1. One theory of carcinogenesis is ONCOGENE.

This theory suggests that carcinogenesis causes

mutations in cellular DNA and that there are
stages of carcinogenic process. These stages are:
A. INITIATION,PROMOTION,
PROGRESSION, METASTASIS
B. POINT
MUTATION,
DELETION,
INSERTION
C. INVASION and METASTASIS
D. G1 phase, SYNTHESIS phase, G2 phase,
MITOTIC phase
2. Mr. Romy, a 42 year old patient complains of
extreme fatigue and weakness after his 1 st week
of radiation therapy. Which of the following
responses by the nurse would best reassure him
A. This symptoms usually result from
radiation therapy; however, we will continue
to monitor your laboratory and x-ray
studies
B. These symptoms are part of your disease
and cant be helped
C. This is a good sign. It means that only the
cancer cells are dying
D. Dont be concerned about these symptoms.
Everybody feels this way after having
radiation therapy
3. Which of the following statements about
carcinogens is INCORRECT?
A. Promoter substances do not cause cancer in
the absence of previous cell damage and
often require high level and long term
contact with the altered cell
B. Several viruses have been associated with
development of cancer. They damage cells
and induce hyperplastic cell growth
C. Natural substances in the body may also be
carcinogenic or promotional. For example,
ineffectively eliminated bile acids from high
fat diet
D. None of the above
4. Which set of classification values indicates the
most extensive and progressed cancer?
A. T1 N0 M0
C. T1 N1 M0
B. Tis N0 M0
D. T4 N3 M1
5. For a patient who is receiving chemotherapy,
which laboratory results are of particular
importance?
A. WBC
C. Electrolytes
B. PT and PTT
D. BUN
6. Which of the following is an environmental
factor that increases the risk of cancer?
A. Gender
C. Immunologic status
B. Nutrition
D. Age

7. A client is newly diagnosed with cancer and is

beginning a treatment plan. Which of the
following nursing interventions will be most
effective in helping the client to cope?
A. Assume decision making for the client
B. Encourage strict compliance with all
treatment regimens
C. Inform the client for all possible adverse
treatment effects
D. Identify available resources
8. A clinical Instructor is lecturing about
characteristics of malignant neoplasms and
benign neoplasms. Which of the following
statements is incorrect?
A. Benign tumors are frequently encapsulated
while malignant tumors are not
B. Benign tumors grow slowly and often
remain stable in size while malignant tumors
are characterized by rapid cell division and
growth
C. Benign tumors can be destructive if they
crowd surrounding tissues and obstruct the
function of organs
D. Malignant cancer cells can be highly
undifferentiated such that undifferentiated
cells try to mimic the specialized function of
the parent tissue
9. This is one of the major treatment modalities for
cancer. It uses high energy emitting isotopes to
kill cancer cells. It causes the breakage of one or
both strands of the DNA molecule inside the
cells, thereby preventing their ability to grow
and divide.
A. Chemotherapy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Photodynamic therapy
D. Radiation therapy
10. Which of the following needs further teaching in
client receiving chemotherapy?
A. Used of normal saline in buccal mucosa
B. Using a manual razor
C. Minimizing intrusive procedures
D. Avoiding crowds and contact sports
LUNG CANCER
11. The most common type of lung cancer in males,
in females and non-smokers which account to
40% of all lung tumors is:
A. Oat cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Large cell carcinoma
D. Adenocarcinoma
12. What is the most important risk factor for lung
cancer?
A. Exposure to environmental/ occupational
carcinogens
B. Family history of lung cancer
C. Cigarette smoking

D. Diet rich in fats

13. Which of the following statements made by the
client with a new diagnosis of lung cancer would
indicate that the nurses teaching has been
effective?
A. Well, since Im going to die anyway, I may
as well go home, put my affairs in order and
spend the rest of my time in my easy chair
B. I understand that because the cancer has
already spread, I will be undergoing
aggressive treatment for the next several
years to beat this thing
C. Even though I cannot undo the damage
caused by cigarette smoking, I will try to
quit to prevent further damage to my lungs
D. Having the big C is very scary, Im just
glad it is one of the more curable forms of
cancer.
14. Bronchogenic cancers are capable of producing
paraneoplastic syndromes as a result of secretion
of substances by the primary tumor or its
metastases. A patient diagnosed with Small
Lung Cell Carcinoma (SCLC) displays muscle
weakness of the shoulders, arms, thighs and
pelvis. She also complained of having dry mouth
and double vision. You explain to the patient
that:
A. It is a result of ectopic secretion of ACTH
by the malignant cells
B. He is manifesting a paraneoplastic syndrome
called SIADH
C. He developed Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic
Syndrome (LEMS), an autoimmune disease
as result of his cancer.
D. It is associated with periostitis of long bone
and clubbing of fingers and toes, symptoms
of
Hypertrophic
Pulmonary
Osteoarthropathy.
15. A patient is scheduled for bronchoscopy and is
asking about the procedure and how it is done.
The correct response to the patient is:
A. You will be conscious and awake during
the procedure
B. Fiber optic bronchoscopy requires 5-10
minutes to complete
C. No food or beverage restrictions before and
after the procedure
D. Voice hoarseness and a sore throat are
common following the procedure
16. Stage 4 Lung cancer can be described as:
A. T4 N1 M0
C. T4 N3 M1
B. T4 N3 M0
D. T0 N0 M1
17. A patient is diagnosed with Stage 3B Non small
cell lung carcinoma, which of the following
management can be expected?
A. Surgery
+
Radiation
therapy
+
Chemotherapy
B. Radiation therapy + Chemotherapy
C. Surgery + Chemotherapy
D. Surgery + Radiation therapy
18. A pneumonectomy is a surgical procedure
sometimes included for the treatment of Non

small cell Lung carcinoma. A pneumonectomy

involves removal of:
A. An entire lung field
B. A small, wedge- shaped lung surface
C. One lobe of a lung
D. One or more segments of a lung lobe
19. The incidence and risk of lung cancer
development increases when smoking is
combined with what risk factor?
A. Asbestos exposure and alcohol consumption
B. Ultraviolet radiation exposure and alcohol
consumption
C. Asbestos exposure and ultraviolet radiation
exposure
D. Alcohol
consumption
and
human
papillomavirus infection
20. The client with Lung cancer is receiving
chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia.
The nurse identifies which intervention as the
highest priority in the nursing plan of care?
A. Ambulation 3 times a day
B. Monitoring temperature
C. Monitoring the platelet count
D. Monitoring for pathological fractures
21. The nurse is caring for a client experiencing
hematologic toxicity as a result of
chemotherapy. The platelet count is 10,000
cells/mm3. Based on this laboratory value, the
priority nursing assessment is which of the
following?
A. Assess level of consciousness
B. Assess temperature
C. Assess bowel sounds
D. Assess skin turgor
22. A nurse is monitoring a client for signs and
symptoms related to superior vena cava
syndrome. Which of the following is an early
sign of this oncological emergency?
A. Peri - orbital edema
C. Mental status
changes
B. Arm edema
D. Cyanosis
23. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a
tentative diagnosis of bronchogenic tumor in the
left lung area. The physicians admission orders
include sending the sputum specimen to the
laboratory for cytology, scheduling a
bronchoscopy and pulmonary function test.
Cytologic examination of the patients sputum is
done to the determine the presence of:
A. Mucus casts
C. Malignant cells
B. Blood cells
D. Pathogenic
bacteria
24. A 62 year old male is dying from metastatic lung
cancer, and all treatments have been
discontinued. The clients breathing pattern is
labored with gurgling sounds. The clients wife
asks the nurse, Can you do something to help
with his breathing? Which of the following is
the nurses best response in this situation?
A. Direct the unlicensed personnel to assess the
clients vital signs and provide oral care

B. Suction the client so that the clients wife

knows all interventions were performed
C. Reposition the client, elevate the head of the
bed and provide a cool compress
D. Explain to the wife that dying clients do not
need suctioning.
25. The nurse prepares instructions for a client who
developed
stomatitis
following
the
administration of antineoplastic drugs. The nurse
tells the client to:
A. Rinse the mouth with baking soda or saline
B. Avoid foods and fluids for the next 24 hours
C. Swab the mouth daily with lemon and
glycerin swab
D. Brush the teeth and use waxed dental floss 3
times a day
BREAST CANCER
26. What is the most common type of invasive
breast cancer which accounts 75% of all cases?
A. Infiltrating lobular Carcinoma
B. Medullary Carcinoma
C. Infiltrating Ductal Carcinoma
D. Tubular Ductal Carcinoma

pain. The most appropriate nursing assessment

of the clients pain would include which of the
following?
A. The clients pain rating
B. The nurses impression of the clients pain
C. Nonverbal cues from the client
D. Pain relief after appropriate nursing
intervention
32. What is the most common site of breast cancer?
A. Lower outer quadrant
B. Upper inner quadrant
C. Lower inner quadrant
D. Upper outer quadrant
33. The nurse is instructing a group of clients about
breast self examination. The nurse would
instruct the clients to perform the examination..
A. At the onset of menstruation
B. 1 week after menstruation begins
C. Every month during ovulation
D. Weekly at the same time of the day
34.

27. The nurse is teaching a client about the risk

factors associated with breast cancer. The nurse
determines that further teaching is necessary if
the client identifies which of the following as an
associated risk factor?
A. Nulliparity
C. Multiple pregnancies
B. Hormonal therapy D. Radiation exposure
28. The nurse is performing an admission
assessment on a client diagnosed with Pagets
disease. The nurse asks the client about the
characteristic symptom of this type of breast
cancer?
A. Peau d orange
B. Lymphedema of the affected arm
C. With a clear nipple discharge
D. Scaly, erythematous, pruritic lesion of the
nipple
29. The American Cancer Society recommends a
baseline mammography for all women, what
specific age does a woman should undergo such
diagnostic procedure?
A. 20-39 years old
C. 60-65 years old
B. 40-45 years old
D. 70 years old and
above
30.

The client reports to the nurse that when

performing breast self examination, she found a
lump, the size and shape of a pea. The most
appropriate response to the client is which of the
following?
A. Thats important to report even though it
might not be serious
B. That should be cancer, Ill ask the doctor to
examine you
C. Let me know if it gets bigger next month
D. Lumps like that are normal, dont worry

31. The nurse is caring for a client with Stage 3b

breast cancer. The client is complaining of acute

The nurse is caring for a client following a

modified radical mastectomy. Which assessment
finding would indicate that the client is
experiencing a complication related to the
surgery?
A. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt
drain
B. Pain at the incision site
C. Complaints of decreased sensation on the
operative site
D. Arm edema on the operative side

35. The nurse is caring for a client following a

radical mastectomy. Which of the following
nursing interventions would assist in preventing
lymphedema of the affected arm?
A. Placing cool compress on the affected arm
B. Elevating the affected arm on a pillow above
heart level
C. Maintaining an intravenous site below the
antecubital area on the affected side
D. Avoiding arm exercises in the immediate
postoperative period
36. The nurse knows that early manifestations of
breast cancer may include which of the
following?
A. Simple, painless, non-tender, hard, irregular
mass
B. Multiple lumps, tender, soft movable mass
C. One large nodule, tender, soft movable mass
D. Very small painless, multiple movable soft
mass
37.

The nurse knows that women most at risk to

develop breast cancer are:
A. Over 65 years of age, married, younger than
18 at first pregnancy
B. Over 55 years of age, never married with a
family history of cancer
C. Over 65 years of age, married, multiple sex
partners at a young age
D. Over 40 years of age, never married with a
family history of lung cancer

38. A female client with carcinoma of the breast is

admitted to the hospital for treatment with
intravenously administered Vincristine. The
client tells the nurse that she has been told by
her friends that she is going to lose all of her
hair. The most appropriate nursing response is
which of the following?
A. You will not lose all you hair
B. You friends are correct
C. Hair loss may occur, but it will grow back
just as it is now
D. Hair loss may occur, and it will grow back,
but it may have different color or texture
39. The nurse is monitoring the laboratory results on
a client receiving an antineoplastic medication
by the intravenous route. The nurse plans to
initiate bleeding precautions if which laboratory
result is noted?
A. A WBC of 5,000 cells u/L
B. Platelet count of 50,000 cell/ Ul
C. Clotting time of 10 minutes
D. An ammonia level of 20 mcg/dl
40. Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with
metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse
administering the medication understands that
the primary action of this medication is to:
A. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis
B. Compete with estradiol for binding to
estrogen in tissues containing high
concentrations of receptors
C. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen
response
D. Promote biosynthesis of nucleic acids
LYMPHOMAS, LEUKEMIAS
41. A positive diagnosis of hodgkins disease
depends on:
A. Enlarged, firm, and painful lymph node
B. Histologic analysis of an enlarged lymph
node
C. Progressive anemia
D. The presence of a generalized pruritus
42. Which of the following individuals is at high
risk of developing Hodgkins disease
A. A 20-year-old male who had mononucleosis
B. A 55-year-old female who had herpes
simplex infection
C. A 50-year-old man who is taking
cyclosphorin for an autoimmune disorder
D. A 60 year-old farmer
43. Hodgkins lymphoma and non-Hodgkins
lymphoma are most clearly distinguished from
each other by:
A. The initial presentation
B. The specific cell type
C. The Ann Arbor classification system
D. The extra nodal site of involvement
44. A client diagnosed with stage 2 Hodgkins
disease asks the nurse about his prognosis. The
most appropriate response by the nurse is:

A. Most people with HD eventually die from

their disease.
B. Chemotherapy is a sure cure for this
illness.
C. Most individuals with early Hodgkins
disease survive.
D. Lets wait and see.
45. A client with Hodgkins disease is staged at
IIE1. The nurse knows this means there
A. Are two or more nodes on the same side of
the diaphragm plus 1 extranodal
involvement
B. Is involvement of a single lymphoid
structure plus 2 extranodal involvement
C. Are nodes on both sides of the diaphragm
with portal involvement
D. Are nodes on both sides with para-aorta
involvement
46. Systemic symptoms that indicate aggressiveness
of the lymphoma and are called B symptoms
are:
A. Fever, night sweets, pain, intentional weight
loss
B. Fever, chills, night sweats
C. Bleeding, fatigue, respiratory infections
D. Fever, night sweats, unintentional weight
loss
47. A client diagnosed with stage 2 lymphoma is
with hepatomegaly and edema on the lower
extremities. This may indicate that a lymph node
is putting pressure on the:
A. Superior vena cava C. Subclavian vein
B. Splanchnic nerves D. Billiary tree
48. Which of the following activities will increase
the risk for infection to a patient with
lymphoma?
A. Going to church
B. Taking a walk in the park
C. Cleaning the house
D. Watching television
49. A client is having difficulty coping with her new
diagnosis of lymphoma. Which response by the
nurse is most helpful
A. Dont worry, youll be okey.
B. The treatments you are receiving will
make you feel better soon.
C. Who do you usually go to when you are
having problem?
D. Have you made end-of life decisions?
50. A client who just had chemotherapy is
complaining of painful spastic episodes of
muscle contraction. Which electrolyte imbalance
causes this occurrence?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia

C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia with indolent type of nonHodgkins
51. Which of the following statement is true with
indolent type of non-Hodgkins lymphoma?
A. Clients have longer survival rates
B. Clients are more responsive to
chemotherapy
C. T- lymphocytes are usually affected
D. Combination of radiotherapy and
chemotherapy are used to treat the client
52. Just like chemotherapy, systemic effect is
expected in clients undergoing radiotherapy
A. True
C. False
53. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is the
least applicable to a patient with lymphoma
A. Risk for infection related to altered immune
response
B. Pain related to enlarged lymph node
C. Body image disturbance related to lymph
adenopathy in the cervical area
D. Fatigue related to hypermetaboloc state
54. A nurse caring for a client with HD must know
the stage of the disease
A. To be able to focus assessment on the
compromised organ
B. To be able to participate in the treatment and
medical management
C. To know the prognosis of the disease
condition
D. To be able to evaluate patients condition
55. When a client has acute leukemia, this means
that:
A. There are more blast cells than normal cells
B. The number of WBCs is greatly increased
C. The number of WBCs is decreased
D. There is decreased number of RBCs
56. Nursing documentation of a client with
neutropenia reads, there are several diffuse red,
fluid-filled lesions on the lips, tongue, and
buccal region. This finding may indicate the
client has
A. Candidiasis
B. A normal response to chemotherapy
C. infectious mononucleosis
D. Herpes infection
57. A client receiving chemotherapy has a platelet
count of 40,000. She is having pain and is
prescribed Tylenol suppository per rectum. An
appropriate action by the nurse is to:
A. Administer the drug as prescribed
B. Have the medication be changed to Demerol
IM
C. Request that she be placed on a morphine
drip
D. Have the medication prescription be
changed to a PO route

58. Multiple drugs are primarily used in

combinations to treat leukemia and lymphoma
because
A. There are fewer toxic and side effects
B. The chance that one drug will be effective is
increased
C. They can interrupt cell growth at multiple
points in the cell cycle
D. They are more effective without having
exacerbating effect
59. Nursing interventions for the client with
bleeding tendency would include:
A. Administering enteric-coated aspirin
B. Observing for petechiae and
ecchymoses
C. Assessing jugular vein distention
D. Administering ferrous sulfate daily
60. Which of the following would be an
inappropriate item to include in planning care
for a patient who is high risk for infection?
A. Transfuse granulocytes to prevent infection
B. Exclude raw fruits from the diet
C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories
D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in
the clients room
61. Which of the following interventions should be
implemented in caring for a patient whose CBC
reveals: WBC 5000/mm3, Hgb 11.8 g/dl,
thrombocytes 9000/mm3?
A. Cough and deep breath every 4 hours to
prevent infection
B. Platelet transfusion to maintain platelet
count above 20,000/mm3
C. Plan activities to conserve energy
D. Stool softener as needed to prevent
constipation
For #62 66 select from the following:
A. AML
C. ALL
B. CML, ,
D. CLL
62. Common in children?
63. There is a large number of immature
granulocytes
64. There is a large number of well differentiated
but small white blood cells
65. Most common type of leukemia after the age 50
66. It has a blastic phase
67. A definitive diagnostic/laboratory result for
leukemia is:
A. CBC and differential count
B. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
C. Bone marrow biopsy
D. Bone CT Scan
68. Which of the following is correct about the
consolidation phase of chemotherapy?
A. The combination of chemotherapeutic
agents is changed

B. Its goal is to shock the bone marrow to stop

cancer cells from duplicating
C. It is a series of treatment of low doses of
chemotherapeutic agents
D. It is a single dose of high doses of
chemotherapeutic agents
69. Administration of G- CSF to leukemic patients
is considered:
A. Palliative
C. Supportive
B. Curative
70. The most common cause of death for leukemic
patients is:
A. Hemorrhage
B. Infection
C. Spread of leukemic cells
D. The chemotherapeutic agents
Prostate Cancer
71. After a transurethral resection, the nurse notices
that the clients urine is bright red, has numerous
clots, and is viscous. The appropriate nursing
action is to:
A. Call the physician immediately
B. Irrigate the catheter
C. Force fluids
D. Add fluid to the balloon end of the urinary
catheter
72. A client developed retrograde ejaculation after
prostate surgery. In responding to the clients
questions regarding this complication, the nurse
would be aware that:
A. This condition is usually temporary
B. The problem can be repaired surgically
C. This condition is a risk of surgery
D. The client will not be able to experience
orgasm
73. The nurse caring for a neutropenic, 75 year old
man undergoing treatment for prostate cancer
assesses a temperature of 380C. The most
appropriate interpretation of these findings is:
A. The client is experiencing the expected
increase in metabolism that often
accompanies malignancy
B. The client may have a urinary tract infection
causing a low-grade fever
C. A systemic chemotherapeutic effect is
probably occurring
D. A medical emergency may be occurring, and
prompt further assessment is needed
74. The doctor inserts an indwelling urinary catheter
to relieve urine retention for patient with
prostate cancer. Which nursing action would
maintain the system drainage potency?
A. Restricting fluids to 500 ml per day
B. Taping the catheter to the inner aspect of the
thigh
C. Positioning the tubing with dependent loops
D. Keeping the drainage bag below the bladder
level

75. The fourth day after undergoing transurethral

resection of the prostate, the doctor removes the
patients indwelling urinary catheter. Later that
day, the patient complains of wetting himself.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Advise the patient to contract his perineal
muscles periodically
B. Restrict the patients fluid intake
C. Apply condom catheter
D. Suggest that the patient should void as the
void comes
76. Mr. Daryl is diagnosed with prostate cancer
requiring surgical intervention (TURP). Which
of the following nursing actions would be most
appropriate when preparing Mr. Daryl for
surgery?
A. Reassure the patient that the result of the
surgery will probably positive
B. Provide activities that distracts the patient
from worrying about the surgery
C. Encourage the patent and his family to
express fears and concerns about the surgery
D. Tell the patient not to worry about being
apprehensive because all patients experience
such feelings
77. A nurse has provided instructions to a client
receiving external radiation therapy. Which of
the following statements by the client would
indicate a need for further instruction regarding
self care related to the radiation therapy?
A. I need to avoid exposure to sunlight
B. I need to wash my skin with a mild soap
and pat dry
C. I need to apply pressure on the irritated
area to prevent bleeding
D. I need to eat a high protein diet
78. A cardinal symptom of prostrate cancer is:
A. A soft movable mass
B. Hard fixed nodules palpated on rectal
examination
C. Velvety red ulcerative lesion
D. Painless enlargement of the testes
79. Chemotherapy is being used for cancer clients to
intervene and interrupt the:
A. Blood flow to the cell
C. Cell cycle
B. Effect of radiation D. Apoptosis
80. A client with a Prostate Specific Antigen of 3
ng/ml is considered to have:
A. With risk of developing cancer
B. Indicates presence of prostate cancer
C. Prostate biopsy as prescribed by the
physician
D. No risk of prostate cancer

81. A client tells the nurse that on discharge

following the clients transurethral resection, his
wife is going to drive him to his daughters
house 3 hours away. The nurses most
appropriate response would be:
A. Im glad you have someone to help you.
B. During the drive, be sure to stop every hour
to void.
C. Try to limit fluid intake before the drive to
avoid problems
D. Long drives should be avoided for at least 2
weeks. Can an alternative plan be
arranged?
82. For a client with radioactive iodine seeds
implanted for local control of a prostate tumor,
the nurse would address radiation precautions
by:
A. Treating all urine as radioactive
B. Limiting time spent with the client
C. Isolating the client while the implants are
intact
D. Stating that no special precautions are
necessary
83. Considering the potential long-term side effects
of a radical prostectomy, the nurse would make
the nursing diagnosis of:
A. Risk for Sexual Dysfunction
B. Social Isolation
C. Impaired Urinary Elimination
D. Deficient Fluid Volume
84. The patient wants to remove the indwelling
catheter used for urinary bladder irrigation and
ask the nurse when to remove the catheter. The
nurse best response is which of the following?
A. When there is lesser output
B. Pain sensation is very important to
consider before removing the catheter
C. When the drainage appears clear t light
pink
D. When there is no sign of bladder
distention
85. Which of the following nursing intervention is a
priority to patient undergoing internal radiation
therapy?
A. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake
B. Providing bedside care regularly
C. Instruct the client for bed rest and teach the
client to avoid bearing especially during
urination
D. Limit visitors
UTERINE CANCER
86. The nurse reminds a post hysterectomy client
that until permitted by the physician, the patient
should avoid:
A. Abdominal strengthening exercise
B. Early ambulation
C. Riding a car
D. Walking for short distances

87. Nursing care of the client with radioactive

implants to treat endometrial cancer would
include:
A. Positioning the client to high fowlers
position
B. Daily enemas to clear colon of contents
C. High protein, high fat diet to repair
radiated tissues
D. Bed rest
88. The nurse teaches skin care to the client
receiving external radiation therapy. Which of
the following statements, if made by the client,
would indicate the need for further instruction?
A. I will handle the area gently
B. I will avoid the use of deodorant
C. I will limit sun exposure to 1 hour daily
D. I will wear loose-fitting clothing
89. Which of the following is classified as an
alkylating agent?
A. Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)
B. Cytoxan (Cyclophospamide)
C. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)
D. Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
90. A client with uterine cancer will undergo
internal radiation of intracavitary cessium.
Which of the following is important for the
nurse to remember when utilizing radiation
precautions?
A. GSD guarding, shielding and timing
B. STD shielding, timing and distance
C. ABS assessment, blocking and shielding
D. DDD drug, diet and diversional activities
True or False:
91. The best treatment for uterine cancer is
hysterectomy.
A. True
B. False
92. The most common site for uterine cancer
metastasis is the adjacent organs such as the
ovary and the cervix and the pelvic bone area.
This is usually treated with TAHBSO and
Chemotherapy.
A. True
B. False
93. One of the common causes of uterine cancer is a
hormonal imbalance that causes abnormal
hyperplasia of the uterine wall as a result of
unopposed estrogen function.
A. True
B. False
94. Clinical findings of endometrial polyps mostly
asymptomatic in nature but may presents
intermenstrual bleeding (metrorrhagia).
A. True
B. False
95. Luteinizing hormone and estrogen are hormones
responsible for ovulation and proliferation of
uterine wall which is believed to cause abnormal
hyperplasia of the uterus.
A. True
B. False
96. Papanicoulau test is used to screen patient with
cervical cancer.
A. True
B. False

97. Regular palpation of the abdomen is

contraindicated to patient suspected with uterine
cancer.
A. True
B. False
98. Myomectomy/hysterectomy is only being done
to clients with uterine cancer G1.
A. True
B. False
99. Clients undergone hysterectomy must take
hormone supplements to ensure prevention of
early menopausal signs and symptoms.
A. True
B. False

100.
Hormone therapy for patients with
uterine cancer is being given for advance case of
uterine cancer.
A. True
B. False
I have been impressed with the urgency of doing.
Knowing is not enough; we must apply. Being willing is
not enough; we must do.
- Leonardo Da Vinci