Test Booklet Code-B

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 26-JAN.-2025 Total Marks : 720 Time : 10:00 - 01:20 PM

PHYSICS : Alternating Current, Reflection (Mirror), Electrostatics and Capacitance,

Waves (String and Sound)
CHEMISTRY : 12th Organic Chemistry, Biomolecules (upto Saturday)
BOTANY : Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance
ZOOLOGY : Human Health & Diseases, Chemical Coordination & Integration

INSTRUCTION
1. The test is of 3 Hours 20 Minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in
each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to
135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to
150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen)
in each subject.
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, ONE Mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
03. An electric bulb and a capacitor are connected in
series with an AC source. On increasing the
Attempt All 35 Questions
frequency of the source, the brightness of the bulb :
  (1) increase
01. An AC voltage of V  220 2 sin 100 t   is
 2 (2) decreases
applied across a DC voltmeter, its reading will be : (3) remains unchanged
(1) 220 2V (4) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
(2) 2V
(3) 220 V 04. If the frequency of the source e.m.f in an AC circuit
(4) zero is n, the power varies with a frequency :
(1) n (2) 2n
02. The potential difference V across and the current I (3) n/2 (4) zero
flowing through an instrument in an AC circuit are
given by : 05. In an AC circuit, a resistance of R ohm is connected
V = 5 cos t volt in series with an inductance L. If phase angle
I = 2 sin t Amp. between voltage and current be 45°, the value of
The power dissipated in the instrument is : inductive reactance will be :
(1) zero (1) R/4
(2) 5 watt (2) R/2
(3) 10 watt (3) R
(4) 2.5 watt (4) cannot be found with the given data
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 1
Test Booklet Code- B
06. In the series LCR circuit as shown in figure, the 13. In an LCR series a.c. circuit, the voltage across each
voltmeter and ammeter readings are : of the components, L, C and R is 50V. The voltage
across the LC combination will be
(1) 100 V (2) 50 2
(3) 50V (4) 0 V
14. The phase difference between the alternating current
π
and emf is . Which of the following cannot be the
(1) V = 100 volt, I = 2 amp 2
(2) V = 100 volt, I = 5 amp constituent of the circuit?
(3) V = 1000 volt, I = 2 amp (1) R, L (2) C alone
(4) V = 300 volt, I = 1 amp (3) L alone (4) L, C
15. A plane mirror reflects a beam of light to form a real
07. A resistor R, an inductor L and a capacitor C are image. The incident beam is:
connected in series to an oscillator of frequency . If (1) parallel (2) convergent
the resonant frequency is r, then the current lags (3) divergent (4) any one of the above
behind voltage, when :
16. In a series CR circuit shown in figure, the applied
(1)  = 0 (2)  < r
voltage is 10V and the voltage across capacitor is
(3)  = r (4)  > r found to be 8V. Then the voltage across R, and the
phase difference between current and the applied
08. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to: voltage will respectively be
(1) Make it light weight 4
(2) Make it robust and strong (1) 6V, tan 1  
3
(3) Increase the secondary voltage 3
(4) Reduce the energy loss due to eddy current (2) 3V, tan1  4 
 5
09. In a step-up transformer the voltage in the primary is (3) 6V, tan1  3 
220 V and the current is 5A. The secondary voltage
is found to be 22000V. The current in the secondary (4) None
(neglect losses) is
(1) 5A (2) 50A 17. An AC current is given by I = I0 + I0 sin wt then its
rms value will be
(3) 500 A (4) 0.05A
2 2 2 2
(1) I0  0.5 I1 (2) I0  0.5I0
10. Figure shows the variation of im with  in a (3) 0 (4) I0 / 2
(1) RLC circuit
18. Statement-1: For series RLC network, power factor
of circuit in region (1) is leading and in region (2) is
(2) RL circuit lagging
Statement-2: Overall nature of circuit in region
(1) is inductive while in region (2) is capacitive
(3) RC circuit (When I leads V power factor is said to be leading)

(4) None of these

11. The power factor of an AC circuit having resistance

(R) and inductance (L) connected in series with an
angular frequency  is
(1) R /L (2) R/(R2+2L2)1/2 (1) Statement-1 is True, Stateemnt-2 is True;
(3) L/R (4) R/(R2  2L2)1/2 statement-2 is a correct explanation for
statement-1
12. A plane mirror makes an angle of 30° with (2) Statement-1 is True, Statemnt-2, is True;
horizontal. If a vertical ray strikes the mirror, find statement -2 is NOT a correct explanation for
the angle between mirror and reflected ray. statement-1
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(3) 60° (4) 90° (4) Statement-1 is False, statement-2 is True
2 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
19. The current I, potential difference VL across the 22. If charges q, q and –q are placed at vertices of an
inductor and potential difference VC across the equilateral triangle of side  . If F1, F2 and F3 are the
capacitor in circuit as shown in the figure are best forces on the charges respectively, then
represented vectorially as    kq 2
(1) | F1  F2  F3 |  3 2
   e
(2) | F1  F2  F3 |  0
   kq 2
(3) | F1  F2  F3 |  3 2 2
e
   kq 2
(4) | F1  F2  F3 |  2 2
e

(1) (2) 23. Find equivalent capacitance between point A & B.

(1) 4C (2) 5C
(3) (4) (3) 6C (4) 7C

24. A capacitor of capacitance 5F is charged to

potential 20V and then isolated. Now an uncharged
2 8 capacitor is connected in parallel to it. If the charge
20. In the figure shows R 100,L  H and C  μF distributes equally on those capacitors find total
π π energy stored in both capacitors.
are connected in series with an a.c. source of 200 (1) 200 J (2) 300 J
volt and frequency ‘f’. V1 and V2 are two hot-wire (3) 400 J (4) 500 J
voltmeters. If the readings of V1 and V2 are same
then which is wrong statement: 25. In the circuit shown, a potential difference of 60V is
applied across AB. The potential difference between
the point M and N is:

(1) f = 125 Hz (1) 10V (2) 15V

(2) f = 250  Hz (3) 20V (4) 30V
(3) Current through R is 2A
(4) V1 = V2 = 1000 volt 26. Determine the current through the battery in the
circuit shown, Immediately after the key K is closed.
21. Two identical positive charges are fixed on the
y-axis at equal distance from origin O. A particle
with a negative charge starts on x-axis at a large
distance from O its acceleration a is taken as
positive along its direction of motion. Variation of a
w.r.t x is:
(1) 1.5 A (2) 2A
(3) 1.7 A (4) 2.5 A
(1) (2) 27. A section of a circuit is shown in figure, potential
difference between the point A and B (i.e., VA – VB)
equals to 5V. The voltage across 2F capacitor is:

(3) (4)
(1) 5V (2) 7V
(3) 11V (4) 9V
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Test Booklet Code- B
28. An object of mass 1 kg contains 4 × 1020 atoms. If
one electron is removed from every atom of the
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
solid the charge gained by the solid of 1g is:
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these
(1) 2.3 C (2) 6.4 × 102 C
15 questions.
(3) 3.6 × 103 C (4) 9.2 × 104 C 36. The charge given to plates are as shown. The
capacitance between the plate is C. Find the
29. Electric field of a system of charges does not depend potential difference between plate 1 & 2.
on:
Q Q 3Q
(1) Position of charges forming the system
(2) Distance of point (at which field is observed)
(3) Value of test charge used
(4) Separation of charges forming the system

30. Two identical balls equally charged, density 1 2 3

16 kg/m3 suspended by string from common point (1)
3Q
(2)
Q
are in equilibrium the angle between strings is 2. If 2C 2C
whole system dip in liquid of density of 8 kg/m3 at Q 2Q
(3) (4)
equilibrium angle remain same dielectric constant of 3C 3C
liquid.
(1) 3 (2) 2 37. In the circuit shown, each capacitor has capacitance
(3) 4 (4) 8 C. The emf of the cell is E. If the switch S is closed
then:
31. Electric charges q, q, 2q are placed at the corners
of an equilaterial triangle ABC of side 1. The
magnitude of electric dipole moment of the
system is
(1) q1 (2) 3 q1
(3) 2q1 (4) 4q1

32. A hollow metallic sphere is charged. Inside the (1) Amount of charge flowing through cell will be
sphere 2CE
.
(1) the potential is zero but the electric field is finite 3
(2) the electric field is zero but the potential is finite (2) Amount of charge flowing through cell will be
(3) both electric field and potential are finite 2CE.
(4) both the electric field and potential are zero (3) Amount of charge flowing through cell will be
4CE
33. A non conducting sphere of radius R is charged .
3
uniformly. At what distance from its surface is the (4) None of these
electrostatic potential is half the potential at its
centre? 38. A capacitor has charge 50C. When the gap
(1) R (2) R/2 between the plates is filled with glass 70C charge
(3) R/3 (4) 2R flows through the battery. The dielectric constant of
glass is:
34. Two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 are at the (1) 3.4 (2) 1.4
same potential. The electric intensities on their (3) 2.4 (4) None of these
surfaces are in the ratio of
(1) 1 : 1 (2) R1 : R2 39. A 3F capacitor is charged as shown in the figure.
(3) R2 : R1 (4) R12 : R 22 The percentage of its stored energy dissipated after
the switch S is turned to position 2 is:
35. When a dielectric slab of thickness 4cm is
introduced between the plates of parallel plate
condenser, it is found the distance between the
plates has to be increased by 3cm to restore to
capacity to original value. The dielectric constant of
the slab is
(1) 1/4 (2) 4 (1) 40% (2) 70%
(3) 3 (4) 1 (3) 80% (4) 90%
4 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
40. Given below are two statements: one is labeled as 45. Two open organ pipes of fundamental frequencies n1
Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R). and n2 are joined in series. The fundamental
Assertion (A): If a charge is released from rest in an frequency of the new pipe so obtained will be:
electric field, it will always start to move along an (1) n1 + n2 (2) n1n2 / (n1+n2)
electric field line. (3) n1 n 2 (4) (n12  n 22 )
Reason (R) : Force on a charged particle is always
along the direction of electric field.
46. Two vibrating strings of the same material but
In the light of the above statements, choose the most lengths L and 2L have radii 2r and r respectively.
appropriate answer from the options given below: They are stretched under the same tension. Both the
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct strings vibrate in their fundamental modes, the one
explanation of (A) of length L with frequency n1 and the other with
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the frequency n2. The ratio n1/n2 is :
correct explanation of (A). (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) 8 (4) 1
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
47. A pipe closed at one end produces a fundamental
41. The equation for a wave propagating with a velocity note of 412 Hz. It is cut into two pieces of equal
of 330 m/s and having a frequency of 110 Hz and length the fundamental notes produced by the two
amplitude 0.05 m is : pieces are:
x (1) 824 Hz, 1648 Hz

(1) y  0.05 sin 2π 110t   (2) 412 Hz, 824 Hz
 3
(3) 206 Hz, 412 Hz
 x (4) 216 Hz, 824 Hz
(2) y  0.05sin 2π 110t  
 3
 x 48. A charged particle having some mass is resting in
(3) y  0.05sin 2π 110t  
 3 equilibrium at a height H above the centre of a
uniformly charged non-conducting horizontal ring of
(4) y = 0.05 sin [110t  330x]
radius R. The force of gravity acts downwards. The
equilibrium of the particle will be stable
42. The tension, length, diameter and density of a string (1) For all value of H
B are double than that of another siring A. Which of
R
the following overtones of B is same as the (2) If H  only
2
fundamental frequency of A?
R
(1) 1st (2) 2nd (3) If H  only
(3) 3rd (4) 4th 2
R
(4) If H  only
43. A wave y = a sin(t  kx) on a string meets with 2
another wave producing a node at x = 0. Then the
equation of the unknown wave is: 49. Three concentric conducting spherical shells carry
(1) y = a sin (t +kx) charges as follows: +4Q on the inner shell, 2Q on
(2) y =  a sin(t + kx) the middle shell and  5Q on the outer shell. The
(3) y = a sin(t  kx) charge on the inner surface of the outer shell is:
(1) 0 (2) 4Q
(4) y =  a sin(tkx)
(3) Q (4) 2Q

44. Two string X and Y of a sitar produce a beat 50. A charge q is uniformly distributed over a large
frequency 4 bps. When the tension ot the string Y is plastic plate. The electric field at a point P close to
slightly increased the beat frequency is found to be 2 the centre and just above the surface of the plate is
bps. If the frequency of X is 300Hz, then the 50 V/m. If the plastic plate is replaced by a copper
original frequency of Y was: plate of the same geometrical dimensions and
(1) 296 Hz carrying the same uniform charge q, the electric
(2) 298 Hz field at the point P will become:
(3) 302 Hz (1) zero (2) 25 V/m
(4) 304 Hz (3) 50 V/m (4) 100 V/m
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Test Booklet Code- B
58. All the following undergo friedal crafts alkylation
except
Attempt All 35 Questions
51. Which one of the following produces a secondary
alcohol?
(1) Acetone + RMgX / H2O (1) (2)
(2) Acetaldehyde + RMgX /H2O
(3) Formaldehyde + RMgX / H2O
(4) Hydrogen cyanide + RMgX / H2O

KMnO4 / H
52. X   Carboxylic acid + Ketone. ‘X’ is


(1) Propene (2) 2-methyl-2-butene
(3) (4)
(3) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene (4) 4-methyl-2-penteen

53. Total isomers with the molecular formula C4H11N is

(1) 4 (2) 5 59. Correct statements among the following are
(3) 8 (4) 3 I: All monosaccharides whether aldoses or ketoses
are reducing sugars.
54. Assertion (A): Phenols give O-and P- nitrophenol II: Glucose also gives Schiff’s test and it forms a
on nitration with conc. HNO3 and H2SO4 mixture hydrogensulphite addition product.
Reason (R) : OH group in phenol is O-,P- directing III. Fructose is a dextro rotatory compound.
(1) A is false but R is true IV. Rhamnose is a monosaccharide
(2) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (1) I, II, III and IV
explanation of A
(2) II, III and IV only
(3) Both A and R are true, and R is NOT the correct
(3) I, III and IV only
explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false (4) I, IV only

55. Which of the following compound gives Tollen’s 60. Which of the following will not give SN1 reaction?
test but does not give haloform test ?
O O
|| || (1) CH2 = CH  CH2  Cl (2)
(1) CH  C  H (2) CH  C  CH
3 3 3

O
CH 3
||
(3) H  C  H (4) |
(3) CH3  CH = CH  Cl (4) CH3  C  Cl
|
56. A = CH3NH2, B = (CH3)2NH, CH 3
 
C  (CH 3 )3 N,D  NH 3
61. A compound ‘X’ is acidic and it is soluble in NaOH
Correct basic strength in aqueous solution is solution but does not react with NaHCO3 solution.
(1) D > A > B > C (2) B > A > C > D
Compound X also gives violet colour with neutral
(3) B > D > C > A (4) C > B > D > A
FeCl3 solution. The compound ‘X’ is
57.

(1) (2)

The mechanism involved in the formation of

compounds ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively
(1) Free radical substitution ; Free radical addition
(2) Free radical addition ; Electrophilic addition
(3) Electrophilic addition ; Free radical addition (3) (4)
(4) Free radical substitution; Free radical
substitution
6 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
62. Cannizzaro’s reaction is not given by ……. . 69. Match column-I with Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) ArN 2 Cl   ArOH (p) HBF4/NaNO2
(1) (2)
(B) ArN 2 Cl   ArNO 2 (q) H2O
(C) ArN 2 Cl 
 ArH (r) HBF4
(3) HCHO (4) CH3CHO
(D) ArN 2 Cl 
 ArF (s) CH3CH2OH
63. A new carbon - carbon bond is formed in
(1) A  (q), B  (p), C  (s), D – (r)
(I) Aldol condensation
(II) Kolbe’s reaction (2) A  (s), B  (p), C  (q), D – (r)
(III) Reimer – Tiemann reaction (3) A  (q), B  (s), C  (p), D – (r)
(IV) Wurtz Fittig reaction (4) A  (q), B  (s), C  (r), D – (p)
(1) I, III
(2) II, III 70. The correct order of the following compounds
(3) I, III, IV showing increasing tendency towards nucleophilic
(4) All the four substitution reaction is:

64.

(1) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)

Consider the given reaction, precentage yield of: (2) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)
(1) C > B > A (3) (iv) < (i) < (iii) < (ii)
(2) C > A > B (4) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
(3) B > C > A
(4) A > C > B
71. Which of the following is used in free extinguishers
HNO (1) CH4
65. In the reaction, RNH 2   ROH  H 2 O  A  ; A is
2

(2) CHCl3
(1) NH3 (2) N2 (3) CH2Cl2
(3) O2 (4) CO2 (4) CCl4
66. Which of the following amine will give the
72. In the following reaction:
carbylamines test?

(1) (2)

The compounds A and B respectively are:

(3) (4) (1) (2)

, CH3COOH

67. Which of the following is not a primary amine?

(1) tert-Butylamine
(2) sec-Butylamine
(3) (4)
(3) iso-Butylamine
(4) Dimethylamine

68. Which of the following carbohydrate does not 73. The major product of the reaction between tert-butyl
correspond to the general formula Cx(H2O)y? chloride and sodium ethoxide is
(1) Glucose (1) 2-methylprop-1-ene
(2) 2-Deoxyribose (2) 1-butene
(3) Fructose (3) 2-butene
(4) Arabinose (4) ethane
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Test Booklet Code- B
74. Given below are two statements: 79. The best method for the conversion of an alcohol
Statement I: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of (1) PCl5
their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl2, known as (2) dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Lucas Reagent. (3) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
Statement II: Primary alcohols are most reactive (4) none of these
and immediately produce turbidity at room
temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent. 80. Mg reacts with R-Br best in
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (1) C2H5OC2H5
appropriate answer from the options given below: (2) C6H5OCH3
(3) C6H5N(CH3)2
(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4) Equally in all the three
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct 81. Ethanol and dimethyl ether form a pair of functional
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct. isomers. The boiling point of ethanol is higher than
that of dimethyl ether, due to the presence of
75. A compound does not react with 2,4 - dinitro phenyl- (1) H-bonding in ethanol
hydrazine, the compound is: (2) H-bonding in dimethyl ether
(1) Acetone (2) Acetaldehdye (3) CH3 group in ethanol
(3) CH3OH (4) CH3CH2COCH3 (4) CH3 group in dimethyl ether

76. Arrange the following in correct order of rate of 82. The reaction
CHO
N. A. R (nucleophilic addition reaction)
AlCl 3
 CO  HCl  
(A) HCHO (B) CH3CHO
(1) Rosenmund’s reaction
(2) Stephen’s reaction
(3) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(C) (D) (4) Gatterman-Koch reaction

83. Choose correct statement about cannizaro and cross

cannizaro reaction
(1) A > B > C > D (i) Both are the examples of disproportionation
(2) A > C > B > D (ii) Both are the examples of redox
(3) D > C > B > A (iii)Disproportionation occurs only in Cannizaro
(4) C > A > B > D (iv) Both occurs in strongly alkaline medium
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
77. Which of the following cannot be oxidised to give
carboxylic acid? 84. Identify the compound that will react with
Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid which dissolves in
alkali.
(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(3) (4) 85. The major product of the following reaction is:

78. Which of the following represents the correct order

of the acidity in the given compounds ?
(1) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH >
ClCH2COOH (1) (2)
(2) BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH >
CH3COOH
(3) FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH >
CH3COOH
(4) CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > (3) (4)
FCH2COOH
8 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B

(CH 3 )2 Cd
90. CH COCl 
3 A
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these
15 questions.
86. Statement I : The geometry of amines is pyramidal.
Statement II : The angle C  N  C or C  N  H is
slightly more than 109.5°.
(1) Both statement I and II are correct
A, B are respectively,
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(1) CH3COCH3, CH3CHO
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) CH3COCH2CH3, CH3CHO
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect (3) CH3COCH3, CH3CH2OH
(4) CH3CH2COCH3, CH3CH2OH
87. Orange Azo dye is prepared by the coupling of
phenol and
(1) benzene diazonium chloride
(2) o-nitroaniline
(3) benzoic acid 91. , ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are
(4) chlorobenzene

88.
Reducing agent Reaction
(I) LiAlH4 (A) CO  CH2  CN  (1)
CO  CH2  CHO
(II) NaBH4 (B)  NO2  NH2
(III) DIBAL  H (C)  COOH   CH2OH
(2)
(IV) Sn + HCl (D)  CO  CH2  COOR 
 CHOH  CH2  COOR
Correct match is
I II III IV
(3)
(1) D C A B
(2) C A D B
(3) C D A B
(4) D A B C
(4)

89. , The correct sequence of

92.

reagents required for the above conversion is The compound ‘C’ is

A B C D
(1) (2)
(1) H2/Pt Br2/H2O NaNO2 + H2O
HCl/ 283 K
(2) Sn/HCl Br2/H2O NaNO2 + H3PO2
HCl / 278K +H2O
(3) Fe+HCl HBr HNO2/273K C2H5OH
+ H2O (3) (4)
(4) Zn/HCl Br2+KOH HNO2/278K H3PO3
+H2O

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 9

Test Booklet Code- B
93. Consider the given chemical reaction. 96. Gabriel’s phthalimide synthesis is used for the
preparation of
(1) Primary aromatic amines
(2) Secondary amines
(3) Primary aliphatic amines
(4) Tertiary amines

Identify the product P.

97. What is ‘A’ in the following reaction?

(1) (2)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(3) (4)

94. Addition of water to alkynes occurs in acidic 98. Which is the most suitable reagent for the following
medium and in the presence of Hg2+ ions as a transformation?
catalyst. Which of the following products will be OH
formed on addition of water to but -1-yne under |
these conditions? CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH  CH3 
O CH3  CH = CH  CH2CO2H
|| (1) Tollen’s reagent (2) I2/NaOH
(1) CH3  CH 2  CH 2  C  H (3) CrO2Cl2/CS2 (4) Alkaline KMnO4

O 99. Denaturation of alcohol is the

|| (1) Mixing of CuSO4 (a foul smelling solid) and
(2) CH3  CH 2  C  CH 3 pyridine (to give the colour) to make the
commercial alcohol unfit for drinking
O (2) Mixing of CuSO4 (to give the colour) and
||
(3) CH3  CH 2  C  OH  CO2 pyridine (a foul smelling solid) to make the
commercial alcohol unfit for drinking
(3) Mixing of Cu(OAc)2 and ammonia to make the
O O
commercial alcohol unfit for drinking
|| ||
(4) CH3  C  OH  H  C  H (4) Mixing of Cu(OAc)2 and pyridine to make the
commercial alcohol unfit for drinking

95. Which of the following reactions will not give a

100. The yield of ester in esterification can be increased by
primary amine?
Br / KOH CH3CH2OH+CH3COOH  CH3COOCH2CH3+H2O
(1) CH 3 CONH 2  2

LiAlH4
(1) Removing water
(2) CH3 CN  
(2) Taking ethanol in excess
LiAlH4
(3) CH3 NC   (3) Taking acetic acid in excess
LiAlH
(4) CH3 CONH 2   4
(4) All the above factors
10 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
106. A male with blood group type A and normal vision
marries a female who also has blood group type A
Attempt All 35 Questions
and normal vision. The couple's first child is a male
101. Which of the following statements are correct about who is colorblind and has O blood group. What is
Klinefelter's Syndrome? the probability that their next female child has
A. This disorder was first described by Langdon normal vision and O blood group ?
Down(1866). 1 3
B. Such an individual has overall masculine (1) (2)
4 4
development. However, the feminine
1
development is also expressed. (3) (4) 1
C. The affected individual is short statured. 8
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development
is retarded. 107. How many different types of phenotypes will appear
E. Such individuals are sterile. in progeny of drosophilas obtained by following
(1) A and E only (2) A and B only cross:
(3) C and D only (4) B and E only

102. Which one of the following symbols represents

mating between relatives in human pedigree (1) 4 phenotypes in ♂ and ♀ progenies
analysis? (2) 2 phenotypes in ♂ and ♀ progenies
(3) 1 phenotypes in ♂ and ♀ 4 in progenies
(1) (2) (4) 1 phenotypes in ♀ and ♂ 4 in progenies

108. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols

(3) (4) represent the affected individuals. Identify the
disease which is represented by given pedigree.
(1) Sickel cell anaemia
103. Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged
DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins (2) Myotonic dystrophy
in a region called nucleoid.
Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged (3) Haemophilia
DNA is wrapped around the positively charged
histone octamer to form nucleosome. (4) Phenyl ketonuria
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 109. A female is carrier for both albinism and colour
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. blindness. She marries a man who is carrier for
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. albinism but colourblind. What percentage of her
daughter will be albino and coloublind
104. Match List I with List II (Note – Albinism is autosomal recessive) :
List I List II (1) 50% (2) 25%
A. Gene ‘a’ I. (3) 12.5% (4) 37.5%
-galactosidase
B. Gene ‘y’ II. Transacetylase 110. The inheritance of two genetic diseases namely
C. Gene ‘i’ III. Permease phenylketonuria and haemophilia are to be studied
D. Gene ‘z’ IV. Repressor protein in two different individuals. Both these studies will
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: involve the use of :
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (1) Autosomes (2) Sex chromosomes
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (3) Restriction endonuclease (4) Pedigree analysis
105. Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the left
111. For chromosomal map, which of the following
end represented by first amino acid (C-terminal) and
option is not correct?
the right end represented by last amino acid
(1) It shows the position of genes on a chromosome
(N-terminal). (2) The distance between the non-allelic genes
Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin, consists
located on same chromosome is directly
of 4 subunits (two subunits of α- type and two
proportional to recombination frequency
subunits of β-type.) (3) Today genetic maps are extensively used as a
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
starting point in the sequencing of whole
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
genomes as was done in HGP.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Map is used to calculate the distance between
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
allelic genes
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 11
Test Booklet Code- B
112. In pea plant gene of seed shape shows : 119. All reference point while defining a transcription
(a) Dominance unit is made with
(b) Incomplete dominance (1) Coding strand (2) Non-coding strand
(c) Pleiotrophy (3) Non-sense strand (4) Template strand
(d) Multiple allele
(e) Polygenic inheritance 120. Poly A tail present at the 3′ end of transcript is
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (1) Composed of 200-300 adenylate residues
(2) Synthesized in template dependent manner
(3) (b), (c), (d) and (e) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) Catalyzed by guanyl transferase
(4) Mainly seen in prokaryotes
113. In independent assortment, what actually assort
independently? 121. How many amino acids will be there in peptide
(1) Allelic genes translated from the following transcript?
(2) Homologous chromosomes 5′ AUG AUU AUG UAG AAA UGA 3′
(3) Contrasting traits (1) 5 (2) 6
(4) Non-homologous chromosomes (3) 4 (4) 3

114. Given pedigree show inheritance of myotonic 122. In lac operon, repressor protein
dystrophy : (1) Bind to the lac i site
(2) Bind to operator region of operon
(3) Positively regulate the lac operon
(4) Bind to lac z gene

123. The actual structure of tRNA is a compact molecule

which looks like
(1) A clover leaf (2) A spiral staircase
(3) Linear straight line (4) Inverted L shaped
What will be the genotype of all shaded symbols:
(1) AA or Aa (2) AA 124. In prokaryotes the predominant site for the control
(3) Aa (4) aa of gene expression is at
(1) Regulation of splicing
115. Select incorrect statement for ABO blood group. (2) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to the
(1) It is determined by three alleles present in a cytoplasm
population of human (3) Translational level
(4) Control of rate of transcriptional initiation
(2) It has four phenotype and six genotype
(3) It shows codominance, if genotype is IAIB
125. In a typical nucleus, euchromatin region is said to be
(4) Each individual has three alleles but its gamete (1) Densely packed
contain only one allele. (2) Transcriptionally active
(3) Darkly stained
116. Which of the following is not an autosomal (4) Transcriptionally inactive
recessive disease?
(1) Alkaptonuria (2) Sickle cell anaemia 126. Which of the following is not true about the HGP?
(3) PKU (4) Haemophilia (1) The HGP was a 13-year project
(2) It was coordinated by U.S. Department of Energy
117. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t DNA replication. and the National Institute of Health
(1) dNTPs Provides the energy (3) Project was completed in 2006
for polymerization (4) ESTs was one of the approach which was used
(2) DNA ligase Join the discontinuous for sequencing in HGP
fragments of lagging
127. Chromosome 1 of human has __A__ genes and the
strand
Y has the __B__ genes respectively.
(3) DNA replication Occurs in S phase of Fill in the blanks for A and B
cell cycle in (1) 2968, 231 (2) 1000, 200
eukaryotes (3) 230, 3000 (4) 200, 1000
(4) DNA polymerase - I RNA dependent DNA
polymerase 128. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t DNA content
(1)  × 174 - 5386 nucleotides
118. Rho factor is a protein in bacteria which is Bacteriophage
(2) - 48502 base pairs
responsible for lambda
(1) Initiation of DNA replication (3) E.coli - 2.5 ×103 bp
(2) Termination of transcription Human DNA
(3) DNA synthesis (4) (Haploid - 3.3 × 109 bp
(4) Protein synthesis content)
12 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
129. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t genetic code.
(1) UAA – Stop codon
(2) AUG –Start codon in prokaryotes This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
(3) UGA –Stop codon choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these
(4) AUU–Start codon in eukaryotes 15 questions.

130. Statement A: After the completion of replication, 136. In Drosophila, COV (cross over value) between
each DNA molecule would have one parental and gene for yellow body and white eye is 1.3%, then
one newly synthesised strand. probable COV between yellow body and red eye
Statement B: DNA replicates semi conservatively allele would be :
(1) 98.7% (2) 1.3%
in E.coli and conservatively in human.
(3) 37.2% (4) 50%
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Only statement A is correct 137. What is the sequence of genes on chromosome if
(3) Only statement B is correct frequency of crossing over between A–B is 20%,
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect A–C is 15%, B–C is 5%, A–D is 10% and B–D is
30% ?
131. Which of the following is not true for translation in (1) A B C D (2) C B D A
prokaryotes ? (3) D A C B (4) D A B C
(1) When the small subunit encounters an mRNA, 138. A plant of genotype AaBb is selfed. The two genes
the process of translation of the mRNA to protein are linked and are 50 cm apart. What proportion of
begins the progeny will have the genotype aabb ?
(2) There are four sites in large subunit of ribosome 1 1
for incoming tRNA (1) (2)
(3) Ribozyme catalyzes the formation of peptide 2 4
bond 1 1
(3) (4)
(4) UTRs are required for efficient translation 8 16
139. If a quantitative character is influenced by 4 genes.
132. A molecule which performs dynamic functions of Then calculate :
messenger and adapter and is also found in some P – Number of phenotypic categories in F2 generation
viruses as main genetic material has Q – Number of non-parental phenotypes in F2
(1) Deoxyribose sugar (1) P-9, Q-1/16 (2) P-16, Q-2/256
(2) Thymine (3) P-256, Q-1/32 (4) P-9, Q-254/256
(3) 2′OH group in their sugar
(4) More stable structure and shows no mutation 140. A plant is heterozygous for two loci is test crossed
and produces only two types of phenotypes in
133. Which of the following statement show similarity offsprings. It is possible when :
(1) Both genes are completely linked
between chromosome and gene
(2) Both genes are incompletely linked
(1) Occur in pair (3) Both genes are independently assorting
(2) One pair segregates independently of another pair (4) Both genes are located on two different
(3) Segregate at the time of gamete formation chromosomes
(4) Both (1) and (3)
141. Sickle cell anaemia is example of :
134. Which of the following step is not a basic step of (i) Mendelian disorder
DNA finger printing ? (ii) Genetic disorder
(iii) Chromosomal disorder
(1) Isolation of DNA
(iv) Inborn error of metabolism
(2) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe (v) Point mutation
(3) Separation of DNA Fragments by electrophoresis (vi) Frame shift mutation
(4) Polymerase Chain reaction (vii) Base-substitution
(viii) Transition
135. Match the following column II (ix) Transversion
Column I Column II (x) Autosomal disorder
I mRNA (A) tRNA (xi) Sex-linked disorder
II Anticodon (B) Codon (xii) Qualitative defect
(xiii) Quantitative defect
III Semiconservative (C) Transformation
(xiv) Recessive disorder
mode of DNA (1) ii, iii, iv, viii, xi, xiii
replication (2) i, iv, v, vi, ix, x, xii
IV Griffith (D) Meselson & Stahl (3) i, ii, v, vii, ix, x, xii, xiv
The correct match is (4) i, ii, v, vii, viii, x, xii, xiv
(1) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C 142. Which of following blood group is only possible in
(2) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C homozygous condition?
(3) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B (1) A+ (2) AB–
–
(4) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C (3) B (4) O–
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 13
Test Booklet Code- B
143. What is the genotype of II (3) :
Attempt All 35 Questions
151. The following figure shows the chemical structure
of

(1) AA (2) aa
(3) x°y (4) Aa

144. The transfer of a genes from one linkage group to

another linkage group is called : (1) Morphine (2) Cocaine
(1) Crossing over (2) Inversion (3) Charas (4) LSD
(3) Duplication (4) Translocation
152. Statement I: HIV spreads only through body fluids
145. Match the column I with column II : contact
Column-I Column-II Statement II: Time lag between infection and the
(i) Adapter RNA (a) Sn-RNA appearance of AIDS symptoms in an HIV-infected
(ii) Catalytic RNA (b) m-RNA person is usually few months to many years.
(iii) RNA Help in splicing (c) r-RNA (1) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(iv) Template RNA for (d) t-RNA (2) Statement II is correct and statement I is incorrect.
protein synthesis (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(1) (i) → d, (ii) → c, (iii) → a, (iv) → b (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(2) (i) → c, (ii) → d, (iii) → b, (iv) → a
(3) (i) → d, (ii) → c, (iii) → b, (iv) → a 153. Which one of the following is not a property of
(4) (i) → b, (ii) → a, (iii) → d, (iv) → c cancerous cells, whereas the remaining three are?
(1) They compete with normal cells for vital
146. Which of the following statement is incorrect? nutrients
(1) The Formation of peptide bond between amino (2) They do not remain confined in the area of
acid would be favoured energetically formation
(2) Cellular factory responsible for synthesis of (3) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
protein is the m-RNA (4) They show contact inhibition
(3) A release factor binds to the stop codon and
terminating translation 154. A drug after administration causes depression and
(4) The ribosome consists of structural RNAs and slows down body functions. The receptors for this
about 80 different protein drug are present in the
(1) CNS and GIT
147. Polymorphism ( variation at genetic level) arises due to : (2) Brain
(1) Replication (2) Mutation (3) Caradiovascular system
(3) Fertilization (4) Hybridization (4) Spinal cord

148. Select the incorrect statement : 155. AIDS can be transmitted by

(1) Both nucleic acid (DNA and RNA) have the (1) sexual contact with the infected person
ability to direct their duplication (2) infected mother to her child through the placenta
(2) RNA is labile and easily degradable (3) transfusion of HIV-infected blood
(3) Presence of uracil at the place of thymine (4) all of these
provide additional stability to DNA
(4) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate 156. Identify the WRONG statement.
(1) HIV replicates in TH lymphocytes.
149. In which of the following will DNA melt at the (2) HIV has RNA as its genetic material.
lowest temperature ? (3) Anti-retroviral drugs are only partially effective
(1) 5' –AATAAAGC–3' 3' –TTATTTCG–5' for AIDS treatment.
(2) 5' –AATGCTGC–3' 3' –TTACGACG–5' (4) AIDS is an infectious and congenital disease
(3) 5' –ATGCTGAT–3' 3' –TACGACTA–5'
(4) 5' –GCATAGCT–3' 3' –CGTATCGA–5' 157. Select the correct statement from the ones given
below
150. Find out the correct options: (1) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them
1. An amino acid may have more than one codon tell the truth
2. All amino acids have more than one codon (2) Morphine is often given to person who have
3. Codons are comon for higher and lower under gone surgery as a pain killer
organisms (3) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and
4. Codons are not found in bacteria heart rate
(1) 1,2,3 correct (2) 1,2 correct (4) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it
(3) 2,4 correct (4) 1,3 correct stimulates recovery
14 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
158. Metastasis is 167. Which of the following is not a function of thymosin
(1) Rapid division in cancer cells (1) Promote antibody production
(2) Regeneration of cancer cells (2) Help in cell mediated & Humoral immunity
(3) Spread of cancer cells of new sites (3) Help in differentiation of T – cells
(4) All of the above (4) Controls sleep – wake cycle

159. Match the following column: 168. Match the following

List – I List – II
Column-I Column-II
A) Hypo calcemic I) Insulin
a. Morphine 1. Affects cardiovascular system
hormone
b. Cocaine 2. Sedative and painkiller B) Hypo glycemic II) Parath
c. Charas 3. Depressant hormone hormone
d. Heroin 4. Euphoria C) Hyper calcemic III) Glucagon
(1) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 (2) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2 hormone
(3) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 (4) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 D) Hyper glycemic IV) Calcitonin
hormone
160. The side-effect of use of anabolic steroids in males (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
do not include (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(1) Increased aggressiveness (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2) Mood swings (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) Liver dysfunction
(4) Excess hair growth on face and body 169. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t to
catecholamines
(1) They are emergency hormones
161. HIV generating factories are
(2) They are secreted by Adrenal cortex
(1) B-lymphocytes (2) NK cells
(3) They causes hyper glycemia
(3) Neutrophils (4) Macrophages (4) They are called fright (or) flight hormones
hormones
162. Which of the following drugs are normally used as
medicines to help patients cope with mental illnesses 170. Erythropoietin is secreted by
like depression and insomnia? (1) Atrial wall (2) Zona reticularis
a. Barbiturates b. Amphetamines (3) Juxtaglomerular cells (4) Corpus luteum
c. Benzodiazepins d. Alcohol
(1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d 171. Identify the mismatch
(3) a, c and d (4) a, b, c and d (1) Diabetes Insipidus - ADH
(2) Grave’s disease - Thyroxine
163. Which of the following interferes with the transport (3) Addisons disease - Cortisol
of the neuro-transmitter dopamine? (4) Acromegaly - Calcitonin
(1) Cocaine (2) Cannabinoids
(3) Opioids (4) All of the above 172. Identify the mismatch
(1) Thyroid - Either side of trachea
164. Which of the following substances are misused by (2) Parathyroid - Dorsal to thyroid
certain sportspersons to enhance their performance? (3) Thymus - Ventral to sternum
(1) Narcotic analgesics (4) Pitutary - Ventral to Diencephalon
(2) Anabolic steroids
(3) Diuretics and certain hormones 173. Androgens are secreted by
(4) All of the above (1) Leydig cells of testes
(2) Zona reticularis of Adrenal cortex
(3) Adrenal medulla
165. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually
(4) Both (1) and (2)
shows symptoms of AIDS?
(1) When viral DNA is produced by reverse
174. Mosquitoes are not involved in the spread of disease
transcriptase
caused by?
(2) When HIV replicates rapidly in help (1) Entamoeba histolytica (2) Chikungunya virus
T-lymphocytes and damages a large number of (3) Wuchereria malayi (4) Dengue virus
these
(3) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected 175. Which is necessary for achieving good health?
person (a) Awareness about diseases
(4) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells (b) Proper disposal of wastes
(c) Control of vectors
166. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of (d) Maintenance of hygienic food and water
(1) Opium (2) Alcohol (1) a (2) a & c
(3) Tobacco (chewing) (4) All of these (3) b & c (4) a, b, c & d
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 15
Test Booklet Code- B
176. Find out the incorrect matching with regards to
innate immunity :
(1) Physical barriers = Skin, mucosa This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
(2) Cytokine barriers = Interferons choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these
(3) Cellular barriers = PMNL, neutrophils 15 questions.
(4) Physiological barriers = Epithelial lining
186. Assertion (A): More and more children in metro
177. Anti Tetanus Serum (ATS) provides : cities of India suffer from allergies and asthma due
(1) Natural active innate immunity to sensitivity to the environment
(2) Natural passive innate immunity Reason (R): The protected environment is provided
(3) Artificial active acquired immunity in early life
(4) Artificial passive acquired immunity (1) If both the A and the R are true and the R is a
correct explanation of A
178. AIDS don't spread due to :
(1) More touch (2) Physical contact (2) If both the A and R are true but the R is not a
(3) Body fluids (4) Both (1) and (2) correct explanation of the A
(3) If the A is true but the R is false
179. In full blown AIDS, opportunistic infections are (4) If both the A and R are false
especially caused by :
(1) Mycobacterium (2) Toxoplasma 187. Which of the following is a symptom of dengue?
(3) Viruses and fungi (4) All of the above (1) Fever
(2) Rash
180. Infective stage of plasmodium for humans resides in
which region of the vector? (3) Sever muscle and joint pains
(1) Midgut (2) Salivaryglands (4) All of the above
(3) Liver (4) R.B.C
188. Find the odd one out with regards to secondary
181. Most of cancers are treated by combination of: immune response :
(a) Surgery (b) Radiotherapy (1) Booster
(c) Chemotherapy (d) Immunotherapy (2) Anamnestic
(1) a, b and d (2) a and c (3) Low intensified
(3) b and c (4) a, b and c (4) Develops after subsequent contact of same
antigen
182. Which type of radiations can cause DNA damage
leading to neoplastic transformation ?
(a) Ionising radiations 189. Which is a safe technique to detect cancer ?
(b) X-rays (1) Radiography
(c) Non-ionising radiations (2) CT (Computed tomography) Scanning
(d) UV-rays (3) MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
(1) a and c (2) c and d (4) Biopsy
(3) a and b (4) a, b, c and d
190. Cancer detection is based on:
183. The drugs, which are commonly abused are opioid,
cannabinoids and coca alkaloid. Majority of these (a) Biopsy
are obtained from........., while some are obtained (b) Histopathological study of tissues
from ......... (c) Blood test
(1) Fungi, non-flowering plants (d) Bone marrow test
(2) Flowering plants, fungi (1) a, b
(3) Fungi, flowering plants (2) a, c & d
(4) Non flowering plants, fungi (3) a, b & c
(4) a, b, c & d
184. Withdrawal syndrome is characterised by:
(a) Anxiety (b) Shakiness
(c) Nausea (d) Sweating 191. The period between.......of age may be thought of as
(1) a, c (2) b, c adolescence period
(3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c and d (1) 18-21 yrs.
(2) 12-21 yrs.
185. Which measure would be particularly useful for (3) 12-18 yrs.
prevention and control of alcohol and drug abuse (4) 18-25 yrs
among adolescents?
(a) Avoid undue peer pressure 192. If in a patients body interferons are present, then the
(b) Seeking professional and medical help
patient is most likely suffering from
(c) Looking for danger sign
(d) Education and counselling (1) Typhoid
(e) Seeking help from parents and peers (2) Pneumonia
(1) a, b, d (2) a, c, d, e (3) Chikungunya
(3) c, e (4) a, b, c, d, e (4) Diptheria
16 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
193. Recognise the figure and find out the correct 197. Read the given statements and choose the correct
matching option.
Statement (A) : Low levels of estrogen and high
levels of parathyroid hormone play a significant role
in osteoporosis.
Statement (B) : A health disorder which is
characterized by low metabolic rate, increase in
body weight and stunted growth is Grave’s disease.
(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
(1) ‘a’ produces depressant while ‘b’ influences
cardiovascular system 198. Structure ‘X’ produces a releasing hormone which
(2) Receptors of ‘a’ are present in CNS and GIT acts on ‘Y’ that produces a protein hormone that
while receptors for ‘b’ are present principally in targets Z. Z releases a steroid hormone which
brain supports pregnancy. Identify X, Y and Z.
(3) ‘a’ produces smack while ‘b’ produces charas
X Y Z
(4) All of the above
(1) Hypothalamus Adrenal gland Testis
194. Assertion (A): Hypersecretion of growth hormone (2) Hypothalamus Anterior Ovary
in adults does not cause any further increase in pituitary
height. (3) Hypothalamus Posterior Ovary
Reason (R): Bones lose their sensitivity to growth pituitary
hormone in adults. (4) Pituitary Ovary Corpus
In the light of above statements, select the correct gland luteum
option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 199. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the
explanation of (A) correct option.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the Column I Column II
correct explanation of (A) (a) Hypersecretion (i) Growth of mammary
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false of GH in glanda and synthesis
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
middle age of milk
(b) Prolactin (ii) Spermatogenesis
195. Read the given statements.
(A)Chordates possess very simple endocrine (c) FSH and (iii) Ovulation
system with few hormones whereas a large androgens
number of chemicals act as hormones and (d) LH (iv) Acromegaly
provide coordination in the invertebrates. (v) Gigantism
(B) Neural and endocrine system jointly coordinate (1) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d(i)
and integrate all activities of the organs involved. (2) a (v), b (i), c (ii), d(iii)
(C) Hypothalamus contains several groups of (3) a (iv), (b) (i), c (ii), d (iii)
neurosecretory cells called nuclei which produce (4) a (v), (b) (iii), c (ii), d (i)
hormones.
(D)Estrogen and progesterone stimulate gonadal 200. Observe the given figure
activity and hence are called gonadotropins.
Choose the option that correctly identifies each
statement as true (T) or false (F).
(1) A-F, B-T, C-T, D-F (2) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-F
(3) A-F, B-T, C-T, D-T (4) A-F, B-F, C-F, D-F

196. Match column I with column II w.r.t. chemical

nature of hormones.
Column I Column II
a. Glucagon (i) Steroid
b. IP3 (ii) Iodinated amine
Choose the incorrect option w.r.t it.
c. Cortisol (iii) Secondary messenger
(1) It represents the dorsal view of thyroid gland
d. Thyroxine (iv) Peptide
(2) Thyroid gland is composed of two lobes
Select the correct option.
(3) Lobes are interconnected with a thin flap of
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) connective tissue called isthmus
(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i) (4) Each thyroid follicle is composed of follicular
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii) cells enclosing a cavity
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 17
 Test Booklet Code-B
***** Space for Rough Work *****

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 18

 Test Booklet Code-B

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 26-JAN.-2025 Total Marks : 720 Time : 10:00 - 01:20 AM

ANSWER KEY
Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A
01 4 26 4 51 2 76 1 101 4 126 3 151 1 176 4
02 1 27 4 52 2 77 4 102 3 127 1 152 3 177 4
03 1 28 2 53 3 78 3 103 1 128 3 153 4 178 4
04 2 29 3 54 1 79 3 104 3 129 4 154 1 179 4
05 3 30 2 55 3 80 1 105 1 130 2 155 4 180 2
06 1 31 2 56 2 81 1 106 1 131 2 156 4 181 4
07 4 32 2 57 3 82 4 107 4 132 3 157 2 182 2
08 4 33 3 58 4 83 4 108 2 133 4 158 3 183 2
09 4 34 3 59 4 84 4 109 3 134 4 159 3 184 4
10 1 35 2 60 3 85 2 110 4 135 2 160 4 185 4
11 2 36 2 61 2 86 2 111 4 136 2 161 4 186 1
12 3 37 3 62 4 87 1 112 2 137 3 162 1 187 4
13 4 38 3 63 4 88 3 113 4 138 4 163 1 188 3
14 1 39 2 64 1 89 2 114 3 139 4 164 4 189 3
15 2 40 1 65 2 90 1 115 4 140 1 165 2 190 4
16 1 41 3 66 4 91 1 116 4 141 3 166 2 191 3
17 2 42 3 67 4 92 4 117 4 142 4 167 4 192 3
18 3 43 2 68 2 93 1 118 2 143 4 168 2 193 4
19 4 44 1 69 1 94 2 119 1 144 4 169 2 194 3
20 2 45 2 70 4 95 3 120 1 145 1 170 3 195 1
21 2 46 4 71 4 96 3 121 4 146 2 171 4 196 4
22 2 47 1 72 3 97 4 122 2 147 2 172 3 197 3
23 1 48 2 73 1 98 2 123 4 148 3 173 4 198 2
24 4 49 4 74 2 99 2 124 4 149 1 174 1 199 3
25 4 50 3 75 3 100 4 125 2 150 4 175 4 200 1

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 19

 Test Booklet Code-B

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

RM-NEET Batch | Cumulative Test- 06 | Date: 26-01-2025
01. Answer (4) 21. Answer (2)
DC meter measure average value Field is zero at centre and far off the centre and
02. Answer (1) R
maximum at x 
Power factor is zero. 2
03. Answer (1) 22. Answer (2)
f Net internal force equal to zero
xc 23. Answer (1)
z 24. Answer (4)
I Q1 = Q2
Brightness increases. C1 = C2
04. Answer (2) V
VC =
Power varies with double the frequency of ac. 2
2
05. Answer (3) 1 V
U= 2C  
X 2 2
tan = L
R 1
06. Answer (1)  CV 2
4
The circuit is in resonance. 1
07. Answer (4)  × 5μF × (20) 2
4
The circuit is inductive when 25. Answer (4)
W > W0 Voltage is shared in inverse proportion to
08. Answer (4) capacitance.
Eddy current is reduced 26. Answer (4)
09. Answer (4) Capacitor shorts the branch at this moment.
IPVP = ISVS 27. Answer (4)
10. Answer (1) 9 9
Resonance occurs in L-C-R only VA   10 
C1 C2
11. Answer (2)
= VB
R 9
Cos  = V2 =
Z C2
12. Answer (3)
28. Answer (2)
13. Answer (4)
Q = Ne
The voltage across L and C are out of phase
29. Answer (3)
14. Answer (1) Electric field is test charge independent
15. Answer (2) 30. Answer (2)
16. Answer (1) Fe / K
E 2rms  VR2  Vc2 tan1 =
mg  B
17. Answer (2)
Fe
i  a  b sin ωt tan =
mg
b2 31. Answer (2)
Irms  a 2 
2 Dipole moment is a vector
18. Answer (3) 32. Answer (2)
In region 1 33. Answer (3)
XC > XL 3 KQ
Vcentre =
In region 2 2 R
XL > XC KQ
V
19. Answer (4) r
VL leads I (r > R)
I leads VC 34. Answer (3)
20. Answer (2) 35. Answer (2)
Resonant circuit 36. Answer (2)
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 20
 Test Booklet Code-B
37. Answer (3) 50. Answer (3)
38. Answer (3) For plastic plate
39. Answer (2) σ
E
40. Answer (1) 2ε 0
Force is along field. Acceleration is along field so For copper plate
change in velocity along field. As it starts from rest
σ
so start to move along field. E=
41. Answer (3) ε0
Wave can propagate along + x or  x direction. σ
and  =
42. Answer (3) 2
1 TA n TB so E = E
 51. Answer (2)
2  A πrA d A 2 B πrB2 d B
2
H2 O
CH3CHO + RMgX   CH 3  CH(OH)  R
TB = 2TA,  B  2 A , rB  2rA ,d B  2d A
52. Answer (2)
finaly n = 4 KMnO4 / H

4v (CH 3 ) 2 C  CH  CH 3  
(CH3 ) 2

frequency of B  B
2 B C = O + CH3  COOH
rd
This is 3 overtone. 53. Answer (3)
43. Answer (2) (1) C  C  C  C _ NH2
*
For rigid end there will a phase change of  and (2) C  C  C
|
direction will be opposite NH 2

44. Answer (1) C

nx = 300 Hz, ny = ? (3) |
n  T , so T  ny C  C  C  NH 2
Hence nx  ny  = 4 (correct) C
ny  nx = 4 (wrong) |
so ny = nx  4 = 296 Hz (4) C  C  NH 2
45. Answer (2) |
v v C
n1 = , n2 
2 1 2 2 (5) C C  NH  C  C
when joined in series l = l1 + l2 (6) C  NH  C  C  C
C  NH  C  C
v v v nn
n    1 2 (7) |
2 2(1   2 )  v v  1  n2
n C
2  
 2n1 2n 2  C
46. Answer (4) (8) |
V1 2L r 2 1 C  NCC
  54. Answer (1)
V2 L 4r 2 1
47. Answer (1)

For complete pipe of length ‘l0’,

v
f0   412 Hz
4 0
48. Answer (2) 55. Answer (3)
Electric field is maximum at O
H ||
x
2 HCH
Gives Tollen’s test but does not give halo form test
When the particle is above this point and slightly
as it has no
displaced downward then the stronger field push it up
and when displaced upward the relatively stronger O
gravitational force pull it down. Hence in stable ||
equilibrium. CH3  C  groups
49. Answer (4) 56. Answer (2)
Net charge inside the cavity is zero. R =  CH3 2° > 1° > 3° > NH3 (basic strength)
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 21
 Test Booklet Code-B
57. Answer (3) 65. Answer (2)
HNO 2
RNH 2   ROH  H 2 O  N 2 
(A) (B) (C)
66. Answer (4)
Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines give
58. Answer (4)
carbylamines reaction. Since aniline is primary
Friedal crafts rms not take when aromatic amine it gives carbylamines test.
67. Answer (4)
(CH3)2 NH is a secondary amine.
68. Answer (2)
2-Deoxyribose does not correspond to Cx(H2O)y.
59. Answer (4)
69. Answer (1)
Fructose is levo rotator and reducing sugar
70. Answer (4)
60. Answer (3)
For nucleophilic substitution, the correct order is
CH3CH = CH  Cl is a substituted vinyl chloride. It
1 2
does not undergo both SN and SN because CCl
bond acquires partial double bond character due to

+m effect of halogen CH3  CH = CH vinglic
carbocation is not stabilized by resonance and is
unstable.
61. Answer (2) NO2 group is a strong electron withdrawing group
Phenol is acidic in nature and it reacts with strong and it activates the aromatic ring towards
base NaOH but it does not react with weak base like nucleophilic substitution.
NaHCO3. It gives violet colour with neutral ferric 71. Answer (4)
chloride solution due to the presence of enolic group. CCl4 vapours are non-inflammable (i.e. do not catch
62. Answer (4) fire). Hence used as fire extinguishers under the
Cannizzaro reaction is given by those aldehydes name pyrene.
which have absence of -hydrogen atom. So, 72. Answer (3)
CH3CHO will not give Cannizzaro reaction. Given reaction is cumene- peroxide method for the
63. Answer (4) preparation of phenol. Acetone also formed in this
Aldol condensation : reaction.
73. Answer (1)
In Williamson’s synthesis the reaction f alkyl halides
with sodium alkoxides give ethers. However, if the
alkyl halide is 3°, it undergoes elimination to give an
Kolbe reaction: alkene.


(H3 C)3  C  Cl  Na OC2 H5  
tert  Butyal chloride Sod. ethoxide

CH 2
||
Reimer-Tiemann reaction: CH3  C  CH3  C 2 H 5 OH  Na
2  Methyl 1 propene
74. Answer (2)
Lucas test is used to distinguish between 1°, 2° and
3° alcohol on the basis of time taken for turbidity to
appear by using a solution of anhydrous ZnCl2 in
Wurtz Fittig reaction : conc. HCl.

64. Answer (1)

C > B > A : percentage yield.
Duirng nitraito process of aniline in strong acidic
(HNO3, H2SO4) medium, aniline changes to
anilinium ion that can withdraws electron density. Its
effect is felt maximum at ortho followed by meta and
then para position . Consequently, very little of ortho
nitrated product is formed.
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 22
 Test Booklet Code-B
75. Answer (3) 94. Answer (2)
Only aldehydes and kenos react with But-1-yne on reaction with water in presence of Hg2+
2, 4- dinitrophenylhydrazine. ions as a catalyst produces butan-2-one.
76. Answer (1)
Aromatic aldehydes have less rate of N.A.R than
aliphatic aldehydes and out of (3) and (4) former has
more rate of N.A.R because  R effect of NO2
increases electrophilicity of CHO group.
77. Answer (4)
Primary and secondary alkyl groups are oxidised to
give carboxylic acid, while tertiary alkyl group
remains unaffected.
78. Answer (3) 95. Answer (3)
Electron withdrawing substituent (like halogen, CH3NC (methyl isocyanide) on reduction with
 NO2, C6H5 etc.) would disperse the negative charge LiAlH4 gives secondary amine.
and hence stablise the carboxylate ion and thus 96. Answer (3)
increases acidity of the parent acid. On the other
hand, electron-releasing substituents would intensify
the negative charge, destabilise the carboxylate ion
and thus decrease acidity of the parent acid.
Electronegativity decreases in order
F > Cl > Br
and hence  effect also decrease in the same order,
therefore the correct option is
[FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH\2COOH >
CH3COOH]
79. Answer (3)
80. Answer (1)
81. Answer (1)
82. Answer (4)
83. Answer (4)
84. Answer (4)
85. Answer (2)
86. Answer (2)
87. Answer (1)
88. Answer (3)
Conceptual
89. Answer (2)
90. Answer (1)
97. Answer (4)
2CH 3  C  Cl  (CH 3 ) 2 Cd  2CH3  C  CH 3  CdCl2
O
Addition of HCl takes place in accordance with
||
H2  Pd
CH3  C  Cl  CH3  C H  HCl Markovnikov’s rule.
BaSO4 B

91. Answer (1)

92. Answer (4)

98. Answer (2)

99. Answer (2)
The commercial alcohol is made unfit for drinking by
93. Answer (1) mixing in it some copper sulphate (to give it colour)
and pyridine (a foul smelling liquid). It is known as
denaturation of alcohol.
100. Answer (4)
The yield of product in a reversible reaction can be
Halogenation takes place at -position in presence of
Red phosphorous. It is know as Hell-volhard- increased by (i) removing one of the products, (ii)
zelinsky reaction. taking either of the reactant in excess.
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 23
 Test Booklet Code-B
101. Answer (4) 121. Answer (4)
102. Answer (3) AUG = Start codon
103. Answer (1) UAA, = Stop codon
DNA are always negative charged found either in
UAG,
prokaryotes or in eukaryotes.
UGA
104. Answer (3)
122. Answer (2)
105. Answer (1)
Amino acid is represented as 123. Answer (4)
H Actual or real or 3D structure of t RNA is inverted
|
L-shaped
Left terminal  H2 N  C  COOH  Right terminal
 |  124. Answer (4)
R (Variablegroup) C  terminal
N-terminal 125. Answer (2)
106. Answer (1) 126. Answer (3)
107. Answer (4) 127. Answer (1)
108. Answer (2) 128. Answer (3)
It is case of myotonic dystrophy
129. Answer (4)
109. Answer (3)
130. Answer (2)
110. Answer (4)
131. Answer (2)
Mendelian disorder traced by pedigree analysis.
111. Answer (4) 132. Answer (3)
112. Answer (2) RNA have dynamic functions of messenger
GeneB is the example of (mRNA) and adapter (tRNA) and also found in
(i) Pleiotropy with dominance (of seed shape) and some viruses as main genetic material and have
incomplete dominance (with size of starch grain) 2OH group in their ribose sugar.
113. Answer (4) 133. Answer (4)
There is independent assortment of non-homologous 134. Answer (4)
chromosome 135. Answer (2)
114. Answer (3)
Aa aa 136. Answer (2)
137. Answer (3)
138. Answer (4)
Aa Aa 139. Answer (4)
aa aa aa 140. Answer (1)
aa 141. Answer (3)
142. Answer (4)
aa Aa Aa Aa aa O = ii or I0I0 (homozygous genotype)
143. Answer (4)
115. Answer (4) 144. Answer (4)
In case of multiple alleles  individual have only 145. Answer (1)
two alleles but its gamete have only one allele and in 146. Answer (2)
population all possible alleles are found. 147. Answer (2)
116. Answer (4) 148. Answer (3)
117. Answer (4) 149. Answer (1)
118. Answer (2) DNA having GC content have more H-bond so more
119. Answer (1) melting point.
120. Answer (1) 150. Answer (4)
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 24
 Test Booklet Code-B
151. Answer (1) 175. Answer (4)
152. Answer (3) 176. Answer (4)
153. Answer (4) Epithelial lining is physical barrier under innate
Cancer cells do not show contact inhibition immunity.
character. 177. Answer (4)
154. Answer (1) 178. Answer (4)
Morphine drugs causes depression and low down 179. Answer (4)
body functions concerned receptors located on CNS 180. Answer (2)
and GIT. Plasmodium vivax infective state of human is
155. Answer (4) sporozoites present in salivary glands.
156. Answer (4) 181. Answer (4)
AIDS is not a congenital disease. 182. Answer (2)
157. Answer (2) 183. Answer (2)
158. Answer (3) Majority of drugs synthesized and obtained from
159. Answer (3) flowering plants, fungi
160. Answer (4) 184. Answer (4)
In males anabolic steroids side-effects not related 185. Answer (4)
affect i.e excess hair growth on face and body. 186. Answer (1)
161. Answer (4) 187. Answer (4)
TH cells and macrophages are acts as HIV viroins. 188. Answer (3)
(Daughter individuals) generation factories. Secondary immune response is high intensified.
162. Answer (1) 189. Answer (3)
163. Answer (1) Dengue fever symptoms are rash and severe muscle
Cocaine drug interferes with dopamine and joint pains.
neurotransmitter. 190. Answer (4)
164. Answer (4) 191. Answer (3)
165. Answer (2) Frequently 12 to 18 years children affected to STIs /
166. Answer (2) RTIs this age called as adolescence period.
Alcohol caused liver cirrhosis. (cancer) 192. Answer (3)
167. Answer (4) 193. Answer (4)
168. Answer (2) 194. Answer (3)
169. Answer (2) In adults bones do not lose their sensitivity to
Adrenaline and Nor-Adrenaline hormones called growth hormone.
catecholamines synthesize and secreted from 195. Answer (1)
adrenal medulla region. Estrogen and progesterone inhibits gonadal activity.
170. Answer (3) 196. Answer (4)
Kidney JGA JG cells secrets Erythropoietin 197. Answer (3)
hormone Grave’s disease symptoms are protrusion of
171. Answer (4) eyeballs, increased metabolic rate and weight loss.
Hyper secretion of hGH caused acromegaly disorder 198. Answer (2)
in adults. 199. Answer (3)
172. Answer (3) 200. Answer (1)
173. Answer (4) Thymus gland located between lungs behind
174. Answer (1) sternum as ventral side of Aorta.
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 25