11th JEE

AITS Mock
DURATION: 180 Minutes M.MARKS: 300

Topics Covered
Physics: Rotational motion, Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of Fluids,
Thermal Properties of Matter
Chemistry: P-block Element (Group 13 and 14), Organic Chemistry: IUPAC, Nomenclature, Organic Chemistry:
Isomerism
Mathematics: Circles, Conic Sections: Parabola, Conic Sections: Ellipse

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are Three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics),
Section-II (Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each part in which first 20
questions of Objective Type and Last 5 questions are Integers Type all Questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response. There is no
negative marking in Integer type Questions.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 6. A planet moving around sun sweeps areas A1 in 2
1. The coefficient of restitution between a snooker ball days, A2 in 3 days and A3 in 6 days. Then the relation
and the side cushion is e. If the ball hits the cushion between A1, A2 and A3 is:
and then rebounds at right angle to its original
direction and the angle made with the side cushion
with the direction of motion before the impact is θ .
Then tan θ is equal to:
(1) e (2) e
1 1
(3) (4)
e e
(1) 3A1 = 2A2 = A3 (2) 2A1 = 3A2 = 6A3
2. As shown in the figure, a bob of mass m is tied by a (3) 3A1 = 2A2 = 6A3 (4) 6A1 = 3A2 = 2A3
massless string whose other end portion is wound on
a fly wheel (disc) of radius r and mass m. When 7. A man weighs 800 N on the surface of earth of radius
released from rest the bob starts falling vertically. R. At what height above the surface of earth his
When it has covered a distance of h, the angular weight will be 400 N?
speed of the wheel will be: (Assume there is no
R
slipping between disc and string) . (1) (2) 2R
2
(3) ( )
2 –1 R (4) (2 +1 R )
8. The acceleration-time graph of a particle moving
along a straight line is as shown in figure. At what
time the particle acquires its initial velocity?
3 1 4 gh
(1) r (2)
2 gh r 3
1 2 gh 3
(3) (4) r
r 3 4 gh

3. A horizontal pipe line carries water in a streamline

flow. At a point along the tube where the cross-
sectional area is 10–2m2, the water velocity is 2ms–1
and the pressure is 8000 Pa. The pressure of water at
another point where the cross-sectional area is (1) 12s (2) 5s
0.5 × 10–2 m2 is: (3) 8s (4) 16s
(1) 4000 Pa (2) 1000 Pa
(3) 2000 Pa (4) 3000 Pa 9. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm at two
revolutions per second. The average acceleration of
4. Between a plate of area 100 cm2 and another plate of the particle in half cycle (in ms2) is:
area 100 m2 there is a 1 mm, thick layer of water, if (1) π (2) 8π
the coefficient of viscosity of water is 0.01 poise, (3) 800π (4) 2π
then the force required to move the smaller plate with
a velocity 10 cm/s with respect to large plate is: 10. The velocity of a moving object is related to its
(Take 1 poise = 0.1 N-s/m2) x 2 x3
position as V = – . The acceleration of the
(1) 10–3 N (2) 0.1 N 2 3
(3) 10 N (4) 104 N particle will be zero at:
3
5. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and (1) x = 1,
2
water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water
in the capillary tube is m. Another capillary of radius 3
(2) x = 0,
2r is immersed in water. The mass of water will rise 2
in this tube is: 3
(3) x = 0, 1,
m 2
(1) (2) m
2 3
(4) x =
(3) 2 m (4) 4 m 2

[2]
11. A uniform rod of mass M and length L, which is free
to rotate about a fixed vertical axis through O, is
lying on a frictionless horizontal table. A particle of
equal mass strikes the rod with a velocity V0 and
sticks to it. The angular velocity of the combination
immediately after the collision is:
(1) Zero (2) 50 N
(3) 80 N (4) 10 N

16. A block of 4 kg mass starts from rest and slides a

distance d down a frictionless incline where it runs
3V0 3V0 into a spring of negligible mass. The block slides an
(1) (2) additional 25 cm before it is brought to rest
4L 8L momentarily by compressing the spring. The force
3V0 3V0 constant of the spring is 400 Nm−1. The value of d is:
(3) (4)
2L 21L (Take g = 10 ms–2)

12. The angle of elevation of an anti-aircraft gun with

horizontal is 53° and the muzzle velocity is 500 m/s.
For what time after firing should the shell be
exploded if it is to explode at an altitude of 780 m
while going up. (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 3s
(2) 4s
(3) 2s
(4) It will never reach that height (1) 25 cm (2) 37.5 cm
(3) 62.5 cm (4) None of the above
13. Consider two configuration of a system of three
particles of masses m, 2m and 3m. The work done by 17. Three particles of masses 50 g, 100 g and 150 g are
external agent in changing the configuration of the placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side
system from figure (i) to figure (ii) is: 1 m (as shown in the figure). The (x, y) coordinates
of the centre of mass will be:

7 3 
6Gm 2  1  (1)  m, m 
(1) Zero (2) – 1+
a   
2  12 4 
11Gm 2 13Gm 2  3 5 
(3) (4) (2)  m, m 
2a 4a  4 12 
7 3 
14. The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is (3)  m, m 
half of its initial velocity u. Its range on the horizontal  12 8 
plane is:  3 7 
2u 2 3 u2 (4)  m, m 
(1) (2)  8 12 
3g 2g
u2 u2 18. A ball moving with a velocity of 6 m/s collides with
(3) (4)
3g 2g an identical stationary ball. After collision each ball
moves at an angle of 30° with the original line of
15. Block A of mass 2 kg is placed over block B of mass motion. What are the speeds of the balls after the
8 kg. The combination is placed over a horizontal collision?
surface. Coefficient of friction between B and the 3
(1) m/s (2) 3 m/s
floor is 0.5. Coefficient of friction between A and B 2
is 0.4. A horizontal force of 10 N is applied on block (3) 2 3 m / s (4) 3 m/s
B. The force of friction between A and B is:
[3]
19. A smooth wire of length 2πr is bent into a circle and 22. To a stationary man, rain appears to be falling at his
kept in a vertical plane. A bead can slide smoothly back at an angle 30° with the vertical. As he starts
on the wire. When the circle is rotating with angular moving forward with a speed of 0.5ms−1, he finds
speed ω about the vertical diameter AB, as shown in that the rain is falling vertically. The speed of rain (in
the figure, the bead is at rest with respect to the ms−1) with respect to the stationary man is ______.
circular ring at position P as shown. Then the value
of ω2 is equal to: 23. The escape velocity of a body on the earth’s surface
is ve. A body is thrown up with a speed 5 ve .
Assuming that the sun and other planets do not
influence the motion of the body, velocity of the
body at infinite distance is nve. Find n.

24. The system shown in figure is released from rest with

mass 2 kg in contact with the ground. Pulley and
spring are massless and spring is in its natural length,
and friction is absent everywhere. The speed of 5 kg
block (in ms−1) when 2 kg block leaves the contact
with the ground is v. The value of v2 is ______. (force
3g constant of the spring k = 40 Nm–1 and g = 10 ms–2)
(1) (2) 2 g/r
2r
2g ( g 3)
(3) (4)
(r 3) r

20. A solid sphere is rolling down an inclined plane

without slipping. The ratio of rotational kinetic
energy to total kinetic energy is:
5 2
(1) (2)
7 5 25. A vessel contains oil (density 0.8 g cm–3) over
2 mercury (density 13.6 g cm–3). A homogeneous
(3) (4) None of these sphere floats with half volume immersed in mercury
7
and the other half in oil. The density of the material
SECTION-B of the sphere in g cm−3 is ρ. Write the value of 5ρ as
21. Three vectors which are coplanar with respect to a your answer.
certain rectangular co-ordinate system are given by
  
a =4iˆ – ˆj , b =–3iˆ + 2 ˆj , c =–3 ˆj
     
The angle between a + b + c and a + b – c is given
7
by cos θ = – , then n = ______.
n

[4]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A 32. When pressure is applied to the equilibrium system:
26. 100 mL of 0.1 M BaCl2 solution is mixed with  Iron (liquid) , which of the following
Iron (solid) 
100 mL of 0.3 M Na2CO3 solution. After filtering
off the precipitate, the residual solution is titrated phenomenon will happen?
against 0.5 M HCl. The volume of acid consumed at (1) Equilibrium will move in forward direction
the end point is: (2) Equilibrium will move in backward direction
(1) 40 mL (2) 80 mL (3) Not possible to regain the equilibrium
(3) 120 mL (4) 160 mL (4) Iron will evaporate

27. ‘p’ moles of a salt, KH3(C2O4)2 is dissolved in water 33. The electronic configurations of four elements are
to prepare 200 mL of a solution. It required 500 mL given below. Arrange these elements in the correct
M order of the magnitude (without sign) of their
of a solution K2Cr2O7 in presence of excess of electron affinity.
3
I. 2s22p5 II. 3s23p5
H2SO4. The value of ‘p’ is:
III. 2s 2p
2 4
IV. 3s23p4
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.25
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(3) 0.33 (4) 0.67
below:
(1) I < II < IV < III (2) II < I < IV < III
28. Ammonia (NH3) is a highly soluble gas in water and
(3) I < III < IV < II (4) III < IV < I < II
gives an alkaline solution of NH4OH. For titrations
involving aqueous ammonia, it is assumed that NH4
34. The pair having similar geometry is
OH dissociates to 100% extent. What volume (at
(1) BF3, NH3 (2) BF3, AlF3
STP) of gaseous ammonia will be required to be
(3) BeF2, H2O (4) BCl3, PCl3
passed into 100 ml of 0.5MH2 SO4 solution to bring
down its concentrations to 0.25 M ? [Vm (at STP) =
35. The species to which Bohr's theory can be applied
22.4 L/mol]
is:
(1) 0.560 L (2) 1.120 L
(1) Be3+ (2) He2+
(3) 1.680 L (4) 2.240 L
(3) B 5+
(4) Li3+
29. Photoelectric emission is observed from a metallic
36. The first ionization potential of Na, Mg, Al and Si
surface for frequencies, v1 and v2 of incident
are in the order:
radiations (v1 > v2). If the maximum kinetic energy
(1) Na < Mg < Al < Si
of photoelectrons in the two cases are in the ratio of
(2) Si < Al < Mg < Na
1:2, then threshold frequency v0 is given by:
(3) Na < Al < Mg < Si
(1) v2 – v1 (2) 2v1 – v2
(4) Na < Al < Si < Mg
v2 + v1
(3) 2v2 – v1 (4)
2 37. Which of the following pairs contain both species
with pπ − dπ bond?
30. I. H – C – H angle in CH4 (1) SO2, CO2 (2) N 2– , NO3–
II. Cl – B – Cl angle in BCl3
III. F – I – F angle in IF7 in the equatorial plane (3) SO2Cl2, POCl3 (4) SO32– , CO32–
IV. I – I – I angle in I−3
Increasing order of above bond angles is: 38. The retarding potential required to stop the
(1) I < II < III < IV maximum kinetic energy photoelectrons in a
(2) II < I < III < IV photoelectric effect is 1.0 volts. The work function
(3) III < I < II < IV (in eV) of the metal used in the experiment if a
(4) IV < II < I < III monochromatic radiation of wavelength of 4000 Å
is used is y × 10–1. What is the value of y?
31. An amount of solid NH4SH is placed in a flask (1) 2.1 (2) 21
already containing ammonia gas at a certain (3) 3.1 (4) 31
temperature and 0.70 atm pressure. Ammonium
hydrogen sulphide decomposes to yield NH3 and H2 39. If standard heats of combustion of dihydrogen and
S gases in the flask. When the decomposition graphite are –286 kJ/mol and –193 kJ/mol
reaction reaches equilibrium the total pressure in the respectively, the calorific value (in kJ g–1) of hexane
flask rises to 0.84 atm. The equilibrium constant for is:
NH4 SH decomposition at this temperature is [∆fH°hexane = –193 kJ/mol; Atomic mass (in amu):
approximately equal to: C = 12, H = 1]
(1) 0.11 (2) 0.59 (1) –2967 (2) –1483.5
(3) 0.54 (4) 0.05 (3) –69 (4) –34.5
[5]
40. Solid Ba(NO3)2 is gradually dissolved in a 1.0×10–4 45. Fe3+ reacts with SCN– to give red colour.
M Na2CO3. At what concentration of Ba2+, will a Fe3+ + 2SCN –  [ Fe(SCN) 2 ]
+

precipitate begin to form? [Ksp(BaCO3) = 5.1×10–9] (Red colour)

(1) 4.1 × 10–5 M (2) 5.1 × 10–5 M Intensity of red colour can be increased by:
(3) 8.1 × 10 M–8
(4) 8.1 × 10–7 M I. Addition of oxalic acid
II. Addition of HgCl2
41. Which of the following can act as buffer? III. Addition of KSCN
I. NH4Cl + NH4OH IV. Addition of Fe3+
II. CH3COOH + CH3COONa (1) III and IV only (2) I, II and III only
III. 40 mL of 0.1 M NaCN + 20 mL of 0.1 M HCl (3) I, III and IV only (4) II, III and IV only
The correct option is:
(1) Only I, II (2) Only III SECTION-B
(3) Only I, III (4) I, II, III 1
46. The entropy change on isothermal mixing of mol
42. A weak monobasic acid [pKa = 5 at 25°C] is been 2
neutralized by using NaOH. Select correct statement each of two gases in JK–1 is x × 10–1. Value of x is
for the neutralisation process at 25°C. [log 3 = 0.48] ______. [ln 2 = 0.7, R = 8 J mol–1 K–1]
(1) pH of the solution at 50% neutralisation = pKa
of the weak acid 47. How many orbitals among the following contain
only two radial nodes?
1
(2) pH of the solution at 25% neutralisation = 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d, 4f, 5s, 5p, 5d, 5f,
2 5g
pKa of the weak acid
3 48. Consider the following halogen containing
(3) pH of the solution at 75% neutralisation =
2 compounds:
pKa of the weak acid I. CHCl3 II. CCl4
(4) pH of the solution at 100% neutralisation < III. CH2Cl2 IV. CH3Cl
pKa of the weak acid V.
The number of non-polar molecules is _______
43. Which of the following is incorrect?
 dH   dG  49. Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are given below
(1)   = CP (2)   = –S the reaction:
 dT  P  dT  P
 dG   dU  1 3
X 2 + Y2  XY3 ; ∆H° = – 30 kJ mol –1
(3)   =H (4)   = Cv 2 2
 dP T  dT  v
S°(XY3 ) 50 JK –1 mol
= = –1
, S°(X2 ) 60 JK –1 mol –1 ,

44. One mol of a gas undergoes a change of state (1bar, 40 JK –1 mol –1

S°(Y2 ) =
At what temperature in Kelvin reaction would be in
5.0L, 200K) → (3.0bar,10.0L, 300K) with a change
equilibrium?
in internal energy, ∆U = 25L-bar. The value of ∆H
50. Br2 when heated with NaOH in aqueous solution
(in kJ) is: gives sodium bromide (NaBr) and sodium bromate
(1) 40 (2) 4.0 (NaBrO3). The number of moles of sodium bromide
formed when 3 moles of Br2 is heated with NaOH is
(3) 5.0 (4) 50 ______.

[6]
 SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A a b
(3) = (4) a+b=c+d
51. If eccentricity of a hyperbola is 2, then the d c
eccentricity of its conjugate hyperbola is:
3 58. Sum of values of p such that 3x2 – 2x + p = 0 and
(1) 2 (2)
2 2 6x2 – 17x + 12 = 0 have a common root is:
2 3 77 77
(3) (4) (1) (2) –
12 12
3 2
13 13
(3) (4) –
52. A triangle is formed by the lines whose equation is 12 12
given by x + y – 4 = 0, x – 1 = 0, y – 2 = 0. The
equation of its circumcircle is: 59. If one root of the equation x2 + ax + b = 0 is two
(1) x2 + y2 – 5x – 3y + 8 = 0 times the square of the other root, then:
(2) x2 + y2 – 3x – 5y + 8 = 0 (1) 2a3 – b(3a + 1) + 4b2 = 0
(3) x2 + y2 – 3x – 5y – 8 = 0 (2) 2a3 – b(6a – 1) + 4b2 = 0
(4) x2 + y2 + 5x – 3y + 8 = 0 (3) 2a3 + b(6a – 1) – 4b2 = 0
(4) 2a3 + b(3a – 1) – 4b2 = 0
53. The equation of any tangent to the circle x2 + y2 –
2x + 4y – 4 = 0 is: 60. The H.M. of roots of equation is:
y m ( x – 1) + 3 1 + m 2 – 2
(1) = (5 + 2 ) x – ( 4 + 5 ) x + 8 + 2
2
5 is:
(1) 2 (2) 4
(2) y =mx + 3 1 + m 2
(3) 6 (4) 8
(3) y =mx + 3 1 + m 2 – 2
61. Equation of the ellipse whose axes are the axes of
y m( x – 1) + 3 1 + m 2
(4) = coordinates (major axis being x-axis), centre is
origin and which passes through the point (−3, 1)
54. In the ∆ABC, the coordinates of B are (0, 0), and has eccentricity 2 / 5 is:
π (1) 3x2 + 5y2 – 15 = 0
AB = 2, ∠ABC = and the middle point of BC
3 (2) 5x2 + 3y2 – 32 = 0
has the co-ordinates (2, 0). The centroid of the (3) 3x2 + 4y2 – 32 = 0
triangle can be: (4) 5x2 + 3y2 – 48 = 0
1 3 5 1 
(1)  ,  (2)  , 
2 2 3 3 x2 y2
  62. If the eccentricity of the ellipse + 1
=
a2 + 1 a2 + 2
 4+ 3 1  4– 3 1
(3)  ,  (4)  ,  1
is , then the latus rectum of the ellipse is:
 3 3  3 3
6
5 10
55. The value of k for which the distinct points (1) (2)
6 6
(k, 2 – 2k), (1 – k, 2k) and (–4 –k, 6 – 2k) are
collinear is(are): 8 7
(3) (4)
1 6 6
(1) Only 0 (2) Only
2
(3) Only –1 (4) Infinite 63. The number of values of c such that the straight
x2 y 2
56. The centroid of a triangle is (1, 4) and the line y = 4x + c touches the curve + 1 is:
=
4 1
coordinates of its two vertices are (4, − 3) and (1) 0 (2) 1
(−9, 7). Then the area of the triangle is (in sq. (3) 2 (4) Infinite
units):
(1) 183 (2) 366 64. If the ratio of distance between the foci and the
183 distance between the two directricies of the
(3) (4) 732
2 x2 y 2
hyperbola 2 – 2 = 1 is 3 : 2, then b : a is :
a b
57. If the roots of (a2 + b2)x2 – 2(bc + ad)x + c2 + d2 =
0 are equal then: (1) 1: 2 (2) 3: 2
a c a b (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
(1) = (2) + = 0
b d c d

[7]
 29 69. The length of the intercept on y-axis cut off by the
65. If (1.5)30 = k, then the value of ∑ (1.5)n , is: parabola, y2 – 5y = 3x – 6 is:
n= 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 2k – 3 (2) k+1 (3) 3 (4) 4
9
(3) 2k + 7 (4) 2k –
2 70. The angle between the tangents drawn from the
origin to the circle x2 + y2 – 14x + 2y + 25 = 0 is:
66. The sum of an infinite G.P. is 57 and the sum of π π
their cubes is 9747, then the common ratio of the (1) (2)
3 4
G.P. is:
5π π
1 2 (3) (4)
(1) (2) 12 2
3 3
1 5 SECTION-B
(3) (4)
6 6 71. The number of common tangents to the circles
x2 + y2 = 4 and x2 + y2 – 6x – 8y = 24 is _______.
67. Equation of tangents of x2 – 2y2 = 18 that are
parallel to the line x + y = 0, are: 72. Number of values of θ ∈ [0, 5π] such that 3sin2 θ
(1) x + y = ± 3 (2) x + y = ± 2 – 7sin θ + 2 = 0 is:
(3) x + y = ± 1 (4) x + y = ± 6
73. Number of roots of the equation
68. The equation of common tangents to the curves |2x – 1|2 – 3|2x – 1| + 2 = 0 is
x2 + 4y2 = 8 and y2 = 4x are:
(1) y – 2x – 4 = 0, y + 2x + 4 = 0 74. If the roots of equation x2 – bx + c = 0 be two
(2) y – 2x – 2 = 0, y + 2x + 2 = 0 consecutive integers, then b2 – 4c =
(3) 2y – x – 4 = 0, 2y + x + 4 = 0
(4) 2y – x – 2 = 0, 2y + x + 2 = 0 75. If x, 2y, 3z are in A.P., where the distinct numbers
x, y, z are in G.P., if the common ratio of the G.P.
is r then the value of 6r :

[8]