Per Flight Training Guide, paragraph

1-5b:
Students will stand and answer
the daily questions without reference
to written material.

1. What is the meaning of the term crosscheck?

IFH: The continuous and logical observation
of instruments for attitude and performance
information.
1-240: Observing and interpreting two or
more instruments to determine attitude and
performance of an aircraft.

2. In developing an instrument crosscheck, what are the most important

instruments
tothe
watch?
Those
that give
most pertinent information
for any particular phase of the maneuver.
These are usually the instruments that should
be held at a constant indication.
Straight & Level = Altimeter and Heading
Indicator (airspeed should remain constant
with cruise power set)
Turns = Altimeter and Bank Indicator
Climbs/Descents = Airspeed and Heading
Indicator

3a. What are the pitch attitude control

instruments?
Attitude indicator, altimeter, VSI, and airspeed
indicator.
3b. What are the bank attitude control
instruments?
Attitude indicator, HSI / heading indicator, and
turn & slip indicator.

4. When should power be adjusted for

level-off during climbs and descents?
Lead level-off by 10% of the climb/descent
rate.

5. During turns, the initial bank is started

with reference to what instrument?

Attitude indicator.

6a. What feature of the attitude indicator

should be used to determine angle of
bank?
For angle of bank use the bank index pointer.
IND.

NOTE: STBY ATT IND is different than the Pilot ATT

6b. Direction of bank?

For direction use the miniature aircraft.
* See next slide for visual aid

Degrees of Bank
(Bank Index
Pointer)

Direction of bank
(Miniature Aircraft)

7. What is the method for determining the

bank angle required to obtain a standard
rate turn? What bank angle is required at
a TAS of 80 kts? 90 kts? 100 kts? 180
kts?
Use 15% of TAS.
80 knots = 12 deg.
90 knots = 13.5 deg.
100 knots = 15 deg.
180 knots = 27 deg.

8a. Turns to a specified heading are

normally made in what direction?
Shortest direction.
8b. When should rollout be started?
Before reaching the desired heading. (Lead by
the angle of bank.)

9. When making turns to a predetermined

heading the bank angle should never
exceed what?
The bank angle should never exceed the
number of degrees to be turned.

NOTE:

This rule-of-thumb is primarily

focused on turns of 20 or less. For turns
greater than 20 a standard rate turn should
be used.

10. When making minor corrections to

altitude, what rate of change should be
used on the vertical speed indicator?
Twice the size of the altitude deviation.
i.e. If you are 50 high, use 100 fpm descent.

11a. When should deviations in rate of climb

or descent be corrected with pitch attitude?
100 fpm or less use pitch attitude, provided
airspeed does not change by more than 5 kts.
11b. With power?
>100 fpm use power.

12. If a pitch attitude change is indicated

by one of the pitch attitude control
instruments, what instrument should be
used while making the initial adjustment?
Procedurally, how do you make the
change?
Use the attitude indicator (if available).
Raise or lower the miniature aircraft in relation
to the horizon bar. The initial movement
should not exceed one bar width high or low;
one and one-half bar correction is normally the
maximum pitch attitude correction from level
flight attitude.

13. For unusual attitude recovery, what

sequence of flight control adjustments are
required?
a. Establish a level bank and pitch attitude.
b. Establish and maintain a heading.
c. Adjust to cruise or climb power setting.
d. Trim the aircraft.

14a. Does uncoordinated flight have an

effect on the accuracy of the attitude
indicator?
Yes.
14b. Will the attitude indicator selfcorrect for precession error?
Yes. Attitude indicators may have small errors in
operation due to precession. These may be caused
by uncoordinated use of the aircraft controls in
flight or by poor mechanical condition of the
instrument. The errors may also be caused by
accelerating or decelerating the aircraft in flight. If
the instrument is in good operating condition, the
erecting mechanism will complete its correction of
the error in a reasonable time after the errorinducing condition is no longer present.

15. What are two possible ways of

returning static pressure to the flight
instruments should the primary static
system
flight?
Switch
tofail
theduring
alternate
static air source if installed

(normally vented to a point inside the airframe not

susceptible to icing). If an alternate static air
sources is not available, break the glass on any one
of the differential pressure instruments. Since it is
difficult to break the glass without damaging the
instrument, it is advisable to break the glass in the
VSI since it is the least important of the pressure
differential instruments.
VSI will operate in reverse (if still operational).
Altimeter and airspeed indicator will lag because
the static pressure must now force its way through
the calibrated leak in the VSI.

16. Define the following and explain its

relevance to you as an Army aviator:
a. Indicated altitude
The altitude read on the dial with a current
altimeter setting set in the Kollsman window.
This is what we
normally use when we fly.
b. Pressure altitude
The height measured above the standard
datum plane, read on altimeter when set to
29.92
In the United States, the use of pressure
altitudes (standard altimeter setting) begins at
18,000 feet. These altitudes are referred to as

16c. Density altitude

The altitude for which a given air density
exists in the standard atmosphere. If the
barometric pressure is lower or the
temperature is higher than standard, then
density altitude of the field is higher than its
actual elevation. This is important for aircraft
16d. How does ambient temperature effect
performance!
indicated altitude and how is it corrected?
(Explain
using
In
extreme
coldFIH)
temperatures pilots may need
to select higher altitudes. It cannot be
corrected by setting the current altimeter
setting. It must be allowed for by adding a
safety buffer to approach altitudes per FIH,
Section D.

17. What is the most common form of

spatial disorientation and what causes it?
The leans. The leans occur when the pilot
fails to perceive some angular motion.
Example: An undetected slow roll that is
suddenly corrected will feel like a turn has
been entered in the opposite direction.

18. What is the most dangerous of all

vestibular illusions and what causes it?
Coriolis illusion. (The feeling that the aircraft
is rolling, pitching and yawing at the same
time.)
Movement of fluid in the semi-circular canals
as a result of head movements during turns.
Causes overwhelming disorientation.

19. How can flicker vertigo be created in a

helicopter?
Flicker vertigo may be created by helicopter
rotor blades interrupting direct sunlight at a
rate of 4 to 20 cycles per second.

20. What is the corrective action for

spatial disorientation?
A. Refer to the instruments and develop a good
cross-check.
B. Never try to fly VMC and IMC at the same time.
(i.e. On final approach the P* stays on the
instruments prepared for the missed approach, the
P looks outside for the landing environment.)
C. Delay intuitive actions long enough to check
both visual references and instruments.
D. Transfer control to the other pilot if two pilots
are in the aircraft. Seldom will both experience
disorientation at the same time.

21a. Define two types of compass error

that result from the tendency of the
magnetic compass to point down as well as
north.
Magnetic
dip (the tendency of the compass to
point down as well as north in certain
latitudes) is responsible for the northerly /
southerly turning error, and for acceleration /
deceleration
21b. What iserror.
the maximum magnetic
compass error that would result from a
standard rate turn in the Ft. Rucker area?
30 degrees.
(The maximum turning error for a standard
rate turn is equal to the latitude at the locality
of the turn.)

22a. Explain the terms variation and

deviation as they apply to the magnetic
compass.is the angular difference between true
Variation
and magnetic north. (Shown as isogonic lines on
aeronautical charts)
Deviation is the uncompensated error in the
compass that results from nearby electrical
equipment and metallic objects.
22b. Are gyro stabilized compass systems
(RMI / HSI) subject to these
influences?
Yes,
however the flux valve is normally placed
in a remote part of the aircraft where magnetic
deviation is at a minimum. (Deviation cards
are required for both the magnetic and gyro
compasses.)

23a. What is the difference between a

slaved gyro and a free gyro?
In the slaved mode, a direction-sensing device
called a flux valve detects the earths magnetic
field with respect to the aircraft and orients the
gyro compass accordingly. In the free gyro
mode, the flux valve is disconnected and the
gyro is used only as a heading reference
indicator
subject
to drift.
23b. Howand
andiswhen
should
the free gyro
mode be selected?
Selector switch on instrument panel.
Use free gyro mode where the earths
magnetic field is unusable (extreme
latitudes)

24. What do the terms radial, bearing and

course refer to?
Radial: A magnetic bearing or course
extending from a VOR, VORTAC or TACAN
facility.
Bearing: The horizontal direction to or from
any point. IFR bearings are based on
magnetic north.
Course: The intended direction of flight in a
horizontal plane measured in degrees from
magnetic north.

25. Explain the difference between

homing and tracking to an NDB.
Which procedure should be used on IFR
flights?
During homing, the aircraft will fly a curved
course to the station if there is a crosswind. It
is caused by flying to the head of the needle.
Tracking uses the application of crosswind
correction to maintain a straight (direct)
course to the station.
IFR clearances specify direct courses
between navaids.
(Graphic example on next slide)

VOR

26a. Define the term: MIA

Minimum IFR Altitudes. Defined as MEA on
airways, or MOCA if within 22 NM of a VOR, or
minimum altitude published on approach
procedures, or 1000 ft above highest obstacle
within 4 NM over flat terrain, or 2000 ft above
highest obstacle within 4 NM in designated
mountainous areas.
26b. Define the term: MEA
Minumum IFR Enroute Altitude. Lowest
published altitude between radio fixes which
assures navigational signal coverage and
meets obstacle clearance requirements.

26c. Define the term: MOCA

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude.
Provides appropriate obstacle clearance
between fixes and navigational signal
coverage within 22 NM of a VOR.
26d. Define the term: MRA
Minimum Reception Altitude. The lowest
altitude at which an intersection can be
determined.

26e. Define the term: MCA

Minimum Crossing Altitude. The lowest
altitude at which a fix must be crossed when
proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA.
26f. Define the term: MVA
Minimum Vectoring Altitude. The lowest MSL
altitude at which IFR aircraft will be vectored
by a radar controller, except when on radar
approaches, departures, and missed
approaches. May be lower than the published
MEA.

27. Concerning VORs, what is the only

positive method of identification and what
is the accuracy?
The only positive method of identification
is by its Morse Code identification OR by the
recorded automatic voice identification which
is always indicated by use of the word VOR
following the ranges name.
i.e. MARIANNA VOR
(Hearing ATIS etc does not
positively indicate that the VOR is in service
for navigation)
The accuracy of course alignment is
generally plus or minus 1 Degree.

28. What is the normal range of L and H

class VORs at 1000 ft. AGL?
40 NM

29. a. What is the maximum distance you

can file a direct route between VOR
navigational facilities below 14,500 ft AGL
and be assured reception?
80 NM. Exceptions are in the IFRS.
29. b. If you wanted to file the maximum
distance between two VORs, where would
you find exceptions to the maximum
distances; give a specific
example/location?
Exceptions are in the IFRS,
Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD), and
NOTAMS.

30. When navigating between two

facilities, when should the pilot change
over from one NAVAID to the next?
Midway between facilities for straight route
segments, or at an intersection forming a
dogleg, or as depicted by one of two symbols
used on aeronautical charts..

31. If a course change is required at an

intersection, when should that change be
started?
Early
enough to operate along the centerline

of the new course (by taking into consideration

turn radius, wind, airspeed, degree of turn and
cockpit instrumentation).

32. What are instrument Departure

Procedures (DPs) and why are they
necessary? Give an example of each type
fromDP's
the DOD
FLIP.
are preplanned
IFR procedures which
provide obstruction clearance from the terminal
area to the en route structure. Two types:
1)Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs)
which may be printed textually or graphically [a
graphic ODP will have OBSTACLE printed in
the procedure title];
2) Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs)
are always printed graphically and are used for
system enhancement and to reduce
pilot/controller workload.

33a. When would you choose to do a diverse

departure and how would you perform it? Give
required climb rate in feet per minute climbing
at 80 kts.
Diverse Departure is used when an airport has
at least one instrument approach procedure
and there are no published DPs. Climb runway
heading to 400 above field elevation before
making any turns while maintaining a
minimum climb of 200 per NM.
(Ft per
min with
E6B
onper
next
click) climb @ 80kts.
200per
NM =
266
minute
E6-B
80kts
266/min
200/NM

33b. Is there a difference in the required

climb per nautical mile departing a helipad
versus a runway? Give required climb rate
in feet per minute climbing at 80 kts.
Yes. Departing a helipad is based on
climbing at 352 per NM and climbing to
400 above takeoff area elevation before
turning.
(Ft perNM
min=with
next climb
click) @ 80kts.
352per
470E6B
per on
minute
E6-B
80kts 470/min
352/NM

34a. Concerning the hover power check,

describe how to perform it.
With the aircraft cleared and all actions
announced, near the takeoff point and in
direction of takeoff, 2 stabilized hover (+/- 1),
compare difference of hover TQ with Max TQ
available:
Below 5% = shallow and normal approaches to
large improved areas and normal takeoffs,
destination must allow shallower than normal
approach with descent to ground if necessary;
5 to 9% = normal approaches and takeoffs;
10 to 14% = steep approaches, confined areas,
pinnacle and ridgeline ops, and ITOs;
15% or more = no maneuver restrictions.

34b. Concerning the hover power check,

give the conditions for which additional
hover power checks must be performed.
Anytime the load or environmental conditions
increase significantly (50 C / 500 PA / 100
lbs).

35. Describe how to perform an ITO from the

ground.
Aircraft aligned with take off heading, hover
power and before takeoff checks complete.
Cyclic neutral, get light on the skids. Come
inside and refer to flight instruments,
smoothly increase collective to takeoff pwr
(15% TQ above hvr pwr desired, 10%
required), maintain desired attitude (level;
aprox 40kt attitude), when takeoff pwr is set
and a positive climb shown on the altimeter
and VSI, adjust pitch 2 bar widths below the
horizon for initial acceleration, approaching
climb airspeed adjust controls for desired
rate of climb and airspeed.

36. Which three instruments must be

checked and their values called out
verbally during a simulated engine failure
at altitude and what additional actions
must be completed if time permits?
Must call out Rotor RPM, gas producer (N1),
and trim.
If time permits transmit MAYDAY, set
transponder to emergency unless on assigned
squawk, lock shoulder harness and activate
ELT.

37. Where are non-standard IFR takeoff

minimums and departure procedures
found? Do they apply to Army helicopter
pilots?
Low Altitude Instrument Approach
Procedures.
IFR Takeoff minimums and
Departure Procedures states "military users
refer to appropriate service directives."
Per AR 95-1, "All aviators will comply with
published nonstandard IFR takeoff
minimums and departure procedures in
FLIP."

38a. What is the absolute lowest weather

that would permit an Army aviator with
less than 50 hours of actual weather
experience as pilot in command to depart
from RwyKBHM
36 at RWY
Birmingham
INTL,
AL?
36 = 800
/ 2 sm

38b. What if his copilot had more than 50

hours of weather experience as pilot in
command?
Still 800/2 sm regardless of crew experience
because of non-standard takeoff minimums!
(Note: Even under standard takeoff minimum
criteria you couldnt reduce the minimums
unless the copilot performed the takeoff;
minimums apply to the pilot flying the aircraft
on takeoff.)

39. Explain when to start the outbound

timing of a holding pattern. ( At a VOR, ADF,
and an Intersection)
For entry, outbound leg timing begins
over/abeam the fix whichever occurs later.
ADF = 900 abeam indicated on the tail of the
RMI needle.
VOR = 900 abeam indicated on the tail of the
RMI needle or a change of the TO/FROM
indicator.
Intersection = Start timing when the turn to
outbound is complete.

40. Are holding entry procedures

determined from ground track or aircraft
heading? What tolerance in degrees is
considered to be within good operating
limits for determining the appropriate
holding entry procedure? g
de g
0
7
RK 0
T
D
GN

HDG 090 deg

Aircraft
heading.
+/- 5 degrees

60

se
c

43

se
c

41. While in holding you fly a 60 second

outbound leg after which you turn inbound and
cross the holding fix at 43 seconds. How long
will you fly on your next outbound? (Explain
how you got your answer.)
84
seconds.
E6-B
60sec
84sec
43sec

42. You are holding at BITZY INT as depicted

on the Dothan VOR RWY 14 approach plate.
You determine that the inbound drift
correction is 7 left. Using the procedure in
the AIM/IFH, what heading would you fly on
the next outbound leg?

Outbound HDG 349

7
Le
ft

right)

(21

Triple the
correction in the

43a. Describe how to perform a standard 45

Procedure Turn under no-wind conditions if
you were outbound from JUDD on the COPTER
NDB RWY 29 approach
attoAndalusia-Opp.
Turn LEFT
heading 047 and
start the clock upon rolling-out.
Fly 1 minute, then turn right to
heading 227. Upon reaching the
272 final approach course turn
right and intercept the centerline
of the inbound course.

JUDD NDB

43b. How would you perform an 80/260

procedure turn for that same approach?
Turn LEFT 80 to heading 012;
upon reaching 012 turn RIGHT
and intercept the centerline of the
272 final approach course
inbound.

JUDD NDB

44. What is the difference between a

procedure turn and a procedural track?
Give an example of each from an IAP.
The type, degree, and point of turn is
optional for a procedure turn.
A procedural track must be flown exactly
as depicted.
(Student example of each type from the
Instrument Approach Plates)

45a. How long should the aircraft be flown

outbound before beginning a procedure
turn?
Normally, a minimum of one minute and then
extended to lose additional altitude or
compensate for adverse wind effects. In no
event may the distance outbound from the
station exceed that published on the approach
plate.
45b. A holding pattern procedure track?
For holding pattern procedural track, outbound
leg should be adjusted for wind to obtain a 1
minute inbound time.

46a. Define the term: MSA

Minimum Safe Altitude. Two types: Minimum Sector
Altitude and Emergency Safe Altitude.
Minimum Sector Altitudes Depicted on approach
charts and provide 1000 ft obstacle clearance within a
25 mile radius of the navigational facility. Sectors are at
least 90 degrees in scope, are for emergency use only
and do not guarantee radio aid to navigation.
Emergency Safe Altitudes Depicted on
approach charts and provide 1000 ft obstacle
clearance (2000 ft in mountainous areas)
within a 100 mile radius and are normally
used only in military procedures.

46b. Define the term: OROCA

Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude.
An off route altitude which provides
obstruction clearance with a 1000 buffer in
non-mountainous terrain / 2000 in
mountainous. Does not guarantee any type of
signal coverage.

46c. Define the term: MDA

Minimum Descent Altitude Lowest altitude
MSL to which an aircraft on a non-precision
approach is authorized to descend.

46d. Define the term: DA/DH

Decision Altitude / Decision Height The altitude
/ height at which a decision must be made
during an ILS or PAR instrument approach to
either continue the approach or to execute a
missed approach.

47. When may a pilot descend below the MDA

or continue an approach below the DH?
1. The approach threshold of the runway, or the
approach lights or other markings identifiable
with the approach end of the runway or landing
area must be clearly visible to the pilot. (i.e.
Must be able to clearly identify the landing
environment!)
2. The aircraft must be in a position from which a
safe approach to the runway or landing area can
be made.
On final approach the P determines if these two
requirements can be met while the P* stays on
the instruments ready to execute the missed

48. Define a step-down fix and use the

LOUIS ARMSTRONG NEW ORLEANS INTL
(MSY) LOC RWY 19 approach to explain
how one is used.
A fix permitting
additional descent
within a segment of an
instrument approach
procedure by
identifying a point at
which a controlling
obstacle has been
safely over flown. If on
the final approach
segment the fix cannot
be identified, the
altitude at the fix

49. You plan a flight to LAKE CHARLES REGIONAL

(LCH) at 100 KIAS for the entire flight and want to
use the VOR-A approach upon arrival.
a. What are your
WX
planning
500-1
@ ETA + 1hr
minimums?
(CAT-B
= 91-120
KIAS)
b. What is your
MDA?
480
MSL

c. Is there any way

to lower your WX
planning mins and
MDA?
Plan and fly 90
KIAS to use CATA 500-1/2 / MDA
440

50. What are the pilots responsibilities

when being radar vectored?
1. Promptly complies with headings and
altitudes assigned by the controller.
2. Questions any assigned heading or altitude
believed to be incorrect.
3. If operating VFR and compliance with any
vector or altitude would cause violation of a
FAR, advise ATC and obtain a revised
clearance or instruction.

51. When may you leave the last assigned

altitude after being radar vectored to the
final approach course?
1. Cleared for the approach.
2. Established on final.
3. Within the distance limit for that
segment.

52. What should the pilot do if it becomes

apparent that a radar vector heading will
cause the aircraft to fly through the final
approach course before an approach
clearance has been received?
Continue on the last assigned heading and
query the controller.
(Controller should advise pilot if vector thru
course is planned.)

3700

53. Reference the KBHM ILS 6 approach. You

are IMC, 5nm north of McDEN LOM on a
downwind vector of 2400 and 3000. If commo
with ATC is lost and you cant establish commo
through any means, what should you do?

BH

full IAP.

Direct to the IAF at 3700 and execute

54. Where is the MAP (Missed Approach Point) for

the PAR and ASR approaches to RWY 6 at Cairns
AAF?
PAR: At the
Decision
Height !!
ASR: Called
by
controller!!

55. Can a PAR approach be affected by

rain?
Yes. PAR radar is primary radar and as such
is subject to be attenuated (reflected) by
dense objects such as heavy clouds,
precipitation (rain or snow), ground objects,
etc.

56. What MDA should the pilot descend to for an

ASR approach to RWY 11 at DOBBINS ARB, GA,
circle to land RWY 29?

MDA 1660 ft.

MDA is for the runway to which the final approach is flown
(RWY 11), NOT the landing runway.

57. If commo is lost while on final during

a GCA approach, should the missed
approach be started immediately?
No. Initiate lost commo procedures, not missed
approach procedures. If unable to reestablish
commo or maintain VFR, proceed with a
published instrument approach procedure or
previously coordinated instructions. The
missed approach begins at the missed
approach point.

58a. Explain: HAT

Height Above Touchdown - The height of the

DH or MDA above the highest runway
elevation in the touchdown zone (first 3000
of the rwy). Applies to straight-in
minimums.

58b. Explain: HAA

Height Above Airport - Height of the MDA

above the published airport elevation.
Applies to circling minimums.

58c. Explain: HAL

Height Above Landing - The height above a

designated helicopter landing area used for
helicopter instrument approach procedures.

58d. Explain: HAS

Height Above
Surface - The
height of the
MDA above the
highest
terrain /
surface within a
5200 ft. radius
of the MAP in
Point-In-Space
procedures.
(Helicopter only
procedures)

59. Explain how to compute the ETE when

listing an alternate on the DD Form 175.
The ETE to the alternate airfield should
include:
a. The time from the missed approach
point to the missed approach holding point to
include one circuit in the holding pattern.
b. Time from the missed approach
holding point to the alternate to include time
for approach and landing.

60. Concerning the IFR Crew Mission Brief, define

the two challenge rule and most conservative
response and give an example of how each could be
used.
Two
Challenge rule: If the P observes that the P* is not

following ATC instructions, is about to exceed some

aircraft parameter, etc, he will explicitly state the
condition up to two times. If the P* does not respond
properly, the P will take the appropriate action to correct
the situation.
Most conservative response: Closely associated with the
two challenge rule. If there is a disagreement in the
cockpit which cannot be resolved due to lack of
information or conflicting situational understanding, the
crew agrees in advance they will take the most
conservative action such as executing the missed
approach, requesting assistance from ATC, etc.

61. Answer the following about Temporary Flight

Restrictions (TFRs):
a. How does the pilot know a TFR is in effect?
NOTAM beginning with the phrase FLIGHT
RESTRICTIONS.
b. What is considered the normal altitude
and radius limits of a TFR?
2000 above the surface, 3 nm radius.
c. May ATC authorize operations in a TFR
under its own authority if the TFR is established for
an area hit by a tidal wave? Explain what
regulation authorizes/prevents ATC from doing so.
Yes because of 14 CFR Section 91.137(a)(2)

62. What are the normal components of an

IFR clearance?
1. Aircraft ID
2. Clearance limit
3. Departure procedure
4. Route of
flight
5.
Altitude data
6. Holding instructions
7. Special information
8. Frequency and
beacon information.

63a. What parts of a clearance should be

read back if the clearance is received
while on the ground?
On the ground, read back any portion that is
not completely understood or is requested
by ATC, as well as hold short instructions.
63b. What parts of a clearance should be
read back if the clearance is received
while on the ground? In the air?
In the air, read back altitude assignments or
radar vectors as a means of mutual
verification, all hold short instructions, and
altimeter settings.

64. When must position reports be made

on an IFR flight?
At designated compulsory reporting points
along airways and at each point on the flight
plan used to define a direct route.
Discontinue reports when informed the
aircraft is in Radar contact.

65. What are the components of a position

report?
1. ID
2. Position
3. Time
4. Altitude
5. ETA and name of next reporting
point
6. Name only of succeeding reporting
point
7. Remarks

66. What does the radio call consist of when

making initial contact with ATC on a direct flight
to a NAVAID in a non-radar environment?
In a radar environment?
Non-radar: On initial contact the pilot should
inform the controller of the aircrafts present
position, altitude, and time estimate for the next
reporting point.
Radar: Pilot should inform the controller of the
assigned altitude.
[level, climbing, or descending as
appropriate]

67. What reports must be made to ATC without

being requested?
At all times:
1. Vacating a previously assigned altitude
2. Altitude change while VFR on top
3. Unable to climb/descend 500 fpm
4. Missed approach
5. Change in TAS by 5% or 10 kts
6. Loss of nav/commo
capability
7. Information
related to safety of flight
8.
Unforecast weather or forecasted hazardous
conditions.

When not in radar contact:

1. Final approach fix inbound.
2. ETE error in excess of 3 minutes

68. When any part of the route beyond the

short range clearance limit differs from that
specified in the original flight plan, the clearance
must include what and why?
If any part differs the clearance will include
the proposed routing beyond said clearance
limit. When cleared to a fix short of filed
destination, additional clearance to proceed
beyond or instructions to hold must be issued
5 minutes prior to estimated arrival at that
fix.
Why? LOST COMMO!

69. What preflight planning items must

Army aviators evaluate prior to flight?
The aviator will evaluate aircraft
performance, departure, enroute and
approach data, notices to airmen (Notams),
and appropriate FLIP or DOD publications

70. How would you obtain NOTAM information

for Marianna Muni on a flight departing from
Cairns AAF?
NOTAM information for DOD aircrews is
obtained using the DOD internet NOTAM
Distribution system (DINS) which is derived
from the United States Consolidated NOTAM
Office at the FAA Air Traffic Control Systems
Command Center, Herdon, VA. (
WWW.NOTAMS.JCS.MIL).
Alternate location: (WWW.NOTAMS.FAA.GOV)

71. What is the difference between D, L,

and FDC NOTAMS?
D series (distant) NOTAMS covers all
navigation facilities, public airports,
seaplane bases, and heliports listed in the
Airport/Facilities Handbook, available thru
any FSS.
L series (local) NOTAMS includes information
such as taxiway closures, men and
equipment near runways, lighting outages,
etc. Distributed thru local FSS only
FDC NOTAMS contain information of a
regulatory nature, ie amendments to IAPs
and other current charts. Available thru any

72. What does the following DINS NOTAM

mean?
KDHN DOTHAN RGNL

RWY 32 MALSR OTS WIE UFN

Runway 32
Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System
with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights
Out of Service
With Immediate Effect
Until Further Notice

73a. When should the initial acceleration

be started during an ITO from the ground?
For IMC takeoff from the ground, adjust the
pitch attitude 2 bar widths below the horizon
to begin the initial acceleration AFTER takeoff
power is reached AND both the VSI and
altimeter show a positive climb.
73b. When should acceleration be started
on VMC takeoff with IMC transition?
For VMC takeoff from the ground, apply
forward cyclic to accelerate through ETL as
the aircraft leaves the ground (i.e. initiate a
normal VMC takeoff).

74. What is the proper pronunciation of the

following:
(Altitude) "2500, 10,000"
(Airspeed)"90"
(Time)
"Midnight"
(Frequency)
"126.9"
"Two thousand five hundred", "One zero
thousand"
"Niner zero knots" (controllers may omit the
word "knots" for airspeed adjustments ie.
"reduce speed to eight zero")
"Zero zero zero zero"
"One two six point niner"

75. What rate of climb must be obtained

on the VSI during an 80 kt climb (no wind)
to use standard takeoff minimums from
Rwy 3 at Tampa, Fl., Peter O'Knight
airfield? Explain in detail how you arrived
at your answer.
850 FPM. Can be computed on CPU-26A/P
dead reckoning computer or from
climb/descent chart in back of IAP's.
80

85
0
64
0

E6-B

76. Concerning TH-67 fuel management procedures:

a. How much fuel is required at takeoff on an IFR flight?

Enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate (if

required) and have a planned reserve of 30 min at
cruise.

b. When must the initial airborne fuel reading be

ccomplished?
accomplished?
Within 10 min of level off or entering mission profile

76c. How is the fuel consumption check and

monitoring performed?
1. Initiate by noting fuel remaining on analog gauge
and time; check FUEL FLOW indicating system to
ensure GAL REM within 3 gal of analog.
2. At 30 to 60 min after initial reading repeat same
actions, additionally verify FUEL FLOW within 3 gal of
predicted. If analog and GAL REM within 3 gal and
FUEL FLOW within 3 gal of predicted use the FUEL
FLOW indicating system time remaining to compute
burnout, if not use the fuel quantity gauge to
complete the check.
3. Periodically monitor fuel quantity and consumption
rate. If burn rate or consumption change repeat fuel
check.

77. What considerations should go into

selecting an enroute altitude for IFR
operations?
Weather, Direction of Flight, MEA, MOCA,
MAA, MRA, MCA, Aircraft Performance and Air
Traffic Control.

78. When should a direct flight be used

and what two basic enroute considerations
then become the pilots responsibility?
Only if the mission requires it or if
considerable savings of fuel or time can be
realized.
The pilot becomes responsible for obstruction
clearances and NAVAID range limitations.

79. Can an airfield listed as Official

Business Only or Prior Permission Required
(PPR) be used as an alternate for IFR
flights?
Official Business only and PPR do not
preclude the use of the airport as an
alternate for IFR flight.

80a. Why are military pilots required to

advise the TIE-IN FSS of their actual
departure time when departing from a
non-military
airfield?
The
pilot must
advise the tie-in Flight

Service Station serving that departure field

of his actual departure time. If the takeoff
time is not passed, the aircraft will arrive
unannounced at the destination.

***IMPORTANT Note: This is NOT for the

purpose of opening my flight plan. The
concern is arriving at military airfields
unannounced. The military base operation
needs to know when aircraft will arrive due
to VIP, parking, and servicing

80b. Who is responsible and what are the

procedures for closing flight plans?
To close flight plans:
Ref. AR 95-1, 5-5 e. PC will ensure flight plan
is closed per DOD FLIP.
Ref. GP para 5-32. Military base: verbal
confirmation with TWR or Base Ops; NonMilitary: close with FSS with any means
available.
AIM 5-1-13 IFR to an airport with an
operational TWR, the flight plan is
automatically closed upon landing at the
destination. However, GP still requires
military pilot to ensure it is closed with
FSS.

81. A severe thunderstorm should be

avoided by what distance if possible?
Twenty miles

82a. How much does the velocity of the surface

wind usually differ from the gradient wind as a
result of surface friction?
Friction will reduce the surface wind speed to
about 40 percent of the velocity of the wind
gradient.
82b. In what direction can one expect the
surface wind to vary from the gradient wind
and by how much?
The average surface wind will flow across
isobars toward the lower pressure at about a
30 deg angle.
slide)

(cont. next

82c. How could this affect instrument

approaches?
Inbound groundspeed and drift correction will
differ towards the bottom of an approach
from what was obtained at higher altitude.

83a. What is the chief hazard to flight in

the vicinity of a cold front?
Cold Front: Turbulence (may be extreme),
thunderstorms, lightning, heavy rain
showers, tornadoes, hail, and clear icing.
Also, strong, variable, gusty surface winds
around and under the thunderstorms.
slide)

(cont. next

83b. What is the chief hazard to flight in

the vicinity of a warm front?
Warm Front: Wide overcast area with low
ceilings and poor visibility ahead of the
front (200 miles or more). May encounter
embedded thunderstorms during warm
months and severe icing during winter.

84a. What are the different types of icing

and where can icing conditions most likely
be expected?
Clear, rime, a combination of clear and rime
(glime), or frost. Icing conditions should be
expected in cloud layers where the air
temperature ranges from +/- 4 degrees
Celsius to - 20 degrees Celsius.
slide)

(cont. next

84b. Outside of icing that can form in

thunderstorms What icing condition is
considered the most dangerous?
Freezing rain is the most dangerous icing
condition outside of thunderstorms. It can
build hazardous amounts of ice in a few
minutes, which is extremely difficult to break
loose.

85a. What three conditions are necessary for

the formation of fog?
1. High relative humidity - temp / dewpoint spread
of 0 to 2.2
degrees C.
2. Light wind - causes gentle mixing action.
3.Condensation
nuclei
- smoke, forms
dust ect...
85b.
What type of
fog normally
over the
southeastern U.S. during the winter months?
Advection fog normally forms over the
Southeastern U.S. during the winter
months--warm air from the Gulf of Mexico or
the Atlantic ocean moves over a cooler land
mass.

86a. What is the difference between AWOS3 and ASOS?

AWOS-3 reports Altimeter, wind, temp/dew
point, Density Altitude, visibility, and
clouds/ceiling.
ASOS reports everything that AWOS-3 does
plus precipitation and remarks.

86b. What is the receivable range of AWOS

and ASOS?
AWOS and ASOS both receivable to a
maximum range of 25nm and 10,000 AGL.
Local conditions may limit max reception
distance and / or altitude.

86c. Give one example of AWOS and one of

ASOS in the local area and state how you
could listen to them.
[ Examples]
IAP gives frequency. IFRS and A/FD give freq
and phone number.

87a. What is PMSV, how is it used, and

give an example of one in the local area.
[Example]
Direct pilot to forecaster service provided
by the USAF Air Weather Service. Full or
limited service as noted on chart and IFRS,
some less then continuous. Weather radar
available at selected sites. Range varies
with altitude (See FIH).
Radio call
for PMSV is "Metro".

87b. What is EFAS, how is it used, and

give an example of one in the local area.
[Example]
Provides timely weather advisories to enroute
aircraft by giving access to trained specialists
in selected AFSS's/FSS's. Continuous
communications are available at 5000 ft to
17,500 ft on frequency 122.0 mHz. Service is
available from 6am to 10 pm. Contact
Flight Watch by using the name of the Air
Route Traffic Control Center facility serving
the area of your location, the aircraft ID, and
the name of the nearest VOR

88a. What is an AIRMET, a SIGMET, and a

Convective SIGMET?
AIRMETs:
Sierra IFR conditions and/or extensive
mountain obscurations.
Tango Moderate turbulence, sfc wind 30
kts+, non-convective low-level wind shear.
Zulu Moderate icing and freezing level
heights.
SIGMETS: Severe icing, severe or extreme
turbulence, dust storms or sandstorms with
visibility below 3 miles, volcanic ash.
Convective SIGMETS: Severe, embedded, or lines
of thunderstorms. Implies severe or greater
turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear.

88b. If an AIRMET/SIGMET/Convective
SIGMET is issued as part of an Area
Forecast, does that mean the condition
will exist along the planned route of
flight? What must a pilot do?
The condition requiring the issuance
of a SIGMET or AIRMET could in fact exist
only in a small portion of the total forecast
area.
The pilot must determine
whether or not the condition would be
encountered and determine if he should
continue as planned, modify the plan, or
cancel the flight.

89. What is the flight crew requirement

for an IFR flight in a TH-67?
Minimum flight crew for IFR operations is two
pilots, one in the right front seat and one in
the left front seat. AR 95-1 para 4-24b allows
flight trainees undergoing instrument training
to be at one set of the controls provided the
other pilot is an IE or IP who is current and
qualified in the TH-67. Currency can be
maintained in an OH-58A/C per AR 95-1,
however the IP or IE would also have to have
passed an annual stan ride in the TH-67 in
order to perform those duties IFR.

90. What is the aircraft currency

requirement for an Army PI or PC?
If 60 days have elapsed since the last flight as PI
or PC in the mission, type, design, and series ( or
series group, para 4-19) to be flown, the aviator
will be administered a proficiency flight
evaluation.
Mission

Type

Design

OH-58D

Series

91.What are Special VFR (SVFR) minimums

for:
[Explain how you arrived at each
answer.]
a. Cairns AAF (KOZR)?
Cairns SVFR minimums published in AP/1
require 300 ft ceiling and mile visibility
daytime, 500 ft ceiling and 1 mile at night. Its
also listed on the board at Cairns Base
Operations.
b. Fort Bragg (KFBG), NC?
Simmons AAF minimums are mile visibility
and clear of clouds per AR 95-1 because a
higher minimum is not published. Note: When
looking up Fort Bragg in the IFRS it informs
you to see Simmons AAF.

92a. When planning to depart SVFR, what

would go in the TYPE FLT PLAN block on a
DD
V175?
because it is a VFR segment.
92b. Who would you contact to request a
SVFR clearance to depart or enter Class D
airspace?
The tower.

93. Would it be legal for an Army aviator with less

than 50 hours of weather experience as pilot in
command to depart from G pad at Cairns AAF
with an observation of 100 ft overcast, visibility
1/8 mile, fog, RWY 6 RVR 1400 ft.?
No, however it would be legal to depart from RWY
6 because RVR applies to the runway for which it
is reported.

94. You are planning an IFR flight to Troy Muni

(TOI) to arrive at noon and the ILS glideslope is
NOTAMd out of service.
a. State which approach procedure would allow
the minimum weather forecast to file there and
explain how you arrived at your answer. (minima
table next
click)
CATEGORY
A
S-ILS 7
3/4)
S-LOC 7

642-3/4

250

(300-

880-1

488

(500-1)

NDB 7

920-1

528

(600-1)

CIRCLING

940-1

543

(600-1)

PAR
PAR 77

642-1
642-1

250
250

(300-1)
(300-1)

Wx to file: 300-1/2 @ ETA + 1hr for PAR RWY 7

NOTE: You must have an alternate because
Radar is required for the approach to be

94 CONT. You are planning an IFR flight to Troy

Muni (TOI) to arrive at noon and the ILS
glideslope is NOTAMd out of service.
b. State which approach procedure would allow
the minimum weather forecast to file there
without listing an alternate and explain how you
arrived CATEGORY
at your answer.
A
S-ILS 7
3/4)
S-LOC7
S-LOC 7

642-3/4

250

(300-

880-1

NDB 7

920-1

528

(600-1)

CIRCLING

940-1

543

(600-1)

PAR 7

642-1

250

(300-1)

488
488 (500-1)
(500-1)

900 1-1/2 @ETA +1hr for LOC RWY 7.

95. NOTAM: PFN ASOS OTS.

State the minimum weather

forecast required to file IFR to Panama City (PFN), FL with
an ETA of 0100 local time and explain how you arrived at
your answer.
(minima table next)

300-1/4 @ ETA +1 hour. WX planning minimums must

be adjusted when a remote altimeter setting is used.
212+40=252 New MDA / 252-20=232 rounded
up= 300 ceiling

96. Dothan (DHN), AL, is your intended destination,

but for this flight you need an alternate and would like
to use Enterprise Muni (EDN), AL. What minimum WX
forecast would allow the use of EDN as your alternate?
(IAP and minima table next)

2200-3 @ ETA + 1hr using the transition from RRS.

EDN is unmonitored so VFR descent criteria is
applied. Must be enroute altitude, not PT or STEP-DOWN
FIX altitude.
2000 369 = 1631 + 500 = 2131 rounded up =

99a. What are the dimensions of class C

airspace?

Outer Area

4000 AGL

20 nm
Outer Ring10 nm

1200 AGL
Inner Ring

5 nm

*A basic design with minor site specific

variations*
5 NM inner ring from the
surface to 4000 ft. AGL.
10 NM outer
ring from 1200 ft AGL to 4000 ft. AGL.

Outer area 20 NM radius from lower level of

commo / radar coverage to ceiling of APP

99b. Is an ATC clearance required to enter

class C airspace VFR?
No. If the controller responds to a radio call
with, "(aircraft callsign) standby," radio
communications have been established and
the pilot can enter the airspace.
(Remember, class B requires a clearance.)

100. On a VFR flight, must you communicate with

anyone to depart from or land to an airfield
bordered by a magenta segmented line when the
weather is 1000 and 2 miles?

Yes. It is class "E" surface based airspace and Part

91.155 restricts entry into the airspace when ceiling is
below 1000 ft or visibility is less then 3 miles unless an
ATC clearance has been received.

101. When is a transponder with mode C required?

FAR 91-215 / AIM
1. In class A, B or C airspace areas
2. In all airspace above the ceiling and within the
lateral boundaries of class B or C airspace upward to
10,000 feet MSL.
3. Within 30 NM of an airport listed in Appendix D,
Section 1 of this part from the surface up to 10,000 ft
MSL.
4. Within 10 NM of an airport listed in Appendix D,
Section 2 of this part from the surface to 10,000 ft
MSL excluding the airspace below 1200 ft AGL outside
of the lateral boundaries of the surface area of the
airspace designated for that airspace.
5. In all airspace of the 48 contiguous states and the
District of Columbia at and above 10,000 ft MSL,
excluding the airspace below 2500 ft AGL.

102. Is it legal to file IFR through a

Restricted Area? Through a MOA?

Yes.

ATC will clear an aircraft through

the areas IFR if the areas are not active
or if separation can be provided with the
using agency.

103. What minimum rate of descent is

needed at 90 kts ground speed during final
approach for the NDB-C at Marianna Muni,
FL (MAI)?
E6-B
600fpm
1080
1:48
600 fpm
NOTE: A greater rate of descent than 500fpm
may sometimes be necessary due to high
ground speeds or short final approach
segments so that visual reference with the
runway environment can be established as
early as possible before reaching the missed
approach point.

104. Explain how to fly the VOR missed

approach procedure at Cairns AAF if visual
contact with the ground is lost while circling
south to land to Rwy 24.
24

18

36

POOF!
Visual contact lost

Make initial climbing turn towards the

landing runway and continue the turn until
established on the missed approach course.

105. Give at least 5 situations where a

procedure turn would not be flown.
1. When being radar vectored to final.
2. When arriving from over a NO PT fix.
3. When a holding pattern is published in lieu of a
procedure turn.
4. When flying a timed approach from a holding fix.
5. When cleared for a contact approach.
6. When cleared for a visual approach.
7. When cleared for a straight-in approach.

106. Explain the difference between a visual

approach and a contact approach.
Visual Approach: An IFR approach clearance that can
be given by ATC when the WX is at least 1000
ceiling and 3 miles visibility. The pilot must
remain clear of clouds and have either the airport
or preceding aircraft in sight.
Contact Approach: An IFR approach clearance that
can only be initiated by the pilots request. The
pilot must remain clear of clouds, have at least 1
mile visibility, and can reasonably expect to
continue to the destination airport in those
conditions. Pilot assumes responsibility for
obstruction clearance.

107. Explain the difference between being

cleared for a straight in approach versus a
straight in landing.
Straight in Approach means executing an
instrument approach procedure with no
procedure turn.
Straight in landing is landing on a runway aligned
within 30 degrees of the final approach course
(as opposed to performing a circle-to-land
maneuver).

108. You are departing Tallahassee Regional, FL (TLH) IFR from the
intersection of taxi ways A and M and the WX is 300 ceiling
and 3/4 mile visibility. CLNC DEL cleared you direct to the SZW
VOR at 2000 ft. The tower says "Pick 123, fly heading 290,
cleared for takeoff". After takeoff, do you maintain 290 degrees
or turn direct to the SZW VOR passing through 400 AGL? Why?

Maintain heading 2900

Pilots operating in a
radar environment are
expected to associate
departure headings with
vectors to their planned
route of flight.

109. You are on an IFR flight from Dothan, AL to

Tallahassee, FL. You are cleared direct RRS, V-7
SZW, climb maintain 3000, expect 4000 at OALDY
intersection.
a. If commo is lost 2 miles prior to OALDY
and you are IMC, what altitudes would you fly for
the remainder of the flight?
2000

2500
RRS

V7
OALDY

SAIML

MAUNA

SZW

Maintain 3000 until reaching OALDY since this

altitude is higher than the MEA of 2500, upon
crossing OALDY climb to and maintain 4000 since
this altitude is higher than the MEA for the
airway.

109b. What altitudes would you fly if commo

was lost 2 miles after crossing OALDY?
cleared direct RRS, V-7 SZW, maintain 3000,
expect 4000 at OALDY intersection
2000

2500
RRS

V7
OALDY

SAIML

MAUNA

SZW

Maintain 3000 because you have already gone

beyond the fix that the expected change in altitude
was to take place and this altitude is higher than
the published MEA for the remainder of the airway.

110. When may a pilot leave a clearance

limit if communications with ATC have
been lost?
1. When the clearance limit is a fix from
which an approach begins, commence
descent and approach as close as
possible to the expect further clearance
time if one has been received, or if one
has not been received, as close as
possible to the expected time of arrival
as calculated from the filed or amended
(with ATC) estimated time enroute.
(continued)

110. (continued)
2. If the clearance limit is not a fix from
which an approach begins, leave the
clearance limit at the expect further
clearance time if one has been received, or
if none has been received, upon arrival over
the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix
from which an approach begins and
commence descent or descent and
approach as close as possible to the
estimated time of arrival as calculated from
the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated
time enroute

111. You are on a radar vector of 330 degrees, 3000

and exactly halfway between the BKK NDB (Bonifay, FL)
and the RUCKR LOM (ELA L-18 panel F). The weather is
1500 SCT, 10,000 BKN and 4 miles visibility. You were
last told to expect the ILS RWY 6 to Cairns AAF. If
communications with ATC has been lost and all attempts
to re-establish communications fail, what would you do?

7600
VFR

Maintain VMC, SQUAWK 7600, proceed VFR to

Cairns AAF and land as soon as practicable by
entering the traffic pattern and watching for
light gun signals from the tower.

112a. How could you obtain an IFR

clearance departing from BonifayTricounty, FL?
1. Contact Gainesville FSS by phone.
2. Contact Cairns Approach Control by phone.
3. If able to remain VFR, depart VFR and call
FSS or APP CON by radio.

112b. List 3 ways to close an IFR flight plan to BonifayTricounty.

1. Attempt commo with Gainesville FSS on standard
122.2 / 255.4
2. Attempt commo with Gainesville FSS on 122.1 and
receive via MAI VOR on 114.0
3. Contact ATC (Cairns APP) before landing.
4. Contact FSS by telephone after landing.
5. Contact ATC (Cairns APP) by telephone after landing.
6. Relay through another aircraft. (Not a reliable
method for planning)
NOTE: Search and rescue protection is lost when IFR is
cancelled in the air, however ATC prefers this because
it frees up the airspace.

113. When making an IFR approach to an

airport not served by a control tower or FSS,
after ATC advises "Change to advisory
frequency approved", what information should
the pilot broadcast over the advisory
frequency?
Pilots should broadcast intentions, including the
type of approach being executed, position, when
over the final approach fix inbound (nonprecision
approach) or when over the outer marker or fix
used in lieu of the outer marker inbound
(precision approach). Continue to monitor the
appropriate freq for reports from other pilots.

114a. If you request and are cleared to

maintain VFR on top while on an IFR flight
plan, must you maintain basic cloud clearance
and should you use IFR or VFR altitudes?
Yes, you must maintain basic cloud clearance
(aircraft must comply with basic VFR weather
minimums) and fly at the appropriate VFR
altitude. (Pilots should advise ATC prior to any
altitude change to ensure the exchange of
accurate traffic information.)

114b. What is an over-the-top flight and

associated limits?
It is a VFR flight above a cloud or fog layer
which can not exceed 30 minutes unless the
aircraft is equipped for IMC and all IFR
requirements can be met for the remainder
of the flight.

115. List 3 ways you can land at your

destination from an IFR flight without
flying an instrument approach procedure.
Give examples of when this could be used
to your advantage.
1. Contact approach
2. Visual approach
3. Cancel IFR
Good weather, low fuel, Approach procedure
on other side of airport.

116. What is the minimum weather to permit

filing an IFR flight plan to the Dothan Regional
Airport with the MALSR for RWY 32 out of
service? Explain how you arrived at your
answer. (FLIP on next click)
200 3/8 at ETA plus 1
hr.

The wx planning
minimums visibility
must FIRST be
increased according
to the Inop
Components Table in
the front of the IAP
Vol-12 by mile,
THEN the 50%
reduction on CAT A
minimums can be
applied.

117. Define the following:

a. Hover taxi.
Movement in ground effect at speeds less than
approximately 20 kts.
b. Air taxi.
Up to 100 ft AGL at speeds more than 20 kts.
Pilot is solely responsible for selecting safe
altitude/airspeed.

118. During crew mission briefings, the PC

must discuss the ________ ________ of the
mission from takeoff to touchdown.

critical aspects
What are the minimum critical aspects on every IFR
flight?

The IFR CRITICAL 11 Minutes!!

Approximately 84% of IFR accidents happen during the
first
3 minutes of takeoff and the last 8 minutes
of the approach.
Proper P* and P duties during the ITO and on Final
Approach are crucial!