FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – APRIL, 2023

(Held On Monday 10th April, 2023) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A Sol.
1. Let f be a continuous function satisfying 3

t2
æ p2 ö
ò( ) 4 3 3
f(x) + x2 dx= t , " t > 0 . Then fç ÷ is 8
0
3 è 4ø
2
equal to :
8!
æ p3 ö Ways = ´ 3!
(1) p ç 1 - ÷ 3!3!2!2!
è 16 ø 8 ´ 7 ´6 ´5 ´4
=
æ p2 ö 4
(2) -p 2 ç 1 + ÷ = 56 × 30
è 16 ø
= 1680
æ p3 ö
(3) -p ç 1 + ÷ 3. For, a, b, g , dÎ¥ , if
è 16 ø
æ æ x ö2x æ e ö2x ö bx dx
1æxö 1æ e ö
æ p2 ö
(4) p 2 ç 1 - ÷ ò ç çè e ÷ø çè x ÷ø ÷ e
ç + ÷ log x dx =
a
ç ÷
è e ø
-
g
ç ÷ +C,
èxø
è 16 ø è ø
¥
1
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Where e = å and C is constant of integration,
n = 0 n!

t2 then a + 2b + 3g – 4d is equal to:

ò ( f(x) + x ) dx = 3 t , " t > 0
2 4 3
Sol.
(1) 1
0

( f(t ) + t ) = 2t
2 4
(2) –4
(3) –8
f(t 2 ) = 2t - t 4 (4) 4
æ p 2 ö 2p p 4 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
p
t= Þ fç ÷= -
2 è 4 ø 2 16

p4 æ p3 ö
Sol. (x = e ) ln x

= p - = p ç1 - ÷
16 è 16 ø æ æ x ö2x æ e ö2x ö 2( x ln x - x )
+e (
-2 x ln x - x ) ù
ò ç èç e ø÷ + èç x ø÷ ÷÷ loge x dx = ò êëée
ç úû ln xdx
2. Eight persons are to be transported from city A to è ø
city B in three cars of different makes. If each car x lnx – x = t
can accommodate at most three persons, then the lnx.dx = dt

ò(e + e -2t dt )
2t
number of ways, in which they can be transported,
is:
e2t e-2t
(1) 3360 - +C
2 2
(2) 1680
2x 2x
(3) 560 1æ xö 1æ e ö
= ç ÷ - ç ÷ +C
(4) 1120 2è e ø 2è xø
Official Ans. by NTA (1) a=b=g=d=2
a + 2b + 3g – 4d = 4
1
4. Let the image of the point P(1, 2, 6) in the plane é5! 6! 7!ù
1 ê
passing through the points A(1, 2, 0), B(1, 4, 1) 6. If A = ê 6! 7! 8!úú , then adj(adj(2A)) is
and C(0, 5, 1) be Q (a, b, g). Then (a2+ b2 + g2) is 5!6!7!
êë7! 8! 9!úû
equal to :
(1) 65 equal to :
(2) 70 (1) 28
(3) 76
(4) 62 (2) 212
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (3) 2 20
(4) 216
Sol. Equation of plane A(x - 1) + B(y - 2) + C(z - 0) = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Put (1, 4, 1) Þ 2B + C = 0
Put (0, 5, 1) Þ –A + 3B + C = 0
2
adjadj(2A) = | 2A |(n -1)
___________________________
Sol.
Sub : B – A = 0 Þ A = B, C = –2B
1(x - 1) + 1(y - 2) - 2(z - 0) = 0
x + y - 2z - 3 = 0 = | 2A |4

Image is (a, b, g) pt º (1, 2, 6)

= (23 | A |) 4
a - 1 b - 2 g - 6 -2(1 + 2 - 12 - 3)
= = =
1 1 -2 6
a-1 b-2 g -6 = 212 | A |4 Þ 216
= = =4
1 1 -2
1 6 42
a = 5, b = 6, g = - 2 Þ a 2 +b2 + g 2 1
|A| = 5!6! 1 7 56
= 25 + 36 + 4 = 65 5!6!7!
1 8 72
5. Let A = {2, 3, 4} and B = {8, 9, 12}. Then the
number of elements in the relation
R = {((a1, b1), (a2, b2)) Î (A × B, A × B) : a1 R3 ® R3 ® R2
divides b2 and a2 divides b1} is :
(1) 36 R2 ® R2 ® R1
(2) 12
(3) 18 1 8 42
(4) 24 | A | = 0 1 14 = 2
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
0 1 16

A B 7. Let A be the point (1, 2) and B be any point on the

2 8
curve x2 + y2 = 16 . If the centre of the locus of the
3 9 point P, which divides the line segment AB in the
4 12 a1, b 1 a2, b 2 ratio 3 : 2 is the point C (a, b), then the length of
Sol.
the line segment AC is

a1 divides b2 6 5 4 5
(1) (2)
Each element has 2 choices 5 5
Þ3×2=6
2 5 3 5
a2 divides b1 (3) (4)
5 5
Each element has 2 choices
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Þ3×2=6
Total = 6 × 6 = 36

2
 A(1, 2) P(h,k) B(4cos q, 4sinq) 9. Let g(x) = f(x) + f(1 - x) and f ¢¢(x) > 0, x Î(0,1) .
Sol.
12 cos q + 2 If g is decreasing in the interval (0, a) and
=h Þ 12 cos q = 5h – 2
5 increasing in the interval (a, 1), then
12 sin q + 4 æ 1ö æ a + 1ö
=k Þ 12 sin q = 5k 4 tan1 (2a) + tan -1 ç ÷ + tan -1 ç
è a ÷ø
5 is equal to :
è aø
Sq & add :
3p
144 = (5h – 2)2 + (5k – 4)2 (1)
2
2 2
æ 2ö æ 4ö 144 (2) p
çè x - ÷ø + çè y - ÷ø =
5 5 25
5p
(3)
æ 2 4ö
Centre º ç , ÷ º ( a, b )
4
è 5 5ø 3p
(4)
2 2 4
æ 2ö æ 4ö
AC = çè 1 - ÷ø + çè 2 - ÷ø Official Ans. by NTA (2)
5 5

9 36 45 3 5
= + = = Sol. g(x) = f(x) + f(1 – x) & f¢¢(x) > 0, x Î (0, 1)
25 25 5 5
g¢(x) = f¢(x) – f¢(1 – x) = 0
Þ f¢(x) = f¢(1 – x)
8. Let a die be rolled n times. Let the probability of
x=1–x
getting odd numbers seven times be equal to the
probability of getting odd numbers nine times. If 1
x=
the probability of getting even numbers twice is 2
k g¢(x) = 0
, then k is equal to :
215 1
at x =
(1) 30 2
(2) 90 g¢¢(x) = f¢¢(x) + f¢¢(1 – x) > 0
(3) 15 g is concave up
(4) 60 1
Official Ans. by NTA (4) hence a =
2
1 a +1
Sol. P(odd number 7 times) = P(odd number 9 times) tan -1 2a + tan -1 + tan -1
a a
7 n -7 9 n -9
æ 1ö æ 1 ö æ 1ö æ 1 ö Þ tan -1 1 + tan-1 2 + tan-1 3 = p
n
C7 ç ÷ ç ÷ = C9 ç ÷ ç ÷
n
è 2ø è 2 ø è 2ø è 2 ø
10. Let a circle of radius 4 be concentric to the ellipse
n
C 7 = n C9
15x 2 + 19y 2 = 285 . Then the common tangents are
Þ n = 16
inclined to the minor axis of the ellipse at the
Required
angle.
16
æ 1ö p p
P = C2 ´ ç ÷
16
è 2ø (1) (2)
4 3
16 × 15 1 15 p p
= ´ 16 = 13 (3) (4)
2 2 2 12 6
60 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Þ Þ k = 60
215

3
 r
x 2 y2 Sol. a = 2 ˆi + 7ˆj – kˆ
Sol. + =1 r
19 15 b = 3iˆ + 5kˆ
r
(0, 15 ) c = ˆi – ˆj + 2kˆ
ˆi ˆj kˆ
r r r
d = l(a ´ b) = l 2 7 –1
3 0 5
r
(4,0) ( 19,0) d = l (35iˆ – 13ˆj – 21k)
ˆ
l(35 + 13 – 42) = 12
l=2
r
d = 2(35iˆ – 13ˆj – 21k)
ˆ
r
ˆ r ´ d)
(iˆ + ˆj – k)(c
Let tang be
–1 1 –1
y < mx ± 19m 2 ∗ 15
= 1 –1 2 = 44
mx , y ± 19m 2 ∗ 15 = 0 70 –26 –42

Parallel from (0, 0) = 4

12. If Sn = 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 + ….. to n terms,
± 19m ∗ 15 2 1
then (S - S9 ) is equal to
<4 60 29
m 2 ∗1 (1) 226 (2) 220
19m2 + 15 = 16m2 + 16 (3) 223 (4) 227
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
3m2 = 1
1 S n = 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 + .... + n terms
m= ± Sol.
Difference are in A.P.
3
Let Tn = an 2 + bn + c
p
q = with x-axis T1 = a + b + c = 4
6
T2 = 4a + 2b + c = 11
p
Required angle . T3 = 9a + 3b + c = 21
3
By solving these 3 equations
3 5
® ® ®
a= ,b= ,c=0
2 2
11. Let a = 2iˆ + 7ˆj - kˆ , b = 3iˆ + 5kˆ and c = ˆi - ˆj + 2kˆ
3 2 5
So Tn = n + n
® 2 2
. Let d be a vector which is perpendicular to both
S n = STn
® ® ® ®
a and b, and c × d = 12 . Then =
3 2 5
Sn + Sn
2 2
( - ˆi + ˆj - kˆ ) × ( c ´ d ) is equal to
® ®
3 n(n + 1)(2n + 1) 5 (n)(n + 1)
= =
2 6 2 2
(1) 48
n(n + 1)
(2) 42
=
4
[ 2n + 1 + 5]
(3) 44 n(n + 1) n(n + 1)(n + 3)
Sn = (2n + 6) =
4 2
(4) 24
1 æ 29 ´ 30 ´ 32 9 ´ 10 ´ 12 ö
Official Ans. by NTA (3) ç – ÷ø = 223
60 è 2 2

4
13. If the points P and Q are respectively the =P
2
Sol. Let 9tan x

circumcentre and the orthocentre of a DABC, then 9

® ® ®
+ P = 10
P
PA + PB+ PC is equal to
® ® P2 – 10P + 9 = 0
(1) 2 QP (2) QP (P – 9) (P – 1) = 0
® ®
(3) 2 PQ (4) PQ P = 1, 9
9tan x = 1 , 9tan =9
2 2
x
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
tan 2 x = 0, tan 2 x = 1
Sol. p æ p pö
x = 0, ± \ x Îç – , ÷
4 è 2 2ø

æ pö æ pö
b = tan 2 (0) + tan 2 ç + ÷ + tan 2 ç – ÷
è 12 ø è 12 ø
= 0 + 2(tan15°)2
2(2 – 3)2
PA + PB + PC = a + b + c 2(7 – 4 3)
a+ b+ c 1
PG = Than (14 – 8 3 – 14) 2 = 32
3 6
Þ a + b + c = 3PG = PQ 16. If the coefficients of x and x2 in (1 + x)p (1 – x)q
are 4 and –5 respectively, then 2p + 3q is equal to
Ans. (4)
(1) 63
(2) 69
14. The statement ~[p Ú (~ (p Ù q))] is equivalent to
(3) 66
(1) (~(p Ù q)) Ù q
(4) 60
(2) ~ (p Ù q)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(3) ~(p Ú q)
(4) (p Ù q) Ù (~p)
Sol. (1 + x) P (1 – x) q
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
æ p(p – 1) 2 ö
çè 1 + px + x + ...÷
ø
2!
Sol. : [pv( : (p Ù q))]
æ q(q – 1) 2 ö
: p Ù (p Ù q) çè 1 – qx + x – ...÷
2! ø
p–q=4
ì æ p pö 2 2 ü
15. Let S = í x Î ç - , ÷ : 91- tan x + 9 tan x = 10 ý and p(p – 1) q(q – 1)
+ – pq = –5
î è 2 2ø þ 2 2
æ xö p2 + q 2 – p – q – 2pq = –10
å tan2 çè 3 ÷ø , then
1
b= (b - 14)2 is equal to
x Îs 6 (q + 4)2 + q 2 – (q + 4) – q – 2(4 + q)q = –10
(1) 32
q 2 + 8q + 16 – q 2 – q – 4 – q – 8q – 2q 2 = –10
(2) 8
–2q = –22
(3) 64
q = 11
(4) 16
p = 15
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
2(15) + 3(11)
30 + 33 = 63
5
 x 6-y z+8 2z - 3i
17. Let the line = = intersect the lines Sol. ÎR
1 2 5 qz + 2i
x-5 y-7 z+2 x+3 3-y z-6
= = and = = at 2 ( x + iy) - 3i 2x + ( 2y - 3) i 4x - ( 4y + 2) i
4 3 1 6 3 1 = ´
the points A and B respectively. Then the distance 4 ( x + it ) + 2i 4x + ( 4y + 2) i 4x - ( 4y + 2) i
of the mid-point of the line segment AB from the 4x(2y – 3) – 2x(4y + 2) = 0
plane 2x – 2y + z = 14 is 1
10 x=0 y¹-
(1) 4 (2) 2
3
Ans. = 3
11
(3) 3 (4) 19. Let the number (22)2022 + (2022)22 leave the
3
Official Ans. by NTA (1) remainder a when divided by 3 and b when
divided by 7. Then (a2 + b2) is equal to
x y -6 z +8
Sol. = = =l …. (1) (1) 10
1 -2 5
(2) 5
x -5 y -7 z+2
= = = m ….(2) (3) 20
4 3 1
x +3 y-3 z-6 (4) 13
= = = g …. (3)
4 -3 1 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Intersection of (1) & (2) “A”
( l, -2l + 6,5l - 8) & ( 4m + 5,3m + 7, m - 2) Sol. (22)2022 + (2022)22
l = 1, m = –1 divided by 3
A(1, 4, –3)
(21 + 1)2022 + (2022)22
Intersection of (1) & (3) “B”
( l, -2l + 6,5l - 8) & ( 6 g - 3, -3g + 3, g + 6)
= 3k +1 (a = 1)
Divided by 7
l=3
g=1 (21 + 1)2022 + (2023 – 1)22
B(3, 0, 7) 7k + 1 + 1 (b = 2)
Mid point of A & B Þ (2, 2, 2) 7k + 2
Perpendicular distance from the plane
So a2 + b2 Þ 5
2x – 2y + z = 14
20. Let m be the mean and s be the standard deviation
2 ( 2) - 2 ( 2) + 2 - 14
Þ =4 of the distribution
4 + 4 +1
2z - 3i xi 0 1 2 3 4 5
ì ü
18. Let S = íz = x + iy : is a real number ý .
î 4z + 2i þ fi k + 2 2k k -1 k -1 k +1 k - 3
2 2 2

Then which of the following is NOT correct?

1
where å fi = 62. if [x] denotes the greatest integer
(1) y + x 2 + y 2 ¹ -
4 £ x, then [m2 + s2] is equal
(2) x = 0 (1) 8
æ 1ö
(3) (x, y) = ç 0, - ÷ (2) 7
è 2ø
(3) 6
æ 1ö æ 1 ö
(4) y Î ç -¥, - ÷ È ç - , ¥÷ (4) 9
è 2ø è 2 ø
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)

6
Sol. å fi = 62 22. Let S be the set of values of l, for which the
Þ 3k2 + 16k – 12k – 64 = 0 system of equations
16 6lx – 3y + 3z = 4l2,
Þ k = or - (rejected)
3 2x + 6ly + 4z = 1,

m=
å fi x i 3x + 2y + 3lz = l has no solution. Then 12 å l
å fi lÎS

8 + 2 (15) + 3(15) + 4 (17) + 5 156 is equal to ________ .

m= =
62 62 Official Ans. by NTA (24)
s 2 = å f i x i2 - ( å fi xi ) 2

2 6l -3 3
8 ´ 12 + 15 ´ 13 + 17 ´ 16 + 25 æ 156 ö
-ç D= 2 6l 4 = 0 (For No Solution)
è 62 ÷ø
= Sol.
62
2 3 2 3l
500 æ 156 ö
s2 = -ç ÷ 2l (9l2 - 4) + (3l – 6) + (2 – 9l) = 0
62 è 62 ø
500 18l3 - 14l - 4 = 0
s2 + m2 =
62 (l – 1)(3l + 1)(3l + 2) = 0
és + m ù = 8
2 2
Þl = 1, –1/3, –2/3
ë û
6 l -3 4 l 2
SECTION-B For each l, D1 = 2 6 l 1 ¹ 0
21. Let the equations of two adjacent sides of a
parallelogram ABCD be 2x – 3y = –23 and 5x + 4y 3 2 l
= 23. If the equation of its one diagonal AC is 3x +
æ 1 2ö
7y = 23 and the distance of A from the other Ans. 12 ç 1 + + ÷ = 24
diagonal is d, then 50 d2 is equal to _____ . è 3 3ø
Official Ans. by NTA (529 ) 23. Let the foot of perpendicular from the point A(4, 3,
1) on the plane P : x – y + 2z + 3 = 0 be N. If B(5,
Sol. a, b), a, b ΢ is a point on plane P such that the

area of the triangle ABN in 3 2 , then

a 2 + b 2 + ab is equal to ________ .
Official Ans. by NTA (7)

Sol.
A(4,3,1)
A & C point will be (–4, 5) & (3, 2)
æ 1 7ö
mid point of AC will be ç - , ÷
è 2 2ø
equation of diagonal BD is
7
7 æ 1ö x–y+2z+3=0
y- = 2 ç x+ ÷ N B(5,a,b )
2 -1 è 2ø
2
Þ 7x + y = 0 AN = 6
Distance of A from diagonal BD
5 – a + 2b + 3 = 0
23
= d= Þ a = 8 + 2b …. (1)
50
Þ 50d = (23)2
2 N is given by
50d2 = 529

7
 x - 4 y - 3 z - 1 - ( 4 - 3 + 2 + 3) 25. Let the tangent at any point P on a curve passing
= = = æ1 ö
1 -1 2 1+ 1+ 4 through the points (1, 1) and ç ,100÷ , intersect
è 10 ø
Þ x = 3, y = 4, z = –1
positive x-axis and y-axis at the points A and B
Þ N is (3, 4, –1)
respectively. If PA : PB = 1 : k and y = y(x) is the
4 + ( a - 4 ) + ( b + 1)
2 2 dy
BN = k
solution of the differential equation e dx = kx +,
2
4 + ( 2b + 4 ) + ( b + 1)
2 2
= y(0) = k, then 4y(1) – 5loge3 is equal to ______ .
1
Area of DABN = AN ´ BN = 3 2 Official Ans. by NTA (6)
2
1
Þ ´ 6 ´ BN = 3 2 Sol. equation of tangent at P (x, y)
2
BN = 2 3 dy
Y – y< (X , x)
Þ 4 + (2b + 4)2 + (b + 1)2 = 12 dx
Y=0
(2b + 4)2 + (b + 1)2 – 8 = 0
,ydx
5b2 + 18b + 9 = 0 X< ∗x
dy
(5b + 3) (b + 3) = 0
b = –3
Þ a=2
ka + 0 k +1
Þ a2 + b2 + ab = 9 + 4 – 6 = 7 = x, a = x
k +1 k
24. Let quadratic curve passing through the point k ∗1 dx
x < ,y ∗ x
(–1, 0) and touching the line y = x at (1, 1) be y = k dy
f(x). Then the x-intercept of the normal to the x dx
x∗ < ,y ∗ x
curve at the point (a, a + 1) in the first quadrant is k dy
dy dy k
∗ ky < 0 ∗ y<0
_____ .
x
Official Ans. by NTA (11) dx dx x
y. xk = C
C=1
Sol. f(x) = (x + 1) (ax + b)
æ1ö
k

100.çç ÷÷÷ < 1

èç10 ø
1 = 2a + 2b ____(1)
f'(x) = (ax + b) + a (x + 1)
K=2
1 = (3a + b) _____(2) dy
< ln(2x ∗ 1)
Þ b = 1/4, a = 1/4 dx
( x + 1)
2 ∋2x ∗1(
f (x) = y< (ln(2x ∗ 1) ,1) ∗ c
4 2
1
x 1 ( a + 1)
2 2 < (0 , 1) ∗ C
f ¢ ( x) = + a +1= , a > –1 2
2 2 4 1 5
C<2∗ <
a+1=4 2 2
a=3 3 5
y(1) < (ln3 , 1) ∗
normal at (3, 4) 2 2
3
y-4= -
1
( x - 3) < ln3 ∗ 1
2 2
y=0 x=8+3 4y(1) = 6ln3 + 4
Ans. 11 4y (1) – 5 ln3 = 4 + ln3

8
26. Suppose a1, a2, 2, a3, a4 be in an arithmetico- 28. The sum of all the four-digit numbers that can be
geometric progression. If the common ratio of the formed using all the digits 2, 1, 2, 3 is equal to
corresponding geometric progression is 2 and the _______ .
sum of all 5 terms of the arithmetico-geometric Official Ans. by NTA (26664)
49
progression is , then a4 is equal to ________ .
2
Sol. 2, 1, 2, 3
Official Ans. by NTA (16)
3!
__ __ __ 1 =3
2!
(a - 2d) (a - d)
Sol. , , a, 2(a + d), 4(a + 2d) __ __ __ 2 3! = 6
4 2
3!
a=2 __ __ __ 3 =3
2!
æ1 1 ö 49
ç + + 1 + 6 ÷ ´ 2 + ( -1 + 2 + 8 ) d = Sum of digits of unit place = 3 × 1 + 6 × 2 + 3 × 3
è4 2 ø 2
= 24
æ3 ö 49
2 ç + 7 ÷ + 9d = \ required sum
è4 ø 2
= 24 ×1000 + 24 × 100 + 24 × 10 + 24 × 1
49 62 98 - 62
9d = - = =9 = 24 ×1111
2 4 4
d=1 Ans ; 26664
p
Þ a4 = 4 (a + 2d) 29. In the figure, q1 + q 2 = and 3 ( BE ) = 4 ( AB) .
= 16 2
q2
If the area of DCAB is 2 3 - 3 unit2, when is
æ 2x ö q1
If the domain of the function f ( x ) = sec -1 ç
è 5x + 3 ÷ø
27.
the largest, then the perimeter (in unit) of DCED is
is [ a, b) È ( g , d ] , then 3a + 10 ( b + g ) + 21d is equal to ___________.
E
equal to ________ .
Official Ans. by NTA (24)

2x q1
Sol. f(x) = sec -1 C D
5x + 3
2x
q1
5x + 3 A B

2x Official Ans. by NTA (6)

³ 1 Þ|2x|³|5x + 3|
5x + 3
(2x)2 – (5x + 3)2 ³ |5x + 3| Sol.
(7x + 3) (-3x - 3) ³ 0
- + - E
3
-1 -
7
é -3 ö æ -3 -3 ù x tan q2
\ domain ê -1, ÷ È ç , ú
ë 5ø è 5 7 û
q2
-3 -3 -3 C D
a = –1, b = , g= , d= x
5 5 7
x tan q1
3a + 10 (b + g) + 21d = –3
æ -6 ö æ -3 ö q1
-3 + 10 ç ÷ + ç ÷ 21 = -24
è 5ø è 7ø A x B

9
 3 BE = 4 AB 30. If the area of the region ( x, y ) : x 2 - 2 £ y £ x is
Ar (DCAB) = 2 3 - 3
A, then 6A + 16 2 is equal to _________ .
1 2
x tan q1 = 2 3 - 3
2 Official Ans. by NTA (27)
BE = BD + DE
= x (tan q1 + tan q 2) Sol. |x2 – 2| £ y £ x
BE = AB (tan q1 + cot q1 )
4 1
tan q1 + cot q1 Þ tan q1 = 3,
3 3
p p
q1 = q2 =
6 3
p p
q1 = q2 =
3 6
q2 p p
as is largest \ q1 = q2 =
q1 6 3
A<ò (x , (2 , x 2 ))dx ∗ ò (x , (x 2 , 2))dx
2 2

\x 2
=
(2 3-3 ´2 ) =
(
3 2- 3 ´2 ) æ
1 2

2 2 ÷ö æç1 1ö æ 8 ö æ 2 2 ö÷
tan q1 p <ççç1,2 2 ∗ ÷÷,ç ,2 ∗ ÷÷ ∗çç2 , ∗4÷÷,çç1,
÷ ÷ ç ∗2 2÷÷
tan èç 3 ÷ø èç2 3ø èç 3 ø èç 3 ø÷
6
4 2 7 10 ,8 2 9
( ) <,4 2 ∗ ∗ ∗ < ∗
2
x 2 = 12 - 6 3 = 3 - 3
3 6 3 3 2
x =3- 3 6A = ,16 2 ∗ 27 \ 6A ∗ 16 2 < 27
Perimeter of DCED Ans : 27
= CD + DE + CE
= 3 3 + 3- 3 ( ) (
3 + 3- 3 ´2 = 6 )
Ans : 6

10
 PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 33. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and
31. A person travels x distance with velocity v1 and 4 moles of neon at temperature T. Neglecting all
then x distance with velocity v2 in the same vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
direction. The average velocity of the person is v, system will be :
then the relation between v, v1 and v2 will be : (1) 8 RT
(2) 16 RT
(1) v  v1  v2
(3) 4 RT
v  v2
(2) v  1 (4) 11 RT
2
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
2 1 1
(3)  
v v1 v 2
n1Cv1  n 2 Cv2
Sol. (Cv )mix =
1 1 1 n1  n 2
(4)  
v v1 v 2 5 3
2 R  4 R
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (Cv )mix = 2 2  11R
24 6
11R
xx U = n(Cv )mix RT = 6 × RT = 11R
Sol. Average velocity = v 6
x x

v1 v 2
34. In an experiment with Vernier callipers of least
1 1 2
  count 0.1 mm, when two jaws are joined together
v1 v 2 v
the zero of Vernier scale lies right to the zero of
the main scale and 6th division of Vernier scale
32. The half-life of a radioactive substance is T. The coincides with the main scale division. While
7 measuring the diameter of a spherical bob, the zero
time taken, for disintegrating th part of its
8 of vernier scale lies in between 3.2 cm and 3.3 cm
original mass will be : marks, and 4th division of vernier scale coincides
(1) 3T with the main scale division. The diameter of bob
(2) 8T is measured as :
(3) T (1) 3.18 cm
(2) 3.25 cm
(4) 2T
(3) 3.26 cm
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(4) 3.22 cm
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. t1/2  T
1 1 1 Sol. LC = 0.1mm
1 
T
 
T
 
T

2 4 8 Zero Error = 6 × LC = 0.6 mm
t 7/8  3T Reading = MSR +VSR × LC – Zero Error
= [32mm + (0.1)4mm] – 0.6mm
= 31.8 mm
= 3.18 cm

1
35. Given below are two statements: 37. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: For diamagnetic substance Statement I: Rotation of the earth shows effect on
–1    0 , where  is the magneticsusceptibility. the value of acceleration due to gravity (g).
Statement II: Diamagnetic substances when Statement II: The effect of rotation of the earth on
placed in an external magnetic field, tend to move the value of ‘g’ at the equator is minimum and that
from stronger to weaker part of the field. at the pole is maximum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Sol. Both Statements are correct.

Sol. Statement I is true due to centrifugal force.
36. The distance between two plates of a capacitor is d Statement II is incorrect,
and its capacitance is C1, when air is the medium At pole g = gs (no effect)
between the plates. If a metal sheet of thickness At equator g = gs – rcos2gs – r2
2d   (cos2 maximum at = 0° i.e. at equator)
and of same area as plate is introduced
3
Effect is maximum at equator.
between the plates, the capacitance of the capacitor
C2
becomes C2. The ratio is: 38. The time period of a satellite, revolving above
C1
earth’s surface at a height equal to R will be
(1) 2 : 1
(Given g = 2 m/s2, R = radius of earth)
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 3 : 1 (1) 4R
(4) 1 : 1 (2) 8R
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(3) 32R

2d (4) 2R
Sol. Kmetal sheet =  , t =
3 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
0 A
C1 
d
mv 2 GMm GM Rg
0 A 0 A Sol.  2
v 
C2    3C1 2R (2R) 2R 2
t 2d
dt d 0
k 3 2 (2R) 4 R 2
T   32R
C2 v Rg
3
C1

2
39. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Sol. (1) Q = 0
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. (2)Q = U + W
Assertion A: An electric fan continues to rotate for  U = –W
some time after the current is switched off.
adiabatic compression (V)
Reason R: Fan continuous to rotate due to inertia
of motion. W = –ve  U = +ve
In the light of above statements, choose the most U 
appropriate answer from the options given below.  U  0
(1) A is correct but R is not correct.
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct 42. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on
explanation of A. the screen in a Young’s double slit experiment
(3) A is not correct but R is correct.
where phase difference between two wave of same
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A. amplitude are /3 and /2, respectively are
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 :3
Sol. Fact Official Ans. by NTA (3)
40. The amplitude of magnetic field in an
electromagnetic wave propagating along y-axis is
6.0 × 10–7 T. The maximum value of electric field Sol. Inet = I1  I 2  2 I1I 2 cos 

in the electromagnetic wave is: 

 I0  I0  2I0 cos
3
(1) 5 × 1014 Vm–1
1
(2) 180 Vm–1  2I 0  2I 0   3I0
2
(3) 2 × 1015 Vm–1 Inet  I0  I0  2I0 cos 90  2I0
–7 –1
(4) 6.0 × 10 Vm 3
Ratio =
Official Ans. by NTA (2) 2
43. The variation of stopping potential (V0) as a
function of the frequency (v) of the incident light
E for a metal is shown in figure. The work function
Sol. C
B of the surface is
E = BC
= 6 × 10–7 × 3 × 108
Stopping Potential (V0) volt

3
= 18 × 10
E = 180 Vm–1 2
41. A gas is compressed adiabatically, which one of
1
the following statement is NOT true.
(1) There is no heat supplied to the system
(2) The temperature of the gas increases 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(3) The change in the internal energy is equal to v(×1014 Hz)
(1) 18.6 eV (2) 2.98 eV
the work done on the gas.
(3) 2.07 eV (4) 1.36 eV
(4) There is no change in the internal energy
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)

3
Sol. eV0 = hv –  46. Young’s moduli of the material of wires A and B
are in the ratio of 1 : 4, while its area of cross
0 = hv – 
sections are in the ratio of 1 : 3. If the same amount
 hv of load is applied to both the wires, the amount of
 6.6  1034  5  1014 elongation produced in the wires A and B will be
in the ratio of
 33  1020 J [Assume length of wires A and B are same]
33  1020 (1) 36 : 1 (2) 12 : 1
  2.07eV
1.6  1019 (3) 1 : 36 (4) 1 : 12
Official Ans. by NTA (2)

44. For a periodic motion represented by the equation FL

Sol. L 
Y = sin t + cos t AY
The amplitude of the motion is L A A B YB
 = 12
L B A A YA
(1) 0.5 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 2
47. Two projectiles are projected at 30° and 60° with
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio of the
maximum height attained by the two projectiles
respectively is:
Sol. y = sin t + cos t
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 :1

y = sin t + sin (t+ )
2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1: 3

 Official Ans. by NTA (3)

 =
2

Anet = 12  12  2 11 cos() u 2 sin 2 

Sol. Hmax =
2g
Anet = 2
H1 sin 2 1 1
 
H 2 sin 2  2 3
45. In a metallic conductor, under the effect of applied
electric field, the free electrons of the conductor
(1) drift from higher potential to lower potential. 48. A message signal of frequency 3kHz is used to

(2) move in the curved paths from lower potential modulate a carrier signal of frequency 1.5 MHz.

to higher potential The bandwidth of the amplitude modulated wave is

(3) move with the uniform velocity throughout (1) 3 kHz (2) 6 MHz
(3) 3 MHz (4) 6 kHz
from lower potential to higher potential
(4) move in the straight line paths in the same Official Ans. by NTA (4)

direction
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Sol. Bandwidth = 2fm
= 2 × 3 kHz
Sol. Move in curve path = 6 kHz
i  neAVd

4
49. If each diode has a forward bias resistance of 25  SECTION-B
in the below circuit, 51. A square loop of side 2.0 cm is placed inside a
long solenoid that has 50 turns per centimetre and
carries a sinusoidally varying current of amplitude
2.5 A and angular frequency 700 rad s–1. The
central axes of the loop and solenoid coincide. The
amplitude of the emf induced in the loop is
x × 10–4 V. The value of x is__________
22
(Take,   )
7
Official Ans. by NTA (44)

Which of the following options is correct: Sol.

I3 I2
(1) 1 (2) 1
I4 I3
I1 I1
(3) 1 (4) 2
I2 I2
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Bdue to solenoid = 0nI
Sol. through square = 0nI × A (A = Area)
dI
Emf = 0 n A×
dt
= 0n A × I0  cos t
Emf amplitude = 0n A × I0
50
= 4   10 7  2
 4  10 4  2.5  700
10
= 44 × 10–4 V

150  150 52. A rectangular block of mass 5 kg attached to a

Req =  25  100 horizontal spiral spring executes simple harmonic
300
5 motion of amplitude 1 m and time period 3.14 s.
I1 = = 0.05A
10 The maximum force exerted by spring on block
.05 is______N.
I2 = I4 =  0.025A
2 Official Ans. by NTA (20)
I1
2
I2 Sol.  T = 3.14 = 
50. A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis 2
of a very long vertical copper tube. After some =  =2

time the magnet will
(1) Move down with almost constant speed Fmax = m amax
(2) Oscillate inside the tube = m (A2)
(3) Move down with an acceleration greater than g = mA (2)2
(4) Move down with an acceleration equal to g = 5×1×4
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
= 20 N
Sol. After some time both force becomes equal.

5
53. If 917 Å be the lowest wavelength of Lyman series 56. A point object, ‘O’ is placed in front of two thin
then the lowest wavelength of Balmer series will symmetrical coaxial convex lenses L1 and L2 with
be________Å. focal length 24 cm and 9 cm respectively. The
Official Ans. by NTA (3668)
distance between two lenses is 10 cm and the
object is placed 6 cm away from lens L1 as shown
Sol. For lowest wavelength of Lyman series
in the figure. The distance between the object and
1 1 1 
 RZ2  2  2   RZ2
 1   the image formed by the system of two lenses
For lowest wavelength of Balmer series is______cm.
1 1 1  RZ2
 RZ2  2  2  
' 2   4
4
'   4  917
RZ 2
= 3668Å
Official Ans. by NTA (34)

54. Figure below shows a liquid being pushed out of

the tube by a piston having area of cross section 1  1
From Ist lens  
2
2.0 cm . The area of cross section at the outlet is v 6 24
10 mm2. If the piston is pushed at a speed of 1 1 1 1
 – –
4 cm s–1, the speed of outgoing fluidis_____cm s–1. v 24 6 8
v = – 8 cm
1 1 1
From IInd lens  
v 18 9
Official Ans. by NTA (80)
1 1

v 18
Sol. By equation of continuity
v = 18
A1V1 = A2V2
f = 24cm f = 9cm
24
V2   80 cm/s
10  10 2
I1
6cm
55. A straight wire carrying a current of 14 A is bent 8cm 10cm 18cm
into a semicircular are of radius 2.2 cm as shown
So distance between object and its image
in the figure. The magnetic field produced by the
= 6 + 10 + 18 = 34 cm
current at the centre (O) of the arc. is_____×10–4T
57. A rectangular parallelopiped is measured as
1 cm × 1 cm × 100 cm. If its specific resistance is

O
3 × 10–7 m, then the resistance between its two
Official Ans. by NTA (2) opposite rectangular faces will be______×–7 .
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
 0 I 4   10  14
–7
Sol. Bat O  
4R 4  2.2  10 –2
= 2 × 10–4 T

6
Sol. Sol. Pmax  Fmax  v
Fmax = 1400 g + friction
= 14000 + 2000 = 16000
Pmax = 16000 × 3 = 48000 W = 48KW
1cm 1cm
100cm
60. An electron revolves around an infinite cylindrical
wire having uniform linear change density
2 × 10–8 Cm–1 in circular path under the influence
of attractive electrostatic field as shown in the
figure. The velocity of electron with which it is
3  107  (1  102 ) revolving is_________× 106 ms–1. Given mass of
R 
A 100  1  104 electron = 9 × 10–31 kg.
= 3 × 10–7 

58. A force of  P kˆ acts on the origin of the

coordinate system. The torque about the point

 
(2, –3) is P aiˆ  bjˆ , the ratio of
a
b
is
x
2
. The

value of x is
Official Ans. by NTA (8)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)

  Sol.
Sol.  rF
+

Where r  2iˆ  3jˆ +
F = eE
ˆ
  (2iˆ  3ˆj)  (Pk) +
F e
ˆ = P  –3iˆ – 2jˆ 
 P(2jˆ  3i) +

+
 So a = –3, b = –2
+
a 3

b 2 mV 2
eE 
r
59. If the maximum load carried by an elevator is 2K mV 2
e 
1400 kg (600 kg – Passenger + 800 kg – elevator), r r

which is moving up with a uniform speed of e  2k

V
m
3 ms–1 and the frictional force acting on it is 2000
N, then the maximum power used by the motor 1.6  10 19  2  9  109  2  10 8

is______kW (g = 10 m/s2). 9  10 31
= 8 × 106 m/s
Official Ans. by NTA (48)

7
 CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 64. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
61. Incorrect method of preparation for alcohols from Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
the following is: Assertion A: 3.1500g of hydrated oxalic acid
(1) Ozonolysis of alkene. dissolved in water to make 250.0 mL solution will
(2) Reaction of Ketone with RMgBr followed by result in 0.1 M oxalic acid solution.
hydrolysis. Reason R: Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid is
(3) Hydroboration–oxidation of alkene. 126 g mol–1.
(4) Reaction of alkyl halide with aqueous NaOH. In the light of the above statements, chose the
Official Ans. by NTA (1) correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
Sol. Ozonolysis of alkene, gives aldehyde, ketone & explanation of A.
carboxylic acid. (2) A is false but R is true.
62. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (3) A is true but R is false.
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Assertion A: The energy required to form Mg2+ explanation of A.
from Mg is much higher than that required to Official Ans. by NTA (4)
produce Mg+.
Reason R: Mg2+ is small ion and carry more Sol. Assertion is correct.
charge than Mg+. H2C2O4.2H2O
In the light of the above statements, choose the
3.15  1000
correct answer from the options given below: M
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct 126  250
explanation of A. 12.6
  0.1
(2) A is true but R is false. 126
(3) A is false but R is true. Reason is correct. It is used as a fact in explanation
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct of assertion.
explanation of A. 65. Buna–S can be represented as:
Official Ans. by NTA (4) C6H5
(1) CH=CH–CH=CH–CH–CH2
Sol. Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is n
correct explanation. C6H5
 Successive I.E. always increases. (2) CH2–CH=CH–CH2–CH–CH2
63. In Carius tube, an organic compound ‘X’ is treated n
with sodium peroxide to form a mineral acid ‘Y’. C6H5
The solution of BaCl2 is added to ‘Y’ to form a (3) CH2–CH=C–CH=CH–CH2
precipitate ‘Z’. ‘Z’ is used for the quantitative n
estimation of an extra element. ‘X’ could be: C6H5
(1) Cytosine (2) Chloroxylenol (4) CH2–CH=CH–CH=C–CH2
(3) A nucleotide (4) Methionine n
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Na O BaCl
Sol. X 
2 2
 Y 
2
 Z
[BaSO4 ]
Ph–CH=CH2 + H2C=CH–CH=CH2
Methionine: C5H11NO2S
O (Styrene) (Butadiene)
H2N Sol.
OH
HC–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH–CH2
(CH2)2
Ph n
S–CH3
1
66. In the reaction give below: 68. The reaction used for preparation of soap from fat
O is:
(i) LiAlH4 (1) reduction reaction
H2NC
'X' (2) alkaline hydrolysis reaction
(ii) H3O+ (3) an addition reaction
O
(4) an oxidation reaction
The product ‘X’ is: Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Sol. Saponification: Alkaline hydrolysis.

(1) H2N 69. The decreasing order of hydride affinity for
OH following carbocations is:
OH +
A. CH2=CH–C–CH3
(2) H2N CH3
+
OH C6H5–C–C6H5
B.
OH C6H5
(3) +
H2N H3C–C–CH3
C.
OH CH3
OH +
C
(4) D.
H2N
OH Choose the correct answer from the options given
Official Ans. by NTA (1) below:
(1) A, C, B, D
(2) C, A, B, D
(3) C, A, D, B
O (4) A, C, D, B
(i) LiAlH4 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
H2N (ii) H3O+
O Sol. Stability order of cations is : C < A < B < D
Sol.
70. The correct relationship between unit cell edge
length ‘a’ and radius of sphere ‘r’ for face–centred
H2N
and body centred cubic structures respectively are:
OH
(1) r  2 2a and 3r  4a

67. Ferric chloride is applied to stop bleeding because: (2) r  2 2a and 4r  3a

(1) Cl– ions cause coagulation of blood. (3) 2 2r  a and 4r  3a

(2) Blood absorbs FeCl3 and forms a complex. (4) 2 2r  a and 3r  4a

Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(3) Fe3+ ions coagulate blood which is a negatively
charged sol. Sol. FCC.
(4) FeCl3 reacts with the constituents of blood a 2  4r
which is a positively charged sol. a 2
r
4
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
 a  2 2r
BCC
Sol. Fe3+ coagulation negatively charged sol blood. 4r  a 3

2
71. Number of water molecules in washing soda and 74. The correct order for acidity of the following
soda ash respectively are: hydroxyl compound is:
A. CH3OH
(1) 10 and 1
B. (CH3)3COH
(2) 1 and 10 C.
(3) 1 and 0
(4) 10 and 0 D.

Official Ans. by NTA (4) E.

Sol. Washing soda: Na2CO3.10H2O Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
Soda ash : Na2CO3
(1) E > C > D > A > B (2) D > E > C > A > B
72. The delicate balance of CO2 and O2 is NOT (3) C > E > D > B > A (4) E > D > C > B > A
disturbed by: Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(1) Burning of Coal (2) Deforestation
Sol. E > C > D > A > B
(3) Burning of petroleum (4) Respiration
75. The major product ‘P’ formed in the given reaction
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
is:

Sol. Respiration, is a natural process, So balance of

CO2 and O2 not disturbed by respiration.
73. The correct order of the number of unpaired (1)
electrons in the given complexes is
A. [Fe(CN)6 ]3 

B. [FeF6 ]3 
(2)
C. [CoF6 ]3 
D. [Cr(oxalate)3]3–
E. [Ni(CO)4]
(3)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A < E < D < C < B (2) E < A < D < C < B
(3) E < A < B < D < C (4) A < E < C < B < D
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (4)

Sol. A. [Fe(CN)6 ]3  n = 1

B. [FeF6 ]3  n = 5 Official Ans. by NTA (4)

3
C. [CoF6 ] n=4
D. [Cr(oxalate)3]3– n = 3
Sol.
E. [Ni(CO)4] n = 0

3
76. Match List I with List II 77. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
List I List II Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Physical properties of isotopes of
Complex Crystal Field hydrogen are different.
splitting energy (0) Reason: Mass difference between isotopes of
A. [Ti(H2O)6] 2+
I. –1.2 hydrogen is very large.
In the light of the above statements, chose the
B. [V(H2O)6]2+ II. –0.6 correct answer from the options given below:
3+
C. [Mn(H2O)6] III. 0 (1) A is false but R is true.
D. [Fe(H2O)6] 3+
IV –0.8 (2) Both A and R are true and R is the NOT the
correct explanation of A.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) A is true but R is false.
below: (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III explanation of A.
Official Ans. by NTA (4 )
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II Sol. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I explanation of A.
Due to mass difference in isotopes of hydrogen,
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
these have different physical property.
78. Match List–I with List–II.
Sol. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III List – I List –II
(A) [Ti(H2O)6]2+ A. 16g of CH4(g) I. Weighs 28 g
60.2×1023
Ti2+  3d2 4s0 B. 1g of H2(g) II.
electrons
t2g e– = 2 C. 1 mole of N2(g) III. Weighs 32g
eg e– = 0 0.5 mol of Occupies 11.4 L
D. IV.
SO2(g) volume at STP
CFSE = [– 0.4 × 2 + 0.6 × 0]0
Choose the correct answer from the options given
= – 0.8  below:
(B) [V(H2O)6]2+ (1) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
(2) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
V2+  3d3 4s0
(3) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I
t2g e– = 3 (4) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
eg e– = 0 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
CFSE = [– 0.4 × 3 + 0.6 × 0] 0
Sol. 16g CH4 = 1 mole CH4 contains 10 × 6.02 × 1023
= – 1.2 0 electrons
(C) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ = 60.2 × 1023
1g H2 = 0.5 mole H2 gas occupy 11.35 litre volume
Mn3+  3d4 4s0 at STP
t2g e– = 3 1 mole of N2 = 28g
eg e– =1 0.5 mole of SO2 = 32g

CFSE = [– 0.4 × 3 + 0.6 × 1] 0 79. The correct order of metallic character is:
(1) Be > Ca > K (2) Ca > K > Be
= – 0.6 0
(3) K > Ca > Be (4) K > Be > Ca
(D) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Fe3+  3d5 4s0
Sol. On moving from top to bottom metallic character
t2g e– = 3 eg = 2
increases while on moving from left to right
CFSE = [– 0.4 × 3 + 0.6 × 2] 0 metallic decreases.
= 0 0 K > Ca > Be.
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80. Gibbs energy vs T plot for the formation of oxides 82. In alkaline medium, the reduction of permanganate
is given below: anion involves a gain of ____________ electrons.
Official Ans. by NTA (3)

Sol. In faintly alkaline medium,

MnO4– + 3e– + 2H2O 
 MnO2 + 4OH–
No. of electrons gained = 3
83. The number of endothermic process/es from the
following is _________
A. I2(g)  2I(g)
For the given diagram, the correct statement is-
(1) At 600 ºC, C can reduce ZnO B. HCl(g)  H(g) + Cl(g)
(2) At 600 ºC, C can reduce FeO C. H2O(l)  H2O(g)
(3) At 600 ºC, CO cannot reduce FeO D. C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g)
(4) At 600 ºC, CO can reduce ZnO
E. Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)

Sol. at 600ºC,
FeO  C 
 Fe  CO2 Sol. A  Endothermic (Atomisation)
B  Endothermic (Atomisation)
C  Endothermic (Vapourisation)
SECTION-B
D  Exothermic (Combustion)
81. A(g) 2B(g)  C(g)
E  Endothermic (Dissolution)
For the given reaction, if the initial pressure is 450
84. The number of molecules from the following
mm Hg and the pressure at time t is 720 mm Hg at
which contain only two lone pair of electrons is
a constant temperature T and constant volume V.
_________
The fraction of A(g) decomposed under these
conditions is x × 10–1. The value of x is ______ H2O, N2, CO, XeF4, NH3, NO, CO2, F2
(nearest integer) Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. H2O, CO, N2, NO, has two lone pair of electrons.
85. The difference in the oxidation state of Xe between
Sol. A(g) 2B(g) + C(g)
the oxidised product of Xe formed on complete
t=0 450
hydrolysis of XeF4 and XeF4 is ________
time t 450 - x 2x x
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
PT = PA + PB + PC
720 = 450 – x + 2x + x
Sol. 6XeF4 +12H2O 
 2XeO3 + 4Xe + 24HF + 3O2
2x = 270
x = 135 in XeO3 , Oxidation state of Xe = +6

135 in XeF4 , Oxidation state of Xe = +4

Fraction of A decomposed = =0.3= 3×10–1 So difference in oxidation state = 2
450
So, x = 3
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86. An aqueous solution of volume 300 cm3 contains 89. The specific conductance of 0.0025 M acetic acid
0.63 g of protein. The osmotic pressure of the is 5 × 10–5 S cm–1 at a certain temperature. The
solution at 300 K is 1.29 mbar. The molar mass of dissociation constant of acetic acid is _______ ×
the protein is ___________ g mol–1 10–7. (Nearest integer)
Given : R = 0.083 L bar K–1mol–1 Consider limiting molar conductivity of
CH3COOH as 400 S cm2 mol–1
Official Ans. by NTA (40535)
Official Ans. by NTA (66)

Sol.  = CRT
k
n Sol. m   1000
  RT C
V
Given k = 5 × 10–5 S cm–1
 RT
 C = 0.0025 M
V M
5  10 5  103 5  10 2
RT m  
M 0.0025 2.5  10 3
V
= 20 S cm2 mol–1
0.63  0.083  300
M 20 1
1.29  10 3  300  10 3  
400 20
M = 40535 gm/moL
1 1
87. For a metal ion, the calculated magnetic moment is 0.0025  
C 2 20 20
Ka  
4.90 BM. This metal ion has __________ number 1 19
of unpaired electons. 20
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 0.0025
  6.6  10 6
19  20
= 66 × 10–7
Sol.   n(n  2)BM
4.90  n(n  2) 90. The number of incorrect statement/s from the
following is __________
n=4
n+1 A. The successive half lives of zero order reactions
88. 1.47×10 J
–17
decreases with time.
B. A substance appearing as reactant in the
chemical equation may not affect the rate of
n reaction
The electron in the n orbit of Li2+ is excited to
th
C. Order and molecularity of a chemical reaction
(n + 1) orbit using the radiation of energy can be a fractional number
1.47 × 10–17J (as shown in the diagram). The value D. The rate constant units of zero and second order
of n is _______ . reaction are mol L–1 s–1 and mol–1 Ls–1 respectively
Given RH = 2.18 × 10–18J Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
[A]0
Sol. (A) For zero order t1/ 2  as concentration
2K
 1 1 
Sol. E  R H Z 2  2  2  decreases half life decreases (Correct statement)
 n1 n2  (B) If order w.r.t. that reactant is zero then it will
 1 1  not affect rate of reaction. (Correct statement)
1.47  10 17  2.18  10 18  9  2   (C) Order can be fractional but molecularity can
n   
2
 n  1  not be (Incorrect statement)
1.47 3 1 1 (D) For zero order reaction unit is mol L–1s–1 and
  2 
1.96 4 n (n  1)2 for second order reaction unit is mol–1Ls–1 (Correct
So, n = 1 statement)
6