Mca Model Questions 2010

MCA – MODEL QUESTIONS
I.
1. If (64)2 – (36)2 = 20z, the va lue of z is
a)70 b)180
c)120 d)140
2. Which one of the following fraction is the smallest?

a)13/16 b)15/19
c)17/21 d)7/8
3. 1 litre of water weights 1 kg. How many cubic millimeters of water will weigh
0.1gm?
a)0.1 b)1
c)10 d)100
4. A tin of oil was 4/5 full. When 6 bottles of oil were taken out and four bottles of oil
were poured into it, it was ¾ full. How man y bottles of oil can the tin contain?
a)40 b)20
c) 30 d)10
5. In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The distance between
two trees is 2 meters and a distance of one meter is left from all sides of the boundary
of the garden. The length of the garden is
a)20 m b)22 m
c)24 m d)26 m
6. A man d istributed Rs 100 equally among his friends. If there had been 5 more friends,
each would have received one rupees less . How many friends had he?
a)20 b)25
c)30 d)35
7. The least perfect square number divisible by 3,4,5,6 and 8 is

a)900 b)1200
c)2500 d)3600
8. If v5 = 2.236, then the value of 1/v5 is

a).367 b).745
c).447 d).545
9. A man spends Rs 1800 monthly on an average for the first four months and Rs 2000
monthly for the next eight months and saves Rs 5600 a year. His average monthly
income is
a)Rs 2000 b)Rs 2200
c)Rs 2400 d)r s 2600
10. The sum of the ages of A,B,and C is 96 years. To find out B’s age, which of the
following information given in the statements P and Q is/are sufficient?
P: A is 6 years older than C
Q:The total of B and C’s ages is 56 years.
A)P B)Q
C) BOTH P AND Q D) NONE OF THE P AND Q
11. Average age of A and B is 24 years and the average age of B,C and D is 22 year s. The
sum of the ages of A,B,C and D is
a)90 years b)96 years
c)114 years d) the data is inadequate
12. If 5v5 x 53 ÷5-3/2 =5 a+2 , then the value of a is

a)4 b)5
c)6 d)8
13. In a public school ,1/5 th of girls and ¼ th of boys are under 12 years of age. If the
total strength of the school is 1000 and numb er of gir ls is 2/5 th of the total, what part
of the total strength of the school is accounted for by those which are 12 years or
more of age?
a)23% b)45%
c)55% d)77%
14. A shopkeeper bought a n article for Rs 319.60 . Approximately, at which price should
he sell the article to make 25% profit?
a)Rs 500 b)Rs 450
c)Rs 400 d)R s 600
15. 20 litres of a mixture contains milk and the water in the ratio 5:3. If 4 litres of this
mixture are replaced by 4 litres of milk, the ratio of milk to water in the new mixtur e
will be come
a)2:1 b)7:3
c)8:3 d)4:3
16. If 8 men working 9 hours a day can build a wall 18 m long, 2m wide and 12 m high in
a day, how many men will be required to build a wall 32 m long, 5 m wide and 9m
high, working 6 hours a day in 8 days?
a)45 b)40
c)48 d)50
17. 20 men complete one third of a piece of work in 20 days. How many more men
should be employed to finish th e rest of the work in 25 more days?
a)10 b)12
c)15 d)20
18. Two trains running in the same direction at 65 kmph and 47 kmph, completely pass
one another in 1 minute. If the length of the first train is 125 m, the length of the
second train is
a)125 m b)150 m
c)175 m d)200 m
19. A man rows 13 km upstream in 5 hours and also 28 km downstream in 5 hours. The
velocity of t he stream is
a) 1.5 km/hr b) 2 km/hr
c) 2.5km/hr d) 3 km/hr
20. If the side of the square is increased by 5 cm, the area increased by 165 sq.cm. The
side of the square is
a)13cm b)14cm
c)15cm d)12cm
21. Two cubes have their volumes in t he ratio 8:27. The ratio of their surface area is
a)2:3 b)3:2
c)4:9 d)64:729
22. Choose the one number which is similar to the numbers in the given set
Given Set: 992,733,845,632
a)114 b)326
c)425 d)947
23. If TAP is coded as SZO, then how is FREEZE coded?

a)EQDFYG b )ESDFYF
c)GQFDYF d )EQDDYD
24. If ROSE is coded as 6821,CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as

961473, what will be the code for SEARCH?
a)246173 b)214673
c)214763 d)216473
25. X introduces Y saying, “He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of my
father”.How is Y related to X?
a)brother b)son
c)brother- in -law d)nephew
26. A party consists of grandmother, father, mother ,four sons and their wives and one son
and two daughters to each of the sons. How many females are there is all?
a)14 b)16
c)18 d)24
27. There are 5 different houses, A to E, in a ro w, A is to the r ight of B and E is to the left
of C and right of A. B is to the right of D. Which of the houses is in the middle?
a)A b)B
c)D d )E
28. The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a sphere which will fit inside the cube is
a)4:? b)4:3?
c)6: ? d)2: ?
29. In a 200 meters race A beats B by 35 m or 7seconds.A’s time over the course is
a)40sec b)47sec
c)35sec d)33sec
30. On 8 th february 1995 it was Wednesday. The day of the week on 8th Feb ruary 1994
was
a)wednesday b)tuesday
c)thursday d)friday
II. Fill in the Blanks
31. 1,4,2,8,6,24,22,88,(…)
a)86 b)90
c)154 d)352
32. Which term will replace the question mark in the series:
ABD,DGK,HMS,MTB,SBL,…?
a)ZKW b)ZKU
c)ZAB d )XKW
33. Which number would be replace question mark in the series 0,6,24,60,120,210,…?
a)336 b)290
c)240 d)504
34. 3:11::7 :…?

a)22 b)29
c)18 d)51
35. Find the wrong number in the series:3,8,15,24,34,48,63 ?

a)15 b)24
c)34 d)48
III. L ook careful ly a t the sequence of sy mbols t o find the next patter n .
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
IV. Thr ee of the words wil l be in the sam e classif ication ; the r em ain ing o ne will no t be.
Your a nswer wil l be the one word that doe s N OT b elong to the sam e classifica tio n as the
others.
41. Which word does NOT be long with the others?

a)Poland b)Korea
c)Spain d)Italy

a)carrot b)potato
c)Tomato d)Beetroot

a)Nephrology b )Entomology
c)Astrology d)Mycology

a) Sutlej b )Hirakud
c) Aswan d )Pony

a) Telephone b)X-ray
c) Radio d)Computer
V. Stu dy the Circle grap h careful ly an d ans wer the question s g ive n below 46 to 50.
Sports
Others, 10% Tennis, 10% Tennis

Basket ball, Basket ball
Golf, 12.50%
12.50% Football
cricket
Hockey, 15% Football, 15% Hockey
Golf
Others
cricket, 25%
46. The ratio of the total amount spent on football to that sp ent on hockey is
a)1:15 b)1:1
c)15:1 d)3:20
47. If the total amount spent on sports during the year was Rs 1,20,000,00. How much
was spent on basketball?
a)Rs 9,50,000 b)Rs 10,00,000
c)Rs 12,00,000 d)Rs 15,00,000
48. Graph shows that the most popular game of the country is
a)Hockey b)Football
c)Cricket d )Tennis
49. Out of the following , the country spent the same amount on
a)Hockey and Tennis b )Golf and Basketball
c)Cricket and Football d)Hockey and Golf
50. If the Total amount Spent on Sports during the year was Rs 1,50,00,000, the amount
spent on cricket and hockey together was
a)Rs 60,00,000 b)Rs 50 ,00,000
c)Rs 37,50,000 d)Rs 25 ,00,000
VI. Ch oose the odd pair of words.
51. (a) Painter : Gallery (b) Actor : Stage (c) Mason : Wall
(d) Farmer : Field
52. (a) Cow : Calf (b) Dog : Bitch (c) Lion : Cub
(d) Tortoise : Turtle
53. (a) Volume : Litre (b) Time : Seconds (c) Length : Metre
(d ) Pressure : Ba rome ter
54. (a) Farmer : Ploug h (b) Butcher : Chopper (c) Author : Book
(d) Jockey : Tack
55. (a) Ornithology : Birds (b) Mycology : Fungi (c) Biology : Botan y
(d) Phycology : Algae
VII . Ch oose the gro up of letters which is diffe rent from others.
56. (a) BCD (b) KMN (c) QRS

(d) GHI
57. (a) POCG (b) KLIZ (c) BUDX

(d) FQMV
58. (a) CZHK (b) MLAG (c) XUBU

(d) SUNO
59. (a) BDGK (b) JLOS (c) NPSW

(d) MORU
60. (a) PH3 (b) XD6 (c) JB5

(d) VK2
VIII. Each question below is given a pas sage followed by several inferences.
Examine each inference separately in the co ntext of the passage and decide on
the degree of truth or falsity .
Mark your answer as:

(a) if the inference is ‘definitely true’
(b) if the inference is ‘probably true’
(c) if you think the data are inadequate
(d) if you think the inference is ‘definitely false’.
A tiger, when killing its natural pre y, which it d oes either by stalking or lying in wa it
for it, depends for the success of its attack o n its speed and, to a lesser extent, on the
condition of its teeth and claws. When , therefore, a tiger is suffering from one or more
painful wounds or when its teeth are missing or defective and its claws are worn
down, and it is unable to catch animals it ha s been accustomed to eating, it is drive n
be the necess ity to killing human beings.
61. Human beings are the natural prey of tigers
62. Sharp claws are needed by the tigers to kill animals in the forest.
63. Old age propels tigers to take to man eating.
Thou gh state cultivates only 3.2 lakh tones of mangoes, they are of premium quality
and with mangoes becoming second most consumed fruit in the world after grapes,
the governmen t has been trying exporting it through sea route which is cheaper. An
experiment which was done in this regar d last year has proved successful.
64. Quality of mangoes is an important factor in exports
65. The state also exports good quality grapes.
IX. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions

numbered I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the give n
assumptions is implicit.
(a) If only as sumption I is implicit

(b) Only if assumption II is implicit
(c) If either I or II is implicit
(d) If neither I nor II is i mplicit
66. The government has decided to pay compensation to the tune of Rs.1 lakh to the
family members of those who are killed in ra ilway accidents.
Assumptions:
I. The government has enough funds to meet the expenses due to compensation
II. There may be reduction in inciden ts of railway accidents in near future.
67. The management of XYZ Pvt. Ltd. Asked the worker’s union to call off strike
immed iately otherwise the management would be forced to close down the factory.
Assumptions:
III. No alternative other than closing down the factory is left for the management
of XYZ Pvt. Ltd.
IV. Such threat may have some effect on the worker’s union.
68. Computer education should start at schools itself .
Assumptions:
V. Learning computers is easy
VI. Comp uter education fetches job easily.
69. His recent investment in the shares of company A is only a ga mble.

Assumptions:
VII. He may incur loss on his investment.
VIII. He may gain from his inve stment.
70. Traffic jams on most of the roads in the city have become a regular feature during
monsoon
Assumptions:
IX. Material used for road construction cannot withstand the fury of monsoon
resu lting into innumerable pot holes on the roads .
X. Numb er of vehicles coming on the roads is much more in monsoon as
compared to other seasons.
X. In each question below is given two statemen ts followed by two conclusions

numbered I and II . Take the given t wo statements to be true if they seem to be at
variance fro m commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known
facts.
a) if only conclusion I follows

b) if only conclusion II follows
c) if either conclusion I or II follows
d) if neit her co nclusion I nor II follows
71. All roa ds are waters. Some waters are boats.

Conclusions:
I. Some boats are roads
II. All waters a re boats.
72. Some swo rds are sharp. All swor ds are rusty.
Conclusions:
I. Some rus ty things are sharp.
II. Some rus ty things are not s harp.
73. All mangoes are golden in colour. No Golden co loured things are cheap.
Conclusions:
II. All mangoes are cheap.
III. Golde n coloured mangoes are not cheap.
74. No bat is ball. No ball is w icket.

Conclusions:
IV. No bat is wicket.
V. All wickets are bats.
75. Some men a re educated. Educated persons prefer small families.

Conclusions:
VI. All families are educated
VII. Some men prefer small families.
XI. Each of the following questions consist of a statement followe d by two argu ments
I and II .
(a) If only argument I is strong,

(b) If only argument II is strong
(c) If neither I nor II is strong
(d) If both I and II are strong.
76. Should our country extend generous behaviour and goodwill to our erring and
nag ging neighbours?
Arguments:
VII. Yes. Goodwill always p ays dividend
VIII. No. Our generous behaviour and goodwill will be considered as our
weakness.
77. Should there be a ban on product advertising?

Arguments:
IX. No. It is an age of advertising. Unless your advertisement is better than your
other competitors, the product will not be sold
X. Yes. The money spent on advertising is ve ry huge and it inflates the cost of the
product.
78. Should ch ildren be lega lly made responsible to take care of their parents during
old age?
Arguments:
XI. Yes. Such matter can only be solved by lega l means.
XII. Yes. Only this will bring relief to poor parents
79. Should shifting agriculture be practiced?

Arguments:
XIII. No. It is a wasteful process
XIV. Yes. Modern methods of far ming are too expensive.
80. Is pen mightier than a sword?

Arguments:
XV. Yes. Writers influence the thinking of the people
XVI. No. With the help of physical force one can conquer all.
XII. Choo se the Synonym for th e given words .
81. ABSTEMIOUS
a) Licent ious b) Miserly
c) Sparing d) Fastidious
82. INAMORATA
a) Anger b) Jealousy
c) Sweetheart d) Opera singer
83. PROGNOSIS
a) Scheme b) Forecast
c) Preface d) Identification
84. SPORADIC
a) Epide mic b) Whirling
c) Occas ional d) Stagnant
85. PARAMOUNT
a) Above others in rank of authority
b) Famous
c) Wide and extensive
d) Very important
XIII . Choose the A nto nym for the give n words.
86. LEVITY
a) Humour b) Sobriety
c) Haste d) Gruesomeness
87. MENDACIOUS
a) Opulent b) Grave
c) Trustworthy d) Inexpensive
88. CHIMERICAL
a) Numerical b) Real
c) Obv ious d) Heavenly
89. DASTARD
a) Honourable b) Courageous
c) Sturdy d) Determined
90. JEJUNE
a) Morose b) Natural
c) Mature d) Accurate
XIV. Fill in the blanks with the su itable words given.
91. The departmen t can use informatio n received from diss atisfied employees and
_______________ to launch an investigation against the co mpany.
a) Pettifoggers b) Buccaneers
c) Amba ssadors d) Whistleb lowers
92. Many of Herbert’s poems are mere bundles if _______________ of metaphor, quaint
and crabbed to the last degree.
a) Incitements b) Oddities
c) Portrayals d) Ramifica tions
93. Thou gh the Chief had faith in us, he gave his _______________ hesistatingly.
a) Ascent b) Condone
c) Assent d) Signature
94. In contrast to the durability of the old classic movies, many of today’s movies seem
des igned to have only _____________ appeal.
a) Sensual b) Mundane
c) Ephemeral d) Superficial
95. While the ancient Greek artists valued beauty, they were ultimately
_______________ who felt tha t function dictated form.
a) Traditionalists b) Pragma tists

c) Aesthetes d) Crafts people
XV. Ch oose the Correct answe r.
96. The base 10 (or decimal - our normal way o f counting) number 65535 is represented
in hexadecimal as...?
a) 0xFFFFF b) 0xFFFF
c) 0xFFF d) 0Xffffff
97. '.BAK' extension refers usually to wha t kind of file?
a) Backup file b) Audio file

c) Animation/movie file d) MS Encarta docu ment
98. The letters, "DOS" st and for...
a) Data Out System b) Disk Out System

c) Disk Operating System d) Data Operating System
99. How many bits is a byte?
a) 4 b) 8
c) 16 d) 32
100. Which computer uses vacuum tubes, switches and wired plug boards to
implement programming.
a) EDVAC b) ENIAC
c) IBM d) UNIVAC
ANSWER
Q.No Ans
1 d
2 b
3 d
4 a
5 b
6 a
7 d
8 c
9 c
10 c
11 d
12 a
13 d
14 c
15 b
16 d
17 b
18 c
19 a
20 b
21 c
22 c
23 d
24 b
25 c
26 a
27 a
28 c
29 d
30 b
31 a
32 a
33 a
34 d
35 c
36 d
37 b
38 c
39 d
40 d
41 b
42 c
43 c
44 a
45 b
46 b
47 d
48 c
49 b
50 a
51 c
52 b
53 d
54 c
55 c
56 b
57 d
58 c
59 d
60 a
61 d
62 a
63 c
64 a
65 c
66 a
67 b
68 a
69 c
70 a
71 d
72 a
73 b
74 d
75 b
76 d
77 d
78 c
79 a
80 a
81 c
82 c
83 d
84 c
85 d
86 b
87 c
88 b
89 b
90 c
91 a
92 a
93 c
94 c
95 b
96 b
97 a
98 c
99 b
100 b
SRM UNIVERSITY
MCA ENTRANCE EXAMINATIO N – MAY 2010
Question Paper Pattern
1. NUMERICAL REASONING
2. NUMERICAL REASONING: GRAPHS AND TABLES
3. Logical Reasoning ( Sequences )
4. NON-VERBAL REASONING TEST

• Diagrammatic and Pictorial Form
5. VERBAL REASONING - COMPREHENSION EXERCISE

It is a se lection of a passage of text which will be followed by four stateme nts.
Rea d the passage carefully and the n, using only the i nformation give n in the
passage, for each statement choose whet her it is definitely t rue , definite ly unt rue ,
or you have insufficient info rmati on to answer.
6. VERBAL (Synonyms and antonyms)
7. Basic Knowledge of Computers
------------------------------------------------------------------
Total Number of Question : 100
--------------------------------- ------------------------------------
HOD / MCA
MBA & PGPM SYLLABUS
SYLLABUS AND PATTERN

The question paper will have 5 parts with the following topics:
PART 1. DATA INTERPRETATION: (20 Questions)

To evaluate the candidate’s ability to pick out critically the data and apply the data to business
decisions from given typical business situations.
• Data Interpretation based on text, Data Interpretation based on graphs and tables.
• Graphs can be Column graphs, Bar Graphs, Line charts, Pie chart, Graphs representing
Area, Venn Diagram, etc.
PART 2. QUANTITATIVE: (20 Questions)

To evaluate the skill on solving mathematical problems of graduate level including those
learnt in plus two or equivalent level.
• Ratios and Proportion, Ratios, Percentages, In – equations, Algebra and Profit & Loss
• Averages, Percentages, Partnership & Time – Speed – Distance, Work and time
• Probability, Permutations & Combinations
PART 3. REASONING: (20 Questions)

To evaluate the candidate’s skill on Logical reasoning
• Critical reasoning, Visual reasoning, Assumption – Premise – Conclusion, Assertion
and reasons, Statements and assumptions, identifying valid inferences, identifying
Strong arguments and Weak arguments, Statements and Conclusions, Cause and Effect,
Identifying Probably true, Probably false, definitely true, definitely false kind of
statement, Linear arrangements, Matrix arrangements.
• Puzzles, Syllogisms, Functions, Family tree – identifying relationship among group of
people, Symbol Based problems, Coding and decoding, Sequencing, identifying next
number in series, etc.
PART 4: ENGLISH: (20 Questions)

To evaluate the skill of the candidate on written English with questions on errors in usage,
grammar, punctuation and the like.
• Comprehension of passage
• Verbal Reasoning, Syllogisms, Antonyms, Fill in the Blanks, Jumbled paragraphs with 4
or 5 sentences
• Sentence Correction, Sentence completion, Sentence Correction, odd man out, idioms,
one word substitution, Different usage of same word etc.
PART 5: GK/CA/BA: (20 Questions)

To evaluate the candidate’s skill on General knowledge, current affairs and Business Affairs
• Current Affairs, Business, Punch line of companies, Top officials of big companies,
Major corporate events
• Famous award and prizes
• Science, History, Geography, International organizations
• Social issues, Sports, Finance, Automobiles, Entertainment, Politics etc.
MODEL QUESTIONS – MBA
Direction for questions 1 to 30 : Answer each of the questions indepen dently.
1) A bird shooter was asked how ma ny birds he ha d in the bag. He replied that there
were a ll sparrows but six, a ll pigeons but six, and all ducks but six. H ow many
birds he had in the bag in a ll?
a) 9
b) 18
c) 27
d) 36
2) A shepherd had 17 sheep. Al l but nine died. How many was he left w ith?
a) Nil
b) 8
c) 9
d) 17
3) Aruna cut a cake into two halves and cuts one half into smal ler pieces of equal
size. Each of the smal l pieces is twenty grams in we ight. If she has seven pieces
of the cake in all with her, how heavy was the ori ginal cake?
a) 120 grams
b) 140 grams
c) 240 grams
d) 280 grams
4) At the end of a business conference the ten people present all shake hands with
each other once. How may handshakes wil l there be together?
a) 20
b) 45
c) 55
d) 90
5) A student got twice as many su ms wro ng as he got r ight. If he attempted 48

sums in all , how many did he solve correct ly?
a) 12
b) 16
c) 18
d) 24
6) The number of bo ys in a cl ass is three times the nu mber of gir ls. Whic h one of
the fol lowing numbers cann ot represent the total nu mber of children in the cl ass?
a) 48
b) 44
c) 42
d) 40
7) A motorist knows four different routes from Br istol to Birmingham. From

Birmingham to Sheffi eld he knows three differ ent routes and from S heffield to
Carlisle he knows two different routes. How many routes does he know from
Bristol to Car lisle?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 24
8) A pineapple costs Rs.7 each. A wat ermelon costs Rs.5 each. X spends Rs. 38 on
these fruits. The number of pineapples purchased is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) data insuff icient
9) If you write down al l the numbers from 1 to 100 , then how man y times do y ou
write 3?
a) 11
b) 18
c) 20
d) 21
10) The tota l number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book hav ing 366
pages is
a) 732
b) 990
c) 1098
d) 1305
11) In a garden, there a re 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The d istance
between the two trees is 2 metres and a distance of one meter is left from al l sides
of the boundary of the garden. The length of the garden is
a) 20m
b) 22m
c) 24m
d) 26m
12) A farmer bui lt a fence around his square plot. He used 27 f enc e poles on each
side of the square. How many p oles did he need together?
a) 100
b) 104
c) 108
d) None of these
13) An enterprising businessma n earns an income of Re>1 on the first day of his
business. On every subse quent day, he earns an inco me which is just dou ble of
that made o n the previous day. One the 10 th day of business, his income is
a) Rs (2)9
b) Rs (2)1 0
c) Rs 10
d) Rs (10) 2
14) Find the nu mber which when ad ded to itself 13 times, gives 112.
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 11
15) In a city, 40% of the adults are illiterate while 85% of the chi ldren are literate. If
the ratio of the adults to that of the chi ldren is 2:3, then what percent of the
population is literate?
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
16) A fires 5 shots to B’s 3 but A ki lls only once in 3 shots wi le B kills once in 2
shots. When B has missed 27 times, A has k illed
a) 30 birds
b) 60 birds
c) 72 birds
d) 90 birds
17) If every 2 out of 3 readymade shirts need alterat ions in the slee ves, and every 4
out of 5 need it in the bod y, how ma ny alterations wi ll be required for 60 shirts?
a) 24
b) 123
c) 133
d) 143
18) At a dinner party every two guests used a bowl of r ice between them, every three
guests used a b owl of dal between them and every four used a bowl of meat
between them. There were altogether 6 5 dishes.. How many guests were present
at the party?
a) 60
b) 65
c) 90
d) None of these
19) A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half of the number
of men. In city Y, 10 men lea ve the bus and five women enter. Now, number of
men an d wome n is equal. In the beg inning, how man y passe ngers entered the
bus?
a) 15
b) 30
c) 36
d) 45
20) A num ber con sists of two digits whose sum is 11. If 27 is added to the n umber,
then the digits change the ir places. What is the num ber?
a) 47
b) 65
c) 83
d) 92
21) If a clock takes se ven seconds t o strike se ven, how long w ill it take to str ike ten?
a) 7 seconds
b) 9 seconds
c) 10 seconds
d) none of these
22) If 100 cats k ill 100 mice in 100 days, then 4 cats would k ill 4 mice in how many
days?
a) 1 day
b) 4 day
c) 40 days
d) 100 days
23) Two bus tic kets from c ity A to B and three t ickets from city A to C cost Rs 77 but
three tic kets from c ity A to B and two tic kets from city A to C cost Rs.73. What
are the fares for cities B and C from A?
a) Rs4 and Rs23
b) Rs13 and Rs 17
c) Rs 15 and Rs 14
d) Rs 17 and Rs 13
24) A total of 324 coins of 2 0 paise and 25 pa ise make a sum of Rs 71. The number
of 25 pa ise co ins is
a) 120
b) 124
c) 144
d) 20 0
25) A man has Rs 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five - rupee notes , ten-
rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total
number of notes t hat he has?
a) 45
b) 60
c) 75
d) 90
26) On children’s day , sweets were to be equally d istributed am ong 175 children in a
school. Actua lly on the children’s day 35 chi ldren were absent and therefore each
child got 4 sweets extra. Total how many sweets were avai lable for distr ibution?
a) 2400
b) 2480
c) 2680
d) 2800
27) A player holds 13 cards of four sui ts, of wh ich seven are black and six are red.
There are tw ice as many hearts as diamon ds. How man y clubs d oes he h old?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
28) In a fami ly, each daughter has the same n umber of brothers s s he has sisters and
each son ha s twice as many sisters as he has brothers. How man y sons are there
in the fami ly?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
29) Five bells begin to tol l together and toll respecti vely at interva ls of 6,5,7, 10 and
12 seconds. How many times wil l they tol l together in one ho ur excluding the
one at the start?
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 11
30) In a group of cows and he ns , there are 4 5 goats and 8 came ls with some keepers.
If the total number of feet be 2 24 more than the num ber of heads in the caravan,
the nu mber of keepers is
a) 5
b) 8
c) 10
d) 15
Family/B lood Relat ion qualms
31) Pointing to a photograph, a man said, I have no brother or sister but that ma n’s father
is my father’s so n. Who se photograph was it?
a) His own
b) His sons
c) His fathers
d) Hish nephews
32) Pointing towards a boy, Veena said, He is the son of only s on of m y grandfather.
How is that boy related to Veena?
a) Uncle
b) Brother
c) Cousion
d) Data inadequate
33) Introducing Reena, Monika said, “She is the only daughter of my father’s o nly
daughter.” How is Moni ka related to Reena?
a) Aunt
b) Niece
c) Cousin
d) Data inadequate
34) Pointing to a man, a woman said, “ H is mother is the only daughter of my m other.”
How is the woman related to the mother?
a) Mother
b) Daughter
c) Sister
d) Grandm other
Age Doubts
35) Sonu and Man u’s age rat io is 4:3. If sum of their a ges is 28 years, the rat io of the ir
ages after 4 yea rs will be
a)5:4
b)2:3
c)5:6
d)3:2
36) Ratio of Dol ly and Vandana ’s age is 2:3 and the sum of their ages is 60 years.
How old is Do lly?
a)12
b)16
C)24
d)30
37) Avera ge age of 10 boys in a hostel comes out to be 14. A new admission brought
down t heir average age by one year. How old the new recruit must be ?
a)4
b)5
c)12
d)3
For Queations 38-4 0

Seven chi ldren A, B,C,D,E ,F amd G are standing in a line. G is to the ri ght of D and to
the left of B. A is on the ri ght of C. A and D have one chi ld between th em. E and B
have two chi ldren between them. D and F have two children between them.
38) Who is on the extreme right?
a) B
b) E
c) F
d) G
39) Who is exactly in the middle?
a) A
b) C
c) D
d) E
40) Who is on the extreme left?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Direction (Qs 41-44)

Six persons A,B,C,D,E and F are sitting in two rows, three in each.
E is not at the end of any row.
D is second to the left of F.
C the neighbour of E, is s itting diagonal ly opposite to D.
B is the nei ghbour of F.
41) Which of the fol lowing are sitting diagonal ly opposite to each other?
a) F and C
b) D and A
c) A and C
d) A and F
42) Which of the fol lowing are in the same row?
a) A and E
b) E and D
c) C and B
d) A and B
43) Which of the fol lowing are in one of the two rows?
a) FBC
b) CEB
c) DBF
d) AEF
44) After interchanging w ith seat w ith E, who wi ll be the nei ghbors of D in the new
position?
a) C and A
b) F and B
c) Only B
d) Only A
Direction for questions (Q45 -49) Read the fol lowing information carefu lly and
answer the questions that follow:-
There are se ven books one each on Psychology, Hindi , English, Socio logy,
Econo mics, Education and Accou ntancy, lying on a table one above the other.
Sociology is on the top of all the books.
Accounta ncy is immediate ly below Education which is immediately below
Sociology.
Econo mics is immediate ly above Psychology b ut not in the middle.
Hindi is immediate ly below Psychology.
45) Economics is between which of the fol lowing books?
a) Accounta ncy an d Education

b) Psych ology and Hindi
c) English and Psychology
d) Psych ology and Sociology
46) Which three books a re between Accounta ncy an d Hindi?
a) English , Economics and Psychology

b) Econo mics, Psychology and Ed ucation
c) Econo mics, Psychology and Hindi
d) Cannot be determined
47) If Soc iology and Eng lish , Accountancy a nd Hindi , Education and Psych ology
interchange thei r posit ions , which book wi ll be between psych ology and Sociology?
a) Accounta ncy
b) Psych ology
c) Hindi
d) Econo mics
48) Books of which subject is at the sixth position from the top?
a) English
b) Hindi
c) Mathematics
d) History
49) Counting from the right to which subject does the 8th book belong?
a) Accounta ny
b) English
c) Hindi
d) History
50) In a shop, the items were ar ranged in a shelf consisting of s ix rows. Biscuits are
arranged above the tins of chocolates but below the rows of packets of chips, cakes are at
the bott om an d the bottles of peppermints are bwlow the chocolates. The topmost row
had the display of jam bottles. Where exactly are the bottles of peppermints? Mention
the place from the top?
a) 2nd
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 5th
Directions for questions 5 1 to 55:- Answer the questions based on the following
information.
A black smith has fi ve iron artic les A, B,C,D,and E each hav ing a different we ight.
A weighs twic e as much as B.
B weighs four and half times as much as C.
C wei ghs half as much as D.
D weighs half as much as E.
E weighs less than A but m ore than C.
51) Which of the fol lowing is the lightest in we ight?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
52) E is lighter in weight than which of the other two artic les?
a) A,B
b) D,C
c) A,C
d) D,B
e) B,E
53) E is heav ier than which of the fol lowing two art icles?
a) D,B
b) D,C
c) A,C
d) A,B
54) Which of the fol lowing articles is the heav iest in weight?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
55) Which of the fol lowing represents the descending order of wei ghts of the arti cles?
a) A,B,E,D,C
b) B,D,E,A,C
c) E,C,D,A, B
d) C,A,D,B, E
Direction for questions 56 to 6 0: Read the information g iven below and answer the
questions that follow:-
In an examination, six subjects were ava ilable for a candidate of which only three had to
be offered under the follow ing conditions:
One who offered A had to offer B a lso and vice versa.

One who offered A could not offer E.
One who offered C or D could not offer F.
The d istribution of the candidates over the subject s was as fol lows:
A – 70, B – 70, C – 90, D – 85, E – 70, F – 35
56) How many combinations were permitted?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
57) How many candidates in a ll appeared for the examination?
a) 120
b) 130
c) 140
d) 380
58) How many candidates offered the combination A+B+C?
a) 15
b) 20
c) 35
d) 70
59) How many candidates combined C with D?
a) 15
b) 20
c) 35
d) 70
60) How many can didates offered B w ith F?
a) 15
b) 20
c) 35
d) 70
Directions (Q6 1 to 65) : These questions are based o n the data given in the fol lowing
table showing investments made by the five companies over the year ( in lakh of rupees)
Company \years 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002

I 40 42 100 70 150
II 58 62 46 92 84
III 62 58 54 44 32
IV 66 28 66 74 96
V 30 34 64 78 94
Total 256 224 330 358 456
61) Which com pany made m ore than 25percent of the total investment made b y
all the companies in 2 001?
a) I
b) II
c) IV
d) None of these
62) For which compan y has the amo unt of investment made incre ased
continuo usly over the year?
a) I
b) II
c) III
d) V
63) For which compan y, has the a mount of investment made decreased
continuo usly over the years?
a) V
b) IV
c) III
d) None of these
64) In which year, the amount of investment ma de was the least as compared to
average investment m ade by all the companies over the years?
a) 1998
b) 1999
c) 2000
d) None of these
65) In which year, the percentage change in the total amount of investment made
is the hi ghest over its immediately preced ing year?
a) 2002
b) 2000
c) 2001
d) None of these
Directions (Q. 66 to 70) : Answer the questions on t he basis of the fol lowing tab le.
Assume al l colleges sent equal number of candidates in al l subjects for the examination.
Percentage of Results for Subjects
College Maths Physics Chemistry Zoology Botany
A 52 65 62 47 40
B 47 62 52 35 38
C 53 70 46 54 39
D 35 72 58 62 57
66) Taking all the co lleges in to account which subject has s hown highest
percentage result?
a) Chemistry
b) Maths
c) Zoology
d) Physics
67) Taking the performance in a ll the subjects into account which colle ge has
shown highest le vel of percentage results?
a) D
b) A
c) B
d) C
68) Seeing the performance of a ll the four col leges together wh ich combination of
groups has s hown lowest le vel of percentage results?
a) Zoology and Botany
b) Physics and C hemistry
c) Maths and Ph ysics
d) Chemistry and Botan y
69) Taking all the co lleges into account which subject has sh own lowest
percentage result?
a) Maths
b) Physics
c) Chemistry
d) Botany
70) Taking the performance in a ll subjects in to account which col lege has shown
lowest l evel?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Direct ions (Q. 7 1 to 75) : These qu estions refer to the fo llowing circle graph showing the
expen diture distr ibution of a certa in fami ly. The fam ily spend s Rs.11,0 00 per
month.
EXPENDITURE DISTRIBUTION OF A CERTAIN FAMILY
Entertainment
Rent
10%
20%
Clothing
15%
Taxes
12% Food
Transport 30%
Miscelleneous
8%
5%
71) How muc h it spends o n Food per m onth?

a) Rs.3,30 0
b) Rs.1,10 0
c) Rs.2,20 0
d) Rs.550
72) How muc h are its annual taxes?

a) Rs.1,32 0
b) Rs.9,80 0
c) Rs.2,40 0
d) Rs.1,08 0
73) How man y degrees should there be in the central ang le showing c lothing,
taxes and trans portation co mbined?
a) 100
b) 110
c) 120
d) 126
74) How muc h more m oney per mo nth is spent by the family on food as co mpared
to the rent?
a) Rs.1,10 0
b) Rs.1,20 0
c) Rs.1,50 0
d) Rs.1,40 0
75) If the expenditure budget of the family is raised to Rs.13, 000 per month an d
distribution on var ious items remain the same, then the mo nthly ex penses on
both, the entertainment and the transport, will be:
a) Rs.1,80 0
b) Rs.1,60 0
c) Rs.2,34 0
d) Rs.1,220
Directions (Q. 76 to 80) Refer to the bar chart given be low to answer these question s.
MILK YIELD FOR MAJOR COUNTRIES PER HEAD OF CATTLE

MILK YIELD (TONNES PER PER HEAD
12
10
8
YEAR)
6 Series1
4
2
0
N.Z Aus USA Canada Japan EEC Isreal India
COUNTRIES
76) The above chart shows :

a) The annual yi eld of mi lk produced in each country
b) Annual consumption of milk in each country
c) Annual yield of m ilk produced per cattle in each country
d) Annual yield of m ilk given by each animal in each country
77) The runner up in the mi lk yield per catt le per year is:
a) India
b) U.S.A.
c) Japan
d) Inadequate data
78) Which of the fol lowing statement is cor rect?

a) Per catt le yield of m ilk in Indi a is as much t hat of N.Z.
b) USA produces one tonne more milk per cattle than Japan.
c) Per catt le year ly yield of mi lk in Austral ia and EEC equal that of Israe l.
d) Yearly per catt le yield of m ilk in Israel is three t imes that of N. Z.
79) From the bar chart , it appears that the white revolution has been most
successful in:
a) India
b) U.S.A.
c) Japan
d) Inadequate data
80) If the mi lk yield per catt le per year is increased by ten times in India , then it
will :
a) Exceed that of Israel
b) Be equal that of Austra lia
c) Be equal that of Canada
d) Be 7 times mo re than that of N.Z.
Directions ( Q. 81 to 85): Production of differ ent types of sco oters in a compan y:-
Year \ types A B C D E
1992 180 60 84 100 76
1993 210 90 32 80 48
1994 135 30 44 95 85
1995 190 85 69 125 115
1996 260 95 120 80 120
1997 240 140 161 90 185
81) In which year was the production of B-type scoo ter close to its a verage
production over given years?
a) 1995
b) 1993
c) 1992
d) 1994
82) In which year the production of D-type sc ooters was ma ximum?

a) 1993
b) 1994
c) 1995
d) 1996
83) What was the ap proximate percen tage of production of A -type sco oter in 1 995
to its total production over the years?
a) 20
b) 15
c) 23
d) 40
84) In which of the fol lowing pairs of years was the total production of E -type
scooter two lakhs?
a) 1993&1995
b) 1995&1997
c) 1994&1997
d) None
85) In which year the total production of al l types of scooters was minimum?
a) 1994
b) 1996
c) 1997
d) 1995
Directions: (Q.86 to 90): Four stude nts A,B,C and D appeared in four papers. I, II ,III and
IV in a test. Their scores out of 100 a re given be low:-
Students \papers I II III IV

A 60 81 45 55
B 59 43 51 A
C 74 A 71 65
D 72 76 A 68
Where “A” stan ds for absen t. Read the above table and answer below mentioned
question s 1-5.
86) Which candidate has secured betwee n 60-65 % mar ks in agreegate?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
87) Who has obtained the lowest avera ge in aggregate?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
88) Who has obtained the highest avera ge?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
89) In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by the candidates?
a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV
90) Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Comprehen sion
The Constitution guarantees every c itizen the fundamental ri ght to equality. Yet afte r 50
years of independe nce, just o ne perusal of the female infant mortal ity figures, the literacy
rates and the employment opportunities for women is sufficient evidence that
discrimination exists. A lmost predictably, th is gender, b ias is evident in our polit ical
system as wel l. In the 1 3th Lok Sabha there were only 43 women MPs out of a total of
543; it is not surprising figure, for never has women ’s representation in parl iament bee n
more than 10 percent.
Historically, the manifestos of major politi cal parties have a lways encouraged women ’s
partic ipation. It has been a charade. So, women ’s organization denied a pla ce on merit,
opted for the last resort: a reser vation of seats for women in parl iament and State
Assemblies. Part ies wh ich look at everything w ith a vote bank in mind seemed to en dorse
this. A las, th is too was a mira ge.
But there is another aspect also. At a t ime when caste I the trump card, some p oliticians
want the b ill to include further quotas for women from a mong minorit ies and backward
castes. There is more to it. A survey shows that there is a g enera l antipathy towards the
bill. It is a classic case of double speak. The reasons are ve ry clear: Men just do n’t wan t
to vacate thei r seats of power.
91) The problem ra ised in the passage re flects badly on our

a) Political system
b) Socia l behav ior
c) Indiv idual behavior
d) Behav ior of group of peo ple
92) According to the passage, pol itical parties have mostly in mind
a) Economic prosperity
b) Vote bank
c) Peoples we lfare
d) Patriot ism
93) “Trump card” means

a) Trying to move a dead horse
b) Playing the card cautiously
c) Sabotaging all the moves by others
d) Mak ing the final jolt for success
94) The sentences “ Men ju st don’t want to vacate their seats of power” means
a) Lust for power
b) Desire to serve the nat ion
c) Convict ion in ones own p olitical abilities
d) Polit ical corruption
95) What is the percentage of women in the 1 3th Lok S abha?

a) 10
b) 7.91
c) 43
d) 9.1
Direction for questions 96 to 1 00:

The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logica l order of
sentences from a mong the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
96) A) In United K ingdom, the Scots held a referendum to install the ir own par liament
and the da y may not be t oo far off when the Scots h old a refer endum on whet her to
recede or not.
B) Hence what should worry New De lhi is that the idea of holding referendum
has won a fresh lease of life.
C) Strangely many Indians support the cause of Tibet and Eelam, but refuse to
hear any argument for Kashmir.
D) The reason and histories certa inly are d ifferent, making comparison odious,
but in al l three, the idea is the same.
a.ABCD b.DCBA c.ACBD d.DBCA
97) A) The stories p lanted in the international media about the yields of the Indian
tests highl ighted the l imitations of the mo nitoring system.
B) US intelligence agenc ies have expressed reservat ions on their abi lity to
detect small y ield tests.
C) While obfuscation on the China-Pakistan prol iferation axis may suit the US
Presidents’s
D) Presented with a p icture of nuclea r threats, it is logical for US senators t o
take the stand that Washington should not foreclose its right to continue with
nuclear test ing.
a.BCDA b.ABCD c.DCBA d.BACD
98) A) The survey conducte d by 12 consu mer organizat ions which ordered more
than 150 items from 17 countries has foun d that almost al l consu mer rights
like safety and priva cy have been infr inged .
B) An international comparative study of elect ronic commerce cond ucted b y
Consumers International, Ma laysia, found t hat internet sho pping is more r isky
than the u sual visit to the market place .
C) For even before internet shop ping can take roots and gain the acceptance of
consumers, several unfair t rade pract ices of reta ilers setting up sho ps on the
world w ide web have come to l ight.
D) Consu mers wh o want to sh op through t he internet had better watch out.
a.BACD b.BDAC c.ABCD d.DCBA
99) A) Currently the term deposit rates of maturity of over three years are around
10 percent.
B) The continuous low inf lation rates at around tow percent might prom pt the
RBI to take measures to reduce interest rates in the busy season credit policy
to be ann ounced o n October 29.
C) Such meas ures are likely to result in reduction in the term deposit rates.
D) To this end, the Central Bank m ight dec ide to reduce the bank rates and the
stipulated rat io of total deposits held by commercial banks to be mainta ined
with the RBI.
a) ABCD b)ACDB c)BDCA d)BCDA
100) A) And there hasn’t been any drastic increase in the number of nuclear
weapons recently, I think we ha ve come far.
B) In the ear ly days, when there was a race to a cquire more and more nuclear
weapons, t he problem was that of preventing the actual use of nuclea r
weapons.
C) Pugwash was set up to enc ourage dialogue between the pol itical leadership
and the scientif ic community to prevent things from gett ing out of hand .
D) It p layed an important part in bring ing about sign ificant reduction in the
nuclear arsena l of Russia and brought thro ugh various treat ies.
a.BCDA b.BDCA c.CBAD d.CABD
Direction for questions 101 to 106: Two objects , events or concepts are re lated in some
way, you have to establish the same relationship with the other two objects, events or
concept s on the basis of the alternat ives given below each questions: -
101) Light: Sun: : Heat : ?
a) Electricity
b) Moon
c) Fire
d) Star
102) Parrot: Ca ge: : Man: ?
a) Home
b) Motor car
c) Prison
d) Forest
103) Disease : Health: : Freedom: ?
a) Slavery
b) Pleasure
c) Plight
d) Beauty
104) Ocean: Pond: : Deep?
a) River
b) Canal
c) Shallow
d) Filthy
105) Butter: Milk: : Oil: ?
a) Cow
b) Seeds
c) Curd
d) Grains
Direction for questions 107 to 110: Each question has a pair of c apita lized words
followed by four pairs of words. Cho ose the pair of words which best expresses t he
relationship simi lar to that expressed in the capital ized pair .
106) Machines and Pull ies
a) Knife and Fruits

b) Car and Wheels
c) Bread and Butter
d) Iron and Do ors
107) Chemistry and science
a) Painting and Arts

b) Medic ine and Surgery
c) Geography an d History
d) Law and culture
108) Carpenter and W ood
a) Goldsmith and Gold

b) Blacksmith and Iron
c) Engineer and Machines
d) All of these
109) Class and Teacher
a) College and Pr incipa l

b) Books and Librar ian
c) Worksho p and Foreman
d) All of these
110) Writer and poet
a) Poems an d Songs
b) Prose and Poetr y
c) Books and Lesso ns
d) Letters and Words
Direction for questions 111 to 115: Two objects , events or concepts are re lated in some
way, you have to establish the same re lationship with t he other two ob jects, events or
concept s on the basis of the alternat ives given below each questions: -
111) 12 : 35 : : 16: ?
a) 63
b) 32
c) 28
d) 55
112) 17: 19 : : 47 : ?
a) 53
b) 59
c) 41
d) 34
113) 42 : 56 : : 110 : ?
a) 132
b) 136
c) 18
d) 140
114) 3: 10 : : 8 : ?
a) 10
b) 13
c) 17
d) 14
115) 28: 126 : : 126 : ?
a) 127
b) 28
c) 56
d) 81
Direction for questions 116 to 120: Read the comprehen sion and a nswer the questio ns
Due to the me dia commu nication explosion and the effect of g lobalization, markets a ll
over the world a re going through a phase of metam orphosis. The visual media is
regularly exposing a newer life-sty le, products and services to the fast expanding netizen -
driven soci ety. Today, cons umers have beco me quite concerned a bout health issues and
are tak ing a great interest in food matters. Envi ronmental issues, gr eate r segmentation
and increased mobility are the added factors. Besides, the Green Movement supported by
media coverag e has been creating urge for natural food.
116) What d oes the word ‘meta morphosis’ stan d for ?

a) change in nature
b) change in market
c) change in life-sty le
d) development in growth
117) What is the unique role of v isual media?

a) it creates new markets
b) it regularly exposes a newer l ife-sty le, products and services
c) it influences every aspect of life
d) it brings out the glamour of modern lif e
118) What is netizen-driven society?

a) a society crazy about internet
b) a society cr ippled by internet
c) a society exploited by internet
d) a society making the optimum use of internet
119) What are the major concern s of cons umers?

a) support for the Green Movement
b) urge for natura l food
c) environmental issues and increased mo bility
d) health and food matters
120) How would yo u describe the passage?

a) informati ve
b) educative
c) instructiv e
d) interest ing
121) Who among the following has been appointed the National
Secur ity Adv iser by the UPA Gov ernment ?
(a) Brajesh M ishra
(b) Shiv shankar menon
(c) Soli J. Sorabjee
(d) T. K. A. Nair
122) Who a mong the fol lowing is the new Chie f Minister of
Karnataka ?
(a) S. M. K rishna
(b) Uma Bharti
(c) Yediurappa
(d) Y. S. Rajasekhara Reddy
123) Who a mong the fol lowing has won the Miss Universe 2004
crown ?
(a) Jennifer Haw kins
(b) Shandi Finnessey
(c) Alba Reyes
(d) None of these
124) A solemn ceremony to mark the 60th Anniversary of D-Day

landings of the A llies troops during the Second World War,
was he ld in
(a) Pearl Harbour
(b) Norman dy
(c) New York
(d) Lisbon
125) Which of the fol lowing c ricketers holds the world record
of maximum number of sixes in Tests ?
(a) Chris Carins (Ne w Zealand)
(b) Viv Richards (West Indies)
(c) Sachin Tendulkar (India)
(d) Wasim Akram (Pa kistan)
126) Who a mong the fol lowing has been appointed the new C hief
Justice of India ?
(a) Justice Rajendra Babu
(b) Justice V. N. Kha re
(c) Justice R. C. Lahoti
(d) None of these
127) Who among the following sports persons got the honour of
lighting the O lympic f lame at the Major Dhyan Chand Sta dium
in New De lhi recently ?
(a) Anjal i Bhagwat
(b) Abhinav B indra
(c) Viswanathan Anan d
(d) K. M. Beenamol
128) Who a mong the fol lowing has been appointed new chairman
of the Nat ional Commission for Farmers ?
(a) Ajit Singh
(b) K. C. Pant
(c) Dr. M. S. Swam inathan
(d) Sharad Pawar
129) Which of the fol lowing p lanets crossed the face of the
sun (in trans it) after 122 years rec ently ?
(a) Mars
(b) Venus
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn
130) Which of the fol lowing countries was readmitted to the

Commo nwealth recently ?
(a) Nepal
(b) Myanmar
(c) Pakistan
(d) None of these
131) The wor ld gove rning body of which of the fol lowing
sports celebrated its 100 years in existence recent ly ?
(a) Football
(b) Hockey
(c) Badminton
(d) Cricket
132) Wh o among the fol lowing won the men? s singles t itle of
the French Open 2004 ?
(a) Guillermo Coria
(b) Roger Federer
(c) Andy R oddick
(d) Gaston Gau dio
133) Who is India?s f irst Woman Grand Master in Chess ?

(a) Aarthie Ramaswamy
(b) Koneru Hu mpy
(c) S. Meenakshi
(d) S. Vijaya lakshmi
134) The age of a tree can be determined by
(a) Measuring its he ight
(b) Measuring its diameter
(c) Analyzing its sap
(d) Counting the annual growth rings of its stem
135) Which one of the following pairs is not correct ly matched ?

Mountains Continent s
(a) The Rocky : North America
(b) The Andes : South America
(c) The A lps : Europe
(d) The Ural : Africa
136) Which of the fol lowing pa irs is corre ctly matched ?

(a) ?Purna Swaraj? Resolution : 1929
(b) Martyrdom of Sardar Bhagat S ingh : 1931
(c) Formation of the Co ngress Social ist Party : 1939
(d) Simla Confeence : 1940
137) The Lingaraja Temple bui lt during the medie val period is at
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Khajuraho
(c) Madurai
(d) Mount Ab u
138) Which one of the following is essentia lly a solo dance ?

(a) Kuchipudi
(b) Kathak
(c) Manipuri
(d) Mohiniattam
139) The deepest oceanic trench ?Mar iana? is located in

(a) Atlanti c Ocean
(b) Arctic Ocean
(c) Pacific Ocean
(d) Indian Ocean
140) Although fog consists of fine drops of water, we c annot

see c learly through it because
(a) The light rays undergo total internal reflection in the
drops
(b) Fine drops of water in fog polar ize the light
(c) The fine drops are opaque to t he light
(d) The drops scatter most of the li ght
141) During the Mugha l period, which one of the fol lowing
were the f irst to come to India as traders ?
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) Danish
(d) Engl ish
142) Who a mong the fol lowing Delhi Sultans is known for
introducing market control mechanism ?
(a) Iltutmish
(b) Balban
(c) Alauddin Khalj i
(d) Firoze Tughlaq
143) Which one of the following mountain peaks of the

Himalayas is NO T in India ?
(a) Annap urna
(b) Nanda Devi
(c) Mt. Kamet
(d) Kanchenj unga
144) A rift valley is formed mainly due to

(a) The forces of tension in the earth?s crust
(b) The subsidence of the floor of a river valley
(c) The valley fo rmed after the formation of fold mountains
(d) The deepening of a valley by ice action
145) Who is the author of the book, ?The Man Who Divided India? ?
(a) Arun Sho urie
(b) Dominique Lapierre
(c) Rafiq Zakaria
(d) Salman Rush die
146) By what name do we know the Mah omedan Anglo -Oriental School?
a) Banaras Hindu Un iversity
b) Aligarh Musl im University
c) Mumbai University
d) Delh i University
147) Who c onfers the National c ivil and gal lantry awards?
a) Prime M inister
b) Chief M inisters
c) Pres ident
d) Defence M inister
148) What are cal led ‘Kabas’ at the Karni Dev i temple at Deshnok in Rajasthan?
a) Cats
b) Tigers
c) Rats
d) Rabbits
149) In which capita l city is the Charbagh Rai lway Stadium is located?
a) Ahmedabad
b) Chen nai
c) Bang alore
d) Lucknow
150) Pandit Jasraj is the le ading exponent of which gharana?

a) The mewat i
b) The Pars i
c) Agarwa ls
d) None of these
ANS WER
Q.no Ans Q.no Ans Q.no Ans Q.no Ans Q.no Ans
1 A 31 B 61 B 91 B 121 B
2 C 32 B 62 D 92 B 122 C
3 C 33 D 63 C 93 D 123 A
4 B 34 A 64 B 94 A 124 B
5 B 35 A 65 B 95 D 125 A
6 C 36 C 66 D 96 C 126 C
7 D 37 D 67 A 97 C 127 A
8 C 38 C 68 A 98 D 128 C
9 C 39 C 69 D 99 C 129 B
10 B 40 C 70 B 100 A 130 C
11 B 41 D 71 A 101 C 131 A
12 B 42 A 72 B 102 C 132 D
13 A 43 C 73 D 103 A 133 B
14 B 44 A 74 A 104 C 134 D
15 D 45 C 75 C 105 B 135 D
16 D 46 A 76 C 106 B 136 B
17 C 47 C 77 B 107 A 137 A
18 A 48 D 78 B 108 D 138 D
19 D 49 B 79 B 109 D 139 C
20 A 50 D 80 D 110 B 140 D
21 D 51 C 81 C 111 A 141 A
22 D 52 A 82 C 112 A 142 C
23 B 53 B 83 D 113 A 143 A
24 B 54 A 84 B 114 C 144 A
25 D 55 A 85 A 115 B 145 C
26 D 56 A 86 A 116 A 146 B
27 C 57 C 87 B 117 B 147 C
28 B 58 B 88 A 118 D 148 C
29 B 59 D 89 B 119 D 149 D
30 A 60 C 90 D 120 A 150 A
PAT TERN OF ENTR ANC E EXAMINATI ON - 2010
For M .TECH . PROG RAM M ES
The questions will be set at the corresponding degree level.

The questions will be of scholastic aptitude type.
The question paper consists of 100 questions with duration of 150 mts.
Each correct answer carries 3 marks and each wrong answer carries negative mark of 1.
SYLLABUS
Civil (Code 01)
Mathematics
(i) Vector calculus (ii) Determinants and Matrices (iii) Analytic function theory (iv) Calculus and ordinary
Differential Equations (v) Numerical Methods (vi) Probability and Statistics.
Other Topics
(i) Mechanics of Solids and Structural Analysis (ii) Concrete and Steel Structure (iii) Soil Mechanics and Geo
Technical Engineering (iv) Fluid Mechanics and Water Resources Engineering (v) Environmental
Engineering (vi) Surveying (vii) Transportation Engineering (viii) Remote Sensing (ix) Geographic
Information Systems (GIS).
Mechanical (Code 02)
Mathematics
Other Topics
(i)Mechanics and Machine Design (ii) Material Science and Metallurgy (iii) Thermo dynamics (iv)
Refrigeration and Air Conditioning (v) Production Technology (vi) Automotive Engines (vii) Automotive
Transmission (viii) Strength of Materials (ix) Casting, metal forming and metal joining processes (x) Tool
Engineering, Machine tool operation, Metrology and inspection (xi) Engineering Materials, Processing of
Plastics and Computer Aided Manufacturing (xii) Product Design, Process Planning, Cost Estimate, Design
of Jigs and Fixtures and Press Tools (xiii) Operations Research. (xiv) Operations Management (xv) Quality
Control Reliability and Maintenance.
Electrical (Code 03)
Mathematics
Other Topics
(i) Circuit Theory (ii) Network Analysis and Synthesis (iii)DC & AC Machines (iv) Electronic Circuits
(v) Power Electronics (vi) Control Systems (vii) Power System Analysis (viii) Microprocessors.
Electronics (Code 04)
Mathematics
Other Topics
(i) Networks (ii) Electronic Devices (iii) Analog Circuits (iv) Digital circuits and microprocessors (v) Signals
and Systems (vi) Control Systems (vii) Communications (viii) Electromagnetics
Instrumentation (Code 05)
Mathematics
Other Topics
(i) Electron Devices (ii) Linear and Digital Integrated Circuits (iii) Electronic circuits (vi) Transducers and
Industrial Instrumentation (v) Microprocessors and Microcontrollers (vi) Network Analysis (vii) Control
systems (viii) Biomedical Instrumentation (ix) Electrical and Electronic measurements and instrumentation
(x) Process control.
Computer Science (Code 06)
Mathematics
Other Topics
(i) Discrete Mathematical Structures (ii) Micro Processor and Hardware Systems (iii) Computer Organization
and Architecture (iv) System Programming including Assemblers, Compilers and Operating Systems (v)
Programming Methodology, Data Structures and Algorithms (vi) Database Systems (vii) Computer
Networks.
Chemical (Code 07)
Mathematics
Other Topics
(i) Chemical process calculations (ii) Chemical Process Industries (iii) Mechanical Operations (iv) Fluid
Mechanics (v) Heat Transfer (vi) Mass Transfer (vii) Thermodynamics (viii) Chemical Reaction Engineering
(ix ) Instrumentation & Control (x) Process Engineering Economics.
Bio Technology (Code 08)
Cell Structure – Function – Properties of Nucleic Acids - Protein Synthesis – Gene Manipulation –
Transgenic Microbes, Plants and Animals – Metabolism and Bio Energetics – Gene Regulation – Enzyme
Kinetics – Fermentation Process – Production of commercially important enzymes, Recombinant proteins –
Microbial Growth Kinetics – Biosaftey – Bioethics and Intellectual Property Rights – Bio conversion –
Fermentation Kinetics – Bioreactors- Genomics and Proteomics – Computer Applications in Bio
Technology -Nano Biotechnology – Application of Bio Technology – Systems Biotechnology.
GIS (Code 09)
Mathematics
Other Topics
Probability Theory – Physics of Remote Sensing – Sensor – Electromagnetic Radiation – Satellites

– Photogrammetry – Surveying – Cartography – Digital Image Processing – GIS – Hardwares, Softwares –
Data base Management – Electronic Surveying – GPS – EDM – Radar – Hydrology – Geological Remote
Sensing – Soils – Pollution – Coastal zone – Urban Planning – Disaster.
Environmental (Code 10)
Mathematics
Other Topics
(i) Environmental Pollution (ii) Environmental Biotechnology (iii) Thermodynamics (iv)

Ecology (v) Environmental Conservation (vi) Water Resources (vii) Ecology and Sustainable
Development (viii) Remote Sensing (ix) Energy and Environmental (x) Environmental Impact
Assessment (xi) Current Topics in Environmental Sciences (xii) Soil Pollution and Solid Waste
Management (xiii) Natural Hazards (xiv) Environmental and Occupational Health
Food Processing (Code 11)
Bioprocess Engineering:
Properties of Vapors and Gases. Energy Balances/Conservation of Energy; Entropy; Ideal Gas Mixtures and
Psychometrics. Steady-state Heat Transfer; One-dimensional Heat Conduction; Heat Transfer through a
Composite Wall; Conduction, Forced Convection; Overall Heat Transfer Coefficient; Heat Exchangers; Radiation
Heat Transfer. Basic bioprocess engineering and reactor concepts; Stoichiometry , mass and energy balances;
Fluid flow and mixing in bioreactors; Heat transfer in bioprocesses; Mass transfer in bioprocess; Reaction and
cell growth kinetics; Downstream processin g unit operations. Process instrumentation
Food Engineering:
Dimensions and units, Evaporation, crystallization, distillation, mechanical separations, size reduction and
mixing, properties of food, blanching, pasteurization, sterilization, extrusion, aseptic processing, drying, material
handling, dairy plant engineering, cereal processing, fat and oil processing, sugar cane processing, food
preservation, storage, non-thermal food processing, bakery and confectionary, meat and poultry processin g,
Food safety and waste management, food packaging technology
Biochemistry and nutrition:
Enzymes, Coenzymes, Cofactors, Elements of carbohydrates, fat and protein metabolism, Elements of
photosynthesis , Food Requirements, Vitamins and their functions in the body, Minerals and their functions in
body, Elements in protein bio synthesis-Nucle ic acids and their importance.
Microbiology:
Microorganism, isolation of microorganism, identification, stains and staining techniques, Growth, nutrition and
physiology of microorganism, diseases and control, microbial genetics, microbial spoilage in food, beneficial
microorganism, probiotic and prebiotic. Fermentation-Process, types, design, Fermented food products.
Enzymes-production-primary and secondary metabolites, application in food industry.
MODEL QUESTIONS – M.Tech
Civil (Section code 01)
1. Maximum directional derivative of a scalar point function is

a) b) c) Zero d) none of these
2. The value of curl (grad ) is

(a) b) c) Zero d) one
3. Radius of curvature of at is
(a) b) c) d)
4. Saddle point of the function is

(a) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)
5. Solution of Differential equation is
(a) b)
c) d)
6. is analytic at the print
(a) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic
7. Order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is

(a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
8. Probability of getting one head when two coins are based is

a) b) c) d)
9. Run of the matrix is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero
10. The sum of eigen values of A2 where A = is
a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
11. A steel bar of length 2m, area of cross section 50 mm2 , Young’s modulus 2. X
105 N/mm2 is subjected to a rise in temperature of 500 C. If the bar is free to
expand the stress induced in the bars is
a) 100N/mm2
b) 58.5N/mm2
c) 0
d) 60 N/mm2
12. In an experiment conducted on a metal bar the lateral strain was found to be
0.00083 and the longitudinal strain 0,003. The Poisson’s ratio is
a) 0.278
b) 3.61
c) 0.000415
d) 0.015
13. For a material if the Young’s modulus is 2.1 X 105 N/mm2, and Poisson’s ratio
0.30, the bulk modulus is
a) 3 X 105 N/mm2
b) 1.75 X 105 N/mm2
c) 2.5 X 105 N/mm2
d) none of the above.
14. A cantilever is subjected to
a) Always sagging moment
b) Always hogging moment
c) Both sagging and hogging moments together
d) Can not say
15. A simply supported beam of span 6000 mm is subjected to a udl of 30000
N/m. If the modulus of elasticity is 2.1 X 104 N/mm2 , and moment of inertia
2.39 X 109 mm4 , the maximum deflection is
a) 1 mm
b) 0.10 m
c) 10 mm
d) 1m
16. A fixed beam of span 8 m supports a load of 100 kN at 6m from left end. What
is the right support moment reaction
a) 37.5 kNm
b) 98.5 kNm
c) 120 kNm
d) 112.5 kNm
17. The central reaction of a two span continuous beam of equal spans of ‘l’ each
subjected to a udl of w per unit length is
2wl
a)
8
3wl
b)
8
4wl
c)
8
5wl
d)
4
18. The reaction at the left support of a simply supported beam of span 8 m
subjected to a uniformly varying load of zero intensity at left support and 25
kN/m at right end is
a) 33. 33 kN
b) 66.67 kN
c) 16.16 kN
d) none of the above
19. The degree of static indeterminacy of a two bay single storey frame whose
supports are hinged is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
20. The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of a fixed beam is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
21. A three hinged arch is
a) Statically determinate
b) Statically indeterminate
c) externally indeterminate, internally determinate
 36 − 12
22. The value of a21 of the stiffness matrix of a structure   is
a 21 12 
a) 12
b) -12
c) 36
d) -36
23. In matrix method of analysis the size of the flexibility matrix for a 3 span
continuous beam using force method is
a) 1 X 1
b) 2 X 2
c) 3 X 3
d) 4 x 4
24. A beam has a spring support of stiffness of 100 kN/m and it undergoes a
displacement of 5 mm due to applied loads. The reaction at the spring
support is
a) 5 kN
b) 10 kN
c) 0.5 kN
d) 0.10kN
25. The conjugate beam of an over hanging beam with overhangs on both sides
has
a) 4 simple supports
b) 2 internal hinges with ends free
c) 2 ends fixed and two internal hinges
d) two fixed supports
26. A single bay, single storey portal frame with two roller supports is
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Determinate and stable
d) Indeterminate and stable
27. The position of the moving load for the occurrence of maximum bending
moment at a section located at L/3 from left support of a simply supported
beam is
a) At mid span
b) At L/3 from right support
c) At L/3 from left support
d) None of the above
28. The distribution of bending and shear stresses across a rectangular section,
respectively is
a) Parabolic and linear
b) Linear and parabolic
c) Linear and spiral
d) Linear and exponential
29. The effective length of column fixed at one end and hinged at the other is
a) 0.5L
b) 2L
c) L
L
d)
2
30. A simply supported beam of span 6 m is subjected to a clockwise couple of 36
kNm at 4 m from left end. The reaction at the right end is
a) 6 kN upwards
b) 24 kN upwards
c) 24 kN downwards
d) 24 kN upwards
31. Highway plan for India was first formulated in 1943 at a conference held at
a) Madras
b) Bomby
c) Hyderabad
d) Nagpur
32. In a contour map the contour interval is 15 m and the ruling gradient is 1 in
20. The proposed road length between two consecutive contours is
a) 150 m
b) 200 m
c) 300 m
d) 400 m
33. Chose from following which is not associated with sight distances
a) Stopping sight distance
b) Overtaking sight distance
c) Minimum distance of visibility of an object from the seat of the driver
d) Safe sight distance for entering the uncontrolled intersections
34. Lemniscate is a
a) Transition curve
b) Term associated with extra widening of horizontal curve
c) Term associated with speed of vehicles
d) A type of grade separator
35. In a single lane road, the speed of vehicles is 50 kmph and average centre to
centre spacing of vehicles is 12 m. The capacity of the road is
a) 600
b) 2500
c) 144
d) 4167
36. CBR stands for
a) California Bending Resistance
b) California Bending Reaction
c) California Bearing Reaction
d) California Bearing Ratio
37. Westergaard method of highway design is associated with
a) Bituminous pavement
b) WBM
c) Earthen pavement
d) Rigid pavement
38. The spacing of expansion joints of a rigid pavement with smooth interface at
joint and laid in winter is
a) 50-60 m
b) 100-140 m
c) 90-120 m
d) < 50 m
39. Specific gravity of bitumen is

a) 1.5-1.8
b) 2.5-2.8
c) 1.35-1.38
d) 0.97-1.02
40. Double clover leaf is
a) A type of grade separator at an intersection
b) A type of tree grown on the pathway
c) A type of horizontal transition curve
d) A type of vertical curve
41. The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are
a) FL -2T
b) FL -2T2
c) F 2L-2T
d) FL-2T -1
42. A capillary tube of inside diameter 5 mm is dipped in water. If the surface
tension is 0.0763 N/m and the angle of contact is 60 0, the capillary rise is
a) 5.286 X 10 -4 m
b) 5.286 X 10 -3 m
c) 5.286 X 10 -5 m
d) 5.286 X 10 -2 m
43. The total pressure on a rectangular plate of dimensions 0.6m X 1m placed
with its shorter side horizontal, the surface being immersed vertically in water
and the upper edge being 3 m below free surface, is
a) 20.6 kN
b) 10.3 kN
c) 41.2 kN
d) 5.15 kN
44. In a fluid flow, the stream function is given by ψ = 2x2-y2 . The resultant
velocity at (2,3) is
a) 2
b) 10
c) -2
d) 12
45. Reynold’s number is the ratio of
Inertia forces
a)
pressure forces
Inertia forces
b)
gravity forces
Inertia forces
c)
viscous forces
Inertia forces
d)
surface forces
46. To measure low discharges the preferable notch is
a) Rectangular
b) Trapezoidal
c) Circular
d) Triangular
47. Hydraulic depth in open channel flow is ratio of
area of cross sec tion
a)
top width
b)
bottom width
c)
depth of flow
d)
wetted perimeter
48. The most economical rectangular channel has a depth of flow equals to
a) half the breadth
b) ¼ of breadth
c) breadth
d) twice the breadth
49. The force generated by a 50 mm diameter water jet against a flat plate held
normal to axis of stream whose velocity is 40 m/s is
a) 3.20 kN
b) 6.28 kN
c) 1.57 kN
50. Pelton wheel will be a preferred turbine under
a) Low head, low discharge
b) High head, low discharge
c) High head, high discharge
d) Low head high discharge
51. The Kharif season is characterized by
a) Less number of rainy days
b) Rise in temperature
c) Large number of rainy days
52. For a particular crop, irrigated over an area of 10 sq. km with a base period of
28 days, the duty is
a) 2.42 m
b) 0.0242 m
c) 0.242 m
53. A canal has a hydraulic mean radius of 1.2885 m and area of cross section
12.71m2 , bed slope of 1 in 1600, Manning’s constant, 0.015. The discharge is
a) 50 m3
b) 25 m3
c) 15 m3
d) 29 m3
54. Regime of flow in an open channel is characterized by
a) Plane bed with no motion
b) Ripples and dunes
c) Transition
d) All of the above
55. A trapezoidal channel of side slope 1H:2V has a depth of flow of 2 m and a
base width of 16.5 m. The hydraulic mean radius is
a) 1.77m
b) 1.87m
c) 1.67m
d) 1.57m
56. Which one of the following does not belong to canal regulation structure?
a) Canal drop
b) Cross regulator
c) Canal escape
d) Super passage
57. A siphon aqueduct is provided
a) As outlet in dams
b) When canal crosses a river whose HFL is less than the FSL of the canal
c) When canal crosses a river whose HFL is more than the FSL of the
canal
d) When canal crosses a river whose HFL is equal to FSL of the canal
58. In canal headworks cutoffs are provided

a) To prevent cavitation
b) To guard against scouring and piping
c) To control floods
d) To prevent road vehicles falling into canal
59. The suitable type of dam in a plain terrain with broad valleys is
a) Masonry dam
b) Arch dam
c) Concrete dam
d) Earthen embankment dam
60. Freeboard in a dam is
a) Extra vertical distance between the reservoir bed and crest of
embankment
b) Extra vertical distance between the foot of spillway and crest of
embankment
c) Extra vertical distance between the still water surface in the reservoir
and crest of embankment
d) Extra vertical distance between the canal outlet and crest of
embankment
61. Value of E adopted for structural steel sections in code is
a) 210 MPa
b) 210 GPa
c) 210 Pa
d) 2.1 X 10 4N/mm2
62. Minimum thickness of steel directly exposed to weather and is fully accessible
for cleaning and repairing is
a) 3 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 6 mm
63. When steel structural members are designed for wind load combination, the
stresses are
a) Increased by 33%
b) Decreased by 33%
c) Increased by 25%
d) Decreased by 25%
64. The permissible stresses axial tension in steel is
a) 0.66fy
b) 0.45f y
c) 0.50f y
d) 0.60fy
65. Rivets subjected to both shear and axial tension are designed to satisfy
τ vf , cal σ tf ,cal
a) + ≤ 1 .0
τ vf σ tf
b) + ≤ 1 .4
τ vf σ tf
c) + ≤ 1.1
τ vf σ tf
d) + ≤ 1 .2
τ vf σ tf
66. Minimum pitch of rivets shall not be less than
a) 3.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivet
b) 2.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivet
c) 4.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivet
d) 5.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivet
67. In plastic analysis the shape factor of rectangular section is

a) 1.67
b) 1.1
c) 2.1
68. Purlins are designed for
a) Bending about major axis only
b) Bending about minor and major axes
c) Shear only
d) Axial tension only
69. Lacings are provided
a) In gantry girders
b) Plate girders
c) Tension members
d) Compression members
70. In pitched roof sheds, for normally adopted slopes the wind acts
a) Away from the roofing sheet
b) Towards the roofing sheet
c) Horizontally
71. The modulus of elasticity of concrete of grade 25 is
a) 2.5 X 104 N/mm2
b) 2.5 X 105N/mm2
c) 2.85 X 104 N/mm2
d) 2.85 X 105 N/mm2
72. For making concrete the pH value of water shall not be less than
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
73. In accordance with IS456:2000, M55 concrete falls under
a) Low strength category
b) Ordinary strength category
c) Standard strength category
d) High strength category
74. The maximum workability is required for
a) Blinding concrete
b) Tremie concrete
c) Strip footings
d) columns
75. Minimum amount of cement content required for RCC exposed to moderate
weather conditions is
a) 420 kg/m3
b) 380 kg/m3
c) 360 kg/m3
d) 300 kg/m3
76. The effective flange width of ‘L’ beam may be taken as
a) l0/12 + bw+3Df
b) l0/18 + bw+3Df
c) l0/6 + bw+3Df
d) l0/4 + bw+3Df
77. For cantilever beams, the basic value of span to effective depth ratio shall not
be greater than
a) 7
b) 20
c) 26
d) 6
78. A RCC compression member may be considered as short when

a) Le x/D is less than 12
b) Le y/b is less thn 12
c) Le x /D or Ley/b less than 12
L + Ley
d) ex is less than 12
b+ D
79. Partial safety factor for steel in RCC is
a) 1.25
b) 1.15
c) 1.05
d) 0.95
80. In limit state of collapse, in flexure, the maximum strain in the tension
reinforcement in the section at failure is
fy
a) 0.002 +
1.15E s
fy
b) 0.0035 +
1.15 E s
fy
c) 0.002 +
1.5E s
fy
d) 0.0035 +
1 .5 E s
81. The limiting value of depth of neutral axis depends on
a) Grade of steel reinforcement and grade of concrete
b) Grade of steel and depth of section
c) Grade of concrete alone
82. Shear reinforcement may be provided in the form of
a) Vertical stirrups
b) Inclined stirrups
c) Bent up bars along with stirrups
d) All of above
83. The pitch of 6 mm diameter transverse reinforcement in a RCC column of
cross section 300 mm X 500 mm, with 12mm diameter longitudinal
reinforcement is
a) 300 mm
b) 190 mm
c) 250 mm
d) 200 mm
84. The maximum permissible percentage of longitudinal reinforcement in RCC
column is
a) 3%
b) 6%
c) 9%
d) 10%
85. A slab of 150 mm thickness is provided with HYSD distribution bars. The
spacing of 8 mm bars is
a) 275 mm
b) 300 mm
c) 450 mm
d) 150 mm
86. The unit weight of undisturbed soil sample in wet condition is 18 kN/m3 ant
its water content was found to be 8%. The dry unit weight of soil is
a) 1.67 kN/m3
b) 16.7 kN/m3
c) 15 kN/m3
d) 14 kN/m3
87. For a sample of soil the liquid limit is 50% , the plastic limit is 30% and the
flow index is 27. The toughness index is
a) 0.67
b) 0.57
c) 0.90
88. The capillary rise in a soil with effective diameter D10 ,0.05 mm, void ratio
0.45, and empirical constant C as 0.5 is
a) 3.3 m
b) 2.2 m
c) 1.2 m
89. If the backfill of a retaining wall has a surcharge of 15 kN/m2, the active
pressure at the base of the retaining wall located 3 m below the backfill,
assuming an angle of repose of 300 is
a) 15 kN/m2
b) 45 kN/m2
c) 5 kN/m2
d) 22.5 kN/m2
90. The bearing capacity calculated using Terzaghi’s equation for a purely
cohesionless soil of unit weight 17 kN/m3for a strip footing of breadth 2m if
there is no surcharge, assuming Nf = 20 is
a) 300 kN/m2
b) 310 kN/m2
c) 320 kN/m2
d) 340 kN/m2
91. The time taken by a 6m thick doubly drained layer of clay to consolidate by
50% of ultimate settlement, if Cv=0.03 X 10-4/min. and time factor = 0.197
a) 947 days
b) 1894 days
c) 473 days
92. In a chain survey, before commencement of the survey the chain was found
to be exactly 30 m. But after measuring 1000 m it was found to be 100 mm too
long. The correct length of the line is
a) 996.68 m
b) 998.34 m
c) 1003.33 m
d) 1001.67 m
93. The whole circle bearing of N 650 12 ‘ E is
a) 1550 12’
b) 650 12’
c) 1140 48’
94. Three sides of a triangular area are 10 m, 15 m, and 12 m. The enclosed area is
a) 18.5 m2
b) 59.81 m2
c) 108 m2
d) 112.68 m2
95. The stadia readings with a horizontal sight on a vertical staff were 1.284 and
1.780. The additive and multiplying constants of the tacheometer respectively
are 0.40 and 100. The distance between the instrument and the staff station is
a) 10 m
b) 20 m
c) 30 m
96. Population of a certain town in 2001 was 60000. If annual rate of growth of
population is 2%, the projected population in 2031 will be
a) 208681
b) 108681
c) 106881
d) 108861
97. Volume of water tank required to treat 1.8 million liters of raw water per day
for a detention period of 5 hours is
a) 475 m3
b) 375 m3
c) 575 m3
d) 675 m3
98. Slow sand filters have a bacterial removal efficiency of
a) 98%-99%
b) 92%-93%
c) 89%-90%
d) 88%-89%
99. Sewage is made up of
a) 99.9% of water
b) 89.9% of water
c) 79.9% of water
d) 69.9% of water
100. A sewage has a 5 day BOD at 200 C 200 mg/l. The ultimate I stage BOD with
reaction constant of 0.20/day is
a) 444 mg/l
b) 333 mg/l
c) 222 mg/l
d) 111 mg/l
Mechanical (Section code 02)


(b) b) c) Zero d) one
(b) b) c) d)

(b) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)
(b) b)
c) d)
(b) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

(b) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

a) b) c) d)
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero
a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
11. A kinematic pair is a joint of

a. Two links which are fixed
b. Two links having same velocity
c. Two links having relative motion between them
d. None of the above
12. A bolt and nut form a

a. Turning pair b. Rolling pair
c. Screw pair d. Spherical pair
13. The function of an element is to

a. Transmit motion b. To serve as a support
c. To guide other elements d. All of the above
14. If ‘n’ links are connected at the same joint, the joint is equivalent to
a. (n-1) binary joints b. (n-2) binary joints
c. (n-3) binary joints d.(2n-1) binary joints
15. If a mechanism has n-links, then the number of instantaneous centres would
be equal to
n(n − 1)
a. n b
2
n
c. d. (n-1)
2
16. The Ackermann steering gear is the inversion of a

a. Slider crank chain b. Four bar chain
c. Double slider crank chain d. Crossed slider crank chain
17. In simple harmonic motion, acceleration is proportional to

a. Displacement b. Velocity
c. Square of displacement d. Square of velocity
18. The minimum period of a compound pendulum is equal to
h k
a. 2π b. 2π
g g
2k k
c. 2π d. 2π
g 2g
19. Kennedy’s theorem states that any three bodies moving relatively to each
other
a. Having three instantaneous centres and these these centres lie on a curved
line
b. Have three instantaneous centres and these three centres lie on a straight
line
c. Have only one instantaneous centre
d. Have two instantaneous centre and these two centres lie on a circle
20. In which of the following mechanism, the coriolis component of acceleration
exists
a. shaper mechanism b. Whitworth quick return
mechanism
c. Tangent cam mechanism d. All of the above
21. The gyroscopic acceleration depends upon

a. Instantaneous value of ω
b. The rate at which the axis of spin changes its speed
c. both a) and b)
d. none of the above
22. The product of moment of inertia and angular velocity is known as

a. Kinetic energy b. Angular momentum
c. angular torque d. none of the above
23. A machine is said to be self-locking if efficiency of the machine is

a. more than 50% b. equal to 50%
c. less than 50% d. equal to 100%
24. The equivalent co-efficient of friction for V-threads is

a)equal to actual coefficient of friction
b)less than actual co-efficient of friction
c) greater than actual co-efficient of friction
25. When a material is subjected to varying stresses, it fails under stresses

considerably lower than the ultimate stress. Such type of failure of material is
known as
a. creep b. fatigue
c.stress concentration d.overstrain
26. The factor of safety, for a component subjected to fatigue loading, is given by
a. ultimate stress/working stress
b. ultimate stress/endurance limit stress
c. endurance limit stress/working stress
27. Stress concentration factor is a function of
a. geometry of the machine component
b. material of the machine component
c. geometry and material of the component
28. For a solid shaft of diameter D, the polar modulus of section is equal to
π D3 π D3
a. b.
64 32
π D3 π D4
c. d.
16 64
29. If the diameter of a solid shaft is increased two times, the torque transmitted
will be
a. two times b. four times
c. eight times d. sixteen times
30. Fatigue strength

a. increased by cold working b. decreases by cold working
c. increases by hot working d. none of the above
31. The smallest permissible size for a dimension is known as

a. lower limit b. upper limit
c. basic size d. actual size
32. Basic shaft is one
a. whose lower deviation is zero b. whose upper deviation is zero
c. whose upper and lower deviation is zero d. none of the above
33. Which one of the following threads is not used for transmission of power ?
a. Square thread b. buttress thread
c. B.S.W.thread d. acme thread
34. Hook’s law holds good up to

a. proportional limit b. yield point
c. elastic limit d. plastic limit
35. The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called
a. Poisson’s ratio b. bulk modulus
c. modulus of rigidity d. modulus of elasticity
36. The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original
shape after removal of the load is known as
a. ductility b.plasticity
c. elasticity d.resilience
37. The modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus of rigidity c) are related by
mE mE
a. C= b. C=
3(m − 2) 2( m + 1)
3(m − 2) 2( m + 1)
c. C= d. C=
mE mE
38. If ‘L’ be the length and ‘D’ be the diameter of a cylindrical rod, then
volumetric strain of the rod is equal to
a. strain of length plus strain of diameter b. strain of diameter
c. strain of length + twice the strain of diameter d. strain of length
39. If a member is subjected to an axial tensile load , the plane normal to the axis
of Loading carries
a. minimum normal stress b. maximum normal stress
c. maximum shear stress d. none of the above
40. The maximum shear stress induced in a member which is subjected to an
axial load is equal to
a. maximum normal stress b. half of maximum normal stress
c. twice the maximum normal stress d. thrice the maximum normal
stress
41. Principal plane is a plane on which shear stress is
a. maximum b. minimum
c. average of maximum and minimum d. zero
42. A member of cross-sectional area 10 cm2 is subjected to an axial load of 10,000
kgf. A Plane makes an angle of 300 to the cross-section. The normal stress on
this plane will be
a. 1000 kgf b.750 kgf
c. 433 kgf d.0
43. In which of the following cases, Mohr’s circle is used to determine the stresses
on an Oblique plane
a. two unequal like principal stresses
b. two unequal unlike principal stresses
c. direct tensile stress in one plane accompanied by a shear stress
d. all of the above
44. If a beam is fixed at both its ends, it is called a
a. fixed beam b. built-in beam
c. encastered beam d. any one of the above
45. A cantilever of length (l) carries a point load(W) at the free end. The bending
moment diagram will be a
a. parabola with maximum ordinate at the centre of the beam
b. parabola with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end
c. triangle with maximum ordinate at the free end
d. triangle with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end
46. The bending moment on a section is maximum where shearing force is
a. minimum b. maximum
c. zero d. all of the above
47. No liquid can exists as liquid at

a. – 273 K b.Vacuum c. Zero pressure d. Space
48. Which of the following is not the intensive property ?

a. Heat b. Pressure c. Temperature d. Density
49. One Watt is equal to

a. 1 N/m b. 1 Nm/s c. 1 Nm/h d. 1 Nm
50. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the adiabatic index n is equal
to
a.1.1 b.1.25 c.1.4 d.1.0
51. Entropy change depends on
a. Heat Transfer b. Temperature change c. Mass Transfer d. state
52. A heat engine is supplied with heat rate of 30,000 J/s and gives output of 9
kW.
Thermal efficiency of engine will be
a. 30% b. 33% c. 40% d. 50%
53. Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum when the cut-off is
a. maximum b. Minimum c. Zero d. One
54. Second law of thermodynamics defines
a. Enthalpy b. Entropy c. Temperature d. Work
55. Expansion process in nozzles is
a. Isothermal b. Isobaric c. Isochoric d. Isentropic
56. ____ is used in the study of visco elasticity.
a. natural rubber b. synthetic rubber

c. butyl rubber d. neoprene rubber
57. ___________ is a type of composite materials

a. phenol b reinforced composite
c. methane d .ethane
58. ____________is an example of laminated composite
a .plywood b. phenol formaldehyde

c. methane d. ethane
59. ____________ are very thin filaments, hair like single crystals of about 10^-
4cm diameter.
a. spheres b. cubes
c. whiskers d. ethane
60. ___________ is an agglomerated structure.
a .concrete b. sand
c. H2O d. ethane
61. The match pattern is used in

a. green sand moulding, b. bench moulding,
c. pit moulding, d. machine moulding
62. In centrifugal casting cores are made of

a. steel , b. cast iron, c. hard sand, d. none of above
63. The pouring temperature for grey cast iron is
a. 1000, b. 1250, c. 1400, d. 1550
64. Spinning operation is carried out on
a. hydraulic press, b. mechanical press. C. lathe. D. milling machine
65. Weld spatter refers to
a. Welding electrode
b. Flux
c. Weld Defect
d. Filler material
66. carburizing flame is used to weld metals like
a. steel
b. copper and brass
c. Aluminum, stainless steel, Zinc die casting, Nickel, Monel etc.
d. None of above
67. The commonly used flux for brazing is
a. Resin
b. Borax
c. Soft silver
d. Soft iron
68. fluxes are used in welding in order to protect the molten metal and the
surfaces to be jointed from
a. oxidation
b. carburizing
c. dirt
d. distortion and warping
69. carburizing flame has

a. 1 zone
b. 2 zones
c. 3 zones
d. no zone
70. To remove maximum material per minute with the same tool life
a. Increase depth of cut
b. Increase feed rate
c. Decrease cutting speed
d. Increase cutting speed
71. arc stability is better with
a. AC welding
b. DC Welding
c. Both AC and DC Welding
d. Rectified supply
72. Arc length in arc welding should be equal to

a. Half the diameter of electrode rod
b. Rod diameter
c. Twice the rod diameter
d. 2.5 times the rod diameter
73. Seam welding is

a. Multi spot welding process
b. Continuous spot welding process
c. Used for welding cylindrical objects
74. Three jaw chuck is a

a. Independent chuck
b. Self centering chuck
c. Chuck for holding irregular shaped objects
75. Axis of the cutter rotation is parallel in
a. Peripheral milling
b. Face milling
c. Vertical milling
d. Horizontal milling
76. Cutter machines the side of the work piece in
a. Slab milling
b. Slot milling
c. Side milling
d. Straddle milling
77. Other name for Down milling is
a. Climb milling
b. Jump milling
c. Top milling
78. In Bed type milling machine, the word ‘Duplex’ means
a. Two worktables
b. Two columns
c. Two jobs
d. Two spindles
79. G 40 refers to _______________
a. Rapid positioning of tool

b. dwell
c. Co ordinates between xyz
d. Interpolation cycle
80. G 90 refer to _____________
a. Programming in incremental coordinates

b. Input values
c. Programming in absolute coordinates
d. Interpolation cycle
81. M 05 refers to ____________
a. Program start
b. Program stop
c. Coolant ON
d. Coolant OFF
82. M 30 refers to ____________

a. Rapid positioning of tool
b. machine dwell
c. machine off
d. Machine ON
83. Piston rings are usually made of

a. Cast iron b. aluminum c. phosphor bronze d. carbon steel
84. Knock in the CI Engine is charecterised by

a. sudden auto ignition of the mixture at the very beginning of the
combustion process.
b. sudden auto ignition of the mixture at the end of the combustion period
c. knock does not occur in diesel engines
d. none of the statements are correct
85. The highest flame speed is obtained with an air fuel ratio
a. somewhat richer than chemically correct mixture
b. stoichiometric
c. very rich
d. lean
86. The quantity of heat lost to the cooling water in an IC Engine is about
a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 70%
87. In a diesel engine higher combustion chamber wall temperature will

a. reduce knocking tendency b. increase knocking tendency
c. reduce exhaust temperature d. have no influence on combustion
process
88. Break even point is the ratio of fixed cost to

a. unit price
b. unit variable cost
c. unit price-unit variable cost
89. Difference of actual sales and break even point is called

a. margin of safety
b.price cost margin
c. contribution
90. Break even point increases with

a. increase in fixed cost
b. increase in variable cost
c. decrease in unit cost production
d. All the above
91. Overhead rate is the ratio of total overhead charges to
a. direct labour
b. direct material
c. direct labour+direct material
92. Seam less tubes in mass production are done by

a. Rolling
b. Spinning
c. Welding
d. Extrusion
93. Strech forming is a process of

a. Cold rolling
b. Forging
c. Cold drawing
d. Spinning
94. Compression molding is ideal for

a. Plastics
b. Thermosetting plastics
c. Thermo plastics
d. Non ferrous materials
95. Injection molding is ideal for

a. Thermosetting plastics
b. Thermo plastics
c. Non ferrous materials
d. None of above
96. In combination dies
a. Two or more cutting operations can be performed simultaneously
b. Cutting and formation operations are combined and carried out in single
operation
c. Work piece moves from one station to another with separate operation
done in each station
d. All of the above
97. FMS mainly helps in

a. providing manufacturing flexibility for switch over new products
b. introduction of computers in manufacturing
c. reduction in setup time
d .providing flexibility in layout
98. A compact estimate about the amount of materials handling between various
work stations is obtained from
a. travel chart
b. gnat chart
c. string diagram
d. bin chart
99. Use of modern control technology in automation systems

a. reduces cost
b. increases yield
c. improves reliability
d. all of the above
100. Numeric control
a. applies only to milling machines
b. is a method for producing exact no.of parts per hour
c. is a method of controlling by means of a set of instructions
d. all of the above
Electrical (Section code 03)


(c) b) c) Zero d) one
(c) b) c) d)

(c) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)
(c) b)
c) d)
(c) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

(c) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

a) b) c) d)
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero
a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
11. Which of the following parameters is not specified for digital IC’s?
a) gate dissipation b) propagation delay

c) Noise margin d) band – width
12. Frequency of the square wave in Hz generated by an astable multivibrator is

given by
a) 1/0.69 RC b) 1/1.39 RC c) 0.69 / RC d) 1.38 / RC
13. The astable multivibrator has
a) two stable states b) one stable, one quasi stable
c) two quasi-stable states d) none of these
14. An op-amp can amplify only
a) dc signals b) ac signals c) both ac & dc signals d) none of the above
15. A circuit in which the output voltage waveform is the integral of the input
voltage waveform
a) integrator b) differentiator c) logarithmic amplifier
d) comparator
16. PUSH and POP operation can be done for
a) 8 bit registers b) 16 bit register pair alone
c) PSW alone d) both b) and c)
17. ‘RST n’ refers to
a) Reset operations b) restart operations
c) Software interrupts d) hardware interrupt
18. RIM and SIM deals with
a) masking of interrupts b) pending of interrupts
c) serial data communication d) all the above

19. The microprocessor differentiates the address and data using
a) AD0 - AD7 b) ALE c) R D ,W R d)

all the above
20. The opcode fetch machine cycle is similar to
a) Memory read b) memory write c) I/O read d) I/O write
21. The following signals decides the machine cycle
a) Io/ M b) S0,S1 alone c) ALE d) both a) and b)
22. When the microprocessor checks the status bit associated with the I/O
devices for data transfer, then it is called.
a) hardware controlled I/O b) program controlled I/O
c) I/O controlled I/O d) I/O controlled by hardware

signals
23. USART is
a) 8250 b) 8251 c) 8253 d) 8254
24. The number of interrupts in 8051 is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
25. How many address lines are needed to address each memory location is 4096
x 4 memory chip?
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 16
26. A four bit number is given as 1001. Its one’s complement is
a) 1001 b) 1110 c) 0110 d) 0111

27. Exclusive OR followed by an inverter has the property
a) output high for input word of even parity
b) output high for input word of odd parity
c) output is 1’s complement of input word
d) output is 2’s complement of input word
28. The value 25 in octal system is
a) 40 b) 20 c) 400 d) 200
29. An AND gate is a
a) sequential circuit b) combinational circuit
c) memory circuit d) relaxation circuit
30. The gates required to build an half adder are
a) EX-OR and NOR gate b) EX-OR and OR gate
c) EX.-OR and AND gate d) four NAND gates
25
31. The second order system defined by is given a step input. The
( s + 5s + 25 )
2
time taken for the output to settle within ± 2% of input is
a) 1.2s b) 1.6s c) 2s d) 2s
32. The transfer function of a transportation lag is e-sT . If the lag is small
compared with the time constants of the system, it can be approximated best
by
1
a) sT b) 1+sT c) 1-sT d)
1 + sT
K
33. G(s) = . This system is operated in closed-loop with unity feedback.
s (1 + sT )
The closed-loop system is
a) Stable b) unstable c) marginally stable d) conditionally stable

34. If stability error for step input and speed of response be the criteria for design,
what controller would you recommend?
a) P controller b) PD controller c) PI controller d) PID

controller
35. The transfer function C/R of the block diagram given below is
G1G 2 G 3 G2 G1G 2 GG G
a) b) G1G 3 + c) + G3 d) 1 2 3
1 + G1G 2 G 3 H 1 1 + G2 H 1 1 + G1G 2 H 1 1 + G2 H 1
36. The frequency at which the Nyquist diagram crosses the negative real axis is
known as
a) gain crossover frequency b) phase crossover frequency
c) damping frequency d) natural frequency
37. The steady state error of a stable, type 0 unity feedback system for a unit step
function is
1 1
a) 0 b) c) ∞ d)
1 + Kp Kp
38. A system whose present output depends only on present and past inputs is
called
a) Non-causal system b) causal system
c) FIR system d) IIR systems
39. Z-transform of unit impulse signal is
1 1
a) b) c) 1 d) -1
1 − z −1 1 + z −1
40. Direct DFT requires -------------- real additions
a) 4N (N-1) b) 4N c) N2 d) N (N-1)
41. In the measurement of power by two wattmeter method, when the readings
of the two watt meters are equal and opposite, it can be concluded that
a) power factor is zero b) power factor is 0.5 leading
c) power factor is unity d) power factor is 0.5 lagging
42. A double beam oscilloscope has
a) two screens b) two electron guns
c) two different phosphor coatings d) one waveform divided into two

parts
43. The function of shunt in an ammeter is to
a) bypass the current b) increase the sensitivity of the

ammeter
c) increase the resistance of ammeter d) none of the above
44. Megger is used to measure
a) breakdown voltage of insulation b) earth resistance
c) insulation resistance d) none of the above
45. A digital voltmeter uses an A/D converter which needs a start pulse, uses an
analog comparator and has relatively fixed conversion time independent of
the applied voltage. The A/D converter is
a) successive approximation converter b) digital approximation converter
c) dual slope approximation converter d) all the above

46. In dc chopper, for periodic time T, the output voltage can be controlled by
PWM by varying
a) T, keeping TON constant b) TON, keeping T constant
c) T, keeping TOFF constant d) TOFF , keeping T constant
47. For a type A chopper, Vs is the source voltage, R is the load resistance and α
is the duty cycle. Average output voltage of this chopper
a) α Vs b) (1-α) Vs c) Vs | α d) Vs / (1- α)
48. Inverter converts
a) ac voltage into dc voltage b) dc voltage into ac voltage
c) ac voltage of supply frequency into an ac voltage of desired frequency
d) boosts the voltages
49. Parallel inverter employs---------------
a) Natural commutation b) Forced commutation
c) Auxillary current commutationd) Complementary voltage commutation
50. As compared to power MOSFET, a BJT has
a) lower switching losses but higher conduction loss
b) higher switching losses and higher conduction loss
c) higher switching losses but lower conduction loss
d) lower switching losses and lower conduction loss
51. Phase difference between the two waveforms can be compared only when
they have same
a) Frequency b) peak valuec) rms. value d) average value
52. In a series RLC circuit R = 10 Ω, L=0.01H and C=0.1µF determine Q=?
a) 31.62 b) 41.62 c) 51.62 d) 61.62
53. A Hurwitz polynomial has

a) zeros only in the left half of the s-plane
b) poles only in the left half of the s-plane
c) zeros anywhere in the s-plane d) poles on the jω axis only
54. The system described by the equation F(s) = s4+2s3+3s 2+6s+K, according to
Routh Hurwitz’s criteria, is
a) unstable for all values of K b) stable if K ≥ 0
c) stable if K < 0 d) stable for all values of K
55. The transfer function of an electrical low-pass RC network is
sRC 1 RC s
a) b) c) d)
1 + sRC 1 + sRC 1 + sRC 1 + sRC
56. Gauss law is given by
ρ
a) ∇ 2 V = -
σ
b) ∇ 2 V = 0 c) ∫∫
S
D . ds = Q
57. Ampere’s circuital law, in its integral form, is given by
a) ∫ H .d l = I b) ∫ H d l = I
c) ∫ H . ds = I d) none of the above
58. Energy density in magnetic fields is given by the equation
1 1 1
a) BxH b) B.H c) H xB d) none of the above
2 2 2
59. Which of the following voltage is not very common
a) 11KV b) 22KV c) 6.6KV d) 177KV
60. PV bus should be converted to PQ bus while doing power flow analysis if
a) number of PV buses is more than the number of PQ buses

b) Q limit is violated
c) number of slack bus is less compare to PV bus
61. The load flow equations for FDPF method is
a) [ ∆p / |∆ V|] = [B1 ] [∆ s] b) [∆p / |∆ V|] = [B1 ] x [∆ s]
c) [∆Q / |∆ V|] = [B1 ] [∆ s] d) none of the above
62. The number of iterations is constant for
a) G.S method b) N-R method c) both a& b d) none of the

above
63. LG fault is more severe than 3L fault
a) always b) never c) if the generator neutrals is solidly grounded
d) if the neutral is left un connected
64. The back up relays
a) Supplementing the primary relays
b) Operating time may be more than primary relay
c) act as primary relays when primary relays are taken off for maintenance
d) all the above
65. In the inverse time current relays
a) The operating time reduces as the actuating quantity increases in

magnitude
b) The operating time increases as the actuating quantity increases in

magnitude
c) life time reduces as the operating current value increases in magnitude
d) all the above
66. For the operation of directional over current relay
a) Directional unit alone should be operated
b) Over current unit alone should be operated

c) both Directional and o/c units should operate
67. Which system needs lightning arrestor of least voltage rating?
a) Solid ground neutral system b) insulated neutral system
c) Resistance grounded neutral system d) reactance grounded neutral

system
68. The phenomenon of rise in voltage at the receiving end of the open-circuited
or lightly loaded line is called the
a) See beck effect b) ferranti effect c) proximity effect d) skin effect
69. Wein bridge oscillator is most often used whenever
a) wide range of high purity sine waves is to be generated
b) high feedback ratio is needed
c) square output waves are required
d) extremely high resonant frequencies are required.
70. CE amplifier is characteried by
a) low voltage gain b) single phase reversal
c) moderate power gain d) very high output impedance
71. In a class –A amp, induction extends over 360o because Q-point is
a) located on load line b) located near saturation point
c) centered on load line d) located at or near cut-off
72. A Diac is equivalent a
a) pair of SCR’s b) pair of 4 layer SCRs
c) diode & two resistors d) triac with two gate

73. Which of the following statement is wrong? In a multivibrator
a) Output is available continuously b) feedback between two stages is

100%
c) positive Feedback is employed d) when one Transfer in on, the other is OFF
74. Which of the following approximations is often used in electronic circuits?
a) Ic ≅ IE b) IB ≅ IE c) IB ≅ IC d) IE ≅ IB + Ic
75. Which stage of a dc power supply uses a zener as the main component?
a) rectifier b) voltage divider c) regulator d) filter
76. Current flow in a semiconductor depends on the phenomenon of
a) drift b) diffusion c) recombination d) all the above
77. The input impedance h11 of a network with output shorted is given by the
ratio
a) v1 / i1 b) v1 / v2 c) i2 / i1 d) i2 / v 2
78. The main use of a emitter follower is as
a) power amplifier b) impedance matching device
c) low input impedance circuit d) follower of base signal
79. What will happen if the back e.m.f of a DC motor vanishes suddenly?
a) the motor will stop b) the motor will continue to run
c) the armature will burn d) the motor will run noisy
80. Synchronous motor develops maximum power when load angle is
a) 45o b) 60 o c) 90 o d) 120 o
81. If air gap of an induction motor is increased, its
a) power factor will increase b) magnetising current will

decrease
c) magnetising current will increase d) power factor will decrease
82. If stator voltage of a squirrel cage induction motor is reduced to one-half of its
normal value, its starting current is reduced to ------------- percent of its full
voltage value.
a) 75 b) 60 c) 50 d) 15
83. In an induction motor, the rotor reactance per phase is proportional to
a) s b) 1/s c) 1/s2 d) s2
84. In a dc machine, the interpole winding is connected
a) in series with the field winding
b) in parallel with the field winding
c) in series with the armature winding
d) in parallel with the armature winding
85. A 3-phase, 6 pole induction motor has 54 stator slots and 48 rotor slots. The
motor will have a tendency of
a) cogging b) crawling c) noisy operation
d) developing cusps in torque-speed characteristics.
86. The test(s) needed to be performed to determine the leakage reactance of a

transformer are
a) OC b) SC c) OC and SCd) Test by an impedance bridge
87. A brake test on DC motors is usually restricted to
a) small horse power motors b) variable speed motor

c) high speed motors d) open frame type motor
88. Hunting in a synchronous motor can not be due to
a) variable supply voltage b) variable frequency
c) variable load d) windage friction
89. The auto – starters can be used to start cage induction motor of the following
type
a) star connected only b) delta connected only
c) both a) & b) d) none of the above
90. The power drawn by the primary winding of a transformer on no-load is

predominantly absorbed by
a) copper loss b) core loss
c) copper loss + core loss d) eddy current
91. The transfer function of a first order LPF is
AoWh AoY1Y2
a) b)
S + wh S
Ao ( S 2 + Wo 2 ) AoWh 2
c) d)
( S + wh) S 2 + α Wos + wh 2
92. If both inputs of an op amp are at the same potential V, the output should be
a) +V b) –V c) depends on factor Av d) zero
93. Storage time in transistors occurs when it is operating in
a) active region b) cut-off region
c) saturation region d) active or saturation region

94. K – map method of simplification can only be applied when the given
function is in
a) sum of product form b) product of sum form
c) canonical form d) can be applied to all form
95. The advantage of self – correcting code is that
a) it is a weighted code b) it has even parity
c) it is easy to decode electronically d) all of these
96. If is a BJT, IB = 100µA & IC =10µA, in what range does the value of its β lie?
a) 0.1 to 1.0 b) 1.01 to 10 c) 10.1 to 100 d) 100.1 to 1000
97. The leakage current of a PN diode is caused by
a) heat energy b) chemical energy
c) barrier potential d) majority carriers
98. The advantage of using negative FB in an amplifier is that its gain can be
made practically independent of
a) temperature changes b) age of components
c) frequency d) all of the above
99. The h parameters of a transistor depend on it
a) configuration b) operating point
c) temp d) all of the above
100. In a properly connected BJT, an increase in base current causes increase in
a) Ic only b) IE only c) both Ic & IE d) leakage circuit

Electronics (Section code 04)


(d) b) c) Zero d) one
(d) b) c) d)

(d) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)
(d) b)
c) d)
(d) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

(d) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

a) b) c) d)
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero
a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
11. The nodal analysis is primarily based on the application of
a) KVL b) KCL
c) Ohm’s law d) both b) and c) are correct
12. Thevenin resistance of the circuit shown below across its terminals A and B is
_______ ohm
a) 6Ω b) 3Ω c) 9Ω d) 2Ω
13. The P.F. of an R-C circuit is

a) zero b) between zero and 1.0
c) 1.0 d) between zero and – 1.0.
14. For star-to-delta transformation which of the following statement is true?
R 2 R3 R2 R3
a) R A = R b) RA = R1 + R2 + R1 c) RA = RB = RC d) None
1 3
of these
15. The current following through the load RL in the circuit given below is.
a) 0.2 A. b) 0.25 A c) 0.5 A d) 1.0 A
16. The current flowing in the circuit shown below is i(t) = 2 sin 500 t A. The
applied voltage will be
a) 20 sin 500 t V. b) 20 cos 500 tV
c) 28.28 sin (500 t + 45o )V d) 30.5 cos (500 t + 30 o )V
17. An LC-driving point impedance function is
d) 2(s + 1)
s3 + s 2 + s +1
b) s + 2 s + s + 1 s4 +1
4 2 2
a) c)
s2 + 2s + 5 s2 + 5 s3 + 2 s
18. The Fourier series for the following waveform is given by
a) f (? t) = 4A/p2 {sin ? t – 1/9 sin 3? t + ……}

b) f (? t) = 8A/p2 {sin ? t – 1/9 sin 3? t + ……}
c) f (? t) = 4A/p2 {sin 2? t – 1/9 sin 4?t + ……}
d) f (? t) = 4A/p2 {1/3 sin 3? t – 1/9 sin 9? t + …}
19. What is the driving-point impedance at port one with port two open circuited
for the figure shown?
a) 4 Ω b) 5 Ω c) 3 Ω d) 6 Ω
20. Maxwell’s divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by

a) ∇ x B = 0 b) ∇.B = 0 c) ∇XB = ρ d) ∇.B = ρ .
→ →
21. If the vectors A and B are conservative then
→ → → →
a) Ax B is solenoidal b) Ax B is conservative
→ → → →
c) A + B is solenoidal d) A − B is
solendoidal
22. A straight current-carrying conductor and two

conducting loops A and B are shown in the
given figure. If the current in the straight wire is
decreasing, then the induced currents in the two loops A and B will be
a) clockwise in both A and B
b) anticlockwise in both A and B
c) anticlockwise in B and clockwise in B
d) clockwise in A and Anticlockwise in B.
23. A wire of length L m carrying I ampere is bent in the form of a circle. Its
magnetic moment will be
a) IL/4p b) IL2/4 p c) I2L2/4p d) LI2 /4p
24. A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field then
a) torque is formed b) emf is induced
c) Both a) and b) are correct d) None of these
25. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

a) charge b) mass c) momentum d) energy
26. For any medium, electric flux density D is related to electric intensity E by the
equation
a) D = e0E b) D = e0 er E c) D = E/ e0 er d) D = e0
E/ er
27. The space surrounding a charge body, within which the influence of its
charge extends is called
a) coulombs b) electric field c) electric intensity d) lines of force.
28. The force of attraction or repulsion between two charges q1 and q2 at a
distance d metres apart is proportional to the product of charges q1 and q2
and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the two
charges.” This statement is attributed to
a) Lenz’s Law b) Faraday’s Law c) Maxwell’s Law d)
Coulomb’s Law
29. Semiconductor materials have ……….. bonds.

a) ionic b) convalent c) mutual d) metallic
30. Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on the phenomenon of

a) collision b) doping c) ionization d)
recombination.
31. As compared to a LED, and LCD has the distinct advantage of

a) extremely low power requirement b) providing a silver displays
c) being extremely thin c) giving two types of

displays.
32. The value of total collector current in a CB circuit is

a) I C = aIE b) Ic = a IE + ICO c) IC = a IE - ICO d) IC = ß IE
33. A unjunction transistor has

a) anode, cathode and a gate b) two bases and one emitter
c) two anodes and one gate d) anode, cathode and two gates.
34. The major component of a MOS IC is a/an

a) FET b) MOSFET c) BJT d) SCR
35. For a half-wave controlled rectifier, the average value of output dc voltage is
given by
Vm 2Vm
a) Vdc = (1 − cosθ1 ) b) Vdc = (1 + cosθ1 )
2π π
Vm Vm
c) Vdc = (cosθ1 − 1) d) Vdc = (cos θ1 + 1)
π 2π
36. The PIV of a half-wave rectifier circuit with a shunt capacitor filter is
a) 2 Vsm b) Vsm c) Vsm/2 d) 2 Vsm
37. CE amplifier is characteristed by

a) low voltage gain b) moderate power gain
c) signal phase reversal d) very high output impedance.
38. An electronic oscillator is

a) just like an alternator b) nothing but an amplifier
c) an amplifier with feedback d) a converter of dc to ac energy.
39. If Barkhausen criterion is not fulfilled by an oscillator circuit, it will

a) stop oscillating b) produce damped wave continuously
c) become an amplifier d) produce high-frequency whistles.
40. In a astable multi vibrator

a) ß = 1 b) ßA = 1 c) ß > 1 d) ß < 1
41. A practical current source consists of

a) an ideal current source in series with an impedance
b) an ideal current source in parallel with an impedance
c) Both a) and b) are correct
d) None of these.
42. The transient response occurs only in
a) resistive circuits b) inductive circuits
c) capacitive circuits d) Both b) and c) are correct
43. The electron and hole concentration in an N-type semiconductor is 1016/cm2

and 1016/cm2 . If the mobilities of electrons and holes are 400 and 600 cm2/C-
sec respectively, the conductivity of the material approximately is
a) 1032 x e b) 1019 x e c) 4 x 1018 x e d) None of these
44. Three identical tuned amplifiers, each of bandwidth 100 kHz, are connected in
cascade. Neglecting any loading effect, the overall bandwidth will be about
a) 51 kHz b) 71 kHz c) 100 kHz d) 173 kHz
45. Electronics is the branch of engineering which deals with flow of electrons
through
a) Semiconductor b) gas c) vaccum d) All of these.
46. The circuit shown in the figure below represents a feedback amplifier. For this
circuit, the current and voltage gains would respectively be
a) hfe , hfe RL/hie b) RF /RL , hfe RL/hie
c) hfe , RL/RF d) RF/RL , RL/RF
47. The chief reason why digital computers use complemental subtraction is that
it
a) simplifies their circuitry b) is a very simple process
c) can handle negative numbers easily d) avoids direct subtraction.
48. When we deorganize AB , we get

a) AB b) ABA + B c) A + B d) A B
49. When an input electrical signal A = 10100 is applied to a NOT gate, its output
signal is
a) 01011 b) 10101 c) 10100 d) 00101
50. In the following figures below, F represents
a) NAND of x, y b) NOR of x, y
c) Half-adder sum of x, y d) Half-adder carry of x, y
51. Which of the following logic families has the maximum functional capacity?
a) SSI b) MSI c) LSI d) VLSI
52. The ASCII

a) is a subset of 8-bit EBCDIC
b) is used only in Western counties
c) is version II of the ASC standard
d) has 128 characters, including 32 control characters.
53. Which of the following represent Commutative law, Associative law, and
Distributive law?
I A. (B. C) = (A. B). C II A. (B+C) = A.B + A.C II
A+B = B+A
a) I, III, and II, respectively b) II, I, and III, respectively
c) III, II and I, respectively d) III, I, and II, respectively.
54. What is the form of the Boolean expression AB+BC= Y?

a) Product-of-sums. b) Sum-of-products.c) Karanaugh map. D) Matrix.
55. The number of flip-flops required in a module N counter is

a) log2 (N) + 1 b) [log2 (N + 1)] c) [log2 (N)] d)
log2 (N – 1).
56. Mnemonic symbols are used to

a) denote address b) employ hamming code
c) denote errors d) assist human memory
57. In 8085, interrupts except TRAP are disabled (check the incorrect statement)
by
a) a DI instruction b) a system reset
c) acknowledgement of a previous in terrupt d) None of these
58. A microcomputer is a minimum combination of

a) µ P and clock. b) µ P clock, ROMs.
c) µ P, clock, RAMs and ROMs. d) µ P, clock, RAM, ROM, PIA
and ACIA
59. The physical part or electronic circuitry of a computer system is called

a) hardware b) software c) microprocessor d) peripheral
device
60. IC 8253 programmable interval timers are programmed with

a) Binary data only b) BCD data only
c) Binary and BCD data both d) None of these.
61. Block or buffer caches are used to

a) improve disk performance
b) handle interrupts
c) increase the capacity of main memory
d) speed up main memory read operation.
62. The 8085 A instruction that takes maximum number of machine cycles for
execution is
a) STA Addr b) MVI, data c) OUT Port d) CALL Addr.
63. Which of the following system is digital?

a) PPM b) PFM c) PWM d) PCM
64. Which of the following flag conditions are not available in 8085 processor?
a) Zero flag b) Parity flag
c) Overflow flag d) Auxiliary carry flag.
65. MOSFET uses the electric field of

a) gate capacitance to control the channel current
b) barrier potential of p-n junction to control the channel current
c) both A and B
d) None of these
66. A 555 timer can be used as
a) an astable multivibrator only
b) a monostable multivibrator only
c) a frequency divider only
d) an astable multivibrator or a monostable multivibrator or a frequency
divider
67. Which of the following statements is not true for an ideal current-to-voltage
transducer?
a) Zero input impedance
b) Infinite input impedance.
c) Zero output impedance.
d) A fixed relation between input current and output voltage
68. The overall voltage gain of the amplifier shown below is
a) 50 b) 100 c) 1,000 d) 10,000.
69. In an oscillator, the feedback signal is

a) in phase with the input signal. b) in phase with the output signal
c) out of phase with input signal. d) out of phase with the output
signal
70. The number of diodes required in a bridge rectifier circuit is

a) one b) two c) three d) four
71. The circuit shown below is an/a
a) integrator b) low- pass filter
c) high-pass filter d) band-pass filter
72. The function of bleeder resistance in filter circuits is

a) to maintain minimum current necessary for optimum inductor filter
operation.
b) to work as voltage divider in order to provide variable output from the
supply.
c) To provide discharge path to capacitors so that output becomes zero when
the circuit has been denergised
d) All of these.
73. The major advantage of a bridge rectifier is that
a) no centre-tap transformer is required.
b) the required peak inverse voltage of each diode is double of that for a full-
wave rectifier.
c) peak inverse voltage of each diode is half of that for a full-wave rectifier
d) the output is more smooth.
74. which one of the following is the correct Fourier transform of the unit step
signal
u(t) = 1 for t > 0
= 0 for t < 0
a) p δ (?) b) 1 / j? c) 1/j ? + pδ(?) d) 1/? + 2pδ (? )
75. Let F (?) b e the Fourier transform of a function f(t), then F(0) is
∞ ∞ 2 ∞ 2
a) ∫ f (t )dt
−∞
b) ∫
−∞
f (t ) dt c) ∫ tf (t )
−∞
dt d)
∫ tf (t )dt
−∞
76. The auto correlation of a wide-sense stationary random process is given by e-

2| τ| . The peak value of the spectral density is
a) 2 b) 1 c) e -1/2 d) e
77. Laplace transform of sin (? t +a) is

ω  s 
a) 2 α 2 exp  s  2 b) 2
exp  
s +a  αω  s +ω  αω 
α  s  ω  s 
exp   exp  
s +a  αω  s +a  αω 
2
2 2
2
c) d)
78. The function f(t) shown in the given figure will have Lab place transform as
a) 1 1 − s 1 − 2s
− e − 2e
s2 s s
1
(1 − e − s − s − e −2 s )
s 2
b)
1
(1 − e − s − s − e −2 s )
s
c)
1
(1 − e − s − se −2 s )
d) s 2
2s + 5
79. Inverse Laplace transform of the function
s + 5s + 6
2
a) 2 exp (-2.5t) cosh 0.5 t b) exp (- 2t) – exp (-3t)
c) 2 exp (-2.5t) sinh 0.5 t d) 2 exp (-2.5 t) cos 0.5 t
80. Consider the following statements regarding a linear discrete-time system

z2 +1
H ( z) =
( z + 0.5)( z − 0.5)
1. The system is stable.

2. The initial value h(0) of the impulse response is -4.
3. The steady-state output is zero for a sinusoidal discrete-time input of
frequency equal to one-fourth the sampling frequency.
Which of these statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 3

81. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
List I List II
a) f (t ) = − f ( −t 0 ) 1. Exponential form of Fourier series
b) ∞ 2. Fourier transform
∑ C n e mω t
n =−∞
0
1
c) 3. Convolution integral
∫ f (t)e
− jwt
dt
−∞
d) 1 4. z – transform
∫ f (τ) f (t −τ)dτ
1 2
0 5. Odd function wave symmetry
Codes: A B C D
a) 5 1 2 3
b 2 1 5 3
c) 5 4 2 1
d) 4 5 1 2
82. A Voltage signal v (t) has the following Fourier transform:

e − jωd for | ω |< 1
V ( jω) = 
0 for | ω |> 1
The energy that would be dissipated in a 1 Ω resistor fed from v(t) is
2 2 e −2 d
a) Joules b) Joules
π π
1 1
c) Joules d) Joules
π 2π
83.
Consider the compound system shown in the above figure. Its output is equal to
input with a delay of two units. If the transfer function of the first system is given
z − 0 .5
by H1(z) = , then the transfer function of the second system would be
z − 0 .8
z −2 − 0.2 z −3 z −2 − 0.8 z −3
a) H2(z) = b) H2(z) =
1 − 0.4 z −1 1 − 0.5 z −1
z −1 − 0.2 z −3 z −2 − 0.8 z −3
c) H2(z) = d) H2(z) =
1 − 0.4 z −1 1 + 0.5 z −1
84. Two identical first-order systems have been cascaded non-interactively. The
unit step response of the systems will be.
a) overdamped b) underdamped
c) undamped d) critically damped
85. Which one of the following is the response y(t) of a causal LTI system
described by
( s + 1)
H(s) = for a given input x(t) = e -t u(t)?
s + 2s + 2
2
a) y(t) = e-t sintu(t) b) y(t) = e-(t – 1) sin (t -1) u (t – 1)
c) y(t) = sin (t – 1) u (t – 1) d) y(t) = e-t cost u(t)
86. The poles of a digital filter with linear phase response can lie
a) only at z = 0 b) only on the unit circle
c) only inside the unit circle but not at z = 0 d) on the left side of Real (z)
=0 line
87. Demodulation
a) is performed at the transmitting station b) removes side-bands
c) rectifies modulated signal d) is opposite of modulation.
88. Modern FM receivers use de-emphasis circuit for

a) reducing high frequency noise
b) reducing the amplitude of high frequencies in the audio signal
c) increasing the amplitude of higher modulating frequencies
d) making demodulation easy.
89. A telephone system is
a) Point-to-multipoint system b) Local area network
c) Switched system d) Point-to-point system.
90. Signal-to-quantization noise ratio in A-law companding for voice PCM

a) remains essentially unchanged irrespective of talkers
b) changes with talkers arbitrarily
c) increases linearly with the voice level of the talker
d) cannot be determined.
91. which one is not a potential application of fiber optics?

a) Sensor b) Power transmission.
c) Image transmission d) Signal transmission
92. Most audio communication utilizes frequencies in the range

a) 100 Hz – 1 kHz b) 100 Hz – 3 kHz
c) 100 Hz – 30 kHz d) None of these.
93. For periodic time function, the frequency spectrum is

a) periodic b) continuous c) discrete d) None
of these.
94. The advantage of waveguides over coaxial line is that

a) these are simpler to manufacture b) power losses are lower
c) higher operating frequencies are possible d) All of these.
95. Strip-line is analogous to

a) flattened co-axial line b) parallel-wire line
c) wave guide d) None of these.
96. The VSB signal is produced from the DSB signal by employing
a) simpler filters b) balance modulator
c) ring modulator d) phase-shift circuit
97. The SSB demodulator is known as

a) balance modulation b) product demodulation
c) amplitude discrimination d) None of these.
98. The highest harmonic generated in human voice is

a) 1 kHz b) 3 KHz c) 5 KHz d) 10 KHz
99. For transmission of normal speech signal, the PCM channel needs a
bandwidth of
a) 64 kHz b) 8 kHz c) 4 kHz d) None
of these.
100. The height of the transmitting antenna is 225 m above ground level. Its radio
horizon will be
a) 60 km b) 76 km c) 120 km d) 225 km.
Instrumentation (Section code 05)


(e) b) c) Zero d) one
(e) b) c) d)

(e) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)
(e) b)
c) d)
(e) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

(e) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

a) b) c) d)
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero
a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
11. The chemical reaction involved in epitaxial growth takes place at a

temperature of about
a)500° C b)1000° C c) 1200° C d) 1500° C
12. In a CE amplifier, thermal runaway is unconditionally avoided if
a)VCE = VCC /2 b)VCE < VCC /2 c) VCE > VCC /2 d) VCE = 0
13. Transistor amplifier configuration which simultaneously provides high

current gain and high voltage gain is
a)CB configuration b)CE configuration c)CCconfiguration b)All of the

above
14. The diffusion current is proportional to
a)applied electric field
b)concentration gradient of charge carrier
c) square of the applied electric field
d)None of the above
15. The dynamic resistance ‘r’ of a diode varies as
a) 1/I b)1/ I2 c) I d) I2
16. The concentration of minority carrier at JC in the base region of a PNP

transistor operating in the active region is
a)zero b) same as at JC c) same as at JE d)same as at JB
17. The epitaxial growth may be of
a) n type only b) p type only c) either type d) none of the above
18. LED uses
a)radiative combination b)formation of photons
c)energy transfer from one electron to another d)formation of

electrons
19. In Tunnel diode, the width of the depletion layer is of the order of
a)100 A° b) 0.1 micron c)1 micron d) 2 micron

20. In operational amplifiers, high input impedance _______
a. Reduces loop gain b. Increases phase shift
c. Results in internal oscillations d. None
21. In an ideal op – amp, __________

a. Voltage gain is infinity b. Bandwidth is infinity
c. Output impedance is equal to zero d. All of the above
22. Closed loop gain of a non inverting amplifier is ______

a. 1+ (Rf/R1) b. – (Rf/R1)
c. 1 d. none
23. Closed loop gain of an inverting amplifier is ______

a. – (Rf/R1). b. 1+ (Rf/R1 )
c. 0 d.1
24. Common mode rejection ratio can be defined as ________
a. Mod(Ac/Ad) b. Mod(Ad /A c)
c.1 d.none
25. A triangular wave can be generated by integrating a ________

a. Sine wave b. Square wave c. Cosine wave d. None
26. A first order low pass filter has roll off rate of ________
a. - 20dB decade b. – 40 dB decade c. - 60 dB decade d. None
27. Duty cycle D is defined as

a.(on time / total time period) b. (off time / total time period)
c.1 d.none
28. The 556 time is a ________

a. 14 pin DIP b. 16 pin DIP c. 8 pin DIP d. None
29. Wien bridge uses ___________________ feedback
a) Negative b) Positive c) Both negative & positive d) None of the above
30. Which of the following is basically a square wave generator?
a) Colpitt oscillator b) Hartley oscillator
c) Astable Multivibrator d) None of the above.

31. Schmitt trigger is also known as ________________________
a) Squaring circuit b) Sinusoidal circuit
c) Blocking oscillator d) Sweep circuit.
32. The gain of an ideal oscillator is ______________________
a) Unity b) Zero c)Infinity d) Slightly more than unity.
33. IGFET is a_______________________ device.
a) Linear b) Logarithmic c) Half power d) Square law
34. Thermal run away occurs in ______________________
a) BJT b) JFET c) MOSFET d) all the above
35. A Triac is a_______________________ switch
a) Unidirectional b) Bi-directional c) either of the above d) all the above
36. A clamping circuit is known as _____________________
a) AC restoration circuit b) DC suppression circuit
c) DC restoration circuit d) AC bypass circuit
37. A JFET can operate in _________________________________
a) Depletion mode b) Enhancement mode
c) Depletion & Enhancement modes d) Neither depletion nor

enhancement mode
38. The operation of a Pirani gauge is based on
a) ionization of gas at low pressure
b) variation of volume with pressure
c) variation of viscosity with pressure

d) variation of thermal conductivity of gas with pressure
39. Piezoelectric crystal is an example for __________transducer
a) active b)primary c) digital d)passive
40. The value which occurs most frequently in a set of observation is known as
a) median b)mode c)mean d) variance
41. A thermocouple used for temperature measurement is a
a) first order transducer

b) second order transducer
c) zero order transducer
d) third order transducer
42. A potentiometer transducer with a stroke length of 5cm has a total resistance
of 10KO. The voltage across the potentiometer is 7.5V. when the wiper is 2 cm
from one end, what is the output of the potentiometer from that end?
a) 3 volts b) 4 volts c) 1 volt d) 5 volts
43. The development of a transverse electric potential gradient in a current

carrying conductor, upon the application of a magnetic field at right angles to
the direction of current is known as
a)Piezoelectric effect b)Hall effect c) Elastic effect d)Magnetostrictive effect
44. The degree of closeness with which a given value may be repeatedly
measured is known as
a)precision b)accuracy c) resolution d)hysteresis
45. Bellow’s expansion is usually against a spring. The spring is provided to
a) increase sensitivity
b) increase operating range
c) increase linearity
d) decrease hysteresis effect
46. The output of a LVDT with input mechanical motion of 10Hz and excitation
frequency 400Hz will contain frequencies
a) 10Hz and 400Hz b)400 Hz only c)10 Hz only d)390 Hz and 410 Hz
47. Which technology is used in third generation microprocessor?
a)HMOS b)PMAS c)NMAS d)HCMAS
48. In which microprocessor Virtual memory concept was introduced first?
a)8086 b)80186 c)80286 d)Pentium 4
49. Intel 8257 is a
a)USART b)DMA c)PIC d)CRT
50. After executing the following program what will be the content of
accumulator
MVI A,59
PUSH PSW
OUT 25
XRA A
POP H
a)59 b)25 c)00 d)FF
51. Watch dog timer is introduced in which micro controller?
a)8031 b)8051 c)8053 d)8096
52. How many register banks are in 8051 micro controller?
a)8 b)2 c)16 d)4
53. After the execution of POP instruction the Stack Pointer(SP) value will be
a)SP+2 b)SP-2 c)SP+1

d)SP-1
54. What are the registers are affected when executing RET Instruction?
a)A&B b)PSW&H c)HL&A d)PC&SP
55. How many T states are required to execute one CALL instruction?
a)10 b)12 c)16 d)18
56. A parallel network consists of three resistors of 4 ?, 8 ? , and 32?. If the

current in the 8? resistor is 2A, what are the currents in the other resistors?
a. 4A & 0.5A b. 3A & 2.5A c. 5A & 3.5A d. 8A & 3A
57. Determine the equivalent resistance between A&B
a. 3.5? b. 9? c. 3? d. 0.33?
58. A coil when connected to 200 V, 50 Hz supply takes a current of 10A and
dissipates 1200W. Find the resistance and inductance of the coil
a. 5? & 23.55mH b. 9? & 42mH c. 2? & 32mH d. 12? &

50.93mH
59. A coil of relay has a resistance of 10 ? and an inductive reactance of 500?.

The supply Voltage is 230 V, 50 Hz. What is the energy lost in the coil in 8
hrs?
a. 5.44 Wh b. 9.2Wh c. 16.9Wh d. 33Wh
60. A coil having a resistance of 6? and an inductance of 0.03H is connected

across a 100V, 50 Hz supply, Calculate the current
a. 8.95A b. 9A c. 3.5A d. 3A
61. When the series AC circuit is at resonance,
a. XL – 2Xc = 0 b. XL – Xc = 0 c. 2XL – Xc = 0 d. XL = 3Xc
62. Coefficient of coupling between two magnetically coupled coils is given by
a. K=M/vL1 L2 b. K=M/2vL1 L2 c. K=1/MvL1L2 d.K=2M/vL1L2
63. A 20µF capacitor is charged at a constant current of 5µA for 10 mins. Calculate
the final potential difference across the capacitor.
a. 120V b. 100V c. 150 V d. 80V
64. Three capacitors have capacitances of 10µF, 15µF & 20µF respectively.
Calculate the total capacitance when they are connected in parallel.
a. 10µF b. 50µF c. 25µF d. 45µF
65. Selsyn is the trade name of ____

a. Rotating Transducer b. Rotating Transformer
c. Spinning Top d. Synchros
66. In higher order systems, the dominant poles are located _________
a. Close to origin b. Away from origin c. At origin d. None
67. The value of damping for an under damped system is ________

a. ? = 0 b. ? = 1 c. ? = 3 d. ? = 0.5
68. ________ _ cannot behave as final control element

a. control valve b. potentiometer
c. stepper motor d. electro pneumatic converter
69. Servo mechanics usually consists of ________

a. mechanical output b. error signal c. power amplifier
d. all
70. Which of the following is an error detector ?

a. control valve b. stepper motor c. LVDT d. relay
71. The analogous element of Mass ’M’ in case of rotational system is

_______
a. Moment of inertia b. Dashpot c. Spring d. None
72. A gyroscope that uses derivative feedback is __________

a. Free gyro b. Rate gyro c. Integrate gyro d. None
73. The type of servomotor best suited for low power application is ________
a. AC servomotor b. DC servomotor c. Both d. none
74. Systole is defined
a)as the period of contraction of the heart muscles

b)as the period of dilation of the heart cavities as they fill with blood
c)both a&b
d)none
75. The recorded representation of bioelectric potentials generated by the

neuronal activity of the brain is called
a)electroencephalogram b)electrocardiogram
c)electromyogram d)elctroretinagram
76. The recorded representation of bioelectric potentials generated by the muscles

of the heart is called
77. The recorded representation of bioelectric potentials associated with muscle

activity constitute
78. Spirometer is for the measurement of
a)Blood pressure b)blood flow

c)respiratory measurement d)temperature measurement
79. The natural pacemaker in the cardiovascular system is

a)Bundle of his b)sinoatrial node c)atrioventricle ring d)tricuspid
valve
80. Oxygen tension “is
a)partial pressure of oxygen ,po2 b)partial pressure of

oxygen,co2
c)both d)none
81. The rate at which an action potential moves down a fiber is called
a)conduction rate b)polarization rate c)depolarization rate

d)repolarization rate
82. The bandwidth of an electroencephalogram (EEG) amplifier is
a) dc to 0.01 Hz b) 1 to 60 Hz
c) 60 to 150 Hz d) 2000 to 10000 Hz
83. A differential output high impedance signal source is connected to an

instrumentation amplifier through two shielded cables. The best way to
obtain a high CMMR is to connect the cable shields to
a)output of the instrumentation amplifier
b)mean of the two first stage outputs in the instrumentation amplifier
c)common signal ground
d)power supply ground
84. The type of A/D converter normally used in a 3 ½ digit multimeter is
a)dual-slope integrating type
b)voltage-to-frequency converter type
c)flash(or parallel) type
d)successive approximation type
85. An amplitude modulated signal can be observed on a CRO by applying the

following waveform to the “external trigger” input:
a)the modulated waveform itself
b)derivative of the modulated waveform
c)the modulating waveform
d)the carrier waveform
86. A piezoelectric transducer is directly connected through a cable to an

electronic voltmeter. The minimum operating frequency of measurement is
1000Hz. If the connecting length is doubled, the new minimum operating
frequency is
a)500Hz b)1000Hz c)2000Hz d)4000Hz
87. An 8 bit ADC outputs all 1’s when Vin =1.275 volts. The quantization error is
a)+5mV b)-5mV c)10mV d)±2.5mV
88. Kelvin double is best suited for the measurement of
a)Resistances of very low value
b)Low value capacitance
c)Resistance of very high values
d)High value capacitance
89. A seismic type of transducer has a damping constant of 10. The transducer is
designed to measure
a)acceleration b)velocity
c)displacement d)force
90. Majority of digital voltmeters are built with a Dual-slope ADC because
a)Dual slope ADCs are less complex than other type of ADCs
b) Dual slope ADCs are faster than other type of ADCs
c)Dual slope ADCs can be designed to be insensitive to noise and interference
d)Dual slope ADCs provide BCD outputs

91. Wien bridge is best suited for the measurement of
a) Frequency b)Capacitance c) Inductance d)Resistance
92. The range of error to cover 0 to 100% of controller output is known as

a)Differential gap b)Reset windup c)Proportional band d)Offset
93. Floating control mode is
a)Continuous mode b)Discontinuous mode

c)Composite mode d)Complex mode
94. The phenomenon of reset windup may occur if the control algorithm contains
a)P mode b)I mode c)D mode d)PD mode
95. A PI controller is used for control of certain process. If the settings are as
follows kp = 2%, p(0)=40%, ki=2% min,Ep=error signal= 4t+6 where
t=time, then the controller output in percentage after 2 minutes is
a)50% b)60% c)68.8% d)72.4%
96. An integral controller is used for speed control with a set point of 12 rpm
within a range of 10-15 rpm. The controller output is 22% initially. The
constant Ki=-0.15% controller output per second per percentage error. The
controller output after 2 seconds for a constant ep is
a)15% b)20% c)31% d)42%
97. An equal percentage valve has a maximum flow of 50m3/s and a minimum
flow of 2 m3/s. If the full travel is 3cm,the flow at 1 cm opening is
a)5.85 m3/s b)3.53 m3/s c)2.43 m3/s d)6.32 m3/s
98. The proper Cv for a valve that must pump 150 gallons of ethyl alcohol per
minute with a specific gravity of 0.8 at maximum pressure of 50 psi is
a)20.23 b)24.15 c)18.97 d)22.35

99. A pressure difference of 1.1 psi occurs across a constriction in a 5-cm diameter
pipe. The constriction constant is 0.0009 m3/s per Kpa. The flow rate in m3/s
is
a)0.5 b)0.025 c)0.075 d)0.045
100. The sampled data control system whose open loop pulse transfer function is
given by A(z)= z/(2.45z+1)(2.45z-1) is
a)Stable b)Unstable c)Marginally stable d)None of the above

Computer Science (Secti on code 06)


(f) b) c) Zero d) one
(f) b) c) d)

b. (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)
(f) b)
c) d)
(f) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

(f) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

a) b) c) d)
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero
a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
11. The minimum number of colours required to colour the vertices of a cycle
with n nodes in such a way that no two adjacent nodes have the same colour
is
n(n − 1) n 
a) 2n2 b) n2 c) d) n − 2   + 2
2 2 
12. Four fair coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability that at least one
head and one tail turn up is
1 1 7 15
a) b) c) d)
16 8 8 16
13. Let x be an integer which can take a value of 0 or 1. The statement if(x = = 0)
x=1; else x=0; is equivalent to which one of the following?
a) x = 1 + x; b) x = 1-x; c) x = x -1; d) x = 1%x;
14. What is the maximum number of edges in an acyclic undirected graph with n
vertices?
a) n-1 b) n c) n+1 d) 2n-1
15. What is the probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53
Sundays?
1 2 3
a) b) c) d) None
7 7 7
16. What are the eigen values of the following 2 x 2 matrix?

 2 − 1
 −4 5 
 
a) -1 and 1 b) 1 and 6 c) 2 and 5 d) 4 and -1
17. Let f(x) be the continuous probability density function of a random variable X.
The probability that a<X = b, is :
b b
a) f(b-a) b) fb)-fa) c) ∫ f (x )dx d) ∫ xf (x )dx

a a
18. The binary relation S = φ (empty set) on set A = {1,2,3} is

a) Neither reflexive nor symmetric b) Symmetric and reflexive
c) Transitive and reflexive d) Transitive and symmetric
19. Which gate can be used to compare two bits?

a) AND b) OR c) EX-OR d) NAND
20. A ' B 'C ' + A 'BC ' + ABC ' + AB 'C ' =
a) B b) C ' c) C d) none
21. Dual of the statement (A+1) = 1 is

a) A.1 = A b) A.0 = 0 c) A+A =A d) A.A =A
22. A PLA contains

a) AND and OR gates b) A micro controller
c) An array of diodes d) A PLL
23. In a combinational circuit the outputs at any instant depend

a) only on past input b) only on past output
c) past as well present inputs d) only on the inputs present at that

instant
24. Which of the following statement is/are true?

S1: In combinational circuits we require a memory unit to store past outputs
S2: Parallel adder is a combinational circuit
a) S1 is true b) S2 is true c) S1, S2 are true d) none
25. Every Flip flop is defined by

a) characteristic expression b) excitation table
c) both d) none
26. Race around condition exist in JK flip flop if

a) J=0 k =1 b) J=1 k =0 c) J=0 k =0 d) J=1 k =1
27. The storage place that holds data and instruction temporarily within CPU is
called
a) Accumulator b) Bus c) Register d) None
28. In implementing interrupts, actions that are done by the hardware include
a) saving all the register onto the stack
b) saving the interrupt vector into a special register
c) fetching the address of the interrupt handler
d) Both a) and c)
29. RST 7.5 interrupt in 8085 microprocessor executes service routing form
interrupt vector location
a) 0000H b) 0075H c) 003CH d) 0034H
30. A multiplexor with a 4 bit data select input is a

a) 4:1 mutliplexor b) 2:1 multiplexor
c) 16:1 multiplexor d) 8:1 multiplexor
31. The number 43 in 2’s complement representation is

a) (010101)2 b) (110101)2 c) (001010) 2 d) (101010)2
32. When an odd number is converted into binary number, the LSB is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 0 or 1 d) None
33. Which of the following is an unweighted code?

a) 8421 code b) 5211 code c) Excess 3 code d) 2421 code
34. In what representation does the 4-bit number 1001 represent -6?
a) unsigned b) signed magnitude
c) one’s complement d) two’s complement
35. PSW(Program Status Word) contains status of

a) ALU(Arithmetic Logic Unit) b) Control unit
c) CPU(Central Prcessing Unit) d) All

36. Hardwired control provides _________________ execution of machine
instructions over microprogrammed control
a) faster b) on expensively
c) parallely d) concurrently
37. The number of memory references required by a CPU to execute immediate

address instruction is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
38. Number of address locations that can be identified by 12 address line is

a) 64 b) 1024 c) 2048 d) 4096
39. A cache memory needs an access time of 20ns and main memory 120ns, what
is the average access time of CPU(assume hit ratio 80%)?
a) 30ns b) 44ns c) 35ns d) 45ns
40. RAID configuration of disks are used to provide

a) fault tolerane b) high speed c) high data density d) none
41. Advantages of DMA over software transfers are

a) lack of software overhead from loop-control instructions.
b) that it leaves the bus free for the CPU to access main memory.
c) that it combines multiple interrupts into one.
d) both a) and c)
42. Consider the grammar A → Aα | β . Which of the following is true?

a) The grammar is LL(1) b) The grammar is not LL(1)
c) The grammar is left recursive d) Both a) and c)
43. Suppose value of A depends upon evaluation of B and C. Which of the

following evaluation order is the best for above requirement?
a) Topological sort b) Quick sort
c) Bubble sort d) None of these

44. Consider the grammar
S → aSbS
| bSaS
|∈
Which of the following is true?
a) The grammar is ambiguous and string abab will have 2 parse trees
b) The grammar is ambiguous and abab will have 3 parse trees
c) The grammar is not ambiguous
45. The principle of locality justifies the use of

a) interrupts b) DMA c) polling d)cache
memory
46. In a virtual memory system the address space specified by the address lines of
the CPU must be __________ than the physical memory size and ___________
than the secondary storage size.
a) smaller, smaller b) smaller, larger c) larger, smaller d) larger,
larger
47. Locality of reference implies that the page reference being made by a process
a) will always be to the page used in the previous page reference
b) is likely to be to one of the pages used in the last few page references
c) will always be to one of the pages existing in memory
d) will always lead to a page fault
48. Which of the following is an example of a spooled device?

a) The terminal used to enter the input data for the C program being
executed
b) An output device used to print the output of a number of jobs
c) The secondary memory device in a virtual storage system
d) The swapping area on a disc used by the swapper
49. If an instruction takes i microseconds and a fault takes an additional j

microseconds, the effective instruction time if on the average a page fault
occurs every k instruction is:
j
a) i + b) i + j *k c) (i + j) / k d) (j + j) * k
k
50. Increasing the RAM of a computer typically improves performance because

a) Virtual memory increases b) Large RAMs are faster
c) Fewer page faults occur d) Fewer segmentation faults occur
51. Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process?
a) Stack b) Address Space
c) File Descriptor Table d) Message Queue
52. A process executes the following segment of code:

for(i=1;i<=n;i++)
fork( );
The number of new processes created is:
n( n + 1)
a) n b) c) 2 n − 1 d) 3n − 1
2
53. System calls are usually invoked by using

a) A software interrupt b) Polling
c) an indirect jump d) a privileged instruction
54. Which of the following scheduling algorithms is non-preemptive?

a) Round Robin b) First-In First –Out
c) Multilevel Queue Scheduling d) Multilevel Queue Scheduling with

Feedback
55. The optimal page replacement algorithm will select the page that
a) has not been used for the longest time in the past
b) will not be used for the longest time in the future
c) has been used least number of times
d) has been used most number of times
56. Using a larger block size in a fixed block size file system leads to
a) better disk throughput but poorer disk space utilization
b) better disk throughput and better disk space utilization
c) poorer disk throughput but better disk space utilization
d) poorer disk throughput and poorer disk space utilization
57. Which of the following is false in context of Inter Process communication?
a) Communicate with each other b) Synchronize their actions
c) Share the same address space d) Passing message to each

other
58. The main idea in overlay is to

a) keep all the data into memory
b) keep shared data only in memory
c) keep only those data that are needed at that time
d) all of the above
59. During context switch which of the following is not necessary to save?
a) General purpose registers
b) TLB
c) Program counter
d) All of the above
60. A binary search tree contains the value 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8. The tree is traversed in
pre-order and the values are printed out. Which of the following sequences is
a valid output?
a) 5 3 1 2 4 7 8 6 b) 5 3 1 2 6 4 8 7 c) 5 3 2 4 1 6 7 8 d) 5 3 1 2 4 7 6 8
61. The correct matching for the following pairs is

(A) All pairs shortest paths (1) Greedy
(B) Quick Sort (2) Depth-First search
(C) Minimum weight spanning tree (3) Dynamic Programming
(D) Connected Components (4) Divide and Conquer
a) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3 b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
c) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 d) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
62. Which one of the following algorithm design techniques is used in finding all
pairs of shortest distances in a graph?
a) Dynamic Programming b) Backtracking
c) Greedy d) Divide and Conquer
63. The number of articulation points of the following graph is

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
64. The best data structure to check whether an arithmetic expression has
balanced parentheses is a
a) queue b) stack c) tree d) list
65. Suppose each set is represented as a linked list with elements in arbitrary
order. Which of the operations among union, intersection, membership,
cardinality will be the slowest?
a) union only b) intersection, membership
c) membership, cardinality d) union, intersection
66. Consider the following C-function:

double foo (int n) {
int i:
double sum;
if(n= = 0) return 1.0;
else {
sum=0.0;
for (i=0;i<n;i++)
sum += foo (i);
return sum;
}}
The space complexity of the above function is
a) O(1) b) O(n) c) O(n!) d) O(nn)
67. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so

that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is:
a) Queue b) Stack c) Heap d) B-Tree
68. Let P be a singly linked list. Let Q be the pointer to an intermediate node X in
the list. What is the worst-case time complexity of the best known algorithm
to delete the node x from the list?
a) O(n) b) O(log 2 n) c) O(log n) d) O(1)
69. The postfix expression for the infix expression (A + B * (C + D)) / (F + D * E )

is
a) (AB + CD + *F) / D + E * b) (ABCD * +F) / (+DE * +)
c) (A * B + CD) / F * DE ++ d) None of the above
70. Queues serve a major role in

a) simulation of recursion b) simulation of arbitrary linked list
c) simulation of limited resource allocation d) expression evaluation.
71. Which of the following is useful in traversing a given graph by breadth first
search?
a) stack b) set c) list d) queue
72. In linked list data is stored in

a) adjacent location b) different location in memory
c) neither a) nor b) d) none of the above
73. void function (struct node **q, int num)

{
struct node * temp;
temp = malloc (size of (struct node));
temp → data = num;
temp → link = *q;

*q = temp;
This is the function for inserting an element in the linked list at
a) beginning b) end c) middle d) none of these
74. All the basic operations like insertion, deletion search etc. in a Binary Search
Tree takes time in worst case equal to
a) O(logn) b) O(n) c) O(nlogn) d) O(n2)
75. When should insertion sort be used?

a) Each component of the array takes up a large amount of memory.
b) Each component of the array takes up only a small amount of memory
c) Only a few elements are out of place
d) The processor speed is very fast.
76. Find all customers who have an account at the bank but not a loan.
a) πcustomer name (depositor ) πcustomer name (borrower )
b) πcustomer name (borrowe r) πcustomer name (depositor )
c) πcus tom er nam e (borrower × depositor )
d) πcustomer name (borrower × depos itor × loan )
77. Which of the following allows to submit queries at runtime?

a) Dynamic SQL b) Embedded SQL c) Both A & B d) None
78. The key which is a set of one or more attributes that taken collectively, allows
us to identify uniquely an entity in the entity set, is called
a) Primary key b) Partial keyc) Candidate key d) Super key
79. Which of the following gives the number of employees in each department
a) Select dno, dname, count(*) from E,D where edept=dno group by
dno,dname
b) Select dno,dname,count(*) from E,D group by dno,dname
c) Both A and B
d) None
80. Which command undo all the updates performed by the SQL in the
transaction?
a) Rollback b) Commit c) Truncate d) Delete
81. If every attribute is a candidate key then the above table is in

a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) BCNF
82. Let R(ABCDE) be a relational schema and

F = {AB → CD, ABC → E, C → A}be the set of functional dependencies.
The number of candidate keys are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
83. In dense index, index record contains

a) A search key value and a pointer to the first record
b) Longest search key value and a pointer to last record
c) Smallest search key value and a pointer to the first location
84. Which of the following is true?

a) A file can have atmost one primary index or atmost one clustering index
b) A file can have atleast one primary index or atleast one clustering index
c) A file can have both primary index and clustering index
85. In the given schedule
a) Deadlock can occur b) Deadlock never occur
c) Can’t say d) None of these
86. Atomicity is managed by

a) Transaction management component b) Recovery management
component
c) Concurrency control component d) None
87. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing packets form one
network to another?
a) Transport layer b) Data Link layer
c) Physical layer d) Session layer
88. A Multiplexer combines four 100-kbps channels using a time slot of 4 bits.
Determined the frame rate, frame duration, bit rate and bit duration.
a) 25000 fps, 40µs, 400 kbps, 4µs b) 500 fps, 20µs, 400 kbps, 4µs
c) 25x103 fps, 40µs, 200kbps, 5µs d) 5x104 fps, 20µs, 200 Kbps, 5µs
89. What is the process of inserting the header information of the layer and the
data form the higher layer into the data frame?
a) Encryption b) Compression
c) Encapsulation d) Heading
90. State True or False.

Hub is a multi-port repeater
Bridge has filtering capability
The bridge changes the MAC address
a) TFF b) FFT c) TTF d) FTT
91. If a frame enters a bridge and the MAC address is not found in the MAC
address table, what will the bridge do with the frame?
a) Drop it
b) Forward it to all ports except the port it came in from
c) Hold it until the destination MAC address is discovered
d) Block it
92. A sender sends a series of packets to the same destination using 5-bit
sequence numbers. If the sequence number starts with 0, what is the sequence
number after sending 100 packets?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
93. Match with the suitable one:
List I List II
A) Unidirectional traffic 1) Mesh topology
B) Multipoint 2) Star topology
C) Direct traffic between two devices 3) Bus topology
D) Data Passes through hub 4) Ring topology
a) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
c) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
94. A company is expanding rapidly, many new people are being employed and
in addition the employees keep changing offices. The company wants to set
up an Ethernet network. What physical topology would they use?
a) Bus b) Star c) Ring d) Mesh
95. A 24 Mbps token ring has a token holding time of 20ms, then what is the
longest frame that can be sent on the ring?
a) 48KB b) 60KB c) 32KB d) none
96. Dijkstra’s algorithm is used to

a) Create LSA’s b) Flood an internet with information
c) Calculate routing tables d) Create a link state database
97. Two important reasons that the Internet is organized as a hierarchy of

networks for the purposes of routing are
a) least cost and maximum free circuit availability
b) scale and administrative autonomy
c) message complexity and speed of convergence
d) link cost changes and link failure
98. Given an IP address 201.14.78.65 and the subnet mask 255.255.255.224. What
is the subnet address?
a) 201.14.78.64 b) 201.14.78.65 c) 201.14.77.64
d) 201.14.77.66
99. Which of the following statements accurately describes UDP?

a) UDP is a member of the TCP/IP suite of protocols that governs the
exchange of electronic mail between message transfer agents.
b) UDP is a member of the TCP/IP suite of protocols and is used to copy
files between two computers on the Internet. Both computers must
support their respective roles: one must be a client, and the other a server.
c) UDP is a TCP Complement that offers a connectionless datagram service
guaranteeing, neither delivery nor correct sequencing of delivered packets
(much like IP)
d) None of these
100. Telnet
a) is used to send email b) uses telephone lines
c) is part of Netscape d) is a protocol that allows for remote login

Chemical (Section code 07)


(g) b) c) Zero d) one
(g) b) c) d)

(f) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)
(g) b)
c) d)
(g) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

(g) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

a) b) c) d)
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero
a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
11. In contact process, SO3 is absorbed in 97% H2SO4 and not in water because
(a) SO3 gas is sparingly soluble in water
(b) Water forms an acid mist which is difficult to absorb
(c) The purity of the acid is affected
(d) Scale formation in absorber is to be avoided
12. Unsaturated oils compared to saturated oils have

a) lower melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen
b) higher melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen
c) lower melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen
d) higher melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen
13. Comparing sulphate process with sulphite process, we find that

a) both temperature and pressure in former is less than that in the later
b) both temperature and pressure in the former is more than that in the later
c) temperature is more in the former whereas pressure is more in the later
d) pressure is more in the former whereas temperature is less in the later
14. Dacron or terylene fibres as compared to nylon fibres have

a) better heat and acid resistant properties
b) poorer resistance to alkalis
c) poorer dyeability
d) all ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’
15. Pitch is always mixed with creosote oil when it is to be burnt in a burned,
because
a) its calorific value is very less
b) tar neutralizes that residual acids present in pitch
c) it reduces viscosity and imparts fluidity for its transportation through
pipelines at economic pressure drop
16. Mineral oils are preferred over fatty oils as a lubricant due to its
a) poor oxidation stability and high gum forming tendency
b) greater tendency of decomposition at elevated temperature
c) hydrolysis tendency in presence of water
17. Presence of carbonaceous matter in the sewage
a) causes reduction in its dissolved oxygen content thereby endangering the
life of aquatic creatures
b) reduces sulphate ions to sulphides causing obnoxious smell
c) increases the quantity of chlorine used for its purification
18. Viscosity index improver is added to the lubricant to

a) reduce its viscosity
b) increase its viscosity
c) reduce the variation it its viscosity with temperature
d) increase the variation it its viscosity with temperature
19. Phosphate rock is a raw material for the manufacture of

a) phosphoric acid b) phosphorus
c) superphosphates d) all ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’
20. A special manometer fluid has a specific gravity of 2.95 and is used to
measure a pressure of 1.15 bar at a location where the barometric pressure is
760mmHg. What height will the manometer fluid indicate?
a) 472.7 mm b) 800mm c) 272.7mm d) 672.7mm
21. Two kgs of CO2 gas is contained in a piston-cylinder assembly at a pressure

of 6.5 bar and a temperature of 300K. The piston has a mass of 5000kg and a
surface area of 1m2 . The friction of the piston on the walls is significant and
cannot be ignored. The atmospheric pressure is 1.01325 bar. The latch holding
the piston in position is suddenly removed and the gas is allowed to expand.
The expansion is arrested when the volume is double the original volume.
The amount of work appearing in the surroundings is found to be as
a) 126.93 * 10 5 J b) 250KJ c) 350.5* 10 5 J d) 425.5 * 10 5 J
22. A system consisting of some fluid is stirred in a tank. The rate of work done
on the system by the stirrer is 2.25hp. The heat generated due to stirring is
dissipated to the surroundings. If the heat transferred to the surroundings is
3400KJ/h, the change in internal energy is found to be as
a) 733.38 J/s b) 533.58 J/s c) 953.38 J/s d) 243.48J/s
23. A steam turbine using steam at 1368kpa and 645K and discharging saturated
steam at 137kpa is used to generate power for certain chemical plant. The
turbine acts adiabatically and the feed and discharge velocities may be
considered equal. From the steam tables, enthalpy of superheated steam at
1368kpa and 645K = 3200kJ/kg and enthalpy of saturated steam at 137kPa =
2690 kJ/kg. The theoretical horsepower developed by the turbine if it uses
1650kg steam per hour is calculated to be as
b) 513.56hp b) 313.46hp c) 617.53hp d) 115.23hp
24. The molar volume of air at 350K and at 1 bar (assuming air to behave as ideal
gas) is determined as
c) 5.61* 10-2 m3/mol b) 6.51* 10-2 m3/mol c) 2.91* 10-2 m3/mol
d) 8.31* 10-2 m3/mol
25. One Kilo mol CO2 occupies a volume of 0.381 m3 at 313K. Take the
vanderwaals constant to be a = 0.365 Nm 4/mol 2and b = 4.28 * 10 -5 m3 /mol
The pressure given by Vanderwaals equation is found to be as
d) 51.8 bar b) 35.8 bar c) 23.5 bar d) 15.6 bar
26. The density of gaseous ammonia at 473 K and 50 bar is 24.3 kg/m3 . The
fugacity is estimated to be as
e) 65.35 bar b) 44.47 bar c) 76.5 bar d) 13.76 bar
27. The Henry’s law constant for oxygen in water at 298K is 4.4*10 4 bar. The
solubility of oxygen in water at 298 K for a partial pressure of oxygen at 0.25
bar is found to be as
a) 0.0568 * 10 -4 moles/mole of water b) 1.1675 * 10 -4 moles/mole of water
( c )1 .1987 * 10 -4 moles/mole of water d) 2.354 * 10 -4 moles/mole of water
28. The molar volume of an organic liquid at 300 K and 1 bar is 0.1m 3/kmol and
∂V
its coefficient of expansion is 1.25 * 10 -3K -1. Assuming ( ) P is constant in
∂T
the pressure range 1 to 20 bar ,the change in entropy if the pressure is
increased to 20 bar at 300 K is found to be as
a) -237.5 J/kmol K b) -653.7 J/kmol K c) -445.5 J/kmol K ( d) 131.6

J/kmol K
29. For crushing of solids, the Rittinger’s law states that the work required
for crushing is proportional to
a) the new surface created b)the size reduction ratio

c)the change in volume due to crushing d)none of these
30. In power correlations for agitated vessels the effect of Froude number
appears:
a) for baffled vessels and when Reynolds number is less than 300.
b) for unbaffled vessels and when Reynolds number is greater than
300.
c) When there is no vortex formation.
d) When the Reynolds number is less than 300.
31. The work index in Bond’s Law for crushing of solids has the following
dimension
a)no units(dimensionless) b) KWh / ton
c) KW/ton d) KWh m1/2 /ton
32. At very low r.p.m. ( N Re less than 5), the power required for agitation is
Proportional to
Where D is the diameter of the impeller.
a) D b) D2 c) D3 d) D5
33. A fluid energy mill is used for

a) Cutting b) grinding c) ultra grinding d) crushing
34. The weber number can be used to estimate

a) ratio of inertial and surface tension forces
b) ratio of inertial and compressibility forces
c) ratio of inertial and centrifugal forces
d) ratio of pressure and surface tension forces
35. A spherical particle is falling slowly in a viscous liquid such that Reynolds
number is less than one. Which statement is correct for this situation?
a) inertial and drag forces are important
b) Drag, gravitational and buoyancy forces are important
c) Drag force and gravitational forces are important
36. For the laminar flow of a fluid in a circular pipe of radius R, the Hagen-
Poiseuille equation predicts the volumetric flow rate to be proportional to
a) R b) R2 c) R4 d) R0.5
37. For an ideal fluid flow the Reynolds number is

a) 2100 b) 100 c) Zero d) infinity
38. Fluidized beds are formed when:

a) fluid friction is zero
b) gravity force is less than fluid friction
c) pressure forces equal gravity forces
d) sum of fluid friction and pressure forces is equal and opposite to gravity
forces.
39. Stokes equation is valid in the Reynolds number range

a) 0.01 to 0.1 b) 0.1 to 2
c) 2 to 10 d) 10 to 100.
40. A Newtonian liquid ( ρ = density, µ = viscosity) is flowing with velocity v in

a tube of diameter D. Let ?p be the pressure drop across the length L. For a
laminar flow, ?p i s proportional to
a) Lρv2/D b) Dρ v2/L
c) Lµv/D2 d) µ v/L
41. The type of process that most often can benefit from derivative control is:
a) Flow b) Level c) Temperature d) Pressure
42. The open loop transfer function of a control system is KR/(1 + Ts). This
represents:
a) a first order system b) dead time system
c) a first order time lag d) a second order system.
43. The response of two tanks of same size and resistance in series is
a) under damped b) critically damped
c) over damped d) none of the above
44. In a feed-back control system G and H denote open loop and closed loop
transfer functions respectively. The output – input relationship is :
a) G/(1 +G H) b) H/(1 + G) c) G/H d) H/G
45. The transfer function of PID controller is

a) K c (1 + (1/τI s ) + τD s ) b) K c (1 + τI s + τD s )
c) K c(1 + (1/τD s ) + τI s ) d) K c [1 + (1/τI s ) + (1/ τD s ) ]
46. For an input forcing function, x(t) = 2t2 , the laplace transform of this function
is
a) 2/s2 b) 4/ s2 c) 2/ s 3 d) 4/ s3
47. The transfer function of a process is 16s2 + 8s + 4.If step change is introduced
into the system, then the response will be
a) under damped b) critically damped
c) over damped d) none of the above
48. The total investment in a project is Rs. 10 lakhs and the annual profit is Rs. 1.5
lakhs.
If the project life is 10 years, then the simple rate of return on investment is
a) 15%b) 10%c) 1.5% d) 150%
49. Direct costs component of the fixed capital consists of

a) Contingency b) onsite and offsite costs
c) labour costs d) raw material costs
50. Indirect contact heat exchangers are preferred over direct heat exchangers
because
a) heat transfer coefficients are high
b) there is no risk of contamination
c) there is no mist formation
d) cost of equipment is lower
51. In a finned tube heat exchanger:

a) only heat transfer area is augmented
b) only film coefficient is augmented
c) both heat transfer area and film coefficient are augmented
52. The critical radius r of insulation on a pipe is given by

a) r = 2k/h b) r = k/h c) r = k/2h d) r = h/k
(Where k is the thermal conductivity of the insulation and h the heat
transfer coefficient with the ambient)
53. The advantage of using 1-2 shell and tube heat exchanger over 1-1 shell and
tube heat exchanger is
a) Lower tube side pressure drop
b) Lower shell side pressure drop
c) Higher tube side heat transfer coefficient
d) Higher shell side heat transfer coefficient
54. Grashof number is associated with :

a) buoyancy effects b) free convection
c) forced convection d) high temperature difference
55. Prandtl number for water varies from

a) 0.5-1 b) 1-5
c) 5-10d) 10-102
56. For condensation of pure vapors, if the heat transfer coefficients in

filmwise and dropwise condensation are respectively hf and hd, then
a) hf = hd b) hf > hd c) hf < hd
d) hf could be greater or smaller than hd
57. The variation of thermal conductivity of a metal with temperature is often

correlated using an expression of the for K = Ko + At. Where K is the thermal
conductivity and T is temperature (in k). The unit of A in the SI system will
be
a) W/m K b) W/m c) W/ m K2 d) None; A is just a number
58. In distillation columns, the number of bubble caps per tray primarily
depends on the
a) allowable liquid velocity
b) allowable gas velocity
c) allowable gas and liquid velocities
d) feed composition
59. Lewis number = 1 signifies:

a) Pr = Sc b) Pr = Re c) Sc = Re d) Nu = Sh
60. The advantage of backward-feed multiple effect evaporators over forward-

feed units is that
a) heat sensitive materials can be handled
b) there is no additional cost of pumping
c) most concentrated liquor is at highest temperature
d) equal heat transfer coefficients exist in various effects.
61. The sequence in which three C.S.T.R’s of volumes 5,10 and 15 cu.m. will be
connected in series to obtain the maximum production in a second order
irreversible reaction is:
a) 15 10 5 b) 5 10 15 c) 10 5 15 d) 10 15 5.
62. For the gaseous reaction 2A à B where the feed consists of 50 mol% A and 50
mol% inerts, the expansion factor is
a) 1 b) – 0.5
c) – 0.25 d) 0
63. From collision theory, the reaction rate constant is proportional to

a) exp (- E/RT) b) exp ( - E/2RT)
c) T1/ 2exp ( - E/RT) d) Tm exp ( - E/RT)
64. The dimensions of rate constant for reaction 3A à B are (1/gmole)/min.

Therefore the reaction order is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
65. Choose the correct answer:

An exothermic gas phase reaction proceeds according to the equation
3A + 2B à 2R. The equilibrium conversion for this reaction:
a) increases with an increase in temperature
b) decreases on dilution with an inert gas
c) decrease with an increase in pressure
d) is unaffected by the presence of a catalyst
66. In a homogeneous gas phase reaction A + 2B à R + S what is the relationship
between rA and rB :
a) 2 rA = rB b) rA = 2 rB
c) rA = rB d) none of the above
67. The units of frequency factor in Arrhenius equation are

a) the same as those of the rate constant
b) depend on the order of the reaction
c) depend on temperature, pressure etc. of the reaction
d) are cycles per unit time
68. To maximize the formation of R in the simultaneous reactions

A+Bà R rR = 2CA 0.5 CB2
A+Bà S rS = 1.5CA CB We should have
a) low CA, low CB b) low CA, high CB
c) high CA, low CB d) high CA, high CB
69. In the absorption of a solute gas from a mixture containing inerts in a solvent,
it has been found that the overall gas transfer coefficient is nearly equal to
the individual gas film transfer coefficient. It may therefore be concluded
that:
a) the process is liquid film controlled
b) the gas is sparingly soluble in the solvent
c) the transfer rate can be increased substantially by reducing the
thickness of the liquid film
d) the transfer rate can be increased substantially by reducing the
thickness of the gas film
70. The Knudsen diffusivity is dependent on :

a) the molecular velocity only
b) the pore radius of the catalyst only
c) the molecular mean free path only
d) the molecular velocity and pore radius of the catalyst
71. Absorption towers are operated under conditions of

A. low pressure, high temperature
B. high pressure, high temperature
C. high pressure, low temperature
D. low pressure, low temperature
72. For stripping of a gas in a counter current stripper, the operating line
a) lies above the equilibrium curve
b) lies below the equilibrium curve
c) can lie above or below the equilibrium curve
d) is always parallel to the equilibrium curve
73. In distillation where q is defined as the moles of liquid flow in the stripping
section per mole of feed introduced, for saturated liquid feed
a) q > 1 b) q < 1 c) q = 1 d) q = 0
74. How many molecules are present in 691g K2CO3 ?
a) 20.115 * 10 23 b) 30.115* 10 23 c) 60.225* 10 23 d) 80.324* 10 23
75. A body weighs 1.0kg in air, 0.90kg in water and 0.82kg in a liquid. The
specific gravity of the liquid is
a) 1.8 b) 3.5 c) 6.5 d) 4.9
76. The solubility of sodium chloride in water at 290K is 35.8kg/100kg of water.

The mass fraction and mass percent of Nacl is found to be as
a) 1.233 , 35.5% b) 0.2636, 26.36%
c) 6.511, 65.11% d) 4.9, 4.911%
77. The molar volume of a gas mixture analyzing 40% nitrogen and 60% ethane at
325K is 4.5*10 -4 m3 /mol. The pressure of the gas by ideal equation is
a) 600.45*10 4 N/m2 b) 350.5 *10 4 N/m2
c) 815.5*10 4 N/m2 d) 490.45*10 4 N/m2
78. Moist air contains 0.0109 kg water vapour per cubic meter of the mixture at
300K and 101.3kpa. The partial pressure of water vapour is
(a) 1.51 kpa b) 2.51kpa c) 4.81kpa d) 6.71 kpa
79. An aqueous solution of sodium carbonate contains 15% carbonate by weight,

80% of the carbonate is recovered as Na2 CO3.10H20 by evaporation of water
and subsequent cooling to 278K. The solubility of Na2CO3 at 278K is
9.0%(weight). On the basis of 100 kg of the solution treated, the quantity of
crystals formed is calculated to be as
a) 32.28kg b) 55.58 kg c) 76.56 kg d) 12.23 kg
80. 100kg/h of a thermic fluid, to be used as a heat transfer medium, is being

indirectly heated in a heater from 380 K to 550 K. The heat capacity equation
for the thermic fluid is given as Cp= 1.436 + 2.18*10-3 T, where Cp is in
KJ/kgK and T is in K.
The heat load on the heater in kW is calculated to be as
a) 313.43kW b) 115.77kW c) 287.7kW d) 545.6kW
81. Given that the standard heat of combustion of acetylene is -1299.61 kJ, the
standard heat of combustion of carbon is -393.51 kJ and the standard heat of
formation of liquid water is -285.84 kJ. The standard heat of formation of
acetylene is calculated as
a) 556.67kJ b) 357.6kJ c) 226.75kJ d) 776.8 kJ
82. Given is the reaction at 298K :

C5 H12 (g) + 8O2 (g) ? 5 CO2 (g) +6 H20 (l).
The standard heat of formation are as follows:
CO2 (g) = -393.51kJ, H2 0 (l) = -241.826kJ, C5H12 (g) = -146.4kJ. The latent
heat of vaporization of water at 298K is 43.967 kJ/mol. The standard heat
of the above reaction at 298 K is calculated to be as :
a) -3535.908 kJ b) -9876.5kJ c) -2332.3kJ d) 5454.5 kJ
83. How many moles are there in 500g of oxygen?

a) 31.25 b) 15.625 c) 76.13 d) 266.45
84. It is required to make 100kg of a solution containing 40% salt by mixing
solution A containing 25% salt and solution B containing 50% salt. The mass
in Kgs of solution A required is
a) 40kg b) 60kg c) 75kg d) 25kg
85. A sewage gas sample is found to contain CH4 -68%, CO2-30%, NH3 – 2% on
volume basis. The average molecular weight of the gas mixture is found to be
as
a) 35.53 kg/kgmol b) 55.55 kg/kgmol c) 24.42kg/kgmol d)
73.24kg/kgmol
86. Carnot cycle consists of the following steps:

a) two isothermals and two isentropics
b) two isobarics and two isothermals
c) two isochorics and two isobarics
d) two isothermals and two isochorics.
87. At the inversion point, the Joule-Thompson coefficient is

a) positive b) negative c) Zero d) five
88. The number of degree of freedom for a mixture of ice and water (liquid)
are:
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0
89. The equation dU = TdS – PdV is applicable to infinitesimal changes

occurring in:
a) an open system of constant composition
b) a closed system of constant composition
c) an open system with changes in composition
d) a closed system with changes in composition
90. The change in Gibbs free energy for vapourization of a pure substance is
a) positive b) negative
c) Zero d) may be positive or negative
91. Toothpaste is a
a) Bingham plastic b) Pseudoplastic
c) Newtonian liquid d) Dilatant
92. To produce talcum powder use

a) Ball mill b) Hammer mill
c) jet-mill d) Pin-mill
93. Potential function is applicable only for

a) irrotational flow b) turbulent flow
(c ) steady flow d) none of these
94. Reciprocating pumps are not able to compete with the centrifugal pump for
industrial use mainly because these pumps have
a) very low speeds b) smaller discharge
( c) higher capital and maintenance cost d) high vibrations
95. In a free vortex, the

a) velocity changes linearly with radial distance
b) flow is necessarily rotational
c) radial component of velocity is same everywhere
d) streamlines are not circular
96. For a binary mixture with low relative volatility, continous rectification to get
pure products will require
a) low reflux ratio b) less number of trays
(c ) small cross section column d) high reflux ratio
97. Mccabe-Thiele method

a) uses molal units for material and energy balance
b) uses weight fractions to express liquid and vapour composition
c) can use any type of units
d) is more accurate than Ponchan-Savarit method
98. Fenske equation determines

a) maximum number of ideal plates
b) height of the distillation column
c) minimum number of theoretical plates
d) optimum reflux ratio
99. To get high tray efficiency

a) interfacial surface between liquid and gas phase should be large
b) time of contact between the two phases should be less
c) gas velocity should be very low
d) liquid entrainment should be severe
100. Plate efficiency

a) is a function of the mass transfer between liquid and vapor
b) increases due to foaming
c) increases due to liquid entrainment
d) increases due to weeping and dumping of liquid
Bio Technology (Section code 08)
1. Dye injected into a plant cell might be able to enter an adjacent cell through a
a) Tight junction b) Gap junction
c) Desmosome d) Plasmodesma
2. A plant cell was grown in a test tube containing radioactive nucleotides, the
parts from which DNA is built. Later examination of the cell showed the
radioactivity to be concentrated in the
a) Rough ER. b) Peroxisome
c) Smooth ER. d) Nucleus
3. Which of the following organelles is most important in providing energy to

the cell?
a) Mitochondrion b) Centrosome
c) Nucleus d) Peroxisome
4. Name the membrane valves that open and close for potassium efflux and
sodium influx.
a) Ionchannels b) Vacuoles
c) Capillaries d) Nexus
5. What technique can be used to measure cell activity like a change in

membrane potential?
a) Ionchannel b) Apoptosis
c) Patchclamp d) Ion exchange
6. What role(s) does the cytoskeleton play in a living cell?

a) Maintaining cell shape b) Movement
c) Contraction d) All of these
7. Which is SMALLEST of these four?

a) Bacterium b) Red blood cell
c) Virus d) Lymphocyte
8. Gram positive organisms have

a) Dipicolinic acid b) Muraminic acid
c) Teichoic acid d) Acetic Acid
9. Acetoclastis is the process of

a) Splitting of acetate into methane and carbon dioxide by methanogens
b) Splitting of formate into formalin and carbon dioxide by methanogens
c) Splitting of acetate into methane and carbon dioxide by alkaligens
d) Splitting of formate into formalin and carbon dioxide by alkaligens
10. BAC is expanded as

a) Bacterial Accessing Catalogue
b) Bacillus Anthrasis Culture
c) Bacillus and Coccus
d) Bacterial Artrifical Chromosome
11. Fungal hypha that connects two compartments separated by a septum is
called a
a) Hyphal connection b) Clamp connection
c) Nexus d) Gap junction
12. Doubling time is the time required for a population to

a) Double in number of biomass
b) Double in number alone
c) Double in both number and biomass
13. Endospores are present in

a) Acid Fast Bacilli b) Gram positive bacteria
c) Gram negative bacteria d) All of the above
14. Fusiform bacteria are

a) Needle shaped b) Pear shaped
c) Fused at both the ends d) Spindle shaped
15. Quantity of biomass carbon formed per unit of substrate carbon consumed is
called
a) Growth yield coefficient b) Growth rate constant
c) Carbon substrate ratio d) Surface volume ratio
16. Layer of hyphae, fertile in producing asci from the process of meiosis are
called
a) Hyphaneum b) Hymenium
c) Hyphomenium d) Hypomanium
17. Thread like infections means

a) Binary fission b) Cell division
c) Meiosis d) Mitosis
18. Layer of proteinaceous elements beneath the cell membrane in protozoa are
called as
a) Pellicle b) Prosthecae
c) Trichomes d) Protenoids
19. Population of cells all descended from a single pure isolate are called
a) Clones b) Species
c) Auxenic culture d) Strain
20. Hard external covering or shell

a) Coat b) Peritheca
c) Test d) Tentorium
21. Glass column with an anaerobic lower zone and an aerobic upper zone is
a) G.R. Column b) Winogradskys column
c) Areobic- anaerobic column d) Microbial separation
column.
22. Wild type is

a) Strain of microorganism isolated from nature
b) Strain of microorganism isolated from pure culture
c) Strain of microorganism culture from ATCC
d) Strain of microorganism cultured in natural conditions
23. MacConkey medium is a

a) Differential medium b) Enrichment medium
c) Transport medium d) Specific medium
24. An event in which transducing DNA fails to be incorporated into the recipient
chromosome is
a) Adjunct transduction b) Abortive transduction
c) Degenerative transduction d) Distinctive transduction
25. A mRNA is 336 nucleotides long, including the start codon and stop codon.
The number of amino acids in the protein translated from this mRNA is
a) 333 b) 336
c) 111 d) 112
26. Which scientists gave experimental evidence that DNA is the genetic
material?
a) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty b) Garrod
c) Watson and Crick d) Hershy and Chase
27. In a double stranded DNA, the ratio of purines : pyrimidines is:

a) Variable
b) Determined by the base sequence in RNA
c) Always 1:1
e) Determined by the purines in the sense strand of DNA
28. Which of the following molecules do not form part of DNA?

a) Purine b) Pyrimidine
c) Deoxyribose d) Ribose
29. The transcription of DNA to a molecule of messenger RNA occurs:

a) On the ribosomes b) In the cytosol
c) In the nucleus d) Only during cell division
30. Codons are composed of

a) Triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in mRNA
b) Triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in DNA
c) Triplet sequences of amino acids in polypeptide chains
d) Triplet sequences of deoxyribose sugars in DNA
31. In Griffith's experiment, injection of a mixture of heat-killed smooth bacteria

and living rough bacteria
a) Kills the mouse b) Causes transfection
c) Causes transduction d) has no effect
32. Which of the following is common to DNA and RNA

a) Thymine b) Sugar
c) Functions d) Guanine
33. Which of the following is true of transfer RNA?

a) It is responsible adding correct amino acid to a growing polypeptide.
b) It serves as the site of protein synthesis.
c) It functions in transcription, translation and replication.
d) It is an important component of ribosomes.
34. Which of the following is most similar to the Watson-Crick helix?

a) B-DNA b) A-DNA
c) C-DNA d) Z-DNA
35. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of DNA?

a) Antiparallel b) Composed of nucleotides
c) Complementary d) Contains ribose
36. Which is most preferred site for interaction of proteins with DNA
a) Major groove b) Minor groove
c) Phosphate backbone d) None
37. DNA duplexes can be “melted” or “denatured” by

a) Temperature b) pH
c) Ionic strength d) All the above
38. In replication the direction of DNA synthesis is

a) 3’---5’ b) 5’---3’
c) Both d) None
39. Inducer of lac operon is

a) lacI b) CAP
c) allolactose d) None
40. Function of 5’cap of mRNA is

a) Ribosome binding site b) Ribosome assembly site
c) Ribosome disassembly site d) Translation initiation site
41. Kozack sequence is found in

a) Rice b) Mouse
c) Homo sapiens d) All the above
42. Transcription and translation is separated by time and space for

a) E. coli b) Virus
c) Bacillus d) Mouse
43. The A form of DNA exhibit --------

a) Left handed helix b) Right handed helix
c) Zig-zag d) None of the above
44. The modification in the CTD tail of RNA polymerase is
a) Acetylation b) Phosphorylation
c) Methylation d) Demethylation
45. Total number of ATP produced per complete oxidation of glucose

a) 40 b) 2
c) 8 c) 38
46. Glutathione is
a) Tripeptide b) Dipeptide
c) Lipids d) Polysaccharide
47. Invert Sugar is

a) Glucose b) Fructose
c) Sucrose d) Lactose
48. Cofactor of Scuccinate dehydrogenase is

a) FAD b) NAD
c) NADH c) Cu
49. Antimycine is the inhibitor of

a) Glycolysis b) TCA cycle
c) Electron transport chain d) Oxidative phosphorylation
50. Total number of ATP produced in complete oxidation of palmitic acid is

a) 8 b) 38
c) 131 d) 129
51. Which amoung the following pathway is amphibolic nature

a) Fatty acid biosynthesis b) Beeta oxidation
c) Tricarboxylic acid cycle c) Electron transport chain
52. The enzyme with higher affinity towards substrate will have Km of
a) High b) Low
c) 0 c) Affinity not related to Km
53. Secondary metabolites appear predominantly in fermentor during which of

the following stages.
a) Exponential b) Stationary
c) Lag d) All the above
54. In aerobic industrial microbial processes, one of the most difficult problems to
solve is
a) Maintaining an adequate energy source
b) Adjusting a pH to a desired value and maintaining that value
c) Providing adequate aeration
d) Homogenous mixing
55. Which of these is not an economical source of bulk carbon suitable for large
scale industrial microbial processes?
a) Cornsteep liquor
b) Sucrose
c) Whey
d) All of these are economic source for bulk carbon
56. Which of the following penicillin in current use represents an unmodified

naturally occuring product?
a) Ampicillin b) Penicillin G
c) Methicillin d) Amoxicillin
57. Wine yeast can tolerate upto

a) 4-5% ethanol b) 12-14% ethanol
c) 20-22 % ethanol d) 30-34% of ethanol.
58. Enology is science of studying

a) Bread making b) Cheese making
c) Wine making d) Beer making
59. The holes in swiss cheese is produced by

a) Gas producing by propionic acid bacteria
b) Gas producing by lactic acid bacteria
c) Gas producing by fungi
d) Gas production by yeast
60. A microbial guild is

a) Groups of microbes of same species
b) Several metabolic related populations interacting with each other
c) Groups of metabolically related populations
d) The location to which a microbe is adopted
61. Volatile fatty acids produced in rumen are used for

a) Methanogenesis b) Acetogenesis
c) Sulfate reduction d) Food for ruminant
62. In waste water treatment, primary treatment consists of

a) Physical separation only b) Biological separation only
c) Chemical separation only d) All the above
63. Which among is the following is fat soluble vitamin

a) Vit B b) Vit C
b) Vit D c) Vit H
64. Amphibolic nature of TCA cycle is is due to

a) Produce GTP c) Produce FADH2
d) Links cetabolism and anabolism d) Due to author name
65. Polymorphism can be studied using restriction enzyme by

a) Digestion mapping b) Ligation PCR
c) RFLP d) RAPD
66. RNAi is
a) DNA amplification technique b) Is an enzyme
c) RNA amplification technique d) RNA silencing technique
67. Enzyme that breaks the phosphodiester bond in DNA is

a) DNA ligase b) Nucleotide kinase
c) EcoR I d) Alkaline phosphatase
68. Enzyme that makes the phosphodiester bond in DNA is

a) Nucleotide kinase b) DNA ligase
c) EcoR I d) Alkaline phosphatase
69. The following is the promoter used in transgenic plants

a) CaMV 35S b) GFP
c) LacZ d) Trp
70. The following is a dye used in real time PCR

a) Bromophenol blue b) Excel Blue
c) Navi Blue d) SYBR green
71. Vectors used for cloning is

a) Plasmids b) Phagemids
c) Phage c) All the above
72. Vector used for cloning large DNA fragments is

a) Plasmids b) Phagemids
c) BAC d) None
73. Cloning of unknown sequence can be done by

a) RT PCR b) PCR RFLP
c) Inverse PCR d) Nested PCR
74. His-Tag is used for

a) Protein purification b) DNA purification
c) RNA purification c) mRNA purification
75. Nucleic acids are quantified by measuring the optical density (OD) at
a) 230 nm b) 240 nm
c) 260 nm c) 280 nm
76. The most common temperature used for storage of restriction endonucleases
is
a) -20C b) 37C
c) 27C d) -80C
77. Theoretically, annealing temperature of PCR should be

a) Less than the melting temperature of the primers
b) Equal to the melting temperature of the primers
c) Higher than the melting temperature of the primers
d) Constant regardless of the melting temperature of the primers
78. The following is possible by plant transformation
a) Transfer of genes from animals to plants
b) Transfer of genes from plants to plants
c) Transfer of genes from human to plants
d) All the above
79. The following may lead to gene silencing

a) Antisense expression b) Cosuppression
b) RNA interference c) All the above
80. The chemical used for chain termination in DNA sequencing

a) dNTP b) ddNTP
c) Termination primer d) EDTA
81. Salt from precipitated DNA can be removed by using

a) Water b) 70% ethanol
c) 50% ethanol d) All the above
82. Movement of DNA in agarose gel is

a) Inversely proportional to the molecular weight
b) Directly proportional to the molecular weight
c) Directly proportional to GC content
d) Directly proportional to AT content
83. Oligo dT can be used to purify

a) RNA b) mRNA
c) Non coding RNA d) All the above
84. The cofactor of Taq DNA polymerase is

a) NAD b) ATP
c) FAD d) MgCl2
85. The study of the molecular organization of genomes, their information
content and the gene products they encode
a) Genetics b) Genomics
c) Ergonomics d) Proteomics
86. Which type of genomics studies similarities and differences among the
genomes of multiple organisms?
a) Comparative genomics b) Structural genomics
c) Functional genomics d) Proteomics
87. Assigning a function for a gene is

a) Cloning b) Annotation
c) Validation d) None
88. The field that is concerned with the management and analysis of biological data
using computers
a) Statistics b) Genomics
c) Bioinformatics d) Cheminformatics
89. Small solid supports on to which are spotted hundreds of thousands of tiny
drops of DNA that can be used to screen gene expression.
a) DNA microarrays b) cDNA library
c) Southern Arrays d) PCR
90. Proteomics is:

a) A branch of quantum physics
b) The study of algal genomes
c) The study of the entire collection of proteins expressed by an organism
d) Analysis of gene expression
91. The first dimension of separation for two-dimensional electrophoresis is

based on
a) Molecular mass b) Isoelectric point
c) Folding d) PH
92. Which of the following is a 3D database

a) PDB b) NCBI
c) EMBL d) PIR
93. Molecular visualization of proteins is done by using

a) Rasmol b) Clustal W
c) Blast d) RAPTOL
94. The suitable server for homology modeling is

a) Swiss PDB viewer b) HEX
c) Autodock d) Dock
95. Human genome contains about

a) 2 billion base pairs b) 3 billion base pairs
c) 4 billion base pairs d) 5 billion base pairs
96. Which one is not the Genome database?

a) GenBank b) TIGR
c) GeneQuiz d) LIGAND
97. To maintain computer files in an orderly fashion means to organize them

a) Hierarchically b) Randomly
c) Linearly d) Orthogonally
98. Software which is used for progressive multiple sequence alignment

a) CLUSTAL W b) OLIGO
c) GA d) HMM
99. Example for literature databases?

a) Medline b) Software biocatalog
c) Flybase archives d) all the above
100. Affymetrix microarray is based on

a) cDNA clones b) oligonucleotides
c) Plasmids d) All the above
GIS (Section code 09)


(h) b) c) Zero d) one
(h) b) c) d)

(g) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)
(h) b)
c) d)
(h) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

(h) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

a) b) c) d)
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero
a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
11. The art of obtaining information about an object without being in physical
contact with it is known as
a) Photogrammetry
b) Optics
c) Remote sensing
d) Satellite Imaging
12. Photogrammetry is a
a) Advanced Surveying
b) Irrigation of Hydrology
c) Analysis of Structural
13. The Photographs used in Photogrammetry are

a) Aerial Photos and Terrestrial Photos
b) Color photos
c) B&W photos
d) Color and B& W Photos
14. Application of Phototgrammetry

a) Road Alignment
b) Environmental Management
c) Management and Planning of Urban
d) All the above
15. Ballistic cameras are used for

a) Positions in ground
b) GCP- Find out
c) To calculate satellite trajectory
16. The degree of tilt in a tilted photograph is

a) 1° to 3°
b) 1° to 7°
c) 1° to 6°
d) 1° to 5°
17. ------------controls the amount of light entering the photographic camera

a) Lens
b) Shutter
c) Aperture
d) Diaphragm
18. Horizon is visible in
a) Vertical photograph
b) Tilted photograph
c) Low-oblique photograph
d) High-oblique photograph
19. The radial displacement of the image visible on the vertical photograph due
to topography is known as
a) Vertical distance
b) Relief displacement
c) Relief distance
d) Relief difference
20. The art and science of recording, measuring and interpreting photographs is
known as
a) Remote sensing
b) Photogrammetry
c) Cartography
21. The point on the ground coinciding with the optical axis of the camera is
known as
a) Principle point
b) Fiducial point
c) Nadir
d) Floating mark
22. Orthophotos are

a) Photographs without distortions
b) Photographs with distortions
c) Photographs with relief displacement
d) Photographs with tilt
23. Stereo pair Images are generated by

a) Overlapping two Images
b) Non-Overlapping two Images
c) Over-lapping 3-Images
d) None of these above
24. Relief displacement is defined as

a) Change in Height
b) Change Shape
c) Change in Size
d) All
25. Use of Stereoscope:

a) Elimination of Parallax
b) 3D-viewing
c) Exact Projection of Height visualized
d) All
26. Titled photogrammetry requires

a) Geometric Correction
b) Linear Correction
c) Angular Correction
d) All
27. Ortho photo are defined

a) Rectified photo
b) Uniform scale photo
c) Geometrically Environment photo
d) All
28. SOI stands for
a) Soil and Oceanographic department of India
b) Survey of India
c) Soil of India
d) All of the above
29. Which of the following is a surveying technique?

a) Trilateration
b) Electronic distance measurement
c) Reckoning
d) All of the above
30. Panchromatic images mean

a) Black and white images
b) Colored images
c) Both a and b
31. The arrangement of electromagnetic energy according to wavelength or

frequency is known as
a) Electronic spectrum
b) Magnetic spectrum
c) Electromagnetic spectrum
d) Electronic distance measurement
32. Wavelength range for the visible region ranges between

a) Gamma<UV<Radio waves<visible<microwave<infrared
b) Gamma <microwaves < Radio waves < visible <UV < infrared
c) Gamma <Microwave < Radio waves <Visible < Microwave < UV
d) Gamma <UV < visible <Infrared < micro waves < radio waves
33. The region of atmosphere through which the electromagnetic radiations

passes without attenuation is
a) Atmospheric influences
b) Atmospheric doors
c) Atmospheric widows
d) Atmospheric greenhouse
34. Part of the electromagnetic energy is reflected from the surface of the matter,
is called
a) Scattering.
b) Emission.
c) Absorption.
d) Transmission
35. _____________ is the type scattering, which is independent to wavelength.

a) Mie Scattering.
b) Rayleigh Scattering
c) Non-Selective scattering
d) None.
36. The IRS stands for
a) International Resource satellite
b) Indian Remote Sensing Satellite
c) Indian Regional Satellite
d) None of the above.
37. Rayleigh scattering affects

a) Shortwave visible region
b) Long wave region
c) Infrared region
d) Microwave region
38. Which of the following wavelength band is absorbed by Chlorophyll present

in the leaf?
a) Red and Green
b) Red and Blue
c) Blue and Green
d) Red and Blue
39. The size of the smallest object that can be discriminated by the sensor is
a) Spectral resolution
b) Spatial resolution
c) Radiometric resolution
d) Temporal resolution
40. Wavelength bands centered at 0.45 and 0.67 µm are often known as
a) Chlorophyll absorption bands
b) Water absorption bands
c) Normal wavelength bands
d) Soil absorption bands
41. Reflection from a flat surface is known as

a) Diffuse reflection
b) Specular reflection
c) EMR reflection
d) All the above
42. Reflected radiation used for remote sensing is

a) X-ray
b) Visible
c) Gamma rays
d) Radio waves
43. Which of the following is not a meteorological satellite?

a) NOAA
b) INSAT
c) GOES
d) IKONS
44. RADAR stands for

a) Radio Audio Development and Research
b) Regional application for Data Analysis and Research
c) Radio Detection and Ranging
45. Which of the following images having given spatial resolution will show
more detail?
a) 15.m
b) 5.8m
c) 23.5m
d) 0.61m
46. Cartosat-1 has the spatial resolution of

a) 5m
b) 2m
c) 2.5m
d) 1.5m
47. GIS stands for

a) Graphical Interface system
b) Geographical International society
c) Geographical Information system
d) Geo intelligence system
48. Raster data is represented by

a) Line
b) Points
c) Polygons
d) Grids
49. Smallest unit of the picture is

a) Cell
b) Pixel
c) Pictorial unit
d) Pascal
50. NAVSTAR stands for

a) Navigation Satellite with Time and Ranging
b) Navigation and Virtual Satellite for Television and Radios
c) Navigation and Versatile Satellite
51. GPS stands for

a) Global Postal System
b) Global Positioning Satellite
c) Global Positioning System
d) Global Pointing System
52. Satellite clock is made up of

a) Rubidium and quartz
b) Rubidium and cesium
c) Rubidium and francium
d) Quartz
53. ___________ used to measures the co-ordinates of the object on the Earth’s
surface.
a) GPS
b) Clinometer
c) Compass.
d) Total station.
54. At present ___________ GPS satellites are operational

a) 24
b) 30
c) 20
d) 27
55. The two GPS carrier waves are

a) L1 and L2
b) C and A code
c) P and Y code
56. The code denied for Military purpose is

a) Y-code
b) P-code
c) L-code
d) S-code
57. The properties that should be preserved while preparing a map are
a) Distance
b) Conformability
c) Area
d) All of the above
58. Vehicle to carry the sensor is

a) Sensor setup
b) Platform
c) Detector
d) Processing
59. Device to detect electromagnetic radiation:

a) Detectors
b) Sensors
c) Platforms
d) All the above
60. When the sensor uses light system generated from its own source it is known
as
a) Passive remote sensing system
b) Active remote sensing system
c) Both of above
61. IFOV stands for

a) International Field Observations
b) Indian Field Observatory
c) Instantaneous Field of View
62. AWIFS stands for

a) Advanced Wire Field System
b) Advanced Wise Field Sensor
c) Advanced Wide Field Sensor
63. SLAR stands for

a) Side Landing Airborne Rocket
b) Side Looking Airborne Radar
c) Satellite Lidar and Radar
d) All the above
64. IRS-ID-LISS IV Satellite is

a) Indian Satellite.
b) American Satellite.
c) French.
d) Russian Satellite.
65. The data acquired by the remote sensing system are recorded on
a) CCT.
b) Floppy.
c) CD-Rom.
d) Film.
66. Which of the following methods may be used to input paper maps into a GIS?
a) Manual digitizing
b) Scanning
c) Automatic digitizing
d) All of the above
67. A buffer zone around a point feature will be a

a) Circle
b) Rectangle
c) Square
d) Surface
68. On which of the following the vector data model is based?

a) Pixels
b) Line, Point & Polygon
c) Grids
69. On which of the following the raster data model is based?
a) Grid cells or pixels
b) Coordinates
c) Point, line & polygon
d) All the above
70. What does 1 mm on a map drawn at a scale of 1:50,000 represent on the

ground?
a) 5 meters
b) 50 meters
c) 500 centimeters
d) 50 centimeters
71. The abbreviation CCD means

a) Circular Circuit Display
b) Circular Couple Device
c) Charged Circuit Disc
d) Charged Couple Disc
72. Panchromatic film stands for

a) Black & White
b) Red & Black
c) Blue & gray
d) Red & Green
73. Population data is a type of

a) Attribute data
b) Spatial data
c) Vector data
d) Measurable data
74. Which of the following is not a data structure?

a) Hierarchal
b) Relational
c) Network
d) Overlay
75. Parent-Child data relationship database is known as

a) Hierarchal
b) Relational
c) Network
d) All the above
76. Which of the following is not the data input technique for computer?
a) Scanning
b) Digitizing
c) Printing
d) All the above
77. Which of the following is not a map overlay technique?

a) Point in polygon
b) Line in polygon
c) Point in line
d) Polygon in polygon
78. DBMS stand for?

a) Database Maintain Software
b) Digital Base Mapping System
c) Database Management System
d) Database Manipulation Software
79. Server Principles involve

a) Connecting all the clients
b) Connecting all the software
c) Connecting all the clients to the printer
d) All the above
80. Name of the secondary storage device in the computer system is

a) Hard disk.
b) Floppy.
c) CD or Compact-Disk.
d) All the above.
81. What is the chance that a leap year selected at random will contain 53
Sundays?
a) 2/7
b) 7/2
c) 3/7
d) 7/3
82. A bag contains 3 red, 6 white and 7 blue balls, what is the probability that two
balls drawn are white and blue?
a) 7/20
b) 8/20
c) 20/7
d) 6/20
83. ISO-hyets are drawn by

a) Joining of rain gauge stations.
b) Drawing perpendiculars lines
c) Drawing lines of equal elevations.
d) Drawing lines of equal precipitation depth for a given rainguages
84. Wind erosion is caused by

a) Storms of high intensity.
b) Poor management of land resources
c) Poor maintenance of soil
d) All the above.
85. Watershed management is

a) To conserve the water
b) To conserve the soil
c) To conserve the soil and water
86. Soil Erosion by raindrops is called

a) Rill erosion
b) Inter –rill erosion
c) Splash erosion
d) Sheet erosion
87. Which soil type has a low detachability rate?.

a) Find clay
b) Coarse soil
c) Silt loam
d) Organic matter
88. Water harvesting primarily means

a) Collection and preservation of rainwater
b) Harvesting water from drains
c) Diverting water to rivers
d) Removal of excess water from fields
89. In an Embankment, the core is made of a material which is

a) Impermeable
b) Permeable
c) Porous
d) Sandy
90. Sand dunes deposit is developed by

a) Sea
b) Wind
c) Glacier
d) Earth quakes
91. Marble is a type of

a) Volcanic rock
b) Plutonic rock
c) Sedimentary rock
d) Metamorphic rock
92. Evaporation is measured by

a) Infiltrometer
b) Pan-Evaporimeter
c) Iso-heights
d) None of these.
93. Kharif season falls during

a) Jan-May.
b) Oct-April.
c) June-Sept.
d) March-October.
94. Hydrological cycle consists of
a) Precipitation
b) Evaporation
c) Transpiration
d) All of these
95. Hydrograph is related to

a) Rainfall vs Time.
b) Rainfall vs Runoff.
c) Runoff vs Time.
d) All the above.
96. Detachment of soil particles due to action of wind and water is called
a) Erosion
b) Sedimentation
c) Siltation
d) All the above
97. Rainfall is measured by the instruments of

a) Floating method
b) Tipping Bucket.
c) Simen Rain gauge.
d) All the above.
98. Which of the following materials has the highest porosity?

a) Clay
b) Silt.
c) Sand
d) Gravel
99. The ground surface is means of irregular elevation and depressions, shapes,
plains are called.
a) Topography
b) Geography
c) Geology
d) Land forms
100. It is a slow or sudden downhill movement of slope forming surface materials

under the force of gravity.
a) Earth Quake
b) Tsunami
c) Land Slide
d) All the above
Environmental (Section code 10)


(i) b) c) Zero d) one
(i) b) c) d)

(h) (a,a) b) c) (a,0) d) (1,1)
(i) b)
c) d)
(i) (0,0) b) (0,1) c) (1,0) d) Nowhere analytic

(i) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

a) b) c) d)
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) zero
a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
11. In thermosphere, the temperature reaches a value of about --- at 500C.

a) 400oC b) 600o C c) 300oC d) 1200oC
12. Nitric oxide is generated in

a) Forest Fires b) Industrial and Domestic heating
c) Internal combustion engines d) All
13. Hydrosphere includes

a) Ocean and seas b) Rivers, lakes and streams
c) Glaciers d) All
14. The science which deals with the study of soil is called
a) Soil science b) Pedology c) Edaphology d) All
15. Wetlands generally do not provide

(a) Food b) Timber c) Fuel wood d) All
16. Which of the following life process are controlled by temperature?

a) Reproduction b) Migration
c) Rate of embryonic Development d) All
17. Which of the following factors are responsible sometimes for affecting the
Coloration of certain animals?
a) Temperature b) Humidity c) Light ( d)
All
18. Which of the following activity in plants is affected by temperature?

a) Morphology b) Physiology
c) Biochemistry d) Distribution
19. The activities of plants are influenced by

a) Quality of light (wavelength) b) Quantity of light (Intensity)
c) Duration of light d) All
20. Nitrogen is an essential Constituent of

a) Chlorophyll b) DNA c) RNA d) All
21. Which of the following are natural ecosystems?

a) Pond b) Lake c) Ocean d) All
22. Which of the following are the important sinks for most atmospheric gases?
a) Oceans b) Plants c) Vegetation d)
All
23. Which of the following is the product of anaerobic biological decay?

a) NH3 b) H2S c) CH4 d) All
24. Which of the following is the major individual primary pollutants emitted by
automobile exhaust?
a) NOx b) SO2 c) CO d) O3
25. Which of the following nitrogen oxide is the major air pollutant released from
exhaust of automobiles?
a) NO b) N2O c) NO2 d) N2 O5
26. In Sonox process a nitrogen containing additive is used which is generally,
a) Urea b) Ammonia c) Thiourea d) Ammonium Chloride
27. Carbogen is a mixture of

a) O2 and CO2 b) O2 and CO c) O2 and Cl2 d) O2 and He
28. Solids in gas aerosol particles includes,

a) Dust b) Smoke c) Fly ash d) Pollen grains
29. Compared to vehicle powered by the internal combustion engines, fuel cell
powered vehicles
a) Have very high energy conversion efficiency
b) Almost zero pollution
c) Emit CO2 and water vapor only
d) All are correct
30. The reaction O2 + hv ? O + O, could occur if the wavelength of radiation is

a) > 240 nm b) < 240nm c) 230-320 nm d) > 400 nm
31. The quality of spring water mainly depends on geological and topographical
conditions. So spring water may be
a) Hard or soft b) Pure or Polluted c) Saline or Alkalined) All
32. Odour in water can be eliminated by using

a) Activated carbon b) Chlorination c) Aeration d) Chlorine dioxide
33. Thermal power plants pollute the water by adding

a) Heavy metals b) Heat c) Dissolved solids d) Inorganic Compounds
34. Which of the following coagulant is temperature and pH sensitive?

a) FeSO4 .7 H2O b) Al2 (SO4)3. 18 H2O c) FeCl3 d) All
35. Which of the following can be used independently as coagulant with lime?
a) Ferric Sulphate b) Ferric chloride c) Both d) None
36. The following salts present in boiler feed water may cause explosion and
corrosion.
a) MgSO2 b) Mg Cl2 c) Na d) None
37. Which of the following waste often have higher BOD values than COD
values?
a) Textile waste b) Diary waste c) Paper and pulp waste d) All
38. Water tends to move down the soil by

a) Cracks created by drying b) Earthworms
c) Roots of plants d) All
39. On the basis of water retention by soil , water may be classified as

a) Gravitational water b) Capillary water
c) Hydroscopic water d) All
40. Atypical soil consist of

a) A number of elements b) Trace elements
c) Inorganic Compounds d) All
41. The principal adverse effects of organ chlorines on humans include,

a) Cancer b) Reproductive and development impairment
c) Effects on liver and kidney functions d) Neurological impairment
42. The commonly used biopesticides source are :

a) Bacillus thirugenesis b) Baculoviruses
c)Trichoderma and trichogramma d) All
43. What is RAD?

a) Radiation b) Radiation antidose
c) Radiation absorbed dose d) All
44. Gray unit is equivalent to

a) 10 rads b) 100 rads c) 100 rads d) 0.1 rad
45. Natural radioactive elements are

a) Present in soil b) Present in rocks c) Formed by Cosmic rays d) All
46. The discharge of low level radioactive wastes is not entirely safe in
a) Rivers b) Seas c) Oceans d) All
47. Which of the following statement are correct for a coal based plants?
a) It emits SO2 in the atmosphere b) It emits nitrogen oxides in
atmosphere
c) It is responsible for causing acid rain d) All
48. Which of the following statements are correct for thermal pollution?
a) It decreases the dissolve oxygen content of water
b) It changes the properties of water
c) It increases the toxicity of poison present in water
d) All
49. Bursting of crackers on Diwali causes

(a) Noise pollution b) Air pollution c) Particulate pollution d) All
50. Breast milk may contain

a) Dioxins b) DDT c) Polychlorinated biphenyls d) All
51. Chromium has been found to be present in

a) Hairs b) Nails c) Blood d) All
52. No liquid can exists as liquid at

a) – 273 K b)Vacuum c) Zero pressure d) Space
53. Which of the following is not the intensive property?

a) Heat b) Pressure c) Temperature d) Density
54. One Watt is equal to
a) 1 N/m b) 1 Nm/s c) 1 Nm/h d) 1 Nm
55. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the adiabatic index n is equal
to
a) 1.1 b) 1.25 c)1.4 d)1.0
56. heat engine is supplied with heat rate of 30,000 J/s and gives output of 9 kW.
Thermal efficiency of engine will be
a) 30% b) 33% c) 40% d) 50%
57. Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum when the cut-off is

a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Zero d) One
58. Second law of thermodynamics defines

a) Enthalpy b) Entropy c) Temperature d) Work
59. Expansion process in nozzles is a

a) Isothermal b) Isobaric c) Isochoric d) Isentropic
60. Flameless combustion means

a) Inert gas combustion b) Invisible combustion
c) Catalytic combustion d) Combustion in vacuum
61. The theoretical air fuel ratio in petrol engine is

a) 6:1 b) 9:1 c) 12:1 d)16:1
62. The spark plug gap is normally maintained at

a) 0.2 mm b) 0.3 mm c) 0.4 mm d) 0.5 mm
63. Sulphur content in Diesel oil should not be more than

a) 10% b) 5% c) 1% d) 0.1%
64. Why pH measurement is an important factor in water analysis?

a) Measures acidity and alkalinity b) Gives pure water
c) Kills bacteria d) All
65. What is BOD?

a) Maximum amount of oxygen required
b) Minimum amount of oxygen required
c) Decomposition by chemicals
d) None
66. Why cow dung burning is hazardous to health?

a) Benzopyrene in smokes b) Phosgene in smokes c) Benzene release
d) All
67. What is sewage sludge?

a) Solid waste after treatment b) Liquid waste c) Gases d) All
68. What is land fill operation?
a) Depositing of refuge b) Excavating of land c) Compacting of land
d) All
69. What are biofertilizers?

a) Chemically active products b) Biologically active products
c) Physically active products d) None
70. Why Gamma rays are not regarded as particles?

a) No volume b) No mass c) No weight d) All
71. Cosmic rays are mixtures of corpuscular and electromagnetic radiations?

a) Contain alpha, beta & gamma particles b) Alpha & beta particles
c) Gamma rays d) All
72. Radio active materials that emit alpha or beta particles are known as internal
emitters.
a) It is helpful b) Severely affects the living tissues c) It destroy life
d) None
73. Infrared light is also called heat radiation?

a) Produces warmth in man b) Produces heat c) Produces light
d) None
74. Mention the important factors responsible for the quality of unpleasantness of
Sound waves.
a) Frequency of sound b) Intensity of sound c) Time of exposure d) All
75. When is a sound called musical sound?

a) Periodic b) Regular c) Of long duration d) All
76. The largest noise a man can hear without much discomfort is
a) 80 dB b) 90 dB c) 50 dB d) 110 dB
77. What is loudness?

a) Intensity of sound waves b) Frequency of sound waves
c) Noise d) All
78. What is dB unit?

a) 1/10th of Bel b) 1/110th of Bel c) 1/20th of Bel d) None
79. Name some important sources of chromium

a) Paint industry b) Alloy industry c) Glass industry d) All
80. Cadmium is a cumulative poison. What are the main parts of the body which
are affected by cadmium poisoning?
a) Lungs b) Kidneys c) Respiratory tract d) All
81. What is dental fluorosis?

a) Enamel of teeth loss b) Teeth breaking c) Flourine deposition
d) None
82. Which of the following are known to be extremely toxic?
a) Lead b) Cadmium c) Mercury d) All
83. How copper reaches the aquatic environment

a) Physiological process b) Wet or dry deposition
c) Mining action d) None
84. What is solid waste?

a) Organic material b) Inorganic material c) Both a & b d) None
85. What is biomethanization?

a) Production of methane b) Production of Biogas
c) Decomposition d) All
86. Why press mud is used as manure?

a) Rich in organic matter b) High calorific value
c) Good quality d) All
87. TIN stands for

a) Triangular Irregular network b) Triangle Irrigational Network
c) Both a and b d) None
88. The system for referring location and the earth is known as
a) Attribute system b) Quardinate system
c) Raster system d) Vector system
89. RF stands for

a) Representation fraction b) Refraction factor
c) Rotation factor d) All
90. In conical projection which of the following property preserved

a) Direction b) Motion
c) Mass d) Equation
91. Azimuthal projection is best suited for

a) Mountain region b) Terrain region
c) Polar region d) All
92. The geographical coordinate system that make use of network of parallel and
meridian is known as
a) Graticule b) Direction
c) Line d) Parallel
93. The representation of real world picture with in the spatial frame work of a
particular coordinate system known as
a) Projection b) Map
c) Globe d) All
94. Buffer zone around a point feature will be a

a) Circle b) Point
c) Line d) Polygon
95. The remote sensing image is a
a) True colour b) False colour composite
c) Both a and b d) None
96. Along track scanning is known as

a) Push broom b) Whisk broom
c) White broom d) Red broom
97. The first satellite of India

a) IRS b) Aryabhatta
c) Chandrayan-1 d) Geo-eye
98. The raster data model is based on which of the following

a) Grid cells or Pixels b) Tessellations
c) Pessellations d) All
99. What does 1mm on a map drawn at scale of 1in 50000 represented on the
ground?
a) 25m b) 50m c) 75m d) 100m
100. Which of the following is not a type of map projection?

a) Geographic b) Topography
c) Stereograph d) Monograph
Food Processing (Section code 11)
1. Which is not a Indicator microorganism?

a) Listeria monocytogenes
b) Mycobacterium tuberclosis
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Staphylococcus areas
2. Example for food intoxication is

a) Botulism
b) Yersiniosis
c) Shigellosis
d) Vibriosis
3. Food containing live microorganisms to actively enhance health by improving
the balance of micro flora in the gut is called as
a) Pre biotic
b) Probiotic
c) Biotic
d) All the above
4. Which is not a probiotic organism?
a) L.fermentum
b) B.lactis
c) Streptococcus thermophilus
d) None of these
5. The term single cell protein was coined by
a) C.L. Wilson
b) Nicolas appret
c) C.L.William
d) Jhonson.S
6. Which is not a fermented product from milk?
a) Cheese
b) Yogurt
c) Kefir
d) Tempeh
7. Destruction of pathogenic organism is called as
a) Pasteurization
b) Sterilization
c) Destruction
d) None of these
8. Time temperature combination for HTST
a) 72o C for 15 sec
b) 70o C for 15 sec
c) 62o C for 15 sec
d) 75o C for 15 sec
9. Which is not an Antioxidant?
a) Butylated hydroxy anisole (BHA)
b) Butylated hydroxy toulene (BHT)
c) t-butyl hydroxy quinoline(TBHQ)
d) EDTA
10. Which has the optimum temperature range between 10 to 15 °C for easy
growth?
a) Thermophillic organism
b) Mesophillic organism
c) Psychrophillic organism
d) Psychrotrophs
11. By using hullers the average yield of white rice is obtained as

a) 55-62%
b) 62-64%
c) 65-67%
d) 68-71%
12. pH of honey is
a) 2.3 to 2.9
b) 3.2 to 4.2
c) 5.6 to 6.9
d) 7.0 to 8.1
13. D value is indicated in
a) Minute
b) Degree Fahrenheit
c) Log number
d) Degree centigrade
14. In jam and jellies, which of the following is most likely to be responsible for
the spoilage?
a) Bacteria only
b) Molds only
c) Yeast and molds
d) Yeasts, molds and bacteria
15. Which model is used to explain the cell structure of bacteria?
a) Fluid mosaic model

b) pumkin model
c) Pasteur model
16. Preservation of foods in sealed containers and which usually implies heat
treatment s the principal factor in the prevention of spoilage is called
a) Cold sterilization
b) Canning
c) Aseptic packaging
d) Simmering
17. Mordant is used in staining of flagella

a) Ethyl chloride
b) Tannic acid
c) Cetyl pyramidine chloride
d) Pottassium picolinate
18. Alcohol content is beer is (by weight)
a) 3-4%
b) 5-12%
c) 20-23%
d) 35-38%
19. Which staining technique is best suited to know the shape of microorganism?
a) Positive staining
b) Negative staining
c) Fluorescent staining
d) Acid fast staining
20. Rum is
a) Distilled liquor
b) Un Distilled liquor
c) Fortified wine
d) By product of brewing industry
21. Fourier’s Law of heat conduction applies to

a) Convection
b) Conduction
c) Radiation
d) All the above
22. 1 gm mole of the gaseous substance occupies

a) 22.414 lit
b) 22.414 kg
c) 22.414 gm
d) 22.414 cm3
23. Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity?

a) Brick
b) Sand
c) Copper
d) Wood
24. Kopps rule is used to find

a) Heat capacity of solids
b) Molar heat capacity of gaseous
c) Activation energy
d) Heat capacity of liquids
25. Dry air is a mixture
a) Vapours
b) Gases
c) Both a) and b)
d) Either a) or b)
26. Claussius Clapergron equation applies to ------processes

a) Sublimation
b) Melting
c) Vaporization
d) All the above
27. Economy of an evaporator is influenced by

a) Steam pressure
b) Temperature of the feed
c) Number of effect
d) Both b and c
28. In a continuous stirred tank Bio reactor all the cells will be completely
washout when D is
a) 1
b) <1
c) >1
d) 0
29. In a single effect evaporator, the economy is

a) 1
b) <1
c) >1
d) none of theses
30. The rate of cell death follows--------------kinetics

a) Second order
b) Zero order
c) First order
d) Both b) and c)
31. ----------- chart is a graph related to Antoine equation

a) Ostwald
b) COX
c) Mollier’s
d) Enthalpy Concentration
32. The dimension of dynamic viscosity is

a) L-1T-1
b) L2T-1
c) LT-2
d) ML-1T-2
33. The value of gas constant ‘R’ is ----- Kcal/Kg mole C

a) 2.79
b) 1.987
c) 3.99
d) None of these
34. Idli is a
a) Natural food
b) Non vegetarian food
c) Fermented food
d) Baked food
35. What may be a reason for the relative success of bacterial forms?
a) Rapid multiplication in number
b) High surface area to volume
c) Rapid metabolic rates
d) All of them
36. The quantity of heat required to raise 1 kg of a substance by 1o C is known as

a) Sensible heat
b) Specific heat
c) Latent heat
d) Calorie
37. Velocity of steam in a pipe depends on

a) Number of bends
b) Length of pipe
c) Specific volume of steam
38. In a sterilized soap bubble, pressure inside it compare to external pressure is

a) More
b) Less
c) Equal
d) Unpredictable
39. The unit of kinematic viscosity is

a) Kg/m sec
b) N/m2
c) m2 /sec
d) m/N sec
40. Wheat is ground into flour in a

a) Roller crusher
b) Impact mill
c) Hammer crusher
d) Fluid energy mill
41. Holo enzyme is

a) Protein part along with non-protein part of an enzyme
b) Prosthetic group
c) Non-protein part of an enzyme
d) Protein part of an enzyme
42. One of the follwing is coenzyme

a) ATP
b) Riboflavin
c) NADH2
d) Iron
43. Coenzymes are vitamins

a) True
b) False
c) True but not all vitamins
d) None of these
44. Ribose is a
a) Ketopentose
b) Aldohexose
c) Keto hexose
d) Aldoketose
45. Amylose is
a) Heteropolysaccharide
b) Straight chain homo polysaccharide
c) Branched chain polysaccharide
d) Protein
46. The carbohydrate moiety in bacterial cells

a) Peptidoglycon
b) Glucose and glucose
c) Galactose and galactose
d) Galactose and glucose
47. Milk sugar is ---------------- and cane sugar is -------------------
a) Lactose and sucrose
b) Sucrose and lactose
c) Glucose and sucrose
d) Lactose and sucrose
48. Protein component of egg is
a) Casein
b) Albumin
c) Olein
d) Linolein
49. Protein calorie malnutrition (PCM) leads to the disease
a) Kwashiorkor and Marasmus
b) Anemia
c) Beri beri
d) Dwarfism
50. --------------is one of the amino fatty acids.
a) Glycine
b) DOPA
c) Tryptophan
d) linoleic acid
51. Site of Tri carboxylic acid
a) Cytolpasm of cells
b) Mitochondria
c) Lysosomes
d) Peroxysomes
52. Every NADH2 yields --------- ATP molecules during electron transport
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 5
53. The other name for vitamin A is
a) Calciferol
b) Niacin
c) Retinol
d) Ascorbic acid
54. --------------is anti haemorrhagic vitamin
a) Vitamin K
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin C
55. Iodine deficiency in human beings lead to the disease called
a) Osteoporosis
b) Blindness
c) Anemia
d) Goitre
56. Acetyl COA acid is
a) 3 carbon compound
b) 2 carbon compound
c) 5 carbon compound
57. Site of photolysis of water
a) Grana thylakoids of plastids
b) Cytoplasm
c) Mitochondria
d) Golgi apparatus
58. Deposition of excess fat molecules in inner wall of artery leads to
a) Aterio sclerosis
b) Jaundice
c) Beriberi
d) None of these
59. Transcription is the process of

a) Generation of mRNA from nuclear DNA
b) De nova synthesis of protein
c) Cleavage of heterogeneous RNA
d) Synthesis of long chain fatty acids.
60. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are
a) Vitamins
b) Lipolytic enzyme
c) Therapeutic agents
d) Proteolytic enzymes
61. Food containing live microorganisms to actively enhance health by improving
the balance of micro flora in the gut is called as
a) Pre biotic
b) Probiotic
c) Biotic
d) All the above
62. Entrance of microorganisms into the body through the ingestion of

contaminated foods is called
a) Food infection
b) Food intoxication
c) Food contamination
d) None of these
63. Among these which one is a bacterium?
a) Alternaria
b) Monilla
c) Cryptococcus
d) Pediococcus
64. What is the antimicrobial constituent present in eggs
a) Allicin
b) Lysozyme
c) Allyl isothiocynate
d) Eugenol
65. Cereal grains are ……..in nature

a) Hydrophilic
b) Hydrophobic
c) Hydrothermal
d) Non thermal
66. Percentage of Bran in Wheat is
a) 13%
b) 18%
c) 14%
d) 12%
67. The differential speed b/w in the break roll is
a) 1:2.5
b) 2.5:1
c) 2:2.5
d) 3:2.5
68. In Parboiling ,Gelatinization of starch takesplace during
a) Soaking
b) Drying
c) Heating
d) Steaming
69. What are the raw materials can be used to manufacture fishmeal
a) high fat fish
b) small by catch fish
c) waste from fish processing & filleting plants
d) all the above
70. ________ is the process to remove high melting glycerides in the oil
a) degerming
b) winterization
c) both a&b
71. _________ can serve as a good raw material for the preparation of amino acids
a) Fish protein
b) Meat protein
c) Both a and b
72. Which dairy product contains gelatin?

a) butter
b) cheese
c) icecream
d) rabri
73. What is fat:casein ratio in cheddar cheese making?
a) 1:0.38 to 1:0.40
b) 1:0.48 to 1:0.50
c) 1:0.58 to 1:0.60
d) 1:0.68 to 1:0.70
74. When the milk flows through the homogenisation value
a) pressure head increases
b) velocity head increases
c) velocity head decreases
d) pressure head is equal to velocity
75. Unsaturated fatty are stabilized by

a) hydrogenation
b) antioxidants
c) cold storage
d) all the above
76. Linoleic acid is example of

a) essential fatty acid
b) b. saturated fatty acid
c) c. unsaturated fatty acid
d) d. poly unsaturated fatty acid
77. The common pigment used in glass manufacturing is
a) Dye
b) Metal salt
c) Cashew nut shell oil
d) none of these
78. Biodegradable plastics is degradable

a) completely within short time
b) partially within short time
c) partially even after long period
79. For O2 sensitive food, best packaging method is

a) MHP
b) Vacuum
c) MAP
d) shrink-film wrapping technique
80. Acid content in jelly is

a) 0.2 to 0.3
b) 0.1 to 0.2
c) 0.4 to 0.5
d) 0.5 to 0.7
81. Recommended head space for can is
a) 0.3 to 0.5cm
b) 0.1 to 0.2cm
c) 0.8 to 1cm
d) head space is not needed
82. FPO recommended dosage level of so2 in fruit juice is
a) 200ppm
b) 500ppm
c) 700ppm
d) totally banned
83. Ham is made from

a) Tie of pig
b) Rips of pig
c) Belly of pig
d) All the above
84. When Rigor mortis occurs
a) a.Before death
b) b.After death
c) c.Both a and b
d) d. None of these
85. Edible sausage casing is made with
a) a)Sheep Gut
b) b.Polyethylene bags
c) Esophagus
d) d.All the above
86. The wastes from meat industry are utilized by the process
a) Steam smoking
b) Rendering
c) Smoking
d) None of these
87. Large crystals are formed at

a) slow cooling
b) Fast cooling
c) a & b
88. Distribution of components between a vapor phase and a liquid phase is
called
a) crystallization
b) distillation
c) evaporation
d) mechanical separation
89. Membrane pore size for reverse osmosis is

a) 10-3-10-2
b) b)10-2-10-3
c) 10-4-10-3
d) d)10-1-10+1
90. Sedimentation by forming agglomerates or clusters is called

a) flotation
b) flocculation
c) gravity settling
91. Rate of penetration of medium into a bacterial cell does not depend on
a) Nutrient of medium
b) Growth phase
c) Temperatures
92. Which of the following statements is /are correct?
a) Growth rate is reciprocal of generation time

b) Generation time of Bacillus subtitles is 8 min at 370 C in broth
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
93. The difference between a chemostat and turbidostat is /are
a) The dilution rate in a turbidostat varies and in chemostat it is constant

b) Unlike chemostat, turbidostat does not have any limiting nutrient
c) Turbidostat operates best at high dilution rates, the chemostat is most
stable an effective at lower dilution rate
d) All of the above
94. Turbidostat and chemostat are
a) Continuous culture system

b) Instrument to enumerate the microbial cells
c) Type of sterilizer
d) Type of fermenter
95. The rate of nutrient exchange in a chemostat is expressed as

a) Maintenance energy
b) Dilution rate
c) Flow rate of medium through the culture vessel
96. Which of the following stains can be used to differentiate between dead and
living cells?
a) Acridine orange
b) Methylene blue
c) Resazurin
d) All of the above
97. DEFT is based on
a) Conductance
b) Direct microbial count using microscope
c) Turbidity
d) Cellular activity
98. Total plate count method is being expressed in
a) Number of cell/ml
b) C.F.U./ml
c) Optical density
99. During the dye reduction test using reassuring the colour change taking place
is
a) Blue to green
b) Green to blue
c) Pink to blue
d) Blue to pink
100. Most heat resistant spores is
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Clostridium botalinum
c) Cl. sporogenes
d) Bacillus stearothermophillus
ANSWER
Q.No Ans
1 d
2 b
3 d
4 a
5 b
6 a
7 d
8 c
9 c
10 c
11 d
12 a
13 d
14 c
15 b
16 d
17 b
18 c
19 a
20 b
21 c
22 c
23 d
24 b
25 c
26 a
27 a
28 c
29 d
30 b
31 a
32 a
33 a
34 d
35 c
36 d
37 b
38 c
39 d
40 d
41 b
42 c
43 c
44 a
45 b
46 b
47 d
48 c
49 b
50 a
51 c
52 b
53 d
54 c
55 c
56 b
57 d
58 c
59 d
60 a
61 d
62 a
63 c
64 a
65 c
66 a
67 b
68 a
69 c
70 a
71 d
72 a
73 b
74 d
75 b
76 d
77 d
78 c
79 a
80 a
81 c
82 c
83 d
84 c
85 d
86 b
87 c
88 b
89 b
90 c
91 a
92 a
93 c
94 c
95 b
96 b
97 a
98 c
99 b
100 b
MODE L QUESTI ONS – B.Tech
Part 1. - Physics
1. Which of the following pairs DOES NOT have the same dim ensions?
a) frequency and angular frequency

b) angu lar velocity and veloc ity gradient
c) velocity gradient and angu lar frequency
d) angu lar frequency and potential energy gradient
2. The velocity of a particle depends upon t as V = A + Bt + ct 2 . If velocity is in m/s, the unit

of A will be
a)m/s b) m/s2 c) m.s d) m2/s
3. Which of the following fou r statements is false ?
a) A body can have zero velocity and still be accelerated

b) A body can have a constant velocity and still have a varying speed
c) A body can have a constant speed and still have a varying velocity
d) The direction of the velocity of a body can chan ge when its acceleration is constant
4. The displacement x of a body in motion is given by x = a sin ( ω t+ θ ). The time at which

the displacement is max imum is:
θ  π θ  π   2π θ 
a) b)  −  c)   d)  − 
ω  2ω ω   2ω   ω ω
5. The position of a particle moving along x – axis is given by x = 3t – 4t 2 +t 3 , where x is in

metre and t in seconds . The average velocity of the particle in the time interval from t = 2
seconds to t = 4 seconds is
a) 7m/s b) 1 m/s c) 13m/s d) None of these
6. An object A of mass 2 kg is moving with a veloc ity of 3 ms −1 and collides head on with an
object B of mass 1 kg moving in the opposite direction with a velocity of 4 ms −1 . After
co llision both objects coalesce so that they move with a common v elocity v equal to
2
a) ms −1 b) 1 ms −1 c) 2 ms −1 d) 3 ms −1
3
7. The motion of planets in the solar system is an example of conservation of
a) mass
b) momentum
c) angular momentum
d) kinetic energy
8. The velocity time graphs of two bodies A and B are shown in figure. The ratio of their
acceleration is:
a) 1 : 3 b) 1 : 3 c) 3 :1 d) 3 : 2
9. For a satellite, escape velocity is 11 km . If the satellite is launched at an angle of 60 0 with

s
the vertical, then escape velocity will be
11
a) 11 km/s b) 11 3 km/s c) km/s d) 33 km/s
3
10. There are two bodies of masses 100 kg and 10,000 kg separated by a distance of 1m. At what
distance from the smaller body, the intensity of grav itational field will be zero.
a) 1 m b) 1 m c) 1 m d) 10 m
9 10 11 11
11. A liquid will not wet the surface of a solid if its ang le of contact is
a) zero
b) less than 90 0
c) more than 90 0
d) 90 0
12. In a simple harmonic moti on (SHM), which of the following does not hold?
a) The force on the particle is maximum at the ends.

b) The acceleration is minimum at the mean position
c) The potential energy is maximum at the mean position
d) The kinetic energy is maximum at the mean position
13. What will be the wave velocity, if the rad ar gives 54 waves per minute and wavelen gth of the
given wave is 10m?
a) 4 m/s b) 6 m/s c) 9 m/s d) 5 m/s
14. A bomb e xplodes on the moon. How long will it take far the sound to reach the earth?
a) 10 s b) 1000 s c) 1 light year d) None of t hese

15. Two gas es are at absolute temperatures of 300k and 350 k respectively. Ra tio of average
kinetic energy of their molecules is
a) 7 : 6 b) 6 : 7 c) 36 : 49 d) 49 : 36
16. Two identical samples of a gas are allowed to expand a) isothermally b) adiabatically Work
done is
a) more in the isothermal process

b) more in the adiabatic process
c) neither of them
d) equal in both processes
17. An ideal heat engine exhausting heat at 77 0 C is to have 30% efficiency . It must take heat at
a) 127 0 c b) 227 0 c c) 327 0 c d) 673 0 c
18. In a p – n junction having dep letion layer of thickness 10 −6 m the pot en tial across it is 0.1 V.
The electric fie ld is --------------Vm −1
a) 10 7 b) 10 −6 c) 10 5 d) 10 −5
19. The diode used in the circu it shown in the figure has a constant voltage drop of 0.5V at all
currents and a max imum power rating of 100 milliwatts. What should be the value of the
resistor R, connected in ser ies with the diode, for obtaining max imum current?
a) 1.5 Ω b) 5 Ω c) 6.67 Ω d) 200 Ω
20. The mass number of Helium is 4 an d that for sulphur is 32. The radius o f sulphur nucleus is
larger than that of Helium, by
a) 8 times b) 4 times c) 2 times d) 8 times
21. In Nuclear Fission 0.1% mass is converted in to energy. The energy released by the fission
of 1 kg mass will be
a) 9 x 10 16 J b) 9 x 10 19 J c) 9 x 10 13 J d) 9 x 10 17 J
22. Half life of a radioactive substance is 140 days. Initially there is 16g of the substance.
Calculate the time for this substance when it reduces in to 1g.
a) 140 days b) 280 day s c) 420 days d) 560 day s

23. The ratio of the long wavelength limits of the Lyman and Balmer series of hydrogen is
a) 27 : 5 b) 5 : 27 c) 4 : 1 d) 1 : 4
24. Light of wavelen gth 5000 Å falls on a sen sitive plate with photoelectric work function of 1.9
eV. The kinetic energy of the photoe lectron emitted will be
a) 0.58 eV b) 2.48 eV c) 1.24 eV d) 1.16 eV
25. The population inversion necessary for laser action used in solid state l asers is
a) electrical discharge
b) ine lastic atom – atom collision
c) direct conversion
d) optical pumping
26. A magnet of moment 2 Am 2 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 5 Wb/m 2 . If the

magnet experiences a torque of 5 Nm, then the angle between the direction of magnetic field
and magnet is
π π π π
a) b) c) d)
6 4 3 2
27. The reduction factor of a tangent galvanometer is K . If the number of turns and area of cross
section of the coil are do ubled, then the reduction factor becomes
K K
a) b) 2 K c) d) 2 K
2 2
28. The Focal length of a convex lens will be maximum for
a) blue light b) yellow light c) green light d) red light
29. In the Young’ s double slit ex perimen t using sodium light ( λ = 5898 Å), 92 fringes are seen.
If the green colour ( λ = 5461Å is used , how many fringes will be seen
a) 62 b) 67 c) 75 d) 99
30. In the figure distance of the point from A where the electric field is zero is
a) 20 cm b) 10 cm c) 33 cm d) None of these
31. A parallel plate capacitor is first charged and then a dielectric slab is intro duced between the
plates. The quan tity that remains unchanged is
a) charge Q b) Potential V c) Capacity C d) Energy U

32. The equivalent resistance between A & B of the circuit shown in the given figure is
a) 9 Ω b) 4 Ω c) 2 Ω d) 1 Ω
33. As the temperature of hot junction increases, the thermo emf
a) always increases
b) always decreases
c) may increase and decrease
d) always remains constant
34. A moving charge will produce
a) only a magnetic field

b) only a electric field
c) both electric and magnetic field
d) none of these
35. The energy stored in a coil of self inductance 40mH carrying a steady current of 2A is
a) 0.08 J b) 0.8 J c) 80 J d) 8 J
Part 2. – Chemistry
36. In which of th e fo llowing pairs (of molec ules / ions) the central atom has the same hybridisation?
a) XeF 4 & ClO4− b) BeCl 2 & SO 2
c) BH 3 & ClF3 c) NH 3 & NH 4+
37. Dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1 × 10−6 at 25o C. Find the pO H of 0.01 M of its aqueous
solution.
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 10 (d) 12
38. Assertion (A): Molar mass of acetic acid found by the depression of freezing point method, separately in
the solvents water and benzene are different.
Reason (R):Water helps in ionization but benzenebrings association of acetic acid. Identify the correct option.
(a) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct explanation for ‘A’
(b) Both A and R are correct; but R is not the correct explanation for ‘A’
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
39. 2,4,6-Tribromophenol is for med whe n the organic compound ‘X’ reacts with ‘Y’ in the presence of Z.
What are X, Y and Z?
a) C H OH ; Br ; CS b) C H OH ; Br ; H O
6 5 2 2 6 5 2 2
c) d)
C6 H 5CHO; Br2 ; FeBr3 C 6 H 6 ; Br2 ; H 2 O
40. Enthalpy of formation of C 2 H 4 ( g )CO 2 ( g ) and H 2 O(l ) at
25 0 C and I atm pres sure are 52,
− 394 and − 286 KJ/mol respectively. En thalpy of combustion of C 2 H 4 ( g )is
a) +1412 KJ/mol b) -1412 KJ/mol

c) +141.25 KJ/mol d) -141.2 KJ/mol
41. Identify the formula which is applicable to the conversion of 20% of the initial concentration of the
reactant to the product in a first order reaction. (Rate constant = K)
2.303 100 2.303 100

a) t 20% = log b) t 20% = log
5 20 20 K
2.303 5 2.303 K
c) t 20% = log d) t 20% = log
K 4 100 80
42. Chloroform and alcoholic KOH can be used to differentiate -
(a) CH3CHO & CH3COCH3 (b) HCOOH & CH3COOH
(c) CH3NH2 & (CH3) 2NH (d) C2H5OH & CH3OCH3
43. Strongest and the weakest bases among th e hydr oxide s of Lan than ides are respectively −
a) Lu(OH ) 3 & La(OH ) 3 b) La(OH ) 3 & Lu(OH ) 3

c) La(OH ) 3 & Ce(OH ) 3 d) Pm(OH ) 3 & Nd (OH ) 3
44. In a cubic unit cell, the following ato m / ion occ upy th e posit ions as mentioned below.
Na ... In the centre of the cube
W ... (Tung ston) At the corners of the cube
O ... (Oxygen) At the centre of the edges.
(Formula of the compound is - )
(a) NaWO2 (b) NaWO3 (c) Na2WO3 (d) NaWO4
45. In which of the following aspects both physical ad sor ption and che m ical adsorption, resemble?
Both are ......
(a) exothermic (b) multimolecular layered
(c) reversible (d) found more at high temperature
46. Among the following ions, wh ich has the highest spin magnetic moment?
(At . No: Ti = 22; Mn = 25; Ni = 28; Cu = 29).
(a) Cu2+ (b) Ti 3+ (c) Ni2+ (d) Mn2+
47. SO 2 Cl 2 º SO 2 + Cl 2
(g) (g) (g)
At equilibr ium volume of the reaction vessel is incre ase d. As a re sult th e amount of -
(a) SO2 will decrease (b) SO2Cl2 will increase
(c) Cl2 will increase (d) Cl2 will remain unchanged
48. Which of the following reagents can convert acetone to acetic acid?
(a) AgNO3 ; NH4OH (b) LiAlH4
(c) Conc. HCl (d) I 2 , NaOH; dilute HCl
49. A large increa se from the first to the second ionisation energy of an element
‘A ’ ca n be se en i f it s e lec tr onic configuration is -
(a) 1 S 2 2S 2 2P 6 3 S 1 (b) 1S 2 2 S 2 2P 6 3S 2
(c) 1S 2S 2P
2 2 5
(d) 1S 2 2 S 2 2P 6 3S 2 3 P 2
50. K2Cr 2O7 + x KCl + 6 H2SO4 → y Cr O2 Cl2 + 6 KHSO4 + z H2O, x, y and z are resp ectively
(a) 4, 2, 3 (b) 6, 2, 6
(c) 8, 2, 4 (d) 4, 1, 6
51. W hic h o f the fo llow ing re acta nt s combine to produce C6H6, N2 and HCl ?
(a) C6H5N2Cl, Hot H2O (b) C5H5N2Cl, C6H5OH
(c) C6H5N2Cl, HCl, Cu2Cl2 (d) C6H5N2Cl , H3PO2 , H2O
X → l Y + m2 He + n β ° the number of beta particles ‘n’

i h 4
52. In the nuclear transformation of X to Y j −1
is equal to
1
a) (i − K ) b) (l − j ) + 2 m
4
1
c) (l − j ) d) ( K − l ) − 2m
2
53. At a certain temperature vapour pressure of pure water is 3000 Nm−2. To 100 gms of water, 5 gms of non-
electrolyte and non- volatile solute is added. Vapour pressure of the solution is 2985 Nm-2. Assume that
it is a dilute solution, find the molar mass of the solute.
(a) 90 (b) 180 (c) 200 (d) 270
54. Wh ich of th e fo llow ing in pairs is wrongly matched?

I II
(a) Terylene OH − CH2 − CH2OH
(b) Nylon 6,6 NH2CH2(CH2) 4CH2NH2
(c) Buna-S-Rubber C6H5 CH = CH2
(d) Bakelite C2H5OH
55. In the aqueo us medium, which of the following ion is colourless ?
(At. No. of Sc = 21 ; Ti = 22 ; V = 23 & Fe = 26).
(a) Sc 3+ (b) Ti3+ (c) V 3+ (d) Fe 3+
56. Among the following the most stable free radical is −

a) CH 3 CH 2 .
•
b) CH 3 CH CH 3
•
c) CH 3 CH C 6 H 5
d) C 6 H 5 CH 2 CH 2 .
57. X-rays of wave-length 1.14 A in the first order reflection from a crysta l, were reflected at an angle of
30 o.
The inter planar distance in the crystal is (sin 30o is 0.5)
a) 3 .8 A ° b)1.14 A°
c) 0.342 A° d) 2.28 A°
58. One litre of an aqueous solution has 3.65 gms of HCl. It is desired to increase the pH of the solution to 2.
+
Then H 3O ion concentration present initially should be
a) Also doubled b) Reduced to half
c) Increased by 10 times d) Reduced by 10 times
59. W hic h a mo ng t he fo llow in g is a Polyamide Polymer?

(a) Terylene (b) Buna-S-rubber
(c) Polystyrene (d) Nylon 6,6
60. Which among the following is used as antacid?

(a) Aspirin (b) Phenacetin
(c) Al( OH)3 + Mg(OH)2 (d) P-Hydroxy azo benzene.
61. Find the correct statement about crystal defects.

a) schottky defect makes a crystal elec trically ch arged.
b) frenkel defect alters the density of the crystal.
c) metal excess defect gives colour to the crystal
d) metal deficiency defect can be found in the halides of alkali metals.
62. Which of the following conve rsions involve s gain of 5 electrons per ion?
a) MnO4− → Mn 2 + b) CrO42− → Cr 3+
c) MnO 42 − → MnO 2 d) Cr2O72− → 2Cr 3+
63. Sodium reacts with water to give H2 gas and the solution contains substance ‘A’ zinc
metal reacts solution ‘A’ to give the same H 2 gas. Compound ‘A’ is
a) Na2 O b) NaOH c) Na2 CO3 d) NaHCO3
64. Meso form can be obtained in-

a) 1,2 – Dichlorobutane b) 1,4 – Dichlorobu tane
c) 2,3 – Dichlorobutane d) 1,3 – Dichlorobu tane
65. Decomposition of ozone can be caused by

a) atomic he lium b) water vapour c) dust particles d) atomic ch lorine
66. Normality of 0.25 M phosphorus acid H 3 PO3 is
a) 0.125 b) 0.75 c) 0.50 d) 0.25
67. Which of the following sets cont ains oxides in the sequence of basic, amphoteric and
acidic in nature respectively?
a) CaO, SiO2 , Al2 O3 b) Al2 O3 , CO2 , SiO2
c) CO , SO2 , P2O5 d) BaO , Al2 O3 , SiO2
68. Among LiCl , RbCl , BeCl2 and MgCl 2 compounds with maximum and minimum ionic
character are respectively.
a) LiCl ; RbCl b) RbCl ; BeCl 2 c) RbCl ; MgCl 2 d) MgCl 2 ; BeCl2
69. Between actinide s and lanthan ides, the complex formation tendency is more for
a) lanthan ides because of high chemical reactivity
b) lanthan ides due to greater stability.
c) actinides as they have variable oxidation states.
d) actinides due to high charge to size ratio
70. A solid mixture has ben zoic acid and naphthalene. From this naphthalene can be separated by
using
a) aqueous NaOH b) cold water c) benzene d) diethylet her
Maths – Part 3
a b αd − d
1
71. If b c bα − c = 0 and ∝ ? , then a, b, c are in
2
2 1 0
a) A.P b) G.P c) H.P d) none of the above
72. If sin x + cosec x = 2, then sin nx + cosec nx is equal to
a) 2 n b) 2 c) 2 n-1 d) 2 n-1
 4 2 
73. The value of tan cos −1 ( ) + tan −1 ( )  is
 5 3 
1 7 16
a) b) c) d) none
16 16 7
a c
74. If a, b, c are in G.P, x, y are the A.M of a, b and b, c, respectively, then + = _____
x y
1) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 5
x +1 y − 3 z + 2
75. The equation of the plane containing the line = = and the point (0, 7, -7) is
−3 2 1
a) x+y+z = 1 b) x+y+z=2 c) x+y+z=0 d) None of these
76. Foot of the perpendicular from the point (2, 2, 2) in the plane x+y+z = 9 is
a) (1, 1, 1) b) (3, 3, 3) c) (9, 0, 0) d) (2, 6, 1)
77. The solution of the equation 9 x+78 = 32x+3 is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1/3 d) ½
78. The area of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents at the end points of latus rectum to the
x2 y 2
ellipse + = 1 is
9 5
27
a) sq units b) 9 sq units
4
27
c) sq units d) None of the above
2
 x2 − y2  dy
79. If cos −1  2 2 
= log a, then is eq ual to:
x + y  dx
y x x2 y2
a) b) c) d)
x y y2 x2
x y −1 z − 2
80. The image of the point (1, 6, 3) on the line = = is
1 2 3
a) (1, 6, 7 ) b) (1, −6, −7 )
c) (1, 0, 7 ) d) (−1,1, −7 )
sin x − cos x
81. ∫ 1 − sin 2x
e sin x cos x dx =
a) e sin x + c b) e sin x − cos x
c) e sin x + co s x + c d) e cos x − sin x + c
 cos q − sin q 0
82. If A = If A =  sin q cos q 0 , then A 3 will be a null matrix i f and only if
 
 0 0 0
π
a) θ = (2K + 1) (k ∈1)
2
π
b) θ = (4K − 1) (k ∈1)
3
π
c) θ = (3K − 1) (k ∈1)
4
d) none of these
x1 x 2 x
83. If x is the mean of n observations x1, x 2 ………x n, then the mean of , ,... n is
a a a
x
a) b) x +a
a
c) ax d) a2 x
84. The value of sin 10° + sin 20 ° + sin 30° + ………. + s in 360 ° is
a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) 2
dy
85. The degree and order of the differential eq uation y = px + a 2 p 2 + b 2 where p = is
dx
a) (2, 1) b) (2, 2) c) (1, 2) d) (1, 1)
9
3 1
86. The coefficient of the term independent of x in the expan sion of (1 + x + 2 x 3 )  x 2 −  is
2 3x 
17 1 19 1
a) b) c) d)
54 3 54 4
87. A pack of play ing cards was found to contain only 51 cards , if the first 13 cards which a re
examined are all re d, then the probability that the missing card is blac k
1 1 25C 13 2
a) b) c) d)
3 2 51C 13 3
x + sin x
88. ∫ 1 + cos x dx =
x x
a) x tan( ) + C b) cot( ) + C c) log (1 + cos x ) + C d) log( x + sin x ) + C
2 2
89. If the focus of the parabola is at (0, -3), and its directrix direction is y=3, then its equation is
_____
a) x 2 = -12y b) x2 = 12y c) y 2 = -12x d) y2=12x
1 x − iy
90. If = , then a 2+b2 is
a − ib x + iy
a) x2+y 2 b) 1
c) 0 d) 5
y −1
91. The equation of the curve through the point (1, 0) and whose slope is is
x2 + x
a) (y − 1)(x + 1) + 2x = 0 b) 2x ( y − 1) + x + 1 = 0
c) x (y − 1)(x + 1)+ 2 = 0 d) y (x + 1) − x = 0
92. 930 Deepawali greeting cards are exchanged among st the students of a class. If every student
sends a card to every other studen t, then what is the number of students in the class?
a) 31 b) 29
c) 43 d) 24
1 x x +1
93. If f(x) = 2 x x ( x − 1) ( x + 1) x then f(100) =
3x ( x − 1) x ( x − 1) ( x − 2) ( x − 1) x ( x − 1)
a) 0 b) 1 c) 100 d) -100
94. The altitude fo a right circular cone of minimum volume circumscribed about a sphere of
radius r is
a) 2r b) 3r c)5r d) 4r
95. If z + 4 ≤ 3, then the greatest and the least values of z + 1 are

a) 3, 0 b) 6, 0
c) 4, 3 d) none of the above
96. If α is one root of the equation 4x 2 + 2x –1=0, then the other root may be
a) 4 ∝3 − 3 ∝ b) 4 ∝3 + 3 ∝
c) 3 ∝3 − 4 ∝ d) 3α 2 + 4α
x + x 2 + x 2 + .............. + x n − n
97. If lim = 5050, then n equals
x →1 x −1
a) 10 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200
98. If a coin is tossed n times the probability that h ead will appear an odd no of times is
1 1 1 2
a) b) c) d)
2n 2 n−1 2 5
99. The number of solutions of 3x 2 + 6 x + 7 + 5x 2 + 10 x + 14 = 4 − 2 x − x 2

is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
100. nc1 + 2 nc 2 + 3 nc 3 + …... + nnc n =
a) n2n-1 b) (n+1)2n+1 c) n2n d) (n-1)2n+1
sin A + sin B − sin C

101. If A + B + C = ?, then is equal to
sin A + sin B + sin C
B C A B
a) tan ⋅ tan b) tan ⋅ tan
2 2 2 2
A B C
c) tan ⋅ tan ⋅ tan d) tan (A + B )− tan C
2 2 2
(
If g (f (x )) = sin x and f (g (x )) = sin x . Then )
2
102.
a) f (x ) = sin 2 x, g (x ) = x
b) f (x ) = sin x,g (x ) = x
c) f (x ) = x 2 , g (x ) = sin x
d) f (x ), g (x ) cannot be determined.
103. There are 9999 tickets bearing numbers 0001, 0002, 0003, ………. 9999. If one ticket is
selected from these tickets at random, the probability that the number on the ticket will
consist of all different digits, is:
5040 5000
a) b)
9999 9999
5030
c) d) none of the above
9999
104. The area of the region bounded by the two parabolas y=x 2; y 2=x is
1 2 4
a) b) c) 1 d)
3 3 3
105. Two non -ne gative integers x and y are chosen at random with replacement. The probab ility
that x 2 + y 2 is divisible by 10 is
3 4 9 7
a) b) c) d)
50 25 50 50
Biology – Part 4
71. Bracteoles are 5 to 8 in
a) Pavonia odorata b) Hibiscus rosasinensis

c) Malva sylvestris d) Abutilon indicum
72. The blood pressure is decreased by
a) Insulin b) Interferon
c) Interleukin d) Renin inhibitor
73. Casparian thickening is absent in __________ cells of the root
a) radial walls of endodermis b) metaxylem element

c) opposie to protoxylem d) transverse wall of endodermis
74. The shape of the metacentric chromosome is _________
a) V–shaped b) L–shaped c) Rod shaped d) C-shaped
75. Match the following
1. Medulla a) sleep wake cycle

2. cerebellum b) swallowing and vomiting
3. pons c) balance and maintenance
4. hypothalamus d) sleep and respiratory centers
a) 1 – d 2–a 3–c 4–b

b) 1 – b 2–c 3–d 4–a
c) 1 – a 2–b 3–d 4–c
d) 1 – c 2–d 3–a 4–b
76. which is not an autoimmune disease
a) Rhematoid arthritis b) SCID

c) Multiple sclerosis d) Insulin dependent diabetes
77. African sleeping sickness is caused by ________________
a) Trypanosoma gambiens
b) Leishmania donavani
c) Leishmaria tropica
d) Giardia intestinatis
78. 1) Allergies results from an inappropriate and excessive immune response to

common autrigens in the disease called hypersensitivity
2) When the immune system attacks and destroys ‘self’ cells and molecules the
disease is called autoimmune disease.
3) Graft between allogenic individuals are called heterograft.

4) In distal convoluted tubules the urine becomes hypertonic.
a) 1 and 2 are true but 3 and 4 are false.

b) 1 and 3 are true but 4 and 2 are false.
c) 2 and 3 are true but 1 and 4 are false.
d) 3 and 4 are true but 1 and 2 are false.
79. Photosynthesis is an oxidation – reduction reaction between ___________
a) Water and ATP b) Water and carbondioxide

c) Carbondioxide and NADP d) Water and NADP
80. Ephedrine is used to cure
a) Pneumonia b) Cough c) Tuberculosis d) Skin infection
1) Biosystematics a) Heteromerae
2) Carolus Linnaeus b) Camp and Gily
3) Biochemical mutation c) Sweden scientist
4) More than two carpels d) Neurospora
a) 1 – a 2–b 3–c 4–d

b) 1 – c 2–d 3–b 4–a
c) 1 – b 2–c 3–d 4–a
d) 1 – d 2–b 3–a 4–c
82. Which of the following sentence is / are true
1. Meristematic cells are self perpetuating

2. Uneven thickned cell wall is the characteristic features of scelerenchyma
3. Macre-scleroids are present in the seed coat of pisum
4. Sclerenchyma are shorter whereas fibres are longer
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 b) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4
83. Urea is synthesized by
a) Kidney b) Pancrease c)Liver d) Gall bladder
84. Find the wrong match / matches
1. Flat fish - Naakkumeen

2. Sardines - Parameen
3. Grey Mullets - Madavai
4. Tilapia - Jilabi kendai
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 3 and 4

85. A functional idea to understand. The population genetics was provided in the form of
law by _______________
a) H.J Muller and Ernst Mayr

b) G.H. Hardy and W. Weinberg
c) R.A. Fisher and Sewall Wright
d) G.L. Stebbins and August Weismann
1. 2.
3. 4.
a) Parent and children b) Dizygous twins

c) Monozygous twins d) Consanguine marriage
a) 1 – a 2–b 3–c 4–d

b) 1 – d 2–a 3–c 4–b
c) 1 – b 2–d 3–a 4–c
d) 1 – c 2–b 3–a 4–d
87. Which one of the following is non-degradable waste
a) Mining waste b) Fibre and paper

c) Leather d) Waste from food processing
88. The percentage of recombination can be determined by __________
a) Crossing over frequency b) Linkage frequency

Linkage frequency Total offsprings
c) No of recombinant offspring d) No of total frequency

Total number of offspring Total number of offspring
89. Ketosis occur due to
a) The low level of calcitonin

b) The low level of insulin
c) The high level of insulin
d) The low level of parathormone
90. The fracture in which haematoma does not communicate with the outside is
________________
a) Green stick fracture b) Stress fracture

c) Pathological fracture d) Closed fracture
91. The largest of all viruses is _______________
a) Pox viruses b) Poloma virus

c) Adeno virus d) Rous sarcoma virus
92. Lack of rumination and dull appearance of cattle are the symptoms for __________
disease
a) Anthrax b) Cowpox
c) Constipation d) Milk fever
93. The botanical name of ashwagantha is __________________
a) Withania somnifera
b) Solalum trilobatum
c) Cestrym divernum
d) Pelunia hybrida
94. Phloem fibres are also called as
a) Wood fibres b) Libriform fibres

c) Bast fibres d) Supporting cells
95. The electron carriers in the electron transport system are arranged in
a) Three complexes b) Two complexes

c) Four complexes d) Five complexes
96. Pick out the correct statements
a) C3 plants are more photosynthetically efficient than C4 plants

b) C4 plants are more photosynthetically efficient than C2 plants
c) C3 plants are more photosynthetically efficient than C2 plants
d) C4 plants are more photosynthetically efficient thanC3 plants
97. From pericycle ______________root arises
a) Primary root b) Lateral root

c) Secondary root d) Tertiary root
98. Albinism is due to _________________
a) absense of melanin b) absense of vitamins

c) presence of melanin d) absense of hormone
sources of energy disadvantages
1. Solar cells a. affect the ecosystem

2. Thermal power b. Co2, acid rain
3. Hydel power c. Co2, fly ash
4. Fossil fuel d. Carcinogen
a) 1 – d 2–c 3–a 4–b
b) 1 – c 2–d 3–b 4–a
c) 1 – a 2–b 3–d 4–c
d) 1 – b 2–d 3–c 4–a
100. Bio-degradable products produced through gene modification of soyabean is

_______________
a) Paints b) Fibres
c) Industrial lubricants d) Plastics
101. Which of the following sentence is / are false
1) During kidney failure dialysis is done to filter the waste

2) Blood cells and proteins are not filtered by the machine
3) The blood leaves usually from a vein in the medulla and return to a near by artery
after dialysis
4) Adrenalin act as anti inflammatory agent
102. The ovary is obliquely placed in the members of
a) Solanaceae b) Malvaceae
c) Euphorbiaceae d) Musaceae
103. Which of the following sentences is / are not false ?
1) The primary site of infection is urethra in males in the disease gonorrhoea.

2) Pencillin was discovered by Alexander Flemming in the year 1929
3) Western Blot is a sensitive test used to detect HIV
4) The viruses integrated themselves with the bacterial genome is called lysogenic
cycle
a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3 3) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 2
104. 5800 genes are present in the genome of
a) Drosophila b) Chimpanzee
c) Yeast d) Arabidopis thaliana
105. The inherent potential of any living plant probagule to develop into entire organism is
called
a) Totipotency b) Organogenesis
c) Morphogenesis d) Differenciation
106. Which of the following is / are secondary lymphoid organ/s ?

1) Bursa of fabricius 2) Spleen
3) Bone marrow 4) Mucosa
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 4 c) 1 and 3 d) 3 and 4

107. In hexose phase _________ ATP molecules are consumed
a) One b) Two c) Three d) No ATP
108. Which of the following sentences is / are not false ?
1) The slow initial phase is called lag phase

2) Gibberellin promote dormancy in potatotubers
3) The term vernalisation was first introduced by German scientist called T.D
Lysenko
4) The enzyme phosphofructokinase convert fructose 1,6 bisphosphate into glycerol
dehyde 3 phosphate
109. Name the insect which plays a vital role in tropical forests by pollinating trees
a) grasshopper b) Honeybee
c) Bumble bee d) Orchid bee
110. Match the inflorescence with the flower
1. Catkin a) Pavonia odorata

2. Helicoid cyme b) Withania somnifera
3. Axillary cyme c) Acalypha indica
4. Umbellate cyme d) Solanum tuberosum
a) 1 – c 2–a 3–a 4–b

b) 1 – a 2–d 3–d 4–c
c) 1 – a 2–b 3–c 4–d
d) 1 – b 2–c 3–d 4–a
111. Arrange the following in the correct route for a complete reflex are
1) Sense organ 2) Effector neuron

3) Effector 4) Grey matter of spinal cord
5) Intermediate neuron 6) Affector neuron
a) 1→ 6→ 4→5→ 2→3
b) 5→ 2→ 3→6→ 4→1
c) 1→ 6→ 5→2→ 3→4
d) 2→ 5→ 6→3→ 4→1
112. Find the incorrect match
a) Timber yielding - Tectora grandis

b) Cotton - Gossypium hisatum
c) Oil yielding - Arachis hypogea
d) Medicine - Colo nitida
113. The air breathing fish among the following is
a) Mrigal b) Rohu c) Catfish d) Mullet

114. The genotype of carriers of sickle cell anaemia
a) HbS HbS b) HbA HbA

c) HbA Hb S d) HbN HbN
115. A normal ECG composed of five waves designated from left to right with the letters
a) PRTS and Q b) PQRS and T

c) QPRS and T d) PTRQ and S
116. Super coils are released by
a) DNA polymerase b) Primase

c) Topoisomerase d) DNA polymerase I, II and III
117. In kreb’s cycle dehydration occurs during the formation of
a) Succinic acid b) Malic acid

c) Cis-aconitic acid d) Ketoglutaric acid
118. The major aspects of plant breeding are
1) Selection of better crop

2) Conducting experiments to assess the quality of crops
3) Release of a variety
4) Creation of useful variation
Arrange them in correct order
a) 4, 3, 2, and 1 b) 4, 1, 2, and 3
c) 1, 3, 2, and 4 d) 2, 1, 3, and 4
119. Which is the correct sequence of Natural selection theory by Darwin ?
1) over production 2) variation

3) survival of the fittest 4) struggle for existence
5) Natural selection
a) 1, 4, 2, 3, and 5 b) 1, 3, 4, 2, and 5
c) 1, 5, 2, 3, and 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 5, and 4
120. Gibberella fusarium can break down __________ and reduce it to a nontoxic form
a) cyanide b) Mercury
c) Cadmium d) Chromium
----------------------
ANSWER
1 d Physics 36 d Chemistry 71 b Maths 71 b Biology 111 a

2 a 37 c 72 b 72 d 112 d
3 b 38 a 73 d 73 c 113 c
4 b 39 b 74 c 74 a 114 c
5 a 40 b 75 c 75 b 115 b
6 a 41 c 76 b 76 b 116 c
7 c 42 c 77 d 77 a 117 c
8 a 43 b 78 d 78 a 118 b
9 a 44 b 79 a 79 b 119 a
10 c 45 a 80 c 80 b 120 a
11 c 46 d 81 a 81 c
12 c 47 c 82 d 82 d
13 c 48 d 83 a 83 c
14 d 49 a 84 b 84 b
15 b 50 a 85 a 85 b
16 a 51 d 86 a 86 d
17 b 52 b 87 d 87 a
18 c 53 b 88 a 88 c
19 b 54 d 89 a 89 b
20 c 55 a 90 b 90 d
21 c 56 c 91 a 91 a
22 d 57 b 92 a 92 c
23 b 58 d 93 a 93 a
24 a 59 d 94 d 94 c
25 d 60 c 95 b 95 c
26 a 61 c 96 a 96 d
27 c 62 a 97 d 97 b
28 d 63 b 98 c 98 a
29 d 64 c 99 a 99 a
30 c 65 d 100 a 100 c
31 a 66 c 101 b 101 b
32 c 67 d 102 a 102 a
33 c 68 b 103 a 103 d
34 c 69 d 104 a 104 c
35 a 70 a 105 c 105 a
106 b
107 b
108 c
109 d
110 a
B.Tech - Syllabus
PART 1 – PHYSICS (35 Questions)
UNIT 1: Units and Measurement

Units for measurement, system of units-S.I., fundamental and derived units,
measurements-errors in measurement-significant figures, dimensions-Dimensional
analysis-applications.
UNIT 2: Mechanics
Motion in one dimension-uniform and non-uniform motion-uniformly accelerated
motion-scalar and vector quantities-Newton’s laws of motion-force and inertia-impulse
and momentum-law of conservation of linear momentum-applications-motions in two
dimension- projectile motion-uniform circular motion-friction-laws of friction-
applications- centripetal force-centre of mass-torque-angular momentum and its
conservation -moment of inertia-theorems of moment of inertia-work-energy-potential
energy and kinetic energy-power-collision-elastic and inelastic collisions.
UNIT 3: Gravitation, Mechanics of Solids and Fluids

The universal law of gravitation, acceleration due to gravity-variation of ‘g’ with
altitude, latitude and depth-gravitation potential-escape velocity and orbital velocity -
geostationary satellites-kepler’s laws of planetary motion. Solids-elastic
behaviour,stress-strain-Hooke’s law-Modulli of elasticity-relation between them-surface
tension-capillarity-applications–viscosity-Poiseuille’s formula-Stokes law-applications-
streamline and turbulent flow-reynolds number-Bernoulli’s theorem- applications.
UNIT 4: Oscillations and Wave Motion

Periodic motion-simple harmonic motion-equations of motion-oscillations of spring-
simple pendulum-free, forced and damped oscillations-resonance-applications-wave
motions-longitudinal and transverse waves-velocity of wave motion in different media-
Newton’s
formula-Laplace’s correction-super position of waves-progressive and standing waves-
sonometer-air columns-Doppler effect and its applications.
UNIT 5: Heat and Thermodynamics

Kinetic theory of gases-postulates-pressure of a gas-specific heat capacity-relation
between Cp and Cv-first law of thermodynamicsthermodynamical processes-isothermal
and adiabatic-reversible and irreversible process-second law of thermodynamics-
Carnot’s engine-
Heat transfer-conduction-convection-radiation-thermal conductivity of solids-black
body radiations-Kirchoff’s law-Wien’s displacement law-Stefan’s law-Newton’s law of
cooling.
UNIT 6: Ray and Wave Optics

Reflection and refraction of light-total internal reflection-velocity of light determination-
deviation and dispersion of light by a prism -Lens formula-magnification-power of lens-
Combination of thin lenses in contact-Microscope-Astronomical telescope. -wavefront-
Huygens principle-wave nature of light–interference-Young’s double slit experiment-
diffraction and polarization
UNIT 7: Electricity and Magnetism

Electrostatics-Coulomb’s inverse square law-dielectric constant-electric field-electric
lines of force-electric dipole-electric potential-potential difference-electric flux-Gauss
theorem-electrostatic induction-capacitor capacitors in parallel and series-action of
points-lightning arrester electric
current-drift velocity of electrons-Ohm’s law-electrical resistivity and conductivity-super
conductivity-Kirchoff’s law-Wheatstone’s bridge-principle of potentiometer-electric
power- Earth’s magnetic field and magnetic elements-magnetic field due to a magnetic
dipole-torque on a magnetic dipole-tangent law tangent galvanometer-deflection
magnetometer-magnetic properties of a material–dia, para and ferromagnetic materials-
applications.magnetic effects of electric
current-Bio Savart law-force on a moving charge in an uniform magnetic field-moving
coil galvanometer-conversion of a galvanometer into voltmeter and ammeter-Faraday’s
law-Lenz law of electromagnetic induction-Self inductance-mutual inductance-
Flemming’s righthand
rule-methods of inducing emf-eddy current.Alternating currents-LCR series circuit-AC
generator-Transformer
UNIT 8: Atomic Physics and Relativity

Atomic structure-properties of cathode rays and positive rays-specific charge of an
electron-atom model-Thomson atom model-Rutherford atom model-Bohr atom model-
merits and demerits-quantum numbers-X-rays-production-properties-Bragg’s law-
Bragg’s X-ray spectrometer-
Photoelectric effect-laser-spontaneous and stimulated emission-laser action-
characteristics of laser light-ruby laser-applications of laser relativity-Einstein’s mass
energy relation-variation of mass with velocity.
UNIT 9: Dual Nature of Matter and Nuclear Physics

Matter waves-wave nature of particles-De Broglie wavelength-electron microscope.
Nuclear properties; radius, mass, binding energy, density, isotopes, mass defect-
Bainbridge mass spectrometer-nuclear forces neutron discovery-radioactivity-? , ?? and
?? decay-half life and mean
life-artificial radio activity-radio isotopes-radio carbon dating-radiation hazards.
Nuclear fission-nuclear reactor-nuclear fusion-hydrogen bomb cosmic rays-elementary
particles.
UNIT 10: Electronics and Communication

Semiconductors-doping-types-PN junction diode-biasing-diode as a Rectifier-
transistors-transistor characteristics-amplifier-gain-feedback in amplifiers-logic gates-
basic logic gates-NOT, OR, AND, NOR, NAND-universal gates-De Morgan’s theorems-
space communication propagation
of electromagnetic waves in atmosphere-sky and space wave propagation-modulation
types–demodulation-microwaves-radars.
PART II – Chemistry(35 Questions)
Unit 1 States of Matter
Classification of matter into solid, liquid and gaseous states.

Solid State: Classification of solids: molecular, ionic, covalent and metallic solids,
amorphous and crystalline solids (elementary idea); Bragg’s Law and its applications;
unit cell and lattices, packing in solids (fcc, bcc and hcp lattices), voids, calculations
involving unit cell parameters, imperfection in solids; electrical, magnetic and dielectric
properties.
Liquid State: Properties of liquids – vapour pressure, viscosity and surface tension and
effect of temperature on them (qualitative treatment only).
Gaseous State: Measurable properties of gases; Gas laws-Boyle’s law, Charle’s law,
Graham’s law of diffusion, Avogadro’s law, Dalton’s law of partial pressure; concept of
absolute scale of temperature; ideal gas equation, kinetic theory of gases (only
postulates); concept of average, root mean square are most probable velocities; real
gases, deviation from ideal behaviors, compressibility factor, Vander Waals equation,
liquefaction of gases, critical constants.
Unit 2 Solutions
Different methods for expressing concentration of solution-Molality, molarity, mole

fraction, percentage (by volume and mass both), vapour pressure of solutions and
Raoult’s law-ideal and non-ideal solutions, vapour pressure-composition, plots for ideal
and non-ideal solutions; colligative properties of dilute solutions-relative lowering of
vapour pressure, depression of freezing point, elevation of boiling point and osmotic
pressure; determination of molecular mass using colligative properties; abnormal value
of molar mass, Van’t Hoff factor and its significance.
Unit 3 Chemical Equilibrium
Meaning of equilibrium, concept of dynamic equilibrium. Equilibria involving physical

processes: Solid-liquid, liquid-gas and solid-gas equilibria, Henry’s law general
characteristics of equilibrium involving physical processes.
Equilibria involving chemical processes: Law of chemical equilibrium, equilibrium
constants (Kp and Kc) and their significance, significance of DG and DGo in chemical
equilibria, factors affecting equilibrium concentration, pressure, temperature, effect of
catalyst; Le Chatelier’s principle.
Ionic equilibrium: Weak and strong electrolytes, ionization of electrolytes, various
concepts of acids and bases (Arrhenius,Bronsted-Lawry and Lewis) and their ionization,
acid-base equilibria (including multistage ionization) and ionization constants,
ionization of water pH scale, common ion effect, hydrolysis of salts and pH of their
solutions, solubility of sparingly soluble salts and solubility products, buffer solutions.
Unit 4 Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Oxidation and reduction as an electron transfer concept. Redox reactions in aqueous

solutions-electrochemical cells. EMF of a galvanic cell. Dependence of EMF on
concentration and temperature (Nernst equation and numerical problems based on it).
Electrolysis, Oxidation number (rules for assigning oxidation number, redox reactions in
terms of oxidation number, nomenclature). Balancing of oxidation-reduction equations.
Electrolytic and metallic conduction, conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific and

molar conductivities and their variation with concentration: Kohlrausch’s law and its
applications.
Electrochemical cells-Electrolytic and Galvanic cells, different types of electrodes,

electrode potentials including standard electrode potential, half-cell reactions, emf of a
galvanic cell and its measurement; Nernst equation and its applications; relationship
between cell potential and Gibbs’s energy change; dry cell and lead accumulator; fuel
cells; corrosion and its prevention.
Unit 5 Surface Chemistry, Chemical Kinetics and Catalysis
Adsorption-Physisorption and chemisorption and their characteristics, factors affecting

adsorption of gases on solids-Freundlich and Langmuir adsorption isotherms,
adsorption from solutions.
Catalysis-Homogeneous and heterogeneous, activity, and selectivity of solid catalysts,
enzyme catalysis and its mechanism.
Colloidal state-Distinction among true solutions, colloids and suspensions, classification
of colloids-lyophilic, lyophobic; multi molecular, macro molecular and associated
colloids (micelles), preparation and properties of colloids-Tyndall effect, Brownian
movement, electrophoresis, dialysis, coagulation and flocculation; emulsions and their
characteristics.
Rate of reaction, instantaneous rate of reaction and order of reaction. Factors affecting
rates of reactions-factors affecting rate of collisions encountered between the reactant
molecules, effect of temperature on the reaction rate, concept of activation energy,
catalyst. Rate law expression. Order of a reaction (with suitable examples). Units of rates
and specific rate constants. Order of reaction and effect of concentration (study will be
confined to first order only). Theories of catalysis-adsorption theory-some of important
industrial process using catalysts.
Unit 6 Chemical Energetics and Chemical Thermodynamics
Energy changes during a chemical reaction, internal energy and enthalpy, internal
energy and enthalpy changes, origin of enthalpy change in a reaction, Hess’s law of
constant heat summation, numerical, based on these concepts. Enthalpies of reactions
(enthalpy of neutralization, enthalpy of combustion, enthalpy of fusion and
vaporization)
First law of thermodynamics-Spontaneity of processes; DS of the universe and DG of the
system as criteria for spontaneity, DGo (Standard Gibbs energy change and equilibrium
constant.
Unit 7 Nuclear Chemistry
Nature of radiations from radioactive substances. Nuclear reactions; Radioactive

disintegration series; Artificial transmutation of elements; Nuclear fission and Nuclear
fusion: Isotopes and their applications: Radio carbon-dating.
Inorganic Chemistry
Unit – 8 Chemical Families-Periodic Properties
Modern periodic law and present form of the periodic table, s & p block elements,
periodic trends in properties of elements, atomic and ionic radii, ionization enthalpy,
electron gain enthalpy, valence, oxidation states and chemical reactivity. Transition
elements-d-block elements, inner transition elements-f-block elements. Periodic trends in
properties-ionization energy, electron affinity atomic radii, ionic radii and periodicity,
lanthanides and actinides-general characteristics.
Unit – 9 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Covalent bonding: Concept of electronegativity, Fajan’s rule, dipole moment; Valence

Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory and shapes of simple molecules.
Quantum mechanical approach to covalent bonding: Valence bond theory-Its important
features, concept of hybridization involving s, p and d orbitals; resonance.
Molecular orbital theory-Its important features, LCAOs, types of molecular orbitals
(bonding, anti-bonding), sigma and pi-bonds, molecular orbital electronic configurations
of homonulear diatomic molecules, concept of bond order, bond length and bond
energy. Elementary idea of metallic bonding. Hydrogen bonding and its applications.
Unit – 10 Chemistry of Non-metals
Hydrogen ( unique position in periodic table, occurrence, isotopes, properties, reactions

and uses), Hydrides – molecular, soline and interstitial
Water and hydrogen peroxide, structure of water molecule and its aggregates, physical
and chemical properties of water, hard and soft water, water softening, hydrogen
peroxide – preparation, properties, structure and uses.
Nitrogen – Preparation, properties, uses, compounds of Nitrogen – Ammonia, Oxides of
Nitrogen, Nitric Acid – preparation, properties and uses.
Carbon, inorganic compounds of carbon – oxides, halides, carbides, elemental carbon.
Silicon – occurrence, preparation and properties, oxides and oxyacids of phosphorus,
chemical fertilizers.
Noble gases – discovery, occurrence and isolation, physical properties, chemistry of
noble gases and their uses.
Unit – 11 Heavy Metals

Iron – Occurrence and extraction, compounds of iron, oxides, halides, sulphides,
sulphate, alloy and steel.
Copper and silver – occurrence and extraction, properties and uses, compounds –
sulphides, halides and sulphates, photography.
Zinc and Mercury –occurrence and extraction, properties and uses, compounds -oxides,
halides; sulphides and sulphates
Tin and Lead – occurrence and extraction, properties and uses, compounds – oxides,
sulphides, halides.
Unit –12 Transition Metals including Lanthanides

Electronic configuration: General characteristic properties, oxidation states of transition
metals.
First row transition metals and general properties of their compounds-oxides, halides
and sulphides.
General properties of second and third row transition elements(GroupWise discussion).
Preparation and reactions, properties and uses of Potassium dichromate and Potassium
permanganate.
Inner Transition Elements: Generaldiscussion with special reference to oxidation states
and lanthanide contraction.
Unit 13 Coordination Chemistry and Organo Metallics
Coordination compounds, Nomenclature : Isomerism in coordination compounds;

Bonding in coordination compounds, Werner’s coordination theory. Applications of
coordination compounds.
Organic Chemistry
Unit – 14 Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Tetravalency of carbon; shapes of simple molecules-hybridization (s and p);

classification of organic compounds based on functional groups: -C=C-, -C?C- and those
containing halogens, oxygen, nitrogen and sulphur; homologous series; isomerism-
strctural and stereoisomerism.
Nomenclature (Trivial and IUPAC)
Covalent bond fission-Homolytic and heterolytic: free radicals, carbocations and
carbanions; stability of carbocation and free radicals, electrophiles and nucleophiles.
Electronic displacement in a covalent bond-inducctive effect, electromeric effect,
resonance and hyperconjugation.
Common types of organic reactions-Substitution, addition, elimination and
rearrangement.
Unit – 15 Hydrocarbons
Classification, isomerism, IUPAC nomenclature, general methods of preparation,
properties and reaction.
Alkanes-Conformation: Sawhorse and Newman projections (of ethane); mechanism of
halogenation of alkanes.
Alkenes-Geometrical isomerism; mechanism of electrophilic addition: addition of
hydrogen, halogens, water, hydrogen halides (Markownikoff’s and peroxide effect);
ozonolysis, oxidation, and polymerization.
Alkynes-Acidic character; addition of hydrogen, halogens, water and hydrogen halides;
polymerization. Aromatic hydrocarbons-nomenclature, benzene-structure and
aromaticity; mechanism of electrophilic substitution: halogenation, nitration, Friedel-
Craft’s alkylation and acylation, directive influence of functional group in
monosubstituted benzene.
Unit – 16 Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen and Nitrogen

General methods of preparation, properties, reactions and uses.
Alcohols: Identification of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols; mechanism of

dehydration.
Phenols : Acidic nature, electrophilic substitution reactions: halogenation, nitration and
sulphonation, Reimer-Tiemann reaction. Addition to>C=o group, relative reactivities of
aldehydes and ketones
Ethers: Structure.
Aldehyde and Ketones: Nature of carbonyl group; Nuclephilic-Nuclephilic addition
reaction (addition of HCN, NH3 and its derivatives), Grigard reagent; oxidation;
reduction (Wolff Kishner and Clemmensen); acidity of-hydrogen, aldol condensation,
Cannizzaro reaction, Haloform reaction; Chemical tests to distinguish between
aldehydes and ketones.
Carboxylic acids: Acidic strength andfactors affecting it.
General methods of preparation, properties, reactions and uses.

Amines: Nomenclature, classification, structure, basic character and identification of
primary, secondary and tertiary amines and their basic character.
Diazonium salts: Importance in synthetic organic chemistry.
Unit – 17 Polymers
General introduction and classification of polymers, general methods of polymerization-

addition and condensation, copolymerization; natural and synthetic rubber and
vulcanization; some important polymers with emphasis on their monomers and uses –
polythene, nylon,polyester and bakelike.
Unit – 18 Bio Molecules

Carbohydrates-Classification: aldoses and ketoses; monosaccharides (glucose and
fructose), constituent monosaccharides of oligosacchorides (sucrose, lactose, maltose)
and polysaccharides (starch, cellulose, glycogen).
Proteins-Elementary Idea of-amino acids, peptide bond, polypeptides; proteins:

primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure (qualitative idea only),
denaturation of proteins, enzymes.
Unit – 19 Chemistry in Everyday Life
Chemicals in medicines-Analgesics, tranquilizers, antiseptics, disinfectants,

antimicrobials, antifertility drugs, antibiotics, antacids.
Antihistamine-their meaning and common examples. Chemicals in food-preservatives,

artificial sweetening agents-common examples.
Cleansing agents-Soaps and detergents, cleansing action.

PART III - MATHEMATICS (35 Questions)
UNIT 1 : Sets, Relations and Functions
Sets and their Representations, Union, intersection and complements of sets, and their algebraic
properties, Relations, equivalence relations, mappings, one-one, into and onto mappings, composition
of mappings.
UNIT 2 : Complex Numbers
Complex numbers in the form a+ib and their representation in a plane. Argand diagram. Algebra of
complex numbers, Modulus and Argument (or amplitude) of a complex number, square root of a
complex number. Cube roots of unity, triangle inequality.
UNIT 3 : Matrices and Determinants
Determinants and matrices of order two and three, properties of determinants, Evaluation of
determinants. Addition and multiplication of matrices, adjoint and inverse of matrix.
UNIT 4 : Applications of Matrices and Determinants
Computing the rank of a matrix - Test of consistency and solution of simultaneous linear equations using
determinants and matrices.
UNIT 5: Quadratic Equations
Quadratic equations in real and complex number system and their solutions. Relation between roots
and co-efficients, nature of roots, formation of quadratic equations with given roots; Symmetric functions
of roots, equations reducible to quadratic equations – application to practical problems.
UNIT 6: Permutations and Combinations
Fundamental principle of counting; Permutation as an arrangement and combination as selection,

Meaning of P(n,r) and C(n,r). Simple applications.
UNIT 7 : Mathematical Induction and Its Applications
Stating and interpreting the principle of mathematical induction. Using it to prove formulae and facts.
Summation using n,n 2 , n 3 .
UNIT 8: Binomial Theorem and its Applications
Binomial Theorem for a positive integral index; general term and middle term; Binomial Theorem for
any index. Properties of Binomial Co-efficients. Simple applications for approximations.
UNIT 9 : Sequences and Series
Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Insertion of Arithmetic Geometric and Harmonic
means between two given numbers. Relation between A.M., G.M. and H.M.Special series: S n, S n 2 , S
n 3 . Arithmetic,Geometric Series, Exponential and Logarithmic series.
UNIT 10 : Differential Calculus
Polynomials, rational, trigonometric, logarithmic and exponential functions, Inverse functions. Graphs of
simple functions. Limits, Continuity; differentiation of the sum, difference, product and quotient of two
functions. differentiation of trigonometric, inverse trigonometric, logarithmic, exponential, composite and
implicit functions; derivatives of order upto two.
UNIT 11 : Applications of differential Calculus
Rate of change of quantities, monotonic -increasing and decreasing functions, Maxima and minima of
functions of one variable, tangents and normals, Rolle’s and Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorems.
UNIT 12 : Integral Calculus
Integral as an anti-derivative. Fundamental integrals involving algebraic, trigonometric, exponential and

logarithmic functions. Integration by substitution, by parts and by partial fractions. Integration using
trigonometric identities. Integral as limit of a sum. Properties of definite integrals. Evaluation of definite
integrals; Determining areas of the regions bounded by simple curves.
UNIT 13 : Differential Equations
Ordinary differential equations, their order and degree. Formation of differential equations. Solution of
differential equations by the method of separation of variables. Solution of homogeneous and linear
differential equations, and those of the type d 2 y/dx 2 = f(x) .
UNIT 14 : Straight Lines in Two dimensions
Cartesian system of rectangular co-ordinates in a plane, distance formula, area of a triangle, condition
for the collinearity of three points and section formula, centroid and in-centre of a triangle, locus and its
equation, translation of axes, slope of a line, parallel and perpendicular lines, intercepts of a line on the
coordinate axes. Various forms of equations of a line, intersection of lines, angles between two lines,
conditions for concurrence of three lines, distance of a point from a line Equations of internal and
external bisectors of angles between two lines, coordinates of centroid, orthocentre and circumcentre of
a triangle, equation of family of lines passing through the point of intersection of two lines,
homogeneous equation of second degree in x and y, angle between pair of lines through the origin,
combined equation of the bisectors of the angles between a pair of lines, condition for the general
second degree equation to represent a pair of lines, point of intersection and angle between two lines.
UNIT 15 : Circles in Two dimensions
Standard form of equation of a circle, general form of the equation of a circle, its radius and centre,
equation of a circle in the parametric form, equation of a circle when the end points of a diameter are
given, points of intersection of a line and a circle with the centre at the origin and condition for a line to
be tangent to the circle, length of the tangent, equation of the tangent, equation of a family of circles
through the intersection of two circles, condition for two intersecting circles to be orthogonal.
UNIT 16 : Conic Sections in Two dimensions
Sections of cones, equations of conic sections (parabola, ellipse and hyperbola) in standard forms,
condition for y = mx + c to be a tangent and point(s) of tangency.
UNIT 17 : Vector Algebra
Vectors and Scalars, addition of vectors, components of a vector in two dimensions and three
dimensional space, scalar and vector products, scalar and vector triple product. Application of vectors
to plane geometry.
UNIT 18 : Measures of Central Tendency and Dispersion
Calculation of Mean, median and mode of grouped and ungrouped data. Calculation of standard
deviation, variance and mean deviation for grouped and ungrouped data.
UNIT 19 : Probability
Probability of an event, addition and multiplication theorems of probability and their applications;
Conditional probability; Bayes’ Theorem, Probability distribution of a random variate; Binomial and
Poisson distributions and their properties.
UNIT 20 : Trigonometry
Trigonometrical identities and equations. Inverse trigonometric functions and their properties.
Properties of triangles, including centroid, incentre, circum-centre and orthocentre, solution of triangles.
Heights and Distances
PART – IV Biology (50 Questions)

Botany
Unit I Taxonomy of Angiosperm
Types of classifications -Artificial, Natural, Phylogenetic - Biosystematics -

Binomial Nomenclature - Herbaria and their uses – Bentham and Hooker's classification
of plants - Families Malvaceae, Solanaceae - Euphorbiaceae, Musaceae and Economic
Importance.
Unit II Plant Anatomy
Tissues and Tissue System - anatomy of monocot and Dicot roots - anatomy of
Monocot and dicot stem and anatomy of dicot leaf.
Unit III Cell Biology and Genetics
Chromosomes- Structure and types - genes and genome- Linkage and crossing over –
Gene mapping - recombination of chromosomes - mutation - chromosomal aberration –
DNA as genetical material - Structure of DNA - replication of DNA - Structure of RNA and its
type.
Unit IV: Biotechnology
Recombinant DNA Technology - Transgenic plants with beneficial traits – plant tissue culture
and its application - Protoplasmic fusion – Bioethics in plant genetic engineering.
Unit V Plant physiology

Photosynthesis - Significance - site of photosynthesis - photochemical and biosynthetic
phases - electron transport system - cyclic and non cyclic photophosphorylation - C3 and C4
pathway - photorespiration – factor affecting photosynthesis – mode of nutrition – autotrophic -
heterotropic – saprophytic – parasitic and insectivorous plants – chemosynthesis – respiration –
mechanism of glycolysis – kreb’scycle – pentose pathway – anaerobic respiration – respiratory
quotient – compensation point - fermentation – plant growth – growth regulators –
phytohormones – auxin – gibberellins – cytokinins – ethylene and abscisic acid –
photoperiodism and vernalisation.
Unit VI Biology in human welfare
Food production – breeding experiments – improved varieties and role of biofertilizer – crop
diseases and their control – biopesticides – genetically modified food – biowar – biopiracy –
biopatent – sustained agriculture and medicinal plants including microbes – Economic
importance food yielding (rice) – Oil yielding (groundnut) fibre yielding (cotton) and timber
yielding (teak)
ZOOLOGY
Unit I
Human Physiology
Nutrition – introduction – carbohydrates – proteins – lipids – vitamins mineral – water –
Balanced diet – calorie value – (ICBM standard ) – obesity – Hyperglycemia – hypoglycemia –
malnutrition. Digestion – enzymes and enzyme action – Brief account of following – Dental
caries – Root canal therapy – peptic ulcer-Hernia-Appendicitis – Gallbladder stone – Liver
cirrhosis – Hepatitis.
Bones and Joints (Major types) fractures – Dislocations – Arthritis – Rickets and Osteomalasia –
orthopaedies – Gout.
Muscles – muscle action – muscle tone – Rigor Mortis – muscle pull (hernia) isometric and
aerobic exercises (body building) myasthenia gravis.
Respiration – Process of pulmonary respiration – inspiration Expiration – Exchange of gases at
alveolar level – control of respiration – pneumonia – pleurisy – Tuberculosis – Bronchitis –
Breathing exercise.
Circulation – Functioning of heart origin and conduction of heart beat – Artificial pacemaker –
coronary blood vessels and its significance – myocardial infraction – Angina pectoria –
Angiogram – angioplasty and coronary bypass surgery – Atherosclerosis – heart attack – heart
block – ECG
and Echo Cardiography-heart valves-Rheumatic heart disease (RHD) ICCU-arterial and venous
systems-Blood pressure-pulse rate-heart transplantation- Resuscitation in heart attack (First aid)
Blood components-functions-plasma-corpuscles-blood clotting-anticoagulants-Thrombosis-
embolism-blood related diseases like polycythemia-Leukemia-Lymph fluid.
Physiological Co ordination System:

Brain-functioning of different regions-memory-sleep-stroke- Alzheimer’s disease-meningitis-
Brain fever-conditioned reflex-electroencephalography-Right brain left brain concept-spinal
cord – functioning-reflex action-CSF-chemical coordination-pituitary (Hormones of
adenohypophysis and their regulation) Thyroid-parathyroid hormones-insulin and glucogon-
Hormones of adrenal cortex and medulla-Reproductive hormones-problems related to
secretion, non secretion of hormones.
Receptor Organs:
Eye-Focussing mechanism and photo chemistry of retina-short sightedness-Longsightedness-

Optometry-Retinopathy- cataract -Lens replacement- Nectalopia-Eye infection-conjunctivities-
Glucuoma- Eye care-Ear-Hearing mechanism-organ of corti-Hearing impairments and aids-
Noise pollution and its importance-skin-melanin functions-Effect of solar radiation/UV Skin
grafting-Dermatitis-Tongue-Gustatory reception.
Excretion:
Ureotelism-urea-Biosynthesis(ornithine cycle) Nephron- ultrafiltration -tubular reabsorption

and tubular secretion-Renal failure-Dialysis kidney stone formation kidney transplantation-
Diabetes.
Reproductive System:
Brief account of spermatogenesis and oogenesis-menstrual cycle-in vitro fertilization-Birth

control
Unit II: Microbiology
Introduction-History of medical microbiology-The influence of Pasteur, Koch and Lister-

Virology-structure Genetics culture and diseases-AIDS and its control-Bacteriology structure,
Genetics and diseases-protozoan microbiology-Diseases oriented-pathogenecity of micro
organism-anti microbial resistance chemotherapy. Single cell protein. Microbial culture
technique and its applications –Strain Isolation and Improvement - Isolation of microbial
products.
Unit III Immunology:
Innate immunity (Non specific)- anatomical Barriers-Physiological barriers-phagocytic barriers

Lymphoidal organs-Thymus- Bursa of fabricius-Peripheral Lymphoid organs-Lymph nodes-
Spleen-antibodies- immuno globulins-regions of polypeptide chain-Transplantation
immunology-classification of grafts-Genetic basis of organ transplant-immune system disorder.
Unit IV: Modern Genetics and Animal Biotechnology
Introduction-scope-Human Genetics Karyotyping Chromosome gene mapping-Recombinant

DNA technology and segmenting- genetic diseases – Human genome project-cloning-
Transgenic organisms- Genetically modified organism(GMO)-Gene therapy- Animal cell
culture and its applications – Stem cell technology – Bioethics of genetic engineering in
animals. Bio informatics application DNA Sequencing and protein structure-Biological
database.
Unit V Environmental Science:
Human population and explosion-issue-Global Warming Crisis - Green house effect - Ozone
layer depletion- waste management- Biodiversity conservation (Biosphere reserve)Government
and non-governmental organization involved-Energy crisis and environmental impact-poverty
and environment-Freshwater crisis and management.
Unit VI Applied Biology:
Livestock and management Dairy-Breed of cattle-Miltch breed –Drought breed Dual purpose-
common diseases and control-Exotic and cross breeds–Techniquesadapted in cattle breeding.
Poultry-Farming techniques- Breeds- Farming method - poultry diseases-Economic value
Pisciculture-fish farming- Edible fishes of Tamil Nadu. Medical lab techniques-stethescope-
sphygmomonometer Haemocytometer-urine sugar analysis-ECG-PQRST Wave CT Scan-
Endoscopic (Laproscopic) techniquesartificial pace maker-Auto analyzer.
Unit VII Theories of Evolution:
Lamarckism-Darwinism-Neodarwimsm/Modern concept of natural selection- species of

concept-origin of species and isolating mechanism.
**********************
B.Arch Program – Aptitude test in Architecture : Syllabus
The Aptitude Test in Architecture shall consist of 2 papers: (2 hours 30

minutes duration)
(i) Test – I – Aesthetic Sensitivity – 50 marks – duration of test:- 30

minutes
(ii) Test – II – Drawing -100 marks – duration of test – Two hours.
Test –I
Aesthetic Sensitivity is to evaluate candidate’s perception, imagination and
observation; creativity and communication; and Architectural awareness. The test
shall be of objective type and comprise of topics related to,
(i) Visualising three dimensional objects from two dimensional drawings
(ii) Visualising different sides of three dimensional object
(iii) Analytical Reasoning
(iv) Mental Ability
(v) Imaginative comprehension and expression
(vi) Architectural awareness
Test – II
The Drawing aptitude of the candidate shall be judged on the following
aspects:
(i) Ability to sketch a given object proportionately and rendering the same
in visually appealing manner.
(ii) Visualising and drawing the effects of light on the object and shadows
cast on the surroundings.
(iii) Sense of perspective drawing
(iv) Creating interesting two dimensional composition using given shapes
or forms.
(v) Creating visual harmony using colours in given composition.
(vi) Understanding of scale and sense of proportion
(vii) Drawing from memory through pencil sketch on theme from day to day
experiences.
MODEL QUESTIONS – B.Arch
Test – I – Aesthetic Sensitivity (50 marks )
PART A (each question 1 mark)
A1.
Sun temple is located at
(1) Bhuvaneshwar (2) Konark
(3) Kolkata (4) Kajuraho
A2.
Big temple in Tanjore is also known as
(1) Brighadeswara temple (2) Linga raja temple
(3) Meenakshi Amman temple (4) Temple of 1000 pillar hall
A3.
Jantar Manthar in Delhi is
(1) A Temple (2) A Fort
(3) A Palace (4) An astronomical observatory
A4.
National centre for performing arts, TATA’s is located at
(1) New Delhi (2) Chennai
(3) Hyderabad (4) Mumbai

A5.
Golbumbaz tomb is located at
(1) Agra (2) Bijapur
(3) Mandu (4) Hyderabad
A6.
“Falling water” is designed by
(1) LeCarbusier (2) B.V.Doshi
(3) Frank Lloyd Wright (4) Mumbai
A7.
Pantheon is the example of
(1) Egyptian Architecture (2) Greek architecture
(3) Gothic architecture (4) Sumerian Architecture
A8.
The Sydney opera house in Australia resembles a
(1) Kangaroo (2) Guitar
(3) Ship with sails (4) A mountain

A9.
Standard parking space for a car
(1) 1.5mX2.5m (2) 2.0mX5.0m
(3) 2.5mX5m (4) 3.5mx6.0m
A10.
Anthropometrics is the study of
(1) Human dimensions (2) Building materials
(3) Beauty of building (4) Weather
A11.
Tread and Riser are elements of
(1) Window (2) Staircase
(3) Door (4) Foundation
A12.
Identify the group of primary colours
(1) Pink, yellow & orange (2) White, black&browm
(3) Blue,red&yellow (4) White, black&grey

A13.
Natural stone with maximum content of calcium used in building

industry
(1) Slate (2) Marble
(3) Basalt (4) Granite
A14.
Which of the fallowing material is easily susceptible to corrosion
(1) Plastic (2) Aluminium
(3) Iron (4) Platinum
A15.
The largest historical Hindu temple in the world is at
(1) Colombo (2) Kathmandu
(3) Madurai (4) Angkor Wat
PART – B (each questions 2 marks)
B1. Series
The test divided into two parts. The first part consists of five problem
figures and second part consists of five tentative answer figures. The
five problem figures are in a sequence or order of their occurrence,
they have been arranged on the basic of some principle and you
cannot change this order without violating the principle involved. On
the other hand, the figures provided have tentative answer not in
any order. You are required to choose what would be the sixth figure
in the series of problem figures. This required figure is one among
the five tentative answer figures.
B2. Analogy
Find out the relationship between the first and second problem
figures and then select one figure from the five answer figures on the
right which should be related to the third problem figures in the
same way.
B3. Classification
In the diagram given below, all except one of which are similar in
some aspect or quality. Identify the one which is different from the
others
B4. Identical figures

Choose the identical figure from the given four figures in the
boxes on the right for the one on the left.
B5. Odd figures

Select the odd figure from the given set of figures
B6. Paper cutting and punching.
a piece of paper is folded and then cut into a particular shape /design
( showing the direction of folding )( X,Y,&Z). Identify from the set of
answer figures (A,B,C,D) the correct figure which represents the
design that the paper have after it’s unfolded.
B7.
The four alternative figures on the right side (A, B, C & D) when
folded along the dotted line will form the figure on the extreme left.
Identify the correct figure from the right that will form the extreme
left figure when folded along the dotted line.
B8.
Identify the building
1 Victoria memorial 2 Vidhan soudha
3 Rashtrapati bhavan 4 Jan tar mantar
B9.
Identify the monument

1 Teen darwaza 2 Buland darwaza
3 India gate 4 Gateway of India
B10.
Identify the Structure
1 Bahai temple 2 Brila mandir
3 Iskcon temple 4 Bal mandir
PART C (each question 3 marks)
C1.
Left hand side problem figure shows the view of an object. Identify
correct elevation as indicated by arrow.
C2.
Left hand side problem figure shows the view of an object. Identify
the correct top view.
C3.
Left hand side problem figure shows the top view of an object.
Identify the correct front view.
C4.
Which of the right hand side answer figures is the correct mirror
image of the left hand side problem figure?
C5.
Find out the total number of surfaces of the object shown below.
Test – II – Drawing (100 marks)
PART A (50 Marks)

Imagine that you are inside a ticket counter of a cinema hall issuing
tickets, and sketch the view of the people lined in the Queue as seen
from inside the counter by you
PART B (25 Marks)

Compose a visually appealing composition with squares and circles
using minimum of three and not more than six each, and color the
composition with primary colours
PART C (25 marks)

Make an interesting three dimensional composition using three
cubes and two cones, showing the effect of light and shadow of the
composition

Mca Model Questions 2010

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Mca Model Questions 2010

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Mca Model Questions 2010

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

What are some examples of questions asked in the document?

What are some examples of questions asked in the document?

What are some examples of figures/diagrams given in the document?

What are some examples of figures/diagrams given in the document?

MCA – MODEL QUESTIONS

2. Which one of the following fraction is the smallest?

7. The least perfect square number divisible by 3,4,5,6 and 8 is

8. If v5 = 2.236, then the value of 1/v5 is

12. If 5v5 x 53 ÷5-3/2 =5 a+2 , then the value of a is

23. If TAP is coded as SZO, then how is FREEZE coded?

24. If ROSE is coded as 6821,CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as

II. Fill in the Blanks

34. 3:11::7 :…?

35. Find the wrong number in the series:3,8,15,24,34,48,63 ?

41. Which word does NOT be long with the others?

42. Which word does NOT be long with the others?

43. Which word does NOT be long with the others?

44. Which word does NOT be long with the others?

45. Which word does NOT be long with the others?

Others, 10% Tennis, 10% Tennis

VI. Ch oose the odd pair of words.

56. (a) BCD (b) KMN (c) QRS

57. (a) POCG (b) KLIZ (c) BUDX

58. (a) CZHK (b) MLAG (c) XUBU

59. (a) BDGK (b) JLOS (c) NPSW

60. (a) PH3 (b) XD6 (c) JB5

Mark your answer as:

61. Human beings are the natural prey of tigers

63. Old age propels tigers to take to man eating.

64. Quality of mangoes is an important factor in exports

65. The state also exports good quality grapes.

IX. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions

(a) If only as sumption I is implicit

69. His recent investment in the shares of company A is only a ga mble.

X. In each question below is given two statemen ts followed by two conclusions

a) if only conclusion I follows

71. All roa ds are waters. Some waters are boats.

74. No bat is ball. No ball is w icket.

75. Some men a re educated. Educated persons prefer small families.

(a) If only argument I is strong,

77. Should there be a ban on product advertising?

79. Should shifting agriculture be practiced?

80. Is pen mightier than a sword?

XII. Choo se the Synonym for th e given words .

XIII . Choose the A nto nym for the give n words.

XIV. Fill in the blanks with the su itable words given.

a) Traditionalists b) Pragma tists

97. '.BAK' extension refers usually to wha t kind of file?

a) Backup file b) Audio file

98. The letters, "DOS" st and for...

a) Data Out System b) Disk Out System

99. How many bits is a byte?

MCA ENTRANCE EXAMINATIO N – MAY 2010

Question Paper Pattern

3. Logical Reasoning ( Sequences )

4. NON-VERBAL REASONING TEST

5. VERBAL REASONING - COMPREHENSION EXERCISE

6. VERBAL (Synonyms and antonyms)

7. Basic Knowledge of Computers