CRIME DETECTION AND

INVESTIGATION (15%)

RODOLFO V. CASTILLO JR.,RCrim., LPT, Ph.D.

 CRIME DETECTION AND
INVESTIGATION(15%)
Fund. of Criminal Inv.(2.7%=18)
Special Crime Inv. (2.7%=18)
Traffic Mngt. & Acc Inv.(2.4%=16)
Organized Crime Inv. (2.4%=16)
Drug Educ. and Vice Control (2.4%=16)
Fire Tech. and Arson Inv. (2.4%=16)
FUNDAMENTALS
OF CRIMINAL
INVESTIGATION
1. Comprehensively, criminal investigation is
defined as an art or process which deals with the
identity, location and arrest of a person who is
suspected to commit a crime and simultaneously
recognize, collect, preserve and evaluate
information for the purpose of –
A. arresting criminal suspect for prosecution, trial
and punishment
B. bringing criminal offender to justice
C. imposing punishment after proving his guilt
beyond reasonable doubt
D. Making the criminal answerable for the
commission of an offense
2. Through this tool of criminal investigation
tangible things can be used to detect crimes,
identify the criminals, facilitate, and assist the
investigator in its task in achieving the objectives
of criminal investigation. This refers to which Three
I’s of criminal investigation?
A. Information
B. Criminalistics
C. Instrumentation
D. Interview/Interrogation
3. Which principle of crime investigation
that will essentially answers vital facts
about the case necessary for its
prosecution?
A. Cardinal points
B. Three I’s
C. Exchange principle
D. Three Bridges
4. Coerced and uncounselled
statements are considered involuntary
or forced confession which are -
A. judicial in nature
B. usually extra judicial
C. basically prosecutorial
D. not allowed by law
5. Establishing corpus delicti is indispensable in any
criminal investigation. Its elements are:
i. Proof of the occurrence of certain event
ii. Person’s criminal responsibility for the acts
iii. Additional evidence of a different character to the
same point
iv. Cadaver of the dead victim or evidence of the
stolen property
A. i and iii
B. ii an iv
C. i and ii
D. iv only
6. What fact finding method should
be used by the investigator for him to
visualize the crime and verify
confession made by the suspect?
A. Mental reconstruction
B. Crime reenactment
C. Reconstruction
D. Physical reconstruction
7. Which of the following need NOT be present
in order to prove the guilt of the accused by
means of confession or admission?
A. Confession must be supported by
corroborative evidence
B. Corpus delicti must be established
separately
C. Confession must be voluntarily and freely
given
D. Confession must be ratified by the judge or
the fiscal
8. You are lawman, investigating a suspected rape-slaying case
which was allegedly witnessed by a certain person who
volunteered to identify and testify against the perpetrator.
Factors that you should consider in determining the accuracy of
identifying the suspect are:
1. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance
of the suspect
2. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when
the crime was committed
3. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of the
crime
4. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when
identification was made
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
9. You are an investigator who inquired on the alleged
robbery with homicide case perpetrated by an
unknown suspects. Since there are no witnesses to
the crime. One of the following is the LEAST factor
that may give you a hint to identify the suspect.
A. Motive and opportunity
B. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation
for a commission of crime and possession of fruits of
a crime of the perpetrator
C. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and
criminal potentiality
D. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could
easily be adopted to criminal use by the suspect
10. In this tracing of fugitive, covert
observation of a person, place, or
things by human or technical means
to acquire information is employed?
Which is described?
A. Surveillance
B. Stationary surveillance
C. Mobile
D. Technical
11. PMSg Dar concealed his true identity
and assumed role as a drug peddler to
obtain information about the identity of
drug lords in the Visayas Region. Which
investigation technique is being described?
A. Undercover assignment
B. Dwelling assignment
C. Work assignment and social
assignment
D. Personal contact assignment
12. In crime scene reconstruction, you
have to analyze the following, EXCEPT -
A. Suspect’s arrival at the crime scene
and his place of entry
B. Suspect’s movement from point of
entry and his contact with the victim
C. Suspect’ place of exit from the scene
D. Suspect’s modus operandi and
method of concealment to avoid
detection
13. PSMS Florenz Santos is examining a crime
scene, which a dead victim sustained a
gunshot wound in the head with a handgun
near his hand. He was informed that the victim
had a painful terminal illness. Santos
concluded that the wound is self inflicted. This
is an example which the investigator use what
kind of reasoning?
A. Deductive
B. Logical
C. Reasonable
D. Inductive
14. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a
crime, the investigator rational theory of the crime
may begins with deductive logic and later on
inductive logic; Statement no. 2. A rational theory
of crime is more than a learned guess, but less than
a certainty, but have very high order of probability.
A. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is
false
B. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is
true
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
15. After reconstructing the crime scene, the
following are the minimal requirements to be
observed by the inves­tigator to insure
admissibility of photographs in court, EXCEPT:
A. The object which is represented should not
be immater­ial or irrelevant
B. The photograph should not unduly incite
prejudice and sympathy
C. The photograph should be free from
distortion
D. The photograph should be clearly developed
16. Photographs to be taken at the scene
of the crime, EXCEPT -
A. Over-All and environment’s
photograph
B. Photographs of articles of evidence
and photographs of the deceased
C. Photographs of the scene of the
crime operatives showing their identity
D. Special techniques photograph of the
body after removal
17. In searching for physical evidence at
the crime scene, the following types of
search could be used depending upon
locale, number of personnel available,
type of object sought and speed desired.
Which is NOT?
A. Strip and double strip or grid search
B. Zone search
C. Rectangular and circular search
D. Spiral and wheel search
18. Which of the following must be
done to maintain the LEGAL integrity of
evidence?
A. Evidence must be properly
documented
B. Maintain its chain of custody
C. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
D. Photographed and packaged the
evidence
19. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the
following must be demonstrated EXCEPT –
A. The evidence must be free from alteration and
contamination
B. The evidence offered is the same evidence
found at the scene
C. There is no opportunity to replace or
improperly alter the evidence
D. Any change in the condition of the evidence
can be explained
20. In interviewing a witness, question-and-
answer type is preferable written statement
because -
A. it is easier to profound questions and answer
will be brief and concise
B. it is easier to develop or prove the essential
elements of an offense
C. it is objective and reflects of what he actually
perceived
D. it is convenient
21. Pursuant to Republic Act No. 7438
immediate members of the family are as
follows, EXCEPT -
A. Spouse, fiancée, parents, child, brother
or sister
B. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great
granddaughter/grandson
C. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward
D. Relatives, adopted friends and foster
parents
22. The interview of a witness can be
described by the acronym IRONIC,
which stands for:
A. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization,
Novelty, Identity, Continuity
B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent,
Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
C. Identity, Recognition, Opening
statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement,
Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
23. In criminal invstigation, it refers to
the application of all procedures for the
search of missing persons. Which of
these?
A. Rogues gallery
B. Tracing
C. Manhunt
D. order of battle
24. Statement No. 1-The systematic procedure for
verbal description of a person after a short period
of visual observation is termed Portrait Parle;
Statement No. 2-Description of police characters
which a witness may refer and that is kept by police
unit for purpose of references is Rogue’s Gallery.
A. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No.
2 is incorrect
B. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is
incorrect
C. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
25. Under Republic Act 7438, in
which moment police custody of
suspect to a crime commences?
A. At the time of custodial
investigation
B. During the actual questioning
C. During the announcement that he
is under arrest
D. At the time that he is invited for
questioning
26. Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search,
the searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radius or spokes. Statement no.
2- In wheel method, the searchers follow each
other along the path of a spiral, beginning on the
outside and spiraling in toward the center.
A. Statement No. 1 is correct
B. Statement No. 2 is incorrect
C. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
27. According to a known author, criminal
investigative activities virtually deals with -
A. recognition and collection of facts which may
be sensory, documentary and physical forms
B. preservation and evaluation of information
gathered from the regular, cultivated and
grapevine sources
C. persons and things
D. searching and arresting criminals
Notes:
Additional Functions /Powers of the PNP in Relation
to Criminal Investigation (Section 1, R.A. 10973,
March 1, 2018)
1. Administer oath; and
2. Issue subpoena and subpoena duces tecum in
relation to its investigation.
PNP Officers Empowered
1. Chief, PNP
2. Director of the CIDG
3. Deputy Director for Administration of the CIDG
SPECIAL CRIME
INVESTIGATION
28. Vincent killed his adopter after the rendition of
judgment of the petition for adoption. Vincent
should be charged with -
A. the crime of parricide
B. the crime of murder
C. the crime of homicide
D. the crime of murder qualified by obvious
ungratefulness
29. Considered to be the beginning
of any homicide investigation is the
process of determining-
A. the accurate cause of death
B. who is responsible for the death
C. how the victim was killed
D. when the victim was killed
30. Which of the following is the primary role of
the investigator upon arrival at the homicide
scene?
A. Verification of death
B. Identification of the person who is responsible
for the death
C. Call a physician for the proper declaration of
death
D. Secure the scene
31. You are a police officer who responded in a
violent crime just recently occurred. How will you
determine signs of death?
A. By detecting signs of breathing and
respiratory movement
B. By hearing heart sounds
C. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a
person
D. Any of them
32. In order to introduce physical
evidence in trial, three important
factors may be considered. Which is
NOT?
A. The article must be properly
identified
B. Continuity or chain of custody
C. Legality of the procurement
D. Competency must be proved, that
the evidence is material and relevant
33. You are a police officer responding to a crime
which there is a dying person. You will obtain
dying declaration from him. Which of the
following is NOT one of your duties in regard to
dying declaration?
A. Observe the victim as to whether he is
manifesting a feeling of his impending death
B. Observe carefully the mental condition of the
victim and jot down immediately his statements
C. Attempt to save the life of the victim
D. Avoid leading questions and produce the
statement.
34. Before the dead body is removed from the crime scene, the
investigator must be sure that the following had already been
performed.
1. Crime scene search, sketch and photograph taken.
2. Possible witnesses are identified, leads taken into
considerations and relative position of the body was determined.
3. Notes are properly taken cared, evidence are identified,
collected and preserved.
4. Close coordination between the medico-legal officer, the
prosecutor and the homicide investigator was established.
A. 1 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
35. Livor mortis is manifested by
the __________ of the dead body.
A. discoloration
B. hardening of the muscles
C. cooling
D. rising of the cadaver
36. Physical description, methods of
operation, hiding places, and the names and
associates of known criminals are compiled
in a storage known as -
A. Police Blotter
B. Rogue’s Gallery
C. Police Report
D. Police Log
37. One night, while high on drugs, Alex
threw the 3 days old son of his sister
down the stairs, which caused the same
to die. You will charge Alex with a crime
of -
A. homicide
B. infanticide
C. murder
D. parricide
38. Which of the following is
NOT a crime against persons?
A. Physical injury
B. Mutilation
C. Abduction
D. Parricide
39. The notion, which declares that human
behavior tends to repeat itself, can serve
as basis of the investigator in determining -
A. criminal behavior
B. modus operandi
C. nature of the crime
D. criminal intent
40. A crime of abortion is committed by
forcible expulsion of a _____ from the
mother’s womb.
A. person
B. baby
C. fetus
D. child
41. Responding in a recently occurred violent
crime, you found a lying fatally wounded
male person. Which of the following signs
that will make you conclude that a person is
already dead?
A. Drying of his mouth
B. Cessation of his circulation
C. Cessation of his respiration
D. Cooling of his body
42. Responding in a violent crime, you find a tool at the
crime scene, you should first of all -
A. pick it up for closer examination taking care not to jar
it
B. wait for the crime scene to be sketched,
photographed and measured
C. immediately collect it and always send it to the crime
laboratory for scientific examination
D. compare the cutting edge of the tool with the
impressions to determine if this was the tool used in the
crime
43. Any person who killed his father, mother
or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or
any of his ascendants, or his spouse,
committed the crime of parricide. Lucas
killed his spouse Belen. As investigator, the
BESt evidence that you can prove the crime
against Lucas is the -
A. death certificate of Belen
B. weapon used
C. marriage contract
D. testimony of the eyewitness
44. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the
offender must have the intent to kill the victim. If
there is no intent to kill, the offender is liable for-
A. physical injury
B. homicide
C. serious physical injury
D. consummated physical injury
45. Cunnilingus performed
upon a woman against her will
constitutes what crime against
person?
A. Rape
B. Homicide
C. Duel
D. Act of lasciviousness
46. In what order would the steps be
done by the investigator upon the finding
of an evidential cigarette butt?
1. Making sketch
2. Photographing
3. Recording
A. 2, 1 and 3
B. 3, 2 and 1
C. 2, 3 and 1
D. 1, 2 and 3
47. In the course of investigating the house where a
stabbing took place, police find what to be bloodstains on
the front door. Since the unknown perpetrator and the
victim who may die were both have cut, their identities
need to be established through the bloodstains. How will
the police collect the stains?
A. Moisten a piece of clean cotton with a saline solution
and rub gently
B. Remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
C. Scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor
blade
D. Blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol
48. Once the crime scene has been
thoroughly documented and locations of
evidence was noted, the collection
process begins and will usually starts
with the –
A. point of exit
B. large objects
C. fragile evidence
D. removal of the cadaver
49. How can plaster cast and
photograph be marked for
identification?
A. Affixing a seal on the front
B. Marking at the back
C. No mark at all
D. Tagging
50. You were a police officer who
responded in a shooting incident.
Upon arrival at the scene, the
suspect flee while shooting at you.
What actions would you take?
A. Attend to the injured victim
B. Save life
C. Shoot back at the suspect
D. Call a back up
51. The fundamental value of the information
which an officer present in the court is
affected most by the-
A. techniques used by the defense in cross
– examination
B. ability of the prosecutor to make
appropriate objections
C. thoroughness of the officer’s original
investigation
D. attentiveness of the prosecutor
52. Which of the following body system
coincide the stopping of a mental organ
function of a person to medically “dead”?
A. Cardiac
B. Central nervous
C. Respiratory
D. Digestive
53. Criminal investigation process include the
following activities:
1. Photographing, measuring, sketching and
searching crime scene
2. Identification, collection and examination of
evidence
3. Questioning victims, if alive, witnesses and
suspects and recording statements
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
54. You are the first responder in an
outdoor crime scene. How will you protect it
from the onlookers?
A. Establish a command center
B. Barricade and guard it
C. Lock the door of the crime scene
D. Call and wait for the arrival of the SOCO
55. Physical Evidence is important in criminal
investigation to:
1. Reconstruct the crime
2. Identify the participants
3. Confirm or discredit an alibi
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
56. What is the principal psychological factor that
contributes to a successful interrogation?
A. Privacy
B. Rapport between the interrogator and the
subject
C. Legality
D. It should be done in the interrogation room with
one way mirror
57. You are a Criminologist-Police Investigator who
prepare an investigation report. Part of the report is
the statement executed by an illiterate suspect who
was recently arrested. Who shall read and explain
to him the content of the said report?
A. You, as an officer in case
B. The arresting officer
C. His counsel or assisting counsel
D. Lawyer from Public Attorney’s Office (PAO)
58. Situation/s that the Miranda Rule does NOT apply,
EXCEPT:
1. Interview of suspect who are not under custody, and
in custody, but are not considered a suspect and not
questioned
2. Questioning initiated by the police after a person has
been taken into custody
3. Volunteered statements of a person in custody and
general on-the-scene questioning
4. Statements made by the suspect to a private party
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 3 and 4
59. Circumstantial evidence refers to facts or
circumstances from which, either alone or in connection
with other facts, the identity of the person can be
inferred. Which must be inferred to prove person's
identity by circumstantial evidence?
1. Motive that induces the person to act
2. Intent the result or accomplishment of the act
3. Opportunity, the physical possibility that the suspect
could have committed the crime
4. Capacity,the intellectual and physical ability to execute
the crime
A. 1,2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
60. As a standard practice, police blotter logbook contains
the following, EXCEPT-
1. Official summaries of arrest
2. Daily registry of all crime incident reports
3. Directives from the superior officer
4. Other significant events reported in a police station
5. News reports involving heinous crimes
6. Records of all types of operational and undercover
dispatches
A. 3 and 5
B. 1, 2, 4 and 6
C. 1, 3 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
61. Assume that you are a Criminologist-
Police Investigator. You suspected that a
case of a dead body which was indorse to
you for investigation is homicidal. What
should be your FIRST action to establish the
cause of death?
A. Interview the victim’s relatives
B. Thoroughly examine the dead body
C. Conduct post mortem examination of the
dead body
D. Call a medico legal officer
62. Persons arrested, detained or under custodial
investigation are provided by law with certain rights under
the Miranda Doctrine. These rights however can be waived
in writing in the presence of competent and independent
counsel of his choice. Which are these rights?
1. Right to remain silent
2. Right to counsel
3. Right to be visited
4. Right to be informed of those rights
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
63. Transient loss of consciousness
with temporary cessation of the vital
functions of the body. Which is
described?
A. Death
B. State of suspended animation
C. Coma
D. Rigor mortis
64. Sex of fire victims can be
determined:
1. Through bones and long bones
2. Through skulls
3. Through Pelvis
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 1,2 and 3
65. Which of the following evidence obtained from
the Crime Scene that maybe subjected to scientific
analysis?
1. Weapons, marks of tools used to gain access to
locked premises or containers
2. Blood stains, impression, dust, and dirt traces
3. Questioned documents and miscellaneous trace
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of them
66. Sketch effectively exhibits the
actual measurements and of identify
significant items of evidence in their
location at the scene. Hence it –
A. supplements photographic evidence
B. is a strong documentary evidence
C. should be diligently prepared
D. is indispensable skill that an
investigator possess
Sketching Methods
1. Station method- good way to measure a long distances
on a highway.
2. Triangulation method-good way to measure irregular
areas on unpaved roads that do not have clean-cut edges
or curves or on very sharp curves where things cannot be
easily located from the edges.
3. Cross-projection- method for making a sketch of the
inside of a room. It is done by drawing th walls as if they
were folded down flat on the floor. Very good where there
are bullet holes or bloodstains on the wall or ceilings.
67. Physical evidence must be
protected from accidental, intentional
and even from natural alterations to –
A. maintain its legal integrity
B. maintain its physical integrity
C. present it in court in the same
substantial condition as it is at the time
the offense was committed
D. avoid casting doubts as to its
authenticity
 
68. Each person handling an item
of evidence from the time of
discovery until presentation in court
must take certain safeguards. This
total processed is called –
A. integrity of evidence
B. standards of comparison
C. physical disposition
D. chain of custody
69. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of
the body, which is always to occur in
case of death. What is that condition
characterized by spontaneous
stiffening of certain group of
muscles?
A. Heat stiffening
B. Cold stiffening
C. Livor mortis
D. Cadaveric spasm
70. If post-mortem rigidity would
suggest approximate time of death,
cadaveric spasm will suggest –
A. duration of death
B. age of the victim
C. cause of death
D. none of the above
71. What type of an instrument will
cause an incised wound?
A. Blunt
B. Sharp edge and sharp pointed
C. Sharp edge
D. Sharp pointed instrument
72. One important characteristic of
the gunshot wound of exit is that
the–
A. edge is everted
B. edge is inverted
C. size is smaller than the missile.
D. shape is round or oval
73. The purpose of the autopsy is to
determine which of the following?
A. The actual cause of death of the victim
B. The modus operandi involved
C. The actual killer of the victim
D. The motive behind the killing
74. You are in charge with crime scene processing involving
a dead body. Which of the following tasks you NEED to
performed before removing the dead body from the crime
scene?
1. Crime scene have been sketched
2. Photographs have been taken .
3. Initial reports have been prepared
4. Notes were properly taken
5. Evidence were identified, collected and preserved
A. 1, 3 and 5
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2 and 4
75. Physical evidence like DNA is a potent evidence that will
lead to the conviction of the perpetrator of a crime of violence if
the following critical points will be strictly observed:
1.Documentation of Physical Evidence at the Crime Scene
2.Proper Collection of Evidence for Examination
3.Preservation
4.Marking of Evidence
5.Individual Packaging and Sealing
6.Proper Chain of Custody
A. 1,3 and 5 only
B. 2, 4 and 6 only
C. 1 and 6 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
76. Assume that you are a Criminologist-Law Enforcement
Officer. If a person you have arrested waives his right
against self-incrimination and chooses to give his statement,
it is your duty as the arresting officer to ensure that the
waiver is –
A. ratified by his own chosen competent counsel
B. made in writing and signed by the arrested person in the
presence of a counsel of his own choice
C. duly notarized by competent authority residing in the
same locality
D. signed by the arrested person in the presence of his
next-of-kin or immediate relative/s and a lawyer
 
77. Called “Exclusionary Rules” whereby evidence
obtained in violation of thereof is inadmissible.
1. Rights against unreasonable search and
seizures
2. Right to privacy of communication and
correspondence
3. In-custodial investigation rights and right against
self-incrimination
4. Right to counsel
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
78. Rape by fraudulent machinations under
Republic Act 8353 can be committed either among
the choices, EXCEPT one.
A. Promise to marry
B. Prostitute who has not been paid as agreed
C. Person in authority who arrest another and
having sex with the latter with the promise of
release from custody
D. Sexual intercourse while the victim is
unconscious or otherwise deprive of reason
79. A case wherein the violation of law or
ordinances has just been unearthed or
discovered and the suspect and witness are
still emotionally affected, upset, or shocked.
Which of these?
A. Hot case
B. Cold case
C. In flagrante delicto case
D. Hot pursuit case
 TRAFFIC
MANAGEMENT AND
ACCIDENT
INVESTIGATION
80. The narrow portion of the
roadway due to traffic congestion or
where “build up” usually occurs is
called –
A. gridlock
B. congestion
C. traffic jam
D. bottleneck
81. If the driver is involved in a traffic
accident, he must report to the nearest police
station -
A. within 48 hours
B. within 72 hours
C. after 3 hours
D. at once
82. Maintenance and construction of roads,
traffic ways and other traffic facilities by the
DPWH, City Engineer’s Office, City or
Municipal Council falls under the function of
traffic -
A. engineering
B. education
C. enforcement
D. economy
83. Human errors as one of the cause of
traffic congestion is best characterized by the
following conditions, EXCEPT –
A. poor legislative activities
B. slow drivers or bad driving habit
C. lack of foresight on the part of
pedestrians
D. presence of traffic officers
84. The Land Transportation Office (LTO) is
under the ________, and part of traffic
_______.
A. DILG-engineering
B. DOTr-enforcement
C. DPWH-engineering
D. DEPED-traffic education
85. The study of biorhythm is an important
aspect of traffic safety because a person can
avoid accident by–
A. hinting on how he will tend to feel in a
certain day
B. knowing his intellectual capacity on
certain day
C. knowing his physical capacity on certain
day
D. ascertaining his physical, emotional and
intellectual condition in a certain day
86. What is the primary aim of driver
instruction programs?
A. To teach the rudiments of driving
B. To instill awareness of one’s legal
and moral responsibilities in traffic
C. To teach the abilities required for
one to be eligible for a driving
license
D. To help the learners know the
basic of traffic rules and regulations
87. It refers to the process of
ascertaining, from whatever
information available to figure out, how
motor vehicular accident transpired?
A. Reconstruction
B. Investigation
C. Assessment
D. Analysis
 
88. How will you classify a motor vehicle
traffic accident which an unidentified road
user flees immediately thereafter?
A. Hit and run cases
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident
C. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. Non motor vehicle none traffic accident
Chain of Events in Vehicular Accidents
1. Perception of hazards- the discernment and understanding of
the usual or unexpected movement or condition that could lead to
accident.
2. Start of Evasive action- the initial action taken by traffic unit to
escape collision
3. Initial contact- the immediate physical contact or collision of two
vehicles.
4. Maximum engagement- stage which full forces of two vehicles
are at its peak.
5. Disengagement- separation of traffic units from collision as result
of opposing momentum
6. Stopping- absence of movement of the colliding vehicles due to
reduction and loss of force or power.
7. Injury- the incurring of harm to the persons involved.
89. Which stage of the chain of events of
motor vehicle traffic accident that the
driver/s involved sees, feels or hears and
understands the unusual or unexpected
condition indicative of a sign that the
accident might takes place?
A. Perception of hazards
B. Initial contact
C. Starts of evasive action
D. Maximum engagement
90. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the
brakes were applied strongly, hence the wheels
locked, and not free to rotate. Which is described?
A. Skid marks
B. Key event
C. Scuff marks
D. Debris
91. Which of the following are considered
emergency vehicle, hence must be given
preference in the road?
1. Police car on call
2. Fire truck on call
3. Ambulance on call
4. Physician’s car
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. Only 4
92. Based on statistical records, the
most common cause of road accident in
the Philippines is -
A. road condition
B. whether condition
C. pedestrian
D. reckless driving
93. Which term that refers to the
movement of persons, goods, and
vehicles, powered either by animal or
animal-drawn, or by combustion
system?
A. Engineering
B. Traffic management
C. Traffic
D. Construction
94. Which traffic devices that
are mounted on a portable
support where a message to the
road users is conveyed by
means of words or symbols?
A. Traffic light
B. Traffic signs
C. Traffic island
D. Pavement marking
95. The effectiveness of traffic law
enforcement program is BEST measured
by which of the following?
A. Decrease in the ratio of convictions to
enforcement actions
B. Reduction of traffic accidents and
delay
C. Increase in traffic enforcement actions
D. None of the foregoing
96. You are a police officer who wants
to determine whether a driver is
authorized to drive. What is the
evidence that you will ask him to show
that he is allowed by the Land
Transportation Office (LTO) to operate
a vehicle on public highways?
A. Driver’s ID
B. Franchise
C. Driver’s license
D. Operator’s license
97. Which of the following evidence is
important to gather from fatal motor crash?
1. Spare tire
2. Footwear of driver and skid mark of vehicle
3. Unusual odor
4. Driver’s license
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 and 4
98. What is that painted marks on the
pavement placed at intersections and
other places to provide pedestrians
with safety zone when crossing called?
A. Center
B. Lane
C. Cross walk
D. Stop lines
99. Motor vehicle accident occurs at a
place other than on a highway is
considered as -
A. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
B. non-motor vehicle traffic accident
C. motor vehicle traffic accident
D. motor vehicle accident
100. What is the nature of a motor
vehicular accident that resulted to the
death of a puppy?
A. Fatal accident
B. Non-fatal accident
C. Property damage
D. Vehicular accident
101. You were instructed by your supervisor to conduct accident
investigation of a collision between two vehicles. You are now
trying to reconstruct the chain of events of the said accident.
Which should be the chronological arrangement of events?
A. (1) maximum engagement(2) stopping or resting (3) perception
of the hazard (4) initial contact (5) start of evasive action- (6)
disengagement
B. (1) initial contact (2) maximum engagement(3) stopping or
resting (4) perception of the hazard (5) start of evasive action- (6)
disengagement
C. (1) start of evasive (2) initial contact (3) maximum engagement
(4)stopping or resting (5) perception of the hazard action (6)
disengagement
D. (1) perception of the hazard (2) start of evasive action (3)
initial contact (4) maximum engagement (5) disengagement (6)
stopping or resting
102. Assume that you are a traffic accident investigator. On gathering
facts by interviewing drivers and witnesses, you should:
1. identify drivers and witnesses
2. take them into custody to prevent them from escaping
3. reduced statements into writing
4. informed them of their Miranda rights and avoid asking questions
that may incriminate them without first providing them competent and
independent counsel, preferrably of their choice
5. verify the statements based on other facts such as physical
evidence and personal observation
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B. 1, 3 and 5 only
C. 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
103. Safety campaign is an important aspect
of traffic safety education, therefore, it
should be intesified to -
A. make road users behave more safely
B. inform the public of any updates in traffic
C. ensure strict compliance to traffic signs
D. prevent accident
104. A professional driver is one who operates a
motor vehicle -
A. for private or public use
B. who is skilled and has broad experience in
handling any type of motor vehicle
C. for hire or paid for driving a motor vehicle
D. which is strictly for hire
105. When two vehicles approach an
intersection at approximately the same
time, which shall GIVE the right of way?
A. The vehicle coming from the right
B. The vehicle coming from the left
C. The vehicle coming from the center
D. The one which arrives there first
106. Traffic officers who are tasked to direct
traffic should do it -
A. in the right side of the intersection so that
he will not be sideswiped
B. in the left side of the intersection for
clearer view of the traffic volume
C. either on the left or right side of the
intersection so that he can adjust to the
situation
D. in the center of the intersection
107. Statement No. 1: Transportation and traffic
rules in the Philippines are compiled in Republic Act
No. 4136;
Statement No. 2: Law that provides the power of the
Metro Manila Development Authority (MMDA) to
manage traffic in Metropolitan Manila area is
mandated by Republic Act No. 7924
A. Statement no. 1 is correct; statement no. 2 is
wrong
B. Statement no. 1 is wrong; statement no. 2 is
correct
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both wrong
108. The expiry period of student
driver’s permit is not beyond -
A. 12 months
B. 18 months
C. 6 months
D. 3 years
 
109. What is the minimum age
for non-professional driver’s
license applicant?
A. 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 21
110. What is the chronological
arrangement of the color of the traffic lights
from the top?
A. Yellow, red, green
B. Green, red, yellow
C. Red, yellow, green
D. Green, yellow, red
111. When approaching in an
intersection where the flashing
yellow is on, the motorist should -
A. stop and proceed with caution
B. slow down and proceed with
caution
C. reduce speed
D. give way to motor vehicles
coming from the opposite direction
Notes:
Recent Legislations on Traffic Regulations
1. Republic Act 10913-Anti-Distracted Act (May 18, 2017)
2. Republic Act 10883-New Anti-Carnapping Act 2016 (July
17, 2016)
3. Republic Act 10930- (August 2, 2017) amended Section
23 of Land Transportation Traffic Code ( R. A. 4136):
Salient Features:
Except for student permits, all drivers license are valid for 5
years, reckoned from birth date of the licensee.
Professional or non-professional drivers who do not violate
the law or traffic regulations during the five year period can
renew their driver’s license for a validity of 10 years.
 ORGANIZED
CRIME
INVESTIGATION
112. Trafficking in person is deemed
committed in ____________ if
committed against 3 or more persons,
individually or as a group.
A. large scale
B. syndicated
C. qualified
D. heinous
113. In defining human trafficking core
elements should be established.
These are the action, the means and
the purpose which is always-
A. financial gain on the part of the
trafficker
B. abuse of power
C. exploitation
D. prostitution, slavery etc.
114. Content data shall be preserved by the
Service Provider within ________ from the
date of receipt of the order from law
enforcement authorities requiring its
preservation.
A. 6 months
B. 72 hours
C. 60 days
D. 12 months
115. PSMS Jade Castro investigates an
alleged cybersex case in Bulacan. Finding
probable cause, she was able to obtain
Cyberwarrant for the disclosure of the
computer data. She can expect Service
provider to disclose such computer data within
____________ from receipt of the order.
A. 36 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
116. An inception, prevention and
direct or indirect effects of these
crimes involved more than one
country. What is it?
A. Drug trafficking and human
smuggling
B. Transnational crimes
C. Terrorism, piracy and cyber crimes
D. Global crimes
117. Organized crime is an enterprise
of group of persons engaged in a
continuing illegal activity which has as
its primary purpose is the -
A. generation of profits irrespective
of national boundaries
B. control of certain illegal activities in
a specific territory
C. creation of fear among its enemies
D. domination of a certain community
118. Member of the organized criminal
group who handles difficult assignments
involving the use of violence in a rational
manner is the –
A. money mover
B. enforcer
C. fixer
D. intelligence analyst
119. Which of the following is NOT one
of the attributes of organized criminal
group?
A. Non-Ideological
B. Non-exclusivity
C. Self-perpetuating
D. Governed by rules and regulations
120. Commission of transnational
crimes are motivated by the following,
EXCEPT-
A. political influence
B. bigotry
C. economic gain
D. social control in a global scope
121. The convention held in Palermo,
Italy in 2000 provides that an
organized criminal group must have
a membership of at least –
A. 3 or more
B. 2 or more
C. 4 or more
D. 5 or more
122. What attribute of organized crime
groups which require members to be
perpetually associated and committed with
the group?
A. Loyalty
B. Lifetime commitment
C. Obedience to the boss
D. Specialized criminal skills
123. How does organized crime groups
maintain their power and profit?
A. Through violence
B. Through corruption
C. Through the silence and attitude of
non-cooperation of law abiding citizens
D. Through continuous association
with criminal protectors
124. What attribute of organized crime
group characterized by vertical power
structure with at least three permanent rank
not just leader and followers-each with
authority over the level beneath?
A. Unique subculture
B. Hierarchical
C. Exclusive membership
D. Structural
125. He is a sort of midlevel manager
who serves as a buffer between the
lowest-level members and the upper-
level members of the crime family.
A. Consigliere
B. Capos
C. Underboss
D. Soldiers
126. Members of the Mafia are bound by an
oath of five basic principles. Which of the
following is NOT one of them?
A. Omerta, or code of silence and total
obedience to the “Don” or “Boss”
B. Assistance to any befriended Mafia
faction, no question asked and to avenge
any attack on members of the family
C. Avoid any and all contact with law
enforcement authorities
D. Avoid killing police officer
127. In fighting terrorism, the government
employ the three-tiered defense system by
Lee Tom Ridge, consist of intelligence,
target hardening and incident management.
At the center of which is -
A. legal offensives
B. professionalization of law enforcement
agents
C. anti-terrorism law
D. prosecution of terrorists
128. Although motive is not one of the
elements of a felony, in the crime of
terrorism, it is indispensable. Which should
be the motive to be established before one
could be charged with the crime of terrorism?
A. Destruction of life and property
B. Create widespread fear
C. Financial or material gain
D. Coerce the government
129. An ex parte written application of a police or
of a law enforcement official to conduct
surveillance, intercept and record the
communications of suspected terrorists may be
granted only by the Court after securing written
authorization from the-
A. Department of Justice
B. Anti-Terrorism Bureau 
C. Anti-terrorism Council
D. Department of Interior and Local government
130. The Anti-Money Laundering Council can
freeze the funds of a suspected terrorist for a
period of_______ which may be extended
by the Court of Appeals up to 6 months.
A. 20 days
B. 30 days
C. 14 days
D. 3 months
131. How many days that law
enforcement officers may subject
suspected terrorist to surveillance
operations?
A. 60 days
B. 30 days
C. 180 days
D. 365 days
132. The leader of Al Qaeda is
CALLED -
A. the Base
B. Jihad
C. the Emir
D. Daesh
133. Under Republic Act No. 11479 or The
Anti-Terrorism Act of 2020, the police or
law enforcement officer who has taken
custody of the person suspected of
terrorism may detain such person for a
period of ________ days from
apprehension or arrest.
A. fourteen
B. twenty
C. three
D. fifteen
134. Which of the following are the commonly identified
forms of human trafficking?
1. Drug courier, forced membership in syndicate
2. Sexual exploitation and organ removal
3. Exploitation of children in begging, sex trade and
warfare
4. Forced labor, domestic servitude and forced marriage
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4
135. Placement, which is the initial stage of
money laundering aims to -
A. deposit criminal proceeds into financial
system
B. conceal the criminal origin of the
proceeds
C. create an apparent legal origin for
criminal proceeds
D. commission of a predicate crimes
136. Known as G-7 Nations, they were
mandated to devise international
standards and policies to combat money
laundering. Which of the following is NOT
one of them?
A. France, Germany and Italy
B. Japan
C. United Kingdom of Great Britain,
United States of America, and Canada
D. China, South Korea and Russia
137. In 2000 the United Nations
Convention against Transnational
Organized Crime extended the legal
definition of money laundering to
include all serious crimes. This is known
as -
A. Palermo Convention
B. Transnational Organized Crime
Convention
C. United Nations Convention
D. Organized Crime Convention
138. Unlawful activity that the money was
derived and transacted thereby making them
appear to have originated from legitimate
sources is known as –
A. money laundering
B. predicate crime
C. economic crime
D. proximate cause of the crime
139. Conceptualized in the 1920's and
had its initial headquarters in Vienna.
INTERPOL was established to –
A. neutralize transnational organized
crime
B. assist in the arrest and prosecution of
organized crimes
C. promote international criminal police
cooperation
D. Standardize global policing
140. INTERPOL'S rules in fighting Terrorism is/are:
1. Prevent acts of international terrorism
2. If terrorist acts are carried out, ensure that the
perpetrators are brought to justice by exchanging
information with its member countries
3. Arranging meetings of expert to address
terrorism
4. Arrest of the terrorist
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
141. Red Notice is INTERPOL’s Notice
System to -
A. seek information on the identity of persons
or on their illegal activities related to criminal
matters
B. provide warning and criminal intelligence
about persons who have committed criminal
offenses and who are likely to repeat these
crimes in other countries.
C. locate missing persons
D. seek the arrest and extradition of suspects
142. An analytical test using a devise, tool or
equipment with a different chemical or
physical principle that is more specific which
validates and conforms the result of the
screening test is -
A. preparatory
B. confirmatory
C. initial
D. validity
143. Among the following, which is
the MOST intractable safe havens of
terrorist groups worldwide?
A. Internet
B. Global media
C. Regions where ineffective
governance allows their presence
D. Those created by electronic
infrastructure
144. Investigation, prosecution and trial
of the crime of trafficking in person is
done in -
A. open and public
B. closed-door
C. personal
D. official capacity
145. In the investigation of cybercrime,
“VES” approach is used. Among the
following, which should be EXCLUDED
as literal meaning of VES?
A. Victim
B. Evidence
C. Violation
D. Suspect
 DRUG
EDUCATION AND
VICE CONTROL
146. Injection, inhalation,
ingestion or other means, of
dangerous drug to the body by
one person to another is –
A. drug use
B. taking
C. administer
D. addict
147. Selling, distributing, supplying or
transporting of legitimately imported, in-
transit, manufactured or procured
controlled precursors and essential
chemicals, by the manufacturer of
medicine to the drug trafficker is called -
A. drug trafficking
B. chemical diversion
C. sale
D. chemical smuggling
148. Offenses that constitute drug trafficking,
according to the Comprehensive Drug Act of
2002 are the following, EXCEPT -
A. cultivation, culture and delivery of illegal
drugs
B. administration, dispensation, manufacture,
sale and trading of illegal drugs
C. use, consumption, addiction and
tolerance of illegal drugs
D. transportation, distribution, importation,
exportation and possession of illegal drugs
149. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a
group of "designer" drugs closely
related in chemical form to the
amphetamine family of illicit drugs. Its
scientific name is -
A. methamphetamine Hydrochloride
B. methylenedioxymethamphetamine
C. papaver somniferum
D. cannabis sativa
150. After filing a criminal case, the
court shall conduct an ocular inspection
of the confiscated dangerous drugs
within ___ hours
A. 24
B. 36
C. 48
D. 72
151. Which drug that is considered as
the most powerful natural stimulant?
A. Tetrahydrocannabinnol
B. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
C. Cocaine hydrochloride
D. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
152. Most popular plants as a
source of dangerous drugs,
EXCEPT -
A. indian hemp
B. coca bush
C. opium poppy
D. ephedra
153. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in
the global drug market is/are:
I. heroin and cocaine
II. shabu and ecstacy
III. marijuana and methamphetamine
IV. narcotics, hallucinogens, stimulants and
depressants
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. IV only
154. Amphetamine users manifest which
of the following symptoms?
A. Sensation of distorted time, space,
sound, color
B. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness
C. False perceptions of objects and
experiences
D. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
155. Which of the following is NOT one
of the means of the taking
methamphetamine hydrochloride?
A. Chasing the dragon
B. Smoking
C. Snorting
D. Oral
156. National campaign strategy
against illegal drugs, focus of which are
through law enforcement, prosecution
and judicial actions. Which of these?
A. Demand reduction
B. Inter-agency coordination
C. Supply reduction
D. International cooperation
157. A person found guilty of use of
dangerous drugs for the first time shall be
punished with -
A. imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to
12 years
B. rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6
months
C. rehabilitation for 6 months to 18
months
D. imprisonment of at least 6 months
158. Operation of drug syndicates are
usually made secretly that makes it
detection quite difficult. Various
techniques were made by its operator in
concealing their activities.
A. Hide –out operation
B. Clandestine Operation
C. Disguised operation
D. Confidential
159. A type of Drugs according to
pharmacological classification which
often relieves pain and induces sleep.
Which of these?
A. Hallucinogens
B. Stimulants
C. Sedatives/Depressant
D. Narcotics
160. Marijuana has been one of the
most abuse hallucinogens in the
Philippines and its control becomes
difficult according to some authorities
due to the fact that it is -
A. easy to smoke it secretly
B. easy to cultivate
C. sellable in the market
D. in demand
161. Which drug that is commonly used
by athletes having the properties of
increasing stamina and/or energy?
A. Ecstasy
B. MDMA
C. Shabu
D. Anabolic steroid
162. Physical dependence, severe
craving for the drug even to the point of
interfering with the person’s ability to
function normally is termed ______ on
the drug literature.
A. tolerance
B. habituation
C. addiction
D. psychological dependence
163. Which drug that is
predominantly use as a legitimate
veterinary anesthetic, and is
emerging subject of abused?
A. Ketamine
B. Anesthesia
C. Codeine
D. Sleeping pills
164. You accosted a person who is
showing signs of paranoia, aggression,
or confusion and has dilated pupils. As
Criminologist you may conclude that he
is –
A. an LSD addict, a hallucinogenic drug
B. a marijuana addict
C. a crack addict, stimulant drug
D. a tranquilizer addict, depressant drug
165. A person who is under the influence of
shabu would likely manifests which of the
following behavior?
A. Sweating, vomiting and loss of appetite
B. Slurred speech, coordination problems
and lack of judgment
C. Lack of motivation, red eyes and
laughter
D. Hyperactivity and talkativeness
166.The source/s of most analgesic
narcotic is/are:
1. Opium 4. Heroine
2. Morphine5. Ephedrine
3. Cocaine 6. Cannabis
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3,4 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
167. If cocaine is a
stimulant, LSD -
A. is a solvent
B. is a hallucinogen
C. is a narcotic
D. is a depressant
168. Drug addicts when under the
influence of drugs are menace to the
community because they -
A. are violently insane
B. flagrantly immoral
C. ruin their life/health
D. feel no restraint in committing crimes.
169. This drug is a representative
of a broad class of stimulants
known as “pep pills”. It is usually
prescribed to reduce appetite and
to relieve minor cases of mental
depression. Which of these?
A. Amphethamine
B. Methamphetamine
C. Ecstasy
D. Shabu
170. Pursuant to the provisions of
Republic Act 9165, _______________
shall serve as permanent consultant
of the Dangerous Drug Board.
A. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of
Justice
B. NBI Director and PNP Chief
C. PDEA Director General and PNP
Director General
D. PNP Director and PDEA Director
171. Transshipment point of all
forms of heroin in the world is in -
A. Laos
B. Thailand
C. Hongkong
D. Myanmar
172. Habituation is a condition resulting from the
repeated administration or use of drug which is
characterize by -
1. desire (but not compulsion) to continue taking
drug.
2. little or no tendency to increase the dosage.
3. some degree of physiological dependence
4. intensified physical and withdrawal syndrome
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
173.The presence of any controlled
precursor and essential chemical or
laboratory equipment in the clandestine
laboratory is -
A. a prima facie proof of manufacture of
any dangerous drug
B. a prima facie evidence of possession of
dangerous drugs
C. a probable cause of manufacture of
dangerous drugs
D. a prima facie evidence of drug
trafficking
174. Which of the following statements is NOT
accurate about law enforcement interest on
vices?
A. It cannot be totally eliminated but only at most
controlled or regulated
B. It is connected with other forms of criminal
activities.
C. Vice dens are often time the scene of frequent
fights that disturbs the peace of the Community.
D. Continued police action of sincere and honest
law enforcement officers can eliminate the
existence of vices.
175. Which of the following does NOT
carry a capital punishment?
A. possession of 20 grams morphine
B. possession of 100 grams of marijuana
C. possession of 15 grams of MDMA
D. possession of 60 grams of shabu
176. To administer illegal drug means to –
A. introduce any dangerous drug into the
body of any person, with or without
his/her knowledge
B. use drug through injection
C. consume dangerous drug through
inhalation
D. introduce any illegal drug into the
body through snorting
177. As a rule, only a physician can
prescribe a medicinal drugs. The
practice of taking drugs without proper
medicinal supervision is called non-
medicinal use of drugs or drug –
A. misuse
B. misadministration
C. abuse
D. addiction
178. The following statements are either true of false. Identify
those that are true and those that are false.
1. Prior to the enactment of Republic Act 9165, the Philippine
National Police was the primary law enforcement agency that
enforces the law on dangerous drugs.
2. The Dangerous Drug Act of 1972 was amended by Republic
Ac 9165.
3. Person convicted for a possession of illegal drug
paraphernalia can apply for Probation.
4. The Philippine National Police operating units should submit
post operations report before anti-illegal drug operations.
5. The head of the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency is
assisted by three (3) Deputy Director General.
A. 1 and 3 are true while 2, 4 and 5 are false
B. 1, 2 and 3 are true while 4 and 5 are false
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are true while only 5 is false
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are all true nothing is false
179. Considered by the Assyrians as
a “Sacred Tree” planted by the Incas
of Peru. It is considered as the
world’s oldest cultivated plant which
is the source of dangerous drug.
A. Papaver Somniferum
B. Coca Plant
C. Cannabis Sativa
D. Ephedrine
180. Which alcoholism treatment
method that the alcoholics are
administered with a nauseating drug to
be followed by a drink of liquor, and thus
develops a dislike of alcohol?
A.The Aversion Treatment
B.The Psychotherapy Method
C. Fellowsip Method
D.The Program of Alcoholics
Anonymous
181. Under the Republic Act 9165 possession of
equipment, instrument, apparatus and other
paraphernalia fit or intended for its purpose/s is a -
A. prima facie evidence that the possessor has
consumed or administered drugs for himself
hence violated Section 11 of comprehensive drug
law
B. ground for the possessor's indictment
C. ground for the possessor's arrest for violating
Section 5 of the comprehensive drug law
D. prima facie evidence that the possessor has
consumed or administered drugs for himself
hence violated Section 15 of comprehensive drug
law
182. What are the symptoms of the use of
amphetamines?
A. Sensation of distorted time, space,
sound, color
B. False perceptions of objects and
experiences
C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness
D. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
183. Which of the following is NOT one
of the means of the taking
methamphetamine hydrochloride?
A. Chasing the dragon
B. Smoking
C. Snorting
D. Oral
184. Person apprehended or arrested for violation of
Republic Act 9165 shall be subjected to screening
laboratory examination or test within 24 hours, and if
found to be positive, the results can be challenged -
A. within 15 days after receipt of the result through a
confirmatory test
B. within 10 days from receipt of the result through gas
chromatograph/mass spectrometry equipment or some
such modern and accepted method
C. within 15 days after receipt of the result through any
accredited analytical laboratory equipment
D. within 3 days after receipt of the result through a
confirmatory test
185. Hashish is 8 to 10 times stronger
than the commercial trade marijuana; it
is -
A. concentrated resin extracted from
marijuana
B. fruiting top of the plant cannabis
sativa
C. dried flower of marijuana
D. finest and high grade leaves of
marijuana plant
186. PNP Units, prior to any anti illegal drug operations, as
far a practicable, coordinate with the PDEA. What are the
instances that are deemed NOT practicable for prior
coordination?
1. In remote places where coordination is not possible
2. When coordination will compromise the lives of persons
involved in anti illegal drugs operations, or the entire police
operations
3. When coordination will prejudice the apprehension of
drug suspects and confiscation of illegal drugs and CPECs
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1
187. Consistency with the chain of custody rule requires
that the marking of seized illegal drug items should be
done by the seizing officers :
I. In the presence of the apprehended violator
II. Immediately upon arrival at the police office
III. Immediately upon confiscation
IV. As soon as the accused’ counsel arrives
A. I and III only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II and III
D. I, II, III and IV
 FIRE
TECHNOLOGY AND
ARSON
INVESTIGATION
188. Government’s office mandated by
Republic Act 6975 to suppress destructive
fires, implements the fire code and
investigates all fires cases in the Philippines
is -
A. the Bureau of Fire Protection
B. the Anti-Arson Investigation Task Force of
the PNP
C. the PNP’s Criminal Investigation and
Detection Group
D. the Bureau of Fire of the Philippines
189. Fire tetrachedron explains flaming
combustion because of the additional
element known as -
A. oxidation
B. spontaneous combustion
C. chemical chain reaction
D. internal chemical reaction
190. Point of origin or a place where fire
originated, if found out by the investigator
will give him a hint about the -
A. cause of the fire
B. material evidence of fire
C. proof of arson
D. spread of the fire
 Phases of Fire

1. Initial /Incipient Phase: BA400 to

800F; CA 200F

2. Free Burning Phase: BA 800 to

1,000F; CA 1,200-1,600F

3. Smoldering Phase: BA 460; CA

1,000-1,300 F
 
191. Among the following, which was
proved as the MOST common
motive for arson?
A. Jealousy
C. Profit
B. Spite
D. Revenge
192. The means employed
by the fire fighters to pacify
the fire is known as fire -
A. prevention
B. control
C. safety
D. suppression
193. Which process is performed
by government authorities such as
the Bureau of Fire Protection to
assess the safety of an installation
from destructive fires?
A. Fire control
B. Fire prevention
C. Fire safety
D. Fire inspection
194. Basically, fire has three important
elements for its sustenance.
Authorities however established what
is known as the 4th element of fire?
This refers to -
A. fuel
B. uninhibited chemical reaction
C. heat which is responsible for the
spreading of fire
D. oxygen
195. Which term is used to refer
the means employed by the
fire fighters to keep the blaze to
a minimum or manageable
level?
A. Fire control
B. Fire suppression
C. Fire prevention
D. Fire inspection
196. Upon inspection the Bureau of Fire
Protection recommended the removal of
material in the building that may accelerate the
burning during the fire. Compliance to such
recommendation by building occupants is
termed -
A. lien
B. inspection
C. abatement
D. renovation
197. Which of the following is/are true or false:
1. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium,
the method is called convection.
2. The transfer of heat from one material to
another by direct contact is called conduction. 
3. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and
shopping centers through electromagnetic waves
called radiation.
A. 1 and 2 are true; while 3 is false
B. 1 and 2 are false; 3 is true
C. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
D. 1 and 3 are true; while 2 is false
 
198. When fire occurs, the
first thing to be observed in
ascertaining its cause is the -
A. point of origin
B. room of origin
C. burnt pattern of ceiling
D. color of smoke and flame
99. Which of the following
BEST illustrate arson?
A. simultaneous fire
B. faulty electric wiring
C. unexplained explosion
D. thick reddish smoke
200. A fire which there are
human casualties is
classified as -
A. deadly fire
B. spot fire
C. fatal fire
D. arson
201. Why water is prohibited to
quench Class D fires?
A. Burning metals are too hot
B. Water is not capable of
extinguishing the fire
C. There is the danger of
electrocution
D. Explosion may occur
202. Which of the following shall cause
the investigator to assume that the
victim died of direct contact with flame?
A. Presence of soot and fire gases at
respiratory tract
B. Intense charring of the whole body
C. Prominence of trauma that is
probably caused by a stab
D. Absence of carbon monoxide in the
hemoglobin
203. Which product of fire that
can be detected by gas
chromatogram and ion
spectrometer?
A. Flames
B. Soot
C. Heat
D. Fire gases
204. Most arson cases are
proved by______ evidence
rather than that direct
evidence.
A. circumstantial
B. testimonial
C. documentary
D. physical
205. When carbon monoxide is absent
in the blood of the dead body found in
a burned structure, this will be a strong
circumstantial evidence that the
person -
A. was dead when the fire began
B. was still alive before the fire
C. was killed by someone else during
the blaze
D. died due to suffocation
206. When fire occurred, the first
action upon discovery is -
A. to run for life
B. to pack up personal belongings
C. to raise the alarm
D. to call an ambulance
207. Which of the following is a
primary purpose of statutory
requirements for fire protection?
A. To see to it that the building is
insured
B. To insure that the building is
hazard-free
C. To safeguard life
D. To generate income for the
government
208. Preparation to set a building
to fire, which is design to feed the
combustion as rapidly as possible
when ignition device is lighted.
Which is being referred?
A. Plants
B. Accelerants
C. Trailers
D. Fuel
209. Proving that an arson of a building has
occurred is difficult mainly because –
A. arsonist are extremely clever criminals and go
out of their way not to discuss their criminal
activities
B. most police departments do not have a
specialized unit to deal with such crimes
C. much of the evidence is consumed by the fire
D. firefighters of necessity unintentionally destroy
the evidence while attempting to fulfill their primary
duty of extinguishing the fire
210. If arson is only the means of
killing the victim, the crime that you
have to file is –
A. arson with murder
B. murder
C. arson
D. murder with arson
211. What equipment is made
of trussed or solid beam
where rungs are connected
horizontally to the beam
forming ascent or descent?
A. Rope
B. Hydrant
C. Ladder
D. Nozzle 
212. What type of ladder is
best suited for firefighting
operation involving high-rise
building?
A. Attic
B. Extension
C. Aerial
D. Hook
213. Jessie is the step father of Jean. One day,
Jessie and Jean quarreled. Because of anger,
Jessie put the clothes of Jean in a luggage and
burned them.
A. Jessie committed malicious mischief and is
liable
B. Jessie committed malicious mischief but is
exempt from criminal liability
C. Jessie committed arson and is criminally liable
D. Jessie committed arson but is exempt from
criminal liability under Article 332 of the Revised
Penal Code
214. If the investigator did not
found any trace of
incendiarism, his assumption
will be the fire was–
A. intentional
B. accidental
C. providential
D. not accidental
215. Feeling unjustly treated by his
landlord Mang Kanor burned five
warehouses owned by his landlord,
where farm products are stored. Mang
Kanor committed a crime of -
A. malicious mischief
B. five counts of arson
C. burning of farm products
D. destructive arson
216. Consider the following procedures in effecting warrantless arrests:
1. Freeze or restrain the suspect
2. Make proper introduction as to your identity and authority to arrest
3. Bring the arrested person to the police station for further investigation
4. Inform the arrested person of the circumstances of his arrest and recite
to him the Miranda Warning and Anti-torture Warning
5. Conduct thorough search for weapons and other illegal materials and
properly document confiscated materials
Which of the following is the BEST sequential arrangement of the above
procedures?
A. 1 2 3 5 4
B. 1 2 4 5 3
C. 2 1 3 4 5
D. 2 3 1 5 4
217. Rules of Court provisions on criminal procedure states
that, “A person who is lawfully arrested may be searched
without a search warrant for dangerous weapons or anything
which may be used against him or which constitutes proof in
the commission of an offense.” This refers to a -
A. warrantless search incidental to a lawful or valid arrest
B. warrantless search for reasonable suspicion of criminal
activity
C. search purposely made as a matter of standard
operating procedures on arrested person
D. search made in connection with a man’s possession of
dangerous weapons
 
218. According to the Land Transportation Office,
emergency vehicles refers to the following,
EXCEPT:
A. An ambulance carrying a victim of heart attack
B. A fire department vehicle on standby while fire
rages in a nearby building
C. A vehicle with physician responding to a
request for immediate medical assistance
D. A vehicle in pursuit of a criminal or a law
enforcer overtaking or pursuing a traffic violator
219. Several different methods can be used to search
an outdoor crime scene. In connection with these various
search methods, it would be LEAST correct to state in
the –
A. strip method, the searchers slowly proceed at the
same pace in parallel paths
B. spiral method, the searchers follow each other in the
path of a spiral beginning at the center and spiraling
toward the outside
C. wheel method, the search is conducted from the
central point outwardly
D. zone method, the area to be searched is divided into
quadrants
220. PEMS Neil Bal-ot has been assigned to supervise a
group of police officers, both in automobiles and on foot,
who will be conducting a surveillance of a subject. During
his instruction, the senior officer would be MOST correct if
he made which of the following statements?
A. If at all possible, avoid surveillance of a subject from an
automobile parked in a restricted area
B. When two officers are conducting and extended
surveillance from an automobile, both officers should
remain in the front seat
C. An officer conducting a surveillance should never give
the appearance of a person who is impatiently waiting for
someone
D. If the subject of the surveillance approaches the officer,
the officer should avoid looking at the subject at all costs
221. In police undercover buy operations of illegal
drugs, which of the following would generally be
LEAST correct?
A. The undercover police officer has more
experience than the drug dealer
B. In such operation, the drug dealer values
drugs, money and his/her freedom
C. The drug dealer wants the undercover’s
money more than the police want the drugs
D. The location of the meet with the drug dealer
should be studied before the actual meet
222. Consider the following statements concerning an undercover police
operation designed to purchase illegal drugs from a drug dealer:
I. One of the potential risks of such an operation is an overzealous
undercover officer
II. An undercover officer should not enter the car of the suspect drug
dealer
III. A confidential informant should be allowed to do as much as possible
even if it means controlling the situation
 Which of the following choices best classifies above statements into
those which are accurate and those which are inaccurate?
A. Statement I is inaccurate; statements II and III are accurate
B. Statement II is inaccurate; statements I and III are accurate
C. Statement III is inaccurate; statements I and II are accurate
D. All statements are accurate
223. If other individuals are responsible for
the kidnapping, it shall be referred to which of
the following for appropriate operational
response?
A. Anti-Kidnapping Group
B. Concerned Philippine National Police
territorial units
C. Critical Incident Management Task Group
D. AFP-PNP Joint Task Force
224. During anti-illegal drug operations, who
is PRIMARILY responsible for the inventory
and initial custody of all drug and non-drug
evidence?
A. The field tester
B. The investigator
C. The team leader
D. The seizing officer
 
225. Regardless of the volume of drug evidence
to be examined, the final certification on the
completed forensic laboratory examination
should be issued within how many hours upon
receipt of the seized drug evidence?
A. 48
B. 36
C. 24
D. 72
226. In the anti-illegal drug operation, the lawmen
undertaking the operation should take photographs:
1. Upon discovery of evidence
2. After the physical inventory of evidence
3. While the search for evidence is ongoing
4. Without altering the position of evidence in the place
where it was hidden
5. Without moving the position of evidence in the place
where it was situated
A. 1, 3 and 5
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
 
227. When the seized evidence are properly
marked, the seizing officer should preserve and
place it in a suitable or appropriate container –
A. for laboratory examination
B. for the taking of photograph
C. for presentation to the media as need arises
D. for presentation to the evidence custodian
officer
228. If the confiscating law enforcement officers fails to
physically inventory and photograph the confiscated illegal
drugs or controlled precursors and essential chemicals
(CPECS), does it necessarily follow that the confiscation
and custody of said items will render it void and invalid?
A. Yes strict adherence to this rule is required by the
implementing rules and regulations of Republic Act 9165
B. No provided that non-compliance with these
requirements is based on justifiable grounds and for as
long as the integrity and evidentiary value of the
confiscated items were properly preserved
C. Yes strict adherence to this rule is required by the
implementing rules and regulations of Republic Act 10640
D. No as long as the chain of custody of the confiscated
items will be clearly established
 
229. One of whom need NOT be
present during the physical inventory of
confiscated illegal drugs?
A. Suspect
B. Mediamen
C. Municipal mayor
D. Public prosecutor
230. For purposes of transportation a seized
computer used in the commission of
cybercrime shall be packed as –
A. priority item
B. fragile cargo
C. restricted material
D. evidentiary items
 
 
231. When a computer forensic expert
makes a duplicate copy of the computer’s
hard disk, the lawmen concerned must
ensure that the original copy is kept by –
A. the judge
B. the evidence custodian
C. immediate supervisor
D. first responder
232. Determining death is assisted by understanding a
process known as rigor mortis. Sometime after death the
muscles of the body stiffen and rigor mortis sets in. In
connection with rigor mortis which of the following is
LEAST correct?
A. The stiffening begins in the lower extremities and
works its way toward the head of the deceased
B. Within eighteen hours after death the entire body
affected by rigor mortis
C. It usually disappears within thirty-six hours after death
D. Great heat can accelerate the process
 
233. In connection with the collection and presentation of
physical evidence at a criminal trial, which of the following
statements is LEAST correct?
A. Physical evidence involving different defendants should be
kept separate and not comingled
B. The admissibility of physical evidence at a criminal trial
depends on an unbroken chain of custody from the arresting
officer to the courtroom
C. Physical property that is going to be introduced as
evidence at a criminal trial should pass through the hands of
many people as possible
D. If there is any doubt whether a particular piece of physical
property could be evidence, it is better for the discovering
officer to treat it as evidence
234. A general principle of traffic accident
investigation is –
A. look for the key event that caused the
accident
B. regard any unfavorable factor existing
immediately prior to the accident as the cause
C. consider violations as primary cause and
any factor as secondary cause
D. consider road condition
235. In introducing physical evidence at a trial,
three important factors must be constructed:
First, the evidence must be material and
relevant, second the article must be properly
identified and –
A. it must be part of the modus operandi
B. there must be a knowledge of laboratory
procedures
C. the object must have been use in the
commission of the crime
D. the chain of custody must be established
236. The best photograph of a bullet to be
used for presentation would be where the
object photograph is –
A. indicated by chalk marks
B. untouched
C. delineated by arrows
D. in approximately enlarged
237. What is that means of identifying
physical evidence in which the
investigator inscribe initial, date and
time directly?
A. Marking
B. Labeling
C. Tagging
D. Folding
238. What is the final phase of
crime scene investigation?
A. preliminary survey
B. documentation of scene
C. collection of evidence
D. release of crime scene
239. In a crime of rape, its most likely place of
commission cannot be specified unless the victim or
witness pinpoints the same. What is considered critical
observation to be done by the investigator?
I. Evidence to prove unconsciousness of the victim
II. Proof of sexual perversion
III. Evidence to show sexual intercourse
IV. Look for evidence of struggle
A. I, II and IV only
B. I, II, III and IV
C. I, III and IV only
D. IV only
240. How can identification be made on a
decomposed cadaver?
I. study his bones
II. study his dentures
III. study his skull
IV. study of personal idiosyncrasies
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I only
 
245. The prevention of fire is
accomplished by –
A. understanding the role of the fire
fighter
B. doing something about the factors that
cause the fires
C. making rescues and confining and
extinguishing the fire
D. rapid extinguishment
246. A firefighter who had just arrived at the scene
of a visible fire grabbed his tools from the
apparatus, ran to the door of the building, and
broke it down. The action of the firefighter was –
A. correct- this allowed the firefighter with the
hose to gain entry and extinguish the fire
B. incorrect- the firefighter should have to break
the a window first
C. correct-quick, decisive action leads to the
rescue of fire victims
D. incorrect- the firefighter should have tried the
doorknob first to see whether the door was locked
247. You are a firefighter doing an inspection of a
factory, and you find several infractions. The
building manager does not agree with you. What
is the BEST action for you?
A. Disregard the manager’s remarks, and
continue with the inspection
B. Go back the next day, and make an even more
thorough inspection
C. Call a police officer, and have the manager
arrested
D. Forget about the infractions; they are minors
248. Boundary lines around a fire area, called “fire
lines,” are normally set up by the police
departments to keep citizens out of the immediate
firefighting area. The BEST reason for fire lines is
to prevent –
A. an arsonist from getting away
B. firefighters from talking with local people
C. citizens from interfering with the firefighting
operations
D. citizens from seeing firefighters make an error
249. Every fire should be thoroughly investigated
to determine how it started. The primary reason
for finding out how the fire started is to –
A. evaluate the firefighting units
B. collect statistics on the number and types of
fires
C. reduce the possibilities of future fires
D. prove that the fire was arson
250. A fire that starts by “spontaneous
combustion” –
A. is impossible
B. is quickly extinguished
C. is common in cases of arson
D. has started without any outside source
of ignition
FEAST OF THE SACRED
HEART OF JESUS.

Thank you.