Shiv Chhatrapati Shikshan Sanstha, Latur.

CET (PPE) – CELL

Sections : Physics Chemistry Botany Zoology
Questions : 50 50 50 50
Marks : 180 180 180 180
Roll No.
NEET-2024 MT-02
Date : 31 Mar, 2024

2 33 Time : 3.20 Hours

Physics : Numerical based + Practical Application Question

5. A body of mass m has its position x at a time
Section - ‘A’ t0, expressed by the equation
1. A vector P is making 45° and 60° with +ve X
1
and Y axis respectively. Then angle made by x = 3 t3 / 2 + 2t – .
the vector with +ve ‘Z’ axis is 2
1) 255 0 2) 30 0 The instantaneous force F on the body is
3) 75 0 4) 60 0 proportional to
2. A sphere of weight w is hanging against a wall 1) t 3/2 2) t –1/2
as shown in Figure. Which of the relations is 3) t 4) t0
incorrect? 6. A 50 g ball collides with another ball of mass
150 g. The two balls move at an angle 30 0 with
their initial direction. Ratio of their velocities
after collisions is
1) 3:1 2) 2:3
3) 1:3 4) 1:1
7. The relationship between the force F and
position x of a body is as shown in the figure.
The work done in displacing the body from x
= 1 m to x = 5 m will be

1) T sin     N   W   T cos     0

2) T  W / cos 
3) T sin   N
4) W  N  T / cos 
3. Two roads cross at right angles at O. A person
A walking along one of them at 3 m/s sees
another person B walking at 4 m/s along the
other road , when he is 10m off. The nearest
distance between the two persons is 1) 30 J 2) 25 J
1) 10 m 2) 8m 3) 15 J 4) 20 J
3) 9m 4) 7.2 m 8. A 5 Kg body is rotated in a vertical circle with
4. A man is inside a lift. When the lift is moving a constant speed of 4 m s – 1 using a string of
up with certain acceleration, the apparent length 1 m, when the tension in the string is
change in weight is 25 %. When the lift moves 31 N, then the body will be
down with double the acceleration, the 1) at the lowest point
apparent change in weight is 2) at the highest point
1) 25 % 2) 75 % 3) making an angle 30 0 with vertical
3) 50 % 4) 40 % 4) at horizontal position
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9. Assertion : For a satellite to escape from its 16. The amount of heat required to convert 10g
orbit, its velocity should be increased by 41.4% of ice at –10°C into steam at 100°C is (in cal.)
Reason : Orbital velocity and escape velocity 1) 5400 2) 7200
are related as Ve = 2 V0 3) 6400 4) 7250
1) BothAssertionandReasonare true,andReason  5
17. Two moles of monoatomic gas   1   is
is the correct explanation of Assertion.  3
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason mixed with three moles of diatomic gas
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.   7 
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.  2  , then the value of  of the mixture is
 5
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
1) 3 2) 1.5
10. A straight rod of length L has one of its ends 3) 2 4) 1
at the origin and the other at x = L. If the mass 18. In the steady state the two ends of a metre rod
per unit length of the rod is given by Ax where are at 300C and 200C, the temperature at the
A is constant, where is its mass centre 40th cm from the end at higher temperature
L 2L is
1) 2) 1) 22°C 2) 25°C
3 3
3) 26°C 4) 24°C
L 3L 19. The equivalent focal length system for following
3) 4)
2 4
 x 
11. A monoatomic gas at pressure P1 and volume arrangement of lenses is   cm. Then find the
V1 is compressed adiabatically to 1/8th of its  13 
value of x
original volume. What is the final pressure of
the gas ?
1) 64 P1 2) 16P 1
3) P1 4) 32P 1
12. A particle moves in x–y plane according to rule
x = a sin wt and y = a cos wt. The particle follows
1) an elliptical path
2) a circular path
3) a parabolic path
4) a straight line path inclined equally to x
and y–axes
13. A rectangular block of mass m and area of 1) 50 2) 100
cross–section A floats in a liquid of density . 3) 150 4) 130
If it is given a small vertical displacement from 20. In the figure shown, the maximum and
equilibrium it undergoes with a time period minimum currents through Zener diode are
T, then
1 1
1) T 2) T
m A
1
3) T  4) T

14. One spherical ball of radius R, density d 1) 5 mA, 1 mA 2) 14 mA, 6 mA
released in a liquid of density d/2 attains a 3) 14 mA, 5 mA 4) 9 mA, 1 mA
terminal velocity V. Another ball of radius 2R 21. The mass of 2He4 nucleus is 0.03 amu less than
and density 1.5d, released in the liquid will the sum of the masses of 2 protons and 2
attain a terminal velocity neutrons. The binding energy per nucleon is
1) 2V 2) 6V 1) 2 MeV 2) 4 MeV
3) 4V 4) 8V 3) 7 MeV 4) 28 MeV
15. A flask is filled with 13 gm of an ideal gas at 22. In Millikan’s oil drop experiment, a charged oil
drop of mass 3.2 × 10–14 Kg is held stationary
27 o C its temperature is raised to 52 0 C . The
between two parallel plates 6 mm apart by
mass of the gas that has to be released to maintain
applying a potential difference of 1200 V between
the temperature of the gas in the flask at
them. How many excess electrons does the oil
52 0 C and the pressure remaining the same is drop carry? [g = 10 ms–2]
1) 2.5 gm 2) 1.5 g 1) 7 2) 8
3) 2.0 g 4) 1.0 g 3) 9 4) 10
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23. In the circuit shown, switch is connected to 28. A square loop ABCD carrying a current I2 , is
position 1 for a very long time. What is maximum placed near and coplanar with a long straight
current through inductor when switch is taken conductor XY carrying a current I1 , the net force
to position 2? on the loop will be

1) 1.5 A 2) 3A
3) 1A 4) 6A
24. When a metallic surface is illuminated by a
monochromatic light of wavelength , the
stopping potential for photo electric current is 2 0 I 1I 2 L  0 I 1I 2 L
1) 2)
3V0. When the same surface is illuminated by 3 2
light of wavelength 2, the stopping potential V0. 2 0 I 1I 2  0 I 1I 2
The threshold wavelength for this surface for 3) 4)
3 2
photo electric effect is
29. A beam of natural light falls on a system of
1) 6 2) 4/3
4 polaroids, which are arranged in succession
3) 4 4) 8
such that the pass axis of each polaroid is turned
25. In the following circuit of PN junction, diode D1,
through 600 with respect to the proceeding one.
D2 and D3 are ideal then I is
The fraction of the incident light intensity that
passes through the system is
1 1
1) 2)
64 128
1 1
3) 4)
256 512
30. If ammeter and voltmeter are ideal, then their
reading will be respectively

E E
1) 2)
R 2R
2E
3) 4) zero
3R
26. A thin lens has focal length f, and its aperture
has diameter d. It forms an image of intensity I.
Now, the central part of the aperture upto
diameter d/3 is blocked by an opaque paper. The 1) 2 A, 10 V 2)1.5 A, 10 V
focal length and image intensity will change to 3) 1.5 A, 15 V 4)2 A, 15 V
1) f/2 and I/2 2) f and 8I/9 
3) 3f/4 and I/2 4) f and 3I/4 31. An object is moving with 0  10iˆ cm/sec as
27. A compound microscope has an eye piece of focal shown. At t = 0, it is at 30 cm away from concave
length 10 cm and an objective of focal length 4 mirror of R = 20 cm. What will be average velocity
cm. Calculate the magnification, if an object is of its image in t = 0 to 1 sec time duration?
kept at a distance of 5 cm from the objective, so
that the final image is formed at the least distance
of distinct vision 20 cm.
1) 12
2) 8
3) 10
4) 15
1) 10 cm / sec ˆi 2) 5cm / sec ˆi

3) 5cm / sec ˆi 4) 10 cm / sec ˆi

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32. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. Section - ‘B’
They carry steady equal currents flowing out of
the plane of the paper as shown. The variation of 36. A uniform rod of length 60 cm and mass 6 Kg
the magnetic field B along the line XX’ is given by is acted upon by two forces as shown in the
figure. The force exerted by 45 cm part of the
rod on 15 cm part of the rod is

1)
1) 9N 2) 27 N
3) 18 N 4) 30 N
37. Two masses M1 and M2 connected by means of
a string which is made to pass over light, smooth
pulley are in equilibrium on a fixed smooth wedge as
2) shown in the figure. If θ = 60 0 and α = 30 0, the
ratio of M1 to M2 is

3)
1) 1:2 2) 1: 3
3) 2: 3 4) 1:1
38. A body on the surface of the earth at latitude
600 will be under weightlessness state if the
angular velocity of rotation of the earth
4) becomes
GM GM
33. Two sphere of radius 3 cm and 2 cm has charge 1) 2)
R3 2R 3
100 C on it as shown in diagram. If they are
2GM 4GM
joined by copper wire, then charge flow from 3) 4)
AB wire will be R 3
R3
39. Two balls of masses 5 m and m have radii 2 R
and R. Their center of masses are separated by
12 R. They move towards each other under
their gravitational force. The distance moved
by the center of smaller sphere when the
spheres touch each other is
1) 2.5 R 2) 7.5 R
1) 10 C from A to B 2) 10 C from B to A 3) 5R 4) 10 R
3) 70 C from A to B 4) 70 C from A to A 40. Two identical piano wires, kept under the same
34. The time period of a thin bar magnet is T. It is tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600
cut into n equal parts by cutting it formal to its Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of
one of the wires which will lead to occurrence
length. What will be the time period of each of
of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate
them in the same field
together would be
1) nT 2) T/n 1) 0.01 2) 0.03
3) T/n2 4) T/ n 3) 0.02 4) 0.04
35. Inteference frings were produced in Young’s 41. Three identical rings, each of mass M and
radius R are placed in the same plane touching
double slit experiment using light of wavelength
each other such that their centers from the
5000 A0 . When a film of material 2.5 × 10–3 cm
vertices of an equilateral triangle. The M.I of
thick was placed over one of the slits, the fringe the system about an axis passing through
pattern shifted by a distance equal to 20 fringe center of one of the rings and perpendicular
widths. The refractive index of the material of to its plane is
the film is
MR 2
1) 1.25 2) 1.33 1) 2) MR 2
3) 1.4 4) 1.5 2
3) MR 2 4) 11 MR 2

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42. Imagine a light planet is revolving round a very 47. In Young’s double slit experiment, one of the slits
massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with is wider than the other, so that the amplitude of
a time period of revolution T. If the the light from one slit is double taht from the
gravitational force of attraction between the other slit. If Im be the maximum intensity, the
star and planets proportional to R – n, then T 2 resultant intensity when they interfere at phase
difference  is given by
is proportional to
1) R n+1 2) R n–1 I 2  Im  2 
1)  1  2 cos  2)  1  4 cos 
3) R n + 2 4) R n–2 3 2 5 2
43. A simple pendulum with bob of mass m and Im  Im 
2  2 
conducting wire of length L swings under gravity 3)  1  8 cos  4)  8  cos 
9  2 9  2
through an angle 2 (Both side) as shown in fig. The
48. In an experiment to determine the resistance of
earth’s magnetic field component in the direction a galvanometer by half deflection method, the
perpendicular to swing is B. Maximum circuit shown is used. In one set of readings, if
potential difference induced across the pendulum is R = 10  and S = 4, then the resistance of the
galvanometer is

20 40
1)  2) 
3 3
  50 10
1) 2BL sin   (gL)1/2 2) BL sin   (gL)2 3)  4) 
2 2 3 3
  49. A vessel contains a slab of glass 8 cm thick and of
3) BL sin   (gL)3/2 4) BL sin   (gL)1/2 refractive index 1.6. Over the slab, the vessel is
2
  2 filled by oil of refractive index  upto height 4.5
44. If power dissipated across a load resistance vs cm and also by another liquid i.e., water of
load resistance curve is shown, then emf of cell 4
will be refractive index and height 6 cm. As shown
3
in figure. As observer looking down from above,
he observes that, a mark at the bottom of the
glass slab appears to be raised upto position 6
cm from the bottom of the slab. Refractive index
() of oil is

1) 80 V 2) 60 V
3) 20 V 4) 40 V
45. When U nucleus originally at rest, decays by
238

emitting an alpha particle having a speed u, the

recoil speed of the residual nucleus is
4u 4u 1) 1.5 2) 2.5
1) 2) 
238 234 3) 0.5 4) 1.2
50. The combination of the gates shown in fig.
4u 4u
3) 4) 
234 238
46. On disintegration of one atom of U 235 the
amount of energy obtained is 200 MeV. The
power obtained in a reactor is 1 mega watt. How
many atoms are undergoing fission per second?
1) 3.125 × 1017 2) 3.125 × 1016 1) OR gate 2) AND gate
3) 200 4) 5 × 103 3) NOR gate 4) XOR gate
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Chemistry : Theory based Conceptual + Practical Application Question

58. Which of the following form yellow
Section - ‘A’ precipitate with iodoform test
51. Which of the following is false statement ? 1) Benzaldehyde
1) displacement of sigma electron is 2) 2,2-dimethyl propanal
inductive effect 3) Acetophenone
2) Delocalisation of    orbital is 4) pentan-3-one.
hyperconjugation 59. Arrange the following compounds in
3) Delocalisation of sigma electron is increasing order of the acidic Strength
inductive effect
4) Complete transfer of shaired pair of  OH OH
elections to atoms joined by multiple bond NO 2
called as electromeric effect.
52. In Thin layer chromatography amino acid a) b)
detected by
1) Ninhydrin solution CH3 NO 2
2) Tollen's solution
3) Benedict solution
OH
4) Fehling solution
53. Sodium fusion extract of sulphur with O 2N
OH
NO2
sodium thiocyanate producess blood red
colour due to formation of c) d)
1) Fe4[Fe(SCN)6]
2) Fe( SCN) ]2+ NO 2 NO 2
3) NaSCN 1) a < b < c < d 2) b < a < c < d
4) [Fe(CN)5 NOS] 4– 3) c < d < b < a 4) a < d < b < c
54. The CORRECT order of acidic strength of
60. Acetone and benzaldehyde can be
16th group element hydride is
1) H2O>H2S>H2Se>H2Te distingulshed by
2) H2O>H2Se>H2S>H2Te 1) Fehling solution
3) H2Te>H2Se>H2S>H2O 2) Hinsberg’s solution
4) H2O>H2Te>H2S>H2Se 3) NaHSO3 solution
55. Trans isomer x
 CH 3  C  C  CH 3 
y
 cis isomer ‘X’ 4) Iodoform test
and ‘Y’ respectively are 61. Which of the following salt NOT gives flame
1) X = Birch reduction test
Y = Lindlar's catalyst 1) LiCl 2) BeCl2
2) X = Y = Lindlar's catalyst 3) KCl 4) BaCl2
3) X = Y = Birch reduction 62. Nitrate ion is confirmed by the ring test. The
4) X = Lindlar's catalyst brown color of ring is due to formation of
y = Birch catalyst 1) Fe (NO3)3
56. Which of the following is chain initiation reaction 2) [Fe(H2O)5NO]+4
 
1) CH4 + C l  C H 3 + HCl 3) [Fe(H2O)5NO]+2
  4) [Fe(H2O) 6]+2
2) C H 3 + C H 3  CH3 – CH3 63. The correct formulla for calculating bond

3) Cl – Cl  2 C l order is

4) 2 C l  Cl2 Bonding electron
1) B.O 
57. Statement I : phenol is more reactive than 2
Toluene towards electrophilic substitution
Bonding electron  Antibonding electron
reaction 2) B.O 
2
Statement II : Combustion of benzene
requires 15O2 molecule Antibonding electron
1) Statement I is correct and statement II is 3) B.O 
2
incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect and statement 4) B.O 
Antibonding electron  bonding electron
II is correct 2
3) Both Statement I & Statement II are 64. Which of the following is NOT pair of Triad
correct 1) Li,Na,K 2) Ca, Sr, Ba
4) Both Statement I & Statement II are 3) Fe, Co, Na 4) Cl, Br, I
incorrect
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65. The reagent used for precipitation of group II 74. Which of the following acid will release
basic radical is maximum amount of heat when completely
1) Conc. HCl + H2S neutralised by strong base NaOH ?
2) dil HCl + H2S 1) 1 MHCl 2) 1 MH2SO 4
3) dil. HCl 3) 1 MHClO4 4) All have same value
4) dil. H2SO4 75. In a two step exothermic reaction
66. Which of the following Amine is insoluble in A2(g) + B2(g) I 3C(g) II D(g)
NaOH on reacting with Hinsberg’s Step (I) and step (II) are favoured in
reagent forward reaction respectively by:
1) R-CH2-NH2 2) Ph CH2-NH2 1) low pressure, low temperature and high
3) R-NH-CH3 4) CH3-NH2 pressure, low temperature
67. The reaction useful for preparation of 2) high pressure, low temperature and low
aromatic amine is pressure, high temperature
1) Gabriel phthalamide 3) low pressure, high temperature and
2) Hofmann ammonolysis high pressure, high temperature
3) Hofmann bramamide degradation 4) None of the above
4) All of these 76. NH 3 is taken in container at a certain
68. Which of the following is act weak oxidising temperatue. If its dissociation constant (Kp) has
agent an appreciable value, at equilibrium :
1) The concentration of ammonia changes
1) VO 2 2) Cr2O 72 with pressure
3) MnO 4 4) both 2 & 3 2) the concentration of N2 is less than that
of H2
69. When the silver halide partially soluble in 3)  does not change with pressure
solvent producess yellow ppt then the halide is 4) Kp does not change with pressure
1)  2) Cl 1) 1,3 2) 1,2
F
3) 1,4 4) 1,2,3
3) I 4) Br 77. Assertion (A) : For any chemical reaction at a
70. Assertion (A) : The empirical mass of ethane particular temperature, the equilibrium
is half of its molecular mass constant is fixed and is a characteristic property.
Reason (R) : The empirical formula Reason (R) : Equilibrium constant is
represents the simplest whole number ratio independent of temperature.
of various atoms present in a 1) Both A and R are true and R is correct
compound explanation of A.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the 2) Both A and R are true and R is not
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
2) A is true but R is false 3) A is true but R is false.
3) A is false but R is false 4) Both A and R are false.
4) Both A and R are false 78. Which of the following species have +6 state
71. In any subshell, the maximum number of with sulphur ?
electron having same value of spin quantum 1) H2S2O7 oleum
number is 2) H2S2O8 Marshall’s acid
3) Na2S2O3 hypo
1) 2l+1 2) l (l  1) 4) H2SO5 Caro’s acid
3) l+2 4) 4l+2 1) 1,3,4 2) 2,3,4
72. Which two orbitals are located along the axes, 3) 1,2,4 4) 1,2,3
and not between the axes ? 79. Assertion (A): The decomposition of
1) d xy 'd z 2 2) d xy 'p z hydrogen peroxide to form water and oxygen
is an example of disproportionation reaction.
3) p z 'd x 2  y 2 4) d yz ' p x Reason (R) : The oxygen of peroxide is in -1
oxidation state and it is converted to zero oxidation
73. The heat of formation ( H f ) of H 2O (l) is
state in O2 and -2 oxidation state in H2O.
equal to 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
1) zero explanation of A
2) molar heat of combustion of H2(l) 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
3) molar heat of combustion of H2(g) correct explanation of A
4) sum of heat of formation of H2O(g) and
3) A is true but R is false
O2(g)
4) Both A and R are false

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80. Cconsider the following reactions Section - ‘B’
I: [Al(OH)3(H2O)3] + OH–
86. The one xenon fluoride compound on
X
hydrolysis shows disproportionation
[A1(OH)4(H2O)2–]+H2O
reaction
II : [Al(OH)3(H2O)3] + H3O+ 1) XeF4 2) XeF6
X 3) XeF2 4) XeF7
[Al(OH)2(H2O)4+]+H2O 87. The formulla for mohr’s salt is
Select the correct statement: 1) K(Al(SO4)2  12H2O
1) X is a base in I and II both
2) FeSO4.(NH 4)2SO 4.6H 2O
2) X is an acid in I and II both
3) FeSO4.NH 3.6H 2O
3) X is an acid in I and base in II
4) KCl Mgcl2.6H2O
4) X is a base in I and acid in II
88. Among the following ions
81. Assertion (A) : The ionization of
hydrogen sulphide in water is low in the Cu+2 ,V +3,Sc +3,Zn +2
presence of hydrochloric acid. Mn+2,Co+2 paramagnetic species are
Reason (R) : Hydrogen sulphide is a weak acid. 1) 4 2) 5
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 3) 3 4) 2
explanation of A 89. Assertion(A) : Nucleophilic Substitution of
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the Haloarene faster by introducing electron
correct explanation of A withdrawing group at ortho para position
3) A is true but R is false Reason (R): Electron withdrawing group
4) Both A and R are false withdraw electron density of benzene
82. Vapour pressure diagram of some liquids 1) Both (A) & (R) True & (R) is not
plotted against temperature are shown below correct explanation of (A)
2) Assertion is true and Reason is false
3) Assertion is false and Reason is true
4) Both (A) & (R) True & (R) is correct
explanation of (A)
90. Match the column I with Column II
I II (Reaction)

i) OH 
Na 2Cr2O7
 A) Reimer
Most volatile liquid H 2SO 4

1) A 2) B Tiemann
3) C 4) D
ii)   B) Hell-volhard
PhSO 2 Cl
83. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make CH2-NH 2
salt bridge because
Zelinsky
1) Velocity of K+ is greater than that of NO 3
 iii) OH 
CHCl3
KOH/ H
 C) Oxidation
2) Velocity of NO is greater than that of K+
3
iv) R  CH 2  COOH 
Re d P  Cl
2
D) Hinsberg’s
3) Velocity of K+ and NO 3 are nearly same
4) KNO3 is highly soluble in water 1) i  A ; ii  B : iii  C ; iv  D
84. If the standard reduction potential Eo for four 2) i  C ; ii  D : iii  A ; iv  B
divalent elements X, Y, Z, W are -1.46 V, -0.36V, 3) i  D ; ii  C : iii  B ; iv  A
0.15V and -1.24 V respectively then
1) X will replace Z2+ from aqueous solution 4) i  B ; ii  A : iii  D ; iv  B
2) Y will replace Z2+ from aqueous solution 91. In carius method of estimation of halogen
3) W will replace Z2+ from aqueous solution 0.15 g of an organic compound gave 0.12 g of
4) All statements are correct AgBr findout the percentage of
85. Can a solution of 1 M CuSO4 be stored in a bromine in the compound (Ag = 108 : Br = 80)
vessel made of nickel metal ? 1) 34
Given : E ( NI / Ni)  0.25volt, E (Cu /Cu)  0.34volt 2) 40
o o
2 2

1) Yes 3) 20
2) No 4) 60
3) May be or may not be
4) None of these
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92. W hi ch of t he f ol l ow i ng INCORRECT for 96. Assertion (A) : The molecularity of reaction
VSEPR theory can never be fractional.
1) The shape of molecule depend on the Reason (R) : molecularity is the number of
number of valence shell electron pair molecules needed to form activated complex,
2) Repulsive interaction of electron pair is which will never be fractional.
maximum in lone pair lone pair 1) Both (A) & (R) True & (R) is not
interaction correct explanation of (A)
3) Multiple bond is treated as it is single 2) Assertion is true and Reason is false
electron pair 3) Assertion is false and Reason is true
4) Repulsive interaction of electron pair is 4) Both (A) & (R) True & (R) is correct
maximum in bond pair-bond pair explanation of (A)
interaction 97. Assertion (A) : The complex [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
93. Match the column I with columnII gives white ppt. with AgNO3 solution.
Column I Column II Reason (R) : Chlorine always gives white ppt
i) Crude oil in A) steam distillation with AgNO3 solution.
Petroleum industry 1) Both (A) & (R) True & (R) is not
ii) Glycerol in spent lye B) Partition correct explanation of (A)
in Soap industry Chromatography 2) Assertion is true and Reason is false
iii) Steam volatile C) Fractional distillation 3) Assertion is false and Reason is true
iv) Paper D) Distillation, under 4) Both (A) & (R) True & (R) is correct
chromatography reduced pressure explanation of (A)
1) i  C ; ii  A : iii  D ; iv  A 98. Which of the following oxide is least basic ?
2) i  C ; ii  D : iii  A ; iv  B 1) CrO 2) CrO 3
3) i  D ; ii  B : iii  A ; iv  C 3) Cr 2 O 3 4) Cr 2 O 4
4) i  B ; ii  C : iii  D ; iv  A 99. Which of the following characteristic
94. Which of the statements about solutions of property of KMnO4 is/are correct?
electrolytes is not CORRECT? 1) KMnO4 forms dark purple crystals
1) Conductivity of solution depends upon 2) SO2 is oxidised to SO 24 with KMnO4 in
size of ions
2) Conductivity depends upon viscosity of acidic medium
solution 3) Purple colour of MnO 4 ion is due to
3) Conductivity does not depend upon charge transfer
solvation of ions present in solution 4) All of these
4) Conductivity of solution increases with 100. Amongst the following, the most stable
temperature complex is.
95. For the chemical process energies are plotted 1) [Co(NH3)3CI3]
in graph. 2) [Co(H2O) 6]Cl3
3) [CoF6]3–
4) [Co(en)3]3+

Which of the following is CORRECT ?

1) It is the exothermic reaction,  H=b-a
2) Threshold energy, e = a + c
3) (Ea)f < (Ea)b
4) All of these

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 Botany : Diagram, Assertion & Reason, Interlink, Column Based, Single Line Questions
Section - ‘A’
101. How many structures are diploid from the following
1) Root cell of pteridophytes 2) Synergid cells
3) Antipodal cells 4) Endosperm of seed
5) Bacterial cell 6) Aleurone layer
7) Rhizoids of prothallus 8) Rhizome of Equisetum
1) 2 2) 4
3) 5 4) 7
102. How many total mitotic free nuclear division occur during development of one embryo sac from
single megaspore in Polygonum
1) 3 2) 8
3) 7 4) 9
103. Monoadelphous condition is a characteristic feature of
1) China rose 2) Sunflower
3) Pea 4) Maize
104. If a bacterial cell divides once every minute it take 15 minutes a cup to be one fourth full. How much
time will it take to fill half cup ?
1) 30 min 2) 45 min
3) 16 min 4) 17 min
105. The diagram below shows three plants with identical leaf surface areas :

Assuming all other conditions were identical for all three plants, which of the plants would likely to
photosynthesize slowest.
1) Y 2) Z
3) X 4) all
106. Which statement regarding following pedigree is CORRECT?

1) The trait is holandric 2) The parents are homozygous recessive

3) The parents are heterozygous 4) The parents are homozygous dominant
107. In a chromosome, the two strands of dsDNA are arranged as below

Between the two strands of dsDNA, which strand can act as template for RNA synthesis?
1) A 2) B
3) Both A and B 4) None
108. Assertion: The genetic codes are commaless.
Reason: Genetic codes are overlapping.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are truebut Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
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109. The given structure is of

1) Lecithin 2) Arachidonic Acid

3) Deoxyribose 4) Cholesterol
110. Identify A, B and C in the given figure of pBR322 cloning vector and select the correct option.

A B C A B C
R
1) Eco R1 Pvu I tet 2) Ori Pvu I tetR
R
3) Ori Eco RI tet R
4) tet Pvu I ori
111. What is true for the (A) and (B) type of placentation given below:

1) A = Found in sunflower, B = Found in pea

2) A = Found in marigold, B = Found in Dianthus and Primrose
3) A = Found in pea, B = Found in sunflower
4) A = Found in Dianthus and Primrose, B = Found in marigold
112. Assertion : Dicot seed is always unitegmic
Reason : Unitegmic seeds are with two separate integuments
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
113. Statement-I : Ethephon is gaseous form is readily absorbed and transported within the plant
Statement-II : Ethephon relases C2H4 slowly
1) Both statements are wrong
2) Both statements are correct
3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is wrong
4) Statement I is wrong and Statement II is correct
114. In angiospermic plants, if 256 meitotic division are required to produce 256 female gametes and 768
antipodal cells then how many meiotic division are required to produce 512 synergid cells ?
1) 256 2) 512
3) 786 4) 1000
115. Select the CORRECT statement regarding the family Fabaceae
1) Syngensius stamens 2) Monoadelphous stamens
3) Inferior ovary 4) Papillionaceous corolla

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116. Match the following lists
Stage of respiration Number of decarboxylations
A) Glycolysis I) One
B) Pyruvic acid - Acetyl Co.A II) Zero
C) Kreb’s cycle III) Two
D) Alcoholic fermentation IV) One
The CORRECT match is
A B C D A B C D
1) II I III IV 2) I II III IV
3) IV III II I 4) III II IV I
117. Match the following columns:
Column-I Column- II
(A) Monoadelophous 1) Citrus
(B) Diadelphous 2) Pea
(C) Polyadelphous 3) China rose
A B C A B C
1) 1 2 3 2) 1 3 2
3) 3 2 1 4) 3 1 2
118. Total number of spindle apparatii formed during the production of 60 microspores and 60 megaspores
during their sporogenesis
1) 75 2) 90
3) 100 4) 72
119. Match the following Column –I with Column –II and select the CORRECT option.
Column–I Column–II
A) Flower colour producing pigment 1) Concanavalin A
B) Terpenoids 2) Monoterpenes
C) Alkaloids 3) Morphine
D) Lectins 4) Anthocyanin
E) Toxins 5) Ricin
F) Drugs 6) Curcumin
Options :
1) A–1, B–2, C–6, D–4, E–5, F–6 2) A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1, E–5, F–6
3) A–3, B–4, C–6, D–5, E–1, F–2 4) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–6, E–5, F–6
120. Match the following
Column-I Column-II (Digesting Enzymes)
A) Bacterial cell wall I) Chitinase
B) Plant cell wall II) Ribonuclease
C) Fungus cell wall III) Lysozyme
D) RNA IV) Cellulose
V) RNA polymerase
The CORRECT match is
A B C D A B C D
1) IV III V II 2) III IV I II
3) IV I II V 4) V III I IV
121. Match the columns
Column–I Column–II
A) Coleorrhiza i) Grapes
B) Food storing tissue ii) Mango
C) Parthenocarpic fruit iii) Radicle
D) Single seeded fruit developing from iv) Endosperm
monocarpellary superior ovary
1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv 2) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
3) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii 4) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii
122. Ray floret and disc floret are characters of ------- family
1) Solanaceae 2) Asteraceae
3) Poaceae 4) Fabaceae

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123. Calculate the total numbers of amino acid residue in a polypeptide composed of 50 peptide bonds
1) 51 2) 50
3) 49 4) 52
124. Hibiscus rosa sinesis belongs to family
1) Malvaceae 2) Graminae
3) Asteraceae 4) Brassicaeceae
125. ‘Crusiform corolla’ is a characteristic feature of
1) Fabaceae 2) Asteraceae
3) Brassicaceae 4) Malvaceae
126. Pairing of homologous chromosomes is called -------
1) Synapsis 2) Terminalisation
3) Segreegation 4) Chiasmata
127. A multicellular female gametophyte of pinus bears -------- archegonia
1) less than two 2) two or more
3) zero to two 4) only two
128. Bulliform cells are characteristic feature of
1) Isobilateral leaf 2) Flypostomatic leaf
3) Dorsivental leaf 4) Epistomatic leaf
129. Cultivation of hybrids has tremendously ----- productivity
1) Decrease 2) Increase
3) Minimise 4) Both ‘1’ and ‘3’
130. James Watson received his Ph.D. degree in 1950 on a study of the effect of hard X-rays on ---
multiplication
1) virus 2) yeast
3) bacteriophage 4) mycoplasma
131. PCR stands for
1) Polymer of chromosome 2) Percentage chromosome recurbination
3) Polymerase chain reaction 4) Polycarpic reaction
132. The capacity of generate a whole plant from any cell / explant is called ----
1) Totipotency 2) Explant
3) Rhizogenesis 4) Somaclone
133. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the ----
1) Standing state 2) Standing crop
3) Food web 4) PAR
134. RNAs are needed to synthesise a protein a bacterial cell
1) mRNA 2) tRNA
3) rRNA 4) all of these
135. A flower of china rose has 5 stamens, each microsporangium has 5 microspore mother cells. How
many pollen grains occur in the flower?
1) 100 2) 400
3) 200 4) 600
Section - ‘B’
136. If a polypeptide chain contain 10 amino acid residues. Then how many coden code for these 10
amino acids ?
1) 30 2) 10
3) 20 4) 5
137. If sporophyte of gymnospermic plant consist of 24 chromosomes then what will be the chromosome
number in root cell, stem cell and leaf cell of Equisetum, respectively
1) 24, 24, 24 2) 24, 12, 24
3) 12, 12, 12 4) 12, 12, 24
138. How many internode are likely to be present in a twig of a plant possessing 36 alternate arranged
leaves
1) 36 2) 35
3) 37 4) 18

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139. The complete oxidation of a pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms leaving ---
molecules of CO2
1) 6 2) 4
3) 3 4) 2
140. One single maize root apical meristem can give rise to more than ---- cells per hour
1) 17,400 2) 17,000
3) 17,500 4) 35,000
141. The following diagram shows four coeoptiles set up at the start of an experiment.
razor blade

unilacral
light

I II III IV
Which two coleoptiles will not bend towards the light source ?
1) I and II 2) I and IV
3) II and III 4) III and IV
142. Select the correct option that correctly identifies the different genera (A, B, C and D) of kingdom Fungi
shown in figure.

A B C D
1) Mucor Saccharomyces Morchella Amanita
2) Mucor Saccharomyces Penicillium Agaricus
3) Rhizopus Saccharomyces Aspergillus Morchella
4) Aspergillus Rhizopus Penicillium Agaricus
143. Select the incorrect statement with respect to the given representation.

1) X is the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase and Y is the enzyme ethanol decarboxylase.

2) This process is involved in brewing industry for producing beverages like beer, rum, whisky, etc.
3) Accumulation of the end product during this process, in a culture of yeast, stops the
multiplication of yeast cells and may even lead to death of cells.
4) None of these
144. The ministry of environment and forest has initiated ----- and ------- to save these major rivers of our
country from pollution
1) Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan
2) Godavari Action Plan and Kaveri Action Plan
3) Kaveri Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan
4) Bhima Action Plan and Ganga Action Plan

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145. Assertion : Endothecium layer of anther wall plays an important role in the dehiscence of anther
Reason : The presence of fibrous bands and differentital expansion of inner and outer tangential
walls of endothecial cells cause dehisence of anther.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are truebut Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
146. Mark the correct statement for the organism given below in figure.

1) The given plant is Selaginella 2) It is member of sphenopsida

3) It consist of foot, seta and capsule 4) The given plant is Funaria
147. Assertion: Mendel observed linkage phenomena
Reason: Test cross is performed to know the unknown phenotype
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are truebut Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
148. The given diagram shows a section through the ovary and pollen tube of a flowering plant just before
fertilization. After the fertilisation the structure that convert into zygote and seed coat are respectively.

1) X, Y 2) G, X
3) D, E 4) G, B
149. Match the columns
Column–I Column–II
A) Plasmodium i) Diatoms
B) Mixotrophic nutrition ii) Euglenoids
C) Red tide iii) Dinoflagellates
D) Oceanic chief producers iv) Slime moulds
1) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i 2) A–i, B–iv, C–iii, D–ii
3) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv 4) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
150. Match Column-I with Column-ll and select the CORRECT option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-ll
A) Spirogyra i) Unicellular
B) Chlamydomonas ii) Filamentous
C) Volvox iii) Colonial form
D) Some giant marine forms iv) Kelps
1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) 2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) 4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv

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 Zoology : Diagram, Assertion & Reason, Interlink, Column Based, Single Line Questions
Section - ‘A’
151. Which type of human population is represented by this age pyramid ?

1) Declining population 2) Expanding population

3) Vanishing population 4) Stable population
152. Assertion: Adrenal medullary harmones help in combating the stress condition .
Reason : Both adrenaline and not adrenaline act on same organ and produce similar effect.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
153. Identify W, X, Y and z w.r.t. biodiversity among invertebrates ?

W X Y Z
1) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other mammals
2) Molluscs Insects Other invertebrates Crustaceans
3) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other invertebrates
4) Insects Other invertebrates Crustaceans Molluscs
154. Assertion : The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference
in partial pressure is much higher compared to that of oxygen .
Reason : The solubility of CO2 in blood is 20-25 times higher than that of oxygen.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
155. Choose the CORRECT option for the chemical structure shown

1) It is a depressant and slows down body function

2) It is obtained from Atropa belladona
3) It is obtained from Cannabis sativa
4) It has hallucinating properties
156. Hyposecretion of which of the following hormone in male causes osteoporosis?
1) Estrogen and calcitonin 2) parathormone and calcitonin
3) parathormone. 3) calcitonin

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157. Identify the human development stage shown below as well as the related right palce of its occurence
in a normal pregnant woman, and select the right option for together

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Development stage Site of occurrence
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1) Blastocyst Uterine wall
2) 8-celled morula Starting point of Fallopian tube
3) Late morula Middle part of Fallopian tube
4) Blastula End part of Fallopian tube
158. Assertion : In the testis, spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules and testosterone secretion
takes place from the sertoli cells.
Reason : Testosterone brings growth and maturation of primany sex organs and also development
of accessory sex characters.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
159. Identify A, B, C, D and E in the diagram showing human foetus within the uterus

A B C D E
1) Umbilical cord Placetanl villi Yolk sac Uterus cavity Embryo
2) Placetanl villi Umbilical cord Uterus cavity Yolk sac Embryo
3) Umbilical cord Placetanl villi Uterus cavity Yolk sac Embryo
4) Umbilical cord Placetanl villi Uterus cavity Yolk sac Zygote
160. In regard with respiration at higher altitudes which of the following options are CORRECT?
a) Heart rate increases b) erythropoietin secreted by JG cells.
c) Number of RBCs increases. d) Respiratory rate decreases
1) a,b,d are correct. 2) a,b,c are correct
3) b,c,d are correct. 4) a,b,c,d are correct
161. Harmones for the menstrual cycle are produced by ...
1) ovaries only 2) Uterus only
3) Ovaries 4) Ovaries and anterior pitutory
162. Fetal ejection reflex triggers the release of....
1) OXytocin from fetal pituitary 2) Oxytocin from placenta
3) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary 4) hpL from placenta
163. Atropa and Datura plants show – – properties.
1) Hallucinations 2) Stimulant
3) Depressant 4) Both 1 and 2

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164. Identify A, B, C and D in the diagramatic representation of hormone action

A B C D
1) Protein hormone Nuclear envelope Second messenger Protein
2) Steroid hormone Nuclear envelope Hormone receptor complex Proteins
3) Estrogen Nuclear envelope AMP and Ca2+ Steroid
4) Progesterone Nuclear envelope IP 3 Steroids
165. When blood glucose level drops below the set point, the release of which hormone promotes the
release of glucose in blood?
1) Insulin 2) Somatostatin
3) Glucagon 4) Parathormone
166. Which of the following is true for the chordate organism shown in the diagram ?

1) The organism belongs to the sub-phylum cephalochordata and genus Ascidia

2) Circulatory system is open type
3) Development is always direct
4) Fresh water dwelling
167. Choose the CORRECT option w.r.t. oxygen-dissociation curve

1) Shift to right indicates association of oxygen to Hb

2) Shift to right indicates high partial pressure of oxygen and low partial pressure of CO2
3) Shift to left indicates dissociation of oxygen and Hb
4) Shifts to left indicates less H+ ion concentration and high pH
168. Algae have cell wall made up of...
1) Cellulose, galactans and mannans 2) Hemicellulose, pectin and proteins
3) Pectinb, cellulose and proteins 4) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, pectins
169. Which of the following responses is taken up by some animals to avoid detection by predators?
1) Mutation 2) Anthropogenic action
3) Industrial pollution 4) Camouflage
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170. Assertion : Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands became extinct within a decade after goats
were introduced on the island.
Reason : The goats competed in their eating habits with the tortoises
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
171. Match the column I with column II regarding anatomy of cockroach and choose the CORRECT
option.
Column–I Column–II
A) Phallomer i) Chain of developing ova
B) Gonopore ii) Bundles of sperm
C) Spermatophore iii) Openingoftheejaculatory duct
D) Ovarioles iv) The external genitalia
1) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i 2) A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i
3) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii 4) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
172. Which one of the following options give one CORRECT example each of convergent evolution and
divergent evolution?
Convergent evolution Divergent Evolution
1) Eyes of Octopus and mammals Bones of fore limbs of vertebrates
2) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita Wings of butterflies and birds
3) Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates Wings of butterflies and birds
4) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita Eyes of Octopus and mammals
173. Which one of the following options gives the CORRECT matching of a disease with its causative
organism and mode of infection ?
Disease Causative organism Mode of infection
1) Typhoid Salmonella typhi With inspired air
2) Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumoniae Droplet infection
3) Elephantiasis Wuchereria bancrofti With infected water and food
4) Malaria Plasmodium vivax Bite of male Anopheles mosquito
174. Ejaculatory duct is formed by Uniting with a duct from which duct ?
1) Seminal vesicle 2) Prostate gland
3) Vas deference and seminal vesicles 4) Bulbourethral gland
175. In vitro fertilization to help overcome infertility is possible in case of.
1) GIFT 2) IUT
3) AI 4) ICSI
176. The percentage of all gymnosperms species facing extinction is ...
1 12 2) 23
3) 32 4) 31
177. Over exploitation resulted in extinction of ....
1) Stellar’cow 2) lantana
3) Passenger pigeon 4) Both 1 and 3
178. Which of the following when binds to the myosin head results in its detachment from actin?
1) Ca+2 2) Mg+2
3) ATP 4) ADP
179. A mature female frog can lay ....
1) 2500 -3000 unfertilized ova at a time 2) 2500-3000 fertilized ova at a time
3) 3000-3500 unfertilized ova at a time 4) 3000-3500 fertilized ova at a time
180. Increase in blood volume and blood pressure stimulates special cells of cardiac artria to secret .....
1) ANF 2) Renin
3) Secretin 4) Angiotensin

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181. Which layer of the vein is thinner than the artery in humans...
1) Tunica intima 2) Tunica externa
3) Tunica media 4) Layer having collagen fibres
182. Vital capacity is represented by all except
1) TV + ERV+ IRV 2) EC+ IRV
3) IC + ERV 4) RV + TLC
183. Due to the absence of air bladder, which of the following fish have to swim constantly to avoid
sinking ?
1) Pristis 2) Clarias
3) Betta 4) Exocoetus
184. Which of the following hormone produce anabolic effect on protein and carbohydrate metabolism?
1) Estrogen 2) Cortisol
3) Glucagon 4) Testesterone
185. After depolarization resting membrane potential is restored within fraction of seconds due to ........
And is maintained by.......... Respectively.
1) Efflux of Na+, Influx of K+ 2) Influx of Na+ , Efflux of K+
3) Efflux of K+, Na– K pump 4) influx of K+ , Na– K pump
Section - ‘B’
186. Identify the geological periods marked as A, B, C and D

A B C D
1) Creataceous Carboniferous Jurassic Silurian
2) Silurian Jurassic Creataceous Carboniferous
3) Creataceous Jurassic Carboniferous Silurian
4) Jurassic Silurian Carboniferous Creataceous
187. Pregnant women have more Cortisol, this will prevent......
1) Implantation. 2) Inflammation from embryo
3) Increase in Glucose level. 4) Increase in BMR
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188. A person is suffering from following symptoms :
sweating ,rapid heartbeat ,Tremor and anxiety .
These symptoms shows raise in low sugar level .This is due to secretion of..
1) Adrenaline 2) Cortisol
3) Insulin 4) Both 1 and 2
189. Seminal plasma is rich in ...
1) Sucrose, calcium and certain enzymes 2) Glucose, Sodium and certain enzymes
3) Fructose ,calcium and certain enzymes 4) Fructose Sodium and certain enzymes

190. Identify A, B, C and D for the male reproductive system of cockroach shown in the diagram

(c)

A B C D
1) Phallic gland Vas deferens Right phallomere Anal cercus
2) Right phallomere Phallic gland Anal cercus Vas deferens
3) Spermatheca Vas deferens Right phallomere Anal cercus
4) Spermatheca Anal cercus Collaterial gland Vas deferens
191. Assertion : Darwin’s finches show a variety of beaks suited for eating large seeds, flying insects
and cactus seeds.
Reason : Ancestral seed eating stock of Darwin finches radiated out from mainland to different
geographical areas of Galapagos Islands .
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
192. Assertion : The Mediterranean orchid Ophyrus employs ‘ sexual deceit’ to get pollinated by some
male bees.
Reason : Plant animal interactions never involve co- evolution.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
193. Given below are four methods and their modes of action in achieving contraception. Select their
CORRECT matching from the four options that follow.
Method Mode of action
A) The pill i) Prevents sperms reaching cervix
B) Condom ii) Prevents implantation
C) Vasectomy iii) Prevents ovulation
D) Copper -T iv) Semen contains no sperms
1) A- iii, B-i , C-iv, D-ii 2) A-iii,B-ii ,C-iv,D-i
3) A-ii, B-iii ,C-iv,D-i 4) A-iv,B-i,C-ii, D-iii

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194. Which one of the following options gives the CORRECT categorisation of six animals according to
the type of nitrogenous waste the give Out.
Ammonotelic Ureotelic Uricotelic
1) Pigeon, Humans Aquatic amphibia, Lizard Cockroach,Frog
2) Frog, Lizard Aquatic amphibia, Humans Cockroach, Pigeon
3) Aquatic amphibia Frog, Humans Cockroach, Pigeon, Lizard
4) Aquaticamphibia Cockroach,humans. Pigeon, Lizard, frog
195. What kind of population interaction is found between organisms showing pseudocopulation ?
1) Ammensalism 2) Commensalism
3) Proto cooperation 4) Co-evolution
196. The organisms which cause diseases in plants and animals are called ....
1) pathogens 2) vectors
3) insects 4) worms
197. During urine formation,which process is non selective.
1) Tubular reabsorption 2) Tubular secretion
3) Glomerular filtration 4) Ultrafiltration and Tubularsecretion
198. If the parasympathetic influence on heart is a removed, heart will .....
1) beat slowly 2) stop beating
3) show no change 4) beat faster
199. Grinding of food first occurs by which structure in cockroach?
1) Gizard 2) Crop
3) Mandible 4) Maxilla
200. The hormone which interact with intracellular receptors is.....
1) FSH 2) LH
3) Adrenalin 4) Iodothyronine

Syllabus For - (MT-03) Exam (Apr. 04th , 2024)

Physics NCERT Summary + Introduction + Exercise
Chemistry NCERT Summary + Introduction + Exercise
Biology–I NCERT Summary + Introduction + Exercise
Biology–II NCERT Summary + Introduction + Exercise
NEET-2024
Subject Attempted Not Attempted Correct Wrong Score
Physics

Chemistry

Botany

Zoology

Total

SCSS Page 22
TEST SERIES-2024 KEY TO THE QUESTION BOOKLET 31/03/2024

MT-02
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
1 4 14 4 27 1 40 3 51 3 64 3 77 3 90 2
2 4 15 4 28 3 41 4 52 1 65 2 78 3 91 1
3 2 16 4 29 2 42 1 53 2 66 3 79 1 92 4
4 3 17 2 30 1 43 4 54 3 67 3 80 3 93 2
5 2 18 3 31 2 44 4 55 1 68 1 81 2 94 3
6 1 19 2 32 2 45 3 56 3 69 4 82 1 95 4
7 4 20 4 33 1 46 2 57 1 70 1 83 3 96 4
8 2 21 3 34 2 47 3 58 3 71 1 84 4 97 4
9 1 22 4 35 3 48 1 59 4 72 3 85 2 98 2
10 2 23 1 36 2 49 1 60 4 73 3 86 1 99 4
11 4 24 3 37 2 50 1 61 2 74 2 87 2 100 4
12 2 25 1 38 4 62 3 75 1 88 1
13 2 26 2 39 2 63 2 76 3 89 4

TEST SERIES-2024 KEY TO THE QUESTION BOOKLET 31/03/2024

MT-02
BIOLOGY-I BIOLOGY-II
101 1 114 1 127 2 140 3 151 1 164 2 177 4 190 1
102 3 115 4 128 1 141 1 152 2 165 3 178 3 191 1
103 1 116 1 129 2 142 2 153 2 166 2 179 1 192 3
104 3 117 3 130 3 143 1 154 1 167 4 180 1 193 1
105 2 118 2 131 3 144 1 155 1 168 4 181 3 194 3
106 3 119 2 132 1 145 1 156 3 169 4 182 4 195 4
107 3 120 2 133 2 146 2 157 1 170 1 183 1 196 1
108 3 121 3 134 4 147 4 158 4 171 1 184 4 197 2
109 4 122 2 135 3 148 2 159 3 172 1 185 3 198 4
110 2 123 1 136 2 149 1 160 2 173 2 186 3 199 3
111 2 124 1 137 1 150 1 161 4 174 3 187 2 200 4
112 4 125 3 138 2 162 3 175 4 188 1
113 2 126 1 139 3 163 1 176 4 189 3