I-D 1/24

I-D 2/24

...
I-D 3/24

MICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY
1.
Increased functional demand on the heart produces increased size of the myocardium by

(13)

7.

Adjuvants are nonspecific, mildly irritating substances which are used to 1. 2. .3. 4.
enhance antibody response. depress antibody response. desensitize to a given antigen. remove antibodies from circulation.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

hyperplasia. hypertrophy. calcification. fatty infiltration. increased amounts of fibrous connective tissue.

8.

2.

Hemorrhage might be difficult to curb in patients with liver disorders because of

An infectious disease with low morbidity and which is constantly present in a given community is considered to be

1. anemia which invariably accompanies 2. vitamin C shortage caused by impaired 3. deficiency of vitamin B12' 4. hypoprothrombinemia. 5. lack of bile pigments.
fat absorption. liver dysfunction.

1. r-ndemic. 2. epidemi~. 3. pandemic. 4. epizootic.

3.

A tumor composed of multiple tissues in which there may be representatives of all three embryonal layers is

9.

The most common complication of chronic peptic ulcer is

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a teratoma. an adenoma. a carcinoma. a sarcoma. a hamartoma.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

hemorrhage. malabsorption syndrome. development of carcinoma. development of hypoacidity. development of obstruction during healing.

4.

Shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by

10.

Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly

a sequelaof
1. 2. 3. 4.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

increased blood pressure. elevated body temperature. increased atmospheric pressure. decreased volume of circulating blood. decreased volume of interstitial fluid.

measles. diphtheria. upper respiratory infections due to hemolytic streptococci. upper respiratory infections due to. nonhemolytic strept-eocci.

5.

Diphtheria, pertussis, smallpox, poliomyelitis and tetanus have in common the fact that all are 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
air-borne diseases. vector-borne diseases. characterized by toxemia. primarily diseases of infants. prevented by active immunization.

11.

When a thrombotic embolus originates in a femoral vein, it usually becomes arrested in "the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

right heart. renal circulation. portal circulation. hepatic circulation. pulmonary circt:tlation.

6.

The three general classes of vaccines are

12.

killed organisms,virulent bacteria and attenuated viruses. 2. toxoids, antitoxins and attenuated organisms. 3. killed organisms,toxoids and attenuated organisms. 4. killed organisms,antitoxins and gamma globulins. 5. None of the above

1.

Ribonucleic acid is considered to be the chemical basis for heredity in poliomyelitis virus because

1. it is the only nucleic acid present. 2. ultraviolet light induces mutations. 3. DNA is infective under appropriate
conditions.

4. viral infectivity is destroyed by

deoxyribonuclease.

..

I-D 4/24

13.

Transfer of inheritable characteristics among bacteria is dependent on 1.

19.

Organismswhich exhibit dimorphism, are gram-positive,and grow on Sabouraud's medium are 1. fungi. 2. bacteria. 3;"myc~plasma. 4. rickettsia. 5. spirochetes.

2. 3. 4.

ATP. OPT. DNA. RNA.

14.

Enzymes responsible for suppuration in an abscess are derived mainly from

1. 2. 3. 4.

serum. lymph. lymphocytes. polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

20.

The genus Bacillus is distinguished from the genus Clostridium chiefly in that the strains of Bacillus are

15.

1. 2. 3. 4.

aerobic. anaerobic. parasitic. sporebearers.

The predominant bacteria found in salivaare

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

vibrios. spirochetes. lactobaci IIi. streptococci. fusiform bacilli.

21.

Striated muscle, smooth muscle and cardiac muscle have in common the fact that

1. hyperplasia of these elements is common. 2. hypertrophy is a common response to 3. they have a limited capacity to regenerate.' 4. they need a constant high O2 concentration
to function. injury.
.

16.

Heat sensitive materials may be sterilized without destruction by means of

1. 2. 3. 4.

dry.heat. boiling water. ethylene oxide. quaternary ammonium compounds.

22.

The cell most important antibody is the

in the production

of

17.

Orchitis is a serious complication in adults with

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

mast cell. histiocyte. lymphocyte. plasma cell. polymorphonuclear

leukocyte.

mumps. measles. nongonococcal urethritis. ECHOvirus meningoencephalitis. parainfluenza virus nasopharyngitis.

23.

Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by

18.

Rickettsia are distinguishable from viruses because

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Nocardia asteroides. Borrelia vincentii. Actinomyces bovis. Staphylococcus aureus. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

1. viruses contain DNA; rickettsia contain 2. viruses contain RNA; rickettsia contain 3.
,

RNA.

24.

4. 5.

DNA. viruses contain either RNA or DNA; rickettsia contain both RNA and DNA. viruses contain both RNA and DNA; rickettsia contain either RNA or DNA. viruses contain either RNA or DNA; rickettsia contain neither RNA nor DNA.

Histamine released by mast cells is responsible for the principal symptoms of

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

anaphylaxis. serum sickness. macroglobulinemia. immune-complex diseases. delayed hypersensitivity.

..

:to

I-D 5/24
25. 31.
Aerobic organotrophic (or heterotrophic) bacteria which oxidize a substrate to CO2 and H2O use, in the final electron transport, enzymes containing

The anaerobic organism cultured from gingivalscrapings which forms black colonies on hemin-containing culture media is

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Sarcina lutea. Bacillus anthracis. Veillonella alcalescens. Bacteroides melaninogenicus. alpha-hemolytic streptococcus.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

cytochromes. coenzyme A. ribose nucleic acid. pyridine nucleotides. flavin adenine dinucleotide.

26.

The basic difference between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria is

32.

Aspiration of material from carious teeth is associated with

1. 2. 3. 4.

cell wall structure. chromosome structure. that gram-negativebacteria are motile. that gram-positive bacteria have capsules.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

tuberculosis. lung abscess. lobar pneumonia. bronchopneumonia. interstitial pneumonia.

27.

A benign mushroom-like neoplasm of bone showing a peripheral cartilage cap in the metaphyseal area of a young person is mo~t likely

33.

The etiology of acute diffuse glomerulonephritis seems to be

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

an exostosis. an osteosarcoma. a chondrosarcoma. an osteochondroma~ a metaphyseal defect.

1. circulatory deficiency associated with 2. bacteremia with localization of organisms

3.
4.

prolonged shock.

28.

The early bronchial mucosal alteration most likely to be observed in cigarette smokers is

5.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

in kidney tissue. . injury of glomeruli by exogenous inorganic toxins. degenerative changes induced by sclerotic alterations of blood vessels. allergic reaction of glomerular and vascular tissue to beta-hemolytic streptococcal products.

dysplasia. neoplasia. metaplasia. hypoplasia. hyperplasia.

34.

Following the initial transient V'asoconstriction, the next vascular reaction to injury in the seqU1ceof events in inflammation is

29.

A 65-year-old male who demonstrates urinary retention or difficu1tyin voiding his bladder most likely has

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

1. 2. 3. 4.

carcinoma of the prostate. benign prostatic hyperplasia. malignant neoplasm of the ureter. bladder metastasisof bronchogenic carcinoma.

margination of leukocytes. dilation of blood vessels. increased capillary permeability. movement of leukocytes toward the irritanto phagocytosis of bacteria and other particles.

35. 30.
Interstitial pulmonary inflammation is most characteristic of

Recurrent aphthae resemble recurrent herpes in that

1. 2. 3. 4.

lobar pneumonia. viral pneumonia. bronchial asthma. bronchopneumonia.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

symptoms are similar. life-long immunity results. vesicles occur with both diseases. intranuclear inclusion bodies are present. circulating antibodies to the etiologic agents may be demonstrated.

. .

I-D 6/24

36.

The best evidence for a causal relationship between a nasal carrier of staphylococci and a staphylococcal infection in a hospital patient is the demonstration that the organismsfrom both individuals

42.

Myxedema is an endocrine disturbance resulting from

1. secondary hyperparathyroidism in 2. 3. 4. 5.
..

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

are coagulase-positive. are penicillin resistant. are of the same phage type. are aureus-type staphylococci. produce hemolysis, liquefy gelation and fermen t mann itol.

children. primary hyperparathyroidism in adults. hyperpituitarism in adults. 'ypothyroidism in children. hypothyroidism in adults.

43.

37.

Some investigators believe streptococci are predominant in the etiology of caries because streptococci

For the majority of individuals, the initial infection with herpes simplex virus results in

1. produce caries in germ-free rats when 2. 3. 4. 5. 44.

introduced as monocontaminants. are predominant in saliva. are beta-hemolytic. contain M protein. All of the above

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

encephalitis as a young adult. a dermal rash in childhood. herpes labialis in puberty. a subclinical disease. genital herpes.

Detergents kill bacteria by interfering with the function of the cell

38.

related to the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

The radiosensitivity of tissue is most closely

.

mitotic rate. nuclear cytoplasmic ratio. RNA content of the cytoplasm. size of the cells that make up the tissue. ionization density of the primary irradiation.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 45.

wall. nucleus. capsule. membrane. cytoplasm.

Massivenecrotizing lesions of the palate in a patient with poorly~ontrolled diabetes mellitus are frequently related to

39.

The most conspicuous clinical sign of right-sided heart failure is

"1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

hypertension. mitral stenosis. pulmonary edema. systemic venous congestion. brown induration of the lung.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 46.

phycomycosis. blastomycosis. histoplasmosis. cryptococcosis. cocci doidomycosis.

An example of an endogenous bacterial infection is

40.

An example of hypoplasia is the

1. 2. 3. 4.

absence of an organ. underdevelopment of an organ. acquired reduction in size of an organ. increase in number of cells of an organ.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

trachoma.
Weil's disease. leptospirosis. salmonellosis. actinomycosis.

47. 41.
The renal disease most commonly related to hypertension is

Most forms of lung cancer arise from the

1. 2. 3. 4.

renal atresia. nephrosclerosis. acute pyelonephritis. chronic pyelonephritis.

1. peribronchial lymph nodes. 2. lining epithelium of the alveoli. 3. lining epithelium of the tracheobronchial 4.

tree. submucosal glands of the tracheobronchial tree.

I-D 7/24
,

ii

48.

Rheumatic fever, scleroderma and rheumatoid arthritis exhibit

54.

The end-product of glucose metabolism by Streptococcus mutans is

1. 2. 3. 4. 49.

fatty degeneration. amyloid degeneration. hyaline degeneration. fibrinoid degeneration.

1. 2. 3. 4.

lactate. pyruvate. citric acid. a combination of carbon dioxide and water.

.'

A bacterium well known for its large polysaccharide capsule is

55.

Root surface caries has been related to

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
so.

Clostridium te tan i. Staphylococcus aureus. Hemophilus influenzae. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 56.

Lactobacillus Actinomyces Bac terionema Streptococcus Streptococcus

and Veillonella. and Odontomyces. ma truchotti. sanguis. salivarius.

Recurrent herpes labialis occurs in those people who

Myocardial infarction results in

1. have had no previous contact with -2. have been infected with herpesvirus but 3. 4. 51.
who fail to produce antibodies against the virus. have been infected with herpesvirus and who have antibodies against the virus. are hypersensitive to herpesvirus. herpesvirus.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
57.

coagulation necrosis. liquefaction necrosis. amyloid degeneration. Zenker's degeneration. mucinous degeneration.

The cellular"infiltrate in a fully-developed delayed hypersensitivity reaction consists mainly of

Cellularswelling is one of the most common changes observed in tissues obtained at autopsy. Its occurrence

1. mast cells and erythrocytes. 2. macrophages and lymphocytes. 3. macrophages and polymorphonuclear 4.
leukocytes. .
.

1. proves only that the circulation was 2. is useful only in identifying certaininfections. deficien t.

plasma cells and polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

3. usually indicates the action of specific 4. 5. 52.

etiologic agents. assists in evaluating the nutritional status of the organ involved. is of little practical diagnostic importance.

58.

Active passage of leu kocytes through capillary walls is accomplished by means of

1. 2. 3. 4. 59.

desmosome lysis. endothelial pores. pinocytotic vesicles. loosened interendothelial

junctions.

IgGantibodies have a half-lifeof approximately

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 53.

20 minutes. 1 hour. 1 day. 1 week. 1 month.

The chemotactic accumulation at the site of immune complex deposition is a result of

1. 2. 3. 4. 60.

steroids. histamine. complement. antihistamines.

The most reliable finding in the serodiagnosis of an acute infectious disease is

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

The primary value of soap lies in its

high antibody titer. rising antibody titer. falling antibody titer. positive complement-fixation test. positive tuberculin-type skin test. .

1. 2. 3. 4.

sporocidal action. bactericidal action. bacteriostatic action. removal of microbes from skin surfaces.

I-D 8/24

61.

The epithelial change most predictive of cancer is

67.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

The most common cause of hepatomegaly ~ithout other distinctive signs and symptoms IS

acanthosis. dysplasia. metaplasia. parakeratosis. hyperkeratosis.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

ascites. hematoma. hepatitis. neoplasia. fatty change.

62.

The most reliable postmortem indicator of left ventricular cardiac failure is

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

peripheraledemaof the ankles..

chronic passivecongestion of the lungs.

ascites. venous congestion. enlargement of the spleen.

68.

Arguments against indiscriminate use of

antibiotics as chemotherapeutic (a) (b) (c)

agents include

63.

Histoplasmosis is a highly infectious mycotic diseasethat is characterized microscopically by 1. 2. 3. 4. intranuclear inclusion bodies. flask-shaped ulcers of the ileum. intracytoplasmic microorganisms in the R-Esystem. focal abscessesof the liver and the intestinal tract. none of the above.

(d)

(e)

toxic effects of the antibiotics. allergic reactions induced in patients. development of drug resistance by an infectious agent. secondary effects experienced due to creation of an imbalance in the normal body flora. alteration of the immune response.

5.
,.,
,'-

1. a), (b) and (c) 2. a), (b) and (d) 3. a), (c) and (e) 4. b), (d) and (e) 5. .c), (d) and (e) 6. All of the above 69.
Irreversible pathologic changes include (a) (b) (c) (d) fatty degeneration. hydropic degeneration. . autolysis. coagulative necrosis.

64.

CCLate"proteins synthesized in viral replication include

1. DNA polymerases. 2. virus structural proteins. 3. proteins that inhibit host cell protein 4. proteins that cause cessation of host
cell RNA synthesis. synthesis.

65.

A thymectomized animal or a person with an inborn deficiency of thymus usually has

1. (a) and (c) only 2. a), (c) and (d) 3. b) and (c) 4. ! b) and (d) 5. (c) and (d) only

1. 2. 3. .4. 5.

no lymph nodes. no phagocytic cells. a selective deficiency of IgE. total absence of circulating antibodies. decreased or absent delayed-type hypersensitivity.

70.

Seeding or transplantation metastasis would be likely in carcinomas of the (a) (b)

C) d) I e)

66.

In transduction, DNA is transferred from donor cell to recipient cell by

tongue. stomach. ovary. skin. large bowel. (b and (d and c and c and !d) and c) e) d) e) (e)

1. 2. 3. 4.

a ... 'ide an e}. .:>me. a bacteriophage. purified nucleic acid.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a), a), b' b, b,j

I-D 9/24 ..
I ~,
~

71.

When T~lIs from people with chronic periodontal disease are reacted with certain plaque bacteriaJ antigens, they produce (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) antibody . collagenase. MIF. OAF. Iymphotoxin.

74.

Oversecretion of which of the following hormones causes phosphate diuresis and results in elevated serum calcium?

1. 2. 3. 4. 75.

Thyroxin Cortisone Pituitrin Parathormone

1. a), (b) and (c) 2. b), (c) and (CJ) 3. ! b), (c) and (e) 4. (b), (d) and (e) 5. (c), (d) and (e)

Of the following bone diseases,which is of endocrine etiology? 1. 2. 3: 4. 5. Myeloma Acromegaly Osteopetrosis Paget's disease Monostotic fibrous dysplasia

76.
72.
Which of the following therapeutic agents are classed as broad-spectrum antibiotics?

What is a Ghon focus (tubercle)?

1. A primary lung lesion in the periphery' 2. A lesion occurring only in the bronchi 3. A fibrous lesion in 50 per cent of the
4. bronchi A secondary lung lesion in over 90 per cent of adults

(a) b) c) d) e)

Tetracycline. Olloromycetin@ Dihydrostreptomycin Penicillin Isoniazid

77.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. .

All of the above

(a) and (b) only a}, (b), (d) and (e) a}, (c) and (e) a}and (e) only b), (c) and (d) \c) and (d) only

Whichof the following antibiotics is effective in treating candidiasis?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 78.

Nystatin Bacitracin Penicillin Tetracycline Griseofulvin

The presence of which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility?

73.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Which of the followingmay qualitatively or quantitatively affect the oral microflora.? (a) (b) (c)
Antibiotic therapy Corticosteroid therapy An ticancer therapy

lipids Enzymes Protein coat

Polysacch ari de Methylcytosine.

79.

Whichof the following statements is correct regarding a patient recovered from hepatitis type B infection?

1. a only 2. a and (b) 3. !aj and (c) 4. b) only 5. b) and (c) 6. Ic) only 7. All of the above

1. The virus will be excreted in the feces. 2. The patient'is a good candidate for 3. The patient will have protective
4. immunity to aJlviral hepatitides. Detection of hepatitis B antigen in serum is indicative of the carrier state. blood donation.

..

I-D 10/24

80.

Infectious mononucleosis is caused by which of the following viruses?

86.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Verruca Rubella Rubeola Epstein-Barr Varicella-zoster

The major cariogenic property of Streptococcus mutans is associated with its ability to produce which of the following enzymes? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Dex tran ase Hyaluronidase Chondroitinase Aminopeptidase Glucosyltransferase

81.

Which of the following is a viral disease with oral manifestations?

ffl.

1. 2. 3. 4.
.c:: ....

Anthrax Diphtheria Herpangina undidiasis leishmaniasis

Acid phosphatase is elevated in which of the following malignancies?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Plasmacytoma Multiple myeloma Carcinoma of the thyroid Squamous cell carcinoma Adenocarcinoma of the prostate

82.

Which of the following viruses is suspect in cervical cancer?

88.

1. 2. 3. 4.

HVH-l HVH-2 EBV C-type particles

Which of the following does NOT apply to pulmonary emphysema? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. May be reversible Is generally bilateral Is more common in males' May lead to cardiac failureIs a significant public health problem

83.

Otildren of parents with which of the following blood group combinations have the highest risk of erythroblastosis fetalis? 1. 2. 3. 4. Rh+father and Rh+mother Rh+ father and Rh- mother Rh- father and Rh+ mother Rh- father and Rh- mother

89.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of infectious mononucleosis?

1. Splenomegaly 2. Bence Jones proteinuria 3. Cervical lymphadenopathy 4. Abnormal circulating lymphocytes 5. Elevated heterophile antibody titer
90. Which of the following diseases does NOT require the presence of live organisms in the body to produce the disease? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Anthrax Botulism Influenza Typhoid fever Yellow fever

84.

Flaccid paralysis of skeletal muscle is characteristic of which of the following diseases?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Tetanus Anthrax Botulism Syphilis Tuberculosis

85.

Atrophic gastritis is most commonly encountered in which of the following diseases?

91.

Which of the following conditions is NOT mediated by antibody?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Uremia Gastric ulcer Arteriosclerosis Perniciousanemia Nutritional cirrhosis

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 8

Hay fever Anaphylaxis Serum sickness Contact dermatitis Autoimmune hemolytic disease

I-D 11/24

92.

Which of the following statements is NOT characteristic of chronic myelogenous leukemia? .1. 2. 3. 4.
It is most common in adults. It is characterized by massive splenomegaly. It is the only leukemia with a specific chromosomal marker. Microscopically, the cells resemble nearly normal granulocytes. Because of the great numbers of WBC's, infections are uncommon.

96.

Each of the following is useful in the identification of viruses EXCEPT

1. nature of the viral nucleic acid. 2. morphology of the viral protein coat. 3. ability of the virus to grow on complex
4. 5.

5.

media. neutralization of the virus with specific antisera. ability of the virus to be inactivated by certain solvents such asether or chloroform.

93.

Which of the following lesions is least likely to produce acute abdominal symptoms?

97:

Severe chronic bronchitis is characterized by any of the following EXCEPT

1. 2. 3. 4.

01OIelithiasis Acute pancreatitis Carcinoma of the ampulla of Vater Carcinoma of the tail of the pancreas

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

chronic cough. purulent sputum. dyspnea on exertion. decreasedairway resist.ance. ventilation-perfusion imbalance.

94.

Which of the fonowing has the least relevance to the prognosis of a patient with malignant melanoma?

98.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
95.

Autoimmune disorders are thought to arise by any of the following mechanisms EXCEPT

Depth of invasion Multiple biopsies Sex of the patient Degree of pigmentation Palpable lymphadenopathy

1. 2. 3. .4.

release of sequestered antigen. persistent depression of the immune system. cross-reaction between exogenous and sel f-an ti gens. loss of T-suppressor cell activity against autoreactive (forbidden) clones.

Spread of hepatitis and other serious cross infections is least likely to result from operating with

99.

1. 2. 3. 4.

ungloved hanas. steam or dry heat sterilized instruments. periodontal instruments soaked in a cold disinfectant solution for 15 minutes. periodontal instruments scrubbed thoroughly with a gauze sponge and soaked with a phenolic disinfectant.

Metastasisto bone is frequent with malignant tumors of each of the following tissues EXCEPT the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

lung. breast. kidney. brain. prostate.

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATION PART I ANSWER KEY MICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY JULY

1980

I-D 12/24

No. 2. 3. 4.
S.

Ans.

1.

2
1 1 4. 5 3 1 4 1 3 5
1

No. 26.
27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
37.

Ans.
1 4 3 2 2 1 2 5 2 1 3 4 1 4 2 2 5 l 4 1 5 3 4 4 3

No.
51. 52. 53. 54.

Ans.
5 5 2 1 2 1 2 2 3 4 2 5 3 2 5 3 5 6 5 4 5 1 7 4 2

No.
76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99.

Ans. 1 1 3 4 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 5 1 2 2 4 5 4 4 2 3 4 2 4

55.
56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

6. 7. 8. 9.
10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

3 4 4 3 1 3 1 l 3 4 4 1 4

38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

DENTAL ANATOMY (14)

1.
In the drawing below, the arrow represents a possible contacting area for which of the following mandibular cusps? Refer to the figure below for items 5 and 6.

..

I-D 13/24

."

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Cusp of canine Facial cusp of first premolar Lingual cusp of first premolar Facial cusp of second premolar Lingual cusp of second premolar

5. 2.
Identify the mandibular movement in the drawing above.

Which number identifies the postural position? Which number identifies the terminal hinge

6.

axisopening?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Protrusive movement Right lateral (working side) movement Right lateral (non-working side) movement Left lateral (working side) movement Left lateral (non-working side) movement

7.

The first premolar replaces the primary

1. 2. 3. 4.

canine. premolar. first molar. second molar.

8.
3.. In the drawing below, the arrow represents a possible contacting area for which of the following maxillary cusps?

The permanent mandibular second molar differs from the permanent mandibular first molar in number of

1. 2. 3. 4.

cusps. roots.
lingual.grooves. marginal ridges.

9.
1. Cusp of canine 2. Facial cusp of first premolar 3. Lingual cusp of first premolar 4. Facial cusp of second premolar 5. Lingual cusp of second premolar

The elevation of gingival tissue normally found directly lingual to the embrasure between maxillary central incisors is the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 10.

median rugae. lingual frenum. torus palatinus. incisive papilla. incisive tubercle.

4.

Identify the mandibular movement in the drawing above.

In an ideal arrangement of permanent teeth, the incisal embrasure would be largest between

1. 2. 3. 4. S.

Protrusive movement Right lateral (workingside) movement Right lateral (non-workingside) movement Left lateral (working side) movement Left lateral (non-workingside) movement

1. maxillary central incisors. 2. maxillary central incisor and 3. mandibular central inCIsorand
lateral incisor. 4. maxillary lateral incisor and canine. lateral incisor.

11

I-D 14/24

11.

The tip of the facial cusp of a mandibular first premolar lies directly below the contacting area between

17.

The lingual surfaces of mandibular first and second premolars differ in that, for the second premolar, the lingual

1. 2. 3. 4.

maxillary canine and first premolar. maxillarY first and second premolars. maxillary canine and lateral incisor. None of the above

1. surface is narrower mesiodistally. 2. surface has no more than one cusp. 3. cusp is proportionately lower and has 4. surface is proportionately much wider
lessdevelopment. mesiodistally and the mesiolingual cusp is higher.

12.

The mental foramen is located most closely to the

l. 2. 3. 4. 5.

mandibular canine. mandibular second premolar.

18.

mandibularfirstmolar. .
maxillary first premolar. maxillary third molar.

In an ideal occlusion, the lingual cusps of permanent maxillary teeth occlude with 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. marginal ridges only. central fossae only. central and distal fossae. central and mesial fossae. marginal ridges and central and distal fossae.

13.

Oblique fibers of the periodontal ligament are classified as belonging to the general group of

1. 2. 3.

gingival fibers. transseptal fibers. alveolodental fibers.

19.

In an ideal intercuspal position, the facial cusp tip of a maxillary first premolar opposes the 1. mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular first premolar. distal marginal ridge of the mandibular first premolar. facial cusp of the mandibular first premolar. facial embrasure between mandibular canine and first premolar. facial embrasure between mandibular first and second premolars.

14.

The largest cusp of permanent maxillary teeth is the. . 1. 2. 3. 4.

2. 3.

facial cusp of the maxillary second prem~M. . mesiofacialcusp of the maxillary first molar. mesioiingualcusp of the maxillary first molar. mesiolingualcusp of the maxillary second molar.

4. 5.

20. 15.
The height of contour of the facial surface of a permanent mandibular first molar is at the

The cross-sectional cut at m/droot pictured below is most probably that of a

1. junction of occlusal and middle thirds. 2. center of the middle third. 3. junction of cervicaland middle thirds. 16.

When a permanent mandibular canine is located distal to the maxillary canine during full closure of the mandible, this is regarded asa

1. Oass I occlusion. 2. Oass II occlusion. 3. Oass III occlusion.

'"

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

lingual root of a maxillary molar. distal root of a mandibular first molar. mandibular canine. mandibular first premolar. maxillary first premolar.

12

I-D 15/24 ..

21.

In an ideal intercuspal position, the mesiolingual cusp of a permanent mandibular second molar opposes the

26.

Viewed occlusallyI the proximal contact

between maxillary first and second premolars

is located

'.

1. embrasure between maxillary first and 2.

3. 4. second molars. distal fossa of the maxillary second molar. lingual sulcus of the maxillary second molar. central fossa of the maxillary second molar. mesial fossa of the maxillary third molar.
.

1. lingual to a mesiodistal line bisecting 2.

3.

the crowns. facial to a mesiodistal line bisecting the crowns. midway between facial and lingual surfaces.

5.

27.

A distinguishing characteristic of a maxillary first premolar which identifies it as right or left is the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
hei~ht of the lingual cusp. mesial inclination of the lingual cusp. flattened area beneath the contact on the distal surface. greater length of the distal cusp ridge on the facial cusp. greater length of the mesial cusp ridge on the lingual cusp. '

22.

The orifice of the parotid duct is located

1. at the hamular notch. 2. in proximity to the incisivepapillae. 3. on the buccal mucosa near the maxillary
4. 5. second molar. slightly posterior to the mandibular central incisors. distal to the maxillary third molars on the palatal side.

28.

23.

The first evidence of calcification of permanent first molars occurs approximately at

A pronounced developmental groove is usually present on the me$ialmarginal ridge of a permanen t

1. 2. 3. 4.

birth. three years. SIXyears. none of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

mandibular third molar. mandibular second premolar. maxillary second molar. maxillary first premolar. maxillary canine.

29.

24.

The total number of cingula in each dentition is

The pulp horns most likely to be exposed accidentally in the preparation of a Class II cavity in a maxillary first molar are

1. 6. 2. 12. 3. 24. 4. 32.

1. 2. 3. 4.

mesiofacial and mesiolingual. mesiolingual and distolingual. distolingual and distofacial. distofacial and mesiofacial.

25.

It is most difficult to obtain close adaptation of the matrix band at the cervical for an amalgam restoration on the

30.

In an ideal intercuspal position, the distal cusp of a permanent mandibular first molar lies in

1. mesialsurface of a maxillary first 2. distal surface of a maxillary first 3. 4.

premolar. mesialsurface of a maxillary second premolar. distal surface of a mandibular second premolar. mesialsurface .ofa mandibular first molar. premolar.

1. the mesial fossa of the maxillary first 2.

3. 4.

s.

molar. the central fossa of the maxillary first molar. relation to the distal fossa of the maxillary first molar. the facial embrasure between maxillary first and second molars.

13

..

I-D 16/24
The mesial contact area of a permanent maxillary canine is located

31.

36.

The occlusal anatomy of the primary mandibular first molar resembles that of the
12. 3. 4. 5.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

in the incisal third. in the middle third. in the cervical third. at the junction of incisal and middle thirds. at the junction of middle and cervical thirds.

primary mandibular second molar. permanent mandibular first molar. mandibular second premolar. maxillary first premolar. None of the above

37.
32.
The self-cleansing quality of a dentition in normal alignment could be adversely affected by

Greater crown butk distal to the faciolingual bisecting plane of a tooth is most typical of a mandibular 1- central incisor. 2. lateral incisor. 3. canine. 4. second premolar.

1. contact of adjacent teeth. 2. efficient use of a toothbrush. 3. too great a can tour of the cervical enamel ridge. 4. friction of food material during mastication.

38.

A mandibular primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. central incisors. central and lateral incisors. lateral incisor and canine. canine and first molar. first and second molars.

33.

The primary canine is usually exfoliated between the ages of 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6 and 7. 8 and 9. 10 and 11. 12 and 13. 13 and 14.

39.

The mesial contact area of a permanent maxillary lateral incisor is usually located at the 1. 2. 3. incisal edge. middle of the middle third. junction of middle and incisal thirds of the crown. junction of middle and cervical thirds of the crown.

34.

The incisal edge takes an oblique course appearing as if twisted around the long axis of the root. This describes most succinctly the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. maxillary lateral incisor--incisalview. mandibular first premolar--mesial view. mandibular central incisor-distal view. mandibular lateral incisor--incisalview. mandibular first premolar--occlusalview.

4.

40.

The cross-sectional outline at the cervical level is irregularly triangular in a

1. 2. 3. 4.

mandibular second premolar. permanent maxillary second molar. permanent mandibular first molar. primary mandibular second molar.

35.

The primary maxillary central incisor differs from the permanent maxillary central incisor in that the primary incisor has 1. no cingulum. 2. no marginal ridges. 3. 'a shorter root compared with the overall length of a tooth. 4. more pronounced developmental depressions of the lingual surface of the crown. 5. greater mesiodistal width compared with the cervicoincisallength of the crown.

41.

In left lateral movement of the mandible, the lingual cusp of the maxillary right first premolar may appear to pass

1. into the facial embrasure between canine 2. toward the tip of the mandibular second
3. 4. premolar. into the lingual embrasure between first and second premolars. into the lingual embrasure between canine and first premolar. and first premolar.

14

..
I-D 17/24 I

42.

The permanent molar with the shallowest central fossa is the

48.

The enamel on the occlusal surfaces of primary molars is

1.

..

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
43.

maxillary first. mandibular first. maxillary second. mandibular second. mandibular third.

2. 3.

The most obvious characteristic which distinguishes permanent maxillary first from second and second from third molars is the

4.

of uniform thickness, and is close to 1 mm. thick. of uniform thickness, and is about 2 mm. thick. thicker at the cusp tips than in the central grooves, and is 2-2.5 mm. thick. thicker in the central grooves than at the cusp tips, and is 2-2.5 mm. thick.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

fifth cusp. height of the root trunk. size of the distolingual cusp. size of the crown and the inclination of roots. number and the distribution of accessory grooveson the occlusal surface,

49.

The beginning of active eruption of a human tooth occurs 1. 2. 3. 4.

after the root is completely formed. before the root has begun to develop. after one half of the root is formed. coincidental with the beginning of root formation.

44.

In a protrusive movement, the maxillary right central incisor ideally occludes with the mandibular

1. 2. 3. 4.

central incisors. right central incisor only. right central and lateral incisors. right lateral incisor only.

50.

The cusp divides the incisal edge of a primary canine into mesial and distal cusp slopes. A primary maxillary canine has

45.

1. a longer mesial cusp slope than distal

The ridges which together make up the. oblique ridge of a permanent maxillary first molar meet near the center of the occlusal surface on a level with the 2. 3. 4. cusp slope. a shorter mesial cusp slope than distal cusp slope. mesial and distal cusp slopes that are

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

tips of mesiolingual and distofacial cusps. depth of central and distal fossae. cusp of Carabelli. marginal ridges. cen tral groove.

equal.

mesial and distal cusp slopes that are similar to those of the permanent canine.

46.

51. Usually,the last permanent incisors to erupt are the 1. 2. 3. 4. maxillary central incisors. maxillary lateral incisors. mandibular central incisors. mandibular lateral incisors.

In a normal dentition, the most nearly vertically-aligned teeth are permanent 1. 2. 3. 4. maxillary molars. mandibular molars. maxillary and mandibular canines. maxillary and mandibular premolars.

47.

The tissues immediately adjacent to the periodontal ligament are

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

52.

dentin and I.aminadura. cementum and alveolar bone. gingivaand alveolarplate. Nasmyth membrane and enamel. the epithelial attachment and cortical bone.

The primary mandibular second molar most closely resembles the permanent 1. 2. 3. 4. maxillary first premolar. mandibular second premolar. mandibular first molar. mandibular third molar.

..

I-D 18/24

53.

The functions of the periodontal ligament are (

~})

57.

The cusp of Carabelli occurs with sufficient frequency to be considered normal in the (a) b) c) 1 d) primary maxillary first molar. primary maxillary second molar. permanent mandibular first molar. permanent maxillary first molar.

c) d} ! e)

esthetics. taste. sensory. nourishment. support.

.
1. 2. 3. 4.

1. 2. 3. 4. S.

a}, (c) and (e) c) and (d) only c), (d) and (e) d) and (e) only All of the above

(a) and (c) (a) and (d) (b) and (d) (d) only

54.

The pulp chamber of a mature tooth contains (a) (b} (c) (d) cellsthat continue to form primary dentin. an enamel lining for thermal protection. blood vesselsand nerves. odontoblasts.

58.

Of the following permanent teeth, two canals are most likely to be seen in the (a) b) c) ) d) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. maxillary central incisor. maxillary canine. mandibular canine. mesiofacial root of the maxillary first molar.

1. (a), (b) and (d) 2. a), (c) and (d) 3. b) and (c) 4. b) and (d) only 5. c) and (d) only 55.
The roots of mandibular first premolars are a) b) c) d) (e) flattened faciolingually. broader facially than lingually. frequently sharply curved distally. usually free of marked distal curvature. frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces.

(a) and (b) (a) and (c) (a) and (d) b) and (c) b) and (d)
.

c) and (d)

59.

1. 2. 3. 4.

(a) and (c) (a), (d) and (e) (b) and (e) only (b), (d) and (e)

When restoring the marginal ridges of posterior teeth, their shape shou Id be (a) (b) (c) flattened and square to eliminate food impaction. rounded to help form occlusal embrasures and improve food flow. rounded to help form occlusal embrasures and decrease food impaction. sharp-edged to cu t food better and decrease food im~action. rounded and wide enough for strength and to provide an occlusal platform when there are opposing cusps.

i !
I I I I i I !

! ,

56.

Contact areas between posterior teeth in normal alignment aid in preventing (a) (b) (c) rotation. distal drift. mesial drift.

(d) (e)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

a only a and (b) j a j and (c) b) only b) and (c) !c) only

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a and (d) b and (c) only b\ , (c) and (e) b) and (e) only c) and (e) only

16

I-D " 19/24

60.

Permanent maxillary canines are characterized by (a) (b) (c) (d)

.

63.

Whichof the following permanent teeth demonstrate the greatest variations in tooth mass? (a)
b) c) 1 d)
.

having only three point angles. possessing a root system suggesting bifurcation. erupting between ages 6 and 7. being wider through the crowns and the roots on the facial than on

Maxillary lateral incisors Maxillary canines Third molars First premolars

the lingual.
having roots that, although under bone, dictate alveolar wall morphology.

(e)

2.

1. (a) and (b)

(a) and (c)

3. (b) and (c) 4. (b) and (d)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a) and (b) only (a), (b) and (e) (b) and (c) (d) only (d) and (e)

64.
61. During function and in traumatic situations, the temporomandibular joint is protected by
(a) (b) (c) (d) synovial fluid. durability of tl1e fibrocartilage. ligament suspension. muscles of mastication.

Which of the following permanent teeth most frequently have three cusps?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Maxillary second premolar Maxillary first molar Maxillary second molar Mandibular first premolar Mandibular second premolar Mandibular second molar

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a) only (b) and (c) only (b), (c) and'(d) (d) only All of the above

(a) and (b) (a) and (d) (b) and (f) (c) and (d) (c) and (e) (e) and (f)
.

i i.
62. Whichof the followingare characteristic of the incisal edge of a permanent mandibular central incisor? (a) (b) (c)
Is relatively straight Intersects a plane bisecting the tooth into mesial and distal halves at a right angle to that plane Crosses the tooth parallel and slightly lingua! to a plane bisecting the tooth into facial and lingual halves Curves slightly with the midpoint of the curve to the facial of a bisecting plane Is relatively straight, but slants so the distal end is more to the lingual than is the mesial end

65.

Whichof the following are correct for the protruded contacting position of the mandible? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(e)

(d) (e)

(f)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

It is a symmetrical position. . It is an asymmetrical position. The lateral pterygoid muscles are the prime movers to the position. The medial pterygoid muscles are the prime movers to the position. The underside of the meniscus remains fixed relative to the superior surface of the mandibular condyle. The underside of the meniscus moves distally relative to the superior surface of the mandibular condyle.
(c) and (f) (d) and (e) (c) and (e) (c) and (f) (d) and (e)

(a), (b) and (c) (a) and (c) only (b) and (c) only (b) and (d) (d) and (e) All of the above

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a), (a), (b), (b), (b),

..

I-D 20/24

".'

66.

Mesial and distal contact areas are at approximately the same level, cervicoincisally or cervico-occlusally, in which of the following permanent teeth? a) b) c) d) (e) Maxillary central incisors Mandibular central incisors Maxillary tanines Mandibular canines Maxillary second premolars

69.

There are sharp demarcations between pulp chambers and pulp canals in which of the following teeth?

-."

1. Mandibular second premolars 2. Maxillary first premolars 3. Maxillarylateral incisors 4.' Mandibular canines Which of the following are characteristics of a permanent mandibular first molar? 1. 2. 3. 4.
Two roots and two canals Two roots and three canals Three roots and two canals Three roots and three canals

70.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

(a) and (b) (a) and (c) (b) and (d) (b) and (e) (c) and (d) None of the above 71.

Which of the following jaw positions is determined almost exclusively by tooth contact?

67.

Which of the following teeth have mesial contours which require special consideration when preparing mesio-occlusal cavities? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Maxillary first molars Maxillary second premolars Maxillary second molars Maxillary first premolars Mandibular second premolar~

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 72.

Terminal hinge Maximum opening Postural position Masticatory cycle Intercuspal position Retn,jded"contacting

position

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a) and (b) (a) and (d) (b) and (d) (b) and (e) (c) and (e)

Abnormal swallowing may produce which of the following types of malocclusion? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Closed bite Class III An terior open bi te Unilateral crossbite Crowded mandibular an terior teeth

73.

When do maxillary canines usually erupt in relation to maxillary first premolars? 1. 2. 3. Before After At about the same time

68.

Which of the following are basic differences between primary and permanent teeth? (a) (b)

(c) (d) (e)

Cervical ridgesare more pronounced in primary teeth. Crowns of primary teeth are longer compared with their mesiodistal diameters. Crowns of primary teeth are whiter. Pulp cavities are comparatively larger in primary teeth. Roots of primary teeth are comparatively longer and slimmer. .

74.

Which of the following characteristics is common to all permanent incisors?

1. From a proximal view, the incisal edge

2. 3. 4. 5. and the apex of the root are in line with each other. From a proximal view, the crests of facial and lingual cervicoenamel ridges are directly opposite each other. Mesialand distal contact areas are located in the incisal one-third of the crown. Mesialand distal contact areas are directly opposite each other. Mesialand distal contact areas are approximately centered faciolingually.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a), (b), (c) and (d) (a), (c) and (d) only (a), (c),(d) and (e) (b), (c) and (e) (b), (d) and (e)

18

I-D 21/24
75.
Which of the permanent incisors has a mesial contact area near the junction of incisal and middle thirds of the crown and a distal contact area within the middle one-third of the crown?

81.

The permanent maxillary canine normally intercuspates with which of the following teeth ?

1. 2. 3. 4. 76.

Maxillary central incisor Maxillary lateral incisor Mandibular central incisor Mandibular lateral incisor

2. 3. 4.
82.

,.

Mandibular canine and first premolar Mandibular lateral incisor and canine Mandibular first and second premolars None of the above

The anatomic crown is shorter than the clinical crown of a tooth in which of the following instances?

In an ideal centric occlusion, what is the position of the distol ingual cusp of a permanent maxillary second molar?

1. 2. 3.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
77.

Impaction Gingivitis Occlusal wear Cervical caries Gingival recession All of the above

4.

It rests in the lingual embrasure between mandibular second and third molars. It rests in the sulcus of the lingual groove of the mandibular second molar. It occludes in the central fossa of the mandibular second molar. It occludes with the mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular third molar.

At eruption, how many pulp horns usually are present in a permanent mandibular first molar? What type of fibers are principal fibers of the periodontal ligament?

83.

How does the greatest faciolingual measurement of the mandibular canine compare with the greatest mesiodistal measurement?

78.

l. 2. 3. 4.
84.

l. 2. 3. 4. 79.

Less Equal Greater No definite relation

Elastic Reticular
Collagenous Collagenous and elastic How many pulp horns are usually present in a typical primary mandibular first molar?

Which of the following features is common to both mandibular first and second premolars?

85.

l. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Basedupon morphology, a mesio-occlusal (Class II) cavity preparation would be most difficult in which of the following teeth?

Little, ifany, facial surface visible from the proximal Occlusal table triangular in outline Horizontal mesiomarginal ridge Crown bilaterally symmetrical No transverse ridge None of the above

l. 2. 3. 4.

Primary mandibular first molar Primary mandibular second molar Permanent mandibular first molar Permanent maxillary second molar

86.
80.
Which of the following is correct with respectto the roots of the permanent maxillary first molar?

The drawing below is a cross section of what permanent tooth?

viewed from the :ncisal

l. 2. 3. 4.

The palatal root is flattened and concave on its mesial and distal surfaces. The distofacial root is flattened and concave on its mesial and distal surfaces. The palatal root is located closer to the mesial. The palatal root may have a concave lingual surface.

l. Mandibular central incisor 2. Mandibular first premolar 3. Mandibular canine 4. Maxillary lateral incisor

..
87.
In an ideal intercuspal position, the mesiofacialgroove of a permanent mandibular first molar opposes which part of the

I-D 22/24

92.

Which of the following sketches illustrates the facial view of the permanent mandibular left canine?

maxillaryfirst molar? 1. 2. 3. 4. 88.

'

Tip of the distofacial cusp Tip of the mesiQfacialcusp Triangular ridge of the distofacial cusp Triangular ridge of the mesiofacial cusp

Whichof the following permanent roots is thin mesiodistally, wide faciolingually and concave on both mesial and distal surfaces?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Maxillarycentral incisor Mandibularsecond premolar Mandibularcentral incisor Facial root of a maxillary first premolar Distal root of a mandibular sec'ond molar Lingual root of a maxillary first molar Distofacial root of a maxillary first molar

93.

Whichof the following sketches illustrates the mesial view of the permanent maxillary right second molar?

89.

In mesiodistal cross section, what is the direction of enamel rods in the cervical third of the crown of a permanent maxillary first molar? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
They incline apically. They slope occlusafly. They run horizontally. They blend smoothly onto the root. None of the above. Enamel rods are not evident in this region,

90.

Whenit occurs, the immediate side shift (Bennett shift) usually has an effect on the mesiodistal positions of which molar cusps?

94.

Whichof the following sketches illustrates th~ lingual view of the permanent mandibular right lateral incisor?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

All cusps Facial cusps only Lingual cusps only Centric holding cusps only None of the above. Molar cusps are not affected.

91.

Whichof-the followingsketches illustrates the occlusal view of the mandibular left first premolar?

95.
,. . . \9 . .
",.'"

Of the followi.ngteeth, which is least likely to have two roots?

',.'

@
'"

. .'~"_': . : . . :.

~
.

'.. -,'

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 20

Maxillarycanine Mandibular canine Maxil!aryfirst premolar Mandibular first premolar Maxillarysecond premolar

I-D . 23/24

96.

The maxillary tooth which normally is least perpendicular to the plane of occlusion is the

98.

. Which of
1. 2. 3. 4.

the following is NOT characteristic of a maxillary first premolar?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 97.

central incisor. canine. first premolar. second premolar. first molar.

Whenteeth are in functional activity, some contact with the antagonist occurs in each of the following EXCEPT

The central groove runs in a mesiodistal direction. The mesial contact area is toward the mesiofacialline angle. The mesial surface has the deepest concavity found on the mesial surface of any permanent posterior tooth. The occlusal surface has a wrinkled appearance because of accessory grooves arising from the central groove.
.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

lateral protrusive contacting position. protrusive contacting position. retruded contacting position. intercuspal position.

rest position.

"
NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATION PART I
ANSWER KEY

I-D 24/24

DENTAL ANATOMY

JULY

1980

No. -

MS.

No.

MS.

No.

Ans.

No.

Ans.

1.
2.

2
3
3 1. 5 4 3 1 4 4 1 2 3 3 3 2 4 5 5 5 l 3 l 2 l

26. 27.
28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37.. 38. 39. 40. 4l. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

2 2
4 1 3 4 3 3 4 5 5 3 4 3 2 2 5 3 3 4 2 2 1 3 l
-

3.
4.

51. 52.
53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67.

4 3
3 5 4 3 3 6 3 5 5 1 2 5 1 4 2
-

76. 77.
78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 94. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98.

5 5
3 6 4 1 4 3 4 1 1 4 3 1
-1

5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
10. 11.. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19..20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

68.
69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

2 2 5 3 2 5 2

5 3 4 5 1 1 5 4

1~ PART I
. .

(),I 1'5,

ANATOMIC SCIENCES (11)

1.
The cellular organelle that contains many types of hydrolytic enzymes is the

7.

Systemic arteries and veins differ in that 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. veins have more elastic tissue. arteries have a relatively thinner tunica media. valves are.oiten present in veins. arteries have larger endothel ial pores. elastic membranes are less pronounced in arteries.
of mature dentin is

1. 2. 3. 4.

lysosome. centrosome. mitochondrion. endoplasmic reticulum.

2.

Mucosa of all parts of the small intestine is characterized by possessing

8.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

The fibrillar component

rugae. villi. haustra. teniae coli. appendices epiploicae.

1. 2. 3. 4.

elastin. keratin. collagen. reticulin.

3.

Saliva:ry glands of the palate are located in the

9.

The respiratory

diaphragm is innervated by the

1. 2. 3. 4.

posterolateral zone. anterolateral zone. gingivalzone. median raphe.

1. 2. 3. 4.

vagus nerves. phrenic nerves. splanchnic nerves. recurrent (inferior) laryngeal nerves. '1 -1

4.

10.
The bony floor of the nasal cavity is formed
by the
1.
'

The descending palatine artery is ;r branch of the

1. 2. 3. 4.

., ,. 3. 4.

palatine process of the maxilla and the vertical part of the palatine. palatine process of the temporal and the horizontal part of the palatine. vomer and the vertical part of the palatine. palatine process of the maxilla and the horizontal part of the palatin~.

pterygopalatine part of the maxillary artery . first part of the facial artery. ascending pharyngeal artery. sphenopalatine artery.

l ' , 1 I I t i !

11.

5.

In the adult, cerebrospinal fluid .can be aspirated most safely by inserting the needle between the third and the fourth lumbar vertebrae because

The enamel has no possibility of self-repair because 1.

it has only a small per cen t of organic content. its formative cells are lost once it is completely formed. it is essentially a keratin tissue and has no blood vessels. it has no direct connection with the active cells of the dental pulp.

1. 2. 3. 4.

2. 3. 4.

5.

there is more space between the laminae of these two vertebrae. the subarachnoid space does not extend below lumbar 4. the spinal cord usually does not extend below lumbar 2. there is less danger of en tering the internal vertebral plexus at this level. there are no important nerves in this part of the vertebral canal.

6.

Ribonucleic acid that is involved in protein synthesis is found primarily in the

12.

The visual center of the cerebral cortex is located in the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

nucleolus. mitochondria. Golgi complex. fluid ground substance. granular endoplasmic reticulum.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

hypothalamus. parietal lobe. occipital lobe. indusium griseum. medulla oblongata.

I II

13.

In H & E stained sections, the large, deeply stained granules found in the cytoplasm of epithelial cells in keratinized oral mucosa are most likely 1. 2. 3. 4. glycogen. desmosomes. tonofibrils. keratohyal ine.

19.

Me~i1ase is a stage in mitotic division in whic~ 1. 2.

'"

).

4.

:~II constriction takes place. :1e nuclear chromatin is first dispersed. ::1romosomes line up at the equatorial :iate. ::1romosomes migrate toward the polar ::1ds of the cell.

II i i I I I ! I !
I I

I
I t

14.

The principal site of granulocytic hematopoiesis in the adult human is 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. the liver. the spleen. lymph nodes. red bone marrow. yellow bone marrow.

20.

The ::ndon of the tensor veli palatini mus,:.e curves around the
1. 2. 3. 4. ).

:;'1gular spine. s.yloid process. :terygoid hamulus. .1teral pterygoid plate. ~eck of the condyle of the mandible.

15.

The alveolar crest fiber group of the periodontal ligament is characterized by 1. 2. 3. 4. nourishing the gingiva. being loose, clastic, connective tissue. attaching normally to the cervical cementum. preventing apical displacement of the tooth.

21.

Pro:-Jsion of the tip of the tongue beyond the :::Jening of the oral cavity is accompl ished prir:-.:;ri/y by the 1. 2.
'"

). 4. 5.

-:1ylohyoid muscle. ~yoglossal muscle. styloglossus muscle. ~enioglossus muscle. :1rrinsic tongue musculature.

16.

The area at which calcification of a tooth begins is the 1. 2. 3. 4.

roo t. enamel matrix.

22.

Se; :~tions of pain and temperatu re are car~ :d by the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

cementoenamel
dentinoenamel

junction.
junction.

:orticospinal tract. :orticobulbar tract. ateral spinothalamic tract. ;entral reticulospinal tract. :::nrsal spinocerebellar tract.

'\;

17.

The capaci ty of the tongue for forceful mo'.;emen t depends upon 1. 2. 3. 4. smooth muscle cranial nerve. striated muscle cranial nerve. skeletal muscle cranial nerve. skeletal muscle cranial nerve. supplied by the fifth supplied by the seventh supplied by the fifth supplied by the twelfth

23.

Th:: :hick filaments in skeletal muscle are

l. 2. 3. 4. 5.

.~ ;:

Ie,

:omposed of actin. ;:>resentin the I bands. .:rossed by the Z line. ;:>resentonly in the A band. composed of both actin and myosin.

24.

Th~ alternate loosening and tightening of a pr:mary tooth that is about to be shed ma:.;resul t from

! ,
'J

18.

The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct join at the

1. 2. 3. 4.

cystic duct. hepatic duct. cisterna chyli. hepatopancreatic

ampulla (of Vater).

lack of developing permanent successors. 2. alternate resorption and apposition of cementum and bone. 3. alternate softening and hardening of the alveolar bone proper. 4. movement in a lingual direction of the developing permanent tooth.
l.

d
:~

j .
,, ; i .!

25.

The component of bone tissue that gives a bone tensile strength is the

30.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

calcified cement substance. interconnecting canaliculi. collagenous fibrils of matrix. periosteal connective tissue. elastic fibers.

An efferent lymphatic channel and an afferent lymphatic channel in lymph nodes differ in that the efferent vessel
1. is located in the hilus region of the gland, whereas the afferent vessel enters the gland elsewhere. contains numerous myeloid white blood cells, whereas the afferent vessel contains few, if any, white blood cells. has no valve structure, whereas the afferent vessel has a valve component. is lined partially with reticuloendothelial cells, whereas the afferent vessel is lined totally with endothelial cells.

2. 3.

26.

4.
Long bones of the skeleton increase in length because of

1. 2. 3.
4.

5.

mitotic division of osteocytes. mitotic division of osteoblasts. resorption of primary bone by osteoclasts. appositional growth on the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate. interstitial growth in the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate.

31.

A bifid uvula will result from failure of complete fusion of the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

medial nasal and maxillary processes. lateral Iingual swell jngs. lateral nasal processes. medial nasal processes. palatine shelves.

27.

The artery supplying the anterior one-third of the tongue is the

32.

The middle cranial fossa is separated from the posterior cranial fossa primarily by the 1. 2. 3. 4.
crista gall i. groove for the transverse sinus. lesser wing of the sphenoid bone. petrous part of the temporal bone.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

sublingual. deep lingual. dorsal lingual. inferior alveolar. ascending pharyngeal.

33. 28.
The mandibular foramen is located 1. 2. 3. nearest the premolars. nearest the incisors. medial to the lingual borders of the molars. below the occlusal plane of the mandibular molars and posterior to them. above the occlusal plane of the mandibular molars and posterior to them.

The ducts of salivary glands that are lined by a single layer of tall, columnar epithelial cells with radially arranged mitochondria are called.

4. 5.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

lobar ducts. primary ducts. striated ducts. intercalated ducts. interlobular ducts.

29.

A sarcomere is the part of the myofibril enclosed between

34.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

When compared with the diameter of the lumen, the greatest proportion of thickness of smooth muscle is found in 1. 2. 3. 4. large arteries. capillaries. arterioles. veins.

two consecutive H bands. two consecutive I bands. two consecutive Z bands. an I band and the next A band. a Z band and the next H band.

.. 35.
41.

The growth hormone of the pituitary gland is produced by 1. 2. 3. 4. the basophils. the acidophils. the chromophobe cells. all of the chromophil cells.

The collagen fibers inside cementum are produced by 1. 2. 3. 4. odontoblasts and cementoblasts. cementoblasts and fibroblasts. cementoblasts exclusively. fibroblasts exclusively.

36.
H

Metastasizing cells that originate in the tip of the tongue follow the paths of the lymphatic vessels of the tongue and arrive first into the

42.

The muscles of facial expression are derived embryonically from the 1. maxillary process of the first branchial arch. mandibular process of the first branchial arch. second branchial arch. All of the above Only(l) and (2) above

~ ",

II r'l f.. ~t
[I

,t t'l
(j ,J
[1

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

submental nodes. submandibular nodes. supraclavicular nodes. superficial parotid nodes. superior deep cervical nodes.

2. 3. 4. 5.

37.

, c,
:1

During tooth eruption, the permanent successors of the pri mary teeth move occlusally and

43.

I ! i t

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

distally. mesially. buccally. lingually. none of the above.

The blood vessels in the interdental papilla anastomose freely with

I
38.
The foramen through which the facial nerve emerges from the skull is the

1. 2. 3. 4.

periodontal vessels only. interalveolar vessels only. both periodontal and interalveolar vessels. none of the above.

44.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

foramen ovale. foramen lacerum. mastoid foramen. foramen spinosum. stylomastoid foramen.

The mandibular fossa (glenoid fossa) is a part 0f the 1. 2. 3. 4. mandible. sphenoid bone. fron tal bone. temporal bone.

39.

The oldest lamella of an osteon is 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. not calcified.

.

covered by endosteum. the most central lamella. surrounded by periosteum. the most peripheral lamella.

45.

The germinal center of a lymph nodule represents the 1. 2. 3. 4. area of proliferation of lymphocytes. area of red pulp. central artery. medulla.

40.

The corner of the mouth is formed by the fusion of the

1. 2.

3. 4.

globular process and the lateral nasal process. lateral nasal process and the maxillary process. medial nasal process and the maxillary process. maxillary process and the mandibular process.

46.

The postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies to the parotid gland are found within the

12. 3. 4.

otic ganglion. ciliary ganglion. sphenopalatine ganglion. pterygopalatine ganglion.

47.

The organelle that is typically composed of vesicles and curved, flattened cisternae parallel to one another is the

53.

Testosterone is produced

by the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

centriole. mitochondrion. Golgi complex. rough endoplasmic reticulum. smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

epididymis. Sertoli cells. sustenacular cells. seminiferous tubules. interstitial cells of Leydig.

54.
48.
As air passes from the trachea into the lungs, the first structure in which gaseous exchange through the wall of an alveolus may occur is the

The crista terminalis is the line of junction between the primitive

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

1. 2. 3. 4.

sinus venosus and the auricle. ventricle and the conus arteriosus. conus arteriosus and the right atrium. truncus arteriosus and the left atrium. -,-

bronchus. bronchiole. alveolar sac. alveolar duct. respiratory bronchiole.

55.

In the case of a slowly occluded inferior vena cava, a useful collateral route may develop involving the 1. 2. 3. 4. several epigastric veins. total azygos system. Both (1) and (2) above Nei the r (1) nor (2) above

49.

Intervals between the bones in the midline of the cranial base of a newborn child consist of

1. 2. 3. 4.

hyaline cartilage. elastic cartilage. fibrous cartilage. fibrous connective tissue.

56.

If a tooth crown is being tilted mesially during orthodon tic tooth movement, the (a) coronal half of the mesial wall of the socket shows resorption. apical half of the mesial wall of the socket shows resorption. coronal hal f of the distal wall of the socket shows deposition: apical half of the distal wall of the socket shows deposition.

50.

In an adult, the site of origin of the thyroid gland is seen as the

(b) (c)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

copula. foramen cecum. eustachian tube. palatine tonsil. tuberculum impar.

(d)

51.

1. 2. 3. 4.

(a) and (b) (a) and (c) (b) and (d) (c) and (d)

The folding of the embryo during the fourth week is the result of the 1. 2. 3. 4.
prominent growth of the neural tissues. development of the umbilical arteries. development of the branchial arches. twisting of the developing heart.

57.

Ligamentous remnants of the fetal circulatory system persisting in the adult include the (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. ligamentum ligamentum ligamentum ligamentum ligamentum nuchae. venosum. arteriosum. teres of the liver. teres of the uterus.

52.

The alveolar bone proper (cribriform plate) usually consists of

1. 2. 3. 4.

woven bone. bundle bone only. lamellar bone only. bundle bone and lamellar bone.

(a), (b) and (c) (a), (b) and (e) (a), (d) and (e) (b), (c) and (d) (c), (d) and (e)

.."

,.

58.

Transitional epithelium is characteristic of the lining of the (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. trachea. ureter. uterus. first part of the prostatic urethra. urinary bladder.

61.

Modifications of the cell membrane for special functions include

0

i
'J

i
~ ~,

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

microvilli.

basement

membranes.
..

desmosomes.

mucous mem branes. brush border.

~ ,

(a), (c) and (d) (a), (c) and (e) (b), (c) and (d) (b), (d) and (e) All of the above

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a) only (a),(b) and (e) (a), (c) and (e) (b) and (d) (c) and (d)

62.
59.
A transection of the lingual nerve after (distal to) its junction with chorda tympani will be expressed clinically in the tongue by a loss of

Which of the following events may take place

during active inspiration? a) b) c) (d) (e)

The diaphragm descends. The epiglottis closes. Rib joints are active. The uvula swings superiorly. The lateral diameter of the thorax increases.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

movemen t. taste to the anterior two-thirds. taste to the posterior one-third. tactile sense to the anterior two-thirds. tactile sense to the posterior one-third.

,
2.

(a), (b) and (d) . (a), (c) and (e) (b), (c), (d) and (e) (b) and (d) only (c) 'and (e) only All of the above

3. 4. 5. 6.

(a), (b) an d (c) (a), (c) and (e) (a) and (e) only (b), (c) and (d) (b) and (d) only (c) and (e) only

63.

Cellular cementum is always present along which of the following portions of the root surface? (a) (b) (c) Coronal third Middle third Apical third

60.

The oral mucosa of the soft palate differs from the vermilion border of the lip in that the oral mucosa is composed of (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) keratinized epithelium with strata granulosum and corneum. shallow, blunt rete pegs. lamina propria of loose fibrous connective tissue. salivary acini deep to the mucous membrane. numerous mast cells underlying epithelium.

2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

,.

(a) only (a) and (b) (a) and (c) (b) only (b) and (c) (c) only

64.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

(a), (b), (c) and (d) (a), (b), (d) and (e) (a), (c), (d) and (e) (b), (c) and (d) only (b), (c), (d) and (e) (c) and (e) only

Which of the following changes occurs in dental pulp with age?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Increase in the number of collagen fibers

Increase in the number of cells Increase in the size of the pulp chamber Increase in vascularity and tissue vitality

65.

Which of the following occurs when the cell body of a neuron is destroyed? l. 2.
,3.

71.

Which of the following is located at the opening between the small and the large intestines?

4.

All of its fibers degenerate and die. Afferent fibers serve as production sites for new cell bodies. New nerve cells develop from remaining cells to take the place of those lost. The sheath cells or surrounding neuroglia cells serve as guides or pathways for new neuron formation.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Cardiac sphincter Pyloric sphincter Ileocecal valve Tricuspid valve

72.

66.

Which of the following arteries is most concerned with the blood supply to the upper lip? l. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Which of the following is necessary for cementum to be deposited during root deve!opmen t? .12. 3. 4. The tooth must be erupting: Ameloblasts must be present. Stellate reticulum must be present. Epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) must be fenestrated.

Facial Maxillary External nasal Greater palatine Anterior superior alveolar

73.

Which of the following is a cytoplasmic inclusion? l. 2. 3. 4. 5. Endoplasmic reticulum Golgi apparatus Free ribosome Mitochondria Glycogen

67.

Which of the following groups of adul t salivary glands are entirely serous? l. 2. 3. 4. Parotid and Parotid and von Ebner's von Ebner's von Ebner's submandibular and palatal and sublingual

74. 68.
Increased resistance to pulmonary blood flow in the lungs would cause a strain on which chamber of the heart?

Which of the following statements indicates a true-similarity between skin of the forearm and skin of the palm? l. 2. 3. 4. Both types contain sebaceous glands. The stratum lucidum is present in each. The stratum germinativum is present in each. .The thickness of the epidermis is about

1. 2. 3. 4.

Left atrium Right atrium Left ventricle Right ventricle 75.

the same.

69.

Whichof the following bones aid in forming the pterygopalatine fossa? 1. 2. 3. 4. Palatine, maxillary, vomer Maxillary, temporal, palatine Sphenoid, palatine, maxillary Sphenoid, temporal, palatine

Which of the following endocrine glands possesses a vascular portal system?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 76.

Hypophysis

Thyroid gland

Suprarenal gland Parathyroid gland Pancreatic islets (Langerhans)

70.

Whichof the lymphoid tissues in the body are considered subepithelial and nonencapsulated?

Whichof the following arteries supplies most of the blood to the parathyroid glands?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Tonsils and thymus gland Peyer's patches and tonsils Thymus gland and lymph nodes Lymph nodes and aggregated nodules

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Thyroidea ima Inferior thyroid Superior laryngeal Ascending cervical Ascending pharyngeal

;, ",,'

m,

!!it

77.

Which of the following structures is considered retroperi toneal? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Pancreas Appendix Stomach Jejunum Ileum

82.

The duct of the submandibular salivary gland runs anteriorly from the gland immediately deep to which muscle? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Mylohyoid Hyoglossus Stylohyoid Genioglossus Anterior digastric

78.

Which of the following occurs when protrusion of the tongue is attempted with unilateral damage of the hypoglossal nerve? 1. 2. 3. 4. The tongue points downward. The tongue points to the side with the lesion. The tongue points away from the side with the lesion. The geniohyoid compensates for the insufficiency.

83.

During tooth eruption into the oral cavity, what happens to the epithelial covering of the enamel? 1. 2. 3. 4. It remains as the primary cu ticle. It unites with the oral epithelium and then degenerates. It is replaced by oral epithelium and then degenerates. It unites with the oral epithelium and becomes the primary cuticle.

79.

When stratified squamous epithelium thickens, which set of conditions usually prevails? 1. The rete pegs increase in size and the intercellular bridges become more evident. The basement membrane becomes more irregular and the dermis acquires an increased lymphatic supply. The stratum spinosum becomes less evident and the basement membrane thickens. The number of vascular capillaries in the dermis increases and more sweat glands develop.

84.

The temporomandibu-Iar joint can be dislocated in only which of the following directions? 1. 2. 3. 4. Anterior Medial Posterior Lateral

2. 3. 4.

85.

Which of the following occurs in the development of a neutrophil from the stem cell in red bone marrow?

1. 2. 3. 4.

80.

The The The The

cytoplasm acquires chromatin granules. property of phagocytosis is gained. nucleus becomes more hyperchromatic. nucleus acquires its centrioles.

In growth of the neuron, there is an essential synthesis of axoplasm to accommodate for increasing axonal length. Where is this material synthesized?

86.

In the pancreatic islets (Langerhans), which cell type produces insulin?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Within the cell body In connective tissue Within Schwann cells Within the axon itself

1. 2. 3. 4.

Alpha Beta Delta Gamma

81.

The arterial supply of the submandibular gland is from which branch of the external carotid artery? 1. 2. 3. 4.
Ascending pharyngeal Superior thyroid Maxillary Facial

87.

Which of the following structures is essen tial for the initiation of dentin formation?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Enamel Cementum Stellate reticulum Inner enamel epithelium

88.

Which of the following processes may cause the position and the shape of an api,cal foramen to change? 1. 2. 3. 4.
Local Local Local All of resorption of cementum deposition of cementum resorption of dentin the above

94.

Which of the following structures is NOT present in the inguinal canal of the male? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Epididymis Cremaster muscle Testicular artery Internal spermatic fascia Pampiniform plexus of veins

89.

Which of the following cell types has cytoplasmic granules containing histamine?

95.

Which of the following diarthrodial joints?

is NOT true of all

1. 2. 3. 4.

Mast cell Fibroblast Eosinophil

Plasma cell

1. 2.
, 3.

The surface of the bearing joint is aneu ral. The surface of the bearing joint is avascular. The surface of the bearing joint is composed of hyal ine cartilage. A synovial membrane is present. Movement is always possible.

90.

4. 5.
When a patient attempts protrusion, the mandible deviates markedly to the right. Which of the following muscles is unable to contract?

1. Left temporal is 2. Right temporal is 3. Right medial pterygoid 4. Righ t la teral pterygoi d 5. Left lateral pterygoid

96.

Which of the following bones is NOT formed by endochondral ossification?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Nasal Ethmoid Sphenoid Temporal

91.

Which of the following periodontal tissues is never found in contact with the enamel?

97.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Epithelial attachment Principal fibers Cementum Cu ticle

The muscle that assists in mastication but is NOT innervated by the mandibular nerve is the

1. 2. 3. 4.

masseter. mylohyoid. buccinator. tensor veli palatini.

92.

Which of the following muscles does NOT belong to the infrahyoid group?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

98.
Omohyoid Thyrohyoid Stylohyoid Sternohyoid Sternothy roid

Primary cementum, secondary dentin and cancellous bone have all of the following characteristics in common EXCEPT

1. 2. 3. 4.

showing growth. containing cells. resorbing under pressure. being derived from mesenchyme.

93.

The secretion of which of the following endocrine glands is NOT essential to life?

99.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

The tentorium cerebelli con tains all of the f~lIowing dural venous sinuses EXCEPT the

Parathyroids Adrenal cortex Adrenal medu II a Anterior pituitary Pancreatic isletS (Langerhans)

1. straight. 2. transverse. 3. superior petrosal. 4. inferior petrosal.

ci
~ b
~ ~. [: FI i'.

fl ~

NATIONAL

BOARD DENTAL ANSWER

EXAMINATION KEY MARCH 1981

PART

., :,

ANATOMIC

SCIENCES

No.

Ans.

No. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49.. 50.

Ans. 5 2 5 3 1 5 4 3 3 2 1 3 5 5 4 2 3
3.

No. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58.. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

Ans. 1 4 5 1 3 2 4 4 4 4 3 2 6 1 1 4 1 4 3 2 3 1 5 3 1

No. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99.

Ans. 2 1 2 1 1 4 1 2 1 3 2 4 4 1 4 2 3 3 1 3 1 3 2 4

1.
2. 3. 4.
5.

1
2 1 4 2 5 3 3 2 1 3 3 4 4 3 4 4 4 3 3 4 3 4 2 3

6.
7.

8.
9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 4. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

..

-,

4 1 1 3 5 1 2

8 loe HEM ISTRY- PHYS 'eleGY

,
.

(12)

1.

Mechanical efficiency is the

of muscular contraction

6.

Triglyceride absorbed into the lymphatic system is transported to the Iiver as

1. 2. 3. 4. ~ 5. chylomicrons. very low density lipoprotein. low density lipoprotein. high density lipoprotein. very high density lipoprotein.

1. 2. 3.
4.

ratio between initial heat and total heat. load under which the muscle does the greatest amount of work. ratio between amount of work done and total energy expended. ratio between number of activated motor units and total number of motor units in the muscle.

7.

After functioning in the small intestines, the Iargest porti on of bi Ie sal ts are

2.

Aldosterone

causes

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

1. 2. 3.
4.

decreased renal excretion of potassium. decreased reabsorption of chloride. increased transfer of potassium into the cell. increased renal tubular reabsorption of sodium.

excreted in the feces. reabsorbed into the central lacteal. destroyed by bacteria in the large intestines. reabsorbed into the portal circulation and reused. removed from the circulation by the kidneys and excreted in the urine.

8.

The consequence of appreciable conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin is

3.

1.
The organ chiefly responsible for resistance to change in the pH of blood is the

2.

1. 2., 3. 4. 5.

liver. heart. kidney. spleen.

gall bladder.

3. 4. 5.

a significant increase in carbon dioxide combining power. a significant decrease in carbon dioxide combining power. no effect on the ability of blood to pick up oxygen. a noticeable increase in the ability of blood to pick up oxygen. a noticeable decrease in the ability of blood to transport oxygen.

4.

9.
The major protein produced by the odontoblast and contained in the organic matrix of den tin is
'

The most suscepti ble sites in the nervous system for the effects of acute anoxia are the 1. 2. 3. 4.
motor end-pi ates. sensory receptors. synapses in autonomic ganglia. synapses in the central nervous system.

1. 2. 3. 4. S.

chitin. keratin. elastin. collagen. cellulose.

10.

The most significant immediate result of lowered serum calcium is

l. 2. 3. 4.

5.

The mechanism of fluoride action in reducing dental decay is most likely the result of

weakened heart action. decalcification of bones. decalcification of teeth. hyperirritability of nerves and muscles.
'

1. 2.
3.

4.

an increase in remineralization of enamel. a reduction of solubility of enamel as fluo.ride content increases. an influence on exchange of ions between body fluids and hard tissues. a decrease in carbohydrate metabolism in the oral cavity as a resul t of a bacteriostatic effect.

11.

Enzymes concerned with the citric acid cycle are found in the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

nucleus. ribosomes. mitochondria. nonparticulate cytoplasm. None of the above

12.

In man, a-amylase ptyalin is secreted by the 1. 2. 3. 4.

facial glands. parotid glands. sublingual glands. submaxillary'glands.

18.

Breathing ceases upon destruction of the

1. thalamus. 2. cerebrum. 3. cerebellum. 4. hypothalamus. 5. medulla oblongata.

13.

The extracellular polysaccharides synthesized by cariogenic streptococci in the presence of excess sucrose are bes t described as

19.

Keratosulfate occurs primarily in

',','

",

~1 v'

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

amylase. amylopectin. mucopolysaccharide. glycogen-likeglucan. dextran-like glucan.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

bile. blood. liver. urine. cartilage.

14.

Neutralization of acids by saliva results mainly from its content of

20.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

mucin. ammonia. carbonate. amino acids. bicarbonate.

Proteins obtained from corn are "poor" in nutritional value for man because these proteins are 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. low in glycine. low in histidine. high in tryptophan. high in methionine. low in lysine and low in tryptophan.

15.

The antidiuretic hormone is released from the posterior pituitary gland and acts to 1. 2. 3.
4. decrease renal filtration fraction. increase storage capacity of the bladder. decrease permeability of collecting ducts to water. increase permeability of collecting ducts to water.

21.

The blood glucose level in diabetes mellitus is decreased by removal of the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

gonads. thyroid. parathyroids. anterior pituitary. posterior pituitary.

16.

During a normal cardiac cycle, the isometric contraction phase of ventricular systole occu rs

22.

Reflex after-discharge can be explained in terms of the properties of

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

following closure of the A-V valves. following opening of the A-V valves. following closure of the aortic valves. following opening of the aortic valves. immediately upon excitation of the atria.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

anterior horn cells. afferent nerve fibers. neuromuscular junctions. internuncial pool circuits. none of the above.

17.

When a membrane is depolarized, it becomes more

23.

1. 2. 3. 4.

sensitive to a stimulus. permeable to the passage of ions. positively charged on the outside. resistant to the flow of an electric current.

The reabsorption of sodium chloride is controlled in the kidney tubules by

1. 2. 3. 4.

thyrotropic hormone. antidiuretic hormone. an adrenal cortical hormone. an adrenal medullary hormone.

..

24.

The most likely cause of essential hypertension is

30.

The degenerate nature of the genetic code implies 1. 2. 3. 4. a common tRNA for at least two amino acids. the existence of multiple codons for each

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

increased blood volume. increased cardiac output. increased blood viscosity. decreased peripheral resistance. generalized constriction of arterioles.

25.

The process by which motor neurons to extensor muscles acting at a particular joint are inhibited by stretch of the flexor muscles acting at the same join t is

amino acid. . that a remarkable degree of inaccuracy occurs in transcription. the existence of multiple species of ribosomes for control of messenger translation.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

myotatic reflex. spatial summation. monosynaptic reflex. reciprocal innervation. none of the above.

31.

An EKGshowing a consistent rhythmical ratio of three P waves to each QRST complex indicates
l. 2. 3. 4. 5. idioven tricular beat. a bundle-branch block. a complete bundle block. an A-V node partial block. an abnormal S-A node rhythm.

26.

The chorda tympani nerve contains

1. 2. 3. 4.
-

only postganglionic fibers. preganglionic sympathetic secretory nerves. preganglionic parasympathetic secretory fibers. only fibers that innervate the sublingual gland.

32.

Countercurrent multiplier activity of the kidney is dependent upon the l. 2. presence of ADH. reabsorption of water from collecting duc ts. intensity of vasoconstriction of efferent arterioles. active reabsorption of water in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. active reabsorption of sodium ions in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

3.

4. 27.
The maximum frequency of effective nerve stimulation is limited by the length of the

5.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

chronaxie. negative after-potential. relative refractory period. absolute refractory period. utilization time of stimulus.

33.

The decrease in osmolarity of plasma that occurs after drinking large amounts of water results in
l. 2. 3. 4. an increase in secretion of ADH. no change in osmolarity of urine. a decrease in the ADH level in blood. an increase in reabsorption of NaCl by tubules. a marked increase in glomerular filtration due to a decrease in colloid osmotic pressure.

28.

Ketosis may be produced experimentally by

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

fasting. feeding a low fat diet. feeding a low salt diet. feeding a high protein diet. feeding a high carbohydrate diet.

5.

29.

34.
A marked reduction in the serum calcium ion concentration in man will resultin

The normal blood bicarbonate-carbonic acid ratio is 20:1. A patient with a 10:1 ratio is in

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

renal failure. loss of equilibrium. spontaneous hemorrhage. increased muscul.arrelaxation. increased muscular~rritability.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

compensated alkalosis. compensated acidosis. uncompensa ted aIkalosis. uncompensated acidosis. none of the above. This patient's ratio is within normal limits.

13

I'

t
~1

.."

~L r~

35.

The mobilization of blood sugar from liver glycogen occurs by way of a series of enzymatic reactions. The last step in this sequence is catalyzed by

41.

Much of the body sodium content is readily "exchangeable" except for that portion found In 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. bone. skeletal muscle.' potential spaces. cerebrospinal fluid. gastrointestinal secretions.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

aldolasc. glucokinase. glucose-6-phospha tase. fruc tosc-6-ph osph atase. glycogcn phosphorylase.

36.

Iron-porphyrin protein structures are

42.

componcn ts of
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. myoglobin. B vitamins. hemoglobin. cy toch romcs. pyridinc dinucleotides.

Blood leaving the lungs is saturated with O2 to the extent of approximately

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 43.

5 per 25 per 50 per 75 per 98 per

cen t. cent. cen t. cent. cen t.

37.

The lipotropic cffcct of lecithin upon fatty livers may also be produced by 1. 2. 3. 4. choline. lipoic acid. ethanolamine. {3-hydroxybutyric acid.

CO:: is transported in the blood predominantly in the form of 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. carbonic acid. carbaminohemoglobin. bicarbonate in plasma. bicarbonate in erythrocytes. CO:: physically dissolved in plasma.

38.

Lipid is required in the average diet because it 1. 2. 3.. 4. has a high caloric value. provides essen tial fatty acids. aids in absorption of carbohydrates. is necessary for storage of carbohydrates.

44.

The Km value of an enzyme is numerically equal to

1.

2. 3.

39.

The generator potential of a receptor is characterized by being

4.

1. 2. 3. 4.

an all-or-none response. propagated in a nondecremental manner. universally present in all nerve tissue~ graded according to strength of the stimulus.

half the maximum velocity expressed in moles!! iter. the ratio of velocity of reaction divided by the substrate concentration. the substrate concentration in moles/liter necessary to achieve half the maximum velocity of a reaction. the maximum velocity divided by half the substrate concentration in moles necessary to achieve maximum velocity..

45.

Stimulation of a carotid sinus nerve results in 1. increased heart rate, decreased arterial blood pressure and decreased venous return. increased heart rate, increased artcrial blood pressure and decreased venous return. decreased heart rate, decreased arterial blood pressure and decreased venous retUrn. decreased heart rate, decreased arterial blood pressure and no effect on venous return. decreased arterial blood pressure and no effect on heart rate or venous return.

40.

The physiologic importance of hemoglobin lies in its ability to combine 1. 2. irreversibly with oxygen and CO2, reversibly with oxygen at the ferric heme prosthetic group. irreversibly with oxygen at the ferrous heme prosthetic group. reversibly with oxygen at the ferrous heme prosthetic group. None of the above

2.

3.

3. 4. 5.

4.

5.

. .

46.

The general reaction for the transfer of a leone-carbonfragment" requires the coenzyme 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. pyridoxal phosphate. tetrahydrofolic acid. thiamine pyrophosphate. flavin adenine dinucleotide. diphosphopyridine nucleotide.

51.

Positive nitrogen balance is likely to take place following administration of

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

adrenal in. aldosterone. growth hormone. en te rogas trone. thyroid hormone.

47.

52.
An immediate effect of diminished oxygen tension in the myocardium is

Right-sided lesions of the spinal cord result in

1. 2. 3. 4.

1. vasodilatation of coronary vessels. 2. vasoconstriction of coronary vessels. 3. stimulation of chemoreceptors and,

4.
therefore, an increase in coronary blood flow. stimulation of chemoreceptors and, therefore, a decrease in coronary blood flow. none of the above.

5.

loss of motor activity, pain and temperature sensations on the same side. loss of motor activity on the same side and pain and temperature sensations on the opposite side. loss of motor activity, pain and temperature sensations on the opposite side. loss of motor activity on the opposite side and pain and temperature sensations on the same side.

48.

A vitamin derivative concerned with conversion of glucose to lactic acid is

53.

Sodium fluoride inhibits glycolysis by affecting

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

thiamine (as cocarboxylase). pantothenic acid (as coenzyme A). pyridoxal (as pyridoxal phosphate). nicotinamide (as nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide). none of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4. 54.
.

amylase. enolase. phosphatase. phosphoryl ase.

The level of nonprotein nitrogen in the

blood is due principally to the level of

49.

The adequate stimulus for the Hering-Breuer reflex is the

1. 2. 3. 4.
5.

stretching of alveoli. pressure of blood in the left atrium. pressure of blood in the right atrium. oxygen content of blood bathing the carotid bodies. carbon dioxide content of blood bathing the respiratory center.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

urea. ammonia. creatine. arginine. uric acid.

55.

Under normal conditions, the most important

+ secretorymechanismfor conservationof Na

by the kidney is 1. 2. 3.
H+ secretion for the reabsorption + of

50.

both Na and HCO3 . H+secretion to react with Na2HPO4 producing NaH2PO4 for excretion. H+secretion and NH3 production to

The most Iikely cause of an increase in fittration fraction is

reabsorbNa+ from NaCIand excrete

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

4. elevation of ureteral pressure. efferent arteriolar constriction. afferent arteriolar constriction. elevation of renal vein pressure. elevation of plasma protein concentration. 5.

NH4Cl. H+secretion to react with sodium salts or organic acids Iike lactate to produce free acid for secretion. sodium exchange with potassium where potassium is secreted by the tubule cells for excretion.

" ~:

56.

The hyperglycemic effect of glucagon is mediated primarily through 1. 2. 3. 4. 5, the growth hormone. muscle glycolysis. liver glycogenolysis. inhibition of cortisol action. enhanced glucose reabsorption by renal tubules.

62.

If two vessels are connected in parallel, their total resistance to blood flow is 1. 2. 3. 4. the sum of their individual resistances. the average of their individual resistances. greater than if they were connected in series. equal to the resistance of the smaller vessel. less than the resistance of either vessel alone.

5.

57.

The plasma protein that transports ferrous iron is

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

ferritin. myoglobin. hemoglobin. transferrin. cytochrome-c.

63.

When injected, epinephrine causes l. 2. 3. 4. 5. a decrease in blood sugar. an increase in blood sugar. retention of sodium chloride. an increase in blood calcium. a decrease in the metabol ic rate.

58.

The coenzyme for glutamic-pyruvic transaminase is. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. ZinC. copper. vitamin C. cytochrome. pyridoxal phosphate.

64.

Temperature-regulating mechanisms that increase heat production include (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

59.

Upon complete hydrogenation, oleic, linoleic and linolenic acids yield 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. stearic acid. myristic acid. palmitoleic acid. arachidonic acid. multiple acetate fragments.

sh ivcring. cu tancousvasodilation. increased voluntary activity. cu taneous vasoconstriction. increased secretion of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla. (b) (b) (c) (c) (d) and and and ,md and (c) (c) (d) (e) (e)

60.

The chief constituents of biologic membranes are 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. chitin and lecithin. proteins and lipids. lipids and carbohydrates. nucleic acids and histones. proteins and carbohydrates.

(a), (a), (a), (a), (c),

65.

61.

Precocious sexual development in young boys and girls, or masculinization in the adul t female, is due to 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. excessive production of FSH by the neurohypophysis. hyperplasia of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans. an excess of the androgenic hormone from the adrenal cortex. a deficiency of the thyrotrophic hormone of the adenohypophysis. destruction of the hypothalamus and a resulting lack of aldosterone supply. , r

Which of the following die tary components arc specifically involved in the synthesis of hemoglobin? (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (f) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Sodium Potassium Iron Copper Phosphate Selenium

(a) and (b) (b) and (d) (c) and (d)

(c) and (f) (d) ,md (c)
.

..

66.

In severe degenerative disease of the liver, such as advanced alcoholic cirrhosis, a marked deficiency of which of the following factors essential to blood coagulating mechanisms is likely?

70.

Whichof the following reactions is the immediate source of energy for muscular contraction?

a)- Prothromboplastin b) Prothrombin Thrombin !c) (d) Vitamin K (e) Fibrinogen

1. Creatine ~ creatinine 2. Creatine phosphate + ADP 3.

4.

~ ATP + creatine Creatine phosphate ~ creatine + phosphoric acid Adenosine triphosphate ~ adenosine diphosphate + phosphoric acid

1. 2. 3. 4.

(a) and (e) (b) and (c) (b) and (e) (c) and (d)

71.

In respiratory acidosis, how do arterial CO2 content and pH change?

67.

Which of the following are associated with hypothyroidism?

1. 2. 3. 4.
~. 7'.

CO2 content CO2 Content CO2 content CO2 content

decreases decreases increases increases

and and and and

pH increases. pH decreases. pH increases. pH decreases.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

High blood cholesterol Positive nitrogen balance Increased oxygen consumption Decreased protein bound iodine Decreased iodine uptake by the thyroid gland

Beriberi is associated with a deficiency in which of the following vitamins?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a), (b) and (c) a), (b), (d) and (e) a), (c) and (d) b), (d) and (e) only c), (d) and (e)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

B D K Thiamine Ascorbic acid

73.

Which of the following ions is involved in blood clotting?

68.

Ingestion of which of the following most markedly affects the rate of gastric emptying?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Iron Sodium Calcium Potassium

Fats Minerals Proteins Carbohydrates None of the above. There is no correlation with type of foodstuff.

74.

Which of the following combinations of enzymes contains only enzymes secreted as zymogens?

69.

In a normal individual, regardless of activity, how does intrapulmonary pressure relate to intrapleural pressure?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Lipase, nuclease, pepsin Pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin Enterokinase, pepsin, trypsin Enterokinase, pepsin, chymotrypsin Chymotrypsin, trypsin, enterokinase

1. Intrapleural pressure is always positive. 2. Intrapulmonary pressure is always 3. 4.

positive. Intrapulmonary pressure is always greater than intrapleural pressure. Intrapleural pressure is always greater than intrapulmonary pressure.

75.

What type of protein is albumin?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Nucleoprotein Chromoprotein Phosphoprotein Simple protein

.... ,y
~.

~i
;:1

..
76.
Which of the following is an aid to the kidney in the elimination of hydrogen ion?

82.

Which of the following compounds is an intermediate in the biosynthesis of cholesterol?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Secretion of sodium Secretion of ammonia Reabsorption of urea Secretion of potassium. Reabsorption of bicarbonate

1. 2. 3. . 4. 5. 83.

Squalene Hexosamine Cholic acid Pregnanediol Deoxycholic acid

"

77.

Which of the following statements applies to hemoglobin in sickle-cell anemia patients?

Whichof the following hormones is a polypeptide? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Epinephrine Testosterone Progesterone Triiodotyronine Follicle-stimulating hormone

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Hemoglobin cannot bind iron. Both alpha and beta chains are abnormal. Valine replaces serine in the aipha chain. Valine replaces glutamic acid in the beta chain. The abnormality is caused by methylation of a tryptophan residue in the beta chain.

84.

78.

In which of the following directions would blood leak as a result of a damaged tricuspid valve? 1. 2. 3. 4.
From From From From right atrium to the vena cava left atrium to pulmonary veins right ventricle to right atrium left ventricle to left atrium

Energy for ATP synthesis is derived from the electron transport system by which of the following processes?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Transamination Aldolization Reduct~e synthesis Oxidative deamination Oxidative phosphorylation

85. 79.
Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of 2-phosphoglyceric acid to phosphoenol pyruvate? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Avidin is an important dietary component because of its influence on which of the following vitamins? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Niacin Biotin Thiamine Tocopherol Phylloquinone

Enolase AI~olase Pyruvate kinase Phosphoglycerol kinase

86.
80.
In which of the following might the arterial blood pressure be abnormally high?

The proportion of collagenous tissue in meat can be estimated by measuring which of the following components unique to collagen?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Cardiac shock Heart failure Anaphylactic shock Cerebrovascular accident Ventricular fibrillation

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Glycine Nitrogen Disulfide Hydroxyproline None of the above

81.

Which of the following minerals are most frequently in short supply in the American diet?

87.

Which of the following vitamins is least Iikely to be involved in tooth developmen t and calcification? 1. 2. 3. 4. A B1 C 0

1. 2. 3. 4.

Calcium and iron Calcium and iodine Sulfur and potassium Iodine, magnesium and iron

II

-;:l. .2L' , , 1

88.

In which of the following situations is

93.

diffusion least important? 1. Formation of glomerular fil trate 2. Movement of Na+ into nerve fiber 3. Movement of lipid-soluble solute 4.
5.
through cell membrane Exchange of CO2 between pulmonary capillary blood and alveolar air Exchange of CO2 between interstitial fluid and capillary blood of skeletal muscle

Glomerular filtrate contains everything contained in plasma EXCEPT

1. 2. 3. 4.

urea.

gIucose.
plasmaprotein. sodium chloride.

94.

89.

Which of the following is NOT a theory of the effect of parathyroid hormone on bone?

Excessive utilization of fats by the body as a sourceof energy during disturbances in carbohydrate metabolism can lead to all of the following conditions EXCEPT

1.
~

2.
3. 4.

The hormone influences the rate of bone resorption. The hormone causes a decrease in new bone formation. The action on bone is related to its action on phosphate excretion. The effect of parathyroid extract is to influence osteoclastic activity.

1. ketosis. 2. acidosis. 3. ketonuria. 4. alkalosis.

95.

90.

Denaturation usually destroys all of the following bonds in protein EXCEPT

Which of the following is NUT a part of the hemoglobin molecule?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Iron Protein
Magnesium

1. 2. 3. 4.

hydrogen bonds. covalent bonds. hydrophobic bonds. electrostatic bonds.

Histidine Pyrrole ring

91.
-

96.
Which of the following conditions does NOT cause an increasein gIomerular fil tration rate?

Acetylcholine is releasedat all of the following junctions EXCEPT

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Increased plasma oncotic pressure Decreased plasma oncotic pressure Vasodilation of afferent arterioles Decreased pressure in Bowman's capsule Moderate vasoconstriction of efferent arterioles

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

sympathetic ganglia. parasympathetic gangl ia. somatic efferents to skeletal muscles. terminal sympathetic fibers to the heart. terminal sympathetic fibers to the adrenal medulla.

97.

92.

The free fatty acid level of blood is NOT primarily affected by

Each of the following is found in pancreatic juice EXCEPT

1. 2. 3. 4.

serum albumin levels. action of calcitonin. anti-lipolytic action of insulin. intestinal absorption of fatty acids.

1. lipase. 2. amylase. 3. pepsinogen. 4. trypsinogen. 5. chymotrypsinogen.

....-

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATION PART I ANSWER KEY

BIOCHEMISTRY-PHYSIOLOGY - MARCH 1981

No. -

Ans. 3 4 3 4 2 1 4 5 4
4 3 2 5 5 4

No. 26.

Ans. 3 4 1 5 2 4 5 3
4 3 4 1 2 4 4

No. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58.

59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64'. 65.

MS. 3 2 2 1 1 3 4 5
1 2 3 5 2 4 3
>,',

No. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83.

84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90.

Ans. 2 4 3 1 4 1 1 5
5 2 4 2 1 2 3

1.
2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
10. 11.

27.
28. 29.

30.
31. 32. 33.
34. 35. 36.
.

12.
13. 14. 15.

37.
38. 39. 40.

16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

1 2 5 5 5 4 4 3 5 4

41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

1 5 3 3 3 2 1 4 1 2

66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

3 2 1 3 4 4 4 3 2 4

91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97.

1 2 3 4 2 4 3

;;>.

P ART . I
.

MICROBIOLOGY

AND PATHOLOGY

(13)

1.

An increase in the size of an organ caused by an increase in the number of cells describes

7.

An antibacterial substance found in saliva, tears and egg white is

2. metaplasia.

1. atrophy.

>

3. hypertrophy. 4. . hyperplasia. 5. regeneration.

1. albumin. 2. isozyme. 3. amylase.

>

4. lysozyme.
5. betalysin.

2.

The chemical constituents of bacteria and viruses that are most sensitive to ultraviolet irradiation are

8.

Squamous cell carcinoma usually metastasizes by way of

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

lipids. proteins. carbohydrates. nucleic acids. inorganic salts.

1. 2. 3. 4.

the venous system. the arterial system. the lymphatic system. aspiration into the lung.

9. 3.
The class of immunoglobulin most abundant in salivais

The appearance of HBsantigen in the plasma is associated with 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Q fever. influenza. German measles. serum hepatitis. lupus erythematosus.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

IgA. IgO. IgE. IgG. IgM. 10.

4.

In leukemia, prolongation of bleeding time is caused by

The fluid that leaks out of vessels in noninflam'matory conditions, such as cardiac failure, is

5.

1. 2. 3. 4.

anemia. neutropenia. thrombocytopenia. - the presence 'of leukemic cells in circulating blood. 11.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

exudate. effluvium.
ecchymosis. metachysis. transu datee

Increase in the size of the heart in an athlete is an example of

A benign neoplasm of the myometrium of the uterus is a

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

anaplasia. metaplasia. hyperplasia. hypertrophy. none of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 12.

myeloma. fibroma. leiomyoma. myoblastoma. rhabdomyoma.

6.

The spores of Bacillusanthracis are destroyed by 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. refrigerating (-7c. for 48 hours). autoclaving (121C. for 20 minutes). pasteurizing (61.7C. for 30 minutes). immersing in boiling water (100C. for 10 minutes). placing in a hot air oven (121C. for 20 minutes).

Denaturation of protein and dissolution of lipid are antiseptic properties associated with

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

soaps. alcohols. cresols.

glutaraldehydes. mercuric chloride.

..
.. ..
13.
Anoxia most seriously affects the brain and the

19.

Resistance of Staphylococcus penicillin is caused by

aureus to

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

lung. heart. liver. spleen. kidney.

1. 2. - 3. 4. 5.

pleomorphism. an enzyme that attacks penicillin. production of a peMcillinanalogue. a lack of mycolic acid in the cell wall. the presence of a tough lipopolysaccharide capsule.
is best described as

14.

Deposition of calcium in dying or dead tissue is described as

20.

Transformation

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

calcium soap formation. embolic calcification. metastatic calcification. dystrophic calcification. none of the above.

1. DNA coding for RNA synthesis. 2. RNA coding for protein synthesis. 3. acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria mediated by DNA. 4. acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria mediated by RNA.
.

21.
15.
Viruses may cause disease by

Elevation of serum acid phosphatase levelsis likely to be seen in patients with carcinoma of the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

lysing many cells of the host. transforming cells to malignant cells. making vital target cells nonfunctional. disrupti~g the normal defense'mechanisms of the host. any of the above.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 22.

colon. breast. cervix. uterus. stomach. prostate gland.

16.

Epithelial pearls and intercellular bridges observed in an infiltrating malignancy are diagnostic of

The most common cause of esophageal varices is

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

adenocarcinoma. anaplastic carcinoma.

squamous cell carcinoma. undifferentiated carcinoma. transitional cell carcinoma.

.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 23.

thrombosis. coarctation. cor pulmonale. portal hypertension. ageingchanges in the vessels.

17.

The most common organism producing subacute bacterial endocarditis is

Lactobacilli were often named among bacteria able to initiate dental caries in humans because these organisms were found to be

1. 2. 3. 4.

staphylococcus. alpha-hemolytic streptococcus. beta-hemolytic streptococcus. gamma-hemolytic streptococcus.

1. acidogenic. 2. abundant in calculus. 3. capable of surviving without nutrients. 4. the only acid-forming bacteria in the 5.
mouth. isolated from mouths with rampant dental decay.

18.

Metachromatic granules are characteristically observea in properly stained smears of

24.

The leading cause of cardiac death in the United States is

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Salmonella typhi. Escherichiacoli. Brucellamelitensis. Bordetellapertussis. Corynebacteriumdiphtheriae.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

mitral stenosis. congenital anomalies. coronary heart disease. myocarditis (all causes). hypertensive cardiovascular disease.

25.

An infection following a serious skin burn that is characterized by the production of greenish pus and is generally resistant to antibiotic therapy is probably caused by

31.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Proteus vulgaris. Streptococcus mitis. Streptococcus mutans. Staphylococcus aureus. Pseudomonasaeruginosa.

A 56-year-old diabetic man had atrial fibrillation for two years following a myocardial infarct. He experienced right flank pain and hematuria, paralysis of the right side of the body and sharply demarcated ischemia in the left foot. These signs and symptoms were most likely due to

26.

Whenhorse serum is injected intravenously into a rabbit, and again into the skin two or three weeks later, a necrotizing reaction occurs at the site of the second injection. This is

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

septicemia. lymphangitis. venous thrombi. arterial emboli. venous emboli.

32.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
27.

atopy.
anaphylaxis. serum sickness. an Arthus reaction. a Prausnitz-Kustner reaction.

Research on experimental caries in gnotobiotic animals has indicated that the majority of oral microorganismscapable of producing smooth surface dental caries with carbohydrate diets are species of the genus 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Veil/onella. Streptococcus. Fusobacterium. Lactobacillus. Actinomyces.

The primary result of bacterial carbohydrate metabolism is production of

1. 2. 3. 4. 28.

heat. energy. alcohol. acetone.

33.

In skin graft rejection, the major host response is

..

Certain staphylococci, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli and streptococci share as a property the fact that they

1. 2. 3. 4.

an Arthus reaction. delayed hypersensitivity. a Shwartzman reaction. passive cutaneous anaphylaxis.

. 3. do not grow on nutrient agar. 4. are common in hospital-acquired infections.

1. are gram-positive. 2. fail to ferment glucose.

34.

Vegetations on the heart valves in acute bacterial endocarditis usually consist of

29.

The class of immunoglobulin atopic allergy is

responsible for

1. swellingscaused by inflammatory edema. 2. scar tissue containing massesof bacteria. 3. fused platelets, fibrin and massesof
bacteria.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

IgA. IgO. IgE. IgG. IgM.

4. areas where healing and calcification

have occurred.

35.

The etiologic agent of actinomycosis in man is

30.

Passive congestion occurs when increased amounts of blood in the tissues collect secondary to

1. exogenous and is found in infected meat. 2. exogenous and requires contact with a 3. exogenous and requires inhalation of
4. 5. spores. endogenous and is found in healthy. mouths. endogenous and is carried in the lower gastrointestinal tract. vector.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

hyperplasia. hypertension. inflammation. arterial dilatation. venous obstruction.

..

36.

Actinomycosis is characterized by a
1.

>

41.

Of the following, the most common site of a basalcell carcinoma is the

'.

2. 3. 4. 5.

serous exudate. purulent exudate. hemorrhagic exudate. pseudomembranous exudate. fibrinous, nonpurulent exudate.

1. tongue.
. 2.. 3. 4. 5. ~gingiva. lower lip. upper face. oral mucosa.

37.

A lysogenic bacterium is one that

42.

l. 2. 3. 4. 5.

lyses red cells. produces properdin. harbors a temperate bacteriophage. produces lecithinase when incubated anaerobically. produces spheroplasts when incubated anaerobically.

Immune serums showing high agglutination titers often fail to agglutinate homologous bacteria in low dilution. This is designated as

-l. 2. 3. 4. 5.

the prozone. the opsonic index. an Arthus reaction. agglutination adsorption. the Bordet-Gengou phenomenon.

38.

43. A complete blood cell count in a patient with severeemphysema,is most likely to show.

As opposed to lobar pneumonia, bronchopneumonia is characterized grossly and microscopically by

l. 2. 3. 4. 5.

anemia. leu kopenia. polycythemia. leu kocytosis. macrocythem ia.

l. 2. 3. 4.

inflammation of a bronchus. organization of alveolar exudate. a patchy, inflammatory distribution. a diffuse, inflammatory distribution.

44. 39.
The pulmonary neoplasm to which the endocrine effect of hyperparathyroidism is attributed is

The most common malignancy found in bones of the human skeleton is

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

adenocarcinoma. oat cell carcinoma. pheochromocytoma. medullary carcinoma. squamous cell carcinoma.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

osteosarcoma. chondrosarcoma. multiple myeloma. giant cell tumor. metastatic carcinoma.

45.

The most common cause of acute purulent meningitis between ages 3 months and

2 yearsis
40.
Intraoral radiographs of a 43-year-old man show several discrete radiolucencies not associated with root apices. Radiolucencies are also present in the humerus. Results of laboratory tests indicate an elevated serum calcium level; serum phosphorus and alkaline phosphatase levels are normal. The most likely diagnosis is

1. 2. 3. 4. 46.

myxovirus. Hemophilus influenzae. Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

The two genera most frequently associated with bacterial cystitis are 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Salmonella and Shigella. Brucella and Hemophilus. Pseudomonas and Escherichia. Escherichia and Proteus. Proteus and Pseudomonas.

l. 2. 3. 4.

fibrous dysplasia. hyperparathyroidism. Paget's disease of bone. carcinoma of the prostate.

,
47.
The active mechanism directly responsible for damage to blood vesselsin an immune complex disorder is the 52. The most common cause for megaloblastic anemia is

1. activation of the complement system. 2. formation of small, soluble, imm'une 3. formation of large, insoluble, immune 4. phagocytosis of immune complexes by 5. release of histamine from mast cells
causinga vasomotor response. the RE system. 53. complexes. complexes.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

gastric bleeding. lack of dietary iron. lack of dietary folic acid. lack of dietary pyridoxine. lack of absorption of vitamin 812.

Studies of the distribution of microorganisms in various oral sites show that

48.

The nonmicrobial portion of dental plaque is composed primarily of 1. 2. 3. 4. dextrans. food debris. bacterial acids. microbial enzymes.

1. Bacteroides melaninogenicus and streptococci are equally distributed in plaque, in the gingivalcrevice and on the tongue. 2. Bacteroides melaninogenlcus is found in higher concentrations in the gingival crevice than on the tongue or in plaque. 3. Streptococcus salivarius is found in higher concentrations in plaque than in the gingivalcrevice or on the tongue. 4. Streptococcus mutans is found in higher concentrations on the tongue than in the gingival~fevice or in plaque.

49.

Vitamin K is necessary for 1. ossification of osteoid.

54.

2. . formationof fibrinogen(Factor I).

3. formation of prothrombin (Factor II). 4. maturation of megakaryocytes to platelets. 5. maturation of collagen from tropocollagen.

Transmission of viral and mycoplasmal respiratory tract diseases in the dental office is a significant concern to both patients and office staff because of 1. ease of transmission of most viral respiratory tract diseases. 2. potential crowding of patients in the waiting room. 3. increased presence of aerosolization of infectious material. 4. the close proximity of infected patients to the practitioner and the assistant. 5. all of the above.

50.

.Generally, the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in a patient with a heart valveabnormality who is allergic to penicillin is

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

ampicillin. lincomycin. tetracycline. streptomycin. none of the above.

55.

Vitamin A functions to

1. 2. 3. 4.
56.

prevent pellagra. promote absorption of calcium. promote differentiation of epithelial cells. maintain the integrity of connective tissues.

51.

Most viral antigens of diagnostic importance are

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Glutaraldehyde, betapropiolactone, formaldehyde and ethylene oxide share the common characteristic of being

lipids. proteins. nucleic acids. polysaccharides. lipopolysaccharides.

1. 2. 3. 4.

unstable. explosive. cidal agents. static agents.

57.

Competitive inhibition best describes the desired effect in

61.

Granulation tissue typically contains a) b) c) d) e) fibroblasts. nerve fibers. endothelial cells. epithelioid cells. giant cells.

.-

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

opsonization. phagocytosis. tuberculin reaction. allergicdesensitization. first-set graft rejection.

58.

Cytologic and morphologic characteristics of epithelial dysplasia include a) b) c) d) e) normal architectural arrangement. hyperchromatic nuclei. mitoses near the surface layer. pleomorphism of cells. invasion of underlying connective tissue. 62.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

a) and (b) a) and (c) b) and (d) c) and (d) c) and (e) d) and (e)

1. a), (b and c) 2. a), (d and e) 3. b ' (c and ! d) 4. b and (d) only 5. bj and (e)

Pulmonary atelectasis may be secondary to (a) fibrous pfeural adhesions. (b) blockage of a bronchus by an aspiratedforeign body. (c) a calcified nodule in the apex of the lung. d) blockage of a bronchus by mucus. e) hydrothorax. f) pneumothorax.
1

59.

Causesof atrophy include a) b) c) d) e) f) disuse. pressure. loss of innervation. chemical stimulation. decreased nourishment. overstimulation with hormones.
..

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a), (b) and (d) only a), (b), (d) and e) b), (c), (d) and e) b), (d), (e) and f) c), (e) and (f)
~

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

a, b ' C)and ( a, b, c) and (e a, b, j d) and (~ a, c), (e) and (f) b), (d), (e) and (f) c), (d), (e) and (f)
1

63. 60.
Endospores are formed by the genera

Malignant bone tumors likely to be encountered in children or young adults include (a) (b) C) d) e) myeloma. metastatic carcinoma. Ewing's sarcoma. osteogenic sarcoma. liposarcoma.

(a) Actinomyces. (b) Bacillus.

C) Clostridium. d) Corynebacterium. Micrococcus. 1 e)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a) and (b) a)and (e) b) and (C

c) and (d d) and (e]

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 26

a), (b) and (c) a) and (c) only b), (c) and (d) b) and (d) only c) and (d) only c), (d) and (e)

64.

Thrombotic occlusion of a coronary artery may result in a) b) c) d) e) infarction of the myocardium. proliferation of myocardial fibers. fibrosis of the myocardium. stenosis of the mitral valve. no changes in the myocardium.

67~

Long bones may be affected by which of the following disorders? a) b) c) d) e) Rickets Osteopetrosis Chondrodystrophy Fibrous dysplasia Osteogenesis imperfecta

1. a ' b) or (c) 2. a, c) or (d) 3. a, j i c) or (e) 4. b), (d) or (e) 5. Any of the above

1. a), (b) and (e) 2. b) and (c) only 3. b), (c and (d) only 4. b), (c , (d) and (e) 5. c), (d! and (e) only 6. All of the above

I i,

65.

Features of hepatitis A viral infections include

68.

Which of the following cells are associated with liberation of histamine?

(a) high incidence of morbidity and lessthan 1 percent mortality. (b) insidious onset and a long incubation period. (c) acquisition generally by non-parenteral routes. (d) transmission only through blood or blood products.

a) b) c) d) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Lymphocytes Eosinophils Plasmacells Mast cells

I I ! I
I

I I
I
I

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a and b) a and c) a and ! d) b) and (c) b) and (d)

~

a and b) a and c) a j and !.d) b) and (c) b) and (d) All of the above

I
I

66.

Thymic hypoplasia may result in (a) hypergammaglobulinemia. (b) a decreased propensity to develop cancer. (c) an increased predisposition to fungal and viral infections. (d) an absence of plasma cells.

69.

Whichof the following substances are considered to be chemical mediators for vascular dilatation at the initial phase of acute infiammation? a) b) c) d) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Serotonin Histamine Bradykinin Hyaluronidase

l. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

a and

b)

a and c) aj and 1d) b) and (c) b) and (d) c) and (d)

?7

a ' b) and C) a, b) and d) a,j 1c) and !d) b), (c) and (d) All of the above

J'

70.

Which of the following are phagocytes?

I

75.

a) b) 'c) 'd) e)

Plasmacells Lymphocytes Kupffer's cells of liversinusoids Polymorphonuclear leukocytes Eosinophils

Whichof the following cell types is associated with antibody formation? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Basophil Monocyte Eosinophil Neutrophil Plasmacell

1. 2. 3~ 4. 5.

a), (b) and (c) a), (c) and (e) b), (c) and (e) b), (d) and (e) c), (d) and (e)

76.

an incubation period of 2-4 hours? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 77.

Which of the following diseases, in which gastroenteritis is the principal feature, has
.

71.

Cirrhosis of the liver can be a sequela of which of the following conditions?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Alcoholism Biliary obstruction Infectious hepatitis Congestive heart failure Any of the above

Cholera Botulism Salmonellosis Summer diarrhea Staphylococcal food poisoning

In which of the following mycotic infections are the organisms characteristically found microscopically within' reticuloendothelial cells? 1. 2. 3. 4. Candidiasis Aspergillosis Blastomycosis Histoplasmosis

72.

Which of the following characteristics is common to rickettsiae and viruses?

1. Structu re 2. Cell wall synthesis 3. Requirement of livingcells for growth 4. Susceptibility to broad-spectrum antibiotics
.,

78.

Which of the following conditions is suggested in a patient with nausea and vomiting, pigmentation of the oral mucous membrane and skin, hypotension and asthenia?

73.

Which of the following characteristically produces a latent infection?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

ECHO virus Measles virus

1.' 2. 3. 4. 5.

Myxedema Pinealtumor Graves' disease Addison's disease Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Smallpox virus Herpes simplex Coxsackie B virus

79.

Which of the following has been shown to have a relationship to carcinoma of the cervix?

74.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
'

Papovavirus Varicella-zoster virus Herpesvirus hominis type I Herpesvirus hominis type II None of the above

Which of the followingis an example of naturally-acquired passiveimmunity in humans?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

80.
Smallpox immunization Injection of gamma globulin Transfusion of immune blood Placental transfer of antibody Antibody produced during recovery from measles

A patient with which of the following diseases is predisposed to develop osteosarcoma? 1. 2. 3. 4. Osteomalacia Osteopetrosis Paget's disease of bone Osteogenesisimperfecta

81.

Organismsbelonging to which of the followinggenera can tolerate the lowest pH? 1. Veillonella 2. Bacteroides 3. Streptococcus 4. Lactobacillus 5. Staphylococcus

86.

Which of the following lesions is most common in infants?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Chondrosarcoma Neuroblastoma Malignantmelanoma Basalcellcarcinoma Squamouscellcarcinoma

82.

In which of the following organs or tissues are ascending infections common?

87.
.

1. Bone

To which of the following sites does carcinoma of the prostate metastasize with the greatest frequency?
.

2. 3. 4. 5.

Kidney Heart Peritoneum Subcutaneous connectivetissue

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Lung Liver Brain Spleen Skeleton

83.

Which of the following viruses has been found to have an etiologic relationship with infectious mononucleosis?

88.

1. Rhinovirus 2. Coxsackie'virus 3. Epstein-Barrvirus 4. Newcastle diseasevirus

During which phase of bacterial growth does ampicillin exert its greatest cida! activity? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Early lag phase Lagphase Log phase Stationary phase Phase of decline

84.

Whichof the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a heterophile agglutination titer greater than 1:128?

89.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Syphilis Tuberculosis Rheumaticfever Hodgkin'sdisease Infectiousmononucleosis

Which of the following has the least capacity for regeneration?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Bone Cardiacmuscle Liverparenchyma Squamousepithelium Fibrousconnectivetissue

85.

When streptococci are growing on glucose as a carbon and energy source in an unbuffered medium, which of the following is likely to occur in the culture medium?

90.

Which of the following conditions is least likely to have clinical signs and symptoms? Pyemia Toxemia 3. Septicemia 4. Bacteremia
.

1. An elevated pH 2. A lowered pH 3. Production of a gas 4. Production of maltose

1. 2.

,..

91.

Whichof the following enteric microorganisms is NOT typically found in the normal human intestinal flora?

95.

Of the following, amphotericin B therapy is NOT indicated for 2. 3. 4. 5.

."

1. Escherichiacoli
.

1. . nocardiosis.-

2. 3. 4. 5.

Salmonella typhi Proteus vulgaris Bacteroides fragilis Pseudomonas aeruginosa

. histoplasmosis: cryptococcosis. coccidioidomycosis. systemic candidiasis.

96. 92.
Whichof the following would NOT be common to lesions of both sarcoid and tuberculosis? 1. Giant cells 2. Lymphocytes 3. Epithelioid cells 4. Caseation necrosis

Histiocytosis X encompasses all of the following clinical entities EXCEPT

....

1. Gaucher's disease. 2. Letterer-Siwe disease.

:J. eosinophilic granuloma. 4. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease.

97. 93.
Which of the following conditions is NOT mediated by antibody?

Jaundice is seen in each of the following EXCEPT

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Hay fever Anaphylaxis Serum sickness Contact dermatitis Autoimmune hemolytic disease

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

aplasti~ anemia. livercell damage. excessive hemolysis. bile duct obstruction. carcinoma of the head of the pancreas.

98.

Each of the following is useful in the identification of viruses EXCEPT 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. nature of the viral nucleic acid. morphology of the viral protein coat. ability of the virus to grow on complex media. neutralization of the virus with specific
an tiseru ms.

94.

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of plasmids?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Confer conjugal fertility Carry genetic information Exist as circular RNAmolecules Exist as extrachromosomal elements in bacteria

ability of the virus to be inactivated by certain solvents, such as ether or chloroform.

NATIONAL

BOARD

DENTAL ANSWER

EXAMINATION KEY - DECEMBER

PART

MICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY

1981
.

.;> ..0 "

...

No. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
19. . 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

Ans. 4 4 1 3 4 2 4 3 4 5 3 2 2 4 5 3 2 5
2 3 6 4 1 3 5

No. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37.
38.

Ans. 4 2 4 3 5 4 2 2 3 4 2 3 3 2 2 4 1 3
5 2 4 4 1 3 5

No. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67.
..

Ans. 2 3 2 5 3 3
'4

No. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92.
93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98.

Ans. 5 4 4 4 3 4 2 3 5 2 2 5 3 2 4 2 4
4 3 1 1 1 3

3 2 3 2 4 5 3 2 6 6
5
1

""

39. 40. 41. 42. 43.

44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

68.
6.9d ,. 70.

5 5 3 4 4 5

71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

PART I
DENTAL ANATOMY 1.
The arrow on the teeth in the drawing below represents a possible contacting area and a direction of movement for a maxillary cusp.

.. ..
(14)

5.

In the following drawing of maxillary teeth, the arrow represents a possible contacting area and direction for a mandibular cusp.

Identify the cusp.

Identify the cusp.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Facial cusp of first premolar Lingual cusp of first premolar Facial cusp of second premolar Lingual cusp of second premolar Mesiolingualcusp of first molar

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Mesiofacialcusp of first molar Distofacial cusp of first molar Mesiolingualcusp of first molar Distolingual cusp of first molar Mesiofacialcusp of second molar Mesiolingualcusp of second molar Distofacial cusp of second molar

2.

Indicate the mandibular movement in the drawing above.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6.

Indicate the mandibular movement.

Protrusive movement Right lateral movement (working side) Left lateral movement (working side) Right lateral movement (non-working side) Left lateral movement (non-workingside)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
.'

Protrusion Retrusion Lateral movement (working side) Lateral movement (non-working side) Lateral-protrusive movement

3.

7. Assumingocclusion and alignment are normal, the arrows on the sketch below represent the path taken by

Assuming occlusion and alignment are normal, the arrow on the sketch below represents the path taken by the

1. facial cusps of premolars and mesiofacial 2. facial cusps of premolars and distofacial 3. lingual cusps of premolars and 4. lingual cusps of premolars and
distolingual cusps of molars. mesiolingual cusps of molars. cusps of molars. cusps of molars.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

mesiofacial cusp of first molar. mesiolingual cusp of first molar. distofacial cusp of first molar. distolingual cusp of first molar. fifth cusp of first molar.

4.

The mandibular movement is

8.

The mandibular movement indicated is

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

protrusive. right lateral, working side. left lateral, working side. right lateral, balancingside. left lateral, balancingside.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

protrusive. right lateral, working side. left lateral, working side. right lateral, balancing side. left lateral, balancing side.

9.

The following drawing represents a cross section at midroot. Name the root.

13.

Whendoes calcification begin in the permanent first molar?

c:::J
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Mandibularcanine Maxillarycanine Distofacial of maxillary molar Lingualof maxillary molar Mesialof mandibular molar None of the above

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

At 4 months in utero At birth 3-4months after birth 10-12 months after birth &7 years after birth

14.

In mesiodistal cross section, what is the direction of enamel rods in the cervical third of the crown of a permanent maxillary first molar?

10.

In the figure below, which number identifies the masticatory cycle of the mandibular central incisor?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

They incline apically. They slope occlusally. They run horizontally. They blend smoothly onto the root. None of the above. Enamel rods are not evident in this region.

34

15.

Which. of the following permanent teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more c~rvicallythan its distal marginal ridge?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
_.~

Maxillary first molar Mandibular first molar Mandibular second molar Mandibular first premolar Maxillarysecond premolar Mandibular second premolar

16.

Whichof the following roots would most likely have a concavity on either or both its facial and lingual surfaces?

11.

Whichof the following permanent teeth is most likely to show an anomaly in radicular morphology?

1. Mesialroot of the mandibular first molar 2. Mesiofacial root of the maxillary first 3. Distofacial root of the maxillary first
molar molar

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
12.

Maxillarycanine Maxillary third molar Maxillaryfirst molar Mandibular first molar Maxillary lateral incisor 17.

4. Lingual root of the maxillary first molar 5. Distal root of the mandibular second molar 6. Root of the maxillary second premolar

Whichof the following teeth have more than one distinct occlusal form?

How would a projection of the facial surfaces of mandibular molars be located compared with the anterior border of the ascending ramus?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Maxillaryfirst premolars Mandibular first premolars Mandibular second premolars Permanent mandibular first molars

1. 2. 3. 4.

Medial to it lateral to it Continuous with it Subject to great individual variation

-,-

18.

Whichof the following is the distal view of a permanent maxillary first molar?

22.

The drawing below is a cross section at midroot of what permanent tooth?

Incisal view

1.

2.

3.

4.

19.

Which of the following primary teeth has the greatest faciolingual diameter of the crown?

12. 3. 4. 5.

Maxillarycentral incisor Maxillary lateral incisor Maxillarycanine Mandibular central incisor Mandibular canine

1. 2. 3. 4.

Maxillarycanine Maxillaryfirst molar Maxillarysecond molar Mandibular second molar

23.

Whichof the following provides the most reliable criterion for differentiating permanent mandibular central incisors from permanent mandibular lateral incisors?
-

20.

With the teeth in centric occlusion, the cusp tip of the permanent maxillary canine is in direct alignment with which anatomic feature of the mandibular teeth?

1- Difference in root length 2. Difference in rotation of the crown

3-,

4.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

on the root Difference in ratio of crown length and root length Degree of parallelism between mesial and distal surfaces of the teeth

Facial em brasu re Incisal embrasure Interproximal space Distal ridge of the cusp of the mandibular canine Mesial ridge of the facial cusp of the mandibular first premolar

24.

Whichof the following anatOmic entities of the permanent maxillary first molar moves through the distofacia! sulcus of a permanent mandibular first molar?
-

21.

Where would the mesiofacialcusp of the permanent mandibular second molar articulate in a patient with a ClassII, Division1 (Angle) occlusal relationship in the maximum intercuspal position?

1- Mesial marginal ridge 2. Distal marginal ridge 3. Mesiofacial cusp 4. Distofacial cusp 5. Oblique ridge

25.

Which of the following sketches illustrates a primary mandibular second molar?

1. Central fossa of the maxillary first

molar

2. Central fossa of the maxillary second

molar

3. Marginalridge area between maxillary

first and second molars

4. Marginalridge area between the

5.

maxillary first molar and the maxillary second premolar None of the above. The mandibular facial cusps do not articulate with the maxillary teeth in a Class I or a ClassII occlusal scheme.

26.

Whichof the following sketches best represents a lingual view of a permanent maxillary right lateral incisor?

30.

Whichcusp of permanent maxillary molars becomes progressivelysmaller from first to second to third molars? 1. Mesiofacial 2. Mesiolingual 3. Distofacial 4. Distolingual 5. Cusp of Carabelli

31.

Whichof the following teeth is most likely

to resist invasion by caries?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Maxillarycentral incisor Mandibularcanine Mandibular first molar Maxillarysecond premolar

27.

Which of the sketches below best represents a facial view of a permanent mandibular right canine?

32.

The cusp of Carabelli is normally found on which aspect of a molar crown?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Mesiofacia! Mesiolingual Distofacial Distolingual Near the midpoint of the lingual surface

33.

Whichof the following teeth in the permanent dentition normally have trifurcations? 1. Mandibular molars only 2. Mandibular second premolars 3. Mandibular molars and maxillary first premolars 4. Maxillarymolars and maxillary first premolars 5. Maxillaryfirst and second molars and some maxillary third molars

I
28.

When viewed from the facial, which of the following premolars has a mesial cusp ridge longer than its distal cusp ridge? 1. 2. 3. 4. Maxillary first Mandibular first Maxillary second Mandibular second

34.

Whichof the following permanent teeth usually have oblique ridges? a) b) c) d) Maxillarypremolars Maxillary molars Mandibular premolars Mandibular molars

29.

How many primary developmental grooves are on the mandibular second molar when viewed from the occlusal?

1. 2. 3. 4.

2 3 4 5

1. a) and (c) 2. b only 3. b and (d) 4. ! dj only 5. All of the above

"":"

.. ..

35.

Which of the following anterior teeth are characterized by having the distal contact area in a more apical position than the mesial?

38.

Whichof the following are characteristics of a maxillary second premolar that distinguishit from a mandibular second premolar? (a)- The crown outline, when viewed from the facial, is a trapezoid with the short parallel side at the cervix. (b) The crown outline, when viewed from the mesial, is a trapezoid with the long parallel side at the cervix. (c) The crown outline, when viewedfrom the occlusal, is more rounded than angular. (d) One form of the crown may have one facial and two lingual cusps. (e) The cervical line curves occlusally more on its mesial than on its distal surface. 1. a), (b) and (c) 2. a), (d) and (e) 3. b) and (c) only 4. d) and (e) only 5. All of the above

.:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Maxillary central incisor Maxillary lateral incisor Mandibular central incisor Mandibular lateral incisor

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a), (b) and (c) (a), (b) and (d) (a), (c) and (d) (b), (c) and (d) All of the above

36.

Whichof the following permanent teeth have contact areas at approximately the same levels cervicoincisally or cervico-occlusally,on the mesial and the distal? a) b) c) d) e) f) Maxillarycentral incisors Mandibular central incisors Maxillary canines Mandibular canines Maxillarymolars Mandibular molars

39.

Which of the following marginal ridges have little or no contact in ideal centric and eccentric maxillomandibular contact

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

a and (b) a , (c) and (e) ~ aj , (e) and (f) (b), (d) and (f) (b), (e) and (f) (c) and (d) (e) and (f) only None of the above

relationships? a) b) c) d) (e)

Distal of maxillary second premolar Distal of mandibular first premolar Distal of mandibular second premolar Mesialof maxillary canine Mesialof mandibular first premolar

37.

1. (a) and (b) 2. a) and (d) 3. b), (c) and (d) 4. b), (c) and (e) 5. d) and (e)

Which three mandibular teeth are so aligned that, when viewed from the occlusal, a' straight line may be drawn that will bisect all con tact areas?

40.
a) b) c) d) e) f) g) Central incisor lateral incisor Canine First premolar Second premolar First molar Second molar

Which of the following are anatomic features of permanent maxillary central incisors? a) b) c) d) e) f) Cingula Mamelons Cuspal ridges Marginal ridges Cervical ridges Triangular ridges

1. a), (b and c) 2. c), (d and e) 3. d), (el and 1f) 4. e), (f) and (g) 5. None of the above. This condition does
not exist.

1. a ' b , (c) and (f) 2. a, b, (d) and (e) 3. a, j j d and (e) only 4. b), (c and (f) only 5. All of the above

41.

Which of the following are soft (unca1cified) tissues?

44.

Designfor restoring a complete and functional occlusal surface depends on the (a) position of the tooth in the arch. (b) amount of lateral shift in the rotating condyle. (c) contour of the articular eminence. (d) amount of vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. 1. a), (b) and (d) 2. a) and (d) only 3. b) and (c) 4. b) and (d) only 5. All of the above

(a) Dental pulp b) Cementurn c) Gingiva

.

.d)

lamina dura

e) Periodontal ligament f) Alveolar process

1. (a), b), (c) and (d)

2. 3. 4. 5. 6. (a), b), (c) and (e) (a), c) and (e) only (b), (d), (e) and (f) (c), (d) and (f) (d), (e) and (f) only
1

42.

The dental pulp consists of

45.

a) b) c) d) e) 1. 2. 3. 4
' . 5.

connective tissue. nerve tissue. blood vessels. ligaments. cementoblasts.

Characteristics common to all mandibular anterior teeth include a) pronounced developmental grooves. c) well-defined lobes. d) incisal edges placed slightly

b) inconspicuous cingula. lingually.

.

a), (b) and (c) b and (c) only b , (c) and (d) (bj and (d) only
1

(e) continuous convexity inciso-apicafly

on the facial.

(c), (d) and (e)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a, a, a, b), b),
~

b) and (c c) and (d d) and (e (c) and (e. (d) and (e)

43.

The permanent mandibular canine can be distinguished from the maxillary canine because, typically, the mandibular canine has (a) a sharper facial cusp outline. (b) a straighter mesial border, viewed facially. c) contact areas located more incisally. d) a more pronounced cingulum. e) a cusp tip displaced lingually to a midline faciolingually. 46. The alveolar crest and the interdental septum can be altered by a) b) c) d) rotation of the tooth. drifting of the tooth. tilting of the tooth. eruption of the tooth.

1. a ' b) and (c 2. a, c) and (d 3. a,j ! d) and (e 4. b), (c) and (e 5. b), (d) and (e) 6. All of the above

1. a and (b) only 2. a , (b) and (d) 3. a j , (c) and (d) 4. b) and (d) only 5. All of the above

37

.. ..
47.

Posterior mandibular teeth have protective crests of contour on facial and lingual surfaces (a) in the middle or the occlusal third of the lingual. (b) nearest the occlusal third of the lingual. C) in the cervicalthird of the lingual. d) in the middle third of the facial. e) in the cervicalthird of the facial. a) and (b) a) and (e) b) and (d) b) and (e) c) and (d)

50.

Compared with permanent crowns, the enamel on primary tooth crowns is relatively a) b) c) d) thin and is less variable in thickness. thick, particularly over cusp tips. dark in appearance. light in appearance.

~ ~! ~
;1i ?~ b

1. 2. 3. A. 5.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a) and (c) a) and (d) b and (c) b and (d) dj only

51.

The mental foramen is usually situated nearest the apex or the apices of the permanent 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. maxillary canine and first premolar. mandibular canine. mandibular first and second premolars. maxillary second premolar. mandibular second premolar and first molar. mandibular first and second molars.

48.

Pronounced developmental grooves are usually associated with embrasures between permanent

maxillary central and lateral incisors. maxillary lateral incisors and canines. maxillary canines and first premolars. maxillary first and second premolars. mandibular canines and first~premolars. . mandibular first and second premolars. mandibular second premolars and first molars. (h) mandibular first and second molars.

(a) b) c) d) e) f) g)

52.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. .., 7. 8.

a) only b) onIy c) only c) and (e) d) only d) and (f) g) only h) only

The radicular pulp is continuous with tissuesof the periapicala.rea via the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. puIp canal. pulp chamber. mental foramen. apical foramen. mandibular foramen.

53.
49.
In an ideal intercuspal position, the maxillary lateral incisor opposes

The percentage of inorganic material in fully developed enamel is 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. lessthan 50 per cent. 50 per cent. 87 per cent. 93 per cent. more than 95 per cent.

(a) the incisal edge of the mandibular lateral incisor. (b) both mesial and distal marginal ridges of the mandibular lateral incisor. (c) the distal marginalridge of the mandibular lateral incisor. (d) the mandibular canine.
.

54.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a) and (b
a) and (d b) and (cj b) and (d) c) and (d)

During nonmasticatory swallowing, the teeth are usually 1. 2. 3. 4. protruded. in a working arrangement. in contact in intercuspal position. None of the above. This is a nonexistent act.

55.

The embrasures surrounding the contact area of an anterior tooth are

60.

The anterior tooth exhibiting the most deviation in morphology is the 1. 2. 3. 4.

maxillary canine. maxillary central incisor. maxillary lateral incisor. mandibular lateral incisor.

1. gingival,cervical, facial and lingual. 2. incisal, cervical, facial and lingual. 3. incisal, cervical and facial only. 4. cervical, lingual and facial only. 61. 56.
The earliest indication of a mixed dentition consists of the primary dentition and the

If the pulp canal of a single-rooted tooth were triangular in cross section with the base of the triangle located facially and the apex lingually and if it had a longer mesial than distal side, the tooth is most likely a

1. permanent maxillary first molars.

,., ....

3. 4. 5. 6.

permanent mandibular first molars. permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. succedaneous maxillary central incisors. succedaneous mandibular incisors. mancl-ibular premolars.

1. maxillary second premolar. 2. maxillary central incisor. 3. maxillary lateral incisor.

4~

mandibular central incisor.

62.

In comparison with the premolars that replace them, the primary molars have mesiodistal measurements that are 1. identical. 2. slightly wider. 3. slightly narrower. 4. correlated in no definite way.

57.

In anesthetizing the mandibular teeth, local infiltration is most likely to be effective in the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

molar area. canine area. incisor area. premolar area. None of the above. Local infiltration is equally effective throughout the arch.

63.

The maxillary tooth exhibiting the greatest statistical variation in root alignment is the

58.

When in its proper position relative to the plane of occlusion, the crown of the mandibular second molar inclines

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 64.

central incisor. lateral incisor. canine. first premolar. second premolar. first molar. second molar. third molar.

1. 2. 3. 4.

distally and facially. mesially and facially. mesially and lingually. distally and lingually.

The premolar with the occlusal groove pattern that may simulate the letter '~Y"is the 1. 2. 3. 4. maxillary first. mandibular first. maxillary second. mandibular second.

59.

In the permanent dentition, wear facets are most likely to develop within the 1. 2. incisal one-third of the facial surface of a mandibular canine. incisal one-third of the lingual surface of a mandibular canine. incisal one-third of the facial surface of the maxillary canine. cingulum and the marginal ridge areas of of the mandibular canine. cingulum and the marginal ridge areas of the maxillary canine.

65.

3. 4. 5.

In the majority of cases, the maxillary first premolar differs from the maxillary second premolar in that the first premolar has

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a short central groove. three developmental grooves. one root containing two root canals. two cusps, one facial and one lingual. two roots, one facial and one lingual.

39

.
66.
In a healthy state, the height of the interproximal alveolar crest is related to the 1. anatomy of the alveolar process. 2. position of the gingival margin. 3. amount of underlying trabecular bone. 4. position of the cementoenamellines of
adjacent teeth.

71.

The healthy free gingivaaids in the self-cleansingprocess by its

1. 2. 3. 4. tendency to direct food particles toward the occlusal surface. 'tendencytb force particles away from the proximal space. tendency to deflect particles away from free gingiva onto the interdental papillae. close adherence to the tooth surface below the height of contour of the cervical enamel. None of the above

67.

The mesiofacial triangular ridge of the permanent maxillary first molar opposes the

1. embrasure between the mandibular 2.

,

5.

first molar. 3. distofaciaf groove of the mandibular 4. 68.

first molar. None of the above

second premolar and the first molar. mesiofacial groove of the mandibular

72.

Because of the presence of a fissured groove, cavity preparations most frequently have to be extended from the occlusal surface to the

In the intercuspal position, the incisal third of the facial surface of the permanent mandibular canine opposes the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

facial of maxillary molars. lingual of maxillary molars. facial of mandibular molars. lingual of mandibular molars. lingual of maxillary first premolars.

1. maxillary lateral incisorand the

maxillary canine at the approximation

2.

of their marginal ridges.

..

73.

.3. 4.

mesiolingual fossa and mesial marginal ridge of the maxillary canine at the junction of the cervical and the middle thirds. incisal embrasure between the maxillary canine and the lateral incisor. None of the above

If a maxillary first molar has a fourth canal, it is located in the 1. fou rth root. 2. lingual root. 3. distofacial root. 4. mesiofacial root.

69.

In an ideal intercuspal position, the distolingualcusp 'of a permanent maxillary' first molar opposes the

74.

In an ideal intercuspal position, the tip of the mesiolingual cusp of a permanent mandibular second molar 1. contacts the mesial marginal ridge of the maxillary second molar and distal marginal ridge of the maxillary first molar. occludes with the central fossa of the maxillary second molar. rests in the lingual sulcus of the maxillary second molar. None of the above

1. central fossa of the mandibular first 2. 3. 4. 5.

molar. lingual sulcus of the mandibular first molar. facial embrasure between the mandibular first and second molars. mesial fossa of the mandibular second molar. mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular second molar.

2. 3. 4.

70.

The permanent posterior tooth most likely to have a pronounced concavity on the mesial surface of its crown is the

75.

When the mouth is open to any given degree, there is more interocclusal distance anteriorly than posteriorly because of the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

maxillary first premolar. maxillary second premolar. mandibular first molar. mandibular first premolar. mandibular second premolar. 40

1. 2. 3. 4.

curve of Spee. shape of the articular eminence. anterior inclination of the teeth. rotary nature of the opening-closing movement.

76.

Among the primary maxillary teeth, the cervical ridge would stand out most prominently as a distinct entity on the

81.

The highest and sharpest cusp on the primary mandibular first molar is the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

mesiofacial portion of the first molar. distofacial portion of the first molar. distofacial portion of the second molar. mesiolingual-portion of the second molar. distolingual portion of the secondmolar.

1. 2. 3. 4.. 5.

mesiolingual. distolingual. mesiofacial. distofacial. distal.

77.

In the primary maxillary first molar, number and form of the roots correspond to those of the

82.

The percentage of dentin that is organic is

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

mandibular third molar. maxillary first premolar. mandibular first premolar. permanent maxillary first molar. permanent mandibular first molar.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

3 to 5 per cent. 10 to 15 per cent. 25 to 30 per cent. 40 to 50 per cent. 50 to 60 per cent.

78.

83.
The mesiofacial cusp of the permanen t mandibular first molar opposes the

The tissue formed in response to stimuli' produced by carious penetration of a tooth is

1. 2. 3. 4.

5.

distal triangular fossa of the maxillary second premolar. occlusal embrasure of the maxillary second premolar and the first molar. mesial triangular fossa of the maxillary first molar. . central sulcus of the maxillary first molar. . . occlusal embrasure of the maxillary first and second molars.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

predentin. primary dentin. secondary dentin. cellular cementum. acellular cementum.

84.

When a permanent mandibular canine has more than one root, usually the position of the roots is such that they will be named 1. mesial and distal. 2.. facial and lingual. 3. mesiofacial, distofacial and lingual. 4. mesiolingual, distolingual and facial.

79.

The first succedaneous tooth to erupt is a

l. 2. 3. 4. 80.

mandibular first molar. maxillary central incisor. maxillary lateral incisor. mandibular central incisor.

85.
The following drawing represents a typical outline of the occlusal aspect of a

The permanent anterior tooth most often missing congenitally is the

0
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
maxillary right first premolar. maxillary left first premolar. maxillary right second premolar. maxillary left second premolar. mandibular right first premolar. mandibular left first premolar. mandibular right second premolar. mandibular left second'premolar.

l. 2. 3. 4. 5.

mandibular canine. maxillary central incisor. maxillary lateral incisor. mandibular central incisor. mandibular lateral incisor.

86.

When viewed from the mesial, a line bisecting the apex and root of the maxillary canines

1. 2. 3.

also bisects the cusp tip. passes facial to the cusp tip. passes lingual to the cusp tip.

41

~ ~

87.

The sketch below represents the

92.

The sketch below represents the

1. 2. 3. 4.

distal view of a maxillary first molar. mesial view of a maxillary first molar. mesial view of a maxillary second molar. distal view of a maxillary third molar.

88.

The mesiodistal measurement of the crown of a permanent mandibular first molar is

1. slightly less than its faciolingual 2. slightly greater than its faciolingual
measurement. measurement.

1. facial view of a permanent mandibular right second molar. 2. lingual view of a permanent mandibular right second molar. 3. facial view of a permanent mandibular left second molar. 4.. lingual view of a permanent mandibular left second molar. 5. lingual view of a primary mandibular left second molar.

3. approximately twice the faciolingual measurement. 4. approximately half the faciolingual

.

93.

Rest position of the mandible occurs

measurement.

1. when the patient is sleeping. 2. in the intercuspal position. 3. during protrusive movement of the
mandible.

89.

The interproximal spaces between the teeth are filled normally by the 1. dental crypt. 2. contact areas. 3. gingival-sulcus. 4. gingivalpapillae.

4. when the neuromuscular system has

the least amount of activity.

94.

Carious lesions are least likely to occur In or on 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. pits. fissures. cusp tips. facial surfaces. proximal surfaces.

90.

The principal retractor of the mandible is the

1. 2. 3. 4.

masseter muscle. temporal muscle. lateral pterygoid muscle. medial pterygoid muscle.

95. 91.
Maxillarypremolars usually erupt between the ages of

Whichof the following primary teeth bears the least resemblance to any other tooth, primary or permanent?

1. 2. 3. 4.

7 and 8 years. 8 and 9 years. 9 and 10 years. 10 and 12 years.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
42

Mandibular canine Mandibular first molar Mandibular second molar Maxillaryfirst molar Maxillarysecond molar

I.

96.

In which of the following roots is a divided pulp canal/east likely to be found?

98.

Each of the following is a function of the

periodontal ligament

EXCEPT

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Maxillary canine Maxillary second premolar Mandibular central incisor Mesial root of mandibular first molar Mesiofacial root of maxillary first molar

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

sensory. nutritional.

supportivevia the fibers.

formativevia its cellular elements. maintenance of the epithelial attachment.

99. 97.
Which of the following features does NOT contribute to stabilization and protection of the dental arches?

Embrasures are generally larger on the lingual than on the facial with the contact
area within the facial moiety between maxillary EXCEPT

1. Facial embrasures 2. Occlusal embrasures 3. Cementoenamel junction 4. Proximal contact areas 5. Horizontal and vertical overlap

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

premolars. central incisors. first and secondmolars. first premolar and canine. first molar and second premolar.

43

NATIONAL

BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY

PART

. ..

DENTAL ANATOMY

DECEMBER

1981

No.

Ans. 4 3 4 4 5 3

No. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

Ans. 5 1 1 2 4 2 2 5 2 2 5 4 3 4 2 3 1 4 5 5 5 2 - 4 2 2

No. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

Ans. 3 4 5 3 2 2 -3 3 1 3 2 2 8 4 5 4 2
1-

No. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99.

Ans. 1 4 2 4 2 1 3 3 2 3 3 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 3 2 1 3 5 3

1.
2.

3.
4.

5.
6.

7.
8. 9.
10. 11. 12., 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

5
1 5 5 2 3. 2 1 4 4 1 4
3-

41.
42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

1 2 4 2 5 4

5 1 4 2 4 4 4

22.
23. 24. 25.

44