Old English pronunciation

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The Old English pronunciation IPA:/him/ appears rather strange to me as Old Frisian and Modern English and Frisian all say IPA:/hɪm/. Possibly an error, but I'm not sure so I won't change it.SK luuut 21:02, 29 December 2008 (UTC)Reply

Of course, it is hard to say for sure, but OE short-I seems to have been usually /i/. It may have sometimes been [ɪ] in certain positions, but basically the main difference between i and ī was one of length and not tension. See w:Old English phonology for more. Ƿidsiþ 21:12, 29 December 2008 (UTC)Reply

Some of the translations are bad.

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"Him" is used for both a direct object and an indirect object. It looks like some of the translations are only for indirect objects, rather than direct objects... 67.42.90.101 18:25, 11 April 2009 (UTC)Reply

Spanish le is in dative case, and the analytic form is both a él and para él; accusative case is lo, with also an emphatic construction lo + verb + a él. --Manfariel (talk) 19:18, 29 August 2020 (UTC)Reply

him's

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You're just regular him's bitch

https://genius.com/Eminem-guns-blazing-lyrics --Backinstadiums (talk) 23:08, 1 April 2022 (UTC)Reply

It's slang Notusbutthem (talk) 09:47, 5 April 2022 (UTC)Reply

him-

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What meaning is used in the employee must commit him- or herself to...? JMGN (talk) 18:46, 9 February 2023 (UTC)Reply

use as subject with conjunction

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I was surprised this wasn't here, since it's effectively standard English on both sides of the Pond. (As evidenced by the fact that people hypercorrect to using 'he' as an object when trying to avoid this, demonstrating that there is no case distinction with a conjunction.) Added one example I just heard, but there are plenty of others, including in written English. kwami (talk) 02:34, 27 June 2023 (UTC)Reply