gene for cytoplasmic male sterility in
(1) Independent assortment
plants are generally located in the :
(1) Chloroplast genome (2) Qualitative inheritance
(2) Mitochondrial genome (3) Segregation of factors
(3) Nuclear genome (4) Incomplete dominance
(4) Cytosol
86. In Mirabilis jalapa when homozygous red
Allelic Gene Interaction flowered and white flowered plants are
crossed, all F1 plants have pink coloured
80. In garden pea, starch is synthesised flowers. In F2 produced by selfing of F1
effectively in : plants, red, pink, white flowered plants
(1) Heterozygous round seeded plants
would appear respectively in the ratio
(2) Homozygous round seeded plants
of :
(3) Wrinkled seeded plants
(1) 1 : 1 : 2
(4) Pure and hybrid round seeded plants
(2) 2 : 1 : 1
81. When a pink flowered Antirrhinum plant (3) 1 : 0 : 1
is test crossed, then phenotypic ratio in (4) 1 : 2 : 1
resulting progenies is :
87. In a dihybrid cross, when one pair of
(1) 1 Red: 1 White (2) 3 Red: 1 White
alleles show incomplete dominance,
(3) 2 Pink : 1 White (4) 1 Pink : 1 White
genotypic ratio comes to :
82. In incomplete dominance: (1) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1
(1) Dominant trait is completely (2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
expressed in F1 generation (3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) Phenotypic and genotypic ratio are (4) 1 : 2 : 1
different
88. Incomplete dominance is found in :
(3) Two dominant alleles are needed to
(1) Pisum sativum
express the complete dominant
(2) Antirrhinum majus
trait
(3) Both Pisum sativum and Antirrhinum
(4) F1 individuals have the equal traits
majus
of both parents
(4) None of these
83. In Mirabilis & Antirrhinum plant the
89. In the inheritance of flower colour in dog
appearance of the pink hybrid (Rr) flower plant, the F1 had a phenotype
between cross of a red (RR) and white that :
(rr) flower parent indicates : (1) Resembles both of the parents
(1) Incomplete dominance (2) Did not resembles either of the two
(2) Segregation parents
(3) Dominance (3) Resembles with only one parent
(4) 1 and 3 both
(4) Heterosis

44 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

90. Find out the correct match : 96. What will be possible blood group in
(1) F1 resembled either of the parents children from the parents with B and AB
- Dominance blood groups ?
(2) F1 resembled in between (1) A, O (2) A, B, AB & O
-incomplete dominance (3) A, B, AB (4) B, O
(3) F1 resembled both parent – Co
97. Progeny with blood group 'O' can not be
-dominance
obtained in cross :
(4) All are correct
(1) A x A (2) A x B
91. AB - Blood group shows : (3) O x AB (4) B x B
(1) Co-dominance
(2) Complete dominance 98. If father has blood group A and the
(3) Mixed inheritance mother has blood group B. The
(4) Composite inheritance offsprings have which blood group :
(1) AB only (2) O only
92. Which of the following is the example of
co-dominance : (3) B only (4) A, B, AB, O
(1) HbA HbA, IA IB (2) Hbs Hbs, IA IB
99. A man of A blood group marries a
(3) HbA Hbs, IA IB (4) Hbs Hbs, IA IA
woman of AB blood group. which type
93. What shall be ratio in offspring when a of progeny would indicate that man is
roan cow is crossed with a white bull : heterozygous A :
(1) 1:2:1 (2) 3:1 (1) AB (2) A
(3) 1:1 (4) All roan (3) O (4) B

94. Which of the following conditions 100. A child of O blood group, has B-blood
represent a case of co-dominant genes: group father, the genotype of father
(1) A gene expresses itself, suppressing would be :
the phenotypic effect of its alleles (1) I0I0 (2) IBIB
(2) Genes that are similar in phenotypic (3) IAIB (4) IBI0
effect when present separately, but 101. In multiple allele system a gamete
when together interact to produce a possesses :
different trait (1) Two alleles (2) Three alleles
(3) Allele, both of which interact to (3) One allele (4) Several alleles
produce a trait, which may 102. Blood grouping in humans is controlled
resemble either of the parental by :
type. (1) 4 alleles in which IA is dominant
(4) Alleles, each of which produces an (2) 3 alleles in which IA and IB are
independent effect in heterozygous dominant
condition. (3) 2 alleles in which none is dominant
95. Which of the following condition is true (4) 3 alleles in which IA is recessive
for co-dominance : 103. Multiple alleles are present :
(1) Phenotype of F1 resembled either of
(1) In different chromosomes
the two parents
(2) At different loci on chromosome
(2) Phenotype of F1 did not resemble
(3) At the same locus on homologous
either of two parents
chromosomes
(3) Phenotype of F1 resembles both
(4) At the non-homologous
parents
chromosome
(4) One of these

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 45

104. A child with mother of 'A' blood group 111. A gene that shows it's effect on more
and father of 'AB' blood group will be : than one character is :
(1) O (2) A (1) Polygene
(2) Pleotropic gene
(3) A and O (4) O and B
(3) Multifactor gene
105. A man with blood group B marries a (4) Multiple gene
female with blood group A and their first 112. (A) Pleiotropic genes have multiple
child is having blood group B. What is the phenotypic effect.
genotype of child : (B) Multiple alleles exhibit same
(1) IAIB (2) IAIO phenotypic expression.
(C) Polygenes exhibit continuous
(3) I I
B O
(4) IBIB
variation
106. The three different alleles of human (1) Statement (A), (B) and (C) are
ABO blood types will produce how many correct
genotypes & phenotypes respectively : (2) Statement (A), (C) correct and (B) is
incorrect
(1) 4 & 6 (2) 6 & 4
(3) Statement (A), (B) and (C) are
(3) 6 & 6 (4) 4 & 4 incorrect
107. In case of ABO blood group allele IA and (4) Statement (B) and (C) are correct
IB if present together then : and (A) is incorrect
(1) Ony IA allele expresses 113. In sickle cell anaemia :
(2) Only IB allele expresses (1) The mutant haemoglobin molecule
(3) Both IA and IB alleles express undergoes polymerisation under low
oxygen tension causing the change
(4) None of these
in the shape of RBC
108. Sickle cell-anaemia disorder arises due (2) Substitution of Glutamic acid by
to : valine at the sixth position of the -
(1) Duplication of a segment of DNA chain of haemoglobin
(3) The mutant haemoglobin undergoes
(2) Substitution in a single base of DNA
polymerization under high oxygen
(3) Deletion of a segment of DNA
tension causing the change in shape
(4) Duplication in a base pair of RNA of RBC
(4) -globin chain is modified
109. Mark the correct statement (with
respect to sickle cell anaemia) : Polygenic Inheritance
(1) Homozygous individuals for Hbs are
114. A polygenic inheritance in human beings
apparently unaffected is :
(2) Heterozygous individuals exhibit (1) Skin colour
sickle-cell trait (2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Heterozygous individuals are (3) Colour blindness
affected as well as carrier (4) Phenylketonuria
(4) Homozygous individuals for HbA 115. If a trihybrid (AaBbCc) mulatto man
show the diseased phenotype marries with a trihybrid (AaBbCc)
mulatto woman then :
110. The defect sickle-cell anaemia is caused (1) Seven types of genotypes will be
by the _____ of glutamic acid by valine obtained.
at the 6th position of the_______ globin (2) Only mulatto will be produced
(3) Offsprings with three dominant
chain of the haemoglobin molecule :
alleles will be maximum
(1) Substitution,  (2) Deletion,  (4) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1 phenotypic ratio will
(3) Duplication,  (4) Translocation, be obtained.

46 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

116. Inheritance of height, Intelligence, skin Chromosome Theory of Inheritance
colour etc. in human beings are the
example of : 123. Fruit flies are one of the best materials
(1) Complementary gene for genetic studies because of all,
(2) Monogenic inheritance except:
(3) Quantitative characters (1) Ability to grow on simple synthetic
(4) Mendelian inheritance medium in the laboratory
(2) Short life span
117. The minimum weight of tomatoes
(3) Production of a large number of
obtained from a plant is 20g. The
progeny in each mating
maximum weight of tomatoes obtained
(4) Presence of few externally visible
is 120 g. What will be the weight of
and identifiable contrasting traits
tomatoes obtained by crossing plants
with genotype AAbb × aabb ? 124. Thomas Hunt Morgan and his colleagues,
(1) 45 g (2) 70 g worked with :
(3) 100 g (4) 25 g (1) Pea plant (2) Sweet pea plant
(3) Snapdragon (4) Drosophila
118. A dihybrid ratio of 1:4:6:4: 1 is obtained
instead of 9:3:3: 1. This is an example of: 125. The experimental verification of the
(1) Complementary gene chromosomal theory of inheritance is
(2) Supplementary gene done by :
(3) Polygenic inheritance (1) Boveri (2) Sutton
(4) Incomplete dominance (3) T.H. Morgan (4) Bateson
119. In polygenic inheritance trait which Linkage & Linkage Mapping
controlled by three pairs of genes. Two
individuals which are heterozygous for 126. Generation of non-parental gene
three alleles, crossed each other. Such combinations is termed as :
type of cross produces what phenotypic
(1) Linkage (2) Polyploidy
ratio :
(1) 1 : 2 : 1 (3) Recombination (4) Aneuploidy
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 127. Which of the following phenomena leads
(3) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1 to variation in DNA?
(4) 1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 1 (1) Linkage, mutation
120. In tomato, genotype aabbcc produces (2) Recombination, linkage
100g tomatoes and AABBCC produces (3) Mutation, recombination
160g tomatoes. What is contribution of (4) Aneuploidy, linkage
each polygene in the production of
128. Which of the following show linkage
tomatoes :
group in coupling phase :
(1) 10 g (2) 20 g (3) 30 g (4) 40 g

121. A polygenic trait is controlled by 3 genes (1) (2)

A, Band C. In a cross AaBbCc x AaBbCc,
the phenotypic ratio of the offsprings
(3) (4)
was observed as:
1 : 6 : x : 20 : x : 6 : 1
what is the possible value of x ? 129. The longer the chromosome of an
(1) 3 (2) 9 (3) 15 (4) 25 organism, the more genetic variability it
122. If a polygenic trait is controlled by three gets from :
gene pairs, what will be the sum total of (1) Independent assortment
phenotypic and genotypic categories (2) Linkage
produced in F2 generation ? (3) Crossing over
(1) 35 (2) 34 (3) 71 (4) 64 (4) Mutation

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 47

130. Which statement is incorrect about 137. The association of parental character
linkage : combinations in the offsprings of a
(1) It helps in maintaining the valuable dihybrid is excess to non-parental
traits of new varieties combinations. It is due to:
(2) It helps in forming new (1) Co-dominance
recombinants (2) Blending inheritance
(3) Knowledge of linkage helps the (3) Linkage
breeder to combine all desirable (4) Duplicate genes
traits in a single variety. 138. Complete linkage is found in :
(4) It helps in locating genes on (1) Birds
chromosome (2) Snakes
(3) Female- Drosophila
131. Which law would have been violated if
(4) Male – Drosophila
Mendel had chosen eight characters in
garden -pea : 139. A phenomenon which works opposite to
(1) Law of dominance the linkage is :
(2) Law of segregation (1) Independent assortment
(3) Law of independent assortment (2) Crossing-over
(4) Law of purity of gametes (3) Segregation
(4) Mutation
132. With increasing age the linkage
becomes : 140. __(A)___used the frequency of
(1) Strong recombination between gene pairs on
(2) Weak the __(B)__ as a measure of the distance
(3) Terminates between genes and mapped their
position on the chromosome.
(4) Remains unchanged
(A) (B)
133. A dihybrid plant with incomplete linkage (1) Morgan Same chromosome
on test cross may produce how many (2) Sturtevant Different chromosomes
types of plants : (3) Morgan Different chromosomes
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 1 (4) Sturtevant Same chromosome

134. How many linkage group are there in 141. In Drosophila crossing over occurs in
nucleoid of bacteria : female but not in male. Gene A and B are
10 map unit apart on chromosome. A
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Four (4) None AB
female Drosophila with genotype
ab
135. If distance between gene on AB
and male Drosophila with genotype .
chromosome is more, then gene shows: ab
(1) Weak linkage How many type of gametes are
(2) Strong linkage produced by female and male
(3) Less crossing over Drosophila respectively
(4) 1 & 3 both (1) 4 types : 2 types
(2) 2 types : 2 types
136. The number of linkage groups in a cell
(3) 4 types : 4 types
having 10 pairs of chromosomes are :
(4) 4 types : one types
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20

48 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

142. In a cross between individuals 147. Frequency of crossing over will be
homozygous for (a, b) and wild type (+ relatively more if :
+). In this cross 700 out of 1000 (1) Distance between the two genes is
individuals were of parental type. When less
F1 was test crossed then the distance (2) Distance between the two genes is
between a and b is : more
(1) 70 map unit (2) 35 map unit (3) Linked genes are more
(3) 30 map unit (4) 15 map unit
(4) Both (2) & (3)
143. In maize coloured endosperm (C) is
148. Presence of recombinants is due to :
dominant over colourless (c) and full
(1) Crossing over
endosperm (R) is dominant over
(2) Linkage
shrunken (r). When a dihybrid of F1-
(3) Lack of independent assortment
generation was test crossed it produced
(4) All of the above
four phenotypes in the following
percentage 149. The linkage map of X-chromosome of
Coloured and Full = 45% fruit fly has 66 units, with yellow body
Coloured – Shrunken = 5% gene (y) at one end and bobbed hair (b)
Colourless – Full = 4%
gene at the other end. The
Colourless – Shrunken = 46%
recombination frequency between these
From these data what would be distance
two genes (y and b) should be :
between the two non allelic genes :
(1) 60% (2) > 50%
(1) 48 unit (2) 9 unit
(3)  50% (4) 100%
(3) 4 unit (4) 12 unit

144. There are three genes a, b, c percentage Sex Linkage

of crossing over between a and b is 20%, 150. In which of the following disorder a
b and c is 28% and a and c is 8%. What single protein that is a part of the
is the sequence of genes on chromosome : cascade of proteins involved in blood
(1) b, a, c (2) a, b, c clotting is affected ?
(3) a, c, b (4) None (1) Thalassemia
(2) Sickle-cell anaemia
145. Genetic Map is one that : (3) Haemophilia
(1) Establishes sites of the genes on a (4) Colourblindness
chromosome
151. Which of the following trait shows
(2) Establishes the various stages in transmission from carrier female to
gene evolution male progeny ?
(3) Shows the stages during the cell (1) Autosomal dominant
(2) X-linked recessive
division
(3) Y-linked recessive
(4) Shows the distribution of various
(4) X-linked dominant
species in a region
152. A Y-linked gene is responsible for
146. Cross over value (COV) of gene A and B hypertrichosis (long hair on ears). When
is 5% while COV of genes B and C is 15% an affected man marries a normal
the possible sequence of these genes on woman, what percentage of their
chromosome is : daughters would be expected to have
(1) A-B-C (2) C-A-B hairy ears?
(3) B-C-A (4) Both (1) & (2) (1) 25% (2) 0% (3) 50% (4) 100%

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 49

153. A normal woman, whose father had 159. A woman with normal vision, but whose
colour blindness, married a normal man. father was colour blind, marries a colour
blind man. Suppose that the fourth child
What is the chance of occurrence of of this couple was a boy. This boy :
colour blindness in the progeny? (1) Must have normal colour vision
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 100% (4) 75% (2) May be colour blind or may be
normal vision
154. A colourblind daughter is born when : (3) Will be partially colour blind since
(1) Father is colourblind, mother is normal he is heterozygous for the colour
(2) Mother is colourblind, father is blind mutant allele
normal (4) Must be colour blind

(3) Mother is carrier, father is normal 160. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in
(4) Mother is carrier, father is colourblind human males than in human females
because :
155. Hypertrichosis is: (1) This disease is due to a Y–linked
recessive mutation
(1) Holandric character
(2) This disease is due to an X–linked
(2) X-Linked character recessive mutation
(3) Digenic character (3) This disease is due to an X–linked
dominant mutation
(4) Sex-influenced character
(4) A greater proportion of girls die in
156. A single recessive trait which can infancy
express its effect should occur on : 161. TDF gene is a :
(1) A gene present on X–chromosome
(1) Any autosome
(2) A segment of RNA
(2) Any-chromosome (3) A proteinaceous factor
(3) X-chromosome of female (4) A gene present on Y–chromosome
(4) X- chromosome of male 162. A diseased man marries a normal woman.
They get three daughters and five sons.
157. The recessive genes located on X– All the daughters were diseased and sons
chromosome in humans are always : were normal. The gene of this disease is :
(1) Sex linked dominant
(1) Expressed in females
(2) Sex linked recessive
(2) Lethal (3) Sex limited character
(3) Suppressed in males (4) Autosomal dominant
(4) Expressed in males 163. In man sex linked characters are mainly
transmitted through :
158. If father shows normal genotype and (1) X-chromosome
mother shows a carrier trait for (2) Autosomes
(3) Y-chromosome
haemophilia :
(4) X-chromosome, Y-chromosome
(1) All the female children will be and Autosomes
carrier 164. If a colourblind woman marries with a
(2) A male child has 50% chances of normal man. The offspring will be :
(1) All colourblind
active disease
(2) All daughters normal and all son
(3) Female child has probability of 50% will be colourblind
to active disease (3) All normal
(4) All daughters will be colourblind
(4) All the female children will be and all sons will be normal
colourblind

50 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

165. How many types of gametes will be 171. Which chromosome set is found in male
produced by a Drosophila having grass hopper :
following arrangement of two genes (y+ (1) 2A + XY (2) 2A + XO
and w+) on X-chromosome ? (3) 2A + YY (4) 2A + XX

172. Which of the following symbols are used

for representing sex chromosome of
birds :
(1) ZW – ZZ (2) XX – XY
(3) XO – XX (4) ZZ – WW

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 8 173. Which of the following is responsible for
sex determination in chick :
166. Which of the following is not a sex linked
(1) Sperm
characters :
(2) Egg
(1) Haemophilia
(3) Somatic cell
(2) Colour blindness
(4) Every cell of body
(3) Hypertrichosis
(4) Sickle cell anaemia 174. In which of the following sex is
determined by female individual :
Sex Determination
(1) Human (2) Drosophila
167. Initial clue about the genetic/ (3) Birds (4) Grasshopper
chromosomal mechanism of sex-
determination can be traced back to 175. Male heterogamy found in case of :
some of the experiments carried out in: (1) XO type male in Grasshopper
(1) Human beings (2) Birds (2) XY type male in human
(3) Insects (4) Plants (3) ZW male in birds
(4) 1 and 2 both
168. While solving the problem of sex
determination in large number of 176. In which of the following monosomic
insects, it was observed that : male is found :
(1) All eggs lack sex chromosome (1) Human (2) Birds
(2) Some of the sperms bear the X- (3) Honey bee (4) Grasshopper
chromosome
(3) All eggs as well as sperms bear the Human Genetics
X-chromosome
(4) Some of the eggs bear the X- 177. In the given pedigree, Indicate whether
chromosome the shaded symbols indicate dominant
or recessive allele :
169. In humans sex of offsprings is
determined by :
(1) Sex chromosome of mother
(2) Size of ovum
(3) Size of sperm
(4) Sex chromosome of father

170. Which of the following possess (1) Recessive

homogametic male : (2) Codominant
(1) Plants (2) Man (3) Dominant
(3) Insect (4) Birds (4) It can be recessive or dominant both

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 51

178. Given below is a pedigree chart of a
181. Given pedigree shows inheritance of
family with five children. It shows the
autosomal recessive gene. What is the
inheritance of attached ear lobes as
genotype of given parents :
opposed to the free ones. The squares
represent the male individuals and
circles the female individuals.

(1) AA, aa (2) aa, AA

Which one of the following conclusions (3) aa, Aa (4) Aa, Aa

drawn is correct :
182. A pedigree is shown below for a disease
(1) The parents are homozygous
that is autosomal recessive. The genetic
recessive
make up of the first generation :
(2) The trait is Y–linked
(3) The parents are homozygous
dominant
(4) The parents are heterozygous

179. In pedigree analysis symbol is used

for:
(1) Heterozygous for autosomal recessive (1) AA, aa (2) Aa, Aa

(2) Affected individuals (3) Aa, aa (4) aa, aa

(3) Death
183. Study the pedigree given below and
(4) Carrier for sex linked recessive
assign the type of inheritance of the
180. Study the given pedigree carefully, the
trait :
trait indicated is:

(1) Autosomal recessive (1) X-linked recessive

(2) X–linked recessive (2) Y-linked
(3) Maternal inheritance (3) Autosomal recessive
(4) Paternal inheritance (4) Autosomal dominant

52 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

184. Given below is the pedigree of sickle cell 189. Which of the following statements
anaemia, in a family. are correct?
(i) Haemophilia is a sex-linked
recessive disease.
ii own’s s ndrome is due to
aneuploidy.

In this the RBC of both parents will be : (iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal

(1) Normal dominant gene disorder.
(2) Sickle shaped (iv) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
(3) Both normal & sickle shaped recessive gene disorder.
(4) Cannot be determined (v) Sickle-cell anaemia is an X-linked

185. Which of the following symbol is used recessive gene disorder.

for mating between relatives (1) (i), (iii) and (v)
(Consanguineous mating) : (2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (v)
(1) (2)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (4)
190. Which of the following statements
are the correct?
186. Phenylketonuria is an:– (i) Failure of segregation of
(1) Autosomal recessive disease chromatids during cell division
(2) Autosomal dominant disease results in aneuploidy.
(3) X-linked recessive disease (ii) Chromosomal disorders are
(4) X-linked dominant disease mainly determined by alteration

187. Thalassemia is a:– or mutation in a single gene.

(1) Quantitative character (iii) Thalasemia and cystic fibrosis

(2) Qualitative character are Mendelian disorders.

(3) X-linked character (iv) Sickle cell anemia is an X-linked

(4) All of these trait.

(v) Haemophilia is an autosome
188. Thalassemia is a:–
linked recessive disease.
(1) Autosomal recessive disease
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) Autosomal dominant disease
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) X-linked recessive disease
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) X-linked dominant disease (4) (ii) and (iii)

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 53

191. Match column-I with column-II and 194. A man has enlarged breasts, sparse
select the correct option from the hairs on the body and sex
codes given below. chromosomal formula XXY. He then
suffers from
Column–I Column–II own’s s ndrome
A. Autosomal I. own’s Edward’s s ndrome
recessive trait syndrome Turner’s s ndrome
B. Sex-linked II. Phenylketonuria Klinefelter’s s ndrome
recessive trait
195. E tra chromosome ‘ ’ is resent in
C. Metabolic III. Haemophilia
which one of the following cases?
error
(1) Down syndrome
linked to
(2) Klinefelter syndrome
autosomal (3) Turner syndrome
recessive leeder’s disease
D. Additional 21st IV. Sickle cell
chromosome anaemia 196. The erson with Turner’s s ndrome
(1) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III has
(2) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (1) 45 autosomes and X sex
(3) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I chromosome
(4) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (2) 44 autosomes and XYY sex
chromosomes
192. n own’s s ndrome, ar ot ing has
(3) 45 autosomes and XYY sex
shown that the disorder is chromosomes
associated with trisomy of (4) 44 autosomes and X sex
chromosome number 21 usually due chromosome
to
(1) non-disjunction during egg 197. Mental retardation in man
formation. associated with sex chromosomal
(2) non-disjunction during sperm cell abnormality is usually due to
formation. (1) increase in size of X-
(3) addition of extra chromosome chromosome.
during cleavage of zygote. (2) increase in size of Y-
(4) non-disjunction during egg cells chromosome.
production and sperm (3) increase in number of Y-
production. chromosome.
(4) increase in number of X-
193. own’s s ndrome is caused b an chromosome.
extra copy of chromosome number
21. What percentage of offspring
produced by an affected mother and
a normal father?
(1) 50% (2) 25%
(3) 100% (4) 75%

54 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

 Exercise – II

Mendelian Genetics 8. Select the incorrect statement for

Gregor Mendel :
1. On crossing red & white flowered plants (1) He conducted hybridization experiment
the ratio of red and white flowered on garden pea for seven years.
plants in F2 -generation was 60:20, then (2) He applied statistical analysis and
on selfing the heterozygous red flowered mathematical logic for the first time
plants. the offsprings would be : to the problems in biology
(1) 72:24 (2) 40:60 (3) His experiments had a small
sampling size
(3) 52:48 (4) 84: 16
(4) He conducted artificial cross–
2. What is the ratio of one pair of pollination experiments using
contrasting characters in F2 of a dihybrid several true-breeding pea lines.
cross : 9. “When two pairs of traits are combined
(1) 5 : 3 in a hybrid segregation of one pair of
(2) 3 : 1 characters is independent of the other
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 pair of characters”. This explains :
(4) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 (1) Law of dominance
(2) Law of segregation
3. What is the probability of homozygous (3) Law of independent assortment
plants for both dominant characters in (4) Postulate of paired factors
F2 generation of a dihybrid cross : 10. Which of the following is not observed
(1) 1/16 (2) 3/16 in a monohybrid cross :
(3) 4/16 (4) 9/16 (1) Recessive parental trait is
expressed without any blending in
4. An offspring of two homozygous parents the F2-generation
differing from one another by alleles at (2) Recessive parental trait is expressed
only one gene locus is known as : without any blending in the F1-
(1) Back cross (2) Monohybrid generation
(3) Dihybrid (4) Trihybrid (3) Dominance also explains the
proportion of 3 : 1 obtained at the F2
5. Cross AABb X aaBb yields AaBB AaBb (4) Genotype ratio is 1 : 2 : 1
Aabb:aabb offspring in the ratio of : 11. The Punnett square shown below
(1) 0:3:1:1 (2) 1:2:1:0 represents the pattern of inheritance in
(3) 1:1:1:1 (4) 1:2:1:1 dihybrid cross when yellow (Y) is
dominant over white (y) and round (R) is
6. Mrs. Verma has a autosomal gene pair dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds :
‘Bb ’and she contain x-linked gene ‘d ’on YR Yr yR Yr
both of her X-chromosome. What is the
YR F J N R
percentage of gamete which contain
‘bd ’genes : Yr G K O S
(1) 1/2 or 50% (2) 1/4 or 25%
yR H L P T
(3) 3/4 or 75% (4) 1 or 100%
yr I M Q U
7. A dihybrid plant on self pollination,
A plant of type ‘H ’will produce seeds
produced 400 plant with 9 types of with the genotype identical to seeds
genotype. How many seeds will have produced by the plants of :
genotype TtRr : (1) Type M (2) Type J
(1) 200 (2) 100 (3) 50 (4) 150 (3) Type P (4) Type N

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 55

12. Based on observation on monohybrid 16. If F2 generation of mendelian dihybrid
crosses Mendel draw some conclusion. cross, what fraction of progeny will
Which of the following is not correct : show dominant phenotype for atleast
(1) Characters are controlled by one character ?
discrete units called factors
9 3 1 15
(2) Factors occur in pairs (1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) In a similar pair of factors one 16 16 16 16
member of the pair dominates the 17. In a dihybrid cross 3000 individuals are
other
produced in F2 generation.
(4) The postulate of dominance also
Approximately, how many will be
explains the proportion of 3 : 1
obtained at the F2 phenotypically different from parents :-
(1) 1250 (2) 1000
13. Read the following statements regarding (3) 1500 (4) 1125
Mendelian inheritance and choose the
correct option : 18. What is true for Mendel ?
A. Mendel's experiments had small (1) Qualitative study of qualitative
sample size which gave greater characters.
credibility to the data (2) Quantitative study of quantitative
B. A true breeding line shows a stable characters.
trait inheritance and expression for
(3) Qualitative study of quantitative
several generations
characters.
C. In a dissimilar pair of factors, one
member of the pair dominates over (4) Quantitative study of Qualitative
the other characters.
D. A recessive parental trait is 19. Gregor Johann Mendel proposed the
expressed only in its heterozygous
laws of inheritance in living organisms by
condition
(1) Removal of anthers in Antirrhinum
E. Two alleles of a gene are located on
same locus on homologous sp.
chromosomes (2) Conducting a monohybrid cross in
(1) B alone is correct Snapdragon
(2) B, C and E are correct (3) Conducting hybridisation experiments
(3) A and D are correct on garden peas
(4) A, C and E are correct (4) Performing test cross in Hibiscus sp.
14. The unmodified (functioning) allele 20. Correct set of dominant traits w.r.t.
which represents the original phenotype flowers in pea plant, which were studied
is the ....(a).... and the modified allele
by Mendel are
is ......(b)..... the .....(c).... allele :
(1) Violet colour and axial position
(1) (a) Recessive, (b) generally,
(c) dominant (2) Pink colour and terminal position
(2) (a) dominant, (b) always, (3) White colour and axial position
(c) recessive (4) Violet colour and terminal position
(3) (a) dominant, (b) generally,
21. A pea plant is bearing all white flowers.
(c) recessive
(4) (a) recessive, (b) always, Which of the following statements
(c) dominant cannot be correct about this plant?
(1) This plant is homozygous for flower
15. About genotype 'Rr' select the incorrect
colour
statement :-
(1) Allelic gene pair (2) All the seeds produced by this plant
(2) They control common character will always be wrinkled
(3) They share common locus (3) The flowers in this plant may be axial
(4) Can be present on non-homologous (4) This plant may be heterozygous for
chromosome pod colour

56 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

22. Two tall pea plants are crossed together. 30. Mark the incorrect statement
In its F1 generation, the probability of (1) Starch grain size and seed shape are
tallness will be the effect of a single gene product
(1) 100% tall or 75% tall (2) If the allele produces a
(2) Always 100% tall
nonfunctional or no enzyme, the
(3) 100% tall or 50% tall
phenotype may be affected
(4) Always 50% tall
(3) Dominance is an autonomous
23. Read the following statement. "When feature of a gene
two pairs of trait are combined in a
(4) F1 resembles both parents in
hybrid, segregation of one pair of
codominance
character is independent of the other
pair of characters". Above given 31. In which phase, the two chromosome
statement explains pairs can align at metaphase plate
(1) Law of dominance independently of each other ?
(2) Law of segregation
(1) Anaphase-I
(3) Law of co-dominance
(2) Metaphase-I
(4) Law of independent assortment
(3) Prophase-I
24. Choose the genotype which does not (4) Anaphase-II
represent a true breeding/pure line.
(1) AABB (2) aabb (3) AAbb (4) AABb 32. In F2 generation of dihybrid cross of
mendel, the ratio between recombinants
25. Number of character(s) related to pea
pod taken by Mendel for his experiment is :-
was (1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(1) Three (2) Four (3) One (4) Two (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1

26. According to Mendel, genotype of 33. Experimental detail in Mendels

wrinkled yellow seed is experiments which gave greater
(1) rrYy (2) RrYy credibility to the data that he collected.
(3) RRyy (4) rryy (1) Large sampling size,
(2) Bisexuality
27. "A gamete carries only one factor of a
(3) Height of plants
character''. Above statement justifies
(4) Flower colour
(1) Law of dominance
(2) Incomplete dominance 34. Which of the following trait of pea plant
(3) Law of segregation can express itself only in homozygous
(4) Law of independent assortment state?
28. Which one of the following Mendelian (1) Tall plant (2) Axial flower
traits can be expressed in the presence (3) White flower (4) Green pod
of its identical allele only?
35. By a monohybrid cross. Which of the
(1) Green pod (2) Axial pod
following phenomenon can't be
(3) Constricted pod (4) Round seed
explained?
29. How many types of gametes can be (1) Segregation of factors
produced by plant with genotype (2) Dominance
PpQQRrSS?
(3) Independent assortment
(1) Four (2) Six (3) Eight (4) Two
(4) Pairing of factors

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 57

36. Mendelian principles are:- 41. Read the given statements and select
(1) Linkage, segregation and independent the correct option.
Statement A : Mendel's law of
assortment
independent assortment is not true for
(2) Dominance, segregation and linkage the genes that are linked.
(3) Dominance, segregation and Statement B : In incomplete dominance,
independent assortment F1 phenotype does not resemble either
of the two parents.
(4) Dominance, independent
(1) Only A is incorrect
assortment and linkage (2) Only B is incorrect
(3) Both A and B are correct
37. Alleles are :
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) True breeding homozygotes
42. Consider violet flower colour is
(2) Different moleculear forms of a gene
dominant over white flower colour. To
(3) Heterozygotes determine the genotype of violet
(4) Different phenotype flowered pea plant of F1 generation, it
should be crossed with
38. Which law of Mendel is followed in given (1) White flowered pea plant
below statement. (2) Homozygous dominant parent
"When two pairs of traits are combined (3) Heterozygous recessive parent
(4) Pure violet flowered pea plant
in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of
characters is independent of the other 43. How many maximum different types of
gametes can be formed by a diploid
pair of characters"
organism if it is homozygous for one
(1) Law of segregation locus and heterozygous for three loci?
(2) Law of dominance (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) Law of Independent assortment (3) 6 (4) 8
(4) Law of Co–dominance 44. A: Punnett square is a graphical
representation to calculate the
39. In the principles of inheritance, law of probability of all possible genotypes of
segregation is based on the fact that offsprings in a genetic cross.
(1) The alleles do not show any blending R : Only F1 generation can be
represented by Punnett square.
and characters are recovered in next (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
generation and the reason is the correct
(2) The alleles of a trait always remain explanation of the assertion.
together but only one of them can (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
but the reason is not the correct
express its character
explanation of the assertion.
(3) The alleles of a trait never come (3) If Assertion is true statement but
together and they express their Reason is false.
characters separately (4) If both Assertion and Reason are
false statements.
(4) All alleles of a trait lie on the same
chromosome and they segregate 45. Which of the given cross helps in
identification of genotype of a plant
during crossing over
showing dominant phenotype?
40. The law of dominance does not explain (1) White flowered plants are selfed
(2) White flowered parental plant is
(1) Expression of only one of the crossed with white flowered plant of
parental character F1 generation
(2) segregation of allele during gamete (3) White flowered plant is crossed with
formation violet flowered plant of F1 generation
(4) Violet flowered parental plant is
(3) The proportion of 3 : 1 obtained in F2
crossed with white flowered plant of
(4) Expression of both character in F2 F1 generation

58 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

46. Two sets of diagrams are given here:- Gene Interactions
a
A B A b 49. Match the following columns and choose
a
A B A b the correct option.
A a b a B
a b a B
A
or
I II

Which of the following option is correct?

(1) I-Explains law of segregation
A B
II-Explains law of dominance (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) Both I and II explain law of (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
segregation (3) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) I-Explains law of segregation (4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

II-Explains law of independent 50. ABO blood groups are controlled by the
assortment gene I. The plasma membrane of the
(4) I-Explains law of segregation red blood cells has which polymers
that protrude from its surface and
II-Explains nondisjunction
controlled by the gene I ?
47. Select correct statement: (1) Sugar polymers
(1) Mendel selected 14 true breeding pea (2) Protein polymers
(3) Lipid polymers
plant varieties
(4) No such polymer present
(2) Mendel observed that all the F1
progeny plants were green seeded in 51. In which of the following cases for a
monohybrid crosses for seed colour gene, the modified allele is said to be
equivalent to the unmodified allele?
(3) Ratio of dihybrid test cross of Mendel
P. If it produces a non-functional
is 7 : 1 : 1 : 7
enzyme
(4) 8/16 progenies in F2 generation of Q. If it produces less efficient enzyme
dihybrid cross are similar to F1 R. If this allele does not produce any
enzyme
generation
(1) Only P and Q (2) Only Q
48. Find out the correct statement(s) and (3) Only Q and R (4) P, Q and R
select the option accordingly. 52. Select the wrong statement about
a. Dominance is an autonomous multiple allelism
feature of a gene. (1) It is presence of more than two
b. More than one phenotype can be alternative form of a gene
(2) It can be studied only in study of an
influenced by the same gene.
individual
c. A phenotype is dependent on the
(3) Multiple alleles are produced by
gene product. mutation
(1) a and b (2) a and c (4) Each of the alleles shows the
(3) band c (4) Only c frequency at least 0.01

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 59

53. The most common cause of the 59. In Mirabilis plant tallness is dominant
pleiotropic effect of a gene is :- over dwarfness while red flowers are
(1) The same product of the given gene incompletely dominant over white
being involved in different metabolic flowers. A pure tall & red flowered plant
pathways. is crossed with dwarf & white flowered
(2) The gene making very different plant. What will be the percentage
products in different cell types probability of getting pink, white and red
(3) The DNA sequence of the gene flowered plants in F2 generation?
getting changed in cell-specific (1) 25%, 50%, 25% (2) 50%, 25%, 25%
manner (3) 75%, 0%, 25% (4) 50%, 0%, 50%
(4) The gene not functioning in some
cells 60. Which of the following is true for
dominant and recessive relationship of
54. In a diploid organism, what is the
allele is case of human blood groups ?
maximum number of alleles that can
(1) IA > IB > IO (2) IA = IB = IO
exist in a population for any given gene :-
(3) I > I = I
A B O
(4) IA = IB > IO
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) Unlimited 61. A pink flower bearing snapdragon plant
is self crossed then the phenotypic ratio
55. When red flowered plants of snapdragon
for the flower colour obtained in F1
are crossed with pink flowered plants
then ratio of progenies obtained will generation will be
be :- (1) Red : Pink
(1) All pink 1 : 1
(2) 1 red : 1 pink (2) Red : Pink : White
(3) 1 red : 1 white 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white (3) Red : White
2 : 1
56. A person with unknown blood group
(4) Red : Pink : White
under ABO system, has suffered much
2 : 1 : 1
blood loss in an accident and needs
immediate blood transfusion. His one 62. The cross in which phenotype of F1
friend who has a valid certificate of his generation does not resemble either of
own blood type, offers for blood the two parents and remain
donation without delay. What would intermediate between dominant and
have been the type of blood group of the recessive phenotype, shows the
donor friend ? property of
(1) Type B (2) Type AB (1) Dominance
(3) Type O (4) Type A (2) Incomplete dominance
57. Which of the four couples claiming the (3) Co-dominance
baby with O+ blood type are possibly the (4) Multiple allelism
biological parents of it ? 63. The number of allele(s) that determine
(1) AB– and A+ (2) A+ and O– A, B, AB and O blood groups in human
(3) O and AB
+ +
(4) B– and O– is/are
58. Which is incorrect : (1) Four (2) Three
(i) ABO blood groups are controlled by (3) One (4) Two
the gene I
64. In pea plant, genotype for starch
(ii) Gene I has four alleles
synthesis is Bb. This plant produces ___
(iii) IA and IB produce same type of sugar
starch grains.
(iv) i or I° produce different type of
(1) Small sized
sugar
(v) IA and IB are incomplete dominant (2) Large sized
(1) i, ii (2) v, ii (3) Tiny
(3) ii, iii, iv (4) ii, iii, iv, v (4) Intermediate sized

60 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

65. The number of allele(s) that determine 73. Which of the following character has
the blood group AB is same result in reciprocal corss-
(1) Two (2) One (1) Branch colour in Mirabilis
(3) Four (4) Three (2) Male sterility in maize
66. Which among the following is an (3) Flower colour in snapdragon
autosomal dominant trait? (4) Eye colour in Drosophila
(1) Myotonic dystrophy
Polygenic Inheritance
(2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Phenylketonuria 74. Which of the following statement is
(4) Colour blindness correct about polygenic inheritance ?
67. In a family father is colourblind and (1) In polygenic inheritance one gene
mother is homozygous normal. What will regulates the expression of many
be chances of colourblindness in son : characters
(1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 75% (4) 100% (2) Characters which are regulated by
polygenes are qualitative characters
68. In human ABO blood groups are
controlled by the gene I. Select the (3) Besides the involvement multiple
correct statement from following:- genes polygenic inheritance also
(1) The alleles IA and IB produce a same takes into account the influence of
kind of sugar. environment
(2) Humans are diploid organism, each (4) Human skin colour is an example of
person possesses three allele of qualitative character
gene I.
75. In case of polygenic inheritance, if a trait
(3) Allele IA and IB are incompletely
is controlled by three genes, then in F2
dominant over allele i.
(4) 4 phenotypes and 6 genotypes are generation what will be the number or
formed in case of ABO blood groups. dominant alleles in the organism that
obtained in maximum number-
69. In a dihybrid heterozygous plant, How (1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
many type and in what ratio the gametes
are produced? 76. Human skin colour is controlled by 3
(1) 4 types in the ratio of 9:3:3:1 genets then find out phenotype of A, D
(2) 2 types in the ratio of 3:1 and G in the following diagram
(3) 3 types in the ratio of 1:2:1
(4) 4 types in the ratio of 1:1:1:1 D
Individual

70. How many different kinds of gametes 20 E

B 15 15
will be produced by a plant having the
A
6 6 F
genotype aaBbcc?
(1) Four (2) Two 1 1 G
(3) Nine (4) Sixteen Human skin colour
71. How many type of gametes will be (1) A = light brown, D intermediate,
produced by a diploid organism which is G = white
heterozygous for 4 loci? (2) A = Negro black, D = intermediate,
(1) 4 (2) 8 G = white
(3) 16 (4) 32 (3) A = intermediate, D = black,
G = white
72. An opposite phenomenon of linkage is
(4) A = dark brown, D = light brown,
(1) Dominance (2) Segregation
G = very dark brown
(3) Co-dominance (4) Crossing over

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 61

77. When a red grain variety of wheat is Linkage & Sex Linkage
crossed with another white grain variety
a F1-hybrid is produced. On selfing of 82. Given diagram show morgan experiment

this F1-hybrid, how many offspring's of between body colour and eye colour,

F2-generation resemble phenotypically what will be true for this experiment :-

to it’s parents (let grain colour of wheat
controlled by three gene pairs) :
(1) 2/16 (2) 20/64
(3) 15/64 (4) 2/64

78. In a plant flower colour is the example

of quantitative trait and controlled by
one gene pair. How many plants show
parental phenotype in F2 generation :
2 2
(1) (2)
1 4
2 2
(3) (4)
6 25

79. The weight of fruit in a plant is

determined by the number of dominant
alleles of a certain number of genes. If
seven weight categories are noticed,
how many gene sites would be involved?
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five

80. In case of polygenic inheritance, if a trait

is controlled by three genes, then in F2
generation what will be the number of
dominant alleles in the organism that
obtained in maximum number:-
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 2 (1) The strength of linkage between y
and w is higher
81. A polygenic inheritance in human beings
(2) Crossing over between y and w
is
higher
(1) phenylketonuria
(3) The strength of linkage between y
(2) skin color
and w low
(3) color blindness
(4) Sickle cell anaemia (4) All the above

62 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

83. A man with normal vision whose father 86. Colour blindness is a recessive trait. Two
was colourblind marries with women people with normal vision have two
whose father was also colourblind. sons, one colourblind and one with
Suppose their first child is daughter normal vision. If the couple also has
then what are the chances of this child daughters, what proportion of them will
to be colourblind ? have normal vision :-
(1) 100% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 0% (1) 0 (2) 100%
(3) 50% (4) 25%
84. The experiment shown in the figure was
carried out by Morgan to show the 87. A normal female whose mother was
phenomenon of linkage & recombination. colourblind married with a normal man
If in Cross I, genes are tightly linked and his father was colourblind than find out
in Cross II, genes are loosely linked then percentage of their male child to be
what will be percentage of
affacted :-
recombinants produced in F from Cross
I and Cross II respectively ? (1) Zero (2) 50%
(3) 20% (4) 25%

88. In an experiment individual homozygous

for ab genes were crossed with wild type
(++). The F1 hybrid thus produced was
test crossed and progenies produced in
following ratio :-
++/ab → 548
ab/ab → 340
a+/ab → 44
+b/ab → 68
Calculate the distance between a and b
genes ?
(1) 11.2 map unit (cis)
(2) 11.2 map unit (trans)
(3) 22.4 map unit (cis)
(4) 22.4 map unit (trans)

89. Identify the incorrect statement

a. By 1902, the chromosome movement
during meiosis had been worked out.
b. Chromosome as well as genes occur
(1) 98.7% and 62.8% (2) 1.3% and 37.2% in pairs in a gamete.
(3) 37.2 and 1.3% (4) 62.8% and 98.7% c. The two alleles of a gene pair are
85. Genes A and b are present 24 cM far located on homologous sites on
from each other on same chromosome, homologus chromosome.
then a dihybrid plant will produce :-
d. Mendel’s work was widely published.
(1) 4 types of gamete is equal proportion.
(2) More Ab gametes as compare to AB e. Boveri united the knowledge and
gametes. chromosomal segregation with
(3) More aB gametes as compare Ab Mendelian principles.
gametes. (1) a, b & d (2) b, d & e
(4) Ab and ab gametes in equal
(3) a, c & d (4) a, b & e
proportion.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 63

90. How many of the given genetic disorders 95. Identify the given statements as true (T)
are sex-linked? or false (F).
A. Experimental verification of
Sickle cell anemia, Thalassemia,
chromosomal theory of inheritance
Colourblindness, Myotonic dystrophy, was done by using fruit flies.
Haemophilia, Phenylketonuria B. The two alleles of a gene pair are
(1) Four (2) Three located on homologous sites on
(3) Five (4) Two nonhomologous chromosomes.
C. The male flies of Drosophila are
smaller in size than female flies.
91. A B C
(1) T F T
(2) F F T
The percentage of above type of progeny (3) T F F
(4) T T T
in F2 generation of Morgan dihybrid cross
for eye colour and wing size obtained 96. Alfred Sturtevant
a. Studied recombination frequency
was
between gene pairs on the same
(1) 18.6% (2) 37.2%
chromosome
(3) 9.3% (4) 31.4% b. Measured distance between genes
present on the same chromosome
92. Morgan found ______________ of
c. Mapped gene position on the
nonparental type in F2 generation in
chromosome
Drosophila when he made a cross (1) Only a is incorrect
between white eyed and miniature (2) Both b & c are incorrect
winged female with wild red eyed (3) Only c is correct
normal winged male (4) All a, b & c are correct
(1) 98.7% (2) 62.8% 97. In a linear chromosome map, distance
(3) 1.3% (4) 37.2% between 4 loci as follows :-
a-b 10%, a-d 3%, b-c 4%, a-c 6%
93. How many of the given disorders can The cross over value between c and d is:
express equally in both males and (1) 3% (2) 9%
females? (3) 3% or 9% (4) 4% or 12%

Colourblindness, Mytonic dystropyhy, Cystic 98. Identify correct match from column I, II
and III.
fibrosis, Haemophilia, Thalassaemia
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(1) Three (2) Four
(1) Drosophila Females Completes life
(3) Two (4) One larger than cycle in two
males weeks
94. Choose the correct option
(2) Snapdragon Heterozygous Shows
(1) Starch grain size in pea - Incomplete plant with incomplete
dominance red flower dominance
(2) Drosophila - Alleles for red and (3) Mirabilis Cytoplasmic Mitochondrial
white eye colour - codominant inheritance gene controls
(3) Sickle cell anaemia - HbA HbS - colour of progeny
diseased phenotype (4) Honey bees females Males
produced by produced at
(4) Pea [Pisum sativum] - Pod colour -
parthenogene higher
Multiple alleles sis temperature

64 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

99. Given below is, the figure of Drosophila 102. A man and a woman, who do not show
melanogaster. any apparent signs of a certain inherited
disease, have seven children (2
daughters and 5 sons). Three of the sons
suffer from the given disease but none
of the daughters are affected. Which of
the following mode of inheritance do
you suggest for this disease
(1) Sex-limited recessive
It was found to be very suitable for (2) Autosomal dominant
experimental verification of (3) Sex-linked recessive
(4) Sex-linked dominant
chromosomal theory of inheritance by
Morgan, because. 103. A test cross of F1 flies +a/+b produced
(1) A single mating produces two young the following offspring
flies ++/ab = 9
(2) Smaller female is easily recognisable ab/ab = 9
from larger male +b/ab = 41
(3) It completes life cycle in about two a+/ab = 41
What will be distance between linked
weeks
gene :
(4) It reproduces parthenogenetically
(1) 82 cm (2) 18 cm (cis)
100. In a cross between individuals (3) 20 cm (4) 18 cm (trans)
homozygous for (a and b) and wild type 104. Depending upon the distance between
(++). In this cross 800 out of 1000 any two genes which is inversely
individuals were of parental type. Then proportional to the strength of linkage,
the distance between a and b :- cross overs will vary from :
(1) 70 map unit (2) 35 map unit (1) 50-100% (2) 0-50%
(3) 20 map unit (4) 15 map unit (3) 75-100% (4) 100-150%

105. Mendelian dihybrid and dihybrid with

101. A scientist performed the gene mapping
linkage are respectively related with
experiments in maize. He mapped the
how many chromosomes :
genes on chromosomes on the basis (1) 1 pair & 2 pair (2) 2 pair & 1 pair
of % crossing over between different genes. (3) 2 pair & 2 pair (4) 1 pair & 1 pair
One map unit corresponds to one % crossing
106. Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied,
over or recombination. The genes showing
white-eyed females to brown-bodied,
more than 50% recombination were not
red-eyed males and intercrossed their F1
supposed to be linked on same progeny. He observed that
chromosome. In crossing over studies on (a) F2 ratio was deviated very
maize, scientist observed the following % significantly from the 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
crossing over between genes A, B, C, D - ratio
between. A and D 10%, between A and C (b) Both genes did not segregate
3%, between genes C and D 7%, between independently of each other
genes A and B 5%, and between genes C (c) Recombinant types are not obtained
in F2 generation
and B 8%. On the basis of above observation
(d) Both genes segregate independently
find out the correct sequence of genes
of each other
A, B, C and D on chromosomes : Select the correct set of statements:
(1) BCDA (2) ABCD (1) (a) & (b) only (2) (b) & (c) only
(3) BACD (4) DACB (3) (b) & (d) only (4) (c) & (d) only

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 65

107. Consider the following statement 111. A normal woman whose father was
regarding linkage of genes : colour blind but mother was normal,
(a) Two genes are said to be linked marries a normal man. What percentage
when they show independent of female progeny will be colour blind?
assortment.
(1) 0% (2) 25%
(b) The strength of the linkage is
(3) 50% (4) 100%
determined by the distance
between the two genes. 112. How many types of gametes are possible
(c) The strength of the linkage is in PpQqRr if genes P and Q are tightly
directly proportional to the distance
linked?
between the two genes.
(1) Two (2) Four
In these statements :
(1) a, b and c are correct (3) Eight (4) One
(2) a and b are correct 113. Which of the following statement is
(3) a and c are correct
correct w.r.t. Haemophilia?
(4) Only b is correct
(1) Criss cross inheritance
108. In drosophilla, the gene for eye colour is (2) It is Y-linked dominant disease
present on the X-chromosome. When a (3) X-linked disease
red eyed female was mated with a white (4) Both (1) & (3)
eyed male, a total of 100 progeny were
obtained - 50 females & 50 males. Out 114. A.H. Strutevant suggested that
of the 50 females, 25 were red eyed and recombination frequencies are useful in
25 were white eyed. How many of the (1) Predicting the sequence of genes on
male progeny were red eyed ? chromosomes
(1) 0 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 25
(2) Introducing homozygosity
109. Represented below is the inheritance (3) Inducing transversions
pattern of a certain type of traits in (4) Inducing transitions
humans. Which one of the following
115. In maize chromosome number is 2n =
conditions could be an example of this
pattern? 20. The number of linkage groups in it
shall be :-
(1) 20 (2) 40
(3) 10 (4) 5

Sex Determination

116. State the given statements as true (T) or

false (F) and select the correct option.
A. Haplodiploid sex determination
(1) Haemophilia system is seen in honey bee.
(2) Thalassemia B. Drones do not have father but have
(3) Phenylketonuria grandfather.
(4) Sickle cell anaemia C. Males of honey bees are diploid with
110. Parallelism between charomosome and 8 chromosomes.
behaviour of gene was established by A B C
(1) de Vries, correns and Tschermark (1) T F F
(2) Sutton and Boveri (2) F T T
(3) Bateson and punnet (3) T T F
(4) Landsteiner and de Castello (4) F F T

66 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

117. Read the following statements and 122. XO type of sex determination is found
select the correct ones. in :-
a. In birds, females are heterogametic.
b. All the normal haploid ova produced (1) Grasshopper (2) Birds
by human females have same (3) Reptiles (4) Fishes
number of 'X' chromosomes.
c. Birds show ZO - ZZ type of sex 123. In ZZ - ZW types of chromosome, 'W'
determination.
d. Male Drosophila is homogametic. Chromosome determines
(1) a and b (2) band c (1) Maleness in birds
(3) c and d (4) d and a
(2) Femaleness in birds
118. Males and females are heterogametic in (3) Maleness in grasshopper
___(X)___ and ___(Y)___ respectively.
Select the correct option of X and Y. (4) Femaleness in grasshopper
(X) (Y)
(1) Drosophila Birds Human Genetics, Population Genetics &
(2) Birds Drosophila Genetic Disorders
(3) Human being Grasshopper
(4) Grasshopper Human being
124. A pedigree is shown below for a disease
119. Which condition describes the sex
that is autosomal dominant. The genetic
determination correctly?
(1) Male honeybee produces gamete by make up of the first generation is :
meiosis
(2) ZZ sex chromosomes determine
female bird sex
(3) XO sex chromosome determine male
sex in grasshopper
(4) Y-chromosome of Drosophila has
TDF gene
120. Read the following statements: (1) AA, Aa (2) Aa, AA
(i) In haplo-diploid sex-determination
system, the males do not have (3) Aa, aa (4) Aa, Aa
father and thus cannot have sons,
but have a grandfather and can 125. Given below is the pedigree of an
have grandsons autosomal dominant disorder-Myotonic
(ii) In honey bee, workers are
developed by the unfertilized egg by dystrophy :
means of parthenogenesis
(iii) In human skin colour, the effect of
each dominant allele is additive
(iv) In XO type of sex-determination,
male have half number of
chromosome than the female
Select the incorrect statement:
(1) i, iii (2) ii, iii (3) ii, iv (4) i, iv In this pedigree the genotype of all

121. Which of the following was discovered affected children will be :

by Henking? (1) AA
(1) Y-body
(2) Aa
(2) X-body
(3) Linkage (3) AA or Aa
(4) Genic-balance method (4) aa

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 67

126. Following are four modes of inheritance:
P - X-linked recessive
Q - X-linked dominant
R - Autosomal recessive
S - Autosomal dominant

Which of the above modes of

inheritance can explain the pedigree
shown below ?
(1) P and R (2) Q and R
(3) R and S (4) S only

68 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

 Exercise – III
1. Assertion (A): Inheritance is the basis of 5. Assertion (A): Genes are the units of
heredity. inheritance.
Reason (R): Inheritance is the process Reason (R): They contain the
by which characters are passed on from information that is required to express a
parent to progeny. particular trait in an organism.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
2. Assertion (A): During Mendel's 6. Assertion (A): Punnett square is a
investigation into inheritance patterns, it graphical representation to calculate the
was for the first time that statistical probability of all possible genotypes of
analysis & mathematical logics were offsprings in a genetic cross.
applied to the problems in biology. Reason (R): It was developed by a British
Reason (R): Mendel conducted geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
hybridization experiments on garden pea (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
for seven years & proposed laws of the correct explanation of the (A)
inheritance. (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
the correct explanation of the (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
not the correct explanation of the (A)
7. Assertion (A): Incomplete dominance
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
made it possible to distinguish
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
heterogyzous from homozygous.
3. Assertion (A): Mendel conducted Reason (R): In incomplete dominance
artificial pollination experiments using F1 had a phenotype that did not
several true-breeding pea lines. resemble either of the two parents and
Reason (R): Mendel selected 14 true- was in between the two.
breeding pea plant varieties. (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
the correct explanation of the (A) (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
not the correct explanation of the (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
8. Assertion (A): There are six different
4. Assertion (A): Mendel never supported combinations or genotypes of the
blending inheritance. human ABO blood types.
Reason (R): He found that the F1 always Reason (R): The gene (I) has three alleles
resembled either one of the parents. IA, IB and IO.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 69

9. Assertion (A): In co-dominance and 13. Assertion (A): In birds, the females have
incomplete dominance, the genotypic & one Z and one W chromosome, whereas
phenotypic ratios are same.
male have a pair of Z-chromosomes
Reason (R): In case of co-dominance
the F1 generation resembles both besides autosomes.
parents. Reason (R): In birds, sex of the
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is offsprings in decided by the
the correct explanation of the (A) temperature of surroundings when they
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
are released.
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
10. Assertion (A): Multiple alleles can be
found only when population studies are not the correct explanation of the (A)
made. (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Reason (R): Occasionally, a single gene
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
product may produce more than one
effect. 14. Assertion (A): Mutation results in
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
changes in the genotype and the
the correct explanation of the (A)
phenotype of an organism.
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) Reason (R): Mutation is a phenomenon,
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false which results in alternation of DNA
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false sequences.
11. Assertion (A): According to Mendel, a (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
dihybrid cross is the multiple of two the correct explanation of the (A)
monohybrid crosses. (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
Reason (R): When two pairs of traits are
not the correct explanation of the (A)
combined in a hybrid, segregation of one
pair of characters is independent of the (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
other pair of characters. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) 15. Assertion (A): In human genetics,
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is pedigree study provides a strong tool,
not the correct explanation of the (A) which is utilized to trace the inheritance
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false of a specific trait, abnormality or
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false disease.

12. Assertion (A): In grasshopper, some Reason (R): The controlled crosses that
of the sperms bear X-chromosome can be performed in pea plant or some
whereas some do not. other organisms, are not possible in case
Reason (R): Grasshopper is an example of human beings.
of XX-XY type of sex determination. (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
the correct explanation of the (A) (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

70 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

16. Assertion (A): symbol represents 20. Assertion (A): Trisomy or monosomy
situation leads to a very serious
normal parents with affected male child.
consequences in the individual.
Reason (R): It is a autosomal dominant
Reason (R): Down's syndrome is the
disorder.
trisomy of chromosome-21.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A)
the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false not the correct explanation of the (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
17. Assertion (A): An X-linked recessive trait
shows transmission from carrier male to 21. Assertion (A): In a person with AB-blood
female progeny. group, the erythrocytes carry both A and
Reason (R): X-linked recessive trait B antigen on their surface.
shows non-crisscross inheritance. Reason (R): The alleles IA and IB that
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is produce AB blood group are codominant
the correct explanation of the (A) and both are expressed.
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
not the correct explanation of the (A)
18. Assertion (A): In sickle cell anaemia, (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
the shape of RBC becomes elongated (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
sickle like from biconcave disc.
Reason (R): The mutant haemoglobin 22. Assertion (A): Male and female ratio is
molecule undergoes polymerization almost equal in this world.
under low oxygen tension causing the Reason (R): Male and female have XX and
change in shape. XY sex chromosome respectively.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
19. Assertion (A): Gynacomastia is
23. Assertion (A): Recessive characters are
observed in Turner's syndrome.
always pure.
Reason (R): Such a disorder is caused
Reason (R): Recessive genes always
due to the presence of extra copy of X-
express itself in homozygous condition.
chromosome.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 71

24. Assertion (A): For recessive autosomal 28. Assertion (A): Holandric traits are
disease both parents are normal and passed from one generation to the next
their first son is diseased. generation.
Reason (R): Both the parents are Reason (R): These traits appear more
heterozygous frequently in one sex than in other.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (1) If both A and R are true and R is the
the correct explanation of the (A) correct explanation of A
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not
not the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of A
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) If A is false, but R is true

25. Assertion (A): Mendel gave postulates 29. Assertion (A): Dominance is not an
li e “ rinci les of segregation and autonomous feature of a gene.
rinci les of inde endent assortment” Reason (R): It depends as much on the
after studying seven pairs of contrasting gene product and the production of a
traits in garden pea. particular phenotype from this product.
Reason (R): He was lucky in selecting (1) If both A and R are true and R is the
seven characters in pea that were correct explanation of A
located on seven different (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not
chromosomes.
the correct explanation of A
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (3) If A is true, but R is false
the correct explanation of the (A)
(4) If A is false, but R is true
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) 30. Assertion (A): The posssibility of a
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false female becoming a haemophilic is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false extremely rare.
Reason (R): Mother of such a female has
26. Assertion (A): Turner's syndrome to be carrier and father should be
generally does not occur in males.
haemophilic.
Reason (R): Foetus with 44 + YO
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the
complement generally dies.
correct explanation of A
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not
correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not
(3) If A is true, but R is false
the correct explanation of A
(4) If A is false, but R is true
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true 31. Assertion (A): The heterozygotic female
for haemophilia may transmit the
27. Assertion (A): Sickel cell anaemia occurs disease to sons.
due to the point mutation. Reason (R): Such traits show criss-cross
Reason (R): mRNA produced from Hb(s)
inheritance.
gene has GAG instead of GUG.
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true
(4) If A is false, but R is true

72 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

32. Assertion (A) : In drosophila white eyed 36. Assertion (A): Morgan's cross was
colour gene and yellow body colour conducted in Drosophila to locate genes
genes show only 1.3 percent on chromosome for eye colour.
recombination. Reason (R): The cross was done
between red eyed hybrid female and
Reason (R): White eyes colour gene and
white eyed male.
yellow body colour genes are very tightly
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the
linked genes. correct explanation of A
Choose the correct answer. (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not
(1) (A) is correct while (R) is incorrect. the correct explanation of A
(2) (A) is incorrect while (R) is correct. (3) If A is true, but R is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is (4) If A is false, but R is true
not the correct explanation of (A) 37. Assertion (A): XO type sex determination
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is found in large number of insects.
is the correct explanation of (A) Reason (R): Some of the sperms bear
the X-chromosome whereas some do
33. Assertion (A): Test cross is the tool for not.
knowing linkage between genes. (1) If both A and R are true and R is the
Reason (R): Monohybrid test cross gives correct explanation of A
two phenotypes and two genotypes. (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A (3) If A is true, but R is false
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not (4) If A is false, but R is true
the correct explanation of A 38. Match the column
(3) If A is true, but R is false Gene on
Traits
(4) If A is false, but R is true chromosome
(A) Colour of flower i 4
34. Assertion (A): Myotonic dystrophy is (B) Height of plant ii 1
caused by recessive mutant pleiotropic (C) Seed shape iii 5
gene. (D) Pod colour iv 7
Reason (R):Gene mutation is generally (1) A-ii,B-i,C-iv,D-iii
harmful. (2) A-ii,B-ii,C-iv,D-iii
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the (3) A-i,B-ii,C-iii,D-iv
correct explanation of A (4) A-ii,B-iii,C-i,D-iv
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not 39. Match the column
the correct explanation of A Law of Gene present on
(A) i
(3) If A is true, but R is false dominance same chromosomes
(4) If A is false, but R is true Law of
(B) ii Tt = Tall
segregation
35. Assertion (A): In snapdragon, F1 plants Law of Each gamete
do not have red or white flowers. (C) Independent iii carry one allele
Reason (R): It is intermediate assortment of gene
inheritance with neither of the two segregation of
alleles of a gene being dominant over one pair
each other. of characters is
(D) Linkage iv
independent of
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the
the other pair
correct explanation of A
of characters
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not (1) A-ii,B-i,C-iv,D-iii
the correct explanation of A (2) A-ii,B-iii,C-iv,D-i
(3) If A is true, but R is false (3) A-i,B-ii,C-iii,D-iv
(4) If A is false, but R is true (4) A-ii,B-iii,C-i,D-iv

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 73

40. Match the column 43. Match the column for symptom and
Experimental disease
Scientist
organism Symptom Disease
(A) Correns i Drosophila
(A) 8 % of males i Haemophilia
(B) Mendel ii Pisum sativum and only about
Human 0.4 % of female
(C) A. Garrod iii (B) One of cascade ii Sickle cell
genetics
proteins anaemia
(D) Morgan iv Mirabilis jalapa involved in the
(1) A-ii,B-i,C-iv,D-iii clotting of
(2) A-ii,B-iii,C-iv,D-i blood
is affected
(3) A-iv,B-ii,C-iii,D-i
(C) substitution of iii Phenylketonuria
(4) A-ii,B-iii,C-i,D-iv Glutamic acid
by valine
41. Match the column
(D) mental iv Colour blindness
Progeny traits in retardation
% progeny
drosophila (1) A-iv,B-i,C-ii,D-iii
Brown Body red (2) A-ii,B-iii,C-iv,D-i
(A) eye Yellow body i 62.8 % (3) A-iii,B-iv,C-ii,D-i
white eye (4) A-i,B-ii,C-iii,D-iv

Brown body white 44. State True (T) and False (F) and select
(B) eye Yellow body ii 37.2 % the correct option.
red eye A: To determine the genotype of a tall
Large wings red plant at F1 generation, Mendel
(C) eye Miniature iii 98.7 % crossed that plant with a
wings white eye homozygous tall plant.
B: In test cross, an organism showing a
Large wings white
dominant phenotype is crossed with
(D) eye Miniature iv 1.3 %
the recessive parent.
wings red eye
A B
(1) A-ii,B-i,C-iv,D-iii
(1) T T
(2) A-ii,B-iii,C-iv,D-i (2) F F
(3) A-iv,B-ii,C-i,D-i (3) F T
(4) A-iii,B-iv,C-i,D-ii (4) T F

42. AABB x aabb, in this cross polygenic 45. Read the statements (A-B) and select
interaction show variety of fruit weight the correct option.
when AABB=20gm and aabb=10 gm Statement (A): A true breeding line is
Genoptype Fruit weight (g) one that, having undergone continuous
self-pollination.
(A) AABb i 10
Statement (B): Mendel proposed the
(B) AABB ii 12.5
laws of inheritance in living organisms.
(C) Aabb iii 17.5 (1) Only statement (A) is correct
(D) aabb iv 20 (2) Only statement (B) is correct
(1) A-i,B-ii,C-iv,D-iii (3) Both statements (A) and (B) are
(2) A-ii,B-iii,C-iv,D-i correct
(3) A-iii,B-iv,C-ii,D-i (4) Both statements (A) and (B) are
(4) A-i,B-ii,C-iii,D-iv incorrect

74 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

46. Consider the following statements : 49. Given below is a schematic
Statement I :A single gene product may representation of sex determination in
produce more than one effect. honey bee
Statement II : In the case of co-
dominance, the F1 generation did not
resemble either of the two parents.
(1) Both statement – I and Statement – Identify A and B in the given schematic
II are correct. chart.
(2) Statement – I is incorrect while (1) A-With fertilization B-Male
statement – II is correct. (2) A-Fertilisation B-Female
(3) Statement – I is correct while (3) A-Without fertilization B-Female
statement–II is incorrect. (4) A-Without fertilization B-Male
(4) Statement – I and Statement – II
both are incorrect. 50. Match the sex determination given in
column I with those in column II and
47. Given below is the diagrammatic select the correct option given below :-
representation of crosses performed by
Carl Correns in Mirabilis Jalapa for Column I Column II
branch colour inheritance. a. Male i. Fertilised eff
heterogamety develops as a
female and
unfertilized egg
develops as male
b. Female ii. Males produce
heterogamety two different type
of gametes (a)
Select the correct option for these three either with or
circle :- without X-
Column-I Column-II Column-III chromosomes or
(Outer circle) (Middle circle) (Inner circle) (b) some gametes
(1) Female Offsprings Male with X-
(2) Male Female Offsprings chromosomes or
(3) Offsprings Female Male Y-chromosomes
(4) Offsprings Male Female c. Haploid- iii. Male have a pair
diploid of Z-
mechanisms chromosomes
besides the
48. has sex chromosome
autosomes
whereas the
females have one
Z and one W-
(1) (2)
chromosomes

a b c
(1) ii i iii
(3) (4) (2) ii iii i
(3) iii ii i
(4) iii i ii

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 75

51. Inheritance of a trait is shown in given 54. Which of the following inheritance is
pedigree chart. possible in given pedigree ?

Find out the trait whose inheritance is

probably expressed by the pedigree.
(1) Myotonic dystrophy (1) X-linked dominant

(2) Huntington chorea (2) X–linked recessive

(3) Sickle cell anaemia (3) Autosomal recessive

(4) Autosomal dominant
(4) Colourblindness
55. Pedigree give below represent which
52. Study the pedigree chart given below :-
type of inheritance :-

What does it show :-

(1) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked
disease like haemophilia
(2) Inheritance of a sex-lined inborn
error of metabolism like
phenylketonuria (1) Y-linked
(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Inheritance of a condition like
(3) Sex limited
phenylketonuria as an autosomal
(4) Sex linked Recessive
recessive trait
(4) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is 56. Predict from the following chart:-
not possible

53. Study the given pedigree chart and

choose the correct option.

(1) Character is sex linked recessive

(2) Character is autosomal recessive
only
(1) Genotype of (I) cannot be Aa (3) Character is recessive and may be x
(2) (a) shows genotype 'aa' linked or autosomal
(3) Trait can be autosomal recessive (4) Character is holandric & carried by Y
(4) The trait is sex linked chromosome

76 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

57. Study the pedigree chart given below. 61. Study the pedigree chart given below :-
What does it show?

(1) Both the parents are homozygous What does it show ?

(2) The trait under study could be (1) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked
phenylketonuria disease like haemophilia
(3) Inheritance of Daltonism (2) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn
(4) It shows criss–cross inheritance error of metabolism like
phenylketonuria
58. The given pedigree represents
inheritance of (3) Inheritance of a condition like
phenylketonuria as an autosomal
recessive trait
(4) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is
not possible

62. Given pedigree show the inheritance of

(1) Autosomal recessive disorder which of the following disease :-
(2) Y-linked disorder
(3) X-linked dominant disorder
(4) X-linked recessive disorder
59. How many of the given disorders can be
studied by pedigree chart?

(1) Colour blindness

(2) Albinism
(1) Five (2) Six (3) Eight (4) Four
(3) Myotonic dystrophy
60. A and B are pedigree analysis of 2 (4) Pseudoricketes
diseases. Select the correct
statement :- 63. There are two alleles X1 & X2 out of which
one X1 has nil abundance in a population
then the abundance of second allele X2
is :-
(A) (1) 1.00 (2) 0.50
(3) 0.40 (4) 0.25

(B)

(1) A - Autosomal dominant trait

B - Autosomal recessive trait
(2) A - Y linked trait
B - X linked trait
(3) A - Autosomal recessive trait
B - X linked dominant trait
(4) A - Autosomal recessive trait
B - Autosomal dominant trait

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 77

 Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)
[NEET-UG -2013] [AIIMS-2013]
1. If two persons with 'AB' blood group
6. In a given pedigree there is a inheritance
marry and have sufficiently large
of certain character of two families,
number of children. these children could
which of the following option is correct
be classified as 'A' blood group: 'AB'
blood group 'B' blood group in for the inheritance of that character ?
1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of
protein electrophoresis reveals
presence of both 'A' and 'B' type proteins
in 'AB' blood group individuals. This is an
example of :
(1) Complete dominance
(2) Codominance
(3) Incomplete dominance
(4) Partial dominance
(1) Family A has three daughters & two
2. Which Mendelism idea is depicted by a sons
cross which the F generation resembles (2) Family A has three sons & two
1

both parents? daughters

(1) Co-dominance (3) Family A has homozygous parents
(2) Incomplete dominance (4) Family A has Y-linked disorder.
(3) Law of dominance
(4) Inheritance of one gene [AIPMT-2014]

3. Which of the following statements is not 7. Fruit colour in squash is an example of:
true of genes that show 50% (1) Recessive epistasis
recombination frequency ? (2) Dominant epistasis
(1) If the genes are present on the (3) Complementary genes
same chromosome. they undergo (4) Inhibitory genes
more than I crossovers in every
meiosis 8. A man whose father was colour blind
(2) The genes may be on different marries a woman who had a colour blind
chromosome mother and normal father. What
(3) The genes are tightly linked percentage of male children of this
(4) The genes show independent couple will be colour blind ?
assortment (1) 25% (2) 0% (3) 50% (4) 75%
4. The incorrect statement with regard to
9. In a population of 1000 individuals 360
Haemophilia is :
belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and
(1) A single protein involved in the
the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this
clotting of blood is affected
data, the frequency of allele A in the
(2) It is a sex-linked disease
(3) It is a recessive disease population is :
(4) It is a dominant disease (1) 0.4 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.7

5. If both parents are carriers for [AIPMT-2015]

thalassemia. which is an autosomal 10. A man with blood group 'A' marries a
recessive disorder, what are the chances woman with blood group 'B'. What are all
of pregnancy resulting in an affected the possible blood groups of their
child ? offsprings ?
(1) 100% (2) No chance (1) A,B and AB only (2) A,B,AB and O
(3) 50% (4) 25% (3) O only (4) A and B only

78 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

11. How many pairs of contrasting 19. In his classic experiments on pea plants,
characters in pea plants were studied by Mendel did not use :
Mendel in his experiments ? (1) Flower position (2) Seed colour
(1) Six (2) Eight (3) Pod length (4) Seed shape
(3) Seven (4) Five
20. A gene showing codominance has :
12. Multiple alleles are present : (1) Both alleles independently
(1) At different loci on the same expressed in the heterozygote
chromosome (2) One allele dominant on the other
(2) At the same locus of the (3) Alleles tightly linked on the same
chromosome
chromosome
(3) On non-sister chromatids
(4) Alleles that are recessive to each
(4) On different chromosomes
other
13. Which is the most common mechanism
21. In the following human pedigree. the
of genetic variation in the population of
filled symbols represent the affected
sexually reproducing organism ?
individuals. Identify the type :
(1) Chromosomal aberrations
(2) Genetic drift
(3) Recombination
(4) Transduction

14. Alleles are :

(1) True breeding homozygotes
(2) Different molecular forms of a gene (1) X-linked dominant
(3) Heterozygotes (2) Autosomal dominant
(4) Different phenotype (3) X-linked recessive
15. A population will not exist in Hardy - (4) Autosomal recessive
Weinberg equilibrium if : [AIIMS-2015]
(1) There are no mutations 22. In cells of superfemale with 47
(2) There is no migration chromosomes (44 + XXX) visible barr
(3) The population is large bodies are :
(4) Individuals mate selectively (1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 3
[Re-AIPMT-2015] 23. Male cat is either black or orange
16. A colour blind man marries a woman because of :
with normal sight who has no history of (1) Hemizygous - x
colour blindness in her family. What is
(2) Heterozygous - x
the probability of their grandson (son's
(3) Heterozygous - y
son) being colour blind ?
(4) Hemizygous - y
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.5
24. There will be no Barr body in female
(3) 1 (4) Nil
suffering from :
17. The term "linkage" was coined by : (1) Turner syndrome
(1) W. Sutton (2) T.H. Morgan (2) Klinefelter syndrome
(3) T. Boveri (4) G. Mendel (3) Down syndrome
(4) Haemophilia
18. A pleiotropic gene :
(1) Controls multiple traits in an 25. Grey is dominant (G) over black (g).
individual Which of the following will most
(2) Is expressed only in primitive plants probably give 50% black and 50% grey
(3) Is a gene evolved during Pliocene offspring ?
(4) Controls a trait only in combination (1) GG x gg (3) GG x Gg
with another gene (2) Gg x gg (4) gg x gg

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 79

26. Haemophilic gene does not transfer 30. Pick out the correct statements :
from : (a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked
(1) Haemophilic father to son recessive disease
(2) Haemophilic mother to son (b) own’s syndrome is due to
(3) Haemophilic father to daughter aneuploidy
(4) Haemophilic mother to son & (c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
daughter
recessive gene disorder
[NEET-I-2016] (d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked
recessive gene disorder
27. Which of the following most
appropriately describes haemophilia ? (1) (a) and (d) are correct
(1) Recessive gene disorder (2) (b) and (d) are correct
(2) X-linked recessive gene disorder (3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(3) Chromosomal disorder (4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(4) Dominant gene disorder
31. In a test cross involving F dihybrid
1
28. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is
flies, more parental-type offspring were
crossed with a dwarf true breeding
produced than the recombinant -type
garden pea plant. When the F plants
1 offspring. This indicates :
were selfed the resulting genotypes (1) The two genes are located on two
were in the ratio of : different chromosomes
(1) 1 : 2 : 1 (Tall homozygous : Tall
(2) Chromosomes failed to separate
heterozygous : Dwarf)
during meiosis
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 (Tall heterozygous : Tall
(3) The two genes are linked and
homozygous : Dwarf)
present on the same chromosome
(3) 3 : 1 (Tall : Dwarf)
(4) 3 : 1 (Dwarf : Tall) (4) Both of the characters are
controlled by more than one gene
29. Match the terms in Column I with their
NEET-II-2016
description in Column II and choose the
32. A true breeding plant is :
correct option.
(1) Produced due to cross-pollination
Column I Column II among unrelated plants
(a) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a (2) Near homozygous and produces
single character
offspring of its own plants
(b) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous
(3) Always homozygous recessive in its
organism Only one
allele expresses itself genetic constitution
(c) Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous (4) One that is able to breed on its own
organism Both alleles
express themselves 33. If a colour-blind man marries a woman
fully who is homozygous for normal colour
(d) Polygenic (iv) A single gene vision, the probability of their son being
influences colour-blind is :
inheritance of many (1) 0.5 (2) 0.75 (3) 1 (4) 0
character
34. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) -(iv), (d) - (iii)
frequency of heterozygous individual is
(2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
represented by :
(3) (a) - (iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d) - (iii) 2 2
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) (1) 2pq (2) pq (3) q (4) p

80 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

 [NEET-2017] 40. Which of the following characteristics
represent 'inheritance of blood groups'
35. Which one from those given below is the in humans ?
period for Mendel's hyrbridization a. Dominance
experiments ? b. Co-dominance
(1) 1856- 1863 (2) 1840 - 1850 c. Multiple allele
d. Incomplete dominance
(3) 1857-1869 (4) 1870- 1877
e. Polygenic inheritance
(1) a, c and e (2) a, b and c
36. Among the following characters, which
(3) b, d and e (4) a, c and e
one was not considered by Mendel in his
41. A woman has an X-linked condition on
experiments on pea ?
one of her X chromosomes. This
(1) Stem - Tall or Dwarf chromosome can be inherited by:-
(2) Trichomes - Glandular or non- (1) Only daughters
glandular (2) Only sons
(3) Seed-Green or Yellow (3) Only grandchildren
(4) Both sons & daughters
(4) Pod-Inflated or Constricted
[NEET-2019]
37. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife 42. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted
A B A in the construction of genetic maps?
are I I and I i. :
(1) A unit of distance between two
Among the blood types of their children, expressed genes, representing 10%
how many different genotypes and cross over
phenotypes are possible ? (2) A unit of distance between two
(1) 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes expressed genes, representing 100%
cross over
(2) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(3) A unit of distance between genes
(3) 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes on chromosomes, representing 1%
(4) 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes cross over
(4) A unit of distance between genes
[NEET-2018] on chromosomes, representing 50%
38. Select the correct statement cross over
(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term 43. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the
"linkage". frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4
(2) Punnett square was developed by a then what will be the frequency of
homozygous dominant, heterozygous
British scientist.
and homozygous recessive individuals in
(3) Spliceosomes take part in the population?
translation (1) 0.36 (AA) ; 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa)
(4) Transduction was discovered by S. (2) 0.16 (AA) ; 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
Altman. (3) 0.16 (AA) ; 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
(4) 0.16 (AA) ; 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)
39. Which of the following pairs in wrongly 44. The frequency of recombination
matched? between gene pairs on the same
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple chromosome as a measure of the
alleles distance between genes was explained
by:-
(2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(1) T.H. Morgan
(3) XO type sex determination : (2) Gregor J. Mendel
Grasshopper (3) Alfred Sturtevant
(4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage (4) Sutton Boveri

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 81

45. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
flower was crossed with a white flower (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
and in F1 generation, pink flowers were 48. In a marriage between male with blood
obtained. When pink flowers were group A and female with blood group B,
selfed, the F2 generation showed white, the progeny had either blood group AB
red and pink flowers. Choose the or B. What could be the possible
incorrect statement from the following:- genotype of parents?
(1) This experiment does not follow the (1) IAi (Male) : IBIB (Female)
principle of Dominance (2) IAiA (Male) : IBIB (Female)
(2) Pink colour in F1 is due to (3) IAiA (Male) : IBI (Female)
incomplete dominance. (4) IAi (Male) : IBI (Female)
1 2
(3) Ratio of F2 is (Red) : (Pink): 49. The production of gametes by the
4 4
parents, the formation of zygotes, the F1
1
(White) and F2 plants, can be understood using:-
4
(1) Pie diagram
(4) Law of segregation does not apply
(2) A pyramid diagram
in this experiment.
(3) Punnet square
46. Select the incorrect statement (4) Benn diagram
(1) Male fruit fly is heterogametic.
[NEET-2020]
(2) In male grasshoppers, 50% of
50. Experimental verification of the
sperms have no sex-chromosome.
chromosomal theory of inheritance was
(3) In domesticated flows sex of
done by:-
progeny depends on the type of
(1) Morgan (2) Mendel
sperm rather than egg.
(4) Human males have one of their sex- (3) Sutton (4) Boveri
chromosome much shorter than the 51. Select the correct match.
other. (1) Thalassemia -X linked
[NEET-2019 (Odisha)] (2) Haemophilia -Y linked
47. Match the items of column I with (3) Phenylketouria – Autosomal dominant
column II: trait
Column-I Column-II (4) Sickle cell anaemia -Autosomal
(a) XX-XO method (i) Turner's recessive trait, chromosome-11
of sex syndrome 52. Identify the wrong statement with
determination reference to the gene 'I' that controls
(b) XX-XY method (ii) Female ABO blood groups.
of sex heterogametic (1) Allele 'I' does not produce any sugar
determination (2) The gene (I) has three alleles
(c) Karyotype-45 (iii) Grasshopper (3) A person will have only two of the
(d) ZW-Z method (iv) Female three alleles.
of sex homogametic (4) When IA and IB are present together,
determination they express same type of sugar.
Select the correct option from the
following:- 53. How many true breeding pea plant
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii varieties did Mendel select as pairs,
(2) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii which were similar except in one
character with contrasting traits?

82 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

 (1) 8 (2) 4 (1) Drosophila (2) Birds
(3) 2 (4) 14 (3) Grasshoppers (4) Monkeys
[NEET-2020 (COVID-19)]
60. Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
54. The number of contrasting characters
Mendel studied seven pairs of
studied by Mendel for his experiments contrasting traits in pea plants and
was:- proposed the Laws of Inheritance
(1) 14 (2) 4 Statement II:
Seven characters examined by Mendel in
(3) 2 (4) 7
his experiment on pea plants were seed
shape and colour, flower colour, pod
55. The best example for pleiotropy is:-
shape and colour, flower position and
(1) Skin colour stem height
(2) Phenylketoneuria In the light of the above statement,
choose the correct answer from the
(3) Colour Blindness
option given below:
(4) ABO Blood group (1) Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct
56. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II
proposed by are incorrect
(1) Sutton and Boveri (3) Statement I is correct but
Statement II is incorrect
(2) Bateson and Punnet
(4) Statement I is incorrect but
(3) T.H. Morgan Statement II is correct
(4) Watson and Crick
61. Given below are two statements : one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
[NEET-2021]
is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :
57. The production of gametes by the
Mendel’s law of Independent
parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and assortment does not good for the genes
F2 plants, can be understood from a that are located closely on the same
diagram called:- chromosome.
Reason (R):
(1) Buller square (2) Punch square
Closely located genes assort
(3) Punnett square (4) Net square independently.
In the light of the above statements,
58. In a cross between a male and female, choose the correct answer from the
both heterozygous for sickle cell options given below:
anaemia gene, what percentage of the (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
progeny will be diseased
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
(1) 50% (2) 75% is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) 25% (4) 100% (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
[NEET-2022]
62. Which of the following occurs due to the
presence of autosome linked dominant
59. XO type of sex determination can be
trait ?
found in: (1) Sickle cell anaemia

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 83

 (2) Myotonic dystrophy (3) 47 chromosomes with XYY sex
(3) Haemophilia chromosomes
(4) Thalessemia (4) Trisomy of chromosome 21
63. If a colour blind female marries a man 67. What is the expected percentage of F2
whose mother was also colour blind, progeny with yellow and inflated pod in
what are the chances of her progeny dihybrid cross experiment involving pea
having colour blindness ? plants with green coloured, inflated pod
(1) 25% (2) 50% and yellow coloured constricted pod ?
(3) 75% (4) 100% (1) 100% (2) 56.25%
(3) 18.75 % (4) 9%
[NEET-2022]
(RE-EXAMINATION) 68. Select the incorrect match regarding the
symbols used in Pedigree analysis:
64. Given below are two statements : (1) - Sex unspecified
Statement I :
Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia are
(2) - Affected individual
autosomal dominant traits .
Statement II :
(3) - Consanguineous mating
Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia are
disorders of the blood.
In the light of the above statements, (4) - Parent with male child
choose the correct answer from the
options given below : affected with disease
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II
69. A normal girl, whose mother is
are correct
haemophilic marries a male with no
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II ancestral history of haemophilia. What
are incorrect will be the possible phenotypes of the
(3) Statement I is correct but offsprings ?
Statement II is incorrect (a) Haemophilic son and haemophilic
(4) Statement I is incorrect but daughter.
Statement II is correct (b) Haemophilic son and carrier
daughter.
65. The chromosomal theory of inheritance
(c) Normal daughter and normal son.
was proposed by :
(d) Normal son and haemophilic
(1) Thomas Morgan
daughter.
(2) Sutton and Boveri
Choose the most appropriate answer
(3) Gregor Mendel from the options given below :
(4) Robert Brown (1) (a) and (b) only (2)
66. If a female individual is with small round (b) and (c) only
head, furrowed tongue, partially open (3) (a) and (d) only
(4) (b) and (d) only
mouth and broad palm with
characteristic palm crease. Also the [NEET-2023]
physical, psychomotor and mental
70. The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers
development is retarded. The karyotype
to
analysis of such an individual will show :
(1) presence of several alleles of a single
(1) 47 chromosomes with XXY sex gene controlling a single crossover.
chromosomes (2) presence of two alleles, each of the
(2) 45 chromosomes with XO sex two genes controlling a single trait.
chromosomes (3) a single gene affecting multiple

84 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

 phenotypic expression 73. A heterozygous pea plant with violet
(4) more than two genes affecting a flowers was crossed with homozygous
single character. pea plant with white flower. Violet is
71. Frequency of recombination between dominant over white. Which one of the
following represents the expected
gene pairs on same chromosome as a
combinations among 40 progenies
measure of the distance between genes formed?
to map their position on chromosome, (1) 30 produced violet and 10 produced
white flowers
was used for the first time by
(2) 20 produced violet and 20 produced
(1) Thomas Hunt Morgan white flowers
(2) Sutton and Boveri (3) All 40 produced violet flowers
(3) Alfred Sturtevant (4) All 40 produced white flowers

(4) Henking 74. In which disorder change of single base

pair in the gene for beta globin chain
[NEET-2023] (MANIPUR) results in change of glutamic acid to
valine?
72. Match List-I with List-II (1) Thalassemia
List-I List-II (2) Sickle cell anemia
(Type of cross) (Phenotypic ratio) (3) Haemophilia
(A) Monohybrid (I) 1:1 (4) Phenylketonuria
Cross 75. A certain plant homozygous for yellow
(B) Dihybrid Cross (II) 1 : 2 : 1 seeds and red flowers was crossed with
a plant homozygous for green seeds and
(C) Incomplete (III) 3 : 1
white flowers. The F1 plants had yellow
dominance
seeds and pink flowers. The F1 plants
(D) Test Cross (IV) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 were selfed to get F2 progeny. Assuming
Choose the correct answer from the independent assortment of the two
options given below: characters, how many phenotypic
(1) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) categories are expected for these
characters in the F2 generation?
(2) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I)
(1) 9 (2) 16
(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I) (3) 4 (4) 6
(4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 85

 ANSWER KEY

Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Exercise - I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 4 2 4 4 2 1 2 4 3 2 1 2 3 1 4 1 3 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 3 2 3 2 2 4 1 4 3 4 4 1 3 2 4 4 2 4 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 3 1 2 2 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 2 4 1 4 2 2 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 4 1 2 1 4 3 3 3 3 3 4 2 4 2 2 4 3 2 2 2
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 3 1 1 4 4 2 3 2 4 1 3 3 4 3 3 3 4 4 4
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 3 3 1 3 4 1
Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 3 2 4 4 3 3 3 1 3 3 3 1 2 1 1 2 3 4 2 4
Que. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 1 3 2 1 1 4 2 1 3 3 2 2 1 4 1 4 4 2 2 2
Que. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 4 1 1 2 2 4 3 2 4 4 2 1 2 3 4 4 1 4 4 3
Que. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197
Ans. 1 2 3 3 3 1 1 1 4 1 3 1 1 4 2 4 4

Exercise - II

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 3 1 2 2 1 2 3 3 2 4 3 2 3 4 4 4 4 3 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 4 4 4 1 3 1 1 3 2 4 1 3 3 3 2 3 1 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 1 4 3 3 3 1 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 2 3 2 4 2 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 4 2 2 4 1 1 1 4 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 2 4 2 2 3
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 2 1 4 2 2 2 2 1 2 4 1 4 1 1 1 4 3 1 3 3
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 3 3 4 2 2 1 4 4 1 2 1 3 4 1 3 3 1 1 3 3
Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126
Ans. 2 1 2 3 2 3

86 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

 Exercise - III

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 1 3 3 1 1 3 4 1 4 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 1 1 1 4 2 4 1 3 2 1 2 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 3 1 3 3 3 4 3 4 2 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 3 1 1
Que. 61 62 63
Ans. 3 3 1

Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 1 3 4 4 1 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 4 4 2 1 3 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 3 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 4 3 2 4 1 1 2 3 2 1 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 3 3 3 4 3 3 1 3 1 4 4 4 4 2 1 3 3 3 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 3 2 4 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 3 1 2 2 4

Principles of Inheritance and Variation 87

 2 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
The Mendelian View of the World
At the time of Mendel, the nature of those ‘factors’ regulating the pattern of inheritance was not
clear. Over the next hundred years, the nature of the putative genetic material was investigated
culminating in the realization that DNA–deoxyribonucleic acid–is the genetic material, at least for
most organisms (except some RNA viruses). Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA)
are the two types of nucleic acids found in living systems. DNA acts as the genetic material in most
of the organisms. RNA though it also acts as a genetic material in some viruses (like Retroviruses), it
mostly functions as a messenger(mRNA). RNA has additional roles as well. It functions as
adapter(tRNA), structural(rRNA) and in some cases as a catalytic molecule (Ribozyme).
In This Chapter We Are Going To learn
1. Structure of DNA (the most interesting molecule in the living system)
2. Replication Of DNA
3. Transcription (the process of making RNA from DNA)
4. The Genetic Code (it determines the sequence of amino acids in proteins)
5. Translation (the process of protein synthesis)
6. Gene Expression Regulation (elementary basis)
7. Human Genome Sequencing
8. DNA Fingerprinting

Let us begin our discussion by first understanding the structure of the most interesting molecule in
the living system, that is, the DNA. In subsequent sections, we will understand that why it is the
most abundant genetic material, and what its relationship is with RNA.

Nucleic Acids
F. Meischer (1869) discovered DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus of pus cell and he
called this phosphorus-containing substance as "Nuclein".
Altman found it to be acidic in nature (as like Meischer) and called it nucleic Acid.
There are two types of nucleic acids-DNA (Deoxy-ribonucleic acid) and RNA (Ribonucleic acid)
Nucleic acids are polymer of nucleotides (the building blocks of nucleic acids).
A nucleotide has three components---a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar, and a phosphate group.

Components Of Nucleotides
Pentose Sugar Nitrogenous Bases Phosphate Group
Ribose 1. Adenine (A)
(RNA Sugar) Purines 2. Guanine (G)
1. Cytosine (C) Common in RNA and DNA
Deoxy-ribose Pyrimidines
2. Uracil (U)
(DNA Sugar)
3. Thymine (T)
DNA RNA
Adenine Adenine
Guanine Guanine
Cytosine Cytosine
Thymine Uracil
• Adenine, Guanine and Cytosine are common to both DNA and RNA.
• Thymine is present in DNA.
• Uracil is present in RNA in place of Thymine (5-methyl uracil).

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 1

(1) Nitrogen Bases (Heterocyclic Compounds)
Based on structure, nitrogen bases are broadly of two types: -
(A) Pyrimidines: It consists of one pyrimidine ring. Skeleton of ring composed of two nitrogen and
four carbon atoms. e.g., Cytosine, Thymine, and uracil.
NH2 O O
CH3
N 4 5 HN HN
3
2 6
1
O N O N O N
H H H
Cytosine Uracil (in RNA) Thymine (in DNA)
(demethylated thymine) (5-methyl uracil)
(B) Purines: It consists of two rings i.e., one pyrimidine ring (2N + 4C) and one imidazole ring (2N +
3C) e.g., Adenine and Guanine.
NH2 O
N N
N1 6 5 7 HN
8
2 9
3 4
N N H2N N N
H H
Adenine Guanine
(2) Pentose Sugar:
5 5
HOCH2 O OH HOCH2 O OH
4 1 4 1
H H H H
H 3 2 H H 3 H 2

OH OH OH H
Ribose (in RNA) Deoxy ribose (in DNA)

(3) Phosphate: O
• Acidic
HO — P — OH
• Negatively charged
OH
• Makes DNA acidic in nature and negatively charged.
Types of Nucleosides and Nucleotides:
Nucleosides and Nucleotides of RNA
Nitrogenous Base Ribonucleoside Ribonucleotide (5’ monophosphate)
(A) Adenine Adenosine (AMP) Adenosine Monophosphate
(G) Guanine Guanosine (GMP) Guanosine Monophosphate
(U) Uracil Uridine (UMP) Uridine Monophosphate
(C) Cytosine Cytidine (CMP) Cytidine Monophosphate

Nucleosides and Nucleotides of DNA

Nitrogenous Base Deoxy –ribonucleoside Deoxy-ribonucleotide (5’ monophosphate)
(A) Adenine Deoxy-adenosine (dAMP) Deoxy-adenosine Monophosphate
(G) Guanine Deoxy-guanosine (dGMP) Deoxy-guanosine Monophosphate
(T) Thymine (5- methyl uracil) Deoxy-thymidine (dTMP) Deoxy-thymidine Monophosphate
(C) Cytosine Deoxy-cytidine (dCMP) Deoxy-cytidine Monophosphate

2 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

 The DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid):
• DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides. The length of DNA is usually defined
as number of nucleotides (or a pair of nucleotides referred to as base pairs) present
in it. This also is the characteristic of an organism. For example

Organism Type of DNA Genome size

Φ × 174 Bacteriophage ss DNA, Circular 5386 Nucleotides/Bases
Lambda Bacteriophage ds DNA, Linear 48502 base pairs
Escherichia coli ds DNA, Circular 4.6 × 109 bp
Human Genome (haploid content ds DNA, Linear 3.3 × 109 bp
of DNA)

STRUCTURE OF POLYNUCLEOTIDE CHAIN

Let us recapitulate the chemical structure of a polynucleotide chain (DNA or RNA). A
nucleotide has three components- a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar (ribose in
case of RNA, and deoxyribose for DNA), and a phosphate group. There are two types

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 3

 of nitrogenous bases – Purines (Adenine and Guanine), and Pyrimidines (Cytosine,
Uracil and Thymine). Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA and Thymine is
present in DNA. Uracil is present in RNA at the place of Thymine.

Nitrogen bases forms N-glycosidic linkage with first carbon (1’ C) OH of pentose
sugar, it results a nucleoside.
First Nitrogen(N1) of Pyrimidine forms N-glycosidic linkage with first carbon (1’ C) of pentose
sugar while ninth nitrogen(N9) of Purine forms N-glycosidic linkage with first carbon (1’ C) of
pentose sugar.

When Phosphate group is linked to OH of 5’ C of a nucleoside then it forms phosphoester

linkage and a corresponding nucleotide (or deoxynucleotide depending upon the type of sugar
present) is formed. Two nucleotides are linked through 3’ → 5’ phosphodiester linkage to form
a dinucleotide. More nucleotides can be joined in such a manner to form a polynucleotide
chain. A polymer thus formed has at one end a free phosphate moiety at 5' -end of sugar,
which is referred to as 5’-end of polynucleotide chain. Similarly, at the other end of the
polymer the sugar has a free OH of 3'C group which is referred to as 3' -end of the
polynucleotide chain. The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is formed due to sugar and
phosphates. The nitrogenous bases linked to sugar moiety project from the backbone.

In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional –OH group present at 2' -position in the
ribose. Also, in RNA the uracil is found at the place of thymine (5-methyl uracil, another
chemical name for thymine).
Chargaff's Equivalency Rule – Based on Chemical Analysis
1. In all cellular DNAs (Double stranded) amount of purine nucleotides is equals to amount of
pyrimidine nucleotides.
2. Sum of the purine residues (A+G) equals the sum of the pyrimidine residues (T+C).
 A  + G
[A] + [G] = [T] + [C], or =1
 T  + C 

3. Concentration of thymine is always equals to concentration of adenine and the concentration

of cytosine is always equals to the concentration of guanine.
4. The base composition of DNA generally varies from one species to another.
5. DNA specimens isolated from different tissues of the same species have the same base
composition.
6. The base composition of DNA in a given species does not change with an organism’s age,
nutritional state or changing environment.
7. Deoxyribose sugar and phosphate occur in equimolar proportions.
A+T
8. Base ratio = = constant for a given species. i.e., species specific.
G+C
A+T
9. Base ratio is specific for a species. It is used to identify the species. It is less than one
G+C
in prokaryotes, e.g., E. coli = 0.92 and more than one in eukaryotes, e.g., Humans = 1.52.
10. In a DNA if A + T > G + C  then it is called AT type DNA. Base ratio of AT type of DNA is
more than one. e.g., Eukaryotic DNA
11. In a DNA if G + C > A + T  then it is called GC type DNA. Base ratio of GC type of DNA is
less than one. e.g., Prokaryotic DNA

4 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

 DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified by Friedrich Meischer in
1869. He called this phosphorus-containing substance as ‘Nuclein.’ However, due to technical
limitation in isolating such a long polymer intact, the elucidation of structure of DNA remained
elusive for a very long period. It was only in 1953 that James Watson and Francis Crick, based
on the X-ray diffraction data produced by Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin, proposed a
very simple but famous Double Helix model for the structure of DNA. One of the hallmarks of
their proposition was base pairing between the two strands of polynucleotide chains.
However, this proposition was also based on the observation of Erwin Chargaff that for a
double stranded DNA, the ratios between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine are
A G
constant and equals one. = 1, = 1.
T C
The base pairing confers a unique property to the polynucleotide chains. They are said to be
complementary to each other, if sequence of bases in one strand is known then the sequence
in another strand can be predicted. Also, if each strand from a parental DNA act as a
template for synthesis of a new daughter strand, the two double stranded daughter DNA thus,
produced would be identical to parental DNA molecule. Because of this, the genetic
implications of the structure of DNA become very clear.
Watson and Crick (1953) proposed a double helix model for DNA. For this model
Watson, Crick and Wilkins were awarded by Noble Prize in 1962.

The salient features of the double helix structure of DNA are as follows

• It is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted

by sugar-phosphate, and the bases project inside.

• The two chains have anti-parallel polarity. It means, if one chain has polarity

5’→3’, the other has 3’→5’.

• The bases in two strands are paired through H-bonds forming base pairs(bp).
Adenine forms two H-bonds with Thymine from opposite strand and vice-versa.
Similarly, Guanine is bonded with Cytosine with three H-bonds. As a result, always a
purine comes opposite to a pyrimidine. This generates approximately uniform
distance between the two strands of the helix.

• The two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion. The pitch of the helix is 3.4nm
(one billionth of a meter, that is 10-9 m) and there are roughly 10 bp in each turn.
Consequently, the distance between adjacent base pairs in a DNA helix is
approximately 0.34 nm.

• The plane of one base pair stack over the other in double helix. This, in
addition to H-bonds, confers stability of the helical structure.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 5

 • Palindromic DNA- A palindrome is a DNA sequence that reads the same on each strand
of DNA when the strand is read in the 5' to 3' direction. It consists of adjacent inverted
repeats.

6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

 G AAT T C
C T T AA G
Temperature of Melting (Tm)
The temperature at which half of the hydrogen bonds in DNA breaks is known as melting
temperature. Melting point of DNA depends on GC contents. More GC contents means more
melting point.
Tm of prokaryotic DNA > Tm of Eukaryotic DNA
• Denaturation and Renaturation of DNA - If a normal DNA molecule is placed at high
temperature (80-90°C) then both strands of DNA will separate from each other due to
breaking of hydrogen bonds. It is called DNA-denaturation/melting.
When denatured DNA molecule is placed at normal temperature then both strand of DNA
attached and recoiled to each other. It is called renaturation/annealing of DNA.

Central Dogma of Molecular Biology

By-Francis Crick
By the fall of 1953, the working hypothesis was adopted that chromosomal DNA functions as
the template for RNA molecules, which subsequently move to the cytoplasm, where they
determine the arrangement of amino acids within proteins.
The DNA in genome of any organism contains all the necessary information to make all proteins
of body.
The proposition of a double helix structure for DNA and its simplicity in explaining the genetic
implication became revolutionary. Very soon Francis Crick (1956) proposed the central dogma
in molecular biology, which states unidirectional flow of genetic information from DNA-RNA-
Protein

Transcription Translation
DNA mRNA Protein

• Here the arrows indicate the directions proposed for the transfer of genetic information.
• The arrow encircling DNA signifies that DNA is the template for its self-replication.
• The arrow between DNA and RNA indicates that RNA synthesis (called transcription) is
directed by a DNA template.
• Synthesis of proteins (called translation) is directed by an RNA template.
Replication-DNA dependent DNA synthesis.
Transcription-DNA dependent RNA synthesis.
Translation-RNA dependent protein synthesis.
In some viruses (Retroviruses e.g. HIV) the flow of genetic information is in reverse direction
that is from RNA to DNA, called as reverse transcription/Teminism

Transcription Translation
DNA mRNA Protein
Reverse
Transcription

Reverse Transcription- RNA dependent DNA synthesis.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 7

 Concept Builder

1. The chemical nature of the mendelian factor, is.

(1) Protein (2) RNA (3) DNA (4) Polysaccharide

2. Which among the following acts as genetic material for most of living organisms.
(1) DNA (2) RNA (3) Protein (4) Lipid

3. RNA can act as genetic material in.

(1) Bacteria (2) Protista (3) Most of viruses (4) Some of viruses

4. RNA mostly functions as.

(1) messenger RNA (2) genetic RNA (3) adapter RNA (4) catalytic RNA

5. Which of the following is a polymer of nucleotides ?

(1) RNA (2) DNA (3) Protein (4) Both 1 and 2

6. The Nuclein is
(1) Acidic substance (2) Phosphorus containing substance
(3) DNA (4) More than one option is correct

7. Nucleic acids are.

(1) Polymer of Nucleosides (2) Monomer of Nucleotides
(3) Polymer of Nucleotides (4) Polymer of Nitrogen bases

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Ans. 3 1 4 1 4 4 3

Packaging of DNA Helix:

Taken the distance between two consecutive base pairs as 0.34 nm (0.34×10 –9 m), if the length of
DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell (2n Human Cell) is calculated (simply by multiplying
the total number of bp with distance between two consecutive bp, that is,
(6.6 × 109 bp × 0.34 × 10-9 m/bp), it comes out to be approximately 2.2 metres. A length that is far
greater than the dimension of a typical nucleus (approximately 10 –6 m). If the length of E.coli DNA
is 1.36mm then it has 4.6×106 bps.
In prokaryotes, such as, E. coli, though they do not have a defined nucleus, the DNA is not
scattered throughout the cell. DNA (being negatively charged) is held with some proteins called as
polyamines (that have positive charges) in a region termed as ‘nucleoid’. The DNA in nucleoid is
organized in large loops held by proteins.

In eukaryotes, this organisation is much more complex. There is a set of positively charged, basic
proteins called histones. A protein acquires charge depending upon the abundance of amino acids
residues with charged side chains. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues lysines and
arginines. Both the amino acid residues carry positive charges in their side chains. There are five
types of histone proteins i.e. H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. Histones are organised to form a unit of eight
molecules called histone octamer. (two copies of each H2A, H2B, H3 and H4).

8 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

 Fig.: Electron micrograph of the beads-on-a-string model of chromatin. (b) DNA linkers wound
between the nucleosomes)
The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to
form a structure called nucleosome. DNA present between two adjacent nucleosome is called
linker DNA. A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix. Nucleosomes constitute the
repeating unit of a structure in nucleus called chromatin, thread-like stained (coloured)
bodies seen in nucleus. The nucleosomes in chromatin are seen as ‘beads-on-string’
structure when viewed under electron microscope (EM).
Theoretically, how many such beads (nucleosomes) do you imagine are present in a
mammalian cell?
The ‘beads-on-string’ structure in chromatin is packaged to form chromatin fibre. Chromatin
fibers are further coiled and condensed at metaphase stage of cell division to form
chromosomes.
The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires additional set of proteins that collectively are
referred to as Non-histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins. In a typical nucleus, some regions of
chromatin are loosely packed (and stains light) and are referred to as euchromatin. The
chromatin that is more densely packed (and stains dark) are called as Heterochromatin.
Euchromatin is said to be transcriptionally active chromatin, whereas heterochromatin is inactive.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 9

 Various steps in the folding and super folding of basic chromatin components
to generate an eukaryotic chromosome

The Search for Genetic Material

Even though the discovery of nuclein by Meischer and the proposition for principles of inheritance by
Mendel were almost at the same time, but that the DNA acts as a genetic material took long to be
discovered and proven. By 1926, the quest to determine the mechanism for genetic inheritance had
reached the molecular level. Previous discoveries by Gregor Mendel, Walter Sutton, Thomas Hunt
Morgan, and numerous other scientists had narrowed the search to the chromosomes located in the
nucleus of most cells. But the question of what molecule was actually the genetic material, had not
been answered.

Transforming Principle:
In 1928, Frederick Griffith, in a series of experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae (bacterium
responsible for pneumonia), witnessed a miraculous transformation in the bacteria. During the course
of his experiment, a living organism (bacteria) had changed in physical form.
When Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) bacteria are grown on a culture plate, some
produce smooth shiny colonies (S) while others produce rough colonies (R). This is because the S
strain bacteria have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat, while R strain does not. Mice infected with the
S strain (virulent) die from pneumonia infection but mice infected with the R strain do not develop
pneumonia.
S strain → Inject into mice → Mice die
R strain → Inject into mice → Mice live

10
10 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Griffith was able to kill bacteria by heating them. He observed that heat-killed S strain bacteria
injected into mice did not kill them. When he injected a mixture of heat-killed S and live R bacteria,
the mice died. Moreover, he recovered living S bacteria from the dead mice.
S strain → Inject into mice → Mice live
(heat-killed)

S strain
(heat-killed)
+ → Inject into mice → Mice die
R strain
(live)

Live smooth pneumococci (with capsule) plus live rough

pneumococci (without capsule) isolated from dead mouse
Fig.: Griffth’s experiment with pneumococcal infections in mice

He concluded that the R strain bacteria had somehow been transformed by the heat-killed S strain
bacteria. Some ‘transforming principle’, transferred from the heat-killed S strain, had enabled the R
strain to synthesise a smooth polysaccharide coat and become virulent. This must be due to the
transfer of the genetic material. However, the biochemical nature of genetic material was not defined
from his experiments.

Biochemical Characterisation of Transforming Principle:

Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty (1933-44), the genetic
material was thought to be a protein. They worked to determine the biochemical nature of
‘transforming principle’ in Griffith's experiment.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 11

They purified biochemicals (proteins, DNA, RNA, etc.) from the heat-killed S cells to see which ones
could transform live R cells into S cells. They discovered that DNA alone from S bacteria caused R
bacteria to become transformed.
They also discovered that protein-digesting enzymes (proteases) and RNA-digesting enzymes
(RNases) did not affect transformation, so the transforming substance was not a protein or RNA.
Digestion with DNase did inhibit transformation, suggesting that the DNA caused the transformation.
They concluded that DNA is the hereditary material, but not all biologists were convinced.
Can you think of any difference between DNAs and DNase?
DNA is nucleic acid and DNase is an enzyme to digest it.

Experiment of Avery et. al. to prove that DNA is transforming principle

The Genetic Material is DNA – Hershey and Chase Experiment (1952)

The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of Alfred Hershey
and Martha Chase (1952). They worked with viruses that infect bacteria called bacteriophages.
The bacteriophage attaches to the bacteria and its genetic material then enters the bacterial cell.
The bacterial cell treats the viral genetic material as if it was its own and subsequently manufactures
more virus particles. Hershey and Chase worked to discover whether it was protein or DNA from the
viruses that entered the bacteria.
They grew some viruses on a medium that contained radioactive phosphorus (P 32) and some others
on medium that contained radioactive sulphur (S35). Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive
phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but not radioactive protein because DNA contains phosphorus
but protein does not. Similarly, viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained radioactive protein
but not radioactive DNA because DNA does not contain sulphur.

After labelling, three steps were followed.

(i) Infection: Radioactive phages were allowed
to attach to E.coli bacteria and its genetic
material then enters the bacterial cell.
(ii) Blending: Then, as the infection proceeded,
the viral coats were removed from the
bacteria by agitating them in a blender. It is
used to break the contact between virus
and bacteria.
(iii) Centrifugation: The virus particles were
separated from the bacteria by spinning
them in a centrifuge.

12
12 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 Bacteria which was infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA were radioactive, indicating
that DNA was the material that passed from the virus to the bacteria. Bacteria that were infected
with viruses that had radioactive proteins were not radioactive. This indicates that proteins did
not enter the bacteria from the viruses. DNA is therefore the genetic material that is passed from
virus to bacteria.
Properties of Genetic Material (DNA versus RNA)
From the foregoing discussion, it is clear that the debate between proteins versus DNA as the genetic
material was unequivocally resolved from Hershey-Chase experiment. It became an established fact
that it is DNA that acts as genetic material. However, it subsequently became clear that in some
viruses, RNA is the genetic material (for example, Tobacco Mosaic viruses, QB bacteriophage, etc.).
Answer to some of the questions such as, why DNA is the predominant genetic material, whereas
RNA performs dynamic functions of messenger and adapter has to be found from the differences
between chemical structures of the two nucleic acid molecules.
Can you recall the two chemical differences between DNA and RNA?
Chemical differences between DNA and RNA
DNA RNA
1. 2’H group present (de-oxygenated 1. 2’OH group present in Ribose sugar—it
condition) in deoxy-ribose sugar— it makes it more reactive hence
makes it less reactive and provides becomes unstable.
more stability.
2. Presence of Thymine (5-methyl Uracil) 2. Presence of Uracil makes RNA
instead of Uracil provides more unstable.
stability.
3. DNA mostly exist in anti-parallel 3. RNA mostly exist in single stranded
double stranded manner which provide form, it decreases stability.
stability.
4. Bases A, G, C, T 4. Bases A, G, C, U
5. Chargaff Rule is applicable for double 5. Chargaff’s Rule is not applicable for
stranded DNA only. RNA whether it is double stranded or
single stranded.

A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfil the following criteria:
(i) It should be able to generate its replica (Replication).
(ii) It should be stable chemically and structurally.
(iii) It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for evolution.
(iv) It should be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian Characters’.
(v) It should be able for expression and transmission of characters from one generation to next
generation like mendelian factor.
• If one examines each requirement one by one, because of rule of base pairing and
complementarity, both the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) have the ability to direct their
duplications. The other molecules in the living system, such as proteins fail to fulfil first
criteria itself.
• The genetic material should be stable enough not to change with different stages of life cycle,
age or with change in physiology of the organism. Stability as one of the properties of genetic
material was very evident in Griffith’s ‘transforming principle’ itself that heat, which killed the
bacteria, at least did not destroy some of the properties of genetic material. This now can
easily be explained in light of the DNA that the two strands being complementary if separated
by heating come together, when appropriate conditions are provided. Further, 2'-OH group

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 13

 present at every nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group and makes RNA labile and easily
degradable. RNA is also now known to be catalytic, hence reactive. Therefore, DNA chemically
is less reactive and structurally more stable when compared to RNA. Therefore, among the
two nucleic acids, the DNA is a better genetic material.
• In fact, the presence of thymine at the place of uracil also confers additional stability to DNA.
(For better understanding of this we need to understand process of DNA repair w.r.t.
deamination of cytosine but it is beyond the scope of our study).
• Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate. In fact, RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate.
Consequently, viruses having RNA genome and having shorter life span mutate and evolve
faster.
• RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins, hence can easily express the characters.
DNA, however, is dependent on RNA for synthesis of proteins. The protein synthesising
machinery has evolved around RNA.
• The above discussion indicates that both RNA and DNA can function as genetic material, but
DNA being more stable is preferred for storage of genetic information. For the transmission of
genetic information, RNA is better.

Concept Builder
1. Packaging of DNA in prokaryotes require.
(1) Acidic Protein (2) Lipids (3) Histone Protein (4) Polyamines

2. Which among the following acts as packaging material for eukaryotic DNA.
(1) Histone Proteins (2) NHC Proteins (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Polyamines

3. On average, _______ of DNA are present in a nucleosome.

(1) 500bp (2) 200bp (3) 100bp (4) 50bp

4. if length of E. coli DNA is 1.36mm, then the number of base pairs in E. coli?
(1) 3.3×109 (2) 4.0×106 (3) 6.4×106 (4) 6.6×109

5. In prokaryotes, though they do not have well defined nucleus, the DNA is throughout
the cell.
(1) not scattered (2) Scattered
(3) not packaged (4) not found in cytoplasm

6. In eukaryotes positively charged, basic proteins used for packaging of DNA are called.
(1) Polyamines (2) NHC Proteins (3) Histone Proteins (4) Tubulin Proteins

7. Histones are rich in basic amino acid residues, called as: -

(1) Arginine (2) Glycine
(3) Lysine (4) More than one option is correct

8. Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in nucleus, called?

(1) Polynucleosome (2) Chromatin
(3) Spindle fibres (4) Histone Octamer

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 4 3 2 2 1 3 4 2

14
14 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Replication of DNA
While proposing the double helical structure for DNA, Watson and Crick had immediately
proposed a scheme for Replication of DNA. To quote their original statement that is as follows.
“It has not escaped our notice that the specific pairing we have postulated immediately suggests
a possible copying mechanism for the genetic material” (Watson and Crick,1953)
The scheme suggested that the two strands would separate and act as template for the
synthesis of new complementary strands. After the completion of replication, each DNA molecule
would have one parental and one newly synthesised strand. This scheme was termed as
semiconservative DNA replication.

The Experimental Proof

It is now proven that DNA replicates semi conservatively. It was shown first in Escherichia coli
and subsequently in the higher organisms, such as plant and human cells.

Semi conservative mode of DNA replication was experimentally proved by Meselson & Stahl (1958)
in prokaryotes like Escherichia coli, and Taylor at all (1958) in eukaryotes like roots of Vicia faba.
To prove this method Meselson and Stahl used non-radioactive heavy isotope (N15), and Taylor et
all used radiotracer technique in which radioisotopes (tritiated thymidine = H 3) were used.

Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl performed the following experiment in 1958:
(i) They grew E. coli in a medium containing 15NH4Cl (15N is the heavy isotope of nitrogen) as the only
nitrogen source for many generations. The result was that N was incorporated into newly
15

synthesized DNA (as well as other nitrogen containing compounds). This heavy DNA molecule
could be distinguished from the normal DNA by centrifugation in a cesium chloride (CsCl) density
gradient (Please note that N is not a radioactive isotope, and it can be separated from 14N only
15

based on densities).
(ii) Then they transferred the cells into a medium with normal 14
NH4Cl and took samples at various
definite time intervals as the cells multiplied, and extracted the DNA that remained as double-
stranded helicles. The various samples were separated independently on CsCl gradients to
measure the densities of DNA.
(iii) Thus, the DNA that was extracted from the culture one generation after the transfer from N to
15

14N medium [that is after 20 minutes; E. coli divides in 20 minutes] had a hybrid or intermediate
density. DNA extracted from the culture after another generation [that is after 40 minutes, II
generation] was composed of equal amounts of this hybrid DNA and of ‘light’ DNA.

Q. If E. coli was allowed to grow for 80 minutes, then what would be the proportions of light
and hybrid densities DNA molecule?
A. Two could be hybrids and fourteen could be light.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 15

The results are shown in following figure

Very similar experiments involving use of radioactive thymidine to detect distribution of newly
synthesised DNA in the chromosomes was performed on Vicia faba (fava beans) by Taylor and
colleagues in 1958. The experiments proved that the DNA in chromosomes also replicate semi
conservatively.
The Machinery and Enzymes of DNA Replication:
In living cells, such as E. coli, the process of replication requires a set of catalysts (enzymes). The
main enzyme is referred to as DNA-dependent DNA polymerase (as it reads DNA and writes DNA).
Since it uses a DNA template to catalyse the polymerisation of deoxynucleotides These enzymes
are highly efficient enzymes as they have to catalyse polymerisation of a large number of
nucleotides in a very short time. E. coli that has only 4.6 ×10 6 bp (compare it with human whose
diploid content is 6.6 × 109 bp), completes the process of replication within 18 minutes; that
means the average rate of polymerisation has to be approximately 2000 bp per second. Not only
do these polymerases have to be fast, but they also have to catalyse the reaction with high
degree of accuracy. Any mistake during replication would result into mutations. Furthermore,
energetically replication is a very expensive process. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs)
serve dual purposes. In addition to acting as substrates, they provide energy for polymerisation
reaction (the two terminal phosphates in a deoxynucleoside triphosphates are high-energy
phosphates, same as in case of ATP).
In addition to DNA-dependent DNA polymerases, many additional enzymes are required to
complete the process of replication with high degree of accuracy. For long DNA molecules, since
the two strands of DNA cannot be separated in its entire length (due to very high energy
requirement), the replication occur within a small opening of the DNA helix, referred to as
replication fork. The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only in one
direction, that is 5'→3'. This creates some additional complications at the replicating fork.
Consequently, on one strand (the template with polarity 3'→5'), the replication is continuous,
while on the other (the template with polarity 5'→3'), it is discontinuous. Hence DNA replication is
also called as semi-discontinuous. The discontinuously synthesised fragments (called as Okazaki
fragments) are later joined by the enzyme DNA ligase with use of ATP.
The DNA polymerases on their own cannot initiate the process of replication. Also, the replication
does not initiate randomly at any place in DNA. There is a definite region in E. coli DNA where the
replication originates. Such regions are termed as origin of replication (Ori-C). It is because of the
requirement of the origin of replication that a piece of DNA if needed to be propagated during
recombinant DNA procedures, requires a vector (like Plasmids). The vectors provide the origin of
replication
Further, not every detail of replication is understood well. In eukaryotes, the replication of DNA
takes place at S-phase of the cell-cycle. Eukaryotic DNA has many Ori-C. The replication of DNA
and cell division cycle should be highly coordinated. A failure in cell division after DNA replication
results into polyploidy (a chromosomal anomaly).

16
16 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 Concept Builder
1. While proposing the double helical structure for DNA, Watson and Crick had immediately
proposed a scheme for
(1) DNA replication (2) Mutation (3) Genetic Code (4) Reverse Transcription
2. The scheme of DNA replication is-
(1) Conservative (2) Semi-conservative
(3) Semi-discontinuous (4) Both 2 and 3
3. Heavy DNA molecule can be distinguished from the normal DNA molecule by
(1) Centrifugation (2) Radioactivity (3) Blending (4) Labelling
4. In 15NH4Cl, 15N is the heavy isotope of nitrogen and it is
(1) Radioactive (2) Non-radioactive
(3) Slowly Sedimenting (4) Non-sedementing
5. Density of DNA can be measured by
(1) CsCl density gradient Centrifugation
(2) Southern blotting
(3) X-ray crystallography
(4) Autoradiography
6. An enzyme which catalyse polymerization of deoxynucleotides, is.
(1) RNA polymerase (2) DNA polymerase (3) Transferase (4) Catalase
7. The E. coli that has only 4.6×106 bp completes the process of replication within
(1) 18 minutes (2) 20 minutes
(3) 60 minutes (4) 50 minutes
8. Energetically replication is a
(1) Exergonic process (2) Very economic process
(3) Very expensive process (4) Energy releasing process

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 1 4 1 2 1 2 1 3

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 17

RNA World
From foregoing discussion, an immediate question becomes evident which is the first genetic
material? It shall be discussed in detail in the chapter on chemical evolution, but briefly, we shall
highlight some of the facts and points.
RNA was the first genetic material. There is now enough evidence to suggest that essential life
processes (such as metabolism, translation, splicing, etc.), evolved around RNA. RNA used to act as a
genetic material as well as a catalyst (there are some important biochemical reactions in living
systems that are catalysed by RNA catalysts and not by protein enzymes). But, RNA being a catalyst
was reactive and hence unstable. Therefore, DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications
that make it more stable. DNA being double stranded and having complementary strand further
resists changes by evolving a process of repair.
Transcription
The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as
transcription. Here also, the principle of complementarity governs the process of transcription,
except the adenosine complements now forms base pair with uracil instead of thymine.
However, unlike in the process of replication, which once set in, the total DNA of an organism
gets duplicated, in transcription only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied
into RNA. This necessitates defining the boundaries that would demarcate the region and the
strand of DNA that would be transcribed.
Why both the strands are not copied during transcription has the simple answer. First, if both
strands act as a template, they would code for RNA molecule with different sequences (Remember
complementarity does not mean identical), and in turn, if they code for proteins, the sequence of
amino acids in the proteins would be different. Hence, one segment of the DNA would be coding for
two different proteins, and this would complicate the genetic information transfer machinery.
Second, the two RNA molecules if produced simultaneously would be complementary to each other,
hence would form a double stranded RNA. This would prevent RNA from being translated into protein
and the exercise of transcription would become a futile one
Transcription is, chemically and enzymatically, very similar to DNA replication. Both involve
enzymes that synthesize a new strand of nucleic acid complementary to a DNA template
strand. There are some important differences, of course; most notably, in the case of
transcription, the new strand is made from ribonucleotides rather than deoxyribonucleotides.

Transcription Unit:
A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in the DNA:
(i) A Promoter
(ii) The Structural gene
(iii) A Terminator
There is a convention in defining the two strands of the DNA in the structural gene of a
transcription unit. Since the two strands have opposite polarity and the DNA-dependent
RNA polymerase also catalyse the polymerisation in only one direction, that is,
5' → 3' , the strand that has the polarity ( 3'→ 5') acts as a template, and is also
referred to as template strand. The other strand which has the polarity (5' → 3')
and the sequence same as RNA (except thymine at the place of uracil), is displaced
during transcription. Strangely, this strand (which does not code for anything) is
referred to as coding strand. All the reference point while defining a transcription
unit is made with coding strand.

18
18 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 To explain the point, a hypothetical sequence from a transcription unit is represented below:
3' -ATGC-ATGC-ATGC-ATGC-ATGC-ATGC-5' Template DNA Strand
5' -TACG-TACG-TACG-TACG-TACG-TACG-3' Coding DNA Strand
Can you now write the sequence of RNA transcribed from the above DNA?
Answer- 5' -UACG-UACG-UACG-UACG-UACG-UACG-3' RNA Strand

Promoter-A promoter is the DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase
(together with sigma initiation factor) to initiate transcription.
Gene- It is a segment of DNA which codes for RNA through transcription.
Structural Gene- Specific region in transcription unit which undergo transcription to form
single mRNA (tRNA or rRNA may also be formed)
Coding Strand- DNA strand with 5’→3’ polarity which directly does not participate in
transcription. It is also called as sense strand/ non-template strand.
Template Strand- DNA strand with 3’→5’ polarity which directly participates in transcription. It
provides template for synthesis of complementary RNA. It is also called as anti-sense
strand/non-coding strand.
RNA Transcript (RNA)- it is product of transcription; it is complementary to template strand and
similar to coding strand (except uracil in place of thymine).

Transcription start site

Promoter Terminator
Structural gene Template strand
3' 5'

5' 3'
Coding strand

The promoter and terminator flank the structural gene in a transcription unit. The
promoter is said to be located towards 5'-end (upstream) of the structural gene (the
reference is made with respect to the polarity of coding strand). It is a DNA sequence
that provides binding site for RNA polymerase, and it is the presence of a promoter in
a transcription unit that also defines the template and coding strands. By switching
its position with terminator, the definition of coding and template strands could be
reversed. The terminator is located towards 3'-end (downstream) of the coding
strand and it usually defines the end of the process of transcription.

There are additional regulatory sequences that may be present further upstream or
downstream to the promoter. These sequences provide site for binding of transcription
factors. Some of the properties of these sequences shall be discussed while dealing with
regulation of gene expression.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 19

Transcription Unit and The Gene
A gene is defined as the functional unit of inheritance. Though there is no ambiguity that
the genes are located on the DNA, it is difficult to literally define a gene in terms of DNA
sequence. The DNA sequence coding for tRNA or rRNA molecule also define a gene.
However, by defining a cistron as a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide, the
structural gene in a transcription unit could be said as monocistronic (mostly in
eukaryotes) or polycistronic (mostly in bacteria or prokaryotes).

Monocistronic Structural Gene—It codes for only one type of polypeptide

chain through single mRNA transcription.
Polycistronic Structural Gene—It codes for more than one type of
polypeptide chains through single mRNA transcription.

The split-gene arrangement further complicates the definition of a gene in terms of a DNA
segment.
Inheritance of a character is also affected by promoter and regulatory sequences of a
structural gene (eg Thalassemia). Hence, sometime the regulatory sequences are loosely
defined as regulatory genes, even though these sequences do not code for any RNA or
protein.
Types Of RNA and Process of Transcription
In bacteria, there are three major types of RNAs:
1. mRNA (messenger RNA),
2. tRNA (transfer RNA), and
3. rRNA (ribosomal RNA).
All three RNAs are needed to synthesise a protein in a cell. The mRNA provides the template,
tRNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic code, and rRNAs play structural and catalytic role
during translation.
There is single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription of all types of RNA
in bacteria.

The Bacterial RNA Polymerase enzyme is made up of five different polypeptides

called as core enzyme, when it binds with sigma factor σ (initiation factor) then it
called as Holoenzyme. It is the Holoenzyme which binds with promoter.

1. Initiation
RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription. It uses ribonucleoside
triphosphates (rNTPs) as substrate and energy source and polymerises in a template
dependent fashion following the rule of complementarity. It somehow also facilitates opening
of the helix (The base pairs are disrupted, producing a “transcription bubble”). Only a short
stretch of RNA remains bound to the enzyme.
RNA Polymerase associates transiently with initiation-factor (σ) to initiate the transcription.
Association with this factor alter the specificity of the RNA polymerase to initiate
transcription at fix location.

20
20 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 2. Elongation
RNA Polymerase somehow facilitates opening of the helix and continues elongation. It is only
capable of catalysing the process of elongation as a core enzyme. It adds ribonucleotides
one by one following complementary base pairing rule until terminator region is encountered.
3. Termination
Once the RNA polymerases reach the terminator region, the nascent RNA falls off, so also
the RNA polymerase. This results in termination of transcription.

An intriguing question is that how is the RNA polymerases able to catalyse all
the three steps, which are initiation, elongation, and termination. The RNA
polymerase is only capable of catalysing the process of elongation. It
associates transiently with initiation-factor (σ) and termination-factor (ρ) to
initiate and terminate the transcription, respectively. Association with these
factors alter the specificity of the RNA polymerase to either initiate or
terminate

In Bacteria, since the mRNA does not require any processing to become
active, and also since transcription and translation take place in the
same compartment (there is no separation of cytosol and nucleus in
bacteria), many times the translation can begin much before the mRNA is
fully transcribed. Consequently, the transcription and translation can be
coupled in bacteria

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 21

 Transcription In Eukaryotes
In eukaryotes transcription takes place in nucleus of the cell and produced RNA further need
processing. Basic process is same as prokaryotes. In eukaryotes, there are two additional
complexities in transcription
1. There are at least three RNA polymerases in the nucleus (in addition to the RNA polymerase
found in the organelles) of eukaryotes. There is a clear-cut division of labour.
RNA Polymerases Types Of RNA Synthesized
RNA Polymerase-I 5.8s rRNA, 18s rRNA, 28s rRNA
RNA Polymerase-II hnRNA (heterogeneous nuclear RNA), the precursor of mRNA.
RNA Polymerase-III 5s rRNA, tRNA, snRNA (small nuclear RNA)

2. The second complexity is that the primary transcripts/pre-mRNA (hnRNA) contain both the
exons and the introns and are non-functional.
The coding sequences are called exons and the intervening sequences are called introns.
Such genes are called as split genes. Once transcribed into an RNA transcript, the introns
must be removed and the exons joined together to create the mRNA for that gene. In fact,
technically, the term exon applies to any region retained in a mature mRNA.

Post-Transcriptional Processing of hnRNA.

In eukaryotes, primary transcript contains both the exons and the introns and are non-
functional. Hence, it is subjected to a process called splicing where the introns are removed
and exons are joined in a defined order. hnRNA undergoes additional processing called as
capping and tailing.
1. Capping
In capping an unusual nucleotide (7-methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5'-end of
hnRNA during transcription in template independent manner by an enzyme guanyl transferase.
Cap is essential to prevent hnRNA from nuclease attack.

2. Tailing
In tailing, adenylate residues (200-300) are added at 3'-end in a template independent
manner with the help of Poly adenylate Polymerase. It also prevents from nucleases.

3. Splicing
It is the process of removal of introns and joining of exons. Introns are removed by snRNA
(ribonuclease enzyme) and some proteins called snurps (small nuclear ribonucleoproteins).
This complex with some other proteins is called spliceosome and it removes introns by
endonuclease activity using ATP. Further fragments of exons are joined by RNA ligase enzyme
also using ATP.
It is the fully processed hnRNA, now called mRNA, that is transported out of the nucleus for
translation.

The significance of such complexities is now beginning to be understood. The split-gene

arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome. The presence of introns
is reminiscent of antiquity, and the process of splicing represents the dominance of RNA-
world. In recent times, the understanding of RNA and RNA-dependent processes in the living
system have assumed more importance.

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22 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Ribo Nucleic Acid (RNA)
RNA Molecules:
RNA molecules are produced by transcription of genes along the DNA. Some RNA species called
messenger RNA (mRNA), carry the genetic code for a protein. Others termed transfer RNA(tRNA),
serve to decode the sequence of ribonucleotides along the mRNA into the amino acid sequence of a
protein. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) plays a structural role as well as catalytic role during protein
synthesis.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 23

Types of RNA:
1. Genetic RNA: In the absence of DNA, sometimes RNA works as genetic material (in some
viruses) and it transfers information from one generation to next generation.
e.g., Retroviruses, TMV, QB bacteriophage, SARS CoV–2.
2. Non-Genetic RNA: 3 types:
(A) rRNA-Ribosomal RNA
(B) tRNA-Transfer RNA
(C) mRNA-Messenger RNA
RNA functions as adapter, structural and in some cases as a catalytic (Ribozyme)

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA):

This RNA is 80% of the cell's total RNA. It is the most stable form of RNA. It is found in
ribosomes.
70s Ribosome 80s Ribosome
Larger Sub-unit Smaller Sub-unit Larger Sub-unit Smaller Sub-unit
50s 30s 60s 40s
28s rRNA,
23s rRNA,
16s rRNA 5.8s rRNA, 18s rRNA
5s rRNA
5s rRNA
E.g. Cytoplasm, RER Surface, Outer Nuclear
E.g. Prokaryotic Cell, Mitochondria, Plastids.
Membrane Surface of Eukaryotic Cell

S=Svedberg Unit/Svedberg Co-efficient----it is indirect measure of size and density.

Peptidyl Transferase (RNA Enzyme/Ribozyme)
23s rRNA 28s rRNA
E.g. 70s Ribosome E.g. 80s Ribosome

(A) Transfer – RNA (tRNA): The adapter Molecule

From the very beginning of the proposition of code, it was clear to Francis Crick that there
has to be a mechanism to read the code and also to link it to the amino acids, because amino
acids have no structural specialities to read the code uniquely. He postulated the presence of
an adapter molecule that would on one hand read the code and on other hand would bind to
specific amino acids. The tRNA, then called sRNA (soluble RNA), was known before the genetic
code was postulated. However, its role as an adapter molecule was assigned much later.
tRNA has an anticodon loop that has bases complementary to the code, and it also has an
amino acid acceptor end to which it binds to amino acids. tRNAs are specific for each amino
acid. For initiation, there is another specific tRNA that is referred to as initiator tRNA. There
are no tRNAs for stop codons. The secondary structure of tRNA looks like a clover-leaf. In
actual structure, the tRNA is a compact molecule which looks like inverted L.

24
24 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 • It is 10-15% of total RNA.
• It is also known as soluble RNA (sRNA)/Adapter RNA.
• It is the smallest RNA.
• Function: At the time of protein synthesis, it acts as a carrier of amino-acids.
• Structure: The structure of tRNA is most complicated.
• The secondary structure of tRNA looks like a clover leaf but in actual it exists in tertiary
structure as compact molecule which looks like inverted 'L'.
• The acceptor stem, so-named because it is the site of attachment of the amino acid, is
formed by pairing between both strands of the tRNA molecule. The CCA sequence at the 3’
end of the molecule in a single-strand region that protrudes from this double-strand stem.
• The anticodon loop, as its name implies, contains the anticodon, a three-nucleotide-long
sequence that is responsible for recognizing the codon in mRNA by base pairing.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 25

(C) Messenger RNA (mRNA):
The mRNA is 1 - 5% of the cell's total RNA.
The mRNA was discovered by Jacob and Monod.
It is least stable RNA.
ORF
UTR UTR
5’ Leader Start Stop Trailer 3’

Types of mRNA – mRNA is of 2 types:

(1) Monocistronic: The mRNA in which genetic signal is present for the formation of only one
polypeptide chain e.g. most of eukaryotic mRNA.
(2) Polycistronic: The mRNA, in which genetic signal is present for the formation of more than
one polypeptide chains e.g. most of prokaryotic mRNA.

Concept Builder
1. Which was the first genetic material
(1) DNA (2) RNA (3) Lipids (4) Protein
2. Essential life processes such as evolved around RNA.
(1) Metabolism (2) Translation (3) Splicing (4) All
3. DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications that make it
(1) Non-reactive (2) Less stable (3) More stable (4) More reactive
4. DNA being and having further resists changes by evolving a process of repair.
(1) Single stranded, complementary strands
(2) Double stranded, non-complementary strands
(3) Single stranded, non-complementary strands
(4) Double stranded, complementary strands
5. Process of copying of genetic information from DNA to RNA is known as-
(1) Reverse transcription (2) Transcription
(3) Replication (4) Translation
6. If both strands of DNA acts as template for transcription.
(1) They would code for different RNA molecules
(2) Translation can be prevented
(3) They would code for identical RNA molecules
(4) Both 1 and 2
7. A transcription unit in DNA is defined by
(1) Promoter (2) Structural gene
(3) Terminator (4) All of the above
8. The strand of DNA which does not code for anything during transcription is called as
(1) Template strand (2) Coding strand
(3) Anti-sense strand (4) More than one option correct

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 2 4 3 4 2 4 4 2

26
26 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 Genetic Code:
The assignment of amino acids to specific codons is one of the great achievements in the
history of molecular biology.
• The relationship between the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain and nucleotide
sequence of DNA or m–RNA is called genetic code.
• During replication and transcription, a nucleic acid was copied to form another nucleic acid.
Hence, these processes are easy to conceptualise on the basis of complementarity. The
process of translation requires transfer of genetic information from a polymer of nucleotides
to a polymer of amino acids. Neither does any complementarity exist between nucleotides
and amino acids, nor could any be drawn theoretically. There existed ample evidences,
though, to support the notion that change in nucleic acids (genetic material) were responsible
for change in amino acids in proteins (e.g. Sickel Cell Anaemia, 1910). This led to the
proposition of a genetic code that could direct the sequence of amino acids during synthesis
of proteins.
• If determining the biochemical nature of genetic material and the structure of DNA was very
exciting, the proposition and deciphering of genetic code were most challenging. In a very true
sense, it required involvement of scientists from several disciplines – physicists, organic
chemists, biochemists, and geneticists.
• Permutation Combination can be represented by following equation.
• xy = here x is the base of permutation combination its value is 4 indicating four
different nucleotides of DNA/mRNA and y represents different combination.
• If genetic code is singlet 41= 4 different codons (i.e. codon is the combination
of only one nitrogen base), then only four codons are possible A, C, G and U.
These are insufficient to code for 20 types of amino acids. (Singlet code = 4 1 =
4 × 1 = 4 codons)
• If genetic code is doublet 42=16 different codons (i.e. codon is the combination
of two nitrogen bases), are formed. (Doublet code = 42 = 4 × 4 = 16 codons.) 16
codons are insufficient for 20 amino acid.
• If genetic code is triplet 43 = 64 different codons (i.e. 4 × 4 × 4 = 64) can
easily codes for 20 amino acids.

• It was George Gamow, a physicist, who argued that since there are only 4 bases and if they

have to code for 20 amino acids, the code should constitute a combination of bases. He

suggested that in order to code for all the 20 amino acids, the code should be made up of

three nucleotides. This was a very bold proposition, because a permutation combination of

43=64 different codons (4 × 4 × 4); generating many more codons than required.

• Providing proof that the codon was a triplet, was a more daunting task. The chemical method

developed by Har Gobind Khorana was instrumental in synthesising RNA molecules (chemical
method of RNA synthesis in-vitro) with defined combinations of bases (homopolymers and
copolymers). Marshall Nirenberg’s cell-free system for protein synthesis finally helped the

code to be deciphered. Severo Ochoa enzyme (polynucleotide phosphorylase) was also helpful

in polymerising RNA with defined sequences in a template independent manner (enzymatic

synthesis of RNA). Finally, a checker-board for genetic code was prepared which is given in
Table.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 27

 Table: The Codons for the Various Amino Acids
Characteristics of Genetic Code
The salient features of genetic code are as follows:
1. The codon is triplet.
A codon is composed of three adjacent nitrogen bases and specifies one amino acid in
polypeptide chain.
e.g.:
In mRNA if there are total 90 nitrogenous bases that code for amino acids. Then this mRNA
determines 30 amino acids in polypeptide chain. In above example, number of nitrogen bases
are 90 so number of sense codons will be 30 and these codons will code for 30 amino acids
in polypeptide chain.

2. Degeneracy of Genetic codons

Most amino acids are coded by more than one codon; hence the code is degenerate.
There are 64 codons for 20 types of amino acids, so most of the amino acids (except two
Methionine & Tryptophan) can be coded by more than one codon.
This feature of genetic code is called ‘‘Degeneracy of genetic code’’.
Only two amino acids Tryptophan(W) and Methionine(M) are specified by single codon.

All the other amino acids are coded by 2 to 6 codons.

Leucine, serine, and arginine are coded by 6–codons.
Leucine = CUU, CUC, CUA, CUG, UUA, UUG
Serine = UCU, UCC, UCA, UCG, AGU, AGC
Arginine = CGU, CGC, CGA, CGG, AGA, AGG
Degeneracy of genetic code is related to third position (3' – end of triplet codon) of codon.
The third base is described as ‘‘Wobble base’’.

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28 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 3. Comma Less Codons
The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion. There are no punctuations.
If one/two nucleotide is deleted or added, the whole genetic code read differently (frameshift
mutation).
A polypeptide chain having 50 amino acids shall be coded by a linear sequence of 150
nucleotides. If one/two nucleotide is added in the middle of this sequence, the first 25 amino
acids of polypeptide will be same but next 25 amino acids will be different.

4. Universality of Codons
The code is nearly universal: for example, from bacteria to human UUU would code for
Phenylalanine (phe).
Some exceptions to this rule have been found in mitochondrial codons, and in some
protozoans.

5. Non – Ambiguous/Specificity of Codons

Genetic code is non ambiguous i.e., one codon specifies only one amino acid and not any
other.

6. Dual Nature of Codon

AUG has dual functions. It codes for Methionine (met), and it also act as initiator codon.

7. Non – Overlapping:
A nitrogen base is a constituent of only one codon. If a codon has three nucleotides any of
these will not be a part of next codon.

8. Stop Codons
UAA, UAG, UGA are stop/ terminator codons.
UAA=Ocher
UAG= Amber
UGA= Opal

9. Sense and Non-Sense Codons

61 codons code for amino acids (sense codons) and 3 codons do not code for any amino acids
(non-sense codons), hence they function as stop codons.

If following is the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA, predict the sequence of amino acid coded
by it (take help of the checkerboard):
-AUG UUU UUC UUC UUU UUU UUC-
Met-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-
Now try the opposite.
Following is the sequence of amino acids coded by an mRNA. Predict the nucleotide sequence
in the RNA:
Met-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-
Exact prediction is not possible due to degeneracy of codons.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 29

 Concept Builder
1. The process which is/are easy to conceptualise on the basis of complementarity
(1) Replication (2) Transcription (3) Translation (4) Both 1 and 2

2. What led to the proposition of a genetic code that could direct the sequence of amino
acids during synthesis of proteins?
(1) Change in nucleic acid resulted in change of amino acid in protein.
(2) Change in amino acid resulted in change of nucleotides in DNA.
(3) Change in nucleic acid resulted in change of carbohydrate.
(4) Change in amino acid resulted in change of nucleotides in RNA.

3. It was who argued that, since there are only 4 bases and if they have to code for 20
amino acids, the code should constitute a combination of bases.
(1) George Gamow (2) Francis Crick (3) H.D. Khorana (4) Marshall Nirenberg

4. Har Gobind Khorana’s chemical method for the synthesis of RNA molecules was
instrumental in synthesizing:–
(1) RNA molecules with defined combinations of bases
(2) Homopolymers
(3) Copolymers
(4) All of these

5. Polymerisation of RNA with defined sequences in a template independent manner requires.

(1) Polynucleotide polymerase (2) Polynucleotide Phosphorylase
(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA polymerase

6. The codons which do not code for any amino acids, are called as
(1) Sense codons (2) Stop codons
(3) Non-sense codons (4) More than one option is correct
7. Most amino acids are coded by more than one codon. This is termed as
(1) Ambiguity of codons (2) Non-degeneracy of codons
(3) Degeneracy of codons (4) Non-ambiguity of codons

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Ans. 4 1 1 4 2 4 3

Mutations and The Genetic Code

The relationships between genes and DNA are best understood by mutation studies. Effects of large
deletions and rearrangements in a segment of DNA are easy to comprehend. It may result in loss or
gain of a gene and so a function. The effect of point mutations will be explained here. A classical
example of point mutation is a change of single base pair in the gene for beta globin chain that
results in the change of amino acid residue glutamate to valine. It results into a diseased condition
called as sickle cell anemia. Effect of point mutations that inserts or deletes a base in structural
gene can be better understood by following simple example.
Consider a statement that is made up of the following words each having three letters like genetic
code.
RAM HAS RED CAP

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30 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
If we insert a letter B in between HAS and RED and rearrange the statement, it would read as
follows:
RAM HAS BRE DCA P
Similarly, if we now insert two letters at the same place, say BI'. Now it would read,
RAM HAS BIR EDC AP
Now we insert three letters together, say BIG, the statement would read
RAM HAS BIG RED CAP
The same exercise can be repeated, by deleting the letters R, E and D, one by one and rearranging
the statement to make a triplet word.
RAM HAS EDC AP
RAM HAS DCA P
RAM HAS CAP
The conclusion from the above exercise is very obvious. Insertion or deletion of one or two bases
changes the reading frame from the point of insertion or deletion. However, such mutations are
referred to as frameshift insertion or deletion mutations. Insertion or deletion of three or its multiple
bases insert or delete in one or multiple codons hence one or multiple amino acids, and reading
frame remains unaltered from that point onwards

Mutation

• Sudden, heritable changes in genetic material are called as Mutations.

• Mutations are changes in the DNA that occur spontaneously in germ-line or somatic cells; they
can also be induced.

• Mutation is the ultimate source of all genetic variation; it provides the raw material for evolution.

• Without mutation, all genes would exist in only one form. Alleles would not exist and genetic
analysis would not be possible. Most importantly organisms would not be able to evolve and
adapt to environmental changes.

• The term mutation refers to both (1) the change in the genetic material and (2) the process by
which the change occurs.

• An organism that exhibits a novel phenotype resulting from a mutation is called a mutant.

• Mutations are usually deleterious and recessive.

Types of Mutation:
i. Chromosomal Mutation
ii. Gene Mutations

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 31

32
32
Mutation
(sudden change in the genetic material of an organism)

Chromosomal mutation Gene mutation

(change in structure or or
number of chromosomes) Point mutation

Chromosomal Heteroploidy Substitution Frameshift

aberrations [change in number mutation
[Change in structure Of chromosomes]
of chromosomes]
Transversion
1. Deletion Transition Addition Deletion
Euploidy Aneuploidy [Purine → Pyrimidine]
2. Duplication [Purine → Purine]
[Change in [Change in number [Pyrimidine→ Purine]
3. Inversion [Pyrimidine→ Pyrimidine]
4. Translocation number of chromosomes
of sets of in one or more sets
chromosomes] of chromosomes]

Monoploidy Polyploidy
2x – x = x 2x + x = 3x
2x + 2x = 4x
2x + 3x = 5x
2x + 4x = 6x

Hypoaneuploidy Hyperaneuploidy

Monosomy Double Nullisomy Trisomy Double Tetrasomy

Molecular Basis of Inheritance

2n – 1 Monosomy 2n – 2 2n + 1 Trisomy 2n + 2
2n – 1 – 1 2n + 1 + 1
 i. Chromosomal Mutations:

• Change in number or structure of chromosome that bring about visible effects of

phenotype.
Types of chromosomal mutation
(1) Heteroploidy/Genomatic mutation → change in chromosome number.
(2) Chromosomal aberration → change in structure of chromosome.
1. Heteroploidy/Genomatic Mutation:

• Numerical change in the number of sets of chromosomes or number of chromosomes in a

particular set of genome is known as genomatic mutation. It is of two types.
(i) Euploidy → It refers to a change in the number of sets of chromosomes. In other
words, numerical change of chromosomes is the multiple of basic number of
chromosomes within a genome. It may be
(a) Monoploidy (x)
(b) Polyploidy (>2x)

(ii) Aneuploidy→ Change in number of chromosomes in a set of genome.

Any change in number of chromosomes in an organism would be different than the
multiple of basic set of chromosomes. Cause of aneuploidy is chromosomal non
disjunction means chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, so that one
gamete comes to have an extra chromosome (n+1) while other have one less
chromosome (n-1). Chances of aneuploidy are more in higher age female due to
less activity of oocyte/arrested oocyte, so chances of syndrome increase in
children who are born from higher age female.
Fusion of these gametes (n-1/n+1) with the normal gametes (n) give rise to
different types of aneuploids.
S.No. Gametic Fusion Types Of Aneuploid

(i) n × (n+1) 2n+1= Trisomic Condition

(ii) (n+1) × (n+1) 2n+2= Tetrasomic Condition

(iii) n × (n-1) 2n-1= Monosomic Condition

(iv) (n-1) × (n-1) 2n-2= Nullisomic Condition

Aneuploids in Humans
Autosomal Trisomy Allosomal Trisomy Allosomal Monosomy
1. Patau’s Syndrome. 1. Klinefelter’s Syndrome 1. Turner’s Syndrome
2. Edward’s Syndrome 2. Super Male
3. Down’s Syndrome 3. Super Female

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 33

2. Chromosomal Aberrations:
Change in structure of chromosome.
(i) Deletion:
Loss of a part or segment of chromosome.

(ii) Duplication:
Occurrence of a chromosomal segment twice on a chromosome.

(iii) Inversion:
Breakage of a chromosomal segment but reunion on same chromosome in reverse order.

(iv) Translocation:
When a part of the chromosome is broken and joins with other non-homologous chromosome.

Gene Mutation/ Point Mutation

• Point Mutation- Change of single base pair in DNA
• It alters the nucleotide sequence of DNA.
• Mutation in gene produces new alleles of a character.
• Point mutation is further of two types
1. Base Pair Substitution
2. Frame Shift Mutation.
1. Base Pair Substitution:
Replacement of one nitrogenous base by another nitrogenous base is called as
substitution.
Substitution is of two types: -
i. Transition: Replacement of one purine by another purine (A or G) or replacement
of pyrimidine by another pyrimidine (T or C).

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34 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 ii. Transversion: Replacement of purine (A, G) by pyrimidine or pyrimidine (C, T) by
purine.

2. Frame Shift Mutation/Gibberish Mutation:

• Loss or addition of one or rarely more than one nitrogenous bases in DNA sequence.

• Due to frame shift mutation all the codons from the point of addition or deletion get
changed. It leads to change in amino acids sequence of protein so almost a new
protein is formed which is completely different from previous protein.

• Frame shift mutation is of two types.

i. Addition/Insertion: Addition of one or rarely more than one nitrogenous bases in
DNA.
ii. Deletion: Loss of one or rarely more than one nitrogenous bases in DNA.
Thus, frame shift mutations are more harmful as compared to substitution.

Insertion or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading frame from the point of
insertion or deletion. However, such mutations are referred to as frameshift insertion
or deletion mutations. Insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases insert or

delete in one or multiple codon hence one or multiple amino acids, and reading frame

remains unaltered from that point onwards.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 35

 Special Point

• Mostly mutations are harmful. Sometimes they are lethal which leads to death of
organisms.
• Mostly mutations are recessive and being recessive, they are never eliminated from
a population.
• Dominant lethal mutation is always eliminated from a population whether it is large
or small.
• Muton (unit of mutation):
• Smallest part of DNA which undergoes mutation. It is of one nucleotide in length.
• Same sense codon: A change in one nucleotide in a codon does not change amino
acid in polypeptide chain, because both codons code same amino acid, also known
as silent mutation.
• Mis-sense mutation: When a nucleotide change in genetic code causes the change
of one amino acid of a polypeptide chain, it is called mis-sense mutation.
• Non-sense mutation: When a change in nucleotide produces non sense codon and
causes premature termination of polypeptide synthesis it is called as non-sense
mutation.
• Mutagen: Those substances or factors which induce mutation are called Mutagens.
They may be physical factors like radiations [Ionising radiations (, , , x-rays) and
non-ionising radiation (UV rays)] or Chemical substances like Mustard gas, Nitrous
acid, Base Analogue, Alkylating agents, Acridine & Proflavine dyes, Colchicine etc.

Translation (Protein Synthesis):

Question addressed in this topic, is how genetic information contained within the order of
nucleotides in messenger RNA (mRNA) is interpreted to generate the linear sequences of amino acids
in proteins. This process is known as translation.

• Translation refers to the process of polymerisation of amino acids to form a polypeptide. The
order and sequence of amino acids are defined by the sequence of bases in the mRNA. The amino
acids are joined by a bond which is known as a peptide bond. Formation of a peptide bond
requires energy. Therefore, in the first phase itself amino acids are activated in the presence of
ATP and linked to their cognate tRNA – a process commonly called as charging of tRNA or
aminoacylation of tRNA to be more specific. If two such charged tRNAs are brought close enough,
the formation of peptide bond between them would be favoured energetically. The presence of a
catalyst peptidyl transferase would enhance the rate of peptide bond formation.
In 1955 Francis H. Crick proposed that before their incorporation into polypeptides, amino acids
must attach to a special adaptor molecule that is capable of directly interacting with and
recognizing the three-nucleotide-long coding units of the mRNA
• The cellular factory responsible for synthesising proteins is the ribosome. The ribosome consists
of structural RNAs and about 80 different proteins. In its inactive state, it exists as two subunits;
a large subunit and a small subunit. When the small subunit encounters an mRNA, the process of
translation of the mRNA to protein begins. There are two sites in the large subunit, for
subsequent amino acids to bind to and thus, be close enough to each other for the formation of a
peptide bond. The ribosome also acts as a catalyst (23S rRNA in bacteria and 28S rRNA in
eukaryotes is the enzyme- ribozyme/peptidyl transferase) for the formation of peptide bond.

36
36 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
• A translational unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by the start codon (AUG) and
the stop codon (UAA/UGA/UAG) and codes for a polypeptide. An mRNA also has some additional
sequences that are not translated and are referred as untranslated regions (UTR). The UTRs are
present at both 5' -end (before start codon) and at 3' -end (after stop codon). They are required
for efficient translation process.

Activation of Amino Acid & Charging of t–RNA:

In the first phase itself amino acids are activated in the presence of ATP and linked to their
cognate tRNA – a process commonly called as charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA to
be more specific
Translation (Formation of Polypeptide Chain using mRNA as template): It completes in three steps:
(A) Initiation:
For initiation, the ribosome binds to the mRNA at the start codon (AUG) that is recognised
only by the initiator tRNA.

(B) Elongation:
The ribosome proceeds to the elongation phase of protein synthesis. During this stage,
complexes composed of an amino acid linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to the appropriate
codon in mRNA by forming complementary base pairs with the tRNA anticodon. The ribosome
moves from codon to codon along the mRNA. Amino acids are added one by one, translated
into Polypeptide sequences dictated by DNA, and represented by mRNA.
(C) Termination:
At the end, a release factor binds to the stop codon, terminating translation and releasing the
complete polypeptide from the ribosome.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 37

 Concept Builder
1. The relationship between genes and DNA are best understood by
(1) Transcription study (2) Mutation study
(3) Replication study (4) Translation study

2. Mutation can result in:–

(1) Loss of function (2) Gain of function
(3) No effect on function (4) All of the above

3. Insertion or deletion of one/two bases in DNA.

(1) Changes the reading frame of m-RNA
(2) Causes frameshift mutation
(3) Changes amino acid sequence of encoded protein
(4) All

4. Sickel cell anemia is the result of.

(1) Point mutation (2) Substitution (3) Transversion (4) All

5. The total number of transitions and transversions possible are, respectively.

(1) 8,8 (2) 4,4 (3) 4,8 (4) 12,12

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. 2 4 4 4 3

Regulation of Gene Expression:

The mechanism which stimulates the expression of certain genes and inhibits that of others is called
regulation of gene expression.
Regulation of gene expression refers to a very broad term that may occur at various levels.
Considering that gene expression results in the formation of a polypeptide, it can be regulated at
several levels.

The genes in a cell are expressed to perform a particular function or a set of functions. For example,
if an enzyme called beta-galactosidase(lactase) is synthesised by E. coli, it is used to catalyse the
hydrolysis of a disaccharide, lactose into galactose and glucose; the bacteria use them as a source of
energy. Hence, if the bacteria do not have lactose around them to be utilised for energy source, they
would no longer require the synthesis of the enzyme beta-galactosidase. Therefore, in simple terms,
it is the metabolic, physiological, or environmental conditions that regulate the expression of genes.
The development and differentiation of embryo into adult organisms are also a result of the
coordinated regulation of expression of several sets of genes.

Operon Concept:
In 1961, a geneticist, Francois Jacob and a biochemist, Jacque Monod, proposed a mechanism called
operon model for the regulation of gene expression in E. coli.
A polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a common promoter and regulatory genes. Such
arrangement is very common in bacteria and is referred to as operon.

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38 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
In prokaryotes, control of the rate of transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for control of
gene expression. In a transcription unit, the activity of RNA polymerase at a given promoter is in turn
regulated by interaction with accessory proteins, which affect its ability to recognize start sites.
These regulatory proteins can act both positively (activators) and negatively (repressors). The
accessibility of promoter regions of prokaryotic DNA is in many cases regulated by the interaction of
proteins with sequences termed operators. The operator region is adjacent to the promoter elements
in most operons and in most cases the sequences of the operator bind a repressor protein. Each
operon has its specific operator and specific repressor. For example, lac operator is present only in
the lac operon and it interacts specifically with lac repressor only.

The Lac Operon

The elucidation of the lac operon was a result of research conducted by Francois Jacob and,
Jacque Monod. They were the first to elucidate a transcriptionally regulated system. In lac operon
also (here lac refers to lactose), a polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a common
promoter and regulatory genes. To name few such examples, lac operon, trp operon, ara operon,
his operon, val operon, etc.

P i P O PCS T
P- Promoter
i- regulatory Gene
O- Operator Gene
PCS- Polycistronic Structural Gene
T- Terminator
The lac operon consists of one regulatory gene (the i gene – here the term i does not refer to
inducer, rather it is derived from the word inhibitor) and three structural genes (z, y, and a). The i
gene codes for the repressor of the lac operon. The z gene codes for beta-galactosidase (β-gal),
which is primarily responsible for the hydrolysis of the disaccharide, lactose into its monomeric
units, galactose, and glucose. The y gene codes for permease, which increases permeability of the
cell to β-galactosides. The a gene encodes a transacetylase. Hence, all the three gene products in
lac operon are required for metabolism of lactose. In most other operons as well, the genes
present in the operon are needed together to function in the same or related metabolic pathway

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 39

 Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme beta-galactosidase and it regulates switching on and off
of the operon. Hence, it is termed as inducer. In the absence of a preferred carbon source such
as glucose, if lactose is provided in the growth medium of the bacteria, the lactose is transported
into the cells through the action of permease (Remember, a very low level of expression of lac
operon has to be present in the cell all the time, otherwise lactose cannot enter the cells). The
lactose then induces the operon in the following manner.
The repressor of the operon is synthesised (all-the-time – constitutively) from the i gene. The
repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and prevents RNA polymerase from
transcribing the operon. In the presence of an inducer, such as lactose or allolactose, the
repressor is inactivated by interaction with the inducer. This allows RNA polymerase access to
the promoter and transcription proceeds (Figure 5.14). Essentially, regulation of lac operon can
also be visualized as regulation of enzyme synthesis by its substrate.
Remember, glucose or galactose cannot act as inducers for lac operon. Can you think for how
long the lac operon would be expressed in the presence of lactose?
A. Until lactose is completely metabolized.
Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation. Lac operon is under
control of positive regulation as well, but it is beyond the scope of discussion at this level.
(i) Structural Genes: These genes synthesise mRNAs, which in turn synthesise polypeptide
over the ribosomes. An operon may have one or more structural genes. Each structural
gene of an operon is called cistron. The lac operon (lactose operon) of Escherichia coli
contains three structural genes (Z, Y and A). These genes occur adjacent to each other and
thus are linked. They transcribe a polycistronic mRNA molecule (a single stretch of mRNA
covering all the three genes), that helps in the synthesis of three enzymes- galactosidase,
permease and transacetylase.
(ii) Operator : It is a DNA segment that lies adjacent to the promoter and directly controls the
synthesis of mRNA over the structural genes. It is switched OFF by the presence of a
repressor protein. An inducer can take away the repressor and switch ON the gene that
directs the structural genes to transcribe.
(iii) Regulator Gene: It produces a repressor protein that binds to operator and prevents the
loading of RNA Polymerase enzyme on promoter.

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40 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 (iv) Repressor: It is a protein, produced by the regulator gene. It is a DNA binding protein. It

has two sites

1.Inducer binding site

2. Operator binding site.

It can bind with inducer as well as operator both.

If it binds with operator, operon is switched OFF.

If it binds with inducer, operon is switched ON.

(i) If mutation affects inducer binding site, operon will be permanently switched-‘OFF’

even in the presence of inducer.

(ii) If mutation affects operator binding site operon will be permanently switched–‘ON’

even in the absence of inducer.

Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes

• In eukaryotes, the regulation could be exerted at several levels:

(i) transcriptional level (formation of primary transcript),

(ii) processing level (regulation of splicing),
(iii) transport of mRNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm,
(iv) translational level.

Concept Builder
1. In simple terms, it is the metabolic, physiological, or environmental conditions that
regulates the
(1) Gene expression (2) Transcription (3) Translation (4) All
2. A polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a common promoter and regulatory genes.
Such arrangement is very common in bacteria and is referred to as
(1) Operon (2) Cistron (3) Exon (4) Intron
3. In prokaryotes, control of the rate of transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for
control of
(1) Gene expression (2) Operon system
(3) Translation (4) More than one option correct
4. The regulatory proteins in operon can act both positively called as ____ and negatively
called as _____ respectively.
(1) Activators, Repressors (2) Activators, activators
(3) Repressors, repressors (4) Repressors, activators
5. A polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a common promoter and regulatory genes,
it is exemplified by.
(1) Lac-operon (2) Trp-operon (3) His-operon (4) All

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 41

 6. Which genes are expressed constantly because their products are constantly needed for
cellular activity?
(1) Constitutive genes (2) Split genes
(3) Non-constitutive genes (4) More than one option is correct
7. Which genes remain silent and are expressed only when the gene product is needed?
(1) Constitutive genes (2) Housekeeping genes
(3) Non-constitutive genes (4) More than one option is correct

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Ans. 4 1 4 1 4 1 3

Human Genome Project

In the preceding sections you have learnt that it is the sequence of bases in DNA that determines the
genetic information of a given organism. In other words, genetic make-up of an organism or an
individual lies in the DNA sequences. If two individuals differ, then their DNA sequences should also
be different, at least at some places. These assumptions led to the quest of finding out the complete
DNA sequence of human genome. With the establishment of genetic engineering techniques where it
was possible to isolate and clone any piece of DNA and availability of simple and fast techniques for
determining DNA sequences, a very ambitious project of sequencing human genome was launched in
the year 1990.

Human Genome Project (HGP) was called a mega project. You can imagine the magnitude and the
requirements for the project if we simply define the aims of the project as follows:
Human genome is said to have approximately 3 × 109 bp, and if the cost of sequencing required is US
$ 3 per bp (the estimated cost in the beginning), the total estimated cost of the project would be
approximately 9 billion US dollars. Further, if the obtained sequences were to be stored in typed
form in books, and if each page of the book contained 1000 letters and each book contained 1000
pages, then 3300 such books would be required to store the information of DNA sequence from a
single human cell. The enormous amount of data expected to be generated also necessitated the use
of high speed computational devices for data storage and retrieval and analysis. HGP was closely
associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called as Bioinformatics.

Goals of HGP
Some of the important goals of HGP are as follows:
(i) Identify all the approximately 20,000-25,000 genes in human DNA.
(ii) Determine the sequences of the 3 billion chemical base pairs that make up human DNA.
(iii) Store this information in databases.
(iv) Improve tools for data analysis.
(v) Transfer related technologies to other sectors, such as industries.
(vi) Address the ethical, legal, and social issues (ELSI) that may arise from the project.

The Human Genome Project was a 13-year project coordinated by the U.S. Department of Energy and
the National Institute of Health. During the early years of the HGP, the Wellcome Trust (U.K.) became
a major partner; additional contributions came from Japan, France, Germany, China, and others. The
project was completed in 2003. Knowledge about the effects of DNA variations among individuals can
lead to revolutionary new ways to diagnose, treat, and someday prevent the thousands of disorders
that affect human beings. Besides providing clues to understanding human biology, learning about
non-human organisms DNA sequences can lead to an understanding of their natural capabilities that
can be applied toward solving challenges in health care, agriculture, energy production,
environmental remediation.
Many non-human model organisms have also been sequenced along with human genome.

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42 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 Model Organisms
1. E. coli (Bacteria)
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae (Yeast)
3. Caenorhabditis elegans (free living non-pathogenic nematode)
4. Drosophila melanogaster (the fruit fly)
5. Arabidopsis thaliana (small mustard plant)
6. Oryza sativa (Rice Plant)

Methodologies: The methods involved two major approaches.

(1) Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) - Identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA.
(2) Sequence Annotation - The blind approach of simply sequencing the whole set of genome that
contained all the coding and non-coding sequence, and later assigning different regions in the
sequence with functions.
For sequencing, the total DNA from a cell is isolated and converted into random fragments of
relatively smaller sizes (recall DNA is a very long polymer, and there are technical limitations in
sequencing very long pieces of DNA) and cloned in suitable host using specialised vectors. The
cloning resulted into amplification of each piece of DNA fragment so, that it subsequently could be
sequenced with ease. The commonly used hosts were bacteria and yeast, and the vectors were
called as BAC (bacterial artificial chromosomes), and YAC (yeast artificial chromosomes).
The fragments were sequenced using automated DNA sequencers that worked on the principle of a
method developed by Frederick Sanger. (Remember, Sanger is also credited for developing method
for determination of amino acid sequences in proteins). These sequences were then arranged based
on some overlapping regions present in them. This required generation of overlapping fragments for
sequencing. Alignment of these sequences was humanly not possible. Therefore, specialised
computer-based programmes were developed. These sequences were subsequently annotated and
were assigned to each chromosome. The sequence of chromosome 1 was completed only in May
2006 (this was the last of the 24 human chromosomes -22 autosomes and X and Y- to be
sequenced). Another challenging task was assigning the genetic and physical maps on the genome.
This was generated using information on polymorphism of restriction endonuclease recognition sites
and some repetitive DNA sequences known as microsatellites. (one of the applications of
polymorphism in repetitive DNA sequences shall be explained in next section of DNA fingerprinting).

Salient Features of Human Genome

Some of the salient observations drawn from human genome project are as follows:
(i) The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.
(ii) The average gene consists of 3000 bases, but sizes vary greatly, with the largest known human
gene being dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
(iii) The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000-much lower than previous estimates of 80,000
to 1,40,000 genes. Almost all (99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people.
(iv) The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of discovered genes.
(v) Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins.
(vi) Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.
(vii) Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA sequences that are repeated many times, sometimes
hundred to thousand times. They are thought to have no direct coding functions, but they shed
light on chromosome structure, dynamics, and evolution.
(viii) Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968). and the Y has the fewest (231).
(ix) Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where single-base DNA differences (SNPs-
single nucleotide polymorphism, pronounced as 'snips') occur in humans. This information
promises to revolutionise the processes of finding chromosomal locations for disease-associated
sequences and tracing human history.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 43

 First prokaryote in which complete genome was sequenced is Haemophilus influenzae (Bacteria).
First Eukaryote in which complete genome was sequenced is Saccharomyces cerevisiae (Yeast).
First plant in which complete genome was sequenced is Arabidopsis thaliana (Small mustard
plant).
First animal in which complete genome was sequenced is Caenorhabditis elegans (Nematode).

Applications and Future Challenges

Deriving meaningful knowledge from the DNA sequences will define research through the
coming decades leading to our understanding of biological systems. This enormous task will
require the expertise and creativity of tens of thousands of scientists from varied disciplines
in both the public and private sectors worldwide. One of the greatest impacts of having the
HG sequence may well be enabling a radically new approach to biological research. In the
past, researchers studied one or a few genes at a time. With whole-genome sequences and
new high-throughput technologies, we can approach questions systematically and on a much
broader scale (E.g., By RNA blotting they will be able to study about gene mutation). They can
study all the genes in a genome, for example, all the transcripts (by RNA blotting) in a
particular tissue or organ or tumor, or how tens of thousands of genes and proteins work
together in interconnected networks to orchestrate the chemistry of life.

Concept Builder
1. Genetic make-up of an organism or an individual lies in the
(1) DNA sequences (2) RNA sequences
(3) Amino acid sequences (4) All

2. A very ambitious project of sequencing human genome was launched in the year
(1) 2000 (2) 2003 (3) 2006 (4) 1990

3. Human genome is said to have approximately.

(1) 6.6×109bp (2) 3.6×109bp (3) 6.3×109bp (4) 3.3×109bp

4. HGP was closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called as
(1) Bioengineering (2) Bioinformatics (3) Biotechnology (4) All

5. To address the ethical, legal, and social issues (ELSI) that may arise from the project,
comes under.
(1) Goals of HGP (2) Methodology of HGP
(3) Results of HGP (4) Future challenges of HGP

6. The Human Genome Project was a 13-year project coordinated by the .

(1) US Department of Energy (2) National Institute of Health
(3) Welcome Trust of UK (4) More than one option correct

7. Many non-human model organisms have also been sequenced along with human genome,
find odd one.
(1) E. coli (2) Yeast (3) Drosophila (4) Monkey

8. All the genes that are expressed as RNA, are called

(1) Expressed Sequence Tags (2) Sequence Annotation
(3) Automated DNA Sequencer (4) Both 1 and 2

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 1 4 4 2 1 4 4 1

44
44 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
DNA Finger Printing:
• It is a technique to identify a person based on his/her DNA specificity.
• As stated in the preceding section, 99.9 per cent of base sequence among humans is the same.
Assuming human genome as 3 × 109 bp, in how many base sequences would there be differences?
It is these differences in sequence of DNA which make every individual unique in their phenotypic
appearance. If one aims to find out genetic differences between two individuals or among
individuals of a population, sequencing the DNA every time would be a daunting and expensive
task. Imagine trying to compare two sets of 3 × 10 6 base pairs. DNA fingerprinting is a very quick
way to compare the DNA sequences of any two individuals.
• DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence
called as repetitive DNA, because in these sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many
times. These repetitive DNA are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during
density gradient centrifugation. The bulk DNA forms a major peak and the other small peaks are
referred to as satellite DNA. Depending on base composition (A:T rich or G:C rich), length of
segment, and number of repetitive units, the satellite DNA is classified into many categories, such
as micro-satellites, mini-satellites etc. These sequences normally do not code for any proteins,
but they form a large portion of human genome. These sequences show high degree of
polymorphism and form the basis of DNA fingerprinting. Since DNA from every tissue (such as
blood, hair-follicle, skin, bone, saliva, sperm etc.), from an individual show the same degree of
polymorphism, they become very useful identification tool in forensic applications. Further, as the
polymorphisms are inheritable from parents to children, DNA fingerprinting is the basis of
paternity testing, in case of disputes.

• As polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome as well as
of DNA fingerprinting, it is essential that we understand what DNA polymorphism means in simple
terms. Polymorphism (variation at genetic level) arises due to mutations. (Recall different kind of
mutations and their effects that you have already studied.) New mutations may arise in an
individual either in somatic cells or in the germ cells (cells that generate gametes in sexually
reproducing organisms). If a germ cell mutation does not seriously impair individual’s ability to
have offspring who can transmit the mutation, it can spread to the other members of population
(through sexual reproduction). Allelic sequence variation has traditionally been described as a
DNA polymorphism if more than one variant (allele) at a locus occurs in human population with a
frequency greater than 0.01 (>1%). In simple terms, if an inheritable mutation is observed in a
population at high frequency, it is referred to as DNA polymorphism. The probability of such
variation to be observed in noncoding DNA sequence would be higher as mutations in these
sequences may not have any immediate effect/impact in an individual’s reproductive ability.
These mutations keep on accumulating generation after generation, and form one of the basis of
variability/polymorphism. There is a variety of different types of polymorphisms ranging from
single nucleotide change to very large-scale changes. For evolution and speciation, such
polymorphisms play very important role.
• The technique of DNA Fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys. He used a satellite
DNA as probe that shows very high degree of polymorphism. It was called as Variable Number of
Tandem Repeats (VNTR). The technique, as used earlier, involved Southern blot hybridisation
using radiolabelled VNTR as a probe.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 45

• The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as mini-satellite. A small DNA sequence
is arranged tandemly in many copy numbers. The copy number varies from chromosome to
chromosome in an individual. The numbers of repeat show very high degree of polymorphism. As
a result, the size of VNTR varies in size from 0.1 to 20 kb. Consequently, after hybridisation with
VNTR probe, the autoradiogram gives many bands of differing sizes. These bands give a
characteristic pattern for an individual DNA. It differs from individual to individual in a population
except in the case of monozygotic (identical) twins. The sensitivity of the technique has been
increased by use of polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Consequently, DNA from a single cell is
enough to perform DNA fingerprinting analysis. In addition to application in forensic science, it
has much wider application, such as in determining population and genetic diversities. Currently,
many different probes are used to generate DNA fingerprints.
Technique of DNA Finger Printing Involves the Following Major Steps:
(i) Isolation of DNA,
(ii) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases,
(iii) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis,
(iv) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as
nitrocellulose or nylon,
(v) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe, and
(vi) Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.
1. Isolation: DNA is extracted from the cell by cell lysis.
2. Digestion of DNA by Restriction Endonuclease: Restriction enzyme cuts DNA at specific
sequences called restriction site.
3. Separation of DNA Fragments by Electrophoresis:
Agarose Gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA based on size.
4. Transferring (Blotting) of Separated DNA Fragments:
Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as
nitrocellulose or nylon
The gel is fragile. It is necessary to remove the DNA from the gel and permanently attach it to a
solid support. This is accomplished by the process of Southern blotting. The first step is to
denature the DNA in the gel (using KOH) which means that the double-stranded restriction
fragments are chemically separated into the single stranded form. The DNA then is transferred by
the process of blotting to a sheet of nylon. The nylon acts like an ink blotter and "blots" up the
separated DNA fragments, the restriction fragments, invisible at this stage are irreversibly
attached to the nylon membrane as the "blot".
This process is called Southern blotting by the name of Edwin Southern.
5. Hybridization Using VNTR Probe: To detect VNTR locus on restricted fragment, we use single
stranded Radioactive (P32) DNA probe which have the base sequence complementary to the DNA
sequences at the VNTR locus. Commonly we use a combination of at least 4 to 6 separate DNA
probes.
Labelled Probes are attached with the VNTR loci of restricted DNA Fragments, this process is
called Hybridization.

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46 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
6. Detection Of Hybridised DNA fragment by Autoradiography: Nylon membrane containing
radioactive probe is exposed to X-ray. Specific bands appear on X-ray film. These bands are the
areas where the radioactive probe had bound with the VNTR.

• Now appears the specific restriction fragment length pattern. This length pattern is different

in different individuals. This is called Restriction Fragment length Polymorphism (RFLP).

• These allow analyzer to identify a particular person DNA based on the occurrence of a

particular genetic pattern contained in this X-ray film. The probability of two unrelated

individuals having same pattern is one in ten billion (world population 6.1 billion)

• In India the centre for DNA finger printing and Diagnostics (CDFD) is located at Hyderabad.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 47

 Concept Builder
1. Assuming human genome as 3 × 109 bp, in how many base sequences would there be
differences?
(1) 3.0 × 106 bp (2) 3.0 × 107 bp (3) 3.3 × 106 bp (4) 3.0 × 109 bp

2. Identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence based on repetitive DNA,
is called as
(1) DNA fingerprinting (2) RNA fingerprinting
(3) Protein fingerprinting (4) Genome sequencing

3. Satellite DNA is classified into many categories, depending on

(1) Base composition (2) Length of segment
(3) Number of repetitive units (4) All

48
48 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 4. As the polymorphisms are inheritable from parents to children, DNA fingerprinting is the
basis of
(1) Paternity testing (2) Genetic testing
(3) Dispute testing (4) More than one option correct

5. DNA polymorphism arises due to

(1) Translocation (2) Mutation
(3) Crossing-over (4) Replication

6. If more than one variant (allele) at a locus occurs in human population with a frequency
greater than 0.01 (>1%) occur, it is called as.
(1) RNA polymorphism (2) DNA polymorphism
(3) Protein polymorphism (4) DNA fingerprinting

7. DNA polymorphism is very important in

(1) Evolution (2) Speciation
(3) Mutation (4) More than one option is correct

8. The technique of DNA Fingerprinting was initially developed by

(1) Alec Jefferys (2) Frederick Sanger
(3) Francis Crick (4) James D. Watson

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 1 1 4 4 2 2 4 1

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 49

 Exercise – I
Nucleic Acid 8. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide
in not having:
1. Adjacent nucleotides in a polynucleotide
(1) Phosphate
chain are joined by:
(2) Sugar
(1) N-glycosidic bond
(3) Phosphate & sugar
(2) Phosphodiester bond
(4) Nitrogen base
(3) O-glycosidic bond
(4) Hydrogen bond DNA

2. Sugars are attached to the pyrimidines 9. Out of the two strands of DNA one is
by the formation of: carrying genetic information for transcription
(1) Hydrogen bond and it is called:
(2) N-glycosidic bond (1) Coding strand
(3) Phosphoester bond (2) Non template strand
(4) O-glycosidic bond (3) Sense strand
3. Cytidine is a: (4)Template strand
(1) Nucleoside 10. If the sequence of one strand of DNA is
(2) Nitrogen base 5’ A T G C A T C G 3’, find the sequence
(3) Nucleotide
of complementary strand in 5’→3’ direction:
(4) Common nitrogen base in DNA and
(1) T A C G T A G C
RNA
(2) C G A T G C A T
4. Nucleotide is: (3) A T G C A T C G
(1) N2–base, pentose sugar and phosphoric (4) A T C G T A C G
acid
11. Which of the following bond is not
(2) Nitrogen base, Hexose sugar and
present in DNA?
phosphoric acid
(1) -1’-9-N-glycosidic bond
(3) Nitrogen base, pentose sugar
(4) Nitrogen base, trioses and phosphoric (2) 3’-5’ phosphodiester linkage
acid (3) -1’-1-N-glycosidic bond
(4) -1’-2-N-glycosidic bond
5. Nucleic acid (DNA) is not found in:
(1) Nucleus & nucleolus 12. Circular and double stranded DNA occurs
(2)Peroxysome & ribosome in:
(3) Mitochondria & plastid (1) Golgi body (2) Mitochondria
(4) Chloroplast & nucleosome (3) Nucleus (4) Ribosome

6. A nucleic acid contains thymine or 13. Double helix model of DNA which was
methylated uracil then it should be: proposed by Watson and Crick was of:
(1) DNA (1) C-DNA (2) B-DNA
(2) RNA (3) D-DNA (4) Z-DNA
(3) Either DNA or RNA
14. If there are 10,000 base pairs in DNA,
(4) RNA of bacteria
then its length:
7. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine (1) 340 nm
N2 base: (2) 3400 nm
(1) Thymine (2) Cytosine (3) 34000 nm
(3) Guanine (4) Uracil (4) 340000 nm

50
50 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
15. Back bone in structure of DNA molecule is 24. Short DNA segment has 80 thymine and
made up of: 90 guanine bases. The total number of
(1) Pentose Sugar and phosphate nucleotides are:
(2) Hexose sugar and phosphate (1) 160 (2) 40 (3) 80 (4) 340
(3) Purine and pyrimidine 25. DNA is acidic due to:
(4) Sugar and phosphate (1) Sugar (2) Phosphoric acid
16. The purine & pyrimidine pairs of (3) Purine (4) Pyrimidine
complementary strands of DNA are 26. Base ratio of a DNA is 0.03 and the
held together by: number of A-T base pairs is 30000,
(1) H–bonds (2) O–bonds then what is the number of G-C base
(3) C–bonds (4) N–bonds pairs in this DNA?
(1) 1000 (2) 10000
17. Number of H–bonds between guanine
(3) 100000 (4) 1000000
and cytosine are:
(1) One (2) Two 27. If one strand of double stranded DNA,
(3) Three (4) Four consists of the sequence 3'-ATTCGTAC-
5', then the complementary sequence
18. What is the nature of the 2 strands of a must be:
DNA duplex: (1) 5'-UAAGCAUG-3'
(1) Identical & complementary (2) 3'-TAAGCATG-5'
(2) Antiparallel & complementary (3) 5'-TAAGCATG-3'
(3) Dissimilar & non complementary (4) 5'-TAAGCAUG-3'
(4) Antiparallel & non complementary
28. A DNA molecule contains 10,000 base
19. On an average, how many purine N2 bases pairs, then the length of this DNA
are present in single coil of DNA: molecule is:
(1) Four (2) Five (1) 3.4 x 10–5 meter
(3) Ten (4) Uncertain (2) 0.34 x 10–5 meter
(3) 34 x 10–5 meter
20. Distance between two adjacent nucleotide (4) None of these
pairs of DNA is:
(1) 0.34 nm (2) 34 Å 29. DNA molecule has uniform diameter due
(3) 3.4  (4) 34 nm to?
(1) Double stranded structure
21. Chargaff 's rule is given as: (2) Presence of phosphate
(1) Purines  Pyrimidines (3) Specific base pairing between purine
(2) A + G = T+ C and pyrimidine
(3) A+ U = G + C (4) Specific base pairing between purine
(4) A + T / G + C = 1 and purine

22. Wilkins X–ray diffraction showed the DNA Packaging

diameter of the DNA helix is:
30. Packaging of DNA helix:
(1) 10 Å (2) 20 Å (1) Involves polyamines in eukaryotes
(3) 30 Å (4) 40 Å (2) Occurs with the help of NHC proteins
only
23. In the DNA of an animal percentage of (3) Requires acidic proteins that help in
Adenine is 30 then percentage of Guanine coiling of DNA in prokaryotes
(4) Is more complex in eukaryotes than
will be:
prokaryotes
(1) 40 (2) 30 (3) 20 (4) 70

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 51

31. Prokaryotic genetic system contains: 39. Correct order of molecular weight is:
(1) DNA & histones (1) DNA < rRNA <tRNA
(2) RNA & histones (2) DNA < mRNA <rRNA
(3) Either DNA or histones (3) tRNA < mRNA < DNA
(4) DNA but no histones (4) tRNA < DNA <mRNA

Replication
Genetic Material
40. Which plant was used by Taylor to
32. The un-equivocal proof that DNA is the
prove semiconservative replication at
genetic material came from the
chromosomal level?
experiment of
(1) Haematoxylum
(1) Meselson and Stahl
(2) Vicia faba
(2) Avery, Macleod, and Mc Carty
(3) Trillium
(3) Hershey and chase
(4) Ophioglossum
(4) F. Griffith
41. During polymerisation of deoxyribonucleotides
RNA and RNA World in bacteria which of the following
enzymes is mainly required?
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
33. Which of the following nitrogenous bases
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
are common for both RNA and DNA?
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(1) C, G, A (2) T, A, C
(4) DNA gyrase
(3) G, A, U (4) U, A, C
42. semi-conservative mode of DNA
34. Substance common in DNA and RNA: replication was experimentally verified
by A using B .
(1) Hexose Sugar
Complete the above statement by
(2) Pyrimidine
choosing correct option for A and B .
(3) Thymine
A B
(4) Phosphate groups
(1) Watson and crick E.coli
35. DNA differs from RNA in: (2) Hershey and chase Bacteriophage
(1) Only Sugar (3) Meselson and Stahl Heavy Nitrogen
(2) Nitrogen base only (4) Taylor et al Radioactive
(3) Nitrogen base and sugar nitrogen
(4) None 43. DNA replication in eukaryotic organisms is
(1) Semi-discontinuous with single
36. The genetic material of Retroviruses is:
origin of replication
(1) DNA (2) RNA
(2) Semi-conservative and semi-
(3) DNA or RNA (4) None
discontinuous
37. T.M.V. contains: (3) Semi-conservative with single origin
(1) D.N.A of replication
(2) R.N.A. + Protein (4) conservative and bidirectional
(3) D.N.A. + R.N.A.
44. In the process of replication
(4) D.N.A. + Protein
deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates:
38. The base sequence of nucleic acid is (1) Act as substrates
AGG, GGA, CGA, CCA from this it can be (2) Provide energy for polymerisation
inferred that it is a segment of: reaction
(1) DNA (2) mRNA (3) Act as enzymes
(3) tRNA (4) Data insufficient (4) Both (1) & (2)

52
52 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
45. DNA polymerase is needed for: 52. The whole genome of Escherichia coli
(1) Replication of DNA has __________ bp which is replicated
(2) Synthesis of DNA within _______ minutes.
(3) Elongation of DNA (1) 6.6 × 106, 20
(4) All of above (2) 4.6 × 106, 18
(3) 4.6 × 106, 38
46. DNA duplication occurs at: (4) 6.6 × 109, 40
(1) Meiosis - II
53. Okazaki fragments are used in
(2) Interphase of cell cycle
synthesis of:
(3) Mitosis only
(1) Leading strand of DNA only
(4) Meiosis and mitosis both
(2) Lagging strand of DNA only
47. DNA Replication occurs at: (3) Both leading and lagging strands of
(1) G0 & G1 (2) G2 - stage DNA
(3) S - Stage (4) Mitotic phase (4) RNA
54. In DNA replication, the primer is:
48. Method of DNA replication in which
(1) A small deoxyribonucleotide polymer
two strands of DNA separate and serve
(2) A small ribonucleotide polymer
as templates for synthesis of new
(3) Helix destabilizing protein
strands is termed as:
(4) Enzyme taking part in joining
(1) Dispersive nucleotides of new strand
(2) Conservative
(3) Semiconservative Central Dogma
(4) Non conservative 55. Which one of the following makes use
49. During replication of bacterial DNA of RNA as a template to synthesize
DNA:
synthesis starts from a replication
(1) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
origin site and:
(2) DNA polymerase
(1) DNA primers are involved
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(2) Is facilitated by telomerase
(4) RNA polymerase
(3) Moves in one direction of the site
(4) Moves in bi-directional way 56. Genetic informations are transferred
from nucleus to cytoplasm of cell
50. In a double stranded DNA if each through:
strand from a parental DNA act as a (1) DNA (2) RNA
template for synthesis of new daughter (3) Proteins (4) Polysaccharides
strand, the two double stranded
daughter DNA thus, produced would be Transcription
(1) Complementary to parental DNA
57. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III catalyses
molecule
the synthesis of:
(2) Identical to parental DNA molecule (1) 5 S rRNA, tRNA & SnRNA
(3) Unidentical to parental DNA (2) mRNA, Hn RNA & SnRNA
molecule (3) 28 S rRNA, 18 S rRNA & 5 S rRNA
(4) All are correct (4) All types of rRNA & tRNA
51. The direction of synthesis of new DNA 58. In eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase that
strand is: synthesises tRNA is RNA polymerase
(1) From 5' end towards 3' end _________ and is also responsible for
(2) From 3' end towards 5' end formation of _______ rRNA:
(3) Amino terminus to carboxy terminus (1) III, 5.8 S (2) I, 5 S
(4) Carboxy terminus to amino terminus (3) III, 5 S (4) III, 18 S

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 53

59. What is correct for bacterial transcription? 65. The enzyme responsible for transcription
(1) mRNA requires processing to become is:
active (1) DNA polymerase-I
(2) Translation can begin only when (2) RNA polymerase
mRNA is fully transcribed (3) Reverse transcriptase
(3) Transcription and translation take (4) DNA polymerase-III
place in the same compartment 66. If the base sequence in DNA is 5' AAAA
(4) Rho factor initiates the process 3' then the bases sequence in mRNA is
60. Identification and binding of RNA (1) 5' UUUU 3' (2) 3' UUUU 5'
polymerase to the promoter sequence (3) 5' AAAA 3' (4) 3' TTTT 5'
is a function of: 67. DNA acts as a template for synthesis of
(1) Rho factor (1) RNA (2) DNA
(2) Sigma factor (3) Both '1' and '2' (4) Protein
(3) Beta factor
(4) Omega factor 68. One strand of DNA (non-template) has
base sequence CAG, TCG, GAT. What
61. Prokaryotic transcription mechanism
will be the sequence of bases in mRNA:
requires involvement of only one
(1) AGC, CTA, CTA
polymerase type and:
(2) GTC, AGC, CTC
(a) It occurs in cytoplasm
(3) CAG, UCG, GAU
(b) It is often coupled with translation
(4) GAC, TAG, CTA
(c) It does not require splicing but capping
is essential 69. In a transcription unit promoter is said
(1) All are correct to be located towards:
(2) Both (b) & (c) are incorrect (1) 3' end of structural gene
(3) Both (a) & (c) are correct (2) 5' end of structural gene
(4) Only (c) is incorrect (3) 5' end of template strand
(4) 3' end of non-template strand
62. The process by which DNA of the
nucleus passes genetic information to 70. A DNA strand is directly involved in the
mRNA is called: synthesis of all the following except:
(1) Transcription (2) Translocation (1) Another DNA (2) tRNA & mRNA
(3) Translation (4) Transportation (3) rRNA (4) Protein

63. During transcription, the DNA site at RNA Processing

which RNA polymerase binds to unwind 71. When a mature mRNA was hybridised
DNA is called: to its gene certain loops were observed.
(1) Promoter (2) Regulator These loops represent:
(3) Receptor (4) Enhancer (1) Introns in DNA (2) Introns in rRNA
(3) Exons in tRNA (4) Exons in DNA
64. During transcription, if the nucleotide
72. Which of the following is not required
sequence of the DNA strand that is
during post transcriptional RNA
being coded is ATACG, then the processing in eukaryotes?
nucleotide sequence in the mRNA (1) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
would be: (2) Ligase
(1) TATGC (2) TCTGG (3) ScRNA
(3) UAUGC (4) UATGC (4) SnRNA

54
54 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
73. Splicing is necessary for preparing a 81. Arrangement of three successive bases
mature transcript and its movement to in the genetic code signifies:
cytoplasm. It requires: (1) Protein (2) Nucleic acid
(1) scRNA and proteins (3) Plasmid (4) Amino acid
(2) snRNA and proteins
(3) scRNA and snRNA Translation
(4) scRNA only
82. A sequence of three consecutive bases
74. A gene containing multiple exons and in a tRNA molecule which specifically
at least one intron is termed as: binds to a complementary codon sequence
(1) Split gene
in m RNA is known as:
(2) Operator gene
(1) Triplet
(3) Synthetic gene
(2) Non-sense codon
(4) Non-split gene
(3) Anti codon
75. Dominance of RNA world is proved by: (4) Termination codon
(1) Capping (2) Splicing
83. In three-dimensional view the molecule
(3) Polyadenylation (4) AlI of these
of tRNA is:
(1) Inverted L-shaped
Genetic Code
(2) S-shaped
76. Find out the incorrect match: (3) Y- shaped
(1) UUU - Phenylalanine (4) E-shaped
(2) UAG - Sense codon
(3) GUG - Valine 84. Which type of RNA has a structure
(4) UGG – Tryptophan resembling clover leaf?
(1) rRNA (2) hn-RNA
77. In-vitro template independent RNA
(3) mRNA (4) tRNA
synthesis is a feature of:
(1) RNA polymerase 85. Which of the following is formed in
(2) Reverse transcriptase nucleolus:
(3) Ochoa enzyme
(1) r RNA (2) t RNA
(4) DNA polymerase
(3) m–RNA (4) DNA
78. 64 Codons constitute genetic code
because: 86. Which is soluble RNA:
(1) There were 64 types of amino acid (1) hnRNA (2) rRNA
(2) 64 types of tRNA (3) mRNA (4) tRNA
(3) Genetic code is triplet
(4) There are 64 enzymes 87. Protein synthesis in an animal cell
occurs:
79. Which codon gives signal for the start of
polypeptide (protein) chain synthesis: (1) On ribosomes present in cytoplasm
(1) AUG (2) UGA as well as in mitochondria
(3) GUA (4) UAG (2) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus
as well as in cytoplasm
80. The function of non-sense codons is:
(3) Only on ribosomes attached to the
(1) To release polypeptide chain from
nuclear envelope and endoplasmic
tRNA
(2) To form an unspecified amino acid reticulum
(3) To terminate the message of a gene (4) Only on the ribosomes present in
(4) To convert a sense strand into non– cytosol
sense strand

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 55

88. In bacteria, catalytic RNA is found in: 95. For which codon, there is no tRNA.
(1) 60S subunit of ribosome (1) UAG (2) UGU
(2) 50S subunit of ribosome (3) UAC (4) UAU
(3) 30S subunit of ribosome
Gene Regulation
(4) 40S subunit of ribosome
96. In lac operon, the regulator gene codes for:
89. UTR (Untranslated Region) of mRNA are
(1) Apo-repressor
(a) Found towards 5`end after start
(2) Corepressor
codon. (3) Inactive repressor
(b) Present towards 3’ end after stop (4) Active repressor
codon.
(c) Required for efficient translation 97. Mark the incorrect option w.r.t. lac operon:
(1) It is under positive as well as negative
process.
control
(1) Only b is correct.
(2) Controls catabolic pathway
(2) Only b and c are correct.
(3) Shows feedback repression
(3) Only a and b are correct.
(4) Discovered by Jacob and Monod
(4) All are correct.
98. Repressor of lac-operon:
90. For translation mRNA is attached with: (1) Is synthesised by a constitutive gene
(1) E.R. (2) Ribosome (2) Lacks DNA-binding site
(3) Nucleus (4) Lysosome (3) Binds at promoter of lac-operon
(4) Is made by operator gene
91. Translation is the process in which:
(1) DNA is formed on DNA template 99. Gene which is responsible for the
(2) RNA is formed on DNA template synthesis of a polypeptide chain is
called:
(3) DNA is formed on RNA template
(1) Promotor gene
(4) Protein is formed on RNA template
(2) Structural gene
92. Which of the following is not correct (3) Terminator gene
about translation: (4) Operator gene
(1) It starts with AUG 100. The Functioning of structural genes is
(2) Stopped at termination codon controlled by:
(3) It requires ribosomes (1) Operator (2) Promoter
(4) Occurs inside nucleus in eukaryotic (3) Ligase (4) Regulator genes
cells
101. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
93. Which of the following RNA plays referred to as:
structural and catalytic role during (1) Positive regulation
translation: (2) Negative regulation
(1) mRNA (2) tRNA (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None
(3) rRNA (4) All
102. Which is incorrect:
94. Transfer of genetic information from a
(1) i-gene codes for the repressor of
polymer of nucleotides to a polymer of
lac operon
amino acids is: (2) z-gene codes for beta-
(1) Replication galactosidase
(2) Transcription (3) y-gene codes for transacetylase
(3) Translation (4) Three gene products are required
(4) Reverse transcription for metabolism of lactose

56
56 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
103. Find out the correct sequence of structural 110. The minimum requirement for mutation is:
genes in lac operon: (1) Change of triplet codon
(1) y, a, z (2) a, z, y
(2) Change in single nucleotide
(3) z, y, a (4) z, a, y
(3) Change in whole DNA
Mutation (4) Change in single strand of DNA

104. Mutation is: 111. Frame shift mutation occurs due to

(1) An abrupt or discontinuous change (1) Insertion
in genetic material which is
(2) Deletion
inherited
(3) Transversion
(2) A factor for plant growth
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) A change which affects parents only
and is never inherited 112. The most striking example of frame
(4) A change which affects the offspring of shift mutation was found in a disease
F2 generation
called:
105. The exchange of chromosomal parts (1) Sickle cell anaemia
between two non-homologous (2) Colour blindness
chromosomes is termed as:
(3) Albinism
(1) Crossing over
(2) Translocation (4) Thalassemia
(3) Inversion 113. If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine,
(4) Transition
then it becomes:
106. Which of the following can be called a (1) Triploid (2) Tetraploid
mutation: (3) Diploid (4) Monoploid
(1) The halving of the chromosome
number after meiosis 114. A class of mutation induced by addition
(2) The doubling of the chromosome or deletion of a nucleotide is called:
number after syngamy (1) Missense (2) non-sense
(3) The possession of an additional (3) Substitution (4) Frame shift
chromosome
115. Change in just one base pair of a gene
(4) All the above
is called as
107. Mutations are generally: (1) Point mutation
(1) Dominant (2) Aneuploidy
(2) Recessive
(3) Gross mutation
(3) Codominant
(4) Reverse mutation
(4) Incompletely dominant

108. Which of the following undergoes 116. The frequency of mutant gene in a
change in mutation: population is expected to increase if
(1) Chromosome that gene is:
(2) Structure of gene (1) Dominant
(3) Sequence of gene (2) Recessive
(4) Any of the above (3) Sex linked
109. Gene mutation is caused: (4) Favourably selected
(1) Due to reproduction 117. Chromosome number 2n-1 is an
(2) Due to linkage
example of:
(3) Due to change in sequence of N–bases
(1) Trisomy (2) Euploidy
(4) Due to change in sequence of genes
(3) Polyploidy (4) Monosomy
in DNA

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 57

118. After a mutation at a genetic locus, the DNA Finger Printing
character of an organism changes due
125. Mark the correct one (w.r.t. application
to the change in:
of DNA fingerprinting):
(1) Protein structure
(2) DNA replication pattern (1) Forensic science
(3) Protein synthesis pattern (2) Determining the population diversity
(4) RNA synthesis pattern. (3) Determining the genetic diversity
(4) More than one option is correct
HGP 126. In the technique of DNA fingerprinting
119. How many locations have been digestion of DNA is followed by:
identified in human genome where (1) Electrophoresis
single base differences occur? (2) Denaturation
(1) 1.4 million (2) 14 million (3) Hybridisation
(3) 1.4 billion (4) 14 billion (4) Southern blotting

120. What is incorrect for human chromosome 1? 127. Read the following statements:
(1) It is one of the largest A. Variation at genetic level arises due
chromosomes to mutations.
(2) Its sequence was completed in May B. Technique of DNA fingerprinting
2007 was initially developed by Alec
(3) It has maximum number of genes Jeffreys
(4) It was the last chromosome to be (1) Only (B) is correct
sequenced (2) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(3) Only (A) is correct
121. The non-human model organisms
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect
sequenced in parallel with Human
Genome project were? 128. In DNA fingerprinting, detection of
(1) A nematode and fruit fly hybridised DNA fragments is possible by:
(2) Wheat and rice (1) Electrophoresis
(3) Fish and birds (2) Blotting
(4) Garden pea and fruit fly (3) Autoradiography
122. The approximate number of genes (4) Centrifugation
contained in the genome of Kalpana 129. When the genomes of two people are
Chawla was: cut using the same restriction enzyme,
(1) 40000 (2) 30000 the length and number of fragments
(3) 80000 (4) 100000 obtained are different, this is called:
123. The total number of nitrogenous base (1) PCR
pairs in human genome is estimated to (2) RFLP
be about: (3) EST
(1) 3.5 million (2) 35 thousand (4) Northern blotting
(3) 35 million (4) 3.2 billion
130. Which of the following does not code
124. Which of the following is not for any proteins?
associated with HGP: (1) Micro-satellites
(1) Bioinformatics (2) Exons
(2) Cloning vectors BAC & YAC (3) Mini-satellites
(3) Automated DNA sequencers (4) More than one option is correct.
(4) VNTR

58
58 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
131. In which step of DNA profiling, nitrocellulose 135. The method of DNA fingerprinting
membrane is used? involves the use of:
(1) Denaturation (1) Restriction enzymes
(2) Autoradiography (2) Taq polymerase
(3) Blotting (3) Oligonucleotide primers
(4) DNA amplification (4) All the above

132. Repetitive sequences are stretches of 136. In density gradient centrifugation, the
DNA with repeated base sequences in a bulk DNA forms____ while satellite DNA
genome, but: forms______:
(a) These sequences are of no transcriptional (1) Major peak; Minor peak
function (2) Minor peak; Major peak
(b) These are associated with euchromatin (3) Major peak; Major peak
region (4) Minor peak; Minor peak
(c) These helps to identify a person
137. Which step is not correct in DNA finger
based on its DNA specificity
printing?
(1) All are correct
(1) Isolation of DNA
(2) Only (b) is incorrect
(2) Digestion of DNA by DNA ligase
(3) Both (a) & (b) are correct
enzyme
(4) Both (b) & (c) are incorrect
(3) Separation of DNA by electrophoresis
133. The microsatellites have simple sequences (4) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR
of repeated: probe
(1) 11-60 bp (2) 1-6 bp
138. DNA fingerprinting method is very
(3) 10 bp (4) 50 bp
useful for:
(1) DNA tests for identity and
134. The transfer of protein from
relationships
electrophoretic gel to nitrocellulose
(2) Forensic studies
membrane is known as:
(3) Polymorphism
(1) Eastern blotting
(4) All of the above
(2) Northern blotting
(3) Western blotting
(4) Southern blotting

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 59

 Exercise – II

1. Following structure is related to which 8. NHC structural proteins are:

compound? (1) Basic proteins rich in lysine, arginine
O (2) Regulatory proteins
H–N (3) Catalytic proteins rich in tryptophan
and arginine
O (4) Required for packaging of chromatin
N
at higher levels.
H
(1) Adenine (2) Guanine 9. Which of the following is
(3) Uracil (4) Thymine complementary to adenine base in RNA:
2. The following ratio is characteristic of (1) Guanine
a given species: (2) Cytosine
(1) A + G / C + T (2) T + C / G + A (3) Uracil
(3) A + T / G + C (4) A + C / T + G (4) Thymine

3. If base order in one chain of DNA is 10. The smallest RNA is:
"ATCGA" then how many H–bonds are (1) rRNA (2) mRNA
found in DNA duplex: (3) tRNA (4) nuclear RNA
(1) 20 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 11
11. tRNA attaches, amino acid at its:
4. In DNA purine nitrogen bases are: (1) 3' end (2) 5' end
(1) Uracil and Guanine (3) Anticodon (4) Loop
(2) Guanine and Adenine
(3) Adenine and cytosine 12. Anticodons are found in:
(4) None (1) m RNA (2) t RNA
(3) r RNA (4) all
5. If the sequence of bases in one strand
of DNA is known then the sequence in 13. A bacterium with completely radioactive
other strand can be predicted on the DNA was allowed to replicate in a non-
basis of: radioactive medium for two generations
(1) Antiparallel nature what % of the bacteria should contain
(2) Complementarity radioactive DNA:
(3) Polarity (1) 100% (2) 50% (3) 25% (4)12.5%
(4) Coiling
14. DNA polymerase enzyme is required for
6. In the base sequence of one strand of the synthesis of:
DNA is GAT, TAG, CAT, GAC what shall (1) DNA From DNA
be the sequence of its complementary
(2) DNA from RNA
strand:
(3) Both the above
(1) CAT, CTG, ATC, GTA
(4) DNA from nucleosides
(2) GTA, ATC, CTG, GTA
(3) ATC, GTA, CTG, GTA 15. The replication of parental DNA strand
(4) CTA, ATC, GTA, CTG having polarity 5’→ 3’, with respect to
replicating fork is
7. The strand of DNA, which does not
code for anything is referred to as: (1) Discontinuous
(1) Template strand (2) Continuous
(2) Antisense strand (3) Conservative
(3) Coding strand (4) Not necessary
(4) Non-coding strand

60
60 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
16. Mode of DNA replication in E. coli is: 23. Removal of introns and joining of exons
(1) Conservative and unidirectional is called:
(2) Semi conservative and unidirectional (1) Capping (2) Tailing
(3) Conservative and bidirectional (3) Splicing (4) All
(4) Semi conservative and bidirectional
24. Which of the following is true about
17. Replication fork is: poly (a) tail?
(1) Large opening of the DNA helix P. It is synthesized post-transcriptionally
(2) Small opening of the DNA helix Q. It is usually shorter than 300 nucleotides
(3) Tightly coiled part of DNA hellix R. One of its functions is to protect
(4) Loosely coiled part of DNA helix the mRNA from cytoplasmic RNases
18. Mature eukaryotic mRNA is recognised S. One of its functions is to stimulate
by: translation
(1) Presence of both introns and exons (1) P only (2) Q & R
(2) 7-methyl guanosine triphosphate (3) Q & S (4) P, Q, R & S
cap at 5' end and polyadenylate tail
25. If genetic code is tetraplet then what is
at 3' end
the possible number of codons which
(3) Presence of introns only
code 20 types of amino acids:
(4) Presence of coding and noncoding
(1) 261 (2) 64 (3) 256 (4) 43
sequences
26. Nirenberg synthesized an mRNA
19. Transcription unit in DNA has:
containing 34 poly-Adenine (A-A-A-A-
(1) Promoter (2) Structural gene
A-A-----) and found a polypeptide
(3) Terminator (4) All
formed of 11 poly-lysine this proved
20. Read the following statements and that genetic code for lysine was:
select the correct option (1) One-adenine (2) A-A doublet
A. The strand with polarity 5’ → 3’ (3) A-A-A triplet (4) Many adenines
(coding strand) in DNA has the
27. Termination of chain growth in protein
sequence same as mRNA, except
synthesis is brought about by:
thymine at the place of uracil.
(1) UUG, UGC, UCA
B. The synthesis of mRNA occurs in 5’
(2) UCG, GCG, ACC
→ 3’ direction
(3) UAA, UAG, UGA
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only B is correct (4) UUG, UAG, UCG
(3) Both statement A and B are correct 28. Genetic code determines:
(4) Both A and B incorrect (1) Structural pattern of an organism
21. In tailing, adenylate residues are added (2) Sequence of amino acids in protein
at 3' end: chain
(1) With the help of guanyl transferase (3) Variation in offsprings
(2) In a template independent manner (4) Constancy of morphological trait
(3) With the help of methyl transferase 29. Which one of the following triplet
(4) In hn-RNA of E.coli
codes, is correctly matched with its
22. Portion of gene which is transcribed specificity for an amino acid in protein
but not translated is: synthesis or as 'start' or 'stop' codon:
(1) Exon (2) Intron (1) UCG – Start (2) UUU – Stop
(3) Cistron (4) Codon (3) UGU – Leucine (4) UAG – Stop

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 61

30. Degeneration of genetic code is 36. Which one of the following statements
attributed to the: is true for protein synthesis
(1) First member of a codon (translation):
(2) Second member of a codon (1) Amino acids are directly recognized
(3) Entire codon by mRNA
(4) Third member of a codon (2) The third base of the codon is less
31. A strand of DNA has following base specific
sequence 3'–AAAAGTGACTAGTGA–5'. (3) Generally only one codon codes for
On transcription, it produces an m– an amino acid
RNA. which of the following anticodon (4) Every tRNA molecule has more than
of t–RNA recognizes the third codon of one amino acid attachment site
this mRNA:
(1) AAA (2) CUG 37. Consider the given tRNA
(3) GAC (4) CTG 3
5
32. Given below is the sequence of
processed mRNA ready for translation
5'–AUG CUA UAC UAA CUG CCA UGC
UAG-3' How many amino acids will be UAC
present in polypeptide chain
Which of the given conclusions can be
corresponding to this mRNA:
drawn from the above tRNA?
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 3
(1) It will bind at AUG codon of mRNA.
33. Out of 64 codons only 61 code for the (2) It is having an amino acid
20 different amino acids. This character methionine at its 3’ end.
of genetic code is called: (3) The loop with UAC is anticodon loop
(1) Degeneracy
of this tRNA.
(2) Non ambiguous nature
(4) Genetic code is triplet and comma
(3) Ambiguous nature
less in nature.
(4) Overlapping
34. Khorana & his colleagues synthesized an 38. Which of the following RNA plays
RNA molecule with repeating sequences structural and catalytic role during
of U and G N2–bases. The RNA with translation:
"UGU GUG UGU GUG" produced a tetra (1) mRNA (2) tRNA
peptide with alternating sequences of (3) rRNA (4) All
cysteine and valine. This proves that
39. Select the odd statement w.r.t. lac-
codons for cysteine & valine are
(1) UGG, GUU (2) UUG, GGU operon.
(3) UGU & GUG (4) GUG & UGU (1) Essentially, regulation of lac-operon
can be visualized as regulation of
35. What would happen if in a gene encoding enzyme synthesis by its substrate.
a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th
(2) A very low level of expression of
codon (UAU) is mutated to UAA:
lac-operon has to be present in the
(1) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will
cell all the time, otherwise lactose
be formed
(2) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 cannot enter the cells.
amino acids will be formed (3) Regulation of lac operon by
(3) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will repressor is referred to as negative
be formed regulation.
(4) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will (4) lac-operon can never be under
be formed control of positive regulation.

62
62 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
40. What does "lac" refer to, in what we 47. Haploids are preferred over diploids for
call the lac operon: mutation studies because:
(1) Lactose (1) Recessive mutation is expressed in F1
(2) Lactase (2) Recessive mutation is expressed in F2
(3) Lac insect (3) Dominant phenotype is expressed
(4) The number 1,00,000 (4) Dominant phenotype is supressed

41. Which of the following is not produced 48. Type of gene mutation which involves
by E.Coli in the lactose operon: replacement of purine with pyrimidine or
vice versa (OR) the substitution of one
(1) -galactosidase
type of base with another type of base is:
(2) Transacetylase (1) Transduction (2) Transversion
(3) Lactose dehydrogenase
(3) Translocation (4) Transcription
(4) Lactose permease
49. If a mutation may not be visible in
42. A functional complex comprising a cluster
successive generations it is called as a:
of genes including structural gene, a
(1) Deletion
promoter gene, an operator gene and a
(2) Dominant mutation
regulator gene was discovered by:
(3) Recessive mutation
(1) Beadle and Tatum (1958)
(2) Watson and crick (1953) (4) Segregation
(3) Jacob and Monod (1961) 50. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of:
(4) Britten and Davidson (1961) (1) Frame shift mutation
43. The accessibility of promotor regions of (2) Point mutation
prokaryotic DNA by RNA polymerase is (3) Segmental mutation
in many cases regulated by the (4) Gibberish mutation
interaction of some proteins with
51. Which step is not involved in DNA
sequences termed as:
finger printing?
(1) Promoter (2) Operator
(1) Southern blotting
(3) Regulator (4) Cistron
(2) Gel electrophoresis
44. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is (3) Restriction enzyme digestion
referred to as: (4) Northern blotting
(1) Positive regulation
(2) Negative regulation 52. The technique of transferring DNA
(3) Both (1) and (2) fragment separated on agarose gel to a
(4) None synthetic membrane such as nitrocellulose
is know as:
45. Which is the primary step for regulation
(1) Northern blotting
of gene expression:
(2) Southern blotting
(1) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to
(3) Western blotting
the cytoplasm
(4) Dot blotting
(2) Translational level
(3) RNA Processing level 53. Which of the following techniques are
(4) Transcriptional level used in analysing restriction fragment
length polymorphism (RFLP)?
46. To be evolutionarily successful the (a) Electrophoresis
mutation must occur in: (b) Electroporation
(1) Somatoplasm (c) Methylation
(2) Germplasm (d) Restriction digestion
(3) Nucleoplasm
(1) a and c (2) c and d
(4) Both somatoplasm and germplasm
(3) a and d (4) b and d

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 63

54. Assertion: If an enzyme called beta- 61. Discovery of Nuclein by Meischer and
galactosidase is synthesised by E. coli, propositions for principles of
it is used to catalyse the hydrolysis of inheritance by Mendel were at
lactose. (1) Distinct times
Reason: It is the metabolic, physiological
(2) Exactly same time
or environmental conditions that regulate
(3) Almost same time
the expression of genes. (4) Both 2 and 3
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A. 62. Griffith’s transforming principle is .
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not (1) DNA (2) RNA
the correct explanation of A. (3) Protein (4) All
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false. 63. As per conclusion by Griffith R strain
bacteria had somehow been
55. Find odd one out w.r.t. RNA and its transformed by
nitrogen bases.
(1) Heat killed R strain
(1) Adenine
(2) Live S strain
(2) 5-methyl Uracil
(3) Heat killed S strain
(3) Guanine
(4) Both live R and heat killed R
(4) cytosine

56. Which among the following is not 64. The steps followed by Hershey and
common to both DNA and RNA. Chase in their experiment are.
(1) Adenine (2) Uracil (1) Infection (2) Blending
(3) Guanine (4) Cytosine (3) Centrifugation (4) All

57. Nitrogen bases form N-glycosidic 65. In which of the following, RNA is not
linkage with. the genetic material.
(1) (2’ C) OH of pentose sugar (1) TMV
(2) (3’ C) OH of pentose sugar (2) QB Bacteriophage
(3) (1’ C) OH of pentose sugar (3) E. coli
(4) HIV
(4) (5’ C) OH of pentose sugar

66. DNA differs from RNA with respect to:–

58. When phosphate group is linked to OH
(1) Pentose sugar
of 5’C of a nucleoside, then it forms.
(2) N-base
(1) Phosphodiester linkage (3) Applicability of Chargaff’s rules
(2) Phosphoester linkage (4) All of the above
(3) corresponding nucleotide
(4) both 2 and 3 are correct 67. RNA usually does not follow
complementary base pairing rule,
59. Which of the following bond is not
except at the time of its
associated with a deoxyribonucleotide.
(1) Mutation (2) Replication
(1) Phosphoester bond
(3) Transcription (4) Translation
(2) Glycosidic bond
(3) Phosphodiester bond 68. Deoxynucleoside triphosphates are high
(4) More than one option is correct energy phosphates, they serve in
replication.
60. Find odd one out w.r.t. Nucleotides of (1) As substrate
DNA. (2) As Energy source
(1) dAMP (2) dUMP (3) As enzyme
(3) dGMP (4) dCMP (4) Both 1 and 2

64
64 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
69. The replication occurs within a very 76. It is the presence of a in a
small opening of the DNA helix, transcription unit that also defines the
referred to as. template and coding strands.
(1) Replication fork (1) Promoter
(2) Origin of replication (2) Structural gene
(3) Promoter (3) Terminator
(4) Operator
(4) Terminator

77. The DNA sequences coding for mRNA,

70. DNA polymerase can replicate DNA
tRNA, and rRNA define a
(1) Only in 3’ → 5’ direction
(1) Gene (2) Cistron
(2) Only in 5’ → 5’ direction
(3) Exon (4) Intron
(3) Only in 5’ → 3’ direction
(4) Only in 3’ → 3’ direction 78. In bacteria for synthesis of three major
types of RNA
71. On template strand with polarity 3’ → 5’ (1) Three types of RNA polymerases are
present
replication is while on template
(2) Only one type of RNA polymerase is
strand with polarity 5’ → 3’ replication
present
is
(3) Three types of DNA polymerases are
(1) Continuous, discontinuous
present
(2) Discontinuous, continuous (4) Only one type of DNA polymerase is
(3) Discontinuous, discontinuous present
(4) Continuous, continuous
79. RNA polymerase in transcription is only
72. Which of the following functions is not capable of
associated with DNA ligase enzyme? (1) Initiation
(1) Joining of DNA fragments (2) Termination
(2) Joining of RNA fragments (3) Elongation
(3) Creation of phosphodiester bond (4) More than one option correct
(4) Joining of Okazaki fragments 80. Which among the following does not
require DNA template during RNA
73. There is a definite region in DNA where processing?
the replication begins, it is known as- (1) Capping (2) Tailing
(1) Replication fork (3) Splicing (4) All
(2) Origin of replication
81. Which RNA is known for the presence
(3) Promoter
of un-usual bases in it?
(4) Terminator
(1) mRNA (2) rRNA
(3) tRNA (4) All
74. Failure in cell division after DNA
replication results in:– 82. The codon is read in mRNA in a
contiguous fashion, there are no
(1) Monoploidy (2) Polyploidy (1) Stop codons (2) Start codons
(3) Haploidy (4) Aneuploidy (3) Punctuations (4) Sense codons

75. The DNA sequence that provides 83. From bacteria to human UUU will code
for phenylalanine, it shows codons are.
binding site for RNA polymerase to (1) Ambiguous
unwind DNA, is known as (2) Universal
(1) Operator (2) Structural gene (3) Degenerate
(3) Terminator (4) Promoter (4) Without punctuation

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 65

84. It codes for methionine and it also acts 91. When the small subunit of ribosome
as initiator codon, it is encounters an mRNA, the process of
(1) UUU (2) AUG translation of the mRNA to protein
(3) UGA (4) UAA (1) Ends
(2) Begins
85. UAA, UAG, UGA are (3) Completes
(1) Sense codons (4) Becomes halted
(2) Start codons
92. There are two sites in the large subunit
(3) Stop codons
of ribosome, for subsequent amino
(4) both 2 and 3 are correct
acids to bind to and thus, be close
86. By following the sequence of amino enough to each other for the formation
acids in a polypeptide chain, sequence of a
of bases in mRNA (1) Phosphoester bond
(1) Can not be predicted (2) Peptide bond
(2) Can be predicted exactly (3) Phosphodiester bond
(3) Can be predicted but not exactly (4) More than one option correct
(4) More than one option correct
93. If two charged tRNAs are brought close
87. Genetic code is always enough, the formation of between
(1) Doublet in nature them would be favoured energetically.
(2) Triplet in nature (1) Phosphoester bond
(3) Doublet or triplet (2) Peptide bond
(4) Variable within organisms (3) Phosphodiester bond
(4) More than one option correct
88. Process in which genetic information
contained within the order of 94. The UTRs are present at both 5' -end
nucleotides in messenger RNA (mRNA) (before start codon) and at 3' -end
is interpreted to generate the linear (after stop codon). They are required
sequences of amino acids in proteins is for efficient
known as. (1) Translation
(1) Translation (2) Replication
(2) Transcription (3) Transcription
(3) Reverse transcription (4) Both 2 and 3
(4) Replication
95. Which of the following produces a
89. The first phase where amino acids are
repressor protein that binds to operator
activated in the presence of ATP and
gene and prevents the loading of RNA
linked to their cognate tRNA – a
Polymerase enzyme on promoter.
process commonly called as.
(1) Inhibitory gene
(1) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(2) Repressor gene
(2) Charging of tRNA
(3) Regulatory gene
(3) Translation
(4) All of the above
(4) Both 1 and 2

96. If mutation affects inducer–binding site

90. The ribosome consists of structural
of repressor of lac operon in E.coli.
RNAs and about
(1) Lac operon remains OFF
(1) 80 different amino acids
(2) Lac operon remains ON
(2) 20 different amino acids
(3) No effect on Lac operon
(3) 80 different proteins
(4) More than one option correct
(4) 20 different proteins

66
66 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
97. If mutation affects operator–binding 104. The sequence of chromosome 1 was
site of repressor of lac operon in E.coli. completed only in
(1) Lac operon remains OFF (1) 1st May 2006
(2) Lac operon remains ON (2) 1st May 2003
(3) No effect on Lac operon (3) 1st May 1990
(4) More than one option correct (4) 1st May 2000

98. If non-sense mutation occurs in lac-y 105. Polymorphism of restriction

gene of lac operon: endonuclease recognition sites on
(1) z and a will form protein human genome, is called as
(2) no protein synthesis (1) RFLP
(3) only lac-z will express (2) VNTR
(4) only lac-y will express (3) STR
(4) More than one option correct
99. If E. coli is provided with lactose and
glucose together, lac-operon will . 106. Scientists have identified about 1.4
(1) Express normally million locations where single-base
(2) Not express DNA differences occur in human
(3) first express then becomes OFF genome, known as
(4) First remain OFF then becomes ON (1) RFLP (2) VNTR
(3) STR (4) SNPs
100. In eukaryotes, gene regulation is not
107. nucleotide bases are exactly the
exerted at:
same in all people.
(1) Transcription level
(1) 90% (2) 99.9%
(2) Translation level
(3) 99% (4) 50%
(3) Processing level
(4) Replication level 108. The size of VNTR varies in size from.
(1) 10-20kb (2) 1-20kb
101. The blind approach of simply
(3) 0.1-20kb (4) 1-6bp
sequencing the whole set of genome
that contained all the coding and non-
109. The sensitivity of the DNA fingerprinting
coding sequences is termed as:
technique has been increased by use of
(1) Expressed Sequence Tags
(1) PCR (2) VNTR
(2) Sequence Annotation
(3) STR (4) SNPs
(3) Automated DNA Sequencer
(4) Both 1 and 2
110. Technique of DNA Finger Printing
102. In HGP the commonly used hosts were Involves the Following Major Steps,
bacteria and yeast, and the vectors except
were: (1) Isolation of DNA
(1) BAC (2) Separation of DNA fragments
(2) YAC (3) Digestion of DNA fragments
(3) – bacteriophage (4) Gel electrophoresis
(4) Both 1 and 2
111. Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA
fragments to synthetic membranes,
103. Automated DNA sequencers used in
such as nitrocellulose or nylon is called
HGP worked on the principle of a
as
method developed by
(1) Northern blotting
(1) Frederick Sanger
(2) Southern blotting
(2) Friedrich Meischer
(3) Western blotting
(3) Francis Crick
(4) More than one option correct
(4) Griffith

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 67

112. The appearance of specific restricted 120. Among the following which statement
fragment length pattern on DNA is correct regarding the promoter of the
fingerprint which is different in gene:
different individuals is called as (1) It is always located upstream of
(1) RFLP (2) VNTR translation start site
(3) STR (4) Minisatellite (2) It is always located downstream of
113. Bond between phosphate and sugar in translation start site
a nucleotide is: (3) Different promoter elements are
(1) H–bond recognized by different RNA
(2) Covalent bond polymerases
(3) Phosphodiester bond (4) Promoters are recognized by 
(4) Disulphide bond factor
114. Length of one loop of B-DNA:
121. What is incorrect for UTR?
(1) 3.4 nm. (2) 0.34 nm.
(1) Present within the translational unit in
(3) 20 nm. (4) 10 nm.
mRNA
115. Chromatin is composed of: (2) Not recognised by any tRNA
(1) Nucleic acid, basic protein, and acidic (3) Required for efficient translation
protein process
(2) Nucleic acid and basic protein only (4) Provide stability to mRNA
(3) Nucleic acid and acidic protein only
(4) Nucleic acid only
122. The lac m-RNA of lac operon in E.coli:
116. Which of the following is called adaptor (1) Has more than one initiation and
molecule: termination codons
(1) DNA (2) mRNA (2) Forms four different enzymes
(3) tRNA (4) r-RNA (3) Is not produced in the presence of
117. Which of the following radioactive isotopes lactose
were utilised for labelling protein and DNA (4) Acts as a catalyst
in Hershey and Chase’s transduction
123. Which one of the following pairs of
experiment respectively?
terms/names mean one and the same
(1) 32P, 35P (2) 35S, 35P
(3) 35S, 32P (4) 32S, 36P thing?
(1) Gene pool- genome
118. cDNA probes are copied from the (2) Codon - gene
messenger RNA molecules with the
(3) Cistron - triplet
help of:
(4) DNA fingerprinting - DNA profiling
(1) Restriction enzymes
(2) Reverse transcriptase 124. Select odd one w.r.t. rRNA found in
(3) DNA polymerase eukaryotes.
(4) Adenosine deaminase (1) 18 S (2) 5 S
119. A DNA molecule in which both strands (3) 16 S (4) 5.8 S
have radioactive thymidine is allowed to
125. Who suggested that genetic code
duplicate in an environment containing
should constitute a combination of 3
non-radioactive thymidine. What will be
bases?
the exact number of DNA molecules
(1) George Gammow
that contains the radioactive thymidine
after 3 duplications: (2) M.W.Nirenberg
(1) One (2) Two (3) H.G. Khorana
(3) Four (4) Eight (4) Francis Crick

68
68 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
126. Which of the following mutations prove 133. In a polynucleotide chain nitrogenous
(s) that codon is a triplet and it is read base is linked to the pentose sugar
in a contiguous manner? through
(1) Frame-shift insertion mutation (1) N-glycosidic linkage
(2) Frame-shift deletion mutation (2) Phosphoester linkage
(3) Substitution mutation (3) Hydrogen bond
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Peptide bond
127. Which of the following codon has no-
degenerate codon? 134. Nucleotides are different from
(1) UGG – Tryptophan Nucleosides as the former have
(2) UUU - Phenylalanine (1) Pentose sugar
(3) GUG – Valine (2) Nitrogenous base
(4) CUC – Leucine (3) Phosphate group
128. Which of the following structures of (4) N-glycosidic linkage
adapter molecule looks like a clover
135. Experimental proof for semi-
leaf?
conservative nature of DNA replication
(1) Secondary (2) Tertiary
in eukaryotes was given by.
(3) Primary (4) Quaternary
(1) Altman
129. A cytidine molecule in a polynucleotide (2) Hershey and chase
chain contains (3) Taylor et al
A. Ribose sugar (4) Meselson and Stahl
B. Cytosine
C. N-glycosidic linkage 136. A completely radioactive double stranded
D. Phosphate group DNA molecule undergoes two rounds of
(1) A, B and C only replication in a non radioactive medium.
(2) All A, B, C and D What will be the radioactivity status of
(3) A and D only the four daughter molecules:
(4) B and C only (1) All four still contain radioactivity
130. All of the following are nucleosides (2) Radioactivity is lost from all four
present in RNA, except (3) Out of four, three contain radioactivity
(1) Guanosine (2) Thymidine (4) Half of the number contain no
(3) Cytidine (4) Uridine radioactivity

131. A nucleoside in a polynucleotide chain 137. Consider the following sequence on

has mRNA AUGGCAGUGCCA. Assuming that
(1) A pentose sugar and a nitrogenous genetic code is overlapping then how
base many codons may be present on this
(2) A nitrogenous base and a phosphate genetic code:
group
(1) 9 (2) 10
(3) A pentose sugar and a phosphate
(3) 8 (4) 11
group
(4) A pentose sugar and two phosphate 138. A normal DNA molecule is continuously
groups replicated in N15 medium then what is
the % of lighter DNA in 4th generation:
132. Deoxyribose sugar is not present in
(1) RNA (2) DNA (1) 12.5% (2) 25%
(3) ATP (4) both (1) and (3) (3) 0% (4) 6.25%

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 69

139. Find out the sequence of binding of the
following amino acyl- tRNA complexes
during translation of an mRNA transcribed (a) (b)
by a DNA segment having the base
sequence. 3' ATACCCATGGGG 5'.
Choose the answer showing the correct
order of alphabets:
(c) (d)

(a)
(1) a, b, c, d (2) d, a, b, c
(3) c, d, b, a (4) b, a, c, d
(b)
143. Suppose evolution on Earth has
occurred in such a way that there are
96 amino acids instead of 20. DNA has
(c) 12 different types of N-bases and DNA
synthesis occurs in the same way as
today. The minimum number of N-
(d) bases per m-RNA codon would be:
(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 3

(1) a, b, c, d (2) d, a, b, c 144. Assume that there are 6 types of

(3) a, b, d, c (4) b, a, c, d nitrogen bases available and 40 types
140. KHORANA synthesized two RNAs (a) of amino acids are available for protein
with repeated sequence of AB and (b) synthesis, then in genetic code each
with repeated sequence ABC. The codon should consist of minimum
polypeptides coded by (a) & (b) are _____ nitrogen bases?
respectively: (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2
(1) Homo polypeptides in both (a) and
145. In a DNA 3.2 kilobases are present. If
(b)
this DNA has 820 adenine residues,
(2) Hetero polypeptides in both
then what will be the number of
(3) Homo polypeptide in (a) & heteropoly
cytosine residues?
peptide in (b)
(1) 1560 (2) 1480
(4) Hetero polypeptide in (a) & homopoly
peptide in (b) (3) 780 (4) 740

141. Which of the following mRNAs are 146. Which statement is correct?
translated completely: (a) Degeneracy of genetic code is
(A) 5' AUG UGA UUA AAG AAA 3' generally related to third member
(B) 5' AUG AUA UUG CCC UGA 3' of a codon
(C) 5' AGU UCC AGA CUC UAA 3' (b) Single codon codes for more than
(D) 5' AUG UAC AGU AAC UAG 3' one amino acid
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (D) (c) In a codon first two bases are more
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (A) and (D) specific
(d) In codons, third base is wobble
142. In a mRNA sequence of N2-base is 5'
(e) Genetic code is nearly universal
AUG GUG CUC AAA' 3'. What is the
(1) a, b, c, d, e (2) a, b, d
correct sequence of anticodons which
recognizes codons of mRNA: (3) a, c, d (4) a, c, d, e

70
70 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
147. Both the strands of DNA are not copied 151. E. coli cells with a mutated z gene of
during transcription because: the lac operon cannot grow in medium
(1) If both strands act as templates, containing only lactose as the source of
they would code for RNA molecules energy because:
with different sequences (1) They cannot synthesize functional
(2) The two RNA molecules, if produced beta galactosidase
Simultaneously would be complementary
(2) They cannot transport lactose from
to each other, hence would form a
the medium into the cell
double stranded RNA
(3) The lac operon is constitutively
(3) They would code, for RNA molecules
active in these cells
with same sequence
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct (4) In the presence of glucose, E. coli
cells do not utilize lactose
148. The salient features of DNA are:
(i) It is made of two polynucleotide chains 152. Select the incorrect statement:
(ii) Back bone is constituted by sugar (1) DNA from single cell is enough to
and nitrogen base perform DNA fingerprinting analysis
(iii) Two chains have parallel polarity (2) DNA fingerprinting has much wider
(iv) Bases in two strands are paired through applications in determining population
H-bonds & genetic diversities.
(v) The two chains are coiled in a left- (3) The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite
handed fashion DNA referred as microsatellite.
(1) i, iv, v (2) i, iv
(4) DNA fingerprint differs from
(3) i, ii, v (4) i, ii, iii, iv, v
individual to individual in a
149. Which is/are incorrect for genetic code? population except in the case of
(i) The codon is triplet monozygotic twins.
(ii) 61 codons code for amino acids
(iii) Genetic code is unambiguous 153. Find out correct statements from the
(iv) Genetic code is nearly universal following which define DNA and RNA,
(v) AUG has dual functions respectively.
Options: a. Nucleic acids.
(1) only ii (2) ii & iii b. acts as genetic material in most of
(3) iii, iv & v (4) All are correct organisms.
c. mostly functions as messenger.
150. Which is/are correct?
(i) tRNA has an anticodon loop that has d. adapter, structural and catalytic
bases complementary to specific molecule.
codon e. can replicate as well as transcribe.
(ii) tRNA has an amino acid acceptor f best for storage of genetic
end information.
(iii) tRNAs are specific for each amino g. can replicate but do not transcribe.
acid h. best for transmission of genetic
(iv) For initiation, there is specific tRNA information.
that is referred to as initiator tRNA (1) a, b, f, g, h → DNA, a, b, c, f, g, h
(v) For termination there is specific tRNA
→ RNA
that is referred to as terminator tRNA
(2) a, b, e, f, → DNA, a, c, d, g, h → RNA
Options:
(1) i, ii (2) i, ii, iii (3) a, b, c, f → DNA, a, d, e, g → RNA
(3) i, ii, iii, iv (4) i, ii, iii, iv, v (4) a, b, c, d → DNA, e, f, g, h → RNA

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 71

154. Which among the following functions 157. Find out mismatch pair w.r.t.
can be performed by RNA but not by Nucleoside of DNA
DNA. (1) Deoxyadenosine → dA.
(1) Replication (2) Deoxyguanosine → dG
(2) Translation and catalytic role (3) Deoxythymosine → dT
(3) Storage of genetic information (4) Deoxycytidine → dC
(4) mutation
158. A double stranded DNA is being melted
155. Find out incorrect statement from the by increasing temperature, the result
following. is:–
(1) DNA is the most interesting (1) H-bonds of all N-bases will break
molecule of living system. simultaneously.
(2) Process of making DNA from RNA is (2) H-bonds between AT will break
known as transcription. early than GC.
(3) Genetic code determines the (3) H-bonds between GC will break
sequence of amino acids in a early than AT.
protein. (4) It will denature its all H-bonds
(4) The determination of complete simultaneously.
nucleotide sequence of an organism
is known as genome sequencing. 159. Which of the following is not present in
DNA.
156. Find odd one out from the following (1) 5-methyl uracil
matches. (2) 2OH of pentose sugar
(1) Bacteriophage ϕ × 174 → 2693 base (3) 3' OH of pentose sugar
pairs. (4) 3' → 5' phosphodiester bond
(2) Bacteriophage lambda → 48052
base pairs.
(3) Escherichia coli → 4.6 × 106 bps
(4) Haploid content of human → 3.3 ×
109 bps

72
72 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 Exercise – III
1. Assertion (A): Antiparallel polarity helps 4. Assertion (A): RNA is not the
in stability of DNA. predominant genetic material.
Reason (R): RNA being unstable, mutate
Reason (R): It allows complementary
at faster rate.
pairing between base pairs. (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
the correct explanation of the (A) (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(A)
not the correct explanation of the (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false 5. Assertion (A): In the same generation,
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false for transmission of genetic information
RNA is better than DNA.
2. Assertion (A): Positively charged Reason (R): The protein synthesizing
histone proteins are essential for machinery has evolved around RNA.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
packaging negatively charged DNA.
the correct explanation of the (A)
Reason (R): Without histone protein (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
DNA can not fold due to negative not the correct explanation of the
charge. (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
the correct explanation of the (A)
6. Assertion (A): Essential life processes
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
evolved around RNA.
not the correct explanation of the Reason (R): Beside genetic material
(A) RNA also act as catalyst.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the
3. Assertion (A): Unequivocal proof that
(A)
DNA is the genetic material came from
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Griffith's transformation experiment. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R): The biochemical nature of
7. Assertion (A): DNA replication is
genetic material was defined from energetically a very expensive process.
transformation experiment. Reason (R): Unwinding of DNA strands
is an active process, while pairing of
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
bases is a passive process.
the correct explanation of the (A)
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
not the correct explanation of the (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(A) not the correct explanation of the
(A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 73

8. Assertion (A): On template strand with 11. Assertion (A): Genetic code is
polarity 5'→ 3' DNA replication occurs in unambiguous & specific.
Reason (R): Some amino acids are
discontinouous manner.
coded by more than one codon.
Reason (R): DNA polymerase catalyses (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
polymerization only in one direction the correct explanation of the (A)
that is 5' → 3' (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(A)
the correct explanation of the (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
not the correct explanation of the 12. Assertion (A): An mRNA also has some
(A) additional sequences that are not
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false translated & are referred to as UTRs.
Reason (R): The UTRs are present at
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
both 5' end & at 3' end and they have
9. Assertion (A): The replication of DNA no specific function.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
and cell division cycle should be highly
the correct explanation of the (A)
coordinated. (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
Reason (R): A failure in cell division not the correct explanation of the
after DNA replication results into (A)
chromosomal anomaly. (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) 13. Assertion (A): It is the metabolic,
physiological or environmental conditions
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
that regulate the expression of genes.
not the correct explanation of the Reason (R): The genes in a cell are
(A) expressed to perform a particular
function or a set of functions.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
10. Assertion (A): The presence of introns
not the correct explanation of the
is reminiscent of antiquity & the (A)
process of splicing represents the (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
dominance of RNA world. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R): The split gene arrangement 14. Assertion (A): Lac operator is present
represents a modern feature of the only in lac operon & it interact
genome. specifically with lac repressor only.
Reason (R): Each operon has its
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
specific operator & specific repressor.
the correct explanation of the (A) (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
not the correct explanation of the (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the
(A)
(A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

74
74 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
15. Assertion (A): The gene I codes for the 18. Assertion (A): Many non-human model
repressor of the lac operon. organisms have also been sequenced
Reason (R): Their sequences can be
Reason (R): The y-gene codes for applied towards solving challenges in
permease, which increases permeability health care, agriculture, energy production
of the cell to -galactosidase. etc.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
the correct explanation of the (A) (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the
(A)
not the correct explanation of the
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false 19. Assertion (A): BAC & YAC are the
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false common vectors used in HGP.
Reason (R): IN HGP, sequencing was
16. Assertion (A): Lactose is the substrate done by automated DNA sequencers
for the enzyme -galactosidase & it that worked on methods of F. Sanger.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
regulates switching on & off the operon. the correct explanation of the (A)
Reason (R): A very low level of expression (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
of lac operon is always present in cell not the correct explanation of the
(A)
all the time.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
the correct explanation of the (A)
20. Assertion (A): The sequencing of
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is chromosome-1 was completed at last
not the correct explanation of the in May-2006.
Reason (R): Chromosome-1 in the
(A)
longest chromosome with maximum
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false number of genes.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A)
17. Assertion (A): HGP was closely (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the
associated with the rapid development
(A)
of a new area in biology called as (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Bioinformatics. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R): The enormons amount of 21. Assertion (A): DNA fingerprinting
data generated in HGP necessitated the involves identifying differences in some
use of high speed computational specific regions in DNA called as
repetitive DNA sequences.
devices for data storage & analysis. Reason (R): These sequences show high
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is degree of polymorphism & form the
the correct explanation of the (A) basis of DNA fingerprinting.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
not the correct explanation of the (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(A) not the correct explanation of the
(A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 75

22. Assertion (A): DNA polymorphism 25. Assertion (A): The sensitivity of
arises due to mutations. fingerprinting technique has been
increased by the use of PCR.
Reason (R): An inheritable mutation
Reason (R): DNA from a single cell is
which is observed in a population at not enough to perform DNA finger
high frequency, is referred to as DNA printing analysis.
polymorphism. (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A)
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) not the correct explanation of the
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (A)
not the correct explanation of the (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false 26. Assertion (A): DNA serves as hereditary
material.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R): DNA functions as blue-
23. Assertion (A): The VNTR belongs to a print for building and running cellular
machinery.
class of satellite DNA referred to as
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
mini-satellite. the correct explanation of the (A)
Reason (R): The mini-satellite numbers (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
remains same from chromosome to not the correct explanation of the (A)
chromosome in an individual. (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) 27. Assertion (A): DNA is chemically less
reactive as compared to RNA.
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
Reason (R): Some RNAs have the ability
not the correct explanation of the of catalysis.
(A) (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
not the correct explanation of the (A)
24. Assertion (A): In DNA fingerprinting, (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
after hybridization with VNTR probe,
the autoradiogram gives many bands of 28. Assertion (A): Both the strands of DNA
are not copied during transcription.
different sizes.
Reason (R): The two RNA molecules if
Reason (R): It differs from individual produced simultaneously would be
to individual in a population except complementary to each other, hence
fraternal twins. would form a double stranded RNA
which would prevent RNA from being
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
translated into protein.
the correct explanation of the (A) (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
not the correct explanation of the (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the
(A)
(A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

76
76 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
29. Assertion (A): The split gene 33. Assertion: - DNA is a long polymer of
arrangement represents probably the deoxyribonucleotides.
ancient feature of genome. Reason: -DNA as an acidic substance
Reason (R): The process of splicing present in the nucleus was first
represents the dominance of RNA identified by F. Meischer.
world. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of the (A)
the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(3) A is true but R is false.
not the correct explanation of the
(4) Both A and R are false
(A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false 34. Assertion: -Nitrogen bases form N-
glycosidic linkage with first carbon (1’
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
C) OH of pentose sugar.
30. Assertion (A): Among the two nucleic Reason: -It results in formation of a
acid, DNA is a better genetic material. corresponding nucleoside.
Reason (R): DNA chemically is less (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
reactive and structurally more stable correct explanation of A.
when compared to RNA. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of A.
the correct explanation of the (A) (3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the 35. Assertion: -If the length of DNA double
(A) helix in a typical mammalian cell having
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false total (6.6×109bps) is calculated, it
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false comes out to be approximately 2.2
metres.
31. Assertion: - The two strands of a ds- Reason: -The distance between two
DNA are complementary. consecutive base pairs is 0.34×10–9m.
Reason: -Base pairing in ds-DNA is (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
specific. correct explanation of A.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the (2) Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A. the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not (3) A is true but R is false.
the correct explanation of A. (4) Both A and R are false
(3) A is true but R is false. 36. Assertion: -In eukaryotes the packaging
(4) Both A and R are false and organisation of DNA is much more
complex as compared to prokaryotes.
32. Assertion: - RNA never acts as genetic
Reason: -There are required sets of
material.
positively charged histones and
Reason: -RNA viruses do not exist.
negatively charged NHC proteins.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A. the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false. (3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false (4) Both A and R are false

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 77

37. Assertion: -RNA was the first genetic 41. Assertion: -The DNA in genome of any
material. organism contains all the necessary
Reason: - There is now enough information to make all proteins of
evidence to suggest that essential life body.
processes evolved around RNA. Reason: -Protein synthesis requires
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the RNA which in turn is made on DNA
correct explanation of A. template.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
the correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not
(4) Both A and R are false the correct explanation of A.
38. Assertion: -When Griffith injected a (3) A is true but R is false.
mixture of heat killed S and live R (4) Both A and R are false
bacteria the mice died. 42. Assertion: -Central Dogma of molecular
Reason: -He concluded that S bacteria biology states unidirectional flow of
had somehow been transformed by R genetic information.
bacteria. Reason: -DNA is transcribed to form
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the RNA which is in turn translated to form
correct explanation of A. protein.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
the correct explanation of A.
correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
(4) Both A and R are false
the correct explanation of A.
39. Assertion:-Biochemical characterisation (3) A is true but R is false.
of transforming principle resulted in (4) Both A and R are false
the conclusion that it is DNA.
43. Assertion: DNA replication is semi-
Reason: -Digestion with DNase did
discontinuous.
inhibit transformation suggesting that
Reason: At leading strand synthesis is
DNA caused the transformation.
continuous and at lagging strand it is
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
discontinuous.
correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
the correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not
(4) Both A and R are false the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
40. Assertion: -The unequivocal proof that (4) Both A and R are false.
DNA is the genetic material came from
the experiment of Hershy and Chase. 44. Assertion: DNA replication is semi-
Reason: -They used labelled conservative in nature.
Bacteriophage on E. coli and followed Reason: In daughter DNA one strand is
infection, blending and centrifugation. new and another is old.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not (2) Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A. the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false. (3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false (4) Both A and R are false.

78
78 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
45. Assertion: DNA polymerase enzyme 49. Assertion: It is the presence of a
works on DNA template and produces promoter in a transcription unit that
daughter DNA. also defines the template and coding
Reason: It reads DNA and writes DNA. strands.
Reason: -The promoter is said to be
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
located towards the 5’ end of structural
correct explanation of A. gene with respect to coding strand.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
the correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not
(4) Both A and R are false. the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
46. Assertion: -In replication the two (4) Both A and R are false
strands of DNA separate and act as
50. Assertion: The primary transcript/
templates for synthesis of new hnRNA is non-functional w.r.t.
complementary strands. translation.
Reason: -The daughter DNA molecules Reason: -Primary transcript contains
have one parental and one newly both the functional exons and
synthesised strand. nonfunctional introns.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A.
the correct explanation of A. (3) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is true but R is false. (4) Both A and R are false
(4) Both A and R are false
51. Assertion: -In eukaryotes there are
47. Assertion: -In living cells such as E. coli complexities in transcription.
the process of replication requires a set Reason: -The primary transcript/pre-
of catalysts(enzymes). mRNA contains both the functional and
nonfunctional parts.
Reason: -The main enzyme is referred
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
to as DNA dependent DNA polymerase.
correct explanation of A.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the (2) Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A. the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not (3) A is true but R is false.
the correct explanation of A. (4) Both A and R are false.
(3) A is true but R is false. 52. Assertion: -There existed ample
(4) Both A and R are false evidences to support the notion that
change in nucleic acids were
48. Assertion: -A transcription unit in DNA
responsible for change in amino acids
is defined primarily by the three regions in proteins.
in the DNA. Reason: -In Sickle cell anaemia a
Reason: -Transcription unit contains a change in single nucleotide pair in DNA
promoter, the structural gene and a results in change of one amino acid in
terminator. –globin chain of haemoglobin.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A. the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false. (3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false (4) Both A and R are false.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 79

53. Assertion: -Since there are only 4 57. Assertion: Gene expression remains
bases in DNA/mRNA and if they have to under metabolic regulation.
code for 20 amino acids, the code Reason: In lac-operon lactose
should constitute a combination of undergoes hydrolysis by the enzyme –
bases.
galactosidase.
Reason: -In order to code for all 20
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
amino acids, the code should at least
be made up of three nucleotides. correct explanation of A.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the (2) Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A. the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not (3) A is true but R is false.
the correct explanation of A. (4) Both A and R are false.
(3) A is true but R is false.
58. Assertion: Lac-operon has a
(4) Both A and R are false.
polycistronic structural gene.
54. Assertion: -In translation mRNA is Reason: It includes lac-z, lac-y and lac-
interpreted to generate the linear
a structural genes that are regulated by
sequences of amino acids in proteins.
a common promotor and regulatory
Reason: -Translation refers to the
genes.
process of polymerisation of amino
acids to form a polypeptide using m- (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
RNA as a template. correct explanation of A.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the (2) Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A. the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not (3) A is true but R is false.
the correct explanation of A. (4) Both A and R are false.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false. 59. Assertion: -Operon system is very
common in bacteria.
55. Assertion: -There are two sites in the
Reason: -A polycistronic structural
large sub-unit of ribosome, for
gene is regulated by a common
subsequent amino acids to bind to.
promoter and regulatory genes.
Reason: - Amino acids should be close
enough to each other for the formation (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
of a peptide bond. correct explanation of A.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the (2) Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation of A. the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not (3) A is true but R is false.
the correct explanation of A. (4) Both A and R are false.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false. 60. Assertion: -Insertion or deletion of
one/two bases changes the reading frame
56. Assertion: Lac-operon is an inducible from the point of insertion or deletion.
operon.
Reason: - Genetic code is nearly
Reason: It remains under control of its
universal.
substrate for functioning.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A. the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false. (3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false. (4) Both A and R are false

80
80 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
61. Assertion: - One of the greatest 65. Read the following statements and find
impacts of having the HG sequence out correct option for it.
may well be enabling a radically new Statement A – When a phosphate group is
approach to biological research. linked to OH of 5`C of a nucleoside
Reason: - With whole-genome sequences through phosphodiester linkage, it forms
and new high-throughput technologies, a nucleotide.
we can approach questions systematically Statement B – Two nucleotides are
and on a much broader scale. linked through 3`→ 5` phosphoester
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the linkage to form a dinucleotide.
correct explanation of A. (1) Both statements A and B are
incorrect.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
(2) Both statements A and B are
the correct explanation of A.
correct.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(3) only statement A is correct
(4) Both A and R are false
(4) only statement B is correct.
62. Assertion: -The blind approach of 66. When a phosphate group is linked to
simply sequencing the whole set of 5’-OH of a nucleoside through (i)
genome included both coding and non- linkage a corresponding (ii) is formed.
coding sequence. (i) (ii)
Reason: -All genes are DNA segments (1) N-glycosidic linkage Nucleoside
but all DNA segments are not genes. (2) Phospho-ester linkage Nucleotide
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the (3) Phosphodiester linkage RNA
correct explanation of A. (4) C-glycosidic linkage DNA
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A. 67. Find out incorrect match from the
(3) A is true but R is false. following:
(4) Both A and R are false Column I Column II
63. Assertion: - Allelic sequence variation (1) ABCD Trisomy
ABCD
is described as DNA polymorphism if it
D
occurs at high frequency.
(2) ABCD Double Trisomy
Reason: - Occurrence of more than one
ABCD
variant (allele) at a locus in human
CD
population with a frequency greater
than 0.01 is referred to as DNA (3) A B C D Monosomy
polymorphism. A B – D
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the (4) A B – D Double monosomy
correct explanation of A. A B – D
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A. 68. Read the following statements and find
(3) A is true but R is false. out correct option for it.
(4) Both A and R are false A. Increase in the whole set of
chromosomes for a given species is
64. Assertion: The VNTR belongs to a class called polyploidy.
of satellite DNA referred to as B. Failure of cytokinesis before
minisatellite. anaphase stage of meiosis-II,
Reason: - A small DNA sequence is results in polyploidy.
arranged tandemly in many copy C. Polyploidy is often seen in plants and
numbers on chromosome. animals.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the (1) A is incorrect and B, C are correct.
correct explanation of A. (2) A and B are correct but C is
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not incorrect.
the correct explanation of A. (3) All A, B and C are correct.
(3) A is true but R is false. (4) Only A is correct and B, C are
(4) Both A and R are false incorrect.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 81

69. The chromosomal disorders can result 73. Read the following statements.
(a) A peptide bond is formed between the
due to in an organism.
COOH group of 1st amino acid and NH2
(1) absence of chromosomes group of 2nd amino acid.
(2) abnormal arrangement of chromo- (b) Ribosome is the cellular factor
responsible for synthesizing
somes
proteins.
(3) excess of chromosomes (c) Activation of amino-acids occurs in
(4) more than one option is correct the presence of ATP.
Which of the given statements are
correct w.r.t. translation?
70. Which among the following mutations
(1) (a) and (b) only
is correct for sickle cell anemia. (2) (b) and (c) only
(1) Point mutation (3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Substitution and single base pair
74. A polycistronic structural gene of lac
change.
operon is regulated by.
(3) Transversion (1) A common promoter and operator
(4) All are correct. genes.
(2) Promotor gene only.
71. The following statements describe (3) A common promoter and regulatory
genes.
some of the steps of translation. (4) Regulatory gene only.
(a) For chain elongation, the presence
75. Which of the following genes receives
of catalyst enhances the rate of
the product of regulatory gene.
peptide bond formation. (1) Promoter (2) Operator
(b) The process of translation of mRNA (3) Structural gene (4) Inhibitory gene.

to protein begins when both the 76. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
called.
subunits of ribosome encounter and
(1) Negative regulation
associate with mRNA simultaneously. (2) Positive regulation
(c) During chain elongation, the (3) Neutral regulation
(4) Both (2) and (3)
ribosomes move from codon to
77. The predominant-site for control of
codon along the mRNA. gene expression in prokaryotes is.
The correct statements are. (1) Transcriptional initiation
(2) Transcriptional elongation
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) Transcriptional termination
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) , (b) and (c) (4) Translational initiation
78. 0.1% of the human genome of
72. UTRs in mRNA are.
________base sequences are different
(1) Required for efficient translation among humans
process. (1) 3 × 106 (2) 3 × 103
(3) 3 × 10 9
(4) 3 × 1012
(2) Present at 5 end before start
79. Scientists have identified single base
codon.
DNA difference in humans at _____
(3) Present at 3 end before stop codon locations.
(1) 1.4 billion (2) 1.4 million
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 14 million (4) 14 thousand

82
82 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
80. Which of the following DNA segments 88. If the distance between two
have 0.1 to 20 kb length consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm, then
(1) Minisatellites (2) STRs the total length of nuclear DNA in a
(3) VNTRs (4) Both (1) & (3) human diploid cell is
81. Select the incorrect statement (s) w.r.t. (1) 6.6 × 109 m
regulatory gene of lac operon. (2) 6.6 × 109 × 0.34 m
(A) It is a constitutive gene. (3) 2.2 meters
(B) It is always functional. (4) 6.6 × 10–9 m
(C) It codes for repressor protein.
(D) It increases permeability of the cell 89. The number of base pairs in E. coli DNA
for β-galactosides. is
(1) (A), (B) only (2) (B), (C) only (1) 6.6 × 109 (2) 4.6 × 106
(3) (C), (D) only (4) (D) only (3) 0.34 × 106 (4) 1.36 × 109

82. The last step during DNA fingerprinting 90. Purine nucleosides have
is. (1) 5’→3’ phosphodiester bond
(1) Isolation of DNA (2) 1’–9 glycosidic linkage
(2) Gel electrophoresis (3) 1’ – 1 glycosidic linkage
(3) Autoradiography (4) H-bonds
(4) Hybridization
91. The packaged structure of DNA in
83. Which of the following methods is
prokaryotes is called as
involved in identifying all genes that are
(1) Nucleosome (2) Nucleoid
expressed as RNA?
(1) ESTs (3) Chromatin (4) Nucleus
(2) Sequence annotation 92. DNA was extracted from E. coli. The
(3) Gel electrophoresis
proportion of cytosine was found to be
(4) RFLP
30%, then what will be the amount of
84. Histone proteins are rich in adenine?
(1) Acidic amino acids (1) 60% (2) 70% (3) 20% (4) 40%
(2) Lysine and arginine
(3) Aspartate and glutamate 93. Who identified the biochemical nature
(4) Both (1) and (3) of transforming principle?
(1) Oswald Avery and Colin Macleod
85. Which one is a heterocyclic, 9
(2) Maclyn McCarty
membered double ring structure?
(3) F. Griffith
(1) Adenine (2) Guanine
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Uracil (4) All except 3
94. Select incorrect statement w.r.t.
86. Chargaff's equivalence rule is
applicable for characteristics of genetic material.
(1) Single stranded DNA (1) It should chemically and structurally
(2) Double stranded DNA be stable
(3) Single stranded RNA (2) It should be able to generate its
(4) All except (3) replica
(3) It should provide scope for rapid
87. If a DNA molecule is 1000 bp long then,
mutations
the number of N-glycosidic linkages is
(4) It should be able to express itself as
(1) 1000 (2) 2000
(3) 3000 (4) 4000 mendelian characters.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 83

95. RNA is labile and easily degradable and 100. In transcription unit, the promoter
unstable due to. sequence is located.
(1) Presence of free 2’OH. (1) Towards 5 end (upstream of the
(2) Presence of uracil. structural gene).
(3) Presence of deoxyribose. (2) Towards 5 end (downstream of the
(4) All except (3) structural gene).
(3) Towards 3 end (downstream of the
96. Choose the correct option w.r.t. rRNA
structural gene).
(1) Forms 5% of total RNA in a cell.
(4) Towards 3 end (upstream of the
(2) Plays catalytic role during structural gene).
translation.
101. If the sequence of sense strand of DNA
(3) Carries genetic information.
is 5 GCATGCATT 3, then what will be
(4) Soluble or adapter RNA.
the sequence of its primary transcript?
97. The expressed sequences in processed (1) 3 CGUACGUAU 5
RNA are called (2) 5 CGUAGCAUU 3
(1) HnRNA (2) introns (3) 3 GCAUGCAUU 5
(3) UTRs (4) Exons (4) 5 GCAUGCAUU 3

98. A transcription unit is defined by three 102. Select the correct option:
regions in DNA as. (1) Genes are located on DNA and
(1) Promoter, terminator, and inducer protein
(2) Gene is the functional unit of
(2) promoter, structural gene and
inheritance
terminator (3) A segment of DNA coding for a
(3) inducer, structural gene, and polypeptide is called a cistron
operator (4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) Promoter, operator, and structural 103. Which one is correctly matched
gene (1) RNA polymerase I-scRNA
(2) RNA Polymerase II-snRNA
99. The diagram given below is schematic (3) RNA Polymerase III-5.8s rRNA
structure of a transcription unit. (4) RNA Polymerase II-hnRNA
X Y M
Z 104. The structural gene that codes for
3 5 transacetylase enzyme which can
5 3 transfer acetyl group from acetyl Co-A
N
to β-galactosides is.
Select the correct option for the letters (1) lac-z (2) lac-a
used. (3) i-gene (4) lac-y
(1) X-Promoter, N-Template strand.
(2) Z-template strand, M-Transcription
start site.
(3) Y-Operator, N-Coding strand.
(4) Z-Template strand, N-Coding
strand.

84
84 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 Exercise – IV
[AIPMT (Pre – 2012)]
[NEET-UG – 2013]
1. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length 5. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a
Polymorphism are the methods for- cell in which there is a nonsense
(1) DNA sequencing mutation in the lac Y gene?
(1) Lactose permease and
(2) Genetic fingerprinting
transacetylase
(3) Study of enzymes (2)-galactosidase
(4) Genetic transformation (3) Lactose permease
(4) Transacetylase
[AIPMT (Mains – 2012)]
6. DNA fragments generated by the
2. What is it that forms the basis of DNA restriction endonucleases in a chemical
Fingerprinting? reaction can be separated by:
(1) The relative amount of DNA in the (1) Restriction mapping
(2) Centrifugation
ridges and grooves of the
(3) Polymerase chain reaction
fingerprints. (4) Electrophoresis
(2)Satellite DNA occurring as highly
[AIPMT – 2014]
repeated short DNA segments.
(3) The relative proportions of purines 7. Commonly used vectors for human
genome sequencing are -
and pyrimidines in DNA
(1) T-DNA
(4) The relative difference in the DNA (2) BAC and YAC
occurrence in blood, skin and saliva (3) Expression Vectors
(4) T/A Cloning Vectors
3. Read the following four statements (A-D)
(A) In transcription, adenosine pairs [AIIMS – 2014]
with uracil. 8. What is the correct sequence of DNA
(B) Regulation of lac operon by finger printing?
a. Separation of desired DNA fragments
repressor is referred to as positive
by gel electrophoresis
regulation. b. Digestion by restriction endonuclease
(C) The human genome has approximately c. Isolation of DNA
50000 genes. d. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR
(D) Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive probe
disease. e. Southern blotting
(1) a → b → c → d → e
How many of the above statements are
(2) b → d → e → a → c
correct?
(3) c → b → a → d → e
(1) Four (2) One (4) c → b → a → e → d
(3) Two (4) Three
[AIPMT – 2015]
4. Which one of the following is a wrong
statement regarding mutations? 9. In sea urchin DNA, which is double
stranded, 17% of the bases were shown
(1) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens
to be cytosine. The percentages of the
(2) Change in a single base pair of DNA other three bases expected to be
does not cause mutation present in this DNA are:
(3) Deletion and insertion of base pairs (1) G 17%, A16.5%, T32.5%
cause frame shift mutations. (2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(4) Cancer cells commonly show
(4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
chromosomal aberrations.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 85

10. Gene regulation governing lactose [AIIMS – 2015]
operon of E.coli that involves the lac I 15. Which of the following is involved in
gene product is - translation:
(1) Negative and inducible because (1) DNA
repressor protein prevents transcription (2) mRNA, tRNA, DNA
(2) Negative and repressible because (3) mRNA, tRNA
(4) Only mRNA
repressor protein prevents transcription
(3) Feedback inhibition because excess 16. Which set of RNA are involved in
protein synthesis?
of -galactosidase can switch off
(1) tRNA, mRNA, rRNA
transcription (2) tRNA, mRNA, hnRNA
(4) Positive and inducible because it (3) hnRNA, mRNA, rRNA
can be induced by lactose (4) hnRNA, tRNA, rRNA

[(Re–AIPMT) – 2015] [(NEET – I) – 2016]

17. Which of the following is required as
11. Which of the following biomolecules
inducer(s) for the expression of lac operon?
does have a phosphodiester bond? (1) Glucose
(1) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide (2) Galactose
(2) Fatty acids in a diglyceride (3) Lactose
(3) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide (4) Lactose and Galactose
(4) Amino acids in a polypeptide 18. A complex of ribosomes attached to a
single strand of RNA is known as:
12. Identify the correct order of organisation of (1) Polysome
genetic material from largest to smallest: (2) Polymer
(1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene (3) Polypeptide
(2) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide (4) Okazaki fragment
(3) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene 19. Which of the following is not required
(4) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide for any of the techniques of DNA
fingerprinting available at present?
13. Which one of the following is not (1) Polymerase chain reaction
applicable to RNA? (2) Zinc finger analysis
(1) Chargaff's rule (3) Restriction enzymes
(2) Complementary base pairing (4) DNA-DNA hybridization
(3) 5' phosphoryl and 3' hydroxyl ends 20. Which one of the following is the starter
(4) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases codon?
(1) AUG (2) UGA (3) UAA (4) UAG
14. Satellite DNA is important because it:
21. A cell at telophase stage is observed by a
(1) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA
student in a plant brought from the field.
replication He tells his teacher that this cell is not like
(2) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle other cells at telophase stage. There is no
(3)Shows high degree of polymorphism in formation of cell plate and thus the cell is
population and also the same degree containing more number of chromosomes
as compared to other dividing cells. This
of polymorphism in an individual,
would result in:
which is heritable from parents to
(1) Aneuploidy
children (2) Polyploidy
(4) Does not code for proteins and is same (3) Soma clonal variation
in all members of the population. (4) Polyteny

86
86 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 [(NEET – II) – 2016] 28. During DNA replication, Okazaki
fragments are used to elongate:
22. The central dogma of molecular genetics (1) The leading strand towards replication
states that the genetic information flows fork.
from: (2) The lagging strand towards replication
(1) DNA → Carbohydrates → Protein fork.
(2) DNA → RNA → Protein (3) The leading strand away from replication
(3) DNA → RNA → Carbohydrates fork.
(4) The lagging strand away from the
(4) Amino acids → Proteins → DNA
replication fork.
23. Taylor conducted the experiments to prove
29. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of:
semiconservative mode of chromosome
(1) Plants (2) Fungi
replication on:
(3) Animals (4) Bacteria
(1) Vicia faba
(2) Drosophila melanogaster 30. The final proof for DNA as the genetic
(3) E.coli material came from the experiments of:
(1) Griffith
(4) Vinca rosea
(2) Hershey and Chase
24. Which of the following rRNAs acts as (3) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
structural RNA as well as ribozyme in (4) Hargobind Khorana
bacteria? 31. The association of histone H1 with a
(1) 18 S rRNA (2) 23 S rRNA nucleosome indicates:
(3) 5.8 S rRNA (4) 5 S rRNA (1) Transcription is occurring
(2) DNA replication is occurring
25. A molecule that can act as a genetic
material must fulfill the traits given (3) The DNA is condensed into a
below, except: Chromatin Fibre
(1) It should be able to generate its (4) The DNA double helix is exposed.
replica. 32. DNA replication in bacteria occurs:
(2) It should be unstable structurally (1) During S phase
and chemically. (2) Within nucleolus
(3) It should provide the scope for slow (3) Prior to fission
changes that are required for (4) Just before transcription
evolution. 33. Which of the following RNAs should be
(4) It should be able to express itself in most abundant in animal cell?
the form of Mendelian characters. (1) rRNA (2) tRNA
(3) mRNA (4) Sn-RNA
26. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
[(NEET–UG) – 2018]
catalyses transcription on one strand of
the DNA which is called the: 34. The experimental proof for semiconservative
(1) Coding strand (2) Alpha strand replication of DNA was first shown in a:
(3) Antistrand (4) Template strand (1) Fungus (2) Bacterium
(3) Plant (4) Virus
[NEET – 2017]
35. Select the correct statement:
27. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that
(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term
codes for a protein with 333 amino "Linkage"
acids, and the base at position 901 is (2) Punnett square was developed by a
deleted such that the length of the RNA British scientist
becomes 998 bases, how many codons (3) Spliceosomes take part in translation
will be altered? (4) Transduction was discovered by S.
(1) 1 (2) 11 (3) 33 (4) 333 Altman

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 87

36. Select the correct match: 42. Under which of the following conditions
(1) Alec Jeffreys: Streptococcus pneumoniae will there be no change in the reading
(2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase: frame of following mRNA?
TMV 5' AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3'
(3) Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl: (1) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th
Pisum sativum positions respectively.
(4) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod: (2) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th
Lac operon positions
(3) Insertion of G at 5th position
37. Many ribosomes may associate with a
(4) Deletion of G from 5th position
single mRNA to form multiple copies of
a polypeptide simultaneously. Such 43. Match the following genes of the Lac
strings of ribosomes are termed as: operon with their respective products:
(1) Polysome (a) i gene (i) -galactosidase
(2) Polyhedral bodies (b) z gene (ii) Permease
(3) Plastidome (c) a gene (iii) Repressor
(4) Nucleosome (d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
Select the correct option:
38. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the
(a) (b) (c) (d)
coding strand of a gene. What will be
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
the corresponding sequence of the (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
transcribed mRNA? (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU (4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(3) ACCUAUGCGAU 44. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are:
(4) UCCAUAGCGUA (1) Guanine and cytosine
(2) Cytosine and thymine
39. All of the following are part of an (3) Adenine and thymine
operon except: (4) Adenine and guanine
(1) An operator
45. What will be the sequence of mRNA
(2) Structural genes
produced by the following stretch of DNA?
(3) An enhancer
3'ATGCATGCATGCATG5' TEMPLATE STRAND
(4) A promoter
5'TACGTACGTACGTAC3' CODING STRAND
40. Select the correct Match: (1) 3'AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG5'
(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid (2) 5'UACGUACGUACGUAC3'
(2) F2×Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross (3) 3'UACGUACGUACGUAC5'
(3) T.H. Morgan - Transduction (4) 5'AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG3'
(4) A promoter - Transformation 46. Match the following RNA polymerase
[(NEET-UG) – 2019] with their transcribed products:
(a) RNA polymerase I (i) tRNA
41. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers (b) RNA polymerase II (ii) rRNA
to: (c) RNA polymerase III (iii) hnRNA
(1) DNA polymorphism Select the correct option from the
(2) Novel DNA sequences following
(3) Genes expressed as RNA (1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(4) Polypeptide expression (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i

88
88 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
47. From the following, identify the correct 52. If the distance between two consecutive
combination of salient features of base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total
Genetic Code: number of base pairs of a DNA double
helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 ×
(1) Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping
109 bp, then the length of the DNA is
(2) Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless approximately:
(3) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate (1) 2.7 meters (2) 2.0 meters
(4) Degenerate, non-overlapping, non- (3) 2.5 meters (4) 2.2 meters
ambiguous 53. Name the enzyme that facilitates
opening of DNA helix during transcription.
48. Which scientist experimentally proved
(1) RNA polymerase
that DNA is the sole genetic material in
(2) DNA ligase
bacteriophage? (3) DNA helicase
(1) Beadle and Tautum (4) DNA polymerase
(2) Meselson and Stahl
54. The first phase of translation is:
(3) Hershey and Chase
(1) Recognition of an anti-codon
(4) Jacob and Monod (2) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(3) Recognition of DNA molecule
49. In the process of transcription in
(4) Aminoacylation of tRNA
Eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase I
[(NEET-UG) – 2020 (Covid-19)]
transcribes:
(1) mRNA with additional processing, 55. The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic
capping and tailing material was used by:
(1) Franklin (2) Meischer
(2) tRNA, 5 S rRNA and snRNAs
(3) Chargaff (4) Mendel
(3) rRNAs-28 s, 18 S and 5.8 S
56. In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a
(4) Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA
nitrogenous base is linked to the –OH of:
50. What initiation and termination factors (1) 2'C pentose sugar
are involved in transcription in (2) 3'C pentose sugar
(3) 5'C pentose sugar
prokaryotes?
(4) 1'C pentose sugar
(1)  and , respectively
57. E.coli has only 4.6 × 106 base pairs and
(2)  and , respectively
completes the process of replication
(3)  and , respectively within 18 minutes; then the average
rate of polymerization is
(4)  and , respectively
approximately-
[(NEET-UG) – 2020] (1) 2000 base pairs/second
(2) 3000 base pairs/second
51. Which of the following statements is
(3) 4000 base pairs/second
correct?
(4) 1000 base pairs/second
(1) Adenine does not pair with thymine
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through 58. Which is the basis of genetic mapping of
two H-bonds human genome as well as DNA finger
printing?
(3) Adenine pairs with thymine through
(1) Polymorphism in DNA sequence
one H-bonds
(2) Single nucleotide polymorphism
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through
(3) Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence
three H-bonds (4) Polymorphism in RNA sequence

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 89

 [(NEET-UG) – 2021] [(NEET-UG) – 2022]

59. Complete the flow chart on central 63. Read the following statements and
dogma. choose the set of correct statements:
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed
chromatin
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally
(1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; active
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein (c) Histone octomer is wrapped by
(2) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; negatively charged DNA in
(c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction nucleosome
(d) Histones are rich in lysine and
(3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription
arginine
(c)-Translation; (d)-Protein
(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400
(4) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation;
bp of DNA helix
(c)-Replication; (d)Protein (1) (b), (d), (e) Only (2) (a), (c), (d) Only
60. Identify the correct statement. (3) (b), (e) Only (4) (a), (c), (e) Only

(1) In capping, methyl guanosine 64. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:
triphosphate is added to the 3' end (1) Genetic mapping
of hnRNA. (2) DNA finger printing
(2) RNA polymerase binds with Rho (3) Both genetic mapping and DNA
factor to terminate the process of finger printing
(4) Translation
transcription in bacteria.
(3) The coding strand in a transcription 65. The process of translation of mRNA to
unit is copied to an mRNA proteins begins as soon as:
(4) Split gene arrangement is (1) The small subunit of ribosome
characteristic of prokaryotes. encounters mRNA
(2) The larger subunit of ribosome
61. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in encounters mRNA
the process of transcription in (3) Both the subunits join together to
eukaryotes? bind with mRNA
(1) Transcribes rRNA (28S, 18S and 5.8S) (4) The tRNA is activated and the larger
(2) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and sn subunit of ribosome encounters
mRNA
RNA
(3) Transcribes precursor of mRNA 66. If a geneticist uses the blind approach
(4) Transcribes only snRNAs for sequencing the whole genome of an
organism, followed by assignment of
62. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying function to different segments, the
differences in some specific regions in methodology adopted by him is called
DNA sequence, called as: as:
(1) Satellite DNA (1) sequence annotation
(2) Repetitive DNA (2) Gene mapping
(3) Single nucleotides (3) Expressed sequence tags
(4) Polymorphic DNA (4) Bioinformatics

90
90 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
67. In the following palindromic base 72. Match List – I with List – II:
sequences of DNA, which one can be List - I List - II
(a) In lac operon i gene (i) Transacetylase
cut easily by particular restriction
codes for
enzyme?
(b) In lac operon z gene (ii) Permease
(1) 5’ G A T A C T 3’; 3’ C T A T G A 5’
codes for
(2) 5’ G A A T T C 3’; 3’ C T T A A G 5’
(c) In lac operon y gene (iii) -galactosidase
(3) 5’ C T C A G T 3’; 3’ G A G T C A 5’
codes for
(4) 5’ G T A T T C 3’; 3’ C A T A A G 5’ (d) In lac operon a gene (iv) Repressor
codes for
68. If the length of DNA molecule is 1.1
Choose the correct answer from the
metres, what will be the approximate
options given below:
number of base pairs? (1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(1) 3.3×109 bp (2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
(2) 6.6×109 bp
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(3) 3.3×106 bp
73. Given below are two statements:
(4) 6.6×106 bp Statement I:
DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation
69. In an E.coli strain i gene gets mutated only in one direction, that is 5' → 3'
and its product can not bind the Statement II:
During replication of DNA, on ones
inducer molecule. If growth medium is
trand the replication is continuous
provided with lactose, what will be the while on other strand it is
outcome? discontinuous.
In the light of the above statements,
(1) Only z gene will get transcribed
choose the correct answer from the
(2) z, y, a genes will be transcribed options given below:
(3) z, y, a genes will not be translated (1) Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct
(4) RNA polymerase will bind the (2) Both Statement I and Statement II
promoter region are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but
70. Ten E.coli cells with N – ds DNA are
15 Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but
incubated in medium containing 14
N
Statement II is correct
nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many
74. Match List-I with List-II:
E.coli cells will have DNA totally free
List - I List - II
from 15N? (a) Bacteriophage (i) 48502 base pairs
(1) 20 cells (2) 40 cells f ×174
(3) 60 cells (4) 80 cells (b) Bacteriophage (ii) 5386 nucleotides
lambda
[NEET-UG) – 2022] (c) Escherichia coli (iii) 3.3 × 109 base pairs
(RE-EXAMINATION) (d) Haploid content (iv) 4.6 × 106 base pairs
of human DNA
71. In lac operon, z gene codes for:
Choose the correct answer from the
(1) -galactosidase options given below:
(2) Permease (1) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(3) Repressor (3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(4) Transacetylase (4) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 91

75. If DNA contained sulphur instead of 81. How many different proteins does the
phosphorus and proteins contained ribosome consist of ?
phosphorus instead of sulfur, what (1) 80 (2) 60 (3) 40 (4) 20
would have been the outcome of
[NEET-2023] MANIPUR
Hershey and Chase experiment?
82. The last chromosome sequenced in
(1) No radioactive sulfur in bacterial
Human Genome Project was:
cells
(1) Chromosome 6
(2) Both radioactive sulfur and
(2) Chromosome 1
phosphorus in bacterial cells (3) Chromosome 22
(3) Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells (4) Chromosome 14
(4) Radioactive phosphorus in bacterial
cells 83. Name the component that binds to the
operator region of an operon and
76. Against the codon 5' UAC 3', what prevents RNA polymerase from
would be the sequence of anticodon on transcribing the operon.
tRNA? (1) Promotor
(1) 5' AUG 3' (2) 5' ATG 3' (2) Regulator protein
(3) 5' GTA 3' (4) 5' GUA 3' (3) Repressor protein
77. If A and C make 30% and 20% of DNA, (4) Inducer
respectively, what will be the 84. Given below are two statements:
percentage composition of T and G? Statement I: The process of copying
(1) T: 20%, G: 30% (2) T: 30%, G: 20% genetic information from one strand of
(3) T: 30%, G: 30% (4) T: 20%, G: 20% the DNA into RNA is termed as
transcription.
[NEET -2023]
Statement II: A transcription unit in
78. Unequivocal proof that DNA is the
DNA is defined primarily by the three
genetic material was first proposed by
regions in the DNA i.e., a promotor, the
(1) Frederic Griffith
structural gene and a terminator.
(2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
In the light of the above statements,
(3) Avery, Macleoid and McCarthy
Choose the correct answer from the
(4) Wilkins and Franklin
options given below :
79. What is the role of RNA polymerase III (1) Statement I is true but Statement II
in the process of transcription in is false
Eukaryotes? (2) Statement I is false but Statement
(1) Transcription of tRNAs (28S, 18S II is true
and 5.8S) (3) Both Statement I and Statement II
(2) Transcription of tRNA, 5S rRNA and are true
snRNA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II
(3) Transcription of precursor of mRNA are false
(4) Transcription of only snRNAs 85. Which scientist conducted an
80. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers experiment with P and S labelled
32 35

to phages for demonstrating that DNA is

(1) All genes that are expressed as RNA. the genetic material?
(2) All genes that are expressed as (1) James D. Watson and F.H.C. Crick
proteins. (2) A. D Hershey and M.J. Chase
(3) All genes whether expressed or (3) F. Griffith
unexpressed. (4) O.T. Avery, C.M. MacLeod and M.
(4) Certain important expressed genes. McCarty

92
92 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 ANSWER KEY

Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Exercise - I

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 2 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 2 4 2 2 2 1 1 3 2 3 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 2 3 4 2 4 3 2 3 4 4 3 1 4 3 2 2 4 3 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 3 2 4 4 2 3 3 4 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 1 3 3 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 4 1 1 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 1 3 2 1 2 2 3 3 1 3
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 3 1 4 1 4 1 2 2 2 4 4 3 3 1 4 3 1 2 4
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 2 3 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 2 4 4 2 4 1 4 4 1 1 2
Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138
Ans. 1 2 4 4 4 1 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 3 4 1 2 4

Exercise - II

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 2 2 2 4 3 4 3 3 1 2 2 3 1 4 2 2 4 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 2 3 4 3 3 3 2 4 4 3 4 1 3 1 2 3 3 4 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 3 2 2 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 2 3 1 2 2 3 4 3 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 1 3 4 3 4 2 4 1 3 1 2 2 2 4 1 1 2 3 4
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 3 3 2 2 3 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 2 1 4 1 2 1 4 4
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 2 4 1 1 1 4 2 3 1 3 2 1 2 1 1 3 3 2 2 4
Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 1 1 4 3 1 4 1 1 1 2 1 4 1 3 3 4 2 3 2 4
Que. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159
Ans. 2 3 3 1 3 4 4 2 4 3 1 3 2 2 2 1 3 2 2

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 93

 Exercise - III

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 1 4 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 2 3 1 1 3 2 1 1 2 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 1 3 3 3 1 1 1 2 1 1 4 2 1 1 1 1 3 1 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 1 1 1 1 2 2 4 4 4 4 3 4 4 3 2 1 1 3 2 4
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 4 3 4 2 4 2 4 1
Que. 101 102 103 104
Ans. 4 4 4 2

Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 2 3 2 2 4 2 4 2 1 1 4 1 3 3 1 3 1 2 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 2 1 2 2 4 3 4 4 2 3 3 1 2 2 4 1 1 3 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 2 1 4 2 3 4 3 3 1 2 4 1 4 2 4 1 1 3 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 2 2 3 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 2 1 3 3 4 2 2 2 1
Que. 81 82 83 84 85
Ans. 1 2 3 3 2

94
94 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
 3 Evolution
Origin of Life
Evolutionary Biology:
• It is the study of history of life forms (i.e. the changes in flora and fauna that have occurred over
millions of years) on earth.
• This is the story of origin of life and evolution of life forms or biodiversity on Planet earth in the
context of evolution of earth and against the background of evolution of universe itself.

What is Evolution?
• The word evolution means to unfold or unroll or to reveal hidden potentialities. Evolution simply
means an orderly change from one condition to another.
• Evolution is a slow, gradual and continuous process of change occurring in flora and fauna.

What is Universe?
• The universe is a huge cluster of galaxies. Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gas and dust.
Considering the size of universe, earth is indeed a speck i.e. The universe is vast.
• When we look at stars on a clear night sky we are, in a way, looking back in time. Stellar Distances
are measured in light years. What we see today is an object whose emitted light started its journey
millions of year back and from trillions of kilometres away and reaching our eyes now. However,
when we see objects in our immediate surroundings we see them instantly and hence in the present
time. Therefore, when we see stars we apparently are peeping into the past.
• The Big Bang theory attempts to explain to us the origin of universe.

Big Bang Theory:

• According to it, the universe originated about 20 billion years ago due to a thermonuclear explosion
of a dense entity. This single huge explosion which is unimaginable in physical terms, is called as
big bang.

Origin of Earth: About 4.5 billion years ago

• The temperature of early earth was 5000-6000°C and there was no atmosphere.
• The conditions on primitive earth were -

1. High temperature
2. Volcanic eruption

Evolution 1
 3. Molten mass (Volcanic lava) covered the earth surface and it released CH 4, NH3, CO2, water
Vapour etc.
U.V.Rays from sun
H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
because of no O shield
→ H2 + O 
3

CH4 + NH3 + O  → H2O + CO2 + Nitrides

4. All gases like H2, CH4, NH3 make primitive atmosphere reducing.
• By the passing of time, the earth temperature came down (below 100°C) and hydrosphere
also formed due to condensation of water vapour (Raining).

Theories for Origin of Life

Different scientists proposed their different theories, some of them are as follows :-
(1) Theory of special creation
(2) Cosmic panspermia theory
(3) Theory of spontaneous generation (Abiogenesis/Autogenesis)
(4) Theory of biogenesis
(5) Chemical evolution theory (Modern theory)

(1) Theory of Special Creation :

• This is a mythology based theory.
• This theory has three connotations (ideas)
(i) All living organisms that we see today were created as such.
(ii) The diversity was always the same since creation and will be the same in future also.
(iii) The earth is about 4000 years old.
• All these ideas were strongly challenged during the nineteenth century based on observations of
Charles Darwin, Wallace etc. They believed that life forms varied over the periods of time.
• From fossils records and their dating, we can conclude that earth is very old, not thousands of
years as was thought earlier but billions of years old.

(2) Cosmic Panspermia Theory :

• Some scientists believe that life came from outer space.
• Early Greek thinkers thought units of life called spores were transferred to different planets
including earth.
• 'Panspermia' is still a favorite idea for some astronomers.

(3) Theory of Spontaneous Generation (Abiogenesis/Autogenesis) :

• This theory was supported by ancient Greek philosophers.
• According to this theory life came out of decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud. etc.
spontaneously.
(4) Theory of Biogenesis :
• They stated "Omnis vivum ex ovo or vivo", which means "New life can be originated on earth
only by pre existing life."
• Supporter of theory : Experiments of Francesco Redi, Lazzaro Spallanzani, and Louis Pasteur
etc supported the theory of biogenesis and disproved the abiogenesis. Experiment of Louis
Pasteur is most renowned among all of these.

2 Evolution
Experiment of Louis Pasteur :
• His experiment is also known as 'Swan Neck Flask Experiment'.

L i P ’ Swan Neck Flask Experiment

• He prepared sterilized syrup of sugar and killed yeast by boiling them in flasks.
• He took two flasks one of broken neck and another of curved neck (swan neck flask / "S" shaped
neck flask)
• He showed that in pre-sterilized swan neck flasks, life did not come from killed yeast because
germ laden dust particles in the air were trapped by the curved neck which serves as filter
while in another flask open to air (broken neck), new living organisms arose. Thus he proved
that new organism can be produced from pre-existing organisms only.
• Hence spontaneous generation theory was dismissed once and for all. However, this did not
answer how the first life form came on earth.

(5) Chemical evolution theory or Oparin – Haldane theory.

• Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England proposed that the first form of life could have come
from pre-existing non-living organic molecules (e.g. RNA, protein, etc.) and that formation of
life was preceded by chemical evolution, i.e., formation of diverse organic molecules from
inorganic constituents.
• First life originated in sea water, so water is essential for origin of life.
• Most accepted theory and according to it, life originated abiogenetically first but biogenetically
ever since.
• According to this theory, life originated in two following phases:
(A) Chemical Evolution (Chemogeny)
(B) Biological Evolution (Biogeny)

(A) Chemical Evolution :

• The primitive conditions on earth were high temperature, volcanic storms, lightening and
reducing atmosphere.
• Early earth had free atoms of all those elements which were essential for formation of
protoplasm (C, H, O, N etc.)
• Hydrogen was maximum among all of them.
• Due to high temperature, hydrogen reacted with oxygen to form water and no free oxygen
was left, which made the atmosphere reducing.
• Hydrogen also reacted with nitrogen and formed ammonia.
• Hence Water and ammonia were probably the first inorganic compounds formed on earth.

Evolution 3
 • Methane (CH4) was the first organic compound.
• As the earth cooled down, the water vapour fell as rain, to fill all the depressions and form
primitive oceans. During this, molecules continued to react with each other and formed
various simple and complex organic compounds.
• Now, the water of oceans became a rich mixture of macromolecules/ complex organic
compounds. Haldane called it Hot dilute soup/ pre biotic soup.
• Hence the possibilities of life were established in the water of primitive oceans because
these macromolecules (Proteins, polysaccharides, fats/lipids, nucleic acids) form the main
components of protoplasm.

Special Note :
However we have no clear idea about how the first self replicating metabolic capsule of life
arose, but many attempts were made to solve the mystery of arise of life on earth. From these
macromolecules how first life was originated, will be studied in Biological evolution.

(B) Biological Evolution :

(i) Origin of Protobionts :

• Macromolecules which were synthesized abiotically in primitive oceans later came together and
formed large colloidal drop like structures named as protobionts.
• It is believed that they were the clusters of proteins, polysaccharides, lipids, nucleic acids etc.
• These protobionts were unable to reproduce.
(ii) Origin of Non-Cellular Form (Protocells) :
• Nucleic acid developed the ability of self duplication due to a sudden change called mutation.
• Nucleic acid and proteins combined to form nucleoproteins. Nucleoproteins were the first sign
of life.
• Clusters of nucleoproteins surrounded by lipid coat called protocell, the first form of life.

4 Evolution
 • These first non-cellular forms of life could have originated 3 billion years ago.
• They would have been giant molecules (RNA, Protein, Polysaccharides, etc.). These capsules
reproduced their molecules perhaps.
Special Note :
Altman (1980) discovered that some RNA molecules have enzymatic activity, called as ribozymes. It
means at the time of origin of life, RNA molecule could carry out all the processes of life (replication,
protein formation etc) without the help of either protein or DNA. Hence this concept called as RNA
World.

(iii) Origin of First Cellular Form (Prokaryotes) :

• As a result of mutation protocells became more complex and efficient to use the materials
available in the surrounding medium and evolved into prokaryotic cells.
• This first cellular form of life did not possibly originate till about 2000 million years ago.
• The first living beings were single celled bacteria like prokaryotes with naked DNA.
• They were probably chemoheterotrophs and anaerobic.
• Chemoheterotrophs → Chemoautotrophs → Photoautotrophs → Photoautotrophs
(Anoxygenic) (Oxygenic)
• Some of the chemoheterotrophic bacteria evolved into chemoautotrophs. They were anaerobic
and synthesized organic food from inorganic material; this mode of nutrition is called as
chemosynthesis. e.g. Iron bacteria.
• When bacteriochlorophyll was developed in some chemoautotrophic bacteria, they started to
convert light energy into chemical energy, this mode of nutrition is called as photosynthesis.
They used H2S as source of hydrogen instead of H2O hence they were non oxygenic
photosynthetic bacteria. e.g. Planktonic sulphur bacteria
• Some molecular changes occurred in bacteriochlorophyll, and it transformed into true
chlorophyll. Such organisms used H2O as source of hydrogen and released oxygen in the
environment, they were oxygenic photosynthetic bacteria. e.g. Cyanobacteria (Blue green algae).

Oxygen Revolution
Liberation of free oxygen by cyanobacteria was a revolutionary change in the history of earth. It
includes some major changes like-
• Atmosphere of earth changed from reducing to oxidizing hence possibilities of further chemical
evolution finished, because chemical evolution always takes place in reducing environment
• Free O2 oxidized CH4 and NH3 to form gases like CO2, N2 and H2O.
• Accumulation of free oxygen formed a layer of ozone outside the atmosphere of earth which
started to absorb most of the UV rays of sunlight.
• Some prokaryotes adapted themselves for aerobic mode of respiration which provides approx.
20 times more energy than anaerobic respiration.

(iv) Origin of Eukaryotic Cell :

Nucleus, mitochondria and other cell organelles developed in the cell and metabolically it
became more active. Thus free living eukaryotic cell like organisms originated about 1.5 billion
years ago in the primitive ocean.

Evolution 5
Evidences in Favour of Chemical Evolution :
(a) Harold Urey & Stanley Miller Experiment :
• In1953, S.L. Miller, an American scientist
created similar conditions at laboratory scale
which were thought to be on primitive earth.
• He took CH4, NH3, H2 (in ratio 2 : 1 : 2) and water
vapour at 800°C in a large flask.
• He created electric discharge by using two
tungsten electrodes as source of energy.
• He observed the formation of simple amino acids
like glycine, alanine, and aspartic acid.
• In similar experiments other scientists observed,
formation of sugars, nitrogen bases, pigment and
fats.
(b) Evidences from Meteorites :
• Analysis of meteorite contents also revealed similar
compounds indicating that similar processes are
occurring elsewhere in space.
• With these limited evidences, the first part of
the conjectured story, i.e., chemical evolution
was more or less accepted.
• This version of abiogenesis, i.e., the first form of
life arose slowly through evolutionary forces
from non-living molecules is accepted by
majority. However, once formed, how the first
cellular forms of life could have evolved into the complex biodiversity of today is the fascinating
story that will be discussed in organic evolution.

Special Points

• Universe originated – about 20 BYA.

• Solar system and earth were formed – about 4.5 BYA.
• Life appeared – about 4 BYA. (500 millions after origin of earth)
• First non-cellular form of life – 3 BYA.
• First cellular form of life – 2 BYA.
• Evolution up to formation of protobionts – Chemical evolution
• Evolution from protobionts to simple cell – Biological evolution
• Evolution from simple cell to recent – Organic evolution
• Oparin's theory is based on artificial synthesis, so also called as artificial synthetic theory.

6 Evolution
 Concept Builder

1. Definition of evolutionary biology is :

(1) Study of history of life forms on earth and how they progress
(2) Understanding life
(3) Study of organism's habitat
(4) Study of origin of universe

2. What is not true for Big-Bang theory of origin of universe ?

(1) Originated about 20 billion year back
(2) Originated after repeated huge explosion
(3) Originated after single and huge blast
(4) Unimmaginable in physical terms

3. E ’ P :
(1) Oxygen, ammonia, methane, water
(2) Hydrogen, ammonia, methane, oxygen
(3) Hydrogen, vapour, methane, ammonia
(4) Oxygen, methane, water, nickle

4. Primitive atmosphere was reducing because :

(1) Hydrogen atoms were few
(2) Hydrogen atoms were active and in greater number
(3) Nitrogen atoms were more
(4) Oxygen atoms were more

5. Which of the following was the unique event in the history of universe ?
(1) Biological evolution (2) Origin of earth (3) Origin of life (4) Mutation

6. Mark the events which happened on the primitive earth.

(A) Breakdown of water into hydrogen and oxygen by UV rays
(B) Formation of ozone layer
(C) Release of water vapour, CH4, CO2, NH3
(D) Oxygen combined with NH3 and CH4 to form water, CO2 and others.
(E) Water vapour cooled and fall as rain to form oceans.
(1) A & B Only (2) A, C & D (3) C, D & E (4) A, B, C, D & E
7. Oparin and Haldane proposed that the first form of life could have come from ___A___ and that
formation of life was preceded by ___B___.
Choose the right option which fill A and B blank.
(1) A–Pre existing non-living organic molecules, B-Organic evolution
(2) A–Pre existing living inorganic molecules, B-Organic evolution
(3) A–Pre existing living inorganic molecules, B-Chemical evolution
(4) A–Pre existing non-living organic molecules, B-Chemical evolution
8. In 1953, S.L. Miller performed an experiment at lab scale. Find out the incorrect statement
regarding this experiment.
(1) He created early earth conditions in a laboratory.
(2) He used CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C in a closed flask.
(3) He observed formation of sugars, nitrogen bases, pigment and fats.
(4) He observed formation of Amino acid in the apparatus.

Concept Builders (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 1 2 3 2 3 4 4 3

Evolution 7
Evidences of Organic Evolution
In support of organic evolution some important evidences are –
(A) Palaeontological Evidences
(B) Morphological and Anatomical Evidences
• Evidences from vestigial organs
• Evidences from connecting links
• Evidences from Atavism (Reversion)
• Evidence from physiology and biochemistry
(C) Evidences from biogeographical distribution
(D) Evidences from Embryology

(A) Palaeontological Evidences

 Palaeontology : Study of fossils
• Fossil : Impression or remains of hard parts of past organism found in rocks called fossils.
• Fossils are found in sedimentary rocks and provide one of the most acceptable evidence in
support of organic evolution.
• Rocks form sediments and a cross- ’
sediments one over the other during the long history of earth. Such types of rocks are called
as sedimentary rocks.
• Different-aged rock sediments contain fossils of different life-forms who probably died during
the formation of the particular sediment.
• A study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates the geological period in which they existed.
• Some of them represent extinct organisms (e.g., Dinosaurs).
• The study shows that life-forms varied over time and certain life forms were restricted to
certain geological time spans.
• New forms of life have arisen at different times in the history of earth, i.e. evolution has taken place.
• Generally, fossils found in older rocks are of simpler types and found in newer rocks are of
complex type.
• By fossils we can study the evolutionary pedigree of animals like horse, elephants and man etc.
• The geological history of earth closely correlates with the biological history of earth.
Age Determination of Fossils :
• To find out the correct age of fossils, we determine the age of rocks from which fossils are found.
• Rocks contain some radioactive elements that decay and convert into their more stable forms.
This radioactive decay takes place at a constant rate for each radioactive element irrespective
of the environmental conditions.
• It is already calculated that how long it will take for half the quantity of the element to change
into its stable form, and this time is known as its half-life. After another half-life has passed,
the element will have decayed to a quarter of its original amount and so on.
• Thus we can calculate the age of rocks by relative proportions of radioactive element and non
radioactive element in a sample of rock. This method is called radioactive dating.
• There are several methods used to determine the age of fossils-
(1) Radio Carbon Method / Carbon Dating :
Half life of carbon-14 is 5730 years; it means in 5730 years, half of the C14 starts converting into
its stable form N14 just after the death of the organism.

8 Evolution
 (2) Rock Dating :
(i) Uranium Lead method
(ii) Potassium Argon method: More commonly used to determine the age of older fossils
(eg. : Human fossils)
(iii) Electron Spin Resonance (ESR) method : this is the modern and most accurate
technique.

Geological Time Scale :

• It is the chronological order of the history of organic evolution on earth.
• The time after formation of the earth (4.5 billion years) is divided into 6 Eras, some Eras further
divided into Periods and periods of recent era are divided into smaller time spans called Epochs.
• Intense geological disturbances have occurred on earth time to time, in which most of the pre
existing organisms perished out and the few remaining ones evolved into new and varied
organisms. These disturbances are called great revolution.
Geological Time Scale
Era Period Epochs Life Forms
Holocene Supremacy of man
Coenozoic Quaternary (Age of Man)
(Age of Birds, Pleistocene Human appeared
Mammals and (Ice Age)
Angiosperms) Tertiary Ape-like ancestors of human appeared
Mesozoic Cretaceous – Extinction of Dinosaurs &
(Age of Reptiles) archaeopteryx
– Origin of primitive placental
mammals and Modern birds,
Angiosperms also appeared
Jurassic – Dominance of dinosaurs and
(Golden age of origin of first toothed birds and
Dinosaurs) marsupial mammals
Triassic Origin of dinosaurs and Prototheria
Palaeozoic Permian – Origin of mammal like reptiles
Carboniferous – Origin of reptiles (seymauria)
(Golden age of
amphibians)
Devonian – Fishes were dominant
(Golden age of – Origin of amphibians
fishes)
Silurian – Origin of true fishes
Ordovician – Origin of jawless fishes
(1st vertebrates),
– Origin of chordata
Cambrian
Proterozoic – Origin of Invertebrates
Archaeozoic – Prokaryotes originated and dominated
(Era of invisible life) – Eukaryotes also evolved
Azoic No life, chemical evolution took place

Evolution 9
A Brief Account of Evolution :-
(1) Appearance of First Cellular Form of Life on Earth : Anaerobic Heterotrophic bacteria were the
first cellular form of life on earth, that originated about 2000 million years back.
(2) Appearance of Invertebrates : By the time of 500 million year ago, Invertebrates formed and active.
• Sea weeds and few plants existed probably around 320 MYA.
(3) Appearance of First Vertebrates (Jawless fishes) : Evolved around 350 MYA.
(4) Lobed fin Fishes (Coelacanth) : Fish with stout and strong flashy lobed fins (Coelacanth) could
move on land and go back to water. This was about 350 MYA.
• In 1938, a fish caught in South Africa was coelacanth which was through to be extinct. Now
it is called living fossil.

Fig : Representative evolutionary history of vertebrates through geological period

(5) First life that Migrated from Aquatic to Terrestrial Habitat : Plants (Moss or Bryophytes)

10 Evolution
 (6) Origin of Amphibia : Lobbed fin fishes (coelacanth), evolved into first amphibians that lived on
both Land and water. There are no specimen of these left with us. However, these were
ancestors of modern day frog and salamanders. Amphibia were first animal but second
organism (because first were plants) which migrated from aquatic to terrestrial habitat.
(7) Origin of Reptiles : The amphibians evolved into reptiles and reptiles lay thick shelled eggs
(land adaptation) which do not dry up in sun unlike those of amphibian, in next 200 million
years or so, reptiles of different shape & size dominated on earth.

Examples :-
1. Turtle, Tortoise, Crocodiles, Snakes, Lizards, Tuatara.
2. Dinosaurs :
(i) Ichthyosaurs : Fish like and aquatic, evolved about 200 MYA when some land reptiles went
back into water
(ii) Tyrannosaurus rex : Biggest flesh eating dinosaur with 20 feet height and huge dagger like teeth.
(8) Extinction of Dinosaurs : Jurassic period was the golden age of dinosaurs and after that dinosaur
suddenly disappeared about 65 MYA (late cretaceous period) because of three probable reasons -
(i) Climatic changes killed them
(ii) Most of them evolved into birds
(iii) Meteorite collision

Fig. :-A family tree of dinosaurs and their living modern day counterpart organisms like crocodiles
and birds

Evolution 11
 • The true reason of extinction of dinosaurs is still unknown.
• Small sized reptiles of that era still exist today.
• Giant ferns (pteridophytes) were also present but they all fell to form coal deposits slowly.

(9) Origin of Birds : Birds originated from reptiles and evidences come from Archaeopteryx.
Archaeopteryx is the connecting link (missing) between reptiles and birds.
(10) Origin of Mammals and Their Domination Upon Others : Mammals also originated from reptiles
with separate line from the birds.
• The first mammals (primate like) were shrews, their fossils are small sized.
• When reptiles came down, mammals took over this earth.
M ’
(ii) Mammals were more intelligent in sensing and avoiding danger at least.
(11) Mammals With Interest of Evolutionary History : Horse, elephant, dog with special stories of evolution.
(12) Most Successful Story of Human Evolution : With language skills and self consciousness.

Fig. :- A sketch of the evolution of plant forms through geological periods

(B) Evidences from Comparative Morphology and Anatomy :

• Similarities and differences are found among organisms of today and those that existed years
ago. Such similarities can be interpreted to understand whether common ancestors were shared
or not.
• These similarities are of two types :
(I) Homology (II) Analogy

12 Evolution
(I) Homologous Organs (Homology) :
The organs which have common origin, embryonic development and same fundamental
structure but perform similar or different functions are called as Homologous organs and this
phenomenon is called Homology.
• Similarity in appearance and function is not necessary.
Examples of Homologous Organs :
(i) Forelimbs of mammals- Whales, bats, Cheetah and human (all mammals) share similarities
in the pattern of bones of forelimbs though these forelimbs perform different functions. In
these animals, forelimbs have similar anatomical structure - all of them have humerus,
radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges in their forelimbs.
(ii) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita : both are modification of axillary bud.

(iii) Vertebrate hearts or brains (Visceral organs)

(iv) Mouth parts of insects
(v) Testes in male and ovaries in female
(vi) Potato and Ginger : both are modified shoot
(vii) Radish and Carrot : both are modified roots
(viii) Molecular homology : Homology found at molecular level. For example the plasma proteins
found in the blood of man and apes are similar.

Special Note : Homology indicates common ancestry and based on divergent evolution.

• When the same structures develop along different directions due to adaptations to
different needs, this is called as divergent evolution.

(II) Analogous Organs (Analogy) :

The organs which have different origin and fundamental structures but perform similar
functions are called Analogous organs and this phenomenon is called as analogy.
Examples of Analogous Organs :
(i) Wings of butterfly and birds : They are not anatomically similar structures though they
perform similar functions i.e. used for flying.
(ii) Eye of the octopus and of mammals
(iii) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins
(iv) Sweet potato (root modification) and potato (stem modification)
(v) Sting of bee and scorpion

Evolution 13
 Special Note

• When different structures evolve for the same function due to the similar habitat, this is called
convergent evolution.
• A ’
where different group of organisms have similar adaptive features due to similar
habitat or towards the same function, hence analogous structures are a result of
convergent evolution.

(C) Evidences from Vestigial Organs :

• These organs are present in reduced form and do not perform any function in the body but are
functional in related animals.
• They are remnants of organs which were complete and functional in their ancestors.
• Vestigial organs are example of evolution.
Examples of vestigial organs in humans:-
– Nictitating membrane
– Muscles of pinna (auricular muscles)
– Vermiform appendix (Caecum)
– Coccyx
– Canine teeth
– Third molars (wisdom teeth)

(D) Evidences from Atavism (Reversion) :

• Sometimes in some individuals such characters suddenly appears which were supposed to be
present in their ancestors but were lost during the course of evolution, this phenomenon is
known as atavism or reversion.
• Atavism proves that animals developing atavistic structures have evolved from such ancestors
in which these structures were fully developed.
E.g. in humans
– Tail in new born baby
– Extra long and pointed canine teeth-represents carnivorous ancestors
– Moving pinna
– Long and thick body hair-reflects our relationship with apes

(E) Evidences from Connecting Links :

• Some organisms possess characters of two separate groups called as connecting links, which
proves that members of higher groups have evolved from the lower group.
Examples :
• Neopilina : Between annelida and mollusca
• Peripatus : Between annelida and arthropoda
• Balanoglossus : Between non chordata and chordata
• Chimaera : Between cartilaginous and bony fishes
• Protopterus (Lung fish) : Between fishes and amphibian
• Platypus and Echidna : Between reptiles and mammals
• Archaeopteryx : Between reptiles and Aves.

14 Evolution
 Special Note :
Living fossil : Only existing representative of a group means all the member
of that group have become extinct. They still shows primitive characters.
E.g. - Limulus - King Crab (An Arthropod)
Latimeria - Coelacanth (Bony Fish)
Sphenodon - Tuatara (Reptile with pineal eye or third eye)

(F) Evidences from Physiology and Biochemistry

Different organism show similarities in physiology and biochemistry.
Some clear examples are :
• Protoplasm : Structure and chemical composition of protoplasm is same from protozoa to
mammalia.
• Enzymes : Enzymes perform same function in all animals.
• Blood : Chordates show almost same composition of blood.
• ATP : This energy rich molecule is formed for biological oxidation in all animals.
• Hormones : Secreted in different vertebrates have similar chemical structure and function.
• Hereditary material : Hereditary material is DNA in all organism.
• Cytochrome C is a respiratory protein situated in the mitochondria of all organism.
• Physiology and biochemistry thus prove that all animals have shared ancestors in distant or
recent past.
(G) Evidences from Biogeographical Distribution
• “Bi hy” is the study of geographical distribution of animal and plant species in different
parts of earth.
• Different animal species occurring in an area are called Fauna and those of plants are called Flora.

Special Note
(i) In South America, mammals resembling horse, hippopotamus, bear, rabbit, etc.
were present. Due to continental drift, when South America joined North
America, these animals were overridden by North American fauna.
(ii) In prehistoric time Australia was a part of Asian continent. After the evolution of
prototherians from reptiles Australia got separated from mainland of Asia, Later
on placental mammals evolved in Asia which were carnivores in nature and they
destroyed prototherians and marsupials from Asia but pouched mammals
(marsupials) of Australia survived because of lack of competition from any other
mammals.
(iii) Today eutherians are also found in Australia, because some of them evolved
there and some were later transported by man.

What is adaptive radiation ?

• The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point
and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitat) is called adaptive radiation.
• Both the homology and adaptive radiation are based on divergent evolution.
Eg. (i) Adaptive Radiation of D i ’ Finches :
• Darwin visited to Galapagos Island by ship H.M.S Beagle (sea voyage). Galapagos Island consisted
of about 22 different islands that have many endemic plant and animal species.
• He observed small black birds later called D i ’ fi h .

Evolution 15
 • All varieties evolved and radiated by a single ancestral seed-eating ground finch (root finch).
• Darwin conjectured that the ancestral seed eating finch radiated to different geographical area
(habitat) and Underwent profound adaptive changes and specially in beak pattern due to
different feeding habits - (Insectivorous, vegetarian etc.) on Galapagos island itself.

Fig. :- Variety of beaks of finches that Darwin found in Galapagos Island

(ii) Adaptive Radiations of Marsupials of Australia :

• Further more, Australia is the home to the great diversity of marsupials (Pouched mammals)
but relatively few placental mammals.
• A number of marsupials, each different from other in morphology, feeding habit and habitats
evolved from an ancestral stock but all within the Australian continent.

Fig. : Adaptive Radiation of Marsupials of Australia

16 Evolution
 (iii) Adaptive Radiations of Placental Mammals : A number of placental mammals have evolved
from a common ancestral type in other parts of world also. Placental mammals in Australia
also exhibit adaptive radiation.

(II) Convergent Evolution (Adaptive Convergence) :

“W occurred in an isolated
geographical area (Representing different habitats) one can call this convergent evolution.
eg.
(i) Similarity in Placental mammals and Marsupials in Australia (placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf).

Evolution 17
 (ii) Shark and Whale (Various aquatic vertebrate that are not closely related but adapted to
survive in aquatic habitat).
Special Note :
Parallel Evolution : When adaptive convergence is found in closely related species, it is called
as parallel evolution. Parallel evolution occurs when two independent but similar species
evolve in the same direction and thus independently acquire similar characteristics.
eg : Running habit in horse and deer.

(H) Evidences From Embryology :

• An organism show its ancestor stages in its embryonic development. In embryonic stage
general characters appear first and specialized characters appears later.
• Ernst haeckel explained recapitulation theory in detail as a universal phenomenon and
named it as 'Biogenetic law'.
• According to it 'ontogeny repeats phylogeny'. Any organism passes through its adult
ancestral stages during its embryonic development. It shows that all organism evolved from
a common ancestor.

Examples :
Embryological Evidence of Evolution

• All vertebrates have Identical embryo in first stage and reptiles, birds and mammals shows
similarity upto late stage embryo.
This proves that All Vertebrates have evolved from common fish like ancestors and also
that reptiles, birds and mammals have shared ancestors in recent past.

18 Evolution
 • When the heart first develops in the embryos of amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals, it is 2-
chambered same as in the embryos of all vertebrates.
In later stages of embryonic development in amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals the heart
become, 3-chambered. This condition is retained in adults of amphibians and most reptiles.
In birds and mammals the heart becomes 4-chambered in the last embryonic stages to
continue as such in the Adults.
Special Note:
• Karl Ernst Von Baer H ’
embryo never pass through the adult ancestral stages

Concept Builder

1. Fossilization can occur when :

(1) Animals are buried and preserved by natural process
(2) Animals are destroyed by scavengers
(3) Animals are eaten by predators
(4) Animals are destroyed by environmental conditions
2. Amphibians supposed to be evolved from the most primitive fish with stout and strong fins and
could move on land and water, this was :
(1) Jawless fish (2) Coelacanth (3) Chimaera (4) Ichthyosaurs
3. Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution :
(1) Lemur and spotted cuscus (2) Bobcat and tasmanian tiger cat
(3) Koala and wombat (4) Anteater and numbat
4. Which of the following is an example of homologous organ and indicates common origin ?
(1) Eyes of octopus and mammals (2) Potato and sweet potato
(3) Heart of crocodile, pigeon and human (4) Wings of butterfly and crow
5. Which study shows similarities and differences among organisms of today and those that
existed years ago ?
(1) Paleontological study (2) Embryological study
(3) Geological study (4) Comparative anatomy and morphology
6. Which of the following option is correctly matched:-
(1) Age of reptile – Jurassic epochs (2) Golden age of fishes – Carboniferous era
(3) Golden age of Amphibians – Palaeozoic era (4) Age of Birds & Mammals – Coenozoic era
7. Find out the incorrect statement:
I. The first mammals (primate like) were like shrews
II. Unlike amphibians, reptiles lay thick-shelled eggs
III. First organisms that invaded land were amphibians
IV. Bryophytes originate from rhynia-type plants
V. Mammals evolved from therapsids
(1) II, III, IV, V (2) II, III, V (3) I, III, V (4) III, IV
8. Find out the correct sequence of evolution of different plant forms :
(1) Tracheophyte ancestors → Chlorophyte ancestors → Psilophyton → Seed ferns
(2) Rhynia type plants → Psilophyton → Seed ferns → Progymnosperms
(3) Chlorophyte ancestors → Tracheophyte ancestors → Psilophyton → Rhynia type plants
(4) Psilophyton → Progymnosperm → Seed ferns → Angiosperms

Concept Builders (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 1 2 3 3 4 4 4 4

Evolution 19
Theories of Organic Evolution
Following theories are given by different scientist regarding organic evolution :
(A) Theory of Lamarck (Lamarckism)
(B) Theory of Darwin (Darwinism)
(C) Mutation theory (Hugo de Vries)
(D) Neo-Darwinism/ Modern synthetic theory of organic evolution

(A) Lamarckism / Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characters :

• First logical theory of evolution was proposed by a French naturalist.
Lamarck (1744-1829)

• Effect of Environment and New Needs : Environment influences all type of organisms. Changing
environment gives rise to new needs. New needs or desires produce new structures (doctrine
of desire/appetency) and change habits of the organism.
• Use and Disuse of Organs : If an organ is constantly used over generations, it would be better
developed whereas disuse of organ results in its degeneration (vestigial organs).
• Inheritance of Acquired Characters : During the life time of an organism, new characters develop
due to the effect of environment, new needs or use and disuse of organs.
All these acquired characters are inherited from one generation to another. By continuous
inheritance through several generations, the variations are accumulated up to such extent that
they can give rise to new species.

Fig :- Elongation of neck in giraffe according to Lamarck

Examples:
1. Long Neck and Forelimbs of Giraffe:
Lamarck gave the example of Giraffes who in an attempt to forage leaves on tall trees had to
adapt by elongation of their necks. As they passed on this acquired character of elongated neck
to succeeding generations, Giraffes, slowly over the years came to acquire long necks.
2. Aquatic birds stretched their toes and developed web.
3. Snakes lost their legs.
• Lamarck had said that evolution of life forms had occurred but driven by use and disuse of
organs. Nobody believes this conjecture any more.
Criticism of Lamarckism :
(1) W ’ :
• Weismann cut off the tails of rats for as many as 22 generations and allowed them to breed,
but tailless or reduced tailed rats were never born.
• On the basis of this experiment Weismann proposed the theory of continuity of germplasm.

20 Evolution
 • According to this theory :
Two types of protoplasms are present in an organism, germplasm and somatoplasm.
There is a continuity of germplasm and the variations influencing the germ cells are only
inherited but the somatoplasm is not transmitted to the next generation, hence it does not
carry variations to next generation.
(2) Boring of ear pinna and nose in Indian women is never inherited to the next generations.

(B) Darwinism/ Theory of Natural Selection:

• Charles Robert Darwin went on a sea voyage on his ship H.M.S. Beagle.
• Darwin was influenced by T.R. Malthus, theory on population and Alfred Russell Wallace, a
naturalist who worked in Malay Archipelago had also come to similar conclusions around
the same time and he sent his conclusions to Darwin in the form of a chart.
• This theory was later on explained by Darwin in his book
‘ origin of species N ’ 18 9

Key Concepts Of Darwinism :

• Two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of evolution are :
(A) Branching Descent (B) Natural Selection
• Natural selection is based on certain observations which are factual.
(i) Over Productions :
• All organisms have the capability to produce enormous number of offspring or organisms
(multiply in geometric ratio).
• Hence, theoretically population size will grow exponentially if everybody reproduces
maximally (this fact can be seen in a growing bacterial population)
• but the fact is that population sizes in reality remains almost same except seasonal
fluctuations.
(ii) Struggle for Existence :
• Natural resources are limited and all progeny members of a population don't survive, means
that there had been competition for resources (Food, Shelter, Water, Minerals etc). Only
some survived and grew at the cost of others that could not flourish. This is called struggle
for existence.
(iii) Variations and Heredity :
• Members of a population vary in characteristics (in fact no two individuals are alike) even
though they look superficially similar i.e. population has built in variation in characteristics.
• Those characteristics which enable some to survive better in natural conditions (climate,
food, physical factors, etc.) are called adaptive or useful variations while others are called
as non - adaptive or harmful variations.
• The novelty and brilliant insight of Darwin was he asserted that variations, which are
heritable and which make resource utilisation better for few (adapted to habitat better) will
enable only those to reproduce and leave more progeny.
(iv) Natural Selection/ Survival of the Fittest :
• “ ”
adaptive variations. Hence, those who are better fit in an environment would be selected by
nature for survival. Darwin called it natural selection and implied it as a mechanism of
evolution.

Evolution 21
 • Fitness : Nature always selects for fitness and fitness is based on characteristics (Adaptive
variations) which are inherited.
– Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
– According to Darwin, fitness refers ultimately and only to reproductive fitness.
• Sexual selection : ’ q
chances of mating, some males with better phenotype are preferred by females. This is
called Sexual selection.
• Therefore, Those adult members which are reproductively better fit and have better
phenotype would produce more progeny while others would produces less progeny
(Differential reproduction).
• As a result of heritable variations and natural selection there would be a change in population
characteristic generation after generation and hence new forms appear to arise. (New species)

Criticism of Darwinism :
1. ’
had no satisfactory explanation for the cause, origin and inheritance of variations.
2. Darwin was unable to differentiate the somatic and germinal variations.
3. Darwin was unable to explain why in a population only a few individuals develop useful
variations and others have harmful variations.
4. This theory only explained survival of the fittest but was unable to explain arrival of the fittest.
5. Criticism of Darwinism was also based on sexual selection. Why only females have the right of
selection for mating?

(C) Mutation / Theory:

• This theory was proposed by Hugo de Vries based on his work on evening primrose
(Oenothera lamarckiana).
• Large differences arising suddenly in a population are called mutations. Actually mutations
are sudden changes of genetic material (DNA) and hence all are inheritable.
• In addition to recombination, mutation is another phenomenon that leads to variation in DNA.
• According to Hugo de Vries it is mutation which causes evolution and not the minor
variations (heritable) that Darwin talked about.
• Mutations are large, random and directionless while Darwinian variations are small and
directional.
• Evolution for Darwin was gradual while De Vries believed mutation caused speciation and
hence called it saltation (single step large mutation).

Criticism :
(i) Natural mutations are not very common as Hugo De Vries thought.
(ii) Mutations are normally recessive & harmful, while the characters taking part in evolution are
usually dominant.
• Therefore, only mutation is not responsible for evolution. Although it has an important role in
evolution.
• Mutation is a discontinuous source of variations and provides raw material for evolution.
[D] Neo-Darwinism/Modern Synthetic Theory
• This theory is the result of the work of a number of scientists namely Dobzhansky, Haldane,
Sewall wright, Mayr, Stebbins etc.
• Stebbins discussed this theory in his book "Process of Organic Evolution" and Dobzhansky
explained it in his book "Genetics and the origin of species".

22 Evolution
 • According to this theory, many factors are responsible for evolution, like :-
(a) Gene and chromosomal mutation
(b) Gene recombination
(c) Hybridization
(d) Gene Migration & Gene flow
(e) Genetic drift
(f) Natural Selection
(g) Reproductive isolation

(a) Gene and Chromosomal Mutation :

They are discontinuous or ultimate source of variations which develop due to permanent
changes in genotype.

(b) Gene Recombination :

They are new combination of genes or alleles which are usually caused by crossing over.

(c) Hybridization :
It is crossing of organisms which are genetically different in one or more traits.

(d) Gene Migration & Gene Flow :

When migration of a section of population to another place and population occurs, gene
frequencies change in the original as well as in the new population. New genes/alleles are added
to the new population and these are lost from the old population.
• There would be a gene flow if this gene migration, happens multiple times.

(e) Genetic Drift :

If the change in gene frequency occurs by chance, it is called genetic drift.

(f) Natural Selection :

Natural selection is a process in which heritable variations enabling better survival are enabled
to reproduce and leave greater number of progeny.
A critical analysis makes us believe that variation results in changed frequency of genes and
alleles in future generation. Coupled to enhance reproductive success, natural selection makes
it look like different population and lead to new species formation.
(g) Reproductive Isolation :
Isolation is a segregation of populations by some barriers which prevent interbreeding.
The reproductive isolation between the populations due to certain barriers leads to the
formation of new species.
Genetic Drift (Sewall Wright Effect) :
• It is the elimination or addition of the genes of certain characters when some animals in
population migrate or dies or immigrate. It changes the gene or alleles frequency of remaining
population.
• Gene pool : It is the sum total of all the genes found in a population. Loss or addition of
genes/Alleles in gene pool is called genetic drift.
• Overall, Random change of gene / allelic frequencies in a population merely by chance is called
genetic drift.
• It usually operates in isolated small population.
• It is due to habitat fragmentation, isolation, natural calamities or any epidemics.

Evolution 23
Two forms of genetic drift :-
(a) Founder Effect :
When a section of population get isolated or migrated or drifted from original population, than
this section becomes genetically different from the original population due to change in allelic
frequency because gene pool of this section may contain some alleles in a very low frequency
or may lack a few alleles.
Sometimes the change in allelic frequency is so different in the new sample of population that
they become a different species. The original drifted population becomes founders for the new
species and the effect is called founder effect.
(b) Bottleneck Effect : Death of several members of a population due to natural calamities
(Earthquake. Storm, Flood) also leads to genetic drift. The original size of population is then
restored by mating among the survivor. The new population may lack the genes of certain traits.
This loss of a section of population by death may lead to formation of new species known as
Bottleneck effect.

Hardy-Weinberg Principle
• In a given population one can find out the frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene or a
locus. This frequency is supposed to remain fixed and even remain the same through
generations.
• This principle says that allele frequencies in a randomly mating population are stable and is
constant from generation to generation. The gene pool (total genes and their alleles in a
population) remains a constant. This is called genetic equilibrium.
• Hardy-Weinberg law is applicable only in large population under the following conditions-
(i) There should be no mutation
(ii) No gene migration or gene flow
(iii) No genetic drift
(iv) No natural selection
(v) Must be random mating (not selective)
• Sum total of all the allelic frequencies is 1.
p+q= 1

p − Frequency of dominant allele (A)
Where 
q − Frequency of recessive allele(a)


• The binomial expansion of this equation is:

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
p2 − Frequency of individuals with genotype AA
 2
q − Frequency of individuals with genotype aa
2pq − Frequency of individuals with genotype Aa

• When frequency measured, differs from expected values, then the difference (direction)
indicates the extent of evolutionary change. Disturbance in genetic equilibrium, or Hardy -
Weinberg equilibrium, i.e., change of frequency of alleles in a population would then be
interpreted as resulting in evolution.
• Five factors are known to affect Hardy-Weinberg (Genetic) equilibrium. These are :
1. Gene migration or gene flow
2. Genetic drift
3. Mutation
4. Natural selection
5. Genetic recombination
 Hardy-Weinberg law or Hardy Weinberg equilibrium defines the genetic structure of a non
evolving population.

24 Evolution
Natural Selection
• The essence of Darwinian Theory about evolution is natural selection.
• The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life cycle or the life span.
• Microbes that divide fast have the ability to multiply and become millions of individuals within
hours.
• A colony of bacteria (say A) growing on a given medium has built in variation in terms of ability
to utilise a feed component. A change in the medium composition would bring out only that
part of the population (say B) that can survive under the new conditions. Here we say that
fitness of B is better than that of A under the new conditions.
• In due course of time this variant population outgrows the others and appears as new species.
This would happen within days.
• For the same thing to happen in a fish or fowl would take million of years as life spans of these
animals are in years.
• Fitness or adaptive ability is based on characteristics which are inherited. It has a genetic basis.
Hence, there must be a genetic basis for getting selected and to evolve.
• Microbial experiments show that pre-existing advantageous mutations when selected will result
in observation of new phenotypes. Over few generations, this would result in Speciation.

Examples of Natural Selection :

(1) Industrial Melanism : This phenomenon was studied by Bernard Kettlewell in England.
• In a collection of moths (Biston betularia) made in 1850s, i.e., before industrialization set in,
it was observed that there were more white-winged moths on trees than dark-winged or
melanised moths.
• However, in the collection carried out from the same area, but after industrialization, i.e., in
1920, there were more dark-winged moths in the same area, i.e., the proportion was reversed.
• The explanation put forth for “
”

(a) In unpolluted area (b) In polluted area

Figure showing white-winged moth and dark-winged moth (melanised) on a tree trunk
• Before industrialization set in, thick growth of almost white-coloured lichen covered the
trees-in that background the white winged moth survived but the dark-coloured moth were
picked out by predators.
• Lichens can be used as industrial pollution indicators. They will not grow in areas that are
polluted.
• During post industrialization period, the tree trunks became dark due to industrial smoke
and soot. Under this condition the white-winged moth did not survive due to predators while
dark-winged or melanised moth survived.

Evolution 25
 • Hence, moths that were able to camouflage themselves, i.e., hide in the background,
survived.
• This understanding is supported by the fact that in areas where industrialization did not
occur e.g. in rural areas, the count of melanic moths was low.
• This showed that in a mixed population, those that can better-adapt, survive and increase
in population size. Remember that no variant is completely wiped out.

(2) Drug Resistance : The drugs which eliminate pathogens become ineffective in the course of
time because those individuals of pathogenic species which can tolerate them survive and
flourish to produce tolerant/resistant population.
• Excess use of herbicides, pesticides, etc., has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties
in a much lesser time scale. This is also true for microbes against which we employ
antibiotics or drugs against eukaryotic organisms / cell. Hence, resistant organisms/cells are
appearing in a very less time scale of months or years and not centuries. These are examples
of evolution by anthropogenic action.
• This also tells us that evolution is not a directed process in the sense of determinism.
Actually evolution is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance
mutation in the organisms.

Types of Natural Selection :

(1) Stabilizing Selection :

• Peak gets higher and narrower because more individuals acquire mean character value.
• Always operates in constant environment.
• It favours the average or normal phenotype and eliminates the extreme variants.
• During this natural selection mean value never change.
e.g. Mortality in human babies : The optimum birth weight favoured by stabilizing selection
is 3.3 Kg. New born infants with body weight less than 2.5 Kg and more than 4.5 Kg have the
highest mortality rate.

(2) Directional / Progressive Selection :

• Peak shifts in one direction because more individuals acquire value other than the mean
character value.
• Always operates in changing environment.
• It favours one extreme value and eliminates another extreme value and average value.
• After this natural selection mean value always changes.
e.g. (i) Industrial melanism
(ii) DDT resistance in mosquitoes

26 Evolution
 (3) Disruptive Selection :
• In this natural selection, members of both extreme are selected simultaneously and average
value get rejected.
• After this natural selection two peaks are formed because more individuals acquire
peripheral character value at both ends of the distribution curve.
e.g. : Squirrel in Africa : There are three types of squirrel in population, large sized squirrel
can protect themselves by fighting against predators, small sized escapes by entering into
burrows but average sized can neither fight nor escape (High death rate).
Artificial Selection
• Man has been taking the advantage of genetic variations for improving the qualities of
domesticated plants and animals. He selects the individuals with desired characters and
separates them from those which do not have such characters. The selected individuals are
interbreed. This process is termed as Artificial Selection. Thus this process is man made. If it is
repeated for many generations it produces a new breed with desired characters.
• By artificial selection animal breeders are able to produce improved varieties of domestic
animals like dogs, horse, pigeons, poultry, cows, goats, sheep and pigs from their wild ancestors.
Similarly the plant breeders have obtained improved varieties of useful plants like wheat, rice,
sugarcane, cotton, pulses, vegetables, fruits etc.
• Artificial Selection is similar to natural selection except that the role of nature is taken over by
man and the characters selected are of human use.
• It is argued that if within the hundreds of years man would create new breed, could not nature
have done the same over millions of years.

Special Point

Is evolution a process or the result of a process ?

The world we see, inanimate and animate, is only the success stories of evolution. When we
describe the story of this world we describe evolution as a process. On the other hand when
we describe the story of life on earth, we treat evolution as a consequence of a process called
natural selection. We are still not every clear whether to regard evolution and natural selection
as processes or end result of unknown processes.
• Unit of natural selection in an individual.
• Unit of evolution is Population.
• Homology is accounted for the idea of branching descent.
• Camouflage : An organism shows resemblance with the surroundings (environment). e.g.
praying mantis.

Evolution 27
Human Evolution
• Human is a member of order Primata of class Mammalia.
• First real primate ancestors were tree shrews.
Apes Human
1 Semi erect posture and 1 Complete erect posture with
quadripedal locomotion bipedal locomotion
2 Thick growth of hair on whole body 2 Body hair vestigeal
3 Less cranial capacity (450cc) & less 3 More cranial capacity (1300-1600
intelligent cc) & more intelligent
4 Forelimbs longer than hind limbs 4 Forelimbs shorter than hind limbs
5 U' shaped jaw & chin absent 5 Semicircular jaw & chin present
6 Thumb is parallel to palm 6 Thumb is opposable
Evidences For Common Origin of Human & Apes :
(1) Chromosomal similarities :- Shape and size of chromosome no. 3 & 6 of human and
chimpanzee is 100% similar.
(2) The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult human skull (body also) than adult chimpanzee
skull.
(3) Only one amino acid is different in structure of Hb of human and gorilla.
(4) Blood group of AB series is present in both and plasma protein is also same.
(5) Menstruation cycle is present in females of both.
(6) Tail is absent in both and have grasping hands.

A comparison of the skulls of adult modern human being, baby chimpanzee and adult
chimpanzee.The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult human skull than adult
chimpanzee skull

28 Evolution
Human Evolution :

About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy
and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees.
(1) Dryopithecus :-
– It is considered as common ancestor of man and apes.
– Dryopithecus is considered as direct ancestors of modern day apes.
– They had semi erect posture, thick hair, U shaped jaws, larger and sharper teeth and
were vegetarian.
– They walked on four legs and their forelimbs were longer than hind limbs.
– They were forest dwellers and spent most of the time on the trees.
(2) Ramapithecus :-
– They are considered as ancestors of human, similar in characteristics to Dryopithecus,
but spent most of the time on the land.
• Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like.
(3) Australopithecus
Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethopia and Tanzania. These
revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3-4 mya, man-like primates
walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked upright.
- 2 mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands.
- Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit.
- It is also considered as connecting link between apes and man.
(i) Ape like Characters :
- Less cranial capacity (500 c.c.)
- Thick growth of hair
- U-shaped jaw (prognathous face)
(ii) Man like Characters :
- Complete erect posture and Bipedal locomotion (first man who stood erect)
- Forelimbs shorter than hind limbs
• A number of other species of Homo appeared and became extinct from time to time on
the evolutionary sense before the origin of Homo sapiens.

(4) Homo Habilis :

• First human like being
• First man who made tools of stones for hunting animals, hence called as first tool maker
man or Handy man.
• They probably did not eat meat.
• 2 MYA lived in east African grasslands. Out of several bones some were
different more human like being hominid and were named as Homo habilis.
• The brain capacities were between 650-800cc.
• They lived in caves.
(5) Homo Erectus :
• They existed about 1.5 million years ago.
• They had large brain with a cranial capacity around 900cc.
• They were cave dwellers and probably ate meat.
• Credited with discovery of fire.
• Many subspecies are discovered of Homo erectus as given below.

Evolution 29
 (a) Java Man (Homo erectus / Pithecanthropus erectus):
- Its fossils discovered in Java in 1891.
- First man who used fire for hunting, protection and cooking.
(b) Peking Man (Homo erectus pekinensis / Sinanthropus erectus)

(6) Neanderthal Man (Homo sapiens neanderthalensis) :

- They lived near east and central Asia between 1,00,000 - 40,000 years back.
- They had a brain size of 1400cc (almost same as modern man).
- They used hides (skin of animals) to protect their body.
- They buried their dead and probably believed in immortality of soul.
- Omnivorous by nature.
- Development of speech and language centre started.
(7) Cromagnon Man (Homo sapiens fossils) :
- They had a cranial capacity of 1650 c.c. (maximum).
- Speech and language centre were well developed in them.
- They wore clothes of animal skin.
- Domesticated dogs.
- They also painted beautiful paintings on cave walls. Pre-historic cave art developed
about 18,000 years ago.
- During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose.
(8) Modern Man (Homo sapiens sapiens) :
- This is the man of today having a brain capacity of avg. 1450cc.
- It is omnivorous by nature.
- Agriculture and human settlements started. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back.

Special Points

• Chimpanzee is closest ape to human.

• Homo erectus is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens.

• Cromagnon man is the direct ancestor of modern man (Homo sapiens sapiens).

• Among the stories of evolution of individual species, the story of evolution of modern man

is most interesting and appears to parallel evolution of human brain and language.

• Evolution term was introduced by Herbert Spencer.

• Birbal Sahni : Famous for Indian palaeonotology

• Two branches of palaeontology :

1. Palaeobotany : Study of plant fossils

2. Palaeozoology : Study of Animal fossils

• The aquatic mammals like Dolphins, Whales and ’

adaptation to aquatic life is secondary.

• Speciation : Formation of one or more new species from an existing species is called speciation.

30 Evolution
 Concept Builder

1. Name of the scientist who gave Mutation Theory :

(1) Wallace (2) Malthus (3) Darwin (4) De Vries

2. According to Lamarck, Snakes do not have legs because :

(1) Legs created hurdle during entry in tunnels, so gradually degenerated and finally lost
(2) Legs are lost due to excess use
(3) The ancestors of reptiles did not have legs
(4) There are no legs in lizards

3. Genetic drift operates in :

(1) Small isolated population (2) Large isolated population
(3) Fast reproductive population (4) Slow reproductive population

4. Hardy - Weinberg law is applicable in :

(1) Small population (2) Evolving population
(3) Randomly mating population (4) Selectively mating population

5. "Excess use of herbicides and pesticides has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties in
a much lesser time scale". This is example of evolution by :
(1) Anthropogenic action (2) Artificial selection
(3) Environmental action (4) Both (1) and (3)

6. Branching descent and __A__ are the two key concepts of ___B___ theory of evolution.
Find out the correct option for A and B.
(1) A–Speciation, B–Darwinian
(2) A–Inheritance of acquired traits, B–Lamarckian
(3) A–Natural selection, B–Lamarckian
(4) A–Natural selection, B–Darwinian

7. Read the following features and find out the correct identification :
I. First human like being
II. Probably did not eat meat
III. Brain capacity between 650-800 cc.
(1) Homo erectus (2) Dryopithecus (3) Homo habilis (4) Neanderthal man

8. The evolution of life forms is a :

(1) Rapid phenomenon (2) Gradual phenomenon
(3) Intense phenomenon (4) Both (2) and (3)

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 4 1 1 3 1 4 3 2

Evolution 31
 Exercise - I
[A] Origin of Life 6. Process of evolution is :
1. Which of the following story is related (1) Continuous
with the context of evolution of earth ? (2) Continuous in the past but
(1) Origin of life
discontinuous presently.
(2) Evolution of life forms
(3) Biodiversity on earth (3) Discontinuous
(4) All of these (4) Discontinuous in the past but
2. When was life appeared on earth ? continuous presently
(1) Almost 20 billion years back
7. What is most important for origin of life:
(2) 500 million years after the formation
of earth (1) Carbon (2) Oxygen
(3) Almost 4 billion years back (3) Water (4) Nitrogen
(4) Both (2) and (3) options are correct
8. According to modern theory, the basis of
3. Time gap in between formation of
origin of life is :
universe & origin of life is :
(1) 16000 Million years (1) Abiogenesis
(2) 500 Million years (2) God's desire
(3) 3000 Million years (3) Sunlight on mud
(4) 4000 Million years
(4) Special creation
4. Read the following statements :
(i) Atmosphere was absent on primitive 9. Oxygen in atmosphere has been formed
earth by :
(ii) Universe expanded hence temperature (1) Evaporation of water
came down
(2) Photosynthesis of blue green algae
(iii) Nebulae get condensed under gravitation
and formed galaxies of the present day (3) Metabolism of microorganisms
universe. (4) Decaying organisms
(iv) H2 and He formed later.
Select the right option : 10. "For a long time it was also believed that
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) statements are true life came out of decaying and rotting
while (ii) is false matter like straw, mud etc." this theory
(2) (i), (ii) statements are true while (iii),
was dismissed by experiment of which
(iv) are false
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) statements are true while scientist ?
(iv) is false (1) Oparin and Haldane
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) all statements are (2) Louis Pasteur
true (3) Miller and Urey
5. According to the theory of special (4) Charles Darwin
creation, which connotation is correct ?
(1) Earth is about 4000 years old. 11. Water vapour, CH4, CO2 and NH3 like
(2) All living organisms that we see gases of early earth came from :
today were not created as such (1) Lightening
(3) Diversity was always same since
(2) Formed during chemical evolution
creation but will not be same in
future. (3) Ocean
(4) All are correct (4) River containing Bacteria

32 Evolution
12. Believers of spontaneous generation 18. During chemical evolution, key biological
theory believed that : compounds were synthesized :
(1) Life originated from other similar (1) In the fresh water
organisms spontaneously from non
(2) Along the ocean shore
living materials
(3) In the ocean
(2) Life originated only spontaneously
(4) Nile river
(3) Life originated from similar
organisms 19. Miller and Urey performed an experiment
(4) Life originated from air
to prove the origin of life. They took
13. It is believed that the first organisms gases NH3 and H2 along with :
which inhabitated earth's surface were : (1) N2 and H2O (2) H2O and CH4
(1) Autotrophs (3) CH4 and N2 (4) CO2 and NH3
(2) Mixotrophs
(3) Heterotrophs 20. Abiogenesis is the :
(4) Chemoautotrophs (1) Origin of life from non-living material
(2) Origin of life from living organism
14. According to early Greek thinkers, unit
of life were transferred to different (3) Origin of viruses and microbes
planets including earth. This view of (4) None
origin of life is studied under :
21. Which of the following was not found in
(1) Theory of biogenesis
free form during origin of life :
(2) Cosmic panspermia theory
(3) Theory of special creation (1) Ammonia (2) Methane
(4) Theory of spontaneous generation (3) Oxygen (4) Hydrogen

15. Life cannot originate from inorganic 22. Who gave experimental proof that
materials at present because : hydrogen, methane, water and ammonia
(1) High degree of environmental pollution gave rise to amino acids :
(2) A very high amount of oxygen in the (1) Stanley Miller (2) Charles Darwin
atmosphere
(3) Lamarck (4) Oparin
(3) Very high atmospheric temperature
(4) Absence of raw materials 23. Oparin of _A_ and Haldane of _B_
16. Who did an experiment to prove that proposed that the first form of life could
"The organic compounds were the basis have come from pre existing _C_
of life" ? molecules and that form of life was
(1) Darwin preceded by chemical evolution.
(2) Stanley Miller and Harold C.Urey Suitable fill ups for above blanks A, B, C
(3) Huxley and Harvey
will be :
(4) Fox
(1) A - Russia, B-England, C- Non-living
17. Due to discovery of which of the organic
following in 1980 the evolution was (2) A- Russia, B- England, C- Non-living
termed as RNA world :
inorganic
(1) m - RNA, t - RNA, r - RNA synthesize
(3) A- England, B-Russia, C- Non-living
proteins
organic
(2) In some virus RNA is genetic material
(3) RNA has enzymatic property (4) A- England, B-Russia, C- Non -Living
(4) RNA is not found in all cells organic

Evolution 33
24. When we look at stars on a clear night 28. Given below is the family tree of Reptiles
sky, we apparently are peeping into the and their living modern day counterpart
past, because: organisms like Crocodiles, Birds. In this
tree some counterparts are indicated as
(1) We can know about our past by
A, B, C and you have to select the option
seeing these stars which is true for them
(2) When we see objects in our
immediate surrounding we see them
in present time
(3) Light emitted by these stars took
thousands or millions of years to
reach upto our eyes
(4) We can see them in real time but it
happens occasionally

25. Mark the incorrect statement about the

evolution of life forms on the behalf of
fossil records ?
(1) Life forms varied over the period of
(1) A -Ichthyosaurus, B-Birds,
time C-Mammals
(2) Some life forms restricted to certain (2) A-Brachiosaurus, B-Pteranodon,
geological periods C-Triceratops
(3) Diversity was same since creation (3) A-Therapsid, B-Anapsid,
and will be same in future also C-Pteranodon
(4) A-Anapsid, B-Therapsid,
(4) New life forms have arisen at
C-Pteranodon
different times in the history of earth
29. ’
26. Which of the following can be on the basis of :
considered as an evidence for first part (1) Feather (2) Beak
of the conjectured story of Oparin and (3) Colour of eye (4) Body colour
Haldane : 30. Homologous organs are similar in origin
(1) S.L. Miller's experiment and anatomy but perform different
(2) Louis Pasteur's experiment function generally. It is due to :
(1) Adaptation of different needs in
(3) Analysis of meteorite content
different geographical area
(4) Both (1) and (3) (2) Adaptation to similar need in similar
geographical area
[B] Evidence of Evolution (3) Mutation
(4) Protection and defense
27. Which one of the following statement is
correct ? 31. Which pattern of evolution is indicated
by "A" in the following diagram :
(1) The Big bang theory attempts to
explain to us the origin of life
(2) Analogy is based on divergent
evolution whereas homology refers
to a situation exactly opposite.
(3) The geological history of earth A
(1) Adaptive radiation
closely correlates with the biological (2) Convergent evolution
history of earth. (3) Divergent evolution
(4) All are correct (4) Natural selection

34 Evolution
32. In some animals of different groups 39. Mark the correct option regarding the
different structure developed along animals shown in the adjacent figure :
same direction due to Adaptation to
same needs this is called as :
(1) Divergent evolution
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) None of these

33. A H ’ biogenetic law :

(1) Development of individual organism
shows embryonic characters of
ancestors.
(2) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(3) Germplasm is immortal (1) It indicates their common ancestry
(4) Every organism is produced by its (2) It indicates divergent evolution
parents (3) It shows homologous organs
(4) All of the above
34. I. Use and disuse of organs.
40. Which of the following sets do not have
II. inheritance of acquired characters.
homologous organs :
III. Branching descent.
(1) Wings of mosquito and butterfly
IV. Natural selection
(2) Wings of butterfly and bat
V. Mutation
(3) carrot and radish
VI. Reproductive isolation.
(4) Heart in all vertebrates
The key concepts of Darwinism from the
given options are : 41. Wings of locust, and bat are example of:
(1) I and II (2) III and IV (1) Vestigial organs
(2) Analogous organs
(3) V and VI (4) IV and VI
(3) Homologous organs
35. Presence of Coelacanth fish was (4) Atavism
observed in :
42. Homology is exhibited by :
(1) South America (2) South Africa
(1) Wings of butterfly, birds and bat
(3) North America (4) North Africa
(2) Paddle of whale, forearm of horse
36. The biggest land reptile was : and forelimbs of man
(1) Pelycosaurus (2) Calotes (3) Flippers of penguin and dolphin
(3) Tyrannosaurus (4) Triceratops (4) Sting of scorpion and Apis

37. Who was the first to explain recapitulation 43. Evolution of first birds and mammals
occured in :
theory in detail :
(1) Eocene and oligocene periods
(1) Weismann (2) Haeckel
(2) Silurian and devonian periods
(3) Darwin (4) Malthus
(3) Carboniferous and Permian periods
38. Evolution of life shows that life forms (4) Jurassic and triassic periods
had a trend of moving from : 44. The mesozoic era of earth is called the :
(1) Land to water (1) Age of amphibians
(2) Dry land to wet land (2) Age of armoured fishes
(3) Fresh water to sea water (3) Age of mammals
(4) Water to land (4) Age of reptiles

Evolution 35
45. A “ ” : 53. Which of the following study is helpful to
(1) Mesozoic (2) Palaeozoic understand that all mammals share
(3) Coenozoic (4) Cretaceous similarities in the pattern of bones of
forelimbs?
46. Homologous organs are :
(1) Dissimilar origin and dissimilar (1) Physiology and biochemistry
structures (2) Taxonomy
(2) Dissimilar origin but similar (3) Comparative anatomy and morphology
functions (4) Biogeographical distribution
(3) Similar origin with similar or
54. Development in similar adaptation in
dissimilar functions
organisms with different genotype indicate:
(4) Similar origin but always dissimilar
(1) Microevolution
functions
(2) Macroevolution
47. When more than one adaptive radiations (3) Convergent evolution
appear in an isolated geographical area, (4) Divergent evolution
than it is called :
(1) Natural selection 55. Birbal Sahni was a :
(2) Convergent evolution (1) Zoologist
(3) Divergent evolution (2) Founder of Central Drug Research
(4) Retrogressive evolution Institute (CDRI)
(3) Ornithologist
48. Human hand, wing of bat and flipper of
(4) Palaeobotanist
whale represent :
(1) Analogous organs 56. In evidences for evolution, similarities in
(2) Vestigial organs proteins and genes performing a given
(3) Homologous organs function among diverse organisms give
(4) Analogy clues to :
49. A missing link between reptiles and (1) Common anatomy
birds is : (2) Common morphology
(1) Archaeopteryx (2) Platypus (3) Common ancestry
(3) Java Ape man (4) Pteranodon (4) Speciation

50. Which of the following is not amongst 57. Potato and sweet potato :
the evolutionary line of mammals ? (1) Have edible parts which are
(1) Therapsids (2) Pelycosaurus homologous organs
(3) Synapsids (4) Sauropsids (2) Have edible parts which are analogous
organs
51. Evolution of heart from one to two,
(3) Are two species of the same genus
three and four chambered proves :
(1) Biogenetic law of Haeckel (4) Have been introduced in India from
(2) Lamarckism the same place
(3) Hardy W ’ 58. The ancestor of modern birds "archaeopteryx"
(4) Neo Darwinism
first appeared during the :
52. When reptiles came down which (1) Cretaceous period
animals took over the earth ? (2) Jurassic period
(1) Birds (2) Dinosaurs (3) Triassic period
(3) Mammals (4) Amphibians (4) Carboniferous period

36 Evolution
59. The age of fossils is determined by : 66. Which of the following primitive reptile
(1) Analysis of bones probably had some aquatic adaptations?
(2) Radioactive carbon dating (1) Pteranodon (2) Stegosaurus
(3) Electron microscopy (3) Ichthyosaurus (4) Tyrannosaurus
(4) Weighing the fossils
60. Which one of the following describes 67. Which animals still shows primitive
correctly the Analogous structures : character like their fossils
(1) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, (1) Archeopteryx (2) Tuatara
but performing same function (3) Coelacanth (4) Both (2) & (3)
(2) Organs with anatomical similarities,
68. In Evidences of evolution, which of the
but performing different functions
following give clues to common
(3) Organs that have no function now,
ancestry?
but had an important function in
(1) Homology
ancestors
(4) Organs appearing only in embryonic (2) Divergent evolution
stage and disappearing later in the adult (3) Biochemical similarities among
diverse organisms
61. Organs which have the same anatomical
(4) All are correct
structure but are different in function,
are called : [C] Theories of Evolution
(1) Vestigial organs 69. The figure shown below representing
(2) Homologous organs the:
(3) Analogous organs
(4) Homoplastic organs

62. Flippers of dolphin and whale are

modified:
(1) Fins (2) Hindlimb
(3) Forelimb (4) Gills

63. ’ :
(1) Divergent evolution (1) Stabilisation (2) Directional change
(2) Adaptive radiation (3) Disruption (4) Genetic drift
(3) Both (1) and (2)
70. Ship used by Darwin :
(4) Convergent evolution
(1) HSM Beagle
64. According to the theory of special (2) His Majesty service
creation, earth originated about 4000 (3) HMS Beagle
years back. This age of earth is (4) Her Major ship
calculated/estimated by :
(1) Rock dating (2) Carbon dating 71. “
(3) K-Ar method (4) None years, man could create new breeds of
animals and crops, nature could not
65. Which of the following evidences have
have done the same over millions of
physical proof and are considered as
” :
"documents of evolution"?
(1) Environmental selection
(1) Homologous organs
(2) Natural selection
(2) Fossils
(3) Analogous organs (3) Sexual selection
(4) Biogeographical distribution (4) Artificial selection

Evolution 37
72. Biston betularia has two forms-the light 79. Which of the following evidences does
and the dark melanic form. The dark not favour the Lamarckian concept ?
melanic form is expected to be more (1) Absence of limbs in snakes
common in : (2) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic
(1) Non-polluted environment. birds
(2) Polluted environment. (3) Melanization in peppered moth in
industrial area
(3) Deforested land.
(4) Lack of pigment in cave dwelling
(4) Colder environment.
animals
73. ’ N 80. Match the columns and choose the
was based on : correct option :
(1) Inheritance of acquired characters Column-I Column-II Column-III
(2) Mutation (scientist) (belongs (description
(3) Enormous rate of reproduction in to) given)
organisms, struggle for existence (1) Oparin England Life came from
and survival of the fittest non-living
(4) Changes due to the use and disuse inorganic
of organs molecules
(2) Lamarck France Passing of
74. Unit of evolution is : acquired
(1) Species (2) Individual characters to
(3) Population (4) Phylum succeeding
generations
75. Natural selection is based on certain (3) S.L. Miller America Experimental
factual observations, these are : explanation
(1) Limited natural resources of spontaneous
(2) Stable size of population (except generation
seasonal fluctuation) (4) Thomas England Large
(3) Variation in characteristics in Malthus differences
members of a population arising
(4) All are correct suddenly in a
population
76. Which of the following is responsible for
evolution according to Neo-Darwinism : 81. Animal husbandry and plant breeding
(1) Mutation programmes are the examples of :
(2) Natural selection (1) Reverse evolution
(2) Artificial selection
(3) Genetic drift
(3) Mutation
(4) All of the aboven9
(4) Natural selection
77. The ultimate source of organic variation
82. Match the following columns and find
is : correct combination :
(1) Mutation Column-I Column-II
(2) Sexual reproduction a. Darwin p. Mutation theory
(3) Natural selection b. De Vries q. Chemical evolution
(4) Hormonal action c. Pasteur r. Origin of species
d. Miller s. Special Creation
78. Which of the following is used as an t. Swan-Necked
atmospheric pollution indicator ? Flask Experiment
(1) Lepidoptera (1) a-r, b-p, c-t, d-q
(2) Lichens (2) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s
(3) Lycopersicon (3) a-t, b-r, c-q, d-p
(4) Lycopodium (4) a-r, b-t, c-p, d-q

38 Evolution
83. Frequency of an allele in an isolated 89. Given below are few informations
population may change due to : regarding Alfred Wallace, mark the correct
(1) Genetic drift (2) Gene flow option :
(3) Mutation (4) Hybridisation (i) Was a naturalist
(ii) Worked in Malay Archepelago
84. Some bacteria are able to grow in
(iii) Had come to completely dissimilar
penicilline containing medium due to :
conclusion around the same time of
(1) Natural selection due to drug
Darwin
resistance
(iv) He sent is observations and
(2) Genetic recombination conclusions to Darwin through a
(3) Reproductive isolation letter
(4) Genetic drift (1) ii and iv (2) i and iii
85. Variations through mutations are : (3) i, ii and iv (4) Only iii
(1) Random and directionless 90. The idea not related to the Darwinian
(2) Random and directional evolutionary theory is :
(3) Random and small (1) Survival of the fittest
(4) Random, small and directional (2) Struggle for existence
86. Based on observations made during a (3) Inheritance of acquired characters

sea voyage, Charles Darwin concluded (4) Origin of species by natural selection

that existing living forms share 91. Read the below statements and choose
similarities :- the correct option.
(1) Among themselves only Statement – 1 : The work of Malthus on
(2) With life forms that existed millions population influenced Darwin.
of years ago. Statement – 2 : After Darwin, Lamarck
(3) Both (1) & (2) had said that evolution of life forms had
(4) Does not share similarities occurred but driven by use and disuse of
organs.
87. De Vries gave his mutation theory on
(1) Both statements are correct
organic evolution while working on :
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(1) Oenothera lamarckiana
(3) Statement-1 is correct but
(2) Drosophila melanogaster
statement-2 is incorrect.
(3) Pisum sativum
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect but
(4) Althea rosea
statement-2 is correct.
88. Which of the following is not true for a
92. The chance of elimination of genes from
species: a small population is an example of :
(1) Members of a species can interbreed (1) Natural selection
(2) Few variations may occur among (2) Speciation
members of a species (3) Adaptation
(3) The gene flow does not occur (4) Genetic drift
between the populations of a
93. If a mutation is selected by nature then
species it is :
(4) Each species is reproductively (1) Neutral (2) Harmful
isolated from every other species (3) Pre-adaptive (4) Post-adaptive

Evolution 39
94. The classical example of adaptive 100. Which of the following was not given by
radiation is: ’ ?
(1) Darwin’ finches (1) Struggle for existence
(2) Over production
(2) Marsupials of Australia
(3) Natural selection
(3) Placentals in Australia
(4) Genetic drift
(4) All of these
101. According to Hugo De Vries, large
95. Those characteristics which enable an mutation that causes speciation in single
organism to survive better in natural step called :
condition, are known as : (1) Dominant mutation
(1) Saltation (2) Lethal mutation
(3) Saltation
(2) Mutation
(4) Recessive mutation
(3) Adaptive variations
(4) Variations 102. Excess use of herbicides, pesticides,
antibiotics etc has resulted in selection of
96. Which of the following is not a concept resistant varieties in a much lesser time
of Lamarck ? scale, these are examples of evolution by :
(1) Direct effect of environment or (1) Mutation
environmental pressure causes (2) Artificial selection
(3) Natural selection due to
variation
anthropogenic action
(2) Rate & survival of organism is
(4) Genetic drift
different due to variation
(3) Inheritance of acquired character 103. Change of allelic frequencies or
disturbance of genetic equilibrium in a
(4) If an organ is used constantly it will
population would then be interpreted as
continuously increase its size.
resulting in evolution, it may happen due
97. Raw material for evolution is : to all the following factors except one ?
(1) Gene migration
(1) Genetic drift
(2) Gene recombination
(2) Natural selection
(3) Random mating
(3) Adaptation (4) Natural selection
(4) Mutation [D] Human evolution

98. What will happen in better adapted and 104. Match the columns A and B.
fittest population ? Column A Column B
(1) Gene pool decreases (A) Ice age (i) Between 1,00,000
(2) Gene pool increases - 40,000 years ago
(3) Intraspecific struggle will not be found
(B) Starting of (ii) 75,000 - 10,000
(4) will not evolve Agriculture years ago
99. According to the Neo-Darwinian theory (C) Neanderthal (iii) 18000 years ago
which of the following is responsible for man
the origin of new species ? (D) Pre-historic (iv) 10000 years ago
cave art
(1) Mutations only
(2) Useful variations and natural selection (1) (C) – i, (A) – ii, (D) – iii, (B) – iv
(3) Mutations together with natural (2) (A) – i, (B) – ii, (C) – iii, (D) – iv
selection (3) (C) – i, (A) – ii, (B) – iii, (D) – iv
(4) Hybridization only (4) (C) – i, (D) – ii, (A) – iii, (B) – iv

40 Evolution
105. Agriculture & Human settlement started 109. Homo erectus differed from Cro-magnon
about: man in having :
(1) 10000 years back (1) Protruded Jaws (2) Tool making
(2) 20000 years back (3) Sloping jaws (4) Cave art
(3) 30000 years back 110. Which of the following statement is
(4) 40000 years back correct :
(1) Dryopithecus was ancestor of man
106. Which character applies to Homo sapiens:
and ape
(1) Opposable toe
(2) Dryopithecus was ancestor of man
(2) Large canine
and not of ape
(3) Cranial capacity 1450 cc
(3) Ramapithecus was more man like
(4) Prognathous face (4) More than one correct
107. Below given is the diagrammatic 111. Who lived in near east and central Asia
representation of sequence of ancestor between 1,00,000 - 40,000 years back ?
of human being evolution identify A, B (1) Homo erectus
and C in the given option and choose (2) Homo habilis
correct one : (3) Neanderthal man
Modern man (4) Australopithecines

Cromagnan man 112. Most recent man found as fossil was :

(1) Java man
C (2) Peking man
(3) Cro-magnon man
Homo habilis
(4) Hiedelberg man
B
113. Evolution of man was possible because
our apelike ancestors :
A
(1) Showed bipedal movement on open
Dryopithecus land
(2) Used fire
(1) A → Australopithecus;
(3) Felt difficulty in feeding
B → Ramapithecus; C → Homo erectus (4) Developed community hunting
(2) A→ Ramapithecus; B → Homo erectus;
C → Australopithecus 114. Greatest advantage of bipedal movement :
(1) Fore arms becoming free for carrying
(3) A→ Ramapithecus;
out order of brain
B → Australopithecus; C → Homo erectus
(2) Greater speed
(4) A → Australopithecus; (3) Support the body properly
B → Homo erectus; C → Ramapithecus (4) Loss of weight

108. Which of the following statement is 115. Which of the following is the most
correct ? primitive ancestor of man ?
(1) The skull of adult chimpanzee is like (1) Homo habilis
modern adult human (2) Ramapithecus
(2) The skull of baby chimpanzee is like (3) Australopithecus
modern adult human (4) Homo neanderthalensis
(3) Skull of baby chimpanzee is exactly 116. Homo habilis refers to :
similar to adult chimpanzee (1) Wandering species
(4) Skull of baby chimpanzee and adult (2) Ancient man
chimpanzee has no resemblance to (3) Modern man
skull of human (4) Tool maker man

Evolution 41
117. Character which is closely related to 121. Direct ancestor to modern man was :
human evolution : (1) Neanderthal man
(1) Disappearance of tail (2) Homo habilis
(2) Reduction in size of jaws (3) Cro-magnon man
(3) Binocular vision (4) Australopithecus
(4) Flat nails
122. Ancestor of man who first stood erect
118. Which one of the following is the closest was :
living relative of man, on the basis of (1) Australopithecus
chromosome banding pattern : (2) Cro-magnon man
(1) Chimpanzee (2) Gorilla (3) Java man
(3) Oranguttan (4) Gibbon (4) Peking man
119. According to human fossils which have 123. Mark the incorrect statement regarding
been discovered up to present time, human evolution ?
origin and evolution of man was started (1) Man like primates walked in eastern
from: Africa about 3-4 MYA and they were
(1) France (2) Java not probably taller than 4 feet
(3) Africa (4) China (2) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
120. The banding pattern of chromosomes were hairy and walked like gorilla
number 3 and 6 of human beings and and chimpanzee
chimpanzee shows that both animals (3) Prehistoric cave arts developed
had: about 18000 years ago
(1) Common origin (4) Homo habilis probably ate meat
(2) Human have evolved from apes
(3) Apes have evolved from human
(4) They have no evolutionary
relationship

42 Evolution
 Exercise - II
1. What is true about finches ? 5. Common ancestry of bioevolution is
(a) Present in galapagos island. evident from :
(b) Have changes in beak pattern / (1) Comparative anatomy and morphology
shape, as of food available. (2) Homology
(c) Arose from common ancestor. (3) Adaptive radiation
(d) Best example of adaptive radiation. (4) All of the above
(1) a, c, d (2) b, c, d
6. Read the below observations carefully
(3) a, b, c (4) a, b, c, d
and identify the related scientist :
2. Organic compound obtained by Miller I. In a population, change in allelic
after his own experiment, were: frequency would result in evolution.
(1) Protein II. Mutation can cause disturbance in
(2) Polysaccharides genetic equilibrium.
(3) Some amino acids III. Allele frequency in a population is
(4) Coacervates stable and is constant from
generation to generation.
3. Read the following table regarding
Options are :
homologous and analogous organ and
(1) Hugo de Vries
select the incorrect match :
(2) John Gregor Mendel
Evolution
Example Function (3) Hardy-Weinberg
type
1 Homologous Limbs of Various Converge
(4) Charles Darwin
organ man and skilled work nt
7. Homology is exhibited by :
cheetah and running evolution
1 V ’
respectively
2 V ’
2 Analogous Potato and Storage of Converge
organ sweet starch as nt (3) Wings of bats and wings of birds
potato stored food evolution (4) All of the above
3 Analogous Eye of Organ of Converge
8. Select the incorrect match out of four :
organ octopus sight nt
(1) Homology - Wings of birds and
and man evolution
4 Homologous Wings of Flying and Divergent flipper of dolphin
organ bat and swimming evolution (2) Adaptive radiation - ’
flippers of respectively (3) Fittest - Individual with inferior
seal phenotype
(4) Analogy - Eyes of mammals and
4. At present scientist know very well that
Octopus
certain life form are restricted to certain
geological time period. The clear 9. Archaeopteryx, a transitional fossil
evidences for this conclusion comes between birds and reptiles was discovered
from : from the rocks of following period:
(1) Fossils (1) Jurassic
(2) Embryology (2) Archaeozoic era
(3) Anatomy and Homology (3) Cretaceous
(4) Biochemistry (4) Triassic

Evolution 43
 16. Which reptile went back into water to
10. Marsupial mole, Koala, Bandicoot &
Wombat in Australia are examples of : evolve into fish like reptile ?
(1) Parallel evolution (1) Ichthyosaurus (2) Calotes
(2) Convergent evolution (3) Hemidactylus (4) Alligator
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Co-evolution 17. Select the true statements :
(1) Ramapithecus and Dryopithecus were
11. Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation
existing about 50 million years ago
demonstrated that life does not come :
(2) Ramapithecus was man like while
(1) From pre-existing life
(2) From killed yeast Dryopithecus was more ape like
(3) Through biogenesis (3) Ramapithecus was more ape like
(4) All of the above while Dryopithecus was more man-
like
12. It is argued that if within the hundreds
of years man could create new breed, (4) 1 & 2 both
could not nature have done the same
18. Brain capacity of Homo habilis was :
over millions of years.
Justify the above statements : (1) 650-800 cc (2) 800-900 cc
(1) It explain the evolution and origin of (3) 600-1000 cc (4) 900-1100 cc
new species
19. Fossils of Homo erectus was discovered
(2) Shows importance of human in
evolution. in :
(3) Shows human involvement made (1) Java (2) Bangladesh
evolution faster. (3) Ethiopia (4) Tanzania
(4) All of these
20. Neanderthal man lived near :
13. The reason of reversal proportion in (1) East & West Africa
population of two different coloured (2) South Africa
moth [Dark and White] in England after (3) North Africa
industrialisation was : (4) East & Central Asia
(1) Adaptation and natural selection
(2) Mutation 21. The story of evolution of modern man in
(3) Geographical distribution respect to brain & language appears as :
(4) Stabilization (1) Convergent evolution
14. Flying squirrel & flying phalanger (2) Divergent evolution
represent the phenomenon of : (3) Parallel evolution
(1) Divergent evolution (4) All
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation 22. Highest brain capacity among the
(4) Divergent radiation following human ancestor is found in :
15. According to Hugo de vries speciation (1) Australopithecus (2) Homo habilis
due to mutation is also known as (3) Homo erectus (4) Neanderthal
‘ ’ :
23. All various species of finches radiated
(1) Single step variation
(2) Variations at regular intervals from a common ancestral finch. What is
(3) Single step large mutation true for ancestral finch ?
(4) Huge change due to Natural (1) Seed eating (2) Fruit eating
selection (3) Cave dweller (4) Omnivorous

44 Evolution
24. 28. The most accepted line of descent in
(a) Australopithecus (i) First human human evolution is :
like (1) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus →
(b) Homo habilis (ii) Used hides Homo sapiens → Homo habilis
to protect (2) Homo erectus → Homo habilis →
the body Homo sapiens
(c) Homo erectus (iii) Arose in (3) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis →
Africa Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
(d) Neanderthal (iv) Probably ate (4) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus →
man meat Homo erectus → Homo habilis →
(e) Homo sapiens (v) Hunted with Homo sapiens

stone 29. Rate of appearance of new forms of a

weapons species is directly linked to the :
and ate (1) Life span / time interval of life cycle
fruits (2) Protection and feeding
(3) Environmental conditions
(1) a-v, b-ii, c-iv, d-i, e-iii
(4) Body size
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii, e-v
(3) a-v, b-i, c-iv, d-ii, e-iii 30. In 1953 S.L. Miller created primitive earth
(4) a-v, b-ii, c-iii, d-i, e-iv conditions in the laboratory and gave
experimental evidence for origin of first
25. Viviparity is considered to be more form of life from preexisting non-living
evolved because : organic molecules. The primitive earth
(1) The young ones are left on their own conditions created include :
(2) The young ones are protected by a (1) Low temperature, volcanic storms,
thick shell atmosphere rich in oxygen
(3) The young ones are protected inside (2) Low temperature, volcanic storms,
’ reducing atmosphere
after they are born leading to more (3) High temperature, volcanic storms,
chances of survival nonreducing atmosphere
(4) The embryo takes a long time to (4) High temperature, volcanic storms,
reducing atmosphere containing CH4,
develop
NH3, H2 etc.
26. For the MN-blood group system, the
31. Bob cat and Tiger cat exhibit :
frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.7
(1) Divergent evolution
and 0.3, respectively. The expected
(2) Adaptive radiation
frequency of MN-blood group bearing
(3) Convergent / parallel evolution
organisms is likely to be :
(4) More than one options are correct
(1) 42% (2) 49% (3) 9% (4) 58%
32. According to Darwin, the term fitness
27. Which type of selection is industrial refers to :
melanism observed in moth, Biston (1) Social fitness
betularia : (2) Mental fitness
(1) Stabilising (2) Directional (3) Physical fitness
(3) Disruptive (4) Artificial (4) Reproductive fitness

Evolution 45
33. The first human being like prehistoric 40. Paddles of whale, wings of bat,
man was: forelimbs of cheetah and human show :
(1) Homo sapiens a. Similarities in the pattern of bones
(2) Homo erectus b. Homology
(3) Homo habilis c. Analogous organs
(4) Neanderthal man d. Convergent evolution
34. In which type of natural selection two e. Divergent evolution
peaks are formed ? f. Different structures evolving for
(1) Stabilizing selection same functions
(2) Directional selection (1) a, b and c (2) c, d and f
(3) Disruptive selection (3) a and d (4) a, b and e
(4) Both (1) and (3)
41. What is sequence in the evolution of
35. Before industrialization set in England : mammals?
(1) Only white winged moths were (1) Fish-amphibian-bird-mammals
present on trees (2) Insect-fish-bird-mammals
(2) White winged moths were less in (3) Fish-amphibian-reptile-mammals
number on trees (4) Fish-amphibian-reptile-bird-mammals
(3) Dark winged moths were less in
number on trees 42. There would be no evolution if :
(4) White winged moths were absent (1) The inheritance of acquired characters
did not take place
36. Proper burial of dead bodies for the first (2) Somatic variations were not inheritable
time started by which prehistoric man? (3) Genetic variations were not found
(1) Java man among members of population
(2) Homo habilis
(4) Somatic variations would not transform
(3) Neanderthal man
into germinal variations
(4) Australopithecines
43. Chances of inheritable and evolutionary
37. Homo sapiens arose in and moved
changes are more in such species which
across continents and developed into
reproduce by :
distinct races:
(1) Parthenogenesis
(1) America (2) Australia
(2) Fission
(3) China (4) Africa
(3) Sexual reproduction
38. The study of fossils in different aged (4) Asexual reproduction
rocks shows all of the following except :
(1) They probably died during the 44. j ’
formation of that particular sediment that:
(2) Some of them appear similar to (1) It presumes that environment upon
modern organisms earth has been changing through ages
(3) Life forms varied over time and (2) It does not explain variations with
certain forms were restricted to heredity (Genetic)
certain geological time spans (3) It overestimates reproductive capacity
(4) They do not represent extinct of animals and plants
organisms (4) It does not explain vestigial organs
39. Which vertebrates evolved into the first 45. Use of atomic bombs may lead to abnormalities
amphibians ? even in upcoming generations because of :
(1) Jawless fishes (1) Body changes
(2) Lobefin fishes (Coelacanth) (2) Air pollution
(3) Salamanders (3) Changed atoms in atmosphere
(4) Ichthyosaurus (4) Genetic mutation

46 Evolution
46. Homologous organs are : 52. Which one of the following phenomenon
(1) Wings of cockroach and wings of bats ’
(2) Wings of insects and wings of birds. selection in organic evolution :
(3) Air bladder of fishes and lungs of frog (1) P ‘ ’
(4) Flipper of dolphin and forelimbs of cloning
horse.
(2) ‘
47. Forthcoming generations are less ’
adaptive than their parental generation (3) Development of transgenic animals
due to : (4) Prevalence of pesticide resistant
(1) Natural selection (2) Mutation insects
(3) Genetic drift (4) Adaptation
53. In evolution the studies can be made at
48. Which one of the following sequences
molecular level. For example the protein
was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for
present in the blood of man and ape are
organic evolution :
(1) Overproduction, variations, constancy similar. The base sequence in nucleic
of population size, natural selection acids and amino acids sequence in
(2) Variations, constancy of population size, protein in related organism is alike.
overproduction, natural selection These are the examples which one
(3) Overproduction, constancy of population specifically referred to in:
size, variations, natural selection (1) Convergent evolution
(4) Variations, natural selection, (2) Molecular analogy
overproduction, constancy of population (3) Molecular homology
size (4) Homoplastic appearance
49. ‘N
54. Select the correct statement from the
’
following :
which one of the following in organic
(1) Darwinian variations are small and
evolution :
(1) Small variations direction less
(2) Survival of the fittest (2) Fitness is the end result of the ability
(3) Struggle for existence to adapt and gets selected by nature
(4) Discontinuous variations (3) Analogous organs show common
ancestry.
50. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog
(4) Mutations are random and directional
indicates that :
(1) Fishes evolved from frog like ancestors 55. Which of the following are not analogous
(2) Frogs will have gills in future organs :
(3) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors (1) Fins of fishes and flippers of whales
(4) Fishes were amphibious in the past (2) Stings of honey bee and scorpion
51. In a small isolated population the (3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of
frequency of autosomal recessive gene Cucurbita
p is 0.4% then what will be frequency of (4) Wings of insect and wings of bird
heterozygous individuals (2pq) in that
56. Adaptation of various species in common
population ?
geographical area /climatic conditions :
(1) 32%
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) 48%
(3) 6% (2) Divergent evolution
(4) Could not be calculated by Hardy - (3) Adaptive radiation
Weinberg law (4) Speciation

Evolution 47
57. Which of the following could be consider 62. Select the option which contain
a reason of speciation : incorrect statement ?
(i) Mutation (1) Hardy - Weinberg law is applicable in
(ii) Reproductive isolation population genetics.
(iii) Natural selection (2) Gene pool of non-evolving population
(iv) Genetic drift is remain constant
(3) Hardy was genetist while Weinberg
(v) Gene migration
was mathematician
(1) ii and vi (2) Only iii
(4) Genetic recombination and natural
(3) i, ii and v (4) All factors
selection affect genetic equilibrium.
58. Some other scientist performed
63. What is true for mutation ?
experiment similar to S.L. Miller and (i) Mutation are advantageous and
they obtained – harmful both
(1) Sugar, N2 bases, pigments and fats (ii) Mutation may be pre-adaptive
(2) Fats, pigments and RNA (iii) Mutation causes variation and bring
(3) Protein, Nucleic acids, N2 Bases change in phenotype
(4) Both (2) and (3) (1) i, ii, iii (2) ii, iii only
(3) Only iii (4) None
59. The first non-cellular form of life could
have originated 3.0 billion year back. 64. Given below are few information
This non-cellular form of life were – regarding Hominid :
(1) Gaint macrobiomolecules [RNA, i - Arose about 1.5 mya.
protein, polysaccharide] ii - Brain size 1400 cc.
(2) Microbiomolecules [Amino acids, iii - Used hide to protect their body
and buried their dead.
Fatty acid, Sugars]
iv - Lived in east and central Asia
(3) Ultra microbiomolecules [Pyruvic
v - Developed pre-historic cave art
acid, Acetic acid]
about 18,000 year back.
(4) None vi - Hunted with stone weapons but
60. Given below is a sketch of evolutionary essentially ate fruit.
history of vertebrates through geological Select the correct option :
periods with two missing members : (1) ii, iii, iv belongs to Neanderthal man
(2) i and vi belongs to Homo erectus
Early reptiles → A → Pelycosaur →
(3) ii, iii, v belongs to Cromagnon man
Therapsids → B (4) vi belongs to Homo habilis
Choose the right option which fill A and
B blank / missing members : 65. Given below is a small paragraph related
(1) A - Sauropsids, B - Birds to evolution of man with some blanks.
You have to select only one option out
(2) A - Sauropsids, B - Mammals
of four which fills correctly ?
(3) A - Synapsids, B - Mammals
The fossils discovered in ............. in 1891
(4) A - Thecodonts, B – Dinosaurs
revealed the next stage, i.e. .............
61. What is true for genetic equilibrium ? about 1.5 mya. He had a large brain
(1) Gene pool remain constant from around ............. and probably ate meat.
generation to generation in an evolving (1) Africa, Homo erectus, 650 cc
population (2) Java, Homo erectus, 900 cc
(2) Gene and its allele frequencies in a (3) Neanderthal valley, Neanderthal, 1450 cc
(4) Africa, Australopithecus, 650 cc
population are stable and constant
from generation to generation in non- 66. Coloured rock paintings were first done
evolving population by:
(3) All the genes of a species remain constant (1) Cro-magnon man
even after genetic recombination (2) Java ape man
(4) Genetic equilibrium is not affected (3) Peking man
by any factor which brings variations (4) Neanderthal man

48 Evolution
 Exercise - III
1. Assertion (A): There has been gradual 5. Assertion (A): Tasmanian wolf and
evolution of life forms at earth. Placental wolf are the good example of
Reason (R): The new forms of life arose convergent evolution.
at different periods of history of earth. Reason (R): More than one adaptive
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is radiation appeared to have occurred in an
the correct explanation of the (A) isolated geographical area, (representing
different habitats) one can call this
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
convergent evolution.
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
the correct explanation of the (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A)
2. Assertion (A): The ancestors of present
life forms were present at different (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
periods in the history of earth. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R): The geological history of 6. Assertion (A): The rate of appearance of
earth closely correlates with the biological new forms is linked to the life cycle or the
history of earth.
life span of organisms.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is Reason (R): The organism with short life
the correct explanation of the (A)
span have ability to produce more
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is progenies in shorter time and that have
not the correct explanation of the (A)
chance to more exposure with nature.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
the correct explanation of the (A)
3. Assertion (A): In England, before (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
industrialization, it was observed that not the correct explanation of the (A)
there were more white-winged moths (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
on trees than dark-winged or melanized (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
moths.
7. Assertion (A): Due to continental drift
Reason (R): White winged moths can
pouched mammals of Australia survived.
survive only in non industrialized area.
Reason (R): There is lack of competition
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
from any other mammal.
the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4. Assertion (A): Australian marsupials can (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
be taken as an example of adaptive
8. Assertion (A): Homo sapiens arose in
radiation.
Africa and moved across continents and
Reason (R): A number of marsupials,
developed into distinct races.
evolved from an ancestral stock, but all
Reason (R): After development of
within the Australian island continent.
agriculture human settlements started.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Evolution 49
9. Assertion (A): Dryopithecus and 13. Assertion (A): Genetic drift accentuates
Ramapithecus were hairy and walked like speciation.
gorillas and chimpanzees. Reason (R): Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
Reason (R): Australopithecus probably seems to retard speciation.
lived in East African grasslands. (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is and the reason is the correct
the correct explanation of the (A) explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
not the correct explanation of the (A) but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason is false.
10. Assertion (A): Analogous structures are a (4) If both Assertion and Reason are
result of convergent evolution. false statements.
Reason (R): Different structures evolving 14. Assertion (A): Among the primates,
for the same function and hence having chimpanzee is the closest relative of the
similarity. present day human.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is Reason (R):The banding pattern in the
the correct explanation of the (A) autosome number 3 and 6 of man and
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is chimpanzee is remarkably similar.
not the correct explanation of the (A) (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false and the reason is the correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
11. Assertion (A): The original drifted population
but the reason is not the correct
in a new habitat becomes founders and
explanation of the assertion.
the effect is called founder effect.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
Reason (R): Darwin finches of Galapagos Reason is false.
island shows adaptive radiation. (4) If both Assertion and Reason are
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is false statements.
the correct explanation of the (A)
15. Assertion (A): Natural selection is the
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
outcome of differences in survival and
not the correct explanation of the (A)
reproduction among individuals that
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
show variation in one or more traits.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R): Adaptive forms of a given
12. Assertion (A): Homologous organs trait tend to become more common;
suggest same origin. less adaptive ones become less
Reason (R): Organs which are similar in common or disappear.
function and dissimilar in internal (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
morphology called as Homologous and the reason is the correct
organs. explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
but the reason is not the correct
the correct explanation of the (A)
explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
not the correct explanation of the (A)
Reason is false.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) If both Assertion and Reason are
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false false statements.

50 Evolution
16. Assertion (A): The earliest organisms that 19. Assertion (A): Disruptive selection is the
appeared on the earth were non-green one where peak splits into two peaks.
and presumably anaerobes. Reason (R): Disruptive selection leads to
Reason (R): The first autotrophic speciation.
organisms were the chemoautotrophs
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
that never released oxygen.
and the reason is the correct
(1) Both A & R are correct
explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both A & R are incorrect
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
(3) Assertion is correct statement but
Reason is incorrect. but the reason is not the correct
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are explanation of the assertion.
incorrect statements. (3) If Assertion is true statement but
Reason is false.
17. Assertion (A): Humans are considered
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are
advanced from all its primates relatives
because of the larger cranial capacity false statements.
and high intelligence. 20. Assertion (A): Homo habilis was the first
Reason (R): Dryopithecus and
tool maker.
Ramapithecus had most of characters
Reason (R): He was a meat eater.
ape like.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
and the reason is the correct
and the reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion. explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
but the reason is not the correct but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion. explanation of the assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but (3) If Assertion is true statement but
Reason is false. Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are (4) If both Assertion and Reason are
false statements.
false statements.
18. Assertion (A): Gene flow increases
21. Assertion (A): Cro-Magnon man was the
genetic variations.
most recent ancestor of today's man.
Reason (R): The random introduction of
new alleles into recipient population and Reason (R): Cromagnon have evolved
their removal from the donar population from Homo erectus.
affects allele frequency. (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct
and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
explanation of the assertion. (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct
but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
explanation of the assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
Reason is false.
Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are
false statements. false statements.

Evolution 51
22. Assertion (A): Modern theory of evolution 25. Assertion (A): Life originated by chance
is Lamarckism. coming together of necessary chemicals
Reason (R): Modern synthetic theory is through a series of chemical reactions.
the combination of Darwinian theory and
Reason (R): Abiogenesis has not been
mutation theory.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true experimentally proved.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
and the reason is the correct
and the reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion. explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
but the reason is not the correct but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion. explanation of the assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
Reason is false.
Reason is false. (4) If both Assertion and Reason are
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.
false statements.
26. Assertion (A): Australopithecus was more
23. Assertion (A): Mutation theory was human like than Ramapithecus
Reason (R): Homo erectus evolved from
proposed by Hugo de Vries.
Homo habilis.
Reason (R): Mutations are heritable and
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
subjected to natural selection. and the reason is the correct
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true (2) (2) If both Assertion & Reason are
and the reason is the correct true but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion. explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true (3) If Assertion is true statement but
Reason is false.
but the reason is not the correct
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are
explanation of the assertion.
false statements.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
Reason is false. 27. Match the process in Column I with its
term in Column II.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are
Column I Column II
false statements.
(A) Favours the (p) Gene
24. Assertion (A): The earth originally had a extreme range recombination
of a phenotype
reducing atmosphere.
(B) Change in gene (q) gene pool
Reason (R): There was no life on the
frequency in a
earth when it came into existence. small
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true population
and the reason is the correct (C) Genotype of (r) Genetic drift
explanation of the assertion. population
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true (D) Genetic change in (s) Directional
but the reason is not the correct sexually selection
reproducing
explanation of the assertion.
population
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
(1) A → (r); B → (s); C → (p); D → (q)
Reason is false.
(2) A → (r); B → (s); C → (q); D → (p)
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are (3) A → (s); B → (r); C → (p); D → (q)
false statements. (4) A → (s); B → (r); C → (q); D → (p)

52 Evolution
28. Match the terms in Column I with its 30. Match the following columns.
definition in Column II. Column I Column II
(Terms) (Explanations)
(A) Genetic (p) Change in the
Column I Column II drift population's allele
frequency due to
(A) Founder (p) Not all members of
chance alone
effect a population have an (B) Natural (q) Difference in
equally likely chance selection survival
individuals
to mate and (C) Gene (r) Immigration or
reproduce flow emigration
changes the allele
(B) Non-random (q) Limited representation of frequency
mating alleles in the population (D) Mutation (s) Source of the new
alleles
that migrates into a
(1) A → (p); B → (q); C → (r); D → (s)
new region. (2) A → (p); B → (q); C → (s); D → (r)
(C) Natural (r) Sudden and (3) A → (p); B → (s); C → (q); D → (r)
selection dramatic drop in (4) A → (s); B → (q); C → (p); D → (r)
population size due
31. Match the following columns.
to limit imposed on
Column I Column II
allelic variation. (A) Wallace (p) Natural selection
(D) Bottleneck (s) Pressure exerted by (B) Malthus (q) Essay of population
effect environmental forces (C) Hardy- (r) Biston bettilaria
to favor survival of Weinberg
law
certain organisms
(D) Industrial (s) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
over others melanism
(1) A → (q); B → (p); C → (r); D → (s) (1) A → (p); B → (q); C → (s); D → (r)
(2) A → (q); B → (p); C → (s); D → (r) (2) A → (p); B → (q); C → (r); D → (s)
(3) A → (r); B → (s); C → (p); D → (q) (3) A → (p); B → (r); C → (s); D → (q)
(4) A → (q); B → (r); C → (s); D → (p)
(4) A → (s); B → (r); C → (q); D → (p)
32. Match the following columns.
29. Match the scientist Column I with the Column I Column II
term introduced by them in Column II. (Scientists) (Related to)
(A) Darwin (p) Natural
selection
Column I Column II (B) Lamarck (q) Inheritance of
acquired
(A) Haldane (p) Hot dilute soup
character
(B) Oparin (q) Protobionts (C) Pasteur (r) Swan-necked
experiment
(C) Fox (r) Biogenesis
(D) de Vries (s) Mutational
(D) Redi (s) Coacervates theory of
inheritance
(1) A → (q); B → (p); C → (s); D → (r)
(1) A → (q); B → (r); C → (s); D → (p)
(2) A → (p); B → (s); C → (q); D → (r)
(2) A → (p); B → (r); C → (s); D → (q)
(3) A → (s); B → (q); C → (p); D → (r) (3) A → (p); B → (q); C → (r); D → (s)
(4) A → (s); B → (q); C → (p); D → (r) (4) A → (p); B → (q); C → (s); D → (r)

Evolution 53
33. Match the following columns. 35. Match the Column I with Column II.
Column I Column II Select the correct option from the codes
(Types of (Explanations) given below.
natural
Column I Column II
selection)
(Time (Related to)
(A) Stabilisation (p) More
selection individuals periods in
acquire value geological
other than time scale)
mean (A) Mesozoic (p) First
character amphibians
value
(B) Devonian (q) Proliferation
(B) Directional (q) More
of reptiles
selection individuals
acquire mean (C) Palaeocene (r) 160 million
character years
value (D) Permian (s) Radiation of
(C) Disruption (r) More primitive
selection individuals mammals
acquire
peripheral (1) A → (p); B → (s); C → (r); D → (q)
character (2) A → (r); B → (p); C → (r); D → (q)
value at both
(3) A → (s); B → (p); C → (q); D → (r)
ends of
distribution (4) A → (q); B → (p); C → (s); D → (r)
curve
36. Match the Column I with Column II.
(1) A → (p); B → (r); C → (q) Select the correct option from the codes
(2) A → (r); B → (q); C → (p) given below.
(3) A → (q); B → (p); C → (r) Column I Column II
(4) A → (r); B → (p); C → (q) Primates Cranial
Capacities
34. Match the following columns.
(in cubic
Column I Column II centimeters)
(A) Ichthyosaurus (p) Caught in (A) Gimpanzee and (p) 325-510 cc
South Africa
gorilla
in 1938
(B) Coelacanth (q) Fell to form (B) Australopithecus (q) 500 cc
coal (C) Homo habilis (r) 700 cc
deposits (D) Java ape man (s) 800-1000 cc
(C) Giant (r) Disappeared (1) A → (s); B → (r); C → (q); D → (p)
pteridophytes about 65
(2) A → (q); B → (r); C → (s); D → (p)
mya
(D) Dinosaurs (s) Fish-like (3) A → (p); B → (q); C → (r); D → (s)
reptiles in (4) A → (r); B → (q); C → (p); D → (s)
200 mya
(1) A → (r); B → (q); C → (p); D → (s)
(2) A → (s); B → (p); C → (q); D → (r)
(3) A → (q); B → (r); C → (s); D → (p)
(4) A → (r); B → (s); C → (q); D → (p)

54 Evolution
 Exercise - IV (Previous Year Question)
NEET-UG 2013 AIIMS 2013
1. The eye of Octopus and eye of cat show 6. S.L. Miller an American scientist created
different patterns of structure, yet they electric discharge experiment in a closed
perform similar function. This is an flask containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water
example of: vapour at what temperature ?
(1) 400°C (2) 800°C
(1) Analogous organs that have evolved
(3) 200°C (4) 1000°C
due to divergent evolution
(2) Homologous organs that have evolved AIPMT 2014
due to convergent evolution 7. In a population of 1000 individuals 360
(3) Homologous organs that have evolved belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the
due to divergent evolution remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the
(4) Analogous organs that have evolved frequency of allele A in the population is :
due to convergent evolution (1) 0.4 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.7

2. The tendency of population to remain in 8. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking;

genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by : forelimbs of whale used in swimming and
(1) Lack of random mating forelimbs of bats used in flying are an
(2) Random mating example of
(3) Lack of migration (1) Analogous organs
(2) Adaptive radiation
(4) Lack of mutations
(3) Homologous organs
3. The process by which organisms with (4) Convergent evolution
different evolutionary history evolve similar
9. Which one of the following are analogous
phenotypic adaptation in response to a structures :-
common (1) Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon.
environmental challenge, is called : (2) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man.
(1) Adaptive radiation (3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of
(2) Natural selection Cucurbita
(3) Convergent evolution (4) Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse
(4) Non-random evolution
AIIMS 2014
10. Correct sequence of classification of Homo
4. According to Darwin, the organic evolution
erectus is :
is due to :
(1) erectus → Homo → Primate → chordate
(1) Reduced feeding efficiency in one
→Animalia
species due to the presence of
(2) Animalia → Primate → chordate →
interfering species
Homo→ erectus
(2) Intraspecific competition
(3) Animalia → chordate → Primate →
(3) Interspecific competition
erectus → Homo
(4) Competition within closely related
(4) Animalia → Primate → chordate →
species
erectus → Homo
5. Variation in gene frequencies within 11. Which of the following is correct sequence
populations can occur by chance rather regarding evolution of reptile :
than by natural selection. (1) Lizard → Crocodile →Snake → Tuatara
(2) Crocodile → Snake →Tuatara → Lizard
This is referred to as :
(3) Tuatara → Lizard → Snake → Crocodile
(1) Genetic load (2) Genetic flow
(4) Lizard → Tuatara →Snake →Crocodile
(3) Genetic drift (4) Random mating

Evolution 55
12. Which of the following is closest to humans: NEET-UG 2016 (Phase I)
(1) Gibbon (2) Gorilla 19. Which of the following structure is
(3) Homo erectus (4) Dryopithecus homologues to the wing of a bird ?
AIPMT 2015 (1) Dorsal fin of a Shark
(2) Wing of a Moth
13. Which of the following had the smallest
(3) Hind limb of Rabbit
brain capacity ?
(1) Homo sapiens (4) Flipper of Whale
(2) Homo neanderthalensis
20. Analogous structures are a result of :
(3) Homo habilis
(1) Divergent evolution
(4) Homo erectus
(2) Convergent evolution
14. Which is the most common mechanism of (3) Shared ancestry
genetic variation in the population of (4) Stabilizing selection
sexually reproducing organism ?
(1) Chromosomal aberrations 21. Following are the two statements regarding
(2) Genetic drift the origin of life :
(3) Recombination (a) The earliest organisms that appeared
(4) Transduction on the earth were non-green and
Re-AIPMT 2015 presumably anaerobes.
15. The wings of a bird and the wings of an (b) The first autotrophic organisms were
insect are : the chemoautotrophs that never
(1) Homologous structures and represent released oxygen.
convergent evolution Of the above statements which one of
(2) Homologous structures and represent
the following options is correct ?
divergent evolution
(1) (a) is correct but (b) is false.
(3) Analogous structures and represent
(2) (b) is correct but (a) is false.
convergent evolution
(4) Phylogenetic structures and represent (3) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
divergent evolution (4) Both (a) and (b) are false.

16. Industrial melanism is an example of : NEET 2017

(1) Neo Lamarckism
(2) Neo Darwinism 22. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding
(3) Natural selection higher milk output represents:
(4) Mutation (1) Directional as it pushes the mean of the
character in one direction
17. Which the following are most suitable
(2) Disruptive as it splits the population
indicators of SO2 pollution in the
environment? into two, one yielding, higher output
(1) Fungi (2) Lichens and the other lower output.
(3) Conifers (4) Algae (3) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it
stabilizes the population to produce
AIIMS 2015
18. Reptilian ancestors of birds are : higher yielding cows.
(1) Pterosaurs (2) Plesiosaurs (4) Stabilising selection as it stabilizes this
(3) Ichthyosaurs (4) Dinosaurs character in the population.

56 Evolution
 AIIMS 2018 (26-05-2018) Morning (A) 29. Match the hominids with their correct brain
size :
23. Radioactive C-dating and living fossils are
used for . (a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
(b) Homo (ii) 1350 cc
(1) Biological age
neanderthalensis
(2) Geological age
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
(3) Age of Rock (d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc
(4) Geographical distribution
Select the correct option.
AIIMS 2018 (27-05-2018) Morning (B) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
24. Which of the following explained evolution (2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
in most acceptable form? (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) Wallace, Darwin, Hugo de Vries (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (v)
(2) Anaximander, Darwin, Malthus
30. In a species, the weight of new-born ranges
(3) F. Redi, Richter, Cuvier from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the new-born with
(4) Lamarck, Hardy Weinberg, Darwin an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg
survive whereas 99% of the infants born
NEET 2018 with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg
25. The similarity of bone structure in the die. Which type of selection process is
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an taking place ?
example of : (1) Disruptive Selection
(1) Homology (2) Cyclical Selection
(2) Analogy (3) Directional Selection
(4) Stabilizing Selection
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Adaptive radiation AIIMS 2019 (25-05-2019–1nd shift)
31. Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is affected by-
26. Among the following sets of examples for (1) Natural selection
divergent evolution, select the incorrect (2) New mutation
option : (3) Genetic drift
(1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (4) All of the above
(2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
AIIMS 2019 (25-05-2019–2nd shift)
(3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah 32. Which of the following were present in
(4) Eye of octopus, bat and man prebiotic soup?
(1) Zn, Fe, Al
27. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
(2) Proteins, Nucleic acids, Carbohydrates,
of evolution is :
Lipids
(1) Multiple step mutations (3) Vitamins
(2) Saltation (4) None
(3) Phenotypic variations
(4) Minor mutations
NEET 2019 (Odisha)
NEET 2019 33. In Australia, marsupials and placental
28. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed mammals have evolved to shar many
similar characteristics. This type of
by Hugo de Vries, are :
evolution may be referred to as:
(1) small and directional
(1) Adaptive Radiation
(2) small and directionless (2) Divergent Evolution
(3) random and directional (3) Cyclical Evolution
(4) random and directionless (4) Convergent Evolution

Evolution 57
34. Which of the following statements is NEET 2020 (Covid)
correct about the origin and evolution of 39. Embryological support for evolution was
men?
proposed by :
(1) Agriculture came around 50,000 years
(1) Ernst Heckle
back.
(2) The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus (2) Charles Darwin
primates existing 15 million years ago, (3) Karl Ernst von Beer
walked like men. (4) Alfred Wallace
(3) Homo hobilis probably ate meat.
(4) Neanderthal men lived in Asia between 40. After about how many years of formation
1,00,000 and 40,000 years back. of earth, life appeared on this planet?

NEET 2020 (1) 500 billion years

35. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced (2) 50 million years
amino acids by mixing the following in a (3) 500 million years
closed flask :
(4) 50 billion years
(1) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C 41. The phenomenon of evolution of different
(3) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
species in a given geographical area starting
(4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
from a point and spreading to other
36. Embryological support for evolution was habitats is called
disapproved by :
(1) Saltation
(1) Oparin
(2) Co-evolution
(2) Alfred Wallace
(3) Karl Ernst von Baer (3) Natural selection
(4) Charles Darwin (4) Adaptive radiation

37. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are

42. A hominid fossil discovered in Java in 1891,
examples of :
now extinct, having cranial capacity of
(1) Natural selection
(2) Adaptive radiation about 900 cc was :
(3) Convergent evolution (1) Homo erectus
(4) Industrial melanism (2) Neanderthal man

38. Which of the following refer to correct (3) Homo sapiens

example(s) of organisms which have (4) Australopithecus
evolved due to changes in environment
brought about by anthropogenic action ? NEET 2021
(a) ’ F 43. The factor that leads to Founder effect in
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds. a population is:
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes. (1) Natural selection
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated
(2) Genetic recombination
animals like dogs.
(3) Mutation
(1) only a (2) a & c
(3) only d (4) b, c & d (4) Genetic drift

58 Evolution
44. Match List - I with List - II. [Re-NEET 2022]
List-I List-II 47. Select the Correct statement regarding
(a) Adaptive (i) Selection of resistant mutation theory of evolution.
radiation varieties due to (1) This theory was proposed by Alfred
excessive Wallace
use of herbicides and (2) Variations are small directional changes
pesticides (3) Single step large mutation is a cause of
(b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs in speciation
evolution Man (4) Large differences due to mutations
and Whale arise gradually in a population
(c) Divergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly and
evolution Bird
[NEET 2023]
(d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin's Finches 48. Select the correct group/set of Australian
anthropo ge Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation
nic action (1) Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial
mole
Choose the correct answer from the
(2) Numbat, Spottted cuscus, Flying
options given below.
phalanger
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
cat
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
[NEET 2023] (Manipur)
[NEET 2022] 49. Identify the fossil of man who showed the
45. Natural selection where more individuals following characteristics.
acquire specific character value other then (A) Brain capacity of 1400 cc
the mean character value, leads to:- (B) Used hides to protect their body
(1) Stabilizing change (C) Buried their dead bodies
(2) Direction change In the light of above statements, choose
(3) Disruptive change the correct answer from the options given
(4) Random change below :
(1) Homo erectus
46. Which of the following statement is not (2) Neanderthal man
true? (3) Homo habilits
(1) Analogous structures are a result of (4) Australopithecus
convergent evolution
(2) Sweet potato and potato is an example
of analogy
(3) Homology indicates common ancestry
(4) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a
pair of homologous organs.

Evolution 59
 ANSWER KEY

Evolution
Exercise - I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 1 4 1 1 3 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 1 1 3 3 4 3 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 4 4 3 3 2 3 1 4 1 3 3 3 4 3 2 2 2 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 3 3 4 2 3 4 4 2 3 4 2 3 3 4 4 1 2 3 2
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 2 1 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 3 2 4 2 3 4
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 3 3 3 1 1 3 3 2 1 4 3 3 1 1 2 4 2 1 3 1
Que. 121 122 123
Ans. 3 1 4

Exercise - II

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 1 1 4 3 4 3 1 3 2 4 1 2 3 1 2 1 1 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 4 1 3 3 1 2 3 1 4 3 4 3 3 3 3 4 4 2 4
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 3 3 2 4 4 2 3 4 3 4 4 3 2 3 1 4 1 1 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66
Ans. 2 3 1 1 2 1

Exercise - III

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
Ans. 2 4 2 2 3 2 4 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 2 3

Exercise - IV (Previous Year Question)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 1 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 1 4 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 1 1 1 1 4 2 4 1 4 4 2 4 4 2 3 3 4 1 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
Ans. 4 1 4 1 2 4 4 2 2

60 Evolution
2 Microbes in Human Welfare
Introduction
Besides macroscopic plants and animals, microbes are major components of biological systems on this
earth.
Microbes are present everywhere in soil, water, air, inside our bodies and that of other animals and
plants. They are present even at sites where no other life-form could possibly exist, e.g., deep inside
the geysers (thermal vents) where the temperature may be as high as 100°C, deep in the soil, under
the layers of snow several meters thick and in highly acidic environments.
Microbes belong to diverse groups of organisms like bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and microscopic plants.
Viruses, viroids and prions (proteinaceous infectious agents) are also included among microbes. Some
of the microbes are shown below.

Bacteria: (a) Rod-shaped, magnified 1500X; (b) Spherical shaped, magnified 1500X; (c) A rod-shaped
bacterium showing flagella, magnified 50,000X.

Fig.: Viruses : (a) A bacteriophage; (b) Adenovirus which causes respiratory infections; (c) Rod-shaped
Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV). Magnified about 1,00,000 – 1,50,000X
Microbes like bacteria and many fungi can be grown on nutritive media to form colonies, that can be
seen with naked eyes. Such cultures are useful in study microbes.

Microbes In Human Welfare 1

 Fig. : (a) Colonies of bacteria growing in a petri dish; (b) Fungal colony growing in a petri dish
While microbes are causal agents of most of the infectious diseases, they are also useful to
humans in many important processes at home, industries, agriculture and sevage treatment.

Microbes in House Hold Products

We use microbes or products derived from them everyday.
a. Curd : Micro-organisms such as Lactobacillus and others commonly called lactic acid bacteria [LAB]
1. During growth, the LAB produce acids that coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins.
2. The starter or inoculum contains millions of LAB, which at suitable temperatures multiply, thus
converting milk to curd.
3. Curd is more nutritious than milk as it contains a number of vitamins especially B 12. In our
stomach lactic acid bacteria [LAB] play very beneficial role in checking disease causing
microbes.
b. Cheese : It is one of the oldest food items in which microbes were used.
1. Different varieties of cheese are known by their characteristic texture, flavour and taste, the
specificity is detemined by the microbes used. For example, large holes in Swiss cheese is due
to production of large amount of CO2.
Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of bacterium called Propionibacterium sharmanii.
2. Roquefort cheese is ripened by fungi Penicillium roquefortii.

c. Bread : Bread is prepared from dough, which is fermented using Baker's yeast (Saccharomyces
cerevisiae). Puffed-up appearance of dough is due to production of CO2 during fermentation.

d. Dosa and Idli : The dough which is used for making food such as idli and dosa is fermented by
bacteria.
e. Toddy : It is traditional drink of some parts of South India and is made by fermenting sap from
palm known as Caryota urens. Toddy left for few hours undergoes fermentation due to presence
of naturally occurring yeast.
f. Other Foods : Microbes are also used to ferment fish, soyabean and bamboo shoots to make foods.

Microbes In Industrial Products

1. In industry, microbes are used to synthesise a number of products valuable to human beings like
beverages and antibiotics.
2. Production on an industrial scale, requires growing microbes in very large vessels called fermentors.

2 Microbes In Human Welfare

 Fig. : Fermentors
(a) Fermented Beverages
(i) Yeast used in alcoholic fermentation is:
Saccharomyces cerevisiae commonly called Brewer's yeast.
(ii) Malted cereals, molasses and fruit juices produce ethanol by fermentation, Molasses are most
common substrate for ethanol production.
(iii) Depending on the type of the raw material used for fermentation and the type of processing
(with or without distillation) different types of alcoholic drinks are obtained.
(iv) Wine and beer are produced without distillation (Low alcohol concentration).
(v) Whisky brandy and rum are produced by distillation of fermented broth (high alcohol
concentration).
(vi) The concentration of alcohol in beverages that are naturally fermented is usually less. But high
in distilled alcohols.

Fig.: Fermentation Plant

(b) Antibiotics : Antibiotics are chemical substances, which are produced by some microbes and kill
or retard the growth of other (disease-causing) microbes.

Microbes In Human Welfare 3

 (i) Antibiotic means against life, in the context of disease causing organisms, whereas with
reference to human beings, they are 'pro life' and not against.
(ii) Antibiotic are regarded as one of the most significant discoveries of the twentieth century and
have greatly contributed towards the welfare of the human society.
(iii) The first antibiotic Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming. While working on
Staphylococci bacteria, he observed a mould growing in one of his unwashed culture plates
around which Staphylococci could not grow. He found that the chemical was produced by fungi
and named it Penicillin after the mould Penicillium notatum.
(iv) However, its full potential as an effective antibiotic was established by Ernest Chain and
Howard Florey. This antibiotic was extensively used to treat American soldiers wounded in
World War II.
Fleming, Chain and Florey were awarded the Nobel prize in 1945, for this discovery.
(v) Antibiotics have greatly improved our capacity to treat deadly diseases such as plague,
whooping cough (kali khansi), diphtheria (gal ghotu) and leprosy [kusth rog], which used to kill
millions all over the globe.
(c) Chemicals, Enzymes and Other Bioactive Molecules
Microbes are used for commercial and industrial production of certain chemicals (bioactive
molecules) like organic acids, alcohols, enzymes, cyclosporin A and statins.
(i) Organic Acids : Certain microbes have ability to convert carbohydrate into organic acids.

Table : Microbes, Their Products and Usage

Microbes Product Usage

(a) Aspergillus Citric acid Employed in dyeing, medicines
niger (fungus) flavouring and preservation of food
(b) Acetobacter aceti Acetic acid Used in preparation of vinegar
(bacterium)
(c) Clostridium butylicum Butyric acid Used for making rancid butter
(bacterium)
(d) Lactobacillus Lactic acid Curd
(bacterium)

(ii) Enzymes : Hardly 1.0 – 1.5% of the total enzymes are employed in industry and medicine.
• Lipases : These are used in detergent formulations and are helpful in removing oily stains
from laundry.
• Pectinases and Proteases : They help in clarifying fruit juices making them clearer as
compared to those made at home.
• Streptokinase : It is produced by the bacterium Streptococcus and is modified by genetic
engineering is used as 'Clot buster' for removing clots from the blood vessels of patients
who have undergone myocardial infarction leading to heart attack.
(iii) Bioactive Molecules are those molecules which are functional in living system or can interact
with their components.
(a) Cyclosporin A : It is used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant patients, is
produced by the fungus, Trichoderma polysporum.
(b) Statins : These are produced by the yeast-Monascus purpureus. Statins have been
commercialised as blood-cholesterol lowering agents. It acts by competitively inhibiting the
enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.

4 Microbes In Human Welfare

Microbes In Sewage Treatment
We know that large quantities of waste water are generated everyday in cities and towns. A major
component of this waste water is human excreta. This municipal waste-water is also called sewage.
It contains large amounts of organic matter and microbes. Many of which are pathogenic. Have you
ever wondered where this huge quantity of sewage or urban waste water is disposed off daily? This
cannot be discharged into natural water bodies like rivers and streams directly – you can
understand why. Before disposal, hence, sewage is treated in sewage treatment plants (STPs) to
make it less polluting. Treatment of waste water is done by the heterotrophic microbes naturally
present in the sewage. This treatment is carried out in two stages:
Primary treatment : These treatment steps basically involve physical removal of particles – large
and small – from the sewage through filtration and sedimentation. These are removed in stages;
initially, floating debris is removed by sequential filtration. Then the grit (soil and small pebbles)
are removed by sedimentation. All solids that settle form the primary sludge, and the supernatant
forms the effluent. The effluent from the primary settling tank is taken for secondary treatment.

Secondary treatment or Biological treatment : The primary effluent is passed into large aeration
tanks (Figure) where it is constantly agitated mechanically and air is pumped into it. This allows
vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into flocs (masses of bacteria associated with fungal
filaments to form mesh like structures). While growing, these microbes consume the major part of
the organic matter in the effluent. This significantly reduces the BOD (biochemical oxygen demand)
of the effluent. BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed if all the organic
matter in one liter of water were oxidised by bacteria. The sewage water is treated till the BOD is
reduced. The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by micro-organisms in a sample of
water and thus, indirectly, BOD is a measure of the organic matter present in the water. The greater
the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential.

Microbes In Human Welfare 5

 Once the BOD of sewage or waste water is reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed into a
settling tank where the bacterial ‘flocs’ are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called activated
sludge. A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to serve as the
inoculum. The remaining major part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic
sludge digesters. Here, other kinds of bacteria, which grow anaerobically, digest the bacteria and
the fungi in the sludge. During this digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as methane,
hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. These gases form biogas and can be used as source of
energy as it is inflammable.
The effluent from the secondary treatment plant is generally released into natural water bodies
like rivers and streams. An aerial view of such a plant is shown in Figure.

You can appreciate how microbes play a major role in treating millions of gallons of waste water
everyday across the globe. This methodology has been practiced for more than a century now, in
almost all parts of the world. Till date, no manmade technology has been able to rival the microbial
treatment of sewage.
You are aware that due to increasing urbanisation, sewage is being produced in much larger
quantities than ever before. However the number of sewage treatment plants has not increased
enough to treat such large quantities. So the untreated sewage is often discharged directly into
rivers leading to their pollution and increase in water-borne diseases.
The Ministry of Environment and Forests has initiated Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan
to save these major rivers of our country from pollution. Under these plans, it is proposed to build
a large number of sewage treatment plants so that only treated sewage may be discharged in the
rivers. A visit to a sewage treatment plant situated in any place near you would be a very interesting
and educating experience.

Microbes In Production of Biogas

Biogas is a mixture of gases (containing predominantly methane) produced by microbial activity and
which may be used as fuel. Major component of biogas is methane (50-70%) which is highly
inflammable, other gases are carbon dioxide (30-40%) and mixture of other gases H2, H2S etc. (10%).
(1) Microbes produce different types of gaseous end-products during growth and metabolism. Certain
bacteria, which grow anaerobically on cellulosic material, produce large amount of methane along
with CO2 and H2. These bacteria are collectively called Methanogens and one such common
bacterium is Methanobacterium.

6 Microbes In Human Welfare

(2) These bacteria are commonly found in anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment. These bacteria
are also present in the rumen of cattle where they help in the breakdown of cellulose and play an
important role in the nutrition of cattle. Thus, the excreta (dung) of cattle, commonly called gobar,
is rich in these bacteria. Dung can be used for generation of biogas, commonly called gobar gas.
(3) The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the efforts of Indian
Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).

(4) The biogas plant consists of :

(i) A concrete tank, 10-15 feet deep, in which bio-wastes are collected and a slurry of dung is fed.
(ii) A floating cover is placed over the slurry, which keeps on rising as the gas is produced in the
tank due to microbial activity. It has an outlet, which is connected to a pipe to supply biogas to
nearby houses.
(iii) The spent slurry is removed through another outlet and may be used as fertiliser.
(5) Cattle dung is available in large quantities in rural areas where cattles are used for a variety of
purposes. So, biogas plants are more often built in rural areas. The biogas thus produced, is used
for cooking and lighting.
• Formation of biogas is three step anaerobic process involving Solubilisation, Acidogenesis and
Methanogenesis.

Microbes In Human Welfare 7

Microbes as Biocontrol Agents
• Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
• In modern society, these problems have been tackled increasingly by the use of chemicals - by use
of insecticides and pesticides. These chemicals are toxic and extremely harmful, to human beings
and animals alike, and have been polluting our environment (soil, ground water), fruits, vegetables
and crop plants. Our soil is also polluted through our use of weedicides to remove weeds. These
are conventional farming practices which often use chemical methods to kill both useful and
harmful life forms indiscriminately, this is holistic approach that seeks to develop and
understanding of the webs of interaction between the group of organisms that constitute the field
fauna and flora.
• Biological Control of Pests and Diseases : In agriculture, there is a method of controlling pests that
relies on natural predation rather than introduced chemicals.
Organic farmer believes that biodiversity furthers health. The more variety a landscape has, the
more sustainable it is. Organic farmer therefore, works to create a system where the insects that
are sometimes called pests are not eradicated, but instead are kept at manageable levels by a
complex system of checks and balances within a living and vibrant ecosystem.
The organic farmer holds the view that the eradication of the creatures that are often described as
pests is possible but is undersirable because without them the beneficial predatory and parasitic
insects which depend upon them as food or hosts would not be able to survive.
• Thus, the use of biocontrol measures reduce our dependence on toxic chemicals and pesticides.
An important part of the biological farming approach is to become familiar with the various life
forms that inhabit the field, predator as well as pests, and also their life cycles, patterns of feeding
and the habitats they prefer. This helps in developing appropriate means of biocontrol.

Examples of Biocontrol :
(i) Ladybrid, a beetle with red and black markings, is useful in controlling aphids.
(ii) Dragonflies are useful to get rid of mosquitoes.
(iii) Bacillus Thuringiensis (Bt) is a microbial biocontrol agent that can be introduced to control
butterfly caterpillars. These are available in sachets as dried spores which are mixed with water
and sprayed onto vulnerable plants such as brassica and fruit trees, where these are eaten by
insect larvae. In the gut of the larvae, the toxin is released and the larvae get killed. The bacterial
disease kills the caterpillars, but leave other insects unharmed.
The transgenic plants, developed by genetic engineering, have B. thuringiensis toxin genes into
plants. Such plants are resistant to attack by insect pests. e.g., Bt cotton.
(iv) Fungus Trichoderma is a biological control being developed for use in the treatment of plant
diseases. Trichoderma species are free living fungi that are very common in the root ecosystems
and are effective against several plant pathogens.
(v) Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods. The majority of
baculoviruses used as biocontrol agents are in the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus (NPV). These viruses
have species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal applications. They have no negative impacts
on plants, mammals, birds, fish or even on non-target insects.
Integrated Pest Management (IPM): This is desirable when beneficial insects are being conserved
to aid in an overall integrated pest management (IPM) programme, or when an ecologically sensitive
area is being treated.
Sustainable pest management is otherwise known as integrated pest management i.e., integration
of tactics for control of single pest on one or more crops. IPM, as applied in agriculture is ideally
the use of most effective, economical, safest, ecologically sustainable and sociologically acceptable
combination of physical chemical and biological methods to limit the harmful effects of crop pests.
The overall objective of IPM is to create and to maintain situations in which insects are prevented
from causing significant damage to crops.

8 Microbes In Human Welfare

 A number of tools or components have been successfully used for IPM in several crops. These
include-use of pest resistant or tolerant varieties, predators and pathogens, use of parasites,
summer ploughing, quarantine measures, late plating, controlled use of pesticides, attractants,
repellents etc.

Microbes as Biofertilisers
(1) The use of the chemical fertilisers to meet the ever-increasing demand of agricultural produce has
contributed significantly to environmental pollution. These are many problems associated with over
use for chemical fertilisers so there is a need to switch to organic farming.
(2) Organic farming is raising of crops through the use of biofertilisers that provide optimum nutrients
to crop plants.
(3) Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of soil. The main sources of biofertilisers
are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria.
Currently, a number of biofertilisers are available commercially in the market and farmers use these
regularly in their fields to replenish soil nutrients and to reduce dependence on chemical fertilisers.

Bacteria :
(i) Rhizobium forms symbiotic association with root nodules of leguminous plants.
These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms, which is used by plants as nutrients.
(ii) Bacteria like Azospirillum and Azotobacter can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free living in the
soil, thus, enriching the nitrogen content of soil.

Fungi :
Fungi also forms symbiotic associations with roots of higher plants known as Mycorrhiza. Many
members of the genus Glomus from mycorrhiza. The fungal symbiont absorbs phosphorus from
soil and passes it to plants. Plants having such associations also show resistance to root borne
pathogens tolerance to salinity and drought, and overall increase in plant growth and development.
In return fungi gets shelter and food from this association.

Cyanobacteria : Cyanobacteria are autotrophic microbes widely distributed in aquatic and

terrestrial environments many of which can fix atmospheric nitrogen e.g., Anabaena, Nostoc,
Oscillatoria, etc., in paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve as an important biofertiliser. Blue green algae
(BGA) also adds organic matter to the soil and increases its fertility. It also reduces alkalinity of
soil.

Microbes In Human Welfare 9

 Exercise - I
Microbes in House Hold Products Microbes in Industrial Products
1. Which of the following Microorganisms 10. Which one of the microorganism is used
use for swisss cheese: for production of citric acid in industries?
(1) Propionibacterium (2) Geotrichum (1) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
(3) Penicillium (4) Streptococcus (2) Penicillium citrinum
2. Cheese and yoghurt are products of : (3) Aspergillus niger
(1) Pasteurisation (2) Distillation (4) Rhizopus nigricans
(3) Dehydration (4) Fermentation
11. The term “antibiotic” was coined by :
3. Milk is changed into curd by: (1) Edward Jenner
(1) Bacillus Megatherium
(2) Louis Pasteur
(2) Acetobactor aceti
(3) Selman waksman
(3) Xanthomonas citri
(4) Alexander Fleming
(4) Lactobacillus acidophilus

4. Saccharomyces cerevissae is used in the 12. The drug Cyclosporin used for organ
formation of : transplant patients is obtained from a :
(1) Ethanol (2) Methanol (1) Bacterium (2) Fungus
(3) Acetic acid (4) Antibiotics (3) Virus (4) Plant

5. Which of the following is used manufacture 13. Which of the following fermented baverage
ethanol from starch : will not be produced by distillation of
(1) Penicillin (2) Saccharomyces
fermented broth:
(3) Azotobactor (4) Lactobacillus
(1) Whisky (2) Brandy
6. During the formationof bread it becomes (3) Rum (4) Wine
porous due to release of CO2 by the
14. Select the correct match :
action of:
(1) Yeast (2) Bacteria (1) Aspergillus niger - Acetic acid
(3) Virus (4) protozoans (2) Streptokinase-Immunosuppressive
(3) Cyclosporin - A - Clot buster
7. Which one of the following is used in the
(4) Statins - Cholesterol lowering agent
making of bread:
(1) Rhizopus stolonifer Microbes in Prouction of Biogas
(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae 15. Biogas consists of:
(3) Zygasaccharomyces
(1) Carbon monooxide, methane and
(4) Saccharomyces ludwigi
hydrogen
8. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) grow in milk (2) Carbon dioxide, methane and
and convert it to curd and also improve hydrogen
its nutritional quality by increasing: (3) Carbon monooxide, ethane and
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B12
hydrogen
(3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin C and A
(4) Carbon dioxide, ethane and hydrogen
9. The puffed-up appearance of dough is
due to: 16. Methanogenic bacteria are not found in:
(1) Growth of LAB (1) rumen of cattle
(2) Production of O2 & ethanol (2) gobar gas plant
(3) Production of CO2 (3) bottom of water-logged paddy fields
(4) Growth of yeast Monascus (4) activated sludge.

10 Microbes In Human Welfare

17. Biogas is produced by anaerobic 25. Biogas produced by anaerobic
breakdown of biomass of agricultural fermentation of waste biomass consists
waste by methanogenic bacteria. Its is a : of:
(1) One step process
(1) Methane
(2) Two step process
(3) Three step process (2) Traces of H2, H2S and N2
(4) Multistep process (3) CO2

18. Rate limiting material in biogas production (4) All of these

is :
26. Biogas is the mixture of gases produced
(1) Methane (2) Cellulose
(3) Starch (4) Acetic acid by the microbial activity. The type of the
gas produced depends upon :
19. The residue left after methane
(1) Type of microbes
production from cattle dung is:
(1) burnt (2) Type of organic substrate/waste
(2) burried in land fills (3) Size of digester
(3) used as manure (4) 1 & 2 both
(4) used in civil construction.
27. The material of biological origin, which is
20. What are the advantage of gobar gas
used to maintain and improve soil
over convential utilization :
(1) More efficient source of energy fertility is :
(2) Used as good fertilizer (1) Bio pesticide
(3) Reduces the chances of spreading of (2) Bionutrient
pathogens (3) Chemical fertilizers
(4) All the above
(4) Green manure
21. Which one produce gas by decomposing
the gobar (Dung) in gobar gas : Microbes as Biocontrol Agents
(1) Fungus
(2) Virus 28. A common biocontrol agent for the
(3) Methanogenic bacteria control of plant diseases is:
(4) Algae
(1) Agrobacterium (2) Glomus
22. Which bacteria is utilized in Gober gas (3) Trichoderma (4) Baculovirus
plant :
(1) Methanogens 29. Which biocontrol agent in very common
(2) Nitrifying bacteria in root ecosystem and is effective
(3) Ammonifying bacteria aganist several plant pathogens. :
(4) Denitrifying bacteria
(1) Baculoviruses
23. During anaerobic digestion of organic (2) Trichoderma
waste, such as in producing biogas,
(3) Nucleopolyhedro virus
which one of the following is left
(4) Ladybird beetle and Dragonflies
undegraded :
(1) Lipids (2) Lignin 30. Integrated pest management (IPM) is
(3) Hemi-cellulose (4) Cellulose
based on :
24. The technology of biogas production (1) Biological control of pest
was developed in India mainly due to the
(2) Mechanical control
efforts of :
(1) IARI (2) KVIC (3) Carefully timed used of pesticides
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) WHO (4) All the above

Microbes In Human Welfare 11

31. Which of the following bacterium is Microbes as Biofertilizers
associated with production of
38. Which one of the following is not a
bioinsecticide is ? nitrogen-fixing organism?
(1) Bacillus subtilis (1) Anabaena (2) Nostoc
(2) Bacillus thuringensis (3) Azotobacter (4) Pseudomonas
(3) Agrobacterium
39. Which of the following is the pair of
(4) Azotobactor
biofertilizers :
32. The use of predator to control a pest is (1) Rhizobium and BGA
called : (2) Nostoc and legume
(3) Rhizobium and grasses
(1) Genetic engineering
(4) Salmonella & E.coli
(2) Biological control
(3) Chemical control 40. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium
(4) Artificial control which can also form symbiotic association
with the water fern Azolla is:
33. Bio pesticide include : (1) Anabaena (2) Tolypothrix
(1) Only bioinsecticide (3) Chlorella (4) Nostoc
(2) Only bioherbicide
41. Which one of the following forms
(3) Bioinsecticide and bioherbicide
symbiotic association with plants and
(4) Bioherbicide, bioinsecticide and helps them intheir nutrition ?
biofertilisers (1) Glomus (2) Trichoderma
(3) Azotobacter (4) Aspergillus
34. Bacillus thuringiensis is used control :
(1) Moth (2) Flies 42. BGA is chiefly used as biofertilizer in the
(3) Mosquito (4) All the above crop of :
(1) Wheat (2) Gram
35. All of the following is a part of IPM (In (3) Mustard (4) Paddy
tegrated Pest Management) except :
43. Which of the following statements is
(1) Use of resistant varieties incorrect ?
(2) Use of crop rotation (1) Biofertilizers are used to maintain
(3) Biological and Mechanical control of and improve soil fertility
(2) Chemical fertilizers pollute soil and
pests water resources
(4) Regular use of high dose of (3) Chemical fertilizers are expensive
pesticides from begning to end of the (4) Most pesticide used these days are
specific in nature
crop
44. Which of the following is a symbiotic
36. Trichoderma has proved a useful nitrogen fixer ?
microogrganism for : (1) Azolla (2) Glomus
(1) Gene transfer in higher plants (3) Azotobacter (4) Frankia
(2) Biological control of soil-borne plant
pathogens
(3) Bioremediation of contaminated soils
(4) Reclamation of wastelands

37. ladybird is useful to get rid of :

(1) Aphids (2) Mosquitoes
(3) Boll worm (4) Jassids

12 Microbes In Human Welfare

 Exercise – II
1. Match the given columns and choose the 3. Which of the following is used as
correct answer- biofertilizer-
A. Cyanobacteria
Column-I Column-II B. yeast
(I) Statins (A) Yeast C. Symbiotic bacteria
D. Free living bacteria
(II) Ethanol (B) Blood
(1) A, B, C (2) A, B, D
cholesterol
(3) A, C, D (4) A, B, C, D
lowering
4. Given below are three statements (A- C)
agent
each with one or more blanks. Select the
(III) Dung (C) Insect
option which correctly satisfy the
resistant blanks-
plant Statements:
(IV) Bt-cotton (D) Biogas A. ___ a traditional drink of some parts
of South India is made by fermenting
(1) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C sap from palms.
(2) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B B. Citric acid is obtained through the
(3) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D fermentation carried out by ____ and
____ on sugary syrups.
(4) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
C. In ____ the fungus forms a mantle on
2. Name the blank spaces A, B, C and D the surface of the roots.
Options:
given in the following table:
(1) A - Toddy; B - Aspergillus niger,
Types of Scientific Commercial Mucor, C - Ectomycorrhiza
(2) A - Wine; B- Aspergillus niger, Mucor,
microbe Name Product
C - Ectomycorrhiza
Bacterium A Lactic acid
(3) A - Beer; B - Aspergillus niger, Mucor,
Fungus B Cyclosporin C - Ectomycorrhiza
A (4) A - Rum; B - Aspergillus niger, Mucor,
C Monascus Staitins C - Ectomycorrhiza
purpureus 5. Match the following Column
Fungus Penicillium D
Colum-I Column-II
notatum I. Methanogens A. Microbial
(1) A - Lactobacillus, B - Trichoderma biocontrol
polysporum, C - Yeast (Fungus), agent
D - Penicillin II. Organic B. Penicillin
wastes
(2) A - Lactobacillus, B - Trichoderma
III. Bacillus C. Biochemical
polysporum, C - Yeast (Algae),
thuringiensis
. oxygen
D – Penicillin demand
(3) A - Lactobacillus, B - Trichoderma IV. Penicillium D. Methanobacterium
polysporum, C - Yeast (Prokaryote), notatum
D - Penicillin (1) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(4) A - Lactobacillus, B - Trichoderma (2) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
polysporum, C - Agaricus (Fungus), (3) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
D - Penicillin (4) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

Microbes In Human Welfare 13

6. Following is the sewage treatment. In 8. Consider the following statements and
which of the following options, correct choose the correct statements-
word for all the four numbers (1, 2, 3 and (I) Antibiotics are chemical substances,
which are produced by some
4) are indicated –
microbes and only can retard the
growth of other (disease-causing )
microbes.
(II) Amphicilin was the first antibiotic to
be discovered
(1) 1 - Large aeration tanks; (III) Cyclosporin A is produced by the
fungs Trichoderma polysporum.
2 - Chemically agitation;
(1) I and III (2) II and III
3 - High; 4 - Anaerobic
(3) I and II (4) Only III
(2) 1 - Large aeration tanks;
2 - Mechanically agitation; 9. Name the blank space a, b, c and d in
the table given below –
3 - Low; 4 - Anaerobic
(3) 1 - Large aeration tanks; Types of Scientific Commercial
2 - Mechanically agitation; microbe Name Product
3 - Low; 4 - Aerobic Fungus a Penicillin
(4) 1 - Large aeration tanks; Bacterium Acetobacter b
aceti
2 - Mechanically agitation;
c Aspergillusniger Citric acid
3 - High; 4 - Anaerobic
Yest d Ethanol
7. Which of the following statements is (1) a - Penicillium notatum,
correct - b - Acetic acid, c - Fungus,
A. Single cell protein is rich in high d - Saccharomyces cerevisiae
quality proteins but poor in fat. (2) a - Penicillium notatum,
B. BOD is the amount of oxygen that b - Acetic acid, c - Bacteria,
would be consumed if all the d - Monococcus
(3) a - Penicillium notatum,
inorganic matter in one litre of water
b - Acetic acid, c - Fungus,
were oxidised by bacteria.
d – Clostridium
C. Trichoderma sp are free living fungi (4) a - Penicillium notatum,
that are effective biocontrol agents b - Galic acid, c - Fungus,
of several pathogens. d - Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D. Baculoviruses are pathogens that
10. Assertion: Manures improve soil conditions.
attack insects and other arthropods. Reason: In manures elements are not
E. Bacillus thuringiensis is first used present in adequate proportions.
biopesticide. (1) If both the assertion and the reason
F. Lactase enzyme is used in alcoholic are true and the reason is a correct
fermentation. explanation of the assertion
G. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association (2) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
between fungi and vascular plant.
explanation of the assertion
(1) B, C, F, G
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason
(2) A, D, F is false
(3) A, C, D, E, G (4) If both the assertion and reason are
(4) B, F false

14 Microbes In Human Welfare

11. Assertion : Azotobacter fixes nitrogen in 14. Assertion : Cyclosporin A is an
symbiotic form. immunosuppressive medicine.
Reason : Rhizobium bacteria fixes Reason : It stimulates activation of T-
nitrogen in free living form. cells and prevents rejections.
(1) If both the assertion and the reason (1) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion explanation of the assertion
(2) If both the assertion and reason are
(2) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion
explanation of the assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false
is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are
(4) If both the assertion and reason are
false
false
15. Assertion : Cheese is one of the oldest
12. Assertion : Curd is more nutritious than food items in which microbes are used.
milk. Reason : Different varieties of cheese
Reason : LAB present in curd checks are known by, characteristic texture,
growth of disease causing microbes. flavour and taste.
(1) If both the assertion and the reason (1) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion explanation of the assertion
(2) If both the assertion and reason are (2) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion explanation of the assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason (3) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false
is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are
(4) If both the assertion and reason are
false
false
16. Assertion : Baculovirus are species
13. Assertion : Newer antibiotics are
specific.
required to be produced regularly.
Reason : It is very common in root
Reason : Pathogens often develop
ecosystem and effective against several
resistance to existing antibiotics. plant pathogens.
(1) If both the assertion and the reason (1) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion explanation of the assertion
(2) If both the assertion and reason are (2) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion explanation of the assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason (3) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are (4) If both the assertion and reason are
false false

Microbes In Human Welfare 15

17. Assertion : Statins are product of 19. Assertion : The chief component of
fermentation activity of yeast. biogas is CH4.
Reason : Statins and mevalonate Reason : Biogas plants are prepared on
complete for same active site on the foregin technology.
enzyme involved in cholesterol (1) If both the assertion and the reason
synthesis. are true and the reason is a correct
(1) If both the assertion and the reason explanation of the assertion
are true and the reason is a correct (2) If both the assertion and reason are
explanation of the assertion true but the reason is not a correct
(2) If both the assertion and reason are explanation of the assertion
true but the reason is not a correct (3) If the assertion is true but the reason
explanation of the assertion is false
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason (4) If both the assertion and reason are
is false false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are
false
18. Assertion : Wine and beer are produced
by distillation of the fermented broth.
Reason : Different types of alcoholic
drinks are obtained only by
fermentation, always followed by
distillation process.
(1) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion
(2) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason
is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are
false

16 Microbes In Human Welfare

 Exercise – III (Pervious Year Questions)
[NEET– UG – 2013] [RE – AIMPT – 2015]

5. Match the following list of microbes and

1. A good producer of citric acid is:
their importance :
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Aspergillus
Production of
Saccharomyces
(3) Pseudomonas (4) Clostridium (a)
cerevisiae
(i) immunosuppressive
agents
2. During sewage treatment, biogases are (b)
Monascus
(ii)
Repening of Swiss
purpureus cheese
product which include :
Trichoderma Commercial
(1) Hydrogensulphide, nitrogen, methane (c) (iii)
polysporum production of ethanol
(2) Methane, hydrogensulphide, carbon Production of blood
Propionibacterium
dioxide (d)
sharmanii
(iv) cholesterol lowering
agents
(3) Methane, oxygen, hydrogensulphide
Options :
(4) Hydrogensulphide, methane, sulphure
(a) (b) (c) (d)
dioxide
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
[AIIMS – 2013] (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3. Which of the following statements is (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
correct regarding microbes in human
6. Match the following column correctly :
welfare ?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Saccharomyces cereviceae is useful
in industries for production of citric A Statins i Monascus purpureus

acid B Cyclosporins ii Trichoderma

(2) Trichoderma polysporum is used as C Acetic acid iii Acetobacter aceti

blood cholesterol lowering agent D Butyric acid iv Clostridium butyricum
(3) Aspergillus niger used to obtain
Options :
acetic acid (1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(4) In sewage treatment CO2, H2 and CH4 (2) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
gases are produced from activated (3) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
sludge by bacteria such as (4) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
Methanobacterium 7. Assertion : Biological farming approach
is to become familiar with the various
[AIIMS – 2014]
life forms that inhabit the feild,
4. Choose the correct statement : predators as well as pests, and also
(1) Aspergillus niger is bacterium which their life cycles, pattern of habitat.
is used for obtaining acetic acid and Reason : Chemical methods are often
citric acid used to kill both useful and harmful life
forms indiscriminately.
(2) Streptokinase is used as a clot
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
buster
is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Monascus purpureus is responsible
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)
for production of large holes in Swiss is not the correct explanation of (A)
cheese (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) Toddy is manufactured by Lactobacillus (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Microbes In Human Welfare 17

8. Assertion : Organic farming is very 12. Match Column-I with Column-II and
beneficial for farmers to increase crop select the correct option using the
production. codes given below :
Reason : Bacteria, fungi, mycorrhiza,
Column-I Column-II
cyanobacteria are better biofertilizer
(a) Citric acid (i) Trichoderma
which fix nitrogen and increase soil
(b) Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium
fertility.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) (c) Statins (iii) Aspergillus

is the correct explanation of (A) (d) Butyric acid (iv) Monascus

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) Codes :
is not the correct explanation of (A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
[2016 NEET – I] (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
9. Which of the following is wrongly
matched in the given table ? [NEET – 2017]
Microbe Product Application

(1)
Trichoderma
Cyclosporin A
Immuno suppressive 13. Which of the following is correctly
Polysporum drug
matched for the product produced by
Monascus Lowering of blood
(2) Statins
purpureus cholestrol them ?
Removal of clot
(3) Streptococcus Streptokinase (1) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
from blood vessel
Clostridium (2) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
(4) Lipase Removal of oil stains
butylicum
(3) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
10. The primitive prokaryotes responsible (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol
for the production of biogas from the
[NEET – 2018]
dung of ruminant animals, include the:
(1) Halophiles 14. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
(2) Thermoacidophiles
nutritional value by increasing the
(3) Methanogens
amount of :
(4) Eubacteria
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin A
[NEET – II 2016] (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin E

11. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been

[NEET – 2019]
designed for
(1) Addition of preservatives to the 15. Which of the following is a commercial
product
blood cholesterol lowering agent?
(2) Availability of oxygen throughout the
(1) Streptokinase
process
(2) Lipases
(3) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the
culture vessel (3) Cyclosporin A

(4) Purification of product (4) Statin

18 Microbes In Human Welfare

16. Match the following organisms with the 21. Among the following pairs of microbes,
products they produce : which pair has both the microbes that
can be used as biofertilizers?
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
(1) Aspergillus and Rhizopus
(b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd (2) Rhizobium and Rhizopus
cerevisiae (3) Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium
(c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid (4) Aspergillus and Cyanobacteria
(d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread [NEET– (UG) – 2020]
(v) Acetic acid 22. Match the following columns and select
Select the correct option. the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d) Column – I Column - II
(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin–
(1) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
butylicum A
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) (b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
(3) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii) polysporum
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v) (c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
purpureus
17. Select the correct group of biocontrol (d) Aspergillus (iv) Blood
niger cholesterol
agents.
lowering
(1) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma agent
(2) Nostoc, Azospirillium Nucleopolyhedrovirus (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
mosaic virus, Aphids
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus (4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
thuringiensis
[NEET – 2020 (Covid-19)]
18. Which of the following can be used as a 23. For the commercial and industrial
biocontrol agent in the treatment of production of Citric Acid, which of the
following microbes is used ?
plant disease ?
(1) Aspergillus niger
(1) Anabaena (2) Lactobacillus (2) Lactobacillus sp
(3) Trichoderma (4) Chlorella (3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(4) Clostridium butylicum
[NEET – 2019 – (Odisha)]
24. Match the following columns and select
19. A biocontrol agent to be a part of an the correct option :
integrated pest management should be Column – I Column - II
(a) Dragonflies (i) Biocontrol agents
(1) Species-specific and symbiotic
of several plant
(2) Free living and broad spectrum pathogens
(3) Narrow spectrum and symbiotic (b) Bacillus (ii) Get rid of Aphids
(4) Species-specific and inactive on thuringiensis and mosquitoes
(c) Glomus (iii) Narrow spectrum
nontarget organisms
insecticidal
applications
20. Which of the following statements
(d) Baculoviruses (iv) Biocontrol agents
about methanogens is not correct ? of lepidopteran
(1) They can be used to produce biogas. plant pests
(2) They are found in the rumen of (v) Absorb phosphorus
from soil
cattle and their excreta
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) They grow aerobically and breakdown (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
cellulose-rich food. (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
(4) They produce methane gas. (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii)

Microbes In Human Welfare 19

25. Cyclosporin A, used as immuno [RE-NEET-2022]
suppression agent, is produced from : 28. Given below are two statements: one is
(1) Monascus purpureus labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is labelled as Reason (R) :
(3) Penicillium notatum Assertion (A) :
(4) Trichoderma polysporum Spirulina is a microbe that can be used
[NEET(UG) – 2021] for reducing environmental pollution.
Reason (R) :
26. Match List - I with List - II.
Spirulina is a rich source of protein,
List – I List - II carbohydrates, fats, minerals and
(a) Aspergillus (i) Acetic vitamins. In the light of the above
niger Acid statements, choose the most
(b) Acetobacter (ii) Lactic Acid appropriate answer from the options
aceti given below:
(c) Clostridium (iii) Citric Acid (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
butylicum is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) Lactobacillus (iv)Butyric (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)
Acid is not the correct explanation of (A)
Choose the correct answer from the (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
options given below. (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

[NEET-2022]
27. Identify the microorganism which is
responsible for the production of an
immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin
A:
(1) Trichoderma polysporum
(2) Clostridium butylicum
(3) Aspergillus niger
(4) Streptococcus cerevisiae

20 Microbes In Human Welfare

 ANSWER KEY

Microbes in Human Welfare

Exercise - I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 4 1 2 1 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 4 2 4 3 2 3 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 1 2 3 4 4 4 3 2 1 2 2 3 4 4 2 1 4 1 1
Que. 41 42 43 44
Ans. 1 4 4 4

Exercise - II
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
Ans. 1 1 3 1 3 2 3 1 1 2 4 2 1 3 2 3 2 4 3

Exercise – III (Previous Year Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 2 4 2 2 1 2 1 4 3 2 1 4 3 4 4 4 3 4 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. 3 3 1 4 4 1 1 2

Strategy For Enhancement In Food Production 21

 1 Human Health and Disease
Health-Introduction :

• For a long time, health was considered as a state of body and mind where there was a balance
of certain ‘humors’.
• This is what early Greeks like Hippocrates as well as Indian Ayurveda system of medicine
asserted. It was thought that persons with ‘black bile’ belonged to hot personality and would
have fevers. This idea was arrived at by pure reflective thought.

• The discovery of blood circulation by William Harvey using experimental method and the
demonstration of normal body temperature in persons with black bile using thermometer
disproved the "good humor hypothesis" of health.

• In later years, biology stated that mind influences, through neural system and endocrine system,
our immune system and that our immune system maintains our health. Hence, mind and mental
state can affect our health.

• How do we define health ?

The term health is very frequently used by everybody. Health does not simply mean ‘absence of
disease’ or ‘physical fitness’. It could be defined as a (according to WHO) state of complete
physical, mental and social well-being. When people are healthy, they are more efficient at
work. This increases productivity and brings economic prosperity. Health also increases
longevity of people and reduces infant and maternal mortality.
Factor affecting health :-
(i) genetic disorders : deficiencies with which a child is born and deficiencies/defects which
the child inherits from parents by birth;
(ii) infections and
(iii) life style including food and water we take, rest and exercise we give to our bodies, habits
that we have or lack etc.

• How can we achieve good health ?

Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good
health. Yoga has been practised since time immemorial to achieve physical and mental health.

• Awareness about diseases and their effect on different bodily functions, vaccination
(immunisation) against infectious diseases, proper disposal of wastes, control of vectors and
maintenance of hygienic food and water resources are necessary for achieving good health.
• What is Disease ?
Dis : Opposite Ease : Comfort
When the functioning of one or more organs or systems of the body is adversely affected,
characterised by various signs and symptoms, we say that we are not healthy, i.e., we have a
disease. Diseases can be broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious.

Human Health and Disease 1

Classification of Diseases:-

(i) Diseases which are easily transmitted from one person to another, are called infectious
diseases. Infectious diseases are very common and every one of us suffers from these at
sometime or other. Some of the infectious diseases like AIDS are fatal.
(ii) Among non-infectious diseases, cancer is the major cause of death. Drug and alcohol
abuse also affect our health adversely.

Common Diseases in Humans

• A wide range of organisms belonging to bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, helminths, etc.,
could cause diseases in man. Such disease causing organisms are called pathogens. Mostly
parasites are therefore pathogens as they cause harm to the host by living in (or on) them. The
pathogens can enter our body by various means, multiply and interfere with normal vital
activities, resulting in morphological and functional damage. Pathogens have to adapt to life
within the environment of the host. For example, the pathogens that enter the gut must know a
way of surviving in the stomach at low pH and resisting the various digestive enzymes.
Bacterial diseases Pathogen Symptoms & Pathogenicity
1 Typhoid fever Salmonella typhi • Enters small intestine through contaminated food
and water and migrate to other organs through
blood
• Sustained high fever (39-40° C)
• Weakness, constipation, stomach pain
• Headache, loss of appetite
• In severe cases intestinal perforation, (death)
• Confirmed by widal test
• Mary Mallon, nicknamed- Typhoid Mary (Carrier
of typhoid )
2 Pneumonia Streptococcus • By droplet or aerosol infection or even by sharing
pneumoniae and glasses and utensils with infected person
Hemophilus • Infects alveoli of the lungs
influenzae • Alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe
problem in respiration
• Fever with chills, cough & headache
• In severe cases lips and nails tuns gray to bluish
in colour

2 Human Health and Disease

 Knowledge Booster

Bacterial diseases Pathogen Symptoms & Pathogenicity

1 Diphtheria Corynebacterium • High grade fever, affects throat
diphtheriae • Causes suffocation
(Investigation : Schick test)
2 Tuberculosis (T.B.) Mycobacterium • Affects the lungs
tuberculosis. • Repeated Fever, Chronic cough,
Diarrhea, pain in the chest, loss of weight,
night sweating.
3 Leprosy Mycobacterium leprae • Appearance of light coloured patches on
the skin, partial or total loss of sensation
in the affected parts
4 Tetanus Clostridium tetani • Affects on voluntary muscles mainly.
• Stiffness in neck and spasms of muscles
of the jaw and face. (Lock Jaw)
5 Plague (Black Yersinia pestis • High fever, headache
death) (Parasite of Xenopsylla • Enlargement of axillary lymph nodes
cheopis/Rat flea) • Red patches appear on skin which turn
black. (Epidemic)

• Some other bacterial diseases are-Dysentery (Shigella dysenteries), Cholera (Vibrio Cholerae),
whooping cough/Pertussis (Bordetella Pertussis) etc.

Viral Diseases Pathogen Symptoms & Pathogenicity

• One of the most infectious human ailments
• Transmits through droplet resulting from
cough, sneeze etc.
• Infect nose and respiratory passage but not
1 Common cold Rhino viruses the lungs.
(Group of viruses) • Nasal congestion and discharge, sore
throat, hoarseness, cough, headache,
tiredness
Usually last for 3-7 days
2 Chikungunya Chikungunya virus (ss-RNA) • Fever, joint pains
(Vector : Aedes-ageypti
mosquito)
3 Dengue fever Flavi-arbo virus (Vector : • Fever, severe-frontal-headache, muscle &
Aedes-ageypti mosquito) joint pain. (Break bone fever)
• Bleeding from nose, mouth, gums

Human Health and Disease 3

 Knowledge Booster

Viral Diseases Pathogen Symptoms & Pathogenicity

1 Hepatitis-B HBV (ds DNA) • Severe liver damage, jaundice
• Recombinant DNA vaccine
• Transmits-through parenteral and
sexual route (Can cross placenta)
2 Polio Polio virus (ss RNA) • Inflammation of nervous system,
stiffness of the neck, weakness of
particular skeletal muscles.
• Paralysis of limb muscles.

3 Rabies Rhabdo virus • Fear of water is the most important

(Hydrophobia) characteristic symptom (hydrophobia).
• High fever, excess salivation, inability
to madness attacks

4 Mumps Paramyxovirus • Inflammation of parotid salivary

glands.

• Some other viral diseases are influenza (Flu) measles (Rubeola virus), Chicken pox (Varicella
virus) Small pox (Variola virus), SARS (Severe acute respiratory syndrome), Swine flu (H1N1 virus)
etc.
Protozoanal Disease Pathogen Symptoms & Pathogenicity
(1) Amoebiasis Entamoeba • Parasite in large intestine
(Amoebic histolytica • Constipation, abdominal pain and cramps
dysentery) • Stools with excess mucus and blood
• Spreads through contaminated food and water
• Houseflies acts as mechanical carriers
(2) Malaria Plasmodium • Chill and high fever recurring every 3 to 4 days
species • Pain in body

Helminthic diseases Pathogen Symptoms & Pathogenicity

(1) Ascariasis Ascaris • Intestinal parasite
Lumbricoides • Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia,
(Common blockage of the intestinal passage
Round worm) • Eggs of the parasite excreted along with the
faeces of infected person which contaminate
soil, water, plants etc.
• Infection occurs by taking contaminated water,
fruits, vegetables etc.
(2) Elephantiasis Wuchereria • Slowly developing chronic inflammation of the
(Filariasis) (W. bancrofti organs in which they live for many years
and W.malayi) • Usually the lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs
(Filarial worm ) get blocked
• Genital organs are also often affected, (swelling
in tests & scrotum).
• Transmitted to a healthy person through the
bite by the female mosquito vector (Mainly
Culex)

4 Fungal disease Pathogen Human Health and Disease

Symptoms & Pathogenicity
(1) Ringworms Microsporum, • One of the most common infectious disease
 in tests & scrotum).
• Transmitted to a healthy person through the
bite by the female mosquito vector (Mainly
Culex)

Fungal disease Pathogen Symptoms & Pathogenicity

(1) Ringworms Microsporum, • One of the most common infectious disease
Trichophyton & • Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various
Epidermophyton parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp.
• These lesions are accompanied by intense
itching
• Heat and moisture help these fungi to grow,
which makes them thrive in skin folds such as
those in the groin or between the toes
• Generally acquired from soil or by using towels,
clothes or even the comb of infected
individuals

(a) (b)
Ringworm affected Inflammation in one of
area of the skin the lower limbs due to
elephantiasis

Malarias
• Plasmodium, a tiny protozoan is responsible for Malaria. Different species of Plasmodium (P.vivax,
P.malariae and P.falciparum) are responsible for different types of malaria. Of these, malignant
malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious one and can even be fatal.
• Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites (infectious form) through the bite of
infected female Anopheles mosquito. The parasites initially multiply within the liver cells and
then attack the red blood cells (RBCs) resulting in their rupture. The rupture of RBCs is
associated with release of a toxic substance, hemozoin, which is responsible for the chill and
high fever recurring every three to four days (Intermittent fever).
• When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, these parasites enter the
mosquito's body and undergo further development. The parasites multiply within them to form
sporozoites that are stored in their salivary glands.
• When these mosquitoes bite a human, the sporozoites are introduced into his/her body. Malarial
parasite required two hosts- human and mosquitoes - to complete its life cycle.
• The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector (transmitting agent) of malaria.

Human Health and Disease 5

 Figure-Stages in the life cycle of Plasmodium

Prevention and Control

• Maintenance of personal and public hygiene is very important for prevention and control of
many infectious diseases.

(i) Measures for personal hygiene include keeping the body clean; consumption of clean drinking
water, food, vegetables, fruits, etc.

(ii)Public hygiene includes proper disposal of waste and excreta; periodic cleaning and
disinfection of water reservoirs, pools, cesspools and tanks and observing standard practices
of hygiene in public catering. These measures are particularly essential where the infectious
agents are transmitted through food and water such as typhoid, amoebiasis and ascariasis.

• In cases of air-borne diseases such as pneumonia and common cold, in addition to the above
measures, close contact with the infected persons or their belongings should be avoided.

6 Human Health and Disease

• For diseases such as malaria and filariasis that are transmitted through insect vectors, the most
important measure is to control or eliminate the vectors and their breeding places. This can be
achieved by avoiding stagnation of water in and around residential areas, regular cleaning of
household coolers, use of mosquito nets, introducing fishes like Gambusia in ponds that feed on
mosquito larvae, spraying of insecticides in ditches, drainage areas and swamps, etc.

• In addition, doors and windows should be provided with wire mesh to prevent the entry of
mosquitoes. Such precautions have become all the more important especially in the light of
recent widespread incidences of the vector-borne (Aedes mosquitoes) diseases like dengue and
chikungunya in many parts of India.

• The advancements made in biological science have armed us to effectively deal with many
infectious diseases.

• The use of vaccines and immunisation programs have enabled us to completely eradicate a
deadly disease like smallpox.

• A large number of other infectious diseases like polio, diphtheria, pneumonia and tetanus have
been controlled to a large extent by the use of vaccines.

• Biotechnology is at the verge of making available newer and safer vaccines. Discovery of
antibiotics and various other drugs has also enabled us to effectively treat infectious diseases.

Concept Builder

1. Which of the following diseases are spread by intake of contaminated food and water ?
a. Ascariasis b. Amoebiasis
c. Ringworm d. Polio
e. Typhoid f. Dengue
(1) a, b and e (2) a, b, d and e (3) a, c and f (4) d and e
2. A disease with symptoms showing sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach
pain, constipation, headache, loss of appetite leading to intestinal perforation in severe cases
is :
(1) Malaria (2) Kala-azar (3) Typhoid (4) Amoebic dysentery

3. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of the intestinal passage are
the common symptoms of :
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Elephantiasis (3) Ascariasis (4) Typhoid

4. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual stages (gametocytes) begin to develop in

(1) Stomach of mosquito (2) Intestine of man
(3) Liver of man (4) Red blood cells of man

5. Out of the following disease which are caused due to bacterial infection ?
a. Typhoid b. Elephantiasis
c. Cholera d. Tuberculosis
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only (3) a, c and d only (4) a, b, c and d

Human Health and Disease 7

6. Which one is not spread by droplet infection ?
(1) Tuberculosis (2) Diphtheria (3) Pertussis (4) Gonorrhoea

7. Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted through :

(1) Insect bite (2) Sweat
(3) Food and water contamination (4) Bird droppings

8. The location where Plasmodium reproduces asexually in human body is :

(1) RBC (2) Liver (3) Skin (4) Both (1) and (2)

9. Identify the wrongly matched pair

(1) Plague : Bacterial disease (2) Malignant malaria : Plasmodium falciparum
(3) Trichophyton : Round worm (4) Common cold : Rhino virus

10. Which of the following disease has been eradicated from world by the use of vaccine ?
(1) Plague (2) Poliomyelitis (3) Small pox (4) Kala-azar

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 3 3 4 3 4 3 4 3 3

Immunity
• Everyday we are exposed to large number of infectious agents. However, only a few of these
exposures result in disease. Why? This is due to the fact that the body is able to defend itself
from most of these foreign agents. This overall ability of the host to fight the disease-causing
organisms, conferred by the immune system is called immunity.
Immunity is of two types:
(i) Innate immunity or congenital immunity or Non specific immunity
(ii) Acquired immunity. or Adaptive or Specific immunity

8 Human Health and Disease

Innate Immunity
• Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, that is present at the time of birth. This is
accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the entry of the foreign agents into our
body.

Innate immunity consist of four types of barriers. These are :

(1) Physical /Anatomical barriers :
(a) Skin : Skin on our body is the main barrier which prevents entry of the micro-organisms.
Outermost layer of skin is dead (stratum corneum), so the bacteria do not grow or enter
into it. Acidic pH of skin (3-5) also destroy the bacteria.
(b) Mucosa : Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal and
urinogenital tracts also help in trapping microbes entering our body. Mucosa contain
mucosal cells and cilia. mucus traps the micro organism and cilia propel them outside.
(2) Physiological barriers :
• Some physiological processes of body also inhibits growth of microbes after they get
entered into the body.
(i) Fever : High temperature of body, inhibit the growth of microbes.
(ii) pH of body : Acidic pH of various part of body like, stomach and Vagina inhibit the
growth of microbes.
(iii) Secretions : Secretions of body like Saliva, Tear etc., contain lysozyme enzyme, destroys
bacterias. by destroying their cell ways.
(3) Cellular barriers :
(A) Phagocytic Cells :
• These cells engulf and destroy microbes with the help of their lytic enzymes
(Phagocytosis).
• Neutrophils and monocytes in blood and macrophages in tissues.
• Neutrophils are common and active phagocytic cells which are also called
polymorphonuclear Leucocyte (PMNL)
• In response to pathogenic infection, the total count of WBC in body increase.
• Most important phagocytes are Neutrophils and Macrophages. Monocytes are liberated at
the site of infection and fused to form big eating cells-macrophages in tissues.
• Macrophages are large irregular shaped cells that engulf microbes, virus, cellular debris
etc. in response to an infection.

Human Health and Disease 9

 (B) Non Phagocytic cells (eg. Natural-Killer cells) : It is a large granular lymphocyte cell.
• During this process apart from the phagocytes, another type of cells called Natural killer
cells that kill virus infected cells and tumour cells of body by secreting perforin which
creates pores in the plasma membrane of infected cells. ECF enters through these pores
causing swelling and bursting of these cells.

(4) Cytokine barriers :

• Virus-infected cells secrete anti-viral protein called interferons which protect non-infected
host cells from further viral infection.
• Interferon are made up to 270 amino acids and inhibits the multiplication of viruses in
adjacent cells by producing Translation Inhibiting Protein (T.I.P.). ]

• Interferons make neighbouring cells resistant to viral infection and therefore can be used for
prophylaxis and treatment of viral infections.
Special Points
• First line of defence : Physical and physiological barrier.
• Second line of defence : Cellular and cytokine barrier
(Neutrophils, Monocytes, Macrophage, interferon).
• Third line of defence : Specific immunity by T- and B-lymphocytes.

Acquired Immunity
• Acquired immunity, on the other hand, is pathogen specific. It is found in vertebrates only.
Unique Features of Acquired immunity :
(i) Specificity : Acquired immunity is specific for specific micro-organisms.
(ii) Diversity : Our immune system has an ability to recognize the vast variety of micro-
organisms.
(iii) Discrimination between self and non-self : It can recognise self (own body tissue or
molecules) and non self (foreign tissue or molecules) and respond, against non-self only.
(iv) Memory : When a pathogen enter into the body first time, body takes longer times to
recognise and respond to it, this is called primary immune response (PIR) which is slow
and of low intensity, but the memory of this encounter remain in immune system.

10 Human Health and Disease

• When same pathogen enters into the body second time, body immune system rapidly recognise
this pathogen and respond quickly to it. This is called secondary immune response (SIR)
(Anamnestic). This is rapid and more intense due to involvement of memory.

• Primary immune response – IgM

• Secondary immune response –IgG

• The primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of two special types
of lymphocytes present in our blood, i.e., B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes. The B-
lymphocytes produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens into our blood to fight with
them. These special protein molecules are called antibodies. The T-cells themselves do not
secrete antibodies but help B cells produce them.

Types of acquired immunity

Acquired immunity can be classified into active and passive immunity -

Human Health and Disease 11

 Antiserum

ATS : → Anti tetanus serum
ARS : → Anti Rabies serum
ADS : → Anti diphtheria serum
(A) Active immunity : When a host is exposed to antigens, which may be in the form of living or
dead microbes or other proteins, antibodies are produced in the host body. This type of
immunity is called active immunity.
• This immunity develops after natural infection or vaccination.
(i) Natural active immunity : It is acquired when antigens get entered into the body during
natural infection. So a person who has recovered from attack of small pox or measles or
mumps becomes immunised for these diseases for lifetime.
(ii) Artificial active immunity : This immunity develops after vaccination or by Injecting the
microbes deliberately during immunisation (e.g. polio vaccine).
(B) Passive immunity : When ready-made antibodies are directly given to protect the body
against foreign agents, it is called passive immunity.
(i) Natural passive immunity : The yellowish fluid colostrum (First milk) secreted by mother
during the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. Now
you can understand why mother's milk is considered very essential for newborn infants.
• The foetus also receives some antibodies (IgG) from their mother, through the placenta
during pregnancy.
(ii) Artificial passive immunity : When preformed antibodies are directly injected into the
body. e.g. Antivenom after snake bite, Anti -Tetanus serum (ATS).

Immune System In the Body

• Our Immune system is unique in the sense that it recognises foreign antigens, responds to these
and remembers them. The immune system also plays an important role in allergic reactions,
auto-immune diseases and organ transplantation.

Lymphoid organs :
These are the organs where origin and/or maturation and proliferation of lymphocytes occur.

12 Human Health and Disease

(a) Primary lymphoid organs : where immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive
lymphocytes. (e.g. : bone marrow and thymus)
• The bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are
produced.
• The thymus is a lobed organ located near the heart and beneath the breastbone. The thymus is
quite large at the time of birth but keeps reducing in size with age and by the time of puberty
get reduced to a very small size. Both bone-marrow and thymus provide micro-environments for
the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
(b) The secondary lymphoid organs : They provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the
antigen, which then proliferate to become effector cells.
• After maturation the lymphocytes migrate to secondary lymphoid organs like spleen, lymph
nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small intestine and appendix.
• The spleen is a large bean shaped organ. It mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes. It acts
as a filter of the blood by trapping blood-borne microorganisms. Spleen also has a large
reservoir of RBCs.
• The lymph nodes are small solid structures located at different points along the lymphatic
system. Lymph nodes serve to trap the micro-organisms or other antigens, which happen to get
into the lymph and tissue fluid. Antigens trapped in the lymph nodes are responsible for the
activation of lymphocytes present there and cause the immune response.
• There is lymphoid tissue also located within the lining of the major tracts (respiratory, digestive
and urogenital tracts) called mucosal associated lymphoid tissue (MALT). It constitutes about 50
per cent of the total lymphoid tissue in human body.

Human Health and Disease 13

 Based on these two type of lymphocytes there are two types of active immunity.
• CMI (Cell mediated immunity) or Cellular immunity

• AMI (Antibody mediated immunity) or humoral immunity

Antigen binding site or paratope

Variable
region (V)
Variable of heavy Antigen
region chain
of light Variable
chain region
of light
chain Antigenic determinant
or Epitope

Antigenic binding site

Constant or Paratope
region (C)
Heavy chain Light chain

Antibody or Immunoglobulin (Ig) :

• These are complex glycoprotein molecule made up of 4 polypeptide chains two light and two
heavy chains. Hence, an antibody is represented as H2 L2.

• These two chain held together by disulphide bond in shape of Y molecule.

• Each heavy and each light chain possesses a variable (V) and a constant (C) region.

• Variable (V) regions of both heavy and light chains together form an asymmetric "Antigen
binding site or paratope"

• These two top tips of antibody (Paratopes) binds with a particular part of antigen (Antigenic
determinant or epitope) in a lock and key fashion and thus antigen-antibody complex is formed.

14 Human Health and Disease

Vaccination and Immunisation
• Vaccine is suspension of attenuated/Inactivated pathogen or antigenic proteins which is taken

orally or injected to provide immunity against pathogen.

• The principle of immunisation or vaccination is based on the property of ‘memory’ of the

immune system.

• In vaccination, a preparation of antigenic proteins of pathogen or inactivated/weakened

pathogen (vaccine) are introduced into the body. The antibodies produced in the body against
these antigens would neutralise the pathogenic agents during actual infection.

• The vaccines also generate memory – B and T-cells that recognise the pathogen quickly on

subsequent exposure and destroy pathogen with a massive production of antibodies.

• If a person is infected with some deadly microbes to which quick immune response is required

as in tetanus, we need to directly inject the preformed antibodies, or antitoxin (a preparation

containing antibodies to the toxin). Even in cases of snakebites, the injection which is given to

the patients, contain preformed antibodies against the snake venom. This type of immunisation

is called passive immunisation.

GRAFT (TRANSPLANT) :

• Very often, when some human organs like heart, eye, liver, kidney fail to function satisfactorily,

transplantation is the only remedy to enable the patient to live a normal life. Then a search

begins – to find a suitable donor. Why is it that the organs cannot be taken from just anybody?

What is it that the doctors check? Grafts from just any source – an animal, another primate, or

any human beings cannot be made since the grafts would be rejected sooner or later. Tissue

matching, blood group matching are essential before undertaking any graft/transplant and even

after this the patient has to take immuno–suppressants all his/her life. Our body is actually
able to differentiate ‘self ’ and ‘nonself’.

• The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the rejection of incompatible tissues /

organs (graft rejection).

Immune System Disorder

Improper functioning of immune system may cause discomfort (Allergy), disease (AIDS) or even death

(anaphylactic shock). These disorders can be divided into 3 categories.

(A) Allergy :
When a person show hyper sensitiveness for a common foreign agent then it is called allergy.

Human Health and Disease 15

• The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment
is called allergy. The substances to which such an immune response is produced are called
allergens.
(e.g. : dust particles, pollen grains, mites, etc.)
• The antibodies produced in these cases are IgE.
• Symptoms of allergic reactions include sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and difficulty in
breathing.
• Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like histamine, serotonin etc. from the mast cells.
• For determining the cause of allergy, the patient is exposed to or injected with very small doses
of possible allergens, and the reactions studied.
• The use of drugs like anti-histamine, adrenalin and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of
allergy.
• Quick relief in symptoms : → Anti histaminic
→ Adrenaline
→ Steroids : For a long time
Examples :
(i) Bronchial Asthma
(ii) Hay Fever
(iii) Anaphylactic shock
(iv) Eczema
(v) Utricaria

(B) Auto immune disorder :

• Memory-based acquired immunity evolved in higher vertebrates
• Higher vertebrates can distinguish foreign molecules as well as foreign organisms (eg.
Pathogens) from self molecules or self cells. Most of the experimental immunology deals with
this aspect.
• Sometimes, due to genetic and other unknown reasons, the body attacks self-cells. This results
in damage to the body and is called auto-immune disease.
• When the immune system does not discriminates between self and non-self antigen, antibodies
are formed against the self antigen, which destroy the self antigen or the self tissue of the body.

16 Human Health and Disease

Examples :
(i) Myasthenia gravis
(ii) Pernicious anaemia (Destructive)
(iii) Hashimoto disease
(iv) Rheumatoid arthritis

• Heat treatment and physiotherapy help in relieving inflammation and pain. Joint replacement
surgery is done in extreme cases.
(v) I.D.D.M : (Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus or Type-I).

(vi) Multiple sclerosis

(vii) Vitiligo
(viii) Psoriasis : Immune system destroys skin cells thus red patches are appeared on covered part of
body.

Concept Builder

1. Antigen binding site in an antibody is formed by :

(1) Two light chains
(2) Two heavy chains
(3) One heavy and one light chain
(4) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon
the nature of antigen

2. Mark the correct statement ?

(1) The anamnestic response against a pathogen is highly intensified
(2) The T-lymphocytes produce antibodies
(3) The B-lymphocytes produce cell mediated response
(4) An antibody is represented by H2L4

3. Which of the following immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in colostrum ?

(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgM (4) IgE

4. In which of the following organs the T-cells originate ?

(1) Bone marrow (2) Thymus
(3) Lymph nodes (4) Spleen

5. Which of the following infectious diseases have been controlled to a large extent by the
vaccines ?
a. Polio b. Diphtheria c. Pneumonia d. Tetanus
(1) a and b (2) c and d (3) a and d (4) a, b, c and d

6. Which of the following cells are not included in cellular barriers ?

(1) Neutrophils (2) Helper T-cells (3) Microglia (4) Macrophages

7. The short-lived antibody secreting B-cells are called :

(1) Memory cells (2) Dendritic cells
(3) Plasma cells (4) Histiocytes

Human Health and Disease 17

8. The first Nobel prize for medicine and physiology was awarded to von Behring. He had treated
a girl suffering from diphtheria by administering antitoxins which are :
(1) Toxoid (2) Weakened bacteria
(3) Antibodies (4) Interferons
9. The vaccine means for protection against tuberculosis is :
(1) BCG (2) DPT (3) TT (4) BGC
10. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease ?
(1) Myasthenia gravis (2) Multiple sclerosis
(3) Osteroarthritis (4) Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 1 1 1 4 2 3 3 1 3

AIDS
AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. It is a deficiency of immune system,
acquired during the life time of an individual indicating that it is not a congenital disease. AIDS
was first reported in USA amongst homosexuals in 1981.

Pathogen
• AIDS is caused by Human Immuno deficiency Virus (HIV), a name given in 1986 by the
International committee on viral Nomenclature.
• This virus belongs to a group of viruses called Retrovirus which has an envelope consisting of a
lipid bilayer derived from host cell membrane and projecting knob like glycoprotein spikes with
pedicels formed of virus coded glycoprotein.
• This envelope encloses the RNA genome (single stranded RNA filament is segmented into two
identical filaments and is associated with a reverse transcriptase enzyme).
• HIV consists of a core RNA with Reverse. Transcriptase surrounded by a protein coat.
• The protein coat around the core consists of a protein called P24.
• Outside this protein coat is a layer composed of another protein called P17.
• The outermost envelope consists of a phospholipid bilayer studded with glycoproteins (GP120
and GP41).
• HIV is a retrovirus: using the enzyme reverse transcriptase, it can synthesize DNA from RNA.
• Once HIV produces DNA from its RNA, the DNA is integrated into the host cell's DNA.
• There it can remain dormant, giving no sign of its presence, or it can take over the host cell's
genetic machinery to produce more viruses.
• The major cell infected by HIV is the Helper T-lymphocyte that bears the CD4 receptors site.
• The attachment of virus to CD4 receptor site is by the help of GP120 on the protein coat of the
virus.

18 Human Health and Disease

 Mode of Transmission
Transmission of HIV infection generally occurs by
(a) Sexual contact with infected person.
(b) By transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products.
(c) By sharing infected needles as in the case of intravenous drug abusers.
(d) From infected mother to her child through placenta.

So, people who are at high risk of getting AIDS infection include
(a) Individuals who have multiple sexual partners.
(b) Drug addicts, who take drugs intravenously.
(c) Individuals who require repeated blood transfusions.
(d) Children born to an HIV infected mother.

Mode of Action of AIDS Virus

• After the entry of virus into the body through body fluids or, blood, the virus enters into the
macrophages where RNA genome of the virus replicates to form viral DNA with the help of
enzyme reverse transcriptase.
• This viral DNA gets incorporated into host cells DNA and directs the infected cells to produce
virus particles.
• The macrophages continue to produce virus and in this way 'Macrophage acts like an HIV
Factory'.
Simultaneously, HIV enters into Helper T-lymphocytes below 200/mm3 (Having CD4 receptors),
replicates and produces progeny viruses which destruct the helper T-cell.
• The progeny virus released in the blood attacks the other helper T cells. This is repeated
leading to progressive decrease in the number of helper T-lymphocytes in the body of the
infected person.
• During this period, the infected person suffers from fever, diarrhoea and weight loss.
• Due to decrease in the number of helper T-lymphocytes below 200/mm3, the person starts
suffering from opportunistic infections of bacteria especially Mycobacterium, viruses, fungi and
even parasites like Toxoplasma.
• The patient becomes so immunodeficient that he/she is unable to protect himself/herself
against these infections.
• Besides Pneumocystis carinii (Pneumonia), AIDS victims have persistent diarrhoea and are
especially susceptible to Toxoplasma infections (tuberculosis), Candidiasis (whitish patches on
mucus membranes primarily due to fungal infections), Cytomegalovirus (leading to blindness
and dementia), Herpes simplex, many other opportunistic infections, and Kaposi's sarcoma.

Human Health and Disease 19

Note
• Reverse Transcriptase (RT) has the ability to convert ssRNA of virus into SsDNA.
• The ssDNA then gets converted into dsDNA by DNA dependent DNA polymerase activity.

Diagnosis
A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA).
Western blotting test is employed for confirmation of ELISA positive cases.

Prevention of AIDS:
As AIDS has no cure, prevention is the best option. No vaccine has been prepared so far against
AIDS virus. WHO (World Health Organisation) has started number of programmes to prevent the
spreading of HIV infections. The following steps may help in preventing the AIDS.
(i) Proper blood testing to make blood safe from HIV.
(ii) Ensuring the use of only disposable needles and syringes in public/private hospitals and
clinics.
(iii) Free distribution of condoms and advocating safe sex.
(iv) Controlling drug abuse.
(V) Promoting regular check up for HIV in susceptible population.
(vi) People should be educated about AIDS.
Every year 1st December is commemorated as World AIDS Day. NACO (National AIDS Control
Organisation) and NGOs (Non-governmental Organisations) are doing a lot of work to educate
people about AIDS.

20 Human Health and Disease

 Concept Builder

1. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome is :

(1) Characterised by reduction in number of killer T-cells
(2) An autoimmune disease
(3) Characterised by reduction in the number of helper T-cells
(4) The result of inability of body to produce interferons

2. Several viral diseases have been controlled by vaccines but the same has not been possible
with AIDS, Why ?
(1) Cost of development and production of vaccines
(2) Lack of suitable experimental animal on which vaccines can be tested
(3) Lack of antigenic proteins on the HIV virus
(4) High rate of mutability in HIV

3. AIDS cannot be transmitted by :

(1) Transfusion of contaminated blood
(2) Sexual contact with infected person
(3) By sharing infected needles
(4) From normal mother to her child through placenta
4. Which of the following individuals are at high risk of getting AIDS infection ?
(1) Person suffers from thalassemia (2) Multiple sexual partners
(3) Drug addicts (intravenous) (4) All of these
5. The viral glycoprotein that helps HIV to recognise helper T cells is :
(1) CXCR4 (2) gp 120
(3) Reverse transcriptase (4) Nucleocapsid proteins
6. AIDS virus has
(1) Single strand DNA (2) Double strand DNA
(3) Single strand RNA (4) Double strand RNA
7. AIDS spreads due to
(1) Homosexuality (2) Infected needles and syringes
(3) Infected mother to foetus (4) All of these
8. Enzyme responsible for replication of HIV in macrophages is
(1) RNA polymerase (2) DNA ligase
(3) DNA polymerase (4) Reverse transcriptase
9. After entering T-cell, HIV first forms
(1) mRNA (2) Single stranded DNA
(3) Double stranded DNA (4) Double stranded RNA
10. Which of the following cancer is opportunistic disease associated with HIV ?
(1) Cancer of cervix (2) Liver cancer
(3) Burkitt's lymphoma (4) Kaposi's sarcoma
Concept Builder (Answer-Key)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 4 4 4 2 3 4 4 2 4

Human Health and Disease 21

CANCER
• It is one of the most dreaded diseases of human beings and is a major cause of death all over
the world.
• More than a million Indians suffer from cancer and a large number of them die annually.
• In our body, cell growth and differentiation is a highly controlled and regulated process. But in
cancer cells, there is an abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells due to breakdown of these
regulatory mechanisms.
• Normal cells show a property called contact inhibition, in which, the dividing cells when in
contact with other cells, inhibit their uncontrolled growth but cancer cells do not have this
property.
• Therefore, cancerous cells continue to divide giving rise to mass of cells called neoplasm or
tumors.

Types of Tumors:
(i) Benign Tumors : It remains confined to their original location and do not spread to other
parts of the body and hence cause little damage.
(ii) Malignant Tumors : It is a tumor where neoplastic or tumor cells divide and grow very
rapidly, invading and damaging surrounding normal tissues, starving the normal cells by
competing for vital nutrients. Cells sloughed from such tumors reach distant site through blood
and whenever they get lodged in the body. they start a new tumor formation. This property is
called metastasis and is the most feared property of malignant tumors.

Causes of Cancer/Carcinogenic agents

Transformation of normal cells into cancerous, neoplastic cells may be induced by physical,
chemical and biological agents.

22 Human Health and Disease

 (i) Physical agents
lonising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays and non-ionizing radiations like UV rays
cause DNA damage which leads to neoplastic transformation.
(ii) Chemical agents
Chemical carcinogens are present in tobacco smoke which have been identified as a
major cause of lung cancer. For instance, asbestos exposure can lead to cancer of lungs
while carcinogen like cadmium oxide is associated with prostate cancer.
(iii) Biological agents
Cancer causing viruses called oncogenic viruses have genes called viral oncogenes which
can cause cancer. Several genes called cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or protooncogenes
have been identified in normal cells. Activation of these genes under certain conditions
could lead to oncogenic/carcinogenic transformation of the cells.

Knowledge Booster

Detection and Diagnosis

An early detection of cancer is life saving, but if it spreads to various parts and organs, the
treatment becomes ineffective. The diagnosis of cancer is usually done by
(a) Biopsy and histopathological studies of the suspected tissue. In this a piece of suspected
tissue is cut into thin sections, stained and examined under a microscope by a pathologist
for detection of cancerous cells.
(b) Blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in the case of leukaemia.
(c) Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays).
CT (Computed tomography) and MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) are useful to detect
cancers of the internal organs. CT scan uses X-rays to generate a three dimensional image
of internal organs while MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to
accurately detect pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue.
(d) Antibody against cancer specific antigens are also used for detection of certain cancers. e.g.,
Herceptin
(e) Techniques of molecular biology can be used to detect genes in individuals with inherited
susceptibility for certain cancers. After detection or identification of these genes in any
individual, they may be advised to avoid exposure to particular carcinogens to which they
are susceptible (e.g. Tobacco smoke in case of lung cancer)

Human Health and Disease 23

Treatment of Cancer
Common treatment prescribed for different types of cancers are :

(i) Surgery
Generally a tumor is surgically removed wherever possible.
(ii) Radiotherapy/Radiation therapy
Tumor cells are irradiated lethally by gamma radiations taking proper care of the normal tissues
surrounding the tumor mass or neoplasm. e.g., use of I131 for thyroid cancer.
(iii) Chemotherapy
Several chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill cancerous cell. Some of these are specific for
particular tumor e.g. two anticancer drugs, vincristine and vinblastine, used in the treatment of
leukaemia are obtained from common weed Catharanthus roseus. Majority of drugs have side
effects like hair loss, anemia etc.
(iv) Immunotherapy
Sometimes tumor cells are seen to avoid detection and destruction by immune system. So the
patients are given substances called biological response modifiers such as -interferons which
activate their immune system and help in destroying the tumor.

Concept Builder

1. Tumor formation is caused by :

(1) Uncontrolled meiosis (2) Loss of contact inhibition
(3) Rupturing of cells (4) Loss of immunity of cells

2. A sample from tumour is taken out and examined to check whether these are malignant such
process are called.
(1) Autopsy (2) MRI (3) CT scan (4) Biopsy

3. Cancer of muscular tissue is called :

(1) Carcinoma (2) Melanoma (3) Sarcoma (4) Myoma

4. Migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming
secondary tumors is called :
(1) Metagenesis (2) Diapedesis (3) Metamorphosis (4) Metastasis

5. Oncogenic transformation of a normal cell can be caused by all of the following, except
(1) Exposure to X-rays (2) Exposure to visible range of spectrum
(3) Exposure to benzopyrene (4) Exposure to cadmium oxide

6. Sarcoma is a malignancy of
(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Blood
(3) Mesoderm (4) Reticuloendothelial tissue

24 Human Health and Disease

7. In leukaemia, there is tremendous increase in the number of
(1) R.B.C. (2) Immature cells
(3) W.B.Cs (4) W.B.Cs and immature leucocyte cells
8. Cancer is treated through a combination of
(1) Surgery and drugs (2) Drugs and irradiation
(3) Surgery and irradiation (4) Surgery, Irradiation and Chemotherapy
9. Cancer cells are characterised by :
(1) Uncontrolled growth (2) Spreading to the other body parts
(3) Invasion of local tissue (4) All of these
10. Metastasis is connected with
(1) Benign tumour (2) Malignant tumour
(3) Both benign and malignant tumours (4) Crowngall tumour

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 4 3 4 2 3 4 4 4 2

Drugs and Alcohol Abuse

• Surveys and statistics show that use of drugs and alcohol has been on the rise especially
among the youth. This is really a cause of concern as it could result in many harmful
effects. Proper education and guidance would enable youth to safeguard themselves
against these dangerous behaviour patterns and follow healthy lifestyles.

• The drugs, which are commonly abused are opioids, cannabinoids and coca alkaloids.
Majority of these are obtained from flowering plants. Some are obtained from fungi like
LSD (Lysergic acid diethyl amides).

(A) Opioids : (e.g : morphine, Heroine etc.)

Chemical structure of Morphine Opium poppy

• These are the drugs, which bind to specific opioid receptors present in our central nervous
system and gastrointestinal tract.
• Heroin, commonly called smack is chemically diacetylmorphine which is a white,
odourless, bitter crystalline compound. This is obtained by acetylation of morphine, which
is extracted from the latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum. Generally taken by
snorting and injection, heroin is a depressant and slows down body functions.
• Morphine is a very effective sedative and painkiller and is very useful in patients who have
undergone surgery.

Human Health and Disease 25

(B) Cannabinoids :

Skeletal structure of Leaves of Cannabis Flowering branch of

cannabinoid molecule sativa Datura

• These are a group of chemicals, which interact with cannabinoid receptors present
principally in the brain.

• Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescences of the plant Cannabis sativa.
The flower tops, leaves and the resin of cannabis plant are used in various combinations
to produce marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja.

• Generally taken by inhalation and oral ingestion, these are known for their effects on
cardiovascular system of the body.

• These days cannabinoids are also being abused by some sports persons.

• Other well-known plants with hallucinogenic properties are Atropa belladona and Datura.

• LSD (Lysergic acid diethyl amides) is a dangerous Hallucinogen, obtained from fruiting
bodies of a fungus (Claviceps purpurea)

(C) Coca alkaloid or cocaine :

• These are obtained from coca plant Erythroxylum coca, native to South America.

• It interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine.

• Cocaine, commonly called coke or crack is usually snorted.

• It has a potent stimulating action on central nervous system, producing a sense of

euphoria (feeling of well being) and increase energy, excessive dosage of cocaine causes
hallucinations.
Drugs like barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines, LSD and other similar drugs,
that are normally used as medicines to help patients cope with mental illnesses like
depression and insomnia, are often abused.

Several plants, fruits and seeds having hallucinogenic properties have been used for
hundreds of years in folk-medicine, religious ceremonies and rituals all over the globe.
When these are taken for a purpose other than medicinal use or in amounts/frequency
that impairs one’s physical, physiological or psychological functions, it constitutes drug
abuse.

26 Human Health and Disease

Smoking
• Smoking also paves the way to hard drugs. Tobacco has been used by human beings for
more than 400 years. It is smoked, chewed or used as a snuff.
• Tobacco contains a large number of chemical substances including nicotine, an alkaloid.
Nicotine stimulates adrenal gland to release adrenaline and nor-adrenaline into blood
circulation, both of which raise blood pressure and increase heart rate.
• Smoking is associated with infection of throat, bronchitis, emphysema, coronary heart
disease, gastric ulcer, etc. and increased incidence of cancers of lung and urinary bladder.
• Tobacco chewing is associated with increased risk of cancer of the oral cavity.
• Smoking increases carbon monoxide (CO) content in blood and reduces the concentration
of haembound oxygen (oxyhaemoglobin). This causes oxygen deficiency in the body.
• When one buys packets of cigarettes one cannot miss the statutory warning that is
present on the packing which warns against smoking and says how it is injurious to health.
Yet, smoking is very prevalent in society, both among young and old. Knowing the dangers
of smoking and chewing tobacco, and its addictive nature, the youth and old need to avoid
these habits. Any addict requires counselling and medical help to get rid of the habit.

Diseases and disorders of smoking :

(1) Lung cancer
(2) Bronchitis : Inflammation in respiratory tract and alveoli.
(3) Emphysema : It is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which
respiratory surface area decreased.
(4) Heart disease : Lumen of blood vessels become narrow which increases the blood
pressure(Hypertension)
(5) Intestinal ulcer and other irregularities of Gut

Adolescence and Drug/Alcohol Abuse

• Adolescence means both ‘a period’ and ‘a process’ during which a child becomes mature
in terms of his/her attitudes and beliefs for effective participation in society. The period
between 12-18 years of age may be thought of as adolescence period.
• In other words, adolescence is a bridge linking childhood and adulthood. Adolescence is
accompanied by several biological and behavioural changes. Adolescence, thus is a very
vulnerable phase of mental and psychological development of an individual.
• Curiosity, need for adventure and excitement, and experimentation, constitute common
causes, which motivate youngsters towards drug and alcohol use.
• A child’s natural curiosity motivates him/her to experiment. This is complicated further by
effects that might be perceived as benefits, of alcohol or drug use. Thus, the first use of
drugs or alcohol may be out of curiosity or experimentation, but later the child starts
using these to escape facing problems.
• Of late, stress, from pressures to excel in academics or examinations, has played a
significant role in persuading the youngsters to try alcohol and drugs.
• The perception among youth that it is ‘cool’ or progressive to smoke, use drugs or alcohol,
is also in a way a major cause for youth to start these habits.
• Television, movies, newspapers, internet also help to promote this perception. Other
factors that have been seen to be associated with drug and alcohol abuse among
adolescents are unstable or unsupportive family structures and peer pressure.

Human Health and Disease 27

Addiction and Dependence
• Because of the perceived benefits, drugs are frequently used repeatedly. The most
important thing, which one fails to realise, is the inherent addictive nature of alcohol and
drugs.
• Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects –such as euphoria and a
temporary feeling of well-being – associated with drugs and alcohol. These drive people to
take them even when these are not needed, or even when their use becomes self-
destructive.
• With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of the receptors present in our body
increases. Consequently the receptors respond only to higher doses of drugs or alcohol
leading to greater intake and addiction.
• However, it should be clearly borne in mind that use of these drugs even once, can be a
fore-runner to addiction.
• Thus, the addictive potential of drugs and alcohol, pull the user into a vicious circle
leading to their regular use (abuse) from which he/she may not be able to get out.
• In the absence of any guidance or counselling, the person gets addicted and becomes
dependent on their use.
• Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant
withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinued. This is
characterised by anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating, which may be relieved when use
is resumed again. In some cases, withdrawal symptoms can be severe and even life
threatening and the person may need medical supervision.
• Dependence leads the patient to ignore all social norms in order to get sufficient funds to
satiate his/her needs. These result in many social adjustment problems.

Effects of Drug/Alcohol Abuse

• The immediate adverse effects of drugs and alcohol abuse are manifested in the form of
reckless behaviour, vandalism and violence. Excessive doses of drugs may lead to coma
and death due to respiratory failure, heart failure or cerebral haemorrhage.
• A combination of drugs or their intake along with alcohol generally results in overdosing
and even deaths.
• The most common warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse among youth include drop in
academic performance, unexplained absence from school/college, lack of interest in
personal hygiene, withdrawal, isolation, depression, fatigue, aggressive and rebellious
behaviour, deteriorating relationships with family and friends, loss of interest in hobbies,
change in sleeping and eating habits, fluctuations in weight, appetite, etc.
• There may even be some far-reaching implications of drug/alcohol abuse. If abuser is
unable to get money to buy drugs/alcohol he/she may turn to stealing. The adverse effects
are just not restricted to the person who is using drugs or alcohol. At times, a
drug/alcohol addict becomes the cause of mental and financial distress to his/her entire
family and friends.
• Those who take drugs intravenously (direct injection into the vein using a needle and
syringe), are much more likely to acquire serious infections like AIDS and hepatitis B. The
viruses, which are responsible for these diseases, are transferred from one person to
another by sharing of infected needles and syringes. Both AIDS and Hepatitis B infections
are chronic infections and ultimately fatal. AIDS and Hepatitis B are transmitted through
infected blood and both are STDs.

28 Human Health and Disease

 • The use of alcohol during adolescence may also have long-term effects. It could lead to
heavy drinking in adulthood. The chronic use of drugs and alcohol damages nervous
system and liver (cirrhosis). The use of drugs and alcohol during pregnancy is also known
to adversely affect the foetus.
• Another misuse of drugs is what certain sportspersons do to enhance their performance.
They (mis)use narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids, diuretics and certain hormones in
sports to increase muscle strength and bulk and to promote aggressiveness and as a
result increase athletic performance.
• The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females include masculinisation
(features like males), increased aggressiveness, mood swings, depression, abnormal
menstrual cycles, excessive hair growth on the face and body, enlargement of clitoris,
deepening of voice.
• In males it includes acne, increased aggressiveness, mood swings, depression, reduction of
size of the testicles, decreased sperm production, potential for kidney and liver
dysfunction, breast enlargement, premature baldness, enlargement of the prostate gland.
These effects may be permanent with prolonged use.

• In the adolescent male or female, severe facial and body acne, and premature closure of
the growth centres of the long bones may result in stunted growth.

Prevention and Control

• The age-old adage of ‘prevention is better than cure’ holds true here also.
• It is also true that habits such as smoking, taking drug or alcohol are more likely to be
taken up at a young age, more during adolescence.
• Hence, it is best to identify the situations that may push an adolescent towards use of
drugs or alcohol, and to take remedial measures well in time. In this regard, the parents
and the teachers have a special responsibility. Parenting that combines with high levels of
nurturance and consistent discipline, has been associated with lowered risk of substance
(alcohol/drugs/tobacco) abuse. Some of the measures mentioned here would be
particularly useful for prevention and control of alcohol and drugs abuse among
adolescents.

(i) Avoid undue peer pressure : Every child has his/her own choice and personality, which should
be respected and nurtured. A child should not be pushed unduly to perform beyond his/her
threshold limits; be it studies, sports or other activities.

(ii) Education and counselling : Educating and counselling him/ her to face problems and
stresses, and to accept disappointments and failures as a part of life. It would also be
worthwhile to channelize the child’s energy into healthy pursuits like sports, reading, music,
yoga and other extracurricular activities.

(iii) Seeking help from parents and peers : Help from parents and peers should be sought
immediately so that they can guide appropriately. Help may even be sought from close and
trusted friends. Besides getting proper advise to sort out their problems, this would help
young to vent their feelings of anxiety and guilt.

Human Health and Disease 29

(iv) Looking for danger signs : Alert parents and teachers need to look for and identify the danger
signs discussed above. Even friends, if they find someone using drugs or alcohol, should not
hesitate to bring this to the notice of parents or teacher in the best interests of the person
concerned. Appropriate measures would then be required to diagnose the malady and the
underlying causes. This would help in initiating proper remedial steps or treatment.
(v) Seeking professional and medical help : A lot of help is available in the form of highly
qualified psychologists, psychiatrists, and deaddiction and rehabilitation programmes to help
individuals who have unfortunately got in the quagmire of drug/alcohol abuse. With such help,
the affected individual with sufficient efforts and will power, can get rid of the problem
completely and lead a perfectly normal and healthy life.

Concept Builder

1. Which one depresses brain activity ?

(1) Sedatives and tranquillisers (2) Opoid narcotics
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Hallucinogens

2. Drugs which develop physical dependence and characterised by strong withdrawal effects are :
(1) Opiates (2) Sedatives (3) Stimulants (4) Tranquillisers

3. Opiate narcotic is :
(1) Bhang (2) Charas (3) Heroin (4) Nicotine

4. Drug that increases cardiovascular effects is

(1) Nicotine + Cocaine (2) Benzodiazepine + Barbiturate
(3) Barbiturates + Novocaine (4) Insulin + Amphetamine

5. Choose the correct pair

(1) LSD - Narcotic (2) Heroin - Psychedelic
(3) Benzodiazepam - Painkiller (4) Amphetamine - Stimulant

6. LSD is obtained from

(1) Cannabis (2) Claviceps (3) Fusarium (4) Nostoc

7. An adolescent often shows changes in moods and emotions due to :

(1) Difficulty in social adjustments (2) Hormone flushes
(3) Search for self identify (4) Egocentrism

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Ans. 3 1 3 1 4 2 2

30 Human Health and Disease

 Exercise - I
[A] Common Human Diseases 5. Which of the following is correct about
malaria ?
1. Which of the following is not a
(a) Malignant malaria is caused by
communicable disease plasmodium falciparum
(1) Pneumonia (b) Plasmodium enters the human body
(2) Tuberculosis as sporozoites.
(3) Asthma (c) It is caused through the bite of
infected female anopheles.
(4) Common cold
(d) The rupture of RBCs is associated
2. Which of the following is not a cause of with release of a toxic substance
transmission of HIV? hemozoin
(1) b, c only (2) a, c, d only
(1) Multiple sexual partners
(3) a, b, c only (4) a, b, c, d
(2) Sharing infected needles
(3) Mosquito bite 6. In malignant tumors, the cells
(4) Transfusion of contaminated blood proliferate, grow rapidly and move to
other parts of the body to form new
3. A → New viral RNA is produced by tumors. This stage of disease is called
infected cells. (1) metagenesis
(2) metastasis
B → Viral RNA is introduced into the
(3) metachrosis
cell.
(4) mitosis
C → New viruses are produced
7. Match the following :
D → Viral DNA is produced by reverse
Column-I Column-II
transcription
(A) Common cold (i) Diarrhoea
E → New viruses released from
Haemophilus
infected cells attacks on TH cell (B) Typhoid (ii)
influenzae
F → Viral DNA incorporates into host Stool with mucous,
(C) Pneumonia (iii)
blood
genome
(D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus
Arrange above mentioned events of (E) Cholera (v) Salmonella typhi
viral infection (HIV) into correct order : Haemozoin
(F) Amoebiasis (vi)
(1) B → D → F → C → E → A granules

(2) D → E → C → A → B → F (1) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii

(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iv, E–iii, F–v
(3) E → A → C → B → D → F
(3) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–iii, F–i
(4) B → D → F → A → C → E (4) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–i, E–vi, F–iii

4. Which is an infectious disease :- 8. Which one is not a common symptom

(1) Coronary thrombosis of typhoid?
(1) Weakness
(2) Diphtheria
(2) Sustain high fever (39° to 40° C)
(3) Diabetes mellitus
(3) Lips and finger nails may turn bluish
(4) Hypertension
(4) Loss of appetite

Human Health and Disease 31

9. Diagram showing ringworm affected 13. How many of the following act can
area of skin. Which is not related with transmit HIV infection ?
(i) Physical contact (Does not involve
disease ?
intercourse) with infected person.
(ii) Using needles which are used by
infected person.
(iii) From infected mother to child
(iv) By touching, Hugging or kissing
infected persons.
(1) Microporum (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(2) Trichophyton (3) (iii) and (iv) only (4) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) Epidermophyton
14. Disease which are transmitted through
(4) Wuchereria contaminated food and water :
(1) Ascariasis, filariasis, T.B.
10. Match these pathogens with their (2) Malaria, typhoid, dengue
diseases :- (3) Typhoid, amoebiasis and ascariasis
A. Haemophilus (i) Malignant (4) Filariasis, amoebiasis, dengue
influenzae malaria 15. Which one of the following sets
B. Entamoeba (ii) Elephantiasis includes bacterial diseases?
(1) Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
histolytica (2) Diphtheria, leprosy, plague
C. Plasmodium (iii) Pneumonia (3) Cholera, typhoid, mumps
falciparum (4) Malaria, mumps, poliomyelitis
D. Wuchereria (iv) Typhoid 16. 'Mary Mallon' was carrier of a disease.
malayi This disease spreads through which of
the following:-
E. Salmonella typhi (v) Amoebiasis (1) Bite of mosquito
(2) Droplets
(1) A-v, B-i, C-iii, D-ii, E-iv
(3) Contaminated food and water
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-v, E-ii (4) Prolonged physical contact
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-v, E-ii 17. Which disease is caused by Yersinia
(4) A-iii, B-v, C-i, D-ii, E-iv pestis :-
(1) Plague
11. Which of the following will occur in (2) Black fever
vertebrate host of Plasmodium? (3) Xenopsylla cheopsis
(a) Formation of motile zygote (4) All of these
(b) Formation of gametocytes 18. Following diagram of HIV shows A, B, C
(c) Formation of sporozoites and D (respectively) :
(d) Release of Hemozoin
(e) Recurrent fever
(1) a, c, d
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) b, d and e
(4) d and e only
(1) GP-41, Reverse transcriptase,
12. Which of the following is affected by Lipoprotein, GP-120
the infection of Wuchereria bancrofti? (2) GP-120, SS-RNA, Reverse
(1) Lymphatic vessels transcriptase, Lipoprotein
(3) Reverse transcriptase, SS-RNA,
(2) Respiratory system
Lipoprotein, GP-120
(3) Nervous system (4) GP-120, Lipoprotein, SS-RNA,
(4) Blood circulation Reverse transcriptase

32 Human Health and Disease

19. Which one of the following statements 25. AIDS is caused by the human immuno
is true? deficiency virus (HIV) and 'X' acts like
(1) Dysentery, plague and diphtheria HIV factory
are viral diseases. Choose the option which correctly fills
(2) HIV replicates in host cell with the up to blank 'X'
help of reverse transcriptase (1) Helper 'T' cell
enzyme. (2) Cytotoxic 'T' cell
(3) The disease ringworm is common in (3) Memory 'T' cell
winter season. (4) Macrophage
(4) Common cold could be confirmed 26. Plasmodium enters the human body as :-
by Widal test. (1) Female Anopheles mosquito
(2) Sporozoite
20. Entamoeba histolytica is a ____ Parasite
(3) Trophozoite
in _____ of human which causes
(4) Hemozoin
amoebiasis
(1) Non pathogenic ; Large Intestine 27. Which of the following is the major
(2) Bacteria ; Oesophagus. cause of death among non-infections
(3) Pathogenic ; Small Intestine diseases ?
(4) Protozoan ; Large Intestine (1) Asthma
(2) Acute renal failure
21. Which of the following are air borne (3) Cancer
diseases? (4) Scurvy
(1) Pneumonia and Typhoid
28. Gametocytes of Plasmodium.
(2) AIDS and cancer
(1) Produced in intestine of mosquito
(3) Amoebiasis and Ascariasis
(2) Undergo gametogenesis in human
(4) Pneumonia and common cold
liver.
22. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts (3) Undergo fertilization in human blood.
destroying : (4) Are unable to develop further in
(1) B-lymphocytes human blood because of high
(2) Leucocytes temperature.
(3) Thrombocytes 29. Which of the following pairs correctly
(4) Helper T-lymphocytes matches a disease and a pathogen
causing it?
23. Where will you look for the sporozoites
of malarial parasite? 1. Typhoid Salmonella typhi
(1) Saliva of infected female Anopheles 2. Pneumonia Haemophilus pneumoniae
mosquito 3. Malaria Ascaris lumbricoides
(2) Salivary glands of freshly moulted 4. Ringworm Entamoeba histolytica
female Anopheles mosquito
(3) Spleen of infected humans. 30. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium
(4) RBCs of humans suffering from species, which is a parasite having a
malaria. complex life cycle. The fusion between
male and female gametocytes of
24. Dengue fever is transmitted by :- plasmodium happens inside.
(1) Aedes aegypti (Tiger mosquito) (1) Human liver
(2) Culex fatigues (2) Human RBCs
(3) Anopheles (3) Mosquito midgut
(4) Sand fly (4) Mosquito salivary glands

Human Health and Disease 33

31. Toxin which is responsible for chill and 39. Disease characterised by swelling of
high fever during malaria :- scrotum and genital organs due to
(1) Haematin (2) Haemoglobin chronic inflammation of lymphatic
(3) Hemozoin (4) Erythrocruorin vessels is ?
(1) Ascariasis (2) Mumps
32. Incorrect about Entamoeba histolytica (3) Filariasis (4) Leprosy
or amoebiasis is :-
(a) Parasite of small intestine 40. Carcinoma is a cancer of :
(b) Causes dysentery (1) Lymphocytes
(c) Houseflies are mechanical carriers (2) Connective tissue
(d) Symptoms include frequent motions, (3) Erythrocytes
abdominal pain and cramp (4) Epithelial tissue
(1) a (2) c 41. Cancer cells are characterised by :
(3) a, c (4) All are correct (1) Uncontrolled growth
33. The common cold is caused by (2) Invasion of local tissue
(3) Spreading to other body parts
(1) Rhino viruses
(4) All the above
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) Salmonella typhi 42. A chemical carcinogen present in
(4) Plasmodium vivax tobacco smoke is responsible for
(1) Skin cancer
34. Haemophilus influenzae causes :-
(2) Pancreatic cancer
(1) Typhoid (2) Plague
(3) Stomach cancer
(3) Pneumonia (4) Influenza
(4) Lung cancer
35. The chemical test that is used for
43. Carcinoma refers to :-
diagnosis of typhoid is :
(1) Malignant tumours of the
(1) ELISA - Test (2) ESR - Test
connective tissue
(3) PCR - Test (4) Widal - Test (2) Malignant tumours of the skin
36. Match the columns with regards to (3) Benign tumours of the colon
Vector and Disease. (4) Benign tumours of the connective
Column-I Column-II tissue
p. Culex i. Dengue 44. Cancer cells are more easily damaged
q. Anopheles ii. Filariasis by radiation than normal cells because
r. Aedes iii. Malaria they are:-
(1) p-i, q-ii, r-iii (2) p-ii, q-iii, r-i (1) Undergoing rapid divisions
(3) p-ii, q-i, r-iii (4) p-i, q-iii, r-ii (2) Different in structure
(3) Non-dividing
37. AIDS is due to :-
(4) Starved of mutation
(1) Reduction in number of helper T-cells
(2) Lack of interferon 45. Surest investigation and safest
(3) Reduction in number of killer T-cells investigation technique used for cancer
(4) Autoimmunity detection respectively are?
(1) Biopsy, Biopsy (2) MRI, Biopsy
38. Confirmation of cancer is done by : (3) Biopsy, MRI (4) CT-scan, FNAC
(1) CT Scan
(2) X-ray 46. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally
(3) Microscopic examination of body infects :
fluids or tissues. (1) All lymphocytes (2) Macrophages
(4) Surgery (3) T-4 lymphocytes (4) Both (2) and (3)

34 Human Health and Disease

47. Treatment of cancer is :- 54. Match the following :
(1) Surgery
(2) Radiotherapy Set-I Set-II
(3) Chemotherapy (A) Natural active immunity (I) Vaccination
(4) All Anti-Tetanus
(B) Natural passive immunity (II)
serum
48. Sarcoma is cancer of :-
Smallpox
(1) Epithelial tissue (C) Artificial active immunity (III)
infection
(2) Mesodermal tissue
(D) Artificial passive immunity (IV) Colostrum
(3) Blood
(4) Endodermal tissues The correct match is :
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
49. Which is not cancer :- (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(1) Leukaemia (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) Glaucoma (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) Carcinoma
55. Health is affected by :-
(4) Sarcoma (1) Genetic disorders – deficiencies
(2) Infections
[B] Immunity
(3) Life style
50. Who asserted that health as a state of (4) All of these
body and mind where there was a 56. First line of defence of body is :-
balance of certain 'humors' :- (1) Skin and Mucous membrane
(1) Hippocrates (2) Neutrophils and Monocytes
(2) Indian Ayurveda system of medicine (3) Fever
(3) William Harvey (4) Interferon
(4) (1) and (2) both 57. Lymphocytes that inhibit the
development and proliferation of T and
51. Mark correct statement regarding
B cell are :
Interferon :- (1) B cells
(1) Kills the virus in virus infected cell (2) Suppressor T cells
(2) Kills the virus and destroy (3) Macrophages
cancerous cell (4) Neutrophils
(3) Antiviral protein
58. Interferons are included under :
(4) Antibacterial protein (1) Physical barrier
(2) Cytokine barrier
52. Which of the following provide the sites
(3) Cellular barrier
for interaction of lymphocytes with the
(4) Inflammatory barrier
pathogen ?
59. Skin and mucus coating form ..........
(A) Bone marrow (B) Spleen
barriers of innate immunity :-
(C) Thymus gland (D)Lymph nodes
(1) Physiological (2) Physical
(E) Appendix (3) Cellular (4) Cytokine
(F) Peyer's patches of small intestine
60. The antigen binding site of an antibody
(1) B, C only (2) B, D, E, F
is present at
(3) B, D only (4) B, D, F only
(1) The constant region
53. "Fluid filled alveoli" are feature of :- (2) The C-terminal
(3) The variable region
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Pneumonia
(4) Between constant and variable region
(3) Ascariasis (4) Typhoid

Human Health and Disease 35

61. Which of the following statement is 65. Antigen is :-
false for the structure labelled as "A" in (1) Substances which stimulates the
the figure given below ? production of venom
(2) Vaccine
(3) Antibody production stimulating
agent
(4) Part of the body defence system

66. When people are healthy they are ?

(a) More efficient at work
(b) Having low productivity
(c) Brings economic prosperity
(d) Having high longevity
(e) Having high infant and maternal
mortality
(1) Primary lymphoidal organ How many of the above statements are
(2) Immature lymphocytes differentiate correct ?
into antigen - sensitive lymphocytes (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Site of production of B-lymphocytes (3) Four (4) One
(4) Micro-environment is provided for
67. Immune system retains the memory of
development and maturation of T- which response in vaccination process :
lymphocytes (1) Passive immunization response
(2) Primary immune response
62. Which of the following humour shows
(3) Secondary immune response
“Hot personality” in person according to
(4) Anamnestic response
good humour hypothesis of Hippocrates?
(1) Yellow bile (2) Black bile 68. Which of the following are the
(3) Blood (4) Phlegm properties of acquired immunity?
(1) Specificity
63. Select the incorrect statement :- (2) Diversity
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis is an auto (3) Immunological memory
immune disease. (4) All of the above
(2) Steroids and antihistamine drugs are
69. Antibody is secreted by :
used in treatment of allergy
(1) B-memory Lymphocyte
(3) Spleen does not contain
(2) TK cells
macrophages.
(3) B-Plasma cells
(4) HIV replicates in T-helper cells.
(4) Both (1) & (2)
64. Select the incorrect statement about
70. Vaccine provides -
antibody molecule :
(1) Natural passive acquired immunity
(1) Consists of one heavy and one light
(2) Natural active acquired immunity
chain (3) Artificial active acquired immunity
(2) Light and heavy chains are bound (4) Artificial passive acquired immunity
by disulphide links
(3) Both light and heavy chains form 71. Which of the following is not a
antigen binding sites lymphoid tissue?
(1) Spleen (2) Tonsils
(4) The C-terminal of heavy chain is a
(3) Pancreas (4) Thymus
constant region

36 Human Health and Disease

72. Who disproved the "good humor" 76. MALT :
hypothesis of health and proved that (1) Stands for Mucosal Associated
person with blackbile also have normal Lymphoid Tissue
body temperature by using (2) Is the lymphoid tissue located
thermometer ? within the mucosal lining
(1) Hippocrates (3) Constitutes approximately 50% of
(2) Indian Ayurveda system the lymphoid tissue in human body
(3) William Harvey (4) All of the above
(4) Edward Jenner 77. Use of anti-histamines and steroids
73. A person got injured with rusty nail give a quick relief from:-
(1) allergy (2) nausea
goes to the doctor after 7 days of
(3) cough (4) headache
injury. Doctor gives him injection filled
with? 78. Following are the differences between
(1) TT (Tetanus toxoid) innate immunity (A) and acquired
(2) ATS (Anti tetanus serum) immunity (B).
(3) Antibiotics A B
(4) Antihistaminic (i) It is inherited by an It is acquired by an
organism from the organism after birth.
74. Identify the marking A, B, C and D in
parents and protects
the figure given below and select the
it from birth
correct option.
throughout life.
A
(ii) It is also called as It is also called as non-
specific immunity. specific immunity
(iii) It consists of different It consists of specialized
B types of barriers that cells (T-cell and B-cells)
prevent the entry of and antibodies that
D foreign agents. circulate in the body
C fluid

Select the option with correct pair of

differences.
(1) A-light chains, B-heavy chain, C- (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii)
antigen binding sites, D-disulphide (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
bonds
79. The phenomenon of selective
(2) A-disulphide bonds, B-antigen
proliferation of B cells in response to
binding site, C-heavy chains, D-light
their interaction with the antigen is
chains
called :
(3) A-antigen binding sites, B-light
(1) Clonal expansion
chain, C-heavy chains, D-disulphide
(2) Monoclonal selection
bonds
(3) Clonal deletion
(4) A-antigen binding sites, B-disulphide (4) Clonal selection
bonds, C-light chain, D-heavy chains
80. Which of the following cells actively
75. Cell mediated immunity is provided by :- participate during allergy?
(1) B-Lymphocytes (2) Plasma cells (1) B-lymphocytes (2) Liver cells
(3) T-lymphocytes (4) Anti bodies (3) Mast cells (4) Red blood cells

Human Health and Disease 37

81. Which is a primary lymphoid organ :- 88. BCG vaccine is a preventive measure
(1) Bone marrow and spleen against:-
(2) Spleen and thymus (1) Tuberculosis (2) Typhoid
(3) Bone-marrow and tonsils (3) AIDS (4) Cholera
(4) thymus gland and bone marrow
89. Blood vessels near a wound dilate and
82. Read the following statements
become more permeable in response to
regarding spleen and select the correct
which material released from damaged
option:
(i) Spleen is a large been-shaped organ cells :
which mainly contains lymphocytes (1) Pyrogens (2) Antibodies
and phagocytes (3) Histamine (4) Prostaglandins
(ii) Spleen is a large reservoir of
90. Immunisation is based on :-
erythrocytes
(iii) Spleen is a primary lymphoid organ (1) Memory of individuals
(iv) Spleen acts as a filter of the blood (2) Pathogenic power
by trapping blood-borne micro- (3) Phagocytosis
organisms. (4) Memory of immune system
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iv) 91. True statement about hepatitis B
vaccine is
83. Neutrophils and monocytes are (1) Produced by recombinant DNA
important cells participating in :- technology
(1) Phagocytosis
(2) Produced by E.coli
(2) clonal selection
(3) Suspension of polypeptide of
(3) Passive immunity
pathogen
(4) Antibody production
(4) Whole pathogen is given
84. Number of polypeptide chains present
in a molecule of antibody :- 92. Congenital diseases are :
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (1) Diseases present from birth
(2) Deficiency diseases
85. Surgical removal of thymus of a new
(3) Spread from one individual to
born shall result in failure to mature :-
another
(1) Monocytes (2) B-lymphocytes
(3) T-lymphocytes (4) Basophils (4) Occur during life

86. Vaccination is a part of :- 93. Autoimmunity against the synovial

(1) Treatment membrane at joint is called :-
(2) Passive immunisation (1) Multiple sclerosis
(3) Diagnosis (2) I.D.D.M.
(4) Prophylaxis (3) Hashimoto disease
87. When an apparently healthy person is (4) Rheumatoid arthritis
diagnosed as unhealthy by a
[C] Drugs And Alcohol Abuse
psychiatrist, the reason could be that
(1) the patient was not efficient at his 94. Cocaine interferes with transport of :-
work (1) GABA (2) Acetylcholine
(2) the patient was not economically (3) Dopamine (4) Glutamate
prosperous
(3) the patient shows behavioural and 95. Tobacco chewing results in :-
social maladjustment (1) Mouth cancer (2) Lung cancer
(4) he does not take interest in sports (3) Bone cancer (4) Leukaemia

38 Human Health and Disease

96. How many of the given drugs have 103. Mark the wrong statement –
hallucinogenic property ?
(a) Overdose of drug obtained from
Erythroxylum coca.
(b) Drug obtained from Claviceps
purpurea.
(c) Drug obtained from Papaver
somniferum.
(d) Drug obtained from Atropa
belladona and Datura.
(1) With repeated use of drugs, the
Options :
tolerance level of the receptors
(1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d
present in our body increases.
(3) a, b and d (4) a and d only
(2) Smoking increases carbon monoxide
97. Which of the following is included in (CO) content in the blood and
cannabinoid? reduce the concentration of haem
(1) Morphine (2) Heroin bound oxygen.
(3) Codeine (4) Charas (3) Smack is chemically diacetylmorphine
(4) The plant illustrated is Atropa
98. Which of the following combination is
not a cannabinoids ? belladona and has hallucinogenic
(1) Charas, Ganja properties.
(2) Datura, LSD 104. In alcoholics, liver gets damaged as it :-
(3) Charas, Hashish (1) Accumulates excess of fats
(4) Marijuana, Bhang (2) Stores excess of glycogen

99. In drunk person, the part of brain to be (3) Secretes more bile
affected first is :- (4) Has to detoxify alcohol
(1) Cerebellum
105. LSD is obtained from :-
(2) Pons varolli
(1) Cannabis sativa
(3) Medulla oblongata
(2) Claviceps purpura
(4) Cerebrum
(3) Erythroxylum cocca
100. Opium is obtained from :- (4) Papaver somniferum
(1) canabis sativum
(2) Coffea arabica 106. In the liver, alcohol is converted into
(3) Oryza sativa which toxic substance :-
(4) Papaver somniferum (1) Formic acid
(2) Acetaldehyde
101. Which of the following is a very
(3) Nicotine
powerful
(4) Urea
painkiller ?
(1) Cocaine (2) Charas 107. Cocaine is derived from :-
(3) Hashish (4) Morphine (1) Erythroxylon coca

102. Marijuana, Ganja, and LSD are :- (2) Coffea arabica

(1) Narcotics (2) Hallucinogens (3) Thea sinensis
(3) Stimulants (4) Medicines (4) Cannabis sativa

Human Health and Disease 39

108. Chemical structure of a drug is given 112. Mark the correctly matched options :-
below.
Select the correct option :
(A) Leaves of Cannabis sativa –

(B) Opium poppy –

CH3

(C) Flowering branch of Datura–

(1) The drug binds to specific receptors
present in central nervous system (1) A and B (2) B and C
only.
(3) A, B and C (4) Only C
(2) It is very effective sedative and pain
killer and is very useful in patients 113. Select the incorrect statement for
who have undergone surgery.
given diagram:-
(3) It has hallucinogenic properties and
has been used for hundred of years
in folk medicine, religious ceremonies
and rituals all over the world.
(4) It is known for its effects on
cardiovascular system and is
obtained from Erythroxylum coca,
native to south America.
109. The drugs, which are commonly abused
are opioid, cannabinoids and coca
alkaloid. Majority of these are obtained
from ...... while some are obtained from
......... (1) It is chemically morphine.
(1) Fungi, non-flowering plants (2) Sedative and pain killer.
(2) Flowering plants, fungi (3) Their receptors are present in CNS.
(3) Fungi, flowering plants
(4) Cannabinoid compound having
(4) Non flowering plants, fungi
effect on CNS
110. (a) Smack
(b) Diacetylmorphine 114. Which measure would be particularly
(c) White useful for prevention and control of
(d) Odourless
alcohol and drug abuse among
(e) Bitter crystalline compound
Above statements/informations are adolescents ?
correct for:- (a) Avoid undue peer pressure
(1) Morphine (2) Heroin (b) Seeking professional and medical
(3) Cocaine (4) Barbiturates
help
OH (c) Looking for danger sign
111. (d) Education and counselling
O (e) Seeking help from parents and
H peers
Diagram is showing, skeletal structure
(1) a, b, d
of :
(1) Morphine molecule (2) a, c, d, e
(2) Cannabinoid molecule (3) c, e
(3) Opioids molecule (4) a, b, c, d, e
(4) Coca alkaloid

40 Human Health and Disease

 Exercise - II
1. Immune system retains the memory of 5. Identify A, B, C, D and E in the below
which response in vaccination process : diagram of HIV virus.

(1) Passive immunization response

(2) Primary immune response
(3) Secondary immune response
(4) Anamnestic response

2. Which of the following statement is

false for the structure given below ?
(1) A-RNA, B-Reverse transcriptase, C-
Matrix protein coat, D-Lipid bilayer,
E-Envelope protein
(2) A-RNA, B-Reverse transcriptase, C-
Lipid bilayer, D-Envelope protein
coat, E-Matrix protein
(3) A-Reverse transcriptase, B-Lipid
bilayer, C-RNA, D-Matrix protein
coat, E-Envelope protein
(4) A-RNA, B-Reverse transcriptase, C-
(1) Represented by H2L2 Envelope protein, D-Lipid bilayer, E-
Matrix protein coat
(2) These molecule contains peptide
bonds 6. Which of these glands is large at the
time of birth but in adults, it reduces to
(3) These are secreted by Plasma cells
a very small size?
(4) They have four peptide chains of (1) Thyroid (2) Adrenal
four types (3) Thymus (4) Spleen

7. A person has developed interferons in

3. Level of which hormones get elevated
his body. He seems to carry an
by the intake of nicotine? infection of :
(1) FSH, LH (1) Typhoid (2) Dengue
(3) Malaria (4) Filariasis
(2) Thyroxine, progesterone
(3) Oxytocin, prolactin 8. Mark the correct statement :-
(a) Yoga has been practised to achieve
(4) Adrenaline, nor-adrenaline
physical and mental health
(b) Infectious diseases are very
4. Injection of antitoxin in tetanus confers
common and everyone of us suffers
which type of immunization? from these at sometime or other
(1) Active immunization (c) AIDS is an infectious disease
(d) Cancer is non-infectious disease
(2) Passive immunization
(e) Health bring economic prosperity
(3) Auto-immunization (1) a, b and c (2) b, c, d and e
(4) Humoral immunization (3) c and d (4) a, b, c, d and e

Human Health and Disease 41

9. Which of the following statements is 13.
incorrect ?
(1) -interferons can act as biological
response modifiers.
(2) Five type of antibody are found in
human.
(3) Passive immunity is a kind of
acquired immunity.
(4) Contact inhibition is property
Mark correct statements about the
present in cancer cells.
above figure :
10. Correct about given diagram is :- (a) Chemical structure of morphine
(b) Opioid
(c) Receptors present in CNS and GIT
(d) Extracted from latex of poppy plant
(1) a, b (2) All are correct
(3) d (4) All are incorrect

14. Appearance of dry, scaly lesions with

itching on various parts of the body are
the symptoms of the disease _____ .
(1) Datura
(1) elephantiasis (2) ringworm
(2) Source of Coca alkaloids (3) ascariasis (4) amoebiasis
(3) Source of marijuana
(4) Products acts as sedative cum 15. Use of vaccines and immunization
analgesics programmes have controlled which of
the following infectious diseases?
11. AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the (1) Polio and tetanus
following, which one is not a mode of (2) Diphtheria and pneumonia
transmission of HIV? (3) Cancer and AIDS
(1) Transfusion of contaminated blood (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Sharing the infected needles
16. Pick wrong one out :-
(3) Shaking hands with infected persons
(1) Elephantiasis - Wuchereria
(4) Sexual contact with infected persons
(2) Amoebic dysentery - Entamoeba
12. Find out the correct matching of a histolytica
disease, pathogen and mode of (3) Infective stage of Plasmodium for
transmission. human - Sporozoite
Disease Pathogen Transmission (4) Pneumonia - Salmonella typhi
(1) Pneumonia Streptococcus Infected food
17. Physiological barriers that prevent
haemolyticus and water
(2) Filariasis Wuchereria Male Culex microbial growth includes all the
bancrofti mosquito following except one.
(3) Malaria Plasmodium Female Aedes (1) Mucosa in urinogenital tract
mosquito (2) Acid in stomach
(4) Typhoid Salmonella Infected food (3) Tears
typhi and water (4) Lysozyme in saliva

42 Human Health and Disease

18. Match the columns with regard to 23. Most cancers are treated by
innate immunity: combination of:-
Column-I Column-II (a) Surgery (b) Radiotherapy
(A) Interferons (i) Physiological (c) Chemotherapy
barrier (1) a and b (2) a and c
(B) Gastric juice, (ii) Physical barrier (3) b and c (4) a, b and c
saliva, tear and
sweat 24. Mark the correct statement regarding
(C) Mucosa and skin (iii) Cellular barrier -interference :
(D) Neutrophils, (iv) Cytokine barrier (1) Species specific chemical secreted
monocyte, N-K cell by infected host cells
(1) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv) (2) Acts as biological response modifiers
(2) A = (iv), B = (i), C = (ii), D = (iii) (3) Activates the immune system and
(3) A = (iv), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (ii) helps in destroying tumor cells
(4) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (ii) (4) All of the above

19. Severest form of allergy with maximum 25. Which one of the following pair of
serum IgE concentration is :- disease can spread through blood
(1) Bronchial asthma
transfusion.
(2) Hay fever
(1) AIDS and Malaria
(3) Common cold
(2) AIDS and Asthma
(4) Anaphylactic shock
(3) Diabetes mellitus and syphilis
20. A person suffering from a disease (4) Hepatitis and AIDS
caused by plasmodium, experiences
recurring chill and fever at the time 26. Select the correct statements regarding
when : the characteristics of acquired
(1) The sporozoites released from RBCs immunity.
are being rapidly killed and broken (i) Cell-mediated immunity is
down inside spleen. responsible for rejection of graft.
(2) The trophozoites reach maximum
(ii) It produces a primary response of
growth and give out certain toxins.
low intensity.
(3) Infected RBCs get ruptured to
release merozoites and certain (iii) Active and passive immunity are
toxins. types of acquired immunity
(4) The microgametocytes and megaga- (iv) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes
metocytes are being destroyed by (PMNL) and natural killer cells are
the WBCs. involved in acquired immunity.
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
21. Which of the following gene is absent in
a normal cell? (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(1) Proto-oncogene (3) (i) and (iv)
(2) Tumor-suppressor gene (4) (i) and (iii)
(3) Gene related to program cell death
27. Natural killer cells kill virus-infected
(4) Oncogene
cells and some tumour cells by
22. Which of the following cell is non producing :
phagocytic and forms cellular barrier of (1) Histamine and prostaglandin
innate immunity ? (2) Perforins that form pores in the
(1) T-lymphocyte
plasma membrane of target cells
(2) Natural killer cells
(3) Phagocytic effect
(3) Monocyte
(4) PMNL (4) Lysozyme

Human Health and Disease 43

28. (A) Loss of appetite 33. Cancer cells do not exhibit the property of
(B) Intestinal ulcer (1) generating tumors
(C) Sustained high fever (39 – 40°F) (2) metastasis
(D) Constipation
(3) contact inhibition
These are the symptoms of which of
the following disease. (4) less number of mitochondrial cristae
(1) Pneumonia
34. Read the following symptom of
(2) Thyroid
(3) Ascariasis diseases
(4) Enteric fever (Typhoid) (A & B) and identify them
A. Internal bleeding, muscular pain,
29. An intestinal parasite which causes
fever, anaemia and blockage of the
blockage of the intestinal passage and
whose eggs are excreted along with the intestinal passage.
faeces of infected person is ______ . B. Nasal congestion and discharge, sore
(1) Wuchereria bancrofti throat, hoarseness.
(2) Ascaris (1) A–Amoebiasis, B–Pneumonia
(3) Epidermophyton
(2) A–Ascariasis, B–Common cold
(4) Microsporum
(3) A–Typhoid, B–Common cold
30. Cancer detection is based on :- (4) A–Ascariasis, B–Pneumonia
(a) Biopsy
(b) Histopathological studies of tissue 35. House flies are mechanical carriers of :-
(c) Blood test (1) Amoebiasis (2) Ascariasis
(d) Bone marrow test (3) Diarrhoea (4) All of the above
(1) a, b (2) a, c & d
(3) a, b & c (4) a, b, c & d 36. Which of the statement regarding

31. Neoplastic transformation of DNA treatment of cancer is false ?

damage can be brought about by (1) Chemotherapy has side effects like
several factors. Choose the factors hair loss and anaemia.
which lead to oncogenic transformation (2) Iodine-131 is used to treat certain
within exposed cells :
type of thyroid cancer
(a) UV rays
(3) -interferon are used as
(b) X-rays
(c) Tobacco smoke immunological substances which
(d) Retro-virus activate the immune system.
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c (4) Any one therapy is enough to treat
(3) b and c (4) a, b, c and d any kind of cancer.
32. Which of the following is correct for
37. The substance given to cancer patients
LSD, morphine and charas respectively?
(1) Claviceps, Papaver somniferum, in order to activate their immune
Trichoderma system and destroy the tumor is :
(2) Claviceps, Cannabis, Cocca plant (1) Histamines
(3) Claviceps, Papaver somniferum, (2) Interleukins
Cannabis
(3) -interferons (Cytokine)
(4) Papaver somniferum, Cleviceps,
(4) Morphines
Cannabis

44 Human Health and Disease

38. Which of the following is correct about 41. Which one of the following is a
the given diagram ? mismatched pair of the drug and its
effect?

(1) Amphetamines CNS stimulants

Lysergic acid Psychedelic

(2)
diethylamide (LSD) (hallucinogen)
Depressant, slows
(3) Heroin down body
functions
(1) (A) is anamnestic response (4) Barbiturates Speed drug
(2) Memory cells are responsible for (A)
(3) Memory cells are responsible for (B)
42. Various disease can spread through
(4) Response "B" is shown when
vaccine is injected inhaling the droplets/aerosols released
by infected person. From the option
39. Match the Column I with Column II :-
given below choose the diseases that
Column-I Column-II
are acquired by this method :
A. Peyer's (i) Aedes
patches (1) Leprosy (2) Pneumonia
B. Rheumatoid (ii) Neoplastic (3) Dengue (4) Malaria
arthritis transformation
C. IgA (iii) Cancer treatment 43. Which of the following cells don't
D. Interferon (iv) Allergy produce antibodies but helps in
E. Gambusia (v) Secondary secretion of antibodies through their
lymphoid organ messenger molecules celled
F. Chikungunya (vi) Metastasis lymphokines.
G. Tetanus (vii) Colostrum
(1) T-killer cells
H. IgE (viii) Autoimmunity
(2) B-Lymphocytes
I. Malignant (ix) Antitoxin
tumor (3) Plasma cells
J. Carcinogen (x) Mosquito larvae (4) T-Helper cells
(1) A-(v), B-(viii), C-(vii), D-(iii), E-(x),
F-(i), G-(ix), H-(iv), I-(vi), J-(ii) 44. Some sport persons (mis) use drugs to
(2) A-(vi), B-(viii), C-(vii), D(iii), E-(x), enhance their performance and muscle
F-(ii), G-(ix), H-(iv), J-(iii) strength, Anabolic steroids have all the
(3) A-(iv), B-(viii), C-(vii), D-(iii), E-(x), following side effects in males except
F-(i), G-(ix), H-(v), I-(vi), J-(ii) one.
(4) A-(x), B-(viii), C-(vii), D-(iii), E-(v),
(1) Premature baldness and enlargement
F-(i), G-(ix), H-(iv), I-(vi), J-(ii)
of prostate gland
40. Which of the following is incorrect (2) Reduction in size of testicles and
about natural killer cells ? decreased sperm production
(1) Produced in bone marrow
(3) Kidney and liver dysfunction
(2) Contain perforin protein
(4) Masculinisation and deepening of
(3) Antigen sensitive lymphocyte
(4) Cell-Lysis voice.

Human Health and Disease 45

45. Match the following :- 48. Opioids are the drugs which bind to
Column-A Column-B specific opioid receptors present in our
I. Allergy (i) Typhoid fever CNS and GIT. Heroin, commonly called
II. T-helper cells (ii)Single stranded
smack is chemically....., which is white,
RNA
odourless, bitter crystalline compound,
III. Hallucinogens (iii) Wuchereria
obtained by.......of morphine ?
IV. Liver (iv) IgE
V. Widal test (v) Cirrhosis (1) Diacetylmorphine, methylation
VI. Filariasis (vi) Atropa (2) Diacetylmorphine, acetylation
belladona (3) Benzodiazepines, amination
VII. ELISA test (vii) Activation of (4) Amphetamines, acetylation
B-cells
VIII. AIDS virus (viii)Carcinogens 49. Drugs used to quickly reduce the
IX. Treatment of (ix) AIDS cancer symptoms of allergy :
X. X-rays (x) Immunotherapy (i) Anti-Histaminic drugs
(1) I-(iv), II-(vi), III-(viii), IV-(v), V-(i), VI- (ii) Adrenaline
(iii), VII-(ix), VIII-(ii), IX-(x), X-(vii)
(iii) Some steroids
(2) I-(iv), II-(vii), III-(vi), IV-(v), V-(i), VI-
(iv) -interferons
(iii), VII-(ix), VIII-(ii), IX-(x), X-(viii)
(3) I-(iv), II-(vii), III-(v), IV-(ii), V-(i), VI- (1) i, ii, iii (2) i, ii, iv

(iii), VII-(ix), VIII-(vi), IX-(x), X-(viii) (3) ii, iii (4) i, ii

(4) I-(iv), II-(vii), III-(vi), IV-(v), V-(i), VI-
50. Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained
(ix), VII-(x), VIII-(ii), IX-(iii), X-(viii)
from coca plant Erythroxylum coca,
46. Mark the correct option for diagnosis of native of :-
HIV virus:
(1) South America
(1) Screening test – ELISA, Confirmatory
(2) Africa
test –Western blot
(3) Australia
(2) Screening test – Western blot,
confirmatory test - Biopsy. (4) China
(3) Screening test – Northern blot,
51. Which one is not a symptom of disease
confirmatory test – Widal test
(4) Screening test – ELISA, confirmatory caused by E. histolytica ?

test Biopsy. (1) Stools with excess mucus

(2) Constipation
47. Identify the wrong statements :
(3) Abdominal pain
(1) All tumors are cancer
(4) Bluish nails and lips
(2) MRI is the safest technique to
detect cancer 52. Nicotine :
(3) Oral cancer is most common in
(1) stimulates adrenal gland
males in India.
(2) an alkaloid
(4) F.N.A.C. is performed to detect
(3) is present in tobacco
presence of cancerous cells in
breast cyst. (4) All of these

46 Human Health and Disease

53. HIV is a ....A....., and has genetic 57. Which of the following diseases or virus
material composed of ......B....., HIV is not spread by Aedes mosquito ?
replicates inside the host cells. Its (1) Dengue
considered a retrovirus because it uses (2) Chikungunya
an enzyme, .....C....., to converted .....D.... (3) Zika virus
into ......E...... Here A to E refers to : (4) Hepatitis-B virus
(1) A - retrovirus, B-RNA, C-reverse
transcriptase, D-RNA, E-DNA 58. In our body, cell growth and
(2) A - retroviral, B- DNA, C-reverse differentiation is highly regulated. In
transcriptase, D-DNA, E-RNA cancer cell, there is breakdown of
(3) A-rhinovirus, B-DNA, C-reverse these regulatory mechanism. Cancer
transcriptase, D-DNA, E-RNA cell shows a property called -
(4) A-adenovirus, B-RNA, C-DNA (1) Programmed cell death
Polymerase, D-RNA, E-DNA (2) Contact inhibition
54. Match the diseases in column I with (3) Activation of tumor suppresser
the appropriate items (pathogen/ gene
prevention/treatment)in column II. (4) High telomerase activity

Column-I Column-II 59. An epitope associates with which part

of an antibody ?
A. Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
(1) The heavy chain constant region only
Use only sterilised food and
B. Diphtheria (ii) water (2) The antibody tail
(3) The light chain constant region only.
C. Cholera (iii) DPT vaccine (4) The variable regions of a heavy
Use of oral rehydration chain and light chain combined
D. Syphilis (iv) therapy
60. MRI uses strong ______ and _____ to
A B C D accurately detect pathological and
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) physiological changes in the living
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) tissue ?
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (1) Magnetic fields ; Non-ionizing
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) radiations
55. Which of the following is not a first (2) Magnetic fields ; ionizing radiations
generation vaccine and is prepared by (3) Beam of electrons ; ionizing
recombinant DNA technology ? radiations
(1) BCG (4) Beam of electrons ; non-ionizing
(2) MMR radiations
(3) Polio vaccine
61. Which of the following statements are
(4) Hepatitis-B vaccine
correct for AIDS?
56. A honey bee bite may result in (A) Macrophages acts as HIV factory
inflammation of that spot. This is (B) GP-120 has complementary
triggered by the alarm chemicals such sequence to CD-8 receptors
as : (C) ELISA is negative in window period
(1) Histamine and dopamine (D) Virus does not replicate in T-helper
(2) Histamine and prostaglandins cells
(3) Interferons
(1) B and D (2) C only
(4) heparin
(3) B and C (4) A and C

Human Health and Disease 47

62. DPT vaccine provide protection against 66. Identify the molecule depicted below
3 diseases life long this is called and select the right statement
indicating its source and use.
(1) Passive immunity
(2) Natural active immunity
(3) Artificial active immunity
(4) Innate immunity

63. Antigen binding site is present of which CH3

terminal of peptide chain in antibodies

(1) N-terminal Choose the correct option :-
(2) C-terminal (1) Morphine- Papaver somniferum -
(3) Either N or C Analgesic with receptors in GIT
(2) Cocaine - Erythroxylum coca -
(4) In between N and C-terminal
Interferes with the transport of
64. Consider the following dopamine
(3) Heroine - Cannabis sativa -
I, Skin II. Phagocytes
Depressant with receptor in CNS
III. B-cells IV. Inflammation
(4) Cannabinoids - Atropa belladona -
V. Antibodies VI. T-cells Produce hallucinations
VII. Fever VIII. NK-cells
67. Which of the following option is correct
Identify the factors involved in second
w.r.t. its figure ?
line of defence.
(1) II, IV, VII and VIII (2) II, III, V and VI
(3) IV, VI, VIII and VII (4) III, V, VII and VIII

65. Common cold differs from pneumonia

in the :
(1) Pneumonia is a communicable
diseases, where as the common
cold is a nutritional deficiency
disease
(2) Pneumonia is a communicable while
common cold is a non-
communicable disease
(3) Pneumonia is caused by a virus,
while the common cold is caused
by the bacterium Haemophilus
influenzae
(4) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli (1) Two are correct
whereas the common cold affects (2) Three are correct
nose and respiratory passage but (3) Four are correct
not the lungs (4) Only one is correct

48 Human Health and Disease

68. Which part/parts of Cannabis is/are 76. Metastasis is connected with
used in various combinations to (1) Benign tumour
produce marijuana, hashish, charas (2) Malignant tumour
ganja etc. : (3) Both benign and malignant tumours
(a) Flower tops (b) Leaves (4) Crown gall tumour
(c) Resin
(1) a + b (2) b + c 77. Which one alters thoughts and
(3) c + d (4) a + b + c perceptions without any sensory
69. Recurrent high fever in malaria is due stimulus?
to completion of (1) Sedative and tranquillisers
(1) Erythrocytic cycle (2) Cocaine
(2) Sporogony (3) Opiate narcotics
(3) Gamogony (4) Hallucinogen
(4) Exoerythrocytic cycle
78. An adolescent often shows changes in
70. To which type of barriers under innate
moods and emotions due to
immunity do saliva in mouth and tears
(1) Difficulty in social adjustments
from eye belong?
(2) Hormone flushes
(1) Physiological barriers
(2) Physical barriers (3) Search for self identity
(3) Cytokine barriers (4) Egocentrism
(4) Cellular barriers
79. Antibodies in our body are complex :
71. A substance produced by the host in (1) Lipoproteins (2) Steroids
response to a infection of foreign (3) Prostaglandins (4) Glycoproteins
structure is
(1) Antigen (2) Phytoxin 80. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts
(3) Antibody (4) Hormone destroying
72. A person without thymus would not be (1) B-lymphocytes
able to (2) Leucocytes
(1) Reject a tissue transplant (3) Thrombocytes
(2) Receive a tissue transplant
(4) Helper T-lymphocytes
(3) Develop an inflammatory response
(4) Produce antibodies
81. Lysozyme that is present in
73. Passive immunity is provided through perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys
(1) Exogenous supply of antigens (1) Most virus infected cells
(2) Exogenous supply of antibodies (2) Certain fungi
(3) Endogenous supply of antigens (3) Certain types of bacteria
(4) Endogenous supply of antibodies
(4) All viruses
74. AIDS was first reported in
(1) USA (2) France 82. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain
(3) Russia (4) India seasons are related to :-
(1) Low temperature
75. After entering T-cell, HIV first forms (2) Hot and humid environment
(1) mRNA
(3) Eating fruits preserved in tin
(2) Single stranded DNA
containers
(3) Double stranded DNA
(4) Inhalation of seasonal pollen
(4) Double stranded RNA

Human Health and Disease 49

83. A useful drug that damages gastric 88. Which one of the following statements
mucosa if taken along with alcohol is is correct?
(1) Valium (2) Antihistamine
(1) Malignant tumours may exhibit
(3) Aspirin (4) Morphine
metastasis
84. The most active phagocytic white blood (2) Patients who have undergone
cells are: surgery are given cannabinoids to
(1) Lymphocytes and macrophages relieve pain
(2) Eosinophils and lymphocytes
(3) Benign tumours show the property
(3) Neutrophils and monocytes
of metastasis
(4) Neutrophils and eosinophils
(4) Heroin accelerates body functions
85. Match the disease in column-I with the
appropriate items (pathogen/ 89. Which of the following is a pair of viral
prevention/treatment) in column-II : diseases?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Typhoid, Tuberculosis
(a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema
(2) Ringworm, AIDS
pallidum
(b) Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized (3) Common Cold, AIDS
food (4) Dysentery, Common Cold
(c) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
(d) Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydration 90. A person likely to develop tetanus is
therapy immunised by administering :

(1) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d(iii) (1) Weakened germs

(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d(iv) (2) Dead germs
(3) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d(i) (3) Preformed antibodies
(4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iiii), d(iv)
(4) Wide spectrum antibiotics
86. To which type of barriers under innate
immunity, do the saliva in the mouth 91. Use of anti-histamines and steroids
and the tears from the eyes, belong? give a quick relief from :
(1) Physiological barriers (1) headache (2) Allergy
(2) Physical barriers
(3) Nausea (4) Cough
(3) Cytokine barriers
(4) Cellular barriers 92. The letter “T” in T-lymphocyte refers to :

87. Which one of the following is the (1) Thymus (2) Thyroid
correct statement regarding the (3) Thalamus (4) Tonsil
particular psychotropic drug specified
(1) Morphine leads to delusions and 93. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of :
disturbed emotions
(1) Typhoid (2) Malaria
(2) Barbiturates cause relaxation and
temporary euphoria (3) Pneumonia (4) Tuberculosis
(3) Hashish causes after thought 94. Ringworm in humans is caused by :
perceptions and hallucinations
(1) Viruses (2) Bacteria
(4) Opium stimulates nervous system
and causes hallucinations (3) Fungi (4) Nematodes

50 Human Health and Disease

95. Consider the following four statements 99. At which stage of HIV infection does
(a-d) regarding kidney transplant and one usually show symptoms of AIDS ?
select the two correct ones out of (1) When the infecting retrovirus enters
these.
host cells
(a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper
the recipient may need to take (2) When viral DNA is produced by
immuno-suppressants for a long reverse transcriptase
time (3) When HIV replicates rapidly in
(b) The cell-mediated immune response helper
is responsible for the graft rejection T-lymphocytes and damages large
(c) The B-lymphocytes are responsible
number of these
for rejection of the graft
(d) The acceptance or rejection of a (4) Within 15 days of sexual contact
kidney transplant depends on with an infected person.
specific interferons
100. A certain patient is suspected to be
The two correct statements are :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) suffering from Acquired Immuno
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (c) Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic
technique will you recommend for its
96. Which one of the following statements
is correct with respect to AIDS ? detection?
(1) The causative HIV retrovirus enters (1) ELISA
helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing (2) MRI
their numbers (3) Ultra sound
(2) The HIV can be transmitted through
(4) WIDAL
eating food together with an
infected person 101. Common cold is not cured by
(3) Drug addicts are least susceptible antibiotics because it is:
to HIV infection
(1) not an infectious disease
(4) AIDS patients are being fully cured
cent percent with proper care and (2) caused by a virus
nutrition (3) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
(4) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
97. Select the correct statement from the
ones given below : 102. Which one of the following options
(1) Cocaine is given to patients after
gives the correct matching of a disease
surgery as it stimulates recovery
with its causative organism and mode
(2) Barbiturates when given to
criminals make them tell the truth of infection.
(3) Morphine is often given to persons Disease Causative Mode of
who have undergone surgery as a organisms infection
pain killer (1) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male
(4) Chewing tobacco lowers blood vivax anopheles
pressure and heart rate mosquito
(2) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired
98. Which one of the following techniques typhi air
is safest for detection of cancers ? (3) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet
(1) Radiography (X-ray) pneumonie infection
(2) Computed tomography (CT) (4) Elephantiasis Wuchereria With infected
(3) Histopathological studies bancrofti water and
(4) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) food

Human Health and Disease 51

103. Select the correct statement with 107. In which one of the following options
respect to diseases and immunisation : the two examples are correctly
(1) Injection of snake antivenom matched with their particular type of
against snake bite is an example of immunity?
active immunisation. Type of
Examples
Immunity
(2) If due to some reason B-and T-
(1) Saliva in mouth and Physical barriers
lymphocytes are damaged, the body
Tears in eyes
will not produce antibodies against (2) Mucus coating of Physiological
a pathogen. epithelium lining the barriers
(3) Injection of dead/inactivated urinogenital tract and
pathogens causes passive immunity the HCl in stomach
(4) Certain protozoans have been used (3) Polymorpho nuclear Cellular barriers
leukocytes and
to produce hepatitis B vaccine
monocytes
104. Common cold differs from pneumonia (4) Anti-tetanus and Active immunity
anti-snake bite
in, that:
injection
(1) Pneumonia is caused by a virus
while the common cold is caused 108. Identify the molecules (a) and (b)
by the bacterium Haemophilus shown below and select the right
influenzae option giving their source and use.
(2) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli
whereas the common cold affects
nose and respiratory passage but
not the lungs.
(3) Pneumonia is a communicable
disease whereas the common cold
is a nutritional deficiency disease.
(4) Pneumonia can be prevented by a
live attenuated bacterial vaccine
whereas the common cold has no
effective vaccine.

105. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the

chronic intake
Molecule Source Use
of :
(1) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa Produces
(1) Tobacco (Chewing)
belladona hallucinations
(2) Cocaine
(3) Opium (2) (a) Morphine Papaver Pain killer
somniferum
(4) Alcohol
(3) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum Accelerates the
106. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in : coca transport of
(1) Human RBCs dopamine
(2) Human liver (4) (b) Heroin Cannabis Depressant and
(3) Gut of female Anopheles sativa slows down
(4) Salivary glands of Anopheles body functions

52 Human Health and Disease

109. Which of the following statement is 110. Which of the following is correct ?
correct with respect to immunity ? (1) Morphine used as sedative and
(1) Antibodies are protein molecules, pain-killer
each of which has four light chains (2) Cancer - Increases contact
(2) Rejection of a kidney graft is the inhibition of cells
function of B-lymphocytes. (3) Nicotine - Stimulates Islets of
(3) preformed antibodies need to be Langerhans to release hormone
injected to treat the bite by a viper which act on liver to release
snake. enzyme to breakdown glucose.
(4) The antibodies against small pox (4) Snake bites - Antigens are injected
pathogen are produced by T-
lymphocytes.

Human Health and Disease 53

 Exercise - III
1. How many pairings are incorrect? 4. Match the following
A. Antibodies - Chemically giyco
Column-I Column-II
protein
B. Graft rejection - Cell mediated (A) Common cold (i) Inflammation of
Immunity
lymphatics
C. Gambusia - Feeds on
Mosquito larvae (B) Typhoid (ii) Haemophilus
D. Aedes - Vector of
influenzae
Malaria
E. Acquired - Memory based (C) Pneumonia (iii) Stool, mucous,
immunity
blood
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) none of these (D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus

2. Common cold differs from pneumonia (E) Elephantiasis (v) Salmonella

in, that :
(1) Pneumonia is a communicable typhi
disease whereas the common cold
is a nutritional deficiency disease. (F) Amoebiasis (vi) Haemozoin
(2) Pneumonia can be prevented by a
live attenuated bacterial vaccine granules
whereas the common cold has no
(1) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-vi, E-i, F-iii
effective vaccine.
(3) Pneumonia is caused by a bacterium (2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iv, E-iii, F-v
while the common cold is caused
by rhinovirus (3) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-vi, E-iii, F-i
(4) Pneumonia pathogen infects upper
respiratory passage whereas the (4) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-i, E-vi, F-iii
common cold affects lower
respiratory passage
5. Match Column-I with Column-II and
3. Find out the correct match from the
following table - select the correct answer from codes
Column-I Column-II Column-III given below.
(i) Bacteria Plasmodium Fever with
chills Column-I Column-II
(ii) Virus Rhino virus Infection of (A) Sporozoites (i) Infections form
Upper
respiratory (B) Filariasis (ii) Aedes
tract mosquitoes
(iii) Fungi Wuchereria Chronic
bancrofti inflammation (C) Typhoid (iii) Wuchereria
of brain (D) Chikungunya (iv) Widal test
(iv) Protozoa Entamoeba Stool with
histolytica excess mucous (1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
and blood (2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
clots
(1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv) (3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv) (4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)

54 Human Health and Disease

6. Study carefully the following stages of 8. What is false about amoebiasis
life cycle of malarial parasite i.e., (1) Cyst of Entamoeba histolytica enters
Plasmodium. Arrange these stages in
human alimentary canal along with
the correct sequence and select the
correct answer. food or water
1. Sporozoites leave the blood stream (2) Entamoeba histolytica feeds on
and enter the liver cells of man. submucosa and mucosa of intestine
2. Sporozoites present in the salivary
(3) This disease can be diagnosed by
glands of female Anopheles
mosquito are injected into the the presence of mucus and blood
blood stream of man. clots in stool
3. The parasite reproduces asexually (4) Cyst of Entamoeba histolytica is
in RBCs, resulting in bursting of
transmitted from one person to
RBCs and causing the cycles of
fever released parasites infect new another by female culex mosquito
RBCs.
4. The parasite reproduces asexually 9. Match Column-I with Column-II and
in liver cells, ultimately causing the select the correct answer from codes
rupturing of cells. given below.
5. Two types of gametocytes i.e., Column-I Column-II
microgametocytes and
macrogametocytes develop in the (A) Sporozoites (i) Infections form
RBCs. (B) Filariasis (ii) Aedes
6. Female Anopheles mosquito takes mosquitoes
up the gametocytes with blood (C) Typhoid (iii) Wuchereria
meal of an infected person.
7. Mature infective stage of the (D) Chikungunya (iv) Widal test
parasite i.e., sporozoites escape (1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
from intestine and migrate to the (2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
mosquito's salivary glands. (3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
8. Fertilization and developmental
stages of the parasite take place in (4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
mosquito's stomach.
10. Read the following statements and
(1) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 8 → 7
(2) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 7 → 8 select the correct option.
(3) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 8 → 7 Statement 1 : Many fungi belonging to
(4) 6 → 8 → 7 → 4 → 5 → 2 → 3 → 1 genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and
Epidermophyton are responsible for the
7. Match the columns-I and II, and choose
the correct combination from the disease ringworm.
options given - Statement 2 : Ringworm infection is
Column-I Column-II generally acquired from soil or by using
(i) Typhoid (a) Haemophilus towels, clothes, comb etc. of infected
influenzae individuals.
(ii) Pneumonia (b) Trichophyton (1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
(iii) Filariasia (c) Plasmodium and statement 2 is the correct
(iv) Ring worm (d) Salmonella explanation of statement 1 .
typhi (2) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
(v) Malaria (e) Wuchereia but statement 2 is not the correct
malayi explanation of statement 1 .
(1) i- d, ii-a, iii-e, iv-b, v-c (3) Statement 1 is correct and
(2) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-e, v-d statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) i-b, ii-d, iii-e, iv-c, v-a (4) Both statements 1 and 2 are
(4) i-b, ii-c, iii-e, iv-d, v-a incorrect

Human Health and Disease 55

11. Read the following statements and 14. Read the following four statements (A-
select the correct option. D):
Statement 1 : Malarial parasite requires (A) The lips and finger nails may turn
two hosts humans and mosquitoes to gray to bluish in colour in severe
cases of Typhoid
complete its life cycle.
(B) Rhino Viruses infect the nose and
Statement 2: Haemozoin is a toxic
respiratory passage but not the
substance produced by the rupturing of
lungs.
liver cells during malarial infection. (C) Intestinal perforation and death
(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct may occur in severe cases of
and statement 2 is the correct salmonella infection.
explanation of statement 1 . (D) Haemophilus influenzae infects the
(2) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct alveoli of the lungs How many of
but statement 2 is not the correct the above statements are correct.
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
explanation of statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is correct and 15. Which of the following statement is
statement 2 is incorrect. incorrect
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are (1) Perspiration, saliva and tears
incorrect contains an enzyme, lysozyme, that
kills bacteria
12. Out of these how many statements are (2) Phagocytic cells like neutrophills,
correct monocytes etc are included in
(a) Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebiasis second line of defence
(b) The common round worm cause a (3) B and T lymphocytes are included in
third line of defence
slowly developing chronic inflammation
(4) Skin is considered as physiological
of the organs
barrier
(c) Microsporum, Trichophyton and
Epidermophyton are not responsible 16. Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae
are responsible for the disease
for ring worms
pnemonia in Humans, in which -
(d) Haemophilus influenzae are
(a) The alveoli get filled with fluid
responsible for the pneumonia
leading to severe problems in
(1) a, b only (2) a,c,d respiration.
(3) a,d (4) a, b, c, d (b) The symptoms of pnemonia
includes fever, chills, cough and
13. For the disease such as malaria and
headache.
filariasis that are transmitted through
(c) In sever cases, the lips and finger
insect vectors, controlls measure is/ nails may turn gray to bluish in
are - color.
(1) Avoiding stagnation of water in and (d) A healthy person acquires the
around residential areas infection by inhaling the
(2) Regular cleaning of household droplets/aerosols released by an
coolers. infected person
(3) Introducing fishes like Gambusia in How many of the above statements are
correct -
ponds that feed on mosquito larvae.
(1) Four (2) Three
(4) All the above measures are correct
(3) Two (4) One

56 Human Health and Disease

17. For the disease such as malaria and Read the assertion and reason carefully
filariasis that are transmitted through to mark the correct option out of the
insect vectors, controlls measure is/ are options given below :
(1) Avoiding stagnation of water in and
(1) If both the assertion and the reason
around residential areas
are true and the reason is a correct
(2) Regular cleaning of household
coolers. explanation of the assertion
(3) Introducing fishes like Gambusia in (2) If both the assertion and reason are
ponds that feed on mosquito larvae. true but the reason is not a correct
(4) All the above measures are correct explanation of the assertion
18. Choose a mismatched option : (3) If the assertion is true but the
(1) Common cold: One of the most reason is false
infectious viral disease (4) If both the assertion and reason are
(2) Pneumonia : Haemophilus
False
influenzae infects alveoli of the
lungs. 21. Assertion : Metastatic cancers are
(3) Filariasis : Internal bleeding, more serious.
muscular pain, fever and anaemia
Reason : These spread from one organ
(4) Ascariasis : A healthy person
to other body organs and there is
acquires infection through
contaminated water, vegetables and increased interference with metabolic
fruits. functioning.

19. Where will you look for the 22. Assertion : Lung cancer is more
trophozoites of the malarial parasite? common in industrial workers.
(1) Saliva of infected female Anopheles
Reason : Industrial smoke contains
mosquito
certain carcinogenic pollutants.
(2) red blood corpuscles of humans
suffering from malaria
23. Assertion : Cancer is generally
(3) Spleen of infected humans
associated with a tumour.
(4) Salivary glands of freshlymoulted
female Anopheles mosquito Reason : Cancerous cells undergo
uncontrolled growth and division.
20. Salmonella typhi a pathogenic
bacterium which causes typhoid fever 24. Assertion : UV – rays are carcinogenic
in human beings - in nature.
(a) Pathogen generally enter the small
Reason : UV – rays rupture DNA strands
intestine through contaminated
and induce mutations to cause cancers.
food & water.
(b) Symptoms are sustained high fever 25. Assertion : Tobacco smoking is the
(39°–40°C), weakness, stomach
main causes of lung cancer.
pain and constipation.
Reason : Tobacco smoke has a
(c) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by
Widal test carcinogen called nicotine.
(d) Patient should be given nutritious
26. Assertion : Surgery has been found
diet.
highly effective in lung cancer.
How many of the above statements
are correct - Reason : Resection is possible after the
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One thoracotomy.

Human Health and Disease 57

 In the following questions two 33. Statement-I : Widal test in commonly
statements (Statement-I and used for detectino of typhoid fever.
Statement-II) are given. Mark the Statement-II : Pneumonia pathogen
correct option according to the infects alveoli whereas the common
instruction given below: cold affects nose and respiratory
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II passage but not lungs.
are correct. 34. Statement-I : Cocaine causes
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II relaxation and temporary euphoria.
are incorrect. Statement-II : Opium stimulates
(3) Only statement-I is correct. nervous system and causes
(4) Only statement-II is correct. hallucinations.

27. Statement-I : The primary function of 35. Statement-I : Passive immunity is

lymphoid system is production, obtained by injecting antibiotics in our
maintenance and distribution of body.
lymphocytes. Statement-II : HIV does not get
Statement-II : Passive immunization transmitted through organ transplant
includes transfer of lymphocyte directly from an HIV infected person.
in the body. 36. Statement-I : Cancer cells are
28. Statement-I : Expand form of ELISA is detected by the use of antibodies
Enzyme Linked Immune Sorbent Assay. against cancer specific antigens for
certain type of cancer.
Statement-II : A vaccine meant for
Statement-II : Certain
protection against tuberculosis is -BCG.
chemotherapeutic drugs are used to
29. Statement-I : Dengue, chikungunya kill, the cancerous cells, but majority of
both are spread by culex mosquitoes. the drug have side affects like hair loss,
Statement-II : Vaccination is available anemia etc.
against polio, cholera, typhoid,
37. Statement-I : Barbiturate, amphetamine
tuberculosis and many other diseases. and benzodiazepine drugs are used to
30. Statement-I : Malaria is caused by help patients that caused mental
mosquito female anopheles. stress.
Statement-II : Malaria is transmitted by Statement-II : Heroin overdose causes
protozoa. hallucinations.

31. Statement-I : Drug addicts are least

susceptible to HIVinfection.
Statement-II : HIV can be transmitted
through eating food together with an
infected person.

32. Statement-I : More chances of

transmission of HIV from infected
female to male are during copulation.
Statement-II : An infected mother can
transmit the infection to her baby
during pregnancy at child birth and by
breastfeeding.

58 Human Health and Disease

 Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)
NEET-UG -2013 AIIMS-2014
1. The cell-mediated immunity inside the 6. Which of the following is correct ?
human body is carried out by : (1) B-cells provide CMI
(1) Erythrocytes (2) T-Iymphocytes (2) Interferons prevent the
neighbouring cells from further viral
(3) B-Iymphocytes (4) Thrombocytes
infection
2. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :
(3) As the age increase, thymosin
(1) mosquito bite
increases
(2) drinking water containing eggs of (4) T-cells produce antibodies
Ascaris
(3) eating imperfectly cooked pork. AIPMT-2015

(4) Tse-tse fly 7. HIV that causes AIDS. first starts

destroying.
AIIMS-2013
(1) Leucocytes
3. Sexual phases (gametocyte) of (2) Helper T-Lymphocytes
Plasmodium occurs in : (3) Thrombocytes
(1) Liver cells of human (4) B-Lymphocytes
(2) RBC of human
8. Which of the following viruses is not
(3) Intestine of mosquito
transferred through semen of an
(4) Salivary glands of mosquito infected male?
(1) Human immunodeficiency virus
AIPMT-2014
(2) Chikungunya virus
4. Which is the particular type of drug
(3) Ebola virus
that is obtained from the plant whose
(4) Hepatitis B virus
one flowering branch is shown below-
9. Match each disease with its correct
type of vaccine:
(a) tuberculosis (i) harmless virus
(b) whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxins
(c) diphtheria (iii) killed bacteria
(d) polio (iv) harmless bacteria
(1) Hallucinogen (2) Depressant (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Stimulant (4) Pain - killer (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
5. At which stage of HIV infection does (3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
one usually show symptoms of AIDS : (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact
with an infected person. Re-AIPMT-2015

(2) When the infected retro virus 10. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a
enters host cells. patient due to
(3) When HIV damages large number of (1) Innate immune response
helper T-Lymphocytes. (2) Humoral immune response
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by (3) Cell-mediated immune response
reverse transcription (4) Passive immune response

Human Health and Disease 59

11. If you suspect major deficiency of NEET-II-2016
antibodies in a person, to which of the 17. Which of the following is correct
following would you look for regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?
confirmatory evidence? (1) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus
(1) Serum globulins (2) HIV does not escape but attacks
(2) Fibrinogen in plasma the acquired immune response
(3) Serum albumins (3) HIV is enveloped virus containing
(4) Haemocytes one molecule of single-stranded
RNA and one molecule of reverse
12. Which of the following immunoglobulins
transcriptase
does constitute the largest percentage
(4) HIV is enveloped virus that contains
in human milk?
two identical molecules of single-
(1) IgG (2) IgD
stranded RNA and two molecules of
(3) IgM (4) IgA
reverse transcriptase
NEET-I-2016
18. Which of the following sets of diseases
13. Asthma may be attributed to : is caused by bacteria ?
(1) bacterial infection of the lungs (1) Tetanus and mumps
(2) allergic reaction of the mast cells in (2) Herpes and influenza
the lungs (3) Cholera and tetanus
(3) inflammation of the trachea (4) Typhoid and smallpox
(4) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
AIIMS-2016
14. In higher vertebrates, the immune 19. Match the item of column-I with
system can distinguish self-cells and column-II and choose the correct
non-self. If this property is lost due to option :-
genetic abnormality and it attacks self-
Column-I Column-II
cells, then it leads to :-
A Morphine i Cannabis sativa
(1) Allergic response
B Nicotine ii Papaver somniferum
(2) Graft rejection
(3) Auto-immune disease C Marijuana iii Erythroxylum coca
(4) Active immunity Coca
D alkaloids iv Nicotiana tobacum
15. Antivenom injection contains preformed Options :
antibodies while polio drops that are (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
administered into the body contain :- (2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(1) Activated pathogens (3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(2) Harvested antibodies (4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) Gamma globulin
(4) Attenuated pathogens
NEET-II-2017
16. Which of the following statements is
20. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails
not true for cancer cells in relation to
mutations? often due to non-acceptance by the
(1) Mutations in proto-oncogenes patient's body. Which type of immune-
accelerate the cell cycle. response is responsible for such
(2) Mutations destroy telomerase rejections?
inhibition (1) Cell-mediated immune response
(3) Mutations inactive the cell control (2) Hormonal immune response
(4) Mutations inhibit production of (3) Physiological immune response
telomerase (4) Autoimmune response

60 Human Health and Disease

21. MALT constitutes about .................... NEET-2019
percent of the lymphoid tissue in 27. Which of the following immune
human body. responses is responsible for rejection
(1) 20% (2) 70% of kidney graft ?
(3) 10% (4) 50% (1) Inflammatory immune response
(2) Cell-mediated immune response
NEET-2018
(3) Auto-immune response
22. Which part of poppy plant is used to (4) Humoral immune response
obtain the drug "Smack" ? 28. Identify the correct pair representing
(1) Flowers (2) Latex the causative agent of typhoid fever
(3) Roots (4) Leaves and the confirmatory test for typhoid.
(1) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
(2) Salmonella typhi / Widal test
23. Which of the following is not an (3) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
autoimmune disease ? (4) Streptococcus peumoniae / Widal
(1) Psoriasis test
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis 29. Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by :
(3) Alzheimer's disease (1) Mitration of morphine
(4) Vitiligo (2) Nitration of morphine
(3) Methylation of morphine
24. In which disease does mosquito (4) Acetylation of morphine
transmitted pathogen cause chronic 30. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted
inflammation of lymphatic vessels ? by mother during the initial days of
(1) Elephantiasis lactation is very essential to impart
immunity to the new born infants
(2) Ascariasis because it contains :
(3) Ringworm disease (1) Macrophages
(4) Amoebiasis (2) Immunoglobulin A
(3) Natural killer cells
(4) Monocytes
AIIMS 2018_(26-05-2018)_EVENING (A)
AIIMS-2019 (25-05-19)_2ST SHIFT
25. Identify the given diagram and its effect ? 31. Match the following and choose the
correct option

(1) Cannabinoid - Effects cardiovascular

function
(2) Morphine - CNS depressant
(3) Cocaine - Euphoria
(4) Smack - Psychedelic effect

26. Characteristics of cancer is

(1) All tumors are cancers
(2) Cancers show metastasis
(1) (a) - i, (b) - ii, (c) - iii
(3) Cancerous cells show property of (2) (a) - ii, (b) - i, (c) - iii
contact inhibition (3) (a) - iii, (b) - ii, (c) - i
(4) All viruses are oncogenic (4) (a) - i, (b) - iii, (c) - ii

Human Health and Disease 61

 AIIMS-2019 (26-05-19)_IST SHIFT NEET(UG) 2020 (COVID-19)
32. Acquired Immunity mediated by which
of the following 38. Match the following columns and select
(1) Antibody formation by T-lymphocytes the correct option:-
(2) Antibody formation by B- lymphocytes Column-I Column-II
(3) HCl by stomach (i) Typhoid (a) Haemophilus
(4) Bite by snake
influenzae
33. Cocaine is obtained from : (ii) Malaria (b) Wuchereria
(1) Papaver sominiferum bancrofti
(2) Erythroxylum coca
(iii) Pneumonia (c) Plasmodium
(3) Atropa belladonna
vivax
(4) Datura
(iv) Filariasis (d) Salmonella
AIIMS-2019 (26-05-19) 2ST SHIFT
typhi
34. Immunity tolerance developed by
(1) Interaction with the antigen (1) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(2) By giving antibodies (2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(3) Present by birth (3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
(4) By giving antibiotics (4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
NEET(UG) 2019 (ODISHA)
39. The yellowish fluid "colostrum" secreted
35. Humans have acquired immune system
that produces antibodies to neutralize by mammary glands of mother during
pathogens. Still innate immune system the initial days of lactation has
is present at the time of birth because it abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the
(1) Is very specific and uses different infant. This type of immunity is called
macrophages. as:-
(2) Produces memory cells for
(1) Passive immunity
mounting fast secondary response.
(3) Has natural killer cells which can (2) Active immunity
phagocytose and destroy microbes (3) Acquired immunity
(4) Provides passive immunity. (4) Autoimmunity
36. Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained
from:- NEET(UG) 2021
(1) Papaver somniferum
40. Veneral diseases can spread through :
(2) Atropha belladonna
(3) Erythroxylum coca (a) Using sterile needles
(4) Datura
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected
NEET(UG) 2020
person
37. match the following diseases with the
(c) Infected mother to foetus
causative organism and select the
correct option. (d) Kissing
Column-I Column-II
(e) Inheritance
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium Choose the correct answer from the
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella options given below.
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (b) and (c) only
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (4) (a) and (c) only

62 Human Health and Disease

41. Match List - I with List - II. 43. Select the incorrect statement with

List-I List-II respect to acquired immunity.

(1) Primary response is produced when

(a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus
our body encounters a pathogen for
influenzae
the first time.
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton
(2) Anamnestic response is elicited on
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria
subsequent encounters with the
bancrofti same pathogen.
(d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba (3) Anamnestic response is due to
histolytica memory of first encounter.
Choose the correct answer from the (4) Acquired immunity is non-specific
options given below. type of defence present at the time
(a) (b) (c) (d) of birth.

(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

Re-NEET-2022
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 44. Which of the following reasons in
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) mainly responsible of graft rejection in
transplantation of organs?
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(1) Inability of recipient to differentiate
NEET-2022 between 'self and non-self' tissues/cells
42. Given below are two statements: (2) Humoral immune response only
Statement I : (3) Auto-immune response
Autoimmune disorder is a condition
(4) Cell-mediated response
where body defence mechanism
recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.
45. Match List-I with List-II
Statement II:
List-I List-II
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition
where body does not attack self cells. (a) Cellular barrier (i) Interferons

In the light of the above statements, (b) Cytokine barrier (ii) Mucus
choose the most appropriate answer (c) Physical barrier (iii) Neutrophils
from the options given below:
(d) Physiological barrier (iv) HCL in gastric
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II juice
are correct
Choose the correct answer from the
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II
option given below:-
are Incorrect
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) Statement I is correct but
Statement II is incorrect (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(4) Statement I is incorrect but (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Statement II is correct (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Human Health and Disease 63

 [NEET-2023] 50. Match List - I with List - II.
46. Match List I with List II. List-I List-II
List I List II (A) Typhoid (I) Protozoan
A. Heroin I. Effect on (B) Elephantiasis (II) Salmonella
cardiovascular (C) Ringworm (III) Aschelminthes
system (D) Malaria (IV) Microsporum
B. Marijuana II. Slow Choose the correct answer from the
down body options given below:
function (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
C. Cocaine III. Painkiller (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
D. Morphine IV. Interfere with
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
transport of
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
dopamine
Choose the correct answer from the 51. Diacetyl morphine is also called as:
options given below: (1) Amphetamine (2) Barbiturate
(1) A–II, B–I, C–IV D–III (3) Crack (4) Smack
(2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
52. Match List-I with List-II.
(3) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
List-I List-II
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(A) Cytokine (I) Mucus
47. In which blood corpuscles, the HIV barriers coating of
undergoes replication and produces respiratory
progeny viruses ? tract
(1) TH Cells (2) B–lymphocytes (B) Cellular (II) Interferons
(3) Basophils (4) Eosinophils barriers
48. Match List I with List II. (C) Physiological (III) Neutrophils
List I List II barriers and
A. Ringworm I. Haemophilus macrophages
influenzae (D) Physical (IV) Tears and
B. Filariasis II. Trichophyton barriers Saliva
C. Malaria III. Wuchereria Choose the correct answer from the
bancrofti options given below:
D. Pneumonia IV. Plasmodium (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
vivax (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Choose the correct answer from the (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
options given below: (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

[NEET-2023] MANIPUR
49. Which of the following sexually
transmitted infections are completely
curable?
(1) HIV infection and Trichomoniasis
(2) Syphilis and trichomoniasis
(3) Hepatitis – B and Genital herpes
(4) Genital herpes and Genital warts

64 Human Health and Disease

 ANSWER KEY

Human Health and Disease

Exercise - I

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 4 2 4 2 1 3 4 4 3 1 4 3 2 3 1 3 2 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 4 1 1 4 2 3 4 1 3 3 1 1 3 4 2 1 3 3 4
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 4 2 1 3 4 4 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 4 1 2 2 2 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 2 3 1 3 2 2 4 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 4 1 2 4 3
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 4 1 2 3 4 3 1 3 4 1 1 4 3 1 3 4 2 4 4
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114
Ans. 4 2 4 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 4 4 4

Exercise - II

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 4 2 1 3 2 4 4 3 3 4 2 2 4 4 1 2 4 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 2 4 4 4 1 2 4 2 4 4 3 3 2 4 4 3 3 1 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 2 4 4 2 1 1 2 1 1 4 4 1 4 4 2 4 4 4 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 4 3 1 1 4 1 2 4 1 1 3 1 2 1 2 2 4 2 4 4
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 3 4 3 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 2 1 1 3 1 1 3 4 3 1
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans. 2 3 2 2 4 3 3 4 3 1

Exercise – III
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 3 4 1 4 1 1 4 4 2 3 3 4 3 4 1 4 1 2 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
Ans. 1 1 1 4 3 4 3 1 4 2 2 1 1 3 2 1 3

Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 2 2 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 1 4 2 3 4 4 4 3 2 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 2 3 1 1 2 2 2 4 2 2 2 2 1 3 3 3 1 1 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52
Ans. 2 3 4 4 4 1 1 1 2 3 4 1

Human Health and Disease 65

 1 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

Introduction:
Biotechnology deals with techniques of using live organisms or enzymes from organisms to produce
products and processes useful to humans. It is use of micro-organisms, animals, or plant cells or their
parts to generate different products at industrial scale and services useful to human beings."

Old Biotechnology is Based on the Natural Capabilities of Micro Organisms. (Before 1970)
e.g. formation of Citric acid, production of penicillin by Penicillium notatum

New Biotechnology is Based on Recombinant DNA Technology. (After 1970)

e.g. Human gene producing Insulin has been transferred and expressed in bacteria like E.coli.

The European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB) has given a definition of biotechnology that
encompasses both traditional view and modern molecular biotechnology. The definition given by EFB
is as follows:

'The integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and molecular analogues for
products and services'.
It deals with the isolation of useful genes from a variety of sources and the formation of new
combination of DNA (recombinant DNA).

Thus, genetic engineering may be defined 'as a technique for artificial and deliberately modifying DNA
(gene) to suit human needs'.
Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer: First made recombinant DNA by linking an antibiotic resistance gene
with a plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.
The concept of genetic engineering was the outcome of two very significant discoveries made in
bacterial research. These were –
(i) Presence of extrachromosomal DNA fragments called plasmids in the bacterial cell, which replicate
along with chromosomal DNA of the bacterium.
(ii) Presence of enzymes restriction endonucleases which cut DNA at specific sites. These enzyme are,
therefore, called 'molecular scissors'.

Principles of Biotechnology:
Among many, the two techniques that enabled birth of modern biotechnology are :
(i) Genetic Engineering: Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA), to
introduce these into host organisms and thus change the phenotype of the host organism.

(ii) Bio-Process Engineering: (microbial contamination-free) ambience in chemical engineering

processes to enable growth of only the desired microbe/eukaryotic cell in large quantities for the
manufacture of biotechnological products like antibiotics, vaccines, enzymes etc.
Genetic Engineering
Introduction:
• Genetic Engineering also referred as ‘recombinant DNA technology’ or ‘gene splicing’ is one kind
of biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA.
• In genetic engineering breakage of DNA molecule at two desired places is done with the help of
restriction endonuclease to isolate a specific DNA segment and then insert it in another DNA
molecule at a desired position.

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 1

• The new DNA molecule is recombinant DNA and the technique called genetic engineering. Genetic
engineering aims at adding, removing or repairing of a part of genetic material. Genetic engineering
can be used to improve the quality of human life.

Tools and Techniques of Genetic Engineering

Tools:
Genetic engineering involves cutting of desired segments of DNA and pasting of this DNA in a vector to
produce a recombinant DNA (rDNA). The ‘biological tools’ used in the synthesis of recombinant DNA
include enzymes, vehicle or vector DNA, passenger DNA and host cells.
1. Enzymes: A number of specific kinds of enzymes are employed in genetic engineering.
These include lysing enzymes, cleaving enzymes, synthesising enzymes, joining enzymes and some
other enzymes.
(i) Lysing Enzymes: These enzymes are used for opening the cells to get DNA for genetic experiment.
Bacterial cell wall is commonly dissolved with the help of lysozyme.
(ii) Cleaving Enzymes: These enzymes are used for cutting DNA molecules. Cleaving enzymes are
of three types; exonucleases, endonucleases and restriction endonucleases.
(a) Exonucleases cut off nucleotides from 5' or 3' ends of DNA molecule.
(b) Endonucleases break DNA duplex at any point except the end.
(c) Restriction Endonucleases cleave DNA duplex at specific points in such a way that they
come to possess short single stranded free ends. For example, a restriction endonuclease
EcoR-I (from Escherichia coli) recognizes the base sequence GAATTC/CTTAAG in DNA duplex
and cleaves its strands between G and A.

2 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

 In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage
in Escherichia coli were isolated. One of these added methyl groups to DNA, while the other
cut DNA. The later was called restriction endonuclease.

The first restriction endonuclease-Hind II, whose functioning depended on a specific DNA
nucleotide sequence was isolated and characterised five years later. It was found that Hind
II always cut DNA molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific sequence of six
base pairs. This specific base sequence is known as the recognition sequence for Hind II.
Besides Hind II, today we know more than 900 restriction enzymes that have been isolated
from over 230 strains of bacteria each of which recognise different recognition sequences.
Restriction enzymes are obtained from bacteria. They are useful to bacteria because the
enzyme bring about fragmentation of viral DNA without affecting the bacterial genome. This
is an adaptation against bacteriophages.
Restriction enzyme (EcoR-I) was discovered by Arber, Smith & Nathans (1978 Nobel prize).
These enzymes exist in many bacteria Beside cleavage some restriction endonuclease, also
have capability of modification.
Modification in the form of methylation, by methylation the bacterial DNA modifies and
therefore protects its own chromosomal DNA from cleavage by these restriction enzymes.
Restriction enzymes are used in recombinant DNA technology because they can be used in
vitro to recognize and cleave within specific DNA sequence typically consisting of 4 to 8
nucleotides. This specific 4 to 8 nucleotide sequence is called restriction site and is usually
palindromic, this means that the DNA sequence is the same when read in a 5'-3' direction
on both DNA strand
⎯⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
AND MADAM DNA
As a result, the DNA fragments produced by cleavage with these enzymes have short single
stranded overhang at each end. These kinds of ends are called sticky or cohesive ends
because base pairing between them can stick the DNA molecule back together again.

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 3

 Therefore by cutting two different DNA samples with the same restriction enzyme and

mixing the fragments together a recombinant DNA molecule can be generated.

Exceptionally, some enzymes cleave both strand of DNA at exactly the same nucleotide position,

typically in the center of the recognition sequence resulting in blunt end or flush end.

Nomenclature of Enzyme – The convention for naming these enzymes is the first letter of

the name comes from the genus and the second two letters come from the species of the

prokaryotic cell from which they were isolated, e.g. EcoRI, the letter 'R' is derived from the

name of Escherichia coli RY 13. In EcoRI, the letter 'R' is derived from the name of strain.
Roman numbers following the names indicate the order in which the enzymes were isolated
from the strain of bacteria.

Examples of Restriction Enzyme

Recognition Sequences of Some Restriction Endonucleases
Name ecognition n s A ter lea age o rce
e ence

co – AATT – – AATT –
– TTAA – – TTAA –

co – ATAT – – AT AT –
– TATA – – TA TA –

ae – – – –
– – – –

ind –AA TT– –A A TT–

–TT AA– –TT A A–

– AT – – AT –
am
– TA – – TA –

(iii) Synthesizing Enzymes: These enzymes are used to synthesize new strands of DNA,
complementary to existing DNA or RNA template. They are of two types: reverse transcriptases
and DNA polymerases.
(a) Reverse Transcriptases - help in the synthesis of complementary DNA strands on RNA
templates:
(b) DNA Polymerases - help in the synthesis of complementary DNA strands on DNA templates.
(iv) Joining Enzymes: These enzymes help in joining the DNA fragments. For example DNA ligase from
Escherichia coli is used to join DNA fragments. Joining enzymes are, therefore, called 'molecular
glues'.

4 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

 (v) Other Enzymes like Alkaline Phosphatases : These enzymes cut off phosphate group from the
5' end of linearised circular DNA and prevent its recircularisation.

2. Vehicle DNA or Vector DNA: The DNA used as a carrier for transferring a fragment of foreign DNA
into a suitable host is called vehicle or vector DNA.
You know that plasmids and bacteriophages have the ability to replicate within bacterial cells
independent of the control of chromosomal DNA.
The following are the features that are required to facilitate cloning into a vector.
(i) Origin of Replication (ori): This is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of
DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells. This sequence
is also responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA. So, if one wants to recover
many copies of the target DNA, it should be cloned in a vector whose origin support high copy number.
(ii) Selectable Marker: In addition to 'ori', the vector requires a selectable marker. Normally, the
genes encoding resistance to antibiotics such as ampicilin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline or
kanamycin, etc., are considered useful selectable markers for E. coli.
(iii) Cloning Sites: In order to link the alien DNA, the vector needs, recognition sites for the
commonly used restriction enzymes. The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site
present in one of the two antibiotic resistance genes.

Examples of Vectors Commonly used in RDT

(A) Plasmids (0.5 – 8 kb Insert Size): These are extra chromosomal, circular, non-essential, double-
stranded, autonomous, self-replicating pieces of DNA in bacterial and some yeast cells. They may
confer the property of antibiotic resistance (bacteria) and virulence (Ti plasmid in Agrobacterium
tumefaciens).

Fig.: E.coli cloning vector pBR322 showing restriction sites (Hind III, EcoR I, BamH I, Sal I, Pvu II,
Pst I, Cla I), ori and antibiotic resistance genes (ampR and tetR) rop codes for the proteins
involved in the replication of the plasmid.
Following is the explanation of the name pBR322:
p – Plasmid
BR – Boliver and Rodriguez
322 – Distinguishes this plasmid from others developed in the same laboratory.
(B) Bacteriophage (9–23 kb Insert Size): It is a virus that infects bacteria and has the ability to replicate
within bacterial cells independent of the control of chromosomal DNA.
Bacteriophages, because of their high number per cell, have very high copy number of their genome
within the bacterial cell.

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 5

 If we are able to link an alien piece of DNA with bacteriophage, we can multiply its numbers equal
to the copy number of the bacteriophage.
Several bacteriophages are being used as cloning vectors but most commonly used are
(i) Lambda () Phage Vector
(ii) M13 Phage Vector
(C) YAC Vector (1000–2500 kb Insert Size): Yeast artificial chromosome contain telomeric sequence,
the centromere and autonomously replicating sequence from yeast chromosome.
(D) BAC Vector (50 – 300 kb Insert Size): Bacterial artificial chromosome is based on F plasmid
(fertility) of E.coli. It contains genes for replication and maintenance of F factor, selectable marker and
cloning sites.
(E) Transposons as Vector: These are segments of DNA which can move from one DNA molecule to another.
(F) Retroviruses: These viruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous
cells. Similarly retroviruses have also been disarmed and are now used to deliver desirable genes into
animal cells.
So, once a gene or a DNA fragment has been ligated into a suitable vector it is transferred into a
bacterial plant or animal host (where it multiplies).
3. Passenger DNA: It is the DNA which is transferred from one organism into another by combining it
with the vehicle DNA. The passenger DNA can be complementary, synthetic or random.
(i) Complementary DNA (cDNA) - It is synthesized on mRNA template with the help of reverse
transcriptase and necessary nucleotides. The DNA strand is then separated from the hybrid
RNA-DNA complex by using alkali. Complementary DNA strand is then synthesized over the
template of cDNA with the help of DNA polymerase. cDNA formed through reverse transcription
is shorter than the actual or in vivo gene because of the absence of introns or non-coding
regions.
(ii) Synthetic DNA (sDNA) - It is synthesized with the help of DNA polymerase on DNA template.
Kornberg (1961) synthesized first synthetic DNA from a mixture of deoxyribonucleotide
triphosphates, DNA polymerase enzyme, metal ions and a segment of viral DNA.
Khorana (1968) synthesized first artificial gene (DNA) without a template. They synthesized the
gene coding for yeast alanine t-RNA, which contained only 77 base pairs. However, it did not
function in the living system. In 1979, Khorana was able to synthesize a functional tyrosine t-
RNA gene of E. coli with 207 nucleotide pairs. Since then a number of genes have been
synthesized artificially.
(iii) Random DNA - It refers to small fragments formed by breaking a chromosome with the help of
restriction endonucleases.
Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology
Recombinant DNAt technology involves several steps in specific sequence such as :
(1) Isolation of DNA (total cell DNA or plasmid)
(2) Fragmentation of DNA by RE
(3) Separation and isolation of a desired DNA fragment
(4) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
(5) Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector (rDNA formation)
(6) Transferring the recombinant DNA into the host
(7) Selection & screening of recombinant host cells or Genetically altered cell.
(8) Culturing the host cells in a nutrient medium at a large scale

6 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

1. Isolation of the Genetic Material (DNA):
Recall that nucleic acid is the genetic material of all organisms without exception. In majority of
organisms this is deoxyribonucleic acid or DNA. In order to cut the DNA with restriction enzymes,
it needs to be in pure form, free from other macro-molecules. Since the DNA is enclosed within
the membranes, we have to break the cell open to release DNA along with other macromolecules
such as RNA, proteins, polysaccharides and also lipids. This can be achieved by treating the bacterial
cells/plant or animal tissue with enzymes such as lysozyme (bacteria), cellulase (plant cells),
chitinase (fungus). You know that genes are located on long molecules of DNA interwined with
proteins such as histones. The RNA can be removed by treatment with ribonuclease whereas
proteins can be removed by treatment with protease. Other molecules can be removed by
appropriate treatments and purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after the addition of chilled
ethanol. This can be seen as collection of fine threads in the suspension.

Let us examine the procedure in some details.

2. Cutting of DNA at Specific Locations:

Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome sites,
but between the same two bases on the opposite strands. This leaves single stranded portions at
the ends. There are overhanging stretches called sticky ends on each strand. These are named so
because they form hydrogen bonds with their complementary cut counterparts. This stickiness of
the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA ligase.
Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by incubating purified DNA molecules with the
restriction enzyme, at the optimal conditions for that specific enzyme. Agarose gel electrophoresis
is employed to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion.

3. Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments:

A. Separation of DNA Fragments by Gel Electrophoresis:
• The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragemens of DNA. These
fragments can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis.
• Since DNA fragments are negative charged molecules they can be separated by forcing them
to move towards the positive electrode anode under an electric field through
medium/matrix.
• Nowadays, the most commonly used matrix is agarose which is a natural polymer extracted
from sea weeds.
• The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided
by the agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
• Agarose gel electrophoresis is employed to check the progression of a restriction enzyme
digestion. This process is repeated with the vector DNA also.
• DNA is a negatively charged molecule, hence it moves towards the positive electrode
(anode).

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 7

 The process is repeated with the vector DNA also.
The separated DNA fragments can be visualised
only after staining the DNA with a compound known
as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV
radiation (you cannot see pure DNA fragments in
the visible light and without staining). You can see
bright orange coloured bands of DNA in ethidium
bromide stained gel exposed to UV light (shown in
figure above).

B. Isolation of Desired DNA Fragment: The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose
gel and extracted from the gel piece. This step is known as 'elution'. The DNA fragments purified
in this way are used in constructing recombinant DNA by joining them with cloning vectors.

4. Amplification of Gene of Interest using PCR:

PCR stands for polymerase chain reaction. This technique was invented by Kary mullis (1983). In
1993 Karry Mullis got nobel prize for PCR(in chemistry). PCR is a method for amplifying a specific
region of DNA molecule without the requirement for time consuming cloning procedures. PCR
reaction takes place in miniature test tube. Using PCR-technique very low content of DNA available
from samples of blood or semen or any other tissue or hair cell can be amplified many times and
analysed. In this technique Taq-Polymerase is used. Taq polymerase enzyme is used in PCR which
is a special type of DNA polymerase enzyme which is resistant to high temperature. Taq Polymerase
is isolated from Thermus aquaticus bacterium.
Thermus aquaticus is a thermophilic bacterium that can survive temperatures up to 95°C. In fact,
its natural habitat is the hot spring ecosystem of Yellowstone National Park, USA.

Basic Requirement:
(i) A small amount of DNA to serve as the initial template (nanograms.)
(ii) The four deoxyribonucleotides to serve as the substrates for the DNA polymerase and the raw
ingredients of the new DNA molecules.
(iii) A few necessary ions and salts.
(iv) A pair of primers (small chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary to the
regions of DNA) with exposed 3'-OH groups that will bind to the particular sequence of interest
in the DNA template.
(v) The DNA polymerases can only add new nucleotides to the 3'–OH end of growing strand. They,
therefore, require the presence of a DNA primer to get started.

Main Steps in PCR:

A single PCR reaction involves three temperature-dependent steps, described as follows:
(i) Denaturation (ii) Annealing (iii) Extension

(i) Denaturation: The starting solution is heated, usually to 94°C. The high temperatures break
the hydrogen bonds between the two strands of the original DNA double helix, providing the
necessary single-stranded templates.

8 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

 (ii) Annealing: After just a couple of minutes at that temperature, the reaction mixture is quickly
cooled, usually to somewhere between 50° and 60°C. It is then held for less than a minute
at this lower temperature–which is enough time for the primers to bind to their
complementary sequences on the single-stranded templates.

(iii) Primer Extension (Polymerisation): The sample is next heated to 72°C for sometime, during
which time the DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the primer, synthesizing a new DNA
strand using only the template sequences that bind the primers (shown in figure below).
If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of DNA can be
amplified to approximately billion times, i.e., 1 billion copies are made at the end of 30 PCR
cycles. It is possible to generate '2n' molecules after 'n' number of cycles.
The amplified fragment if desired can now be used to ligate with a vector for further cloning.

5. Ligation of the DNA Fragment into a Vectors (rDNA Formation):

The joining of DNA involves several processes. After having cut the source DNA as well as the vector
DNA with a specific restriction enzyme, the cut out ‘gene of interest’ from the source DNA and the
cut vector with space are mixed and ligase is added. This results in the preparation of recombinant
DNA.

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 9

6. Insertion of Recombinant DNA (Gene Transfer) into the Host Cell/Organism:
Transfer of desired genes from one organism into another is an important aspect of genetic
engineering. Gene transfer involves essentially three stages:
(i) Isolating a useful DNA segment from the donor organism.
(ii) Inserting it to a suitable vector.
(iii) Splicing of this altered DNAs into a recipient organism or host cell.
The cell to begin making the appropriate product and then device an economical method for it's
mass production.

Gene Transfer is Achieved by Two Kinds of Transfer Methods

(i) Indirect method through vectors and
(ii) Direct or vector less transfer method.
(i) Gene Transfer Through Vectors: Plasmids and viruses are commonly used vectors for the
transfer of desired genes. The desired genes are first made to join suitable plasmid or virus
which are then introduced into the target cells.

10 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

 • In Plants
A plant pathogenic bacterium-Agrobacterium tumefaciens produces crown galls or plant
tumours in almost all dicotyledonous plants. This bacterium infects all broad leaved
agricultural crops such as tomato, soyabean, sunflower and cotton but not cereals. Tumour
formation is induced by it's plasmid which is therefore called Ti plasmid (Ti for tumour
inducing)
Agrobacterium tumefaciens naturally transfers some part of Ti-plasmid in to host plant DNA
without any human effort so it is called natural genetic engineer of plant.
Agrobacterium tumifaciens, a pathogen of several dicot plants deliver a piece of DNA known
as 'T-DNA' to transform normal plant cells into a tumour . Similarly, retroviruses in animals
have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells. A better understanding of
the art of delivering genes by pathogens in their eukaryotic hosts has generated knowledge
to transform these tools of pathogens into useful vectors for delivering genes of interest to
humans. The tumour inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens has now been
modified into a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to the plants but is still able to
use the mechanisms to deliver genes (disarmed) and are now used to deliver desirable
genes into plant cells. So, once a gene or a DNA fragment has been ligated into a suitable
vector it is transferred into a bacterial, plant or animal host (where it multiplies).
In the transformation process two essential component in Ti-plasmid –
(a) T-DNA – (Transferred DNA)
(b) Vir-region – (Virulence region)
Inside the host plant cell T-DNA is seperated from Ti-plasmid, and integrated into host plant
DNA that causes crown gall tumour.

When we use Ti plasmid as a vector, first we remove the tumour causing gene from T-DNA
region. Then desired gene inserted in place of it. Now, this plasmid is called disarmed
plasmid.
• In Animals
• Mostly done in zygotic or embryonic cells.

• Commonly vector like retroviruses are used for Gene transfer.

The desired foreign genes can be introduced into fertilised eggs or embryos. These
transgenic eggs or embryos can be implanted into the uterus of another female, called
surrogate (foster) mother for their further development. Now, since most of the human
genes have been identified through ‘h man genome project’, it is hoped that a number
of human genetic disorders such as Alzheimer, cancer, haemophilia, thalaessemia and
cystic fibrosis can now be cured through insertion of the correct genes into these
patients.

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 11

 (ii) Vectorless Gene Transfer: Foreign genes can also be transferred directly by the following
methods:
(a) Heat Shock Method
There are several methods of introducing the ligated DNA into recipient cells. Recipient cells
after making them 'competent' to receive, take up DNA present in its surrounding.

Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membranes. In order to
force bacteria to take up the plasmid, the bacterial cells must first be made 'competent' to
take up DNA. This is done by treating them with a specific concentration of a divalent cation,
such as calcium, which increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium
through pores in its cell wall. Possibly, calcium chloride causes the DNA to precipitate onto
the outside of the cells or it may improve DNA binding.

Transformation: Recombinant DNA can then be forced into such cells by incubating the
cells with recombinant DNA on ice, followed by placing them briefly at 42°C (heat shock),
and then putting them back on ice. This enables the bacteria to take up the recombinant
DNA.

Fig.: The binding and uptake of DNA by a competent

bacterial cell through transformation
This is a method of transformation i.e. a procedure through which a piece of DNA is
introduced into a Host Bacterium.
So, if a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to an antibiotic (e.g. ampicillin) is
transferred into E. Coli cells, the host cells become transformed into ampicillin-resistant cells.
If we spread the transformed cells on agar plates containing ampicillin, only transformants will
grow, untransformed recipient cells will die. Since, one is able to select a transformed cell in
the presence of ampicillin, the ampicillin-resistance gene in this case is called as selectable
marker.
(b) Electroporation- It creates transient pores (temporary pores) in the plasma membrane to
facilitate entry of foreign DNA.

(C) Microinjection- It is the introduction of foreign genes into plant protoplasts or animal cells
using micropipettes or glass needles.

(d) Particle Gun/Biolistic Method- It is a technique in which tungsten or gold particles coated
with foreign DNA are bombarded into target cells to facilitate entry of the foreign genes.
(e) Chemical Mediated Genetic Transformation- It involves certain chemicals such as
polyethylene glycol (PEG), that help in the uptake of foreign DNA into host cells.

12 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

 7. Selection or Screening or Identification of Recombinants:
Selection Using Antibiotic Resistance: The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction
site present in one of the two antibiotic resistance genes. For example, you can ligate a foreign
DNA at the BamH I site of tetracycline resistance gene in the vector pBR322. The recombinant
plasmids will lose tetracycline resistance due to insertion of foreign DNA but can still be
selected out from non-recombinant ones by plating the transformant on tetracyline-containing
medium. The transformant growing on ampicillin-containing medium are then transferred on a
medium containing tetracycline. The recombinants will grow in ampicillin-containing medium
but not on that containing tetracycline. But, non-recombinants will grow on the medium
containing both the antibiotics. In this case, one antibiotic resistance gene helps in selecting
the transformants, whereas the other antibiotic resistance gene gets "inactivated due to
insertion" of alien DNA and helps in selection of recombinants.

Blue/White Selection: Alternative selectable markers in pUC18 plasmid differentiate recombinants

from non-recombinants on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a
chromogenic substrate. In this, a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an
enzyme, -galactosidase. This results into inactivation of the enzyme, which is referred to as
insertional inactivation. The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue-coloured colonies if
the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert. Presence of insert results into insertional
inactivation of the -galactosidase gene and the colonies do not produce any colour, these are
identified as recombinant colonies.

8. Culturing the Host Cells in a Nutrient Medium at a Large Scale for Obtaining the Foreign Gene
Product:
The ultimate aim of recombinant DNA technology is to produce a desirable protein in large
quantities. For this, expression of protein is essential and to enhance the production of desired
protein culture conditions are optimised.
If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host it is called a recombinant
protein.
Expression of human insulin gene with a vector in E.coil is a suitable example when the bacteria
serves as a heterologous host. Moving from a laboratory scale to an industrial scale presents new
problems for biotechnologists. For any new biotechnological manufacturing process, it must be
tried out on a laboratory scale. The cell harbouring cloned gene of interest may be grown on a
small scale in the laboratory. The culture may be used for extracting the desired protein and then
purifying it by using different separation techniques.
To produce in large quantities, the development of bioreactors, where large volumes (100-1000
litres) of culture can be processed, was required. Thus, bioreactors can be thought of as vessels
in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products, individual enzymes, etc.,
using microbial, plant, animal or human cells. A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for
achieving the desired product by providing optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH,
substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen).

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 13

 The Most Commonly used Bioreacters are of Stirring Type:

Fig. (a) Simple stirred-tank bioreactor, (b) Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor through
which sterile air bubbles are sparged.
A stirred-tank reactor is usually cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate the mixing of the
reactor contents. The stirrer faciliates even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the
bioreactor. Alternatively air can be bubbled through the reactor. The bioreactor has an agitator
system, an oxygen delivery system and a foam control system, a temperature control system, pH
control system and sampling parts so that small volumes of the culture can be withdrawn
periodically.
The product is either the cells themselves (biomass) or some useful cell product. All preparation
must be carried out under sterile conditions to avoid contamination of the culture.

Downstream Processing :
➢ After completion of the biosynthetic stage, the product has to be subjected through a series of
processes before it is ready for marketing as a finished product. It includes :
➢ Separation of product
➢ Purification of product
➢ Formulation with suitable preservatives

Marketing
of product

Packaging
of product

Formulation Quality
Separation Purification with suitable Control
of product of product preservatives Test

Downstream Processing

14 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

 Exercise - I
Principle & Processes 6. Significance of treating bacterial cells
with calcium chloride before transformation
1. Introduction of foreign genes for is to facilitate :
improving genotype is called: (1) Binding of DNA to the cell surface
(1) Biotechnology (2) Uptake of DNA through membrane
(2) Tissue culture transport proteins
(3) Genetic engineering (3) Uptake of DNA by creating transient
(4) Both (1) & (3) pores in the bacterial cell wall
(4) Expression of antibiotic resistance
2. In recombinant DNA technology, a plasmid
gene
vector is cleaved by:
(1) Modified DNA ligase 7. Which of the following statements does
(2) A heated alkaline solution not hold true for restriction enzyme?
(3) The same enzyme that cleaves donor (1) It recognises a palindromic
DNA nucleotide sequence
(4) Different enzyme that cleaved the (2) It is an endonuclease
donor DNA (3) It is isolated from bacteriophages
(4) It produces the same kind of sticky
3. Who is given the credit for constructing
ends in different DNA molecules
first artificial recombinant molecule?
(1) Hargobind Khorana 8. Function of ‘ori’ site in a vector is to :
(2) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer (1) Initiate insertional inactivation
(3) Linus Pauling (2) Initiate replication
(4) Arber and Nathans (3) Codes for the proteins involved in
replication of the plasmid
4. Which of the following is the most (4) Initiate antibiotic resistance
accepted definition of biotechnology by
European Federation of Biotechnology? 9. Ti-plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(1) Maintenance of sterile ambience for is used in Genetic engineering as:
enabling growth of desired microbe/ (1) DNA-mapping tool
euykaryotic cell in large quantities (2) DNA-modification tool
(2) Technique of using live organism or (3) Vector
enzyme from organisms to produce (4) DNA finger printing tool
products and processes useful to
animals 10. Genetic engineering is :
(3) Process which use genetically (1) Study of extra nuclear gene
engineered animals only on a large (2) Manipulation of genes by artificial
scale for benefit of mankind method
(4) The integration of natural science (3) Manipulation of RNA
and organisms cells, parts thereof (4) Manipulation of enzymes
and molecular analogues for 11. Polymerase chain reaction technology
products and services (PCR-technique) is used for :
5. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which (1) DNA identification (2) DNA repair
of the following enzymes is not used? (3) DNA amplification (4) Cleave DNA
(1) Lysozyme 12. Which structure is involved in genetic
(2) Ribonuclease engineering :
(3) Protease (1) Plastid (2) Plasmid
(4) Deoxyribonuclease (3) Codon (4) None

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 15

13. Which of the following is the example of 20. Genetic engineering aims at:
chemical scissors : (1) Destroying wild gene
(1) EcoR I (2) Hind III (2) Preserving defective gene
(3) Bam I (4) All the above (3) Curing human disease by introducing
new gene
14. Restriction endonucleases are used in (4) All the above
genetic engineering bacause :
(1) They can degrade harmful proteins 21. A piece of nucleic acid used to find out
(2) They can join DNA fragments a gene, by forming hybrid with it, is
called as:
(3) They can cut DNA at variable site
(1) rDNA (2) DNA probe
(4) They can cut DNA at specific base
(3) Sticky end (4) Blunt end
sequences
22. Taq–polymerase which is used for
15. When the genotype of an organism is
amplification of DNA is related with:
improved by the addition of foreign
(1) Hybridoma technique
gene, the process is called :
(2) PCR-technique
(1) Tissue culture
(3) Gene editing
(2) Genetic diversity (4) rDNA technology
(3) Genetic engineering
(4) Plastic surgery 23. What is true for plasmid :
(1) Plasmids are widely used in gene
16. A genetically manipulated organism transfer
containing in its genome one or more (2) These are found in virus
inserted gene of another species is (3) Plasmid contains gene for vital
called: activities
(1) Transposon (4) These are main part of chromosome
(2) Gene expression
24. Which of the following cuts the DNA
(3) Transgenic organism
from specific places:
(4) Retroposons
(1) Restriction endonuclease
17. Which vector is commonly used in the (2) Ligase
transfer of gene in a crop plant : (3) Exonuclease
(1) Plasmids of Bacillus subtilis (4) Alkaline phosphatase
(2) Bacteriophages 25. Manipulation of DNA in genetic
(3) Ti-plasmids of Agrobacterium engineering became possible due to the
(4) E.coli Phages discovery of:
(1) Restriction endonuclease
18. The tumour inducing capacity of
(2) DNA ligase
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is located in
(3) Transcriptase
large extrachromosomal plasmid and
(4) Primase
called as:
(1) Ti – plasmid 26. Restriction enzymes:
(2) Ri - plamid (1) Are endonucleases which cleave DNA
(3) Lambda phage at specific sites
(4) Plasmid PBR322 (2) Make DNA complementary to an
existing DNA or RNA
19. First step of PCR is (3) Cut or join DNA fragments
(1) Denaturation (2) Extension (4) Are required in vectorless direct gene
(3) Anneling (4) None transfer.

16 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

27. Restriction endonucleases: 34. Electroporation procedure involves:
(1) Are synthesized by bacteria as part (1) Fast passage of food through sieve
of their defense mechanism pores in phloem elements with the
(2) Are present in mammalian cells for help of electric stimulation.
degradation of DNA when the cell (2) Opening of stomatal pores during
dies night by artificial light
(3) Are used in genetic engineering for (3) Making transient pores in the cell
ligating two DNA molecules membrane to introduce gene
(4) Are used for invitro DNA synthesis constructs
(4) Purification of saline water with the
28. The Ti plasmid, is often used for making
help of a membrane system.
transgenic plants. This plasmid is found
in: 35. Which of the following restriction
(1) Yeast as a 2 µm plasmid endonuclease enzymes produces blunt
(2) Azotobacter ends in DNA :
(3) Rhizobium in the roots of leguminous (1) BamH I G G A T C C
plants CCTAGG
(4) Agrobacterium (2) EcoR I G A A T T C
CTTAAG
29. Which of the following is the example of
(3) Hae III G G C C
direct gene transfer:
CCGG
(1) Microinjection (2) Electroporation
(3) Particle gun (4) All the above (4) All the above

30. How many copies of DNA sample are 36. A bacterium modifies its DNA by adding
produced in PCR technique after 6– methyl groups to the DNA, It does so to :
cycle: (1) Clone its DNA
(1) 4 (2) 32 (3) 64 (4) 16 (2) Be able to transcribe many genes
simultaneously
31. BACs and YACs are: (3) Turn its gene on
(1) Natural DNA obtained from bacteria (4) Protect its DNA from its own
and yeast restriction enzyme
(2) Useful vectors for eukaryotic gene
transfer 37. DNA ligase is an enzyme that catalyses
(3) Artificial DNA obtained from bacteria the :
and yeast (1) Splitting of DNA threads into small
(4) (2) & (3) both bits
(2) Joining of the fragments of DNA
32. Restriction enzymes are: (3) Denaturation of DNA
(1) Used to join DNA fragments (4) Synthesis of DNA
(2) Essential tool in genetic engineering
(3) Nucleases that cleave DNA at specific 38. The function of polymerase chain
sites reaction (PCR) is :
(4) (2) and (3) both (1) Translation (2) Transcription
(3) DNA amplification (4) None of these
33. Function of restriction endonuclease
enzyme in bacteria is : 39. Which of the following is used as a best
(1) To create recombinant DNA genetic vector in plants :
(2) Protects the bacterial DNA against (1) Bacillus thuriengenesis
foreign DNA (2) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(3) Helpful in transcription (3) Pseudomonas putida
(4) Helpful in protein synthesis (4) All of these

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 17

40. Which of the following enzymes is used 46. In the PCR technology the DNA segment
to join DNA fragments : is replicated over a billion times. These
(1) Terminase repeated replications are catalyzed by
(2) Endonuclease the enzyme :
(3) Ligase (1) DNA polymerase
(4) DNA polymerase (2) Taq polymerase
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
41. A kind of Biotechnology involving (4) Primase
manipulation of DNA is :
47. The restriction enzyme(s) used in
(1) DNA replication
recombinant DNA technology making
(2) Genetic engineering
staggered cuts in DNA leaving sticky
(3) Denaturation ends is/are :
(4) Renaturation (1) EcoR I (2) Hind III
(3) BamH I (4) All of the above
42. A suitable vector for gene cloning in
higher organism is : 48. Cohen and Boyer isolated an antibiotic
(1) Baculovirus resistance gene, by cutting out a piece
(2) Retrovirus of DNA from a plasmid which was
responsible for conferring antibiotic
(3) Salmonella typhimurium
resistance, in the year :
(4) Neurospora crassa
(1) 1962 (2) 1965
43. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps (3) 1972 (4) 1982

governed by temperature they are in 49. Restriction enzyme EcoR I cuts the DNA
order of : between bases G and A only when the
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis sequence in DNA is :
(1) GATATC (2) GAATTC
(2) Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation
(3) GATTCC (4) GAACTT
(3) Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation
(4) Denaturation, Synthesis, Annealing 50. 'Transgenic' plants are produced by :
(1) Inducing gene mutation
44. What is the source of the Ti (Tumor (2) Arresting spindle fibre formation
inducing) plasmid which is modified and (3) Deleting sex chromosomes
(4) Introducing foreign genes
used as a cloning vector to deliver the
desirable genes into plant cells ? 51. The microinjection of desired genes
(1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens from other organism into fertilized eggs
of animals results in ?
(2) Thermophilus aquaticus
(1) Monstrosities
(3) Pyrococcus furiosus
(2) Free Martins
(4) Aedes aegypti (3) Transgenic animals
(4) Twins
45. The term "molecular scissors" generally
refers to : 52. The stickiness of DNA ends facilitates
the action of which enzyme :
(1) DNA polymerases
(1) DNA polymerase
(2) RNA polymerases (2) DNA Ligase
(3) Restriction endonucleases (3) Restriction endonuclease
(4) DNA ligases (4) Alkaline phosphatase

18 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

53. Which technique is used to check the 60. Which of following features is not
progression of restriction enzyme digestion necessary for cloning vector :
: (1) Origin of replication
(1) PCR
(2) High copy number
(2) Gel electrophorosis
(3) Selectable marker
(3) Southern Blotting
(4) Cloning sites
(4) Staining

54. In gel electrophorosis, at which end of 61. Which of the following is not true for
the gel the sample is loaded ? cloning vector :
(1) In the wells (1) More than two origin site of
(2) Towards positive electrode replication
(3) Towards negative electrode (2) Vector should have selectable
(4) 1 & 3 both
marker gene
55. An antibiotic resistance gene of plasmid (3) Single recognition site for the
vector which gets inactivated due to commonly used restriction enzymes
insertion of alien DNA, helps in the (4) pBR-322 have tetracycline resistance
selection of :
(1) Transformants 62. Transformation is a procedure through
(2) Recombinants which :
(3) Non-Transformants (1) A piece of DNA is introduced in a host
(4) 2 & 3 both
bacterium
56. In which type of bioreactor air bubbles (2) A piece of DNA is introduced in a vector
dramatically increases the oxygen (3) A piece of DNA is joined with a protein
transfer area ? (4) All
(1) Simple stirred tank bioreactor
(2) Sparged stirred tank bioreactor 63. Find out the correct sequence of PCR :
(3) Both 1 & 2 (1) (i) Annealing (ii) Denaturation (iii) Extension
(4) None of these (2) (i) Denaturation (ii) Extension (iii) Annealing
57. In EcoR I, R stands for : (3) (i) Denaturation (ii) Annealing (iii) Extension
(1) Strain (2) Species (4) (i) Extension (ii) Denaturation (iii) Annealing
(3) Genus (4) Order
64. Second letter of the name of restriction
58. Restriction endonucleases are used in endonuclease is derived from the :
genetic engineering to form :
(1) Genus of organism
(1) Recombinant molecule of protein
(2) Species of organism
(2) Recombinant molecule of DNA
(3) Recombinant molecule of protein & (3) Family of organism
DNA (4) Class of organism
(4) Recombinant cell
65. To isolate DNA from fungi we have to
59. Which of the following is used for the break the wall. This is done by :
separation of DNA fragments : (1) Lysozyme
(1) PCR
(2) Cellulase
(2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) Invertase
(3) Bioreactor
(4) Chitinase
(4) Restriction endonuclease

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 19

66. In presence of chromogenic substrate 68. pBR-322 which is frequently used as a
recombinant bacteria gives : vector for cloning gene is :
(1) An original bacterial plasmid
(1) Red coloured colonies
(2) A modified bacterial plasmid
(2) Colourless colonies (3) A viral genome
(3) Blue colonies (4) A transposon
(4) Green colonies

67. In recombinant DNA technology, the

term vectors refers to :
(1) The enzyme that cuts DNA into
restriction fragments
(2) The sticky end of a DNA fragment
(3) A plasmid used to transfer DNA into
a living cell
(4) A DNA probe used to identify a
particular gene

20 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

 Exercise – II
1. Although Agrobacterium is the source 6. Each restriction endonuclease functions
of Ti plasmid that has revolutionised by inspecting the length of a DNA
plant genetic engineering one limitation sequence. It cleaves _______ :
of its use is that it: (1) Only the master strand to produce
(1) Cannot infect broad leaf plants
sticky end
(2) Cannot be used on fruit-bearing plants
(2) Sense strand of DNA to produce
(3) Cannot transmit prokaryotic genes
(4) Does not infect cereal plants such as sticky ends
corn and rice (3) Each of the two strands of the

2. Which of the following is not a basis of double helix at specific points in

difference between plasmid and their sugar phosphate backbones
eukaryotic chromosomal DNA ? (4) Messenger RNA to remove exons
a. Presence of histones
b. Single-stranded nature 7. The basic procedure involved in the
c. Nature of nucleotide synthesis of recombinant DNA molecule
d. Linear form of genetic material is depicted below. The mistake in the
(1) b & c only (2) a & d only procedure is :
(3) a, b & d only (4) a, b, c & d
3. Term ‘Disarmed’ in disarmed vector
represents :-
(1) Removal of tumour-inducing genes
from Ti plasmid
(2) Insertional inactivation of -
galactosidase gene
(3) Insertional inactivation of antibiotic
resistance gene
(1) Enzyme polymerase is not included
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(2) The mammalian DNA is shown
4. Which of the following represents an
double stranded
advantage of growing cells in continuous
culture as compared to a shake flask ? (3) Only one fragment is inserted
(1) Cells can be maintained at a (4) Two different restriction enzymes
constant physiological state are used
(2) Most downstream and upstream
processes are continuous in nature 8. Production of a human protein in
(3) Continuous reactors do not need to bacteria by genetic engineering is
be shut down and cleaned regularly possible because :
(4) All of these (1) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA
5. Gene of interest was cloned at site Sal l splicing reactions
in pBR322. The recombinant plasmid will (2) The mechanism of gene regulation is
exhibit resistance to : identical in humans and bacteria
(1) Tetracycline only
(3) The human chromosome can
(2) Tetracycline and Ampicillin
replicate in bacterial cell
(3) Ampicillin only
(4) Broad spectrum of antibiotics (4) The genetic code is universal

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 21

9. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for 13. In r-DNA technology or genetic
ampicillin resistance is transferred into engineering elution means :
E.coli cells and the host cells are spread (1) Remove the DNA from centrifuge
on agar plates containing ampicillin, then: tube after centrifugation
(1) Both transformed and untransformed (2) The separated band of DNA are cut
out from that gel and extracted from
recipient cells will die
the gel piece
(2) Both transformed and untransformed
(3) Separation of the recombinant
recipient cell will grow
protein from recombinant cell
(3) Transformed recipient cells will grow (4) Insertion of recombinant DNA into
and untransformed recipient cells the host cell
will die
14. An example of gene therapy is :
(4) Transformed recipient cells will die
(1) Production of injectable Hepatitis-B
and untransformed recipient cells
vaccine
will grow
(2) Production of vaccines in food crops
10. If haemoglobin (Hb) of a normal individual like potatoes which can be eaten
and a sickle-cell patient are run in (3) Introduction of gene for adenosine
deaminase in persons suffering from
electrophoretic field, they will show:
severe combined immuno-
(1) Same mobilities
deficiency (SCID)
(2) Different mobilities
(4) Production of test tube babies by
(3) Hb of patient will not move at all
artificial insemination and
(4) Hbs are immobile implantation of fertilized eggs
11. Which of the following tools of
recombinant DNA technology is
incorrectly paired with its use:
(1) Restriction enzyme - Production of RFLPs
(2) DNA ligase-that cuts DNA, creating
the sticky ends
(3) DNA polymerase-used in a
polymerase chain reaction to amplify
section of DNA
(4) Reverse transcriptase - production
of cDNA from mRNA

12. Select the incorrect statement for

continuous culture system:
(1) In this used medium is drained out
from one side while fresh medium is
added from other side
(2) In this cells are maintained in their
physiologically most active lag phase
of growth
(3) It produces larger biomass
(4) It shows higher yields of desired product

22 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

 Exercise – III
1. Assertion: Restriction endonucleases 4. Assertion: Cloning vector should have
are also known as molecular scissors. selectable marker.
Reason: It is used to cut DNA at specific Reason: Selectable marker, helps in
identifying and eliminating non-
site.
transformants and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true
selectively permitting the growth of
and reason is the correct
transformants.
explanation of assertion. (1) If both assertion and reason are true
(2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true

(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
2. Assertion: In electrophoresis DNA (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
moves towards anode. 5. Assertion: Retroviruses in animals have
Reason: DNA is +vely charged molecule. the ability to transform normal cells into
(1) If both assertion and reason are true cancerous cells.
and reason is the correct Reason: Retroviruses have the ability to

explanation of assertion. convert protooncogenes into oncogenes.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct
but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. but reason is not the correct
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
3. Assertion: In rDNA technology, the
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
restriction enzymes, which produce
6. Assertion: Micro-injection technique is
sticky ends are commonly used.
used to inject rDNA directly into the
Reason: Sticky ends facilitates the
nucleus of an animal cell.
action of enzyme DNA ligase. Reason: Gene-gun is used to transfer
(1) If both assertion and reason are true rDNA into plant cell.
and reason is the correct (1) If both assertion and reason are true
explanation of assertion. and reason is the correct
(2) If both assertion and reason are true explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct
but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 23

7. Assertion: In case of PCR the new DNA 10. Assertion: Restriction endonuclease restricts
is synthesized on template DNA, one in the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria.
continuous manner and other in Reason: Restriction endonuclease add
discontinuous manner. methyl groups to bacterial DNA.
Reason: PCR is an in vivo process. (1) If both assertion and reason are true
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
11. Assertion: In EcoR I, the letter R is
8. Assertion: Biotechnology deals with derived from the genus of bacteria.
techniques of using live organism or Reason: EcoR I is the name of
enzymes from organisms to produce palindromic nucleotide sequence.
products and processes useful to humans. (1) If both assertion and reason are true
Reason: In vitro fertilization is a part of and reason is the correct
biotechnology. explanation of assertion.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true (2) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct
but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
but reason is not the correct
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. 12. Assertion: Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. is a popular genetic engineer because
this bacteria is associated with the roots
9. Assertion: rDNA technology is superior
of all cereal and pulse crops.
over conventional hybridisation.
Reason: A gene incorporated in the
Reason: rDNA technology allows us to
bacterial chromosomal genome gets
isolate and introduce only one or a set of
automatically transferred into the crop
desirable genes without introducing
with which the bacteria is associated.
undesirable genes into the target organism.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true
(1) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct
and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct
but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

24 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

13. Select the incorrect matching. 15. Match the following enzymes with
their functions
(1) pBR322 - E. coli cloning vector
Column I Column II
(2) EcoR I, Cla I, Hind III - Restriction A Restriction (i) Join the
endonuclease DNA
enzymes
fragments
(3) ROP - Protein involved in the B Exonuclease (ii) Extends
primers on
replication of the plasmid
genomic
(4) PCR - Technique in which multiple DNA
template
copies of the gene (or DNA) of C DNA ligase (iii) Cuts DNA at
specific
interest is synthesized in vitro
position
D Taq polymerase (iv) Removes
14. Which of the following is a correct nucleotides
from the
matching with respect to PCR?
ends of
DNA
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

16. Identify C in the given diagram

(1) tetR (2) ampR

(3) Ori (4) rop
(1) Denaturation - Occurs at room
17. Which of the following is correctly
temperature matched?
(1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens –
(2) Annealing – DNA polymerase is
Tumour
required for this process (2) Thermus aquaticus – cry gene
(3) pBR322 – Enzyme
(3) Extension – Taq polymerase and
(4) Ligase – Molecular scissors
deoxynucleotides are required

(4) Amplification – 1 billion times in 10

cycles

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 25

 Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)
6. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes
[AIPMT – 2006]
which:
1. Two microbes found to be very useful in
(1) Restrict the action of the enzyme
genetic engineering are : DNA polymerase
(1) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium (2) Remove nucleotides from the ends of
tumefaciens the DNA molecule
(2) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed (3) Make cuts at specific positions within
the DNA molecule
bacteriophage
(4) Recognize a specific nucleotide
(3) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp. sequence for binding of DNA ligase
(4) Crown gall bacterium and
7. Which one of the following palindromic
Caenorhabditis elegans
base sequences in DNA can be easily cut
2. Restriction endonuclease : at about the middle by some particular
restriction enzyme ?
(1) Cuts the DNA molecule randomly
(1) 5’_______ AATT _______3’
(2) Cuts the DNA molecule at specific 3’_______ TTAA _______5’
sites (2) 5’_______ A TA_______3’
(3) Restricts the synthesis of DNA inside 3’_______ T A T_______3’
the nucleus (3) 5’_______ TT _______3’
3’_______AT TA_______5’
(4) Synthesizes DNA
(4) 5’_______ ATAT _______3’
[AIMPT – 2009] 3’_______ TA TA_______5’
3. Which one of the following is commonly used [AIPMT Pre – 2011]
in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants ? 8. Given below is a sample of a portion of
(1) Penicillium expansum DNA strand giving the base sequence on
the opposite strands. What is so special
(2) Trichoderma harzianum
shown in it ?
(3) Meloidogyne incognita
5’_____ AATT _____3’
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens 3’_____ TTAA _____5’
(1) Replication completed
4. Polyethylene glycol method is used for :
(2) Deletion mutation
(1) Energy production from sewage (3) Start codon at the 5’ end
(2) Gene transfer without a vector (4) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
(3) Biodiesel production
9. There is a restriction endonuclease
(4) Seedless fruit production called co . What does “co” part in it
[AIMPT – 2010] stand for ?
(1) Colon (2) Coelom
5. Which one of the following is used as
(3) Coenzyme (4) Coli
vector for cloning genes into higher
10. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds
organisms ?
use in:
(1) Rhizopus nigricans (1) Spectrophotometry
(2) Retrovirus (2) Tissue Culture
(3) Baculovirus (3) PCR
(4) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Gel electrophoresis

26 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

 [AIPMT Mains – 2011] 16. The figure below shows three steps (A,
11. Which one of the following techniques B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction
made it possible to genetically engineer (PCR). Select the option giving correct
living organisms ? identification together with what it
(1) Hybridization represents?
(2) Recombinant DNA techniques Region to be amplified
(3) X-ray diffraction
(4) Heavier isotope labelling
[AIPMT Pre – 2012]
12. Which one is a true statement regarding
DNA polymerase used in PCR ?
(1) It is isolated from a virus
(2) It remains active at high temperature
(3) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in
recipient cells
(4) It serves as a selectable marker

13. The figure below is the diagrammatic Options :

representation of the E.Coli vector pBR (1) C-Extension in the presence of heat
322. Which one of the given options stable DNA polymerase
correctly identifies its certain (2) A-Annealing with two sets of primers
component(s) ? (3) B-Denaturation at a temperature of
about 98°C separating the two DNA
strands
(4) A-Denaturation at a temperature of
about 50°C

17. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for :

(1) Constructing recombinant DNA by
joining with vectors
(1) Hind III, ECoRI-selectable markers
(2) DNA finger printing
(2) AmpR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes
(3) Disarming pathogen vectors
(3) Ori-original restriction enzyme
(4) Transformation of plants cells
(4) Rop-reduced osmotic pressure
[NEET – 2013]
[AIPMT Mains – 2012]
18. The colonies of recombinant bacteria
14. Which one of the following represents a
appear white in contrast to blue
palindromic sequence in DNA ?
5'−CATTAG − 3' 5'−GATACC − 3'
colonies of non-recombinant bacteria
(1) (2) because of :
3'−GATAAC − 5' 3'−CCTAAG − 5'
5'−GAATTC − 3' 5'−CCAATG − 3' (1) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in
(3) (4)
3'−CTTAAG − 5' 3'−GAATCC − 5' recombinant bacteria
15. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics (2) Non-recombinant bacteria
are used :- containing beta-galactosidase
(1) As sequences from where replication (3) Insertional inactivation of alpha-
starts galactosidase in non-recombinant
(2) To keep the cultures free of infection bacteria
(3) As selectable markers (4) Insertional inactivation of beta-
(4) To select healthy vectors galactosidase in recombinant bacteria

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 27

19. DNA fragments generated by the [AIIMS – 2015]
restriction endonucleases in a chemical 26. Which one of the following is not a
reaction can be separated by : method of direct gene transfer :-
(1) Restriction mapping (1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(2) Gene gun method
(2) Centrifugation
(3) Biolistic method
(3) Polymerase chain reaction
(4) Electroporation
(4) Electrophoresis
27. Find out correct recognition sequence of
20. Which one is used as vector for gene following restriction endonuclease enzyme :
transfer? (1) Bam HI Eco RI
GGATCC GAATTC
(1) Salmonella typhimurium DNA CCTAGG CTTAAG
(2) Ti plasmid (2) Bam HI Eco RI
GAATCAA TTGCAAC
(3) Antibiotic resistance Amp’ and Ter’ loci CTTAGTT AACGTTG
(4) Ori minus pBR 322 (3) Bam HI Eco RI
GCATGG AGCTCC
21. Which of the following sequence is CGTACC TCGAGG
palindromic ? (4) Bam HI Eco RI
GACTAA GCCTTA
(1) GAATTC (2) ATGCAG CTGATT CGGAAT
CTTAAG TACGTC
(3) CTTAGC (4) TGCATC 28. Which is pallindromic sequence :
GAATCG ACGTAG (1) GAATTC (2) GCAAAG
CTTAAG CGTTTC
22. Which one of the following technique is (3) ATCGGC (4) ATCGCT
used to produce the GM crops ? TAGCCG TAGCGA
(1) Micropropgation
(2) Somatic hybridization 29. Which one is not a restriction enzyme :
(3) r-DNA technology (1) Eco RI (2) Chitinase
(4) Cross breeding (3) Bam HI (4) Hind - II
[AIPMT – 2014] 30. Which one of the following enzyme is
23. Which vector can clone only a small not involved in recombinant DNA
fragment of DNA ? technology :
(1) Bacterial artificial chromosome (1) Exonuclease (2) Endonuclease
(2) Yeast artificial chromosome (3) Ligase (4) Catalase
(3) Plasmid
(4) Cosmid 31. In biotechnology what does vector mean :-
(1) An extra chromosomal DNA that
[(Re-AIPMT) – 2015] replicates autonomously
24. The DNA molecules to which the gene of (2) Carrier of disease
interest is integrated for cloning is called : (3) Plasmid that can transfer gene to
(1) Carrier (2) Transformer host cell
(3) Vector (4) Template (4) Selectable marker

25. The cutting of DNA at specific locations 32. Arrange the processes that occur in PCR
became possible with the discovery of : in sequence :
(1) Ligases (1) Annealing - denaturation - extension
(2) Restriction enzymes (2) Denaturation - annealing - extension
(3) Probes (3) Extension - denaturation - annealing
(4) Selectable markers (4) Denaturation - extension - annealing

28 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

 [(NEET – I) – 2016] 40. The DNA fragments separated on an
33. The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained agarose gel can be visualised after
from : staining with :
(1) Thermus aquaticus (1) Bromophenol blue
(2) Thiobacillus ferroxidans (2) Acetocarmine
(3) Bacillus subtilis (3) Aniline blue
(4) Pseudomonas putida (4) Ethidium bromide
34. Which of the following is a restriction [NEET – 2018]
endonuclease ? 41. The correct order of steps in Polymerase
(1) Hind II (2) Protease Chain Reaction (PCR) is :
(3) DNase I (4) RNase (1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
[(NEET–II) – 2016]
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
35. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
same restriction endonuclease can be
joined to form a recombinant plasmid [NEET – 2019]
using :- 42. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of
(1) Taq polymerase (2) Polymerase III biomolecules can be achieved by
(3) Ligase (4) Eco RI treatment with :
(1) Methanol at room temperature
36. Which of the following restriction
(2) Chilled chloroform
enzymes produces blunt ends ?
(3) Isopropanol
(1) EcoR V (2) Xho
(4) Chilled ethanol
(3) Hind III (4) Sal I
[NEET – 2017] 43. Which one of the following equipments
37. The process of separation and is essentially required for growing
purification of expressed protein before microbes on a large scale, for industrial
marketing is called :- production of enzymes ?
(1) Upstream processing (1) Industrial oven
(2) Downstream processing (2) Bioreactor
(3) Bioprocessing (3) BOD incubator
(4) Post production processing (4) Sludge digester

38. A gene whose expression helps to 44. Following statement describe the
identify transformed cell is known as :- characteristics of the enzyme
(1) Selectable marker (2) Vector Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the
(3) Plasmid (4) Structural gene incorrect statement.
(1) The enzyme cuts the sugar-
39. What is the criterion for DNA fragments
phosphate backbone at specific sites
movement on agarose gel during gel
on each strand.
electrophoresis?
(2) The enzyme recognizes a specific
(1) The larger the fragment size, the
palindromic nucleotide sequence in
farther it moves
the DNA.
(2) The smaller the fragment size, the
farther it moves (3) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at
(3) Positively charged fragments move to identified position within the DNA.
farther end (4) The enzyme binds DNA at specific
(4) Negatively charged fragments do not sites and cuts only one of the two
move strands.

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 29

45. Which of the following features of 49. Given below are four statements
genetic code does allow bacteria to pertaining to separation of DNA
fragments using gel electrophoresis.
produce human insulin by recombinant
Identify the incorrect statemetns.
DNA technology ? Biology :
(1) Genetic code is nearly universal (a) DNA is negatively charged molecule
(2) Genetic code is specific and so it is loaded on gel towards the
(3) Genetic code is not ambiguous Anode terminal
(b) DNA fragments travel along the
(4) Genetic code is redundant
surface of the gel whose
[NEET – 2019 (Odisha)] concentration does not affect
46. Match the following enzymes with their movement of DNA.
functions: (c) Smaller the size of DNA fragment
a. Restriction i Joins the DNA larger is the distance it travels
through it.
endonuclease fragments
(d) Pure DNA can be visualized directly
b. Restriction ii Extends primers
by exposing UV radiation.
exonuclease on genomic DNA Choose correct answer from the options
template given below
c. DNA ligase iii Cuts DNA at (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
specific position (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
d. Taq iv Removes
50. An enzyme catalyzing the removal of
polymerase Nucleotides nucleotides from ends of DNA is :
from the (1) DNA ligase (2) Endonuclease
ends of DNA (3) Exonuclease (4) Protease
Select the correct option from the
51. In RNAi, the genes are silenced using:
following :
(1) ds-RNA (2) ss-DNA
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv d-ii (3) ss-RNA (4) ds-DNA
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii [NEET(UG) – 2020]
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 52. The specific palindromic sequence
which is recognized by EcoRI is:
47. The two antibiotic resistance genes on
(1) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
vector pBR322 are : 3' - CCTAGG - 5'
(1) Ampicillin and Tetracycline (2) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
(2) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
(3) Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline (3) 5' - GGAACC - 3'
(4) Tetracycline and Kanamycin 3' - CCTTGG - 5'
(4) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
48. A selectable marker is used to: 3' - GAATTC - 5'
(1) help in eliminating the 53. Identify the wrong statement with
nontransformants, so that the regard to Restriction Enzymes.
transformants can be regenerated (1) Sticky ends can be joined by using
(2) identify the gene for a desired trait DNA ligases.
in an alien organism (2) Each restriction enzyme functions
by Inspecting the length of a DNA
(3) select a suitable vector for
sequence.
transformation in a specific crop (3) They cut the strand of DNA at
(4) mark a gene on a chromosome for palindromic sites.
isolation using restriction enzyme (4) They are useful in genetic engineering.

30 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

54. The sequence that controls the copy 58. Match the following techniques or
number of the linked DNA in the vector, instruments with their usage :
(a) Bioreactor (i) Separation of
is termed :
DNA fragments
(1) Recognition site
(b) Electroph (ii) Production of
(2) Selectable marker -oresis large quantities
(3) Ori site of products
(4) Palindromic sequence (c) PCR (iii) Detection of
pathogen, based
55. Choose the correct pair from the on antigen –
following: antibody
reaction
(1) Exonucleases : Make cuts at
(d) ELISA (iv) Amplification of
specific positions
nucleic acids
within DNA Select the correct option from following:
(2) Ligases : Join the two DNA (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
molecules (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) Polymerases : Break the DNA
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
into fragments
(4) Nucleases : Separate the two 59. In a mixture, DNA fragments are
separated by :
strands of DNA
(1) Bioprocess engineering
(2) Restriction digestion
[NEET 2020 (COVID-19)] (3) Electrophoresis
(4) Polymerase chain reaction
56. First discovered restriction
60. Spooling is :
endonuclease that always cuts DNA
(1) Amplification of DNA
molecule at a particular point by (2) Cutting of separated DNA bands
recognising a specific sequence of six from the agarose gel
base pairs is: (3) Transfer of separated DNA
fragments to synthetic membranes
(1) EcoR1
(4) Collection of isolated DNA
(2) Adenosine deaminase
(3) Thermostable DNA polymerase 61. Select the correct statement from the
following :
(4) Hind II
(1) Gel electrophoresis is used for
57. In Recombinant DNA technology amplification of a DNA segment.
(2) The polymerase enzyme joins the
antibiotics are used :
gene of interest and the vector DNA.
(1) to keep medium bacteria-free (3) Restriction enzyme digestions are
(2) to detect alien DNA performed by incubating purified
(3) to impart disease-resistance to the DNA molecules with the restriction
host plant enzymes under optimum conditions.
(4) PCR is used for isolation and
(4) as selectable markers
separation of gene of interest.

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 31

 [NEET – 2021] 66. A specific recognition sequence
identified by endonucleases to make
62. During the purification process for
cuts at specific positions within the
recombinant DNA technology, addition
DNA is :
of chilled enthanol precipitates out: (1) Degenerate primer sequence
(1) RNA (2) Okazaki sequences
(2) DNA (3) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
(4) Poly (A) tail sequences
(3) Histones
(4) Polysaccharides 67. During the process of gene amplification
using PCR, if very high temperature is
63. Which of the following is a correct not maintained in the beginning, then
which of the following steps of PCR will
sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase
be affected first ?
Chain Reaction) ? (1) Annealing (2) Extension
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (3) Denaturation (4) Ligation
(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing [NEET – 2022]
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing 68. Which one of the following statement is
not true regarding gel electrophoresis
(4) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
technique?
(1) The process of extraction of
64. DNA strands on a gel stained with
separated DNA strands from gel is
ethidium bromide when viewed under called elution.
UV radiation, appear as : (2) The separated DNA fragments are
(1) Yellow bands stained by using ethidium bromide.
(3) The presence of chromogenic
(2) Bright orange bands
substrate gives blue coloured DNA
(3) Dark red bands bands on the gel
(4) Bright blue bands (4) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA
can be observed in the gel when
65. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction exposed to UV light.
enzyme site within gene ampR that
69. Given below are two statements : one is
confers ampicillin resistance. If this labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
enzyme is used for inserting a gene for is labelled as Reason (R).
-galactoside production and the Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction
is used in DNA amplification
recombinant plasmid is inserted in an
Reason (R): The ampicillin resistance gene
E.coli strain is used as a selectable marker to check
(1) it will not be able to confer transformation
ampicillin resistance to the host cell. In the light of the above statement,
choose the correct answer from the
(2) the transformed cells will have the
options given below:
ability to resist ampicillin as well as (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
produce -galactoside. is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) it will lead to lysis of host cell. (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) it will be able to produce a novel
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
protein with dual ability. (4) (A) is correct but (R) is correct

32 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

70. Given below are two statements : 73. Separation of DNA fragments is done by
Statement I : a technique known as :
Restriction endonucleases recognise (1) Polymerase Chain Reaction
specific sequence to cut DNA known as (2) Recombinant technology
palindromic nucleotide sequence. (3) Southern blotting
Statement II :
(4) Gel electrophoresis
Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA
strand a little away from the centre of 74. The enzyme (a) is needed for isolating
the palindromic site. genetic material from plant cells and
In the light of the above statement, enzyme (b) for isolating genetic material
chose the most appropriate answer from fungus. Choose the correct pair of
from the option given below : options from the following :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II
(1) (a) Cellulase (b) Protease
are correct
(2) (a) Cellulase (b) Chitinase
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II
are incorrect (3) (a) Chitinase (b) Lipase
(3) Statement I is correct but (4) (a) Cellulase (b) Lipase
Statement II is incorrect 75. Pathogenic bacteria gain resistance to
(4) Statement I is incorrect but
antibiotics due to changes in their :
Statement II is correct
(1) Cosmids (2) Plasmids
(3) Nucleus (4) Nucleoid
71. Which of the following is not a desirable
feature of a cloning vector ? 76. Refer to the following statements for
(1) Presence of origin of replication agarose-gel electrophoresis :
(2) Presence of marker gene (a) Agarose is a natural polymer
(3) Presence of single restriction
obtained from sea-weed.
enzyme site
(b) The separation of DNA molecules in
(4) Presence of two or more recognition sites
agarose-gel electrophoresis depends
[NEET – 2022]
on the size of DNA.
(RE-EXAMINATION)
(c) The DNA migrates from negatively-
72. Given below are two statements : one is
charged electrode to the positively-
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
is labelled as Reason (R). charged electrode
Assertion (A) : (d) The DNA migrates from positively-
When a particular restriction enzyme charged electrode to the negatively-
cuts strand of DNA, overhanging charged electrode.
stretches or sticky ends are formed. Choose the most appropriate answer
Reason (R) : from the options given below :
Some restriction enzymes cut the strand (1) (a) and (b) only
of DNA a little away from the centre of (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
palindromic site. (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
In the light of the above statements, (4) (b), (c) and (d) only
choose the correct answer from the
options given below : [NEET – 2023]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A) 77. Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) stained with ethidium bromide will show
is not the correct explanation of (A) (1) Bright orange colour
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) Bright red colour
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (3) Bright blue colour
(4) Bright yellow colour

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 33

78. During the purification process for (1) Pst I (2) Pvu I
recombinant DNA technology, addition (3) EcoR I (4) BamHI
of chilled ethanol precipitates out
84. Which of the following statement is
(1) Polysaccharides (2) RNA incorrect about Agrobacterium
(3) DNA (4) Histones tumifaciens?
(1) It is used to deliver gene of interest
79. In gene gun method used to introduce in both prokaryotic as well as
alien DNA into host cells, microparticles eukaryotic host cells.
of metal are used. (2) 'Ti' plasmid from Agrobacterium
(1) Silver (2) Copper tumifaciens used for gene transfer is
not pathogenic to plant cells.
(3) Zinc (4) Tungsten or gold
(3) It transforms normal plant cells into
80. Main steps in the formation of tumorous cells.
(4) It delivers 'T-DNA' into plant cell.
Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange
these steps in a correct sequence. 85. Match List-I with List-II.
A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into
List-I List-II
the host cell.
(A) Kanamycin (i) Delivers genes into
B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by
restriction enzyme. animal cells
C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment. (B) ClaI (ii) Selectable marker
D. Amplification of gene of interest (C) Disarmed (iii) Restriction site
using PCR. retroviruses
Choose the correct answer from the
(D) KanamycinR (iv) Antibiotic resistance
options given below :
gene
(1) B, D, A, C (2) B, C, D, A
(3) C, A, B, D (4) C, B, D, A Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
81. Which of the following is not a cloning
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
vector?
(1) Probe (2) BAC (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) YAC (4) pBR322 (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

[NEET-2023 (Manipur)] (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

82. Thermostable DNA polymerase used in
86. Which of the following can act as
PCR was isolated from :
molecular scissors?
(1) Thermus aquaticus
(2) Escherichia coli (1) Restriction enzymes
(3) Agrobacterium tumifaciens (2) DNA ligase
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) RNA polymerase

83. Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the (4) DNA polymerase

following site will result in loss of
tetracyclin resistance of pBR322 ?

34 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

 ANSWER KEY

1. Biotechnology Principles and Process

Exercise - I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 2 4 4 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 4 4 3 3 3 1 1 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 4 4 3 4 4 2 3 3 4 2 3 2 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 1 1 3 2 4 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 2 2 1 2 2 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
Ans. 1 1 3 2 4 2 3 2

Exercise - II
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 4 1 1 4 3 3 4 4 3 2 2 2 2 3

Exercise - III
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
Ans. 1 3 1 1 1 2 4 2 1 3 4 4 1 3 2 1 1

Exercise - IV
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 2 1 3 3 3 2 1 1 1 2 4 3 2 1 1 3 1 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 2 4 4 4 2 4 1 2 1 1 4 3 1 2 1 3 2 4 4
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 3 4 3 2 1 2 1 3 3 3 2 1 4 1 4 2 2 2 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69
Ans. 3 4 4 1 4 4 1 3 1

Biotechnology Principles and Processes 35

2 Biotechnology and It’s application
Applications of Biotechnology
Biotechnology, as you would have learnt from the previous chapter, essentially deals with industrial
scale production of biopharmaceuticals and biologicals using genetically modified microbes, fungi,
plants and animals. The applications of biotechnology include therapeutics, diagnostics, genetically
modified crops for agriculture, processed food, bioremediation, waste treatment, and energy
production. Three critical research areas of biotechnology are :
(i) Providing the best catalyst in the form of improved organism usually a microbe or pure enzyme.
(ii) Creating optimal conditions through engineering for a catalyst to act, and
(iii) Downstream processing technologies to purify the protein/organic compound.
Let us now learn how human beings have used biotechnology to improve the quality of human life,
especially in the field of food production and health.

Biotechnological Application In Agriculture:

Let us take a look at the three options that can be thought for increasing food production
(i) Agro-chemical based agriculture;
(ii) Organic agriculture; and
(iii) Genetically engineered crop-based agriculture.

The Green Revolution succeeded in tripling the food supply but yet it was not enough to feed the growing
human population. Increased yields have partly been due to the use of improved crop varieties, but mainly
due to the use of better management practices and use of agrochemicals (fertilisers and pesticides).
However, for farmers in the developing world, agrochemicals are often too expensive, and further
increases in yield with existing varieties are not possible using conventional breeding. Is there any
alternative path that our understanding of genetics can show so that farmers may obtain maximum yield
from their fields? Is there a way to minimise the use of fertilisers and chemicals so that their harmful
effects on the environment are reduced? Use of genetically modified crops is a possible solution.

Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called Genetically
Modified Organisms (GMO). GM plants have been useful in many ways. Genetic modification has:
(i) Made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat).
(ii) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops).
(iii) Helped to reduce post harvest losses.
(iv) Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (this prevents early exhaustion of fertility of soil).
(v) Enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., Vitamin ‘A’ enriched rice.
In addition to these uses, GM has been used to create tailor-made plants to supply alternative
resources to industries, in the form of starches, fuels and pharmaceuticals.
Genetically Modified Crops
A transgenic crop is a crop that contains and expresses a transgene. This crop is known as genetically
modified crops or GM crops.

Two Unique Advantages:

(a) Any gene (from any organism or a gene synthesised chemically) can be used for transfer, and
(b) The change in genotype can be precisely controlled since only the transgene is added into the crop
genome.

Biotechnology and It’s Application 1

Some Applications of Genetically Modified (GM) Crops
(i) To Enhance Nutritional Quality:
• Gene for -carotene synthesis has been transferred to develop Golden rice (vitamin A rich).
• -carotene is the precursor of vitamin A
(ii) To Develop Crops More Resistant to Abiotic Stresses:
Abiotic stress is one of the primary cause of crops losses worldwide. To cope with the detrimental
effects of stress, plants have evolved many biochemical and molecular mechanisms. One of the
well-documented stress responses in plants is accumulation of osmolytes during stress. Although
their actual roles in plant-stress tolerance remain controversial. Recent studies have demonstrated
that the manipulation of genes involved in the biosynthesis of these osmolytes have improved plant
tolerance to drought and salinity in a number of crops. There is renewed hope of understanding
the molecular basis of osmolyte accumulation under stress and manipulating these processes via
genetic engineering.
Ex. Salt tolerant transgenic tomato
(iii) To Develop Herbicide Resistant Crop:
Acetolactate synthetase (ALS) gene can be transferred to develop herbicide resistant plants.
Ex. First transgenic plant was tobacco which was resistant to glyphosate & sulphonylurea.
(iv) To Develop Biopharmaceuticals:
Ex. Hirudin is a protein that prevents blood clotting. The gene encoding hirudin was chemically
synthesized and transferred into Brassica napus. Where hirudin accumulates in seeds. The hirudin
is purified and used in medicine.
(v) To Reduce Post Harvest Losses:
Ex. Transgenic variety of Tomato – Flavr Savr due to the inhibition of polygalacturonase enzyme
which degrades pectin. So that tomato variety remains fresh and retain flavour much longer.
• Flavr Savr tomato has been developed by antisense technology.
(vi) To Develop Pest Resistant Plant:
(a) Insect Resistant
(b) Nematode Resistant
(a) Insect Resistant:
Ex. Bt-Cotton
A soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis, produces crystal [Cry] protein. This Cry protein is
toxic to Larvae of certain insects. Each Cry protein is toxic to a specific group of insects.
The gene encoding cry protein is called "cry gene". This cry gene is isolated and transferred
into several crops. A crop expressing a cry gene is usually resistant to the group of insects
for which the concerned Cry protein is toxic. There are a number of them, for example, the
proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and cryllAb control the cotton bollworms, that of
cryIAb controls corn borer.
However, gene symbol italics, e.g., cry. The first letter or the protein symbol, on the other
hand, is always capital and the symbol is always written in roman letters, e.g., Cry.
Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill certain insects such as
lepidopterans (tobacco budworm, armyworm), coleopterans (beetles) and dipterans (flies,

2 Biotechnology and It’s Application

 mosquitoes). B. thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular phase of their
growth. These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein . The Bt toxin protein exist as
inactive protoxins but once an insect ingest the inactive toxin, it is converted into an active
form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilise the crystals. The activated
toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and create pores that cause cell swelling
and lysis and eventually cause death of the insect.

GM crops are already in cultivation in U.S.A., Europe and several other countries. In India,
some insect resistant cotton varieties expressing cry genes have reached the farmers.
It has been argued that transgenic crops may be harmful to the environment.
Firstly, the transgene may be transferred through pollen from these crops to their wild
relatives secondly GM crops may pollute the enviorment.
Genetic modified food – The food is prepared from genetically modified [transgenic] crop is
called genetically modified food or G.M.Food.
GM food differs from the food prepared from the produce of conventionally developed
varieties mainly in the following aspects.
(1) Firstly, it contains the protein produced by the trangene in question, e.g., Cry protein in
the case of insect resistant varieties.
(2) Secondly, it contains the enzyme produced by the antibiotic resistance gene that was
used during gene transfer by genetic engineering.
(3) Finally, it contains the antibiotic resistance gene itself.
GM foods could lead to the following problems when they are consumed.
(1) Firstly, the transgene product may cause toxicity and or produce allergies.
(2) Secondly, the enzyme produced by the antibiotic resistance gene could cause allergies,
since it is a foreign protein.
(3) Finally, the bacteria present in the alimentary canal of the humans could take up the
antibiotic resistance gene that is present in the GM food.

(b) Nematode Resistant Plant:

Several nematodes parasitise a wide variety of plants and animals including human beings.
A nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great
reduction in yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infestation which was based
on the process of RNA interference (RNAi). RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as
a method of cellular defense. This method involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a
complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA
(silencing).

The source of this complementary RNA could be from an infection by viruses having RNA
genomes or mobile genetic elements (transposons) that replicate via an RNA intermediate.
Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode specific genes were introduced into the host plant
(Figure). The introductin of DNA was such that it produced both sense and anti-sense RNA
in the host cells. These two RNAs being complementary to each other formed a double
stranded (dsRNA) that initiated RNAi and thus, silenced the specific mRNA of the nematode.
The consequence was that the parasite could not survive in a transgenic host expressing
specific interfering RNA. The transgenic plant therefore got itself protected from the
parasite (figure).

Biotechnology and It’s Application 3

 Host plant-generated dsRNA triggers protection against nematode infestation : (a) Roots
of a typical control plants; (b) transgenic plant roots 5 days after deliberate infection
of nematode but protected through novel mechanism.

Biotechnological Applications In Medicine

The recombinant DNA technological processes have made immense impact in the area of healthcare
by enabling mass production of safe and more effective therapeutic drugs. Further, the recombinant
therapeuties do not induce unwanted immunological reponses as is common in case of similar produ
cts isolated from non-human sources. At present, about 30 recombinant therapeutics have been
approved for human use the world over. In India, 12 of these are presently being marketed.
Some applications in medicines are as follows.

(1) Production of Recombinant Therapeutics (Genetically Engineered Insulin):

It is a proteinaceous hormone having 51 Amino acids arranged in two polypeptides A and B having
21 and 30 Amino Acids, respectively and joined by S-S disulphide bridges.
The first genetically engineered insulin obtained by recombinant DNA technique with the help of
E.coli was produced by the American firm, Eli-Lilly on July 5, 1983. It has been given the trade name
humulin and has been approved for clinical use.
Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs.
Insulin from an animal source, though caused some patients to develop allergy or other types of
reactions to the foreign protein. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains: chain A and chain
B, that are linked together by disulphide bridges. In mammals, including humans, insulin is
synthesised as a prohormone (like a pro-enzyme, the pro-hormone also needs to be processed
before it becomes a fully mature and functional hormone) which contains an extra stretch called
the C peptide. This C peptide is not present in the mature insulin and is removed during maturation
into insulin.The main challenge for production of insulin using rDNA techniques was getting insulin
assembled into a mature form. In 1983, Eli Lilly an American company prepared two DNA sequences
corresponding to A and B, chains of human insulin and introduced them in plasmids of E. coli to
produce insulin chains. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by
creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin.

4 Biotechnology and It’s Application

(2) Treatment of Diseases by Gene Therapy :
• A new system of medicine called gene therapy, may be developed to treat some hereditary
diseases such as SCID, haemophilia etc,
• Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has been
diagnosed in a child/embryo. Here genes are inserted into a person's cells and tissues to treat
a disease. Correction of ga genetic defect involves delivery of a normal gene into the individual
or embryo to take over the function of and compensate for the non-functional gene.

The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine deaminase
(ADA) deficiency. This enzyme is crucial for the immune system to function. The disorder is
caused due to the deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase. In some children ADA
deficiency can be cured by bone narrow transplantation; in others it can be treated by enzyme
replacement therapy, in which functional ADA is given to the patient by injection. But the
problem with both of these approaches that they are not completely curative. As a first step
towards gene therapy, lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture outside
the body. A functional ADA-cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is then introduced into these
lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned to the patient. However, as these cells are not
immortal, the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes.
However, if the gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early
embryonic stages, it could be a permanent cure.

(3) Molecular Diagnosis of Diseases

Recombinant DNA technology is one of the important tools for the diagnosis of several diseases. The
diagnostic technique involves the construction of probes consisting of short segments of single
stranded DNA or RNA attached to a radioactive or fluoroscent marker. Such probes are used to
identify infectious agents such as Salmonella (causes food poisoning), Staphylococcus (pus forming
bacterium), hepatitis virus, HIV; muscular dystrophy, cystic fibrosis and so on. Recombinant DNA
technology can also be employed to predict the inheritance of genetic disorders from carrier parents.

Transgenic Animals
Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene are known
as transgenic animals. Transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs, sheep, cows and fish have been produced,
although over 95 percent of all existing transgenic animals are mice.

Biotechnology and It’s Application 5

(i) Normal Physiology and Development: Transgenic animals can be specifically designed to allow the
study of how genes are regulated, and how they affect the normal functions of the body and its
development, e.g., study of complex factors involved in growth such as insulin-like growth factor.
By introducing genes from other species that alter the formation of this factor and studying the
biological effects that result, information is obtained about the biological role of the factor in
the body.
(ii) Study of Disease: Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of how genes
contribute to the development of disease. These are specially made to serve as models for human
diseases so that investigation of new treatments for diseases is made possible. Today transgenic models
exist for many human diseases such as cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer's

(iii) Biological Products: Medicines required to treat certain human diseases can contain biological
products, but such products are often expensive to make. Transgenic animals that produce useful
biological products can be created by the introduction of the portion of DNA (or genes) which
codes for a particular product such as human protein (-1-antitrypsin) used to treat emphysema.
Similar attempts are being made for treatment of phenylketonuria (PKU) and cystic fibrosis. In 1997,
the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein-enriched milk (2.4 grams per litre). The
milk contained the human alpha-lactalbumin and was nutritionally a more balanced product for
human babies than natural cow-milk.

(iv) Vaccine Safety: Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines
before they are used on humans. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the polio
vaccine. If successful and found to be reliable, they could replace the use of monkeys to
test the safety of batches of the vaccine.

(v) Chemical Safety Testing: This is known as toxicity/safety testing. The procedure is the same as
that used for testing toxicity of drugs. Transgenic animals are made that carry genes which
make them more sensitive to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals. They are then
exposed to the toxic substances and the effects studied. Toxicity testing in such animals will allow
us to obtain results in less time.

Transgenics and Their Potential Applications

Transgenic Useful Appications

Bt Cotton Pest resistance, herbicide tolerance, and high yield.
Flavr Savr Tomato Increased shelf-life (delayed ripening) and better nutrient quality
Golden Rice Vitamin A and Fe - rich
Cattles (cow, sheep, goat) Therapeutic human proteins in their milk
Pig Organ transplantation without risk of rejection

6 Biotechnology and It’s Application

 Golden Points

• Transgenic plants are obtained through recombinant DNA technology. First transgenic plant
was tobacco. It contains resistance gene against weedicide (Glyphosate).
• First transgenic animal was mouse containing gene for human growth hormone. This
enlarged mouse was known as Supermouse.
• First introduced transgenic crop in India (2002) is Bt-cotton.
• Bacteria may be used as "Living factories" for synthesizing vitamins, hormones and
antibodies.
• Human insulin (Humulin) was first genetically engineered product produced by an American
firm Eli Lilly–5th July 1983.
• Vaccines are produced by genetic engineering e.g., for Hepatitis-B and Herpes virus).
• Superbug is a genetically modified bacterium (Pseudomonas putida) which is used for
scavenging oil spills (Bioremediation).

Ethical Issues
The manipulation of living organisms by the human race cannot go on any further, without regulation.
Some ethical standards are required to evaluate the morality of all human activities that might help or
harm living organisms.

Going beyond the morality of such issues, the biological significance of such things is also important.
Genetic modification of organisms can have unpredicatable results when such organisms are
introduced into the ecosystem.

Therefore, the Indian Government has set up organisations such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval
Committee), which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the safety of
introducing GM-organisms for public services.

The modification/usage of living organisms for public services (as food and medicine sources, for
example) has also created problems with patents granted for the same.

There is growing public anger that certain companies are being granted patents for products and
technologies that make use of the genetic materials, plants and other biological resources that have
long been identified, developed and used by farmers and indigenous people of a specific region/country.
Rice is an important food grain, the presence of which goes back thousands of years in Asia’s
agricultural history. There are an estimated 200,000 varieties of rice in India alone. The diversity of rice
in India is one of the richest in the world. Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and flavour and
27 documented varieties of Basmati are grown in India.
There is reference to Basmati in ancient texts, folklore and poetry, as it has been grown for centuries.
In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US Patent and Trademark
Office. This allowed the company to sell a ‘new’ variety of Basmati, in the US and abroad. This ‘new’
variety of Basmati had actually been derived from Indian farmer’s varieties. Indian Basmati was crossed
with semi-dwarf varieties and claimed as an invention or a novelty. The patent extends to functional
equivalents, implying that other people selling Basmati rice could be restricted by the patent. Several
attempts have also been made to patent uses, products and processes based on Indian traditional
herbal medicines, e.g., turmeric, neem. If we are not vigilant and we do not immediately counter these
patent applications, other countries/individuals may encash on our rich legacy and we may not be able
to do anything about it.

Biotechnology and It’s Application 7

Bio-Piracy
Bio-piracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other
organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without
compensatory payment.
Most of the industrialised nations are rich financially but poor in biodiversity and traditional knowledge.
In contrast the developing and the underdeveloped world is rich in biodiversity and traditional
knowledge related to bio-resources. Traditional knowledge related to bio-resources can be exploited
to develop modern applications and can also be used to save time, effort and expenditure during their
commercialisation.
There has been growing realisation of the injustice, inadequate compensation and benefit sharing
between developed and developing countries. Therefore, some nations are developing laws to prevent
such unauthorised exploitation of their bio-resources and traditional knowledge.
The Indian Parliament has recently cleared the second amendment of the Indian Patents Bill, that
takes such issues into consideration, including patent terms emergency provisions and research and
development initiative.

8 Biotechnology and It’s Application

 Exercise - I
Application of Biotechnology 8. A genetically engineered bacteria used
for clearing oil spills is :
1. Genetically engineered bacteria have
(1) Escherichia coli
been used in commercial production of :
(2) Bacillus subtilis
(1) Thyroxine
(3) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(2) Testosterone
(4) Pseudomonas putida
(3) Human insulin
(4) Melatonin 9. An example of abiotic stress is ________
2. Important objective of biotechnology in (1) Pest (2) Insect
agriculture section is : (3) Drought (4) Vectors
(1) To produce pest resistant varieties of
10. First transgenic plant :
plants
(1) Potato (2) Tomato
(2) To increase the nitrogen content
(3) Tobacco (4) Maize
(3) To decrease the seed number
(4) To increase the plant weight 11. A GM crop is _________

3. First artificially synthesised hormone is : (1) Mature crop

(1) Secretin (2) Insulin (2) Infected crop

(3) Glucagon (4) Renin (3) Raised to green manure
(4) Transgenic crop
4. Transgenic animal has :
(1) Foreign DNA in all its cells 12. A giant rat is formed in the laboratory,
(2) Foreign RNA in all its cells what is the reason :
(3) Foreign DNA in some of the cells (1) Gene mutation
(4) Both 2 and 3 (2) Gene synthesis
(3) Gene manipulation
5. The protein products of the following Bt
toxin genes cryIAc and cryIIAb are (4) Gene replication

responsible for controlling : 13. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much

(1) Bollworm (2) Roundworm in the news. The prefix “Bt” means :
(3) Moth (4) Fruit fly (1) “Barium – treated” cotton seeds.
(2) “Bigger thread” variety of cotton with
6. A transgenic rice (Golden rice) has been better tensile strength.
developed for increased content of : (3) Produced by “biotechnology” using
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B1 restriction enzymes and ligases
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D (4) Carrying an endotoxin gene from
7. During the processing of the prohormone Bacillus thuringiensis
“proinsulin” into the mature “insulin”:
14. GMO stands for _________
(1) C-peptide is added to proinsulin (1) Genetically Mature Organisms
(2) C-peptide is removed from proinsulin (2) Genetically Mental Organs
(3) B-peptide is added to proinsulin (3) Genetically Modified Organisms
(4) B-peptide is removed from proinsulin (4) Genetically Mutant Organism

Biotechnology and It’s Application 9

15. The cry-gene which is responsible for 23. GEAC makes decisions regarding :
synthesis of a crystalline protein is (1) The validity of GM research
isolated from : (2) The safety of introducing GM
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis organisms for public services
(2) Rhizobium
(3) The validity of biopatents
(3) Bacillus polymyxa
(4) More than one options are correct
(4) Clostridium

16. Which of the following risk factors are 24. The use of bio-resources by multinational
associated with genetically modified companies & other organisation without
food: proper authorisation from the countries
(1) Toxicity & people concerned is known as :
(2) Allergic reaction (1) Biopatent (2) Biopiracy
(3) Antibiotic resistance in microorganism (3) Biowar (4) Biodiversity
present in alimentary canal
(4) All the above 25. The Indian parliament has recently
cleared which amendment of the Indian
17. Gene therapy was first used in the
patents bill :
treatment of:
(1) Albinism (2) Haemophilia (1) 1st (2) 2nd
(3) SCID (4) AIDS (3) 3rd (4) 4th

18. DNA probe is used for : 26. Which of the following peptide chain is
(1) DNA finger printing not present in mature insulin :
(2) Detection of pathogenic bacteria (1) A-peptide (2) B-peptide
(3) Medical genetics to find whether a (3) C-peptide (4) A & B peptide
person carries a particular gene or not
(4) All the above 27. Genetic modification (GM) has been
used to :
19. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have
(1) Create tailor made plants
been used for designing novel :
(1) Bioinsecticidal plants (2) Supply alternative resources to
(2) Bio-mineralization processes industries
(3) Biofertilizers (3) Enhance nutritional value of food
(4) Bio-metallurgical techniques (4) All of the above

20. Bt-cotton is resistant for : 28. The choice of Bt-gene for experiment
(1) Round-worm (2) Fluke-worm
depends upon :
(3) Boll-worm (4) Pin-worm
(1) The host plant/crop
21. Genetically engineered human insulin is (2) Targeted pest/insect
called : (3) Agrobacterium
(1) Humulin (2) Haematin (4) 1 & 2 both
(3) Hybridoma (4) Hybrid
29. Select the incorrect match :
22. The C-peptide is :
(1) Transgenic mice - Polio vaccine
(1) Not present in proinsulin
(2) Rosie cow - human −lactalbumin gene
(2) Present in mature insulin (3) ssDNA/RNA probe - Gene therapy
(3) Removed during maturation of insulin (4) PCR - Molecular diagnosis
(4) Also present in artificial insulin

10 Biotechnology and It’s Application

 Exercise - II
1. Proinsulin is inactive due to presence of: 8. A transgenic food crop which may help
(1) A-Chain in solving the problem of night blindness
(2) B-Chain in developing countries is:
(3) C-Peptide
(1) Starlink maize
(4) All are incorrect
(2) Bt soyabean
2. Bacillus thuringiensis produces a protein
(3) Golden rice
that kills:
(4) Flavr savr tomato
(1) Lepidopterans (2) Coleopterans
(3) Dipterans (4) All of these
9. 95% transgenic animals are :
3. Transgenic animals help humans by (1) Rabbit
(1) Study of normal physiology and (2) Mice
development
(3) Fish
(2) Study of disease and vaccine safety
(4) Cow
(3) Obtaining biological products like
human proteins (𝛼 − 1 𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑦𝑝𝑠𝑖𝑛)
10. GEAC stands for:
(4) All of the above
(1) Genome Engineering Action Committee
4. Transgenic plants are: (2) Ground Environment Action Committee
(1) Plants having no gene
(3) Genetic Engineering Approval
(2) Plants in which gene are present in
an opposite side or transposition Committee
(3) Plants in which genes have no (4) Genetic and Environment Approval
function to perform Committee
(4)Plants in which genes of another
organism have been implanted. 11. –1 antitrypsin is:
(1) An antacid
5. What does Bt stand for in the popular
(2) Used to treat diabetes
crop of Bt cotton?
(1) Biotechnology (3) Used to treat arthritis
(2) Best type (4) Use to treat emphysema
(3) Bacillus tomentosa
12. A probe which is a molecule used to
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis
locate specific sequences in a mixture of
6. Cry protein is obtained from: DNA or RNA molecules could be:
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis (1) A single stranded RNA
(2) Bacillus subtilis (2) A single stranded DNA
(3) Clostridium welchi (3) Either ss–RNA or ss–DNA
(4) E.coli (4) Can be ssDNA but not dsRNA
7. Cry I endotoxins obtained from Bacillus 13. Choose the correct option regarding
thuringiensis are effective against: retrovirus:
(1) Flies (1) An RNA virus that can synthesise DNA
during infection
(2) Nematodes
(2) A DNA virus that can synthesise RNA
(3) Bollworms during infection
(4) Mosquitoes (3) A ssDNA virus
(4) A dsRNA virus

Biotechnology and It’s Application 11

14. The site of production of ADA in the 15. The trigger for activation of toxin of
body is: Bacillus thuringiensis is:
(1) Erythrocyte (1) Acidic pH of stomach
(2) Lymphocytes (2) High temperature
(3) Blood plasma (3) Alkaline pH of gut
(4) Osteocytes (4) Mechanical action in the insect gut

12 Biotechnology and It’s Application

 Exercise – III
1. Assertion: rDNA therapeutics are better 4. Assertion: Bt toxin does not kill Bacillus
than similar products isolated from non- Reason: Bt toxin protein exists in
human sources. Bacillus as inactive protoxins.
Reason: rDNA therapeutics do not induce (1) If both assertion and reason are true
unwanted immunological responses. and reason is the correct
(1) If both assertion and reason are true
explanation of assertion.
and reason is the correct
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
explanation of assertion.
but reason is not the correct
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
explanation of assertion.
but reason is not the correct
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
explanation of assertion.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
5. Assertion: Genetic modification can be

2. Assertion: Alpha – 1- antitrypsin is used used to enhance nutritional value

to treat emphysema. of food.
Reason: Transgenic mice are being used Reason: Vitamin A enriched rice is GMO.
to test the safety of the polio vaccine. (1) If both assertion and reason are true
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct
but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
6. Assertion: Serum and urine analysis are
3. Assertion: ADA deficiency can be cured
not sensitive methods of diagnosis
by bone marrow transplantation
Reason: Early detection of pathogen is
Reason: ADA deficiency can be cured by
enzyme replacement therapy. not possible by these methods.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true (1) If both assertion and reason are true

and reason is the correct and reason is the correct

explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true (2) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

Biotechnology and It’s Application 13

7. Assertion: PCR is now routinely used to 10. Assertion: Insulin is not administered
detect HIV in suspected AIDS patient. orally to diabetic people.
Reason: Very low concentration of Virus Reason: Insulin is digested by our
can be detected by the amplification of digestive enzymes
the nucleic acid by PCR (1) If both assertion and reason are true
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
11. Assertion: A functional ADA cDNA is
8. Assertion: ELISA is used to detect introduced into lymphocytes using
antigen or antibody retroviral vector.
Reason: ELISA is a method of molecular Reason: Disarmed retrovirus can be
diagnosis based on antigen – antibody used to deliver gene of interest in animal
interaction. cells.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true (1) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct
but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
9. Assertion: A double stranded DNA or
12. Which of the following crops are now
RNA tagged with radioactive molecule is
genetically modified by Bt-toxin gene?
used as probe.
(A) Cotton (B) Corn
Reason: Because double stranded DNA
(C) Rice (D) Tomato
or RNA is easily hybridized with single
(E) Potato (F) Soyabean
stranded DNA.
(1) A, B and C only (2) D and E only
(1) If both assertion and reason are true
(3) A and F only (4) All of these
and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. 13. Select the correct matching.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true (1) Lepidopterans–Tobacco bud worm,
but reason is not the correct armyworm
explanation of assertion. (2) Coleopterans–Beetles and bud worm
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) Dipterans–Flies, mosquitoes, spiders
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (4) Aves–Lady bird, hummingbird

14 Biotechnology and It’s Application

14. Some of the steps involved in the 15. Match the columns
production of Humulin are given below. (A) Emphysema 1. Test to detect
Choose the correct sequence. antigen or
(A) Purification of humulin. antibody
(B) Extraction of recombinant gene
(B) Rosie 2. α − 1 antitrypsin
product from E.coli.
(C) Culturing recombinant E. coli in (C) ELISA 3. Protein-enriched
bioreactors. milk
(D) Introduction of recombinant plasmid (D) ROP 4. Codes for proteins
into E. coli. involved in
(E) Synthesis of gene for human insulin plasmid replication
artificially. (1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(F) Insertion of human insulin gene into
(2) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
plasmid
(1) B, A, D, C, E, F (2) A, C, E, F, B, D (3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) E, F, D, C, B, A (4) C, E, B, A, F, D (4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Biotechnology and It’s Application 15

 Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)
[NEET – 2013] [(Re-AIPMT) – 2015]
1. RNAi results in: 7. The DNA molecules to which the gene of
(1) Silencing of m-RNA translation interest is integrated for cloning is called :
(2) Silencing of a specific m-RNA due to (1) Carrier
complementary dsRNA molecule.
(2) Transformer
(3) Silencing of m-RNA molecule
(3) Vector
(4) Silencing of DNA for m-RNA transcription
(4) Template
[AIPMT – 2014]
2. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using 8. Golden rice is a genetically modified
the Southern hybridization technique crop plant where the incorporated gene
does not use : is meant for biosynthesis of :
(1) Electrophoresis (2) Blotting (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B
(3) Autoradiography (4) PCR
(3) Vitamin C (4) Omega 3
[AIIMS – 2014]
9. The introduction of T-DNA into plants
3. Bt-cotton has which of the following
special features ? involves :
(1) This plant is completely resistant to (1) Allowing the plant roots to stand in
insects water
(2) It requires less fertilizers (2) Infection of the plant by
(3) It’s leaf is resistant to pest but boll Agrobacterium tumefaciens
is destroyed by bollworms (3) Altering the pH of the soil, then heat
(4) This plant is resistant to certain insects shocking the plants
[AIPMT – 2015] (4) Exposing the plants to cold for a brief
4. The crops engineered for glyphosate are period
resistant/tolerant to :- [AIIMS – 2015]
(1) Bacteria (2) Insects
10. Match the following columns :
(3) Herbicides (4) Fungi
Column-I Column-II
5. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in A Golden rice i Eli Lilly
plant tissue as pro-toxin is converted B PCR ii Herbert boyer
into active toxin due to :-
C Insulin iii Kary mullis
(1) Acidic pH of the insect gut
D Recombinant iv Peter Bayer
(2) Action of gut micro-organisms
DNA
(3) Presence of conversion factors in
insect gut Option :
(4) Alkaline pH of the insect gut (1) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
6. Which body of the Government of India (2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
regulates GM research and safety of (3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
introducing GM organisms for public (4) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D – i
services ?
11. T-DNA for gene transfer is present in :
(1) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(2) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Research Committee on Genetic (2) Meloidogyne incognitia
Manipulation (3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) Bio-safety committee (4) E.Coli

16 Biotechnology and It’s Application

12. Bt toxin does not show harmful effect on [NEET – 2019]
human and non target insect, because : 17. Use of bioresources by multinational
(1) It is non toxic to animal and human companies and organisations without
(2) It’s receptors are not present in
authorisation from the concerned
humans
(3) Human and other animals have country and its people is called :
resistance against Bt. toxins (1) Bio-infringement (2) Biopiracy
(4) Acidic nature of stomach and (3) Biodegradation (4) Bioexploitation
absence of specific receptor on
human gut. 18. What triggers activation of protoxin to
active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis
[NEET – 2018]
in boll worm ?
13. Which of the following is correct match :
(1) Alkaline pH of gut
Column-I Column-II
(2) Acidic pH of stomach
A ADA-deficiency i -1 antitrypsin (3) Body temperature
B Emphysema ii Bone marrow (4) Moist surface of midgut
transplantation
[NEET – 2019 (Odisha)]
C Insulin iii Diabetes mellitus
19. Which of the following is true for Golden
D Insect resistance iv Ti-plasmid
rice ?
(1) A(ii), B(i), C(iii), D(iv) (1) It is drought tolerant, developed
(2) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv) using Agrobacterium vector.
(3) A(iii), B(iv), C(ii), D(i)
(2) It has yellow grains, because of a
(4) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i)
gene introduced from a primitive
14. Which of the following is commonly variety of rice.
used as a vector for introducing a DNA (3) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene
fragment in human lymphocytes? from daffodil.
(1) Retrovirus (2) Ti plasmid (4) It is pest resistant, with a gene from
(3)  phage (4) pBR 322 Bacillus thuringiensis.
15. In India, the organisation responsible for [NEET(UG) – 2020]
assessing the safety of introducing 20. Exploitation of bioresources of a nation
genetically modified organisms for by multinational companies without
public use is :
authorization from the concerned
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research
country is referred to as:
(ICMR)
(1) Bioweapon (2) Biopiracy
(2) Council for Scientific and Industrial
(3) Bioethics (4) Biowar
Research (CSIR)
(3) Research Committee on Genetic 21. Which of the following statements is not
Manipulation (RCGM) correct ?
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal (1) Genetically engineered insulin is
Committee (GEAC) produced in E.coli.
16. A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a (2) In man insulin is synthesised as a
foreign company, though such varieties proinsulin.
have been present in India for a long (3) The proinsulin has an extra peptide
time. This is related to : called C-peptide.
(1) Co-667 (2) Sharbati Sonora (4) The functional insulin has A and B
(3) Lerma Rojo (4) Basmati chains linked together by hydrogen
bonds.

Biotechnology and It’s Application 17

22. Match the organism with its use in [NEET – 2021]
biotechnology. 26. The laws and rules to prevent
a. Bacillus (i) Cloning
unauthorized exploitation of bio-
thuringiensis vector
b. Thermus (ii) Construction resources are termed as -
aquaticus of first rDNA (1) Biopatenting (2) Bioethics
molecule (3) Bioengineering (4) Biopiracy
c. Agrobacterium (iii) DNA
tumefaciens polymerase 27. When gene targeting involving gene
d. Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins amplification is attempted in an
typhimurium individual's tissue to treat disease, it is
Select the correct option from the
known as:
following:
(1) Biopiracy (2) Gene therapy
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) Molecular diagnosis (4) Safety testing
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
28. Which of the following is not an
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) application of PCR (Polymerase Chain
Reaction) ?
23. Bt cotton variety that was developed by
the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus (1) Molecular diagnosis
thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to : (2) Gene amplification
(1) Insect predators (2) Insect pests (3) Purification of isolated protein
(3) Fungal diseases (4) Plant nematodes (4) Detection of gene mutation
[NEET 2020 (COVID-19)]
29. A specific recognition sequence
24. Match the following columns and select identified by endonucleases to make cuts
the correct option.
at specific positions within the DNA is :
Column – I Column – II
(1) Degenerate primer sequence
a. Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
b. Adenosine (ii) Cellular (2) Okazaki sequences
deaminase defence (3) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
deficiency (4) Poly (A) tail sequences
c. RNAi (iii) Detection of
HIV infection 30. With regard to insulin choose correct
d. PCR (iv) Bacillus options.
thuringiensis (a) C-peptide is not present in mature
(a) (b) (c) (d) insulin.
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) technology has C-peptide.
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.

25. RNA interference is used for which of (d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin
the following purposes in the field of are interconnected by disulphide
biotechnology? bridges.
(1) To develop a plant tolerant to abiotic Choose the correct answer from the
stresses options given below.
(2) To develop a pest resistant plant
(1) (b) and (d) only
against infestation by nematode
(3) To enhance the mineral usage by the (2) (b) and (c) only
plant (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) To reduce post harvest losses (4) (a) and (d) only

18 Biotechnology and It’s Application

 [NEET – 2022] 34. Statements related to human Insulin are
given below. Which statement(s) is/are
31. For effective treatment of the disease, correct about genetically engineered
early diagnosis and understanding its Insulin ?
(a) Pro-hormone insulin contains extra
pathophysiology is very important. stretch of C-peptide
(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of
Which of the following molecular
insulin were produced separately in
diagnostic techniques is very useful for E.coli, extracted and combined by
creating disulphide bond between
early detection? them.
(1) Western Blotting Technique (c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes
was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
(2) Southern Blotting Technique (d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be
processed for converting into a
(3) ELISA Technique
mature and functional hormone.
(4) Hybridization Technique (e) Some patients develop allergic
reactions to the foreign insulin.
32. Transposons can be used during which Choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below :
one of the following ? (1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(2) (b) only
(1) Polymerase Chain Reaction
(3) (c) and (d) only
(2) Gene silencing (4) (c), (d) and (e) only

(3) Autoradiography [NEET – 2022]

(RE-EXAMINATION)
(4) Gene sequencing 35. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
33. In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (a) Gene gun (i) Replacement of
a faulty gene by
(ADA) deficiency, the patient requires a normal healthy
periodic infusion of genetically gene
(b) Gene therapy (ii) Used for transfer
engineered lymphocytes because: of gene
(c) Gene cloning (iii) Total DNA in
(1) Retroviral vector is introduced into
the cells of an
these lymphocytes. organism
(d) Genome (iv) To obtain
(2) Gene isolated from marrow cells
indentical
producing ADA is introduced into copies of a
particular
cells at embryonic stages DNA molecule
(3) Lymphocytes from patient’s blood are Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
grown in culture, outside the body. (1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(2) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(4) Genetically engineered lymphocytes
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
are not immortal cells. (4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

Biotechnology and It’s Application 19

36. Milk of transgenic 'Cow Rosie' was [NEET-2023 (Manipur)]
nutritionally more balanced product for 39. Select incorrect statement, regarding
chemical structure of insulin.
human babies than natural cow milk
(1) Mature insulin molecule consists of
because it contained: three polypeptide chains - A, B and
(1) Human protein –1–antitrypsin C.
(2) Insulin is synthesized as prohormone
(2) Human alpha–lactalbumin
which contains extra stretch of
(3) Human insulin–like growth factor C-peptide.
(4) Human enzyme Adenosine Deaminase (3) C-peptide is not present in mature
(ADA) insulin molecule.
(4) Polypeptide chains A and B are
37. Which of the following methods is not linked by disulphide bridges.

commonly used for introducing foreign 40. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
DNA into the plant cell?
(A) Gene therapy (I) Separation
(1) Agrobacterium mediated transformation of DNA
(2) Gene gun fragments
(B) RNA (II) Diagnostic
(3) 'Disarmed pathogen' vectors interference test
(4) Bacteriophages for AIDS
(C) ELISA (III) Cellular
[NEET – 2023] defence
(D) Gel (IV) Allows
38. Which one of the following techniques
Electrophoresis correction
does not serve the purpose of early of a gene
diagnosis of a disease for its early defect
Choose the correct answer from the
treatment? options given below:
(1) Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Assay (ELISA) technique (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(2) Recombinant DNA Technology (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

(3) Serum and Urine analysis

(4) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
technique

20 Biotechnology and It’s Application

 ANSWER KEY

Biotechnology and It’s Application

Exercise - I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 1 2 1 1 1 2 4 3 3 4 3 4 3 1 4 3 4 1 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 1 3 4 2 2 3 4 4 3

Exercise - II
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 4 4 4 4 1 3 3 2 3 4 3 1 2 3

Exercise - III
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 4 1 1 4 1 3 1

Exercise - IV

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 4 3 4 2 3 1 2 1 3 4 1 1 4 4 2 1 3 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 2 4 2 1 2 4 3 1 3

Biotechnology and It’s Application 21

 1 Organisms and Populations

Introduction
• The term ecology was coined and described by E.Haeckel. The term ecology was first authentically
used by Reiter.
• Father of ecology – Reiter
• Father of Indian Ecology – Prof. Ram Deo Mishra
• The study of interaction or inter-relationship of organism with their environment is called ecology.

Organism  Environment
• Organism and environment are always interdependent, inter related or mutually reactive.
Branches of Ecology: It is based on organisation level –
1. Autoecology or Species Ecology:
Study of the relation of a species with its environment is known as autoecolocy
2. Synecology or Biocoenology or Community Ecology:
Study of the relation of the group of different species with their environment. Ex. community,
ecosystem, biome ecology.

Aims & Scope of Ecology

• The main aim of ecology is to study the interrelationship between organisms. i.e., Plants, animals
and environment.
• Studies like pollution, soil conservation, soil erosion, proper use of land, afforestation, control on
deforestation, regulation of overgrazing, flood control, maintenance of soil fertility etc., are also
done in the ecology.
Biosphere
↑
Biome
↑
Size-Increases
Ecosystem
Complexity-increases
↑
Community
↑
Population
↑
Organism (individual)
Ecological Hierarchy
Some Ecological Terminology
• Organism: Basic unit of study of ecology.
• Species: Similar organisms having the potential to interbreed and producing fertile offspring.

• Population: Group of individuals of species inhabiting a given area at a given time.

Organisms and Populations 1

• Biological Community: Assemblage of different populations in an area, interacting with each other.
Like competion, Predation, host. Prasite interaction etc.

• Ecosystem: Biological communities integrated with it's physical (abiotic) environment through the
exchange of energy and recycling of nutrients.

• Land Scape: A unit of land with natural boundary having a mosaic of patches, which represents
different ecosystems.

• Biome: Large regional unit or ecosystem characterised by major vegetation type (flora) and
associated founa in a specific climatic zone.

• Biosphere: All the earth's terrestrial biomes and aquatic systems constitute biosphere. It includes
lower atmosphere the land and the oceans, rivers and lakes, where living beings are found.
• Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of biological organisations, that are organisms,
population, communities and biomes.

Organisms and it’s Environment

• Ecology at the organismic level is actually physiological ecology which study that how different
organisms are adapted to their environment in terms of their survival and reproduction.

• An organism is the smallest unit of ecological hierarchy and basic unit of ecological study.

• It may be small, large, unicellular or multicellular.

• It has defined life span and organized life cycle (birth to death)

• The rotation of earth round around sun and the tilt of axis cause annual variation in the intensity
and duration of temperatures. It results in formation of different seasons.

Population

A group of individuals (members) of same species living at one place (specific geographical area)
constitute a population.

(A) Local Population or Demes (Sub Groups of Population):

Population of organism inhabiting a particular area. eg. Homo sapiens inhabiting hills, plains.

(B) Sister Population:

Different population of same species of organisms which are found in different places are known
as sister population.

Hills Plains

Local population Local population

Sister population

2 Organisms and Populations

(C) Metapopulation:
A set of local population which are interconnected by dispersing individuals.
1. Endemic Species of Endemism
A species which is found only in a particular area is known as endemic species.
e.g. Metasequoia is found only in valley of China, Kangaroo in Australia
2. Keystone Species: The species having much greater influence on community characteristics,
relative to their low abundance or biomass are called Keystone species.
• Keystone species regulate relative abundance of other species.
• Removal of keystone species affects species diversity and relative abundance of other
species in community. For example, in tropical forest different species of Fig are
Keystone species as they produce large quantity of fruits. During food scarcity, these
fruits are eaten by monkeys, birds, bats and other vertebrates. So by protecting
Fig trees, these animals dependent on them are also conserved.
• Very few species work as keystone species.
• Tiger in forest and Kangaroo rat in desert are keystone species.
3. Link Species or Critical Link Species: The species which establish essential link with other
species to help in vital activities.
• Mycorrhizal fungi in soil are critical link species as they establish essential link in
absorption of nutrients (Phosphate) from soil provide to host plants.
• Some critical link species provide food for network species.
• Pollinator species like ants, bee, birds which helps in pollination and seed dispersal.
• Tropical rain forests are rich in critical link species, due to high degree of animal
dependent pollination and dispersal due to high species diversity.

Community/Biological Community/Biotic Community

• Biotic community is the organization of populations of different species which are interdependent
and interact with each other in a habitat.
• Large number of biotic communities are found in nature due to-
• Existence of diverse habitat with characteristic environmental conditions.
• Co-occurrence of different species whose tolerance range overlap with environmental
conditions obtained in that habitat.
• When similar conditions are repeated at another location the same biotic community established
there.
• Each biotic community posses ecological characteristics which differentiate it from another
community.

Characteristics of Biotic Community:

(A) Species Composition/Community Diversity: The kinds of species (Plants and Animals) present in a
community represents it's species composition.
• Species composition are different in different biotic communities, even in same community in
different season like plant species.
• More the productive habitat more the diversity of species in a community. For example, coral
reef and tropical rain forest show high species diversity while desert community show low
species diversity.

Organisms and Populations 3

 • The species diversity includes the total number of species present in community and the
relative abundance of these species.
• More is the diversity, higher is the stability of a community.

(B) Species Dominance / Dominance: - The highest number of organisms of a species present in a
community (in terms of number and biomass) is called dominant species.
• Communities are generally named after their dominant species. For example, forest community
with dominance of pine trees is called Pine forest; grassland community represents dominance
of grasses.
• Communities are also named after important environmental factors like desert community with
dry conditions, marine community due to saline conditions of ocean.
(C) Stratification: It represent the vertical layering of vegetation or different layers occupies by
different species.
• The vertical stratification provides physical structure to the plant community, in which many
life forms of plants and animals live in.
For Example:
(i) Stratification in Forest Ecosystem:
Layer I (Top most) - Forest Canopy Formed By Large Trees.
Layer II - Understory tree layer (shrubs)
Layer II - Under shrub layer
Layer III - herb layer
Layer IV (Bottom) - Forest floor (lower most).
(ii) Stratification in Lake
In deep lake, zonation or stratification may be according to the need of light. Lake is
differentiated into different zones.
A. Littoral Zone: This zone is found at bank of lake with very shallow water or marshy bank
is present. Rooted vegetation is found in this zone.
B. Limnetic Zone: This is the zone of lake water, where light reaches in sufficient amount
to entire surface area. In this region phytoplanktons, different types of floating plants,
suspended and submerged plants are present.
C. Profundal Zone: It is very deep area of the lake where light does not reach. Only
heterotrophs are present in this zone.
Benthic Zone: It is mud covered bottom of water body. Sediment characteristics
determine the type of organisms in this region. Decomposers like bacteria and fungi are
found in this zone. Some molluscs are also found.

Littoral
zone Limnetic
zone

Photic
zone
Profundal
(aphotic)
Benthic zone
zone

4 Organisms and Populations

 • Significance of Stratification: Vertical stratification leads to increase in number of species
and leads to efficient use of resources of a habitat by different types of plants.
• In aquatic ecosystems, the stratification from surface to bottom is determined by
light penetration, temperature profile and oxygen profile.

Population (Demography)

Characteristics of Population
(i) Natality:
• The increase in number of individuals in a population under given environmental conditions is
called Natality.
• Birth, Hatching, Germination, Vegetative propagation cause increase in number of individuals
of population.
• The increase in number of individuals in unit area and time is called Natality or Birth rate.

(ii) Mortality:
• The loss of individuals due to death in a population under given environmental conditions is
called mortality.
• Death of number of individuals of a population over a unit time is called Mortality.
• Population have many features different from a individual. Like individuals have birth and
death, while population has birth rate (Natality) and death rate (Mortality).
Abiotic : Light, Temp., Water, Soil, Space, Nutrients
• Affected by environment
Biotic : Food, Predator, Pathogen, Parasite, Competitor
• In a population these rates are called as per capita birth and death. It can be calculated as
for example In a pond 20 lotus plants in last year, 8 new plants are added means current
population is 28.

8
So birth rate of population is = 0.4
20

4
• If out of 20 lotus plants 4 are died then death rate of populations is = 0.2
20
(iii) Sex Ratio:
• An individual is either male or female, but a population has sex ratio. i.e., ratio of male and
female like 60% of population are female and 40% are male.
• Can be determined in species having sexual dimorphism.
• For humans sex ratio - number of females per 1000 males (according to census 2011 in India
sex ratio is 940 female per 1000 males).
(iv) Age Pyramid:
• A population at any given time is composed of individuals of different ages.
• The representation of population age is carried out by constriction of age pyramid. 

Organisms and Populations 5

 • If the age distribution (percent individuals of a given age or age group) is plotted for the
population. the resulting structure is called Age pyramid.
• For human population, the age pyramid generally show age distribution of males and females
in a combined diagram.
• Age pyramid reflects the growth status of the population. i.e.,
(A) Growing (Expanding) (B) Stable (C) Declining
• Various age groups in a population determine it's reproductive status. In a population three
age groups i.e., Reproductive, Pre-reproductive and Post reproductive are considered as
ecological ages.
• Distribution of age groups influence the population growth.

Post-reproductive

Reproductive
Pre-eproductive
Expanding Stable Declining
Fig.: Representation of age pyramids for human population.

(v) Population Density (N)or Population Size:

1 The size of the population is represented by population density. 
2 The size of the population tell us a lot about its status in the habitat.
3 Population density- Total number of individuals present per unit area or volume at a given
time.
4 The change in population size is used to evaluate various ecological process like outcome of
competition of member of one species with another species impact of predactor or the effect
of pesticide.
5 Population density of a given area is known by several ways.
(a) Total number
(b) Biomass or percent cover.
(c) Relative density
(d) Indirect count.
For example 50 tree of a species grown per hectare.

Birth Rate (+)

Death Rate (–)

• Population density is also affected by Immigration (+) 

Emigration (–)

Migration (+/–)

6 Organisms and Populations

 Immigration:Increase in population due to entry of individuals into habitat from elsewhere during
given period of time.
Emigration: The number of individuals of population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere
during given time period.
Migration: The large scale movement of animals from one environment to another.
• Wild animals counted by - Pug mark, faecal pellet analysis, methods.

• Greater density of plants in rainy season than in dry season.

• Population size is determined by available resources like nutrients, water etc. at a given time.

• So if 'N' is population density at time 't' then at time t + 1. It's density is:

Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]

Immigration
(I)

+ Population –
Natality Mortality
Density
(B) (D)
(N)

Emigration
(E)

• Under normal conditions, birth and deaths are the most important factors influencing
population density. The other two factors assuming importance only under special conditions.

Biotic Potential and Environmental Resistance

• Biotic Potential: The inherent maximum capacity of an organism to reproduce or increase in

number.

• Biotic Potential (symbol 'r') can be realised only when environmental conditions are most
favourable. So that natality rate is maximum and mortality rate is minimum. In this condition
population size increase at maximum rate.

• The value of r is an important parameter to asses impact as environmental factors (Biotic or

abiotic) an population growth.

• Nature keeps a check on expression of biotic potential. With increase in population size, the
environmental resistance (against population) increase.

• Environmental resistance represents the limiting effect of abiotic (water, space) and biotic factors
(food, competition). Which do not allow organisms to attain their biotic potential and keep the
population size at much lower level.

Organisms and Populations 7

Population Growth Forms/Growth Models
• Population have characteristics patterns of growth with time known as population growth form.
• The population growth form (Characteristic pattern of growth in unit time) is of two types.

(i) J-shaped or Exponential or Geometric Growth Form: (When resources in the habitat are
unlimited)
• In the case of J-shaped growth from, the population grows exponentially, and after
attaining the peak value, the population may abruptly crash. The exponential growth
cannot be sustained infinitely because not only environment is ever changing, food and
space are also limited.
• For example, many insect populations show explosive increase in numbers during the
rainy season, followed by their disappearance at the end of the season. The J-shaped
growth form is represented by the following exponential equation:
• The integral from of exponential growth equation will be

• Where, dN/dt is the rate of change in population size,

‘r’ is the intrinsic rate of increase,
(Birth -Death) (b–d) = (per capita birth rate) – (per capita deat rate) Nt = NOert
• e = The base of natural log
‘t’ time period
‘N’ is the population size.
• For Norway rate 'r' is 0.015 for flour beetle it is 0.12.
In India in 1981 'r' value for human population was 0.0205.

(ii) S-shaped or Sigmoid or Logistic or Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth Form (When resources present
in environment are limited)
• S-shaped or sigmoid growth form shows an initial
gradual increase in population size, followed by an
exponential increase and then population size is
saturated or it becomes almost constant. This slow-
down following the exponential phase, occurs due to
increasing environmental resistance. In such cases,
plotting of the rate of increase of population over time
gives an S-shaped or sigmoid curve.
• Generally, the population size stabilises with time, with
minor fluctuations around this upper limit. The
maximum number of individuals of a population that can
be sustained indefinitely in a given habitat, represents
its carrying capacity (K). The S-shaped sigmoid growth
from is represented by the following equation, which
includes an expression for environmental resistance:
dN  K -N   N
= rN   = rN  1- K 
dt  K   
• Where, dN/dt, r and N are the same as in the equation for J-shaped growth form, and
(K – N)/K or (1 – N/K) stands for environmental resistance.

8 Organisms and Populations

Life History Variations:
• Populations evolve to maximise their reproductive fitness, also called Darwinian fitness (high r
value), in the habitat in which they live.
• Under a particular set of selection pressures, organisms evolve towards the most efficient
reproductive strategy.
• Some organisms breed only once in their lifetime (Pacific salmon fish, bamboo) while others breed
many times during their lifetime (most birds and mammals). → Breeding habit
• Some produce a large number of small-sized offspring (Oysters, pelagic fishes) while others
produce a small number of large-sized offspring (birds, mammals). → Number and size of
offsprings.
• Ecologists suggest that life history traits of organisms have evolved in relation to the constraints
imposed by the abiotic and biotic components of the habitat in which they live.
• Evolution of life history traits in different species is currently an important area of research being
conducted by ecologist.
r-strategists k-strategists

Density independent Density dependent

More impact of environmental changes Less impact of environmental changes

1. Small sized organisms Large sized organisms

2. Produce large number of, small sized Produce few offspring, of large size Ex. Birds
offspring Ex. Oyster, Pelagic fishes and Mammals

3. Short life spam Long life span

4. Some of them may reproduce only Reproduce more than once in life time Ex.

one in life time Ex. Pacific Salmon Birds, Mammals - Human, Whale, Aractic tern,
Tiger, Elephant, Rhino ect.
fish, Bamboo

Concept Builder

1. Ecology describes
(1) Interactions between living organisms only
(2) Interactions between members of a single spices only
(3) Interactions of organisms among themselves as well as with their surrounding abiotic
components
(4) Intraspecific competitions only

2. Which of the following is not true for a species ?

(1) Members of a species can interbreed
(2) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species
(3) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species
(4) Variations occur among members of a species

3. Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?

(1) Stratification (2) Natality (3) Mortality (4) Sex-ratio

Organisms and Populations 9

 4. Monarch butterfly escapes from predators by ?
(1) Foul smell (2) Bitter taste
(3) Colour combination (4) Rough skin

5. Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense ?

(1) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s nest
(2) The female anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans
(3) Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother
(4) Head lice living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair

6. Large Woody Vines are more commonly found in:

(1) Alpine forests (2) Temperate forests
(3) Mangroves (4) Tropical rainforests

7. Cuscuta is an exmaple of:

(1) Predation
(2) Endoparasitism
(3) Ectoparasitism
(4) Brood parasitism

8. What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid ?

Post-reproductive

Reproductive

Pre-reproductive

(1) Expanding population (2) Vanishing population

(3) Stable population (4) Declining population

9. The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation :

 N–K 
(1) dN/dt = rN  
 N 
 N–K 
(2) dt/dN = Nr  
 K 
 K –N 
(3) dN/dt = rN  
 K 
(4) dN/dt = rN

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Ans. 3 2 1 2 4 4 3 4 3

10 Organisms and Populations

Species Interactions/Population Interactions
Ecological Interactions / Interspecific Interactions:
(1) Positive or Beneficial Interaction: Member of one or both the interacting species are benefitted but
neither is harmed.
(2) Negative Interaction: One or both interacting species are harmed.
(1) Positive or Beneficial Interactions:
(a) Mutualism (+/+) or Symbiosis:
Positive interspecific integration in which members of two different species completely depend
on each other for growth and survival, physical contact is present in between both the
interacting species. It is obligatory relationship. Both are benefited.
e.g. 1. Termites and Flagellates (Trichonympha)
2. Lichens
3. Mycorrihizal association - Boletus in roots of pinus.
4. Yucca plant and Pronuba insects –
5. Fig Tree and Wasp Species:
In many species of fig trees, there is a tight one to one relationship with the pollinator
species of wasp, It means that a given fig species can be pollinated only by its partner
wasp species and no other species. The female wasp uses the fruit not only as an
oviposition (egg-laying) site but uses the developing seeds with in the fruit for
nourishing its larvae. The wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching for
suitable egg-laying sites. In return for the favour of pollination the fig offers the wasp
some of its developing seeds, as food for the developing wasp larvae.
6. Bees and Orchid Flower:
Orchids show diversity of floral patterns, which have evolved to attract the right
pollinator insect (bees and bumblebees) and ensure guaranteed pollination by it.
The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs ‘’sexual deceit’’ to get pollination done by a
species of bee. One petal of its flower resemblance to the female of the bee in size,
colour and markings. The male bee is attracted to what it perceives as a female, pseudo
copulates with the flower and during that process is dusted with pollen from the flower,
it transfers pollen to it and thus, pollinates the flower.

Note: Species showing symbiotic relations show the property of co evolution and co extinction.

(b) Commensalism (+ / 0):

Association between members of two species in which one is benefitted (Commensal) while
other is almost unaffected.
e.g. Bauhinia, Tinospora
• Epiphytes: Small plants grow on other plants in tropical rain forest. They utilise only the
space of host plant for light and humidity.
e.g. Orchids, Hanging mosses

Organisms and Populations 11

 • Epizoanes: Those animals which depend on plants or other animals.
Sucker fish (Echeneis) - Shark
Pilot fish - Shark
E. coli bacteria - Man (intestine)
Clawn fish - Sea anemone
Barnacles - Whale
Cattle egret birds - Cattle
(c) Proto-Cooperation (+/+) :
Association in which both organisms are benefited but can live separately. It is a facultative or
optional or occasional association also called as non-obligatory relationship.
e.g. ,
• Hermit crab - Sea anemone
• Tick bird (Red-biled or yellow biled) - Rhinoceros
• Crocodile - Bird

Note:
Scavenging: Association in which one partner called scavenger or saprobiont, eats the dead
bodies of other animals, which have naturally or killed by another animal.
e.g. Jackal, Vulture, Ant, Crow
• Helotism: Association in between two organism, when one behaves as a master and another
as slave. e.g. Lichen
(2) Negative Interaction (Antagonism)/Detrimental:
• Two type of negative interaction:
(A) Exploitation (B) Amensalism (C) Competition

(A) Exploitation: One species harms the other by making its direct or indirect use for support,
shelter or food. It is of three types:
(a) Parasitism
(b) Predation

(a) Parasitism (+ / –): This association involves individuals of two species of different size
in which smaller (Parasite) is benefitted and larger (host) is harmed. The parasite gets
nourishment and shelter from host but does not kill the host.
• Impact on host :Parasites may reduce the survival, growth and reproduction of the
host and reduce its population density. They might render the host more vulnerable
to predation by making it physically weak.
• Parasites and hosts tend to co-evolve that is, if the host evolves special mechanisms for
rejecting or resisting the parasite, the parasite has to evolve mechanisms to counteract
and neutralise them, in order to be successful with the same host species.
• Adaptation shown by parasites :
• Loss of unnecessary sense organs,
• presence of adhesive organs or suckers to cling on the host,
• loss of digestive system,
• high reproductive capacity.
• Complex life cycle (Intermediate host)
Examples: (a) Ectoparasites – Leech, Lice, Ticks, Copepods on fishes.
(b) Endoparasites – Human liver fluke, Ascaris.

12 Organisms and Populations

 • Hyper parasitism → A parasite living on another parasite
e.g. Bacteriophages on bacteria.
• Brood parasitism → Parasitism in which the parasitic bird (cuckoo)
lays its eggs in the nest of its
host (crow) and lets the host incubate them, this relation is known
as brood parasitism.
• Holo parasite → Parasite which are totally dependent upon the host
for their requirement
e.g. Rafflesia, (Total root parasite)
Cuscuta (Total stem parasite)-a parasitic plant that is commonly
found growing on hedge plants, has lost its chlorophyll and leaves in
the course of evolution. It derives its nutrition from the host plant
which it parasitizes.
• Hemiparasite → Parasite which partially depend on the host
e.g. Viscum − on oak 
 both are partial stem parasite
Loranthus − on mango
Note:
Female Anopheles mosquito is not considered as parasite.

(b) Predation (+ / –): A free living organism which catches and kills another species for food.
• All the herbivores are predators.

Significance of Predators
• Predators acting as conduits for energy transfer across tropic levels, predators play other
important roles.
• They keep prey populations under control in the absence of predators, prey species could
achieve very high population densities and cause ecosystem instability. When certain exotic
species are introduced into a geographical area, they become invasive and start spreading fast
because the invaded land does not have its natural predators.
• The prickly pear cactus introduced into Australia in the early 1920's caused havoc by spreading
rapidly into millions of hectares of rangeland. Finally, the invasive cactus was brought under
control only after a cactus feeding predator (a moth Cactoblastiscactorum) from its natural
habitat was introduced into the country.
• Biological control methods adopted in agricultural. Pest control are based on the ability of the
predator to regulate prey population.
• Predators also help in maintaining species diversity in community, by reducing the intensity of
competition among competing prey species. In the rocky intertidal communities of the American
Pacific Coast the starfish Pisaster is an important predator. In a field experiment, when all the
starfish were removed from an enclosed intertidal area, more than 10 species of invertebrates
became extinct within a year because of interspecific competition.
• If a predator is too efficient and overexploits its prey, then the prey might become extinct and
following it, the predator will also become extinct due to lack of food. This is reason why
predators in nature are 'prudent'.

Organisms and Populations 13

 • In some animals, the capacity to blend with surroundings or camouflage is a common
adaptation. Some on their bodies, which make it difficult to distinguish them from shadows and
branches, or from their surrounding. Camouflage:


• Prey species have evolved various defences to lessen the impact of predation. Some species of insects
and frogs are cryptically-coloured (camouflaged) to avoid being detected easily by the predator. Some
are poisonous and therefore avoided by the predators. The Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to
it's predator birds because of a special chemical presents in its body. The butterfly acquires this
chemical during its caterpillar stage by feeding on poisonous weed. (Asclepious)
• For plants, herbivores are predators. About 25% of all insects are phytophagous (feeding on
plant parts and plant sap) are predators. Plants have specific adaptations or morphological and
chemical defence against herbivores.
• Thorns - in Acacia, Cactus.
• Many plant produce and store chemicals that can make herbivore sick or inhibits feeding or
disrupts digestion reproduction or even kill.

• The weed Calotropis growing in abandoned fields, produces highly poisonous cardiac glycosides
and that is why you never see any cattle or goats browsing on this plant.

• A wide variety of chemical substances that we extract from plants on a commercial scale
(nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium, etc....,) are produced by them actually as
defences against grazers and browsers.

(B) Amensalism (– / 0):

Amensal = (–) Inhibitor = (0)

• In this interaction one species is inhibited by toxic secretion of another spcies. Inhibitor is
neither benefitted nor harmed.

Amensalism examples –
1. Penicillium plant (Penicillin) → Kill Bacteria
Type of Amensalism:
(i) Antibiosis (ii) Allelopathy

(C) Competition (–, –) → Interaction in which the fitness of one species is significantly lowered in the
presence of another species. According to Darwin, the struggle for existence and survival of the fittest
in nature, shown that interspecific competition is a potent force in organic evolution.
• Competition is best defined as a process in which the fitness of one species (measured
in term of its 'r' the intrinsic rate of increase) is significantly lowered in the presence of
another species.
• Totally unrelated species could also compete for the same resource. For instance, in
some shallow South America lakes visiting flamingoes and resident fishes compete for
their common food, the zooplankton in the lake.
• It is generally believed that competition occur when closely related species compete for
the same resources that are limiting, but this is not entirely true.

14 Organisms and Populations

 • Resources need not be limiting for competition to occur; in interference competition,
the feeding efficiency of one species might be reduced due to the interfering and
inhibitory presence of the other species, even if resources (Food and Space)
are abundant.
• It is relatively easy to demonstrate in laboratory experiments, as Gause and other
experimental ecologists did, when resources are limited the competitively superior
species will eventually eliminate the other species, but evidence for such competitive
exclusion occurring in nature is not always conclusive.
• Gause’s Law: No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely in a habitat.

• Strong and persuasive circumstantial evidence does exist, however in some cases. The
Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Island became extinct within a decade after goats were
introduced on the island, apparently due to the greater browsing efficiency of the goats.
This is called 'competitive exclusion'.

• Guase's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing
for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior one will be
eliminated eventually. This may be true if resources are limiting but not otherwise. More
recent studies do not support such gross generalisation about competition.

• While they do not rule out the occurrence of interspecific competition in nature, they
point out that species facing competition might evolve mechanisms that promote co-
existence rather than exclusion.

• One such mechanism is 'resource partitioning'. If two species compete for the same
resource, they could avoid competition by choosing, for instance, different times for
feeding or different foraging patterns.

• MacArthur showed that five closely related species of warbler living on the same tree were
able to avoid competition and co-exist due to behavioural difference in their foraging activities.

• A species whose distribution is restricted to a small geographical area because of the

presence of a competitively superior species, is found to expand its distributional range
dramatically when the competing species is experimentally removed. It is called
competitive release. One such example is Connell's elegant field experiments showed
that on the rocky sea coasts of Scotland, the larger and competitively superior barnacle
Balanus dominates the intertidal area, and excludes the smaller barnacle Chathamalus
from that zone.

• When superior barnacle Balanus was experimentally removed from the area then
Chathamalus increased its distribution.

Note:In general, herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by

competition than carnivores.

Organisms and Populations 15

 Special Point

• Climate/Weather: Short term properties of the atmosphere (Temperature, Pressure, Humidity, Rainfall,
Sun-shine, Cloud cover and Wind) at a given place and time is weather and average weather of an area
is climate. Weather change in hours, day, week while climate is a long term property.
• Microclimate: Climatic conditions that present at a local scale or in area of limited size.
• It is an immediate climate (real climate) of an organism which is different from the average climate
of region. eg. Forest floor, burrow and surface of desert.
• Habitat: Place where an organism live on or place occupied by an entire biological community.
• Microhabitat: Subdivision of habitat.
• Ecological Niche: Word given by Grinnel. The range of conditions that an organism can tolerate, the
resource it utilize and it's functional role in ecological system. It is a occupational address or
functional status of a species in an ecosystem. Each species has a distinct niche and no two species
can occupy same niche in a habitat.
• Ecotone: The transition zone in between two communities is called ecotone or tension zone. It has
greater number of species and density or it is a transition zone between two communities where
one type of community is modified into another type of community is known as ecotone.
Ex.: Sea shore, Estuary.
• Edge effect: Species which occur most abundantly and spend their time in ecotone are called edge
species. The tendency to increase variety and density of some organism at the community border
is known as edge effect.
Ex.: Species diversity is high in estuary.
• Biotic potential (Reproductive potential or potential ability): The term biotic potential was first
used by Chapmann.
Under most favourable environmental conditions the maximum reproductive capacity of an
species is known as biotic potential.
• Vitality: Capacity of normal growth metabolism and reproduction for survival of a organism or
species. It depends upon weight of plant, stem height, root length, leaf number etc.

16 Organisms and Populations

Organisms and Populations 17
 Concept Builder

1. Which one of these is not an example of key stone species :

(1) Mycorrhiza (2) Fig tree in tropical forest
(3) Lion in forest (4) Kangaroo rat in desert
2. Which one is not critical link species :
(1) Mycorrhiza (2) Insect between plant
(3) Rabbit between grass and wolf (4) Lion in forest
3. Which one is not a functional character of community:
(1) Energy flow (2) Food web complexity
(3) Mineral cycle (4) Dominance
4. An association in which one organism might render the host most vulnerable to predation
by making it physically weak is known as :
(1) Parasitism (2) Predation (3) Amensalism (4) Competition
5. Key stone species are
(1) High number or bio-mass, high influence on the community
(2) High number of bio-mass, low in influence on the community
(3) Low number or bio-mass, high influence on the community
(4) Low number or bio-mass, low influence on the community
6. Which of the following is most appropriately defined?
(1) Commensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefitted and the other is
neither benefitted nor harmed.
(2) Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and may
kill it
(3) Competition is defined as a process in which the fitness of one species is significantly
higher in the presence of another species
(4) Mutualism is a relationship in which one species is benefitted whereas the other is
unaffected
7. A flowering plant offer rewards to pollinators directly and indirectly such as protective and
reproductive rewards. Possibly it will be:-
(1) Mutual association of both (2) Always non-obligatory association
(3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism
8. Which helps in maintaining species diversity in a community:-
(1) Parasites (2) Predators (3) Herbivores (4) Facultative parasites
9. Macth Column I with Column II:-
Column I Column II
A. Ammensalism i. One population is benifited and other is harmed.
B. Commensalism ii. Two dissimilar species living together in close association.
C. Symbiosis iii. Heterotrophic organism that ingest other organism.
D. Parasitism iv. One population is inhibited but other is not affected.
v. One population is benifited bout other is not affected.
(1) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-i (2) A-iv, B-ii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (4) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Ans. 1 4 4 1 3 1 1 2 1

18 Organisms and Populations

 Exercise – I
Organism & its Environment 9. Father of Indian ecology is:
1. Ecology takes into account: (1) Prof. R Mishra
(1) Environmental factors only (2) G.S. Puri
(2) Plant adaptations only (3) S.C. Pandeys
(3) Effect of plants on environment (4) Prof. N. Dudgeon
(4) Relationships between organisms 10. Species ecology is:
and their environment (1) Autecology (2) Synecology
(3) Palaeo ecology (4) Forest ecology
2. Autecology means the study of:
(1) Effect of temperature on vegetation 11. Which of the biomes exhibit distinct
(2) Effect of soil on vegetation stratification into stories ?
(3) Ecology of individual organism (1) Temperate biome
(4) Effect of precipitation on vegetation (2) Chapparal biome
(3) Tundra biome
3. Synecology is the study of:
(4) Tropical rainforest biome
(1) Environment
(2) Plant community 12. A total parasite is nutritionally:
(3) Individual (1) A photoautotroph
(4) Population (2) A chemoautotroph
(3) A photoheterotroph
4. The transitional zone between two
(4) A chemoheterotrophs
different communities is called:
(1) Niche (2) Ecotone 13. Which of the following statement is
(3) Eked (4) Ecotype correct ?
(1) Two species within given community
5. Biotic factors are:
can have exactly the same niche.
(1) All the living organisms which influence
(2) Two species within given community
other organisms
cannot have exactly the same niche
(2) Factors of atmosphere which affect life
(3) Two species can live permanently
(3) Chemical factors of soil which affect life
together
(4) Physical factors of soil which affect life
(4) Both (2) & (3)
6. Vegetation of Sundarbans is:
14. Biotic potential refers to:
(1) Desert type
(1) Increase of population under optimum
(2) Temperate evergreen
conditions
(3) Mangrove type
(2) Increase of population under given
(4) Monsoon type
conditions
7. Vallisneria and Hydrilla are examples of: (3) Increase of population under natural
(1) Floating and anchored conditions
(2) Suspended hydrophyte (4) Increase of population under stress
(3) Submerged hydrophyte conditions
(4) A free floating hydrophyte 15. Which of the following counter acts
8. Endemic plants: biotic potential ?
(1) Cosmopolitan (1) Limitation of food supply
(2) Occur in a particular area (2) Predation
(3) Occur at high altitudes (3) Competition
(4) Occur on north pole (4) All of the above

Organisms and Populations 19

 16. Which of the following is the keystone 23. Which of the following equation is/are
species in tropical forest ? correct for the population density (Nt+1)
(1) Fig (2) Pinus at time t + 1 ?
(3) Cycas (4) Fungi Nt = density at time ‘t’
17. Species which are present at ecotone is B = Natality
known as: D = Mortality
(1) Ecotone species I = Immigration
(2) Keystone species E = Emigration
(3) Link species (1) Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I – D + E)]
(4) Edge species (2) Nt = Nt+1 + [(B + D) + (I + E)]
(3) N t+1 = Nt + (B + D – I – E)]
18. In a population unrestricted reproductive
capacity is called as: (4) None of the above
(1) Biotic potential (2) Fertility 24. In a population there are higher number
(3) Carrying capacity (4) Birth rate of preproductive individuals, moderate
19. What is true for individuals of same number of reproductive individuals are
species ? present. This type of population
(1) Live in same niche represents: -
(2) Live in same habitat (1) Population of developed countries
(3) Interbreeding (2) Population of developing country
(4) Live in different habitat (3) Stable growth
20. Find the odd one out: (4) Declining population
(1) Lianas in tropical rain forest 25. All the living organisms and non-living
(2) E. coli in large intestine of man factors of the earth constitute:
(3) Pilot fish and shark (1) Biosphere (2) Community
(4) Rafflesia on roots of forest tree (3) Biome (4) Association
21. July 11 is observed as: Major Abiotic Factor & Response to Abiotic
(1) World population Day
Factor
(2) No Tobacco Day
(3) World Environment Day 26. What ecological factors are most strong
(4) World Health Day determinants of various biomes:
(1) Soil and wind
22. In the diagram given below, which of the
(2) Light and wind
following option correctly represents A, B
(3) Temperature and precipitation
and C.
(4) pH and humidity
27. Which of the following is a direct dominant
ecological factor which affects the
vegetation of a place ?
(1) Temperature (2) Altitude
(3) Soil (4) Wind
28. In general environmental condition which of
the following represents partial regulators ?

(1) A = Death rate, B = Birth rate, (1) (2)

C = Emigration
(2) A = Birth rate, B = Death rate,
C = Emigration
(3) A = Emigration, B = Death rate,
C = Birth rate
(3) (4)
(4) A = Death rate, B = Emigration,
C = Birth rate

20 Organisms and Populations

29. Which of the following factors cannot be 36. Which of the following are characteristic
regarded as belonging to a non living feature of population ?
environment ? (1) Birth rate
(1) Rainfall (2) Death rate
(2) Light (3) Sex ratio
(3) Temperature (4) All of the above
(4) Interspecific competition 37. The carrying capacity of a population
30. Factors which relate to form and mean:
behaviour of the earth's surface are (1) The rate at which the density of
called: individual increase over time
(1) Biotic (2) Edaphic (2) The maximum number of individual
(3) Topographic (4) Climatic which can be supported in a given
environment
31. In the given factor vegetation of any
(3) The proportion of individual which are
place is primarily determined by: most responsible for population growth
(1) Rainfall (4) The minimum number of individual
(2) Amount of soil water necessary to avoid extinction
(3) Soil type
(4) Amount of light 38. The actual rate of growth of population
is the difference between the:
32. Scavengers are: (1) Number of adult and number of new born
(1) Carnivores (2) Predators (2) Size last year minus death rate
(3) Decomposers (4) All of the above (3) Number of breeding and non-breeding
Population and Population Atributes individual
(4) Birth rate & Death rate
33. Complete the following equation by
putting one of the following option 39. Which equation shows logistic growth ?
respectively. For constant size K −N
population: Birth + ..... = Death + ........ (1) dN/dt =rN  
 K 
(1) Emigration, immigration,
(2) dN/dt = rN
(2) Immigration, emigration
(3) dN/dt = rN(1+N/K)
(3) Emigration, population density
(4) Nt = N0ert
(4) Immigration, population density
34. Which of the following set of value 40. The number of individual in reproductive
would result in a population with a age is more than pre-reproductive phase in:
growth rate of zero ? (1) Declining population
b = birth d = death (2) Stable population
(3) Expanding population
i = immigration e = emigration
(4) First decline then stable
(1) b = 1000 d = 500 i = 750 e = 1000
(2) b = 1000 d = 500 i = 1000 e = 1000 41. Which equation shows exponential
(3) b = 1000 d = 500 i = 1500 e = 1000 growth ?
(4) b = 1000 d = 500 i = 500 e = 1000 (1) dN/dt = – rN
(2) dN/dt = rN
35. The population of a place tends to
increase when: K – N
(3) dN/dt = rN  
(1) Predation increases  K 
(2) Emigration occur
K + N
(3) Immigration occur (4) dN/dt = rN  
(4) Reproductivity decrease  K 

Organisms and Populations 21

 42. J-shaped curve is formed in: 49. Which is not true for J-shaped growth
(1) Logistic growth curve?
(2) Exponential growth (1) Exponential phase is prolonged
(3) Limited growth (2) Population never grows beyond
(4) 2 & 3 Both carrying capacity
(3) Population crash occur
43. S-shaped growth curve is obtained in: (4) Population seldom reaches equilibrium
(1) Logistic growth
50. The exponential increase in insect
(2) Exponential growth
populations during rains is finally
(3) Limited growth controlled by:
(4) 1 & 2 Both (1) Environmental stress
44. Proportion of young individuals is (2) Reproductive potential
(3) Growth rate
highest in:
(4) Carrying capacity
(1) Declining population
(2) Stable population 51. Which statement is not related to S-
(3) 1 & 2 Both shaped populations curve ?
(4) Expanding population (1) Environmental resistance suddenly
become effective
45. When a population reaches up to (2) Exponential phase is followed by
carrying capacity of environment than ? decline phase
(1) Mortality rate = Birth rate (3) Mass mortality and population crash
(2) Mortality rate > Birth rate occurs
(3) Mortality rate < Birth rate (4) Both (1) & (3)
(4) Birth rate > Mortality rate 52. The age pyramid with broad base
46. An Urn shaped population age pyramid indicates:-
(1) High percentage of young individuals
represents:
(2) Low percentage of young individuals
(1) Growing population
(3) High percentage of old individuals
(2) Static population
(4) Low percentage of old individuals
(3) Declining population
(4) Threatened population 53. In a decline population of a country
(1) Number of pre-reproductive is more
47. Ability of an environment to support a than reproductive.
population is called its: (2) Number of pre-reproductive is less
(1) Biotic potential than reproductive
(2) Purifying capacity (3) Number of pre-reproductive is equal
(3) Carrying capacity to reproductive
(4) Environmental resistance (4) Reproductive are less than post
reproductive.
48. In the equation for S-shaped population
54. In a population birth rate is 0.15 and
dN K – N death rate is 0.08 during a unit time
growth = rN   , r represents:
dt  K  period. What is the value of (intrinsic
(1) Carrying capacity rate of natural increase) for given
(2) Environmental resistance population ?
(3) Intrinsic growth rate (1) 0.23 (2) 0.07
(3) 0.05 (4) 0.25
(4) Population size

22 Organisms and Populations

55. A population has more young individuals, 62. The protoco-operation is also called as:
compared to older individuals. What (1) Facultative predation
would be the status of the population (2) Facultative parasitism
after some years: (3) Non-obligatory mutualism
(1) It will decline (4) Non-commensalism
(2) It will stabilize
63. Which of the following does not show
(3) It will past decline and then stabilize
commensalism ?
(4) It will increase
(1) Epiphytes growing on a tree
Population Interaction (2) Rhizobium in Soyabean
56. In commensalism: (3) Small fish surviving on the excreta
(1) Both partners are harmed of large fish
(2) Both partners are benefited (4) E.coli residing in the intestine of human
(3) None of the partners benefited
64. Which of the following ecological
(4) One partner is benefited, other is
relationship between pairs of organism
unaffected
is different from the other pairs ?
57. Mutualism means: (1) Fish - Algae
(1) Living apart with benefit to one and (2) Cow - Grass
harm to another partner (3) Fungus - Wheat
(2) Living together with benefit to only (4) Giraffe – Shrub
one partners
(3) Living together with harm to both 65. Crow also incubates the eggs of:
partners (1) Pigeon (2) Dove
(4) Living together with benefit to both (3) Koel (4) Weaver bird
partners 66. Inhibition of growth of plants by release
58. When one organism inhibits another of certain chemicals by higher plants is
organism without a significant gain (OR) called:
Antagonism between two organism (1) Antibiosis (2) Allelopathy
through gases or allochemicals is called ? (3) Predation (4) Mutualism
(1) Parasitism (2) Mutalism
67. Bee dance is a mode of:
(3) Amensalism (4) Commensalism
(1) Mating
59. Mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association (2) Grouping
between: (3) reproduction
(1) Fungi and roots of higher plants (4) Communications
(2) Algae and roots of gymnosperms
68. Which of the following interaction is not
(3) Algae and bryophytes
a positive interaction ?
(4) Algae and fungi
(1) Flower and pollinator
60. Mark the hyperparasite: (2) Plant and herbivore
(1) Bacteriophage (2) Bird (3) Legume plant and N2 fixing organism
(3) Tapeworm (4) Man (4) Lichen
61. The relationship between a climber and 69. Which of the following is not an example
the host corresponds to: of predation ?
(1) Mutualism (1) Browsing by goats
(2) Parasitism (2) Killing of deer by lion
(3) Neutralism (3) Killing of small fish by shark
(4) Commensalism (4) Ticks on dogs

Organisms and Populations 23

 70. Among the following a partial parasite is: 72. One of the following is hemi-parasite:
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungi (1) Viscum (2) Cuscuta
(3) Viscum (4) Cuscuta (3) Rafflesia (4) Monotropa

73. In a new habitat which is just being

71. Which of the following is predator ?
colonised which will play significant role
(1) Cow (2) Bird
in population growth:-
(3) Insect (4) All
(1) Birth rate (2) Emigration
(3) Migration (4) Immigration

24 Organisms and Populations

 Exercise - II

Organism & its Environment 8. Why small animals are not found in polar
area mostly?
1. Basic unit of ecological study is:
(1) Because they have a smaller surface
(1) Organism
area relative to their volume
(2) Species
(2) because they have a larger volume
(3) Population
relative to their surface area
(4) Ecosystem
(3) Because they have a smaller
2. The different organisms inhabiting a metabolic rate
common environment belongs to the (4) because they have a larger surface
same: area relative to their volume
(1) Species (2) Genus
9. Which of the following statement is
(3) Population (4) Community
false w.r.t adaptations?
3. 'Edge effect' refers to: (1) Many xerophytic plants have thick
(1) Occurrence of ecophenes and cuticle and sunken stomata on leaf
ecotypes in a community epidermis
(2) Low diversity of organisms in ecotone (2) Some xerophytic plants have special
(3) High diversity of organisms in ecotone photosynthetic pathway (CAM) that
(4) Defence of territories by organisms enables their stomata close during
4. Evergreen forest with needle leaves are: day
(1) Tropical forests (3) Opuntia has spines (modified leaves)
(2) Temperate forests and photosynthetic phylloclade
(3) Coniferous forests (modified stem)
(4) None of these (4) All adaptations are genetically fixed
in all organisms
5. Sal and teak are found in -
(1) Tropical rain forest 10. Statement - I : Many species of small
(2) Tropical deciduous forest plants growing in forests are adapted to
(3) Temperature board leaf forest photosynthesise optimally under very
(4) Temperature needle leaf forest low light conditions
Statement - II : These plants are
6. Biosphere refers to -
constantly overshadowed by tall
(1) Plants of the world
canopied tress
(2) Special plants
(1) Statement I and statement II are
(3) Area occupied by living beings
correct but statement II is not
(4) Plants of a particular area
correct explanation of statement I.
7. Which one of the following is correct (2) Statement I and statement II both
matching of a plant, its habit and the are correct statement is correct
forest type where it normally occurs ? explanation of statement I.
(1) Prosopis, tree, scrub (3) Statement I right and satatement II
(2) Saccharum, grass, forest wrong
(3) Shorea robusta, herb, tropical rain forest (4) Statement I wrong and satatement II
(4) Acacia catechu, tree, coniferous forest right

Organisms and Populations 25

 Population Interactions 16. Regions of hot temperatures and wet
climate, will most likely be found in
11. Which one of the following is a matching
pair of certain organism(s) and the kind of biomes, whereas in the regions of hot
association? temperature and dry climate you will
(1) Shark and sucker fish-commensalism find _____
(2) Algae and fungi in lichens-mutualism (1) Desert, tropical
(3) Orchids growing on trees-parasitism (2) temperature, arid
(4) Cuscuta (dodder) growing on other (3) Tropical, desert
flowering plants-epiphytism (4) Tundra, chaparral

12. What will happen if the number of 17. When resources are limited, the
organisms of the species are increased competitively superior species
at a place ? eventually eliminate the other species. It
(1) Inter species competition is relatively-
(2) Intra species competition (1) Easy to demonstrate it in natural
(3) Both condition
(4) None (2) Easy to demonstrate it in laboratory
13. The Great Barrier Reef along the east experiments
coast of Australia can be categorized as - (3) Easy to demonstrate it in ooth
(1) Population (2) Community natural condition and laboratory
(3) Ecosystem (4) Biome experiments
(4) Difficult to demonstrate it in both
14. Which of the following is a correct pair -
natural condition and laboratory
(1) Cuscuta - parasite
experiments
(2) Orchid - insectivorous
(3) Opuntia - predator 18. Which is not related to S-shaped
(4) Capsella - hydrophyte population curve?
15. Match the list-I with list-II and select (1) Environmental resistance suddenly
correct answer: becomes effective
(2) Exponential phase is followed by
List–I List–II decline phase
(A) Seeds and (i) Ammensalism (3) Mass mortality and population crash
Birds occurs
(B) Copepods (ii) Commensalism (4) (1) and (3)
and fishes
19. Go through the population growth
(C) Parthenium (iii) Predation
and other dN
formula = rN
plants dt
(D) Branacles (iv) Parasitism Now select the correct option-
on whale (1) As population gets larger, its rate of
A B C D growth increases
(1) II III I IV (2) Represents growth as a continuous
(2) II IV I III process
(3) III IV I II (3) r is constant and N is variable
(4) III I IV II (4) All

26 Organisms and Populations

20. Which of the following statements 24. Which of the following is not entirely
about competition is false? true fact?
(1) It can limit the distribution of a (1) Competition occurs when closely
species related species complete for the
same resources that are limiting
(2) It can limit the abundance of a
(2) Totally unrelated species could
species
compete for the same resource
(3) It can increase the differences
(3) Resources need to be limiting for
between species competition to occur in interference
(4) It can make two species become competition, the feeding efficiency
more a like of one species might be reduced to
the interfering and inhibitory
21. You never see cattle or goats browsing
presence of the other species, even
on weed calotropis. Why? if resources are plenty
(1) The plant produces highly poisonous (4) A complex interplay of interspecific
tannins interactions and environmental
(2) The plant produces quinine which is variability characterizes community
bitter in taste structure
(3) The plant produces poisonous 25. Select correct statement
cardiac glycosides (a) Orchid epiphytic on Mango is
(4) The plants produces a chemical commensalism
which makes the animals away from (b) Bird laying eggs in the nest of another
plant for incubation shows brood
parasitism
22. Choose the odd one w.r.t. parasitism- (c) Most animals and plants maintain a
(1) Parasites show adaptations like loss constant internal temperature
of digestive system and high (d) One species harmed, other
reproductive capacity. unaffected in amensalism
(2) Parasite may reduce the survival, (1) a, b and d (2) a, c and d
(3) a, b and c (4) All
growth and reproduction of host.
(3) Life cycles of ecto parasites are more 26. Two closely related species competing
complex for the same resources cannot co-exist
(4) Brood parasitism is seen in birds. idefinitely and the competitively inferior
one will be eliminated eventually . A
23. Which of the following is correct about statement is related to above
host-specific parasites? statement-
(1) Such parasites can parasitise only a (a) This may be true if resources are
single species of hest limiting
(2) Both host and parasite tend to co- (b) This may be true if resources are not
limiting
evolve
(c) Above Principle is Gause's
(3) If host evolves special mechanisms
Competitive Exclusion Principle
for rejecting the parasite, the (d) Above principle is a Conclusion of
parasite has to evolve mechanism Darwin's life struggle and survival of
counteract and neutralize them to the fittest
succeed with the host species. (1) a & c (2) b & c
(4) All (3) only c (4) a, c & d

Organisms and Populations 27

 27. The population of an insect species
shows on explosive increase in no.
during rainy season followed by its
disappearance at the end of the season.
What does this show -
(1) The population of it's predators
increase enormously
(2) S-shaped/sigmoid growth of these
insect
(3) The food plants mature and die at
the end of rainy season
(4) The population growth curve is J-
shape

28 Organisms and Populations

 Exercise – III

1. Assertion (A): Population ecology is an 5. Assertion (A): Predators helps in

important area of ecology. maintaining species diversity in a
Reason (R): It links ecology to population community.
genetics and evolution. Reason (R): Predators reduce the
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is intensity of competition among competing
the correct explanation of the (A) prey species.
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
2. Assertion (A): Size of population is one (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
of the dynamic parameters of study-
6. Assertion (A): Competition is best
population characteristics.
defined as a process in which fitness (r)
Reason (R): Depending on food
of one species significantly lower in
availability, predation pressure and
presence of another species.
adverse weather it keeps changing. Reason (R): Competition leads to either
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is short supply of resources or it shows
the correct explanation of the (A) interference.
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
3. Assertion (A): The logistic growth model
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
is considered a more realistic one.
Reason (R): Resources for growth for 7. Assertion (A): Resource partitioning can
most organism/populations are finite avoid competition.
and become limiting sooner or later. Reason (R): Resource partitioning leads
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is to different times for feeding or
the correct explanation of the (A) different for raging patterns.
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4. Assertion (A): Exotic species introduced (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
in new geographical area can cause
8. Assertion (A): Host and parasite tend to
havoc by rapid spreading.
co-evolve.
Reason (R): Biotic potential of exotic
Reason (R): Many parasites have evolved
species is always higher. to be host specific.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Organisms and Populations 29

 9. Assertion (A): All parasites are tend to 13. What is a keystone species ?
cause physical weakness in host. (1) A common species that has plenty of
Reason (R): Parasites might render the
biomass, yet has fairly low impact on
host more vulnerable to predation by
the community's organization
making it physically weak.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (2) A rare species that has minimal
the correct explanation of the (A) impact on the biomass and on other
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is species in the community
not the correct explanation of the (A) (3) A dominant species that constitutes a
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
large proportion of the biomass and
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
which effects many other species
10. Assertion (A): Female mosquito is not
(4) A species which makes up only a
considered as parasite although it needs
small proportion of the total
our blood for reproduction.
Reason (R): Parasitism is aimed to obtain biomass of a community, yet has a
either food or shelter, reproduction huge impact on the community's
success is not the base of parasitism. organization and survival
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) 14. Lichens are well known combination of an
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is algae and a fungus where fungus has:
not the correct explanation of the (A) (1) An epiphytic relationship with the alga
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) A parasitic relationship with the alga
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) A symbiotic relationship with the alga
11. Assertion (A): Plant and animal
(4) A saprophytic relationship with the alga
interactions often involve co-evolution
of the mutualists. 15. Select incorrect statement about predators:
Reason (R): Co-evolution of the
(1) Predators are prudent in nature
mutualists is one of the safe guard
(2) Predators are responsible for their
against cheaters.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is prey species extinction.
the correct explanation of the (A) (3) Predators maintains species diversity
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is of their prey species.
not the correct explanation of the (A) (4) Predators regulates relative abundance
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
of their prey species.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

12. Assertion (A): The life is interesting and 16. Key stone species of community:
most surprised phenomenon of nature. (A) Regulate species diversity of community
Reason (R): It's reflected by ecological (B) Regulates relative abundance of
conflict and cooperation among
species in community
members of a population and among
(C) Connects the two individuals of
populations of a community or even the
molecular traffic inside a cell. different species
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (D) Are always predators
the correct explanation of the (A) (1) A, B, C, D
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (2) A, B
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) C, D
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) A, B, D

30 Organisms and Populations

17. Which one of the following is incorrect? 20. Several marine invertebrate and fishes
(1) Biological control methods adopted in present in depth of ocean where
agricultural pest control are based pressure is 100 time more than natural
on the ability of the predatorto
regulate prey population atmospheric pressure then that we feel
(2) Predators also help in maintaining these organism how present in more
species diversity in a community by pressure. Main reason is
increasing the intensity of (a) These animals develop their body
competition among competing prey such that in which cavity like swim
species
(3) In the rocky intertidal communities bladder absent - animals in which
of the American Pacific Cóast the these cavity present destroy in high
starfish pisaster is an important pressure due to squeezing
predator. (b) In these animals bones and meat soft
(4) In a field experiment, when all the and loose for protection from high
starfish were removed from an
enclosed intertidal area, more than pressure
10 species of invertebrates became (c) TMO (Tri methylemine oxide)-it
extinct within a year, because of attach with sensitive protein and
interspecific competition. inhibition of pressure in inhibitor
18. Match the column I with column II and (d) TMO, lactate dehydrogenase enzyme
choose the correct option- give protection for brust of muscles
Column I Column II (e) Cerine phosphoethanolemine - this
(A) Protoco- (i) Tiger and deer protect proteins from effect of
opration
(B) Commensalism (ii) Cuscuta on pressure
Cissus (1) a, c, d (2) b, c, d
(C) Parasitism (iii) Sucker fish (3) a, c, e (4) a, b, c, d, e
and shark
(D) Predation (iv) Crab and sea 21. Which of the following is false?
anemone (1) In a population birth rate and death
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 rate refer to per capita births and
(2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 death respectively
(3) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(2) The size of a population for any
(4) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
species is a static parameter
19. Which of the following statements (3) In nature we often rarely isolated
regarding species interdependence are
single individuals of any species
true-
I. An association of two species where (4) Ecological effects of any factors on a
one is benefitted and other remains population are generally reflected in
unaffected is called mutualism. its size/population density
II. An interspecific association where
both partners derive benefit from 22. Match the following and choose the
each other is called commensalism. correct combination from the options
III. A direct food relation between two given below.
species of animals in which one
animal kills and feeds on another is Column I Column II
referred as predation. a. Herbivores-Plants (i) Commensalism
IV. A relationship between two species b. Mycorrhiza-Plants (ii) Mutualism
of organisms where both the c. Sheep-Cattle (iii) Predation
partners are benefitted from each d. Orchid-Tree (iv) Competition
other is called symbiosis.
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(1) I and II only
(2) III and IV only (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(3) II and III only (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(4) II and IV only (4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

Organisms and Populations 31

 23. Assertion: The Mediterranean orchid 25. Find out the correct sequence of A, B, C,
Ophrys employs 'sexual deceit' to get D and E-
pollinated by some male bees.
Reason: Plant-animal interactions never Species A Species B Name of Interaction
involve co-evolution. + + A
(1) Both assertion and reason are true – B Competition
and the reason is the correct + – C
explanation of the assertion + – Parasitism
(2) Both assertion and reason are true + D Commensalism
but the reason is not the correct – O E
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false (1) A-mutualism, B-(0), C-Predation, D-
24. (-), E-Amensalism
Birth rate = B Death Rate = D (2) A-mutualism, B-(-), C-Amensalism,
Emigration = E Immigration = I D-(0), E-Predation
Column-I Column-II (3) A-mutualism, B-(-), C-Predation, D-
(0), E-Amensalism
A. Population is stable I. B + I > D + E
(4) A-mutualism, B-(+), C-Predation, D-
B. Population is increasing II. B + I = D + E
(0), E-Amensalism
C. Population is decreasing III. B + I < D + E
IV. B + E > D + I

(1) A - II, B - I, C - III

(2) A - II, B - IV, C - III
(3) A - III, B - IV, C - I
(4) A - I, B - II, C – IV

32 Organisms and Populations

 Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)
[NEET UG-2013] [Re-AIPMT-2015]
1. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached
6. An association of individuals of different
to the shell lining of hermit carb. The
species living in the same habitat and
association is: having functional interactions is:
(1) Amensalism
(1) Population (2) Ecological niche
(2) Ectoparasitism
(3) Symbosis (3) Biotic community (4) Ecosystem
(4) Commensalism
7. In which of the following interactions
[AIIMS-2014] both partners are adversely affected ?
2. Which of the following is an example of (1) Mutation (2) Competition
mutualism ? (3) Predation (4) Parasitism
(1) Worm in intestine
(2) Fig and wasp 8. During ecological succession:
(3) Barnacle on whale (1) The changes lead to a community
(4) Sea anemone and clown fish that is in near equilibrium with the
[AIPMT-2015] environment and is called pioneer
community
3. Vertical distribution of different species (2) The gradual and predictable change
occupying different levels in a biotic in species composition occurs in a
community is known as: given area
(1) Stratification (2) Zonation (3) The establishment of a new biotic
(3) Pyramid (4) Divergence community is very fast in its primary
phase
4. Secondary Succession takes place on/in:
(4) The numbers and types of animals
(1) Degraded forest remain constant
(2) Newly created pond
(3) Newly cooled lava 9. The species confined to a particular
(4) Bare rock region and not found elsewhere is
termed as:
5. The following graph depicts changes in
two populations (A and B) of herbivores (1) Rare (2) Keystone
in a grassy field. A possible reason for (3) Alien (4) Endemic
these changes is that:
[NEET-I 2016]
10. Which of the following is correct for
B
Organisms
Number of

r-selected species ?
(1) Large number of offspring’s, of small size
A (2) Large number of offspring’s, of large size
(3) Small number of offspring’s, of small size
Time
(4) Small number of offspring’s, of large size
(1) Population B competed more
successfully for food than population A 11. If '+' indicates beneficial interaction, '–'
(2) Population A produced more offspring indicates harmful interaction and '0'
than population B indicates neutral interaction, then
(3) Population A consumed the members population showing '+' '–' interactions
of population B indicates:
(4) Both plant populations in this habitat (1) Mutualism (2) Amenselism
decreased (3) Simbiosis (4) Parasitism

Organisms and Populations 33

 12. Which of the following would appear as 18. Which one of the following population
the pioneer organisms on bare rocks ? interactions is widely used in medical
(1) Lichens (2) Liverworts
science for the production of antibiotics ?
(3) Mosses (4) Green algae
(1) Amensalism
[NEET-II 2016]
(2) Commensalism
13. Gause's principle of competitive exclusion (3) Parasitism
states that:
(4) Mutualism
(1) More abundant species will exclude
the less abundant species through 19. Which one of the following plants shows a
competition.
very close relationship with a species of
(2) Competition for the same resources
excludes species having different moth, where none of the two can complete
food preferences. its life cycle without the other ?
(3) No two species can occupy the same (1) Viola
niche indefinitely for the same limiting
(2) Hydrilla
resources.
(4) Larger organisms exclude smaller (3) Banana
ones through competition (4) Yucca

[NEET-2017] 20. Which of the following flowers only once

14. Presence of plants arranged into well in its life-time ?
defined vertical layers depending on their (1) Papaya
height can be seen best in:
(2) Bamboo species
(1) Tropical Savanah
(2) Tropical Rain Forest (3) Mango
(3) Grassland (4) Jackfruit
(4) Temperate Forest
21. In a growing population of a country.
15. Mycorrhizae are the example of:
(1) Fungisitasis (2) Amensalism (1) Pre-reproductive individuals are less
(3) Antibiosis (4) Mutualism than the reproductive individuals.
16. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is (2) Pre-reproductive individuals are more
obtained when: than the reproductive individuals.
(1) The value of 'r' approaches zero
(3) Reproductive and pre-reproductive
(2) K = N
individuals are equal in number.
(3) K > N
(4) K < N (4) Reproductive individuals are less than
[NEET-2018] the post reproductive individuals.
17. Niche is:
22. Natality refers to:
(1) The functional role played by the
organism where it lives (1) Number of individuals entering a
(2) All the biological factors in the habitat
organism environment (2) Death rate
(3) The range of temperature that the
(3) Number of individuals leaving the
organism needs to live
habitat
(4) The physical space where an organism
live (4) Birth rate

34 Organisms and Populations

 [NEET-2019] [NEET-2020 (Covid-19)]
23. Match Column-I with Column-II. 27. Match the items in Column-I with those
Column-I Column-II in Column-II
Symbiotic Column I Column II
(a) Saprophyte (i) association of fungi (a) Herbivores-Plants (i) Commensalism
with plant roots (b) Mycorrhiza-Plants (ii) Mutualism
Decomposition of (c) Sheep-Cattle (iv) Predation
(b) Parasite (ii) dead organic (d) Orchid-Tree (v) Competition
materials
Select the correct option form following:
Living on living
(c) Lichens (iii) (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
plants or animals
Symbiotic (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) association of algae (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
and fungi (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Choose the correct answer form the
28. Which of the following is not an
options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) attribute of a population?
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (1) Species interaction
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (2) Sex ratio
(3) (i) (ii) (ii) (iv) (3) Natality
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) Mortality

[NEET (Odisha) -2019]

[NEET-2020(Covid-19)]
24. Carnivorous animals-lions and leopards,
29. The impact of immigration on population
occupy the same niche but lions predate
mostly larger animals and leopards take density is:-
smaller ones. This mechanism of (1) Negative
competition is referred to as:- (2) Both positive and negative
(1) Character displacement (3) Neutralized by natality
(2) Altruism
(4) Positive
(3) Resource partitioning
(4) Competitive exclusion [NEET-2021]
25. Western Ghats have a large number of 30. Inspite of interspecific competition in
plant and animal species that are not nature, which mechanism the competing
found anywhere else. Which of the species might have evolved for their
following terms will you use to notify survival ?
such species? (1) resource partitioning
(1) Endemic (2) Vulnerable (2) Competitive release
(3) Threatened (4) Keystone (3) Mutualism
26. Between which among the following, the (4) Predation
relationship is not an example of
31. Amensalism can be represented as:
commensalism?
(1) Species A (–); Species B (0)
(1) Orchid and the tree on which it grows
(2) Species A (+); Species B (+)
(2) Cattle Egret and grazing cattle
(3) Sea Anemone and Clown fish (3) Species A (–); Species B (–)
(4) Female wasp and fig species (4) Species A (+); Species B (0)

Organisms and Populations 35

 32. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, 36. The population of an insect species
nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present shows an explosive increase in numbers
in the soil at any given time, is referred as: during rainy season followed by its
(1) Climax disappearance at the end of the season.
(2) Climax community What does this show?
(3) Standing state (1) The population of its predators
(4) Standing crop increases enormously.
(2) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this
33. In the exponential growth equation
insect.
Nt = N0ert, e represents:
(3) The food plants mature and die at
(1) The base of number logarithms the end of the rainy season.
(2) The base of exponential logarithms (4) Its population growth curve is of J-
(3) The base of natural logarithms type.
(4) The base of geometric logarithms
37. A matching pair is-
34. Match List-I with List–II. (1) Shark and sucker fish-commenalism
List-I List-II (2) Algae and Fungi in Lichens-
(a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo Mutualism
rat (3) Orchids growing on trees-Parasitism
(b) Physiological (ii) Desert (4) Both 1 and 2
adaptation lizard
(c) Behavioural (iii) Marine fish 38. Scholars cuaght, marked and released
adaptation at depth 80 fishes in a pond. Later 100 fishes
(d) Biochemical (iv) Polar seal were caught at random. 40 of them were
Adaptation marked. The number of fishes in the
Choose the correct answer from the pond is-
options given below. (1) 400 (2) 200
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) 100 (4) 50
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) 39. Mutualism occurs between
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) Butterfly and flower
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (2) Escherichia coli and man
35. Assertion (A): (3) Zoochlorellae and hydra
A person goes to high altitude and (4) Hermit Crab and Sea Annemone
experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with
symptoms like breathing difficulty and 40. The limiting factor in soil nitrification is-
heart palpitations. (1) Soil pH
Reason (R): (2) Light
Due to low atmospheric pressure at high (3) Temperature
altitude, the body does not get sufficient (4) Air
oxygen. [NEET-2022]
In the light of the above statements, 41. Which one of the following statements
choose the correct answer from the cannot be connected to Predation?
options given below. (1) It helps in maintaining species
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is diversity in community
the correct explanation of (A) (2) It might lead to extinction of a species
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is (3) Both the interacting species are
not the correct explanation of (A) negatively impacted
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) It is necessitated by nature to maintain
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true the ecological balance

36 Organisms and Populations

42. While explaining interspecific interaction of [NEET-2023]
population, (+) sign is assigned for 45. Given below are two statements :
beneficial interaction, (–) sign is assigned Statement I:Gause's Competitive
for detrimental interaction and (0) for Exclusion Principle' states that two
neutral interaction. Which of the following closely related species competing for
the same resources cannot coexist
interactions can be assigned (+) for one
indefinitely and competitively inferior
species and (–) for another species
one will be eliminated eventually.
involved in the interaction?
Statement II: In general, carnivores are
(1) Predation (2) Amensalism
more adversely affected by competition
(3) Commensalism (4) Competition than herbivores. In the light of the above
statements, choose the correct answer
43. Consider the following statements (A)- from the options given below :
(D) each with one or two blanks (1) Both Statement I and Statement II
(A) Bears go into___(1)____during winter are true.
to_____(2)_____cold weather (2) Both Statement I and Statement II
(B) A conical age pyramid with a broad are false..
base represents_____(3)_____human (3) Statement I is correct but Statement
population II is false.
(C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an (4) Statement I is incorrect but
example of_____(4)_____ Statement II is true.
(D) An area with high levels of species
richness is known as _____(5)____ 46. Match List I with List II :
Which one of the following options give List I (Interaction) List II
the correct fill ups the respective blank (Species A
numbers from (1) to (5) in the and B)
A. Mutualism I. +(A), O(B)
statements-
B. Commensalism II. -(A), O(B)
(1) (2) - stable (4) commensalism, (5) C. Amensalism III. +(A),-(B)
marsh D. Parasitism IV. +(A),+(B)
(2) (1) - aestivation, (5) - escape, (3) - Choose the correct answer from the
stable, (4) – mutualism options given below:
(3) (3) - expanding, (4) - commensalism, (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(5) biodiversity park (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) (1) - hibernation, (2) - escape, (3) - (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
expanding, (5) hot spot (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

44. People who have migrated from the [NEET-2023] MANIPUR

planes to an area adjoining Rohtang Pass
about six months back- 47. For chemical defence against
herbivores, Calotropis has :
(1) havemore RBCs and their
haemoglobin has a lower binding (1) cardiac glycosides
affinity to O2. (2) strychnine
(2) are not physically fit to play games (3) toxic ricin
like football. (4) distasteful quinine
(3) suffer from altitude sickness with
symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc.
(4) have the usual RBC count but their
haemoglobin has very high binding
affinuty to O2.

Organisms and Populations 37

 ANSWER KEY

Organisms and Populations

Exercise - I

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 2 2 1 3 3 2 1 1 4 4 4 1 4 1 4 1 3 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 2 1 2 1 3 1 3 4 3 1 1 2 4 3 4 2 4 1 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 1 4 1 3 3 3 3 1 4 1 2 2 4 4 4 3 4 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73
Ans. 4 3 2 3 3 2 4 2 4 1 4 1 4

Exercise - II

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 3 3 3 2 3 1 4 4 2 1 2 3 1 3 3 2 4 4 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
Ans. 3 3 4 4 1 4 4

Exercise – III
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 2 1 3 1 2 1 1 2 1 1 1 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 2 2 3 1 3

Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 1 1 1 3 2 2 4 1 4 1 3 2 4 2 1 1 4 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 3 2 3 1 4 2 1 4 1 1 3 3 3 2 4 4 2 3 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47
Ans. 3 1 4 1 3 2 1

38 Organisms and Populations

2 Ecosystem
Introduction 
• A.G.Tansley - The term "Ecosystem" was coined by A.G. Tansley.
According to Tansley - Ecosystem is symbol of structure and function of nature.
• E.P.Odum - Father of ecosystem ecology.
According to E.P.Odum - Ecosystem is the smallest structural and functional unit of nature or
environment. 

• Definition: Total living (biotic) and non-living (abiotic) components of the environment present
in a particular area create an ecosystem.
• In any ecosystem, communities or living organisms interact with their physical environment in
such a way that there is a well-defined flow of energy forming clear trophic (food) levels and
material cycles within this ecosystem.
• Ecosystem is normally an open system because there is a continuous and variable entry and
loss of energy and materials.
• An ecosystem may be small like a drop (Nano ecosystem) of water and as large as sea or tract of
forest.
• An ecosystem may be temporary as a fresh water pool or a field or permanent like a forest or sea.
• Any ecosystem must have the following peculiarities.:
• There is an energy source for all living organisms in an ecosystem.
• Adequate amount of food and essential nutritional element should be present for living
organisms in an ecosystem.
• There should be a continuous flow of energy and materials in form of food chains between
organisms and environment.
• There are regular changes in the climatic conditions (temperature, humidity, light etc.) in an
ecosystem.
• The boundaries of ecosystem are indistinct and have a overlapping character over each other.
• It is a self regulatory and self sustaining unit.

Ecosystem 1
Types of Ecosystem
(A) Natural Ecosystem
(B) Artificial Ecosystem
(A) Natural Ecosystem:
(a) Terrestrial Ecosystem:
Eg.: forest, grassland, tree, desert ecosystems.
(b) Aquatic Ecosystem:
Eg.: Lake, pond, swamp, river.
(B) Artificial Ecosystem: Man made eg., cropland, Gardens etc.
On the basis of size, type of ecosystem:
(a) Mega ecosystem- Ocean/Sea
(b) Macro ecosystem - Forest
(c) Microecosystem - Pond
(d) Nano ecosystem - Drop of water.
Components of Ecosystem:
(A) Biotic Component : Formed by living things.
(B) Abiotic Component : Formed by non living things.
• Temperature
• Light
• Soil
• Climate
• Rainfall etc.
Key aspect of function of ecosystem are -
(A) Productivity (B) Decomposition (C) Energy flow (D) Nutrient cycling
Type of Biotic Components
1. Primary Producers:
• All photosynthetic organisms are primary producers. They prepare their own food. The green plants
are the main producers. In the process of photosynthesis, producers absorb solar energy and
convert it into chemical energy so producers are also called transducers or converters.
• Energy enters into the ecosystem through these primary producers. The solar energy is the
only ultimate source of energy in ecosystem. This energy is available for the remaining living
organisms. Ex. Grasses, Trees, Phytoplanktons.
Other eg. of Producers are:
• Chemoautotrophs: (Iron Bacteria, Sulphur bacteria, Nitrifying bacteria)
• In Aquatic Ecosystem: Floating plant called phytoplankton are the major autotrophs.
2. Consumer:
• All the heterotrophs of the ecosystem are known as consumers. They directly (herbivores)
or indirectly (Carnivores) depend on the producers for food.
Type of Consumer:
(i) Macroconsumers
(ii) Microconsumers
(i) Macroconsumers (Phagotrophs or Holozoic):
• They digest their food inside the body. ie., first ingestion then digestion.
Macroconsumers are of following types:
(a) Primary Consumers: Such living organisms which obtain food directly from producers or
plants are known as primary consumers.
eg., Herbivores: Grasshopper, Zooplanktons, Cow, Grazing Cattle, Rabbit.

2 Ecosystem
 • They are also known as secondary producers as they synthesize complex materials in the
cells, by the digestion of food which is obtained from the plant.
(b) Secondary Consumers or Primary Carnivores: Animals which feed upon primary consumers
and obtain food. eg., Dog, Cat, Snake
• The organism which completely depends on dead animals are not example of predators but
they are the scavengers or detrivores. eg., Vulture, Crow, Fox.
• All the herbivores are predators.
• All the carnivores are not predators like scavengers.
• Vulture is a scavenger but not predator because it never kills any animal.

(c) Top Consumers: Those animals which kill other animals and eat them, but they are not
killed & and eaten by other animal in the nature. eg., Lion, Man, Hawk, Peacock.

(ii) Microconsumers/Decomposers or Saprotrophs/Osmotrophs:

• Those living organisms which decompose the dead body of producers and consumers are
known as decomposer or reducers or transformer or osmotrophs.
• The main decomposers in ecosystem are bacteria and fungi.
• Decomposers play a significant role in mineral cycle. Decomposers are responsible for
converting complex organic material of dead animals or plants into simpler organic matter
through the process of decomposition and release mineral substances into the soil where
these are reused by the producers. So that soil is considered as the best resource of
minerals.
• In Bacteria and fungi, process of decomposition completely takes place outside the body.
They release enzymes from their body on dead remains and decompose it into simpler
organic substance and then absorb it so these are called as osmotrophs (absorptive).

Ecosystem 3
 Special Points

• Plant parasites are known as primary consumers while animals parasites

(E. coli bacteria, Entamoeba histolica, liver fluke, tapeworm) are known as secondary consumers.
• All the insectivorous plants play the double role i.e., producer as well as secondary consumer
because they synthesise their own food through photosynthesis and they eat insects
simultaneously.
• Man and peacock are omnivores.
• Organisms which use milk or curd are known as secondary consumer.
• Sparrow occupy two trophic level –
(i) Primary consumer-as eating seeds,
(ii) Secondary consumer-as eating insects.
• Frog - (i) Larva - Herbivore, (ii) Adult - carnivore

Concept Builder

1. An ecosystem is a complete interaction of:

(1) Individual (2) Population
(3) Community and their soil condition (4) Community and their physical environment
2. In an ecosystem, the biotic components herbivores are:–
(1) Photosynthetic (2) Chemosynthetic
(3) Micro consumers (4) Macro consumers
3. Mark the correct match:–
(1) Secondary consumers – Zooplankton (2) Pioneer community – Viruses
(3) Nano ecosystem – Valley and forest (4) Omnivores – Cockroach, crows
4. Find out the incorrect statement.
(1) All the heterotrophs of the ecosystem are known as consumers.
(2) The solar energy is the only ultimate source of energy in ecosystem
(3) All the herbivores are primary consumers.
(4) All the carnivores are not predators.
5. In a food web transfer of food energy is
(1) Multidirectional (2) Unidirectional
(3) Bidirectional (4) Directionless
Concept Builder (Answer-Key)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. 4 4 4 2 2

Structure and Function of Ecosystem

Structure of Ecosystem:
• Biotic and abiotic components are physically organized to provide characteristic structure
to a ecosystem
• Species composition and stratification (lake stratification, forest stratification, ocean
stratification) is the part of structure of ecosystem.
• Another way to represent the structure of ecosystem is through food relationship of
producers and consumers.

4 Ecosystem
Food Chains:
• In ecosystem every heterotrophic organism depends on other organism for food material
and all organism are (herbivores to carnivores) arranged in a series in which food energy is
transferred through repeated eating and being eaten. It is called food chain. In food chain,
energy flow is in the form of food.
• In a food chain, food material or food energy is transferred from one trophic level to next trophic
level.
• Four trophic levels are present in the ecosystem, because level of energy decreases during
the flow of energy from one trophic to the another trophic level.
First trophic level [T1] = Producers
Second trophic level [T2] = Primary consumers
Third trophic level[T3] = Secondary consumers
Fourth trophic level [T4] = Top consumers
• Five trophic levels found in highly complex ecosystem in which tertiary consumer is present
in between the secondary consumers and top consumer. Then the fifth trophic level (T 5) is
formed by the top consumer.
• In food chain energy flow is unidirectional (producers to herbivores).
• Generally the decomposers (Bacteria and Fungi) are not included in the food chain (Grazing food chains).
(C) Energy Flow:
• Energy flow is the key function of ecosystem. The storage and expenditure of energy in
ecosystem is based on the two basic laws of thermodynamics.
(i) Energy is neither created nor destroyed but only transformed from one state to another state.
(ii) The law of entropy - The transfer of food energy from one to another organisms leads to
loss of energy as heat due to metabolic activity.
• Energy in food is in concentrated form, heat energy is highly dispersed. It must be understood
that all changes in energy forms can be accounted for energy flow in any system.
Food Flow Model:
• A simplified representation of energy flow through ecosystem has been made in figure
presented. Two aspects with respect to energy flow in ecosystem need careful
consideration. First, the energy flows one ways, i.e., form producers to herbivores to
carnivores; it cannot be transferred in the reverse direction.
• Second, the amount of energy flow decreases with successive trophic levels. Producers
capture only a small fraction of solar energy and amount of energy flow decreases with
successive trophic levels. Producers capture only a small fraction of solar energy (1-5
percent of total solar radiation), and the bulk of unutilised energy is dissipated mostly as
heat. Part of the energy capture in gross production their standing crop (respiration) and for
providing food to herbivores (herbivory). The unutilised net primary production is ultimately
converted to detritus, which serves as energy source to decomposers.
• Thus, energy actually used by the herbivore trophic level is only a small fraction of the energy
captured at the producer level. On an average, in different ecosystems, the herbivore
assimilation or productivity approximates 10 percent of gross productivity of producers.
• The energy assimilated by the herbivores is used in respiration and a fraction of
unassimilated energy is transferred to decomposers (eg., Faecal matter). The remaining
herbivore level energy available at carnivore trophic level is again partitioned leaving a very
small fraction to support the next trophic level (top carnivore).
• The respiration cost also increases sharply along successive higher trophic levels. On an
average, respiration in producer consumes about 20 percent of its gross productivity.

Ecosystem 5
 Herbivores consume about 30 percent of assimilated energy in respiration. The proportion
of assimilated energy consumed in respiration rises to about 60 percent in carnivores.
Because of this tremendous loss of energy at successive higher trophic levels, the residual
energy is decreased to such an extent that no further trophic level can be supported.
Therefore, the length of food chains in an ecosystem is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels.

Energy flow through different trophic levels

Types of Food Chains:

• In nature three type of food chain are present
1. Grazing Food Chain or Predatory Food Chain: Most of food chain in nature are of this type. This
food chain begins with Producers (plants) and in successive order it goes from small organism
to big organism.
Aquatic Ecosystem:
Producer Pri. Consumer Sec. consumer Top consumers
   
Phytoplankton ⎯→ Zooplankton ⎯→ Small fish ⎯→ Large fish
   
T1 T2 T3 T4
Grass land ecosystem:
Producer Pri. Consumer Sec. consumer Top consumers
   
Grass ⎯→ Rabbit ⎯→ Fox ⎯→ Lion
   
T1 T2 T3 T4
Grazing food chains are directly dependent on solar radiation (as a primary source of energy)
and have rapid energy flow.
• 3-4 trophic levels are present in healthy food chain of GFC.
2. Detritus Food Chain or Saprophytic Food Chain: This food chain begins with decomposition of
dead organic matter by decomposers so it is also known as saprophytic food chain. In this food
chain primary consumers are bacteria and fungi.
Detrivores acts as major conduit for energy flow.
Dead organic matter → Bacteria, fungi

6 Ecosystem
 • In mangrove vegetation this food chain goes up to big organism.
• Dead mangroves leave → Bacteria & fungi → Amphipds, molluscs, crabs, nematodes → small
fishes → fish eating birds.
• It does not directly depends on light.
• In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC (Grazing Food Chain) is the major conduit (source) of energy
flow. As against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger energy flow through the
detritus food chain (as it is small) than through the grazing food chain, as in terrestrial
ecosystems GFC gets connected with DFC.
Food Web
• In big ecosystem many food chains are interlinked together on different trophic levels to form food
web. In food web transfer of food energy is unidirectional but from many different alternative
pathways.
• In food web members of a particular trophic level obtain their food according to their choice
and taste but that type of facility is not present in food chain. It means they have more than
one option or alternative for getting food.
• As much as food web is complex that ecosystem is more permanent or stable, such type of
ecosystem is not destroyed naturally and continues for long time. Such ecosystem is not
affected by loss of any organism of any particular trophic level. Those ecosystems which have
simple food web are not very stable.

Homeostasis:
Ecosystem is a dynamic system because continuous interaction is going on in between aboitic and
biotic components so ecosystem is present in equilibrium position. Ecosystem is also self maintainable
and self-regulatory system, it means an ecosystem maintains a balance in between different trophic
levels. Each trophic level controls the other trophic level in an ecosystem. If any change takes place in
any trophic level of ecosystem, the other trophic levels of this ecosystem may react according to it. So
ecosystem always remain in equilibrium. This feature of system is known as Homeostasis.

Ecosystem 7
 Concept Builder

1. Find the incorrect statement for DFC–

(1) Start with solar energy (2) Always terminates in GFC
(3) Requires specific detritivores (4) Play major role in terrestrial ecosystem

2. The functionally independent unit of nature, showing characteristic energy flow and nutrient
cycling is:–
(1) Organisms (2) Species (3) Community (4) Ecosystem

3. Mark the odd one (W.r.t. second trophic level)–

(1) Wolf (2) Grasshopper (3) Cow (4) Zooplankton

4. Which of the following is not recycled in an ecosystem:

(1) Water (2) Carbon (3) Energy (4) Nitrogen

5. The maximum energy is stored at which of the following trophic level in any ecosystem?
(1) Producer (2) Herbivores (3) Carnivores (4) Top carnivores
Concept Builder (Answer-Key)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. 4 4 1 3 1

Pyramids of Ecosystem
• Graphical representation of ecological parameters at different trophic levels and trophic structure in
ecosystem is called pyramids. These parameters are Number, Biomass and Energy. First of all,
ecological pyramids were formed by Charis Elton; thus also referred as Eltonian pyramids.
These Pyramids are of three types:
(1) Pyramids of Number,
(2) Pyramids of Energy,
(3) Pyramids of Biomass.
(1) Pyramid of Number:
• In this type of pyramid the number of organisms in various trophic levels are shown.
These pyramids are mostly upright, because number of producers [T 1] is maximum and
number of herbivores and carnivores decrease towards apex or at successive trophic levels,
such as Grassland ecosystem and aquatic ecosystem.


figure: Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem. Only three
top-carnivores are supported in an ecosystem basd on
production of nearly 6 millions plants 

8 Ecosystem
 • In a tree ecosystem the pyramid of numbers is Spindle / inverted.
Tree Ecosystem
• Maximum number of producers are present in aquatic ecosystem. The number of organism
at any trophic level depends upon the availability of organisms which are used as food on
lower level so availability of food is main factor.
(2) Pyramid of Energy:
• It represents amount of energy at different trophic levels, energy pyramids are always
upright or erect because there is a gradual decrease in energy at successive trophic levels.
According to the 10% law of Lindeman, the 90% part of obtained energy of each organism
is utilized in their various metabolic activities and heat and only 10% energy is transferred
to the next trophic level.

Figure: An ideal pyramid of energy. Observe that primary producers convert only
1% of the energy in the sunlight available to them into NPP
(3) Pyramid of Biomass:
• Pyramid of biomass represents the total amount of biomass of each trophic level of ecosystem,
mostly these pyramids are also upright (erect) eg., tree ecosystem, forest ecosystem.

figure: Pyramid of biomass shows a sharp decrease in

biomass at higher trophic levels
• Pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystem is inverted because in it producers are micro-
organism and their biomass is very less.

figure: Inverted pyramid of biomass-small standing crop of phytoplankton

supports large standing crop of zooplankton

Ecosystem 9
 Limitations of Ecological Pyramids:
• It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
• It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exists in nature. It does not
accommodate a food web.
• Saprophytes are not given any place.

• Standing Crop:In unit area, unit time, given environmental conditions, the total amount of
living/organic matter present in an ecosystem.
• Standing State:In unit area, unit time, given environmental conditions, the total amount of non-
living, inorganic matter (C, H, O, N, P, S etc.) present in an ecosystem.

Productivity
There are two type of productivity present
(i) Primary Productivity:
• Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per
unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of
weight or energy. The rate of biomass production is called productivity. It is expressed in
terms of gm–2yr–1 or Kcal m–2yr–1 to compare the productivity of different ecosystem. It can
be divided into GPP and NPP.
(a) Gross Primary Productivity (G.P.P.):It is the total amount of energy fixed (organic food) in an
ecosystem (in producers) in unit time is called G.P.P. includes the organic matter used up in
respiration during the measurement period. It is also known as total (Gross) photosynthesis. A
considerable amount of GPP is utilised by plants in respiration.

(b) Net Primary Productivity (N.P.P.):It is the amount of stored organic matter in plant tissues after
respiratory utilisation by plants.
NPP = GPP – R (R = Respiration + Metabolic activities)
or
GPP = NPP + R
• NPP is the available biomass for the consumption of heterotroph.
(ii) Secondary Productivity: Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by
consumers.
(iii) Net Community Productivity or Net Productivity: The rate of storage of organic matter not used
by the heterotrophs.
NCP = N.P.P. – HR (HR = Energy used by Heterotrophs or consumers)
• Primary productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area. It also
depends on a variety of environmental factors availability of nutrients and photosynthetic
capacity of plants. Therefore, it varies in different type of ecosystem. The annual net primary
productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons (dry weight) of the
organic matter, productivity of the ocean are only 55 billion tons.
• In per unit area maximum productivity found in tropical rain forest.
• In water, least productive ecosystem is very deep lakes and highly productive ecosystem is coral
reef.

10 Ecosystem
 • Nitrogen is the limiting factor in ocean and phosphorus is the limiting factor in lake productivity.
• In land - Highest productivity, Tropical rain forest.
Lowest productivity is of Deserts, tundra.
• Most productive Agro-ecosystem is Sugarcane and rice ecosystem.

Concept Builder

1. Given below is a hypothetical pyramid of energy. The amount of energy left at the level of
secondary consumers would approximately be:

T4

T3
T2
T1
500000 J of Sunlight

(1) 10000 J (2) 1000 J (3) 100 J (4) 50 J

2. Net primary productivity is a:–

(1) NPP = G.P.P – R (2) NPP = G.P.P. + R
(3) NPP = R – G.P.P. (4) NPP = G.P.P.

3. The standing crop is measured as the–

(1) Mass of living organisms in a unit area.
(2) The number of living organisms in a unit area.
(3) Calculated from the net primary productivity
(4) Both 1 and 2

4. The storage of energy at consumer level is known as–

(1) Grass primary production (2) Secondary productivity
(3) Net primary productivity (4) Net productivity

5. How much amount of solar energy is converted by producers from ISR-

(1) 2% (2) 1% (3) 10% (4) 50%
Concept Builder (Answer-Key)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. 4 1 4 2 2

Decomposition
• Decomposition (Formation of Humus): Decomposers break down complex organic matter
into inorganic substance like carbon dioxide, water and nutrients and the process is called
decomposition. Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flower (litter) and dead remains of
animals, including faecal matter, constitute detritus, which is the raw material for
decomposition. The important steps in the process of decomposition are fragmentation,
leaching, catabolism, humification and mineralisation.
• Detritivores (eg, earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is
called fragmentation.
• By the process of leaching, water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon
and get precipitated as unavailable salts.

Ecosystem 11
 • Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simple inorganic substance. This process
is called as catabolism.
• It is important to note that all the above steps in decomposition operate simultaneously on the
detritus. Humification and mineralisation occur during decomposition in the soil. Humification
leads to accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous substance called humus that is highly
resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate. Being
colloidal in nature it serves as a reservoir of nutrients. The humus is further degraded by some
microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occurs by the process known as mineralisation.
• Decomposition is largely an oxygen-requiring process. The rate of decomposition is
controlled by chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors. In a particular climatic
condition, decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin and quicker, if
detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substances like sugars.
• Temperature and soil moisture are the most important climatic factors that regulate
decomposition through their effects on the activities of soil microbes. Warm and moist
environment favour decomposition whereas low temperature (< 10°C) and an anaerobiosis
inhibit decomposition resulting in build up of organic materials.
• Decomposition requires years at very high altitude or latitudes. Rate of decomposition is
low in prolonged dry soil like in tropical desert.
The actual rate of decomposition depends on environmental conditions and detritus quality.

Decomposition cycle in a terrestrial ecosystem

12 Ecosystem
 Concept Builder

1. Which is not true for humus?

(1) Dark colored amorphous substance.
(2) Highly resistant to microbial action
(3) Act as reservoir of nutrients and increases water holding capacity of soil
(4) It is degradation product of protein and fats and produced by the process of mineralization.

2. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and precipitated as unavailable
salts. This process is called:–
(1) Fragmentation (2) Leaching (3) Catabolism (4) humification

3. Which of the following is not the stage of suspension?

(1) Migration (2) Hibernation (3) Aestivation (4) Diapause

4. Percolation and water holding capacity of soil is dependent upon:

(1) Soil composition (2) Grain size
(3) Aggregation (4) All of these

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4
Ans. 4 2 1 4

Ecosystem 13
 Exercise - I
Ecosystem-Structure & Function 5. Which of the following is not essential
1. Word 'ecosystem' was coined by: for ecosytem?
(1) Elton (1) Producer
(2) Tansley (2) Abiotic components
(3) Odum (3) Decomposer
(4) Billing (4) Macro consumer

6. What is true about any ecosystem ?

2. A group of interacting living things and all
(1) It is self regulatory
the environmental factors with which
(2) It is self sustaining
they interact are together called: (3) Top carnivores have climax tropic
(1) Ecosystem level position
(2) Succession (4) All
(3) Producers
7. The immediate surroundings of an
(4) Ecological niche organism are called:
(1) Macroenvironment
3. Which of the following constitutes the
(2) Microenvironment/microclimate
structure of an ecosystem ?
(3) Biosphere
(1) Ecological community (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Quantity and distribution of abiotic
8. An aquatic ecosystem consists of:
materials
(1) Biotic factors
(3) Range of physical conditions
(2) Biotic and abiotic factors
(4) All the above (3) Consumers only
(4) Producers only
4. Which statement is/are correct?
(a) Ecology is a subject which studies 9. The primary consumers in a pond
the interaction among organism and ecosystem are:
between the organisms with its (1) Phytoplanktons
(2) Zooplanktons
physical (abiotic) environment.
(3) Fishes
(b) Ecology is a subject which studies the
(4) Bacteria
interaction between the organisms
with its physical(abiotic) environment 10. The largest ecosystem in the world is
contributed by:
only.
(1) Forests (2) Rivers
(c) Ecology is a subject which studies the
(3) Oceans (4) Grasslands
interaction between the organisms
with its biotic environment only. 11. One of the following is a true micro-
ecosystem
(d) Ecology is a subject which studies
(1) One litre of water from a pond kept
the interaction between organisms
in an air tight flask
and its biotic and physical (abiotic)
(2) One litre of tap water in a flask
environment. covered over by cotton plug
(1) Only d are correct (3) Ten litre of boiled pond water
(2) Only a are correct covered over by a lid
(3) a and d are correct (4) One litre of pond water closed with
(4) a, b, c, d are correct a cork having gas exchange tube.

14 Ecosystem
12. Biotic components of an ecosystem 16. Which of the following organisms can be
include: put in the category of primary
(1) Producers only consumers?
(2) Consumers only (1) Eagles and tigers
(3) Producers and consumers only (2) Fishes and whales
(4) Producers, consumers and decomposers (3) Snakes and frogs
(4) Grasshoppers and cattles
13. Identify the correct match from the
column I, II and III 17. The word standing crop in ecosystem
refers to:
I II III
eating (1) Living components
a Sparrow 1 Producer (i) (2) Non-living components
seed
Venus fly Eating (3) Both living and non-living components
b 2 Decomposer (ii)
trap insect (4) None of the above
Secondary Eating
c Man 3 (iii) 18. The amount of living matter present in a
Consumer curd
Primary Photo component population of a particular
4 (iv) trophic level is called as:
consumer synthesis
(1) Standing crop (2) Standing quality
(1) (a, 1 & 3, ii & iii) (b, 3 & 4, ii, iii)
(3) Steady state (4) Standing state
(c, 2 & 3, iii, iv)
(2) (a, 1 & 2, iii & iv) (b, 2 & 3, ii, i) 19. The term reducer is applied to:
(c, 4 & 3, ii, iv) (1) Decomposers
(3) (a, 4 & 3, i & ii) (b, 1 & 3, iv, ii) (2) Detrivores
(c, 4 & 3, i, iii) (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) (a, 4 & 3, ii & iii) (b, 1 & 3, iv, iii) (4) Heterotrophs
(c, 4 & 3, ii, iv)
20. The biotic and abiotic components of
14. the ecosystem are connected through:
Primary Secondary (1) Standing quality
Producer Top Consumer
Consumer Consumer
(2) Climatic regime
(I) Plant → Insect → Frog → Eagle
(3) Transducers
(II) Plant → Rat Snake → Peacock
→
(4) Humification and mineralization
When food chain I will connected with
Productivity
food chain II and snake eats frog than
21. Organisms which acquire energy and
snake is :-
nutrients by digesting the organic
(1) Primary consumer
molecules of living organisms are called:
(2) Secondary consumer
(1) Producers
(3) Teritary conumser
(2) Consumers
(4) Top consumer
(3) Detritivores
15. Autotrophic organisms (green plants), (4) None of the above
which capture solar energy to synthesise
22. The animals that feed directly on
organic food are called: producers are called:
(1) Producers (1) Primary consumers
(2) Consumers (2) Secondary consumers
(3) Decomposers (3) Tertiary consumers
(4) None of the above (4) Quaternary consumers

Ecosystem 15
 23. Producers in an ecosystem are: 32. The source of energy in an ecosystem is:
(1) Green organisms which fix solar (1) Sunlight (2) DNA
energy by photosynthesis (3) ATP (4) RNA
(2) Animals which cause an increase in
33. When peacock, eats snake which eats
biomass
insects depending on green plants, the
(3) Organisms which can be used as manure peacock is ?
(4) Animals in the food chain which produce (1) A primary consumer
more energy than they consume (2) A primary decomposer
24. Energy and nutrients enter in a community (3) A final decomposer of plants
by way of the: (4) The apex of the food chain
(1) Detritivores (2) Producers 34. Path of energy flow in an ecosystem is:
(3) Scavengers (4) Consumers (1) Herbivorous → producer → carnivorous
25. The maximum energy is stored at following → decomposer
tropical level in any ecosystem: (2) Herbivorous → carnivorous → producer
(1) Producers (2) Herbivores → decomposer
(3) Carnivores (4) Top carnivores (3) Producer → carnivorous → herbivorous
→ decomposer
26. Green plants in a forest ecosystem are:
(4) Producer → herbivorous → carnivorous
(1) Suppliers of food & O2
→ decomposer
(2) Consumers of nutritive materials
(3) Consumers of animal proteins 35. The type of food chain in which
(4) Suppliers of timber decomposed organic matter is
converted into energy rich compounds is
27. Nepenthes (Insectivorous pitcher plant) is: called:
(1) Producer (2) Consumer (1) Detritus food chain
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) None of these (2) Grazing food chain
28. Which biotic components mainly help in (3) Predatory food chain
recycling of minerals ? (4) Parasitic food chain
(1) Producers (2) Consumers 36. The last organisms of the food chain are
(3) Decomposers (4) All the above generally:
29. In an ecosystem the function of the (1) Photosynthetic plants
producers is to: (2) Herbivores
(1) Convert organic compounds into (3) Carnivores
inorganic compounds (4) Top carnivores
(2) Trap solar energy and convert it into 37. The best arrangement of an energy
chemical energy system consisting of hawks, snakes,
(3) Utilize chemical energy mice and grasses is:
(4) Release energy (1) Grass → mice → snake → hawks
30. Scavengers are: (2) Grass → snake → mice → hawks
(1) Carnivores (2) Predators (3) Grass → mice → hawks → snakes
(3) Decomposers (4) All of the above (4) Mice → snake → hawks → grass
38. If a big fish eats small fish which eats
31. Which of the following statement is
Hydra who in turn eats water fleas ;
incorrect w.r.t. energy flow in an
water fleas in turn eat phytoplankton. In
ecosystem?
this chain, water fleas will be:
(1) Pyramid of energy is always upright
(1) Producers
(2) Energy flow is cyclic (2) Primary consumers
(3) Energy flow is unidirectional (3) Secondary consumers
(4) Ecological efficiency is generally 10% (4) Top consumer

16 Ecosystem
39. Food chain refers to: 46. Raymond Lindmann (1942) used the term
(1) A number of human beings forming trophic level. Trophic levels are formed by:
a chain for food (1) Animals only
(2) The transfer of food energy from (2) Plants only
producers to consumers (3) Organisms linked in food chains
(3) Animals near a source of food (4) Top consumers in food chain
(4) None of the above
47. A food chain consists of:
40. Energy flow in ecosystem is: (1) Producers, carnivores and decomposers
(1) Unidirectional (2) Bidirectional (2) Producers, herbivores and carnivores
(3) Multidirectional (4) None of the above (3) Producers and primary consumers
Decomposition (4) Producers, consumers and decomposers
41. The flow of materials and energy in an 48. Within the ecosystem, energy is transferred
ecosystem is respectively: from organism to organism in the form of:
(1) Cyclic only (1) Light (2) Heat
(2) Linear only
(3) Chemicals (4) None of the above
(3) Linear and cyclic
(4) Cyclic and linear 49. The total amount of living material at
various levels of a food chain is depicted by:
42. The correct sequence of components
(1) Pyramid of numbers
through which energy may pass from
(2) Pyramid of energy
initial source, through an ecosystem is:
(3) Pyramid of biomass
(1) Sun – autotrophs-heterotrophs–space –
(4) All the above
environment
(2) Space – environment – heterotrophs – 50. Zooplankton includes:
autotrophs – sun (1) Ciliates (2) Flagellates
(3) Sun – space – environment – (3) Small crustaceans (4) All the above
heterotrophs – autotrophs
51. A group of interconnected food chains is
(4) Sun – space – environment autotrophs
called:
– heterotrophs
(1) Pyramid of energy
43. Efficiency of any ecosystem is best (2) Food web
depicted by pyramid of: (3) Food cycle
(1) Energy (2) Number (4) Complex food chain
(3) Biomass (4) Volume
52. An ecosystem does not normally alter
44. When frog eats grasshopper which
because it is in a state of:
thrives on green plants, the frog is ?
(1) Deficient light (2) Imbalance
(1) Primary producer (2) Herbivore
(3) Homeostasis (4) Deficient nutrients
(3) Primary carnivore (4) Top consumer
53. Which of the following is the trophic
45. The ecosystem exists in a state of 'balance'.
level of man in an ecosystem ?
Supposing one of the heterotrophs, says the
(1) Omnivore (2) Carnivore
rabbit, multiplies and increases in number
(3) Herbivore (4) Producer
suddenly then:
(1) The balance will be permanently upset 54. Food webs are 3-D web of interrelations in
because the rabbits will eat the grass which several food chains are interlinked. It
in the system and die of starvation. helps to provide:
(2) The 'balance' will be restored by an (1) Alternate pathways for flow of energy
increase in the wolf population (2) More variety and quality of food at
(3) Epidemics will break out in the each trophic level
rabbits and kill all of them (3) Stability to ecosystem
(4) Rabbits will start eating each other (4) All of these

Ecosystem 17
 55. Eltonian pyramids of numbers are 62. The rate at which new tissues are formed
upright in one of the following in producers is the ecosystem's:
ecosystem: (1) Net primary productivity
(1) Grassland (2) Tree (2) Gross primary productivity
(3) Net secondary productivity
(3) Pond (4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) Gross secondary productivity
56. One of Eltonian pyramids have to be 63. The least productive ecosystem is:
upright always: (1) Coastal seas (2) Very deep lakes
(1) Biomass (2) Energy (3) Grasslands (4) Moist forests
(3) Number (4) All of these
64. The gross production minus respiration losses
57. The graphic representation of trophic by plants in an ecosystem is indicated as:
level is represented by a pyramid. Which (1) Net production
of the following pyramid is always a true (2) Secondary production
(3) Net storage
pyramid unlike the others ?
(4) Net primary production
(1) Pyramid of number
(2) Pyramid of biomass 65. The rate of storage at consumer level is:
(3) Pyramid of energy (1) Secondary productivity
(4) Both (1) and (3) (2) Tertiary productivity
(3) Primary productivity
58. In a pyramid of numbers representing an (4) Net productivity
ecosystem of a large freshwater pond the
66. Net community productivity (NCP) is the:
number of primary consumers is: (1) Total rate of photosynthesis
(1) Less than the Top consumers (2) Chemical energy left after utilization by
(2) Less than the secondary consumers plants
(3) Less than the producers (3) Rate of storage of organic matter by
(4) Less than the tertiary consumers community
(4) Energy wasted by carnivores
59. The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is:
67. The rate at which light energy is converted
(1) Always upright
to chemical energy of organic molecules is
(2) May be upright the ecosystem's:
(3) Always inverted (1) Net primary productivity
(4) None of the above (2) Net secondary productivity
(3) Gross primary productivity
60. Pyramid of numbers is upright in which
(4) Gross secondary productivity
of the ecosystems ?
68. The storage of energy at consumer level
(1) Pond ecosystem
is known as:
(2) Tree ecosystem
(1) Grass primary production
(3) Grassland ecosystem (2) Secondary productivity
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) Net primary productivity
(4) Net productivity
Energy Flow
61. An ecological pyramid, devised by C. 69. Gross primary productivity is:
Elton 1927; is a graphic diagram that (1) Rate at which organic molecules are
formed in an autotroph
shows relationship between:
(2) Rate at which organic molecules are
(1) Transfer of food through food chains
used up by an autotroph
(2) Organisms (3) Storage of organic molecules in the
(3) Various trophic levels of a food chain body of an autotroph
(4) Populations and communities within (4) Rate at which organic molecules are
an ecosystem transferred to next higher trophic level

18 Ecosystem
70. Which of the following is a physiological 78. Which of the following is direct dominant
adaptation to cope with certain stressful ecological factor which affects the
environment ? vegetation of a place ?
(1) CAM pathway (1) Temperature (2) Altitude
(2) Lizard basking in sun (3) Soil (4) Wind
(3) Leaves modified into spines
(4) Thick cuticle 79. The important step in the process of
71. The Biological weathering occurs due to decomposition are–
the action of: (1) Fragmentation (2) Leaching
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Oxygen (3) Catabolism (4) All of these
(3) Alkalies (4) Acids 80. Humus is degraded by some microbes &
72. In general environmental condition which of release of inorganic nutrients occur by
the following represents partial regulators ? the process known as:–
(1) Fragmentation (2) Leaching
(3) Humification (4) Mineralization
(1) (2)
Ecological Pyramids
81. Find out the total no of incorrect
statements from the following:
(a) Decompostion is largely an anaerobic
(3) (4) process.
(b) Fragmentation, leaching & catabolism
occur simultaneously on detritus.
(c) Vertical distribution of different
73. Which of the following factors cannot be species occupying different levels is
regarded as belonging to a non living called stratfication.
environment ? (d) Pond is a deep water body.
(1) Rainfall (e) The rate of decomposition is
(2) Light controlled by chemical composition
(3) Temperature of detritus & climatic factor.
(4) Interspecific competition (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
74. Factors related to the form of the earth's 82. Major reservoir of carbon in biosphere
surface are called: lies in:
(1) Biotic (2) Edaphic
(1) Atmosphere (2) Lithosphere
(3) Topographic (4) Climatic
(3) Hydrosphere (4) All of these
75. Among the given factors, vegetation of
any place is primarily determined by: 83. The term biosphere is used for the zone
(1) Rainfall of the earth where life exists:
(2) Amount of soil water (1) On the lithosphere
(3) Soil type (2) In the hydrosphere
(4) Amount of light (3) In the lithosphere and hydrosphere
(4) In the lithosphere, hydrosphere and
76. All the living organisms and non-living Atmosphere
factors of the earth constitute:
(1) Biosphere (2) Community
(3) Biome (4) Association
77. What ecological factors are most strong
determinants of various biomes:
(1) Soil and wind
(2) Light and wind
(3) Temperature and precipitation
(4) pH and humidity

Ecosystem 19
 Exercise - II
1. Driving force of ecosystem is - 9. Study the four statements (1-4) given
(1) Producers below and select the two correct ones
(2) Plants with Carbohydrate out of them-
(3) Biomass
(A) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow
(4) Solar energy
feeding on grain are ecologically
2. An ecosystem which can be easily similar in being consumers
damaged but can recover after some time
(B) Predator star fish helps in maintaining
if damaging effect stops will be having–
(1) High stability and low resilience species diversity of some invertebrates
(2) Low stability and low resilience (C) Predators ultimately lead to the
(3) High stability and high resilience extinction of prey species
(4) Low stability and high resilience (D) Production of chemicals such as
3. Energy enters in food chain - nicotine, strychnine by the plants are
(1) By transducers metabolic disorders
(2) By primary consumers The two correct statements are:
(3) By secondary consumers
(1) A and D
(4) By tertiary consumers
(2) A and B
4. Phytoplanktons are important biotic (3) B and C
component of -
(4) C and D
(1) Grassland (2) Pond ecosystem
(3) Forest ecosystem (4) None of these 10. Consider the following statements
5. Which food chain is most common in concerning food chain -
terrestrial ecosystem ? (a) Removal of 80 % tigers from an area
(1) DFC resulted in greatly increased growth
(2) GFC of vegetation
(3) Parasitic food chain
(b) Removal of most of the carnivores
(4) None of these
resulted in an increased population
6. In a food chain, the total amount of of deers
living material is depicted by -
(c) The length of food chains is generally
(1) Pyramid of biomass
limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to
(2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Pyramid of number energy loss
(4) Trophic levels (d) The length of food chains may very
7. Mr. X is eating curd/yoghurt. For this from 2 to 8 trophic levels
food intake in a food chain he should be Which two of the above statements are
considered as occupying - correct ?
(1) First trophic level (1) a, c
(2) Second trophic level
(2) a, b
(3) Third tropic level
(3) b, c
(4) Fourth trophic level
(4) c, d
8. A bamboo plant is growing in a far forest
then what will be the tropic level of it - 11. More complex food web shows:
(1) First trophic level (T1) (1) High diversity in ecosystem
(2) Second trophic level (T2) (2) High stability in ecosystem
(3) Third trophic level (T3) (3) High food variety in ecosystem
(4) Fourth trophic level (T4) (4) All of the above

20 Ecosystem
12. Primary producer A 16. Pyramids of biomass in pond ecosystem is -
(1) Inverted (2) Upright
(3) Linear (4) Irregular
Primary consumer Rabbit
17. In an Eltonian pyramid, lion is kept under-
(1) Producer
Secondary consumer B
(2) Primary consumer
(3) Secondary consumer
Tertiary consumer C (4) Tertiary consumer
(1) A = Grass B = Wolf C = Lion 18. Given below is one of the types of ecological
(2) A = Trees B = Goat C = Birds pyramids. This type represents -
(3) A = Phyto- Planktons B = Small fish
C = Birds
(4) A = Wolf B = Lion C = Trees

13. Phytoplanktons → zooplanktons → (1) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland

fishes → bald eagle (2) Pyramid of biomass in a fallow land
Choose the correct option w.r.t. given (3) Pyramid of biomass in a lake
food chain- (4) Energy pyramid in a spring
(a) A converts solar energy in to
19. How many of these have no place in
chemical energy stored in the
ecological pyramids?
(b) Maximum BHC concentration may
found in B Detritivores, Scavengers, Decomposers,
(c) It represents C food chain in aquatic Primary producers, Insectivorous plants
ecosystem. (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1
A B C 20. Consider the following statements
1. Phytoplanktons Bald eagle Major (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks:
2. Zooplanktons Fishes Minor (A) Bears go into ____(1)____ during
3. Zooplanktons Bald eagle Minor winter to ____(2)____ cold weather.
4. Phytoplanktons Zooplanktons Minor (B) A conical age pyramid with a broad
base represents ____(3)____ human
14. Select the incorrect statement in the population.
following- (C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an
(1) A species may occupy more than one example of ___(4)____.
trophic level in the same ecosystem (D) An area with high levels of species
at the same time richness is known as _____(5)___.
(2) Energy at a higher trophic level is Which of the following options, gives the
always more than at a lower level correct fill ups for the respective blank
(3) Trophic level represents a functional numbers from (1) to (5) in the
level not a species as such statements ?
(4) In most ecosystems all the pyramids (1) (1) - hibernation, (2) - escape,
of number, Energy and biomass are (3) - expanding, (5) - hot spot
upright. (2) (3) - stable, (4) - commensalism,
(5) - marsh
15. Percentage energy transferred to higher
(3) (1) - aestivation, (2) - escape,
trophic level in food chain is -
(3) - stable, (4) - mutualism
(1) 1 % (2) 10 %
(4) (3) - expanding, (4) - commensalism,
(3) 90 % (4) 100 %
(5) - biodiversity park

Ecosystem 21
 21. Which one of the following process during 24. Select the correct combination of
decomposition is correctly described? statements regarding the characteristics
of productivity.
(1) Catabolism – Last step in the
I. The rate of biomass production is
decomposition under fully anaerobic called productivity and is expressed
condition in terms of kcal m–2.
(2) Leaching – Water soluble inorganic II. Gross primary productivity is rate of
production of biomass during
nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
photosynthesis.
(3) Fragmentation – Carried out by III. Gross primary productivity minus
organisms such as earthworm respiration loss is called net primary
productivity.
(4) Humification – Leads to the
IV. Primary productivity depends only on
accumulation of a dark coloured the plant species inhabiting a
substance humus which undergoes particular area.
microbial action at a very fast rate The correct statements are
(1) (I), (II) and (III) (2) (II) and (III)
22. Consider the following four statement (3) (II), (III) and (IV) (4) (II) and (IV)
(A-D) select the correct option stating 25. Total amount of energy trapped by green
which ones are true (T) and which one are plants in food is called -
false (F) (1) Gross primary production
(2) Net primary production
(A) Vertical distribution of different
(3) Standing crop
species occupying different level in a (4) Standing state
community is called stratifican
26. Which of the following is expected to
(B) Net primary productivity minus have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a
respiration losses is the gross grassland ecosystem ?
primary productivity (1) Tertiary production
(2) Gross production (GP)
(C) Net primary productivity is the
(3) Net production (NP)
available biomass for the (4) Secondary production
consumption of autotrophs
27. Which soil is considered as most suitable
(D) Annual net primary productivity of for plant growth ?
ocean is 55 billion tons. (1) Sandy soil
(2) Loamy soil
A B C D
(3) Clayey soil
(1) F T F T (4) None of the above
(2) T F T F 28. Which of the following have sunken
(3) T F F T stomata ?
(4) F T F F (1) Nerium (2) Mangifera
(3) Hydrilla (4) Zea mays
23. Mark the correct match - 29. Organisms having narrow range of
(1) Secondary consumer – zooplankton tolerance for temperature show:
(1) Wide distribution
(2) Pioneer community – viruses
(2) Limited distribution
(3) Nano ecosystem – valley and forest (3) No effect of temperature on distribution
(4) Omnivores – cockroach, crows (4) Distribution only in deserts

22 Ecosystem
30. Delay in development due to unfavourable 36. Read the statements given below and
environmental conditions is called: choose the correct option -
(1) Hibernation (A) Decomposition is purely an anaerobic
(2) Aestivation process
(3) Diapause (B) The rate of decomposition is
(4) All of the above controlled by chemical composition
of detritus and climatic factors.
31. Consider the following four conditions (a
(1) only A is correct
– d) and select the correct pair of them
(2) only A is incorrect
as adaptation to environment in desert (3) A and B both are correct
lizards. (4) A and B both are incorrect.
The conditions:
(a) Burrowing in soil to escape high 37. Select the incorrect statement for
decomposers:
temperature
(1) They are heterotrophic organism
(b) Losing heat rapidly from the body
consisting mostly of bacteria and
during high temperature
fungi.
(c) Bask in sun when temperature is low
(2) They release different enzyme from
(d) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis their bodies into the dead and
Options: decaying organic matter.
(1) (a), (b) (2) (c), (d) (3) Their intracellular digestion of dead
(3) (a), (c) (4) (b), (d) remains leads to the release of
simpler inorganic substances which
32. What is the best pH of the soil for
are then utilized by decomposers.
cultivation of plants ? (4) Unlike consumers, the decomposers
(1) 3.4 – 5.4 do not ingest their food.
(2) 6.5 – 7.5
38. The Great Barrier Reef along the east
(3) 4.5 – 8.5
coast of Australia can be categorized as -
(4) 5.5 – 6.5
(1) Population (2) Community
33. Insectivorous plants grow in the soil (3) Ecosystem (4) Biome
which is deficient in: 39. Which of the following is a correct pair -
(1) Mg (2) Ca (1) Cuscuta - parasite
(3) P (4) N (2) Orchid - insectivorous
(3) Opuntia – predator
34. Bacteria and fungi developing on dead (4) Capsella – hydrophyte
decaying organisms are -
40. Biosphere refers to -
(1) Parasites
(1) Plants of the world
(2) Commensals
(2) Special plants
(3) Saprophytes
(3) Area occupied by living beings
(4) Symbionts (4) Plants of a particular area
35. Humus is:
(1) Dead and decayed organic matter
(2) Living matter
(3) Fertilizers
(4) Living animal / plants / microbes

Ecosystem 23
 Exercise – III
Direction: 7. Statement-I: Detritus food chain may be
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II connected with grazing food chain at some
are correct levels.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II Statement-II: Some of the organisms of
are incorrect DFC are prey to the GFC animals and some
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II of the organisms are Omnivores in nature.
is incorrect
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(D) Statement I is correct but Statement II
is correct 8. Statement-I: Pyramid of energy is most
reliable representation of functional
1. Statement-I: Ecosystem can be visualized as
relationship of any ecosystem.
a functional unit of nature.
Statement-II: Energy flow is always
Statement-II: In ecosystem not only living
organisms interact among themselves but unidirectional without any kind of
also with surrounding physical environment. deviation.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

2. Statement-I: Net primary productivity is 9. Statement-I: A given species may occupy

the base of life of heterotrophs. more than one trophic level, in the same
Statement-II: Net primary productivity is ecosystem at the same time.
the available biomass for consumption to Statement-II: Trophic level represents a
heterotrophs. functional level, not a species as such.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
3. Statement-I: Despite occupying about 70
10. Statement-I: Saprophytes are not given
percent of the Earth’s surface, productivity
any place in ecological pyramids although
of oceans are only 55 billion tons.
they play vital role in ecosystem.
Statement-II: In oceans there is poor
Statement-II: Saprophytes have no
nutrient availability in producer region.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D specific trophic level.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
4. Statement-I: Fragmentation is one of the
important steps of decomposition. 11. Statement-I: Respiration and decomposition
Statement-II: Fragmentation helps in are not sufficient to return entire carbon
leaching of water soluble organic participating in carbon cycle.
substances & minerals. Statement-II: Some amount of fixed
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D carbon is lost to sediments and removed
5. Statement-I: Decomposition is largely an from circulation.
oxygen requiring process. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Statement-II: Oxygen leads to aerobic 12. Choose the incorrect match –
breakdown of organic substances hence Column-I Column-II
there is complete breakdown of detritus. (i) Grass Producer
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (ii) Deer Pri. Consumer
(iii) lion Sec. consumer
6. Statement-I: In Terrestrial, ecosystem
much larger fraction of energy flows (iv) fox Sec. consumer
through the detritus food chain. (v) Insectivorous Prc. Consumer
Statement-II: In an aquatic ecosystem, Plant
GFC is the major conduit for energy flow. (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (v) only

24 Ecosystem
13. Identify the correct match from the 16. Match column I with column II and choose the
column I, II and III. correct combination from the options given.
Column-I Column-II Column-III Column I Column II
(a) GPP (i) Available biomass for
(A) Producer (a) Herbivore (i) Converter
the consumption
(B) Primary (b) Phagotrophs (ii) Osmotrophs
to heterotrophs
consumer (b) NPP (ii) Rate of production
(C) Secondary (c) Transducer (iii) Secondary of organic matter
consumer Producer (c) Standing (iii) The amount of
(D) Micro (d) Transformer (iv) Predator Crop nutrients in soil
consumer (d) Standing (iv) Mass of living material
State
Options:-
(1) a–(ii), b–(i), c–(iv), d–(iii)
(1) B – a – iii, A – c – iv, C – b – i, D – d – ii
(2) a–(iv), b–(ii), c–(iii), d–(i)
(2) A – d – iii, B – b – iv, C – b – i, D – d – ii (3) a–(i), b–(ii), c–(iii), d–(iv)
(3) B – a – iii, A – c – i, C – b – iv, D – d – ii (4) a–(ii), b–(i), c–(iii), d–(iv)
(4) C – a – iii, A – b – ii, C – c – iii, D – d – ii
17. Suppose 10000 J of solar energy is
14. Match column I with column II and incident of green vegetation. On the
choose the correct combination from basis of 10% law of Lindeman. Identify
the options given. the amount of energy transferred to
Column I Column II
deer and then to tiger.
(a) Top carnivore (i) Grasshopper
(b) Secondary consumer (ii) Grass
(c) Herbivore (iii) Frog
(d) Primary producer (iv) Peacock
(1) a–(iv), b–(i), c–(iii), d–(ii)
(2) a–(iv), b–(iii), c–(i), d–(ii)
(3) a–(iii), b–(i), c–(ii), d–(iv)
(4) a–(ii), b–(iii), c–(i), d–(iv)

15. Match column I with column II and

choose the correct combination from (1) I–10 J, II–1 J (2) I–100 J, II–10 J
the options given. (3) I–10 J, II–0.1 J (4) I–0.1 J, II–0.01 J
Column I Column II
18. Given below is the diagram of a food
(a) Natural terrestrial (i) Crop
web.
ecosystem fields
(b) Natural aquatic (ii) Grassland
ecosystem
(c) Man made aquatic (iii) Biosphere
ecosystem
(d) Man made terrestrial (iv) Aquarium
ecosystem
What is incorrect in the above diagram?
(e) Global ecosystem (v) Estuary (1) Deer feeding on plants.
(1) a–(iii), b–(ii), c–(i), d–(v), e–(iv) (2) Deer and Deer both occupying the
(2) a–(ii), b–(iii), c–(iv), d–(i), e–(v) same level in the trophic level.
(3) a–(i), b–(iv), c–(v), d–(ii), e–(iii) (3) Frog consuming python.
(4) a–(ii), b–(v), c–(iv), d–(i), e–(iii) (4) Lion being a carnivore.

Ecology 25
 19. Which of the food chains will be 21. If the figure given below represents a
advantageous to top consumer in terms terrestrial food web, then combined
of energy? biomass of C + D would probably be:
(1) Plants → Man
(2) Plants → Goat → Man
(3) Plants → Mice → Snakes → Hawk
(4) Plant → Grasshopper → Insects
→ Frog → Snake → Hawk

20. Identify the type of pyramid depicted

below.
(1) Greater than the biomass of A
(2) Less than the biomass of A
(3) Less than the biomass of E
(1) Pyramid of number is tree ecosystem
(4) Less than the biomass A + B
(2) Pyramid of biomass in tree ecosystem
(3) Pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystem
(4) Pyramid of energy in tree ecosystem

26 Ecology
 Exercise – IV (Previous year Question)
[AIPMT Pre-2012] [AIPMT Mains-2012]
1. People who have migrated from the 6. Identify the likely organisms (a), (b), (c)
planes to an area adjoining Rohtang pass and (d) in the food web shown below:
lion
about six months back: hawks
foxes snakes
(1) Suffer from altitude sickness with owls garden
lizard (c)
symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc.
grass (d)
(2) Have the usual RBC count but their (a) mice (b) hopper sparrow

haemoglobin has very high binding

affinity to O2 Vegetation/seeds
Option:
(3) Have more RBCs and their haemoglobin
(a) (b) (c) (d)
has a lower binding affinity to O2
(1) rat dog tortoise crow
(4) Are not physically fit to play games (2) squirrel cat rat pigeon
like football. (3) deer rabbit frog rat
(4) dog squirrel bat deer
2. Which one of the following is not a
functional unit of an ecosystem:- 7. The rate of formation of new organic
(1) Productivity (2) Stratification matter by rabbit in a grassland, is called:
(1) Net primary productivity
(3) Energy flow (4) Decomposition
(2) Gross primary productivity
3. The upright pyramid of number is absent (3) Net productivity
in:- (4) Secondary productivity
(1) Lake (2) Grassland [NEET-UG 2013]
(3) Pond (4) Forest 8. Secondary productivity is rate of
formation of new organic matter by:
4. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of (1) Decomposer (2) Producer
numbers. What could be one of the (3) Parasite (4) Consumer
possibilities about certain organisms at 9. Which one of the following processes
some of the different levels? during decomposition is correctly
TC 10 described ?
(1) Leaching - Water soluble inorganic
SC 50 nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
PC 500 (2) Fragmentation - Carried out by
organisms such as earthworm
PP 1 (3) Humification - Leads to the
(1) Level one PP is “Pipal trees” and the accumulation of a dark coloured
level SC is “sheep” substance humus which undergoes
(2) Level PC is “rats” and level SC is “cats” microbial action at a very fast rate
(3) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is (4) Catabolism - Last step in the
“small” insectivorous birds decomposition under fully anaerobic
condition.
(4) Level PP is “Phytoplanktons” in sea
[AIIMS-2014]
and “Whale” on top level TC.
10. Which of the following show inverted
5. Identify the possible link “A” in the
pyramid of biomass?
following food chain: (1) Pond ecosystem
Plant → Insect → Frog → “A” → Eagle (2) Tree ecosystem
(1) Cobra (2) Parrot (3) Grass ecosystem
(3) Rabbit (4) Wolf (4) Agricultural system

Ecosystem 27
 [AIPMT-2014] [NEET-2017]
11. Just as a person moving from Delhi to 17. Which ecosystem has the maximum
biomass?
Shimla to escape the heat for the duration
(1) Forest ecosystem
of hot summer, thousands of migratory (2) Grassland ecosystem
birds from Siberia and other extremely (3) Pond ecosystem
cold northern regions move to: (4) Lake ecosystem
(1) Western Ghat [NEET-2018]
(2) Meghalaya 18. What type of ecological pyramid would
(3) Corbett National Park obtained with the following data ?
(4) Keolado National Park Secondary consumer: 120 g
Primary consumer: 60 g
[AIPMT-2015] Primary producer: 10 g
12. The mass of living material at a trophic (1) Upright pyramid of biomass
(2) Inverted pyramid of biomass
level at a particular time is called:
(3) Upright pyramid of numbers
(1) Standing state (4) Pyramid of energy
(2) Net primary productivity
[NEET-2019]
(3) Standing crop 19. Which of the following ecological
(4) Gross primary productivity pyramids is generally inverted ?
(1) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
13. In an ecosystem the rate of production (2) Pyramid of biomass in a sea
of organic matter during photosynthesis (3) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
is termed as: (4) Pyramid of energy
(1) Gross primary productivity [NEET-2020]
(2) Secondary productivity 20. Match the trophic levels with their
correct species examples in grassland
(3) Net productivity
ecosystem.
(4) Net primary productivity (a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
[Re-AIPMT 2015]
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
14. The term ecosystem was coined by (d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
(1) E.P. Odum (2) A.G. Tansley Select the correct option:
(3) E. Haeckel (4) E. Warming (a) (b) (c) (d)
[NEET-II 2016] (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
15. At deep oceanic hydrothermal vents the
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
primary producer are: (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) Green algae
21. In relation to Gross primary productivity
(2) Chemoautotrophic bacteria and Net primary productivity of an
(3) Blue green algae ecosystem, which one of the following
(4) Coral reefs statements is correct?
(1) There is no relationship between Gross
16. Which one of the following is a characteristic primary productivity and Net productivity
feature of cropland ecosystem? (2) Gross primary productivity is always
less than net primary productivity
(1) Absence of soil organisms
(3) Gross primary productivity is always
(2) Least genetic diversity more than net primary productivity.
(3) Absence of weeds (4) Gross primary productivity and Net
(4) Ecological succession primary productivity are one and same.

28 Ecosystem
 [NEET-2020 (Covid-19)] 27. Assertion (A):
22. Which of the following statements is A person goes to high altitude and
incorrect? experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with
(1) Biomass decreases from first to symptoms like breathing difficulty and
fourth trophic level heart palpitations.
(2) Energy content gradually increases Reason (R):
from first to fourth trophic level Due to low atmospheric pressure at high
(3) Number of individuals decreases from altitude, the body does not get sufficient
first trophic fourth trophic level oxygen.
(4) Energy content gradually decreases In the light of the above statements,
from first to fourth trophic level choose the correct answer from the
options given below.
23. The rate of decomposition is faster in (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the ecosystem due to following factors the correct explanation of (A)
EXCEPT: (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
(1) Detritus rich in sugars not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Warm and moist environment (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Presence of aerobic soil microbes (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Detritus richer in lignin and chitin
[NEET-2022]
24. According to Alexander von Humboldt: 28. Given below are two statements:
(1) Species richness decreases with Statement I:
increasing area of exploration Decomposition is a process in which the
(2) Species richness increases with detritus is degraded into simpler
increasing area but only up to limit substances by microbes.
(3) There is no relationship between Statement II:
species richness and area explored. Decomposition is faster if the detritus is
(4) Species richness goes on increasing rich in lignin and chitin
with increasing area of exploration. In the life of the above statements,
choose the correct answer form the
[NEET-2021]
options given below:
25. Which of the following statements is not (1) Both Statement I and Statement II
correct ? are correct
(1) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally (2) Both Statement I and Statement II
inverted. are incorrect
(2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II
upright. is incorrect
(3) Pyramid of energy is always upright. (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(4) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland is correct
ecosystem is upright.
29. Detritivores breakdown detritus into
26. In the equation GPP–R = NPP smaller particles. This process is called:
(1) Radiant energy (1) Catabolism
(2) Retardation factor (2) Fragmentation
(3) Environment factor (3) Humification
(4) Respiration losses (4) Decomposition

Ecosystem 29
 [NEET-2023] Choose the correct answer from the
30. Identify the correct statements : options given below:
(A) Detrivores perform fragmentation. (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(B) The humus is further degraded by some (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
microbes during mineralization. (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(C) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
down into the soil and get precipitated
by a process called leaching. 33. Nitrates and phosphates flowing from
(D) The detritus food chain begins with agricultural farms into water bodies are
a significant cause of :
living organisms.
(1) Eutrophication (2) Humification
(E) Earthworms break down detritus into
(3) Mineralisation (4) Stratification
smaller particles by a process called
catabolism. [NEET-2023](Manipur)
Choose the correct answer from the
34. The amount of nutrients such as carbon,
options given below.
nitrogen, potassium and calcium
(1) A, B, C only
present in the soil at any given time is
(2) B, C, D only referred to as :
(3) C, D, E only (1) Standing state (2) Standing crop
(4) D, E, A only
(3) Humus (4) Detritus
31. In the equation
35. Plants offer rewards to animals in the
GPP – R = NPP form of pollen and nectar and the
GPP is Gross Primary Productivity animals facilitate the pollination
process. This is an example of :
NPP is Net Primary Productivity
(1) Amensalism (2) Competition
R here is ____________.
(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism
(1) Photosynthetically active radiation
(2) Respiratory quotient
(3) Respiratory loss
(4) Reproductive allocation

32. Match List I with List II :

List I List II
(Interaction) (Species
A and B)
A. Mutualism I. +(A), O(B)
B. Commensalism II. –(A), O(B)
C. Amensalism III. +(A), –(B)
D. Parasitism IV. +(A), +(B)

30 Ecosystem
 ANSWER KEY

Ecosystem
Exercise - I

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 1 4 3 4 4 2 2 1 3 4 4 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 1 2 1 1 3 3 2 1 2 1 4 4 1 4 1 2 2 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 4 1 3 2 3 2 3 3 4 2 3 1 4 4 2 3 3 1 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 1 2 4 1 3 3 2 1 1 4 3 4 3 1 1 3 1 4 4
Que. 81 82 83
Ans. 2 3 4

Exercise - II

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 1 2 1 1 3 1 2 3 4 1 1 2 2 1 4 3 3 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 3 4 1 1 2 2 1 2 3 3 4 4 3 1 2 3 3 1 3

Exercise – III

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 1 1 4 3 2 4 1 1 3 1 3
Que. 21
Ans. 4

Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 2 4 3 1 3 4 4 2 1 4 3 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. 3 2 4 2 2 4 1 3 2 1 3 2 1 1 4

Ecosystem 31
3 Biodiversity and Conservation

Biodiversity
• Term given by Edward Wilson.
• Combined diversity at all the levels of biological organization. The biodiversity can be studied at
three levels.
(1) Genetic Diversity
(2) Species Diversity
(3) Community and Ecosystem Diversity
(1) Genetic Diversity:
• A species show high diversity at gene level over it's distributional range. For ex. Medicinal plant
Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in Himalayan range show diversity in synthesis of chemical
reserpine in concentration and potential.
• India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice and 1000 varieties of mango.
(2) Species Diversity:
• Diversity at species level.
• Generally, greater the species richness, greater is the species diversity. However, number of
individuals among the species may also vary, resulting into differences in evenness or
equitability in diversity.
(3) Ecological or Ecosystem Diversity:
• Diversity at ecosystem and community level.
ex. India have diverse kind of ecosystem like desert, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs,
wetlands, estuaries and alpine meadows, than the Norway.

Fig. Three perspectives of diversity: alpha, beta and gamma diversity.

Biodiversity and Conservation 1

Magnitude of Biodiversity in World and India:
• According to IUCN (2004) the total number of species of plants and animals described so far is
slightly more than 1.5 million.
• Scientists have calulated that the total number of species in the world ranges from 20 to 50 million.
• Robert may, with more conservative and scientifically sould estimate, places the number of global
species diversity of about 7 miillion.
• According to currently available inventories of earth's biodiversity-
70% of all species is of animals.
22% of all species is of plants species (Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and
Angiosperms)
• Among animals, insects are most species rich (number of species) constituting 70% of total animal
species. i.e., from every 10 animals, 7 are insects

• Prokaryotes are not counted in global biodiversity as the number of prokaryotic species in not
known, conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identifying them and many species
are not culturable under laboratory conditions.

→ Biodiversity in India:
• India share 2.4% of world land area but share global species diversity of 8.1% which make India
one of the 12 mega diversity countries of world. India has 45000 species of plants and twice the
number of species of animals and many more yet to be identified and discovered.

• According to Robert Mays global estimates, only 22% of the total species have been recorded so
far. Applying this proportion to India more than 1,00,000 plant and 3,00,000 animal species yet to
be discovered and described.

• The most biodiversity rich zone are Western Ghat and North East Himalaya account for 4% and
5.2% of geographical area respectively.

• A very high number of Amphibian species are endemic to western ghat.

• Biological diversity in ecosystems like deep oceans, wetlands, lakes and habitats like tree canopy
and soil of tropical rain forest in India yet to be explored.

2 Biodiversity and Conservation

Gradients / Pattern of Biodiversity

(A) The pattern of biodiversity can be decided by latitudes (Distance from equator), altitude (Height

from sea level.

• As we move from low to high latitudes ie., from equator to the poles the biological diversity

decreases. Tropics (latitudinal range of 23.5°N to 23.5°S) harbour more species than temperate

or polar areas. Colombia located near equator has about 1400 species of birds while Newyork

at 41°N has 105 species and Greenland at 71°N only 56 species of birds.

• India with much of its land in tropical latitude has more than 1200 species of birds.

• A forest in tropical region like Equador has 10 times more species of vascular plants than

temperate region like Midwest of USA.

• The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest in South America has greatest biodiversity on earth.

It is home to more than 40,000 species of plants, 3000 of fishes, 1,300 of birds, 427 of

mammals, 427 of Amphibians, 378 of reptiles and more than 1,25,000 invertebrates.

• Tropics have very high biodiversity due to -

(a) Speciation (Formation of new species) is the function of time and unlike temperate regions which

were subjected to frequent glaciations in past the tropical latitudes have remained undisturbed

for millions of years. So have long evolutionary time for species diversification.

(b) Tropical environment unlike temperate one are less seasonal, relatively more constant and

predictable which promotes niche specialisation and leads to greater species diversity.

(c) There is more solar energy available in tropics, which contributes to higher productivity and

indirectly contribute to greater diversity.

• There is Decrease in species as we move from lower to higher altitude on a mountain.

• 1000 m increase in altitude results in temperature drop of about 6.5°C. This drop in temperature and

great seasonal variability at higher altitude are a major factor that reduce biodiversity.

• The latitudinal and altitudinal gradients of species diversity are two master gradients.

• Also more complex and heterogenous the physical environment, more complex and diverse

will be the flora and fauna.

(B) Species Area Relationship:

• German naturalist and geographer Alexander Von Hemboldt observed that within a region, species

richness increased with increasing explored area, but only upto a limit.

Biodiversity and Conservation 3

• Generally the value of Z-line is in range of 0.1 to 0.2 regard less of taxonomic group or region.
(whether it is the plants in Britain, birds in California or molluscs in New York state, the slopes of
the regression line are amazingly similar). But, if you analyse the species-area relationships among
very large areas like the entire continents, you will find that the slope of the line to be much steeper
(Z values in the range of 0.6 to 1.2).

Importance of Species Diversity to the Ecosystem

• The number of species in a community is important for an ecosystem. It is believes that
communities with more species are more stable and with less species are less stable.

• A stable community mean-

 • Not show to much variation in productivity year to year.

• It must be resistant (resilient) to occasional disturbances (Natural or Man made).

• It must also be resistant to invasions by alien species.

• Less seasonal variations.

• How these attributes are linked to species richness in a community? According to David Tilman's
long term ecosystem experiment using outdoor plots concluded that plots with more species shows
less year to year variation in total biomass and increased diversity contributed to higher
productivity.

• Rich biodiversity is not only essential for ecosystem health, but also necessary for survival of human
race on this planet.

• How a species extinction anywhere on this planet affect the human race is explained by Stanford
ecologist Paul Ehrlich by Rivet Popper Hypothesis.

• He compare aeroplane as ecosystem joined together by thousands of rivets as species.

If passengers travelling in it starts popping a rivet to take home (causing a species to become
extinct) it may not affect flight safety (proper functioning of ecosystem) initially, but as more and
more rivets are removed, the plane become dangerously weak over a period of time.

4 Biodiversity and Conservation

• The removal of rivet of wings is more dangerous than seat or wind rivets. The rivet of wings means
keystone species of ecosystem. Key species are species that drive the major ecosystem function.

Concept Builder

1. The medicinal plant, Rauwolfia vomitoria, growing in Himalayan ranges shows variation in terms
of the potency and concentration of the chemical (reserpine), that it produces. It is an example
of
(1) Species diversity (2) Ecological diversity (3) Genetic diversity (4) None of the
above

2. The western Ghats have a greater amphibians diversity than the Eastern Ghats. It is an example
of
(1) Species diversity (2) Ecological diversity (3) Genetic diversity (4) None of the
above

3. As estimated by Robert May, what is the total number of species present on earth?
(1) 3 million (2) 5 million (3) 7 million (4) 9 million

4. Given below is the representation of the extern of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups
the four portions (A-D) represent, respectively?

A B C D
(1) Insects Crustaceans Other animal groups Molluscs
(2) Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other animal groups
(3) Molluscs Other animal groups Crustaceans Insects
(4) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other animal groups

Biodiversity increases
5. I. Higherlatitude ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Lowerlatitude
(Poles) (Equator)
Biodiversity decreases
II. Higherlatitude ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→Lowerlatitude
(Poles) (Equator)
Biodiversity increases
III. Higher altitude ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Lower altitude
(Mountain top) (Sea level)

Biodiversity decreases
IV. Higher altitude ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Lower altitude
(Mountain top) (Sea level)

Which of the matches above is/are correct?

(1) I and III (2) I and II (3) II and III (4) III and IV

6. Alexander von Humboldt described for the first time

(1) Ecological biodiversity (2) Law of limiting factor
(3) Species-area relationships (4) Population growth equation

Biodiversity and Conservation 5

7. The reasons behind conserving biodiversity can be grouped into categories.
I. Broadly utilitarian
II. Narrowly utilitarian
III. No utilitarian
IV. Ethical utilitarian
Choose the correct option.
(1) I, II, III and IV (2) II, III and IV (3) I, II and IV (4) I, III and IV

8. Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level diversity for novel products of economic
importance is known as
(1) Biopiracy (2) Bioenergetics (3) Bioremediation (4) Bioprospecting

9. Which of the following statement is the incorrect explanations about higher diversity in tropical
areas in comparison to the temperate areas?
(1) There are less seasonal variations in tropics
(2) Less solar energy is available in tropics
(3) Rate of extinction is low in tropics
(4) Resource availability is higher in tropics

10. Match the following Columns:

Column I Column II
A. River popper hypothesis (1) Paul Ehrlich
B. Communities with more species (2) Edwards Wilson
C. Communities with less species (3) Less stable
D. Term biodiversity (4) More stable
A B C D
(1) 2 4 3 1
(2) 1 4 3 2
(3) 1 3 4 2
(4) 1 4 2 3

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 1 3 4 1 3 3 4 2 2

Loss of Biodiversity/Threats to Biodiversity

• The loss in biodiversity in a region may leads to-
 • Decline in plant production.
 • Lowered the resistance to environmental changes like drought.
 • Change the ecosystem processing like plant productivity, water use, pest and disease cycle.
Causes of Biodiversity Loss:
(i) Habitat loss and Fragmentation. 
(ii) Over exploitation
(iii) Introduction of exotic species/ Alien species.
(iv) Co-extinction

(i) Habitat Loss and Fragmentation: This is the most important cause driving animals and plants to
extinction. The most dramatic example of habitat loss come from tropical rain forests. Once
covering more than 14 percent of the earth's land surface, these rain forests now over no more
than 6 percent. they are being destroyed fast. By the time you finish reading this chapter, 1000
more hectares of rain forest would have been lost.

6 Biodiversity and Conservation

 • The Amazon rain forest (It is so huge that it is called the 'Lungs of the planet'.) harbouring
probably millions of species is being cut and cleared for cultivating soya beans or for conversion
to grassland for raising beef cattle.
• Besides total loss, the degradation of many habitats by pollution also threatens the survival of
many species. When large habitats are broken up into small fragments due to various human
activities, mammals and birds requiring large territories and certain animals with migratory
habits are badly affected, leading to population declines.

(ii) Over-Exploitation: Human have always depended on nature for food and shelter, but when 'need'
turns to 'greed', it leads to over-exploitation of natural resources. Many species extinctions in the
last 500 years (Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon) were due to exploitation by humans. Presently
many marine fish populations around the world are over harvested, endangering the continued
existence of some commercially important species.

(iii) Alien Species Invasions: When alien species are introduced unintentionally or deliberately for any
purpose, some of them turn invasive, and cause decline or extinction of indigenous species.
• The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in east Africa led eventually to the extinction of
an ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in lake. You must be
familiar with the environmental damage caused and threat posed to our native species by
invasive weed species like carrot grass (Parthenium), Lantana and water hyacinth (Eicchornia).
• The recent illegal introduction of the African Catfish Clarias gariepinus for aquaculture
purposes is posing a threat to the indigenous catfishes in our rivers.

(iv) Co-Extinctions: When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an
obligatory way also become extinct even the assemblage of parasites also meets the same fate.

• Another example is the case of a coevolved plant-pollinator mutualism where extinction of one
invariably leads to the extinction of the other.

Type of Extinction of Species

• Extinction is a natural process. Species have disappeared and new ones have evolved to take their
places over the long geological history of the earth. It is useful to distinguished three types of
extinction processes.

(i) Natural Extinction

(ii) Mass Extinction

(iii) Anthropogenic Extinction

Susceptibility to Extinction: The characteristics of species particularly susceptible to extinction are

large body size (Bengal tiger, Lion and Elephant); small population size and low reproductive rate
(Blue whale and Giant panda). Feeding at high tropic levels in the food chain (Bengal tiger and Bald
eagle), fixed migratory routes and habitat (Blue whale and Whooping crane) and localised and
narrow range of distribution (woodland caribou; many island species) also make the species
susceptible to extinction.

Biodiversity and Conservation 7

The IUCN Red List Categories
• The IUCN Red List (which is started in 1963) is a catalogue of taxa that are facing the risk of
extinction. It is important to understand that the Red List aims to impart information about the
urgency and scale of conservation problems to the public and policy makers.
• The World Conservation Union (formerly known as International Union for the Conservation of
Nature and Natural Resource, IUCN) has recognised eight Red List Categories of species; Extinct,
Extinct in the wild, Critically endangered, Endangered, Vulnerable, Lower Risk, Data Deficient and
Not Evaluated. These categories are defined in Table below.

Red List Category Definition

A taxon is Critically Endangered when it is facing an extremely high risk of
Critically Endangered
extinction in the wild in the immediate future.
A taxon is Endangered when it is not Critically Endangered, but facing a
Endangered
very high risk of extinction in the wild in the near future.

A taxon is Vulnerable when it is not Critically Endangered or Endangered,

Vulnerable
but facing a high risk of extinction in the wild in the medium term future.

• The IUCN Red List (2004) documents the extinction of 784 species (including 338 vertebrates,
359 invertebrates and 87 plants) in the last 500 years. Some examples of recent extinctions include
the dodo (Mauritius), quagga (Africa), thylacine (Australia), Steller’s Sea Cow (Russia) and three
subspecies (Bali, Javan, Caspian) of tiger. The last twenty years alone have witnessed the
disappearance of 27 species. Careful analysis of records shows that extinctions across taxa are not
random; some groups like amphibians appear to be more vulnerable to extinction. Adding to the
grim scenario of extinctions is the fact that more than 15,500 species world-wide are facing the
threat of extinction.

• Presently, 12 per cent of all bird species, 23 per cent of all mammal species, 32 per cent of all
amphibian species and 31 per cent of all gymnosperm species in the world face the threat of
extinction. From a study of the history of life on earth through fossil records, we learn that large-
scale loss of species like the one we are currently witnessing have also happened earlier, even
before humans appeared on the earth.

• During the long period (> 3 billion years) since the origin and diversification of life on earth there
were five episodes of mass extinction of species. How is the ‘Sixth Extinction’ presently in progress
different from the previous episodes? The difference is in the rates; the current species extinction
rates are estimated to be 100 to 1,000 times faster than in the pre-human times and our activities
are responsible for the faster rates. Ecologists warn that if the present trends continue, nearly half
of all the species on earth might be wiped out within the next 100 years.

Rauwolfia serpentiana (medicinal plant) is endangered.

8 Biodiversity and Conservation

Why should we conserve Biodiversity
Utilities of Biodiversity
(A) Narrowly utilitarian
(B) Broadly Utilitarian / Ecosystem Services
(C) Ethical / Aesthetic and Cultural Benefits

(A) Narrowly Utilitarian (Economic Uses):

• The narrowly utilitarian arguments for conserving biodiversity are obvious; humans derive
countless direct economic benefits from nature food (cereals, pulses, fruits), firewood, fibre,
construction material, industrial products (tannins, lubricants, dyes, resins, perfumes) and
products of medicinal importance. More than 25 per cent of the drugs currently sold in the
market worldwide are derived from plants and 25,000 species of plants contribute to the
traditional medicines used by native peoples around the world. Nobody knows how many more
medicinally useful plants there are in tropical rain forests waiting to be explored.
With increasing resources put into ‘bioprospecting’ (exploring molecular, genetic and species-
level diversity for products of economic importance), nations endowed with rich biodiversity
can expect to reap enormous benefits.
(B) Broadly Utilitarian (Ecosystem services):

• Diversity is essential for the maintenance and sustainable utilization of goods and services of
ecosystem or individual species. The ecosystem services are -

• Gaseous exchange - Amazon forest is estimated to produce, through photosynthesis, 20% of

total oxygen of earth atmosphere. So these forest are considered as "Lungs of Earth".

• Pollination by bees, bumblebees, birds, bats, ants and various insects.

• Climate control by forest and oceanic ecosystem (Hydrological Cycles)

• Natural pest control.

• Protection of soil.

• Conservation and purification of water.

• Nutrient cycling.

(C) Ethical / Aesthetic and Cultural Benefits:

The ethical argument for conserving biodiversity relates to what we owe to millions of plant, animal
and microbe species with whom we share this planet. Philosophically or spiritually, we need to realise
that every species has an intrinsic value, even if it may not be of current or any economic value to us.
We have a moral duty to care for their well-being and pass on our biological legacy in good order to
future generations.

Biodiversity Conservation
• When we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels is protected - we
save the entire forest to save the tiger. This approach is called in situ (on site) conservation.
However, when there are situations where an animal or plant is endangered or threatened
(organisms facing a very high risk of extinction in the wild in the near future) and needs urgent
measures to save it from extinction, ex situ (off site) conservation is the desirable approach.

Biodiversity and Conservation 9

 In Situ Conservation Strategies
1. Hot Spot:
Norman Myers developed the hot spot concept in 1988. This is a mega diversity zone. Where large
number of species are found. It is an area of the richest and the most threatened reservoirs of
plant and animal life on the earth. Initially 25 biodiversity hot spots were identified in world, now
number of biodiversity hot spot in the world are 34 out of these 3 hotspots are found in India.
(i) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka (ii) Indo-Burma (iii) The Himalayas (One of the richest
hot spot of biodiversity)
Note:
• The key criteria for determining a hot spot are:
1. High level of species richness
2. High degree of endemism (that is, species confined to that region and not found
anywhere else)
3. High degree of threat which is measured in terms of habitat loss (It means hot spots are
regions of accelerated habitat loss).
• Hot spot covers the 1.4% of the earths land area.
• Although all the biodiversity hotspots put together cover less than 2 percent of the earth’s
land area, the number of species they collectively harbour is extremely high and strict
protection of these hotspots could reduce the ongoing mass extinctions by almost
30 per cent.
2. Biosphere Reserves: Biosphere reserves are special category of protected areas of land
and/or coastal environments, where in people are an integral component of the system. These are
representative examples of natural biomes and contain unique biological communities.
The concept of Biosphere Reserve was launched in 1975 as a part of UNESCO's Man and Biosphere
Programme (MAB), dealing with the conservation of ecosystems and the genetic resources
contained therein.
• A Biosphere Reserve consists of core, buffer and transition zones. The natural or core zone
comprises an undisturbed and legally protected ecosystem. The buffer zone surrounds the core
area, and is managed to accommodate a greater variety of resource use strategies and research
and educational activities.

10 Biodiversity and Conservation

• The transition zone, the outermost part of the Biosphere Reserve, is an area of active cooperation
between reserve management and the local people, wherein activities like settlements, cropping,
forestry and recreation and other economic uses continue in harmony with conservation goals.
Biosphere Reserve State(s)
1. Nanda Devi Uttranchal
2. Nokrek Meghalaya
3. Manas Assam
4. Dibru Saikhowa Assam
5. Dehang Debang Arunachal Pradesh
6. Sunderbans West Bengal
7. Gulf of Mannar Tamil Nadu
8. Nilgiri Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
9. Great Nicobar Andaman & Nicobar
10. Simlipal Orissa
11. Kanchanjunga Sikkim
12. Pachmarhi Madhya Pradesh
13. Agasthyamalai Kerala
14. Achankamar Madhya pradesh, Chattisgarh

3. National Park
In India, ecologically unique and biodiversity-rich regions are legally protected as biosphere reserves,
national parks and sanctuaries. India now has 14 biosphere reserves, 90 national parks and 448
wildlife sanctuaries. India has also a history of religious and cultural traditions that emphasised
protection of nature. In many cultures, tracts of forest were set aside, and all the trees and wildlife
within were venerated and given total protection. Such sacred groves are found in Khasi and Jaintia
Hills in Meghalaya, Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan, Western Ghat regions of Karnataka and Maharashtra
and the Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar areas of Madhya Pradesh. In Meghalaya, the sacred groves are
the last refuges for a large number of rare and threatened plants.

Biodiversity and Conservation 11

 Some Important National Parks of India
Name & Location Important Animals Found
1. Kaziranga National Park District Sibsagar (Assam) Rhinoceros
2. Sundarbans (Tiger Reserve) 24-Pargana (West Bengal) Tiger
3. Hazaribagh National Park Hazaribagh Jharkhand Tiger
4. Corbett National Park District Nainital (Uttaranchal) Tiger
5. Gir National Park District Junagarh (Gujarat) Asiatic lion
6. Kanha National Park Mandla and Balaghat (M.P.) Tiger, panther, chital, chinkara,
four horned deer
7. Tandoba National Park Chandrapur (Maharashtra) Tiger
8. Bandipur National Park District Mysore (Karnataka) Elephant, tiger, leopard
9. Desert National Park Jaisalmer (Rajasthan) Great Indian Bustard, Black
buck, chinkara
10. Nannda Devi - Uttaranchal (Chamoli District) White Tiger

4. Some Important Sanctuaries of India

Name & Location Important Animals

1. Keoladeo Ghana Bird Sanctuary Bharatpur (Rajasthan) Siberian crane

Famous for birds

2. Annamalai Sanctuary Coimbatore (Tamil Nadu) Tiger, Elephant

3. Dachigam Sanctuary Srinagar (Jammu & Kashmir) Hangul or Kashmir stag,

Musk deer

4. Nagarjuna Sagar Sanctuary Guntur Kamool and Nalgonda Tiger, Panther

(Andhra Pradesh)

5. Periyar Sanctuary (Kerala) Elephants, Leopard, Hornbill

6. Chilka Lake Bird Sanctuary Balagaon (Orissa) Water fowls,

(Largest brackish water lagoon in Asia) An oasis of bir is like Ducks, Cranes

7. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary Kamrup (Assam) Tiger, Panther

5. Sacred Forests and Sacred Lakes: A traditional strategy for the protection of biodiversity has been in
practice in India and some other Asian countries in the form of sacred forests. These are forest patches
of varying dimensions protected by tribal communities due to religious sanctity accorded to them.

Ex-Situ Conservation Strategies

• The ex-situ conservation strategies include botanical gardens, zoos, conservation stands and gene,
pollen, seed, seedling, tissue culture and DNA banks. Seed gene banks are the easiest way to store
germplasm of wild and cultivated plants at low temperature in cold rooms. Preservation of genetic
resources is carried out in field gene banks under normal growing conditions.

12 Biodiversity and Conservation

• In vitro conservation, especially by cryopreservation in liquid nitrogen at a temperature of –196°C,
is particularly useful for conserving vegetatively propagated crops like potato. Cryopreservation is
the storage of material at ultra-low temperature either by very rapid cooling and simultaneous
dehydration at low temperature (used for tissue culture). The material can be stored for a long
period of time in compact, low maintenance refrigeration units.

International Efforts for Conserving Biodiversity

• The Earth Summit held in 1992 at Rio de Janeiro result into a Convention on Biodiversity, which
came into force on 29 December, 1993. The convention has three key objectives:
(i) Conservation of biological diversity.
(ii) Sustainable use of biodiversity and
(iii) Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilisation of genetic resources.

Special Point

• The Amazon rain forest is so huge that is called ''Lungs of the Planet''.

• Biodiversity Day 22th May.

• Year 2010 is declared as Biodiversity Conservation year by UNO.
• Year 2011 is declared as International Forest Year by UNO.
Note: 408 Biosphere reserves are located in 94 countries. In India 14 sites (2004) have been
identified as biosphere reserves together with their locations:

Some Special Animals:

• Asiatic Wild Ass - (Endangered) - Found in runn of Kutch and Pakistan
• Red Panda - (Endangered) - Found in Kanchanjunga (Sikkim)
• Hangul - Kashmir Stag (Endangered) - Found in Dachigam (Sri-Nagar - Jammu and Kashmir)
• Siberian Crane - (Endangered) - Found in Keoladeo (Ghana) National Park
• The Great Indian Bustard is a huge ground bird with long bare legs. It is an inhabitant of the semi-
arid areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra. Hunting for its flesh has reduced its population
to over 800. It is a critically endangered bird.
• Flamingoes are protected in Chilka lake Balagaon (Orissa)
• The Black Buck is one of the most graceful antelopes native of India. The male possesses a pair of
spirally twisted horns. Once abundant in several parts of India. Its population had come untill the
enforcement of the wild life (Protection) Act.
1. The World's First National Park (America) - Yellow stone National Park
2. India's First National Park - Jim Corbett National Park - Nainital (Uttaranchal)
3. Smallest Tiger Reserve in India - Ranthambore National Park - Sawaimadhopur (Rajasthan). It is
famous for Asiatic wild ass.

Biodiversity and Conservation 13

 4. Largest Tiger Reserve in India - Nagarjuna Sagar Saisailum Sanctuary - Guntoor - Andhra Pradesh.

5. Nandan-Kanan Zoo is known For - White tiger.

6. Periyar Wild Life Sanctuary (Kerala) - Famous for elephant and ohters.

7. Valley of Flower National Park - It is situated at Chamoli-Garhwal (Uttaranchal)

8. Rachel Carson Written a Book ''Silent Spring'' - concerned with awareness about ''Nature conservation
and Environment'' - 1962.

Note: In it was mentioned the effect of DDT on birds. The population of Lady bird bettle declined.

Some Important Information’s:

1. (i) National Forest Policy revised in - 1988.

(ii) Biodiversity act of India was passed by the Parliament in the year-2002.

(iii) Forest Act-1927.

2. Wild Life Protection Act 1972 (Revised in 1991):

3. Chipko Movement was born in March-1973 at Gopeshwar in Chamoli district. The movement had
two leaders - Sundarlal Bahuguna of Silyara in Tehri and Chandi Prasad Bhatt of Gopeshwar.

Appiko Movement - Similar type movement Appiko movement was under taken by Poundurang
hegde in south in 1983.

Special Wildlife Projects in India:

Project Tiger - Running since 1 April 1973 - Central Government.

The Gir Lion Sanctuary Project - Running since 1972-Central Govt. and Gujrat Govt.

Himalayan Musk Deer Project - U.P. Govt. IUCN and Central Govt.

The Manipur Brow - Antlered Deer Project - Running since 1977

Project Hangul - Since 1970 - J. & K. Govt. IUCN, WWF.

Crocodile Bredding Project - Since 1975 UNDP, Central Govt.

Project Elephant - Recently started.

About Wildlife:

• Red Data Book: This book contains a record of animals and plants which are known be in danger. This
Book is maintained by the IUCN (International Union of Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources).

• Silent Valley: It is tropical evergreen forest in Kerala (Palghat) declared as National Reserve Forest.
It is called silent valley because there is no noise in the forest during night, even that of cicadas,
as they are not found there. It is related to conservation of forest.

• Butterfly Park: India's first and only butterfly park was established in 1992 near Gangtok (Sikkim)

14 Biodiversity and Conservation

 Concept Builder

1. One of the most important functions of botanical gardens is that -

(1) They provide a beautiful area for recreation
(2) One can observe tropical plants there
(3) They allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm
(4) They provide the natural habitat for wild life

2. Which one of the following is not included under in - situ conservation ?

(1) Biosphere reserve (2) National park
(3) Sanctuary (4) Botanical garden

3. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India ?

(1) Eastern Ghats (2) Aravalli Hills
(3) Western Ghats (4) Indo-Gangetic Plain

4. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India ?
(1) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa (2) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
(3) Lantana camara, Water Hyacinth (4) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereia

5. Which one of the following is not observed in biodiversity hotspots ?

(1) Lesser inter-specific competition (2) Species richness
(3) Endemism (4) Accelerated species loss

6. Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following national park ?

(1) Jim Corbett (2) Ranthambhor (3) Sundarbans (4) Gir

7. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

(1) Wild life contrary (2) Seed bank (3) Sacred groves (4) National Park

8. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature ?
(1) Angiosperms (2) Fungi (3) Insects (4) Birds

9. Biodiversity of a geographical region represents:

(1) Species endemic to the region
(2) Endangered species found in the region
(3) The diversity in the organisms living in the region
(4) Genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region.

10. Which of the following is best method of biodiversity conservation ?

(1) Herbarium (2) Botanical gardens
(3) Seed bank (4) National park

11. The highest number of species in the world is represented by:-

(1) Algae (2) Lichens
(3) Fungi (4) Mosses

12. Select the correct statement about biodiversity:

(1) Western Ghats have a very high degree of spices richness and endemism.
(2) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries.
(3) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as
well as numerous rare animals.
(4) Large scale planting of Bt. cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity

Biodiversity and Conservation 15

 13. Sacred groves are specially useful in:
(1) Year round flow of water in rivers (2) Conserving rare and threatened spices
(3) Generating environmental awareness (4) Preventing soil erosion

14. Which of the following has the highest genetic diversity in India ?
(1) Rice (2) Mango
(3) Wheat (4) Maize

Concept Builder (Answer-Key)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 3 4 3 3 1 3 2 3 3 4 3 1 2 1

16 Biodiversity and Conservation

 Exercise – I

Biodiversity 8. The genetic variation shown by the

1. Who popularized the term “biodiversity” medicinal plant ……….. in Himalayan
to describe combined diversity at all ranges might be in terms of the potency
levels of biological organization? and concentration of the active
(1) Norman Myers (2) Robert May chemical that the plant produce.
(3) Edward Wilson (4) Paul Enrich (1) Atropa
(2) Withania somnifera
2. The term biodiversity refers to the:
(3) Rauwolfa vomitoria
(1) Totality of genes of a region
(4) Glycyrrhiza glabra
(2) Totality of species of a region
(3) Totality of ecosystem of a region 9. As far as species level diversity is
(4) All of these concerned, the Western Ghats have a
greater …………… species diversity than
3. Biological diversity includes three
the Eastern Ghats:
hierarchical levels except:
(1) Reptiles (2) Amphibians
(1) Genetic diversity
(3) Birds (4) Mammals
(2) Species diversity
(3) Biosphere diversity 10. Biodiversity of a geographical region
(4) Ecosystem diversity represents:
(1) Endangered species found in a region
4. Millions of years of evolutionary time
was taken to accumulate immense (2) The diversity of the organisms living
diversity in nature. If the present rate of in that region
species losses continues, then how (3) Genetic diversity in the dominant
much of this wealth will be lost in two species of the region
centuries? (4) Species endemic to the region
(1) Less than half of the total wealth 11. The predicted number of total species in
(2) Entire wealth world varies from:
(3) Almost half of the total wealth (1) 5-10 million (2) 25-50 million
(4) No loss at all as new species are (3) 50-70 million (4) 10-20 million
formed
12. According the IUCN (2004) the total
5. High diversiy at the gene level of a single number of plant and animal species
species is described as: described are:
(1) Genetic diversity
(1) Slightly less than 1.5 million
(2) Species diversity
(2) Slightly more than 1.5 million
(3) Ecological diversity
(3) 20-50 million
(4) Biosphere diversity
(4) 7-18 million
6. India has 1000 varieties of mango with
13. Which of the following statement is
different size colour and taste due to:
incorrect with respect to biodiversity
(1) Genetic diversity
(1) Number of animal species is more
(2) Ecological diversity
than 70%
(3) Species diversity
(2) Plants accounts for nearly 22% of the
(4) Ecosystme diversity
total
7. India has 50000 genetically different (3) India is one of the 54 mega
strains of: biodiversity countries of the world
(1) Rice (2) Mango (4) Tropical areas are 10 times more
(3) Wheat (4) Maize diverse thant temperate

Biodiversity and Conservation 17

 14. India although has only 2.4% of world 21. More conservative and scientifically
land area, how much species diversity of sound estimate made by Robert May
the world it possesses? places the global species diversity at
(1) 8.1% (2) 21% (3) 60% (4) 72% about
15. Fill in the blanks: (1) 1.5 million (2) 7 million
A. ………….. has more number of species (3) 1.7 million (4) 17 million
than the entire invertebrate in the world
22. Insects are the most numberous with
B. …………. Has more species than all the
vertebrate species combined estimate of
A B (1) 7 out of 10 invertebrates
(1) Insects Fungi (2) 4 out of 10 invertebrates
(2) Molluscs Fungi (3) 7 out of 10 animals
(3) Insects Lichens (4) 4 out of 10 animals
(4) Crustaceans Lichens
23. Species diversity in an ecosystem mainly
16. In the given diagram, Crustaceans and depends on –
Molluscs are represented by the region, (1) Light intensity (2) Temperature
respectively. (3) Rain fall (4) Soil type

Patterns of Biodiversity
24. Read the following statements and
select the correct option:
A. Biodiversity decreases when we move
from low to high altitude.

(1) B, D (2) B, C B. Biodiversity is minimum in Arctic

(3) C, B (4) A, B region and maximum in temperate
area
17. Conventional taxonomic methods are
C. Scientists estimate that in the rain
not suitable for identifying:
forest there might be at least two
(1) Amphibian species
million insects species waiting to be
(2) Insect species
(3) Microbial species discovered and named
(4) Gymnosperm species (1) Only C is incorrect
(2) Only B is incorrect
18. Approximately 1.5 million species have
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
been identified. Which group contains
(4) All A, B and C are correct
the most species world wide
(1) Fungi (2) Vascular plant 25. Biodiversy is rich in tropics because:
(3) Insects (4) Mammals A. Tropics are less seasonal
19. Total biodiversity present in India is B. Tropics have warm temperature and
about .....% of total world biodiversity low humidity
(1) 8.1% (2) 6.1% (3) 2% (4) 16% C. Tropics have undergone frequent

20. Out of more than 1.5 million known glaciations

species insects are _______of the total D. Tropics are near to equator and
animals sreceives more solar energy
(1) 70% (2) 25% (1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) 50% (4) 75% (3) A and D (4) B and D

18 Biodiversity and Conservation

26. Species-Area relationship was described 33. The largely tropical rainforest is home to
by: 427 species of:
(1) Paul Ehrlich (1) Mammals (2) Amphibians
(2) Robert May (3) Reptiles (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Alexander von Humboldt
(4) Edward Wilson 34. Midwest of USA represents:
(1) Tropical rain forest
27. Which of the given equation is correct
(2) Temperate forest
with respect to species-area
(3) Tropical deciduous forest
relationship?
(4) Grassland
(1) log C = log S + Z log A
(2) log S = log C + Z log A 35. Select the correct option for A and B:
(3) log Z = log C + S log A (i) IUCN documented the extinction of
(4) log A = log Z + S log A __A__ species in last 500 years
28. One of the probable reasosn for (ii) Last 20 years along witnessed the
temperate and polar regions showing disappearance of __B__ species
less diversity can be: (1) A : 359, B : 87 (2) A : 784, B : 27
(1) Frequent glaciation in the past which (3) A : 87, B : 27 (4) A : 784, B : 359
kept them disturbed
(2) Constant and predictable 36. Colonization of tropical Pacific islands
environment by humans have resulted in extinction of
(3) Availability of more solar energy more than …………. Species of native
(4) Higher productivity birds:
(1) 2000 (2) 784
29. Which is the incorrect statement for the
(3) 1400 (4) 1200
species- Area relationship?
(1) Larger areas have higher Z values 37. What determines the boundaries of a biome?
(2) Extinction rates are greater on small (1) Temperature & rain fall
island (2) Type of soil & presence of barrier
(3) Larger core areas show more species (3) Altitude & latitude
(4) Larger areas contain more habitats
(4) All the above
30. In equation log S = log C + Z log A, the 38. Rivet popper hypothesis was given by ......
mismatch pair is:
to explain importance of biodiversity
(1) S = species richness
(1) Mayer (2) Paul Eherlich
(2) A = Area
(3) Hemboldt (4) Wilson
(3) Z = Slope of line
(4) C = Regression coefficient Loss of Biodiversity
31. Tropical amazonian rain forest has 39. From origin of life to its diversification
greatest biodiversity on earth which
on earth, there have occurred ……….
harbours nearly ………… bird species.
Episodes of mass extinction:
(1) 3000 (2) 1300
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) 427 (4) 378
(3) Four (4) Five
32. Choose the option which is represented
correctly with respect to number of 40. A sixth extinction of species is related to
species in Amazonian rain forest: :
(1) Fishes > Birds > Mammals (1) Natural extinction
(2) Birds > Mammals > Fishes (2) Mass extinction
(3) Birds > Fishes > Mammals (3) Background extinction
(4) Mammals > Birds > Fishes (4) Anthropogenic extinction

Biodiversity and Conservation 19

 41. An endangered Indian bird is 49. The species which are likely to be in
(1) Passenger pigeon danger of extinction in the medium term
(2) Great Indian bustard future if the factors threating their
extinction continue are known as
(3) Vulture
(1) Threatened species
(4) Pink headed duck
(2) Rare species
42. Introduction of Nile perch into lake (3) Vulnerable species
Victoria leads to extinction of (4) Endangered species

(1) Cat fish (2) Cichlid fish 50. A population characteristic of a species
(3) Shark fish (4) Dolphin susceptible to extinction is
(1) Low trophic level in food chain
43. Which of the following group of animal (2) Inability to switch over to alternate
is the most vulnerable to extinction food source
(1) Amphibia (2) Aves (3) Wide range of distribution
(3) Insect (4) Mammals (4) High biotic potential
51. According to IUCN, when a taxon is
44. Which of the following group of plants is
facing an extremely high risk of
the most vulnerable to extinction extinction in the immediate future, it is
(1) Angiosperm (2) Bryophytes (1) Extinct in wild
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Pteridophyta (2) Endangered
(3) Critically endangered
45. Which of the following is present in
(4) Vulnerable
green book
52. Which of the following exotic species
(1) List of endangered plant
has become menace to many water
(2) List of extinct plant
bodies in India ?
(3) Suggestions for sustainable development
(1) Lantana camara
(4) List of plant group of an area (2) Eichhornia crassipes (Water Hyacinth)
(3) Panthenium hysterophorus
46. Silent valley is a type of
(4) Eupatorium odoratum
(1) Tropical forest
(2) Temperate forest 53. Red data book is famous for -
(3) Deciduous forest (1) Extinct plants and animals
(2) Extinct plants only
(4) All of the above
(3) Endangered plants and animals
47. Which of the following are cause of (4) Extinct animals only
biodiversity loss
Biodiversity Conservation
(1) Habitat loss
54. Silent valley is located in
(2) Over exploitation (1) Kerala (2) Assam
(3) Alien species invasion (3) J & K (4) Rajasthan
(4) All
55. Tree hugging or chipko movement is
48. Which of the following became extinct associated with
due to over exploitation (1) H.N. Bahuguna (2) S.L. Bahuguna
(3) Vinoba Bahave (4) None of these
(1) Passenger pigeon
(2) Steller's Sea cow 56. Total number of Biodiversity Hot spot in
(3) Cichlid fish India are
(4) 1 & 2 Both (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

20 Biodiversity and Conservation

57. Total number of Biodiversity Hot spots 66. The zone of biosphere reserve where no
in world are human activity is permitted is known as
(1) 25 (2) 9 (3) 34 (4) 32 (1) Buffer zone
(2) Core zone
58. Silent valley of kerala is preserved because (3) Manipulation zone
(1) It contain rare species of animals and (4) Transition zone
plants
67. The Indian rhinoceros is the most
(2) Soil is rich in minerals
important protected species in
(3) Land were use extensively for
(1) Gir National Park
agricultural purpose
(2) Bandipur National Park
(4) It has pine tree (3) Corbett National Park
59. Who proposed hot spot concept for (4) Kaziranga National Park
region of high ecological diversity 68. Wild populations of plants and animals
(1) IUCN (2) Myer and traditional life styles of tribals are
(3) Odum (4) Cormandii protected in
60. Which of the following is a correct (1) Biosphere Reserve
(2) Sanctuary
match of animal and its habitat
(3) National Park
(1) Elephant - Ranthambhore
(4) Botanical Garden
(2) Flamingo - Chilka lake of orissa
(3) Wild ass - Dachigam 69. Which is not a criteria used for
(4) Indian tailor bird - Assam determining hot spots
(1) Number of endemic species
61. Which of the following is a method of in-
(2) Degree of habitat destruction
situ conservation
(3) Having traditional strategy for
(1) National Park (2) Cryopreservation
protection of biodiversity
(3) Botanical Garden (4) All
(4) High diversity
62. Which of the following are parts of
70. The method by which endangered plant
Biosphere reserves
species are conserved in a botanical garden
(1) Transition zone
or in some controlled circumstances -
(2) Buffer zone
(1) Afforestation
(3) Core Zone
(2) In situ conservation
(4) All of the above
(3) Ex situ conservation
63. Which of the following convention is (4) Biosphere Reserve
related to conservation biodiversity
71. The aim of plant conservation is -
(1) Rio de Janeiro Convention
(1) To conserve the necessary ecological
(2) Montreal protocol
activities and life supporting systems
(3) Kyoto protocol
(2) To conserve species diversity and
(4) All
range of genetic material
64. 5th June is: (3) To conserve useful wild varieties
(1) World Environment Day (4) All of the above
(2) Wold AIDS Day
72. Wild life protection act was enacted in
(3) World Women’s Day
India in -
(4) Worlds Polio Day (1) 1947 (2) 1962 (3) 1972 (4) 1992
65. Protected areas are example of 73. Periyar Sanctuary is famous for:
(1) In-situ conservation (1) Rhinoceros
(2) Ex-situ conservation (2) Chital
(3) Cryopreservation (3) Great Indian Bustard
(4) Green Houses (4) Elephants

Biodiversity and Conservation 21

 Exercise – II

1. If a certain plant species is not found in 8. Susceptibility to extinction is increased

its wild localities even after repeated by which factor ?
search, then it would be listed in which (1) Large body size
category in the "Red Data Book" - (2) Feeding at high tropic level
(1) Extinct (2) Endangered (3) Low reproductive rate
(3) Vulnerable (4) Rare (4) All of the above

2. Number of wild life is continuously 9. Occurrence of endemic species in South

decreasing. What is the main reason of America and Australia is due to -
this - (1) There species has been extinct from
(1) Predation other regions
(2) Cutting down of forest (2) Continental separation
(3) There is no terrestrial route to these
(3) Destruction of habitat
places
(4) Hunting
(4) Retrogressive evolution
3. Which one of the following pairs of
10. In your opinion, which is the most
geographical areas show maximum
effective way to conserve the plant
biodiversity in our country -
diversity of an area -
(1) Sundarbans and Rann of Kutch
(1) By creating biosphere reserve
(2) Eastern Ghats and West Bengal
(2) By creating botanical garden
(3) Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats
(3) By developing seed bank
(4) Kerala and Punjab (4) By tissue culture method
4. Common reason for loss of wildlife is - 11. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by
(1) Deforestation the Parliament in the year -
(2) Forest fire (1) 2002 (2) 1992
(3) Floods (3) 1996 (4) 2000
(4) Less Rain fall
12. According to IUCN Red List. What is the
5. Main reason of disturbance of biological status of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) ?
diversity - (1) Critically species
(1) Green house effect (2) Vulnerable species
(2) Hunting (3) Extinct species
(3) Soil erosion (4) Endangered species
(4) Destruction of natural habitats
13. Which of the following is not related to
6. Best method to preserve the wild relatives of
broad utility of forests ?
plants - (1) Climate control
(1) By growing them in natural habitats (2) Protection of soil
(2) Gene library (3) Source of new crops
(3) By storing seeds (4) Nutrient cycling
(4) Cryopreservation
14. Highest level of threat is represented by
7. Species diversity is maximum in -
which category ?
(1) Tropical rain forest (1) Vulnerable
(2) Temperate forest (2) Extinct
(3) Deserts (3) Critically endangered
(4) Hill slops (4) Endangered

22
15. Smallest tiger reserve in India is: 19. Arrange the following places in
(1) Ranthambore National Park decreasing order of biodiversity of
species of birds:
(2) Desert National Park
A. India B. Columbia
(3) Corbett National Park C. New York D. Greenland
(4) Kaziranga National Park Select the correct option:
(1) A → B → C → D
16. Consider the following Pie chart of
(2) B → A → C → D
different vertebrate animals: (3) B → A → D → C
(4) A → C → D → B
20. It is believed that communities with less
diversity tend to be:
(1) Less productive and more resistant
(2) More variable and more resistant
(3) Less productive and less variable
(4) More variable and less prodocutive
Select the statement which is incorrect
regarding the sectors fo the given Pie 21. Equator has how many times as many
chart: species of vascular plant than a forest
of equal area of Mid-west of the USA?
(1) Sector C belongs to reptiles
(1) 15 times (2) 20 times
(2) Sector B includes all the animals
(3) 2 times (4) 10 times
that have mammary glands
22. High species diversity is very essential
(3) Sector A belongs to animals that
for:
have single circuit of blood
(1) Higher productivity
circulation (2) Occasional disturbance
(4) Organisms belonging to Sector D (3) Variation in productivity
shows high species diversity in (4) Alien species invasion
Western Ghats 23. Maximum species diversity is seen in
latitudinal range of:
17. Rivet Popper hypothesis explains:
(1) 23.5° N to 66.5° N
(1) Effect of decrease in biodiversity on (2) 23.5° N to 23.5° S
ecosystem (3) 23.5° S to 66.5° N
(2) Main cause of biodiversity loss (4) 66.5° N to 90° N
(3) That within a region species richness 24. David Tilman after his long-term
increases with increasing area, but ecosystem experiments found that:
up to a certain limit A. Decrease in biodiversity contributes
(4) Cause of mass extinction to higher productivity
B. Area with more species have less
18. In Rivet Popper hypothesis proposed by year-to-year variations in total
Paul Enrlich: biomass
(1) Airplane is like a species C. Species richness contribute to well-
being of an ecosystem
(2) Rivets are like small ecosystem
D. Area with more invasive species have
(3) Rivets are like link species
more stability
(4) Rivets on wings are like keystone (1) A and C (2) B and C
species (3) B and D (4) C and D

23
 25. Which of the following way best 29. For equation log S = log C + Z log A.
describe the distribution of species Ecologists have discovered that the
diversity on earth: value of Z lies in the range of ………..
(1) It is uniformly distributed regardless of taxonomic group of the
region.
(2) It is highest in polar region
(1) 0.1 to 0.2 (2) 0.2 to 0.4
(3) It is highest in Northern hemisphere
(3) 0.4 to 0.6 (4) 0.6 to 0.8
and lowet in Southern hemisphere
(4) It is highest in tropics 30. The consequences of loss of biodiversity
is:
26. On a logarithmic scale, curve of species A. Decline in plant production
Area relationship is a: B. Decreased resistance to environmental
(1) Rectangular parabola perturbations such as drought
(2) Rectangular hyperbola C. Increased variability in certain
(3) Straight line ecosystem processes like plant
(4) None of the above productivity, water use and pest and
disease cycles
27. How is our quality of life affected if, say, (1) Only A is correct
instead of 20,000 we have only 15,000 (2) Only B and C are correct
species of ants on earth: (3) Only A and C are correct
(1) There will be imbalance in the (4) All, A, B and C are correct
ecosystem 31. The sixth extinction presently in
(2) This will cause extinction of other progress is different form the previous
species as well episodes of extinction as:
(3) There will be no change in the (1) Mass extinction of species is taking
ecosystem place for the first time on earth
(4) Both (1) and (2) (2) Earlies episodes were anthropogenic
(3) It is 100 to 1000 times faster
28. Find the correct statement with respect (4) Extinction rates is faster in pre-
to given graph showing species-area human times
relationship:
32. What is the number of species
worldwide which are facing the threat of
extinction?
(1) > 15000
(2) >300000
(3) >30% of existing species
(4) 2.4% of existing species

33. Which one is not an “Evil Quartet”?

(1) A is represented by S = CA2
(1) Habitat loss and fragementation
(2) B is logarithmic representation of (2) Over exploitation
area-species relationship curve (3) Alien species invasion
(3) Showing relation between species (4) Co-evolution
richness and area for a wide variety
34. Common reason for extinction of
of angiospermic plants, birds, bats
Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon
freshwater plants turn out to be a is:
rectangular hyperbola (1) Over exploitation
(4) Value of Z in the equation of (2) Alien species invasion
species- area relationship varies (3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
with different region and organisms (4) Co-extinctions

24
35. All of the following are alien species for 39. New species entering a geographical
India except: region are called exotic or alien species.
(1) Parthenim (2) Lantana Introduction of such invasive species
(3) Eichhornia (4) Rauwolfa may cause disappearance of natural
species through :
36. Which of the given relationships or
(1) Changed biotic interactions
associations may show co-extinction of
(2) Eutophication
one partner is eliminated in nature?
(3) Changed edaphic interactions
(1) Fig and fig wasp
(4) All of these
(2) Nile Perch and cichlid fish
(3) Water hyacinth and aquatic organism 40. Which of the following is the most
(4) African catfish and Indian catfish recent invasion of species that has
caused potential threat to cat fishes?
37. Choose the correct match pair:
(1) Clarias gariepinus
Column I Column II
(2) Nile Perch
(1) Habitat loss and Extinction of
(3) Eichhornia
fragmentation passenger
(4) Parthenium
pigeon
41. Evil Quartet is related to:
(2) Over exploitation Affects animals
(1) Loss of biodiversity
with migratory
(2) Loss of alien species
habits
(3) Global warming
(3) Alien species Stellar’s cow
(4) Atmospheric pollution
invasion
(4) Co-extinctions Plant pollinator
mutualism

38. All of the following are alien species

whose invasion may cause
disappearance of indigenous species
through changed biotic interaction,
except:
(1) Nile Perch (2) Lantana
(3) Chichlid fish (4) Parthenium

25
 Exercise – III
1. Match the column I with column II 4. Assertion (A): Western ghats are included
Column I Column II among the hot spots of biodiversity.
Reason (R): Westen ghats have greater
(a) Thylacine (i) Russia
amphibian diversity than eastern ghats.
(b) Dodo (ii) Mauritius
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
(c) Quagga (iii) Australia and the reason is the correct
(d) Steller’s sea cow (iv) Africa explanation of the assertion
(1) a—(ii), b—(iii), c—(i), d—(iv) (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
(2) a—(iv), b—(i), c—(ii), d—(iii) but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) a—(iii), b—(iv), c—(ii), d—(i)
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
(4) a—(iii), b—(ii), c—(iv), d—(i) Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are
2. Match the column I with column II
false statements
Column I Column II
(Protected animals) (National parks) 5. Assertion (A): Tropical regions are more
diversity rich in comparison to
(a) Lions (i) Manas
temperate areas.
Sanctuary Reason (R): Availability of more solar
(b) Tigers (ii) Khanchan- energy directly affects the presence of
jangha National more species in these areas.
Park (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
and the reason is the correct
(c) Snow leopards (iii) Gir National
explanation of the assertion
park (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
(d) Rhinos (iv) Bandipur but the reason is not the correct
National Park explanation of the assertion
(1) a—(ii), b—(iii), c—(iv), d—(i) (3) If Assertion is true statement but
Reason is false
(2) a—(iii), b—(iv), c—(ii), d—(i)
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are
(3) a—(iii), b—(ii), c—(iv), d—(i)
false statements
(4) a—(i), b—(iv), c—(ii), d—(iii)
6. Assertion (A): Habitat destruction is the
3. Match the column I with column II main reason of loss of biodiversity.
Column I Column II Reason (R): This actually cause the
increase in edge area and reduction in
(a) Habitat loss (i) Nile perch
core area.
(b) Over exploitation (ii) Steller's sea (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
cow and the reason is the correct
(c) Alien species (iii) Lungs of the explanation of the assertion
invasions planet (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
but the reason is not the correct
(d) Co-extinctions (iv) fish-parasite
explanation of the assertion
(1) a- i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
(2) a- iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii Reason is false
(3) a- iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (4) If both Assertion and Reason are
(4) a- ii, b-Iii, c-i, d-iv false statements

26
7. Assertion (A): A stable community 10. Assertion (A): Communities that
should show much variation in year to comprise of more species tend to be
year productivity. more stable.
Reason (R): A higher number of species
Reason (R): It must not be resilient to results in less animal variation in total
occasional disturbance. biomass
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
and the reason is the correct and the reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion explanation of the assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct
but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
explanation of the assertion (3) If Assertion is true statement but
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
Reason is false (4) If both Assertion and Reason are
false statements
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are
false statements 11. Given below is incomplete flow chart
depicting in-situ and ex-situ approaches
8. Assertion (A): Biosphere reserves are of conserving biodiversity. Study
also included under the ex-situ carefully and choose the correct
sequence of I, II, and III.
conservation strategies.
Reason (R): Cropping and grazing are
allowed in the transition zone of
biosphere reserve.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true
and the reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true
but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) If Assertion is true statement but (1) I – Biosphere reserves II – Wildlife
safari parks III – Seed bank
Reason is false
(2) I – Biosphere reserves II – Wildlife
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are sanctuaries III – Tissue culture and
false statements cryopreservation
(3) I – Biosphere reserves II – National
9. Assertion (A): Taxonomic diversity parks and wildlife sanctuaries III –
represents the maximum level of Seed bank
species diversity. (4) 2 and 3 both
Reason (R): It represents species of 12. Match column-I with column II and
taxonomically different groups occuring choose the correct combination form
in equal balance. the options given:
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true Column-I Column-II
and the reason is the correct (a) Western (i) Khasi and Jaintia
explanation of the assertion Ghats Hills
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true (b) National Park (ii) Ex situ conversion
(c) Wildlife Safari (iii) High biodiversity
but the reason is not the correct
Park regions
explanation of the assertion (d) Sacred groves (iv) In situ conversion
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
(1) a – (iv), b – (ii), c-(iii), d – (i)
Reason is false
(2) a – (iii), b – (iv), c-(ii), d – (i)
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are (3) a – (i), b – (ii), c-(iv), d – (iii)
false statements (4) a – (iii), b – (ii), c-(iv), d – (i)

27
 13. Match column-I with column II and 16. Match column-I with column II and
choose the correct combination form choose the correct combination form
the options given: the options given:
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(a) Khasi and (i) Rajasthan (a) Genetic (i) Presence of desert,
Jaintia Hills diversity rain forest, mangroves
(b) Aravali Hills (ii) Madhya
in India
Pradesh
(b) Species (ii) More than 1000 mango
(c) Westerna Ghat (iii) Maharashtra
diversity strains found in India
region
(d) Sarguja, (iv) Meghalaya (c) Ecological (iii) Variety of amphibian
Chandra and diversity species found in India
Bastar areas (1) a – (ii), b – (iii), c-(i)
(1) a – (iii), b – (iv), c-(ii), d – (i) (2) a – (ii), b – (i), c-(iii)
(2) a – (ii), b – (iii), c-(i), d – (iv) (3) a – (iii), b – (ii), c-(i)
(3) a – (iv), b – (i), c-(iii), d – (ii) (4) a – (i), b – (iii), c-(ii)
(4) a – (i), b – (ii), c-(iv), d – (iii)
17. Match column-I with column II and
14. Match column-I with column II and choose the correct combination form
choose the correct combination form the options given:
the options given:
Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(a) Plants (i) 1,000 varieties
(a) Lantana (i) High
endemism (b) Animals (ii) 50,000 strains
(b) Hotspot (ii) Ecosystem (c) Mango (iii) 45,000 species
services (d) Rice (iv) 90,000 species
(c) Main cause of (iii) Alien species (1) a – (iii), b – (iv), c-(i), d – (ii)
biodiversity (2) a – (iii), b – (i), c-(iv), d – (ii)
loss (3) a – (iii), b – (ii), c-(iv), d – (i)
(d) Broadly (iv) Habitat loss (4) a – (iv), b – (iii), c-(ii), d – (i)
utilitarian and
aspects fragmentation 18. Assertion (A): Nature's biological library
(1) a – (iv), b – (ii), c-(iii), d – (i) is burning even before we catalogued
(2) a – (iii), b – (i), c-(iv), d – (ii) the titles of all the books stocked there.
(3) a – (ii), b – (i), c-(iv), d – (iii) Reason (R): Large fraction of biological
(4) a – (iv), b – (iii), c-(i), d – (ii) species faces the threat of becoming
extinct even before we discover them.
15. Match column-I with column II and
choose the correct combination form (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the options given: the correct explanation of the (A)
Column-I Column-II (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(a) Hotspot of (i) Conserving not the correct explanation of the (A)
India biodiversity for (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
philosophical (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
need
(b) Sacred groove (ii) Khasi and 19. Assertion (A): Constant environments
Jaintia Hills promotes greater diversity.
(c) Ex-situ (iii) Western Ghats Reason (R): Constant environments
conservation promote niche specialization.
(d) Ethical issues (iv) Zoological park (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
and botanical the correct explanation of the (A)
garden
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(1) a – (ii), b – (iv), c-(iii), d – (i)
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) a – (iii), b – (i), c-(iv), d – (ii)
(3) a – (iii), b – (ii), c-(iv), d – (i) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) a – (iv), b – (iii), c-(ii), d – (i) (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

28
20. Assertion (A): For species area 24. Assertion (A): Co-extinction is also one
relationship among very large area like of the evil quartet about biodiversity
the entire continents value of regression loss.
coefficient increase.
Reason (R): When a species become
Reason (R): Within a region species
richness increased with increasing extinct, the plant and animal species,
explored area but only up to a limit. associated with it in facultative way also
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is become extinct.
the correct explanation of the (A) (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
21. Assertion (A): Removal of key stone
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
species from any ecosystem leads to
destruction of entire ecosystem. 25. Assertion (A): Pollination by pollinator
Reason (R): Keystone species drive
layer is one of the broadly utilitarian
major ecosystem functions.
service or importance of biodiversity.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) Reason (R): These are such valuable
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is services of biodiversity for which one
not the correct explanation of the (A) cannot put any price tag.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false the correct explanation of the (A)
22. Assertion (A): Habitat loss and (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
fragmentation is one of most important not the correct explanation of the (A)
cause among evil quartet.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Reason (R): Habitat is the physical space
where all the necessities of life is to be (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
fulfilled.
26. Assertion (A): However, when there are
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
situations where an animal or plant is
the correct explanation of the (A)
endangered or threatened and needs
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) urgent measure to save it from
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false extinction, ex-situ conservation is the
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false desirable approach.
Reason (R): In ex-situ conservation more
23. Assertion (A): Habitat fragmentation due
to human activities is responsible for extensive/special care and attention can
destruction of biodiversity. be pay on single endangered or
Reason (R): Mammals and birds require threatened organism.
large territories. (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
not the correct explanation of the (A) not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

29
 27. Assertion (A): Sacred groves are also 28. Assertion (A): There are three different
one of the mean of ex-situ conservation zones in a biosphere reserve.
of biodiversity. Reason (R): Limited human activity is
Reason (R): There is de-novo formation allowed in core zone.
of forests, Hills or lakes for conservation
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
of biodiversity in sacred grove category.
the correct explanation of the (A)
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A) not the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

30
 Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)
[NEET-UG 2013] [AIPMT-2014]
1. Which of the following represents
7. An example of ex situ conservation is:
maximum number of species among
(1) National park (2) Seed Bank
global biodiversity ?
(3) Wildlife Sanctuary (4) Sacred Grove
(1) Mosses and Ferns
(2) Algae 8. A species facing extremely high risk of
(3) Lichens extinction in the immediate future is called:
(4) Fungi (1) Vulnerable
(2) Endemic
2. Which one of the following is not used
for ex situ plant conservation? (3) Critically Endangered
(1) Botanical Gardens (4) Extinct
(2) Field gene banks 9. The organization which publishes the
(3) Seed banks Red List of species is:
(4) Shifting cultivation (1) ICFRE (2) IUCN
[AIIMS-2013] (3) UNEP (4) WWF

3. Which of the following is not an exotic 10. Given below is the representation of the
invading species? extent of global diversity of invertebrates.
(1) Lantana (2) Parthenium What groups the four portions (A-D)
(3) Eichhorina (4) Nelumbo (Lotus) represent respectively:

4. India is the one of the 12 mega diversity

countries of the world. It shares what
percentage of global species diversity ?
(1) 2.4 % (2) 8.1 %
(3) 10% (4) 5%
Options:
[AIIMS-2014]
A B C D
5. Which of the following is true ? (1) Insects Crustaceans Other Molluscs
(1) High altitude have higher biodiversity animal
than low altitude group
(2) Low altitude have higher biodiversity (2) Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other
than high altitude animal
group
(3) Amphibians have high biodiversity
(3) Molluscs Other Crustaceans Insects
among vertebrates
animal
(4) Bryophytes have higher biodiversity
group
than angiosperms (4) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other
6. Which of the following is true ? animal
(1) 32% of amphibians species face group
threat of extinction
(2) Lichens have higher biodiversity than [AIPMT-2015]
algae & fungi together 11. Which of the following is not concerned
(3) Ganga basin have higher biodiversity with loss of biodiversity ?
than Amazon rain forest (1) Alien species invasion
(4) A stable community should show (2) Habitat loss and fragmentation
huge variation in productivity from (3) De forestation
year to year (4) Ex-situ conservation

31
 12. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened 19. Alexandar Von Humbolt described for
species in viable and fertile condition can be the first time:
referred to as: (1) Ecological Biodiversity
(1) Advanced ex-situ conservation of
(2) Laws of limiting factor
biodiversity
(2) In situ conservation by sacred groves (3) Species area relationships
(3) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity (4) Population Growth equation
(4) In situ conservation of biodiversity
[NEET-2018]
13. In which of the following both pairs have
20. All of the following are included in 'Ex-
correct combination:-
(1) In situ conservation: Cryopreservation situ conservation' except:
Ex situ conservation: Wildlife Sanctuary (1) Seed banks
(2) In situ conservation: Seed Bank (2) Wildlife safari parks
Ex situ conservation: National Park (3) Botanical gardens
(3) In situ conservation: Tissue culture (4) Scared groves
Ex situ conservation: Sacred groves
(4) In situ conservation: National Park 21. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
Ex situ conservation: Botanical Garden in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of:
[NEET-2016] (1) – 160°C (2) – 120°C
(3) – 196°C (4) – 80°C
14. Which of the following is the most
important cause of animals and plants [NEET-2019]
being driven to extinction? 22. Which one of the following is not a
(1) Over-exploitation
method of in situ conservation of
(2) Alien species invasion
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation biodiversity ?
(4) Co-extinctions (1) Botanical Garden
(2) Sacred Grove
15. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of
India? (3) Biosphere Reserve
(1) Gangetic shark (2) River dolphin (4) Wildlife’ Sanctuary
(3) Blue whale (4) Sea-horse
23. Which of the following is the most
[NEET-II 2016] important cause for animals and plants
16. Joint Forest Management Concept was being driven to extinction ?
introduced in India during: (1) Economic exploitation
(1) 1960s (2) 1970s
(2) Alien species invasion
(3) 1980s (4) 1990s
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
[NEET-2017]
(4) Drought and floods
17. The region of Biosphere Reserve which
is legally protected and where no human 24. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro
activity is allowed is known as:
in 1992 was called:
(1) Core zone
(2) Buffer zone (1) to assess threat posed to native
(3) Transition zone species by invasive weed species.
(4) Restoration zone (2) for immediate steps to discontinue
18. Which one of the following is related to use of CFCs that were damaging the
Ex-situ conservation of threatened ozone layer.
animals and plants? (3) to reduce CO2 emissions and global
(1) Wildlife Safari parks
warming.
(2) Biodiversity hot spots
(3) Amazon rainforest (4) for conservation of biodiversity and
(4) Himalayan region sustainable utilization of its benefits.

32 Biodiversity and Conservation

 [NEET-2019 (Odisha)] [NEET-2022]
25. Decline in the population of Indian 31. Habitat loss and fragmentation, over
native fishes due to introduction of exploitation, alien species invasion and
clarias garienpinus in river Yamuna can co-extinction are causes for:
be categorised as:- (1) Population explosion
(1) Co-extinction (2) Competition
(2) Habitat fragmentation (3) Biodiversity loss
(3) Over exploitation (4) Natality
(4) Alien species invasion 32. Which of the following is not a method
of ex situ conservation?
26. Exploration of molecular, genetic and
(1) In vitro fertilization
species level diversity for novel products of
(2) National Parks
economic importance is known as:
(3) Micropropagation
(1) Biopiracy
(4) Cryopreservation
(2) Bioenergetics
(3) Bioremediation 33. In–situ conservation refers to:
(4) Bioprospecting (1) Protect and conserve the whole
ecosystem
[NEET-2020] (2) Conserve only high risk species
27. According to Robert May, the global (3) Conserve only endangered species
species diversity is about: (4) Conserve only extinct species
(1) 7 million (2) 1.5 million
[NEET-2023]
(3) 20 million (4) 50 million
34. Among ‘The Evil Quartet’, which one is
28. Which of the following reasons of the
considered the most important cause
globe exhibits highest species diversity?
driving extinction of species?
(1) Amazon forests
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(2) Western Ghats of India
(2) Over exploitation for economic gain
(3) Madagascar
(3) Alien species invasions
(4) Himalayas (4) Co-extinctions
[NEET-2020 (Covid-19)] 35. The historic Convention on Biological
29. A species which was introduced for Diversity, ‘The Earth Summit’ was held
ornamentation but has become a trouble- in Rio de Janeiro in the year :
some weed in India: (1) 1985 (2) 1992 (3) 1986 (4) 2002
(1) Parthenium hysterophorus
[NEET-2023] MANIPUR
(2) Eichhornia crassipes
36. In 'rivet popper hypothesis', Paul Ehrlich
(3) Prosopis juliflora
compared the rivets in an airplane to
(4) Trapa spinosa
(1) species within a genus
30. In the following in each set a conservation (2) genetic diversity
approach and an example of method of (3) ecosystem
conservation are given (4) genera within a family
(a) In situ conservation-Biosphere Reserve 37. The species of plants that plays a vital
(b) Ex situ conservation-Sacred groves role in controlling the relative abundance
(c) In situ conservation-Seed bank of other species in a community is called
(d) Ex situ conservation-Cryopreservation _______.
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (d) (1) alien species (2) endemic species
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (b) (3) exotic species (4) keystone species

Ecology 33
 ANSWER KEY

Biodiversity and Conservation

Exercise - I

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 3 3 1 1 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 1 1 3 3 3 1 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 1 1 4 2 1 2 2 2 1 1 2 4 4
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 4 4 2 3 2 3 1 2 3 3 1 2 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73
Ans. 1 4 1 1 1 2 4 1 3 3 4 3 4

Exercise - II

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 3 3 1 4 1 1 4 2 1 1 4 3 3 1 2 1 4 2 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 1 2 2 4 3 4 3 1 4 3 1 4 1 4 1 4 3 1 1
Que. 41
Ans. 1

Exercise – III

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 3 1 1 2 4 4 1 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 1 1 2 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. 1 1 1 3 1 1 4 3

Exercise – IV (Previous Year Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 4 2 2 1 2 3 2 4 4 1 4 3 2 3 1 1 3 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
Ans. 3 1 3 4 4 4 1 1 2 2 3 2 1 1 2 1 4

34 Biodiversity and Conservation